TEST BANK For Abnormal Psychology, 14th Edition. Ann Kring, Sheri Johnson by digitaldownload87

Abnormal Psychology, 14e Ann Kring, Sheri Johnson (Test Bank All Chapters, 100% Original Verified, A+ Grade) Package Title: Chapter 1, Testbank Course Title: Kring, Abnormal Psych 14e Chapter Number: 1

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1. The textbook chapter opens with a clinical case study about Jack, a young man who had been diagnosed with schizophrenia. In the scenario, Jack applied to get an apartment and the landlord a) accepted him as long as he was on his medication. b) denied him the apartment because he thought Jack might be violent. c) denied him the apartment because Jack would be unsupervised. d) accepted him as long as he had a guardian to look after him. Answer: b Section Reference: Psychological Disorders and Stigmas Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the meaning of stigma as it applies to people with psychological disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

2. The textbook chapter opens with a clinical case study about Felicia. In this scenario Felicia had very few friends and was often teased. What was it that eventually made her life easier? a) Felicia was diagnosed as having ADHD and received effective treatment. b) Felicia was taught to keep her mouth shut during class. c) Felicia was diagnosed as having schizophrenia and was successfully treated and cured. d) Felicia was transferred to a school for those with behavioral disorders. Answer: a Section Reference: Psychological Disorders and Stigmas Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the meaning of stigma as it applies to people with psychological disorders. Bloomcode: Applied

3. The field concerned with the nature, development, and treatment of psychological disorders is called a) psychopathology b) psychotherapy c) psychoanalysis d) all of the above Answer: a Section Reference: Psychological Disorders and Stigmas Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the meaning of stigma as it applies to people with psychological disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

4. Students often have __________, which makes it difficult to remain objective when learning about psychopathology. a) diagnoses b) fears c) insecurities d) preconceived notions Answer: d Section Reference: Psychological Disorders and Stigmas Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the meaning of stigma as it applies to people with psychological disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

5. The destructive beliefs and attitudes held by a society that are ascribed to groups considered different in some manner, such as people with psychological illness, are called a) disorders b) stigmas. c) typecasts d) discriminative categories. Answer: b Section Reference: Psychological Disorders and Stigmas Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the meaning of stigma as it applies to people with psychological disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

6. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of stigma? a) A label applied to a group of people that distinguishes them from others. b) A label applied to a group of people that breaks the law. c) The label is linked to deviant or undesirable attributes by society. d) People with the label face unfair discrimination. Answer: b Section Reference: Psychological Disorders and Stigmas Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the meaning of stigma as it applies to people with psychological disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

7. All of the following are key suggestions for fighting against stigma EXCEPT: a) Mandatory Counselling b) Housing Options c) Education d) Personal Contact

Answer: a Section Reference: Psychological Disorders and Stigmas Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the meaning of stigma as it applies to people with psychological disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

8. All of the following are key suggestions for fighting against stigma EXCEPT: a) Mental Health Evaluation b) Support and Advocacy Groups c) Education for Individuals and Families d) Required after school care for children with Mental Illness Answer: d Section Reference: Psychological Disorders and Stigmas Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the meaning of stigma as it applies to people with psychological disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

9. Which of the following is (are) our best hope for reducing the stigma against those diagnosed with a psychological disorder? a) Increase contact b) Increase education c) Increase equality legislation d) All of the above Answer: d Section Reference: Psychological Disorders and Stigmas Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the meaning of stigma as it applies to people with psychological disorders. Bloomcode: Application

10. Which of the following is NOT an organization established to educate and offer support to those diagnosed with a psychological disorder? a) National Alliance on Mental Illness b) Mind Freedom c) Patients Like Me d) Mad4Life Answer: d Section Reference: Psychological Disorders and Stigmas Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the meaning of stigma as it applies to people with psychological disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

11. The best definition of mental disorder takes all of the following into account EXCEPT: a) personal distress. b) violation of social norms. c) disability. d) syndromes. Answer: d Section Reference: Defining Psychological Disorder Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Compare and contrast different definitions of psychological disorder. Bloomcode: Analysis

12. Defining mental disorder on the basis of personal distress is problematic for which reason? a) High levels of distress and suffering are normal in modern society. b) Some mental disorders do not involve personal distress. c) It ignores the suffering that family members of disturbed people experience. d) It does not apply to physiological disorders. Answer: b Section Reference: Defining Psychological Disorder Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Compare and contrast different definitions of psychological disorder. Bloomcode: Analysis

13. Which one of the following IS NOT a part of the comprehensive definition of a Psychological Disorder? a) Personal Distress b) Violation of Social Norms c) Disability and Dysfunction d) Behaviour outside of the Norm Answer: d Section Reference: Defining Psychological Disorder Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Compare and contrast different definitions of psychological disorder. Bloomcode: Analysis 14. The DSM-5’s definition of “mental disorder” involves all of the following criteria EXCEPT that it: a) occurs within multiple individuals. b) involves dysfunction.

c) is not primarily a result of social deviance. d) is not culturally specific reaction to an event. Answer: a Section Reference: Defining Psychological Disorder Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Compare and contrast different definitions of psychological disorder. Bloomcode: Analysis

15. Cindy is an accomplished lawyer who sought psychological help in dealing with the stresses of balancing work and family responsibilities. Which definition of mental disorder applies to Cindy? a) harmful dysfunction. b) violation of social norms. c) personal distress. d) disability. Answer: c Section Reference: Defining Psychological Disorder Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Compare and contrast different definitions of psychological disorder. Bloomcode: Evaluation

16. After presenting characteristics of mental disorder, the text concludes that a) research is needed to identify which characteristic is best. b) different characteristics apply to various psychopathologies. c) personal distress is the most useful characteristic. d) together the characteristics give a comprehensive definition of abnormality. Answer: d Section Reference: Defining Psychological Disorder Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Compare and contrast different definitions of psychological disorder. Bloomcode: Analysis

17. Exorcism was used on people who demonstrated odd behavior because: a). Their Health was poor and they needed exercise. b) It was done to appease the gods. c) Strange behavior was believed to be caused by possession. d) Good Spirits inhabited their body and needed to be cast out. Answer: c

Section Reference: History of Psychopathology Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain how the causes and treatments of psychological disorders have

changed over the course of history. Bloomcode: Knowledge

18. Hippocrates’ early views on mental health contributed to an enduring emphasis on a) natural causes. b) spirituality. c) humors. d) classification. Answer: a Section Reference: History of Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain how the causes and treatments of psychological disorders have

changed over the course of history. Bloomcode: Analysis

19. Hippocrates suggested which of the following treatments for mental illness? a) trephining b) flogging c) prayer and chants by faith healers. d) care in choosing food and drink. Answer: d Section Reference: History of Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain how the causes and treatments of psychological disorders have

changed over the course of history. Bloomcode: Analysis

20. Hippocrates influenced psychology by a) distinguishing medicine from religion and magic. b) debunking the notion that the four humors were related to disorders. c) reforming mental hospitals. d) suggesting that mental illness was punishment from God. Answer: a Section Reference: History of Psychopathology Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain how the causes and treatments of psychological disorders have

changed over the course of history. Bloomcode: Knowledge

21. Which of the following best describes treatment of disordered people during the Dark Ages? a) Monks in monasteries prayed over them. b) They were chained in early asylums. c) They were condemned as witches and tortured. d) They were given bed rest, fed simple foods, and forced to subscribe to clean living. Answer: a Section Reference: History of Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain how the causes and treatments of psychological disorders have changed over the course of history. Bloomcode: Analysis

22. Edith was accused of being a witch in 1532. She most likely lived in a) Russia. b) China. c) Europe. d) Japan. Answer: c Section Reference: History of Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain how the causes and treatments of psychological disorders have changed over the course of history. Bloomcode: Application

23. In what century were old hospitals converted into Asylums for people with psychological disorders? a) 15th b) 16th c) 17th d) 18th Answer: a Section Reference: History of Psychopathology Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain how the causes and treatments of psychological disorders have changed over the course of history. Bloomcode: Knowledge 24. Which of the following suggests that many “witches” condemned during the Inquisition were, in fact, mentally disordered individuals? a) The inquisitors themselves read letters from witches. b) The witches were typically from lower social classes. c) The witches “confessed” to delusions and hallucinations.

d) The witches were labeled insane by the courts of the times. Answer: c Section Reference: History of Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain how the causes and treatments of psychological disorders have changed over the course of history. Bloomcode: Application 25. The word ‘lunacy’ comes from a theory espoused by Paracelsus, who attributed odd behavior to a) the effects of a full moon. b) drinking witches’ brew. c) a misalignment of the moon and stars. d) witchcraft. Answer: c Section Reference: History of Psychopathology Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain how the causes and treatments of psychological disorders have changed over the course of history. Bloomcode: Knowledge

26. Early asylums were developed a) for the confinement and care of the mentally ill. b) to protect people from witch hunts. c) after the discovery of syphilis. d) centuries before leprosy hospitals. Answer: a Section Reference: History of Psychopathology Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain how the causes and treatments of psychological disorders have changed over the course of history. Bloomcode: Knowledge

27. Bedlam a) originated from observations of ritualistic chantings of ‘witches.’ b) was a common practice of witches that involved trances and casting spells. c) is the term associated with the chaotic conditions at early asylums. d) is the practice of prescribing total bed rest for mentally ill people. Answer: c Section Reference: History of Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: Explain how the causes and treatments of psychological disorders have changed over the course of history. Bloomcode: Application

28. Who is associated with creating more humane environments at mental hospitals? a) Emil Kraepelin b) Joseph Breuer c) Philippe Pinel d) John Watson Answer: c Section Reference: History of Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain how the causes and treatments of psychological disorders have changed over the course of history. Bloomcode: Analysis

29. Treatment for the mentally ill during the Moral Therapy era became more humane when a) patients were given individual attention. b) asylums were abolished. c) specialty hospital wards were created for the mentally ill within general care facilities d). All of the above Answer: d Section Reference: History of Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain how the causes and treatments of psychological disorders have changed over the course of history. Bloomcode: Analysis

30. Moral treatment involved a) herbal remedies that may have been toxic. b) fighting social inequities. c) encouraging patients to engage in purposeful activities. d) frightening the individual. Answer: c Section Reference: History of Psychopathology Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain how the causes and treatments of psychological disorders have changed over the course of history. Bloomcode: Knowledge

31. Elizabeth was receiving moral treatment while in an early asylum. Which of the following treatments was she LEAST likely to receive? a) medication b) physical restraints c) purposeful activities d) work-related tasks Answer: b Section Reference: History of Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain how the causes and treatments of psychological disorders have changed over the course of history. Bloomcode: Application 32. “Moral treatment” was largely abandoned because of the development of a) psychoanalysis. b) improved medications. c) large impersonal hospitals. d) scandals at retreat centers. Answer: c Section Reference: History of Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain how the causes and treatments of psychological disorders have changed over the course of history. Bloomcode: Application

33. Dorothea Dix is famous for a) greatly improving the standard of care for people with mental illness. b) overseeing the creation of thirty-two state hospitals for the mentally ill. c) providing moral treatment to many people with mental illness. d) all of the above.

Answer: d Section Reference: History of Psychopathology Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain how the causes and treatments of psychological disorders have changed over the course of history. Bloomcode: Knowledge 34. Similar to the early asylums, present-day mental hospitals a) provide a great deal of stimulation. b) provide intensive individual therapy. c) provide merely for basic needs and medication. d) are well staffed with nurses and psychiatrists, but have few psychologists.

Answer: c Section Reference: History of Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain how the causes and treatments of psychological disorders have changed over the course of history. Bloomcode: Application 35. General paresis is best described as a) an early term for schizophrenia. b) hysterical paralysis with no medical cause. c) a deterioration of mental and physical health associated with syphilis. d) a bloodletting technique. Answer: c Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Knowledge 36. The germ theory of disease, which states that disease is caused by infection of the body by tiny organisms, was put forth by a) Emil Kraepelin. b) Franz Anton Mesmer. c) Jean Charcot. d) Louis Pasteur. Answer: d Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Knowledge

37. The discovery of the cause of syphilis was important to the field of mental illness for which reason? a) Syphilis was widely feared and exacerbated mental illness. b) It increased interest in determining biological causes for mental illness. c) More asylum patients were diagnosed with syphilis. d) It highlighted the need for valid diagnostic systems. Answer: b Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Analysis

38. The germ theory of disease a) showed the link between syphilis and mental illness. b) explained the cause of schizophrenia and depression. c) disproved the biological hypotheses. d) showed the link between influenza and adjustment disorder. Answer: a Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Comprehension

39. An adherent for biological approaches would suggest which of the following treatments for depression? a) antidepressant medication b) psychotherapy c) relaxation therapy d) hypnosis Answer: a Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Application

40. The eugenics movement a) was a direct result of the germ theory of disease. b) sought to cleanse society of people with undesirable characteristics. c) classified mental disorders according to their genesis. d) sought to abolish ECT treatments. Answer: b Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views.

Bloomcode: Knowledge

41. Early work in behavior genetics led to a) electroconvulsive therapy. b) the cure for general paresis. c) reduced interest in psychoanalysis. d) forced sterilization of mental patients. Answer: d Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Application

42. Which of the following is true about ECT? a) It is used today to treat patients with severe depression. b) Today it is primarily used in the treatment of epilepsy. c) It destroys the tracts connecting the frontal lobes to the lower centers of the brain. d) ECT ceased to be used after the introduction of the lobotomy. Answer: a Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Comprehension

43. Hypnosis, as originally used by Mesmer, was used for a) mild exorcism. b) uncovering early child abuse. c) acting as an anesthetic. d) treating hysteria. Answer: d Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Application

44. The reasoning behind hypnosis as developed by Mesmer was that

a) changing the magnetic fluid in his patients would result in symptom reduction. b) relaxation was a sufficient treatment for alleviating symptoms. c) frightening patients would result in symptom reduction. d) faith in the healer caused healing. Answer: a Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Knowledge

45. Esther was a patient of Mesmer, who was treating her for blindness. What was the likely scenario when she entered his treatment room? a) a quiet room, with a soft reclining chair b) a “bleeding device” used to drain the blood that, believed to be in excess, resulted in psychogenic blindness c) a stock of chemical-filled rods, with Mesmer presiding over the room d) a sterile, well-lit room with several doctors in white laboratory coats Answer: c Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Application 46. Breuer observed an association between recalling past traumatic events and expression of the original emotion in hysterics. This resulted in a) increased hysteria. b) decreased hysteria. c) the emergence of new symptoms. d) the repression of emotions. Answer: b Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Comprehension

47. Dr. Jones encourages her clients, under hypnosis, to recall childhood traumas and the emotions associated with them. This technique was developed by

a) Josef Breuer. b) Carl Jung. c) Fritz Perls. d) Franz Mesmer. Answer: a Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Application

48. Which is TRUE regarding catharsis? a) It is a moral therapy method. b) It was initiated by Pinel. c) It consists of drawing blood from a patient. d) It encourages the release of emotional tension. Answer: d Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Comprehension

49. If you went to Josef Breuer for treatment of hysterical paralysis, which treatment would you probably NOT receive? a) hypnosis b) free association c) talk therapy d) medication Answer: d Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Application

50. The cathartic method was created by a) Sigmund Freud.

b) Josef Breuer. c) Jean Martin Charcot. d) Richard von Krafft-Ebing. Answer: b Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Knowledge

51. The psychoanalytic theory rests upon the assumption that psychopathology is the result of a) incomplete superego development. b) unconscious conflicts. c) ego defense mechanisms. d) over-control of the pleasure principle. Answer: b Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Comprehension

52. The id, ego, and superego are a) structures of the mind. b) orders in a developmental sequence. c) biological drives. d) brain structures. Answer: a Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Knowledge

53. The ego operates according to the __________ principle. a) reality b) Oedipal c) Electra d) pleasure

Answer: a Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Comprehension

54. The basic energy source for the psyche is the a) id. b) ego. c) superego. d) Oedipus complex. Answer: a Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Analysis

55. When you feel hungry and immediately seek out food, this is an example of the __________ acting. a) superego b) ego c) id d) projection Answer: c Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Application 56. According to Freud’s theory, the superego develops from the a) id. b) ego. c) emergence of defense mechanisms. d) conflicts in the Oedipal stage. Answer: b

Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Knowledge

57. Dealing with reality is the primary role of the a) id. b) ego. c) superego. d) preconscious. Answer: b Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Knowledge

58. Which structure involves only activity of the unconscious? a) id b) ego c) superego d) the psyche Answer: a Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Analysis

59. While studying for an exam, Greg worked for 15 minutes before becoming tired. He decided that it would be better to work for another 30 minutes before taking a break. His behavior is being guided by which part of his personality? a) id b) ego c) superego d) ego defense Answer: b Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Application

60. When one refers to their conscience, they are also describing their a) id. b) ego. c) superego. d) ego defenses. Answer: c Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Comprehension

61. The superego allows us to a) be capable of rational thought. b) know right from wrong. c) act in line with reality. d) be spontaneous. Answer: b Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Analysis

62. Carol is trying to decide whether to drink alcohol, knowing that her parents are strongly opposed to drinking. According to Freudian theory, Carol’s struggle is between her __________, which makes her want to drink, and her __________, which discourages her from drinking. a) id; superego b) ego; superego c) id; ego d) superego; ego Answer: a Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Hard

63. According to Freud, what is the most important determinant of behavior? a) conscious b) pre-conscious c) unconscious d) all of the above are equally important Answer: c Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Comprehension

64. The ego uses __________ to protect itself from anxiety. a) the libido b) defense mechanisms c) the superego d) the id Answer: b Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Knowledge

65. Conflicts from a particular stage of development, according to Freud, will a) be completely ignored. b) be unimportant in later stages. c) continue to affect development. d) be important only when one is informed of the specific conflict. Answer: c Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Analysis

66. Fixation at a particular stage, according to Freud, results in a) difficulties in determining the nature of the conflicts when the person enters analysis. b) a sexually unresponsive individual. c) an inability to develop further. d) regression to that stage when stressed later in life. Answer: d Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Analysis

67. Which of the following is NOT a technique in psychoanalytic psychotherapy? a) transference. b) free association. c) interpretation. d) cognitive reappraisal. Answer: d Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Analysis

68. Dr. Smith argues that the desire to hunt is built into all men dating back to the times of cave men. Dr. Smith is relying on the concept of a) positive reinforcement. b) collective unconscious. c) self-actualization. d) sublimation. Answer: b Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Application

69. Adler developed a theory of psychoanalytic thought oriented towards a) psychoticism. b) doing things for the social good. c) overt behavior change. d) all of the above. Answer: b Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Analysis

70. As part of therapy, you are asked to lie on a couch and say anything that comes to mind. This is called a) interpretation. b) transference. c) real analysis. d) free association. Answer: d Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Knowledge

71. You begin to think of your therapist in a similar way to your sister, so you begin to treat the therapist as you treat your sister. This is referred to as A) countertransference. B) identification. C) transference. D) projection. Answer: c Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Applied

72. According to the __________ theory, at each developmental stage a different part of the body is most sensitive to sexual excitation and, therefore, the most capable of satisfying the id.

a) psychosexual b) psychodynamic c) sexualization d) none of the above Answer: a Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Knowledge

73. The correct developmental order of Freud’s psychosexual stages is a) anal, oral, latency, phallic, genital b) oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital c) latency, anal, oral, genital, phallic d) phallic, oral, genital, anal, latency Answer: b Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Analysis

74. The psychosexual stage in which the id does not play a major role is the __________ stage. a) anal b) phallic c) latency d) oral Answer: c Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Analysis

75. During which psychosexual stage did Freud say the roots of depression were formed? a) anal b) latency

c) phallic d) oral Answer: d Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Analysis

76. According to Freud, people who are fixated at the __________ stage are overly dependent upon others. a) oral b) anal c) phallic d) genital Answer: a Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Analysis 77. Behaviorists advocate that a) abnormal behavior arises from discussions of abnormal behavior. b) abnormal behavior is learned. c) insight is important in changing behavior. d) defenses are associated with resolving anxiety. Answer: b Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Comprehension

78. The earliest experimental work on classical conditioning was conducted by a) Bandura. b) Tolman. c) Skinner. d) Pavlov.

Answer: d Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Knowledge

79. Anne experienced extreme pain at the dentist as a child. Now she goes to a different dentist, but feels her heart race when she arrives ,and go down when she leaves. Her heart racing whenever she goes to the dentist is due to __________, and the calming feeling when she leaves is due to __________. a) classical conditioning, operant conditioning. b) operant conditioning, classical conditioning. c) operant conditioning, meditational learning. d) operant conditioning, modeling. Answer: a Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis

80. Fiona faints when her doctor begins to draw blood. What is the unconditioned response? a) the needle b) blood c) fainting d) blood flow Answer: c Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Application

81. The following type of response to behavior results in an increased probability of the behavior occurring again. a) positive reinforcement b) negative reinforcement c) Positive punishment d) both a and b

Answer: d Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Analysis

82. A class conducted an experiment with its professor. The students paid attention as a group only when she was to the left of the blackboard. After this was established, they paid attention only when she was three feet from the blackboard, further to the left. Finally, they paid attention only when she was directly in the corner, to the left of the blackboard. This is an illustration of a) shaping. b) punishment. c) habituation. d) modeling. Answer: a Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Application

83. Mr. Smith is going to a therapist for help with a fear of heights. Over several sessions the therapist, Dr. Jones, provides deep muscle relaxation and gradual exposures to heights. Dr. Jones’s treatment approach is best identified as a) free association. b) systematic desensitization. c) modeling. d) positive reinforcement. Answer: b Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Application

84. Early behaviorist theories did not consider the critical role that __________ play in human behavior. a) thoughts b) emotions c) memories

d) both a and b Answer: d Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Comprehension

85. The study of cognition began to be prominent in the a) 1950s b) 1960s c) 1970s d) 1980s Answer: b Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Knowledge

86. Which of the following theoretical approaches emphasizes the importance of how people construe themselves in the world? a) Behaviorist b) Psychodynamic c) Humanistic d) Cognitive Answer: d Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Applied

87. Cognitive therapists believe that if clients change their __________ they will be able to change their feelings, behaviors, and symptoms. a) conscience b) reactions c) thoughts d) actions

Answer: c Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Applied

88. According to Albert Ellis, __________ are caused by internal sentences that people repeat to themselves. a) emotional reactions b) irrational thoughts c) disturbed perceptions d) angry obsessions Answer: a Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Analysis

89. Rational-emotive behavior therapy was proposed by a) Freud b) Skinner c) Piaget d) Ellis Answer: d Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Knowledge

90. Psychiatrists differ from clinical psychologists in that psychiatrists a) receive training in scientific bases of behavior. b) receive training in diagnosis of psychopathology. c) undergo personal analysis as part of their training. d) prescribe medication. Answer: d

Section Reference: The Mental Health Professions Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the different mental health professions, including the training involved and the expertise developed. Bloomcode: Analysis

91. Which profession requires a research dissertation as a prerequisite for an advanced degree? a) psychiatry b) clinical psychology c) psychiatric nursing d) psychoanalysis Answer: b Section Reference: The Mental Health Professions Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the different mental health professions, including the training involved and the expertise developed. Bloomcode: Analysis

92. Social workers primarily a) perform psychological assessments. b) conduct extensive research. c) conduct psychotherapy. d) prescribe medication. Answer: c Section Reference: The Mental Health Professions Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the different mental health professions, including the training involved and the expertise developed. Bloomcode: Knowledge

93. The doctor of psychology degree (Psy.D.) emphasizes a) medication-based training. b) psychodynamic training. c) testing and measurement of mental illness. d) clinical training more than research training. Answer: d Section Reference: The Mental Health Professions Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: Describe the different mental health professions, including the training involved and the expertise developed. Bloomcode: Analysis

94. Clinical psychologists, counseling psychologists, and social workers are all likely to be involved in a) conducting research. b) providing psychotherapy. c) teaching. d) prescribing psychoactive medication. Answer: b Section Reference: The Mental Health Professions Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the different mental health professions, including the training involved and the expertise developed. Bloomcode: Analysis

95. There has recently been a debate regarding whether clinical psychologists should be allowed to a) focus on research rather than clinical practice. b) study social factors influencing psychopathology. c) admit patients to the hospital. d) prescribe medication. Answer: d Section Reference: The Mental Health Professions Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the different mental health professions, including the training involved and the expertise developed. Bloomcode: Knowledge

Question Type: Essay

96. What are some of the mental health professions discussed in Chapter 1? In what ways are they similar? In what ways do they differ? Answer: Section Reference: The Mental Health Professions Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the different mental health professions, including the training involved and the expertise developed. Bloomcode: Synthesis

97. Describe some problems with labeling. Discuss, in particular, difficulties with stigma. Do stigmas impact the way those with psychological disorders are viewed and treated? Give an example. Answer: Section Reference: Psychological Disorders and Stigmas Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Explain the meaning of stigma as it applies to people with psychological disorders. Bloomcode: Synthesis

98. How can mental health professionals, politicians, patients and their families help to reduce the stigma surrounding mental disorders? Answer: Section Reference: Psychological Disorders and Stigmas Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Explain the meaning of stigma as it applies to people with psychological disorders. Bloomcode: Evaluation

99. Explain the historical progression of treatment. Describe the progression of different treatment approaches to mental illness through the centuries. Answer: Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychanalytic, behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Synthesis Difficulty:Hard

100. List and explain Freud’s main defense mechanisms. Give an example of each. Answer: Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Evaluation

101. Describe the differences between operant and classical conditioning. Answer: Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought

102. Contrast psychoanalysis with behaviorism. Answer: Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Analysis

103. Describe three defense mechanisms. Answer: Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Application Difficulty: Medium

104. Describe the primary functions of the id, ego, and superego. Answer: Section Reference: The Evolution of Contemporary Thought Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the historical forces that have helped to shape our current view of psychological disorders, including biological, psychoanalytic, and behavioral, and cognitive views. Bloomcode: Analysis

Package Title: Chapter 2, Testbank Course Title: Kring, Abnormal Psych 14e Chapter Number: 2

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1. What is the best way to describe current thinking about psychopathology? a) It is multifaceted. b) It is a mental disease. c) It all can be cured. d) Drug Therapy is the best way to treat all disorders. Answer: a Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

2. A set of basic assumptions that defines how to conceptualize and study a subject, how to gather and interpret relevant data, even how to think about a particular subject is known as a ________________. a) theoretical perspective. b) hypothetical stance. c) paradigm. d) none of the above. Answer: c Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

3. Paradigms in the study of psychopathology a) increase objectivity. b) slow innovation. c) increase confidence in our conclusions regarding mental illness. d) enable us to gather knowledge in a systematic manner. Answer: d Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Analysis

4. When a scientist chooses a paradigm to understand psychopathology, it a) has little effect on clinical practice. b) leads to an overly narrow perspective. c) is generally too narrow in focus. d) specifies which problems they will investigate and how they will go about investigating them. Answer: d Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

5. Contemporary views on genetic and environmental factors in behavior emphasize that a) genes are important for only some behaviors. b) a good environment can overcome genetic limitations. c) both factors influence each other. d) the percentage of genetic influence on a behavior can be measured. Answer: c Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Analysis

6. The carriers of the genetic information passed from parent to child are called a) nature. b) genes. c) zygotes. d) DNA. Answer: b Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

7. What makes us unique is the a) number of genes we have. b) the amount of DNA we inherit. c) the number of genes we inherit. d) the sequencing of our genes. Answer: d Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

8. The switching on and off of certain genes is called a) gene expression b) gene sequencing c) DNA ordering d) DNA display Answer: a Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

9. When discussing heritability, it is important to keep in mind all of the following EXCEPT: a) heritability estimates range from 0.0 to 1.0. b) the higher the heritability value, the greater the heritability. c) heritability is relevant for a particular individual. d) heritability is relevant for large populations. Answer: c Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Analysis

10. According to behavior genetics research, a) nonshared experiences have much more to do with mental illness than shared experiences. b) shared experiences have much more to do with mental illness than nonshared experiences. c) shared and nonshared experiences are equally important for mental illness. d) there is no way to differentiate between shared and nonshared contributions to mental illness.

Answer: a Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Analysis

11. Psychopathology is polygenic, meaning that a) there are several different paradigms to explain abnormal behavior. b) there are several different genes operating at different times during development that influence vulnerability. c) the human genome consists of around 30,000 genes. d) if a person had a gene for a given disorder, he or she would most likely get that disorder. Answer: b Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

12. If the heritability of ADHD is around .70, then a) 70% of ADHD is due to .environment and 30% is attributed to genes. b) 30% of ADHD is due to genes and 70% is attributed to variations in our brain. c) individual heritability for ADHD is .70 and has little to do with our parents. d) In a given population, approximately 70% of variation in ADHD is attributed to genes and approximately 30% is attributed to the environment. Answer: d Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Application

13. Which of the following statements is false? a) Heritability is a population statistic ranging from 0.0 to 1.0. b) Heritability is the extent to which variability in a particular behavior in a population can be accounted for by environmental factors. c) Heritability is a measure of what varies in a population. d) The higher the heritability statistic, the more a particular behavior can be accounted for by genetic factors.

Answer: b Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Analysis

14. Research suggests that a) shared environmental factors is what matters most for understanding genetic variability among siblings. b) heritability is what determines a behavior in a population. c) the effect of nonshared environmental events on siblings is what matters most for understanding genetic variability among siblings. d) specific types of events determine genetic variability among siblings. Answer: c Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Analysis

15. One’s inherited genes are referred to as a) phenotypes. b) genotypes. c) somatotypes. d) allele types. Answer: b Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

16. One’s observable characteristics are called a) fistulas. b) genotypes. c) genetic types. d) phenotypes. Answer: d

Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

17. A genotype is illustrated by which of the following? a) Kim’s eye color b) Kim’s hair color c) Kim’s unexpressed gene for sickle cell d) Kim’s two recessive genes Answer: c Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms Bloomcode: Application

18. A phenotype is illustrated by which of the following? a) Lisa’s mom’s weight. b) Lisa’s chromosomes. c) Lisa’s eye color. d) Lisa’s DNA structure. Answer: c Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Application

19. The behavior genetic view suggests which of the following relationships between genes and abnormal behavior? a) Genetic predispositions increase the likelihood of abnormal behavior. b) It is possible and reasonable to manipulate an individual’s genes. c) Twins are more likely to exhibit abnormal behavior. d) None of the above. Answer: a Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

20. Any measure of intelligence is best viewed as an index of a) genotype. b) phenotype. c) shared environment. d) nonshared environment. Answer: b Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Analysis 21. Turkheimer and colleagues’ study of IQ showed that a) heritability for IQ is high. b) heritability depends upon the environment. c) achievement is highly heritable regardless of environment. d) linkage analysis is a sound research method. Answer: b Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: knowledge

22. Different forms of the same gene are called a) alleles. b) polymorphisms. c) chromosomes. d) genotypes. Answer: a Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

23. A difference in DNA sequence that occurs in a population is called a) an allele. b) a genotype. c) a phenotype. d) a polymorphism. Answer: d Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

24. What factor(s) are identified by Turkheimer that influence IQ? a) Phrenological data. b) Astrological Sign. c) genes and environment d) Parent’s Socioeconomic Status Answer: c Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

25. Transcription is the process where: a) DNA is transcribed to RNA. b) RNA is transcribed to DNA. c) Genes are transcribed to Chromosomes. d) Chromosomes are transcribed to Genes. Answer: a Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

26. In genetics, SNPS refers to

a) single neurogenic proteins. b) single nucleotide polymorphisms. c) soluble nucleotide proteins. d) soluble neurokinetic polymorphisms. Answer: b Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

27. A CNV is an abnormal copy of one or more sections of DNA. They occur due to all of the following EXCEPT: a) addition of copies b) deletion of copies c) mutation of copies d) multiplication of copies Answer: d Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Analysis 28. “De novo” mutations are: a) spontaneous b) rapidly progressing c) slow developing d) systematic Answer: a Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

29. What does GWAS stand for a) Genome-wide association studies b) Gene willed analysis studies c) Genome-wide analysis studies d) Gene willed association studies

Answer: a Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

30. Adoption studies are ideal studies for investigating a) polymorphism. b) gene-environment interactions. c) genotypes. d) alleles. Answer: b Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Analysis

31. Nick was born with a predisposition for aggression and impulsivity that has resulted in frequent trouble with the law. As a result of time spent in jail, Nick has developed alcohol dependence. This is an example of a) linkage analysis. b) epigenetics. c) gene-environment interaction. d) reciprocal gene-environment interaction. Answer: d Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Application

32. A reciprocal gene-environment interaction a) involves the idea that genes may predispose individuals to seek out certain environments. b) involves how adopted children take on the characteristics of their adopted parents. c) is a useful research method in adoption studies. d) suggests that individuals who spend a lot of time in bars are more likely to develop alcohol dependence than those who do not frequent bars. Answer: a

Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Comprehension

33. A major current challenge for researchers within the genetic paradigm is to show the mechanism by which a) genes for pathology remain after many generations. b) genes and environments influence each other. c) genes exert effects on highly complex behaviors. d) drugs are able to effect genetic predispositions. Answer: b Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigms. Bloomcode: Comprehension

34. The neuroscience paradigm a) suggests that genes are responsible for most types of psychopathology. b) suggests that dopamine is linked to most types of psychopathology. c) asserts that mental disorders are linked to aberrant processes in the brain. d) asserts that mental disorders are linked to environmental disturbances. Answer: c Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Comprehension

35. The small gap between brain cells that is involved in message transmission is called the a) neurotransmitter. b) axon. c) ganglion. d) synapse. Answer: d Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Knowledge

36. Neurotransmitters are chemical substances that a) allow nerve impulses to reach the next neuron. b) repair neurons. c) let neurons adjust their sensitivity to new inputs. d) adjust the speed of neural transmissions. Answer: a Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Knowledge

37. Neurotransmitters are pumped back into the presynaptic cell by a) reintroduction. b) reuptake. c) reinstitution. d) recall. Answer: b Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Knowledge

38. Which of the following neurotransmitters is NOT mentioned in the text as being implicated in psychopathology? a) GABA b) Dopamine c) Serotonin d) All of the above are mentioned Answer: d Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Difficulty: medium Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Analysis

39. According to the neuroscience paradigm, mental disorders are likely the result of

a) an abundance of receptors on the postsynaptic neuron. b) excesses of different neurotransmitters, such as dopamine. c) deficiencies in different neurotransmitters, such as serotonin. d) all of the above. Answer: d Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Applied

40. All are parts of a neuron EXCEPT a) Cell Body b) Axon c) Neurotransmitter d) Dendrites Answer: c Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Comprehension

Question Type: True/False

41. True or False: A gene-environment interaction means that sensitivity to environmental events is influenced by phenotype a) True. b) False. Answer: b Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Knowledge 42. True or False: The first step in the dynamic process of epigenetics is genes being “on or off” a) True b) False

Answer: b Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Analysis 43. True or False: The genetic paradigm focuses on questions such as whether certain disorders are heritable a) True b) False Answer: a Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Knowledge

44. SNP stands for a) single nucleotide polymorphism. b) separate nucleotide polymorphism. c) single nucleotide polymanerism. d) separate nucleotide polymanerism. Answer: a Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Knowledge

45. True or False: The part of the neuron where messages ENTER the cell are called dendrites a) True. b) False. Answer: d Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Application

Question Type: Multiple Choice

46. The gray matter in the brain is made up of a) neurons. b) fissures. c) sulci. d) meninges. Answer: a Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Knowledge

47. The cortex consists of __________ layers of tightly packed neurons. a) two b) four c) six d) eight Answer: c Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Knowledge

48. The part of your brain just below the Lateral sulcus is a) frontal lobe b) occipital lobe c) parietal lobe d) temporal lobe Answer: d Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Analysis

49. The hypothalamus is the part of the brain which a) recognizes spatial relations. b) regulates metabolism c) controls movement.

d) relays sensory pathways for hearing and vision. Answer: b Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Knowledge

50. The hippocampus is crucial for a) memory b) speech c) sight d) hearing Answer: a Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Knowledge

51. The ANS stands for a) Automatic Nervous System b) Autonomic Nervous System c) Automatic Nerve System d) Autonomic Nerve System Answer: b Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Knowledge

52. In early adulthood, a process known as __________ occurs in which cell connections in the brain are eliminated. a) honing b) pruning c) linkage analysis d) a gene-environment interaction Answer: b Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Knowledge

53. Which of the following statements is true? a) Starting in early adulthood, synaptic connections begin to be eliminated. b) Connections in the brain become greater as an individual moves through adulthood. c) Brain development begins in the second trimester. d) All of the above. Answer: a Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Analysis

54. Which of the following is central to the body’s response to stress? a) HPA axis b) serotonin c) dopamine d) nerve impulses Answer: a Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Knowledge

55. When people are faced with threat, the hypothalamus releases __________, which then communicates with the pituitary gland. a) serotonin b) dopamine c) Corticotrophin Releasing Factor (CRF) d) norepinephrine Answer: c Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Knowledge

56. The autonomic nervous system is a) mostly involuntary. b) also known as the somatic nervous system. c) mostly voluntary. d) equally voluntary and involuntary. Answer: a Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Analysis

57. The autonomic nervous system is divided into two parts: a) the somatic nervous system and the involuntary nervous system. b) the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system. d) the sympathetic nervous system and the somatic nervous system. c) the somatic nervous system and the sympathetic nervous system. Answer: b Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Knowledge

58. This part of the ANS accelerates the heart, dilates the pupils, and initiates smooth muscle and glandular responses that prepare an organism for sudden activity and stress. a) parasympathetic nervous system b) sympathetic nervous system c) somatic nervous system d) HPA axis Answer: b Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Knowledge

59. Which of the following would be considered an implication of the neuroscience paradigm? a) Using an antidepressant to inhibit the uptake of serotonin. b) Changing one’s schema by identifying false cognitions. c) Studying gene-environment interactions to better understand how depression runs in families.

d) Studying the heritability of schizophrenia. Answer: a Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Application

60. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a) A person could hold a neuroscientific view about the nature of a psychological disorder, yet still recommend psychological intervention. b) Reductionism refers to the view that whatever is being studied can and should be reduced to its more basic elements. c) In recent decades, neuroscience research on causes and treatment of psychopathology has been proceeding quite slowly. d) Most neurobiological interventions have not been derived from knowledge of what causes a given disorder. Answer: c Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Analysis

61. The primary argument against reductionism is that a) using multiple levels of analysis makes understanding needlessly complex. b) certain phenomena may only emerge at specific levels of analysis. c) it is impossible to identify the best level of analysis for some phenomena. d) theoretical biases make it difficult to adjust levels of analysis. Answer: b Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Analysis

62. Jane is afraid of elevators. Her psychologist, Dr. Schwartz, teaches her how to relax deeply. Then Dr. Schwartz helps her develop a list of situations with elevators that vary in how frightening or anxietyproducing they are. Finally, while relaxed, Jane imagines the series of situations with elevators. Eventually Jane is able to tolerate imagining increasingly more difficult situations in elevators such as riding an elevator alone for 100 floors. By the end of the 16th therapy session, Jane states that her fear of elevators has disappeared. Dr. Schwartz used

a) brief psychodynamic therapy. b) token economy. c) systematic desensitization. d) ego analysis. Answer: c Section Reference: The Cognitive Behavioral Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain how culture, ethnicity, and interpersonal factors figure into the study and treatment of psychopathology. Bloomcode: Application

63. Systematically rewarding desirable behavior and extinguishing undesirable behavior is the centerpiece of which behavioral theory? a) Operant conditioning b) Systematic conditioning c) Classical conditioning d) Observational conditioning Answer: a Section Reference: The Cognitive Behavioral Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain how culture, ethnicity, and interpersonal factors figure into the study and treatment of psychopathology. Bloomcode: Analysis

64. Helping a person engage in tasks that provide an opportunity for positive reinforcement is called a) observational learning b) behavioral activation therapy c) classical learning d) operant learning Answer: b Section Reference: The Cognitive Behavioral Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain how culture, ethnicity, and interpersonal factors figure into the study and treatment of psychopathology. Bloomcode: Knowledge 65. Joan tends to see everything on the “bright side.” That is, she rarely feels that negative events occur in her life. According to the cognitive perspective, Joan's tendency to see things positively represents her a) schema.

b) discriminative stimulus. c) fixation. d) conditioned response. Answer: a Section Reference: The Cognitive Behavioral Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain how culture, ethnicity, and interpersonal factors figure into the study and treatment of psychopathology. Bloomcode: Application

66. After the first day of class, Jack (who is always an optimist) decides the class will be fun while Jan (who struggles over grades) decides the class will be hard. Their different reactions illustrate the role of their a) non-shared environment. b) cognitive set. c) previous exposures. d) childhood experiences. Answer: b Section Reference: The Cognitive Behavioral Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain how culture, ethnicity, and interpersonal factors figure into the study and treatment of psychopathology. Bloomcode: Application

67. BA therapy stands for a) behavioral activation b) behavioral attenuation c) behavioral activity d) behavioral attention Answer: a Section Reference: The Cognitive Behavioral Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain how culture, ethnicity, and interpersonal factors figure into the study and treatment of psychopathology. Bloomcode: Knowledge

68. What paradigm was used by this therapist? Joan was fired from her job, and her therapist attempts to help her see that this is not terrible, and that being fired does not mean she is a bad person. a) learning paradigm

b) psychoanalytic paradigm c) Beck’s cognitive paradigm d) gestalt paradigm Answer: c Section Reference: The Cognitive Behavioral Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain how culture, ethnicity, and interpersonal factors figure into the study and treatment of psychopathology. Bloomcode: Application

69. Newer CBT treatments differ from the original CBT treatments in that they emphasize all of the following EXCEPT: a) spirituality. b) values. c) emotions. d) rational thoughts. Answer: d Section Reference: The Cognitive Behavioral Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain how culture, ethnicity, and interpersonal factors figure into the study and treatment of psychopathology. Bloomcode: Analysis 70. Ted is a “workaholic”: he works 15 hours a day and never has time to spend with his family or on things he enjoys. Which of the following is a cognitive explanation of Ted’s behavior? a) Ted is imitating the behavior of his hard-working father. b) Ted believes he can be a good person only if he excels in everything he does. c) Ted is actually afraid of getting close to others. d) Ted lacks the assertiveness to stand up to his boss’s demands. Answer: b Section Reference: The Cognitive Behavioral Paradigm Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Explain how culture, ethnicity, and interpersonal factors figure into the study and treatment of psychopathology. Bloomcode: Synthesis

71. CBT stands for a) Cognitive Bias Therapy b) Congruent Behavior Therapy

c) Congruent Bias Therapy d) Cognitive Behavior Therapy Answer: d Section Reference: The Cognitive Behavioral Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain how culture, ethnicity, and interpersonal factors figure into the study and treatment of psychopathology. Bloomcode: Knowledge

72. __________ is the idea that a person can, without being aware of it, be influenced by prior learning. a) Complicit memory b) Implicit memory c) Subconscious learning d) Conscious remembrance Answer: b Section Reference: The Cognitive Behavioral Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain how culture, ethnicity, and interpersonal factors figure into the study and treatment of psychopathology. Bloomcode: Knowledge

73. The difference between emotions and moods is that a) emotions involve feelings, while moods involve behaviors. b) emotions have been linked to psychological disorders, while moods have not. c) emotions are long-lived experiences, while moods tend to be short-lasting. d) emotions are fairly short-lived states, while moods tend to last for longer periods of time. Answer: d Section Reference: Factors That Cut Across the Paradigms Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Recognize the limits of adopting any one paradigm and the importance of integration across multiple levels of analysis, as in the diathesis–stress integrative paradigm. Bloomcode: Analysis

74. Lindsey opened a letter saying that she got into her top choice medical school. She felt a rush of joy and began to jump up and down with excitement. Which of the following best describes Lindsey’s state in the moment after opening the letter? a) Lindsey is experiencing happy emotions. b) Lindsey is not good at expressing emotions c) Lindsey has a happy schema.

d) Lindsey has sad affect. Answer: a Section Reference: Factors That Cut Across the Paradigms Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Recognize the limits of adopting any one paradigm and the importance of integration across multiple levels of analysis, as in the diathesis–stress integrative paradigm. Bloomcode: Applied

75. When studying the role of emotions in different mental disorders, it is important to consider a) which components of emotion are affected. b) how sad the person is. c) cardiovascular responses to stress. d) which emotions have the largest effect on mood. Answer: a Section Reference: Factors That Cut Across the Paradigms Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Recognize the limits of adopting any one paradigm and the importance of integration across multiple levels of analysis, as in the diathesis–stress integrative paradigm. Bloomcode: Analysis

76. Multinational studies on the role of gender in psychopathology have shown that a) alcohol dependence is equally common among women and men. b) depression is nearly twice as common among women than men. c) antisocial personality disorder is more common among women than men. d) childhood disorders affect more girls than boys. Answer: b Section Reference: Factors That Cut Across the Paradigms Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Recognize the limits of adopting any one paradigm and the importance of integration across multiple levels of analysis, as in the diathesis–stress integrative paradigm. Bloomcode: Analysis

77. Cultural and ethnic studies of psychopathology conducted around the world indicate that a) most disorders are only prevalent in the United States. b) all disorders in the DSM-5 can be identified in every culture studied. c) treatments are universally effective for all disorders. d) a number of disorders are indeed observed in diverse parts of the world. Answer: d

Section Reference: Factors That Cut Across the Paradigms Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Recognize the limits of adopting any one paradigm and the importance of integration across multiple levels of analysis, as in the diathesis–stress integrative paradigm. Bloomcode: Analysis

78. Studies of psychopathology among different cultures and ethnicities have shown that eating disorders are more common among __________, while schizophrenia is more common among __________. a) African-Americans; Caucasians b) Hispanics; Caucasians c) Caucasians; African-Americans d) African-Americans; Hispanics Answer: c Section Reference: Factors That Cut Across the Paradigms Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Recognize the limits of adopting any one paradigm and the importance of integration across multiple levels of analysis, as in the diathesis–stress integrative paradigm. Bloomcode: Evaluation

79. The study of sociocultural factors has become more prominent in a) Behavioral b) Cognitive c) Psychosocial d) Genetics and Neuroscience. Answer: d Section Reference: Factors That Cut Across the Paradigms Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Recognize the limits of adopting any one paradigm and the importance of integration across multiple levels of analysis, as in the diathesis–stress integrative paradigm. Bloomcode: Knowledge

80. Why do women have poorer health in general than men? a) Women live longer than men. b) Women are more likely to be diagnosed with a mental disorder than men. c) Women are exposed to more stress than men. d) All of the above. Answer: d Section Reference: Factors That Cut Across the Paradigms

Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Recognize the limits of adopting any one paradigm and the importance of integration across multiple levels of analysis, as in the diathesis–stress integrative paradigm. Bloomcode: Synthesis

81. Which of the following is responsible for the relationship between low SES and poor mental and physical health? a) Environmental factor reinforce poor health behaviors. b) Limited access to health services. c) Greater exposure to stress. d) All of the above. Answer: d Section Reference: The Cognitive Behavioral Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain how culture, ethnicity, and interpersonal factors figure into the study and treatment of psychopathology. Bloomcode: Analysis

82. __________ stresses the importance of long-standing patterns in close relationships, particularly within the family, that are shaped by the ways people think and feel. a) subjective relations theory b) object relations theory c) relationship theory d) none of the above Answer: b Section Reference: Factors That Cut Across the Paradigms Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Recognize the limits of adopting any one paradigm and the importance of integration across multiple levels of analysis, as in the diathesis–stress integrative paradigm. Bloomcode: Knowledge

83. The goal of __________ is to reduce the relationship stress and improve communication. a) couples therapy b) individual therapy c) triad therapy d) none of the above Answer: a Section Reference: The Cognitive Behavioral Paradigm Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Explain how culture, ethnicity, and interpersonal factors figure into the study and treatment of psychopathology. Bloomcode: Comprehension

84. The first goal of family-focused treatment is to a) provide psychoeducation. b) choose one problem to address. c) generate potential solutions. d) symptom management. Answer: a Section Reference: Factors That Cut Across the Paradigms Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Recognize the limits of adopting any one paradigm and the importance of integration across multiple levels of analysis, as in the diathesis–stress integrative paradigm. Bloomcode: Comprehension

85. The clinical case about Clare was included in the chapter on Current Paradigms in Psychopathology to illustrate the principle of a) rational-emotive therapy b) family-focused therapy c) couples therapy d) group therapy Answer: b Section Reference: Factors That Cut Across the Paradigms Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Recognize the limits of adopting any one paradigm and the importance of integration across multiple levels of analysis, as in the diathesis–stress integrative paradigm. Bloomcode: Application

86. __________ grew out of object relations theory. a) Differentiation theory b) Subjective self-theory c) Attachment theory d) Subject relations theory Answer: c Section Reference: Factors That Cut Across the Paradigms Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Recognize the limits of adopting any one paradigm and the importance of integration across multiple levels of analysis, as in the diathesis–stress integrative paradigm.

Bloomcode: Comprehension

87. Interpersonal therapy emphasizes the importance of __________ and how problems in these relationships contribute to psychological symptoms. a) past relationships b) current relationships c) future relationships d) both a and b Answer: b Section Reference: Factors That Cut Across the Paradigms Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Recognize the limits of adopting any one paradigm and the importance of integration across multiple levels of analysis, as in the diathesis–stress integrative paradigm. Bloomcode: Knowledge

88. IPT considers which of the following issues? a) Resolved grief b) Unresolved grief c) Established roles d) Social support Answer: b Section Reference: Factors that Cut Across the Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Recognize the limits of adopting any one paradigm and the importance of integration across multiple levels of analysis, as in the diathesis–stress integrative paradigm. Bloomcode: Comprehension

89. The diathesis-stress paradigm emphasizes that psychopathology results from a) predisposition and the unconscious. b) predisposition and environmental disturbances. c) physiology and biochemistry. d) attachment and gestalt problems. Answer: b Section Reference: Factors That Cut Across the Paradigms Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Recognize the limits of adopting any one paradigm and the importance of integration across multiple levels of analysis, as in the diathesis–stress integrative paradigm. Bloomcode: Knowledge

90. Which of the following is NOT an example of a diathesis? a) Chronic feelings of hopelessness, often found in people with depression. b) The ability to be hypnotized often, seen in people with dissociative identity disorder. c) Intense fear of becoming fat often, found in people with eating disorders. d) Delusions often found in people with schizophrenia. Answer: d Section Reference: Factors That Cut Across the Paradigms Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Recognize the limits of adopting any one paradigm and the importance of integration across multiple levels of analysis, as in the diathesis–stress integrative paradigm. Bloomcode: Applied

91. According to the diathesis-stress model, if Linda inherited a predisposition that places her at high risk for schizophrenia, a) given a certain amount of stress, it is likely Linda will develop schizophrenia. b) Linda will most definitely develop schizophrenia. c) Linda will only develop schizophrenia if she has also inherited a predisposition to be paranoid. d) Linda also inherited a schema that predisposes her to experience stress more easily than most people. Answer: a Section Reference: Factors That Cut Across the Paradigms Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Recognize the limits of adopting any one paradigm and the importance of integration across multiple levels of analysis, as in the diathesis–stress integrative paradigm. Bloomcode: Applied

92. Which of the following statements are TRUE about paradigms? a) Data gathered by researchers subscribing to different paradigms are not necessarily incompatible with one another. b) The genetic paradigm offers a “complete” conceptualization of psychopathology. c) The diathesis stress model is not considered a paradigm. d) Clinical cases are seldom conceptualized using more than one paradigm. Answer: a Section Reference: Factors That Cut Across the Paradigms Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Recognize the limits of adopting any one paradigm and the importance of integration across multiple levels of analysis, as in the diathesis-stress integrative paradigm Bloomcode: Analysis

93. Most therapists today conceptualize a clinical case using a) one paradigm b) two primary paradigms c) multiple paradigms d) no paradigms Answer: c Section Reference: Factors That Cut Across the Paradigms Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Recognize the limits of adopting any one paradigm and the importance of integration across multiple levels of analysis, as in the diathesis-stress integrative paradigm Bloomcode: Comprehension

Question Type: Essay

94. What is a paradigm? Why is it important to adopt a paradigm in the study of psychopathology? Answer: Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigm. Bloomcode: Synthesis Difficulty: Hard

95. Compare and contrast three of the major paradigms in psychopathology discussed in Chapter 2. How do the paradigms differ? What do they have in common? In comparing these paradigms, be sure to indicate how the perspective may appear incompatible, as well as how each one is complementary. Answer: Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigm. Bloomcode: Evaluation Difficulty: Hard

96. What has been the important contribution of the psychoanalytic paradigm to psychopathology? What has been the major limitation? Answer: Section Reference: The Cognitive Behavioral Paradigm Learning Objective: Explain how culture, ethnicity, and interpersonal factors figure into the study and treatment of psychopathology.

Bloomcode: Analysis Difficulty: Medium

97. Behavioral therapy and cognitive therapy have been unified, and now it is rare to hear of mental health professionals refer to themselves as only adhering to one or the other paradigm. Discuss why it is sensible that these paradigms be united. Answer: Section Reference: Factors That Cut Across the Paradigms Learning Objective: Recognize the limits of adopting any one paradigm and the importance of integration across multiple levels of analysis, as in the diathesis-stress integrative paradigm Bloomcode: Evaluate Difficulty: Hard

98. Discuss how cognitive therapy has contributed to behavior therapy. Answer: Section Reference: The Cognitive Behavioral Paradigm Learning Objective: Explain how culture, ethnicity, and interpersonal factors figure into the study and treatment of psychopathology. Bloomcode: Analysis Difficulty: Medium

99. Describe three different behavioral therapies (not including cognitive treatments). Answer: Section Reference: The Cognitive Behavioral Paradigm Learning Objective: Explain how culture, ethnicity, and interpersonal factors figure into the study and treatment of psychopathology. Bloomcode: Analysis Difficulty: Medium 100. Explain the importance of behavior and molecular genetics to the study of psychopathology. Answer: Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigm. Bloomcode: Evaluate Difficulty: Hard

101. Define a gene-environment interaction and give an example.

Answer: Section Reference: The Genetic Paradigm Learning Objective: Describe the essentials of the genetic, neuroscience, and cognitive behavioral paradigm. Bloomcode: Application Difficulty: Medium

102. What are neurotransmitters, and which are implicated in psychopathology? Answer: Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Application Difficulty: Medium

103. Describe the functions of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. Answer: Section Reference: The Neuroscience Paradigm Learning Objective: Describe the concept of emotion and how it may be relevant to psychopathology. Bloomcode: Comprehension Difficulty: Easy

104. What role does the unconscious play in psychopathology? Answer: Section Reference: The Cognitive Behavioral Paradigm Learning Objective: Explain how culture, ethnicity, and interpersonal factors figure into the study and treatment of psychopathology. Bloomcode: Synthesis Difficulty: Hard

105. Explain the difference between object-relations theory/therapy and interpersonal therapy. Answer: Section Reference: Factors That Cut Across the Paradigms Learning Objective: Recognize the limits of adopting any one paradigm and the importance of integration across multiple levels of analysis, as in the diathesis–stress integrative paradigm. Bloomcode: Analysis Difficulty: Medium

Question Type: True/False

106. True or False: The way we think and feel about things influences our behavior a) True. b) False. Answer: a Section Reference: The Cognitive Behavioral Paradigm Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain how culture, ethnicity, and interpersonal factors figure into the study

and treatment of psychopathology. Bloomcode: Comprehension

Package Title: Chapter 3, Testbank Course Title: Kring, Abnormal Psych 14e Chapter Number: 3

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1. Having a correct diagnosis for Aaron from the clinical case will help clinicians to a) Give Aaron an IQ test b) Describe base rates, causes and treatments. c) Identify what kind of insurance coverage Aaron has. d) Know if other members of Aaron’s family have the same psychological disorder Answer: b Section Reference: Cornerstones of Diagnosis and Assessment: Reliability and Validity Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the purposes of diagnosis and assessment, and distinguish the different types of reliability and validity. Bloomcode: Knowledge

2. Having a diagnosis provides clinicians with information about all of the following EXCEPT: a) rates. b) causes. c) treatment protocols. d) stigma. Answer: d Section Reference: Cornerstones of Diagnosis and Assessment: Reliability and Validity Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the purposes of diagnosis and assessment, and distinguish the different types of reliability and validity, and distinguish the different types of reliability and validity. Bloomcode: Knowledge

3. One would expect items on a depression assessment measure to have a) interrater reliability. b) alternate-form reliability. c) internal consistency reliability. d) external reliability. Answer: c Section Reference: Cornerstones of Diagnosis and Assessment: Reliability and Validity: Reliability and Validity

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the purposes of diagnosis and assessment, and distinguish the different types of reliability and validity. Bloomcode: Analysis

4. If Shaniqua wants to be sure her bathroom scale has test-retest reliability, she should a) weigh herself today and then eat a lot; get on the scale again and see if her weight changes. b) get on and off the scale repeatedly and see if it shows the same weight each time. c) ask others to weight themselves later that day. d) buy a second scale and see if they both give her the same weight when she steps on them. Answer: b Section Reference: Cornerstones of Diagnosis and Assessment: Reliability and Validity Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the purposes of diagnosis and assessment, and distinguish the different types of reliability and validity. Bloomcode: Application

5. If Jose wants to know if the scale he uses to weigh his tomatoes at the grocery store has alternate-form reliability, he could a) take them home and weigh them again in an hour. b) weigh the tomatoes on two other scales in the produce department and see if they weighed the same. c) ask another shopper what she thinks the tomatoes weigh. d) take the tomatoes and put them on and off the scale several times and see if they weigh the same each time. Answer: b Section Reference: Cornerstones of Diagnosis and Assessment: Reliability and Validity Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the purposes of diagnosis and assessment, and distinguish the different types of reliability and validity. Bloomcode: Application

6. An example of a test that has predictive validity is a) an eye exam. b) a midterm exam. c) an IQ test. d) a preference test. Answer: c Section Reference: Cornerstones of Diagnosis and Assessment: Reliability and Validity Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: Describe the purposes of diagnosis and assessment, and distinguish the different types of reliability and validity. Bloomcode: Application

7. Jim was given an intelligence test in March and readministered the same test one year later. His score both times was the same. This indicates that the intelligence test has a) high test-retest reliability. b) high interrater agreement. c) internal consistency. d) none of the above. Answer: a Section Reference: Cornerstones of Diagnosis and Assessment: Reliability and Validity Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the purposes of diagnosis and assessment, and distinguish the different types of reliability and validity. Bloomcode: Application

8. Generally, it is impossible for measures to be a) reliable but not valid. b) valid but not reliable. c) neither reliable nor valid. d) both reliable and valid. Answer: b Section Reference: Cornerstones of Diagnosis and Assessment: Reliability and Validity Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the purposes of diagnosis and assessment, and distinguish the different types of reliability and validity. Bloomcode: Analysis 9. Britney was taking a test to measure levels of depression. All of the items covered typical symptoms of depression. This inventory would be said to have a) high construct validity. b) high content validity. c) high criterion validity. d) high statistical validity. Answer: b Section Reference: Cornerstones of Diagnosis and Assessment: Reliability and Validity Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the purposes of diagnosis and assessment, and distinguish the different types of reliability and validity.

Bloomcode: Application

10. Jackson appears to have social phobia. This diagnosis was made by looking at his scores on a particular measure of social fear. Scores like his in the past have been shown to be related to social phobia, and also correlated with a variety of measures of social and occupational disability associated with social phobia. The measure Jackson took would be said to have a) high construct validity. b) high content validity. c) high criterion validity. d) high statistical validity. Answer: a Section Reference: Cornerstones of Diagnosis and Assessment: Reliability and Validity Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the purposes of diagnosis and assessment, and distinguish the different types of reliability and validity. Bloomcode: Application

11. The letters in the abbreviation DSM refer to a) Diseases and Symptoms of the Mind. b) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual. c) Diseases and Symptoms Manual. d) Disorders and Symptoms Manual. Answer: b Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Knowledge

12. The DSM-5 was released in a) 2016. b) 2015. c) 2014. d) 2013. Answer: d Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly.

Bloomcode: Knoweldge

13. Schizophrenia was once known as a) psychonaturalism. b) schizoid prixat. c) tripolar disorder. d) dementia praecox. Answer: d Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Knowledge

14. The highest priority of the DSM-5 is that it a) is reliable. b) is useful to clinicians. c) is shorter than the DSM-IV-TR. d) is bilingual. Answer: b Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Knowledge

15. What does the WHO stand for a) World Health Organization b) A famous British Rock Band c) World Harmony Organization d) World Health Occupation Answer: a Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Knowledge

16. In what year did the WHO publish the ICD a) 1959. b) 1969. c) 1979. d) 1989. Answer: b Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Knowledge

17. What does ICD stand for a) Intercontinental Classification of Disease. b) International Classification of Disorders. c) Intercontinental Classification of Disorders. d) International Classification of Disease. Answer: d Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Knowledge

18. The DSM-5 codes are similar to those in the WHO and the __________. a) ICD. b) APA. c) ADA. d) PPA. Answer: a Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Knowledge

19. The DSM-5 is organized according to a) comorbidity.

b) shared etiology. c) severity. d) both a and b. Answer: d Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Knowledge

20. Which of the following is NOT a new diagnosis in the DSM-5? a) Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. b) Premenstrual dysphoric disorder. c) Illness anxiety disorder. d) Bipolar disorder. Answer: d Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Knowledge

21. Culture shapes all of the following EXCEPT: a) language used to describe symptoms. b) expression of symptoms. c) commonness of the symptoms. d) etiology of the symptoms. Answer: d Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Analysis

22. In what year did the American Psychiatric Association publish an extensively revised DSM-III a) 1960 b) 1970 c) 1980 d) 1990

Answer: c Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Knowledge

23. In 1994, the DSM-IV was published by the a) American Psychopathological and Statistical Association. b) World Health Organization. c) Congress of Mental Science. d) American Psychiatric Association. Answer: d Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Knowledge

24. In 2000, the DSM-IV-TR was published a) to clarify issues surrounding prevalence rates, course, and etiology. b) to describe diagnoses in objective terms. c) to include response to treatment in the descriptions of diagnoses. d) for use by laypersons as well as professionals. Answer: a Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Analysis

25. Major improvements since the DSM-III include all of the following EXCEPT: a) more specific diagnostic criteria. b) more extensive descriptions of diagnosis on Axes I and II. c) decrease in diagnostic categories. d) more emphasis on laboratory findings and results from physical exams. Answer: c

Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Analysis

26. Previous editions of the DSM were criticized for their a) lack of attention to childhood disorders. b) lack of attention to cultural and ethnic variations in psychopathology. c) inability to accurately diagnose individuals with schizophrenia. d) overemphasis on mood disorders. Answer: b Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Knowledge

27. Which of the following statements is TRUE? a) Culture can have a large influence on which symptoms of a given disorder are expressed. b) For most diagnoses in the DSM-5, it is advised not to consider cultural context. c) All symptoms of psychiatric disorders manifest themselves in similar ways across cultures. d) The DSM-II was the first edition of the DSM to consider cultural and ethnic variations in psychopathology. Answer: a Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Analysis

28. How many cultural concepts of distress appear in the DSM-5 a) 8. b) 9. c) 10. d) 11. Answer: b Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Knowledge

29. Which of the following is a culture-bound syndrome listed in the DSM- 5 that involves individuals in Japan, Taiwan, and South Korea shutting themselves in their room for at least six months and refusing to socialize with anyone? a) ghost sickness b) Dhat c) Hikikomori d) Koro Answer: c Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Knowledge

30. The DSM-5 includes approximately __________ different diagnostic categories. a) 350 b) 500 c) 100 d) 50 Answer: a Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Knowledge

31. Some critics of the DSM-5 believe that a) there are not enough different diagnoses. b) the DSM-5 has pathologized too many problems without good justification. c) there is not enough comorbidity in diagnoses. d) another diagnostic category should be added titled “Conditions that may be a focus of clinical attention in elderly populations.” Answer: b Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Analysis

32. Comorbidity refers to a) the likelihood that a given psychological disorder will result in death. b) how long a person is expected to live with a given psychological disorder. c) the presence of a second diagnosis. d) the absence of an clinical disorder. Answer: c Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Comprehension

33. True or False: Comorbidity refers to the presence of a second diagnosis a) True. b) False. Answer: a Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Knowledge

34. The DSM-5 is an example of which approach to classification? a) Categorical b) Dimensional c) Quantitative d) Atheoretical Answer: a Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Comprehension

35. Which of the following is an example of something using a dimensional classification system? a) gender b) college major c) telephone number d) grade point average Answer: d Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Application

36. Dr. Kline classified her patients according to hair color. Some were classified as blonde, some brunette, and some red haired. This classification is an example of a a) continuous classification. b) etiological classification. c) categorical classification. d) dimensional classification. Answer: c Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Applied

37. You are relying on a dimensional classification scheme and work with individuals who struggle with delusions. Your diagnoses are going to be based upon the __________ of delusions. a) presence or absence b) social consequences c) underlying cause d) severity Answer: d Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Synthesis

38. The fact that SSRIs often relieve symptoms of anxiety as well as depression suggests to some

clinicians and researchers that a) SSRIs are inadequate drugs for depression. b) anxiety and depression should be part of the same diagnostic category. c) anxiety should be treated with anxiolytics. d) depression should be a dimensional diagnostic system. Answer: b Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Analysis

39. What is one reason categorical systems are popular? a) Freud was a proponent of such a system. b) They define a certain threshold for treatment. c) They describe the degree to which an entity is present. d) It is more helpful to know severity of a symptom than whether or not it is present. Answer: b Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Knowledge 40. Caleb went to see two different psychologists about his depressive symptoms. One told him that he suffered from major depressive disorder and the other told him that he had bipolar disorder. This is an example of a problem with __________ a) interrater reliability. b) content validity. c) internal consistency. d) construct validity. Answer: a Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Applied

41. When Dr. Smith diagnoses a patient with schizophrenia and Dr. Jones diagnoses that same patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder, we would say that Dr. Smith and Dr. Jones have a) low construct validity.

b) low inter-rater reliability. c) low content accuracy. d) low criteria. Answer: b Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Applied 42. In order to study the reliability of a diagnostic category, we would study whether a) it acknowledges the uniqueness of each individual. b) it has explicitly stated criteria. c) patients with the label respond to treatment in the same way. d) diagnosticians apply it consistently. Answer: d Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Comprehension

43. Reliability, as used in diagnosis, is the same as a) agreement. b) validity. c) judgment. d) utility. Answer: a Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Comprehension

44. If a diagnosis helps clinicians make good predictions and informs them of the likely course of the disorder, psychologists would say that the diagnosis has a) interrater reliability. b) construct validity. c) test validity. d) internal consistency.

Answer: b Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Applied

45. Which of the following situations is most similar to the concept of reliability in making psychiatric diagnoses? a) You see identical twins that have identical mannerisms. b) After watching a new TV show, you and a friend independently decide that it was lousy. c) You're not sure what time a baseball game is on and guess it is at 1:00 pm. You look in the TV guide and it is, in fact, at 1:00 pm. d) You meet someone new at a party and decide that she/he is a shy person. Sure enough, she/he hardly speaks to anyone at the party. Answer: b Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Applied

46. A valid classification system is one that a) has clear criteria for making diagnoses. b) ensures that two or more people will agree on a classification. c) leads to accurate predictions and statements. d) has a clear purpose. Answer: c Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Analysis

47. In clinical interviews, most clinicians pay particular attention to a) manner of responding. b) truthfulness. c) childhood. d) current social functioning.

Answer: a Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Analysis

48. Which of the following is the most important in a clinical interview? a) Time of day b) Location of interview c) Rapport established by interviewer d) Structured instrument used by interviewer Answer: c Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Applied

49. Which of the following is a structured interview? a) SRRS b) SCID c) ADE d) Rorschach Answer: b Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Knowledge

50. Which of the following is a problem with using unstructured clinical interviews in diagnosis? a) The person being assessed feels less comfortable opening up than in structured interviews. b) They require less clinical expertise than structured interviews. c) There is poor inter-rater reliability. d) They can only be conducted by psychiatrists. Answer: c Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Analysis

51. Which of the following is NOT a measure of psychological stress? a) List of Threatening Experiences b) Psychiatric Epidemiological Research Interview Life Events Scale c) Life Events and Difficulties Schedule d) Thematic Apperception Test Answer: d Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Knowledge

52. According to Hans Selye, the__________ describes the biological response to sustained high levels of stress a) general adaptation syndrome b) general anxiety syndrome c) anxiety adaptation syndrome d) stress response syndrome Answer: a Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Knowledge 53. Phase 2 of Hans Selye’s General Adaptation Syndrome is a) alarm reaction. b) resistance. c) exhaustion. d) none of the above. Answer: b Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Knowledge

54. The current conceptualization of stress emphasizes how we perceive or __________ the environment in order to determine whether a stressor is present. a) detail b) investigate c) appraise d) elicit Answer: c Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Comprehension

55. An advantage of the Life Events and Difficulties Schedule (LEDS) over other life stress assessments is that it a) is a very structured interview. b) takes less time to complete. c) allows the evaluation of life events in the context of a person’s unique life circumstances. d) relies less on determining when an event actually occurred. Answer: c Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Applied

56. The Life Events and Difficulties Schedule (LEDS) has led researchers to conclude that a) life events are robust predictors of several psychological and medical symptoms. b) stress is mediated by one’s childhood experiences. c) a given life event has the same impact across individuals. d) the correlation between life events and stress is low. Answer: a Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Comprehension

57. Self-Report Stress Checklists are less time consuming than conducting interviews, but they are problematic as well. Which of the following problems apply to these checklists? a) Variability in how people interpret events. b) Recall and forgetting. c) Biased responses based on current mood. d) All of the above. Answer: d Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Knowledge

58. You have developed a new personality inventory that will be used to match roommates in order to minimize conflict. You are almost ready to market the test, but first must administer it to several hundred individuals to establish normative data. This phase of test development is referred to as a) branching. b) psychometrics. c) validation. d) standardization. Answer: d Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Applied

59. You decide that you wish to use the MMPI to form a scale within the instrument to distinguish potential professional wrestlers from those without the potential to be wrestlers. Using the same method as that used to develop the MMPI, you would a) identify items that were about wrestling. b) identify items that distinguish pro wrestlers from non-wrestlers. c) find all the items that wrestlers answered as true regarding themselves. d) look for consistency among items endorsed by wrestlers as true. Answer: b Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment.

Bloomcode: Applied

60. The MMPI is an example of a(n) a) projective test. b) personality inventory. c) intelligence test. d) structured clinical interview. Answer: b Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Applied

61. One reason for revising the MMPI was to a) make scoring easier and more reliable. b) accommodate changes in DSM criteria. c) improve acceptability. d) reduce possibilities for cheating. Answer: c Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Analysis

62. Which of the following was not a change made in the revised version of the MMPI? a) Increase representation from different racial groups in the norm sample. b) Alter the format for answering questions. c) Alter the norm sample to reflect the composition of the US. d) Alter items to make the content more current. Answer: b Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Analysis

63. Which of the following is a limitation of computer generated scoring of the MMPI? a) Interpretation of the scores still relies on the competence of the psychologist. b) Difficulty in using the program. c) Ability of the computer to handle respondents who “fake bad.” d) Usefulness of computer-generated report in developing comprehensive reports. Answer: a Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Analysis

64. The MMPI detects individuals attempting to fake the test by a) including special scales to detect lying. b) inferring the lying behavior from answers left blank. c) re-administering the test. d) examining highly unusual responses. Answer: a Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Knowledge

65. Which of the following is an example of an item that might be included in the MMPI lie scale? a) “Sometimes I feel nauseous for no apparent reason.” b) “I enjoy reading detective novels.” c) “ have never used a foul word.” d) “I often walk after dinner.” Answer: c Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Applied

66. The projective hypothesis assumes that a) responses to highly structured tasks reveal hidden attitudes and motivations.

b) unstructured stimuli reveal conscious motives. c) unstructured stimuli provoke anxiety. d) responses to ambiguous stimuli are influenced by unconscious factors. Answer: d Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Comprehension

67. The stimulus materials in the Thematic Apperception Test are ambiguous a) to increase the likelihood that the individual is not giving responses that are consciously mediated. b) for greater precision. c) to increase rapport. d) to create discomfort in the client and thereby encourage a closer relationship with the therapist. Answer: a Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Comprehension

68. The Rorschach Inkblot Test is an example of a(n) a) intelligence test. b) diagnostic inventory. c) neuropsychological test. d) projective test. Answer: d Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Knowledge

69. The Rorschach ink blot test is scored using a) Exon scoring system. b) Exner scoring system. c) Exeter scoring system. d) Extreme scoring system.

Answer: b Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Applied

Question Type: True/False

70. True or False: a good clinical interview requires great skill a) True. b) False. Answer: a Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Applied

Question Type: Multiple Choice

71. You are being tested by an examiner who is showing you pictures about which you are asked to tell complete stories. You are probably taking a) the Rorschach. b) the MMPI-2. c) the Thematic Apperception Test. d) The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale–III. Answer: c Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Applied

72. Intelligence tests were originally developed for the purpose of a) determining which psychiatric patients could benefit from “talk” therapy. b) predicting which children have special academic needs.

c) determining the age at which a child should enter school. d) segregating people of low intelligence so they would not have children. Answer: b Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Knowledge 73. Intelligence tests are based on the assumption that a detailed sample of a person’s current intellectual functioning can predict a) brain dysfunction. b) innate aspects of IQ. c) cognitive effectiveness. d) academic potential. Answer: d Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Knowledge

74. The construct validity of intelligence tests is limited by a) how psychologists define intelligence. b) the nature of the population tested with the instruments. c) their generally low reliability. d) none of the above. Answer: a Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Comprehension

75. Two children are administered the same IQ test. Assuming all factors to be equal except racial differences between the children, what factor has been found to explain any difference in scores between these children? a) Stereotype threat b) Attention difficulties

c) Both stereotype threat and attention difficulties d) None of the above Answer: a Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Applied

76. Average intelligence is associated with a score of approximately a) 130. b) 70. c) 100. d) Average intelligence cannot be determined. Answer: c Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Knowledge

77. A group of 8th grade boys and a group of 8th grade girls are administered the same math test. According to the __________ phenomenon, the girls might perform more poorly than the boys. a) stereotype threat. b) standardization. c) gender awareness. d) self-monitoring. Answer: a Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Applied

78. Awareness of stereotypes tends to develop a) in infancy. b) between ages 6-10. c) in early adolescence. d) between ages 4-5.

Answer: b Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Knowledge

79. Compared to traditional personality assessment, behavioral assessment a) does not use self-report data because of its lack of reliability. b) relies more heavily on self-report data. c) focuses on situational determinants rather than traits. d) focuses on what a person says, rather than how it is said. Answer: c Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Analysis

80. Why do behavioral assessors sometimes set up contrived situations in which to observe behavior? a) They do not think the setting is an important influence on people’s behavior. b) Such assessments avoid the problem of reactivity. c) They want to see how people respond in unusual situations. d) It is often difficult to control the conditions in natural settings. Answer: d Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Analysis

81. What behavioral assessment procedure is associated with the most reactivity? a) Self-monitoring b) Personality inventory c) Projective test d) Structured clinical interview Answer: a Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Analysis

82. Joe's therapist has him keep a log of everything he eats as part of a weight-loss program. This is an example of the behavioral assessment technique of a) self-monitoring. b) reactivity. c) direct observation. d) cognitive observation. Answer: a Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Applied

83. Miranda is trying to quit smoking. As part of her behavioral assessment, she is asked to maintain a diary and record what occurred before, during, and immediately following each time she smoked a cigarette, in real time. In order to do this, she had structured record sheets for each day. This type of assessment is referred to as a) ecological momentary assessment. b) self-report. c) direct observation. d) behavioral interview. Answer: a Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Applied

84. Cognitive assessment measures are usually used to a) identify psychopathology. b) explore the projective hypothesis. c) test theories about how people think. d) measure people’s intelligence. Answer: c Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Knowledge

85. Xavier is recording his thoughts each time he feels depressed. This is also referred to as a __________ assessment. a) projective b) behavioral c) cognitive d) neuropsychological Answer: c Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Applied

86. An example of a self-report cognitive assessment consistent with Beck’s theory of depression is a) Internal-External Attribution Questionnaire. b) Dysfunctional Attitude Scale. c) Attributional Style Questionnaire. d) Cognitive Thought Record. Answer: b Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Bloomcode: Evaluation

87. Which is most similar to an X-ray? a) MRI b) EEG c) CT scan d) PET scan Answer: c Section Reference: Neurobiological Assessment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Understand key approaches to neurobiological assessment. Bloomcode: Analysis

88. PET and MRI are specific types of a) projective tests. b) personality inventories. c) neuropsychological tests. d) brain imaging tests. Answer: d Section Reference: Neurobiological Assessment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Understand key approaches to neurobiological assessment. Bloomcode: Knowledge

89. Functional MRI (fMRI) differs from ordinary MRI in that a) fMRI records metabolic changes in the brain. b) ordinary MRI can only be done annually. c) fMRI relies upon other tests to assess brain function. d) ordinary MRI is invasive Answer: a Section Reference: Neurobiological Assessment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Understand key approaches to neurobiological assessment. Bloomcode: Analysis

90. fMRI measures blood flow in the brain, called the BOLD signal, which stands for a) Blood Oxygenation Life Designs. b) Blood Oxygenation Level Dependent. c) Barium Oxygenation Light Designs. d) Barium Oxygenation Level Dependent. Answer: b Section Reference: Neurobiological Assessment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Understand key approaches to neurobiological assessment. Bloomcode: Knowledge

91. PET is to CT scan as a) structure is to function. b) function is to structure.

c) cognitive is to behavioral. d) projective is to objective. Answer: b Section Reference: Neurobiological Assessment Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Understand key approaches to neurobiological assessment. Bloomcode: Synthesis

92. A common method assessing neurotransmitters is a) analyzing metabolites. b) CT scan. c) X-ray. d) measuring dopamine. Answer: a Section Reference: Neurobiological Assessment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Understand key approaches to neurobiological assessment. Bloomcode: Knowledge

93. One of the problems with measuring metabolites from blood or urine is that a) the presence of a given metabolite tends to be overestimated. b) this type of measuring does not reflect levels of neurotransmitters in the brain. c) the presence of a given metabolite tends to be underestimated. d) blood and urine samples are not always easy to collect. Answer: b Section Reference: Neurobiological Assessment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Understand key approaches to neurobiological assessment. Bloomcode: Analysis

94. One of the major problems with drawing conclusions from metabolite studies is that a) they are inaccurate. b) metabolite levels change significantly over time. c) they are correlational. d) they provide little data. Answer: c Section Reference: Neurobiological Assessment

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Understand key approaches to neurobiological assessment. Bloomcode: Analysis

95. Current results from brain imaging studies a) are useful in diagnosing psychopathology. b) indicate that most disorders affect only a tiny portion of the brain. c) suggest that most psychopathology is due to deficits in the frontal lobe. d) are not strong enough for these methods to be used in diagnosing psychopathology. Answer: d Section Reference: Neurobiological Assessment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Understand key approaches to neurobiological assessment. Bloomcode: Applied

96. Which kind of assessment is illustrated here? Dr. Lee assesses the possibility that Joe has brain damage by measuring his performance on a number of tasks including copying symbols, remembering numbers, and recognizing nonsense syllables. a) Physiological assessment b) Neurological assessment c) Psychological assessment d) Neuropsychological assessment Answer: d Section Reference: Neuropsychological Assessment Difficulty:Medium Learning Objective: Understand key approaches to neurobiological assessment.Bloomcode: Applied

97. Which of the following are designed to measure behavioral disturbances resulting from brain dysfunction? a) Brain imaging techniques b) Electrocardiograms c) Neuropsychological tests d) Neurotransmitter assessment Answer: c Section Reference: Neuropsychological Assessment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Understand key approaches to neurobiological assessment. Bloomcode: Knowledge

98. Which of the following specializes in medical diseases that affect the nervous system? a) Neuropsychologist b) Neurologist c) Psychiatrist d) Psychologist Answer: b Section Reference: Neuropsychological Assessment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Understand key approaches to neurobiological assessment. Bloomcode: Knowledge

99. The Halstead-Reitan and Luria-Nebraska are specific types of a) personality inventories. b) intelligence tests. c) neuropsychological assessments. d) neurological procedures. Answer: c Section Reference: Neuropsychological Assessment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Understand key approaches to neurobiological assessment. Bloomcode: Knowledge

100. Sarah and Carrie, at the same age, were administered the Luria-Nebraska test battery. Sarah graduated with a Ph.D., while Carrie did not complete high school. Assuming all other factors equal, the scores they receive on the Luria-Nebraska a) should differ. Sarah should score higher based on education. b) should differ. Carrie should score higher as it is not based on education. c) should not differ since education level is controlled for. d) It is impossible to predict the differences from the information provided. Answer: c Section Reference: Neuropsychological Assessment Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Understand key approaches to neurobiological assessment. Bloomcode: Evaluation

101. Why should we not expect a one-to-one relationship between psychological and physical measures of brain functioning? a) They cannot measure brain functioning during normal daily activity.

b) Little is known about the functioning of individual neurons. c) Psychological measures have low reliability and validity. d) People differ in how well they cope with brain dysfunctions. Answer: d Section Reference: Neurobiological Assessment Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Understand key approaches to neurobiological assessment. Bloomcode: Synthesis

102. Psychophysiology is the study of a) somatic treatments for psychological problems. b) the neurological basis of psychological problems. c) bodily changes associated with psychological events. d) phenomena such as extrasensory perception. Answer: c Section Reference: Neurobiological Assessment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Understand key approaches to neurobiological assessment. Bloomcode: Knowledge

103. A problem with some psychophysiological assessments is a) clients are unwilling to have the electrodes attached for measurement. b) the measures do not differentiate clearly between emotional states. c) each instrument determines the base rate of reliability. d) the assessments are highly dependent on situational factors, rather than enduring features. Answer: b Section Reference: Neurobiological Assessment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Understand key approaches to neurobiological assessment. Bloomcode: Analysis

104. Which of the following is NOT an important reason why someone would fail to show an emotional response to evocative words when undergoing an fMRI assessment? a) They might not have paid attention. b) They might not have understood the words. c) They might be distracted by the loud noises of the machine itself. d) Evocative words alone should not produce an emotional response. Answer: d

Section Reference: Neurobiological Assessment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Understand key approaches to neurobiological assessment. Bloomcode: Applied

105. Jose, a Puerto Rican living in New York, was being assessed by Dr. Jones, a doctor born in the U.S. Jose casually states that he feels there are spirits surrounding him. Dr. Jones may a) misdiagnose him as having schizophrenia if he fails to take cultural factors into account. b) ignore this information if he fails to take cultural factors into consideration. c) correctly diagnose him as having schizophrenia despite any cultural factors. d) None of the above. Answer: a Section Reference: Cultural and Ethnic Diversity and Assessment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Understand the ways in which culture and ethnicity impact diagnosis and assessment. Bloomcode: Applied

106. If a clinician is informed that a prospective client, who is seeing things that are not actually there, is African-American and in a lower income bracket, the clinician may be more likely to a) suggest a diagnosis of mood disorder. b) suggest a diagnosis of schizophrenia. c) suggest that there is a good prognosis for treatment. d) recommend a second opinion. Answer: b Section Reference: Cultural and Ethnic Diversity and Assessment Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Understand the ways in which culture and ethnicity impact diagnosis and assessment. Bloomcode: Synthesis

107. Based on the available research, if a Hispanic client is being examined by an assessor from a different cultural background, the examiner should a) schedule fewer sessions to remain objective. b) refer the client to a psychiatrist. c) obtain a different test battery. d) schedule additional sessions to ensure adequate rapport. Answer: d Section Reference: Cultural and Ethnic Diversity and Assessment

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Understand the ways in which culture and ethnicity impact diagnosis and assessment. Bloomcode: Analysis

108. The best way for clinicians to avoid bias in the diagnosis of patients from ethnic minority groups is to a) avoid seeing such patients in their practice. b) avoid diagnosing such patients. c) employ only those personality measures that have been specifically designed for that ethnic group. d) learn to consider and test alternative hypotheses when evaluating clients from different ethnic groups. Answer: d Section Reference: Cultural and Ethnic Diversity and Assessment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Understand the ways in which culture and ethnicity impact diagnosis and assessment. Bloomcode: Analysis

109. There were ___ axes in the DSM-IV-TR while ___ is/are used in the DSM-5 a) 5, 2 b) 5, 0 c) 5, 3 d) 3, 2 Answer: b Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Knowledge

Question Type: True/False

110. True or False? The DSM-5 includes a severity scale for most diagnoses. Answer: False Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Knowledge

111. True or False? One significant change from the DSM-IV-TR and the DSM-5 is the inclusion of a severity scale for each diagnosis. Answer: False Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Knowledge

Question Type: Essay

112. Critically consider methods for clinicians to be more culturally sensitive in their assessment procedures. Answer: Section Reference: Cultural and Ethnic Diversity and Assessment Learning Objective: Discuss the ways in which culture and ethnicity impact diagnosis and assessment. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

113. Discuss the methods used to develop the scales on the MMPI-2. Answer: Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

114. Compare the relative contributions to assessment of personality by objective and projective assessments. Answer: Section Reference: Diagnosis Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and

concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

115. Describe three types of validity and the means of identifying each for an assessment instrument. Answer: Section Reference: Cornerstones of Diagnosis and Assessment: Reliability and Validity Learning Objective: Describe the purposes of diagnosis and assessment Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation

116. Describe a dimensional approach to diagnosis. Explain how such a diagnostic approach would be either superior or inferior to the current approach to diagnosis. Answer: Section Reference: Diagnosis Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis

117. Discuss the importance of establishing high interrater reliability in a diagnostic model. As part of this discussion, indicate some limitations that remain even when high interrater reliability has been established. Answer: Section Reference: Diagnosis Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Evaluation

118. What are the criticisms of classification? How would you recommend reforming the DSM-5 to address these criticisms? Answer: Section Reference: Psychological Assessment Learning Objective: Describe the goals, strengths, and weaknesses of psychological approaches to assessment. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis

119. Given the cultural differences noted in making different diagnoses, what does this say about the DSM 5 in general? Does this reflect anything important about the validity of the diagnoses? Answer: Section Reference: Cultural and Ethnic Diversity and Assessment Learning Objective: Understand the ways in which culture and ethnicity impact diagnosis and assessment. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis

120. What are the pros and cons of having a diagnostic system? Answer: Section Reference: Diagnosis Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

Question Type: Multiple Choice

121. All of the following are changes that were made in the DSM 5 EXCEPT:

a) New diagnoses b) Combining diagnoses c) Removal of the multiaxial system d) Grouping disorders based on age-related conditions Answer: d Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Analysis

122. All of the following are new chapters in the DSM-5 except: a) Depressive Disorders b) Childhood Disorders c) Neurocognitive Disorders d) Somatic Symptom Disorders Answer: b

Section Reference: Diagnosis Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify the basic features, strengths, and weaknesses of the DSM, and concerns about diagnosis more broadly. Bloomcode: Analysis

Package Title: Chapter 4, Testbank Course Title: Kring, Abnormal Psych 14e Chapter Number: 4

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1. Science comes from the Latin word scire, which means a) to know b) to research c) to question d) all of the above Answer: a Section Reference: Science and Scientific Methods Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe defining features of science and the scientific method. Bloomcode: Knowledge

2. The scientific approach requires that theories be stated a) clearly and precisely b) as questions c) in scientific terms d) without reference to research Answer: a Section Reference: Science and Scientific Methods Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe defining features of science and the scientific method. Bloomcode: Knowledge

3. When testing a theory, each scientific observation must be a) replaceable. b) replicable. c) unique. d) original. Answer: b Section Reference: Science and Scientific Methods Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe defining features of science and the scientific method.

Bloomcode: Knowledge 4. “The primary problem is an unconscious anger toward his mother.” What makes this statement unscientific? a) It is not reliable. b) It does not make sense. c) It is not theoretical. d) It is not testable. Answer: d Section Reference: Science and Scientific Methods Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe defining features of science and the scientific method. Bloomcode: Applied

5. A theory a) is derived from hypotheses. b) is the result of long deliberation by a scientist. c) attempts to explain a class of phenomena. d) all of the above. Answer: d Section Reference: Science and Scientific Methods Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe defining features of science and the scientific method. Bloomcode: Knowledge

6. A good theory should a) be incapable of being proven wrong. b) make sense of obscure phenomena. c) develop directly out of observations. d) explain cause-effect relationships. Answer: d Section Reference: Science and Scientific Methods Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe defining features of science and the scientific method. Bloomcode: Analysis

7. Which of the following are generated by theories?

a) case material b) hypotheses c) statistical significance d) none of the above Answer: b Section Reference: Science and Scientific Methods Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe defining features of science and the scientific method. Bloomcode: Knowledge 8. Juan wants to do a research study on whether or not studying for a test will improve students’ performance. If he believes it will, what would be his hypothesis? a) Will studying improve test performance? b) Will those who don’t study perform worse than those who do? c) Students who study will perform better on the test. d) All of the above Answer: c Section Reference: Science and Scientific Methods Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe defining features of science and the scientific method. Bloomcode: Applied

9. Which of the following can disprove but not prove a hypothesis? a) correlation b) case study c) experiment d) questionnaire Answer: b Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and Identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Analysis

10. Dr. Lee has been treating someone with an unusual combination of symptoms. He notes that there is no published research on such a combination of symptoms, and considers developing a case study. How would Dr. Lee conduct this study?

a) Try to find other cases like the one he is treating. b) Gather detailed historical and biographical information on this single individual. c) Examine treatment response using an ABAB design. d) Withhold treatment in an effort to fully understand the significance of symptoms. Answer: b Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and Identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Applied

11. Which research method would be most useful in generating hypotheses about the cause of a newly discovered, rare abnormality? a) case study b) correlational method c) experimental design d) single-subject ABAB design Answer: a Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Analysis

12. Case studies can be effective for which of the following purposes? a) Confirming theoretical propositions. b) Generating research hypotheses. c) Demonstrating universal relationships. d) Showing cause-effect relationships. Answer: b Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs.

Bloomcode: Analysis

13. Which of the following scientific methods uses random assignment? a) experiment b) correlation c) case study d) realistic Answer: a Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Analysis

14. Case studies are not useful in a) providing the means for ruling out alternative hypotheses. b) providing a rich description of clinical phenomena. c) disproving an allegedly universal hypothesis. d) generating hypotheses. Answer: a Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Analysis

15. Which of the following are valid criticisms of the case-study method? a) It does not provide the means for ruling out alternative hypotheses. b) It cannot provide satisfactory evidence for cause-effect relationships. c) The results of a case study are influenced by many factors unique to the subject and the context of the case study. d) All of the above. Answer: d Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Analysis

16. Which of the following design methods would take the longest amount of time for a researcher to conduct a) case-study method. b) correlational method. c) experimental method. d) longitudinal design. Answer: d Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Analysis

17. Dr. Bradley has been conducting a case study of Brenda P., a woman with dissociative identity disorder. Which of the following statements by Dr. Bradley is a misuse of the case study method? a) “Brenda, a woman with dissociative identity disorder, was sexually abused as a child. Therefore, all individuals with multiple personality disorder must have been abuse victims.” b) “Since Brenda was not sexually abused, the theory that all dissociation is caused by sexual abuse may not be universally true.” c) “Brenda was sexually molested as a child. This leads me to hypothesize that perhaps other individuals with dissociative identity disorder were molested as children.” d) All of the above are examples of inappropriate uses of the case study. Answer: a Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Applied

18. Correlational research differs from experimental research in that correlational research a) is associated with external validity.

b) does not involve manipulation of variables. c) relies on significance tests. d) samples large groups of participants. Answer: b Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Analysis

19. Which research design method could be used to reach the largest number of test subjects quickly a) “Conduct an experiment. b) Case study. c) Use a Survey instrument. d) Correlation study Answer: c Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Evaluation

20. The more intelligent a person is, the greater the chance that he or she will receive higher grades in school. Most likely, this finding comes from which type of research? a) case study b) epidemiology c) correlational study d) experiment Answer: c Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Applied

21. Professor Jones has observed a correlation between students sitting in the front of the room and getting better grades in her classes. In order to conduct an “experiment” on this, Professor Jones could a) collect data on student study habits. b) assign students randomly to seats. c) adjust her data for overall grade point average. d) obtain similar data from other professors and classes. Answer: b Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Applied

22. Which of the following correlation coefficient values demonstrates the highest degree of correlation? a) -1.00 b) +0.67 c) +0.96 d) -0.84 Answer: a Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Applied

23. If variables were found to be unrelated their correlation coefficient would be: a) -1.00 b) 0.00 c) +1.00 d) None of the above Answer: b Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Applied

24. Which research design is illustrated by the following? A therapist gathers data showing that, repeatedly, a patient is better on days his wife visits and worse on days when she does not. a) observation b) correlational method c) single-subject (ABAB) experiment d) longitudinal design Answer: b Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Applied

25. Men and women were compared for their levels of disgust reactions to a gross photograph. This would be a(n) __________ study. a) case b) correlational c) experimental d) epidemiological Answer: b Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Applied

26. A correlation coefficient can range in value from a) -1.00 to +1.00. b) -100 to +100. c) 0 to 1. d) 0 to 100.

Answer: a Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Knowledge

27. Which of the following correlations might have resulted from a study which compared grade point average to hours per week spent partying and which concluded that students who party more get poorer grades? a) +1.50 b) +.50 c) 0.00 d) -.50 Answer: d Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Applied

28. Which of the following correlation coefficients is plausible for a study that showed that the weight of people’s clothing increases as the temperature decreases? a) r = +.20 b) r = 0.00 c) r = -.20 d) r = -2.0 Answer: c Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Applied

29. Which of the following would likely produce a negative correlation? a) intelligence and grade point averages. b) family income and living in the inner city.

c) length of hair and history of child abuse. d) auto accident injuries and blood alcohol level of drivers. Answer: b Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Applied

30. A correlation of .98 between X and Y would indicate a) virtually no relationship between X and Y. b) a causal relationship, where X causes Y. c) a weak positive relationship between X and Y. d) a strong positive relationship between X and Y. Answer: d Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Applied

31. If the correlation between two variables is zero, this means that a) higher scores on one are associated with higher scores on the other. b) they are perfectly related. c) there is no relationship between them. d) they are inversely related. Answer: c Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Knowledge

32. Dr. Hauser hypothesized that depression is related to stress so that people who are more depressed are also more stressed. Which of the following correlations between depression and stress would best support her hypothesis?

a) 0 b) .55 c) .80 d) -.99 Answer: c Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Applied

33. When examining a scatter diagram, the __________ scattered the points are distributed, the __________the correlation. a) more; lower b) more; higher c) less; lower d) less; higher Answer: a Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Evaluation

34. A statistical finding is usually considered significant if: a) the probability that it is an accurate finding is 5 or less in 100 b) the probability that it is an accurate finding is 1 or less in 100 c) the probability that it is a chance finding is 5 or less in 100 d) the probability that it is a chance finding is 50 or less in 100 Answer: c Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Knowledge

35. __________ is defined by whether or not a relationship between variables is large enough to

matter. a) clinical significance b) statistical significance c) reliable significance d) valid significance Answer: a Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Knowledge

36. With the __________ method, only people with above-average risk of developing a particular disorder would be studied. a) scientific b) correlational c) heredity d) high-risk Answer: d Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Knowledge 37. Saying that a research result is “statistically significant” means that it probably a) has practical applications. b) shows a cause-effect relationship. c) did not occur by chance. d) shows a positive correlation. Answer: c Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Comprehension

38. Which of the following correlation coefficients is most likely to be statistically significant? a) .00 b) -.10 c) +.40 d) -.85 Answer: d Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Applied

39. Statistical significance is used to evaluate a) the causal relationship between variables. b) the external validity of research results. c) the likelihood of repeating research results. d) the theoretical consistency of research results. Answer: c Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Comprehension

40. The standard for suggesting that a result is statistically significant is if the chances are less than __________ in 100 that it occurred by chance. a) .05 b) 5 c) 10 d) 25 Answer: b Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Knowledge

41. Dr. Samuelson finds that the relation between level of hopelessness and suicide is .35, and that there is a less than 5 in 100 probability that this occured by chance alone. What would be concluded about this correlation? a) It demonstrates that suicide attempts cause hopelessness. b) It is statistically significant. c) It is unreliable. d) It is valid. Answer: b Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Evaluation

42. Which of the following findings is most likely to be statistically significant? a) correlation = .30; sample size = 350 b) correlation = .30; sample size = 200 c) correlation = -.25; sample size = 200 d) Can't tell from the available information Answer: a Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Synthesis

43. If a correlation between depressive symptoms and active treatment is clinically significant, this means a) the effect is large enough to provide reliability information. b) the effect is large enough to provide meaningful information in predicting or treating depression. c) it is not statistically significant. d) that causation can be implied. Answer: b Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Comprehension

44. Psychopathologists rely upon correlational research since a) it is effective in determining cause and effect. b) many of the variables they wish to study cannot be manipulated. c) ethical considerations prevent them from doing case studies. d) they cannot measure all the constructs. Answer: b Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Analysis

45. Which statement is TRUE regarding correlation? a) Correlation does not imply causation. b) Causation does not imply correlation. c) Both a and b are true. d) Neither a nor b are true. Answer: a Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Comprehension

46. Dr. Fiedler found that people with schizophrenia are more likely to have lower socioeconomic status than those who do not have schizophrenia. What can you conclude from this study? a) Poverty is a cause of schizophrenia. b) Schizophrenia leads to poverty. c) Economic reform would reduce the incidence of schizophrenia. d) Schizophrenia and poverty are related. Answer: d Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Applied

47. Several studies have found a correlation between schizophrenia and family conflict. Which of the following explanations illustrates the directionality problem? a) The relationship found between schizophrenia and family conflict may not be consistent in different ethnic groups. b) Schizophrenics may be less likely to live with their families. c) Both schizophrenia and family conflict may be caused by low socioeconomic status. d) Family conflict may be a contributing factor in schizophrenia, or schizophrenia may contribute to family conflict. Answer: d Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Applied

48. In correlational studies it can be hard to show which variable led to a change in the other variable. This is a problem with a) directionality. b) cross-fostering. c) incidence. d) clinical significance. Answer: a Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Comprehension

49. Professor Misha collects data showing a correlation between grades and happiness. He concludes that being happy helps students to get better grades. Which of the following illustrates the “directionality problem” in Professor X’s conclusion? a) Students in love may be happier and get better grades. b) Good grades may produce happiness.

c) Students with poor grades may drop out of school. d) Female (or male) students may get better grades. Answer: b Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Applied

50. Researchers who use the experimental method understand all of the following but a) Experimental research has been used for many years to improve psychological treatments. b) It is a standardized process c) Experimental research can be used to see if some treatments are harmful. d) Internal validity is a concern in treatment research. Answer: b Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Analysis

51. Directionality is best addressed by a) using a control group. b) using a longitudinal design. c) using a case study. d) using a correlational design. Answer: b Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Comprehension

52. You hypothesize that low social class causes poor school grades. You find that the correlation between low social class and school grades is .01. What can you conclude? a) Your hypothesis may be correct, but a case study would be necessary to reach a firm

conclusion. b) Your hypothesis is probably incorrect. c) There is very little relationship between social class and school grades. d) It is likely that poor school grades lead to low social class. Answer: c Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Applied

53. Ava wants to design a study in which the causes and effects are measured at the same point in time because it is more cost-efficient. This type of study design is called a) longitudinal. b) correlational. c) cross-sectional. d) epidemiological. Answer: c Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Applied

54. Farrah is working on a study that selected a group of teenage girls diagnosed with an eating disorder and plans to measure risk variables in this sample repeatedly for the next 25 years. Farrah is most likely working on a study with a a) experimental design. b) correlational design. c) cross-sectional design. d) longitudinal design. Answer: d Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Applied

55. When studying the relationship between social class and anxiety disorders, Dr. Stewart follows 50 children whose parents were diagnosed with an anxiety disorder from birth to age 30. This is an example of: a) the experimental method. b) an epidemiological study. c) a behavioral-genetics study. d) the high-risk method. Answer: d Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Applied

56. Dr. Hall found a positive correlation between depression and child abuse: depressed mothers were more likely to abuse their children. Which of the following explanations best illustrates the third-variable problem? a) Abusing one’s children may cause depression. b) Poverty may cause both depression and child abuse. c) The relationship between depression and child abuse may apply only to women. d) Abused children may have a predisposition to become depressed. Answer: b Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Applied

57. A research team found that men who did not exercise had a greater rate of heart disease than those who did. Which of the following explanations best illustrates the third-variable problem? a) Heart disease might make it more difficult for men to exercise. b) The relationship between exercise and heart disease might not be causal. c) Including men who smoke in the study might erase the relationship between exercise and heart disease. d) Smoking might cause both heart disease and reluctance to exercise. Answer: d Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology

58. Epidemiology is the study of a) unique cases or unusual disorders. b) the rates and correlates of disorders in a population. c) the development of disorders over the life span. d) mental disorders in other cultures. Answer: b Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Knowledge

59. The __________ problem is concerned with whether or not an additional variable may have caused the outcome. a) third-variable b) additional-variable c) correlated-variable d) extra-variable Answer: a Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Knowledge

60. Eric is concerned about the distribution of schizophrenia in a particular city. To answer his question he would have to look at the findings of a(n) __________ study. a) epidemiological research b) episodic research c) occasional research d) representative research Answer: a

Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Applied

61. Professor Merrick wishes to study the percentage of men from various social classes who drop out of school. Which of the following methods would be most useful? a) the experiment b) the case study c) epidemiological research d) the mixed designs Answer: c Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Applied

62. There is no relationship between social class and schizophrenia. What types of research would most likely lead to such a conclusion? a) epidemiological and case study b) epidemiological and correlational c) case study and mixed design d) correlational and experimental Answer: b Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Applied 63. “About 2% of adults have obsessive-compulsive disorder.” This is a statement about the __________ of obsessive-compulsive disorder. a) incidence b) prevalence c) risk factor

d) correlation coefficient Answer: b Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Applied

64. Incidence refers to a) the likelihood that a disorder will be found in another culture. b) the number of people who develop new cases of the disorder in a given time period. c) the proportion of a population that has a disorder now. d) the likelihood that a person will have a disorder given that they have a particular characteristic. Answer: b Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Knowledge 65. “Approximately 1500 new cases of AIDS were diagnosed in 1988 in Chicago.” This is an example of the estimate of the __________ of AIDS. a) prevalence b) incidence c) risk factor d) statistical significance Answer: b Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Applied

66. A risk factor may be best defined as a) the likelihood that a disorder will be found in another culture. b) the likelihood of contracting a disorder in a given time period.

c) the proportion of a population that has a disorder now. d) a characteristic that increases the likelihood of developing a disorder. Answer: d Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Comprehension

67. Researchers went door to door conducting structured diagnostic interviews to determine how common particular psychiatric diagnoses were. Which type of research was this? a) case studies b) epidemiological c) correlational d) experimental Answer: b Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Applied

68. Frank and Jamal are monozygotic twins, so we can expect them to: a) look identical b) look different c) dress alike d) have the same friends Answer: a Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Applied 69. Jacob was “cross-fostered,” which means he was: a) raised in more than one foster family b) raised in two foster families – half his life in one family and half in the other

c) raised completely apart from his biological parents d) raised by his grandparents and then foster care Answer: c Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Applied 70. “The lifetime prevalence rate of panic disorder is 3.5%.” This statement indicates that a) new cases of panic disorder will be 3.5% of the population over the next year. b) there is a 3.5% chance of developing panic disorder following the interview until death. c) of individuals interviewed, 3.5% had experienced panic disorder at some point in their life. d) the proportion of chronic panic sufferers is 3.5%. Answer: c Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Applied

71. Epidemiological research can be helpful for a) addressing third-variable and directionality problems. b) determining the effectiveness of different treatments. c) planning for the health care needs of communities. d) intensive analysis of a disease in a single individual. Answer: c Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Knowledge

72. What type of research enabled psychopathologists to discover that Attentiondeficit/Hyperactivity Disorder is more common in boys than in girls? a) case study b) epidemiological c) experimental d) correlational

Answer: b Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Comprehension

73. What is a common problem in epidemiological studies? a) They are experimental. b) They cannot measure prevalence, only incidence. c) They often draw on samples that are not representative of the population being studied. d) They do not use undergraduate samples. Answer: c Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Analysis

74. A study finds that children of mothers with a fear of heights are more likely to have a fear of heights themselves. Which of the following may be a reason why it would be inaccurate to conclude that a fear of heights is genetically transmitted from mother to offspring? a) Specific phobias cannot be genetically transmitted. b) The mothers may model phobic behavior. c) The study did not test the possibility of the fathers having a fear of heights. d) The children might develop their own new fears. Answer: b Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Applied

75. An investigator finds that the concordance rate for bipolar disorder is higher among monozygotic twins than dizygotic twins. Which would be an INCORRECT conclusion on the basis of this finding? a) Bipolar disorder is partially inherited. b) Bipolar disorder is learned through interactions and observations of family members. c) Genetics play no role in bipolar disorder.

d) Identical twins may not be treated in the same way as non-identical twins. Answer: c Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Synthesis

76. Concordance for disorders should be greater for __________ than __________ if there is a genetic predisposition for the condition. a) monozygotic; dizygotic pairs b) genotypic; phenotypic pairs c) dizygotic; monozygotic pairs d) phenotypic; genotypic pairs Answer: a Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Comprehension

77. In research using the twin method, a disorder is heritable if the concordance is __________ in DZ compared to MZ twins is a) absent b) higher c) the same d) lower Answer: d Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Comprehension

78. The best evidence supporting a genetic component to different disorders stems from a) proband studies. b) studies of twins reared apart. c) sibling studies. d) family studies.

79. The family method refers to a) identifying the gene(s) believed to cause inherited disorders. b) comparing the incidence of disorders in other members of a family. c) examining twins raised apart. d) examining phenotypes of nuclear families. Answer: b Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Knowledge

80. Which of the following is another term for an index case? a) genotypes b) phenotypes c) probands d) zygotes Answer: c Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Knowledge

81. A genetic explanation of schizophrenia would be supported by which of the following choices? a) Higher concordance between MZ than DZ twins. b) MZ twins reared apart are likely to share the disorder. c) First-degree relatives of someone with schizophrenia are more likely to have schizophrenia than third-degree relatives. d) All of these support a genetic explanation.

Answer: d Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Analysis

82. In this method, children are adopted and reared by adopted parents who have a particular disorder. a) family method b) twin method c) experiment d) cross-fostering Answer: d Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Knowledge

83. Causal relationships are best identified by which design? a) case study b) epidemiological c) correlational d) experimental Answer: d Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Analysis

84. In the field of psychopathology, what is the most common use of the experiment? a) evaluating the effects of therapies b) discovering the causes of disorders c) disconfirming the results of correlational studies d) identifying third variables Answer: a

Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome ResearchDifficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Comprehension 85. The “experimental effect” refers to a) manipulation of the independent variable. b) random assignment to conditions. c) measurement of the dependent variable. d) differences between conditions on the dependent variable. Answer: d Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Knowledge

86. Professor Fulford believes that when people try to block certain thoughts, the thoughts are more intrusive. She randomly assigns participants to two groups: one that must try to prevent thoughts, and one that can think of anything they wish. What is the independent variable in this experiment? a) participants b) intrusive thoughts c) thought prevention d) think of anything Answer: c Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Applied

87. Dr. Wilhelm randomly assigned 50 depressed patients (half women and half men) to two groups for treatment. One group received medication and the other received cognitive therapy. Ratings of the depression level of the subjects were taken before and after treatment. The rating of subjects’ depression level is the a) dependent variable. b) confound variable. c) third variable. d) independent variable.

Answer: a Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Applied

88. In a study where participants are assigned to one of two treatment groups (medication versus cognitive therapy), the type of treatment received is the a) third variable. b) classificatory variable. c) dependent variable. d) independent variable. Answer: d Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Applied

89. Persons with schizophrenia are randomly assigned to either an attention-training group or a social skills training group. Scores on a measure of thought disorder were examined after the end of the training sessions. __________ is/are the independent variable(s) and __________ is/are the dependent variable(s). a) Schizophrenia; the thought disorder scores b) The thought disorder scores; the treatment group. c) The treatment group; the thought disorder scores d) The gender of the participants; the treatment group Answer: c Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Applied

90. In a study of 100 people with panic disorder, 50 were treated with psychotherapy and 50 were treated with medication. At the end of 12 weeks of treatment, the psychotherapy group had an average score of 25 on a scale of panic severity, while the medication group had an average score of 75. This difference is called the

a) within-groups variance. b) experimental effect. c) internal validity. d) none of the above. Answer: b Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Applied

91. In an experiment, control groups and random assignment are used to a) improve internal validity. b) increase statistical significance. c) improve external validity. d) minimize correlations. Answer: a Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Knowledge

92. In an experimental design, the control group is the group that a) has the disorder in question. b) does not have the disorder in question. c) receives the experimental treatment. d) does not receive the experimental treatment. Answer: d Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Knowledge

93. In an experiment, the subjects in the control group do not receive the a) third variable. b) independent variable. c) dependent variable. d) experimental effect.

94. Dr. Reside treated 20 children using a new therapeutic procedure. An outside observer rated the children's activity level on a laboratory task before and after the treatment; 80% of the children decreased their activity level following treatment, and Dr. Reside concluded that the procedure was highly effective. What is the major problem with Dr. Reside’s experiment? a) lack of control group b) lack of a double-blind procedure c) no baseline measure d) the observer was biased Answer: a Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Analysis

95. When an experimenter can state with confidence that the findings from an experiment are due to the independent variable and not due to other, uncontrolled factors, the research is considered a) testable. b) statistically significant. c) double-blind. d) internally valid. Answer: d Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Comprehension

96. The inclusion of a control group a) always makes a study internally valid. b) is among the criteria for a design to be considered an experiment. c) can never be done ethically when examining the effectiveness of therapy.

d) all of the above. Answer: b Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Knowledge

97. Random assignment is a) only used in a control group. b) among the criteria for a design to be considered an experiment. c) used in the correlational method. d) all of the above. Answer: b Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Knowledge

98. Chris is suffering from a migraine headache. His mother gives him a small white pill to take and tells him that it is a new medication specifically for migraines. After taking the pill, Chris reports feeling a bit better. The pill was actually just a breath mint. This phenomenon is an example of a) misdirection. b) malingering. c) the placebo effect. d) the hopefulness principle. Answer: c Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Applied

99. Lenny is enrolled in a study examining the psychological treatment of phobias. He sees a therapist weekly and receives support and encouragement, but no gradual exposure. Lenny is most likely in a) a treatment group.

b) a control group. c) an independent-variable group. d) a low-severity group. Answer: b Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Applied

100. When conducting a study on the effects of different medications in the treatment of depression, if the individual dispensing the medication does not know which medication he/she is giving and the patient is unaware of which medication is being received, the study is called a) double-blind. b) analogue. c) externally valid. d) confounded. Answer: a Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Knowledge

101. Dr. Dominguez conducted a study of children with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. She developed a new medication that was significantly better than placebo in treating the disorder, but this effect was not found in a similar study conducted in another laboratory. Dr. Dominguez’s study has __________ internal validity and __________ external validity. a) high; high b) high; low c) low; high d) low; low Answer: b Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Analysis

102. To test the impact of therapy on depression, a researcher tells a random half of his subjects

(falsely) that they failed an exam. He then conducts one hour of therapy with the “failure” subjects. One week later the subjects given false feedback are no more depressed than the control group, so the researcher concludes the treatment was effective. This would be described as which type of research? a) a longitudinal design b) an analogue study c) a correlational design d) convenience sampling Answer: b Section Reference: Analogues in Psychopathology Research Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the types of analogues that are most common in psychopathology research, and debates about the use of analogues. Bloomcode: Analysis

103. Which of the following steps would improve the external validity of an analogue experiment of subclinical depression in college students? a) Include a no-treatment control group. b) Perform statistical analyses on the results. c) Use clinically depressed patients. d) Include several types of therapy. Answer: c Section Reference: Analogues in Psychopathology Research Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the types of analogues that are most common in psychopathology research, and debates about the use of analogues. Bloomcode: Analysis

104. __________ is a strength of an analogue study while ______________ is a weakness of an analogue study a) good internal validity, loss of studying the actual issue b) poor internal validity, loss of studying the actual issue c) good internal validity, gain of studying the actual issue d) poor internal validity, gain of studying the actual issue Answer: a Section Reference: Analogues in Psychopathology Research Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the types of analogues that are most common in psychopathology research, and debates about the use of analogues. Bloomcode: Analysis

105. Dr. Smart conducted a study that examined the physiological reactions of rats reared in isolation to the introduction of a stranger rat in their cage. She wanted to examine the effects of growing up in isolation on social behavior in order to understand more about social phobia in humans. This study is an example of a) an analogue experiment. b) a correlational design. c) an experimental design. d) none of the above. Answer: a Section Reference: Analogues in Psychopathology Research Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the types of analogues that are most common in psychopathology research, and debates about the use of analogues. Bloomcode: Applied

106. Mary, who has trichotillomania (chronic hair pulling), is enrolled in a single-subject study using an ABAB design to see if she pulls more hair while watching TV. Mary watched TV during dinner for four weeks and pulled at least ten hairs a day for the four weeks. Then she left the TV off for four weeks and pulled only one hair per day for the four weeks. In the next step of this design, the experimenter should ask Mary to a) get other subjects to follow the same procedure. b) have her mother rate how much she eats. c) turn the TV back on for four weeks. d) change what she eats during dinner. Answer: c Section Reference: One Example of Experimental research: Treatment Outcome Research Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Explain the standards and issues in conducting psychotherapy outcome research. Bloomcode: Synthesis

107. In a single-subject ABAB design, ABAB refers to a) repeatedly introducing and removing the treatment. b) repeatedly measuring different behaviors. c) the statistical procedure used to analyze the results. d) repeating the procedure with additional subjects. Answer: a Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Easy

108. The single-subject ABAB design cannot be used to study behaviors that a) are not prevalent in the population. b) do not return to baseline. c) are highly reactive. d) have highly heritable components. Answer: b Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Analysis

109. In the single-subject ABAB design, the letters A and B refer to different a) individuals. b) controls. c) sequences. d) measures. Answer: c Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Comprehension

110. Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the text as a weakness of the ABAB design? a) It has low internal validity. b) Reinstating the original condition is ethically questionable. c) It has low external validity. d) The initial state of the subject may not be recoverable. Answer: a Section Reference: The Experiment Difficulty: Easy

111. Which of the following is considered to be a reversal design? a) BBAA b) BABA c) ABAB d) AABB Answer: c Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Analysis

112. What type of research design synthesizes information across studies to arrive at general conclusions? a) longitudinal b) cross-sectional c) meta-analysis d) reversal design Answer: c Section Reference: Integrating the Findings of Multiple Studies Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss current debate concerning replicability in science, and the

basic steps in conducting a meta-analysis. Bloomcode: Analysis

113. Meta-analysis is a) a method of analyzing data for an individual study. b) a method of examining the findings from many studies in a quantitative manner. c) a procedure that has solved the problem of psychotherapy. d) none of the above. Answer: b Section Reference: Integrating the Findings of Multiple Studies Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Discuss current debate concerning replicability in science, and the basic steps in conduction a meta-analysis. Bloomcode: Knowledge

114. Meta-analyses summarize the findings of different studies through the use of a) correlation coefficients. b) effect sizes. c) between-group variance. d) within-group variance. Answer: b Section Reference: Integrating the Findings of Multiple Studies Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss current debate concerning replicability in science, and the basic steps in conduction a meta-analysis. Bloomcode: Comprehension

115. Which of the following is a critique of findings from meta-analyses? a) The summarized studies use different statistical procedures. b) Different studies reach different conclusions. c) They summarize findings from studies of varying quality. d) There are usually insufficient numbers of studies to analyze. Answer: c Section Reference: Integrating the Findings of Multiple Studies Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss current debate concerning replicability in science, and the basic steps in conduction a meta-analysis. Bloomcode: Analysis

116. Dr. Cauldwell finds that the relation between levels of depression and suicide is .55, and that there is a less than 10 in 100 probability that this occurred by chance alone. What would be concluded about this correlation? a) It demonstrates that suicide attempts cause hopelessness. b) A positive correlation that is not statistically significant. c) It is unreliable. d) It is valid. Answer: b Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational

designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Bloomcode: Evaluation

Question Type: Essay

117. Design a study to examine how memories change after a traumatic event. Be sure to identify who the participants in your study should be, and whether you can conduct an experimental or correlational study. Answer: Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Applied

118. What is the value of double-blind procedures? What are the limits to this procedure in psychopathology research that does not involve medication? Answer: Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

119. Compare the case study with the single-case design. What are the advantages and disadvantages of each design? Answer: Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

120. Which designs would result in a study with high internal validity? Why? Which ones would result in a study with high external validity? Why? How does a scientist decide which type of validity is more important for a particular study? Answer: Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis

121. Design an analogue experiment that could be conducted in order to learn more about an aspect of the human experience that cannot be directly tested. Explain why an analogue experiment is necessary. Be sure to identify your independent and dependent variables and state your experimental hypothesis. Answer: Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs. Difficulty: Hard Bloomcode: Synthesis

122. What are the advantages and disadvantages of meta-analysis? Answer: Section Reference: Integrating the Findings of Multiple Studies Learning Objective: Discuss current debate concerning replicability in science, and the basic steps in conduction a meta-analysis. Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

123. Describe the major types of research strategies used to study pathology. Evaluate the strengths and weaknesses of these strategies. Answer: Section Reference: Research Designs in Psychopathology Learning Objective: Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of case studies, correlational designs, and experimental designs, and identify common types of correlational and experimental designs.

Difficulty: Medium Bloomcode: Analysis

Chapter 05: Mood Disorders Multiple Choice 1. Which of the following is not considered a common symptom of depression? a) Psychomotor retardation or agitation b) Sleeping too much or too little c) Feelings of worthlessness or excessive guilt d) High Energy Level Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Depressive Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 2. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder involves a) children. b) adolescents. c) adults. d) both children and adolescents. Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Depressive Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 4. The slowing of thoughts and movements by those experiencing depression is called a) Psychomotor agitation. b) Social withdrawal. c) Psychomotor retardation. d) Melancholia. Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Depressive Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 5. Psychomotor agitation involves all but:

a) Pacing. b) Limbs feeling heavy. c) Wringing hands. d) Fidgeting. Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Depressive Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 6. According to the DSM-5, bereavement-related symptoms are no longer excluded from the diagnosis of a) Major depressive disorder b) Persistent depressive disorder c) Premenstrual Dysphoric disorder d) Bipolar I disorder Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Depressive Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension 7. Which of the following disorders is newly included in the DSM-5? a) Bipolar I disorder b) Bipolar II disorder c) Bipolar III disorder d) Persistent depressive disorder Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Depressive Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 8. In the DSM-5, __________ is included in persistent depressive disorder. a) Chronic bereavement-related depression b) Chronic major depressive disorder c) Bipolar I disorder d) Premenstrual dysphoric disorder

Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Depressive Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 9. Jacqueline has been consistently depressed for the past three years. Based on this information, the best diagnosis for Jacqueline would be a) Persistent depressive disorder. b) Cyclothymic disorder. c) Bipolar disorder. d) Disruptive mood regulation disorder. Ans: a Type: Applied Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Depressive Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Bloomcode: Application 10. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder is distinguished from major depression by the addition of all of the following symptoms except: a) Breast tenderness or swelling. b) Bloating. c) Loss of interest in previously pleasureable activities. d) Joint or muscle pain. Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Depressive Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders.Bloomcode: Analysis 11. The DSM-5 diagnosis of major depressive disorder includes __________ depressive symptoms that are present for at least two weeks. a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Depressive Disorders

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 12. Nancy is a 28 year old female who presents with the symptoms of low energy, poor selfesteem, feelings of hopelessness and has had a depressed mood for most of the day more than half of the time for 2 years. The best diagnosis that describes her condition is a) Major Depressive Disorder b) Persistent Depressive Disorder c) Premenstrual dysphoric disorder d) Seasonal Affective Disorder Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Depressive Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Bloomcode: Evaulation 13. Kyle is a 55 year old male from Maine who presents with the symptoms of depression several consistently over the same months every year. During these times he sleeps longer and suffers from lower appetite and energy. The best diagnosis that describes his condition is a) Major Depressive Disorder b) Persistent Depressive Disorder c) Premenstrual dysphoric disorder d) Seasonal Affective Disorder Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Depressive Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Bloomcode: Evaluation 14. What percentage of people who meet the criteria for a diagnosis of MDD also experience an anxiety disorder during their lifetime? a) 70% b) 60% c) 50% d) 40% Ans: b Type: Factual

Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Depressive Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 15. All of the following are mood disorders in the DSM-5 except: a) Mixed Anxiety/Depressive Disorder b) Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder c) Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder d) Cyclothymia Ans: a Type: Knowledge Section: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Depressive Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 16. The most prevalent psychiatric disorder in the U.S. is a) Mood dysregulation disorder b) Cyclothymia c) Major depressive disorder d) Bipolar disorder Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Depressive Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 17. Major depressive disorder is three times more common among __________ populations. a) High SES b) Low SES c) Middle class d) None of the above Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Depressive Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

18. __________ as many girls as boys are exposed to childhood sexual abuse. a) Twice b) Three times c) Four times d) Five times Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Depressive Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 19. Which of the following factors has NOT been proposed as an explanation for the gender difference in depression? a) Girls are more likely to be exposed to sexual abuse than boys. b) Women tend to be more creative than men. c) Women are more likely to be exposed to chronic stressors in adulthood. d) Social roles promote emotion-focused coping among women. Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Depressive Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 20. Which of the following people is least likely to have major depression? a) A 45-year-old wealthy woman b) A 35-year-old unemployed man c) A 20-year-old wealthy man d) A 19-year-old wealthy woman who has had one episode of depression in the past Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Depressive Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 21. Every winter for the past three years, Natalie has felt extremely depressed for a period of months and is unable to keep up with her responsibilities because of her low energy and

difficulty concentrating. She always appears to feel better by early spring and is at her best during the summer. Which of the following DSM-5 diagnoses would best fit Natalie? a) Cyclothymic disorder b) Major depression— c) Seasonal affective disorder d) Natalie’s symptoms reflect normal mood fluctuations and would not be given a DSM-5 diagnosis. Ans: c Type: Applied Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Depressive Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Bloomcode: Application 22. Which of the following treatments for seasonal affective disorder is now considered a firstline recommendation in the APA Treatment Guidelines for Depression? a) Hypnosis b) Regular bright light exposure c) Psychodynamic therapy d) Traveling to a warmer climate during winter months Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Depressive Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 23. Which of the following statements is correct? a) Cardiovascular health predicts depression. b) Depression predicts cardiovascular health. c) Cardiovascular health and depression are unrelated. d) Cardiovascular health and depression predict each other. Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

24. Jack reports being in a wonderful mood. He has been very active at work lately, even working far into the night, as he seems to need only a few hours of sleep at night. He is very talkative and quickly moves from one topic to another, describing a scheme he has for making a fortune in the stock market. These behaviors represent a change from Jack’s normal behaviors and have caused severe functional impairment. He reports no previous periods like this. Which of the following diagnoses would best fit Jack? a) Overanxious disorder. b) Dysthymic disorder. c) Bipolar disorder. d) Cyclothymic disorder. Ans: c Type: Applied Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Bipolar Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of mania, the diagnostic criteria for bipolar disorders, and the epidemiology of bipolar disorders. Bloomcode: Application 25. The DSM-5 recognizes which of the following forms of bipolar disorders? a) Bipolar I and Bipolar II b) Bipolar I, Bipolar II and Cyclothymia c) Bipolar and Cyclothymia d) Bipolar I, Bipolar II and Bipolar III Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Bipolar Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of mania, the diagnostic criteria for bipolar disorders, and the epidemiology of bipolar disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 26. Which of the following statements is true? a) All people who experience manic symptoms will experience symptoms of depression at some point during their lifetime. b) An episode of depression is required for the diagnosis of Bipolar I. c) An episode of depression is required for the diagnosis of Bipolar II. d) Researchers often study triggers of manic and depressive episodes simultaneously. Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Bipolar Disorders Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of mania, the diagnostic criteria for bipolar disorders, and the epidemiology of bipolar disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 27. Flight of ideas refers to a) delusional thinking. b) suicidal thinking. c) the thinking of a person with dementia. d) rapid shifts in topics while speaking. Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Bipolar Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of mania, the diagnostic criteria for bipolar disorders, and the epidemiology of bipolar disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension 28. To be diagnosed with bipolar I disorder, a person a) must be currently experiencing manic symptoms. b) must have experienced hypomanic symptoms as well as depressive symptoms at some point in their lifetime. c) must have had at least one episode of mania at some point in their lifetime. d) must have experienced at least one depressive episode. Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Bipolar Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of mania, the diagnostic criteria for bipolar disorders, and the epidemiology of bipolar disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension 29. Which of the following best describes hypomania? a) A type of mania that alternates with depression. b) A type of mania more common in dysthymic patients. c) A more severe form of mania. d) A less severe form of mania. Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Bipolar Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of mania, the diagnostic criteria for bipolar disorders, and the epidemiology of bipolar disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

30. Which of the following is a chronic, milder form of bipolar disorder? a) dysthymic disorder b) cyclothymic disorder c) manic-depression d) hypomanic disorder Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Bipolar Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of mania, the diagnostic criteria for bipolar disorders, and the epidemiology of bipolar disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 31. For a period of one week, Alan experienced episodes of extreme elation that caused significant functional impairment. Based on this information only, Alan was experiencing a a) manic episode. b) hypomanic episode. c) depressive episode. d) none of the above. Ans: a Type: Applied Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Bipolar Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of mania, the diagnostic criteria for bipolar disorders, and the epidemiology of bipolar disorders. Bloomcode: Application 32. Juan experiences symptoms of sad mood, increased sleep, agitation, poor appetite, and concentration difficulties most of the day. Julia, on the other hand, has symptoms of loss of interest in activities, lethargy, increased appetite, feelings of worthlessness, and recurrent thoughts of death. What can be concluded regarding Juan and Julia? a) Both Juan and Julia have bipolar disorder b) Juan has mania, whereas Julia has major depression. c) Both have major depression. d) Both have cyclothymic disorder. Ans: c Type: Applied Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Depressive Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Bloomcode: Application

33. In the past year, John has had three depressive episodes and two manic episodes. Which of the following DSM-5 diagnoses would best fit John? a) bipolar I disorder -- rapid cycling specifier b) bipolar II disorder -- rapid cycling specifier c) cyclothymia d) major depressive disorder -- rapid cycling specifier Ans: a Type: Applied Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Bipolar Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of mania, the diagnostic criteria for bipolar disorders, and the epidemiology of bipolar disorders. Bloomcode: Application 34. Which form of bipolar disorder is considered to be the most severe form of mental illness? a) Bipolar I b) Bipolar II c) Cyclothymic Disorder d) None of the above Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Bipolar DisordersDifficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of mania, the diagnostic criteria for bipolar disorders, and the epidemiology of bipolar disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 35. The DSM-5 criteria for cyclothymic disorder involves all of the following EXCEPT a) it must have occurred for at least two years. b) numerous periods with hypomanic symptoms. c) numerous periods with depressive symptoms. d) symptoms do not clear for more than six months at a time. Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Bipolar Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of mania, the diagnostic criteria for bipolar disorders, and the epidemiology of bipolar disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 36. Which of the following statements is true? a) There is a negative relationship between bipolar disorders and creativity. b) There is a positive relationship between bipolar disorders and creativity.

c) Creativity causes improvements in mood. d) Depression causes creative outbursts. Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 37. Twin studies yield heritability estimates of __________ for major depressive disorder. a) 37% b) 85% c) 25% d) 70% Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 38. Which of the following disorders has the highest heritability estimates? a) major depressive disorder b) bipolar disorder c) persistent depressive disorder d) cyclothymia Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 39. Most researchers believe that a) mood disorders are caused by a single gene that regulates mood. b) mood disorders are caused by a set of genes. c) mood disorders are caused by a dysregulation of norepinephrine. d) mood disorders are caused by a single gene called N34. Ans: b

Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 40. Norepinephrine and serotonin are __________ implicated in mood disorder etiology. a) two parts of the autonomic nervous system b) antidepressant medications c) neurotransmitters d) structures in the limbic system Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 41. Given the inconsistent evidence about levels of neurotransmitters in people with mood disorders, researchers have begun to focus research efforts on a) whether specific levels of serotonin or dopamine are important. b) understanding the types of people who have no disturbances in their absolute levels of neurotransmitters. c) finding a new neurotransmitter. d) the sensitivity of postsynaptic receptors. Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 42. Which of the following statements is true? a) Serotonin is used to lower dopamine levels. b) People who are vulnerable to depression may have less sensitive serotonin receptors. c) People who are vulnerable to depression may have highly sensitive serotonin receptors. d) A person who has very sensitive serotonin receptors is expected to experience lots of depressive symptoms as their serotonin levels drop. Ans: b Type: Factual

Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 43. In regards to depression, the amygdala a) helps a person recall painful memories. b) helps a person execute plans. c) regulates heart rate. d) helps a person assess how emotionally important a given stimulus is. Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 44. Functional studies of people with major depression show a) elevated activity in the amygdala. b) decreased activity in the amygdala. c) diminished volume in the prefrontal cortex. d) diminished volume of the hippocampus. Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension 45. Pleasure, motivation, and energy decrease in depression and increase in mania. This suggests neurological changes in the a) amygdala. b) second messengers. c) HPA axis. d) reward system. Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 46. In both animals and humans, too much cortisol appears to produce a) Cushing’s syndrome. b) manic symptoms. c) depressive symptoms. d) HPA axis activity. Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 47. Among individuals who are depressed, a) cortisol levels are often poorly regulated. b) most have Cushing's syndrome as well. c) levels of dexamethasone are dysregulated. d) All of the above are correct. Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 48. Stressful life events a) are only related to the first episode of depression. b) are important in triggering episodes of depression. c) play little role in the onset of depressive episodes. d) mediate the relationship between genetics and environment. Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

49. After a stressful life event, most people a) become depressed. b) will have another stressful life event. c) do not become depressed. d) experience a reduction in social support. Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Knoweldge 50. Stressful life events appear to be a causal factor in depression, on the basis of research showing that a) depressed people experience more losses of marriages and jobs. b) many people report life stresses before they become depressed. c) depression rates increase after major disasters. d) lab induced stress leads to increased depression. Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 51. People who are depressed most commonly have a) just lost their job. b) had a best friend die suddenly. c) recently broken up with their partner. d) low social support. Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Knoweledge 52. Which of the following statements is true? a) High levels of expressed emotion predict relapse in depression. b) Depressive symptoms are usually a result of expressed emotion.

c) Symptoms of depression can create relationship problems. d) People with depression often elicit positive reactions from people around them because they tend to keep to themselves. Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 53. Research has demonstrated a relationship between __________ and depression, which is moderated by __________. a) loss; IQ b) life stress; social support c) diet; exercise d) overly optimistic cognitions; intelligence Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension 54. Over time, people with depression typically experience a) longer interactions than with people without depression. b) remember even the smallest negative feedback about themselves. c) the depressed person feeling less depressed. d) more depression even if there is an effort to reduce the depression in the conversation. Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension 55. Which of the following personality traits has been most strongly associated with depression? a) agreeableness b) neuroticism c) extraversion d) avoidance Ans: b

Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 56. If Stephanie is characterized as a person high in neuroticism, she a) is not likely to become depressed, but likely to become anxious. b) is at elevated risk for developing depression. c) is likely to experience low levels of anxiety, but high levels of depression. d) is most likely clinically depressed. Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Application 57. The depressive cognitive triad, according to Beck’s cognitive theory of depression, is a) pessimistic views of self, world, and future. b) negative beliefs about how things work in the world. c) negative schemata triggered by negative life events. d) distorted ways of reaching conclusions about events. Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 58. In Beck’s theory, one form of cognitive bias leading to depression would be excessive attention toward a) the past. b) global disasters. c) childhood sexual abuse. d) negative feedback. Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 59. According to hopelessness theory the most important trigger of depression is having attributions that are: a) Stable and Specific. b) Unstable and Global. c) Unstable and Specific. d) Stable and Global. Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension 60. Jill is seeking treatment for depression, which started after she ended a long-term relationship. Which of the following would be a global depressive attribution she might make? a) “My relationships end badly because I get jealous and I drive them away.” b) “There must be something wrong with me, because I always attract people who are wrong for me.” c) “Sometimes I feel there is something the matter with me. Maybe I am not pretty enough.” d) “My next relationship will likely be better.” Ans: b Type: Applied Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Application 61. Considering the etiology of depressive disorders, the latest evidence suggests that they are a) neurobiological. b) psychosocial. c) both neurobiological and psychosocial. d) mostly genetic. Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 62. Research indicating that people with bipolar disorder describe themselves as very responsive to rewards may help explain why those with bipolar disorder are at increased risk for becoming manic after a) life events involving goal attainment. b) increasing the number of life needs. c) deep depression. d) receiving gifts. Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 63. In bipolar disorder, depressive episodes are typically triggered by a) similar factors as in major depression. b) difficulty facing the seriousness of the disorder. c) aftereffects of manic episodes. d) neurological changes. Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 64. In interpersonal psychotherapy, the focus of treatment is on examining a) how the past is influencing the present. b) cognitive biases in relationships. c) current behaviors and how they interfere with relationships. d) major interpersonal problems in current relationships. Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Treatment of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy.

Bloomcode: Knowledge 65. Studies suggest that interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT) a) is relatively ineffective. b) is comparable in its effectiveness to psychoanalysis. c) is effective in relieving depression and preventing relapse. d) is effective in treating depression, but fails to prevent relapse, especially in the elderly. Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Treatment of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Bloomcode: Knowledge 66. Jolynn was experiencing major depression, and she went to a therapist who treated her with interpersonal therapy. Her therapist probably encouraged her to a) confront her parents with her anger at them for neglecting her as a child. b) keep a record of her moods over the course of the day and their relationship to the number of positive contacts she has with other people. c) examine her own way of relating to others in her environment. d) attempt to replace depressing memories with happy ones. Ans: c Type: Applied Section ref: Treatment of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Bloomcode: Application 67. Behavioral activation involves a) increasing the number of meaningful relationships. b) increasing one's commitment to therapy. c) increasing serotonin levels. d) increasing the number of active, pleasurable experiences. Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Treatment of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Bloomcode: Comprehension

68. Mindfulness-based therapy is adapted from a) cognitive therapy. b) IPT. c) psychoanalysis. d) behavioral therapy. Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Treatment of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Bloomcode: Knowledge 69. Mindfulness-based therapy is a) most effective for women. b) most effective for people who have had just one major depressive episode. c) most effective for people who experience recurrent depressive episodes. d) as effective as treatment as usual. Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Treatment of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Bloomcode: Analysis 70. Across paradigms, treatment of mood disorders typically includes a) psychoeducation. b) cognitive therapy. c) behavioral marital therapy. d) behavioral activation. Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Treatment of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Bloomcode: Analysis

71. Recent trials of psychological treatment of bipolar disorder have shown that a) only medication should be used to treat bipolar disorder. b) several established treatments can help people with bipolar disorder stay on medication and avoid hospitalization. c) these treatments only help with the highs (mania) and not the lows (depression). d) these treatments work better in decreasing symptoms than medication. Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Treatment of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Bloomcode: Analysis 72. In modern applications of electroconvulsive therapy, electrical current a) is not used. Instead, convulsions are induced chemically. b) is passed only through the frontal lobe. c) is higher than in the past. d) is passed through the non-dominant hemisphere. Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Treatment of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge Learning Objective: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. 73. Jacob’s psychiatrist has recommended electroconvulsive shock therapy (ECT), and Jacob is debating whether to consent to this treatment. Which of the following risks should Jacob consider when making his decision? a) bone fractures caused by the seizure b) memory loss and confusion c) developing a seizure disorder d) permanent changes in brain structure Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Treatment of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Bloomcode: Application

74. Electroconvulsive therapy a) can be a highly effective in treating depression, especially depression with psychotic features. b) is so risky that it is only reserved for people who are actively suicidal. c) is no longer used in the treatment of depression. d) is usually recommended if a person does not respond to SSRIs in the second week of treatment. Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Treatment of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Bloomcode: Analysis 75. Tricyclics (TCAs) and monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are a) never used any more. b) parts of the limbic system implicated in mood disorders. c) neurotransmitters. d) antidepressant medications. Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Treatment of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Bloomcode: Knowledge 76. Given that antidepressant medications have been demonstrated to be effective, why are other treatments for depression still used? a) The medication is effective only for the first few weeks of use. b) Medication is effective in treating bipolar but not unipolar patients. c) The medications are only effective for children and adolescents. d) Patients often do not recover and relapse after they stop taking the medication. Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Treatment of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Bloomcode: Analysis

77. Which of the following is a major problem that remains in the use of medication for the treatment of depression? a) Relapse after medication discontinuation. b) Permanent memory loss associated with some medicines. c) There is little effect upon negative attributions. d) All of the above are problems in medication treatment. Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Treatment of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Bloomcode: Knowledge 78. Medications as a treatment for depression a) are no longer used, since psychotherapy has been demonstrated to be more effective. b) are used almost exclusively, since they have been found to be superior to psychotherapy. c) continue to be used despite evidence of ineffectiveness and serious side effects. d) are used most effectively in conjunction with psychotherapy. Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Treatment of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Bloomcode: Knowledge 79. Scott has bipolar disorder. Which medication is the most likely to be prescribed? a) imipramine b) lithium carbonate c) an MAO inhibitor d) fluoxetine (Prozac) Ans: b Type: Applied Section ref: Treatment of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Bloomcode: Application

80. If a psychiatrist chooses to prescribe an antidepressant to a person with bipolar disorder, a) lithium can be stopped for the time he or she is taking the antidepressant, but must be resumed as soon as the antidepressant is stopped. b) it should only be an SSRI. c) it is crucial that a mood-stabilizing medication be prescribed as well. d) it should only be a TCA. Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Treatment of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Bloomcode: Comprehension 81. Which of the following is a problem with seeking psychiatric help from a primary care physician? a) Primary care doctors only know how to prescribe SSRI's. b) Primary care doctors tend to overreact to psychopathology. c) It is more expensive to obtain psychiatric help from a primary care doctor. d) Primary care doctors often give medicine but are not trained to properly to diagnose episodes of depression. Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Treatment of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Bloomcode: Analysis 82. Which of the following describes the relationship between depression and suicide? a) Almost all people who commit suicide are depressed. b) Almost all people who are depressed attempt suicide. c) More than half of the people who attempt suicide are depressed at the time of the act. d) Contrary to popular belief, there is no relationship between depression and suicide. Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Treatment of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Bloomcode: Analysis

83. In regard to suicide and gender, more __________ attempt suicide and more __________ actually kill themselves. a) women; men b) women; women c) men; men d) men; women Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Suicide Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the epidemiology of suicide, the risk factors for suicide, and the methods for preventing suicide. Bloomcode: Knowledge 84. Studies of the epidemiology of suicide suggest that a) around 9% of people report suicidal ideation at one point in their life. b) suicide rates decrease with age. c) men are more likely to attempt suicide. d) rates are lower among regular churchgoers. Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Suicide Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the epidemiology of suicide, the risk factors for suicide, and the methods for preventing suicide. Bloomcode: Knowledge 85. Studies suggest that suicide risk is a) always due to social factors. b) always due to environmental factors. c) partially heritable. d) caused by low levels of norepinephrine. Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Suicide Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the epidemiology of suicide, the risk factors for suicide, and the methods for preventing suicide. Bloomcode: Knowledge 86. Lizzie has a depressive disorder. Which medication from the list below is NOT LIKELY to be prescribed?

a) imipramine b) lithium carbonate c) an MAO inhibitor d) fluoxetine (Prozac) Ans: b Type: Applied Section ref: Treatment of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Bloomcode: Application 87. While many difficulties might get a person thinking about suicide, __________ seems to predict the switch from suicidal thoughts to suicidal actions. a) impulsivity b) mania c) drug abuse d) helplessness Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Suicide Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the epidemiology of suicide, the risk factors for suicide, and the methods for preventing suicide. Bloomcode: Comprehension 88. All of the following are characteristics of Electo Convulsive Therapy EXCEPT a) passing a current of 70-130-volt current through the patient’s brain b) electrodes are placed on each side of the forehead c) The patient is given a muscle relaxant d) The patient is unconscious for the procedure Ans: b Type: Applied Section ref: Treatment of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Bloomcode: Application 89. Which of the following characteristics is strongly tied to suicidality? a) introversion b) hostility and cynicism c) ambivalence

d) hopelessness Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Suicide Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the epidemiology of suicide, the risk factors for suicide, and the methods for preventing suicide. Bloomcode: Comprehension 90. Including symptoms of severe recurrent temper outbursts and persistent negative mood for at least 1 year beginning before age 10, _____________________ is a new diagnosis in the DSM5. a) Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder b) Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder c) Major Depressive Disorder d) Persistent Depressive Disorder Ans: a Type: Knowledge Section: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Depressive Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 91. In one prospective study, feelings of rejection and self-hatred preceded the behavior of _______________. a) Suicidal self-injury b) Nonsuicidal self-injury c) Mania d) None of the above Ans: b Type: Knowledge Section: Suicide Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the epidemiology of suicide, the risk factors for suicide, and the methods for preventing suicide. Bloomcode: Knowledge 92. The diagnosis of Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder should NOT be made when a) there has ever been a manic episode lasting longer than one day. b) there has never been a manic episode lasting longer than one day.

c) the temper outbursts are frequent and inconsistent with the child’s developmental level. d) there is a family history of bipolar disorder. Ans: a Type: Application Section: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Depressive Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Bloomcode: Application 93. The symptoms of ____________ must occur most severely within the week before menses. a) Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder (PMDD) b) Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS) c) Perimenstrual Distress Disorder (PMDD) d) Premenstrual Myalgia Syndrome (PMS) Ans: a Type: Knowledge Section: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 94. The diagnosis of Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder includes the criterion that a) The symptoms must resolve completely within a few days of the onset of menses. b) The symptoms must persist in similar severity from a few days before to a few days after the onset of menses. c) The symptoms must be most severe during menses. d) The symptom of self-depreciation must be present. Ans: a Type: Knowledge Section: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Depressive Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 95. Which of the following symptoms differentiate Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder from Persistent Depressive Disorder? a) Joint or muscle pain indicates Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder but not Persistent Depressive Disorder.

b) Depressive symptoms must persist for at least two years in Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder but not in Persistent Depressive Disorder. c) Sleeping too much or too little is indicative of Persistent Depressive Disorder but not Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder. d) The only distinction is in the timing and frequency of the symptoms. Ans: a Type: Analysis Section: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Depressive Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: D Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

True/False 96. Joint or muscle pain is specifically excluded from the criteria for premenstrual dysphoric disorder. a) True b) False Ans: False Type: Knowledge Section: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Depressive Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

Essay 97. Compare Beck’s cognitive theory of depression with hopelessness theories. Ans: Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Evaluation 98. Describe the interpersonal therapy for depression, and ways it is distinct from, and similar to, cognitive therapy for depression.

Ans: Section ref: Treatment of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Bloomcode: Evaluation 99. Discuss genetic factors in the etiology of mood disorders. Ans: Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 100. Discuss the role of neurotransmitters in the etiology of mood disorders. Be sure to include a discussion of the mixed findings within this area of research. Ans: Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Synthesis 101. Discuss why researchers have linked certain symptoms of depression and mania to changes in the sensitivity of the reward system in the brain. Ans: Section ref: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of Depressive Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms of depression, the diagnostic criteria for depressive disorders, and the epidemiology of the depressive disorders. Bloomcode: Synthesis 102. Discuss the role of life events in depression. Ans: Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 103. What is neuroticism? Discuss the role of neuroticism in relation to depression.

Ans: Section ref: Etiology of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Discuss the genetic, neurobiological, social, and psychological factors that contribute to the mood disorders. Bloomcode: Synthesis 104. Define ECT and discuss how it is used today. What are the pros and cons of undergoing this treatment? Ans: Section ref: Treatment of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Bloomcode: Analysis 105. Discuss the problems that can arise when individuals seek psychiatric help from primary care doctors. Ans: Section ref: Treatment of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Bloomcode: Synthesis 106. Discuss the treatment options, and prognosis, for individuals with bipolar disorder. Ans: Section ref: Treatment of Mood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Identify the medication and psychological treatments of mood disorders as well as the current views of electroconvulsive therapy. Bloomcode: Analysis 107. Why do people commit suicide? Discuss several different explanations for suicide. Ans: Section ref: Suicide Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Explain the epidemiology of suicide, the risk factors for suicide, and the methods for preventing suicide. Bloomcode: Synthesis

Chapter 06: Anxiety Disorders Multiple Choice 1. The difference between anxiety and fear is that a) anxiety is a response to immediate danger, while fear is defined as apprehension over an anticipated problem. b) anxiety is immediate and fear is anticipated. c) anxiety is apprehension over an anticipated problem, while fear is defined as a response to immediate danger. d) anxiety is always adaptive, whereas fear is not. Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Anxiety and Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptom components of anxiety and distinguish between normal and clinical levels of anxiety. Bloomcode: Comprehension 2. Dylan is walking through the jungles of Africa, and he suddenly comes across a ferocious tiger. Which of the following reactions is most adaptive in this scenario? a) anxiety b) anger c) panic d) fear Ans: d Type: Applied Section ref: Anxiety and Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the symptom components of anxiety and distinguish between normal and clinical levels of anxiety. Bloomcode: Application 3. Anxiety often involves __________ arousal, and fear involves __________ arousal. a) high; low b) high; moderate c) moderate; low d) moderate; high Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Anxiety and Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Describe the symptom components of anxiety and distinguish between normal and clinical levels of anxiety. Bloomcode: Knowledge 4. To improve performance on laboratory tests, it is best for participants to a) experience a great deal of anxiety. b) experience a small degree of anxiety. c) experience no anxiety. d) experience a small amount of anxiety as well as fear. Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Anxiety and Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptom components of anxiety and distinguish between normal and clinical levels of anxiety. Bloomcode: Comprehension 5. Which of the following is NOT an anxiety disorder? a) panic disorder b) phobic disorder c) generalized fear disorder d) social anxiety disorder Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Knowledge 6. In the DSM-5, all of the following are separate chapters EXCEPT a) anxiety disorders. b) obsessive-compulsive and related disorders. c) panic disorders. d) trauma- and stress-related disorders. Ans: c Type: Analysis Section ref: Anxiety and Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the symptom components of anxiety and distinguish between normal and clinical levels of anxiety. Bloomcode: Analysis

7. As a group, anxiety disorders a) are unlikely to be comorbid. b) are one of the least costly psychiatric disorders to society. c) cause few interpersonal problems. d) are the most common type of psychiatric diagnosis. Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Anxiety and Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptom components of anxiety and distinguish between normal and clinical levels of anxiety. Bloomcode: Knowledge 8. The main criterion that differentiates Generalized Anxiety Disorder in children from the disorder in adults is a) The number of symptoms that must be present b) The duration of symptoms that must be present c) Both the number and duration of symptoms that must be present d) Neither the number nor duration of symptoms that must be present Ans: a Type: Comparison/Analysis Section: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Analysis

9. Anxiety disorders all share a) high fear and high anxiety. b) excessively frequent or severe anxiety that results in marked impairment or distress. c) the same set of anxiety symptoms. d) panic. Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Comprehension

10. John is persistently and excessively afraid of snakes. Whenever he sees a snake, he feels intense anxiety and thus avoids them at all costs. John realizes, however, that this fear is unrealistic. John most likely has a) obsessive-compulsive disorder. b) social anxiety disorder. c) a specific phobia. d) panic disorder. Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Application 11. Animal phobias typically begin in a) infancy. b) childhood. c) adolescence. d) adulthood. Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Knowledge 12. Ted is fearful of interactions with others and avoids eating in public. Ted most likely has a) specific phobia. b) panic disorder with agoraphobia. c) social anxiety disorder. d) paranoia. Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Application

13. An individual diagnosed with social anxiety disorder a) exhibits paranoid symptoms, believing others are plotting to hurt him or her. b) exhibits anxiety about having panic attacks in public. c) is terrified of being in public places and may become housebound. d) becomes extremely anxious when in certain situations that involve activities done in the presence of other people. Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Knowledge 14. Julie has social anxiety disorder. Given this information, it would not be surprising if she also met DSM-5 criteria for a) schizophrenia. b) borderline personality disorder. c) avoidant personality disorder. d) obsessive compulsive personality disorder. Ans: c Type: Applied Section ref: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Evaluation 15. What was the rationale behind the DSM-5 change in the name of the diagnosis “social phobia” to “social anxiety disorder”? a) Social phobias tend to be more pervasive and cause more interference with daily routines than other phobias. b) A social phobia was termed “social anxiety disorder” in the DSM-III. c) Many people with social phobias also meet criteria for Avoidant Personality Disorder. d) Social phobias cause minimal impairment and tend to be of short duration. Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Knowledge

16. Bill is fearful of most social situations, whereas Andreas is only fearful of giving speeches. Given this, one could infer that a) Bill’s fear began at an older age. b) Andrea may be more likely to abuse alcohol. c) Bill has less impairment. d) Both Bill and Andrea have a different social phobias. Ans: d Type: Applied Section ref: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Evaluation 17. Social anxiety disorder generally begins during: a) early childhood b) middle childhood c) adolescence d) early adulthood Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Knowledge 18. Depersonalization and derealization are common symptoms of which disorder? a) obsessive-compulsive disorder b) specific phobia c) social anxiety disorder d) panic disorder Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Knowledge

19. Agoraphobia is characterized by a fear of a) being in unfamiliar places. b) being embarrassed by saying or doing something foolish in front of others. c) strangers misinterpreting their symptoms as a heart attack. d) having a panic attack in places in which escape would be difficult or embarrassing. Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Knowledge 20. Edna does not currently have panic disorder. However, she cannot leave her house and had required home sessions when she began therapy. It is likely that a) Edna has agoraphobia, but does not meet criteria for panic disorder. b) Edna does not have agoraphobia. c) Edna is faking her symptoms. d) Edna has more severe panic but is able to cope with the symptoms. Ans: a Type: Applied Section ref: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Evaluation 21. Panic attacks a) occur only in people with panic disorder, by definition. b) can occur in people who do not have panic disorder. c) occur in greatest frequency among people with schizophrenia. d) occur primarily in people with agoraphobia. Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Application 22. The two types of medications most commonly used to treat anxiety are a) mood stabilizers and antidepressants. b) antidepressants and benzodiazepines.

c) benzodiazepines and anticonvulsants. d) anticonvulsants and beta-blockers. Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Treatments of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe psychological and medication treatment approaches that are common across the anxiety disorders and how psychological treatment approaches are modified for the specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 23. The worries of people with GAD a) are generally limited to physiological concerns. b) are similar to worries of most people, just more excessive. c) typically are driven by another Axis-I disorder. d) are generally considered strange and unique. Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Comprehension 24. GAD is not diagnosed if a) the person only worries about concerns driven by another psychological disorder. b) the symptoms are present for over a year. c) the patient reports excessive worrying and feeling on edge. d) the patient experiences pervasive anxiety and worry. Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Application 25. More than __________ of people with one anxiety disorder meet the criteria for another anxiety disorder at some point in their lifetime. a) 25% b) 50% c) 75% d) 100%

Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Knowledge 26. The most common disorder comorbid with anxiety disorders is a) borderline personality disorder. b) obsessive compulsive disorder. c) avoidant personality disorder. d) major depression. Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Knowledge 27. Women are more likely to be diagnosed with anxiety disorders because they are more a) likely to face their fears directly. b) physiologically vulnerable. c) willing to report their symptoms. d) exposed to social discrimination. Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Gender and Sociocultural Factors in the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to understand how gender and culture influence the prevalence of anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 28. According to the text, which of the following is NOT a theory on why women are more likely to develop anxiety disorders than men? a) Women may show more biological reactivity to stress than men. b) Women tend to be more nervous than men in general. c) Men may be raised to believe more in personal control over situations. d) Men may experience more social pressure than women to face fears. Ans: b Type: Factual

Section ref: Gender and Sociocultural Factors in the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to understand how gender and culture influence the prevalence of anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 29. The central feature of Generalized Anxiety Disorder in children is ________. a) uncontrollable worry b) panic attacks c) social anxiety d) avoidance Ans: a Type: Knowledge Section: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Comprehension

30. In Japan, taijin kyofusho involves a) the fear of embarrassing others. b) the fear of going outside. c) the fear of rice. d) the fear of closed spaces Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Gender and Sociocultural Factors in the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to understand how gender and culture influence the prevalence of anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 31. In Eastern Asia, the fear that one’s genitals will recede into the body is called a) koro. b) kayak-angst. c) shenkui. d) susto. Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Gender and Sociocultural Factors in the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Be able to understand how gender and culture influence the prevalence of anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 32. In Latin America, the fright-illness is also known as a) susto. b) koro. c) kayak-angst. d) shenkui Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Gender and Sociocultural Factors in the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to understand how gender and culture influence the prevalence of anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 33. The diagnosis of Generalized Anxiety Disorder requires that_______ criteria be met in children than in adults. a) fewer b) more c) the same number of d) different Ans: a Type: Knowledge Section: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Knowledge

34. Individuals with anxiety disorders a) have weak fear circuits. b) have fear circuits that do not activate correctly when they are fearful or anxious. c) have an overactive fear circuit. d) have an underactive amygdala. Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Common Risk Factors Across the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to recognize commonalities in etiology across the anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

35. Factors that may increase risk for more than one anxiety disorder include all of the following EXCEPT a) behavioral conditioning. b) genetic vulnerability. c) culture of origin. d) neuroticism. Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Common Risk Factors Across the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to recognize commonalities in etiology across the anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension 36. Mowrer’s two-factor model of anxiety disorders involves classical conditioning and a) imitation. b) operant conditioning. c) observation. d) none of the above. Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Common Risk Factors Across the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to recognize commonalities in etiology across the anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 37. Imagine that a man is bitten by a dog and then develops a phobia of dogs. The dog bite would be considered the a) UCS b) UCR c) CS d) CR Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Common Risk Factors Across the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to recognize commonalities in etiology across the anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Application 38. Josie has panic disorder, while Herbie does not have an anxiety disorder. They are both shown pictures of sad and angry faces. The researchers studying Josie and Herbie’s brain responses while they look at the pictures will most likely note that

a) Josie’s amygdala is more active than Herbie’s. b) Josie’s amygdala is less active than Herbie’s. c) Herbie’s fear circuit is more active than Josie’s. d) none of the above. Ans: a Type: Applied Section ref: Common Risk Factors Across the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to recognize commonalities in etiology across the anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Application 39. Dana’s baby, Sophie, participated in a study that indicated that Sophie had high levels of behavioral inhibition. Compared with babies who demonstrated low levels of behavioral inhibition, Sophie is likely to develop a) panic disorder. b) social anxiety disorder. c) OCD. d) agoraphobia. Ans: b Type: Applied Section ref: Common Risk Factors Across the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to recognize commonalities in etiology across the anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Application 40. Behavioral inhibition is defined as the a) tendency to experience neuroticism. b) inability to inhibit one’s behavioral reactions. c) tendency to become agitated and cry when faced with novel stimuli. d) inability to regulate symptoms of anxiety. Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Common Risk Factors Across the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to recognize commonalities in etiology across the anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 41. In terms of the social environment’s role in the development of anxiety disorders, which of the following statements is true? a) negative life events often buffer against the development of anxiety disorders. b) negative life events often precede the onset of anxiety disorders. c) negative life events are unrelated to the onset of anxiety disorders. d) none of the above.

Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Common Risk Factors Across the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to recognize commonalities in etiology across the anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 42. To protect against feared consequences of anxiety, people will often engage in a) safety behaviors. b) protection behaviors. c) avoidant behaviors. d) recessive behaviors. Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Common Risk Factors Across the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to recognize commonalities in etiology across the anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 43. People with low __________ appear to be at greater risk for developing anxiety disorders. a) perceived control b) perceived defense mechanisms c) anxiety thresholds d) defense disorders Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Common Risk Factors Across the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to recognize commonalities in etiology across the anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 44. An individual with a snake phobia would be most likely to pay attention to the word a) orange. b) venom. c) sad. d) table. Ans: b Type: Applied Section ref: Common Risk Factors Across the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to recognize commonalities in etiology across the anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Application

45. Neuroticism is best defined as the tendency to a) feel depressed. b) feel anxious. c) react to events with greater than average negative affect. d) react in a pessimistic way. Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Common Risk Factors Across the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to recognize commonalities in etiology across the anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 46. Lola is low in neuroticism. Compared with people who have high levels of neuroticism, Lola a) is more likely to experience anxiety and depression. b) is less likely to develop an anxiety disorder. c) is probably characterized by a tendency to react to events with negative effect. d) is more likely to have OCD. Ans: b Type: Applied Section ref: Common Risk Factors Across the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to recognize commonalities in etiology across the anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Application 47. Which of the following puts people at greater risk for developing anxiety disorders? a) having a perception that they have no control over their environment. b) having a comorbid diagnosis of schizophrenia. c) having low levels of neuroticism. d) having low levels of activity in the fear circuit. Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Common Risk Factors Across the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to recognize commonalities in etiology across the anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 48. Which of the following might buffer someone against developing an anxiety disorder? a) repeated early life experiences of having control. b) previous experiences of control during highly threatening circumstances. c) being controlled by an understanding parent. d) both a and b. Ans: d

Type: Applied Section ref: Common Risk Factors Across the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to recognize commonalities in etiology across the anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 49. Dr. Francis randomly assigned puppies to one of two conditions. Group 1 grew up with the ability to choose when they would receive dog biscuits, while Group 2 had no control over when they would receive the dog biscuits. In this scenario, Group 2 would be a) more likely to be aggressive. b) less prone to neuroticism. c) more likely to show high levels of behavioral inhibition. d) more likely to display high levels of anxiety. Ans: d Type: Applied Section ref: Common Risk Factors Across the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to recognize commonalities in etiology across the anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Application 50. Researchers training those with GAD to focus on a positive set of words over a long period of time using the dot probe task have found that participants a) are more likely to report anxiety following the trainings. b) do not experience any changes in their levels of anxiety following the trainings. c) report less anxiety in both interview and self-report measures following the trainings. d) report less anxiety in interview measures but more anxiety in self-report measures. Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Common Risk Factors Across the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to recognize commonalities in etiology across the anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 51. The second factor of Mowrer’s two-factor model explains why a) a man’s dog phobia never ceases. b) a man develops a dog phobia. c) a man reduces his fear of dogs. d) a man who develops a dog phobia is able to expose himself to dogs. Ans: a Type: Applied Section ref: Common Risk Factors Across the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Be able to recognize commonalities in etiology across the anxiety disorders.

Bloomcode: Application 52. Laboratory studies, like those using the dot probe task, have provided evidence for the theory that a) chronic anxiety creates negative cognitions. b) fixating on dots for long periods of time may create anxiety. c) the way we focus our attention can influence anxious mood. d) none of the above. Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Common Risk Factors Across the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to recognize commonalities in etiology across the anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 53. One problem with Mowrer’s original two-factor model of phobias is that phobias tend to develop a) following traumatic experiences. b) only with respect to certain stimuli. c) equally in all age groups. d) in people not otherwise anxious. Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Specific Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Be able to describe the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Evaluation 54. Which of the following has NOT been proposed as a way that the development of anxiety through conditioning could take place? a) direct experience b) repressed memories c) seeing someone else harmed d) verbal instruction Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Specific Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Be able to describe the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Systhesis

55. What is a reason why people typically do not fear coconuts, flowers, or strawberries? a) During evolution, exposure to such stimuli was not life threatening. b) They are not poisonous. c) They are not as common as stimuli such as blood or spiders. d) People developed prepared learning in response to such stimuli. Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Specific Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to describe the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 56. After viewing tapes of monkeys apparently showing fear of snakes, lambs, and flowers, monkeys who viewed these tapes were only fearful of snakes. This provides only partial support for __________ but better support for __________. a) modeling; classical conditioning b) vicarious learning; avoidance learning c) modeling; prepared learning d) prepared learning; diathesis Ans: c Type: Applied Section ref: Etiology of Specific Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Be able to describe the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Synthesis 57. Doug was frightened by a rat coming into his bedroom when he was a child, and he now has a rat phobia. However, despite having been severely shocked by putting her finger in an electric outlet, Martha has no fear of light sockets. This inconsistency is explained by the theory of a) prepared learning. b) systematic desensitization. c) irrational beliefs. d) avoidance conditioning. Ans: a Type: Applied Section ref: Etiology of Specific Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Be able to describe the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Evaluation

58. Ivan reported a traumatic history with dogs, resulting in his fear of dogs. However, Sven also reported a traumatic history with dogs, but does not have a fear of dogs. This provides support for a) a diathesis for phobia. b) a preparedness view of phobia. c) a psychoanalytic theory of phobia. d) the two-factor theory. Ans: a Type: Applied Section ref: Etiology of Specific Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to describe the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Application 59. Which of the following is an example of a safety behavior? a) seeking treatment. b) avoiding snakes. c) exposing oneself to a feared stimulus in a controlled environment. d) avoiding eye contact. Ans: d Type: Applied Section ref: Etiology of Specific Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to describe the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Application 60. Why is avoidance behavior so often maintained? a) People do not want to overcome their fears. b) Such behavior reduces the amount of fear a person experiences. c) Friends and family members generally encourage it. d) People fail to use safety behaviors. Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Specific Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

61. Regina has social anxiety disorder. Now, in an effort to overcome her social fear, she is awkward, frequently commits faux pas by avoiding eye contact, and struggles to respond effectively when given compliments. This is an illustration of a) a predisposing biological factor. b) preparedness. c) social skill deficits in social anxiety disorder. d) cognitive bias in social anxiety disorder. Ans: c Type: Applied Section ref: Etiology of Specific Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Application 62. Both Lindsay and Nicole just completed a solo in a musical competition. The judges awarded them both 9 out of 10. Lindsay has social anxiety disorder and Nicole does not. Based on this information, a) Lindsay is less likely to worry about how others perceived her performance. b) Nicole is more likely to have higher standards than Lindsay. c) Lindsay is more likely to think she sang more poorly than Nicole. d) None of the above. Ans: c Type: Applied Section ref: Etiology of Specific Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to describe the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Application 63. There is evidence that social anxiety disorder is related to placing more attention to __________ cues and less attention to __________ cues. a) external; internal b) social; personal c) internal; external d) personal; social Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Specific Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

64. In regard to panic, the locus coeruleus a) is likely to be under-sensitive. b) decreases panic by decreasing activity. c) shows increased activity. d) exhibits lower glucose metabolism. Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Specific Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 65. When triggering panic attacks experimentally through the use of drugs, researchers have found that a) such drugs produce panic in people without a history of panic attacks as often as they produce panic in people with a history of panic attacks. b) more than a dozen different types of drugs can trigger panic attacks among people with a history of panic attacks. c) it is nearly impossible to actually replicate the physiological symptoms that occur during a real panic attack. d) people with a history of panic attacks are more likely to report physiological symptoms than emotional symptoms. Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Specific Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Be able to describe the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension 66. Panic attacks can be triggered by all of the following EXCEPT which of the following? a) caffeine. b) exercise. c) adrenaline. d) Nicotine Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Specific Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

67. SSRI stands for a) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. b) selective serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibiters. c) systematics serotonin reuptake infusion. d) none of the above. Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Treatments of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe psychological and medication treatment approaches that are common across the anxiety disorders and how psychological treatment approaches are modified for the specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 68. The fear circuit that is particularly important in explaining panic disorder is called the a) locus coeruleus b) amygdala c) hippocampus d) thalamus Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Specific Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 69. Classical conditioning of panic attacks in response to bodily sensations is called a) interoceptive conditioning. b) systematic desensitization. c) two-factor model. d) exposure. Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Specific Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

70. As opposed to people without a history of panic disorder, those with a history of panic disorder a) are quicker to extinguish their conditioned fears. b) are slower to extinguish their conditioned fears. c) fail to develop conditioned fears. d) none of the above. Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Specific Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to describe the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 71. A major psychological hypothesis regarding the onset of panic involves a) a fundamental problem with breathing control. b) difficulties in relaxing. c) a concern with, and misinterpretation of, bodily sensations. d) excessive attempts to relax that fail. Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Specific Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to describe the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 72. The Anxiety Sensitivity Index a) has been important in determining panic-proneness. b) measures fear of bodily sensations. c) allows tests of the concern with control over bodily symptoms as a hypothesis of panic. d) all of the above. Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Specific Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Be able to describe the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Synthesis 73. The principal cognitive explanation for the etiology of agoraphobia is the a) fear-of-fear hypothesis. b) interoceptive conditioning

c) two-factor model d) operant conditioning Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Specific Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 74. What is the main symptom of GAD? a) increased heart rate. b) fear of dying. c) worry. d) dizziness. Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Specific Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 75. In the cognitive view, which anxiety disorder develops when anxiety is reinforced by distracting people from other, more powerful, negative emotions and images? a) phobias b) panic disorder c) generalized anxiety disorder d) obsessive-compulsive disorder Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Specific Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Be able to describe the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Evaluation 76. According to Borkovec and colleagues, worry a) serves as an avoidance mechanism. b) is adaptive. c) increases psychophysiological signs of arousal. d) helps people remember traumatic images.

Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Etiology of Specific Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 77. A common focus of most effective psychological treatments for the anxiety disorders is a) response prevention. b) exposure. c) muscle relaxation. d) behavioral activation. Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Treatments of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe psychological and medication treatment approaches that are common across the anxiety disorders and how psychological treatment approaches are modified for the specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 78. While a therapist might consider adding cognitive therapy to treatment of _________, research suggests that outcomes are no better when cognitive therapy is added in the treatment of ________ a) depression, social anxiety disorder. b) anxiety disorders; depression. c) specific phobias, social anxiety disorder. d) social anxiety disorder; specific phobias. Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Treatments of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to describe psychological and medication treatment approaches that are common across the anxiety disorders and how psychological treatment approaches are modified for the specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Anaylsis 79. Based on research of effective treatments for social anxiety disorder, a therapist should consider a) exposure and cognitive therapy. b) exposure only. c) systematic desensitization. d) cognitive therapy only.

Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Treatments of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to describe psychological and medication treatment approaches that are common across the anxiety disorders and how psychological treatment approaches are modified for the specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Application 80. Social interactions and role-play situations are used in the treatment of a) specific phobias. b) social anxiety disorder. c) panic disorder. d) obsessive-compulsive disorder. Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Treatments of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe psychological and medication treatment approaches that are common across the anxiety disorders and how psychological treatment approaches are modified for the specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 81. The combination of medication and CBT for anxiety disorders leads to __________ treatment outcomes. a) improved b) no difference in c) a worsening of d) none of the above Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Treatments of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe psychological and medication treatment approaches that are common across the anxiety disorders and how psychological treatment approaches are modified for the specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension 82. Which of the following has NOT been shown to be effective for the treatment of panic disorder? a) Panic control therapy b) Psychodynamic therapy c) Internet-based cognitive therapy

d) Logo therapy Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Treatments of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Be able to describe psychological and medication treatment approaches that are common across the anxiety disorders and how psychological treatment approaches are modified for the specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Evaluation 83. The first widely used exposure treatment for anxiety disorders was called a) systematic desensitization b) flooding c) operant conditioning d) reinforcement training Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Treatments of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe psychological and medication treatment approaches that are common across the anxiety disorders and how psychological treatment approaches are modified for the specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 84. Exposure treatment is effective in __________ of clients. a) 20-30% b) 40-50% c) 55-65% d) 70-90% Ans: d Type: Factual Section ref: Treatments of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe psychological and medication treatment approaches that are common across the anxiety disorders and how psychological treatment approaches are modified for the specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 85. The effects of ___________ appear to endure when follow-up assessments are conducted six months after treatment. a) CBT b) flooding c) reinforcement

d) psychoanalysis Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Treatments of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to describe psychological and medication treatment approaches that are common across the anxiety disorders and how psychological treatment approaches are modified for the specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension 86. Extinction involves a) completely erasing any conscious memory of a specific phobia. b) a system like an eraser. c) learning new associations to stimuli that inhibit activation of the fear response. d) flooding of memories. Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Treatments of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe psychological and medication treatment approaches that are common across the anxiety disorders and how psychological treatment approaches are modified for the specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 87. __________ is sometimes used to simulate feared situations such as flying. a) Virtual reality b) Visual simulation c) Memory flooding d) Operant conditioning Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Treatments of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe psychological and medication treatment approaches that are common across the anxiety disorders and how psychological treatment approaches are modified for the specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 88. In-vivo exposure to feared objects simulates a) real life. b) memories of trauma. c) social anxiety disorder. d) anxiety developed in the womb.

Ans: a Type: Factual Section ref: Treatments of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe psychological and medication treatment approaches that are common across the anxiety disorders and how psychological treatment approaches are modified for the specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 89. Which of the following is a prominent behavioral technique for the treatment of GAD? a) cognitive restructuring b) imaginal exposure c) relaxation training d) SSRIs Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Treatments of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe psychological and medication treatment approaches that are common across the anxiety disorders and how psychological treatment approaches are modified for the specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 90. Which of the following treatments has been shown to be more effective than either medication or supportive psychotherapy in treating posttraumatic stress disorder? a) Progressive muscle relaxation. b) Exposure that focuses on trauma-related events. c) EMDR. d) Group psychotherapy with other trauma victims. Ans: b Type: Factual Section ref: Treatments of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Be able to describe psychological and medication treatment approaches that are common across the anxiety disorders and how psychological treatment approaches are modified for the specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension 91. Treatment of acute stress disorder is a) unnecessary, as most people recover anyway with time. b) dangerous, as reliving the event increases the trauma. c) important, as it reduces the risk of developing PTSD. d) difficult, as it is hard to recreate the original trauma.

Ans: c Type: Factual Section ref: Treatments of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe psychological and medication treatment approaches that are common across the anxiety disorders and how psychological treatment approaches are modified for the specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 92. The diagnosis of Generalized Anxiety Disorder requires that symptoms be present for at least a) 6 months b) 3 months c) 2 months for adolescents, 6 months for adults d) 3 months for adults, 6 months for children Ans: a Type: Knowledge Section: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Knowledge

93. Abby has a disproportionate fear of spiders and experiences extreme anxiety whenever she encounters them. The most likely diagnosis for her is a) Generalized Anxiety Disorder b) Panic Disorder c) Agoraphobia d) Specific Phobia Ans: d Type: Anaylsis Section: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Analysis

94. Jason has moments of extreme anxiety that seem to appear without warning and without any apparent trigger. The most likely diagnosis for him is a) Generalized Anxiety Disorder b) Panic Disorder c) Agoraphobia d) Specific Phobia Ans: b Type: Analysis

Section: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Analysis

95. Jake has moments of extreme anxiety that seem to be caused by his fear concerning situations where it would be difficult to escape or receive help. The most likely diagnosis for him is a) Generalized Anxiety Disorder b) Panic Disorder c) Agoraphobia d) Specific Phobia Ans: c Type: Analysis Section: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Analysis

96. Eric finds it difficult to control his worry about a variety of things in his life. He often feels restless, fatigues easily and is irritable. The most likely diagnosis for him is a) Generalized Anxiety Disorder b) Panic Disorder c) Agoraphobia d) Specific Phobia Ans: a Type: Analysis Section: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Analysis

97. Lizzie has an intense fear of unfamiliar people and a strong discomfort when she feels she is under scrutiny. The most likely diagnosis for her is a) Generalized Anxiety Disorder b) Social Anxiety Disorder c) Agoraphobia d) Specific Phobia Ans: b Type: Analysis Section: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Analysis

Short Answer 98. Excessive worry about multiple areas of life lasting at least six months is indicative of __________. Ans: Generalized Anxiety Disorder Type: Knowledge Section: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other.Bloomcode: Knowledge

True/False 99. True or False? The duration criterion for Generalized Anxiety Disorder differs between children and adults. a) True b) False Ans: False Type: Knowledge Section: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Knowledge

100. The main criterion that differentiates Generalized Anxiety Disorder in children from the disorder in adults is a) The number of symptoms that must be present b) The duration of symptoms that must be present c) Both the number and duration of symptoms that must be present d) Neither the number nor duration of symptoms that must be present Ans: a Type: Comparison/Analysis Section: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Analysis

Essay 101. Compare and contrast anxiety and fear. Include two examples of each. Ans: Section ref: Anxiety and Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the symptom components of anxiety and distinguish between normal and clinical levels of anxiety. Bloomcode: Synthesis 102. Explain two reasons why comorbidity within anxiety disorders is so common. Ans: Section ref: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Evaluation 103. Why are women more likely to develop anxiety disorders than men? Provide at least two explanations. Ans: Section ref: Gender and Sociocultural Factors in the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Be able to understand how gender and culture influence the prevalence of anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Evaluation 104. How have beliefs about cultural differences in the manifestation of anxiety symptoms changed in recent years? Ans: Section ref: Gender and Sociocultural Factors in the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Be able to understand how gender and culture influence the prevalence of anxiety disorders.Bloomcode: Evaluation

105. Define the two-factor model as it relates to specific phobic conditioning. What are its limitations? Ans: Section ref: Common Risk Factors across the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Be able to recognize commonalities in etiology across the anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Synthesis 106. Describe two cognitive perspectives on the causes of panic disorder. Ans: Section ref: Etiology of Specific Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to describe the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 107. According to Borkovec’s cognitive model, why do people with GAD worry? Ans: Section ref: Etiology of Specific Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to describe the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis 108. Discuss treatment options for GAD. Ans: Section ref: Treatments of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to describe psychological and medication treatment approaches that are common across the anxiety disorders and how psychological treatment approaches are modified for the specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Application 109. Compare the behavioral etiology of specific phobias with that of post-traumatic stress disorder. Outline how these perspectives are similar and how they differ. Ans: Section ref: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Synthesis

110. How are agoraphobia and specific phobia similar? Ans: Section ref: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Analysis 111. Discuss the biological theories of anxiety disorders. What common features exist across the anxiety disorders? Ans: Section ref: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Analysis 112. Why is social anxiety disorder listed as a separate condition from specific phobia? Ans: Section ref: Clinical Descriptions of the Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Be able to describe the clinical features of the anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the anxiety disorders, and how the anxiety disorders co-occur with each other. Bloomcode: Evaluation 113. Discuss the role of medication in the treatment of anxiety disorders. For which anxiety disorders are medications most effective? Ans: Section ref: Etiology of Specific Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Be able to describe the factors that shape the expression of specific anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

Package Title: Chapter 7, Testbank Course Title: Kring, Abnormal Psych 14e Chapter Number: 7

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1. A disorder that involves repetitive thoughts and behaviors that are so extreme as to interfere with everyday life is called: a) generalized anxiety disorder. b) post traumatic stress disorder. c) obsessive-compulsive disorder. d) social phobic disorder. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms and epidemiology of the obsessive-compulsive and related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

2. Conditions that are triggered by exposure to severely stressful events are referred to as a) trauma-related disorders. b) generalized anxiety disorder. c) obsessive-compulsive disorder. d) somatoform disorder. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms and epidemiology of the obsessive-compulsive and related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

3. One way in which the DSM-5 differs from the DSM-IV-TR is that the DSM-5 a) makes OCD and trauma-related disorders part of the anxiety disorders category. b) makes OCD and trauma-related disorders their own category. c) eliminates OCD and trauma-related disorders. d) none of the above. Answer: b

Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms and epidemiology of the obsessive-compulsive and related disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

4. Which of the following disorders is NOT part of the DSM-5’s OC-related and trauma-related disorders chapter? a) body dysmorphic disorder b) hoarding disorder c) obsessive-compulsive disorder d) panic disorder Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms and epidemiology of the obsessive-compulsive and related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

5. Intrusive, irrational, and unwanted thoughts are called a) irrational beliefs. b) generalized anxiety. c) obsessions. d) compulsions. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms and epidemiology of the obsessive-compulsive and related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

6. Oscar feels the urge to turn a light switch on and off 12 times before leaving a room. This would be referred to as a) an irrational belief. b) generalized anxiety. c) an obsession. d) a compulsion.

Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms and epidemiology of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Bloomcode: Application

7. Which of the following is an obsession? a) repeatedly checking that the water is turned off. b) humming a tune over and over. c) having a recurring fear that one is giving others illnesses when they actually are not. d) having excessive worry over finances. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms and epidemiology of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Bloomcode: Application

8. Which of the following is a compulsion? a) A persistent fear of getting dirty. b) Having persistent doubts about whether the stove was turned off that morning. c) Persistent checking for one’s keys. d) Persistent thoughts about harming one’s spouse. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms and epidemiology of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Bloomcode: Application

9. People who compulsively check their appearance and spend countless hours staring at themselves in the mirror will likely be diagnosed as having a) obsessive-compulsive disorder b) body dysmorphic disorder c) generalized anxiety disorder

d) specific phobia Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms and epidemiology of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Bloomcode: Application

10. The most common foci for obsessions include all of the following EXCEPT a) contamination. b) travel. c) sexual or aggressive impulses. d) symmetry or order. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms and epidemiology of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

11. Commonly reported compulsions include all of the following EXCEPT a) pursuing cleanliness and orderliness by requesting help from others. b) performing repetitive, magical protective acts. c) repetitive checking to ensure that certain acts are carried out. d) engaging in elaborate rituals. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms and epidemiology of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

12. A common symptom associated with OCD is a) trying unsuccessfully to suppress, ignore, or neutralize the obsession. b) self-soothing. c) insecurity and separation anxiety.

d) volatile mood swings. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms and epidemiology of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

13. OCD tends to begin a) between middle childhood and adolescence. b) between adolescence and middle adulthood. c) between infancy and middle childhood. d) between middle childhood and early adulthood. Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms and epidemiology of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

14. OCD tends to be a) more common in men than in women. b) more common in women than in men. c) as common in men as it is in women. d) most common in older men. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms and epidemiology of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

15. How is body dysmorphic disorder similar to OCD? a) both engage in compulsive behaviors b) both have obsessive preoccupations c) both spend inordinate amounts of time of their obsessions d) all of the above

Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms and epidemiology of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

16. Approximately __________ percent of people diagnosed as having body dysmorphic disorder are unable to work. a) 10 b) 25 c) 40 d) 65 Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms and epidemiology of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

17. Body dysmorphic disorder is most likely to begin in a) early childhood. b) middle childhood. c) adolescence. d) adulthood. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms and epidemiology of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

18. Symptoms and outcomes of body dysmorphic disorder may be common across cultures, but __________ tends to differ. a) focus on specific body parts b) number of body parts

c) frequency of checking behaviors d) there are no differences across cultures Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms and epidemiology of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

19. The compulsive need to acquire objects and the inability to discard any objects is known as a) hoarding disorder. b) collecting disorder. c) refuse disorder. d) none of the above. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms and epidemiology of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

20. Approximately one-third of people with hoarding disorder also engage in a) food hoarding. b) animal hoarding. c) collectibles hoarding. d) all of the above. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms and epidemiology of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

21. People diagnosed as having hoarding disorder or body dysmorphic disorder probably had a relative with a) OCD.

b) social anxiety disorder. c) mood disorder. d) identity disorder. Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the commonalities in the etiology of Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of the specific disorders within this cluster. Bloomcode: Knowledge

22. All of the following brain regions are involved in OCD EXCEPT: a) orbitofrontal cortex b) caudate nucleus c) anterior cingulate d) cerebellum Answer: d Section Reference: Etiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the commonalities in the etiology of Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of the specific disorders within this cluster. Bloomcode: Analysis

23. The estimated heritability for OCD ranges from __________ to __________ percent. a) 10; 20 b) 40; 50 c) 60; 80 d) 90; 100 Answer: b Section Reference: Etiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the commonalities in the etiology of Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of the specific disorders within this cluster. Bloomcode: Knowledge

24. All of the following are common rituals associated with OCD EXCEPT a) Mental rituals. b) Singing. c) Checking. d) Decontamination.

Answer: b Section Reference: Etiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the commonalities in the etiology of obsessive-compulsive and related disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of the specific disorders within this cluster. Bloomcode: Analysis

25. Behavior models of the etiology for obsessive-compulsive and related disorders emphasize a) classical conditioning. b) operant conditioning. c) punishment. d) stimulus-response relationships. Answer: b Section Reference: Etiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the commonalities in the etiology of obsessive-compulsive and related disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of the specific disorders within this cluster. Bloomcode: Comprehension

26. Attempting to stop an obsession is called a) thought suppression. b) compulsive suppression. c) ceasing behavior. d) reinforcement attempts. Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the commonalities in the etiology of obsessive-compulsive and related disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of the specific disorders within this cluster. Bloomcode: Knowledge

27. Substantial evidence shows that symptoms of OCD are a) adaptive. b) related to over-activity in the locus coeruleus. c) a result of increased worry. d) related to over activity in the orbitofrontal cortex, caudate nucleus and the anterior cingulate. Answer: d

Section Reference: Etiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the commonalities in the etiology of obsessive-compulsive and related disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of the specific disorders within this cluster. Bloomcode: Synthesis

28. Behavioral models consider compulsions to be a) classically conditioned responses. b) operantly conditioned responses. c) a result of suppressed obsessions. d) related to deficient locus coeruleus activity. Answer: b Section Reference: Etiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the commonalities in the etiology of obsessive-compulsive and related disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of the specific disorders within this cluster. Bloomcode: Knowledge

29. Diane has repetitive thoughts that her house will catch on fire. She repeatedly checks the stove to make sure it is turned off. Diane’s compulsive behavior serves to a) provide immediate relief from the anxiety associated with her repetitive thoughts. b) reinforce her checking behaviors. c) lower her psychophysiological arousal. d) all of the above. Answer: d Section Reference: Etiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the commonalities in the etiology of obsessive-compulsive and related disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of the specific disorders within this cluster. Bloomcode: Application

30. A study of compulsive checkers (people who continually check to see if they have done something such as turning off the stove) found that these individuals a) mistrust their memory for actions they have performed. b) are likely to confront sources of threat. c) are more likely to live alone. d) have a vulnerability schema. Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the commonalities in the etiology of obsessive-compulsive and related disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of the specific disorders within this cluster. Bloomcode: Comprehension

31. What percentage of people who develop PTSD have a history of an anxiety disorder a) 15%. b) 40%. c) 50% d) 66%. Answer: d Section Reference: Etiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the commonalities in the etiology of obsessive-compulsive and related disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of the specific disorders within this cluster. Bloomcode: Knowledge

32. Efforts to inhibit obsessive thoughts a) may increase obsessional thinking and negative mood. b) may be a helpful strategy for obsessive-compulsives to use. c) result in other problems, such as stress-induced illnesses. d) are easier if a significant other is involved to encourage and reinforce the suppression of obsessive thoughts. Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the commonalities in the etiology of obsessive-compulsive and related disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of the specific disorders within this cluster. Bloomcode: Comprehension

33. People diagnosed as having body dysmorphic disorder are more attuned to a) facial symmetry b) attractiveness c) distortions d) both a and b Answer: d Section Reference: Etiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Describe the commonalities in the etiology of obsessive-compulsive and related disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of the specific disorders within this cluster. Bloomcode: Knowledge

34. According to the cognitive behavioral model, hoarding is related to all of the following EXCEPT: a) poor organizational abilities. b) unusual beliefs about possessions. c) poor planning skills. d) avoidance behaviors. Answer: c Section Reference: Etiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the commonalities in the etiology of obsessive-compulsive and related disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of the specific disorders within this cluster. Bloomcode: Analysis

35. All three OCD-related disorders respond well to a) serotonin reuptake inhibitors. b) dopamine inhibitors. c) GABA enhancers. d) norepinephrine enhancers. Answer: a Section Reference: Treatment of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the ObsessiveCompulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the medication and psychological treatments for the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Bloomcode: Application

36. The most widely used psychological treatment for OCD-related disorders is a) interpersonal psychotherapy. b) psychoanalysis. c) exposure and response prevention. d) operant conditioning. Answer: c Section Reference: Treatment of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the ObsessiveCompulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Discuss the medication and psychological treatments for Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

37. Confronting one’s worst fears, such as contamination by dirty objects, is used during a) exposure response prevention therapy. b) psychoanalysis. c) classical conditioning. d) interpersonal therapy. Answer: a Section Reference: Treatment of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the ObsessiveCompulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the medication and psychological treatments for Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Bloomcode: Application

38. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding exposure and ritual prevention treatment for OCD? a) it is considered the first-line treatment approach. b) it is especially effective when hoarding is present. c) it is very intensive, causing as many as 25% of patients to refuse treatment. d) it is at least partially effective for over half of the patients treated. Answer: b Section Reference: Treatment of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the ObsessiveCompulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the medication and psychological treatments for Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

39. Which of the following treatments has been shown to be more effective than either medication or supportive psychotherapy in treating posttraumatic stress disorder? a) progressive muscle relaxation b) exposure treatment c) EMDR d) group psychotherapy with other trauma victims Answer: b

Section Reference: Treatment of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the ObsessiveCompulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the medication and psychological treatments for Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

40. Iris was in an automobile accident. She goes to a psychologist a week after the accident. If she is experiencing nightmares, flashbacks, and headaches, and is ruminating about the accident, she will likely receive which diagnosis? a) acute stress disorder b) generalized anxiety disorder c) posttraumatic stress disorder d) anxiety disorder not otherwise specified Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Description and Epidemiology of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Define the symptoms and outcomes of the trauma-related disorders: acute stress disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder. Bloomcode: Application

41. Extreme response to a severe stressor that includes increased anxiety, avoidance of stimuli associate with an event, and symptoms of increase arousal are symptoms of which disorder? a) OCD b) PTSD c) BDD d) MDD Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Description and Epidemiology of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the symptoms and outcomes of the trauma-related disorders: acute stress disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

42. The most common type of trauma for women that evokes PTSD is a) homelessness. b) widowhood. c) rape. d) natural disasters.

Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Description and Epidemiology of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the symptoms and outcomes of the trauma-related disorders: acute stress disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

43. The DSM-5 divides symptoms for PTSD into __________ categories. a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8 Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Description and Epidemiology of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the symptoms and outcomes of the trauma-related disorders: acute stress disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

44. Which of the following is NOT one of the DSM-5 categories for PTSD? a) intrusively re-experiencing the traumatic event b) avoidance of stimuli associated with the event c) mood and cognitive changes following the trauma d) forgetfulness and disorientation following the trauma Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Description and Epidemiology of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the symptoms and outcomes of the trauma-related disorders: acute stress disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder. Bloomcode: Comprehension

45. Irritable or aggressive behavior, reckless or self-destructive behavior, difficulty falling or staying asleep, and hyper-vigilance are all symptoms associated with the DSM-5’s ___________ category of PTSD. a) intrusively re-experiencing the traumatic event b) avoidance of stimuli associated with the event

c) mood and cognitive changes following the trauma d) symptoms of increased arousal and reactivity Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Description and Epidemiology of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the symptoms and outcomes of the trauma-related disorders: acute stress disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder. Bloomcode: Comprehension

46. Acute stress disorder differs from PTSD in that the symptoms a) are more severe. b) last longer. c) last only a short period of time. d) are hard to define. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Description and Epidemiology of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Define the symptoms and outcomes of the trauma-related disorders: acute stress disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder. Bloomcode: Analysis

47. According to the DSM-5, all of the following are symptoms of ASD EXCEPT: a) recurrent, involuntary, and intrusive distressing memories since the trauma. b) recurrent distressing dreams about the trauma. c) dissociative reactions (flashbacks) since the trauma. d) all of the above are symptoms of ASD. Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Description and Epidemiology of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Define the symptoms and outcomes of the trauma-related disorders: acute stress disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder. Bloomcode: Analysis

48. Which of the following is NOT a likely comorbid diagnosis for those with PTSD? a) major depression b) social anxiety disorder

c) substance abuse d) other anxiety disorders Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Description and Epidemiology of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the symptoms and outcomes of the trauma-related disorders: acute stress disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

49. The two-factor model of conditioning for PTSD involves classical conditioning and a) operant conditioning. b) socialization c) a neutral stimulus. d) modeling. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Description and Epidemiology of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the symptoms and outcomes of the trauma-related disorders: acute stress disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

50. The __________ of the trauma influences whether or not a person will develop PTSD. a) severity b) frequency c) source d) difficulty Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Description and Epidemiology of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the symptoms and outcomes of the trauma-related disorders: acute stress disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

51. As with the anxiety disorders, PTSD appears to be related to a greater activation of the amygdala and diminished activation of the a) temporal lobes.

b) occipital lobes. c) frontal cortex. d) medial prefrontal cortex. Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Description and Epidemiology of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the symptoms and outcomes of the trauma-related disorders: acute stress disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

52. Feeling removed from one’s body or one’s emotions, or being unable to remember an event, is predictive of a) PTSD. b) OCD. c) GAD. d) all of the above. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Description and Epidemiology of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Define the symptoms and outcomes of the trauma-related disorders: acute stress disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder. Bloomcode: Application

53. What is considered the most commonly used medications for OCD a) Anti-Psychotics b) Anti-depressants c) Neuroleptics d) Anti-Convulsants Answer: b Section Reference: Treatment of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the ObsessiveCompulsive and Related Disorders Learning Objective: Discuss the medication and psychological treatments for Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

54. People diagnosed with PTSD consistently demonstrated deficits on neuropsychological tests of verbal memory even while performing adequately on tests of

a) visual memory. b) auditory memory. c) sensory memory. d) cortisol memory. Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder Learning Objective: Summarize how the nature and severity of the trauma, as well as biological and psychological risk factors, contribute to whether trauma-related disorders develop. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

55. Treatment of acute stress disorder is a) unnecessary, as most people recover anyway with time. b) dangerous, as reliving the event increases the trauma. c) important, as it reduces the risk of developing PTSD. d) difficult, as it is hard to recreate the original trauma. Answer: c Section Reference: Treatment of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the medication and psychological treatments for the trauma-related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

56. Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) a) is the best treatment available for PTSD. b) is very controversial. c) has been empirically proven to work better than exposure or cognitive therapy. d) is supported by strong theoretical explanations. Answer: b Section Reference: Treatment of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the medication and psychological treatments for the trauma-related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

57. __________ is the primary treatment for PTSD. a) exposure treatment b) flooding

c) classical conditioning d) affective rehearsal treatment Answer: a Section Reference: Treatment of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the medication and psychological treatments for the trauma-related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 58. When the person deliberately remembers the event in therapy, it is called a) treatment exposure. b) imaginal exposure. c) cruel treatment. d) reactivation treatment. Answer: b Section Reference: Treatment of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the medication and psychological treatments for the trauma-related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

59. __________ therapy is designed to help victims of rape and childhood sexual abuse to dispute tendencies towards self-blame. a) Exposure b) Imaginal exposure c) Cognitive processing d) None of the above Answer: c Section Reference: Treatment of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the medication and psychological treatments for the trauma-related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

60. __________ involves immediate treatment of trauma victims within 72 hours of the traumatic event. a) Emergency therapy b) Critical incident stress debriefing c) Victim distancing therapy d) All of the above

Answer: b Section Reference: Critical Incident Stress Debriefing - Focus on Discovery 7.2 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the medication and psychological treatments for the trauma-related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

61. Which of the following symptoms is not part of the diagnosis of Hoarding Disorder? a) Perceived flaw or flaws in the appearance of the home or workplace. b) Difficulty discarding items regardless of their value. c) Compromise in the usefulness of living spaces due to the accumulation of possessions. d) Distress when thinking about discarding useless items. Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the commonalities in the etiology of obsessive-compulsive and related disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of the specific disorders within this cluster. Bloomcode: Comprehension 62. If hoarding symptoms develop as part of schizophrenia, hoarding disorder ________ a) should not be diagnosed. b) probably will be considered instead. c) must be listed as a co-morbid diagnosis. d) should not be diagnosed unless the individual is particularly unaware of the problem. Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the commonalities in the etiology of obsessive-compulsive and related disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of the specific disorders within this cluster. Bloomcode: Comprehension

63. In spite of strong ethics that would prevent it, Tony experiences recurrent and unwanted thoughts that he might behave inappropriately toward a supervisor at work. To be given a diagnosis of OCD, he must also: a) actively attempt to ignore the thoughts. b) engage in a superstitious ritual to prevent the behavior from occurring. c) be unaware that the worry about behaving in such a way is irrational. d) have difficulty discarding possessions regardless of their value.

Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the commonalities in the etiology of obsessive-compulsive and related disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of the specific disorders within this cluster. Bloomcode: Application

64. Symptoms of PTSD are grouped into which of the following major categories? a) Re-experiencing of traumatic event, avoidance of stimuli associated with event, negative alterations in mood or cognition, and increased arousal or reactivity b) Re-experiencing of traumatic event, avoidance of stimuli associated with event, and anxiety c) Hypervigilance, avoidance of stimuli associated with event, and exaggerated startle response d) Avoidance of stimuli associated with event, symptoms of increased arousal, and symptoms of suicidality Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Description and Epidemiology of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Define the symptoms and outcomes of the trauma-related disorders: acute stress disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder. Bloomcode: Synthesis

65. In PTSD, criteria for negative alterations in mood or cognition include all of these except: a) Social withdrawal in women b) More frequent negative mood in children c) Blaming others d) Inability to recall specific aspects of the trauma Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Description and Epidemiology of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the symptoms and outcomes of the trauma-related disorders: acute stress disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder. Bloomcode: Comprehension

66. Rather than being considered part of the avoidance cluster of symptoms, the DSM-5 considers numbing symptoms such as feeling distant from others to be part of the ___________ category. a) Negative alterations in cognition and mood b) Re-experiencing the trauma c) Increased social withdrawal

d) Decreased arousal and increased reactivity Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Description and Epidemiology of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the symptoms and outcomes of the trauma-related disorders: acute stress disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

67. Taken as a whole, the criteria for Acute Stress Disorder and the criteria for Posttraumatic Stress Disorder are __________ in the DSM-5 than in the DSM-IV-TR. a) more similar b) more distinct c) particularly different in terms of severity of symptoms d) unchanged Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Description and Epidemiology of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the symptoms and outcomes of the trauma-related disorders: acute stress disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder. Bloomcode: Comprehension

68. In more religious cultures, obsessions involved in OCD are a) less prevalent than in less religious cultures. b) more likely to involve religious themes. c) considered blasphemous. d) more likely to involve themes of identity. Ans.: b Section Reference: Etiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the commonalities in the etiology of obsessive-compulsive related disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of the specific disorders within this cluster. Bloomcode: Knowledge

69. A strictly behavioral therapist treating Steve for contamination fear due to OCD would use which of the following interventions? a) Have Steve meditate daily. b) Have Steve challenge the idea that it is necessary to be clean.

c) Have Steve purposely get dirty. d) Have Steve say ‘stop’ to himself quietly when he feels he must wash. Answer: c Section Reference: Treatment of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the ObsessiveCompulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the medication and psychological treatments for Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Bloomcode: Application

70. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding exposure and ritual prevention treatment for OCD? a) It is considered the first-line treatment approach. b) It is especially effective when hoarding is present. c) It is very intensive, causing as many as 25% of patients to refuse treatment. d) It is at least partially effective for over half of the patients treated. Answer: b Section Reference: Treatment of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the ObsessiveCompulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the medication and psychological treatments for Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

71. True or False? Hoarding Disorder is commonly comorbid with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder. Answer: True Section Reference: Etiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the commonalities in the etiology of obsessive-compulsive related disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of the specific disorders within this cluster. Bloomcode: Knowledge

Question Type: Short Answer

72. Why is it that individuals experiencing PTSD will sometimes have difficulty remembering some aspects of the trauma while at the same time suffering from intrusive memories of other aspects of it? Answer: Although the person is using avoidance to try to prevent reminders, the strategy often fails, and so re-experiencing occurs.

Section Reference: Clinical Description and Epidemiology of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Define the symptoms and outcomes of the trauma-related disorders: acute stress disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder. Bloomcode: Evaluation

73. List two reasons why the Acute Stress Disorder diagnosis is not as well accepted as the Posttraumatic Stress Disorder diagnosis. Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Description and Epidemiology of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder. Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Define the symptoms and outcomes of the trauma-related disorders: acute stress disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder. Bloomcode: Evaluation

Question Type: Essay

74. Explain why body dysmorphic disorder is likely to begin in adolescence. Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Section Reference: Etiology of the of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the commonalities in the etiology of obsessive-compulsive and related disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of the specific disorders within this cluster Bloomcode: Synthesis

75. Describe the difference between an obsession and a compulsion and provide an example of each. Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms and epidemiology of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Bloomcode: Evaluation

76. How are compulsions reinforcing to a person with OCD?

Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms and epidemiology of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Bloomcode: Synthesis

77. Discuss risk factors for developing PTSD. Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Description and Epidemiology of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Define the symptoms and outcomes of the trauma-related disorders: acute stress disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder. Bloomcode: Evaluation

78. Discuss neurobiological factors and treatment options in PTSD. Answer: Section Reference: Treatment of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the ObsessiveCompulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the medication and psychological treatments for Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

79. Describe the various treatment options for those with OCD. Answer: Section Reference: Treatment of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the ObsessiveCompulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the medication and psychological treatments for Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

80. Describe the types of support that alleviate traumatic symptoms. Answer:

81. How is hoarding similar to OCD? Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms and epidemiology of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

82. Describe the cognitive and behavioral explanations for OCD-related disorders. Answer: Section Reference: Etiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the commonalities in the etiology of obsessive-compulsive and related disorders, as well as the factors that shape the expression of the specific disorders within this cluster. Bloomcode: Comprehension

83. Risk factors for PTSD risk factors for __________ a) anxiety disorders. b) somatoform disorders. c) mood disorders. d) sexual disorders. Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder Learning Objective: Summarize how the nature and severity of the trauma, as well as biological and psychological risk factors, contribute to whether trauma-related disorders develop. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

84. The initial fear in PTSD is assumed to arise from __________ a) operant conditioning. b) classical conditioning. c) mental conditioning.

d) body conditioning. Answer: b Section Reference: Etiology of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder Learning Objective: Summarize how the nature and severity of the trauma, as well as biological and psychological risk factors, contribute to whether trauma-related disorders develop. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

85. Once the fear is established in PTSD what helps to maintain the fear a) operant conditioning. b) classical conditioning. c) mental conditioning. d) body conditioning. Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder Learning Objective: Summarize how the nature and severity of the trauma, as well as biological and psychological risk factors, contribute to whether trauma-related disorders develop. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

Question Type: True/False

86. True or False: PTSD stands for post-traumatic stress disorder a) True. b) False. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Description and Epidemiology of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder Learning Objective: Define the symptoms and outcomes of the trauma-related disorders: acute stress disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

87. True or False: SSRI stands for Static Serotonin a) True. b) False.

Answer: b Section Reference: Treatment of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder Learning Objective: Describe the medication and psychological treatments for the trauma-related disorders. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

88. True or False: EMDR stands for Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing a) True. b) False. Answer: a Section Reference: Treatment of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder and Acute Stress Disorder Learning Objective: Describe the medication and psychological treatments for the trauma-related disorders. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

89. True or False: OCD stands for obsessive complete disorder a) True. b) False. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms and epidemiology of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Difficulty: Easy Bloomcode: Knowledge

90. True or False: ERP stands for exposure and response prevention a) True. b) False. Answer: a Section Reference: Treatment of the Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the ObsessiveCompulsive and Related Disorders Learning Objective: Discuss the medication and psychological treatments for Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders. Difficulty: Easy

Bloomcode: Knowledge

Package Title: Chapter 8, Testbank Course Title: Kring, Abnormal Psych 14e Chapter Number: 8

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1. Somatic symptom-related disorders and dissociative disorders are similar in that both a) have symptoms suggesting a physical dysfunction. b) typically begin after a stressful experience. c) involve aggressive outbursts. d) are delusional in quality. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Dissociative Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Summarize the symptoms and epidemiology of the three major dissociative disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

2. Dissociative disorders share a) obsessive thoughts. b) an alteration in consciousness or identity. c) an inability to distinguish reality from fantasy. d) physical symptoms with no physiological basis. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Dissociative Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Summarize the symptoms and epidemiology of the three major dissociative disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

3. The DSM-5 includes all of the following dissociative disorders EXCEPT: a) dissociative amnesia. b) depersonalization/derealization disorder. c) dissociative identity disorder. d) dissociative anxiety disorder. Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Dissociative Disorders Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Summarize the symptoms and epidemiology of the three major dissociative disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

4. Which theorists view dissociative disorders as avoidance responses that protect the person from consciously experiencing stressful events? a) psychodynamic b) behavioral c) cognitive d) both a and b Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Dissociative Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Summarize the symptoms and epidemiology of the three major dissociative disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

5. Dissociative identity disorder must involve a) at least three distinct personalities. b) selective amnesia. c) at least two distinct personalities. d) depersonalization. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Dissociative Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Summarize the symptoms and epidemiology of the three major dissociative disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

6. Which of the following is an example of mild dissociation? a) worrying excessively over your grades b) not remembering material you studied for a test c) difficulty committing to social relationships d) being so preoccupied you forget an appointment Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Dissociative Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Summarize the symptoms and epidemiology of the three major dissociative disorders.

Bloomcode: Application

7. Why are there many questions regarding the role of memory under stress with respect to dissociative disorders? a) People have trouble recalling events. b) Few brain-imaging studies have been conducted to date. c) Some lines of research indicate that high levels of stress enhance memory. d) Research indicates that, under stress, people store memories in different areas of the brain. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Dissociative Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Summarize the symptoms and epidemiology of the three major dissociative disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

8. Pathological dissociation is considered a) an alienating response. b) an auditory response. c) an arbitrary response. d) an avoidance response. Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Dissociative Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Summarize the symptoms and epidemiology of the three major dissociative disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

9. Memories often hold __________ power. a) emotional b) cognitive c) physiological d) physical Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Dissociative Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Summarize the symptoms and epidemiology of the three major dissociative disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

10. Dissociative amnesia is a) the inability to recall important dates. b) the inability to recall important personal experiences. c) the inability to recall important information. d) the inability to recall important medical history. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Dissociative Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Summarize the symptoms and epidemiology of the three major dissociative disorders Bloomcode: Analysis

11. The prognosis for dissociative amnesia usually involves a __________ remission with __________ recovery. a) gradual; complete b) gradual; partial c) sudden; complete d) sudden; partial Answer: c Section Reference: Etiology of DID Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss current debate regarding the etiology of dissociative identity disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

12. Explicit memory is to conscious recall of experiences as implicit memory is to a) repressed memories. b) behaviors based on experiences that cannot be consciously recalled. c) behaviors based on experiences that occurred before the onset of speech. d) dreams. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Dissociative Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Summarize the symptoms and epidemiology of the three major dissociative disorders. Bloomcode: Synthesis

13. Donna was brutally assaulted outside the local 7-Eleven. Although she cannot recall the details of the assault, she becomes terrified when she drives past the 7-Eleven. This is an example of a situation in which a person

a) has an explicit memory, but no implicit memory. b) has neither explicit nor implicit memory. c) will most likely develop dissociative identity disorder. d) has no explicit memory, but has an implicit memory. Answer: d Section Reference: Etiology of DID Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss current debate regarding the etiology of dissociative identity disorder. Bloomcode: Application

14. Among the dissociative disorders, dissociative amnesia: subtype-dissociative fugue is characterized by a) massive repression. b) moving away and establishing a new identity. c) sudden development following severe stress. d) memory loss for virtually all past events. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Dissociative Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Summarize the symptoms and epidemiology of the three major dissociative disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

15. Following a dissociative amnesia-subtype dissociative fugue episode, the person often a) does not remember the events that occurred during the episode. b) remembers most of the events occurring during the episode, although may deny them to avoid embarrassment. c) is predisposed to have further episodes at times of stress. d) is likely to develop another type of dissociative disorder. Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of DID Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss current debate regarding the etiology of dissociative identity disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

16. Since watching his mother get hit and killed by a car two years ago, Chris has felt as if he has been watching himself from outside of his body and thinks that voices sound strange. He is probably suffering from

a) depersonalization/derealization disorder. b) dissociative identity disorder. c) dissociative amnesia . d) none of the above. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Dissociative Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Summarize the symptoms and epidemiology of the three major dissociative disorders. Bloomcode: Application

17. Mildred has been struggling with feelings of chronic depersonalization/derealization for several years. If she has depersonalization/derealization disorder, she most likely a) has impaired memory functioning. b) has a well-developed sense of self, just feelings of not being present. c) has experienced some abuse at an earlier age. d) is not employed. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Dissociative Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Summarize the symptoms and epidemiology of the three major dissociative disorders. Bloomcode: Application

18. Depersonalization/derealization disorder usually begins in a) early childhood. b) middle childhood. c) adolescence. d) adulthood. Answer: c Section Reference: Etiology of DID Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss current debate regarding the etiology of dissociative identity disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

19. Ms. Hall consulted a physician because of the following experience: The week before, she felt that another voice was talking to her, although she tried to ignore it. She then had a period of hours that she was unable to recall, but her boyfriend reported later that during that period she behaved like a completely different person, being loud and boisterous in contrast to her usual shy and sedate personality. She has

had similar experiences in the past and is at a loss to explain them. Ms. Hall’s symptoms most likely meet the criteria for a) schizophrenia. b) depersonalization/derealization disorder. c) dissociative identity disorder. d) none of the above. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Dissociative Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Summarize the symptoms and epidemiology of the three major dissociative disorders. Bloomcode: Application

20. Bradford reports the following unusual experiences: He found used tea bags in the wastebasket, although he does not like tea and lives alone; he discovered several suits in his closet that he had no memory of buying and did not like; he has had people greet him, calling him “William” or “Christian,” whom he has never met before. Which DSM-5 diagnosis would best fit Bradford’s symptoms? a) dissociative amnesia b) Obsessive compulsive disorder c) depersonalization/derealization disorder d) dissociative identity disorder Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Dissociative Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Summarize the symptoms and epidemiology of the three major dissociative disorders Bloomcode: Application

21. The onset of dissociative identity disorder is generally believed to begin during __________ and is found most often in people with __________ history of abuse. a) adolescence; no b) adolescence; a severe c) childhood; no d) childhood; a severe Answer: d Section Reference: Etiology of DID Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss current debate regarding the etiology of dissociative identity disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

22. Dissociative identity disorder and schizophrenia a) are two entirely different disorders. b) are synonyms. c) are very similar; the person with schizophrenia has two personalities, while the person with dissociative identity disorder has three or more. d) are similar in that both have hallucinations and delusions. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Dissociative Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Summarize the symptoms and epidemiology of the three major dissociative disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

23. All of the following have been cited as reasons for changes in the prevalence of dissociative identity disorder over the years EXCEPT: a) changes in the diagnostic criteria for the disorder. b) publication of popular accounts such as “Sybil.” c) changes in the medical sophistication and level of education in modern society. d) changing definitions of schizophrenia. Answer: c Section Reference: Etiology of DID Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss current debate regarding the etiology of dissociative identity disorder. Bloomcode: Comprehension

24. The two major theories of DID are a) post-traumatic and sociocognitive. b) post-traumatic and psychoanalytic. c) behavioral and psychoanalytic. d) post-traumatic and cognitive-behavioral. Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of DID Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss current debate regarding the etiology of dissociative identity disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

25. The post-traumatic model of DID a) has the most substantial empirical support.

b) assumes that DID begins in childhood as a result of severe abuse. c) assumes that DID is created in therapy. d) assumes DID is due to suggestion from the media. Answer: b Section Reference: Etiology of DID Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss current debate regarding the etiology of dissociative identity disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge 26. DID usually begins in __________ but is rarely diagnosed until __________. a) childhood; adulthood b) childhood; adolescence c) adolescence; adulthood d) adulthood; late adulthood Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of DID Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss current debate regarding the etiology of dissociative identity disorder. Bloomcode: Comprehension

27. One major theory of the etiology of dissociative identity disorder is that it results from a) fear of facing the complexities of adult living. b) drug use in predisposed individuals. c) suggestion by therapists or media influences. d) having a fantasy life more reinforcing than reality Answer: c Section Reference: Etiology of DID Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss current debate regarding the etiology of dissociative identity disorder. Bloomcode: Comprehension

28. According to Claire’s friends, she never exhibited signs of DID. However, after watching Sybil on TV and visiting a therapist regularly, Claire began exhibiting different personalities. A sociocultural theory of the development of Claire’s DID would suggest that a) Claire must have been sexually abused as a child. b) Claire must have come from a dysfunctional family and had few friends growing up. c) Claire's alters appeared in response to exposure to media and therapists’ suggestions. d) Claire has repressed memories for too long. Answer: c

Section Reference: Etiology of DID Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss current debate regarding the etiology of dissociative identity disorder. Bloomcode: Application

29. Most people with dissociative identity disorder exhibit high __________ and experienced a history of __________. a) child abuse; criminal behavior. b) hypnotic susceptibility; child abuse. c) hypnotic susceptibility; criminal behavior. d) sensation seeking; amnesia. Answer: b Section Reference: Etiology of DID Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss current debate regarding the etiology of dissociative identity disorder. Bloomcode: Comprehension

30. Dr. Jones believes that different alters appear during adulthood after the suggestion of a therapist. This is consistent with a) psychoanalytic theory. b) behavioral theory. c) social role enactment. d) self-fulfilling prophecy. Answer: c Section Reference: Etiology of DID Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss current debate regarding the etiology of dissociative identity disorder. Bloomcode: Application

31. Almost all patients in therapy for DID report a) severe child abuse. b) severe eating disorders. c) severe OCD. d) severe memory loss. Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of DID Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss current debate regarding the etiology of dissociative identity disorder.

Bloomcode: Comprehension

32. Therapists who are most likely to diagnose DID tend to a) practice behavioral techniques. b) use hypnosis. c) use biofeedback. d) support the sociocultural model. Answer: b Section Reference: Treatment of DID Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the available treatments for dissociative identity disorder. Bloomcode: Comprehension

33. The goal of treatment of dissociative disorders should be to a) encourage repression of the underlying trauma. b) encourage others to reinforce symptoms. c) convince the person that splitting into different personalities is no longer necessary to deal with traumas. d) provide a confrontational setting where symptoms are not needed. Answer: c Section Reference: Treatment of DID Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the available treatments for dissociative identity disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

34. Research on the effectiveness of psychological treatment of dissociative identity disorder a) shows that behavioral-cognitive therapy is moderately effective. b) has been hampered by the publicity surrounding known cases. c) supports the post-traumatic model of its etiology. d) is limited to observations of a few specialized studies that did not involve control groups Answer: d Section Reference: Treatment of DID Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the available treatments for dissociative identity disorder. Bloomcode: Comprehension

35. The most commonly diagnosed comorbid disorders with dissociative identity disorder are a) anxiety and depression.

b) somatoform and substance abuse disorders. c) bipolar disorder and depression. d) schizophrenia and schizoaffective disorder. Answer: a Section Reference: Treatment of DID Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the available treatments for dissociative identity disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

36. The controlled outcome studies on dissociative identity disorder (DID) show a) superior outcome when psychodynamic treatment is employed. b) integration of alters is easily achieved in most people with DID. c) psychotropic medications are effective in eliminating alters. d) none of the above; no controlled outcomes studies on DID exist. Answer: d Section Reference: Treatment of DID Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the available treatments for dissociative identity disorder. Bloomcode: Comprehension

37. Somatic symptom disorders all involve a) physical symptoms. b) dysphoric mood. c) disruptions of consciousness. d) hallucinations. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

38. All of the following are found in the somatic symptom disorders chapter in the DSM-5 EXCEPT: a) illness anxiety disorder. b) somatic symptom disorder. c) hypochondriasis. d) conversion disorder Answer: c

Section Reference: Somatic Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

39. Which of the following is NOT presented in the text as a criticism of the somatic symptom disorders? a) The diagnoses can be considered subjective. b) There is remarkable diversity among people diagnosed with somatic symptom disorders c) A diagnosis of a somatic symptom disorder carries a stigma and is not often diagnosed. d) All of the following are criticisms of somatic symptom disorders Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

40. According to the DSM-5, unwarranted fears about a serious illness despite absence of any significant somatic symptoms are called a) illness anxiety disorder. b) depersonalization/dearealization disorder. c) factitious disorder. d) conversion disorder Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

41. Louise arrived at the emergency room complaining of severe stomach pain. After careful evaluation, it became clear that Louise had purposely given herself food poisoning. She would most likely a) be malingering. b) have somatic symptom disorder. c) have la belle indifference. d) have factitious disorder. Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Application

42. Unlike a malingerer, a person with factitious disorder a) does not exhibit “la belle indifference.” b) has primarily psychological, not physical, symptoms. c) has physical symptoms that are not under voluntary control. d) has no clear motivation for adopting the symptoms. Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

43. Which of the following is most similar to somatic symptom disorder? a) factitious disorder b) conversion disorder c) Illness anxiety disorder d) dissociative disorder Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

44. Which of the following best illustrates illness anxiety disorder? a) An ulcer caused by stress. b) A persistent unsubstantiated fear of having cancer. c) Having obsessions with an imagined physical defect, such as facial wrinkles. d) Experiencing recurring pain with no physical basis. Answer: b Section Reference: Somatic Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Application

45. All of the following are DSM-5 symptoms of somatic symptom disorder EXCEPT: a) at least one somatic symptom is distressing or disrupts daily life. b) excessive thoughts, feelings, and behaviors related to somatic symptoms.

c) long-lasting history of mental illness. d) has occurred for at least six months. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

46. The main feature of illness anxiety disorder is a) a preoccupation with fears of having a serious disease. b) a fear of losing a limb. c) an overwhelming fear of doctors and hospitals. d) all of the above. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

47. Anesthesia and aphonia are examples of __________ disorder. a) illness anxiety b) conversion c) factitious d) somatic symptom Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

48. The Greek word hystera means a) hysterical b) womb c) women d) functional neurological Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 49. The term “conversion” originated with a) Sigmund Freud b) Abraham Maslow c) Ivan Pavlov d) Dermott Helmich Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

50. DSM-5 symptoms of conversion disorder include all of the following EXCEPT: a) one or more neurologic symptoms affecting voluntary motor function. b) three or more neurologic symptoms affecting voluntary motor function. c) diagnostic findings are internally inconsistent. d) symptoms cannot be explained by a medical condition. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

51. A factitious disorder imposed on another is referred to as a) Munchausen syndrome by imposition. b) Munchausen symptom diversion. c) Munchausen syndrome by proxy. d) none of the above. Answer: c Section Reference: Malingering and Factitious Disorder − Focus on Discovery 8.2 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

52. Neurobiologists focus on

a) how somatic symptom disorders are treated physically. b) why some people are hypersensitive to bodily sensations. c) when somatic symptoms first appear. d) none of the above. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

53. The brain region most closely linked to the somatosensory cortex is the a) anterior insula. b) posterior insula. c) anterior cingulate. d) both a and c. Answer: d Section Reference: Etiology of Somatic Symptom-Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the etiological models of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

54. Pain and somatic symptoms can be increased by a) anxiety. b) depression. c) hormones. d) all of these factors can increase somatic symptoms. Answer: d Section Reference: Etiology of Somatic Symptom-Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the etiological models of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

55. Once a somatic symptom develops, the cognitive variable that appears important is a) attention to body sensations. b) interpretation of body sensations. c) both attention and interpretation are important. d) neither attention nor interpretation are important. Answer: c

Section Reference: Etiology of Somatic Symptom-Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the etiological models of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

56. In the case of Anna O., her conversion disorder symptoms involved her a) left leg. b) sexual dysfunction. c) her right side, beginning with her arm. d) scalp, nose, and lips. Answer: c Section Reference: Etiology of Somatic Symptom-Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the etiological models of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

57. Julie experienced inexplicable blindness. She visited several ophthalmologists, all of whom indicated there was no physical basis for her blindness. She most likely has a) Illness anxiety disorder b) dissociative disorder. c) conversion disorder. d) somatic symptom disorder. Answer: c Section Reference: Somatic Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Application

58. Conversion disorder is NOT a likely diagnosis for someone experiencing an inexplicable loss of a) feeling. b) vision. c) memory. d) speech. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

59. Which of the following is a potential symptom of conversion disorder? a) extreme anxiety b) paralysis in the hand c) chronic sweating d) hypersensitivity to pain Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Application

60. Robert complained of complete lack of sensation in both knees, but a physical exam revealed no physiological damage. Which of the following would be the most likely diagnosis for Robert? a) factitious disorder b) somatic symptom disorder c) conversion disorder d) illness anxiety disorder Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Application

61. The onset of conversion disorder symptoms is usually a) sudden and related to a stressful situation. b) gradual and subtle. c) not associated with psychological distress. d) preceded by a period of physical illness. Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of Somatic Symptom-Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the etiological models of the somatic symptom-related disorders Bloomcode: Comprehension

62. Conversion disorder was first studied by Freud; before then it was referred to as a) la belle indifference.

b) hysteria. c) hypochondriasis. d) Briquet’s syndrome. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

63. Conversion disorder occupies a central place in psychodynamic theory because it provides a clear example of the role of a) repression. b) the unconscious. c) the pleasure principle. d) stages of development. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

64. Conversion disorder is most common in a) women. b) men. c) It is equally common in men and women. d) No information is yet available on prevalence among men vs. women. Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of Somatic Symptom-Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the etiological models of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

65. Lucy complained of paralysis in her leg that made it impossible for her to work or do household chores. When in the emergency room, she appeared unconcerned with her ailment and discussed it at great length. She even invited people to come and poke her leg to show that she experienced no sensations. She would most likely be diagnosed with a) somatic symptom disorder. b) conversion disorder. c) malingering.

d) illness anxiety disorder. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Application

66. The psychodynamic perspective on conversion disorder was revised in light of experimental findings with hysterically blind people who a) have underlying brain defects. b) can see when under hypnosis. c) can respond to visual information. d) experienced traumatic visual events. Answer: c Section Reference: Etiology of Somatic Symptom-Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the etiological models of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

67. Contemporary psychodynamic research on hysterically blind individuals indicates that they repress a) the awareness that they see. b) visual stimuli. c) information extracted from visual stimuli. d) their motives about seeing. Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of Somatic Symptom-Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the etiological models of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

68. People with unexplained blindness a) do well on tests to measure visual processing b) do not know that they can see. c) have sustained no damage to their eyes. d) all of the above Answer: d Section Reference: Etiology of Somatic Symptom-Related Disorders

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the etiological models of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

69. People with somatic symptom disorders a) are usually hysterical. b) tend to worry or have anxiety about physical symptoms. c) are more often men than women. d) tend to blame others for their physical imperfections. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

70. Nina has illness anxiety disorder. She notices a red splotch on her face that seems to be getting larger each day. Nina will most likely believe that this symptom a) is due to a psychological problem. b) is due to a serious underlying disease. c) will go away once she visits a doctor. d) is a bug bite. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Application

71. A behavioral reinforcer for someone with somatic symptom disorder would be a) receiving a dollar each time they ride an elevator. b) feeling refreshed after taking a hot shower. c) receiving attention and sympathy. d) successfully avoiding social situations. Answer: c Section Reference: Treatment of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the available treatments for somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Application

72. The treatment of somatic symptom disorders is relatively primitive because a) sufferers rarely seek mental health treatment. b) only psychodynamic therapies have been implemented. c) efforts to treat them have been unsuccessful. d) of legal and professional prohibitions. Answer: a Section Reference: Treatment of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the available treatments for somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

73. In an effort to reduce Alan’s somatic symptoms, his behaviorally-oriented therapist would most likely a) suggest that his family reward his efforts to return to work. b) train him in relaxation skills. c) spend time uncovering stressors that led to the problem. d) dispute the validity of his pain. Answer: a Section Reference: Treatment of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the available treatments for somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Application

74. One type of behavioral treatment for somatic symptom disorders seeks to a) reduce anxiety levels using somatic methods. b) eliminate the problem behaviors using punishment. c) teach more appropriate techniques for interacting with others. d) use hypnosis to alleviate the symptoms. Answer: c Section Reference: Treatment of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the available treatments for somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

75. Cognitive treatments for somatic symptom disorders seek to a) reduce attention to the body and challenge negative thoughts. b) teach more appropriate techniques for interactions with others. c) teach relaxation techniques to alleviate the symptoms. d) use operant conditioning approaches with family and friends to increase attention paid to patient.

Answer: a Section Reference: Treatment of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the available treatments for somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

76. Cognitive-behavioral treatments for somatic symptom disorder a) are aimed at focusing the person on their bodily sensations. b) encourage the person to seek reassurance from a medical doctor. c) are effective only for women. d) have proven effective in reducing health concerns and health care utilization. Answer: d Section Reference: Treatment of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the available treatments for somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

77. Psychological treatment of somatic symptom disorders often includes a) medical tests to show symptoms have no medical basis. b) focusing on reducing the underlying anxiety and depression. c) keeping a diary of symptoms and complaints. d) exploring childhood experiences of being sick. Answer: b Section Reference: Treatment of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the available treatments for somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

78. Controlled trials of psychological treatment for conversion disorder a) indicate that supportive psychotherapy reduces patients concerns about their physical problems. b) suggest that biofeedback is effective. c) indicate that relaxation training is highly effective in reducing symptoms. d) have not yet been conducted. Answer: d Section Reference: Treatment of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the available treatments for somatic symptom-related disorders.

Bloomcode: Knowledge

79. Cognitive behavioral treatment therapists help people do which of the following? a) identify and change emotions that trigger the somatic concerns b) change their cognitions regarding their somatic symptoms c) change their behaviors so they stop playing the role of a sick person and gain more reinforcement for engaging in other types of social interactions d) all of the above. Answer: d Section Reference: Treatment of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the available treatments for somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

80. Antidepressants have been found to reduce pain in clients with somatic symptom disorders even when a) the client denies being depressed or ill. b) the dosage is too low to alleviate the associated depression. c) the client skips doses. d) all of these answers are correct. Answer: b Section Reference: Treatment of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the available treatments for somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

81. The DSM-5 includes all of the following dissociative disorders except: a) Dissociative Disintegrative Disorder b) Dissociative Identity Disorder c) Dissociative Amnesia d) Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Dissociative Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Summarize the symptoms and epidemiology of the three major dissociative disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

82. Which of these dissociative disorders is no longer a distinct diagnosis in the DSM-5? a) Dissociative Fugue b) Dissociative Amnesia c) Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder d) Dissociative Identity Disorder Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Dissociative Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Summarize the symptoms and epidemiology of the three major dissociative disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

83. Conversion disorder symptoms typically begin a) in adolescence or early adulthood. b) in childhood. c) in late adulthood d) earlier for males than for females. Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of Somatic Symptom-Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the etiological models of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

84. In the case of Anna O., her conversion disorder symptoms appeared a) while sitting at the bedside of her seriously ill father. b) after her brother’s death. c) after she experienced a sexual assault d) under hypnosis. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

85. Miguel experienced a sudden, inexplicable blindness. Tests have shown no physical basis for his symptoms. The most likely diagnosis is

a) Conversion Disorder b) Somatic Symptom Disorder c) Dissociative Identity Disorder d) Illness Anxiety Disorder Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Application

86. Conversion disorder is not a likely diagnosis for someone a) with memory issues. b) with a sudden loss of sensation. c) who suddenly ceases to speak. d) who experiences tunnel vision. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

87. Claudia is experiencing intermittent pain in her stomach and back. Medical examination and testing have revealed no physical explanation for her symptoms. The most likely DSM-5 diagnosis for Claudia is a) Somatic Symptom Disorder b) Illness Anxiety Disorder c) Factitious Disorder d) Illness Anxiety Disorder Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Application

88. In Factitious Disorder Imposed on Another, a person causes symptoms in another person and then presents that person as ill in order to: a) receive reinforcement for being an attentive, loving caregiver b) receive a financial gain c) distract attention from his/her own psychological pain d) cause suffering to the other person Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Application

89. An insurance company hired a private investigator to ascertain whether a claimant alleging a back injury was really disabled, or whether the person was acting that way to receive financial gain. Such behavior is known as ________________________. a) Malingering b) Illness anxiety disorder c) Conversion disorder d) Factitious disorder Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Application

90. Most people with somatic symptom-related disorders usually want __________ care, not ___________ care. a) medical, mental health b) mental health, medical c) Psychological, Physical d) Physical, Psychological Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Application

91. What kind of gentle reminder might a physician make to a patient who might be suffering from a Somatic disorder a) The effectiveness of psychological interventions b) The effectiveness of medication in treating psychological disorders c) the connection between the mind and the body d) both a and b Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

Question Type: Essay

92. Differentiate between factitious disorder and malingering Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

93. Describe malingering and how it differs from conversion and factitious disorder. Answer: Section Reference: Somatic Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Explain the etiological models of the somatic symptom disorders. Bloomcode: Evaluation

94. Discuss the criteria for determining somatic symptom disorder. As part of this discussion, consider the importance of multiple criteria for making this diagnosis. Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders.Answer: Bloomcode: Evaluation

95. What is the proposed etiology of conversion disorder? Compare the psychoanalytical and behavioral paradigms of the etiology. Answer: Section Reference: Etiology of Somatic Symptom-Related Disorders Learning Objective: Explain the etiological models of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Synthesis

96. Justify the inclusion of depersonalization/derealization disorder in the dissociative disorders. Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Dissociative Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Summarize the symptoms and epidemiology of the three major dissociative disorders. Bloomcode: Evaluation

97. What is the controversy surrounding repressed memory? Explain the importance of this controversy in the diagnosis of dissociative identity disorder. Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders. Bloomcode: Evaluation 98. Compare and contrast the psychoanalytic and behavioral approaches to conceptualization and treatment of conversion disorder. Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Summarize the symptoms and epidemiology of the three major dissociative disorders. Bloomcode: Synthesis

99. Describe the symptoms and treatment options for people with a somatic symptom disorder. Answer:

Section Reference: Clinical Description of Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Define the symptoms of the somatic symptom-related disorders.Bloomcode: Evaluation

100. Discuss the difference between implicit and explicit memories. What is the controversy surrounding implicit memories in DID? Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Dissociative Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Summarize the symptoms and epidemiology of the three major dissociative disorders. Bloomcode: Synthesis

101. Discuss the two major etiological theories of DID. Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Dissociative Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Summarize the symptoms and epidemiology of the three major dissociative disorders. Bloomcode: Evaluation

102. Discuss the common treatment approach for DID. Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions and Epidemiology of the Dissociative Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Summarize the symptoms and epidemiology of the three major dissociative disorders Bloomcode: Evaluation

Package Title: Chapter 9, Testbank Course Title: Kring, Abnormal Psych 14e Chapter Number: 9

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1. Schizophrenia is a disorder characterized by disturbances in a) thought. b) emotion. c) behavior. d) all of the above. Answer: d Section Reference: Introduction Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

2. The symptoms of schizophrenia can interfere with all of the following EXCEPT: a) maintaining employment. b) living independently. c) having close relationships with other people. d) all of the above. Answer: d Section Reference: Introduction Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

3. The lifetime prevalence of schizophrenia is around __________ percent. a) 1 b) 3 c) 5 d) 7 Answer: a Section Reference: Introduction Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

4. Schizophrenia is diagnosed more frequently among: a) men b) women c) African Americans d) both men and African Americans Answer: d Section Reference: Introduction Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

5. Schizophrenia most commonly appears in a) early childhood. b) middle or late childhood. c) adolescence or early adulthood. d) late adulthood. Answer: c Section Reference: Introduction Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

6. The DSM-5 criteria for a diagnosis of schizophrenia include all of the following categories EXCEPT: a) delusions. b) hallucinations. c) forgetfulness. d) disorganized speech. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

7. Symptoms of schizophrenia have been classified as a) positive, neutral, and negative. b) positive, negative, and disorganized. c) organized, positive, and negative. d) organized, disorganized, and negative. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Comprehension

8. A negative symptom of schizophrenia is a) restricted affect. b) asociality. c) agitation. d) both a and b. Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

9. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia include all of the following EXCEPT: a) hallucinations. b) delusions. c) excesses and distortions of emotion. d) sociality Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

10. Those diagnosed with schizophrenia may believe that

a) thoughts have been placed inside their heads by outside sources. b) their thoughts are being broadcasted or transmitted to others. c) they are all-powerful and all-knowing. d) all of the above. Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Application

11. An exaggerated sense of importance, power, knowledge, or identity is known as a a) grandiose delusions. b) hallucinations. c) ideas of reference. d) none of the above. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

12. When a person incorporates unimportant events within a delusional framework and reads personal significance into trivial activities of others, it is called a) grandiose delusions. b) hallucinations. c) ideas of reference. d) absence of logic. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

13. Children who develop schizophrenia as adults had signs of a cognitive deficit beginning at age a) 6

b) 7 c) 8 d) 9 Answer: b Section Reference: Developmental Factors Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioral and molecular, in the etiology of schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

14. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia include all of the following EXCEPT: a) avolition. b) alogia. c) anhedonia. d) delusions. Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Comprehension

15. Sensory experiences in the absence of any relevant stimulation from the environment are called a) delusions. b) ideas of reference. c) hallucinations. d) flights of thought. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

16. When people with schizophrenia are hearing voices, one of the parts of the brain that appears to be activated is a) the cerebellum. b) the reticular formation. c) Broca’s area.

d) Werner’s region. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

17. During an acute episode of schizophrenia, the most prominent symptom(s) is/are a) disorientation. b) positive symptoms. c) difficulty concentrating. d) inability to bathe and take care of personal business. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

18. Mark’s parents bring him to see a psychologist because they believe Mark is experiencing delusions. What piece of information would most indicate that Mark had schizophrenia and not some other diagnosis? a) His delusions only come when his parents are around. b) His delusions are highly implausible. c) His delusions have persisted for more than 5 years. d) His delusions involve other people. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Application

19. Among those with schizophrenia who suffer from delusions, a large majority experience a) delusions of persecution. b) thought broadcast. c) delusions of impulses imposed by others. d) hallucinations with the delusions.

Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge 20. “When I am trying to relax and read a book, my father puts his thoughts into my head so that I cannot concentrate.” This statement by a schizophrenic patient is an example of what type of symptom? a) affective b) motor c) positive d) negative Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Application

21.The most common hallucinations experienced by those with schizophrenia are a) visual. b) tactile. c) auditory. d) olfactory. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

22. Carla has schizophrenia. Which of her symptoms is most likely to be present outside of an acute episode of schizophrenia? a) Hearing a voice telling her she is not good at her job. b) Thinking that her thoughts are being broadcast so others can read them. c) Not showering for days on end. d) None of the above.

Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Application

23. Which of the following are examples of negative symptoms of schizophrenia? a) flat affect, lack of initiative b) hallucinations and delusions c) difficulty concentrating, low intelligence, poor memory d) catatonic immobility, waxy flexibility Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Comprehension

24. Carlos has schizophrenia and is living with his parents. One of his symptoms is a difficulty initiating any activity, and once started, he is unable to finish. This is an example of a) akathisia. b) anhedonia. c) avolition. d) alogia. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Application

25. Anhedonia as a symptom of schizophrenia refers to lack of a) emotional expression. b) interest or pleasure. c) coherent speech. d) speech. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

26. The symptom alogia refers to lack of a) intelligence. b) energy and interest. c) emotional response. d) speech. Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

27. James is struggling with schizophrenia. He also finds it difficult to experience pleasure from activities that he enjoyed before his symptoms began. This is an example of a) alogia. b) anhedonia. c) avolition. d) asociality. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Application

28. Roger has a vacant stare. He answers questions in an apathetic, monotone voice, and shows no emotion, even when discussing such events as his mother’s death. Roger’s affect would be described as a) depressed. b) inappropriate. c) blasé. d) flat or blunted. Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Application

29. When an individual with schizophrenia shows a blunted affect, that individual a) does not experience emotions. b) does not express emotions. c) does not experience physiological arousal in emotionally intense situations. d) all of the above. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Comprehension 30. “My thoughts get all jumbled up. I start thinking or talking about one thing but then by the time I get to the end of the sentence, I find myself talking about something else instead.” This is an example of which of the following symptoms of schizophrenia? a) delusions b) loose associations c) alogia d) avolition Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Application

31. James suffers from schizophrenia and flails his limbs wildly with excitement. This is most appropriately labeled as a) catatonia. b) mania. c) hallucinations. d) delusions. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Application

32. Mr. Hart spends long hours sitting in a chair with his arms behind his back and his left leg tucked under. No matter what is going on around him, he remains in this position. This is an example of which symptom of schizophrenia? a) somatic passivity b) anhedonia c) catatonic immobility d) inappropriate affect Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Application

33. When Marcia heard that her favorite cat had been hit by a car and killed, she giggled quietly. This is an example of a) flat blunted affect. b) inappropriate affect. c) anhedonia. d) incoherence. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Application

34. When someone with schizophrenia has trouble performing daily living tasks or dressing normally, or acts in a silly manner, it is referred to as a) disorganized behavior. b) disorganized reactivity. c) avolition. d) blunted behavior. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Comprehension

35. Emil Kraepelin and __________ initially formulated the concept of schizophrenia. a) Eugen Bleuler b) Sigmund Freud c) Jerome Welchup d) none of the above Answer: a Section Reference: History of the Concept of Schizophrenia − Focus on Discovery 9.2 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

36. The term schizophrenia comes from the Greek word schizein meaning to split and phren meaning a) dissociation. b) mind. c) conscience. d) unconscious state. Answer: b Section Reference: History of the Concept of Schizophrenia − Focus on Discovery 9.2 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

37. According to the DSM-5, symptoms of schizophrenia must be present for at least __________ in order to be diagnosed. a) 1 month b) 6 months c) 1 year d) 2 years Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

38. The DSM-5 removed the subtype of schizophrenia called a) paranoid. b) disorganized. c) catatonic. d) all of the above. Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

39. Howard had a psychotic episode following the death of his wife. He had hallucinations in which he would hear her speaking to him, telling him to kill himself. Howard developed elaborate delusions about his ability to communicate with his wife’s spirit. Howard recovered from this episode after one week and had no further symptoms What DSM-5 diagnosis would fit Howard’s case? a) schizophreniform disorder b) brief psychotic disorder c) schizoaffective disorder d) schizophrenia Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Application

40. Sam believes the Queen of England is in love with him. He does not have any other symptoms. His most likely diagnosis would be a) schizophreniform disorder. b) schizoaffective disorder. c) delusional disorder. d) bipolar disorder with delusions. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms.

Bloomcode: Application

41. Attenuated psychosis syndrome involves a) symptoms that have been present for at least one month, appearing at least once a week. b) beginning or worsening over the past year. c) distressing and disabling symptoms. d) all of the above. Answer: d Section Reference: Attenuated Psychosis Syndrome − Focus on Discovery 9.3 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

42. Family studies of the genetic basis for schizophrenia look at a) the rate of schizophrenia in relatives of patients with schizophrenia. b) concordance for schizophrenia in cultures where incest is relatively common. c) the likelihood that a patient with schizophrenia will have children. d) the effects of being raised by a patient with schizophrenia. Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioral and molecular, in the etiology of schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

43. What is the incidence of Schizophrenia for someone when both their parents have schizophrenia a) 27.5%. b) 7%. c) .86%. d) 15.6%. Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioral and molecular, in the etiology of schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Comprehension

44. Studies show that, of the schizophrenic symptoms, the ones with the greater genetic component are a) negative symptoms. b) delusions. c) positive symptoms. d) persecution delusions. Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioral and molecular, in the etiology of schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Comprehension

45. What is the risk of schizophrenia in the general public? a) less than 1%. b) 2%. c) 3%. d) 5%. Answer: c Section Reference: Etiology of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioral and molecular, in the etiology of schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Comprehension

46. Studies of children whose mothers had schizophrenia but who were raised by adopted parents indicate a) that there is not a strong genetic factor in the development of schizophrenia. b) that there is a strong genetic factor in the development of schizophrenia. c) that children who were adopted into homes with low EE (expressed emotion) were more likely to develop schizophrenia. d) These studies have been inconclusive. Answer: b Section Reference: Etiology of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioral and molecular, in the etiology of schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Comprehension

47. In regard to studies identifying chromosomal locations of genes involved in schizophrenia,

a) there are a few locations that researchers are certainly involved in the disorder. b) the results of these studies are simply too varied to justify any firm conclusions. c) chromosomes 1, 2, 5, and 6 have been implicated in all of the studies to date. d) we now know that schizophrenia is a purely genetic disorder. Answer: b Section Reference: Etiology of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioral and molecular, in the etiology of schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Analysis

48. The text concludes that research has shown that genetic factors in schizophrenia are a) not yet distinguished from environmental factors. b) primarily linked to positive symptoms. c) only weak contributors at best. d) clearly important but not conclusive as to what extent they contribute to the disorder . Answer: d Section Reference: Etiology of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioral and molecular, in the etiology of schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Comprehension

49. Which of the following findings led to the conclusion that schizophrenia may be caused by dopamine activity? a) Parkinson’s disease is known to be caused by excess levels of dopamine. b) People with Parkinson’s disease are more likely to develop schizophrenia. c) Drugs that relieve schizophrenic symptoms have side effects similar to Parkinson’s disease. d) All of the above are correct findings. Answer: c Section Reference: Etiology of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioral and molecular, in the etiology of schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Comprehension

50. Indirect support for the dopamine theory of schizophrenia arose from a) cases of amphetamine psychosis. b) the finding of higher levels of homovanillic acid in the blood of schizophrenics.

c) the development of catatonia when psychotic episodes end. d) blockage of dopamine reuptake by antipsychotic medications. Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioral and molecular, in the etiology of schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Comprehension

51. Which of the following suggests that dopamine receptors are mainly related to positive (not negative) symptoms of schizophrenia? a) Antipsychotic drugs reduce only positive symptoms. b) Administering dopamine produces little increase in positive symptoms. c) MRIs of schizophrenics with positive symptoms show more receptors. d) Parkinson's Disease involves similar symptoms. Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioral and molecular, in the etiology of schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Comprehension

52. A consistent brain abnormality found among people with schizophrenia is a) frontal lobe enlargement. b) parietal lobe enlargement. c) enlarged ventricles. d) interrupted tracts in the reticular formation. Answer: c Section Reference: Etiology of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioral and molecular, in the etiology of schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

53. In people with schizophrenia, the amount of gray matter in the temporal and frontal cortexes is a) greater than normal. b) normal. c) full of holes and lesions. d) less than normal.

Answer: d Section Reference: Etiology of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioral and molecular, in the etiology of schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

54. Which of the following sociocultural factors is NOT associated with schizophrenia a) Poverty. b) Child rearing practices. c) Urbancity. d) Migration. Answer: b Section Reference: Etiology of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioral and molecular, in the etiology of schizophrenia Bloomcode: Analysis

55. Research suggests the brain abnormalities found in those with schizophrenia may be due to a) long-term use of antipsychotic drugs. b) pregnancy and birth complications. c) chronic confused cognitive patterns. d) childhood malnutrition. Answer: b Section Reference: Etiology of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioral and molecular, in the etiology of schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

56. Which of the following have been proposed as likely contributors to the reductions in hippocampal volume observed in people with schizophrenia? a) stress reactivity and a disrupted amygdala b) anxiety and brain damage c) anxiety and limbic over-arousal d) stress reactivity and a disrupted HPA axis Answer: d

Section Reference: Etiology of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioral and molecular, in the etiology of schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Comprehension

57. Studies of socioeconomic class (SES) and schizophrenia find that the rate of schizophrenia a) is about equal in low-SES and high-SES individuals. b) is higher in low-SES individuals. c) is higher in high-SES individuals. d) cannot be determined. Answer: b Section Reference: Etiology of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioral and molecular, in the etiology of schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

58. Mr. Cook grew up in severely impoverished circumstances. His mother was unmarried and homeless, and Mr. Cook and his six siblings lived on the streets or in shelters for most of their childhood. They had little formal education or opportunity to make progress in the world. After 17 years of this life, Mr. Cook had his first psychotic episode while digging through a trashcan looking for food for his mother; he heard voices telling him to take off his clothes and eat them. Shortly thereafter, Mr. Cook was picked up by police, taken to a psychiatric hospital, and diagnosed as schizophrenic. Mr. Cook’s story fits the __________ theory of social class and schizophrenia.

a) schizophrenogenic b) high-risk c) sociogenic d) social-selection Answer: c Section Reference: Etiology of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioral and molecular, in the etiology of schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Application

59. What does the EE stand for when dealing with critical comments, hostility and emotional over involvement a) earned expression.

b) expressed emotion. c) emotion expression. d) earned emotion. Answer: b Section Reference: Etiology of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioral and molecular, in the etiology of schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

60. Recent research has found that those with schizophrenia have structural and functional abnormalities in the a) temporal cortex b) cerebellum c) prefrontal cortex d) both a and c Answer: d Section Reference: Etiology of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioral and molecular, in the etiology of schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

61. Michael suffers from schizophrenia and was recently released from the hospital. Which of his behaviors are most likely to elicit critical comments from his family when he returns home? a) Believing that NASA has planted a tracking device in his head. b) Sitting on the couch for most of the day and refusing to go for walks with his mother, an activity he greatly enjoyed before his hospitalization. c) Hearing a voice telling him to kill himself. d) Wearing a winter coat, galoshes, and a ski mask while inside the house. Answer: b Section Reference: Etiology of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioral and molecular, in the etiology of schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Application

62. Data on expressed emotion (EE) indicates that those with schizophrenia are more likely to relapse (that is, return to the hospital) if their families

a) are cool, calm, unemotional and aloof. b) are uninvolved. c) are critical and over-involved with them. d) provide excessive emotional support and encouragement. Answer: c Section Reference: Etiology of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioral and molecular, in the etiology of schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

63. Research investigating the role of the family in schizophrenia best supports the a) schizophrenogenic mother theory. b) triangulation theory. c) expressed emotion theory. d) dopamine theory. Answer: c Section Reference: Etiology of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioral and molecular, in the etiology of schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Comprehension

64. Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between EE (expressed emotion) and unusual thoughts in a person with schizophrenia? a) Critical comments made by family members lead a person with schizophrenia to have more unusual thoughts b) Unusual thoughts by the patient lead the family of a person with schizophrenia to be more critical c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b Answer: c Section Reference: Etiology of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioral and molecular, in the etiology of schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Comprehension

65. In schizophrenia research, prodrome refers to a) neurobehavioral functioning in the disorder.

b) positive symptomatology in the disorder. c) intellectual functioning in the disorder. d) the period before a person meets diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia but nonetheless shows some symptoms. Answer: d Section Reference: Etiology of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioral and molecular, in the etiology of schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

66. A problem with any kind of treatment for schizophrenia is that a) some people with schizophrenia lack insight into their impaired condition and refuse any treatment at all b) the disorder is biologically based, so only medications can help. c) all therapies are upsetting to patients. d) they rarely help. Answer: a Section Reference: Treatment of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the medication treatments and psychological treatments for schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Comprehension

67. The text points out that the appropriateness of a given treatment for schizophrenia depends on a) how many medications the patient can tolerate. b) the ratio of positive to negative symptoms the patient experiences. c) the stage of illness that the patient is in. d) how biologically based the patient’s disorder is. Answer: c Section Reference: Treatment of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the medication treatments and psychological treatments for schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

68. The traditional drugs for treating schizophrenia a) enable schizophrenics to adjust to hospital life. b) commonly produce depressive side-effects.

c) generally reduce only positive symptoms of schizophrenia. d) are effective with less than half of schizophrenics. Answer: c Section Reference: Treatment of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the medication treatments and psychological treatments for schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

69. Commonly reported side-effects of the antipsychotic drugs used to treat schizophrenia include a) sedation, dizziness, and sexual dysfunction. b) depression, anxiety, and confusion. c) hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized speech. d) None of the above; antipsychotics were created to eliminate side effects present in previous medications. Answer: a Section Reference: Treatment of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the medication treatments and psychological treatments for schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

70. A possible side-effect of antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia is akathisia, a) the inability to remain still. b) constant aching of muscles. c) severe confusion. d) severe vertigo. Answer: a Section Reference: Treatment of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the medication treatments and psychological treatments for schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

71. Sam is being treated with medication for schizophrenia. He involuntarily smacks his lips and seems unable to control his motor movements. Sam most probably is suffering from a) extrapyramidal side effects. b) tardive dyskinesia. c) dystonia.

d) neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Answer: b Section Reference: Treatment of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Distinguish the medication treatments and psychological treatments for schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Application

72. Research has shown that people being treated with some of the newer antipsychotic medications are less likely to drop out of treatment. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this fact? a) The newer medications are far more effective than the older medications that encourage people to continue to take their medication. b) The newer medications increase insight. That is, people taking the medications realize that they are sick and need the drugs. c) Compared to the older antipsychotics, the newer drugs can be discontinued after achieving the desired therapeutic gain. d) Compared to the older antipsychotics, the newer drugs have less extreme and intrusive side- effects. Answer: d Section Reference: Treatment of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Distinguish the medication treatments and psychological treatments for schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Analysis 73. Clozapine, a newer medication for schizophrenia, has which dangerous potential side effect that requires close monitoring during administration? a) a sudden decrease in liver functioning. b) deterioration of spinal fluid integrity. c) loss of white blood cells. d) decreased insulin production. Answer: c Section Reference: Treatment of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the medication treatments and psychological treatments for schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

74. A recent comprehensive randomized controlled clinical trial of medication for schizophrenia compared four second-generation drugs and one first-generation drug against one another. Which of the following was NOT a finding of this study? a) The second-generation drugs were not more effective than the older, first-generation drugs.

b) The second-generation drugs were much more effective than the older, first-generation drugs. c) The second-generation drugs did not produce fewer unpleasant side-effects. d) Nearly three-quarters of the people stopped taking the medications before the 18 months of the study design had ended. Answer: b Section Reference: Treatment of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the medication treatments and psychological treatments for schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

75. A recent review of 37 longitudinal studies of people after their first episode of schizophrenia found that a) psychosocial treatments predicted no benefit above and beyond medication. b) medication was useless in treating the disorder over long periods of time. c) the combination of medication and psychosocial treatment predicted the best outcome. d) medication alone predicted the best outcome. Answer: c Section Reference: Treatment of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the medication treatments and psychological treatments for schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

76. Connie is receiving psychological therapy for schizophrenia. A major focus has been practicing more effective methods for dealing with others, as well as basic life skills such as ordering in restaurants, filling out applications for employment, and reading train schedules. She is likely receiving a) ego-analysis. b) psychoeducation. c) social skills training. d) token economy. Answer: c Section Reference: Treatment of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Distinguish the medication treatments and psychological treatments for schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Application

77. Family therapy with families of individuals with schizophrenia commonly emphasizes

a) discouraging inappropriate behavior. b) education about schizophrenia. c) minimizing use of drugs. d) genetic counseling. Answer: b Section Reference: Treatment of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the medication treatments and psychological treatments for schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

78. Families with a member with schizophrenia are now encouraged to a) begin preventive efforts, since other family members are likely to develop schizophrenia themselves without early intervention. b) place their mentally ill family member in long-term, out-of-home care. c) join support groups and organizations for the mentally ill, to help reduce stigma and isolation. d) all of the above. Answer: c Section Reference: Treatment of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the medication treatments and psychological treatments for schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

79. Cognitive enhancement therapy seeks to a) enhance basic cognitive functions for people with schizophrenia. b) challenge belief structures. c) incorporate the family members of people with schizophrenia into CBT treatment. d) all of the above. Answer: a Section Reference: Treatment of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the medication treatments and psychological treatments for schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

80. In some studies, cognitive training therapies for people with schizophrenia appear to be a) as effective as psychoanalysis. b) effective for improving cognitive abilities.

c) helpful in reducing EE (expressed emotion). d) effective for improving cognitive abilities, as well as improving symptoms. Answer: d Section Reference: Treatment of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the medication treatments and psychological treatments for schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

81. Which of the following is an ongoing issue in the care of patients with schizophrenia? a) preventing substance abuse b) reconnecting patients with their friends c) obtaining affordable long-term residential treatment d) protecting communities from free-standing mental health hospitals Answer: a Section Reference: Treatment of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the medication treatments and psychological treatments for schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

82. Both Brief Psychotic Disorder and Schizophreniform Disorder share the characteristic that a) one of the symptoms is hallucinations, delusions, or disorganized speech. b) symptoms have a duration greater than six months. c) the symptoms are not the result of extreme stress. d) the individual is not aware of his or her symptoms. Answer: a Section Reference: Schizophrenia and the DSM-5 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Comprehension

83. In the DSM-5, Attenuated Psychosis Syndrome is now a) included in section III (conditions needing further research). b) included in the Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorders chapter. c) moved to the Trauma-Related Disorders chapter. d) combined into the Brief Psychotic Disorders diagnosis.

Answer: a Section Reference: Schizophrenia and the DSM-5 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

Question Type: Essay

84. Discuss the differences between positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the clinical symptoms of schizophrenia, including positive, negative, and disorganized symptoms. Bloomcode: Evaluation

85. Discuss the findings from recent neuroimaging studies conducted with people with schizophrenia. Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Distinguish the medication treatments and psychological treatments for schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Synthesis

86. Contrast the sociogenic hypothesis with the social selection theory of schizophrenia. Answer: Section Reference: Etiology of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Differentiate the genetic factors, both behavioral and molecular, in the etiology of schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Analysis

87. How can families influence schizophrenia? Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective: Distinguish the medication treatments and psychological treatments for schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Synthesis

88. Discuss common side effects from traditional antipsychotic medications. What, if any, side effects do the atypical antipsychotics have? Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Distinguish the medication treatments and psychological treatments for schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Evaluation

89. Discuss the rationale behind the dopamine theory of schizophrenia. What evidence is there to support this theory? What evidence is there to discount it? Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Distinguish the medication treatments and psychological treatments for schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Evaluation

90. What have genetic studies uncovered about the biology and heritability of schizophrenia? Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Distinguish the medication treatments and psychological treatments for schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Synthesis

91. Compare the following cognitive-behavioral therapies for schizophrenia: family therapy and cognitive enhancement therapy. Answer: Section Reference: Treatment of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Distinguish the medication treatments and psychological treatments for schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Analysis

92. What are some of the remaining challenges in the care of individuals with schizophrenia? Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Distinguish the medication treatments and psychological treatments for schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Synthesis

93. Describe what you feel to be the best evaluation and treatment options for schizophrenia? Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Schizophrenia Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Distinguish the medication treatments and psychological treatments for schizophrenia. Bloomcode: Evaluation

Package Title: Chapter 10, Testbank Course Title: Kring, Abnormal Psych 14e Chapter Number: 10

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1. Approximately __________ percent of Americans report using alcohol at least once per month. a) 25 b) 50 c) 75 d) 90 Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

2. The DSM-5 refers to the pathological use of substances as a) substance abuse b) substance dependence c) substance use disorder d) none of the above Answer: c Section Reference: Overview: Substance Use and the DSM-5 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe substance use disorder and its symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

3. The DSM-5 has added __________ to the criteria for pathological substance abuse. a) craving for substance b) desire for high feelings c) risky behavior d) none of the above Answer: a Section Reference: Overview: Substance Use and the DSM-5 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe substance use disorder and its symptoms.

Bloomcode: Knowledge

4. The criteria for substance use disorder in the DSM-5 include all of the following EXCEPT a) failure to meet obligations. b) repeated legal problems having to do with substance use. c) repeated sales of illegal substances d) tolerance Answer: c Section Reference: Overview: Substance Use and the DSM-5 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe substance use disorder and its symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

5. Catherine has been unable to obtain or use crack for several weeks because she has had no money. She went through withdrawal symptoms when she was unable to take her usual dose. She craves the drug all the time and is constantly searching for ways to get some. Her efforts to obtain crack have seriously interfered with her ability to work and take care of her children. Which of the following DSM-5 diagnoses would best fit Catherine’s symptoms? a) substance abuse b) substance use disorder c) substance dependence d) Catherine does not qualify for a diagnosis since she has not used the drug for the past month. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Opioid, Stimulant, and Other Drug Use Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with opioid, stimulant, and other drug use disorders. Bloomcode: Application

6. Wanda drinks frequently and requires more alcohol now than she did six months ago to achieve the same effect. She reports that she can out-drink most people. Wanda is probably a) genetically predisposed to alcoholism. b) developing a physiological dependence on alcohol. c) acquiring behavioral skills in modulating her drinking. d) deluding herself. This is not physically possible. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Application

7. Carlos suddenly stopped taking amphetamines after prolonged abuse of the drug. He became very ill and died. His death is an example of severe a) substance dependence. b) substance abuse. c) withdrawal symptoms. d) synergistic effects. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Opioid, Stimulant, and Other Drug Use Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with opioid, stimulant, and other drug use disorders. Bloomcode: Application

8. Delirium tremens refers to a) a symptom of conversion disorder. b) the symptoms that accompany an overdose of heroin. c) the symptoms that may accompany withdrawal from alcohol. d) the hallucinations common in schizophrenia. Answer: c

Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

9. Delirium tremens may result from a) a sudden drop in alcohol levels in a chronic heavy drinker. b) high doses of alcohol in a person who has not previously drunk heavily. c) high doses of alcohol in a chronic heavy drinker. d) All of the above can cause the symptoms of delirium tremens. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

10. Which neurotransmitter has been implicated in alcohol tolerance? a) serotonin b) dopamine c) norepinephrine d) GABA Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

11. Among college students, binge drinking is more common in a) men. b) women. c) the prevalence of binge drinking is equal in men and women. d) state schools versus private schools. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

12. Alcohol dependence is particularly high among which of the following groups? a) Hispanics and Asian Americans b) African Americans and Whites c) Native Americans and Hispanics d) Asian Americans and African Americans Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

13. Alcohol goes from the stomach into the __________ and is absorbed into the blood, after which it is metabolized by the __________. a) small intestine; kidneys b) small intestine; liver c) gall bladder; liver d) pancreas; kidneys Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

14. Which of the following persons will be most affected by two ounces of alcohol? a) A 195-pound woman who just ate a Big Mac. b) A 150-pound man who has an empty stomach. c) A 125-pound woman who has an empty stomach. d) All the above people will be similarly affected by two ounces of alcohol. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Application

15. The initial effect of alcohol is a) depressive. b) sedating. c) anxiety producing. d) pleasurable feeling. Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

16. Cirrhosis of the liver due to alcohol abuse is characterized by a) liver cells becoming engorged with fat and protein. b) an increased efficiency of alcohol absorption with a corresponding decrease in blood-cell reproduction. c) a decreased efficiency in absorption due to liver atrophy. d) None of the above. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

17. Heavy drinkers a) suffer malnutrition from reduced food intake. b) suffer malnutrition by alcohol blocking proper absorption of nutrients. c) experience vitamin deficiencies. d) All of the above. Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

18. Pregnant women have been encouraged by the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism to a) totally abstain from drinking. b) not alter their drinking habits. c) drink now and again, but only during the third trimester of pregnancy. d) reduce their drinking to no more than several drinks a day. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

19. Which of the following statements is true? a) All fetuses exposed to alcohol will have cognitive problems later in life.

b) The National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism counsels total abstention from alcohol consumption during pregnancy as the safest course. c) Research indicates that moderate drinking has no effect on the fetus. d) The National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism has concluded that mild drinking is harmless for pregnant women. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

20. A drink is considered a) 3 oz. of wine. b) 4 oz. of wine. c) 5 oz. of wine. d) 6 oz. of wine. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

21. Nicotine is the addicting agent in a) marijuana. b) hashish. c) tobacco. d) cocaine. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

22. Nicotine ultimately stimulates __________, which are implicated in the reinforcing effects of smoking. a) muscarinic receptors

b) dopamine receptors c) GABA receptors d) serotonin receptors Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

23. Which of the following are medical problems associated with long-term cigarette smoking? a) emphysema b) cancer of the esophagus c) cancer of the larynx d) all of the above Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

24. Research indicates that smoking is least likely to occur in which setting a) workplace. b) outside bars. c) restaurants. d) at the persons home. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

25. Exposure of a nonsmoker to secondhand smoke a) is less harmful than smoking because of the lower levels of nicotine and tar in secondhand smoke. b) has been shown to have far fewer negative effects than the media suggest. c) can lead to lung damage. d) has negative effects on the fetuses of pregnant nonsmokers but not on the women themselves.

Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

26. Hashish is a) derived from resin after smoking marijuana. b) derived from resin from cannabis plants. c) based upon a mixture of marijuana and heroin. d) milder than marijuana. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

27. Marijuana comes from the __________ plant. a) cannabis sativa b) cannabis marija c) marija cannabis d) cannabis hempa Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

28. Epidemiology data have shown that marijuana use is nearly twice as common a) in women than men. b) among Asian Americans than among Caucasians. c) now than it was in 1997. d) in men than women. Answer: d

Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

29. How much hard liquor is considered a drink a) 1 oz. b) 1.5 oz. c) 2 oz. d) 5 oz. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

30. How much beer is considered a drink a) 8 oz. b) 12 oz. c) 16 oz. d) 20 oz. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

31. Which of the following is mentioned in the text as a complicating factor in interpreting findings from studies of the effects of marijuana? a) Marijuana contains many compounds. b) Many users are polydrug abusers. c) Effects vary widely with potency and dose. d) Its problems were recognized only recently. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

32. Long-term marijuana use may result in __________, even long after one stops using. a) visual processing difficulties b) short-term memory impairment c) decreased attention span d) increased agitation Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

33. Recent research regarding marijuana suggests a) that it is not at all addictive. b) it may be addictive; tolerance and withdrawal symptoms are found in some cases. c) there are clearly withdrawal symptoms. d) it is not as dangerous as previously believed. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

34. Smoking marijuana has been shown to a) seriously impair lung structure and function. b) cause fatal heart attacks in healthy young men. c) lead to stroke. d) have no significant physically deleterious effects. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

35. The benefit of marijuana when used for chronic illnesses is primarily to a) reduce nausea for patients undergoing chemotherapy. b) increase immune function. c) improve attention and maintain medication adherence. d) prevent additional infection. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

36. Heroin is broadly classified as a a) hallucinogen. b) pain killer. c) stimulant. d) barbiturate. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Opioid, Stimulant, and Other Drug Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with opioid, stimulant, and other drug use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

37. Which of the following best describes the change in the prevalence of heroin use in recent years? a) The prevalence of heroin use has stayed the same. b) The prevalence of heroin use has increased significantly in the past 5 years among men and women, usually after using prescription pain medicines. c) The prevalence of heroin use has decreased in women. d) The prevalence of heroin use has decreased dramatically across most groups. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Opioid, Stimulant, and Other Drug Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with opioid, stimulant, and other drug use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

38. Mark is experiencing the following symptoms after taking a drug: he feels an initial rush of ecstasy, has great self-confidence and has lost all his worries and fears. At the same time, he is feeling drowsy and relaxed. Which of the following drugs is Mark most likely to have taken? a) heroin b) alcohol c) marijuana d) cocaine Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Opioid, Stimulant, and Other Drug Use Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with opioid, stimulant, and other drug use disorders. Bloomcode: Application

39. After the effects of heroin wear off, the user typically a) feels drowsy. b) becomes extremely hungry. c) experiences a letdown, often almost a stupor. d) a heightened sense of awareness. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Opioid, Stimulant, and Other Drug Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with opioid, stimulant, and other drug use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

40. Heroin addiction and crime are thought to be highly correlated because a) the drug causes loss of a moral sense, and sociopathy develops. b) criminals are more likely to become drug addicts than non-criminals because of their association with people in the “black-market” drug trade. c) addicts commit crimes in order to raise money to buy drugs. d) addicts do not actually commit more crimes but are arrested more often because their behavior while on the drug is disruptive. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Opioid, Stimulant, and Other Drug Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with opioid, stimulant, and other drug use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

41. Cocaine is classified as a(n) a) opiate. b) stimulant. c) barbiturate. d) hallucinogen. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Opioid, Stimulant, and Other Drug Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with opioid, stimulant, and other drug use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

42. Tim works at a law firm where he is expected to bring in a large number of cases each week. He has been working at this job for five years, typically putting in 70 hours a week. He has begun to experience irritability and has begun to drink alcohol in the evening in order to get to sleep. Based on this information, if he were taking any other drug, it would most likely be a) sedatives. b) amphetamines. c) hallucinogens. d) pain killers. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Opioid, Stimulant, and Other Drug Use Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with opioid, stimulant, and other drug use disorders. Bloomcode: Application

43. Jolynn took a drug that caused the following symptoms: she felt wide-awake and friendly, and had no interest in lunch despite not having eaten since the night before. After taking a second dose of the drug, she became nervous and confused and developed a severe headache. Which of the following drugs did Jolynn probably take? a) alcohol b) marijuana c) barbiturates d) amphetamines Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Opioid, Stimulant, and Other Drug Use Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with opioid, stimulant, and other drug use disorders.

Bloomcode: Application

44. Which of the following are withdrawal symptoms from caffeine? a) headaches b) anxiety c) fatigue d) all of the above Answer: d Section Reference: Our Tastiest Addiction − Focus on Discovery 10.3 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with opioid, stimulant, and other drug use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

45. Chronic use of methamphetamine a) was condoned by Freud. b) is rarely correlated with use of other drugs. c) actually enhances cognitive abilities. d) may result in smaller hippocampal volume. Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Opioid, Stimulant, and Other Drug Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with opioid, stimulant, and other drug use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

46. One of the difficulties in conducting studies of the specific effects of methamphetamine is that a) its use is very rare. b) many users have also used other substances. c) individuals who use it are particularly likely to also use crack. d) most users live in rural areas. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Opioid, Stimulant, and Other Drug Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with opioid, stimulant, and other drug use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

47. In the 1980s a new form of cocaine in rock-crystal form was introduced and called a) amphetamine. b) methamphetamine. c) crack. d) freebase. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Opioid, Stimulant, and Other Drug Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with opioid, stimulant, and other drug use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

48. As of 2015 how many people over the age of 12 reported having used an illicit drug in the past month a) 20 million b) 23 million c) 25 million d) 27 million Answer: d Section Reference: Overview: Substance Use and the DSM-5 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe substance use disorder and its symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

49. LSD is a(n) a) amphetamine. b) methamphetamine. c) stimulant. d) hallucinogen. Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Opioid, Stimulant, and Other Drug Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with opioid, stimulant, and other drug use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

50. The drug Ecstasy is classified as a a) stimulant. b) barbiturate.

c) hallucinogen. d) marijuana. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Opioid, Stimulant, and Other Drug Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with opioid, stimulant, and other drug use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

51. After taking a certain drug, Hal began feeling that time was passing very slowly, and he began having profound thoughts about the nature of time and the universe. While this first experience was at first deeply moving, leading to feelings of elation, the next time Hal tried this drug, he felt anxious and depressed. What drug did Hal probably take? a) marijuana b) ecstasy c) heroin d) cocaine Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Opioid, Stimulant, and Other Drug Use Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with opioid, stimulant, and other drug use disorders. Bloomcode: Application

52. PCP is also known as a) ecstasy. b) meth. c) weed. d) angel dust. Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Opioid, Stimulant, and Other Drug Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with opioid, stimulant, and other drug use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

53. A colorless gas that produces lightheadedness and a state of euphoria is known as: a) nitrous oxide. b) laughing gas.

c) oxygen nitride. d) both a and b. Answer: d Section Reference: Nitrous Oxide − Not a Laughing Matter − Focus on Discovery 10.4 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with opioid, stimulant, and other drug use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

54. Research on the genetic contribution of drug abuse has shown that a) genetic risk factors are stronger for “hard” drugs, such as stimulants and hallucinogens. b) genetic risk factors appear to be the same, no matter what the drug. c) genetic risk is strongest for alcohol. d) only marijuana use has been shown to be unrelated to genetic risk. Answer: b Section Reference: Etiology of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Understand the major causal factors for substance use disorders, including genetic factors, neurobiological factors, emotion regulation and expectancy effects, and sociocultural factors. Bloomcode: Comprehension

55. Nearly all drugs, including alcohol, stimulate a) sensation-seeking pathways. b) GABA pathways. c) serotonin systems in the brain. d) dopamine systems in the brain. Answer: d Section Reference: Etiology of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Understand the major causal factors for substance use disorders, including genetic factors, neurobiological factors, emotion regulation and expectancy effects, and sociocultural factors. Bloomcode: Knowledge

56. The incentive-sensitization theory of substance dependence considers a) cravings for the substance and the pleasure that comes with taking the substance. b) the extremes a person will go to obtain the substance. c) the age of a person when they first use the substance. d) how much a person likes the substance.

Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Understand the major causal factors for substance use disorders, including genetic factors, neurobiological factors, emotion regulation and expectancy effects, and sociocultural factors. Bloomcode: Knowledge

57. What has been shown to be related to the changes in marijuana consumption among high school students? a) Social factors that foster marijuana use, such as joblessness or economic factors. b) Media images supporting cigarette smoking. c) Lowered purity of marijuana available in the market. d) Beliefs that the risks associated with marijuana smoking are low. Answer: d Section Reference: Etiology of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Understand the major causal factors for substance use disorders, including genetic factors, neurobiological factors, emotion regulation and expectancy effects, and sociocultural factors. Bloomcode: Knowledge

58. An important sociocultural variable that has been cited in the increased use of cigarettes has been a) the role of the family in providing implicit messages regarding smoking. b) rebound effects from the end of 'just say no' campaigns. c) the media and advertising. d) the restriction of places where one may smoke. Answer: c Section Reference: Etiology of Substance use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Understand the major causal factors for substance use disorders, including genetic factors, neurobiological factors, emotion regulation and expectancy effects, and sociocultural factors. Bloomcode: Knowledge

59. A major goal of inpatient hospital-based treatment for alcohol abuse is a) to focus upon sobriety as a major criteria for discharge. b) helping the individual admit there is a problem. c) increasing nutrition and creating a behavior that inhibits alcohol consumption. d) detoxification. Answer: d

Section Reference: Treatment of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications, and drug substitution treatments. Bloomcode: Knowledge

60. Alcoholics Anonymous programs are run by a) psychiatrists or psychologists. b) the participants themselves. c) mental health professionals who are themselves recovering alcoholics. d) trained paraprofessionals. Answer: b Section Reference: Treatment of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications, and drug substitution treatments. Bloomcode: Knowledge

61. The treatment goal of Alcoholics Anonymous is a) to help people cope with their spouse’s or parent’s drinking. b) to change public perceptions of alcohol and alcoholism. c) to learn to drink socially without becoming drunk. d) to achieve abstinence from drinking. Answer: d Section Reference: Treatment of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications, and drug substitution treatments. Bloomcode: Knowledge

62. Belief in the spiritual aspects of Alcoholics Anonymous has been found to a) be important for success in remaining abstinent. b) lead to a fatalism that actually interferes with combating alcohol dependence. c) play an insignificant role in the success of the program. d) no research has been done on this aspect of the program. Answer: a Section Reference: Treatment of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications, and drug substitution treatments. Bloomcode: Knowledge

63. The first step of AA is a) We admitted we were powerless over alcohol − that our lives had become unmanageable. b) We came to believe that a power greater than ourselves could restore us to sanity. c) We made a searching and fearless moral inventory of ourselves. d) We admitted our addiction to ourselves and others in order to get help. Answer: a Section Reference: Treatment of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications, and drug substitution treatments. Bloomcode: Knowledge

64. Contingency management is a treatment for alcohol dependency that involves a) teaching people and those close to them to reinforce behaviors inconsistent with drinking. b) teaching families of alcoholics to express their love only when the alcoholic is not drinking. c) providing tokens when the alcoholic abstains from drinking for a certain amount of time. d) going through a 12-step alcohol abstinence program. Answer: a Section Reference: Treatment of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications, and drug substitution treatments. Bloomcode: Knowledge

65. Jared is receiving guided self-change therapy for his alcohol abuse. Accordingly, he is also learning strategies for controlling his behaviors associated with drinking, as well as actual drinking. In such a program, which of the following would NOT be a factor? a) The encouragement of minor behavioral changes (e.g., not driving past bars) b) Calculating the amount of money spent on alcohol per year c) Achieving recognition that he has become completely powerless over alcohol d) Utilizing an empathic, supportive approach Answer: c Section Reference: Treatment of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications, and drug substitution treatments. Bloomcode: Application

66. Antabuse is a medication for those with alcoholism which a) reduces anxiety during the detoxification period. b) helps replace the nutrients lost through malnutrition. c) mimics the physiological effects of alcohol without creating the same psychological effects. d) causes violent vomiting when alcohol is ingested. Answer: d Section Reference: Treatment of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications, and drug substitution treatments. Bloomcode: Knowledge

67. Which of the following is a risk of administering drugs to alcoholics as a means of treating their symptoms? a) The person is simply seeking a chemical cure when the cause may be psychological b) Making the person believe that taking a substance is necessary to solve the problem c) Many of the recommended medications also have unpleasant side effects that are compounded by the withdrawal from alcohol d) All of the above Answer: d Section Reference: Treatment of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications, and drug substitution treatments. Bloomcode: Comprehension

68. One treatment that works for many smokers who want to quit is: a) quitting cold turkey. b) the help of hypnosis. c) scheduled smoking. d) methadone treatment. Answer: c Section Reference: Treatment of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications, and drug substitution treatments. Bloomcode: Knowledge

69. The goal of scheduled smoking is a) gradual reduction in nicotine intake. b) controlled smoking, in which smoking continues but much more moderately. c) to help smokers quit abruptly by scheduling a ‘stop smoking’ day in advance. d) identification of triggers associated with smoking. Answer: a Section Reference: Treatment of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications, and drug substitution treatments. Bloomcode: Analysis

70. A risk associated with nicotine gum is a) that the flavor prevents many people from completing a program of use designed to quit smoking. b) that it can increase blood pressure, leading to health risks for those with cardiovascular diseases. c) negative interactions with other prescription drugs. d) its resemblance to other candies, making it appealing to children. Answer: b Section Reference: Treatment of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications, and drug substitution treatments. Bloomcode: Analysis

71. How effective are nicotine gum and patches in helping smokers quit? a) highly effective as a primary treatment b) largely ineffective even as a supplement to other programs c) moderately effective, as side-effects cause many to discontinue their use d) moderately effective when combined with psychological treatment Answer: d Section Reference: Treatment of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications, and drug substitution treatments. Bloomcode: Analysis

72. Which of the following have been used in treatment for smoking cessation? a) antidepressants b) anxiolytics c) stimulants d) acetaminophen Answer: a Section Reference: Treatment of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications, and drug substitution treatments. Bloomcode: Knowledge

73. A first step for treating people dependent on drugs is a) helping them identify why they began to use drugs. b) detoxification. c) helping them understand why the drug is not good for them. d) committing to abstinence. Answer: b Section Reference: Treatment of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications, and drug substitution treatments. Bloomcode: Knowledge

74. Studies of contingency management for cocaine abuse find that it is a) largely ineffective. b) less effective than pharmacological interventions. c) associated with a greater likelihood of abstinence and a better quality of life for people receiving the treatment. d) none of the above – this treatment has not been used for cocaine abuse. Answer: c Section Reference: Treatment of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications, and drug substitution treatments. Bloomcode: Knowledge

75. A difficulty in studying residential treatment programs for drug abuse is that a) most residences are secretive and unwilling to allow research activity. b) addicts at such settings are not severely addicted. c) patients are at these settings voluntarily, and therefore these addicts represent a minority of the actual addict population. d) the number of patients entering such settings changes slowly, making it difficult to obtain an adequate number of participants. Answer: c Section Reference: Treatment of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications, and drug substitution treatments. Bloomcode: Evaluation

76. Treatment for heroin addiction often involves a) ibuprofen. b) antidepressants. c) methadone. d) immediate abstinence. Answer: c Section Reference: Treatment of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications, and drug substitution treatments. Bloomcode: Analysis

77. Why do some believe that the new prescription drug Suboxone is a superior treatment for heroin dependence? a) It is only mildly addictive b) The effects last longer than methadone c) Individuals do not have to visit a clinic to receive this medication d) All of the above Answer: d Section Reference: Treatment of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications, and drug substitution treatments. Bloomcode: Knowledge

78. Changing beliefs about the prevalence of smoking in young people a) appears to be an effective strategy in delaying the onset of smoking. b) has shown little promise in delaying the onset of smoking. c) actually increases smoking in young people. d) is less effective than resistance training, such as DARE. Answer: a Section Reference: Prevention of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the major approaches to preventing substance use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

79. A new disorder in the Substance Use and Addictive Disorders DSM-5 chapter is a) Gambling disorder b) Substance Abuse with Psychological Dependence c) Sex Addiction d) Internet Gaming Disorder Answer: a Section Reference: Overview: Substance Use and the DSM-5 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe substance use disorder and its symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

80. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning electronic cigarettes? a) They are less harmful than smoking because of the lower levels of nicotine and tar in secondhand smoke. b) They are battery operated. c) They are made of plastic or metal and are filled with liquid nicotine that is mixed with other chemicals and often with flavors. d). All these statements are true. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions: Alcohol, Tobacco, and Marijuana Use Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the epidemiology and symptoms associated with alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

81. Which disorder in the DSM-5 includes marijuana? a) Cannabis use disorder

b) Alcohol use disorder c) Stimulant use disorder d) Hallucinogen use disorder Answer: a Section Reference: Overview: Substance Use and the DSM-5 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe substance use disorder and its symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge 82. Which of the following strategies has been used to “prevent” drug use by children and adolescents? a) Peer-pressure resistance training. b) Correction of beliefs and expectations. c) Inoculation against mass media messages.. d) All of these are preventive strategies. Answer: d Section Reference: Prevention of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the major approaches to preventing substance use disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

Question Type: True/False

83. Gambling disorder is considered to be an impulse control disorder. Answer: False Section Reference: Overview: Substance Use and the DSM-5 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe substance use disorder and its symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

Question Type: Short Answer

84. Gambling disorder has moved from _______ in the DSM-IV-TR to ________ in the DSM-5. Answer: impulse control disorders chapter; substance use and addictive disorders chapter Section Reference: Overview Substance Use and the DSM-5 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe substance use disorder and its symptoms. Bloomcode: Knowledge

85. What is the rationale for combining the Substance Abuse and Substance Dependence categories from the DSM-IV-TR into a single Substance Use Disorder category in the DSM-5? Answer: Research showed that reliability for the substance abuse category was poor. In addition, most people who met criteria for abuse did not go on to develop dependence, and lastly, analysis of the criteria showed they represented a single category. Section Reference: Etiology of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Understand the major causal factors for substance use disorders, including genetic factors, neurobiological factors, emotion regulation and expectancy effects, and sociocultural factors. Bloomcode: Evaluation

Question Type: Essay

86. Describe how alcohol may alleviate tension. Include a discussion of when alcohol serves to reduce tension and when it fails to do so. Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions, Prevalence, and Effects of Substance use Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Understand the major causal factors for substance use disorders, including genetic factors, neurobiological factors, emotion regulation and expectancy effects, and sociocultural factors. Bloomcode: Synthesis

87. Contrast biological and psychological therapies for alcohol use. Answer: Section Reference: Treatment of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: escribe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications, and drug substitution treatments. Bloomcode: Synthesis

88. What sociocultural variables continue to impact drug use today? How has this changed from previous sociocultural variables that have influenced use in the past? Answer: Section Reference: Etiology of Substance use Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Understand the major causal factors for substance use disorders, including genetic factors, neurobiological factors, emotion regulation and expectancy effects, and sociocultural factors. Bloomcode: Synthesis

89. Explain why substance abuse is so resistant to treatment and is associated with such high relapse rates Answer: Section Reference: Treatment of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications, and drug substitution treatments. Bloomcode: Evaluation

90. Describe the controversy surrounding controlled drinking. Answer: Section Reference: Treatment of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications, and drug substitution treatments. Bloomcode: Evaluation

91. Contrast biological interventions for sedative abuse and those for amphetamine abuse. Answer: Section Reference: Treatment of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications, and drug substitution treatments. Bloomcode: Synthesis

92. What controversies have surrounded the use of methadone treatment for heroin addiction? What are some alternative treatments? Answer: Section Reference: Treatment of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications, and drug substitution treatments. Bloomcode: Analysis

93. Describe efforts used to prevent alcohol and smoking use among adolescents. What programs have and have not worked? Answer:

Section Reference: Prevention of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the major approaches to preventing substance use disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

94. Describe the purpose, premise, and effectiveness of Alcoholics Anonymous (AA). Answer: Section Reference: Treatment of Substance Use Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the approaches to treating substance use disorders, including psychological treatments, medications, and drug substitution treatments. Bloomcode: Evaluation

Package Title: Ch 11, Test Bank Course Title: Kring, Abnormal Psych 14e Chapter Number: 11

Question Type: Multiple Choice 1. In the opening case study, Lynne, the 24-year-old who weighted only 78 pounds, was admitted to the psychiatric ward of general hospital for the treatment of: a) anorexia nervosa. b) bulimia nervosa. c) depression. d) anxiety. Answer: a Section Reference: Introduction Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Application

2. Many cultures, including the United States, are preoccupied with food. Evidence of this fact includes all of the following EXCEPT: a) number of restaurants available b) food magazines c) cooking shows on television d) number of diet books on the market Answer: d Section Reference: Introduction Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

3. Starting with the DSM-IV, eating disorders were listed as a) disorders beginning in childhood or adolescence b) somatization disorders c) psychological factors affecting medical condition d) a separate diagnostic category Answer: d Section Reference: Introduction

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

4. The DSM-5 categorizes eating disorders in the ___________ chapter: a) Feeding and Eating Disorders b) Substance Use Disorders c) Anxiety Disorders d) Obsessive Compulsive and Trauma Related Disorders Answer: a Section Reference: Introduction Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

5. Feeding and Eating Disorders also include which of the following disorders? a) Pica b) Rumination Disorders c) Anxiety Disorders d) Both a and b Answer: d Section Reference: Introduction Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

6. Eating disorders carry a stigma. In a recent research study, participants read vignettes about a woman with an eating disorder or a woman with depression. Compared to the woman with depression, the woman with an eating disorder was viewed as: a) more responsible for her condition b) less fragile c) less likely to be trying to get attention with her disorder d) none of the above Answer: a Section Reference: Introduction Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

7. In the DSM-IV-TR, ____________ was viewed as a condition requiring further study, but in the DSM-5 it has its own diagnostic category. a) binge eating disorder b) obsessive eating disorder c) pica d) rumination disorder Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

8. Most people with anorexia nervosa a) lose their appetite b) lose their interest in food c) lose both their appetite and interest in food d) do not lose their appetite or interest in food Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

9. __________ refers to a loss of appetite, while __________ indicates that it is due to emotional reasons. a) bulimia, anorexia b) anorexia, nervosa c) nervosa, anorexia d) anorexia, bulimia Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

10. People with anorexia nervosa a) stop eating because of an abnormal increase in blood sugar, which alters their perceptions of hunger. b) fear gaining weight so much that they stop eating. c) have lost their appetite, leading them to stop eating. d) stop eating but do not lose weight. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

11. Anorexia nervosa implies that those with the disorder become uninterested in food, while the reality is that: a) they are preoccupied with food b) they are repulsed by food c) they like to watch other people eat food d) they truly are not interested in food Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

12. The three features that are required for the diagnosis of anorexia nervosa include all of the following EXCEPT: a) restriction of behaviors that lead to very low body weight b) intense fear of gaining weight and being fat c) distorted body image d) body weight is normal Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

13. Some of the dangerous changes to the body that can occur as a result of bulimia include all of the following EXCEPT a) vision problems. b) menstrual problems. c) tearing in the stomach and throat. d) swelling of the salivary glands. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

14. The distorted body image that accompanies anorexia nervosa is frequently assessed using the: a) Eating Disorders Inventory b) Ecological Momentary Assessment c) Feeding Distortion Inventory d) none of the above Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

15. What is the number of binges per week in binge eating disorder is considered to be severe a) 1-3 per week. b) 4-7 per week. c) 8-13 per week. d) 14 or more per week. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders.

Bloomcode: Knowledge

16. Cathy stopped eating meals over two months ago. Now she eats very little, and only when under some family pressure. She has lost over 22 pounds, and is now about 15% below normal body weight for her height. She probably has a) anorexia, restricting type b) anorexia, binge-eating-purging type c) bulimia nervosa d) binge eating disorder Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Application

17. Betsy is excessively concerned that she is becoming fat and restricts her eating to avoid such a consequence. She weighs approximately 20% less than normal body weight given her height. At times, she will sit down with her family and eat a full meal, but immediately afterwards takes several laxatives. Betsy most likely has a) anorexia, restricting type b) anorexia, binge-eating-purging type c) bulimia nervosa d) binge eating disorder Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Application

18. Review of the anorexia nervosa subtype literature for the preparation of the DSM-5 concluded that they had: a) high reliability b) high predictive validity c) low predictive validity d) low reliability Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 19. Anorexia nervosa typically begins in: a) early childhood b) adolescence c) early adulthood d) late adulthood Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 20. Anorexia nervosa occurs: a) 10 times more frequently in women than it does in men b) 20 times more frequently in women than it does in men c) 30 times more frequently in women than it does in men d) equally in men and women Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

21. People with anorexia nervosa are also frequently diagnosed with a) depression b) anxiety c) substance abuse d) all of the above Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

22. A biological consequence of anorexia nervosa is a) dry skin b) kidney and gastrointestinal problems c) lanugo d) all of the above Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

23. Regina visits her family physician. Her weight is 90 pounds, although she believes she is overweight. She ‘snacks’ on laxatives, and restricts her eating to one small meal a day, after which she exercises for two hours. Her physical exam is likely to reveal that she has a) lowered heart rate and blood pressure b) calcium deposits c) improved muscle tone d) fibroid tumors Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Application

24. What is the most likely prognosis for a woman with anorexia nervosa? a) She will regain normal weight as she enters puberty. b) She will never recover. c) She will recover within a year with no relapses. d) She will eventually recover, but will likely relapse and continue to struggle with the disorder for years. Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

25. Bulimia comes from a Greek word meaning: a) excessiveness b) expulsion c) ox-hunger d) compensatory Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

26. The DSM-5 categorizes bulimia nervosa as a) an organic mental disorder b) a subtype of binge eating disorder c) a subtype of anorexia nervosa d) an eating disorder separate from anorexia nervosa Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

27. During binge episodes, many bulimics a) feel a great sense of control b) experience a feeling of being out of control c) feel very satisfied d) none of the above Answer: b Section Reference: Bulimia Nervosa Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

28. In bulimia nervosa, binge eating typically occurs

a) while alone b) after stress c) after a negative social interaction d) all of the above Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

29. The feature common to both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa is a) refusal to maintain normal body weight b) fear of gaining weight c) purging to prevent weight gain d) none of the above Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

30. Prior to the onset of bulimia, sufferers often a) have anorexia nervosa b) are overweight and dieting c) have attempted suicide d) have higher than normal levels of serotonin Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

31. As compared to anorexia nervosa, the diagnosis of bulimia nervosa is associated with a) higher mortality rates b) lower mortality rates c) equal mortality rates

d) none of the above; data on mortality caused by eating disorders does not exist Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

32. Binge eating disorder is characterized by bingeing a) between periods of starvation b) and purging afterwards c) with weight under 85% of normal d) without compensatory behaviors Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

33. Beatrice has lost control of her eating. She gorges on huge amounts of high-fat fast foods, eating as much as 2000 calories in 30 minutes. She is gaining weight rapidly, and weighs over 170 pounds. Which disorder best fits Beatrice’s symptoms? a) bulimia nervosa b) anorexia nervosa c) obesity d) binge eating disorder Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Application

34. Individuals with binge eating disorder are a) relatively confident with their body image b) more likely to be African American than Caucasian c) more likely to be men than women d) often obese

Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

35. Which of the following is defined, in part, by the absence of purging? a) anorexia nervosa b) bulimia nervosa c) binge eating disorder d) purging occurs in all of these conditions Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

36. Which of the following is most prevalent? a) binge eating disorder b) anorexia nervosa, binge-eating/purging type c) anorexia nervosa, restricting type d) bulimia nervosa Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

37. When those with bulimia nervosa are bingeing they: a) are fully aware of what they are doing and feel shame afterwards b) are not always fully aware of what they are doing and feel shame afterwards c) do not care what they are doing and whether their actions are positive or negative d) none of the above Answer: b

Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

38. The DSM-5 diagnosis of Bulimia Nervosa requires that the episodes of bingeing occur: a) at least once a month for 3 months b) at least once a week for 3 months c) at least once a month for 6 months d) at least once a week for 6 months Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

39. Bulimia nervosa typically begins in: a) childhood b) early or middle adolescence c) late adolescence or early adulthood d) late adulthood Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

40. The physical consequences of bulimia nervosa include all of the following EXCEPT: a) menstrual problems b) loss of dental enamel c) irregular heartbeat d) colon cancer Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

41. The normal BMI for a woman is: a) 15-20 b) 20-25 c) 25-30 d) none of the above Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

42. Risk factors associated with developing binge eating disorder include: a) childhood obesity b) critical comment regarding being overweight c) childhood physical or sexual abuse d) all of the above Answer: d Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

43. The physical consequence associated with binge eating disorder includes all of the following EXCEPT: a) breathing problems b) cardiovascular problems c) kidney failure d) joint/muscle problems Answer: c Section Reference: Binge Eating Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders.

Bloomcode: Knowledge

44. In 2012, over __________ of men and women in the US were obese. a) 10% b) a quarter c) a third d) two thirds Answer: c Section Reference: Obesity: A Twenty-First Century Epidemic - Focus on Discovery 11.1 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

45. Eating disorders are usually caused by a) genetic disposition b) neurochemical imbalance c) sociocultural pressures d) a combination of factors Answer: d Section Reference: Obesity: A Twenty-First Century Epidemic - Focus on Discovery 11.1 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

46. In 2010, a study of over 500,000 women found that __________ was more important in predicting high birth weights than genetic factors a) mothers’ weight gain during pregnancy b) mothers’ level of exercise during pregnancy c) fathers’ weight d) none of the above Answer: a Section Reference: Obesity: A Twenty-First Century Epidemic? − Focus on Discovery 11.1 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

47. If your sister has anorexia nervosa and you are female, a) you are over ten times more likely to have anorexia nervosa b) you are over twenty times more likely to have anorexia nervosa c) you are over two times more likely to have anorexia nervosa. d) there is no greater risk to you for developing anorexia nervosa Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Application

48. Twin studies of eating disorders have shown a) environmental factors to be of greater influence than genetic factors. b) higher concordance amongst monozygotic (MZ) twins compared to dizygotic (DZ) twins. c) that genes do not affect personality characteristics associated with eating disorders. d) all of the above. Answer: b Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

49. Genetic influences on eating disorders are a) a substantial factor b) a minor factor c) not important for anorexia nervosa or bulimia nervosa d) not important for obesity Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

50. Research regarding the role of the hypothalamus in anorexia nervosa indicates that

a) the hypothalamus is damaged in most individuals with anorexia. b) hypothalamus dysfunction is the most likely explanation for the fact that people with anorexia do not experience hunger. c) the hypothalamus appears to be overactive in people with anorexia, leading to binge eating. d) dysfunction in the hypothalamus does not seem to be an important factor in anorexia. Answer: d Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

51. Although the hypothalamus has been considered a part of the biological etiology of anorexia, a limitation of this view is that it does not take into account a) hunger and the obsession with food b) body image disturbance c) fear of becoming fat d) all of the above Answer: d Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

52. Cognitive behavioral theories focus on all of the following EXCEPT a) body dissatisfaction. b) positive emotion. c) preoccupation with thinness. d) attention and memory. Answer: b Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

53. Which of the following brain mechanisms have been implicated in anorexia? a) Starvation releases natural pain-reducing opioids producing a high, which reinforces not eating.

b) With puberty, the dramatic increase in female hormones damages centers that control eating in the thalamus and pituitary. c) Excessive exercise depletes the brain of neurotransmitters utilized by areas that regulate hunger or satiation. d) Stress-released hormones reduce the sensitivity of receptors that detect blood-sugar levels and release hormones that induce hunger. Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

54. The neurotransmitter most closely associated with eating disorders is a) epinephrine b) norepinephrine c) opioids d) serotonin Answer: d Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

55. Recent research has begun to focus on the role of __________ in eating behavior. a) norepinephrine b) epinephrine c) dopamine d) estrogen Answer: c Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

56. Paula scored higher on a measure of dietary restraint than did Roberta. Based on this information, recent research suggests that

a) Roberta would be more likely to have bulimia nervosa. b) Paula would be more likely to have anorexia nervosa. c) Roberta will probably exhibit greater dopamine activity in her brain when presented with food. d) Paula will probably exhibit greater dopamine activity in her brain when presented with food. Answer: d Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Application

57. Studies of perfectionism in anorexia nervosa indicate that which of the following statements would be most typical of an anorexic? a) “I must complete all my work before I can enjoy a night out.” b) “I can't stand it when my boyfriend lets me down by not buying me flowers on special occasions.” c) “I've got to show my teacher that I can meet his goal for me of winning the debate championship.” d) “I can't possibly be expected to meet the unrealistically high standards that my parents have set for me.” Answer: c Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Application

58. In the cognitive-behavioral view, the non-eating of anorexics is reinforced by a) reducing anxiety about being fat b) reducing sexual demands from males c) attention of overly concerned family members d) increased time and energy for studies Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

59. Bingeing in a person with anorexia nervosa is most likely to happen

a) after family conflict. b) after a lapse in a strict diet. c) after struggling with the disorder for at least one year. d) none of the above; bingeing appears to happen randomly in anorexia. Answer: b Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

60. The cognitive-behavioral view of bulimia suggests that binges result from a) breaking self-rules about dieting. b) ambivalence over social pressure to be thin. c) excessive desire for peer approval. d) not accepting responsibility for actions. Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

61. Polivy and others conducted a series of studies in which participants tasted ice cream. These studies looked at the participants’ tendency to a) refuse food b) binge c) purge d) feel guilty Answer: b Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

62. Recent studies on cognitive-behavioral factors involved in bulimia nervosa have shown that bingeing and purging may function as means of

a) relieving stress and negative affect b) increasing energy and thus mood c) feeling in control of the situation d) distracting oneself from inner pain Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

63. Which of the following statements is true regarding gender differences in eating disorders? a) Women are more likely to have bulimia, while men are more likely to have anorexia. b) Men are more likely to have bulimia, while women are more likely to have anorexia. c) Women are more likely to have both bulimia and anorexia than men. d) Adequate prevalence data on eating disorders has not been collected for men, because men are reluctant to disclose disordered eating patterns. Answer: c Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Application

64. After looking through a fashion magazine, Daisy feels fat and is ashamed of her body. She doubts that she will ever be as thin as the models she sees in the magazine. Which theory explains Daisy’s reactions to the magazine? a) biosocial theory b) expectancy theory c) objectification theory d) self-deprecating theory Answer: c Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Application

65. Margaret, a Canadian, and Rosemary, a Nigerian, are asked to rate the attractiveness of a drawing of an obese woman. Which of the following is most likely to occur?

a) They will similarly rate the woman as highly unattractive. b) They will similarly rate the woman as highly attractive. c) Rosemary will rate the woman as more attractive than Margaret’s rating of the woman. d) Margaret will rate the woman as more attractive than Rosemary's rating of the woman.

Answer: c Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Application

66. Lydia is a white, upper-class woman with anorexia. Which of the following is most likely to also be true of Lydia? a) She has dieted before. b) She also has bulimia. c) She also has bipolar disorder. d) She reads many women’s magazines. Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Application

67. Eating disorders are more common in women who are a) single b) white c) urban d) less educated Answer: b Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

68. The difference in the incidence of eating disorders between Caucasian and African Americans has been largely attributed to

a) genetic factors. b) family environment factors. c) socioeconomic status rather than race, but this is less true today. d) errors in diagnosis. Answer: c Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

69. Evelyn is Hispanic and reports a higher level of acculturative stress than Katherine, who is African American. Which of these women is more likely to have greater body dissatisfaction? a) Evelyn b) Katherine c) They are both equally likely to have body dissatisfaction due to their culture. d) There is not enough information to answer this question. Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Application 70. A group of college students reads a case study about a woman who is 5'6”, weighs 105 pounds, and is experiencing amenorrhea. Recent research suggests that these students are more likely to believe her symptoms are a result of an eating disorder a) if her race is presented as Native American. b) if her race is presented as Hispanic. c) if her socioeconomic status is presented as middle class. d) if her race is presented as Caucasian. Answer: d Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Application

71. The textbook authors assert that psychologists need to consider what when evaluating the personalities of people with anorexia and bulimia? a) How friendly they are b) Severe restriction of food intake can have powerful effects on personality and behavior c) Personality shouldn’t be important when trying to understand an eating disorder d) Psychosocial stressors are more important to assess than personality Answer: b Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

72. A recent review of many studies concludes that __________, no matter how it is measured, is higher among girls with anorexia than girls without anorexia, and that it remains high even after successful treatment for anorexia. a) neuroticism b) introversion c) constraint d) perfectionism Answer: d Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

73. Regarding family influences on eating disorders, most anorexics and bulimics report a) high levels of familial support b) high levels of familial support and low levels of familial conflict c) low levels of familial support d) high levels of familial conflict Answer: d Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

74. A weakness of many of the family studies of eating disorders is that a) most rely upon self-report and not direct observation. b) an inadequate level of attention paid to third variable causes. c) limited generalizability, given the laboratory nature of the research. d) an overreliance upon a single theoretical paradigm. Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

75. Which statement is true a) Anorexia and Bulimia appear to be specific to Western culture. b) Bulimia is specific to western culture while Anorexia is seen all over the world. c) Neither Anorexia or Bulimia seem to be specific to western culture. d) child abuse and the link to eating disorders. Answer: d Section Reference: Check Your Knowledge 11.2 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

76. The main neurobiological treatment for eating disorders is a) Anti-Psychotic medications. b) Anti-seizure medications. c) Antidepressant medications. d) Electro-convulsive therapy. Answer: c Section Reference: Treatment of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the treatments for eating disorders and the evidence supporting their effectiveness. Bloomcode: Knowledge

77. Which is NOT a disadvantage of medication in the treatment of bulimia? a) relapses when medication is stopped

b) it controls only bingeing, not purging c) unpleasant side effects d) high dropout rates Answer: b Section Reference: Treatment of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the treatments for eating disorders and the evidence supporting their effectiveness. Bloomcode: Knowledge

78. Studies have shown drug treatment to be a) effective for bulimia only b) effective for anorexia only c) effective for both bulimia and anorexia d) ineffective for both bulimia and anorexia Answer: a Section Reference: Treatment of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the treatments for eating disorders and the evidence supporting their effectiveness. Bloomcode: Comprehension

79. Adelaide, who has bulimia, is being treated solely with fluoxetine (Prozac). If she stops taking the drug, she will most likely a) relapse b) become obese c) develop anorexia nervosa d) maintain normal eating patterns over the long term Answer: a Section Reference: Treatment of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the treatments for eating disorders and the evidence supporting their effectiveness. Bloomcode: Application

80. The first step in treating severe cases of anorexia nervosa is a) medication to reduce anxiety about eating b) education on the importance of a well-balanced diet c) hospitalization to promote and monitor eating

d) assessment to identify causes and plan individualized treatment Answer: c Section Reference: Treatment of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the treatments for eating disorders and the evidence supporting their effectiveness. Bloomcode: Evaluation

81. Combined hospital treatment and cognitive behavior therapy of anorexia nervosa has been effective in a) encouraging compliance with medication treatment. b) maintaining improvements in symptoms for up to one year. c) producing short-term weight gain only. d) building skills to resist social pressures. Answer: b Section Reference: Treatment of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the treatments for eating disorders and the evidence supporting their effectiveness. Bloomcode: Knowledge

82. The principal form of psychological treatment for anorexia nervosa is a) reinforcing appropriate eating behaviors b) providing a safe inpatient environment c) social skills training d) family therapy Answer: d Section Reference: Treatment of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the treatments for eating disorders and the evidence supporting their effectiveness. Bloomcode: Knowledge

83. Which of the following has been shown to lead to reliable long-term maintenance of weight gain in treating anorexia? a) cognitive-behavioral therapy b) family therapy c) psychodynamic therapy d) none of the above has been shown to reliably lead to long-term maintenance of weight gain

Answer: d Section Reference: Treatment of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the treatments for eating disorders and the evidence supporting their effectiveness. Bloomcode: Evaluation

84. In treating bulimia nervosa, the overall goal is to teach the individual to a) accept their natural shape b) monitor caloric intake c) develop normal eating patterns d) have other social outlets Answer: c Section Reference: Treatment of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the treatments for eating disorders and the evidence supporting their effectiveness. Bloomcode: Knowledge

85. After successful cognitive-behavioral treatment of bulimia, patients sometimes also a) become obese b) have reduced depression c) develop anorexia nervosa d) witness marital conflict in their parents Answer: b Section Reference: Treatment of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the treatments for eating disorders and the evidence supporting their effectiveness. Bloomcode: Knowledge

86. Successful treatment of bulimia nervosa often results in a) modest weight gain b) reduced psychological problems c) improved family and social relations d) academic gains Answer: b

Section Reference: Treatment of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the treatments for eating disorders and the evidence supporting their effectiveness. Bloomcode: Knowledge

87. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the combined use of CBT and medications for bulimia? a) Adding drug treatment to CBT sometimes enhances the effectiveness of CBT for alleviating the co-occurring depression. b) Medication alone is more effective than CBT. c) Interpersonal therapy works more quickly and more effectively than CBT. d) Over 75% of bulimic patients recover after receiving CBT Answer: a Section Reference: Treatment of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the treatments for eating disorders and the evidence supporting their effectiveness. Bloomcode: Comprehension

88. Cognitive-behavioral treatment of bulimia nervosa is effective a) half of the time or less b) if combined with drug treatment c) but with high relapse rates d) if family and friends are supportive Answer: a Section Reference: Treatment of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the treatments for eating disorders and the evidence supporting their effectiveness. Bloomcode: Knowledge

89. Which of the following is NOT listed as a type of preventive intervention for eating disorders? a) psychoeducational approaches b) de-emphasizing sociocultural influences c) banning junk foods from elementary schools d) risk factor approach Answer: c

90. Family-based therapy focuses on all of the following EXCEPT: a) helping parents restore their daughter to a healthy weight b) building up family functioning in the context of adolescent development c) individual treatment for family members d) helping parents understand normal adolescent development Answer: c Section Reference: Treatment of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the treatments for eating disorders and the evidence supporting their effectiveness. Bloomcode: Comprehension

91. Which of the following is a form of cognitive behavior therapy that has some proven success in treating eating disorders? a) guided self-help CBT b) documentation CBT c) family-oriented CBT d) none of the above Answer: a Section Reference: Treatment of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the treatments for eating disorders and the evidence supporting their effectiveness. Bloomcode: Knowledge

92. CBT for binge eating emphasizes: a) self-monitoring b) self-control c) problem-solving in eating d) all of the above Answer: d Section Reference: Treatment of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Describe the treatments for eating disorders and the evidence supporting their effectiveness. Bloomcode: Knowledge

93. The new DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for anorexia nervosa include each of the following except: a) Amenorrhea b) Restriction of food leading to very low body weight c) Fear of weight gain d) Distorted body image Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

94. In anorexia nervosa, ______________ is the most central feature. a) restriction of food that leads to very low body weight b) refusal to eat c) purging leading to very low body weight d) emergence of lanugo Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

Question Type: Essay

95. Discuss the primary differences between the DSM-IV-TR and the DSM-5 interpretation and diagnosis of anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa. Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Synthesis

96. Discuss the means of diagnosing eating disorders, such as distinguishing features, subtypes, and physical effects. Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: HardLearning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Synthesis

97. Compare medication and cognitive-behavioral approaches to treating eating disorders. Answer: Section Reference: Treatment of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Synthesis

98. Describe the contributions of genetic and biological theory to our understanding of eating disorders. Answer: Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Evaluation

99. Discuss the role of culture in our understanding of eating disorders. Specifically, address the influence of industrialized western culture on prevalence, etiology, and maintenance of eating disorders. Answer: Section Reference: Etiology of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the neurobiological, sociocultural, and psychological factors implicated in the etiology of eating disorders. Bloomcode: Synthesis

100. Compare and contrast anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, and binge eating disorder. Answer:

Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Eating Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Distinguish the symptoms associated with anorexia, bulimia, and binge eating disorder and distinguish among the different eating disorders. Bloomcode: Evaluation

Package Title: Ch 12, Testbank Course Title: Kring, Abnormal Psych 14e Chapter Number: 12

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1. Persistent disruptions in the ability to experience sexual arousal, desire, or orgasms, or pain associated with intercourse, is called a) sexual dysfunction. b) sexual function. c) paraphilia. d) all of the above. Answer: a Section Reference: Introduction Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Knowledge

2. Persistent and troubling attractions to unusual sexual activities or objects is called a) sexual dysfunction. b) sexual function. c) paraphilia. d) all of the above. Answer: c Section Reference: Introduction Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Knowledge

3. In contrast to the general Victorian view, the contemporary Western world believes that __________ of sexual expression contributes to problems. a) an excess b) inhibition c) the amount d) the type Answer: b

Section Reference: Sexual Norms and Behavior Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Knowledge

4. Which of the following foods was originally developed as food that would lessen sexual interest? a) Doritos b) Nabisco Animal Crackers c) Kellogg’s Corn Flakes d) Hostess Twinkies Answer: c Section Reference: Sexual Norms and Behavior Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Knowledge

5. Research suggests that gender differences in sexuality are a) consistent across cultures. b) vary greatly by culture. c) vary slightly by culture. d) more of a result of culture than biology. Answer: a Section Reference: Sexual Norms and Behavior Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Knowledge

6. Which of the following categories is NOT included in the DSM-5 for sexual disorders? a) sexual dysfunctions b) paraphilias c) sexual functions d) they are all included in the DSM-5 Answer: c Section Reference: Sexual Norms and Behavior Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Knowledge

7. Which of the following is NOT a subcategory of paraphilia in the DSM-5? a) fetishistic disorder b) sexual arousal disorder c) transvestic disorder d) exhibitionistic disorder Answer: b Section Reference: Sexual Norms and Behavior Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Knowledge

8. Which of the following is considered to be a paraphilia, according to the DSM-5? a) premature ejaculation b) genito-pelvic pain disorder c) sexual sadism disorder d) delayed ejaculation disorder Answer: c Section Reference: Sexual Norms and Behavior Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Knowledge 9. What historical change led to major shifts in attitudes towards premarital sex in the 1970’s a) improvements in condom design b) availability of the birth control pill c) availability of pornography d) increasing knowledge concerning sexually transmitted infections Answer: b Section Reference: Sexual Norms and Behavior Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Knowledge

10. Which of the following did NOT contribute to recent changes in sexual experiences? a) the Internet b) AIDS c) sexually transmitted infections d) all of the above contributed to recent changes in sexual experiences Answer: d Section Reference: Sexual Norms and Behavior Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Knowledge

11. Which answer lists the correct order of the sexual response cycle a) Excitement phase, Desire phase, Orgasm phase and Resolution phase. b) Desire phase, Excitement phase, Orgasm phase and Resolution phase. c) Excitement phase, Desire phase, Resolution phase and Orgasm phase.d) Resolution phase, Desire phase, Excitement phase and Orgasm phase. Answer: b Section Reference: Sexual Norms and Behavior Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Knowledge

12. The majority of heterosexual couples report having sexual intercourse a) less than 3 times per month. b) at least once per week c) more than 3 times per week d) not at all Answer: b Section Reference: Gender and Sexuality Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Knowledge 13. The preference for a male or female partner − or both − is called

a) sexual identification. b) gender identity. c) sexual orientation. d) sexual proclivity. Answer: c Section Reference: Gender and Sexuality Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Knowledge

14. The sense of oneself as being male or female is called a) sexual identification. b) gender identity. c) sexual orientation. d) sexual proclivity. Answer: b Section Reference: Gender and Sexuality Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Knowledge

15. Which of the following is not considered a category of sexual dysfunction according to the DSM-5 a) sexual desire. b) sexual orientation. c) arousal. d) interest. Answer: b Section Reference: Gender and Sexuality Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Knowledge

16. What is the minimum duration for sexual dysfunction symptoms to be present in order to diagnosis someone with sexual dysfunction a) over 2 months.

b) over 3 months. c) over 4 months. d) over 6 months. Answer: d Section Reference: Gender and Sexuality Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Knowledge

17. People who feels deep within themselves, usually from early childhood, that they are of the opposite gender are given the diagnosis of a) gender distortion disorder. b) gender dysphoria. c) sexual distortion disorder. d) all of the above are possible diagnostic labels. Answer: b Section Reference: Gender and Sexuality Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Knowledge

18. Gender dysphoria almost always begin in a) childhood. b) adolescence. c) early adulthood. d) middle age. Answer: a Section Reference: Gender and Sexuality Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Knowledge

19. Which of the following diagnoses is among the most debated in the DSM-5? a) sexual aversion disorder b) gender dysphoria c) vaginismus

d) female sexual arousal disorder Answer: b Section Reference: Gender and Sexuality Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Knowledge

20. Which cohort has the largest percentage of adults identifying as lesbian, gay, bisexual, or transgender a) Traditionalists. b) Baby boomers. c) Generation X. d) Millennials. Answer: d Section Reference: Gender and Sexuality Figure 12.1 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Knowledge

21. In sex-reassignment surgery, a) opposite-sex genitals are constructed and hormones are taken. b) genital transplants are inserted from donors. c) hormones are taken but genitals are left intact. d) secondary features (e.g., Adam’s apple, chin, nose) are altered, but genitals are left intact. Answer: a Section Reference: Gender and Sexuality Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Knowledge

22. Cross-gender behavior is a) unique to the U.S. b) universal. c) present in people but not animals. d) all of the above. Answer: b

Section Reference: Gender and Sexuality Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Knowledge

23. Which of the following is NOT a phase in the sexual response cycle? a) resolution b) excitement c) anticlimax d) desire Answer: c Section Reference: The Sexual Response Cycle Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Knowledge

24. In the human sexual response cycle, what is the name of the phase in which blood flows to the genitalia and pleasurable sensations build? a) desire b) excitement c) orgasm d) anticipatory Answer: b Section Reference: The Sexual Response Cycle Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Knowledge

25. Which of the following stages of the sexual response cycle was introduced by Kaplan in 1974 a) Desire b) Excitement c) Orgasm d) Resolution Answer: a Section Reference: The Sexual Response Cycle

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Knowledge

26. Elizabeth is slipping into her nightgown and watching her husband get into bed. She is fantasizing about what they will soon be doing together. In which phase of the human sexual response cycle is Elizabeth at this moment? a) resolution b) orgasm c) desire d) excitement Answer: c Section Reference: The Sexual Response Cycle Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Application

27. Barbara is concerned about her husband’s premature ejaculation, which occurs before she reaches orgasm. From her perspective, which of the following phases of the sexual response cycle is problematic in Barbara’s husband? a) orgasm b) excitement c) resolution d) desire Answer: a Section Reference: The Sexual Response Cycle Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Application

28. Occasional symptoms of sexual dysfunction a) are fairly common. b) typically cause marked distress. c) are labeled only if they reoccur. d) require immediate treatment. Answer: a

Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms of the DSM-5 sexual dysfunction disorders, and discuss the prevalence of brief periods of sexual dysfunction. Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

29. Hannah reports that she has a low sex drive and sometimes has trouble reaching orgasm. However, when asked by her doctor, she does not report distress or impairment from these symptoms. The most likely diagnosis for Hannah would be a) female orgasmic disorder. b) sexual aversion disorder. c) Hannah would not receive a clinical diagnosis. d) dyspareunia. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms of the DSM-5 sexual dysfunction disorders, and discuss the prevalence of brief periods of sexual dysfunction. Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Application

30. Jane is finding that her interest in sex has diminished greatly. She not only avoids having sexual contact with her husband, but has even stopped fantasizing and masturbating. Jane would likely be diagnosed as having which of the following DSM-5 disorders? a) female orgasm disorder b) female sexual interest/arousal disorder c) hypoactive sexual desire disorder d) none of the above Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms of the DSM-5 sexual dysfunction disorders, and discuss the prevalence of brief periods of sexual dysfunction. Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Application

31. Female orgasmic disorder is defined as a) lack of orgasm and no desire. b) lack of orgasm without direct clitoral stimulation. c) lack of orgasm despite normal sexual excitement and stimulation.

d) orgasm during masturbation only, if at all. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms of the DSM-5 sexual dysfunction disorders, and discuss the prevalence of brief periods of sexual dysfunction. Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

32. Delayed ejaculation disorder a) is the most common sexual disorder in men. b) is associated with childhood sexual abuse. c) is a problem that is situationaly bound. d) is defined as persistent difficulty in ejaculating. Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms of the DSM-5 sexual dysfunction disorders, and discuss the prevalence of brief periods of sexual dysfunction. Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

33. When Sheila attempts to have sexual intercourse, the outer part of her vagina has an involuntary spasm, and it becomes impossible for her to have intercourse. Which of the following DSM-5 diagnoses would fit Sheila’s problem? a) vaginismus b) dyspareunia c) female orgasmic disorder d) sexual aversion disorder Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms of the DSM-5 sexual dysfunction disorders, and discuss the prevalence of brief periods of sexual dysfunction. Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Applied

34. Joan experiences pain during sexual intercourse. The frequency of pain has been so great that she now dreads the prospect of possible sexual encounters, despite experiencing sexual arousal while observing films depicting sexual acts other than intercourse. Joan most likely is suffering from

a) female orgasmic disorder. b) genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder c) imperforate hymen. d) vaginismus. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms of the DSM-5 sexual dysfunction disorders, and discuss the prevalence of brief periods of sexual dysfunction. Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Applied

35. In men, a persistently deficient or absent sexual fantasies and desires is called __________ in the DSM-5. a) male hypoactive sexual desire disorder b) hyperactive sexual desire disorder c) asexuality disorder d) none of the above Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms of the DSM-5 sexual dysfunction disorders, and discuss the prevalence of brief periods of sexual dysfunction. Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Application

36. Which of the following is NOT a DSM-5 criterion for sexual interest/arousal disorder in women? a) diminished interest in sexual activity b) increase in sexual fantasies without arousal c) absence of sexual arousal d) absence of genital sensations during most sexual encounters Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms of the DSM-5 sexual dysfunction disorders, and discuss the prevalence of brief periods of sexual dysfunction. Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

37. Persistent or recurrent pain during sexual intercourse is called __________ in the DSM-5. a) genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder b) genital pain disorder c) sexual intercourse pain disorder d) sexual id pain disorder Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms of the DSM-5 sexual dysfunction disorders, and discuss the prevalence of brief periods of sexual dysfunction. Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

38. Which of the following is a current or proximal cause of sexual dysfunctions, according to Masters and Johnson? a) psychosexual trauma b) fear of performance c) excessive intake of alcohol d) homosexual inclinations Answer: b Section Reference: Etiology of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms of the DSM-5 sexual dysfunction disorders, and discuss the prevalence of brief periods of sexual dysfunction. Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

39. Sexual desire can be affected in part by a) anger towards one’s partner. b) communication problems. c) certain medications such as SSRIs. d) all of the above Answer: d Section Reference: Etiology of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms of the DSM-5 sexual dysfunction disorders, and discuss the prevalence of brief periods of sexual dysfunction. Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

40. Which of the following psychological disorders are associated with an increased risk of sexual dysfunction? a) borderline personality disorder and specific phobias b) bipolar disorder and antisocial personality disorder c) depression and anxiety d) generalized anxiety disorder and dependent personality disorder Answer: c Section Reference: Etiology of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the biological and psychosocial risk factors of the sexual dysfunctions. Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

41. Studies indicate that __________ can interfere with specific sexual arousal. a) erotic films b) low general physiological arousal c) low blood pressure d) relaxation Answer: b Section Reference: Etiology of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the biological and psychosocial risk factors of the sexual dysfunctions. Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

42. In a study of the role of self-blame and erectile dysfunction, men who were given an internal explanation for their low arousal after watching erotic films a) reported and showed less physiological arousal. b) reported and showed more physiological arousal. c) reported more, but showed less physiological arousal. d) believed they had an erectile dysfunction. Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the biological and psychosocial risk factors of the sexual dysfunctions. Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

43. Masters and Johnson found that many individuals who have sexual dysfunction

a) were college-educated. b) had low socioeconomic status. c) had negative views of sexuality. d) were encouraged to express their sexuality at a young age. Answer: c Section Reference: Etiology of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the biological and psychosocial risk factors of the sexual dysfunctions. Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

44. Bill and Deborah are in sex therapy. One exercise that they are directed to practice involves touching each other and feeling comfortable with contact, but without any sexual intercourse. This intervention is called a) sensate focus. b) sensuality training. c) physical redirecting. d) cognitive restructuring. Answer: a Section Reference: Treatments of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe psychological and medication treatments for sexual dysfunctions. Learning Objective: 2Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Application

45. During the first few days of Masters and Johnson’s sex therapy, a) couples are instructed to have sex as often as possible and to practice the techniques they are being taught. b) couples are instructed not to make any changes in their sexual relationship until the assessment period is over. c) couples are instructed not to engage in any sexual activity. d) instructions about sexual activities vary depending on the particular dysfunction being treated. Answer: c Section Reference: Treatments of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the biological and psychosocial risk factors of the sexual dysfunctions. Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

46. In sex therapy, the sensate focus exercise involves a) having sexual intercourse without taking on the spectator role. b) engaging in intercourse as often as possible to sensitize each other’s bodies. c) nonsexual touching. d) caressing without engaging in intercourse. Answer: d Section Reference: Treatments of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe psychological and medication treatments for sexual dysfunctions. Bloomcode: Knowledge

47. Directed masturbation is often used a) to train individuals who have difficulty achieving orgasm. b) as a means for redirecting attention from inappropriate sexual stimuli. c) for excessive sexual appetite. d) as part of a program of treatment for sex offenders. Answer: a Section Reference: Treatments of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms of the DSM-5 sexual dysfunction disorders, and discuss the prevalence of brief periods of sexual dysfunction. Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

48. For women with sexual dysfunctions in the context of marital relationship distress, which of the following has been found to improve many aspects of sexual functioning? a) SSRI medications b) behavioral marital couples therapy c) anti-anxiety medications d) psychoanalysis Answer: b Section Reference: Treatments of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms of the DSM-5 sexual dysfunction disorders, and discuss the prevalence of brief periods of sexual dysfunction. Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

49. The squeeze technique is used in the treatment of a) vaginismus.

b) male orgasmic disorder. c) dyspareunia. d) premature ejaculation. Answer: d Section Reference: Treatments of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms of the DSM-5 sexual dysfunction disorders, and discuss the prevalence of brief periods of sexual dysfunction. Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

50. The most common medical interventions for erectile dysfunction include a) sildenafil (Viagra) and related medications. b) silicone rod implants. c) antidepressants such as SSRIs. d) none of the above – there are no known medical interventions for erectile dysfunction. Answer: a Section Reference: Treatments of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms of the DSM-5 sexual dysfunction disorders, and discuss the prevalence of brief periods of sexual dysfunction. Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

51. Viagra, a medication for improved erectile function, acts primarily by a) increasing the level of dopamine, which is associated with sexual arousal. b) relaxing smooth muscles, allowing increased blood flow to the penis. c) stimulating the amygdala in the limbic system. d) inhibiting the response of the serotonin system. Answer: b Section Reference: Treatments of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe psychological and medication treatments for sexual dysfunctions.Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

52. Which of the following disorders is most associated with legal consequences? a) gender identity disorder b) schizophrenia

c) paraphilias d) dyspareunia Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

53. Those with fetishistic disorder are sexually aroused by a) inanimate objects. b) exposing themselves to people while masturbating. c) observing other people engaging in sexual activity. d) children. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

54. Transvestic disorder a) typically disappears by adulthood. b) is part of gender identity disorder. c) occurs equally in men and women. d) refers to sexual arousal from cross-dressing. Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

55. Ben can become sexually aroused only when he is wearing women’s clothing. He especially enjoys having sexual relations with his wife while he is wearing her garments. Which of the following diagnoses would fit Ben’s case? a) transvestic disorder b) transsexualism c) voyeuristic disorder d) exhibitionistic disorder Answer: a

Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Application

56. Someone who derives sexual pleasure from contact with prepubertal children would be diagnosed with a) fetishistic disorder. b) exhibitionistic disorder. c) pedophilic disorder . d) gender dysphoria. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

57. Child molesters are usually a) women, contrary to popular belief. b) other children. c) strangers who molest children out of anger, not for sexual gratification. d) men and someone whom the child knows. Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

58. Child molesters frequently deny that they are forcing themselves on the victim because a) they leave no physical marks. b) they threaten the child to deny the incident. c) there is rarely physical force, but instead coercion. d) the child may not understand the significance of being molested. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

59. The incest taboo a) is limited to Western societies. b) is virtually universal in human societies. c) produces guilt in the assailant. d) generalizes to pedophilic urges. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

60. Those with voyeuristic disorder (peeping Toms) are typically a) disturbed, confused, and do not understand social codes. b) angry, violent, controlling, and hostile toward women in general. c) rigidly moralistic, ashamed of their uncontrollable sexual urges. d) fearful of actual sexual contact with a woman. Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

61. Which of the following would be most stimulating to a voyeur? a) a woman undressing privately, unaware that he is watching. b) a prostitute undressing for him. c) a beautiful but proper woman undressing for his exclusive benefit. d) a couple having sexual relations in the same room as him, while he observes but does not participate. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

62. Most exhibitionists a) do not seek physical contact with their victims. b) seek to persuade the woman to have physical contact without using force.

c) seek to force physical contact with their victims, but stop short of rape. d) go on to commit rape. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

63. Frotteuristic disorder involves a) the sexually oriented touching of an unsuspecting person. b) the exposing of oneself to others to achieve sexual stimulation. c) incestuous behavior. d) none of the above. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

64. Sexual sadism is defined by an intense desire to obtain sexual gratification by __________ while sexual masochism is defined by an intense desire to obtain sexual gratification through __________. a) inflicting pain or humiliation on another; subjecting oneself to pain or humiliation b) subjecting oneself to pain or humiliation; inflicting pain or humiliation on another c) watching another undress; exposing oneself d) exposing oneself; watching another undress Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

65. Speculations about the role of hormones in paraphilias center on a) androgens. b) progesterone. c) estrogen. d) all of the above. Answer: a

Section Reference: Etiology of the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the risk factors for paraphilic disorders, and limits in the knowledge concerning these risk factors. Bloomcode: Knowledge

66. Mark was an exhibitionist, getting sexual gratification only from exposing his genitals to unsuspecting women at bus stops. He went to Dr. Grind, a psychoanalyst, for treatment. What would Dr. Grind view as the cause of Mark’s problem? a) fear of actually having a sexual relationship with a woman b) childhood experience in which he was caught masturbating and found the experience arousing c) castration anxiety leading to extreme hatred of women d) serious marital problems and religious prohibitions Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the risk factors for paraphilic disorders, and limits in the knowledge concerning these risk factors. Bloomcode: Application 67. Ethan engaged in exhibitionism. After one occasion, he remarked to his therapist that his victim “kept looking at me, like she wanted it.” This is an example of a) minimizing sexual intent. b) minimizing consequences. c) misattributing blame. d) justifying the cause. Answer: c Section Reference: Etiology of the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the risk factors for paraphilic disorders, and limits in the knowledge concerning these risk factors. Bloomcode: Application 68. After exhibiting, Ethan said of his victim, “She smiled, so I guess she was amused.” This is an example of a) minimizing sexual intent. b) minimizing consequences. c) attributing blame. d) justifying the cause. Answer: b

Section Reference: Etiology of the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the risk factors for paraphilic disorders, and limits in the knowledge concerning these risk factors. Bloomcode: Application

69. Carlos had a shoe fetish that he wished to overcome. His therapist had him view slides of shoes while giving him mild electric shocks. This is an example of a) aversion therapy. b) systematic desensitization. c) orgasmic reorientation. d) electroconvulsive shock therapy (ECT). Answer: a Section Reference: Treatments and Community Prevention for the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss common psychological and medication treatments for the paraphilic disorders, and the state of current evidence about treatment efficacy.Bloomcode: Application

70. Which is a common component of psychological treatment of paraphilias? a) support groups modeled on Alcoholics Anonymous b) challenging distorted beliefs c) reinforcing appropriate sex d) exercise and diet to reduce urges Answer: b Section Reference: Treatments and Community Prevention for the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss common psychological and medication treatments for the paraphilic disorders, and the state of current evidence about treatment efficacy. Bloomcode: Knowledge

71. Bryant, as part of his treatment for committing incest, was trained to experience empathy for his victims. He was likely receiving a) object-relations psychodynamic therapy. b) behavioral therapy. c) cognitive therapy. d) family therapy. Answer: c Section Reference: Treatments and Community Prevention for the Paraphilic Disorders

Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss common psychological and medication treatments for the paraphilic disorders, and the state of current evidence about treatment efficacy. Bloomcode: Application

72. Megan’s Law involves a) notification of members of a community when a convicted sex offender is released and moving into that neighborhood. b) additional compensation for victims’ families following sex crimes. c) more rigid conviction standards for sex offenders. d) intensive therapy for sex offenders following their first offense. Answer: a Section Reference: Treatments and Community Prevention for the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss common psychological and medication treatments for the paraphilic disorders, and the state of current evidence about treatment efficacy. Bloomcode: Knowledge

73. Which of the following disorders is most likely to develop in the aftermath of rape? a) paranoid personality disorder b) posttraumatic stress disorder c) bipolar disorder d) masochistic personality disorder Answer: b Section Reference: Etiology of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the biological and psychosocial risk factors of the sexual dysfunctions. Bloomcode: Knowledge

74. Most rapists a) have a high degree of hostility toward women. b) are shy and reserved. c) can be readily distinguished from non-rapists on the basis of physical characteristics. d) are also voyeurs. Answer: a Section Reference: Etiology of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the biological and psychosocial risk factors of the sexual dysfunctions. Bloomcode: Knowledge

75. Rapists who enter therapy for their behavior do best when a) the groups are highly confrontational. b) they complete the therapy program. c) they receive support from their family. d) they begin dating again. Answer: b Section Reference: Treatments and Community Prevention for the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss common psychological and medication treatments for the paraphilic disorders, and the state of current evidence about treatment efficacy. Bloomcode: Analysis

76. All of the following are reasons why women often do not report rapes EXCEPT a) believing the police would be of little assistance. b) fearing that the rapist or his family and friends may seek revenge. c) fearing that people will think she has a paraphilia. d) considering rape to be a private and personal matter. Answer: c Section Reference: Treatments and Community Prevention for the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss common psychological and medication treatments for the paraphilic disorders, and the state of current evidence about treatment efficacy. Bloomcode: Comprehension

77. All of the following are criteria in the DSM-5 diagnosis for erectile disorder EXCEPT a) decrease in penile rigidity interferes with pleasure or penetration. b) duration of symptoms for at least three months. c) inability to maintain an erection for completion of sexual activity. d) symptoms do not resolve with the use of medications. Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms of the DSM-5 sexual dysfunction disorders, and discuss the prevalence of brief periods of sexual dysfunction. Bloomcode: Comprehension

78. Tyler has noticed that over the course of his last two years of graduate school, he has been experiencing very little sexual desire. He states that he rarely, if ever, fantasizes about sex. If Tyler finds this distressing, the most likely diagnosis would be a) Male hypoactive sexual desire disorder. b) Male sexual interest/desire disorder. c) Inhibited sexual desire disorder. d) Erectile dysfunction. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms of the DSM-5 sexual dysfunction disorders, and discuss the prevalence of brief periods of sexual dysfunction. Bloomcode: Application

79. The criteria for premature ejaculation specify that ejaculation must occur within _______ minute(s) during at least _____ % of sexual occasions. a) 1, 75 b) 5, 50 c) 1, 50 d) 5, 75 Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms of the DSM-5 sexual dysfunction disorders, and discuss the prevalence of brief periods of sexual dysfunction. Bloomcode: Knowledge

80. Sexual attraction to prepubescent children is known as _________________. a) Sexual aggression disorder b) Pedophilic disorder c) Exhibitionistic disorder d) Sexual aversion disorder Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

81. Which of these diagnoses does not include a criterion specifying that the victim be non-consenting? a) Sexual masochistic disorder b) Voyeuristic disorder c) Exhibitionistic disorder d) Frotteuristic disorder Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

Question Type: True/False

85. True or false? The diagnoses of premature ejaculation and delayed ejaculation have been combined into a single diagnosis of male orgasmic disorder in the DSM-5. Answer: False Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms of the DSM-5 sexual dysfunction disorders, and discuss the prevalence of brief periods of sexual dysfunction. Bloomcode: Analysis

86. True or false? A diagnosis of pedophilic disorder requires that an individual have persistent urges to behave sexually with prepubescent children, not necessarily to have acted on them. Answer: False Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

Question Type: Essay

87. Describe behavior therapy for rapists. What are some differences from treatment for exhibitionists? Answer:

Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Evaluation

85. Discuss the research of Masters and Johnson regarding the human sexual response cycle. Answer: Section Reference: Sexual Norms and Behavior Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Evaluation

86. Discuss the range of treatment options for those diagnosed with various sexual dysfunctions. Answer: Section Reference: Treatments of Sexual Dysfunctions Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe psychological and medication treatments for sexual dysfunctions. Bloomcode: Synthesis 87. Compare and contrast the psychodynamic, neurobiological, and behavior theories on the etiology of paraphilias. Answer: Section Reference: Etiology of the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Explain the risk factors for paraphilic disorders, and limits in the knowledge concerning these risk factors. Bloomcode: Evaluation

88. Discuss the differences between voyeurism and exhibitionism. Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders.Bloomcode: Synthesis

89. Describe contemporary therapy for rape victims. Do these treatments have any similarities to therapy for rape perpetrators?

Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Descriptions of the Paraphilic Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms of the DSM-5 paraphilic disorders. Bloomcode: Synthesis

90. Describe the human sexual response cycle. How is this cycle affected by the spectator role? Answer: Section Reference: Sexual Norms and Behavior Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Synthesis

91. What is the difference between gender identity and sexual orientation? Answer: Section Reference: Sexual Norms and Behavior Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Evaluation

92. Discuss the controversy surrounding the inclusion of gender identity disorder in the DSM-5. Answer: Section Reference: Sexual Norms and Behavior Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the influence of culture and gender on sexual norms, and the sexual response cycle for men and women. Bloomcode: Synthesis

Package Title: Ch 13, Testbank Course Title: Kring, Abnormal Psych 14e Chapter Number: 13 Chapter 13:

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1. The field of __________ focuses on the disorders of childhood within the context of life-span development. a) developmental psychology b) developmental illness investigation c) developmental psychopathology d) adult development Answer: c Section Reference: Classification and Diagnosis of Childhood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the issues in the diagnosis of psychopathology in children. Bloomcode: Knowledge

2. The DSM-5 identifies how many childhood disorders a) 8 b) 9 c) 10 d) 11 Answer: b Section Reference: Classification and Diagnosis of Childhood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the issues in the diagnosis of psychopathology in children. Bloomcode: Knowledge

3. Which of the following is a childhood disorders classification in the DSM-5? a) neurodevelopmental disorders b) disruptive, impulse control, and conduct disorders c) autism d) both a and b Answer: b Section Reference: Classification and Diagnosis of Childhood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the issues in the diagnosis of psychopathology in children.

Bloomcode: Knowledge

4. The DSM-5 categorizes all of the following as neurodevelopmental disorders EXCEPT a) learning disorders. b) autism spectrum disorders. c) motor disorders. d) feeding disorders. Answer: d Section Reference: Classification and Diagnosis of Childhood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the issues in the diagnosis of psychopathology in children. Bloomcode: Knowledge

5. The DSM-5 moves which category of disorders to the adult collection of disorders? a) anxiety disorders b) eating disorders c) attachment disorders d) motor disorders Answer: a Section Reference: Classification and Diagnosis of Childhood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the issues in the diagnosis of psychopathology in children. Bloomcode: Knowledge

6. Which of the following disorders is classified as an autism spectrum disorder in the DSM-5? a) autistic disorder b) Asperger’s disorder c) pervasive developmental disorder not otherwise specified d) all of the above Answer: d Section Reference: Classification and Diagnosis of Childhood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the issues in the diagnosis of psychopathology in children. Bloomcode: Knowledge

7. Abnormal behavior in children a) is based upon destructiveness at any given age.

b) is developmentally determined; that is, normal behavior at one age is abnormal at another. c) can be reliably determined across age groups. d) is typically associated with a lack of control. Answer: b Section Reference: Classification and Diagnosis of Childhood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the issues in the diagnosis of psychopathology in children. Bloomcode: Knowledge

8. You witness a young child in the grocery store kicking and screaming because his mother won’t buy him candy. Which of the following DSM- 5 disorders would apply to the child? a) conduct disorder b) oppositional defiant disorder c) It depends on the mother's response; if she gives in, the behavior is probably not a disorder, but the result of poor parenting strategies. d) There is not enough information provided to make a diagnosis. In addition, it depends on the child's age and other factors. Answer: d Section Reference: Classification and Diagnosis of Childhood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the issues in the diagnosis of psychopathology in children. Bloomcode: Application

9. When diagnosing a child, it is most important to consider the child’s a) intelligence. b) ethnicity. c) gender. d) age. Answer: d Section Reference: Classification and Diagnosis of Childhood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the issues in the diagnosis of psychopathology in children. Bloomcode: Knowledge

10. Externalizing problems are more frequent in __________, and internalizing problems are more frequent in __________, regardless of culture. a) boys; girls b) girls; boys c) boys; boys

d) Gender distribution varies widely in different cultures. Answer: a Section Reference: Classification and Diagnosis of Childhood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the issues in the diagnosis of psychopathology in children. Bloomcode: Knowledge

11. Externalizing disorders include all of the following EXCEPT a) ADHD b) noncompliance c) conduct disorder d) social withdrawal Answer: d Section Reference: Classification and Diagnosis of Childhood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the issues in the diagnosis of psychopathology in children. Bloomcode: Knowledge

12. __________ disorders are characterized by more outward-directed behaviors. a) Externalizing b) Internalizing c) Extrinsic d) Intrinsic Answer: a Section Reference: Classification and Diagnosis of Childhood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the issues in the diagnosis of psychopathology in children. Bloomcode: Knowledge

13. __________ disorders are characterized by more inward-focused experiences and behaviors. a) Internalizing b) Intrinsic c) Externalizing d) Extrinsic Answer: a Section Reference: Classification and Diagnosis of Childhood Disorders Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Describe the issues in the diagnosis of psychopathology in children. Bloomcode: Knowledge

14. All of the following are examples of internalizing disorders EXCEPT: a) depression. b) social withdrawal. c) anxiety. d) ruminating. Answer: d Section Reference: Classification and Diagnosis of Childhood Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the issues in the diagnosis of psychopathology in children. Bloomcode: Knowledge

15. Results from a recent follow-up study of behavior problems in Thai and U.S. cultures suggest that a) U.S. children are referred to clinics more often for internalizing problems than externalizing problems. b) Thai children exhibit more externalizing behaviors. c) internalizing and externalizing behaviors are fairly comparable across cultures, but specific behaviors within these domains are not. d) behaviors should not be separated into internalizing and externalizing behaviors because a behavior viewed in one culture as internalizing may not be viewed the same way in a different culture. Answer: c Section Reference: The Role of Culture in Internalizing and Externalizing Behavior Problems Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the issues in the diagnosis of psychopathology in children. Bloomcode: Comprehension

16. As compared to developmentally normal levels of hyperactivity, diagnosable hyperactivity a) impairs the child’s functioning. b) negatively affects the child’s ability to mature appropriately. c) is treatable only with medication. d) all of the above. Answer: a Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

17. Which of the following distinguishes children with ADHD from other children? a) extreme distractibility. b) anxiety. c) problems only in classroom. d) poor social understanding. Answer: a Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

18. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT a) poor academic work. b) shyness. c) difficulty getting along with peers. d) distractibility. Answer: b Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder Bloomcode: Knowledge

19. In a recent study of instant messaging and attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), children with ADHD were more likely to IM statements that were __________ than were children without ADHD. a) hostile and off the topic b) hostile and nonsensical c) friendly and nonsensical d) friendly and off the topic Answer: a Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

20. Research on subtypes of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder indicates that those with both attentional and hyperactive problems a) have equivalent outcomes to those with only attentional problems. b) are more likely to be placed in special education classes than children with only attentional problems. c) usually learn better than children with only attentional problems. d) are more likely to have a behavioral, rather than a neurological, basis for their problems. Answer: b Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

21. The worst prognosis is for those children who have a) only ADHD. b) only conduct disorder. c) both ADHD and conduct disorder. d) ADHD Predominantly Inattentive-type. Answer: c Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

22. Epidemiological studies indicate that ADHD is a) about equally common in boys and girls. b) more common in boys. c) more common in girls. d) more common in girls with conduct disorder but in boys with oppositional defiant disorder. Answer: b Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

23. Girls with ADHD

a) are more likely to be depressed than girls without ADHD. b) show deficits in planning and problem solving. c) are likely to have symptoms of an eating disorder by adolescence. d) all of the above. Answer: d Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

24. When most children with ADHD reach adolescence, a) their ADHD symptoms typically remit. b) other psychiatric disturbances are more prominent than the ADHD. c) the severity of symptoms may be reduced, but they continue to meet criteria for the disorder. d) their academic performance greatly improves. Answer: c Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

25. ADHD is how many more times likely in boys than in girls a) it is equal with girls. b) it is twice as likely in boys. c) it is three times as likely. d) it is four times as likely. Answer: c Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

26. In recent molecular genetic studies, genes associated with the neurotransmitter __________ have been linked to ADHD. a) dopamine b) serotonin

c) norepinephrine d) GABA Answer: a Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

27. Which of the following statements is true? a) Heritability estimates for ADHD are quite low. b) A single gene, such as the dopamine receptor gene DRD4, is most likely responsible for ADHD. c) Serotonin has been found to be associated with ADHD etiology. d) Several genes interacting with various environmental factors most likely explain the cause of ADHD. Answer: d Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

28. The genetic factors that are inherited by children with ADHD are a) brain function and structure. b) neurotransmitter function and specificity. c) appetitive and metabolic functions. d) all of the above. Answer: a Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

29. Although low birth weight is a predictor of the development of ADHD, __________ has been shown to help reduce the impact of low birth weight on later symptoms of ADHD. a) vitamin C b) maternal warmth c) nicotine d) breast-feeding

Answer: b Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

30. Investigations of the causes of ADHD have found that environmental toxins, such as food additives and lead, a) do not explain more than a small percentage of cases. b) are usually the cause of the disorder in those children with an organic basis to their ADHD. c) are more likely to cause attentional problems without hyperactivity, but not in those children with both attentional problems and hyperactivity. d) cause subtle attentional problems, but not to the degree of ADHD. Answer: a Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Analysis

31. The association between nicotine and ADHD is that a) children’s smoking can cause attention problems. b) maternal smoking may play a role in ADHD in offspring. c) nicotine in pill form reduces the side effects of Ritalin. d) the combination of Ritalin and nicotine has been shown to have dangerous synergistic effects in adults with ADHD. Answer: b Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

32. Which of the following BEST explains the fact that ADHD children and their parents typically struggle with discipline and obeying rules? a) ADHD children are often noncompliant and negative in interactions with their parents. b) Parents of ADHD children are demanding and disapproving. c) Most parents of ADHD children also have ADHD and are therefore also noncompliant and negative.

d) ADHD children do not understand verbal instructions. Answer: a Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Applied

33. Stimulant drugs have which of the following effects on hyperactive children? a) increased activity level b) immediate and steady improvement in academic achievement c) short-term improvements in attention, goal-directed activity and behavior d) addiction to the medication Answer: c Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Analysis

34. Stimulant medications such as Ritalin a) have been shown to be effective for improving at least short-term academic achievement. b) have been shown to have equal effectiveness to behavioral training alone. c) have been shown to be more effective in white children than Latino or African American children. d) all of the above. Answer: a Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

35. Shannon, a junior in high school, was recently suspended from school for stealing money from ninthgraders, writing graffiti on the bathroom walls, and beating up another student. Shannon's teacher reports that she has very few friends. The most likely diagnosis for Shannon would be a) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. b) antisocial personality disorder. c) oppositional defiant disorder. d) conduct disorder.

Answer: d Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Application

36. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of oppositional-defiant disorder? a) extreme physical aggressiveness b) temper tantrums c) refusing to follow directions d) annoying others deliberately Answer: a Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

37. The difference between conduct disorder and oppositional defiant disorder is a) still a matter of debate. b) the devious, sneaky, behaviors associated with conduct disorder. c) the onset of conduct disorder is earlier. d) conduct disorder is often combined with ADHD, while oppositional defiant disorder is not. Answer: a Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

38. Compared to children with ADHD, children with oppositional defiant disorder a) are more impulsive. b) are more deliberate in their unruly behavior. c) are more likely to be male. d) have more attentional deficits. Answer: b

Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Analysis

39. A disorder that includes behaviors that violate the basic rights of others and violate societal norms is labeled as __________ in the DSM-5. a) internalizing disorder b) ADHD c) conduct disorder d) reactive anxiety Answer: c Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Comprehension

40. Symptoms of conduct disorder include all of the following EXCEPT a) destruction of property. b) aggression to people and animals c) deceitfulness or theft d) inattentiveness Answer: d Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

41. Conduct disorder in childhood may lead to which adult disorder? a) schizophrenia. b) sadistic personality disorder. c) antisocial personality disorder. d) paranoid personality disorder. Answer: c Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

42. Sam is a 16-year-old adolescent who feels that he is unable to be an adult, despite the fact that he's nearly 6 feet, 3 inches tall and has grown a beard. Although he led a “normal” childhood, when he was about 11 he began to get into frequent fights at school and has had trouble with the law 10 times. According to Moffitt, Sam would be categorized as having a) life-course persistent conduct problems. b) adolescence-limited conduct problems. c) antisocial development disorder. d) explosive personality disorder. Answer: b Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Application

43. Both __________ and __________ theories of the etiology of conduct disorder have empirical support. a) genetic; environmental b) behavioral; psychoanalytic c) biochemical; behavioral d) labeling; biological Answer: a Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Comprehension

44. Research on the role of genetics in conduct disorder has found that a) conduct disorder is primarily genetically determined. b) the different behaviors of conduct disorder reflect differential genetic influences. c) the concordance rates of MZ twins are not appreciably different from DZ twins. d) biological factors play a more prominent role in late-onset antisocial behavior than early-onset antisocial behavior. Answer: b

Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Comprehension

45. Which of the following factors were found to be predictive of conduct disorder in a large-scale research study on children from New Zealand? a) being maltreated as children and low birth weight b) presence of low MAOA activity c) low birth weight and being male d) both maltreatment and low MAOA activity Answer: d Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

46. Neuropsychological findings from research on conduct disorder children suggest impairment in all of the following areas EXCEPT: a) memory. b) problem-solving. c) focused attention. d) verbal skills. Answer: c Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

47. According to learning theorists, aggressive behavior is a) both modeled and rewarded in society. b) modeled but not rewarded in society. c) not modeled, but is rewarded in society. d) neither modeled nor rewarded in society. Answer: a Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

48. According to Dodge and Frame (1982), aggressive children demonstrate cognitive biases in situations a) in which peers act aggressively. b) in which peers act in a pro-social manner. c) which are ambiguous. d) in which they are rejected. Answer: c Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

49. Which of the following has NOT been investigated regarding peers and antisocial behavior? a) Competitiveness with peers b) Acceptance by peers c) Rejection by peers d) Affiliation with deviant peers Answer: a Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Analysis

50. Sociocultural perspectives on conduct disorder suggest a) disadvantaged children are very likely to become antisocial. b) disordered thinking is a result of exposure to antisocial acts among disadvantaged groups. c) early antisocial behavior in combination with socioeconomic disadvantage leads to conduct problems. d) there are established ethnic differences in antisocial behavior. Answer: c Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder.

Bloomcode: Knowledge

51. Which of the following has been shown to be a promising treatment for conduct disorders? a) medication b) covert desensitization c) parent-management training d) juvenile justice programs Answer: c Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

52. In the treatment of conduct disorder, the most promising approaches focus on the a) individual. b) family. c) school. d) legal system. Answer: b Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

53. Head Start a) is a federally funded program to prepare low-income children for success in the regular school setting. b) uses medical and psychological interventions only. c) is targeted towards children with developing conduct disorder and ADHD. d) provides meals to needy children. Answer: a Section Reference: Head Start: A Community-Based Prevention Program - Focus on Discovery 13.3 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

54. Compared to other disadvantaged children who attended a different preschool or no preschool, Head Start children a) had significantly improved behavioral and social-cognitive abilities while in the program. b) had significantly higher overall IQs. c) were less socially proactive. d) had similar impulsivity problems. Answer: a Section Reference: Head Start: A Community-Based Prevention Program - Focus on Discovery 13.3 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

55. Multisystemic therapy a) focuses solely on the conduct disordered child. b) is based upon intervention in ecologically valid settings such as home, school, or peer group. c) is a combination of medication and individual therapy. d) is multifaceted in the sense that multiple approaches to family intervention are applied. Answer: b Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Knowledge

56. Depressed children and adults both exhibit which of the following symptoms? a) suicide attempts and guilt b) fatigue and suicidal ideation c) loss of appetite and early morning depression d) delusions Answer: b Section Reference: Internalizing Disorders: Depression and Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for internalizing problems, including depression and anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

57. In comparing adolescent boys and girls with depression, it appears

a) girls are more likely to be depressed. b) boys are more likely to be depressed. c) the rates for boys and girls are the same in adolescence, although in adulthood more women are depressed. d) girls tend to experience more cognitive symptoms of depression, whereas boys tend to experience more psychomotor symptoms of depression. Answer: a Section Reference: Internalizing Disorders: Depression and Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for internalizing problems, including depression and anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

58. Depressed children and their parents a) tend to avoid conflict. b) have more negative interactions. c) have less supportive relationships, but are generally free of conflict. d) frequently have over involved relationships. Answer: b Section Reference: Internalizing Disorders: Depression and Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for internalizing problems, including depression and anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

59. A recent randomized clinical trial comparing Prozac, CBT, and both for teenagers with depression found that a) Prozac alone was most effective in reducing depressive symptoms. b) CBT alone was more effective in reducing depressive symptoms. c) CBT alone resulted in more suicide attempts. d) Combined treatment was most effective in reducing depressive symptoms. Answer: d Section Reference: Internalizing Disorders: Depression and Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for internalizing problems, including depression and anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

60. Penelope is a 9-year-old girl who has had the following symptoms for the past month: lack of interest in her friends, loss of appetite and weight, tearfulness, and difficulty concentrating. Which of the following treatments would most likely be effective in treating her problem? a) antidepressant medication and cognitive-behavioral therapy b) multisystemic treatment c) social skills training d) psychodynamic psychotherapy Answer: a Section Reference: Internalizing Disorders: Depression and Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for internalizing problems, including depression and anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Applied

61. John was diagnosed as having selective mutism. This means that he a) has a communication disorder that makes him unable to talk. b) refuses to speak in unfamiliar social circumstances. c) communicates to his parents and other family members with gestures only. d) has created his own language; this disorder is common in twins. Answer: b Section Reference: Internalizing Disorders: Depression and Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for internalizing problems, including depression and anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Application

62. Generally speaking, children exposed to trauma a) do not re-experience the traumatic events or avoid trauma-related situations as adults do. b) almost always develop PTSD. c) rarely develop PTSD. d) experience the same symptoms as adults exposed to trauma. Answer: d Section Reference: Internalizing Disorders: Depression and Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for internalizing problems, including depression and anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

63. Which of the following symptoms manifest in children with PTSD, but usually not in adults with PTSD? a) sleep problems b) extreme temper tantrums c) flashbacks d) hopelessness Answer: b Section Reference: Internalizing Disorders: Depression and Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for internalizing problems, including depression and anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Synthesis

64. Research on the role of parenting in the etiology of anxiety disorders in youth suggests a) parenting is crucial in determining anxiety in children. b) over-controlling parenting almost always results in social phobia in children. c) parenting practices play a small role in childhood anxiety. d) how parents discipline their children has a strong effect on the development of childhood anxiety. Answer: c Section Reference: Internalizing Disorders: Depression and Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for internalizing problems, including depression and anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Evaluation

65. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of separation anxiety disorder a) Desire to sleep away from home. bRefusal to go to school, work or elsewhere. c) Repeated and excessive distress when separated. d) Nightmares about separation from attachment figure Answer: a Section Reference: Internalizing Disorders: Depression and Anxiety Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for internalizing problems, including depression and anxiety disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

66. Children with learning disabilities typically have __________ intelligence.

a) severely deficient b) slightly below average c) average to above-average intelligence d) none of the above; learning disabilities are equally distributed across all levels of intelligence Answer: c Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder and Intellectual Disability Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Understand the description, etiology, and treatments for dyslexia and intellectual disability. Bloomcode: Knowledge

67. Children with specific learning disorder in reading, better known as dyslexia, a) have global difficulties with reading. b) primarily struggle with proper orientation of letters. c) do not have the disorder as adults. d) often cannot achieve academically. Answer: a Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder and Intellectual Disability Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Understand the description, etiology, and treatments for dyslexia and intellectual disability. Bloomcode: Knowledge

68. Which of the following may explain why an fMRI study of Chinese children with dyslexia failed to find problems in the temporoparietal area of the brain during reading tasks? a) This study evaluated only 10 children. b) The differences between Chinese and English languages. c) The study examining Chinese children used older fMRI techniques. d) Reading Chinese relies less on visual processing than reading English. Answer: b Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder and Intellectual Disability Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Understand the description, etiology, and treatments for dyslexia and intellectual disability. Bloomcode: Knowledge

69. Typical treatment of specific learning disorder consists of a) specialized diet and medication to improve brain functioning. b) individualized instruction and practice in the deficient skill.

c) systematic reinforcement of the desired academic behavior. d) instruction in other skills that compensate for the deficiency. Answer: b Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder and Intellectual Disability Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Understand the description, etiology, and treatments for dyslexia and intellectual disability. Bloomcode: Knowledge

70. A diagnosis of intellectual developmental disorder may not be made if the problem begins a) after age 6. b) after age 12. c) after age 18. d) after age 21. Answer: c Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder and Intellectual Disability Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Understand the description, etiology, and treatments for dyslexia and intellectual disability. Bloomcode: Knowledge

71. Intellectual developmental disorder is diagnosed based upon a) parent and teacher reports. b) psychological test scores. c) measures of sensory-motor abilities by a pediatrician. d) a psychiatrist’s evaluation. Answer: b Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder and Intellectual Disability Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Understand the description, etiology, and treatments for dyslexia and intellectual disability. Bloomcode: Knowledge

72. The American Association on Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities recommends an individualized assessment a) in terms of overall ability to function in society. b) using tests free of cultural/ethnic bias. c) of a person’s specific skills and needs across many areas. d) in coordination with parents and teachers.

Answer: c Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder and Intellectual Disability Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Understand the description, etiology, and treatments for dyslexia and intellectual disability. Bloomcode: Knowledge

73. In its classification system, the American Association on Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities focuses on a) categorizing levels of intellectual developmental disorder by IQ and adaptive functioning level. b) categorizing subtypes of intellectual developmental disorder based on etiology. c) reducing the stigmatizing effects of labeling by describing only strengths and no weaknesses. d) determining what resources would maximize a person’s functioning. Answer: d Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder and Intellectual Disability Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Understand the description, etiology, and treatments for dyslexia and intellectual disability. Bloomcode: Knowledge

74. Down syndrome is the result of a) environmental insult, usually during the birth process. b) a recessive-gene disease. c) a specific chromosomal abnormality. d) none of the above. Answer: c Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder and Intellectual Disability Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Understand the description, etiology, and treatments for dyslexia and intellectual disability. Bloomcode: Knowledge 75. “Fragile X” is commonly due to a a) mutation in the X-chromosome. b) fragile psychological state that leads to intellectual disability. c) brief period where there was limited exposure to oxygenated air. d) metabolic disorder. Answer: a

Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder and Intellectual Disability Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Understand the description, etiology, and treatments for dyslexia and intellectual disability. Bloomcode: Knowledge

76. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is the result of a(n) a) infectious disease during pregnancy. b) specific chromosomal abnormality. c) recessive gene. d) fragile X syndrome. Answer: c Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder and Intellectual Disability Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Learning Objective: Understand the description, etiology, and treatments for dyslexia and intellectual disability. Bloomcode: Knowledge

77. It is recommended that people with phenylketonuria (PKU) a) be kept on a special diet to prevent intellectual developmental disorder. b) be educated at home since the disease is highly infectious. c) not marry, since their offspring will almost certainly be mentally retarded. d) undergo frequent blood tests to determine whether their lithium levels are within safe limits. Answer: a Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder and Intellectual Disability Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Understand the description, etiology, and treatments for dyslexia and intellectual disability. Bloomcode: Knowledge

78. If a pregnant woman is exposed to an infectious disease, the a) fetus will be affected only if the mother is symptomatic while pregnant. b) mother’s immune system will protect the fetus. c) child has a greater chance of developing Down syndrome. d) consequences of the disease are most serious during the first trimester. Answer: d Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder and Intellectual Disability Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Understand the description, etiology, and treatments for dyslexia and intellectual disability. Bloomcode: Knowledge

79. Wanda, a 12-year-old girl with severe intellectual disability, was taught to dress herself using the following approach: First, her teacher broke down the behavior of getting dressed into a number of smaller steps, like pulling the neck hole over her head, putting her arm into a shirt sleeve, and then putting the other arm in. Each step was then demonstrated to Wanda, and she was rewarded for each small movement toward the goal. This approach is called a) behavioral rehearsal. b) applied behavior analysis. c) self-instructional training. d) behavior contracting. Answer: b Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder and Intellectual Disability Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Understand the description, etiology, and treatments for dyslexia and intellectual disability. Bloomcode: Application

80. Cognitive-behavior therapy in children with intellectual disability a) is the primary method used for teaching them self-care skills. b) is combined with insight therapies to help them understand and cope with rejection. c) focuses on teaching the children to use self-instruction to guide their academic efforts. d) is inappropriate, since such children are unable to grasp the concepts. Answer: c Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder and Intellectual Disability Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Understand the description, etiology, and treatments for dyslexia and intellectual disability. Bloomcode: Knowledge

81. Jim, a 10-year-old boy with intellectual disability, must learn how to spell simple words. However, Jim is highly distractable and has no one around who is willing to sit with him and repeatedly go over such a simple task. Jim would likely benefit from a) applied behavior analysis. b) Ritalin. c) computer-assisted instruction. d) both a and c Answer: d

Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder and Intellectual Disability Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Understand the description, etiology, and treatments for dyslexia and intellectual disability. Bloomcode: Application

82. Autism was first identified by a) Sigmund Freud. b) Leo Kanner. c) Emil Kraepelin. d) Eugen Blueler. Answer: b Section Reference: A Brief History of Autism Spectrum Disorder: Focus on Discovery 13.4. Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

83. Autism spectrum disorder is more common among a) upper socioeconomic classes. b) Caucasian children. c) boys. d) learning disabled children. Answer: c Section Reference: Autism Spectrum Disorder Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

84. What is the best diagnostic label for Misha? At six years of age, she does not play with other children and turns away when they approach her. She spends much of her time spinning a pencil endlessly in her fingers. She does not talk to others, although she does sing jingles from TV commercials. a) intellectual disability b) expressive language disorder c) autism spectrum disorder d) specific learning disorder Answer: c Section Reference: Autism Spectrum Disorder Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. Bloomcode: Application

85. The fundamental characteristic of autism spectrum disorder is a) intolerance for routines. b) not relating to others. c) intellectual disability. d) poor gross motor skills. Answer: b Section Reference: Autism Spectrum Disorder Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

86. Generally, children with intellectual disability show __________ deficits in intellectual functioning while children with autism spectrum disorder show __________ deficits. a) overall; primarily social and language b) primarily social and language; overall c) overall; only visual-spatial d) visual-spatial; overall Answer: a Section Reference: Autism Spectrum Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge 87. A “high-functioning” individual with autism spectrum disorder most likely has a) a peer group and is able to attend regular schools. b) an IQ score of over 130. c) an IQ score of over 80. d) a very good long-term memory. Answer: c Section Reference: Autism Spectrum Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

88. When completing face perception or identity tasks, fMRI studies of autistic children have found that

a) autistic children can easily recognize faces, but just cannot express this knowledge. b) the areas of the brain associated with the identification of faces were not activated. c) the fusiform gyrus is overactive, indicating that despite not paying attention to people’s faces, these children can identify them. d) these children have overactive amygdalae. Answer: b Section Reference: Autism Spectrum Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

89. fMRI studies of autistic people’s reactions to facial expressions of emotions show a) no activation in emotion centers of the brain. b) that autistic people biologically perceive faces in the same manner as non-autistic people. c) increased activation in the frontal lobe. d) that the autistic brain is incapable of perceiving facial expressions. Answer: a Section Reference: Autism Spectrum Disorder Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

90. Joan, an autistic child, reacts to her mother’s expression of pain by withdrawing from her. This reaction a) is atypical of autistic children. b) is Joan’s way of expressing sympathy. c) supports the idea that Joan lacks theory of mind. d) is indicative of a more serious disturbance underlying Joan’s autism, such as childhood disintegrative disorder. Answer: c Section Reference: Autism Spectrum Disorder Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. Bloomcode: Application 91. What term is used to describe the following communication? Mother: “Would you like to play with this?” Child: “Would you like to play with this?” a) pronoun reversal

b) echolalia c) alogia d) extreme autistic aloneness Answer: b Section Reference: Autism Spectrum Disorder Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. Bloomcode: Application 92. What term is used to describe the following communication: Teacher: “What are you playing with, Carl?” Carl: “He’s playing ball.” a) poverty of speech b) pronoun reversal c) echolalia d) alogia Answer: b Section Reference: Autism Spectrum Disorder Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. Bloomcode: Application

93. An autistic person’s preoccupation with repetitive and ritualistic acts is thought to be a) a form of self-soothing. b) a kind of stimulating activity. c) akin to compulsions in obsessive-compulsive disorder. d) tics. Answer: b Section Reference: Autism Spectrum Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

94. In what year was Autism identified a) 1933 b) 1940 c1943 d) 1953 Answer: c

Section Reference: Autism Spectrum Disorder Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

95. According to Oliver Sacks, Temple Grandin, despite her great successes, a) still struggles with severe symptoms and appears depressed. b) does not appear to understand social interactions. c) may have a different form of psychopathology. d) is actually completely recovered from autism, thus her ability to succeed. Answer: b Section Reference: The Story of a Woman Living with Autism Spectrum Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

96. The most important factor in the etiology of autism spectrum disorder appears to be a) auditory and visual deficits. b) prenatal hormones. c) faulty parenting. d) genetic heritability. Answer: d Section Reference: Autism Spectrum Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

97. Twin studies of people with autism a) have been inconclusive. b) have found between 47 and 90% concordance for ASD between identical twins, compared with concordance rates of 0 to 20% between fraternal twins c) are often carried out with poor methodologies. d) None of the above; twin studies have yet to be conducted on this rare disorder. Answer: b Section Reference: Autism Spectrum Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

98. Most autistic children are born with a) a larger than normal head circumference. b) heart problems. c) brains of a relatively normal size. d) less neurons than normal. Answer: c Section Reference: Autism Spectrum Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

99. Neurological studies have found abnormalities in which part of the brains of autistic individuals? a) prefrontal cortex b) left hemisphere language centers c) cerebellum d) limbic system Answer: c Section Reference: Autism Spectrum Disorder Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

100. The Parkers read about Ivar Lovaas’ pioneering work with autistic children and were relieved when he agreed to accept their son into his program. What type of treatment would the Parker's autistic boy be likely to receive in Lovaas’ clinic? a) a supportive, loving milieu program within a residential setting b) careful attention to diet and treatment with fenfluramine c) group therapy geared toward encouraging the children to express their anger and frustration more openly d) behavior therapy based on social-learning principles Answer: d Section Reference: Autism Spectrum Disorder Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. Bloomcode: Application

101. Lovaas’ program of behavioral treatment of autistic children

a) takes one full day each week. b) requires the child be hospitalized periodically. c) includes parenting skills training for parents. d) has yielded dramatic improvements. Answer: d Section Reference: Autism Spectrum Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

102. Education provided by parents to their autistic children as part of a behavioral treatment program is more effective than education provided by clinics because a) parents command more authority. b) parents are present in various situations. c) parents can ensure that behaviors are targeted in the appropriate sequential manner. d) all of the above. Answer: b Section Reference: Autism Spectrum Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

103. The most common medication prescribed for autism is a) antipsychotic medication. b) stimulant medication. c) antidepressants. d) drugs which lower serotonin levels. Answer: a Section Reference: Autism Spectrum Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

104. What is the prevalence of Autism Spectrum Disorder? a) 1 out of every 58 children b) 1 out of every 68 children c) 1 out of every 48 children d) 1 out of every 38 children

Answer: c Section Reference: Autism Spectrum Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

105. At the present time, medication interventions are __________ behavioral intervention programs in treating autism. a) less effective than b) more effective than c) as effective as d) none of the above; effectiveness depends on the individual patient's characteristics Answer: a Section Reference: Autism Spectrum Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

106. Rather than including a single diagnosis for dyslexia, the DSM-5 a) combines it with other problems into Specific Learning Disorders. b) clarifies subtypes of reading disorders based on age of onset. c) clarifies subtypes of reading disorders based on gender. d) includes most reading problems with intellectual disability. Answer: a Section Reference: Classification and Diagnosis of Childhood Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the issues in the diagnosis of psychopathology in children. Bloomcode: Analysis

107. Children diagnosed with ADHD are about how many times more likely to blurt our answers in a classroom a) twice as likely. b) three times as likely. c) four times as likely. d) five or more times as likely. Answer: d

Section Reference: Table 13.1 Behaviors in Adolescents With and Without ADHD Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the issues in the diagnosis of psychopathology in children. Bloomcode: Knowledge

108. Seemingly purposeless movements in children repeated over and over that interfere with functioning are known as ____________________________________. a) Autism b) Stereotypic movement disorder c) ADHD d) Conduct disorder Answer: b Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder and Intellectual Disability Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Understand the description, etiology, and treatments for dyslexia and intellectual disability. Bloomcode: Knowledge

109. Which of these criteria are not required for the diagnosis of intellectual disability? a) Intellectual deficit two or more standard deviations below average. b) Includes deficits in adaptive behaviors. c) Onset must occur during development. d) Relativity to the person’s age and cultural group. Answer: a Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder and Intellectual Disability Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Understand the description, etiology, and treatments for dyslexia and intellectual disability. Bloomcode: Knowledge

110. Which of these is not part of the three broad categories that The American Association on Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities (AAIDD) defines as part of intellectual disability? a) Academic b) Practical c) Conceptual d) Social

Answer: a Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder and Intellectual Disability Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Understand the description, etiology, and treatments for dyslexia and intellectual disability. Bloomcode: Knowledge

Question Type: Short Answer

111. Which DSM-IV-TR diagnoses make up the new DSM-5 diagnosis of autism spectrum disorders? Answer: Asperger’s Syndrome, Childhood Disintegrative Disorder, Autism, and Pervasive Developmental Disorder Not Otherwise Specified Section Reference: Autism Spectrum Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

Question Type: Essay

112. How do externalizing disorders differ from learning disabilities? Are there any possible similarities? What might they have in common? Answer: Section Reference: Classification and Diagnosis of Childhood Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the issues in the diagnosis of psychopathology in children. Bloomcode: Synthesis

113. Describe two different ways to treat conduct disorder. Which treatment approach is more effective? Why? Answer: Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Evaluation

114. Compare and contrast learning disabilities and mental retardation. In what ways are they similar? In what ways are they different? Answer: Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder and Intellectual Disability Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Understand the description, etiology, and treatments for dyslexia and intellectual disability. Bloomcode: Evaluation

115. What are some reasons that autistic children score low on intelligence tests? Answer: Section Reference: Autism Spectrum Disorder Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. Bloomcode: Synthesis

116. Describe the classifications of mental retardation. What is the utility of such a range, and how has the position of the American Association on Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities (AAIDD) changed this position? Answer: Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder and Intellectual Disability Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Understand the description, etiology, and treatments for dyslexia and intellectual disability. Bloomcode: Evaluation

117. Describe three perinatal or prenatal factors that can affect a child’s cognitive development. What steps can be taken to protect a child from these risk factors? Answer: Section Reference: Specific Learning Disorder and Intellectual Disability Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Understand the description, etiology, and treatments for dyslexia and intellectual disability. Bloomcode: Synthesis

118. Compare the etiology of mental retardation with the etiology of autism. Answer:

Section Reference: Autism Spectrum Disorder Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

119. Discuss the research supporting genetic factors for autism. Answer: Section Reference: Autism Spectrum Disorder Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the symptoms, causes, and treatments for autism spectrum disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

120. Present arguments for and against medicating children who have been diagnosed as having psychological disorders. Answer: Section Reference: Externalizing Disorders: ADHD and Conduct Disorder Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Discuss the description, etiology, and treatments for externalizing problems, including ADHD and conduct disorder. Bloomcode: Synthesis

Package Title: Ch 14 Testbank Course Title: Kring, Abnormal Psych 14e Chapter Number: 14

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1. Ageism refers to a) the physical deterioration that accompanies old age. b) the intellectual deterioration that frequently occurs as a person ages. c) the diversity present among older adults. d) prejudice against a person based on their age. Answer: d Section Reference: Aging: Myths, Problems, and Methods Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Knowledge 2. The age at which one is considered ‘old,’ currently 65, is based upon a) clear biological changes that begin at about that age. b) social policy. c) the age at which individuals begin to refer to themselves as old. d) a scientific standard. Answer: b Section Reference: Aging: Myths, Problems, and Methods Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Knowledge

3. About 40% of the elderly experience polypharmacy where they are prescribed a) 1 or 2 prescriptions b) 2 or 3 prescriptions c) 3 or 4 prescriptions d) 5 or more prescriptions Answer: d Section Reference: Aging: Myths, Problems, and Methods Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Knowledge

4. All of these are myths about older adults except a) most are lonely. b) most are unhappy. c) most complain about minor physical symptoms. d) many may have mild cognitive losses. Answer: d Section Reference: Aging: Myths, Problems, and Methods Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Knowledge

5. People spend billions of dollars per year on cosmetics and __________ to reduce signs of aging. a) plastic surgery b) medication c) hypnosis d) perfumes Answer: a Section Reference: Aging: Myths, Problems, and Methods Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Knowledge

6. Approximately __________ percent of practicing psychologists conduct clinical work with older adults. a) 20 b) 40 c) 50 d) 70 Answer: b Section Reference: Aging: Myths, Problems, and Methods Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging.

Bloomcode: Knowledge

7. Compared with young people, people over the age of 60 tend to a) experience more negative emotion. b) experience less negative emotion. c) experience more physiological reactivity in response to emotionally charged topics. d) report more somatic symptoms. Answer: b Section Reference: Aging: Myths, Problems, and Methods Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Knowledge

8. Older people are likely to underreport __________, perhaps because of beliefs that these are inevitable parts of life. a) sore muscles b) somatic symptoms c) dizziness d) absent-mindedness Answer: b Section Reference: Aging: Myths, Problems, and Methods Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Knowledge

9. Social selectivity refers to a) cultivating only one's most important social relationships. b) restricting one's social interactions only to family members. c) seeking out new social interactions. d) seeking out solitary social activities. Answer: a Section Reference: Aging: Myths, Problems, and Methods Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Knowledge

10. Which of the following medical problems is a particular problem for many older adults? a) kidney disease b) lung cancer c) high blood pressure d) insomnia Answer: d Section Reference: Aging: Myths, Problems, and Methods Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Knowledge

11. Which of the following statements is an example of a time-of-measurement effect? a) Today’s older adults are less likely to seek mental health services because when they were growing up, mental illness was stigmatized. b) Because exercise has become widely promoted in the media, many older adults are now exercising and thus are healthier than predicted by earlier measures of their physical well-being. c) Because of the effects of aging on the brain, older adults do worse than younger adults on measures of “fluid” intelligence. d) In a longitudinal study, many of the elderly subjects died before the follow-up data was collected. Answer: b Section Reference: Research Methods in the Study of Aging Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Application

12. Deterioration of cognitive abilities among the elderly, to the point that social and occupational functions are impaired, is called a) absent-mindedness. b) dementia. c) age-related forgetting. d) none of the above. Answer: b Section Reference: Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. Bloomcode: Knowledge

13. The course of dementia may be all of the following EXCEPT a) progressive. b) static. c) remitting. d) The course of dementia may include all of the above. Answer: d Section Reference: Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms, etiology, and treatment of differing forms of dementia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

14. The most prominent symptom of dementia is a) difficulty remembering things. b) disorientation. c) aggressive behavior. d) depression. Answer: a Section Reference: Dementia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms, etiology, and treatment of differing forms of dementia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

15. A state of great mental confusion is called a) deterioration. b) delirium. c) deregulation. d) all of the above. Answer: b Section Reference: Delirium Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: List the symptoms, etiology, and treatment of delirium. Bloomcode: Knowledge

16. A group of people age 40 is compared to a group age 70. This type of research is called a) longitudinal. b) time-of-measurement.

c) cross-sectional. d) cohort effect. Answer: c Section Reference: Research Methods in the Study of Aging Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Knowledge

17. As the hippies of the 1960s reach old age, research may find increased drug abuse among older adults. This increase would be a(n) a) age effect. b) cohort effect. c) longitudinal effect. d) time-of-measurement effect. Answer: b Section Reference: Research Methods in the Study of Aging Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Applied

18. In cross-sectional research on aging, a) two age groups are compared at one point in time. b) people with different mental disorders are compared at one point in time. c) the same group of people is followed over time. d) people from different cultures are compared at one point in time. Answer: a Section Reference: Research Methods in the Study of Aging Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Knowledge

19. Longitudinal studies involve a) testing several different age groups on two or more measures. b) testing age effects vs. cohort effects in a population. c) testing one cohort over time. d) testing the effects of time-of-measurement.

Answer: c Section Reference: Research Methods in the Study of Aging Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Knowledge

20. Which of the following statements is an example of selective mortality? a) Today’s older adults are less likely to seek mental health services because when they were growing up, mental illness was stigmatized. b) Because exercise has become widely promoted in the media, many older adults are now exercising and thus healthier than predicted by earlier measures of their physical well-being. c) Because of the effects of aging on the brain, older adults do worse than younger adults on measures of “fluid” intelligence. d) In a longitudinal study, many of the elderly subjects died before the follow-up data was collected. Answer: d Section Reference: Methodological Issues in Estimating the Prevalence of Psychopathology Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. Bloomcode: Application

21. What percentage of people 60 and older have a medical condition that causes severe disability a) 40 b) 50 c) 70 d) 80 Answer: b Section Reference: The Problems experienced in Late Life Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Knowledge

22. The prescribing of multiple drugs to a person is called a) drugging. b) polypharmacy. c) over-dosage. d) all of the above.

Answer: b Section Reference: The Problems Experienced in Late Life Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Knowledge

23. Psychoactive drugs can be dangerous when used with the elderly because a) they are not tested on the elderly, only on young people. b) side effects are more common. c) toxicity is more of a problem. d) all of the above. Answer: d Section Reference: The Problems Experienced in Late Life Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Knowledge

24. The consequences of being a certain chronological age are called a) age effects. b) cohort effects. c) time-of-measurement effects. d) none of these answers are correct. Answer: a Section Reference: Research Methods in the Study of Aging Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Knowledge

25. The consequences of growing up during a particular time period with its unique challenges and opportunities are called a) age effects. b) cohort effects. c) time-of-measurement effects. d) none of these answers are correct. Answer: b

Section Reference: Research Methods in the Study of Aging Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Knowledge

26. Impairment in which of the following areas is the most prominent symptom of dementia? a) memory b) abstract thinking c) judgment d) language Answer: a Section Reference: Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms, etiology, and treatment of differing forms of dementia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

27. What is an early sign of Alzheimer’s disease? a) loss of sensation or motor control on one side of the body b) difficulty comprehending speech c) difficulty remembering new material d) clouded states of consciousness Answer: c Section Reference: Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. Bloomcode: Knowledge

28. Alzheimer’s disease is the result of a) age-based slowing of all bodily processes. b) low social and intellectual stimulation. c) tangled abnormal protein filaments called neurofibrillary tangles. d) side-effects of long-term medication, such as anti-Parkinson’s medication. Answer: c Section Reference: Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. Bloomcode: Knowledge

29. In what brain areas are abnormalities found in Alzheimer’s patients? a) frontal cortex b) sensory cortical areas c) hippocampus d) both a and c Answer: d Section Reference: Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. Bloomcode: Knowledge

30. Alzheimer’s disease is partly characterized by a) plaques between neurons. b) pick bodies within neurons. c) cerebellum deterioration. d) swelling of the cortex. Answer: a Section Reference: Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. Bloomcode: Knowledge

31. Plaques, which develop as part of Alzheimer’s disease, are a) protein deposits that are outside neurons. b) cholesterol remains from poor diet. c) composed of serotonin and fatty deposits. d) equivalent to neurofibrillary tangles. Answer: a Section Reference: Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. Bloomcode: Knowledge

32. Which of the following has been shown to play a role in the development of Alzheimer’s disease? a) head injury b) immune system functioning c) an abnormality on chromosome 19 d) all of the above Answer: c Section Reference: Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. Bloomcode: Knowledge

33. Which of the following may be protective against Alzheimer’s disease? a) a healthy diet and no smoking b) continued engagement in cognitive activities c) an active lifestyle involving daily exercise and social interaction d) all of the above Answer: d Section Reference: Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. Bloomcode: Analysis

34. Frontal-temporal dementias (FTD) are characterized by a) early-onset Alzheimer’s disease. b) primarily acetylcholine disturbance. c) problems with executive function such as planning and problem solving. d) Huntington’s chorea. Answer: c Section Reference: Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. Bloomcode: Knowledge

35. Dementia with Lewy bodies can be divided into the following subtypes:

a) occurring with Alzheimer’s or occurring without Alzheimer’s b) occurring with Alzheimer’s or occurring with Parkinson’s c) occurring with Parkinson’s and occurring without Parkinson’s d) none of the above Answer: c Section Reference: Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. Bloomcode: Knowledge

36. The symptoms of dementia with Lewy bodies are similar to those of a) Parkinson’s. b) Alzheimer’s. c) Huntington’s chorea. d) Both a and b. Answer: d Section Reference: Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. Bloomcode: Knowledge

37. Which of the following diseases can produce dementia? a) meningitis b) encephalitis c) HIV d) all of the above Answer: d Section Reference: Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. Bloomcode: Knowledge

38. Standard treatment for Alzheimer’s disease includes a) behavior therapy to maintain cognitive skills. b) helping the victim recognize deterioration and make plans.

c) drugs to reduce toxic neurotransmitter levels. d) drugs to increase acetylcholine levels. Answer: d Section Reference: Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms, etiology, and treatment of differing forms of dementia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

39. Psychological treatments for individuals with Alzheimer’s a) focus on helping the individual admit to and understand their cognitive deficiencies and limitations. b) are usually psychodynamic. c) focus on helping patients and families deal with the effects of the disease. d) can remove their memory deficits. Answer: c Section Reference: Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms, etiology, and treatment of differing forms of dementia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

40. Compared with care-giving for other disorders, care-giving for people with __________ requires much more time. a) delirium b) schizophrenia c) bipolar disorder d) dementia Answer: d Section Reference: Support for Caregivers − Focus on Discovery 14.1 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. Bloomcode: Knowledge

41. Which of the following predicts resiliency among caregivers? a) When the patient has more severe behavioral problems. b) When the caregiver has high levels of social support. c) When the caregiver works in mental health services. d) When the caregiver is committed to changing the behavior of the patient. Answer: b

Section Reference: Support for Caregivers − Focus on Discovery 14.1 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. Bloomcode: Knowledge

42. Delirium, but not dementia, is characterized by a) slow onset. b) cognitive confusion. c) daily fluctuations d) poor judgment. Answer: c Section Reference: Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: List the symptoms, etiology, and treatment of delirium. Bloomcode: Analysis

43. After being released from a brief hospitalization for minor surgery, 70-year-old Mrs. Bee seemed distractible and disoriented. She did not even recognize her husband when he came to pick her up from the hospital. After they returned home, they discussed their plans for the weekend and Mrs. Bee seemed fine, but as night came on, she could not sleep and began accusing Mr. Bee of throwing away her belongings while she was away. Which of the following disorders best fits Mrs. Bee's symptoms? a) delusional (paranoid) disorder b) early dementia, probably Alzheimer’s disease c) delirium d) depression Answer: c Section Reference: Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: List the symptoms, etiology, and treatment of delirium. Bloomcode: Application

44. Delirium can occur only a) after age 70. b) following a stroke. c) after a significant life stressor such as loss of a spouse. d) None of the above. Delirium can occur at any time. Answer: d

Section Reference: Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: List the symptoms, etiology, and treatment of delirium. Bloomcode: Knowledge

45. Stress following surgery is a common precipitant for the onset of a) Alzheimer’s disease. b) delirium. c) Parkinson's disease. d) hydrocephalus. Answer: b Section Reference: Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: List the symptoms, etiology, and treatment of delirium. Bloomcode: Knowledge

46. If you are talking to a person with delirium, it may feel as if you are talking a) to someone who has suffered amnesia. b) to a child. c) to someone who is depressed. d) to someone who is drunk. Answer: d Section Reference: Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: List the symptoms, etiology, and treatment of delirium. Bloomcode: Knowledge

47. Delirium that is not treated a) resolves itself. b) reoccurs. c) can be fatal. d) progresses into dementia. Answer: c Section Reference: Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: List the symptoms, etiology, and treatment of delirium. Bloomcode: Knowledge

48. Individuals with dementia are at high risk for a) delirium. b) meningitis. c) schizophrenia. d) dehydration. Answer: a Section Reference: Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms, etiology, and treatment of differing forms of dementia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

49. Which of the following is not a reason for why rates of psychopathology are so low late in life? a) Older adults may underreport symptoms. b) Cohort effects. c) People with mental illness are at risk for early death. d) Dementia masks most other psychopathology. Answer: d Section Reference: Estimating the Prevalence of Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. Bloomcode: Knowledge

50. More than __________ percent of older adults with generalized anxiety disorder reported that their anxiety symptoms began before the age of 65. a. 25 b) 50 c) 70 d) 97 Answer: d Section Reference: Estimating the Prevalence of Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. Bloomcode: Knowledge

51. Which of the following is NOT a methodological issue when studying psychological disorders in late adulthood?

a) selective mortality b) response biases c) cohort effects d) lack of anonymity Answer: d Section Reference: Methodological Issues in Estimating the Prevalence of Psychopathology Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. Bloomcode: Knowledge

52. Adults with diagnoses of psychological disorders are more likely to die earlier due to a) substance abuse b) cardiovascular disease c) compromised immune function d) all of the above Answer: d Section Reference: Methodological Issues in Estimating the Prevalence of Psychopathology Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. Bloomcode: Knowledge

53. Depression in older adults differs from depression in younger adults by having higher levels of a) cognitive symptoms. b) suicidal ideation. c) hostility. d) agitation. Answer: a Section Reference: Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. Bloomcode: Knowledge

54. Depression in older adults is often linked to a) medical illnesses. b) dopamine changes. c) retirement.

d) social isolation. Answer: a Section Reference: Methodological Issues in Estimating the Prevalence of Psychopathology Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. Bloomcode: Knowledge

55. Which of the following is not an established intervention for depression in older adults? a) psychotherapy b) antidepressant medication c) St. John’s wort d) electroconvulsive therapy Answer: c Section Reference: Delirium Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms, etiology, and treatment of dementia and delirium. Bloomcode: Analysis

56. The idea that some people may be able to compensate for neurocognitive diseases by using alternative brain networks or cognitive strategies such that cognitive symptoms are less pronounced is called a) cognitive reserve b) cognitive adjustment c) mental compensation d) none of the above Answer: a Section Reference: Dementia Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the symptoms, etiology, and treatment of differing forms of dementia. Bloomcode: Knowledge

57. The DSM-5 criteria for delirium include of the following criteria EXCEPT a) disturbance in attention and awareness. b) a change in cognition, not better accounted for by a dementia. c) symptoms caused by Alzheimer’s disease. d) evidence that symptoms are caused by a medical condition. Answer: c

Section Reference: Delirium Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: List the symptoms, etiology, and treatment of delirium. Bloomcode: Knowledge

58. The difference between dementia and delirium is that a) dementia is a gradual deterioration. b) delirium has a rapid onset. c) dementia is not explained by another medical condition. d) all of the above. Answer: d Section Reference: Delirium Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: List the symptoms, etiology, and treatment of delirium. Bloomcode: Knowledge

59. One of the most common triggers of delirium is a) surgery. b) loneliness. c) loss of employment. d) none of the above. Answer: a Section Reference: Delirium Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: List the symptoms, etiology, and treatment of delirium. Bloomcode: Knowledge 60. All of the following are inevitable changes of aging EXCEPT a) physiological changes b) financial changes. c) emotional changes. d) mental changes. Answer: b Section Reference: Aging: Myths, Problems, and Methods Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Comprehension

61. Elderly are defined as being over the age of a) 50. b) 55. c) 60. d) 65. Answer: d Section Reference: Aging: Myths, Problems, and Methods Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Comprehension

62. In 2009 there were 50,000 people 100 years old, in 2050 there is expected to be a) 1,000,000. b) 800,000. c) 500,000. d) 250,000. Answer: b Section Reference: Aging: Myths, Problems, and Methods Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Comprehension

63. All of the following are problems of the elderly EXCEPT a) physical decline. b) sensory acuity deficits. c) loss of loved ones. d) inevitable dementia. Answer: d Section Reference: Aging: Myths, Problems, and Methods Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Comprehension

Question Type: True or False

64. True or False: The speed of population aging is more rapid outside the United states a) True b) False Answer: a Section Reference: Aging: Myths, Problems, and Methods Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Knowledge

65. True or False: It is a common belief that people will become doddering and befuddled when they reach old age a) True b) False Answer: a Section Reference: Aging: Myths, Problems, and Methods Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Knowledge

66. True or False: The older we get the lonely we are likely to become a) True b) False Answer: b Section Reference: Aging: Myths, Problems, and Methods Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Knowledge

67. True or False: The peak of information processing for humans is about 25 years old a) True b) False Answer: b Section Reference: Aging: Myths, Problems, and Methods Difficulty: Easy

68. True or False: Elderly are more skilled at regulating their emotions a) True b) False Answer: a Section Reference: Aging: Myths, Problems, and Methods Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Knowledge

69. True or False: The amount of social activities that older people engage in is directly related to they personal happiness a) True b) False Answer: b Section Reference: Aging: Myths, Problems, and Methods Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Knowledge

70. True or False: When we have less time ahead of us we tend to place a lower value on emotional intimacy a) True b) False Answer: b Section Reference: Aging: Myths, Problems, and Methods Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Knowledge

Question Type: Essay

71. Describe cohort effects, time-of-measurement effects, and age effects. How do these issues figure into research with older adults? Answer: Section Reference: Research Methods in the Study of Aging Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Analysis

72. Distinguish between dementia and delirium. Answer: Section Reference: Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Evaluation

73. What factors have contributed to the stereotypes associated with dementia and delirium among older adults? Answer: Section Reference: Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Synthesis

74. How would a practitioner distinguish among delusional disorder, delirium, and dementia in an older adult? Answer: Section Reference: Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Synthesis

75. Discuss the different treatment care options for families with older adult members requiring treatment beyond that possible in the home.

Answer: Type: Comprehension Section Reference: Support for Caregivers - Focus on Discovery 14.1 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. Bloomcode: Comprehension

76. Discuss the contributions of members of an interdisciplinary team toward the treatment of older adults. Answer: Section Reference: Support for Caregivers − Focus on Discovery 14.1 Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly, and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. Bloomcode: Evaluation 77. Discuss the progression of Alzheimer’s disease symptoms from onset to death. Answer: Section Reference: Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Explain the symptoms, etiology, and treatment of dementia and delirium. Bloomcode: Synthesis

78. Discuss the options older adults have for living arrangements. Answer: Section Reference: Aging: Myths, Problems, and Methods Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Evaluation

79. Discuss the problem of polypharmacy and brainstorm some suggestions for avoiding this problem. Answer: Section Reference: The Problems Experienced in Late Life Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Differentiate common misconceptions from established findings about age-related changes, and discuss methodological issues involved in conducting research on aging. Bloomcode: Synthesis

80. Explain the issue of mental illness in late adulthood (onset, distinguishing factors, etc.). Answer:

Section Reference: Estimating the Prevalence of Psychological Disorders in Late Life Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the prevalence of psychological disorders in the elderly and issues involved in estimating the prevalence. Bloomcode: Evaluation

Package Title: Ch 15 Testbank Course Title: Kring, Abnormal Psych 14e Chapter Number: 15

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1.Personality disorders are defined as a) maladaptive behaviors that consistently violate the rights of others. b) long-standing, pervasive, and inflexible patterns of behavior and inner experience that deviate from the expectations of a person’s culture. c) any psychological disorder having an onset before age 12 and recurring at least three times during adult life. d) chronic patterns of extreme instability in relationships, mood, and self-image. Answer: b Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, and key concerns with this approach. Bloomcode: Knowledge

2. The DSM-5 defines __________ personality disorders. a) 5 b) 8 c) 10 d) 13 Answer: c Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, and key concerns with this approach. Bloomcode: Knowledge

3. A concern about the DSM-5 classification system for personality disorders is that a) about half of the people who meet criteria for one personality disorder also meet criteria for another personality disorder. b) some of the disorders are rare in community settings, and even in most clinical settings. c) many people who seem to have a serious personality problem don’t fit any of the personality disorder diagnoses. d) all of the above.

Answer: d Section Reference: Alternative DSM-5 Model for Personality Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the DSM-5 alternative approach to diagnosis. Bloomcode: Knowledge

4. The most prevalent DSM-5 personality disorder in a community setting is a) antisocial personality disorder. b) borderline personality disorder. c) avoidant personality disorder. d) schizotypal personality disorder. Answer: a Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, and key concerns with this approach. Bloomcode: Knowledge

5. The most prevalent personality disorder in a clinical setting is a) antisocial personality disorder. b) borderline personality disorder. c) avoidant personality disorder. d) schizotypal personality disorder. Answer: b Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, and key concerns with this approach. Bloomcode: Knowledge

6. Which of the following DSM personality disorders is more common in males than in females? a) antisocial personality disorder b) borderline personality disorder c) avoidant personality disorder d) obsessive-compulsive personality disorder Answer: a Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, and key concerns with this approach. Bloomcode: Knowledge

7. Compared to normal personality styles, personality disorders are more a) bizarre and out of control. b) dangerous and immoral. c) inborn and physiological. d) pervasive and inflexible. Answer: d Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, and key concerns with this approach. Bloomcode: Knowledge

8. The reliability of diagnosing personality disorders has improved by a) strengthening the theoretical basis for each personality disorder. b) showing an interrelationship with other disorders. c) developing clear diagnostic criteria. d) paying closer attention to their possible presence. Answer: c Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, and key concerns with this approach. Bloomcode: Knowledge

9. Recent research on diagnosing personality disorders indicates that their reliability is a) totally inadequate. b) improved if specialized, structured interviews are used. c) acceptable for antisocial personality disorder, but inadequate for most others. d) better than most diagnostic categories. Answer: b Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, and key concerns with this approach. Bloomcode: Knowledge

10. Women are more likely than men to be diagnosed with __________ personality disorders, and men are more likely than women to be diagnosed with __________ personality disorders. a) antisocial and narcissistic; borderline and histrionic b) borderline and histrionic; antisocial and narcissistic c) obsessive-compulsive and dependent; antisocial and histrionic d) antisocial and narcissistic; obsessive-compulsive and schizoid Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Description and Etiology of the Odd/Eccentric Cluster Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the key features of each of the personality disorders in the odd/eccentric cluster, as well as biological, social, and psychological risk factors that contribute to the odd/eccentric personality disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

11. Unusual and eccentric thoughts and behavior (psychoticism), interpersonal detachment, and suspiciousness are characteristics of the DSM-5 __________ personality disorder. a) schizotypal b) narcissistic c) avoidant d) borderline Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Description and Etiology of the Odd/Eccentric Cluster Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the key features of each of the personality disorders in the odd/eccentric cluster, as well as biological, social, and psychological risk factors that contribute to the odd/eccentric personality disorders.Define the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the anxious/fearful cluster Bloomcode: Knowledge

12. It is common for those diagnosed with schizotypal personality disorder to a) talk to themselves. b) engage in magical thinking. c) dress in dirty or disheveled clothing. d) all of the above. Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Description and Etiology of the Odd/Eccentric Cluster Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Define the key features of each of the personality disorders in the odd/eccentric cluster, as well as biological, social, and psychological risk factors that contribute to the odd/eccentric personality disorders.Define the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the anxious/fearful cluster Bloomcode: Knowledge

13. The symptoms of schizotypal personality disorder are similar to those seen in schizophrenia, but tend to be __________ a) much worse. b) more severe. c) less severe. d) less common. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Description and Etiology of the Odd/Eccentric Cluster Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the key features of each of the personality disorders in the odd/eccentric cluster, as well as biological, social, and psychological risk factors that contribute to the odd/eccentric personality disorders.Define the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the anxious/fearful cluster Bloomcode: Knowledge

14. According to the DSM-5, those diagnosed with schizotypal personality disorder a) have social deficits. b) are anxious in social situations. c) feel like outcasts or outsiders. d) all of these answers are correct. Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Description and Etiology of the Odd/Eccentric Cluster Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the key features of each of the personality disorders in the odd/eccentric cluster, as well as biological, social, and psychological risk factors that contribute to the odd/eccentric personality disorders.Define the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the anxious/fearful cluster Bloomcode: Knowledge

15. The DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for avoidant personality disorder include all of the following EXCEPT: a) positive sense of oneself. b) inhibition in establishing social relationships. c) preoccupation with criticism or rejection. d) fear of disapproval.

Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Description and Etiology of the Anxious/Fearful Cluster Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the anxious/fearful cluster Bloomcode: Knowledge

16. The person with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is a) perfectionistic. b) preoccupied with details. c) focused on rules and schedules. d) all of the above Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Description and Etiology of the Anxious/Fearful Cluster Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the anxious/fearful cluster Bloomcode: Knowledge

17. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder lacks the __________ associated with OCD. a) obsessions and compulsive behavior b) personality c) severity d) relevance Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Description and Etiology of the Anxious/Fearful Cluster Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the anxious/fearful cluster Bloomcode: Knowledge

18. The DSM-5 criteria associated with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder include: a) compulsivity. b) negative affectivity. c) avoidance. d) both a and b. Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Description and Etiology of the Anxious/Fearful Cluster

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the anxious/fearful cluster Bloomcode: Knowledge

19. Antisocial personality disorder has previously been referred to as a) psychopathy/sociopathy. b) evilness. c) antiempathic. d) none of the above. Answer: a Section Reference: Dramatic/Erratic Cluster Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the dramatic/erratic cluster. Bloomcode: Knowledge

20. Peter not only works 70 hours a week, but he spends his off hours planning a schedule for his family. He dictates what time his wife will be home, when dinner will be served, and when they will go to bed. He is such a perfectionist that he actually finds it difficult to get work done efficiently, despite the amount of time he spends trying. Which of the following personality disorders best fits Peter? a) dependent b) narcissistic c) schizoid d) obsessive-compulsive Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Description and Etiology of the Anxious/Fearful Cluster Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Define the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the anxious/fearful cluster Bloomcode: Application

21. Compared to individuals who are not psychopaths, the skin conductance of psychopaths is __________ when they are confronted with an intense or aversive stimulus. a) less reactive b) more reactive c) equally reactive d) more reactive only in those who are criminals Answer: a

Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, and key concerns with this approach. Bloomcode: Knowledge

22. Which of the following is NOT a personality disorder a) Somatoform. b) Schizoid. c) Histrionic. d) Dependent. Answer: a Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, and key concerns with this approach. Bloomcode: Analysis

23. In research on response modulation and psychopathy, psychopaths won or lost money depending on what playing cards appeared. In this research, the impulsivity of psychopaths was studied by a) making them wait before deciding to continue the game. b) having them estimate the amount of money they had won. c) ratings of their verbal statements during the game. d) all of the above Answer: a Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, and key concerns with this approach. Bloomcode: Knowledge

24. Which of the following is NOT a personality disorder a) Paranoid disorder. b) Borderline disorder. c) Dissociative Identity disorder. d) Narcissistic disorder. Answer: c Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification. Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, and key concerns with this approach. Bloomcode: Analysis

25. Convicted felons are most likely to have which of the following disorders? a) borderline personality disorder b) sadistic personality disorder c) histrionic personality disorder d) antisocial personality disorder Answer: d Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, and key concerns with this approach. Bloomcode: Applied

26. Recent behavior-genetics research on antisocial personality disorder a) indicates a significant role of heritability. b) has shown the role of heritability to be negligible. c) indicates no environmental effects. d) has been inconclusive. Answer: a Section Reference: Common Risk Factors Across the Personality Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss commonalities in the risk factors across the personality disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

27. A major family variable that contributes to later psychopathy in children is a) high number of siblings. b) working mothers. c) parental inconsistency. d) overprotection. Answer: c Section Reference: Alternative DSM-5 Model for Personality Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the DSM-5 alternative approach to diagnosis. Bloomcode: Knowledge

28. Yolanda vacillates between feeling extremely positive feelings for her friend and having extreme negative feelings for her, often for no apparent reason. When these changes in her disposition occur, she also experiences deep depression and sometimes engages in self-injurious behavior. On the basis of this information, Yolanda most likely has __________ personality disorder. a) borderline b) schizoid c) obsessive-compulsive d) paranoid Answer: a Section Reference: Dramatic/Erratic Cluster Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the dramatic/erratic cluster. Bloomcode: Application

29. People with borderline personality disorder often exhibit which of the following: a) unpredictable and impulsive. b) uninhibited and promiscuous. c) demanding and angry. d) All of the above Answer: d Section Reference: Dramatic/Erratic Cluster Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the dramatic/erratic cluster. Bloomcode: Analysis

30. A person with which of the following diagnoses is most likely to also have post-traumatic stress disorder or a mood disorder? a) borderline personality b) obsessive-compulsive personality c) paranoid personality d) avoidant personality Answer: a Section Reference: Dramatic/Erratic Cluster Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the dramatic/erratic cluster. Bloomcode: Comprehension

31. How many of the personality disorders does the alternative DSM-5 system include? a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8 Answer: b Section Reference: Alternative DSM-5 Model for Personality Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the DSM-5 alternative approach to diagnosis. Bloomcode: Knowledge

32. Given that people with borderline personality disorder are impulsive, we would expect them to do poorly on tests that measure functioning of the a) frontal lobe. b) parietal lobe. c) occipital lobe. d) temporal lobe. Answer: a Section Reference: Dramatic/Erratic Cluster Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the dramatic/erratic cluster. Bloomcode: Comprehension

33. Which of the following is a characteristic of borderline personality disorder? a) emotional dysregulation b) low extraversion c) bland, dull affect d) panic attacks Answer: a Section Reference: Dramatic/Erratic Cluster Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the dramatic/erratic cluster. Bloomcode: Knowledge

34. The research literature that supports the link between borderline personality disorder and troubled childhood has found that

a) most studies were conducted only on women. b) patients are more likely to report a history of parental separation and abuse than those diagnosed with other personality disorders c) family conflict is difficult to measure accurately. d) most studies were conducted on families that had concurrent alcohol abuse in the home. Answer: b Section Reference: Dramatic/Erratic Cluster Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the dramatic/erratic cluster. Bloomcode: Comprehension

35. Two primary features of Linehan’s diathesis-stress theory of borderline personality disorder are a) ego functioning and transference. b) object representation and cognitive style. c) cognitive bias and attribution error. d) emotional dysregulation and experiences of invalidation. Answer: d Section Reference: Dramatic/Erratic Cluster Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the dramatic/erratic cluster. Bloomcode: Knowledge

36. The DSM-5 description of borderline personality disorder includes all of the following EXCEPT: a) extremely fragile self-concept. b) chronic feelings of emptiness. c) multiple interpersonal relationships. d) engage in verbal or physical acts of aggression when angry. Answer: c Section Reference: Dramatic/Erratic Cluster Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the dramatic/erratic cluster. Bloomcode: Knowledge

37. The DSM-5 criteria for borderline personality disorder include all of the following EXCEPT: a) emotional lability.

b) separation insecurity. c) depressivity. d) lack of empathy. Answer: d Section Reference: Dramatic/Erratic Cluster Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the dramatic/erratic cluster. Bloomcode: Knowledge

38. Compared to a person with paranoid schizophrenia, a person diagnosed as having paranoid personality disorder is a) less likely to experience social and occupational dysfunction. b) more disturbed. c) suffering from a more chronic and severe mental illness. d) more likely to respond to medication. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Description and Etiology of the Odd/Eccentric Cluster Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the key features of each of the personality disorders in the odd/eccentric cluster, as well as biological, social, and psychological risk factors that contribute to the odd/eccentric personality disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

39. Paranoid personality disorder differs from paranoid schizophrenia in that a) paranoid personality is not associated with unreasonable paranoia. b) paranoid personality is more strongly associated with different delusions than schizophrenia. c) paranoid personality is not associated with hallucinations. d) paranoid personality is not likely to be present with depression. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Description and Etiology of the Odd/Eccentric Cluster Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Define the key features of each of the personality disorders in the odd/eccentric cluster, as well as biological, social, and psychological risk factors that contribute to the odd/eccentric personality disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

40. Which personality disorder is most appropriate for Joe? He lives alone in a cabin in the woods where he does the minimum to get by. When approached, he responds appropriately but is not interested in conversation or making friends.

a) avoidant b) schizoid c) histrionic d) borderline Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Description and Etiology of the Odd/Eccentric Cluster Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Define the key features of each of the personality disorders in the odd/eccentric cluster, as well as biological, social, and psychological risk factors that contribute to the odd/eccentric personality disorders. Bloomcode: Application

41. Schizoid personality disorder has most in common with a) histrionic personality disorder. b) schizotypal personality disorder. c) dissociative identity disorder. d) bipolar I disorder. Answer: b Section Reference: Clinical Description and Etiology of the Odd/Eccentric Cluster Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the key features of each of the personality disorders in the odd/eccentric cluster, as well as biological, social, and psychological risk factors that contribute to the odd/eccentric personality disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

42. Schizoid and schizotypal personality disorders may be distinguished only by the presence of which of the following symptoms in schizotypal persons? a) indifference to others. b) visual hallucinations. c) flat affect, little overt emotion. d) overtly odd behaviors. Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Description and Etiology of the Odd/Eccentric Cluster Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Define the key features of each of the personality disorders in the odd/eccentric cluster, as well as biological, social, and psychological risk factors that contribute to the odd/eccentric personality disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

43. Schizotypal, but not schizoid, personality disorder involves a) odd, eccentric beliefs and behaviors. b) interpersonal problems and few friends. c) flat affect and emotional indifference d) social anxiety and fear of others. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Description and Etiology of the Odd/Eccentric Cluster Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Define the key features of each of the personality disorders in the odd/eccentric cluster, as well as biological, social, and psychological risk factors that contribute to the odd/eccentric personality disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

44. The personality disorders in the odd/eccentric cluster have been genetically linked to a) bipolar disorder. b) major depression. c) schizophrenia. d) dissociative identity disorder. Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Description and Etiology of the Odd/Eccentric Cluster Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the key features of each of the personality disorders in the odd/eccentric cluster, as well as biological, social, and psychological risk factors that contribute to the odd/eccentric personality disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

45. Family studies a) support the role of genetics in the odd/eccentric cluster. b) show a very limited role of genetics in the odd/eccentric cluster. c) have been inconclusive when examining the relationship between schizophrenia and the odd/eccentric cluster. d) have shown there to be a stronger genetic component to schizoid and schizotypal personality disorder than to paranoid personality disorder. Answer: a Section Reference: Clinical Description and Etiology of the Odd/Eccentric Cluster Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Define the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the anxious/fearful cluster Bloomcode: Knowledge

46. Which of the following personality disorders is the best diagnosis for Claude? Claude goes to great lengths to be the center of attention. He announces his views and feelings with great drama; however, one soon suspects it is only for effect, and he seems willing to say or do almost anything to get others to pay attention to and like him. a) histrionic b) schizotypal c) schizoid d) paranoid Answer: a Section Reference: Dramatic/Erratic Cluster Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the dramatic/erratic cluster. Bloomcode: Application

47. A primary characteristic of histrionic personality disorder is a) avoidance of others. b) multiple, vague physical complaints. c) inability to make realistic life plans. d) overly dramatic and attention-seeking behavior. Answer: d Section Reference: Dramatic/Erratic Cluster Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the dramatic/erratic cluster. Bloomcode: Knowledge

48. Veronica imagines that she will one day have great success in business, although she now is working as a waitress. She has difficulty getting along at work because she envies her boss’s position of authority (feeling she is more intelligent than he) and expects special favors such as not having to clean the stove like the other waitresses. Which of the following personality disorders best fits Veronica? a) narcissistic b) borderline c) histrionic d) avoidant Answer: a Section Reference: Dramatic/Erratic Cluster Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: Describe the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the dramatic/erratic cluster. Bloomcode: Application

49. Narcissistic personality is primarily characterized by a) avoidance of others. b) a lack of self-confidence. c) multiple, vague physical complaints. d) self-centeredness with fantasies of success. Answer: d Section Reference: Dramatic/Erratic Cluster Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the dramatic/erratic cluster. Bloomcode: Knowledge

50. Narcissism, as proposed by Kohut, develops when children are a) abused. b) treated by their parents as if they are special and their achievements are overemphasized c) not getting enough approval; cold detachment from their parents. d) both b and c. Answer: d Section Reference: Dramatic/Erratic Cluster Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the dramatic/erratic cluster. Bloomcode: Comprehension

51. According to the social-cognitive model of narcissistic personality disorder, people with this disorder place a high value on interpersonal interactions because a) they yearn for interpersonal closeness and warmth. b) interpersonal interactions are central for reinforcing their self-esteem. c) they have such high self-esteem. d) they are very concerned about the quality of their friendships. Answer: b Section Reference: Dramatic/Erratic Cluster Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the dramatic/erratic cluster.

Bloomcode: Knowledge

52. According to the social-cognitive model of narcissistic personality disorder, individuals with this disorder a) have vulnerable self-esteem. b) have extremely high self-esteem. c) are socially aloof. d) are afraid to brag or boost themselves. Answer: a Section Reference: Dramatic/Erratic Cluster Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the dramatic/erratic cluster. Bloomcode: Knowledge

53. What diagnosis would be most appropriate for Tonya? She says she would like to meet people but is too afraid of saying something foolish to speak to them. She describes herself as the ultimate social klutz because she never knows what to say or do. As a result, she keeps to herself except for interacting with a few friends she has known since childhood. a) schizoid personality disorder b) schizotypal personality disorder c) avoidant personality disorder d) dependent personality disorder Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Description and Etiology of the Anxious/Fearful Cluster Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Define the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the anxious/fearful cluster Bloomcode: Application

54. Social anxiety disorder is most similar to which personality disorder? a) schizoid b) dependent c) antisocial d) avoidant Answer: d Section Reference: Clinical Description and Etiology of the Anxious/Fearful Cluster Difficulty: Medium

Learning Objective: Define the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the anxious/fearful cluster Bloomcode: Analysis

55. Karl relies on his wife to make every decision, from what kind of suits he should buy to which people at work he should get to know better. He feels that he must rely heavily on his wife because he feels he is not competent to carry out these tasks. Which of the following personality disorders would fit Karl? a) schizoid b) avoidant c) dependent d) borderline Answer: c Section Reference: Clinical Description and Etiology of the Anxious/Fearful Cluster Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Define the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the anxious/fearful cluster Bloomcode: Application

56. Avoidant personality disorder would most likely be treated with which type of psychiatric medication in order to reduce social anxiety? a) anti-anxiety medications b) antidepressants c) neuroleptics d) none of the above are correct; medication has not been found effective in treating personality disorders. Answer: b Section Reference: Treatment of Personality Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the available psychological treatments of the DSM-5 personality disorders. Bloomcode: Application

57. Which therapeutic approach seeks to break down personality disorders into sets of separate, concrete problems? a) cognitive-behavioral b) cognitive c) psychodynamic d) interpersonal Answer: a Section Reference: Treatment of Personality Disorders Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Describe the available psychological treatments of the DSM-5 personality disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

58. Individuals with borderline personality disorder are difficult to treat because a) their intellectual functioning is too low for them to reach true insights. b) they do not feel distressed, despite being so distressing to others. c) they have extreme difficulty trusting others, including a therapist. d) all of the above. Answer: c Section Reference: Treatment of Personality Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the available psychological treatments of the DSM-5 personality disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

59. Drug treatment for borderline personality disorder a) has been shown to be ineffective for treating the symptoms of the disorder. b) must be conducted with weekly consultations from a neurologist. c) must be done with care as people with the disorder often abuse drugs. d) has been researched too little to make any general statements. Answer: c Section Reference: Treatment of Personality Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the available psychological treatments of the DSM-5 personality disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

60. Dialectical behavior therapy for patients with borderline personality disorder combines a) social skills training and free association. b) ego analysis and more directive behavioral techniques. c) cognitive-behavioral problem-solving, social skills training and client-centered empathy. d) Gestalt techniques and relaxation training. Answer: c Section Reference: Treatment of Personality Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the available psychological treatments of the DSM-5 personality disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

61. Which of the following is emphasized in Linehan’s Dialectical Behavior Therapy for borderline personality disorder?

a) systematic assessment before therapy begins b) calm acceptance of contradictions and acting out c) focusing on fears of vulnerability in a dangerous, unpredictable world d) setting appropriate limits clearly from the beginning Answer: b Section Reference: Treatment of Personality Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the available psychological treatments of the DSM-5 personality disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

62. Schema-focused cognitive therapy for personality disorders a) focuses on challenging maladaptive beliefs in the client’s current relationships. b) is primarily concerned with challenging the schemes clients come up with in their daily interactions. c) focuses exclusively on cognitions formed during critical periods of the client’s childhood. d) helps clients to become more aware of those beliefs and then to challenge maladaptive cognitions Answer: d Section Reference: Treatment of Personality Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the available psychological treatments of the DSM-5 personality disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

63. A major problem in classifying personality disorders is a) they lack specific criteria. b) that they never go into remission. c) that they are very stable. d) their comorbidity with each other. Answer: d Section Reference: Common Risk Factors Across the Personality Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss commonalities in the risk factors across the personality disorders. Bloomcode: Analysis

64. Psychotherapy for psychopathy a) must be intensive to be effective. b) is more beneficial for younger than older people. c) must be examined for “faking good” by those treated. d) all of the above.

Answer: d Section Reference: Treatment of Personality Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the available psychological treatments of the DSM-5 personality disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

65. When people with a diagnosable personality disorder seek treatment, it is usually not for their personality disorder. Rather, it is for episodes of a) depression. b) anxiety. c) substance abuse. d) all of the above. Answer: d Section Reference: Treatment of Personality Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the available psychological treatments of the DSM-5 personality disorders. Bloomcode: Comprehension

66. __________ therapists try to alter the patient’s present-day views of the childhood problems assumed to underlie the personality disorder. a) Psychodynamic b) Cognitive c) Behavioral d) Psycholinguistic Answer: a Section Reference: Treatment of Personality Disorders Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the available psychological treatments of the DSM-5 personality disorders. Bloomcode: Application

67. The most challenging client for a therapist is one diagnosed with __________ personality disorder. a) borderline b) avoidant c) schizotypal d) obsessive-compulsive Answer: a Section Reference: Treatment of Personality Disorders Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Describe the available psychological treatments of the DSM-5 personality disorders. Bloomcode: Knowledge

68. Which of these personality disorder clusters is complete? a) antisocial personality disorder, borderline personality disorder, histrionic personality disorder, narcissistic personality disorder b) avoidant personality disorder, self-defeating personality disorder, obsessive-compulsive personality disorder, dependent personality disorder c) paranoid personality disorder, schizoid personality disorder, avoidant personality disorder, schizotypal personality disorder d) antisocial personality disorder, narcissistic personality disorder, paranoid personality disorder Answer: a Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, and key concerns with this approach. Bloomcode: Knowledge 69. Which of these personality disorders is not included in Cluster B, the dramatic/erratic personality disorders? a) paranoid personality disorder b) histrionic personality disorder c) borderline personality disorder d) narcissistic personality disorder Answer: a Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, and key concerns with this approach. Bloomcode: Knowledge

70. Which personality disorder diagnosis has the lowest inter-rater reliability when using a structured interview? a) schizoid personality disorder b) schizotypal personality disorder c) avoidant personality disorder d) narcissistic personality disorder Answer: a Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, and key concerns with this approach. Bloomcode: Knowledge

71. Carla has a difficult time maintaining friendships. She is generally suspicious of the motives of other people, often misinterpreting the behavior of her friends. Based on this information, the most likely personality disorder diagnosis for Carla would be a) paranoid personality disorder b) dependent personality disorder c) avoidant personality disorder d) histrionic personality disorder Answer: a Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, and key concerns with this approach. Bloomcode: Application

72. The clinical case of Joe, the man who lived alone and was referred to treatment by his general practitioner, describes the personality disorder of a) schizoid personality disorder b) narcissistic personality disorder c) avoidant personality disorder d) paranoid personality disorder Answer: a Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, and key concerns with this approach. Bloomcode: Knowledge

73. The key feature of _______________ is overly dramatic and attention-seeking behavior. a) paranoid personality disorder b) schizoid personality disorder c) avoidant personality disorder d) histrionic personality disorder

Answer: d Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, and key concerns with this approach. Bloomcode: Knowledge

74. Chayenne is overly dramatic. She speaks with exaggerations, such as, “That was the most incredible movie I’ve ever seen,” yet wouldn’t be able to describe why she liked it. In addition, she is hyperconcerned about her appearance and dresses in provocative and unusual ways. Assuming she met the rest of the criteria, the most likely personality disorder diagnosis based on this description would be a) histrionic personality disorder b) borderline personality disorder c) narcissistic personality disorder d) anti-social personality disorder Answer: a Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, and key concerns with this approach. Bloomcode: Application

75. In the alternative approach to classifying personality disorders how many personality trait domains and personality trait facets are there a) 5 domains and 25 facets b) 7 domains and 28 facets c) 9 domains and 32 facets d) 10 domains and 25 facets Answer: a Section Reference: Alternative DSM-5 Model for Personality Disorders Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the DSM-5 alternative approach to diagnosis Bloomcode: Knowledge

76. The three clusters of personality disorders are a) odd/eccentric, anxious/fearful, and dramatic/erratic b) odd/avoidant, anxious/fearful, and dramatic/attention-seeking

c) odd/eccentric, anxious/withdrawn, and dramatic/erratic d) odd/avoidant, anxious/fearful, and attention-seeking/erratic Answer: a Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, and key concerns with this approach. Bloomcode: Knowledge

77. Those individuals with schizophrenia share several characteristics with those individuals diagnosed with a) schizotypal personality disorder. b) avoidant personality disorder c) borderline personality disorder. d) dependent personality disorder. Answer: a Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, and key concerns with this approach. Bloomcode: Comprehension

78. This disorder is different from paranoid schizophrenia because other symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations, are not present and there is less impairment in social and occupational functioning. a) paranoid personality disorder b) schizotypal personality disorder c) borderline personality disorder d) schizoid personality disorder Answer: a Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss commonalities in the risk factors across the personality disorders. Discuss commonalities in the risk factors across the personality disorders Bloomcode: Knowledge

Question Type: True or False

79. True or False: There are two different classification approaches in the DSM-5 for personality disorders a) True. b) False. Answer: a Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, and key concerns with this approach. Bloomcode: Comprehension

Question Type: Essay

80. How are the clusters of personality disorders distinguished? Discuss the possible treatment approaches and expected outcomes for those diagnosed as having an antisocial personality disorder. Answer: Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, and key concerns with this approach. Bloomcode: Synthesis

81. Describe therapy for borderline personality disorder according to the various theoretical approaches. Answer: Section Reference: Treatment of Personality Disorders Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the available psychological treatments of the DSM-5 personality disorders Bloomcode: Evaluation 82. Discuss Linehan’s diathesis-stress theory with respect to the etiology of borderline personality disorder. How would this theory be reflected in the way psychotherapy would be provided for a person with borderline personality disorder? Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Description and Etiology of the Dramatic/Erratic Cluster Difficulty: Hard

Learning Objective: Describe the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the dramatic/erratic cluster. Bloomcode: Synthesis

83. Discuss the differences in reactions to emotional material between individuals with and without antisocial personality disorder. Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Description and Etiology of the Dramatic/Erratic Cluster Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the dramatic/erratic cluster. Bloomcode: Evaluation

84. Discuss the issues/concerns in assessing DSM-5 personality and personality disorders. Answer: Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, and key concerns with this approach. Bloomcode: Evaluation

85. Explain the difference between the diagnosis of schizotypal personality disorder and schizophrenia. Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Description and Etiology of the Odd/Eccentric Cluster Learning Objective: Describe the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the dramatic/erratic cluster. Bloomcode: Synthesis

86. Compare and contrast the diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive personality disorder with obsessivecompulsive disorder. Answer: Section Reference: Clinical Description and Etiology of the Anxious/Fearful Cluster Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Define the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the anxious/fearful cluster. Bloomcode: Evaluation

87. How are avoidant personality disorder and social anxiety alike? How are they different? Answer:

Section Reference: Clinical Description and Etiology of the Anxious/Fearful Cluster Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Define the key features and risk factors of each of the personality disorders in the anxious/fearful cluster. Bloomcode: Synthesis

88. Which personality disorder diagnosis has the lowest inter-rater reliability? Why might this be? Answer: Schizoid personality disorder. This may be because clinicians differ in their thresholds for seeing a behavior as pathological. Answer: Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, and key concerns with this approach. Bloomcode: Analysis

89. Why do researchers know more about the etiology of schizotypal personality disorder than schizoid and paranoid personality disorders? Answer: Because of the reluctance of those with paranoid personality disorder and schizoid personality disorder to participate in research. Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, and key concerns with this approach. Bloomcode: Evaluation

90. Compare and contrast schizoid and avoidant personality disorders Answer: Answers could vary somewhat here, but similarities include a reluctance to be around people, so on the surface they could be difficult to distinguish. However, they are in different clusters: schizoid is in the odd/eccentric cluster and avoidant is in the anxious/fearful cluster, to emphasize the reason for the lack of connections with others. Individuals with schizoid personality disorder are indifferent to praise and criticism, while individuals with avoidant personality disorder are highly sensitive to the imagined negative view others might have of them. An individual with schizoid personality disorder might avoid social situations because he or she doesn’t like or care about them, while an individual with avoidant personality disorder would avoid them for fear he or she would say or do something embarrassing. Individuals with avoidant personality disorder crave connections with others but feel incompetent to engage in relationships, while individuals with schizoid personality disorder avoid relationships because they are indifferent to others.

Section Reference: The DSM-5 Approach to Classification Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Explain the DSM-5 approach to classifying personality disorders, and key concerns with this approach. Bloomcode: Synthesis

Package Title: Ch 16 Testbank Course Title: Kring, Abnormal Psych 14e Chapter Number: 16

Question Type: Multiple Choice

1. The philosophical ideal of the U.S. government is to allow citizens the maximum degree of __________ consistent with preserving order in the community at large. a) liberty b) justice c) independence d) discipline Answer: a Section Reference: Introduction Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment. Bloomcode: Knowledge

2. Frank suffers from schizophrenia. He has allegedly severely beaten another man in the park after an argument. While he is being examined by a psychologist to see if he is fit to stand trial, he is mandated to a mental health institution. This is an example o f a) civil commitment. b) mandated reporting. c) criminal commitment. d) psychiatric commitment. Answer: c Section Reference: Introduction Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the issues surrounding competency to stand trial. Bloomcode: Application

3. Criminal and civil commitment can be best distinguished by a) whether the one being committed is insane. b) whether a crime has been committed by the individual. c) the severity of the symptoms and the crime committed. d) the type of police intervention necessary. Answer: b

Section Reference: Introduction Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the conditions under which a person can be committed to a hospital under civil law. Bloomcode: Comprehension

4. When a disordered mind may be regarded as unable to formulate and carry out a criminal purpose, it is called a) insanity. b) injustice. c) liberty of illness. d) justified commitment. Answer: a Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various standards for the insanity defense. Bloomcode: Knowledge 5. The definition of “insanity” comes from __________ a) psychologists. b) the American Psychological Association. c) court proceedings. d) all of the above. Answer: c Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various standards for the insanity defense. Bloomcode: Knowledge

6. A legal argument based on the notion that the defendant should not be held responsible for an illegal act if it is attributable to mental illness or intellectual disability that interferes with rationality is called a) insanity defense. b) legal illness defense. c) commitment hearing. d) none of the above Answer: a Section Reference: Criminal Commitment

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various standards for the insanity defense. Bloomcode: Knowledge

7. The insanity defense is used in less than __________ percent of legal cases. a) .1 b) 1 c) 5 d) 8 Answer: b Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various standards for the insanity defense. Bloomcode: Knowledge 8. In what year was the “irrestible-impulse” concept formulated? a) 1734. b) 1834. c) 1884 d) 1984 Answer: b Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various standards for the insanity defense. Bloomcode: Knowledge

9. A pathological impulse or drive that the person could not control compelled that person to commit a criminal act. This type of crime would be addressed by the a) Irresistible impulse rule. b) M’Naghten rule. c) American Law Institute Guidelines. d) Insanity Defense Reform Act. Answer: a Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various standards for the insanity defense. Bloomcode: Comprehension

10. When a person did not know the nature and quality of the criminal act in which he or she engaged, or, if the person did know it, the person did not know what he or she was doing wrong is an issue that is addressed by the a) Irresistible impulse rule. b) M’Naghten rule. c) American Law Institute Guidelines. d) Insanity Defense Reform Act. Answer: b Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the issues surrounding competency to stand trial. Bloomcode: Comprehension 11. When a person’s criminal act is a result of severe mental illness or defect that prevents the person from understanding the nature of his or her crime, it is addressed by the a) Irresistible impulse rule. b) M’Naghten rule. c) American Law Institute Guidelines. d) Insanity Defense Reform Act. Answer: d Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the issues surrounding competency to stand trial. Bloomcode: Comprehension 12. If a person can be found legally guilty of a crime – thus maximizing the chances of incarceration – and the person’s mental illness plays a role in how he or she is dealt with, it is addressed by the notion of a) Guilty but mentally ill. b) Irresistible impulse. c) M’Naghten rule. d) Insanity Plea. Answer: a Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the issues surrounding competency to stand trial.

Bloomcode: Comprehension

13. George killed his two children because he believed he heard voices telling him that if he did not kill them, his neighbor would. His defense attorney argued that due to George’s insanity at the time of the crime, he should not be held responsible for the crime and should thus be acquitted of the crime. Which of the following best describes the plea that George's defense attorney made? a) Not Guilty but Mentally Ill b) The Durham test c) Not Guilty by Reason of Insanity d) Guilty but Mentally Insane Answer: c Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various standards for the insanity defense. Bloomcode: Application

14. If an individual is acquitted on a Not Guilty by Reason of Insanity plea, he or she is a) committed to a forensic hospital for an indefinite amount of time. b) generally placed in a maximum security prison. c) able to walk free, but with strict requirements for outpatient psychiatric treatment. d) placed in a psychiatric hospital until he or she is deemed ready to reenter society. Answer: a Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the conditions under which a person can be committed to a hospital under civil law. Bloomcode: Comprehension

15. If an individual is judged to be Guilty but Mentally Ill, he or she a) is always put in the general prison population. b) may be committed to a prison hospital or other type of suitable psychiatric facility. c) is placed in a psychiatric hospital until he or she is deemed ready to reenter society. d) will receive inpatient psychiatric treatment at a local psychiatric hospital before being moved into the general prison population. Answer: b Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Describe the conditions under which a person can be committed to a hospital under civil law. Bloomcode: Comprehension

16. Insanity defense trials typically involve a) considerable flexibility in determining who is responsible for criminal actions. b) subjective determinations of competency at the time of a crime. c) individuals with antisocial personality and no other significant mental disorders. d) all of the above. Answer: b Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various standards for the insanity defense. Bloomcode: Knowledge

17. The M'Naghten rule states that the insanity defense is appropriate if a person a) has an irresistible impulse leading him or her to commit a crime. b) has a diagnosable mental illness. c) is not competent to stand trial. d) did not know right from wrong at the time of the criminal act. Answer: d Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various standards for the insanity defense. Bloomcode: Knowledge

18. According to the American Law Institute guidelines, which of the following mental disorders would not qualify for the insanity defense? a) paranoid schizophrenia b) dissociative identity disorder c) post-traumatic stress disorder d) antisocial personality disorder Answer: d Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various standards for the insanity defense.

Bloomcode: Knowledge

19. A primary purpose of the American Law Institute guidelines for defining the insanity defense was to a) avoid specifying symptoms of mental illness that might later become obsolete. b) be more specific and informative to lay jurors. c) allow greater leeway for expert witnesses to define the concept of mental illness. d) open the defense to the full range of mental illnesses. Answer: b Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various standards for the insanity defense. Bloomcode: Comprehension

20. A major result of the Insanity Defense Reform Act was a) to require that a documented, preexisting mental condition exist at the time of a crime in order to use an insanity defense. b) to clarify what specific crimes may be associated with insanity. c) to restrict the insanity defense to multiple offenders. d) to eliminate the irresistible impulse as a plausible insanity defense. Answer: d Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various standards for the insanity defense. Bloomcode: Comprehension

21. The Insanity Defense Reform Act shifted the burden of proof onto the a) defense. b) prosecution. c) expert witness. d) judge. Answer: a Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various standards for the insanity defense. Bloomcode: Knowledge

22. According to the Insanity Defense Reform Act, a person who is deemed not guilty by reason of insanity a) must be suffering from at least a moderate mental illness. b) may be hospitalized for longer than the maximum allowable time for their crime. c) must lack the overall capacity to appreciate the wrongfulness of their behavior. d) all of the above. Answer: b Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various standards for the insanity defense. Bloomcode: Knowledge

23. What verdict has been proposed most recently for mentally ill persons who commit crimes? a) guilty (no allowance made for mental illness) b) not guilty by reason of insanity c) not guilty by reason of temporary insanity d) guilty but mentally ill Answer: d Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the issues surrounding competency to stand trial. Bloomcode: Knowledge 24. What is the rationale for laws that provide for legal verdicts of “guilty but mentally ill?” a) to prevent the truly insane from being treated as criminals. b) to provide treatment options for convicted criminals while still holding them responsible for their actions. c) to deal with mentally ill vagrants. d) to permit consideration of whether the accused could appreciate the wrongfulness of his or her actions. Answer: b Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the issues surrounding competency to stand trial. Bloomcode: Knowledge

25. Patrick was found guilty of murdering his wife. Psychiatrists testified that Patrick had paranoid schizophrenia and that his delusions led directly to the criminal act. If his state allows the guilty but mentally ill verdict, what sentence would Patrick likely receive? a) Psychiatric commitment until a psychiatrist determines that he is cured of his mental illness. b) Psychiatric commitment until a psychiatrist determines that he is no longer dangerous. c) A criminal sentence but with psychiatric care provided during the incarceration. d) The same criminal sentence as a non-mentally ill person convicted of murder. Answer: c Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the issues surrounding competency to stand trial. Bloomcode: Application

26. The case of Jeffrey Dahmer exemplifies a) the plea of not guilty by reason of insanity. b) the distinction between mentally ill and insane. c) the aggressive behaviors of antisocial personality disorder. d) how a psychologically healthy person can be temporarily insane. Answer: b Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the issues surrounding competency to stand trial. Bloomcode: Comprehnsion

27. The Jones v. United States case illustrated which problem with the insanity defense? a) Mentally ill people may still be guilty of crimes. b) People deemed to be insane may be treated for longer than they would have been imprisoned. c) Committed patients have a right to refuse treatment. d) People may have been insane at the time of the crime but still competent to stand trial. Answer: b Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the issues surrounding competency to stand trial. Bloomcode: Knowledge

28. What is the distinction between insanity and competency to stand trial? a) Insanity is more serious than incompetency. b) Competency, but not insanity, concerns persons accused of a crime.

c) Someone found competent to stand trial cannot also be found insane. d) Insanity and competency concern different points in time during which the person’s mental state is being questioned. Answer: d Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the issues surrounding competency to stand trial. Bloomcode: Analysis

29. You are an attorney appointed to represent a poor client accused of rape who has a history of mental illness. During your first several meetings, the man is completely incoherent. Which of the following issues should you address first? a) competency to stand trial b) possibility of mens rea c) a possible insanity defense d) possible civil commitment Answer: a Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the issues surrounding competency to stand trial. Bloomcode: Application 30. The difference between “insanity” and “competency” is that a) insanity involves a person’s state at the time of the crime. b) insanity is a legal, not a mental health, category c) insanity has less serious consequences. d) the criteria for insanity are more clear-cut. Answer: a Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various standards for the insanity defense. Bloomcode: Analysis

31. Simon has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. He is accused of murder, and his lawyers have suggested that he is not competent to stand trial. He is then administered Haldol:, his symptoms remit significantly and he stops experiencing paranoid ideas and delusions. What is likely to happen next? a) He would continue to be considered incompetent to stand trial as the medication produced the effects. b) He would not be tried in court.

c) His lawyers would have to reconsider their insanity defense. d) He would be considered competent to stand trial. Answer: d Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the issues surrounding competency to stand trial. Bloomcode: Application

32. The competency to stand trial issue is based on the basic legal principle a) that a person must be able to help in their own defense and understand the charges against them. b) that mentally ill persons may not be responsible for their crimes. c) of innocent until proven guilty. d) of free will and the knowledge of right and wrong. Answer: a Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the issues surrounding competency to stand trial. Bloomcode: Knowledge

33. When someone is determined incompetent to stand trial, what typically happens to him or her? a) They are released. b) They are treated and, if later found competent, then tried for the original crime. c) They are treated and then released. d) They are treated while serving time in prison for the crime. Answer: b Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the issues surrounding competency to stand trial. Bloomcode: Comprehension

34. The standard of proof of beyond a reasonable doubt requires __________ percent certainty to convict. a) 50 b) 75 c) 90 d) 95 Answer: d Section Reference: Criminal Commitment

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the issues surrounding competency to stand trial. Bloomcode: Knowledge

35. In the Jackson v. Indiana case, it was decided that a person judged incompetent to stand trial could be committed to a prison hospital a) for an indeterminate period, as long as the accused is still considered a danger to others. b) for an indeterminate period, as long as the accused is still judged to be insane. c) only until it is determined whether or not the accused will ever become competent. d) only if the competence of the accused is dependent on medication (“synthetic sanity”). Answer: c Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the conditions under which a person can be committed to a hospital under civil law. Bloomcode: Knowledge

36. Corey has been remanded to a psychiatric hospital to determine if he is competent to stand trial. He has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and is responding well to treatment with psychotropic medications. He is less delusional and his speech is more organized. Based on this, he is deemed competent and is scheduled to stand trial. This is an example of a) synthetic sanity. b) being guilty but mentally ill. c) misdiagnosis. d) temporary insanity. Answer: a Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the conditions under which a person can be committed to a hospital under civil law. Bloomcode: Application

37. In what year was the landmark case/law the Durham test?” a) 1934 b) 1944 c) 1954 d) 1964 Answer: c Section Reference: Criminal Commitment

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various standards for the insanity defense. Bloomcode: Knowledge

38. Brian has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. He is accused of stealing from a jewelry store and is currently being treated in a psychiatric hospital to assess his competency. Which of the following are correct regarding Brian’s situation? a) Brian cannot be forced to take Haldol, an antipsychotic medication. b) Brian can be deemed competent even if his competency is the result of medication alone. c) The effects of Brian’s current antipsychotic medications can be explained to the jury. d) All of the above Answer: d Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various standards for the insanity defense. Bloomcode: Application

39. The prosecution and defense in the trial of Andrea Yates agreed a) that she knew right from wrong. b) she was not mentally ill at the time of the murders. c) that she killed her children. d) All of the above are correct. Answer: c Section Reference: Another Look at Insanity versus Psychological Disorder − Focus on Discovery 16.1 Difficulty: medium Learning Objective: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various standards for the insanity defense. Bloomcode: Analysis

40. The first trial of Andrea Yates caused great public debate because a) the jury found her to be sane and guilty. b) the jury found her to be insane and guilty. c) the defense tried to use the rarely accepted “guilty by reason of insanity” defense. d) she was taking care of her children while diagnosed with schizophrenia. Answer: a Section Reference: Another Look at Insanity versus Psychological Disorder − Focus on Discovery 16.1 Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various standards for the insanity defense. Bloomcode: Knowledge

41. Saks’ argument about dissociative identity disorder as an insanity defense is that a) the body that commits the crime should be held responsible, regardless of whether the “person” was conscious of the crime being committed. b) the person, not the body, is responsible for a crime. c) dissociative identity disorder is usually faked by criminals pleading insanity and thus should not be an allowable defense. d) since therapy for dissociative identity disorder is not usually effective, confinement to a prison mental hospital is illogical. Answer: b Section Reference: Dissociative Identity Disorder and the Insanity Defense − Focus on Discovery 16.2 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various standards for the insanity defense. Bloomcode: Comprehension

42. Horace Kelly, a 39-year-old man who had been found guilty of two rapes and the killing of an 11year-old boy, was found guilty and sentenced to death. What happened that made the Court rule that the execution would be considered cruel and unusual punishment? a) His mental health had deteriorated to the point that he was a “walking vegetable.” b) His family begged for mercy. c) He was the only child left alive of a dying mother. d) He had been abused as a child. Answer: a Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various standards for the insanity defense. Bloomcode: Application

43. In which Supreme Court ruling did the state of Virginia define intellectual disability as consisting of an IQ score of 70 or less along with difficulties in self-care and social interaction? a) Mannis v. Virginia b) Atkins v. Virginia c) Robinson v. Illinois d) all of these cases apply to the decision. Answer: b

Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the issues surrounding competency to stand trial. Bloomcode: Knowledge

44. Most states hold that a person can be involuntarily committed to a mental hospital a) if found to be mentally ill. b) if found to be mentally ill and a danger to themselves or others. c) only if he or she has committed a crime. d) only if he or she has committed a violent crime. Answer: b Section Reference: Civil Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the conditions under which a person can be committed to a hospital under civil law. Bloomcode: Knowledge

45. Despite her objections, the police took Elizabeth directly to a mental hospital after they found her in an obviously deranged state, attempting to kill herself. What is the procedure the doctors used to keep her in the hospital after she arrived? a) voluntary commitment b) criminal commitment c) formal commitment d) civil commitment Answer: d Section Reference: Civil Commitment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the conditions under which a person can be committed to a hospital under civil law. Bloomcode: Application

46. An informal civil commitment a) applies only if there is no imminent danger. b) can be used only if the person agrees. c) is a short-term emergency procedure that can be accomplished without involving the courts. d) requires a court order. Answer: c Section Reference: Civil Commitment

Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the conditions under which a person can be committed to a hospital under civil law. Bloomcode: Knowledge

47. Which of the following statements is true regarding violence and the mentally ill? a) Nearly 25% of the violence in the United States is linked to mental illness. b) 90% of psychotic patients are non-violent. c) People with mental illnesses who are violent typically lash out in crowded public places. d) None of the above. Answer: b Section Reference: Civil Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment. Bloomcode: Comprehension

48. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the relationship between mental illness and dangerousness? a) Most mentally ill people are violent at some point during their illness. b) More crimes are committed by mentally ill people than any other group. c) Among mentally ill people, violence is most common among those with schizophrenia. d) People with mental illness who were not substance abusers were no more likely to engage in violence than non-mentally ill people who were not substance abusers. Answer: d Section Reference: Civil Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment. Bloomcode: Comprehension

49. Does a person committed under civil law have the right to refuse treatment? a) Yes in all cases. b) No in all cases. c) Yes in certain cases. d) No in certain cases. Answer: d Section Reference: Civil Commitment Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment. Bloomcode: Comprehension

50. Mike has attacked his wife several times in the past and appears likely to do so again very soon. He can be locked up now (before he attacks her) if a) someone overhears his threats. b) she has not been warned. c) she has a court order. d) he is deemed mentally ill. Answer: d Section Reference: Civil Commitment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment. Bloomcode: Application

51. The prediction of dangerousness is probably best in which of the following situations? a) When the person is experiencing hallucinations. b) If there is violence in the person’s distant past, and it was a single but very serious act. c) Following extended hospitalizations. d) After a period of relative calm. Answer: b Section Reference: Civil Commitment Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment. Bloomcode: Application

52. Outpatient commitment a) is a method of forcibly hospitalizing unwilling people with mental illnesses. b) seeks to reduce violence in patients discharged from hospitals by requiring treatment compliance. c) allows hospitalized patients to live independently with a case manager who visits the patient every week. d) is often accompanied by decreased medication compliance. Answer: b Section Reference: Civil Commitment Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment. Bloomcode: Comprehension

53. What is the emphasis of recent court decisions in involuntary civil commitment cases? a) holding professionals accountable for predicting dangerousness b) holding professionals accountable for violating confidentiality c) protecting the safety of the public d) protecting the rights of the mentally ill Answer: d Section Reference: Civil Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment. Bloomcode: Comprehension

54. The Tarasoff case led to the ruling that a therapist who learns that a client is threatening to harm someone must a) take steps to have the person committed. b) physically detain the client. c) warn the intended victim of the client’s threat. d) break confidentiality and notify police or other authorities that the person is dangerous. Answer: c Section Reference: The Tarasoff Case − The Duty to Warn and to Protect − Focus on Discovery 16.3 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment. Bloomcode: Knowledge

55. Issues that have come up after the original Tarasoff ruling have included a) protection when the threat of harm is implicit, not just when explicit threats have been made. b) warning family members of harmfulness, not just the one towards whom threats have been made. c) both a and b d) identifying potentially dangerous individuals to newspapers. Answer: c Section Reference: The Tarasoff Case − The Duty to Warn and to Protect − Focus on Discovery 16.3 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment.

Bloomcode: Knowledge

56. The most recent extension of the Tarasoff ruling (2004) states a) that therapists no longer have a duty to warn possible victims except in cases where the patient has explicitly described the means he/she would use to commit the violence. b) that therapists have a duty to warn a possible victim if the threat is reported by a family member of the patient. c) the duty to warn only extends to licensed clinical psychologists and not to social workers or other types of mental health workers. d) that therapists have a duty to warn a possible victim if the threat is reported by a friend or co-worker of the patient. Answer: b Section Reference: The Tarasoff Case - The Duty to Warn and to Protect - Focus on Discovery 16.3 Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment. Bloomcode: Knowledge

57. An arrangement whereby a patient is allowed to leave the hospital, but must live in a halfway house or other supervised setting and report frequently to a mental health agency, is called a) outpatient commitment. b) conditional placement commitment. c) justified supervision of behavior commitment. d) none of the above. Answer: a Section Reference: Civil Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment. Bloomcode: Knowledge

58. Following civil commitment, patients must be placed in a) mental hospitals. b) settings that provide medication treatment. c) the most restrictive setting to which the patient will consent voluntarily. d) the least restrictive setting in which they will be prevented from harming themselves or others. Answer: d Section Reference: Civil Commitment Difficulty: Easy

Learning Objective: Discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment. Bloomcode: Knowledge 59. In the Wyatt v. Stickney case on the “right to treatment,” the court ruled that a) private mental hospitals must provide a minimum level of care to patients who cannot pay full fees. b) patients involuntarily committed to a psychiatric hospital must receive treatment. c) every American should have access to affordable mental health care. d) therapists cannot refuse treatment to those who request it. Answer: b Section Reference: Civil Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment. Bloomcode: Knowledge 60. The “right to treatment” refers to the right of a) all people to affordable health care. b) professionals to make treatment decisions. c) committed people to receive adequate care. d) society to have dangerous people treated. Answer: c Section Reference: Civil Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment. Bloomcode: Knowledge

61. In the case of O'Connor v. Donaldson, Donaldson was involuntarily committed to a psychiatric hospital for 14 years. He sued the hospital psychiatrists, arguing that they had denied his right to a) live in the least restrictive setting. b) a fair trial. c) refuse treatment. d) treatment. Answer: d Section Reference: Civil Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment.

Bloomcode: Knowledge

62. Which of the following is true regarding the right to refuse treatment? a) It does not apply if a person is judged to be at risk for becoming dangerous to others. b) It does not apply if a person is a danger to themselves or to others. c) It applies only to those in the least restrictive environment. d) It applies to criminal commitment but not civil commitment. Answer: b Section Reference: Civil Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment. Bloomcode: Comprehension 63. Whenever there is reason to believe that an accused person’s mental condition might interfere with his or her upcoming trial, the court may request that the case be handled a) in absentia. b) regardless. c) with a psychiatrist present. d) all of these answers are correct. Answer: a Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment. Bloomcode: Knowledge

64. The argument against patients’ right to refuse treatment has been typically based upon the notion that a) untreated patients may become dangerous. b) involuntarily committed patients should not have a say in their treatment, since they are usually guilty of a crime. c) patients may be too disturbed to make sound judgments about their treatment. d) the type of treatment prescribed should be determined by the courts, not the patient. Answer: c Section Reference: Civil Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment. Bloomcode: Comprehension

65. Which of the following is true regarding the deinstitutionalization of large numbers of mentally ill persons? a) It occurred after adequate community services were widely available. b) It resulted in the discovery that most inpatients appeared insane only because of the negative effects of institutionalization. c) It has been recognized as harmful; current policy is to reinstitutionalize most of these patients. d) It created a large population of impoverished, homeless mentally ill. Answer: d Section Reference: Civil Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment. Bloomcode: Knowledge

66. Deinstitutionalization has been described as an improper label because a) most patients end up in treatment in outpatient clinics, thus visiting other institutions. b) most patients who are deinstitutionalized remain mentally ill. c) patients typically end up in other institutions such as nursing homes, prisons, and mental health departments of nonpsychiatric hospitals. d) few patients are actually discharged from the hospital. Answer: c Section Reference: Civil Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment. Bloomcode: Comprehension

67. Deinstitutionalization policies have inadvertently led to which of the following outcomes? a) the release of many dangerous individuals. b) higher numbers of mentally ill in other institutions, such as jails and nursing homes. c) insufficient research participants. d) increased costs of treatment. Answer: b Section Reference: Civil Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment. Bloomcode: Knowledge

68. Mental health professionals are constrained by a) the law. b) ethical principles. c) professional guidelines. d) all of the above. Answer: d Section Reference: Ethical Dilemmas in Therapy and Research Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the ethics surrounding psychological research and therapy. Bloomcode: Knowledge

69. Fifty years ago, medical research with human subjects a) was generally more ethical than mental health research. b) was monitored by review boards in the institutions where the research was being conducted. c) was used as a way of punishing mentally ill prisoners. d) frequently led to serious, harmful consequences to participants. Answer: d Section Reference: Ethical Dilemmas in Therapy and Research Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the ethics surrounding psychological research and therapy. Bloomcode: Knowledge

70. Human subjects committees and institutional review boards for reviewing the ethics of proposed experiments are made up of a) behavioral scientists. b) citizens of the community. c) lawyers. d) all of the above. Answer: d Section Reference: Ethical Dilemmas in Therapy and Research Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the ethics surrounding psychological research and therapy. Bloomcode: Knowledge

71. When subjects in research studies are told about the potential risks and are free to decline participation, it is called

a) informed consent. b) freedom of choice. c) parens patriae. d) mens rea. Answer: a Section Reference: Ethical Dilemmas in Therapy and Research Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the ethics surrounding psychological research and therapy. Bloomcode: Knowledge

72. Audrey agreed to participate in a research experiment being conducted by a professor in psychology. She was told that the experiment would last two hours and would be somewhat boring but was not expected to be harmful in any way. After one hour, Audrey got tired of the tasks she was asked to do and told the experimenter she had changed her mind and wanted to quit. Can the experimenter tell her she has to continue? a) Yes, because Audrey used one hour of the experimenter’s time that will be wasted if she quits now. b) Yes, since Audrey agreed to participate knowing that the experiment would be boring. c) No, because Audrey has the right to stop at any time for any reason. d) No, because the experimenter failed to obtain informed consent. Answer: c Section Reference: Ethical Dilemmas in Therapy and Research Difficulty: Medium Learning Objective: Describe the ethics surrounding psychological research and therapy. Bloomcode: Analysis

73. Which of the following does the text identify as a common problem in obtaining informed consent from research participants? a) Being informed may change their behavior during the study. b) Researchers may withhold critical information. c) The benefits may not justify the risks. d) Participants may not understand what they are told. Answer: d Section Reference: Ethical Dilemmas in Therapy and Research Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the ethics surrounding psychological research and therapy. Bloomcode: Comprehension

74. Confidentiality is based on __________, whereas a privileged communication is __________. a) state law; decided on by the individual therapist.

b) the ethical code of a profession; based on law. c) the therapist’s obligation not to disclose information; the client’s obligation not to disclose opinions about the therapist. d) verbal report in therapy; a written report of the therapist’s impression of a client. Answer: b Section Reference: Ethical Dilemmas in Therapy and Research Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the ethics surrounding psychological research and therapy. Bloomcode: Knowledge

75. Which of the following rights of clients has a legal (not just ethical) basis? a) confidentiality b) informed consent c) privileged communication d) choice of goals Answer: c Section Reference: Ethical Dilemmas in Therapy and Research Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the ethics surrounding psychological research and therapy. Bloomcode: Knowledge

76. Which of the following relationships does not typically involve privileged communication? a) medical doctor − patient b) pastor − confessor c) friend − confidante d) husband − wife Answer: c Section Reference: Ethical Dilemmas in Therapy and Research Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Describe the ethics surrounding psychological research and therapy. Bloomcode: Knowledge

77. The standard of proof to find guilty beyond a reasonable doubt is? a) 51% b) 75% c) 95% d) 100% Answer: c

Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various standards for the insanity defense. Bloomcode: Knowledge

78. The standard of proof to find guilty beyond a preponderance of the evidence is? a) 51% b) 75% c) 95% d) 100% Answer: a Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various standards for the insanity defense.. Bloomcode: Knowledge

Question Type: True or False

79. True or False: The Insanity Defense Reform Act was created in 1984? a) True b) False Answer: a Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various standards for the insanity defense. Bloomcode: Knowledge

80. True or False: The American Law Institute guidelines were created in 1952? a) True b) False Answer: b Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Easy Learning Objective: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various standards for the insanity defense.

Bloomcode: Knowledge

Question Type: Essay

81. Discuss three factors that have contributed to the development of the insanity defense. Answer: Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various standards for the insanity defense. Bloomcode: Synthesis

82. Discuss the different types of insanity pleas. Answer: Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Differentiate the legal concepts of insanity and the various standards for the insanity defense. Bloomcode: Evaluation

83. When is someone considered competent to stand trial? What are the consequences of being judged incompetent to stand trial? Answer: Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the issues surrounding competency to stand trial. Bloomcode: Evaluation

84. What is the difference between being mentally ill and being deemed insane? Answer: Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the issues surrounding competency to stand trial. Bloomcode: Synthesis

85. Discuss the factors that determine a defendant’s competency to stand trial.

Answer: Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the issues surrounding competency to stand trial. Bloomcode: Evaluation

86. How do civil commitment and criminal commitment differ, and under what conditions would each be utilized? Answer: Section Reference: Criminal Commitment Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the conditions under which a person can be committed to a hospital under civil law. Bloomcode: Synthesis

87. Discuss the factors that are considered in preventive detention. Include a discussion of our current ability to accurately predict dangerousness. Answer: Section Reference: Civil Commitment Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment. Bloomcode: Synthesis

88. Discuss the effects of the Tarasoff case on psychologists. What areas of clinical practice has it touched and how has this case changed the way psychologists practice? Answer: Section Reference: The Tarasoff Case − The Duty to Warn and to Protect − Focus on Discovery 16.4 Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment. Bloomcode: Evaluation

89. How has human research changed in recent years to conform to ethical guidelines? Answer: Section Reference: Ethical Dilemmas in Therapy and Research Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Describe the ethics surrounding psychological research and therapy.

Bloomcode: Synthesis

90. The philosophical ideal of the U.S. government is to allow citizens the maximum degree of liberty consistent with preserving order in the community at large. How does this philosophy mesh with the rights of the criminally insane? Answer: Section Reference: Civil Commitment Difficulty: Hard Learning Objective: Discuss the difficulties associated with predicting dangerousness and the issues surrounding the rights to receive and refuse treatment. Bloomcode: Synthesis