Advertising and Promotion An Integrated Marketing Communications Perspective, 6th Canadian Edition, 6e Michael Guolla George Belch Michael Belch (Test Bank All Chapters, 100% Original Verified, A+ Grade) Answers At The End Of Each Chapter Chapter 1 MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Media strategy includes each of the following decisions EXCEPT: A) communication channels to be used
B) type of media to be used
C) overall slogan
D) specific titles or shows
2) Which of the following best describes a criticism of IMC?
1)
2)
A) Focuses primarily on the tactical coordination of various communication tools with the goal of making them look and sound alike B) Unifies communication for consistent message and image C) Differentiates communication to multiple customer groups D) Uses database-centred communication for tangible results 3) Suggestions that McCain launch new frozen products based on changing trends and
3)
consumer demographics are as a result of: A) an external environmental analysis B) global warming C) McCain's revised marketing objectives D) an internal financial analysis 4) ________ is the coordination of all seller-initiated efforts to set up channels of
4)
information and persuasion to sell goods and services. A) Organizational communication B) Promotion C) Advertising D) Publicity 5) Some locations offering customized service and assistance, some offering different
5)
models at different prices, or the availability of online purchasing are examples of: A) a multi-media universe B) a differentiated product approach C) multi-level marketing D) a multi-channel environment 6) Each of the following is true about brand equity EXCEPT:
6)
A) It builds on the favourable image and impressions of differentiation of a brand. B) It is a tangible asset which can provide competitive advantage. C) It is a challenge for marketers to consistently measure brand equity. D) It is a measure of consumer attachment to a brand. 7) ________ is nonpersonal communication neither directly paid for nor run under
identified sponsorship. A) Sales promotion C) Publicity
B) Public relations D) Advertising
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7)
8) Which of the following is NOT a specialized marketing communication service? A) Interactive agency
B) Marketing research company
C) Direct-response agency
D) Public relations firm
9) When the brand team at Dentyne send out samples of their new fiery gum flavours to
8)
9)
radio DJs and television hosts with the hope that they will talk about it on air, it is an example of: A) public relations B) trade sales promotion C) publicity D) personal selling 10) How does advertising differ from publicity?
10)
A) Advertising typically utilizes mass media, and publicity does not. B) Advertising is paid for by the sponsoring organization, and publicity is not. C) Advertising is done by manufacturers, and publicity is done be retailers. D) Advertising is never institutional (i.e., promoting the company itself), and publicity
usually is institutional in character. 11) ________ is the process of planning and executing the conception, pricing, promotion,
11)
and distribution of ideas, good, and services to create exchanges that satisfy individual and organizational objectives. A) Sales promotion B) Marketing C) Advertising D) Integrated marketing communications 12) The primary objective of these members of the promotional process is to sell their time
12)
or space so companies can effectively reach their target audiences with their messages. A) Media organizations B) Advertisers C) Advertising agencies D) Interactive agencies 13) Before determining the appropriate promotional mix for his new annual campaign, the
13)
Triscuit crackers brand manager needs to do a competitive analysis, including: A) The brand equity and consumer preference of PC's Woven Wheat Thins. B) A review of how much profit Kraft expects his brand to contribute to the overall marketing plan. C) The relative media costs of Chatelaine and Canadian Living magazines. D) Whether people prefer eating Triscuit warmed up or straight out of the box. 14) A review of a movie in Maclean's magazine or on "Canada AM" is an example of: A) media-selling
B) promotion
C) personal selling
D) publicity
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14)
15) The ________ is a written document that describes the overall marketing strategy and
15)
programs developed for an organization, product line, or brand. A) promotional plan B) communications plan situation analysis C) D) marketing plan 16) Which of these is NOT a reason why marketers use advertising?
16)
A) To set an appropriate price across various channels B) To create symbolic appeals for a company or brand C) To take advantage of the fact that advertising is a very cost-effective method of
reaching a large audience D) To strike a responsive chord with consumers when differentiation across other elements of the marketing mix is difficult 17) Individuals and companies that perform specialized functions such as marketing
17)
research, video production, package design, and event marketing are known as: A) Support agencies B) Tier-two agencies C) Collateral services D) Marketing specialty firms 18) The Bradford Exchange is a company that sells collectible plates. If you order one plate
18)
from the company, you will receive multiple mailings each month announcing new issues and encouraging you to place your order. Given this information, which promotional element do you think The Bradford Exchange depends upon most heavily? A) Direct marketing B) Advertising C) Public relations D) Sale promotion 19) Product protection, storage, communication, and image are all functional benefits of: A) brand marketing
B) packaging
C) product attributes
D) brand identity
20) ________ is defined as any paid form of nonpersonal communication about an
19)
20)
organization, product, service or idea by an identified sponsor. A) The promotional mix B) Sales promotion C) Publicity D) Advertising 21) The ________ approves and pays for the creative work and media plan. A) advertiser
B) agency-of-record
C) promotional agency
D) media planning group
22) A market analysis includes a number of factors like market size, growth, and ________. A) profitability
B) age
C) census
D) global ownership
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21)
22)
23) Because of the perceived objectivity of the source, which element of the promotional
mix is usually regarded as most credible? A) Direct marketing C) Sales promotion
23)
B) Advertising D) Publicity
24) Many companies are taking a(n) ________ perspective in developing their IMC
24)
programs whereby they consider all of the potential ways of reaching their target audience and presenting the company or brand in a favourable manner. A) modern B) aggressive C) audience contact D) traditional 25) Kim Rossister, brand manager at GM, plans for a new communication campaign and
25)
intends to consider all the potential ways of reaching her target audience and presenting her brand in a favourable manner. Kim believes this approach can help develop an efficient and effective communication campaign. This approach is best described as: A) persuasive communication perspective B) database-centred perspective C) audience contact perspective D) relationship marketing perspective 26) The concept of IMC suggests that all elements of the promotional campaign must be
26)
carefully linked. Which of the following statements is NOT true in this regard? A) Consumers receive so many promotional exposures that they see everything as advertising. B) IMC messaging must be both unified yet differentiated, to deliver a consistent image to various potential targets. C) There are many potential audience contacts; a focused approach ensures that the message is clear and the brand is represented well. D) Critics argue that IMC ignores the existence of multiple target audiences. 27) ________ is a promotional mix element that allows for direct contact between a buyer
27)
and seller and allows a message to be modified according to the needs or reactions of the customer. A) Sales promotion B) Direct mail C) Public relations D) Personal selling 28) IMC planning can best be described as:
28)
A) coordinating the activities of people who come in contact with the prospect or consumer B) measuring the effectiveness of any communication with the target market C) placing coupons in each Sunday edition of major newspapers D) skillfully coordinating the promotional mix elements to develop an effective communication program
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29) ________ is the process of creating, maintaining, and enhancing long-term relationships
29)
with individual customers as well as other stakeholders for mutual benefit. A) Integrated marketing communications B) Relationship marketing C) Marketing planning D) Exchange 30) The relative balance between what a consumer "receives" for what he/she "pays" is
known as: A) benefit
B) price
C) exchange
30)
D) value
31) Prime-time network television reached ________ on a daily basis.
31)
A) only older adults
B) 85 percent of Canadians
C) less than 50 percent of Canadians
D) all Canadians
32) ________ should be the guiding force for development of the overall marketing
32)
communications strategy and of objectives for each promotional mix area. A) Sales and marketing objectives B) Promotional and marketing objectives C) Communication and behavioural objectives D) Marketing and behavioural objectives 33) Advertising may be defined as any:
33)
A) paid form of nonpersonal communication about a product, service, or company B) personal communication from a company representative to prospective buyers C) communication about a product, service, or company D) communication that moves a product from one level to another level of the
distribution channel 34) Canadian advertisers spend more than ________ annually. A) $22 billion
B) $14 billion
C) $1 billion
34) D) $8 billion
35) Which of the following statements referring to the effects of consumer adoption of
35)
technology and media on IMC planning is NOT true? A) Brands use traditional media to direct consumers to their website or social media. B) TV advertising reaches smaller and more selective audiences. C) Broadcasters have been slow to offer their TV shows for viewing over the Internet. D) TV audiences are fragmented, requiring advertisers to place their messages in other media. 36) When Jennifer Lawrence appears on "The Tonight Show with Jay Leno" as a guest to
discuss her role in the "Hunger Games" movies, it is an example of: A) publicity B) direct marketing personal selling C) D) advertising 5
36)
37) Which of the following statements about direct marketing is true?
37)
A) Direct marketing is seldom, if ever, used by companies that have a sales force. B) Direct marketing does not exist beyond direct mail and mail-order catalogues. C) One of the major tools of direct marketing is indirect-response advertising. D) Direct marketing has not traditionally been considered an element of the
promotional mix, since it had distinct objectives, strategies and tactics. 38) The increased usage of relationship marketing is due to the fact that:
38)
A) customers want products and services that are mass-produced rather than tailored to their specific needs and wants B) customers have become less demanding C) retaining customers is generally more cost effective than acquiring new ones D) it is very costly to maintain customer databases 39) Sales promotion programs targeted toward marketing intermediaries such as wholesalers,
distributors, and retailers are known as: A) a functional inducement C) a consumer sales promotion
39)
B) integrated promotions D) a trade sales promotion
40) Advertisements for a Parkell tooth polisher in Canadian Dentist, a publication for
40)
dentists, are an example of ________ advertising. A) progressive B) primary demand C) professional D) trade 41) The IMC Planning Model outlines four stages prior to program implementation, in what
41)
order? A) Review the marketing plan; Assess the marketing communications situation; Determine IMC plan objectives; Develop IMC programs. B) Develop IMC programs; Assess the marketing communications situation; Review the marketing plan; Determine IMC plan objectives. C) Review the marketing plan; Determine IMC plan objectives; Assess the marketing communications situation; Develop IMC programs. D) Assess the marketing communications situation; Determine IMC plan objectives; Develop IMC programs; Review the marketing plan. 42) Which of the following is the BEST example of a marketing exchange? A) Jessie helped Alison move a heavy piece of furniture. B) John gave Sahil a menu, and he placed his food order. C) Vlad and Ingrid gave their son a trip for his graduation. D) For mowing her yard, Mrs. Forrest gave Ben a chocolate cake.
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42)
43) Sales promotions targeted to the ultimate users of a product such as sampling, coupons,
contests, or sweepstakes are known as: A) trade sales promotion C) direct marketing incentives
43)
B) consumer sales promotion D) strategic promotions
44) A marketing plan usually includes all of the following EXCEPT:
44)
A) a detailed situation analysis B) a program for implementing marketing strategy C) criteria and procedures for the hiring of all marketing personnel D) the establishment of marketing objectives 45) Campo Outdoor Products has developed a new backpack. It will expand to three times its
45)
initial size, be water resistant, and lightweight. These are what kind of marketing decisions? A) product features B) package design C) price allowance D) service level 46) Which of the following statements about marketing and IMC plans is NOT necessarily
46)
true? A) The IMC plan is developed similarly to the marketing plan and often uses its
detailed information B) The first step in the IMC planning process is to review the marketing plan C) The marketing plan specifies the roles advertising and other promotional mix elements play in the overall marketing program D) The marketing objectives in the marketing plan should be reproduced as communication objectives in the IMC plan 47) ________ is described as one of the "new-generation" marketing approaches that helps
47)
companies to better focus their efforts in acquiring, retaining, and developing relationships with customers and other stakeholders. A) Public relations B) IMC C) Transaction marketing D) Online advertising 48) Which of the following is NOT a general characteristic of IMC?
48)
A) Differentiated communication to multiple customer groups B) Competitive-oriented communication C) Unified communication for consistent message and image D) Relationships fostering communication with existing customers 49) ________ refer to what is to be accomplished by the overall marketing programs and is
stated in terms of sales, market share, and profitability. A) Communication objectives B) Marketing objectives External analysis factors C) D) Segmentation approaches
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49)
50) One of the major tools of direct marketing is ________ advertising, whereby a product is
50)
promoted through an ad that encourages the consumer to purchase directly from the manufacturer. A) third-party B) product benefit C) business-to-business D) direct-response 51) This is the added value or goodwill resulting from a favourable image and/or consumer
51)
attachment to a company name, brand name, or trademark: A) product symbolism B) brand equity C) product appeal D) brand identity 52) ________ can be a cost-effective way to build a positive attitude toward the brand in
52)
potential consumers prior to, during, or after purchasing a product. A) Sales promotion B) Advertising C) Price discounting D) Personal selling 53) Which of the following statements about publicity is true?
53)
A) Publicity generally has a broader purpose and objective than public relations. B) Publicity and public relations are synonyms for each other. C) Publicity has more of a long term, on-going purpose than public relations. D) Publicity is an important communication technique used in public relations. 54) In order to identify attractive market segments, Brian's Electronics Sales & Service
54)
conducts a consumer analysis which includes a review of all of the following EXCEPT: A) The growth of the electronics industry based on new technologies, particularly mobile. B) Factors influencing consumer purchase decisions for electronics products and services. C) Electronics buying and usage patterns of various consumer groups. D) Demographic and psychographic traits of current and high potential customers. 55) The objective behind the McDonald's “Our Food. Your Questions." campaign was:
55)
A) to show the effectiveness of social media in dealing with consumer complaints. B) to dispel various "food myths" about the quality of food offered at McDonald's. C) to eliminate competition between McDonald's and Tim Hortons in the breakfast
arena. D) to enhance the presence of McDonald's in the Canadian foodservice market. 56) Which of the following is NOT a good example of a communications objective? A) To create awareness of the attributes of a brand or product B) To increase sales volume C) To create a favourable attitude about a product D) To develop consumers' intentions to purchase a product
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56)
57) When an organization systematically plans and distributes information in an attempt to
57)
control its image, it is engaging in a function known as: A) public relations B) integrated marketing advertising C) D) image management 58) Navinder Foods offers portable snack items that are low in calories, high in fibre, and
58)
taste just like the ones shoppers might consume back home in India. Which of the following is NOT a product benefit delivered by Navinder's snack items? A) performance/convenience benefit B) affordable benefit C) functional benefit D) emotional benefit 59) Debbie's Donuts wants to prepare a promotion plan for the upcoming fall season. As part
59)
of her internal situation analysis, she should review: A) which competitors are operating in her neighbourhood. B) how often consumers eat donuts each week. C) her sales and profit objectives. D) the strength of her brand's image. 60) The ________ is the framework for developing, implementing, and controlling an
60)
organization's integrated marketing communications program and activities. A) market audit B) communications process C) IMC plan D) situation analysis 61) ________ allow for the back-and-forth flow of information where users participate in
and modify its form and content instantly. A) Interactive media C) Price flexibility
61)
B) Sales promotion D) Negotiations
62) The first step in the IMC planning process is:
62)
A) the situation analysis B) a review of the marketing plan C) specification of communications objectives D) budget determination 63) Company or branded websites that inform or entertain current or potential customers: A) are effective only if they include the ability to make online purchases B) have taken over from other forms of mass media C) are falling out of favour as marketers turn to social media vehicles D) are a form of "owned media" much like product catalogues
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63)
64) Which the following is NOT an advantage inherent in the use of advertising?
64)
A) Ability to control the message B) Immediate feedback C) Ability to create brand images and symbolism D) Low cost per contact 65) Which of the following is NOT a technique used to generate publicity? A) Press conferences
B) Photographs, films, and videotapes
C) Packaging and product displays
D) News releases and feature articles
66) Each promotional mix element has its own set of objectives, message and media
strategy, tactics, and ________. A) budget C) slogan
65)
66)
B) target audience D) brand identity
67) Consumer Reports magazine ran an article comparing various shampoos and rated Pert
67)
Plus as the best brand. This article was reported on in various newspapers and television news programs. This is an example of: A) positive publicity B) negative publicity C) advertising D) sales promotion 68) Ads for computers and office furniture in Purchasing Canada, a trade magazine written
68)
and published especially for corporate and government buyers, are examples of ________ advertising. A) professional B) primary-demand C) retail D) business-to-business 69) A firm can have an excellent product at a great price, but it will be of little value unless
69)
it's available where the consumer wants it and when the consumer wants it. The statement above refers to: A) distribution decisions. B) price decisions. C) positioning decisions. D) product decisions. 70) One of the primary advantages inherent in the use of publicity is its: A) credibility B) almost non-existent variable costs C) ability to be personalized D) ability to be closely controlled and monitored by the organization that is being
publicized
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70)
71) This participant in the promotional process has the products to be marketed and assumes
71)
major responsibility for developing the marketing program and making final decisions regarding the marketing communication program: A) Public relations firm B) Advertiser C) Media organization D) Advertising agency 72) Which of the following statements about Internet advertising is NOT true?
72)
A) Internet marketing can incorporate many elements of the promotional mix, such as
advertising, sales promotion, public relations, and direct marketing. B) In order for interactive Internet marketing to be effective, the overall brand message must be changed. C) The portability and immediacy of mobile marketing makes this a new forefront for IMC planning. D) The Internet is a medium which generates paid, owned, and earned media. 73) The development of the basic message to be conveyed to the target audience is called: A) creative imaging
B) IMC planning
C) messaging
D) creative strategy
74) McDonald's restaurants use a Monopoly game to allow customers to win various prizes.
73)
74)
Each game piece that you receive as a result of a purchase either awards you a prize or fills in one section on a Monopoly board. Prizes can also be won if you own all the pieces of the railroads or all of one colour of property. This is an example of a: A) service-oriented sales promotion B) primary demand advertising campaign C) consumer sales promotion D) direct-response advertising campaign 75) Which is the best example of the use of packaging as a communication vehicle?
75)
A) New cellphone SIM cards are enveloped in large plastic packages. B) Uncle Ben's Rice offers usage and recipe suggestions on their boxes and bags. C) At Golftown one can purchase used golf balls in bags of 20 or 50. D) Costco offers multi-packs of contact lens solution at affordable prices. 76) ________ includes those marketing activities that provide extra value or incentives to the
76)
sales force, distributors, or the ultimate consumer. A) Sales promotion B) Brand equity Direct marketing C) D) Public relations 77) A marketing plan usually includes:
77)
A) sales and market forecasts
B) a media schedule
C) a corporate mission statement
D) a detailed situation analysis
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78) The AMA has renewed its definition of marketing to include the important element of: A) globalization
B) value within the exchange
C) exchange
D) growth
79) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of advertising as a form of promotion?
78)
79)
A) The ability to reach large audiences with the advertising message B) Personal nature of the message C) The ability to create images for brands D) Cost-effective method for communicating with large audiences 80) Marketers first consider ________ in order to determine which IMC tools will be most
80)
effective in reaching and influencing consumer behaviour. A) the recommendations of their advertising agency B) their promotional budget C) the target audience D) competitive strategies 81) Which of the following statements about direct marketing is true?
81)
A) Direct marketing has lost popularity over the past two decades, owing primarily to
changing lifestyles and technologies. B) Direct marketing and direct mail are synonymous. C) Direct marketing includes a variety of techniques and activities such as direct mail, telemarketing, and direct response advertising. D) Business-to-business marketers criticize direct marketing as an ineffective way to identify potential sales leads, communicate with customers, and provide them with information about their products or services. 82) In the 1990s, companies saw ________ as a way to coordinate and manage their
82)
marketing communication programs to ensure customers received a consistent message about the company and/or its brands. A) product marketing B) the Internet C) integrated marketing communications D) relationship marketing 83) Tourism BC wished to generate trial or repeat purchase of visitors from other provinces
83)
to British Columbia. This is an example of a(n): A) behavioural objective B) internal analysis C) environmental assessment D) database research finding 84) Which of the following is NOT an element of the promotional mix? A) Advertising
B) Sales promotion
C) Packaging
D) Personal selling
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84)
85) Outside firms that specialize in the creation, production, placement of promotional
messages, and other support services are: A) Media buying agencies C) Media organizations
85)
B) Advertisers D) Advertising agencies
86) ________ is a system of marketing by which organizations communicate directly with
86)
target customers to generate a response and/or a transaction. A) Direct marketing B) Sales promotion C) Public relations D) Advertising 87) A brand or corporate name and its identification through its logo, symbols, slogans, or
trademarks represent: A) product appeal C) brand identity
87)
B) brand equity D) product symbolism
88) All of the following explain the importance of IMC EXCEPT:
88)
A) advertising and promotion regulation B) consumer adoption of technology and media C) the many audiences to communicate with D) the vast number of messages consumers receive 89) ________ advertising is targeted at individuals who buy or influence the purchase of
89)
industrial goods or services for their companies. A) Business-to-business B) Direct-response C) Professional D) Retail 90) Why does Samsung place advertising messages in media such as television, print, and
90)
outdoor to encourage consumers to interact with the brand online? A) Samsung only sells their products online, so they must try to drive traffic to their company website. B) Studies show that consumers research their purchase online prior to a store visit, so other media should lead the consumer to visit the company's website. C) Online communication is the best way to convey product attributes and consumer value. D) Online brand interaction is the least expensive way to connect with consumers. 91) An external situation analysis could include all of the following EXCEPT: A) environmental analysis
B) the product's benefits
C) a competitive analysis
D) consumer behaviour analysis
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91)
92) Which of the following statements about price is true?
92)
A) Levels of recommended ad expenditures are not relative to price. B) Price refers to what the marketer must give up to sell a product. C) Price communicates the economic cost to consumers for all of the product benefits
combined. D) Price is not a key aspect of the product conveyed in a promotional offer. 93) Public relations involves all of the following EXCEPT:
93)
A) financial and personnel involvement in local arts and crafts festival B) product design C) publicity D) sponsorship of a fun run to benefit breast cancer research 94) Each of the following statements about earned media is correct EXCEPT:
94)
A) Publicity in the form of news articles or editorial opinions constitutes earned media. B) Earned media is the result of a brand manager paying an influential blogger to write
positively about the brand. C) Conversations among consumers over social media is a form of earned media. D) Earned media is a very credible source of influence for current or prospective consumers. 95) ________ is the management function that evaluates public attitudes, identifies the
95)
policies and procedures of an individual or organization with the public interest, and executes a program of action to earn public understanding and acceptance. A) Corporate affairs B) Sales promotion C) Publicity D) Public relations 96) Product, price, place and promotion are also known as:
96)
A) marketing jargon. B) methods of selling goods and services. C) marketing communications tools. D) the marketing mix. 97) An internal situation analysis looks at all of the following EXCEPT: A) promotional objectives B) results of the firm's previous promotional programs C) competitive analysis D) corporate and brand image analyses
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97)
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 1 1) C 2) A 3) A 4) B 5) D 6) B 7) C 8) B 9) A 10) B 11) B 12) A 13) A 14) D 15) D 16) A 17) C 18) A 19) B 20) D 21) A 22) A 23) D 24) C 25) C 26) D 27) D 28) D 29) B 30) D 31) B 32) C 33) A 34) B 35) C 36) A 37) D 38) C 39) D 40) C 41) A 42) D 43) B 44) C 45) A 46) D 47) B 48) B 49) B 50) D 15
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 1 51) B 52) B 53) D 54) A 55) B 56) B 57) A 58) B 59) D 60) C 61) A 62) B 63) D 64) B 65) C 66) A 67) A 68) D 69) A 70) A 71) B 72) B 73) D 74) C 75) B 76) A 77) A 78) B 79) B 80) C 81) C 82) C 83) A 84) C 85) D 86) A 87) C 88) A 89) A 90) B 91) B 92) C 93) B 94) B 95) D 96) D 97) C
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Chapter 2 Exam Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Target's internal creative department handles the design of each of these elements
EXCEPT: A) branding initiatives C) in-store displays
1)
B) weekly circulars D) direct-mail pieces
2) Which of the following statements about the development of interactive media is NOT
2)
true? A) Full-service interactive agencies provide various services including strategic
consulting regarding the use of the Internet and online branding, technical knowledge, systems integration, and the development of e-commerce capabilities. B) Many marketers are using specialized interactive agencies to develop their interactive media. C) Interactive agencies range from smaller companies that specialize in website design and creation to full-service interactive agencies. D) Traditional advertising agencies tend not to develop interactive media capabilities. 3) Which of the following might NOT be a reason why an advertising agency would use a
3)
group system organizational structure? It would: A) provide better pricing to a key client B) ensure continuity in servicing a particular account C) provide superior service for its accounts D) allow agency personnel to become very knowledgeable about a particular client's market and business 4) The communications link between the ad agency and its clients is: A) marketing services
B) media
C) creative services
D) account services
5) Companies who use a combination of in-house and outside agencies tend to use the
external firms mostly for: A) sales presentations C) creative and media services
4)
5)
B) weekly circulars D) direct mail pieces
6) Which department within an advertising agency would assume the responsibility for
hiring outside persons such as printers, engravers, photographers, or other vendors to turn a layout into a finished product? A) media department B) production department C) art department D) traffic department
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6)
7) Under the cost-plus compensation method, all of the following costs might be included
in the calculation, EXCEPT: A) media costs C) profit margin
7)
B) out-of-pocket expenses D) agency self-promotion costs
8) The ________ are the individuals who conceive the ideas for the ads and write the
advertising message. A) account executives C) traffic coordinators
8)
B) copywriters D) art directors
9) An advertising agency that is set up, owned, and operated by the advertiser is called a(n): A) client management firm
B) in-house agency
C) full-service agency
D) centralized system
10) The advertising remuneration process which rewards the agency based on the
9)
10)
achievement of mutually agreed upon objectives is called: A) the advertising reward method B) the fee-combination method C) the Performance by Results system D) the cost-based system 11) Which of the following statements about changes in the way advertising agencies are
11)
being compensated is true? A) From the viewpoints of both the client and the agency, the traditional commission system is much superior to negotiated commissions. B) Many agencies and their clients have developed some type of fee arrangement or cost-plus agreement for agency compensation. C) With the move toward integrated marketing services, it is likely that there will be a return to the commission system of compensation. D) Since most clients want their agencies to be in total charge of the integrated marketing communications process, they are willing to compensate them based on media commissions. 12) Marketers willing to increase message credibility and save media costs are more likely to
use the services of a(n): A) direct-response agency C) sales promotion agency
12)
B) public relations firm D) advertising agency
13) Which of the following statements about agency commissions is true? A) Most agencies are earning more of their income from fixed commissions as clients
expand their IMC programs to include other forms of promotion. B) Some leading agencies now receive average commissions of 8 to 10 percent. C) Nearly all of the leading agencies still earn a 15 percent commission. D) Most agencies are unwilling to negotiate their commission rates.
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13)
14) A ________ shows what a print ad will look like, while a ________ depicts the sequence
of frames for a commercial or video format. A) sketch; video reel C) concept; trailer
14)
B) layout; storyboard D) storyboard; layout
15) The ________ is responsible for creating the visual portion of an ad such as layouts and
15)
the commercial storyboards. A) account executive B) copywriter C) art director, graphic designer, or studio artist D) product management department 16) What form of compensation is used to pay the advertising agency when the client's
16)
advertising program does not involve a large amount of media billings? A) a negotiated commission B) a share of the profits C) a 17.65 percent markup on costs D) a rebate from the media 17) Critics argue that the use of ________ ties agency compensation to media costs.
17)
A) the objective-and-task compensation system B) the cost-plus agreement C) the fixed fee arrangement D) the commission system 18) Negotiated commission rates for advertising agencies:
18)
A) are becoming more commonplace B) are becoming less common C) are designed primarily to benefit agencies D) are rarely used by consumer-products advertisers 19) A typical direct-response agency is divided into three main departments:
19)
A) account management, creative, and media B) creative, media, and research C) creative, media, and production D) account management, media, and research 20) ________ specialize in offering services, such as database management, direct mail and
creative and production capabilities. A) Public relations firms C) Creative boutiques
B) Direct-response agencies D) Sales promotion agencies
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20)
21) Which of the following statements explains why an organization would want to use an
21)
outside advertising agency? A) An outside advertising agency saves money for the client. B) An outside advertising agency provides the client with the services of highly skilled individuals who are experts in a number of areas including creative, media, and research. C) An outside advertising agency has more knowledge of the brand's identity and its previous promotional activities. D) An outside advertising agency helps the client gain more prestige and a better image. 22) The growth of the Internet as a media vehicle has led to the need for all of the following,
22)
EXCEPT: A) a digital creative services department B) the purchase of interactive firms by full-service agencies C) the coordination of digital and mass media advertising components D) a renewed focus on traditional media 23) Which of the following results were found in a U.S. survey on agency-client
23)
relationships? A) Results would be improved through better briefings from clients and a more thorough agency understanding of the client's business and situation. B) Agencies and clients tend not to trust one another, as profits seem to guide promotional planning. C) Clients should not be overly focused on creative strength when making an agency selection. D) Stronger results were more often delivered in dynamic, short-term situations than in long-term relationships. 24) Which of the following best describes an Agency-of-Record (AOR)?
24)
A) an agency that performs work on a project-by-project basis B) an agency that is subcontracted by the client directly for a particular assignment C) the primary agency whose foremost interest is in building the client's brand D) the previous agency who did work for a particular client 25) Agency compensation under the commission system is based on: A) a percentage of a client's marketing budget B) a percentage of advertising production costs C) a specified percentage of any advertising time or space the agency purchases for its client D) the total number of hours worked
4
25)
26) Since most of the client's ad budget is spent on media time and/or space, it is important
26)
that the media department: A) coordinates with the creative department to ensure that concepts are not too complex B) develops a plan that communicates to the right audience in a cost-efficient manner C) creates a plan that utilizes the least expensive media vehicles D) focuses on purchasing commercial time on the most popular shows 27) Lack of sufficient internal expertise and personnel growing stale while working on the
27)
same product might be reasons why a company might move away from: A) the use of creative boutiques B) a brand marketing system C) the use of full-service advertising agencies D) an in-house agency 28) ________ specialize in the development and management of sweepstakes, refund and
rebate offers, and incentive programs. A) Creative boutiques C) Direct response agencies
28)
B) Interactive agencies D) Sales promotion agencies
29) Which of the following is NOT a measure of marketing communication effectiveness? A) retail sales results
B) brand awareness
C) brand image ratings
D) advertising likeability
30) Creative boutiques are agencies that:
29)
30)
A) have resulted from advertisers wanting to save money in buying media space B) can perform the same functions as full-service agencies for their clients C) are used only when research is not important to marketing success D) limit their client service to creative planning and execution 31) Many full-service agencies include sales promotion, merchandising, direct marketing,
PR and/or other ________. A) organizational structures C) consumer needs
31)
B) niche opportunities D) specialized services
32) Setting the creative philosophy of the agency and overseeing the work of the writers and
artists are the responsibilities of the: A) creative director C) master artist
B) director of account service D) agency president
5
32)
33) The Red River Valley advertising agency receives compensation from its clients based
33)
on how well it meets predetermined performance goals. Indicate the compensation method that best corresponds to this situation. A) incentive-based B) cost-plus system C) fixed-fee D) fee-commission 34) Agencies that are reluctant to let clients see their internal cost figures are less likely to
34)
accept a(n): A) incentive-based compensation agreement B) cost-plus agreement C) commission-based arrangement D) fixed-fee arrangement 35) Under which type of compensation system might an agency be more inclined to
35)
recommend expensive media such as network television and national magazines to its clients? A) incentive-based compensation system B) cost-plus system C) fee arrangement system D) commission system 36) A major argument put forth by defenders of the commission system is that a
36)
commission: A) ties agency compensation to the inflation in media costs B) encourages agencies to use non-commissionable media such as direct mail C) keeps the agencies from placing advertising in expensive media D) keeps emphasis when choosing agencies on non-price factors like advertising quality 37) After the creative brief is reviewed and the overall concept has been developed, the
37)
________ is responsible for developing how the ad will look. A) art director or the art department B) copywriter product management department C) D) account director 38) The standard agency commission is:
38)
A) 15% added on to media time and space costs B) added on to the agency's media costs and personnel time C) a complex formula based on the type of media purchased D) 15% of media time and space costs
6
39) Which of the following is assigned to Target's outside agencies?
39)
A) promotions B) branding and image-oriented communication C) weekly circulars and in-store displays D) direct-mail pieces 40) Which of the following would NOT be a valid reason for switching advertising
40)
agencies? A) dissatisfaction over the quality of the advertising produced by the agency B) a stagnation or decline in sales of the product C) conflicts over compensation policies D) a change in research methodology 41) An advertising agency that wants its employees to develop expertise in servicing a
41)
variety of accounts should use a(n) ________ structure. A) group system B) creative boutique C) in-house agency D) departmental system 42) The ________ department is becoming an increasingly important part of the agency
42)
business as many large advertisers consolidate their media buying with one or a few agencies to save money and improve media efficiency. A) media B) traffic C) production D) product management 43) The ________ department coordinates all phases of production to see that the ads are
completed on time. A) art
B) traffic
C) production
43)
D) media
44) Which of the following statements about advertising agencies is true?
44)
A) Agencies are often used because of the skill, expertise, and experience they can
offer in the advertising area. B) Agencies must be used since companies do not have the capabilities of developing their own advertising. C) Most large, national advertisers use in-house agencies. D) Most large agencies offer only creative services to their clients. 45) The Performance by Results system reflects three groups of performance measures.
Which of the following is NOT one of those measures? A) overall business performance B) comparison to previous year's communication budget C) agency process evaluation D) marketing communication effectiveness
7
45)
46) A ________ is a type of compensation arrangement where an agency charges a client a
46)
fixed monthly amount of money for all of its services and credits media commissions against this monthly rate. A) fee-commission combination B) fixed fee agreement C) negotiated commission D) cost-plus agreement 47) The Bright Ideas advertising agency handles each of its clients by assigning individuals
47)
from various departments to work together as a team on their accounts. The agency is using which organizational structure? A) dedicated system B) group system C) departmental system D) matrix system 48) An agency books television media space at a cost of $1,000,000. The standard agency
48)
commission on this buy is: A) dependent upon the actual shows in which the commercials run B) $15,000 C) dependent upon the time of day the commercials run D) $150,000 49) Which of the following is NOT a valid criticism of the commission compensation system
49)
for an ad agency? A) Media costs do not relate directly to effort or expertise expended by agencies. B) In periods of media cost inflation, the agency is disproportionately rewarded. C) It is difficult to administer. D) There is an incentive to avoid non-commissionable media. 50) Which of the following is NOT a benefit of integrated IMC services?
50)
A) Clients maintain control of the entire promotional process, and achieve greater
synergy among each of the program elements. B) An integrated approach creates one single image and voice to address all audiences. C) It is more convenient to coordinate all of its marketing efforts through one agency. D) Agency personnel have expertise in particular aspects of the process and therefore are inclined to consider all variables in the planning decision. 51) Which of the following is a business measure under the Performance by Results system? A) productivity
B) market share
C) intent to purchase
D) brand awareness
8
51)
52) Why would General Motors switch to an incentive-based compensation system with
52)
several of its agencies? A) to save money on advertising and divert it to other business departments B) to encourage their agencies to use more mass media advertising C) to encourage its agencies to look beyond traditional mass media advertising and develop other ways of reaching consumers D) to encourage their agencies to stop using network TV advertising 53) Because ________ purchase such large amounts of time and space, they receive large
discounts. A) media buying services C) full-service agencies
53)
B) creative boutiques D) in-house agencies
54) Which of the following should a client's evaluation of its advertising agency's
54)
performance NOT take into account? A) market performance measures, such as sales and market share B) qualitative considerations, such as the quality of the agency's efforts in creative, media, etc. C) financial status of the agency D) performance of account representatives 55) The ________ in an agency interacts with personnel from all disciplines and provides
55)
insights into consumers and how to communicate with them. A) account executive B) account planner C) media director D) traffic manager 56) Which of the following is NOT true about creative boutiques?
56)
A) Clients do not directly hire creative boutiques, but work with them through their
Agency-of-Record. B) Members of creative departments of larger firms sometimes leave to create smaller creative boutiques. C) Creative boutiques work directly with clients. D) Creative boutiques are subcontracted by full-service agencies. 57) An agency books television media space at a cost of $1,000,000. If cash discounts do not
apply, what price does the agency pay to the media company? A) $850,000 B) $1,150,000 C) $985,000 D) $1,000,000 and the client pays the agency commission
9
57)
58) A ________ is an agency organizational structure in which each functional area is set up
58)
as a separate department. This structure is called on as needed to perform its specialty and serve all of the agency's clients. A) creative boutique B) departmental system C) matrix system D) group system 59) The function of gathering, analyzing, and interpreting information that will be useful in
59)
developing advertising is the responsibility of the agency's ________ department. A) production B) account management C) research D) traffic 60) A major reason for a client using a(n) ________ is to reduce advertising and promotion
costs. A) client management system C) self-sufficient agency
60)
B) full-service system D) in-house agency
61) A major reason why some companies choose to use an in-house agency is to:
61)
A) win advertising awards that will enhance the image of their brands B) better understand how advertising works C) reduce advertising and promotions costs D) maintain creative freshness 62) A full-service agency offers its clients all of the following EXCEPT:
62)
A) public relations expertise B) research and creative development C) full range of marketing, communication, and promotion services D) human resources management 63) Cheerios has a sweepstakes on their boxes where consumers can win a family trip to
63)
Disney World. They hired a ________ to develop the creative, negotiate the trip costs, and administer the prizes. A) sales promotion agency B) direct-response agency C) mid-range agency D) creative boutique 64) A(n) ________ is the type of firm an organization would hire to develop and implement
programs to manage the organization's publicity, image, and affairs with consumers and other relevant publics. A) advertising agency B) direct-response agency C) media mix organization D) public relations firm
10
64)
65) Advertising ideas and concepts are derived from the creative brief, which includes
65)
information about consumers, competitors, and the market. This is the responsibility of the: A) account executive B) account planner C) media director D) creative director 66) The brand manager for Carnation Evaporated Milk wishes to run a holiday cookie
66)
contest to find consumers' best recipes. The creator of the best recipe will win a trip to Paris, France. Most likely, Carnation will hire a(n) ________ to plan and execute the campaign. A) advertising agency B) public relations firm C) contest house D) sales promotion agency 67) The agency person who is the focal point of the agency-client relationship is the: A) media buyer
B) brand manager
C) product manager
D) account executive
68) Joe Fresh moved its creativity in-house from an agency in order to:
67)
68)
A) provide full service at a lower cost B) better understand how advertising works C) encourage its staff to think about the brand D) employ creatives from Target, who might have expertise in the U.S. market 69) Independent companies that specialize in the purchase of radio and television time are
known as: A) media measurement bureaus C) mid-sized agencies
69)
B) full-service agencies D) media buying services
70) Independent media buying services evolved for each of the following reasons EXCEPT:
70)
A) advertisers attempt to consolidate their media spending in order to achieve volume
efficiencies B) media strategy development and planning needs to be separate from the buying function C) the proliferation of specialized media has increased the complexity of purchasing advertising media D) media buying services concentrate on the analysis and purchase of advertising time and space 71) Which type of ad agency is most likely to assist the client in areas such as marketing
strategy and research, campaign planning and execution, and media planning and buying? A) a creative boutique B) a media buying service a collateral agency C) D) a full-service agency
11
71)
72) Jenna sees a commercial for a new brand of toothpaste. She decides to consider it the
72)
next time she goes to the drug store. This is an example of which behavioural objective? A) sampling B) brand awareness retrial C) D) intent to purchase 73) International multiservice agencies were formed by mergers and acquisitions of
73)
mid-sized agencies in order to: A) forge stronger alliances between agencies and their clients B) market their services more broadly C) provide integrated marketing communications services worldwide D) eliminate the need for domestic agencies 74) Which of the following functions is NOT performed by the agency's research
74)
department? A) designing, executing, and interpreting primary research studies B) planning the creative and media strategies for the advertising campaign C) disseminating information to agency account planners D) interpreting information to assist in advertising decision-making 75) When a client works for many years with a primary agency whose focus is on building
the client's brand, it is known as a(n): A) primary service provider C) principle agency
75)
B) full-service relationship D) agency-of-record (AOR)
76) ________ take(s) the creative work done in mass media and add(s) interactive
76)
functionality to be used in Internet and mobile media executions. A) Computerized adaptation programmers B) Small, boutique firms C) A digital creative services department D) The production manager 77) The four behavioural objectives that are measures of marketing communication
77)
effectiveness are intent to purchase, trial, repeat purchase, and ________. A) positioning B) brand loyalty C) viral media D) brand understanding 78) The traditional method of compensating ad agencies is with: A) the fee system
B) the commission system
C) the straight salary method
D) the hourly billings
12
78)
79) Opponents of the agency commission system would argue that this system is NOT
79)
effective because a commission: A) encourages agencies to recommend high media expenditures to increase their commission level. B) encourages agencies to limit their client's advertising expenditures. C) does not tie agency compensation to media costs. D) keeps the emphasis on creative skills not the bottom-line. 80) Personality conflicts, unrealistic demands by clients, and personnel changes are all
80)
reasons why: A) it is difficult to measure the effectiveness of advertising campaigns B) ad agencies lose clients C) planning and budgeting communication initiatives is difficult D) clients need to use more than one agency 81) Why are negotiated commission structures becoming more common?
81)
A) to encourage agencies to cut back on buying network TV advertising for their
clients B) to support the creation of a transactional relationship between agency and client C) to consider the needs of clients as well as the amount of time and effort the agency
spends on an account D) to ensure that agencies do not make too much money 82) Under the ________, the client agrees to pay the agency a fee based on the cost of its
work plus some agreed-on profit margin. A) incentive-based system C) cost-plus arrangement
82)
B) fee-combination arrangement D) media commission system
83) The department in an advertising agency that is responsible for analyzing, selecting, and
83)
contracting for ad space or time that will be used to deliver its client's advertising message is the ________ department. A) public relations B) marketing research media C) D) account services 84) A ________ audit of an agency focuses on factors such as costs, expenses, and payments
to outside suppliers while a ________ audit focuses on factors such as the agency's efforts in planning, development, and implementing the advertising program. A) qualitative/quantitative B) results/process C) financial/creative D) financial/qualitative
13
84)
85) Which of the following compensation methods should an advertiser adopt if its primary
85)
goal is to achieve efficiency and accountability? A) fee-combination arrangement B) commission-based arrangement C) incentive-based compensation agreement D) fixed-fee arrangement 86) The ________ is responsible for understanding the advertiser's marketing and
86)
promotional needs and interpreting them to agency personnel. A) marketing specialist B) media specialist C) copywriter D) account executive 87) Many agencies are moving toward offering more integrated marketing communication
87)
(IMC) services: A) because an agency with integrated marketing communication capabilities can create a number of different images of the product to appeal to all relevant publics B) even though it is less convenient for a client to coordinate all of its promotional efforts with one agency C) although effecting economies of scale and synergy is difficult, especially on large budget campaigns D) because they want to maintain control of the entire promotional process because it leads to more synergy among the various communication elements 88) An ad agency that offers its clients a complete range of marketing, communication, and
88)
promotion services is known as a(n): A) comprehensive marketing organization B) in-house agency C) full-service agency D) media buying service 89) Major agencies that offer an ever-broadening range of IMC services would be more
appropriately called: A) multinational creative boutiques C) marketing communication agencies
B) full-service partners D) advertising agencies
14
89)
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 2 1) A 2) D 3) A 4) D 5) C 6) B 7) D 8) B 9) B 10) C 11) B 12) B 13) B 14) B 15) C 16) A 17) D 18) A 19) A 20) B 21) B 22) D 23) A 24) C 25) C 26) B 27) D 28) D 29) A 30) D 31) D 32) A 33) A 34) B 35) D 36) D 37) A 38) D 39) B 40) D 41) D 42) A 43) B 44) A 45) B 46) A 47) B 48) D 49) C 50) D 15
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 2 51) B 52) C 53) A 54) C 55) B 56) A 57) A 58) B 59) C 60) D 61) C 62) D 63) A 64) D 65) B 66) D 67) D 68) C 69) D 70) B 71) D 72) D 73) B 74) B 75) D 76) C 77) B 78) B 79) A 80) B 81) C 82) C 83) C 84) D 85) C 86) D 87) D 88) C 89) C
16
Chapter 3 Exam Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) For which of the following products is the consumer most likely to experience cognitive
dissonance? A) garden fertilizer C) chewing gum
1)
B) light bulbs D) diamond engagement ring
2) An external information search might include each of the following EXCEPT: A) past outcomes from using the brand
B) print media
C) the opinions of friends and relatives
D) advertising and/or salespeople
3) An ad for a travel agency offers trips especially designed for grandparents and their
2)
3)
grandchildren to enjoy together. This example illustrates the use of ________ segmentation. A) behaviouristic B) geographic C) demographic D) lifestyle 4) If an ad uses language or references to a lifestyle that is unfamiliar to the ________, there
4)
is less likelihood of it influencing in the direction intended. A) consumer B) end user C) target audience D) family size 5) The level of need which a particular product satisfies may vary by consumer. A good
5)
example of this is: A) Celine has finally retired and can now devote time to the local theatre group. B) Juan and Maria both bring their lunch to school, but Maria's lunch contains a Mott's fruit cup for a snack whereas Juan prefers Pringles chips. C) Mark wears the same name-brand boots as other members of the chess club. D) Tammy buys a new Columbia jacket because it's the latest trend, whereas Jessica buys it for its superior protection when winter camping. 6) An ad for Nivea skin cream which is used by women states that the cream allows you to
6)
"give your skin back its own wrinkle control." This ad is using ________ segmentation. A) behaviouristic and benefit sought B) demographic and psychographic C) benefit sought and demographic D) psychographic and behaviouristic 7) ________ divides a market on the basis of lifestyles. A) Psychographic segmentation
B) Benefit segmentation
C) Leisure marketing
D) Behaviouristic segmentation
1
7)
8) ________ is the first stage in the consumer decision making process. A) Internal search
B) Need recognition
C) Alternative evaluation
D) External search
8)
9) ________ is a preference for a particular brand that results in its repeated purchase. A) Brand loyalty
B) A purchase intention
C) Satisfaction
D) Cognitive dissonance
10) A reference group to which one does not wish to belong is a ________ group. A) disassociative C) disconnected
9)
10)
B) confrontational D) segregated
11) A feeling of postpurchase doubt or psychological tension that a consumer experiences
11)
after making a difficult purchase choice is called: A) subliminal anxiety B) negative reinforcement C) cognitive dissonance D) dissatisfaction 12) Bell Canada uses ________ segmentation to segment consumers in terms of how much
leisure telephone calling they do. A) lifestyle B) VALS
C) demographic
D) behaviouristic
13) ________ segmentation is the grouping of customers on the basis of attributes sought in
a product. A) Usage
B) Lifestyle
C) VALS
12)
13)
D) Benefit
14) ________ refers to relatively homogeneous divisions in a society into which people
14)
sharing similar lifestyles, values, norms, interests, and behaviours can be grouped. A) Target market B) Culture C) Market segment D) Social class 15) The Energizer bunny, the golden arches of McDonald's, and the Mr. Peanut character
used by Planters' Peanuts are all examples of: A) persuaders B) cues
C) trigger points
D) mnemonics
16) ________ is a construct or notion that represents an individual's overall feelings or
evaluation of an object. A) A motive B) An attitude
C) A perception
B) alternative evaluation D) attitude formation
2
16)
D) A need
17) After determining the need for a product, the next stage in the consumer decision-
making process is: A) information search C) motivation to purchase
15)
17)
18) Maxwell House Coffee ads emphasize consumers' overall emotional impressions of the
18)
brand with its "Good to the last drop" slogan. Maxwell House wants consumers to purchase on the basis of this impression and not by comparing specific attributes of other brands of coffee. This is an example of a marketer using: A) psychosocial consequences B) non-qualitative evaluative criteria C) the affect referral decision rule D) cognitive input/output 19) The brand image that Coca-Cola's recent slogans "Open Happiness" and "Taste the
Feeling" amplify the ________ of the product. A) experiential benefits C) refreshing cola taste
19)
B) value proposition D) long-standing heritage
20) A judgement that consumers make with respect to the pleasurable level of
20)
consumption-related fulfillment is more simply known as: A) brand loyalty B) subliminal choice C) positive reinforcement D) satisfaction 21) Lower level needs such as hunger and thirst are important to marketers because these
21)
needs: A) are the hardest to satisfy B) are the source for most market development strategies C) are an ongoing source of motivation for most consumer purchase behaviour D) offer marketers a basis for differentiating their products 22) Oral B markets an indicator toothbrush that reminds consumers when they need to
22)
replace their old worn brushes. This strategy is focused to reach consumers at which stage of the consumer decision making process? A) Alternative evaluation B) Purchase C) Need recognition D) Internal search 23) Need recognition is caused by a difference between the consumer's ________.
23)
A) ideal state and actual state B) attitudes and responses C) past and current consumption patterns D) view of the world and their place in it 24) Consumer behaviour is defined as:
24)
A) conspicuous consumption B) the act of making a final decision as to which product to purchase C) the process people engage in when searching, selecting, and using products and
services that they need D) the act of physically purchasing a product
3
25) ________ are factors that compel or drive a consumer to take a particular action. A) Temptations
B) Wants
C) Motives
D) Impulses
26) ________ is a predisposition to buy a certain brand. A) A purchase decision C) Affective behaviour
26)
B) Satisfaction D) A purchase intention
27) All of the following are demographic factors EXCEPT: A) income
25)
B) age
C) product usage
27) D) family size
28) ________ is the stage of the consumer decision making process whereby the individual
28)
scans information stored in memory to recall past experience and/or knowledge regarding various purchase alternatives. A) Post-purchase evaluation B) Alternative evaluation Internal search C) D) External search 29) Research shows that about two-thirds of the new insurance policies Prudential sells will
29)
be to current policyholders. This information indicates that ________ segmentation would be appropriate for Prudential to use along with demographic and psychographic segmentation. A) personality B) usage C) benefit D) geographic 30) A group whose presumed perspective or values are used by an individual as the basis for
his judgments, opinions, and actions is a: A) social class C) demographic group
30)
B) subculture D) reference group
31) Ads for consumer finance companies are often aimed at people making $25,000 or less
31)
annual salaries. Consumer finance companies are using ________ segmentation. A) lifestyle B) behaviouristic C) demographic D) geographic 32) Which of the following bases for segmentation is employed when consumers are
32)
grouped according to their use of a product or service (heavy versus light)? A) Needs B) Benefit Lifestyle C) D) Behaviouristic 33) The perception process whereby consumers interpret information based on their own
attitudes, beliefs, motives, and experiences is known as: A) subliminal perception B) selective retention C) selective comprehension D) selective exposure
4
33)
34) Steven rides his bicycle everywhere. It is his sole method of transportation, so he does
34)
everything necessary to keep it in top running condition. When the chain started to slip a little, he knew that the bike needed to be taken in for servicing at his local bike shop. At this point, Steven was in the ________ stage of the consumer decision-making process. A) internal search B) external search C) need recognition D) postpurchase evaluation 35) Marketers try to positively influence consumers' evaluation of their products because
35)
research shows a strong link between attitudes and ________. A) motives B) needs C) value consideration D) purchase behaviour 36) Daria is listening to music on her car radio. When a commercial comes on, she changes
the station. Daria is engaging in: A) selective retention C) selective exposure
36)
B) selective attention D) subliminal perception
37) Psychographic segmentation considers values and lifestyle attributes based on an
37)
analysis of consumers' AIOs. This stands for: A) Actual involvement and openness to new brands B) Aspirations, inhibitions and other psychological barriers C) Activities, interests and opinions D) Attitudes, initiatives and options 38) Psychographic segmentation considers each of the following variables EXCEPT: A) personality
B) social class
C) spending ability
D) culture
39) The brands identified by the consumer as purchase options to be considered is called
38)
39)
a(n): A) decision criteria.
B) evoked set.
C) brand attribution list.
D) choice subset.
40) An advertising campaign stating that BMW "outperforms most cars on the road even
40)
before you step on the accelerator" is an example of ________ segmentation. A) demographic B) VALS C) benefit D) usage 41) ________ is the process and activities that people engage in when searching for,
selecting, purchasing, using, evaluating and disposing of products and services so as to satisfy their needs and desires. A) Learning B) Consumer behaviour C) Conspicuous consumption D) Exchange
5
41)
42) ________ segmentation has been increasingly accepted with the advent of the values and
lifestyles (VALS) program. A) Behaviouristic C) Benefit
42)
B) Psychographic D) Demographic
43) If you look around campus you will see many students wearing similar outfits, using
43)
similar electronic devices, even eating and drinking the same things. Maslow's theory would attribute these trends to ________ needs. A) physiological B) social C) safety D) self-actualization 44) On a trip to Halifax, Myra experienced car trouble. She knew she needed to find a good
44)
mechanic, so she asked the advice of the people running the motel where she was staying. She also called the local Better Business Bureau for help and looked in the local yellow pages. Finally, she called a friend who used to live in Halifax for his recommendation. Myra was obviously engaged in which stage of the consumer decision making process? A) Alternative evaluation B) Information search C) Purchase decision D) Need recognition 45) Yonique was a beverage made from yogurt. It was similar in consistency to a milkshake,
45)
but made with yogurt instead of milk. Even though its marketers tried to use marketer-induced need recognition, the product failed in large measure because: A) need recognition does not occur with new products B) marketers cannot induce need recognition C) consumers did not see a need for the product D) consumers do not engage in novelty-seeking behaviour 46) ________ describe(s) the group of consumers toward whom an overall marketing
program is directed. A) Demographics C) Millennials
46)
B) Audience D) The target market
47) An example of functional benefit is:
47)
A) the model number of a plasma TV B) the taste of a soft drink C) the number of people you know who own the brand D) the product photo in a magazine ad 48) When television stations sell advertising time based on age categories of viewers, they
are using ________ segmentation. A) demographic C) psychographic
B) geographic D) behaviouristic
6
48)
49) Division of the market based on age, sex, family size, income, and other measurable
characteristics is known as: A) psychographic segmentation C) lifestyle aggregation
49)
B) demographic segmentation D) quantified aggregation
50) Each of the following statements about the postpurchase evaluation process is correct
50)
EXCEPT: A) Positive performance leads to retention of the product in a consumer's evoked set. B) Consumer decisions are rarely influenced by the cognitive dissonance of others; they prefer to form their own opinions. C) Feedback acquired from actual use of a product will influence the likelihood of future purchases. D) Unfavourable outcomes may lead to the formation of negative attitudes about the brand. 51) Every afternoon at about 3 o'clock, Neil buys a cold drink. He either buys a Coca-Cola, a
51)
Mountain Dew, or a Minute Maid lemonade. He will not buy any other brand or type of soft drink because the three drinks make up his: A) subliminal choices B) evoked set C) decision criteria D) brand attribution list 52) The ad for the Disney Institute at Walt Disney World describes vacations during which
52)
an individual can immerse himself or herself in the joys of gardening for a week and take classes with horticulturists. This is an example of ________ segmentation. A) usage B) behaviouristic C) demographic D) psychographic 53) Promotional planners differentiate between a brand's target market and the target
audience. Which of the following statements is the best illustration of this concept? A) Rimmel targets women aged 16-45 for their cosmetic products. They have engaged a popular blogger to review their new line of lipstick in the hopes that young social-media users will be enticed to try it. B) Some people prefer BMW's line of cars for the sleek styling and engineering. Others buy them to satisfy their esteem needs. C) Campbell Soup offers a variety of products. Some are ready-to-eat and others are best used as a recipe ingredient. D) The overall demographic of "women" can be further broken down in terms of lifestyle, values, and interests as well as their geographic location.
7
53)
54) Four Seasons Hotels offer their guests a choice of pillow, depending on their personal
54)
preferences and sleep habits. Which of the following statements does this policy represent? A) Many people making the decision on which hotel to book consider pillows to be a key criteria. B) Special pillows are a benefit of staying at the Four Seasons Hotel. C) By offering the service attribute of a particular pillow, Four Seasons hopes prospective guests will recognize the performance benefit of a better night's sleep. D) Four Seasons spends more on guest satisfaction in the hopes of building brand loyalty. 55) The headline for the Allstate Flood Insurance program ad reads, "There's a chance of
55)
flooding in your area. Are you willing to bet the house on it?" The ad shows a picture of a flooded home and shows how flood insurance helps to satisfy the ________ needs as defined by Maslow's hierarchy. A) esteem B) safety C) social D) physiological 56) ________ occurs when Betty elects to read only the book section of the National Post
56)
Saturday newspaper and not look at the other sections of the paper. A) Selective retention B) Selective attention C) Selective exposure D) Subliminal perception 57) Lester's Smoked Meat is very popular in Montreal, but not as popular in the rest of
57)
Canada. Given this information, Lester's should use ________ segmentation. A) behaviouristic B) personality C) geographic D) demographic 58) ________ is the complexity of learned values, norms, and meanings shared by members
of a society. A) Learning
B) Culture
C) Motivation
58)
D) Instinct
59) Advertising for Hilton Hotels tells consumers they can make a reservation by calling
59)
1-800-HILTONS. The telephone number is based on: A) a mnemonic B) a subliminal technique C) classical conditioning D) reinforcement theory 60) According to Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory, the highest level of needs are
________ needs. A) self-actualization C) social
B) physiological D) esteem
8
60)
61) The first step in the target market process is to:
61)
A) segment the market B) determine the marketing positioning strategy C) develop new products D) select a target market 62) Reference group members play many roles in the purchase decision-making process.
62)
Which of the following is NOT one of those roles? A) The associate B) The influencer C) The initiator D) The consumer 63) Perception is an important consideration for ad creation. Dior perfume used scent strips
63)
in its print ads and a caterer mailed free taste samples to potential clients to influence ________ and to increase the probability that the ad will be noticed. A) consumer personality B) subliminal perception C) the level of sensory input D) perception retrieval 64) Oftentimes, changes in one's life lead a consumer to purchase products they have not
64)
used before. These consumers are considered to be: A) favourable brand switchers B) window shoppers C) brand explorers D) new category users 65) Volvo's strategy of emphasizing the safety of its cars in its advertising reflects a
positioning strategy based on: A) positioning by price/quality C) positioning by product class
65)
B) benefit segmentation D) psychographic segmentation
66) The consumer decision- making process is not always linear like the arrows suggest.
66)
Each of the following statements adds to this argument that EXCEPT: A) The process is more continuous, as postpurchase evaluation may lead to prepurchase anticipation at some point in the future. B) Consumers may backtrack to a previous stage as information is acquired. C) The process is actually a meandering journey, with consumers going from store-to-store to get the best deals. D) Mobile technology allows consumers to experience all stages anywhere at any time. 67) Developing a(n) ________ allows the message to be more precisely delivered in a
medium that has a higher proportion of the target audience. A) evaluation of past promotional activity B) substantial promotional budget C) detailed profile of the target market D) study of consumer attitudes
9
67)
68) ________ is the process by which an individual receives, selects, organizes, and
68)
interprets information to create a meaningful picture of the world. A) Problem solving B) Information search Integration C) D) Perception 69) Simplified decision rules such as "Always buy the largest size of the cheapest priced
69)
detergent" or "Only buy motor oil if the manufacturer is offering a rebate" are called: A) formalized group norms B) problem-solving consequences C) formal integration strategies D) heuristics 70) ________ refer to specific events or outcomes that consumers experience when a product
or service is purchased and/or consumed. A) Dissonance motives C) Consequences
70)
B) Evaluative criteria D) Attribute assignments
71) A product manager for a new brand of laundry detergent must:
71)
A) increase problem recognition for detergent purchases B) create pioneering advertising C) maintain a lower price than competitors D) interrupt consumers' routine choice behaviour and get them to consider a new brand 72) ________ segmentation divides consumers into groups according to their usage,
loyalties, or buying responses to a product. A) Psychographic C) Demographic
72)
B) Benefit D) Behaviouristic
73) For which of the following situations is a consumer's purchase behaviour likely to be
73)
characterized by extended problem solving? A) The first time purchase of a personal computer by a student with no prior knowledge of PCs. B) The selection of a restaurant for lunch with friends. C) The purchase of a new pair of running shoes by a consumer who runs regularly. D) The purchase of a laundry detergent. 74) Which of the following is the LEAST effective potential basis for segmenting the
consumer market for bran muffin mixes? A) lifestyle C) age
74)
B) rate of use of muffin mixes D) home ownership
75) Campbell Soup wishes to maintain consistent consumer purchase and consumption
behaviour without having to advertise too often or too heavily. They should focus their communications on: A) new category users B) favourable brand switchers brand loyalists C) D) other brand switchers 10
75)
76) Consumers are considered to be in "active shopping mode" during which stage of the
consumer decision making process? A) Information search C) Purchase decision
76)
B) Alternative evaluation D) Need recognition
77) Marketers strive to develop and maintain brand loyalty by doing all of these things
77)
EXCEPT: A) using loyalty programs such as Air Miles B) maintaining prominent shelf positions and displays in stores C) running periodic promotions to deter customers from switching brands D) reducing reminder advertising expenditures 78) Dara Smith looked at articles in Consumer Reports magazine and asked the salesperson
78)
at Future Shop many questions before purchasing a stereo receiver. These activities are examples of: A) problem clarification B) external search C) post-purchase evaluation D) internal search 79) Reference groups to which one would like to belong are called ________ groups. A) acquisitive
B) aspirational
C) associative
79)
D) integrated
80) Jeff runs several times a week and believes that Nike running shoes are the best for his
80)
running style and the shape and size of his foot. Puma may consider it inefficient to advertise to Jeff because they consider him to be: A) a picky consumer B) an other brand loyal C) a favourable brand switcher D) unable to impress with their unique product features 81) Symbols, rhymes, association, and images that assist in the learning and memory
processes are known as: A) mnemonics B) cues
C) trigger points
D) persuaders
82) A ________ is a felt need that is shaped by a person's knowledge, culture, and
personality. A) purchase
B) habit
C) want
83) New needs might arise from each of the following EXCEPT: A) Improved financial position B) Change in lifestyle or stage of life C) Dissatisfaction with a currently used product D) Increased hours spent on social media
11
81)
82)
D) desire 83)
84) Most of the purchase decisions made by consumers for low-priced frequently purchased
products are characterized by: A) cognitive learning C) extended problem solving
84)
B) limited problem solving D) routine response behaviour
85) Marketers of new brands or brands with low market share need to ________ in order to
break into their target's evoked set. A) advertise more C) use advertising more effectively
85)
B) lower their prices D) gain awareness among consumers
86) Bryan Nixon owns several apartments. Having tried some other appliance brands in his
86)
rental apartments and been dissatisfied with their short life span, Nixon will now only purchase Maytag brand appliances to go into his apartments. Nixon's repeat purchases of Maytag appliances indicate: A) the existence of cognitive dissonance B) extensive decision making and strong psychosocial consequences C) strong brand loyalty D) the absence of any affect referral decision rule 87) The fact that some consumers want a toothpaste that fights cavities while others want a
87)
toothpaste that freshens their breath and whitens their teeth provides an opportunity for ________ segmentation in the toothpaste market. A) psychographic B) demographic C) behaviouristic D) benefit 88) ________ occurs when the consumer chooses to focus attention on certain stimuli while
excluding others. A) Subliminal perception C) Selective exposure
88)
B) Selective attention D) Selective comprehension
89) ________ are customers that buy the main brand, but also buy another brand in the
89)
product category within a given relevant time period. A) New category users B) Brand loyalists C) Favourable brand switchers D) Other brand switchers 90) Concrete outcomes of product usage that are tangible and directly related to product
performance are: A) psychological benefits C) experiential benefits
90)
B) functional benefits D) evaluative proofs
91) Information such as product knowledge, meanings, and beliefs is combined to evaluate
alternatives through: A) affective reasoning C) integration processes
B) subliminal perception D) motive stimulation 12
91)
92) Which of the following attributes are probable evaluative criteria that students use to
purchase a new smart phone? A) price, styling, and camera quality B) availability in local electronics stores C) a favourite with bloggers D) advertising on popular YouTube channels
13
92)
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 3 1) D 2) A 3) C 4) C 5) D 6) C 7) A 8) B 9) A 10) A 11) C 12) D 13) D 14) D 15) D 16) B 17) A 18) C 19) A 20) D 21) C 22) C 23) A 24) C 25) C 26) D 27) C 28) C 29) B 30) D 31) C 32) D 33) C 34) C 35) D 36) C 37) C 38) C 39) B 40) C 41) B 42) B 43) B 44) B 45) C 46) D 47) B 48) A 49) B 50) B 14
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 3 51) B 52) D 53) A 54) C 55) B 56) B 57) C 58) B 59) A 60) A 61) A 62) A 63) C 64) D 65) B 66) C 67) C 68) D 69) D 70) C 71) D 72) D 73) A 74) D 75) C 76) A 77) D 78) B 79) B 80) B 81) A 82) C 83) D 84) D 85) D 86) C 87) D 88) B 89) C 90) B 91) C 92) A
15
Chapter 4 Exam Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The ________ is the method or medium by which communication travels from the
source to the receiver. A) message transmitter C) channel
1)
B) source derivation D) feedback mechanism
2) For which of the following products would an advertiser be more likely to use the
2)
low-involvement hierarchy to explain the consumer decision making process? A) Digital camera B) Wedding dress C) Bar of soap D) Yard landscaping 3) Attention, awareness, and knowledge are all examples of the ________ stage of the
3)
response process and appear in all of the models describing the consumer response process. A) cognitive B) conative C) affective D) behavioural 4) ________ is a term used to describe a message receiver's feelings of favourability or
unfavourability toward an advertisement. A) Purchase intent C) Attitude toward the ad
4)
B) Brand attitude D) Source derogation
5) John is watching television and sees a commercial in which LeBron James is endorsing a
5)
pair of basketball shoes. John thinks to himself, "Boy, is LeBron ever juvenile and obnoxious. I wouldn't buy anything he promotes." This is an example of a: A) message blockage B) counterargument C) source derogation D) support argument 6) Nike conducts a marketing research study and finds that the majority of consumers can
6)
recall the company's "Just do it" ad slogan. Nike can safely assume that consumers: A) appear to be aware of Nike's advertising B) have favourable attitudes toward Nike C) will probably buy Nike athletic shoes D) understand the advertising message Nike is trying to communicate 7) For most marketers, the ultimate form of feedback is: A) use of reply cards
B) consumer inquiries
C) sales
D) store visits
1
7)
8) Visits to websites, participation in contests, digital forwarding of ads or stories, and
Facebook "likes" are all possible forms of: A) interpersonal communication C) electronic commerce
B) decoding mechanisms D) feedback
9) Which of the following is NOT a basic element of the communication process? A) Integration
8)
B) Message
C) Source
D) Channel
10) The ________ is a model that addresses the differences in the ways consumers respond
to persuasive messages. A) elaboration likelihood model C) 5-W's model of communication
9)
10)
B) cognitive response model D) AIDA model
11) Marius is watching a suspenseful TV program with a group of friends. During the
11)
commercial break everyone starts discussing the show, and he cannot hear the commercials even though he really wanted to hear the Molson Canadian commercial. Marius's inability to receive the Molson Canadian message is an example of which element of the communication process? A) Encoding B) Noise C) Decoding D) Feedback 12) The elaboration likelihood model (ELM) was developed to explain the process by which
persuasive communications influence: A) group norms C) attitudes
12)
B) attributions D) dissonance formation
13) The elaboration likelihood model (ELM) is a function of two elements. They are the
________ to process the message. A) encoding and decoding abilities C) motivation and ability
13)
B) knowledge and technical skills D) attitude and linguistics skills
14) The source or sender of an advertising communication:
14)
A) is never a nonpersonal entity B) is typically identified as the owner of the medium in which the communication
appeared C) can be an individual or a nonpersonal entity such as the corporation D) is typically a salesperson 15) The hierarchical model representing the stages a salesperson must take a customer
through in the personal selling process is the ________ model. A) information processing B) AIDA C) innovation-adoption D) hierarchy of effects
2
15)
16) When marketers develop an advertising message, one of their primary goals is to encode
16)
the message: A) using nonverbal communication so as to eliminate problems with connotations and jargon B) so that it can only be understood by members of the target audience C) in a way that makes its message unique to each individual who is exposed to the ad D) so that it will be understood and interpreted in a similar way by most consumers 17) Counts of customer visits to a store, consumer inquiries, coupon redemption, and recall
of advertising are all possible forms of: A) feedback C) personal communication
B) decoding mechanisms D) noise
18) ________ is the process of interpreting a sender's message into thought. A) Decoding
17)
B) Responding
C) Channeling
18) D) Encoding
19) Mentos mint candy uses an advertising campaign that shows people solving problems by
19)
thinking outside of the box by taking a fresh look at a common problem. Freshness is the message that the ad is supposed to deliver, but if Dick and Bella Lestor think the ad is simply showing people being rude and boorish, then in terms of the communication process, the Lestors have ________ the message improperly. A) interpreted B) encoded C) decoded D) channelled 20) During the 2016 Olympics, Royal Bank of Canada aired heart-warming ads showing
20)
athletes who had received financial assistance in order to train and compete. RBC is hoping to influence consumers in the ________ stage of the response process. A) purchase B) affective C) cognitive D) behavioural 21) Negative thoughts about a spokesperson in an ad are called: A) source derogations
B) message blockages
C) counterarguments
D) source blockages
22) Which of the following statements best illustrates how important the source of a message
can be to a communication campaign? A) When photos of Olympic swimmer Michael Phelps using drugs appeared on social media, many of his sponsors cancelled his contracts. B) Many perfume brands employ famous, beautiful actresses to represent them in advertising. C) Consumers only pay attention to spokespersons with whom they are familiar. D) Nike is a well-known, successful brand.
3
21)
22)
23) Two critical factors that influence how motivated or involved the audience would be
23)
when responding to promotional messages are: A) the consumer's previous brand experience and degree of brand loyalty B) the popularity and fit of the celebrity chosen to represent the brand C) whether the product satisfies a high or low level need, and the brand's popularity among reference groups D) how new the product is, and whether the consumer has previous experience with it 24) Which of the following hierarchical response models views the receiver of a persuasive
communication as a problem solver? A) The low involvement model C) The hierarchy of effects models
24)
B) The information processing model D) The AIDA model
25) ________ refer to the lasting brand impressions that remain with the target audience
25)
after the target audience processes the message. A) Awareness effects B) Retention effects C) Preference effects D) Communication effects 26) ________ is the part of the receiver's response that is communicated back to the sender. A) Reciprocity
B) Noise
C) Encoding
26)
D) Feedback
27) Molly saw a television commercial that said that a specific brand of pain reliever was
27)
much more effective than the brand she had used and trusted for the last twenty years. As a result of this commercial, Molly is likely to engage in: A) counter arguing B) negative dissonance C) source blockage D) support arguing 28) The three traditional hierarchy response models all consistently view that the consumer
28)
moves through three stages, even though the steps may vary. These stages, in order, are: A) knowledge, attention, conviction B) awareness, interest, desire C) cognitive, affective, behavioural D) affective, cognitive, purchase 29) ________ involves the target audience's overall evaluation of the brand in relation to its
ability to satisfy the reason why they want it. A) Brand preference C) Brand significance
29)
B) Brand attitude D) Brand value
30) The ________ model explains the purchase decision making process when a consumer
buys a high-involvement product for which there is a high amount of differentiation among brands. A) hierarchy of needs B) dissonance/attribution C) standard learning D) cognitive response
4
30)
31) Although there is no single precise definition of consumer involvement, most
conceptualizations of it focus on: A) consumer motives C) consumer wants
31)
B) personal goals D) personal relevance
32) Which category of cognitive responses includes a message recipient's reactions to factors
32)
such as the creativity of an ad, the quality of the visual effects, colours, voice tones, and the like? A) Support arguments B) Source derogations C) Attitude toward the brand D) Ad execution-related thoughts 33) Which of the following response hierarchy models depicts consumers as going through
33)
the stages of awareness - knowledge - liking - preference - conviction - purchase? A) The AIDA model B) The information processing model C) The hierarchy of effects model D) The purchaser learning model 34) ________ is a feedback dimension based on the outcomes of product purchase and
usage. A) Motivation
B) Experience
C) Knowledge
D) Preference
35) Which of the following is an example of a personal channel of communication? A) Magazines
B) Newspaper
C) Online customer service personnel
D) Radio
34)
36) Marketers of ________ often must communicate with passive and uninterested
35)
36)
consumers who may focus more on nonmessage elements such as music, slogans, and jingles than on message content. A) ketchup, mustard, margarine, and soy sauce B) personal computers C) x-ray machines, road building equipment, and walk-in refrigeration units D) employment services 37) When Sidney Crosby appears in a commercial endorsing Gatorade, the message source
37)
is: A) the television program that the advertising provides financial support for B) Sidney Crosby C) PepsiCo, the company that owns Gatorade D) consumers who view the commercial 38) Successful communication depends on all of the following EXCEPT: A) the interpretation of the message by the sender B) the environment in which a message is received C) the receiver's perception of the source of the message D) the nature of the message 5
38)
39) According to the ________ model, the major impact of the mass media occurs after the
purchase is made. A) cognitive response C) low-involvement
39)
B) dissonance/attribution D) standard learning
40) Arminda is watching a late night TV show when a low-budget commercial for a local
40)
restaurant comes on the air. She is turned off by the poor quality of the commercial and immediately tunes out the message without processing any of the information. Arminda is engaging in what type of message processing? A) Central processing B) Source blocking C) Peripheral processing D) Support arguing 41) The field of experience of the receiver most heavily influences which component of the
communication process? A) Message B) Noise
C) Decoding
41)
D) Feedback
42) The experiences, perceptions, attitudes, and values a consumer brings to a
42)
communication situation is referred to as his or her: A) selective perceptions. B) source characteristics. C) field of experience. D) common ground. 43) Gillette believes commercials for deodorants are processed primarily through a
43)
peripheral processing route. This might explain why the company would use which of the following advertising strategies? A) Detailed ads with strong message arguments about Gillette brands B) Ads that use celebrity endorsers and memorable jingles C) Very detailed ads with a great deal of information about the causes of body odour D) Ads that pay more attention to information in the copy than executional elements such as visual imagery 44) Marketers trying to sell ________ will find the use of a catchy jingle or ad slogan to be
44)
most effective. A) consumer durables that require detailed information B) services where differentiation is important C) products characterized by high-involvement response hierarchy D) products characterized by a low-involvement response hierarchy 45) Which of the following provides the sender of an advertising message with a way of
monitoring the effectiveness of the message? A) Noise filters C) Encoding mechanisms
B) The channel D) Feedback
6
45)
46) Which of the following response hierarchy models depicts consumers as going through
46)
the stages of presentation - attention - comprehension - yielding - retention - behaviour? A) The AIDA model B) The information processing model The low involvement model C) D) The hierarchy of effects model 47) The communication process begins with the process of ________, which leads to the
47)
development of a ________ that contains the information or meaning a source hopes to convey. A) decoding; transmission B) encoding; response C) encrypting; transmission D) encoding; message 48) Loblaws supermarkets buy an insert to go into Saturday's Toronto Star. The newspaper is
48)
read by over 100,000 people. The newspaper is an example of a(n) ________ channel of communication. A) direct-response B) nonpersonal C) direct response D) individualized 49) Which of the following statements describes how the traditional hierarchy of effects
49)
model can be used as a measure for advertising effectiveness? A) Consumers must pass through each stage before making a purchase. B) The hierarchy is not useful because sales are the only appropriate goal of advertising. C) Awareness and recall are the most important measures of ad effectiveness. D) The stages of the hierarchy offer useful intermediate measures of advertising effectiveness. 50) Learning through ________ plays an important role in marketing. Buyers can be
50)
conditioned to form favourable impressions and images of various brands through the associative process. A) operant conditioning B) classical conditioning C) the elaboration likelihood model D) instrumental conditioning 51) A comprehensive literature review suggests that the effects of advertising should be
51)
evaluated using the following three dimensions: A) attention, preference, and retention B) cognition, preference, and retention C) cognition, affect, and experience D) awareness, affect, and comprehension 52) According to the ________ hierarchy, advertisers of products like light bulbs, ketchup,
computer paper, nail clippers, and other items bought without a lot of thought need to use heavy repetition strategy. A) high-involvement B) low-involvement C) three-orders response D) dissonance-attribution 7
52)
53) Trial, purchase, adoption, and rejection are all examples of the ________ stage of the
53)
response process and appear in all of the models describing the consumer response process. A) behavioural B) cognitive C) motivational D) affective 54) The AIDA model is often used to represent what ideally happens during:
54)
A) the decoding of direct marketing advertising pieces B) sales promotions C) personal selling D) the introduction of innovative new consumer products 55) Honda broadcasts a commercial during "Law & Order," a TV program that is seen by a
55)
large number of viewers. The broadcasting of this ad takes place in a(n) ________ channel of communication. A) verbal B) nonpersonal C) personal D) individualized 56) Putting thoughts, ideas or information together in symbolic form is called: A) encoding
B) decoding
C) deciphering
56)
D) shaping
57) The effectiveness of a celebrity endorser in an ad depends on:
57)
A) the music, visuals, and copy that surround the celebrity's image B) whether the consumer uses the brand C) the popularity of the celebrity D) the receiver's involvement level 58) The element of the communication process that closes the loop in the communication
58)
flow and allows the sender to monitor how a message is being received and interpreted is: A) feedback B) response C) encoding D) reception 59) Which of the following statements about word-of-mouth (WOM) communication is
NOT TRUE? A) Electronic WOM tends to cut down overall shopping time and time considering a product purchase. B) Both opinion leadership and opinion seeking contribute to online forwarding and chatting about a message. C) Marketers will target trendsetters and other influencers because consumers tend to listen to others' opinions about a brand. D) Non-loyal customers may be more responsive to marketing campaigns designed to encourage them to spread the word about a product.
8
59)
60) ________ is defined as a consumer's desire for a product category independent of the
particular brand. A) Competitive interest C) Alternative evaluation
60)
B) Category demand D) Primary demand
61) The elaboration likelihood model (ELM) states that there are two basic routes to
61)
persuasion, the central route and the peripheral route. With the peripheral route to persuasion: A) the receiver is viewed as very actively involved in the communication process B) the message will be more likely received if a popular celebrity endorser is used C) the message should contain a lot of information D) the quality of the message claims is more important than the spokesperson, headline, pictures, or music bed 62) Each of the following statements about an advertising message is true EXCEPT:
62)
A) advertising messages can be verbal or nonverbal. B) the effectiveness of an advertising message may be determined by the impression or
image it creates rather than the information it contains. C) advertising messages cannot be primarily visual. D) advertising messages are generally put into a transmittable form that is appropriate
for the channel of communication being used. 63) Arvin believes that using personal channels will be most effective for communicating the
63)
launch of his new restaurant. He should employ each of the following methods EXCEPT: A) rewarding his kitchen and wait staff for recommending the restaurant to their friends and families B) promoting current, and asking for new, menu suggestions over Facebook and Twitter C) visiting local school groups and seniors centres D) billboards in his neighbourhood 64) Which response hierarchy views the consumer as engaging in passive learning and
random information catching? A) Dissonance/attribution C) Informative processing
64)
B) Low-involvement D) Standard learning
65) The fact that marketing and advertising people have backgrounds and interests that are
often quite different from consumers who comprise mass markets for many products and services makes it difficult to establish: A) response hierarchies B) feedback mechanisms common ground C) D) fields of experience
9
65)
66) Which of the following is NOT a controllable variable in the communication process? A) Message
B) Source
C) Receivers
66)
D) Channel
67) The various models of the ways consumers respond to advertising and other forms of
67)
marketing communication show that: A) it is important that marketers try to determine which type of response process is most likely to occur so that they can tailor their programs to favourably influence consumer response B) the notion of a highly involved consumer who engages in active information processing and acts on the basis of higher-order beliefs and well-formed attitudes is appropriate for all purchase situations C) consumers are generally highly involved in the response process and engage in active information processing D) consumers never make purchase decisions based on a general awareness resulting from repetitive exposure to advertising 68) Which of the following statements about effective communication is true?
68)
A) Whether an ad is in black and white or in colour has no impact on how effectively
the message is communicated. B) Effective communication is unaffected by the reception environment. C) For effective communication, marketers must understand the meanings that words and symbols attach to consumers and how these words and symbols are interpreted. D) Advertising communication is effective because marketers are able to tell consumers how to interpret their messages within the context of the communication. 69) A study of the various consumer response models shows that each of the following
69)
factors in promotional decision making are true EXCEPT: A) Managers should not be as concerned about a consumer's previous brand experience as much as the effect that the current message has on both previous and prospective buyers. B) Managers need to have a detailed profile of the target audience to whom their messages are being directed. C) Managers should plan for both the cognitive and the affective responses of the message receiver. D) Managers want to know if their messages are achieving the intended results of improving awareness or attitudes towards their brands. 70) The source and receiver each have a frame of reference that they bring to the
communication situation. Effective communication is more likely when there is some ________ between the two parties. A) field of experience B) feedback mechanism C) common ground D) interpretative link
10
70)
71) Riley told Terry and Bill, Terry told Melissa, and Melissa told Gwen, Andrew, and Beryl
71)
that the new Chinese restaurant in town had authentically prepared Chinese dishes. This word-of-mouth took place via a(n) ________ channel of communication. A) individualized B) nonpersonal C) verbal D) personal 72) Research on the elaboration likelihood model (ELM) has shown that:
72)
A) celebrities are effective peripheral cues in a high-involvement situation B) the quality of message arguments is likely to be very important in a
low-involvement situation C) peripheral cues are more important than detailed messages in high-involvement situations D) celebrities are effective peripheral cues in a low-involvement situation 73) The elaboration likelihood model (ELM) states that there are two basic routes to
73)
persuasion, the central route and the peripheral route. Under the central route to persuasion, a message recipient is viewed as: A) being a very active and involved participant in the communication process B) lacking the motivation to process a message C) having a low level of involvement and relying on imagery processing D) unlikely to engage in detailed cognitive processing 74) When considering the implications of social media on the traditional communication
74)
model (source, message, channel, receiver, feedback), which of the following is true? A) It is very difficult to obtain meaningful feedback from a message delivered through social media. B) The model needs to be reconsidered, as social media is a two-way channel of communication. C) User-generated content is not considered as a brand message, and therefore the model does not apply. D) The planning model still applies. The source of the brand message in this case is another consumer rather than the promotional manager. 75) Bob Smythe sells women's clothes and is making a sales presentation to the buyer at a
major department store. Which of the following would NOT be considered a form of feedback that Smythe might receive from the buyer? A) The buyer's availability to meet at short notice B) The size of the order the buyer is willing to make C) The nonverbal responses the buyer makes such as frowns or gestures D) The questions the buyer asks
11
75)
76) Nonpersonal channels of communication include:
76)
A) salespeople, friends, relatives, and spokespeople B) reference groups, sales clerks, and telemarketers C) newspapers, magazines, billboards, and salespeople D) online television broadcasts, radio, newspapers, and magazines 77) Two-way communication between a brand and its consumers on social media such as
77)
Twitter, Facebook and blogs are examples of a(n) ________ channel of communication. A) personal B) individualized C) verbal D) nonpersonal 78) The ad for Jergens lotion indicated that it has both beta hydroxy to defoliate dry skin and
78)
alpha hydroxy to moisturize skin. Someone who knew something about how these additives work might respond to the ad by thinking, "If it has both those ingredients, it must be really good for my skin. I'm going to buy a bottle." The individual's response to the ad's copy would be an example of a: A) positive execution thought B) negative ad execution thought C) counterargument D) support argument 79) ________ assumes that learning is an associative process with an already existing
79)
relationship between a stimulus and a response. A) Peripheral conditioning B) Classical conditioning C) Operant conditioning D) Instrumental conditioning 80) Which of the following communication processes will most likely be influenced by the
80)
experiences, perceptions, attitudes, and values of the message recipient? A) Decoding B) Encoding C) Transmission D) Noise 81) The encoding process leads to the development of: A) a message
B) a channel
C) feedback
81) D) noise
82) According to a comprehensive literature review, what are the three critical intermediate
82)
effects between advertising and purchase in the consumers' response process? A) Attention, preference, retention B) Cognition, affect, experience C) Awareness, affect, comprehension D) Cognition, preference, retention 83) To attract new customers, a promotional manager may consider brand messages that: A) give less detail, in favour of catchy jingles and visuals B) appeal to the consumer's intellectual capacity C) include strong peripheral clues D) support high-involvement processing
12
83)
84) ________ is likely to occur when a point-of-purchase display for OPI nail polish is
84)
teamed with a life-size portrait of Katy Perry, a woman many admire and want to emulate. A) Psychological conditioning B) Affective modelling C) Cognitive conditioning D) Classical conditioning 85) ________ is any unplanned distortion or interference in the communication process. A) Noise
B) Selective perception
C) Feedback
D) Blocking
86) Travis missed the small ad for Walker Nursery in the newspaper today because his
85)
86)
attention was distracted by an ad for an estate sale that was on the same page. In terms of the communication process, the ad for the estate sale kept Travis from seeing the plant nursery ad and acted as: A) a decoding block B) noise C) negative feedback D) a receptor block 87) ________ is the passing of information, the exchange of ideas, or process of establishing
87)
a commonness of thought between a sender and receiver. A) Decoding B) Communication C) Advertising D) Encoding 88) Inez and Troy were just strolling through the mall when they saw a mattress with
88)
adjustable levels of firmness in a store window. Once they became aware that such a product existed, they were eager to talk to a salesperson and learn more about the mattresses. After talking to the salesperson for thirty minutes, Inez and Troy realized they wanted to own one. They used their credit card to order a mattress and to pay for its delivery to their home. In terms of the models of response process, Inez and Troy have just gone through the stages in the ________ model. A) hierarchy of effects B) learning C) AIDA D) adoption response 89) For which of the following products would an advertiser be more likely to use the
89)
standard learning model to explain the consumer decision-making process? A) Pickup truck B) Computer disk C) Garden rake D) Bar of soap 90) The ________ model is a response model that was developed for setting and measuring
advertising objectives. A basic premise of this model is that advertising effects occur over a period of time. A) hierarchy of effects B) diffusion rate C) information processing D) AIDA
13
90)
91) According to the dissonance/attribution model, the consumer passes through which of
91)
the following response sequences during the decision-making process? learn feel feel learn A) Do B) Do Feel learn do Learn feel do C) D) 92) ________ are thoughts that occur to a consumer when reading, viewing, and/or hearing a
communication. A) Conative impressions C) Elaborations
92)
B) Cognitive responses D) Affective responses
93) According to the elaboration likelihood model (ELM), a receiver lacks the ability or
93)
motivation to process information under the ________ route to persuasion. A) central B) affective C) cognitive D) peripheral 94) The Rossiter and Percy perspective summarizes four communication effects for the
94)
target audience. They are: A) category need, brand awareness, brand attitude, and brand purchase intention B) level of involvement, brand attitude, reference group influence, and affective behaviour C) choice, consumption, loyalty, and habits D) consumer memory, brand knowledge, feelings, and action 95) An ad for The Westin Hotel in Ottawa contains an 800-number that people interested in
95)
reserving rooms at the hotel or knowing more about the hotel can call. One way to determine the effectiveness of this ad is to count the number of phone calls it receives in response to its ad. This response count is an example of: A) noise filtering B) decoding C) feedback D) qualitative research 96) ________ occurs when an unconditioned stimulus and a conditioned stimulus occur in
close proximity in time and space. A) Contiguity C) Association
96)
B) Generalization D) Repetition
97) Mentos mint candy uses an advertising campaign that shows people solving problems by
thinking outside of the box–by taking a fresh look at a common problem. Freshness is the message that the ad is supposed to deliver. When Dick and Bella Lestor saw the ad, Dick said to Bella, "That ad is simply showing people being rewarded for being rude and boorish. How could any company think that sort of ad would appeal to decent people?" Dick's comment about the ad source represents a: A) source derogation B) counterargument C) negative ad execution thought D) positive execution thought
14
97)
98) The basic function of the elements of the integrated communication program is to:
98)
A) convince customers to make a purchase immediately B) educate customers about the features of a product or service C) convince customers to pay a higher price for a product or service D) communicate with a firm's target audience 99) According to the ________, the consumer is an active participant in the communication
99)
process and gathers information through active learning. A) maximum likelihood model B) low-involvement hierarchy C) dissonance/attribution model D) standard learning hierarchy 100) Some people have questioned the fact that Nike maintained their endorsement contract
100)
with Tiger Woods after his personal "fall from grace". The ill feelings that some people have towards him and his behaviour could be an example of: A) message blockage B) counterargument C) source derogation D) source blockage 101) Which of the following would NOT be considered "noise" in the communication
101)
process? A) A competitor's glossy magazine ad compared to your one-colour newspaper ad B) A decrease in your advertising expenditure versus last year C) The preponderance of commercials during a popular TV show D) The use of a sign, symbol or words that are unfamiliar to the target audience 102) Of the categories of cognitive responses discussed in the text, which is most likely to
predict a viewer's attitude toward the ad? A) Ad execution-related thoughts C) Purchase intention thoughts
102)
B) Product/message thoughts D) Brand attitudes
103) The four communication effects for the target audience summarized in the Rossiter and
Percy perspective are category need, brand awareness, brand attitude, and ________. A) brand purchase intention B) brand recognition C) brand value D) brand significance
15
103)
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 4 1) C 2) C 3) A 4) C 5) C 6) A 7) C 8) D 9) A 10) A 11) B 12) C 13) C 14) C 15) B 16) D 17) A 18) A 19) C 20) B 21) A 22) A 23) A 24) B 25) D 26) D 27) A 28) C 29) B 30) C 31) D 32) D 33) C 34) B 35) C 36) A 37) B 38) A 39) B 40) C 41) C 42) C 43) B 44) D 45) D 46) B 47) D 48) B 49) D 50) B 16
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 4 51) C 52) B 53) A 54) C 55) B 56) A 57) D 58) A 59) A 60) D 61) B 62) C 63) D 64) B 65) C 66) C 67) A 68) C 69) A 70) C 71) D 72) D 73) A 74) D 75) A 76) D 77) A 78) D 79) B 80) A 81) A 82) B 83) D 84) D 85) A 86) B 87) B 88) C 89) A 90) A 91) B 92) B 93) D 94) A 95) C 96) A 97) A 98) D 99) D 100) C 17
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 4 101) B 102) A 103) A
18
Chapter 5 Exam Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Many marketing managers prefer sales-oriented objectives for advertising for all of the
1)
following reasons EXCEPT: A) money spent on advertising and promotion can only show measurable results through sales and market share data B) sales-oriented objectives help get everyone involved in the promotional program to think about how advertising and promotion will increase sales C) the reason a company spends money on advertising and promotion is to sell its products or services D) objectives should be based on the achievement of sales results 2) Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between marketing and
2)
communication objectives? A) For a successful campaign, communication objectives can be developed before or after the development of marketing objectives. B) Marketing objectives and communication objectives are synonymous. C) Communication objectives are derived from marketing objectives. D) There is no relationship between the two. 3) Air Canada set the following objective for its new advertising campaign: "To increase
3)
the percentage of consumers who know that our fares are lower than the competitors from 55 percent to 75 percent over the next six months." Using the criteria associated in the DAGMAR approach to setting objective, what is wrong with this objective? A) It does not contain a benchmark measure and statement of the degree of change sought. B) It does not specify a well-defined target audience. C) It does specify a specific time period for accomplishing the objective. D) Nothing is wrong with this objective; it satisfies all of the criteria specified in the DAGMAR model. 4) According to the hierarchy of effects model, the percentage of prospective customers
will ________ at the higher pyramid levels. A) be other brand switchers C) increase
B) come from current users D) decline
1
4)
5) In mature markets with limited growth, firms tend to focus on ________ as the key
5)
marketing objective. A) generating awareness B) sales growth C) profit D) winning market share from the competition 6) Which of the following is an example of a "smart" marketing objective?
6)
A) Heinz plans to increase ketchup sales in Ontario by 6% this year. B) Skittles will target 17-year-old boys in order to increase consumption by 80,000 lbs.
in the next calendar year. C) Bob has been told by his manager to grow his number of clients this year. D) The purpose of Mr. Clean's advertising is to show home owners how it can be used to fight grime all around the house. 7) ________ is an approach to setting advertising objectives, which states that
7)
communication effects are the logical basis for advertising goals and objectives against which success or failure should be measured. A) Zero based communications planning B) The hierarchy of effects model C) Inside-out communications planning D) DAGMAR 8) For which of the following advertising communication tasks should the specified time
8)
period required be the longest? A) Increasing knowledge levels about a brand attribute B) Repositioning a brand C) Creating knowledge regarding a brand attribute D) Increasing brand awareness levels 9) Brand recall is often referred to as:
9)
A) product knowledge
B) message acceptance
C) product demand
D) unaided brand awareness
10) Brand ________ is often referred to as unaided brand awareness when measuring. A) objectives
B) recognition
C) unawareness
11) The ________ brand attitude is when a marketer focuses on a new motive for purchasing
the brand that the target audience will be receptive toward. A) maintained B) established C) modified
2
10)
D) recall
D) increased
11)
12) Each of the following is a strategy for stimulating sales through growth in the product
12)
category EXCEPT: A) encouraging current users to use the product in different ways B) providing various packaging sizes and formats C) encouraging non-users to buy the product D) increasing consumption by current users 13) Achieving marketing objectives depends on the coordination and execution of ________.
13)
A) promotional elements across multiple vehicles B) regional channels C) non-specific corporate priorities D) all marketing mix elements 14) The purpose of setting specific marketing communication objectives is to:
14)
A) forecast the market share level that can be attained by good advertising B) provide a benchmark against which the success or failure of the promotional
campaign can be measured C) put constraints on the creative department D) have a method of determining when to delete products from the product line 15) Assume that the Greyhound Bus Company runs a six-month advertising campaign
15)
promoting its convenient bus routes and excellent on-time service without conducting any sort of marketing research. At the end of the six-month period, Greyhound conducts a study and finds that 80 percent of its frequent travellers agree that the bus company has convenient bus routes and excellent on-time service. Greyhound can conclude that: A) the campaign was not successful since it should have nearly 90 percent of riders agreeing that it offers convenient bus routes and excellent on-time service B) its advertising is working C) without benchmark measures, it will never know if the campaign was a success or a failure D) the campaign was successful in changing perceptions regarding its service 16) Oreo wishes to create awareness of its new Swedish Fish (gummy candy) filled cookies.
According to the hierarchy of effects model, which of the following would be an effective tool to use? A) magazine ads in publications geared to their intended target audience B) bonus packages in store, offering 20% more for the same price as regular Oreos C) sponsorship of 3-on-3 hockey and basketball tournaments, with signage and product sampling D) flashy video content on Oreo's website, showing Swedish Fish "swimming to a store near you"
3
16)
17) Managers who use the communications effects pyramid to set objectives believe that:
17)
A) advertising and promotion should first accomplish higher-order objectives such as
trial and purchase and then create awareness and brand knowledge B) advertising and promotion cannot accomplish lower-order objectives C) the foundation of the communications program is set by accomplishing lower-level objectives such as awareness, knowledge, and comprehension D) lower-level objectives such as purchase and reuse form the foundation of the communications program 18) Companies that develop integrated marketing communications (IMC) programs that do
18)
not contain specific objectives: A) will be able to save money since they won't spend too much time worrying about what they are trying to do B) will often have too many benchmark measures against which the success or failure of their programs can be assessed C) will be more successful than companies that develop IMC programs with specific objectives D) may find it difficult to facilitate coordination of the efforts of various groups working on a promotional campaign 19) Before beginning its new advertising campaign, TD Canada Trust conducted a study to
19)
determine consumers' level of awareness and knowledge of the bank and its services as well as consumers' perceptions of the bank's image. These are examples of: A) DAGMAR objectives B) marketing research goals C) communication tasks D) benchmark measures 20) The carryover effect:
20)
A) encourages the use of nonspecific objectives B) has no effect on the relationship between advertising and sales C) can be particularly long-lasting with mature, low-priced, and frequently purchased products D) has no impact on sales objectives 21) Procter & Gamble wishes to encourage trial usage of Pampers diapers among new
21)
parents. An effective way to do this would be to: A) insert coupons into Pampers packages B) create a strong comparison ad between Pampers and Huggies diapers C) distribute free diaper samples to parents of newborns in the hospital D) encourage testimonials from other parents 22) Which of the following is at the top of the communication effects pyramid? A) Purchase/repurchase C) Preference
B) Knowledge D) Awareness
4
22)
23) DAGMAR is:
23)
A) a model of consumer behaviour B) a model of advertising goal setting C) the most often used method of setting objectives D) a method of setting sales objectives 24) Kool-Aid drink mixes face an interesting dilemma. A study of consumers' pantries in
24)
households with young children indicated that Moms have multiple packages of the product in the home. Until she makes up a pitcher or two of the drink, however, no further purchases will occur. Kool-Aid needs to initiate a program to encourage: A) repeat purchase B) purchase frequency C) repeat consumption D) brand trial 25) Marketers may have a ________ objective when communicating with their current
25)
customers who have previously purchased the brand and have the product in their home or work. A) purchase-related B) repeat-consumption C) category trial D) brand-switching 26) The consumer's overall evaluation of the brand is known as ________. A) branding
B) brand value
C) brand attitude
D) brand consideration
27) Determining a target market's present level of awareness, knowledge, and liking toward a
26)
27)
product often requires the taking of ________ measures. A) quantitative awareness B) qualitative awareness C) benchmark D) sales interval 28) Successful communications objectives must be measurable, time specific, have
28)
benchmark measures and: A) a specific market share goal B) a well-defined target market C) be convincing to the sales force D) be different than the previous year's objectives 29) Every single point of communication should contribute to a target audience's
29)
understanding and knowledge of the brand name. This universal communication objective is known as: A) brand awareness B) brand insistence C) brand attitude D) market saturation 30) Which of the following is NOT a communication objective option for brand attitude? A) Create or establish brand attitude
B) Increase brand attitude
C) Maintain brand attitude
D) Favour brand attitude 5
30)
31) Under the DAGMAR model, a(n) ________ can be performed by, and attributed to,
31)
advertising rather than a combination of marketing factors. A) functional communication change B) advertising benchmark marketing task C) D) communication task 32) As the Marketing Manager for Hellmann's Mayonnaise you create a message reminding
32)
the target audience of how delicious Hellmann's has always tasted in a turkey sandwich. Your primary communication objective most likely is: A) to remind new category users of how much they have enjoyed Hellmann's in the past B) to convince non-mayonnaise users to eat more turkey C) to increase repeat purchases from brand loyals D) to educate other brand users about the use of mayonnaise 33) Before setting objectives for advertising and promotion, an organization should:
33)
A) develop communication goals B) conduct surveys to develop the media objectives C) develop creative objectives D) conduct a situation analysis to identify marketing and promotional issues facing the
firm 34) Michelin creates a TV commercial showing how their HydroEdge tires stop an average
34)
of 14 feet shorter than Goodyear's ComforTred tires. Their primary communication objective most likely is: A) to increase repeat purchases from brand loyals B) to convince other brand users about Michelin's superior safety performance to ensure that their next purchase is a set of Michelin tires C) to convince non-drivers to buy a car and put Michelin tires on it D) to persuade new car owners that they bought the wrong tires 35) According to the criteria outlined in DAGMAR, which of the following is the best
quantitative benchmark statement? A) "Increase awareness of the brand in this calendar year." B) "Increase sales revenue by 10 percent." C) "Increase the number of female millennials mentioning the brand name when asked for brand preference from 40 percent to 50 percent." D) "Win new customers from our core competitor and increase sales volume by 15 percent."
6
35)
36) Procter & Gamble wishes to encourage trial usage of Pampers diapers among parents
36)
who currently use another brand, but might be willing to switch. An effective way to do this would be to: A) create a strong comparison ad between Pampers and Huggies diapers B) encourage testimonials from other parents C) distribute free diaper samples to parents of newborns in the hospital D) insert coupons into Pampers packages 37) A firm in a fast-growing market may have ________ as its marketing objective. A) market share
B) profit maximization
C) generating awareness
D) sales growth
38) A new manufacturer of stereo speakers which has no brand awareness developed a
37)
38)
statement of advertising objectives, which stated that the goal of the company's new ad campaign is "To make 30% of the audience aware of our new brand." This statement could serve as an example of a: A) communications task B) short-term promotional objective C) sales objective D) benchmark measure 39) Using the DAGMAR approach, which of the following is NOT a stage of commercial
communication? A) Awareness
B) Sales
C) Action
D) Conviction
40) ________ at the point of purchase based on past messages can be sufficient for brand
consideration or purchase. A) Brand superiority C) Brand recognition
39)
40)
B) Brand preference D) Brand recall
41) Shahida Rampal owns a neighbourhood restaurant specializing in foods from her native
41)
India. Her research has shown that consumers in the area come to her restaurant 2 or 3 times a year, along with their visits to 4 or 5 other establishments nearby. She would like to entice these consumers to visit her restaurant at least one extra time over the course of a year. Her behavioural objective could be described as: A) brand trial B) purchase frequency C) brand awareness D) purchase timing 42) The "category need" communication objective is also known as: A) non-user stimulation
B) market share growth
C) demand build
D) brand switching
43) According to DAGMAR, the basic function of advertising is to: A) communicate
B) change behaviour
C) generate action
D) create sales
7
42)
43)
44) Which of the following is NOT an uncontrollable environmental factor?
44)
A) The state of the economy and consumers' level of disposable income B) The relative price of the item compared to the competition C) Laws and regulations affecting the industry D) Changing consumer trends and preferences 45) Virgin Mobile is trying to reach consumers who never owned a cell phone. This is an
example of: A) category need C) unfulfilled need
45)
B) fulfilled need D) repressed need
46) Which of the following is NOT a likely problem for a manager who uses sales as a
46)
measure of advertising effectiveness? A) Other marketing mix variables besides sales can affect sales results. B) Sales offer little guidance or direction to those responsible for planning and developing the advertising program. C) There is often a long period between when advertising is run and when sales actually occur. D) The marketing and competitive environment have very little influence on sales. 47) Which of the following is an example of the carryover effect of promotional
47)
communication? A) Coke and Pepsi's battle for brand supremacy has been going on for decades, with their share of market both hovering around 45%. B) Davis has seen many Honda ads on television, as well as on rink boards on NHL broadcasts. His car just broke down, and he will take a test drive this weekend at the Honda dealership based on the strong brand attributes he recalls. C) Betsy is tired of seeing ads for diapers, baby toys, and clothing, as she already has three grown children. D) Parveen tried a perfume sample in the fashion magazine she was reading and liked it so much that she purchased it the following weekend. 48) The use of sales as an advertising objective can be ineffective due to: A) the fact that there is often a lagged effect whereby the effect of advertising on sales
is not immediate B) the fact that it is easy to isolate the effects of advertising on sales C) the fact that they offer sufficient guidance for those responsible for planning and developing promotional programs D) the fact that advertising objectives emphasizing sales are generally the best operational guides to decision making
8
48)
49) According to the DAGMAR model, which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a
49)
good objective? A) A good objective is based on sales results. B) A good objective specifies a time period for accomplishment. C) A good objective specifies the target audience. D) A good objective is concrete and measurable. 50) Steven owns a card and gift shop. Recent research shows that the average sale in his
50)
store is $7.50. That is, consumers on average spend $7.50 each time they visit. Steven has initiated a loyalty card program which offers one free greeting card for every 10 that a consumer buys in the hope that can increase his store's average sale to $8.50 per visit. This is an effective tactic to use with what kind of repeat purchase objective? A) purchase amount B) category building C) purchase frequency D) purchase timing 51) Which of the following is NOT one of the four communication objectives
accommodated by the R&P framework? A) Brand purchase intention C) Market share growth
51)
B) Brand attitude D) Category need
52) Campbell's Soup aired TV commercials and ran magazine ads featuring recipes "just like
52)
Mom used to make." The behavioural objective behind this campaign was: A) brand re-trial B) purchase intent C) repeat purchase D) brand switching 53) According to the DAGMAR model, a good advertising objective does NOT: A) target a diversified audience
B) specify degree of change sought
C) indicate a starting point
D) specify a time period
54) According to Rossiter & Percy's approach, the link between marketing objectives and
53)
54)
communication objectives is: A) environmental analysis B) geared to sales figures C) measurement of brand attitudes and purchase intent D) behavioural objectives 55) Sprite soft drink sponsored "Flowrider" surfing exhibits at major summer events,
offering free samples of their new citrus flavour to consumers who attended. The behavioural objective behind this campaign was: A) brand trial B) purchase timing C) repeat purchase D) brand awareness
9
55)
56) Which of the following is the most plausible target audience when the main marketing
objective is to increase market share? A) New category users C) Other brand switchers
56)
B) Other brand loyals D) Brand loyals
57) The hierarchy of effects model suggests that consumers move through a series of steps en
57)
route to purchase. Which of the following shows the correct order of these steps? A) Awareness, Knowledge, Liking, Preference, Conviction, Purchase B) Knowledge, Awareness, Trial, Liking, Preference, Loyalty C) Awareness, Understanding, Preference, Liking, Agreement, Trial D) Knowledge, Trial, Preference, Word of Mouth, Conviction, Repurchase 58) One characteristic of good objectives is that they:
58)
A) can only be measured at the beginning of the campaign. B) specify a method and criteria for determining how well the promotional program is
working. C) create awareness for the company. D) create memorable advertising. 59) Under the DAGMAR approach, the communication task is based on the hierarchical
59)
model ACCA, which stands for: A) awareness, comprehension, conviction, action B) advertise, create, consume, act C) audience, customer, consumer, acquisition D) awareness, consideration, cost, achievement 60) Ace Computer has an objective of increasing its share of the home segment of the
60)
personal computer market by 5 percent during the upcoming year. This is an example of a(n) ________ objective. A) organizational B) marketing C) advertising D) functional 61) The information processing model may be an effective framework for setting objectives
61)
and: A) researching consumer needs B) determining whether consumers will follow through on their intended purchases C) allocating the advertising budget appropriately D) evaluating the effects of a promotional campaign 62) The concept of advertising expenditures producing long term as well as immediate
results is known as: A) the communication effect C) the halo effect
B) the carryover effect D) DAGMAR
10
62)
63) According to the information processing model, which type of research/test would help
63)
determine the effectiveness of a campaign designed to target exposure to the message? A) Measurement of Web page views B) Indicators of purchase intent Actual purchase levels C) D) Message recall tests 64) Brands increasingly encourage website visits, interaction with other customers on social
64)
media and viewing or posting videos in content communities. This digital fostering of brand experience is a current form of: A) brand experience B) shopper marketing C) purchase timing D) multi-level marketing 65) To many marketing managers, the basic reason a firm spends money on advertising and
promotion is to: A) create a positive corporate image C) create awareness of the company
65)
B) position the company and its brands D) generate sales
66) Which of the following behavioural objectives is more likely to be selected when a firm
plans to increase its profit? A) Category trial C) Brand trial
66)
B) Brand switching D) Repeat purchase
67) Kraft distributes baking recipes on the labels of their peanut butter, in order to:
67)
A) encourage current users to consume more Kraft peanut butter B) show new peanut butter consumers what to do with it C) add value to the peanut butter purchase D) steal away other brand loyals 68) McDonald's has developed a campaign to highlight their healthier menu items, such as
68)
the 290-calorie Egg McMuffin. In order to determine whether the target audience accepts that McDonald's does offer healthy food choices, according to the information processing model, which type of research/test should McDonald's employ? A) Message recall tests B) Listener, reader, viewer recognition tests C) Changes in inventory levels D) Measurement of brand attitudes and purchase intent 69) Which of the following is the most plausible target audience when the main marketing
objective is to increase sales volume? A) New category users C) Other brand loyals
B) Other brand switchers D) Brand loyals
11
69)
70) ________ objectives are types of objectives that are usually stated in terms of specific,
measurable outcomes such as sales volume, market share, or return on investment. A) Organizational B) Marketing Sales C) D) Communication
12
70)
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 5 1) A 2) C 3) B 4) D 5) C 6) B 7) D 8) B 9) D 10) D 11) C 12) B 13) D 14) B 15) C 16) C 17) C 18) D 19) D 20) C 21) C 22) A 23) B 24) C 25) B 26) C 27) C 28) B 29) A 30) D 31) D 32) C 33) D 34) B 35) C 36) A 37) A 38) A 39) B 40) C 41) B 42) C 43) A 44) B 45) A 46) D 47) B 48) A 49) A 50) A 13
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 5 51) C 52) A 53) A 54) D 55) A 56) C 57) A 58) B 59) A 60) B 61) D 62) B 63) A 64) B 65) D 66) D 67) A 68) D 69) A 70) B
14
Chapter 6 Exam Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of the following is NOT a good example of a specific competitive space within a
1)
broader product category? A) sport coupés within the camping category B) anti-dandruff shampoos within the shampoo category C) chocolate bars within the chocolate category D) Windows Surface vs. iPads within the personal computer category 2) Hellmann's "Real Food Movement" emphasized the fact that the mayonnaise was made
2)
from only pure ingredients, unlike other sandwich spreads. Prior to this, consumers had chosen spreads based mainly on taste. This focus on the health benefits of "real" food was an attempt to: A) influence negative beliefs B) influence attribute beliefs C) influence brand recognition D) influence attribute importance 3) Via Rail is in competition with the airlines and uses positioning by: A) usage situation
B) product category
C) distribution intensity
D) brand name
4) What is the distinction between the brand's positioning strategy and its actual brand
3)
4)
image? A) Actual brand image is the target audience's overall assessment of the brand versus what brand management had intended them to feel and think about the brand. B) Competitive activity will impact on brand positioning strategy but not actual brand image. C) A well-conceived brand positioning strategy will guarantee a strong brand image in the hearts and minds of consumers. D) Brand image is determined by actual sales figures. 5) When Philadelphia cream cheese educated consumers on how to cook with the product,
it partitioned the market according to: A) product category C) brand name
5)
B) usage situation D) end benefit
6) The market position of a firm represents:
6)
A) the firm's position in the global economy B) an expansion of the consumer's past impressions of the firm's marketing efforts C) the way that the company has responded to the competition D) the intended or unintended consumer belief in the organization's marketing efforts
1
7) ________ motives occur when consumers anticipate a problem if they do not take
7)
preemptive action through the purchase of a product. A) Incomplete satisfaction B) Sensory gratification Problem removal C) D) Problem avoidance 8) ________ motives are active for consumers in purchase situations where they enjoy
8)
some elements of a product but dislike other parts and are seeking alternative solutions. A) Problem removal B) Incomplete situation C) Mixed approach-avoidance D) Problem avoidance 9) The key factor in communicating information about the brand and differentiating it from
9)
competitors is: A) the market positioning strategy assigned by its manufacturer B) its integrated promotional strategy C) the benefits the brand offers D) its perceived price differential 10) A(n) ________ positioning strategy is possible when the brand can claim and deliver on
the most salient benefits. A) brand name C) central brand
10)
B) product category D) end benefit
11) The first step in the development of a brand positioning strategy is: A) develop a market partition
B) assess brand position
C) assess competitors' position
D) determine brand positioning strategy
12) In addition to salient attributes, brand position diagrams should also compare brands on
11)
12)
the basis of ________, such as overall satisfaction or social fulfillment. A) salient benefits to the consumer B) communication effectiveness C) previous purchase decisions D) personal needs assessment 13) McDonald's has historically employed ________ with communication directed to
13)
children featuring Ronald McDonald, while parents received messages of the special time they could enjoy with their family. A) positioning B) single target audiences C) repositioning D) multiple target audiences 14) The market position diagram is also called a(n) ________. A) perception indicator
B) perceptual map
C) opportunity diagram
D) research plot
2
14)
15) Cheerios ran competitive ads that suggested people eat the cereal as a snack while
15)
watching TV, instead of chips and other salty products. This is an example of positioning by: A) end benefit B) salient attribute C) product category D) brand name 16) Gatorade's new G Series moved the brand from a hydration platform to a sports nutrition
16)
brand for serious athletes. This repositioning essentially expanded on their current brand benefit positioning into a ________ positioning strategy. A) user B) brand name C) brand attitude D) product category 17) Dove changed the face of the personal care market with its Campaign for Real Beauty, in
17)
which the brand took a ________ position with their focus on "real beauty" rather than "cosmetic beauty." A) central B) differential C) brand benefit D) user 18) A&W's advertising focuses on their use of 100% beef raised without hormones or
18)
steroids in their hamburgers, a fact that seems to resonate positively with consumers. A&W are using a ________ positioning strategy. A) brand benefit B) product category C) user D) central brand 19) A market positioning statement:
19)
A) divides potential segments into viable targets B) concerns both the business and consumer markets C) reflects the firm's market share in relation to the competition D) provides direction for each of the marketing mix decision areas 20) Consumers who visit websites to gather information while searching for a replacement
computer might be considered to be: A) brand switchers C) non-category users
20)
B) inquisitive D) loyal customers
21) Ads for sunscreen in the summer and sidewalk salt in the winter are examples of
messages focusing on ________ motives. A) mixed approach-avoidance C) social approval
21)
B) normal depletion D) problem avoidance
22) Markets are partitioned by each of the following EXCEPT: A) usage situation
B) end benefit
C) competitive dynamics
D) brand name
3
22)
23) Beliefs concerning specific attributes or benefits that are activated and form the basis of
an attitude are referred to as: A) salient beliefs C) salient benefits
23)
B) salient attributes D) salient attitudes
24) Subaru Outback took a ________ position when they showed viewers that life outdoors
was better than sitting at home. A) differential B) brand benefit
C) user
24)
D) central
25) Comparative advertising based on specific product attributes is an attempt to:
25)
A) influence attribute beliefs B) influence attribute belief of competitor brand C) influence attribute importance D) add new attribute benefits 26) The headline on the ad for Broilmaster Grill read, "The Most Durable Grill Known to
Man." Broilmaster is using a positioning strategy based on: A) end benefit B) product class C) brand name
26)
D) competitor
27) Shoppers Drug Mart positions its Life Brand products as a leader within the generic drug
27)
store brand category. Shoppers is using a ________ positioning strategy. A) differential brand B) product category C) user D) central brand 28) Peter has been asked to partition the restaurant market by brand. Which of the following
28)
would NOT be an appropriate sub-division of this market by brand? A) casual vs fine dining B) family dining vs corporate occasion C) drive-through vs dine in D) Chinese vs Mexican cuisine 29) The ________ model studies consumer attitudes toward the brand, their beliefs about a
29)
brand's performance, the number of brand attributes, and the importance attached to each attribute. A) attribute consideration B) multiattribute attitude C) brand belief D) competitive positioning 30) When preparing perceptual maps, marketers will name the vertical and horizontal axes
based on ________. A) quality and price only C) salient attributes
30)
B) consumers' salient beliefs D) previous response to advertising
31) Marketers will sometimes focus on additional brand benefits that have not been
communicated previously. This multiattribute strategy is called: A) influence attribute importance B) add new attribute belief C) influence brand functionality D) add attribute beliefs 4
31)
32) Prior to deciding on the most effective selling message, the marketer can use positioning
32)
to determine: A) what competitive space the brand is competing in, as illustrated in a perceptual map B) their relative market share in comparison to the competition C) whether specific brand characteristics are as relevant to consumers as price D) the most inexpensive media buy, and then develop messages accordingly 33) A(n) ________ positioning strategy occurs where the individual is motivated for social
33)
or individual reasons, and the ads emphasize how good the consumer feels while using the brand. A) central brand B) user C) end benefit D) product category 34) Brand position diagrams should show a comparison of competing brands on the basis of: A) consumers' salient beliefs
B) previous response to advertising
C) consumers' aspirations
D) salient attributes
35) Walmart has been very effective in positioning itself as a store that offers quality
34)
35)
products at a very good price. Their strategy reflects positioning based on: A) product category B) demographic segmentation C) psychographic segmentation D) brand name 36) Dawn dish detergent claims to remove grease residue that other detergents leave behind.
36)
This focuses on consumers' ________ motives. A) normal depletion B) social approval C) incomplete satisfaction D) mixed approach-avoidance 37) Bounty paper towels' claim to be "the quicker picker-upper" is an attempt to:
37)
A) influence attribute beliefs B) influence attribute importance C) add new attribute benefits D) influence attribute belief of competitor brand 38) The Florida Orange Juice Commission's advertising campaign based around the slogan,
38)
"It's not just for breakfast anymore," reflects positioning by: A) cultural symbol B) product category C) usage situation D) product user 39) Brand awareness, purchase intention, changes in consumer perception, and advertising
are all factors considered in this stage of the brand positioning strategy decision process: A) develop a market position B) implement brand positioning strategy C) assess brand position D) monitor brand positioning strategy
5
39)
40) Which of the following is NOT an example of a base for implementing a positioning
strategy? A) product category C) distribution intensity
40)
B) usage situation D) brand name
41) DC Shoes emphasized the fact that their skateboard shoes minimize heel bruising when
41)
doing tricks, which is important to hardcore skaters. DC was using a ________ positioning strategy. A) product category B) brand name C) central brand D) user 42) Brand position indicates its:
42)
A) distribution intensity
B) location on store shelves
C) relative market share
D) image
43) HP is partitioning the laptop market into work vs pleasure. They are partitioning by: A) brand name
B) usage situation
C) end benefit
D) type of product
44) When consumers do not strongly believe that the brand possesses a particular important
attribute, the market will attempt to: A) influence attribute importance C) influence brand functionality
43)
44)
B) influence attribute beliefs D) add a new attribute belief
45) All of the following are steps in the development of a brand positioning strategy decision
process EXCEPT: A) determine brand positioning strategy C) assess consumer income levels
45)
B) assess brand position D) develop a market partition
46) Apple Computers positioned itself as user friendly and thus gained an advantage over
IBM. Apple used positioning by: A) end benefit C) cultural symbols
46)
B) product user D) brand name
47) In light of consumers' beliefs that all banks were pretty much the same, Scotiabank
repositioned itself on the basis of enhanced financial services. After building loyalty among its own customers, it used the phrase "You're richer than you think" to differentiate itself from other banks and connect with: A) other brand loyals B) category non-users C) lobby groups D) new home buyers
6
47)
48) ________ motives are based on the product providing a positive experience via one of
the five senses. A) Social approval C) Normal depletion
48)
B) Incomplete satisfaction D) Sensory gratification
49) The criteria for market partitioning include the type of product, end benefit, usage
situation, and: A) brand name C) individual choice
49)
B) salient attitude D) competitive position
50) With end benefit positioning, marketers make a direct link between a particular brand
attribute and the consumer's: A) usage situation C) product awareness
50)
B) derived benefit D) brand preference
51) Each of the following scenarios is an example of repositioning EXCEPT:
51)
A) Subaru Outback reversed sales declines by suggesting that consumers deserved to
be outdoors more. B) Tetley tea began associating its flavours to different moods a consumer might have prior to consumption. C) Mercedes-Benz capitalizes on precision German engineering. D) Molson re-introduced its Canadian Light brand as Canadian 67, to focus on the caloric content of the beer. 52) Informational motives are:
52)
A) based on non-users' states B) based on the consumer's negative state C) based on the consumer's normal state D) based on the consumer's neutral state 53) Multiattribute models are used to gauge consumer attitudes toward a brand and the
53)
importance of the brand's ________ to the consumer's purchase decision. A) promises B) sales C) name D) benefits 54) While developing its market positioning strategy: A) the firm generally chooses the market with the fewest competitors. B) the marketer will emphasize the improvement of product appearance. C) the marketer will choose a single category in which to compete. D) the firm considers as many feasible options as possible in order not to miss a market
opportunity.
7
54)
55) Organizations often involve themselves in sponsorship activities to signal that they are
55)
socially responsible. This is especially effective when positioning: A) consumer services B) corporate brands competitively inferior brands C) D) business-to-business products 56) Which of the following is NOT one of the ways that marketers use the multiattribute
56)
model to persuade attitudes of target audiences regarding brand characteristics? A) influence attribute beliefs B) influence attribute belief of competitor brand C) influence attribute importance D) influence brand functionality 57) Ingrained brand attitudes and consumer familiarity with the market structure makes
________ difficult to achieve. A) response evaluation C) sensory gratification
57)
B) perception monitoring D) brand repositioning
58) Reactine's "Fluffy Kittens" ad repositioned the brand using a ________ strategy. A) purchase frequency
B) multiple target
C) problem-solution
D) sensory gratification
59) Consumers looking for a shampoo to help with their dandruff problems are exhibiting: A) social approval motives
B) normal depletion motives
C) problem removal motives
D) sensory gratification motives
60) New Balance, which advertises that their shoes are best used for the court, for running,
or for walking, is using positioning based on: A) usage situation C) brand name
58)
59)
60)
B) product category D) product user
61) Black & Decker introduced its Snakelight as an innovative solution to the problem of
61)
trying to hold a flashlight while working. This is an example of positioning by: A) end benefit B) brand name C) product category D) salient attitudes 62) All of the following are informational motives EXCEPT: A) social approval
B) incomplete satisfaction
C) problem removal
D) normal depletion
63) All of the following are transformational motives EXCEPT: A) intellectual stimulation or mastery
B) sensory gratification
C) social approval
D) incomplete satisfaction
8
62)
63)
64) The decisions within the brand positioning strategy are based on market definition,
64)
differential advantage, target audience brand attitude, and: A) consumer purchase motive B) demographic changes economic considerations C) D) competitive activities 65) With its go anywhere for $69 ad campaign, Greyhound shows how inexpensively one
65)
can travel especially when compared to the cost of flying. Greyhound is using positioning by: A) brand name B) product category C) product attributes D) cultural symbols 66) A ________ strategy relates to the intended image of the product or brand relative to a
competing brand. A) brand positioning C) differentiation
66)
B) concentration D) market positioning
67) Which of the following illustrates how the use of positioning in a marketing
67)
communication context is distinct from positioning in a marketing strategy context? A) Only the communication positioning is relevant to the target market. B) A marketer will use the same message and set of IMC tools with every target segment in order to ensure integrated communication. C) A marketer will use IMC tools that speak to a very specific target audience with a particular competitive reference point. D) There is no distinction. 68) Hellmann's used the healthy positioning of its "Real Food Movement" campaign to
partition the market according to: A) product category C) usage situation
B) brand name D) end benefit
9
68)
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 6 1) A 2) D 3) B 4) A 5) B 6) D 7) D 8) C 9) A 10) C 11) A 12) A 13) D 14) B 15) C 16) A 17) A 18) A 19) D 20) A 21) B 22) C 23) A 24) C 25) B 26) A 27) D 28) B 29) B 30) C 31) B 32) A 33) B 34) D 35) D 36) C 37) D 38) C 39) D 40) C 41) D 42) D 43) B 44) B 45) C 46) A 47) A 48) D 49) A 50) B 10
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 6 51) C 52) B 53) D 54) D 55) B 56) D 57) D 58) C 59) C 60) A 61) A 62) A 63) D 64) A 65) B 66) A 67) C 68) D
11
Chapter 7 Exam Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The Taxi advertising agency works to test a creative idea they have for a new
1)
commercial before moving ahead with the production of the spot. To make the test more realistic it wants to test both the visual layout of the commercial as well as the audio portion of the message. The commercial should be tested in which of the following forms? A) Print copy B) Reaction profile C) Storyboard D) Animatic 2) A study by Roobina Ohanian of consumers' perceptions of celebrity endorsers found that
2)
the characteristic that most influenced consumers' intentions to purchase a product endorsed by a celebrity was perceived: A) attractiveness B) likeability C) trustworthiness D) expertise 3) The content of advertising with ________ appeals emphasizes facts, learning, and the
logic of persuasion. A) transformational C) emotional
3)
B) rational D) subliminal
4) Trout and Ries originally described ________ as the image consumers have of a brand in
relation to competing brands. A) positioning C) inherent drama
4)
B) brand image D) unique selling proposition
5) Marketers who try to select spokespeople whose traits will maximize their message
5)
influence are concerned about their credibility. The two important dimensions associated with credibility are: A) consistency and image B) recognizability and expertise C) image and expertise D) expertise and trustworthiness 6) An advertising campaign theme:
6)
A) is always tactical in nature and design B) is a strong idea, as it is the central message that will be communicated in all the
advertising and other promotional activities C) is usually used in ads that run in only one type of media vehicle D) is typically designed by the client and implemented by the agency
1
7) The creative brief is developed by:
7)
A) the brand manager on the client side B) the account planner C) the Institute of Communications and Advertising D) the agency's creative team 8) Dara is the creative director for the Wise-Humphrey advertising agency. She spends an
8)
hour every morning reading publications such as Marketing Magazine, Strategy, and The National Post to gain a better understanding of what is happening in the world of marketing and advertising. This activity can be characterized as: A) verification research B) product specific preplanning input C) general preplanning input D) problem detection research 9) When Corona beer used their "Find Your Beach" creative on billboards, Instagram,
9)
YouTube videos, subway and transit posters, and in-store signage, they were employing a ________ strategy. A) consistency across products B) consistency across media C) consistency across time D) consistency across executions 10) A financial services company who wants to use a spokesperson would agree that
10)
expertise and trustworthiness are very important when focusing on source ________, one of the categories of source attributes. A) identification B) credibility C) attractiveness D) image 11) Which of the following statements about research done by advertising agency about the
11)
use of humour in advertising is NOT true? A) Humour should not be used for advertising sensitive products. B) Humour may aid name and simple copy registration. C) Radio and television are the best media for executing humour. D) Humour confuses awareness. 12) ________ is the ability to generate fresh, unique, and appropriate ideas that can be used
as solutions to communication problems. A) Promotional uniqueness C) A unique selling plan (USP)
12)
B) Advertising creativity D) Positioning
13) An advertising creative specialist wants to learn as much as possible about the market for
a calcium-enhanced sports drink that can be used to develop the creative strategy. Which of the following should he NOT do first? A) Talk to coaches and trainers to get their reactions to the new product. B) Brainstorm some ideas with colleagues to develop potential slogans. C) Get a group of athletes to sample the drink and give their opinions about its taste and consistency. D) Talk to nutritionists about the actual nutritional value of the added calcium. 2
13)
14) ________ is the extent to which an ad contains novel, different, or unusual
characteristics. A) Divergence
B) Creativity
C) Positioning
14)
D) Relevance
15) Nizoral A-D shampoo is the only dandruff shampoo made with the number one
15)
doctor-prescribed ingredient, an ingredient that its manufacturer holds the patent on. This is the product's unique selling proposition (USP). Which of the following statements about this USP is true? A) This USP allows for the creation of a strong brand personality. B) This USP can be easily imitated. C) This USP does not benefit a large enough target market. D) This USP creates a sustainable competitive advantage. 16) Which of the following statements describes one of the findings of research on the use of
16)
decorative or physically attractive models? A) The relevancy of the model to the product being advertised is not important. B) A decorative model can facilitate recognition of the ad but not enhance readership or recall of the message. C) They do not result in favourable evaluations of an advertisement. D) Their effectiveness is limited solely to cosmetics and fashion products. 17) The Extra Awards celebrate the use of ________ as an effective medium. A) television
B) newsprint
C) sponsorship
D) crowd-sourcing
18) The ________ approach is a method to determine the creative theme/idea that uses
17)
18)
consumer benefits as a foundation with an emphasis on presenting these benefits in a dramatic way. A) positioning B) brand image C) benefit D) inherent drama 19) For weeks, Jill had been trying to come up with a creative approach to advertise
shampoo. She had decided to try not to think about it for a while to see if her subconscious could figure something out. As she was relaxing in her bath one night, a great idea for a creative shampoo advertising campaign just seemed to pop into her head. She leapt out of the tub and began to write it all down before she forgot it. In terms of the creative process, she has just gone through the ________ stage. A) illumination B) digestion C) verification D) immersion
3
19)
20) Which of the following is NOT one of the responsibilities of the account planner?
20)
A) lay the strategic foundation and influence the way that the advertising turns out B) provide key agency and client personnel with information required to make strategic
decisions C) develop the core creative concept on which the campaign will be built D) conduct research and gather all relevant information about the brand and the target market 21) Technical and high-involvement products often use a(n) ________ appeal. A) news
B) popularity
C) subliminal
22) Which of the following is NOT a form of qualitative research? A) Mall-intercept surveys
B) In-depth interviews
C) Focus groups
D) Associative tests
22)
23) The Bessies are awards celebrating the use of ________ as an effective medium. A) sponsorship
B) crowd-sourcing
C) television
D) newsprint
21)
D) feature
24) The ________ sponsored by Marketing Magazine identify the top creative
23)
24)
communication launched each year in a number of categories. A) Bessies B) Cassies C) Extra Awards D) Marketing Awards 25) The product's ________ says to the consumer, "Buy this product and you will get this
benefit." A) jingle C) brand equity
25)
B) unique selling proposition D) copy platform
26) The ________ determine(s) what the advertising message will communicate, while the
26)
________ lay(s) out how the message will be executed. A) creative brief; media plan B) marketing plan; advertising plan C) consumer insights; consumer behaviour D) creative strategy; creative tactics 27) Account planners are responsible for the conducting and analysis of research in order to
drive the creative process from a(n) ________ point of view. A) historical B) incubation C) head office 28) Source attractiveness leads to persuasion through a process of: A) internalization
B) comprehension
C) compliance
D) identification
4
27)
D) customer 28)
29) The end result of the creative process is the written document referred to as the
29)
________. It specifies the basic elements of the creative strategy and other relevant information. A) animatic B) working document C) selling idea D) creative brief 30) An ad for Neutrogena's Healthy Skin Anti-Wrinkle cream uses a(n) ________ appeal by
30)
noting that it is the brand most recommended by dermatologists. A) emotional B) favourable price C) comparative D) product popularity 31) Which of the following statements about image advertising is true?
31)
A) Image advertising is used most often when there are significant functional or
performance differences among brands. B) Advertisers often use image advertising when their products or services offer a unique attribute or benefit to consumers. C) Image advertising is often used when competing brands are difficult to differentiate on a functional or performance basis. D) Image advertising is most commonly used for business-to-business products. 32) Marketers try to select spokespeople whose traits will maximize their message influence.
32)
The three categories of source attributes that should be considered during the selection process are: A) credibility, recognizability, and individuality B) power, image, and knowledge C) credibility, attractiveness, and power D) consistency, credibility, and continuity 33) Which of the following does NOT make a good advertising slogan? A) evokes positive feelings
B) includes the key benefit of the brand
C) is complex and mystifying
D) is distinct from the competition
34) One way that a supermarket can make its ads seem more trustworthy is to:
33)
34)
A) hire attractive actors and actresses who look like people wished they looked B) show customers talking about the supermarket on hidden cameras C) use soothing music or an attractive colour combination D) use cartoon characters in humourous shopping experiences 35) Information from a credible source influences beliefs, opinions, attitudes, and/or
behaviours through a process known as: A) internalization C) conformity
B) compliance D) identification
5
35)
36) A(n) ________ is a series of drawings used to present the visual plan or layout of a
36)
proposed commercial along with a description of the audio for each scene. A) storyboard B) rough layout C) animatic D) creative map 37) ________ appeals are often used for brands with a small market share. A) Feature
B) Comparative
C) Emotional
37) D) Reminder
38) According to the sleeper effect phenomenon:
38)
A) the impact of persuasive messages from low-credibility sources can increase over
time since the message content becomes disassociated from the source B) people instinctively disassociate low-credibility sources from messages when they are paying less than full attention to the message C) the impact of persuasive messages diminishes over time D) people retain advertising messages when they see them right before going to bed and rehearse them in their sleep 39) Advertisements that focus on the dominant attributes or characteristics of a product or
service are known as ________ appeals. A) feature C) news
39)
B) product popularity D) price
40) Focus groups can be used during the advertising creative process for each of the
40)
following purposes EXCEPT: A) evaluate creative concepts, ideas, and campaign themes B) predict sales figures for a particular period C) gain detailed insight into how and why consumers use a product or service D) find any special needs that are not being satisfied 41) A dental hygienist in an ad for toothpaste is quoted as saying, "If patients could see what
41)
I see, they'd all use Colgate Total." Since everyone who goes to a dentist regularly is worried about plaque, gingivitis, and cavities, and her statement implies that other brands do a poorer job than Colgate Total at preventing dental problems, Colgate is using a(n) ________ appeal. A) nonverbal B) comparative C) irrational D) humourous 42) Which of the following statements is NOT a reason for why marketers may use
emotional appeals? A) Emotional appeals can create feelings or images that are activated when consumers use the brand. B) Emotional appeals can create favourable mood states, which make consumers more receptive to an advertising message. C) The favourable feeling created by the appeal may transfer to the brand. D) Research has proven that emotional messages should be based on factual data.
6
42)
43) An ad campaign to convince people to stop smoking uses three teens bungee jumping off
43)
a bridge. When they reach the ground, each grabs a soda can, opens it, and takes a drink. As the third person takes a drink, the can explodes and kills him. The final screen reads, "No other product but tobacco kills every third consumer." This ad is using a ________ appeal. A) fear B) comparative C) humourous D) nonverbal 44) To be appropriate and effective, a creative idea must be relevant to the:
44)
A) target audience
B) marketing objectives
C) creative advertising team
D) corporate plan
45) Advertising appeals that relate to the consumers' social and/or psychological needs for
purchasing a product or service are known as ________ appeals. A) rational B) irrational C) emotional
45)
D) informational
46) Which of the following statements describes a good reason for using celebrities in ads
46)
and having them endorse a company's product or service? A) The respect, popularity, or admiration a celebrity enjoys may carry over to the product she or he endorses. B) Celebrities cannot draw attention to advertising messages in a very cluttered media environment. C) Consumers may focus attention on the celebrity and not attend to the product and advertising message. D) Celebrities may be unable to enhance the target audience's perceptions of the products' image or performance. 47) A potential problem of using advertising with a strong fear appeal message to try and
47)
discourage drug abuse by teenagers is that: A) there is no appropriate medium B) a message with a high level of fear may have inhibiting effects and be tuned out by teenagers C) parents may be offended if the message is perceived as too frightening D) fear appeals never work with teenagers 48) The use of celebrities in commercials is generally based on the source characteristics of
48)
________ and represents an attempt to induce persuasion through the ________ process. A) attractiveness; internalization B) expertise; identification expertise; yielding C) D) attractiveness; identification 49) The ongoing tales of Salty the personified salt shaker in Knorr Sidekicks ads is an
example of the use of the ________ approach to determining the creative theme. A) unique selling proposition B) inherent drama consistency across time C) D) brand image
7
49)
50) Fear appeal ads promoting ________ would stress negative physical consequences or
50)
outcomes while appeals for ________ would stress the threat of social disapproval or rejection. A) seat belts; deodorant B) anti-smoking; seat belts C) safe driving; life insurance D) deodorant soap; mouthwash 51) Rational and emotional advertising appeals:
51)
A) represent two distinctive approaches which can never be combined B) can be combined since consumers' purchase decisions are often made on the basis
of rational and emotional motives C) are essentially the same D) are used together only for low-involvement products 52) A number of years ago Shell advertised its premium grade of gasoline as the only brand
52)
with "Platformate," a special ingredient that helped clean the engine and yield higher gas mileage. This is an example of what type of approach to a major selling idea? A) Inherent drama B) Transformation C) Unique selling proposition D) Brand image 53) The relevance of the creativity to the target audience supports the: A) marketer's main objectives.
B) brand positioning strategy.
C) efforts of the creative team.
D) message transmission.
54) David participated in a study done by an advertising agency. During his interview, he
53)
54)
was asked to gauge the services provided by a regional airline on the basis of his experiences and what others had told him. The interviewer asked David specific questions about the food, the seating arrangements, the ease with which he entered and exited the plane, and the service provided by the airplane attendants. Since the ad agency doing the research is the one that will be the creative strategy for the airline's new ad campaign, you know that David most likely provided the agency with: A) product/service specific preplanning inputs B) quantitative data which will be used by the client to determine market development strategies C) general product inputs to be stored and used later D) secondary external data 55) The creative themes of advertising are usually developed with the intention of being used
for a long time period. This statement falls under the category of: A) consistency across media B) consistency across executions C) consistency across products D) consistency across time
8
55)
56) Which of the following statements about celebrity endorsers is true?
56)
A) Research found that college-age students were more likely to have a positive
attitude toward a product endorsed by a celebrity than were older consumers. B) The strongest impact on advertising effectiveness is positive information about the celebrity endorser. C) Consumers may more strongly believe the message conveyed by a celebrity endorser because they know that they are paid to deliver it. D) Consumers who are very knowledgeable about a product or service tend to be most persuaded by celebrity endorsers. 57) A pharmaceutical company wants to promote a new over-the-counter cough medicine.
57)
The company has hired as its spokesperson an actor who has played a physician for several years on a popular soap opera. The first line of the commercial is, "Hi. I play a doctor on television." For people who are unfamiliar with this actor, the message source lacks ________, one of the source attribute categories. A) charisma B) credibility C) power D) positive image 58) ________ research is a qualitative research method where 10 to 12 consumers from a
58)
target market are led through a discussion about a topic such as women's shoes or hunting. A) Psychographic B) Focus group Problem detection C) D) Preparation 59) A commercial for MADD (Mothers Against Drunk Driving) shows viewers the havoc
59)
that is caused by drunk drivers. The factual, newslike nature of the ad indicates it is using a(n) ________ appeal. A) fear B) emotional C) refutational D) rational 60) Judy, the creative director for YTT ad agency, is observing a focus group for four-wheel
60)
drive SUVs. She is gathering ________ before she begins to develop creative strategy for an SUV manufacturer. A) general preplanning input B) illumination research C) product specific preplanning input D) secondary internal data 61) ________ of a commercial has been proven to be a major determinant of success in
changing brand preferences. A) Uniqueness C) Length
B) Frequent airing D) Likeability
9
61)
62) Which of the following statements about the use of teaser advertising is true?
62)
A) Teaser ads do not work well because consumers really do not pay much attention to
advertising. B) Teaser ads are used by marketers to draw attention to upcoming advertising campaigns and generate interest and publicity for them. C) Teaser ads cannot be used to draw attention to and generate publicity for an upcoming advertising campaign. D) Teaser ads usually offend consumers. 63) It is important that marketers ensure that all ads feature a similar "look and feel." This
statement falls under the category of: A) consistency across time C) consistency across products
63)
B) consistency across executions D) consistency across media
64) Golda has to create an ad campaign for an online subscription encyclopedia. She has
64)
gathered together all the relevant environmental information and has studied the product as closely as possible. Now it is time for the ________ stage of the creative process. She needs to work on another project and put the encyclopedia project completely out of her conscious mind. A) illumination B) immersion C) incubation D) digestion 65) Which of the following statements gives a reason why a marketer might want to
65)
emphasize creativity in the development of an advertising campaign? A) Creative advertising cannot create positive feelings that transfer to the product or service. B) Creative advertisements that are creative for the sake of being creative often fail to produce a sale. C) Creative advertising is effective even if it is irrelevant to the target audience. D) Creative advertising can break through the clutter and make an impression on consumers. 66) Which of the following statements about feature appeals is true?
66)
A) Feature appeals can be used for advertising a product but not a service. B) Feature appeals focus on consumers' affective responses rather than on product attributes or benefits to the consumer. C) Feature appeals tend to be very informative and present a number of attributes that can be used as the basis for a rational purchase decision. D) Feature appeals are rarely used for technical and high-involvement products. 67) Attitude studies and perceptual mapping would be examples of: A) verification studies B) general preplanning inputs C) revision studies D) product/service specific preplanning inputs 10
67)
68) According to James Webb Young, a former creative director at the J. Walter Thompson
68)
agency, the production of creative advertising ideas: A) is a definitive process that can be learned and controlled B) is a random process that cannot be taught C) does not follow a definitive plan D) has as many different routes as there are different forms of creativity 69) From the perspective of a brand manager, a commercial is likely to be judged as creative
69)
if it: A) wins creative awards B) communicates the message clearly and leaves favourable impressions among the
target audience C) is unlike anything currently in the marketplace D) has a high level of artistic or aesthetic value 70) The ________ reduces the creative theme or idea into a few words or a brief statement
that reinforces the branding message. A) brand logo C) consistent message
70)
B) slogan or tagline D) product illustration
71) The source characteristic of attractiveness encompasses:
71)
A) similarity, likeability, and familiarity B) expertise, familiarity, and comfort C) comfort, recognizability, and beauty D) beauty, familiarity, and recognizability 72) Each of the following statements regarding the relevance of advertising creativity is true
72)
EXCEPT: A) The creative can stray from the brand's positioning strategy if the advertising idea is original and has artistic value. B) Relevant creativity will establish brand benefits and reasons why the target consumer should purchase it. C) The target audience experiences selective comprehension when faced with many competing promotional messages. D) Relevance has to create brand associations through specific cognitive and emotional responses. 73) Reading anything related to the product or market is a part of the ________ stage of the
creative process. A) reality check
B) incubation
C) immersion
11
D) verification
73)
74) The theme for the advertising campaign is usually expressed in the ad through a slogan
or ________. A) consistent illustration C) positioning statement
74)
B) product shot D) tagline
75) Clients give effective direction to their agency by developing a(n) ________ that
75)
summarizes important information about the brand's positioning strategy. A) creative brief B) brand mantra C) campaign strategy D) information session 76) All Nippon Airways (ANA) is the largest airline in the Far East. Its ads focus on the
76)
Japanese hospitality that is offered on its planes everything from elegant tableware to the finest in Far Eastern cuisine. If comfort and fine food is important to you when you travel, then you should think ANA next time you are booking a flight to Asia. This development of a strong, memorable identity for ANA is an example of: A) image advertising B) attribute-based positioning C) unique selling proposition D) inherent drama 77) Some marketers avoid the use of humour in their advertising because:
77)
A) humour can put the consumer in a good mood and increase liking of the ad B) effective humour is difficult to produce C) humour can draw attention away from the product D) humour compels the receiver to engage in counterarguing 78) Which of the following statements about the use of corporate leaders as advertising
78)
spokespersons is true? A) The use of corporate leaders as spokespersons can create problems if the firm's image becomes too closely tied to this individual. B) Only major Fortune 500 type companies use corporate leaders as spokespersons. C) Many companies believe the use of a company president or CEO is an ineffective way of expressing the company's commitment to quality and customer service. D) Corporate spokespersons are ineffective for consumer products. 79) The ________ are awards given to celebrate Canadian advertising success stories. A) Bessies C) Extra Awards
79)
B) Cassies D) Marketing Awards
80) Because of the ________ model, marketers may experience negative publicity if their
product endorser is involved in controversy. A) celebrity popularity C) endorsement shift
B) meaning transfer D) celebrity expertise
12
80)
81) On a global level, the ________ is widely considered the most prestigious advertising
award competition. A) Cannes C) Cassies
81)
B) Marketing Awards D) Extra Awards
82) Which of the following is likely to suffer when a celebrity endorses too many products
and is seen too often by consumers? A) Credibility C) Internalization
82)
B) Power D) Expertise
83) This brand established itself as a cultural icon through its creatively divergent ads
83)
depicting its uniquely shaped bottle and thought-provoking visions of the world. A) Absolut vodka B) Natrel pure-filtered milk C) Monster energy drink D) Crown Royal Canadian whisky 84) Which of the following is NOT an example of a favourable price appeal?
84)
A) The Bay department store announces a new line of women's sportswear. B) Walmart stores advertise their everyday low prices. C) Nissan advertises the 2008 Altima as the lowest priced car in its class. D) McDonald's restaurant promotes its $2.99 meal deal. 85) The Dial soap ad campaign that used the slogan, "Aren't you glad you use Dial? Don't
85)
you wish everybody did?" is a good example of: A) a refutational appeal B) comparative advertising C) a mild fear appeal D) an irrational appeal 86) Research shows that consumers perceive Molson's Export beer as strong, bold, and
86)
outdoorsy. This is an example of how consumers assign a ________ to a brand. A) product features B) unique selling proposition C) personality D) product benefit 87) Advertising appeals that express or imply some type of physical or emotional danger and
87)
try to arouse consumers to take steps to remove the threat are known as ________ appeals. A) comparative B) irrational C) nonverbal D) fear 88) The creative team ________ when creating ads because clients can feel uncomfortable
with advertising that is too different. A) doesn't divulge their divergent ideas until they are ready for final production B) includes the client at every step of the process C) copies last year's campaign D) follows proven formulas
13
88)
89) Retailers wanting to announce sales, special offers, or everyday low prices often use a
________ appeal. A) favourable price C) promotional
89)
B) popularity D) news
90) Research by Environics suggests that Canadian and American ________ are not exactly
90)
the same, so marketers need to come up with uniquely Canadian executions. A) emotions B) values C) motives D) thoughts 91) Andrew is the creative director for an agency that has just taken on a golf ball
91)
manufacturer as a client. Before starting to develop creative ideas, Andrew reads some golfing magazines and spends time talking to some friends and co-workers who play golf. These activities are part of which stage of the creative process? A) illumination B) verification C) immersion D) incubation 92) A copywriter in the Creative Edge agency has just been assigned to the Wendy's fast
92)
food restaurant account. One of the first things he may want to do is: A) spend some time visiting fast food restaurants, eating their food and talking to consumers about some of their specific likes and dislikes of Wendy's and their competitors B) come up with alternative positioning concepts for Wendy's C) try to come up with some big ideas that can be the basis of a creative ad campaign D) sit down and begin writing copy for sample ads 93) Each of the following examples uses an emotional appeal EXCEPT:
93)
A) Hallmark Cards' advertising focuses on people's reactions to receiving a greeting
card for special occasions. B) Penningtons is a women's clothing store specializing in larger sizes. Their advertising shows plus size models "owning" their day, thus empowering women of all sizes. C) Current commercials for the smart fortwo compact car show how easy it is to park in small urban spaces. D) Old Spice used humour to update the image of their men's personal care products. 94) Consistency across time may be beneficial to attract the brand's non-customers because: A) to be considered an effective communications campaign, brands should follow the
"rule of 3" B) the familiarity of the creative theme is recognizable when the non-customers may be entering the product category, or considering switching from their current brand C) consumers tend to have longer recall when they are loyal to a brand D) consumers these days exhibit very little brand loyalty, especially the young adult demographic
14
94)
95) Dell computer has developed a significant technological breakthrough that will make its
95)
computers easier to use for novices. Dell will probably use which of the following types of appeals to announce the breakthrough? A) Favourable price appeal B) Emotional appeal C) Popularity appeal D) News appeal 96) At the beginning of summer when the weather begins to get hot, the makers of Kool-Aid
96)
beverages wish to ensure that moms will stock up on their kids' favourite flavours. They should use a(n) ________ appeal. A) emotional B) reminder C) teaser D) rational 97) Advertising appeals that focus on the consumer's practical, functional or utilitarian needs
97)
and emphasize product features and benefits are known as ________ appeals. A) price B) emotional C) inherent drama D) rational 98) The notion that a low credibility source may be just as effective as a high credibility
98)
source with the passing of time is known as the: A) decay effect B) sleeper effect C) identification outcome D) time/place consequence 99) The computer software company Intuit runs an advertising campaign for Quicken that
99)
promotes the fact that it is the most preferred and bestselling brand of financial software. This is an example of what type of advertising appeal? A) emotional B) product popularity C) transformational D) teaser 100) Each of the following describes the creative theme, EXCEPT:
100)
A) directly communicates the brand positioning strategy to its intended target audience B) comprises a variety of unrelated messages pulled together by strong visuals C) reflects the market positioning strategy D) represents the central message of a marketing communication program 101) To make a creative layout of a commercial more realistic, a(n) ________ may be
produced by making a videotape of the ________ along with an audio soundtrack. A) animatic; copy platform B) storyboard; animatic C) animatic; storyboard D) campaign; storyboard
15
101)
102) Petra is the creative director for an ad agency. The agency has just taken on a
102)
manufacturer of women's shoes for aqua aerobics as a client. As part of her preparation for developing a creative strategy, Petra reviews some studies conducted on the overall fitness and exercise market as well as a report on the changing roles of women in society. This information is part of the: A) problem detection studies B) illumination studies C) product specific preplanning input D) general preplanning input 103) Unlike other alkaline batteries and traditional rechargeable batteries, Rayovac Renewal
103)
alkaline battery is reusable 25 times or more. The ad headline read, "Introducing the Best-Performing Battery System in All of Creation." This ad was based on the Rayovac Renewal alkaline battery's: A) inherent drama B) brand equity C) unique selling proposition D) brand image 104) Hubba Bubba bubble gum is the only chewing gum that lets you blow great big bubbles
104)
that won't stick to your face. This statement represents the gum's: A) unique selling proposition B) inherent drama C) brand image D) brand equity 105) ________ is defined as an attraction for a source based on a resemblance between the
source and receiver. A) Expertise
B) Familiarity
C) Similarity
105)
D) Likeability
106) Which of the following is the best example of a USP, as defined by Rosser Reeves of the
106)
Ted Bates agency? A) Tesla is building the Model 3, a small, completely electric battery-fueled vehicle, as their entry into this growing market. B) Energizer uses their iconic battery-operated bunny to demonstrate how much longer their batteries work than the competition. C) Nike has many entries in the professional sports shoe market. D) Pepsi-Cola now offers a zero calorie, zero carb beverage to compete with Coke. 107) Studies show that creative advertising can positively impact emotional responses and get
107)
consumers' attention by: A) providing a reason to purchase B) fulfilling marketing objectives C) breaking through the cluttered media environment D) establishing new grounds for communication 108) A spokesperson who delivers an advertising message and/or demonstrates a product or
service is known as a(n): A) source mirage C) indirect source
B) message shaper D) direct source 16
108)
109) In order for a creative message to be considered a "campaign":
109)
A) it must be a new creative idea B) it must be scientifically proven to have longevity C) it needs to include many products in the mix D) there should be multiple executions 110) The creative director of an agency has chosen three likely creative ideas to concept test
110)
through focus groups in a couple of major markets. The findings of this research will guide the final tweaking of the creative concept. This represents the ________ stage of the creative process. A) incubation B) verification C) reality check D) digestion 111) Before deciding to use a fear-appeal message strategy, an advertiser should consider the
111)
level of fear to use in the message because: A) fear appeals have only inhibiting effects on consumer behaviour B) a low to medium level of fear can attract attention and interest and may motivate the receiver to act to resolve the threat C) the message recipient may be motivated to act to resolve the threat if the level of fear is quite low D) defensive reactions such as tuning out a message or perceiving it selectively may occur if the level of fear is low 112) The first three sections of the creative brief are: A) a considered response to competitive activities B) derived from the client's marketing plan and discussions among brand management
and creative specialists C) independently developed by the agency creative team D) an extension of the previous year's communications plan
17
112)
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 7 1) D 2) D 3) B 4) A 5) D 6) B 7) A 8) C 9) B 10) B 11) D 12) B 13) B 14) A 15) D 16) B 17) B 18) D 19) A 20) C 21) D 22) A 23) C 24) D 25) B 26) D 27) D 28) D 29) D 30) D 31) C 32) C 33) C 34) B 35) A 36) A 37) B 38) A 39) A 40) B 41) B 42) D 43) A 44) A 45) C 46) A 47) B 48) D 49) B 50) A 18
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 7 51) B 52) C 53) B 54) A 55) D 56) A 57) B 58) B 59) D 60) C 61) D 62) B 63) B 64) C 65) D 66) C 67) D 68) A 69) B 70) B 71) A 72) A 73) C 74) D 75) A 76) A 77) C 78) A 79) B 80) B 81) A 82) A 83) A 84) A 85) C 86) C 87) D 88) D 89) A 90) B 91) C 92) A 93) C 94) B 95) D 96) B 97) D 98) B 99) B 100) B 19
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 7 101) C 102) D 103) C 104) A 105) C 106) B 107) C 108) D 109) D 110) B 111) B 112) B
20
Chapter 8 Exam Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of the following is NOT one of R&P's suggestions regarding building brand
1)
awareness through recognition and recall? A) The primary benefit claim in the ad should be lengthy in order to be easily understood. B) A bizarre or unusual execution style can be used if it is consistent with the brand attitude objective. C) A jingle or similar memory tactic should be included. D) The brand and the category need should be connected in the primary benefit claim. 2) Which of the following is NOT a critical point of a message structure?
2)
A) Order of presentation B) Body copy C) Verbal versus visual message characteristics D) Message sidedness 3) On a cost-per-minute basis, ________ messages are the most expensive messages to
produce. A) video
B) celebrity
C) print
3)
D) audio
4) Recent television commercials for Buckley's Mixture invited consumers to "show us
4)
your Buckley's face". Their contorted expressions conveyed the idea that Buckley's tasted awful, with the implied suggestion that it was effective against coughs. This is an example of a(n): A) nonverbal appeal B) open-ended message C) one-sided message D) two-sided message 5) Which of the following is true about audio messages? A) The voiceover speaker or actors should maintain an even tone to ensure
comprehension. B) Jingles work best when they are introduced in a video ad first, before translating it to an audio-only format. C) Brands employ unique sound effects to allow the visual to take hold in the receiver's mind. D) Music is not as much of a key component in audio messages, as it can muddle the meaning of the message.
1
5)
6) Historically, radio has been referred to as:
6)
A) the theatre of the mind B) appropriate for local audiences only C) a low-budget alternative to television D) a cost-effective way to deliver technical information 7) Which of the following is an example of an advertising personality symbol? A) Wayne Gretzky
B) Celine Dion
C) The Man from Glad
D) William Shatner
8) Which of the following criteria are advertisers less likely to use in evaluating the creative
7)
8)
work of their agencies? A) Consistency with the brand's marketing and advertising objectives B) Likeability of the message C) Appropriateness for the media D) Appropriateness for the target audience 9) Each of the following is a source of guidelines for the emotional portrayal of motive
9)
found in the creative tactics suggestions of the R&P planning model EXCEPT: A) execution style B) intensity of benefit claim C) like ad D) authenticity 10) Many advertising experts consider that the most important part of a print ad is the: A) illustration
B) layout
C) headline
D) body copy
11) An advertising execution technique that is particularly popular for creating commercials
targeted at children is: A) demonstration C) testimonial
10)
11)
B) slice-of-life D) animation
12) Timberland Co. sells all-weather gear. For its advertising, it has developed an imaginary
12)
place called Timber Land, which is a utopian setting of extraordinary landscapes and crystal-clear water. Its ads use a(n) ________ execution style to get the audience to envision themselves in Timber Land. A) slice-of-life B) imagery C) demonstration D) animation 13) Straight-sell message executions are commonly used with ________ advertising appeals. A) rational
B) emotional
C) transformational
D) teaser
2
13)
14) The visual portion of an advertisement may reduce its persuasiveness because:
14)
A) processing stimulated by the picture may be less controlled and less favourable than
the processing stimulated by words B) pictures may not attract attention to the product C) pictures are always low in imagery value D) verbal is always more effective than nonverbal communications 15) Which of the following statements about conclusion drawing is NOT true?
15)
A) Whether to draw a conclusion for the audience depends on the complexity of the topic. B) Less educated people may make incorrect inferences from a message where a conclusion is not stated. C) Messages with explicit conclusions are more effective in influencing attitudes. D) Letting the customer draw their own conclusion should only be done when the marketer is looking for immediate action from the target. 16) Standard poster format, portrait orientation, landscape orientation, vertical or horizontal
splits are all terms used to describe: A) subheads B) illustrations
C) layouts
16)
D) trademarks
17) A series of drawings used to present the visual plan or layout of a commercial is known
17)
as a: A) script
B) layout
C) storyboard
D) voiceover
18) What is the main text portion of a print ad called? A) Subhead
B) Body copy
C) Headline
18) D) Layout
19) A strong example of imagery execution style would be:
19)
A) a happy, active family going on vacation in a new Chevy van. B) a prosperous looking gentleman in a high-end restaurant, wearing a Rolex watch. C) a dentist recommending Trident gum for his patients who chew gum. D) Mr. Clean helping to clean up a huge kitchen mess. 20) ________ is considered the heart of a print ad but is often difficult to get people to read. A) The body copy
B) The headline
C) The logo
D) The subhead
21) An ad for Lipton tea states that according to laboratory research, "a serving of tea has
more antioxidants than a serving of carrots or broccoli." Which type of ad execution is being used in this example? A) Comparison B) Dramatization C) Testimonial D) Scientific/technical evidence
3
20)
21)
22) Marketers who rely on image executions have to be sure that the ________ with which
22)
they associate their brand evokes the right feelings and reactions from the target audience. A) dramatization B) location C) usage or user imagery D) testimonial 23) Common types of ________ headlines include those offering a specific benefit and
making a promise. A) indirect
B) straight-sell
C) direct
23)
D) rational
24) During which stage of the commercial production process do activities such as editing,
24)
recording of sound effects, audio/video mixing, and agency approval occur? A) Postproduction B) Production C) Preparation D) Preproduction 25) Each of the following is a source of guidelines for the benefit claim of the brand message
25)
found in the creative tactics suggestions of the R&P planning model EXCEPT: A) number of benefits B) repetition of benefit claim C) intensity of benefit claim D) information of benefit 26) Most advertisers refuse to use two-sided messages because they:
26)
A) are concerned about the impact of a two-sided message on source credibility B) are concerned over presenting only the negative attributes of their brands C) have been proven ineffective by a number of different advertising research studies D) are concerned over the negative effects of acknowledging a weakness in their brand 27) ________ is an occupational term in the advertising and music industries that refers to
27)
prefabricated, multipurpose music that is often used as the background audio portion of a commercial. A) Jingle B) Needledrop C) Voiceover D) Stock music 28) Drawing a ________ in the message may make sure that the target audience gets the
point the marketer intended. A) recency effect C) conclusion
28)
B) picture D) primacy effect
29) Which of the following is an example of an advertising personality symbol? A) Michael Jordan
B) Snap, Crackle, and Pop characters
C) Shaquille O'Neal
D) Tiger Woods
4
29)
30) The function of music in a commercial is to do all of the following EXCEPT:
30)
A) showcase a famous music artist B) create a mood state that will make consumers more receptive to the message C) provide a pleasant background for the message D) help establish or communicate a key selling point 31) ________ is the words in the leading position of an advertisement that are likely to be
read first. A) Primary copy
B) Subheads
C) Body copy
31)
D) Headline
32) Each of the following statements describes microfilm advertising EXCEPT:
32)
A) It is used to motivate online viewing, discussion and distribution, and is intended to
persuade. B) It is important that viewers enjoy the story, as this will motivate them to forward it, and it strengthens brand attitude. C) A shorter version of video messages emerged due to social media and the sharing of video messages online. D) The inverted U-shaped relationship with purchase intent suggests that brand identification should come before the entertainment, and not after. 33) An advertising execution technique that relies on a straightforward presentation of
33)
information concerning the product or service is called a(n): A) demonstration execution B) dramatization execution C) straight-sell execution D) animation execution 34) Presenting the strongest arguments at the beginning of the commercial message assumes
a ________ is operating. A) primacy effect C) sleeper effect
34)
B) recency effect D) credibility effect
35) ________ are catchy songs about a product or service that usually carry the advertising
theme and a simple message. A) Theme songs B) Jingles
C) Needledrops
35)
D) Voiceovers
36) A special type of two-sided message is known as a(n) ________ message. The
36)
communicator presents both sides of an issue and then shows the opposing viewpoint to be false. A) rational B) nonverbal C) refutational D) emotional 37) Research suggests that Maytag's or Travelocity's employment of ________ is an effective
tactical element to ensure awareness. A) personality symbols C) demonstration
B) laboratory results D) imagery
5
37)
38) An ad shows dandruff on Jim's shoulder. He is rebuffed by his girlfriend. He then applies
38)
Head and Shoulders, and his dandruff disappears. His girlfriend is attracted to him again. This is an example of: A) slice-of-life advertising B) testimonial C) demonstration D) a response-stimuli execution 39) When an advertiser has something important or new to announce to a target audience,
a(n) ________ headline will be used. A) affective B) direct
C) indirect
D) visual
40) "You always have time for Tim Hortons" is an example of a: A) needledrop
B) catchy jingle
C) voiceover
39)
40) D) subhead
41) A marketer may NOT want to use a message that draws an explicit conclusion for a
41)
target audience if: A) the audience is highly educated B) the message is high in complexity C) the audience is highly involved with the topic D) the product is highly personal or involves ego issues 42) The manufacturer of Smucker's jams and jellies used the following slogan for years:
42)
"With a name like Smucker's, it has to be good." The ad implies that the brand name is poorly chosen and is a negative attribute that is overcome by the high quality of the product. This is an example of a: A) refutational message B) confrontational appeal C) one-sided message D) two-sided message 43) A recent trend among major advertisers is to have ________ do the voiceovers for their
commercials. A) celebrities with distinctive voices C) everyday people
B) people with accents D) singing groups
44) The audio portion of a commercial is often presented through the use of a(n): A) illustration
43)
B) headline
C) voiceover
D) layout
45) A marketer may not want to put weak arguments at the beginning of an advertising
message because this action may: A) deter recipients from drawing their own conclusions B) increase retention of the message C) lead to a high level of counterarguing D) reduce the level of counterarguing
6
44)
45)
46) Skier Tommy Moe appears in ads for Dynastar skis in which he notes how the company's
46)
Coupe S Super Sidecut model helped him win the gold medal in the downhill race at the Winter Olympics. This is an example of which type of advertising execution? A) Demonstration B) Testimonial C) Slice-of-life D) Scientific evidence 47) In a television ad, actress and noted animal lover Betty White praised a flea and tick
47)
treatment called Frontline for the way it protected both her dogs and cats. These ads are an example of the use of what type of execution? A) Testimonial B) Demonstration C) Humour D) Slice-of-life 48) During which stage of the commercial production process do cost estimating, casting,
48)
location selection, and selecting a director occur? A) Preparation B) Preproduction C) Postproduction D) Production 49) The ________ portion of an ad must attract attention and work in a synergistic fashion
with the headline and body copy to produce an effective message. A) visuals B) jingles C) trademarks
D) subheads
50) "The ________ must be long enough to communicate the advertiser's message yet short
enough to hold readers' interest." A) body copy B) headline
C) subhead
50)
D) layout
51) Which of the following statements about the dramatization execution technique is NOT
true? A) The dramatization execution technique is similar to a slice-of-life execution but
uses more excitement and suspense. B) The dramatization execution technique is particularly well suited to television. C) The dramatization execution technique often relies on the problem/solution
approach. D) The goal of the dramatization execution technique is to use testimonials to get the audience involved in the advertising story.
7
49)
51)
52) Which of the following statements about the humourous execution technique is NOT
52)
true? A) Humour can be combined with other executional techniques but should not
counteract other kinds of appeal techniques. B) Humour used to garner attention without any direct brand connection is not as persuasive as when used with brand linkages. C) Humour can be combined with other executional techniques for greater effectiveness. D) Humour can be effective across various mediums, such as TV, print, and even online. 53) The R&P view of consumer attitudes is framed as a planning grid, with dimensions
representing ________. A) involvement and motivation C) satisfaction and purchase intent
53)
B) affective and cognitive response D) brand recall and attitude
54) The function of a headline in a print ad is to do all of the following EXCEPT:
54)
A) perform a segmentation function by attracting the attention and interest of
consumers who are the best prospects for a product or service B) attract readers' attention C) put forth the main theme, appeal, or proposition of the ad in a few words D) lead readers to click on the link to the brand's website 55) The R&P planning model argues that ________ is a necessary precursor to ________. A) previous purchase; brand satisfaction
B) brand awareness; brand attitude
C) brand exposure; behaviour change
D) creativity; ad recall
56) A commercial showing trucks and SUVs navigating tough terrain is an example of
________ advertising execution. A) testimonial B) slice-of-life
C) animation
55)
56)
D) imagery
57) A Tide detergent ad showing how a high school team manager easily removed all the
57)
grass and dirt stains from two dozen or more baseball uniforms by simply throwing them in a washer and adding Tide. The ad creator used which execution style? A) Testimonial B) Dramatization C) Demonstration D) Slice-of-life 58) When a target audience already holds a favourable opinion on a topic or issue a(n)
________ is most effective. A) nonverbal appeal C) two-sided message
B) one-sided message D) open-ended message
8
58)
59) When a person speaks on the behalf of a product or service based on his or her personal
59)
use of and/or experiences with it, a ________ execution is being used. A) slice-of-life B) testimonial demonstration C) D) dramatization 60) The physical arrangement of the various parts of an ad including headlines, subheads,
illustrations, body copy, and identifying marks is known as: A) the layout B) visualization C) copy writing
D) art direction
61) Research has shown that the first thing people look at in a print ad is the: A) visuals
B) illustration
C) headline
60)
61)
D) body copy
62) ________ is an advertising execution technique whereby the focus is on using
62)
excitement and suspense to tell a short story with the product as the star of the ad. A) Slice-of-life B) Dramatization C) Animation D) Imagery 63) It is important for marketers to carefully select actors for audio and video messages
63)
because: A) incorrect associations may be made if the audience recognizes the celebrity from another ad. B) celebrities may require more money than the commercial is projected to bring in. C) visuals may not match the voices of the actors. D) overexposure of the celebrity can strongly enhance the brand's message. 64) A study showed that the use of pictures providing examples increased message recall
64)
when: A) the verbal information was low in imagery value B) the pictures attracted attention to the product C) the pictures were low in imagery value D) the consumer was loyal to a competing product 65) ________ are secondary headlines that usually appear in a type size smaller than the
65)
main headline but larger than the body copy of a print ad. A) Direct headlines B) Body copy C) Indirect headlines D) Subheads 66) According to the R&P planning model, in order for ________ to be fully established, the
target audience needs to understand how and why the brand exists (i.e. the message context). A) ad recall B) purchase intent C) brand loyalty D) brand awareness
9
66)
67) An ad for the Dodge Caravan shows how effectively the minivan handles the
67)
requirements of a family on the go. Which ad execution technique is being used in this ad? A) Comparison B) Scientific evidence C) Demonstration D) Straight-sell 68) An ad campaign to convince people to stop smoking uses three teens bungee jumping off
68)
a bridge. When they reach the ground, each grabs a can, opens it, and takes a drink. As the third person takes a drink, the can explodes and kills him. The final screen reads, "No other product but tobacco kills every third consumer." By placing the strongest point in the ad at the end, the ad's source is hoping its message benefits from the: A) primacy effect B) recency effect C) sleeper effect D) credibility effect 69) The province of New Brunswick wants to encourage Canadians to visit their beautiful
69)
beaches during the summer. They want to give tourists the impression that a vacation in New Brunswick would be an ideal, and idyllic, experience. The marketing team should consider a(n) ________ execution style. A) animation B) imagery C) dramatization D) testimonial 70) Which of the following is an advertising execution approach designed to illustrate key
70)
advantages or features of a product by showing it in actual use? A) Demonstration B) Straight-sell C) Scientific evidence D) Comparison 71) A one-sided message can be effective when:
71)
A) a company acknowledges its shortcomings and communicates how it has improved B) the target audience holds an opposing opinion C) the marketer presents negative information involuntarily D) the target audience is highly educated 72) ________ is the way a message appeal is presented.
72)
A) Creative structure
B) Message structure
C) Creative theme
D) Creative execution style
73) ________ is a type of advertising execution style that involves creating a central
73)
character who can deliver the advertising message and with whom the product or service can be identified. A) Testimonial B) Slice-of-life C) Personality symbol D) Demonstration 74) Which of the following is a basic component of a print advertisement? A) Slice of life
B) Testimonial
C) Layout
10
74) D) Endorsement
75) A print ad for Titleist golf balls uses the headline "Do you ever wonder why Mike Weir
75)
can hit a golf ball so far?" This is an example of a(n): A) direct headline B) jingle indirect headline C) D) question 76) When an advertiser cites technical information such as the results of laboratory studies in
76)
an advertisement, a(n) ________ execution is being used. A) dramatization B) animation C) testimonial D) scientific/technical evidence 77) A television ad features a brand's particular advantage over its competitors. This is an
example of a: A) dramatization C) demonstration
77)
B) straight sell D) comparison
78) ________ is an advertising execution technique where some ads contain little or no
78)
information about the brand and are almost totally visual. A) Demonstration B) Animation C) Imagery D) Slice-of-life 79) A written version of a commercial that provides a detailed description of its video and
audio content is known as a: A) storyboard B) script
C) voiceover
79)
D) layout
80) Which of the following statements about the use of slice-of-life executions is NOT true?
80)
A) Slice-of-life executions have also been used in ads for financial institutions that try
to show how their products and services can allow a customer to reach their future aspirations. B) Slice-of-life executions feature a real person talking on the behalf of a product or service based on his or her personal use of and/or experiences with it. C) Slice-of-life executions are sometimes criticized for being unrealistic and irritating. D) Slice-of-life executions often present a problem consumers encounter and suggest a solution. 81) Which of the following statements describes a potential problem associated with the use
of indirect headlines in a print ad? A) Indirect headlines may not be provocative enough to get the readers' attention and offer a reason for reading the remainder of the message. B) Indirect headlines only work when readers are already interested in the product or service being advertised. C) Indirect headlines rarely generate interest or curiosity and thus motivate the reader to become involved with the remainder of the ad. D) Indirect headlines must always be accompanied by an engaging visual appeal in order to be effective. 11
81)
82) A ________ is a written version of a video message that provides a detailed description
of its video and audio content. A) concept B) script
C) storyboard
82)
D) layout
83) A widely used advertising execution style for packaged-goods products which attempts
83)
to portray a situation consumers might face in their daily lives is known as: A) peace of mind B) dramatization C) slice-of-life D) a demonstration 84) The Old Spice Man is an example of advertising that uses which of the following
advertising execution techniques? A) Testimonial C) Demonstration
84)
B) Personality symbol D) Imagery
85) Some marketers have moved to using ________ which is a lower-cost and highly
85)
engaging way to show regular people interacting with the brand. A) lesser-known actors B) consumer-generated ads C) still photos D) reality-type filming of customers in purchase and consumption situations 86) Research shows that items presented first and last are ________ than those presented in
the middle. A) liked better C) less effective
86)
B) remembered better D) understood better
87) Advertisements for M&M candy featuring various colours of the candy taking on human
87)
personifications are examples of which type of creative execution? A) Dramatization B) Testimonial C) Straight-sell D) Animation 88) ________ are the print ad components that are used to break up large amounts of copy
and highlight key selling points. A) Layouts B) Illustrations
C) Headlines
88)
D) Subheads
89) A commercial that places the strongest points at the end of the message assumes a
89)
________, whereby the last arguments presented are the most persuasive. A) primacy effect B) recency effect C) sleeper effect D) credibility effect 90) ________ headlines may be risky if the headline is not strong enough to get the reader to
read the body copy. A) Rational
B) Straight-sell
C) Direct
12
D) Indirect
90)
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 8 1) A 2) B 3) A 4) D 5) C 6) A 7) C 8) B 9) B 10) C 11) D 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) D 16) C 17) C 18) B 19) B 20) A 21) D 22) C 23) C 24) A 25) D 26) D 27) B 28) C 29) B 30) A 31) D 32) C 33) C 34) A 35) B 36) C 37) A 38) A 39) B 40) B 41) B 42) D 43) A 44) C 45) C 46) B 47) A 48) B 49) A 50) A 13
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 8 51) D 52) A 53) A 54) D 55) B 56) D 57) D 58) B 59) B 60) A 61) C 62) B 63) A 64) A 65) D 66) D 67) C 68) B 69) B 70) A 71) A 72) D 73) C 74) C 75) C 76) D 77) D 78) C 79) B 80) B 81) A 82) B 83) C 84) B 85) D 86) B 87) D 88) D 89) B 90) D
14
Chapter 9 Exam Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The most commonly employed method for posttesting print ads is: A) Consumer juries
B) The recognition method
C) Indirect methods
D) Inquiry testing
2) The use of pupillometrics has waned over the past decade because:
1)
2)
A) high costs and some methodological problems have made it less effective than other methods B) some consumers are able to control their physiological responses, which skews the data C) pupil dilation has little correlation to a consumer's affective response to an ad D) involuntary consumer responses are not good indicators of effectiveness 3) The fact that people brought in to a lab setting to look at ad mockups may look at the ads
3)
more closely than they might look at it if it was included in a magazine that was delivered to their home is an example of a(n): A) environmental proclivity B) perceptual propensity C) vision myopic perception D) lack of realism 4) Testing whether the impact and use of a product spokesperson has lost effectiveness over
time is a focus on what decision? A) Creative strategy C) Brand positioning
4)
B) Choice of media vehicle D) Creative tactics
5) BMW has developed two new print ads designed to appeal to women. One ad uses local
5)
scenes from around Toronto, Montreal, Edmonton, and Vancouver. The other ad uses a spokesperson and emphasizes the safety of the car. Which type of ad effectiveness measure should BMW use to test which ad is most effective? A) Physiological measures B) Day-after recall C) Consumer juries D) Split-run testing 6) Which of the following is a pretest classification used for measuring advertising
effectiveness? A) Concept tests C) Single-source tracking studies
6)
B) Association measures D) Recognition tests
7) In ________, people are brought to a particular location where they are shown ads and/or
commercials. A) tracking studies C) pretests and posttests
B) pretests only D) test marketing
1
7)
8) One method of testing how consumers relate to an ad and process the information it
8)
contains is to measure ________, the degree of brain activation that occurs when they look at the ad. A) beta activity B) alpha activity C) electrodermal response D) cerebral response 9) Galvanic skin response is also known as:
9)
A) dermal resolution
B) pupillometrics
C) electrodermal response
D) alpha beta activity
10) Advertising testing that studies dilation or constriction of the eye in response to stimuli is
called: A) the reactive test C) galvanic eye responses
10)
B) pupillometrics D) Flesch testing
11) ________ track the behaviours of consumers from the television set to the supermarket
checkout counter. A) Single-source tracking methods C) Multi-source tracking methods
11)
B) Consumer ride-alongs D) In-depth interviews
12) ________ suggests that copy is best understood when sentences are short, words are
12)
concrete and familiar, and personal references are drawn. A) Focus group research B) Inquiry testing C) Portfolio analysis D) Readability testing 13) Pretesting of finished ads can consist of each of the following EXCEPT: A) portfolio tests
B) inquiry tests
C) dummy advertising vehicles
D) readability tests
14) A live-action rough:
13)
14)
A) is a succession of photographs depicting the intended scenes B) uses the live motion of stand-in, nonunionized talent to "act out" the creative
concept C) uses a rapid sequence of panning and/or zooming to simulate movement D) is a series of drawings or cartoons to depict a commercial idea 15) An advantage offered by field test measures is: A) the ability to isolate the causes of the viewers' evaluations B) greater control of noise C) more realistic testing conditions D) avoidance of potential sabotage
2
15)
16) Which of the following statements DOES NOT describe a disadvantage associated with
16)
the theatre testing of ads? A) The group effect may cause some to react to an ad when they would not have ordinarily. B) The environment is very close to a natural advertising scenario. C) Participants will answer like they think they're supposed to not as a reflection of how they really feel. D) The setup will be viewed as phony by many participants. 17) Samsung, maker of the Galaxy Note, is interested in measuring consumers' movement
17)
through the adoption hierarchy. It should employ which of the following ad effectiveness measures? A) Day-after recall tests B) Portfolio testing C) Recognition test D) Ad tracking study 18) Subaru wishes to conduct pretest research to determine which of a number of concepts
18)
developed by their agency they should choose to launch first. An effective method of testing to determine this ranking would be: A) focus group B) consumer jury C) mall intercept D) field test 19) The set of nine principles adopted by large advertising agencies to improve preparation
19)
and testing of ads is referred to as: A) Principles of Advertising Consumer Testing (PACT) B) Positioning Advertising Copy Testing (PACT) C) Post-Advertising Commercial Testing (PACT) D) Promotional Advertising Content Testing (PACT) 20) The day-after recall test would be the most appropriate measure of effectiveness for:
20)
A) a full-page ad in a trade journal aimed at the textile industry B) the back outside cover position of the May issue of Chatelaine C) a 30-second commercial on the CTV network D) a transit ad on the back of the envelope that contains airplane tickets 21) ________ is a rough commercial test in which a succession of photographs are shown to
the receiver. A) Finished product testing C) Live-action rough testing
21)
B) Photomatic rough testing D) Animatic rough testing
22) ________ is a technique for measuring print advertising effectiveness. With this method,
three measures of a particular ad appearing in a magazine are taken to determine if the ad was noticed and read. A) Burke Day-After Recall method B) Tracking C) Split-run test D) Starch recognition method 3
22)
23) Which of the following is one of the nine principles of Positioning Advertising Copy
23)
Testing (PACT)? A) Provide controls to avoid the biasing effects of the ad content. B) Provide measurements that are relevant to the objectives of the advertising. C) Realize that a single measurement is adequate to assess an ad's performance. D) Use a convenience sample. 24) Which of the following is used in field posttesting of ad effectiveness? A) Consumer juries
B) Recognition tests
C) Readability tests
D) Rough tests
24)
25) Focus group methodology is attractive to marketers for the following reasons EXCEPT:
25)
A) results are easily obtained B) immediate feedback from participants means that marketers don't have to delay
progress on communication development C) consumer participants' reactions are directly observable D) each focus group will tend to examine a single topic per session 26) Research shows that in Starch recognition tests, respondents may claim to have seen an
ad when they did not. This is an example of: A) reliability and validity problems C) reliability problems
26)
B) false claiming D) validity problems
27) The disadvantages of a ________ are that the results are not quantifiable and group
influences may bias participants' responses. A) focus group B) recall test
C) concept test
27)
D) laboratory test
28) One advantage of pretesting is:
28)
A) feedback is relatively inexpensive B) pretesting takes time, and can impact final in-field dates C) mock-ups, storyboards, or animatics may not communicate as effectively as the
final execution D) it is difficult to correlate positive reactions to messages with actual effects on sales 29) ________ take posttest measures of an advertising campaign's effectiveness at regular
intervals. A) Tracking studies C) In-depth interviews
29)
B) Recall tests D) Recognition tests
30) ________ distinguishes between alpha activity in the left and right sides of the brain. A) Cerebral response testing
B) Gamma activity
C) Hemispheric lateralization
D) Electrodermal activity
4
30)
31) Which of the following is NOT a pretest classification used for measuring advertising
effectiveness? A) Concept tests C) Comprehension and reaction tests
31)
B) Test marketing D) Readability tests
32) Laboratory methods of testing for advertisement effectiveness generally offer high: A) feedback
B) response
C) external validity
D) control
33) In Starch tests, respondents may want to impress the interviewer or fear looking
unknowledgeable. This is called: A) false claiming C) recall bias
32)
33)
B) validity concerns D) interviewer sensitivities
34) The portfolio test for ads assumes that:
34)
A) field and laboratory tests produce the same results B) reliability and validity are the most important part of the testing process C) the consumer will closely scrutinize all ads that he or she sees D) the ad that yields the highest recall is the most effective 35) A methodology in which viewers are asked to view an ad while a sensor aims a beam of
infrared light at the eye is called: A) EEG C) electrodermal response
35)
B) pupil dilation D) eye tracking
36) ________ is a readability test which examines the average number of syllables per 100
words. A) Burke's reflections test C) The Flesch formula
36)
B) Portfolio analysis D) Contextual testing
37) Asking consumers for their reactions to the message structure, the body copy, or the
37)
music used in a communication piece is a test of what decision? A) Choice of media vehicle B) Creative strategy C) Creative tactics D) Brand positioning 38) Some firms conducting theatre testing also insert the commercial into actual TV
38)
programs in certain test markets. This is called: A) on-air tests B) tracking C) readability tests D) concept tests 39) ________ tests are tests of the ad or commercial under natural viewing situations. A) Field
B) Tracking study
C) Posttests
D) Laboratory
5
39)
40) One example of a(n) ________ is the number of coupons returned or phone calls
generated from the print ad. A) inquiry test C) recognition test
40)
B) portfolio test D) Flesch test
41) What should ad testing focus on?
41)
A) Creative strategy and creative tactics decisions B) Creative strategy decisions C) Creative tactics decisions D) Creative design and creative tactics decisions 42) When two or more ads are used in a ________, viewers are usually asked to rate or rank
order the ads according to their preferences. A) consumer jury test C) comprehension test
42)
B) reaction test D) readability test
43) Commercials and print ads are posttested to:
43)
A) avoid the use of surveys B) determine if the organization's mission statement needs to be modified C) determine if a campaign is accomplishing the objectives sought D) gain relatively inexpensive feedback 44) Which of the following is the most likely reason why a small firm would NOT want to
44)
measure the effectiveness of promotional programs it designed? A) Costs B) Disagreement as to what to test C) Lack of time D) The objections of creative people 45) A ________ is conducted very early in the campaign development process in order to
45)
explore the consumer's response to a potential ad. A) field test B) recognition test C) laboratory test D) concept test 46) The most popular method of posttesting employed in the broadcast industry for decades
46)
was: A) consumer juries
B) mall intercepts
C) (DAR) Day-After Recall method
D) Starch recognition method
47) Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage associated with DAR tests? A) Thinking messages may be easier to recall than emotional communication. B) Program content may influence recall. C) Pre-recruited respondents may pay increased attention to the program and ads. D) DAR tests may favour emotional appeals by asking respondents to verbalize the
message.
6
47)
48) Sometimes, participants rate an ad as good on all characteristics because they like a few
characteristics and overlook specific weaknesses. This is called: A) distortion B) prejudice C) halo effect
48)
D) bias
49) Which of the following is NOT an application of eye tracking technology for measuring
49)
advertising effectiveness? A) Allows the researcher to determine whether the viewer will purchase the product based on what they saw in the ad B) Allows the researcher to determine what viewers actually look at when viewing an ad C) Allows the researcher to analyze the effectiveness of Web designs, print ads and televisions commercials D) Allows the researcher to analyze the effectiveness of an ad's copy and visuals 50) One disadvantage of ________ is that mock-ups, storyboards, or animatics may not
communicate as effectively as the final product. A) recall tests B) concept tests C) pretesting
50)
D) posttesting
51) Research to measure advertising effectiveness can be used to evaluate alternative
51)
strategies under consideration because: A) marketers wish to determine which promotional element would provide their most effective monetary expenditure B) strategies used in the past may no longer be interesting to the consumer C) typically a firm would only be considering one main communication strategy D) they want to be sure that sales objectives will be met through the promotional strategies they employ 52) Disadvantages associated with laboratory tests include:
52)
A) the expense associated with collecting feedback information B) lack of realism C) a too effective level of communication D) lack of control 53) ________ studies are used to measure the effects of advertising on awareness, recall,
interest, and attitudes toward an ad. A) Tracking B) Beta
C) Alpha
D) Portfolio
54) From a decision-making point of view, research is integrated into communication
planning with a three-step process. Which of the following is NOT one of those steps? A) optimization B) attribution C) allocation D) elaboration
7
53)
54)
55) ________ measures electrical frequencies in the brain as the individual being tested
responds to ads he or she is viewing. A) Cerebral response C) Electrodermal
55)
B) Pupillometric D) Electroencephalographic
56) Which of the following questions is more likely to be asked in a consumer jury test?
56)
A) Will you buy this product after seeing this ad? B) How did you like the music? C) Is the ad layout convincing? D) Which ad did you like best? 57) Each of the following is an argument for measuring advertising effectiveness EXCEPT:
57)
A) money spent on research could go to improved ad production or additional media
buys B) assessing ad effectiveness can help avoid costly mistakes that minimize return on marketing investment C) research can assist the manager to determine which competing strategies might be most effective D) posttesting will establish whether objectives were met, and whether similar programs should be run in future 58) One of the measures included in in-studio AD*VANTAGE/ACT surveys is ________,
58)
which asks, "will the commercial inspire non-users to try the product, and will it enhance brand loyalty among existing customers?" A) persuasion B) branding C) visibility D) memorability 59) Which testing method should Starbucks employ to measure the recall of their first
59)
television advertising campaign in over a decade? A) Starch recognition method B) day-after recall C) portfolio tests D) comprehension and reaction tests 60) The primary measure used in on-air testing is:
60)
A) recall scores
B) comprehension and reaction tests
C) focus group results
D) portfolio analysis
61) Which one of the following statements about the Starch test is NOT true?
61)
A) The Starch test is a posttest. B) The effectiveness of competitors' ads cannot be compared. C) The pulling power of various aspects of an ad can be assessed. D) Readership scores are a useful indication of consumers' involvement in the ad. 62) Which of the following is NOT a guideline for an effective testing of an ad? A) Use mainly pretests
B) Use a consumer response model
C) Establish communications objectives
D) Use multiple measures 8
62)
63) ________ is the laboratory method of pretesting ads which exposes a group of
63)
respondents to both control and test advertisements. A) The Flesch test B) Portfolio testing Millward-Brown's link copy test C) D) Commercial testing 64) The advantage of the ________ method is that it provides a more natural setting than the
portfolio test. A) Burke's reflection test C) vehicle source testing
64)
B) dummy advertising vehicle D) contextual test
65) Each of the following is an argument against measuring advertising effectiveness
65)
EXCEPT: A) assessing effectiveness can avoid costly mistakes B) research problems C) disagreement as to what to test D) the objections of creative people 66) A disadvantage of ________ is that there is always the fear that competitors may
66)
discover and intervene in the research process. A) recognition testing B) test marketing C) inquiry testing D) a Flesch test 67) Good tests of advertising effectiveness must address the nine principles established by
PACT. One of the easiest ways to do this is to follow a decision sequence model. Which of the following is NOT one of the steps in this sequence? A) Use multiple measures B) Establish communication objectives C) Use a consumer response model D) Decide whether to use pretests or posttests
9
67)
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 9 1) B 2) A 3) D 4) A 5) D 6) A 7) C 8) B 9) C 10) B 11) A 12) D 13) B 14) B 15) C 16) B 17) D 18) B 19) B 20) C 21) B 22) D 23) B 24) B 25) D 26) B 27) A 28) A 29) A 30) C 31) B 32) D 33) D 34) D 35) D 36) C 37) C 38) A 39) A 40) A 41) A 42) A 43) C 44) A 45) D 46) C 47) D 48) C 49) A 50) C 10
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 9 51) A 52) B 53) A 54) D 55) D 56) D 57) A 58) A 59) B 60) A 61) B 62) A 63) B 64) B 65) A 66) B 67) D
11
Chapter 10 Exam Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of the following is NOT true about media planning?
1)
A) The media strategy being used may be the driving force behind the creative strategy. B) The creative strategy being used may be the driving force behind the media strategy. C) The choice of medium generally does not influence the consumer decision-making
process. D) The characteristics of the product or service may dictate which media type would be most appropriate. 2) All of the following are components of the objective and task method EXCEPT:
2)
A) a re-evaluation of objectives B) monitoring C) estimation of required expenditures D) determination of competitor's expenditures 3) The major problem with the ________ budgeting method is a reversal of the cause and
effect relationship. A) objective and task method C) competitive parity
3)
B) percentage of sales D) rapidly diminishing returns
4) ________ is the measure of the number of different audience members exposed at least
once to a media vehicle. A) Reach C) Exposure
4)
B) Viewer number D) Frequency
5) The most commonly utilized method of budget determination by large firms is: A) percentage of sales
B) competitive parity
C) the affordable method
D) objective and task
6) Campbell Soup is the market share leader in Canada, but many new competitors have
5)
6)
entered the market. In order to protect their leadership position and minimize consumers' switching to one of the new brand entries, Campbell should set a ________ media objective. A) brand repeat purchase B) brand leadership C) brand trial D) head-to-head 7) Which of the following is a strength of radio as a media choice? A) Amount of processing time
B) Clutter
C) Absolute cost
D) Selective exposure
1
7)
8) Which top-down budgeting method is being employed when expenditures are allocated
by assigning a budget based on gut feelings? A) Payout planning C) Affordable method
8)
B) Percentage of sales D) Arbitrary allocation
9) Which of the following is a limitation of outdoor as a media choice? A) Media image
B) Cost efficiency
C) Frequency
D) Geographic coverage
10) The ________ method of budgeting is being employed when expenditures are allocated
9)
10)
after an experienced marketing department manager responds to a new employee's question, "How was the ad budget established in years past?" by saying, "The same way it's always been done. I just have an instinct for how much should be budgeted where." A) ROI B) arbitrary allocation C) percentage of sales D) competitive parity 11) The estimated number of people who read the magazine without buying it is called: A) overexposure
B) pass-along rate
C) absolute cost
D) unduplicated reach
12) Seasonal products such as Hallowe'en decorations and Valentine flowers would best
make use of which scheduling alternative? A) Pulsing C) Weighted ratings
11)
12)
B) Flighting D) Continuous
13) Which of the following is a strength of television as a media choice? A) Amount of processing time
B) Audience involvement
C) Target audience selectivity
D) Creativity for cognitive responses
14) Unduplicated reach is:
13)
14)
A) duplicated reach plus total reach B) total market coverage less duplicated reach C) average reach multiplied by average frequency D) total reach less duplicated reach 15) Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting the choice of media used? A) The size of the budget B) The behavioural objectives C) The characteristics of the product or service D) Insufficient information on audience figures
2
15)
16) Which of the following is NOT relevant to the vehicle source effect?
16)
A) Certain media vehicles enhance the message because they create a mood that carries
over to the communication. B) People perceive ads differently depending on their context. C) If the advertising message is relevant and compelling to the target audience, the choice of media vehicle is less important. D) Media planners consider the most suitable media class and media vehicle for the target audience and the message. 17) The Globe & Mail, Maclean's, and The National Post are all examples of: A) media vehicles
B) distribution channels
C) communications decoders
D) media strategies
18) Old Navy is planning a new print campaign. Which of the following media vehicles
17)
18)
represents the most attractive CPM? A) The cost of a single-page ad in Canadian Living Magazine (circulation - 425,000) is $53,000. B) The cost of a single-page ad in The Toronto Star (circulation - 309,000) is $58,000. C) The cost of a single-page ad in Metro Toronto newspaper (circulation - 205,000) is $22,500. D) The cost of a single-page ad in Today's Parent Magazine (circulation - 116,000) is $22,000. 19) The primary objective of ________ is to develop a framework that will deliver the
19)
message to the target audience in the most efficient, cost-effective manner possible. A) market segmentation B) target marketing C) organizational planning D) media planning 20) The objective and task method is most difficult to utilize when:
20)
A) the product to be promoted is new to the market B) the product to be promoted is intangible and in the maturity stage of its product life
cycle C) the product to be promoted is a cash cow D) a service is being promoted 21) Which of the following is true about the Brand Development Index (BDI)? A) BDI and CDI measure the same consumer behaviours. B) BDI compares the brand's total sales in a given market area with the percentage of
the total population in that market. C) BDI measures the ratio of product usage to availability in a particular market. D) BDI indicates where a brand should maximize promotional spending, given their success in a particular geographic area.
3
21)
22) All of the following are considered top-down approaches to determining budgets
EXCEPT: A) the affordable method C) the objective and task method
22)
B) the percentage of sales method D) arbitrary allocation
23) A company has a limited promotional budget. The target market is highly concentrated
23)
and has already been shown to have high awareness and interest in the project. The goal of the promotional strategy should be to: A) sacrifice frequency for reach B) maximize coverage C) maximize reach D) increase frequency 24) A product that may be consumed throughout the year, but has seasonal periods where
24)
consumption is higher might best employ a(n) ________ scheduling method. A) pulsing B) continuous C) oscillating D) flighting 25) According to the competitive parity budgeting method, the firm:
25)
A) allocates some portion of planned sales for the period to advertising B) spends as much as it can C) matches the competition's percentage-of-sales expenditures D) spends the same total amount as its major competitors spend 26) A marketing firm decides to purchase media time in an attempt to sell its new product.
26)
After purchasing approximately $1 million of time, it has noticed no impact on the sales of the product. However, at $3 million, a substantial increase is shown. This might best be explained by: A) competitive parity B) the objective and task method C) an S-shaped response D) arbitrary allocation 27) The situation in which media coverage exceeds the targeted audience is called: A) excess media expenditure
B) underexposure
C) audience fragmentation
D) waste coverage
28) The major advantage of the ________ method is that the budget is derived by the
objectives to be attained. A) competitive parity C) percentage of sales
27)
28)
B) ROI D) objective and task
29) CPM is an expression of ________ for various media vehicles. A) absolute cost
B) relative cost
C) mode
D) compared reach
4
29)
30) Which of the following media strategies is suitable for a lesser-known product with a
30)
target audience concentrated in a small area in Canada? A) One that balances reach and frequency B) One that emphasizes frequency rather than reach C) One that uses a high cost per thousand approach D) One that emphasizes reach rather than frequency 31) In calculating both the Brand Development Index (BDI) and the Category Development
31)
Index (CDI), a media planner obtains the following results: Low BDI and High CDI. What do these results imply? A) High market share; monitor for sales decline B) Low market share; good market potential C) High market share; good market potential D) Low market share; poor market potential 32) It is generally felt that consumers should get exposure to the message as close as possible
32)
to when they are going to make the purchase. On the basis of this idea, which would be the most effective scheduling method for winter boots? A) Continuous B) Behavioural C) Pulsing D) Flighting 33) Recreation vehicles (RVs) advertise throughout the year but typically advertise more
33)
heavily June and in September. This pattern represents which scheduling method? A) Continuity B) Oscillating C) Pulsing D) Flighting 34) According to Media Digest's research on Canadian media expenditures, the media type
which earns the highest revenues is: A) magazines C) television
34)
B) daily newspapers D) online
35) When executives determine the budget amounts to be allocated for each department's
35)
advertising expenditures, a ________ approach is being used. A) contribution forecast B) top-down C) bottom-up D) marginal contribution 36) The wide variety of media available to advertisers is called: A) the media mix
B) the media profile
C) multi-media
D) the media strategy
36)
37) When advertising scheduling involves constant advertising with heavier efforts being
made at certain times, a(n) ________ schedule is being employed. A) intermittent B) flighting C) weighting
5
D) pulsing
37)
38) For which of the following products is an advertiser most likely to use continuity
scheduling? A) Wood burning stoves C) Laundry detergent
38)
B) Tickets to a hockey game D) Swimming pool chemicals
39) Which of the following is a strength of newspapers as a media choice? A) Creativity for cognitive responses
B) Lack of clutter
C) Creativity for emotional responses
D) Target audience selectivity
40) Category need, brand awareness, brand attitude and brand trial are all examples of: A) media objectives
B) media strategies
C) communication strategies
D) creative execution
41) To evaluate the ________ cost of print media, ________ is used. A) absolute; CPRP C) relative; CPM
39)
40)
41)
B) absolute; CPM D) relative; CPRP
42) Each of the following is a media characteristic which may affect the achievement of
specific communication objectives EXCEPT: A) geographic coverage C) audience involvement
42)
B) target audience selectivity D) audience reach
43) ________ is a summary measure that combines reach and frequency.
43)
A) Gross ratings points (GRPs) B) The Brand Development Index (BDI) C) The Category Development Index (CDI) D) Target ratings points (TRPs) 44) Which of the following explains why media planners have difficulty measuring the
44)
effectiveness of advertising and promotions? A) There is a debate as to whether media planning buying should be part of an advertising agency or an independent agency. B) An opportunity to advertise within a new media vehicle might arise, requiring movement of advertising dollars from one vehicle to another. C) The media planner must usually balance quantitative data with subjective judgements based on experience. D) Procurement specialists often put pressure on the media decisions in an effort to save money. 45) A major problem with the use of cost per thousand figures is: A) determining pass-along rates B) determining an efficient way to estimate the effects of sweep periods C) determining time spent reading the magazine D) calculating cost estimates efficiently 6
45)
46) Which of the following is a strength of magazines as a media choice? A) Lack of processing time
B) Frequency
C) Audience involvement
D) Reach
47) Media selected to ensure that a certain percentage of the target audience has favourable
46)
47)
beliefs about the brand's benefits are most likely satisfying a ________ media objective. A) brand awareness B) brand attitude C) profit maximization D) category need 48) Which of the following budgeting procedures would be used if a firm wanted a method
48)
that is simple to understand and financially safe? A) Percentage of sales B) Objective and task C) Competitive parity D) Marginal analysis 49) My product is silk ties, which are purchased at any time of the year, but more often at
49)
Christmas and on Father's day. Given a limited budget, which strategy would likely be the most effective if I wanted to try to stimulate trial and/or sales? A) Flighting B) Share C) Continuous D) Pulsing 50) According to the S-shaped response curve:
50)
A) the carryover effect is especially true for low-priced, frequently purchased consumer
products B) sales are not directly related to the size of the advertising budget C) initial outlays of the advertising budget have a substantial impact on sales D) the effects of advertising quickly begin to diminish 51) To set an advertising budget, Entree cologne first examines competitors' advertising to
51)
sales ratios published in trade magazines, and then allocates a percentage of sales dollars to the advertising effort. Which two budgeting methods are being employed? A) Payout planning and percentage of sales B) Percentage of sales and objective and task C) Competitive parity and percentage of sales D) Competitive parity and payout planning 52) The ________ method of budget setting consists of three steps: (1) defining the
52)
communication objectives, (2) determining the strategies and tasks to attain them, and (3) estimating the costs associated with performance of these strategies and tasks. A) percentage of sales B) return on investment C) arbitrary allocation D) objective and task 53) The media planning process concludes with the ________, which summarizes many of
the media strategy and media tactics decisions. A) CPM B) blocking chart marketing plan C) D) advertising plan 7
53)
54) Which of the following is NOT an advantage inherent in the flighting method of
54)
schedule advertising? A) Extra strength during "on" periods B) Cost efficiency C) Continuous target coverage D) Ability to include more than one advertising vehicle 55) Which of the following statements about the effects of the size of the market on
55)
advertising spending is NOT true? A) Excessive advertising expenditures in a small market will lead to wasted coverage. B) Audience fragmentation is evident in large markets, therefore advertisers must spend more to reach their target. C) High growth potential is more important than the actual size of the market. D) It is less expensive to reach the target audience in a large market, due to economies of scale. 56) Each of the following is a media-usage characteristic which may affect the achievement
56)
of specific communication objectives EXCEPT: A) creativity for emotional responses B) amount of processing time C) cost efficiency D) control for selective exposure 57) Which of the following is a limitation of newspapers as a media choice? A) Selective exposure
B) Target audience selectivity
C) Amount of processing time
D) Absolute cost
58) The two models that are commonly used to explain the relationship between advertising
57)
58)
and sales are the: A) S-shaped response function and the concave-upward function B) marginal utility function and the S-shaped demand function C) concave-downward function and the S-shaped response function D) S-shaped demand function and the convex-downward function 59) In terms of advertising, scheduling constant advertising without variation is referred to
59)
as: A) flighting
B) geographical weighting
C) continuity
D) circulation
60) Which of the following is a strength of transit as a media choice? A) Target audience selectivity
B) Creativity for cognitive responses
C) Target audience coverage
D) Scheduling flexibility
8
60)
61) Which of the following situations offers the advertiser the least attractive marketing
opportunity? A) Low BDI; low CDI C) High BDI; high CDI
61)
B) Low BDI; high CDI D) High BDI; low CDI
62) In calculating both the Brand Development Index (BDI) and the Category Development
62)
Index (CDI), a media planner obtains the following results: High BDI and Low CDI. What do these results imply? A) High market share and good market potential B) Low market share and good market potential C) Low market share and poor market potential D) High market share and monitor for sales decline 63) Which of the following is a limitation of radio as a media choice?
63)
A) Geographic coverage
B) Media image
C) Audience attention
D) Target audience selectivity
64) ________ is the number of times the target audience reached by a media vehicle is
64)
exposed to the vehicle over a specified period of time. A) Average frequency B) Effective frequency C) Average reach D) Unduplicated reach 65) The comparative cost figure used for broadcast media is:
65)
A) cost per ratings point (CPRP) B) cost per point of contact (CPPC) C) gross ratings point (GRP) D) the same as for print media, cost per thousand (CPM) 66) Chrysler would probably wish to pursue a ________ scheduling strategy, while
66)
Rossignol Skis would use a ________ schedule. A) pulsing; flighting B) flighting; pulsing C) continuous; continuous D) continuous; pulsing 67) New brands need a very high level of ________, since the objective is to make all
potential buyers aware of the brand. A) frequency B) CPM
C) reach
D) GRPs
68) ________ is the number of target audience individuals exposed at least once to media
vehicle in a specific time period. A) Frequency B) Reach
C) Continuity
69) The ________ is the specific carrier within a media class. A) medium
B) media type
C) media vehicle
D) television message 9
67)
68)
D) Coverage 69)
70) Defining the communications objectives to be accomplished and estimating the costs
70)
associated with the performance of determined strategies and tasks are steps in the ________ method of budgeting. A) competitive parity B) payout planning C) return on investment D) objective and task 71) A company with a substantial advertising budget with little or no awareness in the target
71)
market should: A) maximize frequency and sacrifice reach B) sacrifice reach for continuity C) maximize reach D) maximize coverage 72) Which scheduling method would be inappropriate for the product named? A) Soft drinks pulsing C) Spring-blooming bulbs continuous
72)
B) Accounting services pulsing D) Snow blower flighting
73) As a result of ________, large advertisers can maintain advertising shares that are
73)
smaller than their market shares because they get lower advertising rates and accrue the advantages of advertising several products jointly. A) a concave-downward response B) competitive parity C) economies of scale D) differential advertising advantages 74) Which of the following statements provides a good rule of thumb for setting the
74)
advertising budget for a new product? A) Its advertising budget should be equal to that of the largest shareholder in the market. B) Its advertising budget should be 10 percent greater than the average budget planned for the entire payout period. C) Its advertising budget should be as much as the firm can afford. D) Its advertising budget should be double that needed to maintain the desired market share. 75) ________ refers to the potential audience that might receive the message through a
vehicle. A) Reach
B) Coverage
C) Frequency
75)
D) Exposure
76) The S-shaped response function implies that:
76)
A) sales will immediately decrease then increase B) sales will immediately increase then decrease C) sales effects will follow the microeconomic law of diminishing returns D) initial advertising expenditures will have little impact on sales
10
77) Each of the following statements about frequency is true EXCEPT:
77)
A) Continuous scheduling requires less frequency than does pulsing or flighting. B) The more unique the message, the higher the frequency level required. C) New brands generally require higher frequency levels. D) The lower the brand's share of voice, the higher the frequency required. 78) If the advertiser selects media to allow immediate purchase of the brand, the media
objective is most likely: A) brand attitude C) media optimization
78)
B) category need D) brand trial
79) No one knows the exact number of ________ necessary for an ad to make an impact,
79)
although advertisers have settled on ________ as the minimum. A) GRPs; ten B) exposures; three C) reach; two D) frequency; one 80) Disney World advertises itself as a vacation spot throughout the year, but it advertises
80)
more heavily during the summer months and during the Christmas season when most people are vacationing. This is an example of ________ scheduling. A) continuity B) pulsing C) geographical weighting D) flighting 81) The ________ the brand share, the ________ the frequency level required. A) lower; higher
B) higher; higher
C) lower; lower
D) higher; lower
82) The ________ function is based on the microeconomic law of diminishing returns. A) S-shaped demand
B) marginal utility
C) concave-upward
D) concave-downward
81)
83) Which of the following indices reflects a company with low market share in a given
82)
83)
market? A) High brand development index (BDI) B) High category development index (CDI) C) Low brand development index (BDI) D) Low category development index (CDI) 84) Each of the following satisfies a brand awareness media objective EXCEPT: A) Provide sufficient number of exposures to ensure that 60 percent of the target
audience recognizes the need for the product category. B) Select media to provide coverage of 80 percent of the target audience this quarter. C) Provide sufficient number of exposures to ensure that 60 percent of the target
audience recognizes the brand name when it's suggested to them. D) Concentrate advertising during the target audience's peak purchasing time.
11
84)
85) To calculate gross ratings points (GRPs), you will need to:
85)
A) divide reach times frequency by costs B) multiply CPM times average frequency C) multiply reach times frequency D) divide average frequency by costs 86) Media buyers might choose to live with a relatively high degree of waste coverage
86)
because: A) repetition is the most effective method for pioneering advertising B) the media employed are likely to be the most effective means of message delivery available C) it allows for more specific targeting D) it best supports a flighting media schedule 87) Tesla's research shows that approximately 65 percent of their target audience subscribes
87)
to The Globe & Mail newspaper. If that is their only media vehicle, they will experience: A) less media coverage than desired (underexposure) B) full market coverage C) excess media expenditure D) media overexposure 88) Which of the following is a limitation of transit as a media choice? A) Absolute cost
B) Clutter
C) Amount of processing time
D) Cost efficiency
89) Which of the following scenarios indicates that the brand is not doing well and it would
88)
89)
be worthwhile to determine the reasons and make some changes? A) Nestle's Quik has a high market share in a declining powdered flavour market. B) Even though the popularity of Asian fast-food restaurants is on the rise, the Flying Wok has seen a fifteen percent decline in sales over the past three months. C) iPhone's share of the growing mobile phone market is at an all-time high. D) Just when Stephanie entered the specialty textile flooring market people don't seem to want shag carpeting anymore. 90) In the marginal analysis approach to media budgeting, all of the following should be
considered EXCEPT: A) fixed costs of advertising B) advertising expenditures and other variable costs C) gross margin net worth D) sales
12
90)
91) The ________ method is difficult to employ for a new company if no sales history is
91)
available, there is no basis of establishing the budget. A) ROI B) objective and task affordable C) D) percentage of sales 92) Which of the following is NOT a part of the media plan?
92)
A) Frequency estimates
B) Determination of media coverage
C) Marketing strategies
D) Media objectives
93) Which of the following is NOT a top-down approach to budget setting?
93)
A) Return on investment
B) Competitive parity
C) Payout planning
D) The affordable method
94) In a review of the literature on how allocation decisions are made between advertising
94)
and sales promotion, it was concluded that ________ factors play an important role in determining how communication dollars are spent. A) political B) organizational C) psychological D) economic 95) ________ is the employment of periods of advertising along with periods of
non-advertising. A) Pulsing
B) Continuity
C) Flighting
95)
D) Weighting
96) ________ helps marketers factor the rate of product usage by geographic area into the
96)
decision process. A) The Brand Development Index B) Statistics Canada's population growth analysis C) The ratio of product usage to availability D) The Category Development Index 97) The concept of ________ is based on the assumption that one exposure to an ad may not
be enough to convey the desired message. A) GRPs C) effective reach
97)
B) average frequency D) average reach
98) The ________ method of budgeting is being employed when expenditures are allocated
98)
according information gathered to determine industry averages for advertising. The budget is set to maintain a level consistent with industry spending. A) percentage of sales B) return on investment C) objective and task D) competitive parity 99) Which of the following is a limitation of magazines as a media choice? A) Target audience selectivity
B) Cost efficiency
C) Selective exposure
D) Creativity for cognitive responses
13
99)
100) Media planning is not an easy task. Each of the following explains one of the difficulties
100)
inherent in the process EXCEPT: A) inconsistent terminology B) indifference of creative directors to the type of media chosen C) difficulty in measuring the effectiveness of a medium D) insufficient information on audience figures 101) ________ is the number of times a receiver is exposed to a message in a given time
period. A) Reach
B) Frequency
C) Potency
101)
D) Coverage
102) The media plan:
102)
A) includes sales and marketing forecasts and potentials B) has five formalized stages that cannot be omitted from the process C) requires the development of specific media objectives D) includes product development 103) Under what conditions are advertisers more likely to achieve full audience coverage with
103)
their media buy? A) In a high-involvement purchase situation B) When they are targeting a small number of customers or potential customers C) When the audience is fragmented D) When media coverage reaches people who are not potential buyers or current users 104) If the circulation of the National Post is 400,000 readers, and the advertising cost per
page is $50,000, the CPM is: A) $0.125 B) $0.008
C) $125
104)
D) $8
105) The S-shaped response curve suggests that:
105)
A) very low spending levels will not work B) advertising effectiveness will vary according to spending levels C) sales and spending on advertising are not directly related D) advertising effectiveness will not be related to spending 106) The ________ method budgetary allocation method is designed to promote stability and
minimize marketing warfare as well as taking advantage of the collective wisdom of the industry. A) competitive parity B) arbitrary allocation C) percentage of sales D) objective and task
14
106)
107) The ________ method of budgeting is being employed when expenditures are allocated
107)
by looking at the revenue generated from sales of the product during one year. The information gathered from this examination is used to determine the next year's dollar amounts. A) return on investment B) arbitrary allocation C) percentage of sales D) payout planning 108) As a result of economies of scale, smaller advertisers:
108)
A) get higher advertising rates than large advertisers B) can maintain advertising shares that are smaller than their market shares C) have declining average costs of product D) are likely to enjoy more favourable advertising time and space than large advertisers 109) In calculating both the Brand Development Index (BDI) and the Category Development
109)
Index (CDI), a media planner obtains the following results: Low BDI and Low CDI. What do these results imply? A) Low market share and good market potential B) High market share and monitor for sales decline C) Low market share and poor market potential D) High market share and good market potential 110) Which strategy would be most likely to be used by a marketer of dishwashing detergent? A) Flighting
B) Continuous
C) Share growth
110)
D) Pulsing
111) Given that a message is complex as far as comprehension is concerned, the strategy
111)
should be to maximize ________ at the expense of ________. A) Reach; GRPs B) Frequency; reach C) Frequency; CPM D) Reach; frequency 112) Which of the following is a limitation of television as a media choice? A) Selective exposure
B) Cost efficiency
C) Scheduling flexibility
D) Frequency
113) In which of the following methods of budget determination is advertising considered an
investment, similar to plant and equipment? A) Payout planning C) Objective and task
112)
113)
B) Percentage of sales D) ROI
114) ________ is a method for allocating budgets designed to determine the investment value
of the advertising appropriation. A) Percent of sales method C) Arbitrary allocation
B) Payout planning D) Objective and task
15
114)
115) Nordstrom placed advertising for the launch of their new Toronto stores on mall posters
115)
within the Eaton Centre, Yorkdale Plaza, and Sherway Gardens. These posters were seen by many people apart from typical Nordstrom customers. This is an example of: A) media overexposure B) media underexposure C) audience fragmentation D) excess media expenditure 116) For which of the following products is an advertiser most likely to use a flighting
schedule? A) Newspaper subscriptions C) Cake mixes
116)
B) Shampoo D) Snow tires
117) Which of the following is a strength of outdoor as a media choice? A) Amount of processing time
B) Target audience coverage
C) Reach
D) Audience involvement
16
117)
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 10 1) C 2) D 3) B 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) C 8) D 9) A 10) B 11) B 12) B 13) D 14) D 15) D 16) C 17) A 18) C 19) D 20) A 21) B 22) C 23) D 24) A 25) C 26) C 27) D 28) D 29) B 30) B 31) B 32) D 33) C 34) D 35) B 36) A 37) D 38) C 39) A 40) A 41) C 42) C 43) A 44) C 45) A 46) C 47) B 48) A 49) D 50) B 17
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 10 51) C 52) D 53) B 54) C 55) D 56) C 57) A 58) C 59) C 60) B 61) A 62) D 63) C 64) A 65) A 66) A 67) C 68) B 69) C 70) D 71) C 72) C 73) C 74) D 75) B 76) D 77) B 78) D 79) B 80) B 81) D 82) D 83) C 84) A 85) C 86) B 87) A 88) B 89) B 90) C 91) D 92) C 93) C 94) B 95) C 96) A 97) C 98) D 99) B 100) B 18
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 10 101) B 102) C 103) B 104) C 105) B 106) A 107) C 108) A 109) C 110) B 111) B 112) A 113) D 114) B 115) A 116) D 117) C
19
Chapter 11 Exam Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of the following is NOT a benefit of advertising on specialty networks?
1)
A) mass appeal of specialty programming fits shotgun approach to reach objectives B) lower overall advertising rates C) no large up-front commitment is necessary D) consumer popularity enhances viewership numbers 2) The amount of money that a station can charge for commercial time is based on: A) pre-negotiated purchases
B) prime-time viewership
C) program ratings
D) daytime viewership
3) Daytime TV generally attracts: A) children
2)
3)
B) young adults
C) empty nesters
D) women
4) Radio survived as an advertising medium by:
4)
A) competing directly with television B) evolving into a primarily local advertising medium C) charging higher rates than television D) evolving into a national advertising medium 5) Which of the following is NOT a limitation associated with the use of television as an
5)
advertising medium? A) commercial clutter B) high costs for airtime C) unlimited creative options for developing and presenting advertising messages D) high costs for production of quality commercials 6) Numeris also uses ________ for collecting television audience information in a number
of local markets. A) audiometer
B) video monitor
C) people meter
D) diary research
7) A tactic used by TV networks to hold viewers' attention and inhibit zapping is to: A) show previews of the next week's program B) increase the number of commercials during a break C) shorten the commercial breaks D) change the standard commercial format to 10-seconds
1
6)
7)
8) Radio is a very effective medium for reaching all of the following EXCEPT:
8)
A) teenagers and university students B) infrequent television viewers C) frequent readers of magazines and newspapers D) non-English-speaking ethnic groups 9) Advertisers can inhibit consumers' zapping commercials by:
9)
A) producing creative commercials that are meaningful to consumers and that attract
and hold their attention B) devising shorter commercial formats C) advertising more on cable television D) lobbying to have remote control devices banned 10) Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Smart TV?
10)
A) Consumers are able to connect their TV sets to the Internet through Smart TVs. B) Consumers may soon be able to avoid ads altogether through Smart TVs. C) Penetration of Smart TVs in the U.S. is still quite low, less than 20% in 2015. D) Smart TV is changing the advertising experience for TV viewers by allowing
interactivity and extended brand content. 11) Programs such as "The Tonight Show starring Jimmy Fallon" and "Jimmy Kimmel Live"
are aired during the ________ daypart. A) late fringe C) evening
11)
B) prime-time access D) prime-time
12) Saturday morning television programming consists largely of cartoons that are watched
12)
by children, while sports programming that is watched mostly by young men is prevalent on Saturday and Sunday afternoons. These are examples of ways television offers: A) scheduling flexibility B) geographic selectivity C) market penetration D) ways of breaking through advertising clutter 13) All non-network television advertising done by a national advertiser is known as
________ advertising. A) spot
B) local
C) regional
D) up-front
14) Branded content programming, where corporations are responsible for developing
program content, is moving toward: A) the Internet C) syndication
B) multi-brand participation D) executive sponsorship
2
13)
14)
15) Advertising rates on radio are negotiable, according to each of the following factors
EXCEPT: A) level of audience selectivity required C) availability
15)
B) number of spots purchased D) competitive television rates
16) TV viewing is thriving for several reasons EXCEPT:
16)
A) online content is not even in the same league as first-run TV content. B) people have no awareness of TV shows until they are on TV first. C) watching sports on TV is better than watching it live because you have the added
benefit of TV announcers calling the plays. D) current TV shows are very good, as evidenced by how many people want to watch them online. 17) Which television daypart has the highest rates? A) late fringe
B) morning
17) C) late news
D) prime-time
18) Television is a popular advertising medium among companies selling products and
18)
services that are consumed by mass markets because it: A) has the ability to reach large audiences in a relatively cost efficient manner B) is very easy to develop creative television advertising C) has a high level of geographic selectivity D) has such a low absolute cost 19) Each of the following is a benefit of buying network radio time EXCEPT:
19)
A) minimized negotiation and administration work required B) lower costs C) it reduces advertisers' flexibility in selecting stations D) opportunities for national and regional coverage 20) One of the biggest threats to the cable television industry in the 1990s was:
20)
A) the exponential growth of the use of PVRs B) the creation of consortiums of advertisers for the purpose of improving network
television C) CRTC rulings on lengths and commercial placements D) competition from direct broadcast satellite (DBS) services 21) Cable subscribers can access shows not seen during regularly scheduled times through a
service called: A) On-demand C) Time shifting
B) Self-administered programming D) Cable your way
3
21)
22) Which of the following factors make it difficult for companies with small advertising
22)
budgets to use television as part of their media mix? A) the fact that television programs do not reach their target markets B) the fact that small ad agencies generally do not know how to produce TV commercials C) the limited creative options available through television D) the high costs of producing and airing television commercials 23) While most network commercials are 30- or 15-second spots, direct-response advertisers
23)
often use these longer ads to describe their products and encourage viewers to order: A) infomercials B) B-to-C specialty ads C) interstitials D) late-night spot ads 24) The reason for a company using ________ is that the company has control over the
number, placement, and content of its commercials. A) syndication B) sponsorship C) countertrade
D) participation
25) The majority of radio ads are ________ in length. A) 15 seconds
B) 60 seconds
C) 10 seconds
24)
25) D) 30 seconds
26) Which of the following does NOT limit radio's effectiveness as an advertising medium?
26)
A) limited research data on listening audiences B) flexibility in producing and scheduling commercials C) difficulty in retaining listener attention to commercials D) creative limitations because of the absence of a visual image 27) CFTO in Toronto and CFCF in Montreal show CTV programming. These local
27)
television stations that are associated with national television networks are known as: A) affiliates B) local nets C) regional networks D) satellite networks 28) Numeris provides information on radio listenership using a ________ method. A) people meter
B) people meter method and a diary
C) telephone feedback
D) computer
29) Which of the following statements about program ratings and share of audience
measures is true? A) Unlike share of audience measures, program ratings consider variation in the number of sets in use since they are based only on those households that have their sets in use. B) Program ratings and share of audience are usually the same. C) Share of audience is always higher than the program rating unless all of the households in a market have their set in use. D) Program ratings are always higher than share of audience. 4
28)
29)
30) The ________ is the average number of people estimated to have listened to a radio
30)
station for a minimum of five minutes during any quarter-hour in a time period expressed as a percentage of the survey area population. A) average quarter-hour figure B) cumulative audience C) relative quarter hour share D) average quarter-hour rating 31) Morning, daytime, prime time, and late fringe are all examples of: A) television dayparts
B) spot times
C) radio dayparts
D) run-of-station spots
32) The traditional approach to sponsorship, with corporations being responsible for
31)
32)
developing program content, has been updated, under the name: A) advertiser ownership B) original content C) branded entertainment D) branded production 33) Television can offer advertisers selective coverage of target audiences through:
33)
A) volume buying B) program content with broad audience appeal C) national networks which reach groups with general interests D) broadcast time periods that reach specific types of audiences 34) Radio offers high levels of audience selectivity because of:
34)
A) the transmission capability of the various stations. B) the broadcast overlap of local radio stations. C) image transfer capabilities. D) the wide variety of program formats offered by different stations. 35) Which of the following statements about spot advertising is true?
35)
A) Spot advertising offers flexibility in adjusting to local market conditions. B) Only local advertisers use spot advertising. C) Spot advertising is subject to less clutter than network advertising. D) Spot advertising is confined to station breaks between programs on network
originated shows. 36) A Numeris study suggests that TV watchers watch ________ percent of their viewing
36)
from prerecorded programming and view about ________ percent of the ads. A) 20; 50 B) 60; 50 C) 40; 20 D) 50; 10 37) The pervasiveness and intrusive nature of ________ as an advertising medium
contributes to the high level of distrust consumers have for the ads that appear in it. A) television B) radio C) direct response D) newspapers
5
37)
38) The program rating is calculated by dividing ________ by ________.
38)
A) the number of people tuned to a particular show; the total number of people in the
geographic area B) the overall television audience; the viewers who indicate that they like the program C) the share of audience; the number of ratings points assigned D) the total population; the total television audience 39) A network assembles a series of ________ local TV stations, to which it supplies
programming and services. A) remote B) successful
C) affiliated
D) hostile
40) Advertisers who want the ability to demonstrate how their product operates and actually
show its uses are likely to choose: A) television B) magazines
C) direct mail
39)
40)
D) radio
41) ________ is just as much a problem with radio as with other advertising media, because
41)
radio stations can play as many minutes of advertising as they like. A) Flexibility B) Clutter C) Geographic selectivity D) Cost 42) The relatively low cost of radio advertising time makes it an effective medium through
42)
which advertisers can build more ________ into their media schedules. A) audience selectivity B) reach and frequency C) inherent drama D) creativity 43) A device worn by individuals that records a silent signal emitted from programming is
called a(n): A) portable people meter C) electronic diary
43)
B) media exposure device D) prime-time access device
44) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of television as an advertising medium?
44)
A) its processing time B) the creative options available C) its mass coverage and cost effectiveness for reaching large markets D) the intrusive nature of television, which imposes advertising on viewers while
watching their favourite programs 45) ________ are the various time periods or segments into which a broadcast day is
divided. A) Viewing hours C) Dayparts
B) Spots D) Adjacencies
6
45)
46) Most national advertisers:
46)
A) do not need to concern themselves with spot advertising B) use only network advertising C) use both network and spot advertising and try to effectively combine the two D) prefer spot advertising because of lower rates, less clutter, and more flexibility 47) Tom likes to watch WWE wrestling on TSN and the police car chase videos on Fox.
47)
Both shows are on Friday night at the same time. When commercials start on one of the shows, he immediately switches to the other. Tom is engaged in: A) zooming B) time shifting C) zapping D) zipping 48) With ________, advertisers assume responsibility for the production and usually the
48)
content of the program as well as the advertising that appears within it. A) syndications B) sponsorships C) adjacencies D) countertrades 49) An advertiser has a limited budget and wants to reach a well-defined target audience in a
49)
local market area. Which of the following would you recommend? A) local radio B) network radio C) network television D) superstations 50) Each of the following describes the strength of television's reach EXCEPT:
50)
A) The average Canadian watches 28 hours of TV per week, thereby consuming this
medium more than any other. B) Those "watching television" only through Internet streaming services hit 12 percent in 2015. C) Television reaches virtually every Canadian on a weekly basis. D) Advertisers can place ads in a combination of shows to reach as many in their target audience as they wish. 51) The television daypart that attracts the largest viewing audience is: A) late news
B) prime-time
C) prime-time access
D) daytime
52) While watching "Entertainment Tonight," Bruce became frustrated by all the
commercials and promotions for the 11:00 news and upcoming programs. This is an example of the problem created by: A) message source alienation B) the fleeting nature of television commercials C) the limited viewer attention for commercials D) clutter
7
51)
52)
53) Each of the following is true about Portable People Meters (PPMs) EXCEPT:
53)
A) The PPM collects data nationally and in large local markets. B) The PPM measures on an individual level instead of a household or television basis. C) The PPM is also capable of receiving the signal from radio and cinema. D) The PPM is used to collect television viewing data only. 54) The buying period for television advertising time that runs throughout the television
season is known as the ________ market. A) up-front B) scatter
C) local
D) continual
55) Prime time draws about ________ of per capita television consumption. A) twenty percent
B) twenty-five percent
C) sixty percent
D) forty percent
56) The most watched specialty channel in Canada in terms of total hours is: A) SportsNet
B) CBC News Network
C) TSN
D) Food Network Canada
57) The heaviest users of radio as an advertising medium are: A) national service providers C) tobacco and alcohol advertisers
54)
55)
56)
57)
B) national retail chains D) local advertisers
58) There are approximately 6 million television households in Canada. During a "Hockey
58)
Night in Canada" broadcast, 50 percent of the households had their television sets turned on and 1 million were watching the Montreal Canadiens versus the Toronto Maple Leafs hockey game on CBC. The share of audience for the game would be: A) 33 B) 23 C) 43 D) cannot be determined from information given 59) Since firms that advertise during prime time must pay premium rates, this daypart tends
59)
to be dominated by: A) late news and other network promotions B) spot advertising purchased at the last minute C) government sponsored causes D) large national advertisers 60) ________ are individuals who act as salespersons for a number of local stations and
represent them in their dealings with national advertisers. A) Station managers B) Affiliates C) Station reps D) Negotiators
8
60)
61) A toy company runs commercials for its products on the Sponge Bob Square Pants show
61)
on Saturday mornings because Saturday morning TV caters to kids. This is an example of how ________ is possible through television. A) geographic diversity B) product exclusivity C) creativity D) selectivity 62) Research has shown that the demographic group that engages in the highest level of
commercial zapping is: A) preteens C) older adults
62)
B) young adult females D) young adult males
63) ________ refers to the practice of fast-forwarding through commercials on prerecorded
63)
programs, while ________ refers to channel changing to avoid commercials. A) Time shifting; zipping B) Zapping; zooming C) Zipping; zapping D) Zipping; time shifting 64) Tom prerecords "CSI" which is shown on Wednesday nights on CTV, so he can fast
forward through the commercials. Tom engages in: A) zipping B) zooming C) zapping
D) time shifting
65) ________ is defined as one percent of all the television households in a particular area
tuned to a specific program. A) Household using television (HUT) C) A ratings point
64)
65)
B) A program rating D) Share of audience
66) Which of the following is NOT true about radio streaming?
66)
A) Subscription based satellite radio services, such as SiriusXM, offer advertising
opportunities as well. B) Approximately 25% of all English Canadians listen to radio via Internet streaming. C) Many radio stations stream their broadcast online so that an Internet listener is exposed to the same ads as the broadcast listener. D) The largest group of Canadians to stream live radio, is Millennials (Gen Y, 26-34 years old). 67) This daypart occurs seven days a week between 7:00 p.m. and 11:00 p.m.: A) Day time
B) Late fringe
C) Popular evening
D) Prime time
68) Which of television's strengths applies to the advertiser's ability to match strategy
according to the brand's BDI or CDI? A) Geographic coverage C) Target audience coverage
B) Scheduling flexibility D) Cost efficiency
9
67)
68)
69) Because most TV commercials last only 30 seconds or less and leave nothing tangible
69)
for the viewer to consider, the amount of ________ time must be considered. A) emotive B) creative C) processing D) selective 70) ________ are less likely to be heavy users of local radio advertising. A) Local retailers
B) Auto dealers
C) Restaurants
D) Grocery product manufacturers
71) Companies prefer sponsorship arrangements for buying advertising time because
70)
71)
sponsorship: A) allows companies to capitalize on the prestige of a high-quality program B) is relatively inexpensive C) broadens advertising reach, saves money, and reaches a more aggregated market when compared to buying national spots D) means the advertiser can run more commercials per hour since time regulations do not apply 72) Which of the following statements about commercial length is true?
72)
A) Most advertisers believe that shorter commercials cannot deliver a message as
effectively as longer commercials. B) Spiralling media costs have resulted in advertisers preferring shorter commercials. C) Fifteen-second spots are the most common commercial lengths. D) Fifteen-second spots typically sell for about the same amount as 30-second spots. 73) In Canada, television audiences are measured by:
73)
A) BBM Canada
B) BBC Canada and Reuters
C) CCAB and ABC
D) Numeris
74) The pendulum that took viewers away from cable services to satellite broadcasts swung
74)
back the other way with ________, allowing consumers access to similar extensive channel choices. A) advertising consortiums B) digital cable C) public broadcasters D) CRTC guidelines around competition between telco providers 75) Which of the following is NOT a reason why national advertisers might use spot
television advertising? A) advertise a product with wide-spread distribution B) concentrate advertising in areas where market potential is the greatest C) concentrate advertising in areas where more ad support is needed D) offer support and cooperative advertising to local dealers and retailers
10
75)
76) ________ is the term used for local television station commercials in which various
76)
individual stations negotiate directly with the advertisers. A) Spot advertising B) Syndication Network advertising C) D) Regional advertising 77) Which of the following statements about the length of television commercials is true?
77)
A) Commercial length is increasing and 60-second spots will become dominant by the
end of the decade. B) Commercials became shorter because advertisers turned to shorter spots as a way of controlling their media costs. C) Fifteen-second commercials account for over half of the ads seen on network television. D) Commercials have become longer as the demand for broadcast time has dwindled. 78) If an advertiser wished to obtain greater reach during prime time, she might choose to
78)
place commercials in the following shows: A) Gotham, Dragons' Den, and Global News. B) Jeopardy and Wheel of Fortune, every week night for four weeks. C) How to Get Away with Murder and Criminal Minds. D) Chicago Hope, Chicago Med, and Chicago Fire. 79) Which of the following statements about radio as an advertising medium is NOT true?
79)
A) Radio has evolved into primarily a local advertising medium. B) Radio is a high cost medium relative to TV. C) A radio commercial is ideal for long copy when detailed information is called for. D) Radio is characterized by highly specialized programming that generally appeals to
narrow segments of the population. 80) When a national advertiser runs a commercial on a prime time program that is seen all
over the country, ________ advertising is being used. A) affiliate B) network C) spot
80)
D) aggregated
81) Compared to television, radio has:
81)
A) longer buyer lead times for preparing and placing ads B) more of a local flavour C) fewer segmentation opportunities D) greater reach and lower frequency opportunities with individual stations 82) The proliferation of specialty channels has influenced the nature of TV as an advertising
medium. Expanded viewing options have led to considerable audience ________. A) hostility B) fragmentation C) confusion D) happiness
11
82)
83) In the early days of television, the production and content of most television programs
83)
was the responsibility of: A) corporations who sponsored the shows B) independent production companies C) the local affiliate D) the networks 84) Studies show that distrust is generally the highest for which of the following types of
advertising? A) newspapers C) magazines
84)
B) television D) personal selling
85) The largest radio audiences occur during which of the following times? A) early morning and late afternoon drive times B) evenings when people are at home C) daytime and evening drive time D) early morning and late evening
12
85)
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 11 1) A 2) C 3) D 4) B 5) C 6) C 7) A 8) C 9) A 10) C 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) D 16) C 17) D 18) A 19) C 20) D 21) A 22) D 23) A 24) B 25) D 26) B 27) A 28) B 29) C 30) D 31) A 32) C 33) D 34) D 35) A 36) B 37) A 38) A 39) C 40) A 41) B 42) B 43) A 44) A 45) C 46) C 47) C 48) B 49) A 50) B 13
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 11 51) B 52) D 53) D 54) B 55) D 56) C 57) D 58) A 59) D 60) C 61) D 62) D 63) C 64) A 65) C 66) D 67) D 68) A 69) C 70) D 71) A 72) B 73) D 74) B 75) A 76) A 77) B 78) A 79) B 80) B 81) B 82) B 83) A 84) B 85) A
14
Chapter 12 Exam Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Most major publications are audited by ________.
1)
A) Business Publications Audit
B) Standard Rate and Data Service
C) Audit Bureau of Circulations
D) Alliance for Audited Media
2) While ________ can offer geographic selectivity, it is not a selective medium in terms of
demographics or lifestyle characteristics. A) magazines B) radio
C) newspapers
2)
D) television
3) Why are farm publications not classified with business publications?
3)
A) Canadian laws require the breakout of farm magazines because subscriptions to
these magazines help to determine farm allowances. B) The number of farm magazines, if added to the number of business magazines, would make the category too large. C) Farm magazines are a hybrid of consumer and business magazines. D) Historically farms have not been perceived as businesses. 4) The high ratio of advertising to editorial content in most magazines causes magazines to
have a problem with: A) high costs C) loss of publication prestige
4)
B) clutter D) long lead times
5) Which media type does research suggest holds the most audience attention? A) Browsing a general website
B) Browsing a social media site
C) Reading a print magazine
D) Watching television
6) Most ________ reach broad and very diverse groups of consumers, which makes it
5)
6)
difficult for marketers to focus on narrowly defined market segments. A) radio stations B) daytime television dramas C) newspapers D) magazines 7) Which of the following would be an example of special-audience newspaper? A) The Halifax Herald B) The Sunday Sun C) The newspaper published by a college D) The Calgary Herald
1
7)
8) Which of the following statements about the use of colour in magazine advertising is
8)
true? A) There is no difference in audience recall, awareness, and attention between black
and white and colour ads. B) Research has shown that colour ads are superior to black and white ads in terms of attracting and holding attention. C) Black and white ads are generally considered superior to colour in terms of recall, awareness, and retention. D) Advertisers prefer using black and white because of the greater visual impact it makes. 9) ________ newspapers originate in small towns or suburbs and usually focus on news,
9)
sports, and events relevant to a local area or community. A) Daily B) Regional C) Special-audience D) Community 10) Which of the following is a disadvantage inherent in advertising in magazines? A) Long lead time
B) Poor reproduction quality
C) Lack of demographic selectivity
D) Low publication prestige
11) Which of the following statements does NOT describe community newspapers?
10)
11)
A) They usually ignore content covered by the city-based daily newspaper. B) These papers appeal primarily to local advertisers. C) National advertisers prefer the geographic focus and lower absolute cost of
community newspapers. D) These papers focus on primarily on news, sports, and events relevant to the local area. 12) Clutter is viewed as less of a problem for magazines than radio or television because:
12)
A) exposure to magazine ads is easier to control as the consumer can simply turn a
page if uninterested in an ad B) consumers have been trained to expect more ad messages than they can decode C) print ads are always more creative and interesting than television ads D) consumers tend to be less receptive to print advertising than they are to broadcast advertising 13) The advertising manager for a fashionable, upscale women's clothing line is concerned
over an ad agency recommendation to run ads for the brand in People magazine. She feels the editorial environment of the magazine may not be appropriate to the high fashion and trendy positioning strategy being used for the brand. This reflects concern over what specific aspect of magazine advertising? A) Creative options B) Media image C) Permanence D) Reproduction quality
2
13)
14) Magazine advertisements that extend to the end of the page rather than leaving a margin
around the ad are called: A) gatefolds C) overruns
14)
B) bleed pages D) maximum coverage ads
15) Elena Tomassi is an avid skier and likes to take a weeklong ski vacation every winter. To
15)
help plan her vacation, she keeps all of the past issues of Skiing magazine she has received so she can consult them as she makes her selection of a ski resort. Elena's use of the magazines in this way demonstrates which advantage of magazines as an advertising medium? A) Prestige B) Geographic selectivity C) Permanence D) Services 16) Which of the following is NOT an advantage associated with advertising in newspapers? A) High level reader involvement
B) High geographic flexibility
C) High reproduction quality
D) High degree of market coverage
17) Most consumers rely heavily on ________ not only for news, information, and
entertainment, but also for the advertising it contains. A) newsletters B) direct mail C) magazines
C) 2.5
18)
D) 4.5
19) Based on the circulation figures of 2012-13, what is the major U.S. based magazine in
Canada? A) O, The Oprah Magazine C) Martha Stewart Living
17)
D) newspapers
18) A magazine with a circulation of 2.5 million and 3 readers per copy would have a total
audience or readership of ________ million. A) 7.5 B) 5.5
16)
19)
B) Men's Health D) National Geographic
20) Which of the following does NOT describe preprinted newspaper inserts? A) They must comply with certain printing specs like size and page numbers for
efficient insertion. B) They are printed by the advertiser and sent to the newspaper for insertion before delivery. C) They can be used in specific circulation zones to reach shoppers in particular trade areas. D) Promotional inserts can be used to provide information and/or drive readers to online sources.
3
20)
21) Floral Management is a publication aimed at providing information to retail florists so
21)
they manage their stores more efficiently and more profitably. It is an example of a(n) ________ publication. A) industrial B) professional C) general business D) trade 22) The flipside of magazine selectivity is:
22)
A) extensive coverage
B) cost efficiency
C) scheduling flexibility
D) narrow coverage
23) One of the greatest limitations of newspapers as an advertising medium is:
23)
A) the lack of reader interest and involvement B) its lack of creative ad formatting C) its poor reproduction quality D) consumer distrust of newspapers as a credible source 24) A creative technique for newspaper advertising whereby an ad is surrounded by editorial
material is known as a(n): A) offset page B) ink-set image
C) gatefold
24)
D) island ad
25) A company hired a celebrity to be a spokesperson for the company and developed a print
25)
advertising campaign featuring the celebrity. In the interim, it was discovered that the celebrity was involved in embarrassing behaviour. The company immediately dismissed him as a spokesperson. However, this spokesperson could cause serious embarrassment to the company if the organization had already negotiated with several magazines to run these ads. Which characteristic of magazines would be the major source of the problem? A) Loss of publication prestige B) Clutter C) Long lead time D) Lack of publication permanence 26) Magazines such as Martha Stewart Living, O The Oprah Magazine, and Men's Journal
26)
are succeeding because: A) the magazines have editorial platforms that appeal to the interests, lifestyles, and demographics of the consumer B) the magazines appeal to the conspicuous consumption lifestyle of today's consumers C) the magazines have very large circulation bases D) the publications have large editorial staffs 27) A magazine such as Farm Journal is an example of a ________ while a publications
such as National Hog Farmer is a ________. A) specialized farm publication; trade magazine B) general interest farm publication; specialized farm publication C) general interest farm publication; special interest consumer magazine D) general interest business magazine; general interest farm publication
4
27)
28) Which of the following is NOT true about Internet newspapers?
28)
A) Newspapers developed apps so that readers could access their content on new
reading and mobile devices. B) So far, social media has not impacted the reporting of news through Internet newspapers. C) Readers go to online newspapers seeking content that they can trust. D) Newspaper publishers are concerned about having to charge for a free online service. 29) Which of the following would NOT affect the cost of advertising in a consumer
magazine? A) special production requirements C) the number of ads in the magazine
29)
B) the size of the advertisement D) the circulation of the magazine
30) Why do advertising rates in ethnic magazines tend to be lower than in general interest
30)
publications? A) They tend to have low or unauthenticated circulation figures. B) The majority of them are written in English. C) There tend to be only four to seven publications in some of the non-dominant languages. D) National advertisers do not tend to market to ethnic minorities. 31) When the advertiser allows its ad to be placed on any page or position the publisher
desires, it will be quoted a(n) ________ rate. A) run of paper C) preferred position
31)
B) open position D) custom placement
32) Each of the following statements about readers' selective exposure and attention to
32)
newspapers ads is true EXCEPT: A) Readers may not even open certain sections, and will miss seeing an ad altogether. B) Advertisers can't specify a specific section of the paper in which to place their ad, which might at least lessen the lack of exposure. C) A daily newspaper is rarely kept around the home for more than a day. D) Consumers tend to spend a short amount of time reading the paper each day, so exposure to ads is limited. 33) The use of a third page that folds out to create an extra large advertising spread in a
magazine is called a: A) printacular C) gatefold
33)
B) premium size ad D) page manipulator
34) Which of the following is a disadvantage associated with advertising in magazines? A) Limited reach and frequency C) Lack of prestige
B) Lack of consumer receptivity to ads D) Lack of permanence 5
34)
35) Which of the following would Canadian Advertising Rates and Data (CARD) classify as
a general business magazine? A) Architectural Digest C) Restaurant News
35)
B) Canadian Business D) Drug Store News
36) "Used a coupon," "switched to a different brand," and "discussed an ad with a friend" are
36)
all behavioural effects of which strength of magazine advertising? A) High involvement processing B) Cost efficiency C) Target audience coverage D) Clutter 37) Which of the following is an example of a trade journal? A) Maclean's
B) Chatelaine
C) Maxim
D) Canadian Grocer
38) ________ describes a situation where a primary subscriber or purchaser of a magazine
37)
38)
gives it to another person to read or where a magazine is read in public places. A) Guaranteed readership B) Total readership C) Pass-along readership D) Primary readership 39) Traditionally, newspaper advertising space has been sold by the: A) absolute cost method
B) open rate structure
C) cost per thousand (CPM)
D) agate line
40) New Balance's marketing research has shown that there are a large number of serious
39)
40)
runners living in the western region of Canada. These individuals would be willing to pay over $100 for a pair of running shoes. To reach this market the best media option would probably be: A) regional editions of general sports magazines such as Sports Illustrated B) the sports section of national newspapers such as The Globe & Mail C) regional editions of specialty magazines such as Runner's World D) regional editions of general interest magazines such as Time or Maclean's 41) An ad for PEI potatoes is a close-up view of a baked potato covered in sour cream swirls
41)
and bacon bits. The swirls extend to the very edge of the page. This ad is an example of a(n): A) maximum coverage ad B) total page ad C) bleed page D) gatefold 42) Information on the characteristics of magazine audiences in Canada is primarily provided
by: A) the magazines themselves B) SRDS's Business Publication Advertising Source C) Magazines Canada D) A.C. Nielsen 6
42)
43) ________ provides media planners with reliable figures about the size and distribution of
43)
a magazine's circulation that helps the planners evaluate its worth as a media vehicle. A) Standard Rate and Data Service B) A circulation verification service C) The Canadian Circulations Audit Board D) Mediamark Research, Inc. 44) Because they generally require some attention and effort on the part of the consumer to
44)
process the information they provide, ________ are often referred to as high-involvement media. A) newspapers and television B) radio and television C) magazines and radio D) newspapers and magazines 45) Healthy Pet and PhotoLife are examples of:
45)
A) trade publications
B) special interest consumer magazines
C) special interest business magazines
D) general interest consumer magazines
46) ________ are the most specialized of all advertising media. A) Radio
B) Newspapers
C) TV
46) D) Magazines
47) According to Canadian Advertising Rates and Data, magazines can be classified as
47)
________ publications. A) agrarian, ethnic, industrial, and specialized B) general, ethnic, specialized, and niche C) regional, ethnic, national, and international D) consumer, ethnic, farm, and business 48) The Globe and Mail publishes Report on Business magazine monthly, and it is included
48)
with the newspaper. This magazine is called a: A) special audience newspaper B) community newspaper C) national newspaper D) newspaper supplement 49) A magazine's ________ is one of the primary considerations for an advertiser selecting a
particular magazine for advertising. A) price at the newsstand C) clutter
49)
B) lead time D) circulation
50) Many magazines are sent to and/or provided free to individuals a publisher feels are
appropriate members of a target audience for products and services advertised in the publication. This is known as: A) free circulation B) primary circulation C) guaranteed circulation D) controlled circulation
7
50)
51) Marketers can achieve geographic selectivity in magazine advertising by advertising in:
51)
A) national editions of major magazines that cover the entire country B) magazines that are targeted at people who enjoy gardening C) magazines that are edited for and targeted toward particular regions, cities, or areas D) general-interest business publications 52) One of the primary advantages of using magazines as an advertising medium is their: A) low clutter level
B) selectivity
C) limited reach and frequency
D) low absolute costs
53) A magazine can be categorized by each of the following EXCEPT:
52)
53)
A) its geographic coverage B) the advertisers who place ads in the publication C) the fact that it is a monthly publication D) the fact that it is only available by subscription 54) An advertiser might use an island ad as a way to:
54)
A) reduce overall costs of newspaper advertising B) promote the specific brands of clothing carried by the store C) create high reproduction ads D) break through the clutter typically found in newspapers 55) Because of the medium's ability to turn information around quickly and deliver a detailed
55)
message, many companies who provide critical services to consumers often choose to advertise in ________ to respond to natural disasters such as earthquakes or hurricanes. A) direct mail B) radio C) newspapers D) television 56) All of the following may result in additional costs for a magazine advertisement
56)
EXCEPT: A) gatefolds B) four-colour illustrations C) bleed pages D) large volume purchases of advertising space in the same magazine 57) Advertisers may be skeptical about placing ads in magazines sold at less than full value
for each of the following reasons EXCEPT: A) The editorial content in controlled circulation magazines is less targeted than in other consumer publications. B) Advertising rates may not be lower even though the price of the magazine is discounted. C) Subscribers who pay for a magazine are more likely to read it than are those who get it at a discount or free. D) If a magazine is not audited, there is less data for measuring the success of the message. 8
57)
58) The ________ is a market area composed of a city where the paper is published and
58)
contiguous areas similar in character to the city. A) consolidated market zone B) MSA city zone C) D) retail trading zone 59) An advertiser can obtain a specific position on a newspaper page by paying a ________
59)
rate. A) frequent advertiser
B) preferred position
C) custom placement
D) run of paper
60) Which of the following statements about the reach and frequency of consumer
60)
magazines is true? A) Using multiple ads in the same issue of a magazine is a viable way of increasing the reach of the publication. B) Advertisers seeking broad reach through the use of magazines cannot accomplish this goal by making media buys in a number of different publications. C) Popular consumer magazines have broad reach and frequency. D) While a high percentage of adults in Canada read one or more magazines, the percentage reading any individual publication is quite low. 61) Advertisers who are seeking broad reach and frequency in their media schedules:
61)
A) need to advertise repeatedly in the same magazine B) must purchase space in a number of different magazines since most publications
have thin penetration of households C) will find broad reach and frequency an easy goal to accomplish with magazines D) find magazines very effective since individual publications reach a very broad target audience 62) Consumers purchase ________ as much for their advertising as for their editorial
content. A) subscriptions to blogs C) pay-for-view movies
62)
B) travel books D) magazines
63) Selectivity, reproduction quality, creative flexibility, and prestige are all potential
advantages of which advertising medium? A) Local radio C) Magazines
63)
B) Billboards D) Place-based media
64) Magazine publishers attempt to control the ________ problem by maintaining a
reasonable balance of editorial pages to advertising. A) colour B) creativity C) quality
9
D) clutter
64)
65) ________ will find newspapers very inefficient because of the wasted circulation. A) Hotels
B) Home electronics retailers
C) Supermarkets
D) Fishing rod manufacturers
66) The fact that most magazines are published for special-interest groups gives them a high
degree of: A) selectivity
B) permanence
C) reach
66)
D) flexibility
67) The ________ is a market outside of a city whose residents regularly do business within
the city. A) city zone C) designated market area
65)
67)
B) MSA D) retail trading zone
68) A company that manufactures ski boots might prefer to advertise in specialized
68)
publications such as Ski or Skiing rather than general interest magazines and sports magazines such as Sports Illustrated because of: A) the greater audience selectivity of the specialized publications B) the broader reach of the specialized publications C) the creative flexibility available in specialized magazines and not available in more general-interest publications D) fewer ads and less clutter in the specialized publications 69) Which of the following does NOT contribute to the reproduction quality of magazine
69)
advertising? A) Creativity developed to evoke an emotional response B) The high quality of the paper stock used in magazines C) Printing processes that provide excellent reproduction of black and white pictures D) Prevalent use of colour in magazine ads 70) The U.S. magazine with the largest paid circulation in Canada is: A) Prevention
B) Readers Digest
C) O, The Oprah Magazine
D) National Geographic
71) One of the core purposes of Newspapers Canada is to: A) make newspaper advertising rates the same for everyone B) make sure that national advertisers who use newspapers on a limited basis pay
higher rates than those who are already regular users C) attract more newspaper advertising dollars from national advertisers in specific product categories by facilitating the purchasing process D) publish research information about Canadian daily newspapers
10
70)
71)
72) Which of the following statements about clutter in magazine advertising is true?
72)
A) Clutter is not really a problem at all in magazine advertising. B) Most magazines devote less than 30% of their pages to advertising so clutter is not
really a problem. C) Clutter is a more serious issue for magazines than it is for either television or radio. D) The clutter problem for a magazine increases as they become more successful since they attract more ad pages. 73) After newspapers, ________ ads are likely to be received most favourably by consumers. A) TV
B) billboard
C) radio
74) Process Equipment and Control News is an example of a(n) ________ publication. A) professional
B) industrial
C) trade
D) general business
73)
D) magazine
75) The Hathaway Shirt Company uses most of its media budget to advertise in publications
74)
75)
such as Elm Street and Esquire magazines. The company feels that these magazines are very well respected and provide a favourable environment that helps enhance the image of its products. This example demonstrates which advantage of magazines as an advertising medium? A) Geographic selectivity B) Prestige C) Creative flexibility D) Permanence 76) In terms of ethnic publications in Canada, in which language are the majority written? A) English
B) Arabic
C) Chinese
76)
D) French
77) Which of the following about advertising in foreign publications is NOT true?
77)
A) Canadian businesses are not allowed to advertise in foreign magazines sold in
Canada. B) Foreign publications can accept a greater amount of Canadian advertising if the
majority of editorial content is Canadian. C) About 90% of foreign publications sold in Canada are U.S. based. D) Foreign publications can accept up to 18% of their advertising space from Canadian advertisers for magazines sold in Canada. 78) ________ advertising is a category of advertising that is found throughout a newspaper
78)
and generally uses illustrations, headlines, white space, and other visual devices in addition to the copy text. A) Classified B) Supplement C) Display D) Branded 79) The cost of advertising space in magazines is primarily a function of: A) the ad's position in the magazine
B) the circulation of the publication
C) the frequency of ad insertions
D) the size of the advertisement
11
79)
80) The vast majority of newspapers are:
80)
A) daily publications serving a local community B) weekly community newspapers C) national business newspapers D) special-audience newspapers 81) Which of the following statements about newspapers and magazines as advertising
81)
media vehicles is TRUE? A) Newspapers are primarily a local advertising medium but are also used by national advertisers. B) Because of the difference in media format, there is no competition between broadcast and print media. C) Newspapers are exclusively a local advertising medium. D) Magazines are primarily a local advertising medium. 82) Iryna overheard a conversation in which the following terms were used: Short closing
82)
times, high penetration, and ad reproduction limitations. Which media vehicle was being discussed in the conversation that Iryna overheard? A) Direct mail B) Newspapers C) Magazines D) Billboards 83) The Globe & Mail and The National Post are examples of ________ newspapers. A) regional
B) national
C) weekly
83)
D) weekday
84) Which of the following comparisons of primary in-home readers of a magazine and
84)
pass-along readers is true? A) Advertisers generally attach greater value to pass-along readers. B) Pass-along readers generally spend more time with a magazine and pick it up more often than do primary readers. C) Advertisers generally attach greater value to primary in-home readers. D) Pass-along readers should be totally discounted in evaluating magazine readership. 85) Zoomer, a magazine targeted to adults over 40, offers advertisers ________ selectivity. A) demographic
B) geographic
C) behavioural
D) lifestyle
86) When newspapers offer discounts, they are using a(n) ________ structure. A) favourable
B) unfavourable
C) illegal
86)
D) open rate
87) Linn's Stamp News is a newspaper written specifically for stamp collectors and published
monthly. It does not contain any information that would not be of interest to people who collect stamps. It is an example of a: A) trade newspaper B) demographically-oriented newspaper C) special-audience newspaper D) newspaper supplement
12
85)
87)
88) Advertisers who want to achieve geographic selectivity in their magazine media schedule
88)
can do so by advertising in: A) magazines like Toronto Life and Vancouver Magazine B) international editions of magazines only C) trade publications D) special-interest farm publications 89) Gatefolds, bleed pages, inserts, and creative space buys are ways of increasing:
89)
A) the creativity of magazine ads and their ability to attract readers' attention B) the selectivity of magazines C) the cost efficiency of magazines D) the geographic flexibility of magazines 90) Which of the following statements about the role of magazines is true?
90)
A) Individual magazines reach a very selective audience and are very valuable for
reaching specific types of consumers or market segments. B) Magazines generate most of their total revenue from advertising. C) The advantages and disadvantages associated with the use of magazines as an advertising media vehicle are the same. D) Business magazines generate most of their revenue from subscriptions and single copy sales and are not really dependent on advertising. 91) Simone rides the subway to work every day. In the morning, she picks up a copy of
91)
Metro for free at the subway station. Metro is an example of: A) an advertising-free news magazine B) a special-audience newspaper C) a free daily newspaper D) a supplement to a full daily newspaper 92) ________ in reaching specific target audiences is available in magazines on the basis of
demographics, geographic area, lifestyle and interests. A) Credibility B) Ad rates C) Selectivity
13
D) Flexibility
92)
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 12 1) D 2) C 3) D 4) B 5) C 6) C 7) C 8) B 9) D 10) A 11) C 12) A 13) B 14) B 15) C 16) C 17) D 18) A 19) D 20) A 21) D 22) D 23) C 24) D 25) C 26) A 27) B 28) B 29) C 30) A 31) A 32) B 33) C 34) A 35) B 36) A 37) D 38) C 39) D 40) C 41) C 42) C 43) B 44) D 45) B 46) D 47) D 48) D 49) D 50) D 14
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 12 51) C 52) B 53) B 54) D 55) C 56) D 57) A 58) C 59) B 60) D 61) B 62) D 63) C 64) D 65) D 66) A 67) D 68) A 69) A 70) D 71) D 72) D 73) D 74) B 75) B 76) A 77) A 78) C 79) B 80) A 81) A 82) B 83) B 84) C 85) A 86) D 87) C 88) A 89) A 90) A 91) C 92) C
15
Chapter 13 Exam Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of the following statements about audience measurement in promotional products
1)
marketing is true? A) Reach and frequency are as easy to measure with promotional products marketing as with print advertising. B) Companies that use promotional products marketing are not interested in sales; they only want to create goodwill. C) There is no established ongoing audience measurement system for promotional products marketing. D) Donnelly Marketing has established an acceptable method for measuring the impact of promotional products marketing on sales. 2) ________ ads have a unique opportunity to communicate for a longer period of time than
a TV ad. A) Yellow Pages
B) Transit
C) Radio
2)
D) Movie theatre
3) Which of the following is an example of a disadvantage associated with promotional
3)
products marketing? A) intrusive nature of the advertising B) designed for retention C) ability to support other IMC tools D) potential saturation of the marketplace 4) What time of day do most workers shop, according to OMAC studies?
4)
A) after they get home from work
B) on their way to work
C) on their way home from work
D) weekends and days not at work
5) Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage associated with transit advertising? A) media image
B) extensive reach
C) waste coverage
D) clutter
6) ________ ads usually have a very competitive CPM when compared to other media. A) Magazine
B) Radio
C) Newspaper
1
6)
D) Outdoor
7) Which of the following is NOT an advantage associated with promotional products
marketing? A) generates goodwill B) high degree of target audience selectivity C) short lead time D) designed for retention
5)
7)
8) Which of the following is true about the usefulness of street-level posters?
8)
A) Short headlines, longer body text and a product shot enhance the creative appeal. B) Large amounts of text and pictures of people enhance product recognition. C) The use of humour accelerates brand recognition. D) Specifying a brand name in the headline enhances message appeal. 9) Which support media should be employed if the objective is to achieve high levels of
9)
retention and have the communication serve as a frequent reminder? A) promotional product marketing items B) mall posters C) product placements D) trade promotions 10) Which support media should be employed if the objective is to associate the product
10)
with a very specific type of user and to appear as though it's really not being advertised at all? A) product placements B) advertising specialties C) in-flight advertising D) mall posters 11) People tend to speed past outdoor ads, so the most effective messages will be limited to
11)
an impactful visual and a few words. This is a function of: A) high cost per impression. B) executional limitations of outdoor advertising. C) short processing time. D) limited selectivity. 12) These are sold on a per location basis due to their size and the low number of options
available in major Canadian markets. A) spectaculars C) street-level posters
12)
B) transit shelters D) mobile signage
13) Which of the following statements about outdoor billboards is true?
13)
A) Outdoor billboards are perfect for providing promotional price information in a
timely fashion. B) Outdoor billboards lack the ability to deliver a lengthy, comprehensive message. C) Animation is possible only in indoor locations due to weather conditions and glare. D) Lengthy, large headlines enhance brand recognition. 14) Which of the following is NOT a limitation of product placement? A) Some product placements only last for a few seconds. B) There is no guarantee that viewers will notice the product. C) There is no potential for discussing product benefits or providing detailed
information. D) The correct placement of the product has direct relevance for the character or situation.
2
14)
15) It is very difficult for movie theatre audiences to physically avoid the ________ unless
they physically leave the theatre. A) publicity C) TV exposure
15)
B) product placement D) sales promotion
16) Which of the following is the best example of the limitations of transit advertising
16)
around target audience coverage? A) A jewelry store is concerned that buses, streetcars and subways have so many interior cards that their core customer may not pay attention to their ad. B) A trendy clothing store believes that transit advertising would be a cost effective way to reach their target shopper. C) A furniture store is considering advertising on interior transit cards, but is concerned that not all riders will fit into their target market. D) It is always a concern for technology firms that their message on the sides of buses won't be comprehensive enough to convince consumers of their products' superiority. 17) Two Visa decals which were placed on the front window on a travel agency where Toula
17)
worked in My Big Fat Greek Wedding is an example of: A) product placement B) sales promotion C) promotional products marketing D) specialty advertising 18) A liqueur company wants to advertise in an in-flight commercial. What are the
18)
disadvantages associated with using this form of in-flight advertising? A) lack of wearout B) inability to segment market C) high costs D) an audience feeling that such ads are intrusive 19) Which of the following is NOT an advantage associated with place-based media ads?
19)
A) generate more in-depth cognitive responses B) audience selectivity C) reasonable absolute costs D) scheduling flexibility 20) Advertisers can be confident that out-of-home media reach a substantial portion of the
population while they are planning to or actually shopping, because OMAC studies showed: A) More than 50 percent of people shop on their way to work or home. B) Consumers commute to work for an average of 65 minutes per day. C) Many urban workers use a car to get to work. D) The average person spends 55 percent of their day out of the home.
3
20)
21) The Canadian Out-of-Home Measurement Bureau (COMB) does all of the following
21)
EXCEPT: A) comprises members from advertisers, advertising agencies, and media firms B) tends to bias results towards the brands that are paying for the research C) publishes circulation and market data for out-of-home facings across the country D) maintains a national database of outdoor and place-based media 22) According to research, which category of promotional products is the largest in terms of
sales? A) desk/office accessories C) coffee cups and other drinkware
22)
B) wearables/apparel D) writing instruments
23) When watching an NHL game on television, the digital advertising around the rink
23)
boards changes when the camera cuts away from the boards. This is a form of: A) specialty advertising B) product placement C) video advertising D) place-based advertising 24) The Out-of-Home Marketing Association of Canada (OMAC) investigated time spent
24)
inside and outside the home, out-of-home exposure, commuting habits, and shopping behaviour in two studies called: A) "Consumer Behaviour" studies B) "Out-of-Home Media Exposure" studies C) "Day in the Life" studies D) "Slice of Life" studies 25) Which of the following is NOT an example of place-based media?
25)
A) ads inside washrooms B) a poster in a sports stadium C) televisions in doctors' offices D) consumer magazines in dentists' offices 26) An advertiser might decide to NOT use outdoor advertising because the medium:
26)
A) does not command attention B) has a low level of frequency C) does not produce a high level of product or brand awareness D) is prone to wearout 27) When a video or piece of music is created by an advertiser in an attempt to entertain
viewers while advertising their products, this is called: A) blurred promotion B) editorial content C) brand-generated content D) branded entertainment
4
27)
28) What are the two primary objectives of advertising in outdoor, transit, and place-based
28)
media? A) brand attitude and brand purchase intention B) category need and purchase facilitation C) brand awareness and brand attitude D) category need and brand purchase intention E) brand awareness and brand purchase intention 29) Where do consumers report the highest awareness of place-based media? A) shopping malls
B) office elevators
C) public transit
D) restaurants
30) A percentage of the traffic passing a particular billboard will not be interested in what is
29)
30)
being promoted on it. This is known as ________. A) over indexing B) waste coverage C) excess reach D) clutter 31) Most placed-based media typically offer the opportunity for promotional planners to
achieve: A) category need C) brand awareness
31)
B) brand attitude D) brand purchase intention
32) ________ is targeted at the millions of people who are exposed to commercial
32)
transportation facilities including buses, subways, light-rail trains, and airplanes. A) Transit advertising B) Place-based media C) Outdoor advertising D) Point-of-purchase media 33) The term used to describe ads on trucks or other vehicles is: A) mobile signage
B) video-display units
C) spectaculars
D) street-level posters
34) Which of the following is an advantage associated with outdoor advertising? A) clutter
B) image problems
C) large geographic coverage
D) high degree of waste coverage
35) A liqueur company wants to advertise in an in-flight commercial. What are the
33)
34)
35)
advantages associated with using this form of in-flight advertising? A) a captive audience B) low wearout C) high attention from target audience D) lack of clutter 36) Which of the following is NOT one of the top three most used promotional products? A) calendars
B) wearables/apparel
C) coffee mugs
D) writing instruments
5
36)
37) Which of the following is NOT an advantage associated with outdoor advertising?
37)
A) low absolute cost B) the ability to present very creative messages C) a very competitive CPM D) high levels of frequency 38) The anxious, irritated, or disinterested state of many potential customers when exposed
38)
to ________ advertising may limit the effectiveness of such advertising. A) transit B) movie C) radio D) specialty 39) Which of the following is a disadvantage associated with the use of product placements? A) high exposure
B) low CPM costs
C) little clutter
D) limited reach
40) ________ delivers advertising messages that we experience while moving about our
39)
40)
town or city and accomplishing our day-to-day activities. A) Support media B) Indirect communications C) Out-of-home advertising D) Motion advertising 41) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of movie theatre advertising?
41)
A) audience mood is happy and excited to be going to the movies B) perceived waste of audience's time creates negative reaction to ad C) ability to develop creative ads that evoke emotional responses in the audience D) captive audience removes control for avoidance 42) The use of products such as pens, calendars, and coffee mugs, featuring advertising and
used as promotional tools is referred to as: A) publicity C) giveaways
42)
B) sales promotions D) promotional product marketing
43) Which support media should be employed if the product is expensive cologne, and the
43)
target audience for the product is upscale businesspeople? A) Yellow Pages B) billboards C) product placements D) in-flight advertising 44) Air Canada wishes to advertise in a medium with wide coverage of local markets and
high levels of frequency. Which type of media should they choose? A) outdoor B) in-store and out-of-store C) newspaper and transit D) airport advertising and mobile billboards
6
44)
45) Which of the following statements about product placement advertising is true?
45)
A) While television advertising can be both visual and verbal, product placement relies
on visual exposure only. B) The brand personality and its positioning must "fit" with the characters and plot of the story. C) The power of product placement is such that it is not necessary to run other product advertising. D) The more a brand pays for product placement, the longer its exposure in the movie will be. 46) Manny is the product manager for a leading brand of men's outer wear. He feels that his
46)
message will be best received when his potential consumer is actually shopping for a new jacket. He should use this form of media in his next campaign. A) Internet banner ads B) radio C) mall posters D) sports television 47) The use of Nike shoes in the movie "Forrest Gump" and the appearance of the Marriott
47)
Hotel logo in the movie "True Lies" are both examples of: A) specialty advertising B) transactional advertising C) free-form marketing D) product placement 48) Which of the following is NOT true about superbus advertising?
48)
A) The advertiser "owns" the bus for the time of the contract. B) The entire surface of the bus is covered in a vinyl ad. C) Often an advertiser must take a contract of a half- or full year. D) Advertisers purchase space on an entire fleet of buses, thus making a "super"
impression. 49) Useful articles of merchandise, such as sports bottles, calendars, and pens, imprinted
49)
with an advertiser's name, message, or logo are examples of: A) promotional product marketing items B) product placements C) trade promotions D) premiums 50) ________ posters are those that have a light behind them so that they are more clearly
illuminated. A) Superboard C) Spectacular
50)
B) Rear-projection D) Backlit
51) Transit media is sold:
51)
A) on a four-week basis with a certain desired level of GRPs. B) bus-by-bus and station-by-station. C) according to level of exposure. D) to the highest bidder in any particular time period.
7
52) Which of the following is NOT an advantage associated with transit advertising?
52)
A) target audience selectivity B) geographic selectivity C) long exposure time for interior transit cards D) high frequency of exposure 53) Place-based media options include all of the following EXCEPT: A) mall
B) backlit poster
C) cinema
D) office building
53)
54) Research indicates that the greatest strength of ________ lies in maintaining existing
54)
loyalty of current customers who see the product they consume actually being used in a realistic situation. A) movie theatre advertising B) an in-flight magazine ad C) product placement D) transit shelter advertising 55) Which form of support media provides a high degree of geographic selectivity?
55)
A) outdoor advertising and transit advertising B) aerial advertising C) product placement and mobile billboards D) movie theatre advertising and video advertising 56) Which of the following is NOT considered transit advertising? A) station domination
B) superboards
C) Air Canada's in-flight magazine
D) in-flight radio
56)
57) Bringing an advertising medium to consumers wherever they may be is the strategy
behind: A) specific location media. C) place-based media.
B) multi-location insertions. D) indoor as well as outdoor media.
58) Interior cards, exterior posters, station domination are all examples of what kind of
media? A) airport
57)
B) transit
C) movie theatre
D) shopping mall
59) In many ________, the advertiser has no say over when and how often the product will
be shown. A) infomercials C) TV commercials
B) radio commercials D) movies
8
58)
59)
60) Which of the following is NOT an example of an out-of-home medium?
60)
A) an ad in a college newspaper B) an ad in the subway C) a sign for Calvin Klein jeans inside a bus shelter D) posters located in high-traffic areas 61) A company wishing to advertise to a very specific target market with a message designed
61)
to aid comprehension of the product benefits offered should use: A) rolling boards B) billboards C) transit advertising D) specialty magazine advertising 62) Which of the following is an example of an advantage associated with product
62)
placement? A) high absolute cost B) lack of control C) negative public reaction D) maintaining existing loyalty of current customers 63) Those vehicles used to reinforce communications messages that may have been received
from other forms of advertising are called: A) out-of-home advertising C) support media
63)
B) indirect communications D) advertising accessories
64) Which support media should be employed if the product/service is an expensive hotel
64)
that is attempting to appeal to an international audience? A) in-flight advertising B) advertising specialties C) product placements D) billboards 65) Promoting a product by having it used in a movie is known as: A) out-of-home advertising
B) a direct response promotion
C) product placement
D) publicity
66) Studies show that urban commuters are exposed as much by this media as by Internet or
television advertising. A) radio C) out-of-home
65)
66)
B) daily newspapers D) special interest magazines
67) Research companies offer data for all of the following measurements EXCEPT: A) product placement vs television commercial cost/value comparisons for each
hundredth of a second of exposure B) sales generated from high exposure product placement in television and movies C) recall of product placement in the previous night's network television shows D) viewers' attitudes about product placement in TV shows
9
67)
68) Philips Electronics is considering a media mix that will allow for high exposure for its
68)
new flat screen television. A major concern of the company is that it maintains a favourable image in the market. Because of the nature of the medium, which of the following might lead to image problems if employed by Philips for its new television? A) product placement and Internet marketing B) Internet advertising, print advertising, and mobile billboards C) aerial advertising and print advertising D) promotional product marketing and transit advertising 69) Which of the following forms of support media has a low degree of waste coverage? A) outdoor advertising
B) promotional products marketing
C) transit advertising
D) mobile billboards
10
69)
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 13 1) C 2) D 3) D 4) D 5) B 6) D 7) C 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) C 12) A 13) B 14) D 15) B 16) C 17) A 18) D 19) D 20) A 21) B 22) B 23) B 24) C 25) D 26) D 27) D 28) E 29) A 30) B 31) D 32) A 33) A 34) C 35) A 36) C 37) A 38) A 39) D 40) C 41) B 42) D 43) D 44) A 45) B 46) C 47) D 48) D 49) A 50) D 11
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 13 51) A 52) A 53) B 54) C 55) A 56) B 57) C 58) B 59) D 60) A 61) D 62) D 63) C 64) A 65) C 66) C 67) B 68) D 69) B
12
Chapter 14 Exam Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) In the ________ stage of the product life cycle, promotional dollars may be used
1)
primarily for advertising to stress differences and keep the brand name in consumers' minds. A) growth B) decline C) introduction D) maturity 2) Which of the following is an example of a sales promotion that can be used to contribute
2)
to franchise building? A) A 50-cents off coupon on a box of Minute Rice to encourage repurchase. B) A sweepstakes or contest that uses a theme which is consistent with the image or positioning of the brand. C) A price reduction of $5 on a pair of Lee jeans. D) A bonus jar of Hellmann's Mayonnaise, offering 1 L for the price of 750 mL. 3) When a brand moves to the ________ stage of the product life cycle, advertising is
3)
primarily a reminder to keep consumers aware of the brand. Consumer sales promotions such as coupons, price-offs, premiums, and bonus packs may be needed periodically to maintain consumer loyalty, attract new users, and protect against competition. A) early decline B) maturity C) decline D) growth 4) All of the following are examples of trade-oriented sales promotion activities EXCEPT: A) point-of-purchase displays
B) coupons
C) trade allowances
D) dealer contests
5) Another term used for push money that is given to retailers' or wholesalers' sales staff to
4)
5)
encourage them to promote and sell a company's product is: A) pull money B) a spiff C) an off-invoice allowance D) a rebate 6) The oldest, most widely used, and most effective sales promotion tool is: A) sampling
B) event sponsorship
C) coupons
D) rebates
1
6)
7) Which of the following statements about sales promotion programs is true?
7)
A) Sales promotion programs are targeted only at consumers. B) Sales promotion dollars for most companies are allocated equally between
consumers and the trade. C) A promotional push strategy is directed at current and prospective consumers, in an attempt to push them into retailers who sell their product. D) Many sales promotion programs are designed to motivate distributors and retailers to carry a product and push it through to their customers. 8) The "Intel Inside" logo which appears on many computers is an example of:
8)
A) vertical cooperative advertising B) horizontal cooperative advertising C) ingredient-sponsored cooperative advertising D) a rebate cooperative advertising 9) Which of the following statements about the coordination of advertising and sales
9)
promotion efforts is true? A) Product trial created through sales promotion techniques such as sampling or couponing is more likely to result in long-term use of the brand when accompanied by advertising. B) A sales promotion works best when its theme is not an integrated part of the organization's marketing communications. C) To integrate advertising and sales promotion programs successfully, different themes should be used for each. D) Consumers are less likely to redeem a coupon or respond to a price-off deal for a brand they are familiar with than one they know nothing about. 10) Advil ran a promotional bonus pack that provided 120 tablets for the price of 100. Their
10)
objective behind this incentive was to encourage: A) brand equity B) retention of their current customer base C) trial purchase among non-users D) stronger trade relations 11) ________ is a common sampling technique for small, lightweight products that are
non-perishable. A) Sampling through the mail C) On-package sampling
B) Location sampling D) Door-to-door sampling
2
11)
12) The building or reinforcement of consumer-franchise or equity for a brand:
12)
A) can be done with carefully planned sales promotion programs B) can really only be accomplished through advertising C) can be done more easily through trade-oriented promotions than through
consumer-oriented promotions D) is really not very important given the prolonged economic prosperity that Canadians have enjoyed 13) When New Balance sponsors a campaign advertising the availability of its running shoes
13)
at Foot Locker stores, this is an example of ________ advertising. A) dyadic B) aggregated C) vertical cooperative D) horizontal cooperative 14) MolsonCoors's heavy financial involvement with and support of freestyle skiing
14)
competitions, beach volleyball tournaments, and other sporting events is an example of: A) exhibitions B) event marketing C) trade shows D) premiums 15) Consumer-franchise or image building for a brand:
15)
A) can be accomplished through consumer promotions that help build its brand equity B) is the exclusive responsibility of advertising C) is accomplished through short-term price-oriented promotions D) is becoming less important to marketers as competition intensifies 16) A(n) ________ is an offer of an item of merchandise or service either free or at a reduced
price that is used to provide an extra to purchase. A) off-price deal B) coupon C) rebate
D) premium
17) A(n) ________ is an important promotional tool because it can help an advertiser obtain
more in-store merchandising of products. A) in-pack coupon C) off-invoice allowance
16)
17)
B) point-of-purchase display D) trade allowance
18) Which of the following helps to explain the increase in sales promotion activities over
the last decade? A) The tremendous decrease in the number of new products B) The increase of brand loyalty in many product categories C) The increased emphasis on long term strategy and performance by most companies D) The growing power of retailers and their demands for sales performance
3
18)
19) Which of the following is NOT a tactical decision the marketer faces when planning a
19)
sales promotion? A) Seasonality of purchase and length of promotion B) The value of the free in-pack premium C) The prime time evenings that attract the biggest percentage of the brand's target market D) The percentage discount that the face value of checkout coupons represents 20) Coupons, bonus packs, premiums, and samples are promotional offers that are targeted
toward: A) wholesalers
B) consumers
C) salespeople
20)
D) retailers
21) In order to expand usage beyond just sandwiches, the Kraft peanut butter brand team
21)
included baking recipes on the jar label. This is an example of which promotional objective? A) trial purchase among non-users B) retention of their current customer base C) increased consumption D) brand equity 22) Which of the following is NOT true regarding slotting fees or allowances?
22)
A) Retailers argue they are justified because they are assuming some risks in taking on
a new product, and so many new products fail. B) Even large manufacturers with popular brands and large promotional budgets
always have to pay slotting fees. C) Retailers can charge slotting fees because of their power and the limited availability of shelf space in many retail stores. D) Retailers argue they are justified because there are costs associated with taking on a new product, such as entering the product into the computer and finding warehouse space. 23) All of the following are examples of consumer-oriented sales promotion activities
EXCEPT: A) samples C) refunds/rebates
23)
B) bonus packs D) trade shows
24) All of the following are reasonable objectives for trade-oriented sales promotions
EXCEPT: A) to maintain trade support for established brands. B) to obtain distribution and support for new products. C) to encourage the trade to display and support established brands. D) to differentiate a brand through image enhancement.
4
24)
25) Salomon provides sales personnel in ski shops with training classes, detailed manuals,
25)
and other tools to help them better understand how to sell the company's skis and boots. This is an example of: A) slotting fee B) sales training programs C) cooperative advertising D) spiffs 26) ________ is a practice used by retailers whereby they stock-up on a product at a low deal
26)
or off-invoice price and resell it to consumers at higher prices when a promotional period has ended. A) Forward buying B) Diverting C) Discount trading D) Promotional discounting 27) When a marketer distributes coupons for a brand with a specific expiration date, they are
attempting to use sales promotion as a(n): A) promotional marketing tool C) value added tool
27)
B) brand equity building promotion D) acceleration tool
28) Which of the following sales promotion techniques would be most effective for loading
28)
current users with large amounts of its product, making them less susceptible to a competitor's promotional efforts? A) Coupons B) Contests/sweepstakes C) Price-off deals D) Bonus packs 29) Which of the following is NOT a downside to running a promotion in a specific
29)
geographic region? A) National accounts' reluctance to run different promotions in different regions B) Additional managerial commitment required C) Greater expenses resulting from fragmented efforts D) Consumer confusion when they shop at their local store 30) Which of the following statements about on-package sampling is NOT true? A) A limitation of this sampling method is that the sample is distributed only to
purchasers of the carrier brand. B) The distribution of on-package samples can be broadened by attaching them to
multiple brands or to products made by other companies. C) This can be a very costly sampling method, particularly for multiproduct companies. D) On-package samples can be distributed by attaching them to products not made by the distributing company.
5
30)
31) Uncle Ben's Rice attached a $1-off coupon to the outside of their packaging. They
31)
distributed 1,000,000 promotional packages, at a cost of $20,000 for design and production. They predict that the redemption rate will be 5%. They pay retailer handling and processing costs of 10¢ per coupon redeemed. What is the cost per coupon redeemed to Uncle Ben's? A) $1.10 B) $1.00 C) $0.75 D) $1.50 32) An effective premium is one that:
32)
A) has no impact on an organization's pioneering advertising B) reflects the overall quality of the product and is consistent with its image and
positioning C) induces one-time trial purchase of a brand for which there is low awareness D) distracts consumers from the firm's main reason for existing 33) Five Paradise Island, Bahamas Resort Hotels combining efforts to sponsor an "It's better
33)
in the Bahamas" ad campaign, is an example of: A) vertical cooperative advertising B) horizontal cooperative advertising C) integrated dyadic communications D) a joint trade promotion 34) Which of the following statements does NOT describe an aspect or characteristic of sales
34)
promotion? A) A sales promotion is an acceleration tool designed to speed up the selling process. B) Sales promotion offers may end up being used by current users of a brand rather than attracting new users. C) One reason for the decrease in sales promotion is the power shift from manufacturers to retailers. D) Sales promotion can be targeted to different parties in the marketing channel. 35) A package of Gillette Sensor razor blades contains a 75-cent-off coupon for Gillette
35)
Foamy shaving cream. This is an example of a(n) ________ coupon. A) instant B) bounce back C) same purchase D) cross-ruff 36) Each of the following is a reason for marketers to encourage repeat purchase EXCEPT: A) reduce the likelihood that consumers will switch brands in response to a
competitor's promotion B) induce consumers to establish ongoing purchase patterns C) persuade non-users of the category to try the product D) retain current customer base
6
36)
37) An effective sampling program meets three criteria. Which of these is NOT one of them?
37)
A) The brand being sampled must be a packaged good such as food or health care
products. B) The cost of the sample being provided should be relatively low. C) The purchase cycle should be short enough that the consumer will consider an immediate purchase. D) A small sample must be able to adequately demonstrate the product's core features and benefits. 38) In the ________ stage of the product life cycle, a large amount of the promotion budget
38)
may be allocated to sales promotion techniques such as sampling and couponing to induce trial. A) maturity B) decline C) introduction D) growth 39) Perhaps the most successful in-package ________ in Canada in 2001 was a General
Mills giveaway of six CD-ROM computer games. A) contest B) bonus pack C) premium
39)
D) coupons
40) Which of the following developments has resulted in a transfer of power from
40)
manufacturers to retailers? A) The advent of optical scanners and computers gave manufacturers access to sales information. B) Retailers have access to data concerning how quickly products turn over, and which products make money. C) Manufacturers are introducing more private-label brands. D) Manufacturers are spending more money on media advertising. 41) The toy company Hasbro teamed with the retailer Toys R Us to create direct mail
41)
booklets offering discounts on Hasbro toys good only at Toys R Us stores. This is an example of: A) brand equity building B) account-specific marketing C) a franchise building promotion D) incentive marketing 42) Programs involving cash payments directly to the sales force to reward them for selling
42)
the manufacturer's products involve the use of: A) push money B) slotting fees C) pull monies D) promotional allowances 43) Consumer-oriented sales promotions are part of a promotional ________ strategy. A) pull
B) push
C) trade
D) premium
44) ________ generate(s) much higher trial rates than advertising and other sales promotion
techniques. A) Bonus packs
B) Contests
C) Sampling 7
43)
D) Sweepstakes
44)
45) Why can on- or in-pack incentive programs like Pepsi Points or iCoke Rewards be
45)
problematic for brands? A) Consumer switching behaviour is curtailed. B) If the promotion is ongoing, it is difficult to predict consumer behaviour should the reinforcement ever stop. C) Retailers are not happy having to purchase large amounts of product to support the promotion. D) The consumer may experience negative reinforcement when comparing competitive prices. 46) Which of the following is NOT a sampling distribution method?
46)
A) Self-liquidating sampling
B) In-or on-package sampling
C) Door-to-door sampling
D) Sampling through the mail
47) Companies such as ________ manufacturers with wide product lines use cross-ruff
coupons to encourage consumers to try other products or brands. A) baby stroller B) car C) beer
47)
D) cereal
48) Which of the following statements about measuring the effectiveness of sales promotion
48)
activities is NOT true? A) Levels of attention and emotional responses to the promotion can be measured, whereas there is no method for assessing switching and loyalty behaviours. B) Tracking of commentary in social media provides guidance of attitudinal effects of the promotional offer. C) Pre- or post-surveys can be employed to assess brand awareness and/or attitude. D) The same four communication goals as for advertising can be used for measuring sales promotion. 49) Advertising implemented by retailers and paid for by a manufacturer is called: A) joint sales promotions
B) joint trade promotions
C) horizontal cooperative advertising
D) vertical cooperative advertising
50) Which of the following statements describes how brand equity is affected by the
increased role of sales promotion? A) There is a belief that sales promotion can be over used by too much frequency, resulting in a decrease in brand equity. B) Critics argue that trade promotions generally result in higher brand equity. C) There is strong agreement that any type of sales promotion activity detracts from brand equity. D) Sales promotions do not contribute to the erosion of brand equity.
8
49)
50)
51) Kraft is concerned that families consume Miracle Whip only on sandwiches, using a
51)
tablespoon or two at a time. In order to increase consumption, which of the following sales promotion tools would work best for Kraft? A) Sampling and rebates B) In-store coupons for $1.00 off Miracle Whip C) Recipe books showing alternative uses for Miracle Whip D) Bonus packs, trade allowances, and slotting fees 52) Uncle Ben's Rice attached a $1-off coupon to the outside of their packaging. They
52)
distributed 1,000,000 promotional packages, at a cost of $20,000 for design and production. They predict that the redemption rate will be 5%. They pay retailer handling and processing costs of 10¢ per coupon redeemed. What is the total cost of the coupon promotion to Uncle Ben's? A) $7,500 B) $75,000 C) $55,000 D) $150,000 53) Sampling for a product such as expensive skin cream that is designed to reduce wrinkles
53)
over a long period of time might not be feasible because: A) it may be too expensive to give away sample sizes that would be adequate to demonstrate the cream's benefits since it has to be used repeatedly B) consumers may think it is of poor quality since samples are being given away C) it may be too difficult to find a way to distribute the samples D) it cannot be broken down into small sizes 54) Promotional activities that are designed to accelerate the purchase process and generate
54)
an immediate increase in sales without communicating information about a brand's unique features or benefits are known as: A) nonfranchise-building promotion B) trade promotions C) sweepstakes D) consumer franchise-building promotion 55) What advantage does distribution of coupons through direct mail have over other forms
55)
of coupon delivery? A) Lower redemption rate B) Most redeemers of direct mail coupons are non-users C) Lower cost D) Targeted to specific geographic or demographic segments 56) Which of the following is a reasonable objective for consumer-oriented sales
promotions? A) To increase consumption of an established brand B) To encourage off-shelf displays in major grocery stores C) To enhance advertising and marketing efforts D) To obtain trial of a new brand 9
56)
57) Which of the following statements does NOT correctly describe the relationship between
57)
building brand equity and sales promotion? A) Companies are asking their promotion agencies to think strategically and develop programs that do more than increase short-term sales. B) Companies want promotions that require consumer involvement with their brands. C) Sales promotion techniques such as contests and premium offers are often used to draw attention to an ad, increase involvement with the ad, and help build relationships with consumers. D) Sales promotion is an ineffective tool for building brand equity. 58) Kellogg's places a 50-cent-off coupon for Rice Krispies cereal in a box of its Frosted
58)
Mini-Wheats brand of cereal. This is an example of a(n) ________ coupon. A) cross-ruff B) bounce-back C) cross-sell D) instant 59) Sampling would be an appropriate promotional strategy to do each of the following
59)
EXCEPT: A) induce trial of a new brand that is clearly superior to the competition B) provide the marketer with an immediate gauge as to how well the product will do in the marketplace C) assist consumers to experience the brand directly D) increase the market share of an established brand 60) Event ________ is where a brand creates themed experiences for consumers by linking
60)
to an event, whereas event ________ is where the brand develops actual relationships and provides financial support for the event in exchange for signage and other promotional elements. A) linkages; ownership B) marketing; sponsorship experience; advertising C) D) sponsorship; marketing 61) Which of the following statements about the slotting allowances charged by many
retailers is true? A) Slotting allowances are illegal and banned by the federal government. B) Large companies with popular brands are the most likely to have to pay slotting allowances. C) Retailers justify slotting allowances by pointing to the costs associated with taking on a new product. D) Retailers are not justified in charging slotting allowances since most new products are successful.
10
61)
62) Gillette's market research shows that most consumers decide upon a brand of deodorant
62)
at the point-of-purchase rather than before entering the store. Based on these findings, what form of promotion is most effective for Gillette's Right Guard brand? A) Event marketing B) Coupons distributed through freestanding inserts in newspapers C) Direct mail coupons D) In-store coupons 63) With a ________, consumers compete for prizes and/or money on the basis of skills or
63)
ability, while with a(n) ________, winners are determined purely by chance. A) contest; sweepstakes B) contest; rebate C) sweepstakes; event sponsorship D) sweepstakes; contest 64) How has the view of sales promotions changed during the past decades?
64)
A) Sales promotion tactics are now developed exclusively to provide incentives to
purchase. B) Sales promotions are now believed to be an ineffective tool for creating brand image. C) Sales promotions are now considered an essential part of an organization's branding strategies. D) There is no difference between how marketers used to treat sales promotions and how they treat them now. 65) Duncan Hines printed a 50 cents-off coupon on the inside of their brownie boxes. They
65)
distributed 200,000 promotional packages, at a cost of $9,900 for design and production. They predict that the redemption rate will be 3%. They pay retailer handling and processing costs of 10¢ per coupon redeemed. What is the cost per coupon redeemed to Duncan Hines? A) $0.50 B) $1.25 C) $0.57 D) $2.25 66) Duncan Hines printed a 50 cents-off coupon on the inside of their brownie boxes. They
66)
distributed 200,000 promotional packages, at a cost of $9,900 for design and production. They predict that the redemption rate will be 3%. They pay retailer handling and processing costs of 10¢ per coupon redeemed. What is the total cost of the coupon promotion to Duncan Hines? A) $16,500 B) $34,000 C) $3,500 D) $13,500 67) Which of the following promotions is targeted toward the trade rather than consumers? A) Spiffs
B) Premiums and sweepstakes
C) Bonus packs
D) Coupons
11
67)
68) Which of the following statements describes a major concern marketers have with trade
68)
allowances? A) Trade allowances are encouraging retailers to stock and promote their products on a regular basis. B) Trade allowances are detracting from the image of the retailers who carry their brands. C) Consumers pocket most of the savings from trade promotion discounts. D) Trade allowances often are not passed on to consumers in the form of lower prices. 69) ________ has/have become very popular in recent years as marketers develop integrated
69)
marketing programs that create experiences for consumers in an effort to associate their brands with certain lifestyles and activities. A) Bonus packs B) Premiums C) Event marketing D) Contests 70) ________ is defined as a direct inducement that offers an extra value or incentive for the
70)
product to the salesforce, distributors, or to ultimate consumer with the primary objective of creating an immediate sale. A) Promotional allowance B) Brand advertising C) Sales promotion D) Direct marketing 71) ________ is advertising sponsored in common by a group of retailers or other
71)
organizations offering a product or service to the market. A) Horizontal cooperative advertising B) Indirect advertising C) Vertical cooperative advertising D) Dyadic communication 72) Over the past decade, the amount of money consumer products firms devote to ________
72)
has been declining while the amount spent on ________ has been increasing. A) trade promotions; media advertising B) trade promotions; consumer promotions C) consumer promotions; media advertising D) media advertising; sales promotions 73) Research indicates that the average Canadian household redeems approximately
________ percent of the coupons they receive in a year. A) 40 B) 4 C) 15 D) There is no general number associated with coupon redemption.
12
73)
74) Bonus packs:
74)
A) are not an effective way of loading consumers with a product and reducing their
susceptibility to a competitor's promotional offer. B) offer consumers an extra amount of a product or service but at a higher than normal price. C) are always welcome by retailers since bonus packs increase their profit margins. D) provide marketers with a way to provide extra value to consumers without having them do anything other than purchase the product. 75) ________ is advertising supported by raw materials or component part manufacturers to
75)
help establish end products making use of their materials. A) Support advertising B) Vertical cooperative advertising C) Horizontal cooperative advertising D) Ingredient-sponsored cooperative advertising 76) Which of the following is NOT an advantage inherent in the use of coupons as a sales
76)
promotion tool? A) Coupons are an effective way of generating trial of a new product. B) Coupons are often used by consumers who already use the brand and would purchase it without a coupon. C) Coupons can encourage non-users to try a brand. D) Coupons offer price reductions to consumers who are price sensitive. 77) Jeff ran a promotion offering a box of fifteen Pinnacle golf balls for the same regular
price as twelve balls. This is an example of a: A) rebate. B) bonus pack.
C) price-off deal.
77)
D) premium.
78) The sales promotion tool that critics contend is most guilty of detracting from brand
78)
equity and at the same time being detrimental to a brand franchise is: A) trade promotions B) frequent patronage programs C) sweepstakes and contests D) event sponsorships 79) Payments offered by manufacturers to retailers for performing certain promotional or
79)
merchandising activities in support of their brands are called: A) promotional allowances B) advertising subsidies C) cooperative advertising D) push monies 80) ________ is a practice used by some retailers and wholesalers whereby they take
advantage of a promotional deal and then sell some of the product purchased at the low price to another store outside of its area or a middleman who will resell the products. A) Forward buying B) Discount trading Everyday low pricing C) D) Diverting
13
80)
81) In order to encourage a current user to purchase Campbell's chicken broth instead of
81)
private label brands, which of these sales promotion tools would work best? A) In-store sampling B) Promotional pricing of 2 packages for $2.99 instead of the $1.69 regular price C) Trade promotion D) Image advertising 82) Quaker Oats cereal included tubes of Colgate Junior toothpaste inside each box of Life
cereal. This is an example of a: A) free premium C) rebate
82)
B) bonus pack D) self-liquidating premium
83) Catelli might use a specially marked price-off deal on their pasta sauces for each of the
83)
following reasons EXCEPT: A) The attention that the lower price attracts can be a strong influence at the point of purchase when price comparison shopping occurs. B) Price-off deals tend to attract current users of the brand instead of attracting non-users. C) This ensures that the discount will go right to the consumer rather than being kept by the retailer. D) Price-off deals present a readily apparent value to shoppers. 84) All the following are advantages associated with the use of trade allowances EXCEPT:
84)
A) provide brands that sell in retail stores the opportunity to have specialized displays
to feature their product. B) strengthen the brand image. C) ensure greater in-store exposure. D) permit a brand to obtain prominent placement where high traffic occurs. 85) Which of the following would be NOT an example of a nonfranchise-building
promotion? A) Trade promotions C) Bonus packs
85)
B) Price-off deals D) Image advertising
86) If Beth experiences a positive outcome when buying a product with a sales promotion,
86)
the likelihood that she will buy this product again increases. This is explained by the theory of: A) operant conditioning B) path of least resistance C) intermittent incentive D) continuous reinforcement 87) The redemption rate for refunds is lower than that for coupons because: A) the reinforcement is immediate.
B) the payoff is smaller.
C) the payoff is larger.
D) more effort is required.
14
87)
88) Which of the following sales promotion techniques would be most effective for
generating excitement or interest in a brand? A) Contests/sweepstakes C) Price-off deals
88)
B) Coupons D) Bonus packs
89) Why are organizations like McDonald's, Wendy's, and Labatt placing more emphasis on
89)
sales promotions than ever before? A) Because the use of sales promotions allows them to cut back and/or completely eliminate their use of coupons B) Because consumers have less time to shop C) Because sales promotions can be used to provide extra incentives for purchasing a brand D) Because they want to use sales promotions rather than engage in price wars 90) Kellogg's is introducing a new brand of breakfast cereal that is high in fibre and targeted
90)
at adults between the ages of 25 and 50. The marketing objectives for the introduction are to generate trial and repeat purchase during the 3-month product launch. Which of the following sales promotion tools work best for Kellogg's? A) Sampling and rebates B) High value coupons and sampling C) Rebates and high value checkout coupons D) Bonus packs, trade allowances, and slotting fees 91) Eastern Canadian Sea Foods devotes most of its marketing budget to trade discounts in
91)
the form of off-invoice and promotional allowances so its canned tuna and salmon brands can remain price competitive with private label brands. The heavy emphasis on trade promotion makes it difficult to: A) build an Eastern Canadian brand identity and image B) build and maintain store equity for retailers that carry the Eastern Canadian brand C) encourage retailers to use Eastern Canadian's planograms D) encourage consumers to buy on the basis of price 92) Which of the following statements about rebates is true? A) Nonusers of rebates have been shown to perceive the rebate redemption process as
too complicated. B) Most retailers want to be involved with rebate programs. C) Rebates are increasing in popularity among both manufacturers and retailers. D) Rebates are used only for consumer durables such as automobiles and appliances.
15
92)
93) Which of the following is NOT a limitation of rebates?
93)
A) When small refunds are being offered, marketers may find other promotional
incentives, such as coupons, more effective. B) Nonusers of rebates are likely to perceive the redemption process as too complicated. C) Consumers do not want to be bothered saving cash register receipts and proofs of purchase. D) Rebates can encourage brand switching or repeat purchase behaviour. 94) A survey estimates that approximately ________ of consumer purchase decisions are
unplanned, i.e. made in the store. A) 15% B) 55%
C) 6%
D) 24%
95) Which of the following promotion tools is less likely to be used when the goal of the
marketer is to stimulate trial? A) Loyalty programs C) Sampling
94)
95)
B) Mail-in refunds and rebates D) Instant coupons
96) A recent study of coupon redemption patterns found that:
96)
A) most consumers do not use coupons B) most coupons are redeemed immediately following the initial coupon drop C) most coupons are redeemed on Thursdays D) many coupons are redeemed just before the expiration date rather than in the period
following the initial drop 97) Consumers have become more sensitive and responsive to sales promotion for each of
97)
the following reasons EXCEPT: A) marketers are offering consumers more promotions to attract and maintain customers. B) consumers purchase more on the basis of price, value, and convenience than brand. C) consumers tend to be loyal to their favourite brands. D) many purchase decisions are made in the store where many sales promotions are found. 98) When calculating the costs of a couponing program, marketers should consider all of the
98)
following EXCEPT: A) the copy and layout of the coupon B) the face value of the coupon redeemed C) handling costs D) production and distribution costs 99) Consumers must pay the manufacturer's out-of-pocket costs for a ________ premium. A) cost-plus C) self-liquidating
B) cost-covered D) subsidized 16
99)
100) Which of the following is NOT a strength of refunds and rebates?
100)
A) When refund offers require multiple proofs of purchase, this encourages repeat
purchase. B) The rebate may be perceived as an immediate savings even though consumers do not follow through on the offer. C) They can encourage non-users of the brand to switch and try the promotional brand. D) A rebate on a vehicle at the end of the model year might be perceived as an effort to sell off a car that is not performing well. 101) An appliance manufacturer offers a $50 payment to salespeople who work at Culligan's
101)
Appliance if they sell one of the company's new refrigerators. This payment is known as: A) push money. B) a trade allowance. C) a slotting fee. D) pull money. 102) Ralston Purina offers its retail accounts a $3.00 per case discount for all of the dog food
102)
it purchases during the month of October. This discount will be deducted straight from the bill. This is an example of: A) an off-invoice allowance. B) a coop allowance. C) a slotting allowance. D) push money. 103) Tropicana developed a "Win the Perfect Vacation" sweepstakes to complement an
103)
advertising campaign theme promoting its grapefruit juice as the perfect beverage. This is an example of: A) event marketing B) high-involvement sales promotion C) sales promotion trap D) franchise building promotion 104) Which of the following would be the best example of a premium offer that contributes to
104)
consumer-franchise building efforts for a brand? A) A crystal figurine in a box of Tide laundry detergent B) A free tube of Colgate toothpaste in a box of Life cereal C) A pack of baseball cards in a box of Cheerios cereal D) A free sport bottle with the purchase of a four-pack of Gatorade 105) An advantage of coupons is that they:
105)
A) are very effective even without brand name awareness B) build brand loyalty C) allow a marketer to offer a price reduction to consumers who are price sensitive
without having to reduce the price for everyone D) generally elicit immediate response from consumers
17
106) Which of the following is an advantage of digital coupon distribution?
106)
A) Retailers prefer digital coupons because they don't have as much paper to manage
when claiming their handling fees. B) Digital coupons can offer a lower coupon value because the consumer doesn't have to go to too much trouble to redeem them. C) Technology associated with smartphones is inexpensive. D) Digital coupons enjoy a higher redemption rate because consumers can access a coupon for a desired brand right while shopping. 107) Which of the following is NOT an example of a point-of-purchase display? A) End-of-aisle display
B) Mall poster
C) TV display
D) Wall display
108) A discount or deal that is offered to a retailer or wholesaler to encourage them to stock,
107)
108)
promote, or display a manufacturer's product is known as: A) a trade allowance B) push money C) a spiff D) merchandising support 109) Which of the following sales promotion techniques is impacted negatively by the
109)
presence of professionals or hobbyists who take advantage of the promotion without making a purchase? A) Sampling B) Event sponsorships C) Premiums D) Contests and sweepstakes 110) Because they are easier to enter, ________ attract more entries than ________ and have
110)
become a more widely used sales promotion technique. A) sweepstakes; contests B) sweepstakes; premiums C) contests; rebates D) contests; sweepstakes 111) Which of the following is NOT a problem associated with the use of contests and
111)
sweepstakes? A) The contest or sweepstakes can create excitement and interest in a brand. B) Professional entrants often defeat the purpose of contest and sweepstakes and undermine their effectiveness. C) The contest or sweepstakes often fails to contribute to the brand franchise. D) The contest or sweepstakes offer may overshadow the brand. 112) Tropicana suspended shipments of its products to a retail store that was taking advantage
of promotional deals and then selling the product to other stores in another part of the country. The retailer was engaged in: A) transference charging B) forward buying C) slotting D) diverting
18
112)
113) Which of the following types of sales promotions would NOT be used to help in the
introduction of a new product? A) Sampling C) Rebates and refunds
113)
B) New usage suggestions D) Premiums
114) Crashed Ice is an event featuring a new sport, downhill ice-cross, which was established
114)
by: A) Bauer Hockey Skates.
B) Smirnoff Vodka.
C) Orange Crush.
D) Red Bull Energy Drink.
115) ________ is a recent development whereby companies are customizing their sale
promotion programs for key retailers. A) Trade marketing C) Account-specific marketing
115)
B) Accountability marketing D) Incentive marketing
116) ________ occurs at venues such as concerts, cultural festivals, and at a brand's marketing
activities. A) Sampling through the mail C) Door-to-door sampling
116)
B) Event sampling D) Sampling through the media
117) Which of the following statements about the use of premiums as a sales promotion tool
117)
is true? A) Mail-in premiums offer immediate reinforcement to the purchaser. B) The use of premiums is very popular in fast food restaurants such as McDonald's. C) Redemption rates for mail-in premium offers are very high. D) Premiums are not subject to restrictions from industry and government agencies. 118) ________ is generally considered the most effective method for generating trial of a new
product. A) Couponing C) Sampling
118)
B) A rebate award D) A bonus pack
119) One problem resulting from the overuse of sales promotion is a decrease in: A) brand equity
B) promotional traps
C) ad readership scores
D) retailer power
120) When reductions from the regular price of a product are offered at the point-of-purchase
through specially marked packages, a marketer is using a: A) refund offer B) bounce back coupon C) price-off deal D) bonus pack
19
119)
120)
121) Dare makes Breton snack crackers, which compete with many other brands in the
121)
category. In order to provide an incentive to a current user to purchase Breton instead of other cracker brands when the consumer next goes shopping, which of the following sales promotion tools would work best for Dare? A) Sponsorship of the local Easter parade B) In-store sampling C) High value checkout coupons D) In-pack coupons for any variety of Breton crackers 122) Which of the following promotion tools is less likely to be used when the goal of the
marker is to build brand equity? A) Price-off deals C) Self-liquidating premiums
122)
B) Loyalty programs D) Sweepstakes
123) ________ are used to distribute coupons through newspapers. A) Coupon pages
B) Editorials
C) Freestanding inserts (FSIs)
D) Classified ads
124) ________ is an exhibition or forum where manufacturers can display their products to
current and prospective buyers. A) Event marketing C) A trade layout
123)
124)
B) A trade show D) An end-of-aisle display
125) Monies that must be paid to a retailer so they will take on a company's new product are
known as: A) spiffs C) new product fees
125)
B) trade discounts D) slotting allowances
126) An in/on package coupon that is redeemable for a future purchase of the same brand is
known as a(n) ________ coupon. A) cross-ruff C) same purchase
B) bounce-back D) instant
20
126)
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 14 1) A 2) B 3) B 4) B 5) B 6) C 7) D 8) C 9) A 10) B 11) A 12) A 13) C 14) B 15) A 16) D 17) B 18) D 19) C 20) B 21) C 22) B 23) D 24) D 25) B 26) A 27) D 28) D 29) D 30) C 31) D 32) B 33) B 34) C 35) D 36) C 37) A 38) C 39) C 40) B 41) B 42) A 43) A 44) C 45) B 46) A 47) D 48) A 49) D 50) A 21
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 14 51) C 52) B 53) A 54) A 55) D 56) B 57) D 58) A 59) B 60) B 61) C 62) D 63) A 64) C 65) D 66) D 67) A 68) D 69) C 70) C 71) A 72) D 73) B 74) D 75) D 76) B 77) B 78) A 79) A 80) D 81) C 82) A 83) B 84) B 85) D 86) A 87) D 88) A 89) C 90) B 91) A 92) A 93) D 94) B 95) A 96) D 97) C 98) A 99) C 100) D 22
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 14 101) A 102) A 103) D 104) D 105) C 106) D 107) B 108) A 109) D 110) A 111) A 112) D 113) B 114) D 115) C 116) B 117) B 118) C 119) A 120) C 121) D 122) A 123) C 124) B 125) D 126) B
23
Chapter 15 Exam Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) In public relations, internal audiences include all of the following EXCEPT: A) customers
B) suppliers
C) stockholders
D) the public at large
2) Which of the following is NOT a reason for conducting research to determine public
1)
2)
attitudes? A) It serves as an "early warning system" to detect problems. B) It results in more internal support. C) It leads directly to more product sales. D) It provides input into the planning process. 3) Which of the following best reflects an example of corporate advertising?
3)
A) Home Depot giving out free calendars to all of its regular customers B) M&M conducting a contest to determine the new colour for M&M candies C) Bank of Montreal promoting its concern for the environment D) Titleist golf equipment signing of golfer Tiger Woods as a spokesperson 4) Which of the following is NOT one of the ten questions suggested for use in evaluating
4)
public relations plans? A) Will the tactics be perceived as silly or gimmicky by the public? B) Do the PR people understand the product's strengths and weaknesses? C) Are the objectives specific and measurable? D) Does the plan include analysis of recent editorial coverage? 5) Public relations activities directed to employees of the firm often have this objective:
5)
A) explain shareholder value B) demonstrate loyalty to suppliers and customers C) create goodwill and boost morale D) distribute the company's annual report 6) Which of the following is NOT an example of cause-related marketing?
6)
A) donating building materials to Habitat for Humanity B) making outright monetary donations to a non-profit cause C) sponsoring a televised sports tournament D) running public service announcements 7) ________ receive the majority of event sponsorship monies. A) Sports
B) Festivals and fairs
C) Causes
D) Arts
1
7)
8) In terms of public relations, the marketer tries to apply certain ________ like "buying
into the idea" in order to measure success. A) research methods C) key benefit statements
8)
B) brand-building objectives D) behavioural objectives
9) In the new role of ________, both marketing and PR departments work together,
9)
blending their talents to provide the best overall image of the firm and its product or service offerings. A) public relations B) advertising C) interactive media D) sales promotion 10) Public relations often attempts to influence government bodies directly at both local and
national levels. This is called ________. A) lobbying B) flighting
C) filibustering
D) politicking
11) Which of the following is NOT a strength associated with the marketer's use of media
publicity? A) long-lasting communication effects C) credibility
10)
11)
B) image building D) avoidance of clutter
12) A video news release (VNR) is:
12)
A) a piece produced by publicists so that stations can air it as a news story B) video footage uploaded to the company's website or YouTube channel by the
marketing department C) a publicity story developed by the media and aired on the local news channel D) video footage uploaded to the company's website or YouTube channel by members of the public 13) Which of the following statements describes a major difference between publicity and
13)
public relations? A) Publicity is typically a short-term strategy. B) Publicity is always positive. C) Publicity always originates within the firm. D) Public relations is typically a short-term strategy. 14) Which of the following communications is most likely to have more credibility among
its receivers? A) The magazine Motor Trend announcing the "Car of the Year" B) GM's magazine ads introducing its latest models C) Celine Dion's appearance in Air Canada commercials D) Volvo's television ad promoting new standard safety features
2
14)
15) Publicity is:
15)
A) always under the control of the firm. B) designed to provide positive information about the competition. C) typically a long-term strategy. D) news about a person, product, or service that appears in broadcast or print media,
and now on the Internet. 16) The information in a press release will not be used unless:
16)
A) the company pays for media placement B) the content is of interest to the users of the medium it is sent to C) the release is several pages long D) it is provided in digital format 17) Marketers seek attainment of corporate advertising's objectives by implementing all the
following EXCEPT: A) television sponsorship C) cooperative advertising
17)
B) cause-related advertising D) image advertising
18) When companies establish a worthy cause themselves rather than working with an
existing organization it is called: A) cause-related marketing C) advertorial marketing
18)
B) publicity D) advocacy advertising
19) Cause-related marketing refers to:
19)
A) all advertising designed to cause sales B) all advertising designed to cause attitude change C) corporate advertising designed to change the image of an organization D) companies linking with charities through financial and/or in-kind support 20) In public relations targeting, external audiences include: A) the public at large
B) stockholders
C) suppliers
D) customers
21) Which of the following is NOT one of the communication objectives on which public
relations can deliver? A) strengthen positive attitudes towards the brand B) support a cause through financial or physical involvement C) generate brand awareness D) enhance image as a good corporate citizen
3
20)
21)
22) Which of the following is an advantage associated with media publicity?
22)
A) effectiveness at completing the communications product B) ability to reach small market segments and/or specific audiences C) high absolute cost but low relative cost D) ease with which PR activities are coordinated with other promotional activities,
even when the activities are performed in different departments 23) ________ is usually controlled by the firm whereas ________ is neither always positive
nor under the control of the firm. A) Publicity; public relations C) Strategy; news conferences
23)
B) Public relations; publicity D) Marketing programming; advertising
24) Which of the following statements about sponsorship is NOT true?
24)
A) Growth in sponsorship investments has led to a corresponding emergence of
measuring the effectiveness of sponsorships. B) The Arts receive the majority of event sponsorship monies. C) Many marketers are attracted to event sponsorship because it gets their company names in front of consumers. D) Golf tournaments are a popular event for sponsorship by marketers of luxury automobiles and other upscale products. 25) Communications activities designed to promote a firm overall, without reference to a
specific product, are called: A) advocacy advertising C) corporate advertising
25)
B) lobbying D) advertorials
26) Each of the following is a limitation of media publicity EXCEPT:
26)
A) Media publicity may also misfire through mismanagement and a lack of
coordination with the marketing department. B) Timing of the publicity is not always completely under the control of the marketer. C) A firm's PR efforts are rarely associated with its sponsors in the public mind. D) The fact that media are not being compensated for providing the information may lead receivers to consider the news more truthful and credible. 27) Which of the following promotional activities would best exemplify the new role of
public relations? A) initiation of a contest to find a new spokesperson for a brand B) donation of money to support a local children's soccer team C) sponsorship of a marathon D) use of Shaquille O'Neal as a spokesperson for Pepsi
4
27)
28) ________ is the management function that executes a program of action and
28)
communication to earn public understanding and acceptance. A) Sales promotion B) Branding Advertising C) D) Public relations 29) Each of the following is a strength of event sponsorship EXCEPT:
29)
A) Effective IMC programs can be built around them at the local, regional or national
level. B) Sponsorship of an event that interests the brand's target consumer can help form emotional attachments to the brand. C) The brand can be positioned to a well-defined target audience. D) Many marketers need evidence that event sponsorship is effective and a good return on their investment. 30) The new role of public relations is one characterized by:
30)
A) a broader, more marketing-oriented role B) a tighter, more tightly defined role C) less of a communication role D) less of a marketing orientation 31) Becel has supported the Heart and Stroke Foundation for 20 years. This is an example of: A) publicity
B) advertorial marketing
C) advocacy advertising
D) cause-related marketing
32) Which of the following is NOT a consideration around public relations tactics?
31)
32)
A) The marketer needs to focus on maximizing paid media. B) The marketer needs to make a choice of news media or corporate advertising. C) Decisions need to be made regarding alternative media such as news conferences,
seminars, and events. D) The marketer needs to know how to issue a press release and make a media presentation. 33) Ads that focus on recruiting new employees, that show the company adopting a position
33)
on a particular social issue, or that create goodwill both internally and externally are examples of: A) advocacy advertising B) sponsorship C) image advertising D) public relations advertising 34) Companies, like products, need to establish an image in the marketplace. ________
activities are one way to accomplish this objective. A) Trade deal B) Personal selling C) Sales promotion D) Corporate advertising
5
34)
35) The following are some of the reasons for which firms are concerned with the public's
35)
attitudes EXCEPT: A) firms regularly change their positioning B) firms exist in communities where their employees work and live C) no one wants to be perceived as bad citizen D) negative attitudes carry over to employee moral 36) The way companies and organizations use public relations might be best viewed as:
36)
A) whitewashing key issues B) a continuum between a traditional non-marketing function and a more
marketing-oriented perspective C) a waste of corporate expenditure, as it does not appear to assist in brand building D) the opportunity to provide rationale or excuses for activities that the public views as undesirable 37) Because media publicity communications are typically perceived as ________, they are
37)
not subject to the problems with clutter that are common to other forms of promotional communication. A) news items B) altruistic C) corporate-sponsored advertisements D) image building 38) Esso ran an ad campaign that addressed the potential problem of global warming. The ad
38)
encouraged others to take time to truly understand the problem and to not act hastily. This ad is an example of: A) public relations advertising B) advocacy advertising C) image advertising D) a sponsorship 39) Which of the following groups would most likely be the target of public relations efforts
39)
designed to increase communications with external audiences? A) the media and current customers B) suppliers and employees of the firm C) current customers and employees of the firm D) potential investors and the media 40) While still seeking the objective of portraying an image for the company or organization,
________ does so indirectly by adopting a position on a particular issue rather than by promoting the organization itself. A) image advertising B) consumer relations C) a sponsorship D) advocacy advertising
6
40)
41) Important research into the persuasion effects of event sponsorship has uncovered all of
41)
the following recommendations EXCEPT: A) Planners should avoid multiple-sponsor events where their message might be lost in the clutter. B) Event sponsorships are deemed ineffective if there is no mechanism for product sales. C) The sponsorship should offer true value to the audience. D) Sponsorship content should be "visible", so that participants are aware of the sponsoring brand. 42) When determining relevant target audiences for public relations efforts, all of the
42)
following groups are considered internal audiences EXCEPT: A) employees of the firm B) suppliers C) the media D) current customers 43) For many companies, the PR function is moving more and more toward a "new role"
43)
which is much closer to a(n) ________ function than a traditional one. A) industrial relations B) marketing C) accounting D) production 44) Although most public relations efforts seek a variety of channels for distribution, an
44)
alternative strategy is to offer one particular medium ________ rights to the story if that medium reaches a substantial number of people in the target audience. A) exclusive B) legal C) limited D) legitimate 45) Which of the following is NOT an advantage associated with media publicity? A) greater credibility
B) low absolute and relative cost
C) ability to build positive image
D) timing is entirely up to the media
46) Which of the following is NOT a limitation of cause-related marketing?
45)
46)
A) It takes time and effort to establish credibility with consumers. B) The results are difficult to quantify. C) Cause-related marketing may generate a great deal of publicity. D) Companies may support causes that offer little connection or relation to their
brands. 47) Organizational newsletters, notices on intranet resources, mail/e-mail, and annual reports
are methods used to communicate with: A) the media C) current customers
B) employees of the firm D) suppliers
7
47)
48) Public relations activities are less likely to give support to the following marketing
objective: A) increasing short term sales C) raising awareness
48)
B) gaining understanding D) building trust
49) Marketing public relations activities are less likely to be used in the following ways:
49)
A) building brand preference B) providing information to opinion leaders C) creating news about a new advertising campaign D) defending products at risk with a message of reassurance 50) Companies are finding ________ an excellent platform from which to build equity and
50)
gain affinity with target audiences as well as a good public relations tool for the corporation in general. A) event sponsorships B) personal selling C) advertising D) sales promotion 51) Marketing public relations (MPR) are activities designed to support marketing objectives
51)
in all of the following ways EXCEPT: A) building marketplace excitement B) defending products at risk with a message of reassurance C) incentivizing immediate product sales D) creating news about a new advertising campaign 52) Offering a press release to only one particular medium may be termed: A) lobbying
B) advocacy advertising
C) an exclusive
D) an advertorial
8
52)
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 15 1) D 2) C 3) C 4) A 5) C 6) C 7) A 8) D 9) A 10) A 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) D 16) B 17) C 18) A 19) D 20) A 21) B 22) B 23) B 24) B 25) C 26) D 27) A 28) D 29) D 30) A 31) D 32) A 33) C 34) D 35) A 36) B 37) A 38) B 39) D 40) D 41) B 42) C 43) B 44) A 45) D 46) C 47) B 48) A 49) A 50) A 9
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 15 51) C 52) C
10
Chapter 16 Exam Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The two-step approach to direct marketing:
1)
A) is commonly found in direct sales B) uses the first contact to screen potential buyers C) asks for an immediate sale D) is followed by a professional sales call 2) An RFM scoring method is often used to measure the effectiveness of a database. RFM
2)
stands for: A) rough, fine-tuned, maximized database updates B) recent, fortnightly, monthly transactional data compiled C) recency, frequency, and monetary transactions between the company and the customer D) rebates, free premiums, and multiple purchases engaged in by the consumer 3) Which of the following statements about infomercials is NOT true?
3)
A) Infomercials are popular with small firms, but large firms are beginning to use them
as well. B) Studies indicate that infomercials get watched and sell products. C) Infomercials are mandated to fill a 30 minute time slot. D) It is possible to target specific audiences at a low cost via specialty channels. 4) Information about consumers with precise purchase patterns can be sourced through: A) consumer promotions
B) public relations
C) broadcast advertising
D) loyalty programs
5) Disadvantages inherent in the use of direct marketing include:
4)
5)
A) audience exerts control for selective exposure B) difficulty in acquiring TV time C) lack of flexibility D) difficulty in obtaining effectiveness measurements 6) A television commercial in which Publishers Clearing House urges consumers to look in
their mailboxes for coming sweepstakes entries is an example of: A) the two-step approach B) the one-step approach sweeps marketing C) D) add-on marketing
1
6)
7) With databases containing current customer purchase history, the direct marketer can
7)
attempt to influence all of the following EXCEPT: A) the timing and amount of the next purchase B) the customer's decision to forward a message to a friend or colleague C) the rate of purchase D) repeat consumption or visits 8) To segment and target their audiences, direct marketers use a ________, a listing of
customers and/or potential customers. A) CRM C) cross/sell technique
8)
B) database D) catalogue
9) Which of the following statements about catalogues is NOT true?
9)
A) In some instances in the consumer market, the catalogue merchandise is available in
retail stores as well. B) Catalogues are now available on the Internet for both consumers and business-to-business customers. C) In some instances in the consumer market, the catalogue and retail divisions are treated as separate entities. D) Most catalogue companies now operate only in physical retail locations. 10) No other advertising medium can personalize the message as well as: A) magazines
B) newspapers
C) direct mail
10) D) television
11) Advertisers can measure the relative effectiveness of a direct marketing campaign
quickly by looking at the: A) cost per thousand (CPM) C) cost per order (CPO)
11)
B) net sales D) breakeven point
12) When she subscribed to a cooking magazine, Betty was offered the opportunity to buy a
12)
set of cookware, an electric can opener, and a coffee maker that were featured in the publication and selected by the magazine editors as the best value for the money. This is an example of: A) remarketing B) an unethical business practice C) cross-selling D) renewal marketing 13) For market segmentation and targeting, direct marketers rely most heavily on: A) survey responses
B) primary qualitative research
C) a database
D) census data
14) Which of the following is NOT an example of direct response media? A) direct mail
B) telemarketing
C) interior transit boards
D) Internet
2
13)
14)
15) CRM stands for:
15)
A) customer relationship marketing
B) customer relationship management
C) Canadian relations management
D) customized relationship marketing
16) The National Geographic Society offers a variety of products to its subscribers through
direct marketing. This is an example of: A) membership-based marketing C) an unethical business practice
16)
B) cross-selling D) renewal marketing
17) What do Statistics Canada, Canada Post, Info Canada, and The Canadian Marketing
17)
Association all have in common? A) They are all sources of information for direct-marketing databases. B) They are all government agencies. C) They are all marketing research houses. D) They all have loyalty programs. 18) Which of the following is NOT true about direct-response TV?
18)
A) The process is always one-step; the consumer sees the product she likes and calls a
1-800 number to order. B) The television spots are also referred to as short-term programs. C) It encompasses direct-response TV spots, infomercials, and home shopping shows. D) Infomercials range from 3 to 60 minutes. 19) When a direct advertising medium is designed to directly obtain an order, the ________
approach is being used: A) two-step B) one-step
C) indirect
19)
D) direct
20) Direct marketing:
20)
A) seeks the same objectives as advertising, sales promotion, and personal selling
strategies B) is not a useful tool for a company that is using an integrated marketing communications plan C) can generate immediate behavioural response D) is one of the slowest growing forms of promotion in terms of dollar expenditures 21) In direct response advertising, the "direct response" sought is: A) sales
B) return on investment (ROI)
C) attitude change
D) awareness
3
21)
22) In a study comparing the communication effects of a one-minute ad, a 15-minute
22)
infomercial, a 30-minute infomercial, and a direct interactive experience with the product, researchers found: A) Specific targeting was not available with infomercials; hence they were much less effective than television advertising. B) Infomercials were deemed to be too long and one-minute ads provided the best results. C) Infomercials provided a similar cognitive and emotional experience as a direct interaction with the brand. D) Because television is such a passive medium, respondents suggested that an infomercial's message tended to get lost in the "noise". 23) Which of the following describes an advantage that an advertiser using direct marketing
23)
is likely to enjoy? A) limited segmentation capabilities B) difficulty in measuring effectiveness C) high overall costs relative to sales D) less planning time required as compared to other forms of media use 24) Which of the following statements about direct marketing is NOT true?
24)
A) Direct marketing is only used when the identity of the receiver is known. B) Direct marketing is effective in targeting competitors' customers. C) Direct marketing is especially useful to target current customers. D) Direct marketing can generate trial among prospects. 25) All of the following statements about direct e-mail are true EXCEPT:
25)
A) It is basically an electronic version of regular mail. B) Consumers can opt to have specific types of e-mail sent to them. C) It is difficult to finely target the recipients. D) Permission-based e-mail is essentially the opposite of spam. 26) The growth of electronic communication has given marketers the ability to capture: A) consumers' email addresses and social media identification B) monetary transactions between the consumer and the marketer C) hackers and spammers D) private information not previously available
4
26)
27) When Melissa purchased a Maytag dryer, she was given a warranty card to fill out and
27)
return to the manufacturer. The warranty card serves two purposes. The first is to protect the consumer in case the dryer operates faultily within the first year of ownership. The second purpose is to: A) create a database for Maytag B) provide information for Statistics Canada C) establish a two-step marketing relationship between Maytag and Melissa D) There is no second purpose; the warranty is simply a service offered by Maytag. 28) When the University of Western Ontario calls its alumni and asks them to make
28)
contributions to pay for the remodelling of Alumni House, it is an example of the combining of direct marketing with: A) public relations B) personal selling C) a trade promotion D) advertising 29) The aim of ________ is to establish and maintain a relationship with one's customers
29)
through personalized communication and customized product/service offerings. A) customer relationship management B) customer relationship marketing C) customized business relationships D) transactional marketing 30) Every time Beth buys a book at Chapters, she presents her Chapters card, and the sales
30)
associate enters her purchase in a database. When she has purchased five books at regular price, she is sent a coupon for a free book to be picked out on her next visit to the store. This is an example of a: A) customer rewards contest B) loyalty program C) bonus program D) subsidized program 31) This phenomenon describes when consumers earn points and then realize they are close
31)
to achieving a reward level, so they make additional purchases to achieve it: A) the personalized marketing mechanism B) the rewarded-behaviour mechanism C) the last-minute accelerator mechanism D) the points-pressure mechanism 32) When databases are used to identify the most relevant profile variables to ensure the
32)
highest response rate possible among unknown receivers, the marketer is most likely going to: A) consult an in-house list B) use sweeps marketing C) send to previous responders D) send unaddressed direct mail 33) On average, each Canadian is a member of about ________ loyalty programs. A) seven
B) eleven
C) twenty
5
D) four
33)
34) Which of the following is NOT a finding of Canada Post research about direct mail?
34)
A) Direct mail messages contribute to ad recall. B) Direct mail ads have a short life span in the home. C) Consumers are curious to find out what is in their mailbox. D) A high percentage of consumers read their mail the same day they receive it. 35) An ad for pet health insurance contains both a toll-free number to call and a website to
35)
visit for more information. This ad is an example of the combining of direct marketing with: A) consumer promotion B) personal selling C) advertising D) public relations 36) Database marketing is criticized because it is:
36)
A) unmonitored and uncontrolled by any internal or external forces B) really unnecessary if the advertiser has properly targeted their marketing efforts C) an invasion of privacy D) still a largely unsophisticated process 37) Air Miles currently offers consumers the option of using points collected as cash when
37)
making purchases at a point of sale: A) in order to enhance the rewarded-behaviour mechanism. B) because forcing the collection of points in order to achieve non-monetary rewards did not effectively build brand equity among the partners. C) in order to lessen the time delay associated with collecting points for big-ticket items. D) because some of the partners would rather give out cash than merchandise. 38) A typical objective for direct marketing is a response rate of:
38)
A) 25 percent B) 10 percent C) 2 to 3 percent D) the same as the response for an in-store coupon 39) All of the following are advantages of direct marketing EXCEPT: A) ability to personalize
B) segmentation capabilities
C) creative flexibility
D) image factors
40) Direct marketing lets the advertiser reach a large number of people and reduces or
eliminates waste coverage through its strength of: A) flexibility. B) segmentation capabilities. C) target audience coverage. D) frequency.
6
39)
40)
41) Databases are used in all of these ways EXCEPT:
41)
A) to pre-determine purchase intention B) to improve the selection of market segments C) to assist in the stimulation of repeat purchases D) with CRM programs 42) Which effectiveness measure is most commonly employed in direct marketing? A) cost per thousand (CPM)
B) cost per man-hour (CPMH)
C) sales per database name (SDN)
D) cost per order (CPO)
43) Shoppers Drug Mart gives customers Optimum cards, which allow customers to take
42)
43)
advantage of additional discounts on certain products and to be notified of special, customer-only sales. In addition, customers can accrue points each time they present their cards. These points can be used to purchase goods. Shoppers is using a: A) loyalty program B) self-liquidating promotion C) bonus program D) customer rewards contest 44) Information on Canada's privacy legislation that places limitations on what marketers can
44)
do with information stored in their databases can be found at: A) www.privcom.gc.ca B) www.canadaprivacy.gc.ca C) www.canadaleg.gc.ca D) www.promotions.gc.ca 45) A press conference called by the Maritime Museum of the Atlantic informed the public
45)
of the need for major repairs to prevent water damage to the museum's collection of primitive paintings. During the conference, the museum representative announced that each family in Halifax County and the neighbouring counties could expect to receive a donation envelope in the mail within the next few days. This is an example of the combining of direct marketing with: A) personal selling B) consumer promotion C) advertising D) public relations 46) ________ are a way of encouraging consumers to buy a company's products or services
46)
on a continual basis and to develop strong long-term relationships. A) Refunds and rebates B) Sweepstakes and contests C) Interactive websites D) Loyalty programs 47) The interactive use of advertising media to stimulate an immediate behaviour
modification is called: A) consumer marketing C) telemarketing
B) direct marketing D) database marketing
7
47)
48) The announcer on the television commercial said, "Get your credit card and call now to
48)
order the 'Monster Ballads of Rock & Roll' CD." This is an example of the ________ direct marketing approach. A) two-step B) primary C) one-step D) secondary 49) Which off the following is NOT related to telemarketing?
49)
A) call centre management B) inbound and outbound calling C) potential for fraud and deception D) negotiated purchase of broadcast time 50) Cookware, music CDs, and exercise videos are being advertised on television for
50)
purchase by calling a toll-free telephone number. Viewers are instructed to have their credit cards handy when they call to place the order. This form of direct marketing is referred to as: A) the one-step approach B) support marketing C) the two-step approach D) telemarketing 51) Functional satisfaction with loyalty programs is strongly associated with each of the
51)
following EXCEPT: A) ability to reach desired reward levels in a timely manner B) amount of reward "points" accumulated per $1 spent C) proximity of the store to the consumer's home D) appeal of the rewards or benefits 52) In direct marketing situations, when it is necessary to screen or qualify potential buyers,
52)
it is advisable to use: A) the one-step approach B) Canada Post's data on direct marketing purchasers C) the two-step approach D) direct mail rather than telemarketing 53) The National Post calls its subscribers to tell them of a contest that they can enter to win
53)
a trip to Bermuda. This is an example of the combining of direct marketing with: A) public relations B) personal selling C) sales promotion D) advertising 54) A successful direct mail program relies on:
54)
A) the use of an external specialty agency for the development and execution of the
program B) the recreation of the in-store experience in order to fully engage the consumer C) a higher level of marketing dollars than a print campaign D) a database which may be a purchased mailing list from an external source
8
55) Which of the following companies employs a one-step approach to direct marketing?
55)
A) The Shopping Channel B) a magazine subscription service that sends an announcement of a forthcoming
contest C) a company asking if a household is interested in an estimate for a new pool D) an ad advising television viewers to watch their mailboxes for a way to earn free calling cards 56) Which of the following statements about direct e-mail is true?
56)
A) Studies show that the use of direct mail via e-mail messages has no corresponding
effect on visits to the retail location of the sender. B) Today's marketers use permission-based email instead of having to maintain a comprehensive website. C) The majority of research respondents suggest that branded content makes no impact on whether they forward a message. D) The chance of a consumer passing along a commercial message using email is quite high. 57) Loyalty programs achieve each of the following objectives EXCEPT:
57)
A) They help increase the dollar amount of goods purchased by light and medium
users. B) They encourage consumers to use their products or services on a continual basis. C) They preclude members from purchasing any other competitive brand. D) They assist in creating strong consumer relationships and loyalty. 58) Which of the following describes a disadvantage associated with direct marketing? A) inability to measure effectiveness
B) poor media image
C) high costs
D) lack of creative flexibility
9
58)
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 16 1) B 2) C 3) C 4) D 5) A 6) A 7) B 8) B 9) D 10) C 11) C 12) C 13) C 14) C 15) B 16) B 17) A 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) A 22) C 23) D 24) A 25) C 26) A 27) A 28) B 29) A 30) B 31) D 32) D 33) B 34) B 35) C 36) C 37) C 38) C 39) D 40) C 41) A 42) D 43) A 44) A 45) D 46) D 47) B 48) C 49) D 50) A 10
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 16 51) C 52) C 53) C 54) D 55) A 56) C 57) C 58) B
11
Chapter 17 Exam Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Each of the following is a limitation of SMS codes EXCEPT:
1)
A) The relatively low penetration of smart phones in Canada does not ensure that the
use of SMS advertising will deliver a favourable ROI to advertisers. B) Cell phone carriers are not all fully able to work with each type of code. C) There is a time delay for registration with the Canadian Wireless Telecommunications Association to protect consumers against spam. D) Marketers are concerned with not having the proper metrics with which to measure success. 2) Each of the following is a form of mobile advertising EXCEPT: A) display/sponsorship
B) short message service (SMS)
C) pay-per-view
D) search
3) The targeting that allows advertisers to adjust their brand messages depending upon
where the user is located is known as: A) contextual targeting C) environmental targeting
2)
3)
B) geographic targeting D) latitudinal targeting
4) Recent research into video ads on the Internet found that:
4)
A) Most video ads are 30 seconds long. B) Total ad impressions for mobile only advertising surpassed those achieved on
desktop/laptops only. C) Video streaming penetration has reached its maximum in Canada and is actually a little bit on the decline. D) The most ad impressions were achieved for ads shown on desktop/laptop only. 5) Internet media advertising is so pervasive that specialized recognition now happens in
5)
the form of which awards? A) Interactive Marketing Awards B) Canadian Marketing Association Interactive Awards of Excellence C) E-Promo Awards D) Webby Awards 6) Marketers use their websites to invite consumers to sign up for a newsletter, go to a retail
location, try a simulation, or participate in a game or promotion in order to achieve the objective of: A) creating awareness B) generating online sales C) building brand image D) facilitating interaction
1
6)
7) Mobile access to Internet media via smartphones hit ________ percent in 2015. A) 85
B) 50
C) 68
D) 77
8) Online directories such as Kijiji and Auto Trader have stolen a significant portion of ad
revenue as a direct substitution for: A) Yellow Pages ads. C) Google search ads.
7)
8)
B) Newspaper classifieds. D) Local radio ads.
9) Vehicles on the Internet where users can share video, photo images, and audio media are
called: A) podcasts. C) content communities.
9)
B) social networking sites. D) interactive activity zones.
10) Approximately ________ percent of all Canadians accessed Internet media from any
10)
location in 2015, with nearly universal access for those under ________ years of age. A) 80; 50 B) 98; 40 C) 92; 35 D) 86; 55 11) ________ reflect(s) the writings of an individual, a community, a political organization,
or a corporation. A) User-generated content C) Blogs
11)
B) Video overlays D) Promoted tweets
12) Extensive use of pictures, sounds, and animation in a website demonstrates ________. A) nonverbal information
B) reciprocity
C) responsiveness
D) interactivity
13) Research shows that ________ is the number one activity on the Internet for most
Canadians. A) banking online C) general Internet search
12)
13)
B) visiting social media D) sending or receiving email
14) Almost all of Google's revenue comes from selling advertisements associated with: A) banner ads.
B) retailers.
C) search keywords.
D) name brands.
15) Promotional planners consider social media to be a media type, just like television or
radio. Carrying that notion through would mean that social networking would be the ________, and Twitter would be an example of a ________. A) objective; social media site B) media vehicle; media strategy C) media class; media vehicle D) mobile strategy; tactic
2
14)
15)
16) This type of Internet ad accounted for one-third of total Internet media advertising
revenues in 2014: A) paid search ads C) display ads
16)
B) pay-for-click ads D) content marketing
17) Which of the following is true about cellphone apps?
17)
A) Apps act as ads since they generally carry brand identification and a brand
experience. B) Mobile apps do not appear to influence shopping behaviour. C) The banking industry has experienced the fastest app growth among smartphone users in Canada. D) The highest use of cellphone apps is for social networking. 18) The Lakeside Bistro places an ad on www.penticton.ca, a website directing consumers to
18)
interesting sites and services around Penticton, BC. This is an example of ________ targeting. A) behavioural B) contextual C) time of day D) psychographic 19) Which of the following is NOT one of the four broad communication objectives of a
website? A) disseminate information C) build brand image
19)
B) create awareness D) stimulate category purchase
20) ________ targeting is the practice of advertising on a particular Internet site based on its
content. A) Contextual C) Time of day
20)
B) Behavioural D) Subject matter
21) Which of the following is NOT an advantage associated with using the Internet?
21)
A) its ability to target very specific groups of individuals B) potential for creativity C) lack of clutter D) interactive capabilities of the medium 22) Loyal customers can be awarded with ________ such as ringtones, wallpapers,
emoticons, etc. A) digital treats C) promotional overlays
22)
B) contest overlays D) branded content
23) Each of the following is a social media class resulting from user-generated content
EXCEPT: A) podcasts C) collaborative projects
B) virtual game worlds D) blogs 3
23)
24) The most significant media trend in recent years is:
24)
A) video gaming. B) the incidence of multiple television sets in the majority of Canadian households. C) the consumer adoption of social media. D) the melding of sales promotion and advertising activities. 25) Air Miles sending permission-based text alerts customized by transaction activity to
25)
encourage shopping at affiliated sponsors is an example of: A) SMS advertising. B) digital partnership. C) cooperative advertising. D) mobile display advertising. 26) Which of the following statements about display advertising on the Internet is NOT true?
26)
A) Display ads are placed on virtually any Internet site, including social media and
within e-mail messages. B) While display advertising revenue has grown substantially, it is still nowhere near the revenues generated by magazine advertising. C) Canada's top advertisers put half of their display ad expenditures in social media. D) Internet display ads tend to look like the ads found in print media. 27) Banner ads:
27)
A) are mainly found at the top of the home page of Internet portal sites. B) have a link embedded allowing users to move to another digital location. C) cannot be measured for effectiveness, and this is the reason why advertisers are
moving to other forms of Internet advertising. D) are the reason why click rates in Canada are extremely high. 28) The ________ of the Internet make it possible to carry on one-to-one marketing with
28)
increased success in both the business and the consumer markets. A) interactive capabilities B) costs C) creativity D) media image 29) ________ is the process of improving the volume of traffic driven to one's site by a
29)
search engine through unpaid results as opposed to paid inclusions. A) Popularity detection B) Keyword targeting C) Search engine optimization D) Google AdSense 30) A substantial form of advertising on the Internet is ________, in which advertisers pay
30)
only when a consumer clicks on their ad or link from a search engine page. A) paid search B) content sponsorship C) banners D) pop-ups 31) Targeting consumers according to their website-surfing conduct is known as: A) contextual targeting
B) behavioural targeting
C) site-loyalty targeting
D) attitudinal targeting 4
31)
32) The Internet may not be the optimal medium for awareness in many situations due to its
limited ________. A) reach
B) frequency
C) recall
D) branding
33) As of 2014, ________ was the dominant provider of paid search advertising. A) Facebook
B) Microsoft
C) Yahoo
32)
33)
D) Google
34) Which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy for search success?
34)
A) Pay extra money for the search terms to increase the site's ranking. B) Embed keyword text in visuals on the company's Web page. C) Provide unique and valuable content to appeal to designers of other sites so they
will include a link on their site. D) Optimize customization through past search history. 35) Ad products such as promoted accounts, promoted tweets, and promoted trends are all
associated with which social media application? A) Twitter B) Foursquare C) Tumblr
35)
D) Facebook
36) In what form of social media advertising does the message from a customer during a
36)
performance of Cirque du Soleil act as a testimonial so that potential customers can virtually experience the spectacle? A) blog post B) social networking exchange C) promoted tweet D) promoted account 37) The majority of Instagram users are:
37)
A) women, aged 18-34 years
B) men, aged 35-50 years
C) women, aged 35-50 years
D) men, aged 18-34 years
38) Which of the following is NOT a way that companies are using video advertising on the
38)
Internet? A) Companies run a television spot and then direct consumers to their website in order to view it, or a sequel to it, again. B) Companies run the same spots they show on TV, using a hosting site such as YouTube. C) Companies create new video messages for the Internet. D) Companies generally run longer video ads, of two minutes or more, on hosted sites such as YouTube and others, because of the captive audiences found there. 39) At the website for iVillage.com, there is an ad that stretches across the top of the page for
Clinique cosmetics. If you click on the ad, it will take you to the Clinique website where you can purchase Clinique cosmetics. The Clinique ad that appears at the iVillage website is an example of a(n): A) banner B) sponsorship C) pop-up D) interstitial
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39)
40) Who is required to pay when a person retweets, replies, favourites, or clicks on a brand's
promoted tweet? A) the advertiser C) the consumer
40)
B) Twitter D) There is no cost to do these things.
41) In 2014, Internet media advertising revenue:
41)
A) reached $2.5 billion B) was about the same as total print advertising revenue C) reached $3.8 billion, almost as high as television ad spending D) surpassed television ad spending 42) YouTube channels host branded video messages, thus offering an organization a form of
________ media. A) owned
B) earned
C) social
D) consumption
43) A preliminary page that precedes the homepage of an Internet site is known as a(n): A) splash page.
B) interstitial.
C) sponsored link.
D) pop-up.
42)
44) Which of the following statements is true regarding behavioural targeting?
43)
44)
A) Research has determined that a consumer's leisure-oriented Internet behaviour is
more indicative of one's purchase patterns than their business-oriented behaviour. B) Clickstream data and Internet protocol information can help identify segments of potential buyers in order to direct ads specifically to them. C) There is a one-to-one correlation between a consumer's Internet surfing behaviour and their intention to purchase. D) Behaviour is not a critical variable when applying audience segmentation to Internet advertising. 45) One example of the use of ________ on the Internet is provided by Chrysler. Working
45)
with reporters, Chrysler developed a one-stop information source for the media. A) personal selling B) direct marketing C) public relations D) sales promotion 46) Which of the following is NOT a key question that marketers are asking in relation to
using Twitter for advertising? A) Why would someone be motivated to receive our Twitter feed? B) What message should be sent via Twitter? C) How frequently should the messages be sent? D) Is the consumer-generated content on our Twitter feed be something that we need to monitor?
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46)
47) How does Kijiji make money?
47)
A) Kijiji has yet to earn revenue. B) Kijiji sells ad space on its directory on a CPM basis. C) Consumers now have to pay a small amount to post their classified ad. D) Kijiji doesn't charge to post a classified ad, but takes a 2% commission on all sales. 48) ________ are ads that appear underneath the Web page and become visible only when
the user leaves the site. A) Interstitials
B) Pop-unders
C) Pop-ups
D) Cookies
49) A keyword-targeted advertising program using short text-only ads to maximize page
loading speed is called: A) AdSense
B) rich media
C) AdWords
48)
49)
D) interstitial
50) ________ is a medium that uses the Internet to distribute audio and video files for
50)
downloading to various portable handheld devices for learning or entertainment purposes. A) Digital video ads B) Podcasting C) Video on demand D) Paid search 51) A collaborative project which permits users to add, remove, or change text-based content
is known as: A) a wiki. C) a group think.
51)
B) a user-generated promotion. D) a tweet.
52) A website demonstrates ________ if it offers multiple opportunities for the consumer to
52)
act upon, such as links, buttons, or connections to other utilities like social media. A) responsiveness B) nonverbal information C) reciprocity D) stickiness 53) ________ are ads found on Internet sites such as Kijiji and Auto Trader, where
53)
consumers search for information when comparison shopping. A) Used goods advertising B) Pay-per-click ads C) Classified and directory ads D) Banner ads 54) The amount of time Canadians consumed Internet media attained just over ________
hours per week, compared to ________ hours for TV. A) 16; 24 B) 12; 20 C) 20; 29
D) 27; 34
55) TV broadcasters are developing apps to foster enhanced viewer experiences while
watching TV shows on their mobile devices. This relatively new phenomenon is referred to as: A) TV-to-mobile video viewing. B) mobile direct streaming. C) auxiliary advertising. D) second-screen experience. 7
54)
55)
56) ComScore 2015 data shows which type of Internet media having the most ad
impressions? A) social media sites C) news/information sites
56)
B) Web portals D) entertainment sites
57) Because a branded Instagram account further promotes the brand's image and extends the
57)
content of the brand's website, one might call it a form of ________ media. A) owned B) consumption C) social D) earned 58) A website's ________ is the extent to which someone involved in communication over
58)
the Internet perceives the communication to be reciprocal, responsive, speedy, and characterized by the use of nonverbal information. A) stickiness B) impact C) effectiveness D) interactivity 59) Facebook as a media vehicle is an attractive advertising opportunity for each of the
59)
following reasons EXCEPT: A) A company can place ads directly into the consumers' newsfeed or on the right-hand rail. B) Facebook allows for substantial segmentation precision. C) The newsfeed is cluttered with both ads and content from friends. D) Advertising on Facebook is a series of simple "point and click" steps. 60) Marketers use ________ to reward loyal customers with various types of points, badges,
60)
opportunities to play extended games and other incentives through: A) digital treats B) wikis and sales promotions C) electronic overlays D) virtually continuity programs 61) One of the newest and fastest growing forms of electronic advertising is: A) video advertising.
B) digital billboards.
C) sponsorships.
D) mobile advertising.
62) The Internet can be used for branding purposes: A) since there are many tools such as videos and animation that can create a
transformational experience for the consumer. B) because it is fairly simple to adapt this medium to branding and image-creating
strategies. C) as long as these efforts stand alone as a communication piece. D) with the use of consumer-generated content, which resonates more closely with the audience.
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61)
62)
63) Planning to direct display ads to any other Internet site relies on ________ to determine
63)
which sites would be appropriate. A) contextual targeting B) mobile direct streaming media C) results from second-screen experiences D) media planners 64) Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding time of day targeting?
64)
A) Time of day targeting allows advertisers to direct a message to consumers when they are consuming certain Internet media vehicles. B) Working people are accessing Internet media during the day for business purposes, primarily in the morning. C) Internet accessing declines during the afternoon and dinner time and then peaks again during the evening for leisure purposes. D) Recent Canadian data suggest that the biggest growth in Internet media use is evening access of news and information sites. 65) Which of the following is true about measuring the effectiveness of Internet media?
65)
A) Technical procedures for accurately reporting whether an ad impression has
occurred are in place. B) In order to address concerns about how to measure Internet media effectiveness, one advertiser took on the challenge on behalf of the rest of the industry. C) Industry representatives have agreed upon guidelines for disclosure of research methodology. D) A standardized method for determining the size of the audience has been developed. 66) Which of the following is NOT a social bookmarking site? A) Pinterest
B) Facebook
C) Reddit
66) D) Tumblr
67) Yesterday when Enrique checked his e-mail, he had an offer to buy software that would
67)
make it easier for him to file his income tax next year. This e-mail offer is an example of how the Internet and ________ can complement each other. A) direct marketing B) sales promotion C) personal selling D) public relations 68) A ________ is a Web-based publication consisting primarily of periodic articles. A) blog
B) sales promotion
C) social networking site
D) podcast
69) Virtual game world advertising is most closely aligned with which traditional media
vehicle? A) product placement C) billboards
B) cinema advertising D) public relations
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68)
69)
70) Which of the following is NOT one of the top four Internet media activities using a
smartphone? A) searching the Internet C) making an online purchase
70)
B) checking the weather D) accessing a map
71) ________ is/are newer computer software technology that permit(s) user interaction such
71)
as expansion of the ad, additional product description or movement that appears video-like. A) Pop-ups B) Secure sites C) Interstitials D) Rich media 72) While Annie waited for the Mendocino apparel site to download, a small ad encouraging
72)
her to check out the summer clothes at the Hudson's Bay website appeared on her computer screen. The Hudson's Bay ad is an example of: A) a pop-up B) push technology C) content sponsorship D) an interstitial 73) Which of the following statements about the Internet's objective of disseminating
73)
information is true? A) In business-to-business markets, having a website has become a necessity, especially for buyers to get detailed information about the seller's offerings. B) Consumer-generated content, as a means of disseminating information, suffers from lack of credibility. C) Due to privacy issues, certain levels of government have reduced their use of the Internet to provide citizens with information. D) Many consumer companies no longer use their websites as a means of communicating information about their products and services. They are turning instead to various forms of social media. 74) In terms of sales promotional tools such as contest entries and other incentives, Internet
74)
media: A) acts as the delivery or execution mechanism. B) is not very useful due to audience fragmentation. C) is a buffer between more credible branded content and short-term promotional hype. D) ensures continued use of the product beyond the promotional timing. 75) Procter & Gamble's website, Vocalpoint, provides moms access to information, products,
and samples and is a forum for feedback on new ideas and products. It was established to achieve the objective of: A) generating on-line sales. B) facilitating interaction. C) creating business-to-business opportunities. D) disseminating information.
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75)
76) Which of the following is true about banner ad click through rates?
76)
A) In Canada, the average click through rate is 10 percent. B) There is no difference in click through rates according to ad size. C) Click through rates are slightly higher for social media and mobile ads. D) The use of flash technology makes no difference in click through rates. 77) Advertisements that appear on the screen when someone is browsing on the Internet are
known as: A) pop-ups
B) banners
C) interstitials
77)
D) pop-unders
78) Blogs are a multifaceted brand communication tool, in that it provides all of the
78)
following opportunities EXCEPT: A) a friendly public relations face to the general public. B) paid media through ad placement within the blog. C) user-generated content allowing for only positive feedback, as the blogger monitors and controls added content. D) owned media akin to the brand's website. 79) The need for digital ad placement firms is supported by the fact that:
79)
A) celebrities are charging exorbitant rates to add their voice to a brand's social media
presence. B) specialized vehicles like blogs and YouTube channels are selling their advertising space far too cheaply to be effective. C) personal bloggers wield a great deal of influence over consumers when describing their brand experiences. D) the blogosphere is very fragmented, which makes it difficult to determine where to place one's ads. 80) The increased use of streaming video advertising messages is a direct result of:
80)
A) the decreased viewership of television shows across all age groups. B) the fact that young viewers are looking for more exciting and engaging content. C) the decreased readership of newspapers among young adults in Canada. D) the increased penetration of broadband into households. 81) Rating products, joining a brand's social network page, and commenting in brand blogs
are all part of this consumers' online brand-related activity (COBRA). A) contributing B) creating C) consuming D) critiquing
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81)
82) Which of the following statements about Instagram are NOT true?
82)
A) Many of the targeting features found with Facebook are also available on Instagram
since Facebook owns Instagram. B) The creative potential of sequencing images for owned and earned media is strong with Instagram. C) Instagram pushes ads through the newsfeed, with ads having the same look as the media content. D) Most Instagram use is on desktops and laptops, as display ads don't work well on the small screens of smartphones. 83) Much of the content on a branded Facebook page:
83)
A) is a form of advertising or another kind of marketing communication message B) mirrors the brand's website almost exactly C) contains images and comments contributed by consumers but controlled by the
advertiser D) is developed by the advertising agency 84) YouTube generates revenue through each of the following EXCEPT: A) standard banner display ads.
B) rich media ads.
C) in-video overlay ads.
D) viewing fees.
85) The most prominent form of advertising on podcasts at this time is: A) interstitials.
B) paid search.
C) sponsorship.
D) There is no advertising on podcasts.
86) A related communication to apps and SMS codes is the 2-dimensional barcode called
84)
85)
86)
a(n): A) quick response code.
B) 2-D SMS code.
C) Smart-code.
D) 2-dimensional mobile code.
87) Bloggers act similarly to journalists who feature product stories in traditional print
media. This gives them: A) access to free products and passes to events. B) the ability to charge whatever they wish for ad space within their blogs. C) source credibility with consumers. D) the space to write as much as they wish about a particular subject or experience.
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87)
88) Which of the following scenarios might lead one to consider sites like Facebook to be
88)
"earned" media? A) The brand develops a Facebook page with similar content to its branded website, in order to extend the brand's image. B) Ads are displayed on third-party Facebook pages. C) Consumers visit a branded Facebook page, "like" it, and further communicate their positive consumption experiences. D) Ads on Facebook pages are targeted according to the visitor's online surfing behaviour. 89) The most common form of display advertising on the Web is: A) interstitials
B) banner ads
C) pop-ups
89) D) sponsorships
90) Which of these has been cited as a disadvantage associated with using the Internet? A) poor reach
B) message tailoring
C) limited creativity
D) interactive capabilities
91) All of the following are results of the IAB task force formed to address issues
90)
91)
surrounding Internet effectiveness measures EXCEPT: A) Identified technical procedures for accurately reporting when an ad impression had occurred. B) Agreed upon guidelines for the disclosure of research methodology were put into place. C) Developed accepted procedures for auditing the data which are different from those of traditional major media. D) Metrics were developed to determine the size of the target audience. 92) Research has defined consumers' online brand-related activities (COBRAs) as being each
of the following EXCEPT: A) critiquing B) consuming
C) contributing
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D) creating
92)
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 17 1) A 2) C 3) B 4) D 5) D 6) D 7) D 8) B 9) C 10) C 11) C 12) A 13) D 14) C 15) C 16) C 17) A 18) B 19) D 20) A 21) C 22) A 23) A 24) C 25) A 26) B 27) B 28) A 29) C 30) A 31) B 32) A 33) D 34) B 35) A 36) C 37) A 38) D 39) A 40) A 41) D 42) A 43) A 44) B 45) C 46) D 47) B 48) B 49) C 50) B 14
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 17 51) A 52) C 53) C 54) C 55) D 56) A 57) A 58) D 59) C 60) D 61) D 62) A 63) A 64) D 65) D 66) B 67) A 68) A 69) A 70) C 71) D 72) D 73) A 74) A 75) B 76) C 77) A 78) C 79) D 80) D 81) A 82) D 83) A 84) D 85) C 86) A 87) C 88) C 89) B 90) A 91) C 92) A
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Chapter 18 Exam Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The ________ is a not-for-profit, self-regulatory industry body with a mandate to create
1)
and maintain community confidence in advertising. A) Competition Act B) CRTC C) Advertising Standards Canada D) Consumer protection Act 2) The belief that advertising equals ________ sees advertising as providing consumers
2)
with useful information, increasing their price sensitivity, and increasing competition in the market. A) competitive advantage B) information C) market power D) materialism 3) Which of the following statements can be used to refute the argument that advertising
3)
reduces the number of choices available to consumers? A) When a successful new product is introduced, competitors quickly follow and use advertising to inform consumers about their brand. B) Heavily advertised brands dominate the market in certain product categories such as soft drinks, beer, and cereal. C) Dominant brands can afford to spend more on advertising and that makes it difficult for smaller brands to compete against them. D) Advertising can be used to create and maintain brand loyalty for dominant brands. 4) The type of advertising appeal that has received the most criticism for being in poor taste
4)
is: A) humourous appeals used to make fun of people who are socially inept B) fear appeals used to sell shampoos and deodorants C) personal computer ads targeted at children D) ads using sex and/or nudity 5) The CRTC ensures that conventional TV and radio stations carry a maximum of
________ minutes of advertising per hour during the broadcast day. A) 8 B) 15 C) 5 D) There is no advertising time limit for conventional TV and radio stations.
1
5)
6) Which of the following statements describing how advertising portrays women is NOT
6)
the case? A) While sexism and stereotyping of women still exists, advertising's portrayal of women has improved in recent years. B) Many advertisers depict women in a diversity of roles since their place in society has changed in recent years. C) Advertising is often criticized for portraying women in strong leadership roles. D) Stereotypical portrayals of women show them as lacking intelligence and credibility. 7) The Advertising Standards Canada guidelines do not cover product evaluations and
7)
reviews found on the Internet because: A) the Internet is too new a medium to be included in guidelines crafted twenty years ago. B) there have not yet been any complaints against this type of communication. C) product reviews on websites and blogs are not considered advertising. D) the guidelines make certain concessions for more innovative media types. 8) Acquiring the skills needed to function in the marketplace is called the ________
process. A) needs-focus C) consumer education
8)
B) consumer socialization D) caveat emptor
9) Which of the following describes the use of sexual appeals in advertising?
9)
A) Sexual appeals are often criticized because they are not even relevant or appropriate
for the product being advertised. B) Sexual appeals are never criticized because they are demeaning to men. C) Networks have the right to scrutinize commercials carefully when it comes to sexually oriented advertising since they are similarly diligent with their programs. D) Sexual appeals are less often criticized for containing nudity or using suggestive dialogue as consumers become more used to these elements in movies and video games. 10) Which of the following is NOT an area from which complaints to the Standards Division
of the ASC arise? A) Consumer complaints B) Special interest group complaints C) Contravention of government guidelines D) Advertiser disputes
2
10)
11) Using economic censorship, applying pressure to limit the coverage of a controversial
11)
story that might reflect negatively on a company and trying to control the editorial content of magazines are all ways that: A) consumer advocates fight for the rights of the masses. B) media manipulates advertisers. C) media controls content on television. D) advertisers exert influence on the media. 12) Which one of the following statements about the Advertising Standards Canada is NOT
12)
true? A) The ASC (Advertising Standards Canada) is a not-for-profit, self-regulatory,
industry body with a mandate to create and maintain community confidence in advertising. B) Its Standards Division administers government-regulated codes. C) The ASC represents advertisers, media organizations, and advertising industry suppliers. D) Its Advertising Clearance Division previews advertisements in five industry categories, as well as ads directed toward children. 13) In the 1950s and 1960s, many auto shops gave away promotional calendars to customers.
13)
The calendars typically showed some buxom beauty that was scantily clothed and posed in some atypical position in or on an automobile. Critics of advertising today would call such calendars: A) offensive and in bad taste B) deceptive C) unfair D) asocial 14) Economists argue that advertising can have a negative effect on consumer choice by:
14)
A) creating brand monopolies B) adding to the cost of products and discouraging competition and market entry C) reducing the opportunities for new products to be introduced D) using market aggregation 15) Which of the following does NOT relate to the use of fear appeals?
15)
A) an ad depicting a radio about to commit suicide on the edge of a bathtub B) an ad exploiting the fear of social rejection for having bad breath C) a series of ads showing the gory consequences of poor safety regulations at work D) an ad for a luxury power boat with a gorgeous female model in a low-cut gown
draped over the front of the boat 16) The federal Competition Act addresses ________. A) advertising limits for TV commercials during the broadcast day B) false or misleading advertising C) Internet D) infomercials 3
16)
17) Recent ads showing men as dumb, goofy, or inept in the kitchen or around their children
17)
have been criticized under the Advertising Standards Council's clause regarding: A) sexual exploitation B) unacceptable depictions and portrayals C) accuracy and clarity D) price claims 18) Which of the following DOES NOT express a valid conclusion about the truthfulness of
18)
advertising? A) It is difficult to determine what constitutes untruthful or misleading advertising since deception can occur in subtle ways. B) National advertisers are likely to risk consumer trust and confidence by intentionally deceiving them. C) Most advertisers do not intentionally mislead or deceive consumers, but some will test the limits of various rules and regulations to gain a competitive advantage. D) One of the major complaints about advertising is that many ads are misleading. 19) Each of the following statements describes advertising that can be perceived as irritating
19)
or distasteful EXCEPT: A) Consumers tend to dislike ads for products they don't use or brands they don't buy. B) Ads using sexual appeals or nudity offend many consumers. C) Consumers can be offended by the mere fact that certain products such as contraceptives are even advertised. D) A study of prime time commercials found that consumers have become used to ads for personal care products, and they seldom perceive them as irritating or distasteful any more. 20) ________ are moral principles and values that govern the actions and decisions of an
individual or group. A) Regulations C) Guidelines
20)
B) Social criticisms D) Ethics
21) Which of the following media would be most vulnerable to influence and pressure from
advertisers on the type of stories the medium covers? A) a major newspaper such as The Globe and Mail B) a growing newspaper or magazine which receives a high amount of advertising from a particular industry C) a major television network such as CBC D) a major magazine such as Time or Maclean's
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21)
22) Critics of advertising claim that it can have a(n) ________ effect on consumer values by
22)
encouraging ________, which is a preoccupation with material things rather than intellectual or spiritual concerns. A) negative; cocooning B) positive; corporeality C) detrimental; stereotyping D) adverse; materialism 23) Defenders of advertising that argue that advertising is NOT a barrier to market entry
23)
contend that: A) large volumes of advertising are necessary to compete in many industries B) advertising is only one factor amongst many that contribute to the success of a product C) there is no relationship between intensity of advertising and market share D) there are economies of scale in advertising 24) The CRTC ensures that specialty services carry a maximum of ________ minutes of
24)
advertising per hour during the broadcast day. A) 5 B) 15 C) 12 D) There is no advertising time limit for specialty TV services. 25) Which of the following would NOT fall under the Competition Act?
25)
A) Triscuit showing misleading portrayals of package size and number of portions in a
box B) Xerox portraying women in non-leadership roles C) Mr. Clean making false claims of product performance D) Bell hiding mandatory fees in fine-print disclaimers 26) Procter & Gamble spends millions of dollars a year on advertising for its various
26)
consumer products and can make large media purchases at rates lower than its smaller competitors. This is an example of how a large advertiser can achieve a competitive advantage based on: A) economies of scale B) discrimination C) market aggrandizement D) differentiation 27) The consumer socialization process:
27)
A) explains why consumers will never completely abandon department store shopping
for Internet shopping B) explains how marketers engage in relationship marketing C) is the acquiring of skills needed to function in the marketplace D) refers to how consumers satisfy their need to belong
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28) Young children may be especially vulnerable to advertising for all of the following
28)
reasons EXCEPT: A) they often have trouble differentiating between commercials and programs B) their parents do not always perceive the selling intent of commercials C) they lack the experience and knowledge required to understand and evaluate persuasive messages D) they cannot distinguish between reality and fantasy 29) The mandate that allows the CRTC to preclude Canadian Super Bowl fans from seeing
29)
some of the U.S. ads broadcast during the big game is the issue of: A) advertising time limits. B) cross-border exchange. C) Canadian protectionism. D) signal substitution. 30) Critics of advertising argue that:
30)
A) advertising makes markets more competitive, which in turns requires more
advertising and more price competition B) consumers are only willing to purchase heavily advertised brands and thus will end up paying more for them C) monies spent on advertising is an expense that must be covered and is generally passed on to the consumer D) advertising makes consumers purchase products and services for irrational reasons 31) Which of the following principles is NOT one of the guidelines that a member of the
31)
Association of Canadian Advertisers should use in preparing and evaluating its ads? A) advertisers forego their right to freedom of speech in order to not offend or mislead consumers B) advertisers support a vibrant, competitive economy C) advertisers make an important contribution to the Canadian economy of culture D) advertisers must behave responsibly 32) According to those who believe that advertising does NOT have an adverse effect on
32)
consumer values, advertising: A) is solely accountable for the increase in materialism due to its nature and power B) is merely a reflection of society's tastes and values C) is a major determinant of society's taste and values D) cannot create needs but only exploit existing ones 33) Many advertising experts argue that what underlies the increased use of shock appeal is: A) it is a new type of appeal that consumers tend to react to. B) the pressure on marketers and their agencies to do whatever it takes to get their ads
noticed. C) actually, the reduction in clutter has made shock appeal less necessary. D) that sexual appeal is having less of an effect on audiences.
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33)
34) A situation where a company creates conditions that makes it difficult for other firms to
enter a market is known as: A) a barrier to entry C) economies of scale
34)
B) a market blockade D) market dominance
35) According to author and marketing theorist, Shelby Hunt, the purpose of all advertising
35)
is to: A) enhance brand image
B) change attitude
C) persuade
D) inform
36) Mattel advertised a Parisian Barbie doll, complete with chic outfit, a designer purse, a
36)
convertible sports car and a tiny Eiffel Tower. While the outfit was included with the doll, the ad failed to mention that the other accessories were sold separately. This false impression would fall under the jurisdiction of: A) the Association of Canadian Advertisers B) the Competition Act C) the CRTC D) Advertising Standards Canada 37) Critics of advertising aimed at children use all of the following arguments to explain why
37)
it is wrong EXCEPT: A) children lack an understanding of how advertising works and thus cannot effectively use cognitive defences against it B) children do not perceive the selling or persuasive intent of commercials C) advertising is a part of life, and children must learn to deal with it as part of the consumer socialization process D) preschool children cannot discriminate between commercials and television programs 38) Which area is NOT regulated by the CRTC (Canadian Radio-Television and
Telecommunications Commission)? A) Infomercials C) False or misleading ads
38)
B) Signal substitution D) Advertising time limits
39) ________ is advertising which praise the item to be sold with subjective opinions,
39)
superlatives, or exaggerations, stating no specific facts. A) Embellishment B) Misleading advertising A false claim C) D) Puffery 40) The CRTC is involved in the regulation of:
40)
A) alcohol and drugs
B) advertising time limits
C) misleading ads
D) false ads
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41) For which of the following products might one argue that advertising has created needs
rather than responded to them? A) automobiles B) designer jeans
C) canned soup
D) calculators
42) Which of the following ads would likely be considered irritating or distasteful to many
consumers? A) ads for online dating services C) ads for feminine hygiene products
41)
42)
B) infomercials for acne remedies D) ads for weight loss products
43) Which of the following expresses a valid conclusion about the truthfulness of
43)
advertising? A) Many critics of advertising do not believe that advertising can or should be informative. B) Many critics of advertising feel that advertising should include puffery or embellished messages. C) It can be difficult to determine if an ad is misleading consumers since deception is partly dependent on how a consumer perceives an advertising message. D) Even though most advertisers intend to deliberately mislead consumers, they often present only information that is favourable to their position. 44) What is the traditional defense for advertising's role in our economic system?
44)
A) Advertising leads to an increased standard of living. B) Advertising stimulates new product development. C) Advertising increases competition and prevents monopolies. D) Advertising provides useful information for buying decisions. 45) By creating needs rather than merely fulfilling them, by surrounding consumers with
45)
images of the good life, and by showing products as symbols of status and success, advertising can create: A) ethnocentricity B) informative ads C) materialism D) consumer socialization 46) Advertising Standards Canada gender portrayal guidelines pertain to each of the
following overall clauses EXCEPT: A) decision making C) violence
B) ageism D) sexuality
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46)
47) Defenders of advertising take issue with the argument that it should be limited to dealing
47)
with basic needs. One of their reasons is: A) It is natural to move from higher-order needs to basic ones. B) Consumers are free to choose the degree to which they attempt to satisfy their desires. C) Wise advertisers associate their products and services with lower-level needs like safety and food. D) In our society, most higher-level needs are already satisfied for most people. 48) The belief that advertising equals ________ reflects traditional economic thinking that
48)
views advertising as a way to change consumers' tastes, lower their sensitivity to price, and build brand loyalty among buyers of the advertised brand. A) competitive advantage B) economies of scale C) market power D) materialism 49) Many economists argue that advertising can have a detrimental effect on competition by:
49)
A) creating barriers to entry that results in less competition and higher prices B) lessening the importance of good budgeting strategies C) allowing unfair comparative advertising D) minimizing the importance of pricing and distribution strategy 50) According to the Consumer Protection Act of Quebec, it is illegal to direct commercial
advertising messages to persons younger than: A) 13 B) 6
C) 15
50)
D) 10
51) From an economic perspective, advertising might lower the cost of a product by:
51)
A) allowing firms to advertise at high levels along with competitors B) moving consumers to the consumer socialization stage of the buying process C) creating barriers to entry for less efficient firms D) making it possible for firms to realize economies of scale through expansion of
sales volume 52) The ________ approves all infomercials for any television station and network. A) Competition Act
B) Consumer Protection Act
C) Advertising Standards Canada
D) CRTC
53) A recent study suggests that minorities in Canadian advertising are ________. A) not represented at all
B) very overrepresented
C) under-represented
D) reflecting the Canadian population
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52)
53)
54) Which of the following is NOT a social criticism of advertising?
54)
A) Advertising is controls the media. B) Advertising makes consumers buy things they don't need. C) Advertising perpetuates stereotypes. D) Advertising increases product costs and reduces competition. 55) Which of the following is an argument that supports the charge that advertisers can and
55)
do control the media? A) Advertisers need the media more than the media needs any individual advertisers. B) The media are very dependent on advertising as the source of their income. C) There is no such argument; it is in the best self-interest of the media not to be influenced or controlled by the advertiser. D) Many media have a broad base of advertiser support and can afford to lose advertisers attempting to exert control over them. 56) Stereotypical portrayals of adult women in North American television and print
56)
advertising emphasize their: A) ability to achieve under any circumstances B) activism and autonomy C) power D) passivity and deference 57) The decision to advertise on "better-for-you" products to children stems directly from:
57)
A) criminal investigations into food product development. B) elementary schools deciding not to provide high-sugar snacks in their vending
machines and cafeterias. C) McDonald's being the first to offer fruit snacks as a substitute for french fries. D) the growing obesity problem among children. 58) For many years, Hershey's spent very little money on advertising, yet its chocolate bar
58)
was a successful brand. This success can be interpreted as evidence that: A) advertising is really not needed for a brand to be successful B) advertising increases product costs and prices C) product quality and image are important determinants of success D) luck plays a major role in the success of a product 59) Which of the following is NOT a clause contained in the Canadian Code of Advertising
Standards? A) subliminal tactics C) superstitions and fears
B) bait and switch D) testimonials
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59)
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 18 1) C 2) B 3) A 4) D 5) D 6) C 7) C 8) B 9) A 10) C 11) D 12) B 13) A 14) B 15) D 16) B 17) B 18) B 19) D 20) D 21) B 22) D 23) B 24) C 25) B 26) A 27) C 28) B 29) D 30) C 31) A 32) B 33) B 34) A 35) C 36) B 37) C 38) C 39) D 40) B 41) B 42) C 43) C 44) D 45) C 46) B 47) B 48) C 49) A 50) A 11
Answer Key Testname: CHAPTER 18 51) D 52) D 53) C 54) D 55) B 56) D 57) D 58) C 59) A
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