Abnormal Psychology, 10e Ronald Comer, Jonathan Comer (Test Bank All Chapters, 100% Original Verified, A+ Grade) Answers At The End Of Each Chapter Chapter 1
1. Psychological abnormality may include deviance, distress, dysfunction, and danger. First, explain what these terms mean regarding psychological abnormality. Second, provide an example of a time when each aspect of abnormality would not be considered abnormal. 2. Suppose a friend says to you, “I feel overwhelmed today, and I don't know why. You're taking abnormal psych—what do you think?” If, after a conversation, your friend feels better about things, have you provided psychological therapy? Why or why not? Include the essential features of therapy in your answer.
3. What is demonology? How does demonology stand in the way of a more complete understanding of the causes and treatment of psychological abnormality?
4. Discuss the contributions of three individuals to the treatment of abnormal psychology. Include the time period and location where each lived. Also include how this person's contributions helped shaped current views and treatments for abnormal behavior.
5. Create a timeline on which you place five major events in the history of abnormality. Briefly describe why each event is important to an understanding of abnormality.
6. Define and contrast the somatogenic and psychogenic perspectives regarding abnormal psychological functioning. Provide at least one example of evidence supporting each perspective.
7. Assume that Benjamin Rush and Dorothea Dix suddenly appeared in the twenty-first century, approximately 50 years after the U.S. policy of deinstitutionalization began. What would they think about our treatment of those persons with mental illness? Which suggestions might they make for changes in our policy of deinstitutionalization?
8. According to your textbook, deinstitutionalization has resulted, in part, in large numbers of people with severe psychological disturbances either becoming homeless or ending up in jail or prison. Is deinstitutionalization an ethical and appropriate strategy for the treatment of mental illness that the United States should continue to follow? Back up your answer with specific examples.
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9. Increasingly, people seeking treatment for mental health reasons are insured by managed care programs. How are managed care programs changing how psychological services are provided? Discuss one advantage and one disadvantage of such programs.
10. Clinical psychologists, psychiatrists, and clinical researchers are mental health professionals who work in the area of psychological abnormality. Describe what each does and how they differ from one another.
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Answer Key 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
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1. The stated and unstated rules that a society establishes to govern proper conduct are referred to as _____.
2. In the definition of abnormality, behavior characterized as different from the norm is described as _____.
3. When a person experiences anxiety to the point of feeling misery, this represents the aspect of the definition of abnormality called _____.
4. When a person's feelings or behaviors interfere with his or her daily routines, this represents the aspect of the definition of abnormality called _____.
5. If a person considers attempting suicide, this represents the aspect of the definition of abnormality called _____.
6. Although some clinicians refer to the person they are treating as a patient, others refer to the person as a(n) _____.
7. The procedure that a priest or other powerful person might perform to drive evil spirits from a person is called _____.
8. _____ believed that abnormal behavior was caused by brain pathology that was a consequence of an imbalance in the four humors of the body.
9. During the Middle Ages, a person who believed that he or she was possessed by wolves and other animals was said to be suffering from _____.
10. The treatment for mental illness espoused by French physician Philippe Pinel and English Quaker William Tuke was called _____ treatment by their contemporaries.
11. The view that physical causes are at the root of mental illnesses is called the _____ perspective.
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12. According to the _____ perspective, psychological causes are at the root of mental illness.
13. The psychoanalytic view of causes of abnormal and normal behavior fits into the _____ model.
14. A major development in the treatment of the mentally ill was the introduction of _____ medications.
15. The reduction in the number of people housed in mental hospitals in the last 40 years can be attributed to a trend called _____.
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Answer Key 1. norms 2. deviance 3. distress 4. dysfunction 5. danger 6. client 7. exorcism 8. Hippocrates 9. lycanthropy 10. moral 11. somatogenic 12. psychogenic 13. psychogenic 14. psychotropic 15. deinstitutionalization
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1. A person who systematically gathers information so as to describe, predict, and explain abnormality is called a clinical: A) mentalist. B) legalist. C) scientist. D) practitioner.
2. If a person wants a career focused on detecting, assessing, and treating abnormal patterns of functioning, that person should look into becoming a clinical: A) practitioner. B) researcher. C) historian. D) statistician.
3. Which statement is the MOST accurate conclusion about the current state of abnormal psychology in the United States? A) There is no single definition of abnormality, no single theoretical understanding of the causes of mental illness, and no single best treatment. B) We do know what mental illness is, but we do not understand what causes it or the best way to treat it. C) We have not advanced much beyond the demonology era. D) Today, we understand what causes mental illness and how best to treat it; we can also define it.
4. Commonly accepted features of abnormality include deviance, distress, dysfunction, and: A) danger. B) docility. C) delusions. D) deference.
5. The MOST accurate summary of the field of abnormal psychology at the present time is that clinical psychologists generally: A) accept one definition of abnormality and practice one form of treatment. B) do not accept one definition of abnormality but practice one form of treatment. C) accept one definition of abnormality but practice more than one form of treatment. D) do not accept one definition of abnormality and practice more than one form of treatment.
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6. The stated and unstated rules for proper conduct that a society establishes are referred to as: A) norms. B) culture. C) morality. D) conventions.
7. The history, values, institutions, habits, skills, technology, and arts of a society make up that society's: A) laws. B) norms. C) culture. D) conventions.
8. Behavior that violates legal norms is BEST described as: A) deviant and criminal. B) distressful and criminal. C) deviant and psychopathological. D) distressful and psychopathological.
9. A school-age child is disrespectful and rude to her mother at a family outing. The MOST accurate description of this behavior is: A) deviant. B) criminal. C) dangerous. D) psychopathological.
10. Deviant behavior is behavior that: A) is illegal. B) violates the society's norms. C) is dangerous to self or others. D) causes dysfunction in the individual's life.
11. Aggressive behavior would NOT be viewed as abnormal behavior in a: A) society that values independence. B) culture that emphasizes competitiveness. C) family that has experienced a traumatic event. D) person who has exhibited this behavior since early childhood.
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12. Which depressed person would be the LEAST likely to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, because of the specific circumstances present? A) Someone whose mother was depressed B) Someone whose community was recently destroyed by a hurricane C) Someone who was experiencing a chemical brain imbalance D) Someone who also had an alcohol use disorder
13. If a person experienced anxiety or depression following a significant natural disaster, we would say that the person was: A) suffering from a mental illness. B) deviant but not dangerous. C) exhibiting a typical reaction. D) statistically deviant.
14. Which of these individuals would be MOST likely to be classified as exhibiting abnormal behavior? A) A person who experiences grief immediately after losing her job and then her house B) A person who is nervous about shopping alone for weeks after being attacked by a mugger C) A person who always washes his hands immediately after returning home from grocery shopping D) A person who engages in multiple checking rituals each day and consequently is unable to hold down a job
15. Which statement about deviant behavior is TRUE? A) What is defined as deviant can change over time. B) What is considered deviant behavior is the same across all cultures. C) Deviant behavior is a precursor to psychologically abnormal behavior. D) People who engage in deviant behavior are always unaware that their behavior is deviant.
16. Morgan hears voices that others do not but is not distressed by them. This illustrates that: A) distress must always be used to determine abnormality. B) behavior that is not really dangerous can never be considered abnormal. C) distress does not have to be present for a person's behavior to be considered abnormal. D) behavior that is not distressful is not abnormal.
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17. People who engage in frenetic, manic activity may not experience distress. Their behavior is: A) nevertheless considered abnormal. B) not abnormal because abnormality requires distress. C) illegal but not abnormal. D) no longer considered abnormal but was considered abnormal in the past.
18. Which statement about distress is TRUE? A) Distress is a subjective experience. B) Distress is always considered abnormal. C) Distress is more common in women than in men. D) Distress is always characterized overt, observable signs.
19. An individual has a 9-to-5 job. However, this person seldom gets up early enough to be at work on time and expresses great distress over this behavior. This individual's behavior would be considered abnormal because it is: A) disturbed. B) deviant. C) dysfunctional. D) dangerous.
20. Which aspect of the definition of abnormality includes the inability to care for oneself and work productively? A) Distress B) Deviance C) Dysfunction D) Danger to self or others
21. Which person would NOT be considered abnormal, despite the fact that the person's behavior is dysfunctional? A) Someone who is too confused to drive safely B) Someone who parties so much that he or she cannot go to class C) Someone who goes on a hunger strike to protest social injustice D) Someone who cannot stay alone for even one night
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22. Just a few decades ago, a woman's love for racecar driving would have been considered abnormal. This statement illustrates that: A) abnormal thinking centers on fear. B) abnormality can be situational. C) everyone is a little eccentric. D) women are labeled as “abnormal” more frequently than are men.
23. When behavior prevents a person from participating in ordinary social interactions, that behavior is said to be: A) deviant. B) dangerous. C) distressing. D) dysfunctional.
24. A person who is having suicidal thoughts and can see no reason for living BEST fits which definition of abnormality? A) Deviance B) Distress C) Danger D) Dysfunction
25. A Secret Service agent steps in front of the president of the United States, prepared to be killed or injured if the president's safety is threatened. Psychologically speaking, the Secret Service agent's behavior is: A) functional but psychologically abnormal. B) functional and not psychologically abnormal. C) dysfunctional and psychologically abnormal. D) dysfunctional but not psychologically abnormal.
26. Research shows that danger to self or others is found in: A) all cases of abnormal functioning. B) most cases of abnormal functioning. C) some cases of abnormal functioning. D) no cases of abnormal functioning.
27. Despite popular misconceptions, most people with psychological problems are not: A) dysfunctional. B) dangerous. C) distressed. D) deviant.
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28. According to Thomas Szasz's views, the deviations that some call mental illness are really: A) mental illness. B) problems in living. C) caused by one's early childhood experiences. D) eccentric behaviors with a biological cause.
29. A researcher spends 15 hours or more each day conducting experiments or doing library reading and recording observations on color-coded index cards. This person lives alone in the country but doesn't interfere with others' lives. The BEST description of the researcher's behavior is that it is: A) eccentric. B) abnormal. C) dangerous. D) dysfunctional.
30. College students who drink so much that it interferes with their lives, health, and academic careers are often not diagnosed as engaging in abnormal behavior because: A) the behavior is not illegal. B) they are just considered eccentric. C) they don't harm anyone but themselves. D) drinking is considered part of college culture.
31. Using the four Ds to define abnormal behavior: A) allows us to create diagnoses that are clear-cut and not debatable. B) allows us to eliminate those who are merely eccentric. C) allows us to include those who experience no distress. D) is still often vague and subjective.
32. Lady Gaga and other eccentrics are usually not considered to be experiencing a mental illness because: A) they are not deviant. B) they freely choose and enjoy their behavior. C) they are dangerous only to others, not to themselves. D) while they are distressed by their behavior, others are not.
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33. Which is NOT a characteristic of eccentrics noted by researchers in the field? A) Disinterest in others' lives B) Having a diagnosable mental illness C) Being creative D) Being a poor speller
34. Studies show that eccentrics are more likely than individuals with mental disorders to say: A) “I feel like my behavior has been thrust on me.” B) “I'm different, and I like it.” C) “I am in a lot of pain, and I suffer a great deal.” D) “I wish I were not so 'unique.'”
35. According to Jerome Frank, all forms of therapy have three essential features: a sufferer who seeks relief, a trained and socially accepted healer, and a(n): A) clinical diagnosis. B) period of remission. C) acceptance of a higher power. D) series of contacts between the sufferer and the healer.
36. Arvind is feeling overwhelmed at work and has been having anxiety episodes for a few weeks. Acting on the advice of a friend, Arvind takes a vacation and feel less distress. Is this an example of therapy? A) Yes, a person in distress took action and felt relief. B) Yes, a person sought relief, obtained advice, and acted upon that advice. C) No, there is no trained healer in this scenario. D) No, the sufferer felt some relief but there is no mention of the episodes resolving the problem permanently.
37. A theorist who sees abnormality as a problem in living usually refers to those seeking help with problems in living as: A) pupils. B) patients. C) trainees. D) clients.
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38. A theorist who views therapists as teachers of more functional behavior and thought is MOST likely to view abnormality as a(n): A) illness. B) spiritual issue. C) a problem in living. D) developmental disorder.
39. Which statement BEST defines treatment? A) It is a procedure that cures an illness. B) It is any process that provides relief to a sufferer. C) It is a process that aids the person in developing functional coping skills. D) It is a procedure designed to change abnormal behavior into more normal behavior.
40. It is thought that people in prehistoric societies believed abnormal behavior resulted from: A) advancing age. B) a person not having a soul. C) evil spirits that invaded the body. D) a state of being disconnected from the Earth and nature.
41. The ancient operation in which a stone instrument was used to cut away a circular section of the skull is called: A) exorcism. B) shaman. C) couvade. D) trephination.
42. Ancient societies commonly treated abnormal behavior by: A) committing the affected persons to asylums. B) providing moral treatment. C) performing an exorcism. D) changing the diet.
43. A person seeking help for a psychological abnormality is made to drink bitter herbal potions and then submit to a beating, in the hope that “evil spirits” will be driven from the person's body. This form of “therapy” is called: A) exorcism. B) shaman. C) couvade. D) trephination.
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44. A person being treated by a shaman would MOST likely be undergoing: A) psychoanalysis. B) a tarantella. C) community-based treatment. D) an exorcism.
45. Hippocrates believed that treatment for mental disorders should involve: A) releasing evil spirits trapped in the brain. B) bringing the four body humors back into balance. C) punishing the body for its sins. D) giving control over to a higher power.
46. Hippocrates' contribution to the development of understanding mental illness was the view that such conditions were the result of: A) stress. B) natural causes. C) brain pathology. D) spiritual deviations.
47. Hippocrates thought that abnormal behavior resulted from an imbalance in the four humors, one of which was: A) water. B) lymph gland fluid. C) phlegm. D) cerebrospinal fluid.
48. Hippocrates attempted to treat mental disorders by: A) hypnotizing patients. B) chaining patients to walls. C) correcting underlying physical pathology. D) encouraging patients to speak about past traumas.
49. Luther experiences unshakable sadness. His friends have stopped trying to cheer him up because nothing works. An ancient Greek physician would have labeled his condition: A) mania. B) hysteria. C) delusions. D) melancholia.
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50. Which approach was LEAST likely to be used by an ancient Greek physician to treat someone believed to be suffering from an imbalance of the humors? A) Exercise B) Lobotomy C) Bloodletting D) A change in diet
51. The ancient Greeks might find that a flash mob is MOST similar to: A) mass madness. B) melancholia. C) trephination. D) general paresis.
52. In the Middle Ages, the model of mental illness that MOST people believed in was the: A) moral model. B) medical model. C) psychogenic model. D) demonology model.
53. Which statement is NOT a reason that demonology dominated views of abnormality in Europe in the Middle Ages? A) The power of the clergy increased greatly. B) The Church rejected scientific forms of investigation. C) The Church controlled education. D) Overall health during this period was slowly improving.
54. The Middle Ages condition of mass madness referred to a large group of people who: A) believed that God does not exist. B) had borderline personality disorder. C) shared delusions and hallucinations. D) engaged in violent criminal acts against others.
55. A condition that people in the Middle Ages included in the general term mass madness was: A) leprosy. B) epilepsy. C) lycanthropy. D) melancholia.
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56. Tarantism and lycanthropy are examples of: A) exorcism. B) mass madness. C) physical pathology causing mental illness. D) disorders that were treated with trephination.
57. St. Vitus' dance, characterized by people suddenly going into convulsions, jumping around, and dancing, was also known as: A) lycanthropy. B) melancholia. C) phlegmatism. D) tarantism.
58. Those MOST often in charge of treating abnormality in the Middle Ages in Europe were: A) physicians. B) nobility. C) peasants. D) clergy.
59. Toward the end of the Middle Ages, cities began to flourish. How did this help foster a shift away from demonology? A) City officials made it illegal to teach demonology. B) Government officials took over care for the mentally ill. C) Government officials began to treat the mentally ill as criminals. D) The mentally ill were run out of cities and left to take care of themselves.
60. The individual considered to be the founder of the modern study of psychopathology is: A) Hippocrates. B) Johann Weyer. C) Dorothea Dix. D) Emil Kraepelin.
61. Johann Weyer was a physician in the: A) 1200s. B) 1500s. C) 1700s. D) 1800s.
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62. In the fifteenth century, pilgrims in Europe who sought “psychic healing” would have been MOST likely to go to: A) Bethlehem Hospital in London. B) Gheel, Belgium. C) La Bicítre in Paris. D) Athens, Greece.
63. The textbook authors describe the treatment of mental illness in the early 1600s as a forerunner to community mental health programs because: A) local residents provided housing, food, and companionship to the mentally ill. B) asylums were created to provide long-term care for those persons with mental illness. C) government officials enacted laws to protect the rights of those persons with mental illness. D) those persons receiving care for mental illness were required to “give back” in the form of community service.
64. In the early asylums, treatment for mental illness began with the intention to provide: A) harsh treatment. B) good care. C) religious therapies. D) psychogenic therapy.
65. In many areas in the mid- and late 1500s, asylums such as Bethlehem Hospital in London became: A) shrines. B) tourist attractions. C) sheltered workshops. D) centers of moral treatment.
66. What is the most famous characteristic of Bethlehem Hospital, founded in London in 1547? A) Popularly called ”Bedlam,” it came to represent deplorable conditions for patients. B) It was the first asylum founded by Hippocrates. C) It was founded by Henry VIII as a place to house his numerous ex-wives. D) It was the first asylum where the moral treatment of patients was practiced.
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67. The asylums of the 1500s were originally: A) churches and parishes. B) privately owned homes. C) hospitals and monasteries. D) prisons and government offices.
68. Why did many of the asylums in the 1500s became virtual prisons over time? A) Overcrowding B) Food shortages during this period C) Research linking mental illness with crime D) Public outcry over the dangers of mental illness
69. Who brought the reforms of moral therapy to northern England? A) John Dix B) Joseph Gall C) William Tuke D) Benjamin Rush
70. The basis for moral treatment of asylum patients was the belief that: A) mental problems had a biological basis. B) demonology was a cause of mental illness. C) mental illness should be treated humanely and with respect. D) the cause of mental illness was immoral behavior.
71. Who brought the reforms of moral therapy to the United States? A) John Dix B) Joseph Gall C) William Tuke D) Benjamin Rush
72. The American schoolteacher who lobbied state legislatures for laws to mandate humane treatment of people with mental disorders was: A) William Tuke. B) Dorothea Dix. C) Clifford Beers. D) Benjamin Rush.
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73. Which development was part of the legacy of Dorothea Dix? A) Deinstitutionalization B) State mental hospitals C) Federal prisons D) Privatization of mental hospitals
74. Which was NOT a factor in the decline in the use of moral treatment and the rise in the use of custodial care in mental hospitals at the end of the twentieth century? A) The total lack of success of moral treatment B) Funding and staffing shortages C) Prejudice against poor, immigrant patients in hospitals D) The assumption that all patients could be fully cured with moral treatment
75. The moral treatment movement rapidly declined in the late nineteenth century because: A) prejudice against those with mental disorders decreased. B) fewer and fewer people were being sent to mental hospitals. C) all patients needing treatment had to be helped. D) hospitals became underfunded and overcrowded.
76. One factor that contributed to the decline of moral therapy was: A) it did not work for everyone. B) it was shown to be completely ineffective. C) too few patients were hospitalized. D) psychogenic drugs replaced it.
77. Hippocrates' model of mental illness can be described as: A) psychiatric. B) somatogenic. C) psychogenic. D) supernatural.
78. The fact that some people in the advanced stages of AIDS experience neurological damage that results in psychological abnormality supports which type of perspective about abnormal psychological functioning? A) Somatogenic B) Psychogenic C) Moral D) Deterministic
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79. The discovery of the link between general paresis and syphilis was made by: A) Benjamin Rush. B) Emil Kraepelin. C) Fritz Schaudinn D) Richard von Krafft-Ebing.
80. The finding that syphilis causes general paresis is important because it supports the idea that: A) mental patients should be deinstitutionalized. B) organic factors can cause mental illness. C) antibiotics cannot “cure” viral diseases. D) physicians should be the practitioners treating mental illnesses.
81. For those who hold the somatogenic view of mental illness, the best treatment setting for those with mental disorders would be a: A) community center. B) spa and retreat center. C) counselor's office. D) hospital.
82. Which statement LEAST supports the somatogenic view of abnormal behavior? A) Hypnotism has helped people give up smoking. B) Alcoholism tends to run in families. C) People with Lyme disease often have psychological symptoms. D) Most people with depression are helped with medication.
83. In the first half of the 1900s, biological treatments for mental illness: A) largely failed. B) were highly successful. C) were not evaluated for effectiveness. D) frequently worsened patients' conditions.
84. Physicians in the early to mid-1900s tried all of the following medical (biological) treatments for mental illness, EXCEPT: A) tooth extraction. B) hydrotherapy. C) tonsillectomy. D) electroconvulsive therapy.
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85. An initial negative consequence of the somatogenic perspective on abnormality was that: A) physicians began “overdiagnosing” people with mental illness. B) individuals with mental illness were often treated in a medical hospital. C) researchers did not explore other possible causes and treatments for mental illness. D) people interpreted this perspective to mean that mental illness was always passed on to offspring.
86. Eugenics sterilization reflects the _____ perspective on abnormality. A) somatogenic B) psychoanalytic C) cultural D) managed care
87. Eugenics had as its goal sterilization of people with mental disorders, a policy based on the idea that mentally ill people: A) could not provide a good environment for their children. B) were mentally defective (that is, developmentally delayed). C) reproduced at a rate higher than that of the general population. D) should not be allowed to pass on their defective genes.
88. The somatogenic treatment for mental illness that seems to have been MOST successful was the use of: A) psychosurgery. B) psychoanalysis. C) various medications. D) lobotomy.
89. Which event in the 1950s led to improvements in biological treatments for mental disorders? A) Discovery of psychotropic medications B) Development of advanced neurosurgical techniques C) Development of standardized screening tests for mental illness D) Improved understanding of the electrical system of the human body
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90. A theorist who believes that psychological factors are the primary causes of abnormal functioning adheres to the _____ perspective. A) Hippocratic B) somatogenic C) psychogenic D) demonologic
91. Syphilis is to the somatogenic approach as _____ is to the psychogenic approach. A) eugenics B) tarantism C) trephinism D) hypnotism
92. Friedrich Anton Mesmer became famous—or infamous—for his work with patients suffering from bodily problems with no physical basis. His patients' disorders are termed: A) somatogenic. B) hysterical. C) phlegmatic. D) bilious. 93. An otherwise “normal” person under the influence of hypnotic suggestion is made to bark, sit, and fetch like a dog. The occurrence of these “abnormal” behaviors lends support to which explanation for abnormality? A) Psychogenic B) Somatogenic C) Parthenogenic D) Schizophrenogenic
94. Which perspective was supported by the discovery that the symptoms of hysteria (e.g., mysterious paralysis) could be induced by hypnosis? A) Psychogenic B) Somatogenic C) Demonological D) Moral
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95. In what way did the experiments performed by Bernheim and Lièbault provide support for the psychogenic perspective of abnormality? A) Using hypnosis, they could produce artificial symptoms such as blindness in healthy subjects. B) Using small amounts of electrical current, they could induce “false” psychological problems in healthy subjects. C) Using biofeedback systems, they could reduce anxiety symptoms in subjects. D) Using guided imagery, they could cure patients with a variety of psychological disorders.
96. The early psychogenic treatment that was advocated by Josef Breuer and Sigmund Freud was: A) prayer. B) bloodletting. C) hypnotism. D) trephining.
97. Freud believed that all functioning, normal and abnormal, originates from: A) one's underlying biological makeup. B) unconscious psychological processes. C) the internal battle between good and evil. D) conscious internal drives and moral external forces.
98. Acquiring insight about unconscious psychological processes is a feature of: A) moral therapy. B) psychoanalysis. C) psychogenic therapy. D) all psychological therapy.
99. Psychoanalysis was developed as a form of: A) moral therapy. B) outpatient therapy. C) behavioral therapy. D) somatogenic therapy.
100. Psychoanalysis, as Freud developed it, was a form of what we now would call: A) mesmerism. B) outpatient therapy. C) community psychology. D) Kraepelinism.
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101. Which patient would be MOST likely to benefit from psychoanalytic treatment? A) Someone who needs to make profound behavioral changes very quickly B) Someone who has difficulty expressing ideas and feelings verbally C) Someone who is insightful and thinks clearly D) Someone who is severely disturbed and in a mental hospital
102. Which statement BEST describes the role of religion with regard to treatment of mental illness? A) Those who are religious reject nonspiritual means of treatment. B) Religious institutions were among the first to provide treatment for the mentally ill. C) Clergy have consistently advocated against scientific explanations for mental illness. D) Those who devoutly adhere to their religion believe in supernatural causes of mental illness.
103. Surveys have found that 43 percent of people today believe that mental illness is caused by: A) sinful behavior. B) lack of willpower. C) lack of self-discipline. D) something people bring on themselves.
104. If a person's primary symptom was excessive worry, the psychotropic drug MOST likely to be prescribed for that person would be an: A) antipsychotic. B) antidepressant. C) antibiotic. D) antianxiety medication.
105. People with severe mental illnesses are LESS likely to be _____ than they were 50 years ago. A) medicated with psychotropic drugs B) hospitalized in mental institutions C) homeless or in prison D) treated in outpatient facilities
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106. Which statement BEST reflects the impact of deinstitutionalization? A) Most people with severe disturbances are receiving treatment. B) Many people with severe disturbances are in jail or on the street. C) Care is now consistent, and there is no shuttling back and forth through different levels of care. D) Communities have been able to pick up the care of those with severe disturbances and provide effective treatment for most all of them.
107. A medical researcher develops a drug that decreases symptoms of depression and other mood disorders. This drug would be classified as: A) psychogenic. B) somatogenic. C) psychotropic. D) somatotropic.
108. Drugs designed to decrease extremely confused and distorted thinking are termed: A) antidepressants. B) antianxiety medications. C) mood stabilizers. D) antipsychotics.
109. Drugs that alleviate the symptoms of mental dysfunction by affecting the brain are called: A) psychedelics. B) antineurotics. C) psychotropics. D) psychophysiologicals.
110. Tanner is confused and usually thinks that he is a superhero. If his psychiatrist ordered medication, it would MOST likely be a(n): A) stimulant drug. B) antianxiety drug. C) antipsychotic drug. D) antidepressant drug.
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111. Jena is experiencing sadness, lack of energy, and low self-worth. The condition is chronic and severe. If her psychiatrist prescribed medication, it would likely be a(n): A) stimulant drug. B) antianxiety drug. C) antipsychotic drug. D) antidepressant drug.
112. Luna is taking a psychotropic medication. Which condition does she MOST likely have? A) Mood disorder B) Age-related disorder C) Developmental disorder D) Physical abnormality
113. Compared with the number of patients hospitalized in U.S. mental hospitals in the 1950s, the number of hospitalized patients today is: A) significantly less. B) slightly less. C) slightly more. D) significantly more.
114. One cause of the increase in homeless individuals in recent decades has been the: A) policy of deinstitutionalization. B) decrease in the effectiveness of medications. C) decrease in the use of private psychotherapy. D) move to the community mental health approach.
115. In the United States today, one is MOST likely to find a severely ill mental patient: A) in a mental hospital. B) on the street or in jail. C) receiving drug counseling in a shelter. D) in private therapy paid for by the state.
116. Hospitalized patients with mental illness who show symptom improvement while taking medications are likely to be discharged. Studies have shown that many of these patients: A) fail to make lasting recoveries. B) ultimately become a danger to others. C) are rehospitalized in less than six months. D) commit suicide after years of inadequate treatment.
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117. The approach to therapy for mental illness in which a person pays a psychotherapist for services is called: A) sociological therapy. B) the medical approach. C) private psychotherapy. D) the community mental health approach.
118. Which statement BEST reflects the current care for people with less severe disturbances? A) Many are treated by generalists who specialize in a number of different types of disorders. B) Private insurance companies are likely to cover outpatient treatment. C) It is difficult to find treatment for someone experiencing a “problem in living.” D) Private psychotherapy is available only to the wealthy.
119. Problems with marital, family, peer, work, school, or community relationships would be MOST similar to: A) the sorts of problems Freud treated. B) other problems in living. C) problems treated in specialized treatment centers. D) other problems treated with antipsychotics.
120. Researchers have shown that in a typical year in the United States, approximately _____ percent of people with psychological disorders receive clinical treatment. A) 15 B) 30 C) 45 D) 60
121. Suicide prevention, substance abuse treatment, and eating disorder clinics are MOST similar to which kind of market? A) Whole Foods, a large market that offers many different types of foods B) Sweet Cupcakes, a store that specializes in only one type of food C) Corner Market, a mom-and-pop store that carries rather old-fashioned foods D) New York Deli, a high-end market that serves only the wealthy
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122. According to surveys, about what proportion of adults in the United States receives psychological therapy for milder problems of living, such as work-related problems? A) 1 in 10 B) 2 in 10 C) 4 in 10 D) 6 in 10
123. A significant change in the type of care offered now compared to the era when Freud was practicing is that: A) fewer patients are suffering from anxiety and depression. B) fewer patients receive outpatient treatment. C) people are more likely to receive treatment for problems in living. D) there are fewer specialized programs focused on treating only one type of problem.
124. Efforts to address the needs of children who are at risk for developing mental disorders (babies of teenage mothers, children of those with severe mental disorders) are categorized as: A) positive psychology. B) psychoanalysis. C) eco-anxiety treatment. D) preventive.
125. A focus of many community mental health programs is: A) prevention. B) isolation. C) spiritual guidance. D) experimental treatments.
126. Which pair of words BEST describes the current emphasis in mental health? A) Prevention and positive psychology B) Promotion and public psychology C) Perfection and primary psychology D) People and professional psychology
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127. If a university had a first-year program designed to ease the transition from high school to college and to decrease the dropout rates, that program would have elements MOST similar to: A) mental health prevention programs. B) positive psychology programs. C) deinstitutionalization programs. D) outpatient therapy.
128. Efforts to help people develop personally meaningful activities and healthy relationships are a part of: A) eco-anxiety treatment. B) a somatogenic approach to treatment. C) the clinical practice of positive psychology. D) an eccentric's level of creativity.
129. A positive psychologist would MOST likely focus on: A) identifying the underlying biological cause of mental illness. B) teaching coping skills that can be used to manage stress. C) identifying the unconscious internal processes driving behavior. D) using biofeedback to control physiological responses to stressors.
130. A psychologist focuses on optimism, wisdom, happiness, and interpersonal skill. This psychologist is MOST likely a: A) psychoanalyst. B) positive psychologist. C) community mental health worker. D) rehabilitation specialist.
131. If a university had a program designed to help students achieve their full potential, physically, educationally, and spiritually, that program would have elements MOST similar to: A) mental health prevention programs. B) positive psychology programs. C) deinstitutionalization programs. D) outpatient therapy.
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132. Immigration trends and differences in birth rates among minority groups in the United States have caused psychological treatment to become more: A) hospital focused. B) multicultural. C) positive. D) dependent on the use of medications.
133. A person receiving multicultural therapy could expect all of these effects EXCEPT: A) greater sensitivity to cultural issues in therapy. B) a focus on the uniqueness of the issues faced. C) a focus on healthy feelings and actions rather than on problems. D) sensitivity to the traditions of that person's particular culture.
134. Which feature is NOT common in managed care programs? A) Limited pool of practitioners for patients to choose from B) Preapproval for treatment by the insurance company C) Ongoing reviews and assessments D) Patient choice in number of therapy sessions 135. “What the #%*$!! is going on? The insurance company says I have to stop my anger management program now!” The client who says this is MOST likely voicing concern about a: A) managed care program. B) private psychotherapist. C) community mental health agency. D) sociocultural resource center.
136. Critics of managed care programs for mental health services state that these programs: A) promote long-term dependence on therapists. B) do not support drug therapy as a form of treatment. C) focus too heavily on psychogenic causes of abnormalities. D) favor treatments whose results are typically shorter lasting.
137. Compared with physical disorders, insurance reimbursement for treatment of mental disorders prior to enactment of the Affordable Care Act was generally: A) nonexistent. B) lower. C) about the same. D) higher.
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138. Parity laws for insurance coverage of mental health treatment mandate that: A) physicians and psychologists must have the same level of education. B) coverage for mental and physical problems must be reimbursed equally. C) the number of sessions allowed for treatment of mental and physical treatment must be equal. D) patients must be allowed to choose the therapist they want for treatment.
139. Which statement about the various viewpoints of clinical psychology is TRUE? A) Various perspectives coexist, and they often conflict and compete with one another. B) Since the late 1950s, the biological perspective is the primary perspective taught in medical schools. C) Although many perspectives exist, the psychoanalytic perspective remains the dominant perspective in the field. D) Among the various perspectives, those most highly regarded are those based on the influence of external factors.
140. A physician who offers psychotherapy is called a: A) psychiatrist. B) clinical psychologist. C) psychodiagnostician. D) psychoanalyst.
141. After medical school, a psychiatrist receives three to four years of training in the treatment of abnormal functioning; this training is called a(n): A) residency. B) internship. C) practicum. D) community mental health tour.
142. One major difference between psychiatrists and clinical psychologists is that psychiatrists: A) went to medical school. B) must work in a medical setting. C) are allowed to practice psychotherapy. D) have more training in mental illness.
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143. Which statement is TRUE about the participation of women in the mental health professions? A) There are more female psychiatrists than female counselors. B) Women, as a group, prefer working in clinical settings. C) The profession with the highest percentage of women is social work. D) Female psychologists earn more than male psychologists.
144. The specialty that presently has the largest number of practitioners is: A) psychiatry. B) social work. C) psychology. D) counseling.
145. A person who works in a mental hospital analyzing various treatment protocols to see how multicultural factors impact success rates is MOST likely to be a: A) clinical researcher. B) clinical psychologist. C) psychiatrist. D) psychiatric social worker.
146. Which statement BEST describes the effect of technology on mental health? A) There is widespread consensus that technology causes deviant and dysfunctional behavior. B) Technology has eroded society's sense of community and people's desire to engage with others. C) There is no research-based evidence to support any connect between technology and mental health. D) Technology provides new triggers for abnormal behaviors.
147. Research suggests that one negative effect of adolescents using social media sites is that these sites may: A) increase peer pressure. B) encourage improper language skills. C) expose children to negative news stories. D) reward people for underperforming in school.
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148. The use of various technologies to deliver mental health services without the therapist being physically present is called: A) managed care. B) telemental health. C) self-help, or group help. D) community mental health.
149. Some mental health professionals are concerned about the increased availability of mental health information online. Which is NOT a reason for their concern? A) Not all of the information online is factual. B) Some sites promote unhealthy behaviors. C) These professionals are losing money as people turn to self-care. D) Numerous sites actively guide people away from seeking medical help.
150. Someone who studies the history of the field of abnormal psychology MOST likely would compare our current understanding of abnormal behavior to a book that: A) hasn't been written yet. B) has received a title but no text. C) is in the process of being written. D) is completed and needs only to be read to be understood.
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Answer Key 1. C 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. D 6. A 7. C 8. A 9. A 10. B 11. B 12. B 13. C 14. D 15. A 16. C 17. A 18. A 19. C 20. C 21. C 22. B 23. D 24. C 25. D 26. C 27. B 28. B 29. A 30. D 31. D 32. B 33. B 34. B 35. D 36. C 37. D 38. C 39. D 40. C 41. D 42. C 43. A 44. D
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45. B 46. B 47. C 48. C 49. D 50. B 51. A 52. D 53. D 54. C 55. C 56. B 57. D 58. D 59. B 60. B 61. B 62. B 63. A 64. B 65. B 66. A 67. C 68. A 69. C 70. C 71. D 72. B 73. B 74. A 75. D 76. A 77. B 78. A 79. D 80. B 81. D 82. A 83. A 84. D 85. D 86. A 87. D 88. C 89. A 90. C
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91. D 92. B 93. A 94. A 95. A 96. C 97. B 98. B 99. B 100. B 101. C 102. B 103. D 104. D 105. B 106. B 107. C 108. D 109. C 110. C 111. D 112. A 113. A 114. A 115. B 116. A 117. C 118. B 119. B 120. D 121. B 122. B 123. C 124. D 125. A 126. A 127. A 128. C 129. B 130. B 131. B 132. B 133. C 134. D 135. A 136. D
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137. B 138. B 139. A 140. A 141. A 142. A 143. C 144. B 145. A 146. D 147. A 148. B 149. C 150. C
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1. Which term is NOT used to describe behavior that is psychologically abnormal? A) Psychopathology B) Emotional disturbance C) Mental instability D) Mental illness
2. Which is NOT a role of a clinical practitioner in abnormal psychology? A) Research B) Detect C) Assess D) Treat
3. Which term was the earliest used to describe those persons whom we now refer to as mentally ill? A) Crazy B) Unbalanced C) Madness D) Unstable
4. Which statement is true about the four Ds of abnormality? A) Most clinicians agree on what qualifies under each of the four Ds. B) Every culture has generally identical criteria of what constitutes abnormality. C) An individual can be diagnosed with a mental illness only if all four Ds are present. D) None of the four Ds is, by itself, an adequate gauge of psychological abnormality.
5. Which term BEST completes this statement: Judgments of abnormality depend on _____ as well as on cultural norms. A) geography B) specific circumstances C) politics D) our health care system
6. Fallon is so anxious that the anxiety by itself causes her to suffer. Fallon's situation represents the aspect of the definition of abnormality called: A) deviance. B) distress. C) dysfunction. D) danger.
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7. Dexter is so afraid of open spaces that he cannot leave his house to go to work. This represents the aspect of the definition of abnormality called: A) deviance. B) distress. C) dysfunction. D) danger.
8. The belief that the concept of mental illness is actually invalid was advocated by: A) Carl Rogers. B) Jerome Frank. C) Thomas Szasz. D) Dick Gregory.
9. A trephine is MOST likely to be used by: A) a clinical psychiatrist. B) a clergyman in the Middle Ages. C) an ancient Greek physician. D) someone in the Stone Age.
10. One of the different mental disorders described by ancient Greeks and Romans was: A) melancholia. B) anorexia. C) dyspareunia. D) bulimia.
11. According to ancient views of abnormality, if a standard exorcism failed to rid a person of abnormal behaviors, which step would be taken? A) The shaman would perform a more extreme exorcism, such as whipping or starving the person. B) The person would be burned alive because he or she was believed to be “beyond saving.” C) The person would be cast out of the society with no means for survival. D) The person would be accepted by society as being a marked child of “God,” and the abnormal behavior would be celebrated.
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12. Those persons who suffered from the form of mass madness called lycanthropy may have believed themselves to be possessed by: A) bats. B) wolves. C) tigers. D) spiders. 13. Which term has come to mean “a chaotic uproar” and derived its name from a London hospital where mentally ill patients were treated in horrendous ways? A) Bedlam B) Hysteria C) Furor D) Turmoil
14. The work of Dorothea Dix led to the establishment of many _____ around the United States. A) psychiatric surgery centers B) asylums C) state hospitals D) clinical practices
15. General paresis, an irreversible disorder that causes physical and mental symptoms that include paralysis and delusions of grandeur, was found to be caused by: A) the HIV virus. B) tuberculosis. C) syphilis. D) gonorrhea.
16. The term eugenics refers to: A) a public policy of providing free medication to those persons who suffer from mental illness. B) a political policy of preventing those persons who suffer from mental illness from reproducing. C) a private policy of linking mental illness to religion for the purpose of promoting a different religion. D) the practice of diagnosing all patients with the same illness, regardless of symptoms, so that insurance companies will provide payment for services.
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17. The treatment mechanism associated with having a person sit in a dark room and then touching a troubled area of a patient's body with a special rod was: A) trephination. B) exorcism. C) mesmerism. D) hypnotism.
18. A driving force behind the policy of deinstitutionalization was: A) the decline of moral treatment. B) increasing support for the somatogenic perspective. C) resurgence of the Catholic Church's influence in the United States. D) the development of psychotropic drugs.
19. Before the 1950s, almost all outpatient care for psychological disturbances took the form of: A) hospitalization. B) private psychotherapy. C) treatment at community mental health centers. D) treatment by social services agencies.
20. Insurance parity laws are concerned with: A) government payment for mental health care. B) licensing health care providers. C) providing equal coverage for mental and medical problems. D) providing malpractice insurance for clinical mental health practitioners.
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Answer Key 1. C 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. C 9. D 10. A 11. A 12. B 13. A 14. C 15. C 16. B 17. C 18. D 19. B 20. C
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1. A person who gathers information systematically so that he or she may describe, predict, and explain the phenomena being studied is called a clinical: A) phenomenologist. B) scientist. C) practitioner. D) psychometrist.
2. Which is NOT one of the four Ds of abnormality? A) Deviance B) Danger C) Dread D) Dysfunction
3. Bella is a loner. She lives in a cabin in the woods with no running water or electricity. While she manages to survive this way, living so far from the closest city makes it difficult for her to get and keep gainful employment. She is often unhappy with her situation, yet feels it is unchangeable. Which term would NOT be used to describe Bella's behavior? A) Deviant B) Dysfunctional C) Dangerous D) Distressful
4. Pax has been feeling depressed. She has begun to feel helpless and hopeless and is considering committing suicide. Killing herself represents which aspect of abnormality? A) Deviance B) Dysfunction C) Danger D) Distress
5. According to research (Weeks, 2015) conducted on eccentric people, which statement is TRUE? A) They have fewer emotional problems than the general population. B) They know they are different and usually wish to be more like others around them. C) They visit their physicians, on average, once every three months. D) Most are unhappy, malcontented individuals who feel that life treats them very badly.
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6. A procedure designed to change abnormal behavior into more normal behavior is termed: A) assessment. B) treatment. C) remediation. D) psychodiagnosis.
7. Hippocrates believed that abnormal behavior was caused by: A) evil spirits. B) blood clots. C) a lack of sun exposure. D) imbalance in bodily fluids.
8. One of the most prominent forerunners to the modern community mental health program was located in: A) Belgium. B) Germany. C) Spain. D) England.
9. In the Middle Ages in Europe, people who suffered the bite of a wolf spider believed that the only way to rid themselves of the resulting symptoms was to do a dance called a: A) purificado. B) chastenette. C) tarantella. D) sanctifica.
10. Which German physician was the first to specialize in mental illness and is now considered the founder of the modern study of psychopathology? A) Wilhelm Wundt B) Hippocrates C) Sigmund Freud D) Johann Weyer
11. Which French physician was associated with asylum reform at La Bicítre? A) Jean Esquirol B) Philippe Pinel C) William Tuke D) Johann Weyer
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12. Someone who believes that abnormal psychological functioning has physical causes is said to have a _____ perspective. A) psychogenic B) somatogenic C) psychotropic D) moral
13. Someone who views the chief causes of abnormal functioning as psychological is said to have a _____ perspective. A) moral B) somatogenic C) psychogenic D) positive
14. Trying to correct the social conditions that give rise to psychological problems and identifying individuals who are at risk for developing emotional problems is known as: A) positive psychology. B) trephination. C) triage. D) prevention.
15. Today, the dominant form of insurance coverage for mental health patients is: A) Medicare. B) managed care. C) private insurance. D) Social Security.
16. A therapist has a client complete an exercise in which the person imagines a future where everything has worked out. The goal of the exercise is to increase that person's optimism. This therapist is practicing: A) psychoanalysis. B) gestalt psychology. C) positive psychology. D) humanistic psychology.
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17. At one time, reimbursements for mental disorders tended to be lower than those for physical disorders. Which of the following was a response to correct that? A) Multicultural psychology B) Deinstitutionalization C) Managed care organizations D) Parity laws
18. Before the 1950s, psychotherapy was offered only by: A) neurologists. B) hypnotists. C) psychiatrists. D) psychotherapists.
19. What percentage of current psychology graduate students are female? A) 40 percent B) 28 percent C) 74 percent D) 37 percent
20. The main difference between a psychiatrist and a psychologist is that: A) a psychiatrist is usually a psychoanalyst, whereas a psychologist is usually a behaviorist. B) a psychologist is a medical doctor, whereas a psychiatrist is a researcher who studies illnesses. C) a psychiatrist is a medical doctor who can provide therapy, whereas a psychologist can provide therapy but cannot prescribe medications. D) a psychiatrist works exclusively in hospitals, whereas a psychologist works exclusively in mental health clinics.
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Answer Key 1. B 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. D 8. A 9. C 10. D 11. B 12. B 13. C 14. D 15. B 16. C 17. D 18. C 19. C 20. C
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Chapter 2
1. What are important differences between case studies and single-subject experiments? Describe the advantages and disadvantages of each.
2. Which steps would a researcher take to analyze the collected data from a correlational study to determine whether a correlation exists and whether the correlation is positive or negative? Include in your answer a description of each type of correlation: unrelated, positive, and negative.
3. A major shortcoming of a correlational study is that even when a correlation between two variables is statistically significant, one cannot infer causation. For example, a significant correlation exists between life stress and depression, yet one cannot say for sure that life stress causes depression. Given this major shortcoming, what are some specific reasons one might still wish to conduct a correlational study, as opposed to an experimental study (from which one might infer a cause-and-effect relationship)?
4. Suppose a researcher found a strong positive correlation between college grade-point average (GPA) and self-esteem. Describe three possible and distinctly different causal explanations for this relationship.
5. Assume that a researcher wishes to do research designed to pinpoint early childhood events related to later development of eating disorders such as anorexia nervosa. Which type of investigation might the researcher use? What would be potential strengths and weaknesses of that type of investigation? Are there any ethical concerns the researcher ought to address?
6. A researcher is designing a study to compare school achievement in children whose mothers drank alcohol during pregnancy and children whose mothers did not drink alcohol during pregnancy. Briefly describe two ways the researcher could ensure that the study has good internal validity and two ways the researcher could ensure that it has good external validity.
7. Design an experiment to test the hypothesis that older women who take estrogen are less likely to develop Alzheimer's disease. Be sure to identify the control group, experimental group, independent variable, and dependent variable.
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8. A researcher wishes to use experimentation to study the effects of stress on the development of abnormal behaviors. Describe how the researcher might conduct that study, using either natural or analogue experiments.
9. Symptom-exacerbation studies and medication-withdrawal studies may be used to evaluate antipsychotic drug treatments for patients with psychoses. Which ethical issues are involved in each of these studies? Given these concerns, should researchers be allowed to perform these types of studies? Why or why not?
10. Which challenges might clinical scientists conducting research in abnormal psychology encounter? Briefly describe two challenges. Support your answers with examples of each.
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Answer Key 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
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1. Sound research in abnormal psychology uses the _____ method.
2. Clinical researchers form general, or _____, knowledge about the nature, causes, and treatments of abnormal behavior.
3. Clinical practitioners seek a(n) _____ understanding of human behavior.
4. A tentative explanation or hunch that provides a basis for study is a(n) _____.
5. The study design in which a researcher meets several times with a single research participant and interviews, tests, and physically evaluates that person to develop a detailed description of the person's life and psychological problem is called a(n) _____.
6. A study has _____ when it controls for all variables except the ones being investigated.
7. An investigation is said to have _____ when findings of the investigation can be generalized beyond the immediate study.
8. The direction of magnitude is expressed by the statistical term called the _____.
9. When the probability that a study's findings occurred due to chance are less than _____ percent, the findings are said to be statistically significant.
10. Correlations cannot be used to conclude that a(n) _____ relationship exists between two variables.
11. The type of study that allows a direct determination of a causal relationship between two variables is a(n) _____.
12. The nontreated or comparison group that is NOT exposed to the independent variable in an experiment is called the _____.
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13. If a participant does NOT know in which condition she is being tested, she is participating in a study with a(n) _____ design.
14. Studies that determine the incidence and prevalence of a disorder in a given population are called _____ studies.
15. When a researcher studies the same individuals on many occasions over a period of time, the investigation is referred to a(n) _____ study.
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Answer Key 1. scientific 2. nomothetic 3. idiographic 4. hypothesis 5. case study 6. internal validity 7. external validity 8. correlation coefficient 9. 5 10. causal 11. experiment 12. control group 13. masked 14. epidemiological 15. longitudinal
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1. A general understanding of the underlying nature, causes, and treatments of abnormal behavior is called: A) theoretical. B) nomothetic. C) idiographic. D) correlational.
2. A study of a single person that is used to explain the underlying causes or nature of abnormal behavior in that person is consistent with the _____ approach. A) theoretical B) nomothetic C) idiographic D) correlational
3. Clinical researchers are usually concerned with a(n) _____ understanding of abnormality, while practitioners focus on a(n) _____ understanding. A) nomothetic; idiographic B) nomothetic; nomothetic C) idiographic; idiographic D) idiographic; nomothetic
4. As opposed to clinical practitioners, who search for individualistic understanding of human behavior, clinical researchers search for general truths about abnormality. The approach of clinical researchers is described as: A) idiosyncratic. B) nomosynthetic. C) idiographic. D) nomothetic.
5. Which is the BEST example of the idiographic approach? A) A detailed study of one case B) A study of the most effective treatment for phobias C) A study of the relative frequency of horse and rat phobias among adults D) A review of all of a clinician's phobic patient cases
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6. A case study of a patient includes a history, tests, and interviews with associates. A clear picture is constructed of this individual so her behavior is understood. This approach is described as: A) nomothetic. B) idiographic. C) experimental. D) correlational.
7. If you were using the scientific method to conduct research in abnormal psychology, you would be seeking a(n) _____ understanding. A) idiographic B) epidemiological C) nomothetic D) theoretical
8. The goal of scientific research is BEST described as seeking to: A) prove cause and effect. B) advance the field of clinical medicine. C) explain relationships between variables. D) generate hypotheses that seek to answer global questions.
9. Which is NOT considered a research method? A) A case study B) A correlation C) An experiment D) A treatment plan for an individual
10. The idea that children from single-parent families show more depression than those from two-parent families is a(n): A) variable. B) experiment. C) correlation. D) hypothesis. 11. A person says, “I think the Red Sox win more games on Tuesdays than on any other day of the week.” Although this statement is not very scientific, it is a(n): A) research finding. B) hypothesis. C) example of a case study. D) research conclusion.
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12. The statement or prediction made about a potential causal relationship in a proposed study is called the: A) theory. B) hypothesis. C) conclusion. D) explanation.
13. The controversy regarding research with animals centers on the: A) rights of animals versus their usefulness in understanding human problems. B) financial cost of using animals versus the cost of research with humans. C) fact that animal research really doesn't contribute to human well-being. D) lack of standards for using animals in research.
14. Clinical researchers would NOT: A) assess individual clients. B) study the causes of a disease. C) conduct experimental studies. D) evaluate the effectiveness of various treatments.
15. In surveys assessing people's feelings about animal research, two-thirds of respondents report that animal research is: A) unacceptable under all circumstances. B) acceptable on deceased animals only, and only if the findings would contribute to improving the human condition. C) acceptable on rodents only, and only if measures are taken to limit the rodent's pain during experiments. D) acceptable for scientific research if there is no other way to obtain the data and unnecessary cruelty is avoided.
16. Which statement BEST describes the rights of animals with regard to animal research? A) Animals have no rights. B) Animal rights are secondary to human rights. C) Controversy surrounds what animals' rights should be. D) The federal government has defined animal rights in different situations.
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17. Surveys measuring people's feeling about animal research have reported that people are more comfortable with experiments that use: A) cats. B) monkeys. C) guinea pigs. D) mice or rats.
18. The impact of medical animal research is estimated to have increased human life expectancy by approximately: A) 6 years. B) 12 years. C) 18 years. D) 24 years.
19. Which statement is BEST describes medical animal research? A) It has positively contributed to human society but raises ethical questions. B) Because of the controversy surrounding its practice, it is no longer an acceptable means of scientific research. C) Although some research has led to improvements in human health, many of the findings are not applicable to humans. D) There are no guidelines regarding the use of animals in experiments, so researchers will continue to face backlash when using animals in research.
20. Freud's study of Little Hans is an example of a(n): A) case study. B) experimental study. C) matched design. D) correlational study.
21. A psychologist does a study of an individual involving a history, tests, and interviews of associates. A clear picture is constructed of this individual so her behavior is better understood. This study is a(n): A) longitudinal study. B) case study. C) experimental study. D) correlational study.
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22. Which is an example of a case study? A) A study involving use of a control group B) A long-term study of a clinical client C) A study of all the cases of a disorder in a community D) The creation of a disorder in a group of lab rats
23. Case studies are useful for: A) forming general laws of behavior. B) studying unusual problems. C) conducting scientific experiments. D) eliminating observer bias.
24. The case study MOST likely to be helpful in the study of abnormality would be one that included a well-tested, research-supported form of therapy used to treat a(n): A) common disorder. B) depression. C) substance abuse. D) uncommon disorder.
25. Which type of study is said to offer TENTATIVE support of a theory? A) An epidemiological study B) A study using the experimental method C) A correlational study D) A case study
26. Which statement describes a limitation of the case study? A) It does not result in high external validity. B) It does not lead to an individualized approach. C) It does not enable the therapist to understand the whole patient. D) It does not allow the therapist to propose a course of treatment for a patient.
27. Internal validity reflects how well a study: A) rules out the effects of all variables except those being studied. B) can be generalized to others that are not studied directly. C) appears to be measuring what it is designed to measure. D) predicts some future behavior.
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28. If a particular study of alcoholism failed to control for cultural patterns in drinking among participants, the study would have low: A) external validity. B) internal validity. C) face validity. D) natural validity.
29. The ability to generalize results from a study of certain individuals to other individuals not studied is called: A) construct validity. B) context validity. C) internal validity. D) external validity.
30. The term external validity refers to the extent to which the results of a study: A) rule out alternative explanations. B) reflect the manipulation of a single variable. C) apply to subjects and situations other than the ones studied. D) support the theory being tested.
31. A psychologist studies memory techniques in adult volunteers and learns how to facilitate memory. The psychologist then applies the results to a new class of students in a psychology course. This application demonstrates faith in the: A) internal validity of the study. B) external validity of the study. C) content validity of the technique. D) conceptual validity of memory.
32. One of the problems with animal research is the question of whether the results can apply to human beings. This is a question of: A) face validity. B) internal validity. C) external validity. D) content validity.
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33. If a study's findings generalize beyond the immediate study to other persons and situations, then the study has: A) external observer bias. B) internal observer bias. C) external validity. D) internal validity.
34. A therapist has created a new psychotherapy approach and initiates this treatment with a client. The therapist conducts a case study and publishes the results. Which factor is MOST likely to be present in this study? A) Observer bias B) Placebo effect C) Lack of informed consent D) High external validity
35. Which is NOT a feature of correlational and experimental research designs that contributes to nomothetic insights? A) Inclusion of many study participants B) Uniform application of research procedures C) Use of statistical tests to analyze the data collected D) Publication of both positive and negative findings
36. The interdependence that exists between events or characteristics is described as: A) matching. B) correlation. C) multivariable. D) clinical significance.
37. In correlational and experimental study designs, the sample consists of the: A) population whom the researchers are investigation. B) study participants. C) process of eliminating potential study participants. D) target group of participants to include in the study.
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38. A researcher finds that individuals who report large numbers of “hassles” in their lives usually also report higher levels of stress. Those who report fewer “hassles” generally report lower levels of stress. The correlation between number of “hassles” and stress level is: A) positive. B) negative. C) curvilinear. D) nonexistent. 39. “The heavier you are, the more food you are likely to eat.” If true, this statement expresses: A) no correlation at all. B) a causal relationship. C) a positive correlation. D) a negative correlation.
40. In a graph of a correlational study, the line of best fit: A) inevitably runs from the lower left to the upper right. B) is as close as possible to all points in the graph. C) allows the researcher to determine causality. D) has no meaning unless it is positive.
41. If you were to graph the relationship between the numbers of negative life events experienced in the past month and people's perceptions of stress, you would probably find a(n): A) vertical line. B) horizontal line. C) upward-sloping line (to the right). D) downward-sloping line (to the right).
42. If stress levels and physical health are negatively correlated, the researcher can conclude that: A) stress causes people to have poor health. B) as stress increases, health decreases. C) poor health causes people to experience stress. D) mental illness causes both stress and poor health.
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43. One factor in correlational research that contributes to high external validity is: A) inclusion of the full population. B) a focus on causation. C) application of statistical analyses. D) oversight by multiple researchers.
44. Correlation coefficients indicate the: A) magnitude and direction of the relationship between variables. B) cause-and-effect relationship between variables. C) internal and external validity between variables. D) significance and variability between variables.
45. Which correlation coefficient is of the highest magnitude? A) +.05 B) –.81 C) +.60 D) –.01
46. Which correlation coefficient represents the weakest relationship? A) –.95 B) –.06 C) +.30 D) +.54 47. If the correlation between severity of depression and age is –.05, it means that: A) older people have more severe depression. B) older people have less severe depression. C) younger people have almost no depression. D) there is no consistent relationship between age and severity of depression.
48. Which statement is TRUE regarding the correlation coefficient? A) It ranges from 0.00 to +1.00 and indicates the strength of the relationship between two variables. B) It ranges from –1.00 to +1.00 and indicates the strength and the direction of the relationship between two variables. C) It ranges from 0.00 to +1.00 and indicates the strength and the direction of the relationship between two variables. D) It ranges from –1.00 to +1.00 and indicates the strength of the relationship between two variables and the total variability of those measurements.
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49. A student says, “Quick! I have to take a test in two minutes. I need help remembering which kind of correlation coefficient shows a weak relationship between two variables.” Which answer will help this student? A) One that is statistically significant B) One that is close to minus one (–1) C) One that is close to zero (0) D) One that doesn't prove a causal relationship between the variables
50. Assume variables X and Y are correlated. A researcher would be able to make the MOST accurate predictions of scores on variable Y if the correlation between X and Y is: A) close to zero. B) +.45. C) –.53. D) –.88.
51. Which correlation is MOST likely to be statistically significant? A) +.85, based on a sample of 10 people B) –.08, based on a sample of 100 people C) +.35, based on a sample of 10 people D) –.80, based on a sample of 100 people
52. The major advantage of a correlational study over a case study is that it: A) allows us to determine causation. B) is more individualized. C) has better external validity. D) requires fewer participants.
53. A researcher finds a strong positive correlation between ratings of life stress and symptoms of depression. Therefore, the researcher may be confident that: A) life stress causes symptoms of depression. B) symptoms of depression cause life stress. C) something else causes stress and depression. D) life stress and depression are related.
54. Which is NOT a merit of the correlational method? A) It can be replicated. B) It can be analyzed statistically. C) Its results can be generalized. D) It provides individual information.
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55. A correlational study of college employees shows a strong positive correlation between self-reported stress levels and days of work missed for illness, allowing the researcher to conclude that: A) stress causes illness. B) illness causes stress. C) some other variable causes both increases in stress levels and illness. D) the researcher can make a fairly accurate prediction of days a person will miss for illness if the person's stress level is known.
56. Which statement is NOT a reason that correlational studies and experiments are preferred over case studies? A) Correlational studies and experiments offer rich details that make the results extremely interesting. B) They typically observe many individuals. C) They are more easily replicable. D) They use statistical tests to analyze results.
57. The correlational method and the experimental method are similar in that: A) both have external validity. B) both have internal validity. C) both have external validity and internal validity. D) neither has external validity or internal validity.
58. Unlike the correlational method and the experimental method, the case study provides: A) good replicability. B) external validity. C) individual information. D) internal validity.
59. Which question does the use of statistical analyses in research help answer? A) Where does bias exist? B) How likely is it that the study's findings occurred by chance? C) How many people will be directly affected by the study results? D) Which inclusion criteria should be applied when selecting participants?
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60. How can therapists use correlational research findings in their practice? A) Therapists can eliminate nonrelated conditions from the patient's assessment. B) Therapists can determine which related conditions are likely and assess for early signs. C) Therapists can statistically determine which patients will benefit from specific treatments. D) Therapists can employ preemptive therapy to prevent related conditions from developing.
61. Which is an aspect of the experimental approach? A) Use of confounding variables B) Observation of people over a period of time C) A detailed interpretive description of a subject D) The manipulation of a variable by the researcher
62. A research procedure in which a variable is manipulated and the manipulation's effect on another variable is observed is called a(n): A) case study. B) correlation. C) experiment. D) observational study.
63. In a scientific experiment, the variable manipulated or controlled by the experimenter is called the: A) confounding variable. B) alternative variable. C) dependent variable. D) independent variable.
64. A researcher randomly assigns young women with anorexia to one of two groups. Participants in group A receive psychotherapy and drug treatments; participants in group B receive attention (but no therapy) and a sugar pill. The researcher then compares participants in the two groups on relief of anorexia symptoms. This is an example of a(n): A) experimental study. B) natural experiment. C) correlational study. D) case study.
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65. In an experimental study evaluating the effectiveness of an antidepressant medication, one group of participants receives a sugar pill instead of the true medication. This is an example of a: A) medication-withdrawal study. B) symptom-exacerbation study. C) multiple-baseline study. D) placebo study.
66. Which potential ethical concern exists regarding placebo drug studies? A) The experimental group receives an untried medication. B) The placebo group receives no treatment at all. C) The placebo group receives another medication that may not be as effective. D) The experimental group is given medications to which the general population does not have access.
67. A study included 60 people who experience ordinary headaches. Of the participants, 20 received aspirin, 20 received a placebo, and 20 received nothing at all. In 65 percent of the aspirin group, the headache disappeared. In the other two groups, the “cure” rates were 35 and 5 percent, respectively. Other than the drug condition, the participants were treated identically. This study: A) demonstrates a double-masked design. B) is an experimental study. C) contains an important confound. D) has three dependent variables.
68. A researcher designed an experiment to study the causes of aggression in children. Half the children ate a sugared cereal; the other half ate cornflakes. The researcher then recorded the number of aggressive acts displayed by the children in a one-hour play period after breakfast. In this experiment, _____ is the dependent variable and _____ is the independent variable. A) sugared cereal; cornflakes B) the play period; the number of aggressive responses C) breakfast; the length of the play period D) the number of aggressive responses; cornflakes
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69. A psychologist was interested in the effect of hunger on psychological disturbances. The psychologist deprived half of a group of healthy volunteers of food for one day and fed the other half normally. The next day, all participants took the MMPI-2. What was the independent variable? A) The level of food deprivation B) The MMPI-2 C) The results on the MMPI-2 D) The length of time the psychologist controlled food intake
70. Dr. Huang required half of a group of healthy volunteers to study a reading passage for 1 hour. The other half of the participants studied for 15 minutes. Dr. Huang then administered a test of participants' memory of details from the passage. What was the dependent variable? A) The study time B) The memory test C) The reading passage D) The results of the memory test
71. In a study designed to test a new antidepressant, researchers randomly assigned a large number of psychiatric outpatients to one of two groups. Group A was given the active drug. Group B was given an identical-looking inert drug. Three psychologists independently used the Beck Depression Inventory to measure the participants' level of depression after two weeks. The independent variable in this study was the: A) drug. B) level of agitation. C) Beck Depression Inventory. D) assignment of the participants to groups.
72. Students were given a sensation-seeking test and then divided into two groups based on their scores. A researcher observed how many times students in each group got out of their seats over the course of 2 hours. The dependent variable is: A) number of times getting out of one's seat. B) scores on the sensation-seeking test. C) the group of students. D) the length of the observation period.
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73. Factors other than the independent variable may also act on the dependent variable. If these factors vary systematically with the independent variable, they are called: A) irrelevant. B) confounds. C) masked variables, D) random variables.
74. A research study on a group of children with autism will compare treatment delivered by parents at home to treatment delivered by teachers at school. If the study finds that the treatment delivered at school is more effective, which item is the BEST example of a confounding variable? A) The treatment B) The children C) The diagnosis D) Differences between the parents and teachers
75. One group of patients is treated with medication in a hospital. Another group is treated with the same medication on an outpatient basis. The diagnoses of the two groups of patients are equally serious. The BEST example of a confound in this study is the: A) characteristics of the hospital. B) type of medication given. C) seriousness of the diagnoses. D) level of improvement.
76. Researchers are examining the effects of listening to background music on the stress levels of truck loaders. Only experienced loaders are included in the study. During the morning shift, music is played. During the afternoon shift, no music is played. What is a potential confound in this experiment? A) Type of music played B) The playing of music C) The loaders' skill level D) The task being measured
77. One hundred psychiatric patients were randomly assigned to one of two groups. Group 1 received a new drug in pill form. Group 2 was given identical-looking placebo pills. A panel of psychiatrists, who did not know which pill each participant received, evaluated all participants for level of agitation. What could be a potential confound in this study? A) Having some seriously ill and some moderately ill patients in both groups B) Having all patients come from the same clinic C) Having the drug group be inpatients and the placebo group be outpatients D) Not previously testing the drug on primates
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78. The group of participants that is NOT exposed to the independent variable under investigation (in an experiment) is called the: A) control group. B) confound group. C) dependent group. D) experimental group.
79. A researcher randomly assigned participants to two groups. Group A received the drug whenever they reported depressive symptoms to the experimenter; group B received no drugs at any point. In this study, group A was the: A) experimental group. B) control group. C) correlational group. D) cross-sectional group.
80. When more than one research method produces similar results, researchers: A) are suspicious of the results. B) can have more confidence in the results. C) suspect that experimenter bias has occurred. D) conclude that the results are due to confounds.
81. A p value of less than .05 signifies that the findings are: A) clinically significant. B) statistically significant. C) not clinically significant. D) not statistically significant.
82. As a general rule, if the sample is large, the difference between the groups is large, and the range of scores within a group is small, then: A) the results are likely to be socially meaningful. B) the results are likely to be statistically significant. C) the results are likely due to chance. D) this is a triple-masked study.
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83. Imagine that a statistically significant result is found in a well-designed experimental research project without any confounding variables. The MOST appropriate conclusion would be that: A) the probability that the results were due to chance is more than 5 percent. B) differences in the dependent variable are likely due to the independent variable. C) causation by the independent variable cannot be assumed. D) the sample size was too small.
84. One hundred psychiatric patients were randomly assigned to one of two groups. One group received a new drug in pill form. The other group was given identical-looking placebo pills. A panel of psychiatrists, who did not know which pill each participant received, evaluated all participants for level of agitation. What is the control group? A) The new drug B) The level of agitation C) The participants who got the placebo D) The psychiatric evaluation
85. A person with an anxiety disorder receives treatment. Because of the treatment, the person's anxiety level is lower, but he still finds it almost impossible to live a normal life. For this person, the improvement in the anxiety disorder is: A) clinically significant. B) statistically significant. C) both clinically significant and statistically significant. D) neither clinically significant nor statistically significant.
86. The BEST way to select a random sample of 10 students from a class would be to: A) choose the first 10 who enter the classroom. B) choose the last 10 who leave the classroom. C) write each student's name on a piece of paper, put the papers in a pile, close eyes, and pick 10 papers. D) ask students their ethnicity, grade-point average, and academic major, and then be sure the sample reflects all of these student characteristics.
87. Not all participants are the same. Researchers use _____ to reduce the possibility that preexisting differences between groups are responsible for observed differences after experimental manipulation. A) a control group B) random selection C) random assignment D) an experimental group
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88. To accomplish random assignment, one could assign participants to groups by: A) placing all the participants sharing an important characteristic in the same group. B) making sure there is only one participant in each group. C) flipping a coin to determine group assignment. D) asking participants to choose the group they prefer.
89. One hundred psychiatric patients were randomly assigned to one of two groups. Group A received a new drug in pill form. Group B was given identical-looking placebo pills. A panel of psychiatrists, who did not know which pill each participant received, evaluated all participants for level of agitation. In this study, experimenter bias was reduced by: A) having experienced psychiatrists evaluate agitation. B) having researchers who don't know who got which pill. C) adding another placebo condition. D) adding a therapy group.
90. Shaun wants to be a good participant. He knows that his professor is an environmentalist, so his answers on the survey reflect a pro-environment position. This is an example of: A) subject bias. B) a placebo effect. C) random variation. D) experimenter bias. 91. A “fake” pill used as the control condition in a drug study is a: A) placebo. B) confound. C) random variable. D) dependent variable.
92. A researcher's expectations about a study can affect its outcome. The type of research design used specifically to address this problem is a(n): A) experiment. B) random-assignment design. C) matched control group design. D) masked design.
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93. A researcher trying to eliminate the Rosenthal effect would be sure to: A) use a masked design. B) use a quasi-experimental design. C) randomly assign participants to two groups. D) randomly assign participants to three or more groups.
94. The Rosenthal effect: A) is identical to the “placebo effect.” B) should be avoided by using a masked design. C) is found primarily in natural experiments. D) is found only in correlational designs.
95. In preparation for a study of the effectiveness of an antipsychotic drug, an assistant puts all drugs into capsules of the same color and codes them. The assistant will have no part in administering the drug. Neither the subjects nor the experimenter will know who receives which drug. This is an example of a: A) masked design. B) double-masked design. C) triple-masked design. D) quasi-experimental design.
96. A therapist believes so strongly in her approach that she finds improvement even when none exists. Which type of study design would prevent this problem? A) Longitudinal B) Double-masked C) Epidemiological D) Experimental
97. In an experiment on the effects of two new drugs on mood, patients, researchers, and those who are evaluating the mood of patients are all unaware of which drug the patients are getting. The study is _____-masked. A) single B) double C) triple D) quadruple
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98. A researcher is studying the effects of a new drug on anxiety. The researcher randomly assigns participants to either group 1, which receives the new drug, or group 2, which receives a placebo. The researcher delivers the new drug or placebo to each participant during the course of the study. This study is _____-masked. A) single B) double C) triple D) quadruple
99. The function of the double-masked design is BEST described as guarding against: A) participant and experimenter expectancies. B) imitation therapies. C) subject bias. D) the Rosenthal effect. 100. Which statement distinguishes a quasi-experimental study from a “pure” experiment? A) The quasi-experiment does not use a control group. B) The quasi-experiment uses multiple groups for comparison. C) The quasi-experiment does not use any experimental control. D) The quasi-experiment does not allow for manipulation of the independent variable.
101. One reason why psychologists may use quasi-experimental designs is that: A) these designs have very small potential for experimenter bias. B) these designs allow researchers to eliminate all confounds. C) psychologists have limited experience with other research designs. D) it would be unethical to manipulate certain variables in human participants.
102. To study some gender differences, a researcher selected a group of 10 men and 10 women and treated all participants exactly the same. Each participant was given a test of psychological function. This study is an example of a(n): A) experiment. B) double-masked design. C) correlational study. D) quasi-experimental study.
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103. Studies that are structured like experiments but that use groups that already exist instead of randomly assigning participants to control and experimental groups are called: A) matched designs. B) analogue experiments. C) correlational experiments. D) longitudinal studies.
104. A research team is studying the effect of rape on the development of a mood disorder. Included in the study are two groups: (1) women, ages 19 to 29, who filed rape charges against an attacker and (2) women, ages 19 to 29, who self-reported that they have never been raped. The women from both groups were from upper middle-class families. Which of the following is the MOST important factor in creating a matched control? A) Sex of the attacker B) Woman's age at the time of rape C) Whether the attacker was convicted D) Time of day when the attack occurred
105. Which phenomenon would MOST appropriately be studied using a quasi-experimental design? A) The effects of running and weight lifting on mood B) The effects of parents with schizophrenia on children's adjustment C) The effects of a parental training program on children's achievement D) The effects of a support group in helping people lose weight
106. If one were studying the hypothesis that people with high levels of stress are more likely to get cancer and wanted to include a matched control group, that group would: A) have low levels of stress. B) have high levels of stress. C) have cancer. D) not have cancer.
107. If researchers using matched control subjects find that abused children are sadder than nonabused children, those researchers know that: A) both groups of children showed equal levels of sadness before the study. B) the nonabused group differed from the abused group in many important ways. C) there were more girls than boys in the abused group because girls are more likely to be sad. D) abuse is probably what is causing the difference in sadness between these groups.
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108. The form of experiment used MOST often to study the psychological effects of unusual or unpredictable events is: A) natural. B) matched design. C) analogue. D) single-subject.
109. Natural experiments are considered quasi-experiments because: A) there is no control group. B) these studies have low external validity. C) participants are not aware that they are under study. D) participants are selected by accident rather than based on the researcher's design.
110. Which phenomenon would be LEAST appropriately studied using a natural experiment? A) The effects of premarital abstinence on later sexual functioning B) The effects of war on children in Syria C) The effects of a plant closing on community cohesiveness D) The effects of a particularly harsh blizzard on depression
111. Which would be the BEST design to study the effects of disasters on survivors? A) A clinical experiment B) An analogue experiment C) A natural experiment D) A double-masked design 112. “Why do we do natural experiments?” asks a student. “After all, each disaster that causes a natural experiment is unique.” A good answer would be: A) ”They are an inexpensive ways to gather detailed individualized data on disaster survivors.” B) ”They provide the highest levels of internal and external validity when studying the effects of disasters.” C) ”The sheer volume has allowed researchers to identify patterns of reactions in those persons involved in disasters.” D) ”The findings to date have been instrumental in helping prevent casualties from natural disasters.”
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113. Using natural experiments, researchers have learned quite a lot about: A) stress disorders. B) different kinds of schizophrenia. C) autism. D) bipolar disorder.
114. An example of an analogue experiment is: A) following human participants who lost their homes in a tornado, starting the day after the loss and observing their stress levels over time. B) having human participants live for a week in a simulated mental hospital to see how they respond. C) following a group of individuals with schizophrenia over a long period of time. D) following individuals within their natural environments and noting behavioral responses.
115. Which item is an analogue study? A) Studying children in their classrooms B) Studying the effects of stress in nonhumans C) Studying the effects of metaphors on memory D) Studying older adults in nursing homes
116. A researcher is interested in the effects of a new drug for treating anxiety. The researcher decides to study this phenomenon in rats by conditioning in them the fear of a high-pitched noise and then testing the rats' reactions with and without the drug. This is an example of a(n): A) natural experiment. B) analogue experiment. C) single-subject experiment. D) correlation.
117. To justify analogue experiments that use animals, researchers must: A) make the case that animals and humans are the same. B) avoid inducing excessive or unnecessary distress in the animals. C) ensure that the animals used in the experiment do not experience physical pain. D) guarantee rights to the animals that are equivalent to rights granted humans.
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118. Experimenters are generally willing to: A) subject humans to more pain than animals. B) subject animals to excessive pain. C) subject animals to more discomfort than humans. D) perform analogue studies with humans but not animals.
119. A major limitation of analogue experiments is that: A) they cannot be tested for reliability. B) they may have low external validity. C) the researchers cannot manipulate the independent variable. D) informed consent often is not obtained in these studies.
120. Seligman's study, in which he created learned helplessness in the laboratory, is an example of a(n) _____ study. A) analogue B) case C) epidemiological D) single-subject
121. If a researcher is unable to find many eligible participants for a study, he or she would MOST likely consider using a(n): A) natural experiment. B) correlational study. C) epidemiological study. D) single-subject experiment.
122. Which is the BEST example of baseline data in a single-subject design? A) How well the treated behavior generalizes to a non-treatment setting B) The level of the treated behavior at the immediate end of treatment C) How long the treatment is maintained D) The level of behavior before treatment begins
123. In single-subject experimental designs, the participant is observed and measured before the manipulation of an independent variable. During this initial observation period, the researcher is collecting: A) reversal data. B) baseline data. C) normalization data. D) standardization data.
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124. In an ABAB design study, a researcher is measuring the level of depression with and without the addition of an exercise program. What is the first “A” in the study? A) Healthy eating habits B) Exercise C) No exercise D) Depression
125. In an ABAB design study, a researcher is measuring the level of depression with and without the addition of an exercise program. What is the second “B” in the study? A) Healthy eating habits B) Exercise C) No exercise D) Depression
126. If a participant's self-stimulation is observed, punished, observed again without punishment, and punished again, the design is a(n): A) multiple baseline. B) analogue. C) correlation. D) ABAB reversal. 127. A student says, “The problem with single-subject experiments is that there is no control group, so you don't know if the treatment is effective.” The BEST reply is: A) “You're absolutely right.” B) “If you use a reversal design, then participants serve as their own controls.” C) “Researchers routinely include control participants along with the actual participants.” D) “You don't need controls; single-subject experiments are always double-masked.”
128. A clinician using an ABAB design to reduce the frequency of suicidal thoughts in a client finds that suicidal thoughts, the second “A” condition, remain as low as they had been at the end of the first “B” condition. The clinician can be reasonably sure that: A) suicidal thoughts have been permanently reduced. B) the independent variable is controlling the suicidal thoughts. C) the client is ready for additional forms of treatment. D) the independent variable is not controlling the suicidal thoughts.
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129. Which statement is true about case studies and single-subject designs? A) Single-subject designs have more internal validity. B) Single-subject designs have more external validity. C) Case studies have more external validity. D) Case studies have more internal validity. 130. “Isn't the ABAB design pretty much a case study?” asks a student. The BEST answer would be: A) “Yes.” B) “They're similar, but the ABAB design has greater internal validity.” C) “They're similar, but the ABAB design has greater external validity.” D) “They're not very similar, and the ABAB design has greater internal validity and greater external validity.”
131. The ABAB design is a type of: A) case study. B) developmental study. C) single-subject experiment. D) epidemiological experiment.
132. Imagine that a longitudinal study found that children raised by people with schizophrenia are more likely to commit crimes later. This result tells us that: A) children of people with schizophrenia are at higher risk for criminal behavior. B) children of people with schizophrenia inherit a “criminal” gene. C) criminal behavior in children causes the parents to develop schizophrenia. D) people with schizophrenia teach their children to become criminals.
133. If researchers studied Vietnam veterans for 30 years after the veterans' return from Vietnam, the study would be classified as: A) epidemiological. B) longitudinal. C) incidental. D) experimental.
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134. Researchers using a longitudinal study design observe: A) a single participant over the course of his or her lifetime. B) the same group of individuals on many occasions over a long period of time. C) two groups of demographically similar participants with the same condition over a long period of time. D) multiple groups of participants with the same condition at a single point in time, with each group being from a different age range.
135. Which study findings were MOST likely generated from an epidemiological study? A) The rate of suicide is higher in Ireland than in the United States. B) Autism is not caused by influenza vaccinations. C) Child abuse is often found in the backgrounds of individuals with dissociative disorders. D) Alcoholism runs in families.
136. The incidence of HIV-positive cases on campus tells you: A) a person's risk of becoming HIV positive. B) the number of new HIV-positive cases measured in a time period. C) the total number of HIV-positive cases at a given point. D) the on-campus HIV-positive rate compared to the national average.
137. The prevalence of sexual dysfunction in older men seen at a clinic tells you the: A) total number of older men with sexual dysfunction at the clinic. B) risk of a man developing sexual dysfunction. C) number of new cases of sexual dysfunction over a period of time. D) rate of sexual dysfunction in the community.
138. Studies that determine the incidence and prevalence of a disorder in a particular population are called: A) longitudinal studies. B) experimental studies. C) analogue studies. D) epidemiological studies.
139. The number of new cases of a disorder in a population that emerge in a particular time interval is called the: A) incidence. B) prevalence. C) correlation. D) epidemiology.
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140. Ten new cases of schizophrenia were diagnosed in a small town in the Midwest this week. This observation refers to the _____ of schizophrenia in this small population. A) risk B) incidence C) prevalence D) epidemiology
141. The total number of cases of a disorder in the population is called the: A) risk. B) incidence. C) prevalence. D) rate of occurrence.
142. The prevalence rate for a disorder will _____ the incidence rate. A) always be the same as B) always be higher than C) always be the same as or higher than D) always be lower than
143. Describing the number of cases of intellectual disability in the children of older mothers in 2015 would be a legitimate goal for a(n) _____ study. A) case B) experimental C) epidemiological D) longitudinal
144. The finding that American women have higher rates of anxiety and depression than American men do is MOST likely to be produced by _____ research. A) case study B) longitudinal C) analogue D) epidemiological
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145. If an epidemiological study shows that eating disorders are more common in Western countries than in Eastern countries, a researcher could conclude: A) that there are special pressures in Western countries that contribute to eating disorders. B) that Eastern countries have a less stressful approach to life. C) that adolescence is a more troubling time for children in Western countries than for children in Eastern countries. D) nothing about the cause of such a finding.
146. The major ethical concern with research on Facebook users is: A) there are not enough Facebook users to make the research worthwhile. B) Facebook users don't always know they are being studied. C) research projects have not been approved by universities where they are conducted. D) it is unethical to observe public behavior.
147. A researcher is considering whether to gather online data from Facebook users without informing the users that their data are being used. In terms of research ethics, which question is the MOST relevant? A) Are Facebook postings considered “public behavior”? B) Are Facebook users a random sample of whatever population is being studied? C) Will Facebook users be able to sue if they think their rights are being violated? D) Will the potential benefits of the research outweigh the potential risks to Facebook users?
148. The MOST accurate summary of what has happened in the United States since the 1950s years to protect the rights of human research participants would be that: A) there has been important progress, but concerns remain. B) recent changes in legal and ethical regulation of human research have virtually eliminated potential problems. C) the current situation is as bad as it has ever been. D) colleges and universities, but not governmental agencies, have made important progress in protecting human rights.
149. For people to decide about participating in psychological research, they must be given full knowledge of the nature of the study and their rights. This principle is called: A) risk disclosure. B) benefit analysis. C) informed consent. D) privacy.
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150. The principle of informed consent assumes that: A) there is compensation. B) the benefits outweigh the risks. C) the participant can understand the explanation. D) there are no risks in the study under consideration.
151. A study of informed consent forms showed that: A) most research participants don't receive them. B) most research participants are insulted by them. C) many research participants don't understand them. D) research participants generally already know their rights.
152. Compared with correlational studies, case studies: A) have higher internal validity. B) are not a validated research design. C) support broad generalizations. D) are richer in detail.
153. Which is NOT a critical question to ask when evaluating research findings? A) Did the study meet ethical standards? B) Were the variables properly controlled? C) Were participants paid for their involvement? D) Was the sample large enough?
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Answer Key 1. B 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. C 8. C 9. D 10. D 11. B 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. D 16. C 17. D 18. D 19. A 20. A 21. B 22. B 23. B 24. D 25. D 26. A 27. A 28. B 29. D 30. C 31. B 32. C 33. C 34. A 35. D 36. B 37. A 38. A 39. C 40. B 41. C 42. B 43. C 44. A
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45. B 46. B 47. D 48. B 49. C 50. D 51. D 52. C 53. D 54. D 55. D 56. A 57. A 58. C 59. B 60. B 61. D 62. C 63. D 64. A 65. D 66. B 67. B 68. D 69. A 70. D 71. A 72. A 73. B 74. D 75. A 76. A 77. C 78. A 79. A 80. B 81. B 82. B 83. B 84. C 85. B 86. C 87. C 88. C 89. B 90. A
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91. A 92. D 93. A 94. B 95. B 96. B 97. C 98. A 99. A 100. D 101. D 102. D 103. A 104. B 105. B 106. A 107. D 108. A 109. D 110. A 111. C 112. C 113. A 114. B 115. B 116. B 117. B 118. C 119. B 120. A 121. D 122. D 123. B 124. D 125. B 126. D 127. B 128. D 129. A 130. B 131. C 132. A 133. B 134. B 135. A 136. B
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137. A 138. D 139. A 140. B 141. C 142. C 143. C 144. D 145. D 146. B 147. A 148. A 149. C 150. C 151. C 152. D 153. C
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1. The procedure in which a pointed instrument was inserted into the frontal lobe of the brain to destroy brain tissue was known as: A) a lobotomy. B) trephining. C) tarantism. D) lycanthropy.
2. Clinical practitioners seek a(n) _____ understanding of abnormal behavior. A) nomothetic B) idiographic C) medical D) deterministic
3. Clinical researchers look for _____ truths about the causes and treatments of abnormality. A) nomothetic B) deistic C) universal D) idiographic
4. Sigmund Freud utilized the _____ to study the very unique situation involving Little Hans, a young boy who developed a fear of horses. A) experimental method B) correlational method C) natural experimental method D) case study
5. When the findings of research can be generalized to people beyond the immediate study, the investigation is said to have: A) internal validity. B) interrater reliability. C) test–retest reliability. D) external validity.
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6. Bri'Ann met with a researcher several times. She was interviewed, she took tests, and she was physically evaluated. In addition, the researcher studied her school and employment records and interviewed key people in her life. This type of study is called a(n): A) matched design study. B) analogue experiment. C) correlational study. D) case study.
7. If a study concludes that the less coffee you drink, the less anxiety you experience, the researchers MOST likely used: A) the experimental method. B) a case study. C) a focus group. D) the correlational method.
8. If a research study concludes that the more activities a person participates in, the less likely that person is to be depressed, the conclusion would be expressed as a(n): A) positive correlation. B) unrelated correlation. C) negative correlation. D) causal relationship.
9. Which statistic represents the greatest magnitude of correlation? A) +.80 B) –.95 C) +.10 D) +.90
10. If there is less than a 5 percent probability that a study's findings are due to chance, the findings are said to be: A) statistically accurate. B) statistically significant. C) statistically insignificant. D) statistically questionable.
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11. Which statement describes the BIGGEST limitation of correlational research? A) It does not allow conclusions about cause-and-effect relationships. B) Its results can be applied to only one subject at a time. C) Relationships between variables are inconsistent, so findings cannot be applied to the real world. D) The manipulation of a correlational variable requires an ABAB design, which is not always practical.
12. A research procedure in which a variable is manipulated and the manipulation's effect on another variable is observed is known as a(n): A) experiment. B) epidemiological study. C) case study. D) longitudinal study.
13. When a researcher unintentionally transmits his or her expectations about the outcome of the research to a research subject, it is termed: A) the Rosenthal effect. B) selection bias. C) a double-masked study. D) incidence.
14. Both the participants and the experimenter in a study are prevented from knowing who is in which experimental (or control) group. This is termed a _____ study. A) dually unaware B) deprivation C) double-masked D) reciprocally shielded
15. Alyssa was isolated from human contact and language by her (badly disturbed) parents for most of the first 13 years of her life. The effects of her early language deprivation could easily be seen and studied. This is an example of a(n) _____ experiment. A) analogue B) natural C) longitudinal D) epidemiological
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16. Researchers investigating a rare disorder that affects only a few subjects would most likely use a(n) _____ design. A) natural experimental B) experimental C) correlational D) single-subject experimental
17. To compare a subject with himself or herself under different conditions rather than compare that subject to control subjects, one might choose a(n) _____ design. A) analogue B) case study C) correlational D) ABAB
18. Studies that reveal the incidence and prevalence of a disorder in a particular population are known as _____ studies. A) ABAB B) high-risk C) epidemiological D) case
19. To ensure that subjects know what they are getting into when they sign up for a study, researchers must obtain: A) institutional agreement. B) informed consent. C) human rights assent. D) physical safeguards.
20. If a research subject is given drugs designed to intensify her symptoms, she is participating in a _____ study. A) symptom exacerbation B) placebo C) new drug D) quasi-correlational
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Answer Key 1. A 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. D 6. D 7. D 8. C 9. B 10. B 11. A 12. A 13. A 14. C 15. B 16. D 17. D 18. C 19. B 20. A
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1. For the first half of the twentieth century, the cause of schizophrenia was thought to be: A) brain chemicals. B) poverty. C) inappropriate parenting. D) genetic inheritance.
2. Animal rights surveys suggest that people tend to approve of experiments that use: A) cats and dogs. B) rats and mice. C) guinea pigs. D) monkeys.
3. If a study found that there was a perfect correlation between two variables, which correlation coefficient would describe that relationship? A) –100.00 B) 1.00 C) 0.00 D) +0.50
4. Tall people tend to have larger feet than do short people. This statement indicates a(n) _____ correlation between foot size and height. A) neutral B) unrelated C) negative D) positive
5. Which study design allows for statistical analysis of the data and provides internal validity? A) The epidemiological study B) The case study C) The correlational method D) The experimental method
6. When an unusual problem does not occur often enough to permit a large number of observations, it might be studied using a(n): A) exacerbation study. B) experimental study. C) case study. D) correlational study.
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7. A correlation coefficient is symbolized by the letter: A) p. B) r. C) q. D) s.
8. The more television a person watches, the lower that person's grades in school are likely to be. This statement indicates a(n) _____ correlation between hours watching TV and grades. A) statistically significant B) unrelated C) positive D) negative
9. The _____ variable is manipulated in an experiment to determine whether it has an effect on another variable. A) dependent B) confound C) random D) independent
10. Scott was doing a study on anxiety. Members of one group were asked to estimate how many years each had to live. Members of the other group were asked to estimate how many months until their next vacation. Scott then gave each of his participants a test that measured anxiety and scored them. The score on this test is an example of a(n): A) independent variable. B) confound. C) masked variable. D) dependent variable.
11. An imitation treatment that looks or tastes like the real therapy but has none of its key ingredients is a: A) confound. B) dependent variable. C) placebo. D) matched pair.
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12. In a _____ design, research subjects are unaware as to whether they are assigned to the experimental group or the control group. A) natural B) biased C) masked D) placebo
13. Dr. Pliny did not tell her subjects which group (which level of the independent variable) they were in. She withheld this information to guard against: A) confounds. B) experimenter bias. C) selection bias. D) subject bias.
14. Researchers would most likely use a(n) _____ research design to compare children who have a history of child abuse with those who do not. A) experimental B) epidemiological C) matched design D) natural
15. If a researcher did a study of anxiety and used cats for subjects instead of people, she would likely be doing a(n) _____ study. A) single-subject B) matched C) epidemiological D) analogue
16. If one knew that was currently a total of 500,000 cases of schizophrenia in the United States, that person would know the _____ of schizophrenia in the United States. A) incidence B) prevalence C) risk D) correlation coefficient
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17. Martin agreed to be in a study of memory in which he returns to the lab every other year for 10 years. He is involved in a(n) _____ study. A) ABAB B) case C) analogue D) longitudinal
18. Most informed consent forms for clinical research are written at a(n) _____ level. A) advanced college B) high school C) elementary school D) advanced high school
19. The primary role of an institutional review board is to: A) provide a peer review of the study findings. B) protect the rights and safety of study participants. C) regulate the use of placebos. D) allocate funding for research studies.
20. A _____ study may be used to determine how and when patients can be taken off particular medications. A) symptom-exacerbation B) masked C) medication-withdrawal D) placebo
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Answer Key 1. C 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. D 6. C 7. B 8. D 9. D 10. D 11. C 12. C 13. D 14. C 15. D 16. B 17. D 18. A 19. B 20. C
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Chapter 3
1. Compare and contrast how the humanistic-existential model and the biological model differ in their understanding of causes of abnormality.
2. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of using drugs in psychotherapy.
3. You are a therapist treating a person for depression. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of psychodynamic therapy and cognitive therapy to treat depression. Which of these options would you recommend?
4. Discuss the behavioral and cognitive dimensions of the cognitive-behavioral model of abnormality, and explain how the two are used in combination to treat abnormal behavior.
5. Describe group therapy, family therapy, and couple therapy. Discuss what each entails and the goals of therapy. Then provide a detailed example of each. Identify what the setting is, who participates, what the issue is, and what role the therapist plays.
6. One unique part of the sociocultural model is the community treatment aspect, a key component of which is prevention. Discuss the three types of prevention and give examples of each.
7. Discuss the reasons why culture-sensitive therapy arose and the challenges it seeks to address.
8. Compare and contrast the origins of abnormality according to the sociocultural, psychodynamic, and humanistic-existential models.
9. Explain the biopsychosocial approach to understanding the causes of abnormality. Provide an example of how this approach might be applied to the causes of depression. 10. Many clinicians view their approach as “eclectic.” What is an eclectic approach to abnormality? Describe at least one example of an eclectic approach to abnormality.
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Answer Key 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
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1. According to the _____ model, physical processes are the cause of all human behavior.
2. According to psychoanalytic theory, the basic part of the personality focused on instinctual needs is the _____.
3. The superego can also be called the _____.
4. If a patient changes the subject during psychodynamic therapy, the therapist might interpret that behavior as _____.
5. The underlying symbolic meaning of a dream is its _____ content.
6. A child learns how to use a straw by watching another child use one. This is an example of _____.
7. _____-focused theorists emphasize the processes and content of thinking. 8. A person interviews for a job but doesn't get a job offer. The person thinks, “I'm never going to get a job.” This type of thinking is known as _____. 9. “All people have the freedom and ability to change their behavior—and they are internally driven to fulfill their potential.” This statement reflects the beliefs of a _____ theorist.
10. According to Rogers humanistic approach, _____ early in life is related to unconditional self-regard later in life.
11. A therapist who actively and directly challenges clients' assertions and beliefs is practicing _____ therapy.
12. Theorists who focus on family relationships, social interactions, and community events are called _____ theorists.
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13. Twelve individuals who struggle with gambling addiction gather weekly with a mental health clinician to discuss their struggles, share advice, and provide emotional support. This is an example of _____ therapy.
14. _____ prevention consists of identifying and treating psychological disorders in the early stages, before they become serious.
15. A therapist works with a client who is a member of a minority group to understand how prejudices and stereotypes have affected his or her behavior. This reflects the focus of _____ theorists.
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Answer Key 1. biological 2. id 3. conscience 4. resistance 5. latent 6. modeling 7. Cognition 8. overgeneralization 9. humanistic 10. unconditional positive regard 11. gestalt 12. family-social 13. group 14. Secondary 15. multicultural
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1. In science, the perspectives used to explain phenomena are known as: A) facts. B) theories. C) paradigms. D) hypotheses.
2. Which of the following is NOT influenced by the paradigm to which an investigator subscribes? A) The questions that are asked B) The interpretation of the findings C) The definition of abnormal behavior D) The scientist's basic assumptions
3. The paradigm, or model, adopted by people in the Middle Ages to explain abnormal behavior was the _____ model. A) sociocultural B) biological C) cognitive D) demonological
4. The model of abnormality that cites physical processes as being the key to behavior is the _____ model. A) biological B) sociocultural C) psychodynamic D) humanistic-existential
5. The model of abnormality that examines the effects of society and culture is the _____ model. A) behavioral B) sociocultural C) psychodynamic D) humanistic-existential
6. The model of abnormality that focuses on unconscious internal processes and conflicts in behavior is the _____ model. A) cognitive-behavioral B) humanistic-existential C) sociocultural D) psychodynamic
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7. “Understanding a person's unconscious processes is critical in explaining abnormality.” Which model of abnormality does this quote MOST closely represent? A) Cognitive-behavioral B) Psychodynamic C) Sociocultural D) Humanistic-existential
8. The model of abnormality that focuses on learning and the thinking that underlies behavior is the _____ model. A) cognitive-behavioral B) sociocultural C) psychodynamic D) humanistic-existential
9. The model of abnormality that focuses on the role of values and choices in behavior is the _____ model. A) cognitive-behavioral B) sociocultural C) psychodynamic D) humanistic-existential
10. Imagine that you subscribe to the sociocultural model of abnormality. Which would be a part of your paradigm? A) The humanistic-existential model B) The family-social perspective C) The cognitive model D) The psychodynamic model
11. A theorist who believes that the multicultural perspective is the correct way to think about abnormality comes from which paradigm? A) Sociocultural B) Biocultural C) Psychocultural D) Cognitive-cultural
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12. Which statement is TRUE regarding the models of abnormality? A) None of the models is complete in itself. B) All of the models include an element of the biological model. C) The underlying assumptions of each model are the same. D) Each model views childhood trauma as a factor contributing to abnormal behavior.
13. The outer layer of the brain is the: A) cortex. B) corpus callosum. C) basal ganglia. D) amygdala.
14. Huntington's disease has psychological and physical aspects. This results in part from loss of cells in the cortex and the: A) corpus callosum. B) basal ganglia. C) hippocampus. D) amygdala.
15. The antenna-like extensions located at one end of the neuron are called: A) glia. B) dendrites. C) axons. D) synapses.
16. Messages moving from neuron to neuron must cross tiny spaces called: A) dendrites. B) axons. C) neurotransmitters. D) synapses.
17. What happens when an electrical impulse reaches a neuron's ending? A) Neurotransmitters are released. B) Release of neurotransmitters is stopped. C) The receiving neurons fire. D) The receiving neurons stop all firing.
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18. Depression has been linked to which neurotransmitter abnormality? A) Low activity of GABA B) Absence of dopamine C) Low activity of serotonin D) Excessive activity of norepinephrine
19. Abnormal chemical activity in the body's endocrine system relates to the release of: A) hormones. B) neurotransmitters. C) neurons. D) genes.
20. Biological theorists today believe that the key to psychological disorders lies in: A) specific brain structures. B) genetic mutations. C) congenital malformations. D) brain circuits.
21. The objective of the Human Genome Project was to: A) clone a mammal. B) map, or sequence, genes. C) insert RNA into genes. D) create an “ideal” set of genes.
22. A theorist who takes an evolutionary perspective on abnormal behavior would MOST likely agree that: A) genome mapping is a waste of time. B) the evolution of adaptive and maladaptive behavior is fundamentally different. C) at one time what is now often labeled abnormal behavior actually helped humans survive. D) people can inherit physical but not mental capacities. 23. “Gambling disorder is a manifestation of the previously desirable behavior of being a risk taker.” This statement aligns MOST closely with the beliefs of which type of theorist? A) Self theorist B) Biological theorist C) Existential theorist D) Evolutionary theorist
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24. Which is NOT an argument of critics of the evolutionary perspective? A) It is difficult to research this perspective. B) The perspective is overly precise. C) It requires leaps of faith to believe in this perspective. D) The perspective rests on an interaction of genes and environment.
25. A patient has social anxiety disorder. Which is an example of a biological treatment for this condition? A) Having the patient engage in activities that elicit anxiety B) Prescribing an antidepressant medication such as paroxetine C) Teaching the patient how to effectively challenge negative thoughts D) Encouraging the patient to cultivate relationships with others who have similar anxieties
26. An important factor to consider when prescribing drugs for the treatment of abnormality would be that: A) some people do not benefit from drug treatments. B) drugs cannot be combined with other forms of treatment. C) drugs are not very effective in the treatment of abnormal behavior. D) the adverse effects of drugs may result in worse quality of life than the abnormality brings.
27. Which statement is TRUE regarding electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)? A) It is the most commonly used biological treatment for mental disorders. B) It sends brief electrical currents through the brain, stimulating a seizure. C) Its use is controversial because it requires surgical implantation of electrodes. D) It produces a steady stream of low-voltage electricity to the targeted brain areas.
28. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is used MOST often in the treatment of: A) schizophrenia. B) anxiety disorders. C) depression. D) bipolar disorder.
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29. When a subject is participating in the final testing phase of a drug study, which of the following is taking place? A) The drug is simultaneously being tested on animals. B) The researchers are assessing the subject for unexpected long-term effects. C) The subject is assessing the safety of the drug. D) The researchers are examining the effects on the subject to determine the drug's efficacy and side effects.
30. The brain stimulation technique that uses an electromagnetic coil placed on or above a person's head to send electrical current into certain areas of the brain is called: A) vagus nerve stimulation (VNS). B) electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). C) deep brain stimulation. D) transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS).
31. The biological treatment known as psychosurgery would MOST likely be used in the treatment of a patient with: A) a severe disorder that is also associated with a high risk of suicide. B) a severe mental illness and who is not a candidate for brain stimulation therapy. C) moderate to severe mental illness and a coexisting developmental disorder. D) a severe disorder and who has not responded to any other therapies over years of treatment.
32. A weakness of the biological model of abnormal behavior is that: A) most people are reluctant to try biological treatments. B) this model dismisses the effect of nonbiological factors on behavior. C) there is limited research supporting biological causes of mental illness. D) the effectiveness of biological treatments cannot be objectively evaluated.
33. Determinists assume that abnormal behaviors: A) are learned. B) are determined based on past experience. C) have physiological bases. D) are due to unconscious conflicts.
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34. Shemar has obsessive-compulsive disorder and repeatedly checks to ensure the doors are locked. According to determinists, which is the MOST likely reason for this behavior? A) Shemar sustained a traumatic injury to the hippocampus. B) When Shemar was around age 10, Shemar's next-door neighbor was attacked in her home. C) As an adult, Shemar forgot to lock his back door when he left for a weeklong vacation. D) During his childhood, Shemar's parents told him to always keep the doors locked.
35. According to psychoanalysis, which statement is TRUE of psychological conflicts? A) They are always sexual in nature. B) They are tied to experiences early in life. C) They are only a problem when they reach consciousness. D) They are unconscious and, therefore, not a factor in conscious experience.
36. Freud believed that the three central forces that shape the personality were: A) instincts, the ego, and the self. B) biological forces, culture, and learning. C) consciousness, unconsciousness, and instincts. D) instinctual needs, rational thinking, and moral standards.
37. The _____ operates in accord with the pleasure principle. A) id B) superego C) self D) ego
38. Carter's mother is taking cookies out of the oven. Which statement would suggest MOST strongly that the id is firmly in control of Carter's behavior? A) Carter grabs some of the cookies and runs. B) Carter wants the cookies desperately but asks Mom only for a couple. C) Carter waits for Mom to leave the room, takes a few cookies, and runs away. D) Carter asks for some cookies in a whiney voice and, when denied, throws a tantrum.
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39. Freud believed that the id is fueled by: A) self-preservation. B) the libido. C) the conscious mind. D) fear.
40. According to Freud, a child's pleasure from defecating is reflected in which part of the personality? A) Id B) Ego C) Superego D) Ego ideal
41. Infants tend to do things that feel good. This is in accord with what Freud called: A) reflex. B) the pleasure principle. C) primary process thought. D) secondary process thought.
42. What is libido? A) The same as the id B) The source of pleasure C) The sexual energy of the id D) The sum of the id's instinctual needs
43. The part of the personality that guides us to know when we can and cannot express our impulses is the: A) id. B) ego. C) superego. D) libido.
44. Greshka spilled iced coffee on her shirt while sitting in the park. She had another shirt with her and wanted to change right then and there. However, she went to the restroom to change instead. The force that is in control in this example is the: A) id. B) ego. C) superego. D) fixation.
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45. According to Freud's psychodynamic theory, the part of the personality that is the conscience is the: A) id. B) ego. C) superego. D) ego ideal.
46. What we would call conscience is MOST like what Freud would call the: A) defense mechanism. B) superego. C) ego. D) reality principle.
47. Nari was taking the bar exam and was concerned that she didn't know the answers to many of the questions. She could see the answers of the person next to her and briefly considered copying his answers. She ultimately decided not to copy, knowing that doing so was wrong. The force that is in control in this example is the: A) id. B) ego. C) superego. D) fixation.
48. A man has cheated on his partner and he feels very guilty, but soon he begins to make excuses, saying that his partner has nagged him for years. The defense mechanism that BEST explains his behavior is: A) rationalization. B) denial. C) regression. D) projection.
49. A patient's initial reaction to being told she has a sexually transmitted infection (STI) is to insist that the nurse made a mistake with the test. The defense mechanism that BEST explains this behavior is: A) regression. B) repression. C) denial. D) rationalization.
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50. You didn't study for a test, and you blame your poor performance on all the other work you had to do. The defense mechanism that BEST explains your behavior is: A) denial. B) rationalization. C) intellectualization. D) displacement.
51. Your friend and roommate moves out without giving you any notice. You immediately focus all of your energy on the financial implications of your friend's departure and ways to save money. The defense mechanism that BEST explains your behavior is: A) denial. B) rationalization. C) intellectualization. D) projection.
52. According to Freud's psychodynamic theory, ineffective interaction of the id, ego, and superego can result in a person becoming stuck at a developmental level. This is called: A) fixation. B) neurosis. C) repression. D) displacement.
53. According to Freud's psychodynamic theory, at birth the child is in the: A) oral stage. B) anal stage. C) phallic stage. D) latency stage.
54. A general term used for Freud's, Adler's, and Jung's theories is: A) psychiatric. B) biological. C) psychodynamic. D) psychophysical.
55. The motivation to form relationships with others is a central theme of: A) ego theory. B) self theory. C) psychoanalytic theory. D) object relations theory.
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56. “The force that operates on the 'reality principle' is an independent, powerful force in human functioning.” What kind of theorist would agree MOST strongly with this statement? A) Classical Freudian B) Self C) Object relations D) Cognitive
57. The role of the unified personality is a central theme of: A) ego theory. B) self theory. C) psychoanalytic theory. D) object relations theory.
58. Which model is MOST likely to suggest using free association to uncover unconscious processes? A) Psychodynamic B) Cognitive C) Humanistic-existential D) Behavioral
59. Brayden is asked to free associate about his mother's new husband, and he responds by changing the subject. A psychodynamic therapist would consider this an example of: A) catharsis. B) resistance. C) transference. D) countertransference.
60. Which model is MOST likely to predict that transference will occur during therapy? A) Psychodynamic B) Cognitive C) Humanistic-existential D) Behavioral
61. Which model is MOST likely to use terms such as resistance and transference? A) Psychodynamic B) Behavioral C) Humanist-existential D) Sociocultural
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62. A patient with a controlling mother is undergoing therapy. Soon, the patient begins seeking the therapist's approval for all types of decisions, rather than just making the decisions herself. This is an example of: A) catharsis. B) resistance. C) transference. D) free association.
63. According to psychoanalytic theory, which statement is TRUE about dreams? A) They are without real importance. B) They reflect our unconscious desires and needs. C) They are a means of reprocessing information necessary for survival. D) They are the brain's attempts to understand abnormal electrical activity.
64. According to Freud, another term for the symbolic meaning of dreams is: A) positive transference. B) negative transference. C) manifest content. D) latent content.
65. A person has a recurring dream of losing her dog. In her dream, she panics and looks for her dog everywhere. This dream is interpreted to reflect the patient's emotional stress over losing her mother, who is terminally ill. Which is an example of latent content? A) Losing the dog B) Looking for the dog C) Feeling panicked in the dream D) Feeling stress about her mother's illness
66. According to psychoanalysts, if a patient relives past repressed feelings, that patient is said to have experienced: A) repression. B) transference. C) resistance. D) catharsis.
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67. Amelia has been told that her course of therapy is likely to take a year or more because it involves the reshaping of her personality and that takes many sessions. Her therapy is MOST likely: A) biological therapy. B) psychodynamic therapy. C) cognitive-behavioral therapy. D) existential-humanistic therapy.
68. A patient participates in weekly therapy for several years, gradually becoming aware of the impact of early life events on present functioning. The form of psychotherapy that this patient is receiving is called: A) cognitive therapy. B) biological therapy. C) psychodynamic therapy. D) behavior therapy.
69. A patient sees a therapist to help her address her eating disorder. The therapist focuses only on issues specifically related to this problem. This therapy is BEST described as: A) relational psychoanalytic therapy. B) psychoanalysis. C) extended psychoanalytic therapy. D) short-term psychodynamic therapy.
70. Which of the following dreams is the MOST common? A) Failing an examination B) Flying in the air C) Falling D) Being chased or pursued
71. Evidence of the effectiveness of psychodynamic therapy comes from: A) natural observation. B) ethnographic studies. C) double-blind studies. D) case studies.
72. Why is the psychodynamic model difficult to research? A) It is difficult to gain informed consent from individuals with mental illness. B) The processes described in this model occur at an unconscious level. C) This model focuses on abstract issues of human fulfillment. D) This model requires the therapist to predict abnormal behavior in individuals.
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73. Theory focused on the behaviors people exhibit and the thoughts they have is usually described as: A) biological. B) cognitive-behavioral. C) sociocultural. D) object relations.
74. The goal of cognitive-behavioral therapy is BEST described as: A) improving the client's interactions with others. B) helping the client develop a stronger sense of self and rational thinking. C) helping the client gain insight into his or her unconscious desires and needs. D) modifying the client's negative behavior and dysfunctional ways of thinking.
75. Which model emphasizes the importance of conditioning in determining human actions? A) Psychodynamic B) Sociocultural C) Humanist-existential D) Cognitive-behavioral
76. When a young child yells and throws toys (i.e., throws a temper tantrum), the parents give the child a good deal of attention. Over time, the temper tantrums become more and more common. A behavioral psychologist would say that the temper tantrums result from: A) unresolved intrapsychic conflict. B) operant conditioning. C) unconditional positive regard. D) neurotransmitter imbalances.
77. _____ theory focuses on observable and conscious behaviors, whereas _____ theory focuses on unconscious processes. A) Sociocultural; biological B) Psychodynamic; existential C) Humanistic; cognitive-behavioral D) Cognitive-behavioral; psychodynamic
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78. The only time Farah receives attention is when misbehaving in a bizarre way. This is an example of: A) shaping. B) modeling. C) operant conditioning. D) classical conditioning.
79. Brooklyn learns to turn on the TV by watching her older brother turn it on. This form of learning is called: A) shaping. B) modeling. C) operant conditioning. D) classical conditioning.
80. Dontrall observed his parents' generous behavior throughout his childhood. As a result, he developed a positive and generous attitude toward the world. According to the behavioral model, Dontrall acquired this perspective through the process of: A) modeling. B) self-actualization. C) operant conditioning. D) classical conditioning. 81. “I loved dogs as a child, but one day when I tried to pet my neighbor's dog, it bit my lip. I've been afraid of dogs ever since.” A therapist who assumes this describes a phobia acquired from classical conditioning MOST likely favors the _____ model of abnormality. A) humanistic-existential B) cognitive-behavioral C) sociocultural D) psychodynamic
82. When a child yells and threatens others, he or she is placed in a time-out, away from the group. During the time-out, no one interacts with the child. The child learns to interact with others without yelling. This is an example of behavior modification using: A) modeling. B) exposure therapy. C) operant conditioning. D) classical conditioning.
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83. A health care provider prescribes disulfiram (Antabuse) for a client with alcoholism. The drug causes severe vomiting if a person drinks alcohol while taking the drug. Why might this treatment be effective in preventing alcohol use even after the client stops taking the drug? A) The drug eliminates the biological urge to drink alcohol. B) The drug addresses (corrects) the underlying biological reasons for alcohol abuse. C) The client is operantly conditioned to associate sobriety with happiness. D) The client is classically conditioned to associate drinking with the negative experience of vomiting.
84. A goal of behavior-focused therapy is to: A) prevent feelings of anger and acts of aggression. B) control biological factors by focusing on behavior. C) replace problematic behaviors with more appropriate ones. D) understand how beliefs and values are related to behaviors.
85. According to cognition-focused therapists, which is a factor in abnormal behavior? A) Egocentrism B) Self-talk C) Illogical thinking D) Objective interpretations 86. “Thoughts, as well as overt behaviors, are acquired and modified by various forms of conditioning.” The orientation of the author of this quote is MOST likely: A) cognitive-behavioral. B) humanistic-existential. C) psychodynamic-gestalt. D) sociocultural.
87. An athlete is well prepared for a contest. Nevertheless, just before the contest starts, she thinks, “I can't do this! I need to be perfect, and I know I'm going to fail!” Which type of theorist would focus on the athlete's illogical thinking process as a key factor in her subsequent poor performance? A) Psychodynamic B) Behavioral-focused C) Existential D) Cognition-focused
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88. Lin goes into a fit of depression and self-abuse when anyone criticizes or expresses disapproval. Much of what he does is for the purpose of getting people to like him. Cognition-focused theorists would say that Lin's depression results in large part from: A) modeling. B) early childhood trauma. C) illogical thinking. D) unconscious feelings of loss.
89. When Matías did not get a job for which he applied, he was sure that everything was going wrong, that his life was completely off track. This thought is an example of: A) depression. B) delusional thinking. C) overgeneralization. D) flight of ideas.
90. Which form of therapy helps clients recognize errors in logic and try out new interpretations of events? A) Psychodynamic B) Multicultural C) Cognitive D) Humanistic
91. If a client is being guided to challenge irrational thinking and to try out new interpretations, the client is MOST likely being treated by a follower of: A) Beck. B) Freud. C) Bandura. D) Rogers.
92. If you are being encouraged to see the link between the way you interpret your experiences and the way you feel and to question the accuracy of your interpretations, you are probably receiving: A) humanistic therapy. B) existential therapy. C) cognitive therapy. D) psychoanalytic therapy.
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93. Subjecting a person to a situation that causes the individual anxiety as a means of eliminating future anxiety is called: A) modeling. B) exposure therapy. C) relational psychoanalytic therapy. D) short-term psychodynamic therapy.
94. Cognitive-behavioral approaches used to treat social anxiety disorder aim to: A) increase positive self-talk and decrease risk taking. B) increase feelings of gratitude and decrease feelings of fear. C) alter illogical thinking patterns and reduce avoidance behaviors. D) use conscious thought as a means to decrease physiological signs of anxiety.
95. With regard to assessing the effectiveness of the various models of abnormality, which model BEST lends itself to laboratory testing? A) Psychodynamic B) Cognitive-behavioral C) Humanistic-existential D) Sociocultural
96. Some researchers have manipulated the behaviors and thoughts of study participants to create clinical-like symptoms. Which conclusion can be drawn from this finding? A) Behaviors and thoughts may influence the development of psychological disorders. B) Psychological disorders can be prevented through behavior and thought modification. C) Disordered cognitions are an underlying causative factor in all psychological disorders. D) Psychological disorders result from outside influences that manipulate thinking and behavior.
97. According to a 2013 report (Prochaska & Norcross), the dominant approach used by clinical psychologists is: A) existential. B) multicultural. C) psychodynamic. D) cognitive-behavioral.
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98. The so-called new wave of cognitive therapy differs from traditional cognitive therapy in that it emphasizes: A) challenging irrational cognitions. B) accepting problematic thoughts. C) working to change unacceptable thoughts. D) researching the effectiveness of the therapy.
99. Which is a goal of acceptance and commitment therapy? A) To lessen the power of thoughts B) To stop the client from comparing himself or herself to others C) To decrease internal negative self-talk D) To increase awareness of why the client behaves a certain way
100. With mindfulness-based therapy techniques, clients would MOST likely be encouraged to: A) focus on setting goals for the future. B) let their thoughts flow, without judgment. C) reject thoughts that are not rational. D) try to figure out the source of their troublesome thoughts.
101. Research has shown that mindfulness is associated with improvements in: A) long-term memory. B) numerical and spatial reasoning. C) autonomic nervous system functioning. D) feelings of social connectedness among teens. 102. “When we try to establish how abnormality develops, we need to consider how individuals deal with the meaning of life and with the value they find in living.” A psychologist from which background would agree MOST strongly with this statement? A) Cognitive-behavioral B) Humanistic-existential C) Psychodynamic D) Cognitive
103. The self-actualization motive plays an important part in human functioning, according to: A) cognition-focused therapists. B) behavior-focused therapists. C) psychoanalysts. D) humanists.
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104. A therapist who believes people often hide from their responsibilities and therefore often feel alienated, depressed, and inauthentic would MOST likely be described as: A) humanistic. B) existential. C) psychodynamic. D) cognitive.
105. The _____ model proposes that humans must have an accurate self-awareness and live meaningful lives to be psychologically well adjusted. A) psychodynamic B) cognitive-behavioral C) humanistic-existential D) biological
106. Humanists would say that an individual who cares about others and who is spontaneous, courageous, and independent is: A) authentic. B) self-actualizing. C) role-playing. D) experiencing catharsis. 107. “Humans are born with freedom, yet do not 'naturally' strive to reach their full growth potential.” The psychologist who would MOST closely agree with this statement would be described as: A) behavioral. B) humanistic. C) existential. D) psychodynamic.
108. In the 1960s and 1970s, social upheaval and soul-searching in Western society gave rise to humanistic and existential therapies. The BEST explanation for this trend is that these theories: A) focused primarily on unconscious thoughts, instincts, and conflict. B) focused on a positive message and living a meaningful life. C) identified an external source as the cause of abnormal behavior. D) discounted the concept of “abnormal” and focused on acceptance.
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109. Which theory has its roots in the philosophical idea that people are constantly evaluating and giving meaning to their existence through their actions? A) Humanistic B) Existential C) Cognitive D) Behavioral
110. The term for the form of psychotherapy pioneered by Carl Rogers is: A) client-centered. B) insight. C) gestalt. D) existential.
111. If you recognize your worth as a person, Carl Rogers would say that you have developed: A) spontaneity. B) unconditional self-regard. C) unconditional positive regard. D) conditions of worth.
112. Which example BEST describes conditions of worth? A) A boy believes that he is deserving of love only when he earns good grades. B) A girl values her self-worth even when she fails at something. C) A boy is internally motivated to put forth his best effort on his science project. D) A girl is anxious about giving a speech in front of her class.
113. The MOST likely consequence of having acquired conditions of worth is: A) social isolation. B) a distorted view of the self. C) increased participation in very high-risk activities. D) development of sociopathic tendencies.
114. A therapist listens carefully to a client's words and then attempts to show accurate empathy and genuineness. The hope is that the client will engage in self-examination with acceptance and honesty. MOST likely, this therapist is a _____ therapist. A) behavior-focused B) cognitive-behavioral C) psychodynamic D) humanistic
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115. If a client-centered therapist were treating a very anxious woman, the therapist would try to: A) point out the client's misconceptions. B) give insightful interpretations of the client's statements. C) identify the client's unreasonable ideas and feelings. D) show unconditional positive regard for the client's statements. 116. “That's all right. You are doing your best. Don't worry. I'm here for you.” A therapist who would say this as a primary part of the therapy process would MOST probably be following the _____ tradition. A) cognitive B) humanistic C) psychodynamic D) rational emotive
117. The psychologist credited with paving the way for psychologists to practice psychotherapy is: A) Perls. B) Rogers. C) Beck. D) Freud.
118. Gestalt therapy is similar to mindfulness techniques in its emphasis on: A) using "I" language. B) focusing on the here and now. C) role-playing. D) frustrating the client.
119. Which theorist would be MOST likely to advocate use of skillful frustration as a part of therapy? A) Fritz Perls B) Joseph Wolpe C) Abraham Maslow D) Aaron Beck
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120. Therapists who often deliberately frustrate and challenge their clients, and who often use role-playing and a “here and now” orientation, are _____ therapists. A) gestalt B) object relations C) cognitive-behavioral D) self
121. During a therapy session, a client is told to pretend the therapist is her spouse and to tell her “spouse” why she is angry. This therapist is MOST likely a(n) _____ therapist. A) gestalt B) sociocultural C) cognitive-behavioral D) existential
122. The perspective that religious views are defense mechanisms created by people to make life tolerable is MOST characteristic of: A) current thinking in the mental health profession. B) classic Freudian psychotherapy. C) conclusions drawn by research scientists. D) the way in which the mental health profession is moving.
123. Research on the relationship between religious beliefs and psychological health shows that people: A) without any religious belief are the healthiest. B) who are devout and see God as caring and helpful are the healthiest. C) who believe in a higher being are the healthiest. D) who are not religious cope better with life stressors such as war and illness.
124. The proper conclusion from research studies that show a relationship between devout religious people who see God as warm and caring and psychological health is that: A) religion causes people to deal better with the challenges of life. B) psychologically healthy people have more time and energy for religion. C) people who have a religious community to support them are healthier. D) people who are more devout are also psychologically healthier.
125. When treating religious patients, it is recommended that mental health professionals: A) avoid discussing religion. B) encourage clients to use spiritual resources that aid with coping. C) explain the connection between religious practices and mental health. D) caution the patient against using religious-based counseling services.
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126. The theorists who place the MOST significance on the relationship between the therapist and the client are _____ therapists. A) gestalt B) existential C) object relations D) cognitive-behavioral
127. With its emphasis on abstract human values and responsibility, the humanistic-existential model does all of the following EXCEPT: A) resonate with many people who are eager to explore these issues. B) support the ideas of positive psychology. C) emphasize health. D) lend itself easily to research.
128. The model of abnormality that MOST closely aligns with positive psychology is the _____ model. A) family-social B) multicultural C) psychodynamic D) humanistic-existential
129. A therapist who describes her client as someone who has yet to fulfill his or her full potential, rather than as someone with a disorder, is MOST likely a _____ theorist. A) self B) biological C) humanistic D) cognitive-behavioral
130. The _____ model of abnormality pays particular attention to the client's family structure, societal norms, and the client's roles in society. A) existential B) cognitive-behavioral C) sociocultural D) humanistic
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131. The sociocultural model of abnormality focuses on all of these factors EXCEPT: A) social labels and roles. B) family structure and communication. C) social networks. D) past traumatic experiences.
132. A theorist who believes that someone who is labeled a hard worker will, in fact, become a hard worker is MOST likely a _____ theorist. A) existential B) humanistic C) sociocultural D) behavior-focused
133. David Rosenhan sent pseudopatients to a mental hospital, where they pretended to be disturbed. The results of this study led him to conclude that _____ greatly affects mental illness. A) an actual symptom B) the community mental health system C) labeling D) communication
134. A person who is isolated and lacks social support or intimacy is more likely to: A) develop depression when under stress. B) develop depression even when not under stress. C) develop depression but recover more quickly. D) develop depression that requires hospitalization.
135. A person engages in multiple online discussions with a large number of friends on Facebook. She is very open about herself and shares her thoughts and opinions freely. Based on related research, we would expect this person to have a _____ number of offline friends and to _____ share information with them. A) very small; selectively B) large; selectively C) large; openly D) small; openly
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136. Which statement would a family systems theorist MOST likely agree with? A) “What an individual views as abnormal behavior in public may be the only way to effectively interact with family members.” B) “Abnormal behavior in the family causes an individual to develop dual personalities: one for the public and one for at home.” C) “Behavior that one group would classify as abnormal may be the norm in another group. Therefore, there is no such thing as abnormal behavior.” D) “A child often deliberately (consciously) adopts so-called abnormal behaviors when interacting with the family unit as a way to maintaining homeostasis.”
137. If a mother seems excessively involved in her child's life such that the two do not seem to be independent people, their relationship is said to be: A) externalized. B) cultural. C) enmeshed. D) disengaged.
138. According to family systems theory, families that show disengagement are characterized by: A) members who are overinvolved in one another's lives. B) parents who have a laissez-faire parenting style. C) children who very seldom fight. D) rigid boundaries between family members.
139. Which phrase would one be MOST likely to hear in a self-help group? A) “I think it's important that you figure this out on your own.” B) “The therapist will tell us what to do.” C) “Try this. It worked for me.” D) “Let's talk about our dreams.”
140. A key feature of group therapy is that: A) the clients have similar issues. B) everyone is equal and there is no formal leader. C) sessions are conducted in a face-to-face environment. D) it is used for educational rather than therapeutic purposes.
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141. Which is NOT a goal of group therapy? A) Sharing advice B) Analyzing dreams C) Developing insights D) Building social skills
142. A self-help group differs from group therapy in that the self-help group: A) focuses on “less serious” problems. B) is not led by a professional clinician. C) emphasizes the importance of having a positive outlook. D) encourages individuals to share information with the group.
143. If a therapist advised you to pay attention to how you were communicating with family members and to change harmful patterns, the therapist would MOST likely to be practicing: A) couple therapy. B) family therapy. C) feminist therapy. D) self-help therapy.
144. Which statement about couple therapy is MOST accurate? A) Only about 10 percent of those who receive couple therapy eventually divorce. B) Most people who receive couple therapy report no real improvement in their functioning. C) There is a decreasing need for couple therapy based on current divorce rates. D) There is no one theoretical approach used in couple therapy.
145. Which group BEST reflects those who may benefit from couple therapy? A) Married couples B) Any two individuals who live together C) Individuals who are in a long-term relationship D) Individuals in a romantic relationship who live together
146. A couple therapist who focuses on acceptance and positive change where possible is using _____ therapy. A) tertiary B) mutual-help C) cognitive-behavioral D) integrative behavioral
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147. A primary focus of the community mental health treatment approach to abnormality is: A) using drug therapy along with psychotherapy. B) prevention. C) homeostasis. D) rejecting all conventional forms of explaining abnormality.
148. A primary prevention approach is expected to be MOST beneficial for mental health issues with: A) unknown causes. B) good long-term prognoses. C) ineffective treatment options. D) known risk and protective factors.
149. An example of secondary prevention in action is: A) initiating treatment for a diagnosed mental health condition. B) distributing educational materials that describe modifiable risk factors for mental illness. C) providing routine mental health screenings, followed by immediate intervention as needed. D) advocating for federal legislation that protects individuals' mental health in the workplace.
150. Providing treatment as soon as it is needed so problems that are moderate or worse do not become long-term issues is called: A) primary prevention. B) secondary prevention. C) tertiary prevention. D) quaternary prevention.
151. Failure to treat many people with severe disturbances appropriately is MOST often a problem with which level of prevention? A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Meta
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152. Regarding the finding that there are more seriously disturbed people within poor subpopulations, a multicultural theorist would focus on the way in which: A) personal responsibility is related to dysfunction. B) irrational thoughts contribute to one's feelings. C) poverty is a stressor that contributes to dysfunction. D) early life experiences shape one's later behavior.
153. Current multicultural perspectives are MOST likely to focus on the: A) inferiority of particular cultural groups. B) cultural deprivation that is characteristic of some groups. C) limitations of a focus on ethnicity. D) special external pressures faced by members of a culture.
154. Multicultural theorists would explain the higher levels of mental illness among poor people as MOST likely due to: A) genetic make-up. B) social factors leading to stress. C) irrational patterns of thinking. D) fixation at a lower level of ego functioning.
155. In explaining why women are diagnosed with anxiety disorders and depression twice as often as men, multicultural therapists would focus on: A) the biological differences between men and women. B) the different patterns of communication displayed by men and women. C) prejudice and discrimination faced by women. D) the level of rationality in the thought patterns of women.
156. A feminist therapist would MOST likely focus on: A) a woman's personal responsibility for her own situation. B) the role that biology plays in psychological functioning. C) how prejudice and discrimination impact women. D) the ways in which women express their femininity.
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157. Which statement is NOT an appropriate criticism of the sociocultural model? A) Just because there is a relationship between culture and a particular disorder, it does not mean that culture causes the disorder. B) It might be that the disorder causes dysfunction in the family, rather than the dysfunctional family causing the disorder. C) Cultural factors might create a climate favorable for the development of certain disorders. D) It is difficult to predict which people who share the same culture will develop a particular disorder.
158. Which statement is the BEST example of the biopsychosocial perspective? A) There is one legitimate approach to understanding mental disorders. B) Abnormality is best explained by the sociocultural stresses that a person experiences. C) Eclectic approaches fail to take interactions of various models into account. D) Abnormality results from the interaction of genetic, biological, emotional, behavioral, cognitive, social, cultural, and societal influences.
159. The principle of multifinality emphasizes that: A) stress is the primary factor leading to abnormality. B) a biological predisposition is the primary factor leading to abnormality. C) abnormality arises from an interaction between predisposition and stress. D) only one factor—stress or predisposition—is necessary for abnormality to occur.
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Answer Key 1. C 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. D 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. B 11. A 12. A 13. A 14. B 15. B 16. D 17. A 18. C 19. A 20. D 21. B 22. C 23. D 24. B 25. B 26. A 27. B 28. C 29. D 30. D 31. D 32. D 33. B 34. B 35. B 36. D 37. A 38. A 39. B 40. A 41. B 42. C 43. B 44. B
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45. C 46. B 47. C 48. A 49. C 50. B 51. C 52. A 53. A 54. C 55. D 56. A 57. B 58. A 59. B 60. A 61. A 62. C 63. B 64. D 65. D 66. D 67. B 68. C 69. D 70. D 71. D 72. B 73. B 74. D 75. D 76. B 77. D 78. C 79. B 80. A 81. B 82. C 83. D 84. C 85. C 86. A 87. D 88. C 89. C 90. C
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91. A 92. C 93. B 94. C 95. B 96. A 97. D 98. B 99. A 100. B 101. C 102. B 103. D 104. B 105. C 106. B 107. C 108. B 109. B 110. A 111. B 112. A 113. B 114. D 115. D 116. B 117. B 118. B 119. A 120. A 121. A 122. B 123. B 124. D 125. B 126. B 127. D 128. D 129. C 130. C 131. D 132. D 133. C 134. A 135. C 136. A
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137. C 138. D 139. C 140. A 141. B 142. B 143. B 144. D 145. C 146. D 147. B 148. D 149. C 150. C 151. C 152. C 153. D 154. B 155. C 156. C 157. C 158. D 159. C
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1. In science, the perspectives used to explain phenomena are known as: A) paradigms. B) organizers. C) categories. D) denominations.
2. Huntington's disease has been linked in part to a loss of cells in the cortex and the: A) hippocampus. B) basal ganglia. C) hypothalamus. D) forebrain.
3. Depression has been linked to low activity of the neurotransmitters _____ and _____. A) dopamine; endorphin B) GABA; histamine C) serotonin; norepinephrine D) glycine; glutamate
4. _____ are chemicals released into the bloodstream. A) Genes B) Synapses C) Neurotransmitters D) Hormones
5. Which statement about the role of genes in abnormal behavior is FALSE? A) Genes probably play no part in mental disorders. B) The Human Genome Project, completed in 2000, helped identify the precise contribution of various genes to mental disorders. C) Each human cell contains approximately 20,000 genes, some of which may contribute to mental disorders. D) In most cases, several genes combine to help produce dysfunctional behavior.
6. Which is NOT one of the three types of biological treatments used today? A) Drug therapy B) Self-actualization C) Psychosurgery D) Electroconvulsive therapy
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7. Which model of abnormality rests on the deterministic assumption that no symptom or behavior is “accidental” and that all behavior is determined by past experiences? A) Psychodynamic model B) Cognitive model C) Sociocultural model D) Feminist model
8. According to Freud, the id operates in accordance with the _____ principle. A) morality B) reality C) pleasure D) constriction 9. “People are motivated mainly by a need to have relationships with others. Severe problems in the relationships between children and their caregivers may lead to abnormal development.” This statement BEST reflects the beliefs of which type of theorist? A) Ego B) Self C) Behavioral D) Object relations
10. According to psychodynamic theorists, when people behave with their therapist the way they interacted with their parents, they are demonstrating: A) resistance. B) catharsis. C) transference. D) fixation.
11. Which contemporary psychodynamic approach holds that therapists are key figures in the lives of patients—figures whose reactions and beliefs should be included in the therapy? A) Gestalt psychodynamic therapy B) Short-term psychodynamic therapy C) Object relations therapy D) Relational psychoanalytic therapy
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12. Two-year-old Dylan watches a cooking show on television and then goes into the kitchen to “bake a cake.” This is an example of: A) operant conditioning. B) modeling. C) classical conditioning. D) transference learning.
13. Five-year-old Ellis develops a fear of sand because he was once stung by a wasp while playing in the sandbox. This demonstrates the principle of: A) operant conditioning. B) modeling. C) classical conditioning. D) transference learning.
14. Cognition-focused therapists guide clients to challenge their own dysfunctional: A) dreams. B) behaviors. C) thoughts. D) emotions.
15. A young child receives affection when she earns good grades on her school assignments. However, when she receives poor grades, her mother berates her and tells her that she is “no good” and “stupid.” This child will MOST likely develop: A) transference. B) conditions of worth. C) self-actualization. D) phobias.
16. Gestalt therapy was developed by: A) Carl Rogers. B) Sigmund Freud. C) Albert Bandura. D) Frederick (Fritz) Perls.
17. The belief that people live up or down to expectations reflects the ideology of _____ theorists. A) self B) family-social C) object relations D) multicultural
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18. What is the main difference between group therapy and a self-help group? A) Group therapy is less expensive than a self-help group because the members have a set time and place where they meet. B) In group therapy, a trained therapist leads the interaction; a self-help group is conducted by people who share a similar problem without the help of a professional clinician. C) Group therapy must be conducted by a person who shares the same problem as the group members, while a self-help group is run by a therapist who has no involvement in the problem that the other group members face. D) Self-help groups provide far more confidentiality to the group members than a group therapy situation.
19. The underlying premise of family therapy is that: A) each member of the family affects and is affected by the family unit. B) family members benefit from accepting that there is a continuum of family dysfunction and all families are dysfunctional to some degree. C) effective treatment of mental illness is not possible without firsthand interaction with and observation of the patient's family. D) behavior change is highly dependent on one's social support system.
20. Which statement is TRUE regarding minorities with mental illness in the United States? A) Minorities place less value on mental health. B) Minorities tend to stop therapy sooner than members of majority groups do. C) Minorities use mental health services at a higher rate than members of majority groups do. D) Minorities tend to show greater improvement in clinical treatment but have less access to care.
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Answer Key 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. A 8. C 9. D 10. C 11. D 12. B 13. C 14. C 15. B 16. D 17. B 18. B 19. A 20. B
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1. Which is NOT a current major model of mental abnormality? A) Psychodynamic B) Sociocultural C) Biochemical D) Cognitive-behavioral
2. The _____ helps to regulate emotions and memory. A) basal ganglia B) hippocampus C) corpus callosum D) thalamus
3. The tiny space between the nerve ending of one neuron and the dendrite of the other is the: A) receptor. B) nucleus. C) synapse. D) transmitter.
4. The fear response is often cited as an example of behaviors that have survived over the course of time. This explanation reflects the beliefs of_____ theorists. A) psychodynamic B) evolutionary C) family-social D) existentialist
5. Ramon tries not to do bad things (he feels guilty when he does) and wants to live up to his parents' expectations. According to psychoanalytic theory, he has a well-developed: A) id. B) superconscience. C) superego. D) ego.
6. According to Freud, _____ is a condition in which the id, ego, and superego do not mature properly and are frozen at an early stage of development. A) fixation B) overcompensation C) sublimation D) displacement
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7. According to the psychodynamic model, someone who refuses to fully participate in therapy is said to be demonstrating: A) repression. B) regression. C) resistance. D) reaction formation.
8. When a person describes a dream to another person, he or she is MOST likely describing the _____ content. A) manifest B) relational C) latent D) fixated
9. Behavior-focused therapists base their explanations and treatments of mental abnormality on principles of: A) relationships. B) ego development. C) dream analysis. D) learning. 10. A child is praised for his use of polite phrases such as “please” and “thank you.” As an adult the person regularly uses these phrases. This is an example of: A) self-actualization. B) operant conditioning. C) systematic desensitization. D) unconditional positive regard.
11. In treating a person with social anxiety, the therapist challenges that person's reported fears about being out in public and simultaneously works to reduce avoidance behaviors. This therapist is practicing _____ therapy. A) biological B) humanistic C) psychodynamic D) cognitive-behavioral
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12. Which description BEST describes exposure therapy? A) A client directly confronts the situation that causes dread and remains in the situation until the fear subsides. B) During role play with the therapist, the therapist models positive behavior during stressful events. C) The therapist intentionally frustrates the patient by exposing errors in logic and contradictions in reasoning. D) The patient is exposed to electrical current via an electromagnetic coil placed on or above the head.
13. According to _____, human beings are driven to self-actualize, or to fulfill their natural potential for goodness and growth. A) humanists B) existentialists C) gestalt theory D) socioevolutionaries 14. “People have two options with their lives: to face up to our own 'being' and to give meanings to our lives or to shrink and hide from that responsibility.” Which type of theorist would MOST likely say this? A) Humanistic B) Existentialist C) Family-social D) Self
15. Humanists and existentialists both believe that psychological dysfunction results from: A) self-deception. B) “broken” families. C) lack of spirituality. D) an internal locus of control.
16. One of the main differences between group therapy and a self-help group is the presence in group therapy of: A) more than one person. B) more than one therapist. C) a professional therapist. D) people who are related by marriage or other familial connection.
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17. Which assumption does a family therapist make? A) Parents are usually the root cause of psychological disorders. B) The “family” consists of only individuals living in the same dwelling. C) The family as a unit is viewed as the “patient” and the focus of treatment. D) Unconscious thoughts and desires drive the family's communication style.
18. Which type of prevention seeks to provide effective treatment as soon as it is needed so that moderate or severe disorders do not become long-term problems? A) Primary prevention B) Secondary prevention C) Tertiary prevention D) Primordial prevention
19. Which condition is NOT a factor that places significant stress of individuals in minority groups? A) Living in an area with a higher crime rate B) Higher rates of unemployment C) Homelessness D) Increased educational opportunities
20. The perspective that focuses on when, how, in what context, and to what degree the multiple factors in a person's life interact with one another is called: A) developmental psychopathology. B) developmental pathology. C) life span development. D) self-actualization theory.
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Answer Key 1. C 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. C 8. A 9. D 10. C 11. D 12. A 13. A 14. B 15. A 16. C 17. C 18. C 19. D 20. A
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Chapter 4
1. What are the weaknesses in assessment? What can be done to address these weaknesses? Be sure to address reliability, validity, and bias issues.
2. If a clinician had only 15 minutes to conduct a preliminary clinical interview, which information should he or she try to get, and why?
3. A clinician has to complete a clinical assessment, and the only tests available are the Rorschach inkblot test, the Thematic Apperception Test, and the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory. Which two should the clinician use, and why? What would be the strengths and weaknesses of the two tests selected?
4. Describe the potential negative impact of assessing/diagnosing someone of an ethnic minority background or an immigrant client without awareness of cultural background. What are the special considerations you may want to be aware of?
5. Distinguish between neurological tests and neuropsychological tests, giving examples of each and describing in general how each type of test is used diagnostically.
6. List and describe three important shortcomings of modern intelligence tests.
7. Describe the purpose and features of DSM-5. Include the difference between categorical information and dimensional information, and provide an example of each.
8. A classification system such as the DSM-5 is judged by its reliability and validity. Define and discuss both reliability and validity, and explain why they are important criteria for DSM-5.
9. Despite the fact that using diagnostic labels for psychological disorders is extremely common, what are some ethical factors one ought to consider in the use of diagnostic labels?
10. Provide evidence that psychotherapy is effective. Which elements need to be present for effectiveness?
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Answer Key 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
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1. A test that has a high degree of consistency is said to have good _____.
2. If an examiner administered the same test now and in a week and correlated the results, a low correlation coefficient would indicate that the test has poor _____.
3. If a test result indicates anxiety and there are also reports of anxiety from spouse, parents, and coworkers, then that test shows _____ validity.
4. A clinician who uses a published interview schedule is conducting a(n) _____ interview.
5. The _____ is a projective test that requires the client to describe what is happening in a scene portrayed in a vague picture.
6. The abbreviation for the technique that records brain waves through the patient's scalp is _____.
7. A person lies on a machine that creates a magnetic field around his head, exciting hydrogen atoms in the brain. The signals given off by these atoms are converted into a detailed picture of the brain. The abbreviation for this procedure is _____.
8. The specific assessment technique in which clinicians observe clients in their everyday environment, such as at school or in the home, is called _____.
9. The inability to see or record all important behaviors when making observations is called _____.
10. During clinical observation, the observer becomes fatigued or changes the criteria that he or she has been using. This problem is known as _____.
11. A disadvantage of using clinical observation to assess clients' behavior is that the clinician may be influenced by information and expectations that he or she already has about the client. This problem is known as _____.
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12. A clinician asks a patient to record the frequency of her hallucinations and the circumstances under which they occur. This technique is called _____.
13. The DSM-5 requires clinicians to include severity as part of a proper diagnosis. This is considered _____ information.
14. After assessment and interpretation of the findings, a clinician identifies the technical name of disorder the client has. This is the _____ information of an official DSM-5 diagnosis.
15. Treatment approaches that are supported by research findings are said to be _____ supported treatments.
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Answer Key 1. reliability 2. reliability 3. concurrent 4. structured 5. Thematic Apperception Test 6. EEG 7. MRI 8. naturalistic observation 9. overload 10. observer drift 11. observer bias 12. self-monitoring 13. dimensional 14. categorical 15. empirically
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1. When dealing with a new client, the clinical practitioner's major focus is to gather which type of information? A) Diagnostic B) Nomothetic C) Idiographic D) Objective
2. A mental health practitioner attempts to learn about the behavior and emotional state of each client. This approach to abnormal psychology is called: A) behavioral. B) nomothetic. C) idiographic. D) psychodynamic.
3. Graduate school personnel review applying students' test scores, college grades, and relevant experience to determine who will be granted admission. This is similar to a clinician engaging in: A) assessment. B) diagnosis. C) treatment. D) classification.
4. The process of evaluating a person's progress after being in treatment is called a: A) nomothetic approach. B) clinical assessment. C) behavioral diagnosis. D) functional analysis.
5. During the clinical assessment, a clinician focuses on identifying dysfunctional thoughts and behaviors. This professional is MOST likely a _____ clinician. A) psychodynamic B) cognitive-behavioral C) sociocultural D) humanistic-existential
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6. Which is NOT one of the three categories of clinical assessment techniques used by mental health professionals? A) Interventions B) Tests C) Observations D) Clinical interviews
7. Developing the norms for scoring an assessment tool is part of: A) reliability. B) face validity. C) predictive validity. D) standardization.
8. A new test for anxiety is initially given to individuals who are waiting to take introductory psychology final exams. Their scores are used as the norm. It is later determined that the new test lacks adequate standardization. What is the MOST likely reason based on this information? A) The test was initially administered to students, but in practice, it was administered to nonstudents as well. B) Students about to take an exam would likely be experiencing higher than normal anxiety. C) The initial test was administered before the students took their exams rather than after the exams. D) All of the students' initial scores were used in determining the norms for scoring the live tests.
9. A new test for anxiety shows consistent levels of anxiety across time for people, but very few people have taken the test, and accurate norms do not exist. The test has: A) high reliability but inadequate standardization. B) high reliability and adequate standardization. C) low reliability and inadequate standardization. D) low reliability but adequate standardization.
10. A clinician has developed a new assessment tool. Clients write stories about their problems, and then two different judges independently evaluate the stories in terms of how logically they are written. Which UNIQUE reliability consideration applies to this type of assessment? A) Interrater reliability B) Observer reliability C) Face reliability D) Test–retest reliability
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11. A panel of psychologists and psychiatrists evaluates the test results and clinical interviews of a client in a sanity hearing. They all arrive at the same diagnosis. The panel has high: A) internal validity. B) predictive validity. C) interrater reliability. D) test–retest reliability.
12. A campus newspaper publishes an Exam Anxiety test, which newspaper staffers put together one evening just before their publishing deadline. Despite its hasty construction, the test MOST likely has: A) standardization. B) predictive validity. C) face validity. D) concurrent validity.
13. To measure tendencies toward depression, an assessment tool asks individuals to record all the times they feel sad. However, individuals report wide variations in the number of sad episodes from day to day. This assessment tool has: A) high test–retest reliability and high face validity. B) high test–retest reliability and low face validity. C) low test–retest reliability and high face validity. D) low test–retest reliability and low face validity.
14. Because people who exhibit mania have very elevated moods, a new test for mania includes questions about how happy a person feels and how often he or she laughs. This test has: A) high face validity. B) low face validity. C) no face validity. D) masked face validity.
15. A test is constructed to identify people who will develop schizophrenia. Of the 100 people the test identifies, 93 show signs of developing schizophrenia within five years. The test may be said to have high: A) internal reliability. B) predictive validity. C) concurrent validity. D) test–retest reliability.
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16. A new assessment tool does a good job of differentiating those people who later will be depressed and those people who will not be depressed. It also produces results similar to those of other tools measuring depression. Therefore, the new assessment tool has: A) good predictive validity and good content validity. B) good predictive validity but poor content validity. C) poor predictive validity and poor content validity. D) poor predictive validity and good content validity.
17. If a new test for assessing anorexic tendencies produces scores comparable to those of other tests for assessing anorexic tendencies, then the new test has high: A) predictive validity. B) standardization criteria. C) concurrent validity. D) interjudge reliability.
18. One particular strength of the clinical interview process is: A) high validity. B) the reliability of the technique. C) the chance to get a general sense of the client. D) that it asks only open-ended questions.
19. The type of clinical interviewer who would be MOST interested in stimuli that trigger abnormal responses, the resultant consequences, and the client's assumptions and interpretation would have which orientation? A) Biological B) Psychodynamic C) Humanistic D) Cognitive-behavioral
20. A client complains of a phobia. Two lines of questioning by the clinician concern the specific object of the phobia and what the person does when confronted with that object. This clinician's orientation is MOST likely: A) biological. B) cognitive-behavioral. C) humanistic. D) sociocultural.
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21. Among other questions, a clinical interviewer asks, “How do you feel about yourself today? How do you feel about what's going on in your life?” MOST likely, the clinical interviewer's orientation is: A) biological. B) cognitive-behavioral. C) psychodynamic. D) humanistic.
22. Dr. Lamoureux has just asked a potential client to talk about herself. After the client responds, the clinician asks a question based on an interesting point the client made. There are few constraints on the conversation. Dr. Lamoureux has just: A) used free association. B) conducted an unstructured interview. C) completed a response inventory. D) employed a projective test. 23. If a clinician begins by asking, “Would you tell me about yourself?”, the clinician is MOST likely conducting a(n): A) mental status exam. B) personality test. C) structured interview. D) unstructured interview.
24. If a clinician is particularly interested in a client's family background and community influences, MOST likely that clinician's orientation is: A) biological. B) humanistic. C) sociocultural. D) psychodynamic.
25. If a clinician is particularly interested in a client's family medical history, that clinician's orientation is MOST likely: A) cognitive-behavioral. B) biological. C) sociocultural. D) psychodynamic.
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26. An interviewer who asks a client questions such as “Where are you now?”, “Why do you think you're here?”, or even “Who are you?” is probably conducting a(n): A) mental status exam. B) behavioral interview. C) sociocultural interview. D) intelligence test.
27. One limitation of the clinical interview as an assessment tool is the: A) lack of validity in minority groups. B) rigidity of the approach. C) clinician's possible overreliance on first impressions. D) time gap between client sessions.
28. One reason to question the validity of clinical interviews is that: A) people respond differently to different interviewers. B) people may respond differently to clinicians who are not of their race. C) on different days, people might describe themselves differently. D) interviewers may make mistakes in how they interpret the information they gather.
29. Which statement about clinical interviews is TRUE? A) Research shows that most clients speak objectively about their own behavior. B) Clinicians' biases can influence how they interpret the information obtained from clinical interviews. C) Clinicians agree that the clinical interview is the most useful clinical assessment tool. D) Clients share more details with clinicians who are viewed as cool and distant.
30. Using projective tests for personality assessment is designed to: A) identify any underlying physiological conditions. B) learn about unconscious conflicts in the client. C) obtain detailed information about specific dysfunctional behaviors. D) obtain detailed information about specific dysfunctional cognitions.
31. The assumption behind the use of projective tests as assessment tools is that: A) they allow for comparison of a client's behavior against a norm. B) the responses come from the client's unconscious. C) they stimulate abnormal behaviors that the clinician can observe. D) patient responses to specific stimuli will uncover specific disorders.
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32. A clinician has developed a test that requires test-takers to tell stories about a series of pictures of city skylines. MOST likely, this new test is a: A) neuropsychological test. B) personality inventory. C) response inventory. D) projective test. 33. When Rorschach testers ask questions like, “Did the person respond to the whole picture or to specific details, and to the colors or the white spaces?”, they are interested in the _____ of the response. A) theme B) content C) style D) images
34. When a clinician using the Rorschach test focuses on the actual images that a person describes, the clinician is emphasizing: A) style. B) theme. C) color. D) latency to respond.
35. Which test is NOT a projective test? A) Rorschach test B) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory C) Draw-a-Person test D) Thematic Apperception Test
36. A client looks at a series of black-and-white pictures that show people in different scenarios. The clinician asks the client to make up a dramatic story to explain what is happening in each picture. The patient is taking: A) the Rorschach test. B) the Thematic Apperception Test. C) the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory. D) an intelligence test.
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37. If a clinician focused on where a person placed a drawing on a page, the size of the drawing, and the parts omitted, the person MOST likely took which test? A) Rorschach B) TAT C) MMPI D) Draw-a-Person
38. Use of projective tests has decreased in the past few decades because projective tests often have: A) interrater reliability that is too high. B) poor validity. C) rigid scoring standards. D) bias against majority groups.
39. Which statement about the current use of projective techniques by clinicians is TRUE? A) Projective tests are no longer used. B) Projective tests are being increasingly used by humanistic clinicians. C) Projective tests, when used, serve as a secondary source of insight about clients. D) Projective tests have a more prominent place in the clinician's repertoire than they did 50 years ago.
40. Which test is a personality inventory? A) Draw-a-Person B) MMPI-2 C) Rorschach D) TAT
41. Who is MOST at risk for misinterpreting a cultural response as pathology? A) A male assessor B) A female assessor C) A dominant-culture assessor D) An ethnic-minority assessor 42. Clients check off either “True,” “False,” or “Cannot say” to a series of 500 items dealing with what they do and what they think in a variety of situations. The kind of test they are taking MOST likely is a: A) projective test. B) personality inventory. C) neuropsychological test. D) sentence-completion test.
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43. The test that reports the person's results on clinical scales such as “hypochondriasis” and “Psychopathic deviate” is the: A) sentence-completion test. B) Thematic Apperception Test. C) Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test. D) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory.
44. Jacob is the kind of person who breaks laws and rules with no feeling of guilt and is emotionally shallow. He would probably score high on the MMPI-2 scale called: A) paranoia. B) schizophrenia. C) psychasthenia. D) psychopathic deviate.
45. Ethan is consumed with concern that his house will burn down. Before he leaves, he makes sure that all his appliances are unplugged. He often has to go back home and check to make sure he did not leave any plugged in. Which MMPI-2 scale would he MOST likely score high on? A) Schizophrenia B) Psychasthenia C) Social introversion D) Psychopathic deviate
46. Many consider the MMPI-2 to be superior to the original MMPI because the MMPI-2: A) was tested on a more diverse group of people. B) produces results that are not comparable to the results of the original MMPI. C) has fewer items. D) produces only one score.
47. Compared with projective tests, personality inventories generally have: A) greater reliability and greater validity. B) greater reliability and poorer validity. C) poorer reliability but greater validity. D) poorer reliability and poorer validity.
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48. Compared with projective tests, personality inventories: A) have greater test–retest reliability. B) are less standardized. C) have lower reliability. D) are more difficult to administer and evaluate.
49. The validity of the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Test is BEST described as: A) highly valid. B) better than that of projective tests. C) about the same as that of projective tests. D) highly invalid.
50. If a clinician wanted to know more detailed information about a person's functioning in a specific area, the clinician would use a: A) response inventory. B) Thematic Appreciation Test. C) measure of reliability. D) validity assessment.
51. A(n) _____ inventory asks about one's level of anxiety, depression, or anger. A) cognitive B) affective C) social skills D) functional
52. A(n) _____ inventory asks about how one would act with others in a variety of situations. A) cognitive B) affective C) social skills D) functional
53. A response inventory that asks individuals to provide detailed information about their typical thoughts and assumptions is a(n) _____ inventory. A) social skill B) cognitive C) affective D) behavioral
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54. Which tool is designed to uncover counterproductive patterns of thinking? A) MMPI-2 B) Rorschach test C) An affective inventory D) A cognitive inventory
55. A valid critique of the use of response inventories is that they: A) do not have good face validity. B) have a long development cycle. C) are standardized too rigidly. D) are not well tested.
56. A person taking a polygraph test is suspected of lying when measures of physiological variables such as heart rate and perspiration are: A) higher for control questions than for test questions. B) higher for test questions than for control questions. C) evenly high for test questions and control questions. D) unchanging for test questions and control questions.
57. A client is hooked up to an apparatus that measures galvanic skin response and blood pressure, after which the client verbally answers a series of questions. This is a(n): A) projective test. B) psychophysiological test. C) neuropsychological test. D) affective response inventory.
58. Which procedure is NOT a form of neuroimaging? A) MRI B) CAT scan C) DEXA scan D) PET scan
59. Which statement is the BEST response about a scientific opinion on the use of polygraphic evidence? A) “Although they are used widely, polygraph results are not particularly reliable.” B) “The APA endorses their use.” C) “On average, 50 out of 100 truths are categorized as lies.” D) “Most courts admit evidence from polygraphs in criminal trials.”
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60. If a person had his brain waves recorded to measure electrical activity, he MOST likely had a(n): A) positron emission tomography (PET) scan. B) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan. C) computerized axial tomography (CAT) scan. D) electroencephalogram (EEG).
61. The technique that uses X rays of the brain taken at different angles to create a static picture of the structure of the brain is called: A) electroencephalography. B) magnetic resonance imaging. C) position emission tomography. D) computerized axial tomography.
62. How does an MRI make a picture of the brain? A) It measures the degree of activity in the various areas scanned. B) It uses X rays and takes pictures at several different angles. C) It relies on the magnetic properties of the atoms in the cells scanned. D) It uses a recording of the electrical impulses produced by the neurons in the brain.
63. In evaluating lie-detection methods, researchers have noted that magnetic resonance imaging: A) is not useful in detecting lies. B) is better than polygraphs at detecting lies. C) does not produce false-positive readings. D) provides consistent rates of detection in multiple studies.
64. A prisoner eligible for parole is required to take a polygraph test. Although the prisoner tells the truth in response to one question, the polygraph operator records the response as a lie. According to recent research, this kind of error is: A) common; approximately 10 to 25 percent of true statements are interpreted as lies. B) unusual; less than 10 percent of true statements are interpreted as lies. C) rare; less than 3 percent of true statements are interpreted as lies. D) very rare; less than 1 percent of true statements are interpreted as lies.
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65. To obtain the clearest and most accurate picture of the physical anatomy of the brain to aid in the diagnosis of a psychological disorder, the method of choice would be: A) MMPI-2. B) fMRI. C) EEG. D) PET scan.
66. The assessment instrument MOST likely to be used to detect subtle brain abnormalities is the: A) neuropsychological test. B) intelligence test. C) psychophysiological test. D) projective test.
67. A 13-year-old makes notable errors in accuracy on the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test. This finding suggests: A) drift. B) psychasthenia. C) organic brain impairment. D) attention-deficit disorder.
68. A clinical diagnostician is dissatisfied with tests that cannot specify the type of brain damage or brain impairment that clients have. The BEST suggestion for that diagnostician would be to use: A) the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test. B) the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale. C) the Beck Inventory. D) a battery of neuropsychological tests.
69. Binet and Simon are known for their work in creating a(n): A) projective test. B) personality inventory. C) intelligence test. D) brain scan.
70. According to the text, intelligence must be measured indirectly. This is because: A) intelligence is an inferred quality. B) direct visualization of the physical processes is not possible. C) what is defined as intelligence is constantly changing. D) it is too expensive to directly measure intelligence.
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71. Which category of clinical tests tends to have the BEST standardization, reliability, and validity? A) Projective tests B) Intelligence tests C) Response inventories D) Personality inventories
72. One strength of intelligence tests is their: A) lack of racial or cultural bias. B) accuracy even when test-takers have high anxiety. C) very high reliability and fairly high validity. D) singular focus on verbal skills.
73. The general score derived from intelligence tests is termed a(n) intelligence: A) drift. B) quotient. C) correlation. D) probability.
74. The MOST legitimate criticism of intelligence tests concerns their: A) validity. B) cultural fairness. C) reliability. D) standardization.
75. A therapist's preferred method of assessing abnormal behavior is to watch clients in their everyday environments and record their activities and behaviors. This approach is known as: A) self-monitoring. B) battery observation. C) analog observation. D) naturalistic observation.
76. Which action would a clinician who is using naturalistic observation be MOST likely to take? A) Observe parent–child interactions in an office setting B) Observe parent–child interactions in the family's home C) Have a parent self-monitor family interactions in an office setting D) Have a parent self-monitor family interactions at home
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77. Under the instructions of a psychologist, Grace's mother records the number of times Grace hits her brother at home and what happens immediately before the hitting. In this situation, Grace's mother is: A) acting as a participant observer. B) demonstrating observer bias. C) conducting structured observations. D) engaging in self-monitoring behavior.
78. A clinician's knowledge that a person about to be interviewed has already been diagnosed as having an anxiety disorder could lead to: A) reactivity. B) observer bias. C) observer drift. D) cross-situational invalidity.
79. One way a clinician might try to reduce observer drift would be to: A) increase the number of different behaviors being monitored. B) try to focus on different aspects of one behavior being monitored. C) decrease the lengths of the observation periods. D) try not to learn too much about a client before making observations. 80. A participant observer experiencing overload would MOST likely say, “I simply can't: A) write down all the important things I'm seeing.” B) concentrate on my observations anymore.” C) be impartial anymore.” D) be sure the person I'm observing is acting like she usually would.”
81. A person knows he is being observed and changes his behavior to make a good impression. This is known as: A) observer drift. B) observer bias. C) reactivity. D) naturalistic change.
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82. A student who is quiet in class might be the life of the party on the weekend. Clinical observation of that student in class would lack: A) observer bias. B) validity. C) reactivity. D) an analog.
83. When someone is watching, Isabella eats fewer sweets than usual. This tendency to decrease a behavior while being observed is an example of: A) reactivity. B) observer bias. C) observer drift. D) poor reliability.
84. An adult frequently displays symptoms of depression at home but seldom does so at work. In this case, clinical observations of this person at home would lack: A) observer bias. B) observer drift. C) structure. D) cross-situational validity.
85. A client reports having infrequent, but extremely disturbing, tactile hallucinations. The MOST useful way to gather information about this person would involve: A) self-monitoring. B) naturalistic observations. C) structured observations. D) a neuropsychological battery.
86. A psychologist constructs a comprehensive view of what is causing and maintaining a person's abnormal behavior. This is referred to as: A) a model. B) the diagnosis. C) an interpretation. D) the clinical picture.
87. Deciding that a client's psychological problems represent a particular disorder is called: A) psychotherapy. B) assessment. C) diagnosis. D) triage.
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88. When clinicians assign a diagnosis, they are saying that the pattern is basically the same as one that has been displayed by many other people. This is MOST important because it means: A) the clinician can better predict which treatments will be effective. B) the client can feel assured that he or she is not alone in having this condition. C) the clinician must specify a diagnosis to be paid by health insurance providers. D) the clinician can stop progression of the disease or disorder.
89. Symptoms such as sadness, loss of appetite, and low energy cluster together to form a: A) treatment. B) classification system. C) syndrome. D) medical condition.
90. A cluster of symptoms that go together and define a mental disorder is called a: A) syndrome. B) classification system. C) DSM axis. D) treatment approach.
91. Which statement is MOST accurate? A) The DSM has remained largely unchanged since its first edition. B) The DSM was originally developed by the World Health Organization. C) The DSM served as the model for the classification system that Emile Kraepelin later developed. D) The classification system that Emil Kraepelin developed served as the model for the DSM.
92. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (presently DSM-5) was developed by the: A) American Psychoanalytic Association. B) American Psychiatric Association. C) American Psychological Association. D) American Phrenological Association.
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93. What is the relationship between the International Classification of Diseases (ICD) and DSM-5? A) The psychological disorders and related diagnostic criteria are identical in both publications. B) DSM-5 contains some psychological disorders not listed in the ICD, but for those that are listed in both publications, the descriptions and diagnostic criteria are identical. C) The two publications do not include identical lists of psychological disorders; for those disorders listed in both, the DSM-5 descriptions and diagnostic criteria are often more detailed. D) The ICD does not include any psychological disorders.
94. DSM-5 is the classification system for abnormal behaviors that is: A) used by the World Health Organization. B) most widely used in the United States. C) used for medical disorders. D) used exclusively for children.
95. DSM-5 lists approximately _____ mental disorders. A) 200 B) 300 C) 400 D) 500 96. A person wonders, “How likely am I to qualify for a DSM diagnosis in my lifetime?” Assuming this person is “typical,” the MOST accurate answer (based on survey results) would be: A) “Unlikely; only approximately 10 percent of all people will ever qualify for a DSM diagnosis.” B) “Somewhat unlikely; approximately 20 percent of all people will at some point qualify for a DSM diagnosis.” C) “Pretty likely; approximately one-third of all people will at some point qualify for a DSM diagnosis.” D) “Likely; almost half of all people will at some point qualify for a DSM diagnosis.”
97. Of the people who would qualify for a DSM diagnosis in their lifetime, surveys show that _____ percent would show comorbidity. A) less than 5 B) approximately 8 C) approximately 10 D) approximately 28
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98. A clinician can include three kinds of information in making a diagnosis: a diagnostic category, a severity rating for the disorder, and additional information about possibly relevant psychosocial factors. According to DSM-5, a clinician is required to include: A) all three kinds of information. B) a diagnostic category and additional information but not a severity rating. C) a diagnostic category and a severity rating but not additional information. D) a diagnostic category and a severity rating but only additional psychosocial information.
99. DSM-5 is the first edition of the DSM that requires clinicians to provide: A) both categorical information and dimensional information. B) only categorical information. C) only dimensional information. D) neither categorical information nor dimensional information.
100. Which factor differentiates DSM-5 from earlier versions of the DSM? A) Psychologists, not psychiatrists, are primarily responsible for DSM-5. B) Psychiatrists, not psychologists, are primarily responsible for DSM-5. C) DSM-5 does not require both dimensional and categorical information. D) DSM-5 requires both dimensional and categorical information.
101. A person is diagnosed as having severe generalized anxiety disorder. Generalized anxiety disorder represents which part of the diagnosis? A) Primary information B) Additional information C) Dimensional information D) Categorical information
102. Assessment tools such as the Cross-Cutting Symptom Measure are used to provide which kind of information for making a diagnosis? A) Categorical B) Dimensional C) Psychosocial D) Sociocultural
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103. Using the criteria listed in DSM-5, Dr. Ross and Dr. Carman agree that Chloe is experiencing posttraumatic stress disorder. This is an example of: A) reliability. B) generalizability. C) external validity. D) internal validity.
104. Which statement is TRUE regarding the reliability of DSM-5? A) Research studies have consistently shown very high reliability across all diagnoses. B) Reliability is highest for newer diagnoses that were not included in DSM-I. C) Reliability is highest for diagnoses that have been included since DSM-I. D) Some research studies have reported better reliability with DSM-5 over earlier versions, but other studies have not.
105. The reliability concerns for DSM-5 MOST likely arise because of its: A) inability to predict the outcome of disorders more accurately. B) exclusion of minority populations. C) greater reliance on labeling mental disorders. D) lack of adequate field trials of new criteria and categories.
106. A procedure that DSM-5 developers relied on to improve validity was: A) conducting field trials for existing criteria and categories. B) conducting extensive research reviews. C) consulting with insurance providers. D) decreasing the number of diagnostic categories and criteria.
107. Which is NOT a concern associated with DSM-5? A) Lack of input from clinical advisors B) Weak field research C) Gender bias D) Racial bias
108. Compared with the original DSM, which was published in 1952, DSM-5 has: A) more than five times as many diagnostic categories. B) approximately twice as many diagnostic categories. C) slightly more diagnostic categories. D) slightly fewer diagnostic categories.
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109. Concerns about the reliability and validity of the DSM-5 diagnoses are MOST likely to center on which factors? A) Categories based on weak research and reflecting bias (for example, gender or racial bias) B) Categories based on field research and reflecting bias (for example, gender or racial bias) C) Categories that reflect overly restrictive descriptions D) Categories too few in number to represent the breadth of human psychological disorders
110. The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) designed a new neuroscience-focused classification tool as an alternative to DSM-5. This tool is called the: A) Research Domain Criteria (RDoC). B) Current Procedural Terminology (CPT). C) International Classification of Diseases (ICD). D) Current Research and Classification Criteria System (CRCCS).
111. In which year was DSM-5 published? A) 2004 B) 2007 C) 2010 D) 2013
112. In DSM-5, Asperger's syndrome is classified under which new category? A) Autistic disorder B) Disruptive mood dysregulation C) Autism spectrum disorder D) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
113. In DSM-5, gambling disorder is considered a(n): A) addictive disorder. B) impulse control disorder. C) neurocognitive disorder. D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
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114. A present-day clinician uses terms like dementia and mental retardation for diagnostic categories. That clinician is using terms: A) common to both DSM-5 and previous forms of the DSM. B) not used in DSM-5 but used in previous forms of the DSM. C) used in DSM-5 but not used in previous forms of the DSM. D) not used in either DSM-5 or in previous forms of the DSM.
115. Studies show that errors in diagnosis MOST commonly involve information gathered: A) early in the assessment process and in a hospital setting. B) late in the assessment process and in a hospital setting. C) early in the assessment process and in a private office setting. D) late in the assessment process and in a private office setting.
116. Studies of diagnostic conclusions made by clinicians show that clinicians: A) do not emphasize information gathered early in the assessment process. B) pay too much attention to certain sources of information. C) ask for consultations in approximately half of their cases. D) take overt measures to prevent their biases from playing a role in their decisions.
117. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia has begun to exhibit new symptoms, often saying, “They tell me I'm crazy, so I must be crazy.” This MOST likely is an example of: A) self-fulfilling prophecy. B) therapist bias. C) learned helplessness. D) nomothetic disturbance. 118. An institutionalized individual behaving abnormally says, “The doctor claims I'm schizophrenic! How else would you expect me to act?” The individual's comments reflect: A) misdiagnosis. B) presence of a comorbidity. C) a misunderstanding of multiaxial diagnosis. D) self-fulfilling prophecy.
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119. After a client shares his or her DSM diagnosis with others, people may treat the client differently, and the client may act accordingly. Many theorists would attribute this to the development of: A) generalized anxiety. B) a self-fulfilling prophecy. C) a somatic symptom disorder, as opposed to a psychiatric disorder. D) a crisis of faith. 120. “Let's just do away with diagnoses,” says a clinician. “All we do is make things worse.” That clinician's viewpoint is: A) shared by a strong majority of those working in the area of abnormality. B) shared by almost no one working in the area of abnormality. C) shared by some of those working in the area of abnormality. D) represented in DSM-5, which does not require a specific diagnosis.
121. An individual who receives a DSM diagnosis is MOST likely to: A) move into a residential treatment facility. B) share his or her diagnosis freely with others. C) experience a feeling of relief after the diagnosis. D) find it more difficult to get a job if the diagnosis is shared. 122. A clinical psychologist says, “How do I decide on the best treatment? Simple: I make sure to read the most recent research studies in therapy and follow their advice.” This clinical psychologist is: A) typical; almost all therapists read about and use the most current forms of therapy. B) common; most therapists read about and use the most current forms of therapy. C) unusual; most therapists base therapy decisions on something other than what they can read in research journals. D) rare; almost all therapists make treatment decisions based on what is available on Web sites. 123. A clinical psychologist says, “I select the best treatment for a client based on the current recommendations outlined in research studies.” This clinical psychologist believes in using: A) intuitively based treatment. B) culture-constrained treatment. C) evidence-based treatment. D) meta-analytical treatment.
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124. Studies report that most therapists are MOST likely to learn about the latest information on treatment of psychological disorders from: A) reading research articles. B) talking with professional colleagues. C) conducting their own research. D) writing grants.
125. Therapies that have received clear research support are called: A) meta-analyses. B) idiographic. C) evidence-based. D) outcome complex.
126. Support for the use of evidence-based forms of psychotherapy: A) has declined in recent years. B) has increased in recent years. C) has been stable for many years. D) increased a few years ago but is now declining.
127. One reason why it is challenging for clinicians to determine whether a treatment for a psychological disorder is effective is that: A) it is difficult to measure improvement. B) many clinicians do not use evidence-based treatments. C) multiple treatment approaches may be used at the same time. D) use of medication masks the underlying cause of the disorder.
128. Which statement BEST describes why treatment outcomes vary in clients? A) Success of treatment is largely dependent on the client's expectations regarding therapy. B) Many factors, both on the client side and on the clinician side, can affect therapy outcomes. C) A large number of clinicians do not use standardized rating scales to monitor client progress during therapy. D) Clients commonly try to self-medicate and manage their symptoms on their own rather than adhering to prescribed therapies.
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129. Which is NOT a question that therapy outcome studies seek to answer? A) Is therapy in general effective? B) Which therapies are effective for all clients? C) Are particular therapies generally effective? D) Are particular therapies effective for particular problems?
130. To study the general effectiveness of treatment, Smith and Glass and their colleagues performed a(n): A) meta-analysis of many studies. B) analysis of their clinical cases. C) survey of many clients who had received therapy. D) controlled study that involved random assignment of subjects to treatment conditions.
131. On average, patients receiving therapy for a psychological problem improve more than do _____ percent of people with similar problems who do not receive treatment. A) 0 B) 25 C) 75 D) 100
132. Some studies have reported that 5 to 10 percent of patients with psychological disorders get worse after starting treatment. From this finding, one can conclude that: A) a small percentage of patients cannot be helped with treatment. B) treatment causes additional symptoms in some clients. C) not all treatments are equally effective in all clients. D) a small percentage of clinicians are not adequately trained to treat clients. 133. “You know, it really doesn't matter: One kind of psychotherapy is generally just about as good as any other.” Someone who agrees with this statement is: A) making an accurate statement about what we know about psychotherapy. B) falling victim to the uniformity myth. C) accurately reflecting the findings of most meta-analyses. D) failing to notice therapeutic rapprochement.
134. Studies that seek to avoid the uniformity myth focus on the: A) effectiveness of treatment in general. B) effectiveness of specific treatment approaches. C) differences in clinical presentation of a specific disorder. D) differences in clinicians' experiences in implementing treatments.
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135. The movement that has tried to find the common factors and strategies that “good” therapists use is called: A) uniformity. B) particularity. C) rapprochement. D) idiosyncratics.
136. Surveys of highly successful therapists have reported that these therapists consistently try to promote self-mastery in their clients. From this finding, one can conclude that this technique: A) should be incorporated into all treatment approaches for all disorders. B) may help promote successful therapy outcomes in clients. C) should be included in the treatment for specific disorders. D) is a significant contributor to client improvement. 137. A psychiatrist says, “I'm a strong believer in a combined approach to therapy. In fact, I frequently participate in combined approaches, although I don't practice psychotherapy.” Based on this statement, this psychiatrist's specialty is MOST likely: A) eclecticism. B) psychopharmacology. C) rapprochement. D) cognitive-behavioral.
138. A person who primarily prescribes medication but does not conduct psychotherapy is called a: A) pharmacist. B) psychopharmacologist. C) clinical psychologist. D) family practice nurse.
139. The therapy found to be most effective for treating phobias is: A) drug therapy. B) Gestalt therapy. C) electroconvulsive therapy. D) cognitive-behavioral therapy.
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140. The therapy found to be most effective for treating schizophrenia is: A) drug therapy. B) Gestalt therapy. C) electroconvulsive therapy. D) cognitive-behavioral therapy.
141. The three MOST common factors that contribute to a positive treatment outcome are client factors, therapist factors, and: A) the client–therapist relationship. B) evidence-based treatment. C) family involvement. D) treatment support.
142. A client factor that helps result in positive treatment outcome is: A) educational attainment. B) income level. C) high motivation. D) discipline.
143. A client with autism is being simultaneously treated by a psychiatrist and a psychologist. This represents a: A) dual diagnosis. B) rapprochement. C) uniform approach. D) combined approach.
144. The uniformity myth is based on the false belief that: A) all therapies are equal. B) all research studies are of high quality. C) there is a single presentation for every psychological disorder. D) common strategies underlie all successful treatment approaches.
145. Those who develop standard treatment guidelines for each disorder based on research findings and then share that information with clinicians are promoting: A) meta-analysis. B) rapprochement. C) standardized coding. D) empirically supported treatment.
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146. Research studies evaluating how effective individual therapies are at treating particular disorders have commonly reported: A) significant differences among therapies. B) minor differences among therapies. C) no differences among therapies. D) no differences among therapies and placebo treatment.
147. It is thought that which technique will provide additional assessment information about numerous psychological disorders? A) Projective testing B) Brain scanning C) Polygraph testing D) Cell regeneration
148. Which statement is the BEST conclusion about the various assessment techniques? A) There is one standard assessment battery used by all clinicians in every situation. B) Respect for assessment is on the rise. C) Clinicians have abandoned the use of assessment. D) Assessment is used at the beginning of therapy but not thereafter.
149. Which factor leads to increased respect for assessment and diagnosis? A) The ability to identify disorders without assessment B) More global and less precise DSM-5 categories C) Increased assessment research D) Decreased emphasis on clinical studies involving “real” patients
150. One factor that could discourage the use of effective assessment tools today is the: A) lack of clinicians who are sufficiently trained in their use. B) overly simplistic design, which allows clients to figure out the “right” answer. C) incredibly large number of assessments to select from. D) expense of administering and evaluating assessment tools.
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Answer Key 1. C 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. B 6. A 7. D 8. B 9. A 10. A 11. C 12. C 13. C 14. A 15. B 16. A 17. C 18. C 19. D 20. B 21. D 22. B 23. D 24. C 25. B 26. A 27. C 28. D 29. B 30. B 31. B 32. D 33. C 34. B 35. B 36. B 37. D 38. B 39. C 40. B 41. C 42. B 43. D 44. D
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45. B 46. A 47. A 48. A 49. B 50. A 51. B 52. C 53. B 54. D 55. D 56. B 57. B 58. C 59. A 60. D 61. D 62. C 63. B 64. A 65. B 66. A 67. C 68. D 69. C 70. A 71. B 72. C 73. B 74. B 75. D 76. B 77. A 78. B 79. C 80. A 81. C 82. B 83. A 84. D 85. A 86. D 87. C 88. A 89. C 90. A
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91. D 92. B 93. C 94. B 95. D 96. D 97. D 98. C 99. A 100. D 101. D 102. B 103. A 104. D 105. D 106. B 107. A 108. A 109. A 110. A 111. D 112. C 113. A 114. B 115. A 116. B 117. A 118. D 119. B 120. C 121. D 122. C 123. C 124. B 125. C 126. B 127. A 128. B 129. B 130. A 131. C 132. C 133. B 134. B 135. C 136. B
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137. B 138. B 139. D 140. A 141. A 142. C 143. D 144. A 145. A 146. A 147. B 148. B 149. C 150. D
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1. The collecting of relevant information in an effort to reach a conclusion is referred to as: A) diagnosis. B) psychometry. C) demography. D) assessment.
2. An assessment tool shows high _____ reliability if different judges independently agree on how to score and interpret it. A) predictive B) test–retest C) interrater D) discriminant
3. The test MOST likely to have interrater reliability is the one that includes: A) open-ended questions. B) multiple-choice questions. C) structured questions. D) face-to-face questioning.
4. A diagnostic tool that helps clinicians predict future symptoms or events has _____ validity. A) interrater B) test–retest C) predictive D) retrospective
5. One advantage of using a structured interview format is that it allows the clinician to: A) compare clients' responses. B) build rapport with the client. C) explore areas of interest to the client. D) provide immediate feedback to the client.
6. A(n) _____ assessment would be used to assess unconscious drives and conflicts that may be at the root of abnormal functioning. A) observational B) projective C) standardized D) brain imaging
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7. A clinician asks a client to review black-and-white pictures of individuals in different vague scenarios and then tell a dramatic story to go along with each image. This client is taking the: A) Tell-Me-a-Story Test. B) Thematic Apperception Test. C) sentence-completion test. D) Rorschach test.
8. Which tool should a clinician who wants to collect psychophysiological data about a client use? A) MMPI-2 B) Response inventory C) EEG D) Polygraph
9. A researcher wants to know which areas of the brain are active when people tell lies. The BEST assessment tool for this situation is: A) fMRI. B) PET scan. C) CAT scan. D) X rays.
10. One of the most carefully produced assessment tests is the: A) sentence-completion test. B) intelligence test. C) response inventory. D) Rorschach test.
11. The technology known as _____ produces a computerized motion picture of chemical activity in the brain. A) CAT scan B) MRI C) PET scan D) EEG
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12. A clinician wants to understand the everyday interactions between a parent and a child. The BEST assessment tool for this is: A) self-monitoring. B) naturalistic observation. C) polygraph questioning. D) unstructured interview.
13. Which statement is TRUE about the term nervous breakdown? A) It is a statistically valid clinical syndrome. B) It is not a recognized clinical term but is used by laypersons. C) Although not an official diagnosis, it is a commonly used medical term. D) It was an official clinical syndrome in early versions of the DSM but is not included in the current edition.
14. In 1883, Emil Kraepelin developed the first modern classification system for abnormal behavior. His categories formed the foundation for psychological disorders found in which modern classification system? A) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) B) International Classification of Diseases (ICD) C) Research Domain Criteria (RDoC) D) Transcontinental Classification Guide for Psychotic Behavior (TCGPB)
15. The diagnostic classification system whose criteria are neuro/biological focused is the: A) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM). B) International Classification of Diseases (ICD). C) Research Domain Criteria (RDoC). D) Transcontinental Classification Guide for Psychotic Behavior (TCGPB).
16. A goal of the DSM-5 was to: A) standardize billing codes used for reimbursement. B) improve reliability over previous editions. C) correct the politically incorrect language used in earlier editions. D) reduce training needs of diagnosticians.
17. Critics of the Research Domain Criteria (RDoC) diagnostic system claim that it: A) devalues ethical considerations related to labeling clients. B) minimizes environmental and psychological factors. C) uses unclear and ambiguous language related to diagnostic criteria. D) increases the likelihood of people receiving clinical diagnoses, especially for depression.
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18. The specific details and background of a client's problem are called _____ data, whereas established information about the nature and treatment of a particular illness is called _____ data. A) idiographic; nomothetic B) parametric; observational C) nomothetic; idiographic D) observational; parametric
19. The _____ movement has tried to identify a set of common strategies that are present in the work of all effective therapists, regardless of the clinician's particular orientation. A) ecumenical B) uniformity C) rapprochement D) naturalistic
20. A concern related to the DSM-5's addition of mild neurocognitive disorder is that this diagnosis may be: A) misapplied to individuals experiencing normal age-related forgetfulness. B) overapplied to individuals who have a more severe neurocognitive disorder. C) underapplied to those who are older than 50 years of age. D) misapplied to individuals who have organic brain dysfunction.
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Answer Key 1. D 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. B 8. D 9. A 10. B 11. C 12. B 13. B 14. A 15. C 16. B 17. B 18. A 19. C 20. A
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1. An assessment tool has high _____ if it yields the same results every time it is given to the same people. A) interrater reliability B) face validity C) predictive validity D) test–retest reliability
2. A _____ test is one that has been set up with common steps to be followed whenever it is administered. A) valid B) reliable C) standardized D) projective
3. The _____ requires a client to look at one inkblot card at a time and describe what he or she sees in the image. A) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) B) sentence completion test C) Draw-a-Person Test (DAP) D) Rorschach test
4. How many clinical scales are found on the MMPI (MMPI-2)? A) 4 B) 10 C) 12 D) 16
5. Of every 10 true statements, at least _____ are incorrectly identified as false on a polygraph test. A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 4
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6. Which widely used neuropsychological test consists of nine cards, each displaying a simple design that subjects are asked to first copy on a piece of paper and then redraw from memory? A) Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychology Battery B) Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test C) Luria-Nebraska Battery D) Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale
7. If a clinician wants to assess for intellectual disability, the MOST appropriate test is the: A) intelligence test. B) sentence-completion test. C) Rorschach test. D) functional MRI test.
8. The validity of clinical observations may be limited by a client's _____, which means that the client's behavior may be affected by the very presence of an observer. A) drift B) projections C) reactivity D) self-monitoring
9. A cluster of symptoms that usually occur together is known as a: A) syndrome. B) classification system. C) diagnosis. D) prognosis.
10. Critics argue that the reliability of the DSM-5 is not as high as it should be due to: A) insufficient field testing. B) overreliance on historical data. C) inclusion of new diagnoses. D) limited review and interpretation of existing meta-analyses.
11. The DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for some conditions, such as major depressive disorder, include “excessive” distress. Some clinicians argue that this: A) makes it more difficult to receive reimbursement from third-party payers. B) could result in clinical diagnoses being applied to normal reactions and behaviors. C) increases the number of assessment tests that must be performed to determine a diagnosis. D) may increase the number of people seeking a clinical diagnosis.
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12. Which statement about DSM-5 is TRUE? A) DSM-5 includes both diagnostic criteria for both psychological and medical disorders. B) A new edition is released every two years. C) DSM-5 is the definitive diagnostic guide used worldwide. D) DSM-5 is an ongoing work in progress.
13. Which is NOT a reason that clinicians are concerned about misdiagnosing someone with a psychological disorder? A) A misdiagnosis distorts the clinician's assessment and judgment of other clients. B) The person may “live up to” the label (self-fulfilling prophecy). C) The wrong treatment may be applied. D) The person may not receive any treatment.
14. According to surveys, therapists get much of their information on treatment best practices from colleagues, professional newsletters, workshops, conferences, Web sites, and books. This is a concern because: A) the accuracy and timeliness of this information vary. B) clinicians should be performing their own clinical research. C) these sources rely primarily on qualitative research designs. D) most of these sources are funded by pharmacologic companies.
15. Approximately how many different forms of therapy are practiced in the clinical field? A) 75 B) 150 C) 400 D) 1,000
16. According to a meta-analysis of treatment studies, the average person who received treatment was better off than _____ percent of the untreated control subjects. A) 10 B) 35 C) 50 D) 75
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17. Which question is NOT usually asked in a therapy outcome study? A) Is therapy in general effective? B) Are particular therapies generally effective? C) Are particular therapies effective for particular problems? D) Will a client be likely to improve without therapy?
18. A psychiatrist who primarily prescribes medication is called a: A) psychometrician. B) psychiatric social worker. C) psychopharmacologist. D) psychostatistician.
19. Cynthia is seeing two therapists. One is a psychiatrist who prescribes medications; the other is a social worker who provides counseling. This is an example of a _____ approach. A) psychotherapeutic B) neurophysiological C) cognitive-behavioral D) combined treatment
20. The use of systematic clinical assessments in the United States is: A) increasing, but may be threatened by economic pressures. B) increasing, and is projected to more than double by 2025. C) decreasing, and is expected to reach an all-time low in usage rates by 2025. D) decreasing, but is expected to increase as a result of anticipated federal funding initiatives.
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Answer Key 1. D 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. B 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. A 11. B 12. D 13. A 14. A 15. C 16. D 17. D 18. C 19. D 20. A
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Chapter 5
1. What criteria are used to distinguish between clinically significant fear and anxiety and everyday fear and anxiety? Give examples of each.
2. Briefly compare and contrast the sociocultural, psychodynamic, humanistic, cognitive-behavioral, and biological perspectives regarding the development of generalized anxiety disorders.
3. Identify and provide examples for basic irrational assumptions, meta-worries, and intolerance of uncertainty theory from the cognitive-behavioral perspective's explanation of anxiety.
4. Explain in detail, from a biological perspective, how GABA is related to the experience of anxiety. What are some limitations of this explanation?
5. Describe how a cognitive-behaviorist would explain the development of a dog phobia, using modeling. Include an example.
6. Describe in detail the exposure therapies of systematic desensitization, flooding, and modeling in the treatment of specific phobias.
7. Imagine that a person has a diagnosed panic disorder. Based on the latest research, which treatment options are most appropriate for this person?
8. Following the example of the case vignettes in the textbook, write a description of someone experiencing an obsessive-compulsive disorder. Include the MOST common themes in obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors.
9. Compare the psychodynamic and cognitive-behavioral perspectives regarding the causes of obsessive-compulsive disorders.
10. DSM-5 has created a new category called obsessive-compulsive–related disorders. List and describe the four patterns in that group. What is the underlying commonality in all of these disorders?
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Answer Key 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
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1. The physiological and emotional response to a vague sense of threat or danger is usually termed _____.
2. Carl Rogers argued that anxiety disorders arise from the failure to receive unconditional positive regard during childhood. The person develops harsh self-standards, called _____, which he or she tries to meet by repeatedly distorting and denying his or her true experiences.
3. A therapist treating a person for generalized anxiety disorder works with the client to help the person understand his or her irrational assumptions and suggests alternative assumptions. This is an example of Ellis's technique, called _____ therapy.
4. The DSM-5 diagnosis for an uncontrollable and irrational fear of an object, activity, or situation is _____.
5. It is possible that many common phobic reactions can be explained by humans having a predisposition to develop certain fears. This idea is referred to as _____.
6. After relaxation training, a therapist and client create a fear hierarchy of situations that would provoke anxiety in the client. The next step in therapy is pairing of these situations with relaxation, either real-life exposure or imagined. This technique is best described as _____.
7. Therapists who use the technique of _____ believe that people with phobic disorders must be forced to confront what they fear in its full intensity so they will see that no real danger exists.
8. Performance anxiety is a symptom of _____.
9. A short-term anxiety reaction that accelerates into a smothering, horrifying ordeal in which one loses control, is practically unaware of what one is doing, and feels a sense of approaching doom is called a(n) _____.
10. Since the 1960s, the drugs MOST likely to be used against panic disorder have been _____.
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11. Nadia is generally not very anxious. She also does not react as much to bodily sensations that others find anxiety provoking. According to the cognitive-behavioral explanation for panic attack, she probably has a low degree of _____.
12. Repetitive thoughts, ideas, impulses, or mental images that seem to invade a person's consciousness are called _____.
13. Repetitive and rigid activities that a person feels forced to perform are called _____.
14. Recurrent and unwanted thoughts or the need to perform repetitive and ritualistic actions is characteristic of _____.
15. Obsessive-compulsive disorder is improved by antidepressants that increase _____ activity in the brain.
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Answer Key 1. anxiety 2. conditions of worth 3. rational-emotive 4. specific phobia 5. preparedness 6. systematic desensitization 7. flooding 8. social anxiety disorder 9. panic attack 10. antidepressants 11. anxiety sensitivity 12. obsessions 13. compulsions 14. obsessive-compulsive disorder 15. serotonin
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1. Fear differs from anxiety in that: A) fear is a response to a specific threat, whereas anxiety is more general. B) anxiety is more likely to lead to aggression than is fear. C) fear is a response to an inanimate threat, whereas anxiety is a response to an interpersonal threat. D) anxiety is an immediate response, whereas fear is more vague.
2. The MOST common mental disorders in the United States are: A) mood disorders. B) anxiety disorders. C) personality disorders. D) sexual disorders.
3. Which is an anxiety disorder? A) Schizophrenia B) Bipolar disorder C) Major depression D) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
4. A person with _____ experiences wide-ranging and persistent feelings of worry and anxiety. A) generalized anxiety disorder B) specific phobia C) social anxiety disorder D) obsessive-compulsive disorder
5. Kihye always feels threatened and anxious, imagining something awful is about to happen. She is able to work and care for her family, although not as well as she would like. Kihye is probably experiencing: A) a generalized anxiety disorder. B) a hormonal imbalance. C) no specific problem; worrying is a personality trait. D) a specific fear response.
6. People with an anxiety disorder are MOST likely to experience: A) a second anxiety disorder. B) periods of mania. C) another type of psychiatric disorder. D) hallucinations.
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7. The feeling of being on edge for no apparent reason is called: A) free-floating anxiety. B) specific anxiety. C) fearful anxiety. D) obsession.
8. A client has been experiencing uncontrolled anxiety. His symptoms include edginess, sleep changes, fatigue, and significant distress. To meet the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for generalized anxiety disorder, these symptoms must be present for _____ months or longer. A) 1 B) 3 C) 6 D) 12
9. Someone interested in the effects of social change, poverty, and race on the risk for generalized anxiety disorders probably supports the _____ perspective. A) sociocultural B) psychodynamic C) humanistic-existential D) cognitive-behavioral 10. “Who wouldn't be afraid all the time? We have the bomb, overpopulation, AIDS, and violent crime everywhere. It's difficult to get a good job unless you're a computer genius.” This complaint is consistent with a _____ explanation of generalized anxiety disorder. A) behavioral B) humanistic C) sociocultural D) psychodynamic
11. Compared with men, women are _____ to develop generalized anxiety disorder. A) equally likely B) about half as likely C) twice as likely D) not at all likely
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12. According to sociocultural theorists, generalized anxiety disorder is LEAST likely to develop in people who: A) live near a nuclear power plant. B) are scared of violence in their neighborhood. C) have a lot of free time to think and ruminate about their problems. D) struggle to pay their bills.
13. One limitation of the sociocultural approach to understanding generalized anxiety disorders is that it cannot explain: A) the paradox that as poverty gets worse, generalized anxiety declines. B) the relationships among race, poverty, and job opportunity. C) why everyone who experiences danger doesn't experience generalized anxiety. D) the differences in generalized anxiety in countries around the world.
14. According to Freud, children who are prevented from expressing id impulses (for example, making mud pies, playing war, and exploring their genitals) are at risk for developing: A) specific phobias. B) anxiety. C) fear. D) an existential crisis.
15. The theoretical position that explains the origin of anxiety disorders as the overrun of defense mechanisms by neurotic or moral anxiety is the _____ approach. A) cognitive-behavioral B) humanistic C) sociocultural D) psychodynamic
16. According to Freud, a generalized anxiety disorder is MOST likely to result when: A) a person does not dream, and thus has no outlet for anxiety. B) defense mechanisms are too weak to cope with anxiety. C) a person never has a chance to experience trauma. D) defense mechanisms are too strong.
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17. The psychodynamic method that has been shown to significantly reduce the levels of anxiety, worry, and social difficulty of patients with generalized anxiety disorder is: A) free association. B) short-term psychodynamic therapy. C) dream analysis. D) relational psychoanalytic therapy. 18. “Phobic and generalized anxiety disorders arise when people stop looking at themselves honestly and with acceptance and instead deny and distort their true thoughts, emotions, and behavior.” This explanation for anxiety disorders would MOST likely be offered by a: A) biological theorist. B) cognitive-behavioral theorist. C) sociocultural theorist. D) humanistic theorist.
19. If a person criticized everything he did, looking for flaws, and never could measure up to his personal standards, he would be exhibiting what Rogers called: A) empathy. B) unconditional positive regard. C) conditions of worth. D) moral anxiety.
20. The theory that states people develop generalized anxiety disorders because they failed to receive unconditional positive regard as children and evaluate themselves with conditions of worth is: A) Pavlov's conditioning theory. B) Freud's psychoanalytic theory. C) Rogers's client-centered theory. D) Ellis's rational-emotive theory.
21. Compare the evidence supporting the usefulness of client-centered therapy for those with generalized anxiety disorder versus those with the same condition who receive placebo therapy. A) Client-centered therapy is only sometimes superior to placebo therapy. B) Client-centered therapy is vastly superior to placebo therapy. C) There is no difference, indicating client-centered therapy is not a useful approach. D) Surprising research indicates placebo therapy is more effective than client-centered therapy.
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22. The inaccurate and inappropriate beliefs held by people with various psychological problems are called: A) existential anxiety. B) irrational assumptions. C) moral anxiety. D) conditions of worth.
23. A person who believes that it is awful and catastrophic when things are not the way he or she would like them to be is displaying: A) meta-worry. B) irrational assumptions. C) compulsion. D) conditions of worth.
24. A person who believes that one should be thoroughly competent and adequate and achieve in all possible aspects is displaying: A) meta-worry. B) irrational assumptions. C) compulsion. D) conditions of worth.
25. A belief of many early cognitive-behavioral therapists, and one that continues to be influential today, is that generalized anxiety disorder is induced by: A) maladaptive assumptions. B) lack of empathy. C) interpersonal loss. D) overactive id impulses.
26. The most appropriate motto for someone with generalized anxiety disorder is: A) “Better safe than sorry.” B) “Life's a gamble; give it your best shot.” C) “When you reach the mountaintop, it's hard to come back down.” D) “Nothing ventured, nothing gained.”
27. An example of a meta-worry is demonstrated by someone who: A) worries about all possible signs of danger. B) worries about not worrying enough. C) thinks about worrying. D) worries about worrying.
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28. Research on the cognitive explanation for the development of generalized anxiety shows that people with generalized anxiety symptoms: A) respond more fearfully to predictable events than to unpredictable events. B) fail to pay attention to threatening cues. C) are more likely to have fast and strong physical reactions to stress. D) show little physiological arousal to stress.
29. According to intolerance of uncertainty theory, individuals with generalized anxiety disorder are: A) likely to have difficulty tolerating the knowledge that a negative event may occur. B) likely to underestimate the chances that any positive event will occur. C) able to tolerate uncertainty only in mildly threatening events. D) able to tolerate uncertainty only in severely threatening events.
30. In terms of cognitive theories explaining generalized anxiety disorder, a good deal of research supports: A) only metacognitive theory. B) only intolerance of uncertainty theory. C) neither metacognitive theory nor intolerance of uncertainty theory. D) both metacognitive theory and intolerance of uncertainty theory.
31. The avoidance theory of generalized anxiety disorder suggests that worrying: A) serves to reduce bodily arousal. B) interferes with our ability to cope with life. C) keeps the focus on emotions, not cognitions. D) is an uncontrollable part of life.
32. If a therapist gave a client homework that required the client to challenge faulty assumptions and replace them with healthier ones, the therapist would be using: A) cognitive-existential therapy. B) client-centered therapy. C) rational-emotive therapy. D) acceptance and commitment therapy.
33. The therapy for generalized anxiety disorder developed by Albert Ellis is called: A) behavior modification. B) rational-emotive therapy. C) self-instruction training. D) stress inoculation training.
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34. “Your worries are only thoughts. Don't try to stop them! Recognize that they're thoughts, and don't let them upset you so much.” This statement MOST likely would come from someone using which form of therapy for generalized anxiety disorder? A) Rational-emotive therapy B) Mindfulness-based cognitive therapy C) Intolerance of uncertainty therapy D) Biofeedback
35. Which statement is TRUE regarding the use of mindfulness-based therapy? A) Its use has been resisted in therapy applications. B) Many cognitive-behavioral therapists support its use in therapy applications, but only to treat generalized anxiety disorder. C) It has been used to treat a wide range of disorders, including generalized anxiety disorder. D) It is so new that no one is sure of its treatment applicability.
36. A major similarity between the work of Albert Ellis and Aaron Beck is the: A) notion that anxiety is caused by self-doubt. B) idea that anxiety is heightened when a person does not receive empathy. C) belief that maladaptive thoughts cause anxiety. D) focus on the genetic component of anxiety.
37. Until recently, the evidence that generalized anxiety disorder is related to biological factors came largely from: A) drug studies. B) clinical interviews. C) family pedigree studies. D) neurological studies.
38. The biological understanding of generalized anxiety is supported by the finding that: A) relatives of people with generalized anxiety are more likely to have it than nonrelatives are. B) distant relatives of people with generalized anxiety are more likely to have it than close relatives are. C) relatives share not only biological characteristics but also similar environments. D) identical twins have more similar environments than fraternal twins.
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39. Which statement is MOST accurate? A) Anxiety is caused by deficient levels of GABA throughout the brain. B) Long-term anxiety contributes to poor GABA reception. C) High GABA reception causes long-term anxiety. D) Low GABA levels can increase activity in the fear circuit, leading to increased anxiety.
40. Benzodiazepines are believed to be effective in treating generalized anxiety disorder because they mimic the effect of _____ at certain receptor sites in the brain. A) GABA B) dopamine C) acetylcholine D) serotonin
41. GABA has been implicated in the etiology of: A) schizophrenia. B) panic disorder. C) conversion disorder. D) generalized anxiety disorder.
42. GABA acts by: A) increasing neuronal firing in the brain. B) doubling of the rate of neuronal firing. C) intensifying the strength of neuronal firing. D) inhibiting neuronal firing in the brain.
43. Dr. Lopez wants to improve the effectiveness of GABA in a client. She should choose: A) a drug that increases neuronal firing speed. B) a benzodiazepine. C) any of the antidepressants. D) a drug that works on the endocrine level rather than the neuron level.
44. Which medications work primarily by enhancing the effectiveness of GABA? A) Antidepressants B) Antipsychotics C) Immunosuppressants D) Benzodiazepines
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45. Which is NOT a disadvantage of taking benzodiazepines? A) Lack of sleep, increased anxiety, and passivity B) Return of anxiety symptoms when the medication is withdrawn C) Impairment in cognitive and psychomotor functioning D) Physical dependence on the drug
46. What are brain circuits? A) GABA receptors B) Networks of brain structures that work together C) Neurotransmitters at work D) Brain formations in the prefrontal cortex
47. Drugs that calm people at lower doses and help them to fall asleep at higher doses are called: A) sedative-hypnotic drugs. B) antidepressants. C) antipsychotics. D) sleeping pills.
48. A major limitation of treating generalized anxiety disorder with antipsychotic medication is that these medications: A) do not alter the activity of dopamine. B) simply are not effective. C) increase panic attacks. D) can produce serious side effects.
49. An intense, persistent, and irrational fear that is accompanied by a compelling desire to avoid the object of the fear to the point of interfering with the life of the person is called: A) panic disorder. B) phobic disorder. C) obsessive-compulsive disorder. D) generalized anxiety disorder.
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50. Avery, a 28-year-old woman, tells her therapist that she has an intense fear of snakes. She says she has been afraid of snakes since she was a child. Which additional criterion would suggest that Avery meets the diagnostic criteria for a specific phobia? A) Feelings of anxiousness when looking at images of snakes B) Occasional dreams that involve snakes C) Refusal to go to certain places where she believes snakes could be present, such as the lake D) Feelings that the world would be better off without snakes
51. How do phobias and common fear differ? A) Fear more dramatically interferes with a person's life. B) Fear relates to intangible objects, whereas a phobia is specific to tangible things. C) A phobia causes physiological changes, whereas fear causes cognitive changes. D) A phobia leads to a greater desire to avoid the thing that causes fear.
52. Which of the following is NOT true regarding specific phobias? A) Many people have more than one phobia at a time. B) Repeated exposure to the object causes a gradual fear response. C) Women are more likely to have a specific phobia compared to men. D) People make elaborate efforts to avoid specific phobias.
53. Agoraphobia is the fear of: A) flying. B) speaking. C) public places. D) spiders.
54. A woman constantly avoids crowded streets and buildings, and she is very reluctant to leave home, even with a friend. Recently, she has started experiencing extreme, sudden fear every time she enters a crowded street. MOST likely, this woman would be diagnosed with: A) panic disorder and specific phobia. B) panic disorder. C) agoraphobia and panic disorder. D) agoraphobia.
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55. Which theoretical position explains the origin of phobias as due to classical conditioning? A) Biological B) Sociocultural C) Behavioral D) Psychodynamic
56. Davon watched his father recoil from a snake in fear. Now he is afraid of snakes. This apparent acquisition of fear of snakes is an example of: A) modeling. B) response discrimination. C) escape response. D) stimulus generalization.
57. When Marianela was a young child and watching TV with her mother, a mouse ran by. Her mother screamed, scaring her. Ever since then, Marianela has been afraid of mice. In this example, the mouse is the: A) conditioned response. B) unconditioned response. C) conditioned stimulus. D) unconditioned stimulus.
58. When Logan was 5 years old, he was playing with a stuffed bunny when a burglar broke into his home. Now, as an adult, Logan is terrified of rabbits. Why do cognitive-behavioral theorists believe Logan dreads rabbits, even though he should know they are harmless? A) Logan never got close enough to rabbits to learn they are actually harmless. B) Logan's brain has been rewired by his childhood trauma. C) Fearing rabbits protects Logan from confronting real threats in the world. D) Logan's fear has been transmitted genetically through an evolutionary process.
59. When he was 5 years old, Sunil was almost struck by lightning while walking through a forest during a rainstorm. Today, he is extremely afraid of trees. A behaviorist would say that he has acquired this fear by: A) operant conditioning. B) modeling and imitation. C) classical conditioning. D) stimulus generalization.
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60. Which behavioral assumption has the LEAST amount of research to support it? A) Fear can be acquired through modeling. B) Phobias are primarily acquired through classical conditioning in humans. C) Animals can learn to make avoidance responses. D) Phobias can be acquired through classical conditioning in humans.
61. Which statement MOST accurately reflects current research findings regarding phobias? A) Phobias are always a result of classical conditioning. B) Phobias are almost always a result of classical conditioning. C) Phobias ordinarily are a result of classical conditioning. D) Phobias may be a result of classical conditioning.
62. The belief that human beings, as a species, have a predisposition to develop certain fears is known as the _____ explanation of phobias. A) environmental B) behavioral-evolutionary C) empirical D) externalized behavior
63. Apparently, people develop phobias more readily to things such as spiders and the dark than they do to such objects such as computers and radios. This observation supports the idea of: A) modeling. B) stimulus generalization. C) conditioning. D) preparedness.
64. If the idea of preparedness is accurate, then: A) some phobias should be acquired more easily than others. B) all phobias should diminish with treatment at about the same rate. C) animals and humans should have the same phobias. D) phobias should be less frequent in the modern era than in ancient times.
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65. Dylan is suffering from arachnophobia. His therapist first has him go through relaxation training, and then has him construct a fear hierarchy. Finally, the therapist has Dylan go through a phase of graded pairings of spiders and relaxation responses. This approach is called: A) modeling. B) flooding. C) implosive therapy. D) systematic desensitization.
66. Pairing the thought of feared objects and relaxation training is known as: A) implosive therapy. B) systematic desensitization. C) experimental extinction. D) self-instruction training.
67. The first step in systematic desensitization treatment is: A) role-playing. B) relaxation training. C) construction of a fear hierarchy. D) graded pairings with the phobic object.
68. A phobic person is taken to a snake-handling convention to confront snakes as part of desensitization training. This is an example of the _____ technique. A) covert B) modeling C) fear hierarchical D) in vivo
69. A phobic person is taught to imagine the feared items as part of desensitization training. This is an example of the _____ technique. A) covert B) modeling C) fear hierarchical flooding D) in vivo
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70. An exposure technique in which the therapist confronts the feared object or situation while the fearful person observes is called: A) modeling. B) flooding. C) systematic desensitization. D) biofeedback.
71. When the modeling approach is used to treat a phobia, the client: A) confronts the feared object directly. B) observes the therapist confronting the feared object. C) imagines the therapist confronting the feared object. D) imagines himself or herself confronting the feared object.
72. Drew is terrified of the snakes that his 8-year-old son brings home as pets. During his therapy, his therapist demonstrated how to handle them. This is a form of therapy based on: A) flooding. B) modeling. C) implosive techniques. D) covert desensitization.
73. A phobic person is exposed to computer graphics that simulate real-world situations. This is an example of the _____ technique. A) covert B) virtual reality C) fear hierarchical flooding D) in vivo
74. What is the biggest difference between treatment outcomes for persons with agoraphobia and persons with specific phobias? A) Treatment of agoraphobia brings less relief to individuals than do the highly successful treatments for specific phobias, B) Outcomes for specific phobias are contingent on the type of phobia the individual has. C) Treatment for agoraphobia is easier to implement than treatment for specific phobias. D) Treatment for agoraphobia is more successful than treatment for specific phobias, but it is more expensive and time-consuming.
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75. People with _____ have severe, persistent, and irrational anxiety about social or performance situations in which they may face scrutiny by others and possibly feel embarrassment. A) specific phobias B) generalized anxiety disorder C) agoraphobia D) social anxiety disorder
76. Which thought is consistent with the thinking of someone who has social anxiety disorder? A) “I'm glad I can use my notes during my speech. There's no way I could have remembered all of these details.” B) “I don't want to give that presentation tomorrow. No one even listens during those meetings.” C) “I can't go on that business lunch with my boss. I'd spill food on myself and look like an idiot.” D) “I'm not going out this weekend. I've had enough people interactions this week.”
77. Which is the BEST example of a broad social anxiety? A) Unwillingness to eat in front of others B) Fear of public speaking C) Apprehension about being evaluated by others D) Anxiety about walking in front of others
78. Manuel is afraid of eating in public because he expects to be judged negatively and to feel humiliated. As a result, he makes up excuses when asked out to eat. His diagnosis would probably be: A) a social phobia. B) a specific phobia. C) generalized anxiety disorder. D) posttraumatic stress disorder
79. Which is an example of a specific social anxiety? A) Fear of public speaking B) Fear of heights C) Fear of tornados when a tornado warning is in effect D) Fear of generally functioning poorly in front of others
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80. Lorna is very fearful of speaking in public and will do everything she can to avoid being evaluated by others, which causes her significant impairment. The MOST accurate diagnosis for her condition would be: A) agoraphobia. B) specific phobia. C) panic disorder. D) social anxiety disorder.
81. Which statement is TRUE about social anxiety disorder? A) Each year, approximately 8 percent of people all in the United States experience social anxiety disorder. B) Men are more likely than women to experience social anxiety disorder. C) Wealthier people are more likely to develop social anxiety disorder. D) Social anxiety disorder tends to develop in early childhood.
82. Which is NOT a component of social anxiety disorder, according to research by cognitive theorists? A) Repeatedly reviewing social events after they have occurred B) Thinking one has social flaws, which leads to anxiety C) Underestimating how badly a social event actually went D) Overestimating how badly things might go during a social event
83. A person recently was diagnosed with social anxiety disorder. A BEST guess is that the person is in _____ school and is _____ likely than average to have a close relative with social anxiety disorder. A) elementary; more B) high; more C) elementary; less D) high; less
84. Which group emphasizes the beliefs and expectations that lead someone with a social anxiety disorder to overestimate how bad a social interaction went? A) Cognitive-behavioral theorists B) Biological theorists C) Sociocultural theorists D) Existential theorists
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85. A person asks, “What's the MOST effective treatment for social anxiety disorder?” What is the BEST research-based answer? A) Antidepressant medication eliminates symptoms faster than, and for at least as long as, the best psychotherapy. B) Antianxiety medication eliminates symptoms faster than the best psychotherapy. C) The best psychotherapy eliminates symptoms as fast, but not as long, as the best drug therapy. D) The best psychotherapy eliminates symptoms as fast as, and longer than, the best drug therapy. 86. A person says, “I've been diagnosed with social anxiety disorder, and my therapist wants me to use drug therapy, not psychological therapy. I don't know which to choose.” Based on current research, the BEST answer would be: A) “That's the best advice your therapist could have given.” B) “Some therapists think psychological therapy should always be used, even with drug therapy; there's less chance of relapse.” C) “Drug therapy works especially well in combination with short-term psychodynamic therapy; cognitive-behavioral therapies don't help much.” D) “Unfortunately, no therapy works very well in the long run for most people with social anxiety disorder.”
87. Several techniques, such as modeling and role-play, are combined to treat social anxiety disorder in: A) exposure therapy. B) social skills training. C) social flooding. D) self-help programs.
88. A psychotherapist models appropriate social skills for a client with social anxiety disorder, then uses modeling for another client with a phobia for spiders. What the therapist is doing is: A) common; modeling is often used in the treatment of these kinds of disorders. B) uncommon; modeling is often used in the treatment of social anxiety disorders but seldom used in the treatment of specific phobias. C) uncommon; modeling is seldom used in the treatment of social anxiety disorders but commonly used in the treatment of specific phobias. D) rare; modeling is seldom used in the treatment of these kinds of disorders.
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89. A person is being treated for a social anxiety disorder. A therapist watches the person act out a social scene, points out what she did correctly and incorrectly, and praises her for what she did well. Which behavioral technique did the therapist NOT use? A) Role-playing B) Feedback C) Modeling D) Reinforcement
90. Rhoda's fear of attending a party is debilitating. To treat this fear, her therapist has Rhoda rehearse introducing herself. This is called: A) modeling. B) role-play. C) covert desensitization. D) systematic desensitization.
91. A procedure used to treat social anxiety disorder that forces the client to face his or her dreaded social situation until the fear subsides is: A) exposure therapy. B) modeling. C) implosive therapy. D) systematic desensitization.
92. Rosa's heart was racing from the four cups of coffee she had just finished, but she thought she might be having a heart attack. Her fear seemed to be increasing without end. This might be the beginning of a: A) panic attack. B) manic episode. C) specific phobia. D) social phobia.
93. A person is sweating, experiencing shortness of breath, choking, feeling dizzy, and afraid of dying. Assuming this event is not a heart attack, but rather an indicator of anxiety disorder, it is MOST likely a: A) panic attack. B) phobia. C) obsessive-compulsive response. D) posttraumatic disorder.
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94. A person who experiences unpredictable panic attacks combined with dysfunctional behavior and thoughts is probably experiencing: A) typical panic attacks. B) panic disorder. C) physiological damage. D) a normal response to stress.
95. Every once in a while, Ona feels nervous to the point of terror. This feeling seems to come on suddenly and randomly. Her experience is an example of a(n): A) panic disorder. B) phobic disorder. C) generalized anxiety disorder. D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
96. Sebastian was outside the parking garage when, out of nowhere, he suddenly felt overwhelming fear. Sebastian noticed that his fear increased, he started to feel out of control, and the intensity of the feelings seemed to reach a peak and then pass within a few minutes. This is an example of a: A) panic attack. B) phobic disorder. C) generalized anxiety disorder. D) posttraumatic stress disorder.
97. A person experiencing a panic disorder is MOST likely to also have a fear of: A) leaving home. B) enclosed spaces. C) other people. D) driving.
98. The phobia MOST often associated with panic disorder is: A) claustrophobia. B) acrophobia. C) agoraphobia. D) metrophobia.
99. The drug treatment that is MOST effective in treating panic disorders is a(n): A) antianxiety drug. B) antidepressant drug. C) heart medication. D) antipsychotic medication.
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100. Panic disorder appears to be related to abnormal activity of which neurotransmitter? A) Norepinephrine B) Epinephrine C) Serotonin D) Endorphin
101. Antidepressant drugs are frequently effective in treating panic attacks. This disorder is related to levels of the neurotransmitter: A) GABA. B) dopamine. C) acetylcholine. D) norepinephrine.
102. Researchers believe that panic disorder is biologically different from generalized anxiety disorder, based on differences in the: A) way the amygdala works in each disorder. B) alarm and escape response in the brain. C) brain circuitry involved in the two disorders. D) heritability of the two disorders.
103. Which brain area is rich in neurons and uses norepinephrine? A) Prefrontal cortex B) Locus coeruleus C) Cerebellum D) Motor strip
104. What type of drug is alprazolam (Xanax)? A) Antipsychotic B) Antidepressant C) Benzodiazepine D) Major tranquilizer
105. Which statement about the use of antidepressants to treat panic disorders is MOST accurate? A) Antianxiety drugs are preferred over antidepressants. B) The drugs must be taken as needed rather than on a regular schedule. C) The drugs are effective for only about 25 percent of the people who take them. D) It appears that all antidepressant drugs that restore norepinephrine help prevent or reduce panic symptoms.
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106. The cognitive explanation for panic disorders is that people who have them: A) have relatives who are atypically anxious. B) are prone to allergies and have immune deficiencies. C) misinterpret bodily sensations. D) experience more than the average amount of stress.
107. In a research setting, a drug is given to a person. The drug causes that person to hyperventilate and experience a rapid heart rate. This is a(n): A) in vivo test. B) modeling test. C) covert sensitization test. D) biological challenge test.
108. People with panic disorder experience body sensations: A) similar to those people without panic disorder. B) that are different from the body sensations experienced by those people without panic disorder. C) more intensely than those people without panic disorder. D) that do not occur at all in those people without panic disorder.
109. What is anxiety sensitivity? A) The state of being oblivious to body sensations B) The inability to assess bodily sensations accurately C) The interpretation of bodily sensations as abnormally pleasant D) The confusion of physical and emotional sensations
110. People who experience a positive event, get excited, breathe harder, and have an increased heart rate, and subsequently interpret the symptoms as a heart attack, are experiencing what cognitive theorists call: A) biological challenge. B) behavioral inhibition. C) anxiety sensitivity. D) exposure relapse.
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111. Eldon occasionally has a racing heartbeat. When this happens, he panics and thinks he is going to die. Gradually, he has developed panic attacks if he even thinks that his heart is beating strongly. Eldon apparently has a high degree of: A) fear. B) anxiety. C) obsessive imagery. D) anxiety sensitivity.
112. Which therapy is an effective long-term, nonpharmacologic treatment for panic attack that involves teaching patients to interpret their physical sensations accurately? A) Cognitive-behavioral B) Biological C) Humanistic D) Psychodynamic
113. Which statement is TRUE about drug and cognitive treatments for panic disorder? A) Drug treatments are significantly more effective, especially early in the disorder. B) The effectiveness of cognitive treatments declines over time. C) Cognitive treatments have proved to be at least as effective as medications, if not more so. D) Neither drug treatments nor cognitive treatments show much promise.
114. Persistent thoughts, ideas, impulses, or images that seem to invade a person's consciousness are called: A) obsessions. B) compulsions. C) panic attacks. D) phobias.
115. What is a compulsion? A) A thought, idea, impulse, or image that seem to invade a person's consciousness B) A strong fear that influences anxiety C) A repetitive and rigid behavior or mental act that people feel they must perform D) A thought that a person cannot get out of their head
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116. When would religious rituals and superstitious behavior (such as not stepping on cracks) be considered compulsive behaviors? A) When done to provide comfort and reduce tension B) When done more than once a day C) When they interfere with daily function and cause distress D) Never
117. People who experience obsessions show: A) typical levels of worry about real problems. B) thoughts that are intrusive and foreign to them. C) thoughts that they can easily ignore and resist. D) a lack of awareness that the thoughts are inappropriate.
118. Danique is never sure of the right thing to do. She married Anthony and has been wondering for years if that was the right decision. She is exhibiting: A) a compulsion. B) obsessive ideas. C) obsessive doubts. D) obsessive images.
119. Which statement reflects the MOST common obsessive thought? A) “If I touch that doorknob, I will be dirty and contaminated.” B) “I must make sure that the brochures are folded evenly.” C) “I can hardly stop myself from yelling sexual obscenities in class.” D) “I hope that person dies a long, slow death.”
120. Samuel cannot leave for work without going back into his house and making sure that he has taken all of his writing materials. He does this several times before he allows himself to start the car and drive to work. He is frequently late for work because he is so unsure about remembering everything. Samuel is displaying: A) agoraphobia. B) an obsession. C) a checking compulsion. D) nonpathological caution.
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121. A compulsion to keep placing certain items (such as clothing, books, or foods) in perfect order in accordance with strict rules is a: A) checking compulsion. B) counting compulsion. C) balance compulsion. D) cleaning compulsion.
122. A professor who puts on rubber gloves before grading papers and faithfully avoids any contact with the hands of students is exhibiting a(n): A) cleaning compulsion. B) checking compulsion. C) order compulsion. D) touching compulsion.
123. What is one important way obsessions and compulsions are related? A) Compulsions are a way to prevent obsessions from occurring. B) Obsessions generally lead to violent or immoral compulsions. C) Compulsions help people control their obsessions. D) Obsessions are not related to compulsions.
124. A psychodynamic theorist finds that a client is experiencing a battle between anxietyprovoking id impulses and anxiety-reducing ego defense mechanisms. He thinks that this usually unconscious conflict is being played out in an open and obvious manner. He is sure this underlying conflict explains his client's: A) fugue state. B) schizophrenia. C) generalized anxiety disorder. D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
125. According to the psychodynamic perspective, if someone keeps obsessing about immoral sexual behavior and repeatedly scrubs his or her face and hands in response to those thoughts: A) the scrubbing represents a healthy coping response. B) the immoral images represent id impulses. C) the superego is helping the person to avoid id impulses. D) ego defenses are not present.
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126. According to Freud, obsessive-compulsive disorders have their origin in the _____ development. A) oral B) anal C) phallic D) genital
127. Psychodynamic therapies as a treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorders: A) appear to work better when used in the short term rather than in traditional ways. B) must avoid pointing out the client's defense mechanisms. C) work on intensifying the underlying conflict. D) do not interpret the client's behavior.
128. Cognitive-behavioral theorists believe that compulsive behavior is: A) reinforced because engaging in it reduces anxiety. B) originally associated with an increased level of anxiety. C) logically, rather than randomly, connected to fearful situations. D) exhibited by everyone. 129. “Everyone has intrusive and unwanted thoughts. Most people ignore them. But some people blame themselves and expect terrible consequences, so they act in ways they hope will neutralize the thoughts.” The type of theorist who be MOST likely to agree with this position would be a: A) psychodynamic theorist. B) sociocultural theorist. C) cognitive-behavioral theorist. D) biological theorist.
130. According to cognitive-behavioral theorists, why do patients engage in compulsive behaviors? A) Those behaviors reduce anxiety and are thus negatively reinforced. B) They have been punished in the past for engaging in the compulsive behaviors. C) They need a higher level of anxiety than average to be productive. D) They are irrational thinkers.
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131. A person's attempt to eliminate unwanted thoughts by thinking or behaving in ways that put matters right internally is called: A) reinforcing. B) increasing. C) neutralizing. D) clarifying. 132. A person says, “I'll try to see only the positive side of things, then everything will be OK.” From a cognitive-behavioral perspective, this person is _____ obsessive thoughts. A) neutralizing B) habituating C) exposing D) engaging in
133. An obsessive-compulsive person who was told that everyone was required to wear shoes at all times in the house and not to vacuum for a week would be receiving which type of therapy? A) Family therapy B) Exposure and response prevention C) Reinforcement for compulsive behavior D) Free association
134. The therapy Eliot is receiving emphasizes dealing with his compulsions but not his obsessions. In addition, he does homework in the form of self-help procedures between therapy sessions. Most likely, Eliot is receiving which kind of therapy? A) Psychodynamic B) Psychodynamic, with therapist interpretation C) Humanistic D) Cognitive-behavioral
135. What is the BEST combination of treatments to treat obsessive-compulsive–related disorders? A) Client-centered therapies and exposure therapies B) Exposure therapies and antidepressant drugs C) Antidepressant drugs and biofeedback D) Biofeedback and relaxation training
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136. Exposure and response prevention as treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder: A) changes behavior in the clinic but does not carry over to the home and the workplace. B) works only in about 25 percent of those individuals who are treated with it. C) leads to improvement that often continues indefinitely. D) is effective only in a group setting.
137. Cognitive-behavioral theorists have found that people who develop obsessive-compulsive disorder also: A) have a lower rate of depression. B) have lower standards of conduct and morality. C) believe it is impossible and undesirable to have control over everything. D) believe their thoughts are capable of causing harm to themselves or others.
138. Which descriptor would be LEAST appropriate for someone experiencing obsessive-compulsive disorder, according to the cognitive perspective? A) “Let the good times roll. Don't worry about tomorrow.” B) “I'm a bit of a control freak.” C) “It seems that I am always more down than my friends.” D) “I'm having a bit of trouble separating my thoughts from reality. I'm afraid if I think it, it will actually happen.”
139. Antidepressants that are effective in treating obsessive-compulsive disorder serve to: A) increase serotonin activity in the brain. B) increase norepinephrine activity in the brain. C) increase the level of all brain neurotransmitters. D) decrease serotonin activity in the brain.
140. For an antidepressant to be effective against obsessive-compulsive disorder, it must: A) increase serotonin activity. B) decrease serotonin activity. C) increase norepinephrine activity. D) decrease norepinephrine activity.
141. A neurologist who was working with a person with obsessive-compulsive disorder would be suspicious of abnormality in which region of the brain? A) Hypothalamus B) Caudate nuclei C) Cerebral cortex D) Temporal lobe
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142. Which brain areas have been implicated in obsessive-compulsive symptoms? A) The frontal lobes and the thalamus B) The thalamus and the hypothalamus C) The motor cortex and the caudate nuclei D) The orbitofrontal cortex and the caudate nuclei
143. Lucy is considering taking an antidepressant that increases levels of serotonin and improves brain function for symptoms of obsessive-compulsive disorder. She could expect that: A) this medication wouldn't be very effective. B) this medication would lead to immediate and long-lasting relief of symptoms. C) this medication would lead to short-term relief, but relapse would occur if she stopped taking it. D) adding cognitive therapies would help relieve symptoms in the short term but not in the long term.
144. Disorders that involve particular patterns of repetitive and excessive behavior that greatly disrupt a person's life and can cause shame are called: A) body dysmorphic disorders. B) panic disorders. C) social anxiety disorders. D) obsessive-compulsive–related disorders.
145. What is the scientific name for hair-pulling disorder? A) Trichotillomania B) Musomania C) Traumatomania D) Gephyromania
146. Which behavior pattern is NOT listed in DSM-5 as an obsessive-compulsive–related disorder? A) Agoraphobia B) Body dysmorphic disorder C) Trichotillomania D) Hoarding disorder
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147. People with _____ keep picking at their skin, resulting in significant sores or wounds. A) body dysmorphic disorder B) excoriation disorder C) trichotillomania D) hoarding disorder
148. A professor's office is a mess; graded tests are in piles on the desk, overflowing bookshelves line the walls, and research materials from years ago occupy boxes on the floor where there is only a narrow pathway to walk. If the professor is experiencing a diagnosable disorder, it would MOST likely be in which category? A) Social anxiety disorders B) Panic disorders C) Obsessive-compulsive–related disorders D) Specific phobias
149. Which statement is NOT usually true of those persons with body dysmorphic disorder? A) They are concerned about a particular part of their body. B) They reduce contacts with others. C) About half seek surgical or dermatological treatments. D) Most disorder-specific behaviors would be considered normal for a teenager.
150. A client has body dysmorphic disorder and is considering plastic surgery. Is this a recommended treatment for this client? A) Yes. Plastic surgery typically relieves body dysmorphic symptoms. B) Possibly. Plastic surgery can improve clients' self-image if the “problem” area is small. C) No. Often, people who have plastic surgery for body dysmorphic disorder actually feel worse afterward. D) No. Studies show that almost one-third of people who have plastic surgery for body dysmorphic disorder later attempt suicide.
151. What is the biggest difference between those individuals with body dysmorphic disorder and those individuals who are unhappy with their appearance? A) People with body dysmorphic disorder may severely limit their contact with other people. B) People with body dysmorphic disorder worry about their appearance. C) People with body dysmorphic disorder must consider suicide to get a diagnosis. D) People with body dysmorphic disorder would change something about their appearance if they could.
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152. Which perspective focuses on the intersection and context of important factors at key points of time throughout a person's lifespan? A) Developmental psychopathology B) Cognitive C) Psychodynamic D) Evolutionary
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Answer Key 1. A 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. C 11. C 12. C 13. C 14. B 15. D 16. B 17. B 18. D 19. C 20. C 21. A 22. B 23. B 24. B 25. A 26. A 27. D 28. C 29. A 30. D 31. A 32. C 33. B 34. B 35. C 36. C 37. C 38. A 39. D 40. A 41. D 42. D 43. B 44. D
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45. A 46. B 47. A 48. D 49. B 50. C 51. D 52. B 53. C 54. C 55. C 56. A 57. C 58. A 59. C 60. B 61. D 62. B 63. D 64. A 65. D 66. B 67. B 68. D 69. A 70. A 71. B 72. B 73. B 74. A 75. D 76. C 77. C 78. A 79. A 80. D 81. A 82. C 83. B 84. A 85. D 86. B 87. B 88. A 89. C 90. B
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91. A 92. A 93. A 94. B 95. A 96. A 97. A 98. C 99. B 100. A 101. D 102. C 103. B 104. C 105. D 106. C 107. D 108. C 109. B 110. C 111. D 112. A 113. C 114. A 115. C 116. C 117. B 118. C 119. A 120. C 121. C 122. D 123. C 124. D 125. B 126. B 127. A 128. A 129. C 130. A 131. C 132. A 133. B 134. C 135. B 136. C
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137. D 138. A 139. A 140. A 141. B 142. D 143. C 144. D 145. A 146. A 147. B 148. C 149. D 150. C 151. A 152. A
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1. Fear of venturing into public places is known as: A) acrophobia. B) agoraphobia. C) ophidiophobia. D) kenophobia.
2. Which is NOT a type of anxiety disorder? A) Bipolar disorder B) Panic disorder C) Social anxiety disorder D) Phobias
3. Alaina is always edgy and nervous and feels there is something to be afraid of, though she cannot name it. She is MOST likely suffering from: A) generalized anxiety disorder. B) social anxiety disorder. C) obsessive-compulsive disorder. D) a specific phobia.
4. What perspective maintains that generalized anxiety disorder develops as a result of exposure to threatening environments? A) Psychodynamic B) Humanistic C) Behavioral D) Sociocultural 5. “Generalized anxiety disorder results from repeatedly denying one's true thoughts, emotions, and behaviors.” This statement BEST reflects the perspective of: A) psychodynamic theorists. B) sociocultural theorists. C) humanistic theorists. D) cognitive-behavioral theorists. 6. “The reason you are afraid to talk in public is because you believe that everyone must love and approve of you.” This statement might be made by a therapist practicing: A) modeling. B) rational-emotive therapy. C) classical conditioning. D) exposure and response prevention.
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7. The antianxiety drugs diazepam (Valium) and alprazolam (Xanax) are classified as: A) hypnotics. B) benzodiazepines. C) sedatives. D) barbiturates. 8. The idea that human beings are “prepared” to acquire some phobias and not others flows from a _____ perspective. A) humanistic B) biological C) behavioral-evolutionary D) cognitive-behavioral
9. During a therapy session to treat a phobia, the therapist confronts the object or situation feared by the client while the client observes. This approach is termed: A) modeling. B) social skills training. C) systematic desensitization. D) flooding.
10. Which disorder appears to have the same prevalence in women and in men? A) Specific phobia B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder C) Social anxiety disorder D) Panic disorder
11. Which is NOT a behavioral technique used in social skills training? A) Exposure B) Modeling C) Feedback D) Rehearsal
12. A severe, persistent, and irrational fear of situations in which a person may be exposed to scrutiny, such as public speaking or performing, is called: A) panic disorder. B) social anxiety disorder. C) generalized anxiety disorder. D) obsessive-compulsive–related disorder.
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13. Derrick tries to interact with as few people as possible during the workday. He doesn't engage in any nonwork events such as birthday celebrations or happy hours because he thinks he is socially awkward and will make a fool of himself. These thoughts and symptoms are consistent with: A) agoraphobia. B) panic disorder. C) social anxiety disorder. D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
14. Suddenly and without warning, and without apparent cause, Melissa felt scared that she was losing control and became paralyzed with fear for several minutes. These symptoms are consistent with a(n): A) obsession. B) flooding episode. C) compulsion. D) panic attack.
15. To treat a client with a fire phobia, a therapist lights a candle, holds it, and permits it to burn a bit. She then invites the client to hold the candle. This is an example of: A) flooding. B) modeling. C) virtual reality. D) exposure and response prevention.
16. Which is NOT a physical symptom associated with panic disorder? A) Sweating B) Vomiting C) Heart palpitations D) Hot and cold flashes
17. Panic disorder tends to develop in: A) early adulthood. B) early adolescence. C) middle to late adulthood. D) late adolescence or early adulthood.
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18. Panic disorder is commonly accompanied by: A) agoraphobia. B) trichotillomania. C) obsessive-compulsive disorder. D) GABA deficiency.
19. According to psychodynamic theorists, in obsessive-compulsive disorder, the defense mechanisms used by the ego appear as: A) free associations. B) depression. C) compulsions. D) projections.
20. Which has DSM-5 NOT categorized as an obsessive-compulsive-related disorder? A) Somatic symptom disorder B) Excoriation disorder C) Body dysmorphic disorder D) Hoarding disorder
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Answer Key 1. B 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. B 11. A 12. B 13. C 14. D 15. B 16. B 17. D 18. A 19. C 20. A
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1. Current estimates indicate that in any given year, approximately _____ percent of U.S. adults have an anxiety disorder. A) 6 B) 18 C) 34 D) 52
2. To qualify for a DSM-5 diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder, the excessive or ongoing anxiety or worry must last for at least: A) 6 weeks. B) 3 months. C) 3 weeks. D) 6 months.
3. The type of therapy that tries to help clients who have anxiety by providing empathy and genuine acceptance is called: A) self-instruction training. B) client-centered therapy. C) relaxation training. D) objects relations therapy.
4. Which suggestion is shared by both the metacognitive theory and the avoidance theory of generalized anxiety disorder? A) The only reasonable solution to generalized anxiety disorder is the use of medication. B) The defense mechanism of reaction formation is at play in this illness. C) Generalized anxiety disorder is a function of emotional abuse during childhood. D) Worrying serves some sort of “positive” function for the sufferer.
5. In which kind of study would a researcher determine how many and which relatives of a person with a disorder have the same disorder? A) Twin study B) Adoption study C) Family pedigree study D) Generational extraction study
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6. “Although not the only way, I believe that one way of acquiring a fear reaction is through modeling. And that fear reaction may then turn into a phobia.” This MOST closely reflects the thinking of a _____ theorist. A) psychodynamic B) cognitive-behavioral C) biological D) sociocultural
7. A fear hierarchy is: A) the result of therapeutic “flooding.” B) a social order based on bravery. C) a rating scale for panic attacks. D) a list of feared objects or situations.
8. In which behavioral technique is the exposure indirect? A) Modeling B) Systematic desensitization C) Flooding D) Rational-emotive
9. Which qualifiers are used to describe a person's social anxiety disorder? A) Narrow or broad B) Acquired or lifelong C) Situational or generalized D) Explicit or implicit
10. Of the anxiety disorders discussed in the text, the disorder with the highest female to male ratio is: A) panic disorder. B) obsessive-compulsive disorder. C) generalized anxiety disorder. D) specific phobia.
11. It is thought that benzodiazepines or antidepressants can reduce symptoms of social anxiety by: A) improving how the fear circuit functions. B) activating the parasympathetic nervous system. C) inhibiting GABA throughout the brain. D) desensitizing the central nervous system.
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12. Social skills training for individuals with social anxiety disorder would NOT include: A) role-playing. B) rehearsing new behaviors. C) providing reinforcement. D) flooding.
13. The cognitive-behavioral perspective of panic disorder suggests that individuals with this condition: A) have a genetic predisposition to developing paranoia. B) may be overly sensitive to bodily sensation and misinterpret them. C) are neurotic. D) lack ego strength.
14. It would be unusual for obsessive-compulsive disorder to develop in a(n): A) school-age child. B) adolescent. C) middle-aged adult. D) young adult.
15. The most common theme of obsessive thoughts is: A) violence. B) orderliness. C) dirt or contamination. D) sexuality.
16. Which type of psychotherapist would tell a patient being treated for a cleaning compulsion to resist the urge to mop the bathroom floor for a week? A) Psychodynamic B) Sociocultural C) Biological D) Cognitive-behavioral
17. Meyer's technique, which involves instructing clients not to perform their compulsive behavior, is called: A) systematic desensitization. B) neutralizing. C) exposure and response prevention. D) social skills training.
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18. According to cognitive-behavioral theorists, someone with obsessive-compulsive disorder is likely to: A) have experienced a traumatic event as a young child. B) have low standards of morality. C) believe that negative thoughts are equivalent to negative actions. D) believe that a higher power is in control of his or her thoughts.
19. Which type of drugs has been most helpful in treating obsessive-compulsive disorder? A) Benzodiazepines B) Antidepressants that affect the serotonin system C) Antidepressants that affect the norepinephrine system D) Antipsychotics
20. One reason why individuals with obsessive-compulsive disorder are now being treated with both drug therapies and cognitive-behavioral therapy is because: A) patient compliance with drug therapy is consistently found to be poor. B) drug therapy cannot be used in adolescents, the age group most commonly affected. C) drug therapy alone must be maintained indefinitely to prevent relapse. D) long-term drug therapy has been linked to later development of substance use disorder.
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Answer Key 1. B 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. D 8. A 9. A 10. A 11. A 12. D 13. B 14. C 15. C 16. D 17. C 18. C 19. B 20. C
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Chapter 6
1. Why does a person in a dangerous situation initially experience an increased heart rate? Discuss both the biological reason for this development and the reason that these changes can be seen as beneficial. Include in your discussion the body systems that are involved and three other physical reactions that are expected to occur.
2. Compare and contrast acute stress disorder and posttraumatic stress disorder.
3. Imagine that a friend of yours has been a victim of sexual assault (rape). What are the short-term and long-term courses of her stress response to being raped likely to be?
4. Not all people who experience a traumatic event develop a stress disorder. What are some biological reasons why some people do and others don't?
5. Describe three different treatments that have been effective in treating combat veterans who are experiencing stress disorders. Be specific about what happens during these treatments.
6. What is debriefing? Based on current research, what are the pros and cons of using this technique?
7. Compare and contrast dissociative amnesia and dissociative fugue.
8. Describe and provide examples of the three ways in which alternate personalities might interact in someone experiencing dissociative identity disorder.
9. Describe in detail how treatment for dissociative identity disorder might differ from treatment for dissociative amnesia or for dissociative fugue.
10. In assessing someone for depersonalization-derealization disorder, which characteristics would you look for?
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Answer Key 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
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1. The extensive network of nerve fibers that connect the central nervous system to all body organs is called the _____.
2. Reactions to trauma that happen almost immediately and gradually disappear in a month or so are likely to be diagnosed as _____.
3. Reliving a traumatic event that happened months ago, avoiding things associated with that event, and generally being less responsive are symptoms of _____.
4. Being forced to engage in any type of sexual act is called _____.
5. Friends and family check in on and provide care for a person who experienced a significant trauma. The friends and family are providing _____.
6. Cognitive-behavioral therapy for posttraumatic stress disorder can include helping clients deal with difficult memories and feelings, accept what occurred, become less judgmental toward themselves, and begin to trust others. The basis of this process called _____.
7. A person's identity is based in part on that individual's _____, which links the past, the present, and the future.
8. An individual with _____ displays two or more distinct personalities and periodically switches from one to another.
9. Dissociative amnesia characterized by the loss of memory of events that occurred within a limited period following a traumatic episode is called _____ amnesia.
10. Dissociative amnesia characterized by forgetting, for a short time, some but not all events related to a traumatic episode is called _____ amnesia.
11. Dissociative amnesia characterized by forgetting, for a limited period of time, some but not all events both preceding and following a traumatic episode is called _____ amnesia.
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12. In dissociative amnesia, the forgotten period is called the _____.
13. Dissociative amnesia characterized by forgetting that extends indefinitely following a traumatic episode is called _____ amnesia.
14. Quinn has forgotten who he is. He traveled to a city he has never visited before and is wandering around aimlessly. After a few hours, he “comes to” and discovers his strange surroundings. Unable to recall how he got there or what he has been doing, Quinn appears to be suffering from _____.
15. An individual with dissociative identity disorder has two distinct identities: Gianna and Nate. Nate is aware of Gianna, but Gianna is not aware of Nate. This relationship is described as _____ amnesic.
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Answer Key 1. autonomic nervous system 2. acute stress disorder 3. posttraumatic stress disorder 4. sexual assault 5. social support 6. cognitive processing theory 7. memory 8. dissociative identity disorder 9. localized 10. selective 11. generalized 12. amnestic episode 13. continuous 14. dissociative fugue 15. one-way
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1. Poor health is BEST described as a: A) stress. B) stressor. C) stress response. D) stress model.
2. A person who copes well with a happy event in life is showing a positive: A) stress. B) stressor. C) stress response. D) stress model.
3. Having to walk the dog several times a day when it is raining is an example of a: A) stressor. B) stress response. C) stress disorder. D) psychophysical disorder.
4. Looking for rainbows while walking the dog in the rain is an example of a: A) stressor. B) stress response. C) social support system. D) potential stressor. 5. The statement, “This is awful, but I guess I can deal with it like I do everything else,” represents one person's: A) stress. B) stressor. C) stress response. D) somatization.
6. In the face of fear, a person is unable to concentrate and develops a distorted view of the world. This person is showing which fear response? A) Physical B) Emotional C) Cognitive D) Psychological
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7. A student who dreads being called on in class, and in fact panics at the thought of public speaking, is experiencing a(n) _____ response to stress. A) physical B) cognitive C) emotional D) developmental
8. A student who turns pale and feels nauseated when called on to speak in class is experiencing a(n) _____ response to stress. A) emotional B) cognitive C) developmental D) physical
9. What do acute and posttraumatic stress disorder have in common with dissociative disorders? A) They are new diagnoses, first appearing in DSM-5. B) They are most successfully treated with the same sort of medication: antipsychotics. C) They are triggered by traumatic events. D) They are varieties of depression.
10. The part of the body that releases hormones into the bloodstream is the _____ system. A) nervous B) exocrine C) endocrine D) autonomic
11. In response to a threat, we perspire, breathe more quickly, get goose bumps, and feel nauseated. These responses are controlled by the: A) central nervous system. B) peripheral nervous system. C) sympathetic nervous system. D) parasympathetic nervous system.
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12. If a deer jumps in front of your car while you are driving, the stress response that is initially activated is the: A) parasympathetic nervous system. B) cortisol system. C) conservation system. D) sympathetic nervous system.
13. In the reaction to fearful and stressful situations, nerves may indirectly affect organs by stimulating the: A) ganglion. B) adrenal gland. C) hippocampus. D) medulla. 14. Imagine that you just had a “close call” while driving, but now you feel your body returning to normal. Which part of your nervous system is controlling this return to normalcy? A) Somatic nervous system B) Peripheral nervous system C) Sympathetic nervous system D) Parasympathetic nervous system 15. The group of hormones that are referred to as “stress hormones” are: A) prolactins. B) corticosteroids. C) peptide hormones. D) amino acid derivatives.
16. Which statement MOST accurately describes the sympathetic nervous system pathway of the stress response? A) The hypothalamus excites the sympathetic nervous system, which then excites body organs to release hormones, causing even more arousal. B) The parasympathetic nervous system excites the sympathetic nervous system, which then excites body organs to release hormones, producing even more arousal. C) The adrenal glands stimulate the sympathetic nervous system, which then suppresses the release of corticosteroids, which moderates the stress response. D) The hypothalamus inhibits the sympathetic nervous system, which then inhibits body organs to release hormones that serve as neurotransmitters, causing a reduction in arousal.
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17. Norepinephrine is to _____ as corticosteroid is to _____. A) acute stress; posttraumatic stress B) the fight response; the flight response C) the autonomic nervous system; the central nervous system D) the sympathetic pathway; the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal pathway
18. Which statement MOST accurately describes the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal pathway of the stress response? A) The hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary to produce a stress hormone that causes the adrenal gland to release corticosteroids. B) The hypothalamus produces corticosteroids, which stimulate the pituitary to produce a stress hormone that causes the adrenal gland to release adrenocorticotropic hormone. C) The hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary to produce corticosteroids that cause the adrenal gland to release adrenocorticotropic hormone. D) The hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary to produce a stress hormone that causes the adrenal gland to release hypothalamic hormone in a feedback loop.
19. The collective reactions generated by the sympathetic nervous system pathway and the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) pathway are termed the: A) conditioned stress response. B) stressor–stress response. C) autonomic stress response. D) fight-or-flight response.
20. A person who witnessed a horrible car accident and then became unusually anxious and depressed for three weeks is probably experiencing: A) posttraumatic stress disorder. B) pretraumatic stress disorder. C) combat fatigue. D) acute stress disorder.
21. A diagnostic criterion for posttraumatic stress disorder is the presence of significant distress or impairment for: A) up to three weeks. B) more than one month. C) more than six months. D) more than one year.
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22. A pattern of anxiety, insomnia, depression, and flashbacks that begins shortly after a traumatic event and persists for less than a month is called: A) hysteria. B) acute stress disorder. C) generalized anxiety disorder. D) posttraumatic stress disorder.
23. One distinction that DSM-5 makes between acute stress disorder and posttraumatic stress disorder is based on the: A) intensity of the anxiety-linked symptoms. B) cause of the anxiety-linked symptoms. C) duration of anxiety symptoms. D) presence of one or more additional psychological disorders.
24. A pattern of anxiety, insomnia, depression, and flashbacks that persists for years after a traumatic event BEST describes: A) hysteria. B) acute stress disorder. C) generalized anxiety disorder. D) posttraumatic stress disorder.
25. Which is typical of posttraumatic stress disorder? A) Increased arousal, anxiety, and guilt B) Inability to remember the event that led to the stress C) Increased responsiveness and emotion right after the event D) Obsession with revisiting the site of the traumatic event
26. Which is the BEST example of dissociation as it relates to posttraumatic stress disorder? A) Feeling that the environment isn't real, but more of a dream B) Having an out-of-body experience C) Feeling dazed or confused D) Refusing to talk about the traumatic event
27. Which does NOT characterize stress disorders? A) Recurring memories, dreams, or nightmares about the event B) A compulsive need to engage in activities that remind one of the event C) Reduced responsiveness to the world around one D) Signs of increased arousal, such as poor sleep and exaggerated startle reactions
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28. Jacquie developed PTSD after being held in captivity for years. She is upset by what she had to do to survive and perhaps even feels unworthy of surviving. This is an example of: A) reexperiencing the traumatic event. B) experiencing avoidance. C) experiencing reduced responsiveness. D) experiencing increased anger, anxiety, and guilt.
29. Lamar is having flashbacks. Which symptom of posttraumatic stress disorder does this represent? A) Reexperiencing the traumatic event B) Experiencing avoidance C) Experiencing reduced responsiveness D) Experiencing increased arousal, anxiety, and guilt
30. Carly has posttraumatic stress disorder but refuses to talk about it. She is: A) reexperiencing the traumatic event. B) experiencing avoidance. C) experiencing reduced responsiveness. D) experiencing increased arousal, anxiety, and guilt.
31. Trevor has posttraumatic stress disorder and reports symptoms of derealization. He is: A) reexperiencing the traumatic event. B) experiencing avoidance. C) experiencing reduced responsiveness. D) experiencing increased arousal, anxiety, and guilt.
32. Women are approximately _____ as likely as men to develop stress disorders. A) twice B) three times C) four times D) five times
33. People with low incomes are _____ as likely as people with higher incomes to experience one of the stress disorders. A) twice B) three times C) four times D) five times
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34. When was it recognized that acute stress during combat could result in psychological symptoms after combat? A) After World War I B) After World War II C) After the Korean War D) After the Vietnam War
35. The individuals who are MOST likely to experience a psychological stress disorder are: A) female or low-income individuals. B) male or low-income individuals. C) female or high-income individuals. D) male or high-income individuals.
36. Years after the U.S. Civil War was over, many veterans diagnosed with melancholia or soldier's heart still experienced vivid flashbacks of their combat experiences, as well as nightmares and guilt about what they had done. Today, their symptoms are considered consistent with: A) factitious disorder, or somatoform disorder. B) posttraumatic stress disorder. C) acute distress disorder. D) psychophysiological disorder.
37. With regard to posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), what effect is expected in soldiers who are directly exposed to prolonged combat-related stress? A) Higher rates of PTSD symptoms B) Lower rates of treatment C) Greater intensity of PTSD symptoms but faster symptom resolution D) Increased presence of apathy and limited or no feelings of guilt or negative emotions 38. A friend says, “If we could just eliminate combat traumas, we could eliminate a great deal of posttraumatic stress disorder.” The BEST response is: A) “Yes. In fact, combat trauma is the leading source of PTSD worldwide.” B) “Yes. Combat trauma produces as many cases of PTSD worldwide as civilian trauma does.” C) “Yes. However, civilian trauma causes many more cases of PTSD than combat trauma does.” D) “Maybe. However, many researchers think that combat trauma is significantly overrated as a source of PTSD.”
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39. Drake was trapped in his car as he tried to flee a wildfire in northern California. There was ash and smoke everywhere. The heat was unbearable, and he was sure he was going to die. When rescue teams eventually found him, Drake was dehydrated, having trouble breathing, and scared. More than a year later, he still had nightmares and woke up in a cold sweat. This BEST describes a(n): A) phobia. B) acute stress disorder. C) generalized anxiety disorder. D) posttraumatic stress disorder.
40. Salina was terrified during the magnitude 7.2 earthquake that hit where she lived. For a couple of weeks after the event, she did not sleep well or feel comfortable inside a building. However, her fears gradually diminished and were completely gone within a month. Her reaction to the earthquake would MOST likely be diagnosed as a(n): A) panic attack. B) phobic reaction. C) acute stress disorder. D) posttraumatic stress disorder.
41. Many researchers believe that one reason for higher rates of posttraumatic stress disorder in women is: A) the age they are at the time of trauma. B) the types of trauma they experience. C) their willingness to seek treatment. D) their lower self-esteem prior to the trauma.
42. Almost every night, Cara wakes up terrified and screaming for the boys to get off her. Two years later, she still can't get the gang rape out of her mind. The fear, anxiety, and depression are ruining her life. This is an example of a(n): A) phobia. B) panic reaction. C) acute stress reaction. D) posttraumatic stress reaction.
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43. How concerned should we be about victims of sexual assault and terror? Is there a very great risk that they will experience PTSD? A) Yes, the risk is great; more than one-third of sexual assault victims and about half of terror victims experience PTSD. B) Yes, the risk is great; virtually everyone who experiences sexual assault or terror eventually experiences PTSD. C) No, the risk isn't great; only about 10 percent of sexual assault and terror victims experience PTSD. D) No, the risk isn't great; the number of people in these groups who experience PTSD is probably overestimated.
44. Which statement about rape is MOST accurate? A) Most rape victims do not know their attackers. B) Most rape victims are younger than age 35. C) About equal numbers of men and women are raped. D) About 1 in 10 women are raped in their lifetime.
45. In which racial group is a woman's risk of being raped the greatest, relative to the group's percentage of the population? A) Non-Hispanic white Americans B) African Americans C) Hispanic Americans D) Asian Americans
46. Which statement about the long-term effects of rape on women is MOST accurate? A) Although psychological effects of rape can be long lasting, physical effects are uncommon. B) Rape victims are significantly more likely to abuse alcohol or drugs. C) Women who have been raped are less likely to seek medical treatment. D) Rape has a significant negative effect on a woman's fertility.
47. What proportion of women are the victims of rape at some point during their lives? A) 1 in 2 B) 1 in 4 C) 1 in 6 D) 1 in 8
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48. What percentage of rape victims qualified for the diagnosis of acute stress disorder in Rothbaum et al.'s (1992) study? A) 12 percent B) 43 percent C) 76 percent D) 94 percent
49. According to surveys, about what percentage of female rape victims in the United States are younger than 18 years of age? A) 3 percent B) 15 percent C) 28 percent D) 54 percent
50. Those MOST likely to experience substantial stress symptoms after the terrorist attacks in the United States on September 11, 2001, were those who lived: A) near New York City. B) near Washington, D.C. C) far away from New York City. D) on the West Coast of the United States.
51. A torture victim who is subjected to threats of death, mock executions, and degradation is experiencing which type of torture? A) Psychological B) Physical C) Deprivation D) Sexual
52. An example of torture through deprivation is: A) not allowing the person to bathe. B) hitting the person with a blunt object. C) shocking the person with electricity. D) telling the person he or she is going to be killed.
53. Investigators have shown that traumatic events are related to abnormal activity of the neurotransmitter: A) GABA. B) serotonin. C) dopamine. D) norepinephrine.
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54. A person's levels of cortisol and norepinephrine are in the normal range. MOST likely, that person is experiencing: A) posttraumatic stress disorder. B) the flight-or-fight syndrome. C) severe stress response. D) no stress disorder.
55. Which research finding supports the idea that individuals may inherit a predisposition to posttraumatic stress disorder? A) Deficient levels of GABA in combat veterans B) Overactivity in the amygdala and slowed activity in the prefrontal cortex C) Elevated cortisol levels in babies born to women who were pregnant during the September 11, 2001, terrorist attacks D) Abnormal activity of cortisol and norepinephrine in the blood, urine, and saliva of concentration camp survivors
56. What do we know about the inheritance of PTSD? A) The tendency to develop PTSD cannot be passed on from one generation to the next. B) The tendency to develop PTSD is a characteristic located on the Y chromosome. C) Both men and women appear to be able to pass on their tendency to develop PTSD. D) Women who have high cortisol levels tend to have children with high cortisol levels.
57. Which factor during childhood has NOT been shown to increase a person's likelihood of developing a stress disorder after experiencing a trauma later in life? A) Living in poverty B) Being required to “work” for an allowance C) Experiencing parental divorce or separation D) Living with someone with a psychological disorder
58. Those people MOST likely to develop stress disorders are: A) anxious and think they can control negative things that happen to them. B) not anxious and think they can control negative things that happen to them. C) anxious and think they cannot control negative things that happen to them. D) not anxious and think they cannot control negative things that happen to them.
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59. Which child is MOST likely to develop a stress disorder later in life after experiencing a trauma? A) A child from a well-to-do family who has a pet and lives with extended family B) A child who lives with his grandmother in an upper-middle-income home in the suburbs C) A child who lives in a poor neighborhood with his mother and father D) A child who lives alone with a single mother who is working multiple jobs 60. Darla thinks she has bad luck. She repeatedly says, “Bad things just happen to me. It doesn't matter what I do. If it can go wrong, it will. And it always does.” How does this thinking relate to the development of stress disorders? A) There is no correlation between the two. B) She is less likely to develop a stress disorder C) She is more susceptible to a stress disorder. D) She will definitely develop a stress disorder during her lifetime.
61. Which statement BEST describes the long-term effects of exposure to stress during childhood? A) Children should be protected from all forms of stress because all stress is negative. B) Children who are repeatedly exposed to manageable stress tend to be more resilient as adults. C) Children who are raised by parents regularly exposed to high stress levels develop better coping skills as adults. D) Children who are exposed to any type of recurring stress develop avoidant behaviors as adults.
62. After Caroline's plane crashed but she survived, her mother came to stay with her. Her friends visited often and went to lunch and dinner with Caroline occasionally. This situation probably contributed to Caroline's coping ability after the accident. How does this relate as a factor in her response to stress? A) Personality B) Social support C) Severity of the trauma D) Nature of her childhood experiences
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63. Kelly was in a passenger plane. He watched as all four engines quit at once and saw the plane explode. Thrown 5,000 feet in the air, he landed, severely injured, in a heavily wooded area in deep snow. When he regained consciousness several weeks later, he had a stress reaction that lasted for years, and he could never fly again. The factor that probably MOST contributed to his extreme posttraumatic stress reaction was: A) his personality. B) his social support. C) the severity of the trauma. D) the nature of his childhood experiences.
64. Which incident presents the GREATEST risk that the person will develop posttraumatic stress disorder? A) being in a car crash with a friend who dies in the crash B) Witnessing a friend die as a result of being shot point blank by another person C) Seeing a friend seriously injured during a sporting event D) Being home alone during a tornado that damages the house
65. According to developmental psychopathologists, why do children tend to fare worse than adults when faced with an extreme stressor for the first time? A) Their young age makes them ineligible for certain therapies. B) They have not directly witnessed models of appropriate coping. C) Their stress pathways and stress circuits are not yet fully developed. D) They believe that negative actions are a direct consequence of their thoughts. 66. A friend says to you, “I know someone who is a combat veteran who was just diagnosed with PTSD. Do you think therapy will help this person?” Which is the BEST answer you can give based on current research? A) “Probably. About two-thirds of those receiving therapy for PTSD eventually show improvement.” B) “Probably. More than 90 percent of those receiving therapy for PTSD eventually show improvement.” C) “Almost certainly. About 80 percent of those receiving therapy for PTSD show almost immediate improvement, and most of the rest show improvement within two years of starting therapy.” D) “Yes. Almost everyone receiving treatment for PTSD shows improvement within a few months.”
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67. Which approach would a combat veteran receiving the best treatment for a stress disorder NOT be likely to experience? A) Antipsychotic medication B) Family therapy C) Rap groups D) Exposure therapy
68. A combat veteran undergoing eye movement desensitization and reprocessing is experiencing: A) exposure therapy. B) group therapy. C) insight therapy. D) drug therapy. 69. A combat veteran says, “The therapist wants me to imagine scenes where I was in combat and imagine them like I was there. I don't want to do that! How can this possibly help me?” The BEST response is: A) “That really can't help you. The best thing to do is suppress your fear, control it.” B) “Your therapist is suggesting something called virtual exposure, but no one knows if it helps.” C) “Your therapist is suggesting an effective form of exposure called flooding.“ D) “You should try drug therapy; that usually works, even without additional therapy.”
70. Combat veterans in a therapy group express a great deal of guilt and rage. MOST likely, the veterans are in a(n): A) desensitization and reprocessing group. B) rap group. C) experience writing group. D) exposure group.
71. Compared with covert exposure therapy for combat veterans with posttraumatic stress disorder, virtual reality exposure therapy has been shown to be: A) not at all effective. B) less effective. C) equally effective. D) more effective.
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72. Critical incident stress debriefing is intended to take place: A) immediately after a trauma and continue long term. B) immediately after a trauma and continue short term. C) after a recovery period and continue long term. D) after a recovery period and continue short term.
73. A flash flood hits a small Appalachian community. Those providing a critical incident stress debriefing intervention would: A) provide long-term psychological therapy for flood survivors. B) provide short-term counseling services. C) keep their efforts separate from those of disaster relief agencies such as the Red Cross. D) focus first on the high-income, resilient residents.
74. If someone asked you about the effectiveness of psychological debriefing following a disaster, you would be correct (based on the research) in saying that: A) there have been no controlled research studies on the topic of debriefing. B) there is little evidence that debriefing works. C) there is strong, convincing evidence that debriefing works well. D) there is evidence that debriefing works only if conducted by community members themselves.
75. Which is the MOST accurate statement about the effectiveness of psychological debriefing in the aftermath of a disaster (based on research studies)? A) Debriefing helps both rescuers and victims. B) Debriefing by victims is more effective than debriefing by professionals. C) Debriefing can have a negative effect on some victims. D) Debriefing is so ineffective that it is no longer done.
76. Key to our sense of identity is our: A) memory. B) moral code. C) environment. D) ego ideal.
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77. A person experiencing multiple personalities would MOST accurately be diagnosed with dissociative: A) schizophrenia. B) identity disorder. C) fugue. D) amnesia.
78. If you had lost your sense of identity, what would MOST likely be disrupted? A) Your relationships B) Your intellectual functioning C) Your attitudes toward your body D) Your memory
79. Which statement is TRUE regarding dissociative disorders? A) They involve major changes in memory. B) They usually have a precise physical cause. C) They are a type of anxiety disorder. D) They involve multiple personalities by definition.
80. Which diagnosis includes a breakdown in sense of self, a significant alteration in memory or identity, and even a separation of one part of the identity from another part? A) Mood disorder B) Personality disorder C) Dissociative disorder D) Histrionic personality disorder
81. People who are unable to recall important information about themselves, especially of an upsetting nature, are MOST likely experiencing: A) dissociative identity disorder. B) dissociative amnesia. C) body dysmorphic disorder. D) depersonalization-derealization disorder.
82. In the MOST common type of dissociative amnesia, a person loses memory for: A) some, but not all, events surrounding the trauma. B) all events beginning with the trauma but within a limited period of time. C) all events from the trauma onward. D) all events before and after the trauma.
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83. After a major earthquake, television coverage showed survivors shuffling confusedly through the ruined buildings. If such victims later could not remember the days immediately after the earthquake, the victims would be suffering from which type of amnesia? A) Continuous B) Selective C) Posttraumatic D) Localized
84. Corey experiences a mugging and robbery in which his dog is kidnapped. Eventually the dog is found and returned. However, Corey is unable to recall events immediately following the attack, up until the safe return of the dog. This is a classic example of: A) selective amnesia. B) localized amnesia. C) continuous amnesia. D) generalized amnesia.
85. Gwen is held up at knifepoint, and her young son is kidnapped. Eventually, her son is found and returned. However, Gwen is unable to recall events that occurred since the attack, although she remembers some new experiences; worse still, she finds that she is forgetting events that occurred even before the attack. This is a classic example of: A) selective amnesia. B) localized amnesia. C) continuous amnesia. D) generalized amnesia.
86. Carlotta is attacked in the street, and her young daughter is kidnapped. Eventually, the police find her daughter and return her to her mother. However, Carlotta is unable to recall events that have occurred since the attack. She is even unable to retain new information; she remembers what happened before the attack but cannot remember new and ongoing experiences. This is a classic example of: A) localized amnesia. B) selective amnesia. C) continuous amnesia. D) generalized amnesia.
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87. Ever since Paul's car crash, during which he was miraculously unhurt, Paul has not been the same. He forgets appointments, friends' names, and even things done in the past few days. His amnesia is termed: A) continuous. B) organic. C) circumscribed. D) selective.
88. The most common type of dissociative amnesia is: A) localized amnesia. B) continuous amnesia. C) generalized amnesia. D) selective amnesia.
89. A personality change that often accompanies dissociative fugues is that people become: A) more withdrawn. B) more outgoing. C) more inhibited. D) more histrionic in their emotional reactions.
90. Which statement is TRUE regarding dissociative fugues? A) They have no known cause. B) They end very abruptly. C) They have numerous recurrences. D) They involve irrecoverable memory loss.
91. Which characteristic is common with dissociative fugue? A) Fleeing to a new location B) Engaging in criminal activity C) Being unable to retain new episodic knowledge D) Losing long-term memories and procedural (skills-based) memories 92. Max experienced a dissociative fugue for two weeks. Upon “waking” from this state, a common immediate reaction is: A) embarrassment. B) confusion. C) guilt. D) anger.
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93. Dissociative identity disorder is _____ to be diagnosed in a woman compared with a man. A) two times more likely B) three times more likely C) two times less likely D) three times less likely
94. A client who is talking calmly and rationally all of a sudden begins whining and complaining like a spoiled child. If that client suffers from true dissociative identity disorder, the client just experienced: A) host transfer. B) mutual cognizance. C) lability. D) switching.
95. Switching in a person with dissociative identity disorder means: A) the host personality has put in a relatively rare appearance. B) the person has faked a change in personality. C) two subpersonalities rapidly changed back and forth several times. D) the person has changed from one subpersonality to another.
96. Alexis has dissociative identity disorder. When one of her personalities, Jodi, is asked about another one, Tom, she claims ignorance. Tom has never heard of Jodi, either. This is called a: A) coconscious relationship. B) mutually cognizant pattern. C) one-way amnesic relationship. D) mutually amnesic relationship.
97. When all of the subpersonalities in a person with dissociative identity disorder are aware of one another, it is termed a: A) coconscious relationship. B) mutually cognizant pattern. C) one-way amnesic relationship. D) mutually amnesic relationship.
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98. Troy has dissociative identity disorder. All of his subpersonalities talk about and tattle on each other. This is an example of a: A) coconscious relationship. B) mutually cognizant pattern. C) one-way amnesic relationship. D) mutually amnesic relationship.
99. In a case of dissociative identity disorder, Lorna is aware of the existence of Jerry and Chris, but Jerry and Chris are not aware of the existence of the other personalities. This form of subpersonality relationship is called: A) one-way amnesic. B) mutually cognizant. C) mutually amnesic. D) coconscious.
100. Juanita has dissociative identity disorder. Big Tony and Smart Alice are two personalities who are aware of all of the others. None of her other personalities is aware of the others. This would be called a: A) coconscious relationship. B) mutually cognizant pattern. C) one-way amnesic relationship. D) mutually amnesic relationship.
101. Colton has dissociative identity disorder. Fat Freddy and Carmen are two personalities who are aware of all of the others but do not interact with them. Fat Freddy and Carmen would be described as: A) self-reliant. B) co-occurring. C) coconscious. D) mutually cognizant.
102. Modern studies suggest that the average number of subpersonalities in cases of dissociative identity disorder is about _____ for women and _____ for men. A) 8; 4 B) 8; 15 C) 15; 8 D) 4; 8
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103. Which is the BEST example of the subpersonalities in dissociative identity disorder differing in identifying features? A) One personality can drive or sew and another cannot. B) One personality has asthma and another does not. C) One personality has high blood pressure and another does not. D) One personality is a woman and another is a man.
104. Which is the BEST example of the subpersonalities in dissociative identity disorder differing in preferences? A) One subpersonality loves alternative rock music and another hates it but loves country music. B) One subpersonality is allergic to cats but the others are not. C) One subpersonality has blond hair and another has red hair. D) One subpersonality is a teenager and another is middle aged.
105. An individual who formerly knew how to speak a foreign language and play a musical instrument can no longer remember how to do so as a result of a dissociative disorder. The dissociative disorder MOST likely present is: A) dissociative fugue. B) dissociative amnesia. C) dissociative identity. D) depersonalization-derealization disorder.
106. Research on evoked potential with people with dissociative identity disorder has revealed that: A) different subpersonalities show different brain-response patterns. B) people with dissociative identity disorder do not show different brain-response patterns for subpersonalities. C) no differences are found in brain activity between controls and individuals with dissociative identity disorder. D) control subjects who are asked to pretend they have different personalities are able to create different brain-response patterns for each subpersonality.
107. How do results from evoked potential studies support the idea of the existence of multiple personalities? A) Evoked potentials can be elicited iatrogenically by therapists. B) Different subpersonalities have been found to show different brain wave patterns. C) Nonpatients are able to fake results just like those diagnosed with multiple personalities. D) Only those with traumatic backgrounds produce evoked potentials.
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108. The number of diagnosed cases of dissociative identity disorder increased in the 1980s and 1990s. Some researchers are concerned about this trend, stating: A) the disorder cannot be definitively diagnosed until the person has been in therapy for more than seven years. B) there are no research studies that confirm the disorder's existence. C) many of the cases are unintentionally produced by clinicians. D) this is a ploy used by criminals to try to avoid consequences for their criminal activity.
109. In the twenty-first century in the United States, the number of diagnosed cases per year of dissociative identity disorder has: A) increased significantly (almost doubling). B) increased slightly. C) remained unchanged. D) decreased.
110. Why do some researchers believe dissociative identity disorder is culture-bound? A) It is rare or nonexistent in certain countries. B) It affects women more frequently than men. C) It has been tied to specific religious practices. D) It affects only about 1 percent of the population.
111. Psychodynamic theorists believe that dissociative amnesias and fugues result from: A) projection. B) regression. C) repression. D) sublimation.
112. Which statement provides the MOST persuasive argument against a psychodynamic explanation for dissociative identity disorder? A) Repression can occur either as a single major event or over a lifetime. B) The creation of subpersonalities is a conscious event. C) Most abused children do not develop the disorder. D) Psychodynamic therapists do not even attempt to treat the disorder.
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113. The chief sources of data used to support the psychodynamic theories of dissociative identity disorder are: A) large-scale experimental studies. B) biologically based. C) case studies. D) epidemiological.
114. Memory problems that do not interfere with daily living are referred to as: A) peculiarities of memory. B) age-related memory decline. C) subclinical dissociative memory. D) temporary dissociative memory loss.
115. Bentley was driving over the same bridge he crossed every day on his way to work, but today nothing about the bridge or scenery felt familiar. This is an example of: A) jamais vu. B) eidetic recall. C) absentmindedness. D) visual memory error.
116. Kevin studies his history notes and textbook while he is drinking beer. According to some theorists, Kevin would later do better on his history exam if he also had alcohol in his system while taking the exam. These theorists would be basing their claim on: A) social learning theory. B) state-dependent learning. C) active-avoidance learning. D) associative memory learning.
117. If you studied for this exam while you were unusually happy, you will probably do best taking it while you are: A) unusually sad. B) unusually happy. C) moderately happy. D) happy when you know the answers and sad when you don't.
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118. Just after doing well in an intramural basketball game—something which left me very happy, and in a high state of excitement—I sat down and studied for my abnormal psychology test. Research shows I would perform best on that test if, at the time of the test, I was: A) happy and excited. B) happy but calm. C) neither happy nor sad, and excited. D) neither happy nor sad, and calm.
119. Laurent has three subpersonalities. Fiona emerges when Laurent is in an awkward social situation, Grace surfaces during sporting events, and Carlos appears when Laurent is angry. The therapist believes that the mood and conditions under which each subpersonality appears are critical to understanding this disorder, demonstrating a belief in: A) avoidant dysmorphia. B) state-dependent learning. C) convergent variable learning. D) neurobiological concordance.
120. If the state-dependent learning explanation of dissociative disorders is correct, a subpersonality would be MOST likely to present: A) during a time of self-reflection. B) during a time of stress. C) at specific geographic locations. D) upon awakening from sleep.
121. Which has been proposed as a possible cause of dissociative disorders? A) Regression B) Self-hypnosis C) Modeling D) Classical conditioning
122. Which characteristic is MOST common to both self-hypnosis and dissociative identity disorder? A) The inability to forget B) The awareness that something has been forgotten C) The ability to escape threatening events D) The awareness to know why you forget
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123. Which conclusion does research on hypnosis and hypnotic amnesia support? A) There is no connection or commonality between hypnotic amnesia and dissociative identity disorder. B) Dissociative disorders are extremely odd and inexplicable events. C) Dissociative disorders are similar to behaviors seen in hypnotic amnesia. D) Self-hypnosis relies on different processes and produces different behavioral outcomes.
124. A child in an extremely abusive family situation often seems to become deaf to the verbal abuse and insensitive to the physical abuse, as if the child simply wasn't there experiencing the abuse. One explanation for this behavior is: A) self-hypnosis. B) state-dependent memory. C) eidetic imagery. D) memory while under simulated anesthesia.
125. Just before 8 A.M. (when my first class meets), my young daughter did something that annoyed me as I was about to leave home for the short drive to campus. “Katie,” I said, “what do I always say at a time like this?” She looked at the clock, and then said to me, “What you say is, 'Where are my keys?'” My daughter was apparently familiar with my: A) visual memory deficit. B) jamais vu tendencies. C) nondisordered dissociative fugue. D) absentmindedness. 126. A friend asks you, “What's the name of that Tom Hanks' movie where a pirate takes over his ship and says, 'I'm the captain now'?” You remember the movie and know you know the title, but you can't think of it in the moment. This is an example of: A) déjà vu. B) jamais vu. C) absentmindedness. D) the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon.
127. A visual image that is retained so vividly that one can continue to scan it for more information is called: A) déjà vu. B) jamais vu. C) an eidetic image. D) the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon.
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128. Individuals experiencing dissociative amnesia sometimes are given sodium amobarbital or sodium pentobarbital because those drugs: A) calm people and reduce their inhibitions. B) act as truth serum, so people cannot fake their illness. C) help reduce associated symptoms of depression. D) make people forget extremely upsetting events in their lives.
129. According to the text, psychodynamic therapy seems especially well suited to treat: A) dissociative identity disorder. B) dissociative fugue. C) dissociative amnesia. D) absentmindedness.
130. Which is NOT a treatment commonly used to treat dissociative amnesia? A) Psychodynamic therapy B) Hypnotic therapy C) Flooding D) Drug therapy
131. People with which dissociative disorder typically do not eventually recover without receiving treatment? A) Dissociative identity disorder B) Dissociative fugue C) Dissociative amnesia D) Depersonalization-derealization disorder
132. In the treatment of dissociative amnesia, sodium amobarbital and sodium pentobarbital work by: A) freeing people from their inhibitions, thus allowing them to recall unpleasant events. B) “forcing” people to tell the truth. C) inducing a hypnotic state. D) alleviating depression.
133. The first step in treating people with dissociative identity disorder is to: A) bond with the primary personality. B) integrate the subpersonalities into a unity. C) establish a contract with the subpersonalities to prevent self-harm. D) provide a forum for the subpersonalities to communicate with one another.
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134. The usual goal of therapy for dissociative identity disorders is to: A) have the subpersonalities develop equal “shares” of the person's functioning. B) have the “other” subpersonalities become subject to the subpersonality that has the “protector” role. C) gradually phase out all but one of the subpersonalities. D) merge the subpersonalities into a single identity.
135. One of the subpersonalities of a person receiving treatment for dissociative identity disorder has just become a “protector.” How far along in therapy has the person probably progressed? A) Not far at all; protectors usually emerge even before the disorder is diagnosed. B) Moderately far; a protector usually emerges before subpersonality integration. C) Very far; a protector usually emerges after subpersonality integration and before fusion. D) All the way; a protector usually emerges only after therapy has been successfully completed.
136. A client receiving treatment for identity disorder is progressing well through therapy; then, fusion occurs. MOST likely, the client has: A) experienced a significant, but short-term, setback. B) experienced a significant, and long-term, setback. C) merged the first two or more subpersonalities. D) merged the final two or more subpersonalities. 137. At a workshop about dissociative identity disorder, a therapist says, “In my experience, once integration begins, the need for therapy is practically over, and later dissociations just don't happen.” This therapist's experience is: A) typical. B) a bit unusual; most successful therapies cease before integration. C) a bit unusual; most successful therapies cease immediately after integration. D) very unusual; most successful therapies last well beyond the beginning of integration.
138. Mason is receiving therapy for dissociative identity disorder. At which stage would family therapy MOST likely be included as part of therapy? A) Before diagnosis, for other issues B) Early on, when the therapist is trying to help the client recognize the nature of the disorder C) After the patient has accepted the diagnosis, and the goal is memory recovery D) Late in the process, when the focus is on integration
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139. The effects of taking hallucinogens accompanied by feelings that objects are changing size, that other people are distorted, and that one might be mechanical is MOST similar to: A) depersonalization. B) multiple personalities. C) amnestic fugue. D) body dysmorphic disorder.
140. An individual has been diagnosed with a dissociative disorder. However, the individual has very good recall of previous life events and has a strong sense of self. The MOST likely diagnosis for this individual is: A) dissociative amnesia. B) dissociative identity disorder. C) dissociative fugue. D) depersonalization disorder.
141. A feeling of detachment from oneself could be diagnosed as PTSD or depersonalization disorder. To determine which diagnosis BEST fits, one would consider: A) how long it had been going on. B) which symptoms predominated. C) which type of stress the person had endured. D) which form of treatment worked best.
142. Which BEST describes someone with depersonalization? A) Feels anxious all the time and is distrustful of others B) Is focused on self, giving little consideration to others C) Feels detached from his or her own body D) Feels as if the others are unreal or possibly even dead
143. Which BEST describes someone experiencing derealization? A) Feels as if disconnected from his or her body B) Does not value human life C) Has a compelling need to revisit the same thoughts over and over D) Feels as if the world has changed and become strange or surreal
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144. Which statement is MOST accurate about depersonalization disorder? A) People experiencing depersonalization disorder remain connected to reality. B) Most cases of depersonalization disorder are associated with changes in brain activity. C) The presence of severe stressors in one's life is not a predictor of depersonalization disorder. D) Depersonalization disorder rarely occurs transiently.
145. Someone who is experiencing doubling is: A) showing two out of several multiple personalities at the same time. B) transitioning from one subpersonality to another. C) feeling as if his or her mind is floating above him or her. D) experiencing hyperactivity of the brain–body stress pathways.
146. If a person's mental functioning or body feels unreal or foreign, the person is MOST likely suffering from: A) body dysmorphic disorder. B) depersonalization. C) dissociative identity disorder. D) dissociative amnesia.
147. Jake is lying in bed and suddenly feels as though he is floating above his body. This is called: A) doubting. B) dumbing down. C) doubling. D) distrusting.
148. When a person feels that the external world is removed, mechanical, distorted, or even dead, he or she is experiencing: A) doubling. B) depersonalization. C) dissociative amnesia. D) derealization.
149. Transient depersonalization and derealization: A) are experienced by virtually all people by late adolescence. B) are produced naturally and cannot be induced by drugs or meditation. C) can be induced by a life-threatening experience. D) are common in adults but are not yet diagnosed in children or adolescents.
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150. Depersonalization disorder is most common among: A) preadolescents. B) adolescents and young adults. C) adults between the ages of 40 and 60. D) adults older than 60.
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Answer Key 1. B 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. C 8. D 9. C 10. C 11. C 12. D 13. B 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. D 18. A 19. D 20. D 21. B 22. B 23. C 24. D 25. A 26. C 27. B 28. D 29. A 30. B 31. C 32. A 33. A 34. D 35. A 36. B 37. A 38. C 39. D 40. C 41. B 42. D 43. A 44. B
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45. B 46. B 47. C 48. D 49. B 50. A 51. A 52. A 53. D 54. D 55. C 56. D 57. B 58. C 59. D 60. C 61. B 62. B 63. C 64. B 65. C 66. A 67. A 68. A 69. C 70. B 71. D 72. B 73. B 74. B 75. C 76. A 77. B 78. D 79. A 80. C 81. B 82. B 83. D 84. B 85. D 86. C 87. A 88. A 89. B 90. B
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91. A 92. B 93. B 94. D 95. D 96. D 97. B 98. B 99. A 100. C 101. C 102. C 103. D 104. A 105. C 106. A 107. B 108. C 109. A 110. A 111. C 112. C 113. C 114. A 115. A 116. B 117. B 118. A 119. B 120. B 121. B 122. C 123. C 124. A 125. D 126. D 127. C 128. A 129. C 130. C 131. A 132. A 133. A 134. D 135. B 136. D
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137. D 138. B 139. A 140. D 141. B 142. C 143. D 144. A 145. C 146. B 147. C 148. D 149. C 150. B
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1. The state of stress has two components: A) stress and stressor. B) stressor and stress response. C) stress and appraisal. D) stress and recovery.
2. When we encounter a stressor, the _____ nervous system accelerates the automatic processes in our body. After the stressor is over, the _____ nervous system returns us to normal functioning. A) somatic; autonomic B) somatic; sympathetic C) parasympathetic; sympathetic D) sympathetic; parasympathetic
3. When the adrenal medulla is stimulated, _____ are released. A) serotonin and dopamine B) glucose and glutamate C) adrenocorticotropic hormones and corticosteroids D) epinephrine and norepinephrine
4. When the adrenal cortex is stimulated, _____ are released. A) serotonin and dopamine B) glucose and glutamate C) adrenocorticotropic hormones and corticosteroids D) epinephrine and norepinephrine
5. Although it happened decades ago, the mayor of Lockerbie, Scotland, still wakes up in a cold sweat thinking about a burning jetliner crashing into his town. This is an example of: A) acute stress disorder. B) posttraumatic stress disorder. C) dissociative identity disorder. D) depersonalization-derealization disorder.
6. Researchers have found evidence of abnormal activity of _____ in the urine, blood, and saliva of combat soldiers and rape victims. A) dopamine and serotonin B) cortisol and norepinephrine C) epinephrine and glucose D) glutamate and GABA
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7. The heightened biochemical arousal experienced by posttraumatic stress victims may eventually damage which parts of their brain? A) Medulla, pons, and reticular formation B) Frontal and temporal lobes C) Central nervous system and brain stem D) Hippocampus, prefrontal cortex, and amygdala
8. If a victim of rape is treated with dignity and respect by the criminal justice system, what does research suggest is a likely outcome? A) The victim will be more likely to press charges against the attacker. B) The victim will have a greater chance of developing a stress-related illness. C) The victim will be less likely to press charges because he or she will decide to simply “move on.” D) The victim will have a greater chance of recovering more successfully.
9. Some studies indicate that _____ treatment is the single most helpful intervention for persons with stress disorders, irrespective of the precipitating trauma. A) drug B) exposure C) electroconvulsive D) psychodynamic
10. As part of the treatment for a combat veteran with posttraumatic stress disorder, the therapist directs the client to confront both trauma-related objects or situations and painful memories of the trauma. This therapist is practicing: A) multifinality. B) resilience training. C) prolonged exposure. D) hypnotic therapy.
11. A local psychologist accompanies APA and Red Cross personnel to help firefighters deal with the stress they experience shortly after a disastrous fire. The psychologist interacts with victims to let them know that their reactions are normal and to offer stress management tips. The psychologist is providing: A) resilience training. B) prolonged exposure. C) state-dependent learning. D) critical incident stress debriefing.
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12. Symptoms of dissociative identity disorder usually begin after episodes of: A) suggestibility. B) hypnosis. C) trauma or abuse. D) anxiety.
13. Some argue that many cases of dissociative identity disorder are _____, meaning that the symptoms are unintentionally produced by the practitioner who is treating the client. A) iatrogenic B) teratogenic C) chorionic D) dependent
14. Psychodynamic theorists believe that dissociative disorders are caused by the defense mechanism of: A) projection. B) repression. C) ritual and undoing. D) compensation.
15. Cooper looked at his car and knew it was his, but felt as if he had never seen it before. Cooper may have been experiencing: A) jamais vu. B) absentmindedness. C) visual memory impairment. D) eidetic images.
16. Which technique is used in patients with dissociative amnesia to help them recover memories? A) Self-instruction training B) Insight therapy C) Hypnotic therapy D) Meditation
17. Some theorists conclude that dissociative disorders may be a form of: A) daydreaming. B) hallucinations. C) self-hypnosis. D) disordered thinking.
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18. People with _____ feel as though they have become separated from their own mental processes or body and are observing themselves from outside. A) multiple personality disorder B) dissociative fugue C) depersonalization disorder D) dissociative amnesia
19. The ultimate goal of treatment for people with dissociative identity disorder is: A) recovering memories. B) recognizing the disorder. C) integration of subpersonalities. D) asserting subpersonalities at will.
20. People with depersonalization disorder often experience a sensation known as _____, or the feeling that their mind seems to be floating a few feet above them. A) hovering B) parting C) drifting D) doubling
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Answer Key 1. B 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. B 7. D 8. D 9. B 10. C 11. D 12. C 13. A 14. B 15. A 16. C 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. D
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1. Dread and horror are part of the _____ responses to stress. A) physical B) mental C) emotional D) cognitive
2. The hypothalamus activates which two body systems? A) Autonomic nervous system and endocrine system B) Circulatory system and digestive system C) Central nervous system and muscular system D) Respiratory system and exocrine system
3. The body system that helps reduce our arousal response is the: A) circulatory system. B) parasympathetic nervous system. C) renal system. D) sympathetic nervous system.
4. When people are confronted with stressors, the hypothalamus signals the _____ gland to release the adrenocorticotropic hormone. A) pineal B) adrenal C) pituitary D) thyroid
5. Four people all have stress disorder–related symptoms following a traumatic event. The person who may be diagnosed as having acute stress disorder is the one who has had symptoms for: A) six weeks. B) three months. C) three weeks. D) six months.
6. The key psychological stress disorders are: A) obsessive-compulsive disorder and chronic stress disorder. B) panic disorder and dissociative fugue. C) posttraumatic stress disorder and acute stress disorder. D) specific phobia and stress collapse disorder.
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7. Clinicians eventually have come to realize that many soldiers experience serious psychological symptoms long after combat is over. The disorder that may follow combat experience is called: A) dissociative fugue. B) stress fatigue disorder. C) posttraumatic stress disorder. D) depersonalization-derealization disorder.
8. Which is not listed in DSM-5 as a method of re-experiencing traumatic events by a person suffering from posttraumatic stress disorder? A) Memories B) Dreams C) Nightmares D) Delusions
9. Which term was used to describe symptoms of severe anxiety and depression experienced during World War II and the Korean War? A) Shell shock B) Nostalgia C) Combat fatigue D) Posttraumatic stress disorder
10. Female rape victims are most commonly attacked by a(n): A) former spouse or partner. B) current spouse or partner. C) acquaintance or friend. D) stranger.
11. Justin's parents divorced when he 10 years old. Based on research, how might this experience affect his ability to cope with a trauma later in life? A) Parental divorce is not correlated with stress disorders later in life. B) Justin is at increased risk for posttraumatic stress disorder if faced with a trauma later in life. C) Justin is at decreased risk for development of any stress disorder. D) Justin is at decreased risk for a stress disorder but at higher risk for an anxiety disorder.
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12. Someone who adapts well and copes effectively in the face of life adversity is said to be: A) integrated. B) in a fugue state. C) doubling. D) resilient.
13. Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) is a form of _____ therapy. A) psychodynamic B) cognitive C) humanistic D) exposure
14. Most clinicians believe that veterans with posttraumatic stress disorder cannot fully recover until what happens? A) They come to grips with their combat experience and the impact that those experiences continue to have. B) They revisit the country/territory where their combat experience took place. C) They have an interaction with one of their former enemies to put the “war inside” to rest. D) They learn to accept that they did what was required and learn to stop caring what others think.
15. Dissociative disorders are primarily a major disruption of: A) development. B) memory. C) attachment. D) social bonds.
16. People who suffer from dissociative amnesia most often lose their _____ memories but retain their _____ memories. A) immediate; long-term B) local; global C) semantic; procedural D) personal; abstract/encyclopedic
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17. People with _____ suddenly travel to an entirely different location and cannot recall the details of their past lives. A) generalized dissociative amnesia B) selective dissociative amnesia C) dissociative fugue D) continuous dissociative amnesia
18. Which statement is TRUE regarding the host personality in dissociative identity disorder? A) This personality appears most frequently. B) This personality is also referred to as the protector. C) This personality is the most outgoing of the personalities. D) This personality is the integrated personality seen after successful treatment.
19. _____ are the quiet observers in someone with dissociative identity disorder. A) Host personalities B) Primary personalities C) Mutually cognizant personalities D) Coconscious subpersonalities
20. The final merging of two or more subpersonalities in a patient with dissociative identity disorder is known as: A) joining. B) fusion. C) connectivity. D) interpolation.
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Answer Key 1. C 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. C 8. D 9. C 10. C 11. B 12. D 13. D 14. A 15. B 16. D 17. C 18. A 19. D 20. B
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Chapter 7
1. Compare and contrast depression and mania, and explain how these are related to unipolar depression and bipolar disorders.
2. What evidence exists to support the biological view of unipolar depression? Which conclusions can be drawn from this evidence? Discuss at least two biological factors implicated in this model.
3. Describe the psychodynamic explanation for the development of unipolar depression. Which research findings call this perspective into question?
4. Describe the three forms of Aaron Beck's cognitive triad. How would each form influence the thinking of a depressed person?
5. Negative thinking lies at the center of unipolar depression. Referring to this theory, discuss four areas that may contribute to negative thinking, which in turn may cause depression.
6. Someone you know has just had a minor fender-bender, caused by backing his car into a light pole. Using the concepts of the attribution-helplessness theory, provide examples of what an individual at risk for depression would say regarding what just happened to him. Be sure to include all three attributional dimensions.
7. Discuss the relationship between gender and depression. How does research support the theories that explain gender differences?
8. Define premenstrual dysphoric disorder. Why has this diagnosis been controversial?
9. Using DSM-5, compare and contrast the similarities and differences between bipolar I and bipolar II disorder.
10. Distinguish between bipolar disorder, unipolar depression, and cyclothymic disorder using DSM-5 criteria.
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Answer Key 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
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1. The state of frenzied energy in which people have an exaggerated belief that the world is theirs for the taking is called _____.
2. A state in which a person feels low and life seems bleak with overwhelming challenges is called _____.
3. Depressed people are usually less active and less productive; this state is considered a(n) _____ symptom.
4. When a stressful event appears to be responsible for the onset of a major depressive episode, clinicians refer to it as a(n) _____ or exogenous depression.
5. One theory to explain the possible gender differences in unipolar depression is that women tend to think about events long after they happened. This is called the _____ theory.
6. Peter Lewinsohn has developed a theory that depression results from a progressive decrease in the number of social _____ that a person receives over a long period of time.
7. The theorist responsible for focusing attention on the negative aspects of thinking as an explanation of depression is _____ (last name only). 8. “I have no control over good things in my life.” The _____ theory of depression BEST explains this statement.
9. The cognitive triad refers to individuals repeatedly interpreting (1) their _____, (2) themselves, and (3) their futures in negative ways that lead to feeling depressed.
10. A mood of euphoric joy and well-being characterizes _____, a clinical symptom of bipolar disorder.
11. A person who alternates between periods of depression and mild mania has _____ disorder.
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12. The disorder marked by numerous periods of hypomanic symptoms and mild depressive symptoms is called _____ disorder.
13. Whereas neurotransmitters play a significant role in the communication between neurons, _____ seem to play a critical role in relaying messages within a neuron.
14. A milder pattern of mood swings that does not reach the severity of bipolar disorder but does include depressive and manic episodes has been identified as _____ disorder.
15. During a manic episode, Eleanor feels wide awake and energetic even though she hasn't sleep for two days. This represents a(n) _____ symptom of mania.
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Answer Key 1. mania 2. depression 3. behavioral 4. reactive depression 5. rumination 6. rewards 7. Beck 8. learned helplessness 9. experiences 10. mania 11. bipolar II 12. cyclothymic 13. ions 14. cyclothymic 15. physical
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1. Unipolar depression and bipolar disorder share all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A) problematic emotional extremes. B) periods of severely or mildly depressive episodes. C) significant distress or impairment. D) inappropriate rises in mood.
2. A state of breathless euphoria, or frenzied energy, in which individuals have an exaggerated belief in their power, is characteristic of: A) mania. B) dysthymia. C) depression. D) cyclothymia.
3. Unipolar depression is depression that: A) occurs without periods of mania. B) stems from a single event in one's life. C) includes only extreme sadness as a symptom. D) occurs only in polar regions due to the lengthy absence of sunlight during winter.
4. Mania is to _____ as depression is to _____. A) males; females B) excessive energy; lack of energy C) extreme emotions; lack of emotion D) accurate self-perceptions; distorted self-perceptions
5. An important difference between mood disorders and normal mood fluctuation is the: A) particular medication used to treat the problem. B) cause of the problem. C) severity and duration of the problem. D) demographic characteristics of the person.
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6. Sophie stated that she is deeply saddened by the recent death of her grandmother. José thinks that Sophie is suffering from unipolar depression because of this event. Which statement MOST strongly refutes José's assumption? A) Unipolar depression is rarely triggered by uncontrollable losses. B) Unipolar depression is often accompanied by periods of mania after someone loses a loved one. C) Unipolar depression is often diagnosed shortly after a person experiences the loss of a loved one. D) Unipolar depression differs from the relatively short-lived sadness we fell from the loss of a loved one.
7. Most individuals feel "depressed" at some point in time. Which statement BEST describes the difference between this depression and a depressive disorder? A) General "depression" is the first stage of a depressive disorder, termed a preclinical disorder. B) "Depression" in the general sense refers to pain brought about due to a biological cause, whereas depressive disorders have many causes. C) General "depression" refers strictly to clinical unipolar depressive disorder, whereas depressive disorder is a broader category of depression. D) Periods of general "depression" are shorter lived, whereas those with depressive disorders experience severe and long-lasting psychological pain.
8. Based on demographic data alone, which person is MOST likely to develop severe unipolar depression? A) A teenage boy who lives with his wealthy parents B) A woman who lives in poverty C) An elderly man who lives in a low-income area D) A man who lives alone in his upper-middle-income home
9. What percentage of all adults experience an episode of severe depression at some point in their lives? A) 5 percent B) 10 percent C) 20 percent D) 40 percent
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10. Which statement BEST reflects the gender differences seen in unipolar depression? A) Men and boys are almost twice as likely as women and girls to have unipolar depression. B) Men are at least twice as likely as women to have unipolar depression, but girls are twice as likely as boys to develop unipolar depression. C) Women are at least twice as likely as men to have unipolar depression, but boys are twice as likely as girls to develop unipolar depression. D) Women are at least twice as likely as men to have unipolar depression, but prevalence among boys and girls is similar.
11. Severe unipolar depression is less common in adults older than age 65. According to the text, one possible reason for this is that: A) older adults are less likely to seek medical help and, therefore, remain undiagnosed. B) depression in older adults is commonly misdiagnosed as an anxiety disorder. C) severe depression is associated with health problems that could prevent affected adults from living to an old age. D) the DSM-5 criteria to diagnose severe unipolar depression require that the condition present in childhood.
12. The average age of onset of unipolar depression is _____ years of age. A) 8 B) 19 C) 28 D) 45
13. Which statement about unipolar depression is TRUE? A) Most individuals with unipolar depression require more than one year of treatment before seeing improvement. B) The vast majority of individuals with unipolar depression recover within 6 months, sometimes without treatment. C) About half of the individuals who receive treatment for unipolar depression improve within the first 6 months; all individuals experience full recovery within one year, even without treatment. D) Treatment for unipolar depression is always required and is effective almost immediately in approximately two-thirds of all individuals.
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14. An example of an emotional symptom of depression is: A) not wanting to eat. B) having a negative view of oneself. C) feeling sad and angry. D) staying in bed for hours during the day.
15. The experience of constant weeping would be considered a(n) _____ symptom of depression. A) cognitive B) emotional C) behavioral D) motivational
16. Brody no longer enjoys his usual hobbies, talking to his friends, or even playing with his dog. In fact, Brody didn't even care when he learned that he was up for a promotion at work. This BEST describes someone with: A) fatalism. B) anhedonia. C) automatic thinking. D) dysregulation.
17. Regarding the symptoms of depression, a motivational symptom like the lack of desire to get out of bed is different from its companion behavioral symptom, such as: A) waking up with a headache and nausea. B) thinking that nothing good will happen if one gets out of bed. C) staying in bed all day. D) waking up feeling sad and miserable.
18. A man diagnosed with unipolar depression exhibited his first diagnosable symptoms when he was about 40 years old. Among those experiencing unipolar depression, his case is: A) common; the average age of diagnosis is middle age and depression is more common in men. B) uncommon; the average age of diagnosis is middle age but depression is more common in women. C) uncommon; although more common in men, the average age of diagnosis is early adulthood. D) uncommon; the average age of diagnosis is early adulthood and depression is more common in women.
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19. The BEST example of a motivational symptom of unipolar depression is a: A) man who feels no pleasure from the things he used to enjoy. B) woman who thinks that her sadness will never go away. C) man who stops cleaning his apartment and even stops showering. D) woman who loses all interest in running, something she used to do daily.
20. A person displaying sadness, lack of energy, headaches, and feelings of low self-worth is showing all of the following symptoms EXCEPT: A) emotional symptoms. B) motivational symptoms. C) behavioral symptoms. D) cognitive symptoms.
21. An example of a behavioral symptom of depression is: A) not wanting to eat. B) having a negative view of oneself. C) feeling sad and angry. D) staying in bed for hours during the day.
22. An example of a cognitive symptom of unipolar depression is: A) overeating. B) viewing the self as inadequate. C) feeling dizzy. D) avoiding interactions with friends.
23. A friend who has unipolar depression says, "I can't do anything right. Nobody will ever love me again." This statement reflects a(n): A) cognitive symptom. B) behavioral symptom. C) emotional symptom. D) motivational symptom.
24. Frequent headaches, indigestion, and sleep disturbances are _____ symptoms of depression. A) physical B) emotional C) behavioral D) motivational
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25. Which of the following is NOT a physical symptom of depression? A) Sleeping poorly B) Eating less frequently C) Experiencing frequent headaches D) Feeling sad and dejected
26. To be classified as a major depressive episode, depression must last for at least: A) two weeks. B) two months. C) one year. D) two years.
27. What would be the most appropriate diagnosis for a person who experienced a major depressive episode, does not have any history of mania, and is either immobile or excessively active? A) Recurrent depression B) Seasonal depression C) Catatonic depression D) Melancholic depression
28. Which is NOT a type of major depressive disorder? A) Catatonic B) Seasonal C) Melancholic D) Posttraumatic
29. To receive a diagnosis of major depressive episode, catatonic, an individual must display: A) repeated episodes. B) fluctuation in mood during the year. C) motor immobility or excessive activity. D) onset within 4 weeks of giving birth.
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30. Juan is currently experiencing a period of sadness that has resulted in almost total immobility. He sits in a chair all day and almost never moves. His wife has to assist him in getting into bed at night. Which type of major depression would he MOST likely be diagnosed with? A) Seasonal B) Catatonic C) Recurrent D) Melancholic
31. To receive a diagnosis of major depressive episode, melancholic, an individual must display: A) repeated depressive episodes. B) fluctuations in mood during the year. C) motor immobility or excessive activity. D) almost no emotional response to pleasurable events.
32. A defining characteristic of melancholic depression is: A) catatonia. B) anhedonia. C) mania. D) dysphoria.
33. To receive a diagnosis of persistent depressive disorder with dysthymic syndrome, an individual must have experienced symptoms for at least: A) two weeks. B) two months. C) one year. D) two years.
34. Which disorder may be categorized as seasonal if it changes with the seasons? A) Persistent depressive disorder B) Major depressive disorder C) Premenstrual dysphoric disorder D) Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder
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35. Since immediately after the birth of her son, Aubree has experienced a period of sadness that interferes with her ability to take care of him. She has never felt this way before, and this sadness has been going on for several weeks. With which type of major depression would Aubree MOST likely be diagnosed? A) Seasonal B) Catatonic C) Peripartum D) Melancholic
36. A woman experiences recurrent thoughts of suicide, great sadness, and sleep disturbances. These symptoms began a week after she gave birth and have lasted more than 6 months. This woman is experiencing: A) the "baby blues." B) postpartum psychosis. C) hormone withdrawal syndrome. D) peripartum depression.
37. Historically, peripartum depression has been labeled: A) peripheral depression. B) postpartum depression. C) posttraumatic stress disorder. D) premenstrual dysphoric disorder.
38. How are the features of the "baby blues" different from the symptoms of peripartum depression? A) Both the "baby blues" and peripartum depression have the same symptoms. B) The symptoms of the two differ depending on the age of the mother and the number of children she has had. C) The symptoms of the "baby blues" are like those of peripartum depression, but are less severe and persistent. D) Unlike in peripartum depression, the symptoms of the "baby blues" persist for several months following the delivery of a baby.
39. A woman who has just given birth is anxious, has trouble sleeping, and feels sad. These symptoms diminish over the next couple of weeks. What she has experienced is MOST likely: A) the "baby blues," something experienced by less than half of new mothers. B) the "baby blues," something experienced by more than half of new mothers. C) peripartum depression, something experienced by more than half of new mothers. D) peripartum depression, something experienced by less than half of new mothers.
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40. A woman being treated for peripartum depression after the birth of her first child is most likely to: A) experience peripartum depression after her first birth but rarely experience it again. B) experience peripartum depression only after the birth of a first child. C) have a 25 to 50 percent chance of experiencing peripartum depression with her next child. D) have a 100 percent chance of experiencing peripartum depression with her next child.
41. Which statement is TRUE for women experiencing peripartum depression regarding psychotherapy for depression? A) Most women stop having depressive symptoms within 4 weeks after the birth of their child. B) A psychodynamic approach works particularly well. C) Many women with peripartum depression find self-help support groups particularly helpful. D) Such women should avoid antidepressant medications, because these medications work well for unipolar depression but not for peripartum depression.
42. Factors stemming from stressful life events are to reactive depression as factors stemming from no known stressful life events are to: A) catatonic depression. B) melancholic depression. C) endogenous depression. D) persistent depressive disorder with dysthymic syndrome.
43. One of the main problems in determining whether one's depression is endogenous or reactive is that: A) most people forget, or repress, the stressful events that may have led to their depression. B) it is unclear whether exposure to a stressor was a contributing factor or if it was a coincidence. C) people with depression often underreport being exposed to stressful events. D) it is virtually impossible to study endogenous factors that are linked to depression.
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44. Damian is experiencing a major depressive episode that appears to have begun 3 weeks ago. He is miserable and suffers from at least five symptoms of depression. No unusually stressful events have occurred in the past year. Based on these data, the diagnosis would be: A) postpartum depression. B) reactive depression. C) exogenous depression. D) endogenous depression.
45. Easton saw his best friend shot and killed by a gunman who was driving through his neighborhood. A month later, Easton is in a psychologist's office complaining that he cannot work; everything seems hopeless. He has several other symptoms consistent with these complaints. Based on these data, the diagnosis would MOST likely be: A) recurrent depression. B) reactive depression. C) endogenous depression. D) melancholic depression.
46. Family pedigree and twin studies have been used to look for a predisposition for unipolar depression within families. Which theoretical framework encompasses these studies? A) Humanist B) Biological C) Behavioral D) Psychodynamic
47. Family pedigree and twin studies have been used to look for a genetic predisposition for unipolar depression. These studies have found: A) a lower rate of unipolar depression among children of parents with this disorder. B) a higher than chance rate of depression among the families of depressed patients. C) high rates of unipolar depression among dizygotic twins but not among monozygotic twins. D) no compelling evidence for depression among relatives of a depressed individual.
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48. Researchers have found that when an identical twin has unipolar depression, there is a 38 percent chance that the other twin has already had or will eventually have the same disorder. A fraternal twin is only 20 percent likely to have the same disorder. This finding: A) proves that unipolar depression does not have a genetic factor. B) supports the idea that people may inherit a predisposition for developing unipolar depression. C) shows that spending time with people who have unipolar depression increases an individual's own risk for developing the same disorder. D) demonstrates that if one sibling has unipolar depression, other siblings of the same sex are likely to develop the same disorder.
49. Considering that numerous chromosomes have genetic markers that are associated with unipolar depression, which inference may we draw about the link between genetic factors and depression? A) The genetic basis for depression is stronger than other factors that are linked to depression. B) Genetic screening should be used to identify those individuals who are at risk for developing depression. C) Genetic factors alone are insufficient to explain why some people become depressed during their lifetime. D) People with genetic markers for depression are destined to develop depression at some point in their lifetime.
50. _____ follows clear-cut stressful events, whereas _____ seems to be a response to internal factors. A) Reactive depression; endogenous depression B) Cyclothymic disorder; reactive depression C) Postpartum depression; cyclothymic depression D) Major depressive disorder; persistent depressive disorder
51. The neurotransmitters associated with unipolar depression are: A) dopamine and acetylcholine. B) dopamine and glutamine. C) serotonin and GABA. D) serotonin and norepinephrine.
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52. If neurotransmitters are linked to depression, which of the following would be LEAST likely to be observed in a study? A) Lower levels of certain neurotransmitters in people who are depressed compared with those who are not depressed B) An increase in depressive symptoms after a person take a drug that blocks the effects of certain neurotransmitters C) A decrease in depressive symptoms once certain neurotransmitter levels in people with depression have been restored D) A near-zero correlation between certain neurotransmitter levels and the number or severity of depressive symptoms a person reports
53. The accidental discovery of drugs that increased serotonin and norepinephrine activity led to also effective treatments for: A) unipolar depression. B) bipolar I disorder. C) bipolar II disorder. D) posttraumatic stress disorder.
54. Which statement BEST describes what is known about the relationship between neurotransmitters and unipolar depression? A) Serotonin and norepinephrine work independently of each other. B) Serotonin has greater influence than norepinephrine in unipolar depression, but not in other disorders. C) The interaction between serotonin and norepinephrine is more influential than the activity of each of these neurotransmitters by itself. D) Studies have shown weak linkages between serotonin and norepinephrine activity regarding unipolar depression.
55. Which of the following is referred to as the "Dracula hormone"? A) Cortisol B) Testosterone C) Melatonin D) Estrogen
56. Most brain serotonin is released from locations at the base of the brain called the: A) raphe nuclei. B) amygdala. C) medulla. D) reticular formation.
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57. If a biochemical imbalance were the cause of a person's depression, the latest research would lead us to expect to find that person to have: A) an abnormality in the activity of certain neurotransmitters, especially serotonin and norepinephrine. B) especially high levels of the neurotransmitters dopamine and acetylcholine and their metabolites. C) particularly low levels of the neurotransmitters cortisol and melatonin, as measured by their metabolites. D) an absence of the neurotransmitters cortisol and serotonin.
58. If people with unipolar depression were found to have lower levels of norepinephrine, such a finding would support which perspective? A) Biological B) Sociocultural C) Psychological D) Developmental psychopathology
59. A person suspected of having unipolar depression has a smaller-than-normal hippocampus, although it produces a normal number of new neurons. This is: A) normal. B) unusual; individuals with unipolar depression usually have a smaller-than-normal hippocampus, causing it to produce a low number of new neurons. C) unusual; individuals with unipolar depression usually have a normal-sized hippocampus, causing it to produce a low number of new neurons. D) very unusual; individuals with unipolar depression usually have a normal-sized hippocampus, causing it to produce a normal number of new neurons.
60. The belief that the prefrontal cortex has a very important part to play in the development of depression is probably: A) wrong; current studies focus on the hypothalamus. B) correct, although researchers have not identified the specifics of the relationship. C) wrong; activity in the prefrontal cortex is the same in those persons with depression compared with those persons who are not diagnosed with depression. D) correct; unusually high activity in some parts and unusually low activity in other parts of the prefrontal cortex are associated with depression.
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61. Which brain structure or region is NOT part of the brain circuits involved in unipolar depression? A) Prefrontal cortex B) Hippocampus C) Corpus callosum D) Subgenual cingulate
62. Which structure is a distinct part of the depression-related brain circuit? A) Hippocampus B) Amygdala C) Subgenual cingulate D) Prefrontal cortex
63. Which statement MOST accurately reflects the connections among stress, immune function, and unipolar depression? A) Unipolar depression disrupts immune function, which then produces stress. B) Stress produces unipolar depression, which then may lead to a dysregulated immune system. C) A dysregulated immune system produces unipolar depression, which may then produce stress. D) Stress disrupts immune functioning, which may then produce unipolar depression.
64. The psychodynamic theory of depression based on the notion that a set of unconscious processes become engaged when a person experiences a loss was developed by: A) Beck and Seligman. B) Freud and Abraham. C) Dollard and Miller. D) Rogers and Maslow.
65. According to psychodynamic theory, depression results in part from: A) learned helplessness. B) irrational expectations. C) regression to the oral stage. D) learned anxiety turned inward.
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66. The clinician who would be MOST likely to say, "Tell me about any early losses you experienced," is a: A) psychodynamic clinician. B) biological clinician. C) cognitive-behavioral clinician. D) sociocultural clinician.
67. In general, object relations theorists follow which theoretical perspective? A) Cognitive-behavioral B) Humanistic C) Existential D) Psychodynamic
68. By regressing to the oral stage of development, mourners merge their identity with that of the person they lost, thereby symbolically regaining the person they lost. This statement defines the psychodynamic concept of: A) repression. B) introjection. C) introspection. D) projection.
69. The loss of a valued object that is unconsciously interpreted as the loss of a loved one is referred to as: A) tertiary loss. B) projected loss. C) symbolic loss. D) indirect loss.
70. Which theoretical model is supported by the finding that losses that happen early in life, such as the death of a father, are associated with depression later in life? A) Humanistic B) Biochemical C) Cognitive-behavioral D) Psychodynamic
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71. The evidence MOST problematic for the psychodynamic explanations of depression is that: A) studies have shown a link between neurotransmitters and depression. B) dogs that had learned to be helpless displayed symptoms of depression. C) depression affects people who had their childhood needs met and who did not suffer a loss early in life. D) infant monkeys that were "raised" by a surrogate mother covered in terry cloth showed depressive symptoms when separated from the "mother."
72. An older person retires and begins experiencing health problems. Consequently, the person loses contact with old friends and becomes unpleasant to be around. A cognitive-behaviorist would explain the resulting depression in terms of: A) learned helplessness. B) object relations loss. C) sociocultural changes. D) loss of positive social rewards.
73. The relationship between social rewards and depression is that: A) as one increases, the other tends to decrease. B) as one increases, the other remains unchanged. C) as one decreases, the other also decreases. D) as one decreases, the other remains unchanged.
74. Cognitive-behaviorists explain the downward spiral of depression by theorizing that: A) depressed behavior leads to even fewer opportunities for social rewards. B) depressed people aren't responsive to normal social rewards. C) depressed family members give inaccurate self-reports. D) depressed mood cannot be alleviated by positive experiences.
75. Françoise is depressed. Her therapist asks her about her daily experiences, focusing on how often people say nice things to her. Her therapist MOST likely has a: A) humanistic orientation. B) biological orientation. C) cognitive-behavioral orientation. D) biochemical orientation.
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76. Which theoretical orientation would support the finding that there is a significant relationship between positive life events and feelings of life satisfaction and happiness? A) Cognitive-behavioral B) Biochemical C) Existential D) Psychoanalytic
77. A decrease in social rewards, especially a decrease in social support such as that found in a happy marriage, may precede the onset of depression, providing evidence for which theoretical perspectives? A) Psychodynamic and cognitive-behavioral B) Biological and psychodynamic C) Cognitive-behavioral and sociocultural D) Sociocultural and biological
78. Cognitive-behavioral theorists explain depression in terms of a person's: A) negative interpretation of events. B) symbolic losses. C) decrease in positive activities. D) ethnic background.
79. If one assumes that the frequency of text messaging is positively correlated with psychological problems, then what would be the predicted relationship between the number of text messages people send and their self-reported levels of stress, unhappiness, and anxiety? A) As one increases, the others decrease. B) As one increases, the others also increase. C) As one increases, the others remain unchanged. D) There is no valid way to assess the relationships among these variables.
80. Which finding would provide the BEST evidence for the cognitive-behavioral explanation for depression? A) People show negative thoughts before they become depressed. B) People show negative thoughts only after they become depressed. C) Biochemical imbalances lead to both depression and negative thoughts. D) Social rewards are not related to happiness.
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81. According to Beck, _____ are central to development of unipolar depression. A) negative thoughts B) underlying conflicts C) reduced social rewards D) losses in childhood
82. When interacting with their children, depressed parents are more likely than nondepressed parents to: A) restrict computer time. B) read to them. C) get frustrated with them. D) enforce a bedtime.
83. A therapist describes a patient who believes her personal worth is tied to each task she performs. She draws negative conclusions from very little evidence, amplifies minor mistakes into major character flaws, and suffers from repetitive thoughts that remind her of her flaws. You conclude that the therapist holds which theoretical orientation? A) Cognitive-behavioral B) Biological C) Existential D) Psychoanalytic
84. Having a negative view of one's experiences, self, and the future is what Beck referred to as: A) learned helplessness. B) the cognitive triad. C) the three-factor theory. D) dysfunctional object relations.
85. Which statement would NOT reflect a part of the cognitive triad? A) Everyone is out to get me. B) Life is just too overwhelming. C) I don't even want to wake up tomorrow. D) I just can't go on.
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86. Which research finding provides the most direct support for Beck's cognitive theory of depression? A) Depressed women make even more errors in logic when interpreting a paragraph than do nondepressed women. B) Lack of social rewards is related to the downward spiral of depression. C) Both human infants and infant monkeys show depression-like symptoms when they are separated from their mothers. D) Depression is related to an imbalance of neurotransmitters in the brain.
87. Which piece of evidence, if found, would MOST STRONGLY refute Beck's assumptions about depression? A) A cross-cultural study showing that the symptoms of depression differ across cultures B) A study from molecular biology showing that specific genes are linked to depression C) A case study about an individual who is depressed but does not engage in negative thinking D) An experiment showing that people who engage in negative thinking do not become depressed
88. Ruminative responses are defined as: A) losing the ability to make rational decisions. B) failing to act because a person perceives no control over the outcomes that follow his or her actions. C) repeatedly mentally dwelling on one's mood without acting to change it. D) behaviors that occur frequently for a period of several months.
89. All the following are part of Beck's theory of depression EXCEPT: A) the cognitive triad. B) automatic thoughts. C) maladaptive attitudes. D) symbolic loss.
90. The two most influential cognitive explanations for unipolar depression are: A) psychodynamic theory and object relations theory. B) object relations theory and the theory of negative thinking. C) the theory of negative thinking and the theory of learned helplessness. D) the theory of learned helplessness and object relations theory.
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91. Studies have shown that the more _____ a person has, the more depressed he or she tends to be. A) maladaptive attitudes B) temper tantrums C) friendships D) behaviors
92. Your aunt says, "I know I'm depressed, and I think and worry about my depression constantly; however, I never actually do anything about it." She is: A) providing an example of the cognitive triad. B) making ruminative responses. C) committing errors in logic. D) regressing toward the oral stage of development.
93. The person associated with the learned helplessness theory of depression is: A) Beck. B) Freud. C) Seligman. D) Lewinsohn.
94. Martin Seligman developed a theory based on the idea that depression results from: A) the loss of a loved one, real or symbolic. B) negative thinking and maladaptive thoughts. C) a decrease in the number of positive reinforcements. D) a belief that one has no control over the events in one's life.
95. The perception, based on past experiences, that one has no control over the reinforcements in one's life defines: A) cognitive dissonance. B) learned helplessness. C) negative attribution theory. D) persistent depressive disorder with dysthymic syndrome.
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96. According to Martin Seligman's theory, which person would be MOST likely to develop learned helplessness? A) Someone who experienced controllable negative events and then an uncontrollable negative event B) Someone who experienced uncontrollable negative events and then a controllable negative event C) Someone who experienced controllable negative events and then another controllable negative event D) Someone who experienced a random sequence of controllable and uncontrollable events
97. Which finding would MOST STRONGLY support the assumption that learned helplessness is a potential cause of depression? A) Evidence from archival records showing increases in the incidence of depression following natural disasters B) Evidence from a survey showing that most depressed people report prior exposure to uncontrollable negative events C) Evidence from an experiment showing that when people are exposed to uncontrollable negative events, depressive symptoms follow D) Evidence from a clinical interview in which a client reports being exposed to uncontrollable negative events prior to seeking therapy
98. According to Seligman's research, dogs that were initially exposed to inescapable electric shocks learned to _____ when given the opportunity to avoid subsequent escapable shocks. A) quickly escape B) do nothing C) engage in novel behaviors D) bark and whimper
99. One problem with animal studies of depression is that: A) animals have different brain structures compared to humans. B) one cannot be sure that depression-like symptoms in laboratory animals reflect human depression. C) it is much harder to control the environmental and genetic factors in animal studies than it is for human studies. D) animals cannot complete self-report instruments that are used to measure the symptoms of depression.
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100. Many victims of spousal abuse stay with their abusers, even though it is obvious to others that they should, and actually could, leave. A good explanation for their behavior is: A) symbolic (imagined) loss. B) learned helplessness. C) artifact theory. D) body dissatisfaction.
101. Sheryl views events as beyond her control, yet constantly asks herself why this is so. This is an example of: A) cognitive dissonance. B) attribution-helplessness. C) the cognitive triad. D) object relations.
102. The statement "My girlfriend broke up with me because I am worthless" BEST reflects a(n): A) internal attribution. B) external attribution. C) unstable attribution. D) stable attribution.
103. A young woman believes that everything negative that happens to her is her own fault, that she ruins everything, and that she always will. The therapist diagnoses her as suffering from a learned helplessness–induced depression because she attributes negative events in her life to: A) internal, global, stable factors. B) internal specific, stable factors. C) internal, global, unstable factors. D) internal, specific, unstable factors.
104. The clinician who would be MOST likely to ask, "Do you believe you will always feel like this in all situations?", is a(n): A) psychodynamic clinician. B) existential clinician. C) cognitive-behavioral clinician. D) sociocultural clinician.
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105. A clinician who looks at the influence of race, living conditions, marital status, and roles on the development of depression would MOST likely subscribe to which theoretical orientation? A) Cognitive-behavioral B) Humanistic C) Sociocultural D) Psychodynamic
106. Which assumption is shared by both the cognitive-behavioral perspective and the family-social perspective regarding the roots of depression? A) Genetic predispositions that are linked to depression B) Unconditional positive regard for individuals suffering from depression C) Unconscious processes stemming from early childhood experiences D) Depression as a product of the social rewards a person receives from others
107. The type of clinician who would be MOST likely to say, "Tell me about the quality of mutual support you receive from your marriage," is a: A) psychodynamic clinician. B) biological clinician. C) cognitive-behavioral clinician. D) sociocultural clinician.
108. In the United States, the highest depression rate is found in: A) divorced people. B) married people. C) widowed people. D) never-married people.
109. After a couple divorced, you learn that one of them is suffering from depression. It is MOST likely that: A) the man's depression led to the divorce. B) the woman's depression led to the divorce. C) a troubled marriage led to the depression. D) the depression developed after the divorce, due to the stress of starting to date again.
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110. Compared with people in untroubled marriages, people in troubled marriages are _____ to have a depressive disorder. A) equally likely B) somewhat more likely C) substantially more likely D) guaranteed
111. Which sociocultural theory does NOT attempt to explain the link between gender and depression? A) Artifact theory B) Life stress theory C) Interpersonal conflict theory D) Rumination theory
112. Pierre, a 32-year-old male, feels terrible. He is sad, tired, and depressed, but he refuses to show it. This is consistent with the: A) hormone theory. B) artifact theory. C) quality-of-life theory. D) social pressure.
113. Depression is more common in women because they experience more taxing life situations, such as poverty and menial jobs, than men. This is the: A) self-blame theory. B) artifact theory. C) life stress theory. D) lack-of-control theory.
114. If a study demonstrated that depression is caused by concerns about one's weight, that finding would provide strong evidence: A) against the hormone explanation. B) for the hormone explanation. C) against the body dissatisfaction explanation. D) for the body dissatisfaction explanation.
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115. "Men and women are equally prone to depression, but clinicians often fail to detect depressive symptoms in men." This statement reflects the _____ theory. A) life stress B) lack-of-control C) rumination D) artifact
116. Artifact theory differs importantly from other sociocultural theories of depression because it suggests: A) women and men are equally likely to develop depression. B) hormone changes mask the development of depression in women. C) concern about body weight can be both a cause and a result of depression. D) depression is caused by examining one's feelings too closely.
117. Which conclusion could be drawn about the current theories of gender differences in relation to depression? A) They all have some supporting evidence, but they all also have some research findings they cannot explain. B) Life stress and body dissatisfaction explanations have substantially better support than the other explanations. C) Artifact theory probably will emerge as a dominant explanation. D) Rumination theory has almost no support and is on the way out.
118. DSM-5 added premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) as a diagnosis for certain women who repeatedly experience clinically significant depressive and related symptoms during the week before menstruation. Why has this been an ongoing controversy? A) There has not been enough research about the diagnosis. B) It does not occur often enough to qualify for a diagnosis. C) The diagnosis pathologizes severe cases of premenstrual syndrome. D) There are not enough symptoms to qualify for a diagnosis.
119. A woman in a middle-level manager's job is repeatedly not promoted, no matter how hard she tries, even though she seems as qualified as the men who are promoted. If she develops depression because of her work experiences, the theory that BEST explains the onset of her depression is: A) artifact theory. B) hormone theory. C) lack of control theory. D) cognitive triad theory.
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120. Which theoretical orientation would support the finding that Westerners experience more psychological symptoms of depression than do others around the world? A) Biochemical B) Cognitive-behavioral C) Psychoanalytic D) Sociocultural
121. Compared with African Americans, non-Hispanic white Americans are: A) substantially less likely to be diagnosed with depression and about as likely to have recurrent episodes. B) substantially less likely to be diagnosed with depression and less likely to have recurrent episodes. C) about as likely to be diagnosed with depression and about as likely to have recurrent episodes. D) about as likely to be diagnosed with depression but less likely to have recurrent episodes.
122. Which of these people is MOST likely to be diagnosed with depression? A) A man from Nigeria who is a new immigrant to the United States B) A woman from the United States who has lived in poverty all her life C) A boy from the United States in his early teens D) A girl from the United States who is of Hispanic descent
123. Which perspective assumes that the likelihood of depression is increased by the presence of several factors and the sequence in which they unfold? A) Multicultural B) Family-social C) Developmental psychopathology D) Psychodynamic
124. Both of Nolan's parents suffered from depression and were generally unresponsive to his needs when he was a child. When Nolan was 9, his house burned down due to an electrical problem, but he blamed himself for the event. As a young adult, Nolan was diagnosed with depression shortly after his divorce. This example illustrates the _____ perspective. A) biological B) psychodynamic C) sociocultural D) developmental psychopathology
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125. The developmental psychopathology perspective of depression can be characterized as: A) the most influential perspective because it has generated the most research. B) a view that ties together many of the factors that are included in other theories. C) a modern formulation of Freudian psychoanalytic theory. D) a view that is likely to be abandoned in the future because it makes few testable predictions.
126. Which statement is the BEST example of a claim that would be made by a developmental psychopathology theorist? A) "Depression during childhood is the best predictor of depression in adulthood." B) "Depression stems from exposure to pathogens that occur during prenatal development." C) "Depression is normal during early development and becomes a disorder during late adolescence." D) "Depression is triggered by many factors that operate together in a developmental sequence."
127. According to the developmental psychopathology perspective, moderate and manageable adversities that occur during childhood may make a person more _____ when faced with stressful events during adulthood. A) dysphoric B) resilient C) regressive D) rebellious
128. If we ultimately find that people with unipolar depression have certain biochemical characteristics that predispose them to certain cognitive characteristics that are exacerbated by certain life stressors, then we will have evidence that: A) a single factor causes depression. B) different factors cause depression in different people. C) an interaction between factors causes depression. D) different factors are related to the cause, course, and treatment of depression.
129. A good way to describe a typical manic episode would be to say that it is like a: A) roller coaster—up and down, up and down. B) meteorite—a sudden burst of energy that is quickly gone. C) power plant's output—steady, regular energy being produced. D) flash flood—spreading out wherever there is room for it to go.
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130. Which is the MOST accurate description of the symptoms of mania? A) They are highly correlated with positive life events. B) They are the same as the symptoms of depression (e.g., sadness) but accompanied by aggressiveness. C) They don't include a sense of the impact of one's actions on others. D) They very seldom include physical activity, instead usually including only mental activity.
131. Which statement is TRUE regarding people experiencing mania? A) They are acutely aware of their domineering, excessive behaviors. B) They want excitement and companionship. C) They enthusiastically long for new friends but ignore old friends. D) They enthusiastically look for old friends but ignore new friends.
132. Talking rapidly, dressing flamboyantly, and getting involved in dangerous activities are _____ symptoms of mania. A) behavioral B) motivational C) cognitive D) emotional
133. A person experiencing mania goes out with friends, looking for adventure. In addition, the individual talks loudly, runs rather than walks, and gives away a lot of money to random people on the street. These symptoms are primarily: A) emotional and cognitive. B) physical and cognitive. C) motivational and behavioral. D) motivational and emotional.
134. According to DSM-5, all of the following are considered symptoms of a manic episode EXCEPT: A) distractibility. B) inflated self-esteem. C) decreased need for sleep. D) suicidal ideation.
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135. During a manic episode, Angie tells her partner that she is getting a tattoo. Her partner tells her that they don't have extra money for a tattoo and explains that they need the money for food. Which response would be typical in this situation? A) Angie disagrees with her partner, feels frustrated, but ultimately spends the money on groceries. B) Angie experiences a loss of self-esteem. C) Angie pauses, thinks about the consequences of getting a new tattoo, and decides that it is a bad idea. D) Angie ignores her partner's request and gets a tattoo anyway.
136. On an impulse, Jaxson decides to throw a huge party. It takes four days of round-the-clock work to get everything ready, and then Jaxson welcomes more than 200 guests. When the police stop by because Jaxson has blocked a public road to have room for the party, he flies into a rage. It is MOST likely that Jaxson is experiencing: A) a manic phase of bipolar II disorder. B) a manic phase of bipolar I disorder. C) a manic phase of cyclothymic disorder. D) hypomania.
137. Someone who experiences four or more alternations between mild mania and major depression within a one-year time span would be classified as having: A) bipolar II seasonal. B) bipolar II rapid cycling. C) bipolar I mixed episodes. D) bipolar I.
138. The difference between bipolar I disorder and bipolar II disorder is the: A) number of depressive and manic episodes. B) severity of the manic episodes. C) number of depressive episodes. D) seasonal variation in the episodes.
139. A manic episode is to hypomania as _____ is to _____. A) bipolar I disorder; bipolar II disorder B) bipolar II disorder; bipolar I disorder C) cyclothymic disorder; bipolar II disorder D) bipolar II disorder; cyclothymic disorder
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140. Which statement is TRUE regarding the prevalence of bipolar disorder? A) It is a rare condition, affecting fewer than 20 in 100,000 people. B) It is the most common depressive disorder in the United States. C) It affects millions of people in the United States, between 1 and 2.6 percent of all adults. D) It affects most people at some point in their lifetime.
141. A 12-year-old middle-school European American girl from a middle-class socioeconomic background has been diagnosed with bipolar I disorder. Which of her characteristics is MOST unusual for those with bipolar I disorder diagnosis? A) Her age B) Her ethnicity C) Her gender D) Her socioeconomic background
142. The disorder marked by numerous periods of hypomanic symptoms and mild depressive symptoms is called: A) hypomanic-depressive disorder. B) dysthymic disorder. C) cyclothymic disorder. D) manic-depressive disorder.
143. A milder pattern of mood swings that does not reach the severity of bipolar disorder but does include brief depressive and manic episodes is called _____ disorder. A) dysthymic B) anhedonic C) cyclothymic D) anxiety
144. If you wanted to be on the cutting edge of research regarding the causes of bipolar disorders as we understand them today, you would MOST likely do research on: A) learned helplessness. B) the "cognitive triad." C) parent–child patterns of interaction. D) neurotransmitters in the brain.
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145. Biochemical explanations for bipolar disorder focus on all of the following EXCEPT: A) neurotransmitter activity. B) ion activity. C) hormonal functioning. D) genetic factors.
146. Neurochemically, both unipolar depression and bipolar disorder are associated with: A) low serotonin activity. B) high serotonin activity. C) low dopamine activity. D) high dopamine activity.
147. Unlike unipolar depression, bipolar depression is associated with high _____ activity. A) GABA B) dopamine C) serotonin D) norepinephrine
148. Although initially thought to be due to an excessive amount of a particular neurotransmitter, mania has been found to be due to low levels of which neurotransmitter? A) Dopamine B) Serotonin C) Acetylcholine D) Norepinephrine
149. Abnormal "ion activity" has been found in many people suffering from bipolar disorder. This ion activity is responsible for transmitting messages: A) down the length of a neuron. B) from one neuron to another neuron. C) from a neuron to a muscle or gland. D) down the length of a muscle.
150. Bipolar disorders have recently been linked to: A) GABA depletion. B) excessive serotonin. C) improper ion transport. D) excessive neuronal lithium.
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151. The strongest evidence for the cause of bipolar disorders BEST supports which theoretical perspective? A) Cognitive-behavioral B) Biological C) Family-social D) Humanistic
152. Studies reporting abnormalities in the basal ganglia of individuals with bipolar disorder provide the strongest support for which cause of bipolar disorder? A) Inappropriate neurotransmitter levels B) Genetic linkage patterns C) Brain structure D) Ion activity at the cellular level
153. If bipolar disorder is genetically linked, then which of the following research findings, if obtained, would be the least likely? A) Genetic markers on chromosomes are exclusively linked to bipolar disorder. B) Children of biological parents with bipolar disorder are more likely to have the disorder than children of adoptive parents who have the disorder. C) A person who has an identical twin with bipolar disorder has a greater risk of developing the disorder compared to a person who has a fraternal twin with the disorder. D) The rate of bipolar disorder has increased steadily over the past decade.
154. Recent research using genetic linkage studies has looked for possible patterns of inheritance of bipolar disorders. The results suggest that: A) there does not appear to be a genetic component in the development of bipolar disorders. B) several different genes may establish a predisposition to develop bipolar disorders. C) the close relatives of people with bipolar disorders have an 80 percent chance of having one of these disorders. D) according to careful studies in other countries, environmental factors are of far greater importance than genetic factors in the development of bipolar disorders.
155. Researchers have found that young adults who browse and post on social media most frequently are more likely to feel: A) happy. B) sad. C) anxious. D) euphoric.
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156. Sadness differs from depression in all of the following ways EXCEPT: A) sadness is context specific. B) sadness ends when the loss situation ends. C) the intensity of sadness is proportionate to the loss that triggered it. D) sadness lingers long after the triggering loss has ended.
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Answer Key 1. D 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. D 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. D 11. C 12. B 13. B 14. C 15. B 16. B 17. C 18. D 19. D 20. C 21. D 22. B 23. A 24. A 25. D 26. A 27. C 28. D 29. C 30. B 31. D 32. B 33. D 34. B 35. C 36. D 37. B 38. C 39. B 40. C 41. C 42. C 43. B 44. D
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45. B 46. B 47. B 48. B 49. C 50. A 51. D 52. D 53. A 54. C 55. C 56. A 57. A 58. A 59. B 60. D 61. C 62. C 63. D 64. B 65. C 66. A 67. D 68. B 69. C 70. D 71. C 72. D 73. A 74. A 75. C 76. A 77. C 78. A 79. B 80. A 81. A 82. C 83. A 84. B 85. A 86. A 87. D 88. C 89. D 90. C
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91. A 92. B 93. C 94. D 95. B 96. B 97. C 98. B 99. B 100. B 101. B 102. A 103. A 104. C 105. C 106. D 107. D 108. A 109. C 110. C 111. C 112. B 113. C 114. D 115. D 116. A 117. A 118. C 119. C 120. D 121. D 122. B 123. C 124. D 125. B 126. D 127. B 128. C 129. D 130. C 131. B 132. A 133. C 134. D 135. D 136. B
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137. B 138. B 139. A 140. C 141. A 142. C 143. C 144. D 145. C 146. A 147. D 148. B 149. A 150. C 151. B 152. C 153. D 154. B 155. B 156. D
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1. Kareem is miserable. He sees himself in a negative way and has no desire to participate in his usual activities. He has headaches, insomnia, and indigestion. Kareem is MOST likely suffering from: A) depression. B) mania. C) hypomania. D) cyclothymic disorder.
2. Approximately _____ percent of adults in the United States experience an episode of severe unipolar depression in any given year. A) 8 B) 22 C) 38 D) 52
3. Women are at least _____ times as likely as men to have episodes of severe unipolar depression. A) two B) three C) four D) five
4. Ryder's mood has become flat. No matter what he is doing, he feels no pleasure. This BEST describes: A) anhedonia. B) bipolar depression. C) mania. D) withdrawal.
5. The DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for a major depressive episode include all of the following symptoms of depression EXCEPT: A) thoughts of suicide and/or a suicide plan. B) daily insomnia or hypersomnia. C) hyperfocus on a singular activity. D) daily agitation or decrease in motor activity.
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6. The category of major depressive disorder in which the person experiences excessive activity or immobility is: A) recurrent. B) catatonic. C) melancholic. D) dysthymic.
7. A researcher who wants to examine the relatives of people with unipolar depression to see whether the disorder affects other family members should complete a _____ study. A) family pedigree B) twin C) genetic linkage D) molecular
8. Which statement BEST describes the relationship between neurotransmitters and unipolar depression? A) Low activity of either serotonin or norepinephrine directly produces depression. B) Low activity of serotonin causes a reduction in norepinephrine, which triggers depression. C) Although neurotransmitters were once thought to play a role in depression, we now know that neurotransmitters do not play a role in depression. D) It is unclear whether abnormal activity of neurotransmitters in the brain causes dysfunction of the depression-related brain circuit or is the result of it.
9. Someone who has seasonal affective disorder would likely secrete more _____ than those people without the disorder. A) serotonin B) testosterone C) thyroxin D) melatonin
10. Which statement BEST describes the relationship between the immune system and unipolar depression? A) Dysregulation of the immune system leads to chronic inflammation, which causes depression. B) The chronic stress caused by depression leads to immune system dysregulation and other health problems. C) Researchers are unclear whether immune system dysregulation is a cause or a result of depression. D) Immune system dysregulation is found in the majority of those persons with a biochemical imbalance and is believed to be a causative factor in depression.
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11. According to Peter Lewinsohn, which type of rewards are particularly important in the downward spiral of depression? A) Self-provided rewards B) Family rewards C) Monetary rewards D) Social rewards
12. The cognitive triad is made up of maladaptive thoughts about all of these EXCEPT: A) self. B) experiences. C) the future. D) the past.
13. Which theorist is credited with formulating the concept of the cognitive triad? A) Aaron Beck B) Martin Seligman C) Peter Lewinsohn D) Sigmund Freud
14. _____ is credited with developing the learned helplessness theory of depression. A) Aaron Beck B) Albert Ellis C) Martin Seligman D) Rene Spitz
15. _____ is the perception that one has no control over the reinforcements in his or her life. A) Learned helplessness B) Attributions C) Learned hopelessness D) Self-blame
16. The life stress theory designates all of the following as playing a role in the development of depression in women EXCEPT: A) giving birth to children. B) facing more poverty than men do. C) commonly having more menial jobs than men do. D) facing more discrimination than men do.
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17. Which group of Americans has the highest rates of chronicity when it comes to depression? A) American Indians B) Hispanic Americans C) Non-Hispanic white Americans D) Asian Americans
18. The form of bipolar disorder characterized by episodes of hypomania alternating with major depressive episodes is: A) dysthymic disorder. B) bipolar II disorder. C) cyclothymic disorder. D) bipolar I disorder.
19. What is the most commonly seen relationship between the frequency of depressive and manic episodes in a person with bipolar disorder? A) Every depressive episode occurs immediately after a manic episode. B) The manic episodes occur twice as often as the depressive episodes. C) The depressive episodes occur three times as often as the manic episodes. D) The manic episodes occur only when medication is taken to relieve a depressive episode.
20. _____ serotonin activity accompanied by _____ norepinephrine activity may lead to mania. A) High; high B) High; low C) Low; high D) Low; low
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Answer Key 1. A 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. D 9. D 10. C 11. D 12. D 13. A 14. C 15. A 16. A 17. B 18. B 19. C 20. C
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1. Research suggests that _____ percent of people with unipolar depression recover, some without treatment. A) 30 B) 45 C) 70 D) 85
2. Which is NOT a way of categorizing unipolar depression? A) Peripartum B) Melancholic C) Catatonic D) Rapid cycling
3. Ally has a hard time following conversations and forgets much of what was talked about. This is an example of a(n) _____ symptom of depression. A) cognitive B) emotional C) motivational D) physical
4. Which statement regarding peripartum depression is FALSE? A) The hormonal changes that accompany birth trigger this depression. B) A woman with a family history of mood disorders is at greater risk for developing peripartum depression. C) Antidepressant medication has been found to be one effective treatment for peripartum depression. D) Women with peripartum depression experience either immobility or excessive activity along with traditional symptoms of depression.
5. To explain the relationship between loss and depression, Freud used the concept of _____, in which a person unconsciously interprets negative experiences as the loss of a loved one. A) projection B) object relations C) symbolic loss D) delusion
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6. Aaron Beck believes that _____ contribute(s) to the development of depression. A) symbolic loss B) internal conflicts C) maladaptive attitudes D) reduction in positive rewards
7. Studies (Turkle, 2015, 2013, 2012) evaluating the effects of texting on relationships reported that: A) communicating via texts helps adolescents feel more connected. B) communicating primarily via texting has a negative effect on relationships. C) text messaging improves the quality of the communication and thereby strengthens relationships. D) text messaging can strengthen relationships by allowing more frequent communication with others.
8. Clara is preparing her lunch in the break room. Two coworkers are eating lunch and start laughing shortly after she enters the room. Clara thinks, “I know they are talking about me. They know I'm a disaster and a complete mess.” This represents: A) arbitrary inferences. B) automatic thoughts. C) selective abstractions. D) global causation. 9. “Men are just as likely as women to experience depression. Men just express it differently and then clinicians end up diagnosing it less often in them.” This statement reflect the _____ theory of depression. A) life stress B) hormone C) artifact D) lack-of-control
10. Which is NOT a theory that has been offered to explain the relative high rates of depression in women compared with men? A) Artifact theory B) Rumination theory C) Body dissatisfaction explanation D) Learned helplessness theory
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11. Sawyer had been up for 72 hours and went on a painting spree. After finishing a few canvas paintings, he was driven to do something even bigger and better, so he painted a mural on his bedroom wall. Eventually Sawyer's energy level began to drop. At some point, he lost all motivation and began staying in bed for most of the day. Sawyer would MOST likely be diagnosed with: A) unipolar depression. B) bipolar I disorder. C) bipolar II disorder. D) cyclothymic disorder.
12. Which symptom pair denotes a diagnosis of bipolar I disorder? A) Dysthymic symptoms and mania B) Hypomania and depression C) Mania and depression D) Dysthymic symptoms and hypomania
13. If a person experiences _____ or more episodes of shifting between mania and depression within a one-year period, his or her disorder would be classified as rapid cycling. A) 4 B) 6 C) 8 D) 12
14. Someone who experiences numerous periods of hypomanic symptoms and mild depressive symptoms would MOST likely receive a DSM-5 diagnosis of: A) bipolar III disorder. B) cyclothymic disorder. C) unipolar II disorder. D) dysmanic disorder. 15. “I'm going to go out on the streets and help everyone who is homeless! Then I'll write a play about my work and put it on Broadway. But first, I need to go home and cook a gourmet meal.” The individual saying this is MOST likely experiencing: A) introjection. B) automatic thoughts. C) rapid cycling. D) a manic episode.
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16. Unlike unipolar depression, bipolar disorders appear to be best explained by focusing largely on: A) sociocultural factors. B) cognitive factors. C) biological factors. D) psychodynamic factors.
17. Some theorists believe that improper transport of _____ may cause neurons to fire too easily, resulting in mania. A) norepinephrine B) cortisol C) sodium ions D) calcium ions
18. Structural abnormalities noted in people with bipolar depression include: A) an enlarged basal ganglia. B) greater amounts of gray matter in the brain. C) a smaller-than-normal hippocampus. D) structural changes in the amygdala.
19. Compared with fraternal twins or other siblings, identical twins of persons with a bipolar disorder are _____ likely to develop bipolar disorder. A) significantly more B) somewhat more C) somewhat less D) significantly less
20. What does the most recent research tell us about genetic factors involved in the development of bipolar disorder? A) A number of genetic abnormalities probably combine to help bring about bipolar disorder. B) It is linked to the Y chromosome, which is why it is so much more prevalent in men. C) It is a sex-linked disorder that can be passed only from father to son or from mother to daughter. D) The genetic mutation is found exclusively on the X chromosome.
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Answer Key 1. D 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. C 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. D 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. B 15. D 16. C 17. C 18. C 19. A 20. A
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Chapter 8
1. How does the psychodynamic approach to treating unipolar depression differ from the cognitive-behavioral approach?
2. Pretend you are treating a client for moderate unipolar depression using behavioral activation. Describe the three components of this approach, and give examples of each.
3. Describe the approach you would take if treating a client for unipolar depression using the four-phase cognitive-behavioral treatment approach. Give examples of specific interventions you would employ at each phase.
4. What is the underlying premise of multicultural treatments for unipolar depression? When would you recommend using such an approach?
5. Interpersonal therapists believe that any of four interpersonal problem areas can lead to depression and must be addressed in therapy. Briefly describe each of these areas, and provide an example of each.
6. A client of yours is interested in electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) but is afraid of being hurt during the procedure. Which steps can be taken to reduce the client's fears and negative side effects?
7. Pretend you are a biological clinician treating a patient with newly diagnosed unipolar depression. Which general approach—drug therapy or brain stimulation—would you recommend first? Based on effectiveness studies, which specific drug or brain stimulation technique would you start with?
8. The physician of one of your friends has prescribed a tricyclic to treat her depression, but your friend is hesitating to take the medication. How would you help her make this decision? That is, what are the advantages and disadvantages of using tricyclics? When are they MOST effective?
9. One of the difficulties with the use of mood stabilizers to treat bipolar disorder is that patients often stop taking the medication. Discuss three reasons why a person who is experiencing bipolar disorder might stop taking this highly effective medication and what a therapist might do to improve treatment compliance.
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10. Describe adjunctive psychotherapy, why it is needed for those who have bipolar disorders, and its related effectiveness.
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Answer Key 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
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1. According to psychoanalytic theory, depression is in part caused by the patient's _____ on others.
2. Determining what a patient truly likes to do is part of a therapy for depression based on _____ principles.
3. The therapeutic practice of ignoring depressive behavior while reinforcing nondepressive behaviors is called _____.
4. The final phase of Beck's cognitive therapy approach involves changing _____.
5. Molly is not getting what she expected out of her new marriage. Her husband is demanding but often absent. This situation is leading to depression for her. This scenario describes what interpersonal psychotherapists call a(n) _____.
6. ECT causes a(n) _____ that activates many brain areas and releases neurotransmitters.
7. Another name for dietary supplements that are taken as drugs is _____.
8. The type of antidepressant drug that works by interfering with the enzyme that normally degrades serotonin and norepinephrine is a(n) _____.
9. People being treated for depression with MAO inhibitors should avoid foods containing _____.
10. Matthew is taking imipramine. He is MOST likely being treated for _____. 11. Antidepressant drugs that reduce depression by acting on neurotransmitter “reuptake” mechanisms are called _____.
12. The therapy in which a stimulating current is sent through a patient's prefrontal cortex, thereby substantially reducing the patient's symptoms of depression, is called _____.
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13. The first effective drug for the treatment of bipolar disorders was _____.
14. Whereas antidepressant drugs affect a neuron's initial reception of neurotransmitters, mood-stabilizing drugs appear to affect a neuron's _____.
15. Bipolar disorders respond better to a combination of lithium treatment and psychotherapy than to either therapy alone. The psychotherapy component of this combination is called _____.
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Answer Key 1. dependence 2. behavioral 3. contingency management 4. primary attitudes 5. interpersonal role transition 6. brain seizure 7. nutraceuticals 8. monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor 9. tyramine 10. depression 11. tricyclics 12. transcranial magnetic stimulation 13. lithium 14. second messengers 15. adjunctive psychotherapy
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1. About what percentage of clients with unipolar depression receive treatment from a mental health professional each year? A) 50 percent B) 33 percent C) 75 percent D) Almost all
2. If racial and ethnic disparities regarding access to treatment did not exist in the United States, then you would expect to observe which of the following? A) A decrease in the prevalence of depression across all racial and ethnic groups B) An equal prevalence of depression across all racial and ethnic groups C) An increase in the percentage of Hispanic Americans and African Americans who receive treatment for depression D) An increase in the percentage of all racial and ethnic groups who receive treatment for depression
3. Based on survey data, most Americans DISAGREE with which of the following statements? A) Untreated or under-treated depression can result in long-term disability. B) A combination of medications and psychotherapy is often the most effective treatment for depression. C) People diagnosed with depression would recover if they could just “snap out of it.” D) Depression is a serious medical condition that requires treatment.
4. Psychological approaches to treating depression share which assumption? A) Depression is a physical problem that should be treated with medication. B) Depression should be treated by changing how people interact with family members and loved ones. C) Depression stems from what one has learned in the past, so it should be treated by “unlearning” maladaptive behaviors. D) Depression should be treated by helping people recognize, interpret, evaluate, and change how they think about and respond to past losses.
5. A therapist using free association and dream interpretation discovers that as a small child her client had been left alone by her mother on several occasions. The therapist concludes that the patient is experiencing unipolar depression. The therapist is MOST likely from which orientation? A) Cognitive B) Psychodynamic C) Behavioral D) Humanistic
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6. Which is an example of an aspect of psychodynamic therapy for depression? A) A therapist questions a client about losses she may have suffered in her past. B) Every time the client says anything a little positive to his therapist, the therapist smiles. C) The therapist questions a client about the frequency and nature of her daily activities, including those that give her pleasure. D) The therapist attacks the irrationality of a client's beliefs about himself.
7. If a therapist asked you to say whatever came to mind, then suggested interpretations designed to help you work through grief over real or imagined losses, your therapist would be using: A) psychodynamic therapy. B) cognitive therapy. C) behavioral therapy. D) sociocultural therapy.
8. What do psychodynamic therapists believe is the cause of unipolar depression? A) Repression of feelings of inadequacy B) A biological imbalance in neurotransmitters C) Unconscious grieving over real or imagined loss D) Projection of internal anxiety onto a loved object
9. Which statement about psychodynamic therapy in treating unipolar depression is MOST accurate? A) Carefully controlled, multiple-participant studies validate the success of this therapy. B) Case studies have shown almost no support for the effectiveness of this therapy. C) Long-term therapy is occasionally helpful for those individuals with moderate symptoms. D) Short-term therapy is less effective than long-term therapy, especially in cases where past trauma cannot be established.
10. One problem with psychodynamic approaches to treating depression is: A) the research that supports this approach stems mostly from case studies. B) it is often too brief to show therapeutic efficacy. C) it cannot explain why some people improve even when they did not receive therapy. D) techniques such as free association and dream interpretation are frequently used.
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11. Psychodynamic approaches to the treatment of depression may be helpful for individuals who: A) experience symptoms that are severe and debilitating. B) expect therapy to produce a rapid decrease in the severity of their depressive symptoms. C) do not have a childhood history of loss or trauma. D) experience mild or modest symptoms of depression.
12. The BEST evidence for the effectiveness of the psychodynamic approach comes from: A) work with people who have severe depression. B) case study reports. C) large-scale research projects conducted by the APA. D) situations when the childhood loss is less obvious.
13. Free association, interpretation of associations, and dream interpretation are all techniques used primarily by: A) interpersonal therapists. B) cognitive therapists. C) family therapists. D) psychodynamic therapists.
14. Which explanation of depression has connected mood to the rewards in a person's life? A) Psychodynamic perspective B) Behaviorism C) Interpersonal psychotherapy D) Socioculturalism
15. _____ is a treatment approach in which a therapist reintroduces clients to pleasurable activities, consistently reinforces nondepressive actions, and helps clients improve their social skills. A) Psychodynamic therapy B) Behavioral therapy C) Cognitive therapy D) Sociocultural therapy
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16. Increasing pleasant activities is MOST likely to be a part of a(n) _____ therapy program. A) sociocultural B) cognitive-behavioral C) interpersonal D) psychoanalytic
17. Cognitive-behavioral therapy for the treatment of unipolar depression may include: A) changing irrational thoughts. B) altering interpersonal deficits. C) uncovering conflicts over loss. D) reinforcing nondepressed behavior.
18. Which finding would support behavioral activation as an effective treatment for depression? A) People feel less depressed after talking with a therapist about traumatic experiences from childhood. B) People display fewer symptoms of depression when depressive behaviors are no longer reinforced. C) People display fewer depressive symptoms after a therapist teaches clients to recognize the maladaptive attitudes they hold. D) People feel less depressed after they interact with people who are more depressed than they are.
19. Which treatment would a cognitive-behavioral therapist be MOST likely to use with a patient with unipolar depression? A) Electroconvulsive treatments B) Praise for engaging in positive activities C) Insight into the underlying problem D) Antidepressant medications
20. A cognitive-behavioral therapist treating a person with depression would be LEAST likely to: A) hold the person's hand and say, “I feel so sorry for you,” in response to a client who says, “I can't do anything right.” B) ask the client to record what happened immediately before and after each depressive episode. C) teach the client how to maintain eye contact and smile when interacting with a person he or she has never met before. D) praise the client by saying, “You are fun to talk to,” after the client smiles in response to receiving a compliment.
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21. Focusing on the addition of positive activities to the life of a patient with depression is a behavioral technique known as: A) behavioral contingency management. B) behavioral cognition. C) behavioral activation. D) behavioral confrontation.
22. Which is the BEST example of the therapy technique known as behavioral activation? A) Systematically ignoring the patient's depressive behavior B) Asking patients to say whatever comes into their minds C) Adding positive activities to the patient's life D) Asking family members to help reinforce the patient's positive behavior
23. A therapist treating a patient for depression first finds out which activities the client once found pleasurable. These activities are then reintroduced into the patient's daily schedule. Which type of therapy is this therapist using? A) Behavioral therapy B) Humanistic therapy C) Interpersonal therapy D) Psychodynamic therapy
24. Cognitive-behavioral therapists would be MOST likely to say that people with depression must improve their social skills because: A) the performance of socially unacceptable behavior is irrational. B) it is important to reinforce the client's depressive behavior. C) people with depression may be experiencing interpersonal role transition. D) positive reinforcement is given to people who exhibit positive social behavior.
25. A therapist turns on a buzzer when a client speaks slowly and laboriously. She turns it off when the client speaks more rapidly. In other cases the therapist instructs the client's spouse to ignore his mate when she complains or acts in a self-deprecating manner. This is an example of: A) existential therapy. B) cognitive-behavioral therapy. C) humanistic therapy. D) psychodynamic therapy.
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26. Aaron's persistent feelings of sadness and impending doom dominate his life. Every time he says anything even a little positive to his therapist, the therapist smiles. Otherwise, the therapist maintains a stone face. This therapist is probably using some variation of: A) existential therapy. B) behavioral activation therapy. C) psychoanalytic therapy. D) interpersonal psychotherapy.
27. Systematically ignoring a client's depressive behaviors while praising or rewarding instances of nondepressed behavior defines the _____ approach to treating depression. A) integrated therapeutic B) contingency management C) client-centered D) family-oriented
28. José is depressed. His therapist told him that reading a book each month would help. He should also visit friends, go bowling, do the laundry, mow the lawn, and eat meals with his partner. In short, José should increase his positive activity. His therapist has MOST likely adopted the _____ orientation. A) cognitive-behavioral B) psychodynamic C) humanistic D) interpersonal
29. Which is important in using contingency management effectively? A) Increase the total number of activities, both positive and negative, so the person can learn to tell the difference. B) Make sure that the person receives reinforcement for engaging in positive activities. C) Make sure the person receives feedback from a group regarding which activities are positive and which are negative. D) Develop ways for the person to express depressed feelings through journal writing.
30. The contingency management approach is an example of the application of _____ to the treatment of depression. A) business principles B) role playing C) reinforcement D) imitation (modeling)
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31. What is the “contingency” in the contingency management approach? A) How mood changes after people engage in various behaviors B) How one develops social skills by interacting with family members C) How reinforcers are delivered or withheld depending on the nature of the behavior one produces D) How activity levels increase after people take antidepressant medications according to the instructions that were given to them by their doctor
32. Which action is MOST consistent with a contingency management approach? A) Providing sympathy when the person talks about depressed feelings B) Praising the person for engaging in nondepressive activities C) Limiting the contact family members have with the person D) Analyzing the person's irrational thoughts
33. A therapist is treating a client with severe depression using only behavioral activation techniques. How beneficial do you expect this treatment to be? A) It will have limited effectiveness. B) It will be as effective as any other nondrug treatment. C) It will be as effective as all other treatments. D) It will be more effective than most other treatments.
34. Which is a correct match of person and approach? A) Lewinsohn and psychodynamic therapy B) Beck and cognitive therapy C) Seligman and behavioral activation therapy D) Weissman and learned helplessness
35. Which approach helps people with depression identify and change the maladaptive assumptions and negative thoughts that contribute to their psychological disorder? A) Psychodynamic therapy B) Existential therapy C) Cognitive-behavioral therapy D) Sociocultural therapy
36. _____ developed a therapeutic approach to treating depression that guides clients to identify and change maladaptive attitudes and negative thoughts. A) Beck B) Freud C) Rogers D) Seligman
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37. In which way is Beck's cognitive therapy similar to the behavioral activation techniques used to treat depression? A) It teaches clients to identify and change negative and biased ways of thinking. B) It attempts to uncover how negative past experiences can be brought safely into conscious awareness. C) It helps people understand how to socially interact in ways that will be reinforced. D) It initially encourages clients to increase the number of constructive activities they engage in.
38. The second phase of Beck's cognitive therapy is to get the client to: A) increase activity and elevate mood. B) identify negative thinking and biases. C) challenge automatic thoughts. D) change primary attitudes. 39. “I don't know why you think you are a terrible surgeon. You haven't lost a patient during an operation in two years. No one else in the city has that kind of record.” Which element of cognitive therapy is this therapist MOST likely using? A) Getting the client to challenge automatic thoughts and change biased ways of thinking B) Getting the client to uncover an unconscious belief that stemmed from a past traumatic experience C) Getting the client to feel good about herself so that she can reach her fullest potential D) Getting the client to change her behavior so that past surgical mistakes can be avoided in the future 40. A person experiencing unipolar depression writes in an activity schedule, “Go to store; doctor's appointment; visit museum; read novel; clean room.” Which type of treatment is this person MOST likely receiving? A) Psychodynamic therapy B) Cognitive therapy C) Interpersonal therapy D) Adjunctive therapy
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41. The “increasing activities and elevating mood” phase of Beck's treatment for depression: A) requires the use of antidepressant medication to be effective. B) is the phase most related to cognitions. C) makes the therapy cognitive-behavioral rather than purely cognitive. D) deals with the problem of dichotomous thinking.
42. Why would a cognitive therapist have clients keep records of instances when they tell themselves, “I can't do anything right” and “Nobody will ever love me again”? A) To teach clients how to avoid situations in which these thoughts occur B) To help clients understand that these thoughts are probably baseless C) To identify the early traumatic experiences that created these thoughts D) To motivate clients to persist in the face of adversity
43. Oliver is receiving therapy for unipolar depression. His therapist tells him that many—even most—of the negative thoughts that an individual experiences and records have no basis in fact. Which element of cognitive therapy does this represent? A) Changing primary attitudes B) Challenging automatic thoughts C) Training the individual in dichotomous thinking D) Negatively reinforcing verbal avoidance responses
44. Which is NOT a part of Beck's cognitive therapy for unipolar depression? A) Getting people to become more active and confident B) Recording and challenging maladaptive automatic thoughts C) Discussion with family members about their maladaptive thoughts D) Getting people to change their primary attitudes
45. Which would a cognitive-behavioral therapist be LEAST likely to say to a client? A) “Please prepare a detailed schedule of your activities for the week.” B) “Write down your automatic thoughts as they occur to you.” C) “Try to evaluate what happens to you in 'black-and-white' terms.” D) “Let's do a little experiment to test that attitude.”
46. Clients who tend to see everything that occurs as either all right or all wrong, with nothing in between, need to focus on which phase of Beck's treatment for depression? A) Increasing activities and elevating mood B) Challenging automatic thoughts C) Identifying negative thinking and biases D) Changing primary attitudes
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47. Clients who are encouraged to test their assumptions about what is causing their depression are working in which phase of Beck's treatment program? A) Changing primary attitudes B) Challenging automatic thoughts C) Identifying negative thinking and biases D) Increasing activities and elevating mood
48. Which statement is TRUE about the research on the effectiveness of cognitive-behavioral therapy in treating unipolar depression? A) Cognitive-behavioral therapy is less effective than placebo treatments. B) The research has not provided consistent results on this issue. C) Cognitive-behavioral therapy is more effective in group therapy sessions than in individual therapy sessions. D) Cognitive-behavioral therapy significantly improves depressive symptoms in 50 to 60 percent of clients.
49. If cognitive-behavioral therapy is an effective treatment for depression, then all of the following must be true EXCEPT: A) Depressive symptoms should diminish after a person's maladaptive attitudes, negative thoughts, and biased ways of thinking have been remedied. B) Most people who receive cognitive-behavioral therapy should show greater improvement than those who receive no treatment. C) Cognitive-behavioral therapy should produce a greater percentage of improvement than other therapeutic approaches. D) Cognitive-behavioral therapy should produce a decrease in depressive symptoms regardless of depression severity.
50. Many of today's cognitive-behavioral therapists would agree that: A) Beck's approach to therapy should continue to be followed without modification. B) negative cognitions should be accepted, not necessarily eliminated. C) acceptance and commitment therapy is outdated and no longer useful. D) therapy needs to be individualized, not delivered in a group setting.
51. The treatment approach that uses mindfulness training and other cognitive-behavioral techniques is called: A) behavior activation therapy. B) acceptance and commitment therapy. C) interpersonal therapy. D) Beck's cognitive therapy.
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52. Beck's cognitive therapy is to _____, as acceptance and commitment therapy is to _____. A) changing maladaptive attitudes; changing maladaptive behaviors B) changing negative cognitions; accepting negative cognitions C) four phases of treatment; three phases of treatment D) use of psychotherapy; use of antidepressants
53. Which is NOT a goal of the cultural-sensitive therapy movement? A) Therapy for minority clients delivered exclusively by minority therapists B) An awareness of the impact of the dominant culture on the self-views of the minority client C) Special cultural training for majority therapists D) Efforts to help minority clients establish a bicultural balance in their lives
54. If you are a member of a minority, you are: A) more likely to receive antidepressant medication. B) likely to receive therapy with a culturally sensitive focus. C) likely to benefit from culturally sensitive therapy. D) unlikely to be affected by economic pressures and a minority identity.
55. Which is the BEST example of interpersonal role transition? A) Taking an important exam B) Going away to college for the first time C) Exploring the spiritual dimensions of one's life D) Planting a garden
56. Why is interpersonal psychotherapy considered a sociocultural approach? A) Depression is thought to result from disrupted social interactions and role expectations. B) Depression is thought to result from individual pathology. C) Depression is thought to be best treated within the family and in the real world rather than in the clinic. D) Depression is thought to be best treated by use of a multidisciplinary treatment team.
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57. If your therapist encouraged you to explore your roles in life and how they might be changing or how your expectations might be different from someone else's, your therapist would be using: A) cognitive therapy. B) behavioral therapy. C) interpersonal therapy. D) psychodynamic therapy.
58. A woman who is in conflict with her partner over whether she should have a career or stay at home full-time to care for their children is experiencing: A) interpersonal loss. B) interpersonal role dispute. C) interpersonal role transition. D) interpersonal deficits.
59. A person who displays extreme shyness and insensitivity to others is showing signs of: A) interpersonal loss. B) interpersonal role dispute. C) interpersonal role transition. D) interpersonal deficits.
60. Which interpersonal problem area identified by interpersonal psychotherapists MOST closely resembles the cause of depression suggested by psychoanalysis? A) Interpersonal loss B) Interpersonal deficits C) Interpersonal role dispute D) Interpersonal role transition
61. Interpersonal psychotherapists believe that therapy must address: A) maladaptive attitudes. B) ego–superego conflicts. C) role transitions in relationships. D) developing social skills to elicit reinforcement from others.
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62. Violet has withdrawn from most social contacts because she never seems to be able to say the right thing. She just doesn't seem to fit in, and her comments are always misinterpreted. She feels alone and is depressed. This is an example of what interpersonal psychotherapists refer to as an: A) interpersonal loss. B) interpersonal role transition. C) interpersonal deficit. D) interpersonal role dispute.
63. Kyle does not feel close to anyone. He feels alone because although he can get to know someone (a woman) quite well on a friendship level, he doesn't know how to get beyond that to a more intimate level. This situation is depressing him. This is an example of what interpersonal psychotherapists refer to as an: A) interpersonal role transition. B) interpersonal loss. C) interpersonal deficit. D) interpersonal role dispute.
64. Which statement is TRUE about the research on the effectiveness of interpersonal psychotherapy in treating unipolar depression? A) Interpersonal psychotherapy is less effective than placebo treatments. B) The research has not provided consistent results on this issue. C) Interpersonal psychotherapy is more effective in group therapy sessions than in individual therapy sessions. D) Interpersonal psychotherapy nearly eliminates depressive symptoms in 50 to 60 percent of clients.
65. According to research studies, the success rate for interpersonal therapy is about the same as that for: A) cognitive-behavioral therapy. B) psychodynamic therapy. C) placebo therapy. D) no therapy.
66. Approximately what percentage of people receiving treatment for depression are in dysfunctional relationships? A) 25 percent B) 50 percent C) 75 percent D) 90 percent
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67. If the focus of your therapist is primarily on how communication and problem-solving difficulties with your partner are contributing to your depression, your therapist is using: A) psychodynamic therapy. B) cognitive-behavioral therapy. C) interpersonal therapy. D) couple therapy.
68. If you are receiving therapy designed to teach you and your spouse specific communication and problem-solving skills, your therapist is practicing: A) premarital instructional therapy. B) psychoeducational therapy. C) role transition therapy. D) integrative behavioral couples therapy.
69. Couple therapy is preferable to individual therapy when: A) relationship conflicts and role transitions are paramount concerns. B) one person has a serious mental illness. C) medication has not been successful. D) there is a serious lack of extended familial support.
70. Which is NOT an example of a biological treatment for depression? A) Electroconvulsive shock B) Antidepressant medication C) Contingency management D) Herbal remedies
71. What is the average length of time for the treatment of major depressive disorder using electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)? A) 2 to 4 weeks B) 15 weeks C) 3 to 5 months D) Indefinite
72. If you were treated with ECT, you would experience a(n): A) reuptake of serotonin. B) insulin-induced coma. C) increase in energy and creativity. D) brain seizure.
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73. In bilateral electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), the electrical current passes through: A) both sides of the brain. B) only the left side of the brain. C) only the right side of the brain. D) the brain and the spinal cord.
74. Which patient group was the first treated with electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)? A) Manic patients B) Phobic patients C) Psychotic patients D) Hysterical patients
75. One of the side effects of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is: A) mania. B) psychosis. C) memory loss. D) intensification of depression.
76. Typical consumers of nutraceuticals: A) understand the interaction between these products and prescribed medications. B) learn about these products from scientifically valid sources. C) discuss these products with their physician before taking them. D) are not helped by conventional treatments.
77. Which is NOT a reason why people with depression take nutraceuticals? A) They have developed intolerable side effects with conventional treatments. B) They cannot afford conventional treatments. C) They prefer modern medications. D) They prefer more natural treatments.
78. The use of the nutraceutical SAM-e to treat unipolar depression is: A) frequently helpful. B) sometimes helpful. C) rarely helpful. D) never helpful.
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79. One of the nutraceuticals shown to be frequently helpful in treating unipolar depression is: A) folate. B) vitamin E. C) melatonin. D) St. John's wort.
80. Ugo Cerletti, the first psychiatrist to use ECT effectively, later abandoned the procedure because of: A) the introduction of antipsychotic medications. B) the likelihood of causing broken bones and dislocated joints. C) the trend toward using bilateral shocks rather than unilateral shocks. D) better results from using insulin.
81. ECT has changed over the years. Patients given this treatment now may receive: A) higher levels of current. B) muscle relaxants. C) oxygen to prevent memory loss. D) insulin.
82. Some individuals are fearful of electroconvulsive therapy. Which steps would a clinician MOST likely take to alleviate that fear? A) Use classical conditioning techniques the week before the procedures B) Use anesthetics to put the person to sleep during the procedure C) Use hypnosis to put the person is a deep state of relaxation D) Use mindfulness training to teach the person how to remain calm under stress
83. Which statement is the MOST important reason for the decline in the use of electroconvulsive therapy since the 1950s? A) It was shown not to be effective in cases of severe depression with delusions. B) It is too expensive and not covered by medical insurance. C) Antidepressant drugs were developed. D) Most memory loss appeared to be permanent.
84. MAO inhibitors result in increases in the levels of: A) serotonin and norepinephrine. B) dopamine and serotonin. C) norepinephrine and GABA. D) GABA and dopamine.
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85. A person taking an MAO inhibitor should avoid foods containing: A) potassium. B) tryptophan. C) tyramine. D) gluten.
86. MAO inhibitors are biochemical agents that alleviate depressive symptoms in approximately half of the clinically depressed patients who take them. What is the mechanism of action of these drugs? A) They stimulate serotonin production. B) They block synapses that release norepinephrine. C) They interfere with the destruction of serotonin and norepinephrine. D) They raise the levels of monoamine oxidase in the brain.
87. What do ECT, vagus nerve stimulation, and transcranial magnetic stimulation have in common? A) They are used primarily to treat persons with mild forms of depression. B) Despite early promise, they have proved not to be effective treatments for depression. C) They are usually tried before medications to avoid medication-induced side effects. D) Research on their use suggests that brain stimulation is effective in treating severe forms of depression.
88. Which is MOST likely to elevate the mood in a person with depression? A) Inhibition of serotonin synthesis B) Decrease in the levels of serotonin C) Increase in the levels of norepinephrine D) Blocking synaptic transmission at norepinephrine synapses
89. People who take MAO inhibitors and want to decrease the risk of negative side effects would make the greatest changes in which aspect of life? A) Their diet B) The type and amount of exercise they get C) Their sex lives D) The amount of time they could spend in the sun
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90. Researchers were searching for drugs to treat schizophrenia when they came across imipramine, which alleviated the symptoms of depression, although it was not effective against schizophrenia. It became the first of a class of drugs, all sharing a similar molecular structure, called: A) tyramine. B) tricyclics. C) neuroleptics. D) MAO inhibitors.
91. The mechanism of action of imipramine is to: A) destroy monoamine oxidase. B) mimic the action of norepinephrine and serotonin. C) block the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin. D) block the receptor sites for norepinephrine and serotonin on postsynaptic neurons.
92. To effectively reduce the chances of relapse of depressive symptoms, patients should: A) take a larger dose of tricyclics than necessary for relief of symptoms. B) continue to take tricyclics for at least five months after they are symptom-free. C) gradually taper the dose of tricyclics once they are symptom-free. D) take MAO inhibitors along with tricyclics.
93. Destiny was taking a tricyclic to treat her unipolar depression. Upon resolution of her depressive symptoms, Destiny immediately stopped taking her tricyclic. How likely is it that she will experience a relapse? A) Very low; the relapse rate in this situation is less than 8 percent. B) Low; the relapse rate in this situation is approximately 15 percent. C) High; the relapse rate in this situation is approximately 50 percent. D) Very high; the relapse rate in this situation is almost 80 percent. 94. “Second-generation” antidepressant medications include: A) selegiline and Nardil. B) imipramine and Elavil. C) Anafranil and Eldepryl. D) Cymbalta and Prozac.
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95. A person who is recovering from unipolar depression continues to take a tricyclic for several months after most symptoms are gone. This is called: A) tertiary therapy. B) maintenance therapy. C) precautionary therapy. D) double therapy.
96. Which description BEST indicates how tricyclics work upon ingestion? A) Reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin blocked, larger amounts of norepinephrine and serotonin released, less neuronal firing B) Reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin blocked, norepinephrine or serotonin remains in the synapse longer, increased stimulation of receiving neurons C) Less neuronal firing, more norepinephrine and serotonin released, reuptake slows release of norepinephrine and serotonin D) Norepinephrine and serotonin blocked, neurons cease firing briefly, neurons begin firing without norepinephrine and serotonin
97. Second-generation antidepressants appear to act by: A) destroying MAO. B) facilitating the reuptake process. C) selectively blocking the reuptake of serotonin. D) blocking the reuptake processes of all neurotransmitters more completely.
98. Compared with earlier antidepressant drugs, second-generation antidepressant drugs: A) work faster and more effectively. B) work faster but are less effective. C) do not work faster but do work more effectively. D) do not work either faster or more effectively. 99. A clinician says at a workshop, “I prefer the most recently developed antidepressant medications, because they are just as effective as tricyclics and they don't require dietary restrictions.” This statement is: A) accurate. B) partially accurate; the newest medications are just as effective as tricyclics but they do require dietary restrictions. C) partially accurate; the newest medications are more effective than tricyclics and do not require dietary restrictions. D) inaccurate.
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100. A person taking antidepressant medication is starting to gain weight and reports decreasing interest in sexual activity. These changes are MOST common among people taking which kind of antidepressant medication? A) MAO inhibitors B) Tricyclics C) Second-generation antidepressants D) Vagus nerve stimulators
101. Most second-generation antidepressants are: A) serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs). B) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). C) tricyclic antidepressants. D) monoamine oxidase inhibitors.
102. How can publication bias affect people's perceptions about the effectiveness of antidepressant drug therapy for unipolar depression? A) Studies that have positive findings are more likely to be published, which could result in an overstated effectiveness. B) Studies conducted by men are more likely to be published, potentially creating a gender bias in the findings. C) Studies may not include representative samples from various races and ethnicities. D) Study findings that are repeated, and reported in multiple articles, are given greater weight than other studies.
103. When the teams of Turner and Kirch accounted for publication bias, they found that the actual effectiveness of antidepressants was: A) less than what was originally reported. B) about the same as originally reported. C) higher than reported for certain ethnic groups. D) higher than reported for all groups.
104. Among the biological treatments for depression, the one that uses an implanted pulse generator is: A) ECT. B) deep brain stimulation. C) vagus nerve stimulation. D) TMS.
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105. Vagus nerve stimulation is to _____ as SSRIs are to _____. A) brain stimulation; antidepressant drugs B) mechanical treatment; biological treatment C) newer treatment modalities; original treatment modalities D) depression; bipolar disorder
106. Vagus nerve stimulation was proposed as an alternative to: A) transcranial magnetic stimulation. B) frontal lobotomy. C) deep brain stimulation. D) electroconvulsive therapy.
107. In which of the treatments for depression is a stimulating current sent through a patient's prefrontal cortex? A) Transcranial magnetic stimulation B) Deep brain stimulation C) Electroconvulsive therapy D) Vagus nerve stimulation
108. _____ is a treatment in which tiny holes are drilled into the skull through which electrodes are implanted into the brain. A) Vagus nerve stimulation B) Transcranial magnetic stimulation C) Deep brain stimulation D) ECT
109. If a friend is considering nutraceuticals for the treatment of depression, your BEST advice would be: A) “Don't: Nutraceuticals don't work.” B) “Black cohosh should help with practically any kind of mood disorder.” C) “Melatonin is effective only with severe depression.” D) “St. John's wort can be very helpful for mild or moderate cases of depression.”
110. Exercise can help alleviate depression by: A) increasing muscle mass. B) producing social interactions. C) increasing a person's motivation to stay fit. D) decreasing the body's need for glucose.
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111. There has been a significant increase in the number of physicians prescribing antidepressants in the past few decades: A) because the results of drug therapy are vastly superior to those of cognitive therapy. B) despite the success of cognitive therapy. C) even though behavior therapy shows better results. D) because successful drug therapy is effective only in the short term.
112. Conclusions from extensive studies of the effectiveness of various forms of treatment for depression show that: A) no more than one or two treatments appear to be effective in the treatment of depression. B) no matter which other treatment is used, drug treatment is essential and should be tried first. C) all treatments are equally effective in treating depression. D) cognitive-behavioral, interpersonal, and biological treatments are all effective treatments.
113. Based on outcome studies on treatments for depression that compared drug treatments with cognitive-behavioral therapies, which person would you expect to show significant, continued improvement? A) Someone who receives cognitive-behavioral therapy until symptoms resolve B) Someone who receives drug therapy until symptoms resolve C) Someone who receives cognitive-behavioral therapy until symptoms resolve and then continuation drug therapy D) Someone who receives combined cognitive-behavioral and drug therapy until symptoms resolve
114. The key to long-term treatment of depression is: A) family support. B) some sort of brain stimulation. C) cognitive therapy. D) some sort of maintenance therapy.
115. Research now suggests that once someone has been successfully treated for depression, he or she: A) can safely stop treatment. B) needs to begin drug treatment if it has not already been tried. C) needs some type of continuation or maintenance therapy. D) needs to follow up with the same type of therapy.
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116. A friend tells you she has been diagnosed with depression and has started interpersonal therapy. However, she thinks cognitive-behavioral therapy or couple therapy may be more helpful. Based on research, which response is MOST accurate? A) “Since you are married, you would definitely benefit from couple therapy. It is most likely to be effective for you.” B) “Once you have started a treatment regimen, it is best to stick with it.” C) “No one treatment is better than the others; they are all equally effective and will work for you.” D) “All three treatments can be effective. If you have significant marital issues, then couple therapy might have added value.”
117. Which statement would a psychodynamic therapist be MOST likely to make about studies evaluating the effectiveness of psychodynamic therapy for unipolar depression? A) “The therapy does not lend itself to empirical research.” B) “Therapists' reports of individual recovery and progress should be disregarded.” C) “The therapy is less effective than other methods.” D) “More empirical studies need to be done before drawing conclusions.”
118. A friend is experiencing severe depression and asks you for advice about treatment options. The BEST response is: A) “Behavioral activation therapy is the best therapy for severe depression.” B) “Couple therapy works better than other therapies if you're experiencing marital problems.” C) “Psychodynamic therapy or cognitive-behavioral therapy should work better than anything else.” D) “Ask your therapist about combining cognitive-behavioral therapy with drug therapy.”
119. Based on current research, what is the BEST recommendation about therapy for an adolescent experiencing depression? A) There is really no difference in treatment effectiveness among adults and adolescents. B) Avoid drug therapy because of the side effects for adolescents. C) Use a combination of drug therapy and cognitive-behavioral therapy. D) Focus on the brain stimulation treatments—ECT, in particular.
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120. Which statement is FALSE regarding the use of ECT and drug therapies for treating depression? A) ECT works more quickly than drug therapy in reducing depression. B) ECT works somewhat more effectively than drug therapy in treating depression. C) ECT is likely to be prescribed first, and if it doesn't work, then drugs are prescribed. D) ECT appears to be somewhat more successful in reducing short-term suicide risk.
121. Among biological treatments for unipolar depression, which treatment produces the fastest results? A) MAO inhibitors B) Electroconvulsive therapy C) Tricyclic antidepressants D) Second-generation antidepressants
122. Electroconvulsive therapy is MOST commonly recommended when: A) depression is mild to moderate. B) the patient has not responded to antidepressant drugs. C) suicide is not judged to be a significant risk. D) the patient first comes to therapy.
123. The newest of the brain stimulation treatments for unipolar depression is: A) vagus nerve stimulation. B) transcranial magnetic stimulation. C) deep brain stimulation. D) electroconvulsive therapy.
124. Rosita swings between periods of bottomless depression and high-flying enthusiasm. She never hits the middle. Her physician is MOST likely to recommend treatment with: A) ECT. B) a mood-stabilizing drug. C) imipramine. D) tranquilizers.
125. The effects of lithium were discovered during the investigation of: A) a drug to treat tuberculosis. B) a drug to treat schizophrenia. C) the effects of camphor on psychosis. D) the effect of toxic levels of uric acid.
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126. If a person taking lithium began experiencing nausea, vomiting, sluggishness, tremors, and seizures, one would suspect: A) the person does not have bipolar disorder. B) the person is experiencing lithium intoxication. C) the dose is too low. D) the person needs adjunctive therapy.
127. Cora has just been prescribed lithium. In the initial period, Cora should expect: A) new dietary restrictions. B) concurrent brain stimulation sessions. C) regular blood and laboratory test monitoring. D) improvement in her depressive symptoms but not her mania.
128. More than _____ of manic patients treated with lithium improve. A) 25 percent B) 50 percent C) 60 percent D) 75 percent
129. Lithium has been found to: A) be useful in the treatment of posttraumatic stress disorder. B) reduce the number of manic episodes in those individuals with bipolar disorder. C) increase the effectiveness of drugs used to treat obsessive-compulsive disorder. D) be more effective in treating bipolar disorder when used in conjunction with ECT than when used alone.
130. A person with bipolar disorder is taking a commonly used drug to stabilize mood in the manic episodes. What else might also happen as a result of taking this drug? A) Nothing much—the drug works specifically on manic episodes. B) The person might experience at least partial relief from depressive episodes. C) The person might experience an initial intensification of depressive episodes, followed by a return to the usual intensity. D) The person probably would develop unipolar depression.
131. Which statement about lithium as a treatment for bipolar disorder is FALSE? A) It is highly effective at eliminating manic symptoms. B) It alleviates depressive symptoms, though to a lesser degree. C) It appears to help prevent the development of manic symptoms. D) It interferes with the effectiveness of antidepressant medications.
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132. Gabe is taking carbamazepine (mood stabilizer) and paroxetine (antidepressant) to treat his bipolar disorder. His therapist should be aware that, in his case, antidepressants can: A) cause hallucinations. B) trigger a manic episode. C) increase suicidal ideation. D) increase the risk for memory loss.
133. Lithium appears to affect: A) neurons' second messengers. B) absorption of salt. C) brain seizure activity. D) reuptake of serotonin.
134. Second messengers are: A) active inside the neuron. B) the same as neurotransmitters. C) important in increasing the effectiveness of tricyclics. D) used by therapists when treating couples.
135. The substances that relay the original message from the receptor site to the firing mechanism of the neuron are: A) brain-derived proteins. B) second messengers. C) ions. D) protein kinase C.
136. You would expect to see the biggest impact of lithium on which part of the neuron? A) The gap between neurons B) The firing of the sending neuron C) The firing of the receiving neuron D) The reception of the neurotransmitter by the receiving neuron
137. Mood-stabilizing drugs have been found to increase the production of: A) potassium ions. B) first messengers. C) serotonin and norepinephrine. D) brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF).
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138. Studies have shown that lithium use _____ the size of the hippocampus and _____ the amount of gray matter in patients with bipolar disorder. A) increases; increases B) increases; decreases C) decreases; decreases D) decreases; increases
139. The combination of lithium and psychotherapy is better than lithium treatment alone. This therapeutic addition is called: A) conjoint ego analysis. B) sociodynamic training. C) adjunctive psychotherapy. D) chemo-behavioral treatment.
140. Which is the BEST example of adjunctive therapy? A) A patient is taking a mood stabilizer along with an SSRI. B) The child of someone with unipolar depression is given a vaccine against depression (if such a vaccine existed). C) Both members of a couple are being treated for depression. D) A patient is both receiving drug therapy and undergoing interpersonal therapy with his or her family.
141. Based on current research, the treatment recommended for someone experiencing bipolar disorder is: A) drug therapy combined with brain stimulation. B) primarily cognitive-behavioral or psychodynamic. C) drug therapy, perhaps accompanied by psychotherapy. D) no therapy; no approach has been shown to be effective.
142. Adjunctive therapy to treat bipolar disorder commonly focuses on: A) convincing clients to keep taking lithium even though they dislike the euphoria it causes. B) helping clients see that the medication is helping with the depression, even though they may still feel “low” sometimes. C) emphasizing the importance of taking the medication, even though they miss the creative and productive bursts they used to have. D) preventing patients from abusing (overusing) the lithium to elevate their mood and increase energy.
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143. Which is NOT a common focus of psychotherapy, as part of adjunctive therapy, for bipolar disorder? A) Challenging clients' automatic thoughts B) Preventing clients from attempting suicide C) Educating clients and their families about bipolar disorders D) Helping clients solve the family, school, and occupational problems caused by their disorder
144. Which is an example of effective adjunctive therapy for bipolar disorder? A) Electroconvulsive therapy B) Individual or group therapy C) Hospitalization of the patient D) Prozac in combination with lithium
145. A benefit of adjunctive psychotherapy for bipolar disorder is that: A) therapy can be shortened. B) adverse effects from drug therapy are reduced. C) lithium dosages can be decreased. D) hospitalizations are reduced.
146. Which statement is TRUE regarding the presence of bipolar disorders in persons who are highly creative? A) Most “creative geniuses” have a form of bipolar disorder. B) Professions that require daily creativity predispose individuals to bipolar disorder. C) Creative individuals who receive treatment for bipolar disorder often “lose” their creativity. D) Bipolar disorders are somewhat more likely to occur in artists and writers.
147. Of the following disorders, psychotherapy plays a more central role in: A) bipolar I disorder. B) bipolar II disorder. C) rapid cycling bipolar disorder. D) cyclothymic disorder.
148. An author is praised for her unusual thinking and ability to express strong emotions. Statistically speaking, this individual MOST likely is: A) psychologically stable. B) experiencing a mild psychological disorder. C) suffering from a severe psychological disorder. D) suffering from multiple psychological disorders.
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149. In addition to lithium, mood-stabilizing drugs used to treat bipolar disorder may include: A) opioid narcotics. B) antianxiety drugs. C) antiseizure drugs. D) anticholinergic drugs.
150. According to the text, why are so many treatment approaches effective in the treatment of unipolar depression? A) Each of the treatments employs the same underlying principles. B) Multiple, interacting factors contribute to unipolar depression, and correcting dysfunction in one area helps improve functioning in other areas as well. C) Unipolar depression is, overall, one of the most straightforward and simplest psychological disorders to treat. D) Numerous highly accurate assessment tools available to identify the cause of unipolar depression and, in turn, customize treatment to the individual.
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Answer Key 1. A 2. C 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. A 7. A 8. C 9. C 10. A 11. D 12. B 13. D 14. B 15. B 16. B 17. D 18. B 19. B 20. A 21. C 22. C 23. A 24. D 25. B 26. B 27. B 28. A 29. B 30. C 31. C 32. B 33. A 34. B 35. C 36. A 37. D 38. C 39. A 40. B 41. C 42. B 43. B 44. C
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45. C 46. C 47. A 48. D 49. C 50. B 51. B 52. B 53. A 54. C 55. B 56. A 57. C 58. B 59. D 60. A 61. C 62. C 63. C 64. D 65. A 66. B 67. D 68. D 69. A 70. C 71. A 72. D 73. A 74. C 75. C 76. D 77. C 78. A 79. D 80. B 81. B 82. B 83. C 84. A 85. C 86. C 87. D 88. C 89. A 90. B
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91. C 92. B 93. C 94. D 95. B 96. B 97. C 98. D 99. A 100. C 101. B 102. A 103. A 104. C 105. A 106. D 107. A 108. C 109. D 110. B 111. B 112. D 113. C 114. D 115. C 116. D 117. A 118. D 119. C 120. C 121. B 122. B 123. C 124. B 125. D 126. B 127. C 128. C 129. B 130. B 131. D 132. B 133. A 134. A 135. B 136. C
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137. D 138. A 139. C 140. D 141. C 142. C 143. A 144. B 145. D 146. D 147. D 148. A 149. C 150. B
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1. Which statement BEST describes treatment of unipolar depression in the United States? A) Although most people agree that depression is a serious illness requiring treatment, only one-third of affected individuals seek treatment. B) Although most individuals with unipolar depression seek treatment, the most commonly used treatment approaches are less effective for minority groups. C) The majority of people still see depression as a condition that will resolve on its own; therefore, most individuals do not seek treatment. D) Approximately 50 percent of individuals with unipolar depression receive treatment each year, but certain ethnic and racial groups have less access to care.
2. Which form of treatment is widely used but lacks strong supportive evidence of its effectiveness in treating unipolar depression? A) Psychodynamic therapy B) Cognitive-behavioral therapy C) Self-help groups D) Biological therapy
3. The oldest of all psychotherapies used to treat unipolar depression is: A) biological therapy. B) cognitive-behavioral therapy. C) sociocultural therapy. D) psychodynamic therapy.
4. A psychodynamic therapist working with a client with depression would NOT expect the client to: A) learn to shed all of his or her unconscious defense mechanisms. B) gain awareness of loss in his or her life. C) become less dependent on others. D) learn to cope with loss more effectively.
5. A therapist encourages a client with unipolar depression to prepare a weekly activity schedule that is set up around pleasurable activities. The therapist is using a(n) _____ approach. A) cognitive-behavioral B) biological C) psychodynamic D) sociocultural
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6. Aaron Beck's approach to helping people identify and change the maladaptive assumptions and ways of thinking is referred to as: A) cognitive therapy. B) behavioral therapy. C) psychodynamic therapy. D) interpersonal psychotherapy.
7. A therapist is focused on teaching a client how to recognize automatic thoughts. This therapist is in which phase of Beck's approach to treating unipolar depression? A) Phase 1 B) Phase 2 C) Phase 3 D) Phase 4
8. Interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT) is a _____ approach to treating unipolar depression. A) cognitive-behavioral B) psychodynamic C) biological D) family-social
9. Natalia has very few friends and doesn't feel very close to the few friends she has. She spends all of her free time with her husband but even feels disconnected from him much of the time. This scenario BEST describes: A) interpersonal loss. B) interpersonal role dispute. C) interpersonal deficits. D) interpersonal role transition.
10. Most second-generation antidepressants are: A) tricyclics. B) monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors. C) benzodiazepines. D) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).
11. The antidepressant drugs that apparently work by stopping the breakdown of norepinephrine and serotonin are called: A) monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors. B) tricyclics. C) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). D) benzodiazepines.
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12. One concern about the use of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is that it: A) lacks standardization in application. B) is not effective in treating severe forms of depression. C) has a low success rate. D) may lead to memory loss and possible neurological damage.
13. The most commonly recommended types of exercises for depression are: A) strengthening. B) aerobic. C) flexibility or stretching. D) balance.
14. A person taking antidepressant medication reports a dramatic decrease in sex drive and is gaining weight. The person is MOST likely taking a: A) monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor. B) tricyclic. C) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). D) benzodiazepine.
15. Among biological treatments, _____ appears to be most effective for reducing depression. A) drug therapy B) transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) C) deep brain stimulation (DBS) D) electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
16. Which statement about treatment for bipolar disorder is TRUE? A) Psychotherapy alone is incredibly helpful. B) Lithium therapy is the gold standard of treatment. C) Psychotherapy and behavior modification are needed. D) Psychotherapy combined with mood stabilizers works best.
17. One explanation for mood stabilizers' effectiveness is that they act directly on the brain's: A) serotonin system. B) second messenger system. C) caudate nucleus. D) hippocampus.
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18. Which statement is TRUE regarding the use of mood-stabilizing drugs in individuals with bipolar disorder? A) These drugs help reduce the number of manic episodes but have no effect on depressive episodes. B) These drugs can help prevent the development of manic symptoms. C) Use of these drugs is limited due to concerns about possible memory loss. D) Resistance to these drugs can build up over time, so most clinicians prescribe their use during manic episodes only.
19. How effective is psychotherapy alone as a treatment for bipolar disorder? A) Mildly effective B) Not at all effective C) Rarely effective D) Almost always effective
20. Research shows that clients who receive adjunctive therapy for bipolar disorder are _____ to continue taking their medications. A) less likely B) twice as likely C) three times as likely D) almost five times as likely
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Answer Key 1. D 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. D 11. A 12. D 13. B 14. C 15. D 16. D 17. B 18. B 19. C 20. B
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1. Psychodynamic therapy for unipolar depression would be expected to be MOST helpful for a client who: A) is looking for quick relief from symptoms. B) has a long-standing sense of emptiness. C) has been diagnosed with severe depression. D) is very passive.
2. According to a survey by NAMI, more than _____ percent of Americans believe that depression is a serious condition that requires treatment. A) 30 B) 45 C) 65 D) 80
3. Which is NOT a goal of behavioral activation for depression? A) Help clients gain insight into the source of their depression B) Reintroduce clients to pleasurable events or activities C) Reinforce clients' nondepressive behaviors D) Help clients improve social skills
4. A therapist works with a client to improve eye contact and body language that signals the client is open to being approached. This is an example of: A) role transition. B) acceptance and commitment therapy. C) contingency management. D) social skills training.
5. Research suggests that behavioral activation techniques as the sole treatment approach are of limited help to people with _____ depression. A) mild B) moderate C) severe D) relapsing
6. There is evidence that _____ is especially helpful in depression brought on by social conflicts or changes in careers or social roles. A) drug therapy B) brain stimulation therapy C) interpersonal psychotherapy D) behavioral activation
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7. Which is NOT a problem that interpersonal psychotherapy attempts to address? A) Interpersonal role transition B) Interpersonal loss C) Interpersonal communication problems D) Interpersonal role dispute
8. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) was first used in the treatment of: A) agoraphobia. B) psychosis. C) paranoia. D) bipolar disorder.
9. Which statement is TRUE regarding patients with depression who receive couple therapy? A) They are more likely than those in individual therapy to be more satisfied with their marriage after treatment. B) Couple therapy is not effective for unipolar depression because the illness impacts only the patient. C) Couple therapy and individual therapy address the same issues, except that couple therapy has two people in the room instead of one. D) Couple therapy takes far longer than individual therapy, so most patients who receive it stay in therapy for many years.
10. Which is a well-known side effect of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)? A) Hair loss B) Paralysis of the legs for two to four weeks C) Memory loss D) Residual tremors and tics of facial muscles
11. Which is a therapy format in which the therapist works with two people who share a long-term relationship? A) Interpersonal psychotherapy B) Couple therapy C) Cognitive-behavioral therapy D) Behavioral activation therapy
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12. Individuals who take _____ must avoid foods containing tyramine. A) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors B) monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors C) tricyclics D) barbiturates
13. Which types of drugs are used to put clients to sleep and reduce their terror during electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)? A) Muscle relaxants B) MAO inhibitors C) Barbiturates D) Tricyclics
14. Imipramine was the first: A) MAO inhibitor. B) tricyclic. C) SSRI. D) neuroleptic.
15. A nutraceutical that is MOST likely to be helpful in cases of mild depression is: A) vitamin C. B) L-tryptophan. C) St. John's wort. D) melatonin.
16. Transcranial magnetic stimulation has been found to be most helpful in alleviating the symptoms of depression when administered: A) weekly for 4 to 6 weeks. B) daily for 4 to 6 weeks. C) once a month for 4 to 6 months. D) twice monthly for 4 to 6 months.
17. Antidepressant drugs that target only one neurotransmitter are called: A) MAO inhibitors. B) SSRIs. C) tricyclics. D) atypical agents.
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18. According to one study (Fleck et al., 2005), which client is MOST likely to stop taking mood stabilizers for fear of becoming addicted to the drugs? A) An African American B) A Hispanic American C) A non-Hispanic white American D) An Asian American
19. A clinician is treating a client with bipolar disorder. What should the clinician be aware of when considering use of mood stabilizers? A) Mood stabilizers have no effect on depressive episodes. B) Mood stabilizers are effective as the sole treatment for bipolar disorder, significantly reducing manic episodes and depressive episodes. C) Mood stabilizers frequently result in longer, but less intense depressive episodes. D) Mood stabilizers help people with bipolar depression overcome their depressive episodes, although to a lesser degree than they help with their manic episodes.
20. Which would NOT be considered a useful goal of adjunctive psychotherapy in the treatment of bipolar disorder? A) Emphasizing the importance of continuing to take medications B) Improving social skills and relationships that are affected by bipolar episodes C) Preventing patients from attempting suicide D) Reintroducing clients who have depression to pleasurable events and activities
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Answer Key 1. B 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. C 7. C 8. B 9. A 10. C 11. B 12. B 13. C 14. B 15. C 16. B 17. B 18. A 19. D 20. D
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Chapter 9
1. You are asked to discuss the risks of suicide with a group of resident assistants on a college campus. Discuss the five MOST important points about suicide risk that you would want to make with them.
2. Describe the four kinds of people who end their lives, according to Edwin Shneidman. Also, include an example of how a person in each category may carry out his or her suicide.
3. You are responsible for conducting a retrospective analysis of someone who has committed suicide. Describe the method you would use and the types of information you would try to gather. What are some limitations of this type of analysis?
4. Roberta comes to you, an expert on suicide, for help. She is worried about her teenage son's change in mood and fears that he may ultimately kill himself, although she has seen no specific warning signs. Explain to Roberta how changes in mood are related to suicide.
5. You are giving a presentation on suicide. An audience member asks why the suicide of a friend or family member increases the risk a person will attempt suicide. How should you respond?
6. Describe the characteristics of children who are at risk for suicide. Include the statistics related to children and suicide and gender differences.
7. Discuss adolescent suicide, and infer why adolescents are particularly at risk for suicide.
8. Many factors contribute to the high suicide rate among the elderly. Compare and contrast the factors that contribute to suicide among elderly American Indians, elderly non-Hispanic white Americans, and elderly African Americans.
9. You are training a new suicide hotline volunteer based on the work of the Los Angeles Suicide Prevention Center. List and explain to the volunteer the five goals for handling each call received.
10. Explain why the effectiveness of suicide prevention programs is difficult to measure.
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Answer Key 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
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1. According to Shneidman, people who have a clear intention of ending their lives at the time they attempt suicide and who are sufficiently clear-minded and committed to performing the act are called _____.
2. Shneidman's term for people who clearly intend to end their lives but act out of a conviction that the process is already under way and that they are simply hastening the process is _____.
3. According to Shneidman, people who believe that their self-inflicted deaths will not mean the end of their existence are called _____.
4. Shneidman classified a person who commits suicide but shows ambivalence in the act as a _____.
5. According to Shneidman, the death of an individual who play an indirect, covert, partial, or unconscious role in his or her own death may be classified as a(n) _____.
6. The piecing together of data from people's pasts to understand their suicides is termed _____.
7. When people feel that their present circumstances, problems, and negative moods will not change, and this pessimistic belief contributes to suicide, the belief is called a sense of ____.
8. When people develop a pattern of viewing their problems and solutions in either/or terms, this pattern is referred to as _____.
9. There is evidence that the likelihood of suicide goes up when a celebrity commits suicide, the media focus on a particular case of suicide, or a coworker, friend, or family member commits suicide. This form of suicide is often called _____.
10. Durkheim defined _____ suicides as those committed by people who are not concerned with the norms or rules of society and who are not integrated into the social fabric.
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11. Darlene starves to death because she gives her meager amount of food to her little sister. Durkheim would classify Darlene as a(n) _____ suicide.
12. According to Durkheim, a person who commits suicide because his or her social environment fails to provide stable structures to support and give meaning to life has committed _____ suicide.
13. Recent research on biological factors in suicide has linked it to low levels of the neurotransmitter _____ in the brain.
14. Suicidal actions become much more common after the age of _____ than at any earlier age.
15. A treatment approach that tries to help people in a psychological crisis to view their situation more accurately, make better decisions, act more constructively, and overcome the crisis is called _____.
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Answer Key 1. death seekers 2. death initiators 3. death ignorers 4. death darer 5. subintentional death 6. retrospective analysis 7. hopelessness 8. dichotomous thinking 9. social contagion effect 10. egoistic 11. altruistic 12. anomic 13. serotonin 14. 13 15. crisis intervention
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1. About how many suicides are committed annually in the United States? A) 15,000 B) 42,000 C) 120,000 D) 700,000
2. About how many deaths occur by suicide each year around the world? A) 100,000 B) 250,000 C) 500,000 D) 1,000,000
3. About how many unsuccessful suicide attempts occur annually in the United States? A) 80,000 B) 120,000 C) 650,000 D) 1 million
4. Suicide is the _____ most common cause of death in the United States. A) number one B) second C) fifth D) tenth
5. Why do many people think that estimates of the rates of suicide are inaccurate? A) Insurance companies pay extra life insurance in cases of suicide. B) Many reported suicides are probably really accidents. C) The stigma associated with suicide makes people hesitant to report it. D) Suicide is not a DSM-5 category.
6. An unsuccessful attempt at suicide is called a: A) parasuicide. B) pseudosuicide. C) subintentional suicide. D) sublethal suicide.
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7. Which statement is TRUE regarding suicide as a mental disorder? A) To be diagnosed with suicidal behavior disorder, a person must have attempted suicide. B) The category called suicidal behavior disorder was added to the DSM in the most recent edition. C) Suicidal ideation is classified as a mental disorder in DSM-5 but not the act of attempting suicide. D) Suicidal behavior is not classified as a mental disorder in DSM-5, but it represents psychological dysfunction.
8. Which is NOT a component of Edwin Shneidman's definition of suicide? A) Involves conscious effort B) Is self-inflicted C) Results from depression or emotional distress D) Involves indirect effort
9. Piper shot herself by placing the gun barrel in her mouth, in the middle of a dense wood, where she knew she wouldn't be heard or found. Piper is an example of what Edwin Shneidman refers to as a: A) death seeker. B) death initiator. C) death ignorer. D) death darer.
10. According to Shneidman, the critical way in which the death seeker differs from the death darer is that death seekers: A) speed along their death, which is already under way. B) are ambivalent about their death. C) intend to end their lives with their action. D) believe that death will not end their existence.
11. Ambivalent about dying, Brody repeatedly played a dangerous game involving gas and a cigarette lighter. Brody is an example of what Shneidman refers to as a: A) death seeker. B) death initiator. C) death ignorer. D) death darer.
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12. Cecil and Andrea are teenagers who made a love pact and jumped off a cliff to be with each other for eternity. Cecil and Andrea are examples of what Shneidman refers to as: A) death seekers. B) death initiators. C) death ignorers. D) death darers.
13. According to Shneidman, people who commit suicide with clarity and commitment, yet who believe that they are simply facilitating a process that is already under way, are called: A) death darers. B) death seekers. C) death ignorers. D) death initiators.
14. Ernest Hemingway was a physically strong, proud man who developed great concerns about his failing body. Depressed about his progressive illness, he intentionally ended his life. Shneidman would classify Hemingway as a: A) death darer. B) death seeker. C) death ignorer. D) death initiator.
15. What is the critical way in which death initiators differ from other categories of people who attempt suicide, according to Shneidman? A) They employ more lethal means. B) They do not intend to end their lives with their action. C) They believe that death will not end their existence. D) They believe they are merely speeding up an ongoing process.
16. According to Shneidman, how do death ignorers primarily differ from other categories of people who attempt suicide? A) They employ more lethal means. B) They intend to end their lives with their action. C) They believe death will not end their existence. D) They believe they are merely speeding up an ongoing process.
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17. Miguel lost all of his family when his village was bombed. He threw himself off a cliff to die so that he could be reunited with them. Shneidman would classify Miguel as a: A) death darer. B) death seeker. C) death ignorer. D) death initiator.
18. According to Shneidman, people who are ambivalent about their intent to die and whose actions leading to death do not guarantee death (e.g., swimming in shark-infested waters) are called: A) death darers. B) death seekers. C) death ignorers. D) death initiators.
19. How do death darers primarily differ from those in Shneidman's other categories of people who attempt suicide? A) They are ambivalent about their deaths. B) They intend to end their lives with their actions. C) They believe that death will not end their existence. D) They believe they are merely speeding up an ongoing process.
20. Knowing she was terminally ill, Brielle swallowed a handful of barbiturates. She wanted to save herself and her family from the final painful months of her life. Brielle is an example of what Shneidman refers to as a: A) death seeker. B) death initiator. C) death ignorer. D) death darer.
21. Lydia smokes two packs of cigarettes a day, drinks heavily, and eats poorly. Her lifestyle ultimately contributes to shortening her life. Shneidman would classify her death as a(n): A) parasuicide. B) subintentional death. C) initiated death. D) subconscious suicide.
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22. Which description BEST defines self-injury? A) A behavioral pattern of mutilating oneself or causing oneself pain B) The most common method of parasuicide C) A psychological disorder D) An accident that causes personal pain and distress
23. The behavior of those who engage in self-injurious behavior such as cutting: A) fits into the criteria for suicidal behavior disorder. B) represents a clear effort to end one's life. C) may represent an unconscious attempt at suicide. D) is relatively uncommon and declining in frequency.
24. Retrospective analysis of suicide typically would include: A) interviews with the person who attempted suicide. B) interviews with people who know the person who attempted suicide. C) interviews with people who knew the person who committed suicide. D) suicide interventions with people acquainted with the person who committed suicide.
25. Retrospective analysis involves: A) interviewing those thought to be at high risk for suicide. B) developing a suicide profile, especially for mental patients and prisoners. C) studying people who survive suicide attempts. D) gathering information about a suicide victim's past.
26. Which is the BEST example of retrospective analysis? A) Researchers ask college students to write suicide notes to study what they think is the motivation for suicide. B) Therapists who had patients who committed suicide are interviewed to gain information on suicide. C) Adolescents at high risk for suicide are treated through a suicide prevention center. D) Individuals who have made suicide attempts are part of a suicide education program.
27. Based on current data, how likely is it that a person who attempts suicide has left behind a suicide note? A) Extremely common; almost all suicide victims leave behind a note. B) Very common; a large majority of suicide victims leave behind a note. C) Somewhat common; some people leave behind a note, but many do not. D) Rare; almost no suicide victims leave behind a note.
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28. One of the factors that is believed to account for differences in the suicide rates of different countries is: A) climate. B) religious affiliation and beliefs. C) prevalence of mental disorders. D) governmental regulations regarding suicide.
29. Which aspect of religion is MOST closely linked to suicide? A) Doctrine B) Fellowship C) Devoutness D) Denomination
30. Which statement about the relationship between religion and suicide is MOST accurate? A) A country's economic status is a more important predictor of suicide rates than its major religion. B) The degree of a person's devoutness is a more important predictor of suicide than his or her specific religion. C) Countries that have high Jewish and Muslim populations also have high suicide rates. D) Religion is a more important predictor of suicide risk for women than it is for men, especially in Catholic countries.
31. Compared with women, men who attempt suicide tend to: A) be devout. B) be married. C) be younger. D) use more violent methods.
32. Which statement is NOT true regarding gender and suicide? A) Women attempt suicide more often than men do. B) Men use more lethal means to commit suicide than women do. C) Women succeed at committing suicide more often than men do. D) Men are more likely to commit suicide when they are elderly than when they are younger.
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33. The majority of males who attempt suicide in the United States: A) hang themselves. B) intentionally crash their cars. C) overdose on drugs. D) use guns.
34. Which would be the MOST surprising example of suicide because it does not fit into the pattern that current research results have identified? A) A woman who stabbed herself B) A woman who attempted suicide but did not succeed C) A man who shot himself D) A woman who killed herself with a drug overdose
35. Which statement regarding suicide is TRUE? A) American Indians have the highest suicide rate of any racial group in the United States. B) The suicide rate for non-Hispanic whites in the United States is the same as that for African Americans. C) Married people are more likely to commit suicide than adults who are single. D) Men are more likely to attempt suicide than women.
36. According to current estimates, the suicide rate is highest in the United States among: A) African Americans. B) Hispanic Americans. C) American Indians. D) Asian Americans.
37. What group is MOST at risk for suicide? A) African American females B) Non-Hispanic white American females C) American Indian males D) Hispanic American males
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38. Assume that a community is made up of almost exactly equal numbers of African Americans, Asian Americans, Hispanic Americans, and non-Hispanic white Americans, and that everyone is of the same socioeconomic status. Approximately what percentage of suicides would you expect to be committed by non-Hispanic white Americans? A) 5 percent, well below the rates for the other groups B) 25 percent, about the same as the rates for the other groups C) 40 percent, about double the rates for the other groups D) 60 percent, almost four times the rates for the other groups
39. You are analyzing the suicide rates of African Americans, Asian Americans, and Hispanic Americans. The MOST accurate conclusion is: A) African Americans have significantly higher suicide rates than the other two groups. B) Suicide rates in Asian Americans are significantly higher than those in African Americans and about the same as those in Hispanic Americans. C) Suicide rates in Hispanic Americans are about 1.5 times the rates in the other two groups. D) African Americans, Asian Americans, and Hispanic Americans have roughly equal suicide rates.
40. How likely are women to use a gun to commit suicide? A) Less than one-tenth of women who commit suicide use guns. B) Approximately one-fifth of women who commit suicide use guns. C) Approximately one-third of women who commit suicide use guns. D) More than two-thirds of women who commit suicide use guns.
41. Which individual is MOST at risk for suicide? A) Someone who decided to change career paths and started a new job B) Someone who was diagnosed with a terminal pancreatic cancer C) Someone who spends a lot of time with friends because his or her partner spends months at a time out of the country for work D) Someone who watched a documentary about celebrities who have committed suicide
42. Which statement is TRUE regarding war veterans' risk of suicide once they return home? A) War veterans are about twice as likely as nonveterans to commit suicide. B) War veterans are no more likely to commit suicide than are nonveterans. C) War veterans are a little less likely to commit suicide than are nonveterans. D) Family members of war veterans, not the veterans themselves, are at a higher suicide risk.
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43. Which is NOT an example of an immediate stressor? A) Loss of a loved one through death B) Natural disaster C) Loss of a job D) Serious illness
44. Commonly observed triggers for suicide include all of the following EXCEPT: A) being in therapy. B) being a heavy alcohol user. C) knowing someone who committed suicide. D) experiencing stressful life events.
45. Which is NOT an immediate stressor particularly common among those persons who attempt suicide? A) Occupational stress B) Divorce C) Death of a loved one D) Stress from a flood
46. Which is NOT a long-term stressor particularly common among those who attempt suicide? A) Serious illness B) Occupational stress C) Divorce D) An abusive environment
47. The individual MOST at risk of suicide is someone who: A) has become increasingly introverted and adopted an overall more pessimistic outlook. B) recently escaped from an abusive environment and is now living with family. C) felt trapped in his or her marriage and just recently divorced. D) is a devout Muslim.
48. Which occupation has a particularly high rate of suicide? A) Used-car salespeople B) Psychologists C) Priests D) Gourmet chefs
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49. Which description BEST represents the concept of psychache? A) Uncertainty about what one should do for a career B) An unusual combination of depression and anxiety C) Cognitive impairment similar to what is found in dementia D) Intolerable emotional pain
50. The mood and thoughts of suicidal people are MOST often characterized as: A) anxious and irrational. B) angry and aggressive. C) sad and hopeless. D) tense and manic.
51. If you were assessing a person for suicide potential, which would be the MOST critical to notice because it is likely related to suicide risk? A) Cognitive dissonance B) Religious devoutness C) Change in occupation D) Feelings of hopelessness
52. An increase in _____ is MOST often linked to suicide. A) guilt B) anger C) anxiety D) sadness
53. A pessimistic belief that one's present circumstances, problems, or mood will not change is called: A) suicidal ideation. B) a mood disorder. C) depression. D) hopelessness.
54. Viewing problems and solutions in rigid either/or terms is called: A) didactic perspectives. B) irrational thinking. C) hopelessness. D) dichotomous thinking.
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55. Which is the BEST example of dichotomous thinking? A) One person is stressed by an event that does not bother another person. B) You have your opinion about suicide, and I have mine. C) There are lots of factors that put someone at risk for suicide, not just one. D) There's only one thing to do, and nothing else matters. 56. Carla sees life in “right or wrong,” “all or none” terms. She is engaging in: A) hopelessness. B) dichotomous thinking. C) psychache. D) blaming.
57. The LEAST common predictor of suicide is: A) physical illness. B) hopelessness or cognitive rigidity. C) depression. D) alcoholism.
58. About what percentage of people who commit suicide use alcohol just before the act? A) 10 percent B) 20 percent C) 35 percent D) 70 percent
59. Of people who use alcohol just before committing suicide, what percentage are legally intoxicated? A) 10 percent B) 15 percent C) 25 percent D) 35 percent
60. Which statement is NOT true about alcohol use and suicide? A) Most people who attempt suicide drink alcohol just before the act. B) Approximately one-fourth of people who drink before committing suicide are legally drunk. C) Alcohol impairs judgment and lowers inhibitions. D) Drinking alcohol increases suicidal thoughts in nondepressed individuals.
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61. Which is the MOST likely reason for the relationship between alcohol use and suicide? A) There is a chemical in alcohol that triggers a suicide response in the brain. B) Alcohol is less well metabolized by those individuals who are depressed. C) Alcohol lowers inhibitions and impairs judgment. D) Pound for pound, women get drunk on less alcohol than do men. 62. A friend asks, “Why is there such a strong connection between alcohol abuse and suicide risk?” Based on the best available research, you reply: A) “Being trapped in substance abuse leads to suicidal ideation.” B) “No one knows for sure.” C) “Actually, being suicidal most often leads to alcohol abuse, and not the other way around.” D) “The connection is weak at best.”
63. The individual MOST at risk for suicide is the person who: A) has a panic or other anxiety disorder. B) is depressed and dependent on alcohol. C) has schizophrenia and is developmentally disabled. D) does not have a diagnosable mental disorder.
64. Although all of the following mental disorders are of concern for increased suicide risk, the LEAST likely to be linked to suicide is: A) depression. B) posttraumatic stress disorder. C) alcoholism. D) schizophrenia.
65. The MOST common psychological disorder associated with suicide attempts is a(n): A) eating disorder. B) dissociative disorder. C) mood disorder. D) attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder.
66. The mental disorders found to contribute to the greatest number of suicides are: A) mood disorders. B) sexual disorders. C) personality disorders. D) psychophysiological disorders.
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67. A clinically depressed individual who has been threatening suicide finally shows diminishing of depressive symptoms. This person's risk of committing suicide: A) has increased dramatically; almost no one who is depressed commits suicide until she or he is recovering. B) may have increased, because the person may have the energy to act on the suicidal impulse. C) probably has decreased, although a slight risk remains. D) has decreased substantially; almost no one who is depressed commits suicide once recovery from depression is under way.
68. Research indicates that suicides by people with schizophrenia occur in response to: A) voices commanding them to kill themselves. B) feelings of demoralization. C) overdoses of antipsychotic drugs. D) a feeling of invincibility.
69. It is not unusual for people to attempt suicide after observing or reading about someone else who has done so. This is referred to as: A) modeling. B) parasuicide. C) the bystander effect. D) social learning.
70. Based on the fact that one suicidal act can serve as a model for another, which would NOT be a common trigger for a suicide attempt? A) Suicides by family members and friends B) Suicide by someone with a terminal illness C) Suicides by celebrities D) Suicides by coworkers or colleagues
71. When a rash of suicides occurs in the aftermath of a celebrity's suicide or a case that has been highly publicized by the media, behavioral theorists believe it is attributable to: A) modeling. B) helplessness. C) fear. D) hopelessness.
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72. Assume that a recent local suicide attempt was clearly a case of modeling. The person who would MOST likely model another's suicide would be a(n): A) preteen. B) teenager. C) middle-age adult. D) older adult. 73. A friend of yours says, “We should ban certain heavy metal songs because listening to them will encourage suicidal tendencies.” Based on research, the BEST reply would be: A) “You're right; experts and the courts agree about the potential danger.” B) “It depends; experts agree with you, although the courts have not found musicians liable.” C) “It depends; experts don't agree with you, although the courts have found musicians liable.” D) “It probably won't work; experts don't agree with you, and the courts have not found musicians liable.”
74. The suicide of a _____ would NOT be expected to contribute to the social contagion effect. A) celebrity years ago B) family member C) friend D) spouse
75. Which statement is TRUE regarding the social contagion effect? A) The suicide of a close relative or friend increases your risk of committing suicide. B) The suicide of a family member increases the risk of others in the family developing a stress disorder. C) The suicide of a close relative or friend increases your risk of developing a physical illness. D) The suicide of a family member in your age group increases your risk of developing a mood disorder.
76. What is the BEST strategy to prevent further student suicides the day after one of a school's star athletes commits suicide? A) Provide postvention. B) Simply watch the students carefully; nothing specific can be done. C) Close the school for a week, and let the students' parents help them deal with the loss. D) Engage in reverse modeling.
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77. As a political protest, two activists leap from a bridge in a highly publicized double suicide. Those MOST at risk for modeling these suicides are people who: A) have similar political points of view. B) have the opposite political point of view. C) are in an unstable relationship with a significant other. D) have a history of emotional problems.
78. Suicide rates in the weeks after Kurt Cobain's suicide held steady, contrary to the modeling effect seen with other celebrity suicides. The text notes that a possible reason for this was: A) his age at the time of death. B) the manner in which he killed himself, a gunshot to the head. C) the area where he lived, which had a suicide rate that was lower than the national average. D) the media coverage, which included a “Don't do it!” message.
79. Suicides that are carried out in bizarre ways for political reasons are MOST likely to trigger suicide thoughts in those with: A) emotional problems. B) similar political views. C) a desire to move on to the afterlife. D) a strong desire to be on television.
80. After a student suicide, the school staff receive education about suicide and increased student counseling sessions are made available. This is an example of: A) postvention. B) destigmatization. C) substance abuse prevention. D) psychodynamic therapy.
81. Which statement is TRUE regarding the leading theories designed to explain suicide? A) They are supported by a significant body of research. B) They address the full range of suicide acts. C) They satisfactorily explain suicidal behavior in the elderly but not in the young. D) They are not supported by a significant body of research.
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82. The ____ theoretical perspective suggests that suicide is caused by the loss of loved ones and self-directed aggression. A) cognitive-behavioral B) humanist C) biological D) psychodynamic
83. Research supporting a Freudian view of suicide has shown that later suicidal behavior is related to: A) real, but not symbolic, losses in childhood. B) symbolic, but not real, losses in childhood. C) both real and symbolic losses in childhood. D) neither real nor symbolic losses in childhood. 84. “You must redirect your Thanatos” is a remark MOST likely to be made by a therapist with which theoretical point of view? A) Sociocultural B) Biological C) Psychodynamic D) Cognitive-behavioral
85. If the psychodynamic explanation for suicide is correct, then suicide rates should: A) increase in a nation that is at war. B) be higher in nations with low murder rates. C) be lower among those persons who experienced symbolic loss as children. D) be lower among those persons who experienced actual (real) loss as children.
86. The fact that very angry people are not significantly more suicidal than other people argues MOST strongly against which explanation for suicide? A) Sociocultural B) Modeling C) Psychodynamic D) Biological
87. Emile Durkheim's theory of suicide fits into the: A) cognitive-behavioral model. B) biological model. C) sociocultural model. D) psychodynamic model.
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88. According to Emile Durkheim, suicides by people over whom society has little or no control and who are not concerned with the norms and rules of society are called: A) anomic suicides. B) egoistic suicides. C) imitative suicides. D) altruistic suicides.
89. Juan is an atheist, does what he wants, and is alienated from others. He feels life isn't worth living and kills himself. According to Emile Durkheim, Juan would be classified as an: A) anomic suicide. B) egoistic suicide. C) imitative suicide. D) altruistic suicide.
90. A person commits suicide in response to the social environment failing to provide stable structures to support and give meaning to life. According to Durkheim, this represents an: A) egoistic suicide. B) altruistic suicide. C) anomic suicide. D) intragroup suicide.
91. An _____ suicide is when a person commits suicide to defend his or her family or country. A) egoistic B) altruistic C) anomic D) intragroup
92. According to Durkheim, suicides by people who give up their lives so another person they love may live would be classified as: A) anomic suicides. B) egoistic suicides. C) imitative suicides. D) altruistic suicides.
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93. In combat, Carlos died by intentionally stepping in front of a bullet that was intended for one of the soldiers for whom he was responsible. Durkheim would call this an example of: A) anomic suicide. B) egoistic suicide. C) imitative suicide. D) altruistic suicide.
94. Tomas killed himself in a way that is being described as an altruistic suicide. He is MOST likely to have lived in a country that: A) is experiencing great upheaval, disruption of values, and immigration. B) honors those who kill themselves for a higher good. C) has a number of ethnic minorities who are very religious. D) has a high level of substance abuse.
95. The main difference between the sociocultural view and the interpersonal theory of suicide is that: A) only the sociocultural view focuses on a sense of belonging. B) the interpersonal theory describes perceived burdensomeness as a factor in suicide. C) the interpersonal theory states that serotonin deficits contribute to suicide. D) the sociocultural view explains why some people who face particular societal pressures attempt suicide while the majority do not.
96. A young man commits suicide. His father and uncle committed suicide at about his age as well. Which explanation of suicide MOST easily explains the young man's suicide? A) Psychodynamic B) Sociocultural C) Biological D) Immediate trigger
97. Biological researchers have found a link between suicide and: A) low activity levels of serotonin. B) high activity levels of dopamine. C) high levels of 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid. D) an elevated number of serotonin receptor sites.
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98. The STRONGEST direct support for a biological explanation for suicide comes from: A) studies linking specific genetic mutations to suicidal tendencies. B) studies of neurotransmitter levels. C) family pedigree studies. D) a Danish study of identical twins.
99. If a biological explanation for suicide is valid, then which activity ought to lower the possibility of a person attempting suicide? A) Removing the person from contact with a suicidal biological parent B) Removing the person from contact with a suicidal adoptive parent C) Gene-splicing to remove the “suicide” gene D) Raising the person's serotonin level
100. In research on suicide, abnormal serotonin levels and a dysfunctional depression-related brain circuit seem MOST related to: A) aggression. B) introversion. C) selfishness. D) shame.
101. Which individual is the one MOST likely to commit suicide? A) A 10-year-old with high serotonin activity B) A 10-year-old with low serotonin activity C) A 40-year-old with high serotonin activity D) A 40-year-old with low serotonin activity
102. Which statement BEST reflects the relationship between serotonin and the depression-related brain circuit and suicide? A) Low levels of serotonin and poorer functioning of the depression-related brain circuit are related to high levels of aggression and impulsivity. B) High levels of serotonin and overactivity of the depression-related brain circuit are related to high levels of aggression and impulsivity. C) Serotonin makes people more likely to abuse substances and disrupts the depression-related brain circuit, increasing the likelihood of their committing suicide. D) Suicide attempts increase the level of serotonin in the brain, disrupting the depression-related brain circuit and making suicide more likely.
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103. Based on the evidence about suicide rates, to be most effective, intervention strategies should focus on: A) middle-aged adults, as they have a fairly high suicide rate, and it is rising relatively rapidly. B) children, as they have a relatively low suicide rate, but it is rising extremely rapidly. C) those older than age 75, as they make far more suicide attempts than other age groups, although they have a low suicide rate. D) teenagers, as they have the highest suicide attempt and suicide completion rates of any age group.
104. The age group LEAST likely to commit suicide in the United States is: A) children. B) adolescents. C) young adults. D) older adults.
105. You are asked to speak before a local elementary school's Parent–Teacher Association (PTA) about suicide attempts by the very young. You should mention that suicide attempts by the very young often occur when they have: A) shown a sudden drop in interest in death in general. B) run away from home. C) experienced the birth of a sibling. D) begun to ignore criticism from others.
106. Which statement is TRUE regarding children who attempt suicide? A) Many have a clear understanding of what death is. B) Most can be classified as death ignorers. C) Many are pressured into attempting suicide. D) Most attempt suicide impulsively, without prior thought.
107. The child at GREATEST risk for suicide is one who: A) is not allowed to get a pet but keeps asking for one. B) has experienced family stress such as parental unemployment or abuse. C) does not fully understand death. D) engages with friends but also likes to spend time playing alone.
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108. A common trigger seen in both adolescent suicides and suicides at other age levels is: A) lack of self-control. B) significant loss. C) school stress. D) modeling.
109. The top two leading causes of death among teenagers are: A) drug overdoses and cancer. B) accidents and suicide. C) suicide and drug overdoses. D) homicide and cancer.
110. A developing body of research shows that antidepressant use in children and adolescents: A) substantially increases overall suicide risk. B) increases suicide risk for some individuals but decreases the overall suicide risk. C) decreases suicide risk for some individuals but increases the overall suicide risk. D) does not lower suicide risk, as it does for adults.
111. Studies have reported that second-generation antidepressant drugs can increase the risk of suicidal behavior in some children and adolescents who are depressed. The highest risk appears to be: A) during the first two weeks of treatment. B) during the first few months of treatment. C) after one year of continual treatment. D) after treatment is stopped.
112. Over the past couple of decades, the correlation between the number of antidepressant prescriptions and suicide rates in younger patients has been: A) nonexistent. B) positive; as the number of antidepressant prescriptions increases, so does the younger patient suicide rate. C) negative; as the number of antidepressant prescriptions increases, the younger patient suicide rate decreases. D) first negative (in the 1990s), then positive (in the twenty-first century).
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113. Compared with adults who commit suicide, teenagers who commit suicide are: A) more likely to be depressed. B) more impulsive and have poorer problem-solving skills. C) more likely to have feelings of hopelessness. D) more prone to homicide than suicide.
114. The finding that many adolescents who attempt suicide know someone who has attempted suicide provides a case for which process in suicidal actions? A) Modeling B) Reinforcement C) Unconscious conflicts D) Maladaptive thinking
115. Among teenagers who attempt suicide, _____ succeed the first time, and _____ will try again. A) approximately 3 percent; half B) approximately 3 percent; approximately 10 percent C) less than 1 percent; approximately half D) less than 1 percent; approximately 10 percent
116. A U.S. teenager has just attempted suicide. MOST likely, the teenager has: A) not succeeded and almost certainly will never attempt suicide again. B) not succeeded but may try again. C) not succeeded and almost certainly will attempt suicide again. D) succeeded.
117. Which statement BEST supports the idea that teenagers who attempt suicide are more uncertain about killing themselves than elderly people are? A) Teenagers have the opportunity for many more attempts than elderly people do. B) Less than 1 percent of teenagers succeed at suicide. C) Teenagers have far greater access to pro-suicide websites. D) The media are much more likely to cover teen suicides than those of elderly people.
118. Which has NOT been linked to increased suicide risk among teenagers? A) Intense competition for jobs and positions in college B) Weakening family ties, and resulting alienation C) Access to pro-suicide sites on the Internet D) Easy access to drugs and alcohol, and pressure to use those substances
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119. Which statement is TRUE regarding teenagers and suicide? A) The majority of people who commit suicide are teenagers. B) Suicide is the leading cause of death among teenagers. C) African American teenage boys commit suicide at a higher rate than do European American boys. D) More teenagers attempt suicide than actually kill themselves.
120. Cluster suicides may involve high suicide rates among teenagers who: A) visit pro-suicide sites on the Internet. B) have a particular recessive gene combination. C) gather on high-stress occasions, such as funerals or court trials. D) live on certain American Indian reservations.
121. For teenagers, the highest suicide rates are found among: A) non-Hispanic white Americans and American Indians. B) American Indians and African Americans. C) African Americans and Hispanic Americans. D) non-Hispanic white Americans and Hispanic Americans.
122. Which group is MOST likely to experience cluster suicides? A) American Indians B) Non-Hispanic white Americans C) African Americans D) Asian Americans
123. The age group MOST likely to commit suicide in the United States is: A) children. B) adolescents. C) young adults. D) the elderly.
124. The elderly are _____ as likely as adolescents to complete suicide. A) equally B) twice C) 10 times D) 50 times
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125. In the United States, the elderly account for approximately ____ of all suicides. A) 5 percent B) 13 percent C) 18 percent D) 26 percent
126. A couple has been married for almost 50 years, and then one of them dies. The probability that the surviving spouse will commit suicide: A) is much higher than normal. B) is a little higher than normal, but drops to normal levels within about six months. C) does not change much at all. D) drops substantially, especially if the couple had been having marital difficulties.
127. The spouse of an elderly individual in the United States has recently died; the individual was experiencing clinical depression before the spouse's death. The suicide risk for this individual is: A) moderately high; death of a spouse, but not depression, is related to an elevated suicide risk. B) very high; both death of a spouse and depression are related to an elevated suicide risk. C) moderately high; depression, but not death of a spouse, is related to an elevated suicide risk. D) normal; suicide risk among the elderly is largely independent of these factors.
128. Which factor does NOT contribute to the high suicide rate among the elderly? A) Loss of close friends and relatives B) Geographical location C) Loss of status D) Feelings that they are burdensome to others
129. Despite American Indians having the overall highest suicide rate, why might the suicide rate among elderly American Indians be low? A) Religious fervor B) Overcoming the rage of youth C) The value the culture places on the elderly D) Genetic factors
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130. In 1997, Oregon passed the first U.S. law that allows doctor-assisted suicide for persons with terminal illnesses. Since 1997, on average, how many Oregonians with terminal illness have ended their lives each year? A) A few dozen B) A little more than 100 C) Approximately 500 D) More than 1,000 131. A friend of yours says, “Yes, I support the right of people to commit suicide, especially if they are in a lot of pain or don't have long to live.” In the United States, your friend's opinion is: A) very uncommon; more than 75 percent of all Americans oppose the right to commit suicide under any circumstances. B) somewhat uncommon; slightly less than half of all Americans oppose the right to commit suicide under any circumstances. C) common; more than two-thirds of all Americans support the right to commit suicide under those circumstances. D) almost universal; virtually all Americans support the right to commit suicide under those circumstances.
132. Treatment for suicide attempters: A) appears not to be effective. B) typically involves medical and psychological care. C) is provided in approximately 90 percent of all cases. D) shows that the group counseling is most successful. 133. A friends asks, “What works best to keep suicidal people from following through?” The BEST answer to this question is: A) “There are very good drugs one could use.” B) “All therapies are about equally effective.” C) “Try cognitive-behavioral therapy.” D) “Actually, no therapy works very well.”
134. Suicide prevention programs: A) involve the use of paraprofessionals. B) offer crisis interventions. C) are often found in emergency rooms as well as clinics. D) include paraprofessionals and crisis interventions and are found in emergency rooms and clinics.
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135. Suicide prevention centers: A) are run on the AA model, using suicide survivors. B) are hospitals for those persons who have attempted suicide. C) may deliver services over the phone using paraprofessionals. D) are declining in number in the United States.
136. When answering the telephone of a suicide hotline, the first step for the counselor is to: A) formulate a plan. B) establish a positive relationship. C) understand and clarify the problem. D) assess the caller's suicide potential. 137. At a suicide prevention center, you hear a counselor say, “Hello. I am interested in you as a person, and I'm going to stay on the phone with you as long as you want.” Which goals and techniques of suicide prevention does this statement represent? A) Formulating a plan B) Assessing suicide potential C) Understanding and clarifying the problem D) Establishing a positive relationship 138. At a suicide prevention center, you hear a counselor say, “Can you tell me what you think are the most important factors that are making you feel hopeless right now? If you could change three things about your life, what would they be?” Which of the goals and techniques of suicide prevention do these questions BEST represent? A) Formulating a plan B) Assessing suicide potential C) Understanding and clarifying the problem D) Assessing and mobilizing the caller's resources 139. At a suicide prevention center, you hear a counselor say, “Do you have a gun? Is it loaded, and do you know how to use it?” Which one of the goals and techniques of suicide prevention do these questions BEST represent? A) Assessing suicide potential B) Understanding and clarifying the problem C) Establishing a positive relationship D) Assessing and mobilizing the caller's resources
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140. At a suicide prevention center, you hear a counselor say, “When you tried to commit suicide in the past, how did you try to do it?” Which one of the goals and techniques of suicide prevention do these questions BEST represent? A) Formulating a plan B) Assessing suicide potential C) Establishing a positive relationship D) Assessing and mobilizing the caller's resources 141. At a suicide prevention center, you hear a counselor say, “Who can you think of who might be able to come over and stay with you for a few hours?” Which of the goals and techniques of suicide prevention does the quote BEST represent? A) Assessing suicide potential B) Understanding and clarifying the problem C) Establishing a positive relationship D) Assessing and mobilizing the caller's resources 142. At a suicide prevention center, you hear a counselor say, “Will you promise me that you will call again if you ever feel like killing yourself?” Which one of the goals and techniques of suicide prevention does this question BEST represent? A) Formulating a plan B) Assessing suicide potential C) Understanding and clarifying the problem D) Assessing and mobilizing the caller's resources
143. When talking with a potentially suicidal individual on a suicide hotline, the final step for the counselor is to: A) formulate a plan. B) establish a positive relationship. C) understand and clarify the problem. D) assess the caller's suicide potential.
144. John was feeling suicidal and received crisis intervention from a counselor. The center provided only short-term crisis intervention services, so to best help John, the counselor referred him to: A) a treatment center that offers long-term therapy. B) an emergency room. C) group counseling. D) a residential treatment center.
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145. Which statement BEST describes the effectiveness of suicide prevention programs? A) They reduce the risk of suicide in the community. B) They increase the risk of suicide in the community. C) They work only with specific populations, such as veterans. D) Their effectiveness is difficult to measure.
146. A typical caller to an urban suicide prevention center is: A) elderly, male, white. B) elderly, female, white. C) young, male, African American. D) young, female, African American.
147. Which statement about the successes of suicide prevention programs is MOST accurate? A) The people at greatest risk for suicide are the individuals who are most likely to call prevention centers. B) Of those individuals who call suicide prevention centers, fewer commit suicide than those who don't call who are in a similar risk group. C) Suicide rates are consistently lower in communities that have suicide prevention centers. D) People thinking of suicide know about and readily call suicide prevention centers.
148. One study showed that of the high-risk suicidal people who contact a suicide crisis hotline, approximately _____ later commit suicide. A) 2 percent B) 10 percent C) 30 percent D) 50 percent
149. Suicide education programs typically focus on: A) those persons who have previously attempted suicide. B) clergy, who are often contacted by suicidal people. C) students and teachers. D) high-risk people who call hotlines.
150. The MOST well-developed understanding of the causes of suicide come from the: A) biological model. B) psychoanalytic model. C) cognitive-behavioral model. D) sociocultural model.
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Answer Key 1. B 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. C 11. D 12. C 13. D 14. D 15. D 16. C 17. C 18. A 19. A 20. B 21. B 22. A 23. C 24. C 25. D 26. B 27. C 28. B 29. C 30. B 31. D 32. C 33. D 34. A 35. A 36. C 37. C 38. C 39. D 40. C 41. B 42. A 43. D 44. A
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45. A 46. C 47. A 48. B 49. D 50. C 51. D 52. D 53. D 54. D 55. D 56. B 57. A 58. D 59. C 60. D 61. C 62. B 63. B 64. B 65. C 66. A 67. B 68. B 69. A 70. B 71. A 72. B 73. D 74. A 75. A 76. A 77. D 78. D 79. A 80. A 81. D 82. D 83. C 84. C 85. C 86. C 87. C 88. B 89. B 90. C
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91. B 92. D 93. D 94. B 95. B 96. C 97. A 98. B 99. D 100. A 101. D 102. A 103. A 104. A 105. B 106. A 107. B 108. B 109. B 110. B 111. B 112. C 113. B 114. A 115. C 116. B 117. B 118. C 119. D 120. D 121. A 122. A 123. D 124. D 125. C 126. A 127. B 128. B 129. C 130. D 131. C 132. B 133. C 134. B 135. C 136. B
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137. D 138. C 139. A 140. B 141. D 142. A 143. A 144. A 145. D 146. D 147. B 148. A 149. C 150. D
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1. Among the top ten causes of death in the United States, suicide ranks: A) third. B) fifth. C) seventh. D) tenth.
2. One of the early pioneers in the field of suicide study was: A) Sigmund Freud. B) Erik Erikson. C) Edwin Shneidman. D) Carl Jung.
3. People who experience mixed feelings about their desire to kill themselves are known as: A) death seekers. B) death initiators. C) death ignorers. D) death darers.
4. Individuals who clearly intend to end their lives at the time they attempt suicide (and fail to do so), only to experience confusion in the very next hour or day, might be classified as: A) death inviters. B) death seekers. C) death egoists. D) death initiators.
5. A seriously ill person whose consistent mismanagement of medication led to his or her death would probably be considered a victim of: A) chronic suicide. B) parasuicide. C) suicide. D) subintentional death.
6. _____ times as many women attempt suicide as men, yet men succeed at more than _____ times the rate of women. A) Two; three B) Three; three C) Four; three D) Three; four
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7. Which method of killing oneself is used in more than half of all male suicides? A) Hanging B) Guns C) Self-immolation D) Drug overdose
8. According to Shneidman, _____, or a feeling of intolerable psychological pain, is an underlying key to suicide. A) psychache B) paresthesia C) anomie D) Thanatos
9. Some psychologists worry that movies that glorify suicide can trigger suicides in others, creating a: A) subintentional death. B) death ambivalence. C) conditioning effect. D) social contagion effect. 10. A friend says, “If I don't get an A in this class, I'll never be a psychologist.” This is an example of: A) egoistic thinking. B) Thanatos. C) dichotomous thinking. D) learned helplessness.
11. In the United States, which group is most likely to commit suicide? A) Non-Hispanic white children younger than the age of 11 B) Asian American teenagers C) African Americans between the ages of 25 and 40 D) Non-Hispanic white American males older than age 75
12. Which perspective believes that suicide is the result of anger at others that has been redirected at oneself? A) Cognitive B) Behavioral C) Sociocultural D) Psychodynamic
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13. According to Freud, which forces lead a person to attempt or commit suicide? A) A real or symbolic loss leads to a defense mechanism called introjection, which in turn leads to suicide as an extreme expression of internalized anger and self-hatred. B) An inability to adequately overcome the Oedipus or Electra complex leads to a longing for an end to life that results in suicidal behaviors. C) Fixation at the oral stage leads to behaviors that are overly expressive; thus suicide is the ultimate in “expressive” behaviors. D) Death is seen as a way of getting in touch with one's own unconscious, so it is viewed by the victim as a desirable behavior.
14. Dr. Alberto focuses on social relationships and connections with other people in understanding the suicide of an individual. Dr. Alberto seems to accept a _____ position. A) psychoanalytic B) sociocultural C) biological D) cognitive-behavioral
15. A pilot who sacrifices his life in a fighter-plane skirmish would be categorized as an example of _____ suicide. A) subintentional B) egoistic C) altruistic D) anomic
16. Suicide committed by people over whom society has little or no control is known as _____ suicide. A) egoistic B) altruistic C) anomic D) introjective
17. Which is NOT a reason why teenagers may attempt suicide? A) Clinical depression B) Low self-esteem C) Changes in hormones D) Feeling hopeless
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18. Which age group is MOST likely to commit suicide because of such problems as illness, hopelessness, disability, and loneliness as the reason for suicide? A) People younger than the age of 40 B) People between the ages of 40 and 49 C) People between the age of 50 and 59 D) People older than the age of 65
19. Which group of Americans has the highest overall rate of suicide? A) American Indians B) Asian Americans C) African Americans D) White Americans
20. About what portion of Americans believe that terminally ill persons should be free to take their lives or to seek a physician's assistance to do so? A) One-half B) One-tenth C) One-fourth D) Two-thirds
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Answer Key 1. D 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. C 11. D 12. D 13. A 14. B 15. C 16. A 17. C 18. D 19. A 20. D
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1. Which statement about suicide is TRUE? A) Suicide is classified as a mental disorder by DSM-5. B) Many apparent suicides are probably accidents. C) Estimates of suicides are probably high. D) Many apparent accidents are probably suicides. 2. Members of the Heaven's Gate religious cult committed suicide to “ascend” to another level beyond human existence. According to Shneidman, these individuals were: A) death seekers. B) death initiators. C) death ignorers. D) death darers.
3. Researchers who study suicide may interview the friends and family of someone who committed suicide, with the intention of better understanding the person's past. These researchers are conducting a(n): A) retrospective analysis. B) pseudoexperimental study. C) archival analysis. D) retrograde life detail inspection (RLDI).
4. Compared with the rate of suicide in the United States, countries such as Egypt, Greece, and Mexico have: A) much lower rates. B) about the same rates. C) much higher rates. D) unknown rates, since their medical systems do not track such trends.
5. Compared with married or cohabitating couples, never-married individuals have a _____ suicide rate. A) lower B) roughly equal C) higher D) nonexistent
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6. Which statement is TRUE regarding stressors and suicide attempts? A) The stressors that trigger suicide are immediate stressors, rather than long-term stressors. B) Research has found that those individuals who attempt suicide had more recent stressors in their lives than nonattempters. C) Immediate stressors have a more detrimental effect on children and adolescents than on adults and the elderly. D) Stressors that trigger suicide are overwhelmingly large, significant stressors, such as combat or being a victim of a violent crime. 7. A friend says, “I am never going to find someone to be with. I'm going to be stuck here, alone, for the rest of my life.” This is an example of: A) hopelessness. B) dichotomous thinking. C) suicidal ideation. D) selective abstraction.
8. Studies indicate that as many as _____ percent of the people who attempt suicide drink alcohol just before the act. Autopsies reveal that about _____ percent of these people are legally intoxicated. A) 95; 75 B) 15; 20 C) 70; 25 D) 3; 30
9. Research has shown that one reason people with schizophrenia attempt suicide is because they: A) hear voices telling them to kill themselves. B) believe they are killing someone else, not themselves. C) feel entrapped by their disorder. D) do not actually think they will die.
10. A school has a formal policy in place on how to respond in the event that a student commits suicide. This includes having a faculty member adhere to the deceased student's schedule to monitor peer reactions, answer questions, and arrange for counseling as needed. This is an example of: A) response interruption. B) contagion maintenance. C) interception. D) postvention.
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11. Durkheim predicted that societies with greater opportunities for change in individual wealth or status would have higher suicide rates as a result of increased: A) egoism. B) anomie. C) altruism. D) substance abuse.
12. _____ and brain-circuit dysfunction seem to play a role in suicide separate from depression. A) High norepinephrine B) High serotonin C) Low norepinephrine D) Low serotonin
13. Compared with other teenagers, LGBTQ+ teenagers are _____ to have suicidal thoughts and to attempt suicide. A) less likely B) equally as likely C) somewhat more likely D) significantly more likely
14. Which is NOT a reason suggested for the high number of suicide attempts among teenagers? A) Increased competition for jobs and college positions B) Weakening ties to the family C) Easy access to alcohol and drugs D) Increase in cases of serious illness
15. Which statement is NOT true regarding suicide in the elderly? A) Elderly people are less likely to be clinically depressed. B) Elderly people are typically more determined to die than are members of younger age groups. C) Elderly people give fewer warning signs before attempting suicide. D) A common trigger for suicide in the elderly is loss of a spouse.
16. Which state has enacted a law allowing physicians to assist in suicide? A) California B) Oregon C) Vermont D) Michigan
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17. Suicide prevention programs and hotlines focus on: A) education. B) crisis intervention. C) referring suicidal persons for medication. D) referring suicidal persons for civil commitment.
18. An individual who had previously attempted suicide and survived is LEAST likely to try again if the original method used was: A) poisoning. B) a gun. C) jumping off a bridge. D) hanging.
19. The primary difference between suicide prevention centers and hotlines and online suicide-focused forums is that forums: A) are accessible 24 hours a day, every day. B) are generally free of charge. C) are not seeking to provide help to suicidal individuals. D) have a larger number of bilingual counselors available.
20. The key to effective suicide prevention is: A) having available accurate risk assessment tools. B) limiting people's access to guns. C) providing better treatment for drug and alcohol dependence. D) strengthening religious beliefs in society.
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Answer Key 1. D 2. C 3. A 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. C 9. C 10. D 11. B 12. D 13. D 14. D 15. A 16. B 17. B 18. A 19. C 20. A
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Chapter 10
1. Explain Munchausen syndrome and give examples. If you suspected this disorder in someone, which risk factors would you look for?
2. Compare and contrast conversion disorder and somatic symptom disorder.
3. As a therapist, you suspect a patient has a somatic symptom disorder. Which DSM-5 criteria must be used in making this diagnosis?
4. What are the two patterns of somatic symptom disorder, and how do they differ?
5. Distinguish between the psychodynamic and cognitive-behavioral explanations for the development (cause) of conversion and somatic symptom disorders.
6. What differentiates illness anxiety disorder from traditional psychophysiological disorders?
7. A friend asks you how illness anxiety disorder typically develops. If you were a cognitive-behavioral theorist, how would you respond?
8. Compare and contract Type A and Type B personality styles. Which, if any, specific health effects are associated with each?
9. Why are African Americans more likely than any other racial and ethnic group to develop psychophysiological disorders?
10. Explain relaxation training. Based on available research, for which conditions would you recommend it be used?
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Answer Key 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
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1. _____ is another name for factitious disorder.
2. Diego feigns having a mental disorder to avoid military service. This is an example of _____.
3. People with _____ display physical symptoms that affect voluntary motor or sensory functioning but the symptoms are inconsistent with known medical diseases.
4. Freud's view was that hysteria stemmed from an unresolved _____.
5. A person whose symptoms fulfill some external need, such as avoiding something unpleasant, is achieving _____ gain.
6. From a psychodynamic perspective, people whose symptoms keep their internal conflicts from emerging into consciousness achieve _____ gain.
7. The current term for the disorder in which people unrealistically and fearfully interpret relatively minor physical discomforts as signs of serious illness is _____.
8. _____ are disorders in which biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors interact to cause or worsen a physical illness.
9. A person who has _____ experiences lesions or holes in the wall of his or her stomach.
10. Someone who has trouble falling asleep or staying asleep is suffering from _____.
11. Someone who tends to be very cynical, impatient, and competitive more than likely has _____ personality style.
12. The _____ was developed by Thomas Holmes and Richard Rahe in 1967.
13. _____ is the study of the connections between stress, the immune system, and illness.
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14. Chronic stress can lead to a person sleeping less, eating more junk food, exercising less, and drinking more alcohol. These are all _____ that increase the likelihood that a person will get sick.
15. The treatment approach in which electrical signals from the body are used to train people how to control physiological processes is called _____.
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Answer Key 1. Munchausen syndrome 2. malingering 3. conversion disorder 4. Electra complex 5. secondary 6. primary 7. illness anxiety disorder 8. Psychophysiological disorders 9. ulcers 10. insomnia 11. Type A 12. Social Readjustment Rating Scale 13. Psychoneuroimmunology 14. behavioral changes 15. biofeedback
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1. Intentionally feigning illness to achieve some external gain is described as: A) malingering. B) somatization. C) conversion disorder. D) illness anxiety disorder.
2. The BEST example of malingering is a person who: A) fakes an illness because he or she enjoys being a patient. B) pretends to have an illness to get sympathy. C) falsely claims to have a terminal illness. D) feigns an illness to achieve some external gain, such as financial compensation.
3. Which statement is TRUE about factitious disorders? A) Individuals with factitious disorder are not trying to achieve some external gain by faking illness. B) Individuals with factitious disorder do not intentionally create illness. C) Individuals with factitious disorder have no control over their behavior. D) Individuals with factitious disorder do not want to assume the sick role.
4. A man appeared at the emergency room complaining of bloody diarrhea. The physician who examined him found that the man was intentionally creating the diarrhea through use of laxatives and anticoagulant medication and that he liked being a patient. The man is MOST likely: A) experiencing a psychophysical disorder. B) malingering. C) experiencing a somatic disorder. D) experiencing a factitious disorder.
5. A professional has evidence that a patient has intentionally faked her illness. To determine whether the patient is malingering or experiencing a factitious disorder, what must be examined? A) The method the patient used to make herself ill B) The motivation the patient has for assuming the sick role C) Who else, if anyone, the patient is making ill D) The severity of the symptoms the patient has experienced
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6. Having a background in medicine, but also a grudge against the profession, puts a person at risk for: A) a factitious disorder. B) body dysmorphic disorder. C) amnesia conversion disorder. D) somatic symptom disorder.
7. Which individual would be MOST likely to receive a diagnosis of factitious disorder? A) Someone who engages in cutting and tries to hide it from everyone B) Someone who breaks a leg while skiing but tells friends and family that the injury occurred in a car accident C) Someone who purposefully drinks gasoline and then seeks treatment for an unknown stomach ailment D) Someone who has chronic nausea and vomiting due to high stress but denies that as a possible cause
8. A physician confronts Addison with evidence that her symptoms are factitious. It is MOST likely that Addison will: A) create new symptoms that are more difficult to disprove. B) produce false medical records to support her original symptoms. C) leave the facility and immediately seek treatment from a different physician. D) take measures that increase the intensity of her original symptoms.
9. Someone who has Munchausen syndrome also, by definition, has: A) Munchausen by proxy. B) a factitious disorder. C) somatic symptom disorder. D) conversion disorder.
10. A woman complains of an assortment of physiological ailments. You think that she is intentionally producing the physical symptoms to appear sick, which fills some psychological need. If this is true, the appropriate diagnosis is: A) factitious disorder. B) conversion disorder. C) generalized anxiety disorder. D) psychophysical disorder.
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11. An example of a factitious disorder is: A) mass hysteria. B) Munchausen syndrome. C) hypochondriasis. D) untreated migraine disorder.
12. Ben has been a chronically ill child. After being removed from his home and placed in foster care, he became quite healthy. In this case, one might suspect that the parent (usually the mother) was experiencing: A) malingering. B) a psychophysical disorder. C) a somatoform disorder. D) a factitious disorder.
13. Charley brings her young daughter into the emergency room with internal bleeding. The attending physician later concludes that Charley caused the symptoms in her daughter intentionally, wanting to gain attention and praise for her devoted care of her sick child. If this assessment is correct, the appropriate diagnosis is: A) a psychophysiological disorder. B) a conversion disorder. C) Munchausen syndrome. D) Munchausen syndrome by proxy.
14. Munchausen syndrome by proxy is MOST likely to adversely affect the physical well-being of: A) the person experiencing it. B) the child of the person experiencing it. C) the spouse of the person experiencing it. D) the medical personnel caring for the person experiencing it.
15. Which characteristic describes an individual with Munchausen syndrome by proxy? A) Psychotic B) Independent C) Emotionally needy D) Limited intelligence and education
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16. If a person's bodily symptoms affect his or her voluntary motor and sensory functions, but the symptoms are inconsistent with known medical diseases, this condition is referred to as: A) malingering. B) illness anxiety disorder. C) selective symptomatology. D) conversion disorder.
17. Just before debuting at Carnegie Hall, a pianist suffered abrupt paralysis of her entire left hand. She has no known medical conditions that are associated with this symptom. This description MOST closely aligns with: A) conversion disorder. B) somatization disorder. C) pain disorder associated with psychological factors. D) factitious disorder.
18. A 35-year-old woman hobbles into the office of a physician complaining of a debilitating illness that has robbed her of the use of her left leg and right arm. The physician finds no physical basis for her symptoms. The patient appears totally unaware that the cause of her symptoms may be psychological. The appropriate diagnosis in this case is: A) malingering. B) factitious disorder. C) conversion disorder. D) illness anxiety disorder.
19. Disorders that represent the conversion of conflicts and anxiety into physical symptoms would include: A) phobia disorders. B) dissociative disorders. C) psychophysiological disorders. D) conversion disorders.
20. Conversion disorders in men: A) are extremely rare. B) occur approximately half as often as they do in women. C) are twice as likely as they are in women. D) occur at about the same rate as they do in women.
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21. Conversion disorders most often begin between: A) late childhood and young adulthood. B) adolescence and middle age. C) early childhood and adolescence. D) middle age and late adulthood.
22. Which is likely to be useful in distinguishing conversion or somatic symptom disorders from true medical problems? A) The particular body part showing the symptom B) The failure of a condition to develop as expected C) The patient's description of the source of the symptoms D) The patient's experiencing the usual course of development for the physical symptoms characteristic of the condition
23. Which finding would lead you to suspect someone has a conversion disorder rather than another medical cause? A) Muscle atrophy in the “paralyzed” body part B) Uniform and even numbness in the “damaged” hand C) Symptoms consistent with the way the neurological system is known to work D) A great number of accidents and an inability, in a “blind” person, to get around
24. If a person complains of a wide variety of physical symptoms over time in the absence of a physical basis for the symptoms, the diagnosis would likely be: A) conversion disorder. B) somatic symptom disorder. C) body dysmorphic disorder. D) psychophysiological disorder.
25. Gabe appeared at the clinic complaining of pain in his knee, shoulder, and abdomen; nausea and vomiting; blurred vision; and exhaustion. The patient history revealed that he had been going to clinics for years trying to get treatment for these complaints as well as a host of other physical symptoms. The diagnostic consensus was that Gabe suffered from: A) factitious disorder. B) somatic symptom disorder. C) illness anxiety disorder. D) body dysmorphic disorder.
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26. Why do some researchers believe mass psychogenic illnesses will increase and become more severe in the future? A) Cities will become more population dense. B) The power of social media will increase. C) Education is in decline. D) Treatment has not proved to be helpful.
27. Somatic symptom disorders differ from conversion disorders in that conversion disorders: A) usually last less time. B) usually begin later in life. C) are more common in the United States. D) are more common in men.
28. The disorder with a wide range of vague, long-lasting, and disturbing physical symptoms without a medical cause is: A) somatic symptom disorder (somatization pattern). B) somatic symptom disorder (predominant pain pattern). C) conversion disorder (somatization pattern). D) conversion disorder (predominant pain pattern).
29. If you looked in Leijla's medicine cabinet, you would find dozens of prescriptions and even more over-the-counter medications. Every time she sneezes, Leijla is sure she has the latest deadly flu, although no physician has ever found anything wrong with her. Leijla probably suffers from: A) conversion disorder. B) body dysmorphic disorder. C) Munchausen syndrome. D) somatic symptom disorder.
30. In the latter half of the nineteenth century, a person who today is diagnosed with somatic symptom disorder would MOST likely have been diagnosed with: A) Freudian syndrome. B) pseudopsychological syndrome. C) Briquet's syndrome. D) referenced pain syndrome.
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31. A patient with a heart condition complains of adhesions from his postoperative scar, leg cramps, and joint stiffness. He seems to be hurting all over, but no medical reason can be found to explain the symptoms. The BEST diagnosis for this disorder is: A) conversion disorder. B) somatic symptom disorder (somatization pattern). C) somatic symptom disorder (predominant pain pattern). D) preoccupation disorder.
32. Abnormalities that are thought to have both biological and psychological causes are diagnosed as: A) factitious disorders. B) somatic symptom disorder. C) psychogenic disorders. D) psychological factors affecting one's medical condition.
33. The relationship between gender and somatic symptom disorder generally is that: A) more men than women are diagnosed with both the somatization pattern and predominant pain pattern forms of somatic symptom disorder. B) more women than men are diagnosed with both the somatization pattern and predominant pain pattern forms of somatic symptom disorder. C) more men than women are diagnosed with the somatization pattern, but more women than men are diagnosed with the predominant pain pattern form of somatic symptom disorder. D) more women than men are diagnosed with the somatization pattern, but more men than women are diagnosed with the predominant pain pattern form of somatic symptom disorder.
34. A woman has close female relatives diagnosed with a somatization pattern of somatic symptom disorder. According to research, her probability of being diagnosed with the same disorder is approximately: A) 2 percent. B) 10 percent. C) 20 percent. D) 50 percent.
35. An individual develops somatic symptom disorder after a near-fatal car crash. The diagnosis is: A) unlikely to be either somatization pattern or predominant pain pattern. B) about equally likely to be somatization pattern or predominant pain pattern. C) more likely to be somatization pattern than predominant pain pattern. D) less likely to be somatization pattern than predominant pain pattern.
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36. About what percentage of Americans experience a somatization pattern of somatic symptom disorder in a given year? A) 4 percent B) 10 percent C) 25 percent D) 33 percent 37. Freud believed that “hysterical” symptoms: A) were rooted in the oral stage. B) enabled people to avoid unpleasant activities. C) reflected medical problems that needed medical, not psychological, treatment. D) were more common in men than women.
38. Which statement BEST reflects our understanding of hysterical disorders? A) Hysterical disorders are explained similarly to how anxiety disorders are explained. B) Currently, hysterical disorders are thought to be due to a “wandering uterus.” C) Hysterical disorder symptoms appear to be particularly resistant to hypnosis. D) The causes of hysterical disorders are poorly understood, with no theory predominant in aiding understanding.
39. According to the psychodynamic view, conversion disorder symptoms function to keep unacceptable thoughts and conflicts out of consciousness. This is called: A) sociocultural stress. B) primary gain. C) reinforcement. D) secondary gain.
40. Rowena had been terrified about testifying in court. One morning shortly before she was scheduled to appear, she awoke blind. In this example, Rowena is achieving: A) conditioning. B) primary gain. C) reinforcement. D) secondary gain.
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41. A woman who is particularly threatened by any display of anger becomes unable to speak when she is most angry with her husband, thereby keeping the anger out of her awareness. According to psychodynamic theorists, she is achieving _____ from her illness. A) primary gain B) secondary gain C) tertiary gain D) no gain
42. If a man's behavior elicited kindness and sympathy from his wife when he was mute, he would be receiving _____ gains from his behavior. A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) no
43. Both psychodynamic theorists and cognitive-behavioral theorists believe that in conversion disorder, the symptoms that appear: A) are physical manifestations of unconscious conflicts carried forth from childhood. B) reflect an exaggeration of existing symptoms from another medical condition. C) help the person avoid unpleasant situations. D) reflect repression of unresolved sexual desires.
44. Every time Miguel had a headache, his mother let him miss school. Now, as an adult, his headaches have become more frequent. His head pounds any time he is required to do something he would rather not do. This is a _____ explanation of conversion symptoms. A) psychodynamic B) biological C) cognitive-behavioral D) cultural 45. “It's obvious that the patient observed friends who had symptoms of illness, then imitated those symptoms to get attention,” says the therapist. This therapist MOST likely has which theoretical perspective? A) Cognitive-behavioral B) Psychodynamic C) Biological D) Humanistic
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46. The first time the patient reported vague chest pains to a 911 operator, local EMTs responded with obvious attention and concern. Over the next several months, the patient called 911 more and more often, receiving the same concerned care for the same symptoms. This pattern of patient response is MOST easily explained by which theoretical perspective? A) Biological B) Cognitive-behavioral C) Humanistic D) Psychodynamic
47. Compared with a therapist with a psychodynamic view, what would a therapist with a cognitive-behavioral view be most likely to ask someone whom he or she suspected might have a somatic symptom disorder? A) “What underlying conflict do you think might have caused your symptoms?” B) “Do you think drug therapy would help you deal with the physical symptoms?” C) “Has any friend of yours had similar symptoms recently?” D) “What are you thinking about when you experience your symptoms?”
48. The main criticism of the cognitive-behavioral and psychodynamic explanations for the maintenance of hysterical disorders is that: A) they focus too much on the gains the patient receives from the disorder. B) they fail to take into account the gains the patient receives from the disorder. C) they confuse the ideas of gain and reward. D) they cannot explain how the gains can outweigh the pain of the disorder.
49. People with somatic symptom disorders use their symptoms to express emotions they cannot easily express otherwise. This statement reflects the: A) cognitive-behavioral view. B) multicultural view. C) humanistic view. D) psychodynamic view.
50. Which statement would a cognitive-behavioral theorist be MOST likely to make about hysterical disorders? A) The patient is receiving secondary gains from the symptoms. B) The patient is unable to express any emotion except anxiety. C) The patient is being rewarded for behaving in this way. D) The patient is otherwise unable to communicate difficult emotions.
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51. Somatic complaints are very common in non-Western medical settings. This pattern MOST likely reflects: A) higher levels of the emotions in these countries that produce somatization. B) the effects of living in a collectivist culture. C) a Western bias that sees somatization as an inferior way to handle emotions. D) an Asian bias to celebrate somatization as the only “real” response to emotion.
52. An individual who has been diagnosed with a somatic symptom disorder would MOST likely first seek: A) psychological help. B) medical help. C) both psychological and medical help. D) neither psychological nor medical help.
53. A therapist treating an individual with a conversion disorder works to reduce pleasurable outcomes associated with being sick, while increasing pleasurable outcomes associated with being well. This technique is called: A) confrontation. B) reinforcement. C) suggestion. D) posthypnotic suggestion.
54. Isaac had finally had enough of his inability to walk. He went to therapy and eventually addressed a traumatic car crash from his past. Over time, he began to walk again. According to his psychodynamic therapist, why did these positive changes occur? A) Isaac became conscious of and resolved his underlying fears, thereby eliminating the need to convert anxiety into physical symptoms. B) Isaac got increased rewards for healthy behaviors, which motivated him to walk. C) Isaac began to think differently about the nature and causes of his physical symptoms and illness. D) The antidepressant medications Isaac was prescribed helped alleviate his physical symptoms as well as his feelings of anxiety and depression.
55. Therapists who take a reinforcement approach while treating a conversion disorder would be MOST likely to focus on: A) identifying underlying emotional causes for the disorder. B) helping the patient gain insight into how the disorder is reinforcing. C) reducing the rewards available for displaying the disorder. D) replacing the primary gain with a secondary gain.
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56. How likely is someone with undiagnosed conversion disorder to seek psychotherapy initially? A) Not likely at all; most people with conversion disorder seek psychotherapy as a last resort. B) Somewhat likely, but a small majority of people with conversion disorder still seek medical therapy first. C) Very likely; a majority of patients with conversion disorder are first evaluated by a psychologist. D) Extremely likely; the vast majority of patients with conversion disorder initially seek treatment from a psychologist.
57. An expected finding in someone with illness anxiety disorder is: A) numerous somatic symptoms. B) delay in seeking treatment from a medical professional. C) physical symptoms that affect voluntary motor or sensory functioning. D) frequent checking of the body for signs of illness. 58. “It seems to me that people with illness anxiety disorder simply model what they see others doing.” A person with which theoretical view would be MOST likely to make this statement? A) Psychodynamic B) Humanistic C) Biological D) Cognitive-behavioral
59. Which statement BEST describes someone with illness anxiety disorder? A) A person has an illness and believes he or she will never fully recover. B) A person misinterprets normal bodily functions and changes as signs of a serious health condition. C) A person fabricates symptoms and seeks ongoing treatment from health care professionals. D) A person causes real illness as a direct result of numerous preventive measures and self-pretreatment.
60. A therapist treating a client with illness anxiety disorder repeatedly shows the client how the client's body is less than perfect, while not allowing the client to seek medical attention. MOST likely, the therapist's viewpoint is: A) cognitive-behavioral. B) psychodynamic. C) biological. D) sociocultural.
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61. Increasingly concerned about my minor heartbeat irregularities, I think that my health is being threatened, and more and more often I misinterpret my body's normal signals. Which viewpoint BEST explains my experiences? A) Psychodynamic B) Biological C) Cognitive-behavioral D) Humanistic
62. Because of similarities in presentation, people with illness anxiety disorder often receive the same kinds of treatments used to address symptoms of: A) obsessive–compulsive disorder. B) depression. C) anorexia. D) bulimia.
63. A group of physical illnesses that seem to be caused or worsened by an interaction of biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors is called: A) illness anxiety disorders. B) conversion disorders. C) somatic symptom disorders. D) psychological factors affecting other medical conditions.
64. Psychophysiological disorders differ from fictitious disorders in that: A) the former result from an interaction of biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors. B) psychological factors are the primary underlying cause. C) the symptoms are less severe. D) physical damage is a very rare occurrence.
65. A symptom commonly associated with an ulcer is: A) a burning sensation in the stomach. B) a choking sensation. C) dizziness. D) excessive sweating.
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66. The traditional psychophysiological disorder most commonly associated with intense feelings of anger and the presence of bacteria is: A) an ulcer. B) insomnia. C) asthma attack. D) hypotension.
67. Shortness of breath, wheezing, coughing, and a choking sensation are symptoms commonly associated with: A) insomnia. B) asthma. C) muscle contractions. D) migraine headaches.
68. Most people who have _____ were children or young teenagers at the time of the first attack. A) insomnia B) asthma C) muscle contractions D) migraine headaches
69. A weakened respiratory system may be a contributing factor in some cases of: A) insomnia. B) asthma. C) muscle contraction. D) migraine headaches.
70. Difficulty falling asleep or maintaining sleep is called: A) tension contractions. B) narcolepsy. C) irregular sleep pattern. D) insomnia.
71. A characteristic of chronic insomniacs is: A) feeling as if they are constantly awake. B) being more productive in the late evening. C) having a chronic respiratory condition. D) having a history of migraine headaches.
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72. Muscle contraction headaches typically produce pain: A) in the front or back of the head or in the back of the neck. B) on one side of the head. C) on both sides of the head and the neck and shoulders. D) in the front and center of the head and behind the eyes.
73. Compared with a migraine headache, the pain associated with a muscle contraction headache is typically: A) less severe. B) equally severe. C) somewhat more severe. D) substantially more severe.
74. A person with hypertension would MOST likely: A) have shortness of breath. B) appear flushed and laboring to breathe. C) report concerns about excessive sweating. D) exhibit no outward signs of disease.
75. Hypertension that results from a combination of psychological and physiological factors is called _____ hypertension. A) secondary B) essential C) complex D) multifactorial
76. The leading cause of death globally, resulting in 17 million deaths worldwide each year, is: A) asthma. B) hypertension. C) coronary heart disease. D) muscle contraction headache.
77. The most common type of activity people perform when they want to relieve stress is engaging in: A) entertainment, such as watching television, listening to music, or reading. B) spiritual care, such as praying or going to church. C) exercise, such as running or yoga. D) self-harm, such as cutting or burning oneself.
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78. Insomnia and narcolepsy are examples of _____ disorders. A) sleep–wake B) fictitious C) illness anxiety D) conversion
79. The most commonly occurring sleeplessness-produced problem is: A) difficulty concentrating. B) forgetfulness. C) difficulty driving. D) inability to work efficiently.
80. Researchers have examined the relationship between the sleep people need and the sleep people get. Based on their findings, which of the following statements is generally TRUE? A) Most infants and children get the amount of sleep they need, but most teenagers do not. B) People need more sleep as they age, and they generally get enough. C) The biggest discrepancy seen between the amount of sleep needed and the actual sleep is in preschoolers. D) Across all age groups, people generally get less sleep than they need.
81. Scarlett finds that she needs more than the 8 hours of sleep recommended for adults. If she gets less than 10 hours of sleep per night, she has difficulty concentrating, is forgetful, has problems driving, and cannot work effectively. Scarlett would most likely be diagnosed with: A) insomnia disorder. B) hypersomnolence disorder. C) narcolepsy. D) circadian rhythm disorder.
82. Cal tends to fall asleep at the drop of a hat—while watching television, eating, and even driving. He would most likely be diagnosed with: A) insomnia disorder. B) hypersomnolence disorder. C) narcolepsy. D) circadian rhythm disorder.
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83. Kanaye has an erratic sleep cycle each month, regardless of which actions he takes. A typical cycle follows: Week 1: falls asleep around 6:00 P.M. and wakes around 2:00 A.M. Week 2: goes to sleep around 10:00 P.M. and wakes around 6:00 A.M. Week 3: cannot fall asleep until around 2:00 A.M., and then wakes around 10:00 A.M. Week 4: unable to fall asleep until 6:00 A.M. and wakes around 3:00 P.M. The appropriate diagnosis in this case is: A) insomnia disorder. B) hypersomnolence disorder. C) narcolepsy. D) circadian rhythm disorder.
84. Defects in the _____ system are thought to contribute to the development of psychophysiological disorders. A) immune B) autonomic nervous C) sympathetic nervous D) cardiovascular
85. People with a reluctance to express discomfort or hostility have a: A) Type A personality. B) Type B personality. C) repressive coping style. D) problem with anger management.
86. People with _____ are said to be consistently angry, cynical, driven, impatient, competitive, and ambitious. A) Type A personality style B) Type B personality style C) factitious disorder D) conversion disorder
87. People with _____ are thought to be more relaxed, less aggressive, and less concerned about time. A) Type A personality style B) Type B personality style C) factitious disorder D) conversion disorder
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88. Sonia has a Type A personality style, and Liz has a Type B personality style. They are both running for class president. How would you expect their campaigns to differ? A) Sonia will be more competitive, and Liz will be more relaxed. B) Liz will have more friends to vote for her, while Sonia will have more people on her campaign team. C) When problems arise, Sonia will stay calm while Liz will get angry and hostile. D) Liz will have every moment of her campaign planned, and Sonia will be disorganized.
89. People with _____ interact with the world in a way that produces continual stress and often leads to coronary heart disease. A) Type A personality style B) Type B personality style C) factitious disorder D) conversion disorder
90. What is one of society's most negative social conditions that may set the stage for psychophysiological disorders? A) Traffic B) Poverty C) Underemployment D) Academic pressure
91. Who is MOST likely to experience a psychophysiological disorder? A) A non-Hispanic white American male B) An African American male C) A Hispanic American female D) A non-Hispanic white American female
92. A contributing factor that partly explains why African Americans have more health problems than non-Hispanic white Americans is that: A) African Americans are not taught to care about their health as much as non-Hispanic white Americans. B) African Americans are more likely to live in poverty and face discrimination, which contributes to stress. C) African Americans place a strong emphasis on social relationships, family support, and religiousness, and this takes away from time spent focusing on health. D) different racial groups experience psychophysiological and other health problems in unique ways.
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93. The relatively positive health picture for Hispanic Americans in the face of clear economic disadvantage is called the: A) Hispanic Health Paradox. B) Hispanic Health Contradiction. C) General Health Mystery. D) General Health Paradox.
94. Despite having clear economic disadvantages, the health of Hispanic Americans is, on average, at least as good as, and often better than, that of both non-Hispanic white Americans and African Americans. What is one theory that explains this paradox? A) There tend to be more hospitals in Hispanic American neighborhoods. B) Hispanic Americans face less life stressors compared to other ethnic groups. C) The strong family support common in Hispanic American culture increases health resilience among members of this culture. D) Hispanic Americans do not face racial discrimination and, therefore, are under less stress.
95. Who developed the Social Readjustment Rating Scale? A) Baron von Münchausen B) Ambroise-Auguste Liébault and Hippolyte Bernheim C) Holmes and Rahe D) Roger Bartrop and colleagues
96. The _____ assigns numerical values to the stress that most people experience at some time in their lives. A) Undergraduate Stress Questionnaire B) Social Readjustment Rating Scale C) Anxiety and Stress Questionnaire D) Undergraduate Stress Scale
97. Research has found that if a person's life change credits (LCUs) total more than _____ over the course of a year, that individual is particularly likely to develop serious health problems. A) 100 LCUs B) 200 LCUs C) 300 LCUs D) 400 LCUs
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98. _____ experience greater stress than _____ in response to a major personal injury or illness, a major change in work responsibilities, or a major change in living conditions. A) Non-Hispanic white Americans; African Americans B) Non-Hispanic white Americans; Hispanic Americans C) African Americans; non-Hispanic white Americans D) Hispanic Americans; African Americans
99. Four adults have experienced a stressful event. The individual at greatest risk for developing a physical illness is the person who recently: A) experienced the death of a spouse. B) was sentenced to a jail term. C) experienced the death of a sibling. D) was unexpectedly fired.
100. A shortcoming of Holmes and Rahe's Social Readjustment Rating Scale is that it: A) does not take into consideration the particular life-stress reactions of specific populations. B) is limited in the type of stressful event listed. C) does not take into consideration the unique stressors experienced by women. D) cannot be used to examine the relationship between stress and illness.
101. _____ is the study of the connections between stress, the body's immune system, and illness. A) Psychoanalysis B) Behaviorism C) Psychoneuroimmunology D) Behavioral medicine
102. A researcher conducts studies to better understand how exposure to stress affects the immune system. This researcher is practicing in the field of: A) psychoanalysis. B) behaviorism. C) psychoneuroimmunology. D) behavioral medicine.
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103. Which system is the body's network of activities and cells that identify and destroy antigens and cancer cells? A) Immune system B) Autonomic nervous system C) Sympathetic nervous system D) Cardiovascular system
104. The body's network of activities and cells that identify and destroy antigens and cancer cells is called the: A) immune system. B) autonomic nervous system. C) sympathetic nervous system. D) cardiovascular system.
105. Which is a foreign invader of the body? A) Lymphocyte B) Antigen C) Collagen D) Antibody
106. A bacterium and a virus are examples of: A) lymphocytes. B) antigens. C) lesions. D) collagen.
107. _____ are white blood cells that circulate through the lymph system and bloodstream. A) Antigens B) Legions C) T-cells D) Lymphocytes
108. _____ help the body identify and destroy antigens and cancer cells. A) Antigens B) Legions C) T-cells D) Lymphocytes
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109. Fungi are an example of: A) lymphocytes. B) antigens. C) allergens. D) T-cells.
110. Parasites are examples of: A) lymphocytes. B) antigens. C) allergens. D) T-cells.
111. _____ produce antibodies. A) Helper T-cells B) Natural killer T-cells C) B-cells D) Avoider B-cells
112. _____ are protein molecules that recognize and bind to antigens, mark them for destruction, and prevent them from causing infection. A) Helper T-cells B) Natural killer T-cells C) B-cells D) Antibodies
113. Bartrop and colleagues compared the immune systems of 26 people whose spouses had died 8 weeks earlier with those of 26 matched control-group participants whose spouses had not died. The blood samples revealed that _____ was much lower in the bereaved people than in the controls. A) lymphocyte functioning B) neurotransmitter activity C) antigen replication D) ion activity
114. Excessive activity of the neurotransmitter norepinephrine contributes to a slowdown of the: A) immune system. B) autonomic nervous system. C) sympathetic nervous system. D) cardiovascular system.
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115. Stress leads to increased activity by the: A) immune system. B) autonomic nervous system. C) sympathetic nervous system. D) cardiovascular system.
116. When a person is under stress, the adrenal glands release: A) norepinephrine. B) corticosteroids. C) collagen. D) cytokines.
117. If stress continues for an extended period of time, _____ give an inhibitory message to lymphocytes. A) collagen and cytokines B) cytokines and norepinephrine C) norepinephrine and corticosteroids D) cytokines and corticosteroids
118. Overabundance of _____ can lead to chronic inflammation throughout the body, contributing to heart disease, stroke, and other illnesses. A) norepinephrine B) corticosteroids C) cytokines D) collagen
119. Taylor has started smoking to help ease her stress from work. If she develops a psychophysiological disorder, it will be a result of: A) biochemical activity. B) behavioral changes. C) personality style. D) social support.
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120. Adrian recently graduated from college and has started a new job in his field of study. He has very long work hours and gets little sleep. He quit exercising and is not eating a balanced diet. If he develops a psychophysiological disorder, it will be because of: A) biochemical activity. B) behavioral changes. C) personality style. D) social support.
121. Margo feels a lot of stress from home and has started drinking more than usual. If she develops a psychophysiological disorder it will be because of: A) biochemical activity. B) behavioral changes. C) personality style. D) social support.
122. Gio has always taken good care of his health and well-being. However, over the past month he has been feeling a lot of pressure at work. Gio finds himself scrambling trying to meet a deadline that is fast approaching. Which change in his behavior may indirectly affect his immune system? A) Gio is worried he may lose his job and won't have enough money to pay the bills. B) Gio does not get enough sleep because he is so busy working. C) Gio begins to feel more pessimistic. D) Gio finds that his anger is increasing.
123. The way a person generally responds to life reflects that person's: A) biochemical activity. B) behavioral response pattern. C) personality style. D) social support system.
124. Kelsey feels stressed because of her responsibilities of being a mother. Even so, she tends to be optimistic, engages in constructive coping, and is resilient. The likelihood of her developing a psychophysiological disorder is slim due to: A) biochemical activity. B) behavioral changes. C) personality style. D) social support.
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125. Cindy has recently been diagnosed with cancer. Her quality of life is now poor because her coping style is one of helplessness and she has problems expressing her feelings. This is related to: A) biochemical activity. B) behavioral changes. C) personality style. D) social support.
126. Juanita often feels lonely and does not have many close friends. She also has poor immune functioning and tends to get sick often. This may be due to: A) biochemical activity. B) behavioral changes. C) personality style. D) social support.
127. Will recently recovered from having ulcers. He had care from family and friends and, as a result, recovered faster than expected. This may be due to: A) biochemical activity. B) behavioral changes. C) personality style. D) social support.
128. Dani has been diagnosed with breast cancer. She has a very supportive husband, caring children, and several friends who will provide support for her during her recovery. Lori also has been diagnosed with breast cancer, but she does not have a family or any close friends. Because of the differences in_____, Dani is more likely to have a successful recovery. A) biochemical activity B) behavioral change C) personality style D) social support
129. _____ is a field that combines psychological and physical interventions to treat or prevent medical problems. A) Behavioral medicine B) Psychoneuroimmunology C) Psychoanalysis D) Biofeedback training
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130. _____, often in combination with medication, has been widely used in the treatment of high blood pressure. A) Behavioral medicine B) Relaxation training C) Biofeedback training D) Meditation
131. _____ has been of some help in treating headaches, insomnia, asthma, diabetes, pain, certain vascular diseases, and the undesirable effects of certain cancer treatments. A) Behavioral medicine B) Relaxation training C) Biofeedback training D) Meditation
132. Teaching people to relax their muscles at will is a form of: A) behavioral medicine. B) relaxation training. C) biofeedback training. D) meditation.
133. The use of electrical signals from the body to train people to control physiological processes is called: A) behavioral medicine. B) relaxation training. C) biofeedback training. D) meditation.
134. _____ has been of some help in the treatment of heartbeat irregularities, asthma, high blood pressure, stuttering, and pain. A) Behavioral medicine B) Relaxation training C) Biofeedback training D) Meditation
135. The most widely applied method of biofeedback uses a device called an _____, which provides feedback about the level of muscular tension in the body. A) electromyograph B) electrode wand C) ultrasound machine D) emotional regulator
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136. Western health care professionals have only recently become aware of the effectiveness of _____ in relieving physical distress. A) behavioral medicine B) relaxation training C) biofeedback training D) meditation
137. _____ is a technique of turning one's concentration inward, achieving a slightly changed state of consciousness, and temporarily ignoring all stressors. A) Behavioral medicine B) Relaxation training C) Biofeedback training D) Meditation
138. Relaxation training differs from mediation in that: A) relaxation focuses on the body, whereas meditation focuses on turning one's concentration inward. B) relaxation focuses on quieting the mind, whereas mediation focuses on amplifying one's thoughts. C) relaxation is better for beginners, whereas meditation is better for people with expertise in stress management. D) relaxation is designed to relieve pain, whereas meditation focuses more on overall well-being.
139. _____ has been used to help manage pain and to treat high blood pressure, heart problems, asthma, skin disorders, diabetes, insomnia, and even viral infections. A) Behavioral medicine B) Relaxation training C) Biofeedback training D) Meditation
140. With _____, a person pays attention to the feelings, thoughts, and sensations that are flowing through his or her mind but does so with detachment and objectivity and, most important, without judgment. A) behavioral medicine B) relaxation training C) biofeedback training D) mindfulness meditation
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141. _____ seems to be particularly helpful in the control of pain. A) Hypnosis B) Relaxation training C) Biofeedback training D) Mindfulness meditation
142. Beyond its use in the control of pain, _____ has been used successfully to help treat such problems as skin diseases, asthma, insomnia, high blood pressure, warts, and other forms of infection. A) hypnosis B) relaxation training C) biofeedback training D) mindfulness meditation
143. The process of teaching people to identify and eventually rid themselves of unpleasant thoughts that emerge during pain episodes is called: A) hypnosis. B) relaxation training. C) self-instruction training. D) mindfulness meditation. 144. You are a therapist using self-instruction training. Your client repeatedly tells you, “I can't take the pain. It is just too much.” This is an example of a: A) managing self-statement. B) negative self-statement. C) positive self-statement. D) coping self-statement. 145. You are a therapist using self-instruction training. Your client now says, “When the pain comes, I just pause and keep focusing on what I need to do.” This is an example of a: A) managing self-statement. B) negative self-statement. C) positive self-statement. D) coping self-statement.
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146. In one study, patients with asthma and arthritis who wrote down their thoughts and feelings about stressful events for a handful of days showed lasting improvements in their conditions. This is an example of the effectiveness of: A) hypnosis. B) relaxation training. C) emotion expression. D) mindfulness meditation.
147. Stress-related writing has been found to be beneficial for patients with either HIV infection or cancer. This is an example of the effectiveness of: A) hypnosis. B) relaxation training. C) emotion expression. D) mindfulness meditation.
148. _____ are equally helpful in the treatment of high blood pressure, headaches, and asthma. A) Relaxation training and biofeedback training B) Meditation and relaxation training C) Hypnosis and biofeedback training D) Meditation and biofeedback training
149. Which statement concerning psychological treatments for physical disorders is MOST accurate? A) Therapists should focus on one technique to achieve the best outcomes. B) Meditation is the most effective treatment for physical disorders and should be tried first. C) Psychological interventions are often most helpful when they are combined. D) Psychological treatments of physical disorders have not been shown to be effective.
150. When it comes to understanding mental disorders and medical problems, most researchers believe: A) both are often best understood when sociocultural, psychological, and biological factors are all taken into consideration. B) it is best to focus on biological factors and tailor treatment accordingly. C) psychological factors can explain all mental disorders and medical problems. D) it is often best not to focus on understanding the causes of mental disorders and medical problems because that takes time away from treatment.
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Answer Key 1. A 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. A 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. A 11. B 12. D 13. D 14. B 15. C 16. D 17. A 18. C 19. D 20. B 21. A 22. B 23. B 24. B 25. B 26. B 27. A 28. A 29. D 30. C 31. C 32. B 33. B 34. C 35. D 36. A 37. B 38. D 39. B 40. D 41. A 42. B 43. C 44. C
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45. A 46. B 47. C 48. D 49. A 50. D 51. C 52. B 53. B 54. A 55. C 56. B 57. D 58. D 59. B 60. A 61. C 62. A 63. D 64. A 65. A 66. A 67. B 68. B 69. B 70. D 71. A 72. A 73. A 74. D 75. B 76. C 77. A 78. A 79. A 80. D 81. B 82. C 83. D 84. B 85. C 86. A 87. B 88. A 89. A 90. B
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91. B 92. B 93. A 94. C 95. C 96. B 97. C 98. C 99. A 100. A 101. C 102. C 103. A 104. A 105. B 106. B 107. D 108. D 109. B 110. B 111. C 112. D 113. A 114. A 115. C 116. B 117. C 118. C 119. B 120. B 121. B 122. B 123. C 124. C 125. C 126. D 127. D 128. D 129. A 130. B 131. B 132. B 133. C 134. C 135. A 136. D
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137. D 138. A 139. D 140. D 141. A 142. A 143. C 144. B 145. D 146. C 147. C 148. A 149. C 150. A
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1. A person who intentionally produces or fakes physical symptoms simply out of a wish to be a patient might be diagnosed with a: A) stress disorder. B) psychotic disorder. C) factitious disorder. D) conversion disorder.
2. Which disorder is considered by law enforcement to be a form of child abuse? A) Conversion disorder B) Munchausen syndrome by proxy C) Illness anxiety disorder D) Factitious disorder
3. Psychodynamic theorists say that _____ and _____ are the two mechanisms at work in hysterical somatoform disorders. A) ritual; undoing B) projection; rejection C) primary gain; secondary gain D) primary grief; secondary grief
4. One of the dangers of a diagnosis of conversion disorder is that the patient: A) will then seek only psychodynamic therapy. B) may have a genuine medical problem. C) may view all future physical symptoms as a symptom of this disorder. D) will most likely seek a second medical opinion.
5. Cognitive-behavioral theorists propose that the physical symptoms of hysterical disorders bring _____ to sufferers. A) emotional relief B) punishment C) escape D) rewards
6. International studies have noted that individuals in _____ display the largest number of somatization symptoms. A) Latin America B) the Arctic C) southeast Asia D) the United States
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7. Gavin saw his parents killed, and the next morning he could not see. This is an example of a(n): A) conversion disorder. B) factitious disorder. C) somatic symptom disorder with a predominant pain pattern. D) illness anxiety disorder.
8. Penny banged her knee into a table, causing some bruising and minor swelling. She rechecks her knee constantly, looking for any changes. She has shown the bruise to all of her friends, asking whether they think it will form a clot that breaks free and travels to her heart. Everyone tells her it is nothing, but she is convinced it is a significant problem. Penny is exhibiting signs of: A) conversion disorder. B) somatization disorder. C) illness anxiety disorder. D) pain disorder associated with psychological factors.
9. People who suffer from _____ unrealistically interpret bodily symptoms as signs of a serious illness. A) Munchausen syndrome B) hysterical disorder C) body dysmorphic disorder D) illness anxiety disorder
10. Behaviorists believe that the fears found in illness anxiety disorder have been acquired through: A) overinterpretation of bodily cues. B) unsatisfied sexual desires. C) classical conditioning or modeling. D) hypnotic suggestion.
11. _____ are believed to result from narrowing of the blood vessels followed by expansion of those same vessels. A) Asthmatic episodes B) Muscle contraction headaches C) Hypertensive disorders D) Migraine headaches
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12. Marcus often has a burning sensation or pain in his stomach after eating. He often experiences occasional vomiting. He may be suffering from: A) ulcers. B) muscle contraction. C) hypertension. D) asthma.
13. People with _____ are often very sleepy during the day and have difficulty functioning. A) insomnia B) asthma C) hypertension D) migraine headaches
14. Dalia often sleepwalks and has frequent night terrors. She would most likely be diagnosed with: A) parasomnia disorder. B) hypersomnolence disorder. C) narcolepsy. D) circadian rhythm disorder.
15. The amount of sleep needed _____ over the life span. A) decreases B) fluctuates C) increases D) remains unchanged
16. Oversensitivity of the _____ can cause a person to respond to mildly stressful events as if they were significant events. A) cardiovascular system B) immune system C) autonomic nervous system D) vascular system
17. People in which group are MOST likely to experience a psychophysiological disorder? A) Non-Hispanic white Americans B) African Americans C) Hispanic American males D) Hispanic American females
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18. According to the Social Readjustment Rating Scale, the most stressful event in an adult's life is: A) retirement. B) pregnancy. C) divorce. D) death of a spouse.
19. _____ identify antigens and then multiply and trigger the production of other kinds of immune cells. A) Helper T-cells B) Natural killer T-cells C) B-cells D) Antibodies
20. _____ seek out and destroy body cells that have already been infected by viruses. A) Helper T-cells B) Natural killer T-cells C) B-cells D) Antibodies
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Answer Key 1. C 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. A 8. C 9. D 10. C 11. D 12. A 13. A 14. A 15. A 16. C 17. B 18. D 19. A 20. B
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1. Which individual is LEAST likely to suffer from factitious disorder? A) A man who works as a paramedic as his full-time profession B) A woman who works as a nurse or a medical assistant C) A man who has a subscription to the New England Journal of Medicine, even though he does not work in the medical field D) A woman who received successful surgery for ovarian cancer
2. Shana has been treated in multiple hospitals. She gains admission and receives treatment for symptoms she intentionally caused herself. This behavior BEST reflects: A) hypochondriasis. B) Munchausen syndrome. C) Briquet's syndrome. D) psychophysiological insomnia.
3. Which disorder is marked by a parent making up or producing physical illnesses in his or her own child? A) Munchausen syndrome B) Briquet's syndrome C) Multiple personality disorder D) Munchausen syndrome by proxy
4. In the conversion symptom of _____, numbness begins at the wrist and extends evenly to the fingertips. A) glove anesthesia B) paraplegia C) somatization pattern D) Briquet's syndrome
5. An increase in mass hysteria, in which large numbers of people share psychological or physical maladies that have no apparent cause, can be attributed to: A) social media. B) faking illnesses. C) overreacting. D) groupthink.
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6. Freud centered his explanation of hysterical disorders on the needs and conflicts experienced by _____ in the _____ stage. A) girls; genital B) boys; phallic C) girls; phallic D) boys; anal
7. Today's leading explanations for conversion and somatic symptom disorders come from the: A) psychodynamic, cognitive-behavioral, and eclectic models. B) psychodynamic and cognitive-behavioral models. C) cognitive-behavioral model. D) psychodynamic, cognitive-behavioral, and multicultural models. 8. “Hysterical disorders are forms of communication. They provide the person with a means for expressing emotions that would otherwise be difficult to convey.” This statement BEST reflects the perspective of _____ theorists. A) humanistic B) psychodynamic C) biological D) cognitive-behavioral
9. Individuals with illness anxiety disorder typically receive the kinds of treatment that are applied to _____ disorder. A) obsessive–compulsive B) bipolar C) major depressive D) substance abuse
10. _____ causes the body's airways to narrow periodically, making it hard for air to pass to and from the lungs. A) Insomnia B) Asthma C) Hypertension D) Migraine headache
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11. Dominic has difficulty falling asleep almost each night and once he finally does doze off, he awakens easily. Dominic is suffering from: A) insomnia. B) asthma. C) coronary artery disease. D) migraine headaches.
12. Elle gets extremely bad headaches just on one side of her head. When she gets them, she is dizzy and is nauseous and has even vomited. Which type of headaches is Elle MOST likely experiencing? A) Tension headaches B) Migraine headaches C) Chronic headaches D) Hypertension headaches
13. Hypertension interferes with the proper functioning of the entire _____ system, greatly increasing the likelihood of stroke, heart disease, and kidney problems. A) cardiovascular B) immune C) neurologic D) cardiopulmonary
14. Linda tends to be very cynical and impatient. She feels driven to be the best at everything she does. Linda MOST likely has a(n): A) Type A personality style. B) underperforming autonomic nervous system. C) unresolved Electra complex. D) overabundance of lymphocytes.
15. Which behavior is known to slow the immune system? A) Sleeping more than the recommended amount B) Eating mostly junk food and fast food C) Participating in social events D) Going for daily walks
16. A risk factor for development of a psychophysiological disorder is: A) living in poverty. B) being employed in a white-collar field. C) having more than one child. D) living in a rural area.
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17. A goal of the Social Readjustment Rating Scale is to: A) measure the total amount of stress a person faces over a period of time. B) track cumulative stress levels in different professions. C) identify factors that reduce the effects of stress over time. D) determine severity levels to be included as part of a mental disorder diagnosis.
18. The researchers who developed the Social Readjustment Rating Scale sampled mostly: A) non-Hispanic white Americans. B) African Americans. C) Hispanic Americans. D) Asian Americans.
19. Relaxation training focuses on control over: A) thoughts. B) muscles. C) circulation. D) oxygen intake.
20. In _____, people are connected to machinery that gives them continuous readings about their involuntary body activities. A) behavioral medicine B) relaxation training C) biofeedback training D) meditation
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Answer Key 1. D 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. A 6. C 7. D 8. D 9. A 10. B 11. A 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. B 16. A 17. A 18. A 19. B 20. C
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Chapter 11
1. Compare and contrast the behaviors that patients with bulimia nervosa display versus the behaviors that patients with binge eating display.
2. Identify the similarities and differences in the characteristics of persons who have anorexia and persons who have bulimia.
3. Hilde Bruch developed a psychodynamic theory for eating disorders. Using this theory, give three examples of how an eating disorder may develop. Include a cognitive explanation of eating disorders.
4. Using biological theory, discuss three factors that may point to a biological explanation for eating disorders. Include the relevance of weight set point in your answer.
5. Some people think that society has become obsessed with thinness. Discuss three different types of societal pressure that could be used to support this claim.
6. Discuss three factors involved in how families play a role in the development and maintenance of eating disorders.
7. Is body image a matter of race? Discuss the racial and ethnic differences in the prevalence of eating disorders. Which cultural differences may account for the differences reported?
8. Outline a treatment plan for someone experiencing anorexia that includes the two main goals of treatment, the short-term and long-term treatment objectives, and the use of cognitive-behavioral therapy.
9. Which treatment goals and which techniques would a behavioral clinician use to treat someone with bulimia nervosa?
10. You are on a committee that is tasked with designing a program targeted toward the prevention of eating disorders. Describe at least two specific strategies that should be included to prevent eating disorders in males and two specific strategies that should be included to prevent eating disorders in females. Explain why you selected each strategy.
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Answer Key 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
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1. The disorder characterized by low body weight and a distorted body image is called _____.
2. Anorexia nervosa that is characterized exclusively by controlling the intake of food is called _____ anorexia nervosa.
3. An emaciated woman who perceives herself as too fat illustrates _____ thinking.
4. The cessation of menstruation common to women with anorexia is known as _____.
5. Episodes of overeating followed by vomiting characterize the eating disorder termed _____, or binge-purge syndrome.
6. After a binge, people with bulimia nervosa may force themselves to vomit; misuse laxatives, diuretics, or enemas; begin fasting; or engage in excessive exercise. These are called _____ behaviors.
7. Repeated vomiting or laxative use in bulimia can cause _____ deficiencies, which may lead to weakness, intestinal disorders, kidney disease, or heart damage.
8. More than one-third of individuals with bulimia nervosa display characteristics of a personality disorder—in particular, borderline personality disorder or _____.
9. A key difference between bulimia nervosa and binge eating disorder is that in binge eating disorder the person does not engage in _____.
10. In the body, glucagon-like peptide-1 functions as a natural _____.
11. The weight to which a person's body naturally returns after a diet is known as his or her _____.
12. According to Salvador Minuchin, a(n) _____ family pattern is one in which members are overly concerned with one another's affairs.
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13. Treatment of anorexia nervosa includes helping the person quickly return to a healthy body weight and improving the person's nutritional status. This phase of treatment is called _____.
14. A therapist exposes a patient with bulimia to a binge-inducing stimulus and then prevents binge eating. This therapy approach is called _____.
15. _____ medication has been shown to be particularly effective in treating individuals with bulimia nervosa.
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Answer Key 1. anorexia nervosa 2. restricting-type 3. distorted 4. amenorrhea 5. bulimia nervosa 6. compensatory 7. potassium 8. avoidant personality disorder 9. compensatory behaviors 10. appetite suppressant 11. weight set point 12. enmeshed 13. nutritional rehabilitation 14. exposure and response prevention 15. Antidepressant
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1. Which person would be MOST likely to cut out sweets, then eliminate more and more types of foods, but not engage in forced vomiting? A) Someone experiencing restricting-type anorexia nervosa B) Someone experiencing purging-type anorexia C) Someone experiencing bulimia nervosa D) Someone experiencing acute-type bulimia
2. A college-aged woman with a history of dieting has significantly reduced her food intake. She views her constant hunger pains as a positive sign that she is maintaining control over her eating. Her weight has dropped sharply below average, but she still thinks she is overweight. You suspect possible anorexia nervosa. Which other sign or symptoms would be present with anorexia nervosa? A) A history of mental illness B) Fear of becoming overweight C) Extroverted personality D) History of being a picky eater
3. A person who stopped eating candy and other sweets, then gradually eliminated other foods until he or she was eating almost nothing, could be experiencing: A) binge-purge type of anorexia nervosa. B) sweet-phobia type of anorexia nervosa. C) restricted-type anorexia nervosa. D) exercise-induced anorexia nervosa.
4. What is the first type of food usually eliminated from the diet of a person who is developing restricting-type anorexia? A) Meat B) Sweets C) Breads D) Nuts and grains
5. Which characteristic is very common in individuals with anorexia nervosa but significantly less common in those who have bulimia nervosa or binge eating? A) Distortion of body image B) Fear of becoming overweight C) Preoccupation with food D) Loss of menstrual periods
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6. A person who loses weight by forcing herself to vomit after meals or by using laxatives and who otherwise fits the definition of anorexia is experiencing: A) binge eating/purging-type anorexia nervosa. B) food-phobia anorexia nervosa. C) restricted-type anorexia nervosa. D) variable-limited anorexia nervosa.
7. Which statement is NOT true about anorexia nervosa? A) It usually follows a diet in someone who is of normal weight or slightly overweight. B) It can follow a stressful event such as divorce, a move from home, or a personal failure. C) Fatalities occur by suicide or serious medical problems due to starvation. D) About 35 percent of people who experience anorexia nervosa are male.
8. Which statement is TRUE regarding anorexia nervosa? A) Most people recover, but those who do not are most likely to die from starvation or suicide. B) Death from starvation is a common outcome in people with this condition. C) About half of all people with this condition will experience a life-threatening cardiac event. D) The death rate from anorexia has declined to less than 1 percent.
9. The peak age range for the development of anorexia nervosa is: A) 7 to 10. B) 10 to 13. C) 14 to 20. D) 20 to 25.
10. The primary motivating emotion a person with anorexia experiences is: A) fear. B) anger. C) shame. D) hate.
11. The preoccupation with food characteristic of anorexia nervosa is thought to: A) result from starvation. B) be the underlying cause of the disorder. C) be more pronounced in younger children with anorexia. D) result from overeating.
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12. What is the significance of the 1940s study by Keys et al. in which healthy individuals placed on a semistarvation diet developed a preoccupation with food? A) This study supports the idea that a preoccupation with food is a result of starvation. B) This study demonstrates that a preoccupation with food is a natural event and not of medical concern. C) This study shows that healthy individuals are likely to develop anorexia nervosa when placed on a semistarvation diet. D) This study suggests that a preoccupation with food is a distinguishing characteristic between those with anorexia nervosa and those without it.
13. A modern explanation of why many people with anorexia continually have food-related thoughts and dreams is that such thoughts and dreams: A) serve as a substitute for actual eating. B) fulfill basic needs of the id. C) help the individual limit food consumption while awake. D) are the result of food deprivation.
14. Which description is LEAST likely to characterize the behavior of someone experiencing anorexia nervosa? A) Careful preparation and planning of the food one eats during the day B) Feeling oneself to be unattractively overweight C) A view that food deprivation makes one a better person D) A hesitancy to think about food
15. People who do not have anorexia and are placed on a starvation diet show many of the food preoccupations of people with anorexia nervosa. Which conclusions can be drawn from this finding? A) Restrictive diets cause anorexia nervosa. B) Preoccupation with food cannot be viewed as a defining characteristic of anorexia. C) Preoccupation with food is likely the result of starvation, rather than the underlying cause of anorexia. D) Forced starvation increases the likelihood of developing anorexia nervosa.
16. The MOST common cognitive disturbance seen in individuals with anorexia nervosa is a: A) distorted body image. B) revulsion toward food. C) major clinical depression. D) distorted view of others.
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17. People suffering from anorexia nervosa tend to: A) overestimate their body size. B) underestimate their body size. C) correctly estimate their body size. D) vary in accuracy in estimating their body size.
18. Which characteristic is MOST consistent with anorexia nervosa? A) A refusal to think about food at all B) A view that one's body is too thin C) Body size overestimation D) Distorted perception of others' sizes 19. If a person says, “I must be perfect in every way. I'll be a better person if I deprive myself of food,” that person is engaging in: A) distorted thinking. B) wishful thinking. C) obsessive thinking. D) critical thinking.
20. Individuals with anorexia nervosa often have which psychological problem? A) Obsessive thoughts B) Borderline personality disorder C) Multiple phobias D) Episodes of mania
21. The psychological disorder that anorexia nervosa MOST resembles is: A) a simple phobia. B) narcissistic personality disorder. C) borderline personality disorder. D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
22. If a person were looking at a photograph of herself and adjusting the size until she thought the picture looked like herself, she would MOST likely be participating in an assessment of her: A) accuracy in estimating body size. B) self-esteem. C) readiness for therapy. D) susceptibility to societal stereotypes.
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23. Which psychological problem is LEAST likely to be associated with anorexia nervosa? A) Depression B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder C) Schizophrenia D) Substance abuse
24. Which condition is NOT associated with anorexia nervosa? A) Substance abuse B) A personality disorder C) Low self-esteem D) Anxiety
25. A patient in therapy who eats exactly eight pieces of bread that he has carefully made into balls of equal diameter is displaying a symptom of anorexia nervosa related to: A) schizophrenia. B) depression. C) obsessive-compulsive disorder. D) substance abuse.
26. A person who has anorexia nervosa has dry, rough, cracked skin and may develop lanugo. Why would you not expect to see these symptoms in someone with binge eating disorder? A) These symptoms develop primarily in women. B) These symptoms are the result of an overactive thyroid. C) These symptoms result from nutritional deficiencies caused by starvation. D) These symptoms result from excessive, unhealthy levels of exercise.
27. Which problem is common in anorexia nervosa? A) Amenorrhea B) Increased heart rate C) High blood pressure D) Elevated body temperature
28. A common cardiovascular effect of anorexia is a slow heart rate (bradycardia). Which explanation BEST describes why this is true? A) Exercise lowers a person's heart rate. B) The body is trying to conserve energy. C) Less blood flow is needed in persons who are underweight. D) The body has lost its insulating outer layer of fat.
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29. A woman with anorexia has lanugo. What has happened? A) She has lost body hair. B) She has developed double vision. C) Her menstrual cycle has become irregular. D) She has grown fine silky hair on her body.
30. The disorder that is characterized by eating binges followed by engaging in a compensatory behavior such as forced vomiting is called: A) obesity. B) obsession. C) anorexia nervosa. D) bulimia nervosa.
31. Someone who fasts or exercises strenuously following a binge is engaging in: A) compensatory behaviors. B) purging. C) enmeshment. D) exposure and response prevention.
32. Bulimia is always characterized by: A) uncontrollable overeating. B) obsessive-compulsive disorder C) fasting and frantic exercise. D) being underweight.
33. Which is NOT a compensatory behavior for someone with bulimia? A) Excessive exercise B) Liquid-only diet C) Forced vomiting D) Use of diuretics
34. The central feature of bulimia nervosa is: A) excessive dieting and weight loss. B) fanatic exercising preceded by binge eating. C) purging either by vomiting or by using laxatives. D) binge eating followed by a compensatory behavior.
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35. Which description BEST represents someone with bulimia nervosa? A) A woman concerned about putting on a few extra pounds decides to replace her usual junk food snacks with fruit and begins a new high-intensity exercise program. B) A woman carefully monitors everything she eats. She always skips breakfast and restricts meals to less than 200 calories. She avoids social situations where food is likely to be served. C) A woman regularly tells herself that she is going to eat a small healthy meal but then commonly finds herself eating an entire pizza, a carton of ice cream, and a box of doughnuts at one sitting. She immediately feels shame and guilt and then forces herself to throw it all up. D) During periods of peak stress, a woman repeatedly finds herself devouring any sweets she can find: brownies, donuts, ice cream, and so on. She consumes thousands of calories in one sitting and immediately experiences guilt.
36. A woman eats cookies, cake, ice cream, and almost anything else that is sweet. At some point during the binge, she takes a huge dose of a laxative to “empty out” the food. Her taking the laxative, and the assumption underlying why she does it, would lead to a diagnosis of: A) binge eating disorder. B) bulimia nervosa. C) anorexia nervosa. D) an eating disorder not otherwise specified.
37. A person admits that for the past few months, once or twice per week she has ended up consuming significant amounts of food and then vomiting afterward to prevent weight gain. Which other factor would have to be present to meet the diagnostic criteria for bulimia nervosa? A) History of intense dieting B) Signs of esophagitis and damage to the teeth C) Body weight that is significantly underweight D) Extreme concern with one's body shape and weight
38. After eating chips, burgers, and fries and drinking two shakes, a woman goes to the gym to “work it off.” She does 90 minutes on the elliptical, spends an hour on the stair stepper, and lifts weights for another hour. She then fasts for 72 hours. She repeats this pattern a few days later. Based on this information, which diagnosis would be MOST fitting? A) Binge eating disorder B) Bulimia nervosa C) Anorexia nervosa D) Eating disorder not otherwise specified
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39. Which person is MOST likely to have bulimia based on the descriptions provided? A) Someone who has lost 40 pounds in 4 months by eliminating sweets from his or her diet B) Someone who exercises compulsively and meticulously plans and tracks every meal C) Someone who often “loses” control while eating and tends to eat even when not hungry D) Someone who repeatedly gorges on food and as a result spends an excessive amount of time working out
40. To qualify for a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa, compensatory behaviors must: A) occur. B) involve vomiting. C) effectively cause weight loss. D) cause pathological changes in the body.
41. Compared with people with anorexia nervosa, MOST people with bulimia: A) are younger. B) have less education. C) are of a more normal weight. D) have obsessive thoughts about food.
42. People with which eating disorder are MOST likely to be obese? A) Those with bulimia nervosa B) Those with binge eating/purging-type anorexia nervosa C) Those with restricting-type anorexia nervosa D) Those with binge eating disorder
43. Many teenagers go on occasional eating binges. Which statement is TRUE about this behavior? A) This behavior is perfectly normal. B) This behavior inevitably leads to bulimia. C) Most people who engage in this behavior do not have bulimia. D) This behavior inevitably leads to excessive exercise.
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44. If a person had bulimia nervosa and engaged in frequent binges, about how many of his or her binges per week would a friend of this person expect to witness? A) 10 B) 0 C) 7 D) 40
45. What appears to be the key factor in determining the types of food that are likely to be eaten in a binge? A) Oral stimulation through crunchiness B) High protein through meat C) Rapidity through soft texture D) Taste of the food
46. Regarding emotions, the pattern common in bulimia from pre-binge, through binge, to post-binge is BEST described in sequence as: A) control, enjoyment, shame. B) relaxation, pleasure, enjoyment. C) tension, powerlessness, shame. D) shame, doubt, guilt.
47. A person with bulimia nervosa just binge ate a large assortment of desserts. If the person were to verbalize his or her feelings immediately after the binge, what would the person MOST likely say? A) “I know I shouldn't eat that much in one sitting, but since I barely ate yesterday, it's okay.” B) “I have so much energy. I'm ready to tackle that new project I've been putting off.” C) “I should probably exercise for an extra 30 minutes tonight.” D) “I can't believe I just did that. I'm disgusting and hopeless.”
48. In 2017, the Calorie Control Council reported that the average Thanksgiving meal consists of more than 3,000 calories, yet this is not considered a binge eating episode. Why not? A) The person did not engage in purging behavior after eating the dinner. B) The calories come from a variety of food types, often including nutritional foods. C) Others eating the same dinner did not view the amount of food consumed as a “binge.” D) The person did not experience a loss of control while eating or feel shame afterward.
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49. A teenager has recently developed signs of bulimia nervosa. She has been binge eating alone in her room and vomits immediately afterward to try to control her weight. Why will this not result in sustainable weight loss? A) Purging increases hunger, which decreases metabolism and triggers more frequent binges. B) Calorie absorption occurs almost instantaneously, with 80 to 90 percent of calories being absorbed before vomiting occurs. C) With each incident of self-induced vomiting, it becomes more difficult to trigger the vomiting reflex. D) Vomiting increases sodium levels, which results in water retention.
50. Which statement BEST describes the effects of compensatory behaviors that people with bulimia use in controlling weight? A) Vomiting immediately after eating prevents the absorption of 90 percent of calories consumed. B) Engaging in repeated vomiting leads to more frequent and intense binges due to the inability to feel sated. C) Using laxatives immediately after eating prevents absorption of 60 percent of calories consumed but caused increased fluid intake. D) Using diuretics regularly leads to long-term inability to absorb calories, even months after the person stops using them.
51. Participants who have just completed a very-low-calorie weight-loss program would be MOST at risk for: A) bingeing. B) anorexia. C) substance abuse. D) family problems.
52. Immediately preceding the onset of an eating disorder in a woman, one would MOST likely find that she had: A) recently given birth. B) gone through a period of intense criticism from her family. C) experienced a growth spurt. D) been successful in losing weight and had been praised by family.
53. Similarities between bulimia and anorexia include: A) both tend to begin after a period of dieting among people afraid of becoming obese. B) both involve a reluctance to think about food, weight, or appearance. C) both involve an underestimation of one's weight and body size. D) both tend to be related to personality disorders.
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54. A young woman who is very concerned about being attractive to others, is more sexually experienced, and has relatively few obsessive qualities is: A) more likely to be experiencing anorexia than bulimia. B) more likely to be experiencing bulimia than anorexia. C) equally likely to be experiencing bulimia or anorexia. D) showing no symptoms that have been found to be related to eating disorders.
55. Calorie-restrictive dieting has been cited as a common precursor to eating disorders. Which statement BEST supports this relationship? A) Restrictive diets increase the body's metabolism, which increases calorie expenditure and thereby results in more substantial weight loss. B) After sustained calorie restriction, many people experience long-term early satiety, making it difficult to resume “normal” calorie intake. C) Extended periods of calorie restriction can heighten a person's feelings about weight and food, including feelings of guilt or shame related to food and eating. D) Prolonged or repeated dieting commonly causes food aversion to a wide range of food types, which then leads to a continuation of reduced caloric intake.
56. Two individuals are being treated for eating disorders. One has bulimia, and the other has anorexia. Which behavior would be MORE likely in the person with bulimia? A) Cutting food into perfectly symmetrical bites B) Eating only foods that are considered “safe” C) Displaying symptoms of avoidant personality disorder D) Experiencing serious medical consequences from the disorder
57. The medical problem that is twice as frequent in women with anorexia as it is in women with bulimia is: A) hair loss. B) amenorrhea. C) hypokalemia. D) esophageal bleeding.
58. Which medical condition is MORE common in people with bulimia than those with anorexia? A) Amenorrhea B) Dental problems C) High potassium levels in the blood D) Growth of immature body hair
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59. People who are overweight and regularly binge eat without compensatory behaviors are experiencing: A) binge-purge disorder. B) anorexia-bulimia disorder. C) binge eating disorder. D) noncompensatory binge disorder.
60. Which statement is TRUE regarding binge eating disorder? A) Binge eating disorder is associated with being overweight or obese. B) People with binge eating disorder typically eat only high-calorie foods. C) Binge eating disorder is the primary cause of obesity in the United States. D) People with binge eating disorder eat only when hungry, but then overeat.
61. Statistically speaking, which eating disorder is a male most likely to develop? A) Restricted-type anorexia nervosa B) Binge eating disorder C) Purging-type anorexia nervosa D) Bulimia nervosa
62. How does binge eating disorder differ from bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa? A) People with binge eating disorder are not completely satisfied with the way they look, but they focus on body image much less than individuals with anorexia or bulimia nervosa. B) People with binge eating disorder do not experience shame or guilt after binge eating. C) People with binge eating disorder tend to develop the disorder later in life, typically in their twenties. D) People with binge eating disorder report experiencing significantly less control during bingeing than do those with anorexia or bulimia nervosa.
63. A person who eats large amounts of food in a short period and does this repeatedly, with no other symptoms, would be said to have: A) a binge eating disorder. B) anorexia nervosa. C) bulimia nervosa. D) no eating disorder.
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64. The currently accepted view of eating disorders is that the cause is: A) cognitive. B) biological. C) behavioral. D) multidimensional.
65. If a therapist thought that eating disorders were BEST explained by an interaction of sociocultural, psychological, and biological factors, that therapist would be taking which type of perspective? A) Monodimensional B) Multidimensional C) Cognitive-behavioral D) Outdated
66. According to Hilde Bruch, which is an example of ineffective parenting that could make children prone to eating disorders? A) Parents feed children crying from hunger and comfort ones crying from fear. B) Parents feed children too much, regardless of whether they are crying. C) Parents feed anxious children and comfort tired ones. D) Parents feed children too little.
67. Hilde Bruch's ego deficiency view of children with eating disorders involves: A) children lacking control over their lives and misperceiving internal cues. B) parents who failed to anticipate and meet their children's needs, especially for food. C) children's hypersensitivity to and accuracy in interpreting internal cues. D) hostile and abusive parents.
68. According to Hilde Bruch, ineffective parents put their children at risk for eating disorders by: A) overcontrolling their children. B) incorrectly interpreting their children's needs. C) causing their children to become too attentive to internal signals. D) giving their children too much help and assistance.
69. Parents who feed their children when they are anxious and comfort them when they are tired, rather than giving them a nap, run the risk of producing children who: A) cannot assess their own needs. B) are insensitive to others. C) are overly dependent on internal cues. D) are too independent.
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70. People with alexithymia are NOT able to: A) tell when they are hungry. B) admit what is causing their eating disorder. C) put descriptive labels on what they are feeling. D) accurately represent how large they are.
71. Compared with someone who is happy and self-confident, a person who is bored and depressed is: A) more likely to eat nutritional food. B) equally likely to eat nutritional food as junk food. C) unable to discriminate junk food from nutritional food. D) more likely to eat junk food.
72. Which example BEST describes someone with alexithymia? A) In response to not getting a job offer, a person says, “I'm disappointed, and a little embarrassed. I thought I did okay during the interview.” B) After receiving a critical performance review, a man says, “I don't feel good.” C) Upon being surprised with tickets to a concert, a woman thinks, “I'm so excited to go tonight! This is going to be great.” D) After being selected to present at an upcoming conference, a person thinks, “I'm so nervous. I better practice my speech a lot before the conference.” 73. “I have this vague sense that something isn't right, but I just can't describe it,” is a statement MOST likely said by someone experiencing: A) exposure to response intervention. B) an enmeshed family. C) alexithymia. D) a weight set point.
74. People are MOST likely to eat junk food when they are experiencing: A) depression. B) anxiety. C) love. D) boredom.
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75. In general, which statement about feelings that trigger eating is TRUE? A) A person is much more likely to eat nutritional foods than junk food when in love. B) Anxiety is the feeling that is least likely to trigger the eating of junk or nutritional foods. C) Positive emotions are less likely than negative emotions to trigger the eating of junk food. D) Self-confident people basically don't eat junk food.
76. According to cognitive theorists, the underlying distortion in eating disorders is related to: A) a misunderstanding of the relationship between food and weight. B) eating that is uncontrolled. C) too much concern with eating, shape, and weight. D) an inability to control one's emotions.
77. If researchers find that many people with eating disorders also have symptoms of depression, they know that: A) eating disorders cause depression. B) depression causes eating disorders. C) something else causes both eating disorders and depression. D) eating disorders and depression are somehow related. 78. Where would one be MOST likely to see the sentence, “Nothing tastes as good as skinny feels”? A) On a bulimia blog B) In a treatment program for individuals with anorexia C) On a pro-anorexia Web site D) In an obesity prevention program
79. Pro-Ana websites view anorexia not as a disorder, but as a: A) joke. B) characteristic. C) hobby. D) lifestyle.
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80. Support for the idea that depressive disorders set the stage for eating disorders comes from evidence that shows: A) high levels of serotonin in the brain. B) eating disorders have been successfully treated using antianxiety medication. C) close relatives of people with eating disorders have a high rate of depressive disorders. D) people with eating disorders are not more likely themselves to be diagnosed with depression.
81. The levels of _____ are low in many people with depression as well as those with eating disorders. A) GABA B) serotonin C) histamine D) norepinephrine
82. Compared with the general public, people with eating disorders are more likely to: A) experience depression. B) suffer from mania. C) experience panic attacks. D) have higher serotonin levels. 83. “Depression and eating disorders are correlated.” What does this statement mean? A) Depression causes people to be more likely to have eating disorders. B) Eating disorders cause people to be more likely to be depressed. C) Poor parenting causes both eating disorders and depression. D) People with eating disorders also tend to experience depression.
84. The concordance rate for anorexia nervosa in identical twins is 70 percent. This means that: A) fraternal twins also have a 70 percent chance of developing anorexia. B) in 70 percent of identical twins, both twins have anorexia. C) fraternal twins have a 30 percent rate of anorexia. D) if one identical twin has anorexia, there is a 70 percent chance that the other twin has anorexia too.
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85. In which case is someone MOST likely to develop an eating disorder? A) If the person has a fraternal twin with anorexia nervosa B) If the person has a fraternal twin with bulimia nervosa C) If the person has an identical twin with anorexia nervosa D) If the person has an identical twin with bulimia nervosa
86. Serotonin levels are low in those with eating disorders and in those with obsessive-compulsive disorder and depression. This means that: A) low serotonin causes all three disorders. B) all the disorders cause serotonin to decrease. C) there is a relationship, but no evidence of causation. D) if we raise serotonin levels, we will cure eating disorders.
87. The part of the brain MOST closely associated with the control of eating and body weight is the: A) thalamus. B) brain stem. C) hypothalamus. D) cerebral cortex.
88. If an experimenter stimulates a rat's lateral hypothalamus, the MOST likely result is: A) hunger. B) loss of appetite. C) death by starvation. D) intense sexual desire.
89. Which medical breakthrough is MOST likely to appeal to an overweight person? A) A way to safely block GLP-1 in humans B) A way to safely activate the lateral hypothalamus in humans C) A way to safely deactivate the ventromedial hypothalamus in humans D) A way to safely increase GLP-1 in humans
90. Recent research has identified a number of contributing factors related to obesity. Which is NOT noted as a common reason a person becomes obese? A) Defective GLP-1 receptors B) Doing a lot of eating around others C) Having obese biological parents D) Lack of willpower
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91. One of the characters on a popular TV show is discussing another character with severe obesity. She says, “I don't know how someone could let themselves become that fat.” Why is this type of commentary so harmful? A) It suggests that it is not possible to be healthy while severely obese. B) It fosters a sense of shame in those who are overweight or obese. C) It promotes humor as a means of discussing a serious health problem. D) It supports the idea that overweight or obese persons should not be actors.
92. Which is a potential sign of a family system that places an unhealthy importance on appearance? A) A mother is critical of her daughter's short skirts and heavy makeup use. B) A mother insists that her daughter learn the basics of meal planning and cooking. C) A father repeatedly jokes about his son's “scrawny” legs and tells him he should start lifting weights. D) A father encourages his daughter to try out for the softball team even though she has not expressed interest in sports.
93. What is the most common long-term outcome of dieting to lose weight? A) Regaining the weight B) Developing an eating disorder C) Maintaining a lower—but not the lowest—weight D) Permanently lowering the body's metabolism rate
94. If one wanted to decrease the rates of eating disorders among U.S. children and adolescents, addressing which issue would MOST likely have the biggest impact? A) Rates of exercise and dietary habits B) Western notions of beauty and societal values C) Level of prejudice against obese people D) Knowledge about the physiological correlates of obesity
95. What is a known effect of GLP-1? A) It increases body metabolism. B) It helps determine the weight set point. C) It decreases the absorption of calories. D) It suppresses appetite.
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96. Many people regain weight after losing it. Which biological explanation BEST explains why? A) Abnormally high levels of serotonin persist despite dieting. B) The hypothalamus stops producing the appetite suppressant GLP-1. C) The brain is trying to restore the person to a set weight point. D) The ventromedial hypothalamus undergoes excessive stimulation.
97. According to weight set point theory, which is a consequence of dieting below one's weight set point? A) There is increased hypothalamic activity, producing a revulsion to food. B) Body changes produce further weight loss. C) There is an increase of hunger. D) There is a continuing loss of weight no matter how many calories are consumed.
98. The weight set point is the: A) weight a person is predisposed to maintain. B) body's natural weight. C) ideal weight that a person desires to achieve. D) average weight for people of the same height.
99. Why does the textbook's author describe dieters who have fallen to a weight below their set point as being engaged in a “battle against themselves”? A) Their hypothalamus has been damaged. B) They have an emotional conflict between their desire to diet and their desire to eat. C) Their brains are working against them to get them back to their “set point.” D) What they want for themselves and what society tells them is attractive are two different things.
100. Based on past results, one would predict that women who win the Miss America Pageant in the future will: A) be larger than those who lose. B) be about a pound heavier than the previous year's winner. C) be smaller than those in the past. D) have larger chests but smaller hips than current winners.
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101. If one found that the average weight and size of cheerleaders had declined significantly over the years, and that those who aspired to be cheerleaders had a high level of eating disorders, that would be evidence for a _____ cause of eating disorders. A) societal B) family C) psychological D) biological
102. Which professions put one at GREATEST risk for an eating disorder? A) Psychologists and psychiatrists B) Doctors and nurses C) Actors and certain athletes D) Dress designers and make-up artists
103. Which person is at GREATEST risk for an eating disorder? A) A college-age woman who is not an athlete B) A woman who is lower on the socioeconomic scale C) An African American woman D) A female gymnast
104. Studies have reported that adolescent girls who spend increased time on Facebook are more likely to have a negative body image and display signs of eating disorders. Which aspect of Facebook MOST likely accounts for this association? A) Facebook is an image-driven platform. B) Facebook users tend to be covert narcissists. C) Adolescent users tend to be more honest in their status post updates. D) Adolescents commonly have a large number of peers who also use the platform.
105. A study showed a positive correlation between the time spent on Facebook and the likelihood of experiencing an eating disorder among adolescent girls. This result showed that: A) girls who spend time on Facebook are less likely to have eating disorders. B) having an eating disorder causes a person to disengage from face-to-face interactions. C) being on Facebook is a way to avoid eating. D) exposure to social media might be related to an increase in eating disorders.
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106. In one study, prospective parents rated a picture of a chubby child as less _____ than an average-weight child. A) friendly and intelligent B) masculine C) emotionally stable D) likely to succeed
107. When researchers offered a choice of a thin doll or a chubby doll to preschoolers, the children chose the: A) doll that looks most like they do. B) thin doll but didn't know why. C) thin doll because they said they want to be thin themselves. D) chubby doll but didn't know why.
108. Which example would you expect to negatively influence an adolescent girl's body image? A) Snapchat filters that give people cartoon features B) The overabundance of selfies posted to social media sites C) The large number of fake quotations regarding weight loss that are shared online D) Photo manipulation of images making women look thinner than they are in real life
109. Family members are overinvolved in each other's lives but are affectionate and loyal. This description fits Salvador Minuchin's definition of an: A) autonomous family pattern. B) underfunctioning family pattern. C) enmeshed family pattern. D) institutionalized family pattern.
110. Which sign would MOST likely suggest that an adolescent is part of an enmeshed family? A) The adolescent's emotional state mirrors that of his mother. B) The mother insists that the family eat dinner together every night. C) The adolescent prefers to play video games rather than play outside. D) The adolescent spends a significant amount of time on social media.
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111. In an enmeshed family, the push for independence at adolescence threatens the apparent family harmony. As a result, the family may subtly force the child to take on a “sick” role. Why is this done? A) To make the child less affected by societal pressures B) To increase bonding among all family members C) To ensure the child maintains dependence on the family D) To punish the child for abandoning family responsibilities
112. Which conclusion about family patterns and eating disorders is MOST supported by systematic research? A) People with eating disorders come from enmeshed families. B) Children who take on a “sick” role will likely develop eating disorders. C) Individuality and independence are related to the development of eating disorders. D) Families of individuals with bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa vary widely.
113. Current research on eating disorders is MOST consistent with which statement? A) Non-Hispanic white American women have better body images and fewer problems with eating disorders than do African American women. B) African American women have better body images and fewer problems with eating disorders than do non-Hispanic white American women. C) Both non-Hispanic white American women and African American women have better body images and fewer problems with eating disorders these days than they did in the past. D) The rates of eating disorders are increasing in minority women and are approaching the rates found in non-Hispanic white American women.
114. If current trends concerning the body images of African American women and non-Hispanic white American women continue, one would expect that in the future: A) non-Hispanic white American women would become more like African American women. B) the body images of non-Hispanic white American women would become more realistic. C) African American culture would become more influential among white Americans. D) African American women would show increasing body image dissatisfaction.
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115. Changes in body image among African American women and among women in non-Westernized cultures support the idea that _____ has/have a strong influence on body image. A) genetic similarities B) cognitive distortions C) exposure to white U.S. culture D) the impact of gender
116. The rates of eating disorders among African American women are rising to levels approaching the rates for non-Hispanic white Americans. This is MOST likely due to: A) increases in the availability of junk food. B) alexithymia. C) the increase in the number of men with eating disorders. D) acculturation.
117. A study of college men showed that they describe the ideal male as _____ and the ideal female as _____. A) slim and trim; slim and trim B) muscular; muscular C) muscular; thin D) athletic; strong
118. What statement BEST explains why eating disorders are less common in males than in females? A) Compared with females, males are less concerned with how they are judged by others. B) Eating disorders are overdiagnosed in females. C) Males are less susceptible to brain chemistry changes than females are. D) Males are more likely to achieve weight loss through exercise than through dieting.
119. Which statement BEST reflects the relationship between gender and eating disorders? A) Most cases of eating disorders occur in males. B) Most cases of eating disorders begin in girls after the age of 18 years. C) Most cases of eating disorders occur in females. D) Most cases of eating disorders occur in females in Asian countries.
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120. Which situation would be MOST likely to lead to a diagnosis of muscle dysmorphia? A) A man diets excessively, trying to have a body more like a woman's. B) A man exercises excessively to lose weight and muscle mass. C) A man who is excessively obese engages in binge eating. D) A man is muscular but does not see himself as being muscular, so he continues to strive for a perfect body.
121. The MOST appropriate diagnosis for a man who is strong and fit but does not see himself that way and continues to push himself is: A) muscle dysmorphia. B) anorexia nervosa. C) bulimia nervosa. D) reverse Barbie syndrome.
122. A man with muscle dysmorphia is MOST likely to: A) be diagnosed with anorexia. B) believe himself to be too muscularly developed despite the fact that he is not. C) concentrate on the regulation of his eating rather than excessive weight lifting. D) feel that he is scrawny despite the fact that he is not.
123. The first step in treating anorexia nervosa is to: A) correct family coping patterns. B) resolve unresolved oral conflicts. C) correct maladaptive thought patterns. D) help the person start to regain the lost weight.
124. The major disadvantage of using forced tube-feeding for patients with eating disorders who refuse to eat is that the patients may: A) become distrustful of the medical establishment and uncooperative with further treatment. B) actually lose more weight than if they were not force-fed. C) gain weight too quickly. D) be diagnosed with bulimia.
125. What is the BEST treatment approach for a person with an eating disorder? A) Focus only on changing the poor eating habits. B) Look for and treat any underlying physiological disorders. C) Explore possible underlying psychological disorders and treat them accordingly. D) First focus on changing the person's eating habits and then identify and treat any underlying causes.
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126. The treatment that has been the MOST popular for restoring weight among persons with anorexia is: A) drug therapy. B) intravenous feedings. C) supportive psychotherapy. D) supportive nursing care and a high-calorie diet.
127. Patients with anorexia receive a gradually increasing diet over the course of several weeks. The form of therapy they are receiving is: A) autonomy and self-awareness training. B) cognitive-behavioral therapy. C) nutritional rehabilitation. D) biofeedback training.
128. All treatments for anorexia nervosa share the long-term common goal of: A) producing weight gain in the patient. B) addressing the underlying causes of the disorders. C) moving the patient out of the situation that caused the problem. D) forcing the patient to accept responsibility for his or her actions.
129. Lasting improvement for a person with anorexia nervosa depends on: A) ensuring that the person follows a high-protein diet. B) providing long-term drug therapy over several years. C) addressing underlying psychological problems. D) recognizing the need to give up control.
130. The MOST realistic statement a person with anorexia would make following cognitive treatment is: A) “I expect to feel fat because of my illness.” B) “I no longer feel fat.” C) “Although I'm fat, I like my body now.” D) “I don't just feel fat; I am fat.” 131. A patient with anorexia who says, “My self-worth is not dependent on my weight,” has most likely received: A) antidepressant medications. B) exposure and response prevention. C) cognitive-behavioral therapy. D) treatment for family enmeshment.
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132. Which statement is an example of a disturbed cognition that might be present in someone being treated for anorexia? A) “I don't talk about my feelings; I never have.” B) “My weight and shape determine my value.” C) “I am free to speak my mind and others shouldn't turn away.” D) “Whatever I feel, she has to feel, too.”
133. The treatment for anorexia may include family therapy. As part of family therapy, the patient and family participate in therapeutic family meals. What is the MOST likely goal of this activity? A) To help the patient associate eating with positive social interactions B) To provide feedback and guidance on the nutritional quality of the meal served C) To increase interpersonal bonding between the patient and other family members D) To observe the family dynamics during mealtime and address unhealthy behaviors
134. What is the MOST common outcome for individuals treated for anorexia nervosa? A) Sustained restoration of weight and medical improvements B) Correction of eating patterns but irreversible damage to the reproductive organs C) Long-term partial weight gain but lifelong underweight status D) Short-term recovery followed recurrences of anorexic behavior
135. Which medical problem associated with anorexia is MOST likely to lead to death? A) Amenorrhea B) Skin and nail dryness C) Growth of lanugo D) Electrolyte imbalances
136. Research on the aftermath of anorexia nervosa shows that: A) although psychological difficulties improve, weight gain is minimal. B) although weight gain is good, most individuals cannot hold a job. C) although weight gain is good, women with anorexia fail to regain menstruation. D) the death rate from anorexia appears to be declining.
137. Which statement about recovery from anorexia is true? A) The death rate from anorexia has been increasing recently. B) Anorexic behavior recurs in about one-third of recovered patients. C) Most recovered patients experience marital dissatisfaction and are ineffective as employees. D) Few recovered patients continue to express concern about weight and appearance.
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138. What is a likely long-term consequence of anorexia? A) Failure to gain weight B) Failure to menstruate C) Continuing concern about weight and appearance D) Inability to succeed at a job
139. For which individual is recovery from anorexia MOST likely? A) Someone who is a teenager rather than a young adult B) Someone who has lost a relatively large percentage of body weight C) Someone who also has sex problems D) Someone who enters therapy late in his or her disorder
140. All the treatment methods for bulimia nervosa share the immediate goal of: A) changing distorted self-perceptions. B) addressing the underlying causes of the bulimic patterns. C) assisting patients to eliminate their binge-purge patterns. D) forcing patients to accept the responsibility for their actions.
141. The use of a food diary to keep track of eating behavior in the treatment of patients with bulimia is MOST likely to be used by a therapist who relies on the: A) cognitive perspective. B) interpersonal perspective. C) behavioral perspective. D) psychodynamic perspective.
142. Peter is a behavioral therapist who exposes patients with bulimia to situations that usually cause binge episodes and then prevents them from binge eating. This technique is called: A) skillful frustration. B) temptation-restriction. C) willpower reinforcement. D) exposure and response prevention.
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143. A therapist who sat with a patient with bulimia while the patient ate appropriate quantities of “forbidden” foods, and then stayed until the patient no longer had the urge to purge, would be practicing: A) exposure and response prevention. B) group insight-oriented therapy. C) correction and cognitive misperceptions. D) supportive nursing care.
144. One of the therapy methods commonly used to treat bulimia nervosa is: A) flooding. B) exposure and response prevention. C) aversive therapy. D) systematic desensitization.
145. The medication MOST helpful in the treatment of bulimia is an: A) antianxiety drug. B) antidepressant drug. C) antipsychotic drug. D) antiemetic drug (to eliminate vomiting).
146. Relapse for people with bulimia and for people with anorexia is MOST likely to be triggered by: A) weight gain. B) life stresses. C) media exposure. D) medication withdrawal.
147. Relapses of people with bulimia are MOST likely to occur following: A) time spent with others who have bulimia. B) life stresses. C) periods of stomach sickness. D) consumption of desserts and other sweets.
148. Which person recovering from bulimia is MOST likely to experience a relapse? A) A person who made progress early on in treatment B) A person who developed bulimia as a young adult C) A male D) A person who had a pattern of frequent vomiting during the disorder
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149. Treatments used to treat binge eating disorder are typically: A) similar to those used to treat bulimia nervosa. B) the same as those used to treat bulimia nervosa. C) similar to those used to treat anorexia nervosa. D) the same as those used to treat anorexia nervosa.
150. An individual was recently diagnosed with binge eating disorder and is starting cognitive-behavioral treatment. The person's brother comments that he thinks gastric bypass surgery would be more help than psychotherapy. Why would this approach not be recommended? A) Most people who have binge eating disorder are not actually obese. B) Losing weight after engaging in dangerous eating behavior would reinforce those eating habits in the individual. C) Surgery is “cheating” and does not teach the person how to effectively manage weight and overall health. D) Weight loss is not the primary objective; it does not address the underlying cognitive issues that compel someone to binge eat.
151. The overall objective of the Body Project is to: A) prevent eating disorders. B) improve long-term recovery rates for those individuals who have been treated for an eating disorder. C) raise funding for additional research related to weight management in teens. D) provide peer support to those individuals with an eating disorder.
152. A key principle of the Body Project is to evoke dissonance in the participants. Which activity is MOST likely to cause a participant to feel dissonance? A) Listening to an expert explain how the thin ideal is used in advertising B) Posting an online essay critiquing the thin ideal displayed in a fashion ad C) Privately considering the negative influences of the thin ideal on young girls D) Watching someone electronically alter the body shape of a person in an online photo
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Answer Key 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. D 8. A 9. C 10. A 11. A 12. A 13. D 14. D 15. C 16. A 17. A 18. C 19. A 20. A 21. D 22. A 23. C 24. B 25. C 26. C 27. A 28. B 29. D 30. D 31. A 32. A 33. B 34. D 35. C 36. B 37. D 38. B 39. D 40. A 41. C 42. D 43. C 44. B
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45. C 46. C 47. D 48. D 49. A 50. B 51. A 52. D 53. A 54. B 55. C 56. C 57. B 58. B 59. C 60. A 61. B 62. C 63. A 64. D 65. B 66. C 67. A 68. B 69. A 70. C 71. D 72. B 73. C 74. D 75. C 76. C 77. D 78. C 79. D 80. C 81. B 82. A 83. D 84. D 85. C 86. C 87. C 88. A 89. D 90. D
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91. B 92. C 93. A 94. B 95. D 96. C 97. C 98. A 99. C 100. C 101. A 102. C 103. D 104. A 105. D 106. A 107. B 108. D 109. C 110. A 111. C 112. D 113. D 114. D 115. C 116. D 117. C 118. D 119. C 120. D 121. A 122. D 123. D 124. A 125. D 126. D 127. C 128. B 129. C 130. A 131. C 132. B 133. D 134. A 135. D 136. D
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137. B 138. C 139. A 140. C 141. C 142. D 143. A 144. B 145. B 146. B 147. B 148. D 149. A 150. D 151. A 152. B
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1. The peak age range during which women develop anorexia nervosa is between: A) 16 and 18. B) 17 and 20. C) 14 and 16. D) 14 and 20.
2. Which is NOT a characteristic of a person with anorexia nervosa? A) Being afraid of becoming obese B) Being afraid of giving in to a desire to eat C) Being afraid of losing control over the size of his or her body D) Rarely thinking about food
3. Persons with _____ have a low opinion of their body shape and are likely to overestimate their actual proportions. A) bulimia nervosa B) anorexia nervosa C) both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa D) neither anorexia nervosa nor bulimia nervosa
4. Which psychological problem is often associated with anorexia nervosa? A) Dissociative identity disorder B) Autism spectrum disorder C) Obsessive-compulsive patterns D) Antisocial personality disorder
5. Which statement about women with bulimia nervosa is accurate? A) They are substantially below their normal weight. B) They are commonly obese. C) They generally maintain their normal weight, with some fluctuations. D) They weigh about 20 percent more than they should.
6. What is the effect of vomiting after a binge episode? A) The body releases glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1). B) The individual loses about half of the calories consumed during the binge. C) Bingeing increases the level of satiety that the person experiences. D) Bingeing increases the body's metabolism.
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7. What is a typical response for a person who just indulged in a binge episode? A) Feeling cognitively sluggish B) Feeling guilty C) Feeling unsatiated D) Feeling contentment
8. In which situation is bulimia nervosa or anorexia nervosa MOST likely to begin? A) Reaching the legal age to create social media accounts and engage with others online B) The onset of puberty, when bodies change and begin taking on a more adult form C) Upon entry into college, when fear of the “freshman fifteen” becomes overwhelming D) After a period of intense dieting that has been successful and has earned praise from others
9. Which is NOT an accurate statement about females with anorexia nervosa versus females with bulimia nervosa? A) Females with bulimia have less sexual experience than do females with anorexia. B) Females with anorexia have less sexual experience than do females with bulimia. C) Females with bulimia tend to be more concerned about pleasing others. D) Females with bulimia display fewer obsessive qualities than do females with anorexia.
10. People who frequently consume large quantities of food but do not perform inappropriate compensatory behavior may be struggling with which disorder? A) Binge-eating disorder B) Bulimia nervosa C) Acute stress disorder D) Anorexia nervosa
11. Which statement BEST represents the relationship between binge eating disorder and being overweight or obese? A) Most overweight and obese individuals engage in binge eating. B) Binge eating disorder is not linked to being overweight or obese. C) Binge eating disorder is not associated with changes in body weight. D) Roughly half of people with binge eating disorder become overweight or obese.
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12. Which statement is TRUE regarding the typical onset of binge eating disorder? A) It occurs after a period of intense restrictive dieting. B) It is more common in individuals with a long history of mood swings. C) It occurs later in life than other eating disorders, often in the individual's twenties. D) It generally has a very gradual onset, with the person incrementally increasing intake over years.
13. When activated, the _____ reduces hunger. A) lateral hypothalamus B) ventromedial hypothalamus C) central hypothalamus D) thalamus
14. _____ has been identified as acting as a natural appetite suppressant. A) Serotonin B) Glutamate C) Glucagon-like peptide-1 D) Leptin
15. Certain professions are associated with increased risk for anorexia nervosa or bulimia nervosa. Which professional would be at GREATEST risk of developing one of these eating disorders? A) Chef B) Actor C) Teacher D) Laborer
16. Which statement BEST describes eating disorders in men? A) Men are significantly more likely to develop anorexia nervosa than bulimia nervosa. B) Men and women develop eating disorders for similar reasons in similar ways. C) Eating disorders are easier to treat in men. D) Male eating disorders are often linked to the requirements and pressures of a job or a sport.
17. Which type of eating disorder is found almost exclusively in men? A) Muscle dysmorphia B) Binge eating disorder C) Abdominal dissatisfaction disorder D) Non-binging bulimotoxicity
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18. Four individuals are receiving treatment for anorexia nervosa. Which person is expected to have a better long-term prognosis? A) The person who is the youngest B) The person who has troubled interpersonal relationships C) The person who lost the most weight and had anorexia the longest D) The person who had psychological or sexual problems before the onset of the disorder
19. A therapist is treating a young woman with bulimia nervosa. Which treatment approach would the therapist use to break the binge-purge cycle seen with this condition? A) Systematic desensitization B) Flooding C) Psychodynamic therapy D) Exposure and response prevention
20. Which statement is TRUE regarding treatment of bulimia nervosa? A) Treatment with antidepressant drugs is more effective than psychotherapy. B) Antidepressant drugs do not help prevent the person from engaging in purging behaviors. C) Antidepressant drugs are not effective in patients who purge via laxatives or enemas. D) Antidepressant drugs used in combination with psychotherapy are more effective than either treatment alone.
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Answer Key 1. D 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. B 8. D 9. A 10. A 11. D 12. C 13. B 14. C 15. B 16. D 17. A 18. A 19. D 20. D
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1. People with anorexia nervosa are motivated primarily by: A) the desire to be thin. B) fear. C) a preoccupation with food. D) a death wish.
2. The starting body weight of a person who develops anorexia nervosa is typically: A) obese. B) significantly underweight. C) underweight or normal weight. D) slightly overweight or normal weight.
3. The word lanugo refers to: A) fine silky body hair that develops in individuals with anorexia nervosa. B) involuntary contractions of the intestines that result from a lack of solid food being digested. C) erosion of the enamel on the teeth of a person with bulimia nervosa. D) the yellowish skin pallor developed by a person with anorexia nervosa.
4. In people with bulimia nervosa, binges are usually preceded by feelings of: A) disgust. B) shame. C) low self-esteem. D) tension.
5. The frequent vomiting and chronic diarrhea occasioned by bulimia nervosa may lead to the loss of which important bodily nutrient? A) L-Tryptophan B) Lysine C) Potassium D) Selenium
6. Many people with bulimia nervosa also suffer from: A) opioid abuse. B) mood disorders. C) Asperger's syndrome. D) learning disorders.
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7. A characteristic common to individuals with binge eating disorder is that they: A) overestimate their ability to lose weight. B) are alexithymic about their binge eating. C) are preoccupied with exercise and calorie counting. D) assess their self-worth largely based on their weight and shape.
8. The significant clinical difference between binge eating disorder and bulimia nervosa is that individuals with binge-eating disorder: A) binge much less frequently. B) do not engage in purging behaviors. C) lack emotion after a binge eating episode. D) do not feel out of control during a binge episode.
9. Compared with anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa, the prevalence of binge eating disorder is: A) lower than the rates for bulimia and anorexia. B) higher than the rates for bulimia and anorexia. C) higher than the rate for anorexia but lower than the rate for bulimia. D) higher than the rate for bulimia but lower than the rate for anorexia.
10. According to the multidimensional risk perspective, which is NOT a factor in the development of eating disorders? A) Academic problems B) Biological factors C) Psychological problems D) Sociocultural conditions
11. Blocking the glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) receptors in the hypothalamus would cause: A) an increase in appetite. B) a decrease in appetite. C) an increase in calories stored as fat (glycogen). D) a decrease in calories stored as fat (glycogen).
12. Which theorist believed that enmeshed family patterns often lead to eating disorders? A) Salvador Minuchin B) Sigmund Freud C) Aaron Beck D) Daniel Meichenbaum
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13. Which statement accurately describes the risk of African American women developing eating disorders? A) Over the past several decades, African American women have shown a marked decrease in their risk of developing an eating disorder compared with non-Hispanic white American women. B) African American and non-Hispanic white American women have always had similar risks of developing eating disorders. C) It is clear that race has played no role in the risk of developing an eating disorder in the past three decades. D) As African Americans acculturate and adopt an ideal body image more similar to that valued by non-Hispanic white American women, their risk of developing eating disorders has increased.
14. The first priority in treating someone with anorexia nervosa or bulimia nervosa is: A) correcting the disordered eating pattern. B) helping the person accurately assess his or her body size. C) teaching the person healthy coping mechanisms for managing stress. D) stopping the internal negative dialogue and replacing it with empowering dialogue.
15. In the treatment of anorexia nervosa, the objective of motivational interviewing is BEST described as seeking to: A) strengthen the person's motivation for change. B) evaluate the person's understanding of the treatment goals. C) determine what motivated the person to diet in the first place. D) establish rapport with the person early in the treatment process.
16. Although some people who have anorexia nervosa recover from the illness, studies suggest that _____ percent of these patients remain seriously troubled for many years. A) 25 B) 40 C) 65 D) 80
17. A key component of treating bulimia nervosa is helping the affected person recognize and change his or her maladaptive attitudes toward food, eating, weight, and shape. Which treatment approach is the BEST option to achieve this? A) Interpersonal psychotherapy B) Self-care manuals C) Cognitive techniques D) Psychodynamic therapy
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18. Which type of medication has been used to help reduce binges and vomiting in persons with bulimia nervosa? A) Antianxiety drugs B) Antipsychotics C) Antidepressants D) Beta blockers
19. Which factor is NOT associated with increased risk of relapse in people who have recovered from bulimia nervosa? A) Longer history of bulimia nervosa before treatment B) Living alone C) A history of substance abuse D) An increased frequency of vomiting during their eating disorder
20. The recent recognition of binge eating disorders has led to treatments that resemble: A) the type of care required to assist patients with anorexia nervosa. B) treatments that have evolved for bulimia nervosa. C) recovery plans in depressed patients. D) weight-loss centers.
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Answer Key 1. B 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. D 8. B 9. B 10. A 11. A 12. A 13. D 14. A 15. A 16. A 17. C 18. C 19. B 20. B
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Chapter 12
1. Define tolerance, withdrawal, and substance use disorder. As a clinician, which signs and symptoms would you assess for to determine whether someone meets the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for substance use disorder? Be specific in describing the symptoms.
2. In what ways have the use and misuse of alcohol become one of society's greatest problems? Discuss at least three affected domains: personal, social, occupational, and physical.
3. Compare and contrast heroin and cocaine in terms of the physiological properties of the drugs, the forms in which the drugs are normally taken, and the prevalence of abuse of each.
4. Nicotine use and abuse through smoking cigarettes affects approximately 24 percent of Americans. What are the effects of tobacco use disorder? Why is tobacco use disorder so difficult to treat? What are two treatments for tobacco use disorder?
5. Assume a totally new hallucinogenic drug has hit the streets, and you are part of a research team charged with investigating the new drug. Which information would you want to gather? How might you begin to assess the impact of the new drug on society? Assume (unrealistically, of course) your budget is practically limitless.
6. A friend of yours tells you she is going to try MDMA (ecstasy). You are concerned about her well-being and want to convince her not to take this drug. Which key arguments do you make to your friend? Include both short-term and long-term risks.
7. Describe how marijuana has changed since the 1970s, and describe the increase in the number of diagnoses of “cannabis use disorder,” as well as the dangers associated with marijuana use. How might these be related?
8. Compare and contrast any two views on substance use disorders—sociocultural, psychodynamic, cognitive-behavioral, and biological—and discuss two ways in which they explain the causes of these disorders.
9. A 20-year-old friend of yours expresses a desire to receive treatment for alcohol use disorder. Which form of treatment would you recommend and why? Detail the strengths of the form of treatment you would recommend, along with its possible weaknesses.
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10. A recent addition in DSM-5 to the substance use disorders section is gambling disorder; Internet use disorder is under consideration for future inclusion. How are gambling disorder and Internet use disorder similar to, and different from, substance use disorders?
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Answer Key 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
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1. Alcohol is classified as a(n) _____.
2. The enzyme that breaks down ethyl alcohol in the stomach is _____.
3. According to some educators, the number one public health hazard for college students is _____.
4. Alcoholism sometimes leads to a disease marked by confusion and extreme memory impairment. This disease is called _____.
5. When Melody stopped taking barbiturates, she suffered a period of nausea, insomnia, and sleep problems. This phenomenon is known as _____.
6. Crack is a form of _____.
7. The MOST widely used stimulant in the world is _____.
8. A substance that may change someone's perception of color or make someone see things that aren't really there is called a(n) _____.
9. The effect of taking two different drugs may be more than the sum of the two effects. This is called a(n) _____.
10. Jodi's therapist believes that her drug problem stems from dependence caused by unresolved conflicts in her relationship with her parents. Her therapist's point of view is _____.
11. Pairing the craving for a drug with an electric shock is an example of _____.
12. Learning coping strategies to deal with situations known to stimulate drinking is part of _____ training.
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13. When Todd arrived at the center, he was given a physical examination and then allowed time to go through withdrawal symptoms. This process is called _____.
14. _____ is a drug that has been used as a substitute for heroin in the treatment of addiction.
15. DSM-5 has added an addictive disorder that doesn't involve use of a substance to the substance use disorder section. That disorder is _____.
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Answer Key 1. depressant 2. alcohol dehydrogenase 3. binge drinking 4. Korsakoff's syndrome 5. withdrawal 6. cocaine 7. caffeine 8. hallucinogen 9. synergistic effect 10. psychodynamic 11. aversion therapy 12. relapse-prevention 13. detoxification 14. Methadone 15. gambling disorder
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1. Ainsley has a drink in the morning on rising and a cocktail with breakfast. She usually sneaks a snort during the morning (“just to get through the day”) and then drinks during lunch. Later, at home, she generally has a small dinner and sits in front of the TV and drinking wine, often an entire bottle. Somehow she manages to get up and go to work the next morning. Ainsley is displaying: A) withdrawal. B) substance use disorder. C) binge drinking. D) delirium tremens.
2. Which of the following would NOT be considered a drug? A) Heroin B) Caffeine C) Sugar D) Nicotine
3. A college professor's work performance recently has deteriorated, and his colleagues find him difficult to talk to. If this is due to a problem with drugs, the best description of this professor's behavior would be: A) substance intoxication. B) substance use disorder. C) tolerance. D) withdrawal.
4. A frequent drug user finds that larger doses of a drug are necessary to produce the same “high” that much lower doses once produced. That drug user is developing: A) withdrawal symptoms. B) tolerance. C) hallucinosis. D) intoxication.
5. The long-term pattern of maladaptive behavior caused by the regular use of some chemical or drug is called: A) tolerance. B) intoxication disorder. C) substance use disorder. D) hallucinosis.
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6. Melanie has been out with friends and has been using drugs. Despite being obviously uncoordinated and under the influence, she wants to drive her car. Her condition is an example of: A) addiction. B) intoxication. C) hallucinosis. D) physical dependence.
7. Intoxication is actually a form of: A) tolerance. B) temporary change. C) hallucination. D) substance dependence.
8. Mendon began by taking one amphetamine a day to control his appetite. After a month or so, the one pill did not work as well but two pills did. This is an example of: A) tolerance. B) resistance. C) withdrawal. D) dependence.
9. Which statement BEST describes the prevalence of alcoholism in non-Hispanic white American men, African American men, and Hispanic American men? A) Prevalence rates among all three groups are essentially the same. B) African Americans have the highest rates of alcoholism, followed by non-Hispanic white Americans and Hispanic Americans. C) Alcoholism rates are highest for older non-Hispanic white Americans. D) Prevalence rates for non-Hispanic white Americans and Hispanic Americans are similar and slightly higher than the rates seen in African Americans.
10. A person who experiences vomiting and shaking when she tries to stop drinking alcohol has developed: A) withdrawal reactions. B) increased tolerance. C) hallucinosis. D) intoxication.
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11. Of the following people, the MOST likely to exhibit a substance use disorder would be a(n): A) American Indian. B) African American. C) non-Hispanic white American. D) Asian American.
12. Which is a depressant? A) Opioids B) Cocaine C) LSD D) Amphetamines
13. A newly developed drug causes users to lose some muscle control and slur their words. The drug also results in a slowing of central nervous system activity. MOST likely this drug is a: A) depressant. B) hallucinogen. C) stimulant. D) polydrug.
14. Binge drinking is defined as drinking at least _____ drinks on a single occasion. A) three B) four C) five D) six
15. Alcohol binds to receptors on neurons that normally receive: A) norepinephrine. B) serotonin. C) dopamine. D) GABA.
16. Which statement is TRUE regarding gender differences in heavy drinkers? A) Female heavy drinkers outnumber male heavy drinkers through adolescence, but the reverse is true in adulthood. B) Women are slightly more likely than men to be classified as heavy drinkers. C) Heavy drinking is at least twice as likely in men as it is in women. D) Women are more susceptible to becoming heavy drinkers due to their typically smaller body size and weight.
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17. Drinking alcohol initially affects: A) the language center. B) judgment. C) memory. D) motor control.
18. Pat and Kelly each have five of the same cocktail. Pat gets very drunk. Kelly does not. Which factor would MOST likely account for this difference? A) Pat is older than Kelly. B) Pat is healthier than Kelly. C) Pat is a woman, and Kelly is a man. D) Pat is non-Hispanic white, and Kelly is African American.
19. Women tolerate alcohol less well than men because they: A) have a higher proportion of body fat. B) drink alcohol in more concentrated forms. C) have less of a stomach enzyme that breaks down alcohol. D) metabolize alcohol in the liver less well.
20. In women, the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase is found at: A) higher levels in the brain, making them more susceptible to becoming intoxicated. B) higher levels in the liver, making them more likely to develop cirrhosis. C) lower levels in the fatty tissue, making them more likely to retain alcohol. D) lower levels in the stomach, making them more susceptible to becoming intoxicated.
21. A blood alcohol concentration of _____ percent typically produces the symptoms of intoxication. A) 0.01 B) 0.06 C) 0.09 D) 0.55
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22. A person has ingested enough ethyl alcohol to lose consciousness but has not died. The MOST probable alcohol concentration in that person, expressed as percent of blood volume, is: A) 0.03. B) 0.09. C) 0.40. D) 0.70. 23. A friend has done some heavy drinking and asks you what to do to “sober up” as quickly as possible. The response that is MOST appropriate is: A) “Drink coffee, lots of coffee.” B) “Stop drinking.” C) “Take an ice-cold shower.” D) “Drink carbonated soda.”
24. Two people of the same gender consume the same amount of alcohol in the same amount of time. Nevertheless, one of them sobers up substantially sooner than the other. MOST likely, this difference is due to differences in: A) food intake, specifically food eaten immediately after drinking concluded. B) activity level while drinking; increased activity increases the metabolism rate. C) liver function; some people's livers metabolize alcohol faster than others' livers. D) breathing rate; people who breathe more often can exhale the carbon dioxide by-product of alcohol metabolism faster.
25. Alcohol is a factor in approximately _____ of all college dropouts. A) half B) one-third C) one-fourth D) one-tenth
26. Studies show that students living in substance-free dorms engage in binge drinking about ____ as often as students living in fraternity or sorority houses. A) 10 percent B) 25 percent C) 50 percent D) 75 percent
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27. Research indicates that the students MOST likely to binge drink: A) are athletes. B) are non-Hispanic white males. C) live on campus. D) live in a sorority or fraternity house.
28. An individual who is dependent on alcohol is experiencing delirium tremens. This reaction is: A) common, starting about a week after an individual stops drinking. B) common, starting within three days after an individual stops drinking. C) uncommon, starting about a week after an individual stops drinking. D) uncommon, starting within three days after an individual stops drinking. 29. Delirium tremens (“the DTs”) typically last: A) up to 24 hours. B) 2 or 3 days. C) about a week. D) up to 10 days.
30. How do delirium tremens (DTs) differ from other withdrawal reactions? A) People who experience DTs are less likely to relapse. B) There are no known medical procedures to assist someone experiencing DTs. C) DTs are associated with serious health consequences that could result in death. D) DTs occur only after someone has completely quit alcohol, versus just reducing intake.
31. A woman is raped by someone who was intoxicated. How common is this? A) Uncommon; alcohol is a factor in less than 1 percent of all rapes. B) Somewhat uncommon; alcohol is a factor in approximately 5 percent of all rapes. C) Common; alcohol is a factor in more than one-third of all rapes. D) Extremely common; alcohol is a factor in nearly than three-fourths of all rapes.
32. The scarring of the liver caused by alcohol consumption is known as: A) cirrhosis. B) hemorrhaging. C) vasoconstriction. D) Korsakoff's syndrome.
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33. A patient in an alcohol rehabilitation center tells you a detailed story about growing up in the mountains of Tennessee. Later, you find out that the person had never even visited Tennessee. A day later you visit the patient again, and the patient does not recognize you. This patient is MOST likely suffering from: A) fetal alcohol syndrome. B) cirrhosis. C) withdrawal of delirium. D) Korsakoff's syndrome.
34. A combination of alcohol abuse and a vitamin B deficiency can lead to: A) delirium tremens. B) Tourette's syndrome. C) Korsakoff's syndrome. D) alcohol-induced psychotic disorder.
35. Neelah is a long-time serious drinker. In the last year she has started having huge memory lapses. When this happens, she makes up wild stories to help her fill in what she does not remember. This symptom is called: A) confabulation. B) Korsakoff's syndrome. C) Wernicke's encephalopathy. D) alcohol-induced psychotic disorder.
36. Drinking alcohol during pregnancy can damage the developing embryo and fetus, resulting in: A) excessively large babies. B) sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). C) fetal alcohol syndrome. D) neonatal Korsakoff's syndrome.
37. A pattern of abnormalities, head and facial deformities, heart defects, and intellectual development disorder characterizes someone with: A) Korsakoff's syndrome B) fetal alcohol syndrome. C) alcohol abuse syndrome. D) substance abuse syndrome.
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38. Nate took a drug and a few minutes later felt calm. He then became drowsy and went to sleep. Nate MOST likely took: A) heroin. B) cocaine. C) cannabis. D) a barbiturate.
39. Benzodiazepines work in much the same way as: A) alcohol. B) nicotine. C) LSD. D) cannabis.
40. An example of a sedative-hypnotic is: A) LSD. B) cocaine. C) a benzodiazepine. D) amphetamine.
41. If a physician wanted to relieve a patient's anxiety with a treatment that carries a lesser risk of drowsiness, overdose, and slowed breathing, the physician should prescribe: A) barbiturates. B) alcohol. C) benzodiazepines. D) cocaine. 42. A wounded veteran of the U.S. Civil War suffering from “soldiers' disease” MOST likely was suffering from: A) morphine dependence. B) THC-induced symptoms from wound binding made of hemp cloth. C) alcohol dependence. D) cirrhosis caused by drinking medicine dissolved in ethyl alcohol.
43. Unlike the opioid drugs morphine and heroin, methadone is: A) not a narcotic. B) a central nervous system depressor. C) non–habit forming. D) a synthetic drug.
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44. After an accident, Kendra was taken to the hospital with broken legs and arms. She was almost immediately given a shot that reduced her pain. The shot was MOST likely a(n): A) opioid. B) sedative. C) barbiturate. D) amphetamine.
45. All the opioid drugs are known collectively as: A) narcotics. B) endorphins. C) depressants. D) hallucinogens.
46. Sam has just had an injection of heroin. He feels intense pleasure very quickly, an effect known as a: A) nod. B) rush. C) high. D) boost.
47. A drug that produces effects similar to what neurotransmitters called endorphins produce is: A) heroin. B) LSD. C) Benzedrine. D) methamphetamine. 48. The “high” produced by using narcotics is due to the drug: A) causing an increased release of serotonin. B) blocking GABA activity. C) attaching to sites normally receptive to endorphins. D) flooding neurotransmitter synapses with dopamine.
49. Quent recently quit using heroin. He won't eat, has a high fever, and has been vomiting frequently. Quent is MOST likely how far along in the withdrawal process? A) The first two to four hours B) The first two to three days C) About halfway through, around day 5 or 6 D) Day 8
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50. Which statement BEST describes the changes in the rate of opioid addiction in the United States over the past 30 to 40 years? A) A slow but steady increase B) Relatively constant rates for 20-plus years, followed by a sudden decrease C) Minor increases and decreases throughout the years D) Up-and-down shifts throughout the years, with rates currently being high
51. A heroin overdose is likely to occur in someone who: A) takes heroin for a while, stops, and starts again, taking the same amount he or she last took. B) takes the same dose of heroin over a prolonged period. C) gradually, but consistently, takes larger doses of heroin. D) takes heroin for a long time and then begins using a lower than usual dose.
52. Why is the risk of transmitting AIDS an important factor for heroin users? A) Heroin facilitates the body's receptivity to AIDS. B) Heroin lowers immune system function. C) Heroin is a good medium in which viruses can grow. D) Heroin users often share needles that can be infected.
53. A person would be LEAST likely to feel drowsy soon after taking a moderate dose of which type of drug? A) Barbiturates B) Ethyl alcohol C) Amphetamines D) Opium
54. Cocaine and amphetamines produce_____ behavioral effects and _____ emotional effects. A) similar; similar B) similar; different C) different; similar D) different; different
55. The drug that, when misused, would MOST quickly result in dependence or addiction would be: A) Xanax. B) opium. C) cannabis. D) ethyl alcohol.
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56. Of the following, which has the HIGHEST risk of causing organ damage and long-lasting mental change? A) Alcohol B) Opioids C) Stimulants D) Barbiturates
57. Of the following, which has the LOWEST risks for drug dependency and long-term behavioral change? A) Amphetamines B) Alcohol C) Cannabis D) Barbiturates
58. Mario felt awake and alive as though he could conquer the world. He MOST likely used: A) heroin. B) alcohol. C) cocaine. D) Xanax.
59. Cocaine appears to produce its effects primarily through triggering the release of excessive amounts of _____ in the brain. A) serotonin B) dopamine C) norepinephrine D) GABA
60. Freebasing has the effect of making cocaine: A) more concentrated. B) injectable. C) less addictive. D) liquid.
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61. An individual who has recently taken a drug angrily grabs some car keys and attempts to drive home. The person appears anxious, keeps bragging that driving the car won't really be that difficult, and states that he can do anything. MOST likely, that person is experiencing: A) delirium tremens. B) cocaine intoxication. C) decreasing cross-tolerance. D) hallucinosis.
62. Shayla stopped taking her regular amount of cocaine after using it for months. She will probably experience: A) headaches, depressed feelings, and “crashing.” B) pain, sweating, mania, and nausea. C) excitement, insomnia, and hallucinations. D) dramatic tremors of the hands and face, very rapid heart rate, and convulsions.
63. You are making a presentation on the dangers of cocaine use. Which factor should you list as the MOST important consideration? A) Increased risk of being assaulted in drug-related crimes B) Higher risk for contracting AIDS C) Damage to mucous membranes D) Overdose effects
64. Which is NOT a risk for young people abusing cocaine? A) Heart attacks B) Respiratory failure C) Miscarriage D) Macular degeneration
65. Which effect has NOT been associated with maternal cocaine use during pregnancy? A) Enlarged heart B) Predispositions to later drug use C) Abnormalities in immune functioning D) Attention and learning deficits
66. The proportion of Americans older than age 11 who smoke is approximately: A) one-tenth. B) one-fourth. C) one-half. D) two-thirds.
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67. Approximately what percentage of smokers are eventually able to stop? A) 10 percent B) 30 percent C) 50 percent D) 70 percent
68. Methods of supplying nicotine to persons who are trying to quit smoking include all of the following EXCEPT: A) nicotine nasal spray. B) the subcutaneous nicotine pump. C) the nicotine patch. D) nicotine gum.
69. Research suggests that people continue to use tobacco despite its health risks because: A) they are addicted to nicotine. B) they are not aware of the dangers. C) it decreases their level of stress. D) it is acceptable to smoke in U.S. culture.
70. Lola's physician prescribed diet pills many years ago. Which of the following drugs did the pills MOST likely contain? A) Cocaine B) Morphine C) Barbiturates D) Amphetamines
71. Most meth labs are relatively _____ operations in _____ areas. A) large; urban B) large; remote C) small; urban D) small; remote
72. The club drug that damages nerve endings but is NOT considered hallucinogenic is: A) methamphetamine. B) amphetamine. C) Ecstasy (MDMA). D) hashish.
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73. The stimulant used by MORE people in the world than any other drug is: A) nicotine. B) cocaine (including freebased and crack forms). C) amphetamines. D) caffeine.
74. The perceptual distortions some drugs produce are called: A) intoxication. B) substance dependence. C) substance abuse. D) hallucinosis.
75. A person took a drug 90 minutes ago. Now the person sits alone quietly, looking at a tree with brilliant purple leaves and intensely listening to the sap running in that tree. The person MOST likely took the drug: A) LSD. B) cocaine. C) marijuana. D) methamphetamine.
76. A person uses a substance at noon. Although remaining awake and alert, the person experiences poor coordination, palpitations, and greatly enhanced visual perceptions. By dinner, the symptoms have almost completely subsided. The person MOST likely: A) drank a substantial amount of alcohol. B) took LSD. C) injected heroin. D) took a dose of barbiturates.
77. At a rave, a student used a substance that caused a great burst of energy, along with badly distorted visual experiences. The student MOST likely: A) smoked cannabis. B) ingested cannabis. C) took Xanax. D) took Ecstasy.
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78. Months after last taking a drug, a former drug abuser still produces very little serotonin. The person is depressed and anxious and has great difficulty remembering new material. MOST likely, the abused substance was: A) Ecstasy. B) cannabis. C) LSD. D) benzodiazepine.
79. A person who uses the drug Ecstasy at a crowded party begins to feel too hot and immediately drinks lots of fluids. This person is at risk for: A) hyperthermia and possible water intoxication. B) hyperthermia and hypernatremia (excess sodium). C) dehydration as a result of excessive sweating. D) dehydration due to excess sodium and potassium levels. 80. An acquaintance of yours uses Ecstasy and says, “Wow! I was totally energized and tripping. It was like LSD and meth combined.” Your acquaintance's experience with Ecstasy was: A) very unusual; the drug usually acts as a central nervous system depressant. B) common; the drug has both stimulant and hallucinogenic properties. C) uncommon; the drug has stimulant but not hallucinogenic properties. D) uncommon; the drug has hallucinogenic but not stimulant properties.
81. While under the influence of LSD, Rihanna believes that she can feel the sounds around her. This effect is known as: A) synesthesia. B) intoxication. C) hallucination. D) the psychedelic effect.
82. What is the risk of tolerance and physical addiction to hallucinogens as compared with that of other addictive drugs? A) Minimal B) More than most of the other drugs C) About the same as the depressants D) About the same as the stimulants
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83. The chief danger of LSD use is: A) the risk of developing drug tolerance. B) the possibility of very powerful, sometimes negative, reactions. C) the severity of withdrawal symptoms among even occasional users. D) the universal occurrence of flashbacks among former users.
84. The MOST powerful form of cannabis is: A) ganja. B) hashish. C) marijuana. D) free-based THC.
85. Clinton smokes some cannabis at noon. When should the effects wear off? A) By 1 P.M. B) Later that afternoon, most likely by 6 P.M. C) Late that evening, definitely by midnight D) The following morning
86. According to the chart in your textbook, teenagers say that the drug easiest for them to obtain is: A) alcohol. B) nicotine (cigarettes). C) marijuana. D) amphetamines.
87. Marijuana users in the 1960s were less likely to develop drug dependence than users starting around the year 2000. This trend MOST likely reflects that: A) the THC content in marijuana has increased. B) people started using marijuana at earlier ages. C) marijuana is now consumed via multiple routes. D) medical marijuana is legal in a number of states.
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88. A high school student asks you, “What's the big deal about using pot at school, anyway? It's not going to hurt me.” You want to correct this misconception. The MOST accurate reply is: A) “Being high makes it harder for your to remember what you just learned, even if you try to concentrate.” B) “Long-term use of marijuana kills brain cells. You won't be able to learn new things and will forget what you did know.” C) “Are you kidding? Even one-time use of marijuana can cause stroke or a heart attack.” D) “Marijuana is bad for your social life. People don't like to associate with drug users.”
89. Three chronic marijuana users—a light user, a moderate user, and a heavy user—stop using marijuana. Before quitting, all three experienced abnormal blood flow in their brains. Several weeks later, blood flow in their brains had MOST likely: A) returned to completely normal flow levels for all three. B) returned to completely normal flow levels for the light and moderate users only. C) returned to nearly normal for the light and moderate users only but remained at abnormal levels for the heavy user. D) returned to nearly normal for all three.
90. Which is a negative effect of cannabis use? A) Decrease in fertility B) Increased possibility of stroke C) Significantly increased pulse and heart rate D) Strong withdrawal symptoms upon stopping
91. Which statement BEST describes cannabis use in the United States? A) Cannabis is native to the United States and has been used for several centuries in North America for medical and recreational purposes. B) Cannabis was introduced into the United States about 100 years ago and was first used for medical purposes. C) Cannabis was introduced into the United States about 100 years ago and was first used for recreational purposes. D) Cannabis was introduced into the United States about 100 years ago and was used from the beginning for both recreational and medical purposes.
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92. Throughout much of the United States, it is illegal to use marijuana, even for medical reasons. Compared with other nations, this is: A) very unusual; most countries permit both medical and recreational use of marijuana. B) unusual; most countries permit medical, but not recreational, use of marijuana. C) somewhat unusual; most countries permit at least limited medical use of marijuana. D) common; most countries do not allow either medical or recreational use of marijuana.
93. If someone opposes the medical use of THC, that person MOST likely feels that way because: A) scientific research shows no legitimate medical application of THC. B) the physiological side effects substantially outweigh the known medical benefits. C) medical use is just another way of saying legalized marijuana. D) of legal reasons. 94. Probably the WORST thing a person who has “partied hard” with alcohol could do right after drinking would be to: A) drink four or more cups of coffee. B) eat a small to medium-sized meal. C) sleep it off without taking drugs to minimize aftereffects. D) take some barbiturates to fall asleep. 95. Leo drank quite a lot at the “biggest party of the year.” Later, he had trouble falling asleep, so he took a Valium. If he dies from respiratory failure during the night, it is probably because the alcohol and Valium created a(n): A) synergistic effect. B) antagonistic action. C) complementary action. D) cross-tolerance effect.
96. Which combination is MOST likely to result in antagonistic effects? A) LSD and cocaine B) Alcohol and barbiturates C) Cocaine and amphetamine D) Barbiturates and cocaine
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97. Aurora commonly uses heroin. If she lives in the United States, how likely is she to also use another illegal drug? A) Not very likely, approximately a 10 percent chance B) Somewhat likely, approximately a 20 percent chance C) Likely, approximately a 50 percent chance D) Very likely, approximately a 90 percent chance
98. Which person would be MOST likely to develop alcoholism? A) A lower-socioeconomic-class person living in a high-unemployment area B) A lower-socioeconomic-class person living in a low-unemployment area C) A higher-socioeconomic-class person living in a high-unemployment area D) A higher-socioeconomic-class person living in a low-unemployment area
99. Researchers have found that substance use disorders are more common among some religious groups than others and generally are more common among some groups than among others. Together, these findings provide the MOST support for which view of substance use disorders? A) Sociocultural B) Biological C) Cognitive-behavioral D) Psychodynamic
100. According to research, 18 percent of unemployed adults use an illegal drug. This is approximately _____ the rate seen in employed adults. A) 1.5 B) 2.5 C) 4 D) 6
101. One longitudinal study found that men who develop alcoholism were initially MORE: A) antisocial as adolescents. B) aggressive as children. C) impulsive as teenagers. D) depressed as teenagers.
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102. Studies attempting to relate personality traits to potential for developing substance abuse show that: A) one key personality trait, impulsivity, predicts substance abuse. B) one key personality trait, dependence, predicts substance abuse. C) a specific group of traits predicts substance abuse. D) no single trait or combination of traits predicts substance abuse. 103. “Drug dependence may develop because one finds drug use rewarding when it reduces tension.” A person with which view of substance abuse would MOST likely agree with this statement? A) Biological B) Sociocultural C) Cognitive-behavioral D) Psychodynamic
104. A manager who feels anxious about speaking in front of large groups frequently has a couple of glasses of wine to relax before beginning to speak. This “medicinal” use of alcohol can be explained MOST easily: A) by opponent-process theory. B) through molecular biological analysis. C) by operant conditioning. D) as genetic predisposition.
105. Bryan, an intravenous heroin user, feels intense cravings when he sees hypodermic needles. This may be an example of: A) modeling. B) operant conditioning. C) classical conditioning. D) observational learning.
106. A marijuana user has just taken the drug. Almost half an hour passes before the user begins to experience the drug high. The user has MOST likely taken the drug by: A) inhalation (smoking). B) eating it in some food. C) intramuscular injection. D) intravenous injection.
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107. A person with a substance abuse problem has just self-administered by intramuscular injection an overdose of fentanyl, a very powerful synthetic narcotic. A potentially fatal side effect of fentanyl overdose is that breathing stops. Assuming the drug would interfere with breathing when it reaches the brain, the person should experience breathing difficulty: A) almost immediately. B) in a few seconds. C) in a few minutes. D) in about a half hour.
108. If genetics plays a strong role in the development of cocaine abuse, we would expect to find the lowest concordance rates for cocaine abuse among: A) genetically unrelated pairs of people. B) parents and their children. C) identical twins. D) siblings of the same gender.
109. Scientists have conducted breeding experiments by mating across generations nonhumans that prefer alcohol. What have these researchers found? A) Alcohol preference is not genetic. B) One or a few of the offspring prefer alcohol over other tastes but still more than the norm. C) Generally, the offspring prefer alcohol over other tastes. D) The preference for alcohol is seen only in male subjects.
110. What is the most direct evidence for a genetic explanation for substance use disorders? A) Surveys of adults with alcohol use disorder B) Higher rates of alcohol preference demonstrated in breeding studies C) The study finding that fraternal twins have a concordance rate of 30 percent for substance use disorder D) The study finding that individuals with substance use disorder are more likely to have an abnormal D2 receptor gene
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111. Assume a researcher finds that overuse of a drug reduces the body's production of neurotransmitters. Thus, if an abuser of this drug stops taking the drug, withdrawal symptoms occur until the brain begins producing normal levels of neurotransmitters again. Such a finding would most directly support which view of the cause of substance use disorders? A) Sociocultural B) Biological C) Opponent-process D) Behavioral
112. Chronic and excessive use of benzodiazepines may cause: A) increased production of GABA. B) decreased production of GABA. C) decreased breakdown of GABA. D) increased growth of GABA-producing cells.
113. Research indicates that the MOST important neurotransmitter in the reward circuit of the brain is probably: A) acetylcholine. B) anandamide. C) dopamine. D) one of the endorphins.
114. A researcher reports that a drug directly stimulates a reward center in the brain rather than acting through indirect stimulation of a reward center. The drug the researcher is studying could be any of the following drugs EXCEPT: A) powdered cocaine. B) methamphetamine. C) marijuana. D) caffeine.
115. A researcher reports that a drug indirectly stimulates a reward center in the brain rather than directly stimulating it. The drug the researcher is studying could be any of the following drugs EXCEPT: A) alcohol. B) opium. C) marijuana. D) cocaine.
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116. According to the developmental psychopathology view, substance use disorders typically begin with: A) an internalizing temperament. B) genetically inherited predispositions. C) the occurrence of a significant stressor. D) witnessing someone else abuse a substance.
117. Which of the following has been identified as a problem in designing and evaluating treatment methods for substance abuse? A) Almost all patients relapse. B) Antagonistic drugs are not legal. C) There is no standard definition of treatment success. D) The problem is a biological one and does not respond to psychological treatment.
118. Most people receive treatment for a substance use disorder in a(n): A) private physician's office. B) self-help group. C) inpatient rehabilitation center. D) outpatient mental health center.
119. Psychodynamic therapies may not be very effective in the treatment of substance use disorders because: A) they teach only new behaviors, not new thought patterns. B) they teach only new thought patterns, not new behaviors. C) finding the cause of a substance use disorder is less important than treating the use as an independent problem. D) psychodynamic therapists unilaterally reject any use of multidimensional treatment programs.
120. A therapist prescribes a client a drug that causes the patient to vomit every time he drinks alcohol. This therapist is MOST likely a(n): A) psychodynamic therapist. B) cognitive-behavioral therapist. C) humanistic therapist. D) existential therapist.
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121. A therapist applies a small electric shock to a client every time that person views an image of a cigarette. The client develops an intense dislike of cigarettes and quits smoking. This therapy is based on: A) operant conditioning. B) modeling. C) classical conditioning. D) contingency management.
122. In general, aversion therapy and contingency management for substance use disorders are more successful when: A) the person receiving the therapy is highly motivated to continue. B) the behavioral treatments are not combined with other forms of treatment. C) the focus of therapy is strictly behavioral (not cognitive-behavioral). D) the clients are older than 18 years of age.
123. A client being treated for alcohol abuse receives just enough of a drug called curare to produce temporary paralysis whenever that client takes a drink of beer. Presumably, sufficient pairings of paralysis and alcohol will reduce the client's desire for alcohol. This procedure is called: A) covert sensitization. B) contingency training. C) relapse-prevention training. D) aversion therapy.
124. Cocaine abusers on an inpatient ward earn rewards—and eventual release from the program—if they produce periodic urine samples that are free of the drug. The program they are in is a form of: A) behavioral self-control training (BSCT). B) contingency management. C) relapse-prevention training. D) detoxification.
125. Wesley, a recovering heavy drinker, has been trained to identify the situations that might cause him to drink and to be aware of when he should stop drinking. This approach is known as: A) aversive therapy. B) ego-control therapy. C) relapse-prevention training. D) behavioral self-control training.
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126. Relapse-prevention training to treat substance misuse differs from aversion therapy in that the goal is to: A) stop using the substance completely. B) gain control over one's use of the substance. C) slow the development of tolerance over time. D) offset the negative effects of using the substance.
127. A client receiving treatment for substance abuse keeps track of times the substance is used and develops strategies to deal with the substance when there is an opportunity to use it. The client is MOST likely receiving: A) contingency management training. B) aversion therapy. C) relapse-prevention training. D) Cognitive-Antagonist Training (CAT).
128. Research has shown that, compared with other cognitive-behavioral techniques, acceptance and commitment therapy (ACT) for substance use disorder is: A) more effective and the preferred treatment. B) at least as effective and sometimes more effective. C) typically less effective, except in cases of alcohol misuse. D) effective only when used in combination with biological treatments.
129. Detoxification procedures may involve any of the following EXCEPT: A) giving the client other drugs to reduce substance withdrawal symptoms during detoxification. B) gradually reducing the dose of the substance the client uses. C) initially increasing the substance dose to make the substance aversive. D) treating the client in either an outpatient program or a “full-service” inpatient program.
130. Jess thought she was taking an aspirin. Later, when she had a glass of wine and became very nauseated, she realized the pill was: A) naloxone. B) disulfiram. C) naltrexone. D) methadone.
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131. The purpose of an antagonist drug is to: A) block pain receptors throughout the body. B) block or change the effect of an addictive drug. C) reduce withdrawal effects as one stops taking a drug. D) provide a placebo effect to replace a drug's effect.
132. Opioid antagonists can produce withdrawal symptoms. Opioid antagonists that produce less severe withdrawal are: A) opioid agonists. B) partial antagonists. C) pseudo-antagonists. D) maintenance agonists.
133. EMTs responding to an emergency call find a person who has injected an overdose of fentanyl, a synthetic opioid. The BEST opioid antagonist to use in this situation is: A) dezocine. B) naltrexone. C) disulfiram. D) naloxone.
134. The use of methadone in drug maintenance programs is controversial because methadone: A) use increases the risk of contracting AIDS. B) costs more than $50 a day per person treated. C) produces withdrawal that is sometimes more difficult than heroin withdrawal. D) needs to be taken several times per day according to a rigid schedule.
135. Despite concerns regarding the use of methadone maintenance programs, those in favor of such programs commonly argue that they: A) create a more manageable form of addiction. B) are highly effective over a very short period. C) help reduce the spread of HIV and hepatitis C. D) enable patients to more easily “step down” their use.
136. One of the features of Alcoholics Anonymous is: A) peer support. B) residential services. C) controlled drinking. D) antagonistic medication.
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137. Hadley goes to a meeting because her husband is an alcoholic who only occasionally can abstain from alcohol. The meetings with other people in similar situations helps her cope. She probably attends meetings of: A) Al-Anon. B) Alcoholics Anonymous. C) Above the Influence. D) Phoenix House. 138. “Alcoholism is a disease. You are an alcoholic for life, and you must stop drinking.” The treatment favored by the person/group being quoted MOST likely is: A) Alcoholics Anonymous. B) psychodynamic therapy. C) cognitive-behavioral therapy. D) behavioral therapy.
139. Alcoholics Anonymous supports the belief that alcoholics should: A) cease drinking entirely. B) learn to stop after one drink. C) be taught to drink more moderately. D) admit that they are morally reprehensible for drinking.
140. Most evidence for the effectiveness of self-help programs comes from: A) carefully monitored longitudinal studies. B) laboratory experimentation and generalization of findings. C) cross-sectional surveys of self-help program participants. D) testimonials from those who have gone through such a program.
141. Studies examining the effectiveness of gender-sensitive programs for treating substance abuse have shown that substance abusers of different genders have: A) about the same physical and psychological reactions to drugs. B) the same physical, but different psychological, reactions to drugs. C) different physical, but the same psychological, reactions to drugs. D) different physical and psychological reactions to drugs.
142. A clinician wishes to begin a drug abuse prevention campaign in a community. The most important thing the clinician can do is to: A) concentrate on radio and TV public service announcements. B) enlist the help of those who are admired in the community. C) provide a consistent message across the media about drug abuse. D) obtain permission to focus the campaign in the local high school.
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143. DSM-5 includes gambling disorder as an addictive disorder, along with substance use disorders. This change is considered important because it: A) suggests that people may become addicted to behaviors, not just substances. B) defines an addiction as something that requires medical or psychological intervention. C) provides support for the concept that addiction is related solely to the reward circuit. D) means all of the treatments for substance use disorder can also be used to treat gambling addiction.
144. An individual goes to a casino two weekends every year. While there, she usually loses several thousand dollars gambling. Between casino visits, she neither gambles nor thinks much about gambling. Which statement is the MOST accurate assessment of this behavior? A) This behavior is not a gambling disorder. B) This behavior may not be gambling disorder because the person doesn't gamble often enough. C) This behavior may not be gambling disorder because the person doesn't lose enough money. D) This behavior is a gambling disorder.
145. Your friend has been restless all day and suddenly insists that the two of you go to the casino. You know your friend has been to the casino multiple times in the past two weeks and also has an important research paper he should be working on. However, he relentlessly pursues the idea of going to the casino. Does your friend qualify for the diagnosis of gambling disorder? A) Maybe; the restlessness and prioritizing of gambling over other responsibilities could be signs of gambling disorder. B) Maybe; your friend's behavior seems out of control, but his desire to have a friend go with him is contradictory. C) Most likely no; the frequency of the gambling is not consistent with someone with gambling disorder and there are no signs of impairment as a result of gambling. D) No; mood is not related to gambling and your friend's behavior doesn't seem out of control yet.
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146. “I've been diagnosed with gambling disorder,” a friend says. “Which kind of therapy works best?” Based on current research, your BEST response is: A) “Short-term psychodynamic therapy seems best.” B) “Drugs alone should do the trick.” C) “I'd suggest drug therapy plus cognitive-behavioral therapies.” D) “I'd suggest cognitive-behavioral therapies, biological therapies, and self-help groups.”
147. A friend asks which theory best explains how gambling disorder develops. Based on current research, the BEST response is: A) “Psychodynamic theory explains it best.” B) “Sociocultural theory offers the best explanation.” C) “Cognitive theory provides the most useful explanation.” D) “No one is really sure; we need more research.”
148. Which statement BEST describes Internet use disorder? A) This addiction disorder, first listed in DSM-5, refers to an uncontrollable need to be online at all times. B) Although not an official diagnosis, systems of this pattern are similar to those seen in substance use disorder and gambling disorder. C) Internet use disorder is a “disorder” created by the media; it does not reflect any consistent pattern of behavior or symptoms. D) This is a label that individuals apply to themselves to denote that they spend a lot of time online.
149. It is estimated that approximately _____ percent of the population has the Internet use disorder pattern. A) 1 B) 5 C) 10 D) 20
150. Internet use disorder MOST accurately refers to people who: A) are online every day. B) communicate primarily throughout online modes. C) spend most of their recreational time online. D) spend all or most of their waking hours online.
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Answer Key 1. B 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. B 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. A 11. A 12. A 13. A 14. C 15. D 16. C 17. B 18. C 19. C 20. D 21. C 22. C 23. B 24. C 25. C 26. C 27. D 28. D 29. B 30. C 31. C 32. A 33. D 34. C 35. A 36. C 37. B 38. D 39. A 40. C 41. C 42. A 43. D 44. A
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45. A 46. B 47. A 48. C 49. B 50. D 51. A 52. D 53. C 54. A 55. B 56. A 57. C 58. C 59. B 60. A 61. B 62. A 63. D 64. D 65. A 66. B 67. C 68. B 69. A 70. D 71. D 72. A 73. D 74. D 75. A 76. B 77. D 78. A 79. A 80. B 81. A 82. A 83. B 84. B 85. B 86. A 87. A 88. A 89. C 90. A
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91. B 92. D 93. D 94. D 95. A 96. D 97. D 98. A 99. A 100. B 101. C 102. D 103. C 104. C 105. C 106. B 107. C 108. A 109. C 110. D 111. B 112. B 113. C 114. C 115. D 116. B 117. C 118. B 119. C 120. B 121. C 122. A 123. D 124. B 125. C 126. B 127. C 128. B 129. C 130. B 131. B 132. B 133. D 134. C 135. C 136. A
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137. A 138. A 139. A 140. D 141. D 142. C 143. A 144. A 145. A 146. D 147. D 148. B 149. A 150. D
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1. _____ involves using a drug to the point that it affects one's family, social relationships, and/or work. A) Substance withdrawal B) Substance use disorder C) Substance tolerance D) Substance intoxication
2. The segment of the U.S. population with the lowest prevalence of alcoholism is: A) non-Hispanic white males. B) non-Hispanic white females. C) African American males. D) Asian males and females.
3. When alcohol concentration reaches _____ of a person's blood by volume, that individual has reached a state of intoxication. A) 0.05 percent B) 0.08 percent C) 0.09 percent D) 0.10 percent
4. Which activity will have the greatest effect on making an intoxicated person sober? A) Drinking strong, hot coffee B) Taking a cold shower C) Moderate to intense physical exertion D) Taking a nap
5. Binge drinking has been linked with all of the following EXCEPT: A) homicide. B) sexual assault. C) compromised heart functioning. D) impaired brain functioning.
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6. A classmate is arrested on your college campus. How likely is it that the person had been drinking alcohol? A) Not that likely; only approximately 5 percent of all campus arrests are associated with drinking. B) Somewhat likely; approximately 25 to 30 percent of all campus arrests are associated with drinking. C) Likely; approximately two-thirds of all campus arrests are associated with drinking. D) Very likely; more than 80 percent of all campus arrests are associated with drinking.
7. A serious, irreversible condition affecting the liver that is associated with long-term excessive drinking is: A) Korsakoff's syndrome. B) delirium tremens. C) fetal alcohol syndrome. D) cirrhosis.
8. Which drug was used as a cough medicine before its addictive properties were known? A) Whiskey B) Heroin C) Opium D) Cannabis
9. So many soldiers received morphine injections during the Civil War that addiction to morphine was known as: A) early codeine. B) wartime plague. C) soldier's disease. D) skin popping.
10. Which drug increases the activity of the central nervous system? A) Alcohol B) Cocaine C) Barbiturates D) Marijuana
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11. Which neurotransmitter system does cocaine have the GREATEST effect on? A) Serotonin B) Dopamine C) GABA D) Norepinephrine
12. Statistically speaking, which person is most likely to regularly smoke cigarettes? A) An unemployed young adult non-Hispanic white male B) An unemployed young adult Asian American female C) An employed Hispanic American male teenager D) An employed African American male adolescent
13. Which is the MOST accurate statement about the effects of marijuana in chronic male users? A) It increases fertility in some men. B) It causes infertility in most men. C) It causes lower sperm count in some men. D) It causes abnormal sperm morphology (shape and size) in some men. 14. What theory explains how the sight of a hypodermic needle can induce a “high” in a person who is dependent on heroin? A) Operant conditioning B) Cognitive dissonance C) Opponent-process D) Classical conditioning
15. Genetic linkage studies have found an abnormal form of a gene for which type of neurotransmitter receptor? A) D1 B) D2 C) GABA D) Serotonin
16. Which drug is NOT known to directly stimulate the brain's reward center? A) Heroin B) Cocaine C) Amphetamine D) Marijuana
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17. A community-based drug treatment program gives participants cash prizes for every drug-free urine sample they provide. The value of the prizes increases with the number of consecutive drug-free screenings. This is an example of: A) relapse-prevention training. B) contingency management. C) acceptance and commitment therapy. D) a self-help group.
18. A therapist is treating a client who misuses alcohol. As part of the therapy, the therapist teaches the client how to recognize when he is almost at his drinking limit. This therapist is using: A) relapse-prevention training. B) contingency management. C) acceptance and commitment therapy. D) aversion therapy.
19. The treatment model advocated by Alcoholics Anonymous is an example of a _____ approach. A) behavioral B) cognitive C) psychodynamic D) sociocultural
20. Individuals with gambling disorder tend to gamble more when they are: A) hungry. B) happy. C) tired. D) distressed.
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Answer Key 1. B 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. A 6. D 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. B 11. B 12. A 13. C 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. B 18. A 19. D 20. D
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1. Which term is applied to an individual who demonstrates a pattern of maladaptive behaviors and reactions brought about by a repeated use of a substance? A) Substance intoxication B) Substance use disorder C) Substance abuse D) Substance overdose
2. Methadone is a(n): A) depressant. B) stimulant. C) sedative. D) opioid.
3. What is the most immediate danger of heroin use? A) Delirium tremens B) Overdose C) Being arrested D) Methadone toxicity
4. Which statement about caffeine use is TRUE? A) Although caffeine can cause some physical effects when taken in large doses, no serious side effects are associated with its use. B) At high doses, caffeine can cause intoxication; at very high doses, it can cause death. C) Caffeine is not addictive; the risk associated with its use is related to negative side effects when consumed in large doses. D) The primary danger associated with caffeine use is overdose.
5. Which drug has gained a reputation as being the drug of choice for all-night techno-dance parties? A) Cocaine B) Heroin C) MDMA D) Marijuana
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6. Sometimes two or more drugs are so similar in their actions on the brain and the body that as people build a tolerance for one drug, they are simultaneously developing a tolerance for the other. This is known as: A) synergism. B) polysubstance disorder. C) cross-tolerance. D) comorbidity.
7. The combined impact of different drugs multiplying or potentiating each other's effects is known as the _____ effect. A) cross-tolerance B) synergistic C) potentiation D) double bind
8. Austin is taking two different drugs that have similar actions in the body. The primary concern is that this could cause a(n): A) antagonistic action. B) polysubstance rush. C) pharmacologic potentiation. D) synergistic effect.
9. Which statement is NOT a sociocultural explanation for the cause of substance disorders? A) Being a member of a low socioeconomic class contributes to substance abuse. B) Regions with higher levels of unemployment have higher rates of alcoholism. C) Substance use and dependence are more likely to occur in families in which substance use is valued or at least accepted. D) Children whose needs are not met by parents grow up depending on others for comfort, and this may develop into a dependent relationship with a substance.
10. Which method of ingesting a substance produces the fastest effect on the brain? A) Chewing B) Injecting C) Snorting D) Inhaling
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11. Which theory explains drug-seeking behavior as led by a rewarding effect that makes using the substance again more likely? A) Operant conditioning B) Learned helplessness C) Synergistic theory D) Opponent-process theory
12. Chronic and excessive use of alcohol or benzodiazepines may lower the brain's production of: A) endorphins. B) dopamine. C) GABA. D) anandamides.
13. Regular use of opioids may reduce the brain's production of: A) dopamine. B) anandamides. C) endorphins. D) GABA.
14. Aversion therapy has been mainly used in the treatment of _____ use disorder. A) alcohol B) heroin C) cocaine D) nicotine
15. Which drug treatment approach makes incentives (such as program privileges) dependent on the submission of drug-free urine specimens? A) Relapse prevention B) Contingency management C) Acceptance and commitment therapy D) Behavioral self-control training (BSCT)
16. An inpatient at a hospital is going through detoxification. To reduce severe alcohol withdrawal reactions such as delirium tremens and seizures, the clinician would MOST likely administer: A) antianxiety drugs. B) sedatives. C) antidepressant drugs. D) antipsychotic drugs.
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17. Drugs that bind to endorphin receptor sites and make it impossible for opioids to have their usual effect are known as: A) detoxifiers. B) agonist drugs. C) narcotic antagonist. D) benzodiazepines.
18. _____ is often given to people who are trying to stop consuming alcohol. A) Methadone B) Naloxone C) Disulfiram D) The alcohol patch
19. A therapist is treating a client for cocaine abuse. As part of the treatment, the therapist addresses the stresses that commonly lead to relapse. This therapist is MOST likely providing: A) psychodynamic therapy. B) maintenance drug therapy. C) culturally sensitive treatment. D) cognitive-behavioral treatment.
20. A community program designed to prevent the misuse of substances is an example of a _____ therapy. A) humanistic B) sociocultural C) psychodynamic D) cognitive-behavioral
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Answer Key 1. B 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. B 8. D 9. D 10. D 11. A 12. C 13. C 14. A 15. B 16. A 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. B
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Chapter 13
1. Compare and contrast the characteristics of male hypoactive sexual desire disorder and female sexual interest/arousal disorder. Give and discuss two examples from biological causes of these disorders.
2. Sarah has vaginismus. Explain her difficulties and identify possible causes of this dysfunction.
3. Discuss the changes in the understanding and treatment of sexual dysfunction over the past 40 years.
4. You are teaching a seminar on modern sex therapy. Explain to your students the principles of modern sex therapy, and describe three of the techniques that are often used with patients suffering from sexual dysfunction, and that should be used in almost all cases, regardless of the dysfunction.
5. Marcus has erectile disorder and comes to you, a sex therapist, for help. Before he begins treatment, he wants to know which methods are commonly used to help improve symptoms and how they work. Identify three approaches for treating erectile disorder and explain how each works.
6. Melody is nervous about getting treatment for female orgasmic disorder. She has read a lot about it online and asks you to explain to her the best treatment for female orgasmic disorder, including what the treatment entails as well as any controversial issues. What do you tell her?
7. Certain techniques are used in the treatment of fetishes. Define and compare the following techniques: masturbatory satiation, orgasmic reorientation, and aversion therapy.
8. Compare and contrast frotteuristic disorder and exhibitionist disorder.
9. Define pedophilic disorder, being sure to describe the typical individual with this disorder. What form of therapy would you try if you were treating someone with pedophilia?
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10. How does a person with gender dysphoria typically feel? Which treatment options would you consider if treating someone with this condition?
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Answer Key 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
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1. _____ is the inability to achieve an erection.
2. The biological cause of male erectile disorder is MOST frequently _____ problems.
3. Nocturnal penile erections are measured through a screening device called a(n) _____.
4. Masters and Johnson state that sexual disorders are often maintained because during intercourse one or both partners adopt a spectator role or have crippling fears about _____.
5. In males, delay in achieving orgasm, or not achieving it even after adequate stimulation, is termed _____.
6. A woman experiencing _____ has vaginal muscle spasms that prevent comfortable entry of a penis.
7. Pain in the genitals during intercourse is called _____.
8. In sex therapy, _____ refers to the belief that both partners in a relationship share the sexual problem.
9. The technique in which sexual partners use a graded set of sexual exercises to explore each other's body, but without engaging in intercourse or focusing on achieving orgasm, is called _____ focus.
10. A vacuum erection device may be used to treat _____ in males.
11. A person who has _____ may rub his genitals against an unsuspecting person in a crowded theater.
12. The disorder frotteurism gradually decreases and often disappears by age _____.
13. When people nearly strangle themselves to achieve arousal, they are practicing _____.
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14. Individuals who feel that their actual gender identity is different from the gender they were born with would be diagnosed as having _____.
15. A person's gender at the time of birth, based on the genitals the person has, is referred to as that person's _____ gender.
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Answer Key 1. Erectile disorder 2. vascular 3. snap gauge band 4. performance 5. male orgasmic disorder 6. vaginismus 7. dyspareunia 8. mutual responsibility 9. sensate 10. erectile failure 11. frotteurism 12. 25 13. hypoxyphilia 14. gender dysphoria 15. assigned
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1. Research shows that sexual dysfunctions among homosexual couples: A) are virtually nonexistent. B) generally are more severe than among heterosexual couples. C) include two distinct categories not included among heterosexual dysfunctions. D) are the same as those seen in heterosexual couples.
2. If someone had a sexual dysfunction, we know that this person would NOT be having difficulty in which phase of the sexual response cycle? A) Excitement B) Resolution C) Orgasm D) Desire
3. In a person who has an unusually long resolution phase of the sexual response cycle, which of the following is MOST likely? A) The person is a man. B) The person is a teenager. C) The person did not have an orgasm. D) The person was never aroused.
4. A man who has never been able to achieve or maintain an erection for sexual intercourse would MOST likely be diagnosed with which type of erectile disorder? A) Acquired B) Lifelong C) Situational D) Generalized
5. A woman is perfectly capable of masturbating to orgasm, yet she is unable to reach orgasm with a partner, either through sexual intercourse or through the partner's manual stimulation of her. MOST likely, this type of orgasmic disorder would be called: A) lifelong. B) acquired. C) generalized. D) situational.
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6. If an individual had experienced normal sexual functioning for years and gradually developed a problem with becoming aroused under any condition, the type of dysfunction would be called: A) lifelong and situational. B) acquired and situational. C) lifelong and generalized. D) acquired and generalized.
7. If an individual had experienced normal sexual functioning for years and then had a problem with becoming aroused only when with her husband as a partner, the type of dysfunction would be called: A) lifelong and situational. B) acquired and situational. C) lifelong and generalized. D) acquired and generalized.
8. If a woman had never experienced normal sexual functioning with her husband and had a problem with becoming aroused with him but found she could be aroused with other men, the type of dysfunction would be called: A) lifelong and situational. B) acquired and situational. C) lifelong and generalized. D) acquired and generalized.
9. A person who once experienced normal to above-normal levels of sexual desire recently has begun to feel much less sexual desire than normal. A sexual dysfunction following this pattern would be called: A) situational. B) acquired. C) lifelong. D) generalized.
10. According to Masters and Johnson, the resolution phase of the sexual response cycle is more gradual and less sudden in women when they: A) do not experience orgasm. B) do not experience arousal. C) experience a sexual aversion. D) have experienced multiple orgasms.
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11. During the young adult years, which experience is LEAST common among women? A) Engaging in masturbation B) Not having had heterosexual contact C) Having had sexual contact with a same-sex partner D) Having had heterosexual contact
12. If a woman is 90 years old and healthy, what is the chance, expressed as a percentage, that she still masturbates at least occasionally? A) Less than 1 percent B) Approximately 10 percent C) Approximately 20 percent D) Greater than 20 percent
13. What percentage of 16-year-old males masturbate at least occasionally? A) 15 percent B) 35 percent C) 55 percent D) 75 percent
14. If a man is 90 years old and healthy, what is the chance, expressed as a percentage, that he still masturbates at least occasionally? A) Less than 5 percent B) Approximately 20 percent C) Approximately 40 percent D) Greater than 40 percent
15. What percentage of 17-year-old boys have had heterosexual intercourse? A) 5 percent B) 10 percent C) 24 percent D) 44 percent
16. An otherwise healthy man reports almost no interest in sexual activity and has had very few sexual experiences in the past several years. This person MOST likely is experiencing: A) male hypoactive sexual desire disorder. B) paraphilia. C) sexual aversion. D) sexual repulsion.
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17. Male hypoactive sexual desire disorder may include all of the following EXCEPT: A) engaging in a low level of sexual activity. B) finding sexual activity repulsive. C) lacking interest in sexual activity. D) having normal physical sexual responses.
18. To be classified as having male hypoactive sexual desire disorder, a man would have a reduced interest in sex and little sexual activity, with these conditions lasting: A) a week. B) a month C) six months. D) a year.
19. Some individuals experience a normal interest in sex but choose not to engage in sexual relations. Such people would be diagnosed with: A) sexual aversion. B) hypoactive sexual desire disorder. C) no sexual dysfunction. D) failure of the sexual response cycle.
20. Female sexual interest/arousal disorder differs from male hypoactive sexual desire disorder MOST notably in that it: A) includes difficulties in both the desire and arousal stages of the sexual response cycle. B) leads to reproductive difficulties. C) is much more likely to have a physical cause than a psychological cause. D) is much more difficult to treat.
21. LaTisha experiences little sexual response to erotic cues and physical stimulation. She is MOST likely experiencing: A) female sexual interest/arousal disorder. B) hypersexuality. C) vaginismus. D) gender dysphoria.
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22. Which hormone can cause decreased sexual desire when present in low but not high levels? A) Estrogen B) Prolactin C) Testosterone D) Progesterone
23. Which hormone can cause decreased sexual desire when present in either low or high levels? A) Estrogen B) Prolactin C) Testosterone D) Progesterone
24. A young woman who formerly had a fairly high sex drive, and who reports no new medical problems, nonetheless experiences an unexpected drop in sex drive. What would be an important question to ask her, before recommending some sort of psychotherapy? A) “Have you been exposed to high levels of testosterone lately?” B) “Have you recently started taking birth control pills?” C) “Have you recently stopped using marijuana?” D) “Have you experienced lower levels of prolactin lately?”
25. A woman reports having vivid sexual fantasies, yet she is unable to experience either clitoral or labial swelling or vaginal lubrication. The MOST likely diagnosis for this woman would be: A) vaginismus. B) frigidity. C) female orgasmic disorder. D) female sexual interest/arousal disorder.
26. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of female sexual interest/arousal disorder? A) Lack of clitoral swelling B) Lack of interest in sexual activity C) Inadequate lubrication during sexual activity D) Lack of sexual fantasies
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27. Which of the following drugs, when used at low levels, may raise the sex drive? A) Alcohol B) Cocaine C) Amphetamines D) Pain medication
28. Why might someone with obsessive-compulsive disorder have low sexual desire? A) The person finds contact with body fluids and odors unpleasant. B) The person compulsively seeks sexual partners. C) The person obsesses about having no sexual partners. D) The person is too afraid to enjoy sexual activity.
29. If a therapist were seeing patients for treatment of low sexual desire, the therapist would be MOST likely find which of the following disorders as well? A) Schizophrenia and eating disorders B) Substance abuse and anxiety disorder C) Depression and obsessive-compulsive disorder D) Organic brain dysfunction and personality disorders
30. Which is NOT an example of a sociocultural cause of low sexual desire? A) A partner who lacks sexual skills B) Loss of a job C) Infertility problems D) Use of pain medication
31. Ayesha decided to go to therapy to address her low sexual desire and limited sex life with her husband. She talks about lots of issues from her past. The event from her past that her therapist believes is most responsible for her low sexual desire is: A) sexual molestation. B) the birth of her child. C) infertility difficulties. D) job satisfaction.
32. A recently married, physically healthy man expresses great love for his new spouse, yet he feels almost no sexual desire for her. One likely cause of his condition is: A) belief in a cultural double standard about women. B) decreased testosterone output due to drinking on his wedding night. C) increased estrogen output now that he has settled down. D) a relationship that is too positive and healthy.
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33. In females, the labia swells during which phase of the sexual response cycle? A) Desire B) Arousal C) Orgasm D) Resolution
34. In males, the penis becomes erect during which phase of the sexual response cycle? A) Excitement B) Arousal C) Orgasm D) Resolution
35. Women with female sexual interest/arousal disorder have difficulty with: A) painful intercourse. B) vaginal spasms. C) maintaining proper lubrication. D) stereotypical female sex roles.
36. Erectile dysfunction occurs during the _____ phase of sexual arousal. A) excitement B) orgasmic C) desire D) resolution
37. According to DSM-5, all excitement disorders have in common the diagnostic requirement that the difficulty: A) begins in adolescence or early adulthood. B) causes significant distress or impairment. C) is apparent in all sexual encounters. D) lasts at least one year.
38. Tony sees a physician for erectile disorder and wants to understand why it is happening to him. His physician is likely to tell him that most cases of erectile disorder are caused by: A) psychosocial factors. B) physical impairment. C) a combination of psychosocial and physical causes. D) causes other than psychosocial or physical ones.
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39. If Dr. Henson is looking for a biological cause of an erectile disorder, she would MOST productively look for a: A) neurological problem. B) vascular problem. C) reproductive problem. D) renal problem.
40. What is the MOST common biological cause of erectile failure in men? A) Diabetes B) Performance anxiety C) Vascular problems D) Abnormal hormone levels
41. A person who (unfortunately) had the following disorders—clogged arteries, diabetes, and kidney failure—would be at special risk for: A) erectile disorder. B) early ejaculation C) dyspareunia. D) vaginismus.
42. A man does not have any penile erections during sleep. This indicates: A) a normal response. B) nocturnal penile tumescence. C) performance anxiety. D) a biologically based erectile dysfunction.
43. A normal healthy man experiences: A) 20 to 30 minutes of penile erection per night of sleep. B) most nocturnal tumescence during deep (delta) sleep. C) brief, fleeting nighttime erections. D) erections during REM sleep.
44. A man awakens after eight hours of normal sleep and has an unbroken snap gauge band. There is a good chance that the man has a: A) physical basis for his erectile problems. B) socioculturally related erectile disorder. C) psychologically related erectile disorder. D) normal sex life.
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45. According to Masters and Johnson, performance anxiety may result in a man: A) failing to break a snap gauge band. B) breaking a snap gauge band. C) experiencing severe depression after sexual activity. D) adopting a spectator role during sexual activity.
46. Which of the following occupations is MOST similar to what Masters and Johnson identified as the spectator role in sexual behavior? A) Priest B) Airline pilot C) Actor D) Judge
47. Which of the following is a sociocultural cause for male erectile disorder? A) Diabetes B) Loss of a job C) Mild depression D) Performance anxiety
48. Based on the likely sociocultural factors related to erectile disorders, the BEST advice you could give to an aging couple would be to: A) “Retire or quit your job or jobs.” B) “Provide more intense and lengthy penile stimulation.” C) “Focus on intercourse over other forms of sexual expression.” D) “Give up; there is no effective treatment.”
49. An orgasm is a release of sexual tension through: A) vascular congestion. B) muscle contraction. C) cardiac relaxation. D) psychological desire.
50. According to DSM-5, the cut-off point for diagnosing early ejaculation is within _____ of initiating sexual activity. A) 30 seconds B) 1 minute C) 3 minutes D) 10 minutes
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51. Compared with erectile disorder, early ejaculation is: A) common among older men. B) likely to have a physical explanation. C) likely related to a low testosterone level. D) common among men of all ages.
52. In the United States, over the past several decades, the typical duration of sexual intercourse has: A) increased, as has the distress of those suffering from early ejaculation. B) increased, while the distress of those suffering from early ejaculation has decreased. C) decreased, while the distress of those suffering from early ejaculation has increased. D) decreased, as has the distress of those suffering from early ejaculation.
53. From a psychological perspective, early ejaculation is usually the result of: A) sexual aversion. B) sexual impotence. C) organic problems. D) sexual inexperience.
54. William, a 20-year-old who is having his first sexual relationship, has gone to see a sex therapist about a sexual dysfunction problem. What is William MOST likely suffering from? A) Dyspareunia B) Inhibited ejaculation C) Early ejaculation D) Male hypoactive sexual desire disorder
55. The most common male sexual dysfunction is: A) erectile disorder. B) orgasmic disorder. C) early ejaculation. D) dyspareunia.
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56. A man experiencing the process of erection and partial elevation of the testes is in which stage of sexual response? A) Excitement B) Desire C) Orgasm D) Refraction
57. Delayed ejaculation appears MOST likely to be caused by disruptions in the _____ system. A) neurological B) urological C) digestive D) muscular
58. Which statement is MOST accurate about female orgasm? A) Approximately 50 percent of women experience orgasmic disorder. B) Approximately 25 percent of women have never experienced an orgasm. C) Women who are comfortable masturbating are more likely to experience orgasm. D) Women who rely on clitoral stimulation for orgasm are considered unhealthy.
59. Tania can masturbate or be manually stimulated to orgasm but cannot reach orgasm during sexual intercourse. She would be diagnosed with: A) no sexual disorder. B) orgasmic disorder. C) vaginismus. D) dyspareunia.
60. Compared with researchers of past generations, modern researchers believe that clitoral orgasms are: A) normal and healthy. B) felt only by sexually dysfunctional women. C) the result of fixation on neurotic infantile needs. D) superior to vaginal orgasms in terms of sexual gratification.
61. A woman who is sexually assertive and comfortable with masturbation will MOST likely: A) experience a sexual dysfunction. B) have orgasms more regularly. C) have a partner who experiences premature ejaculation. D) have both an arousal disorder and an orgasmic disorder.
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62. In Victorian times, a woman diagnosed as insane was presumed to have a dysfunction of her: A) brain. B) soul. C) heart. D) reproductive organs.
63. Parents who want to decrease the likelihood that their young daughters will experience orgasmic disorder as adults should: A) not be affectionate with each other. B) expose their daughters to positive attitudes about sex. C) make sure their daughters have early sexual experiences. D) punish their daughters for masturbation.
64. Having a positive relationship with one's mother is associated with _____ in women. A) positive orgasm outcomes B) low sexual desire C) hyperactive desire D) paraphilia
65. Which finding would argue AGAINST the idea that low sexual desire in women is caused by societal treatment of women? A) The same drugs that interfere with ejaculation in men cause low sexual desire in women. B) A sexually restrictive history is equally common among women with and without low sexual desire. C) Clitoral orgasms are just as common and pleasurable as vaginal orgasms. D) Erotic fantasies are more common in women with low sexual desire than in those without it.
66. Research has revealed that lack of orgasm can sometimes be linked to all the following EXCEPT: A) current attraction to her partner. B) marital happiness. C) female inadequacies. D) diseases or current medications.
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67. Married women are more likely to be orgasmic when they have: A) unhappy marriages. B) a weak emotional attachment to their first sex partner. C) an attraction to their current partner's occupation. D) marital happiness and a current attraction to their partner's body.
68. Which finding BEST argues against the idea that female orgasmic problems are due to society's message to women that they should deny their sexuality? A) Many women with arousal and orgasmic difficulties had overly strict religious upbringings. B) Many women with arousal and orgasmic difficulties were punished for childhood masturbation. C) Many women with arousal and orgasmic difficulties have a history of rape or child sexual molestation. D) Many women with arousal and orgasmic difficulties received little information about sex and menstruation.
69. Attitudes about women's sexuality are more liberal now, yet the rates of female orgasmic disorders have remained the same. This trend: A) implies there may be stressful events or issues in relationships related to the difficulty. B) suggests that the Victorians were incorrect in their assumptions about clitoral orgasms. C) implies that conservative views are at the root of orgasmic dysfunction. D) means that there must be an interaction of many factors that produce sexual dysfunction.
70. What is thought to be the cause of vaginismus, the involuntary contraction of vaginal muscles? A) Conditioning of a fear response B) Nervous system damage from diabetes C) Neurological damage in the cerebellum D) A learned aversion to sexual behavior in general
71. People experiencing dyspareunia: A) do not enjoy sex. B) are unable to become sexually aroused. C) experience pain during sex. D) are unable to masturbate.
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72. Lisa reports pain during intercourse. It is MOST likely caused by: A) a traumatic psychological event. B) relationship difficulties. C) some physical condition. D) sociocultural expectations related to the female role.
73. Symptoms of vaginismus always include: A) an inability to experience orgasm. B) involuntary contraction of vaginal muscles. C) a dislike for and distrust of sexual relationships. D) an emotional detachment from the partner.
74. What is another name for genital pain during sexual activity? A) Dyspareunia B) Premature ejaculation C) Erectile disorder D) Male orgasmic disorder
75. In psychodynamic theory, the therapeutic goal in treating sexual dysfunction is to: A) cause broad personality changes. B) systematically use free association. C) overcome a learned aversion to sexual material. D) keep a dream diary for dream interpretation.
76. What problem did early behavioral therapists focus on when treating sexual dysfunction? A) Fear B) Depression C) Aggression D) Conflict resolution
77. The study of sexuality that led to a revolution in the treatment of sexual dysfunction was done by: A) Kaplan. B) Freud and Jung. C) Masters and Johnson. D) Friedman and LoPiccolo.
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78. If someone receives modern sex therapy, chances are that the therapy will: A) center on specific sexual problems. B) center on specific personality problems. C) deal with broad biological/cultural issues. D) deal with broad personality issues.
79. Which of the following would a qualified sex therapist be LEAST likely to say to a client? A) “Focus on your performance as if you were a spectator.” B) “Try to figure out which events in the past might be impacting your sexual behavior.” C) “Maybe if you work on your marital happiness, your sex life will improve.” D) “You need to talk more with your partner about what you like and don't like sexually.”
80. The idea that both partners share the accountability for sexual dysfunction is known as: A) couples therapy. B) mutual responsibility. C) nondemand pleasuring. D) interactionary dysfunction.
81. The term sensate focus refers to the technique in which: A) sexual intercourse is encouraged daily. B) eye contact is maintained during sexual activity. C) the genitals are focused on during sexual activity. D) the sexual relationship is rebuilt, concentrating on pleasure.
82. Ron and Dora are in sex therapy and are working on eliminating the spectator role. They will likely be advised to: A) have sex in as many different settings as they can manage. B) video record their sexual encounters to increase fantasy material. C) refrain from having intercourse and focus on other body pleasure instead. D) drink small quantities of alcohol to relax.
83. Which does NOT belong with the others? A) Sensate focus B) Aversion therapy C) Nondemand pleasuring D) Petting
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84. Peacocking is a way to attract sexual partners by: A) dressing with flair. B) dancing. C) maintain eye contact. D) concentrating on pleasure.
85. The practice in which a patient is taught to visualize sexual scenes and uncover any negative emotions that occur is: A) self-instruction training. B) affectual awareness. C) aversion therapy. D) performance anxiety.
86. David was instructed to imagine sexual scenes to identify when in the sexual encounter his anxiety about sex first arose. He was engaging in a therapeutic technique called: A) affectual awareness. B) systematic desensitization. C) orgasmic reorientation. D) sexual satiation.
87. In treating erectile disorder, the tease technique involves: A) three or more episodes of intercourse each night for a month. B) stimulating the penis but stopping stimulation once erection occurs. C) stimulating the penis until ejaculation, followed by a pause and then another period of stimulation. D) stimulating the penis, but before ejaculation can occur, squeezing the penis below the head to prevent ejaculation.
88. A man's sexual partner repeatedly stimulates him to erection and then allows the erection to subside without the man experiencing an ejaculation. The sexual technique is called the: A) phase technique. B) sneeze technique. C) tease technique. D) squeeze technique.
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89. How does Viagra work? A) It increases blood flow into the penis. B) It draws blood flow out of the penis to create a vacuum. C) It increases testosterone levels. D) It creates new cognitions about sex.
90. Which of the following is the MOST accurate conclusion regarding the use of Viagra and related drugs to treat erectile disorders? A) The drugs are safe but not effective in treating the disorders. B) The drugs are safe and effective, but should be used only after careful assessment of what is causing the problem. C) The drugs work approximately 75 percent of the time and are often given without first assessing what is causing the problem. D) The drugs are effective but so unsafe that they are no longer prescribed.
91. EMTs need to be sure to ask someone who is taking nitroglycerin if that person also has taken: A) estrogen. B) sildenafil. C) testosterone. D) antidepressants.
92. If, during intercourse, a woman repeatedly stimulates her male partner to the point when he almost reaches orgasm and then stops, he is probably being treated for: A) erectile dysfunction. B) early ejaculation. C) orgasmic dysfunction. D) dyspareunia.
93. A man has been taught to masturbate almost to orgasm, and then to insert his penis for intercourse. He is being treated for: A) early ejaculation. B) dyspareunia. C) delayed ejaculation. D) gender identity disorder.
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94. Theoretically, why do SSRIs help treat early ejaculation? A) Men who ejaculate early often become depressed. B) SSRIs reduce serotonin levels, thus increasing arousal. C) SSRIs inhibit the anxiety that is often related to early ejaculation. D) SSRIs reduce arousal and orgasm and help men delay ejaculation.
95. Which is NOT a treatment for female orgasmic disorder? A) Creation of orgasm triggers B) Masturbation training C) Positioning that produces clitoral stimulation D) Use of the squeeze technique
96. A client receives directed masturbation training and self-exploration instruction as part of the client's sex therapy. MOST likely, the client is a: A) woman being treated for orgasmic disorder. B) woman being treated for vaginismus. C) man being treated for erectile disorder. D) man being treated for premature ejaculation.
97. A woman who is inserting dilators into her vagina in a nondemand manner is probably being treated for: A) orgasmic dysfunction. B) vaginismus. C) dyspareunia. D) arousal difficulties.
98. The fact that insurance companies in the United States generally covered Viagra but not birth control pills until required to do so by state law supports the idea that: A) birth control pills carry more medical risks than Viagra. B) private funds need to cover women's sexual health, but not men's sexual health. C) society sets different standards for sexually active men than for women. D) the United States lags behind other countries (such as Japan) in recognizing women's sexuality.
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99. Why do people object to the use of Viagra and similar drugs being voluntarily covered by health insurance companies but fail to object to birth control pills not being covered unless mandated by law? A) Viagra is much more expensive than birth control pills. B) The reason is ageism; Viagra is used by older people, while birth control is used by younger people. C) Viagra is a trade drug; birth control pills are largely generic. D) The reason may be the sexual double standard; sex is considered okay for men but not for women.
100. Which is NOT an example of current trends in sex therapy? A) Treating partners who are living together but not married B) Treating the elderly who have sexual dysfunctions C) Treating homosexual people with sexual dysfunctions D) Treating only those who do not have other serious psychological problems
101. Most sex therapists are uneasy about recent reliance on drug treatments for sexual disorders because: A) the integrated approach to therapy might be ignored. B) drug treatment is generally not effective. C) the risk of drug dependence is high. D) use of such drugs makes the treatment of sexual disorders more complex than it needs to be.
102. Which disorder is NOT listed in DSM-5 but might be in future DSM editions, following additional study? A) Pedophilic disorder B) Gender dysphoria C) Male orgasmic disorder D) Hypersexuality
103. A person who has paraphilia: A) does not respond sexually to any type of stimulus. B) responds sexually to a socially inappropriate object or situation. C) is unable to experience sexual arousal. D) is unable to achieve sexual satisfaction.
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104. A person who becomes sexually aroused in the presence of stimuli most people in that person's society would not think appropriate is experiencing: A) sexual dysfunction. B) gender identity disorder. C) paraphilia. D) hyperactive sexual desire.
105. Most clinicians would agree that paraphilic activities should NOT be considered a disorder when: A) children are involved. B) the behavior is the exclusive way one becomes aroused. C) the behavior is part of an otherwise typical sex life. D) the behavior is nonconsensual.
106. DSM-5 recommends a diagnosis of paraphilia only when associated behaviors, fantasies, or urges last at least: A) six months. B) one year. C) two years. D) three years.
107. According to DSM-5, someone who initiates sexual contact with children is: A) experiencing a paraphilia, but only if the person is also mentally ill. B) experiencing a paraphilia but only if the behavior causes the person significant distress. C) experiencing a paraphilia, but only if the behavior is illegal. D) experiencing a paraphilia regardless of how troubled the individual may be.
108. SSRIs successfully treat paraphilias, MOST likely because of paraphilias' similarity to: A) compulsive-like disorders. B) sexual disorders. C) depression. D) schizophrenia.
109. An antiandrogen would be MOST appropriate if a paraphilic disorder is caused by: A) too much estrogen in the body. B) an inappropriate sex drive. C) a deficiency in the production of testosterone. D) a hormonal imbalance that occurred during the prenatal period.
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110. What is the term for the use of and attraction to inanimate objects as a preferred method of achieving sexual excitement? A) Fetishism B) Pedophilia C) Voyeurism D) Exhibitionism
111. The campus bra bandit steals women's underwear from the campus laundry and then masturbates into the underwear. The MOST accurate diagnosis would be: A) no diagnosis; this behavior falls within normal limits. B) fetishism. C) transvestic fetishism. D) exhibitionistic fetishism.
112. What does the process of covert sensitization for fetishism involve? A) Masturbating while thinking of the fetish object B) Mentally pairing a fetish object with an aversive stimulus C) Pairing electric shock to the arm or leg with the fetish object D) Creating a hierarchy of arousing objects and teaching the patient to relax while thinking of each in turn
113. Eduardo has a troublesome foot fetish. In therapy, he imagines a shoe and then immediately imagines an aversive stimulus. The behavioral approach being used is: A) covert sensitization. B) relapse-prevention training. C) flooding. D) contingency management.
114. Which condition would MOST likely be treated with masturbatory satiation? A) Transvestism B) Premature ejaculation C) A fetish D) Erectile dysfunction
115. The MOST common fetish is: A) hats. B) dolls. C) shoes. D) trains.
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116. Which does NOT belong with the others? A) Graduated dilators B) Masturbatory satiation C) Orgasmic reorientation D) Aversion therapy
117. Cross-dressing is another term for: A) homosexuality. B) transvestic disorder. C) orgasmic reorientation. D) satiation.
118. A man derives sexual arousal exclusively from dressing in women's clothing. MOST likely, that person would be diagnosed as: A) normal and healthy. B) an exhibitionist. C) having transvestic disorder. D) having gender dysphoria.
119. Exhibitionists engage in that behavior because they: A) were sexually abused as children. B) are trying to solicit sexual contact. C) are unable to experience sexual relations. D) desire a shock reaction from their victim.
120. An exhibitionist exposes himself to another. Which response from the victim would be LEAST satisfying to the exhibitionist? A) Saying, “I'm shocked. You really surprise me.” B) Screaming C) Ignoring the exhibitionist D) Hiding one's eyes and gasping
121. Why are people who go to strip clubs generally NOT considered to be voyeurs? A) The nudity of the performers is not complete. B) There is no sense that people who go there are doing something frowned on by society. C) The performers are consenting to being seen by the audience. D) The performers are exhibitionists and it's impossible for someone to simultaneously be an exhibitionist and a voyeur.
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122. Which thought would likely be MOST arousing to a voyeur in the act of secretly watching a couple have sex? A) “I wish those people knew I was watching them.” B) “I know I am doing this in a way that I can't get caught.” C) “I'll probably never think about this again.” D) “The people would be humiliated if they knew I was watching.”
123. In a very crowded department store during the Christmas rush, a woman suddenly feels a stranger rubbing his genital area against her thigh. He continues until the crowd begins to break up, and then he moves away. The MOST likely diagnosis for this man is: A) pedophilia. B) frotteurism. C) sexual masochism. D) hypoxyphilia.
124. During which period does frotteurism typically develop? A) Adolescence B) Early adulthood C) Middle adulthood D) Late adulthood
125. During which period does pedophilia typically develop? A) Adolescence B) Early adulthood C) Middle adulthood D) Late adulthood
126. Those MOST at risk of becoming a victim of a pedophile are: A) postpubescent boys. B) boys in early puberty. C) boys and girls of any age. D) prepubescent girls. 127. “It's all right to have sex with children as long as they agree.” This is an example of the _____ often experienced by pedophiles. A) situational bias B) distorted thinking C) auditory processing disorder D) delayed intellectual development
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128. Which statement about pedophiles is MOST supported by current research? A) Most pedophiles have at least one other psychological disorder. B) The majority of pedophiles develop their sexual pattern of need as adults. C) Pedophiles most commonly target boys as their victims. D) There is a clear biological cause for pedophilia.
129. A technique used to treat pedophiles is to have them identify the situations that trigger pedophilic fantasies and then learn to avoid the situations or cope with them more effectively. This technique is called: A) orgasmic reorientation. B) antiandrogenic drug therapy. C) aversion therapy. D) relapse-prevention training.
130. A person with _____ is repeatedly and intensely sexually aroused by the act of being humiliated, beaten, or made to suffer. A) sexual masochism disorder B) masturbatory satiation C) frotteuristic disorder D) pedophilic disorder
131. Shawn cannot enjoy sexual intercourse unless he is tied up by his partner and beaten. His behavior is typical of: A) voyeurism. B) frotteurism. C) sexual sadism. D) sexual masochism.
132. Autoerotic asphyxia is a fatal side effect associated with: A) Viagra use. B) masochistic practice. C) cross-dressing. D) rope fetish.
133. What is the primary source of sexual excitement for sexual sadists? A) The victim's suffering B) A specific part of the victim's body C) The use of leather to cause suffering D) The intense pain they receive from their partners
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134. While inflicting pain, perhaps unintentionally, on an animal or a person, a teenager may become sexually aroused and later turn out to be a sadist. The theory that BEST describes this example of the development of sadism is: A) cognitive-behavioral. B) psychodynamic. C) sociocultural. D) biological.
135. Individuals who have a strong sense that their gender identity is different from their birth anatomy are known as: A) transgender. B) homosexual. C) cisgender. D) fluid.
136. Transgender people who experience extreme distress over the incongruence of their gender identity and/or find themselves impaired by it in their social relationships, at work, or at school have: A) gender dysphoria. B) transvestic disorder. C) cisgender disorder. D) fluid gender.
137. What differentiates a person with gender dysphoria from a transgender person? A) A person with gender dysphoria experiences extreme distress and impairment over his or her gender incongruence. B) A person with gender dysphoria is content with his or her transgendered experiences. C) A transgender person is unhappy with his or her biological gender; a person with gender dysphoria is not. D) People with gender dysphoria want reassignment surgery; transgender people do not.
138. If someone felt assigned to the wrong sex and identified with the opposite gender, that person would MOST likely receive a diagnosis of: A) gender dysphoria. B) homosexuality. C) fetishism. D) sexual dysfunction.
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139. A person who is experiencing gender dysphoria: A) cross-dresses for the purpose of sexual arousal. B) is content with his or her transgender experiences. C) is unhappy with his or her biological gender. D) cannot be categorized using current DSM-5 definitions.
140. A person who is biologically male but considers himself a woman and would like to live as a woman is: A) a sexual masochist. B) transgender. C) a transvestite. D) a homosexual.
141. A person feels most comfortable wearing clothes preferred by the opposite gender, strongly wishes to be the opposite gender, and is considering a surgical procedure. The MOST likely diagnosis for this person is: A) transvestic disorder. B) sexual masochist. C) sexual sadist. D) gender dysphoria.
142. What is the MOST common outcome of gender dysphoria in childhood? A) It develops into pedophilia. B) It disappears by adolescence or adulthood. C) It is a precursor to transsexualism. D) It is a precursor to transvestite fetishism.
143. Which theoretical orientation is MOST helpful in understanding the origin of gender identity disorder? A) Sociocultural B) Biological C) Family systems D) Cognitive-behavioral
144. Generally speaking, what are the outcomes of gender reassignment surgery? A) The outcomes are negative. B) People universally regret undergoing such surgery. C) The outcomes are positive. D) There is no research examining the outcomes.
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145. When people with gender dysphoria take hormones, it is in an attempt to: A) enhance their gender of birth. B) facilitate their living as the other gender. C) reduce their sex drives. D) change their external genitals.
146. Why might some clinicians favor removing gender dysphoria from the DSM? A) They don't understand the psychological distress transgender people experience. B) They believe transgender people are less likely to experience psychological distress. C) They believe the stigma of being transgender is what leads to distress. D) A good treatment protocol has not been developed.
147. Who is MOST likely to receive gender-affirming surgery? A) Someone experiencing premature ejaculation B) Someone experiencing erectile dysfunction C) Someone experiencing gender dysphoria D) Someone who has a homosexual orientation
148. Individuals whose gender identity matches their assigned gender are called: A) transgender. B) trans. C) cisgender. D) fluid.
149. According to surveys, how many transgender people in the United States have reported that they have been harassed or attacked at school, at work, or in their communities as a result of being transgender? A) 10 to 15 percent B) 25 percent C) 50 percent D) 80 to 90 percent
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Answer Key 1. D 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. D 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. A 11. C 12. D 13. D 14. C 15. D 16. A 17. B 18. C 19. C 20. A 21. A 22. C 23. A 24. B 25. D 26. C 27. A 28. A 29. C 30. D 31. A 32. A 33. A 34. A 35. C 36. A 37. B 38. C 39. B 40. C 41. A 42. D 43. D 44. A
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45. D 46. D 47. B 48. B 49. B 50. B 51. D 52. A 53. D 54. C 55. C 56. B 57. A 58. C 59. A 60. A 61. B 62. D 63. B 64. A 65. B 66. C 67. D 68. C 69. A 70. A 71. C 72. C 73. B 74. A 75. A 76. A 77. C 78. A 79. A 80. B 81. D 82. C 83. B 84. A 85. B 86. A 87. B 88. C 89. A 90. C
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91. B 92. B 93. C 94. D 95. D 96. A 97. B 98. C 99. D 100. D 101. A 102. D 103. B 104. C 105. C 106. A 107. D 108. A 109. B 110. A 111. B 112. B 113. A 114. C 115. C 116. A 117. B 118. C 119. D 120. C 121. C 122. D 123. B 124. A 125. A 126. D 127. B 128. A 129. D 130. A 131. D 132. B 133. A 134. A 135. A 136. A
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137. A 138. A 139. C 140. B 141. D 142. B 143. B 144. C 145. B 146. C 147. C 148. C 149. D
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1. Which disorder primarily involves the inability to respond normally in key areas of sexual functioning, resulting in difficulty enjoying sexual intercourse? A) Pedophilia B) Fetishism C) Homosexuality D) Sexual dysfunction
2. Which phase of the human sexual response cycle is NOT affected by a sexual dysfunction? A) Excitement B) Resolution C) Orgasm D) Desire
3. For the past year, Ryan has had no interest in sex and, in turn, has engaged in very little sexual activity. He would MOST likely be diagnosed as having: A) sexual aversion disorder. B) male hypoactive sexual desire disorder. C) performance anxiety. D) masturbatory focus.
4. Which hormone has NOT been linked to hypoactive sexual desire? A) Testosterone B) Estrogen C) Prolactin D) Oxytocin
5. If low levels of alcohol may enhance the sex drive by lowering a person's inhibition, high levels will: A) enhance it further. B) reduce it. C) have no effect on sex drive. D) have an impact only if the person is already engaged in sexual activity.
6. A clinician is evaluating a patient with erectile disorder. To determine whether physical factors are responsible for the condition, the clinician should measure: A) performance anxiety. B) masturbatory arousal. C) spectator role. D) nocturnal penile tumescence.
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7. Early ejaculation is defined as ejaculation within _____ minute(s) of beginning the activity and before the person wishes it. A) two B) one C) three D) four
8. Vaginismus and dyspareunia are considered disorders of sexual: A) desire. B) arousal. C) pain. D) resolution.
9. A person with _____ experiences severe pain in the genitals during sexual activity. A) vaginismus B) dyspareunia C) nocturnal penile tumescence D) frotteurism
10. A revolution in the treatment of sexual dysfunctions occurred with the publication of the landmark book Human Sexual Inadequacy, which was written by: A) William Masters and Virginia Johnson. B) Ernesto Down and Montgomery Toldman. C) William James and E. B. Titchener. D) Alfred Kinsey.
11. Modern sex therapy usually lasts _____ sessions. A) 3 to 5 B) 5 to 10 C) 15 to 20 D) 20 to 30
12. Nondemand pleasuring, or _____, is often used in therapy to help couples focus on giving and receiving sexual pleasure with a reduced focus on orgasm. A) squeeze technique B) Viagra C) sensate focus D) masturbatory prohibition
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13. The MOST appropriate approach for treating an individual with fetishism is: A) masturbatory satiation. B) use of a snap gauge band during sleep. C) sensate focus. D) drug therapy.
14. Which is NOT an accurate statement about men who have exhibitionism? A) They generally have great confidence in their sense of masculinity. B) Most of them have been or are currently married. C) They often have unsatisfactory sexual relationships with their wives. D) They typically develop exhibitionism before the age of 18.
15. The belief that people with voyeurism are seeking to gain power over others by their actions is a _____ perspective. A) sociocultural B) psychodynamic C) cognitive-behavioral D) biological
16. According to the DSM-5 criteria, a person may be diagnosed with _____ whether or not the person suffers impairment in functioning or distress. A) voyeurism B) pedophilia C) fetishism D) cross-dressing
17. In one form of sexual masochism, known as _____, people strangle or smother themselves (or ask their partner to strangle them) to enhance their sexual pleasure. A) sensual asphyxiation B) romantic smothering C) autoerotic garroting D) hypoxyphilia
18. A person who is sexually aroused by inflicting physical pain on others is probably a: A) voyuer. B) sexual sadist. C) pedophile. D) sexual masochist.
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19. People with gender identity disorder were previous called transsexuals and now are more accurately referred to as: A) transvestites. B) pedophiles. C) always men. D) gender dysphoric.
20. In the United States, it is estimated that approximately one out of every _____ persons has undergone or will undergo a gender reassignment surgical procedure. A) 1,500 B) 3,100 C) 6,300 D) 21,250
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Answer Key 1. D 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. D 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. A 11. C 12. C 13. A 14. A 15. B 16. B 17. D 18. B 19. D 20. B
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1. The decline of sexual activity in older adult men is usually attributed to: A) the death of a spouse. B) age and failing health. C) experiencing no sexual fantasies. D) reporting lack of sexual interest.
2. As many as 90 percent of men with _____ experience some degree of erectile dysfunction. A) generalized anxiety disorder B) posttraumatic stress disorder C) bipolar disorder D) severe depression
3. Studies indicate that _____ percent of women have never had an orgasm. A) 10 B) 25 C) 37 D) 65
4. Which is NOT believed to be a factor in the origins of female arousal and orgasmic disorders? A) Having a religious upbringing B) Having dating restrictions when teenagers C) Engaging in masturbation in childhood D) Being told that “nice girls don't” enjoy sex
5. Dyspareunia in women usually has a _____ cause. A) cultural B) physical C) conditioned D) cognitive
6. Most clinicians agree with the _____ explanation of the origins of vaginismus. A) cognitive-behavioral B) biological C) psychodynamic D) sociocultural
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7. Which of the following has NOT been suggested as a possible cause of dyspareunia? A) Vaginal infection B) Wiry pubic hair C) Misshaped genitalia D) Semen allergies
8. What statement BEST describes modern sex therapy? A) It is long term and insight oriented. B) It is psychodynamic in approach. C) It is short term and instructive. D) It does not make use of biological approaches.
9. A therapist instructs her patient with low sexual desire to visualize sexual scenes to uncover feelings of anxiety, vulnerability, and other negative emotions the patient may have concerning sex. This therapist is using which technique? A) Self-instruction training B) Sensate focus C) Tease technique D) Affectual awareness
10. Drew is seeking treatment for premature ejaculation. Which procedure is MOST likely to be recommended by his therapist? A) The stop-start procedure B) Viagra C) Sensate focus D) Masturbatory prohibition
11. Which is a correct statement about Viagra and/or oral contraceptives? A) Both Viagra and oral contraceptives are required by law to be covered under insurance plans. B) Insurance providers took years to cover Viagra but covered oral contraceptives almost immediately upon their approval by the FDA. C) If an insurance plan pays for Viagra, it must pay for oral contraceptives. D) Insurance providers were, in general, much quicker to cover the cost of Viagra than they were to cover the cost of oral contraceptives.
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12. Some clinicians treat premature ejaculation with _____ drugs because those treatments often reduce sexual arousal or orgasm. A) antianxiety B) antidepressant C) antierection D) antipsychotic
13. People with _____ have repeated and intense sexual urges or fantasies in response to objects or situations that society deems inappropriate, and they may behave inappropriately as well. A) paraphilias B) gender identity disorder C) cross-sexual arousal disorder D) abnormal object desire syndrome
14. Harrison, a 31-year-old man, is sexually aroused by wearing women's undergarments. He enjoys wearing a woman's thong when going out in public and likes to fantasize about wearing women's lingerie. Does Harrison meet the criteria for transvestic disorder? A) No; Harrison enjoys dressing like a woman and therefore is transgender. B) Probably not; there is no indication that Harrison is distressed by his fantasies or actions. C) Probably; Harrison is aroused by his behavior, which suggests transvestic disorder. D) Yes; Harrison, a male, fantasizes about and wears women's clothing regularly.
15. The typical person with transvestism is almost always: A) homosexual. B) effeminate. C) pedophilic. D) heterosexual.
16. Phillip has repeated and intense sexual urges to rub his genitals against women in crowded subways. He is probably has: A) voyeurism. B) exhibitionism. C) sexual sadism. D) frotteuristic disorder.
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17. A cognitive-behavioral therapist would be MOST likely to use _____ to treat pedophilia. A) flooding B) shock therapy C) relapse-prevention training D) systematic desensitization
18. Which theory of conditioning has been used to help explain the origins of sexual masochism? A) Classical conditioning B) Operant conditioning C) Sexual conditioning D) Social conditioning
19. Studies that have examined the brains of those persons who are transgender found: A) the brains of transgender men most closely resemble those of cisgender women, and vice versa. B) the brains of transgender men and women most closely resemble those of cisgender women. C) the brains of transgender individuals differ from those of cisgender individuals. D) the brains of transgender men and women most closely resemble those of cisgender men.
20. According to recent surveys, _____ percent of transgender individuals experience at least moderate distress or dysfunction in one or more areas of life. A) 10 B) 25 C) 50 D) 90
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Answer Key 1. B 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. C 8. C 9. D 10. A 11. D 12. B 13. A 14. B 15. D 16. D 17. C 18. A 19. C 20. A
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Chapter 14
1. Compare and contrast the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Then list and describe which positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia affect speech.
2. Compare and contrast schizophrenia with one other disorder from the spectrum of schizophrenia disorders.
3. Steven is 24 years old and recently moved back in with his parents after two years of living on his own. He has begun to exhibit behaviors that concern his parents. He has become uncommunicative and ignores questions directed at him. He does not seem to care about things that used to interest him and has no appetite. Although most of the time he shows no emotion at all, Steven seems to take pleasure in watching the family cats fight, and he laughed when he overheard a conversation between his mother and a neighbor about the neighbor's miscarriage. Which of these behaviors may be symptoms of schizophrenia? Do Steven's behaviors indicate more positive or more negative symptoms?
4. Explain how the diathesis-stress model of schizophrenia incorporates both biological and environmental causal factors.
5. Kevin and Ginny met while visiting their respective siblings, who both suffer from schizophrenia, in a mental health inpatient facility. They have had discussions about the challenges of the disorder and the effects on their families. They are both concerned about the likelihood of schizophrenia occurring in their children and in themselves. Kevin is visiting his twin sister, and Ginny is visiting her younger sister. Ginny also has an adopted son whose mother has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and whose father suffered from undiagnosed mental illness and alcoholism. Who—Kevin, Ginny, or Ginny's son—has the highest likelihood of developing schizophrenia, and who has the least likelihood? Explain how you know.
6. What is the relationship between schizophrenia and neurotransmitters such as dopamine and serotonin?
7. A friend of yours has just begun to experience strange and unreal sensations and turns to you to discuss them. From a cognitive-behavioral point of view, how would you explain to your friend how schizophrenia might develop from this point on?
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8. Discuss what studies have shown about gender differences in schizophrenia. How significant are these differences?
9. How do research approaches differ among the four biological explanations for schizophrenia (genetic factors, biochemical abnormalities, dysfunctional brain structures and circuitry, and viral problems)?
10. What particular symptoms of schizophrenia are most likely to create severe challenges in a work environment?
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Answer Key 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
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1. If you think the radio announcer is talking directly and personally to you and to you alone, this is a delusion of _____.
2. If you think you are being manipulated by aliens, this can be considered a delusion of _____.
3. If you think you are the majority leader of the Senate, but you're not, this can be considered a delusion of _____.
4. Karin, who has a diagnosis of schizophrenia, frequently sees hundreds of beautiful hummingbirds swarming around her. This symptom is an example of a(n) _____ symptom.
5. A person with schizophrenia who shows almost no emotion at all is exhibiting _____.
6. A person with schizophrenia cannot complete even the simplest of tasks, is extremely listless, and has no short- or long-term goals. This person is exhibiting _____, or apathy.
7. Bryce does not exhibit any signs of schizophrenia, but his level of functioning has begun to deteriorate. If Bryce develops schizophrenia, this earlier period will be referred to as the _____ phase.
8. One explanation of the causes of schizophrenia is that it results from the interaction between a psychological stimulus and a biological predisposition. This is known as the _____ relationship.
9. If both members of a pair of twins have a particular trait, they are said to be _____ for that trait.
10. Studies investigating how genetic factors can lead to schizophrenia have identified two kinds of biological abnormalities that could conceivably be inherited: _____ abnormalities and dysfunctional brain circuitry.
11. The original theory to help explain the role of neurotransmitters as the cause of schizophrenia is known as the _____.
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12. Studies showing that mothers of people with schizophrenia were more likely to have been exposed to influenza during pregnancy than were mothers of people without schizophrenia support the _____ theory of schizophrenia development.
13. In individuals with schizophrenia, the flow of communication, or _____, between particular structures in the brain circuit is typically excessive or diminished.
14. According to Frieda Fromm-Reichmann's (1948) view of the development of schizophrenia, an apparently self-sacrificing mother who is actually cold and domineering and uses her children for her own needs is called a(n) _____ mother.
15. Rosenhan (1973) did a study of schizophrenia that demonstrated the power of diagnostic _____ in determining how patients with schizophrenia are evaluated and treated.
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Answer Key 1. reference 2. control 3. grandeur 4. positive 5. restricted affect 6. avolition 7. prodromal 8. diathesis-stress 9. concordant 10. biochemical 11. dopamine hypothesis 12. viral 13. interconnectivity 14. schizophrenogenic 15. labeling
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1. Psychosis means: A) split personality. B) loss of contact with reality. C) brain seizures. D) drug abuse.
2. The phrase split mind is to _____ as the phrase split personality is to _____. A) delusions; hallucinations B) disordered thinking; disordered behavior C) dissociative identity disorder; schizophrenia D) schizophrenia; dissociative identity disorder
3. The term schizophrenia is derived from the Greek for: A) split mind. B) frantic mind. C) multiple personality. D) hysterical demeanor.
4. Approximately _____ percent of the world population suffers from schizophrenia at some point in their life. A) 1 B) 5 C) 9 D) 14
5. Which statement about schizophrenia is true? A) People with schizophrenia are often misdiagnosed as having dissociative identity disorder. B) People with schizophrenia hide their symptoms and can generally function well in a variety of contexts. C) Men are more likely to be diagnosed with schizophrenia than women. D) Psychosis is a key feature of schizophrenia, but it can also occur in other disorders.
6. Which is NOT consistent with the most common pattern of schizophrenia? A) Women develop the disorder earlier and more severely than men. B) There is a significant risk of suicide attempt—about 25 percent. C) There is a higher incidence in lower than upper socioeconomic groups. D) There is about a 1 percent risk of developing schizophrenia in a lifetime, worldwide.
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7. People who display both a severe mental disorder and a substance use disorder are referred to as: A) mentally ill chemical abusers. B) cause-and-effect users. C) secondary effect abusers. D) uncontrollable chronic users.
8. Between 20 and 50 percent of those with schizophrenia or other severe disorders may also have: A) a substance abuse disorder. B) attempted suicide. C) abnormally low levels of serotonin. D) an eating disorder.
9. Which statement is the WEAKEST in explaining the relationship between mental illness and substance abuse? A) Substance abuse may be a cause of mental illness. B) One's personality leads to both mental illness and substance abuse. C) People with a mental illness use substances as a means of self-medication. D) The use of substances could make the symptoms of mental illness more severe.
10. Which statement is NOT true of mentally ill chemical abusers (MICAs)? A) MICA is overdiagnosed because the drug abuse is often overemphasized. B) MICAs tend to remain homeless longer than other homeless people without this diagnosis. C) Traditional forms of therapy often don't work for this complex problem. D) MICAs are most often young and male.
11. What kinds of treatment programs seem to work best for mentally ill chemical abusers (MICAs)? A) short-term, individualized, comprehensive therapy B) short-term, individualized, more traditional forms of therapy C) long-term, individualized, comprehensive therapy D) long-term, individualized, more traditional forms of therapy
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12. Researchers estimate that about what percentage of homeless individuals are identifiable as mentally ill chemical abusers (MICAs)? A) less than 5 percent B) 10 to 20 percent C) about one-third (33 percent) D) almost half (50 percent)
13. In general, the problems that mentally ill chemical abusers (MICAs) face in terms of diagnosis and treatment are: A) about equal to the problems faced by people with severe mental illnesses. B) about equal to the problems faced by people with chemical abuse disorders. C) less than those faced by either people with severe mental disorders or chemical abuse disorders. D) more than those faced by either people with severe mental disorders or chemical abuse disorders.
14. Downward drift is BEST reflected in which statement? A) Poverty and social disruption cause schizophrenia. B) Schizophrenia causes people to fall into poverty and social disruption. C) Genetic factors cause both schizophrenia and poverty. D) Schizophrenia causes marital disruption, which causes poverty.
15. Schizophrenia is found in all socioeconomic classes. However, it is MOST likely to be found in someone from a: A) lower socioeconomic level. B) middle socioeconomic level. C) professional socioeconomic level. D) privileged (wealthy) socioeconomic level.
16. Which of the following would provide the strongest evidence to support the theory that schizophrenia is due to socioeconomic factors? A) evidence showing that people of lower socioeconomic status have higher rates of schizophrenia than those of higher socioeconomic status B) evidence showing that the risk of schizophrenia is positively correlated with the number of life stressors one has experienced C) evidence showing that the rate of schizophrenia changes after people have moved from a higher to a lower, or from a lower to a higher, socioeconomic status D) evidence showing that the risk of schizophrenia is negatively correlated with one's annual income
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17. Anna shows no emotions when people tell her happy or sad stories and complains of hearing voices in her head telling her that the TV is spying on her. At times, she remains motionless in her chair for hours. When she does get out of her chair, she poses like the statue in the town square. Which of these represents a positive symptom of schizophrenia? A) showing no emotions B) hearing voices in her head C) remaining motionless D) posing like a statue
18. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are to _____, as negative symptoms are to _____. A) symptoms that can easily be treated; symptoms that are difficult to treat B) the presence of inappropriate behaviors; the absence of appropriate behaviors C) features that people consider to be good; features that people consider to be bad D) excess feelings of happiness and elation; excess feelings of sadness and depression
19. The _____ symptoms of schizophrenia include delusions, disorganized thinking and speech, heightened perceptions and hallucinations, and inappropriate affect. A) positive B) negative C) cognitive D) ineffective
20. Millie sees pretty colored butterflies on all the walls. She also hears gentle music, which is not actually there. The presence of these behaviors illustrates _____ symptoms of schizophrenia. A) active B) positive C) negative D) psychomotor
21. A strange false belief that is firmly held despite evidence to the contrary is called a: A) hallucination. B) maladaptive attitude. C) delusion. D) loss of volition.
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22. Hallucinations are to _____, as delusions are to _____. A) cognition; emotion B) perceptions; beliefs C) positive symptoms; negative symptoms D) psychosis; neurosis
23. Rosa is sure that her family is planning to kidnap her and take her inheritance. She has found her husband talking on the phone in whispers and seen her children looking at her strangely. Rosa is MOST likely suffering from: A) delusions of grandeur. B) delusions of reference. C) delusions of control. D) delusions of persecution.
24. Antonio believes that the anchor on the evening television news is speaking directly and personally to him. He then decides to go to the television studio to talk to the anchor. Antonio is suffering from: A) delusions of persecution. B) delusions of grandeur. C) delusions of reference. D) delusions of control.
25. "The TV is making me think of the number 7" is to _____, as "Nobody believes that I am Saint Michael" is to _____. A) delusions of persecution; delusions of grandeur B) delusions of grandeur; delusions of persecution C) delusions of persecution; delusions of control D) delusions of control; delusions of grandeur
26. A person with schizophrenia says to you, "Insects make me itch. My brother collects them; he is 5 feet 10 inches tall. That's my favorite number. I dance and draw." This example illustrates which symptom of schizophrenia? A) delusions of reference B) derailment C) neologisms D) inappropriate affect
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27. The main difference between hallucinations and delusions is that hallucinations: A) are more serious than delusions. B) involve perception and delusions involve belief. C) are more common early in the disorder and delusions more common later. D) are auditory and delusions are visual.
28. A woman proclaims, "I am the Virgin Mary, and I've come to give birth to a new savior." This person is MOST likely experiencing: A) delusions of reference. B) delusions of persecution. C) delusions of grandeur. D) delusions of control.
29. A person with schizophrenia who says, "I have 'triscatitis' because the angular shape of my foreffit is diskiltered," is experiencing: A) loose associations. B) neologisms. C) perseveration. D) clang.
30. A person with schizophrenia who hears all the animals around her making plans to get her ready for the ball, and comes to think of herself as Cinderella, is experiencing a(n) _____ hallucination and a delusion of _____. A) auditory; grandeur B) tactile; control C) olfactory; reference D) gustatory, persecution
31. Research with those experiencing auditory hallucinations has NOT demonstrated: A) increased blood flow in Broca's area. B) increased activity in the brain's hearing center. C) movement of the oval window of the cochlea. D) increased activity near the brain's surface.
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32. If you could "get inside the head" of a person experiencing auditory hallucinations, you would MOST likely find that: A) the person actually produces nerve signals of sound in the brain. B) the person knows that the hallucinations are fictional. C) hallucinations and delusions are coded in the same place in the person's brain. D) the person is aware of auditory hallucinations but not aware of other types of hallucinations.
33. The MOST common type of hallucination in schizophrenia is: A) visual. B) tactile. C) auditory. D) olfactory.
34. Somatic hallucinations are: A) feelings that something is happening inside the body. B) perceptions of tingling, burning, or electric-shock sensations. C) when food or drink tastes strange on a regular basis. D) odors that no one else smells.
35. Tactile hallucinations are: A) feelings that something is happening inside the body. B) perceptions of tingling, burning, or electric-shock sensations. C) when food or drink tastes strange on a regular basis. D) odors that no one else smells.
36. When Janice drinks her milk, she is sure from the taste that someone put salt in it. Janice is most likely experiencing a(n) _____ hallucination. A) somatic B) auditory C) olfactory D) gustatory
37. James is sitting on the couch with his husband and children when suddenly he smells smoke. However, no one else can smell the smoke and there is no fire. What is James experiencing? A) auditory hallucinations B) olfactory hallucinations C) visual hallucinations D) somatic hallucinations
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38. Which statement about hallucinations is FALSE? A) Hallucinations are experienced by people with disorders other than schizophrenia. B) Hallucinations are different from perceptual illusions. C) Hallucinations have historically been a sign of a psychological disorder. D) Hallucinations that are unrelated to a disorder or substance ingestion have been reported by many people.
39. Which piece of evidence, if found, would MOST strongly support the notion that hallucinations produce delusions? A) data from a survey given to people with schizophrenia who reported that delusions typically occurred a few weeks after they had experienced their first hallucinations B) anecdotal data from a clinical therapist who reported that his clients' delusions happened after they first experienced hallucinations C) an experiment showing that people who were induced to produce hallucinations were more likely to develop delusions afterward D) a pharmaceutical study showing that a new investigational drug reduced both hallucinations and delusions
40. Currently, what is known about the relationship between hallucinations and delusions? A) There is no evidence to suggest that they are related to one another. B) It is likely that hallucinations and delusions occur together and feed one another. C) Physiological evidence indicates a physical correlate with delusions, but not hallucinations. D) Hallucinations cause delusions, but delusions do not cause hallucinations.
41. A person with schizophrenia who laughs when told sad news and screams in situations that most people see as warm and tender is experiencing: A) cognitive distortion. B) delusions of control. C) inappropriate affect. D) olfactory hallucination.
42. Displaying emotions that are unsuited to the situation is called: A) alogia. B) manic disorder. C) inappropriate affect. D) intermediate affect.
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43. Poverty of speech, blunted and flat affect, loss of volition, and social withdrawal are all _____ symptoms of schizophrenia. A) positive B) negative C) hallucinatory D) psychomotor
44. In the middle of a calm conversation, a person with Tourette's syndrome might suddenly begin shouting and follow that with a string of obscenities. This is similar to the symptom of schizophrenia called: A) blunted and flat affect. B) inappropriate affect. C) poverty of speech. D) loss of volition.
45. A person with schizophrenia who is experiencing alogia is displaying: A) poverty of speech. B) blunted or flat affect. C) loss of volition. D) social withdrawal.
46. The decrease in the fluency and productivity of speech that is seen in schizophrenia is specifically termed: A) alogia. B) blocking. C) avolition. D) catatonia.
47. _____ is a condition in which people show no emotions at all. A) Flat affect B) Blunted affect C) Avolition D) Anhedonia
48. Evidence suggests that restricted affect among those with schizophrenia may reflect the inability to _____ emotions, not the inability to _____ them. A) express; feel B) feel; express C) label; express D) feel; label
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49. _____ is defined as apathy, coupled with an inability to start or complete a course of action. A) Flat affect B) Blunted affect C) Avolition D) Anhedonia
50. I sit staring at a blank page, unable to make myself write a new multiple choice test item; I just don't seem to care. My behavior is like that of people with schizophrenia displaying the symptom called: A) avolition. B) ahedonia. C) inappropriate affect. D) flat affect.
51. Martin is a person with schizophrenia who feels ambivalent about most issues. He has no goals and does not seem to have the energy or interest to think about them. He certainly cannot make decisions. He is MOST likely suffering from: A) disturbances in affect. B) disturbances in volition. C) a disturbed sense of self. D) a disturbed relationship with the outside world.
52. People who attend to their own ideas and fantasies, who are unable to recognize other people's needs and emotions, and who also distance themselves from reality are displaying: A) poverty of speech. B) blunted or flat affect. C) loss of volition. D) social withdrawal.
53. How is social withdrawal related to avolition? A) Both appear to be behaviorally different, but each has similar underlying features. B) Both are negative symptoms of schizophrenia. C) Both rely on similar structures in the motor cortex. D) Both of these appear at similar points during the time-course of schizophrenia.
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54. The inability to move limbs in catatonic schizophrenia illustrates _____ symptoms of schizophrenia. A) active B) positive C) negative D) psychomotor
55. Those with schizophrenia who stop responding to their environment and remain motionless and silent for long periods of time are experiencing: A) catatonic stupor. B) catatonic excitement. C) catatonic rigidity. D) catatonic posturing.
56. How is catatonic stupor related to loss of volition? A) Both appear to be behaviorally similar, but each has different underlying features. B) Both are negative symptoms of schizophrenia. C) Both rely on similar structures in the motor cortex. D) Both of these appear at similar points during the time-course of schizophrenia.
57. Holding an awkward and bizarre position for a long period of time defines: A) catatonic stupor. B) catatonic excitement. C) catatonic rigidity. D) catatonic posturing.
58. Frederick has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. He remains standing for hours and resists efforts to be moved. Frederick is likely experiencing: A) catatonic stupor. B) catatonic excitement. C) catatonic rigidity. D) catatonic posturing.
59. Catatonic rigidity and catatonic posturing share all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A) both involve behavior in which a person remains motionless for some time. B) both are psychomotor symptoms of schizophrenia. C) both are disruptive to those who display these symptoms. D) both are common among those diagnosed with schizophrenia.
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60. Which two pairs MOST closely represent opposites in terms of the behavior you would observe in people with schizophrenia? A) catatonic stupor and catatonic excitement B) catatonic rigidity and catatonic stupor C) catatonic posturing and catatonic rigidity D) catatonic excitement and catatonic posturing
61. People with schizophrenia who wave their arms around in wild motions and make kicking motions with their legs are experiencing: A) catatonic stupor. B) catatonic excitement. C) catatonic rigidity. D) catatonic posturing.
62. The stage of the development of schizophrenia marked by deterioration of functioning and the display of some mild symptoms is called the: A) active phase. B) residual phase. C) prodromal phase. D) premorbid phase.
63. A person is socially withdrawn, speaks in odd ways, has strange ideas, and expresses little emotion, but she is not displaying full-blown schizophrenic symptoms. What phase of schizophrenia is this person in? A) prodromal B) active C) residual D) either prodromal or residual
64. Patients are more likely to recover from schizophrenia if they: A) had hallucinations but no delusions. B) showed delusions but no hallucinations. C) demonstrated good premorbid functioning. D) had primarily negative rather than positive signs.
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65. Delia does not display all the full-blown schizophrenia symptoms anymore. Occasionally, a shadow of a symptom appears. She is a bit withdrawn and not entirely clear all the time, but she can marginally function in the world. This is an example of: A) the residual phase of schizophrenia. B) catatonic schizophrenia. C) paranoid schizophrenia. D) undifferentiated schizophrenia.
66. Which is NOT related to a fuller recovery from schizophrenia? A) treatment during the prodromal phase B) schizophrenia initially triggered by stress C) schizophrenia developing during late adolescence D) an abrupt beginning to the disorder
67. Which statement is the LEAST supported based on what is known about the course of schizophrenia? A) People sometimes enter the active phase before entering the prodromal phase. B) Each phase can last for days or for years. C) Exposure to a stressful event can trigger a relapse if one is in the residual phase. D) Each phase is differentiated by the severity of the symptoms that are present.
68. To be diagnosed with schizophrenia, symptoms must be present for _____, during which a person must have been _____ for at least one month. A) two months; delusional B) two months; in the active phase C) six months; delusional D) six months; in the active phase
69. A patient with schizophrenia who is mute, statue-like, and fails to participate in the hospital routine is MOST likely experiencing: A) Type I schizophrenia. B) Type II schizophrenia. C) schizoaffective disorder. D) delusional disorder.
70. Type I schizophrenia is to _____, as Type II schizophrenia is to _____. A) positive symptoms; negative symptoms B) negative symptoms; positive symptoms C) prodromal phase; acute phase D) acute phase; prodromal phase
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71. A person with schizophrenia demonstrates poverty of speech and experiences auditory hallucinations. According to the "Type I–Type II" evaluation categorization, this person would be: A) Type I. B) Type II. C) a mix of Type I and Type II. D) neither Type I nor Type II, because these types apply only to the prodromal phase.
72. Regarding likelihood of recovery and types of symptoms exhibited, which would be the WORST disorder to have? A) Type I schizophrenia B) Type II schizophrenia C) Type III schizophrenia D) Type IV schizophrenia
73. Which statement is true regarding Type I versus Type II schizophrenia? A) Type I schizophrenia is significantly less common than Type II schizophrenia. B) Type I schizophrenia is slightly less common than Type II schizophrenia. C) Type I schizophrenia is slightly more common than Type II schizophrenia. D) Type I schizophrenia is significantly more common than Type II schizophrenia.
74. The main difference between schizophrenia and schizophreniform disorder is: A) the severity of the symptoms that are present. B) the type of symptoms that are present. C) the duration of symptoms. D) the number of symptoms.
75. A middle-aged individual shows many of the negative symptoms of schizophrenia and at the same time often appears profoundly depressed. The symptoms have lasted almost a year. This is an example of: A) shared psychotic disorder. B) undifferentiated type of schizophrenia. C) schizophreniform disorder. D) schizoaffective disorder.
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76. A person acts extremely jealous all the time and complains bitterly whenever other people appear to be getting more attention. This has been going on for a couple of months, and the person shows no other substantial symptoms. The BEST diagnosis, assuming the extreme jealousy has no basis in fact, is: A) delusional disorder. B) schizophreniform disorder. C) paranoid schizophrenia. D) brief psychotic disorder.
77. According to the diathesis-stress model of schizophrenia: A) people with a biological predisposition for schizophrenia will develop it if certain psychosocial stressors are also present. B) people with certain psychosocial stressors will develop schizophrenia in the absence of a biological predisposition. C) biological predispositions for schizophrenia override any evidence for the importance of psychosocial stressors. D) people with certain biological predispositions will develop schizophrenia in the absence of psychosocial stressors.
78. Based on family pedigree studies, which relative of an individual with a diagnosis of schizophrenia would be MOST at risk for developing the disorder? A) niece B) sister C) child D) fraternal twin
79. What is the rate of concordance for schizophrenia in identical twins? A) 2–5 percent B) 15–18 percent C) 40–50 percent D) 60–70 percent
80. In general, the closer that people are genetically related to someone with schizophrenia, the more likely they are to be diagnosed with schizophrenia as well. This is evidence of _____ between a schizophrenia diagnosis and the degree of closeness of relationship. A) a positive correlation B) a negative correlation C) a causal relationship D) no clear relationship
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81. Which of the following would provide the strongest evidence supporting a genetic link to schizophrenia? A) higher concordance rates for identical twins than for fraternal twins B) similar concordance rates for identical twins raised in different environments and identical twins raised in the same environment C) higher concordance rates for children of parents who are both diagnosed with schizophrenia than for children from one parent diagnosed with schizophrenia D) similar concordance rates for fraternal twins and identical twins
82. Which statement about genetic factors in schizophrenia is accurate? A) Close relatives of those with schizophrenia are more likely to be diagnosed with schizophrenia than distant relatives of those with schizophrenia. B) Fraternal twins have a higher concordance rate for schizophrenia than do identical twins. C) Those with schizophrenia who have been adopted are more like their adoptive parents than like their biological parents. D) Recent family studies eliminate the confounding of environment and genetics.
83. If schizophrenia depended solely on genetic make-up, then compared to rates of schizophrenia in siblings in general, fraternal twins should have: A) four times the concordance rate for schizophrenia. B) twice the concordance rate for schizophrenia. C) the same concordance rate for schizophrenia. D) half the concordance rate for schizophrenia.
84. Researchers have found that the biological relatives of adoptees with schizophrenia are _____ than their adoptive relatives to develop schizophrenia. A) far less likely B) somewhat less likely C) more likely D) equally likely
85. The chances that a woman who has recently given birth will develop postpartum psychosis is: A) 1 to 2 out of 10. B) 1 to 2 out of 100. C) 1 to 2 out of 1,000. D) 1 to 2 out of 10,000.
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86. A woman has just been diagnosed with postpartum depression. MOST likely, she will: A) neither progress to postpartum psychosis nor physically harm her child. B) progress to postpartum psychosis but will not physically harm her child. C) not progress to postpartum psychosis but will physically harm her child. D) progress to postpartum psychosis and will physically harm her child.
87. Research evaluating the effectiveness of various approaches to treating postpartum psychosis is lacking. All of the following are potential reasons for this EXCEPT: A) finding a sufficient number of research participants is difficult because there are very few instances of the disorder to begin with. B) the appropriate tools for measuring the efficacy of different treatment approaches have yet to be developed. C) there are very few funding opportunities to support research investigating the efficacy of different treatment approaches. D) there are significant ethical concerns related to the various research models proposed to study treatment effectiveness.
88. One of the main risk factors associated with developing postpartum psychosis is: A) giving birth to twins. B) having a first child after age 35. C) having a history of schizophrenia or a mood disorder. D) having a history of stressful life events during pregnancy.
89. Symptoms of postpartum psychosis appear to be triggered by: A) the sudden loss of social status a woman experiences immediately after giving birth. B) maternal diabetes, which is at its worst during and after birth. C) feelings of diminished worth, combined with anxiety related to child care. D) a large shift in hormones occurring just after childbirth.
90. In 2001, Andrea Yates, showing symptoms of postpartum psychosis, drowned her five children. Assuming she was suffering from postpartum psychosis, her actions were: A) typical; almost all women with postpartum psychosis harm their offspring. B) typical; at least 75 percent of women with postpartum psychosis harm their offspring. C) somewhat typical; about 50 percent of women with postpartum psychosis harm their offspring. D) atypical; less than 5 percent of women with postpartum psychosis harm or attempt to harm their offspring.
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91. Which statement BEST fits the evidence for the biological basis of schizophrenia? A) The gene that causes schizophrenia has been identified in position 21, and it is recessive. B) Schizophrenia is a polygenetic disorder, probably impacting brain structure and chemical activity. C) If someone inherits defects on chromosomes 1–11 and 15–19, that person is likely to experience schizophrenia. D) Genetic studies have revealed no gene involvement in schizophrenia.
92. Which is the BEST example of a finding from genetic linkage and molecular biology studies? A) The brains of those with schizophrenia are structured differently from the brains of those without schizophrenia. B) Those with schizophrenia process certain neurotransmitters differently from those without schizophrenia. C) Gene defects on certain chromosomes predispose one to schizophrenia. D) Biological relatives of those with schizophrenia are at greatest risk for schizophrenia.
93. Does research support the assumption that there is a "schizophrenia gene"? A) No, schizophrenia is probably a polygenic disorder, and researchers have not pinpointed the exact gene yet. B) No, schizophrenia is a polygenic disorder, and we know the exact genes. C) Yes, schizophrenia is a monogenic disorder, although we don't know the exact gene yet. D) Yes, schizophrenia is a monogenic disorder, and we know the exact gene.
94. Given that schizophrenia is associated with many gene sites, which of the following inferences is the MOST illogical? A) Schizophrenia is complex and varied, so it must be distributed across multiple gene sites. B) Polygenic disorders require the operation of multiple gene sites compared to disorders that are not polygenic. C) Eventually, research will narrow down the number of gene sites that are associated with schizophrenia to only a few. D) Some of the gene sites that are linked to schizophrenia may be purely coincidental and play no role in the disorder at all.
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95. Why are people who take medication for schizophrenia often given medication that helps control shaking and tremors? A) Schizophrenia often leads to the development of Parkinsonism. B) Medication used to treat schizophrenia leads to Parkinson-like symptoms. C) Dopamine is used to treat both schizophrenia and Parkinsonism. D) Too little or too much dopamine (an imbalance) leads to Parkinsonism and schizophrenia.
96. Which BEST supports the dopamine hypothesis for schizophrenia? A) Like those with Parkinsonism, those with schizophrenia have unusually low levels of dopamine. B) Antipsychotic drugs often produce Parkinsonian symptoms. C) Antipsychotic drugs increase the rate of firing at dopamine receptor sites. D) Dopamine levels vary across the different kinds of schizophrenia.
97. Researchers found that phenothiazines reduced psychotic symptoms but also caused Parkinsonian symptoms, like tremors. This discovery suggests that: A) schizophrenia masks Parkinson's disease. B) schizophrenia is tied to excessive dopamine. C) excessive dopamine is tied to Parkinson's disease. D) schizophrenia causes the synthesis of excessive amounts of dopamine.
98. Schizophrenia is to _____, as Parkinson's disease is to _____. A) negative symptoms; positive symptoms B) positive symptoms; negative symptoms C) increased dopamine activation; decreased dopamine activation D) decreased dopamine activation; increased dopamine activation
99. The earliest antipsychotic drugs were discovered accidentally by researchers who were looking for: A) better antihistamines to treat allergies. B) better antidepressants to treat depression. C) a new way to treat schizophrenia. D) cheaper alternatives to treat heart failure.
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100. The link between dopamine and schizophrenia is supported by the finding that: A) lowering dopamine activity helps remove schizophrenic symptoms. B) the use of L-dopa can reduce schizophrenic symptoms. C) antipsychotic drugs can block Parkinsonian symptoms. D) dopamine-receiving synapses in persons with schizophrenia are apparently inactive.
101. If a person receives the chemical L-dopa, a precursor of dopamine, it reduces the symptoms of Parkinson's disease. However, L-dopa may increase symptoms of schizophrenia. What can reasonably be concluded from this? A) L-dopa causes schizophrenia. B) Excessive dopamine produces schizophrenia-like symptoms. C) Antipsychotic medication decreases the amount of L-dopa in the brain. D) Antipsychotic medication increases the amount of dopamine in the brain.
102. A new medication for schizophrenia appears to work because it blocks dopamine from binding to a receptor. The new medication functions as: A) a dopamine production inhibitor. B) a dopamine antagonist. C) a dopamine agonist. D) D-2 enhancer.
103. Recently, the dopamine hypothesis for schizophrenia has been challenged because it has been discovered that: A) effective new drugs suggest abnormal neurotransmitter activity of serotonin, glutamate, and GABA, as well as dopamine. B) excessive dopamine activity contributes to only some kinds of schizophrenia. C) atypical antipsychotic drugs work exclusively on dopamine receptors. D) those with catatonic schizophrenia respond better to atypical than to traditional antipsychotic drugs.
104. Which piece of evidence, if found, would weaken the dopamine hypothesis the most? A) a study showing that when people are given excess doses of L-dopa, they subsequently develop symptoms of schizophrenia B) a study showing that other drugs that increase dopamine activity, such as amphetamines, also produce symptoms of schizophrenia C) a study showing that drugs that bind to receptors other than dopamine reduce or eliminate the symptoms of schizophrenia D) a study showing that phenothiazines are more effective than second-generation antipsychotic drugs in reducing the symptoms of schizophrenia
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105. All of the following structures are part of a brain circuit that is linked to schizophrenia EXCEPT: A) the prefrontal cortex. B) the amygdala. C) the substantia nigra. D) the superior colliculus.
106. Which statement BEST describes the relationship between brain circuits and schizophrenia? A) Schizophrenia has been linked to brain circuits that are generally overactive. B) Schizophrenia has been linked to brain circuits that are generally underactive. C) Schizophrenia has been linked to overactivity of some brain structures and underactivity of other brain structures. D) Brain circuits that are linked to schizophrenia differ substantially from person to person, thus making it nearly impossible to reveal general relationships between them.
107. Studies indicate that under some circumstances for people with schizophrenia, the _____ tends to be overactive, and the _____ tends to be underactive. A) hippocampus; thalamus B) amygdala; substantia nigra C) prefrontal cortex; hippocampus D) substantia nigra; prefrontal cortex
108. If the schizophrenia-related brain circuit contains distinctive subcircuits, then one would expect to observe: A) increased activation in one circuit and decreased activation in another regardless of the symptoms that are present. B) increased activation among specific brain structures when the severity of symptoms that are present also increases. C) one circuit that is more active when positive symptoms are present, and the other more active when negative symptoms are present. D) circuits that are activated by similar brain structures, but with one being more intensely activated than the other.
109. The finding that the highest rates of schizophrenia are found among people who are born during the winter supports which theory of schizophrenia? A) viral theory B) genetic theory C) dopamine theory D) biochemical theory
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110. The viral explanation suggests that prenatal viral exposure produces _____ that are associated with the development of schizophrenia. A) hormonal imbalances B) traumatic stress C) brain abnormalities D) birth defects
111. The viral explanation for schizophrenia suggests that brain abnormalities, and therefore schizophrenia, result from viral exposure: A) before birth. B) between birth and two years old. C) during puberty. D) during the two years just after puberty.
112. Which statement provides the WEAKEST evidence linking schizophrenia to early viral exposure? A) A higher percentage of people diagnosed with schizophrenia have specific antibodies than those who are not diagnosed with schizophrenia. B) Mothers of people with schizophrenia were more likely to have had influenza while pregnant than mothers of people who do not have schizophrenia. C) Pregnant animals exposed to influenza produce a greater percentage of offspring with schizophrenia-like symptoms compared to animals who were not exposed to influenza. D) People who were born in the late winter months have higher rates of schizophrenia than people born during other times of the year.
113. Since 1950, interest in psychological explanations for schizophrenia, as opposed to genetic and biological explanations, have: A) decreased, then increased. B) increased, then decreased. C) decreased steadily. D) stayed the same.
114. According to early psychodynamic approaches, schizophrenia stems from: A) regression to the anal period. B) being punished by one's parents for expressing unconscious desires. C) being raised by a mother who was cold, domineering, and uninterested in the needs of her child. D) biological predispositions to behave in a schizophrenic manner.
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115. According to Frieda Fromm-Reichmann (1948), schizophrenia is caused by: A) an excess of dopamine. B) a schizophrenogenic mother. C) regression to a stage of primary narcissism. D) brain abnormalities.
116. A modern psychodynamic theorist is MOST likely to say: A) "Fromm-Reichmann was right; schizophrenogenic mothers cause most cases of schizophrenia." B) "Fromm-Reichmann was wrong; schizophrenogenic fathers cause most cases of schizophrenia." C) "Having a fragmented sense of self leads to biological abnormalities." D) "Biological abnormalities predispose people to develop a fragmented sense of self."
117. Most contemporary psychodynamic theorists would agree with which statement? A) Schizophrenogenic mothers confuse their children, resulting in their children being diagnosed with schizophrenia. B) Schizophrenogenic mothers, if they do exist, don't create children with schizophrenia. C) Schizophrenogenia should be applied to fathers as well as to mothers. D) Schizophrenogenia has been supported by research as an important contributor to schizophrenia.
118. "If one receives a good deal of attention for unusual behaviors, is it any surprise those behaviors are strengthened?" This question would MOST likely be asked by what type of theorist? A) biological B) cognitive-behavioral C) psychodynamic D) sociocultural
119. If people with schizophrenia make at least modest gains when they receive behavioral therapy, this would indicate that: A) learning is the cause of schizophrenia. B) other forms of therapy are inappropriate. C) some symptoms of schizophrenia may be learned. D) operant, but not classical, conditioning causes symptoms of schizophrenia.
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120. A person begins exhibiting early symptoms of schizophrenia—for example, hearing voices. Family members decide to discuss the voices with the person to try to understand what is going on. This action by family members should: A) increase the likelihood of future symptoms. B) decrease the likelihood of future symptoms. C) delay the onset of future symptoms, which are inevitable. D) prevent the onset of future symptoms.
121. The cognitive-behavioral view of schizophrenia: A) provides a complete explanation for the origins and symptoms of schizophrenia. B) provides no explanation for the origins and symptoms of schizophrenia. C) provides a partial explanation for the origins and symptoms of schizophrenia. D) has not been explored to further understand the origins and symptoms of schizophrenia.
122. According to the principles of operant conditioning, if others consistently ignore a person's appropriate response to their social cues, what will happen? A) The person will develop delusions. B) The person will begin to experience auditory hallucinations. C) The person will regress to an earlier stage of development. D) The person will stop attending to social cues.
123. Operant conditioning has the MOST difficulty explaining: A) why schizophrenia is linked to genetic abnormalities. B) why people with schizophrenia display bizarre behaviors. C) why schizophrenia sometimes runs in families. D) why behavioral interventions restore some functions.
124. If a study showed that reinforced behavior produces a significant increase in dopamine activation compared to nonreinforced behavior, then this would lend some support for which claim? A) Reinforcement is a potential cause of schizophrenic symptoms. B) Schizophrenic behavior produces greater reinforcement than other behaviors. C) People with catatonic symptoms produce few reinforced behaviors. D) When dopamine levels are decreased, people are more likely to engage in behaviors that produce reinforcement than behaviors that do not produce reinforcement.
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125. According to the cognitive-behavioral view of schizophrenia, an early step in the "rational path to madness" is: A) telling others about the unusual sensations and being told that the experiences aren't real. B) hiding the experience of unusual sensations from others for fear of being labeled as ill. C) seeking input from a trained therapist or medical physician. D) seeking ways to increase the frequency of the unusual experiences in an effort to "normalize" them.
126. Occasionally, you see or hear things. Your friends tell you it's your imagination, but eventually you come to think your friends are hiding something and you develop delusions of persecution to explain their behavior. This scenario is consistent with the: A) cognitive-behavioral view. B) sociocultural view. C) existential view. D) psychodynamic view.
127. The "rational path to madness" is MOST consistent with a(n): A) existential orientation. B) family systems orientation. C) psychoanalytic orientation. D) cognitive-behavioral orientation.
128. Which statement accurately represents the "rational path to madness"? A) I experience disturbing symptoms. I talk them over with others. Others say I am imagining things. I decide others are lying to me. B) I experience disturbing symptoms. I talk them over with others. Others give me lots of attention and sympathy. I experience more symptoms. C) I experience disturbing symptoms. I talk them over with others. Others say I am imagining things. I decide they are right and become depressed. D) I experience disturbing symptoms. I talk them over with others. Others argue rationally against my symptoms. I believe them and no longer have symptoms.
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129. How is an operant conditioning explanation of schizophrenia similar to an explanation that focuses on misinterpreting unusual sensations? A) They both assume that schizophrenia has a biological basis. B) They both assume that symptoms are influenced by irrational thinking. C) They both assume that symptoms are influenced by feedback from the environment. D) They both assume that early childhood experiences predispose schizophrenic symptoms.
130. Stalkers sometimes have _____, which is/are defined as false belief that they are loved by and are in a relationship with the object of their attention. A) delusions of grandeur B) erotic fantasies C) a self-serving bias D) erotomanic delusions
131. Sociocultural explanations of schizophrenia have the most difficulty in explaining: A) why there are racial and ethnic disparities in the rate of schizophrenia. B) why African Americans have higher rates of schizophrenia than non-Hispanic whites. C) what causes schizophrenia. D) what is correlated with schizophrenia.
132. Compared with African Americans, non-Hispanic white Americans are: A) more likely to receive a diagnosis of schizophrenia but less likely to be institutionalized. B) more likely to receive a diagnosis of schizophrenia and more likely to be institutionalized. C) less likely to receive a diagnosis of schizophrenia and less likely to be institutionalized. D) less likely to receive a diagnosis of schizophrenia but more likely to be institutionalized.
133. In Tennessee's state hospitals, African Americans comprise approximately _____ percent of those diagnosed with schizophrenia, even though African Americans represent 16 percent of the state's population. A) 10–15 B) 25–30 C) 45–50 D) 65–70
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134. Compared with those diagnosed with schizophrenia who live in developing countries, those diagnosed with schizophrenia who live in developed countries are: A) less likely to recover fully and more likely to be hospitalized. B) less likely to recover fully and less likely to be hospitalized. C) more likely to recover fully and more likely to be hospitalized. D) more likely to recover fully and less likely to be hospitalized.
135. A particular country has a nearly 3 percent prevalence for schizophrenia. That country: A) has a normal schizophrenia prevalence. B) has a lower-than-average schizophrenia prevalence. C) has a higher-than-average schizophrenia prevalence. D) has such a high schizophrenia prevalence that it almost certainly is a developing country.
136. A person diagnosed with schizophrenia is not hospitalized, yet eventually shows complete remission of symptoms. This pattern is: A) typical of what happens in developing countries. B) typical of what happens in developed countries. C) unusual: not being hospitalized is typical in developing countries, but remission of symptoms is typical in developed countries. D) unusual: not being hospitalized is typical in developed countries, but remission of symptoms is typical in developing countries.
137. Studies relating rates of diagnosis of schizophrenia to poverty and race show: A) a connection between diagnosis of schizophrenia and poverty. B) a connection between diagnosis of schizophrenia and race. C) a connection between diagnosis of schizophrenia and both race and poverty. D) no clear connection between diagnosis of schizophrenia and either race or poverty.
138. The complete remission rate for those diagnosed with schizophrenia is: A) higher in developed countries than in developing countries, possibly because of better access to powerful antipsychotic drugs. B) higher in developed countries than in developing countries, possibly because of better access to hospitalization. C) higher in developing countries than in developed countries, possibly because of better family and social support. D) higher in developing countries than in developed countries, possibly because of decreased societal tolerance of positive symptoms.
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139. A person is labeled by the community as having schizophrenia. Based on available evidence, it is MOST likely that: A) community members, and the person, will have a more negative view of the person. B) community members, but not the person, will have a more negative view of the person. C) the person, but not community members, will have a more negative view of the person. D) neither the person nor community members will have a more negative view of the person.
140. People around those who have been diagnosed with schizophrenia begin to treat them as if they are "crazy," expecting and overreacting to odd behaviors that they might not even notice in others. This observation is MOST consistent with the _____ understanding of schizophrenia. A) psychodynamic B) family systems C) cognitive-behavioral D) sociocultural
141. David Rosenhan (1973) sent eight people to various psychiatric hospitals. All eight falsely reported hearing voices that said "empty," "hollow," and "thud." After being admitted to one of the hospitals, each person acted normally, yet all were diagnosed as having schizophrenia. One of the conclusions from this study is that: A) clinicians are unable to detect "real" schizophrenia. B) the expectations produced by labeling can alter perception. C) hospitals can produce schizophrenic behavior in normal people. D) auditory hallucinations are sufficient for a diagnosis of schizophrenia.
142. According to the family stress model, parents of those diagnosed with schizophrenia display all the following EXCEPT: A) more conflict. B) more empathy. C) poorer communication skills. D) more criticism of their children.
143. Families that display high levels of expressed emotion do all EXCEPT: A) intrude on one another's privacy. B) frequently express negative emotions toward each other. C) show hostility toward each other. D) approve of one another's actions.
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144. If observations of a relationship between "expressed emotion" in families and recovery from schizophrenia demonstrate cause-and-effect, then relapse should be LEAST common in people with schizophrenia whose families: A) frequently express criticism and do not allow much privacy. B) frequently express criticism and allow a good deal of privacy. C) infrequently express criticism and do not allow much privacy. D) infrequently express criticism and allow a good deal of privacy.
145. Sociocultural perspectives differ from other perspectives of schizophrenia because they focus exclusively on factors that are: A) external to the individual. B) internal to the individual. C) unrelated to psychological factors. D) difficult to measure.
146. The _____ states that a person with a biological predisposition for schizophrenia will develop it if he or she subsequently experiences significant life stressors or other negative events. A) cognitive-behavioral perspective B) family stress model C) diathesis-stress model D) sociocultural perspective
147. The HPA pathway becomes activated when people experience: A) stressful events. B) exposure to toxins. C) dopamine antagonists. D) hallucinations.
148. A developmental psychopathology theorist would be MOST likely to claim that: A) having schizophrenic symptoms during childhood is the best predictor of adulthood schizophrenia. B) schizophrenia stems from exposure to viral infections that occur during prenatal development. C) symptoms of schizophrenia are normal during early development but become a disorder if they occur during late adolescence. D) schizophrenia is triggered by many factors that operate together in a developmental sequence.
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149. Schizophrenia researchers have been: A) about equally successful in identifying biological and psychological origins of schizophrenia. B) more successful in identifying biological origins than psychological origins of schizophrenia. C) more successful in identifying psychological origins than biological origins of schizophrenia. D) frustratingly unsuccessful in identifying either biological or psychological origins of schizophrenia.
150. If psychological and sociocultural explanations are to make the same kind of progress in understanding schizophrenia that biological explanations have, then they must: A) come up with more precise theories that explain how psychological and sociocultural factors contribute to schizophrenia. B) rely exclusively on experiments to generate new knowledge within their disciplines. C) acknowledge that biological explanations are the direction of the future and move on to other topics of study. D) eventually merge with biological approaches, since they have difficulty explaining the causes of schizophrenia.
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Answer Key 1. B 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. D 6. A 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. A 11. C 12. B 13. D 14. B 15. A 16. C 17. B 18. B 19. A 20. B 21. C 22. B 23. D 24. C 25. D 26. B 27. B 28. C 29. B 30. A 31. C 32. A 33. C 34. A 35. B 36. D 37. B 38. C 39. C 40. B 41. C 42. C 43. B 44. B
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45. A 46. A 47. A 48. A 49. C 50. A 51. B 52. D 53. B 54. D 55. A 56. A 57. D 58. D 59. D 60. A 61. B 62. C 63. D 64. C 65. A 66. C 67. A 68. D 69. B 70. A 71. C 72. B 73. D 74. C 75. D 76. A 77. A 78. D 79. C 80. A 81. B 82. A 83. C 84. C 85. C 86. A 87. D 88. C 89. D 90. D
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91. B 92. C 93. A 94. C 95. B 96. B 97. B 98. C 99. A 100. A 101. B 102. B 103. A 104. C 105. D 106. C 107. D 108. C 109. A 110. C 111. A 112. D 113. A 114. C 115. B 116. D 117. B 118. B 119. C 120. A 121. C 122. D 123. A 124. A 125. A 126. A 127. D 128. A 129. C 130. D 131. C 132. C 133. C 134. A 135. C 136. A
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137. C 138. C 139. A 140. D 141. B 142. B 143. D 144. D 145. A 146. C 147. A 148. D 149. B 150. A
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1. A therapist is evaluating a person who experienced catatonia, disorganized speech, restricted affect, avolition, and social withdrawal for the past two months. This has led to impairment in the person's personal life and at work. Does this patient meet the diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia? A) No, the person must also experience delusions or hallucinations. B) No, the person must experience symptoms for at least six months or more. C) No, the presence of restricted affect and avolution suggest a diagnosis of dissociative identity disorder. D) Yes, the person meets the diagnostic criteria.
2. Which disorder is characterized by marked symptoms of both schizophrenia and a mood disorder? A) schizoaffective disorder B) schizophreniform disorder C) brief psychotic disorder D) shared psychotic disorder
3. A loss of contact with reality is called a: A) delusion. B) hallucination. C) psychosis. D) flat affect.
4. The _____ theory suggests that schizophrenia causes victims to fall from a higher to a lower socioeconomic level or to remain poor because they are unable to function effectively. A) labeling B) social deviance C) diathesis-stress D) downward drift
5. Approximately one of every _____ people in the world suffers from schizophrenia during his or her lifetime. A) 10 B) 25 C) 50 D) 100
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6. Which statement is true of the prevalence of schizophrenia in men and women? A) Men are usually diagnosed with schizophrenia before the age of 15, whereas women are usually diagnosed after the age of 30. B) Men are diagnosed with schizophrenia far more often than are women. C) Equal numbers of men and women receive a diagnosis of schizophrenia. D) Women tend to have much higher rates of schizophrenia, which is theoretically related to the higher levels of estrogen in their blood.
7. Delusions of _____ are the most common type of delusions in schizophrenia. A) persecution B) paranoia C) grandeur D) reference
8. Individuals with schizophrenia sometimes make up words that have meaning only for themselves. These words are called: A) ideations. B) grandeur. C) paranoia. D) neologisms.
9. Researchers have found more blood flow in _____ of the brain in patients experiencing auditory hallucinations. A) Broca's area B) Wernicke's area C) the hippocampus D) the hypothalamus
10. _____ are perceptions that occur in the absence of external stimuli. A) Neologisms B) Derailments C) Delusions D) Hallucinations
11. Inappropriate affect, the experiencing of emotions that are unsuited to a situation, is classified as a(n) _____ symptom of schizophrenia. A) neurological B) negative C) avolitional D) positive
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12. Louis frequently sits upright for hours at a time and resists being moved. Louis is displaying: A) catatonic stupor. B) catatonic excitement. C) catatonic rigidity. D) catatonic posturing.
13. Dominic, who has schizophrenia, was experiencing hallucinations and disorganized speech for the past six weeks. His psychosis has subsided but he has become very quiet, socially withdrawn, and has a flat affect. Dominic is in the _____ phase of schizophrenia. A) predromal B) premorbid C) residual D) active
14. Andrea Yates suffered from _____ psychosis. A) temporary B) prodromal C) anxiety D) postpartum
15. The group of antihistamine drugs that became the first group of effective antipsychotic medications was called: A) phenothiazines. B) anti-inflammatories. C) beta blockers. D) benzodiazepines.
16. A client is taking a first-generation antipsychotic medication to treat his schizophrenia. Which side effect is MORE likely with this drug than with a second-generation antipsychotic? A) confusion B) memory loss C) muscle tremors D) muscle contractions
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17. The concept of the schizophrenogenic mother, which suggests that schizophrenia is caused by cold, domineering, and uninterested mothers, was suggested by: A) Sigmund Freud. B) Frieda Fromm-Reichmann. C) Aaron Beck. D) Eugen Bleuler.
18. A therapist is treating an individual with schizophrenia; the therapist focuses on teaching the person appropriate responses to others' social cues. This therapist is MOST likely a(n): A) existential therapist. B) psychodynamic therapist. C) cognitive-behavioral therapist. D) sociocultural therapist.
19. A therapist is treating an individual with schizophrenia. The therapist asks the client various questions to determine the level of expressed emotion at home. This therapist is MOST likely a(n): A) existential therapist. B) psychodynamic therapist. C) cognitive-behavioral therapist. D) sociocultural therapist.
20. Dr. Newman is a sociocultural therapist. Which question would Dr. Newman be MOST interested in? A) How does labeling someone as schizophrenic affect that person's behavior? B) Can schizophrenia be inherited? C) How does a person with schizophrenia explain the discrepancy between what he or she believes is reality and what others say is reality? D) How do neurotransmitter levels differ in those with schizophrenia compared with those who do not have schizophrenia?
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Answer Key 1. B 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. D 6. C 7. A 8. D 9. A 10. D 11. D 12. C 13. C 14. D 15. A 16. C 17. B 18. C 19. D 20. A
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1. The term schizophrenia is a combination of the Greek words that mean “_____ mind.” A) split B) void C) absent D) wrong
2. The DSM-5 requires that continuous signs of schizophrenia be present for at least _____ month(s) for a diagnosis of schizophrenia to be warranted. A) one B) three C) four D) six
3. Which disorder is associated with the presence of schizophrenia symptoms that last less than one month? A) psychotic disorder due to a general medical condition B) substance-induced psychotic disorder C) schizophreniform disorder D) brief psychotic disorder
4. The average age of onset of schizophrenia in males is: A) 12 years. B) 23 years. C) 28 years. D) 36 years.
5. Which socioeconomic class has the highest annual prevalence of schizophrenia? A) upper B) lower C) middle D) lower-middle
6. Kendall suffers from a mental illness and also abuses heroin and alcohol. Kendall is a _____ patient. A) multi-prevalent B) dual axis C) multiaxial D) dual diagnosis
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7. Preston watches the woman from the cable company enter his neighbor's house. He is convinced that they are plotting together to install surveillance equipment and track Preston's every move. Which symptom of schizophrenia is Preston displaying? A) inappropriate affect B) hallucinations C) delusions D) avolution
8. Which is NOT a category of schizophrenia symptoms? A) positive B) negative C) psychomotor D) neuromotor 9. In the middle of a conversation with your friend about ice hockey, she says, “It's so cold during hockey season. All the movement—gliding and flying high in various patterns. Animals have their own approach, but not in the streets. Smells of blue are everywhere!” Which formal thought disorder does this represent? A) Clang B) Neologisms C) Loose associations D) Perseveration
10. People with _____ believe their feelings, thoughts, and actions are being controlled by other people. A) perseveration B) delusions of reference C) delusions of control D) derailment
11. _____ hallucinations are by far the most common type in schizophrenia. A) Olfactory B) Paranoid C) Visual D) Auditory
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12. Elise has schizophrenia and has been exceptionally quiet for the past few days. Even when directly spoken to, she gives only very short answers or sometimes refuses to speak at all. Which symptom of schizophrenia is Elise displaying? A) delusions of grandeur B) alogia C) avolition D) derailment
13. The psychomotor symptoms for schizophrenia may take certain extreme forms, collectively called: A) hebephrenia. B) catatonia. C) alogia. D) progromia.
14. Which symptom is NOT associated with schizophrenia? A) having an increased energy level B) talking but not conveying anything C) withdrawing from others D) having a blunted affect
15. Many individuals with schizophrenia go through three phases, the first of which is the: A) active stage. B) prodromal stage. C) residual stage. D) premorbid stage.
16. Which statement BEST reflects the findings of twin studies evaluating genetic factors associated with schizophrenia? A) If one twin has schizophrenia, the other twin—if male—has a significantly increased risk of developing schizophrenia. B) Identical twins are almost five times as likely to develop schizophrenia as are fraternal twins. C) If one twin has schizophrenia, there is a significantly increased risk of schizophrenia developing in the other twin, for both identical and fraternal twins. D) If one twin has schizophrenia, there is an increased risk of schizophrenia developing in the other twin, with a substantially higher risk for identical twins.
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17. The _____ is the foundation for current biochemical explanations of schizophrenia. A) polygenic theory B) diathesis-stress theory C) family pedigree theory D) dopamine hypothesis
18. Circumstantial evidence for the _____ theory comes from the unusually large number of people with schizophrenia born during the winter. A) prenatal B) diathesis-stress C) viral D) family pedigree
19. Sigmund Freud believed that schizophrenia could result from: A) cold and unnuturing parents. B) learned helplessness. C) biochemical imbalances. D) misinterpretation of unusual sensations.
20. Individuals who are trying to recover from schizophrenia are almost four times more likely to relapse if they live with a family that has high levels of: A) conflict. B) serotonin. C) expressed emotion. D) depression.
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Answer Key 1. A 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. D 7. C 8. D 9. C 10. C 11. D 12. B 13. B 14. A 15. B 16. D 17. D 18. C 19. A 20. C
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Chapter 15
1. How have living conditions changed for individuals with schizophrenia since their housing in a typical public state hospital in the United States in the mid-twentieth century? 2. How could the lobotomy have been considered to be a “miracle” cure for schizophrenia? What were the usual results of lobotomies?
3. Compare and contrast milieu therapy and token economy programs..
4. What effect did the emergence of antipsychotic drugs have on approaches to treatment of schizophrenia?
5. Compare and contrast the two kinds of cognitive-behavior therapy used for people with schizophrenia.
6. List and briefly describe two of the five key features of effective community care. Discuss each feature's challenges and failures.
7. Why is work so important to those experiencing schizophrenia? What type of work are people with schizophrenia MOST likely to be able to do, and what treatments have been developed to support them?
8. Explain why community treatment has failed those with schizophrenia.
9. What happens to people with serious mental disorders who are not treated effectively? Be comprehensive in your answer.
10. Why are individuals with schizophrenia so often perceived to be dangerous and violent, despite contrary evidence?
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Answer Key 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
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1. The symptoms that develop because of the experience of long-term mental institutionalization itself are collectively called _____.
2. Maxwell Jones's therapeutic community is a form of _____ therapy.
3. Because they often produce movement similar to the symptoms of neurological diseases, first-generation antipsychotic drugs are also known as _____ drugs.
4. First-generation antipsychotic drugs reduce the _____ symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions.
5. After seven months of treatment with Thorazine, Paula begins to exhibit bizarre and uncontrollable movements of the face, neck, tongue, and back. These undesirable effects are known as _____.
6. The second-generation antipsychotic drug clozapine has a dangerous side effect called _____, a life-threatening drop in white blood cells.
7. The attempt to support the family of a person with schizophrenia, to help them cope and provide the best environment for continued recovery, is called _____.
8. The family therapy approach to the treatment of schizophrenia includes bringing the members of the patient's family together with other families who are in the same situation to share their thoughts and emotions in a format called _____.
9. Interventions for schizophrenia that make sure clients take their medications and help patients with self-management, problem-solving, decision-making, and the development of interpersonal skills are called _____.
10. The 1960s policy of releasing patients from mental health hospitals to community-based mental health facilities is called _____.
11. The institution that is supposed to provide the coordination among posthospitalization services is the _____.
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12. If patients with schizophrenia show improvement during short-term hospitalization, the follow-up treatment they receive in the community later is called _____.
13. Harry was released from the hospital to a dormitory-like facility that gives him considerable freedom during the day. The live-in staff consists of paraprofessionals who emphasize resident responsibility and self-government. This facility is MOST likely a(n) _____.
14. A person with schizophrenia who receives assistance with finding a job and ongoing psychological support once employed is receiving _____.
15. One contributing factor to the increase in the number of homeless individuals was the mental health policy of _____.
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Answer Key 1. social breakdown syndrome 2. milieu 3. neuroleptic 4. positive 5. tardive dyskinesia 6. agranulocytosis 7. family therapy 8. family support groups 9. social therapy 10. deinstitutionalization 11. community mental health center 12. aftercare 13. halfway house 14. supported employment 15. deinstitutionalization
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1. Which statement accurately reflects current thinking about psychosis and schizophrenia? A) Psychotic behavior is best labeled as schizophrenia. B) Schizophrenia and psychosis are two distinctly different syndromes. C) People with different diagnoses can exhibit psychosis; it is not limited to schizophrenia. D) People with bipolar disorder or major depression don't exhibit psychosis; only people with schizophrenia do.
2. Which statement about medication and schizophrenia is the LEAST accurate? A) Medication is very helpful for some, moderately helpful for others, and ineffective for the remainder of those suffering from schizophrenia. B) Medication can alleviate some problems, but it can also create new ones. C) The approaches to treating schizophrenia have vastly improved over the last several decades. D) Medication is the only effective way to treat schizophrenia.
3. One should be cautious when examining instances of schizophrenia using hospital records from much of the twentieth century because: A) very few records were kept about diagnostic labels back then. B) most residents of mental hospitals back then also had depression. C) many people with psychotic symptoms were misdiagnosed as having schizophrenia. D) people often faked having schizophrenic symptoms to receive treatment for some other disorder.
4. What was the dominant way of treating people with schizophrenia during the first half of the twentieth century? A) institutionalization B) outpatient services C) individual psychotherapy D) treatment with neuroleptic drugs
5. Individuals who were institutionalized for schizophrenia during the first half of the twentieth century probably received all of the following EXCEPT: A) physical restraint. B) food and shelter. C) occasional abuse and neglect. D) antipsychotic medication.
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6. The main contribution of Philippe Pinel to the care of those with severe mental illnesses was to: A) develop state hospitals for people who could not afford private care. B) use antipsychotic drugs in highly controlled settings. C) treat patients with sympathy and kindness. D) promote deinstitutionalization.
7. The way people with schizophrenia were housed in mental hospitals during the first half of the twentieth century could be compared to a: A) storage facility. B) critical care unit in a modern hospital. C) retirement community. D) military barrack.
8. Which statement is true regarding how people with schizophrenia were treated during the first half of the twentieth century? A) People with schizophrenia were not given antipsychotic medications even when these were readily available. B) Therapists would exclusively use "talk therapy" even when medical treatments were shown to be more effective. C) People with schizophrenia were often neglected and abused even though the practice of "moral treatment" was widely endorsed. D) Lobotomies were performed routinely even though the evidence supporting their usage came from a single animal study.
9. Which statement is true of state mental hospitals in the United States in the mid-twentieth century? A) They were intended to isolate mental patients from the general population. B) They were built in large cities, so patients could stay in contact with the "real" world. C) They were overcrowded and understaffed. D) They were focused on innovative and experimental treatments.
10. The usual way of dealing with troublesome or violent people with schizophrenia in institutions in the first half of the twentieth century was to: A) use drugs. B) beat them. C) ignore them. D) use physical restraint.
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11. Most patients who lived on the hospital wards in state mental hospitals in the mid-1900s: A) were people with schizophrenia. B) received individual "talk therapy" with no success. C) interacted well with each other but not with staff members. D) were in fact violent criminals.
12. Which of these was NOT a major problem facing state hospitals during the mid-1900s? A) overcrowding B) inadequate state funding C) administration of treatments by those with insufficient knowledge and experience D) protocol of releasing "difficult" patients even though they still required treatment
13. During the mid-1900s, why were the most "difficult" patients transferred to the back wards of state hospitals, where they were often isolated, restrained, and punished? A) to avoid disturbing the other patients who did not have severe symptoms B) because the priority of state hospitals shifted from treating people humanely to maintaining order C) to make it easier for staff to treat those with the most severe symptoms D) because the most "difficult" patients needed additional treatment compared to other patients
14. Who was the first physician responsible for developing the prefrontal lobotomy for use on human patients? A) Egas Moniz B) Eliot Valenstein C) Walter Freeman D) Carlyle Jacobsen
15. The technique for treating mental patients that was pioneered by Egas Moniz was: A) ECS therapy. B) the lobotomy. C) pharmacotherapy. D) the cingulotomy.
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16. American Walter Freeman "improved" the procedure developed by Egas Moniz by developing the: A) prefrontal lobotomy. B) prefrontal leucotomy. C) transorbital lobotomy. D) complete prefrontal lobectomy.
17. During a _____ a needle is inserted into the brain through the eye socket and is then rotated to destroy brain tissue. A) prefrontal lobotomy B) transorbital lobotomy C) singular nigra lobotomy D) facial-cranial lobotomy
18. Why were lobotomies so enthusiastically accepted by the medical community in the 1940s and 1950s? A) They were based on sound experimental studies with animals. B) The inventors of this procedure were gifted and dedicated physicians. C) There were relatively few of them and side effects were mild. D) They could be used to control criminals as well as mental patients.
19. It was thought that lobotomies could effectively treat the symptoms of schizophrenia and other disorders because: A) cutting the nerve pathways that produce abnormal thinking should prevent such thinking from occurring. B) animal studies showed that this procedure calmed animals that were easily agitated. C) therapists were desperate to try anything that might help those with the most severe symptoms. D) they could be performed quickly and easily with almost no side effects.
20. Which of the following was NOT a factor that contributed to the expanded use of lobotomies during the 1940s and 1950s? A) An early study showed that lobotomies were successful in treating patients with psychological disorders. B) The neurosurgeons who developed the lobotomy were highly respected and influential. C) Because of overcrowding, state hospitals were receptive to treatments that would help maintain standards. D) Early antipsychotic drugs were ineffective in treating psychotic symptoms and produced dangerous side effects.
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21. Why are lobotomies no longer routinely used to treat people with severe psychological disorders? A) We now know that the side effects of the procedure are like those that are produced by antipsychotic drugs. B) A growing body of research indicates that the procedure is not as effective as the early studies indicated. C) The physical problems produced by lobotomies pose ethical problems for their continued use. D) As with any fad, it simply lost its popularity among neurosurgeons.
22. Some hospitalized mental patients not only failed to improve but also suffered negative effects of their care. This syndrome is called: A) schizophrenogenesis. B) hyperinstitutionalization. C) social breakdown syndrome. D) downward drift.
23. Patients who developed extreme withdrawal, anger, physical aggressiveness, and loss of personal hygiene as a result of poor institutional care were showing a pattern known as: A) institutional deterioration. B) social breakdown syndrome. C) chronic back ward syndrome. D) schizophrenic failure to thrive.
24. Throughout much of the twentieth century, long-term institutionalized mental patients developed additional symptoms as a result of their institutionalization. The most common pattern of decline was: A) psychosis. B) schizophrenia. C) social breakdown syndrome. D) neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
25. People who were treated in state hospitals during the mid-1900s often developed additional symptoms that were more troubling than the original symptoms for which they were being treated. This is thought to be due to: A) the dehumanizing conditions associated with being institutionalized. B) the spread of contagious diseases that occur when people are overcrowded. C) poorly trained nurses who failed to respond to the needs of patients. D) the side effects of dangerous treatment procedures that were routinely used.
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26. How is milieu therapy related to social breakdown syndrome? A) Milieu therapy incorporates institutional practices that are likely to prevent social breakdown syndrome. B) Milieu therapy is more likely to produce social breakdown syndrome than institutional practices that were used prior to the 1950s. C) Milieu therapy is costlier to implement than other approaches, which is why it is rarely used to prevent social breakdown syndrome. D) Milieu therapy uses institutional practices that neither cause nor prevent social breakdown syndrome.
27. Theorists propose that institutionalized patients deteriorate because they are deprived of opportunities to develop self-respect and independence. The therapy that counters this effect by creating an environment that encourages self-respect and responsibility is known as: A) token therapy. B) social therapy. C) milieu therapy. D) environmental enhancement.
28. Which therapy is based on the premise that when you change the social environment, you can change the patient? A) milieu therapy B) insight therapy C) family therapy D) the token economy
29. Maxwell Jones (1953) created an approach to psychotherapy of the institutionalized in London called: A) oral therapy. B) group therapy. C) a token economy. D) milieu therapy.
30. Milieu therapy is based primarily on the principles of _____ psychology. A) cognitive-behavioral B) sociocultural C) humanistic D) psychodynamic
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31. If one were treated by therapists who believed that patients need to live in a social climate that promotes productive activity, self-respect, and individual responsibility, one would be likely to be living in the: A) 1920s. B) 1930s. C) 1940s. D) 1950s.
32. The primary goal of milieu therapy is to: A) create a social environment that promotes productive activity, self-respect, and responsibility. B) decrease inappropriate or maladaptive behavior while increasing appropriate and adaptive behavior. C) change how the individual thinks about and perceives the social world. D) isolate those with severe psychological disorders from stressful situations or from environmental factors that trigger psychotic symptoms.
33. A patient who is called a resident and who lives in a therapeutic community, actively working with staff members to create a life that is as much like that outside the hospital as possible, is probably receiving _____ therapy. A) token economy B) custodial C) milieu D) lobotomy
34. Milieu therapy includes all of the following components EXCEPT: A) creating an atmosphere of mutual respect among residents and staff. B) enabling residents to make decisions for themselves. C) getting residents to be more active and engaged in daily activities. D) teaching residents to recognize when they engage in inappropriate behavior.
35. Milieu therapy is to _____, as token economy is to _____. A) humanism; behaviorism B) humanism; capitalism C) individualism; behaviorism D) socialism; Darwinism
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36. A token economy approach to treatment is based on principles from the _____ view of abnormal behavior. A) psychodynamic B) biological C) behavioral D) humanistic
37. Jerry is a resident in a psychiatric ward. When he makes his bed, brushes his teeth, and sweeps the floor, he gets a plastic chip. He can exchange the plastic chips he has earned for extra privileges, such as additional TV time. This example illustrates the basic features of: A) a token economy. B) milieu therapy. C) social therapy. D) a behavioral contract.
38. In behavioral terms, what is a token? A) a stimulus B) motivation C) a reinforcer D) punishment
39. A therapist wants to implement a token economy. To help ensure that the program is effective, the therapist should: A) create a plus and minus system, awarding tokens for desired behavior and taking tokens for undesired behavior. B) define the behavior to be reinforced and establish expectations for earning tokens. C) first create a bare minimum standard for living comforts so that the tokens and rewards become more desirable. D) be generous when initially awarding tokens to increase interest in the reward system.
40. A third-grade teacher gives students stickers throughout the school day when they engage in appropriate behaviors. At the end of the day, students can trade in their stickers for treats from the class "treasure chest." This program is MOST similar to which form of therapy used for institutionalized people with schizophrenia? A) milieu therapy B) insight therapy C) token economy D) partial hospitalization
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41. Token economies use the principles of _____ to treat people with schizophrenia. A) classical conditioning B) operant conditioning C) cognitive-behavioral therapy D) milieu therapy
42. Which statement about token economies is NOT supported by research? A) Many studies of effectiveness do not include a control group, confounding the treatment with attention. B) Although token economy programs can change patients' delusional statements, they may not be changing delusional thoughts. C) Token economy programs do not change the behavior of the most severely ill patients. D) It is difficult for patients to make the transition from a token economy program to the community.
43. A hospitalized patient no longer talks about delusions and hallucinations, thanks to participating in a token economy program. However, critics of the token economy program would say that the token economy program has: A) worsened the negative symptoms of the disorder. B) treated the schizophrenia without medication. C) not eliminated the delusions and hallucinations but has improved the patient's ability to imitate normal behavior. D) changed a Type I disorder into a Type II disorder.
44. Which statement BEST describes the effectiveness of token economy strategies? A) They are ineffective in the long run. B) They reverse the progress of schizophrenia. C) They are successful at changing the patient's behavior. D) They are successful in altering the patient's distorted thinking.
45. What is the concern regarding the changes produced by token economies? A) Many studies of token economies are methodologically flawed. B) Some patients can function in normal life but deteriorate in the hospital. C) The skills learned in the hospital may not generalize to the outside world. D) The person may have learned new behaviors without changing distorted thinking.
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46. In a token economy, if a person no longer receives tokens for saying his or her correct name when prompted, then what is likely to follow? A) Delusional thinking will return. B) The person will start developing auditory hallucinations. C) The person will continue to say his or her correct name when prompted in the future. D) The person will eventually stop saying his or her correct name when prompted.
47. How can one BEST determine whether the use of token economies is an effective means of changing problematic behavior? A) Observe how behavior changes after people receive tokens for appropriate behavior. B) Record a person's behavior before and after administration of tokens. C) Ask therapists and staff if they think the use of tokens changed patients' behavior. D) Record and compare behavior between a group that received tokens against a group that did not.
48. In a token economy, if therapists and staff required patients to earn tokens to receive meals at the cafeteria, this would be considered: A) unwise due to the increase in aggressive behaviors that would follow. B) unethical and illegal. C) a cruel form of punishment. D) a necessary first step toward changing behavior.
49. Although token economies can change delusional behavior, _____ may not change. A) catatonic symptoms B) appropriate behaviors C) delusional thinking D) facial expressions
50. One criticism of token economies is that: A) people can pretend to act "normal" even though psychotic symptoms remain. B) it is unethical to change a person's behavior against their will. C) being able to purchase cigarettes with tokens is dangerous to one's health. D) they produce only a temporary change in behavior.
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51. One reason why people often have difficulty transitioning from an institutional token economy to community living is because: A) few people are available to monitor behavior. B) community members offer little support for those transitioning to community living. C) the contingencies for earning reinforcers are different in community living than in an institutional setting. D) tokens are worthless outside of an institutional setting.
52. Antipsychotic drugs were discovered accidentally when researchers were trying to develop: A) antihistamines. B) analgesics. C) sedatives. D) antibiotics.
53. The discovery of antihistamine drugs in the 1940s indirectly led to the development of: A) lithium. B) antianxiety drugs. C) antipsychotic drugs. D) antidepressant drugs.
54. The first antipsychotic drug to be approved for use in the United States was: A) Haldol (haloperidol). B) Prozac (fluoxetine). C) Thorazine (chlorpromazine). D) Mellaril (thioridazine).
55. First-generation antipsychotic drugs are to _____, as second-generation antipsychotic drugs are to _____. A) neuroleptic drugs; atypical antipsychotic drugs B) the 1920s; the 1980s C) fewer side effects; more side effects D) conventional drugs; neuroleptic drugs
56. The term neuroleptic is applied to drugs that: A) cure psychosis. B) cure schizophrenia. C) have potency against depression. D) can produce symptoms of neurological disorders.
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57. Which drug has antipsychotic properties? A) Prozac (fluoxetine) B) Valium (diazepam) C) imipramine D) haloperidol
58. The main difference between first-generation and second-generation antipsychotic drugs is: A) the way they are manufactured. B) how frequently they are prescribed. C) whether or not they produce symptoms that resemble neurological disorders. D) whether they are better at treating negative symptoms or positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
59. Antipsychotic drugs have all the following in common EXCEPT: A) they typically work by decreasing dopamine activity. B) they are generally more effective in treating schizophrenia than any other method used alone. C) they produce unwanted side effects, but with varying levels of severity. D) they increase the risk of future substance abuse and chemical dependency.
60. If one could use only a single treatment for schizophrenia and wanted the MOST effective treatment, one should choose: A) antipsychotic drugs. B) psychodynamic therapy. C) milieu therapy. D) electroconvulsive therapy.
61. As a psychiatrist, you prescribe a patient with schizophrenia a second-generation antipsychotic medication. What patient education, regarding this medicine, should you provide? A) This medication is most effective against negative symptoms of schizophrenia. B) This medication is commonly associated with undesired extrapyramidal symptoms. C) This medication is effective in only a small percentage of patients who take it. D) This medication needs to be taken even after symptoms have subsided.
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62. Which of these transformed the treatment of schizophrenia? A) cognitive-behavioral therapy B) milieu therapy C) electroconvulsive therapy D) antipsychotic medications
63. In one study (Sampath et al., 1992), when antipsychotic medications of people with chronic schizophrenia were changed to placebos: A) most people relapsed within a year. B) few people relapsed within a year. C) most people found the placebos to be as effective as the antipsychotic medications. D) most people preferred the placebos because they produced very few side effects.
64. Which statement is accurate advice that you could give someone thinking about taking traditional antipsychotic medication for schizophrenia? A) "Try psychotherapy first; it often works just as well." B) "If you have negative symptoms of schizophrenia, you can expect better results from medication." C) "Although these drugs will probably work, there are significant side effects." D) "Although these drugs work well, you probably won't see the maximum results until after six weeks."
65. The symptom of schizophrenia most likely to be relieved by antipsychotic drugs is: A) delusions. B) flat affect. C) lack of speech. D) lack of purpose.
66. Based on current research, which statement about the relationship between antipsychotic medications and side effects is NOT true? A) People often choose to discontinue taking medications because of the side effects they produce. B) First-generation antipsychotic medications can produce extrapyramidal side effects. C) The benefits of taking antipsychotic medications outweigh the costs of the side effects they produce. D) Some side effects of antipsychotic medication are potentially fatal.
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67. First-generation antipsychotic drugs have all of the following in common EXCEPT: A) they are more likely to produce extrapyramidal side effects than other antipsychotic drugs. B) they are often given to people in institutional settings where their side effects can be closely monitored. C) they are often effective in treating the positive symptoms of schizophrenia. D) they are usually not the first choice when antipsychotic drugs are prescribed.
68. If a patient developed extrapyramidal side effects after taking antipsychotic medication for several months, you would expect to see the patient showing primarily _____ dysfunction. A) motor B) cognitive C) emotional D) language
69. For the past 9 months, Joan has been taking a conventional antipsychotic drug to treat symptoms associated with her diagnosis of schizophrenia. Although she has fewer auditory hallucinations, Joan now experiences muscle tremors and rigidity to the point where she can no longer dress herself. It is likely that she is experiencing: A) tardive dyskinesia. B) neuroleptic malignant syndrome. C) Parkinsonian symptoms. D) catatonia.
70. One of the unwanted and later side effects of antipsychotic medications is: A) paralysis. B) hyperactivity. C) tardive dyskinesia. D) Parkinson's disease.
71. The neuroleptic side effect marked by muscle rigidity, fever, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysfunction is called: A) dystonia. B) akathisia. C) tardive dyskinesia. D) neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
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72. A woman has been treated with chlorpromazine for several years. Lately she seems to be chewing gum all the time and her arms are always in motion. She has begun to display twitching facial tics. This is an example of: A) dystonia. B) akathisia. C) tardive dyskinesia. D) neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
73. A person who is experiencing a potentially fatal reaction to an antipsychotic drug involving muscle rigidity and autonomic nervous system dysfunction is displaying: A) Parkinson-like symptoms. B) neuroleptic malignant syndrome. C) tardive dyskinesia. D) akathisia.
74. If a person with schizophrenia were making involuntary ticlike movements of the tongue, mouth, face, or whole body, smacking the lips, and making sucking and chewing movements, one would suspect the patient: A) was taking too much antipsychotic medication. B) was taking too little antipsychotic medication. C) had been taking antipsychotic medication for a short time. D) had been taking antipsychotic medication for a long time.
75. If you were working with a patient who displayed muscle tremors and rigidity, facial tics, and tardive dyskinesia, you would suspect that the person was receiving: A) electroconvulsive therapy. B) antipsychotic drugs. C) milieu therapy. D) psychodynamic therapy.
76. What do Parkinson-like symptoms, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, and tardive dyskinesia have in common? A) They are all symptoms of schizophrenia. B) They all result mostly from taking the newer antipsychotic drugs. C) They all involve disruption of motor control. D) They all can be treated with conventional antipsychotic drugs.
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77. A patient is taking a conventional antipsychotic drug. Which extrapyramidal side effect is MOST likely? A) neuroleptic malignant syndrome B) tardive dyskinesia C) Parkinsonian symptoms D) seizures
78. If the onset of tardive dyskinesia is detected early: A) most people recover from it when antipsychotic medication is discontinued. B) most people continue to experience its symptoms even when antipsychotic medication is discontinued. C) most people develop other problems, such as Parkinsonian symptoms. D) it will eventually disappear if people receive physical therapy.
79. The most successful way to eliminate tardive dyskinesia is to: A) stop the antipsychotic medication. B) use anti-Parkinsonian drugs to treat the side effects. C) ignore it; it will go away eventually. D) increase the dose of antipsychotic medication.
80. Tardive dyskinesia can be overlooked because: A) its symptoms are always very subtle. B) it has symptoms that are similar to schizophrenia. C) the symptoms are manifest in different ways in different patients. D) the symptoms do not begin until after the actual brain damage has taken place.
81. When first-generation antipsychotic drugs are used today, clinicians typically do all of the following EXCEPT: A) increase the dosage of a drug when patients do not improve. B) prescribe an additional antipsychotic drug to produce a synergistic effect. C) prescribe drugs that remedy the side effects of the antipsychotic drug. D) gradually reduce medications after patients have established normal functioning.
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82. Conventional antipsychotics are more likely to produce extrapyramidal side effects than atypical antipsychotic drugs because: A) they lower metabolism, which produces effects that resemble motor control problems. B) they damage brain tissue in the motor cortex, which produces odd motor behaviors. C) they operate on D-2 receptors in the striatum, which are associated with motor control. D) they increase the production of norepinephrine, which disrupts motor function.
83. Which drug appears to work more at serotonin and D-1 and D-4 dopamine receptors than at D-2 dopamine receptors? A) clozapine B) Thorazine C) haloperidol D) chlorpromazine
84. The MOST widely used atypical antipsychotic drug is: A) Clozaril. B) Xanax. C) Thorazine. D) Prozac.
85. The second-generation antipsychotic drugs were called atypical because: A) they are more effective than the conventional antipsychotic drugs. B) they reduce the positive symptoms of schizophrenia. C) they reduce both the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. D) their biological operations differ from those of the conventional antipsychotic medications.
86. A psychiatrist says, "I want to maximize the antipsychotic effect of a drug while minimizing its undesirable side effects." What's the BEST advice you can give the psychiatrist? A) "Unfortunately, effective doses of conventional and atypical antipsychotic drugs both produce a lot of undesirable side effects." B) "Fortunately, effective doses of both conventional and atypical antipsychotic drugs do not produce a lot of undesirable side effects." C) "Use a conventional antipsychotic drug." D) "Use an atypical antipsychotic drug."
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87. Imagine that your neighbor, who is being treated for schizophrenia, says that she has mostly negative symptoms of schizophrenia and is afraid of the extrapyramidal side effects of medication. She asks you what she should do. Based on current research, the BEST response is: A) "Avoid all types of medication and stick to insight therapy." B) "Try conventional antipsychotic drugs; they should work best." C) "Try atypical antipsychotics; they should work best." D) "Any medication should work about as well as any other medication."
88. Compared with conventional antipsychotic medications, the dosage-response curve for atypical medications reveal which relationship between drug efficacy and extrapyramidal side effects? A) a wider gap between the drug's efficacy and extrapyramidal side effects for low and moderate dosage levels B) a narrower gap between the drug's efficacy and extrapyramidal side effects for low and moderate dosage levels C) a linear increase in extrapyramidal side effects as dosage levels increase D) no change in extrapyramidal side effects as dosage levels increase
89. Which second-generation antipsychotic drug is the LEAST likely to cause tardive dyskinesia? A) Zyprexa B) Clozapine C) Risperdal D) Abilify
90. _____ is a life-threatening drop in white blood cells that is occasionally produced by the drug clozapine. A) Lymphocytosis B) Agranulocytosis C) Halitosis D) Phagocytosis
91. Which statement about atypical antipsychotic drugs is NOT true? A) They are less likely to produce extrapyramidal side effects than conventional antipsychotic drugs, especially when administered in low doses. B) They operate on different receptor sites compared to conventional antipsychotic medications. C) They treat positive symptoms of schizophrenia as well as negative symptoms, but to a smaller degree. D) They produce very few side effects compared to other antipsychotic medications.
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92. Research suggests that even though second-generation antipsychotic medications reduce psychotic symptoms, they: A) offer no insight as to what causes schizophrenia in the first place. B) may only moderately improve overall life satisfaction among those with chronic schizophrenia. C) represent a minor advance in the treatment of schizophrenia compared to conventional antipsychotic drugs. D) produce other symptoms that are more debilitating than those that are produced by conventional medications.
93. What is considered the first line of treatment for schizophrenia? A) cognitive-behavioral therapy B) social therapy C) second-generation antipsychotic medications D) conventional antipsychotic medications
94. Before the 1950s, why did some therapists believe that psychotherapy is unsuccessful in treating schizophrenia? A) Schizophrenia increases the strength of most ego defense mechanisms. B) Insurance does not cover psychotherapy for patients diagnosed as schizophrenic. C) People with schizophrenia are too far removed from reality to form a trusting relationship with the therapist. D) Excessive dopamine interferes with the process of free association that is requisite to the success of psychotherapy.
95. One of the biggest challenges psychotherapists face when treating a person with schizophrenia is: A) deciding which psychotherapeutic approach will produce the greatest benefit for the client. B) teaching the client how to recognize when they are engaging in delusions. C) building a trusting relationship with the client. D) calibrating the appropriate dosage of antipsychotic medication.
96. Frieda Fromm-Reichmann's approach to psychotherapy with patients who had schizophrenia was to: A) challenge patients' statements. B) build a sense of trust in the patient. C) alter the psychotic person's behavior. D) encourage specific life adjustments by providing community support services.
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97. If you are being treated for schizophrenia and are learning to distract yourself from the voices you hear and to reinterpret them as just a symptom of your disorder rather than reality, you are MOST likely receiving: A) psychotherapy. B) newer antipsychotic drugs. C) family therapy. D) cognitive-behavioral therapy.
98. Exercises that boost attention, memory, planning, and problem-solving are classified as _____, whereas exercises that train people how to understand and neutralize the voices in their head are classified as _____. A) cognitive restructuring approaches; hallucination reinterpretation and acceptance approaches B) cognitive approaches; behavioral approaches C) primary approaches; secondary approaches D) information processing approaches; hallucination inoculation approaches
99. If people with schizophrenia learn to reinterpret and accept their hallucinations, one can assume that this will produce: A) gradual elimination of hallucinations. B) less fear and confusion stemming from delusional thinking. C) greater information processing efficiency. D) less pain and suffering stemming from antipsychotic medications.
100. Which type of therapy has clients interact with computer-generated on-screen virtual human figures in an attempt to help them overcome their psychological problems? A) psychotherapy B) family therapy C) avatar therapy D) cognitive-behavioral therapy
101. Which form of therapy helps people learn to reinterpret their hallucinations and change their reactions to the hallucinations? A) cognitive-behavioral B) milieu C) insight D) medical
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102. Therapists who advise clients to resist following orders from their hallucinatory voices are using a technique from the cognitive-behavioral approach that involves: A) education about the biological causes of hallucinations. B) ways of coping with unpleasant sensations. C) reattribution of their hallucinations. D) challenging ideas about the power of hallucinations.
103. Therapists who teach clients to make statements such as, "It's not a real voice; it's my illness," are using a technique from the cognitive-behavioral approach that involves: A) educating clients about the biological causes of hallucinations. B) teaching clients ways of coping with unpleasant sensations. C) helping clients interpret their hallucinations. D) challenging ideas about the power of hallucinations.
104. Therapists who advise clients to apply special breathing and relaxation techniques in response to their hallucinatory voices are using a technique from the cognitive-behavioral approach that involves: A) educating clients about the biological causes of hallucinations. B) teaching clients ways of coping with hallucinations. C) helping clients interpret their hallucinations. D) challenging ideas about the power of hallucinations.
105. Hallucination reinterpretation and acceptance is a therapeutic approach that includes all of the following features EXCEPT: A) helping clients identify situations and events that trigger hallucinations. B) having clients test the validity that their hallucinations exert control over them. C) teaching clients to identify the source of their hallucinations. D) having clients record what the voices in their head are saying.
106. New-wave cognitive-behavioral therapies are similar to which of the following? A) milieu therapy B) exposure and response prevention C) covert sensitization D) acceptance and commitment therapy
107. Being mindful of one's hallucinations and accepting them: A) causes the hallucinations to be more intense and distracting. B) enables people to cope with them and move forward with their lives. C) fuels other symptoms of schizophrenia, ultimately making them more severe. D) leads to a gradual deterioration in cognitive functioning.
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108. A family with a high level of expressed emotion may display a great deal of: A) concern. B) criticism. C) joyfulness. D) underinvolvement.
109. People with schizophrenia who feel positive about their relatives: A) have a very high rate of relapse. B) also demonstrate better communication skills. C) often do better in treatment. D) require less antipsychotic medication.
110. Research on the relationship between schizophrenia and family interactions has shown that: A) the rate of schizophrenia is the lowest in families that display the highest levels of expressed emotion. B) most people with schizophrenia were raised by parents who were emotionally cold and distant. C) interactions among family members for those with schizophrenia is unrelated to the rate of relapse. D) the rate of relapse is lower in families with lower levels of expressed emotion and higher levels of support.
111. The goal of family therapy is to: A) help the family better support the patient with schizophrenia. B) help the patient move out of the family home and live on his or her own. C) help the family display higher levels of expressed emotion. D) help patients return to the hospital more quickly.
112. If relatives of a person with schizophrenia come to have more realistic expectations, reduce their guilt, and work on establishing better communication, they are probably receiving: A) milieu therapy. B) social therapy. C) family therapy. D) insight therapy.
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113. When Grant was released from the hospital after receiving treatment for schizophrenia, his parents scolded him about finding a job and were very critical of his dietary habits. Grant later became suspicious of his parents, and his delusional thoughts soon returned. This example illustrates: A) a high level of expressed emotion displayed by Grant's parents. B) unconditional positive regard for feelings. C) cognitive dissonance between Grant and his parents. D) a common problem that occurs when people are released from mental hospitals.
114. Family therapy for the treatment of schizophrenia assumes that all of the following statements are true EXCEPT: A) family interactions cause people to develop psychotic symptoms. B) greater therapeutic benefit can be achieved when one is in a supportive and positive family environment. C) guidance and training helps families adjust to living with a person who has schizophrenia. D) including the family during therapy sessions facilitates communication among family members.
115. If you and your family were receiving support, encouragement, and advice from other families with schizophrenic members, you would MOST likely be participating in: A) family psychoeducational programs. B) family milieu therapy. C) joint drug treatment. D) psychodynamic therapy.
116. In _____, families meet with others in the same situation to share their thoughts and emotions, provide mutual support, and learn about schizophrenia. A) online chat rooms B) support groups C) self-help seminars D) residential treatment facilities
117. A patient who receives help in finding work, in finding a place to live, and in taking medication correctly is probably receiving: A) milieu therapy. B) social therapy. C) family therapy. D) insight therapy.
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118. Social therapy appears to play the strongest role in: A) lessening the possibility of rehospitalization in those recovering from schizophrenia. B) preventing the development of schizophrenia. C) treating the positive symptoms of schizophrenia. D) giving families skills to treat a relative with schizophrenia.
119. Research has found that people with schizophrenia who received _____ were less likely to be readmitted to the hospital compared with those who received _____. A) social therapy and antipsychotic medication; only social therapy or antipsychotic medication B) social therapy only; social therapy and antipsychotic medication C) antipsychotic medication only; social therapy and antipsychotic medication D) no treatment at all; social therapy
120. Which of the following activities is a social therapist LEAST likely to perform? A) helping clients adjust to the demands of living outside of an institutional setting B) ensuring that clients are taking their medications C) helping clients find employment, housing, and health care D) training clients to identify and change delusional thoughts
121. Which of the following played the WEAKEST role, if any, in creating the community approach to treating schizophrenia? A) the development of antipsychotic drugs B) the Community Mental Health Act of 1963 C) advances in the use of cognitive-behavioral therapy D) overcrowding and the terrible conditions of state hospitals
122. Which of the following is true about state mental hospitals today? A) Due to deinstitutionalization, there are significantly fewer residents compared to the 1950s. B) More hospitals have been built since the 1950s to remedy the problem of overcrowding. C) State hospitals must meet higher standards of care than other treatment facilities. D) Psychiatric wards in regional hospitals have replaced state mental hospitals.
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123. The Community Mental Health Act stipulated that patients with mental disorders should receive all EXCEPT _____ without leaving their communities. A) inpatient treatment B) preventative care C) outpatient therapy D) research opportunities
124. The goal of deinstitutionalization was to: A) reduce the stigma associated with mental illness. B) return patients with mental disorders to their communities. C) increase mental illness prevention in communities nationwide. D) provide medication to people with schizophrenia but not to other mental patients.
125. Sometimes people are released from treatment facilities into communities and then return after a few months. They are then released once more, and then return again. This is often called the: A) "roller coaster" pattern. B) "revolving door" pattern. C) "circle of disease" pattern. D) "open door" policy.
126. In the original Community Mental Health Act, the place where individuals would be treated was a: A) day center. B) halfway house. C) sheltered workshop. D) community mental health center.
127. _____ are treatment facilities that provide medication, psychotherapy, emergency care for psychological problems, and coordinate treatment in the community. A) Day hospitals B) Aftercare programs C) Community mental health centers D) Halfway houses
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128. An individual who displays serious psychotic symptoms, but would not benefit from being sent to a large state psychiatric hospital for a long period of time, would BEST be served by: A) short-term hospitalization in a local psychiatric unit. B) aftercare. C) a halfway house. D) a sheltered workshop.
129. Compared with long-term institutionalization, short-term hospitalization that includes aftercare is more likely to: A) produce a backlash among community members who reject aftercare programs. B) produce greater improvement and fewer rehospitalizations. C) create a revolving door pattern in which people repeatedly enter and exit institutional care facilities. D) create financial burdens on communities and deplete treatment resources.
130. If a person being treated for schizophrenia goes each day to a center where the focus is on improving social skills and receiving therapy, the person is participating in: A) partial hospitalization. B) a sheltered workshop. C) a residential center. D) a support group.
131. Community mental health centers are designed to provide all of the following EXCEPT: A) inpatient emergency care. B) medication and psychotherapy. C) vocational rehabilitation. D) coordination of other community services.
132. After Julian was released from a short stay in the psychiatric ward of a hospital, he would regularly visit a therapist who made sure that he was taking his medication and monitored how well he was adjusting to living in the community. This example illustrates the features of: A) family therapy. B) aftercare. C) primary care. D) follow-up intervention.
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133. A person who lives at home but spends the day at a mental health facility would be using which service? A) aftercare B) coordinated services C) partial hospitalization D) short-term hospitalization
134. Research shows that people recovering from severe symptoms of schizophrenia who receive _____ often function better and relapse less often than those who receive _____. A) custodial care; short-term care B) partial hospitalization; extended hospitalization C) extended hospitalization; partial hospitalization D) day hospitalization; night hospitalization
135. People with schizophrenia who receive 24-hour supervision in a community setting, usually following a milieu approach, are receiving: A) coordinated services. B) partial hospitalization. C) halfway house services. D) occupational training.
136. Helena was just discharged from a public mental health facility. She went to live with other former patients in a group-living arrangement. There were staff members there to help, but the residents controlled most of the day-to-day activities. Helena's living arrangement is a: A) day center. B) halfway house. C) short-term hospital. D) sheltered workshop.
137. Several people with schizophrenia work at a recycling center, where on-time behavior is expected, and payment is made solely for work completed. The people do not compete with each other. MOST likely, this work takes place at a: A) halfway house. B) community mental health center. C) sheltered workshop. D) community employment center.
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138. People with schizophrenia who are working in a sheltered workshop are receiving: A) coordinated services. B) partial hospitalization. C) halfway house services. D) occupational training.
139. The person MOST responsible for coordinating community service and providing practical help with problem-solving social skills and ensuring that medications are being taken properly is a: A) psychiatrist. B) clinical psychologist. C) nurse practitioner. D) case manager.
140. The duties of case managers are MOST similar to the duties of: A) business managers. B) family therapists. C) social therapists. D) research scientists.
141. In the treatment of schizophrenia, a case manager's primary goal is to help with: A) coordinating services. B) finding employment for clients. C) training staff. D) administering medication.
142. Which of the following is NOT a reason for a shortage of services for those with severe psychological disorders? A) There is an insufficient number of community programs available that are designed for those with psychotic disorders. B) There are not enough therapists, case managers, and other professionals to fill the positions that are available. C) Community programs that are available often cater to those with milder psychological problems. D) The funding that is available cannot adequately pay for the kinds of services that are needed.
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143. Missing an opportunity to place a recently discharged client in a halfway house is to _____, whereas not finding a room for a client because all halfway houses are all fully occupied is to _____. A) poor coordination of services; shortage of services B) poor planning; poor communication C) case manager incompetence; health care system inefficiency D) community mental health centers; state hospitals
144. For a large percentage of individuals with schizophrenia, homelessness, incarceration, and living in unsupervised, substandard conditions are the consequences of: A) being treated in a state hospital. B) not having adequate community treatment resources available. C) using therapies that have not been sufficiently studied. D) using only antipsychotic medications to treat their symptoms.
145. About one-third of people who have schizophrenia live: A) on their own, unsupervised. B) in hospitals. C) on the street. D) in jail.
146. Someone says to you, "Homeless people scare me. They're all crazy." Based on research, what is the BEST response? A) "It's true that most homeless people experience a serious psychotic disorder." B) "That's a big myth. Virtually no homeless people are truly schizophrenic." C) "Unfortunately, about a quarter of homeless people have schizophrenia." D) "You should be scared. Mentally ill homeless people are usually violent."
147. Which of the following is NOT a valid reason why community programs should include multiple properly integrated client services when treating and supporting those with schizophrenia? A) People with schizophrenia often have unique needs that cannot be accommodated by a single service or by a few services. B) Implementing comprehensive community programs requires more resources than approaches that are less comprehensive. C) Comprehensive community approaches produce better outcomes for clients than other, less comprehensive approaches. D) Comprehensive community programs are better able to fill gaps in services that are present in less comprehensive community programs.
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148. If you went to a meeting of a group lobbying for better care for the mentally ill and made up primarily of family members of people with severe mental disorders, you would probably be attending: A) the National Alliance on Mental Illness. B) the Association for Citizens with Mental Illness. C) the Society for Social Workers and Case Managers. D) the Halfway House Paraprofessional Affiliates.
149. Research suggests that an effective treatment plan for schizophrenia should include: A) biological treatments but not psychological treatments. B) biological treatments but not sociocultural treatments. C) sociocultural treatments and psychological treatments only. D) biological treatments and psychological treatments.
150. Which of the following statements about the treatment of schizophrenia is LEAST supported by research? A) Antipsychotic drugs are important in treating schizophrenia, but psychotherapy and community programs are also essential. B) Community programs, when well-coordinated, can help those with schizophrenia increase their quality of life. C) The unique needs faced by those with schizophrenia often require a variety of treatment approaches as well as family support. D) Future breakthroughs in antipsychotic medication will reduce the need for other therapeutic approaches.
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Answer Key 1. C 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. C 7. A 8. C 9. C 10. D 11. A 12. D 13. B 14. A 15. B 16. C 17. B 18. B 19. A 20. D 21. C 22. C 23. B 24. C 25. A 26. A 27. C 28. A 29. D 30. C 31. D 32. A 33. C 34. D 35. A 36. C 37. A 38. C 39. B 40. C 41. B 42. C 43. C 44. C
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45. D 46. D 47. D 48. B 49. C 50. A 51. C 52. A 53. C 54. C 55. A 56. D 57. D 58. C 59. D 60. A 61. D 62. D 63. A 64. C 65. A 66. C 67. B 68. A 69. C 70. C 71. D 72. C 73. B 74. D 75. B 76. C 77. C 78. A 79. A 80. B 81. A 82. C 83. A 84. A 85. D 86. D 87. C 88. A 89. B 90. B
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91. D 92. B 93. C 94. C 95. C 96. B 97. D 98. A 99. B 100. C 101. A 102. D 103. C 104. B 105. D 106. D 107. B 108. B 109. C 110. D 111. A 112. C 113. A 114. A 115. A 116. B 117. B 118. A 119. A 120. D 121. C 122. A 123. D 124. B 125. B 126. D 127. C 128. A 129. B 130. A 131. C 132. B 133. C 134. B 135. C 136. B
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137. C 138. D 139. D 140. C 141. A 142. D 143. A 144. B 145. A 146. C 147. B 148. A 149. D 150. D
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1. Who received the Nobel Prize for research that led to the development of the lobotomy procedure? A) Walter Freeman B) Egas Moniz C) Phillipe Pinel D) Elliot Valenstein
2. As a result of institutionalization, many patients developed: A) severe depression. B) schizophrenia. C) social breakdown syndrome. D) diathesis-stress.
3. The premise of _____ is that institutions need to promote productive activity, self-respect, and individual responsibility. A) social treatment B) token economy programs C) milieu therapy D) rational-emotional-behavior therapy
4. The milieu therapy approach to treating schizophrenia is based on _____ principles. A) sociocultural B) psychodynamic C) cognitive-behavioral D) humanistic
5. The first mental asylum was founded in: A) Egypt. B) Greece. C) England. D) France.
6. Token economy programs relied on the systematic application of _____ techniques. A) operant conditioning B) classical conditioning C) social modeling D) cognitive restructuring
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7. The discovery of _____ revolutionized treatment for schizophrenia. A) milieu therapy B) antipsychotic drugs C) token economies D) leucotomy
8. The use of antipsychotic medication dates back to the 1940s, when _____ drugs were used to calm patients about to undergo surgery. A) beta blocking B) antihistamine C) anticholinergenic D) opioid
9. Conventional antipsychotic drugs are referred to as _____ drugs because of their undesirable movement-related side effects. A) dangerous B) controlled C) neuroleptic D) neuropsychotic
10. Which statement is supported by multiple research studies? A) Antipsychotic drugs reduce symptoms in the majority of patients with schizophrenia. B) Drugs are not as effective as milieu therapy in reducing symptoms in patients with schizophrenia. C) Electroconvulsive therapy is more effective than drugs in treating schizophrenia. D) Milieu therapy and token economies are more effective than drugs in treating schizophrenia.
11. A patient is taking an antipsychotic medication to treat schizophrenia. Which is NOT a known side effect of this drug? A) Parkinsonian-type symptoms B) Huntington's-type symptoms C) neuroleptic malignant syndrome D) tardive dyskinesia
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12. Antipsychotic drugs reduce psychotic symptoms, at least in part, because they block excessive activity of neurotransmitters at the brain's _____ receptors. A) dopamine D-2 B) GABA C) dopamine D-4 D) serotonin
13. Your patient is taking a first-generation antipsychotic medication to treat her schizophrenia but she is showing little improvement. What is an appropriate next step? A) Continue the medication but immediately start social therapy. B) Gradually increase the dosage until symptoms improve. C) Consider adding a second drug to create a synergistic effect. D) Switch to a different antipsychotic drug and simultaneously start the patient on a second additive drug.
14. A patient taking clozapine to treat his schizophrenia should be told that: A) any changes in appetite or weight should be reported to the doctor immediately. B) most patients who take clozapine develop problems related to speech and language. C) there is a very high risk of developing extrapyramidal symptoms, even at low dosages. D) ongoing blood testing will be required to monitor for early signs of agranulocytosis.
15. Of the few psychotherapists who treated patients with schizophrenia before the discovery of antipsychotic drugs, most believed that the first task of therapy was to: A) win the trust of patients and build a close relationship with them. B) get the patient to openly admit that their hallucinations were not real. C) challenge the delusions that so many patients held, so that they could treat the “real” person and not just the symptom. D) make family members understand that schizophrenia had no real cure and that only a modicum of improvement could or should be expected.
16. The _____ requires that people with mental disorders receive treatment in their communities rather than being transported to institutions far from home. A) Civil Rights Act B) Mental Health Insurance Parity Act C) Community Mental Health Act D) Deinstitutionalization Act of 1963
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17. After evaluating a patient, you determine that she does not require hospitalization but would benefit from daily supervision and therapy. You also believe she would benefit from training on social skills. Which type of community care would BEST meet the needs of this patient? A) day hospital B) halfway house C) sheltered workshop D) aftercare
18. Many people who are recovering from schizophrenia and other severe mental disorders receive occupational training in a(n) _____ workshop, which is a supervised workplace for individuals who are not ready to work independently in competitive or complicated jobs. A) assisted B) sheltered C) halfway D) probationary
19. Of all people with schizophrenia and other severe mental disorders, _____ percent do not receive any form of treatment. A) 2 to 5 B) 10 to 20 C) 25 to 35 D) 40 to 60
20. Most people with schizophrenia who live in poorly supervised or unsupervised settings survive on: A) family support. B) community support. C) support from religious institutions. D) government disability payments.
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Answer Key 1. B 2. C 3. C 4. D 5. A 6. A 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. A 11. B 12. A 13. C 14. D 15. A 16. C 17. A 18. B 19. D 20. D
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1. The move toward institutionalization of the mentally ill in hospitals rather than asylums began in: A) Belgium. B) the United States. C) France. D) Germany.
2. Today, psychosurgery is used only in severe cases of: A) schizophrenia. B) bipolar disorder. C) delusional disorder. D) obsessive-compulsive disorder and depression.
3. Research has shown that people with schizophrenia and other severe mental disorders receiving this type of therapy often improve and that they leave the hospital at higher rates than patients in programs that offer primarily custodial care. A) milieu therapy B) cognitive-behavioral therapy C) family therapy D) psychotherapy
4. Which criticism has NOT been made about token economy programs in the treatment of the mentally ill? A) The programs raise legal and ethical concerns. B) The quality of the improvement is questioned. C) There is no evidence of improvement as a result of these programs. D) Some of the studies used to laud the effectiveness of these programs were uncontrolled.
5. Hospitalized patients with schizophrenia are awarded points when they behave in a desired manner. Poor or unacceptable behavior is ignored. This reflects which approach to treatment? A) sheltered workshop B) social therapy C) milieu therapy D) token economy
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6. In most cases, antipsychotic drugs produce the maximum level of improvement within the first _____ of treatment. A) month B) week C) six months D) nine months
7. Which positive symptom of schizophrenia is most quickly reduced by taking antipsychotic medications? A) flat affect B) poverty of speech C) loss of volition D) hallucinations
8. In one study of patients who had been receiving antipsychotic medication for at least five years, _____ percent of them relapsed within a year when they were switched to a placebo. A) 75 B) 68 C) 40 D) 27
9. The first medication approved for sale in the United States as an antipsychotic was: A) Risperdal. B) Haldol. C) Thorazine. D) Zyprexa.
10. The Parkinsonian and related symptoms that may be a side effect of taking antipsychotic medications seem to be related to the reduction of _____ activity in the brain. A) serotonin B) GABA C) dopamine D) norepinephrine
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11. Jude is taking an antipsychotic medication and has developed muscle rigidity, fever, altered consciousness, and improper functioning of the autonomic nervous system. What condition is developing? A) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome B) Tardive dyskinesia C) Neurogenesis imperfecta D) Huntington's chorea
12. People who take _____ undergo periodic drug testing to monitor for agranulocytosis. A) haloperidol B) clozapine C) fluphenazine D) loxapine
13. Which is NOT mentioned as being a useful form of psychotherapy for people suffering from schizophrenia? A) insight therapy B) cognitive-behavioral therapy C) family therapy D) social therapy
14. Generally speaking, persons with schizophrenia who feel _____ toward their relatives do better in treatment. A) dependent B) apathetic C) detached D) positively
15. Posthospitalization follow-up care and treatment in the community is known as: A) acute care. B) aftercare. C) day care. D) halfway care.
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16. What do family support groups and family psychoeducational programs have in common? A) Family members of patients with schizophrenia are subjected to the same treatments as the patient so that they can understand what it is like to have the illness. B) Family members meet with others in the same situation to share thoughts and emotions, provide mutual support, and learn about schizophrenia. C) Family members are instructed to keep quiet while the patient with schizophrenia gives a presentation on his or her plan for recovery. D) Family members work collaboratively with therapists on ways to convince the patient with schizophrenia to voluntarily agree to long-term hospitalization.
17. How many people typically reside in a halfway house? A) between 12 and 24 B) between 4 and 6 C) 1 person at a time D) anywhere between 25 and 50
18. A growing number of community therapists have become _____ for people with schizophrenia and other severe mental disorders. A) social workers B) court advocates C) case managers D) psychologists
19. What percentage of people with schizophrenia are homeless? A) 5 B) 10 C) 20 D) 16
20. Which receives the LEAST amount of federal and state funds? A) social security disability income B) state hospitals C) community treatment programs for people with severe mental disorders D) services for people with mental disorders who live in nursing homes and general hospitals
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Answer Key 1. C 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. C 7. D 8. A 9. C 10. C 11. A 12. B 13. A 14. D 15. B 16. B 17. A 18. C 19. A 20. C
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Chapter 16
1. Distinguish between the components of personality and the components of personality disorder.
2. Describe the three clusters of personality disorders. What are the key differences among the three? 3. Compare and contrast the “odd” and the “dramatic” personality disorders, specifically noting how these disorders impact personal relationships.
4. Anton is diagnosed with an odd personality disorder. Reducing his distressing symptoms and improving his relationships would improve the quality of his life. Describe barriers to Anton's receiving helpful psychotherapy.
5. One of the most common and certainly most troubling of the personality disorders is antisocial personality disorder. Define antisocial personality disorder. Then outline other behavior patterns with which this disorder is associated. Finally, suggest a course of treatment for someone suffering from this disorder.
6. Outline the similarities and differences between antisocial and borderline personality disorder. In addition, discuss treatment options for both. Finally, discuss the reasons why these disorders are resistant to psychotherapy.
7. Compare the perspectives of a psychodynamic psychologist with those of a cognitive-behavioral psychologist. How would each explain the causes of histrionic and narcissistic personality disorder?
8. How does a person with narcissistic personality disorder differ from a young person who thinks highly of themselves and posts selfies online?
9. How might multicultural factors influence the development of borderline personality disorder?
10. What are some problems with using the DSM-5 to diagnose personality disorders? Explain two alternatives to DSM-5 diagnoses that are receiving research attention today.
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Answer Key 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
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1. The persistent and consistent personality characteristics that lead us to react in fairly predictable ways are often called personality _____.
2. If two disorders tend to occur together, we call the relationship _____.
3. Suspicion is a major symptom of _____ personality disorders.
4. People with _____ personality disorder distrust the motives of others.
5. Individuals who are detached and reclusive, with no interest in developing relationships, may experience _____ personality disorder.
6. The drugs MOST likely to be used to treat schizotypal personality disorder are _____.
7. Lev has a lifelong history of misconduct, including vandalism, fighting, and a disregard for other people's rights. He fits the description of someone with _____ personality disorder.
8. Impulsive behaviors and swinging in and out of depressed, anxious, and irritable states are characteristic of _____ personality disorder.
9. A person who was overly indulged by his or her parents, received excessive, unconditional parental valuation, and was not required to follow rules or develop self-control is at risk for developing _____ personality disorder.
10. Social anxiety disorder may be related to _____ personality disorder.
11. A person who cannot make even the smallest decision without consulting others, and who is constantly in need of praise, may be experiencing _____ personality disorder.
12. The characteristic of perfectionism and a striving for control are associated with _____ personality disorder.
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13. According to the psychodynamic view, obsessive-compulsive personality is related to fixation during the _____ stage.
14. Many clinicians favor moving from a categorical to a(n) _____ approach for diagnosis; this could be a possible change in the next edition of DSM.
15. Neuroticism, extroversion, openness to experience, agreeableness, and conscientiousness are all traits measured on the _____ approach.
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Answer Key 1. traits 2. comorbidity 3. odd 4. paranoid 5. schizoid 6. antipsychotics 7. antisocial 8. borderline 9. narcissistic 10. avoidant 11. dependent 12. obsessive-compulsive 13. anal 14. dimensional 15. Big Five
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1. The set of uniquely expressed characteristics that influence behaviors, emotions, thoughts, and interactions that is unique to each individual is termed: A) a trait. B) character. C) personality. D) individuality.
2. The consistencies of one's characteristics are called: A) inherited characteristics. B) learned responses. C) personality traits. D) personality typologies.
3. An enduring, rigid pattern of inner experience and outward behavior that impairs the sense of self, emotional experiences, goals, capacity for empathy, and/or capacity for intimacy is termed: A) personality. B) personality traits. C) personality characteristics. D) personality disorder.
4. How do personality disorders differ from the personality characteristics of typical people? A) They lead to more maladaptive, distressful, and inflexible behaviors. B) They include personality traits not experienced by typical people. C) They are generally treated successfully with antipsychotic medication. D) They are caused by epigenetic processes.
5. The MOST important similarity among the personality disorders listed in the text is that: A) disorders of thought, perception, and attention are present. B) the personality traits are limited to discrete periods of illness. C) they are inflexible, maladaptive, and related to impaired functioning or distress. D) they are social in that they involve an inability to form lasting relationships with other people.
6. DSM-5, like its predecessor, DSM-IV-TR, identifies 10 personality disorders utilizing a: A) systematical approach. B) categorical approach. C) dimensional approach. D) phrenological approach.
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7. The categorical approach to personality disorders assumes that: A) problematic personality traits are either present or absent. B) personality disorders are best understood on a continuum based on severity of symptoms. C) individuals can turn their symptoms off and on like a light switch. D) children as well as adults should be diagnosed with personality disorders.
8. Which is NOT a criticism of DSM-5 diagnoses of personality disorders? A) the reliability of the diagnosis B) the validity of the diagnosis C) distinguishing one personality disorder from another personality disorder D) incorporating new research into the new edition
9. One reason that the personality disorders are difficult to treat is that the afflicted individuals: A) enjoy their symptoms and do not seek change. B) are frequently unaware that they have a problem. C) experience no distress and do not want treatment. D) have accompanying mood disorders that must be treated first.
10. Comorbidity describes a situation in which: A) one disorder develops into another. B) one disorder automatically implies the other. C) two disorders occur together in an individual. D) the appearance of one disorder implies the disappearance of the one that preceded it.
11. Personality disorders are separated into how many clusters? A) two B) three C) five D) ten
12. Which is NOT the name used for a cluster of personality disorders? A) odd B) dramatic C) anxious D) chizophrenic
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13. What is a phrenologist? A) a person who assessed personality by feeling for bumps and indentations on the head B) a researcher who argued that personality disorders should not be categorized C) a therapist who treated personality disorders using didactic behavioral therapy D) a modern day psychoanalytical therapist
14. Based on a structured interview, Diagnostician A classifies an individual's personality disorder in the odd cluster. Based on another structured interview of the same type, Diagnostician B classifies an individual's personality disorder in the dramatic cluster. If what is described here is typical of what happens when that variety of structured interview is used, one would say the structured interview has: A) surface validity. B) construct validity. C) low reliability. D) high reliability.
15. The _____ approach to personality disorders assumes that personality disorders should be classified by the severity of personality traits rather than by the presence or absence of specific traits. A) dimensional B) categorical C) symptomatic D) cluster
16. DSM-5 has been described as functioning like a light switch, which can be on or off. In other words, one either does or does not qualify for a personality disorder diagnosis. Some theorists suggest that degree of symptoms, not symptom absence or presence, is more important and similar to a: A) flashlight, running on batteries. B) dimmer switch, with the light adjustable from all the way off to all the way on. C) candle, which may be blown out at any time. D) capacitor, which builds up a charge slowly then discharges it all at once.
17. The category of odd personality disorders includes the traits of: A) anxiousness and fearfulness. B) being overly dramatic, emotional, or erratic. C) inflexibility and total loss of contact with reality. D) extreme suspiciousness, social withdrawal, and cognitive and perceptual peculiarities.
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18. An individual with a diagnosis of an odd personality disorder is MOST likely to have a parent or sibling who has: A) bipolar disorder. B) schizophrenia. C) one of the paraphilias. D) alcoholism.
19. Which statement is supported by current research findings? A) Odd personality disorders cause schizophrenia. B) Odd personality disorders are caused by schizophrenia. C) Odd personality disorders and schizophrenia are related to one another. D) Odd personality disorders and schizophrenia are not related to one another.
20. Which is NOT considered an odd personality disorder? A) paranoid personality disorder B) schizoid personality disorder C) schizotypal personality disorder D) antisocial personality disorder
21. People with _____ personality disorder deeply distrust other people and are suspicious of others' motives. A) antisocial B) avoidant C) borderline D) paranoid
22. Reese is distrustful of others and reacts quickly to perceived threats. Even though he has no evidence, he is sure his wife is unfaithful. He finds it almost impossible to forgive those he thinks have wronged him. Reese displays the characteristics of: A) avoidant personality disorder. B) paranoid personality disorder. C) narcissistic personality disorder. D) obsessive-compulsive personality disorder.
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23. "It is clear that very demanding parents caused this person to develop paranoid personality disorder." This statement MOST likely would be made by someone from which theoretical perspective? A) cognitive-behavioral B) humanistic C) sociocultural D) psychodynamic
24. According to current research, who do people distrust most? A) bankers B) teachers C) doctors D) congressional members
25. A person experiencing paranoid personality disorder frequently says things like, "You've got to get them before they get you," and "People have been sinners since the Garden of Eden." If these sayings reflect maladaptive assumptions the person has about people in general, the theorist who would be LEAST surprised would have which theoretical position? A) cognitive-behavioral B) biological C) sociocultural D) psychodynamic
26. Which statement regarding the treatment of paranoid personality disorder is accurate? A) Drug therapy generally works best. B) Psychodynamic therapy involving hypnotic regression is often effective. C) Cognitive-behavioral therapy usually works well, and in relatively few sessions. D) Most therapies are of limited effectiveness and progress slowly.
27. People with _____ personality disorder persistently avoid and are removed from social relationships and demonstrate little in the way of emotion. A) antisocial B) avoidant C) borderline D) schizoid
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28. One similarity of those experiencing paranoid personality disorder and those experiencing schizoid personality disorder is that they both tend to: A) lack close ties to others. B) distrust others. C) be described by others as arrogant and angry. D) score poorly on typical intelligence tests.
29. The schizoid personality disorder differs from paranoid personality disorder in that: A) those with schizoid personality disorder seek close affiliations with others, while those with paranoid personality do not. B) paranoid personality disorder is treatable only through drug therapy; schizoid personality can be treated with psychotherapy. C) women are more likely to have schizoid personality disorder than paranoid personality disorder; the opposite is true for men. D) those with schizoid personality disorder desire to be alone; those with paranoid personality are alone because of suspiciousness.
30. Axl has always been a loner. He has never much cared for being with other people and does not form relationships easily. He appears to be without emotion. Axl may be exhibiting: A) schizoid personality disorder. B) paranoid personality disorder. C) histrionic personality disorder. D) narcissistic personality disorder.
31. The theorist who describes schizoid personality disorder as developing from coping with parental rejection by avoiding relationships represents the: A) cognitive-behavioral perspective. B) humanistic perspective. C) existential perspective. D) psychodynamic perspective.
32. The parents of those with schizoid personality disorder are MOST likely to have been: A) responsive. B) firm. C) unaccepting. D) available.
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33. A person who is LEAST likely to be affected by criticism or praise from other people is one suffering from: A) voidant personality disorder. B) schizoid personality disorder. C) paranoid personality disorder. D) obsessive-compulsive personality disorder.
34. An individual diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder reports having a great deal of difficulty figuring out how others feel and as a child had difficulty developing adequate language skills. These findings would make the MOST sense to a theorist with which background? A) psychodynamic B) sociocultural C) cognitive-behavioral D) biological
35. Cognitive-behavioral theorists believe that because those with schizoid personalities have difficulty scanning the environment, perceiving accurately, and picking up emotional cues, they develop _____ very slowly. A) language and motor skills B) secondary sex characteristics C) allergies and other medical problems D) thinking disorders
36. There is a game called Moods where one acts out the mood listed on a card. Being encouraged to play this game is most like the treatment _____ might use for those with schizoid disorders. A) psychoanalytic therapists B) cognitive therapists C) behavioral therapists D) biological therapists
37. The type of therapy that generally provides the LEAST amount of help for those with schizoid personality disorder is: A) family systems. B) drug. C) cognitive-behavioral. D) psychodynamic.
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38. People with _____ personality disorder display a range of interpersonal problems marked by extreme discomfort in close relationships, very odd patterns of thinking and perceiving, and behavioral eccentricities A) antisocial B) avoidant C) schizotypal D) schizoid
39. A belief that unrelated events pertain to oneself in some important way is known as: A) bodily illusions. B) ideas of reference. C) passive-aggressive disorder. D) backward masking.
40. Digressive and vague language with loose associations accompanied by attention and concentration problems are characteristic of: A) schizoid personality disorder. B) avoidant personality disorder. C) paranoid personality disorder. D) schizotypal personality disorder.
41. Schizotypal personality disorders differ from other odd personality disorders in that they are related to schizophrenia and: A) stress disorders. B) mood disorders. C) anxiety disorders. D) intellectual disorders.
42. When Selina sees a report of a train wreck on television, she thinks that it is a sign that she should not take the train to work the next day and so decides to take the bus instead. If she has a diagnosable personality disorder, it is MOST likely: A) schizoid personality disorder. B) avoidant personality disorder. C) paranoid personality disorder. D) schizotypal personality disorder.
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43. The disorder that appears to be MOST closely related to the schizotypal personality disorder is: A) anxiety. B) schizophrenia. C) obsessive-compulsive disorder. D) narcissistic personality disorder.
44. A person who does poorly on a task called backward masking is MOST likely to be experiencing: A) schizoid personality disorder. B) paranoid personality disorder. C) borderline personality disorder. D) schizotypal personality disorder.
45. A patient has enlarged brain ventricles and a measurable loss of gray matter. These symptoms are: A) psychoneuroimmunological, and the most likely diagnosis is schizotypal personality disorder. B) psychoneuroimmunological, and the most likely diagnosis is antisocial personality disorder. C) biological, and the most likely diagnosis is schizotypal personality disorder. D) biological, and the most likely diagnosis is antisocial personality disorder.
46. Characteristics of the Virginia Tech shooter reveal that he: A) fit the diagnostic category of histrionic personality disorder. B) displayed a combination of features from many personality disorders. C) did not fit any of the personality disorders. D) did not appear to have a mental disorder.
47. As part of their therapy, clients learn to evaluate their unusual thoughts, track the accuracy of magical predictions, and reconnect with the world and with their limitations. The diagnoses of these clients would MOST likely be in which broad category of personality disorder? A) dependent B) dramatic C) anxious D) odd
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48. Should drugs be used in the treatment of schizotypal personality disorder? A) Maybe; in low doses, they seem to help some clients. B) Maybe; in high doses, they seem to help some clients. C) Yes; in low doses, they seem to help practically all clients. D) Yes; in high doses, they seem to help practically all clients.
49. Which category of personality disorder contains the disorders MOST commonly diagnosed? A) odd B) dramatic C) anxious D) strange
50. Which personality disorder is marked by a general pattern of disregard for, and violation of, other people's rights? A) borderline B) antisocial C) histrionic D) narcissistic
51. An adult has been jailed for the third time for fraud; each time it has been for persuading investors to put money into a phony silver mine. If the adult has received a DSM-5 diagnosis, it is MOST likely either: A) schizotypal personality disorder or a stress disorder. B) schizotypal personality disorder or a substance-related disorder. C) antisocial personality disorder or a stress disorder. D) antisocial personality disorder or a substance-related disorder.
52. A friend of yours says, "A 15-year-old high school student accused of shooting several classmates received a diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder." Your accurate reply would be: A) "Yes, that kind of behavior often is associated with that diagnosis." B) "I don't think so; those with that diagnosis seldom engage in criminal activity." C) "Yes, and I'll bet that wasn't the only diagnosis, either." D) "No, the student is too young for that diagnosis."
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53. Cruelty to animals and people, destruction of property, and truancy before the age of 15: A) may be best diagnosed as antisocial personality disorder. B) are characteristic of those later diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder. C) predict later antisocial disorder with virtual certainty. D) seem unrelated to antisocial personality disorder.
54. Ben set up an elaborate scheme to mine gold in the Rockies. He had a large town meeting and sold stock in his company for only $5 per share. He showed pictures of the mine and said the company expected to gross $100 million each month. As it turns out, he was a terrific con artist who had made several successful proposals such as this in towns across America in the last couple of years. He is MOST likely suffering from: A) paranoid personality disorder. B) antisocial personality disorder. C) narcissistic personality disorder. D) obsessive-compulsive personality disorder.
55. Which trait is common in people with antisocial personality disorder? A) recklessness B) anxiety C) self-consciousness D) shyness
56. Which statement is NOT generally true of those with antisocial personality disorder? A) They lie frequently. B) They are careless with money and often do not pay their debts. C) They care for no one's safety, except theirs and their children's. D) They have little regard for their own safety or the safety of others.
57. Hailee respects none of society's boundaries and is insensitive to other people, frequently violating their rights. She does not consider the consequences of her actions. She MOST probably experiences: A) schizoid personality disorder. B) antisocial personality disorder. C) histrionic personality disorder. D) schizotypal personality disorder.
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58. A friend says to you, "He must have antisocial personality disorder; look how careful he is about his own well-being but how careless he is about others' safety." Your MOST accurate reply would be: A) "You're right; those are classic characteristics of antisocial personality disorder." B) "You're partly right; most people with antisocial personality disorder are careful about the safety of family members." C) "You're partly right; most people with antisocial personality disorder are careless about their own safety, as well as the safety of others." D) "You've got it backward; most people with antisocial personality disorder are careless of their own safety but show at least some concern for others' safety."
59. If you wanted to write a book about a fictional character who is a typical example of antisocial personality disorder, you might have the character exhibit all of the following EXCEPT: A) incessant lying. B) periods of very high anxiety. C) persistent violation of others' rights. D) lack of conscience after committing crimes.
60. The strong relationship between antisocial personality disorder and substance abuse means that: A) substance abuse causes individuals to develop antisocial personality disorder. B) antisocial personality disorder causes individuals to abuse substances. C) there are high rates of substance abuse among those with antisocial personality disorder. D) if individuals stop abusing substances, their antisocial personality disorder will be cured.
61. The two childhood disorders that have been related to later antisocial personality disorder are: A) depression and withdrawal. B) schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. C) mental retardation. D) conduct disorder and attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.
62. What is a pseudocommando mass murderer? A) a person who uses firearms while committing mass murder B) a person who expects to be killed while committing mass murder C) a person who forces others to engage in mass murder D) a member of the military in a noncombat zone
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63. Which is characteristic of MOST mass murderers? A) a diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder B) previous imprisonment C) feelings of persecution and desire for revenge D) being under the influence of illegal substances while killing
64. Which statement BEST represents current knowledge about mass murderers? A) The mental health field has a clear understanding of what causes mass murderers to behave as they do. B) We really don't know what causes mass murderers to act or how to treat them. C) We know how to treat mass murderers effectively; we just don't have the funds to offer treatment to all who need it. D) The focus of the field is more on the feelings of mass murderers than on their diagnoses.
65. The absence of parental love results in emotional detachment and the use of power to form relationships. This is most likely believed by _____ therapists. A) cognitive-behavioral B) biological C) humanistic D) psychodynamic
66. The fact that children may learn antisocial behavior by modeling parental conflict and aggressiveness provides support for: A) psychodynamic theory. B) behavioral theory. C) both psychodynamic and behavioral theories. D) neither psychodynamic nor behavioral theories.
67. A young boy's parents constantly tell him to "Be a man!" whenever he is in conflict with friends. In turn, his parents themselves often act aggressively toward each other and toward him. The theorist who would BEST be able to explain an adult diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder for this boy would be a _____ theorist. A) behavioral B) humanistic C) biological D) psychodynamic
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68. Giving in to a child's refusal to comply with a parental request may inadvertently reinforce stubborn and defiant behavior, setting the scene for the development of antisocial personality disorder. This is most like a _____ view. A) cognitive B) biological C) behavioral D) psychodynamic
69. Biologically speaking, if one wanted to treat antisocial personality disorder, one would want to _____ the individual with the disorder. A) reduce the degree of interpersonal sensitivity in B) identify those who are modeling antisocial personality disorder for C) increase the anxiety level of D) decrease the rewards available for the antisocial behavior in
70. Assume a study of prison inmates diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder shows that they generally experience less anxiety than other people when they lie or when they con others. This outcome would MOST strongly support which theoretical position? A) sociocultural B) psychodynamic C) cognitive-behavioral D) biological
71. Which statement is accurate regarding antisocial personality disorder? A) Most who have it are not treated, and most who are treated are not helped much. B) Most who have it are not treated, but most who are treated are helped substantially. C) Most who have it are treated, but most who are treated are not helped much. D) Most who have it are treated, and most who are treated are helped substantially.
72. People with _____ personality disorder are emotionally unstable, impulsive, and reckless. A) borderline B) schizotypal C) obsessive-compulsive D) avoidant
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73. Janna says "There's nothing out there for me. I can't stand other people, and I can't stand myself, either. I'm just really mad right now." She likely has which personality disorder? A) borderline B) antisocial C) narcissistic D) paranoid
74. "That personality disorder has become so common, I encounter it almost every day in the emergency room." MOST likely, this doctor is talking about which personality disorder? A) borderline B) antisocial C) schizoid D) avoidant
75. Camila felt like she was on an emotional roller coaster. She felt angry and empty. Camila's feelings are MOST similar to those of someone with which personality disorder? A) obsessive-compulsive B) narcissistic C) borderline D) antisocial
76. What is a common reason for the hospitalization of people with borderline personality disorder? A) They may attempt suicide or otherwise hurt themselves. B) They finally cannot care for themselves. C) They voluntarily ask for hospitalization, out of desperation. D) They are so afraid of leaving their homes that they suffer social paralysis.
77. Transported to the hospital after a suicide attempt, a man is later admitted to the hospital's psychiatric wing. His history showed other self-destructive behaviors and recklessness. MOST likely, if the man is diagnosed with a personality disorder, it will be: A) paranoid. B) avoidant. C) narcissistic. D) borderline.
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78. Studies of those diagnosed with borderline personality disorder show that: A) fewer than half attempt suicide at least once in their lives. B) fewer than half attempt suicide at least once in their lives, and more than 5 percent succeed. C) more than half attempt suicide at least once in their lives, and almost none succeed. D) about 75 percent attempt suicide at least once in their lives.
79. A therapist treating a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder came up with the following analysis: the parents probably did not want children in the first place; the child just was not accepted; the child developed low self-esteem, dependency, and an inability to cope with separation. The therapist's theoretical orientation is MOST likely: A) existential. B) biological. C) object relations theory. D) cognitive-behavioral theory.
80. Gort's parents never quite liked him and probably did not want children in the first place. He just was not accepted. It was clear early in school that Gort had a low opinion of himself and did not know how to interact with other children. Now he cuts himself and has been to the ER several times. This is a description of the possible development of: A) histrionic personality disorder. B) avoidant personality disorder. C) schizoid personality disorder. D) borderline personality disorder.
81. Damage to the prefrontal cortex would likely cause which symptom to be observed? A) fear and other negative emotions B) a thought disorder C) odd but imaginative language D) deficits in planning, self-control, and decision making
82. Which have sociocultural theorists suggested as a cause for the emergence of borderline personality disorder? A) rapid social change B) traditional family structures C) clinging and dependent parents D) nontraditional family structures
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83. Which would MOST clearly fit into the biosocial theory of the development of borderline personality disorder? A) an individual who has deficits in the functioning of both the amygdala and the prefrontal cortex B) an individual who has family members who display many of the symptoms of borderline personality disorder C) an individual who engages in self-injurious behavior while under the influence of illegal substances D) an individual who has difficulty controlling internal emotions and parents who mislabel those emotions
84. The inability to accurately interpret one's internal biological emotional or physiological states is characteristic of both: A) schizophrenia and schizoid personality disorder. B) a mass murderer and self-injurious behavior. C) odd and dramatic personality disorders. D) borderline personality disorder and eating disorders.
85. Studies report that approximately 12 percent of adults have trouble controlling their anger. Theorists of which perspective would be MOST interested in this as it relates to borderline personality disorder? A) psychodynamic B) biosocial C) biological D) humanistic
86. "I can't work with that client!" says your friend, the psychotherapist. "As soon as I show any empathy at all, it becomes almost impossible to challenge the client, and the client keeps calling me at all hours of the day." MOST likely, this is a client with: A) borderline personality disorder. B) antisocial personality disorder. C) obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. D) schizotypal personality disorder.
87. What is the name of the comprehensive treatment approach applied particularly in cases of borderline personality disorder and/or suicidal intent? A) psychoanalysis B) social skills training C) multicultural influences education D) dialectical behavioral training
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88. What is mentalization? A) psychoanalysis B) social skills training and other therapy that improves symptoms C) a form of inpatient hospitalization D) the capacity to understand one's own mental states and those of other people
89. Dr. Marsha Linehan was the developer of which type of therapy? A) cognitive-behavioral therapy B) dialectical behavior therapy C) mentalization D) group therapy
90. Which statement BEST describes effective therapy for treating borderline personality disorder? A) There is no effective therapy for borderline personality disorder. B) When using the psychodynamic approach, avoid relational therapy. C) Using drugs is a safe, effective way to treat the disorder. D) Research suggests that dialectical behavior therapy is the most effective.
91. When dialectical behavior therapy is used with patients with borderline personality disorder, those patients, compared with patients receiving other forms of therapy, make: A) far fewer suicide attempts and are hospitalized less often. B) far fewer suicide attempts but are hospitalized about as often. C) about the same number of suicide attempts but are hospitalized less often. D) about the same number of suicide attempts and are hospitalized about as often.
92. Jonah is receiving weekly individual and group therapy for borderline personality disorder. He is learning to recognize when his emotions are inappropriate. He is receiving: A) traditional cognitive-behavioral therapy. B) Gestalt therapy. C) dialectical behavioral therapy. D) humanistic therapy.
93. Which does dialectical behavior therapy NOT emphasize? A) social skills training B) mindfulness meditation (a Zen technique involving observing one's emotions) C) the client-therapist relationship D) the use of antipsychotic medications in an outpatient setting
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94. What is the MOST likely reason that Dr. Hoover seldom prescribes drugs when treating clients with borderline personality disorder? A) The risk of suicide increases because using drugs may lead to overdose. B) In most cases, drugs seem to make aggressiveness even worse. C) In most cases, drugs seem to make emotional outbursts even more extreme. D) The therapist is unaware that drugs are always used in combination with dialectical behavior therapy, the most effective therapy for those with borderline personality disorder.
95. A client is searching for the BEST treatment for borderline personality disorder. Will drug treatment be effective if it is the only intervention the client receives? A) Yes. Drugs alone work at least as well as drugs plus psychotherapy and are less expensive. B) Yes. Drugs alone work at least as well as drugs plus psychotherapy but are expensive. C) It might work, but only if the client is not suicidal. D) No. Drugs should be used along with psychotherapy, if used at all.
96. People with _____ personality disorder are extremely emotional and seek to be the center of attention. A) antisocial B) histrionic C) schizoid D) schizotypal
97. "Beatlemania" gripped the United States in the 1960s, when the British rock group The Beatles performed; adoring fans screamed, sometimes fainted, and shouted exaggerated, emotional praise at the group. These behaviors MOST closely resemble the characteristics of: A) histrionic personality disorder. B) antisocial personality disorder. C) schizoid personality disorder. D) narcissistic personality disorder.
98. When the seat belt light in D.B.'s car stays on for a few extra seconds, she bursts into tears. She always craves attention and reacts to even the smallest event with an elaborate show of emotion. She probably could receive a diagnosis of: A) obsessive personality disorder. B) antisocial personality disorder. C) histrionic personality disorder. D) narcissistic personality disorder.
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99. Luke constantly strives to be the center of attention, yet the ideas he so eloquently expresses are usually shallow and changeable. If he were diagnosed with a personality disorder, it MOST likely would be: A) histrionic. B) borderline. C) antisocial. D) obsessive-compulsive.
100. Histrionic personality disorder was once believed to be more common in women than in men, and clinicians long described the: A) emotional child. B) sensitive girl. C) hysterical wife. D) attention-craved woman.
101. "The problem is that they assume they can't take care of themselves, so they think others have to meet their needs. This pattern of thinking is not very helpful in trying to deal with histrionic personality disorder." A psychologist from which perspective would agree MOST strongly with this quote? A) biological B) sociocultural C) cognitive-behavioral D) object relations
102. The type of therapist MOST likely to try to help people diagnosed with histrionic personality disorder to believe they are not helpless, and to teach them better thinking skills, is a _____ therapist. A) psychodynamic B) cognitive-behavioral C) sociocultural D) existential
103. The personality disorder that is characterized by the need for undying love and admiration is: A) borderline. B) histrionic. C) narcissistic. D) schizotypal.
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104. "I am the greatest!" a famous boxer declared loudly and often. Had he in fact acted throughout his adult life as though he were the greatest, the MOST appropriate diagnosis would be: A) histrionic personality disorder. B) narcissistic personality disorder. C) antisocial personality disorder. D) impulse-control personality disorder.
105. Ty is fairly handsome but not as handsome as he thinks he is. He doesn't care about anyone but himself and is sure that everyone around him feels the same way. He is MOST likely experiencing: A) schizoid personality disorder. B) narcissistic personality disorder. C) schizotypal personality disorder. D) obsessive-compulsive personality disorder.
106. What character from Greek mythology died enraptured by the beauty of his/her own reflection in a pool? A) Narcissus B) Zeus C) Athena D) Thor
107. The millennial generation is thought to be extremely self-centered, often posting photos of themselves online for others to admire. If this is true, a sociocultural theorist would predict a larger-than-usual percentage of which kind of personality disorder among this generation? A) narcissistic B) antisocial C) obsessive-compulsive D) dependent
108. Cognitive-behavioral theorists propose that people who develop narcissistic personality disorder may have been treated: A) too positively in early life. B) too negatively in early life. C) either too positively or too negatively in early life. D) ambiguously and neglectfully in early life.
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109. You might suspect an "era of narcissism" is approaching for a country when: A) there is increasing emphasis on self-expression and competitiveness. B) preferences in women's and men's clothing undergo substantial shifts. C) there is a decline in materialism and individualism. D) the sale of inspirational DVDs, books, and tapes suddenly increases.
110. Which statement BEST describes treatment for narcissistic personality disorder? A) Cognitive-behavioral therapy works best. B) Family therapy works best. C) Psychodynamic therapy works best. D) No form of therapy is clearly better than the others.
111. A client is initially very resistant to therapy, cannot acknowledge weaknesses, and ignores feedback. MOST likely, the client is experiencing: A) schizoid personality disorder and will not make much progress in therapy. B) schizoid personality disorder and will make a great deal of progress in therapy. C) narcissistic personality disorder and will not make much progress in therapy. D) narcissistic personality disorder and will make a great deal of progress in therapy.
112. Like those with paranoid personality disorder, those with avoidant personality disorder usually: A) are very sensitive to criticism. B) avoid close relationships. C) are very sensitive to criticism and avoid close relationships. D) are indifferent to criticism and seek out close relationships.
113. _____ is characterized by difficulty establishing social ties, discomfort in social situations, and fear of being embarrassed or appearing foolish. A) Paranoid personality disorder B) Avoidant personality disorder C) Histrionic personality disorder D) Narcissistic personality disorder
114. Which statement is true regarding gender differences related to avoidant personality disorder? A) This condition is almost exclusively seen in men. B) This condition is significantly more common in men. C) This condition occurs more frequently in women. D) Both men and women are affected equally.
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115. Avoidant personality disorder seems MOST closely related to: A) schizophrenia. B) social anxiety. C) mania. D) eating disorders.
116. If a person primarily fears close social relationships, one would MOST likely conclude that the person is experiencing: A) social phobia. B) avoidant personality disorder. C) both social phobia and avoidance personality disorder. D) a personality disorder from the dramatic cluster.
117. According to psychodynamic theorists, an important factor in the development of avoidant personality disorder is: A) an early sense of guilt. B) early experiences of shame. C) lack of development of trust. D) an inability to express anger.
118. A client being treated for avoidant personality disorder must increase the number of social contacts per day. The person, at the least, must greet others with the sentence, "Hello; how are you doing?" MOST likely, the therapist has which theoretical background? A) psychodynamic B) biological C) cognitive-behavioral D) sociocultural
119. Group therapy is particularly useful in the treatment of avoidant personality disorder, mainly because group therapy: A) allows those in the group to see that others have avoidant personality disorder, too. B) involves an eclectic combination of theoretical approaches. C) provides practice in social interactions. D) requires attendance at therapy sessions.
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120. Cognitive-behavioral therapy for avoidant personality disorder focuses on: A) providing practice in social behaviors in a group setting. B) changing distressing thoughts and increasing the client's tolerance of emotional discomfort. C) providing social skills training and exposure treatment that requires clients to gradually increase their social contacts. D) helping clients uncover the origins of their symptoms and resolve the unconscious conflicts that may be operating.
121. Which disorder is characterized by an excessive need to be taken care of and a fear of separation? A) paranoid personality disorder B) histrionic personality disorder C) dependent personality disorder D) narcissistic personality disorder
122. People with avoidant personality disorder have difficulty _____ relationships, whereas people with dependent personality disorder have difficulty _____ relationships. A) initiating; ending B) ending; initiating C) ending; maintaining D) seeking; initiating
123. A high school student asks a guidance counselor, parents, and friends for suggestions before deciding on a college to attend and on an academic major. This student's behavior is: A) typical of those with dependent personality disorder. B) typical of those who will develop dependent personality disorder. C) normal for those in high school. D) reflective of an anxiety disorder, not of dependent personality disorder.
124. What percentage of the population has dependent personality disorder? A) less than one percent B) five percent C) 10 percent D) 15 percent
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125. If parents excessively reinforce clinging and punish attempts at independence, the result might be the development of: A) paranoid personality disorder. B) borderline personality disorder. C) dependent personality disorder. D) narcissistic personality disorder.
126. A child who is severely criticized for acting independently, and who is praised for doing exactly what parents say to do, later develops dependent personality disorder. The therapist who would be LEAST surprised by this outcome would have which theoretical orientation? A) sociocultural B) cognitive-behavioral C) humanistic D) psychodynamic
127. "Be loyal to your family" was what the child heard all the time, along with, "You shouldn't and can't do it on your own, so don't even try." A cognitive-behaviorist would say this kind of upbringing would be MOST likely to produce which of the personality disorders in the child, when he or she reached adulthood? A) narcissistic B) antisocial C) avoidant D) dependent
128. "Group therapy is a good option for those with dependent personality disorder; they'll be able to observe others' coping skills and model them." This statement would MOST likely be made by a therapist having which theoretical perspective? A) psychodynamic B) cognitive-behavioral C) sociocultural D) biological
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129. One especially good reason to use a form of group therapy in the treatment of dependent personality disorder is that: A) the therapist can still control the group, because the participants are so dependent. B) the group members will see how maladaptive the dependent behavior is when they observe it in the other group members. C) the group members can model appropriate behaviors and expression of feelings to one another. D) the group members tend to see the role as patient as inferior when in treatment individually.
130. People with _____ are so preoccupied with order, perfection, and control that they lose all flexibility, openness, and efficiency. A) dependent personality disorder B) borderline personality disorder C) avoidant personality disorder D) obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
131. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is MOST common among: A) unemployed women. B) women with jobs. C) unemployed men. D) men with jobs.
132. Which statement is true regarding the relationship between obsessive-compulsive disorder (an anxiety disorder) and obsessive-compulsive personality disorder? A) You cannot suffer from both of them at the same time. B) Some people with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder also experience obsessive-compulsive disorder. C) The most likely disorder comorbid with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is obsessive-compulsive disorder. D) The two obsessive-compulsive disorders are comorbid over half the time.
133. Psychodynamic theorists explain obsessive-compulsive personality disorder as a fixation at the: A) oral stage. B) anal stage. C) phallic stage. D) genital stage.
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134. "It is obvious that this case of obsessive-compulsive personality disorder arises from an early childhood fixation." Which type of psychologist would MOST likely have made that statement? A) humanistic B) cognitive-behavioral C) sociocultural D) psychodynamic
135. With the help of a therapist, a client with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder has experienced a dramatic decrease in both dichotomous thinking and worrying. The client's behavior is: A) common; most with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder seek help, and this person is most likely receiving cognitive therapy. B) common; most with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder seek help, and this person is most likely receiving psychodynamic therapy. C) uncommon; most with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder do not seek help, and this person is most likely receiving cognitive therapy. D) uncommon; most with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder do not seek help, and this person is most likely receiving psychodynamic therapy.
136. Which statement is true regarding effective treatment for obsessive-compulsive personality disorder? A) Affected men tend to respond better to cognitive-behavioral therapy, whereas women respond better to psychodynamic therapy. B) For most individuals, psychodynamic therapy has been shown to be more effective than cognitive-behavioral therapy. C) Affected individuals commonly respond well to either psychodynamic or cognitive-behavioral therapy. D) Drug therapy is the first line of treatment, followed closely by cognitive-behavioral therapy.
137. Some researchers note that the majority of those diagnosed with borderline personality disorder are female and that many of these women experienced emotional trauma, victimization, violence, and various forms of abuse as children. As a result, these researchers view the disorder as a special form of: A) anxiety disorder. B) obsessive-compulsive disorder. C) postpartum psychosis. D) posttraumatic stress disorder.
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138. The lack of multicultural research is of special concern with regard to: A) paranoid personality disorder. B) antisocial personality disorder. C) borderline personality disorder. D) obsessive-compulsive personality disorder.
139. According to the DSM-5, a pattern diagnosed as a personality disorder must deviate substantially from the norms and expectations of the individual's: A) family. B) culture. C) community. D) racial group.
140. Some multicultural theorists believe that borderline personality disorder is actually a reaction to persistent feelings of marginality, powerlessness, and social failure. If they are correct, then the disorder is a result of: A) psychological factors. B) social inequalities. C) biological factors. D) childhood abuse.
141. Research has found that borderline personality disorder is more common among: A) Hispanic Americans. B) non-Hispanic white Americans. C) African Americans. D) Asian Americans.
142. A group of diagnostic clinicians can't agree with each other on appropriate personality disorder diagnoses for several clients. In fact, it is obvious that, in many cases, they have inaccurately made their diagnoses. Assuming they are competent clinicians, this situation would indicate the DSM-5 categories for personality disorder are: A) both reliable and valid. B) neither reliable nor valid. C) reliable, but not valid. D) not reliable, but valid.
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143. Which is NOT a problem in the use of the DSM-5 to diagnose personality disorders? A) The criteria are so restrictive that several categories rarely, if ever, are used. B) People who act very differently may require the same diagnosis. C) There is considerable overlap of symptoms across many categories. D) Sometimes the diagnostician must try to figure out why a person does something.
144. Which statement most accurately reflects up-to-date research on DSM-5 categories of personality disorder? A) Diagnostic criteria for personality disorders have remained very consistent for many years. B) Passive-aggressive personality disorder remains the personality disorder easiest to diagnose and treat. C) Individuals do not necessarily have to have very similar personalities to receive the same diagnosis. D) Personality disorder clusters are quite distinct from one another.
145. What is the dark triad? A) traits that are present in the prison population B) the three personality clusters C) malicious traits that work together to produce offensive behavior D) personality disorder clusters that are quite distinct from one another
146. Who is most likely to display the dark triad? A) an African American woman B) a non-Hispanic white woman C) a non-Hispanic white man D) a Hispanic man
147. "Let's try to figure out where clients fall on several key personality traits, rather than using a dichotomous classification system." Someone saying this would MOST likely favor which approach to classifying personality disorders? A) the traditional DSM-5 approach B) a psychodynamic approach C) a cognitive-behavioral approach D) a dimensional approach
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148. Which is NOT one of the Big Five supertraits? A) anger B) neuroticism C) extraversion D) openness to experience
149. "The client scores low on extroversion and agreeableness but high on neuroticism. Looks like schizoid personality disorder to me." The therapist being quoted is using what instrument to make the diagnosis? A) the Big Five personality test B) supertrait theory C) a 200-statement test, with each statement rated on a 1-to-7 scale D) a dichotomizing test
150. If instruments such as the Big Five are used to describe personality, rather than relying on DSM-5, then diagnoses of psychological disorder would become: A) more categorical as well as more a matter of degree. B) more categorical and less a matter of degree. C) less categorical and more a matter of degree. D) less categorical as well as less a matter of degree.
151. Currently, the Big Five approach to personality disorders is: A) the recipient of recognition, with a great amount of research being done on it. B) the focus of no research at all. C) the focus of a great amount of research, but there are no important results. D) the focus of a small amount of research, but there are no important results.
152. The authors of DSM-5 have designed their own dimensional approach in diagnosing personality disorders for possible inclusion in future revisions of the DSM. The idea is that individuals whose traits significantly impair their functioning should receive a diagnosis of: A) psychoticism disorder. B) personality disorder trait specified. C) negative affectivity disorder. D) detachment disorder.
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153. The five traits to be included in future revisions of the DSM-5 that utilize a dimensional approach in diagnosing personality disorders are: A) conscientiousness, negative affectivity, detachment, antagonism, disinhibition. B) disinhibition, psychoticism, antagonism, agreeableness, extroversion. C) negative affectivity, detachment, antagonism, disinhibition, psychoticism. D) detachment, extroversion, neuroticism, antagonism, conscientiousness.
154. If future editions of the DSM change to a dimensional approach in the diagnosis of personality disorders, what action will be required of clinicians? A) They will not have do anything differently than they are doing now in diagnosing personality disorders. B) They will have to observe the criteria for diagnoses directly. C) They will need to rate the degree of dysfunction caused by each person's traits in diagnosing personality disorders. D) They will have to utilize categories versus a dimensional approach in diagnosing personality disorders.
155. Which statement BEST reflects research related to personality disorders over the past 25 years? A) Serious interest in personality and personality disorders has rebounded. B) Research strongly supports the idea that certain rigid personality traits pose no problems. C) All of the personality disorders have been thoroughly studied. D) Psychologists have agreed on the most effective way to diagnose and treat personality disorders.
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Answer Key 1. C 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. C 11. B 12. D 13. A 14. C 15. A 16. B 17. D 18. B 19. C 20. D 21. D 22. B 23. D 24. D 25. A 26. D 27. D 28. A 29. D 30. A 31. D 32. C 33. B 34. C 35. A 36. B 37. B 38. C 39. B 40. D 41. B 42. D 43. B 44. D
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45. C 46. B 47. D 48. A 49. B 50. B 51. D 52. D 53. B 54. B 55. A 56. C 57. B 58. C 59. B 60. C 61. D 62. B 63. C 64. B 65. D 66. B 67. A 68. C 69. C 70. D 71. A 72. A 73. A 74. A 75. C 76. A 77. D 78. D 79. C 80. D 81. D 82. A 83. D 84. D 85. B 86. A 87. D 88. D 89. B 90. D
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91. A 92. C 93. D 94. A 95. D 96. B 97. A 98. C 99. A 100. C 101. C 102. B 103. C 104. B 105. B 106. A 107. A 108. A 109. A 110. D 111. C 112. C 113. B 114. D 115. B 116. B 117. B 118. C 119. C 120. B 121. C 122. A 123. C 124. A 125. C 126. B 127. D 128. B 129. C 130. D 131. D 132. B 133. B 134. D 135. C 136. C
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137. D 138. C 139. B 140. B 141. A 142. B 143. A 144. C 145. C 146. C 147. D 148. A 149. A 150. C 151. A 152. B 153. C 154. C 155. C
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1. An enduring, rigid pattern of inner experience and outward behavior that impairs the sense of self, emotional experiences, goals, capacity for empathy, and/or capacity for intimacy is known as a: A) character flaw. B) character disorder. C) personality disorder. D) schizoaffective disorder.
2. The lack of consensus about the correct diagnosis of personality disorders questions the _____ of the DSM categories. A) validity and interrater opinion B) reliability and interrater opinion C) interrater opinion and select agreement D) validity and reliability
3. Which is NOT a description of the three clusters of DSM-5 personality disorders? A) odd or eccentric behavior B) dramatic behavior C) high degree of anxiety D) high degree of learned helplessness
4. Which is NOT an area the DSM-5 lists as required to be affected by a personality disorder? A) intelligence B) cognition C) social interactions D) impulsivity 5. The cluster of “dramatic” personality disorders includes: A) antisocial, avoidant, and paranoid. B) paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal. C) antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic. D) avoidant, dependent, and obsessive-compulsive. 6. The “odd” cluster of personality disorders consists of which personality disorders? A) antisocial, avoidant, and paranoid. B) paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal. C) antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic. D) avoidant, dependent, and obsessive-compulsive.
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7. Lacie has recently been diagnosed with an “odd” personality disorder. It is likely that Lacie also qualifies for an additional diagnosis of: A) schizophrenia. B) depression. C) obsessive-compulsive disorder. D) mental retardation.
8. What is the primary distinction between the beliefs of someone with paranoid personality disorder and someone with paranoid schizophrenia? A) The beliefs of someone with paranoid personality disorder are usually delusional, whereas the beliefs of someone with paranoid schizophrenia are not. B) The beliefs of someone with paranoid personality disorder are not usually delusional, whereas the beliefs of someone with paranoid schizophrenia are. C) Both individuals will suffer from delusions, but only those with paranoid schizophrenia will suffer from bizarre delusions. D) The beliefs of both individuals are based on real encounters with others and are accurate perceptions of the real world.
9. Based on current research, which treatment would you be LEAST likely to select initially in treating paranoid personality disorder? A) object relationship therapy B) drug therapy C) cognitive-behavioral therapy D) self-therapy
10. People with _____ personality disorder display a range of interpersonal problems marked by extreme discomfort in close relationships, odd patterns of thinking and perceiving, and behavioral eccentricities. A) schizoid B) schizoaffective C) schizotypal D) avoidant
11. Emmett experiences ideas of reference and bodily illusions. MOST likely, Emmett has _____ personality disorder. A) avoidant B) schizotypal C) schizoid D) schizoaffective
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12. Which is NOT a biological factor that is common to people with schizophrenia and people with schizotypal personality disorder? A) reduced activity of serotonin B) enlarged brain ventricles C) high activity of dopamine D) loss of gray matter
13. DSM-5 stipulates that a person must be at least 18 years of age to receive the diagnosis of _____ personality disorder. A) histrionic B) narcissistic C) antisocial D) obsessive-compulsive
14. Psychodynamic theorists believe that people who develop antisocial personality disorder have failed to develop a sense of: A) industry. B) identity. C) doubt. D) trust.
15. Research has found that individuals with antisocial personality disorder often seem to experience less _____ than other people, a key ingredient to learning. A) discipline B) anxiety C) reflection D) processing skills
16. Franklin was driving to meet a friend when he received a text (read by his car) saying that his friend was going to be late. Franklin flew into a rage. “I know he just doesn't want to spend time with me. He's probably talking about me to his girlfriend right now,” Franklin thought. Upset with his friend, Franklin turned his car around, cutting off other drivers. This type of behavior is consistent with _____ personality disorder. A) narcissistic B) avoidant C) borderline D) obsessive-compulsive
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17. Which personality disorder was once called hysterical personality disorder and involves individuals who are typically described as emotionally charged and seeking to be the center of attention? A) histrionic B) schizotypal C) narcissistic D) antisocial
18. The diagnostic features of which personality disorder bear the greatest similarity to people who are diagnosed with social anxiety disorder (social phobia)? A) avoidant B) schizoid C) narcissistic D) passive-aggressive
19. Freudian theorists suggest that people with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder are: A) anal expulsive. B) anal retentive. C) oral fixated. D) oral dismissive.
20. According to a large body of research with diverse populations, how many supertraits, or factors, may describe the basic structure of personality? A) 3 B) 5 C) 10 D) 16
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Answer Key 1. C 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. B 9. B 10. C 11. B 12. A 13. C 14. D 15. B 16. C 17. A 18. A 19. B 20. B
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1. Enduring and predictable behavioral consistencies are often called: A) learned characteristics. B) inherited characteristics. C) personality traits. D) character traits.
2. Personality disorders typically become recognizable in: A) early childhood. B) middle childhood. C) middle age. D) adolescence or early adulthood.
3. People with _____ personality disorder persistently avoid and are removed from social relationships and demonstrate little in the way of emotion. A) avoidant B) schizoid C) obsessive-compulsive D) schizotypal
4. What is the primary reason that people with schizoid personality disorder avoid social contact? A) paranoid feelings B) distrust of others C) fear of rejection D) preference to be alone
5. People with _____ personality disorder are sometimes described as psychopaths or sociopaths. A) borderline B) obsessive-compulsive C) antisocial D) narcissistic
6. A con artist is MOST likely to suffer from _____ personality disorder. A) antisocial B) narcissistic C) borderline D) obsessive-compulsive
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7. Children with _____ and an accompanying _____ disorder apparently have a heightened risk of developing antisocial personality disorder. A) conduct disorder; attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder B) oppositional defiant disorder; attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder C) reactive attachment disorder; attention-deficit disorder D) conduct disorder; oppositional defiant disorder
8. A therapist is treating a person with borderline personality disorder. Which treatment would you recommend based on current research? A) rational-emotive behavioral therapy B) psychodynamic therapy C) social modeling therapy D) dialectical behavioral therapy
9. _____ personality disorder was formerly a name for histrionic personality disorder. A) Hysterical B) Borderline C) Dramatic D) Narcissistic
10. Marcel has a pattern of excessive emotionality and attention seeking. He may be demonstrating _____ personality disorder. A) borderline B) antisocial C) histrionic D) narcissistic
11. Psychodynamic therapists believe that people with histrionic personality disorder are trying to defend against a deep-seated fear of: A) being alone. B) becoming penniless. C) loss. D) mistrust.
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12. Amanda is talking with her friends. One of her friends says she is disappointed about not being selected for a team sport. Amanda responds, “The coach told me I was his top pick. He said I would be his top pick in any sport because I'm just naturally athletic. I'm confident I'll play pro one day, probably be one of the youngest pro players in history.” This example is characteristic of someone with _____ personality disorder. A) antisocial B) histrionic C) narcissistic D) paranoid
13. The cluster of anxious personality disorders includes avoidant, dependent, and _____ personality disorders. A) paranoid B) antisocial C) histrionic D) obsessive-compulsive
14. Willa cannot do anything on her own and consults others, even on the smallest decision. She is constantly in need of praise to validate her work and is overly sensitive to any disagreement. She will do almost anything to please others. She may be experiencing _____ personality disorder. A) antisocial B) histrionic C) narcissistic D) dependent
15. A personality disorder characterized by a pattern of clinging and obedience, fear of separation, and ongoing need to be taken care of is _____ personality disorder. A) histrionic B) narcissistic C) dependent D) avoidant
16. Psychodynamic explanations for dependent personality disorder are very similar to those for: A) mania. B) psychosis. C) depression. D) attachment disorder.
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17. Men are _____ as likely as women to display obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. A) five times B) twice C) four times D) one and one-half times
18. Which statement is true of the relationship between obsessive-compulsive disorder and obsessive-compulsive personality disorder? A) Researchers have not found a specific link between the two disorders. B) People with obsessive-compulsive anxiety disorder usually develop obsessive-compulsive personality disorder within 3 years. C) In order to be diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder, there must be a history of suffering from obsessive-compulsive anxiety disorder at some point in the person's life. D) Researchers have found that both disorders are related to a decrease in the neurotransmitter GABA in the prefrontal cortex of the brain.
19. The basic structure of personality may consist of five supertraits, which do NOT include: A) neuroticism. B) paranoia. C) extroversion. D) openness to experiences.
20. Which is NOT a personality tendency that would be included in the newly proposed diagnosis that is called personality disorder trait specified (PDTS)? A) manipulativeness B) attention seeking C) hostility D) sexual promiscuity
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Answer Key 1. C 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. A 8. D 9. A 10. C 11. C 12. C 13. D 14. D 15. C 16. C 17. B 18. A 19. B 20. D
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Chapter 17
1. Describe three stressors unique to childhood/adolescence, and explain how they differ from adult stressors.
2. Molly is three years old and cries and trembles when her mother is not by her side. Her mom tried to enroll her in preschool, but Molly cried so much she disrupted the other students and could not continue. Molly is a happy little girl when her mom is near her, but she becomes nervous and scared as soon as they are apart. What diagnosis is appropriate for Molly? Explain why (that is, discuss which diagnostic criteria are present).
3. Discuss the concerns and status regarding the diagnosis of bipolar disorder in children and adolescents.
4. Almost every day Robin, age 14, has huge outbursts of rage at home, and her parents report she is usually very irritable. Just this past week she punched a hole in her bedroom wall and threw her dinner across the dining room. Last week she was suspended from school for throwing her desk chair during a class. What is her likely diagnosis? Which DMS-5 criteria are present that support this diagnosis?
5. What are important criteria for differentiating oppositional defiant disorder and conduct disorder? Discuss the causes of conduct disorder.
6. Johnny is six years old and wets the bed almost every night. Sometimes he even wets his pants at school. What is his diagnosis, and what treatment plan do you recommend?
7. What are the symptoms of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder that make it so troublesome? What forms of therapy are most effective? Last, discuss the methylphenidate (Ritalin) controversy.
8. What are the distinguishing characteristics of autism spectrum disorder? Differentiate these distinguishing characteristics from characteristics of typical developing children.
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9. The fact that rates of mild intellectual disability vary considerably across socioeconomic groups (highest rates in lowest socioeconomic groups), while rates of other levels of intellectual disability do not strongly implies that factors other than biological ones are at work in the development of mild intellectual disability. Discuss nonbiological factors involved with the disorder. What should psychologists suggest as appropriate interventions to lessen the incidence of mild intellectual disability in lower socioeconomic groups?
10. Compare and contrast the characteristics of a typical person for each of the four levels of intellectual disability.
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Answer Key 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
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1. A child worries that her mother may get hurt or die when the child is away from her. This child MOST likely has _____.
2. Child abuse that includes severe rejection, excessive discipline, ridicule, and isolation is called _____ abuse.
3. The DSM-5 includes a new category, disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, which is used to describe children with patterns of severe _____.
4. The pattern of conduct disorder characterized by secretive destructive behaviors such as violating other people's property, breaking and entering, and setting fires is called a(n) _____ pattern.
5. An 8-year-old child accidentally wets the bed approximately 20 times a month. This child suffers from the elimination disorder called _____.
6. Bed-wetting is more common than involuntary defecation, otherwise known as _____.
7. A young boy cannot sit still in his first-grade class. He does not seem to be able to follow what the teacher is doing, and his academic performance is not at grade level. Most of his time is spent in motion. He is displaying symptoms of _____.
8. Children with a diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder often mirror sentences or phrases spoken by others while copying the accent or inflection but not understanding the meaning. This phenomenon is called _____.
9. A person with a diagnosis of _____ displays significantly subaverage general functioning, concurrent deficits or impairment in adaptive behavior, and develops these symptoms before the age of 18.
10. A sixth-grade student reads slowly and has difficulty understanding the meaning of what he reads. You have a strong suspicion that he may suffer from _____.
11. Stuttering, a disturbance in the fluency and timing of speech, is a form of _____.
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12. Younger children who are clumsy and slow to master skills such as tying shoelaces, buttoning shirts, and zipping pants, may be given a diagnosis of _____.
13. Children with _____ perform coordinated motor activities at a level well below that of others their age.
14. The congenital disorder in which there is progressive loss of mental functioning and motor ability that is especially common among those of Eastern European Jewish ancestry is called _____.
15. Too little prenatal iodine results in _____ in the newborn.
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Answer Key 1. separation anxiety disorder 2. psychological 3. rage 4. covert-destructive 5. enuresis 6. encopresis 7. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder 8. echolalia 9. intellectual disability 10. dyslexia 11. speech sound disorder 12. developmental coordination disorder 13. developmental coordination disorder 14. Tay-Sachs disease 15. cretinism
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1. Surveys show that _____ is a common experience for close to half of all children in the United States. A) worry B) depression C) anxiety D) substance abuse
2. A large survey of parents and their children shows that parents: A) believe children are more concerned about school than children actually are. B) believe the greatest worry children have is about their physical appearance. C) generally underestimate how worried their children are. D) are unusually accurate in knowing about their children's worries.
3. A particular concern among children and adolescents is: A) racism. B) peer pressure to have sex. C) bullying. D) peer pressure to try alcohol.
4. Which is not considered an effect of bullying? A) suicidal thinking B) school problems C) overt lying D) sleep problems
5. Name-calling, posting embarrassing pictures, harassing, and/or mocking someone online is called: A) cyberbullying. B) anti-bullying. C) child abuse. D) peer pressure.
6. Which childhood disorder usually disappears by adulthood? A) spectrum disorders B) anxiety disorders C) intellectual disability D) elimination disorders
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7. For which anxiety disorder would you expect the childhood pattern to be MOST similar to the adult pattern? A) generalized anxiety disorder B) social anxiety disorder C) phobias D) obsessive-compulsive disorder
8. The typical child may not realize that the thoughts and beliefs of others are different from theirs or be able to anticipate future negative events. Therefore: A) the symptoms of childhood anxiety tend to be different from adult symptoms. B) children do not experience phobias. C) a child cannot fully experience an anxiety disorder. D) anxiety is not diagnosed until adolescence.
9. Behavioral and somatic symptoms, such as clinginess, sleep difficulties, and stomach pain, rather than cognitive symptoms are MORE characteristic of anxiety disorders in: A) female children rather than in male children. B) adolescents rather than in children. C) children rather than in adults. D) children of former generations rather than of the present generation.
10. A child does almost everything with her mother and seems extremely anxious at school, getting frequent stomachaches and wanting to go home. If the child has an anxiety disorder, it is MOST likely: A) agoraphobia B) bipolar disorder. C) dependent personality disorder. D) separation anxiety disorder.
11. A similarity among children with separation anxiety and those with school refusal is that they both fear going to school and often stay home. The difference in the symptoms of these diagnoses is that: A) if allowed to stay home, children with school refusal generally recover. B) separation anxiety usually lasts into adulthood, whereas school refusal does not. C) in separation anxiety, the fear is limited to school. D) school refusal often involves fear of others at school, academic fears, and fears of objects at school.
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12. Some researchers believe _____ is an early version of social anxiety disorder. A) general anxiety disorder B) extreme parental attachment C) shyness D) selective mutism
13. A child whose therapist asks him to draw pictures about his life and then introduces games and stories to help the child work through his conflicts and change his emotions and behavior is MOST likely receiving: A) cognitive therapy. B) classroom therapy. C) insight therapy. D) play therapy.
14. Why do very young children rarely experience hopelessness? A) Children must be able to hold expectations about the future, a skill rarely in full bloom before the age of 7. B) Young children don't experience traumatic life events that can lead to such a pessimistic outlook. C) Early childhood is a time of great joy that serves as a protector. D) Young children only exhibit negative physical symptoms, they don't experience negative emotional symptoms.
15. Statistically speaking, who is most likely to experience depression? A) a 9-year-old girl B) a 9-year-old boy C) a teenage boy D) a teenage girl
16. Hormonal changes, life demands, and body dissatisfaction are all reasons to explain why: A) postpubertal girls have higher rates of depression than postpubertal boys. B) children of all ages have higher rates of depression than adults. C) younger children have higher rates of depression than do older children. D) depression rates are higher than anxiety rates in children.
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17. In most cases of child abuse, the abuser is the child's: A) babysitter. B) teacher. C) older sibling. D) parent.
18. Child abuse is the nonaccidental use of excessive physical or psychological force against a child by: A) an adult. B) a classmate. C) an authority figure. D) someone older than the child.
19. Research suggests that the psychological needs of children who have been abused should be addressed: A) as early as possible. B) when they reach the teen years and can better understand the trauma. C) only if a parent believes it is appropriate. D) only if the victim deems it necessary after becoming an adult.
20. Constant criticism or ignoring of a child is considered: A) punishment. B) sexual abuse. C) parental discipline. D) psychological abuse.
21. Which statement is true regarding the intersection of sexual abuse, gender, and socioeconomic status? A) Girls from poor backgrounds are the most common victims of sexual abuse. B) Girls, regardless of their socioeconomic group, are the most common victims of sexual abuse. C) Girls from wealthy backgrounds are the most common victims of sexual abuse. D) Boys, regardless of their socioeconomic group, are the most common victims of sexual abuse.
22. Mike regularly attends Parents Anonymous groups. This suggests that Mike: A) is a child with conduct disorder who abuses alcohol. B) is an adolescent with conduct disorder who abuses alcohol or another substance. C) is the parent of a child who was physically or verbally abused. D) is a parent who has abused his child.
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23. The National Institute of Mental Health study known as TADS (Treatment for Adolescents with Depression Study) produced three major surprises. Which is NOT true about the study's findings? A) A combination of antidepressant medication and cognitive-behavioral therapy was most effective. B) Cognitive-behavioral therapy alone is not much better than a placebo treatment. C) Antidepressant medication alone is better than cognitive-behavioral therapy alone. D) The danger to adolescents from antidepressants has been overemphasized and is not that significant.
24. Results from TADS (Treatment for Adolescents with Depression Study) BEST support which conclusion? A) Second-generation antidepressants should not be used with adolescents because the risk for harm is too high. B) Treatment that works for one category of people may not be effective for another category of people. C) Cognitive-behavioral therapy alone is the best treatment for adolescents. D) Cognitive-behavioral therapy cannot be used with adolescents because of their cognitive limitations.
25. The main concern over the rise in diagnosis of bipolar disorder in children and, in particular, the treatment of bipolar disorder in children is the use of: A) cognitive-behavioral therapy. B) family therapy. C) adult medications. D) psychodynamic therapy.
26. Childhood patterns of behavior that are diagnosed as bipolar disorder differ from adult patterns in that: A) children display depression, but adults generally do not. B) children display more symptoms of mania than adults do. C) a higher proportion of girls than women are diagnosed with the disorder. D) children display rage and aggression rather than mania.
27. A new disorder in the DSM-5 that is used to describe children with patterns of severe rage is called: A) disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. B) bipolar disorder. C) childhood rage disorder. D) oppositional defiant disorder.
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28. Critics believe that bipolar disorder has become a catch-all diagnosis for children who display uncontrolled rage. DSM-5 addressed this concern by: A) eliminating uncontrolled rage as a symptom of bipolar disorder. B) creating a new disorder called disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. C) not allowing a diagnosis of a bipolar disorder until children reach age 18. D) dividing bipolar disorder into two categories, one with and one without rage.
29. A child is openly hostile toward his parents. He argues with them constantly and will not do anything they say. They cannot control him. The diagnosis he is MOST likely to receive is: A) conduct disorder. B) juvenile delinquency. C) oppositional defiant disorder. D) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.
30. A child will not obey her mother. When threatened with punishment, she swears, throws things, and threatens to break everything in the house. Her outbreaks seem to be restricted to her parents, but she is almost completely unmanageable. This is an example of: A) conduct disorder. B) juvenile delinquency. C) childhood schizophrenia. D) oppositional defiant disorder.
31. Boys and girls have about the same percentage chance of being diagnosed with: A) oppositional defiant disorder if they are prepubertal. B) oppositional defiant disorder if they are postpubertal. C) conduct disorder if they are prepubertal. D) conduct disorder if they are postpubertal.
32. A child has repeatedly engaged in shoplifting and in hitting neighborhood pets with rocks. The child frequently is aggressive and has engaged in an increasing number of fights. The MOST appropriate diagnosis for this child is: A) oppositional defiant disorder. B) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). C) conduct disorder. D) antisocial personality disorder.
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33. A child is extremely aggressive. She is always fighting with her peers and is frequently very cruel to them. She never tells the truth. Her MOST likely diagnosis is: A) conduct disorder. B) juvenile delinquency. C) passive-aggressive disorder. D) oppositional defiant disorder.
34. Which statement is a qualified criminal justice professor MOST likely to say? A) "The rate of crime among juveniles is almost evenly split between boys and girls." B) "The crimes that juvenile boys and girls commit are different." C) "Fortunately, the overall rate of juvenile crime is declining." D) "Children are not labeled as delinquent until they reach the age of 13."
35. A child sneaks out of the home every now and then and goes through the neighborhood breaking lawn decorations and scratching car paint. These behaviors MOST closely fit which pattern of conduct disorder? A) overt-destructive B) overt-nondestructive C) covert-destructive D) covert-nondestructive
36. Openly offensive and confrontational behaviors are consistent with what pattern of conduct disorder? A) overt-destructive B) overt-nondestructive C) covert-destructive D) covert-nondestructive
37. Openly offensive but nonconfrontational behaviors such as lying are consistent with what pattern of conduct disorder? A) overt-destructive B) overt-nondestructive C) covert-destructive D) covert-nondestructive
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38. Secretive destructive behaviors such as violating other people's property, breaking and entering, and setting fires are consistent with what pattern of conduct disorder? A) overt-destructive B) overt-nondestructive C) covert-destructive D) covert-nondestructive
39. Behaviors in which individuals secretly commit nonaggressive behaviors, such as being truant from school, are consistent with what pattern of conduct disorder? A) overt-destructive B) overt-nondestructive C) covert-destructive D) covert-nondestructive
40. At a parent-teacher conference, a child's parents are astounded to learn that their son has been showing up late for school, despite leaving home with more than enough time to get to school. This behavior MOST closely fits which pattern of conduct disorder? A) overt-destructive B) overt-nondestructive C) covert-destructive D) covert-nondestructive
41. Behavior called _____ occurs when a person commits social misdeeds such as slandering others, spreading rumors, and manipulating friendships. A) mainstreaming B) relational aggression C) cyber-bullying D) covert-nondestructive patterns
42. Relational aggression is a term used to describe a pattern of aggression MOST common among: A) girls diagnosed with conduct disorder. B) boys diagnosed with conduct disorder. C) boys diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder. D) girls diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder.
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43. Jordan is a terrible bully. He is very aggressive and repeatedly takes advantage of others. He will say anything to get his way or to try to stay out of trouble. Recently he was arrested for vandalism and ended up getting probation. He will MOST likely be labeled as displaying: A) conduct disorder. B) juvenile delinquency. C) passive-aggressive disorder. D) oppositional defiant disorder.
44. A 16-year-old teenager has just been arrested for the third time for shoplifting. She will MOST likely be labeled with: A) juvenile delinquency. B) oppositional defiant disorder. C) anxiety disorder. D) mood dysregulation disorder.
45. Conduct disorder has MOST often been associated with: A) a genetic or hormonal predisposition. B) a history of child abuse. C) troubled parent–child relationships. D) poverty.
46. An intervention in which parents and their children who have been diagnosed with conduct disorder do behavior therapy targeting and rewarding desired behavior is called: A) parent-interaction therapy. B) video modeling. C) parent management training. D) family-consequence sensitization.
47. "My seven-year-old needs to get help for conduct disorder. What do you recommend?" Based on current research, which is the BEST answer? A) "Video modeling works especially well with elementary school children." B) "Treatment foster care is best, as long as the program is well established." C) "Parent management training should work best." D) "Parent–child interaction therapy would be my recommendation."
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48. Which is NOT a goal of parent–child interaction therapy? A) helping parents set realistic goals for their child's behavior B) teaching the child better social and coping skills C) encouraging parents to act consistently with their child D) teaching parents to use fairer discipline practices
49. The LEAST effective way to deal with conduct disorder is by: A) implementing prevention programs. B) teaching children how to deal with their anger. C) having children live in juvenile training centers. D) conducting a family intervention.
50. A child is receiving problem-solving skills training as a treatment for conduct disorder. Based on this information, you can be reasonably sure that: A) the administration of a stimulant drug (e.g., Ritalin) is recommended, but not required. B) the child is a preschooler. C) the child is female. D) the interventions used are cognitive-behavioral.
51. A child with conduct problems participates in group sessions that teach her to manage her anger more effectively, view situations in perspective, solve problems, become aware of her emotions, build social skills, set goals, and handle peer pressure. This child is participating in: A) the Anger Coping and Coping Power Program. B) experimental therapy. C) Scared Straight. D) Parents and Children Anonymous.
52. "No way am I sending my child through that program. I've heard horror stories about how kids act once they leave." Based on research, the person who said this would be accurate if expressing reservations about: A) a juvenile training center. B) treatment foster care. C) problem-solving training. D) an Anger Coping and Coping Power Program.
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53. Which is MOST likely to be successful as part of a treatment foster care program? A) family therapy with the foster parents followed by therapy with the biological parents B) meetings with school, parole, and probation officers if needed C) training and treatment that involves the child, the foster parents, and the biological parents D) individual treatment with the child, followed by family therapy
54. Which is NOT an effective treatment for conduct disorder? A) juvenile training centers B) treatment foster care C) anger coping programs D) problem-solving skills training
55. Enuresis is defined as: A) repeated bedwetting or wetting of one's clothes after the age of five. B) repeated bedwetting or wetting of one's clothes after the age of three. C) intentional, repeated bedwetting or wetting of one's clothes as an act defiance after the age of five. D) intentional, repeated bedwetting or wetting of one's clothes as an act defiance after the age of three.
56. Children must be at least _____ year(s) old to receive a diagnosis of enuresis. A) one B) three C) five D) thirteen
57. What percentage of 10-year-olds meet the criteria for enuresis? A) 1 percent B) 5 percent C) 10 percent D) 15 percent
58. A 7-year-old child is wetting the bed at night. The bed-wetting apparently is beyond the child's control. The BEST diagnosis is: A) enuresis. B) encopresis. C) oppositional defiant disorder. D) conduct disorder.
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59. Elimination disorders are diagnosed when which criteria have been met? A) A child has reached an age at which he or she is expected to control bodily functions. B) The child has a physical illness causing the disorder. C) The child has been taking medications that are causing the disorder. D) The child hides the disorder from his or her parents.
60. Joey has been wetting his bed since he was a baby. He is 10 years old now. As a result, he will not stay over at his friends' houses or go to camp. His condition is called: A) enuresis. B) encopresis. C) conduct disorder. D) nocturnal emission.
61. A child awakens suddenly to the sound of a bell and heads for the bathroom. MOST likely the child is receiving: A) psychodynamic therapy for enuresis. B) psychodynamic therapy for encopresis. C) behavioral therapy for enuresis. D) behavioral therapy for encopresis.
62. One useful approach to treating enuresis employs: A) insight therapy. B) stimulant drugs. C) operant conditioning. D) classical conditioning.
63. A child is awakened during the night, uses the toilet, and receives a sticker and praise from a parent. Later in the week, accumulated stickers may be turned in for a highly desired toy. This child is undergoing: A) dry-bed training for enuresis. B) dry-bed training for encopresis. C) bell-and-battery therapy for enuresis. D) bell-and-battery therapy for encopresis.
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64. Repeated soiling of oneself after four years of age reflects: A) enuresis. B) encopresis. C) oppositional defiant disorder. D) conduct disorder.
65. Children must be at least _____ year(s) old to receive a diagnosis of encopresis. A) one B) two C) three D) four
66. Girls are more likely than boys to be diagnosed with: A) encopresis. B) ADHD. C) autism spectrum disorder. D) separation anxiety.
67. From which pair of disorders is a child MOST likely to recover by adulthood? A) autism spectrum disorder and intellectual disability B) conduct disorder and specific learning disabilities C) ADHD and separation anxiety D) enuresis and encopresis
68. The MOST common and successful treatments for encopresis are: A) medication and family therapy. B) cognitive-behavioral and family therapy. C) bell-and-battery technique and psychodynamic therapy. D) cognitive-behavioral therapy and medical treatments.
69. Devonte does not follow what the teacher is doing and has difficulty focusing on the task at hand. His behavior in class is disruptive because he cannot sit still, which leads to poor grades in school. These symptoms MOST likely indicate: A) a conduct disorder. B) school phobia with acting out. C) dyslexia with childhood anxiety. D) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.
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70. A child's distracting behaviors occur only in a school setting and include failure to follow instructions and finish work, answering questions before they have been completed, and a lot of seat squirming and fidgeting. Could ADHD be a diagnosis of this child? A) Yes, it could be a diagnosis. B) No, the child's symptoms started at too young an age. C) No, the child's symptoms occur in only one setting. D) Yes, it could be, but only if the fidgeting is distracting to others.
71. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder is MORE common in _____ than in _____. A) boys; girls B) girls; boys C) adolescents; children D) adults; children
72. Parents of a child recently diagnosed with ADHD ask what caused it. Based on current research, the BEST response is: A) "It is probably due to a brain malformation that can be corrected with surgery." B) "Family dysfunction and high levels of family stress cause ADHD." C) "It results from the reactions of others to a child who is just an active child." D) "Our best guess is that ADHD results from an interaction of several factors."
73. Which is NOT a likely cause of ADHD? A) abnormal serotonin activity and parietal damage B) negative self-concept C) dysfunctional families D) high levels of stress
74. The drug methylphenidate is classified as a(n): A) stimulant. B) depressant. C) tranquilizer. D) antidepressant.
75. What is the most effective ADHD treatment program? A) Psychodynamic therapy works best, with or without drugs. B) Cognitive-behavioral therapy outperforms even methylphenidate. C) Dietary changes work best in the long term. D) Drugs, combined with cognitive-behavioral therapy, work best.
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76. An important concern about using methylphenidate to treat ADHD is that: A) research on its effectiveness and safety has been done almost exclusively on non-Hispanic white American children. B) negative side effects are serious enough to discourage the use of methylphenidate among adolescents. C) fortunately, methylphenidate is not effective when used as a recreational drug. D) most ADHD children are better off if they are not treated with methylphenidate.
77. Compared with non-Hispanic white American children, African American and Hispanic American children with similar levels of activity and attention problems are: A) about equally likely to be assessed for ADHD, but less likely to be diagnosed with ADHD. B) about equally likely to be assessed for ADHD, but more likely to be diagnosed with ADHD. C) less likely to be assessed for ADHD, and less likely to be diagnosed with ADHD. D) more likely to be assessed for ADHD, and more likely to be diagnosed with ADHD.
78. The two MOST common treatments for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder have been: A) cognitive-behavioral and drug therapies. B) group therapy and sociotherapy. C) cognitive-behavioral and group therapy. D) insight therapy and Gestalt therapy.
79. Which parents would be LEAST likely to have children who receive effective treatment for ADHD? A) non-Hispanic white Americans with private health insurance B) African Americans with private health insurance C) non-Hispanic white Americans who are Medicaid-insured D) African Americans who are Medicaid-insured
80. The LEAST likely contributor to the differences between African Americans and non-Hispanic white Americans in receiving long-acting stimulant drug treatment for ADHD is: A) economic factors. B) social bias. C) stereotyping. D) differences in drug tolerance.
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81. The child most likely to show the first symptom of autism spectrum disorder would be a: A) boy under 3 years old. B) girl under 3 years old. C) boy over 5 years old. D) girl over 5 years old.
82. A female child is diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder. Later, as an adult, she is unable to hold a job and has very limited communication skills. Her case is: A) very rare; most people diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder are males, and their symptoms usually diminish substantially by early adulthood. B) uncommon; most people diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder are males, and their symptoms usually remain severe into adulthood. C) uncommon; most people diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder are females, and their symptoms usually diminish substantially by early adulthood. D) common; most people diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder are females, and their symptoms usually remain severe into adulthood.
83. What behavior suggests that a child has autism spectrum disorder? A) The child argues defiantly with parents. B) The child is not responsive to other people. C) The child screams uncontrollably when separated from parents. D) The child is very active and finds it difficult to stay on task.
84. Compared with typical children, children with autism spectrum disorder are MOST likely to: A) be socially aloof. B) be raised in a family with financial difficulties. C) have cold, rejecting parents. D) have extreme empathy for other people.
85. The mockingbird gets its name from the fact that it often imitates the calls of other birds, without conveying any particular message. A child who imitates others' speech without any sign of understanding it MOST likely would be diagnosed with: A) autism spectrum disorder. B) ADHD. C) intellectual disability. D) oppositional defiant disorder.
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86. One speech problem displayed by many children with autism spectrum disorder is that they repeat everything said to them. This is called: A) echolalia. B) neologism. C) nominal aphasia. D) pronominal reversal.
87. When a child with autism spectrum disorder says, "You want a drink," when he really means that he wants a drink, he is displaying: A) self-stimulatory behavior. B) delayed echolalia. C) limited imagination. D) pronominal reversal.
88. Getting extremely upset if an object is moved to a different part of the room represents: A) lack of responsiveness. B) avolition. C) rigid and repetitive behavior. D) perseveration of sameness.
89. A child has autism spectrum disorder and does not like much variation in her life. She puts her toys on a shelf in a particular order and throws a tantrum if her mother moves any of them. Any one of several trivial changes in her daily routine can set her off. This is an example of: A) overstimulation. B) stimulus over selectivity. C) self-stimulatory behavior. D) perseveration of sameness.
90. When a child with autism spectrum disorder jumps, flaps his arms, twists his hands and fingers, and makes unusual faces, the child is engaging in: A) self-injurious behavior. B) self-communication behavior. C) self-motor behavior. D) self-stimulatory behavior.
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91. Which statement BEST describes children diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder? A) They show disturbed and contradictory patterns of reactions to stimuli. B) They have low IQs and poor cognitive skills but good social skills. C) They engage in excessive amounts of abstract play. D) They appear to be exceptionally coordinated.
92. According to one psychological view of autism, the awareness that other people base their behaviors on their own belief, and not on information they have no way of knowing, is not present in children with autism spectrum disorder. In other words, they lack: A) egocentrism. B) a theory of mind. C) social awareness. D) metacognitive knowledge.
93. "Refrigerator parents" are seen as: A) intelligent yet cold. B) simple and cold. C) supportive and filled with ideas. D) slow and emotionally distant.
94. A child with autism spectrum disorder is laughing but sees another child crying. When asked what the other child is feeling, the child with autism is MOST likely to say: A) "sadness," because of perseveration of sameness. B) "sadness," because of pronominal reversal. C) "happiness," because of lack of responsiveness. D) "happiness," because of mind-blindness.
95. This inability to take the perspective of another is referred to as: A) excessive logic. B) self-stimulatory behavior. C) mind-blindness. D) sensory overload.
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96. Lydia has difficulty with interpersonal interactions but is otherwise high functioning. In the past, she would have been diagnosed with Asperger's disorder. Using the current DSM-5 criteria, she would now be diagnosed with: A) Asperger's disorder; nothing has changed. B) autism spectrum disorder. C) social communications disorder. D) no disorder.
97. A person has great difficulty sharing focus with other people on items and events in their immediate surroundings. This describes a: A) perseveration of sameness. B) repetitive and rigid behavior. C) delayed echolalia. D) deficiency in joint attention.
98. Which statement BEST reflects current research about the biological causes of autism spectrum disorder? A) So far, researchers have found no biological causes for autism spectrum disorder. B) The problem is much more likely to be with the brain's anatomy rather than with brain functioning. C) There are probably multiple biological causes. D) Neurotransmitter dysfunction explains problems in the cerebellum, but not the brain stem.
99. The MOST recent research has provided evidence that the primary causes of autism spectrum disorder include: A) brain abnormalities. B) personality characteristics of the parents. C) social status. D) environmental stress.
100. Studies show that children with autism spectrum disorder are more likely than other children to have abnormalities in which section of the brain? A) cerebral cortex B) corpus callosum C) cerebellum D) hypothalamus
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101. Based on the MOST current research, we can conclude that: A) MMR vaccinations are probably related to the incidence of autism spectrum disorder. B) MMR vaccinations are related to some, but not all, of the cases of autism spectrum disorder. C) as parents have refused MMR vaccinations for their children, the incidence of autism spectrum disorder has declined. D) MMR vaccinations are not related to the development of autism spectrum disorder.
102. Studies evaluating the use of cognitive-behavioral techniques in the treatment of autism spectrum disorder have shown that cognitive-behavioral techniques can produce: A) long-term gains in school achievement and intelligence test performance. B) only short-term gains in school achievement and intelligence test performance. C) long-term gains in school achievement but only short-term gains in intelligence test performance. D) only short-term gains in school achievement but long-term gains in intelligence test performance.
103. Recent work has revealed that the MOST effective treatment for autism spectrum disorder has been the use of: A) drug therapy. B) cognitive-behavioral therapy. C) educational therapy. D) psychodynamic-humanistic therapy.
104. A child with autism spectrum disorder points to a picture of a fork on a board rather than saying, "I want food." This child is using a(n): A) self-communication device. B) token economy system. C) augmentative communication system. D) integrative motor system.
105. What is the BEST educational treatment for a child with a serious level of dysfunction on the autism spectrum? A) mainstreaming and being in a typical classroom with other children B) being in special classes that operate in the school district's own facilities C) being sent to a special school that combines treatment and education D) being home-schooled
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106. If a child with autism spectrum disorder were being encouraged to engage in child-initiated interactions, the child would be: A) making statements that the therapist would repeat word for word. B) using a communications board to make requests known. C) asking about things that were of particular interest to him or her. D) engaging in play therapy with the child's parents.
107. Courtney, age 20, has autism spectrum disorder and lives with other adults that have the same disorder. Her living arrangement helps take stress off of her aging parents and gets her involved with her community. She resides in a: A) boarding school. B) psychiatric hospital. C) foster care facility. D) group home.
108. People receive a diagnosis of _____ when they display general intellectual functioning that is well below average, in combination with poor adaptive behavior. A) intellectual disability B) ADHD C) autism spectrum disorder D) learning disability
109. Which person would be diagnosed correctly with intellectual disability? A) someone with an IQ of 85 and significant difficulty communicating B) someone with an IQ of 85 but no other significant difficulties C) someone with an IQ of 65 but functioning well in life D) someone with an IQ of 69 having problems coping with life
110. Which is NOT a criticism of the use of IQ test results to diagnose intellectual disability? A) They do not measure functioning at the low end of the scale adequately. B) They are culturally biased. C) They do not measure adaptive functioning. D) They are not valid predictors of school performance.
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111. What does it mean to say that intelligence tests are culturally biased? A) They measure "street smarts," so rural children are disadvantaged. B) They measure abilities that are related to having been in school, disadvantaging home-schooled children. C) They are biased against children who have experienced a great variety of cultures and who are bilingual. D) They are biased in favor of those from middle and upper socioeconomic levels who are exposed to the kinds of language and typical experiences that the test evaluates.
112. The most consistent feature of intellectual disability is that the person with the disability: A) has behavioral problems. B) has difficulty paying attention. C) learns very slowly. D) struggles to develop relationships.
113. Matt has an IQ of 65 and cannot do schoolwork. He lives on the streets, survives by begging, is usually dirty, and is always hungry. He would MOST likely be diagnosed with: A) depression. B) dyslexia. C) schizophrenia. D) intellectual disability.
114. Sylvie is 25, has an IQ of 60, and never did well at schoolwork. However, she now lives on her own, has a job, and is able to perform the routine chores of life. She would not be considered to have intellectual disability because: A) she is too old. B) her IQ is not low enough. C) her daily functioning is adequate. D) her condition was not diagnosed before the age of 18.
115. If you were trying to learn a new language and you could understand it better than you could speak it, you would be showing symptoms MOST like: A) dyslexia. B) developmental coordination disorder. C) receptive language disorder. D) language disorder.
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116. A reading proficiency level that is much lower than would be expected based on the measure of general intelligence is called: A) dyslexia. B) perceptual deficit disorder. C) developmental coordination disorder. D) speech sound disorder.
117. A child does well in some school subjects. However, the only way that he can read is slowly, one word at a time. He must direct his gaze with his index finger. Even with great effort, he makes many errors and has poor comprehension. This is a description of: A) pronominal reversal. B) dyslexia. C) echolalia. D) word blindness.
118. The specific symptoms associated with dyslexia include: A) strikingly impaired mathematical skills. B) having difficulty comprehending and expressing language. C) an impairment of the ability to recognize words and to comprehend what is being read. D) extreme and repeated errors in spelling, grammar, punctuation, and paragraph organization.
119. A child displays normal behavior and intelligence, but she does not seem to be able to explain her actions and intentions as well as you would expect. If the deficit is severe enough, she might be diagnosed with: A) dyslexia. B) a perceptual deficit. C) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. D) a language disorder.
120. A child with a diagnosis of developmental coordination disorder has difficulty with things like: A) expressing himself in speech. B) reading a sentence from a book out loud. C) buttoning his shirt and dressing in general. D) listening to a teacher explain how to do a mathematics problem.
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121. Mild intellectual disability is MOST common in which socioeconomic class? A) lower B) middle C) upper-middle D) upper
122. About what percentage of those diagnosed with intellectual disability fall into the category of mild intellectual disability? A) less than 10 percent B) 25 percent C) 55 percent D) 80 to 85 percent
123. MOST cases of mild intellectual disability seem to be related to: A) inherited traits. B) sociocultural and psychological factors. C) fetal alcohol syndrome. D) organic brain syndrome.
124. Isabelle was born into a very poor family. Both parents have below-average IQs and are barely able to support and provide for themselves. Isabelle's nutrition and health care have never been very good. She is at risk for: A) autism spectrum disorder. B) mild intellectual disability. C) attention-deficit disorder. D) severe intellectual disability.
125. Which has mild intellectual disability NOT been linked to? A) inadequate parent–child interactions B) insufficient learning experiences C) unstimulating environment D) parental divorce
126. The percentage of individuals at the four levels of intellectual disability from mild to profound: A) increases steadily as the intelligence level decreases. B) decreases steadily as the intelligence level decreases. C) stays about the same as the intelligence level decreases. D) is highest for moderate intellectual disability.
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127. Which statement is true regarding both children with mild and those with profound intellectual disability (ID)? A) Both have difficulty learning, but children with mild ID can usually support themselves as adults. B) Both have difficulty learning, but children with profound ID are more "educable." C) They have the same level of adaptive functioning, but children with profound ID usually have more health problems. D) They have the same level of adaptive functioning, but children with mild ID usually grow out of it.
128. Children with multiple physical and neurological problems that seriously limit their functioning are MOST likely to be diagnosed with which level of intellectual disability? A) subclinical B) mild C) moderate D) severe or profound
129. Biological factors are NOT the most important causes of which level of intellectual disability? A) profound B) moderate C) mild D) subclinical
130. If one knew nothing more than that a person with intellectual disability also had extensive and severe neurological dysfunction and physical handicaps, the MOST likely estimate of that person's level of intellectual disability would be: A) mild. B) mild or moderate. C) moderate or severe. D) severe or profound.
131. Erin has moderate intellectual disability, a small head and flat face, as well as a protruding tongue. Her condition is MOST likely: A) PKU. B) Down syndrome. C) Tay-Sachs disease. D) fragile X syndrome.
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132. MOST diagnosed cases of Down syndrome are of the: A) trisomy 21 type. B) mosaicism type. C) age-related type. D) translocation type.
133. The MOST common of the identified chromosomal causes of Down syndrome is: A) trisomy 21. B) mosaicism. C) translocation. D) PKU.
134. Which statement is true regarding individuals with Down syndrome? A) They have a different range of personality characteristics just as do those in the general population without Down syndrome. B) They have a similar range of personality characteristics as do those in the general population without Down syndrome. C) They have the same range of personality characteristics as do those in the general population without Down syndrome. D) They have a range of personality characteristics similar to those of people with fetal alcohol syndrome.
135. Shy and anxious children who have mild to moderate degrees of intellectual dysfunction, language impairments, and behavioral problems are MOST likely to be diagnosed with: A) trisomy 21. B) Down syndrome. C) phenylketonuria. D) fragile X syndrome.
136. What is the MOST common metabolic disorder to cause intellectual disability? A) Tay-Sachs disease B) Down syndrome C) fragile X syndrome D) phenylketonuria (PKU)
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137. An infant is diagnosed with a biological disorder. As she ages, her physical and mental conditions deteriorate steadily so that she loses vision and motor control, and, at the age of 3, she dies. Most likely, she was suffering from: A) Tay-Sachs disease. B) Down syndrome. C) fragile X syndrome. D) phenylketonuria (PKU).
138. What do phenylketonuria (PKU) and Tay-Sachs disease have in common? A) Both can be detected at birth and treated. B) Both are caused by a double recessive gene. C) Both are metabolic defects involving an amino acid. D) People of Eastern European Jewish ancestry are at increased risk for both.
139. An iodine deficiency in the diet of a pregnant woman may lead to a condition in which the baby has a dwarflike appearance and a defective thyroid gland. This disorder is called: A) cretinism. B) encephalitis. C) Down syndrome. D) Tay-Sachs disease.
140. If a pregnant woman wishes to avoid having a child with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS), what should she do? A) avoid drinking alcohol, since no safe level of drinking while pregnant has been established B) avoid binge drinking, since only binge drinking is associated with FAS C) drink no more than the equivalent of one ounce of alcohol per day D) drink no more than the equivalent of two ounces of alcohol per day
141. Anoxia, one possible source of intellectual disability, involves brain damage resulting from: A) ingestion of lead-based paint. B) lack of oxygen during or after delivery. C) poisoning from pesticides or fertilizer nitrates. D) seizures induced by inhalants or automobile exhaust fumes.
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142. Most colleges and universities now require students to have a meningitis vaccination before enrolling. Untreated meningitis can lead to: A) cretinism. B) encephalitis. C) autism spectrum disorder. D) intellectual disability.
143. In poor inner-city neighborhoods, children sometimes eat paint that is flaking off walls. This can sometimes lead to intellectual disability due to: A) meningitis. B) encephalitis. C) microcephaly. D) lead poisoning.
144. During the 1960s and 1970s, the criteria for remaining in state schools changed, and many individuals with intellectual disability were released into the community. This is an example of: A) deinstitutionalization. B) a normalization program. C) mainstreaming. D) special education.
145. MOST children in the United States with intellectual disability live: A) at home. B) in normalization residences. C) in relatively small, county-run institutions. D) in relatively large, state-run institutions.
146. Nations that pioneered normalization in the treatment of intellectual disability include: A) the United States and Canada. B) the former Soviet Union and China. C) Japan and Great Britain. D) Denmark and Sweden.
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147. A woman is in a facility for those with intellectual disability. She has her own apartment, dresses herself, and goes to the dining room, where she orders breakfast off a menu. She then goes to work in a sheltered workshop. At the end of the day, she goes home to her apartment and gets ready for dinner. This arrangement is part of: A) deinstitutionalization. B) a normalization program. C) mainstreaming. D) special education.
148. A child is in public school, but she is grouped with other low-IQ children like her. She and her classmates have a specially designed program that is different from that of the other children in the school. This is MOST likely an example of: A) mainstreaming. B) special education. C) deinstitutionalization. D) a normalization program.
149. Compared to the mental health professionals of early twentieth century, today's mental health professionals: A) give a lot more attention to the needs and problems of children. B) virtually ignore the needs of children. C) view children as little adults and treat their problems the same way. D) believe all children can recover from psychological and neurodevelopmental disorders.
150. What must mental health professionals keep in mind when treating a child versus treating an adult? A) Children are not impacted by family and societal attitudes the same way adults are. B) Children are more motivated to make change than adults are. C) Children typically have less control over their lives than adults do. D) Children can recover from psychological and neurodevelopmental disorders; adults cannot.
151. Which of the following is NOT a response to the increased clinical focus on the young? A) There is more focus on children's legal and human rights. B) The special needs of children are becoming more visible. C) More clinicians have called on government agencies to help and protect children. D) The study of treatment of children has slowed down because enough has been conducted.
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Answer Key 1. A 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. A 6. D 7. C 8. A 9. C 10. D 11. D 12. D 13. D 14. A 15. D 16. A 17. D 18. A 19. A 20. D 21. B 22. D 23. D 24. B 25. C 26. D 27. A 28. B 29. C 30. D 31. B 32. C 33. A 34. B 35. C 36. A 37. B 38. C 39. D 40. D 41. B 42. A 43. B 44. A
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45. C 46. C 47. C 48. C 49. C 50. D 51. A 52. A 53. C 54. A 55. A 56. C 57. B 58. A 59. A 60. A 61. C 62. D 63. A 64. B 65. D 66. D 67. D 68. D 69. D 70. C 71. A 72. D 73. A 74. A 75. D 76. A 77. C 78. A 79. D 80. D 81. A 82. B 83. B 84. A 85. A 86. A 87. D 88. D 89. D 90. D
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91. A 92. B 93. A 94. D 95. C 96. B 97. D 98. C 99. A 100. C 101. D 102. A 103. B 104. C 105. C 106. C 107. D 108. A 109. D 110. D 111. D 112. C 113. D 114. C 115. D 116. A 117. B 118. C 119. D 120. C 121. A 122. D 123. B 124. B 125. D 126. B 127. A 128. D 129. C 130. D 131. B 132. A 133. A 134. C 135. D 136. D
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137. A 138. B 139. A 140. A 141. B 142. D 143. D 144. A 145. A 146. D 147. B 148. B 149. A 150. C 151. D
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1. Surveys throughout the world have repeatedly revealed that _____ ranks as a major problem in the minds of young people, often even more seriously than racism or AIDS. A) failing school classes B) being bullied C) being pressured by peers to use drugs or alcohol D) looking differently from others
2. Stephanie was always chatting away at home with her siblings and parents. She was considered shy when out in public, never speaking to others. However, her parents weren't concerned until she started preschool. She has been in school for four months and still hasn't spoken to her teacher or classmates. Stephanie is displaying signs of: A) selective mutism. B) intellectual disability. C) major depressive disorder. D) oppositional defiant disorder.
3. What is an accurate statement about child sexual abuse? A) It is more common among lower socioeconomic classes. B) Girls and boys are sexually abused at approximately the same rate. C) Child sexual abuse appears to be equally common across all socioeconomic classes, races, and ethnic groups. D) Child sexual abuse occurs only inside the home by a family member.
4. Children who suffer some form of abuse are most likely to be abused by a: A) stranger. B) sibling. C) parent. D) teacher.
5. Javier has recently been diagnosed with conduct disorder. Based on this information alone, it is MOST likely that Javier is between the ages of: A) 6 and 10. B) 3 and 5. C) 7 and 15. D) 15 and 18.
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6. If a child with conduct disorder displays openly aggressive and confrontational behaviors, which pattern of the disorder would that child be displaying? A) overt-destructive B) overt-nondestructive C) covert destructive D) covert-nondestructive
7. When children reach school age, therapists often use a family intervention called parent management training to help treat: A) conduct disorder. B) autism spectrum disorder. C) ADHD. D) encopresis.
8. What is a recidivist? A) a person who is arrested who has a record of previous arrest B) a person who has an intellectual disability that spontaneously improves from being severe or profound to being mild or moderate C) a child who suffers from both encopresis and enuresis at the same time D) a person who suffers from both a metabolic disorder (like PKU) and a chromosomal disorder (like Down syndrome) at the same time
9. Shelley, an eighth grader, tells all of her friends that another girl in their class, Natalie, has an STI. Multiple people in the class start avoiding Natalie and talk about her behind her back. This is an example of _____ aggression. A) overt-nondestructive B) covert-destructive C) overdestructive D) relational
10. Which treatment approach is more likely to strengthen juvenile delinquent behavior than to help reduce it? A) drug therapy B) institutionalization C) family therapy D) individual therapy
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11. Repeated involuntary bedwetting or wetting of one's clothes is known as: A) encopresis. B) conduct disorder. C) paresis. D) enuresis.
12. You suspect that a child you are treating has ADHD. Which of the following should be completed to confirm the diagnosis of ADHD? A) at least two brain imaging tests B) MRI brain scans and psychological testing C) parent and teacher reports, clinical observations, interviews, psychological tests, and rating scales D) psychoneurological exams and PET scans
13. Of all schoolchildren who are diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, how many are boys? A) roughly half B) nearly all C) close to three-quarters D) about one-fourth
14. Kris has recently been diagnosed with ADHD. Based on current treatment practices, which two treatment modalities are MOST likely to be applied? A) drug therapy and psychodynamic therapy B) drug therapy and family therapy C) family therapy and cognitive-behavioral therapy D) drug therapy and cognitive-behavioral therapy
15. What percentage of children with autism spectrum disorder are boys? A) 95 B) 80 C) 50 D) 35
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16. Terry has autism spectrum disorder. When his teacher asks, “Do you want candy?” Terry responds, “Do you want candy?” This particular communication problem is referred to as: A) word salad. B) pronominal reversal. C) echolalia. D) encopresis.
17. Mark has autism spectrum disorder. When Mark is hungry, he looks at his mother and asks, “Do you want dinner?” This reversal of pronouns is referred to as: A) pronominal reversal. B) inversion of references. C) delayed echolalia. D) verbal stereotypy.
18. Which is NOT one of the broad categories of symptoms of autism spectrum disorder? A) lack of responsiveness B) language and communication problems C) repetitive and rigid behaviors D) delinquent-type behaviors
19. Which abnormal chromosomal situation is a cause of Down syndrome? A) phenylalanine B) mosaicism C) fragile X syndrome D) translocation
20. Winnie, who has an intellectual disability, goes to school with other children her age. Most of the children in her class do not have a disability. This is referred to as: A) mainstreaming. B) normalization. C) institutionalization. D) special education.
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Answer Key 1. B 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. A 7. A 8. A 9. D 10. B 11. D 12. C 13. C 14. D 15. B 16. C 17. A 18. D 19. C 20. A
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1. What percentage of children and adolescents in North America have a diagnosable psychological disorder? A) one-half B) one-fifth C) one-third D) one-sixth
2. Which is a true statement regarding the childhood disorders covered in this chapter? A) They are more prevalent in boys than in girls. B) They are all easily identified before the age of 5 years. C) They are all directly connected to poor parenting skills. D) They are all resistant to treatment, with very poor prognosis for recovery by adulthood.
3. Elton refuses to get up for school most mornings. On the days he does go to school—after prolonged arguing with his parents—he wears visibly dirty clothes. He also blatantly disregards the rules about “screen time” and chores and commonly throws temper tantrums to get his way. This behavior has been going on for nine months. Elton's symptoms are MOST consistent with: A) oppositional defiant disorder. B) conduct disorder. C) ADHD. D) autism spectrum disorder.
4. Cases of conduct disorder have NOT been linked to: A) troubled parent-child relationships. B) inadequate parenting. C) marital conflict. D) adoption.
5. Clayton attends therapy sessions with other children who also have conduct disorder. During therapy, the group focuses on more effectively managing their anger, solving problems, and building social skills, among other things. Clayton is participating in: A) the Coping Power Program. B) parent–child interaction therapy. C) problem-solving skills training. D) parent management training.
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6. Repeated involuntary defecating into one's clothing is known as: A) enuresis. B) encopresis. C) Crohn's disease. D) pediatric elimination disorder.
7. Symptoms associated with autism spectrum disorder typically appear before the age of: A) 8. B) 5. C) 6. D) 3.
8. Why is Asperger's disorder no longer a diagnosis? A) It is now diagnosed as either autism spectrum disorder or social communication disorder. B) It is no longer seen to be a problem in children. C) It contains individuals who are too high functioning for a diagnosis. D) We are now able to resolve the issue in childhood.
9. _____ is associated with the theory that autism spectrum disorder is caused by parents' personality characteristics. A) Carl Jung B) Sigmund Freud C) Leo Kanner D) Albert Bandura
10. What does theory of mind refer to? A) an awareness that other people base their behaviors on their own beliefs, intentions, and other mental states B) thinking that others are always watching you C) the belief that people base their behaviors on intuition or supernatural phenomenon D) beliefs about the origins of consciousness
11. Based on current research, which treatment approach would you recommend for treating someone with autism spectrum disorder? A) psychodynamic therapy B) cognitive-behavioral therapy C) drug treatment D) institutionalization
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12. Which is NOT a method used for teaching children with autism spectrum disorder to communicate? A) augmentative communication systems B) sign language C) simultaneous communication D) psychotherapy
13. In addition to having an IQ score of approximately _____ or below, to be diagnosed with intellectual disability, a person must have poor adaptive behavior. A) 85 B) 70 C) 60 D) 45
14. Mild intellectual disability is linked mainly to: A) malnutrition. B) a parent's intellectual disability. C) sociocultural and psychological causes. D) childhood trauma or injury.
15. IQ score below _____ would indicate profound intellectual disability. A) 43 B) 20 C) 49 D) 35
16. The most common of the chromosomal disorders leading to intellectual disability is: A) Prader-Willi syndrome. B) autism. C) Down syndrome. D) fetal alcohol syndrome.
17. The most common metabolic disorder to cause intellectual disability is: A) Tay-Sachs disease. B) sickle cell disease. C) phenylketonuria (PKU). D) Reyes Syndrome.
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18. Approximately 1 in _____ children is born with phenylketonuria (PKU). A) 1,200 B) 80 C) 14,000 D) 99,000
19. Which statement about intellectual disability is NOT true? A) Some states restrict marriage for people with intellectual disability. B) Fewer than 10 percent of all people with even mild intellectual disability eventually marry. C) Some clinicians have developed dating skills programs for individuals with intellectual disability. D) Individuals with intellectual disability can learn to use contraceptives and carry out responsible family planning.
20. Vera, who has an intellectual disability, participates in a program that provides opportunities to socialize with others and to learn about romantic relationships and contraception. Vera is MOST likely participating in: A) couple therapy. B) genetic counseling. C) a dating skills program. D) parent management training.
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Answer Key 1. B 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. D 8. A 9. C 10. A 11. B 12. D 13. B 14. C 15. B 16. C 17. C 18. C 19. B 20. C
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Chapter 18
1. Psychological problems of the elderly can be divided into two groups. Discuss the two groups of disorders, and explain how disorders that occur in persons of all ages are different when they occur in the elderly.
2. Your elderly grandmother has been prescribed antidepressants to treat her unipolar depression. What risks are associated with this treatment approach?
3. An individual is experiencing a significant cognitive disturbance. How would you determine whether the person has delirium or neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease? What criteria must be present to meet the DSM-5 requirements for a diagnosis of each condition?
4. Trace the common pattern of development of Alzheimer's from its initial stage until the person's death.
5. Describe how neurocognitive disorder due to Pick's disease, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, Huntington's disease, Parkinson's disease, and Lewy body disease differ from one another.
6. An individual is receiving drug treatment for Alzheimer's disease. What type of drug treatment has the person most likely been prescribed, and what is the goal of drug therapy?
7. Alzheimer's disease is of increasing concern in our aging society. What treatment would you recommend for those who have Alzheimer's disease?
8. Caregiving can take a heavy toll on the close relatives of people with neurocognitive disorders. First, discuss who the caregivers usually are and what special challenges they face. Second, discuss programs that offer support for this group of caregivers.
9. The elderly face issues of discrimination within our society. What are some sources of discrimination against the elderly?
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10. Given the importance of a health-maintenance, or wellness promotion, approach to aging, discuss several important steps you would advise young people to take to avoid mental health problems as they age.
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Answer Key 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
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1. The field dedicated to the mental health of the elderly is _____.
2. The MOST common mental health complaint of the elderly resulting from a loss of a spouse or friend is _____.
3. Besides alcohol use among the elderly, the unintentional misuse of _____ is a concern.
4. Research suggests that _____ drugs are currently being given to almost 30 percent of the total nursing home population in the United States.
5. A kind of psychotic disorder in which individuals develop beliefs that are false but not bizarre is called _____.
6. Within hours, a person develops a clouded state of consciousness and has great difficulty concentrating and focusing attention. This person is experiencing _____.
7. An individual is able to live alone but is experiencing memory and learning problems. The MOST accurate diagnosis would be _____.
8. Alzheimer's disease is considered a(n) _____.
9. The two MOST important memory structures contained in the temporal lobes related to Alzheimer's disease are the amygdala and the _____.
10. Pick's disease involves degeneration of the _____ and temporal lobes.
11. Children of people with Huntington's disease have a(n) _____ percent chance of developing the disorder.
12. Neurocognitive disorder due to Parkinson's disease can be difficult to distinguish from neurocognitive disorder due to _____, which also causes cognitive problems and difficulties with movement.
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13. Many caregivers of those with Alzheimer's disease are relatives. It is common for these caregivers to experience anger and _____.
14. Day-care and assisted living facilities are examples of the _____ approach to treatment for neurocognitive disorder.
15. Medical scientists agree that current generations of young adults should take a health-maintenance, or _____, approach to their own aging process.
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Answer Key 1. geropsychology 2. depression 3. prescription drugs 4. antipsychotic 5. delusional disorder 6. delirium 7. mild neurocognitive disorder 8. neurocognitive disorder 9. hippocampus 10. frontal 11. 50 12. Lewy body disease 13. depression 14. sociocultural 15. wellness promotion
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1. The MOST feared psychological problem among the elderly is: A) stress. B) loss of sexual function. C) Alzheimer's disease. D) alcoholism.
2. Which statement about Alzheimer's disease is true? A) It can be treated with a combination of antianxiety and antipsychotic medications. B) Its onset typically occurs prior to age 65. C) It is currently incurable and difficult to treat. D) Most people diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease die from it within a year after being diagnosed.
3. Dementia is now classified as: A) Alzheimer's disease. B) neurocognitive disorder. C) neuroleptic disorder. D) delirium disorder.
4. The percentage of the U.S. population today aged 65 and older is approximately: A) 4 percent. B) 7 percent. C) 15 percent. D) 25 percent.
5. Based on census data, the percentage of the U.S. population who are 65 and older has: A) steadily increased over the past century and is projected to continue to increase. B) remained stable over most of the past century but has increased dramatically during the past 30 years. C) increased rapidly during the last decade due to the “Baby Boom” of the 1950s and 1960s. D) steadily increased over the last decade but is projected to stabilize after 2020.
6. Regarding old age, stress, and illness, which of these statements is NOT true? A) Most people over age 65 have two or more chronic illnesses. B) A large percentage of elderly people suffer from insomnia or other sleep problems. C) Elderly people often contend with significant losses (such as death, sense of purpose, sensory ability). D) Most people over age 65 develop psychological disorders due to the stressors in their lives.
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7. An elderly (older than 65) member of your community has just started using the Internet to keep up with friends and family. This community member is: A) very rare. Almost no elderly individuals understand how to use the Internet. B) very rare. Increasing numbers of elderly individuals know how to use the Internet but don't actually use it. C) less common than previously. Many elderly individuals once used the Internet but have not kept up with the changing technology, so their usage has decreased. D) increasingly common. The number of elderly individuals using the Internet has increased dramatically in recent years.
8. Among elderly persons who would benefit from mental health services, most: A) do not get the treatment they need. B) see a mental health care provider but are noncompliant with their treatment plans. C) resist using these services even when opportunities are available. D) seek services from those who are not qualified to offer effective treatment.
9. A _____ is a person who specializes in the mental health of older persons. A) cognitive-behavioral psychologist B) mental health advocate C) geropsychologist D) developmental psychologist
10. An individual seeking help from a geropsychologist is MOST likely: A) elderly. B) suffering from intellectual disability. C) suffering from enuresis or encopresis. D) receiving play therapy.
11. As the percentage of the population who are 65 or older continues to rise, one would NOT expect the _____ to rise as well. A) number of geropsychologists B) percentage of people with neurocognitive disorder C) percentage of people with substance use disorder D) number of nursing homes
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12. Psychological disorders among the elderly can be divided into two groups: A) personal losses and mental stress. B) the process of aging and disorders of cognition. C) environmental factors and genetic factors. D) physical problems and sensory problems. 13. Studies of the “oldest old” show that compared with people in their 80s and early 90s, the oldest old are usually: A) less agile. B) less healthy. C) less clear-headed. D) more agile, healthier, and clearheaded. 14. Among the “oldest old,” those who are older than 100 years old, the MOST common concern is the fear of: A) reduced physical endurance. B) death. C) fewer new experiences. D) decreased mental abilities.
15. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic shared by most centenarians? A) being somewhat physically and sexually active B) having a close relative who also lived to a very old age C) having unimpaired sensory functions D) fearing cognitive decline more than death 16. “I'm no fool, no sirree! I'm gonna live to be 103. . . .” sang the Disney character Jiminy Cricket decades ago. If Jiminy Cricket had been a human (most crickets live only a few weeks), what's the BEST advice you could have given him to live a very long life? A) “Accept life's challenges with optimism, have good health habits, and inherit 'longevity' genes.” B) “Avoid life's hassles, have good health habits, and accept ongoing, preventive psychological counseling.” C) “Find a 'personal space' where you can get away from the world, and inherit 'longevity' genes.” D) “There's nothing you can do; extreme longevity is entirely genetic.”
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17. An individual is extremely sad, can't sleep well, and experiences very low, and decreasing, self-esteem. These are features of depression among: A) both the elderly and the young. B) the elderly, but not the young. C) the young, but not the elderly. D) neither the young nor the elderly
18. Statistically speaking, which of these individuals is at greatest risk for depression? A) an older man living alone B) an older woman living alone C) an older man in a nursing home D) an older woman in a nursing home
19. Compared with younger people, those older than 65 are: A) more likely to experience depression, whether they live in nursing homes or not. B) about as likely to experience depression if not living in a nursing home and more likely to experience depression if living in a nursing home. C) less likely to experience depression, whether they live in nursing homes or not. D) less likely to experience depression if living in a nursing home and more likely to experience depression if not living in a nursing home.
20. Which of the following would provide the STRONGEST evidence that age-related health problems produce depression? A) a study showing that depressive symptoms increase after age-related health problems occur B) a study showing that depressive symptoms increase as one gets older C) a study showing that older people with depressive symptoms subsequently develop health problems D) a study showing a positive correlation between depressive symptoms and health problems for older people
21. Among the elderly, there is a positive correlation between: A) depression and mortality rate. B) depression and longevity. C) illness and longevity. D) illness and coping.
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22. An elderly individual has just been diagnosed with depression. In the future, that individual would be expected to: A) recover more slowly than average for injuries but recover at a normal rate for illnesses. B) recover at a normal rate for injuries but recover more slowly than average for illnesses. C) recover more slowly than average for both injuries and illnesses. D) recover at a normal rate for both injuries and illnesses. 23. A friend says, “My 70-year-old grandmother is in good physical health but has been diagnosed with depression. Should she even bother getting therapy? She is pretty old, after all.” Based on current research, the BEST answer is: A) “No, older adults with depression don't usually respond well to therapy.” B) “Maybe, only about 15 percent of elderly patients show improvement, though.” C) “Yes, more than half of elderly patients show improvement with treatment.” D) “Yes, be sure to use individual therapy, since group therapies don't work well with the elderly.”
24. Regarding treatment of depression in the elderly, studies show that: A) drug treatments may need to be altered because drugs are broken down differently in the older body. B) individual and group therapies are rarely used. C) electroconvulsive shock therapy is the treatment of choice. D) therapy is not effective most of the time.
25. Which therapy is used to treat depression in the elderly after other therapy attempts fail? A) cognitive-behavioral therapy B) antidepressant medication C) electroconvulsive therapy D) group therapy
26. Treatment for depression among the elderly: A) is not different from that used to treat younger people. B) typically involves the use of antidepressant medication only. C) typically involves the use of cognitive-behavioral therapy only. D) is common among nursing home residents but not for those living alone.
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27. What is the relationship between age and anxiety in the elderly? A) As age increases, the rate of anxiety disorders increases. B) As age increases, the rate of anxiety disorders decreases. C) As age increases, the rate of anxiety disorders increases and then decreases. D) There is no relationship between age and anxiety disorders.
28. Regarding anxiety disorders and aging, which statement is NOT true? A) Symptoms of anxiety disorders are often misinterpreted as symptoms of a medical condition. B) The prevalence of anxiety among the elderly is comparable to that of other age groups. C) Declining health is one of the main sources of anxiety among the elderly. D) Drug treatments should be used cautiously because of how they are metabolized in the elderly.
29. To date, research shows that anxiety among the elderly is related to: A) specific experiences. B) losses. C) health. D) drinking.
30. The MOST common anxiety disorder among the elderly is: A) obsessive-compulsive disorder. B) agoraphobia. C) panic attack. D) generalized anxiety disorder.
31. As people age, the incidence of alcohol abuse and other forms of substance abuse: A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains the same. D) frequently appears for the first time.
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32. A person who abuses alcohol often drinks alone, blacks out occasionally, and falls a lot. These characteristics are: A) more than twice as common in young alcohol abusers as they are in elderly alcohol abusers. B) slightly more common in young alcohol abusers than they are in elderly alcohol abusers. C) slightly more common in elderly alcohol abusers than they are in young alcohol abusers. D) more than twice as common in elderly alcohol abusers as they are in young alcohol abusers.
33. Survey research shows that alcohol-related disorders affect about: A) 15 to 20 percent of the elderly, more often men. B) 15 to 20 percent of the elderly, more often women. C) 3 to 7 percent of the elderly, more often men. D) 3 to 7 percent of the elderly, more often women.
34. Researchers differentiate older problem drinkers into those who have _____ and those who _____. A) been abusing alcohol for most of their life; are late-onset alcohol abusers B) problems abusing other drugs; do not abuse other drugs C) been diagnosed with depression; have a diagnosed anxiety disorder D) lived in assisted living facilities; have lived independently their entire lives
35. _____ is when people start abusing alcohol in their 50s and 60s, often in response to negative events and pressures of growing older. A) Late-onset alcoholism B) Early-onset alcoholism C) Geriatric alcohol abuse disorder D) Socially driven problem drinking
36. Statistically speaking, which person is LEAST likely to develop alcohol use disorder? A) a man in his 20s who lives with his parents B) a man in his 20s who lives alone C) a man in his 70s who lives in a nursing home D) a man in his 70s who lives in alone
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37. Those who begin unhealthy drinking patterns later in life typically begin as a response to: A) negative events and pressures of growing older. B) medication side effects. C) a desire to fit in with the peer group. D) pressure from their teenage grandchildren.
38. Most elderly people take drugs to treat problems with: A) anxiety. B) psychosis. C) pain. D) blood pressure.
39. Samuel, age 69, reports taking six prescription drugs, in addition to regularly taking two over-the-counter drugs. Among the elderly, Samuel is: A) unusual; the average elderly individual takes fewer than half this many drugs. B) unusual; the average elderly individual takes twice this many drugs. C) normal; the average elderly individual takes about this amount of drugs. D) close to normal; the average elderly individual takes somewhat more drugs.
40. Which problem related to substance abuse is more typical among the elderly than other age groups? A) alcohol use disorder B) drinking in reaction to negative life events C) misuse of prescription drugs D) misuse of illicit drugs
41. Studies have shown that misuse of medications in U.S. nursing homes occurs MOST often when staff members: A) use antipsychotic drugs to control the behaviors of those who don't show psychotic symptoms. B) mistakenly give drugs to the wrong residents. C) discontinue drugs that could have controlled residents' inappropriate behaviors and irrelevant thoughts. D) mistake complex drug interactions for symptoms of delirium.
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42. Which is NOT a factor that contributes to the misuse of prescription drugs among the elderly? A) confusion about keeping track of all the medications one must take B) overprescribing of medications or prescribing of drugs that negatively interact with other drugs C) the advent of newer, cheaper, and more potent narcotic medications D) use of antipsychotic medications to control the behaviors of those who are in nursing homes
43. Approximately what proportion of nursing home residents receive antipsychotic drugs? A) one-tenth B) one-fifth C) one-quarter D) one-third
44. The elderly have a _____ rate of psychotic symptoms compared with younger individuals, and the onset of schizophrenia is _____ among the elderly than among younger individuals. A) higher; more common B) higher; less common C) lower; more common D) lower; less common
45. Most elderly people with schizophrenia were initially diagnosed and treated for it: A) when they were much younger. B) when they entered nursing homes. C) shortly after reaching old age. D) after they began living alone.
46. Among the elderly, psychotic cognitive symptoms are usually caused by: A) schizophrenia. B) delirium and neurocognitive disorders. C) delusional disorders. D) depression.
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47. An elderly person who develops false beliefs that are not bizarre is MOST likely suffering from: A) delusional disorder. B) disorders of cognition. C) memory problems. D) sleep disorder.
48. Helen falsely believes that others are conspiring against her, cheating her, or spying on her, and she behaves in angry, irritable, and depressed ways. Helen is exhibiting: A) a delusional disorder. B) a cognitive disorder. C) delirium. D) acute anxiety.
49. A 65-year-old in very good health typically will experience occasional: A) neurocognitive disorders. B) memory difficulties. C) delusions. D) hallucinations.
50. A rapidly developing, acute disturbance in attention and orientation that makes it very difficult to concentrate and think in a clear and organized manner is: A) delusional disorder. B) delirium. C) Alzheimer's disease. D) dissociative disorder.
51. An 80-year-old hospitalized individual is recovering from surgery but now has gotten an infection. Over the course of a few days, the person shows increasing confusion and consistently misinterprets what others are trying to communicate. The MOST probable diagnosis for this condition is: A) neurocognitive disorder. B) delirium. C) schizophrenia. D) substance abuse.
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52. Compared with people closer to age 55, people older than 85 are about _____ as likely to experience delirium. A) two times B) three times C) ten times D) more than ten times
53. Which of the following is NOT associated with delirium among the elderly? A) being admitted to a hospital B) having a fever, infectious disease, or a head injury C) being a nursing home resident D) being overweight or obese
54. How is delirium similar to delusional disorder? A) Both are marked by rapid onset. B) Both increase in rate after age 65. C) Both involve auditory hallucinations. D) Both have the same symptoms.
55. A clouding of consciousness that develops over a short period and can often be reversed if its underlying cause can be found is called: A) neurocognitive disorder. B) delirium. C) delusional disorder. D) cognitive mapping.
56. One problem associated with delirium is: A) the financial cost associated with treating it is very high. B) the underlying factors that cause it are relatively unknown. C) it is often undetected or misdiagnosed by doctors. D) very few studies have been done to investigate its treatment.
57. A _____ of the elderly who use the Internet also use Facebook. A) tiny percentage (less than 5 percent) B) small percentage (around 10 percent) C) quarter (around 25 percent) D) large percentage (around 60 percent)
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58. Based on recent research, as the percentage of elderly people who use the Internet and social media continues to rise, one would predict that the percentage of elderly people: A) with cognitive impairment will decrease in the future. B) with cognitive impairment will increase in the future. C) who are victims of cyberbullying will decrease in the future. D) who are victims of cyberbullying will increase in the future.
59. An individual with Alzheimer's disease is able to function independently. The MOST appropriate label for this person's condition is: A) mild delirium. B) major delirium. C) mild neurocognitive disorder. D) major neurocognitive disorder.
60. An individual has just been diagnosed with mild neurocognitive disorder. We know for sure that the person: A) experiences little or no decline in any area of cognitive functioning. B) experiences decline in only one area of cognitive functioning. C) can still function independently. D) can no longer function independently.
61. An individual with Alzheimer's disease is no longer able to function independently. The MOST appropriate diagnosis for this person's condition is: A) mild delirium. B) major delirium. C) mild neurocognitive disorder. D) major neurocognitive disorder.
62. After age 60, the percentage of people with major neurocognitive disorders: A) increases gradually as age increases. B) increases exponentially as age increases. C) increases rapidly then stabilizes after age 80. D) remains low until age 85 and then dramatically increases.
63. The primary difference between major and mild neurocognitive disorder is: A) the age of onset. B) the type of cognitive function that is affected. C) whether it produces Alzheimer's disease. D) whether it interferes with independent functioning.
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64. About how many new cases of Alzheimer's disease occur each year? A) 3.1 million B) 4.6 million C) 21.4 million D) 46 million
65. Alzheimer's is named for the first person to _____ the disease. A) suffer from B) identify C) fund research in D) write a novel about
66. The MOST frequent type of neurocognitive disorder in the elderly is: A) vascular. B) Parkinson's disease. C) Alzheimer's disease. D) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
67. Possible reasons for the difference in Alzheimer's disease risk for non-Hispanic white Americans compared with other racial and ethnic groups include all of the following EXCEPT: A) genetic factors that are linked to Alzheimer's disease. B) differences in general health such as cardiovascular disease and diabetes. C) differences in exposure to environmental toxins such as lead and zinc. D) stress brought about by language and employment barriers. 68. “Grandpa is 88 years old, and there's no sign of neurocognitive disorder,” says a friend of yours. Your MOST accurate reply is: A) “That's wonderful—about half of people that age do have signs of neurocognitive disorder.” B) “That's wonderful—about a third of people that age do have signs of neurocognitive disorder.” C) “That's wonderful—about 10 percent of people that age do have signs of neurocognitive disorder.” D) “That's wonderful—about 5 percent of people that age do have signs of neurocognitive disorder.”
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69. An elderly person has been diagnosed with a neurocognitive disorder, but the disorder is not Alzheimer's disease. Among the elderly, such a diagnosis is: A) very rare—only about 2 percent of neurocognitive disorders are not Alzheimer's disease. B) unusual—only about 10 percent of neurocognitive disorders are not Alzheimer's disease. C) common—about a third of neurocognitive disorders are not Alzheimer's disease. D) very common—about half of neurocognitive disorders are not Alzheimer's disease.
70. About 17 percent of individuals with Alzheimer's disease also experience: A) minor neurocognitive disorder. B) major depressive disorder. C) schizophrenia. D) substance abuse disorder.
71. The typical pattern of Alzheimer's for the patient is: A) denial, anxiety, withdrawal, dependency. B) denial, anger, bargaining, acceptance, hope. C) denial, projection, regression. D) denial, acceptance, reemergence, reinforcement.
72. When people are diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease, they initially: A) deny they have a problem. B) become angry and agitated. C) display indifference about the disorder. D) become socially withdrawn.
73. Your elderly grandfather is deteriorating. At first, he seemed only mildly forgetful, but lately he has had trouble recalling the names of close relatives and cannot remember where he is. He used to be very loving and patient, but now he is very unpleasant, and his condition is worsening. He is MOST likely experiencing: A) presenile delirium. B) intellectual developmental disorder. C) Alzheimer's disease. D) stroke-induced neurocognitive disorder.
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74. In those with Alzheimer's disease, physical health usually: A) declines at the same rate as mental health. B) declines more rapidly than mental health. C) declines less rapidly than mental health. D) declines rapidly, then stabilizes.
75. The only definitive way to diagnose Alzheimer's disease is to: A) examine brain activity using various neuroimaging techniques. B) conduct an autopsy to examine brain tissue after a person has died. C) perform a battery of cognitive tests that assess memory, attention, and reasoning (among others). D) identify the symptoms that are present and compare them against those listed in the DSM-5.
76. If one examined a sample of brain tissue from a person who had died of Alzheimer's disease, it should show: A) high concentrations of acetylcholine. B) damage caused by lead and zinc poisoning. C) wide gaps between neurons and neuronal connections. D) many senile plaques and neurofibrillary tangles.
77. Sphere-shaped deposits of a small molecule in spaces between neurons in the hippocampus in individuals with Alzheimer's disease are called: A) senile plaques. B) neural plaques. C) beta-amyloid proteins. D) neurofibrillary tangles.
78. The molecules that are found in sphere-shaped deposits in spaces between neurons in the hippocampus in individuals with Alzheimer's disease are called: A) senile plaques. B) neural plaques. C) beta-amyloid protein. D) neurofibrillary tangles.
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79. Which statement is true regarding the location of senile plaques and neurofibrillary tangles in the brain? A) Both occur within neurons in the brain. B) Both occur between neurons in the brain. C) Senile plaques are found within neurons in the brain, while neurofibrillary tangles are found between neurons in the brain. D) Senile plaques are found between neurons in the brain, while neurofibrillary tangles are found within neurons in the brain.
80. Older individuals with Alzheimer's disease differ from older individuals without Alzheimer's disease in that they: A) have neurofibrillary tangles in hippocampal and other brain cells. B) have senile plaques between cells in some areas of the brain. C) have an extraordinary number of neurofibrillary tangles. D) have no senile plaques.
81. Excessive senile plaques and neurofibrillary tangles in the brains of people with Alzheimer's disease are likely due to: A) increased dopamine and serotonin activity. B) abnormal beta-amyloid and tau protein activity. C) exposure to toxic chemicals from one's environment. D) cerebrovascular damage caused by high blood pressure.
82. Abnormal beta-amyloid protein activity is to _____, as abnormal tau protein activity is to _____. A) tangles; plaques B) plaques; tangles C) genes; environment D) environment; genes
83. Which statement is true regarding early-onset Alzheimer's disease? A) It tends to run in families. B) It is triggered by environmental factors. C) It is not associated with an excess of senile plaques. D) It produces fewer cognitive impairments compared to late-onset Alzheimer's disease.
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84. The best evidence we have to date suggests that early-onset Alzheimer's disease is transmitted genetically in families that: A) transmit mutations of certain protein-producing genes. B) have many members with the sporadic form of the disease. C) have no members with the disease but transmit genetically recessive traits. D) do not have a clear history of the disease.
85. A person who has an excess of plaques due to Alzheimer's would be likely to have: A) excessive cell growth. B) cell breakdown and neuron death. C) a loss of amino acid production. D) mutations of the cells of the eye.
86. Theories linking Alzheimer's disease to genetic factors make all of the following assumptions EXCEPT: A) genes control the production of proteins. B) genes create plaques and tangles. C) abnormal protein activity produces plaques and tangles. D) excessive plaques and tangles produce Alzheimer's disease.
87. Research on the cause of Alzheimer's disease has led to the conclusion that: A) the hereditary component explains the onset of the disease. B) at least five different chromosomes have been found to be related to Alzheimer's disease. C) there appears to be a significant hereditary component, but this does not fully explain its onset. D) there is little or no evidence of a genetic component to Alzheimer's disease, but there may be a viral cause.
88. Short-term memory is like a _____, whereas long-term memory is like a _____. A) workbench; storage cabinet B) video camera; audio recorder C) singer; choir D) bag of candy; candy factory
89. The prefrontal cortex is to _____, as the temporal lobes and diencephalon are to _____. A) long-term memory; transferring information into short-term memory B) short-term memory; transferring information into long-term memory C) episodic memory; procedural memory D) procedural memory; episodic memory
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90. A person is experiencing difficulty with short-term memory. In what area of the brain is a problem likely? A) prefrontal lobes B) temporal lobes C) diencephalon D) occipital lobes
91. A person is experiencing difficulty with long-term memory. In what area of the brain is a problem likely? A) prefrontal lobes B) temporal lobes C) parietal lobes D) occipital lobes
92. The part of the brain MOST important for short-term (working) memory is (are) the: A) prefrontal lobes. B) temporal lobes. C) hippocampus. D) amygdala.
93. A person with Alzheimer's disease shows decreased brain activity in the diencephalon. This decreased activity should be related to: A) no change in either the function of short-term memory or in the conversion of short-term memories to long-term memories. B) no change in the function of short-term memory but problems in the conversion of short-term memories to long-term memories. C) problems in the function of short-term memory but no change in the conversion of short-term memories to long-term memories. D) problems in both the function of short-term memory and in the conversion of short-term memories to long-term memories.
94. The temporal lobes include which of the following brain structures that are linked to memory function? A) medulla and cerebellum B) thalamus and hypothalamus C) hippocampus and amygdala D) reticular formation and pituitary gland
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95. The brain changes that those with Alzheimer's disease experience are: A) similar to those of most elderly people, but they happen to an excessive degree. B) different from those of most elderly people, especially in the cerebellum. C) different from those of most elderly people, especially in the corpus callosum. D) different from those of most elderly people in all parts of the brain.
96. What generally happens in the thalamus and the hypothalamus of an individual with Alzheimer's disease? A) Acetylcholine-secreting neurons shrink. B) Selected neurons shrink or die. C) Neurofibrillary tangles develop in living neurons. D) Amyloid deposits form among living neurons.
97. Abnormal activity involving which element appears to contribute to the symptoms of Alzheimer's disease? A) carbon B) phosphorus C) calcium D) oxygen
98. In people with Alzheimer's disease, memory problems appear to be caused by disruption of the production of: A) inhibitory neurotransmitters. B) memory-linked fatty acids. C) DNA. D) memory-linked proteins.
99. If one were to develop drugs that increase or maintain the production of _____, then this could be used to treat or prevent Alzheimer's disease. A) tau proteins B) memory-linked proteins C) norepinephrine D) beta-amyloid proteins
100. Blocking the activity of glutamate is to _____, whereas blocking the cellular production of RNA and calcium is to _____. A) short-term memory impairment; short-term memory enhancement B) short-term memory impairment; long-term memory impairment C) long-term memory impairment; long-term memory enhancement D) long-term memory impairment; short-term memory impairment
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101. A person has normal acetylcholine and glutamate activity. If that person is suspected of having Alzheimer's disease, one might look next for: A) lower than usual levels of zinc in the brain. B) unusual breakdown of heavy metals in the brain. C) an imbalance in the breakdown of calcium in the brain. D) an enlargement of neurons in the hippocampus.
102. Depletion of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine has been implicated as a: A) treatment of schizophrenia. B) cause of Huntington's disease. C) treatment for Parkinson's disease. D) critical factor in Alzheimer's disease.
103. Which of these is NOT a factor that contributes to Alzheimer's disease? A) concussion or other brain injury B) autoimmune disorder C) slow-acting viral infections D) exposure to zinc or lead
104. Since leaded gasoline was phased out in the United States, one would expect to observe all of the following, EXCEPT: A) lower rates of Alzheimer's disease for those born after 1991. B) higher rates of Alzheimer's disease in countries that continue to use leaded gasoline. C) higher rates of Alzheimer's disease for those exposed to other lead-based products. D) fewer neurocognitive problems among the elderly in 2010 compared to 2060.
105. The fact that Alzheimer's disease resembles Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease suggests that Alzheimer's may be caused by: A) eating contaminated beef. B) genetic mutations on certain genes. C) autoimmune dysfunction. D) a virus.
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106. Other than an autopsy after death, the BEST way to diagnose the presence of Alzheimer's disease is by: A) observing behavior to identify symptoms. B) searching for biomarkers. C) using a battery of physical agility tests. D) measuring increased activity levels in the hippocampus.
107. Which of these is a biomarker that usually accompanies Alzheimer's disease? A) elevated beta-amyloid and tau proteins B) elevated serum lead levels C) memory and other cognitive impairments D) high activity in the hippocampus
108. Any biochemical, molecule, gene, or structural characteristic that accompanies a disease is called a(n): A) vector. B) biological anomaly. C) biomarker. D) epigenetic factor.
109. If you had a PET scan at a relatively young age to predict your likelihood of developing Alzheimer's, you would be most disturbed if you had: A) higher activity in the gray matter than in the white matter. B) reduced hippocampus activity. C) normal levels of zinc. D) activity in the subcortical structures.
110. Recent research shows that a person developing Alzheimer's disease is related to: A) lower hippocampus activity earlier in life. B) higher hippocampus activity earlier in life. C) abnormalities in corpus callosum development in childhood. D) abnormalities in corpus callosum development in early adulthood.
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111. Lisa Mosconi and her associates administered PET scans to research participants to measure activity in the hippocampus. They found that participants with low hippocampus activity were more likely to develop neurocognitive disorders later in life. How accurate were their predictions? A) about 60 percent for both mild and major neurocognitive impairment B) about 90 percent for both mild and major neurocognitive impairment C) more than 70 percent accurate for mild neurocognitive impairment and more than 80 percent accurate for major neurocognitive impairment D) more than 80 percent accurate for mild neurocognitive impairment, and nearly 100 percent accurate for major neurocognitive impairment
112. The research conducted by Mosconi and others to identify biomarkers that predict Alzheimer's disease is BEST classified as a(n): A) clinical trial. B) epidemiological study. C) case study. D) longitudinal study.
113. ____ is a disorder that occurs after someone has a stroke. A) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B) Vascular neurocognitive disorder C) Frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder D) Huntington's disease
114. Which disease involves degeneration of the frontal and temporal lobes? A) Pick's disease B) Alzheimer's disease C) Korsakoff's syndrome D) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
115. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is to _____, as Huntington's disease is to _____. A) viral cause; genetic cause B) motor problems; speech problems C) slow onset; gradual onset D) early-onset Alzheimer's disease; late-onset Alzheimer's disease
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116. An individual suffering from a neurological disorder shows no evidence of infection or poisoning but experiences tremors, rigidity, and unsteadiness. The MOST probable diagnosis is: A) Parkinson's disease. B) Alzheimer's disease. C) Huntington's disease. D) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
117. What do neurocognitive disorder due to Lewy body disease and neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease have in common? A) Both produce similar cognitive and behavioral symptoms. B) They involve the buildup of disruptive proteins within neurons. C) They are linked to the same genetic markers. D) Both are frequently misdiagnosed.
118. Neurocognitive disorders may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT: A) meningitis. B) advanced syphilis. C) HIV infection. D) gonorrhea.
119. Which neurocognitive disorder was recently discovered by examining brain tissue from former professional football players who experienced repeated mild head trauma and displayed signs of neurocognitive impairment prior to death? A) chronic traumatic encephalopathy B) neurocognitive disorder due to Lewy body disease C) Pick's disease D) Mackey's syndrome
120. Which statement BEST describes the limitations of the current treatment options for Alzheimer's disease? A) No treatment exists to slow the progression of Alzheimer's disease. B) There is no treatment available to decrease the chances of developing Alzheimer's disease. C) There are no treatment options to help people cope with taking care of Alzheimer's patients. D) No treatment exists that can stop the progression of Alzheimer's disease.
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121. A person with Alzheimer's disease is taking a drug designed to affect acetylcholine and glutamate and may experience: A) improvement in short-term memory but not in ability to cope under pressure. B) improvement in ability to cope under pressure but not in short-term memory. C) improvement both in short-term memory and in ability to cope under pressure. D) neither improvement in short-term memory, nor in ability to cope under pressure.
122. Which statement regarding the use of drug therapy to slow the progression of Alzheimer's disease is accurate? A) Drug therapy slows down the disease in all patients. B) Drug therapy slows down the disease only in patients with severe forms of the disease. C) Drug therapy slows down the disease in patients treated early in the course of a milder form of the disease. D) Drug therapy slows down the disease in no one; drug therapy doesn't work for Alzheimer's disease.
123. Women who want to reduce their risk of developing Alzheimer's should: A) take estrogen for years after menopause. B) eliminate caffeine use after menopause. C) avoid taking ibuprofen for menstrual discomfort. D) take male sex hormones after menopause.
124. To control occasional pain and inflammation, a person uses an over-the-counter drug containing ibuprofen. Interestingly, recent research shows that the person also may be reducing the risk of contracting which disease? A) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B) Alzheimer's disease C) Huntington's disease D) Parkinson's disease
125. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and estrogen replacement therapy for postmenopausal women has been associated with: A) an increased risk for developing senile plaques and neurofibrillary tangles. B) delayed or decreased risk of developing Alzheimer's disease. C) higher rates of Alzheimer's disease compared to those who do not take these. D) slowed progression of Alzheimer's disease.
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126. From a cognitive-behavioral standpoint, research suggests that Alzheimer's disease can be delayed or prevented by all of the following EXCEPT: A) performing simple calculations and reading aloud. B) doing cognitively stimulating activities on a computer. C) engaging in physical exercise. D) listening to music that was popular during one's youth.
127. Which has NOT been used as a cognitive-behavioral treatment for Alzheimer's disease? A) doing simple math and reading aloud in a group setting B) increasing the capacity of short-term memory by memorizing strings of random numbers C) writing letters and attending cultural events, such as concerts or plays D) using a computer-based cognitive stimulation program
128. What would be the BEST advice to give someone who wants to retain good cognitive functioning as long as possible in old age? A) “Be sure to get mineral supplements, especially zinc and aluminum—and take it easy, to avoid injury.” B) “Disengage a little—don't let the world news upset you—and avoid caffeine and other stimulants.” C) “Get a pet—caring for something else helps—and avoid eyestrain by reducing your reading.” D) “Exercise your body and your mind—use it or lose it.” 129. “In dealing with Alzheimer's disease, exercise is the key,” says a friend of yours. Which statement is supported by research? A) “You're right—exercise may reduce the chances of developing Alzheimer's, and it may help treatment if the disease does develop.” B) “You're partly right—exercise may reduce the risk of developing Alzheimer's, but it doesn't help much with treatment if the disease develops.” C) “You're partly right—exercise does not reduce the chances of developing Alzheimer's, but it may help treat the disease if it does develop.” D) “Not really—exercise does not reduce the chances of developing Alzheimer's, and it doesn't help much with treatment if the disease develops.”
130. About what percentage of those with Alzheimer's disease are cared for by their adult children or spouses? A) very few (less than 10 percent) B) less than half (around 40 percent) C) slightly more than a half (around 60 percent) D) a large majority (around 90 percent)
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131. One of the MOST frequent reasons for the institutionalization of Alzheimer's patients is to: A) provide more sophisticated medical treatments. B) provide increased opportunities for employment. C) provide relief to overwhelmed home caregivers. D) take advantage of better rehabilitation services.
132. Which situation is MOST likely to lead to hospitalization for an Alzheimer's patient? A) the progression of the disease requires expert care B) the home caretaker being overwhelmed C) the patient does not want to live at home D) the patient's pet interfering with care
133. Clinicians recognize that treatment for Alzheimer's disease includes: A) focusing on the needs of caregivers. B) implementing institutional policies that promote autonomy. C) providing outpatient care and calibrating medication. D) focusing on early detection and prevention.
134. Which is an example of a sociocultural approach to treating Alzheimer's? A) day-care facilities B) behavior modification C) medication D) psychotherapy for caregivers
135. Which of these approaches to treating Alzheimer's disease is comparable to an approach used to treat schizophrenia? A) day care B) halfway houses C) cognitive-behavioral therapy D) antipsychotic medication
136. Research evaluating sociocultural approaches to dealing with Alzheimer's disease, for example, assisted-living facilities and day-care facilities, shows that, in general, patients receiving these forms of care: A) enjoy life more and don't continue to decline as quickly. B) enjoy life more but continue to decline as quickly. C) don't enjoy life more but don't continue to decline as quickly. D) don't enjoy life more and continue to decline as quickly.
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137. Which is NOT true about the most effective long-term inpatient care for individuals with Alzheimer's disease? A) Emotional responding deteriorates before cognitive functioning does. B) Subtle environmental changes—brighter lights, for example—may improve mood. C) Individualized care works better than standardization. D) Watching videos produces mood changes, which last even after the video is forgotten.
138. Which of the following is NOT a major issue affecting the mental health of elderly people? A) special problems faced by racial and ethnic minority groups B) inadequacies of long-term care C) technological advances in medical treatment D) the need for health-maintenance strategies as people age
139. The term double jeopardy describes people who may develop psychological problems because of being: A) old and physically ill. B) old and members of an ethnic minority. C) young and members of an ethnic minority. D) physically ill and members of an ethnic minority.
140. Triple jeopardy, as an issue affecting the mental health of the elderly, refers to: A) depression, anxiety, and substance abuse. B) neurocognitive disorder, delirium, and substance abuse. C) being old, a minority member, and a woman. D) discrimination, poor long-term care, and poor medical care.
141. Elderly people who are members of racial and ethnic minority groups may rely on friends and family members more than majority groups for mental and health care for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: A) they mistrust the majority establishment. B) they face language barriers that interfere with care. C) they hold cultural beliefs that prevent them from seeking services. D) they are more likely to have a friend or family member who is trained to provide culturally appropriate services.
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142. Sources of discrimination in the mental health care of the elderly include: A) language barriers that interfere with medical and mental health care. B) need for care in a skilled facility. C) lack of good-quality wellness programs. D) combination of substance abuse and depression.
143. By 2060, the population of people in the United States over the age of 65 is projected to be: A) more racially and ethnically diverse than it is now. B) less racially and ethnically diverse than it is now. C) mostly composed of Hispanic Americans and African Americans. D) composed of a smaller proportion of Hispanic Americans than it is now.
144. A partially supervised apartment, a senior housing complex for mildly impaired elderly people, and a nursing home with round-the-clock care are all examples of: A) health-maintenance facilities. B) wellness programs. C) long-term care. D) double-jeopardy facilities.
145. Which is MOST likely to be said by an elderly person regarding long-term care? A) “I'm glad I saved enough for this.” B) “I've known lots of people who got better and came home.” C) “I'm worried about losing my independence.” D) “I can't wait for all the interesting new activities I'll be able to do.”
146. Not smoking, eating well-balanced meals, exercising regularly, managing stress, and developing positive social relationships are the key components of the _____ approach to aging. A) health-maintenance B) sociocultural C) holistic D) cognitive-behavioral
147. If you do things during your life that promote physical and psychological well-being, you are engaging in a _____ approach to aging. A) preventive B) medical C) conditional D) health-maintenance
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148. If a young person is taking a health-maintenance approach to aging, the person would be: A) buying long-term care insurance. B) doing things that promote physical and mental health. C) avoiding negative life events. D) being sensitive to cultural differences among people.
149. Fifty years ago, efforts to understand and treat mental disorders that affect the elderly: A) received considerable attention. B) received attention comparable with other mental disorders. C) received very little attention. D) received no attention at all.
150. One of the main reasons why disorders of the elderly are getting more attention from researchers and clinicians is that: A) people are living longer and the proportion of the population reaching old age has been increasing steadily. B) advances in neuroimaging technology has made it possible to study disorders that predominantly affect the elderly. C) more research funding has been directed toward investigating disorders affecting the elderly. D) a large percentage of researchers and clinicians are approaching old age.
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Answer Key 1. C 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. D 7. D 8. A 9. C 10. A 11. C 12. B 13. D 14. D 15. C 16. A 17. A 18. D 19. B 20. A 21. A 22. C 23. C 24. A 25. C 26. A 27. A 28. B 29. C 30. D 31. B 32. A 33. C 34. A 35. A 36. D 37. A 38. A 39. C 40. C 41. A 42. C 43. D 44. B
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45. A 46. B 47. A 48. A 49. B 50. B 51. B 52. D 53. D 54. B 55. B 56. C 57. D 58. A 59. C 60. C 61. D 62. B 63. D 64. B 65. B 66. C 67. D 68. A 69. C 70. B 71. A 72. A 73. C 74. C 75. B 76. D 77. A 78. C 79. D 80. C 81. B 82. B 83. A 84. A 85. B 86. C 87. C 88. A 89. B 90. A
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91. B 92. A 93. B 94. C 95. A 96. B 97. C 98. D 99. B 100. B 101. C 102. D 103. A 104. D 105. D 106. B 107. A 108. C 109. B 110. A 111. C 112. C 113. B 114. A 115. A 116. A 117. B 118. C 119. A 120. D 121. C 122. C 123. A 124. B 125. B 126. D 127. B 128. D 129. A 130. D 131. C 132. B 133. A 134. A 135. A 136. A
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137. A 138. C 139. B 140. C 141. D 142. A 143. A 144. C 145. C 146. A 147. D 148. B 149. C 150. A
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1. People over the age of _____ represent the fastest-growing segment of the population in the United States and in most countries around the world. A) 50 B) 65 C) 70 D) 85
2. The field of psychology that is dedicated to the mental health of the elderly is called: A) thanatology. B) alterpsychology. C) developmental psychology. D) geropsychology.
3. What is a correct statement about anxiety disorders in later life? A) Individuals older than 85 report higher rates of the disorder than those between 65 and 84. B) Researchers have systematically tied anxiety disorders among the elderly to specific events or losses in their lives. C) Older adults with anxiety disorders are rarely treated with medications. D) Clinicians do not misinterpret physical symptoms as anxiety.
4. Surveys find that approximately _____ percent of older people, particularly men, have alcohol-related disorders in a given year. A) 1 to 2 B) 3 to 7 C) 8 to 10 D) 11 to 13
5. Which statement is true regarding the misuse of prescription drugs among the elderly? A) The misuse of drugs is common but typically does not pose any serious health risks. B) The misuse of drugs is exclusive to pain medications. C) The misuse of drugs is often seen in combination with alcohol misuse as a young adult. D) The misuse of drugs is most often unintentional.
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6. Which person would you expect to have a lessening of symptoms later in life? A) someone with unipolar depression B) someone with substance misuse disorder C) someone with obsessive-compulsive disorder D) someone with schizophrenia
7. Which psychotic disorder does the text describe as increasing in prevalence as people age? A) delusional disorder B) depression C) schizophrenia D) dissociative identity disorder
8. Barrett is 86 years old and has no signs of a neurocognitive disorder. Is this common for this age group? A) Yes, only a small percentage of adults older than age 85 have a neurocognitive disorder. B) It could go either way. About half of adults older than age 85 have a neurocognitive disorder, meaning the other half do not. C) It depends on Barrett's race/ethnicity. About two-thirds of non-Hispanic white adults older than age 85 have a neurocognitive disorder, but only about one-fourth of African Americans do. D) No. The vast majority of adults older than age 85 have a neurocognitive disorder.
9. Theodore has difficulty remembering even where he is going. Maintaining friendships is also difficult and he easily becomes angry when he cannot remember things. His health has not been as good as it was, and he is clumsier than he was three years ago. He is MOST likely suffering from: A) Alzheimer's disease. B) anxiety-related confusion. C) normal forgetfulness. D) delirium.
10. In individuals who have died from Alzheimer's disease, twisted protein fibers have been found within the cells of the _____, which affects memory, as well as in other areas of the brain. A) hypothalamus B) hippocampus C) frontal lobes D) cerebellum
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11. Early-onset Alzheimer's disease may be brought on by all of the following EXCEPT: A) the production of beta-amyloid precursor protein. B) the presenilin protein. C) orbital difficulties. D) a family-transmitted mutation.
12. Among the brain areas most important to long-term memory are the _____ lobes and the _____. A) frontal; cerebellum B) temporal; diencephalon C) parietal; diencephalon D) occipital; cerebellum
13. Among the most important brain structures in short-term memory is the: A) parietal lobe. B) temporal lobe. C) frontal lobe. D) prefrontal cortex.
14. When new information is acquired and stored, certain _____ must be produced in key brain cells. A) neurotransmitters B) hormones C) proteins D) neurofibrillary tangles
15. _____ has been found to be caused by a slow-acting virus, and this has lent some weight to the viral theory of schizophrenia. A) Parkinson's disease B) Huntington's disease C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D) Pick's disease
16. To definitely confirm a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease, you must obtain: A) a MRI. B) a blood test. C) an autopsy. D) psychoneurological assessment batteries.
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17. _____ is an explanation for Alzheimer's disease that suggests that changes in aging brain cells may trigger an autoimmune response that leads to the disease. A) Viral theory B) Autoimmune theory C) Genetic theory D) Biological theory
18. A friend confides that his father has late-onset Alzheimer's disease and he is concerned about developing the disease in the future. He asks if there is a biological test he can take to determine his risk. Based on current research, the BEST response is: A) “You should have blood work done. If you have high levels of zinc or lead, you have a 50 percent greater risk of developing Alzheimer's disease.” B) “You can have genetic testing done on your father. If he has beta-amyloid precursor protein or presenilin protein, there is a significant chance you will develop Alzheimer's as well.” C) “There are no definitive tests today, but early research shows that brain scanning combined with biological tests may be of value in the future.” D) “Researchers have confirmed that the only biomarkers of Alzheimer's disease are neurofibrillary tangles and senile plaques, which can be confirmed only after death.”
19. Which has NOT been associated with helping prevent or delay the onset of Alzheimer's disease? A) aspirin B) Advil C) estrogen D) Motrin
20. Which statement is true regarding the long-term care of older adults? A) Improved drug treatments have substantially reduced the need for permanent placement of older adults. B) There are too few residential facilities available to meet the needs of the aging population. C) Most older adults receive government subsidies to pay for their care. D) Most health plans today do not provide adequate coverage of costs.
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Answer Key 1. D 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. D 6. D 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. B 11. C 12. B 13. D 14. C 15. C 16. C 17. B 18. C 19. A 20. D
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1. Which statement is true of older women and men? A) The number of older men and women is about the same. B) Older women outnumber older men by 3 to 2. C) Older men outnumber older women by 5 to 1. D) Older men are more likely to live to the age of 100 than older women.
2. Which statement is NOT true of the oldest old, or those older than 100? A) They are on average more healthy, clearheaded, and agile than those in their 80s and early 90s. B) Many are still employed. C) Many travel more than they did in their 80s and early 90s. D) Many are still sexually active.
3. Which group has the highest rate of depression? A) older men B) older women C) younger adults D) aged persons who live in nursing homes
4. Which statement is true with regard to suicide and the elderly? A) Elderly women who have no children have the highest suicide rate of all groups in the United States. B) The suicide rate for the elderly is lower than the overall suicide rate in the United States, because the elderly are more robust and able to deal with stressors more effectively. C) Doctors have found that depression and suicide are unrelated in the elderly, as medical complications are the primary source of suicidality. D) The rate of suicide for the elderly is higher than that of young people and is often related to depression.
5. Which group of older persons has the highest rate of problem drinking? A) men living alone B) married women C) older persons admitted to general and mental hospitals D) patients in nursing homes
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6. Laura is diagnosed with new-onset schizophrenia at age 67. How common is this? A) Uncommon; it is unusual for new cases of schizophrenia to develop later in life. B) Uncommon; schizophrenia most commonly occurs in men. C) Common; although the rate of new cases later in life is less compared with early adulthood, it is still fairly common. D) Common; new cases of schizophrenia spike after age 65.
7. Nathan experiences gaps in his everyday memory and has other cognitive problems. No organic cause has been identified. Nathan MOST likely has a: A) cognitive disorder. B) dissociative disorder. C) pervasive developmental disorder. D) dementia disorder.
8. Studies report that incorrect diagnoses of delirium in older people may contribute to: A) social withdrawal. B) death. C) depression. D) avolition.
9. The most common form of neurocognitive disorder is: A) prion disease. B) vascular dementia. C) Alzheimer's disease. D) Pick's disease.
10. Based on information in the DSM-5, which is NOT a part of a diagnosis of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease? A) The person meets all criteria for major or mild neurocognitive disorder. B) Memory impairment is a prominent feature. C) Symptoms are not due to other types of disorders or medical problems. D) Symptoms must contain behavioral difficulties.
11. Drugs used to treat Alzheimer's disease affect two neurotransmitters in the brain: glutamate and: A) acetylcholine. B) dopamine. C) serotonin. D) GABA.
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12. The _____ explanation or theory for Alzheimer's disease is linked to the resemblance of Alzheimer's disease to Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. A) viral B) toxicity C) autoimmune D) genetic
13. The symptoms of vascular neurocognitive disorder: A) develop slowly. B) begin suddenly. C) are silent. D) develop in the same way as those for Alzheimer's disease.
14. _____ is an inherited progressive disease in which memory problems worsen over time, along with personality changes, mood difficulties, and movement problems such as severe twitching and spasms. A) Parkinson's disease B) Pick's disease C) Huntington's disease D) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
15. _____ is a rare disorder that affects the frontal and temporal lobes and has a clinical picture similar to that of Alzheimer's disease. A) Huntington's disease B) Pick's disease C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D) Parkinson's disease
16. The primary caregivers for MOST individuals with Alzheimer's disease are: A) in-home private nurses. B) long-term care providers. C) close relatives. D) assisted-living staff.
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17. Clinicians now recognize that one of the most important aspects of treating Alzheimer's disease and other forms of neurocognitive disorder is to focus on: A) behavioral interventions that restore lost memories. B) the emotional needs of the caregivers. C) providing constantly rotating medications so that neurotransmitters do not become habituated to one particular pharmaceutical. D) restricting the patient's new encounters so that new memories do not further impair the retrieval of previously stored memories.
18. Alanna's father has Alzheimer's disease, and she recently moved him into an assisted-living facility. Based on current research, what effect is a possible positive result of this change? A) decreased systemic inflammation B) improved agility C) improved enjoyment of life D) decreased neurofibrillary tangles 19. “Is there anything behavioral I can do to reduce my risk of developing Alzheimer's disease?” a friend asks. The response supported by current research is, “Yes, you should: A) exercise.” B) stop smoking.” C) consume more omega-3 fatty acids.” D) avoid taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.”
20. At any given time in the United States, only about _____ percent of the entire elderly population live in nursing homes. A) 4 B) 13 C) 30 D) 50
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Answer Key 1. B 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. D 6. A 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. D 11. A 12. A 13. B 14. C 15. B 16. C 17. B 18. C 19. A 20. A
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Chapter 19
1. Define criminal commitment. How do the two forms of criminal commitment discussed in the text differ?
2. How does criminal commitment differ from civil commitment?
3. Explain the verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity based on the M'Naghten rule, irresistible impulse test, Durham test, and American Law Institute test. Give an example of a case in which each may be applied. (The case may be fictional.)
4. Discuss three distinct criticisms of the insanity defense.
5. What other verdicts are available to a defendant other than not guilty by reason of insanity?
6. Using research to support your answers, describe whether mental disorders may or may not be a risk factor for violence. Then, discuss the challenges in predicting who will commit violent acts.
7. Imagine that you are a defense attorney arguing against civil commitment for your client. Based on text material, describe three different reasons you could give the judge for not committing your client.
8. Based on law established and interpreted by the U.S. Supreme Court, list the major rights to treatment that people committed to mental institutions have.
9. List and briefly explain the seven major points in the American Psychological Association's code of ethics for mental health professionals as they apply to clinical work. What is the overall objective of a code of ethics?
10. An employer wants to address the high level of stress employees are reporting. Discuss two types of mental health services that would be appropriate in a workplace situation and briefly describe both.
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Answer Key 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
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1. A person who is found to be mentally unstable either at the time of the crime or at the time of the trial is generally sent to an institution for treatment in a process called _____.
2. The requirement that a person must be able to know right from wrong to be convicted of a crime is known as the _____.
3. The idea that a person was not guilty by reason of insanity if the unlawful act was the product of a mental disease or mental defect was based on the _____.
4. Dissatisfaction with the M'Naghten rule led to another interpretation that focused on whether the defendant was able to control his or her actions. This was known as the _____ test.
5. Today the MOST frequent diagnosis of defendants who are acquitted of a crime by reason of insanity is _____.
6. Dan White, who killed two prominent San Francisco politicians in 1978, pleaded a version of the insanity defense that portrayed his mental instability as an extenuating circumstance. This is called pleading guilty with _____ capacity.
7. Generally, people can be committed to a mental hospital against their will if a judgment is made that they are mentally ill and gravely disabled. If no criminal act is involved, the procedure is called _____.
8. One criticism of civil commitment procedures of people with mental disorders centers around the accuracy of the assessment of their _____.
9. In a landmark court case, _____, a federal court ruled that the state was constitutionally obligated to provide therapy for individuals who had been civilly committed. This case supported the individual's right to treatment.
10. A patient in a state mental hospital does not want to receive electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). This reflects the patient's right to _____.
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11. There has been much debate about permitting psychologists to carry out one of the few remaining activities that has until now been restricted to psychiatrists, which is _____.
12. Confidentiality between a therapist and a client may be broken due to the therapist's responsibility and _____.
13. Programs made available by employers to provide services for their employees' moderate mental health problems before they become serious are called _____.
14. Before therapy could begin, the therapist had to submit her plan for therapy to the insurance company for approval. Her client was approved for eight 1-hour sessions. This insurance company offers a(n) _____ program.
15. Research indicates that today's technology is helping produce a possible new pattern of abnormal behavior characterized by excessive and dysfunctional levels of texting, e-mailing, and use of pornography. This pattern is known as _____.
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Answer Key 1. criminal commitment 2. M'Naghten rule 3. Durham test 4. irresistible impulse 5. schizophrenia 6. diminished 7. civil commitment 8. dangerousness 9. Wyatt v. Stickney 10. refuse treatment 11. prescribing medication 12. duty to protect 13. employee assistance programs 14. managed care 15. Internet use disorder
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1. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be true regarding the psychological dysfunction of an individual? A) It is influenced—sometimes caused—by societal and social factors. B) It affects the lives of relatives, friends, and acquaintances. C) It can affect the well-being and rights of people the person does not know. D) It commonly occurs in isolation.
2. The intersections between the mental health field and the legal and judicial systems are collectively referred to as: A) forensic psychology. B) the U.S. legal system. C) scientific law. D) legal psychology.
3. Which would a forensic psychologist NOT be likely to do? A) write legislation to regulate the practice of psychology in the courts B) testify in criminal or civil proceedings C) research questions pertinent to trials D) profile serial killers
4. If someone is interested in pursuing a career in a field that combined mental health and the legal and judicial systems, you should direct that person toward: A) forensic psychology. B) behavioral neuroscience. C) medical science. D) neurology.
5. Courts ask for mental health professionals to help determine if defendants are: A) responsible for the crimes they commit and capable of defending themselves in court. B) telling the truth or covering for someone else who really committed the crime. C) able to serve as their own counsel (lawyer) and educated regarding the law. D) in need of medical treatment.
6. If a court decides that a defendant is mentally unstable, the defendant will: A) not be tried for the crime. B) not be punished in the usual way. C) be sentenced to jail time without a trial. D) be committed to a mental hospital for the rest of his or her life.
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7. John was actively hallucinating and experiencing delusions during the time of his trial. He is MOST likely to be: A) judged not guilty of the crime by reason of insanity. B) judged not guilty of the crime due to severe mental instability. C) committed for treatment until he improves enough to be released. D) committed for treatment until he improves enough to defend himself.
8. Defendants who are judged mentally unstable at the time when they are said to have committed crimes are MOST likely to: A) be judged to be faking or using a legal loophole to get out of their crimes. B) be judged not guilty by reason of insanity. C) be committed to a mental hospital until they are able to defend themselves. D) fail to rely on testimony of mental health professionals.
9. Criminal commitment is a legal process by which people are: A) found guilty of a crime but mentally ill. B) found guilty of a crime but developmentally disabled. C) accused of a crime and sent to a psychiatric institution for mental health treatment. D) accused of a crime and unable to cooperate in mental health treatment.
10. Which person would never have to stand trial for a crime he or she might have committed? A) one judged not guilty by reason of insanity B) one judged mentally unstable at the time of the trial C) one unable to assist in his or her defense at the time of the trial D) one who had experienced criminal commitment
11. What must be true before a person may be tried for a crime and potentially found guilty? A) The person must have normal intelligence. B) The person must be a citizen of the United States. C) The person must not act in a bizarre way in court. D) The person must be capable of helping to defending himself or herself in court.
12. Who makes the final decision as to whether a person may be tried by the judicial system? A) the courts B) a panel of psychiatrists C) a panel of psychologists D) a court-appointed psychologist or psychiatrist
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13. If a person accused of a crime is found not guilty by reason of insanity, he or she is committed to a psychiatric facility for treatment. This is called: A) 2 PCs. B) incarceration. C) civil commitment. D) criminal commitment.
14. A man killed a stranger in a fit of rage when he heard voices telling him that the stranger was about to destroy the Earth and must be stopped. The killer is likely to be sent to a mental institution because: A) no crime was committed. B) he was mentally unstable at the time of the crime. C) a person who commits such a crime must be insane. D) he was mentally unstable at the time of the trial and unable to defend himself.
15. A man got into a fight and killed his opponent. When he went to trial, he had a mental breakdown, did not know where he was, and was unable to answer questions. He is likely to be sent to a mental institution because: A) he had a mental disorder. B) no crime was committed. C) he was mentally unstable at the time of the crime. D) he was mentally unstable at the time of the trial and unable to defend himself.
16. The definition of insanity used in legal cases is written by: A) psychologists. B) criminologists. C) legislators. D) judges.
17. In using the insanity plea, the burden of proof to prove insanity rests with the: A) court. B) defendant. C) prosecutor. D) legislature.
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18. The version of the insanity defense that declares that a person cannot be held responsible for his or her actions if those actions were the result of mental disease or mental defect is called the: A) Durham test. B) M'Naghten rule. C) organic deficiency test. D) irresistible impulse test. 19. “I'm sorry I did that. I didn't know it was wrong,” is MOST consistent with the: A) Durham test. B) irresistible impulse test. C) American Law Institute test. D) M'Naghten rule.
20. A man killed another man with whom he was fighting. At his trial he claimed that he did not know what he was doing because he was drunk. Under which insanity standard might he be found not guilty by reason of insanity? A) Durham test B) M'Naghten rule C) organic deficiency test D) irresistible impulse test
21. The _____ is a legal test that holds people to be insane at the time they committed a crime if their act was the result of a mental disorder. A) Durham test B) M'Naghten rule C) organic deficiency test D) irresistible impulse test
22. A man beat another man nearly to death. In court the assailant claimed that he was forced to do what he did. He just exploded and was not in control of himself. Under which insanity standard might he be found not guilty by reason of insanity? A) Durham test B) M'Naghten rule C) organic deficiency test D) irresistible impulse test
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23. What is the irresistible impulse test? A) a psychological test looking to measure impulse control B) a test to see if a defendant is fit to stand trial C) a legal test that hold people to be insane at the time they committed a crime if they were driven to do so by mental illness D) a legal test that holds people to be insane at the time they committed a crime if they were driven to do so by an uncontrollable “fit of passion”
24. A person with alcohol use disorder got into a bar fight and killed his opponent. Which legal test would MOST likely have been used to find him not guilty by reason of insanity? A) Durham test B) American Law Institute guidelines C) M'Naghten rule D) irresistible impulse test
25. The burden of proof in an insanity case is usually: A) on the defense attorneys to prove the defendant is insane. B) on the prosecution attorneys to prove the defendant is sane. C) on the defense for federal cases and on the prosecution for most state cases. D) on the defense for most state cases and on the prosecution for federal cases.
26. Suffering from a psychophysiological disorder such as headaches, alcoholism, and substance abuse might make one eligible for an insanity defense under the: A) M'Naghten rule. B) irresistible impulse test. C) Durham test. D) American Law Institute test.
27. If a man walked in on his wife in bed with his best friend and killed both of them in a fit of passion, that man may be eligible for an insanity defense under the: A) M'Naghten rule. B) irresistible impulse test. C) Durham test. D) American Law Institute test.
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28. If a person with paranoid schizophrenia committed murder and was not able to control his or her actions and follow the law, that person would NOT be eligible for an insanity defense under the: A) Durham test. B) American Law Institute test. C) irresistible impulse test. D) M'Naghten rule.
29. Which case caused the uproar and outrage that led to a return to the M'Naghten rule in determining insanity? A) Sirhan Sirhan's assassination of Robert F. Kennedy B) Oliver North's indictment in the Iran-Contra scandal C) John Hinckley's attempted assassination of Ronald Reagan D) a Bulgarian zealot's attempted assassination of Pope John Paul II
30. In response to a recommendation by the American Psychiatric Association regarding insanity pleas, current federal practice is MOST like the: A) M'Naghten rule. B) irresistible impulse test. C) Durham test. D) American Law Institute test.
31. Which person is MOST likely to be acquitted by reason of insanity? A) a non-Hispanic white American with schizophrenia B) a woman with a substance use disorder C) an older person who commits a nonviolent crime D) a person who has never been hospitalized for mental illness or arrested
32. The MOST common diagnosis of those found not guilty by reason of insanity is: A) depression. B) schizophrenia. C) bipolar disease. D) sociopathy or psychopathy.
33. The legal system and the scientific community generally see _____ as fundamentally different. A) the degree of free will people have regarding their behavior B) the definition of mental illness C) the level of equality between men and women D) dangerousness
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34. The fact that lawyers can often find experts who convincingly argue both sides of a question suggests that: A) scientific knowledge about abnormal behavior is incomplete and uncertain. B) there is no basis for their testimony. C) the field has made great strides in its ability to predict abnormal behavior. D) people really do have free will.
35. Which is NOT a criticism of the insanity defense? A) In a given case, the testimony of clinicians is often not in agreement. B) Clinicians are biased to assume that people have free will and are responsible for their actions. C) Clinicians are trying to evaluate the defendant's state of mind during a time that is long past. D) The insanity defense allows dangerous people to escape punishment.
36. The most common, and perhaps the most serious, objection to the insanity plea is that: A) dangerous people go free. B) people get jail rather than treatment. C) it shortens the time that a guilty person must serve. D) it prevents the punishment of people with mental disorders.
37. About what percentage of defendants in the United States are found not guilty by reason of insanity in a typical year? A) less than 1 percent B) 5 percent C) 25 percent D) 40 percent
38. Currently in the United States, patients who are criminally committed to a mental hospital can be released: A) only after they have been hospitalized an amount of time equal to the time they would have spent in prison. B) only when they are judged to be no longer dangerous. C) when they are no longer considered insane. D) after they have spent time in a halfway house.
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39. The reason that offenders are being released from mental hospitals earlier and earlier is the result of: A) the increasing effectiveness of drug therapy. B) the inability to accurately diagnose. C) the overcrowding of mental hospitals. D) the pleas of insanity that are overturned.
40. What is the MOST difficult question for a forensic psychologist to answer correctly? A) Was the defendant sane at the time of the crime? B) What is the mental disorder that the defendant has now? C) Would treatment be beneficial for the defendant? D) Was what the defendant is alleged to have done wrong?
41. If a person with a mental illness committed murder and was convicted and sent to prison, but was also given treatment while in prison, that person probably lived in a state that had a: A) guilty but mentally ill option. B) guilty with diminished capacity option. C) not guilty by reason of insanity option. D) guilty by reason of insanity option.
42. In the case of Foucha v. Louisiana, the Supreme Court ruled that the only acceptable basis for determining the release of hospitalized offenders is whether they are still: A) mentally ill. B) insane. C) dangerous. D) unable to assist with their defense.
43. According to Foucha v. Louisiana, hospitalized offenders can be institutionalized only if they are: A) insane. B) dangerous. C) substance abusers. D) without resources.
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44. Some states have adopted a verdict of guilty but mentally ill. The sentence that must be given to those so convicted is: A) jail with treatment if necessary. B) prison with mandatory treatment. C) jail and treatment until sane and then release. D) hospitalization and treatment until sane and then release.
45. What can a person who is found to be guilty but also mentally ill expect? A) no prison term and treatment in a mental health facility B) a prison term with the recommendation for treatment C) a prison term with no treatment D) no prison term and no treatment
46. If a person with a mental illness committed murder but was convicted of committing manslaughter, that person probably lived in a state that had a: A) guilty but mentally ill option. B) guilty with diminished capacity option. C) not guilty by reason of insanity option. D) guilty by reason of insanity option.
47. In which defense is mental instability considered an extenuating circumstance in a crime? A) guilty but dangerous B) guilty but mentally ill C) guilty by reason of insanity D) guilty with diminished capacity
48. Many states have a category of mentally disordered sex offenders, which assigns moral responsibility to the offender. This category, which is related to the insanity defense, is based on the premise that: A) most sex offenders suffer from schizophrenia. B) sexual offenses, such as pedophilia, reflect an underlying mental disorder. C) sex offenders should receive treatment rather than punishment, because their crimes are so offensive to society. D) sexual offenses are difficult to prove, and requiring a guilty verdict would allow too many offenders to avoid punishment.
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49. The current trend in legislation and treatment regarding people who commit sex crimes and are also mentally ill is to: A) emphasize treatment and deemphasize imprisonment. B) require both punishment for the crime and treatment. C) emphasize the rights of the sex criminal. D) require restitution rather than punishment.
50. Recently states have begun to abolish their sex offender laws. Among the reasons they are doing this is: A) racial bias can affect the application of the law. B) courts are becoming more sensitive to the rights of sex offenders. C) the public wants sex offenders to have more rights. D) clinicians are better able to predict who is sexually dangerous.
51. One difficulty with the mentally disordered sex offender classification is that: A) it fails to protect sex offenders from the abuse they often receive in prison. B) it does not allow for treatment in a mental health facility for sex offenders. C) racial bias appears to affect who is given this classification. D) it allows sex offenders to escape a criminal record.
52. Given the changes in sex-offender laws, the emphasis of concern appears to be swinging toward: A) protecting children. B) sympathizing with sex offenders. C) non-Hispanic white Americans. D) states' rights.
53. A person who is accused of a crime cannot be convicted if he or she is mentally unstable either at the time of the crime or at the time of the trial. This minimum standard of competence to stand trial is important to ensure that the person: A) knows whether he or she is guilty. B) may argue coherently on the witness stand. C) understands the charges and can work with his or her lawyer. D) can show the jury his or her state of mind at the time of the crime.
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54. In the United States, members of racial minority groups, compared to non-Hispanic white Americans, are: A) less likely to be found incompetent to stand trial and equally likely to be evaluated as an inpatient. B) less likely to be found incompetent to stand trial and more likely to be evaluated as an inpatient. C) more likely to be found incompetent to stand trial and equally likely to be evaluated as an inpatient. D) more likely to be found incompetent to stand trial and more likely to be evaluated as an inpatient.
55. Compared to non-Hispanic white defendants, when racial/ethnic minority defendants are evaluated for competence to stand trial, they are: A) less likely to be found incompetent to stand trial. B) more likely to be found incompetent to stand trial. C) more likely to plead insanity, versus mentally competent. D) more likely to plead mentally incompetent, versus insanity.
56. The majority of criminals institutionalized for psychological treatment in the United States are there because: A) they were judged mentally incompetent. B) they were judged not guilty by reason of insanity. C) prison officials decided they needed treatment. D) their trials resulted in hung juries.
57. According to studies regarding psychological disorders and prisoners, which is an accurate statement? A) Psychological disorders are more common in prison populations than in the general population. B) Psychological disorders are less common in prison populations than in the general population. C) Psychological disorders are as common in prison populations as in the general population. D) Psychological disorders do not exist in prison populations.
58. Civil commitment is for a person who has: A) committed a crime but is judged not guilty by reason of insanity. B) committed a crime but is judged not able to tell right from wrong. C) voluntarily sought treatment for mental problems. D) been forced to undergo mental health treatment.
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59. A person who had a serious mental illness and was in need of treatment could, nevertheless, not be civilly committed unless that person was also: A) a danger to himself or herself. B) a danger to others. C) a danger to his or her parents. D) a danger either to himself or herself, or to others.
60. The aspect of state responsibility that promotes and protects the interests of individuals even from themselves is called: A) police power. B) parens patriae. C) civil commitment. D) emergency commitment.
61. The aspect of state responsibility that promotes and protects the interests of individuals from dangerous people is called: A) police power. B) parens patriae. C) civil commitment. D) emergency commitment.
62. The principle of parens patriae (parent of the country) permits the state to make decisions that promote an individual's best interest. It has been used to support the process of: A) police power. B) civil commitment. C) criminal commitment. D) guilt by reason of insanity.
63. Parens patriae refers to the state's right to make decisions that are in the individual's best interest and to the idea that police power gives the state the right to protect society from harm. These two principles have been used to support: A) the use of the insanity defense. B) the process of criminal commitment. C) the process of involuntary commitment. D) the use of the diminished-capacity defense.
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64. If parents go to a mental health professional and seek to have their son committed, and the mental health professional agrees and involuntarily commits the son without a hearing or the opportunity for the son to contest the decision, we know that the son is probably: A) experiencing a minor rather than major mental disorder. B) also developmentally disabled. C) experiencing repeated mental problems. D) a minor.
65. An arrangement called _____ prevents the imprisonment of a disturbed person with minor charges against them and instead gives him or her community mental health care. A) civil commitment B) jail diversion C) telemental health D) flexible law
66. In Addington v. Texas, a young man fought being involuntarily committed, arguing that the standard for showing that a person is mentally ill was unclear and unfair. This case resulted in the courts setting a standard that commitment: A) requires clear and convincing proof. B) must be necessary to avoid danger to others. C) requires conviction beyond a reasonable doubt. D) must be necessary to relieve the family of the burden to treat.
67. For a person to be involuntarily committed, the mental health professional must provide clear and convincing proof of mental illness: A) beyond a reasonable doubt. B) with 75 percent certainty. C) with 51 percent certainty. D) based on two of three assessment instruments.
68. According to the U.S. Supreme Court, the standard for clear and convincing proof is: A) total certainty. B) 75 percent certainty. C) equivalent to beyond a reasonable doubt. D) equivalent to near-total certainty.
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69. In an emergency, if a person is clearly suicidal or homicidal because of hallucinations and delusions, that person can be involuntarily committed by: A) the person's parents. B) a mental health professional in the emergency room. C) the police. D) two physicians.
70. In the past, people with mental disorders were less likely than those without mental disorders to commit violent or dangerous acts. Why do we think that is? A) Many more were hospitalized in the past than are now. B) The newer antipsychotic drugs do not control violence as well as older drugs did. C) Fewer people with mental disorders are living in the community now than in the past. D) Those with less severe mental disorders are showing an increase in violence these days.
71. Temporary commitment in an emergency situation is possible if: A) the family requests it. B) both parents request it. C) the M'Naghten rule is applied. D) two physicians certify it (two-physician certificates or 2 PCs).
72. You received two-physician certificates. This means you were: A) successful in involuntarily committing a child. B) involuntarily committed. C) considered a sexual predator. D) diagnosed as “incurable.”
73. What is the basis for making a 2-PC determination to commit on an emergency basis? A) The patient must be violent. B) The patient must be a danger to himself or herself, or others. C) The patient must be a child. D) The patient must be involved in a criminal proceeding.
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74. Which statement BEST describes the relationship between violent behavior and severe mental disorder? A) People with severe mental disorders are much less likely to commit violent acts than those without mental disorders. B) There is no difference between those with and those without severe mental disorders in the rate of violent acts. C) People with severe mental disorders are much more likely to commit violent acts than those without mental disorders. D) People with severe mental disorders are somewhat more likely to commit violent acts than those without mental disorders.
75. Which statement does NOT describe how well mental health professionals predict dangerousness? A) They are better at accurately predicting short-term than long-term risks of dangerousness. B) They tend to overestimate the likelihood that a patient will be violent. C) They are wrong more often than they are right when predicting long-term violence. D) They are better at accurately predicting long-term than short-term risks of dangerousness.
76. Based on _____, imprisoning people who suffered from drug addiction might violate the Constitution's ban on cruel and unusual punishment. A) Addington v. Texas B) Wyatt v. Stickney C) O'Connor v. Donaldson D) Robinson v. California
77. Which statement accurately reflects current trends in civil commitment? A) Many people who could be described as “social deviants” (drug addicts, check bouncers, counterculture adherents) are committed. B) Fewer people are institutionalized through civil commitment procedures today than in the past C) Today more people are institutionalized through civil commitment than ever before. D) States are currently moving to make commitment regulations and standards even stricter.
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78. The Wyatt v. Stickney decision forced state hospitals to provide: A) care in a mental patient's home community. B) public advocates for mental patients. C) adequate treatment. D) periodic review of treatment plans and progress for mental patients.
79. In the case of Wyatt v. Stickney, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that people who have been involuntarily committed have a right to: A) treatment. B) a hearing. C) a fair trial. D) periodic reviews of their status.
80. If you are involuntarily committed, you have the right to request that your records periodically be reviewed to determine if it is safe to release you. This request is possible because of: A) O'Connor v. Donaldson. B) Youngberg v. Romeo. C) Wyatt v. Stickney. D) the 2 PCs.
81. In recent years, public advocates for those with mental disorders have turned their attention to the rights of _____ to receive treatment. A) mental patients in hospitals B) medical patients in hospitals C) mental patients in the community D) nursing home residents
82. The focus of the Protection and Advocacy for Mentally Ill Individuals Act of 1986 was to: A) force the release of long-term committed people. B) set up an advocacy system to investigate possible abuse and neglect of the mentally ill. C) ensure the right of patients to refuse any and all treatment. D) require institutions to provide specific treatments for committed individuals.
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83. The recent cases that have increased the patient's right to refuse treatment have focused largely on the right to refuse: A) psychotherapy. B) civil commitment. C) biological treatments. D) any form of treatment.
84. Which is an example of the way patients' rights might interfere with patients' recovery (that is, an example of a time when patients' rights are not good for the patients)? A) The right to refuse medication may limit a patient's recovery. B) Payment for work done enhances token economy programs. C) The right to refuse medication helps lower treatment costs. D) Our present state of knowledge does not justify overriding a patient's decisions.
85. A patient is assigned to a community mental health center inpatient facility instead of a mental hospital. In this case, the decision-makers have applied the principle of: A) minimum wage. B) aftercare. C) community residence/group home. D) least restrictive environment.
86. Patients who perform work in mental institutions, particularly private institutions, are guaranteed _____ for that work. A) minimum wage B) aftercare C) community residence D) least restrictive environment
87. A group home is an example of: A) minimum wage. B) aftercare. C) community residence. D) least restrictive environment.
88. The issue underlying the dispute between psychiatrists and psychologists about prescription-prescribing privileges is: A) fear about malpractice suits. B) professional boundary issues. C) ethical concerns about patient safety. D) insurance company control over patient treatment.
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89. A lawsuit charging a therapist with improper conduct in the course of treatment is called a(n): A) favorable trial outcome. B) criminal case. C) malpractice suit. D) illegal selection procedure.
90. An important current distinction between psychologists and psychiatrists that is changing is that: A) psychologists use mental tests and psychiatrists do not. B) psychologists do psychotherapy and psychiatrists do not. C) psychiatrists prescribe drugs and psychologists may not. D) psychologists may order biological treatments and psychiatrists may not.
91. A practitioner has admitted a patient to a state hospital and has prescribed medication for that patient. The chances that the practitioner is a psychologist are: A) zero; psychologists cannot admit patients and cannot prescribe medication in any state. B) low; a few states allow psychologists to admit patients and to prescribe medication. C) moderate; some states allow psychologists to admit patients, and most states allow them to prescribe medication. D) moderate; most states allow psychologists to admit patients, but few states allow them to prescribe medication.
92. In the past 20 years or so, how has the authority of psychologists and psychiatrists to make decisions about things such as admitting patients and prescribing medication changed? A) Psychiatrists have been granted some authority previously held only by psychologists. B) Both psychiatrists and psychologists have been granted some authority previously held only by the other. C) Psychologists have been granted some authority previously held only by psychiatrists. D) Psychiatrist/psychologist authority has remained unchanged.
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93. Compared to past years, what has changed in the professional roles of psychologists and psychiatrists? A) There are more distinct lines between the work of psychologists and psychiatrists. B) Psychologists have less authority than in previous years. C) Only psychiatrists can admit people to psychiatric hospitals. D) Some psychologists are able to prescribe psychiatric medication.
94. A defendant is considering hiring a psychologist to help select a friendly jury for an upcoming trial. According to current research: A) this almost always results in a more favorable trial outcome. B) it is unclear whether a psychologist's judgment is more valid or accurate. C) selected jurors often feel a bias against people who enlist jury specialists. D) most jury specialists engage in illegal selection procedures.
95. Which question is an attorney MOST likely to ask his or her jury specialist? A) What approach should I take to get the jury to favor my side? B) Is my client competent to stand trial? C) Is eyewitness testimony accurate, according to psychological research? D) Should my client get sole custody of the children?
96. Research indicates that eyewitness testimony is: A) highly reliable. B) better for fleeting and unexpected events. C) impaired by events of the crime. D) not subject to the introduction of misinformation.
97. You have witnessed a crime and are testifying for the prosecution. What type of question should the defense attorney ask you to invalidate your testimony? A) one that requires you to retell the events from beginning to end B) one that uses inaccurate information in the question C) one that emphasizes the importance of correct eyewitness testimony D) one that asks you to remember only the important details
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98. Which is an accurate statement regarding the relationship between eyewitness testimony and how it is used in the legal system? A) Most juries are very skeptical of the accuracy of eyewitness testimony, for good reason. B) Confident witnesses are more likely to be believed but are probably no more accurate. C) Most juries believe eyewitnesses, and they are right. Eyewitnesses are very accurate. D) Confidence is directly related to accuracy. The more accurate the account is, the more confidence the person will display.
99. A lawyer defending a client whose DNA evidence supports his innocence even though an eyewitness puts the client at the scene of the crime: A) has a good case if she introduces evidence about the unreliability of eyewitness testimony. B) has some hope because those two kinds of evidence are about equally valid. C) should try to make a deal because juries simply don't accept DNA evidence. D) should point out to the jury that eyewitness testimony is unreliable, unless the witness is absolutely sure about what was seen.
100. You are watching a TV show in which police call in an expert to provide a psychological profile of the murderer, whose identity is unknown. If the show reflects reality, the profile given will be: A) very accurate; there are several characteristics all murderers have in common. B) reasonably accurate; there are several characteristics almost all murderers have in common. C) somewhat accurate; there are several characteristics that murderers often have in common. D) inaccurate; there are almost no characteristics that murderers often have in common.
101. Which is NOT true about profiling? A) Profile information needs to be combined with other more compelling clues. B) Profiling is based on traits shared by those who commit particular kinds of crimes. C) Profiling can be inaccurate. D) Profiling is realistically portrayed on most television shows.
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102. Which is NOT a characteristic of serial murderers? A) They are mostly male. B) They have average to high intelligence. C) They have empathy for their victims. D) They are skillful manipulators.
103. A _____ is a body of principles and rules for ethical behavior, designed to guide decisions and actions by members of a profession. A) code of ethics B) duty to protect C) right to treatment manual D) compassionate concern system
104. If a psychologist wanted to write a newspaper column on mental health issues in the community, what would that psychologist need to do to comply with professional ethical standards? A) Psychologists can't give advice in newspapers, only face to face. B) The psychologist would need to make sure the advice was based on sound research. C) The psychologist would have to be supervised by a psychiatrist who oversaw the work. D) The psychologist could not give information about medication in the articles.
105. Imagine that you are a therapist working on the border between the United States and Mexico but you don't speak Spanish. What is proper ethical behavior for you? A) acknowledge your limitations and seek further training B) pretend to be knowledgeable so as not to upset your clients C) ignore the potential influence of culture and language because the basic concerns of all people are the same D) continue to practice as you were originally taught
106. If Dr. Phil were a licensed psychologist, would he be ethically allowed to offer advice to people on television? A) No, psychologists can only offer advice to people who are ongoing clients. B) No, psychologists can only offer advice in newspapers but not on television. C) Yes, as long as he bases his advice on appropriate psychological practice. D) Yes, as long as he also sees the person for follow-up therapy.
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107. What is enhanced-interrogation? A) torture-based questioning B) clinical assessment questioning C) face-to-face interviewing D) compassionate concern
108. The American Psychological Association's code of ethics states that sexual relationships between a psychologist and client are: A) permitted if both parties agree. B) permitted as soon as treatment ends. C) prohibited only for therapeutic purposes. D) prohibited under almost all circumstances.
109. A psychologist wanted to accept a client with whom he had previously had a sexual relationship. According to ethical guidelines, the psychologist: A) would have to wait to see the woman until two years after the last time they had sex. B) would need to be especially sensitive, but could proceed. C) couldn't see the patient. D) could see the patient only if he were supervised by a woman therapist.
110. If you are the typical therapist, you have: A) had a sexual relationship with at least one client. B) never been sexually attracted to a client. C) had a sexual relationship with a client you were not attracted to. D) been sexually attracted to a client but not had a sexual relationship with a client.
111. The ethical principle of _____ dictates that certain professionals will not divulge the information they obtain from a client. A) confidentiality B) duty to protect C) right to treatment D) compassionate concern
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112. A landmark California court case, Tarasoff v. Regents of the University of California, dramatically affected the right to confidentiality between client and therapist. This case led to the conclusion that: A) confidentiality may never be broken, even if there is a clear danger to an identifiable person. B) a therapist must break the obligation of confidentiality if there is a clear danger to a specific identifiable person. C) confidentiality must not be broken simply to protect a person who may be in close proximity to an intended victim. D) a therapist must break the obligation of confidentiality if there is the potential that the person may hurt someone, even if a particular victim has not been identified.
113. Which principle is MOST likely to result in a conflict with the mental health professional's obligation to maintain confidentiality for the patient? A) the duty to protect B) the acknowledgement of the professional's limitations C) the prohibition against professionals having sex with patients D) the need for validity and accuracy in court testimony
114. The ethical principle of _____ requires a therapist to break confidentiality with a patient without the patient's consent if there is a fear that the patient will harm someone else. A) confidentiality B) duty to protect C) right to treatment D) compassionate concern
115. Psychologists are ethically bound to keep material about their patients confidential EXCEPT: A) when someone is in danger. B) when writing up a case study for a journal article. C) when discussing the case as part of a college class. D) when discussing the patient with a spouse.
116. The current code of ethics declares that a therapist should break confidentiality even without the client's consent: A) never. B) only when the client might cause self-harm. C) when the client or another person is threatened. D) when it is deemed necessary to protect another person's property.
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117. If a therapist has a client who is threatening to kill another person, the therapist must inform that other person because of the ethical principle of: A) confidentiality. B) right to know. C) duty to protect. D) sunshine.
118. In the workplace, psychological problems are estimated to contribute MOST to: A) absenteeism. B) poor employee communication. C) work terminations. D) promotion denials.
119. Which is MOST likely to have an impact on job performance in terms of accidents, damage, and absenteeism? A) demanding bosses B) high expectations C) mood swings D) stress
120. Mental health services made available by a place of business are called: A) managed care. B) group therapy sessions. C) telemental health services. D) employee assistance programs.
121. If you were having marital problems that were affecting your work and your employer made mental health services available to you to deal with those problems, your employer would be providing you with: A) services mandated by law. B) an employee assistance program. C) a peer review system. D) a wellness plan.
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122. A man is having trouble coping with his financial problems and is getting depressed about them. He seeks out someone at his company who helps by counseling employees on such issues and tries to address problems before they get worse. He is seeking help from: A) stress-reduction seminars. B) problem-solving seminars. C) an employee assistance program. D) an outpatient counseling center.
123. If you were an air traffic controller and your employer required you to attend a seminar on dealing in healthy ways with stress, you would be receiving: A) individual therapy. B) an employee assistance program. C) health maintenance insurance. D) a problem-solving seminar.
124. How much is spent on government funding for services to people with psychological disorders today? A) $5 million B) $52 million C) $150 million D) $152 billion
125. Today, the cost of direct mental health services is mostly paid by: A) individual patients and their private insurance companies. B) the government. C) the military. D) a combination of federal programs.
126. The type of system that many health insurance companies have set up to try to curtail expenses associated with providing treatment is referred to as a(n): A) managed care system. B) private insurance company. C) employee assistance program. D) health maintenance organization.
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127. A therapist who is worried that her clients will receive short-term care rather than more promising long-term treatment and that confidential treatment reports will be read by others is concerned about: A) employee assistance programs. B) stress inoculation treatment. C) managed care programs. D) problem-solving seminars.
128. Which is the BEST example of mental health parity? A) Psychologists and psychiatrists can all prescribe psychiatric medication. B) Notes written by clinicians are reviewed by other clinicians. C) Your insurance covers medical and mental illnesses equally. D) Men and women are treated equally when it comes to diagnoses.
129. Some insurance plans seek to control expenses through the use of _____, in which clinicians periodically review a client's treatment program and recommend that insurance benefits be stopped. A) mental health parity B) government funding C) managed care D) peer review systems
130. Which entity has the goal of reducing the cost of mental health services? A) mental health parity B) government funding of health care C) managed care D) professional boundaries
131. The preference insurance companies show for short-term mental health services, by default, favors: A) those with more severe disorders. B) psychodynamic over cognitive-behavioral therapies. C) drug treatment over talk therapies. D) psychologists over psychiatrists.
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132. The rise of managed care programs for treating mental disorders has resulted in: A) a focus on maintaining confidentiality at all costs. B) a preference for short-term rather than long-term improvement. C) less detail about the patient being shared with fewer insurance employees. D) return of treatment decisions to the therapists rather than to the insurance companies.
133. Which method of non-face-to-face communication is a teenager LEAST likely to do with friends on a daily basis? A) text B) talk on a cell phone C) make a land-line call D) message or comment on social media
134. Which is the BEST way to describe the growth of social media use in the past five years? A) slow but steady B) older people catching up with younger people C) declining D) fast
135. Some experts have suggested the next revision of the DSM should include a new disorder describing excessive and dysfunctional tweeting, texting, blogging, and Internet shopping called: A) social networking disorder. B) Internet exhibitionism. C) isolationistic disorder. D) Internet use disorder.
136. Which opinion about participants in social networking sites is BEST supported by available research? A) There really aren't that many participants. B) Shy participants are encouraged to make more face-to-face friends. C) Even everyday social networking can contribute to psychological dysfunction. D) Participants have an increased sense of well-being.
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137. Which do NOT belong together in terms of Internet use and potential behavioral disorders? A) social media site postings and bullying B) social networking and peer pressure C) constant texting and tweeting, and attention problems D) e-mail use and depression
138. The use of various technologies to deliver mental health services without the therapist being physically present is called: A) therapy. B) Internet addiction. C) telemental health. D) social networking.
139. Which of the following is an example of telemental health technologies? A) group therapy B) therapy offered by computer interaction C) therapy to treat Internet addiction D) online social networking
140. Currently, which is the BEST conclusion one can draw about telemental health? A) The use of technology in therapy is clearly lagging behind its use in other areas. B) The American Psychological Association advises against the use of telemental health techniques. C) There aren't enough controlled studies to fully assess telemental health's impact. D) We will probably be seeing less rather than more of telemental health in the future.
141. How does telemental health differ from traditional therapy? A) Quality control is not a concern. B) It limits the number of people who can access it. C) The therapist has more schooling and training. D) The therapist is not physically present.
142. Kaylin lives in a rural area and there are no psychologists working in her community. She wants treatment for her anxiety, so she will be meeting with a therapist over videoconferencing. What type of treatment will she be getting? A) telemental health B) traditional psychoanalysis C) online support D) Internet-based support
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143. Dr. Subban is an expert in social anxiety disorder and has decided to create a Web site sharing current research on the topic. What is a likely benefit of this Web site? A) The public will be better informed on the topic of social anxiety disorder. B) People will start to self-diagnose instead of seeking costly treatment. C) Dr. Subban will make a lot more money. D) The Website will help people so much they won't need to seek therapy.
144. What is an antitreatment network? A) an online site that tries to guide people away from seeking help for psychological problems B) a support group that does not have a mental health professional present C) telemental healthcare D) social media that focuses on getting people psychological care
145. Which is NOT a typical concern that psychologists have regarding Internet support groups? A) Along with accurate information about mental health on the Internet, there is also a lot of bad information to be found there. B) There is a distressing number of sites that encourage abnormal behavior (e.g., pro-suicide and pro-anorexia sites). C) There is a lack of demand for the therapies currently available. D) It is difficult to maintain quality with so many people offering online support.
146. The MOST common reason therapists seek counseling is to address: A) a physical problem caused by stress. B) suicidal ideation. C) depression or anxiety. D) sexual dysfunction.
147. A recent national mental health survey of psychotherapists found that more than three-quarters of them reported being in therapy themselves at least once and that they: A) are likely to seek therapy because they feel inadequate. B) seek therapy for the same problems that affect other people. C) are more likely to seek help for depression than are other people. D) experience more anxiety disorders than other people because they feel obligated to appear well-adjusted.
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148. The biggest fear therapists have regarding their patients is that a patient will: A) predispose others to mental illness. B) criticize their work. C) make a malpractice complaint. D) commit suicide.
149. What is the top reason people become a therapist? A) to help people B) to make a good salary C) to obtain professional autonomy D) to understand others
150. Which statement is an accurate conclusion one can draw about the mental health field? A) Mental health professionals are losing respect in society. B) Because of the growth and impact of the mental health profession in our society, it is important that we understand the profession's strengths and weaknesses. C) There is more isolation of the branches of mental health disciplines, and less cooperation across disciplines. D) Interconnectedness among various social institutions inevitably works to the advantage of patients.
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Answer Key 1. D 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. B 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. A 11. D 12. A 13. D 14. B 15. D 16. C 17. B 18. A 19. D 20. A 21. A 22. D 23. D 24. A 25. A 26. C 27. B 28. D 29. C 30. A 31. A 32. B 33. A 34. A 35. B 36. A 37. A 38. C 39. A 40. A 41. A 42. B 43. A 44. A
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45. B 46. B 47. D 48. B 49. B 50. A 51. C 52. A 53. C 54. D 55. B 56. C 57. A 58. D 59. D 60. B 61. A 62. B 63. C 64. D 65. B 66. A 67. B 68. B 69. D 70. A 71. D 72. B 73. B 74. D 75. D 76. D 77. B 78. C 79. A 80. A 81. C 82. B 83. C 84. A 85. D 86. A 87. C 88. B 89. C 90. C
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91. D 92. C 93. D 94. B 95. A 96. C 97. B 98. B 99. A 100. C 101. D 102. C 103. A 104. B 105. A 106. C 107. A 108. D 109. C 110. D 111. A 112. B 113. A 114. B 115. A 116. C 117. C 118. A 119. D 120. D 121. B 122. C 123. D 124. D 125. B 126. A 127. C 128. C 129. D 130. C 131. C 132. B 133. C 134. D 135. D 136. C
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137. D 138. C 139. B 140. C 141. D 142. A 143. A 144. A 145. C 146. C 147. B 148. D 149. A 150. B
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1. When people are judged mentally unstable at the time of their crimes and therefore innocent of wrongdoing, they are found to be: A) guilty but insane. B) not guilty by reason of insanity. C) incompetent to stand trial. D) guilty but mentally ill.
2. Tucker was found mentally unstable at the time of trial. This means it was ruled that Tucker: A) did not commit a crime. B) was not responsible for the crime he committed. C) was unable to understand the trial procedures and defend himself in court. D) was a danger to himself or others.
3. _____ is a legal test for insanity that holds people to be insane at the time they committed a crime if their act was the product of a mental disease or defect. A) American Law Institute B) Irresistible impulse C) Durham D) Hinckley
4. Studies have shown that the largest category of crimes for which people were acquitted on grounds of insanity was: A) murder. B) property crimes. C) physical assault. D) robbery.
5. Arlene has Type I schizophrenia and she has been arrested for physical assault in Kansas. Her family wants the attorney to plead insanity. Is this approach likely to be successful in this situation? A) Yes. The defendant has schizophrenia. B) Maybe. However, this plea defense is more successful for male defendants. C) Probably not. A verdict of guilty by reason of insanity is unusual for violent crimes. D) Probably not. Kansas has more or less eliminated the insanity plea.
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6. The most often heard criticism of the insanity defense is: A) clinicians disagree over the definition of legal insanity. B) people have free will and thus can resist the urge to commit violence. C) dangerous criminals escape punishment. D) the jury has to weigh the claims of opposing experts. 7. “Pleading guilty by reason of insanity is just a way for criminals to avoid punishment by feigning mental illness. It is an overused defense.” What is the MOST accurate response to this statement? A) “Research fully supports this. Up to 40 percent of violent criminals now try to use this defense, and more than half are found not guilty by reason of insanity.” B) “Insanity pleas are definitely becoming more common. However, most offenders who use this defense are truly ill.” C) “Insanity pleas are relatively uncommon. Only about 1 percent use this defense, and most are found guilty.” D) “Insanity pleas aren't allowed in more than 20 states now. You'll be seeing fewer and fewer of these pleas in the future.”
8. Which defense allows the consideration of a defendant's mental dysfunction as an extenuating circumstance that may lead to conviction of a lesser crime? A) not guilty by reason of insanity B) guilty but mentally ill C) guilty with diminished capacity D) guilty but insane
9. The primary difference between mentally disordered sex offender laws and sexually violent predator laws is that mentally disordered sex offender laws: A) apply to only certain sex offenders. B) require all offenders be imprisoned and then committed for a period of involuntary treatment. C) stipulate that all convicted offenders receive treatment while imprisoned. D) require offenders to receive treatment instead of imprisonment.
10. The _____ requirement is meant to ensure that defendants understand the charges they are facing and can work with their lawyers to prepare and conduct an adequate defense. A) Durham B) competence C) not guilty by reason of insanity D) M'Naghten
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11. Which U.S. Supreme Court case ruled that a mentally incompetent defendant cannot be indefinitely committed while awaiting a ruling of “competent to stand trial” but must be tried, transferred to a mental health facility under civil commitment procedures within a reasonable period of time, or set free? A) Jackson v. Indiana B) Dusky v. United States C) Kansas v. Hendricks D) Foucha v. Louisiana
12. People can be forced to undergo mental health treatment through a process known as: A) benevolent commitment. B) day treatment. C) civil commitment. D) habeas corpus.
13. According to the case of Addington v. Texas (1979), the level of proof needed for civil commitment is: A) discretionary with the judge. B) clear and convincing. C) a preponderance of the evidence. D) beyond reasonable doubt.
14. Mary Ellen is placed on an emergency commitment. What is the MOST likely limit of her commitment? A) 1 day B) 3 days C) 7 days D) 14 days
15. You are a physician in the emergency room when the police bring in a young man screaming, “Boffo told me to kill all of them, even the pretty ones.” You determine that there is underlying psychological disorder and that this young man is dangerous. Another physician agrees, and the two of you have the man committed against his will. This is an example of: A) emergency commitment. B) criminal commitment. C) outpatient civil commitment. D) evaluative commitment.
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16. Which was NOT mentioned as a criticism of civil commitments? A) People committed involuntarily do not typically respond well to therapy. B) Assessing dangerousness is difficult. C) The legal definitions of mental illness and dangerousness are vague. D) Civil commitments are unlawful under the U.S. Constitution.
17. Which statement is true regarding trends in civil commitments? A) The number of people institutionalized through civil commitment procedures has remained relatively unchanged since the 1960s. B) More people are institutionalized through civil commitment procedures today than in the past C) Fewer people are institutionalized through civil commitment procedures today than in the past. D) More African Americans are institutionalized through civil commitment procedures today than in the past.
18. A clinician prescribes psychotropic medications for a patient committed to a state mental hospital. The patient is refusing treatment. In this case, how likely is a court to rule in favor of the patient's right to refuse treatment? A) Very likely. State rulings have consistently granted patients the right to refuse medications. B) Likely. States may grant a patient the right to refuse medications if the patient agrees to another form of treatment. C) Somewhat likely. States may grant the patients right to refuse medications, but if the patient's refusal is shown to be dangerous or irrational, states may allow the refusal to be overturned. D) Unlikely. Patients do not have the right to refuse psychotropic medications.
19. A psychologist has been asked to complete an assessment of a defendant and testify in court. However, the psychologist does not feel that adequate examination of the defendant was possible. In this case, the psychologist must: A) refrain from testifying completely. B) state that he or she has no professional opinion on the matter. C) make clear the limitations of his or her testimony. D) make an assessment (diagnosis) based on the limited information available.
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20. Which is NOT a concern among clinicians with regard to the increasing use of social media sites? A) It can provide a venue for bullying. B) It can foster development of poor coping mechanisms. C) It can increase anxiety among adolescents if they aren't included in activities. D) It may provide a means for shy people to withdraw from face-to-face interactions.
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Answer Key 1. B 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. D 6. C 7. C 8. C 9. D 10. B 11. A 12. C 13. B 14. B 15. A 16. D 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. B
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1. A psychologist and local police work together to create a profile of a suspected serial killer. This is an example of: A) criminology. B) criminal-legal science. C) investigative psychology. D) forensic psychology.
2. Someone driven by a fit of passion to commit a murder might be found insane at the time of the crime under the _____ test. A) Durham B) irresistible impulse C) American Law Institute D) forensic insanity
3. The criteria of the _____ state that someone must have been experiencing a mental disorder at the time of the crime and must also have been unable to know right from wrong or to understand the nature of the act. A) M'Naghten rule B) irresistible impulse test C) Durham test D) American Law Institute test
4. The _____ classifies someone as not criminally responsible if, at the time of a crime, a mental disorder or defect prevented him or her from knowing right from wrong or from being able to control himself or herself and follow the rule of law. A) American Law Institute test B) Durham test C) M'Naghten rule D) irresistible impulse test
5. More than 80 percent of people acquitted of their crimes by reason of insanity qualify for a diagnosis of: A) severe depression or a related disorder. B) a dissociative disorder. C) schizophrenia or other form of psychosis. D) a personality disorder.
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6. In 1992 in the case of Foucha v. Louisiana, the U.S. Supreme Court clarified that the only acceptable basis for determining the release of hospitalized offenders is whether or not they are still: A) represented adequately by an attorney. B) a danger to society. C) in treatment. D) insane.
7. Gary is tried for a crime and found not guilty by reason of insanity. He is committed to a state mental hospital. After years of treatment, he is released. Gary is now required by the state to receive community treatment and undergo ongoing evaluation. He can be rehospitalized if necessary. This requirement after initial release is called: A) aftercare. B) dependent care. C) secondary prevention. D) outpatient commitment.
8. The minimum standard of competent to stand trial was specified by the U.S. Supreme Court in the case of: A) Jackson v. Indiana. B) Dusky v. United States. C) Kansas v. Hendricks. D) Foucha v. Louisiana.
9. The majority of criminals currently institutionalized for psychological treatment in the United States are there because they were: A) found to be mentally incompetent. B) found not guilty by reason of insanity. C) determined to need psychological care after being in prison. D) committed under emergency commitment requirements.
10. Which legal doctrines allow the government to commit people who may be dangerous to themselves or others? A) stare decisis and judicial review B) habeas corpus and parens patriae C) parens patriae and police power D) police power and habeas corpus
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11. Cesar, age 24, has physically assaulted another person, causing serious injury. Statistically speaking, how likely is it that Cesar has a mental disorder? A) Very likely. Almost 90 percent of all violent crimes are committed by someone with a mental disorder. B) Likely. Many cases of violence are associated with mental illness, especially in male perpetrators. C) Somewhat likely. Roughly one-quarter of all violent crimes are committed by a person with a mental disorder, but typically by someone younger. D) Not that likely. Only a small percentage of all violent acts are committed by people with mental disorders.
12. Which statement is accurate about psychologists' predictions of future dangerousness? A) They are right most of the time for both long-term and short-term predictions. B) They are wrong more often than right when they make long-term predictions. C) They are wrong more often than right when they make short-term predictions. D) They are wrong most of the time for both long-term and short-term predictions.
13. Which statement MOST accurately describes the right to treatment for those who are committed involuntarily? A) Treatment for patients must include prevention and health wellness programs. B) Patients should be a partner in their own care and be given treatment options. C) Informed consent must be received for all forms of treatment. D) Adequate treatment must be provided to all patients.
14. In 1999, the Supreme Court of the United States ruled in Olmstead v. L.C. that mental health patients have the right to: A) treatment in the least restrictive facility available. B) aftercare and an appropriate community residence. C) refuse psychotropic medications. D) refuse electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
15. Which is NOT a circumstance in which malpractice claims were made against clinicians? A) providing therapy that did not result in improvement B) a patient's attempted suicide C) sexual activity with a patient D) improper termination of treatment
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16. Which statement is accurate about eyewitness testimony? A) Some states prohibit it altogether. B) It is so unreliable it ought to be prohibited in all instances. C) Witnesses who are “absolutely certain” in their identification are no more likely to be accurate than those who are only “fairly sure.” D) There is no difference between laboratory research and real-life events.
17. Which psychologist is violating a guideline included in the American Psychological Association Code of Ethics? A) a psychologist who offers advice on television and radio B) a psychologist who takes on a client with whom she had a sexual relationship years prior C) a psychologist who alerts the police and the spouse of a client that she is likely in imminent danger from her husband, a client D) a psychologist who refuses to assist the government with “enhanced interrogation” techniques
18. The current code of ethics for psychologists declares that therapists have a duty to _____, which involves a responsibility to break confidentiality, even without the client's consent, when it is necessary to prevent others from coming to harm at the hands of the client. A) warn B) parens patriae C) protect D) inform
19. A business owner is considering implementing a stress reduction program in the workplace, but she isn't sure if it is worth the investment. What is the BEST response to her concerns? A) “Most employees report that they do not need help managing stress, so I'd recommend trying something else.” B) “Studies have shown that people cannot be taught how to reduce stress. Rather, the environment has to be changed.” C) “Many businesses believe that these programs save them money in the long run. I would recommend it.” D) “These programs can be helpful, but typically only for high-level executives. They are less effective for assembly-line workers.”
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20. A therapist has a client who lives far away and has limited access to transportation. She supplements her client's therapy with online virtual reality experiences. This is an example of: A) managed care. B) telemental health. C) paraprofessional health care. D) unregulated health care.
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Answer Key 1. D 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. C 6. D 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. C 11. D 12. B 13. D 14. B 15. A 16. C 17. B 18. C 19. C 20. B
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