TEST BANK for Advertising and Promotion An Integrated Marketing Communications Perspective, 5th Cana by digitaldownload87

Advertising and Promotion An Integrated Marketing Communications Perspective, 5th Canadian Edition By George Belch Michael Belch Michael Guolla (Test Bank All Chapters, 100% Original Verified, A+ Grade) Answers At The End Of Each Chapter

Chapter 01 1.

Marketing Magazine recognized this fast food chain as Marketer of the Year for 2012: A. McDonald's Canada B. Tim Hortons C. Starbucks D. Thai Express

McDonald's Canada was recognized as Marketing Magazine's Marketer of the Year for 2012 for this promotion: A. the launch of their new fruit smoothies B. the launch of their McCafé brand of coffee and espresso-based beverages C. their "Our Food. Your Questions" digital marketing communications program D. their "I'm Lovin' It" campaign

McDonald's Canada answered consumer questions about its food and how it's prepared by: A. answering mailed-in questions by return mail. B. answering mailed-in questions via newspaper ads in major cities. C. providing tear-off sheets in store with FAQ answers. D. addressing the questions with YouTube videos, TV commercials and wild postings.

The "Our Food. Your Questions" campaign by McDonald's Canada can be primarily described as what kind of marketing communication tool? A. Experiential Marketing B. Public Relations C. Personal Selling D. Direct Marketing

_____ is the process of planning and executing the conception, pricing, promotion, and distribution of ideas, good, and services to create exchanges that satisfy individual and organizational objectives. A. Integrated marketing communications B. Marketing C. Advertising D. Sales promotion

Which of the following is the BEST example of a marketing exchange? A. Vianna gave Myron a menu, and he placed his food order. B. Jayson helped Tiffany replace a light bulb in her porch fixture. C. Tyron and Gwen gave their daughter a necklace for her birthday. D. For mowing her yard, Mrs. Dudley gave Ike a chocolate cake.

Product, price, place and promotion are also known as ________ A. the marketing mix. B. marketing communications tools. C. methods of selling goods and services. D. marketing jargon.

Which of the following statements about price is true? A. Price refers to what the marketer must give up to sell a product. B. Price communicates the economic cost to consumers for all of the product benefits combined. C. Price is not a key aspect of the product conveyed in a promotional offer. D. Levels of recommended ad expenditures are not relative to price.

A firm can have an excellent product at a great price, but it will be of little value unless it's available where the consumer wants it and when the consumer wants it. The statement above refers to: A. product decisions. B. price decisions. C. distribution decisions. D. positioning decisions.

10. ______ is the coordination of all seller-initiated efforts to set up channels of information and persuasion to sell goods and services. A. Publicity B. Advertising C. Organizational communication D. Promotion 11. Which of the following is NOT an element of the promotional mix? A. Packaging B. Advertising C. Personal selling D. Sales promotion 12. _____ is defined as any paid form of nonpersonal communication about an organization, product, service or idea by an identified sponsor. A. Advertising B. The promotional mix C. Publicity D. Sales promotion 13. Advertising may be defined as any: A. paid form of nonpersonal communication about a product, service, or company B. communication about a product, service, or company C. communication that moves a product from one level to another level of the distribution channel D. personal communication from a company representative to prospective buyers 14. Which the following is NOT an advantage inherent in the use of advertising? A. Ability to control the message B. Low cost per contact C. Ability to create brand images and symbolism D. Immediate feedback 15. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of advertising as a form of promotion? A. Cost-effective method for communicating with large audiences B. Personal nature of the message C. The ability to reach large audiences with the advertising message D. The ability to create images for brands 16. Which of these is NOT a reason why marketers use advertising? A. To set an appropriate price across various channels B.To strike a responsive chord with consumers when differentiation across other elements of the marketing mix is difficult C. To create symbolic appeals for a company or brand D. To take advantage of the fact that advertising is a very cost-effective method of reaching a large audience 17. Rolex's use of high quality product photography and celebrities wearing their watches is a form of: A. primary demand B. combined demand for the celebrities C. product symbolism D. national appeal

18. ________ refers to what a product or brand means to consumers and what they experience in purchasing and using it. A. Product appeal B. Product symbolism C. Brand identity D. Brand recognition 19. A brand or corporate name and its identification through its logo, symbols, slogans, or trademarks represent: A. product appeal B. product symbolism C. brand identity D. brand equity 20. This is the added value or goodwill resulting from a favourable image and/or consumer attachment to a company name, brand name, or trademark: A. product appeal B. product symbolism C. brand identity D. brand equity 21. Advertising done by manufacturers of well-known brands on a nationwide basis or in most regions of the country is known as _____ advertising. A. primary demand B. retail C. consumer D. national 22. Advertising done by Wal-Mart, The Bay, and Target for the purpose of building store traffic and encouraging consumers to make a purchase is known as _____ advertising. A. trade B. retail C. cooperative D. in-store 23. Advertising done by Home Hardware to encourage consumers to shop there for all hardware needs is known as _____ advertising. A. national B. primary demand C. selective demand D. retail/local 24. Primary demand advertising is designed to: A. draw particular attention to a particular branded item B. stimulate demand for a general product class or industry C. help launch a specific line extension D. create a market share gain for the industry leader 25. _____ advertising is a type of consumer-oriented advertising that focuses on creating demand for a specific company's brand. A. Primary demand B. Selective demand C. Trade D. Cooperative

26. _____ advertising is targeted at individuals who buy or influence the purchase of industrial goods or services for their companies. A. Professional B. Direct-response C. Business-to-business D. Retail 27. Ads for computers and office furniture in Purchasing Canada, a trade magazine written and published especially for corporate and government buyers, are examples of _____ advertising. A. retail B. business-to-business C. professional D. primary-demand 28. Advertisements for a Parkell tooth polisher in Canadian Dentist, a publication for dentists, are an example of _____ advertising. A. professional B. trade C. primary demand D. progressive 29. _____ includes those marketing activities that provide extra value or incentives to the sales force, distributors, or the ultimate consumer. A. Direct marketing B. Public relations C. Sales promotion D. Brand equity 30. Sales promotions targeted to the ultimate users of a product such as sampling, coupons, contests, or sweepstakes are known as: A. consumer sales promotion B. trade sales promotion C. direct marketing incentives D. strategic promotions 31. McDonald's restaurants use a Monopoly game to allow customers to win various prizes. Each game piece that you receive as a result of a purchase either awards you a prize or fills in one section on a Monopoly board. Prizes can also be won if you own all the pieces of the railroads or all of one colour of property. This is an example of a: A. consumer sales promotion B. direct-response advertising campaign C. primary demand advertising campaign D. service-oriented sales promotion 32. Sales promotion programs targeted toward marketing intermediaries such as wholesalers, distributors, and retailers are known as: A. a consumer sales promotion B. a trade sales promotion C. a functional inducement D. integrated promotions 33. _____ is nonpersonal communication neither directly paid for nor run under identified sponsorship. A. Advertising B. Sales promotion C. Publicity D. Public relations

34. How does advertising differ from publicity? A. Advertising is done by manufacturers, and publicity is done be retailers. B. Advertising is paid for by the sponsoring organization, and publicity is not. C. Advertising is never institutional (i.e., promoting the company itself), and publicity usually is institutional in character. D. Advertising typically utilizes mass media, and publicity does not. 35. Which of the following statements about publicity is true? A. Publicity generally has a broader purpose and objective than public relations. B. Publicity is an important communication technique used in public relations. C. Publicity has more of a long term, on-going purpose than public relations. D. Publicity and public relations are synonyms for each other. 36. Which of the following is NOT a technique used to generate publicity? A. News releases and feature articles B. Photographs, films, and videotapes C. Packaging and product displays D. Press conferences 37. When Jennifer Lawrence appears on "The Tonight Show with Jay Leno" as a guest to discuss her role in the "Hunger Games" movies, it is an example of: A. advertising B. publicity C. personal selling D. direct marketing 38. One of the primary advantages inherent in the use of publicity is its: A. ability to be personalized B. credibility C. almost non-existent variable costs D. ability to be closely controlled and monitored by the organization that is being publicized 39. Consumer Reports magazine ran an article comparing various shampoos and rated Pert Plus as the best brand. This article was reported on in various newspapers and television news programs. This is an example of: A. sales promotion B. advertising C. negative publicity D. positive publicity 40. A review of a movie in Maclean's magazine or on "Canada AM" is an example of: A. personal selling B. publicity C. promotion D. media-selling 41. Because of the perceived objectivity of the source, which element of the promotional mix is usually regarded as most credible? A. Advertising B. Publicity C. Sales promotion D. Direct marketing 42. When an organization systematically plans and distributes information in an attempt to control its image, it is engaging in a function known as: A. image management B. advertising C. integrated marketing D. public relations

43. _____ is the management function that evaluates public attitudes, identifies the policies and procedures of an individual or organization with the public interest, and executes a program of action to earn public understanding and acceptance. A. Publicity B. Corporate affairs C. Public relations D. Sales promotion 44. Public relations involves all of the following EXCEPT: A. sponsorship of a fun run to benefit breast cancer research B. financial and personnel involvement in local arts and crafts festival C. product design D. publicity 45. _____ is a system of marketing by which organizations communicate directly with target customers to generate a response and/or a transaction. A. Advertising B. Sales promotion C. Direct marketing D. Public relations 46. Which of the following statements about direct marketing is true? A. Direct marketing and direct mail are synonymous. B.Direct marketing includes a variety of techniques and activities such as direct mail, telemarketing, and direct response advertising. C. Direct marketing has lost popularity over the past two decades, owing primarily to changing lifestyles and technologies. DBusiness-to-business marketers criticize direct marketing as an ineffective way to identify potential . sales leads, communicate with customers, and provide them with information about their products or services. 47. Which of the following statements about direct marketing is true? A Direct marketing has not traditionally been considered an element of the promotional mix, since it had . distinct objectives, strategies and tactics. B. One of the major tools of direct marketing is indirect-response advertising. C. Direct marketing is seldom, if ever, used by companies that have a sales force. D. Direct marketing does not exist beyond direct mail and mail-order catalogues. 48. The Bradford Exchange is a company that sells collectible plates. If you order one plate from the company, you will receive multiple mailings each month announcing new issues and encouraging you to place your order. Given this information, which promotional element do you think The Bradford Exchange depends upon most heavily? A. Advertising B. Sale promotion C. Direct marketing D. Public relations 49. One of the major tools of direct marketing is ______ advertising, whereby a product is promoted through an ad that encourages the consumer to purchase directly from the manufacturer. A. direct-response B. primary-demand C. business-to-business D. selective demand

50. _____ is a promotional mix element that allows for direct contact between a buyer and seller and allows a message to be modified according to the needs or reactions of the customer. A. Direct mail B. Personal selling C. Public relations D. Sales promotion 51. In the 1990s, companies saw __________ as a way to coordinate and manage their marketing communication programs to ensure customers received a consistent message about the company and/or its brands. A. product marketing B. the Internet C. relationship marketing D. integrated marketing communications 52. Many companies are taking a(n) ___________ perspective in developing their IMC programs whereby they consider all of the potential ways of reaching their target audience and presenting the company or brand in a favourable manner. A. audience contact B. traditional C. modern D. aggressive 53. _____ is the process of creating, maintaining, and enhancing long-term relationships with individual customers as well as other stakeholders for mutual benefit. A. Integrated marketing communications B. Marketing planning C. Exchange D. Relationship marketing 54. The increased usage of relationship marketing is due to the fact that: A. customers have become less demanding B. customers want products and services that are mass-produced rather than tailored to their specific needs and wants C. retaining customers is generally more cost effective than acquiring new ones D. it is very costly to maintain customer databases 55. Promotional management can best be described as: A. placing coupons in each Sunday edition of major newspapers B. effectively coordinating the promotional mix elements to develop an effective communication program C. measuring the effectiveness of any communication with the target market D. coordinating the activities of people who come in contact with the prospect or consumer 56. The _____ is the framework for developing, implementing, and controlling an organization's integrated marketing communications program and activities. A. promotional plan B. market audit C. situation analysis D. communications process 57. The _____ is a written document that describes the overall marketing strategy and programs developed for an organization, product line, or brand. A. promotional plan B. marketing plan C. communications plan D. situation analysis

58. A marketing plan usually includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. a program for implementing marketing strategy B. criteria and procedures for the hiring of all marketing personnel C. the establishment of marketing objectives D. a detailed situation analysis 59. A marketing plan usually includes: A. a corporate mission statement B. a media schedule C. a detailed situation analysis D. sales and market forecasts 60. The first step in the IMC planning process is: A. the situation analysis B. budget determination C. a review of the marketing plan D. specification of communications objectives 61. An internal situation analysis looks at all of the following EXCEPT: A. competitive analysis B. corporate and brand image analyses C. promotional objectives D. results of the firm's previous promotional programs 62. An external situation analysis could include all of the following EXCEPT: A. a competitive analysis B. the product's benefits C. consumer behaviour analysis D. environmental analysis 63. _____ refer to what is to be accomplished by the overall marketing programs and is stated in terms of sales, market share, and profitability. A. Communication objectives B. Marketing objectives C. Segmentation approaches D. External analysis factors 64. Which of the following is NOT a good example of a communications objective? A. To create awareness of the attributes of a brand or product B. To create a favourable attitude about a product C. To develop consumers' intentions to purchase a product D. To increase sales volume 65. _____ should be the guiding force for development of the overall marketing communications strategy and of objectives for each promotional mix area. A. Communication and behavioural objectives B. Sales and marketing objectives C. Marketing and behavioural objectives D. Promotional and marketing objectives 66. All of the following explain the importance of IMC EXCEPT: A. the many audiences to communicate with B. the vast number of messages consumers receive C. advertising and promotion regulation D. consumer adoption of technology and media

67. _____ is described as one of the "new-generation" marketing approaches that helps companies to better focus their efforts in acquiring, retaining, and developing relationships with customers and other stakeholders. A. Transaction marketing B. Public relations C. Online advertising D. IMC 68. Which of the following is NOT a general characteristic of IMC? A. Competitive-oriented communication B. Unified communication for consistent message and image C. Differentiated communication to multiple customer groups D. Relationships fostering communication with existing customers 69. Which of the following best describes a criticism of IMC? A. Differentiates communication to multiple customer groups B.Focuses primarily on the tactical coordination of various communication tools with the goal of making them look and sound alike C. Unifies communication for consistent message and image D. Uses database-centred communication for tangible results 70. Kim Rossister, brand manager at GM, plans for a new communication campaign and intends to consider all the potential ways of reaching her target audience and presenting her brand in a favourable manner. Kim believes this approach can help develop an efficient and effective communication campaign. This approach is best described as: A. database-centred perspective B. relationship marketing perspective C. audience contact perspective D. persuasive communication perspective 71. Which of the following statements about marketing and IMC plans is NOT necessarily true? A. The first step in the IMC planning process is to review the marketing plan B. The marketing objectives in the marketing plan should be reproduced as communication objectives in the IMC plan C. The marketing plan specifies the roles advertising and other promotional mix elements play in the overall marketing program D. The IMC plan is developed similarly to the marketing plan and often uses its detailed information

Chapter 01 Key 1. A 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. D 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. D 11. A 12. A 13. A 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. C 18. B 19. C 20. D 21. D 22. B 23. D 24. B 25. B 26. C 27. B 28. A 29. C 30. A 31. A 32. B 33. C 34. B 35. B 36. C

37. B 38. B 39. D 40. B 41. B 42. D 43. C 44. C 45. C 46. B 47. A 48. C 49. A 50. B 51. D 52. A 53. D 54. C 55. B 56. A 57. B 58. B 59. D 60. C 61. A 62. B 63. B 64. D 65. A 66. C 67. D 68. A 69. B 70. C 71. B

Chapter 01 Summary Category # of Questions Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 71 Belch - Chapter 01 71 Bloom's: Analyze 4 Bloom's: Remember 41 Bloom's: Understand 26 Difficulty: Difficult 3 Difficulty: Easy 37 Difficulty: Moderate 31 Learning Objective: 01-01 Describe the importance of marketing communications within the marketing mix. 8 Learning Objective: 01-02 Identify the tools of the promotional mix42 advertising; sales promotion; public relations; direct marketing; Internet marketing; and personal sellingand summarize their purpose. Learning Objective: 0110 03 Illustrate the concept of integrated marketing communications (IMC) by distinguishing its evolution; renewed perspective; and i mportance. Learning Objective: 0111 04 Explain the IMC planning process model and express the steps in developing a marketing communications program.

Chapter 02 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

An advertising agency that is set up, owned, and operated by the advertiser is called a(n): A. client management firm B. in-house agency C. centralized system D. full-service agency

A major reason for a client using a(n) ________ is to reduce advertising and promotion costs. A. self-sufficient agency B. client management system C. in-house agency D. full-service system

Companies who use a combination of in-house and outside agencies tend to use the external firms mostly for: A. sales presentations B. weekly circulars C. direct mail pieces D. creative and media services

A major reason why some companies choose to use an in-house agency is to: A. maintain creative freshness B. reduce advertising and promotions costs C. better understand how advertising works D. win advertising awards that will enhance the image of their brands

Lack of sufficient internal expertise and personnel growing stale while working on the same product might be reasons why a company might move away from: A. a brand marketing system B. an in-house agency C. the use of full-service advertising agencies D. the use of creative boutiques

A company that uses an in-house agency might turn its advertising and promotion tasks over to an outside agency to: A. get more control over the advertising process B. save money C. get an objective, experienced outside look at its advertising situation D. make coordination of the advertising and promotional process easier

Target's internal creative department handles the design of each of these elements EXCEPT: A. direct-mail pieces B. branding initiatives C. weekly circulars D. in-store displays

Which of the following is assigned to Target's outside agencies? A. weekly circulars and in-store displays B. branding and image-oriented communication C. direct-mail pieces D. promotions

Which of the following statements explains why an organization would want to use an outside advertising agency? A. An outside advertising agency saves money for the client. B. An outside advertising agency helps the client gain more prestige and a better image. C. An outside advertising agency has more knowledge of the brand's identity and its previous promotional activities. DAn outside advertising agency provides the client with the services of highly skilled individuals who are . experts in a number of areas including creative, media, and research.

10. Which of the following statements about advertising agencies is true? A. Agencies must be used since companies do not have the capabilities of developing their own advertising. B. Agencies are often used because of the skill, expertise, and experience they can offer in the advertising area. C. Most large, national advertisers use in-house agencies. D. Most large agencies offer only creative services to their clients. 11. Superagencies were formed: A. because advertisers were disenchanted with large agencies B. because advertisers wanted agencies who were flexible and responsive C. to save money for clients and lessen the need for competitive pricing D. so that agencies could provide their clients with integrated marketing communications services worldwide 12. International agencies formed by mergers and acquisitions of mid-sized agencies in order to provide integrated marketing communications services worldwide are called: A. superagencies B. multinational agencies C. integrated agencies D. full-service global firms 13. Which type of ad agency is most likely to assist the client in areas such as marketing strategy and research, campaign planning and execution, and media planning and buying? A. a creative boutique B. a full-service agency C. a media buying service D. a collateral agency 14. A full-service agency offers its clients all of the following EXCEPT: A. full range of marketing, communication, and promotion services B. research and creative development C. human resources management D. public relations expertise 15. An ad agency that offers its clients a complete range of marketing, communication, and promotion services is known as a(n): A. integrated marketing organization B. media buying service C. in-house agency D. full-service agency 16. The communications link between the ad agency and its clients is: A. account services B. marketing services C. media D. creative services

17. The ________ is responsible for understanding the advertiser's marketing and promotional needs and interpreting them to agency personnel. A. account executive B. marketing specialist C. media specialist D. copywriter 18. The agency person who is the focal point of the agency-client relationship is the: A. media buyer B. product manager C. account executive D. brand manager 19. The function of gathering, analyzing, and interpreting information that will be useful in developing advertising is the responsibility of the agency's ________ department. A. production B. traffic C. research D. account management 20. Which of the following functions is NOT performed by the agency's research department? A. interpreting information to assist in advertising decision-making B. planning the creative and media strategies for the advertising campaign C. designing, executing, and interpreting primary research studies D. disseminating information to agency account planners 21. The ________ in an agency interacts with personnel from all disciplines and provides insights into consumers and how to communicate with them. A. media director B. traffic manager C. account planner D. account executive 22. The department in an advertising agency that is responsible for analyzing, selecting, and contracting for ad space or time that will be used to deliver its client's advertising message is the ________ department. A. public relations B. account services C. marketing research D. media 23. The ________ department is becoming an increasingly important part of the agency business as many large advertisers consolidate their media buying with one or a few agencies to save money and improve media efficiency. A. traffic B. media C. production D. product management 24. Since most of the client's ad budget is spent on media time and/or space, it is important that the media department: A. coordinates with the creative department to ensure that concepts are not too complex B. focuses on purchasing commercial time on the most popular shows C. develops a plan that communicates to the right audience in a cost-efficient manner D. creates a plan that utilizes the least expensive media vehicles

25. The ________ are the individuals who conceive the ideas for the ads and write the advertising message. A. copywriters B. art directors C. traffic coordinators D. account executives 26. The ________ is responsible for creating the visual portion of an ad such as layouts and the commercial storyboards. A. account executive B. product management department C. art department or art director D. copywriter 27. The growth of the Internet as a media vehicle has led to the need for all of the following, EXCEPT: A. a digital creative services department B. a renewed focus on traditional media C. the purchase of interactive firms by full-service agencies D. the coordination of digital and mass media advertising components 28. Which department within an advertising agency would assume the responsibility for hiring outside persons such as printers, engravers, photographers, or other vendors to turn a layout into a finished product? A. media department B. art department C. production department D. traffic department 29. The ________ department coordinates all phases of production to see that the ads are completed on time. A. media B. production C. art D. traffic 30. A ________ is an agency organizational structure in which each functional area is set up as a separate department. This structure is called on as needed to perform its specialty and serve all of the agency's clients. A. departmental system B. group system C. creative boutique D. matrix system 31. The Creative Ideas advertising agency handles each of its clients by assigning individuals from various departments to work together as a team on their accounts. The agency is using a ________ organizational structure. A. departmental system B. group system C. matrix system D. dedicated system 32. An advertising agency that wants its employees to develop expertise in servicing a variety of accounts should use a(n) ________ structure. A. group system B. creative boutique C. departmental system D. in-house agency

33. Which of the following is NOT a reason why an advertising agency might use a group system organizational structure? It would: A. allow agency personnel to become very knowledgeable about a particular client's market and business B. ensure continuity in servicing a particular account C. provide better pricing to a key client D. to provide superior service for its accounts 34. The traditional method of compensating ad agencies is with: A. the commission system B. the hourly billings C. the fee system D. the straight salary method 35. Agency compensation under the commission system is based on: A. the total number of hours worked B. a percentage of a client's marketing budget C. a specified percentage of any advertising time or space the agency purchases for its client D. a percentage of advertising production costs 36. Opponents of the agency commission system would argue that this system is not effective because a commission: A. keeps the emphasis on creative skills not the bottom-line. B. encourages agencies to recommend high media expenditures to increase their commission level. C. encourages agencies to limit their client's advertising expenditures. D. does not tie agency compensation to media costs. 37. The standard agency commission is: A. 15% of media time and space costs B. 15% added on to media time and space costs C. added on to the agency's media costs and personnel time D. a complex formula based on the type of media purchased 38. Which of the following statements about changes in the way advertising agencies are being compensated is true? A.Many agencies and their clients have developed some type of fee arrangement or cost-plus agreement for agency compensation. B With the move toward integrated marketing services, it is likely that there will be a return to the . commission system of compensation. C From the viewpoints of both the client and the agency, the traditional commission system is much . superior to negotiated commissions. DSince most clients want their agencies to be in total charge of the integrated marketing communications . process, they are willing to compensate them based on media commissions. 39. A major argument put forth by defenders of the commission system is that a commission: A. keeps the agencies from placing advertising in expensive media B. ties agency compensation to the inflation in media costs C. encourages agencies to use noncommissionable media such as direct mail D. keeps emphasis on agency competition on non-price factors like advertising quality 40. Critics argue that the use of ________ ties agency compensation to media costs. A. the objective-and-task compensation system B. the fixed fee arrangement C. the cost-plus agreement D. the commission system

41. Which of the following is NOT a valid criticism of the commission compensation system for an ad agency? A. It is difficult to administer. B. In periods of media cost inflation, the agency is disproportionately rewarded. C. There is an incentive to avoid noncommissionable media. D. Media costs do not relate directly to effort or expertise expended by agencies. 42. Under which type of compensation system might an agency be more inclined to recommend expensive media such as network television and national magazines to its clients? A. commission system B. fee arrangement system C. cost-plus system D. incentive-based compensation system 43. An agency books television media space at a cost of $1,000,000. The standard agency commission on this buy is: A. $15,000 B. $150,000 C. dependent upon the time of day the commercials run D. dependent upon the actual shows in which the commercials run 44. An agency books television media space at a cost of $1,000,000. If cash discounts do not apply, what price does the agency pay to the media company? A. $985,000 B. $1,150,000 C. $850,000 D. $1,000,000 and the client pays the agency commission 45. Why are negotiated commission structures becoming more common? A. to ensure that agencies do not make too much money B. to consider the needs of clients as well as the amount of time and effort the agency spends on an account C. to encourage agencies to cut back on buying network TV advertising for their clients D. to support the creation of a transactional relationship between agency and client 46. Which of the following statements about agency commissions is true? A. Some leading agencies now receive average commissions of 8 to 10 percent. B. Nearly all of the leading agencies still earn a 15 percent commission. C Most agencies are earning more of their income from fixed commissions as clients expand their IMC . programs to include other forms of promotion. D. Most agencies are unwilling to negotiate their commission rates. 47. What form of compensation is used to pay the advertising agency when the client's advertising program does not involve a large amount of media billings? A. a share of the profits B. a negotiated fee C. a rebate from the media D. a 17.65 percent mark up on costs 48. Negotiated commission rates for advertising agencies: A. are designed primarily to benefit agencies B. are rarely used by consumer-products advertisers C. are becoming less common D. are becoming more commonplace

49. A ________ is a type of compensation arrangement where an agency charges a client a fixed monthly amount of money for all of its services and credits media commissions against this monthly rate. A. fixed fee agreement B. negotiated commission C. cost-plus agreement D. fee-commission combination 50. Under the _______, the client agrees to pay the agency a fee based on the cost of its work plus some agreed-on profit margin. A. cost-plus arrangement B. media commission system C. incentive-based system D. fee-combination arrangement 51. Under the cost-plus compensation method, all of the following costs might be included in the calculation, EXCEPT: A. profit margin B. out-of-pocket expenses C. media costs D. agency self-promotion costs 52. Agencies that are reluctant to let clients see their internal cost figures are less likely to accept a: A. fixed-fee arrangement B. cost-plus agreement C. commission-based arrangement D. incentive-based compensation agreement 53. Which of the following compensation methods should an advertiser adopt if its primary goal is to achieve efficiency and accountability? A. fixed-fee arrangement B. fee-combination arrangement C. commission-based arrangement D. incentive-based compensation agreement 54. The Red River Valley advertising agency receives compensation from its clients based on how well it meets predetermined performance goals. Indicate the compensation method that best corresponds to this situation. A. fixed-fee B. fee-commission C. incentive-based D. cost-plus system 55. Why would General Motors switch to an incentive-based compensation system with several of its agencies? A. to encourage their agencies to use more mass media advertising B. to encourage their agencies to stop using network TV advertising C. to save money on advertising and divert it to other business departments D. to encourage its agencies to look beyond traditional mass media advertising and develop other ways of reaching consumers 56. The advertising remuneration process which rewards the agency based on the achievement of mutually agreed upon objectives is called: A. the cost-based system B. the Performance by Results system C. the fee-combination method D. the advertising reward method

57. The Performance by Results system reflects three groups of performance measures. Which of the following is NOT one of those measures? A. comparison to previous year's communication budget B. marketing communication effectiveness C. overall business performance D. agency process evaluation 58. Which of the following is NOT a measure of marketing communication effectiveness? A. brand awareness B. retail sales results C. brand image ratings D. advertising likability 59. The four behavioural objectives that are measures of marketing communication effectiveness are intent to purchase, trial, repeat purchase, and _______. A. viral media B. brand understanding C. brand loyalty D. positioning 60. Jenna sees a commercial for a new brand of toothpaste. She decides to consider it the next time she goes to the drug store. This is an example of which behavioural objective? A. retrial B. sampling C. brand awareness D. intent to purchase 61. Which of the following is a business measure under the Performance by Results system? A. market share B. intent to purchase C. brand awareness D. productivity 62. A ________ audit of an agency focuses on factors such as costs, expenses, and payments to outside suppliers while a ________ audit focuses on factors such as the agency's efforts in planning, development, and implementing the advertising program. A. financial/qualitative B. results/process C. financial/creative D. qualitative/quantitative 63. Which of the following should a client's evaluation of its advertising agency's performance NOT take into account? A. performance of account representatives B. qualitative considerations, such as the quality of the agency's efforts in creative, media, etc. C. financial status of the agency D. market performance measures, such as sales and market share 64. Personality conflicts, unrealistic demands by clients, and personnel changes are all reasons why: A. it is difficult to measure the effectiveness of advertising campaigns B. ad agencies lose clients C. clients need to use more than one agency D. planning and budgeting communication initiatives is difficult 65. Which of the following would NOT be a valid reason for switching advertising agencies? A. dissatisfaction over the quality of the advertising produced by the agency B. conflicts over compensation policies C. a change in research methodology D. a stagnation or decline in sales of the product

66. Which of the following best describes an Agency-of-Record (AOR)? A. the previous agency who did work for a particular client B. an agency that performs work on a project-by-project basis C. an agency that is subcontracted by the client directly for a particular assignment D. the primary agency whose foremost interest is in building the client's brand 67. Many full-service agencies include sales promotion, merchandising, direct marketing, PR and/or other _______. A. specialized services B. niche opportunities C. consumer needs D. organizational structures 68. One area where Canadian agencies have worked with creative boutiques is the development of messages targeted to _______. A. affluent markets B. innovators C. ethnic markets D. difficult customers 69. Creative boutiques are agencies that: A. limit their client service to creative planning and execution B. have resulted from advertisers wanting to save money in buying media space C. can perform the same functions as full-service agencies for their clients D. are used only when research is not important to marketing success 70. Independent companies that specialize in the purchase of radio and television time are known as: A. media measurement bureaus B. mid-sized agencies C. full-service agencies D. media buying services 71. Because ________ purchase such large amounts of time and space, they receive large discounts. A. creative boutiques B. full-service agencies C. in-house agencies D. media buying services 72. ________ are agencies that specialize in offering services, such as database management, direct mail, and creative and production capabilities. A. Creative boutiques B. Sales promotion agencies C. Direct-response agencies D. Public relations firms 73. ________ specialize in the development and management of sweepstakes, refund and rebate offers, and incentive programs. A. Sales promotion agencies B. Direct response agencies C. Creative boutiques D. Interactive agencies 74. A(n) ________ is the type of firm an organization would hire to develop and implement programs to manage the organization's publicity, image, and affairs with consumers and other relevant publics. A. public relations firm B. advertising agency C. media mix organization D. direct-response agency

75. Marketers willing to increase message credibility and save media costs are more likely to use the services of a(n): A. public relations agency B. direct-response agency C. advertising agency D. sales promotion agency 76. A typical direct-response agency is divided into three main departments: A. creative, media, and research B. account management, media, and research C. account management, creative, and media D. creative, media, and production 77. The brand manager for Carnation Evaporated Milk wishes to run a holiday cookie contest to find consumers' best recipes. The creator of the best recipe will win a trip to Paris, France. Most likely, Carnation will hire a(n) ________ to plan and execute the campaign. A. public relations firm B. advertising agency C. sales promotion agency D. contest house 78. Which of the following statements about the development of interactive media is NOT true? A. Traditional advertising agencies tend not to develop interactive media capabilities. B. Many marketers are using specialized interactive agencies to develop their interactive media. C Interactive agencies range from smaller companies that specialize in website design and creation to . full-service interactive agencies. DFull-service interactive agencies provide various services including strategic consulting regarding the . use of the Internet and online branding, technical knowledge, systems integration, and the development of e-commerce capabilities. 79. Many agencies are moving toward offering more integrated marketing communication (IMC) services: A because they want to maintain control of the entire promotional process because it leads to more . synergy among the various communication elements B. even though it is less convenient for a client to coordinate all of its promotional efforts with one agency C because an agency with integrated marketing communication capabilities can create a number of . different images of the product to appeal to all relevant publics D. although effecting economies of scale and synergy is difficult, especially on large budget campaigns 80. Which of the following results were found in a series of interviews on agency-client relationships with executives from major Canadian marketers? A. The agency and client should maintain an arm's length separation so as not to influence the creative process. B Marketers believe they can help agencies in the relationship by being better clients through clear . decision-making and solid marketing research. C. Clients should not share sensitive and confidential information with the agency in case the relationship sours. D. Stronger results were more often delivered by full-service agencies than by smaller boutique firms.

Chapter 02 Key 1. B 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. B 9. D 10. B 11. D 12. A 13. B 14. C 15. D 16. A 17. A 18. C 19. C 20. B 21. C 22. D 23. B 24. C 25. A 26. C 27. B 28. C 29. D 30. A 31. B 32. C 33. C 34. A 35. C 36. B

37. A 38. A 39. D 40. D 41. A 42. A 43. B 44. C 45. B 46. A 47. B 48. D 49. D 50. A 51. D 52. B 53. D 54. C 55. D 56. B 57. A 58. B 59. C 60. D 61. A 62. A 63. C 64. B 65. C 66. D 67. A 68. C 69. A 70. D 71. D 72. C 73. A 74. A

75. A 76. C 77. C 78. A 79. A 80. B

Chapter 02 Summary Category Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Belch - Chapter 02 Blooms: Apply Blooms: Remember Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective: 02-01 Identify the role of the advertising agency and the services it provides. Learning Objective: 02-02 Describe methods for compensating and evaluating advertising agencies. Learning Objective: 02-03 Contrast the role and functions of specialized marketing communication organizations. Learning Objective: 0204 Evaluate the perspectives on the use of integrated services across agencies or within one agency; and agencyclient responsibilities and partnerships.

# of Questions 80 80 9 27 44 49 31 33 33 12 2

Chapter 03 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

Recent research suggests that influential members who are active within __________ could be an effective avenue for targeting. A. social media B. church communities C. frequent shoppers memberships D. online dating sites

Young consumers who were surveyed found great difficulty in: A. finding brands to purchase online. B. comparing online and bricks-and-mortar products and prices. C. the act of physically purchasing a product. D. recalling any brands advertising on Facebook or Twitter.

Consumer behaviour is defined as: A. conspicuous consumption B. the process people engage in when searching, selecting, and using products and services that they need C. the act of physically purchasing a product D. the act of making a final decision as to which product to purchase

_____ is the process and activities that people engage in when searching for, selecting, purchasing, using, evaluating and disposing of products and services so as to satisfy their needs and desires. A. Exchange B. Consumer behaviour C. Conspicuous consumption D. Learning

_____ is the first stage in the consumer decision making process. A. Internal search B. External search C. Need recognition D. Alternative evaluation

Richard loves his car and does everything necessary to keep the vehicle in top running condition. When he heard a strange popping noise under the hood, he knew that the car needed the services of a mechanic. At this point, Richard was in the _____ stage of the consumer decision-making process. A. internal search B. need recognition C. external search D. post-purchase evaluation

Yonique was a beverage made from yogurt. It was similar in consistency to a milkshake, but made with yogurt instead of milk. Even though its marketers tried to use marketer-induced need recognition, the product failed in large measure because: A. consumers did not see a need for the product B. marketers cannot induce need recognition C. consumers do not engage in novelty-seeking behaviour D. need recognition does not occur with new products

Oral B markets an indicator toothbrush that reminds consumers when they need to replace their old worn brushes. This strategy is focused to reach consumers at which stage of the consumer decision making process? A. Need recognition B. Internal search C. Alternative evaluation D. Purchase

The market for cereal seems saturated, but still cereal companies continue to develop new offerings. Which of the following best explains why Quaker found it necessary to develop and market red and green coloured Cap'n Crunch for the Christmas season? A. Consumer's novelty-seeking behaviour B. To satisfy a physiological need C. To broaden the marketer consideration set D. To balance any product deletion

10. _____ are factors that compel or drive a consumer to take a particular action. A. Motives B. Impulses C. Wants D. Temptations 11. According to Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory, the highest level of needs are ______ needs. A. physiological B. social C. self-actualization D. esteem 12. Lower level needs such as hunger and thirst are important to marketers because these needs: A. are the hardest to satisfy B. are an ongoing source of motivation for most consumer purchase behaviour C. offer marketers a basis for differentiating their products D. are the source for most market development strategies 13. The headline for the Allstate Flood Insurance program ad reads, "There's a chance of flooding in your area. Are you willing to bet the house on it?" The ad shows a picture of a flooded home and shows how flood insurance helps to satisfy the ______ needs as defined by Maslow's hierarchy. A. physiological B. social C. esteem D. safety 14. On a trip to Halifax, Myra experienced car trouble. She knew she needed to find a good mechanic, so she asked the advice of the people running the motel where she was staying. She also called the local Better Business Bureau for help and looked in the local yellow pages. Finally, she called a friend who used to live in Halifax for his recommendation. Myra was obviously engaged in which stage of the consumer decision making process? A. Need recognition B. Information search C. Alternative evaluation D. Purchase decision 15. _____ is the stage of the consumer decision making process whereby the individual scans information stored in memory to recall past experience and/or knowledge regarding various purchase alternatives. A. Internal search B. External search C. Alternative evaluation D. Post purchase evaluation

16. Dara Smith looked at articles in Consumer Reports magazine and asked the salesperson at Future Shop many questions before purchasing a stereo receiver. These activities are examples of: A. internal search B. external search C. post purchase evaluation D. problem clarification 17. _____ is the process by which an individual receives, selects, organizes, and interprets information to create a meaningful picture of the world. A. Information search B. Problem solving C. Perception D. Integration 18. Perception is an important consideration for ad creation. Obsession perfume used scent strips in its ads and a caterer mailed free samples to potential clients to influence _____ and to increase the probability that the ad will be noticed. A. the level of sensory input B. consumer personality C. perception retrieval D. subliminal perception 19. One study estimates that the consumer is potentially exposed to nearly 1500 ads per day, yet perceives only 76 of these messages. _____ accounts for this phenomenon A. selective attention B. selective exposure C. subliminal perception D. selective comprehension 20. Daria is listening to music on her car radio. When a commercial comes on, she changes the station. Daria is engaging in: A. selective attention B. selective exposure C. selective retention D. subliminal perception 21. _____ occurs when Betty elects to read only the book section of the National Post Saturday newspaper and not look at the other sections of the paper. A. Selective attention B. Selective exposure C. Selective retention D. Subliminal perception 22. The perception process whereby consumers interpret information based on their own attitudes, beliefs, motives, and experiences is known as: A. selective exposure B. selective comprehension C. selective retention D. subliminal perception 23. The Energizer bunny, the golden arches of McDonald's, and the Mr. Peanut character used by Planters' Peanuts are all examples of: A. cues B. persuaders C. trigger points D. mnemonics

24. Symbols, rhymes, association, and images that assist in the learning and memory processes are known as: A. cues B. mnemonics C. trigger points D. persuaders 25. Advertising for Hilton Hotels tells consumers they can make a reservation by calling 1-800-HILTONS. The telephone number is based on: A. a subliminal technique B. classical conditioning C. reinforcement theory D. a mnemonic 26. Every afternoon at about 3 o'clock, Neil buys a cold drink. He either buys a Coca-Cola, a Mountain Dew, or a Minute Maid lemonade. He will not buy any other brand or type of soft drink because the three drinks make up his: A. decision criteria B. brand attribution list C. evoked set D. subliminal choices 27. The brands identified by the consumer as purchase options to be considered is called a(n): A. evoked set. B. decision criteria. C. brand attribution list. D. choice subset. 28. _____ refer to specific events or outcomes that consumers experience when a product or service is purchased and/or consumed. A. Evaluative criteria B. Attribute assignments C. Dissonance motives D. Consequences 29. An example of functional benefit is: A. the taste of a soft drink B. the number of people you know who own the brand C. the product photo in a magazine ad D. the model number of a plasma TV 30. Concrete outcomes of product usage that are tangible and directly related to product performance are: A. experiential benefits B. psychological benefits C. functional benefits D. evaluative proofs 31. _____ is a construct or notion that represents an individual's overall feelings or evaluation of an object. A. A motive B. A need C. A perception D. An attitude 32. _____ is a predisposition to buy a certain brand. A. A purchase decision B. A purchase intention C. Affective behaviour D. Satisfaction

33. _____ is a preference for a particular brand that results in its repeated purchase. A. A purchase intention B. Satisfaction C. Cognitive dissonance D. Brand loyalty 34. Bryan Nixon owns several apartments. Having tried some other appliance brands in his rental apartments and been dissatisfied with their short life span, Nixon will now only purchase Maytag brand appliances to go into his apartments. Nixon's repeat purchases of Maytag appliances indicate: A. the existence of cognitive dissonance. B. the absence of any affect referral decision rule. C. strong brand loyalty. D. extensive decision making and strong psychosocial consequences. 35. Marketers strive to develop and maintain brand loyalty by doing all of these things EXCEPT: A. reducing reminder advertising expenditures B. maintaining prominent shelf positions and displays in stores C. running periodic promotions to deter customers from switching brands D. using loyalty programs such as Air Miles 36. A judgement that consumers make with respect to the pleasurable level of consumption-related fulfillment is more simply known as: A. subliminal choice. B. satisfaction. C. brand loyalty. D. positive reinforcement. 37. Digital technology such as NFC used in in-store communication continues to improve the shopping experience. What does NFC stand for? A. Need For Cash B. Near Field Communication C. Nano Force Communication D. Net Fast Cash 38. Information such as product knowledge, meanings, and beliefs is combined to evaluate alternatives through: A. motive stimulation B. subliminal perception C. integration processes D. affective reasoning 39. Simplified decision rules such as "Always buy the largest size of the cheapest priced detergent" or "Only buy motor oil if the manufacturer is offering a rebate" are called: A. formal integration strategies B. heuristics C. formalized group norms D. problem-solving consequences 40. Maxwell House Coffee ads emphasize consumers' overall emotional impressions of the brand with its "Good to the last drop" slogan. Maxwell House wants consumers to purchase on the basis of this impression and not by comparing specific attributes of other brands of coffee. This is an example of a marketer using: A. the affect referral decision rule B. cognitive input/output C. psychosocial consequences D. non-qualitative evaluative criteria

41. For which of the following products is the consumer most likely to experience cognitive dissonance? A. Chewing gum B. Diamond engagement ring C. Light bulbs D. Garden fertilizer 42. A feeling of post-purchase doubt or psychological tension that a consumer experiences after making a difficult purchase choice is called: A. subliminal anxiety. B. dissatisfaction. C. cognitive dissonance. D. negative reinforcement. 43. Most of the purchase decisions made by consumers for low-priced frequently purchased products are characterized by: A. routine response behaviour B. limited problem solving C. extended problem solving D. cognitive learning 44. For which of the following situations is a consumer's purchase behaviour likely to be characterized by extended problem solving? A. The purchase of a laundry detergent. B. The purchase of a new pair of running shoes by a consumer who runs regularly. C. The selection of a restaurant for lunch with friends. D. The first time purchase of a personal computer by a student with no prior knowledge of PCs. 45. A product manager for a new brand of laundry detergent must: A. increase problem recognition for detergent purchases B. interrupt consumers' routine choice behaviour and get them to consider a new brand C. maintain a lower price than competitors D. create pioneering advertising 46. A group whose presumed perspective or values are used by an individual as the basis for his judgments, opinions, and actions is a: A. subculture B. social class C. reference group D. demographic group 47. A reference group to which one does not wish to belong is a _____ group. A. disassociative B. disconnected C. confrontational D. segregated 48. Reference groups to which one would like to belong are called _____ groups. A. aspirational B. associative C. acquisitive D. integrated 49. Reference group members play many roles in the purchase decision-making process. Which of the following is NOT one of those roles? A. The initiator B. The associate C. The influencer D. The consumer

50. The first step in the target market process is to: A. select a target market B. segment the market C. determine the marketing positioning strategy D. develop new products 51. The market segmentation process: A. divides a market into distinct groups that have heterogeneous needs B. divides a market into distinct groups that will respond similarly to marketing actions C. identifies markets with unfulfilled needs D. positions products in the minds of prospects and customers 52. When television stations sell advertising time based on age categories of viewers, they are using _____ segmentation. A. demographic B. psychographic C. geographic D. behaviouristic 53. Which of the following is the LEAST effective potential basis for segmenting the consumer market for bran muffin mixes? A. age B. rate of use of muffin mixes C. home ownership D. lifestyle 54. Lester's Smoked Meat is very popular in Montreal, but not as popular in the rest of Canada. Given this information, Lester's should use _____ segmentation. A. demographic B. personality C. geographic D. behaviouristic 55. Division of the market based on age, sex, family size, income, and other measurable characteristics is known as: A. demographic segmentation B. psychographic segmentation C. quantified aggregation D. lifestyle aggregation 56. All of the following are demographic factors EXCEPT: A. age B. family size C. income D. product usage 57. Ads for consumer finance companies are often aimed at people making $25,000 or less annual salaries. Consumer finance companies are using _____ segmentation. A. geographic B. demographic C. lifestyle D. behaviouristic 58. An ad for a travel agency offers trips especially designed for grandparents and their grandchildren to enjoy together. This example illustrates the use of _____ segmentation. A. geographic B. demographic C. lifestyle D. behaviouristic

59. An ad for Nivea skin cream which is used by women states that the cream allows you to "give your skin back its own wrinkle control." This ad is using _____ segmentation. A. behaviouristic and benefit B. benefit and demographic C. psychographic and behaviouristic D. demographic and psychographic 60. _____ divides a market on the basis of lifestyles. A. Leisure marketing B. Psychographic segmentation C. Benefit segmentation D. Behaviouristic segmentation 61. The ad for the Disney Institute at Walt Disney World describes vacations during which an individual can immerse him or herself in the joys of gardening for a week and take classes with horticulturists. This is an example of _____ segmentation. A. psychographic B. demographic C. behaviouristic D. usage 62. Psychographic segmentation considers values and lifestyle attributes based on an analysis of consumers' AIOs. This stands for: A. Actual involvement and openness to new brands B. Activities, interests and opinions C. Attitudes, initiatives and options D. Aspirations, inhibitions and other psychological barriers 63. Psychographic segmentation considers each of the following variables EXCEPT: A. culture B. social class C. personality D. spending ability 64. _____ segmentation divides consumers into groups according to their usage, loyalties, or buying responses to a product. A. Benefit B. Demographic C. Behaviouristic D. Psychographic 65. Research shows that about two-thirds of the new insurance policies Prudential sells will be to current policyholders. This information indicates a ______ segmentation would be appropriate for Prudential to use along with demographic and psychographic segmentation. A. benefit B. geographic C. behaviouristic D. VALS 66. Bell Canada uses _____ segmentation to segment consumers in terms of how much leisure telephone calling they do. A. behaviouristic B. lifestyle C. demographic D. VALS

67. Which of the following bases for segmentation is employed when consumers are grouped according to their use of a product or service (heavy versus light)? A. Behaviouristic B. Benefit C. Lifestyle D. Needs 68. _____ segmentation is the grouping of customers on the basis of attributes sought in a product. A. Benefit B. Usage C. VALS D. Lifestyle 69. An advertising campaign stating that BMW "outperforms most cars on the road even before you step on the accelerator" is an example of _____ segmentation. A. benefit B. demographic C. usage D. VALS 70. The fact that some consumers want a toothpaste that fights cavities while others want a toothpaste that freshens their breath and whitens their teeth provides an opportunity for _____ segmentation in the toothpaste market. A. behaviouristic B. benefit C. psychographic D. demographic 71. Volvo's strategy of emphasizing the safety of its cars in its advertising reflects a positioning strategy based on: A. benefit segmentation B. psychographic segmentation C. positioning by price/quality D. positioning by product class 72. _____ segmentation has been increasingly accepted with the advent of the values and lifestyles (VALS) program. A. Demographic B. Psychographic C. Benefit D. Behaviouristic 73. _____ is the complexity of learned values, norms, and meanings shared by members of a society. A. Instinct B. Culture C. Learning D. Motivation 74. _____ refers to relatively homogeneous divisions in a society into which people sharing similar lifestyles, values, norms, interests, and behaviours can be grouped. A. Social class B. Target market C. Market segment D. Culture

75. _____ are customers that buy the main brand, but also buy another brand in the product category within a given relevant time period. A. Brand loyalists B. Favourable brand switchers C. Other brand switchers D. New category users 76. Campbell's Soup wishes to maintain consistent consumer purchase and consumption behavior without having to advertise too often or too heavily. They should focus their communications on: A. brand loyalists B. favourable brand switchers C. other brand switchers D. new category users 77. Oftentimes, changes in one's life lead a consumer to purchase products they have not used before. These consumers are considered to be: A. brand explorers B. favourable brand switchers C. window shoppers D. new category users 78. Jeff runs several times a week and believes that Nike running shoes are the best for his running style and the shape and size of his foot. Puma may consider it inefficient to advertise to Jeff because they consider him to be: A. a picky consumer B. a favourable brand switcher C. an other brand loyal D. unable to impress with their unique product features 79. If an ad uses language or references to a lifestyle that is unfamiliar to the ____, there is less likelihood of it influencing in the direction intended. A. consumer B. end user C. family size D. target audience 80. Developing a(n) ________ allows the message to be more precisely delivered in a medium that has a higher proportion of the target audience. A. detailed profile of the target market B. study of consumer attitudes C. evaluation of past promotional activity D. substantial promotional budget

Chapter 03 Key 1. A 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. A 9. A 10. A 11. C 12. B 13. D 14. B 15. A 16. B 17. C 18. A 19. A 20. B 21. A 22. B 23. D 24. B 25. D 26. C 27. A 28. D 29. A 30. C 31. D 32. B 33. D 34. C 35. A 36. B

37. B 38. C 39. B 40. A 41. B 42. C 43. A 44. D 45. B 46. C 47. A 48. A 49. B 50. B 51. B 52. A 53. C 54. C 55. A 56. D 57. B 58. B 59. B 60. B 61. A 62. B 63. D 64. C 65. D 66. A 67. A 68. A 69. A 70. B 71. A 72. B 73. B 74. A

75. B 76. A 77. D 78. C 79. D 80. A

Chapter 03 Summary Category # of Questions Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 80 Belch - Chapter 03 80 Blooms: Analyze 13 Blooms: Apply 6 Blooms: Remember 40 Blooms: Understand 21 Difficulty: Difficult 9 Difficulty: Easy 33 Difficulty: Moderate 38 Learning Objective: 03-01 Describe the consumer decision11 making process and demonstrate how it relates to marketing communication. Learning Objective: 0331 02 Distinguish internal psychological processes; their influence on consumer decision making; and implications for marketing com munication. Learning Objective: 03-03 Contrast how the consumer decision7 making process varies for different types of purchases and the effects on marketing communication. Learning Objective: 03-04 Compare the similarities and differences of target market and target audience. 25 Learning Objective: 03-05 Identify the options for making a target audience decision for marketing communication. 4 Learning Objective: 03-06 Express why a profile of the target audience is important for message; media; and IMC tool decisions. 2

Chapter 04 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

In the opening chapter vignette, which Asian car company used an integrated campaign to highlight its "hot" new sports coupe? A. Honda B. Toyota C. Subaru D. Hyundai

In the opening chapter vignette, because the target audience was "young men aged 30-35 who are techsavvy driving enthusiasts", the marketers needed to use innovative new communication techniques to ________. A. get noticed and be different and unique B. show how the new sports coupe could measure up to the competition C. illustrate the mainstream features of the new car D. communicate the traditional messages they had in the past

The basic function of the elements of the integrated communication program is to: A. communicate with a firm's target audience B. convince customers to make a purchase immediately C. convince customers to pay a higher price for a product or service D. educate customers about the features of a product or service

_____ is the passing of information, the exchange of ideas, or process of establishing a commonness of thought between a sender and receiver. A. Advertising B. Encoding C. Decoding D. Communication

Which of the following statements about effective communication is true? A Advertising communication is effective because marketers are able to tell consumers how to interpret . their messages within the context of the communication. B For effective communication, marketers must understand the meanings that words and symbols attach . to consumers and how these words and symbols are interpreted. C. Effective communication is unaffected by the reception environment. D. Whether an ad is in black and white or in colour has no impact on how effectively the message is communicated.

Which of the following is NOT a controllable variable in the communication process? A. Receivers B. Source C. Message D. Channel

Successful communication depends on all of the following EXCEPT: A. the nature of the message B. the interpretation of the message by the sender C. the environment in which a message is received D. the receiver's perception of the source of the message

Which of the following is NOT a basic element of the communication process? A. Source B. Message C. Channel D. Integration

Putting thoughts, ideas or information together in symbolic form is called: A. encoding B. deciphering C. shaping D. decoding

10. When Sidney Crosby appears in a commercial endorsing Gatorade, the message source is: A. PepsiCo, the company that owns Gatorade B. the television program that the advertising provides financial support for C. Sidney Crosby D. consumers who view the commercial 11. The communication process begins with the process of _____, which leads to the development of a _______ that contains the information or meaning a source hopes to convey. A. encoding; message B. encrypting; transmission C. encoding; response D. decoding; transmission 12. The source or sender of an advertising communication: A. is typically a salesperson B. is never a nonpersonal entity C. is typically identified as the owner of the medium in which the communication appeared D. can be an individual or a nonpersonal entity such as the corporation 13. When marketers develop an advertising message, one of their primary goals is to encode the message: A. in a way that makes its message unique to each individual who is exposed to the ad B. so that it can only be understood by members of the target audience C. so that it will be understood and interpreted in a similar way by most consumers D. using nonverbal communication so as to eliminate problems with connotations and jargon 14. The encoding process leads to the development of: A. a message B. noise C. a channel D. feedback 15. Which of the following would NOT be an example of an advertising message? A. A radio commercial telling you why you should fly to Florida on Delta Airlines B. A print ad explaining a sweepstakes in which the winner will receive a walk-on role on an NBC soap opera C. A message from your company's HR department telling you the timing of your next review D. A television ad that tells you to watch the next episode of "ER" 16. Each of the following statements about an advertising message is true EXCEPT: A. advertising messages can be verbal or nonverbal. B. advertising messages cannot be primarily visual. C.advertising messages are generally put into a transmittable form that is appropriate for the channel of communication being used. D the effectiveness of an advertising message may be determined by the impression or image it creates . rather than the information it contains.

17. The _____ is the method or medium by which communication travels from the source to the receiver. A. channel B. feedback mechanism C. source derivation D. message transmitter 18. Which of the following is an example of a personal channel of communication? A. Online customer service personnel B. Newspaper C. Radio D. Magazines 19. Riley told Terry and Bill, and Terry told Melissa, and Melissa told Gwen, Andrew, and Beryl that the new Chinese restaurant in town had authentically prepared Chinese dishes. This word-of-mouth took place via a(n) _____ channel of communication. A. individualized B. nonpersonal C. personal D. verbal 20. Two-way communication between a brand and its consumers on social media such as Twitter, Facebook and blogs are examples of a(n) _____ channel of communication. A. individualized B. nonpersonal C. personal D. verbal 21. Honda broadcasts a commercial during "Law & Order," a TV program that is seen by a large number of viewers. The broadcasting of this ad takes place in a(n) _____ channel of communication. A. individualized B. nonpersonal C. personal D. verbal 22. Loblaws supermarkets buy an insert to go into Saturday's Toronto Star. The newspaper is read by over 100,000 people. The newspaper is an example of a(n) _____ channel of communication. A. individualized B. direct-response C. nonpersonal D. direct response 23. Nonpersonal channels of communication include: A. newspapers, magazines, billboards, and salespeople B. salespeople, friends, relatives, and spokespeople C. reference groups, sales clerks, and telemarketers D. online television broadcasts, radio, newspapers, and magazines 24. _____ is the process of interpreting a sender's message into thought. A. Decoding B. Encoding C. Channeling D. Responding 25. Which of the following communication processes will most likely be influenced by the experiences, perceptions, attitudes, and values of the message recipient? A. Encoding B. Decoding C. Noise D. Transmission

26. The field of experience of the receiver most heavily influences which component of the communication process? A. Decoding B. Message C. Feedback D. Noise 27. The experiences, perceptions, attitudes, and values a consumer brings to a communication situation is referred to as his or her: A. field of experience. B. common ground. C. source characteristics. D. selective perceptions. 28. Mentos mint candy uses an advertising campaign that shows people solving problems by thinking outside of the box—by taking a fresh look at a common problem. Freshness is the message that the ad is supposed to deliver, but if Dick and Bella Lestor think the ad is simply showing people being rude and boorish, then in terms of the communication process, the Lestors have _____ the message improperly. A. encoded B. interpreted C. decoded D. channelled 29. The fact that marketing and advertising people have backgrounds and interests that are often quite different from consumers who comprise mass markets for many products and services makes it difficult to establish: A. feedback mechanisms B. response hierarchies C. common ground D. fields of experience 30. The source and receiver each have a frame of reference that they bring to the communication situation. Effective communication is more likely when there is some _____ between the two parties. A. interpretative link B. feedback mechanism C. common ground D. field of experience 31. _____ is any unplanned distortion or interference in the communication process. A. Selective perception B. Noise C. Feedback D. Blocking 32. Marius is watching a suspenseful TV program with a group of friends. During the commercial break everyone starts discussing the show, and he cannot hear the commercials even though he really wanted to hear the Molson Canadian commercial. Marius's inability to receive the Molson Canadian message is an example of which element of the communication process? A. Encoding B. Decoding C. Feedback D. Noise

33. Travis missed the small ad for Walker Nursery in the newspaper today because his attention was attracted by an ad for an estate sale that was on the same page. In terms of the communication process, the ad for the estate sale kept Travis from seeing the plant nursery ad and acted as: A. noise B. a decoding block C. negative feedback D. a receptor block 34. Which of the following would NOT be considered "noise" in the communication process? A. A competitor's glossy magazine ad compared to your one-colour newspaper ad B. A decrease in your advertising expenditure versus last year C. The use of a sign, symbol or words that are unfamiliar to the target audience D. The preponderance of commercials during a popular TV show 35. ______ is the part of the receiver's response that is communicated back to the sender. A. Feedback B. Noise C. Reciprocity D. Encoding 36. Which of the following provides the sender of an advertising message with a way of monitoring the effectiveness of the message? A. Encoding mechanisms B. Feedback C. Noise filters D. The channel 37. An ad for The Westin Hotel in Ottawa contains an 800-number that people interested in reserving rooms at the hotel or knowing more about the hotel can call. One way to determine the effectiveness of this ad is to count the number of phone calls it receives in response to its ad. This response count is an example of: A. feedback B. qualitative research C. noise filtering D. decoding 38. Bob Smythe sells women's clothes and is making a sales presentation to the buyer at a major department store. Which of the following would NOT be considered a form of feedback that Smythe might receive from the buyer? A. The questions the buyer asks B. The nonverbal responses the buyer makes such as frowns or gestures C. The buyer's availability to meet at short notice D. The size of the order the buyer is willing to make 39. The element of the communication process that closes the loop in the communication flow and allows the sender to monitor how a message is being received and interpreted is: A. encoding B. feedback C. reception D. response 40. For most marketers, the ultimate form of feedback is: A. use of reply cards B. store visits C. sales D. consumer inquiries

41. Counts of customer visits to a store, consumer inquiries, coupon redemption, and recall of advertising are all possible forms of: A. personal communication B. feedback C. noise D. decoding mechanisms 42. Visits to websites, participation in contests, digital forwarding of ads or stories, and Facebook "likes" are all possible forms of: A. interpersonal communication B. electronic commerce C. feedback D. decoding mechanisms 43. The AIDA model is often used to represent what ideally happens during: A. personal selling B. the decoding of direct marketing advertising pieces C. sales promotions D. the introduction of innovative new consumer products 44. Inez and Troy were just strolling through the mall when they saw a mattress with adjustable levels of firmness in a store window. Once they became aware that such a product existed, they were eager to talk to a salesperson and learn more about the mattresses. After talking to the salesperson for thirty minutes, Inez and Troy realized they wanted to own one. They used their credit card to order a mattress and to pay for its delivery to their home. In terms of the models of response process, Inez and Troy have just gone through the stages in the _____ model. A. hierarchy of effects B. AIDA C. learning D. adoption response 45. The _____ model is a response model that was developed for setting and measuring advertising objectives. A basic premise of this model is that advertising effects occur over a period of time. A. AIDA B. hierarchy of effects C. information processing D. diffusion rate 46. The hierarchical model representing the stages a salesperson must take a customer through in the personal selling process is the _____ model. A. information processing B. hierarchy of effects C. AIDA D. innovation-adoption 47. Which of the following response hierarchy models depicts consumers as going through the stages of awareness - knowledge - liking - preference - conviction - purchase? A. The AIDA model B. The hierarchy of effects model C. The information processing model D. The purchaser learning model 48. Which of the following response hierarchy models depicts consumers as going through the stages of presentation - attention - comprehension - yielding - retention - behaviour? A. The AIDA model B. The hierarchy of effects model C. The information processing model D. The low involvement model

49. Which of the following hierarchical response models views the receiver of a persuasive communication as a problem solver? A. The AIDA model B. The hierarchy of effects models C. The low involvement model D. The information processing model 50. Nike conducts a marketing research study and finds that the majority of consumers can recall the company's "Just do it" ad slogan. Nike can safely assume that consumers: A. appear to be aware of Nike's advertising B. have favourable attitudes toward Nike C. understand the advertising message Nike is trying to communicate D. will probably buy Nike athletic shoes 51. Which of the following statements describes how the traditional hierarchy of effects model can be used as a measure for advertising effectiveness? A. Consumers must pass through each stage before making a purchase. B. Awareness and recall are the most important measures of ad effectiveness. C. The stages of the hierarchy offer useful intermediate measures of advertising effectiveness. D. The hierarchy is not useful because sales are the only appropriate goal of advertising. 52. Attention, awareness, and knowledge are all examples of the _____ stage of the response process and appear in all of the models describing the consumer response process. A. cognitive B. affective C. behavioural D. conative 53. Trial, purchase, adoption, and rejection are all examples of the _____ stage of the response process and appear in all of the models describing the consumer response process. A. cognitive B. affective C. behavioural D. motivational 54. According to the ___, the consumer is an active participant in the communication process and gathers information through active learning. A. standard learning hierarchy B. low-involvement hierarchy C. dissonance/attribution model D. maximum likelihood model 55. For which of the following products would an advertiser be more likely to use the standard learning model to explain the consumer decision making process? A. Bar of soap B. Pickup truck C. Garden rake D. Computer disk 56. The _____ model explains the purchase decision making process when a consumer buys a highinvolvement product for which there is a high amount of differentiation among brands. A. standard learning B. dissonance/attribution C. hierarchy of needs D. cognitive response

57. According to the dissonance/attribution model, the consumer passes through which of the following response sequence during the decision making process? A. Learn feel do B. Feel learn do C. Do feel learn D. Do learn feel 58. According to the _____ model, the major impact of the mass media occurs after the purchase is made. A. low-involvement B. standard learning C. dissonance/attribution D. cognitive response 59. According to the _____ hierarchy, advertisers of products like light bulbs, ketchup, computer paper, nail clippers, and other items bought without a lot of thought need to use heavy repetition strategy. A. three-orders response B. dissonance-attribution C. low-involvement D. high-involvement 60. For which of the following products would an advertiser be more likely to use the low-involvement hierarchy to explain the consumer decision making process? A. Bar of soap B. Digital camera C. Yard landscaping D. Wedding dress 61. Which response hierarchy views the consumer as engaging in passive learning and random information catching? A. Standard learning B. Low-involvement C. Dissonance/attribution D. Informative processing 62. Marketers trying to sell _____ will find the use of a catchy jingle or ad slogan to be most effective. A. products characterized by a low-involvement response hierarchy B. products characterized by high-involvement response hierarchy C. consumer durables that require detailed information D. services where differentiation is important 63. Marketers of _____ often must communicate with passive and uninterested consumers who may focus more on nonmessage elements such as music, slogans, and jingles than on message content. A. employment services B. ketchup, mustard, margarine, and soy sauce C. personal computers D. x-ray machines, road building equipment, and walk-in refrigeration units 64. The various models of the ways consumers respond to advertising and other forms of marketing communication show that: A. consumers are generally highly involved in the response process and engage in active information processing B. consumers never make purchase decisions based on a general awareness resulting from repetitive exposure to advertising Cthe notion of a highly involved consumer who engages in active information processing and acts on the . basis of higher-order beliefs and well-formed attitudes is appropriate for all purchase situations Dit is important that marketers try to determine which type of response process is most likely to occur so . that they can tailor their programs to favourably influence consumer response

65. Although there is no single precise definition of consumer involvement, most conceptualizations of it focus on: A. consumer wants B. consumer motives C. personal goals D. personal relevance 66. _____ are thoughts that occur to a consumer when reading, viewing, and/or hearing a communication. A. Cognitive responses B. Affective responses C. Elaborations D. Conative impressions 67. Molly saw a television commercial that said that a specific brand of pain reliever was much more effective than the brand she had used and trusted for the last twenty years. As a result of this commercial, Molly is likely to engage in: A. support arguing B. counter arguing C. negative dissonance D. source blockage 68. The ad for Jergens lotion indicated that it has both beta hydroxy to defoliate dry skin and alpha hydroxy to moisture skin. Someone who knew something about how these additives work might respond to the ad by thinking, "If it has both those ingredients, it must be really good for my skin. I'm going to buy a bottle." The individual's response to the ad's copy would be an example of a: A. negative ad execution thought B. support argument C. counterargument D. positive execution thought 69. Mentos mint candy uses an advertising campaign that shows people solving problems by thinking outside of the box—by taking a fresh look at a common problem. Freshness is the message that the ad is supposed to deliver. When Dick and Bella Lestor saw the ad, Dick said to Bella, "That ad is simply showing people being rewarded for being rude and boorish. How could any company think that sort of ad would appeal to decent people?" Dick's comment about the ad source represents a: A. negative ad execution thought B. source derogation C. counterargument D. positive execution thought 70. Negative thoughts about a spokesperson in an ad are called: A. source derogations B. counterarguments C. source blockages D. message blockages 71. John is watching television and sees a commercial in which LeBron James is endorsing a pair of basketball shoes. John thinks to himself, "Boy, is LeBron ever juvenile and obnoxious. I wouldn't buy anything he promotes." This is an example of a: A. counterargument B. support argument C. source derogation D. message blockage

72. Some people have questioned the fact that Nike maintained their endorsement contract with Tiger Woods after his personal "fall from grace". The ill feelings that some people have towards him and his behaviour could be a source of: A. source derogation B. counterargument C. source blockage D. message blockage 73. Of the categories of cognitive responses discussed in the text, which is most likely to predict a viewer's attitude toward the ad? A. Product/message thoughts B. Ad execution-related thoughts C. Brand attitudes D. Purchase intention thoughts 74. Which category of cognitive responses includes a message recipient's reactions to factors such as the creativity of an ad, the quality of the visual effects, colours, voice tones, and the like? A. Support arguments B. Source derogations C. Ad execution-related thoughts D. Attitude toward the brand 75. ______ is a term used to describe a message receiver's feelings of favourability or unfavourability toward an advertisement. A. Brand attitude B. Purchase intent C. Attitude toward the ad D. Source derogation 76. The _____ is a model that addresses the differences in the ways consumers respond to persuasive messages. A. elaboration likelihood model B. 5-W's model of communication C. AIDA model D. cognitive response model 77. The elaboration likelihood model (ELM) was developed to explain the process by which persuasive communications influence: A. dissonance formation B. attributions C. attitudes D. group norms 78. The elaboration likelihood model (ELM) is a function of two elements. They are the ____ to process the message. A. encoding and decoding abilities B. motivation and ability C. knowledge and technical skills D. attitude and linguistics skills 79. According to the elaboration likelihood model (ELM), a receiver lacks the ability or motivation to process information under the _____ route to persuasion. A. central B. peripheral C. cognitive D. affective

80. The elaboration likelihood model (ELM) states that there are two basic routes to persuasion, the central route and the peripheral route. Under the central route to persuasion, a message recipient is viewed as: A. lacking the motivation to process a message B. having a low level of involvement and relying on imagery processing C. being a very active and involved participant in the communication process D. unlikely to engage in detailed cognitive processing 81. The elaboration likelihood model (ELM) states that there are two basic routes to persuasion, the central route and the peripheral route. With the peripheral route to persuasion: A. the message will be more likely received if a popular celebrity endorser is used B. the message should contain a lot of information C. the receiver is viewed as very actively involved in the communication process D. the quality of the message claims is more important than the spokesperson, headline, pictures, or music bed 82. Arminda is watching a late night TV show when a low-budget commercial for a local restaurant comes on the air. She is turned off by the poor quality of the commercial and immediately tunes out the message without processing any of the information. Arminda is engaging in what type of message processing? A. Support arguing B. Central processing C. Peripheral processing D. Source blocking 83. Research on the elaboration likelihood model (ELM) has shown that: A. celebrities are effective peripheral cues in a high-involvement situation B. celebrities are effective peripheral cues in a low-involvement situation C. the quality of message arguments is likely to be very important in a low-involvement situation D. peripheral cues are more important than detailed messages in high-involvement situations 84. Gillette believes commercials for deodorants are processed primarily through a peripheral processing route. This might explain why the company would use which of the following advertising strategies? A. Very detailed ads with a great deal of information about the causes of body odour B. Detailed ads with strong message arguments about Gillette brands C. Ads that use celebrity endorsers and memorable jingles D. Ads that pay more attention to information in the copy than executional elements such as visual imagery 85. The ______ assumes that learning is an associative process with an already existing relationship between a stimulus and a response. A. elaboration likelihood model B. instrumental conditioning C. operant conditioning D. classical conditioning 86. Learning through ______ plays an important role in marketing. Buyers can be conditioned to form favourable impressions and images of various brands through the associative process. A. the elaboration likelihood model B. instrumental conditioning C. operant conditioning D. classical conditioning 87. _____ occurs when an unconditioned stimulus and a conditioned stimulus occur in close proximity in time and space. A. Association B. Repetition C. Contiguity D. Generalization

88. _____ is likely to occur when a point-of-purchase display for OPI nail polish is teamed with a life-size portrait of Katy Perry, a woman many admire and want to emulate. A. Classical conditioning B. Psychological conditioning C. Affective modelling D. Cognitive conditioning 89. According to a comprehensive literature review, what are the three critical intermediate effects between advertising and purchase in the consumers' response process? A. Awareness, affect, comprehension B. Cognition, affect, experience C. Cognition, preference, retention D. Attention, preference, retention 90. A comprehensive literature review suggests that the effects of advertising should be evaluated using the following three dimensions: A. cognition, affect, and experience B. awareness, affect, and comprehension C. cognition, preference, and retention D. attention, preference, and retention 91. ______ refer to the lasting brand impressions that remain with the target audience after the target audience processes the message. A. Communication effects B. Awareness effects C. Retention effects D. Preference effects 92. Communication effects. refer to the lasting brand impressions that remain with the target audience after the target audience processes the message. Match the four communication effects to their meaning, according to the Rossiter & Percy perspective. 1. Brand The target audience's perception of requiring a specific _ Purchase product category to satisfy a particular need. __ Intention _ 2. Category The target audience's ability to recognize and/or recall the _ need brand within the product category in sufficient detail to make a__ purchase. _ 3. Brand The target's overall evaluation of the brand in relation to its _ Attitude ability to satisfy the reason they want it. __ _ 4. Brand The target audience's self-instruction to respond to the _ Awareness brand. __ _

Chapter 04 Key 1. C 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. A 7. B 8. D 9. A 10. C 11. A 12. D 13. C 14. A 15. C 16. B 17. A 18. A 19. C 20. C 21. B 22. C 23. D 24. A 25. B 26. A 27. A 28. C 29. C 30. C 31. B 32. D 33. A 34. B 35. A 36. B

37. A 38. C 39. B 40. C 41. B 42. C 43. A 44. B 45. B 46. C 47. B 48. C 49. D 50. A 51. C 52. A 53. C 54. A 55. B 56. A 57. C 58. C 59. C 60. A 61. B 62. A 63. B 64. D 65. D 66. A 67. B 68. B 69. B 70. A 71. C 72. A 73. B 74. C

75. C 76. A 77. C 78. B 79. B 80. C 81. A 82. C 83. B 84. C 85. D 86. D 87. C 88. A 89. B 90. A 91. A 92. Category need :: The target audience's perception of requiring a specific product category to satisfy a particular need. and Brand Awareness :: The target audience's ability to recognize and/or recall the brand within the product category in sufficient detail to make a purchase. and Brand Attitude :: The target's overall evaluation of the brand in relation to its ability to satisfy the reason they want it. and Brand Purchase Intention :: The target audience's self-instruction to respond to the brand.

Chapter 04 Summary Category Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Belch - Chapter 04 Blooms: Analyze Blooms: Remember Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Difficult Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective: 04-01 Explain the elements of the communication process and identify the role of marketing communication. Learning Objective: 04-02 Contrast traditional communication response models and alternative response hierarchies. Learning Objective: 0403 Develop the response processes of receivers of marketing communication through two models of cognitive processing. Learning Objective: 04-04 Illustrate a response model for managerial decision making.

# of Questions 90 92 16 51 25 12 45 35 42 23 23 4

Chapter 05 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

The purpose of setting specific marketing communication objectives is to: A. provide a benchmark against which the success or failure of the promotional campaign can be measured B. put constraints on the creative department C. have a method of determining when to delete products from the product line D. forecast the market share level that can be attained by good advertising

To many marketing managers, the basic reason a firm spends money on advertising and promotion is to: A. position the company and its brands B. create a positive corporate image C. generate sales D. create awareness of the company

One characteristic of good objectives is that they: A. can only be measured at the beginning of the campaign. B. specify a method and criteria for determining how well the promotional program is working. C. create memorable advertising. D. create awareness for the company.

Companies that develop integrated marketing communications (IMC) programs that do not contain specific objectives: A. will often have too many benchmark measures against which the success or failure of their programs can be assessed B. may find it difficult to facilitate coordination of the efforts of various groups working on a promotional campaign C. will be able to save money since they won't spend too much time worrying about what they are trying to do D. be more successful than companies that develop IMC programs with specific objectives

_____ objectives are types of objectives that are usually stated in terms of specific, measurable outcomes such as sales volume, market share, or return on investment. A. Sales B. Marketing C. Communication D. Organizational

Ace Computer has an objective of increasing its share of the home segment of the personal computer market by 5 percent during the upcoming year. This is an example of a(n) _____ objective. A. marketing B. organizational C. advertising D. functional

Many marketing managers prefer sales-oriented objectives for advertising for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: A. the reason a company spends money on advertising and promotion is to sell its products or services B. money spent on advertising and promotion can only show measurable results through sales and market share data C sales-oriented objectives help get everyone involved in the promotional program to think about how . advertising and promotion will increase sales D. objectives should be based on the achievement of sales results

Which of the following is NOT a likely problem for a manager who uses sales as a measure of advertising effectiveness? A. Sales offer little guidance or direction to those responsible for planning and developing the advertising program. B. There is often a long period between when advertising is run and when sales actually occur. C. Other marketing mix variables besides sales can affect sales results. D. The marketing and competitive environment have very little influence on sales.

The use of sales as an advertising objective can be ineffective due to: A. the fact that it is easy to isolate the effects of advertising on sales B. the fact that there is often a lagged effect whereby the effect of advertising on sales is not immediate C. the fact that advertising objectives emphasizing sales are generally the best operational guides to decision making D. the fact that they offer sufficient guidance for those responsible for planning and developing promotional programs

10. Which of the following is NOT an uncontrollable environmental factor? A. The state of the economy and consumers' level of disposable income B. Laws and regulations affecting the industry C. The relative price of the item compared to the competition D. Changing consumer trends and preferences 11. The concept of advertising expenditures producing long term as well as immediate results is known as: A. the carryover effect B. the communication effect C. the halo effect D. DAGMAR 12. The carryover effect: A. has no impact on sales objectives B. has no effect on the relationship between advertising and sales C. encourages the use of nonspecific objectives D. is particularly apparent with mature, low-priced, and frequently purchased products 13. For which of the following would an advertiser be most likely to use a sales-oriented objective? A. A direct response ad for a back massager B. A commercial for a new type of electric-powered automobile C. An anti-drug public service announcement D. A commercial comparing Fido and Telus 14. Direct-response advertisers generally set objectives and measure success in terms of: A. brand attitudes B. purchase intentions C. sales response generated by an ad D. brand equity 15. As the Marketing Manager for Hellmann's Mayonnaise you create a message reminding the target audience of how delicious Hellmann's has always tasted in a turkey sandwich. Your primary communication objective most likely is: A. to increase repeat purchases from brand loyals B. to remind new category users of how much they have enjoyed Hellmann's in the past C. to educate other brand users about the use of mayonnaise D. to convince non-mayonnaise users to eat more turkey

16. Michelin creates a TV commercial showing how their HydroEdge tires stop an average of 14 feet shorter than Goodyear's ComforTred tires. Their primary communication objective most likely is: A. to increase repeat purchases from brand loyals B. to persuade new car owners that they bought the wrong tires C to convince other brand users about Michelin's superior safety performance to ensure that their next . purchase is a set of Michelin tires D. to convince non-drivers to buy a car and put Michelin tires on it 17. Before setting objectives for advertising and promotion, an organization should: A. conduct a situation analysis to identify marketing and promotional issues facing the firm B. conduct surveys to develop the media objectives C. develop creative objectives D. develop communication goals 18. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between marketing and communication objectives? A. Marketing objectives and communication objectives are synonymous. B. Communication objectives are derived from marketing objectives. C.For a successful campaign, communication objectives can be developed before or after the development of marketing objectives. D. There is no relationship between the two. 19. DAGMAR is: A. a model of advertising goal setting B. a model of consumer behaviour C. a method of setting sales objectives D. the most often used method of setting objectives 20. _____ is an approach to setting advertising objectives, which states that communication effects are the logical basis for advertising goals and objectives against which success or failure should be measured. A. The hierarchy of effects model B. Zero based communications planning C. Inside-out communications planning D. DAGMAR 21. According to the criteria outlined in DAGMAR, which of the following is the best quantitative benchmark statement? A. "Win new customers and increase sales volume by 15 percent." B. "Increase the number mentioning the brand name when asked for brand preference from 40 percent to 50 percent." C. "Increase awareness of the brand." D. "Increase sales revenue by 10 percent." 22. Under the DAGMAR approach, the communication task is based on the hierarchical model ACCA, which stands for: A. audience, customer, consumer, acquisition B. awareness, consideration, cost, achievement C. awareness, comprehension, conviction, action D. advertise, create, consume, act 23. According to DAGMAR, the basic function of advertising is to: A. create sales B. communicate C. generate action D. change behaviour

24. Under the DAGMAR model, a(n) _____ can be performed by, and attributed to, advertising rather than a combination of marketing factors. A. functional communication change B. communications task C. marketing task D. advertising benchmark 25. Using the DAGMAR approach, which of the following is NOT a stage of commercial communication? A. Awareness B. Conviction C. Action D. Sales 26. A new manufacturer of stereo speakers which has no brand awareness developed a statement of advertising objectives, which stated that the goal of the company's new ad campaign is "To make 30% of the audience aware of our new brand." This statement could serve as an example of a: A. benchmark measure B. communications task C. sales objective D. short-term promotional objective 27. Successful communications objectives must be measurable, time specific, have benchmark measures and: A. a specific market share goal B. be convincing to the sales force C. a well-defined target market D. be different than the previous year's objectives 28. According to the DAGMAR model, which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good objective? A. A good objective is concrete and measurable. B. A good objective specifies the target audience. C. A good objective specifies a time period for accomplishment. D. A good objective is based on sales results. 29. According to the DAGMAR model, a good advertising objective does NOT: A. target a diversified audience B. specify a time period C. indicate a starting point D. specify degree of change sought 30. Determining a target market's present level of awareness, knowledge, and liking toward a product often requires the taking of _____ measures. A. quantitative awareness B. benchmark C. sales interval D. qualitative awareness 31. Before beginning its new advertising campaign, TD Canada Trust conducted a study to determine consumers' level of awareness and knowledge of the bank and its services as well as consumers' perceptions of the bank's image. These are examples of: A. communication tasks B. benchmark measures C. DAGMAR objectives D. marketing research goals

32. Assume that the Greyhound Bus Company runs a six-month advertising campaign promoting its convenient bus routes and excellent on-time service without conducting any sort of marketing research. At the end of the six-month period, Greyhound conducts a study and finds that 80 percent of its frequent travellers agree that the bus company has convenient bus routes and excellent on-time service. Greyhound can conclude that: A. the campaign was successful in changing perceptions regarding its service B the campaign was not successful since it should have nearly 90 percent of riders agreeing that it offers . convenient bus routes and excellent on-time service C. its advertising is working D. without benchmark measures, it will never know if the campaign was a success or a failure 33. For which of the following advertising communication tasks should the specified time period required be the longest? A. Repositioning a brand B. Increasing brand awareness levels C. Creating knowledge regarding a brand attribute D. Increasing knowledge levels about a brand attribute 34. Air Canada set the following objective for its new advertising campaign: "To increase the percentage of consumers who know that our fares are lower than the competitors from 55 percent to 75 percent over the next six months." Using the criteria associated in the DAGMAR approach to setting objective, what is wrong with this objective? A. It does not contain a benchmark measure and statement of the degree of change sought. B. It does specify a specific time period for accomplishing the objective. C. It does not specify a well-defined target audience. D. Nothing is wrong with this objective; it satisfies all of the criteria specified in the DAGMAR model. 35. ______ communication is very important for many product categories because consumers make so many decisions in this location. A. Transit B. In-store C. Outdoor D. Mobile 36. Technology is emerging as a vital part of many consumers' purchase decision-making. Each of the following tactics can be effective for marketers to use at the pre-shop stage EXCEPT: A. ask permission to send text messages B. deliver product information via social media C. alert consumers towards specific retailers via their mobile devices D. provide deeper information via interactive videos in-store 37. Marketers use tactics such as employing social media to answer follow-up questions, helping resolve any dissonance with the product, creating peer-to-peer communication platforms so that consumers can share experiences and information with each other during which stage of shopping behaviour? A. Awareness B. Pre-shop C. Shop D. Post-shop 38. Which of the following is at the top of the communication effects pyramid? A. Awareness B. Knowledge C. Preference D. Purchase/repurchase

39. Managers who use the communications effects pyramid to set objectives believe that: A. lower-level objectives such as purchase and reuse form the foundation of the communications program B the foundation of the communications program is set by accomplishing lower-level objectives such as . awareness, knowledge, and comprehension C advertising and promotion should first accomplish higher-order objectives such as trial and purchase . and then create awareness and brand knowledge D. advertising and promotion cannot accomplish lower-order objectives 40. The information processing model may be an effective framework for setting objectives and: A. determining whether consumers will follow through on their intended purchases B. allocating the advertising budget appropriately C. evaluating the effects of a promotional campaign D. researching consumer needs 41. According to the information processing model, which type of research/test would help determine the effectiveness of a campaign designed to target exposure to the message? A. Message recall tests B. Measurement of webpage views C. Indicators of purchase intent D. Actual purchase levels 42. McDonald's has developed a campaign to highlight their healthier menu items, such as the 290-calorie Egg McMuffin. In order to determine whether the target audience accepts that McDonald's does offer healthy food choices, according to the information processing model, which type of research/test should McDonald's employ? A. Message recall tests B. Listener, reader, viewer recognition tests C. Measurement of brand attitudes and purchase intent D. Changes in inventory levels 43. According to Rossiter & Percy's approach, the link between marketing objectives and communication objectives is: A. geared to sales figures B. environmental analysis C. measurement of brand attitudes and purchase intent D. behavioural objectives 44. Virgin Mobile is trying to reach consumers who never owned a cell phone. This is an example of: A. fulfilled need B. category need C. repressed need D. unfulfilled need 45. Marketers may have a __________ objective when communicating with their current customers who have previously purchased the brand and have the product in their home or work. A. brand-switching B. purchase-related C. category trial D. repeat-consumption 46. Brand ____________ is often referred to as unaided brand awareness when measuring. A. recognition B. unawareness C. objectives D. recall

47. Which of the following is the most plausible target audience when the main marketing objective is to increase market share? A. New category users B. Brand loyals C. Other brand loyals D. Other brand switchers 48. Which of the following is the most plausible target audience when the main marketing objective is to increase sales volume? A. New category users B. Brand loyals C. Other brand loyals D. Other brand switchers 49. Which of the following behavioural objectives is more likely to be selected when a firm plans to increase its profit? A. Repeat purchase B. Brand trial C. Category trial D. Brand switching 50. Sprite soft drink sponsored "Flowrider" surfing exhibits at major summer events, offering free samples of their new citrus flavour to consumers who attended. The behavioural objective behind this campaign was: A. brand trial B. repeat purchase C. purchase timing D. brand awareness 51. Campbell's Soup aired TV commercials and ran magazine ads featuring recipes "just like Mom used to make." The behavioural objective behind this campaign was: A. brand re-trial B. repeat purchase C. purchase intent D. brand switching 52. Shahida Rampal owns a neighbourhood restaurant specializing in foods from her native India. Her research has shown that consumers in the area come to her restaurant 2 or 3 times a year, along with their visits to 4 or 5 other establishments nearby. She would like to entice these consumers to visit her restaurant at least one extra time over the course of a year. Her behavioural objective could be described as: A. brand trial B. repeat purchase C. purchase timing D. brand awareness 53. Steven owns a card and gift shop. Recent research shows that the average sale in his store is $7.50. That is, consumers on average spend $7.50 each time they visit. Steven has initiated a loyalty card program which offers one free greeting card for every 10 that a consumer buys in the hope that can increase his store's average sale to $8.50 per visit. This is an effective tactic to use with what kind of repeat purchase objective? A. Category building B. Purchase frequency C. Purchase amount D. Purchase timing

54. Brands increasingly encourage website visits, interaction with other customers on social media and viewing or posting videos in content communities. This digital fostering of brand experience is a current form of: A. brand experience B. multi-level marketing C. purchase timing D. shopper marketing 55. Kool-Aid drink mixes face an interesting dilemma. A study of consumers' pantries in households with young children indicated that Moms have multiple packages of the product in the home. Until she makes up a pitcher or two of the drink, however, no further purchases will occur. Kool-Aid needs to initiate a program to encourage: A. brand trial B. repeat purchase C. repeat consumption D. purchase frequency 56. Which of the following is NOT one of the four communication objectives accommodated by the R&P framework? A. Category need B. Brand attitude C. Brand purchase intention D. Market share growth 57. The "category need" communication objective is also known as: A. non-user stimulation B. demand build C. brand switching D. market share growth 58. Every single point of communication should contribute to a target audience's understanding and knowledge of the brand name. This universal communication objective is known as: A. brand attitude B. brand insistence C. brand awareness D. market saturation 59. Brand recall is often referred to as: A. unaided brand awareness B. product demand C. message acceptance D. product knowledge 60. Which of the following is NOT a communication objective option for brand attitude? A. Maintain brand attitude B. Increase brand attitude C. Favour brand attitude D. Create or establish brand attitude 61. The ______ brand attitude is when a marketer focuses on a new motive for purchasing the brand that the target audience will be receptive toward. A. modified B. increased C. established D. maintained

62. Sales growth objectives can be met in a number of ways, depending upon the nature of the target audience. Match the anticipated behaviour to the customer type: 1. New customers who not currently buying within Other brand __ the product category users/switchers __ 2. Those currently buying within the product Non-users __ category, but not the firm's brand __ 3. Those who have no need or desire for the product New category __ category users __ 4. Current customers making a greater number of Brand loyals __ purchases __

Chapter 05 Key 1. A 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. B 6. A 7. B 8. D 9. B 10. C 11. A 12. D 13. A 14. C 15. A 16. C 17. A 18. B 19. A 20. D 21. B 22. C 23. B 24. B 25. D 26. B 27. C 28. D 29. A 30. B 31. B 32. D 33. A 34. C 35. B 36. D

37. D 38. D 39. B 40. C 41. B 42. C 43. D 44. B 45. D 46. D 47. D 48. A 49. A 50. A 51. A 52. B 53. A 54. D 55. C 56. D 57. B 58. C 59. A 60. C 61. A 62. Those currently buying within the product category, but not the firm's brand :: Other brand users/switchers and Those who have no need or desire for the product category :: Non-users and New customers who not currently buying within the product category :: New category users and Current customers making a greater number of purchases :: Brand loyals

Chapter 05 Summary Category Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Belch - Chapter 05 Blooms: Analyze Blooms: Apply Blooms: Remember Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Difficult Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective: 0501 Distinguish among marketing; behavioural; and communication objectives and identify the value of setting each type of objecti ve. Learning Objective: 05-02 Describe the historical approaches for setting communication objectives for advertising. Learning Objective: 0503 Evaluate the options for setting behavioural objectives and apply them when constructing a promotional plan. Learning Objective: 0504 Choose among the options for setting communication objectives and apply them when designing IMC recommendations.

# of Questions 61 62 13 3 25 21 8 20 34 19

24 13 6

Chapter 06 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

_____ is defined as the art and science of fitting the product or service to one or more segments of the broad market in such a way as to set it meaningfully apart from competition. A. Target marketing B. Undifferentiated marketing C. Demographic segmentation D. Positioning

Brand position indicates its: A. relative market share B. location on store shelves C. image D. distribution intensity

The key factor in communicating information about the brand and differentiating it from competitors is: A. its perceived price differential B. its integrated promotional strategy C. the market positioning strategy assigned it by its manufacturer D. the benefits the brand offers

A _____ strategy relates to the intended image of the product or brand relative to a competing brand. A. concentration B. differentiation C. brand positioning D. market positioning

According to the chapter's opening vignette, Tassimo's ads were deemed ineffective because: A. the components of the promotional strategy were not integrated. B. they failed to identify the unique characteristics of the barcode. C. the key message was so different than that of its competitors. D. consumers don't like to use single-serve coffee makers in the home.

The chapter's opening vignette reveals that Tassimo's new brand positioning strategy: A. built demand for the category of single-serve brewing systems. B. failed to identify the unique characteristics of the barcode. C. intended to convince consumers to ask for "the one with the barcode". D. focused on estate-grown coffee beans used in their T-Discs.

According to the chapter's opening vignette, Tassimo's new ads featured a "live" barcode of people dressed in black and white to represent the barcode on their distinctive T-Discs. This is an example of Tassimo's new: A. technological advances. B. attempts to offer a healthy coffee alternative. C. sales strategy. D. brand positioning strategy.

Beliefs concerning specific attributes or benefits that are activated and form the basis of an attitude are referred to as ___. A. salient beliefs B. salient attitudes C. salient attributes D. salient benefits

A market positioning statement: A. reflects the firm's market share in relation to the competition. B. provides direction for each of the marketing mix decision areas. C. concerns both the business and consumer markets. D. divides potential segments into viable targets.

10. While developing its market positioning strategy: A. the firm generally chooses the market with the fewest competitors. B. the marketer will choose a single category in which to compete. C. the marketer will emphasize the improvement of product appearance. D. the firm considers as many feasible options as possible in order not to miss a market opportunity. 11. The market position of a firm represents: A. the intended or unintended consumer belief in the organization's marketing efforts. B. the way that the company has responded to the competition. C. the firm's position in the global economy. D. an expansion of the consumer's past impressions of the firm's marketing efforts. 12. The market position diagram is also called a(n) ______________ A. research plot. B. perception indicator. C. perceptual map. D. opportunity diagram. 13. Which of the following illustrates how the use of positioning in a marketing communication context is distinct from positioning in a marketing strategy context? A. There is no distinction. B.A marketer will use the same message and set of IMC tools with every target segment in order to ensure integrated communication. C. A marketer will use IMC tools that speak to a very specific target audience with a particular competitive reference point. D. Only the communication positioning is relevant to the target market. 14. Prior to deciding on the most effective selling message, the marketer can use positioning to determine: A. what competitive space the brand is competing in, as illustrated in a perceptual map. B. whether specific brand characteristics are as relevant to consumers as price. C. the most inexpensive media buy, and then develop messages accordingly. D. their relative market share in comparison to the competition. 15. What is the distinction between the brand's positioning strategy and its actual brand image? A. Brand image is determined by actual sales figures. B Actual brand image is the target audience's overall assessment of the brand versus what brand . management had intended them to feel and think about the brand. C. A well-conceived brand positioning strategy will guarantee a strong brand image in the hearts and minds of consumers. D. Competitive activity will impact on brand positioning strategy but not actual brand image. 16. Which of the following is NOT a good example of a specific competitive space within a broader product category? A. Chocolate bars within the chocolate category. B. Anti-dandruff shampoos within the shampoo category. C. Sport coupés within the camping category. D. Windows Surface vs. iPads within the personal computer category.

17. Brand position diagrams should show a comparison of competing brands on the basis of ________ A. consumers' salient beliefs. B. consumers' aspirations. C. previous response to advertising. D. salient attributes. 18. When preparing perceptual maps, marketers will name the vertical and horizontal axes based on _____________. A. salient attributes B. consumers' salient beliefs C. previous response to advertising D. quality and price only 19. In addition to salient attributes, brand position diagrams should also compare brands on the basis of __________, such as overall satisfaction or social fulfillment. A. communication effectiveness B. salient benefits to the consumer C. previous purchase decisions D. personal needs assessment 20. All of the following are steps in the development of a brand positioning strategy decision process EXCEPT: A. develop a market partition. B. assess consumer income levels. C. access brand position. D. determine brand positioning strategy. 21. The first step in the development of a brand positioning strategy is: A. develop a market partition B. access competitors' position C. access brand position D. determine brand positioning strategy 22. The headline on the ad for Broilmaster Grill read, "The Most Durable Grill Known to Man." Broilmaster is using a positioning strategy based on: A. product class B. end benefit C. brand name D. competitor 23. Apple Computers positioned itself as user friendly and thus gained an advantage over IBM. Apple used positioning by: A. end benefit B. cultural symbols C. brand name D. product user 24. Wal-Mart has been very effective in positioning itself as a store that offers quality products at a very good price. Their strategy reflects positioning based on: A. demographic segmentation B. psychographic segmentation C. brand name D. product category

25. The Florida Orange Juice Commission's advertising campaign based around the slogan, "It's not just for breakfast anymore," reflects positioning by: A. product user B. usage situation C. product category D. cultural symbol 26. New Balance, which advertises that their shoes are best used for the court, for running, or for walking, is using positioning based on: A. brand name B. product category C. usage situation D. product user 27. With end benefit positioning, marketers make a direct link between a particular brand attribute and the consumer's: A. brand preference B. product awareness C. usage situation D. derived benefit 28. With its go anywhere for $69 ad campaign, Greyhound shows how inexpensively one can travel especially when compared to the cost of flying. Greyhound is using positioning by: A. product category B. brand name C. product attributes D. cultural symbols 29. Which of the following is NOT an example of a base for implementing a positioning strategy? A. Distribution intensity B. Brand name C. Usage situation D. Product category 30. Black & Decker introduced its Snakelight as an innovative solution to the problem of trying to hold a flashlight while working. This is an example of positioning by: A. end benefit B. brand name C. usage situation D. product category 31. Via Rail is in competition with the airlines and uses positioning by: A. brand name B. usage situation C. product category D. distribution intensity 32. A _____ positioning strategy is possible when the brand can claim and deliver on the most salient benefits. A. end benefit B. central brand C. brand name D. product category

33. A(n) _____ positioning strategy occurs where the individual is motivated for social or individual reasons, and the ads emphasize how good the consumer feels while using the brand. A. end benefit B. central brand C. user D. product category 34. DC shoes emphasized the fact that their skateboard shoes minimize heel bruising when doing tricks, which is important to hardcore skaters. DC were using a _____ positioning strategy. A. product category B. central brand C. brand name D. user 35. Gatorade's new G Series moved the brand from a hydration platform to a sports nutrition brand for serious athletes. This repositioning essentially expanded on their current brand benefit positioning into a _____ positioning strategy. A. product category B. brand attitude C. brand name D. user 36. Multiattribute models are used to guage consumer attitudes towards a brand and the importance of the brand's _______________ to the consumer's purchase decision. A. name B. benefits C. sales D. promises 37. Which of the following is NOT one of the ways that marketers use the multiattribute model to persuade attitudes of target audiences regarding brand characteristics? A. Influence attribute beliefs B. Influence attribute importance C. Influence attribute belief of a competitive brand D. Influence brand functionality 38. When consumers do not strongly believe that the brand possesses a particular important attribute, the market will attempt to: A. influence attribute beliefs B. influence attribute importance C. add a new attribute belief D. influence brand functionality 39. Hellmann's "Real Food Movement" emphasized the fact that the mayonnaise was made from only pure ingredients, unlike other sandwich spreads. Prior to this, consumers had chosen spreads based mainly on taste. This focus on the health benefits of "real" food was an attempt to: A. influence attribute beliefs B. influence attribute importance C. influence negative beliefs D. influence brand recognition 40. Marketers will sometimes focus on additional brand benefits that have not been communicated previously. This multiattribute strategy is called: A. add attribute beliefs B. influence attribute importance C. add new attribute belief D. influence brand functionality

41. Comparative advertising based on specific product attributes is an attempt to: A. influence attribute beliefs B. influence attribute importance C. influence attribute belief of a competitive brand D. add new attribute benefits 42. Consumers looking for a shampoo to help with their dandruff problems are exhibiting: A. sensory gratification motives B. social approval motives C. normal depletion motives D. problem removal motives 43. Informational motives are: A. based on the consumer's neutral state B. based on the consumer's negative state C. based on the consumer's normal state D. based on non-users' states 44. All of the following are informational motives EXCEPT: A. incomplete satisfaction B. problem removal C. social approval D. normal depletion 45. All of the following are transformational motives EXCEPT: A. incomplete satisfaction B. intellectual stimulation or mastery C. social approval D. sensory gratification 46. ________ motives occur when consumers anticipate a problem if they do not take preemptive action through the purchase of a product. A. Incomplete satisfaction B. Problem removal C. Problem avoidance D. Sensory gratification 47. ________ motives are active for consumers in purchase situations where they enjoy some elements of a product but dislike other parts and are seeking alternative solutions. A. Problem removal B. Problem avoidance C. Incomplete situation D. Mixed approach-avoidance 48. Ads for gardening products in the spring and school supplies in the fall are examples of messages focusing on ________ motives. A. mixed approach-avoidance B. problem avoidance C. social approval D. normal depletion 49. ________ motives are based on the product providing a positive experience via one of the five senses. A. Incomplete satisfaction B. Sensory gratification C. Social approval D. Normal depletion

50. Ingrained brand attitudes and consumer familiarity with the market structure makes ________ difficult to achieve. A. brand repositioning B. sensory gratification C. perception monitoring D. response evaluation 51. The need to reposition a brand comes from the analysis of each of the following EXCEPT: A. demographic changes B. competitive dynamics C. management structure D. stage in the product's life cycle 52. Each of the following scenarios is an example of repositioning EXCEPT: A. Tetley tea began associating its flavours to different moods a consumer might have prior to consumption. B. Molson re-introduced its Canadian Light brand as Canadian 67, to focus on the caloric content of the beer. C. Subaru Outback reversed sales declines by suggesting that consumers deserved to be outdoors more. D. Mercedes-Benz capitalizes on precision German engineering. 53. Markets are partitioned by each of the following EXCEPT: A. end benefit B. competitive dynamics C. brand name D. usage situation 54. Hellmann's used the healthy positioning of its "Real Food Movement" campaign to partition the market according to: A. end benefit B. product category C. brand name D. usage situation 55. When Philadelphia cream cheese educated consumers on how to cook with the product, it partitioned the market according to: A. end benefit B. product category C. brand name D. usage situation 56. In light of consumers' beliefs that all banks were pretty much the same, Scotiabank repositioned itself on the basis of enhanced financial services. After building loyalty among its own customers, it used the phrase "You're richer than you think" to differentiate itself from other banks and connect with: A. lobby groups B. category non-users C. new home buyers D. other brand loyals 57. McDonald's has historically employed __________ with communication directed to children featuring Ronald McDonald, while parents received messages of the special time they could enjoy with their family. A. repositioning B. positioning C. multiple target audiences D. single target audiences

58. Consumers who visit websites to gather information while searching for a replacement computer might be considered to be: A. brand switchers. B. inquisitive. C. loyal customers. D. non-category users. 59. Which of the following is NOT a critical question in designing a brand positioning in the context of advertising? A. Where the brand is competing? B. With whom the brand is competing? C. How the brand is competing? D. Why competitors will offer similar brands?

Chapter 06 Key 1. D 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. C 7. D 8. A 9. B 10. D 11. A 12. C 13. C 14. A 15. B 16. C 17. D 18. A 19. B 20. B 21. A 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. B 26. C 27. D 28. A 29. A 30. C 31. C 32. B 33. C 34. D 35. D 36. B

37. D 38. A 39. B 40. C 41. C 42. D 43. B 44. C 45. A 46. C 47. D 48. D 49. B 50. A 51. C 52. D 53. B 54. A 55. D 56. D 57. C 58. A 59. D

Chapter 06 Summary Category Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Belch - Chapter 06 Blooms: Analyze Blooms: Remember Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Difficult Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective: 06-01 Identify the concepts of market positioning strategy and market position. Learning Objective: 0602 Apply the positioning concept in an advertising context by defining brand positioning strategy and brand position. Learning Objective: 06-03 Illustrate how to formulate brand positioning strategy decisions. Learning Objective: 06-04 Demonstrate brand repositioning strategy opportunities. Learning Objective: 06-05 Interpret brand positioning strategy decisions in other contexts.

# of Questions 59 59 14 29 16 6 34 19 11 10 29 7 2

Chapter 07 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

_____ is a quality possessed by individuals that enables them to generate novel approaches to handling problems and that is reflected in new and improved solutions to those problems. A. Uniqueness B. Dramatization C. Creativity D. Proficiency

From the perspective of a brand manager, a commercial is likely to be judged as creative if it: A. has a high level of artistic or aesthetic value B. communicates the message clearly and leaves favourable impressions among the target audience C. wins creative awards D. is unlike anything currently in the marketplace

The ______ determine(s) what the advertising message will communicate, while the _______ lay(s) out how the message will be executed. A. marketing plan; advertising plan B. creative brief; media plan C. creative strategy; creative tactics D. consumer insights; consumer behaviour

_____ is the ability to generate fresh, unique, and appropriate ideas that can be used as solutions to communication problems. A. A unique selling plan (USP) B. Promotional uniqueness C. Positioning D. Advertising creativity

Which of the following statements gives a reason why a marketer might want to emphasize creativity in the development of an advertising campaign? A. Creative advertisements that are creative for the sake of being creative often fail to produce a sale. B. Creative advertising can break through the clutter and make an impression on consumers. C. Creative advertising cannot create positive feelings that transfer to the product or service. D. Creative advertising is effective even if it is irrelevant to the target audience.

To be appropriate and effective, a creative idea must be relevant to the: A. marketing objectives B. corporate plan C. creative advertising team D. target audience

The relevance of the creativity to the target audience supports the: A. brand positioning strategy. B. efforts of the creative team. C. message transmission. D. marketer's main objectives.

______ is the extent to which an ad contains novel, different, or unusual characteristics. A. Positioning B. Creativity C. Divergence D. Relevance

______ of a commercial has been proven to be a major determinant of success in changing brand preferences. A. Length B. Uniqueness C. Likability D. Frequent airing

10. Which company creatively uses various animals to represent the characteristics of their products and services? A. Frosted Flakes B. Telus C. Chevrolet D. Rogers Wireless 11. Studies show that creative advertising can positively impact emotional responses and get consumers' attention by: A. breaking through the cluttered media environment. B. establishing new grounds for communication. C. providing a reason to purchase. D. fulfilling marketing objectives. 12. According to James Webb Young, a former creative director at the J. Walter Thompson agency, the production of creative advertising ideas: A. is a random process that cannot be taught B. does not follow a definitive plan C. is a definitive process that can be learned and controlled D. has as many different routes as there are different forms of creativity 13. Reading anything related to the product or market is a part of the _____ stage of the creative process. A. preparation B. verification C. reality check D. incubation 14. Andrew is the creative director for an agency that has just taken on a golf ball manufacturer as a client. Before starting to develop creative ideas, Andrew reads some golfing magazines and spends time talking to some friends and co-workers who play golf. These activities are part of which stage of the creative process? A. Preparation B. Incubation C. Illumination D. Verification 15. Golda has to create an ad campaign for an online subscription encyclopedia. She has gathered together all the relevant environmental information and has studied the product as closely as possible. Now it is time for the _____ stage of the creative process. She needs to work on another project and put the encyclopedia project completely out of her conscious mind. A. preparation B. digestion C. incubation D. illumination

16. For weeks, Jill had been trying to come up with a creative approach to advertise shampoo. She had decided to try not to think about it for a while to see if her subconscious could figure something out. As she was relaxing in her bath one night, a great idea for a creative shampoo advertising campaign just seemed to pop into her head. She leapt out of the tub and began to write it all down before she forgot it. In terms of the creative process, she has just gone through the _____ stage. A. immersion B. verification C. revision D. illumination 17. A copywriter in the Creative Edge agency has just been assigned to the Wendy's fast food restaurant account. One of the first things he may want to do is: A. sit down and begin writing copy for sample ads B spend some time visiting fast food restaurants, eating their food and talking to consumers about some of . their specific likes and dislikes of Wendy's and their competitors C. try to come up with some big ideas that can be the basis of a creative ad campaign D. come up with alternative positioning concepts for Wendy's 18. An advertising creative specialist wants to learn as much as possible about the market for a calciumenhanced sports drink that can be used to develop the creative strategy. Which of the following should he NOT do first? A. Talk to coaches and trainers to get their reactions to the new product. B. Talk to nutritionists about the actual nutritional value of the added calcium. C. Get a group of athletes to sample the drink and give their opinions about its taste and consistency. D. Brainstorm some ideas with colleagues to develop potential slogans. 19. The creative director of an agency has chosen three likely creative ideas to concept test through focus groups in a couple of major markets. The findings of this research will guide the final tweaking of the creative concept. This represents the ____________ stage of the creative process. A. preparation B. verification C. reality check D. incubation 20. Account planners are responsible for the conducting and analysis of research in order to drive the creative process from a(n) ___________ point of view. A. incubation B. historical C. head office D. customer 21. Petra is the creative director for an ad agency. The agency has just taken on a manufacturer of women's shoes for aqua aerobics as a client. As part of her preparation for developing a creative strategy, Petra reviews some studies conducted on the overall fitness and exercise market as well as a report on the changing roles of women in society. This information is part of the: A. general preplanning input B. product specific preplanning input C. problem detection studies D. illumination studies 22. Dara is the creative director for the Wise-Humphrey advertising agency. She spends an hour every morning reading publications such as Marketing Magazine, Strategy, and The National Post to gain a better understanding of what is happening in the world of marketing and advertising. This activity can be characterized as: A. general preplanning input B. product specific preplanning input C. verification research D. problem detection research

23. Attitude studies and perceptual mapping would be examples of: A. general preplanning inputs B. product/service specific preplanning inputs C. verification studies D. revision studies 24. David participated in a study done by an advertising agency. During his interview, he was asked to gauge the services provided by a regional airline on the basis of his experiences and what others had told him. The interviewer asked David specific questions about the food, the seating arrangements, the ease with which he entered and exited the plane, and the service provided by the airplane attendants. Since the ad agency doing the research is the one that will be the creative strategy for the airline's new ad campaign, you know that David most likely provided the agency with: A. product/service specific preplanning inputs B. general product inputs to be stored and used later C. secondary external data D. quantitative data which will be used by the client to determine market development strategies 25. _____ research is a qualitative research method where 10 to 12 consumers from a target market are led through a discussion about a topic such as women's shoes or hunting. A. Focus group B. Problem detection C. Psychographic D. Preparation 26. Judy, the creative director for YTT ad agency, is observing a focus group for four-wheel drive SUVs. She is gathering _____ before she begins to develop creative strategy for an SUV manufacturer. A. general preplanning input B. secondary internal data C. product specific preplanning input D. illumination research 27. Focus groups can be used during the advertising creative process to each of the following EXCEPT: A. find any special needs that are not being satisfied B. gain detailed insight into how and why consumers use a product or service C. evaluate creative concepts, ideas, and campaign themes D. predict sales figures for a particular period 28. Which of the following is NOT a form of qualitative research? A. Focus groups B. In-depth interviews C. Mall-intercept surveys D. Associative tests 29. A(n) ____ is a series of drawings used to present the visual plan or layout of a proposed commercial along with a description of the audio for each scene. A. animatic B. rough layout C. storyboard D. creative map 30. To make a creative layout of a commercial more realistic, a(n) _____ may be produced by making a videotape of the _____ along with an audio soundtrack. A. animatic; storyboard B. storyboard; animatic C. animatic; copy platform D. campaign; storyboard

31. The Taxi advertising agency works to test a creative idea they have for a new commercial before moving ahead with the production of the spot. To make the test more realistic it wants to test both the visual layout of the commercial as well as the audio portion of the message. The commercial should be tested in which of the following forms? A. Storyboard B. Animatic C. Reaction profile D. Print copy 32. The end result of the creative process is the written document referred to as the ___. It specifies the basic elements of the creative strategy and other relevant information. A. animatic B. working document C. creative brief D. selling idea 33. In order for a creative message to be considered a "campaign": A. there should be multiple executions B. it must be a new creative idea C. it needs to include many products in the mix D. it must be scientifically proven to have longevity 34. An advertising campaign theme: A. is always tactical in nature and design B. is a strong idea, as it is the central message that will be communicated in all the advertising and other promotional activities C. is typically designed by the client and implemented by the agency D. is usually used in ads that run in only one type of media vehicle 35. Hubba Bubba bubble gum is the only chewing gum that lets you blow great big bubbles that won't stick to your face. This statement represents the gum's: A. unique selling proposition B. brand image C. inherent drama D. brand equity 36. The product's ________ says to the consumer, "Buy this product and you will get this benefit." A. brand equity B. unique selling proposition C. copy platform D. jingle 37. Unlike other alkaline batteries and traditional rechargeable batteries, Rayovac Renewal alkaline battery is reusable 25 times or more. The ad headline read, "Introducing the Best-Performing Battery System in All of Creation." This ad was based on the Rayovac Renewal alkaline battery's: A. unique selling proposition B. brand image C. inherent drama D. brand equity 38. A number of years ago Shell advertised its premium grade of gasoline as the only brand with platformate, a special ingredient that helped clean the engine and yield higher gas mileage. This is an example of what type of approach to a major selling idea? A. Brand image B. Inherent drama C. Unique selling proposition D. Transformation

39. Nizoral A-D shampoo is the only dandruff shampoo made with the number one doctor-prescribed ingredient, an ingredient that its manufacturer holds the patent on. This is the product's unique selling proposition (USP). Which of the following statements about this USP is true? A. This USP can be easily imitated. B. This USP does not benefit a large enough target market. C. This USP creates a sustainable competitive advantage. D. This USP allows for the creation of a strong brand personality. 40. All Nippon Airways (ANA) is the largest airline in the Far East. Its ads focus on the Japanese hospitality that is offered on its planes—everything from elegant tableware to the finest in Far Eastern cuisine. If comfort and fine food is important to you when you travel, then you should think ANA next time you are booking a flight to Asia. This development of a strong, memorable identity for ANA is an example of: A. unique selling proposition B. attribute-based positioning C. inherent drama D. image advertising 41. Which of the following statements about image advertising is true? A. Image advertising is used most often when there are significant functional or performance differences among brands. B. Image advertising is often used when competing brands are difficult to differentiate on a functional or performance basis. C. Advertisers often use image advertising when their products or services offer a unique attribute or benefit to consumers. D. Image advertising is most commonly used for business-to-business products. 42. An approach to determine the creative theme/idea that uses consumer benefits as a foundation with an emphasis on presenting these benefits in a dramatic way is the _____ approach. A. positioning B. brand image C. inherent drama D. benefit 43. Trout and Ries originally described ______ as the image consumers have of a brand in relation to competing brands. A. unique selling proposition B. positioning C. inherent drama D. brand image 44. The ongoing tales of Salty the personified salt shaker in Knorr Sidekicks ads is an example of the use of the _______ approach to determining the creative theme. A. brand image B. unique selling proposition C. consistency across time D. inherent drama 45. The theme for the advertising campaign is usually expressed in the ad through a slogan or ______. A. positioning statement B. consistent illustration C. tagline D. product shot

46. The ________ reduces the creative theme or idea into a few words or a brief statement that reinforces the branding message. A. slogan or tagline B. product illustration C. brand logo D. consistent message 47. Which of the following does NOT make a good advertising slogan? A. Includes the key benefit of the brand B. Evokes positive feelings C. Is complex and mystifying D. Is distinct from the competition 48. The creative themes of advertising are usually developed with the intention of being used for a long time period. This statement falls under the category of: A. consistency across time B. consistency across executions C. consistency across media D. consistency across products 49. It is important that marketers ensure that all ads feature a similar "look and feel." This statement falls under the category of: A. consistency across time B. consistency across executions C. consistency across media D. consistency across products 50. Research by Environics suggests that Canadian and American _____ are not exactly the same, so marketers need to come up with uniquely Canadian executions. A. thoughts B. values C. emotions D. motives 51. The _____ are awards given to celebrate Canadian advertising success stories. A. Marketing Awards B. Bessies C. Extra Awards D. Cassies 52. The _____ sponsored by Marketing Magazine identify the top creative communication launched each year in a number of categories. A. Marketing Awards B. Bessies C. Extra Awards D. Cassies 53. On a global level, the _____ is widely considered the most prestigious advertising award competition. A. Marketing Awards B. Cannes C. Extra Awards D. Cassies 54. The Bessies are awards celebrating the use of _____ as an effective medium. A. sponsorship B. newsprint C. television D. crowd-sourcing

55. The Extra Awards celebrate the use of _____ as an effective medium. A. sponsorship B. newsprint C. television D. crowd-sourcing 56. A commercial for MADD (Mothers Against Drunk Driving) shows viewers the havoc that is caused by drunk drivers. The factual, newslike nature of the ad indicates it is using a(n) _____ appeal. A. rational B. emotional C. fear D. refutational 57. Advertising appeals that focus on the consumer's practical, functional or utilitarian needs and emphasize product features and benefits are known as _____ appeals. A. rational B. emotional C. price D. inherent drama 58. _______ appeals are often used for brands with a small market share. A. Feature B. Emotional C. Comparative D. Reminder 59. The content of advertising with _____ appeals emphasizes facts, learning, and the logic of persuasion. A. emotional B. rational C. transformational D. subliminal 60. Technical and high-involvement products often use a(n) _____ appeal. A. news B. subliminal C. feature D. popularity 61. Which of the following statements about feature appeals is true? A Feature appeals tend to be very informative and present a number of attributes that can be used as the . basis for a rational purchase decision. B. Feature appeals are never used for technical and high-involvement products. C. Feature appeals can be used for advertising a product but not a service. D. Feature appeals never focus on attributes or benefits that are important to consumers. 62. Retailers wanting to announce sales, special offers, or everyday low prices often use a _____ appeal. A. news B. popularity C. favourable price D. promotional 63. Which of the following is NOT an example of a favourable price appeal? A. The Bay department store announces a new line of women's sportswear. B. Walmart stores advertise their everyday low prices. C. McDonald's restaurant promotes its $2.99 meal deal. D. Nissan advertises the 2008 Altima as the lowest priced car in its class.

64. Dell computer has developed a significant technological breakthrough that will make its computers easier to use for novices. Dell will probably use which of the following types of appeals to announce the breakthrough? A. Favourable price appeal B. Emotional appeal C. News appeal D. Popularity appeal 65. Advertisements that focus on the dominant attributes or characteristics of a product or service are known as _____ appeals. A. feature B. news C. price D. product popularity 66. An ad for Neutrogena's Healthy Skin Anti-Wrinkle cream uses a(n) _______ appeal by noting that it is the brand most recommended by dermatologists. A. emotional B. product popularity C. favourable price D. comparative 67. The computer software company Intuit runs an advertising campaign for Quicken that promotes the fact that it is the most preferred and bestselling brand of financial software. This is an example of what type of advertising appeal? A. Emotional B. Teaser C. Product popularity D. Transformational 68. Advertising appeals that relate to the consumers' social and/or psychological needs for purchasing a product or service are known as _____ appeals. A. informational B. rational C. irrational D. emotional 69. Which of the following statements is NOT a reason for why marketers may use emotional appeals? A. The favourable feeling created by the appeal may transfer to the brand. B. Emotional appeals can create favourable mood states, which make consumers more receptive to an advertising message. C. Research has proven that emotional messages should be based on factual data. D. Emotional appeals can create feelings or images that are activated when consumers use the brand. 70. Advertising appeals that express or imply some type of physical or emotional danger and try to arouse consumers to take steps to remove the threat are known as _____ appeals. A. comparative B. irrational C. fear D. nonverbal 71. A dental hygienist in an ad for toothpaste is quoted as saying, "If patients could see what I see, they'd all use Colgate Total." Since everyone who goes to a dentist regularly is worried about plaque, gingivitis, and cavities, and her statement implies that other brands do a poorer job than Colgate Total at preventing dental problems, Colgate is using a(n) _____ appeal. A. comparative B. irrational C. humourous D. nonverbal

72. An ad campaign to convince people to stop smoking uses three teens bungee jumping off a bridge. When they reach the ground, each grabs a soda can, opens it, and takes a drink. As the third person takes a drink, the can explodes and kills him. The final screen reads, "No other product but tobacco kills every third consumer." This ad is using a _____ appeal. A. comparative B. humourous C. fear D. nonverbal 73. The Dial soap ad campaign that used the slogan, "Aren't you glad you use Dial? Don't you wish everybody did?" is a good example of: A. a mild fear appeal B. an irrational appeal C. comparative advertising D. a refutational appeal 74. Before deciding to use a fear-appeal message strategy, an advertiser should consider what level of fear to use in the message because: A. fear appeals have only inhibiting effects on consumer behaviour B. defensive reactions such as tuning out a message or perceiving it selectively may occur if the level of fear is low C. the message recipient may be motivated to act to resolve the threat if the level of fear is quite low D. a low to medium level of fear can attract attention and interest and may motivate the receiver to act to resolve the threat 75. A potential problem of using advertising with a strong fear appeal message to try and discourage drug abuse by teenagers is that: A. there is no appropriate medium B. fear appeals never work with teenagers C. a message with a high level of fear may have inhibiting effects and be tuned out by teenagers D. parents may be offended if the message is perceived as too frightening 76. Fear appeal ads promoting _____ would stress negative physical consequences or outcomes while appeals for _____ would stress the threat of social disapproval or rejection. A. anti-smoking; seat belts B. seat belts; deodorant C. deodorant soap; mouthwash D. safe driving; life insurance 77. Some marketers avoid the use of humour in their advertising because: A. humour can draw attention away from the product B. effective humour is difficult to produce C. humour can put the consumer in a good mood and increase liking of the ad D. humour compels the receiver to engage in counterarguing 78. Which of the following statements about research done by advertising agency about the use of humour in advertising is NOT true? A. Humour confuses awareness. B. Humour may aid name and simple copy registration. C. Radio and television are the best media for executing humour. D. Humour should not be used for advertising sensitive products. 79. Rational and emotional advertising appeals: A. represent two distinctive approaches which can never be combined B. are essentially the same C. can be combined since consumers' purchase decisions are often made on the basis of rational and emotional motives D. are used together only for low-involvement products

80. Research shows that consumers perceive Molson's Export beer as strong, bold, and outdoorsy. This is an example of how consumers assign a _____ to a brand. A. product benefit B. personality C. product features D. unique selling proposition 81. Consumers perceive Maytag appliance as dependable. Consumers have assigned a _____ to the brand. A. product benefit B. spokesperson C. personality D. market rank 82. _____ advertising is sometimes used to create curiosity and build interest and excitement in a new product or brand by talking about it but not showing it. A. Reminder B. Teaser C. Curiosity D. New product 83. Which of the following statements about the use of teaser advertising is true? A. Teaser ads cannot be used to draw attention to and generate publicity for an upcoming advertising campaign. B. Teaser ads do not work well because consumers really do not pay much attention to advertising. C.Teaser ads are used by marketers to draw attention to upcoming advertising campaigns and generate interest and publicity for them. D. Teaser ads usually offend consumers. 84. A spokesperson who delivers an advertising message and/or demonstrates a product or service is known as a(n): A. direct source B. indirect source C. message shaper D. source mirage 85. Marketers try to select spokespeople whose traits will maximize their message influence. The three categories of source attributes that should be considered during the selection process are: A. power, image, and knowledge B. credibility, attractiveness, and power C. consistency, credibility, and continuity D. credibility, recognizability, and individuality 86. Marketers who try to select spokespeople whose traits will maximize their message influence are concerned about their credibility. The two important dimensions associated with credibility are: A. consistency and image B. recognizability and expertise C. expertise and trustworthiness D. image and expertise 87. Information from a credible source influences beliefs, opinions, attitudes, and/or behaviours through a process known as: A. identification B. compliance C. internalization D. conformity

88. A financial services company who wants to use a spokesperson would agree that expertise and trustworthiness are very important when focusing on source ___, one of the categories of source attributes. A. attractiveness B. credibility C. identification D. image 89. A pharmaceutical company wants to promote a new over-the-counter cough medicine. The company has hired as its spokesperson an actor who has played a physician for several years on a popular soap opera. The first line of the commercial is, "Hi. I play a doctor on television." For people who are unfamiliar with this actor, the message source lacks ___, one of the source attribute categories. A. credibility B. power C. positive image D. charisma 90. A study by Roobina Ohanian of consumers' perceptions of celebrity endorsers found that the characteristic that most influenced consumers' intentions to purchase a product endorsed by a celebrity was perceived: A. expertise B. attractiveness C. trustworthiness D. likeability 91. One way that a supermarket can make its ads seem more trustworthy is to: A. use cartoon characters in humourous shopping experiences B. hire attractive actors and actresses who look like people wished they looked C. show customers talking about the supermarket on hidden cameras D. use loud music or an unsettling colour combination 92. Which of the following statements about the use of corporate leaders as advertising spokespersons is true? A Many companies believe the use of a company president or CEO is an ineffective way of expressing the . company's commitment to quality and customer service. B. Only major Fortune 500 type companies use corporate leaders as spokespersons. C.The use of corporate leaders as spokespersons can create problems if the firm's image becomes too closely tied to this individual. D. Corporate spokespersons are ineffective for consumer products. 93. The notion that a low credibility source may be just as effective as a high credibility source with the passing of time is known as the: A. sleeper effect B. time/place consequence C. identification outcome D. decay effect 94. According to the sleeper effect phenomenon: A. the impact of persuasive messages diminishes over time B. people retain advertising messages when they see them right before going to bed and rehearse them in their sleep C the impact of persuasive messages from low-credibility sources can increase over time since the . message content becomes disassociated from the source D people instinctively disassociate low-credibility sources from messages when they are paying less than . full attention to the message

95. The source characteristic of attractiveness encompasses: A. beauty, familiarity, and recognizability B. similarity, likeability, and familiarity C. comfort, recognizability, and beauty D. expertise, familiarity, and comfort 96. _____ is defined as an attraction for a source based on a resemblance between the source and receiver. A. Likeability B. Familiarity C. Similarity D. Expertise 97. Source attractiveness leads to persuasion through a process of: A. internalization B. identification C. compliance D. comprehension 98. The use of celebrities in commercials is generally based on the source characteristics of _____ and represents an attempt to induce persuasion through the ______ process. A. expertise; yielding B. expertise; identification C. attractiveness; identification D. attractiveness; internalization 99. Which of the following statements describes a good reason for using celebrities in ads and having them endorse a company's product or service? A. Celebrities cannot draw attention to advertising messages in a very cluttered media environment. B. The respect, popularity, or admiration a celebrity enjoys may carry over to the product she or he endorses. C. Celebrities may be unable to enhance the target audience's perceptions of the products' image or performance. D. Consumers may focus attention on the celebrity and not attend to the product and advertising message. 100.Which of the following is likely to suffer when a celebrity endorses too many products and is seen too often by consumers? A. Expertise B. Credibility C. Power D. Internalization 101.Which of the following statements about celebrity endorsers is true? A. Consumers who are very knowledgeable about a product or service tend to be most persuaded by celebrity endorsers. B. The teenage market is generally not receptive to celebrity endorsers. C. Many marketers are finding that teenage consumers are more skeptical and cynical about the use of celebrity endorsers. D. Celebrity endorsers do not have much credibility among older consumers. 102.Because of the _____ model, marketers may experience negative publicity if their product endorser is involved in controversy. A. celebrity expertise B. meaning transfer C. celebrity popularity D. endorsement shift

103.Which of the following statements describes one of the findings of research on the use of decorative or physically attractive models? A. They do not result in favourable evaluations of an advertisement. B. Their effectiveness is limited solely to cosmetics and fashion products. C. The relevancy of the model to the product being advertised is not important. D. A decorative model can facilitate recognition of the ad but not enhance readership or recall of the message.

Chapter 07 Key 1. C 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. D 7. A 8. C 9. C 10. B 11. A 12. C 13. A 14. A 15. C 16. D 17. B 18. D 19. B 20. D 21. A 22. A 23. B 24. A 25. A 26. C 27. D 28. C 29. C 30. A 31. B 32. C 33. A 34. B 35. A 36. B

37. A 38. C 39. C 40. D 41. B 42. C 43. B 44. D 45. C 46. A 47. C 48. A 49. B 50. B 51. D 52. A 53. B 54. C 55. B 56. A 57. A 58. C 59. B 60. C 61. A 62. C 63. A 64. C 65. A 66. B 67. C 68. D 69. C 70. C 71. A 72. C 73. A 74. D

75. C 76. B 77. A 78. A 79. C 80. B 81. C 82. B 83. C 84. A 85. B 86. C 87. C 88. B 89. A 90. A 91. C 92. C 93. A 94. C 95. B 96. C 97. B 98. C 99. B 100. B 101. C 102. B 103. D

Chapter 07 Summary Category # of Questions Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 103 Belch - Chapter 07 103 Blooms: Analyze 19 Blooms: Apply 3 Blooms: Remember 57 Blooms: Understand 24 Difficulty: Difficult 12 Difficulty: Easy 51 Difficulty: Moderate 40 Learning Objective: 07-01 Summarize the idea and importance of creativity in an advertising context. 11 Learning Objective: 07-02 Describe the creative strategy planning process. 22 Learning Objective: 0722 03 Identify the approaches used for determining the creative theme that forms the basis of an advertising campaign. Learning Objective: 07-04 Summarize the different types of message appeals that advertisers use to persuade their target audience. 28 Learning Objective: 07-05 Identify the source or communicator options a marketer has for a promotional message. 20

Chapter 08 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

An advertising execution technique that relies on a straightforward presentation of information concerning the product or service is called a(n): A. straight-sell execution B. demonstration execution C. dramatization execution D. animation execution

Straight-sell message executions are commonly used with _____ advertising appeals. A. rational B. emotional C. teaser D. transformational

When an advertiser cites technical information such as the results of laboratory studies in an advertisement, a(n) _____ execution is being used. A. dramatization B. testimonial C. scientific/technical evidence D. animation

An ad for Lipton tea states that according to laboratory research, "a serving of tea has more antioxidants than a serving of carrots or broccoli." Which type of ad execution is being used in this example? A. Dramatization B. Testimonial C. Scientific/technical evidence D. Comparison

Which of the following is an advertising execution approach designed to illustrate key advantages or features of a product by showing it in actual use? A. Comparison B. Demonstration C. Scientific evidence D. Straight-sell

An ad for the Dodge Caravan shows how effectively the minivan handles the requirements of a family on the go. Which ad execution technique is being used in this ad? A. Comparison B. Straight-sell C. Scientific evidence D. Demonstration

The opening vignette talks about the latest interactive ads from Skittles, called "Create the Rainbow", where consumers can create their own Skittles ads online using various "wacky" scenarios. Which ad execution technique is being used in this ad? A. Slice-of-life B. Straight-sell C. Humour D. Demonstration

When a person speaks on the behalf of a product or service based on his or her personal use of and/or experiences with it, a(n) _____ execution is being used. A. dramatization B. slice-of-life C. testimonial D. demonstration

Skier Tommy Moe appears in ads for Dynastar skis in which he notes how the company's Coupe S Super Sidecut model helped him win the gold medal in the downhill race at the Winter Olympics. This is an example of which type of advertising execution? A. Slice-of-life B. Testimonial C. Demonstration D. Scientific evidence

10. In a television ad, actress and noted animal lover Betty White praised a flea and tick treatment called Frontline for the way it protected both her dogs and cats. These ads are an example of the use of what type of execution? A. Testimonial B. Slice-of-life C. Humour D. Demonstration 11. A television ad features a brand's particular advantage over its competitors. This is an example of a: A. dramatization B. comparison C. demonstration D. straight sell 12. A widely used advertising execution style for packaged goods products which attempts to portray a situation consumers might face in their daily lives is known as: A. dramatization B. slice-of-life C. slice-of-death D. a demonstration 13. A Tide detergent ad showing how a high school team manager easily removed all the grass and dirt stains from two dozen or more baseball uniforms by simply throwing them in a washer and adding Tide. The ad creator used which execution style? A. Dramatization B. Slice-of-life C. Testimonial D. Demonstration 14. Which of the following statements about the use of slice-of-life executions is NOT true? A. Slice-of-life executions are sometimes criticized for being unrealistic and irritating. B. Slice-of-life executions often present a problem consumers encounter and suggest a solution. C Slice-of-life executions feature a real person talking on the behalf of a product or service based on his . or her personal use of and/or experiences with it. DSlice-of-life executions have also been used in ads for financial institutions that try to show how their . products and services can allow a customer to reach their future aspirations. 15. Which of the following is an example of an advertising personality symbol? A. Celine Dion B. The Man from Glad C. Wayne Gretzky D. William Shatner

16. An ad shows dandruff on Jim's shoulder. He is rebuffed by his girlfriend. He then applies Head and Shoulders, and his dandruff disappears. His girlfriend is attracted to him again. This is an example of: A. demonstration B. testimonial C. slice-of-life advertising D. a response-stimuli execution 17. An advertising execution technique that is particularly popular for creating commercials targeted at children is: A. slice-of-life B. demonstration C. testimonial D. animation 18. Advertisements for M&M candy featuring various colours of the candy taking on human personifications are examples of which type of creative execution? A. Dramatization B. Testimonial C. Animation D. Straight-sell 19. Which of the following is an example of an advertising personality symbol? A. Michael Jordan B. Snap, Crackle, and Pop characters C. Tiger Woods D. Shaquille O'Neal 20. The Old Spice Man is an example of advertising that uses which of the following advertising execution techniques? A. Testimonial B. Demonstration C. Imagery D. Personality symbol 21. _____ is the way a message appeal is presented. A. Creative execution style B. Message structure C. Creative theme D. Creative structure 22. Which of the following is NOT a critical point of a message structure? A. Order of presentation B. Verbal versus visual message characteristics C. Message sidedness D. Body copy 23. _____ is a type of advertising execution style that involves creating a central character who can deliver the advertising message and with whom the product or service can be identified. A. Demonstration B. Testimonial C. Personality symbol D. Slice-of-life 24. _____ is an advertising execution technique where some ads contain little or no information about the brand and are almost totally visual. A. Imagery B. Demonstration C. Slice-of-life D. Animation

25. Timberland Co. sells all-weather gear. For its advertising, it has developed an imaginary place called Timber Land, which is a utopian setting of extraordinary landscapes and crystal-clear water. Its ads use a(n) _____ execution style to get the audience to envision themselves in Timber Land. A. imagery B. demonstration C. slice-of-life D. animation 26. A strong example of imagery execution style would be: A. Mr. Clean helping to clean up a huge kitchen mess. B. a happy, active family going on vacation in a new Chevy van. C. a prosperous looking gentleman in a high-end restaurant, wearing a Rolex watch. D. a dentist recommending Trident gum for his patients who chew gum. 27. A commercial showing trucks and SUVs navigating tough terrain is an example of ______ advertising execution. A. imagery B. slice-of-life C. animation D. testimonial 28. _____ is an advertising execution technique whereby the focus is on using excitement and suspense to tell a short story with the product as the star of the ad. A. Slice-of-life B. Animation C. Dramatization D. Imagery 29. Which of the following statements about the dramatization execution technique is NOT true? A. The dramatization execution technique is particularly well suited to television. B. The dramatization execution technique often relies on the problem/solution approach. C. The dramatization execution technique is similar to a slice-of-life execution but uses more excitement and suspense. D. The goal of the dramatization execution technique is to use testimonials to get the audience involved in the advertising story. 30. Presenting the strongest arguments at the beginning of the commercial message assumes a _____ is operating. A. primacy effect B. recency effect C. sleeper effect D. credibility effect 31. A commercial that places the strongest points at the end of the message assumes a ___, whereby the last arguments presented are the most persuasive. A. primacy effect B. recency effect C. sleeper effect D. credibility effect 32. An ad campaign to convince people to stop smoking uses three teens bungee jumping off a bridge. When they reach the ground, each grabs a can, opens it, and takes a drink. As the third person takes a drink, the can explodes and kills him. The final screen reads, "No other product but tobacco kills every third consumer." By placing the strongest point in the ad at the end, the ad's source is hoping its message benefits from the: A. primacy effect B. recency effect C. sleeper effect D. credibility effect

33. A marketer may not want to put weak arguments at the beginning of an advertising message because this action may: A. reduce the level of counterarguing B. increase retention of the message C. lead to a high level of counterarguing D. deter recipients from drawing their own conclusions 34. A marketer may NOT want to use a message that draws an explicit conclusion for a target audience if: A. the audience is highly involved with the topic B. the audience is highly educated C. the message is high in complexity D. the product is highly personal or involves ego issues 35. The manufacturer of Smuckers jams and jellies used the following slogan for years: "With a name like Smuckers, it has to be good." The ad implies that the brand name is poorly chosen and is a negative attribute that is overcome by the high quality of the product. This is an example of a(n): A. one-sided message B. two-sided message C. confrontational appeal D. refutational message 36. Most advertisers refuse to use two-sided messages because they: A. are concerned about the impact of a two-sided message on source credibility B. are concerned over presenting only the negative attributes of their brands C. are concerned over the negative effects of acknowledging a weakness in their brand D. have been proven ineffective by a number of different advertising research studies 37. When a target audience already holds a favourable opinion on a topic or issue a(n) _____ is most effective. A. one-sided message B. two-sided message C. nonverbal appeal D. open-ended message 38. Recent television commercials for Buckley's Mixture invited consumers to "show us your Buckley's face". Their contorted expressions conveyed the idea that Buckley's tasted awful, with the implied suggestion that it was effective against coughs. This is an example of a(n): A. one-sided message B. two-sided message C. nonverbal appeal D. open-ended message 39. A special type of two-sided message is known as a(n) _____ message. The communicator presents both sides of an issue and then shows the opposing viewpoint to be false. A. rational B. nonverbal C. emotional D. refutational 40. Drawing a _______ in the message may make sure that the target audience gets the point the marketer intended. A. picture B. primacy effect C. recency effect D. conclusion

41. The visual portion of an advertisement may reduce its persuasiveness because: A. pictures may not attract attention to the product B. processing stimulated by the picture may be less controlled and less favourable than the processing stimulated by words C. pictures are always low in imagery value D. verbal is always more effective than nonverbal communications 42. A study showed that the use of pictures providing examples increased message recall when: A. the pictures attracted attention to the product. B. the verbal information was low in imagery value. C. the pictures were low in imagery value. D. the consumer was loyal to a competing product. 43. Which of the following is a basic component of a print advertisement? A. Layout B. Testimonial C. Endorsement D. Slice of life 44. _____ is the words in the leading position of an advertisement that are likely to be read first. A. Headline B. Body copy C. Subheads D. Primary copy 45. Research has shown that the first thing people look at in a print ad is the: A. illustration B. visuals C. body copy D. headline 46. Many advertising experts consider that the most important part of a print ad is the: A. illustration B. headline C. layout D. body copy 47. The function of a headline in a print ad is to do all of the following EXCEPT: A. attract readers' attention B. lead readers to click on the link to the brand's website C perform a segmentation function by attracting the attention and interest of consumers who are the best . prospects for a product or service D. put forth the main theme, appeal, or proposition of the ad in a few words 48. Common types of ______ headlines include those offering a specific benefit and making a promise. A. direct B. indirect C. straight-sell D. rational 49. When an advertiser has something important or new to announce to a target audience, a(n) _____ headline will be used. A. visual B. indirect C. affective D. direct

50. _______ headlines may be risky if the headline is not strong enough to get the reader to read the body copy. A. Direct B. Indirect C. Straight-sell D. Rational 51. Which of the following statements describes a potential problem associated with the use of indirect headlines in a print ad? A Indirect headlines rarely generate interest or curiosity and thus motivate the reader to become involved . with the remainder of the ad. B Indirect headlines may not be provocative enough to get the readers' attention and offer a reason for . reading the remainder of the message. C. Indirect headlines must always be accompanied by an engaging visual appeal in order to be effective. D. Indirect headlines only work when readers are already interested in the product or service being advertised. 52. _____ are secondary headlines that usually appear in a type size smaller than the main headline but larger than the body copy of a print ad. A. Direct headlines B. Indirect headlines C. Body copy D. Subheads 53. A print ad for Titleist golf balls uses the headline "Do you ever wonder why Mike Weir can hit a golf ball so far?" This is an example of a(n): A. direct headline B. indirect headline C. question D. jingle 54. _____ are the print ad components that are used to break up large amounts of copy and highlight key selling points. A. Headlines B. Subheads C. Illustrations D. Layouts 55. What is the main text portion of a print ad called? A. Headline B. Subhead C. Body copy D. Layout 56. _____ is considered the heart of a print ad but is often difficult to get people to read. A. The headline B. The subhead C. The body copy D. The logo 57. "The ______ must be long enough to communicate the advertiser's message yet short enough to hold readers' interest" A. headline B. subhead C. body copy D. layout

58. The physical arrangement of the various parts of an ad including headlines, subheads, illustrations, body copy, and identifying marks is known as: A. visualization B. copy writing C. art direction D. the layout 59. The ______ portion of an ad must attract attention and work in a synergistic fashion with the headline and body copy to produce an effective message. A. visuals B. subheads C. jingles D. trademarks 60. Standard poster format, portrait orientation, landscape orientation, vertical or horizontal splits are all terms used to describe: A. illustrations B. subheads C. layouts D. trademarks 61. The audio portion of a commercial is often presented through the use of a(n): A. layout B. voiceover C. illustration D. headline 62. On a cost-per-minute basis, ____ messages are the most expensive messages to produce. A. video B. audio C. celebrity D. print 63. A recent trend among major advertisers is to have _____ do the voiceovers for their commercials. A. singing groups B. celebrities with distinctive voices C. everyday people D. people with accents 64. It is important for marketers to carefully select actors for audio and video messages because: A. visuals may not match the voices of the actors. B. celebrities may require more money than the commercial is projected to bring in. C. incorrect associations may be made if the audience recognizes the celebrity from another ad. D. overexposure of the celebrity can strongly enhance the brand's message. 65. Some marketers have moved to using ______ which is a lower-cost and highly engaging way to show regular people interacting with the brand. A. still photos B. consumer-generated ads C. reality-type filming of customers in purchase and consumption situations D. lesser-known actors 66. _____ is an occupational term in the advertising and music industries that refers to prefabricated, multipurpose music that is often used as the background audio portion of a commercial. A. Jingle B. Voiceover C. Needledrop D. Stock music

67. The function of music in a commercial is to do all of the following EXCEPT: A. provide a pleasant background for the message B. create a mood state that will make consumers more receptive to the message C. help establish or communicate a key selling point D. showcase a famous music artist 68. _____ are catchy songs about a product or service that usually carry the advertising theme and a simple message. A. Voiceovers B. Jingles C. Needledrops D. Theme songs 69. "You always have time for Tim Hortons" is an example of a: A. needledrop B. voiceover C. catchy jingle D. subhead 70. A written version of a commercial that provides a detailed description of its video and audio content is known as a: A. layout B. voiceover C. script D. storyboard 71. A series of drawings used to present the visual plan or layout of a commercial is known as a: A. layout B. voiceover C. script D. storyboard 72. During which stage of the commercial production process do cost estimating, casting, location selection, and selecting a director occur? A. Preproduction B. Production C. Postproduction D. Preparation 73. During which stage of the commercial production process do activities such as editing, recording of sound effects, audio/video mixing, and agency approval occur? A. Preproduction B. Production C. Postproduction D. Preparation 74. Which of the following is NOT a strategy associated with the FCB planning grid? A. Dissonance strategy B. Satisfaction strategy C. Informative strategy D. Affective strategy 75. According to the FCB model, the _____ strategy is for highly involving products where rational thinking and economic considerations prevail. A. habitual B. informative C. affective D. dissonance reduction

76. According to the FCB planning model, for which of the following products would an affective strategy be most appropriate? A. Storm windows B. Bags of cat litter C. Hall tables D. Cosmetics 77. According to the FCB planning model, a package goods company might want to send out free samples to generate trial and follow this with discount coupons to encourage repeat purchase when using a(n) _____ strategy. A. informative B. affective C. habit formation D. self-satisfaction 78. Each of the following is a source of guidelines for the emotional portrayal of motive found in the creative tactics suggestions of the R&P planning model EXCEPT: A. execution style B. like ad C. authenticity D. intensity of benefit claim 79. Each of the following is a source of guidelines for the benefit claim of the brand message found in the creative tactics suggestions of the R&P planning model EXCEPT: A. information of benefit B. number of benefits C. intensity of benefit claim D. repetition of benefit claim 80. There are more creative tactics recommendations for recall than for recognition in the R&P planning model because: A. advertisers like recall more than recognition. B. recall is more important than recognition. C. recall is a more difficult mental task. D. media organizations believe recall is a better objective. 81. The R&P planning model is superior to the FCB model for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: A. it includes creative tactics recommendations for brand awareness. B. it has a more specific definition of involvement concerning the brand. C. it has a more thorough interpretation of consumer motivation. D. it makes a distinction between recall and recognition. 82. Which of the following criteria is advertisers less likely to use in evaluating the creative work of their agencies? A. Consistency with the brand's marketing and advertising objectives B. Appropriateness for the target audience C. Likability of the message D. Appropriateness for the media

Chapter 08 Key 1. A 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. D 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. A 11. B 12. B 13. B 14. C 15. B 16. C 17. D 18. C 19. B 20. D 21. A 22. D 23. C 24. A 25. A 26. C 27. A 28. C 29. D 30. A 31. B 32. B 33. C 34. C 35. B 36. C

37. A 38. B 39. D 40. D 41. B 42. B 43. A 44. A 45. D 46. B 47. B 48. A 49. D 50. B 51. B 52. D 53. B 54. B 55. C 56. C 57. C 58. D 59. A 60. C 61. B 62. A 63. B 64. C 65. C 66. C 67. D 68. B 69. C 70. C 71. D 72. A 73. C 74. A

75. B 76. D 77. C 78. D 79. A 80. C 81. D 82. C

Chapter 08 Summary Category # of Questions Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 82 Belch - Chapter 08 82 Bloom's: Analyze 21 Bloom's: Remember 40 Bloom's: Understand 21 Difficulty: Difficult 10 Difficulty: Easy 40 Difficulty: Moderate 32 Learning Objective: 0829 01 Analyze the creative execution styles that advertisers can use and the situations where they are most appropriate. Learning Objective: 08-02 Explain different types of message structures that can be used to develop a promotional message. 13 Learning Objective: 08-03 Express design elements involved in the creation of print; video; and audio messages. 31 Learning Objective: 08-04 Apply a planning model for making creative tactics decisions. 8 Learning Objective: 081 05 Illustrate how clients evaluate the creative work of their agencies and discuss guidelines for the evaluation and approval process .

Chapter 09 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

Which of the following is NOT a reason why advertising researchers are using eye tracking technology for measuring advertising effectiveness? A. Increased emphasis on accountability B. Technological improvements in the methodology C. Eye tracking is a new way to measure ad effectiveness in the 21st century D. Improvements to existing media forms

In the chapter opening vignette, what technology for measuring advertising effectiveness allows researchers to determine not only what customers see but what they are specifically looking at? A. Commercial testing B. Eye tracking C. Focus group pre-tests D. Observational lab testing

Which of the following is NOT an application of eye tracking technology for measuring advertising effectiveness? A. Allows the researcher to determine what viewers actually look at when viewing an ad B. Allows the researcher to analyze the effectiveness of an ad's copy and visuals C. Allows the researcher to determine whether the viewer will purchase the product based on what they saw in the ad D. Allows the researcher to analyze the effectiveness of web designs, print ads and televisions commercials

An eye tracking study asked participants to search for Pepsi while navigating some popular social media sites. Which of the following was not included specifically because the site did not have a search tool? A. Twitter B. Facebook C. YouTube D. Android

During an eye tracking study on how consumers navigate websites when looking for information, researchers were surprised to find that the most effective ads were: A. those that imposed text on top of attractive images B. those that included high-tech animation C. those that highlighted product features through in-depth descriptions and multiple images D. those that included only text

Each of the following is an argument against measuring advertising effectiveness EXCEPT: A. assessing effectiveness can avoid costly mistakes B. disagreement as to what to test C. the objections of creative people D. research problems

Research to measure advertising effectives can be used to evaluate alternative strategies under consideration because: A. typically a firm would only be considering one main communication strategy B. strategies used in the past may no longer be interesting to the consumer C. marketers wish to determine which promotional element would provide their most effective monetary expenditure D. they want to be sure that sales objectives will be met through the promotional strategies they employ

Which of the following is the most likely reason why a small firm would not want to measure the effectiveness of promotional programs it designed? A. Costs B. Disagreement as to what to test C. The objections of creative people D. Lack of time

What should ad testing focus on? A. Creative strategy and creative tactics decisions B. Creative strategy decisions C. Creative design and creative tactics decisions D. Creative tactics decisions

10. Testing whether the impact and use of a product spokesperson has lost effectiveness over time is a focus on what decision? A. Choice of media vehicle B. Creative tactic C. Brand positioning D. Creative strategy 11. Asking consumers for their reactions to the message structure, the body copy or the music used in a communication piece is a test of what decision? A. Choice of media vehicle B. Creative tactic C. Brand positioning D. Creative strategy 12. Which of the following is a pretest classification used for measuring advertising effectiveness? A. Recognition tests B. Single-source systems C. Association measures D. Concept tests 13. Which of the following is NOT a pretest classification used for measuring advertising effectiveness? A. Concept tests B. Readability tests C. Test marketing D. Comprehension and reaction tests 14. Which of the following is used in field posttesting of ad effectiveness? A. Readability tests B. Consumer juries C. Rough tests D. Recognition tests 15. One disadvantage of _____ is that mock-ups, storyboards, or animatics may not communicate as effectively as the final product. A. pretesting B. posttesting C. concept tests D. recall tests 16. In ____, people are brought to a particular location where they are shown ads and/or commercials. A. tracking studies B. pretests and posttests C. pretests only D. test marketing

17. ________ tests are tests of the ad or commercial under natural viewing situations. A. Tracking study B. Posttests C. Field D. Laboratory 18. Commercials and print ads are posttested to: A. gain relatively inexpensive feedback B. avoid the use of surveys C. determine if a campaign is accomplishing the objectives sought D. determine if the organization's mission statement needs to be modified 19. The fact that people brought in to a lab setting to look at ad mockups may look at the ads more closely than they might look at it if it was included in a magazine that was delivered to their home is an example of a(n): A. vision myopic perception B. lack of realism C. environmental proclivity D. perceptual propensity 20. Laboratory methods of testing for advertisement effectiveness generally offer high: A. control B. external validity C. response D. feedback 21. Disadvantages associated with laboratory tests include: A. lack of control B. lack of realism C. the expense associated with collecting feedback information D. a too effective level of communication 22. An advantage offered by field test measures is: A. greater control of noise B. more realistic testing conditions C. avoidance of potential sabotage D. the ability to isolate the causes of the viewers' evaluations 23. Many approaches toward effectiveness tend to measure consumer knowledge rather than emotions because: A. consumers tend to only have rational thoughts about a brand B. it is more cost-efficient to judge rational thought than emotional response C. consumers have difficulty expressing their emotional attachment to a brand D. researchers are unable to isolate the causes of the viewers' evaluations 24. In order to assess consumers' emotional attachment to a brand, Ipsos-ASI identified a series of ______ that could be used to assess brands, such as social, outgoing, extroverted, spontaneous, and independent. A. human distractors B. realistic measures C. motivators D. personality traits 25. A ______ is conducted very early in the campaign development process in order to explore the consumer's response to a potential ad. A. recognition test B. concept test C. field test D. laboratory test

26. The disadvantages of a ______ are that the results are not quantifiable and group influences may bias participants' responses. A. concept test B. recall test C. focus group D. laboratory test 27. Sometimes, participants rate an ad as good on all characteristics because they like a few characteristics and overlook specific weaknesses. This is called: A. prejudice B. bias C. distortion D. halo effect 28. When two or more ads are used in a ____, viewers are usually asked to rate or rank order the ads according to their preferences. A. comprehension test B. consumer jury test C. reaction test D. readability test 29. Which of the following questions is more likely to be asked in a consumer jury test? A. Which ad did you like best? B. How did you like the music? C. Will you buy this product after seeing this ad? D. Is the ad layout convincing? 30. _____ is a rough commercial test in which a succession of photographs are shown to the receiver. A. Animatic rough testing B. Photomatic rough testing C. Live-action rough testing D. Finished product testing 31. Pretesting of finished ads can consist of each of the following EXCEPT: A. portfolio tests B. dummy advertising vehicles C. readability tests D. inquiry tests 32. _____ is the laboratory method of pretesting ads which exposes a group of respondents to both control and test advertisements. A. The Burke test B. Portfolio testing C. Commercial testing D. The Flesch test 33. The portfolio test for ads assumes that: A. the ad that yields the highest recall is the most effective B. reliability and validity are the most important part of the testing process C. the consumer will closely scrutinize all ads that he or she sees D. field and laboratory tests produce the same results 34. _____ is a readability test which examines the average number of syllables per 100 words. A. Portfolio analysis B. Burke's reflections test C. The Flesch formula D. Contextual testing

35. The advantage of the _____ method is that it provides a more natural setting than the portfolio test. A. vehicle source testing B. Burke's reflection test C. a contextual test D. dummy advertising vehicle 36. Which of the following statements DOES NOT describe a disadvantage associated with the theatre testing of ads? A. The environment is very close to a natural advertising scenario. B. The group effect may cause some to react to an ad when they would not have ordinarily. C. The setup will be viewed as phony by many participants. D. Participants will answer like they think they're supposed to not as a reflection of how they really feel. 37. Some firms conducting theatre testing also insert the commercial into actual TV programs in certain test markets. This is called: A. readability tests B. on-air tests C. concept tests D. tracking 38. The primary measure used in on-air testing is: A. focus group results B. portfolio analysis C. day-after recall scores D. comprehension and reaction tests 39. The use of pupillometrics has waned over the past decade because: A. some consumers are able to control their physiological responses, which skews the data B. high costs and some methodological problems have made it less effective than other methods C. pupil dilation has little correlation to a consumer's affective response to an ad D. involuntary consumer responses are not good indicators of effectiveness 40. Advertising testing that studies dilation or constriction of the eye in response to stimuli is called: A. galvanic eye responses B. Flesch testing C. the reactive test D. pupillometrics 41. Galvanic skin response is also known as: A. electrodermal response B. pupillometrics C. dermal resolution D. alpha beta activity 42. _____ measures electrical frequencies in the brain as the individual being tested responds to ads he or she is viewing. A. Electrodermal B. Pupillometric C. Electroencephalographic D. Cerebral response 43. One method of testing how consumers relate to an ad and process the information it contains is to measure ___, the degree of brain activation that occurs when they look at the ad. A. electrodermal response B. cerebral response C. beta activity D. alpha activity

44. _____ distinguishes between alpha activity in the left and right sides of the brain. A. Cerebral response testing B. Gamma activity C. Electrodermal activity D. Hemispheric lateralization 45. A methodology in which viewers are asked to view an ad while a sensor aims a beam of infrared light at the eye is called: A. eye tracking B. electrodermal response C. pupil dilation D. EEG 46. BMW has developed two new print ads designed to appeal to women. One ad uses local scenes from around Toronto, Montreal, Edmonton, and Vancouver. The other ad uses a spokesperson and emphasizes the safety of the car. Which type of ad effectiveness measure should BMW use to test which ad is most effective? A. Split-run testing B. Day-after recall C. Consumer juries D. Physiological measures 47. One example of a(n) ________ is the number of coupons returned or phone calls generated from the print ad. A. portfolio test B. recognition test C. inquiry test D. Flesch test 48. The most commonly employed method for posttesting print ads is: A. The recognition method B. Indirect methods C. Consumer juries D. Inquiry testing 49. ____ is a technique for measuring advertising effectiveness. With this method, three measures of a particular ad appearing in a magazine are taken to determine if the ad was noticed and read. A. Burke Day-After Recall method B. Starch recognition method C. Tracking D. Split-run test 50. The most popular method of posttesting employed in the broadcast industry for decades was: A. mall intercepts B. Starch recognition method C. Burke Day-After Recall method D. consumer juries 51. Which one of the following statements about the Starch test is NOT true? A. The pulling power of various aspects of an ad can be assessed. B. The effectiveness of competitors' ads cannot be compared. C. Readership scores are a useful indication of consumers' involvement in the ad. D. The Starch test is a posttest.

52. Research shows that in Starch recognition tests, respondents may claim to have seen an ad when they did not. This is an example of: A. reliability and validity problems B. reliability problems C. validity problems D. false claiming 53. In Starch tests, respondents may want to impress the interviewer or fear looking unknowledgeable. This is called: A. false claiming B. validity concerns C. interviewer sensitivities D. recall bias 54. Which testing method should Starbucks employ to measure the recall of their first television advertising campaign in over a decade? A. Starch recognition method B. comprehension and reaction tests C. day-after recall D. portfolio tests 55. The day-after recall test would be the most appropriate measure of effectiveness for: A. the back outside cover position of the May issue of Chatelaine B. a full-page ad in a trade journal aimed at the textile industry C. a 30-second commercial on the CTV network D. a transit ad on the back of the envelope that contains airplane tickets 56. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage associated with DAR tests? A. Thinking messages may be easier to recall than emotional communication. B. DAR tests may favour emotional appeals by asking respondents to verbalize the message. C. Program content may influence recall. D. A pre-recruited sample may pay increased attention to the program and ads. 57. A disadvantage of a ______ is that there is always the fear that competitors may discover and intervene in the research process. A. inquiry test B. recognition test C. test market D. Flesch test 58. _____ track the behaviours of consumers from the television set to the supermarket checkout counter. A. consumer ride-alongs B. Multi-source tracking methods C. Single-source tracking methods D. In-depth interviews 59. _____ take posttest measures of an advertising campaign's effectiveness at regular intervals. A. In-depth interviews B. Tracking studies C. Recognition tests D. Recall tests 60. Samsung, maker of the Galaxy Note, is interested in measuring consumers' movement through the adoption hierarchy. It should employ which of the following ad effectiveness measures? A. Ad tracking study B. Day-after recall tests C. Portfolio testing D. Recognition test

61. _____ studies are used to measure the effects of advertising on awareness, recall, interest, and attitudes toward an ad. A. Alpha B. Beta C. Portfolio D. Tracking 62. Good tests of advertising effectiveness must address the nine principles established by PACT. One of the easiest ways to do this is to follow a decision sequence model. Which of the following is NOT one of the steps in this sequence? A. Establish communication objectives B. Use a consumer response model C. Decide whether to use pretests or posttests D. Use multiple measures 63. The set of nine principles adopted by large advertising agencies to improve preparation and testing of ads is referred to as: A. Positioning Advertising Copy Testing (PACT) B. Post-Advertising Commercial Testing (PACT) C. Promotional Advertising Content Testing (PACT) D. Principles of Advertising Consumer Testing (PACT) 64. Which of the following is one of the nine principles of Positioning Advertising Copy Testing (PACT)? A. Provide measurements that are relevant to the objectives of the advertising. B. Realize that a single measurement is adequate to assess an ad's performance. C. Provide controls to avoid the biasing effects of the ad content. D. Use a convenience sample. 65. Which of the following is NOT a guideline for an effective testing of an ad? A. Use a consumer response model B. Establish communications objectives C. Use multiple measures D. Use mainly pretests

Chapter 09 Key 1. C 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. A 7. C 8. A 9. A 10. D 11. B 12. D 13. C 14. D 15. A 16. B 17. C 18. C 19. B 20. A 21. B 22. B 23. C 24. D 25. B 26. C 27. D 28. B 29. A 30. B 31. D 32. B 33. A 34. C 35. D 36. A

37. B 38. C 39. B 40. D 41. A 42. C 43. D 44. D 45. A 46. A 47. C 48. A 49. B 50. C 51. B 52. D 53. C 54. C 55. C 56. B 57. C 58. C 59. B 60. A 61. D 62. C 63. A 64. A 65. D

Chapter 09 Summary Category Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Belch - Chapter 09 Blooms: Analyze Blooms: Apply Blooms: Remember Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Difficult Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective: 09-01 Identify the reasons for measuring promotional program effectiveness. Learning Objective: 09-02 Describe the measures used in assessing promotional program effectiveness. Learning Objective: 09-03 Evaluate alternative methods for measuring promotional program effectiveness. Learning Objective: 09-04 Appraise the requirements of proper effectiveness research.

# of Questions 65 65 9 1 46 9 3 44 18 3 16 42 4

Chapter 10 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

The primary objective of ______ is to develop a framework that will deliver the message to the target audience in the most efficient, cost-effective manner possible. A. media planning B. market segmentation C. target marketing D. organizational planning

The media plan: A. includes product development B. requires the development of specific media objectives C. has five formalized stages that cannot be omitted from the process D. includes sales and marketing forecasts and potentials

The Globe & Mail, Maclean's, and The National Post are all examples of: A. media strategies B. distribution channels C. media vehicles D. communications decoders

According to Media Digest's research on Canadian media expenditures, the media type which earns the highest revenues is: A. Internet B. magazines C. television D. daily newspapers

Category need, brand awareness, brand attitude and brand trial are all examples of: A. media strategies B. media objectives C. communication strategies D. creative execution

If the advertiser selects media to allow immediate purchase of the brand, the media objective is most likely: A. category need B. brand attitude C. media optimization D. brand trial

_____ is the measure of the number of different audience members exposed at least once to a media vehicle. A. Frequency B. Reach C. Viewer number D. Exposure

_____ refers to the potential audience that might receive the message through a vehicle. A. Frequency B. Reach C. Exposure D. Coverage

_____ is the number of times a receiver is exposed to a message in a given time period. A. Potency B. Reach C. Coverage D. Frequency

10. Which of the following is NOT a part of the media plan? A. Media objectives B. Frequency estimates C. Marketing strategies D. Determination of media coverage 11. The _____ is the specific carrier within a media class. A. media vehicle B. medium C. television message D. media type 12. Media planning is not an easy task. Each of the following explains one of the difficulties inherent in the process EXCEPT: A. insufficient information on audience figures B. inconsistent terminology C. difficulty in measuring the effectiveness of a medium D. indifference of creative directors to the type of media chosen 13. The wide variety of media available to advertisers is called: A. multi-media B. the media mix C. the media profile D. the media strategy 14. Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting the choice of media used? A. Insufficient information on audience figures B. The characteristics of the product or service C. The behavioural objectives D. The size of the budget 15. Which of the following is NOT true about media planning? A. The media strategy being used may be the driving force behind the creative strategy B. The creative strategy being used may be the driving force behind the media strategy C. The characteristics of the product or service may dictate which media type would be most appropriate D. The choice of medium generally does not influence the consumer decision-making process 16. Each of the following is a media characteristic which may affect the achievement of specific communication objectives EXCEPT: A. target audience selectivity B. geographic coverage C. audience involvement D. audience reach 17. Each of the following is a media-usage characteristic which may affect the achievement of specific communication objectives EXCEPT: A. cost efficiency B. control for selective exposure C. amount of processing time D. creativity for emotional responses

18. Which of the following is a strength of television as a media choice? A. Target audience selectivity B. Creativity for cognitive responses C. Audience involvement D. Amount of processing time 19. Which of the following is a limitation of television as a media choice? A. Scheduling flexibility B. Frequency C. Cost efficiency D. Selective exposure 20. Which of the following is a strength of radio as a media choice? A. Absolute cost B. Amount of processing time C. Clutter D. Selective exposure 21. Which of the following is a limitation of radio as a media choice? A. Target audience selectivity B. Audience attention C. Media image D. Geographic coverage 22. Which of the following is a strength of magazines as a media choice? A. Frequency B. Reach C. Audience involvement D. Lack of processing time 23. Which of the following is a limitation of magazines as a media choice? A. Target audience selectivity B. Cost efficiency C. Creativity for cognitive responses D. Selective exposure 24. Which of the following is a strength of newspapers as a media choice? A. Target audience selectivity B. Creativity for cognitive responses C. Lack of clutter D. Creativity for emotional responses 25. Which of the following is a limitation of newspapers as a media choice? A. Selective exposure B. Target audience selectivity C. Absolute cost D. Amount of processing time 26. Which of the following is a strength of outdoor as a media choice? A. Target audience coverage B. Reach C. Audience involvement D. Amount of processing time 27. Which of the following is a limitation of outdoor as a media choice? A. Geographic coverage B. Cost efficiency C. Media image D. Frequency

28. Which of the following is a strength of transit as a media choice? A. Target audience selectivity B. Creativity for cognitive responses C. Scheduling flexibility D. Target audience coverage 29. Which of the following is a limitation of transit as a media choice? A. Cost efficiency B. Clutter C. Absolute cost D. Amount of processing time 30. Media buyers might choose to live with a relatively high degree of waste coverage because: A. it best supports a flighting media schedule B. the media employed are likely to be the most effective means of message delivery available C. it allows for more specific targeting D. repetition is the most effective method for pioneering advertising 31. Under what conditions are advertisers more likely to achieve full audience coverage with their media buy? A. When they are targeting a small number of customers or potential customers B. When the audience is fragmented C. In a high-involvement purchase situation D. When media coverage reaches people who are not potential buyers or current users 32. The situation in which media coverage exceeds the targeted audience is called: A. audience fragmentation B. underexposure C. waste coverage D. excess media expenditure 33. In calculating both the Brand Development Index (BDI) and the Category Development Index (CDI) a media planner obtains the following results: High BDI and Low CDI. What do these results imply? A. High market share and good market potential B. Low market share and good market potential C. High market share and monitor for sales decline D. Low market share and poor market potential 34. In calculating both the Brand Development Index (BDI) and the Category Development Index (CDI) a media planner obtains the following results: Low BDI and Low CDI. What do these results imply? A. High market share and good market potential B. Low market share and good market potential C. High market share and monitor for sales decline D. Low market share and poor market potential 35. In calculating both the Brand Development Index (BDI) and the Category Development Index (CDI) a media planner obtains the following results: Low BDI and High CDI. What do these results imply? A. High market share; good market potential B. Low market share; good market potential C. High market share; monitor for sales decline D. Low market share; poor market potential 36. Which of the following situations offers the advertiser the least attractive marketing opportunity? A. High BDI; high CDI B. High BDI; low CDI C. Low BDI; high CDI D. Low BDI; low CDI

37. Which of the following indices reflects a company with low market share in a given market? A. Low brand development index (BDI) B. High brand development index (BDI) C. Low category development index (CDI) D. High category development index (CDI) 38. In terms of advertising, scheduling constant advertising without variation is referred to as: A. flighting B. continuity C. geographical weighting D. circulation 39. Seasonal products such as Mother's Day cards and Valentine candy would best make use of which scheduling alternative? A. Weighted ratings B. Continuous C. Flighting D. Pulsing 40. My product is leather wallets, which are purchased at any time of the year, but more often at Christmas and on Father's day. Given a limited budget, which strategy would likely be the most effective if I wanted to try to stimulate trial and/or sales? A. Continuous B. Share C. Flighting D. Pulsing 41. A product that may be consumed throughout the year, but has seasonal periods where consumption is higher might best employ a(n) _____ scheduling method. A. continuous B. pulsing C. flighting D. oscillating 42. Which strategy would be most likely to be used by a marketer of dishwashing detergent? A. Continuous B. Share growth C. Flighting D. Pulsing 43. Which scheduling method would be inappropriate for the product named? A. Spring-blooming bulbs—continuous B. Soft drinks—pulsing C. Snow blower—flighting D. Accounting services—flighting 44. Chrysler would probably wish to pursue a _____ scheduling strategy, while Rossignol Skis would use a _____ schedule. A. continuous; pulsing B. flighting; pulsing C. pulsing; flighting D. continuous; continuous 45. For which of the following products is an advertiser most likely to use continuity scheduling? A. Swimming pool chemicals B. Tickets to a hockey game C. Laundry detergent D. Wood burning stoves

46. It is generally felt that consumers should get exposure to the message as close as possible to when they are going to make the purchase. On the basis of this idea, which would be the most effective scheduling method? A. Pulsing B. Continuous C. Behavioural D. Flighting 47. _____ is the employment of periods of advertising along with periods of non-advertising. A. Weighting B. Continuity C. Pulsing D. Flighting 48. For which of the following products is an advertiser most likely to use a flighting schedule? A. Cake mixes B. Shampoo C. Newspaper subscriptions D. Snow tires 49. When advertising scheduling involves constant advertising with heavier efforts being made at certain times, a(n) ______ schedule is being employed. A. intermittent B. pulsing C. flighting D. weighting 50. Recreation vehicles (RVs) advertise throughout the year but typically advertise more heavily June and in September. This pattern represents which scheduling method? A. Flighting B. Continuity C. Pulsing D. Oscillating 51. Disney World advertises itself as a vacation spot throughout the year, but it advertises more heavily during the summer months and during the Christmas season when most people are vacationing. This is an example of _____ scheduling. A. flighting B. geographical weighting C. continuity D. pulsing 52. Which of the following is NOT an advantage inherent in the flighting method of schedule advertising? A. Cost efficiency B. Extra strength during "on" periods C. Continuous target coverage D. Ability to include more than one advertising vehicle 53. Which of the following media strategies is suitable for a lesser-known product with a target audience concentrated in a small area in Canada? A. One that emphasizes frequency rather than reach B. One that emphasizes reach rather than frequency C. One that balances reach and frequency D. One that uses a high cost per thousand approach

54. New brands need a very high level of ______, since the objective is to make all potential buyers aware of the brand. A. reach B. frequency C. GRPs D. CPM 55. Given that a message is complex as far as comprehension is concerned, the strategy should be to maximize ______ at the expense of ______. A. Frequency; CPM B. Reach; frequency C. Reach; GRPs D. Frequency; reach 56. The _____ the brand share, the _____ the frequency level required. A. lower; higher B. higher; lower C. lower; lower D. higher; higher 57. A company has a limited promotional budget. The target market is highly concentrated and has already been shown to have high awareness and interest in the project. The goal of the promotional strategy should be to: A. maximize coverage B. maximize reach C. increase frequency D. sacrifice frequency for reach 58. A company with a substantial advertising budget with little or no awareness in the target market should: A. maximize frequency and sacrifice reach B. maximize reach C. maximize coverage D. sacrifice reach for continuity 59. Unduplicated reach is: A. average reach multiplied by average frequency B. duplicated reach plus total reach C. total market coverage less duplicated reach D. total reach less duplicated reach 60. To calculate gross ratings points (GRPs), you will need to: A. multiply reach times frequency B. divide reach times frequency by costs C. multiply CPM times average frequency D. divide average frequency by costs 61. ____ is a summary measure that combines reach and frequency. A. The Brand Development Index (BDI) B. The Category Development Index (CDI) C. Gross ratings points (GRPs) D. Target ratings points (TRPs) 62. The concept of _____ is based on the assumption that one exposure to an ad may not be enough to convey the desired method. A. average frequency B. average reach C. effective reach D. GRPs

63. No one knows the exact number of ______ necessary for an ad to make an impact, although advertisers have settled on ______ as the minimum. A. frequency; one B. reach; two C. GRPs; ten D. exposures; three 64. _____ is the number of times the target audience reached by a media vehicle is exposed to the vehicle over a specified period of time. A. Effective frequency B. Unduplicated reach C. Average reach D. Average frequency 65. To evaluate the ______ cost of print media, ______ is used. A. absolute; CPM B. relative; CPM C. absolute; CPRP D. relative; CPRP 66. CPM is an expression of ______ for various media vehicles. A. relative cost B. absolute cost C. compared reach D. mode 67. The estimated number of people who read the magazine without buying it is called: A. overexposure B. absolute cost C. pass-along rate D. unduplicated reach 68. Cost per thousand is a measure of the ______ of a particular media vehicle. A. reach B. absolute cost C. relative cost effectiveness D. frequency 69. The major problem with the use of cost per thousand figures is: A. determining pass-along rates B. determining time spent reading the magazine C. calculating cost estimates efficiently D. determining an efficient way to estimate the effects of sweep periods 70. If the circulation of the National Post is 400,000 readers, and the advertising cost per page is $50,000, the CPM is: A. $0.125 B. $125 C. $8 D. $0.008 71. The media planning process concludes with the ___, which summarizes many of the media strategy and media tactics decisions. A. marketing plan B. blocking chart C. advertising plan D. CPM

72. In the marginal analysis approach to media budgeting, all of the following should be considered EXCEPT: A. sales B. fixed costs of advertising C. advertising expenditures and other variable costs D. gross margin net worth 73. The S-shaped response function implies that: A. initial advertising expenditures will have little impact on sales B. sales effects will follow the microeconomic law of diminishing returns C. sales will immediately decrease then increase D. sales will immediately increase then decrease 74. The two models that are commonly used to explain the relationship between advertising and sales are the: A. concave-downward function and the S-shaped response function B. S-shaped response function and the concave-upward function C. marginal utility function and the S-shaped demand function D. S-shaped demand function and the convex-downward function 75. The _____ function is based on the microeconomics law of diminishing returns. A. concave-upward B. S-shaped demand C. concave-downward D. marginal utility 76. According to the S-shaped response curve,: A. the effects of advertising quickly begin to diminish B. the carryover effect is especially true for low-priced, frequently purchased consumer products C. initial outlays of the advertising budget have little impact on sales D. sales are not directly related to the size of the advertising budget 77. A marketing firm decides to purchase media time in an attempt to sell its new product. After purchasing approximately $1 million of time, it has noticed no impact on the sales of the product. However, at $3 million, a substantial increase is shown. This might best be explained by: A. arbitrary allocation B. the objective and task method C. competitive parity D. an S-shaped response 78. The S-shaped response curve suggests that: A. advertising effectiveness will not be related to spending B. very low spending levels will not work C. advertising effectiveness will vary according to spending levels D. sales and spending on advertising are not directly related 79. As a result of ___, large advertisers can maintain advertising shares that are smaller than their market shares because they get lower advertising rates and accrue the advantages of advertising several products jointly. A. economies of scale B. differential advertising advantages C. competitive parity D. a concave-downward response E. multiple advertising channels

80. When executives determine the budget amounts to be allocated for each department's advertising expenditures, a _____ approach is being used. A. bottom-up B. marginal contribution C. top-down D. contribution forecast 81. All of the following are considered top-down approaches to determining budgets EXCEPT: A. the objective and task method B. the affordable method C. the percentage of sales method D. arbitrary allocation 82. Which of the following is NOT a top-down approach to budget setting? A. The affordable method B. Payout planning C. Competitive parity D. Return on investment 83. The _____ method of budget setting consists of three steps: (1) defining the communication objectives, (2) determining the strategies and tasks to attain them, and (3) estimating the costs associated with performance of these strategies and tasks. A. arbitrary allocation B. percentage of sales C. objective and task D. return on investment 84. Which top-down budgeting method is being employed when expenditures are allocated by assigning a budget based on gut feelings? A. Arbitrary allocation B. Percentage of sales C. Affordable method D. Payout planning 85. The most commonly utilized method of budget determination by large firms is: A. competitive parity B. objective and task C. percentage of sales D. the affordable method 86. To set an advertising budget, Entree cologne first examines competitors' advertising to sales ratios published in trade magazines, and then allocates a percentage of sales dollars to the advertising effort. Which two budgeting methods are being employed? A. Competitive parity and percentage of sales B. Competitive parity and payout planning C. Payout planning and percentage of sales D. Percentage of sales and objective and task 87. Which of the following budgeting procedures would be used if a firm wanted a method that is simple to understand and financially safe? A. Competitive parity B. Marginal analysis C. Percentage of sales D. Objective and task

88. The _____ method is difficult to employ for a new company if no sales history is available, there is no basis of establishing the budget. A. objective and task B. affordable C. percentage of sales D. ROI 89. The major problem with the _____ budgeting method is a reversal of the cause and effect relationship. A. percentage of sales B. objective and task method C. competitive parity D. rapidly diminishing returns 90. The _____ method budgetary allocation method is designed to promote stability and minimize marketing warfare as well as taking advantage of the collective wisdom of the industry. A. percentage of sales B. arbitrary allocation C. objective and task D. competitive parity 91. According to the competitive parity budgeting method, the firm: A. matches the competition's percentage-of-sales expenditures B. spends as much as it can C. allocates some portion of planned sales for the period to advertising D. spends the same total amount as its major competitors spend 92. The _____ method of budgeting is being employed when expenditures are allocated according information gathered to determine industry averages for advertising. The budget is set to maintain a level consistent with industry spending. A. objective and task B. percentage of sales C. return on investment D. competitive parity 93. The _____ method of budgeting is being employed when expenditures are allocated after an experienced marketing department manager responds to a new employee's question, "How was the ad budget established in years past?" by saying, "The same way it's always been done. I just have an instinct for how much should be budgeted where." A. arbitrary allocation B. percentage of sales C. ROI D. competitive parity 94. The _____ method of budgeting is being employed when expenditures are allocated by looking at the revenue generated from sales of the product during one year. The information gathered from this examination is used to determine the next year's dollar amounts. A. arbitrary allocation B. percentage of sales C. payout planning D. return on investment 95. In which of the following methods of budget determination is advertising considered an investment, similar to plant and equipment? A. Payout planning B. Objective and task C. ROI D. Percentage of sales

96. Top-down budgeting methods are commonly used because of: A. Their effectiveness B. Upper management's desire for control C. Their quantitative nature D. The ease with which a manager can assess the impact of sales on ROI 97. Defining the communications objectives to be accomplished and estimating the costs associated with the performance of determined strategies and tasks are steps in the _____ method of budgeting. A. competitive parity B. payout planning C. objective and task D. return on investment 98. The major advantage of the ______ method is that the budget is derived by the objectives to be attained. A. ROI B. competitive parity C. objective and task D. percentage of sales 99. All of the following are components of the objective and task method EXCEPT: A. a re-evaluation of objectives B. determination of competitor's expenditures C. monitoring D. estimation of required expenditures 100._____ is a method for allocating budgets designed to determine the investment value of the advertising appropriation. A. Payout planning B. Percent of sales method C. Objective and task D. Arbitrary allocation 101.Which of the following statements provides a good rule of thumb for setting the advertising budget for a new product? A. Its advertising budget should be double that needed to maintain the desired market share. B. Its advertising budget should be equal to that of the largest shareholder in the market. C. Its advertising budget should be as much as the firm can afford. D. Its advertising budget should be 10 percent greater than the average budget planned for the entire payout period. 102.The objective and task method is most difficult to utilize when: A. the product to be promoted is intangible and in the maturity stage of its product life cycle B. a service is being promoted C. the product to be promoted is a cash cow D. the product to be promoted is new to the market 103.In a review of the literature on how allocation decisions are made between advertising and sales promotion, it was concluded that _____ factors play an important role in determining how communication dollars are spent. A. organizational B. economic C. psychological D. political

104.As a result of economies of scale, smaller advertisers: A. are likely to enjoy more favourable advertising time and space than large advertisers B. have declining average costs of product C. get higher advertising rates than large advertisers D. can maintain advertising shares that are smaller than their market shares

Chapter 10 Key 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. D 7. B 8. D 9. D 10. C 11. A 12. D 13. B 14. A 15. D 16. C 17. A 18. B 19. D 20. A 21. B 22. C 23. B 24. B 25. A 26. B 27. C 28. B 29. B 30. B 31. A 32. B 33. C 34. D 35. B 36. D

37. A 38. B 39. C 40. D 41. B 42. A 43. A 44. C 45. C 46. B 47. D 48. D 49. B 50. C 51. D 52. C 53. A 54. A 55. D 56. B 57. C 58. B 59. D 60. A 61. C 62. C 63. D 64. D 65. B 66. A 67. C 68. C 69. A 70. B 71. B 72. D 73. A 74. A

75. C 76. D 77. D 78. C 79. A 80. C 81. A 82. B 83. C 84. A 85. C 86. A 87. C 88. C 89. A 90. D 91. A 92. D 93. A 94. B 95. C 96. B 97. C 98. C 99. B 100. A 101. A 102. D 103. A 104. C

Chapter 10 Summary Category Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Belch - Chapter 10 Blooms: Analyze Blooms: Apply Blooms: Remember Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Difficult Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective: 10-01 Illustrate how a media plan is developed. Learning Objective: 10-02 Explain the process and identify the decisions for implementing media strategies. Learning Objective: 10-03 Explain the process and identify the decisions for implementing media tactics. Learning Objective: 10-04 Distinguish among the theoretical and managerial approaches for media budget setting. Learning Objective: 1005 Apply the methods for allocating the media budget to relevant IMC tools and market situations.

# of Questions 104 104 14 11 50 29 3 57 44 12 52 7 31 2

Chapter 11 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

When a national advertiser runs a commercial on a prime time program that is seen all over the country, _____ advertising is being used. A. network B. affiliate C. aggregated D. spot

CFTO in Toronto and CFCF in Montreal show CTV programming. These local television stations that are associated with national television networks are known as: A. satellite networks B. local nets C. affiliates D. regional networks

A network assembles a series of ______ local TV stations, to which it supplies programming and services. A. remote B. affiliated C. hostile D. successful

The buying period for television advertising time that runs throughout the television season is known as the _____ market. A. up-front B. continual C. scatter D. local

All non-network television advertising done by a national advertiser is known as _____ advertising. A. up-front B. spot C. local D. regional

_____ is the term used for local television station commercials in which various individual stations negotiate directly with the advertisers. A. Network advertising B. Spot advertising C. Regional advertising D. Syndication

Which of the following is NOT a reason why national advertisers might use spot television advertising? A. concentrate advertising in areas where market potential is the greatest B. concentrate advertising in areas where more ad support is needed C. offer support and cooperative advertising to local dealers and retailers D. advertise a product with wide-spread distribution

_____ are individuals who act as salespersons for a number of local stations and represent them in their dealings with national advertisers. A. Station managers B. Affiliates C. Negotiators D. Station reps

Which of the following statements about spot advertising is true? A. Spot advertising offers flexibility in adjusting to local market conditions. B. Spot advertising is confined to station breaks between programs on network originated shows. C. Spot advertising is subject to less clutter than network advertising. D. Only local advertisers use spot advertising.

10. Most national advertisers: A. use only network advertising B. prefer spot advertising because of lower rates, less clutter, and more flexibility C. use both network and spot advertising and try to effectively combine the two D. do not need to concern themselves with spot advertising 11. In the early days of television, the production and content of most television programs was the responsibility of: A. the networks B. the local affiliate C. corporations who sponsored the shows D. independent production companies 12. With ____, advertisers assume responsibility for the production and usually the content of the program as well as the advertising that appears within it. A. sponsorships B. adjacencies C. syndications D. countertrades 13. Companies prefer sponsorship arrangements for buying advertising time because sponsorship: A. allows companies to capitalize on the prestige of a high-quality program B. is relatively inexpensive C. means the advertiser can run more commercials per hour since time regulations do not apply D. broadens advertising reach, saves money, and reaches a more aggregated market when compared to buying national spots 14. The reason for a company using ______ is that the company has control over the number, placement, and content of its commercials. A. participation B. sponsorship C. syndication D. countertrade 15. The traditional approach to sponsorship, with corporations being responsible for developing program content, has been updated, under the name: A. branded production B. advertiser ownership C. original content D. branded entertainment 16. This kind of branded content programming is moving toward: A. multi-brand participation B. executive sponsorship C. syndication D. the Internet

17. One of the biggest threats to the cable television industry in the 1990s was: A. competition from direct broadcast satellite (DBS) services B. the creation of consortiums of advertisers for the purpose of improving network television C. the exponential growth of the use of PVRs D. CRTC rulings on lengths and commercial placements 18. The pendulum that took viewers away from cable services to satellite broadcasts swung back the other way with _________, allowing consumers access to similar extensive channel choices. A. public broadcasters B. advertising consortiums C. digital cable D. CRTC guidelines around competition between telco providers 19. The proliferation of specialty channels has influenced the nature of TV as an advertising medium. Expanded viewing options have led to considerable audience ______. A. hostility B. fragmentation C. happiness D. confusion 20. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of advertising on specialty networks? A. no large up-front commitment is necessary B. lower overall advertising rates C. consumer popularity enhances viewership numbers D. mass appeal of specialty programming fits shotgun approach to reach objectives 21. While most network commercials are 30- or 15-second spots, direct-response advertisers often use these longer ads to describe their products and encourage viewers to order: A. late-night spot ads B. B-to-C specialty ads C. interstitials D. infomercials 22. _____ are the various time periods or segments into which a broadcast day is divided. A. Adjacencies B. Dayparts C. Spots D. Viewing hours 23. Morning, daytime, prime time, and late fringe are all examples of: A. television dayparts B. radio dayparts C. run-of-station spots D. spot times 24. Programs such as "The Tonight Show starring Jimmy Fallon" and "Jimmy Kimmel Live" are aired during the _____ daypart. A. prime-time access B. prime-time C. late fringe D. evening 25. Which television daypart has the highest rates? A. morning B. prime-time C. late news D. late fringe

26. The television daypart that attracts the largest viewing audience is: A. daytime B. prime-time C. late news D. prime-time access 27. Since firms that advertise during prime time must pay premium rates, this daypart tends to be dominated by: A. large national advertisers B. government sponsored causes C. late news and other network promotions D. spot advertising purchased at the last minute 28. Daytime TV generally attracts: A. children B. women C. young adults D. empty nesters 29. In Canada, television audiences are measured by: A. CCAB and ABC B. BBC Canada and Reuters C. BBM Canada D. CCAB and Reuters 30. A device worn by individuals that records a silent signal emitted from programming is called a(n): A. electronic diary B. media exposure device C. portable people meter D. prime-time access device 31. _____ is defined as one percent of all the television households in a particular area tuned to a specific program. A. Share of audience B. Household using television (HUT) C. A program rating D. A ratings point 32. The amount of money that a station can charge for commercial time is based on: A. daytime viewership B. prime-time viewership C. program ratings D. pre-negotiated purchases 33. Which of the following statements about program ratings and share of audience measures is true? A. Program ratings are always higher than share of audience. B. Program ratings and share of audience are usually the same. C. Share of audience is always higher than the program rating unless all of the households in a market have their set in use. DUnlike share of audience measures, program ratings consider variation in the number of sets in use . since they are based only on those households that have their sets in use.

34. There are approximately 6 million television households in Canada. During a "Hockey Night in Canada" broadcast, 50 percent of the households had their television sets turned on and 1 million were watching the Montreal Canadiens versus the Toronto Maple Leafs hockey game on CBC. The share of audience for the game would be: A. 23 B. 33 C. 43 D. cannot be determined from information given 35. The _____ is an electronic device used in television audience measurement to record what program is being watched and by whom. A. people meter B. audimeter C. CATV D. video monitor 36. Advertisers who want the ability to demonstrate how their product operates and actually show its uses are likely to choose: A. radio B. television C. direct mail D. magazines 37. Television is a popular advertising medium among companies selling products and services that are consumed by mass markets because it: A. has such a low absolute cost B. is very easy to develop creative television advertising C. has a high level of geographic selectivity D. has the ability to reach large audiences in a relatively cost efficient manner 38. A toy company runs commercials for its products on the Sponge Bob Square Pants show on Saturday mornings because Saturday morning TV caters to kids. This is an example of how _____ is possible through television. A. geographic diversity B. selectivity C. product exclusivity D. creativity 39. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of television as an advertising medium? A. the creative options available B. its mass coverage and cost effectiveness for reaching large markets C. the intrusive nature of television, which imposes advertising on viewers while watching their favourite programs D. its processing time 40. Television can offer advertisers selective coverage of target audiences through: A. program content with broad audience appeal B. broadcast time periods that reach specific types of audiences C. national networks which reach groups with general interests D. volume buying 41. Saturday morning television programming consists largely of cartoons that are watched by children, while sports programming that is watched mostly by young men is prevalent on Saturday and Sunday afternoons. These are examples of ways television offers: A. geographic selectivity B. market penetration C. ways of breaking through advertising clutter D. scheduling flexibility

42. Which of the following is NOT a limitation associated with the use of television as an advertising medium? A. high costs for airtime B. high costs for production of quality commercials C. unlimited creative options for developing and presenting advertising messages D. commercial clutter 43. Which of the following factors make it difficult for companies with small advertising budgets to use television as part of their media mix? A. the fact that television programs do not reach their target markets B. the fact that small ad agencies generally do not know how to produce TV commercials C. the high costs of producing and airing television commercials D. the limited creative options available through television 44. Because most TV commercials last only 30 seconds or less and leave nothing tangible for the viewer to consider, the amount of ______ time must be considered. A. processing B. emotive C. creative D. selective 45. Which of the following statements about the length of television commercials is true? A. Commercials have become longer as the demand for broadcast time has dwindled. B. Commercial length is increasing and 60-second spots will become dominant by the end of the decade. C. Commercials became shorter because advertisers turned to shorter spots as a way of controlling their media costs. D. Fifteen-second commercials account for over half of the ads seen on network television. 46. Which of the following statements about commercial length is true? A. Fifteen-second spots are the most common commercial lengths. B. Spiralling media costs have resulted in advertisers preferring shorter commercials. C. Most advertisers believe that shorter commercials cannot deliver a message as effectively as longer commercials. D. Fifteen-second spots typically sell for about the same amount as 30-second spots. 47. A study by Forrester Research suggests that TV watchers watch ___ percent of their viewing from prerecorded programming and skip about ____ percent of the ads. A. 10; 50 B. 40; 50 C. 50; 50 D. 60; 90 48. While watching "Entertainment Tonight," Bruce became frustrated by all the commercials and promotions for the 11:00 news and upcoming programs. This is an example of the problem created by: A. the limited viewer attention for commercials B. message source alienation C. the fleeting nature of television commercials D. clutter 49. _____ refers to the practice of fast-forwarding through commercials on prerecorded programs, while _____ refers to channel changing to avoid commercials. A. Zipping; zapping B. Zapping; zooming C. Zipping; time shifting D. Time shifting; zipping

50. Tom likes to watch WWE wrestling on TSN and the police car chase videos on Fox. Both shows are on Friday night at the same time. When commercials start on one of the shows, he immediately switches to the other. Tom is engaged in: A. time shifting B. zooming C. zapping D. zipping 51. Tom prerecords "CSI" which is shown on Wednesday nights on CTV, so he can fast forward through the commercials. Tom engages in: A. time shifting B. zooming C. zipping D. zapping 52. Research has shown that the demographic group that engages in the highest level of commercial zapping is: A. older adults B. preteens C. young adult females D. young adult males 53. Advertisers can inhibit consumers' zapping commercials by: A. lobbying to have remote control devices banned B. producing creative commercials that are meaningful to consumers and that attract and hold their attention C. devising shorter commercial formats D. advertising more on cable television 54. A tactic used by TV networks to hold viewers' attention and inhibit zapping is to: A. increase the number of commercials during a break B. shorten the commercial breaks C. show previews of the next week's program D. change the standard commercial format to 10-seconds 55. The pervasiveness and intrusive nature of ____ as an advertising medium contributes to the high level of distrust consumers have for the ads that appear in it. A. radio B. television C. newspapers D. direct response 56. Studies show that distrust is generally the highest for which of the following types of advertising? A. personal selling B. newspapers C. television D. magazines 57. TV viewing is thriving for several reasons EXCEPT: A. current TV shows are very good, as evidenced by how many people want to watch them online. B. watching sports on TV is better than watching it live because you have the added benefit of TV announcers calling the plays. C. people have no awareness of TV shows until they are on TV first. D. online content is not even in the same league as first-run TV content.

58. Radio survived as an advertising medium by: A. competing directly with television B. evolving into a national advertising medium C. evolving into a primarily local advertising medium D. charging higher rates than television 59. Each of the following is a benefit of buying network radio time EXCEPT: A. it reduces advertisers' flexibility in selecting stations B. minimized negotiation and administration work required C. lower costs D. opportunities for national and regional coverage 60. The largest radio audiences occur during which of the following times? A. early morning and late afternoon drive times B. early morning and late evening C. daytime and evening drive time D. evenings when people are at home 61. Advertising rates on radio are negotiable, according to each of the following factors EXCEPT: A. competitive television rates B. number of spots purchased C. availability D. level of audience selectivity required 62. The _____ is the average number of people estimated to have listened to a radio station for a minimum of five minutes during any quarter-hour in a time period expressed as a percentage of the survey area population. A. average quarter-hour figure B. cumulative audience C. average quarter-hour rating D. relative quarter hour share 63. BBM Canada provides information on radio listenership using a _____ method. A. people meter B. people meter method and a diary C. computer D. telephone feedback 64. ______ are less likely to be heavy users local radio advertising. A. Grocery manufacturers B. Auto dealers C. Local retailers D. Restaurants E. Financial institutions 65. Which of the following is NOT a distinctive benefit of the new portable people meter used by the Bureau of Broadcast Measurement of Canada? A. the person does not interact with the device while measurement occurs B. individual level of measurement C. measures exposure to recorded programming from any technology D. household level of measurement 66. According to BBM Canada, what is the main type of activity people are usually involved in while listening to radio? A. commuting to work/school B. shopping/running errands C. relaxing at home D. at work

67. Compared to television, radio has: A. less segmentation opportunities B. longer buyer lead times for preparing and placing ads C. greater reach and lower frequency opportunities with individual stations D. more of a local flavour 68. Which of the following statements about radio as an advertising medium is NOT true? A. Radio is characterized by highly specialized programming that generally appeals to narrow segments of the population. B. Radio has evolved into primarily a local advertising medium. C. A radio commercial is ideal for long copy when detailed information is called for. D. Radio is a high cost medium relative to TV. 69. The relatively low cost of radio advertising time makes it an effective medium through which advertisers can build more _____ into their media schedules. A. creativity B. reach and frequency C. inherent drama D. audience selectivity 70. Radio offers high levels of audience selectivity because of: A. the wide variety of program formats offered by different stations. B. the broadcast overlap of local radio stations. C. the transmission capability of the various stations. D. image transfer capabilities. 71. Radio is a very effective medium for reaching all of the following EXCEPT: A. teenagers and university students B. non-English-speaking ethnic groups C. infrequent television viewers D. frequent readers of magazines and newspapers 72. An advertiser has a limited budget and wants to reach a well-defined target audience in a local market area. Which of the following would you recommend? A. network television B. network radio C. superstations D. local radio 73. When the images of a television commercial are implanted into a radio spot this is known as: A. positioning B. image transfer C. visualization D. narrowcasting 74. Why do advertisers use the image transfer process in radio advertising? A. to take advantage of vivid musical messages to create images in the mind of radio listeners B. to make radio and TV commercials work together C. to transfer the image created by a radio commercial to the point-of purchase D. to create brand loyalty through the use of multi-sensory imaging 75. _____ is just as much a problem with radio as with other advertising media, because radio stations can play as many minutes of advertising as they like. A. Clutter B. Cost C. Flexibility D. Geographic selectivity

76. Which of the following does NOT limit radio's effectiveness as an advertising medium? A. limited research data on listening audiences B. difficulty in retaining listener attention to commercials C. creative limitations because of the absence of a visual image D. flexibility in producing and scheduling commercials 77. The heaviest users of radio as an advertising medium are: A. national service providers B. local advertisers C. national retail chains D. tobacco and alcohol advertisers

Chapter 11 Key 1. A 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. B 6. B 7. D 8. D 9. A 10. C 11. C 12. A 13. A 14. B 15. D 16. D 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. D 21. D 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. B 26. B 27. A 28. B 29. C 30. C 31. D 32. C 33. C 34. B 35. A 36. B

37. D 38. B 39. D 40. B 41. D 42. C 43. C 44. A 45. C 46. B 47. D 48. D 49. A 50. C 51. C 52. D 53. B 54. C 55. B 56. C 57. B 58. C 59. A 60. A 61. A 62. C 63. B 64. A 65. D 66. A 67. D 68. D 69. B 70. A 71. D 72. D 73. B 74. B

75. A 76. D 77. B

Chapter 11 Summary Category # of Questions Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 77 Belch - Chapter 11 77 Blooms: Analyze 12 Blooms: Apply 2 Blooms: Remember 50 Blooms: Understand 13 Difficulty: Difficult 6 Difficulty: Easy 41 Difficulty: Moderate 30 Learning Objective: 1135 01 Describe different types of television advertising; specialty television advertising; alternative time periods and program format; and measurement of television audiences. Learning Objective: 11-02 Summarize the strengths and limitations of television as an advertising medium. 22 Learning Objective: 119 03 Describe different types of radio advertising; alternative time periods and program format; and measurement of radio audiences. Learning Objective: 11-04 Summarize the strengths and limitations of radio as an advertising medium. 11

Chapter 12 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

Which of the following statements about newspapers and magazines as advertising media vehicles is TRUE? A. Newspapers are exclusively a local advertising medium. B. Newspapers are primarily a local advertising medium but are also used by national advertisers. C. Magazines are primarily a local advertising medium. D. Because of the difference in media format, there is no competition between broadcast and print media.

New Balance's marketing research has shown that there are a large number of serious runners living in the western region of Canada. These individuals would be willing to pay over $100 for a pair of running shoes. To reach this market the best media option would probably be: A. regional editions of general interest magazines such as Time or Maclean's B. the sports section of national newspapers such as The Globe & Mail C. regional editions of general sports magazines such as Sports Illustrated D. regional editions of specialty magazines such as Runner's World

Because they generally require some attention and effort on the part of the consumer to process the information they provide, _____ are often referred to as high-involvement media. A. newspapers and magazines B. newspapers and television C. magazines and radio D. radio and television

Which of the following statements about the role of magazines is true? A. The advantages and disadvantages associated with the use of magazines as an advertising media vehicle are the same. B Individual magazines reach a very selective audience and are very valuable for reaching specific types . of consumers or market segments. C. Magazines generate most of their total revenue from advertising. D Business magazines generate most of their revenue from subscriptions and single copy sales and are . not really dependent on advertising.

According to Canadian Advertising Rates and Data, magazines can be classified as _____ publications. A. consumer, ethnic, farm, and business B. regional, ethnic, national, and international C. agrarian, ethnic, industrial, and specialized D. general, ethnic, specialized, and niche

_______ are the most specialized of all advertising media. A. Magazines B. Radio C. TV D. Newspapers

A magazine can be categorized by each of the following EXCEPT: A. the fact that it is only available by subscription B. the fact that it is a monthly publication C. its geographic coverage D. the advertisers who place ads in the publication

Healthy Pet and PhotoLife are examples of: A. general interest consumer magazines B. special interest consumer magazines C. trade publications D. special interest business magazines

A magazine such as Farm Journal is an example of a _____ while a publications such as National Hog Farmer is a: A. general interest farm publication; specialized farm publication B. specialized farm publication; trade magazine C. general interest farm publication; special interest consumer magazine D. general interest business magazine; general interest farm publication

10. Why are farm publications not classified with business publications? A. Historically farms have not been perceived as businesses. B. The number of farm magazines, if added to the number of business magazines, would make the category too large. C. Farm magazines are a hybrid of consumer and business magazines. D Canadian laws require the breakout of farm magazines because subscriptions to these magazines help . to determine farm allowances. 11. Which of the following is an example of a trade journal? A. Maxim B. Maclean's C. Chatelaine D. Canadian Grocer 12. Floral Management is a publication aimed at providing information to retail florists so they manage their stores more efficiently and more profitably. It is an example of a(n) _____ publication. A. general business B. trade C. professional D. industrial 13. Process Equipment and Control News is an example of a(n) _____ publication. A. general business B. trade C. professional D. industrial 14. What is the most prevalent advertising product category in consumer magazines? A. Business & consumer services B. Retail stores C. Toiletries & toilet goods D. Automotive 15. Based on the circulation figures of 2012-13, what is the major U.S. based magazine in Canada? A. National Geographic B. Martha Stewart Living C. O, The Oprah Magazine D. Men's Health 16. Which of the following would Canadian Advertising Rates and Data (CARD) classify as a general business magazine? A. Canadian Business B. Drug Store News C. Restaurant News D. Architectural Digest

17. Why do advertising rates in ethnic magazines tend to be lower than in general interest publications? A. The majority of them are written in English. B. There tend to be only four to seven publications in some of the non-dominant languages. C. They tend to have low or unauthenticated circulation figures. D. National advertisers do not tend to market to ethnic minorities. 18. Which of the following about advertising in foreign publications is NOT true? A. Canadian businesses are not allowed to advertise in foreign magazines sold in Canada. B. Foreign publications can accept up to 18% of their advertising space from Canadian advertisers for magazines sold in Canada. C. Foreign publications can accept a greater amount of Canadian advertising if the majority of editorial content is Canadian. D. About 90% of foreign publications sold in Canada are U.S. based. 19. The _____ study not only asks questions about reading-related questions but also demographic, lifestyle, and product usage questions amongst others. A. PMB B. CCAB C. AAM D. BPA 20. Only publications with ___ percent or more paid circulation are eligible for verification audits. A. 35 B. 50 C. 70 D. 100 21. A magazine's _______ is one of the primary considerations for an advertiser selecting a particular magazine for advertising. A. clutter B. circulation C. price at the newsstand D. lead time 22. Many business magazines are sent free to individuals a publisher feels are appropriate members of a target audience and can influence purchases for products and services advertised in the publication. This is known as: A. primary circulation B. guaranteed circulation C. free circulation D. controlled circulation 23. Most major publications are audited by ______. A. Alliance for Audited Media B. Business Publications Audit C. Standard Rate and Data Service D. Audit Bureau of Circulations 24. ______ provides media planners with reliable figures about the size and distribution of a magazine's circulation that helps the planners evaluate its worth as a media vehicle. A. The Canadian Circulations Audit Board B. Standard Rate and Data Service C. A circulation verification service D. Mediamark Research, Inc.

25. Information on the characteristics of magazine audiences in Canada is primarily provided by: A. Print Measurement Bureau (PMB) B. A. C. Neilson C. the magazines themselves D. SRDS's Business Publication Advertising Source 26. The primary research method of the PMB is: A. in-home interviews B. on-line surveys C. telephone surveys D. focus-groups 27. _____ describes a situation where a primary subscriber or purchaser of a magazine gives it to another person to read or where a magazine is read in public places. A. Primary readership B. Guaranteed readership C. Pass-along readership D. Total readership 28. Which of the following comparisons of primary in-home readers of a magazine and pass-along readers is true? A. Advertisers generally attach greater value to primary in-home readers. B. Advertisers generally attach greater value to pass-along readers. C. Pass-along readers should be totally discounted in evaluating magazine readership. D. Pass-along readers generally spend more time with a magazine and pick it up more often than do primary readers. 29. A magazine with a circulation of 2.5 million and 3 readers per copy would have a total audience or readership of _____ million. A. 2.5 B. 4.5 C. 5.5 D. 7.5 30. The cost of advertising space in magazines is primarily a function of: A. the size of the advertisement B. the ad's position in the magazine C. the frequency of ad insertions D. the circulation of the publication 31. Which of the following would NOT affect the cost of advertising in a consumer magazine? A. the size of the advertisement B. the number of ads in the magazine C. the circulation of the magazine D. special production requirements 32. Which of the following statements about the use of colour in magazine advertising is true? A. Black and white ads are generally considered superior to colour in terms of recall, awareness, and retention. B. Advertisers prefer using black and white because of the greater visual impact it makes. C. Research has shown that colour ads are superior to black and white ads in terms of attracting and holding attention. D. Bleed pages are less expensive than colour pages with margins because less fine-tuning is required with bleed pages.

33. All of the following may result in additional costs for a magazine advertisement EXCEPT: A. four-colour illustrations B. bleed pages C. large volume purchases of advertising space in the same magazine D. gatefolds 34. Magazines such as Martha Stewart Living, O The Oprah Magazine, and Men's Journal are succeeding because: A. the magazines have very large circulation bases B. the publications have large editorial staffs C. the magazines appeal to the conspicuous consumption lifestyle of today's consumers D. the magazines have editorial platforms that appeal to the interests, lifestyles, and demographics of the consumer 35. Selectivity, reproduction quality, creative flexibility, and prestige are all potential advantages of which advertising medium? A. Place-based media B. Magazines C. Local radio D. Billboards 36. A company that manufactures ski boots might prefer to advertise in specialized publications such as Ski or Skiing rather than general interest magazines and sports magazines such as Sports Illustrated because of: A. the broader reach of the specialized publications B. the greater audience selectivity of the specialized publications C. fewer ads and less clutter in the specialized publications D. the creative flexibility available in specialized magazines and not available in more general-interest publications 37. One of the primary advantages of using magazines as an advertising medium is their: A. selectivity B. low clutter level C. limited reach and frequency D. low absolute costs 38. The fact that most magazines are published for special-interest groups gives them a high degree of: A. permanence B. flexibility C. selectivity D. reach 39. ______ in reaching specific target audiences is available in magazines on the basis of demographics, geographic area, lifestyle and interests. A. Selectivity B. Flexibility C. Credibility D. Ad rates 40. Canadian Living and Chatelaine are magazines that offer advertisers _____ selectivity. A. demographic B. geographic C. lifestyle D. behavioural

41. Advertisers who want to achieve geographic selectivity in their magazine media schedule can do so by advertising in: A. magazines like Toronto Life and Vancouver Magazine B. special-interest farm publications C. trade publications D. international editions of magazines only 42. Marketers can achieve geographic selectivity in magazine advertising by advertising in: A. general-interest business publications B. national editions of major magazines that cover the entire country C. magazines that are edited for and targeted toward particular regions, cities, or areas D. magazines that are targeted at people who enjoy gardening 43. Which of the following does NOT contribute to the reproduction quality of magazine advertising? A. The high quality of the paper stock used in magazines B. Printing processes that provide excellent reproduction of black and white pictures C. Prevalent use of colour in magazine ads D. Creativity developed to evoke an emotional response 44. The use of a third page that folds out to create an extra large advertising spread in a magazine is called a: A. premium size ad B. printacular C. gatefold D. page manipulator 45. Magazine advertisements that extend to the end of the page rather than leaving a margin around the ad are called: A. gatefolds B. bleed pages C. maximum coverage ads D. overruns 46. An ad for PEI potatoes is a close-up view of a baked potato covered in sour cream swirls and bacon bits. The swirls extend to the very edge of the page. This ad is an example of a(n): A. gatefold B. bleed page C. maximum coverage ad D. total page ad 47. Gatefolds, bleed pages, inserts, and creative space buys are ways of increasing: A. the cost efficiency of magazines B. the geographic flexibility of magazines C. the selectivity of magazines D. the creativity of magazine ads and their ability to attract readers' attention 48. Magazine publishers attempt to control the _____ problem by maintaining a reasonable balance of editorial pages to advertising. A. quality B. colour C. creativity D. clutter

49. Elena Tomassi is an avid skier and likes to take a weeklong ski vacation every winter. To help plan her vacation, she keeps all of the past issues of Skiing magazine she has received so she can consult them as she makes her selection of a ski resort. Elena's use of the magazines in this way demonstrates which advantage of magazines as an advertising medium? A. Geographic selectivity B. Services C. Permanence D. Prestige 50. The Hathaway Shirt Company uses most of its media budget to advertise in publications such as Elm Street and Esquire magazines. The company feels that these magazines are very well respected and provide a favourable environment that helps enhance the image of its products. This example demonstrates which advantage of magazines as an advertising medium? A. Geographic selectivity B. Creative flexibility C. Prestige D. Permanence 51. The advertising manager for a fashionable, upscale women's clothing line is concerned over an ad agency recommendation to run ads for the brand in People magazine. She feels the editorial environment of the magazine may not be appropriate to the high fashion and trendy positioning strategy being used for the brand. This reflects concern over what specific aspect of magazine advertising? A. Permanence B. Creative options C. Prestige D. Reproduction quality 52. _____ ads are likely to be received favourably by consumers. A. Radio B. TV C. Billboard D. Magazine 53. Which of the following is a disadvantage inherent in advertising in magazines? A. Low publication prestige B. Long lead time C. Poor reproduction quality D. Lack of demographic selectivity 54. Which of the following is a disadvantage associated with advertising in magazines? A. Lack of permanence B. Lack of prestige C. Lack of consumer receptivity to ads D. Limited reach and frequency 55. Advertisers who are seeking broad reach and frequency in their media schedules: A. find magazines very effective since individual publications reach a very broad target audience B. will find broad reach and frequency an easy goal to accomplish with magazines C. must purchase space in a number of different magazines since most publications have thin penetration of households D. need to advertise repeatedly in the same magazine

56. Which of the following statements about the reach and frequency of consumer magazines is true? A. Popular consumer magazines have broad reach and frequency. B While a high percentage of adults in Canada read one or more magazines, the percentage reading any . individual publication is quite low. C. Using multiple ads in the same issue of a magazine is a viable way of increasing the reach of the publication. D Advertisers seeking broad reach through the use of magazines cannot accomplish this goal by making . media buys in a number of different publications. 57. A company hired a celebrity to be a spokesperson for the company and developed a print advertising campaign featuring the celebrity. In the interim, it was discovered that the celebrity was involved in embarrassing behaviour. The company immediately dismissed him as a spokesperson. However, this spokesperson could cause serious embarrassment to the company if the organization had already negotiated with several magazines to run these ads. Which characteristic of magazines would be the major source of the problem? A. Long lead time B. Lack of publication permanence C. Loss of publication prestige D. Clutter 58. The high ratio of advertising to editorial content in most magazines causes magazines to have a problem with: A. clutter B. loss of publication prestige C. long lead times D. high costs 59. The flipside of magazine selectivity is: A. scheduling flexibility B. extensive coverage C. narrow coverage D. cost efficiency 60. Which of the following statements about clutter in magazine advertising is true? A. Clutter is not really a problem at all in magazine advertising. B. Most magazines devote less than 30% of their pages to advertising so clutter is not really a problem. C. The clutter problem for a magazine increases as they become more successful since they attract more ad pages. D. Clutter is a more serious issue for magazines than it is for either television or radio. 61. Clutter is viewed as less of a problem for magazines than radio or television because: A. consumers tend to be less receptive to print advertising than they are to broadcast advertising B. consumers have been trained to expect more ad messages than they can decode C. exposure to magazine ads is easier to control as the consumer can simply turn a page if uninterested in an ad D. print ads are always more creative and interesting than television ads 62. _____ newspapers originate in small towns or suburbs and usually focus on news, sports, and events relevant to a local area or community. A. Daily B. Community C. Special-audience D. Regional 63. The Globe & Mail and The National Post are examples of _____ newspapers. A. weekly B. national C. regional D. weekday

64. Linn's Stamp News is a newspaper written specifically for stamp collectors and published monthly. It does not contain any information that would not be of interest to people who collect stamps. It is an example of a: A. trade newspaper B. special-audience newspaper C. demographically-oriented newspaper D. newspaper supplement 65. Which of the following would be an example of special-audience newspaper? A. The Halifax Herald B. The Sunday Sun C. The Calgary Herald D. The newspaper published by a college 66. The Globe and Mail publishes Report on Business magazine monthly, and it is included with the newspaper. This magazine is called a: A. special audience newspaper B. community newspaper C. newspaper supplement D. national newspaper 67. _____ advertising is a category of advertising that is found throughout a newspaper and generally uses illustrations, headlines, white space, and other visual devices in addition to the copy text. A. Display B. Classified C. Branded D. Supplement 68. Which of the following does NOT describe preprinted newspaper inserts? A. They are printed by the advertiser and sent to the newspaper for insertion before delivery. B. They can be used in specific circulation zones to reach shoppers in particular trade areas. C. They must comply with certain printing specs like size and page numbers for efficient insertion. D. Promotional inserts can be used to provide information and/or drive readers to online sources. 69. The ____ is a market outside of a city whose residents regularly do business within the city. A. city zone B. retail trading zone C. designated market area D. MSA 70. The _____ is a market area composed of a city where the paper is published and contiguous areas similar in character to the city. A. city zone B. MSA C. consolidated market zone D. retail trading zone 71. The purpose of NADbank is to: A. make newspaper advertising rates the same for everyone B attract more newspaper advertising dollars from national advertisers in specific product categories by . facilitating the purchasing process C.make sure that national advertisers who use newspapers on a limited basis pay higher rates than those who are already regular users D. publish research information about Canadian daily newspapers

72. According to 2012 figures, the age group most likely to have read yesterday's printed newspaper is: A. 25-34 B. 35-49 C. 50-64 D. 65+ 73. The primary research method of the NADbank is: A. in-home interviews B. on-line surveys C. telephone interviews D. focus-groups 74. Traditionally, newspaper advertising space has been sold by the: A. open rate structure B. absolute cost method C. agate line D. cost per thousand (CPM) 75. When newspapers offer discounts, they are using a(n) _____ structure. A. favourable B. illegal C. unfavourable D. open rate 76. An advertiser can obtain a specific position on a newspaper page by paying a _____ rate. A. frequent advertiser B. run of paper C. preferred position D. custom placement 77. When the advertiser allows its ad to be placed on any page or position the publisher desires, it will be quoted a(n) _____ rate. A. custom placement B. run of paper C. preferred position D. open position 78. _____ will find newspapers very inefficient because of the wasted circulation. A. Fishing rod manufacturers B. Supermarkets C. Home electronics retailers D. Hotels 79. Because of the medium's ability to turn information around quickly and deliver a detailed message, many companies who provide critical services to consumers often choose to advertise in _____ to respond to natural disasters such as earthquakes or hurricanes. A. television B. radio C. newspapers D. direct mail 80. Which of the following is NOT an advantage associated with advertising in newspapers? A. High degree of market coverage B. High level reader involvement C. High geographic flexibility D. High reproduction quality

81. Ivanka overheard a conversation in which the following terms were used: Short closing times, high penetration, and ad reproduction limitations. Which media vehicle was being discussed in the conversation that Ivanka overheard? A. Newspapers B. Magazines C. Direct mail D. Billboards 82. One of the greatest limitations of newspapers as an advertising medium is: A. its lack of creative ad formatting B. the lack of reader interest and involvement C. consumer distrust of newspapers as a credible source D. its poor reproduction quality 83. An advertiser might use an island ad as a way to: A. break through the clutter typically found in newspapers B. create high reproduction ads C. promote the specific brands of clothing carried by the store D. reduce overall costs of newspaper advertising 84. A creative technique for newspaper advertising whereby an ad is surrounded by editorial material is known as a(n): A. offset page B. gatefold C. ink-set image D. island ad 85. While _____ can offer geographic selectivity, it is not a selective medium in terms of demographics or lifestyle characteristics. A. radio B. newspapers C. magazines D. television 86. Most consumers rely heavily on _____ not only for news, information, and entertainment, but also for the advertising it contains. A. newspapers B. magazines C. newsletters D. direct mail 87. One study found that consumers look forward to ads in _____ more than in other media. A. elevators B. magazines C. newspapers D. washrooms 88. Most _____ reach broad and very diverse groups of consumers, which makes it difficult for marketers to focus on narrowly defined market segments. A. newspapers B. magazines C. radio stations D. daytime television dramas

Chapter 12 Key 1. B 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. A 7. D 8. B 9. A 10. A 11. D 12. B 13. D 14. C 15. A 16. A 17. C 18. A 19. A 20. C 21. B 22. D 23. A 24. C 25. A 26. A 27. C 28. A 29. D 30. D 31. B 32. C 33. C 34. D 35. B 36. B

37. A 38. C 39. A 40. A 41. A 42. C 43. D 44. C 45. B 46. B 47. D 48. D 49. C 50. C 51. C 52. D 53. D 54. D 55. C 56. B 57. A 58. A 59. C 60. C 61. C 62. B 63. B 64. B 65. D 66. C 67. A 68. C 69. B 70. A 71. D 72. D 73. C 74. C

75. D 76. C 77. B 78. A 79. C 80. D 81. A 82. D 83. A 84. D 85. B 86. A 87. C 88. A

Chapter 12 Summary Category # of Questions Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 88 Belch - Chapter 12 88 Blooms: Analyze 18 Blooms: Apply 3 Blooms: Remember 50 Blooms: Understand 17 Difficulty: Difficult 7 Difficulty: Easy 41 Difficulty: Moderate 40 Learning Objective: 1234 01 Identify the different types of magazines available for advertising; how circulation and readership levels are determined; how au dience size and its characteristics are measured; and the factors that influence advertising rates. Learning Objective: 12-02 Evaluate the strengths and limitations of magazines as an advertising medium. 27 Learning Objective: 1216 03 Identify the types of newspapers offered for advertising; how circulation and readership levels are determined; how audience siz e and its characteristics are measured; and how advertising rates are determined. Learning Objective: 12-04 Evaluate the strengths and limitations of newspapers as an advertising medium. 11

Chapter 13 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

Those vehicles used to reinforce communications messages that may have been received from other forms of advertising are called: A. support media B. out-of-home advertising C. indirect communications D. advertising accessories

_____ delivers advertising messages that we experience while moving about our town or city and accomplishing our day-to-day activities. A. Support media B. Out-of-home advertising C. Indirect communications D. Motion advertising

Which of the following is NOT an example of an out-of-home medium? A. posters located in high-traffic areas B. a sign for Calvin Klein jeans inside a bus shelter C. an ad in the subway D. an ad in a college newspaper

_____ posters are those that have a light behind them so that they are more clearly illuminated. A. Backlit B. Superboard C. Rear-projection D. Spectacular

The term used to describe ads on trucks or other vehicles is: A. video-display units B. mobile signage C. spectaculars D. street-level posters

Which of the following statements about outdoor billboards is true? A. The number of outdoor billboards has been increasing. B. Outdoor billboards lack the ability to deliver a comprehensive message. C. Outdoor billboards are typically used by national companies like RJR Nabisco. D. Outdoor billboards are the only forms of advertising that is not regulated by national legislation.

Which of the following is true about the usefulness of street-level posters? A. Large amounts of text and pictures of people enhance product recognition. B. Short headlines, longer body text and a product shot enhance the creative appeal. C. Specifying a brand name in the headline enhances message appeal. D. The use of humour accelerates brand recognition.

The Canadian Out-of-Home Measurement Bureau (COMB) does all of the following EXCEPT: A. maintains a national database of outdoor and place-based media B. publishes circulation and market data for out-of-home facings across the country C. tends to bias results towards the brands that are paying for the research D. comprises members from advertisers, advertising agencies, and media firms

The Out-of-Home Marketing Association of Canada (OMAC) investigated time spent inside and outside the home, out-of-home exposure, commuting habits, and shopping behaviour in two studies called: A. "Day in the Life" studies B. "Slice of Life" studies C. "Out-of-Home Media Exposure" studies D. "Consumer Behaviour" studies

10. Advertisers can be confident that out-of-home media reach a substantial portion of the population while they are planning to or actually shopping, because OMAC studies showed: A. Consumers commute to work for an average of 65 minutes per day. B. More than 50 percent of people shop on their way to work or home. C. Many urban workers use a car to get to work. D. The average person spends 55 percent of their day out of the home. 11. A company wishing to advertise to a very specific target market with a message designed to aid comprehension of the product benefits offered should use: A. transit advertising B. billboards C. rolling boards D. specialty magazine advertising 12. Which of the following is NOT an advantage associated with outdoor advertising? A. high levels of frequency B. low cost C. a very competitive CPM D. the ability to present very creative messages 13. Which of the following is an advantage associated with outdoor advertising? A. high degree of waste coverage B. clutter C. large geographic coverage D. image problems 14. An advertiser might decide to NOT use outdoor advertising because the medium: A. is prone to fast wearout B. does not produce a high level of product or brand awareness C. has a low level of frequency D. does not produce sales 15. ______ ads usually have a very competitive CPM when compared to other media. A. Outdoor B. Radio C. Newspaper D. Magazine 16. Which support media provides advertisers with wide coverage of local markets and high levels of frequency? A. outdoor B. newspaper and transit C. airport advertising and mobile billboards D. in-store and out-of-store 17. Which form of support media provides a high degree of geographic selectivity? A. product placement and mobile billboards B. movie theatre advertising and video advertising C. outdoor advertising and transit advertising D. aerial advertising

18. People tend to speed past outdoor ads, so the most effective messages will be limited to an impactful visual and a few words. This is a function of: A. Limited selectivity. B. Short processing time. C. High cost per impression. D. Executional limitations of outdoor advertising. 19. ____ is targeted at the millions of people who are exposed to commercial transportation facilities including buses, subways, light-rail trains, and airplanes. A. Transit advertising B. Outdoor advertising C. Place-based media D. Point-of-purchase media 20. Which of the following is NOT an advantage associated with transit advertising? A. long exposure time for interior transit cards B. high frequency of exposure C. high absolute and relative costs D. geographic selectivity 21. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage associated with transit advertising? A. extensive reach B. clutter C. media image D. waste coverage 22. The anxious, irritated, or disinterested state of many potential customers when exposed to _____ advertising may limit the effectiveness of such advertising. A. specialty B. transit C. radio D. movie 23. Interior cards, exterior posters, station domination are all examples of what kind of media? A. transit B. movie theatre C. airport D. shopping mall 24. Transit media is sold: A. to the highest bidder in any particular time period. B. bus-by-bus and station-by-station. C. on a four-week basis with a certain desired level of GRPs. D. according to level of exposure. 25. Bringing an advertising medium to consumers wherever they may be is the strategy behind: A. indoor as well as outdoor media. B. multi-location insertions. C. specific location media. D. place-based media. 26. Which support media should be employed if the product is expensive cologne, and the target audience for the product is upscale businesspeople? A. billboards B. product placements C. Yellow Pages D. in-flight advertising

27. Which support media should be employed if the product/service is an expensive hotel that is attempting to appeal to an international audience? A. billboards B. product placements C. advertising specialties D. in-flight advertising 28. A liqueur company wants to advertise in an in-flight commercial. What are the advantages associated with using this form of in-flight advertising? A. lack of clutter B. low wearout C. high attention from target audience D. a captive audience 29. A liqueur company wants to advertise in an in-flight commercial. What are the disadvantages associated with using this form of in-flight advertising? A. high costs B. lack of wearout C. inability to segment market D. an audience feeling that such ads are intrusive 30. Which of the following is NOT an example of place-based media? A. ads inside washrooms B. televisions in doctors' offices C. a poster in a sports stadium D. consumer magazines in dentists' offices 31. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of movie theatre advertising? A. high costs B. high involvement C. high recall D. captive audience 32. The use of products such as pens, calendars, and coffee mugs, featuring advertising and used as promotional tools is referred to as: A. giveaways B. promotional product marketing C. sales promotions D. publicity 33. Philips Electronics is considering a media mix that will allow for high exposure for its new flat screen television. A major concern of the company is that it maintains a favourable image in the market. Because of the nature of the medium, which of the following might lead to image problems if employed by Philips for its new television? A. aerial advertising and print advertising B. promotional product marketing and transit advertising C. product placement and Internet marketing D. Internet advertising, print advertising, and mobile billboards 34. Useful articles of merchandise, such as sports bottles, calendars, and pens, imprinted with an advertiser's name, message, or logo are examples of: A. promotional product marketing items B. product placements C. premiums D. trade promotions

35. Which support media should be employed if the objective is to achieve high levels of retention and have the communication serve as a frequent reminder? A. trade promotions B. product placements C. promotional product marketing items D. mall posters 36. Which of the following forms of support media has a low degree of waste coverage? A. transit advertising B. outdoor advertising C. promotional products marketing D. mobile billboards 37. Which of the following is NOT an advantage associated with promotional products marketing? A. designed for retention B. high degree of target audience selectivity C. short lead time D. generates goodwill 38. Which of the following is an example of a disadvantage associated with promotional products marketing? A. intrusive nature of the advertising B. potential saturation of the marketplace C. ability to support other IMC tools D. designed for retention 39. According to research, which category of promotional products is the largest in terms of sales? A. wearables/apparel B. writing instruments C. desk/office accessories D. coffee cups and other drinkware 40. Which of the following statements about audience measurement in promotional products marketing is true? A. Reach and frequency are as easy to measure with promotional products marketing as with print advertising. B.Donnelly Marketing has established an acceptable method for measuring the impact of promotional products marketing on sales. C. Companies that use promotional products marketing are not interested in sales; they only want to create goodwill. D. There is no established ongoing audience measurement system for promotional products marketing. 41. ______ ads have a unique opportunity to communicate for a longer period of time than a TV ad. A. Transit B. Yellow Pages C. Radio D. Movie theatre 42. One study found that total recall for ______ ads reached 74%, compared to 32% for TV ads. A. radio B. movie theatre C. online D. billboard 43. Which of the following is NOT an advantage associated with place-based media ads? A. audience selectivity B. generate more in-depth cognitive responses C. scheduling flexibility D. reasonable absolute costs

44. Place-based media options include all of the following EXCEPT: A. mall B. cinema C. office building D. backlit poster 45. Promoting a product by having it used in a movie is known as: A. out-of-home advertising B. product placement C. a direct response promotion D. publicity 46. The use of Nike shoes in the movie "Forrest Gump" and the appearance of the Marriott Hotel logo in the movie "True Lies" are both examples of: A. product placement B. specialty advertising C. transactional advertising D. free-form marketing 47. Which of the following is a disadvantage associated with the use of product placements? A. limited reach B. high exposure C. low CPM costs D. little clutter 48. Which support media should be employed if the objective is to associate the product with a very specific type of user and to appear as though it's really not being advertised at all? A. mall posters B. product placements C. advertising specialties D. in-flight advertising 49. Research indicates that a(n) ______ greatest strength lies in maintaining existing loyalty of current customers who see the product they consume actually being used in a realistic situation. A. movie theatre ad's B. product placement's C. transit shelter's D. in-flight ad's 50. Which of the following statements about product placement advertising is true? A. Alcohol and tobacco companies are legally prohibited from using product placements. B. The potential exposure for a product placed in a movie is enormous. C. A possible disadvantage associated with the use of product placement advertising is lack of opportunity. D. The recall of product placements is generally lower than that of television ads. 51. Which of the following is an example of an advantage associated with product placement? A. high absolute cost B. negative public reaction C. maintaining existing loyalty of current customers D. lack of control 52. Two Visa decals which were placed on the front window on a travel agency where Toula worked in My Big Fat Greek Wedding is an example of: A. specialty advertising B. promotional products marketing C. product placement D. sales promotion

53. It is very difficult for movie theatre audiences to physically avoid the _____ through some form of zipping and zapping. A. product placement B. sales promotion C. publicity D. TV exposure 54. In many ____, the advertiser has no say over when and how often the product will be shown. A. radio commercials B. movies C. infomercials D. TV commercials 55. Which of the following is NOT a limitation of product placement? A. There is no guarantee that viewers will notice the product. B. Some product placements only last for a few seconds. C. The correct placement of the product has direct relevance for the character or situation. D. There is no potential for discussing product benefits or providing detailed information. 56. What are the two primary objectives of advertising in outdoor, transit, and place-based media? A. brand awareness and brand purchase intention B. brand awareness and brand attitude C. category need and purchase facilitation D. category need and brand purchase intention E. brand attitude and brand purchase intention 57. Most placed-based media typically offer the opportunity for promotional planners to achieve: A. brand awareness B. brand attitude C. category need D. brand purchase intention

Chapter 13 Key 1. A 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. B 11. D 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. A 16. A 17. C 18. B 19. A 20. C 21. A 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. D 26. D 27. D 28. D 29. D 30. D 31. A 32. B 33. B 34. A 35. C 36. C

37. C 38. B 39. A 40. D 41. D 42. B 43. C 44. D 45. B 46. A 47. A 48. B 49. B 50. B 51. C 52. C 53. A 54. B 55. C 56. A 57. D

Chapter 13 Summary Category Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Belch - Chapter 13 Blooms: Analyze Blooms: Apply Blooms: Remember Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Difficult Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective: 13-01 Identify the options within out-ofhome media for developing an IMC program and for audience measurement; and their strengths and limitations. Learning Objective: 13-02 Apply the concepts of out-ofhome media to promotional products and product placement to construct support programs within an IMC plan. Learning Objective: 13-03 Show how out-of-home and support media are important elements of IMC planning.

# of Questions 57 57 13 1 34 9 5 30 22 36 20 2

Chapter 14 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

Why are organizations like McDonald's, Wendy's, and Labatt placing more emphasis on sales promotions than ever before? A. Because they want to use sales promotions rather than engage in price wars B. Because sales promotions can be used to provide extra incentives for purchasing a brand C. Because the use of sales promotions allows them to cut back and/or completely eliminate their use of coupons D. Because consumers have less time to shop

How has the view of sales promotions changed during the past decades? A. Sales promotions are now considered an essential part of an organization's branding strategies. B. Sales promotion tactics are now developed before the strategy is determined. C. Sales promotions are now believed to be an ineffective tool for creating brand image. D. There is no difference between how marketers used to treat sales promotions and how they treat them now.

______ is defined as a direct inducement that offers an extra value or incentive for the product to the sales force distributors or to ultimate consumer with the primary objective of creating an immediate sale. A. Brand advertising B. Sales promotion C. Direct marketing D. Promotional allowance

Which of the following statements does NOT describe an aspect or characteristic of sales promotion? A. One reason for the decrease in sales promotion is the power shift from manufacturers to retailers. B. A sales promotion is an acceleration tool designed to speed up the selling process. C. Sales promotion can be targeted to different parties in the marketing channel. D. Sales promotions now account for more of marketer's promotional budget than media advertising.

When a marketer distributes coupons for a brand with a specific expiration date, they are attempting to use sales promotion as a(n): A. promotional marketing tool B. brand equity building promotion C. acceleration tool D. value added tool

Coupons, bonus packs, premiums, and samples are promotional offers that are targeted toward: A. consumers B. retailers C. wholesalers D. salespeople

Consumer-oriented sales promotions are part of a promotional ______ strategy. A. premium B. pull C. trade D. push

All of the following are examples of trade-oriented sales promotion activities EXCEPT: A. dealer contests B. trade allowances C. point-of-purchase displays D. coupons

All of the following are examples of consumer-oriented sales promotion activities EXCEPT: A. samples B. bonus packs C. trade shows D. refunds/rebates

10. Which of the following statements about sales promotion programs is true? A. Sales promotion programs are targeted only at consumers. B Many sales promotion programs are designed to motivate distributors and retailers to carry a product . and push it through to their customers. C. Nearly three quarters of all sales promotion dollars are spent on consumer promotions. D. Sales promotion dollars for most companies are allocated equally between consumers and the trade. 11. Over the past decade, the amount of money consumer products firms devote to ______ has been declining while the amount spent on _____ has been increasing. A. consumer promotions; media advertising B. media advertising; sales promotions C. trade promotions; media advertising D. trade promotions; consumer promotions 12. Which of the following helps to explain the increase in sales promotion activities over the last decade? A. The increase of brand loyalty in many product categories B. The tremendous decrease in the number of new products C. The increased emphasis on long term strategy and performance by most companies D. The growing power of retailers and their demands for sales performance 13. Which of the following developments have resulted in a transfer of power from manufacturers to retailers? A. The advent of optical scanners and computers gave manufacturers access to sales information. B. Manufacturers are spending more money on media advertising. C. Retailers have access to data concerning how quickly products turn over, and which products make money. D. Manufacturers are introducing more private-label brands. 14. Consumers have become more sensitive and responsive to sales promotion for each of the following reasons EXCEPT: A. consumers tend to be loyal to their favourite brands. B. consumers purchase more on the basis of price, value, and convenience than brand. C. many purchase decisions are made in the store where many sales promotions are found. D. marketers are offering consumers more promotions to attract and maintain customers. 15. Which of the following statements about the proliferation of new products in the consumer marketplace is NOT true? A. Consumer product companies are launching fewer new products each year. B. Sales promotion programs play an important role in motivating retailers to allocate shelf space to new products. C. Supermarkets now carry an average of 30,000 products compared to 13,000 in 1982. D. Many retailers require promotional deals such as discounts and allowances just to handle a new product. 16. _____ is a recent development whereby companies are customizing their sale promotion programs for key retailers. A. Incentive marketing B. Accountability marketing C. Account-specific marketing D. Trade marketing

17. Which of the following types of sales promotions would NOT be used to help in the introduction of a new product? A. Sampling B. New usage suggestions C. Premiums D. Rebates and refunds 18. The toy company Hasbro teamed with the retailer Toys R Us to create direct mail booklets offering discounts on Hasbro toys good only at Toys R Us stores. This is an example of: A. incentive marketing B. a franchise building promotion C. brand equity building D. account-specific marketing 19. One problem resulting from the overuse of sales promotion is a decrease in: A. retailer power B. ad readership scores C. brand equity D. promotional traps 20. Which of the following statements does NOT correctly describe the relationship between building brand equity and sales promotion? A. Sales promotion is an ineffective tool for building brand equity. B Companies are asking their promotion agencies to think strategically and develop programs that do . more than increase short-term sales. C. Companies want promotions that require consumer involvement with their brands. DSales promotion techniques such as contests and premium offers are often used to draw attention to an . ad, increase involvement with the ad, and help build relationships with consumers. 21. Tropicana developed a "Win the Perfect Vacation" sweepstakes to complement an advertising campaign theme promoting its grapefruit juice as the perfect beverage. This is an example of: A. event marketing B. franchise building promotion C. high-involvement sales promotion D. sales promotion trap 22. Consumer-franchise or image building for a brand: A. is the exclusive responsibility of advertising B. is accomplished through short-term price-oriented promotions C. is becoming less important to marketers as competition intensifies D. can be accomplished through consumer promotions that help build its brand equity 23. Eastern Canadian Sea Foods devotes most of its marketing budget to trade discounts in the form of offinvoice and promotional allowances so its canned tuna and salmon brands can remain price competitive with private label brands. The heavy emphasis on trade promotion makes it difficult to: A. encourage consumers to buy on the basis of price B. build and maintain store equity for retailers that carry the Eastern Canadian brand C. build an Eastern Canadian brand identity and image D. encourage retailers to use Eastern Canadian's planograms 24. The building or reinforcement of consumer-franchise or equity for a brand: A. can really only be accomplished through advertising B. can be done with carefully planned sales promotion programs C. can be done more easily through trade-oriented promotions than through consumer-oriented promotions D. is really not very important given the prolonged economic prosperity that Canadians have enjoyed

25. Which of the following statements describes how brand equity is affected by the increased role of sales promotion? A. Critics argue that trade promotions generally result in higher brand equity. B. Sales promotions do not contribute to the erosion of brand equity. C. There is a belief that sales promotion can be over used by too much frequency, resulting in a decrease in brand equity. D. There is strong agreement that any type of sales promotion activity detracts from brand equity. 26. Which of the following is an example of a sales promotion that can be used to contribute to franchise building? A. A 50-cents off coupon on a box of Minute Rice to encourage repurchase. B. A sweepstakes or contest that uses a theme which is consistent with the image or positioning of the brand. C. A bonus jar of Hellmann's Mayonnaise, offering 1 L for the price of 750 mL. D. A price reduction of $5 on a pair of Lee jeans. 27. Promotional activities that are designed to accelerate the purchase process and generate an immediate increase in sales without communicating information about a brand's unique features or benefits are known as: A. consumer franchise-building promotion B. nonfranchise-building promotion C. sweepstakes D. trade promotions 28. Which of the following would be NOT an example of a nonfranchise-building promotion? A. Price-off deals B. Bonus packs C. Image advertising D. Trade promotions 29. The sales promotion tool that critics contend is most guilty of detracting from brand equity and at the same time being detrimental to a brand franchise is: A. sweepstakes and contests B. trade promotions C. frequent patronage programs D. event sponsorships 30. Which of the following is a reasonable objective for consumer-oriented sales promotions? A. To obtain trial of a new brand B. To encourage off-shelf displays in major grocery stores C. To increase consumption of an established brand D. To enhance advertising and marketing efforts 31. Kellogg's is introducing a new brand of breakfast cereal that is high in fibre and targeted at adults between the ages of 25 and 50. The marketing objectives for the introduction are to generate trial and repeat purchase during the 3-month product launch. Which of the following sales promotion tools work best for Kellogg's? A. Sampling and rebates B. Rebates and high value checkout coupons C. Bonus packs, trade allowances, and slotting fees D. High value coupons and sampling 32. Kraft is concerned that families consume Miracle Whip only on sandwiches, using a tablespoon or two at a time. In order to increase consumption and therefore, sales, which of the following sales promotion tools would work best for Kraft? A. Sampling and rebates B. Recipe books showing alternative uses for Miracle Whip C. Bonus packs, trade allowances, and slotting fees D. In-store coupons for $1.00 off Miracle Whip

33. Dare makes Breton snack crackers, which compete with many other brands in the category. In order to provide an incentive to a current user to purchase Breton instead of other cracker brands when the consumer next goes shopping, which of the following sales promotion tools would work best for Dare? A. In-store sampling B. High value checkout coupons C. Sponsorship of the local Easter parade D. In-pack coupons for any variety of Breton crackers 34. Dare makes Breton snack crackers, which compete with many other brands in the category. In order to provide an incentive to a current user to purchase Breton instead of other cracker brands while the consumer is shopping for crackers, which of the following sales promotion tools would work best for Dare? A. In-store sampling B. Special pricing of 2 packages for $5 instead of the $2.89 regular price C. Image advertising D. In-pack coupons for any variety of Breton crackers 35. Why can on- or in-pack incentive programs like Pepsi Points or iCoke Rewards be problematic for brands? A. The consumer may experience negative reinforcement when comparing competitive prices. B. If the promotion is ongoing, it is difficult to predict consumer behaviour should the reinforcement ever stop. C. Consumer switching behaviour is curtailed. D. Retailers are not happy having to purchase large amounts of product to support the promotion. 36. Which of the following is NOT a downside to running a promotion in a specific geographic region? A. Additional managerial commitment required B. Greater expenses resulting from fragmented efforts C. Consumer confusion when they shop at their local store D. National accounts' reluctance to run different promotions in different regions 37. Which of the following is NOT a tactical decision the marketer faces when planning a sales promotion? A. The value of the free in-pack premium B. The percentage discount that the face value of checkout coupons represents C. Seasonality of purchase and length of promotion D. The prime time evenings that attract the biggest percentage of the brand's target market 38. ______ generate(s) much higher trial rates than advertising and other sales promotion techniques. A. Sampling B. Contests C. Sweepstakes D. Bonus packs 39. _____ is generally considered the most effective method for generating trial of a new product. A. Couponing B. Sampling C. A rebate award D. A bonus pack 40. Sampling would be an appropriate promotional strategy to do each of the following EXCEPT: A. increase the market share of an established brand B. provide the marketer with an immediate gauge as to how well the product will do in the marketplace C. assist consumers to experience the brand directly D. induce trial of a new brand that is clearly superior to the competition

41. Sampling for a product such as expensive skin cream that is designed to reduce wrinkles over a long period of time might not be feasible because: A. it cannot be broken down into small sizes B it may be too expensive to give away sample sizes that would be adequate to demonstrate the cream's . benefits since it has to be used repeatedly C. it may be too difficult to find a way to distribute the samples D. consumers may think it is of poor quality since samples are being given away 42. Which of the following is NOT a sampling distribution method? A. Door-to-door sampling B. Sampling through the mail C. Self-liquidating sampling D. In-or on-package sampling 43. _____ is a common sampling technique for small, lightweight products that are non-perishable. A. Door-to-door sampling B. Sampling through the mail C. Location sampling D. On-package sampling 44. Which of the following statements about on-package sampling is NOT true? A. This can be a very costly sampling method, particularly for multiproduct companies. B. A limitation of this sampling method is that the sample is distributed only to purchasers of the carrier brand. C. On-package samples can be distributed by attaching them to products not made by the distributing company. D The distribution of on-package samples can be broadened by attaching them to multiple brands or to . products made by other companies. 45. _____ occurs at venues such as concerts, cultural festivals, and at a brand's marketing activities. A. Door-to-door sampling B. Sampling through the media C. Sampling through the mail D. Event sampling 46. The oldest, most widely used, and most effective sales promotion tool is: A. coupons B. sampling C. rebates D. event sponsorship 47. An advantage of coupons is that they: A. build brand loyalty B. generally elicit immediate response from consumers C. are very effective even without brand name awareness D.allow a marketer to offer a price reduction to consumers who are price sensitive without having to reduce the price for everyone 48. A recent study of coupon redemption patterns found that: A. many coupons are redeemed just before the expiration date rather than in the period following the initial drop B. most coupons are redeemed immediately following the initial coupon drop C. most coupons are redeemed on Thursdays D. most consumers do not use coupons

49. Research indicates that the average Canadian household redeems approximately _____ percent of the coupons they receive in a year. A. 4 B. 15 C. 40 D. There is no general number associated with coupon redemption. 50. When calculating the costs of a couponing program, marketers should consider all of the following EXCEPT: A. production and distribution costs B. the face value of the coupon redeemed C. the copy and layout of the coupon D. handling costs 51. Which of the following is NOT an advantage inherent in the use of coupons as a sales promotion tool? A. Coupons offer price reductions to consumers who are price sensitive. B. Coupons are an effective way of generating trial of a new product. C. Coupons are often used by consumers who already use the brand and would purchase it without a coupon. D. Coupons can encourage non-users to try a brand. 52. Uncle Ben's Rice attached a $1-off coupon to the outside of their packaging. They distributed 1,000,000 promotional packages, at a cost of $20,000 for design and production. They predict that the redemption rate will be 5%. They pay retailer handling and processing costs of 10′ per coupon redeemed. What is the total cost of the coupon promotion to Uncle Ben's? A. $7,500 B. $55,000 C. $75,000 D. $150,000 53. Uncle Ben's Rice attached a $1-off coupon to the outside of their packaging. They distributed 1,000,000 promotional packages, at a cost of $20,000 for design and production. They predict that the redemption rate will be 5%. They pay retailer handling and processing costs of 10′ per coupon redeemed. What is the cost per coupon redeemed to Uncle Ben's? A. $1.50 B. $1.10 C. $1.00 D. $0.75 54. The most popular method for distributing coupons is: A. newspaper freestanding inserts (FSIs) B. direct mail C. in/on packs D. magazines 55. What advantage does distribution of coupons through direct mail have over other forms of coupon delivery? A. Targeted to specific geographic or demographic segments B. Lower cost C. Lower redemption rate D. Most users of direct mail coupons are non-users

56. Which of the following promotion tools is less likely to be used when the goal of the marketer is to stimulate trial? A. Sampling B. Loyalty programs C. Instant coupons D. Mail-in refunds and rebates 57. Which of the following promotion tools is less likely to be used when the goal of the marker is to build brand equity? A. Price-off deals B. Self-liquidating premiums C. Sweepstakes D. Loyalty programs 58. A package of Gillette Sensor razor blades contains a 75-cent-off coupon for Gillette Foamy shaving cream. This is an example of a(n) _____ coupon. A. cross-ruff B. bounce back C. same purchase D. instant 59. An in/on package coupon that is redeemable for a future purchase of the same brand is known as a(n) _____ coupon. A. cross-ruff B. bounce-back C. instant D. same purchase 60. Kellogg's places a 50-cent-off coupon for Rice Krispies cereal in a box of its Frosted Mini-Wheats brand of cereal. This is an example of a(n) _____ coupon. A. bounce-back B. cross-ruff C. instant D. cross-sell 61. Gillette's market research shows that most consumers decide upon a brand of deodorant at the point-ofpurchase rather than before entering the store. Based on these findings, what form of promotion is most effective for Gillette's Right Guard brand? A. Direct mail coupons B. Event marketing C. Coupons distributed through freestanding inserts in newspapers D. In-store coupons 62. Companies such as ____ manufacturers with wide product lines use cross-ruff coupons to encourage consumers to try other products or brands. A. baby stroller B. beer C. cereal D. car 63. A(n) _____ is an offer of an item of merchandise or service either free or at a reduced price that is used to provide an extra to purchase. A. coupon B. off-price deal C. premium D. rebate

64. Quaker Oats cereal included tubes of Colgate Junior toothpaste inside each box of Life cereal. This is an example of a: A. free premium B. self-liquidating premium C. rebate D. bonus pack 65. Perhaps the most successful in-package _____ in Canada in 2001 was a General Mills giveaway of six CD-ROM computer games. A. coupons B. premium C. contest D. bonus pack 66. Consumers must pay the manufacturer's out-of-pocket costs for a _____ premium. A. cost-covered B. self-liquidating C. subsidized D. cost-plus 67. Which of the following statements about the use of premiums as a sales promotion tool is true? A. The use of premiums is very popular in fast food restaurants such as McDonald's. B. Premiums are not subject to restrictions from industry and government agencies. C. Redemption rates for mail-in premium offers are very high. D. Mail-in premiums offer immediate reinforcement to the purchaser. 68. An effective premium is one that: A. distracts consumers from the firm's main reason for existing B. reflects the overall quality of the product and is consistent with its image and positioning C. induces one-time trial purchase of a brand for which there is low awareness D. has no impact on an organization's pioneering advertising 69. Which of the following would be the best example of a premium offer that contributes to consumerfranchise building efforts for a brand? A. A free tube of Colgate toothpaste in a box of Life cereal B. A pack of baseball cards in a box of Cheerios cereal C. A free sport bottle with the purchase of a four-pack of Gatorade D. A dish towel in a box of Tide laundry detergent 70. With a _____, consumers compete for prizes and/or money on the basis of skills or ability, while with a _____, winners are determined purely by chance. A. sweepstakes; contest B. contest; sweepstakes C. sweepstakes; event sponsorship D. contest; rebate 71. Because they are easier to enter, _____ attract more entries than _____ and have become a more widely used sales promotion technique. A. contests; sweepstakes B. sweepstakes; contests C. sweepstakes; premiums D. contests; rebates 72. Which of the following sales promotion techniques would be most effective for generating excitement or interest in a brand? A. Coupons B. Price-off deals C. Bonus packs D. Contests/sweepstakes

73. Which of the following is NOT a problem associated with the use of contests and sweepstakes? A. The contest or sweepstakes offer may overshadow the brand. B. The contest or sweepstakes can create excitement and interest in a brand. C. Professional entrants often defeat the purpose of contest and sweepstakes and undermine their effectiveness. D. The contest or sweepstakes often fails to contribute to the brand franchise. 74. Which of the following sales promotion techniques is impacted negatively by the presence of professionals or hobbyists who take advantage of the promotion without making a purchase? A. Sampling B. Premiums C. Contests and sweepstakes D. Event sponsorships 75. Which of the following statements about rebates is true? A. Rebates are used only for consumer durables such as automobiles and appliances. B. Most retailers want to be involved with rebate programs. C. Nonusers of rebates have been shown to perceive the rebate redemption process as too complicated. D. Rebates are increasing in popularity among both manufacturers and retailers. 76. The redemption rate for refunds is lower than that for coupons because: A. the payoff is smaller. B. the reinforcement is immediate. C. more effort is required. D. the payoff is larger. 77. Which of the following is NOT a limitation of rebates? A. Rebates can encourage brand switching or repeat purchase behaviour. B. Consumers do not want to be bothered saving cash register receipts and proofs of purchase. C. Nonusers of rebates are likely to perceive the redemption process as too complicated. D. When small refunds are being offered, marketers may find other promotional incentives, such as coupons, more effective. 78. Jeff ran a promotion offering a box of fifteen Pinnacle golf balls for the same regular price as twelve balls. This is an example of a: A. price-off deal. B. premium. C. bonus pack. D. rebate. 79. Bonus packs: A. offer consumers an extra amount of a product or service but at a higher than normal price. B provide marketers with a way to provide extra value to consumers without having them do anything . other than purchase the product. C.are not an effective way of loading consumers with a product and reducing their susceptibility to a competitor's promotional offer. D. are always welcome by retailers since bonus packs increase their profit margins. 80. When reductions from the regular price of a product are offered at the point-of-purchase through specially marked packages, a marketer is using a: A. bonus pack B. price-off deal C. refund offer D. bounce back coupon

81. MolsonCoors's heavy financial involvement with and support of freestyle skiing competitions, beach volleyball tournaments, and other sporting events is an example of: A. premiums B. trade shows C. exhibitions D. event marketing 82. _____ has/have become very popular in recent years as marketers develop integrated marketing programs that create experiences for consumers in an effort to associate their brands with certain lifestyles and activities. A. Contests B. Premiums C. Bonus packs D. Event marketing 83. Crashed Ice is an event featuring a new sport, downhill ice-cross, which was established by: A. Smirnoff Vodka. B. Red Bull Energy Drink. C. Orange Crush. D. Bauer Hockey Skates. 84. All of the following are reasonable objectives for trade-oriented sales promotions EXCEPT: A. to obtain distribution and support for new products. B. to maintain trade support for established brands. C. to encourage the trade to display and support established brands. D. to differentiate a brand through image enhancement. 85. Programs involving cash payments directly to the sales force to reward them for selling the manufacturer's products involve the use of: A. slotting fees B. pull monies C. spiffs D. promotional allowances 86. Which of the following promotions is targeted toward the trade rather than consumers? A. Spiffs B. Coupons C. Premiums and sweepstakes D. Bonus packs 87. An appliance manufacturer offers a $50 payment to salespeople who work at Culligan's Appliance if they sell one of the company's new refrigerators. This payment is known as: A. a slotting fee. B. a trade allowance. C. push money. D. pull money. 88. Another term used for push money that is given to retailers' or wholesalers' sales staff to encourage them to promote and sell a company's product is: A. pull money B. a rebate C. a spiff D. an off-invoice allowance

89. All the following are advantages associated with the use of trade allowances EXCEPT: A. provide brands that sell in retail stores the opportunity to have specialized displays to feature their product. B. strengthen the brand image. C. permit a brand to obtain prominent place where high traffic occurs. D. ensure greater in-store exposure. 90. A discount or deal that is offered to a retailer or wholesaler to encourage them to stock, promote, or display a manufacturer's product is known as: A. push money B. merchandising support C. a trade allowance D. a spiff 91. Ralston Purina offers its retail accounts a $3.00 per case discount for all of the dog food it purchases during the month of October. This discount will be deducted straight from the bill. This is an example of: A. push money. B. a slotting allowance. C. an off-invoice allowance. D. a coop allowance. 92. Payments offered by manufacturers to retailers for performing certain promotional or merchandising activities in support of their brands are called: A. cooperative advertising B. push monies C. advertising subsidies D. promotional allowances 93. Monies that must be paid to a retailer so they will take on a company's new product are known as: A. slotting allowances B. trade discounts C. spiffs D. new product fees 94. Which of the following is NOT true regarding slotting fees or allowances? ARetailers argue they are justified because there are costs associated with taking on a new product, such . as entering the product into the computer and finding warehouse space. B.Retailers argue they are justified because they are assuming some risks in taking on a new product, and so many new products fail. C. Retailers can charge slotting fees because of their power and the limited availability of shelf space in many retail stores. D. Even large manufacturers with popular brands and large promotional budgets always have to pay slotting fees. 95. Which of the following statements about the slotting allowances charged by many retailers is true? A. Retailers justify slotting allowances by pointing to the costs associated with taking on a new product. B. Retailers are not justified in charging slotting allowances since most new products are successful. C. Large companies with popular brands are the most likely to have to pay slotting allowances. D. Slotting allowances are illegal and banned by the federal government. 96. Which of the following statements describes a major concern marketers have with trade allowances? A. Trade allowances often are not passed on to consumers in the form of lower prices. B. Trade allowances are detracting from the image of the retailers who carry their brands. C. Consumers pocket most of the savings from trade promotion discounts. D. Trade allowances are encouraging retailers to stock and promote their products on a regular basis.

97. Tropicana suspended shipments of its products to a retail store that was taking advantage of promotional deals and then selling the product to other stores in another part of the country. The retailer was engaged in: A. forward buying B. diverting C. slotting D. transference charging 98. _____ is a practice used by retailers whereby they stock-up on a product at a low deal or off-invoice price and resell it to consumers at higher prices when a promotional period has ended. A. Forward buying B. Diverting C. Promotional discounting D. Discount trading 99. _____ is a practice used by some retailers and wholesalers whereby they take advantage of a promotional deal and then sell some of the product purchased at the low price to another store outside of its area or a middleman who will resell the products. A. Forward buying B. Diverting C. Everyday low pricing D. Discount trading 100.Which of the following is NOT an example of a point-of-purchase display? A. Wall display B. TV display C. Mall poster D. End-of-aisle display 101.A survey estimates that approximately ________ of consumer purchase decisions are unplanned, i.e. made in the store. A. 6% B. 15% C. 24% D. 55% 102.A(n) _______ is an important promotional tool because it can help an advertiser obtain more in-store merchandising of products. A. off-invoice allowance B. point-of-purchase display C. trade allowance D. in-pack coupon 103.Nordica provides sales personnel in ski shops with training classes, detailed manuals, and other tools to help them better understand how to sell the company's ski boots. This is an example of: A. cooperative advertising B. slotting fee C. sales training programs D. spiffs 104._____ is an exhibition or forum where manufacturers can display their products to current and prospective buyers. A. An end-of-aisle display B. A trade layout C. A trade show D. Event marketing

105._____ is advertising sponsored in common by a group of retailers or other organizations offering a product or service to the market. A. Horizontal cooperative advertising B. Vertical cooperative advertising C. Indirect advertising D. Dyadic communication 106.When New Balance sponsors a campaign advertising the availability of its running shoes at Foot Locker stores, this is an example of _____ advertising. A. horizontal cooperative B. vertical cooperative C. dyadic D. aggregated 107._____ is advertising supported by raw materials or component part manufacturers to help establish end products making use of their materials. A. Vertical cooperative advertising B. Ingredient-sponsored cooperative advertising C. Horizontal cooperative advertising D. Support advertising 108.The "Intel Inside" logo which appears on many computers is an example of: A. vertical cooperative advertising B. ingredient-sponsored cooperative advertising C. horizontal cooperative advertising D. a rebate cooperative advertising 109.Advertising implemented by retailers and paid for by a manufacturer is called: A. joint sales promotions B. horizontal cooperative advertising C. vertical cooperative advertising D. joint trade promotions 110.Five Paradise Island, Bahamas Resort Hotels combining efforts to sponsor an "It's better in the Bahamas" ad campaign, is an example of: A. horizontal cooperative advertising B. vertical cooperative advertising C. integrated dyadic communications D. a joint trade promotion 111.In the ________ stage of the product life cycle, a large amount of the promotion budget may be allocated to sales promotion techniques such as sampling and couponing to induce trial. A. introduction B. decline C. maturity D. growth 112.Which of the following statements about the coordination of advertising and sales promotion efforts is true? A. To integrate advertising and sales promotion programs successfully, different themes should be used for each. B Consumers are less likely to redeem a coupon or respond to a price-off deal for a brand they are . familiar with than one they know nothing about. CProduct trial created through sales promotion techniques such as sampling or couponing is more likely . to result in long-term use of the brand when accompanied by advertising. D. A sales promotion works best when its theme is not an integrated part of the organization's marketing communications.

113.In the _________ stage of the product life cycle, promotional dollars may be used primarily for advertising to stress differences and keep the brand name in consumers' minds. A. introduction stage B. growth stage C. maturity stage D. decline stage 114.When a brand moves to the _________ stage of the product life cycle, advertising is primarily a reminder to keep consumers aware of the brand. Consumer sales promotions such as coupons, price-offs, premiums, and bonus packs may be needed periodically to maintain consumer loyalty, attract new users, and protect against competition. A. growth stage B. maturity stage C. decline stage D. early decline stage

Chapter 14 Key 1. B 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. B 11. B 12. D 13. C 14. A 15. A 16. C 17. B 18. D 19. C 20. A 21. B 22. D 23. C 24. B 25. C 26. B 27. B 28. C 29. B 30. B 31. D 32. B 33. D 34. D 35. B 36. C

37. D 38. A 39. B 40. B 41. B 42. C 43. B 44. A 45. D 46. A 47. D 48. A 49. A 50. C 51. C 52. C 53. A 54. A 55. A 56. B 57. A 58. A 59. B 60. B 61. D 62. C 63. C 64. A 65. B 66. B 67. A 68. B 69. C 70. B 71. B 72. D 73. B 74. C

75. C 76. C 77. A 78. C 79. B 80. B 81. D 82. D 83. B 84. D 85. C 86. A 87. C 88. C 89. B 90. C 91. C 92. D 93. A 94. D 95. A 96. A 97. B 98. A 99. B 100. C 101. D 102. B 103. C 104. C 105. A 106. B 107. B 108. B 109. C 110. A 111. A 112. C

113. B 114. B

Chapter 14 Summary Category # of Questions Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation 114 Belch - Chapter 14 114 Blooms: Analyze 24 Blooms: Apply 10 Blooms: Remember 58 Blooms: Understand 22 Difficulty: Difficult 9 Difficulty: Easy 54 Difficulty: Moderate 51 Learning Objective: 1417 01 Explain the role of sales promotion in a companys integrated marketing communications program and examine why it is increas ingly important. Learning Objective: 14-02 Identify the objectives; strategy; and tactical components of a sales promotion plan. 21 Learning Objective: 14-03 Describe consumer sales promotion strategy options and evaluate the factors to consider in using them. 44 Learning Objective: 14-04 Describe trade sales promotion strategy options and evaluate the factors to consider in using them. 27 Learning Objective: 14-05 Apply key IMC issues related to sales promotion decisions. 5

Chapter 15 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

For many companies, the PR function is moving more and more toward a "new role" which is much closer to a(n) _____ function than a traditional one. A. accounting B. production C. industrial relations D. marketing

In the new role of ______, both marketing and PR departments work together, blending their talents to provide the best overall image of the firm and its product or service offerings. A. public relations B. advertising C. sales promotion D. interactive media

The new role of public relations is one characterized by: A. less of a communication role B. less of a marketing orientation C. a tighter, more tightly defined role D. a broader, more marketing-oriented role

Which of the following promotional activities would best exemplify the new role of public relations? A. use of Shaquille O'Neal as a spokesperson for Pepsi B. initiation of a contest to find a new spokesperson for a brand C. donation of money to support a local children's soccer team D. sponsorship of a marathon

Which of the following statements describes a major difference between publicity and public relations? A. Publicity always originates within the firm. B. Public relations is typically a short-term strategy. C. Publicity is always positive. D. Publicity is typically a short-term strategy.

Publicity is: A. typically a long-term strategy. B. designed to provide positive information about the competition. C. is news about a person, product, or service that appears in broadcast or print media, and now on the Internet. D. is always under the control of the firm.

Which of the following is NOT a strength associated with the marketer's use of media publicity? A. credibility B. long-lasting communication effects C. avoidance of clutter D. image building

The following are some of the reasons for which firms are concerned with the public's attitudes EXCEPT: A. firms regularly change their positioning B. no one wants to be perceived as bad citizen C. negative attitudes carry over to employee moral D. firms exist in communities where their employees work and live

Public relations activities are less likely to give support to the following marketing objective: A. raising awareness B. gaining understanding C. increasing short term sales D. building trust

10. Marketing public relations activities are less likely to be used in the following ways: A. providing information to opinion leaders B. building brand preference C. creating news about a new advertising campaign D. defending products at risk with a message of reassurance 11. Which of the following is NOT a reason for conducting research to determine public attitudes? A. It provides input into the planning process. B. It leads directly to more product sales. C. It serves as an "early warning system" to detect problems. D. It results in more internal support. 12. Which of the following is NOT one of the ten questions suggested for use in evaluating public relations plans? A. Does the plan include analysis of recent editorial coverage? B. Do the PR people understand the product's strengths and weaknesses? C. Is the plan acceptable to marketing? D. Are the objectives specific and measurable? 13. In public relations, internal audiences include all of the following EXCEPT: A. the public at large B. suppliers C. customers D. stockholders 14. In public relations targeting, external audiences include: A. customers B. the public at large C. suppliers D. stockholders 15. When determining relevant target audiences for public relations efforts, all of the following groups are considered internal audiences EXCEPT: A. employees of the firm B. the media C. current customers D. suppliers 16. Which of the following groups would most likely be the target of public relations efforts designed to increase communications with external audiences? A. potential investors and the media B. current customers and employees of the firm C. the media and current customers D. suppliers and employees of the firm 17. Public relations often attempts to influence government bodies directly at both local and national levels. This is called ____. A. politicking B. flighting C. lobbying D. filibustering

18. Organizational newsletters, notices on intranet resources, mail/e-mail, and annual reports are methods used to communicate with: A. employees of the firm B. the media C. current customers D. suppliers 19. Marketing public relations (MPR) are activities designed to support marketing objectives in all of the following ways EXCEPT: A. building marketplace excitement B. creating news about a new advertising campaign C. incentivizing immediate product sales D. defending products at risk with a message of reassurance 20. Although most public relations efforts seek a variety of channels for distribution, an alternative strategy is to offer one particular medium _____ rights to the story if that medium reaches a substantial number of people in the target audience. A. legitimate B. legal C. limited D. exclusive 21. Offering a press release to only one particular medium may be termed: A. an exclusive B. an advertorial C. advocacy advertising D. lobbying 22. Which of the following communications is most likely to have more credibility among its receivers? A. GM's magazine ads introducing its latest models B. Volvo's television ad promoting new standard safety features C. The magazine Motor Trend announcing the "Car of the Year" D. Celine Dion's appearance in Air Canada commercials 23. Which of the following is NOT an advantage associated with media publicity? A. greater credibility B. ability to build positive image C. contribution to clutter D. low absolute and relative cost 24. Which of the following is an advantage associated with media publicity? A. effectiveness at completing the communications product B. high absolute cost but low relative cost C ease with which PR activities are coordinated with other promotional activities, even when the . activities are performed in different departments D. ability to reach small market segments and/or specific audiences 25. Because media publicity communications are typically perceived as ____, they are not subject to the problems with clutter that are common to other forms of promotional communication. A. corporate-sponsored advertisements B. altruistic C. image building D. news items

26. Each of the following is a limitation of media publicity EXCEPT: A. Timing of the publicity is not always completely under the control of the marketer. B The fact that media are not being compensated for providing the information may lead receivers to . consider the news more truthful and credible. C. Many firms' PR efforts are never associated with their sponsors in the public mind. D. Media publicity may also misfire through mismanagement and a lack of coordination with the marketing department. 27. Communications activities designed to promote a firm overall, without reference to a specific product, are called: A. corporate advertising B. advocacy advertising C. advertorials D. lobbying 28. Which of the following best reflects an example of corporate advertising? A. Home Depot giving out free calendars to all of its regular customers B. Esso promoting its concern for the environment C. Titleist golf equipment signing of golfer Tiger Woods as a spokesperson D. M&M conducting a contest to determine the new colour for M&M candies 29. While still seeking the objective of portraying an image for the company or organization, _____ does so indirectly by adopting a position on a particular issue rather than by promoting the organization itself. A. advocacy advertising B. consumer relations C. a sponsorship D. image advertising 30. Esso ran an ad campaign that addressed the potential problem of global warming. The ad encouraged others to take time to truly understand the problem and to not act hastily. This ad is an example of: A. advocacy advertising B. image advertising C. a sponsorship D. public relations advertising 31. Ads that focus on recruiting new employees, that show the company adopting a position on a particular social issue, or that create goodwill both internally and externally are examples of: A. advocacy advertising B. image advertising C. sponsorship D. public relations advertising 32. Cause-related marketing refers to: A. all advertising designed to cause sales B. all advertising designed to cause attitude change C. the linking of companies with charities with the former being a contributing sponsor to the latter D. corporate advertising designed to change the image of an organization 33. Becel has supported the Heart and Stroke Foundation for 20 years. This is an example of: A. advocacy advertising B. cause-related marketing C. publicity D. advertorial marketing 34. Which of the following is NOT an example of cause marketing? A. making outright donations to a non-profit cause B. sponsoring a televised sports tournament C. donating materials or supplies for a cause D. running public service announcements

35. When companies establish a worthy cause themselves rather than working with an existing organization it is called: A. advocacy advertising B. cause-related marketing C. publicity D. advertorial marketing 36. An Ipsos-Reid poll showed that Canadians want to see companies operate in a _____ manner, but they do question the motives of companies who undertake these types of activities. A. socially responsible B. reliable C. valid D. significant 37. Which of the following is NOT a limitation of cause-related marketing? A. It takes time and effort to establish credibility with consumers. B. Companies may support causes that offer little connection or relation to their brands. C. Cause-related marketing may generate a great deal of publicity. D. The results are difficult to quantify. 38. ______ receive the majority of event sponsorship monies. A. Arts B. Causes C. Sports D. Festivals and fairs 39. Companies are finding _____ an excellent platform from which to build equity and gain affinity with target audiences as well as a good public relations tool for the corporation in general. A. advertising B. sales promotion C. personal selling D. event sponsorships 40. Which of the following statements about sponsorship is NOT true? A. Golf tournaments are a popular event for sponsorship by marketers of luxury automobiles and other upscale products. B. The Arts receive the majority of event sponsorship monies. C. Growth in sponsorship investments has led to a corresponding emergence of measuring the effectiveness of sponsorships. D. Many marketers are attracted to event sponsorship because it gets their company names in front of consumers. 41. Each of the following is a strength of event sponsorship EXCEPT: A. Effective IMC programs can be built around them at the local, regional or national level. B. The brand can be positioned to a well-defined target audience. C. Sponsorship of an event that interests the brand's target consumer can help form emotional attachments to the brand. D. Many marketers need evidence that event sponsorship is effective and a good return on their investment. 42. Which of the following is a criticism commonly applied to corporate advertising? A. poor vehicle for repositioning a company or a brand B. does not take advantage of any benefits derived from public relations C. not effective at reaching the target market D. questionable effectiveness

43. Companies, like products, need to establish an image in the marketplace. _____ activities are one way to accomplish this objective. A. Trade deal B. Corporate advertising C. Sales promotion D. Personal selling 44. Marketers seek attainment of corporate advertising's objectives by implementing all the following EXCEPT: A. image advertising B. cause-related advertising C. cooperative advertising D. television sponsorship 45. Important research into the persuasion effects of event sponsorship has uncovered all of the following recommendations EXCEPT: A. Sponsorship content should be "visible", so that participants are aware of the sponsoring brand. B. Event sponsorships are deemed ineffective if there is no mechanism for product sales. C. The sponsorship should offer true value to the audience. D. Planners should avoid multiple-sponsor events.

Chapter 15 Key 1. D 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. D 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. B 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. B 15. B 16. A 17. C 18. A 19. C 20. D 21. A 22. C 23. C 24. D 25. D 26. B 27. A 28. B 29. A 30. A 31. B 32. C 33. B 34. B 35. B 36. A

37. C 38. C 39. D 40. B 41. D 42. D 43. B 44. C 45. B

Chapter 15 Summary Category Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Belch - Chapter 15 Bloom's: Analyze Bloom's: Remember Bloom's: Understand Difficulty: Difficult Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective: 15-01 Recognize the role of public relations in the promotional mix. Learning Objective: 15-02 Explain how to compile a public relations plan. Learning Objective: 1503 Examine how public relations is generated through media publicity and argue the strengths and limitations of media publicity. Learning Objective: 15-04 Illustrate how public relations is managed through corporate advertising.

# of Questions 45 45 9 24 12 1 23 21 6 12 8 19

Chapter 16 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

Direct marketing: A. is not a useful tool for a company that is using an integrated marketing communications plan B. seeks the same objectives as advertising, sales promotion, and personal selling strategies C. is one of the slowest growing forms of promotion in terms of dollar expenditures D. can generate immediate behavioural response

According to the chapter-opening vignette about loyalty programs: A. About 50 percent of consumers modify when and where they shop in order to maximize loyalty benefits. B. Few Canadian adults participate in more than one or two loyalty programs. C. Consumers find loyalty programs confusing and of little value. D. Consumers would rather have many small rewards than wait to accumulate towards a big ticket item.

To segment and target their audiences, direct marketers use a _______, a listing of customers and/or potential customers. A. catalogue B. database C. CRM D. cross/sell technique

Which of the following is NOT an example of direct response media? A. direct mail B. Internet C. telemarketing D. interior transit boards

An ad for pet health insurance contains both a toll-free number to call and a website to visit for more information. This ad is an example of the combining of direct marketing with: A. consumer promotion B. public relations C. advertising D. personal selling

A press conference called by the Maritime Museum of the Atlantic informed the public of the need for major repairs to prevent water damage to the museum's collection of primitive paintings. During the conference, the museum representative announced that each family in Halifax County and the neighbouring counties could expect to receive a donation envelope in the mail within the next few days. This is an example of the combining of direct marketing with: A. consumer promotion B. public relations C. advertising D. personal selling

When the University of Western Ontario calls its alumni and asks them to make contributions to pay for the remodelling of Alumni House, it is an example of the combining of direct marketing with: A. a trade promotion B. public relations C. advertising D. personal selling

The National Post calls its subscribers to tell them of a contest that they can enter to win a trip to Bermuda. This is an example of the combining of direct marketing with: A. sales promotion B. public relations C. advertising D. personal selling

For market segmentation and targeting, direct marketers rely most heavily on: A. primary qualitative research B. census data C. a database D. survey responses

10. Databases are used in all of these ways EXCEPT: A. to improve the selection of market segments B. to assist in the stimulation of repeat purchases C. to pre-determine purchase intention D. with CRM programs 11. The National Geographic Society offers a variety of products to its subscribers through direct marketing. This is an example of: A. cross-selling B. renewal marketing C. an unethical business practice D. membership-based marketing 12. With an offer to subscribe to a cooking magazine, Betty was offered the opportunity to buy a set of cookware, an electric can opener, and a coffee maker that were featured in the publication and selected by the magazine editors as the best value for the money. This is an example of: A. cross-selling B. renewal marketing C. an unethical business practice D. remarketing 13. When Melissa purchased a Maytag dryer, she was given a warranty card to fill out and return to the manufacturer. The warranty card serves two purposes. The first is to protect the consumer in case the dryer operates faultily within the first year of ownership. The second purpose is to: A. establish a two-step marketing relationship between Maytag and Melissa B. provide information for Statistics Canada C. create a database for Maytag D. there is no second purpose; the warranty is simply a service offered by Maytag 14. Database marketing is criticized because it is: A. still a largely unsophisticated process B. an invasion of privacy C. unmonitored and uncontrolled by any internal or external forces D. really unnecessary if the advertiser has properly targeted their marketing efforts 15. What do Statistics Canada, Canada Post, Info Canada, and The Canadian Marketing Association all have in common? A. They are all government agencies. B. They are all sources of information for direct-marketing databases. C. They are all marketing research houses. D. They all have loyalty programs.

16. _______ are a newer source of information about consumers with precise purchase patterns. A. Loyalty programs B. Consumer promotions C. Public relations D. Personal selling 17. Information on Canada's privacy legislation that places limitations on what marketers can do with information stored in their databases can be found at: A. www.privcom.gc.ca B. www.pricacy.gc.ca C. www.canadaprivacy.gc.ca D. www.canadaleg.gc.ca 18. CRM stands for: A. customized relationship marketing B. customer relationship marketing C. Canadian relations management D. customer relationship management 19. The aim of _____ is to establish and maintain a relationship with one's customers through personalized communication and customized product/service offerings. A. customized business relationships B. customer relationship marketing C. transactional marketing D. customer relationship management 20. An RFM scoring method is often used to measure the effectiveness of a database. RFM stands for: A. rebates, free premiums, and multiple purchases engaged in by the consumer B. recency, frequency, and monetary transactions between the company and the customer C. rough, fine-tuned, maximized database updates D. recent, fortnightly, monthly transactional data compiled 21. Which of the following statements about direct marketing is NOT true? A. direct marketing is especially useful to target current customers B. direct marketing can generate trial among prospects C. direct marketing is effective in targeting competitors' customers D. direct marketing is only used when the identity of the receiver is known 22. In direct response advertising, the "direct response" sought is: A. return on investment (ROI) B. awareness C. sales D. attitude change 23. The announcer on the television commercial said, "Get your credit card and call now to order the 'Monster Ballads of Rock & Roll' CD." This is an example of the _____ direct marketing approach. A. direct B. indirect C. one-step D. two-step 24. Which of the following companies employs a one-step approach to direct marketing? A. The Shopping Channel B. a magazine subscription service that sends an announcement of a forthcoming contest C. an ad advising television viewers to watch their mailboxes for a way to earn free calling cards D. a company asking if a household is interested in an estimate for a new pool

25. Cookware, music CDs, and exercise videos are being advertised on television for purchase by calling a toll-free telephone number. Viewers are instructed to have their credit cards handy when they call to place the order. This form of direct marketing is referred to as: A. telemarketing B. support marketing C. the one-step approach D. the two-step approach 26. When a direct advertising medium is designed to directly obtain an order, the _____ approach is being used: A. two-step B. indirect C. direct D. one-step 27. In direct marketing situations, when it is necessary to screen or qualify potential buyers, it is advisable to use: A. the two-step approach B. the one-step approach C. direct mail rather than telemarketing D. Canada Post's data on direct marketing purchasers 28. The two-step approach to direct marketing: A. asks for an immediate sale B. uses the first contact to screen potential buyers C. is commonly found in direct sales D. is followed by a professional sales call 29. A television commercial in which Publishers Clearing House urges consumers to look in their mailboxes for coming sweepstakes entries is an example of: A. sweeps marketing B. add-on marketing C. the one-step approach D. the two-step approach 30. When databases are used to identify the most relevant profile variables to ensure the highest response rate possible among unknown receivers, the marketer is most likely going to: A. use sweeps marketing B. consult an in-house list C. send unaddressed direct mail D. send to previous responders 31. Many advertisers shied away from _____ in the past, fearful of the image it might create or because they believed that it was useful only for low-cost products. A. direct mail B. publicity C. public relations D. cross-selling 32. Which of the following statements about catalogues is NOT true? A. Catalogues are now available on the Internet for both consumers and business-to-business customers. B. Most catalogue companies now operate only in physical retail locations. C. In some instances in the consumer market, the catalogue and retail divisions are treated as separate entities. D. In some instances in the consumer market, the catalogue merchandise is available in retail stores as well.

33. All of the following statements about direct e-mail are true EXCEPT: A. It is basically an electronic version of regular mail. B. It is difficult to finely target the recipients. C. Consumers can opt to have specific types of e-mail sent to them. D. Permission-based e-mail is essentially the opposite of spam. 34. Which of the following statements about direct e-mail is true? A. Today's marketers use permission-based email instead of having to maintain a comprehensive website. B. The majority of research respondents suggest that branded content makes no impact on whether they forward a message. C. The chance of a consumer passing along a commercial message using email is quite high. D Studies show that the use of direct mail via e-mail messages has no corresponding effect on visits to the . retail location of the sender. 35. Which of the following is NOT true about direct-response TV? A. It encompasses direct-response TV spots, infomercials, and home shopping shows. B. The television spots are also referred to as short-term programs. C. The process is always one-step; the consumer sees the product she likes and calls a 1-800 number to order. D. Infomercials range from 3 to 60 minutes. 36. The lower cost of commercials on cable and satellite has led advertisers to a new form of advertising called ____. A. direct-response television B. split 30s C. infomercials D. 2 minute commercials 37. Which of the following statements about infomercials is NOT true? A. Infomercials are mandated to fill a 30 minute time slot. B. It is possible to target specific audiences at a low cost via specialty channels. C. Infomercials are popular with small firms, but large firms are beginning to use them as well. D. Studies indicate that infomercials get watched and sell products. 38. In a study comparing the communication effects of a one-minute ad, a 15-minute infomercial, a 30minute infomercial, and a direct interactive experience with the product, researchers found: A. Infomercials were deemed to be too long and one-minute ads provided the best results. B. Infomercials provided a similar cognitive and emotional experience as a direct interaction with the brand. C. Specific targeting was not available with infomercials; hence they were much less effective than television advertising. D Because television is such a passive medium, respondents suggested that an infomercial's message . tended to get lost in the "noise". 39. Due to clutter and relatively high costs, the use of _____ by direct marketers does not result in returns as high as those for other forms of direct marketing media. A. magazines and newspapers B. television and radio C. direct mail and catalogues D. newspapers, television, and radio 40. Advertisers can measure the relative effectiveness of a direct marketing campaign quickly by looking at the: A. cost per thousand (CPM) B. breakeven point C. net sales D. cost per order (CPO)

41. Which effectiveness measure is most commonly employed in direct marketing? A. cost per order (CPO) B. cost per thousand (CPM) C. cost per man-hour (CPMH) D. sales per database name (SDN) 42. Which off the following is NOT related to telemarketing? A. inbound and outbound calling B. potential for fraud and deception C. call centre management D. negotiated purchase of broadcast time 43. Shoppers Drug Mart gives customers Optimum cards, which allow customers to take advantage of additional discounts on certain products and to be notified of special, customer-only sales. In addition, customers can accrue points each time they present their cards. These points can be used to purchase goods. Shoppers is using a: A. bonus program B. continuity program C. customer rewards contest D. self-liquidating promotion 44. Every time Beth buys a book at Chapters, she presents her Chapters card, and the sales associate enters her purchase in a database. When she has purchased five books at regular price, she is sent a coupon for a free book to be picked out on her next visit to the store. This is an example of a: A. bonus program B. loyalty program C. customer rewards contest D. subsidized program 45. This phenomenon describes when consumers earn points and then realize they are close to achieving a reward level, so they make additional purchases to achieve it: A. the last-minute accelerator mechanism B. the rewarded-behaviour mechanism C. the personalized marketing mechanism D. the points-pressure mechanism 46. Air Miles currently offers consumers the option of using points collected as cash when making purchases at a point of sale: A. in order to lessen the time delay associated with collecting points for big-ticket items. B. because some of the partners would rather give out cash than merchandise. C because forcing the collection of points in order to achieve non-monetary rewards did not effectively . build brand equity among the partners. D. in order to enhance the rewarded-behaviour mechanism. 47. Loyalty programs achieve each of the following objectives EXCEPT: A. They encourage consumers to use their products or services on a continual basis. B. They assist in creating strong consumer relationships and loyalty. C. They help increase the dollar amount of goods purchased by light and medium users. D. They preclude members from purchasing any other competitive brand. 48. Which of the following describes an advantage that an advertiser using direct marketing is likely to enjoy? A. limited segmentation capabilities B. high overall costs relative to sales C. difficulty in measuring effectiveness D. less planning time required as compared to other forms of media use

49. All of the following are advantages of direct marketing EXCEPT: A. ability to personalize B. image factors C. segmentation capabilities D. creative flexibility 50. Which of the following describes a disadvantage associated with direct marketing? A. poor media image B. high costs C. inability to measure effectiveness D. lack of creative flexibility 51. Disadvantages inherent in the use of direct marketing include: A. difficulty in obtaining effectiveness measurements B. audience exerts control for selective exposure C. lack of flexibility D. difficulty in acquiring TV time 52. Direct marketing lets the advertiser reach a large number of people and reduces or eliminates waste coverage through its strength of: A. frequency. B. flexibility. C. segmentation capabilities. D. target audience coverage. 53. No other advertising medium can personalize the message as well as: A. television B. direct mail C. magazines D. newspapers

Chapter 16 Key 1. D 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. D 8. A 9. C 10. C 11. A 12. A 13. C 14. B 15. B 16. A 17. A 18. D 19. D 20. B 21. D 22. C 23. C 24. A 25. C 26. D 27. A 28. B 29. D 30. C 31. A 32. B 33. B 34. B 35. C 36. C

37. A 38. B 39. A 40. D 41. A 42. D 43. B 44. B 45. D 46. A 47. D 48. D 49. B 50. A 51. B 52. D 53. B

Chapter 16 Summary Category Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Belch - Chapter 16 Blooms: Analyze Blooms: Remember Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Difficult Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective: 1601 Define direct marketing and summarize the importance of a database for making marketing communication decisions. Learning Objective: 16-02 Express the decisions of a direct-marketing plan. Learning Objective: 16-03 Describe the content of a loyalty program. Learning Objective: 16-04 Evaluate the strengths and limitations of direct marketing. Learning Objective: 16-05 Apply the ideas of direct marketing within the development of an IMC plan.

# of Questions 53 53 16 24 14 8 23 22 15 23 5 6 4

Chapter 17 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

Approximately ____ percent of all Canadians accessed Internet media from any location in 2011, with nearly universal access for those under _____. A. 80; 50 B. 86; 55 C. 90; 35 D. 68; 40

Internet media advertising is so pervasive that specialized recognition now happens in the form of which awards? A. E-Promo Awards B. Webby Awards C. Interactive Marketing Awards D. Canadian Marketing Association Interactive Awards of Excellence

The Internet may not be the optimal medium for awareness in many situations due to its limited _____. A. recall B. branding C. frequency D. reach

Which of the following is NOT one of the four broad communication objectives of a website? A. disseminate information B. create awareness C. stimulate category purchase D. build brand image

Which of the following statements about the Internet's objective of disseminating information is true? A In business-to-business markets, having a website has become a necessity, especially for buyers to get . detailed information about the seller's offerings. B. Due to privacy issues, certain levels of government have reduced their use of the Internet to provide citizens with information. CMany consumer companies no longer use their websites as a means of communicating information . about their products and services. They are turning instead to various forms of social media. D. Consumer-generated content, as a means of disseminating information, suffers from lack of credibility.

The Internet can be used for branding purposes: A. as long as these efforts stand alone as a communication piece. B. because it is fairly simple to adapt this medium to branding and image-creating strategies. C. since there are many tools such as videos and animation that can create a transformational experience for the consumer. D. with the use of consumer-generated content, which resonates more closely with the audience.

Procter & Gamble's website, Vocalpoint, provides moms access to information, products, and samples and is a forum for feedback on new ideas and products. It was established to achieve the objective of: A. creating business-to-business opportunities. B. generating on-line sales. C. facilitating interaction. D. disseminating information.

A website demonstrates _____ if it offers multiple opportunities for the consumer to act upon, such as links, buttons, or connections to other utilities like social media. A. responsiveness B. reciprocity C. nonverbal information D. stickiness

Extensive use of pictures, sounds, and animation in a website demonstrates _____. A. responsiveness B. reciprocity C. nonverbal information D. stickiness

10. A website's _____ is the extent to which someone involved in communication over the Internet perceives the communication to be reciprocal, responsive, speedy, and characterized by the use of nonverbal information. A. effectiveness B. impact C. interactivity D. stickiness 11. Which of the following statements about display advertising on the Internet is NOT true? A. Internet display ads tend to look like the ads found in print media. B. Display ads are placed on virtually any Internet site, including social media and within e-mail messages. C. Canada's top advertisers put half of their display ad expenditures in social media. D While display advertising revenue has grown substantially, it is still nowhere near the revenues . generated by magazine advertising. 12. Banner ads: A. have a link embedded allowing users to move to another digital location. B. are mainly found at the top of the home page of Internet portal sites. C. are the reason why click rates in Canada are extremely high. D. cannot be measured for effectiveness, and this is the reason why advertisers are moving to other forms of Internet advertising. 13. _____ is/are newer computer software technology that permit(s) user interaction such as expansion of the ad, additional product description or movement that appears video-like. A. Interstitials B. Rich media C. Secure sites D. Pop-ups 14. Advertisements that appear on the screen when someone is browsing on the Internet are known as: A. pop-unders B. interstitials C. pop-ups D. banners 15. The most common form of advertising on the Web is: A. pop-ups B. interstitials C. banners D. sponsorships

16. At the website for iVillage.com, there is an ad that stretches across the top of the page for Clinique cosmetics. If you click on the ad, it will take you to the Clinique website where you can purchase Clinique cosmetics. The Clinique ad that appears at the iVillage website is an example of a(n): A. interstitial B. banner C. pop-up D. sponsorship 17. While Annie waited for the Mendocino apparel site to download, a small ad encouraging her to check out the summer clothes at the Hudson's Bay website appeared on her computer screen. The Hudson's Bay ad is an example of: A. content sponsorship B. an interstitial C. push technology D. a pop-up 18. ______ are ads that appear underneath the Web page and become visible only when the user leaves the site. A. Pop-unders B. Cookies C. Interstitials D. Pop-ups 19. A preliminary page that precedes the homepage of an Internet site is known as a(n): A. pop-up. B. splash page. C. interstitial. D. sponsored link. 20. A substantial form of advertising on the Internet is _____, in which advertisers pay only when a consumer clicks on their ad or link from a search engine page. A. banners B. content sponsorship C. pop-ups D. paid search 21. As of 2012, _____ was the dominant provider of paid search advertising. A. Yahoo B. Microsoft C. Google D. Facebook 22. Almost all of Google's revenue comes from selling advertisements associated with: A. search keywords. B. name brands. C. retailers. D. banner ads. 23. _____ is the process of improving the volume of traffic driven to one's site by a search engine through unpaid results as opposed to paid inclusions. A. Google AdSense B. Keyword targeting C. Search engine optimization D. Popularity detection

24. Which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy for search success? A. Optimize customization through past search history. B. Embed keyword text in visuals on the company's web page. C. Pay extra money for the search terms to increase the site's ranking. D. Provide unique and valuable content to appeal to designers of other sites so they will include a link on their site. 25. ______ are ads found on Internet sites such as Kijiji and Auto Trader, where consumers search for information when comparison shopping. A. Pay-per-click ads B. Classified and directory ads C. Used goods advertising D. Banner ads 26. Online directories such as Kijiji and Auto Trader have stolen a significant portion of ad revenue as a direct substitution for: A. Yellow Pages ads. B. Google search ads. C. Newspaper classifieds. D. Local radio ads. 27. The increased use of streaming video advertising messages is a direct result of: A. the increased penetration of broadband into households. B. the decreased readership of newspapers among young adults in Canada. C. the decreased viewership of television shows across all age groups. D. the fact that young viewers are looking for more exciting and engaging content. 28. Which of the following is NOT a way that companies are using video advertising on the Internet? A. Companies create new video messages for the Internet. B. Companies run the same spots they show on TV, using a hosting site such as YouTube. C. Companies run a television spot and then direct consumers to their website in order to view it, or a sequel to it, again. D Companies generally run longer video ads, of two minutes or more, on hosted sites such as YouTube . and others, because of the captive audiences found there. 29. ______ is a medium that uses the Internet to distribute audio and video files for downloading to various portable handheld devices for learning or entertainment purposes. A. Paid search B. Video on demand C. Digital video ads D. Podcasting 30. The most prominent form of advertising on podcasts at this time is: A. paid search. B. sponsorship. C. interstitials. D. There is no advertising on podcasts. 31. One of the newest and fastest growing forms of electronic advertising is: A. mobile advertising. B. sponsorships. C. digital billboards. D. video advertising. 32. Each of the following is a form of mobile advertising EXCEPT: A. short message service (SMS) B. pay-per-view C. display/sponsorship D. search

33. Air Miles sending permission-based text alerts customized by transaction activity to encourage shopping at affiliated sponsors is an example of: A. SMS advertising. B. cooperative advertising. C. digital partnership. D. mobile display advertising. 34. Each of the following is a limitation of SMS codes EXCEPT: A There is a time delay for registration with the Canadian Wireless Telecommunications Association to . protect consumers against spam. B The relatively low penetration of smart phones in Canada does not ensure that the use of SMS . advertising will deliver a favourable ROI to advertisers. C. Cell phone carriers are not all fully able to work with each type of code. D. Marketers are concerned with not having the proper metrics with which to measure success. 35. Current SMS codes may eventually be replaced with 2-dimensional barcodes called: A. 2-D SMS. B. Smart-codes. C. quick response codes. D. 2-dimensional mobile codes. 36. For a few years now, phones have permitted users to receive ______ content known as multimedia messaging services. A. spam B. text messages C. video D. audio 37. Which of the following is true about cellphone apps? A. Mobile app penetration slowly reached over 50% of all smart phone users in 2012. B. The highest use of cellphone apps is for social networking. C. The type of mobile apps that people access does not seem to vary according to the age of user. D. The number of mobile apps a person downloads does not seem to vary by age of user. 38. TV broadcasters are developing apps to foster enhanced viewer experiences while watching TV shows on their mobile devices. This relatively new phenomenon is referred to as: A. auxiliary advertising. B. second-screen experience. C. TV-to-mobile video viewing. D. mobile direct streaming. 39. Promotional planners consider social media to be a media type, just like television or radio. Carrying that notion through would mean that social networking would be the ____, and Facebook would be an example of a ____. A. media class; media vehicle B. objective; social media site C. media vehicle; media strategy D. mobile strategy; tactic 40. An Internet display ad is said to be socially-enabled if it is an ad that ____ A. targets consumers who are new to social media. B. links to a social networking site when clicked. C. is published on a social networking site. D. is published on a social networking site and links to another social networking site when clicked.

41. Many applications for directing display ads to any other Internet site rely on _____ to determine which sites would be appropriate. A. media planners B. results from second-screen experiences C. targeting D. mobile direct streaming media 42. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding time of day targeting? A. Working people are accessing Internet media during the day for business purposes, primarily in the morning. B. Internet accessing declines during the afternoon and dinner time and then peaks again during the evening for leisure purposes. C. Recent Canadian data suggest that the biggest growth in Internet media use is evening access of news and information sites. D Time of day targeting allows advertisers to direct a message to consumers when they are consuming . certain Internet media vehicles. 43. ____ targeting is the practice of advertising on a particular Internet site based on its content. A. Time of day B. Contextual C. Subject matter D. Behavioural 44. The targeting that allows advertisers to adjust their brand messages depending upon where the user is located is known as: A. contextual targeting B. latitudinal targeting C. geographic targeting D. environmental targeting 45. Targeting consumers according to their website-surfing conduct is known as: A. contextual targeting B. attitudinal targeting C. behavioural targeting D. site-loyalty targeting 46. Which of the following statements is true regarding behavioural targeting? A. Behaviour is not a critical variable when applying audience segmentation to Internet advertising. B Research has determined that a consumer's leisure-oriented Internet behaviour is more indicative of . one's purchase patterns than their business-oriented behaviour. C. Clickstream data can help identify segments of potential buyers in order to direct ads specifically to them. D. There is a one-to-one correlation between a consumer's Internet surfing behaviour and their intention to purchase. 47. Each of the following is a social media class resulting from user-generated content EXCEPT: A. collaborative projects B. podcasts C. blogs D. virtual game worlds 48. The most significant media trend in recent years is: A. the melding of sales promotion and advertising activities. B. the consumer adoption of social media. C. the incidence of multiple television sets in the majority of Canadian households. D. video gaming.

49. Virtual game world advertising is most closely aligned with which traditional media vehicle? A. billboards B. product placement C. public relations D. cinema advertising 50. Research has defined consumers' online brand-related activities (COBRAs) as being each of the following EXCEPT: A. consuming B. contributing C. critiquing D. creating 51. Rating products, joining a brand's social network page, and commenting in brand blogs are all part of this consumers' online brand-related activity (COBRA). A. consuming B. contributing C. critiquing D. creating 52. Because a branded Facebook page further promotes the brand's image and extends the content of the brand's website, one might call it a form of _____ media. A. earned B. social C. consumption D. owned 53. Which of the following scenarios might lead one to consider sites like Facebook to be "earned" media? A. The brand develops a Facebook page with similar content to its branded website, in order to extend the brand's image. B. Ads are displayed on third-party Facebook pages. C. Ads on Facebook pages are targeted according to the visitor's online surfing behaviour. D. Consumers visit a branded Facebook page, "like" it, and further communicate their positive consumption experiences. 54. Ad products such as promoted accounts, promoted tweets, and promoted trends are all associated with which social media application? A. Facebook B. Foursquare C. Twitter D. Tumblr 55. In what form of social media advertising does the message from a customer during a performance of Cirque du Soleil act as a testimonial so that potential customers can virtually experience the spectacle? A. promoted tweet B. promoted account C. blog post D. social networking exchange 56. Who is required to pay when a person retweets, replies, favourites, or clicks on a brand's promoted tweet? A. the consumer B. the advertiser C. Twitter D. there is no cost to do these things

57. Which of the following is NOT a key question that marketers are asking in relation to using Twitter for advertising? A. What message should be sent via Twitter? B. How frequently should the messages be sent? C. Why would someone be motivated to receive our Twitter feed? D. Is the consumer-generated content on our Twitter feed be something that we need to monitor? 58. Vehicles on the Internet where users can share video, photo images, and audio media are called: A. social networking sites. B. content communities. C. podcasts. D. interactive activity zones. 59. YouTube generates revenue through each of the following EXCEPT: A. viewing fees. B. standard banner display ads. C. rich media ads. D. in-video overlay ads. 60. YouTube channels host branded video messages, thus offering an organization a form of _____ media. A. earned B. social C. consumption D. owned 61. A ______ is a Web-based publication consisting primarily of periodic articles. A. sales promotion B. podcast C. blog D. social networking site 62. ____ reflect the writings of an individual, a community, a political organization, or a corporation. A. Promoted tweets B. User-generated content C. Blogs D. Video overlays 63. Blogs are a multifaceted brand communication tool, in that it provides all of the following opportunities EXCEPT: A. paid media through ad placement within the blog. B. user-generated content allowing for only positive feedback, as the blogger monitors and controls added content. C. owned media akin to the brand's website. D. a friendly public relations face to the general public. 64. Bloggers act similarly to journalists who feature product stories in traditional print media. This gives them: A. source credibility with consumers. B. the ability to charge whatever they wish for ad space within their blogs. C. access to free products and passes to events. D. the space to write as much as they wish about a particular subject or experience.

65. The need for digital ad placement firms is supported by the fact that: A. celebrities are charging exorbitant rates to add their voice to a brand's social media presence. B. the blogosphere is very fragmented, which makes it difficult to determine where to place one's ads. C. personal bloggers wield a great deal of influence over consumers when describing their brand experiences. D. specialized vehicles like blogs and YouTube channels are selling their advertising space far too cheaply to be effective. 66. A collaborative project which permits users to add, remove, or change text-based content is known as: A. a tweet. B. a user-generated promotion. C. a wiki. D. a group think. 67. Which of the following is NOT a social bookmarking site? A. Twitter B. Pinterest C. Reddit D. Facebook 68. In terms of sales promotional tools such as contest entries and other incentives, Internet media: A. acts as the delivery or execution mechanism. B. is a buffer between more credible branded content and short-term promotional hype. C. is not very useful due to audience fragmentation. D. ensures continued use of the product beyond the promotional timing. 69. Loyal customers can be awarded with _____ such as ringtones, wallpapers, emoticons, etc. A. promotional overlays B. branded content C. digital treats D. contest overlays 70. Marketers use ______ to reward loyal customers with various types of points, badges, opportunities to play extended games and other incentives through: A. wikis and sales promotions B. electronic overlays C. digital treats D. virtually continuity programs 71. The basic problem regarding measuring Internet effectiveness is: A. it concerns with research methods curtailed measurement activities. B. standardizing a method for determining the size of the audience. C. that technical procedures for accurately reporting are not in place. D. that industry representatives could not agree upon guidelines. 72. All of the following are results of the IAB task force formed to address issues surrounding Internet effectiveness measures EXCEPT: A. Identified technical procedures for accurately reporting when an ad impression had occurred. B. Developed accepted procedures for auditing the data which are different from those of traditional major media. C. Metrics were developed to determine the size of the target audience. D. Agreed upon guidelines for the disclosure of research methodology were put into place. 73. The measurement of the number of users exposed to a Web page is called: A. page impressions. B. visits. C. unique visitors. D. ad impressions.

74. The measurement of the number of user interactions with an ad is called: A. page impressions. B. ad impressions. C. clicks. D. click-through rate. 75. Which of the following is NOT an advantage associated with using the Internet? A. its ability to target very specific groups of individuals B. interactive capabilities of the medium C. lack of clutter D. potential for creativity 76. The _____ of the Internet make it possible to carry on one-to-one marketing with increased success in both the business and the consumer markets. A. interactive capabilities B. media image C. costs D. creativity 77. Which of these has been cited as a disadvantage associated with using the Internet? A. message tailoring B. limited creativity C. interactive capabilities D. poor reach 78. One example of the use of _____ on the Internet is provided by Chrysler. Working with reporters, Chrysler developed a one-stop information source for the media. A. sales promotion B. personal selling C. direct marketing D. public relations 79. Yesterday when Enrique checked his e-mail, he had an offer to buy software that would make it easier for him to file his income tax next year. This e-mail offer is an example of how the Internet and _____ can complement each other. A. sales promotion B. personal selling C. direct marketing D. public relations

Chapter 17 Key 1. B 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. C 8. B 9. C 10. C 11. D 12. A 13. B 14. C 15. C 16. B 17. B 18. A 19. B 20. D 21. C 22. A 23. C 24. B 25. B 26. C 27. A 28. D 29. D 30. B 31. A 32. B 33. A 34. B 35. C 36. C

37. C 38. B 39. A 40. B 41. C 42. C 43. B 44. C 45. C 46. C 47. B 48. B 49. B 50. C 51. B 52. D 53. D 54. C 55. A 56. B 57. D 58. B 59. A 60. D 61. C 62. C 63. B 64. A 65. B 66. C 67. D 68. A 69. C 70. D 71. B 72. B 73. A 74. C

75. C 76. A 77. D 78. D 79. C

Chapter 17 Summary Category Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Belch - Chapter 17 Bloom's: Analyze Bloom's: Apply Bloom's: Remember Bloom's: Understand Difficulty: Difficult Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective: 17-01 Describe the general characteristics of Internet users and explain website communication. Learning Objective: 17-02 Identify the advertising formats of Internet media. Learning Objective: 17-03 Illustrate how to use social media in an IMC plan. Learning Objective: 17-04 Define measures of Internet media effectiveness. Learning Objective: 17-05 Evaluate the strengths and limitations of Internet media. Learning Objective: 17-06 Apply the ideas of Internet media within the development of an IMC program.

# of Questions 79 79 15 2 52 10 4 42 33 10 36 24 4 3 2

Chapter 18 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

Which area is NOT regulated by the CRTC (Canadian Radio-Television and Telecommunications Commission)? A. Infomercials B. Advertising limits C. False or misleading ads D. Signal substitution

The federal Competition Act addresses ______. A. infomercials B. advertising limits for TV commercials during the broadcast day C. Internet D. false or misleading advertising

The ______ approves all infomercials for any television station and network. A. CRTC B. Competition Act C. Consumer Protection Act D. Advertising Standards Canada

Which one of the following statements about the Advertising Standards Canada is NOT true? A The ASC (Advertising Standards Canada) is a not-for-profit, self-regulatory, industry body with a . mandate to create and maintain community confidence in advertising. B. The ASC represents advertisers, media organizations, and advertising industry suppliers. C. Its Standards Division administers government-regulated codes. D.Its Advertising Clearance Division previews advertisements in five industry categories, as well as ads directed toward children.

The ______ is a not-for-profit, self-regulatory industry body with a mandate to create and maintain community confidence in advertising. A. CRTC B. Competition Act C. Consumer protection Act D. Advertising Standards Canada

The CRTC is involved in: A. false ads B. misleading ads C. advertising limits D. alcohol and drugs

The CRTC ensures that specialty services carry a maximum of ___ minutes of advertising per hour during the broadcast day. A. 5 B. 12 C. 15 D. 20

The mandate that allows the CRTC to preclude Canadian Super Bowl fans from seeing some of the U.S. ads broadcast during the big game is the issue of: A. advertising limits. B. signal substitution. C. cross-border exchange. D. Canadian protectionism.

Which of the following is NOT a clause contained in the Canadian Code of Advertising Standards? A. bait and switch B. superstitions and fears C. testimonials D. subliminal tactics

10. Which of the following principles is NOT one of the guidelines that a member of the Association of Canadian Advertisers should use in preparing and evaluating its ads? A. advertisers must behave responsibly B. advertisers forego their right to freedom of speech in order to not offend or mislead consumers C. advertisers make an important contribution to the Canadian economy of culture D. advertisers support a vibrant, competitive economy 11. The decision to advertise on "better-for-you" products to children stems directly from: A. criminal investigations into food product development. B. the growing obesity problem among children. C. McDonald's being the first to offer fruit snacks as a substitute for french fries. D. elementary schools deciding not to provide high-sugar snacks in their vending machines and cafeterias. 12. CRTC gender portrayal guidelines pertain to each of the following overall clauses EXCEPT: A. sexuality. B. decision making. C. ageism. D. violence. 13. Which of the following is NOT an area from which complaints to the Standards Division of the ASC arise? A. contravention of government guidelines B. consumer complaints C. trade disputes D. special interest group complaints 14. The Advertising Standards Canada guidelines do not cover product evaluations and reviews found on the Internet because: A. the Internet is too new a medium to be included in guidelines crafted twenty years ago. B. product reviews on websites and blogs are not considered advertising. C. the guidelines make certain concessions for more innovative media types. D. there have not yet been any complaints against this type of communication. 15. According to the Consumer Protection Act of Quebec, it is illegal to direct commercial advertising messages to persons younger than: A. 6 B. 10 C. 13 D. 15 16. _____ are moral principles and values that govern the actions and decisions of an individual or group. A. Regulations B. Guidelines C. Ethics D. Social criticisms

17. Which of the following DOES NOT express a valid conclusion about the truthfulness of advertising? A. It is difficult to determine what constitutes untruthful or misleading advertising since deception can occur in subtle ways. B. One of the major complaints about advertising is that many ads are misleading. C Most advertisers do not intentionally mislead or deceive consumers, but some will test the limits of . various rules and regulations to gain a competitive advantage. D. National advertisers are likely to risk consumer trust and confidence by intentionally deceiving them. 18. Which of the following expresses a valid conclusion about the truthfulness of advertising? A It can be difficult to determine if an ad is misleading consumers since deception is partly dependent on . how a consumer perceives an advertising message. B Even though most advertisers intend to deliberately mislead consumers, they often present only . information that is favourable to their position. C. Many critics of advertising feel that advertising should include puffery or embellished messages. D. Many critics of advertising do not believe that advertising can or should be informative. 19. In the 1950s and 1960s, many auto shops gave away promotional calendars to customers. The calendars typically showed some buxom beauty that was scantily clothed and posed in some atypical position in or on an automobile. Critics of advertising today would call such calendars: A. asocial B. unfair C. deceptive D. offensive and in bad taste 20. Which of the following ads would likely be considered irritating or distasteful to many consumers? A. ads for weight loss products B. ads for feminine hygiene products C. ads for online dating services D. infomercials for acne remedies 21. Each of the following statements describes advertising that can be perceived as irritating or distasteful EXCEPT: A. Consumers can be offended by the mere fact that certain products such as contraceptives are even advertised. BA study of prime time commercials found that consumers have become used to ads for personal care . products, and they seldom perceive them as irritating or distasteful any more. C. Consumers tend to dislike ads for products they don't use or brands they don't buy. D. Ads using sexual appeals or nudity offend many consumers. 22. The type of advertising appeal that has received the most criticism for being in poor taste is: A. personal computer ads targeted at children B. fear appeals used to sell shampoos and deodorants C. humorous appeals used to make fun of people who are socially inept D. ads using sex and/or nudity 23. Which of the following describes the use of sexual appeals in advertising? A. Sexual appeals are often criticized because they are not even relevant or appropriate for the product being advertised. B Sexual appeals are less often criticized for containing nudity or using suggestive dialogue as consumers . become more used to these elements in movies and video games. C. Sexual appeals are never criticized because they are demeaning to men. D Networks have the right to scrutinize commercials carefully when it comes to sexually oriented . advertising since they are similarly diligent with their programs. 24. Many advertising experts argue that what underlies the increased use of shock appeal is: A. the pressure on marketers and their agencies to do whatever it takes to get their ads noticed. B. actually, the reduction in clutter has made shock appeal less necessary. C. that sexual appeal is having less of an effect on audiences. D. it is a new type of appeal that consumers tend to react to.

25. Young children may be especially vulnerable to advertising for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: A. they lack the experience and knowledge required to understand and evaluate persuasive messages B. they cannot distinguish between reality and fantasy C. they often have trouble differentiating between commercials and programs D. their parents do not always perceive the selling intent of commercials 26. Critics of advertising aimed at children use all of the following arguments to explain why it is wrong EXCEPT: A. preschool children cannot discriminate between commercials and television programs B. children lack an understanding of how advertising works and thus cannot effectively use cognitive defences against it C. children do not perceive the selling or persuasive intent of commercials D. advertising is a part of life, and children must learn to deal with it as part of the consumer socialization process 27. The consumer socialization process: A. refers to how consumers satisfy their need to belong B. explains why consumers will never completely abandon department store shopping for Internet shopping C. is the acquiring of skills needed to function in the marketplace D. explains how marketers engage in relationship marketing 28. Acquiring the skills needed to function in the marketplace is called the _____ process. A. consumer socialization B. consumer education C. caveat emptor D. needs-focus 29. Critics of advertising claim that it can have a(n) _____ effect on consumer values by encouraging ____, which is a preoccupation with material things rather than intellectual or spiritual concerns. A. positive; corporeality B. adverse; materialism C. negative; cocooning D. detrimental; stereotyping 30. Which of the following is NOT a social criticism of advertising? A. Advertising is offensive and distasteful. B. Advertising takes advantage of children. C. Advertising increases product costs and reduces competition. D. Advertising makes consumers buy things they don't need. 31. By creating needs rather than merely fulfilling them, by surrounding consumers with images of the good life, and by showing products as symbols of status and success, advertising can create: A. ethnocentricity B. consumer socialization C. materialism D. informative ads 32. Defenders of advertising take issue with the argument that it should be limited to dealing with basic needs. One of their reasons is: A. In our society, most higher-level needs are already satisfied for most people. B. It is natural to move from higher-order needs to basic ones. C. Consumers are free to choose the degree to which they attempt to satisfy their desires. D. Wise advertisers associate their products and services with lower-level needs like safety and food.

33. According to those who believe that advertising does NOT have an adverse effect on consumer values, advertising: A. is a major determinant of society's taste and values B. is merely a reflection of society's tastes and values C. is solely accountable for the increase in materialism due to its nature and power D. cannot create needs but only exploit existing ones 34. For which of the following products might one argue that advertising has created needs rather than responded to them? A. automobiles B. calculators C. canned soup D. designer jeans 35. Stereotypical portrayals of adult women in North American television and print advertising emphasize their: A. activism and autonomy B. power C. passivity and deference D. ability to achieve under any circumstances 36. Which of the following statements describing how advertising portrays women is NOT the case? A. Advertising is often criticized for portraying women in strong leadership roles. B. While sexism and stereotyping of women still exists, advertising's portrayal of women has improved in recent years. C. Many advertisers depict women in a diversity of roles since their place in society has changed in recent years. D. Stereotypical portrayals of women show them as lacking intelligence and credibility. 37. A recent study suggests that minorities in Canadian advertising are _________. A. very overrepresented B. under-represented C. reflecting the Canadian population D. not represented at all 38. Which of the following media would be most vulnerable to influence and pressure from advertisers on the type of stories the medium covers? A. a major television network such as CBC B. a major newspaper such as The Globe and Mail C. a major magazine such as Time or Maclean's D. a growing newspaper or magazine which receives a high amount of advertising from a particular industry 39. Which of the following is an argument that supports the charge that advertisers can and do control the media? A. Advertisers need the media more than the media needs any individual advertisers. B. The media are very dependent on advertising as the source of their income. C. Many media have a broad base of advertiser support and can afford to lose advertisers attempting to exert control over them. D. There is no such argument; it is in the best self-interest of the media not to be influenced or controlled by the advertiser. 40. Using economic censorship, applying pressure to limit the coverage of a controversial story that might reflect negatively on a company and trying to control the editorial content of magazines are all ways that: A. consumer advocates fight for the rights of the masses. B. media manipulates advertisers. C. advertisers exert influence on the media. D. media controls content on television.

41. According to Shelby Hunt, the purpose of all advertising is to: A. inform B. persuade C. enhance brand image D. change attitude 42. What is the traditional defense for advertising's role in our economic system? A. Advertising leads to an increased standard of living. B. Advertising stimulates new product development. C. Advertising provides useful information for buying decisions. D. Advertising increases competition and prevents monopolies. 43. Economists argue that advertising can have a negative effect on consumer choice by: A. using market aggregation B. reducing the opportunities for new products to be introduced C. adding to the cost of products and discouraging competition and market entry D. creating brand monopolies 44. Which of the following statements can be used to refute the argument that advertising reduces the number of choices available to consumers? A. Advertising can be used to create and maintain brand loyalty for dominant brands. B.Dominant brands can afford to spend more on advertising and that makes it difficult for smaller brands to compete against them. C. Heavily advertised brands dominate the market in certain product categories such as soft drinks, beer, and cereal. D When a successful new product is introduced, competitors quickly follow and use advertising to inform . consumers about their brand. 45. A situation where a company creates conditions that makes it difficult for other firms to enter a market is known as: A. a barrier to entry B. economies of scale C. a market blockade D. market dominance 46. Procter & Gamble spends millions of dollars a year on advertising for its various consumer products and can make large media purchases at rates lower than its smaller competitors. This is an example of how a large advertiser can achieve a competitive advantage based on: A. differentiation B. economies of scale C. market aggrandizement D. discrimination 47. Defenders of advertising that argue that advertising is NOT a barrier to market entry contend that: A. large volumes of advertising are necessary to compete in many industries B. there are economies of scale in advertising C. advertising is only one factor amongst many that contribute to the success of a product D. there is no relationship between intensity of advertising and market share 48. Many economists argue that advertising can have a detrimental effect on competition by: A. creating barriers to entry that results in less competition and higher prices B. allowing unfair comparative advertising C. minimizing the importance of pricing and distribution strategy D. lessening the importance of good budgeting strategies

49. For many years, Hershey's spent very little money on advertising, yet its chocolate bar was a successful brand. This success can be interpreted as evidence that: A. advertising is really not needed for a brand to be successful B. advertising increases product costs and prices C. luck plays a major role in the success of a product D. product quality and image are important determinants of success 50. Critics of advertising argue that: A. monies spent on advertising is an expense that must be covered and is generally passed on to the consumer B. consumers are only willing to purchase heavily advertised brands and thus will end up paying more for them C. advertising makes markets more competitive, which in turns requires more advertising and more price competition D. advertising makes consumers purchase products and services for irrational reasons 51. From an economic perspective, advertising might lower the cost of a product by: A. creating barriers to entry for less efficient firms B. moving consumers to the consumer socialization stage of the buying process C. making it possible for firms to realize economies of scale through expansion of sales volume D. allowing firms to advertise at high levels along with competitors 52. The belief that advertising equals _____ reflects traditional economic thinking that views advertising as a way to change consumers' tastes, lower their sensitivity to price, and build brand loyalty among buyers of the advertised brand. A. economies of scale B. materialism C. competitive advantage D. market power 53. The belief that advertising equals _____ sees advertising as providing consumers with useful information, increasing their price sensitivity, and increasing competition in the market. A. information B. materialism C. market power D. competitive advantage

Chapter 18 Key 1. C 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. C 7. B 8. B 9. D 10. B 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. B 15. C 16. C 17. D 18. A 19. D 20. B 21. B 22. D 23. A 24. A 25. D 26. D 27. C 28. A 29. B 30. C 31. C 32. C 33. B 34. D 35. C 36. A

37. B 38. D 39. B 40. C 41. B 42. C 43. C 44. D 45. A 46. B 47. C 48. A 49. D 50. A 51. C 52. D 53. A

Chapter 18 Summary Category Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation Belch - Chapter 18 Blooms: Analyze Blooms: Remember Blooms: Understand Difficulty: Difficult Difficulty: Easy Difficulty: Moderate Learning Objective: 18-01 Describe the advertising regulation system in Canada. Learning Objective: 18-02 Evaluate the ethical perspectives of advertising. Learning Objective: 18-03 Explain the social effects of advertising. Learning Objective: 1804 Examine the economic role of advertising and its effect on consumer choice; competition; and product costs and prices.

# of Questions 53 53 13 31 9 2 32 19 15 13 13 12