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Table of Contents Chapter 1 What Are the Origins of Brain and Behavior? Chapter 2 What Is the Nervous System’s Functional Anatomy? Chapter 3 What Are the Nervous System’sFunctional Units? Chapter 4 How Do Neurons Use Electrical Signals to Transmit Information? Chapter 5 How Do Neurons Communicate and Adapt? Chapter 6 How Do Drugs and Hormones Influence the Brain and Behavior? Chapter 7 How Do We Study the Brain’s Structures and Functions? Chapter 8 How Does the Nervous System Develop and Adapt? Chapter 9 How Do We Sense, Perceive, and See the World? Chapter 10 How Do We Hear, Speak, and Make Music? Chapter 11 How Does the Nervous System Respond to Stimulation and ProduceMovement? Chapter 12 What Causes Emotional and Motivated Behavior? Chapter 13 Why Do We Sleep and Dream? Chapter 14 How Do We Learn and Remember? Chapter 15 How Does the Brain Think? Chapter 16 What Happens When the Brain Misbehaves? Page 2
Chapter 1 – What are the origins of Brain and Behaviour? 1. Brain abnormalities can be related to: A) 500 disorders. B)
1000 disorders.
C)
1500 disorders.
D) more than 2,000 disorders.
2. All the nerve processes radiating out beyond the brain and spinal cord as well as all the neurons outside the brain and spinal cord constitute the: A) nervous system. B)
central nervous system.
C)
peripheral nervous system.
D) external nervous system.
3. Which is NOT part of the peripheral nervous system? A) sensory receptors in the skin B)
connections to motor neurons
C)
sensory and motor connections to internal organs (e.g., the stomach)
D) the spinal cord
4. The set of brain structures responsible for most of our unconscious behaviors is called: A) the cerebral hemisphere. B)
the brainstem.
C)
the cerebrum.
D) the cerebellum.
5. The postulation that we make subliminal movements of our larynx and muscles when we imagine was expounded by: A) D. O. Hebb. B)
Edmond Jacobson.
C)
Irenäus Eibl-Eibesfeldt.
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D) Fred Linge.
6. “Behavior consists of patterns in time” is a definition of behavior expounded by: A) D. O. Hebb. B)
Edmond Jacobson.
C)
Irenäus Eibl-Eibesfeldt.
D) Fred Linge.
7. Patterns in time can be made up of: A) movements. B)
thinking.
C)
both movements and thinking.
D) neither movements nor thinking.
8. Animals with smaller brains and simpler nervous systems have mostly behaviors, whereas animals with larger brains and more complex nervous systems have mostly behaviors. A) learned; inherited B)
inherited; learned
C)
innate; inherited
D) learned; innate
9. Crossbill birds have a beak that is designed to eat pine cones. If we trim the beak, the behavior disappears. This example illustrates: A) fixed behavior. B)
flexible behavior.
C)
learned behavior.
D) adaptive behavior.
10. The sucking response observed in newborn human infants is an example of a(n): A) learned response.
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B)
inherited response.
C)
flexible response.
D) adaptive response
11. Which statement is the MOST accurate? A) Nonhuman animals have mostly inherited behavior and are little influenced by learning. B) Humans share many inherited behaviors but are mostly influenced by learning. C) Unlike nonhuman animals, humans share very few inherited behaviors and are mostly influenced by learning. D) Unlike nonhuman animals, humans' behavior is totally learned.
12. The hypothesis that the psyche is responsible for behavior was expounded by: A) Charles Darwin. B)
René Descartes.
C)
Aristotle.
D) Socrates.
13. Mentalism is: A) the study of the mind. B)
mental imagery.
C)
the notion that the mind is responsible for behavior.
D) another word for mindfulness.
14. The is a nonmaterial entity that is responsible for intelligence, attention, awareness, and consciousness. A) brain B)
heart
C)
mind
D) conscience
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15. The notion that the mind resides in the pineal body comes from: A) Charles Darwin. B)
René Descartes.
C)
Aristotle.
D) Socrates.
16. According to the philosophy of dualism: A) the body influences the mind. B)
the pineal body is the mind.
C) the pineal body influences the body by directing fluids from the ventricles to the muscles. D) the pineal body is the mind and influences the body by directing fluids from the ventricles to the muscles.
17. Subsequent research indicated that the pineal body was responsible for than controlling human behavior. A) vision B)
problem solving
C)
movement
rather
D) biological rhythms
18. The difficulty in explaining how a nonmaterial mind can influence a material body is called: A) the mind problem. B)
the mind-body problem.
C)
the brain problem.
D) the psyche problem
19. Descartes's followers would argue that: A) the mind and the body are separate at birth. B)
humans and very few other animals have minds.
C)
young children do not have minds.
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D) the mentally ill have minds.
20. The notion that all behavior can be explained by the workings of the brain is commonly referred to as: A) psychology. B)
experimentalism.
C)
materialism.
D) dualism.
21. The notion that all living things are related was put forward by: A) Charles Darwin. B)
Alfred Russel Wallace.
C)
neither Charles Darwin nor Alfred Russel Wallace.
D) both Charles Darwin and Alfred Russel Wallace.
22. The notion that differential success in the reproduction of characteristics results from interactions between organisms and their environment is known as: A) natural selection. B)
genetic theory.
C)
biological theory.
D) innate behavior.
23. Images of blood flow in the brain in monkeys have demonstrated that: A) humans and monkeys use different brain areas for language. B)
humans and monkeys use the same brain areas for language.
C) monkeys show no brain activation for language because they cannot understand language. D) None of the answers is correct.
24. Individual variation in plants and animals was first explained by: A) Charles Darwin.
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B)
Gregor Mendel .
C)
neither Charles Darwin nor Gregor Mendel.
D) both Charles Darwin and Gregor Mendel.
25. The study of how genetic expression is related to the environment and experience is known as: A) genotyping. B)
phenotyping.
C)
epigenetics.
D) environmental genetics.
26. Neuroscientists study the nervous systems of other animals such as slugs, snails, fruit flies, rats and monkeys because: A) if all animals are related then all nervous systems are related and we can learn about the human brain by studying other animals. B) all animals' nervous systems are different, which means that we need to study each animal separately in order to understand how their specific nervous system works. C) the mind and the body are separate which means that we need to study a variety of different animals to see how their minds work. D) None of the answers is correct.
27. Inherited behavior: A) is demonstrated only by animal instincts. B)
includes emotional expressions in humans.
C)
cannot include emotional expressions in humans because the behavior is learned.
D) includes emotional expression in animals but not in humans.
28. Of the 100,000 people in the United States who may become comatose in a given year, how many recover consciousness? A) 5 percent B)
20 percent
C)
30 percent
D) 50 percent
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29. A person who can display some rudimentary behaviors such as smiling or blinking but is otherwise not conscious is described as being: A) in a coma. B)
in a persistent vegetative state.
C)
in a minimally conscious state.
D) brain dead.
30. In a study with a patient in a minimally conscious state, Schiff and colleagues found that led to dramatic improvements in the patient's behavior. A) deep brain stimulation B)
reading to the patient
C)
music therapy
D) gene therapy
31. The first humanlike brain evolved: A) 700 million years ago. B)
250 million years ago.
C)
6 million years ago.
D) 100,000 to 200,000 years ago.
32. The first brain evolved approximately: A) 100,000 to 200,000 years ago. B) 3 million to 4 million years ago. C) 250 million years ago. D) 700 million years ago.
33. Humans are of the order A) mammals; primates B)
primates; mammals
C)
primates; great apes
and the family
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.
D) great apes; primates
34. Which sequences is correct? A) phylum, order, class, family, genus, species B)
phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
C)
phylum, class, family, order, genus, species
D) phylum, family, class, order, genus, species
35. The branch of biology that is concerned with naming and classifying species is: A) genetics. B)
embryology.
C)
taxonomy.
D) evolutionary biology.
36. Humans, monkeys, Neanderthals, and chimpanzees—all belong to the same: A) species. B)
genus.
C)
family.
D) order.
37. Humans, tigers, dogs, and monkeys are all part of the same: A) species. B)
class.
C)
genus.
D) family.
38. Insects have: A) only nerve nets. B)
only a few ganglia.
C)
enough ganglia to be called a brain.
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D) the same brain organization as a chordate.
39. The correct order of organisms from the least complex to the most complex nervous system is: A) flatworm, frog, squid, sea anemone. B)
sea anemone, frog, flatworm, squid.
C)
sea anemone, flatworm, squid, frog.
D) frog, sea anemone, squid, flatworm.
40. Animals with both a brain and a spinal cord are called: A) mammals. B)
eukaryotic.
C)
primates.
D) chordates.
41.
Humans are unique in that they have the: A) largest brain of any animal species. B)
most complex spinal cord of any animal species.
C)
largest brain to body size ratio of any living animal.
D) most advanced nervous system of any living animal.
42. More advanced nervous systems often have similar structures on the left and right sides (e.g., the left and right hemispheres of the brain). This concept is known as: A) mirroring. B)
bilateral symmetry.
C)
bilateral structures.
D) mirror symmetry.
43. A notochord is a: A) spinal cord and a brain. B)
longitudinal flexible rod in the back.
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C)
segmented spine.
D) segmented spine and spinal cord.
44. Chordates are any organisms that have: A) a brain. B)
a spinal cord.
C)
a peripheral nervous system.
D) a brain and a spinal cord.
45. The correct order of the evolution of nervous systems from simple to complex is: A) nerve net, segmentation, ganglia, spinal cord, brain. B)
spinal cord, nerve net, brain, ganglia, segmentation.
C)
brain, spinal cord, nerve net, segmentation, ganglia.
D) ganglia, nerve net, segmentation, brain, spinal cord.
46. Other than humans, which chordate has the largest forebrain? A) reptiles B)
amphibians
C)
birds
D) bony fish
47. Increased brain size and increased folding are most prominent in which chordate species? A) dolphins B)
primates
C)
neither primates nor dolphins
D) both primates and dolphins
48. The primate order contains approximately: A) 275 species.
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B)
375 species.
C)
475 species.
D) 575 species.
49. Humans and chimpanzees shared a common ancestor approximately: A) 2–4 million years ago. B)
3–6 million years ago.
C)
5–10 million years ago.
D) 10-15 million years ago.
50. Humans are most closely related to: A) gibbons. B)
orangutans.
C)
chimpanzees.
D) gorillas.
51. The first primate to walk upright similar to humans was: A) Homo erectus. B)
Homo habilis.
C)
Neanderthals.
D) Australopithecus.
52. The correct order of these early hominids from smallest to largest brain size is: A) Homo erectus, Homo habilis, Homo neanderthalensis. B)
Homo habilis, Homo erectus, Homo neanderthalensis.
C)
Homo neanderthalensis, Homo habilis, Homo erectus.
D) Homo habilis, Homo neanderthalensis, Homo erectus.
53. The oldest fossils that have been identified as human are approximately: A) 5 million years old.
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B)
200,000 years old.
C)
2 million years old.
D) 1 million years old.
54. Which of our human ancestors had the largest brain size? A) Australopithecus B)
Neanderthals
C)
Homo habilis
D) Homo erectus
55. Tools are associated with: A) Homo habilis. B)
Homo erectus.
C)
Homo sapiens.
D) All of the answers are correct.
56. Modern humans appeared approximately: A) 50,000 years ago. B)
200,000 years ago.
C)
100,000 years ago.
D) 1 million years ago.
57. Homo sapiens coexisted with: A) Homo erectus. B)
Homo habilis.
C)
Neanderthals.
D) Australopithecus.
58. Which sequences is correct? A) Homo habilis, Homo erectus, Homo sapiens
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B)
Homo erectus, Homo habilis, Homo sapiens
C)
Homo habilis, Homo sapiens, Homo erectus
D) Homo erectus, Homo sapiens, Homo habilis
59. Modern Europeans may have acquired genes that helped them adapt to the cold and absorb more vitamin D through interbreeding with: A) Homo habilis. B)
Homo erectus.
C)
Neanderthals.
D) Australopithecus.
60. The idea that species exhibiting more complex behaviors will possess relatively larger brains is summed up by: A) the principle of proper mass. B)
encephalization quotient.
C)
the principle of mass action.
D) relativization.
61. The encephalization quotient is determined by: A) measuring the size of an animal's brain. B)
measuring the weight of an animal's brain.
C)
relating actual brain size to expected brain size.
D) comparing the brain size of different species with one another.
62. Which living animal has an encephalization quotient that is closest to modern humans? A) Chimpanzee B)
Elephant
C)
Blue whale
D) Dolphin
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63. Which has the largest encephalization quotient? A) Monkey B)
Chimpanzee
C)
Homo habilis
D) Dolphin
64. The human cerebellum contains about A) half B)
one third
C)
four times
as many neurons as the cerebrum.
D) twice
65. Although the elephant brain contains many more neurons than the human brain, most of these additional neurons are located in the elephant's: A) cerebellum. B)
cerebrum.
C)
spinal cord.
D) brain stem.
66. Climate change may have placed pressure on apes to adapt to their environment. Specifically, apes that lived in climates may have begun to walk upright. A) drier B)
wetter
C)
colder
D) coastal
67. Dunbar proposed that group sizes of size in primates. A) about 50 B)
about 100
C)
about 150
tend to be correlated with increased brain
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D) more than 200
68. Vegetation eaters have: A) larger brains than fruit eaters. B)
smaller brains than fruit eaters.
C)
greater social skills than fruit eaters.
D) larger brains and greater social skills than fruit eaters.
69. Eating fruit favors a larger brain because it: A) requires good sensory skills. B)
requires good motor skills.
C)
requires good memory skills.
D) All of the answers are correct.
70. Fruit-eating primates: A) have a smaller brain than vegetation eaters. B)
eat more glucose and thus have a larger brain than vegetation eaters.
C)
forage more than vegetation eaters and thus have a larger brain.
D) None of the answers is correct.
71. Howler monkeys have smaller brains than equally sized spider monkeys. This is thought to stem from the fact that: A) howler monkeys eat more fruit than spider monkeys. B)
howler monkeys eat less fruit than spider monkeys.
C)
howler monkeys eat less meat than spider monkeys.
D) howler monkeys live in larger social groups than spider monkeys.
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72. You have discovered a new breed of monkey in the jungles of South America. The diet of these monkeys appears to consist mainly of fruit. Based on what you know about evolution and other fruit-eating monkeys, which statement is likely to apply to this newly discovered breed of monkey? A) They will have color vision. B)
They will have relatively larger brains (with respect to body size).
C)
They will have larger social groups.
D) All of the answers are correct.
73. How much of the body's resources does the brain use? A) 20 percent B)
50 percent
C)
10 percent
D) 80 percent
74. Humans are classed as: A) fruit eaters. B)
vegetation eaters.
C)
both fruit and vegetation eaters.
D) a separate category from vegetation and fruit eaters.
75.
allowed humans to maximize caloric gain and spend less time foraging. A) Living in larger social groups B)
Cooking food
C)
Eating vegetation
D) All of the answers are correct.
76. The radiator hypothesis is a theory relating to: A) cooling of the brain by blood flow. B)
cooling of the brain by cerebral spinal fluid.
C)
cooling of the brain by blood flow and cerebral spinal fluid.
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D) None of the answers is correct.
77. Compared with Australopithecus skulls, human skulls contain holes through which blood vessels could pass. This would have led to: A) better brain cooling. B)
increased brain size.
C)
changes in diet.
D) both better brain cooling and increased brain size.
78. Stedman and colleagues argue that size reductions in facial muscles and facial bones in early hominids may have led to: A) changes in diet. B)
changes in mating patterns.
C)
changes in hunting strategies.
D) None of the answers is correct.
79. Our small face, vaulted cranium, upright mobility, and distribution of hair are features that link us with juvenile chimps. This illustrates: A) natural selection. B)
neoteny.
C)
selective dominant traits.
D) selective environmental influences.
80. One of the benefits of neoteny is that it allows: A) time for more brain cells to be produced. B)
greater genetic diversity.
C)
greater variety in diet.
D) None of the answers is correct.
81. Brain size is correlated with: A) plasticity.
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B)
body size.
C)
nutrition.
D) All of the answers are correct.
82. If one person has a brain weighing 1000 grams and another has a brain weighing 1500 grams, the difference most likely reflects: A) a major difference in intelligence. B)
water content.
C)
body size.
D) both water content and body size.
83. A behavior that is typical of all members of a species is called: A) instinct. B)
habit.
C)
member-typical behavior.
D) species-typical behavior.
84. Which of the following is NOT correlated with brain size? A) Health B)
Gender
C)
Age
D) Intelligence
85. You and your grandfather both take the same intelligence test and you score almost 20 points higher! This is an example of the and it is likely due to . A) Flynn effect; differences in education and/or life experiences B)
Flynn effect; the increasing size of the human brain over generations
C)
Spearman effect; increasing size of the human brain over generations
D) Spearman effect; differences in education and/or life experiences
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86. Comparing intelligence between species is difficult because we are typically reduced to comparing: A) differences in brain size. B)
differences in mating patterns.
C)
differences in species-typical behaviors.
D) None of the answers is correct.
87. Studies of the brains of very intelligent people (e.g., Albert Einstein) have revealed that intelligent people's brains: A) are usually larger than average. B)
are usually smaller than average.
C)
have no size relation to intelligence.
D) do not vary.
88.
is the complex learned behaviors passed on from one generation to another. A) Neoteny B)
Evolution
C)
Culture
D) Intelligence
89. The acquisition of culture by humans stems most directly from: A) an evolved ability for high mental flexibility. B)
our larger brain.
C)
improved diet.
D) the invention of smartphones.
90. The first artistic relics were made by modern humans approximately: A) 100,000 years ago. B)
55,000 years ago.
C)
30,000 years ago.
D) 10,000 years ago.
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91. Reading and writing were invented approximately: A) 25,000 years ago. B)
7000 years ago.
C)
12,000 years ago.
D) 3000 years ago.
92.
are ideas, behaviors, or styles that spread from person to person in a culture and can be influenced by brain structure. A) Phenotypes B)
Trends
C)
Memes
D) None of the answers is correct.
93. According to Mesoudi, language, music, mathematics, and art may have spread through cultures by way of: A) genetics. B)
learning.
C)
religion.
D) memes.
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Chapter 2 – What is the Nervous system’s functional anatomy? 1. The cerebellum contains A) 20%
of all the neurons in the adult human brain.
B) 50% C) 10% D) 80%
2. Neural agenesis refers to: A) an injury to a brain structure. B)
the degeneration of a structure.
C)
the failure of a structure to develop.
D) the creation of a brain structure.
3. If a tree falls in the forest, does it make a sound if no one is present? A) Yes, because sound is a physical phenomenon. B)
Yes, because if you record the noise and play it again later you will hear it.
C)
No, because sound is a fabrication of your brain.
D) This is an unanswerable philosophical question.
4. Phenotypic plasticity refers to: A) how an organism's genotype can be influenced by environmental factors. B)
how an organism's genetics can be influenced by its nervous system.
C)
the study of nervous system plasticity.
D) None of the answers is correct.
5. The CNS includes the , whereas the PNS includes the . A) brain and autonomic nervous system; spinal cord and somatic nervous system B)
spinal cord and autonomic nervous system; brain and somatic nervous system
C)
spinal cord and brain; autonomic nervous system and somatic nervous system
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D) somatic nervous system and brain; spinal cord and autonomic nervous system
6. The somatic nervous system includes the , whereas the autonomic nervous system includes the . A) sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions; cranial nerves and spinal nerves B)
brain and spinal cord; cranial nerves and spinal nerves
C)
sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions; brain and spinal cord
D) cranial nerves and spinal nerves; sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions
7. The subdivision of the nervous system that controls the gut is called the: A) somatic nervous system. B)
enteric nervous system.
C)
digestive nervous system.
D) autonomic nervous system.
8. The term afferent refers to A) incoming B)
outgoing
C)
different
signals.
D) similar
9. Efferent is to afferent as: A) brain is to spinal cord. B)
sensory is to motor.
C)
motor is to sensory.
D) incoming is to outgoing.
10. Afferent is to efferent as: A) out is to in. B)
top is to bottom.
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C)
in is to out.
D) bottom is to top.
11. Moving from superficial layers to deep layers, in what order are the meninges found? A) dura mater, arachnoid layer, pia mater B)
pia mater, arachnoid layer, dura mater
C)
dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid layer
D) pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid layer
12. Brain nomenclature can be very confusing. This is because: A) many structures have several names. B)
research on brain includes scientists of many nationalities and languages
C)
some structures were named by numbers.
D) All of the answers are correct.
13. Structures atop the brain or a structure within the brain are A) lateral. B)
ventral.
C)
medial.
D) dorsal.
14. The ventral portion of a structure is sometimes called: A) superior. B)
inferior.
C)
dorsal.
D) medial.
15. Rostral is to caudal as: A) superior is to inferior. B)
dorsal is to ventral.
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:
C)
medial is to lateral.
D) anterior is to posterior.
16. Coronal section is to horizontal section as: A) frontal view is to dorsal view. B)
medial view is to frontal view.
C)
frontal view is to medial view.
D) dorsal view is to medial view.
17. What best characterizes the composition of cerebrospinal fluid? A) sodium chloride and other salts B)
essential amino acids
C)
glucocorticoids
D) simple sugars and small lipids
18. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) flows between: A) the arachnoid layer and pia mater. B)
the dura mater and pia mater.
C)
the dura mater and arachnoid layer.
D) the superficial layer and deep layer.
19. The functions of the temporal lobes lie mainly in: A) decision making. B)
hearing, language, and music.
C)
sensory processing and directing movements toward objects.
D) vision.
20. Following a brain injury Greg has difficulty in understanding language and music. He is most likely to have suffered damage to his: A) frontal lobe.
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B)
temporal lobe.
C)
occipital lobe.
D) parietal lobe.
21. The frontal lobes are responsible for controlling: A) decision making. B)
hearing, language, and music.
C)
vision.
D) sensory processing and directing movements toward objects.
22. Following a brain injury Suzanne experiences difficulty with problem solving and decision making. She is most likely to have suffered an injury to her: A) parietal lobe. B)
occipital lobe.
C)
frontal lobe.
D) temporal lobe.
23. The parietal lobes primarily control: A) vision. B)
hearing, language, and music.
C)
decision making.
D) sensory processing and directing movements toward objects.
24. Following a recent stroke Jim experiences difficulty with directing movements toward objects. The stroke is most likely to have occurred in his: A) frontal lobe. B)
temporal lobe.
C)
occipital lobe.
D) parietal lobe.
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25. The occipital lobes are responsible for: A) sensory processing and directing movements toward objects. B)
decision making.
C)
visual processing.
D) hearing, language, and music.
26. During a recent car accident Allison suffered a brain injury that left her blind even though her eyes are working fine. She is most likely to have suffered damage to her: A) occipital lobe. B)
frontal lobe.
C)
temporal lobe.
D) parietal lobe.
27. Sulci are: A) found only in the cerebellum. B)
found only in the cerebrum.
C)
the cracks between the bumps on the brain.
D) the bumps on the surface of the brain.
28. Gyri are: A) bumps on the surface of the cortex. B)
cracks on the surface of the cortex.
C)
deformities on the surface of the cortex.
D) only found in the spinal cord.
29. Which of the following is NOT a symptom associated with meningitis? A) severe headache B)
stiff neck
C)
aggressiveness
D) convulsions
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30. Sulcus is to gyrus as: A) crack is to bump. B)
bump is to crack.
C)
ridge is to mountain.
D) crack is to crevasse.
31. The symptoms of the "sleeping sickness" that arose during World War I are caused by lesions to the: A) putamen. B)
globus pallidus.
C)
substantia nigra.
D) amygdala.
32. Which of the following arteries does NOT act as a major supplier to the cerebrum? A) anterior B)
superior
C)
middle
D) posterior
33. The artery that provides blood to the lateral, temporal, and frontal lobes is the cerebral artery. A) anterior B)
middle
C)
posterior
D) inferior
34. The artery that provides blood to the occipital lobes is the A) anterior B)
middle
C)
posterior
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cerebral artery.
D) inferior
35. A disruption of the blood supply to a brain region causes: A) meningitis. B)
encephalitis.
C)
a stroke.
D) cerebral agenesis.
36.
is mainly composed of cell bodies and capillaries. A) Reticular matter B)
Gray matter
C)
The corpus callosum
D) White matter
37.
is(are) mainly composed of nerve fibers with fatty coverings. A) Cerebral aqueducts B)
Ventricles
C)
White matter
D) Gray matter
38. CSF is made in: A) the pia mater. B)
the dura mater.
C)
the ventricles.
D) the arachnoid layer.
39. The large cavities inside the brain are known as: A) ventricles and are filled with CSF. B)
ventricles and are filled with blood.
C)
the arachnoid layer and are filled with CSF.
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D) the arachnoid layer and are filled with blood.
40. What is the most unlikely function of CSF? A) aiding cell transmission in the brain B)
acting as a shock absorber to the brain
C)
allowing certain compounds access
D) helping the brain excrete metabolic wastes from the brain
41. Ischemic stroke is caused by: A) a clot. B)
a broken blood vessel.
C)
meningitis.
D) encephalitis.
42. A hemorrhagic stroke is caused by: A) a blood clot. B)
a ruptured blood vessel.
C)
an embolism.
D) All of the answers are correct.
43. Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) is effective for treating: A) ischemic stroke. B)
hemorrhagic stroke.
C)
meningitis.
D) All of the answers are correct.
44. When observing a sagittal brain section at the midline, what is the prominent feature composed of white matter? A) corpus callosum B)
ventricles
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C)
cingulate cortex
D) hippocampus
45. Cutting the brain from front to back will give: A) a coronal view. B)
a frontal view.
C)
a horizontal view.
D) a sagittal view.
46. According to Descartes, the seat of the mind was located in the: A) frontal lobes. B)
thalamus.
C)
pineal gland.
D) temporal lobes.
47. The role of glial cells is primarily: A) to carry out information processing in the brain. B)
to send signals from one brain region to another.
C)
to modulate the activity of neurons.
D) to process sensory input.
48. CNS is to PNS as: A) neuron is to glia. B)
gray matter is to white matter.
C)
nerve is to tract.
D) tract is to nerve.
49. The prosencephalon is sometimes referred to as: A) the hindbrain. B)
the middle brain.
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C)
the auxiliary brain.
D) the front brain.
50. In the human brain the basal ganglia, limbic system, and olfactory bulbs are considered part of the: A) telencephalon. B)
metencephalon.
C)
diencephalon.
D) mesencephalon.
51. In the human brain the mesencephalon contains: A) the neocortex. B)
cerebellum.
C)
tectum and tegmentum.
D) medulla.
52. The thalamus and hypothalamus are considered part of the: A) myelencephalon. B)
telencephalon.
C)
metencephalon.
D) diencephalon.
53. Which of the following structures is NOT part of the metencephalon? A) the cerebellum B)
the pons
C)
the medulla
D) None of the answers is correct.
54. Which of the following is NOT part of the hindbrain? A) the pons
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B)
the tegmentum
C)
the reticular formation
D) the medulla oblongata
55. Awakening from sleep is a function of: A) the pons. B)
the medulla.
C)
the cerebellum.
D) the reticular formation.
56. The reticular formation is primarily made up of: A) gray matter only. B)
white matter only.
C)
gray matter and white matter.
D) None of the answers is correct.
57. The primary function of the cerebellum is: A) control of sleeping and waking. B)
control of movement.
C)
control of heart rate and respiration.
D) sensory processing.
58. Orienting responses (e.g., turning your head to locate the source of a sound) are controlled by: A) the pons. B)
the superior and inferior colliculi.
C)
the cerebellum.
D) the diencephalon.
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59. The red nucleus, substantia nigra, and periaqueductal gray matter are parts of the: A) tectum. B)
pons.
C)
tegmentum.
D) reticular formation.
60. Regulation of breathing and the cardiovascular system is primarily controlled by: A) the pons. B)
the reticular activating system.
C)
the medulla.
D) the cerebellum.
61. What are the functions of the superior and inferior colliculi respectively? A) auditory and visual B)
visual and auditory
C)
tactile and visual
D) visual and tactile
62. Which of the following is part of the tegmentum? A) the tectum B)
the substantia nigra
C)
the inferior colliculus
D) the superior colliculus
63. The hypothalamus is NOT primarily involved in: A) motor movements. B)
sleeping.
C)
emotional behavior.
D) sensory input.
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64. Sexual behavior is a primary function of: A) the thalamus. B)
the hypothalamus.
C)
the gyrus fornicutus.
D) the red nucleus.
65. The acts as a sensory relay station for signals arriving from sensory receptors that are being sent to the cortex. A) pituitary B)
pons
C)
hypothalamus
D) thalamus
66. Thalamus is to hypothalamus as: A) sensory input is to body maintenance. B)
body maintenance is to sensory input.
C)
sexual behavior is to sleeping.
D) feeding is to endocrine function.
67. The lateral geniculate nucleus deals with: A) touch. B)
hearing.
C)
olfaction.
D) vision.
68. The primary function of the thalamus is: A) transmission of sensory inputs to the cortex. B)
regulation of hormone function.
C)
regulation of sleeping and waking.
D) control of orienting responses.
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69. Which of the following is NOT part of the forebrain? A) the cortex B)
the tectum
C)
the basal ganglia
D) the limbic system
70. The basal ganglia primarily controls: A) decision making. B)
voluntary movement.
C)
learning and memory.
D) processing of sound.
71. Cognition is usually attributed to: A) the limbic cortex. B)
the cingulate cortex.
C)
the neocortex.
D) the parahippocampal cortex.
72. Deficits in processing basic visual information (e.g., luminance) are caused by damage to the: A) frontal lobe. B)
parietal lobe.
C)
occipital lobe.
D) temporal lobe.
73. A person who has trouble locating the source of stimulation on the skin most likely has damage to the: A) temporal lobe. B)
parietal lobe.
C)
occipital lobe.
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D) frontal lobe.
74. Trouble recognizing sounds is most commonly associated with damage to the: A) parietal lobe. B)
frontal lobe.
C)
occipital lobe.
D) temporal lobe.
75. Following a brain injury Steven has trouble organizing himself and has difficulty formulating plans to accomplish goals. Steven is most likely to have damaged his: A) frontal lobe. B)
temporal lobe.
C)
parietal lobe.
D) occipital lobe.
76. Six layers of gray matter on top of a layer of white matter would describe: A) the limbic cortex. B)
the basal ganglia.
C)
the neocortex.
D) the cingulate cortex.
77. Cortical regions: A) have the same density of cell layers. B)
have different specific chemical characteristics.
C)
when stained look the same across the various areas.
D) have very specific functions and rarely interrelate.
78. Motor output signals are sent through layer(s) A) V and VI B)
I to III
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of the cortex.
C)
IV
D) II
79. Integrative functions are processed by layer(s) A) V and VI B)
I to III
C)
IV
of the cortex.
D) All of the answers are correct.
80. Sensory inputs are transmitted through layer(s) A) I to III B)
V and VI
C)
IV
of the cortex.
D) All of the answers are correct.
81. Memory and emotion are processed by the: A) limbic system. B)
basal ganglia.
C)
thalamus.
D) parietal lobe.
82. The caudate nucleus and the putamen are part of the: A) basal ganglia. B)
limbic system.
C)
olfactory system.
D) hindbrain.
83. Parkinson disease and Tourette syndrome are neurological diseases associated with the: A) cerebellum. B)
frontal lobes.
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C)
basal ganglia.
D) thalamus.
84. The hippocampus and the amygdala are part of the: A) basal ganglia. B)
limbic system.
C)
olfactory system.
D) hindbrain.
85. The hippocampus and the cingulate cortex participate in performing A) digestive B)
problem solving
C)
sexual
D) memory
86. Which of the following structures is NOT part of the limbic system? A) hippocampus B)
amygdala
C)
cingulate cortex
D) putamen
87. Removal of the amygdala in cats leads to: A) changes in temperature regulation. B)
sleep disruption.
C)
emotional changes.
D) motor disruption.
88. There are A) 12 B)
pairs of cranial nerves.
24
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functions.
C)
16
D) 8
89. Sensory and motor signals from the head and neck travel through: A) lumbar sections of the spinal cord. B)
sacral portions of the spinal cord.
C)
the cranial nerves.
D) thoracic sections of the spinal cord.
90. Sensory and motor signals to the arms are sent through cord. A) sacral B)
thoracic
C)
lumbar
sections of the spinal
D) cervical
91. Sensory and motor signals from the head and neck are sent to spinal cord. A) thoracic B)
sacral
C)
lumbar
D) None of the answers is correct.
92. Dermatomes are associated with the: A) peripheral nervous system B)
spinal nervous system.
C)
autonomic nervous system.
D) cranial nervous system.
93. The law of Bell and Magendie states that the: A) dorsal spinal cord is motor and the ventral is sensory.
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sections of the
B)
medial spinal cord is motor and the lateral is sensory.
C)
dorsal spinal cord is sensory and the ventral is motor.
D) medial spinal cord is sensory and the lateral is motor.
94. Motor output from the spinal cord travels via the: A) dorsal spinal cord. B)
ventral spinal cord.
C)
medial spinal cord.
D) lateral spinal cord.
95. Sensory input to the spinal cord travels via the: A) dorsal spinal cord. B)
ventral spinal cord.
C)
medial spinal cord.
D) lateral spinal cord.
96. Increases in heart rate and inhibition of digestion are controlled by the: A) sympathetic nervous system. B)
parasympathetic nervous system.
C)
spinal nervous system.
D) cranial nervous system.
97. The nervous system works to help us "rest and digest," whereas the nervous system helps initiate fight-or-flight responses. A) sympathetic; parasympathetic B)
sympathetic; spinal
C)
parasympathetic; sympathetic
D) somatic; parasympathetic
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98. The vagus, facial, and oculomotor nerves are the primary components of the: A) cranial nervous system. B)
sympathetic nervous system.
C)
the parasympathetic nervous system.
D) spinal nervous system.
99. The contains a sheet of neurons lining the esophagus, stomach, small intestine, and colon. A) enteric nervous system (ENS) B)
autonomic nervous system (ANS)
C)
somatic nervous system (SNS)
D) central nervous system (CNS)
100.
Language control is usually situated in the: A) same place on both hemispheres. B)
different locations on each hemisphere.
C)
right hemisphere.
D) left hemisphere.
101.
The left hemisphere primarily controls functions on the A) contralateral B)
left
C)
ipsilateral
D) None of the answers is correct.
102.
Spatial navigation is controlled by A) the left hemisphere B)
both hemispheres
C)
the right hemisphere
of the brain.
D) None of the answers is correct.
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side of the body.
103.
The brain appears to have: A) mainly serial or hierarchical systems. B)
mainly parallel systems.
C)
a combination of serial and parallel systems.
D) parallel systems at lower levels and serial processing farther up.
104.
The notion of segregation of sensory and motor functions in the nervous system was postulated by: A) François Magendie and David Bell. B)
David Hubel.
C)
John Hughlings Jackson.
D) Nige Toretle.
105.
Memory seems to be located: A) in the cingulate gyrus. B)
in the hippocampus.
C)
throughout the brain.
D) primarily in the temporal lobes.
106.
Changes in balance between excitation and inhibition account for symptoms in: A) Tourette syndrome. B)
Parkinson disease.
C)
stroke.
D) both Tourette syndrome and Parkinson disease.
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Chapter 3 – What are the Nervous system’s functional units? 1.
is the technique that allows researchers to label different neurons by marking them with distinct colors. A) Straining B)
Defragmentation
C)
Brainbow
D) Bluetooth
2. Golgi staining makes use of microscope. A) cresyl violet B)
silver nitrate
C)
pen ink
to stain neurons so they can be viewed under a
D) squid ink
3. Based on their observations of stained neurons, Golgi put forward the whereas Cajal proposed the theory. A) nerve net; neuron B)
neuron; nerve net
C)
nerve net; glia
D) neuron; glia
4. The human central nervous system consists of approximately: A) 86 billion neurons. B)
1 trillion neurons.
C)
16 billion neurons.
D) 1 million neurons.
5. Neurons: A) all have the same number of dendrites. B)
usually have several axons.
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hypothesis,
C)
are all remarkably similar in size.
D) have only one axon.
6. The is the core region of the cell that contains the nucleus. A) dendrite B)
axon
C)
Golgi body
D) soma
7.
are branches extending out of a neuron's cell membrane that allow it to collect information from other cells. A) Somas B)
Axons
C)
Terminal buttons
D) Dendrites
8.
are single fibers that carry messages to other neurons. A) Dendrites B)
Axons
C)
Terminal buttons
D) Somas
9. The junction of the axon and the soma of a neuron is called: A) the neural bridge. B)
the axon hillock.
C)
the axon collateral.
D) a synapse.
10. The part of the axon that conveys information to other neurons is the: A) axon hillock.
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B)
terminal button.
C)
Golgi body.
D) soma.
11. What is the MOST common sequence of information flow through a neuron? A) nucleus, axon, axon hillock, end foot B)
dendrite, nucleus, axon hillock, axon
C)
dendrite, nucleus, axon, axon hillock
D) dendrite, teleodendria, nucleus, axon
12. What is the BEST analogy for a neuron? A) a multi-input computational device with many output wires B)
a multi-input computational device with one output wire
C)
a single-input computational device with many output wires
D) a single-input computational device with two output wires
13. Which of the following are NOT a type of bipolar neuron? A) retinal neurons B)
sensory neurons in the skin
C)
sensory neurons in muscle
D) motor neurons
14.
are also called association cells because they link up sensory and motor neurons. A) Interneurons B)
Golgi neurons
C)
Glial cells
D) Bipolar neurons
15.
are a special type of interneuron found in the cerebellum. A) Purkinje cells
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B)
Motor neurons
C)
Bipolar neurons
D) Glial cells
16.
The simplest neuron is a(n): A) somatosensory neuron. B)
motor neuron.
C)
bipolar neuron.
D) interneuron.
17. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a pyramidal cell? A) long axon B)
pyramid-shaped body
C)
two sets of dendrites
D) one set of dendrites
18. Interneurons: A) produce glial cells in the midbrain. B)
are responsible for producing myelin sheets.
C) are involved in processing sensory information and sending information to the motor neurons. D) are involved in processing motor feedback.
19. Stellate cells are: A) sensory neurons. B)
interneurons.
C)
motor neurons.
D) not affected by either sensory input or motor output.
20. Which of the following is NOT an interneuron? A) Purkinje cell
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B)
stellate cell
C)
pyramidal cell
D) Schwann cell
21. Glial cells are primarily responsible for: A) the reception of sensory information. B)
the support of neurons.
C)
the processing of information.
D) the production of actions or motor outputs.
22. For every neuron in the central nervous system there is (are) A) 1 B)
5
C)
10
glial cell(s).
D) 100
23. Some act as "glue" that helps bind neurons together. A) glial cells B)
pyramidal cells
C)
stellate cells
D) Purkinje cells
24. According to the text, which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Both some new neurons and many new glial cells are formed throughout life. B) Neither neurons nor glial cells continue to be formed after the first few years of life. C) Some new neurons are formed throughout life, but glial cells are not. D) Many new glial cells are formed throughout life, but new neurons are not.
25. Which of the following are responsible for producing cerebrospinal fluid? A) ependymal cells
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B)
microglia
C)
astrocytes
D) Schwann cells
26. Ependymal cells are associated with: A) the blood–brain barrier. B)
the production of cerebrospinal fluid.
C)
the production of myelin.
D) the healing of damaged tissue.
27. Hydrocephalus is usually caused by blockage at: A) the first ventricle. B)
the lateral ventricle.
C)
the third ventricle.
D) the fourth ventricle.
28.
are glial cells that have nutritive and supportive functions. A) Ependymal cells B)
Purkinje cells
C)
Telodendria
D) Astrocytes
29.
are tumors that begin in one part of the body and spread to another part of the body. A) Meningiomas B)
Gliomas
C)
Metastatic tumors
D) Gangliomas
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30.
are tumors that are often encapsulated and relatively easy to remove with surgery. A) Gliomas B)
Meningiomas
C)
Metastatic
D) Neuromas
31. The blood–brain barrier is made up of A) astrocytes B)
microglia
C)
Schwann cells
attached to neurons and blood vessels.
D) ependymal cells
32. Chris has been feeling very ill lately. He has had a severe headache for a week now and has been vomiting, has had trouble concentrating, and has started losing some of his vision. This morning he had a seizure. You tell Chris he should go to the hospital immediately because he probably has: A) the flu. B)
multiple sclerosis.
C)
a brain tumor.
D) Huntington disease.
33. The fluid in which the cell's internal structures are suspended is called: A) lysosome. B)
endoplasmic reticulum.
C)
cerebrospinal fluid.
D) intracellular fluid.
34. Astroglia are NOT associated with: A) expansion of blood vessels. B)
the blood–brain barrier.
C)
formation of scar tissue.
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D) removal of dead tissue.
35. When neurons are continuously firing, they need a constant supply of glucose and oxygen to continue operating. This is achieved via , which signal blood vessels to expand and increase blood flow. A) Schwann cells B)
ependymal cells
C)
astrocytes
D) microglia
36.
operate as part of the brain's immune system. A) Astrocytes B)
Microglia
C)
Oligodendroglia
D) Ependymal cells
37. Phagocytosis, or the breakdown of any foreign tissue or dead brain cells, is carried out by: A) astrocytes. B)
microglial cells.
C)
ependymal cells.
D) oligodendroglial cells.
38. Microglia originates in: A) the ventricles. B)
most areas of brain tissue.
C)
the blood.
D) the cerebrospinal fluid.
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39. Greg accidentally cuts his fingertip with a knife. The next day he notices that his fingertip seems numb to the touch. Greg is very concerned about this, but you tell him not to worry because nerves in the regenerate thanks to . A) central nervous system; oligodendroglial cells. B)
central nervous system; Schwann cells
C)
peripheral nervous system; Schwann cells
D) peripheral nervous system; oligodendroglial cells
40.
help generate myelin in the central nervous system, whereas myelin in the peripheral nervous system. A) Schwann cells; oligodendroglial cells B)
Astrocytes; Schwann cells
C)
Oligodendroglial cells; Schwann cells
help generate
D) Oligodendroglial cells; microglial cells
41. Myelin is produced by: A) oligodendroglia and Schwann cells. B)
oligodendroglia and microglia.
C)
astroglia and Schwann cells.
D) microglia and astroglia.
42. Myelin around axons: A) speeds up transmission of information. B)
slows down transmission as if by an insulator.
C) has no effect on speed of transmission but acts as a protective coat on the fragile axon. D) has no effect on speed of transmission but allows the cell access to nutrition.
43. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) In the central nervous system Schwann cells serve as guideposts to show axons where to terminate when regeneration occurs. B) In the peripheral nervous system Schwann cells serve as signposts to guide axons to their appropriate end points. C) Schwann cells cannot help damaged axons, because neither nervous system can
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regenerate. D) Schwann cells are present only in the developing organism and thus have nothing to do with regeneration.
44. Which three elements constitute more than 90% of a cell? A) oxygen, potassium, sodium B)
oxygen, hydrogen, sodium
C)
oxygen, hydrogen, carbon
D) carbon, hydrogen, sodium
45. The smallest quantity of an element that retains the properties of an element is a(n): A) neutron. B)
atom.
C)
proton.
D) electron.
46. The is a structure that gathers, stores, and releases energy. A) nucleus B)
endoplasmic reticulum
C)
mitochondrion
D) Golgi body
47. The contain(s) the chromosomes and genes of a cell. A) nucleus B)
Golgi body
C)
lysosomes
D) endoplasmic reticulum
48. The place in a cell where protein packages are wrapped and shipped is called: A) endoplasmic reticulum. B)
mitochondrion.
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C)
Golgi body.
D) lysosome.
49. Mitochondria and lysosomes are analogous to: A) power and transportation. B)
transportation and power.
C)
fence and power.
D) power and fence.
50.
are involved in transporting molecules and help give the cell its shape. A) Axons B)
Golgi bodies
C)
Endoplasmic reticulum
D) Tubules
51. Cell wastes are handled by: A) Golgi bodies. B)
lysosomes.
C)
microtubules.
D) endoplasmic reticulum.
52. Which of the following refers to layers of membrane where proteins are assembled? A) lysosomes B)
soma
C)
endoplasmic reticulum
D) mitochondria
53. The cell membrane is important because: A) it controls the amount of water in the cell. B)
it regulates the concentration of salts on two sides of the membrane.
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C) it controls the amount of water in the cell and regulates the concentration of salts on two sides of the membrane. D) it forms myelin sheaths in the cell.
54. The help(s) regulate the concentration of different ions inside and outside of the neuron. A) cell membrane B)
nuclear membrane
C)
microfilaments
D) lysosomes
55. All of the cells in our body are made from a book of blueprints contained in: A) growth cells in the pituitary gland, at the base of the brain. B)
glial cells surrounding the neurons.
C)
chromosomes of each individual cell.
D) pyramidal cells in the brain.
56. Membranes of a cell are made of special molecules called: A) cytosols. B)
phospholipids.
C)
hydrophilics.
D) hydrophobics.
57. The code for the synthesis of proteins is stored in: A) ribosomes. B)
genes.
C)
microtubules.
D) endoplasm.
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58. DNA is composed of four nucleotide bases. Which one of the following is NOT a nucleotide base? A) thymine B)
adenine
C)
histamine
D) cytosine
59. Human cells contain: A) 46 chromosomes. B)
23 chromosomes.
C)
92 chromosomes.
D) 13 chromosomes.
60. A chain of amino acids forms a: A) protein. B)
carboxyl group.
C)
peptide bond.
D) carbohydrate.
61. Proteins are assembled in: A) the endoplasmic reticulum. B)
Golgi bodies.
C)
the nucleus.
D) the cytosol.
62. A series of amino acids is called a: A) peptide bond. B)
polypeptide chain.
C)
carboxyl group.
D) side group.
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63. Humans utilize A) 100
different amino acids for the synthesis of proteins.
B) 20 C) 300 D) 4000
64. Golgi bodies package and ship them to other parts of the neuron via A) proteins; microtubules B)
waste materials; microtubules
C)
proteins; filaments
D) waste materials; lysosomes
65. Golgi bodies essentially act as A) an administrative office B)
a marketing department
C)
a postal service
for neurons.
D) a repair shop
66. An analogous term for receptor is: A) door. B)
hinge.
C)
keyhole.
D) doorknob.
67. Protein molecules can: A) act as a gate. B)
act as a pump.
C)
change shape.
D) All of the answers are correct.
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.
68. Some membrane channels can selectively allow in one type of ion (e.g., K+) but not others. The ability to restrict passage to only certain ions largely depends on: A) where on the membrane the channel is. B)
what type of neuron the channel is on.
C)
the size and shape of the channel.
D) the pigmentation of the channel.
69. Membrane channels are made up of: A) phospholipids. B)
proteins.
C)
microtubules.
D) carbohydrates.
70. Humans have approximately: A) 20,000 genes. B)
75,000 genes.
C) 125,000 genes. D) 175,000 genes.
71. Expressed genetic traits of an individual are referred to as their: A) genotype. B)
phenotype.
C)
wild type.
D) mutation.
72. The nucleotide sequence MOST common in a population is called the: A) homozygous allele. B)
heterozygous allele.
C)
wild-type allele.
D) mutant allele.
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73. The chromosome pair determines our sexual characteristics. A) fifteenth B)
twenty-first
C)
twenty-third
D) eighty-seventh
74.
means having two different alleles for the same trait. A) Homozygous B)
Omnizygous
C)
Mutated
D) Heterozygous
75.
means having two identical alleles for the same trait. A) Homozygous B)
Omnizygous
C)
Mutated
D) Heterozygous
76. In both an allele's own trait and that of the other allele in the gene pair are expressed completely. A) dominance B)
incomplete dominance
C)
codominance
D) cloning
77.
, caused by a genetic mutation, can help prevent malaria. A) Tay-Sachs disease B)
Sickle-cell anemia
C)
Trisomy 21
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D) Vasectomy
78. Abnormalities on chromosome A) 4 B)
17
C)
11
cause sickle-cell anemia.
D) 24
79. A child who has seizures, blindness, and degenerating motor and mental ability and who dies at an early age most likely has: A) Down syndrome. B)
Huntington disease.
C)
Tay-Sachs disease.
D) Parkinson disease.
80. The mutation that leads to Tay-Sachs disease is recessive. Therefore, if a child's parents both carry the recessive Tay-Sachs allele, the probability that the child will develop TaySachs disease is: A) 100 percent. B)
50 percent.
C)
25 percent.
D) 75 percent.
81. Because the gene that leads to Huntington disease is dominant, a child who has one parent with Huntington disease has a chance of developing the disorder. A) 50 percent B)
100 percent
C)
25 percent
D) 75 percent
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82. A patient who shows abnormal involuntary movements and loss of memory most likely has: A) Tay-Sachs disease. B)
Huntington disease.
C)
Alzheimer disease.
D) Down syndrome.
83. Ashley, a 36-year-old female, has recently had trouble controlling the movement of her arms. For example, sometimes her arms will flail about as if they are reaching for something even though she does not want them to. She has also started having memory problems and changes in her personality. Her father had similar symptoms in his thirties but died before he turned 40. You tell Ashley to go to the doctor because she MOST likely have: A) Parkinson disease. B)
Huntington disease.
C)
multiple sclerosis.
D) a brain tumor.
84. In Huntington disease, as the number of CAG repeats on the HTT (huntingtin) gene exceeds 40: A) the earlier in life symptoms will begin. B)
the less likely a person is to develop Huntington disease.
C)
the less severe the symptoms will be.
D) the more likely the chances of contracting rabies.
85. Down syndrome is caused by (an) extra A) twenty-third B)
fifth
C)
twenty-first
D) twenty-first and twenty-third
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chromosome(s).
86. Characteristic facial features, short stature, heart defects, and mental retardation are signs of: A) Alzheimer disease. B)
Tay-Sachs disease.
C)
Down syndrome.
D) Huntington disease.
87. The simplest way to select for specific genetic traits in animals (e.g., dogs) is through the use of: A) cloning. B)
selective breeding.
C)
transgenic techniques.
D) gene therapy.
88. Transgenic animals are produced by: A) knockout technology to inactivate a gene. B)
cloning.
C)
addition of a gene to the genome.
D) combining genes from different species.
89. If you are interested in testing the role of a specific gene in a disorder, you can eliminate the gene and observe the effects using: A) knockout technology. B)
knock-in technology.
C)
chimeric animals.
D) cloning.
90. If you want to study the role of a specific gene on a particular behavior, you could take the gene from one species and insert it into the genome of another species. This is: A) cloning. B)
knockout technology.
C)
knock-in technology.
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D) use of chimeric animals.
91. Chimeric animals are the result of: A) cloning. B)
spontaneous mutations.
C)
adding a gene to the genome.
D) combining genes from different species.
92. One method that could be used to produce new tissue or organs for transplant to the original donor is: A) cloning. B)
gene transfer.
C)
knock-in technique.
D) selective breeding.
93. The notion that two individuals with the exact same genes could end up developing differently is explained by: A) phenotypic plasticity. B)
codominance.
C)
genetic mutation.
D) recessive alleles.
94. The concordance rates in identical twins for diseases like Alzheimer, schizophrenia, and multiple sclerosis is: A) 100%. B) 25%. C) between 90% and 100%. D) between 30% and 60%.
95.
is the study of how the environment can influence the expression of genes. A) Transgenics
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B)
Genotyping
C)
Epigenetics
D) Prototyping
96. Which of the following is NOT one of the ways in which epigenetic mechanisms can influence the expression of a particular gene? A) ribosome modification B)
histone modification
C)
DNA modification
D) mRNA modification
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Chapter 4 – How do Neurons use electrical signals to transmit information? 1. Erica is an 18-year-old in her first year of university. One day while she was watching a video in class, Erica started to hear what she thought was music playing. Suddenly, she began shaking in her seat and fell to the floor. After the incident ended, one of her classmates helped her to the campus medical center, where she was later diagnosed as having: A) Huntington disease. B)
Parkinson disease.
C)
epilepsy.
D) myasthenia gravis.
2. Which of the following treatments is (are) used to help reduce epilepsy? A) medication B)
deep brain stimulation
C)
a high-fat, low-carbohydrate diet
D) All of the answers are correct.
3.
is a neurological disorder that is linked to periods of excessive neural synchrony. A) Epilepsy B)
Parkinson disease
C)
Multiple sclerosis
D) Stroke
4. René Descartes believed that A) neurons B)
phlegm
C)
the pineal gland
carried signals through the nervous system.
D) cerebrospinal fluid
5. The technique of electrical stimulation was first discovered by: A) Luigi Galvani. B)
René Descartes.
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C)
Gustave Fritsch and Edward Hitzig.
D) David Ferrier.
6. In a now-famous experiment, Fritsch and Hitzig discovered that electrical stimulation of the neocortex led to: A) hearing sounds. B)
movements.
C)
seizures.
D) seeing patterns.
7. Electricity is a flow of electrons from a body that contains a higher charge (more electrons) to a body that has a lower charge (fewer electrons). The body containing the higher electrical charge is called a: A) positive pole. B)
negative pole.
C)
dipole.
D) ground pole.
8. Another term for volts is: A) the difference in electrical potential between two poles. B)
current flow.
C)
amps.
D) current flow and amps.
9. Roberts Bartholow is remembered for being the first person to stimulate the brain of a: A) dog. B)
rabbit.
C)
human.
D) a dog and a rabbit.
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10. When Richard Caton first measured fluctuations on a voltmeter from electrodes placed on the scalp of a human subject, he was recording what we now call: A) the electroencephalogram. B)
the action potential.
C)
the magnetoencephalogram.
D) axonal conductance.
11. An electroencephalogram, or EEG, can theoretically be recorded by: A) a voltmeter. B)
a current meter.
C)
an amp meter.
D) either a voltmeter or a current meter.
12. The speed of information flow in a nerve was first measured by: A) Hermann von Helmholtz. B)
Wilder Penfield.
C)
Eduard Hitzig.
D) Gustave Fritsch.
13. Because the giant axons of the squid are nearly in diameter, they were used to record electrical activity in neurons for the first time. A) 1 centimeter B)
1 millimeter
C)
5 millimeters
D) 0.1 millimeter
14. Neurons in most animals, including humans, are approximately diameter. A) 0.001 to 0.02 B) 0.05 to 0.1 C) 0.5 to 0.7
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millimeter in
D) up to 1
15.
won the Nobel Prize in 1963 for being the first to describe the electrical activity of neurons. A) Young B)
von Helmholtz
C)
Hodgkin and Huxley
D) Watson and Crick
16. Recording from single neurons was made possible by the invention of: A) the electroencephalogram. B)
the oscilloscope.
C)
the microelectrode.
D) the oscilloscope and the microelectrode.
17. Microelectrodes can: A) be made from glass. B)
be made from wire.
C)
have a tip as small as 0.001 millimeter.
D) All of the answers are correct.
18. The patch technique involves: A) placing the tip of a microelectrode on an axon. B)
recording between two microelectrodes, one inside the axon and the other outside.
C)
placing the tip of the microelectrode in an axon and applying some back suction.
D) placing the tips of two microelectrodes in an axon and recording between them.
19. To measure the voltage across the cell membrane, you would normally: A) insert two electrodes into the axon and measure the voltage difference. B) place one electrode on the outer surface of an axon's membrane and another inside the axon and measure the voltage difference.
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C) place two electrodes on the outer surface of the axon's membrane and measure the voltage difference. D) All of the answers are correct.
20. When a substance moves from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration, it is an example of a(n): A) concentration gradient. B)
voltage gradient.
C)
ionic translocation.
D) None of the answers is correct.
21. The movement of ions from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is called: A) a concentration gradient. B)
a voltage gradient.
C)
diffusion.
D) ionic translocation.
22. The notion that opposites attract best describes: A) a concentration gradient. B)
a voltage gradient.
C)
diffusion.
D) All of the answers are correct.
23. If a small amount of dye is placed in a beaker of water, it will flow away from the initial point of contact. The ensuing process illustrates: A) diffusion. B)
concentration.
C)
charge.
D) electrostatic pressure.
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24. Channels in the cell membrane are formed by: A) sodium ions. B)
potassium ions.
C)
protein molecules.
D) lipids.
25. The neuronal membrane is best described as through. A) impermeable; no ions
such that
B)
impermeable; sodium
C)
semipermeable; sodium (Na+) and calcium (Ca+)
is (are) able to pass
D) semipermeable; potassium (K+) and chloride (Cl–)
26. The resting potential: A) is –70 mV in all species. B)
can vary from –40 mV to –90 mV within a species.
C)
can vary from –40 mV to –90 mV between species.
D) None of the answers is correct.
27. At rest, the concentrations of are higher inside of a neuron, whereas the concentrations of are higher outside of a neuron. A) potassium (K+); sodium (Na+) B)
sodium (Na+); potassium (K+)
C)
potassium (K+); chloride (Cl–)
D) potassium (K+); anions (A–)
28. Which of the following is NOT true? A) The cell membrane is semipermeable, so it keeps in large negatively charged protein molecules. B) The membrane keeps out Na+ and allows K+ and Cl– to pass more freely. C) The membrane has a sodium–potassium pump that removes potassium from inside the cell and replaces it with sodium.
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D) The summed charges of the unequally distributed ions leave the inside of the membrane at –70 mV relative to the outside. This is the cell's resting potential.
29. Large protein anions are: A) manufactured by glial cells. B)
manufactured within a neuron.
C)
transported to a neuron by glial cells.
D) not part of a neuron.
30. The negative charge inside of the cell membrane is largely a product of the presence of negatively charged: A) potassium ions. B)
sodium ions.
C)
protein anions.
D) All of the answers are correct.
31. The sodium–potassium pump exchanges three A) continuously; intracellular Na+; extracellular K+. B)
continuously; intracellular K+; extracellular Na+.
C)
continuously; extracellular Na+; intracellular K+.
for two
.
D) intermittently; intracellular K+; extracellular Na+.
32. When the neuron is at rest, to enter and leave the cell. A) K+; Na+ B)
Cl–; Na+
C)
Na+; K+
channels are normally closed, whereas
D) K+; Cl–
33. There are approximately A) 20 times
as many K+ ions inside the cell as outside it.
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is free
B)
2 times
C)
one-tenth
D) half
34. Which of the following is NOT involved in producing the resting potential? A) potassium ions B)
chloride ions
C)
calcium ions
D) sodium ions
35. A change in the resting potential from –70 mV to –73 mV is called: A) depolarization. B)
hyperpolarization.
C)
graded excitatory potential.
D) nothing, as these changes occur spontaneously.
36. A change in the resting potential from –70 mV to –68 mV is called: A) depolarization. B)
hyperpolarization.
C)
graded excitatory potential.
D) nothing, as these changes occur spontaneously.
37. Small voltage fluctuations in the cell membrane that occur in the vicinity of the axon are called: A) action potentials. B)
graded potentials.
C)
ion fluctuations.
D) nerve impulses.
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38. Depolarization is primarily linked with linked with . A) sodium; calcium B)
potassium; sodium
C)
sodium; chloride
, whereas hyperpolarization is mainly
D) chloride; potassium
39. A change in the resting potential from –70 mV to –50 mV typically results in: A) an excitatory postsynaptic potential. B)
repolarization.
C)
an action potential.
D) hyperpolarization.
40. Tetrodotoxin (puffer fish poison) mainly influences: A) the role of potassium channels in hyperpolarization. B)
the role of sodium channels in depolarization.
C)
the role of potassium channels in depolarization.
D) the role of sodium channels in hyperpolarization.
41. Tetraethylammonium (TEA) A) blocks potassium channels. B)
blocks sodium channels.
C)
blocks chlorine channels.
D) neutralizes large protein molecules.
42. An action potential is: A) a large graded potential. B)
a large, brief reversal in the polarity of a membrane.
C)
the same as a threshold potential.
D) seldom shorter than 10 milliseconds.
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43. The voltage of a neural membrane that is sufficient to cause an action potential is approximately ; it is called a(n) . A) –70 mV; resting potential B)
–50 mV; graded potential
C)
–65 mV; threshold potential
D) –50 mV; threshold potential
44. The action potential normally consists of the summed current changes caused by the and the . A) inflow of sodium; outflow of potassium B)
outflow of sodium; inflow of potassium
C)
inflow of calcium; outflow of potassium
D) inflow of sodium; outflow of chloride
45. During an action potential: A) the voltage of the cell membrane drops to zero and then returns to –70 mV. B) the voltage of the cell membrane drops to zero, returns to about –100 mV, and then goes to 70 mV. C) the voltage of the cell membrane goes to about +30 mV and then drops to –70 mV. D) the voltage of the cell membrane goes to about +30 mV, drops to –100 mV, and then goes to –70 mV.
46. Na+ and K+ channels on axons are mainly: A) neurotransmitter dependent. B)
voltage dependent.
C)
calcium dependent.
D) both neurotransmitter and voltage dependent.
47.
channels are less sensitive than channels, so during an action potential they open more slowly but remain open longer. A) calcium; sodium B)
sodium; potassium
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C)
chloride; sodium
D) potassium; sodium
48.
channels are more sensitive than action potential. A) Calcium; potassium B)
Potassium; calcium
C)
Sodium; potassium
channels, so they open first during the
D) All channels are equally sensitive.
49. Sodium channels close when the membrane potential reaches approximately: A) +50 mV. B) +30 mV. C) –50 mV. D) 0 mV.
50. Voltage-sensitive sodium channels are active: A) whenever the cell membrane starts to depolarize. B)
when the voltage across the membrane reaches zero.
C)
when the threshold voltage of the cell is reached.
D) when the voltage across the membrane reaches +30 mV.
51.
A cell cannot produce an action potential: A) during the relative refractory period. B)
during the absolute refractory period.
C)
during the intermediate refractory period.
D) None of the answers is correct.
52. Refractory periods are due to: A) voltage-sensitive sodium and potassium channels.
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B)
voltage-sensitive chloride channels.
C)
the time constraint on the sodium–potassium pump.
D) inhibitory postsynaptic potentials.
53. The repolarization of the neuronal membrane is largely due to the: A) closing of calcium channels, stopping the influx of calcium. B)
opening of potassium channels, allowing the outflow of potassium.
C)
closing of potassium channels, stopping the influx of potassium.
D) closing of sodium channels, stopping the outflow of sodium.
54. The magnitude of an action potential (AP) is measured near the axon hillock using an electrode and then measured again 2 mm farther down the axon. Compared to the AP measured near the axon hillock, the AP 2 mm farther down the axon is: A) larger. B)
smaller.
C)
of the same magnitude.
D) completely nullified.
55. Nerve impulse describes: A) an action potential crossing the synaptic cleft. B)
input at the dendrites of a cell.
C)
the movement of an action potential along the axon.
D) an action potential along the combined axons, which are called nerves.
56. The propagation of the nerve impulse is: A) not decremental. B)
related to the opening of potassium and sodium ion channels.
C)
similar to the effect of falling dominoes.
D) All of the answers are correct.
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57. The domino effect best describes: A) the absolute refractory period. B)
the nerve impulse.
C)
the relative refractory period.
D) the resting membrane potential.
58. Because of refractory periods, the maximum firing rate of a neuron is approximately impulses per second. A) 500 B) 1000 C) 100 D) 200
59. An action potential usually goes only in one direction in an axon because: A) the ions can flow only in one direction. B)
the refractory periods force the impulse to go in one direction.
C)
the ion flow is attracted to chemicals in the synaptic knob.
D) autoreceptors inhibit backward flow of ions.
60. Which of the following is NOT one of the important reasons for refractory periods in neurons? A) It limits the firing rate of the neuron. B)
It forces nerve impulses to travel in one direction.
C)
It increases the sensitivity of the neuron.
D) It allows time for the neuron to reset prior to another action potential.
61.
produce(s) myelin in the peripheral nervous system, whereas myelin in the central nervous system. A) Ependymal cells; Schwann cells B)
Astroglia; oligodendroglia
C)
Oligodendroglia; Schwann cells
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produce(s)
D) Schwann cells, oligodendroglia
62. Saltatory conduction is aided by located at A) sodium–potassium pumps; terminal buttons B)
sodium and potassium channels; nodes of Ranvier
C)
calcium channels; nodes of Ranvier
.
D) glial cells; nodes of Ranvier
63. Myelin is important for propagating action potentials (AP) because: A) it increases the AP's conduction speed. B)
it reduces the need for sodium and potassium.
C)
it conserves energy.
D) it both increases the AP's conduction speed and conserves energy.
64. Saltatory conduction refers to: A) sodium concentration in the extracellular fluid. B)
action potentials that are facilitated by sodium.
C)
action potentials jumping from one node to the next.
D) the leakage of the sodium channels that require the existence of a sodium– potassium pump.
65. On larger myelinated axons, nerve impulses can reach speeds of up to second. A) 100 B) 50 C) 120 D) 30
66. The symptoms of multiple sclerosis are caused by: A) excess myelin on axons. B)
loss of myelin around axons.
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meters per
C)
excess excitatory input.
D) excess inhibitory input.
67. Melissa, a 23-year-old woman, has been having tingling sensations in her right arm and leg for a few weeks. Today, when she woke up, she realized that she could barely move her right arm. She had a similar set of symptoms a couple of years ago, but they went away, so she thought everything was fine. Your advice to Melissa is to go to the doctor because: A) she may have the flu. B)
she may have a brain tumor.
C)
she may have multiple sclerosis.
D) she may have Huntington disease.
68. Multiple sclerosis is thought to be: A) an autoimmune disease. B)
related to vitamin D.
C)
related to genetic risk factors.
D) All of the answers are correct.
69. The speed at which nerve impulses travel down an axon are greatly increased by: A) myelin. B)
refractory periods.
C)
the length of the axon.
D) calcium channels.
70. A brief depolarization of the neuronal membrane that makes it more likely that the neuron will fire an action potential is called: A) saltatory conduction. B)
an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP).
C)
an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP).
D) spatial summation.
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71. A brief hyperpolarization of the neuronal membrane that makes it less likely that the neuron will fire an action potential is called: A) saltatory conduction. B)
an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP).
C)
an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP).
D) spatial summation.
72. Excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) are recorded: A) at the synaptic knob. B)
in the axon.
C)
in the dendrites.
D) from the cell body.
73. EPSPs are associated with , whereas IPSPs are associated with A) opening of sodium channels; opening of potassium channels B)
opening of sodium channels; closing of potassium channels
C)
closing of sodium channels; opening of potassium channels
D) opening of calcium channels; closing of potassium channels
74. Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) are associated with: A) the opening of potassium channels, allowing the outflow of potassium. B)
the opening of sodium channels, allowing the influx of sodium.
C)
the closing of potassium channels, stopping the influx of potassium.
D) the closing of sodium channels, stopping the influx of potassium.
75. EPSPs are associated with: A) the opening of potassium channels, allowing the outflow of potassium. B)
the opening of sodium channels, allowing the influx of sodium.
C)
the closing of potassium channels, stopping the influx of potassium.
D) the closing of sodium channels, stopping the influx of potassium.
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.
76. Stimulation producing two EPSPs in quick succession illustrates: A) spatial summation. B)
temporal summation.
C)
both spatial and temporal summation.
D) neither spatial nor temporal summation.
77. Simultaneous stimulation at two locations on a cell membrane that leads to an EPSP is an example of: A) spatial summation. B)
temporal summation.
C)
both spatial and temporal summation.
D) neither spatial nor temporal summation.
78. Spatial summation is more likely to occur: A) when the two impulses are far apart on the membrane. B)
when the two impulses are close together on the membrane.
C)
without regard to distance on the membrane.
D) when one EPSP follows the second by a short interval.
79. EPSPs on the distant dendrite's tree: A) have maximum influence on an action potential. B)
are easier to summate both spatially and temporally than EPSPs elsewhere.
C)
are less likely to have a dynamic effect than those close to the axon hillock.
D) do not modulate action potentials.
80. For an EPSP to cause another action potential, the stimulation must reach the which is (are) rich in voltage-sensitive ion channels. A) initial segment (axon hillock) B)
cell body
C)
dendrites
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,
D) terminal buttons
81. Action potentials originate in the: A) axon. B)
dendrites.
C)
cell body.
D) initial segment (axon hillock).
82. The acts in a way similar to a democracy in that it "counts votes" from incoming EPSPs and IPSPs, and if there is enough excitation, an action potential will fire. A) axon hillock B)
dendrite
C)
soma
D) ion channel
83.
is the term used to denote reverse movement of the action potential into the dendrites. A) EPSP reversal B)
Back propagation
C)
Inverse IPSP
D) None of the answers is correct.
84.
may play a role in the neural plasticity that is associated with learning. A) Spatial summation B)
Back propagation
C)
Temporal summation
D) The relative refractory period
85.
combines genetics and light to control targeted cells in living tissue. A) Photogenetics B)
Optogenetics
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C)
Infragenetics
D) None of the answers is correct.
86. Research on optogenetics and light-sensitive ion channels has revealed that channel rhodopsin-2 can be used to neurons and halorhodopsin can be used to neurons. A) hyperpolarize; depolarize B)
depolarize; hyperpolarize
C)
destroy; depolarize
D) depolarize; destroy
87. EPSPs and IPSPs are first received by: A) the soma. B)
the neuronal membrane.
C)
dendrites.
D) the axon hillock.
88. Stretch-sensitive channels are typically found on the dendrites of: A) motor neurons. B)
interneurons.
C)
sensory neurons.
D) All of the answers are correct.
89. Dendrites of touch-sensitive neurons are activated by: A) stretching open Na+ channels. B)
stretching open K+ channels.
C)
closing K+ channels.
D) closing Cl– channels.
90.
An end plate is found on: A) a muscle membrane.
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B)
a dendrite membrane.
C)
an axon.
D) touch receptors.
91. Hair receptors are associated with: A) taste. B)
vision.
C)
hearing and balance.
D) touch.
92. The muscle end plate is activated by the neurotransmitter: A) serotonin. B)
norepinephrine.
C)
dopamine.
D) acetylcholine.
93. The neurotransmitter-sensitive ion channels on muscle end plates differ from other ion channels in that: A) they have a different resting membrane potential. B)
they allow only K+ to leave the neuronal membrane.
C)
they allow only Cl– to leave the neuronal membrane.
D) K+ and Na+ enter and leave through the same channels.
94. Lou Gehrig's disease is also known as: A) multiple sclerosis. B)
arteriosclerosis.
C)
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
D) poliomyelitis.
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95.
is a disease that has been linked with the death of A) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis; sensory neurons B)
Myasthenia gravis; sensory neurons
C)
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis; spinal motor neurons
.
D) Myasthenia gravis; interneurons
96. Alex is 53 years old and has had weakness in his throat and chest for a few months. Now, he is also starting to have general weakness in his arms and legs. The weakness in his legs has gotten so bad that yesterday he fell down when walking across his living room. Alex appears to be showing early signs of: A) Parkinson disease. B)
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig's disease).
C)
Huntington disease.
D) Alzheimer disease.
97. Myasthenia gravis is: A) an autoimmune disease. B)
more common in men than women.
C)
caused by a viral infection.
D) caused by a bacterial infection.
98.
is often accompanied by drooping eyelids, difficulty swallowing, and general fatigue. A) Huntington disease B)
Tay-Sachs disease
C)
Myasthenia gravis
D) Tetrodotoxin poisoning
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Chapter 5 – How do neurons communicate and adapt? 1.
is a neurotransmitter that slows down heart rate, whereas A) Acetylcholine; norepinephrine B)
Epinephrine; norepinephrine
C)
Norepinephrine; acetylcholine
speeds it up.
D) Epinephrine; acetylcholine
2. Acetylcholine helps muscle contraction in the somatic nervous system (SNS), whereas it acts to muscle contraction in the autonomic nervous system (ANS). A) excite; excite or inhibit B)
inhibit; slow down
C)
excite; inhibit
D) inhibit; excite
3. The notion that the nervous system communicates using chemical messages was first demonstrated by: A) Santiago Ramón y Cajal. B)
Camillo Golgi.
C)
Otto Loewi.
D) Donald Hebb.
4. Chemicals released by a neuron onto a target with an excitatory or inhibitory effect are called: A) messengers. B)
action potentials.
C)
neurotransmitters.
D) second messengers.
5.
acts to increase heart rate. A) Acetylcholine B)
Norepinephrine
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C)
Serotonin
D) Dopamine
6.
can also act as neurotransmitters. A) Synapses B)
Mitochondria
C)
Hormones
D) None of the answers is correct.
7.
is linked with shaking in the limbs, loss of balance, and general loss of muscular control. A) Parkinson disease B)
Lou Gehrig disease
C)
Huntington disease
D) All of the answers are correct.
8. Parkinson disease is linked with the loss of A) acetylcholine B)
dopamine
C)
norepinephrine
neurons in the midbrain.
D) serotonin
9. The structure of synapses is best viewed with a(n): A) electron microscope. B)
light microscope.
C)
confocal microscope.
D) Nissl-stained microscopic procedure.
10.
contain the neurotransmitters. A) Synaptic vesicles
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B)
Ribosomes
C)
Axons
D) Dendrites
11. Electron microscopy is a useful tool in the study of synaptic morphology. The resolution of an electron microscope is much greater than that of a light microscope because: A) smaller electron waves scatter less than light waves. B)
light waves scatter less than electron waves.
C)
larger electron waves scatter more than light waves.
D) larger light waves scatter in patterns similar to those of electron waves.
12. A synaptic cleft is the space between: A) a synaptic vesicle and an axon terminal. B)
a dendrite and an ion channel.
C)
an ion channel and an axon terminal.
D) an axon terminal and a dendrite.
13.
contribute to chemical neurotransmission by supplying the building blocks for neurotransmitters or by cleaning up excess neurotransmitters. A) Glial cells B)
Dendrites
C)
Receptors
D) Neurons
14. The contents of a synaptic vesicle include: A) neurotransmitters. B)
structural proteins.
C)
DNA.
D) neurotransmitters, structural proteins, and DNA.
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15. Axon terminals are found on the whereas dendritic spines are found on the . A) postsynaptic membrane; presynaptic membrane B)
soma; neuron
C)
presynaptic membrane; postsynaptic membrane
D) neuron; synapse
16. Neurons in which the ion channels from one cell connect directly with ion channels on another cell are called: A) gap junctions. B)
electrical synapses.
C)
chemical synapses.
D) Both gap junctions and electrical synapses are correct.
17.
store several vesicles containing neurotransmitters. A) Storage granules B)
Synaptic vesicles
C)
Transporter proteins
D) Golgi bodies
18. Which of the following would NOT be found at the axon terminal? A) mitochondria B)
cell membrane
C)
synaptic vesicles
D) axon hillock
19. Electrical synapses: A) do not exist in mammals. B)
are relatively rare in mammals.
C)
are roughly 50 percent of all mammalian synapses.
D) are the prime mechanism of neurotransmission in mammals.
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20. Compared with chemical synapses, electrical synapses: A) transmit messages faster. B)
transmit messages more slowly.
C)
require more metabolic energy.
D) do not require presynaptic activation.
21. There are more chemical synapses than electrical synapses in the mammalian nervous system because chemical synapses: A) transmit signals more quickly. B)
allow better control of messages passed between neurons.
C)
send only excitatory signals.
D) cannot be modified by learning.
22. Precursor chemicals that form the building blocks for neurotransmitters are absorbed from the: A) mitochondria. B)
blood supply.
C)
cell nucleus.
D) Golgi apparatus.
23. Protein molecules that pump substances across a membrane are called: A) microfilaments. B)
microtubules.
C)
transporters.
D) microvehicles
24. Neurotransmitters are produced in the: A) cell body. B)
presynaptic terminals.
C)
Golgi body.
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D) cell body and presynaptic terminals.
25. Voltage-gated calcium ion channels that function in neurotransmission are primarily found on the: A) postsynaptic membrane. B)
presynaptic membrane.
C)
synaptic vesicles.
D) dendrites.
26. In order for neurotransmitters to be released, A) Na+ B)
Ca2+
C)
K+
must enter the terminal button.
D) Cl–
27. Ultimately Ca2+ serves to aid neural transmission by: A) causing an action potential. B)
helping to make neurotransmitters.
C)
opening K+ channels on axon terminals.
D) causing the release of neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft.
28. Synaptic vesicles release neurotransmitters via: A) endocytosis. B)
pinocytosis.
C)
exocytosis.
D) phagocytosis.
29. Which of the following presynaptic events are in correct chronological order? A) calcium ion influx, action potential reaches axon terminal, vesicle fuses with membrane, diffusion of neurotransmitter B) action potential reaches axon terminal, calcium ion channels open, exocytosis, diffusion of neurotransmitter
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C) exocytosis, calcium ion influx, action potential reaches axon terminal, membrane depolarization D) action potential reaches axon terminal, calcium ion channels open, neurotransmitter diffusion, exocytosis
30. When a neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds to a transmitteractivated receptor, which of the following may occur in the postsynaptic cell? A) membrane depolarization B)
membrane hyperpolarization
C)
initiation of chemical reactions
D) All of the answers are correct.
31. Receptors on the presynaptic side that may be influenced by neurotransmitters are called: A) autoreceptors. B)
presynaptic receptors.
C)
presynaptic terminals.
D) All of the answers are correct.
32. For an action potential to be elicited: A) one quantum of neurotransmitter must be released from the presynaptic cell. B)
multiple quanta of neurotransmitter must be released from the presynaptic cell.
C)
calcium ions must enter the postsynaptic cell.
D) one quantum of neurotransmitter must be released from the presynaptic cell, and calcium ions must enter the postsynaptic cell.
33. How is a neurotransmitter removed from the synaptic cleft? A) diffusion B)
enzymatic degradation
C)
uptake by surrounding glial cells
D) All of the answers are correct.
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34.
is the deactivation of a neurotransmitter by transporter proteins that bring the transmitter back into the presynaptic side for reuse. A) Diffusion B)
Enzymatic degradation
C)
Reuptake
D) Neurochemical recycling
35.
is the process of neurotransmitter deactivation whereby the neurotransmitter simply leaves the synaptic cleft. A) Diffusion B)
Enzymatic degradation
C)
Reuptake
D) Glial uptake
36.
is the deactivation of a neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft by enzymes. A) Reuptake B)
Degradation
C)
Breakdown
D) Decay
37. Reuptake is accomplished by: A) transporter proteins. B)
glial cells.
C)
enzymes.
D) calcium channels .
38. Transmitters are usually released in the blood via: A) axodendritic synapses. B)
axosomatic synapses.
C)
axosecretory synapses.
D) axoaxonic synapses.
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39.
synapses send signals from one axon to another axon. A) Axoaxonic B)
Axodendritic
C)
Dendodendritic
D) Axosynaptic
40.
synapses are terminals that have no specific target. A) Axoextracellular B)
Axosomatic
C)
Axodendritic
D) Axosynaptic
41.
synapses send signals from an axon to a cell body. A) Axoextracellular B)
Axosomatic
C)
Axodendritic
D) Axosynaptic
42. When an axon terminal synapses on another axon terminal, it is called: A) an axosomatic synapse. B)
an axoaxonic synapse.
C)
an axosynaptic synapse.
D) an axodendritic synapse.
43. Gap junctions are: A) axoaxonic synapses. B)
dendodendritic synapses.
C)
somasomatic synapses.
D) All of the answers are correct.
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44. A chemical that has not yet met all the conditions that constitute a neurotransmitter is referred to as a(n): A) chemical signaler. B)
secondary messenger.
C)
putative neurotransmitter.
D) unclassified neurotransmitter.
45.
was the first neurotransmitter discovered in the CNS. A) Histamine B)
Serotonin
C)
Dopamine
D) Acetylcholine
46. A Renshaw loop consists of: A) an interneuron that inhibits the activity of a motor neuron. B)
a sensory neuron that increases the activity of a motor neuron.
C)
an interneuron that increases the activity of a motor neuron.
D) a sensory neuron that increases the activity of an interneuron.
47. Which of the following is NOT part of the amine subtype of small-molecule neurotransmitters? A) dopamine B)
glycine
C)
serotonin
D) norepinephrine
48.
is found in foods such as egg yolk, avocado, salmon, and olive oil. A) Choline B)
Acetate
C)
Tryptophan
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D) All of the answers are correct.
49. Which of the following is NOT a classification type of neurotransmitter? A) small molecule B)
nucleic acid
C)
gaseous
D) peptide
50. Acetylcholine is synthesized from acetate and choline by: A) choline acetyltransferase (ChAT). B)
choline acetylbinderase (ChAB).
C)
tyrosine hydroxylase.
D) histamine.
51.
is a neurotransmitter that helps control arousal, walking, and the contraction of smooth muscle. It also contributes to asthma, a constriction of the airways. A) Acetylcholine B)
Histamine
C)
Glycine
D) Dopamine
52. Acetylcholine is deactivated through: A) reuptake. B)
diffusion.
C)
enzymatic degradation.
D) glial reuptake.
53.
is an amino acid that is important for the synthesis of A) Tyrosine hydroxylase; acetylcholine B)
Choline; dopamine
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.
C)
Tryptophan; L-dopa
D) Tyrosine hydroxylase; dopamine
54. The rate by which dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine can be synthesized is controlled by a rate-limiting factor that is linked to the availability of: A) tryptophan. B)
ChAT.
C)
tyrosine hydroxylase.
D) histamine.
55.
is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain whereas primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain. A) GABA; glutamate B)
Glycine; glutamate
C)
Glutamate; GABA
is the
D) Aspartate; glycine
56. The rate-limiting factor of dopamine synthesis can be bypassed through the oral administration of: A) acetylcholine. B)
L-dopa.
C)
tryptophan.
D) norepinephrine.
57.
plays a role in regulating mood, appetite, aggression, and arousal. A) Norepinephrine B)
Dopamine
C)
Acetylcholine
D) Serotonin
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58.
are(is) assembled in the cell body and transported to the terminal buttons via microtubules. A) Amines B)
Serotonin
C)
Peptide transmitters
D) Amino acid transmitters
59. What is the predominant inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord? A) GABA B)
glutamate
C)
glycine
D) histamine
60.
is a neurotransmitter that is synthesized from tryptophan. A) Dopamine B)
L-dopa
C)
Glutamate
D) Serotonin
61. Which of the following is NOT an amino acid neurotransmitter? A) dopamine B)
glutamate
C)
glycine
D) GABA
62. Which is the correct sequence of amine neurotransmitters? A) tyrosine, dopamine, L-dopa, epinephrine, norepinephrine B)
L-dopa, tyrosine, dopamine, norepinephrine, epinephrine
C)
tyrosine, L-dopa, dopamine, epinephrine, norepinephrine
D) tyrosine, L-dopa, dopamine, norepinephrine, epinephrine
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63. Which two neurotransmitters are synthesized from the same precursor molecule? A) glycine and dopamine B)
glutamate and GABA
C)
histamine and serotonin
D) acetylcholine and glycine
64.
are a class of neurotransmitters that can act as hormones for fertility, childbirth, and lactation. A) Peptides B)
Amines
C)
Transmitter gases
D) None of the answers is correct.
65. Both THC and anandamide are examples of: A) endocannabinoids. B)
recreational drugs.
C)
excitatory neurotransmitters.
D) All of the answers are correct.
66.
is part of a class of lipid transmitters called endocannabinoids that can influence appetite, pain, sleep, mood, and stress. A) CB1 B)
Anandamide
C)
Glycine
D) Met-enkephalin
67. In the popular movie Awakenings, was used to treat patients with a rare movement disorder that followed a severe influenza outbreak in the 1920s. A) acetylcholine B)
norepinehphrine
C)
L-dopa
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D) dopamine
68. Nitric oxide (NO) is a gas neurotransmitter that: A) is stored in synaptic vesicles. B)
is synthesized in the soma.
C)
dilates blood vessels in active brain areas.
D) is degraded by digestive enzymes.
69. Ionotropic receptors: A) change in shape when neurotransmitters bind to them. B)
have no openings for ion diffusion.
C)
activate second messenger systems.
D) are more metabolically expensive than metabotropic receptors.
70. The opening of an ionotropic receptor can directly influence the movement of ions across the neuronal membrane. A) Ca2+ B)
Na+
C)
K+
D) All of the answers are correct.
71. Metabotropic receptors consist of: A) complex units of membrane-spanning proteins. B)
a single membrane-spanning protein.
C)
a single non–membrane-spanning protein.
D) complex units of non–membrane-spanning proteins.
72. Which of the following terms is NOT associated with metabotropic receptors? A) second messengers B)
G proteins
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C)
alpha subunits
D) All of these terms are associated with metabotropic receptors.
73. A second-messenger system can: A) alter ion flow through the membrane channels. B) cause a series of reactions that result in the formation of new membrane ion channels. C) initiate or cease the production of specific proteins. D) All of the answers are correct.
74. What chemicals are the first messenger? A) G proteins B)
alpha subunits
C)
neurotransmitters
D) sodium ions
75. Dopamine binds to A) ionotropic
receptors.
B)
metabotropic
C)
both ionotropic and metabotropic
D) None of the answers is correct.
76. Acetylcholine is the main neurotransmitter for: A) all skeletal motor synapses. B)
95 percent of skeletal motor synapses.
C)
half of skeletal motor synapses.
D) no skeletal motor synapses.
77.
All neurons leaving the spinal cord have: A) acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter. B)
dopamine as a neurotransmitter.
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C)
GABA as a neurotransmitter.
D) both dopamine and GABA as neurotransmitters.
78.
activates the sympathetic nervous system, whereas parasympathetic nervous system. A) Norepinephrine; epinephrine B)
Norepinephrine; acetylcholine
C)
Acetylcholine; norepinephrine
activates the
D) Epinephrine; norepinephrine
79. Neurotransmitters are identified by which of the following criteria? A) synthesis B)
release
C)
receptor activation
D) synthesis, release, and receptor activation
80. Which of the following is NOT one of the activating systems in the CNS? A) glutamate B)
dopamine
C)
norepinephrine
D) acetylcholine
81. Which of the following activating system–cell body location pairs is NOT correct? A) acetylcholine, basal forebrain B)
norepinephrine, locus coeruleus
C)
dopamine, substantia nigra
D) serotonin, ventral tegmentum
82. Acetylcholine has been related to: A) depression.
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B)
schizophrenia.
C)
Alzheimer disease.
D) mania.
83. Dopamine may be related to: A) depression. B)
schizophrenia.
C)
Alzheimer disease.
D) mania.
84. The substance MPTP has been found to be selectively toxic to A) serotonin-producing B)
dopamine-producing
C)
acetylcholine-producing
D) norepinephrine-producing
85. Fetal tissue transplants have been used to help treat: A) Alzheimer disease. B)
schizophrenia.
C)
Huntington disease.
D) Parkinson disease.
86. Serotonin has been related to: A) depression. B)
schizophrenia.
C)
Alzheimer disease.
D) mania.
87. Mania has been related to: A) acetylcholine.
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neurons.
B)
dopamine.
C)
norepinephrine.
D) serotonin.
88. The neural basis of habituation: A) involves calcium ion influx decrease. B)
involves calcium ion influx increase.
C)
occurs postsynaptically.
D) involves calcium ion influx increase and occurs postsynaptically.
89. Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) has been linked with: A) an increased response to stimuli. B)
a decreased response to stimuli.
C)
a decrease in acetylcholine.
D) a decreased response to stimuli and a decrease in acetylcholine.
90. Habituation is the result of: A) sensory neurons not being able to produce action potentials. B)
motor neurons not being able to produce action potentials.
C)
excitatory postsynaptic potentials being smaller.
D) both sensory and motor neurons not being able to produce action potentials.
91. It has been found that in well-trained and habituated Aplysia, the number of sensory synapses: A) decreases but the size stays constant. B)
stays constant but the size decreases.
C)
decreases and the size increases.
D) decreases and the size decreases.
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92. Increasing the number of synapses to account for learning involves activation of , a second messenger. A) calcium; cGMP B)
potassium; cAMP
C)
calcium; cAMP
, leading to the
D) sodium; cGMP
93. Which of the following statements is NOT correct? A) Dendritic spines mediate learning that lasts, including habituation and sensitization B)
Dendritic spines are designed to act only in unison.
C)
Dendritic spines may appear or disappear on a dendrite in a matter of seconds.
D) Dendritic spines, when forming a synapse, can change in size and shape and can even divide.
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Chapter 6 – How do drugs and hormones influence the brain and behaviour? 1. Various forms of A) barbiturates B)
opioids
C)
amphetamines
have been used as study pills by students.
D) antipsychotics
2.
is the study of how drugs affect the nervous system and behavior. A) Neuroscience B)
Biopsychology
C)
Neuropsychology
D) Psychopharmacology
3. Drugs that are used to manage neuropsychological illness are called: A) prophylactic drugs. B)
psychoactive drugs.
C)
mood drugs.
D) psychodepressant drugs.
4. Which of the following is the LEAST efficient method of drug administration? A) injection into the bloodstream B)
injection into the brain
C)
oral consumption
D) inhaling the drug
5. If a person is dying and needs lifesaving medication to be administered as quickly as possible, what is the BEST method of administration? A) oral consumption B)
injection into muscle
C)
injection into the bloodstream
D) a patch on the skin
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6. The correct order from LEAST efficient to MOST efficient method of drug administration is: A) oral consumption, inhalation, injection into the bloodstream. B)
skin patch, oral consumption, injection into muscle.
C)
injection into muscle, injection into bloodstream, oral consumption.
D) inhalation, oral consumption, injection into the brain.
7. Approximately how many liters of blood are in the circulatory system at any one time? A) 3 B)
6
C)
9
D) 12
8. Which is the MOST effective in passing through the blood–brain barrier easily? A) weak-base drugs B)
drugs bound to proteins
C)
hydrophobic drugs
D) water-soluble drugs
9. One thousand micrograms of amphetamine taken orally is equivalent to: A) 100 micrograms injected into the cerebrospinal fluid. B)
10 micrograms injected into the cerebrospinal fluid.
C)
5 micrograms injected into the cerebrospinal fluid.
D) 1 microgram injected into the cerebrospinal fluid.
10. Endothelial cells are: A) surrounded by the end feet of astrocyte glial cells. B)
associated with veins.
C)
organized in the same fashion throughout the body.
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D) None of the answers is correct.
11. Tight junctions are associated with: A) astrocyte glial cells. B)
endothelial cells.
C)
synaptic clefts.
D) drugs bound to proteins.
12. The pituitary gland is to the area postrema of the lower brainstem as: A) toxins are to hormones. B)
hormones are to toxins.
C)
vomiting is to shivering.
D) shivering is to vomiting.
13. The does NOT have a blood–brain barrier. A) amygdala B)
pineal gland
C)
thalamus
D) None of these answers are correct.
14. Drugs that influence hormones primarily do so by acting on the: A) hypothalamus. B)
pituitary gland.
C)
area postrema.
D) pineal gland.
15. The blood–brain barrier does NOT allow A) glucose B)
amino acids
C)
neurochemicals
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to pass through.
D) oxygen
16. Which of the following substances can pass through the endothelial membrane in the blood–brain barrier unassisted (i.e., without active transport)? A) glucose B)
carbon dioxide
C)
amino acids
D) All of the answers are correct.
17. Which of the following does NOT cross the blood–brain barrier? A) oxygen B)
glucose
C)
amino acids
D) None of the answers is correct.
18. The breakdown of drugs by the body is referred to as: A) reuptake. B)
metabolization.
C)
catabolization.
D) deactivation.
19. The is especially important for catabolizing drugs in the body. A) liver B)
pancreas
C)
kidneys
D) gallbladder
20.
cannot be easily broken down by the body and can cause severe neurological side effects. A) Mercury B)
Magnesium
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C)
Aluminum
D) Potassium
21. Psychoactive drugs have most of their effects at the: A) cell body. B)
axon.
C)
synapse.
D) dendrites.
22. A drug that prevents the breakdown of acetylcholine at synapses is an example of an: A) antagonist. B)
accelerant.
C)
blocker.
D) agonist.
23. A drug that reduces dopamine release at synapses is an example of a(n): A) antagonist. B)
accelerant.
C)
blocker.
D) agonist.
24. Agonist is to antagonist as: A) receptor is to terminal button. B)
drug is to neurotransmitter.
C)
accelerate is to brake.
D) slow is to fast.
25. Botulin toxin (botulism) causes paralysis and slowed breathing and is therefore: A) an acetylcholine agonist. B)
an acetylcholine antagonist.
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C)
a dopamine agonist.
D) a dopamine antagonist.
26. Black widow spider venom: A) promotes the release of acetylcholine. B)
blocks receptors.
C)
stimulates receptors.
D) inhibits the release of acetylcholine.
27. Black widow spider venom affects its victim by: A) promoting the release of acetylcholine. B)
inhibiting the release of acetylcholine.
C)
blocking postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors.
D) activating postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors.
28. Curare acts as a(n): A) acetylcholine agonist. B)
acetylcholine antagonist.
C)
serotonin antagonist.
D) dopamine antagonist.
29. Nicotine acts as a(n): A) acetylcholine agonist. B)
serotonin agonist.
C)
acetylcholine antagonist.
D) dopamine antagonist.
30. Curare: A) promotes the release of acetylcholine. B)
blocks receptors.
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C)
stimulates receptors.
D) inhibits the release of acetylcholine.
31. Nicotine, a chemical found in tobacco smoke, has its effect by: A) promoting the release of acetylcholine. B)
inhibiting the release of acetylcholine.
C)
blocking the GABA receptors.
D) activating the GABA receptors.
32.
was used to make poison arrowheads by South American natives. A) Curare, an acetylcholine agonist, B)
Physostigmine, an acetylcholine antagonist,
C)
Physostigmine, an acetylcholine agonist,
D) Curare, an acetylcholine antagonist,
33.
has been used to treat some memory disorders. A) Curare, an acetylcholine antagonist, B)
Botulin toxin, an acetylcholine agonist,
C)
Physostigmine, an acetylcholine agonist,
D) None of the answers is correct.
34. Physostigmine acts by: A) reducing the release of acetylcholine. B)
increasing the release of acetylcholine.
C)
speeding up the reuptake of acetylcholine.
D) slowing the breakdown of acetylcholine in the synapse.
35. An example of an organophosphate is: A) curare. B)
physostigmine.
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C)
insecticide.
D) botulinum toxin.
36.
is a decreased response to a drug over time. A) Addiction B)
Tolerance
C)
Dependence
D) Sensitization
37. If a person consumes five alcoholic drinks per day for 2 months that person will demonstrate and at the end of the 2 months. A) less intoxication; the same blood alcohol level B)
more intoxication; an increased blood alcohol level
C)
less intoxication; a lower blood alcohol level
D) more intoxication; the same blood alcohol level
38. When the number of enzymes needed to break down a drug in the liver increases, it is called: A) cellular tolerance. B)
metabolic tolerance.
C)
sensitization.
D) habituation.
39. The development of can explain why a person may not appear to be intoxicated despite having a high blood alcohol level. A) metabolic tolerance B)
addiction
C)
sensitization
D) cellular tolerance
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40.
is likely to increase with A) Tolerance; occasional B)
Sensitization; repeated
C)
Sensitization; occasional
drug use.
D) None of the answers is correct.
41. Sensitization has been linked with: A) changes in receptor number on the postsynaptic membrane. B)
changes in transmitter metabolism in the synapse.
C)
changes in transmitter reuptake on the presynaptic side.
D) All of the answers are correct.
42. Sensitization usually occurs: A) as a result of cellular tolerance. B)
as a result of metabolic tolerance.
C)
in a new environment.
D) in a familiar environment.
43. If I had an anxiety disorder I would probably take: A) Haldol. B)
Valium.
C)
Prozac.
D) Imipramine.
44. Which of the following are antianxiety agents? A) alcohol B)
benzodiazepines
C)
barbiturates
D) All of the answers are correct.
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45. Haloperidol and chlorpromazine are examples of: A) antianxiety drugs. B)
antipsychotic drugs.
C)
mood stabilizers.
D) antidepressant drugs.
46. Oxycodone, fentanyl, and methadone are examples of: A) hallucinogenic drugs. B)
opioids.
C)
antianxiety medications.
D) antidepressants.
47. SSRIs are often prescribed to treat: A) depression. B)
schizophrenia.
C)
bipolar disorder.
D) Tourette syndrome.
48.
is an example of a psychedelic or hallucinogenic drug. A) Phencyclidine (PCP) B)
Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC)
C)
MDMA (Ecstasy)
D) All of the answers are correct.
49. Which of the following drugs is NOT considered to be an opioid analgesic? A) heroin B)
codeine
C)
morphine
D) mescaline
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50.
results when tolerance for one drug is carried over to a different member of the same drug group. A) Addiction B)
Sensitization
C)
Cross-tolerance
D) Cellular tolerance
51. GABA: A) increases the firing of cells. B)
decreases the firing of cells.
C)
is very slowly reabsorbed.
D) All of the answers are correct.
52. MAO inhibitors and tricyclics are examples of: A) antianxiety drugs. B)
antipsychotic drugs.
C)
mood stabilizers.
D) antidepressant drugs.
53. Lithium and carbamazepine are typically prescribed as: A) antianxiety drugs. B)
antipsychotic drugs
C)
mood stabilizers.
D) antidepressant drugs.
54.
is a disorder characterized by unusually wide spacing between the eyes, low intelligence, hyperactivity, social problems, and small brain size. A) ADHD B)
Schizophrenia
C)
Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder
D) Williams syndrome
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55. Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD) is worse if a mother drinks during the trimester(s). A) first B)
second
C)
third
D) second and third
56. The incidence of schizophrenia is: A) one in 100. B)
one in 1000.
C)
one in 10,000.
D) one in 100,000.
57. First-generation antipsychotics influence antipsychotics influence receptors. A) D2; D2 and serotonin B)
D3; D2 and serotonin
C)
serotonin; D2
receptors, whereas second-generation
D) serotonin; D3
58. The hypothesis of schizophrenia suggests that patients have A) norepinephrine; too much serotonin B)
serotonin; not enough serotonin
C)
dopamine; not enough dopamine
D) dopamine; too much dopamine
59. Schizophrenia is treated with: A) phenothiazines. B)
monoamine oxidase.
C)
lithium.
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.
D) benzodiazepines.
60. Over the course of a lifetime approximately episode that lasts for several months. A) 10 percent B)
30 percent
C)
50 percent
of people will have a depressive
D) 25 percent
61.
deficiency has been linked with higher rates of depression. A) Vitamin E B)
Vitamin D
C)
Vitamin B
D) Vitamin A
62. Selective serotonin reuptake blockers are used in the treatment of: A) depression. B)
bipolar disorders.
C)
schizophrenia.
D) anxiety.
63. Depression is treated with: A) butyrophenone. B)
lithium.
C)
selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
D) benzodiazepines.
64. Which of the following drugs is used to treat depression? A) serotonin selective reuptake inhibitors B)
monoamine oxidase inhibitors
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C)
tricyclics
D) All of the answers are correct.
65. MAO inhibitors increase levels of serotonin by: A) inhibiting the breakdown of serotonin. B)
increasing the release of serotonin.
C)
increasing the sensitivity of serotonin receptors.
D) All of the answers are correct.
66. SSRIs treat depression by: A) blocking the reuptake of serotonin. B)
increasing the release of serotonin.
C)
stopping the breakdown of serotonin.
D) increasing the synthesis of serotonin.
67. If I had a bipolar disorder, I would probably take: A) lithium. B)
Prozac.
C)
Librium.
D) Haldol.
68. Anticonvulsant drugs that are used to treat epilepsy are also effective in treating: A) schizophrenia. B)
depression.
C)
anxiety.
D) bipolar disorder.
69. Your friend has recently been diagnosed with major depression. She has been prescribed several SSRIs over the last few months, but none seem to be working well. Your advice to her is to ask her doctor about using: A) clozapine.
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B)
ketamine.
C)
L-dopa.
D) barbiturates.
70. Endorphins, enkephalins, and dynorphins are examples of: A) amphetamines. B)
hallucinogens.
C)
opioid peptides.
D) endocannabinoids.
71. Enkephalins and dynorphins are examples of: A) opioid analgesics. B)
amphetamines.
C)
endorphins.
D) antipsychotics.
72.
is an example of an opioid analgesic. A) Codeine B)
Morphine
C)
Heroin
D) All of the answers are correct.
73. The term "Soldier's Disease" was used to describe American Civil War. A) cocaine B)
morphine
C)
heroin
D) opium
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addiction following the
74. The effects of cocaine can be mimicked by: A) endorphins. B)
heroin.
C)
amphetamines.
D) morphine.
75.
was used by soldiers in World War II as a means of staying awake and alert and to help increase confidence. A) Morphine B)
Cocaine
C)
Heroin
D) Amphetamine
76.
was once added to many drinks to help give them an energizing effect. A) Amphetamine B)
Cocaine
C)
Opium
D) Morphine
77.
has been shown to be effective in treating nausea, lack of appetite, glaucoma, and chronic pain. A) Marijuana B)
Cocaine
C)
Methamphetamine
D) Heroin
78. An example of a serotonin psychedelic would be: A) mescaline. B)
marijuana.
C)
heroin.
D) LSD.
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79. Chad is normally quiet and reserved and enjoys having a few drinks while catching up with his friends on Fridays. However, this week when they went to a new bar Chad was convinced that a person at another table was giving him "dirty looks." Chad confronted the person and started a fight which resulted in him being arrested for the first time in his life. This type of behavior could be explained by: A) disinhibition theory. B)
learning.
C)
behavioral myopia.
D) All of the answers are correct.
80. The disinhibition theory attempts to explain the effects of: A) morphine. B)
heroin.
C)
amphetamine.
D) alcohol.
81. Drug abuse has been associated with changes in: A) serotonin levels. B)
dopamine levels.
C)
acetylcholine levels.
D) All of the answers are correct.
82. Sensitivity to drugs is determined by: A) size. B)
sex.
C)
age.
D) All of the answers are correct.
83. According to recent research, females are more like than males to abuse: A) nicotine.
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B)
cocaine.
C)
caffeine.
D) All of the answers are correct.
84. Another term for the incentive-sensitization theory of addiction is: A) incentive-salience theory. B)
wanting-and-liking theory.
C)
associative learning theory.
D) goal and pleasure theory.
85. Which of the following is the correct sequence for drug addiction? A) incentive salience, pleasure, associative learning B)
associative learning, pleasure, incentive salience
C)
pleasure, associative learning, incentive salience
D) incentive salience, associative learning, pleasure
86. When cues that have previously been associated with drug taking are encountered, the system becomes active, producing the subjective feeling of wanting. A) serotonin B)
limbic
C)
dopamine
D) endorphin
87. At present, the basis for alcohol addiction is: A) mostly genetic. B)
mostly learned.
C)
50 percent learned and 50 percent genetic.
D) still uncertain.
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88. Which of the following drugs has the HIGHEST concordance rate for addiction among identical twins? A) tobacco B)
marijuana
C)
alcohol
D) heroin
89. In large doses has been shown to have toxic effects in neurons. A) monosodium glutamate (MSG) B)
kainic acid
C)
ibotenic acid
D) All of the answers are correct.
90. Domoic acid is most toxic to the: A) neocortex. B)
medulla.
C)
hippocampus.
D) basal ganglia.
91.
Botulin toxin is found in: A) bee and wasp stings. B)
the crocus plant.
C)
tainted food.
D) plant berries.
92. Which of the following statements is correct? A) Kainate receptors are glutamate receptors. B)
Glutamate can be a neurotoxin.
C)
Glutamate and MSG have a similar structure.
D) All of the answers are correct.
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93. Which of the following street drugs is LEAST likely to cause brain damage? A) PCP (angel dust) B)
MDMA (Ecstasy)
C)
LSD
D) amphetamines
94. MDMA (Ecstasy) has been shown to have toxic effects on: A) dopamine terminals. B)
serotonin nerve fibers.
C)
norepinephrine synthesis.
D) glutamate release.
95. The produces neurohormones, whereas the A) pituitary gland; hypothalamus B)
thalamus; hypothalamus
C)
hypothalamus; thalamus
secretes releasing hormones.
D) hypothalamus; pituitary gland
96. The hormone testosterone MOST likely has its behavioral effects by: A) acting like a neurotransmitter and activating postsynaptic receptors. B)
acting like a neurotransmitter and activating presynaptic transmitter release.
C)
entering a neuron and activating genes.
D) modifying RNA messengers.
97. Testosterone and cortisol are examples of: A) steroid hormones. B)
peptide hormones.
C)
gonadal hormones.
D) homeostatic hormones.
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98.
is an important homeostatic hormone. A) Testosterone B)
Cortisol
C)
Insulin
D) Oxytocin
99. Gonadal hormones: A) contribute to cognitive functioning. B)
are less important for females in producing the female body.
C)
act on us before we are born.
D) All of the answers are correct.
100.
Epinephrine: A) turns off insulin. B)
shuts down reproductive functions.
C)
inhibits the immune system.
D) prepares the body for a sudden surge of activity.
101.
The hormone involved in our fast response to danger or threat is: A) cortisol. B)
epinephrine.
C)
corticotropin.
D) thyrotropin.
102.
Periods of prolonged stress can result in as well as . A) a decrease in size of the hippocampus; an increase in size of the amygdala B)
a decrease in size in the hippocampus; a decrease in the size of the amygdala
C)
an increase in the size of the hippocampus; an increase in the size of the amygdala
D) an increase in the size of the hippocampus; a decrease in the size of the amygdala
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103.
Which of the following sequences is correct? A) corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), adrenocorticotropic-releasing hormone (ACTH), adrenal medulla B) adrenocorticotropic-releasing hormone (ACTH), corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), adrenal medulla C) corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), adrenocorticotropic-releasing hormone (ACTH), adrenal cortex D) adrenocorticotropic-releasing hormone (ACTH), corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), adrenal cortex
104.
It is suggested that high levels of stress can damage neurons in the: A) hypothalamus. B)
hippocampus.
C)
thalamus.
D) amygdala.
105.
Cortisol levels are usually regulated by the: A) amygdala. B)
hippocampus.
C)
pituitary gland.
D) thalamus,
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Chapter 7 – How do we study the brain’s structures and functions? 1. In a study on infant language, researchers found that when newborn infants listened to a familiar language there was a(n) in oxygenated hemoglobin, and there was in oxygenated hemoglobin when they listened to an unfamiliar language. A) decrease; an increase B)
increase; no change
C)
decrease; no change
D) increase; a decrease
2. The electroencephalograph (EEG) was invented by: A) Hans Berger. B)
Wilder Penfield.
C)
Paul Broca.
D) Karl Lashley.
3. Broca's area is located in the: A) temporal lobe. B)
parietal lobe.
C)
frontal lobe.
D) limbic lobe.
4. The first field to study the relationship between brain function and behavior was: A) neurology. B)
neuropsychology.
C)
physiological physiology.
D) behaviorism.
5.
stains show cell bodies, whereas (e.g., dendrites). A) Golgi; Nissl B)
Nissl; Golgi
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stains show cell bodies and processes
C)
Broca; Golgi
D) Nissl; Broca
6. A study contrasting normal rats and ADX rats (which had their adrenal glands removed) observed that: A) both groups of rats learned normally. B) both groups of rats had difficulty remembering objects they had encountered before. C) only ADX rats had difficulty remembering objects they had encountered before. D) corticosterone plays no role in learning and memory.
7. The Corsi test measures: A) verbal memory. B)
language.
C)
sensory perception.
D) spatial memory.
8. The mirror drawing task measures: A) sensory perception. B)
motor memory.
C)
sensory memory.
D) spatial memory.
9. In rats, place learning is measured using: A) the Corsi test. B)
a hidden escape platform in a swimming pool.
C)
the recency memory task.
D) the block span task.
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10. For measuring spatial memory in rats the platform is placed in one location for numerous trials to measure , whereas the platform is placed in a new location on each trial for measuring . A) place learning; matching-to-place learning B)
matching-to-place learning; place learning
C)
matching-to-place learning; landmark learning
D) landmark learning; matching-to-place learning
11. Modifying the brain and observing the effects on behavior is a valuable experimental tool because: A) it allows researchers to develop testable hypotheses about how the brain influences behavior. B) it allows a hypothesis to be tested experimentally. C)
it allows for the development of animal models of human disorders.
D) All of the answers are correct.
12. Lashley made lesions on the cortex of rats in his search for the location of memory. He found that: A) memory resided in the hippocampus. B)
small lesions to the temporal lobes produced memory loss.
C)
memory is distributed throughout the brain and not located in any single place.
D) None of the answers is correct.
13. To study the role of a specific brain structure in behavior, you should: A) study patients with damage to the brain region of interest. B)
study animals with damage to the brain region of interest.
C)
apply transcranial magnetic stimulation to the brain region of interest.
D) All of the answers are correct.
14. In 1957 Scoville and Milner described a patient who had profound amnesia following a surgical removal of the: A) frontal lobe. B)
amygdala.
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C)
hippocampus.
D) parietal lobe.
15.
A stereotaxic apparatus is primarily used: A) in fMRI. B)
for targeting a specific part of the brain for ablation.
C)
for transcranial magnetic stimulation.
D) for lesioning and transcranial magnetic stimulation.
16. To place subcortical lesions accurately, it is necessary to use: A) a stereotaxic apparatus. B)
an aspiration lesion.
C)
an fMRI.
D) All of the answers are correct.
17. Neurotoxic lesions destroy A) only neurons; only fibers B)
neurons; neurons and fibers
C)
only fibers; only neurons
, and electrolytic lesions destroy
.
D) neurons and fibers; fibers
18.
applied to the globus pallidus has been used as a treatment for Parkinson disease. A) Self-stimulation B)
Deep brain stimulation
C)
Transcranial magnetic stimulation
D) All of the answers are correct.
19.
was the first to use electrical stimulation in humans during neurosurgery. A) Hebb B)
Wishaw
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C)
Penfield
D) Broca
20. One can create a behavioral model of Parkinson disease in a rat by: A) lesioning the substantia nigra. B)
stimulating the substantia nigra.
C)
lesioning the globus pallidus.
D) stimulating the globus pallidus.
21. Deep brain stimulation has been used as a treatment for: A) Parkinson disease. B)
Huntington disease.
C)
schizophrenia.
D) both Parkinson disease and obsessive-compulsive disorder.
22. With
the effects on neurons do not outlive the period of stimulation, whereas with the effects on neurons can last several minutes. A) rTMS; TMS B)
TMS; rTMS
C)
DBS; TMS
D) rTMS; DBS
23. The administration of can produce hypokinetic rats, whereas administration of produces hyperkinetic rats. A) amphetamine; haloperidol B)
haloperidol; amphetamine
C)
L-dopa; amphetamine
D) amphetamine; L-dopa
24. Administering nicotine to rats: A) improves learning.
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B)
impairs learning.
C)
first improves learning, then impairs learning on a second task.
D) first impairs learning, then improves learning on a second task.
25. The use of blue light to excite and green-yellow light to inhibit neurons is part of: A) transcranial magnetic stimulation. B)
near-infrared spectroscopy.
C)
optogenetics.
D) photomicroscopy.
26. In optogenetics, channelrhodopsin-2 (ChR2) can be used to halorhodopsin (NpHR) can be used to neurons. A) depolarize; hyperpolarize B)
hyperpolarize; depolarize
C)
inactivate; activate
neurons, whereas
D) destroy; promote the growth of
27. Which of the following is NOT one of the techniques used to measure the brain's electrical activity? A) EEG B)
MEG
C)
TMS
D) single-cell recording
28. To study the electrical activity of a group of neurons you would use study the electrical activity of a single neuron you would use . A) intracellular recording; extracellular recording B)
EEG; ECoG
C)
extracellular recording; intracellular recording
D) ERP; MEG
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; however, to
29. EEG is a measure of: A) graded potentials. B)
evoked potentials.
C)
action potentials.
D) event-related potentials.
30.
rhythms are extremely regular, with a frequency of approximately 11 cycles per second, and are commonly observed when a person is awake but relaxed. A) Alpha B)
Beta
C)
Theta
D) Delta
31. If a person is awake and alert, the EEG pattern will consist of: A) high-amplitude, high-frequency waves. B)
low-amplitude, low-frequency waves.
C)
low-amplitude, high-frequency waves.
D) There is no systematic pattern to EEG activity.
32. EEG can be used to: A) monitor sleep. B)
estimate the depth of anesthesia.
C)
detect epilepsy.
D) All of the answers are correct.
33.
is used to measure the electrical activity of neurons on the surface of the cortex. A) ECG B)
ECoG
C)
MEG
D) ERP
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34. Place cells are found in the: A) parietal cortex. B)
cingulate gyrus.
C)
amygdala.
D) hippocampus.
35. Event-related potentials are: A) quite different from the EEG. B)
recorded from single neurons.
C)
brief changes in the EEG associated with a specific sensory event.
D) None of the answers is correct.
36. The terms N1, P2, and P3 are related to: A) TMS. B)
EEG.
C)
ERP.
D) fMRI.
37.
measures the magnetic fields associated with electrical signals in the cortex. A) EEG B)
fMRI
C)
ERP
D) MEG
38. The main advantage of MEG over event-related potentials (ERP) is: A) MEG is better at more precisely identifying the source of the activity being
recorded. B)
MEG is cheaper than EEG.
C)
MEG is better at detecting electrical activity than EEG.
D) All of the answers are correct.
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39. X-ray absorption is: A) low in bone. B)
high in cerebrospinal fluid.
C)
high in blood.
D) medium in neural tissue.
40. CT scans are not useful in differentiating: A) bone from blood. B)
bone from cerebrospinal fluid.
C)
white matter from gray matter.
D) cerebrospinal fluid from white matter.
41. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scans take advantage of the magnetic properties of: A) hydrogen atoms. B)
oxygen atoms.
C)
nitrogen atoms.
D) glucose atoms.
42. Magnetic resonance imaging involves: A) hydrogen atoms. B)
magnets.
C)
radio pulses.
D) All of the answers are correct.
43. Magnetic resonance imaging measures: A) radio pulses emitted by hydrogen atoms. B)
radiation emitted by nitrogen atoms.
C)
radiation emitted by oxygen atoms.
D) radio pulses emitted by oxygen atoms.
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44. Compared to CT scans, MRI scans are more useful for differentiating gray matter from white matter because: A) MRI acquires the images at a higher resolution compared to a CT scan. B) tissues with high water content generate a different MRI signal from that of tissues with low water content. C) of differences in oxygen content between gray matter and white matter. D) All of the answers are correct.
45. A computed tomography (CT) scan is a: A) series of X-rays. B)
series of gamma rays.
C)
electromagnetic differentiation of brain tissue.
D) measure of the density of hydrogen atoms.
46. Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) images nerve fiber pathways by detecting: A) the directional movement of water molecules. B)
different signal intensities between white blood cells and red blood cells.
C)
differences in blood oxygenation.
D) changes in regional cerebral blood flow.
is used to identify changes in fiber myelination.
47.
A) ECG B)
CT scan
C)
MRS
D) DTI
48.
can be used to determine the concentration of various brain metabolites. A) Diffusion tensor imaging B)
Electrocardiogram
C)
Magnetoencephalography
D) Magnetic resonance spectroscopy
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49. If one wanted to examine changes in the levels of various brain metabolites following a concussion, one could use: A) Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI). B)
electrocardiogram (ECG).
C)
Positron Emission Tomography (PET).
D) Magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS).
50. The basis of the fMRI signal is centered on the fact that: A) the magnetic properties of blood does not change with the amount of oxygen content in it. B) water has magnetic properties. C)
oxygen-rich blood has a smaller magnetic signal than oxygen-poor blood.
D) oxygen-rich blood has a larger magnetic signal than oxygen-poor blood.
51. fMRI has high but low . A) temporal resolution; spatial resolution B)
spatial resolution; temporal resolution
C)
radiation exposure; imaging clarity
D) None of the answers is correct.
52. Which of the following is NOT one of the disadvantages of fMRI? A) poor temporal resolution B)
subject must remain completely still
C)
feelings of claustrophobia
D) poor spatial resolution
53. Which of the following is a form of optical tomography? A) PET B)
fMRI
C)
fNIRS
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D) MRI
54. The technique that uses reflected infrared light to measure oxygen consumption by the brain is: A) fMRI. B)
fNIRS.
C)
cytogenetics.
D) cryogenetics.
55. If one is interested in measuring changes in brain activity over the frontal lobes as infants and toddlers learn language, the best technique to use is: A) ECG. B)
MRI.
C)
CT.
D) fNIRS.
56. Positron emission tomography (PET) uses: A) magnets. B)
radioactive isotopes.
C)
L-dopa.
D) hydrogen atoms.
57. To measure brain metabolic activity PET uses radioactive isotopes of: A) oxygen. B)
hydrogen.
C)
potassium.
D) glutamate.
58. PET can: A) detect the decay of radiochemicals. B)
detect relative amounts of neurotransmitters.
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C)
be used to study cognitive function.
D) All of the answers are correct.
59. Stimuli related to rewarding behaviors such as food and sex are correlated with fluctuations of: A) dopamine in the substantia nigra. B)
serotonin in the nucleus accumbens.
C)
serotonin in the substantia nigra.
D) dopamine in the nucleus accumbens.
60.
is a procedure in which a cannula is implanted to collect extracellular fluid. A) Microdialysis B)
Cerebral voltammetry
C)
PET
D) Microiontophoresis
61. Cerebral voltammetry is used to measure: A) neurotransmitter levels. B)
electrical activity using scalp electrodes.
C)
electrical activity using large electrodes placed in the brain tissue.
D) electrical activity of single neurons.
62. One advantage of cerebral voltammetry over microdialysis is that it: A) costs far less. B)
is not destructive in nature.
C)
does not require chemical analysis of the extracellular fluid.
D) None of the answers is correct.
63. Brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF) plays an important role in: A) neural transmission.
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B)
neurotransmitter reuptake.
C)
neural plasticity.
D) All of the answers are correct.
64. Low levels of brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF) have been associated with: A) depression. B)
stroke.
C)
Alzheimer's disease.
D) Parkinson's disease.
65. A study by Caspi and colleagues observed that if participants with the used cannabis in , they were more likely to develop psychosis. A) Val; adulthood B)
Met; adolescence
C)
Met; adulthood
D) Val; adolescence
66. The alleles Val 66Met and Val 66Val have been linked with: A) ADHD. B)
bipolar disorder.
C)
depression.
D) stroke.
67. The Met allele (gene) has been associated with: A) neuroticism. B)
poor episodic memory.
C)
anxiety disorders.
D) depression.
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genotype
68. The COMT gene has been linked with: A) depression. B)
schizophrenia.
C)
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
D) dementia.
69. Epigenetics is: A) the same as gene expression. B)
the study of the change in gene expression caused by experience.
C)
the study of gene alteration.
D) the alteration of DNA sequences.
70. Research has linked maternal attention in early childhood with: A) hippocampal volume. B)
temporal cortex volume.
C)
basal ganglia volume.
D) both temporal cortex and basal ganglia volume.
71. Identical twins' gene expression is: A) virtually identical throughout life. B)
totally dissimilar throughout life.
C)
similar when they are young but differs with age.
D) different when they are young but gets more similar with age.
72. Maternal attention given by mother rats to their infants alters the expression of certain genes in the: A) hippocampus. B)
amygdala.
C)
septum.
D) cingulate.
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73. Humans who have a history of childhood abuse and who commit suicide show epigenetic differences in the: A) cingulate. B)
septum.
C)
hippocampus.
D) amygdala.
74. Which of the following uses a rat model? A) Parkinson disease B)
stroke
C)
attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
D) All of the answers are correct.
75. To receive ethics approval to use animals in an experiment, the researcher must demonstrate: A) that the knowledge gained from the experiment is important enough to warrant the use of animals. B) that no other methods are available to investigate the same question. C)
that the animals will be treated humanely,
D) All of the answers are correct.
76. ADD and ADHD have been linked with in the A) abnormal dopamine levels; parietal lobes
.
B)
abnormal dopamine levels; frontal lobes and basal ganglia
C)
abnormal serotonin levels; frontal lobes and basal ganglia
D) abnormal noradrenaline levels; temporal lobes and amygdala
77. A recent review of ADD and ADHD by researchers demonstrated that: A) rates of ADD and ADHD are higher in developed nations. B)
rates of ADD and ADHD are lower in developed nations.
C) rates of ADD and ADHD are the same in developed and developing nations if the same diagnostic criteria are used.
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D) None of the answers is correct.
78. Companies using animals for research generally follow good laboratory practice, because if they don't: A) their work will not be published in journals. B)
government agencies will not accept their findings.
C)
they will be refused approval for clinical trials with humans.
D) All of the answers are correct.
79. Companies that use animals for research: A) must submit protocols to a university board. B)
must submit protocols to a government board.
C)
must be overseen by the SPCA.
D) are not required to follow a screening process.
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Chapter 8 – How does the nervous system develop and adapt? 1. Neuroimaging studies of brain development have revealed that children from families with low SES (socioeconomic status) show and score on tests of cognitive performance. A) decreased cortical surface area; lower B)
decreased cortical surface area; the same as high SES peers
C)
the same cortical surface area as their high SES peers; lower
D) increased cortical surface area; higher
2. The ability to plan efficiently is a cognitive behavior controlled by the: A) parietal lobes. B)
temporal lobes.
C)
occipital lobes.
D) frontal lobes.
3. You can test planning capability by using the: A) Weschler Adult Intelligence Scale. B)
digit span test.
C)
Tower of Hanoi test.
D) mirror drawing test.
4. Which of the following is NOT a correct statement about development? A) The brain of a child is the same as that of an adult, only smaller. B) Because there are behaviors that develop late, there must be neural structures that develop late. C) Because some brain structures develop late, there must be some behaviors that develop late. D) The brains of children at different ages are not comparable.
5. The frontal lobes are fully developed: A) at birth. B)
around age 5.
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C)
around age 10.
D) None of the answers is correct.
6. The idea of preformation would imply that: A) an embryo is a miniature adult. B)
embryos of different species look different.
C)
embryos should look nothing like an adult.
D) embryos of different species look different and embryos should look nothing like an adult.
7. A primitive brain can be seen in a human embryo by the A) first B)
second
C)
third
week after conception.
D) fourth
8. After the second week of prenatal development the . A) zygote; embryo B)
embryo; zygote
C)
zygote; fetus
progresses to become a(n)
D) embryo; fetus
9. After 9 weeks of prenatal development the A) embryo; fetus B)
zygote; egg
C)
zygote embryo
is considered a(n)
.
D) embryo; zygote
10. The forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain are first visible in a human embryo after about: A) 10 days.
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B)
14 days.
C)
28 days.
D) 35 days.
11. The central nervous system originates from: A) the neural crest. B)
the neural tube.
C)
the neural envelope.
D) the neural palace.
12. In human embryos, gyri and sulci first start to form after about: A) 30 days. B)
5 months.
C)
7 months.
D) 9 months.
13. Sexual differentiation occurs by the end of the A) first B)
second
C)
third
month of gestation.
D) fourth
14. Testosterone: A) is present only after the testes are formed. B)
affects the peripheral sexual characteristics but not the development of the brain.
C) affects the peripheral sexual characteristics and the development of the brain in males. D) is responsible for the pigmentation of cell walls inside neurons.
15. Male and female genitalia become differentiated at around: A) 30 days.
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B)
60 days.
C)
4 months.
D) 6 months.
16.
have an extensive capacity for self-renewal. A) Stem cells B)
Progenitor cells
C)
Glial cells
D) Neuroblasts
17. In an adult, stem cells are found in: A) the hippocampus. B)
the ventricles.
C)
the pia mater.
D) the CSF.
18. Progenitor cells come from: A) neuroblasts. B)
stem cells.
C)
glioblasts.
D) glial cells.
19. Neuroblasts and glioblasts are formed directly from: A) pyramidal cells. B)
progenitor cells.
C)
the ventricles.
D) the neural tube.
20. Which of the following sequences is correct? A) stem, progenitor, blast, glia
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B)
progenitor, stem, blast, glia
C)
blast, stem, progenitor, glia
D) stem, progenitor, glia, blast
21.
is the process that works to suppress gene expression during development. A) Methylation B)
Mutation
C)
Translation
D) Transcription
22. Prenatal stress A) can increase B)
can reduce
C)
can reverse
gene methylation.
D) has no influence on
23. Compounds that signal brain cells to develop in certain ways are called: A) progenitors. B)
neurotropic factors.
C)
somites.
D) chemical factors.
24. If you want to stimulate the production of progenitor cells in a stem cell culture, you should add the compound: A) nerve growth factor. B)
fibroblast growth factor.
C)
epidermal growth factor.
D) testosterone.
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25.
can be used to stimulate progenitor cells to produce neuroblasts. A) Nerve growth factor B)
BDNF
C)
bFGF
D) EGF
26. Which of the following is the correct sequence of brain development? A) cell birth, cell differentiation, cell migration, myelogenesis B)
cell birth, cell migration, cell differentiation, cell maturation
C)
cell birth, cell maturation, cell differentiation, cell migration
D) cell birth, cell maturation, myelogenesis, cell migration
27. Neurogenesis (the process of forming neurons) is largely complete after about months of gestation. A) one B)
two
C)
five
D) seven
28. Neuronal differentiation is largely complete by: A) 8 weeks. B)
23 weeks.
C)
29 weeks.
D) 11 weeks.
29. Cell differentiation: A) occurs after neuron maturation. B)
occurs after migration.
C)
occurs before neuron generation.
D) is not complete until well after birth.
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30. The brain can cope with injury more easily during: A) differentiation. B)
cell migration.
C)
neurogenesis.
D) neuron maturation.
31. The is thought to contain a primitive map or blueprint of the cortex that tells developing neurons to which location to migrate. A) brainstem B)
thalamus
C)
subventricular zone
D) hippocampus
32. Cells find their appropriate location by following a road laid down by: A) astrocytes. B)
oligodendrocytes.
C)
radial glial cells.
D) epithelial cells.
33. Cells in layer A) I B)
III
C)
IV
of the cortex develop first.
D) VI
34. The majority of glial cells migrate to their correct locations via: A) neurotrophic factors. B)
radial glial cells.
C)
chemical signals.
D) EGF.
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35. Neuronal maturation involves A) migration; specialization
and
B)
dendrite growth; synapse formation
C)
migration; synapse formation
.
D) specialization; dendrite growth
36. The process of dendrite growth that occurs in the first 2 years of life is referred to as: A) arborization. B)
extension.
C)
sprouting.
D) shaping.
37. The dendritic field in until about 2 years of age. A) the visual cortex B)
Broca's area
C)
the auditory cortex
starts off very simply, but becomes increasingly complex
D) the somatosensory cortex
38.
Dendrites develop on cells: A) before differentiation. B)
before migration.
C)
after cell maturation.
D) during cell maturation.
39. Jane is 7 years old. She has very poor language skills and is incredibly clumsy with her hands. Jane may have: A) autism spectrum disorder (ASD). B)
Asperger syndrome.
C)
Rett syndrome.
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D) William syndrome
40. In the 1990s, rates of autism were approximately 1 in 2000. However, recent estimates suggest that as many as children has some form of autism. A) 1 in 198. B) 1 in 76,000. C) 1 in 68. D) 1 in 1988.
41. Jeffrey is 6 years old. He is socially awkward and did not learn to walk until he was almost 2. In addition, he still has a hard time using a fork or spoon to feed himself. He is obsessed with model airplanes (he has more than 200 models and can name each one). Playing with his model airplanes is the only activity he engages in unless he is pressured into doing something else. Jeffrey MOST likely has: A) Asperger syndrome. B)
Autism spectrum disorder.
C)
Rett's syndrome.
D) William syndrome.
42. Which of the following guide growth cones to their appropriate destination? A) tropic molecules B)
neurotrophic factors
C)
adhesion molecules
D) tropic and adhesion molecules
43. The number of synaptic contacts in the human cerebral cortex is estimated to be on the order of: A) 1010. B) 108. C) 1014. D) 10100.
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44.
is(are) molecules that help(s) cells bind to one another to aid in migration. A) Tropic molecules B)
Nerve growth factor
C)
Cell adhesion molecules
D) Trophic molecules
45. It is estimated that synaptic pruning eliminates approximately synapses in the human cortex. A) 10 B)
40
C)
50
percent of
D) 65
46. One reason why cholinergic neurons in the basal forebrain die during synaptic pruning is that they must compete for limited amounts of: A) radial glial cells. B)
cell adhesion molecules.
C)
nerve growth factor.
D) tropic molecules.
47. Most neurons that die during synaptic pruning die as a result of: A) apoptosis. B)
necrosis.
C)
structural damage.
D) the death of sodium-potassium pumps.
48. In an experiment examining the ability of children to discriminate speech sounds of various languages, Werker and Tees found: A) that children younger than 2 years had no discrimination ability. B)
that children could discriminate, but the ability declines over the first year of life.
C) that children begin to discriminate during the first year and this ability continues to grow until they begin to speak at around age 2.
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D) that children are better at discriminating sounds than adults.
49. Which of the following statements about synaptic pruning is NOT true? A) Synaptic pruning probably can be influenced by drugs. B)
Synaptic pruning is proportionally larger in smaller-brained animals.
C)
Synaptic pruning is probably influenced by hormones.
D) Synaptic pruning is probably influenced by experience.
50. Research has demonstrated that aversive childhood experiences (e.g., physical abuse) are linked with: A) increased rates of mental illness in middle age. B)
increased rates of suicide in middle age.
C)
increased rates of addiction in middle age.
D) All of the answers are correct.
51. Children who score high on intelligence tests show the greatest plastic changes in their over time. A) parietal lobe B)
temporal lobe
C)
frontal lobe
D) hippocampus
52. The dendritic spine density on the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (DLPFC) is greatest in: A) children. B)
teenagers.
C)
adults.
D) older adults (i.e., age 65+).
53. The pincer grasp: A) is a reflex present at birth. B)
is not evident until age 2.
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C)
develops between 8 and 11 months of age.
D) disappears as the motor cortex develops.
54. Increases in cortical thickness in the hand area of the primary motor cortex are associated with: A) increases in hand size. B)
increases in grip strength.
C)
increases in manual dexterity.
D) increase in tendon brittleness.
55. The typical 6-year-old has a: A) 300- to 600-word vocabulary. B)
600- to 1000-word vocabulary.
C)
1000- to 2000-word vocabulary.
D) 2000- to 2500-word vocabulary.
56. Which of the following statements regarding language areas of the cortex is NOT correct? A) Changes in dendritic complexity in speech areas are among the most impressive in the brain. B) Language areas are the earliest regions of the cortex to complete myelination. C) Between 15 and 24 months of age there is a dramatic increase in the density of dendrites and axons in the language areas. D) By age 2 cell division and migration are complete in the language zones of the cerebral cortex.
57. Language development in children aged 2 to 4 years has been linked with: A) pruning of neurons in the left inferior frontal gyrus. B)
pruning of neurons in superior temporal gyrus.
C)
thickening of the cortex in the left inferior frontal cortex areas.
D) thinning of the cortex in the mouth region of the primary motor cortex.
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58. Which of the following sequences is correct according to Piaget's theory of cognitive development? A) sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational B)
sensorimotor, concrete operational, preoperational, formal operational
C)
sensorimotor, concrete operational, formal operational, preoperational
D) sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational, concrete operational
59. Kristen likes it when her mom cuts her sandwich into four pieces because she likes having four sandwiches instead of just one. Based on what you know about Piaget's theory of cognitive development (assuming Kristen is a normally developing child), pick the age that most accurately represents how old Kristen might be. A) 5 B)
13
C)
9
D) 11
60. William is playing a game with his little brother, and he takes his brother's favorite stuffed animal and hides it underneath a blanket. His little brother then grabs the blanket to reveal the hidden toy. It appears as though William's little brother has progressed past the: A) preoperational period. B)
concrete operational period.
C)
sensorimotor period.
D) formal operational period.
61. According to Piaget, in which development stage do children first begin to understand mathematical transformations? A) preoperational period B)
concrete operational period
C)
sensorimotor period
D) formal operational period
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62. Growth spurts up to age 16 account for large increases in brain weight. This is MOST likely due to increases in: A) the number of neurons and glial cells. B)
the number of glial cells and larger blood vessels.
C)
myelination.
D) neural pruning.
63. Which of the following is NOT associated with brain growth up to age 16? A) an increase in the number of neurons B)
an increase in the number of glial cells
C)
an increase in the number of synapses
D) an increase in the number of blood vessels
64. The nonmatching-to-sample task described in your text is thought to measure the functions of the: A) frontal lobes. B)
temporal lobes.
C)
basal ganglia.
D) limbic system.
65. The concurrent discrimination task described in your text is thought to measure the functions of the: A) frontal lobes. B)
temporal lobes.
C)
basal ganglia.
D) brainstem.
66. Studies have shown that children are able to solve the prior to the A) nonmatching-to-sample task; concurrent discrimination task B)
nonmatching-to-sample task; displacement task
C)
concurrent discrimination task; nonmatching-to-sample task
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.
D) concurrent discrimination task; displacement task
67. Rats raised in "stimulating" environments solve mazes: A) more slowly than rats raised in laboratory environments. B)
faster than rats raised in laboratory environments.
C)
just as quickly as rats raised in laboratory environments.
D) None of the answers is correct.
68. In rats has (have) been shown to lead to enhanced motor and cognitive skills and recovery from brain injury. A) an injection of growth hormones B)
a low-fat diet
C)
tactile stimulation
D) high dosages of vitamin C
69. Brain imaging studies that investigated native and second languages revealed that second languages tend to result in great activation in: A) the auditory cortex. B)
the striatum and cerebellum.
C)
the inferior parietal cortex.
D) All of the answers are correct.
70. The is the notion that neurons or their axons and dendrites are drawn toward a chemical that indicates the correct pathway. A) chemical biomarker hypothesis B)
chemo-gradient hypothesis
C)
chemoaffinity hypothesis
D) genetic blueprint hypothesis
71. The condition in which vision in one eye is reduced as a result of disuse is known as: A) hemianopia.
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B)
macular degeneration.
C)
astigmatism.
D) amblyopia.
72. The results of Horn's electron microscopic studies show that synapses in a specific region enlarge with imprinting. A) forebrain B)
basal ganglia
C)
midbrain
D) hindbrain
73. Dogs that are deprived of stimulation during rearing: A) seek out human affection. B)
seek out other dogs.
C)
have an abnormal response to pain.
D) perform better on intelligence tests than dogs reared in stimulating settings.
74. Masculinization refers to the effects of: A) testosterone on brain cells. B)
too little estrogen on female embryos.
C)
testosterone on female embryos.
D) too little estrogen on brain cells.
75. Romanian orphans who were adopted before children born and raised in North America. A) 24 months of age B)
36 months of age
C)
5 years of age
D) 8 years of age
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later tested at the same IQ level as
76. Jocelyne Bachevalier trained infant male and female monkeys on both the concurrent discrimination task and the object reversal task. She found that the female monkeys were: A) superior to the males on the object reversal task and equal on the concurrent discrimination task. B) superior to the males on the concurrent discrimination task and equal on the object reversal task. C) better on the concurrent task and the males were better on the object reversal task. D) better on the object reversal task and the males were better on the concurrent task.
77. Complex environmental housing: A) increases dendritic growth in the hippocampus of female rats more than in males. B)
increases dendritic growth in the visual cortex of both sexes equally.
C)
increases dendritic growth in the hippocampus of male rats more than in females.
D) has no effect on dendritic growth in the visual cortex of either sex but does produce an increase in the number of glial cells.
78. Male and female brains are: A) different only in size. B)
different in response to environmental events.
C)
different only during early development.
D) unaffected by gonadal hormones.
79. Children who have brain injuries to language areas in the first 2 years of life: A) never recover language function. B)
recover function over many years.
C)
almost never show severe language disturbances.
D) show lack of further development of language while maintaining their pre-injury level of function.
80. In utero the fetus's gut: A) has the same microbiome as the mother. B)
has a microbiome that is half from the mother and half from the father.
C)
is sterile.
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D) has a microbiome that is determined by what the mother eats.
81. Some researchers suggest that prenatal exposure to caffeine or nicotine may lead to a child developing: A) autism spectrum disorder. B)
William syndrome
C)
ADHD.
D) developmental dyslexia.
82. Anencephaly is a result of: A) acute brain injury. B)
failure of the back end of the neural tube to close.
C)
failure of the front end of the neural tube to close.
D) a spinal cord abnormality.
83. Abnormal brain development that results in behavioral effects: A) is immediately evident. B)
may not be evident until adolescence.
C)
may not be evident until the brain starts to lose neurons in the third decade.
D) cannot be detected until autopsy.
84. Research has linked sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) with: A) genes that regulate serotonin transporters. B)
genes that regulate dopamine transporters.
C)
genes that regulate norepinephrine transporters.
D) genes that regulate acetylcholine transporters.
85.
Down syndrome is caused by: A) a hormonal abnormality. B)
a brain injury.
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C)
a neurological disease.
D) a genetic abnormality.
86. Cerebral palsy can be caused by: A) a genetic abnormality. B)
a neurological disease.
C)
a hormone imbalance.
D) oxygen deprivation.
87. Phenylketonuria is caused by: A) anoxia. B)
metabolic error.
C)
infection.
D) abnormal brain development.
88. Kwashiorkor syndrome is caused by: A) chronic malnutrition. B)
birth trauma.
C)
a genetic abnormality.
D) sensory deprivation.
89. In a study examining the brains of developmentally disabled children, Dominique Purpura found: A) fewer dendrites than normal. B)
fewer neurons than normal.
C)
fewer glial cells.
D) more glial cells.
90. Brain scans and autopsies of the brains of patients with schizophrenia have shown: A) smaller ventricles.
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B)
heavier brains because of increased glial growth.
C)
a decrease in the number of neurons in the prefrontal cortex.
D) a larger parahippocampal gyrus.
91. Some researchers have suggested that schizophrenia results from the abnormal development of the: A) amygdala. B)
frontal cortex.
C)
hippocampus.
D) temporal cortex.
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Chapter 9 – How do we sense, perceive and see the world? 1. The patient D. B. became blind in the left half of his visual field after surgery but: A) regained his sight after a long recovery. B)
could tell you where a flashing light was located in his blind area.
C)
was only blind to the right half of the midline and never showed recovery.
D) filled in the scotoma left by the surgery at the cortical level.
2. The part of the sensory world that stimulates a neuron is called the neuron's: A) target zone. B)
response region.
C)
receptive field.
D) active region.
3. Optic flow tells us: A) how fast we are going. B)
whether we are going in a straight line or up or down.
C)
whether we are moving or the object is moving.
D) All of the answers are correct.
4. Auditory flow gives us information about: A) the source of sounds in the environment. B)
the frequency of a sound.
C)
the timbre of a sound.
D) changes in pitch.
5. Photoreceptors for black and white light are A) less sensitive B)
more sensitive
C)
smaller
D) fewer in number
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than photoreceptors for color.
6. A is a neural-spatial representation of areas of the sensory world perceived by a sensory organ. A) sensory blueprint B)
sensory layout
C)
receptor grid
D) topographic map
7. A condition in which a person hears in color or experiences different tastes when touching different textures would likely be diagnosed as: A) schizophrenia. B)
synesthesia.
C)
sensory crossing disorder.
D) a damaged thalamus.
8. The light-sensitive surface in the back of the eye is called the: A) sclera. B)
lens.
C)
iris.
D) retina.
9. The retina: A) has receptors that face the incoming light. B)
receives an image that is upside down but not backward.
C)
receives an image that is upside down and backward.
D) has receptors that face the incoming light and receives an image that is upside down but not backward.
10. If we wear glasses that turn the image of the world upside down, the brain: A) will immediately compensate and turn the world right side up again. B)
will turn the world so it is right side up again after only a few hours.
C)
after several days will suddenly turn the world so it is right side up again.
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D) cannot compensate, but while the world is upside down we very rapidly adapt our behavior.
11.
is the subjective interpretation of sensations by the brain; is the registration of events from the environment on the sensory receptors. A) Perception; sensation B)
Sensation; perception
C)
Transduction; sensation
D) Perception; transduction
12. Visible light is: A) 100 to 700 nanometers. B)
400 to 700 nanometers.
C)
300 to 800 nanometers.
D) 500 to 1000 nanometers.
13. Difficulty seeing things that are not close to you (i.e., nearsightedness) is called: A) hyperopia. B)
myopia.
C)
presbyopia.
D) maculitis.
14. The clinical term for farsightedness is: A) hyperopia. B)
myopia.
C)
fovea.
D) maculitis.
15.
is caused by weakening of the elasticity of the lens in people older than 50 years. A) Hyperopia B)
Myopia
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C)
Presbyopia
D) Macular degeneration
16. The white part that forms the eyeball is called the: A) cornea. B)
sclera.
C)
retina.
D) choroid layer.
17. Which of the following is NOT true of rates of myopia in children? A) Children spend more time doing schoolwork, which encourages the use of shortrange vision and strains the eye muscles. B) Children who watch more than 2 hours of television a day have higher rates of myopia. C) Children who live in sunnier climates have lower rates of myopia. D) Spending too much time indoors increases rates of myopia.
18. Light is bent first by the A) lens B)
cornea
C)
sclera
before entering the pupil.
D) fovea
19. The colored part of the eye is called the: A) iris. B)
lens.
C)
cornea.
D) sclera.
20. People with myopia often have eyeballs that are often have eyeballs that are . A) too short; too long
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, whereas people with hyperopia
B)
too large; too small
C)
too long; too short
D) too small; too large
21. Photoreceptors are mostly densely packed in: A) the fovea. B)
peripheral vision.
C)
the retina.
D) the optic disc.
22. The portion of the eye that has the highest visual acuity is called the: A) retina. B)
fovea.
C)
magnification zone.
D) lens.
23. The optic disc is also known as the: A) fovea. B)
optic nerve.
C)
blind spot.
D) iris.
24. Swelling of the optic disc is known clinically as: A) macular degeneration. B)
presbyopia.
C)
retinopathy.
D) papilledema.
25. Optic neuritis: A) swells the blind spot.
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B)
causes loss of vision.
C)
is probably the most common neurologic visual disorder.
D) All of the answers are correct.
26. There is(are) A) two B)
three
C)
four
type(s) of cone cells.
D) one
27. Rods are found primarily in , whereas cones are found primarily in A) the fovea; peripheral vision B)
the retina; the optic disc
C)
the optic disc; the fovea
D) peripheral vision; the fovea
28. A wavelength of 559 nanometers appears to us as: A) orange. B)
green.
C)
yellow.
D) blue.
29. A wavelength of 419 nanometers appears to us as: A) red. B)
green.
C)
yellow.
D) blue.
30. Rods have a peak sensitivity at: A) 250 nanometers.
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.
B)
419 nanometers.
C)
559 nanometers.
D) 496 nanometers.
31. People's ability to see in dim light decreases by approximately 20 and 40 years. A) 50 percent B)
25 percent
C)
75 percent
between ages of
D) 60 percent
32. David is 40 years old. He is having a hard time seeing at night when he drives because his eyesight has decreased around 50 percent since he was 20. His night vision will likely decrease by another by the time he is 60. A) 10 percent B)
30 percent
C)
50 percent
D) 70 percent
33. Which of the color-sensitive photoreceptors are fewest in number? A) yellow cones B)
red cones
C)
blue cones
D) green cones
34. Which of the following is the correct order of neuron layers in the retina from outermost to innermost? A) bipolar cell layer, ganglion cell layer, photoreceptor layer B)
photoreceptor layer, ganglion cell layer, bipolar cell layer
C)
ganglion cell layer, bipolar cell layer, photoreceptor layer
D) photoreceptor layer, bipolar cell layer, ganglion cell layer
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35. Which of the following is NOT a type of retinal neuron? A) bipolar cells B)
horizontal cells
C)
amacrine cells
D) stellate cells
36. Horizontal cells in the eye link the: A) bipolar cells to the retinal ganglion cells. B)
receptors to the bipolar cells.
C)
bipolar cells to the amacrine cells.
D) receptors to the amacrine cells.
37. Amacrine cells link: A) bipolar cells with horizontal cells. B)
horizontal cells with photoreceptors.
C)
photo receptors with retinal ganglion cells.
D) bipolar cells with retinal ganglion cells.
38. Parvocellular cells: A) primarily receive their input from rods. B)
are sensitive to light but not color.
C)
primarily receive their input from cones.
D) form the first retinal layer.
39. Magnocellular cells: A) primarily receive input from rods. B)
are insensitive to color.
C)
have low visual acuity.
D) All of the answers are correct.
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40. Retinal ganglion cells form the: A) fovea. B)
optic disc.
C)
lateral geniculate nucleus.
D) optic nerve.
41. In the optic chiasm, information from the retinas crosses to the opposite side, whereas information from the retinas stays on the same side. A) nasal; temporal B)
central; peripheral
C)
temporal; nasal
D) peripheral; central
42. Cutting the optic nerve of the right eye prior to reaching the optic chiasm will result in loss of vision in: A) the right visual field. B)
the left visual field.
C)
half of each visual field.
D) the two nasal fields.
43. A second main visual pathway (in addition to the geniculostriate system) is organized as follows: A) retina, lateral geniculate nucleus, superior colliculus, pulvinar, striate cortex, other visual areas. B) retina, superior colliculus, pulvinar, striate cortex, other visual areas. C)
retina, superior colliculus, pulvinar, other visual areas.
D) retina, pulvinar, superior colliculus, other visual areas.
44. The is the primary visual relay nucleus in the thalamus. A) medial geniculate nucleus B)
lateral geniculate nucleus
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C)
ventral pulvinar nucleus
D) mediodorsal nucleus
45. The geniculostriate system is as follows: A) retina, lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus, layer IV of the visual cortex. B)
retina, lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus, layer VI of the visual cortex.
C)
retina, superior colliculus, thalamus, layer IV of the visual cortex.
D) retina, superior colliculus, thalamus, layer VI of the visual cortex.
46. The superior colliculus sends its most direct connections to the: A) lateral geniculate nucleus. B)
pulvinar.
C)
striate cortex.
D) parietal cortex.
47. Photosensitive retinal ganglion cells form the: A) geniculostriate visual pathway. B)
tectopulvinar visual pathway.
C)
retinohypothalamic tract.
D) All of the answers are correct.
48. The function of the retinohypothalamic tract is to: A) process color information. B)
process form information.
C)
initiate orienting responses.
D) regulate circadian rhythms.
49. The ventral stream projects to the: A) occipital lobe. B)
parietal lobe.
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C)
temporal lobe.
D) limbic lobe.
50. The dorsal stream projects to the: A) occipital lobe. B)
parietal lobe.
C)
temporal lobe.
D) limbic lobe.
51. The six layers of the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) receive which of the following inputs from the eyes? A) layers 2, 4, and 6 from the ipsilateral eye B)
layers 2, 4, and 6 from the contralateral eye
C)
layers 1, 4, and 6 from the contralateral eye
D) layers 1, 4, and 6 from the ipsilateral eye
52. Magnocellular cells send their projections to layers and parvocellular neurons send their projections to layers of the lateral geniculate nucleus. A) 1 to 3; 4 to 6 B)
4 to 6; 1 to 3
C)
1 and 2; 3 to 6
D) 3 to 6; 1 and 2
53. Parvocellular cells send their projections to layer A) IVC𝛼 B)
IVC𝛼
C)
IVCd
of visual cortex.
D) V
54. Magnocellular cells send their projections to layer A) IVC𝛼
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of visual cortex.
B)
IVC𝛼
C)
IVCd
D) V
55. The tectopulvinar pathway is especially sensitive to: A) fine details. B)
movement.
C)
color.
D) texture.
56. The tectopulvinar pathway can be used to explain: A) blindsight. B)
visual agnosia.
C)
cortical blindness.
D) color blindness.
57. The superior colliculus plays an important role in: A) object recognition. B)
color perception.
C)
circadian rhythms.
D) orienting responses.
58. The pulvinar sends projections to the temporal lobe, whereas the sends projections to the parietal lobe. A) dorsal; ventral B)
medial; lateral
C)
ventral; dorsal
D) lateral; medial
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pulvinar
59. Patient D. B. was able to locate spots of light presented in his blind field even though he could not see them because: A) his geniculostriate pathway was intact. B)
his retinohypothalamic pathway was still intact.
C)
his tectopulvinar pathway was still intact.
D) his dorsal stream was damaged.
60. Which of the following sequences is correct? A) rods, cones, bipolar, ganglion, lateral geniculate, simple cortical cells B)
rods, cones, ganglion, bipolar, lateral geniculate, simple cortical cells
C)
rods, cones, bipolar, ganglion, simple cortical cells, lateral geniculate
D) rods, cones, ganglion, lateral geniculate, bipolar, simple cortical cells
61. The primary visual cortex is also known as: A) V1. B)
V2.
C)
V3.
D) V4.
62. Cells in the blobs found in the visual cortex are involved in: A) form perception. B)
motion perception.
C)
color perception.
D) form and color perception.
63. In area V2, the thin stripes carry information about information about . A) color; form B)
form; motion
C)
motion; color
D) color; motion
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, whereas thick stripes carry
64. The ventral stream is important for , whereas the dorsal stream is important for . A) object identification; control of movement B)
control of movement; control of language
C)
control of language; object identification
D) control of movement; object identification
65. Area controls eye movements, whereas area grasping. A) LIP; FFA B)
AIP; LIP
C)
PPA; AIP
controls visually guided
D) LIP; AIP
66. Since his recent stroke Roger has had trouble controlling his eye movements. In addition, when he reaches out to pick up objects, he often misses them. Roger most likely has damage to his: A) ventral stream in the temporal lobe. B)
dorsal stream in the parietal lobe.
C)
dorsal stream in the temporal lobe.
D) ventral stream in the parietal lobe.
67. You are a researcher interested in understanding how single neurons might play a role in coding the identity of different faces. To examine this, you plan to do single unit recordings in monkeys. To ensure best chances of success, you decide to place your recording electrodes in area: A) FFA. B)
PPA.
C)
MT.
D) V4.
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68. The receptive field of a lateral geniculate cell is: A) larger than the receptive field of a retinal ganglion cell. B)
the same shape as the receptive field of a retinal ganglion cell.
C)
composed of on-centers and off-surrounds or off-centers and on-surrounds.
D) All of the answers are correct.
69. Visual information from the lower portion of the visual field is coded in the: A) upper portion of V1. B)
lower portion of V1.
C)
anterior portion of V1.
D) posterior portion of V1.
70. In the visual cortex, the fovea has: A) less representation than the periphery because the fovea has fewer cells on the retina. B) the same representation on the cortex as the periphery. C) more representation on the cortex than the periphery even though it has fewer cells in the retina. D) more representation on the cortex because the fovea has more cells than the periphery.
71. Compared with retinal ganglion cells, cells in V1 have A) larger B)
smaller
C)
equally sized
receptive fields.
D) upside down
72. The corpus callosum: A) connects the medial but not the lateral portions of the visual fields. B)
connects the lateral but not the medial portions of the visual fields.
C)
connects the entire visual fields from the two hemispheres.
D) does not connect the two visual fields but does connect the parietal and frontal lobes.
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73. Luminance contrast begins at the A) lateral geniculate B)
ganglion
C)
simple cortical
cell level.
D) complex cortical
74. On-center cells: A) are excited by light that falls across their entire receptive field. B)
are excited by light that falls in the periphery of their receptive field.
C)
are inhibited by light that falls in the center of their receptive field.
D) are excited by light that falls in the center of their receptive field.
75. Retinal ganglion cells are very active when their receptive fields process: A) uniformly bright surfaces. B)
uniformly dark surfaces.
C)
the edge between a light surface and a dark surface.
D) dimly illuminated surfaces.
76. Orientation detection is first coded by: A) the lateral geniculate cells. B)
simple cortical cells.
C)
complex cortical cells.
D) hypercomplex cortical cells.
77. Cells that respond to a moving bar of light in a specific orientation, without a strong inhibitory area at one end, are called: A) lateral geniculate cells. B)
simple cortical cells.
C)
complex cortical cells.
D) hypercomplex cortical cells.
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78. Cells that respond to moving bars and have a strong inhibitory area at one end of the receptive field are called: A) lateral geniculate cells. B)
simple cortical cells.
C)
complex cortical cells.
D) hypercomplex cortical cells.
79. Ocular dominance columns: A) respond to lines in the same orientation. B)
respond to lines in slightly different orientations.
C)
receive input from each eye.
D) None of the answers is correct.
80. Single-cell recordings in the primate temporal cortex have revealed that many neurons there respond to: A) a single visual feature. B)
a combination of two visual features.
C)
a combination of many different visual features.
D) bright and dark areas in the visual scene.
81. The trichromatic theory of color vision is associated with the: A) retina. B)
lateral geniculate.
C)
striate cortex.
D) temporal lobe.
82. In order to be able to see at least some range of color you need: A) three types of cones. B)
two types of cones.
C)
one type of cone.
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D) four types of cones.
83. The incidence of partial lack of one of the cones in the male population is: A) 5 percent. B)
7 percent.
C)
10 percent.
D) 12 percent.
84. Someone who lacks red cones and is red-green color blind has: A) tritanopia. B)
protanopia.
C)
deuteranopia.
D) rhodanopsia.
85. Someone who lacks green cones and is red-green color blind has: A) tritanopia. B)
protanopia.
C)
deuteranopia.
D) rhodanopsia.
86. Someone who lacks blue cones has: A) tritanopia. B)
protanopia.
C)
deuteranopia.
D) rhodanopsia.
87. Opponent-process color coding begins in: A) V1. B)
the lateral geniculate nucleus.
C)
cones.
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D) retinal ganglion cells.
88. A spot of green light presented entirely within the center of a red (on-center)–green (offsurround) color opponent retinal ganglion cell would result in: A) a strong response (i.e., an increase in firing). B)
a weak response (i.e., a decrease in firing).
C)
a very strong response (i.e., a large increase in firing).
D) no response (i.e., no firing at all).
89. Which visual cortical region mediates color constancy? A) V1 B)
V2
C)
V3
D) V4
90. Cells in the dorsal stream are sensitive to: A) faces. B)
color.
C)
movement.
D) color and movement.
91. Allen is 84 years old and recently had a stroke that damaged the lower (inferior) portion of his calcarine fissure in the right hemisphere. This resulted in: A) a left homonymous hemianopia. B)
a right upper visual field quadrantanopia.
C)
a left upper visual field quadrantanopia.
D) a left lower visual field quadrantanopia.
92. Homonymous hemianopia occurs when: A) the optic nerve is cut behind the eye. B)
the optic chiasm is cut.
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C)
the lateral geniculate is cut.
D) the optic nerve and the lateral geniculate are cut.
93. Small blind spots in the visual field are called: A) hemianopias. B)
scotomas.
C)
nystagmus.
D) agnosias.
94. A person with visual-form agnosia: A) cannot see objects in the visual field. B)
can see the object and tell you what it does but cannot name it.
C)
can see the object, but cannot tell you what it does and cannot name it.
D) None of the answers is correct.
95. Which of the following is NOT one of the symptoms of visual-form agnosia in patient D. F.? A) an inability to recognize objects B)
an inability to copy drawings of objects
C)
an inability to draw objects from memory
D) an inability to determine the orientation of an object
96. The visual-form agnosia patient D. F. could not A) identify objects; grasp objects appropriately B)
identify objects; draw objects accurately
C)
grasp objects appropriately; identify objects
D) draw objects accurately; recognize objects
97. Shaping of the fingers to pick up an object is a: A) visually guided conscious act.
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, but she could still
.
B)
nonvisually guided conscious act.
C)
nonvisually guided unconscious act.
D) visually guided unconscious act.
98. After lesions to V5, patient L. M. could no longer: A) read. B)
grasp objects.
C)
detect movement.
D) recognize objects.
99. Patients described as having optic ataxia could NOT: A) make accurate movements toward their body. B)
make visually guided movements.
C)
walk.
D) make accurate movements toward their body or make visually guided movements.
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Chapter 10 – How do we hear, speak and make music? 1. Neanderthals: A) did not bury their dead with artifacts. B)
were assumed to have complex language.
C)
left evidence that they may have had musical instruments.
D) did not use tools.
2. Research into the evolution of music suggests that: A) all singing primates are monogamous. B)
music may be related to sexual behavior.
C)
music is processed by the right temporal lobe.
D) All of the answers are correct.
3. Sound waves are created by: A) the compression of air molecules. B)
the rarefaction of air molecules.
C)
undulating displacement of air molecules caused by pressure changes.
D) None of the answers are correct.
4. Sound travels at a speed of: A) 700 feet/second. B)
1100 feet/second.
C)
1000 feet/second.
D) 800 feet/second.
5. Twenty-five cycles per second is equivalent to: A) 5 Hz. B)
25 Hz.
C)
50 Hz.
D) 100 Hz.
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6. Frequency of sound waves roughly corresponds to our perception of: A) timbre. B)
complexity.
C)
loudness.
D) pitch.
7. The range for the perception of sound in humans is: A) 10 to 15,000 Hz. B) 20 to 20,000 Hz. C) 30 to 25,000 Hz. D) 20 to 30,000 Hz.
8. Which of the following species is said to have a narrow range of auditory frequency perception? A) birds B)
whales
C)
humans
D) bats
9. Another word for sound quality or complexity is: A) pitch. B)
timbre.
C)
loudness.
D) prosody.
10. If we increase the amount of air that is compacted in each sound wave but keep the same number of waves, then we have changed the: A) timbre. B)
pitch.
C)
amplitude.
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D) frequency.
11. Decibels are a measure of: A) sound amplitude. B)
pitch.
C)
frequency.
D) timbre.
12. Normal speech sounds are around: A) 30 dB. B)
40 dB.
C)
50 dB.
D) 60 dB.
13. Sounds that are louder than A) 50 dB B)
90 dB
C)
100 dB
are considered by most people to be loud.
D) 70 dB
14. Exposure to sounds louder than A) 50 dB B)
70 dB
C)
120 dB
is likely to cause hearing damage.
D) 100 dB
15. Rock musicians frequently show loss of sensitivity to sound in the: A) 4000 Hz range. B)
5000 Hz range.
C)
6000 Hz range.
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D) 7000 Hz range.
16. Pure tones are sounds: A) that are not amplified. B)
with a single frequency.
C)
that have a unique timbre.
D) with a pitch between 5000 and 10,000 Hz.
17. Complex tones are: A) low-frequency tones. B)
high-frequency tones.
C)
a combination of frequencies.
D) half tones.
18. In order to break down a complex tone into its constituent pure tones, perform a: A) Fourier analysis. B)
regression analysis.
C)
pattern analysis.
D) spectral analysis.
19. The rate at which a complex waveform repeats is called its: A) resonant frequency. B)
Fourier frequency.
C)
fundamental frequency.
D) repetition frequency.
20. Overtones are: A) high-frequency tones. B)
half increments of the fundamental frequency.
C)
multiples of the fundamental frequency.
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D) restricted only to speech sounds.
21.
are examples of complex tones. A) Notes played by musical instruments B)
Bird songs
C)
Human speech sounds
D) All of the answers are correct.
22. Aperiodic tones are considered to be: A) noise. B)
pure tones.
C)
complex tones.
D) overtones.
23. The threshold of human hearing allows us to detect the displacement of air molecules of roughly: A) 10 picometers. B)
1 picometer.
C)
20 picometers.
D) 100 picometers.
24. Nonspeech and nonmusical noise are perceived as a buzz at a rate of about: A) 3 segments per second. B)
5 segments per second.
C)
7 segments per second.
D) 10 segments per second.
25. We are capable of understanding speech at rates of A) 30 B)
40
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segments per second.
C)
50
D) 60
26. Frequency is described in: A) decibels. B)
hertz.
C)
pitch.
D) segments per second.
27. Timbre refers to: A) our perception of loudness. B)
our perception of pitch.
C)
a sound's perceived uniqueness.
D) None of the answers are correct.
28. Susan is able to distinguish between a French horn and a trombone even when they are playing the same note at the same loudness. This is accomplished through using the differences in: A) amplitude. B)
pitch.
C)
frequency.
D) timbre.
29. Prosody means the same as: A) tone of voice. B)
speech amplitude.
C)
speed of language.
D) frequency.
30. It is likely that speech and music perception are located in the: A) frontal lobes.
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B)
parietal lobes.
C)
temporal lobes.
D) frontal and temporal lobes.
31.
The auditory system has: A) one type of receptor. B)
three types of receptors.
C)
a different type of receptor for each frequency.
D) four types of receptors.
32. The purpose of the pinna is to: A) transduce sound waves into neural firing. B)
protect the inner ear.
C)
funnel sound waves into the ear canal.
D) vibrate in response to sound waves.
33. The correct order of the middle ear bones from nearest to the eardrum to nearest the oval window is: A) stirrup, anvil, hammer. B)
anvil, hammer, stirrup.
C)
hammer, stirrup anvil.
D) hammer, anvil, stirrup.
34. The stirrup sits against the: A) eardrum. B)
oval window.
C)
round window.
D) cochlea.
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35. Which of the following structures is NOT part of the organ of Corti? A) inner hair cells B)
outer hair cells
C)
eardrum
D) basilar membrane
36. Which of the following frequencies is likely to be coded closest to the apex of the cochlea? A) 15,000 Hz B) 18,000 Hz C) 300 Hz D) 1000 Hz
37. In the human cochlea there are approximately A) 2000
inner hair cells.
B) 3500 C) 12,000 D) 15,500
38. The act(s) to relax or contract the basilar membrane to change its stiffness, and thus, its response to sound waves. A) inner hair cells B)
outer hair cells
C)
bipolar cells
D) cochlear nuclei
39. Movement of hair-cell cilia in a direction toward the tallest cilia results in: A) hyperpolarization. B)
polarization.
C)
depolarization.
D) None of the answers are correct.
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40. Movement of hair-cell cilia in a direction toward the shortest cilia results in: A) hyperpolarization. B)
polarization.
C)
depolarization.
D) None of the answers are correct.
41. Bipolar cells receive input from: A) many hair cells. B)
many ganglion cells.
C)
one hair cell.
D) one ganglion cell.
42. The axons of form the auditory nerve. A) inner hair cells B)
outer hair cells
C)
bipolar cells
D) auditory interneurons
43. Which of the following sequences is the correct auditory route to the cortex? A) cochlear nucleus, olivary complex, inferior colliculus, medial geniculate, auditory cortex B) cochlear nucleus, inferior colliculus, olivary complex, medial geniculate, auditory cortex C) cochlear nucleus, olivary complex, medial geniculate, inferior colliculus, auditory cortex D) cochlear nucleus, medial geniculate, olivary complex, inferior colliculus, auditory cortex
44. The thalamic relay nucleus for the auditory system is the: A) pulvinar nucleus. B)
lateral geniculate nucleus.
C)
medial geniculate nucleus.
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D) ventrolateral nucleus.
45. Inputs from the are sent to primary auditory cortex (A1). A) dorsal lateral geniculate nucleus B)
ventral lateral geniculate nucleus
C)
ventral medial geniculate nucleus
D) dorsal medial geniculate nucleus
46. Damage to the left auditory cortex would lead to: A) deafness in the left ear. B)
deafness in the right ear.
C)
deafness in both ears.
D) None of the answers are correct.
47. The recognition of objects by sound is accomplished by the: A) dorsal auditory pathway. B)
ventral auditory pathway.
C)
anterior auditory pathway.
D) lateral auditory pathway.
48.
is (are) often used to measure the functionality of the inner ear in newborn infants. A) Frequency analysis B)
Otoacoustic emissions
C)
Fourier analysis
D) Auditory evoked potentials
49. The planum temporale is: A) the same as Heschl's gyrus. B)
smaller on the left than on the right in right-handed people.
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C)
also known as Wernicke's area on the left side.
D) All of the answers are correct.
50. The human A1 auditory area is found in: A) the planum temporale. B)
Wernicke's area.
C)
Broca's area.
D) Heschl's gyrus.
51. The left planum temporale is generally larger in: A) left-handed individuals. B)
right-handed individuals.
C)
bilingual speakers.
D) females.
52.
has a special role in processing music. A) The left planum temporale B)
The right planum temporale
C)
Heschl's gyrus in the left hemisphere
D) Heschl's gyrus in the right hemisphere
53. A study by Thaler and colleagues examined the brain regions involved in human echolocation by blind individuals. Their study found that echolocation in blind individuals seemed to rely on activation in: A) Broca's area. B)
the ventral auditory pathway.
C)
primary auditory cortex.
D) visual cortex.
54. Damage to the can cause problems with both language and taste perception. A) left planum temporale
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B)
insula
C)
left Wernicke's area
D) right parietal cortex
55. Research on the tuning curves of individual inner hair cells indicates that: A) each hair cell responds only to a single frequency. B)
each hair cell responds to all possible frequencies in the human hearing range.
C) each hair cell responds maximally to a single frequency but also responds somewhat to nearby frequencies. D) only outer hair cells respond to different frequencies.
56. Increases in loudness are coded by: A) the activation of more hair cells. B)
the activation of more bipolar cells.
C)
an increased rate of firing in bipolar cells.
D) activation of loudness detectors in the medial geniculate nucleus.
57. Gerald is walking through the forest at night, and he hears what sounds like an animal walking somewhere to his left. Gerald localized the source of this sound using , which relies on neurons in the . A) differences in arrival time between the two ears; medial superior olive B)
differences in loudness between the two ears; medial superior olive
C)
differences in arrival time between the two ears; lateral superior olive
D) differences in loudness between the two ears; lateral superior olive
58. Barn owls' ears are at different heights on the left and right sides of their head. This unique feature helps them better locate sounds that are: A) to the left or right. B)
above or below.
C)
in front or behind.
D) All of the answers are correct.
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59. Rachael hears what sounds like a car alarm sounding off. In order for her to localize this high frequency continuous sound her auditory system will take advantage of: A) differences in the arrival times of the sound between the two ears. B)
differences in the elevation of the sound between the two ears.
C)
differences in the intensity of the sound arriving at both ears.
D) All of the answers are correct.
60. Studies with humans have shown that if two sounds presented through earphones are separated by as little as microseconds, the sound will be perceived as being on the side of the leading ear. A) 5 B)
10
C)
15
D) 20
61. The computation for detecting the location of a sound by comparing the time difference between the two ears occurs at the: A) auditory cortex. B)
superior olivary complex.
C)
medial geniculate.
D) inferior colliculus.
62. In the world today there are approximately A) 2000
languages.
B) 3000 C) 6000 D) 10,000
63. Children in all cultures begin to combine words around A) 12 B)
14
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months of age.
C)
18
D) 36
64. The sensitive period (i.e., critical period) for learning language is probably between: A) 2 years and 7 years of age. B)
1 year and 6 years of age.
C)
1 year and 10 years of age.
D) 2 years and 10 years of age.
65. The development of new languages is sometimes described as: A) pidginization. B)
creolization.
C)
lingualization.
D) None of the answers are correct.
66. Eric is a 10-year-old boy who learned English and German at the same time as a child. Eric suffered a recent head injury and has damage to Broca's area in the left hemisphere. This means that Eric will most likely have Broca's aphasia: A) for English only. B)
for German only.
C)
for both English and German.
D) only if Broca's area is damaged in both hemispheres.
67. Broca's area is located in the: A) left temporal lobe. B)
right temporal lobe.
C)
left frontal lobe.
D) right frontal lobe.
68. Wernicke's area is located in the: A) left temporal lobe.
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B)
right temporal lobe.
C)
left frontal lobe.
D) right frontal lobe.
69. Broca's aphasia is associated with: A) deficits in initiating the motor programs for speech. B)
deficits in the comprehension of language.
C)
impaired facial movements.
D) impaired auditory perception.
70. Wernicke's aphasia is associated with: A) deficits in initiating the motor programs for speech. B)
deficits in the comprehension of language.
C)
impaired facial movements.
D) impaired auditory perception.
71. Wernicke's area is connected to Broca's area via the: A) arcuate fasciculus. B)
temporal fasciculus
C)
inferior longitudinal tract.
D) corona radiata.
72. Since James's recent stroke he has had a lot of difficulty speaking meaningful sentences. For example, the other day when a nurse asked him how he was doing, he said, "Colorful bicycles sleep furiously." It appears James may have damage to his: A) right frontal lobe. B)
left temporal lobe.
C)
left frontal lobe.
D) right temporal lobe.
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73. Stimulation of Broca's area by Penfield produced: A) comprehension deficits. B)
language-expression deficits.
C)
both comprehension deficits and language expression deficits.
D) None of the answers are correct.
74. Using electrical stimulation, Penfield was able to show that stimulation of what later became known as the supplementary speech area caused: A) auditory hallucinations (i.e., hearing voices). B)
the patient to produce meaningless sentences.
C)
speech arrest.
D) sensations in the mouth and tongue.
75. Mapping of language sites using electrical stimulation was first accomplished by: A) Paul Broca. B)
Karl Wernicke.
C)
Wilder Penfield.
D) John Hughlings Jackson.
76. Stimulation of the A1 area of the auditory cortex by Penfield produced: A) elicitation of words. B)
hearing voices.
C)
simple tones.
D) slurring of speech.
77. When the patient Susan S. (described in the text) lost her left temporal lobe, she could no longer: A) recognize melodies. B)
write or read music.
C)
read.
D) pick up tiny mistakes in performed music.
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78. Joanne had to have her entire left hemisphere removed to treat her severe epilepsy. Since the removal of her left hemisphere Joanne: A) can no longer understand language. B)
can no longer understand music.
C)
can no longer understand language but can still understand music.
D) can no longer understand language or music.
79. Simple auditory stimuli such as tones are processed in (e.g., speech syllables) are processed in . A) A1; secondary auditory areas B)
secondary auditory areas; A1
C)
A1; Broca's area
, whereas complex sounds
D) A1; the parietal cortex
80. Discriminating between speech sounds (e.g., "ba" versus "ga") activates: A) Wernicke's area. B)
Broca's area.
C)
A1.
D) the insula.
81. A ballooning of an arterial wall is called an: A) embolism. B)
blood clot.
C)
aneurysm.
D) angioma.
82. The left hemisphere may play a role in the A) perception B)
production
C)
understanding
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of music.
D) None of the answers are correct.
83. Evidence would suggest that melodies primarily activate: A) Heschl's gyrus on the left side. B)
Heschl's gyrus on the right side.
C)
the area in front of Heschl's gyrus on the left side.
D) the area in front of Heschl's gyrus on the right side.
84. PET imaging studies have revealed that comparing different pitches of sound activates: A) the left frontal lobe. B)
the right frontal lobe.
C)
the left auditory cortex.
D) Heschl's gyrus in the right hemisphere.
85. Compared with nonmusicians, musicians have: A) thicker frontal and parietal areas. B)
thicker temporal and frontal areas.
C)
thicker temporal areas but thinner parietal areas.
D) thinner frontal but thicker temporal areas.
86. Which of the following statements about birdsong is correct? A) Birdsong varies between species but not within a species. B)
Birdsong is used to mark territories.
C)
Birdsong is used to attract a mate.
D) All of the answers are correct.
87. Research into the acquisition of birdsong has indicated that birdsongs are: A) learned from other birds. B)
genetically determined.
C)
learned specifically from parents.
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D) genetically determined and learned from other birds.
88. Subsong refers to: A) songs that are not completely learned. B)
noises that would be like babbling in humans.
C)
songs that are below the perceived human auditory threshold.
D) syrinx movements not accompanied by sound.
89. Birdsong structures are: A) larger in male than in female birds. B)
influenced entirely by genetics.
C)
unaffected by hormones.
D) All of the answers are correct.
90. The higher vocal control center and nucleus robustus archistriatalis are to birdsong as: A) V1 and IT are to seeing. B)
A1 and A2 are to hearing.
C)
Broca's area and Wernicke's area are to human language.
D) M1 and premotor cortex are to movement.
91. An echolocating bat can emit cries in the range of: A) 13,000 to 20,000 Hz. B) 20,000 to 50,000 Hz. C) 5000 to 100,000 Hz. D) 12,000 to 200,000 Hz.
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Chapter 11 – How does the nervous system respond to stimulation and produce movement? 1. An example of a brain–computer interface (BCI) would be: A) using only your thoughts to control a computer keyboard. B)
having electrical signals from an electronic device influence brain function.
C)
having your thoughts relayed to someone else's brain via a computer.
D) None of the answers is correct.
2.
is an example of a computer–brain interface. A) A cochlear implant B)
Using EEG signals to change the channel on your television
C)
Using fMRI signals to read someone's thoughts
D) Using single unit recordings in a monkey's motor cortex to control a prosthetic arm
3. The control(s) the force of a movement, whereas the and accuracy of the movement. A) motor cortex; basal ganglia B)
basal ganglia; motor cortex
C)
basal ganglia; cerebellum
control(s) the timing
D) cerebellum; basal ganglia
4. Which part of the brain is responsible for planning and initiating movements? A) frontal lobe B)
hippocampus
C)
basal ganglia
D) cerebellum
5. The arms are controlled by motor neurons in the levels of the spinal cord, whereas the legs are controlled by motor neurons in the levels of the spinal cord. A) cervical; thoracic B)
lumbar; sacral
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C)
cervical; lumbar
D) thoracic; lumbar
6. Signals from the motor cortex to the spinal cord are transmitted via cortical layer(s): A) 1 to 3. B)
2 to 4.
C)
4.
D) 5 to 6.
7. The prefrontal cortex is responsible for: A) planning movements. B)
organizing movement sequences.
C)
producing specific movements.
D) inhibiting spontaneous movements.
8. The premotor cortex is responsible for: A) planning movements. B)
producing specific movements.
C)
producing movement sequences.
D) inhibiting spontaneous movements.
9. The primary motor cortex is responsible for: A) planning movements. B)
organizing movement sequences.
C)
producing specific movements.
D) inhibiting spontaneous movements.
10. In a person performing a sequence of finger movements, cerebral blood flow increases in the: A) primary motor cortex.
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B)
temporal cortex.
C)
premotor cortex.
D) cingulate cortex.
11. The decision to set your alarm an hour early so you won't be late for your exam is made in the: A) prefrontal cortex. B)
primary motor cortex.
C)
premotor cortex.
D) basal ganglia.
12. Coordinating multiple simultaneous movements to accomplish a goal is a function of the: A) primary motor cortex. B)
premotor cortex.
C)
prefrontal cortex.
D) cerebellum.
13. Walter Hess's experiments reveal that one of the functions of the brainstem is to: A) regulate blood osmolarity. B)
regulate breathing and heart rates.
C)
produce species-typical behavior.
D) produce behavior common across all species.
14. Walter Hess's classic experiments on stimulating the brainstem in animals revealed that the brainstem controlled aspects of: A) sexual behavior. B)
feeding behavior.
C)
grooming behavior.
D) All of these answers are correct.
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15. Locked-in syndrome can occur following damage to the: A) basal ganglia. B)
brainstem.
C)
cerebellum.
D) primary motor cortex.
16. Shortly after birth, baby Alex seemed completely normal; however, a few months later he started demonstrating signs of increased muscle spasticity, dyskinesia (problems with involuntary muscle movements), and movement tremors. Based on this symptom profile it appears that Alex may have: A) developmental dyspraxia. B)
damage to his cerebellum.
C)
cerebral palsy.
D) a rare congenital form of Parkinson disease.
17. Damage to level C1–C2 of the spinal cord would likely result in: A) paraplegia. B)
quadriplegia.
C)
hemiplegia.
D) numbness in the legs.
18. Injury to level L1–L2 of the spinal cord would likely result in: A) paraplegia. B)
quadriplegia.
C)
hemiplegia.
D) numbness in the legs.
19. The spinal cord has a role in: A) conveying sensory and motor information between the brain and body. B)
reflexive behaviors.
C)
walking.
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D) All of the answers are correct.
20. The first direct evidence that the cortex controls movement was provided by: A) Wilder Penfield. B)
Paul Broca.
C)
Gustav Fritsch and Eduard Hitzig.
D) John Hughlings-Jackson.
21. On the motor homunculus: A) all muscles are given equal representation. B) an inverse relation exists between motor control and the space allocated on the homunculus. C) areas of precise motor control are given a larger representation. D) no clear relation exists between movement precision and the amount of area allocated on the motor cortex.
22. The person MOST credited with mapping the human motor cortex was: A) Gustave Fritsch. B)
Eduard Hitzig.
C)
Roberts Bartholow.
D) Wilder Penfield.
23. Which of the following sequences is in the correct order from largest to smallest representation in the motor homunculus? A) feet, hands, lips B)
hands, feet, lips
C)
hands, lips, feet
D) lips, feet, hands
24. Early research on the motor cortex suggested that it ; however, more recent work suggests that the motor cortex may actually . A) controlled individual muscle movements; store a repertoire of movement categories
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B)
stored a repertoire of movement categories; control individual muscle movements
C) controlled only reflexive movements; control both reflexive and voluntary movement D) controlled only learned movements; control both learned and innate movements
25. The sensory and motor cortices are: A) stable neocortical areas that are fixed in function after birth. B)
stable neocortical areas that are fixed in function after puberty.
C)
changed only in response to damage.
D) continuously modified with learning and experience.
26. Neurons in the primary motor cortex: A) start to discharge just prior to a movement. B)
discharge during a movement.
C)
increase their rate of firing if a weight is added to the movement apparatus.
D) All of the answers are correct.
27. Early research by Evarts demonstrated that movement force was related to: A) an increased number of neurons firing in primary motor cortex. B)
larger (that is, greater amplitude) action potentials in neurons in premotor cortex.
C)
an increase in the rate of firing in neurons in premotor cortex.
D) an increase in the rate of firing in neurons in primary motor cortex.
28. Motor cortex is activated when a person: A) plans a movement. B)
imagines making a movement.
C)
executes a movement.
D) All of the answers are correct.
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29. Following a recent stroke Anthony now has a great deal of difficulty using his right hand. Instead, he has resorted to doing things with his left hand. Your advice to Anthony is to: A) keep using his left hand so he can become independent more quickly. B) try using both hands to accomplish a task to recover function in his right hand more quickly. C) force himself to only use his impaired right hand to increase the surface area of motor cortex that is used to control his right hand. D) force himself to only use his impaired right hand to prevent a decrease in the surface area of motor cortex that is used to control his right hand.
30. The major motor pathway that relays signals from the primary motor cortex to the spinal cord is the: A) rubrospinal tract. B)
tectospinal tract.
C)
corticospinal tract.
D) pontospinal tract.
31. The controls limbs and digits, whereas the controls mainly trunk muscles. A) lateral corticospinal tract; anterior corticospinal tract B)
anterior corticospinal tract; lateral corticospinal tract
C)
rubrospinal tract; lateral corticospinal tract
D) lateral corticospinal tract; tectospinal tract
32. Neurons from the corticospinal tract project mainly to A) motor neurons B)
sensory neurons
C)
interneurons
in the spinal cord.
D) bipolar cells
33. In the spinal cord, laterally located motor neurons project to the medially located motor neurons project to the . A) trunk; limbs and digits B)
limbs; trunk and feet
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, whereas more
C)
arms; legs
D) limbs and digits; trunk and shoulders
34. The limb regions of the motor homunculus are involved in activating motor neurons that move the arms, hands, and legs primarily on the , and the trunk regions of the motor homunculus are mainly involved in activating motor neurons that move the trunk primarily on the . A) same side of the body; opposite side of the body B)
opposite side of the body; same side of the body
C)
same side of the body; same side of the body
D) opposite side of the body; opposite side of the body
35. Neurons in the anterior corticospinal tract in the left hemisphere control on of the body A) limb; the right side B)
trunk; the right side
C)
trunk; both sides
muscles
D) limb; both sides
36. What constitutes the "final common path"? A) sensory neurons B)
muscles
C)
motor neurons
D) the corticospinal tract
37.
muscles move the limb away from the trunk, whereas limb back toward the trunk. A) Extensor; flexor B)
Flexor; extensor
C)
Dorsal; ventral
D) Medial; lateral
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muscles move the
38. In all animals, a large proportion of the motor cortex is represented by: A) the tongue and paws or hands. B)
the arms, legs, and other large muscle groups.
C)
no single area. There is equal representation of all muscles.
D) muscles over which an animal has skilled and intricate control.
39. Which of the following is NOT part of the basal ganglia? A) globus pallidus B)
amygdala
C)
caudate
D) putamen
40. Which of the following is NOT part of the direct pathway of the basal ganglia? A) the caudate nucleus B)
the globus pallidus external
C)
the globus pallidus internal
D) the putamen
41. Which of the following structures is NOT part of the indirect pathway in the basal ganglia? A) the globus pallidus internal B)
the thalamus
C)
the caudate nucleus
D) the subthalamic nucleus
42. The neurotransmitter system that is MOST important for basal ganglia function is the: A) nigrostriatal dopamine system. B)
mesolimbic dopamine system.
C)
acetylcholine system.
D) norepinephrine system.
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43. Damage to the results in . A) substantia nigra; Huntington disease B)
striatum; Huntington disease
C)
striatum; Parkinson disease
D) putamen; Parkinson disease
44. In the basal ganglia, movement excitation is to . A) putamen; globus pallidus B)
direct pathway; indirect pathway
C)
indirect pathway; direct pathway
as movement inhibition is to
D) subthalamic nucleus; thalamus
45. The contributes to motor control by adjusting the forces associated with movements, while the compares the intended movement with actual movement for the improvement of movement skill. A) motor cortex; cerebellum B)
cerebellum; basal ganglia
C)
basal ganglia; motor cortex
D) basal ganglia; cerebellum
46. Which of the following is NOT associated with Tourette syndrome? A) motor tics (for example, hitting, jumping) B)
unwanted cries and vocalizations
C)
excessive levels of dopamine
D) hypokinetic symptoms
47. Brain imaging studies have noted DECREASED connectivity between the patients with Tourette syndrome. A) temporal cortex and frontal cortex
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in
B)
frontal cortex and parietal cortex
C)
occipital cortex and parietal cortex
D) None of these answers is correct.
48. The globus pallidus is an internal component of the basal ganglia that is involved in: A) skilled motor movements. B)
determining whether a movement will be weak or strong.
C)
species-specific behaviors.
D) involuntary motor behaviors.
49. Cellular recordings from the globus pallidus internal in patients with Parkinson disease show: A) excessive activity. B)
underactivity.
C)
no activity.
D) intermittent spikes of activity.
50. The flocculus of the cerebellum is involved in: A) control of balance and eye movements. B)
control over the face and midline of the body.
C)
gross limb movements.
D) fine finger and hand movements.
51. The lateral parts of the cerebellar hemispheres control: A) movement of the body midline. B)
movement of limbs and digits.
C)
eye movements.
D) balance.
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52. The cerebellum consists of A) one B)
two
C)
three
distinct cell layer(s).
D) six
53.
are the primary output cells of the cerebellum. A) Purkinje cells B)
Basket cells
C)
Stellate cells
D) Pyramidal cells
54. The cerebellum's role in motor behavior is primarily involved with: A) timing of movements and maintaining movement accuracy. B)
initiating movements and timing of movements.
C)
maintaining movement accuracy and initiating movements.
D) All of the answers are correct.
55. If a patient with cerebellar damage is asked to throw darts while wearing a pair of glasses that shift the vision to the right, the patient will most likely: A) learn to adjust movements leftward to compensate for the visual shift. B)
begin throwing farther and farther to the right on successive throws.
C)
fail to show any adaptation to compensate for the visual shift.
D) learn to adjust movements rightward to compensate for the visual shift.
56. The motor system sends a copy of the instructions for a movement to the cerebellum via the: A) inferior olive. B)
superior olive.
C)
basal ganglia.
D) thalamus.
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57.
skin is much more richly endowed with receptors and is exquisitely more sensitive to a wider range of stimuli than skin. A) Glabrous; hairy B)
Smooth; glabrous
C)
Smooth; hairy
D) Hairy; glabrous
58. The ability to discriminate the distance between two points on the skin is MOST sensitive in: A) hairy skin. B)
glabrous skin.
C)
smooth skin.
D) epidermal skin.
59. Which of the following receptors is MOST responsive to pain and temperature? A) Pacinian corpuscles B)
free nerve endings
C)
Golgi tendon organs
D) dendrites of alpha motor neurons
60.
are critical for proprioception. A) Muscle spindles B)
Golgi tendon organs
C)
Joint receptors
D) Muscle spindles, Golgi tendon organs, and joint receptors
61. Nociception is the perception of: A) fine touch. B)
the location of one's body in space.
C)
pain.
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D) noise.
62. Pacinian corpuscles are most responsive to: A) movements of tendons. B)
pain and temperature.
C)
pressure and flutter stimuli.
D) movement of tendons and pressure.
63. Hapsis is the perception of: A) fine touch. B)
the location of one's body in space.
C)
pain.
D) chemical irritants.
64. Proprioception is the perception of: A) fine touch. B)
the location of one's body in space.
C)
pain.
D) chemical irritants.
65. The three major classes of sensory receptors are: A) nociception, hapsis, proprioception. B)
flocculoception, nociception, hapsis.
C)
stasisception, nociception, proprioception.
D) flocculoception, nociception, proprioception.
66. Which of the following receptors are rapidly adapting receptors? A) Meissner corpuscles B)
Pacinian corpuscles
C)
Ruffini corpuscles
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D) All of these are rapidly accepting receptors.
67. Which of the following receptors are slowly adapting receptors? A) Meissner corpuscles B)
Merkel receptors
C)
Ruffini corpuscles
D) Pacinian corpuscles
68. Somatosensory information is carried from the body to the CNS by the: A) anterior-root ganglion neurons. B)
posterior-root ganglion neurons.
C)
gamma somatosensory neurons.
D) corticospinal tract.
69. The haptic and proprioceptive axons form the: A) dorsal spinothalamic tract. B)
ventral spinothalamic tract.
C)
caudal spinothalamic tract.
D) rostral spinothalamic tract.
70. Information from the crosses to the other side of the brain in the brainstem, whereas the crosses to the other side of the brain in the spinal cord. A) anterior spinothalamic tract; posterior spinothalamic tract B)
posterior spinothalamic tract; anterior spinothalamic tract
C)
lateral spinothalamic tract; medial spinothalamic tract
D) medial spinothalamic tract; medial spinothalamic tract
71. Axons that carry information about pain and temperature form the: A) posterior spinothalamic tract. B)
anterior spinothalamic tract.
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C)
caudal spinothalamic tract.
D) rostral spinothalamic tract.
72. Both the posterior and anterior spinothalamic tracts send their signals to the nucleus of the thalamus. A) ventrolateral B)
ventromedial
C)
mediodorsal
D) lateral geniculate
73. Eric has a great degree of difficulty maintaining muscle contraction over time. For example, if he picks up a cup and begins doing something else, the cup will slip and fall out of his hand because he loses his grip on it. In addition, if Eric is asked to close his eyes and use his left index finger to point to his right thumb he cannot seem to find it. Based on your knowledge of the somatosensory system you believe that Eric may have damage to in the . A) posterior root ganglion neurons; anterior spinothalamic tract B)
posterior root ganglion neurons; posterior spinothalamic tract
C)
anterior root ganglion neurons; anterior spinothalamic tract
D) anterior root ganglion neurons; posterior spinothalamic tract
74. Unilateral damage to the spinal cord will result in the loss of on the same side of the body and loss of on the opposite side of the body below the site of the damage. A) touch and proprioception; pain and temperature B)
pain and temperature; touch and proprioception
C)
pain and touch; temperature and proprioception
D) temperature and touch; pain and proprioception
75. When a physician taps the patellar tendon with a hammer, it causes a knee jerk reflex by sending stretch signals to: A) motor neurons in the spinal cord that cause muscles to contract. B)
motor neurons in the cortex that cause muscles to contract.
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C)
the thalamus, which sends signals to motor neurons to contract.
D) the cerebellum, which sends signals to motor neurons to contract.
76. Research has demonstrated that phantom limb pain can be alleviated through the use of: A) further amputation. B)
destroying remaining nerves in the limb stump.
C)
using a mirror to fool the sensory system into perceiving the missing limb.
D) acupuncture.
77. According to the gate theory of pain transmission, activity in the pain pathway in the spinal cord. A) motor cortex B)
haptic-proprioceptive pathway
C)
nociceptive pathway
can inhibit the
D) corticospinal pathway
78. Stimulation of the A) amygdala
is effective in reducing pain.
B)
thalamus
C)
periaqueductal gray matter
D) cerebellum
79. Pain in blood vessels and internal organs that is felt as pain at the body surface is known as: A) transferred pain. B)
relocated pain.
C)
referred pain.
D) transposed pain.
80. The vestibular system is in the: A) brainstem.
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B)
cerebellum.
C)
middle ear.
D) inner ear.
81. Action potentials in the semicircular canals are stimulated by: A) bending hair cells. B)
the endolymph.
C)
the utricle and saccule.
D) Pacinian corpuscles.
82. Hair cells in the vestibular system fire more action potentials when the hair: A) is bent in a specific direction. B)
vibrates at a specific frequency.
C)
is moved with a specific force.
D) cells remain motionless.
83. Vestibular receptors convey information about: A) changes in the direction of movement. B)
changes in the speed of movement.
C)
the position of one's body in relation to gravity.
D) All of the answers are correct.
84. Andrea has been experiencing vertigo and problems with balance for several months now. She is otherwise healthy and has no problems with controlling her limbs. You tell Andrea she may want to go to see a neurologist because she might have: A) cerebellar ataxia. B)
Ménieré disease.
C)
an ear infection.
D) Parkinson disease.
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85. The primary somatosensory cortex is found in the somatosensory cortex is located in the . A) precentral gyrus; postcentral gyrus B)
parietal lobe; postcentral gyrus
C)
postcentral gyrus; parietal lobe
, while the secondary
D) precentral gyrus; parietal lobe
86. The homunculus on the primary somatosensory cortex is MOST similar to the homunculus found in the: A) primary motor cortex. B)
secondary motor cortex.
C)
cerebellum.
D) basal ganglia.
87. How many homunculi are present in the primary somatosensory cortex, according to the Kaas model? A) one B)
three
C)
four
D) five
88. Neurons in area 3b of the primary somatosensory cortex are responsive to: A) muscle sense. B)
slow-responding skin receptors.
C)
fast-responding skin receptors.
D) pressure.
89. Damage to the primary somatosensory motor cortex results in: A) impaired sensory discrimination on the ipsilateral side. B)
impaired sensory discrimination on the contralateral side.
C)
impaired sensory discrimination on both sides.
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D) no impairment of sensory discrimination.
90. Research has demonstrated that tickle perception is primarily due to: A) touch sensations. B)
the predictability of the touch sensations.
C)
the unpredictability of the touch sensations.
D) the laughter associated with tickling.
91. In a study by Pons and colleagues, monkeys' arm nerves were cut, thereby depriving the somatosensory cortex of sensory input from the arm. Several years later, when the researchers mapped the monkeys' somatosensory homunculus, they discovered that the arm region of the homunculus: A) had expanded. B)
was the same size it was previously.
C)
had been taken over by the face region.
D) had been taken over by the foot region.
92. The inability to accurately complete a plan of motor action is called: A) ataxia. B)
aphasia.
C)
apraxia.
D) acalcula.
93. The dorsal visual stream is the stream. A) what; how B)
how; what
C)
where; how
stream, while the ventral visual stream is the
D) how; where
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Chapter 12 – What causes emotional and motivated behaviour? 1. A brain imaging study by Kross and colleagues (2011) examined the regions that were important for processing both physical and emotional pain. The results of this study demonstrated that: A) physical pain activated the somatosensory cortex, whereas emotional pain activated the amygdala. B) physical pain activated the somatosensory cortex, whereas emotional pain activated the anterior cingulate cortex. C) physical pain activated the frontal lobes, whereas emotional pain activated the somatosensory cortex. D) the same brain areas responded to both physical and emotional pain.
2. Emotion can be considered , whereas motivation can be considered . A) cognitive interpretations of subjective feelings; behavior that is purposeful and goal-directed B) behavior that is purposeful and goal-directed; cognitive interpretations of subjective feelings C) chemical reactions to subjective feelings; behavior that serves a self-regulatory function D) chemical reactions to subjective feelings; behavior that helps to promote sexual reproduction
3. Your text describes a patient by the name of Roger. Roger ate indiscriminately. He was found to have: A) an amygdala lesion. B)
an acquired neurosis.
C)
a tumor near his hypothalamus.
D) a tumor near his brainstem.
4. Subjects who are paid handsomely to do nothing, see nothing, and hear and touch nothing rarely stay in the experiment longer than: A) 12 hours. B)
24 hours.
C)
36 hours.
D) 48 hours.
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5. Monkeys who have been deprived of sensory experience find rewarding. A) looking at a toy train circling a track B)
looking at a bowl of fruit
C)
looking at a dog
the most
D) doing nothing
6. The receptors for smell are embedded within the the . A) nasal epithelium; olfactory mucosa B)
olfactory bulb; pyriform cortex
C)
pyriform cortex; olfactory bulb
and have cilia that extend into
D) nasal epithelium; glomeruli
7. The size of the receptor surface in the olfactory epithelium in humans is roughly: A) 15 square centimeters. B)
10 square centimeters.
C)
8 to 12 square centimeters.
D) 2 to 4 square centimeters.
8. The correct order of species with the smallest to the largest receptor surface area in the olfactory epithelium is: A) cats, dogs, humans. B)
dogs, cats, humans.
C)
humans, dogs, cats.
D) humans, cats, dogs.
9. Olfactory receptor neurons code different scents because: A) each neuron responds to a specific scent. B)
each neuron responds to all scents equally.
C)
each scent activates a unique pattern of receptor neurons.
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D) None of the answers is correct.
10. There are approximately A) 100
different types of olfactory receptors
B) 400 C) 700 D) 10
11. The correct order of connections along the olfactory pathway is: A) olfactory receptor cells, glomeruli, mitral cells, amygdala and pyriform cortex. B)
olfactory receptor cells, mitral cells, glomeruli, amygdala and pyriform cortex.
C)
glomeruli, olfactory receptor cells, mitral cells, amygdala and pyriform cortex.
D) amygdala and pyriform cortex, mitral cells, olfactory receptor cells, glomeruli.
12. The receives projections from the olfactory system via the thalamus and plays an important role in a variety of emotional and social behaviors. A) superior temporal gyrus B)
lateral prefrontal cortex
C)
amygdala
D) orbitofrontal cortex
13.
are biochemicals that can act as chemosignals to affect the physiology or behavior of another animal. A) Hormones B)
Neurotransmitters
C)
Pheromones
D) Synapses
14. Pheromones are detected by: A) glomeruli. B)
mitral cells.
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C)
the vomeronasal organ.
D) the olfactory mucosa.
15. Cats are NOT able to detect: A) saltiness. B)
sweetness.
C)
bitterness.
D) sourness.
16. "Supertasters" who are able to taste the substance PROP are extremely sensitive to tastes. A) sweet B)
salty
C)
bitter
D) sour
17. There are A) four B)
three
C)
five
taste receptors.
D) six
18. One reason that adults and children may have such different food preferences is because: A) children enjoy being picky eaters. B) adults have more taste receptors than children and so are more sensitive to different tastes. C) children have more taste receptors than adults and so are more sensitive to different tastes. D) there is no difference between taste receptors in children and adults.
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19. Which of the following cranial nerves is NOT involved in transmitting gustatory information? A) 12 (hypoglossal) B)
7 (facial nerve)
C)
9 (glossopharyngeal nerve)
D) 10 (vagus nerve)
20. Which of the following is the correct order of connections in the gustatory system? A) taste receptor cells, cranial nerves, solitary tract, thalamus, somatosensory cortex and insula B) taste receptor cells, solitary tract, cranial nerves, somatosensory cortex and insula, thalamus C) solitary tract, taste receptor cells, cranial nerves, somatosensory cortex and insula, thalamus D) cranial nerves, taste receptor cells, solitary tract, thalamus, somatosensory cortex and insula
21. The gustatory region of the insula is responsive to somatosensory cortex is responsive to . A) taste; tactile stimulation and texture B)
tactile stimulation and texture; taste
C)
taste; food preferences
, whereas the primary
D) food preferences; taste
22. Brain imaging studies have found that the left orbitofrontal cortex codes for the of tastes, whereas the right orbitofrontal cortex codes for the of tastes. A) pleasantness; unpleasantness B)
unpleasantness; pleasantness
C)
intensity; complexity
D) sweetness; saltiness
23. The insula identifies the of flavors, whereas the orbitofrontal cortex evaluates the of tastes. A) intensity; affective properties B)
affective properties; intensity
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C)
individual components; nutritional value
D) nutritional value; individual components
24. Activators for inborn adaptive responses that aid in an animal's survival are called: A) innate releasing mechanisms. B)
innate behavioral mechanisms.
C)
innate evolutionary mechanisms.
D) innate learning mechanisms.
25. Blind human children: A) do not smile. B)
show abnormal musculature when they smile.
C)
show the same facial expressions as sighted children.
D) must be trained, using the tactile sense, to show facial expressions.
26. Young human infants can mimic facial expressions. This is: A) a rapidly learned response. B)
only seen in babies with vision because blind children show no facial expression.
C)
only seen when the face is that of a parent or caretaker.
D) an example of an innate releasing mechanism.
27.
Innate releasing mechanisms: A) disappear as we mature. B)
are responsible for eliciting all infant behavior.
C)
can be modified by experience.
D) are present in lower species but not in humans.
28. According to Daly and Wilson, homicide is: A) a means of population control. B)
a maladaptive trait that is gradually being eliminated from the gene pool.
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C)
related to some behavior that has been adaptive in the past.
D) a purely learned behavior.
29. The idea that reinforcement controls behavior is MOST often associated with: A) Charles Darwin. B)
B. F. Skinner.
C)
Steve Glickman.
D) Martin Daly.
30. A pigeon cannot be trained to peck a disk to: A) receive food. B)
receive water.
C)
escape from foot shock.
D) obtain sex.
31. Learned taste aversion: A) appears to take only one trial of learning. B)
is found only in humans.
C)
is not really learning but an instinctive reaction.
D) is caused by an innate releasing mechanism.
32. You get sick with the flu and vomit a few hours after you eat a roast beef sandwich. Now every time you see a roast beef sandwich you begin to feel ill. This is an example of: A) food poisoning. B)
operant conditioning.
C)
learned taste aversion.
D) innate taste aversion.
33. The predisposition to make certain associations easier than others is called: A) selective learning.
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B)
preparedness.
C)
innate preference.
D) evolutionary memory.
34. Coyotes cannot learn to stop attacking sheep even if farmers shoot and kill many of them. However, if the coyotes are allowed to eat a poisoned sheep carcass that makes them sick they will quickly learn not to eat sheep anymore. This is an example of: A) selective learning. B)
preparedness.
C)
innate preference.
D) evolutionary memory.
35. Flies prefer which of the following tastes? A) sour B)
salty
C)
bitter
D) sweet
36. Eating behavior in the fly is controlled by: A) blood-sugar levels. B)
signals from the intestine.
C)
signals from the esophagus.
D) signals from the stomach.
37.
If you cut the recurrent nerve in flies it will: A) cause them to stop eating immediately. B)
cause them to never stop eating.
C)
alter their taste preferences.
D) have no effect on their eating.
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38. Most homeostatic mechanisms involve the: A) hypothalamus. B)
thalamus.
C)
amygdala.
D) anterior pituitary gland.
39. If you are cold, you begin to shiver. If you are hot, you begin to sweat. These are examples of: A) physiological responses. B)
regulatory behaviors.
C)
nonregulatory behaviors.
D) learned responses.
40.
is an example of a nonregulatory behavior. A) Eating B)
Drinking
C)
Sexual intercourse
D) Maintaining internal body temperature
41. The medial forebrain bundle helps transmit A) dopamine; basal ganglia B)
dopamine; brainstem
C)
serotonin; brainstem
to the
.
D) serotonin; frontal lobes
42. Peptides released by the axons of the hypothalamus: A) affect the postsynaptic membrane. B)
are inhibitory.
C)
are very rapidly reabsorbed.
D) are picked up by the blood and sent to distant parts of the body.
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43. Which of the following hormones controls secretions of the mammary glands? A) luteinizing hormone B)
prolactin
C)
thyroid-stimulating hormone
D) adrenocorticotrophic hormone
44. Which of the following hormones controls secretions of the gonads? A) prolactin B)
adrenocorticotrophic hormone
C)
luteinizing hormone
D) thyroid-stimulating hormone
45. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone is produced by the: A) anterior pituitary. B)
posterior pituitary.
C)
lateral hypothalamus.
D) posterior hypothalamus.
46. Generally speaking the controls releasing hormones, whereas the the secretion of hormones. A) pituitary; hypothalamus B)
hypothalamus; pituitary
C)
pituitary; thalamus
controls
D) thalamus; hypothalamus
47. Stimulation of the hypothalamus elicits: A) simple reflexive behaviors. B) instinctive nondirected behaviors, such as eating or drinking movements, even though there is no food or water available. C) directed behavior such as eating or drinking, but only when food and water are available.
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D) aversive effects that the animal will learn a response to terminate.
48. Broca's limbic lobe consists of the: A) cingulate gyrus and the hippocampal formation. B)
cingulate gyrus and the frontal cortex.
C)
cingulate gyrus, the hippocampal formation, and the basal ganglia.
D) cingulate gyrus, the hippocampal formation, and the pineal gland.
49. If I was receiving brain stimulation and I suddenly felt anxious and fearful, the MOST likely site of stimulation would be the: A) hypothalamus. B)
thalamus.
C)
amygdala.
D) prefrontal cortex.
50. Which of the following is NOT one of the subdivisions of the amygdala? A) corticomedial B)
basolateral
C)
central
D) ventromedial
51. Which of the following structures is NOT involved in emotion? A) the hippocampus B)
the amygdala
C)
the medial forebrain bundle
D) the anterior thalamus
52. A person who started eating cardboard or an old pair of shoes might have damage to the: A) prefrontal cortex. B)
basal ganglia.
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C)
amygdala.
D) hypothalamus.
53. The selection of motor sequences that are to be executed comes from the: A) motor cortex. B)
premotor cortex.
C)
cerebellum.
D) prefrontal cortex.
54. The dorsolateral region of the prefrontal cortex projects to the: A) eating deficits. B)
dependency on environmental cues.
C)
dependency on internal cues.
D) eating deficits and dependency on internal cues.
55. Which of the following is likely to cause inappropriate social responses and an inability to respond to social context? A) dorsolateral prefrontal cortex lesions B)
medial prefrontal lesions
C)
orbital prefrontal lesions
D) lateral prefrontal lesions
56. Richard is normally a very polite individual. However, following a recent car accident Richard has begun to act inappropriately in social situations, such as swearing in front of his grandparents, and choosing inappropriate conversation topics with his parents (sexual intercourse, for example). You recommend that Richard see a neuropsychologist, since he may have damage to his: A) orbital prefrontal cortex. B)
amygdala.
C)
lateral prefrontal cortex.
D) hippocampus.
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57. The James–Lange theory considers emotions to be BEST explained as: A) cognitive interpretations of physiological states. B)
physiological reactions to cognitive states.
C)
cognitive interpretations of emotional reactions.
D) emotional reactions based on cognitive interpretations.
58. The fact that many people who have a spinal cord injury have a decrease in perceived emotion supports the theory of emotion. A) neural B)
Darwinian
C)
James–Lange
D) cognitive
59. Emotions entail autonomic changes, subjective feelings, and cognition. Which sequence of brain structures is MOST likely involved in each of these three forms of experience? A) cortex, hypothalamus, amygdala B)
hypothalamus, amygdala, cortex
C)
amygdala, hypothalamus, cortex
D) amygdala, cortex, hypothalamus
60. I tremble and develop a rapid heartbeat, then my brain interprets these changes as a specific emotion. This is the theory of emotion. A) Cannon–Bard B)
Kolb–Whishaw
C)
James–Lange
D) Klüver–Bucy
61. The somatic marker hypothesis argues that: A) emotion originates in the amygdala. B)
emotion originates in the hypothalamus.
C)
our autonomic reactions occur first, and then the brain concocts a story to interpret
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our visceral reaction. D) emotion in the relevant brain structures directs our autonomic nervous system.
62. According to Damasio's somatic marker hypothesis, a frontal lobe injury can impair decision making by: A) disconnecting brain regions involved in decision making from those involved in emotion. B) separating thought from reason. C)
disconnecting the frontal lobes from the parietal lobes.
D) disconnecting the frontal lobes from the thalamus.
63. Loss of fear, inappropriate sexual activity, and indiscriminate eating behavior: A) are symptoms of Klüver–Bucy syndrome. B)
occur after lesions to the hypothalamus.
C)
occur after lesions to the thalamus.
D) occur after lesions to the septum.
64. Which of the following is NOT one of the symptoms described as part of the original Klüver–Bucy syndrome? A) loss of fear response B)
increased sexual activity
C)
tendency to explore objects using the mouth
D) dementia
65. Electrical stimulation of the A) cingulate cortex B)
hypothalamus
C)
orbital prefrontal cortex
produces a fear response.
D) amygdala
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66. Frontal lobotomies were first performed on humans for the relief of psychiatric disorders by: A) Heinrich Klüver. B)
Carlyle Jacobsen.
C)
David Fulton.
D) Egas Moniz.
67. Loss of initiative or drive and apathy are characteristic of: A) orbital prefrontal cortex lesions. B)
dorsolateral prefrontal cortex lesions.
C)
amygdala lesions.
D) hypothalamic lesions.
68. The is responsible for our conscious awareness of emotional states. A) amygdala B)
lateral prefrontal cortex
C)
orbital prefrontal cortex
D) cingulate cortex
69. Which of the following is NOT one of the symptoms of major depression? A) feelings of worthlessness and guilt B)
inappropriate sexual behavior
C)
sleep disturbances
D) general slowing of behavior
70. The MOST prevalent psychiatric disorder is: A) schizophrenia. B)
depression.
C)
anxiety disorder.
D) personality disorder.
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71.
is (are) often treatable with a single exposure session lasting 2 to 3 hours. A) Phobias B)
Depression
C)
Panic disorder
D) Generalized anxiety disorder
72. Drugs that act as A) GABA agonists B)
GABA antagonists
C)
dopamine agonists
are often prescribed to treat anxiety disorders.
D) serotonin antagonists
73. It has been estimated that A) 30 B)
55
C)
65
percent of North Americans are overweight.
D) 75
74. Enzymes produced by the gallbladder and the pancreas break down food in the: A) esophagus. B)
upper part of the small intestine.
C)
duodenum.
D) lower intestine.
75. Cholecystokinin plays an important role in: A) initiating eating. B)
initiating food cravings.
C)
ending a meal (that is, feeling full).
D) the breakdown of cholesterol.
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76. Damage to the lateral hypothalamus causes: A) obesity in animals. B)
animals to stop eating.
C)
anorexia nervosa.
D) overeating in animals.
77. Aphagia (lack of eating) can be produced by lesioning the: A) ventromedial hypothalamus. B)
lateral hypothalamus.
C)
dorsal hypothalamus.
D) anterior hypothalamus.
78. Damage to the ventromedial hypothalamus leads to: A) digestive problems in animals. B)
animals not eating.
C)
anorexia nervosa.
D) overeating in animals.
79.
contained in the A) CCK; arcuate nucleus
helps initiate eating behavior.
B)
neuropeptide Y; lateral hypothalamus
C)
neuropeptide Y; arcuate nucleus
D) CCK; ventromedial hypothalamus
80. Learned taste aversion can be abolished by lesions to the: A) amygdala. B)
dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.
C)
inferior frontal cortex.
D) orbital frontal cortex.
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81. Patients with lesions to the orbital prefrontal cortex typically become: A) overweight. B)
picky eaters.
C)
indiscriminate eaters.
D) very slim from undereating.
82. Bars and pubs that offer their customers very salty free popcorn are hoping to capitalize on: A) osmotic thirst. B)
hypovolemic thirst.
C)
the fact that students will never turn down free food.
D) dehydration.
83. Drinking water as a result of an increase in concentrations of chemicals is: A) hypovolemic thirst. B)
osmotic thirst.
C)
regulated by the thalamus.
D) regulated by the amygdala.
84. Matt is running a marathon in the middle of a heat wave and is extremely worried about getting dehydrated, so he starts to consume large amounts of water. Suddenly his heartbeat becomes irregular and he gets a severe headache. You tell Matt that he should: A) drink more water because he is probably very dehydrated. B)
see a doctor because he might be having a heart attack.
C)
stop drinking water because he is experiencing water intoxication.
D) start running again until the feeling goes away.
85. The effects that hormones have on the adult brain are referred to as: A) organizing effects. B)
activating effects.
C)
endocrine effects.
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D) hormonal effects.
86. Masculinization of the brain is most directly caused by: A) testosterone. B)
estradiol.
C)
progesterone.
D) androgens.
87. High estrogen levels in female rats: A) increase the number of dendritic spines on hippocampal pyramidal cells. B)
decrease the number of dendritic spines on hippocampal pyramidal cells.
C)
peak every eight days.
D) increase the number of axons of hippocampal pyramidal cells.
88. In androgen insensitivity syndrome: A) a genetic male develops a female phenotype. B)
a genetic female develops a male phenotype.
C)
males fail to undergo puberty.
D) females fail to undergo puberty.
89. In males, the medial preoptic area controls . A) mating; sexual motivation B)
sexual motivation; mating
C)
mating; lordosis
, whereas the amygdala controls
D) lordosis; sexual motivation
90. Homosexual males have a hypothalamus that is organized: A) like a female hypothalamus. B)
like a heterosexual hypothalamus.
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C)
unlike either the heterosexual male hypothalamus or the female hypothalamus.
D) like a lesbian hypothalamus.
91. Which of the following neurotransmitters is the MOST likely source of reward in brain self-stimulation experiments? A) serotonin B)
dopamine
C)
acetylcholine
D) noradrenaline
92. Reward is thought to be regulated largely by the: A) nigrostriatal dopamine pathway. B)
serotonin pathway.
C)
norepinephrine pathway.
D) mesolimbic dopamine pathway.
93. When animals engage in activities such as eating and sexual activity, there is a marked increase in dopamine levels in the: A) amygdala. B)
nucleus accumbens.
C)
caudate nucleus.
D) hypothalamus.
94. According to Robinson and Berridge, wanting is controlled by controlled by . A) dopamine; serotonin B)
norepinephrine; opioids and GABA
C)
dopamine; opioids and GABA
D) dopamine; acetylcholine
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, whereas liking is
Chapter 13 – Why do we sleep and dream? 1. Diurnal is to nocturnal as: A) night is to day. B)
sleep is to activity.
C)
activity is to sleep.
D) day is to night.
2. The day–night cycle that influences sleeping and waking is called: A) circadian rhythm. B)
diurnal rhythm.
C)
nocturnal rhythm.
D) metabolic rhythm.
3.
is influenced by daily biorhythms. A) Body temperature B)
Metabolic rate
C)
Sexual drive
D) All of the answers are correct.
4. Our biological rhythms are influenced by: A) the earth orbiting around the sun. B)
the rotational axis of the planet.
C)
light.
D) All of the answers are correct.
5. Daily fluctuations in the rhythmical movement of plant leaves come from: A) temperature changes. B)
conditions within the plant.
C)
sunlight changes.
D) changes in the electromagnetic field.
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6. The time required for a complete cycle of activity is called a(n): A) biological rhythm. B)
cycle.
C)
period.
D) epoch.
7. Migratory cycles of birds are examples of: A) circannual rhythms. B)
circadian rhythms.
C)
ultradian rhythms.
D) infradian rhythms.
8. Daily body-temperature changes are an example of: A) circannual rhythm. B)
circadian rhythm.
C)
ultradian rhythm.
D) infradian rhythm.
9. Eating behavior is an example of: A) circadian rhythm. B)
ultradian rhythm.
C)
infradian rhythm.
D) circannual rhythm.
10. Ultradian rhythms have a period of , while infradian rhythms have a period of . A) less than one day; more than one day but less than one year B)
more than one day but less than one year; less than one day
C)
one day; less than one day
D) less than one day; one day
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11. When all external cues are removed, animals develop a free-running rhythm. The freerunning rhythm of a human is: A) 24 hours. B)
more than 24 hours.
C)
less than 24 hours.
D) inconsistent and vastly different for all people.
12. A free-running rhythm is: A) determined by temperature. B)
determined by light.
C)
determined from within the body.
D) determined by temperature and light and from within the body.
13. When all external cues are removed (e.g., living in a dark, windowless basement) humans will start: A) going to bed earlier and earlier every night. B)
going to bed later and later each night.
C)
eating less and less.
D) There is no change in sleep–wake cycle.
14. A biological clock that is entrained: A) is a free-running rhythm. B)
has been reset by a Zeitgeber.
C)
has been temporarily terminated by a hormonal change.
D) is the same as a sequence of rhythms.
15. If sparrows are tested in constant light, their free-running periods are they are tested in constant darkness, their free-running periods are A) more than 24 hours; less than 24 hours B)
less than 24 hours; more than 24 hours
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, whereas if .
C)
absent; extended
D) extended; absent
16. The clock on most computers is continually updated and reset via an Internet connection to a time server. In this example the time server acts as a(n): A) circadian rhythm. B)
Zeitgeber.
C)
free-running rhythm.
D) infradian rhythm.
17. Which of the following is likely the most potent Zeitgeber? A) eating times B)
darkness
C)
light
D) temperature
18. Cues that maintain rhythmicity are known as: A) circadian rhythms. B)
cyclers.
C)
pacemakers.
D) Zeitgebers.
19. Which of the following would be the most effective treatment for your friend who seems to develop seasonal affective disorder during the winter? A) alcohol B)
a high-carbohydrate diet
C)
phototherapy
D) vitamin C
20. One of the most common treatments for the control of seasonal affective disorder is: A) benzodiazepines.
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B)
white light.
C)
seconal.
D) sodium amytal.
21. Research has shown that Zeitgebers are most effective: A) at sunrise. B)
at sunset.
C)
during the night.
D) at sunrise and sunset.
22. Morning light resets the biological clock by , whereas evening darkness resets the biological clock by . A) moving it backward; moving it forward B)
moving it forward; moving it forward again
C)
moving it backward; moving it backward again
D) moving it forward; moving it backward
23. Shift workers (e.g., working 7 p.m. to 3 a.m.) tend to develop: A) insomnia. B)
hypersomnia.
C)
metabolic syndrome.
D) anxiety problems.
24. David routinely works shift work (e.g., from 10 p.m. to 6 a.m.). Recently he has noticed that he is gaining a lot of weight, is restless and irritable most of the time, and has had a lot of trouble sleeping. Given these symptoms David may have: A) depression. B)
metabolic syndrome.
C)
a vitamin D deficiency.
D) SAD.
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25. Jet lag would be the worst if you were flying: A) from Boston to London. B)
from Paris to Rome.
C)
from London to New York.
D) from Paris to London.
26. According to a study by Curt Richter, running, eating, and drinking no longer occurred at appropriate times following lesions to the: A) orbitofrontal cortex. B)
thalamus.
C)
hypothalamus.
D) tectum.
27. The suprachiasmatic nucleus is located in the: A) optic chiasm. B)
thalamus.
C)
hypothalamus.
D) cerebellum.
28. The brain's master clock is housed in the: A) pineal gland. B)
caudate nucleus.
C)
pituitary gland.
D) suprachiasmatic nucleus.
29. If inputs and outputs from the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) are severed, its neurons: A) increase their rates of firing. B)
decrease their rates of firing.
C)
cease firing altogether.
D) continue to fire at the same rate as before.
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30. Which of the following would describe the electrical activity of neurons in a rat's suprachiasmatic nucleus if it were removed and placed in a dish? A) The rhythm of the neurons would speed up. B)
The rhythm of the neurons would slow down.
C)
There would be no change in the rhythm of the neurons.
D) It would lose all rhythm.
31. If you separated the neurons of the suprachiasmatic nucleus, put them in a dish, and then recorded from the cells: A) all rhythmicity would be gone. B)
each of the cells would have a slightly different rhythm.
C)
all of the cells would have the same rhythm.
D) there would be no activity because all the inputs would be gone.
32. Light information reaches the suprachiasmatic nucleus via the: A) lateral geniculate pathway. B)
occipital cortex.
C)
thalamic pathway.
D) retinohypothalamic pathway.
33. Cells in the suprachiasmatic nucleus use the neurotransmitter synchrony. A) dopamine B)
norepinephrine
C)
glutamate
to help them act in
D) GABA
34. The suprachiasmatic nucleus receives light-related inputs from retinal ganglion cells containing: A) melanopsin. B)
rhodopsin.
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C)
retinol.
D) vitamin A.
35. Greg had a stroke in both sides of his occipital lobe and is now cortically blind. How will complete cortical blindness affect Greg's circadian rhythm? A) His circadian rhythm will cease functioning and he will get his days and nights confused. B) There will be no change in his circadian rhythm. C)
His circadian rhythm will speed up.
D) His circadian rhythm will slow down.
36. Which of the following structures does NOT send inputs to the suprachiasmatic nucleus? A) intergeniculate leaflet B)
raphe nucleus
C)
retinohypothalamic tract
D) tectopulvinar tract
37. The effects of lesioning the suprachiasmatic nucleus can be reversed by: A) intense exposure to light. B)
electrical stimulation.
C)
transplants of SCN cells.
D) stem cell transplants.
38. Steven is often referred to as a morning person because he wakes up at 5 a.m. and goes to sleep at 10 p.m., whereas Jennifer is described as a night owl because she wakes up at 10 a.m. but stays up until 3 a.m. Steven's and Jennifer's sleeping and waking habits may differ because of the differences in: A) diet. B)
exercise.
C)
suprachiasmatic nucleus core neurons.
D) suprachiasmatic nucleus shell neurons.
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39. If a female rat is lesioned in the suprachiasmatic nucleus, so her behavior is no longer rhythmic, and she subsequently becomes pregnant, her pups will: A) fail to develop a circadian rhythm. B)
have to learn rhythmic behavior by watching intact rats.
C)
develop a normal circadian rhythm.
D) adopt nocturnal rhythms.
40. Rhythmicity in the suprachiasmatic nucleus likely: A) is learned. B)
originated elsewhere in the brain.
C)
is genetically determined.
D) developed as the result of sunlight.
41. Eating, body temperature, and motor activity are hypothesized to be driven by: A) pacemakers. B)
slave oscillators.
C)
entrainment cells.
D) phase modulators.
42. Lesions to the suprachiasmatic nucleus: A) abolish eating. B)
abolish sleep.
C)
disrupt the timing of sleep and eating.
D) have no effect on either eating or sleeping.
43. Which of the following neural structures functions as a pacemaker? A) lateral geniculate nucleus B)
amygdala
C)
suprachiasmatic nucleus
D) hypothalamic nucleus
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44. The suprachiasmatic nucleus entrains slave oscillators via connection(s) with the: A) thalamus. B)
hypothalamus.
C)
pituitary.
D) All of the answers are correct.
45.
promote(s) rest and relaxation, whereas A) Glucocorticoids; melatonin B)
Melatonin; glucocorticoids
C)
GABA; melatonin
promote(s) arousal.
D) Glucocorticoids; GABA
46. The suprachiasmatic nucleus controls the release of the hormone(s): A) melatonin. B)
glucocorticoid.
C)
thyroid-stimulating hormone.
D) melatonin and glucocorticoid.
47. Melatonin is released primarily during the A) dark B)
light
C)
midday portion
of the circadian cycle.
D) early morning portion
48. Which of the following sequences accurately depicts the process by which rhythms are linked to hormones? A) suprachiasmatic nucleus, slave oscillators, hormone release B)
slave oscillators, suprachiasmatic nucleus, hormone release
C)
hormone release, suprachiasmatic nucleus, slave oscillators
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D) suprachiasmatic nucleus, hormone release, slave oscillators
49. Melatonin is secreted by the: A) suprachiasmatic nucleus. B)
pineal gland.
C)
gonads.
D) hypothalamus.
50. Male hamsters who are exposed to male hamsters who are exposed to A) increased; decreased B)
decreased; increased
C)
constant; decreased
light levels have enlarged gonads, whereas light levels have smaller gonads.
D) increased; constant
51. Rats trained to associate a particular place with the delivery of a small electric shock tend to show poorest recall for the association when they are tested at: A) a consistent time of day. B)
varying times of day.
C)
a consistent location.
D) both a consistent location and a consistent time of day.
52. Electromyography (EMG) measures: A) brain wave activity. B)
muscle activity.
C)
eye movements.
D) heart rate.
53. Electrooculography (EOG) measures: A) brain wave activity. B)
muscle activity.
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C)
eye movements.
D) heart rate.
54. Sleep is commonly measured using an: A) electroencephalograph. B)
electromyograph.
C)
electrooculograph.
D) All of the answers are correct.
55. What is the correct order of EEG patterns, from lowest to highest frequency? A) alpha, beta, delta B)
beta, alpha, delta
C)
delta, alpha, beta
D) delta, beta, alpha
56. A waking EEG rhythm is the same as: A) alpha rhythm. B)
beta rhythm.
C)
delta rhythm.
D) theta rhythm.
57. Which of the following rhythms occurs during sleep? A) alpha rhythm B)
beta rhythm
C)
delta rhythm
D) theta rhythm
58. John is participating in a sleep study. While examining John's EEG pattern, the researcher notices that the waves are extremely regular, with a frequency of 7 to 11 Hz. Based on this observation the researcher can conclude that: A) John is still wide awake and alert.
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B)
John is asleep.
C)
John is dreaming.
D) John is awake but relaxed, with his eyes closed.
59. Sarah is participating in a sleep study. Although she appears to be sleeping, her EEG pattern exhibits fast brain wave activity, and the recording from the electrooculogram seems to indicate that she is moving her eyes. This suggests that Sarah: A) is having a seizure. B)
is lying with her eyes closed and is relaxed but not actually sleeping.
C)
has a sleep disorder.
D) is in REM sleep.
60. The EEG patterns taken from skull recordings of REM sleep are characterized by: A) low-frequency waves, as if the person were awake. B)
low-frequency waves similar to those found in stage 4 sleep.
C)
high-frequency waves, as if the person were awake.
D) high-frequency waves similar to those found in stage 2 sleep.
61. The data collected when subjects are awakened at various times suggest that the deepest sleep. A) stage 1 B)
stage 2
C)
stage 3
D) stage 4
62. REM (rapid eye movement) sleep occurs during: A) stage 1. B)
stage 2.
C)
stages 3 and 4.
D) None of the answers is correct.
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is
63. Body temperature during NREM sleep and A) decreases; increases B)
stays constant; decreases
C)
stays constant; increases
during REM sleep.
D) increases; decreases
64. In the first part of a night's sleep, sleep dominates. A) REM; NREM B)
NREM; REM
C)
stage 1; stage 3
sleep is prominent, whereas in the second part,
D) stage 3; stage 1
65. REM sleep is most frequent in: A) children. B)
adolescents.
C)
middle age.
D) the elderly.
66. Adults spend A) more time
in REM sleep than children.
B)
less time
C)
the same amount of time
D) Children do not engage in REM sleep.
67. Someone who feels tingling and pain in the legs at night when trying to sleep may have: A) poor blood circulation. B)
had too much caffeine during the day.
C)
restless legs syndrome.
D) sleep dystonia.
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68. Restless legs syndrome is most common in: A) men. B)
women.
C)
teenagers.
D) seniors.
69. Restless legs syndrome is sometimes treated with: A) l-dopa B)
SSRIs
C)
benzodiazepines
D) haloperidol
70. Sleepwalking can occur in: A) all stages of NREM sleep. B)
stage 4 sleep.
C)
REM sleep.
D) stage 1 sleep.
71. Victoria is watching her cat sleep on the floor. The cat is sprawled out and its legs seem to be twitching. It would appear that her cat is in . A) stage 2 sleep B)
stage 3 sleep
C)
stage 4 sleep
D) REM sleep
72. Dreaming occurs most commonly during: A) stage 1 and 2 sleep. B)
stage 3 and 4 sleep.
C)
REM sleep.
D) all five stages of sleep.
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73. Night terrors, or brief, frightening dreams, occur during: A) REM sleep. B)
stage 2 and 3 sleep.
C)
stage 3 and 4 sleep.
D) stage 2, 3, and 4 sleep.
74. Studies of dream content revealed that most dreams are associated with: A) sex. B)
happiness.
C)
sadness and anger.
D) sensations of falling.
75. The theory that dreams signify distant human memories was expounded by: A) Sigmund Freud. B)
Carl Jung.
C)
J. Allan Hobson.
D) Anttio Revonsuo.
76. According to psychoanalysts, the insight into the patient's problems. A) manifest content B)
sexual content
C)
latent content
of dreams was important, as it might reveal
D) frequency
77. According to the hypothesis, dreams are taken from an individual's personal memories and experience but have no meaning. A) Freudian B)
activation–synthesis
C)
Jungian
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D) evolutionary
78. The coping hypothesis of dreams was expounded by: A) Sigmund Freud. B)
Carl Jung.
C)
J. Allen Hobson.
D) Anttio Revonsuo.
79. As a general rule A) predators; prey B)
prey; predators
C)
humans; cats
tend to sleep more than
.
D) dogs; cats
80. Which of the following sleeps the most? A) opossum B)
human
C)
cat
D) donkey
81. For humans, the basic rest–activity cycle is approximately: A) 1 hour. B)
1.5 hours.
C)
3.5 hours.
D) 4 hours.
82. Sleep-deprived subjects: A) show adverse physiological consequences. B)
show poor cognitive performance.
C)
cannot complete complex tasks.
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D) All of the answers are correct.
83. The most likely function of sleep is: A) the restoration of tissue. B)
still not definitively known.
C)
the consolidation of memories.
D) the expression of repressed feelings.
84. A brief period of sleeping lasting a second or so is known as: A) a minisleep. B)
a nap.
C)
a microsleep.
D) passing out.
85. People who are deprived of REM sleep: A) show an increased tendency to enter REM sleep later. B)
become mentally unstable.
C)
sleepwalk.
D) need to sleep for twice as long as normal.
86. REM sleep can be abolished by: A) lower brainstem damage. B)
tricyclic antidepressants.
C)
serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
D) All of the answers are correct.
87. Loss of REM sleep can result from damage to the: A) lower brainstem. B)
hippocampus.
C)
upper brainstem.
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D) cerebellum.
88. Sleep spindles and K complexes are associated with: A) REM sleep. B)
NREM sleep.
C)
dreaming.
D) daydreaming.
89. Some researchers have suggested that NREM sleep is critical for sleep is critical for . A) habitual memory consolidation; implicit memory consolidation B)
explicit memory consolidation; implicit memory consolidation
C)
motor memory; factual memory
, whereas REM
D) restorative processes; memory
90. Stimulation of the reticular activating system results in A) desynchronization B)
spindle activity
C)
rhythmic activity
in the EEG.
D) large, slow waves
91. Damage to the brainstem can result in: A) narcolepsy. B)
insomnia.
C)
coma.
D) hyperactivity.
92. Which of the following neurotransmitters are likely responsible for waking? A) serotonin and dopamine B)
serotonin and acetylcholine
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C)
acetylcholine and dopamine
D) acetylcholine and GABA
93.
is responsible for the waking associated with being still and alert, whereas is responsible for the waking associated with movement. A) Serotonin; norepinephrine B)
Norepinephrine; serotonin
C)
Acetylcholine; serotonin
D) Serotonin; acetylcholine
94. You are driving on the highway at night and you are getting very sleepy. To keep yourself awake you can stimulate your serotonergic neurons by: A) drinking coffee. B)
listening to music.
C)
shaking your head or stretching.
D) having a snack.
95. The initiates REM sleep. A) medial pontine reticular formation B)
inferior olivary nucleus
C)
suprachiasmatic nucleus
D) peribrachial area
96. The atonia associated with REM sleep is controlled by the: A) peribrachial area. B)
medial pontine reticular formation.
C)
subcoerulear nucleus.
D) raphe nuclei.
97. The initiates the rapid eye movements that occur during REM sleep. A) peribrachial area
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B)
medial pontine reticular formation
C)
subcoerulear nucleus
D) raphe nuclei
98. An insomniac is a person who: A) sleeps excessively. B)
falls asleep without warning.
C)
cannot sleep.
D) sleeps only during the day.
99. Insomnia can be caused by: A) anxiety. B)
depression.
C)
sleeping pills.
D) anxiety, depression, and sleeping pills.
100.
Sleeping pills commonly: A) become addictive. B)
deprive a person of REM sleep.
C)
cause rebound insomnia.
D) All of the answers are correct.
101.
Narcolepsy can be treated with: A) opioids. B)
Ritalin.
C)
SSRIs.
D) antipsychotic drugs.
102.
A person who suddenly falls down and is temporarily paralyzed most likely has: A) narcolepsy.
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B)
cataplexy.
C)
hypnogogy.
D) apnea.
103.
A person who snores and is very overweight is at risk for developing: A) restless legs syndrome. B)
narcolepsy.
C)
sleep apnea.
D) seasonal affective disorder.
104.
Hypnogogic hallucinations are associated with: A) narcolepsy. B)
cataplexy.
C)
sleep apnea.
D) REM without atonia.
105.
Research into the neural basis of cataplexy has shown that during episodes of cataplexy: A) neurons in the subcoerulear nucleus become inactive. B)
neurons in the magnocellular nucleus of the medulla become active.
C)
neurons in the peribrachial area become active.
D) neurons in the subcoerulear nucleus become inactive and neurons in the magnocellular nucleus of the medulla become active.
106.
Cataplexy is a sleep disorder in which: A) one cannot go into REM sleep. B)
atonia does not occur during REM and people act out their dreams.
C)
atonia suddenly occurs in an awake, alert individual.
D) one is overcome by a sudden urge to sleep.
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107.
Knockout mice that were selectively bred not to have the gene for producing orexin were found to have: A) sleep apnea. B)
narcolepsy.
C)
cataplexy.
D) All of the answers are correct.
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Chapter 14 – How do we learn and remember? 1. Brain imaging research has shown that activity in the with dyslexia. A) left temporoparietal cortex B)
left occipital cortex
C)
right frontal cortex
is reduced in individuals
D) right temporoparietal cortex
2.
is probably the most common learning disability. A) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder B)
Autism
C)
Dyslexia
D) Dyscalculia
3.
is a change in an organism's behavior as a result of experience. A) Learning B)
Memory
C)
Cognition
D) All of the answers are correct.
4.
is a change in the ability to recall or recognize previous experience. A) Learning B)
Memory
C)
Reasoning
D) All of the answers are correct
5. Last year, every time John watched a football game at his friend's house, he drank beer. Now, whenever John watches a football game, he finds himself craving beer. This is an example of: A) Pavlovian (classical) conditioning. B)
operant conditioning.
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C)
fear conditioning.
D) the successful use of beer commercials during football games.
6. A stimulus followed by food, followed by salivation, is a learning paradigm called: A) Pavlovian conditioning. B)
classical conditioning.
C)
respondent conditioning.
D) All of the answers are correct.
7. In a conditioning experiment, Andrew hears a tone just prior to receiving a puff of air to his eye that causes an eyeblink response. In this experiment, the tone is the , the puff of air to the eye is the and the eyeblink is the . A) unconditioned stimulus; conditioned stimulus; unconditioned response B)
conditioned stimulus; unconditioned stimulus; unconditioned response
C)
unconditioned stimulus; conditioned stimulus; conditioned response
D) conditioned response, conditioned stimulus; unconditioned stimulus
8. Pavlovian conditioning is controlled by circuits in the: A) frontal cortex. B)
thalamus.
C)
brainstem.
D) cerebellum.
9. Eyeblink conditioning is an example of: A) classical conditioning. B)
instrumental conditioning.
C)
operant conditioning.
D) fear conditioning.
10. Eyeblink conditioning involves neural circuits in the: A) cerebellum.
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B)
amygdala.
C)
orbital frontal cortex.
D) occipital lobe.
11. Fear conditioning involves neural circuits in the: A) hypothalamus. B)
amygdala.
C)
frontal lobe.
D) cerebellum.
12. One day Melissa was trapped alone in an elevator for almost 3 hours when the power went out. Now, whenever she gets near an elevator, she freezes up and starts gasping for air as if she cannot breathe. This is an example of: A) classical conditioning. B)
operant conditioning.
C)
fear conditioning.
D) respondent conditioning.
13. Fear conditioning is controlled by the the . A) hypothalamus; cerebellum B)
brainstem; basal ganglia
C)
amygdala; basal ganglia
, and Pavlovian conditioning is mediated by
D) amygdala; cerebellum
14. You are in a crowded supermarket with your 4-year-old nephew. When you are in the candy aisle, he asks you for a chocolate bar. You initially refuse, saying that it is not good for him to eat candy. He begins to cry and whine loudly. Embarrassed by all the attention you are attracting, you buy him the chocolate bar to stop him from crying. Now every time you go to the store, your nephew whines until you buy him something. This is an example of: A) operant conditioning. B)
fear conditioning.
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C)
classical conditioning.
D) respondent conditioning.
15. Pressing a bar to obtain food is an example of: A) respondent conditioning. B)
classical conditioning.
C)
instrumental conditioning.
D) amygdala conditioning.
16. Instrumental conditioning circuits are found: A) in the amygdala. B)
in the cerebellum.
C)
throughout the brain.
D) in the frontal cortex.
17. Ms. Jones is a grade 3 teacher who is having some trouble with children misbehaving and disrupting class. Instead of punishing the students who misbehave, she decides to reward good behavior in class by allowing her students an extra recess each Friday if everyone in the class has been good all week. This is an example of: A) classical conditioning. B)
respondent conditioning.
C)
operant conditioning.
D) negative reinforcement.
18. Implicit memory has been demonstrated in: A) verbal tasks. B)
motor tasks.
C)
neither verbal nor motor tasks.
D) both verbal and motor tasks.
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19. Which of the following is NOT an example of implicit memory? A) You have not been on a bicycle for almost 10 years, but you can still ride one. B) You have learned to associate a tone with a puff of air to your eye that causes an eye blink. C) You figured out a word in your crossword puzzle more quickly because you overheard someone say the word this morning at work, even though you do not remember actually hearing it. D) You remember the day that your coach taught you how to properly catch a baseball.
20. Amnesics generally lose the ability to do: A) explicit and implicit memory tasks. B)
explicit memory tasks.
C)
implicit memory tasks.
D) any verbal-content tasks but not motor tasks.
21. The Gollin Figure Test and the Pursuit Rotor Task are used to assess: A) episodic memory. B)
implicit memory.
C)
explicit memory.
D) declarative memory.
22. Which of the following terms is used instead of explicit memory? A) skill B)
declarative memory
C)
reference memory
D) habit memory
23. Explicit memory is to implicit memory as: A) skill is to fact. B)
conscious is to unconscious.
C)
semantic is to episodic.
D) reference is to working.
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24. Which of the following is an example of explicit learning? A) Pavlov's classical conditioning B)
Thorndike's instrumental learning
C)
Skinner's operant learning
D) None of the answers is correct.
25. Explicit memory relies mainly on on processes. A) bottom-up; top-down B)
automatic; voluntary
C)
top-down; bottom-up
processes, and implicit memory relies mainly
D) reflexive; cognitive
26. Which of the following structures play an important role in short-term, or temporary, memory? A) temporal lobes B)
frontal lobes
C)
occipital lobes
D) parietal lobes
27. The temporal lobes are critical for for memory. A) short-term; long-term B)
verbal; visual
C)
long-term; short-term
memory, and the frontal lobes are important
D) implicit; explicit
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28. Martin and colleagues showed subjects black-and-white line drawings of objects and asked them to generate words denoting either the colors or the actions of the objects. While subjects were doing the task, positron emission tomography (PET) scans were recorded. The researchers found activation in the lobes when recalling the colors of the objects and activation in the lobes when recalling the actions associated with the objects: A) temporal; occipital B)
frontal; temporal
C)
temporal; parietal and frontal
D) temporal and frontal; parietal
29. In your text, the patient K. C. is described as someone who sustained serious traumatic brain injury in a motorcycle accident. Among his deficits was the fact that: A) he could not play chess. B)
his short-term memory was impaired.
C)
he could no longer remember his birthday.
D) he could not recall any personally experienced events.
30. A patient who sustained a brain injury in a mountain biking accident has a peculiar memory deficit. He has normal working memory and good long-term memory. However, he is completely unable to remember any personal events in his life, such as his college graduation or his birthday party from less than a week ago. You suspect that he may have damage to his: A) temporal lobes. B)
cerebellum.
C)
frontal lobes.
D) parietal lobes.
31. Psychogenic amnesias are thought to be linked to decreased activity in the: A) hippocampus. B)
temporal lobes.
C)
frontal lobes.
D) parietal lobes.
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32. Research in individuals with highly superior autobiographical memory (HSAM) has revealed that they are to false memories. A) relatively unsusceptible B)
relatively susceptible
C)
as susceptible as most
D) immune
33. Karl Lashley is remembered for his discovery: A) of operant conditioning. B)
of the localized nature of memory.
C) that memory loss was a function of the size of a lesion on the brain, not the location. D) that the temporal lobes are the location of memory.
34. H. M., the memory patient described in your text, underwent: A) bilateral removal of the frontal lobes. B)
bilateral removal of the temporal lobes.
C)
removal of the left temporal lobe.
D) removal of the left frontal lobe.
35. Which of the following was largely unaffected after the memory patient H. M.'s surgery? A) implicit memory B)
verbal memory
C)
explicit memory
D) visuospatial memory
36. The patient J. K. had Parkinson disease. He showed a deficit in: A) verbal memory. B)
visuospatial memory.
C)
implicit memory.
D) explicit memory.
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37. A patient named Boswell was described in your text as having severe amnesia—for events both prior to and after his illness—while maintaining implicit memory. His brain damage included the: A) medial temporal cortex. B)
basal ganglia.
C)
sensory cortex.
D) motor cortex.
38. Patient Boswell's amnesia, unlike H. M.'s, also affected: A) implicit memory. B)
explicit memory.
C)
autobiographical memory.
D) memory for previously learned information.
39. The is the final stop in a major pathway leading from the cortex to the hippocampus. A) perirhinal cortex B)
parahippocampal cortex
C)
entorhinal cortex
D) orbitofrontal cortex
40. The three cortical regions, in addition to the hippocampus and amygdala, that take part in explicit memory are the: A) entorhinal, parahippocampal, and occipital cortices. B)
entorhinal, perirhinal, and parahippocampal cortices.
C)
frontal, perirhinal, and entorhinal cortices.
D) parietal, perirhinal, and parahippocampal cortices.
41. Which of the following areas is most likely involved in visuospatial memory? A) basal ganglia
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B)
parahippocampal region
C)
perirhinal region
D) limbic region
42. The receives input from the ventral visual stream and plays a role in object memory. A) hippocampus B)
entorhinal cortex
C)
perirhinal cortex
D) parahippocampal cortex
43. Which of the following areas first shows cell death in Alzheimer disease? A) hippocampus B)
entorhinal cortex
C)
perirhinal cortex
D) parahippocampal cortex
44. Neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary tangles are often found in patients with: A) herpes encephalitis. B)
Huntington disease.
C)
Parkinson disease.
D) Alzheimer disease.
45. Recent research has suggested that Alzheimer disease may be due to: A) genetic defects. B)
poor diet.
C)
a series of microbleeds in the brain.
D) exposure to carbon monoxide.
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46. Alzheimer disease: A) can be positively diagnosed only at autopsy. B)
is characterized by cortical plaques.
C)
is associated with a loss of cholinergic cells in the basal forebrain.
D) All of the answers are correct.
47. People with mild cognitive impairment are more likely to end up developing: A) Alzheimer disease. B)
multiple sclerosis.
C)
Parkinson disease.
D) herpes encephalitis.
48. Which of the following areas is most likely to play a role in visual object memory? A) parahippocampal region B)
limbic lobe
C)
perirhinal region
D) basal ganglia
49. In recent studies, the hippocampus has been implicated in: A) memory for faces. B)
visual object memory.
C)
memory for places.
D) verbal memory.
50. Monkeys with perirhinal lesions are impaired at lesions are impaired at . A) object position tasks; visual recognition tasks B)
visual recognition tasks; object position tasks
C)
spatial learning; verbal learning
D) visual recognition; episodic memory
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, and monkeys with hippocampal
51. Sherry and colleagues have found that given the size of the bird, the hippocampal formation of birds that cache food for the winter is one would expect. A) more than twice as large as B)
about the size
C)
more than 10 times as large as
D) smaller than
52. Maguire and colleagues found that London taxi drivers A) had larger frontal lobes B)
had a larger anterior hippocampus
C)
had a larger posterior hippocampus
than controls.
D) had a larger parietal cortex
53. Shown a series of photographs in a specific order, patients with damage would not be able to remember the photographs or their order, and patients with damage would remember the photographs but not their order. A) frontal lobe; medial temporal lobe B)
medial temporal lobe; parietal lobe
C)
medial temporal lobe; frontal lobe
D) frontal lobe; parietal lobe
54. Which of the following types of cells are NOT found in the hippocampus or entorhinal cortex? A) grid cells B)
place cells
C)
head direction cells
D) orientation cells
55.
cells, in the , fire when an animal is in a specific location. A) Grid cells; hippocampus B)
Head direction cells; entorhinal cortex
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C)
Place cells; hippocampus
D) Place cells; parahippocampal cortex
56.
cells , in the , fire in many locations in the environment, helping to establish a spatial coordinate system. A) Grid cells; entorhinal cortex B)
Head direction cells; entorhinal cortex
C)
Grid cells; hippocampus
D) Place cells; parahippocampal cortex
57. The frontal lobe appears to participate in: A) spatial memory. B)
memory for faces.
C)
verbal memory.
D) memory for the temporal order of events.
58. If a monkey has to remember the position of a light for a delay period after the light goes out, neurons in the fire to help the monkey retain a memory trace. A) hippocampus B)
prefrontal cortex
C)
inferior temporal cortex
D) occipital cortex
59. A monkey is trained to remember the position of a light after it goes out. The activity of neurons in the prefrontal cortex will: A) increase if the monkey forgets the position of the target. B)
decrease if the monkey correctly remembers the position of the target.
C)
decrease if the monkey forgets the position of the target.
D) not fire differentially to correct or incorrect responses.
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60. In monkeys, cells in the prefrontal cortex will fire during a: A) delayed-alternation task. B)
delayed matching-to-sample task.
C)
delayed-response task.
D) All of the answers are correct.
61. Early research with patient H. M. demonstrated that the hippocampus: A) was the storage site for all long-term memories. B)
was the storage site for all short-term memories.
C)
played a critical role in memory consolidation.
D) played no important role in memory.
62. Mishkin and his colleagues have hypothesized that the memory. A) hippocampus B)
basal ganglia
C)
frontal lobes
is (are) central to implicit
D) medial temporal cortex
63. According to Mishkin and colleagues, which patient group would most likely have the worst implicit memory performance? A) patients with Parkinson disease B)
patients with damage to the hippocampus
C)
patients with damage to the prefrontal cortex
D) patients with Alzheimer disease
64. Xenon gas has been shown to A) increase spatial learning B)
decrease implicit memory
C)
reduce reconsolidation
in rats.
D) improve spatial memory
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65. Which of the following is NOT part of the neural circuit for emotional memories? A) amygdala B)
basal ganglia
C)
hypothalamus
D) cerebellum
66. Which nucleus of the amygdala is critical for forming emotional memories? A) the central nucleus B)
the lateral nucleus
C)
the basolateral nucleus
D) the dorsal nucleus
67. The notion that memory storage might involve changes in the structure of synapses was first put forward by: A) Santiago Ramón y Cajal. B)
Camillo Golgi.
C)
Donald Hebb.
D) Wilder Penfield.
68. Long-term potentiation (LTP) involves repeated a in synaptic effectiveness. A) high-frequency; long-lasting increase B)
low-frequency; long-lasting decrease
C)
high-frequency; short-term decrease
electrical stimulation resulting in
D) high-frequency; long-lasting decrease
69. Long-term depression (LTD) involves repeated a in synaptic effectiveness. A) high-frequency; long-lasting increase B)
low-frequency; long-lasting decrease
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electrical stimulation resulting in
C)
high-frequency; short-term decrease
D) high-frequency; long-lasting decrease
70. During LTP, enters postsynaptic NMDA receptors to begin a chain of events that leads to an increase in the number of postsynaptic AMPA receptors. A) Ca2+ B)
Na+
C)
Cl–
D) K+
71. Which neurotransmitter is needed to activate NMDA and AMPA receptors? A) GABA B)
glutamate
C)
acetylcholine
D) dopamine
72. For a postsynaptic NMDA receptor to be activated: A) glutamate must bind to it. B)
the postsynaptic membrane must be depolarized.
C)
glutamate must bind to it and the postsynaptic membrane must be depolarized.
D) acetylcholine must bind to it and the postsynaptic membrane must be depolarized.
73. For a postsynaptic AMPA receptor to be activated: A) glutamate must bind to it. B)
the postsynaptic membrane must be depolarized.
C)
glutamate must bind to it and the postsynaptic membrane must be depolarized.
D) acetylcholine must bind to it and the postsynaptic membrane must be depolarized.
74. Changes in dendritic morphology: A) occur spontaneously over days or weeks.
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B)
indirectly represent new connections between widely separated brain regions.
C)
imply the addition or subtraction of synapses.
D) imply new circuitry.
75. Research suggests that LTP increases synaptic effectiveness by: A) increasing the size of axons. B)
increasing the firing rate of presynaptic neurons.
C)
increasing the number of synapses on postsynaptic dendrites.
D) decreasing the amount of glutamate released by presynaptic neurons.
76. Bromodeoxyuridine (BrdU) experiments have shown that new neurons have been generated in the adult mammalian brain. These neurons migrate to the: A) frontal lobes. B)
olfactory bulbs.
C)
hippocampus.
D) All of the answers are correct.
77. Woollett and Maguire conducted MRI scans on people before and after the subjects underwent training to become a London taxi driver. The results of the study demonstrated that: A) prior to training, those who later became taxi drivers had larger hippocampi. B) there was no correlation between succeeding or failing to become a taxi driver and the size of the hippocampus. C) those who became taxi drivers showed an increase in hippocampal volume from pretest to posttest. D) None of the answers is correct.
78. If you want to increase children's ability to learn later in life, a good option would be to: A) get them involved in sports. B)
teach them to play a musical instrument.
C)
encourage them to read often.
D) All of the answers are correct.
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79. The phenomenon of phantom limb after amputation can most easily be explained by: A) encroachment of the denervated cortex area by some other part of the body. Thus when that part of the body is stimulated, the brain is tricked into thinking that the limb still exists. B) stimulation of the nerve endings of the stump. C)
collateral stimulation of the thalamus.
D) degeneration of the cortical area representing the lost limb.
80. Your friend Devin, who is left-handed, has played the electric guitar for almost 20 years. If you conducted an MRI scan of Devin's brain, you would expect to see an increase in the size of his: A) hand region in motor cortex in the left hemisphere. B)
basal ganglia in the left hemisphere.
C)
hand region in motor cortex in the right hemisphere.
D) cerebellum in the right hemisphere.
81. Research by Scheibel and colleagues found that dendritic branching increased in in people with high levels of education. A) Wernicke's area B)
Broca's area
C)
the hippocampus
D) the motor cortex
82. In rats, a(n) leads to an increase in the number of dendritic spines, and a(n) leads to a decrease in dendritic spines. A) increase in estrogen; decrease in estrogen B)
decrease in estrogen; increase in estrogen
C)
increase in testosterone; decrease in testosterone
D) decrease in testosterone; increase in testosterone
83. Prolonged exposure to the hormones called glucocorticoids: A) increases dendritic branching in the hippocampus.
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B)
kills cells in the hippocampus.
C)
decreases glial numbers.
D) increases spatial memory.
84. Neurotrophic factors: A) reorganize neural circuits. B)
are produced by neurons.
C)
are produced by glial cells.
D) All of the answers are correct.
85.
Brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF): A) increases the number of new neurons. B)
increases myelination.
C)
increases the size of axons.
D) increases the number of dendrites and synapses.
86. One of your friends routinely uses "study pills" (Ritalin) to help him stay awake and pull all-nighters during exam time. Normally, if he takes a small dose he is fine, but lately when he takes the same dose he gets extremely agitated and cannot sit still. The same dose is having a larger effect on him than it used to. This is an example of: A) drug addiction. B)
tolerance.
C)
behavioral sensitization.
D) withdrawal.
87. If rats are given cocaine for 2 weeks prior to being placed in a complex environment, there is: A) an increase in dendritic length and dendritic spine density. B)
a decrease in dendritic length and dendritic spine density.
C)
no change in dendritic length and dendritic spine density.
D) an increase in the number of new axons.
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88. Repeated exposure to amphetamine or cocaine: A) decreases spine density in the frontal cortex. B)
results in a lesser response over time.
C)
results in a long-lasting change in the brain.
D) All of the answers are correct.
89. Administration of animals. A) L-dopa B)
steroids
C)
nerve growth factor
has been shown to help improve recovery from brain injury in
D) All of the answers are correct.
90. Transplanting brain tissue: A) works as well as transplanting other organs. B)
effectively reverses Parkinson disease.
C)
is especially effective in the cortex.
D) is not a very effective technique.
91. Brain tissue transplant has shown some promise in treating: A) Alzheimer disease. B)
Huntington disease.
C)
anterograde amnesia.
D) Parkinson disease.
92. In animal models, the administration of nerve growth factor (NGF) following a stroke has been shown to: A) stimulate dendritic growth. B)
increase the number of new neurons.
C)
have no effects on recovery.
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D) decrease tissue inflammation.
93. Injecting epidermal growth factor into the ventricle of a live animal: A) produces only progenitor cells. B)
will produce functional regrowth in a brain-damaged animal.
C)
produces cells that eventually differentiate into neurons and glia.
D) produces only cells that turn into glia.
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Chapter 15 – How does the brain think? 1. If a patient who has had his corpus callosum severed is asked to make patterns using blocks, he will probably perform the task better with his: A) left hand. B)
right hand.
C)
dominant hand.
D) He will not be able to perform the task at all.
2. Psychological constructs (e.g., attention) can be difficult to localize in the brain because: A) psychological constructs are often complex and not localized to one area of the brain. B) we tend to think of constructs as unitary, but they are actually made up of a number of distinct processes. C) the brain is not organized around psychological constructs. D) All of the answers are correct.
3. Which of the following aspects of language gives humans an advantage in thinking? A) It provides a means with which to categorize information. B)
It provides a means of organizing time.
C) Language has a syntax (i.e., a set of rules) that allows meaningful utterances to be generated. D) All of the answers are correct.
4.
A key difference between human language and language in chimpanzees is that: A) humans can communicate with one another, whereas chimpanzees cannot. B) human language can be used to warn others about danger, whereas chimpanzee language cannot. C) human language has syntax, whereas chimpanzee language does not. D) All of the answers are correct.
5. Oliver Sacks describes an 11-year-old boy who was deaf and was never taught sign language. The purpose of this example was to illustrate the importance of: A) normal hearing in language development. B)
syntax in the development of complex thought.
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C)
normal hearing in emotional development.
D) normal hearing in thought development.
6. Syntax is the same as: A) grammar. B)
the stringing together of phonemes to make a word.
C)
literal language.
D) oral language.
7. The development of language in humans might have stemmed from: A) our development of complex visual abilities. B)
our ability to perform movements in series.
C)
the enlargement of the medial temporal lobes.
D) the enlargement of the cingulate cortex.
8. Throwing a rock or a spear is a(n): A) guided movement. B)
ballistic movement.
C)
feedback movement.
D) oscillatory movement.
9. Throwing an object accurately at a moving object is unique to: A) humans. B)
humans and chimpanzees.
C)
humans, chimpanzees, and gorillas.
D) all primates.
10. Novel sequences of thoughts most likely arise in the: A) parietal lobes. B)
frontal lobes.
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C)
temporal lobes.
D) limbic lobes.
11. Choreography of a new dance is likely a function of the: A) parietal lobes. B)
temporal lobes.
C)
frontal lobes.
D) limbic lobes.
12. Which of the following tests would Alex the parrot most likely have been able to accomplish? A) counting the number of items on a tray B)
indicating the color of an object
C)
identifying when an incorrect object was given to him
D) All of the answers are correct.
13. Cells in visual area V5 are most sensitive to: A) color. B)
shape.
C)
size.
D) movement.
14. In a study by Newsome and associates, monkeys were trained to discriminate directions of motion while researchers recorded from single neurons in area V5 that were sensitive to a specific direction of motion. According to the results of this experiment, which of the following options would result in the highest firing rate in a V5 neuron? A) random dot movement B)
no dot movement
C)
semicoordinated dot movement
D) The firing rate of the neuron would be the same in all conditions.
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15. The association cortex makes up about A) one-third B)
one-half
C)
two-thirds
of the total cortex.
D) three-quarters
16. Which of the following brain regions is not considered to be part of the prefrontal association cortex? A) dorsolateral prefrontal cortex B)
ventromedial prefrontal cortex
C)
anterior cingulate cortex
D) All of the regions are part of the prefrontal association cortex.
17. The inability to perceive motion often results from damage to the visual area the occipital lobe of the brain. A) V5 B)
V2
C)
V1
D) V4
18. Humans with damage to visual area V4 can no longer see: A) distance. B)
size.
C)
color.
D) movement.
19. Conscious visual knowledge of objects (e.g., shape, size, texture) is stored in the: A) parietal cortex. B)
occipital cortex.
C)
temporal cortex.
D) frontal cortex.
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of
20. A person who once had knowledge about certain objects now loses visual knowledge of those objects and also other objects when his is destroyed. A) parietal cortex. B)
temporal cortex.
C)
frontal cortex.
D) occipital cortex.
21. Visual agnosia results from damage to the: A) ventral stream. B)
dorsal stream
C)
parietal cortex.
D) occipital cortex.
22. A person who can localize objects and describe their location from memory but cannot identify objects or describe them from memory most likely has a lesion in the: A) parietal cortex. B)
temporal cortex.
C)
frontal cortex.
D) occipital cortex.
23. The is critical for object recognition, whereas the action. A) ventral stream; dorsal stream B)
temporal cortex; frontal cortex
C)
dorsal stream; ventral stream
D) frontal cortex; occipital cortex
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is critical for vision for
24. Anthony can perceive objects normally, but when he reaches out to pick them up, he often misses the object entirely or grasps it awkwardly. This difficulty with picking up objects does not appear to be a problem with his muscles, as he can move his arms just fine. This peculiar disorder is mostly like the result of damage to the: A) frontal cortex. B)
parietal cortex.
C)
temporal cortex.
D) occipital cortex.
25. How we combine multiple sources of input (e.g., visual, auditory, motor) into a unified conscious experience is known as the: A) temporal problem. B)
sensory problem.
C)
binding problem.
D) association problem.
26. Your ability to imagine what an object would look like from a different viewpoint relies most heavily on the: A) parietal cortex. B)
temporal cortex.
C)
frontal cortex.
D) occipital cortex.
27. Spatial navigation relies on: A) the use of environmental landmarks. B)
the ability to imagine a map of the environment.
C)
the ability to mentally manipulate images.
D) All of the answers are correct.
28. Since Henry's recent stroke he has had a great deal of difficulty navigating around unfamiliar environments such doctor's offices and shopping malls. Henry most likely has damage to his: A) occipital lobe.
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B)
right parietal lobe.
C)
left parietal lobe
D) ventral stream.
29. In the study by Moran and Desimone, the firing rate of neurons in area V4 was highest when objects: A) appeared at the rewarded location. B)
appeared at an unrewarded location.
C)
appeared anywhere on the screen.
D) changed color anywhere on the screen.
30. A person who neglects objects or events in the left side of his or her world most likely has a lesion in the: A) left temporal lobe. B)
right temporal lobe.
C)
left parietal lobe.
D) right parietal lobe.
31. Extinction is a form of: A) apraxia. B)
neglect.
C)
aphasia.
D) preservation.
32. Alex has recently had a stroke in his right parietal lobe. Which of the following is likely to describe the deficits he might have? A) He no longer eats food from the right side of his plate. B)
He can no longer imagine the left side of his own mental images.
C)
He routinely bumps into things on his right side.
D) All of the answers are correct.
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33. Which of the following scenarios is MOST likely to lead to extinction in a patient with a right hemisphere injury? A) The patient is shown a pencil in the left visual field. B)
The patient is shown a spoon in the right visual field.
C)
The patient is shown a pencil in the left and right visual fields at the same time.
D) The patient is shown a pencil in the left visual field and a spoon in the right visual field at the same time.
34. The temporal organization of behavior is the general function of the: A) parietal lobes. B)
temporal lobes.
C)
frontal lobes.
D) limbic lobes.
35. Which of the following is most analogous to an orchestra conductor? A) temporal lobes B)
frontal lobes
C)
parietal lobes
D) occipital lobes
36. Which of the following tasks would be difficult for someone with a prefrontal cortex injury? A) grocery shopping to prepare for a dinner party that was organized an hour ago B)
understanding a joke
C)
recognizing a friend's face
D) driving to a friend's house
37. The Wisconsin Card Sorting Test is an excellent measure to examine: A) neglect. B)
extinction.
C)
the ability to shift strategy.
D) parietal lobe function.
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38. Which of the following best describes the type of problem that a patient with a prefrontal cortex injury might have on the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test? A) The patient has difficulty learning to sort according to a rule. B)
The patient has difficulty switching strategies to use a new sorting rule.
C)
The patient is never able to remember the categories.
D) All of the statements are correct.
39. According to recent work by Gregory Hickok, mirror neurons may be important for but not for . A) language; action understanding B)
action recognition; action understanding
C)
action understanding; action recognition
D) action understanding; language
40. A patient with damage to the left temporal pole might have problems with: A) reading. B)
verbal memory.
C)
visual memory.
D) the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test.
41. A patient with poor visual memory might have damage to: A) the left frontal lobe. B)
the left temporal lobe.
C)
the right temporal lobe.
D) Broca's area.
42. Using rs-fMRI, scientists have identified approximately A) 5 B)
13
C)
17
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networks.
D) 25
43. The human cerebellum is thought to be important for: A) motor learning. B)
language.
C)
working memory.
D) All of the answers are correct.
44. Studies in social neuroscience have suggested that the brain region most important for theory of mind is the: A) orbitofrontal cortex. B)
dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.
C)
dorsal premotor cortex.
D) amygdala.
45. The experience of empathy is thought to be related to activity in the: A) medial prefrontal cortex. B)
dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.
C)
dorsal premotor cortex.
D) amygdala.
46. Social neuroscience studies have demonstrated that anticipation of pain activates the: A) lateral prefrontal cortex. B)
inferior parietal cortex.
C)
superior temporal cortex.
D) anterior cingulate cortex.
47. Research in neuroeconomics has linked activity in the with a reflexive decision system and activity in the with reflective decision system. A) nucleus accumbens and ventromedial prefrontal cortex; medial temporal cortex and lateral prefrontal cortex
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B) medial temporal cortex and lateral prefrontal cortex; nucleus accumbens and ventromedial prefrontal cortex C) amygdala; ventromedial prefrontal cortex D) medial temporal cortex and lateral prefrontal cortex; nucleus accumbens
48. Evaluation of two cola brands during an fMRI study increased activation in the the finding was correlated with the participant's brand. A) dorsolateral prefrontal cortex; preferred B)
orbitofrontal cortex; preferred
C)
orbitofrontal cortex; less-favored
;
D) anterior cingulate cortex; less-favored
49. A person who is considered to be impulsive might have increased activity in the when making economic decisions. A) ventromedial prefrontal cortex and nucleus accumbens B)
lateral prefrontal and medial temporal cortex
C)
dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
D) posterior parietal cortex
50. Which of the following statements about anatomical asymmetry is not correct? A) Broca's area is larger on the right than on the left. B)
The face area in the sensorimotor cortex is larger on the left than on the right.
C)
The primary auditory area is larger on the left than on the right.
D) The dendritic fields of neurons in Broca's area in the left hemisphere are larger than those in the right hemisphere.
51. The is larger in the right hemisphere, and the hemisphere. A) primary auditory cortex; secondary auditory cortex B)
prefrontal cortex; medial temporal lobe
C)
primary motor cortex; primary somatosensory cortex
D) Wernicke's area; Broca's area
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is larger in the left
52. Splitting of the corpus callosum is most likely a treatment for: A) Parkinson disease. B)
epilepsy.
C)
synesthesia.
D) Alzheimer disease.
53. Your patient has difficulties assembling puzzles, copying drawings, and finding his way around the city. The most likely site of his lesion is the: A) left parietal lobe. B)
right parietal lobe.
C)
left temporal lobe.
D) right temporal lobe.
54. Your patient cannot read, and she has difficulty in copying movements and generating the names of objects and animals. The most likely site of the lesion is the: A) left parietal lobe. B)
right parietal lobe.
C)
left temporal lobe.
D) right temporal lobe.
55. Patients with apraxia have difficulty: A) reading a newspaper. B)
walking down the street.
C)
copying a series of arm movements.
D) copying a drawing.
56. Kimura observed that participants who were asked to remember a series of digits tended to do better when the digits were presented: A) to the right ear. B)
to the left ear.
C)
to both ears at the same time.
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D) using a female voice.
57. Kimura observed that participants who were asked to remember melodies tended to do better when: A) the music was presented to the right ear. B)
the music was presented to the left ear.
C)
the music was presented to both ears at the same time.
D) participants listened to classical music.
58. If you have language in the left hemisphere and I present two strings of digits in the two ears at the same time, you will recall: A) more left-ear digits. B)
more right-ear digits.
C)
an equal number from each ear.
D) alternately from ear to ear.
59. In a normal participant, if you briefly present a word easily. A) in the left visual field B)
in the right visual field
C)
in the lower visual field
, it will be identified more
D) in the upper visual field
60. If I present an object in the right visual field of a split-brain patient, the patient: A) can pick it out with the left hand. B)
can pick it out with the right hand.
C)
cannot tell you what it was.
D) can pick it out with the right hand but cannot tell you what it was.
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61. If you present a picture of an object to the left visual field of a split-brain patient, the patient: A) can pick it out with the left hand. B)
can pick it out with the right hand.
C)
can name the object.
D) cannot respond.
62. Fine movement deficits are seen after: A) right parietal lobe lesions. B)
left parietal lobe lesions.
C)
right frontal lobe lesions.
D) left temporal lobe lesions.
63. Braille readers often use: A) their left hand. B)
their right hand.
C)
both hands.
D) None of the answers is correct.
64. Split-brain studies have indicated that: A) language occurs only in the left hemisphere. B)
nouns are processed only in the right hemisphere.
C)
verbs are processed only in the left hemisphere.
D) both hemispheres process nouns and verbs, but syntax is in the left.
65. The ability to make causal inferences seems to rely on the: A) left hemisphere. B)
right temporal lobe.
C)
left parietal lobe.
D) right hemisphere.
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66. Males are typically better at tasks, whereas females tend to excel at tasks. A) spatial relations and mental rotation; short-term memory and verbal fluency B)
short-term memory and spatial relations; verbal fluency and mental rotation
C)
short-term memory and verbal fluency; spatial relations and mental rotation
D) verbal fluency and spatial relations; mental rotation and short-term memory
67. Women are generally better than men on: A) mental rotation of shapes. B)
spatial relations.
C)
verbal fluency.
D) the water task.
68. A study by Goldstein and colleagues observed that women have , whereas men have . A) larger dorsal prefrontal regions; larger ventral prefrontal regions B)
larger ventral prefrontal regions; larger dorsal prefrontal regions
C)
larger amygdala volumes; larger parietal regions
D) larger ventral prefrontal regions; larger cerebellar volume
69. Kolb and Stewart found that: A) dorsal frontal neurons have larger dendritic fields in males than in females. B)
dorsal frontal neurons have smaller dendritic fields in males than in females.
C)
orbital frontal cells have larger dendritic fields in males than in females.
D) orbital frontal cells have smaller dendritic fields in males than in females.
70. The male advantage for spatial skills may have evolved from the fact that males: A) ranged over larger territories than females. B)
developed the first tools.
C)
tend to be more aggressive than females.
D) All of the answers are correct.
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71. Kimura has shown that: A) females were much less likely to have language deficits after a left-hemisphere stroke. B) females were more likely to be apraxic and aphasic after a left-hemisphere frontal cortex lesion. C) males were more likely to be apraxic and aphasic after a left-hemisphere frontal cortex lesion. D) males were much less likely to have language deficits after a left-hemisphere stroke.
72.
According to research by Kimura, following a stroke in adulthood, males: A) were less likely to be aphasic and apraxic after left posterior lesions. B)
were more likely to be aphasic and apraxic after left posterior lesions.
C)
were less likely to be aphasic and apraxic after left temporal lesions.
D) were more likely to be aphasic and apraxic after left frontal lesions
73.
tend to have better spatial skills than A) Meadow voles; pine voles B)
Pine voles; meadow voles
C)
Male pine voles; female pine voles
.
D) Females; males
74. The percentage of people who write with their left hand is: A) 10. B) 15. C) 20. D) 30.
75. Which of the following statements about handedness and language is false? A) Right-handed people have language in the left hemisphere. B)
Seventy percent of left-handers have speech in the left hemisphere.
C)
Thirty percent of left-handers have speech in the right hemisphere.
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D) Fifteen percent of left-handers have speech in both hemispheres.
76. DTI studies have revealed that the male brain , whereas the female brain . A) has more intrahemispheric connections; has more interhemispheric connections B)
has more interhemispheric connections; has more intrahemispheric connections
C) has more connections within the right hemisphere; has more connections within the left hemisphere D) has more connections within the left hemisphere; has more connections within the right hemisphere
77. If you were preparing to do brain surgery on someone and you needed to know what hemisphere language was lateralized in, which test would deliver the most accurate results? A) dichotic listening B)
fMRI tests of language
C)
EEG
D) the sodium amobarbital test
78. Compared with right-handers, left-handers have: A) a smaller brain. B)
a larger brain.
C)
a smaller corpus callosum.
D) a larger corpus callosum.
79. Your friend tells you that every letter of the alphabet has a distinct color to him. For example, A is always a specific hue of yellow and G is always baby blue. You believe your friend: A) is on drugs. B)
has had a stroke.
C)
has synesthesia.
D) has a brain tumor.
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80. Which of the following is not an example of genuine synesthesia? A) Seeing colors when you hear music. B)
Hearing a scratching noise when you see the color red.
C)
Tasting a specific flavor when you touch an object.
D) Seeing each letter of the alphabet as a unique color.
81. Synesthesia is: A) the same as a phantom limb. B)
anesthesia of a sensory system.
C)
anesthesia of a motor output.
D) the experience in which stimulation in one sensory modality gives rise to a sensation in another modality.
82. The most common form of synesthesia is: A) colored taste. B)
colored hearing.
C)
colored touch.
D) colored pain.
83. Overall brain volume is A) positively related B)
negatively related
C)
poorly related
to intelligence.
D) linked
84. Witelson and colleagues have found that Einstein's brain: A) was virtually identical to a typical brain. B)
had a large temporal lobe.
C)
had a large parietal lobe.
D) had a large frontal lobe.
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85. Einstein's brain was found to have more than the normal amount of: A) neurons in the parietal cortex. B)
neurons in the frontal cortex.
C)
glial cells in the parietal cortex.
D) glial cells in the frontal cortex.
86. Which of the following is not one of Howard Gardner's intelligences? A) object intelligence B)
bodily-kinesthetic intelligence
C)
intrapersonal intelligence
D) spatial intelligence
87. Frontal lobe injury most likely interferes with: A) g intelligence. B)
divergent thinking.
C)
convergent thinking.
D) consciousness.
88. Brain imaging studies have generally found that intelligence is related to: A) activity in the prefrontal cortex. B)
activity in the parietal cortex.
C)
networks linking temporal and frontal cortex.
D) networks linking frontal and parietal cortices.
89. Compared to monolinguals, bilinguals have been shown to have: A) increased gray matter in the frontal lobes. B)
increased numbers of glial cells in the frontal lobes.
C)
increased gray matter in the temporal lobes.
D) increased numbers of glial cells in the temporal lobes.
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90. The ventral visual stream is A) conscious; not conscious
, whereas the dorsal visual stream is
B)
not conscious; conscious
C)
important for action; important for perception
.
D) in the parietal lobe; in the temporal lobe
91. In a study by Jeannerod and colleagues participants were asked to grasp an illuminated object. On some trials, when the participant reached toward the object, a different object suddenly became illuminated and participants had to correct their movement to grasp the newly illuminated object. The results of this study indicated that: A) participants had to consciously detect that the new object had illuminated before they could correct their movement. B) participants were not able to correct their movement to the newly illuminated object. C) participants began to correct their movement to the newly illuminated object prior to consciously detecting that the target had changed position. D) participants were not able to detect that the target object had changed position.
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Chapter 16 – What happens when the brain misbehaves? 1. It is estimated that 1 in 6 veterans of the wars in Iraq and Afghanistan will develop symptoms of: A) depression. B)
anxiety.
C)
posttraumatic stress disorder.
D) All of the answers are correct.
2. Patients with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) have been found to have reduced volume in the: A) hippocampus. B)
frontal cortex.
C)
parietal cortex.
D) hippocampus and the frontal cortex.
3. The region of the brain that resembles what Sigmund Freud called the superego is: A) the prefrontal neocortex. B)
the cortex.
C)
the limbic system.
D) the temporal cortex.
4. The region of the brain that resembles what Sigmund Freud called the id is: A) the frontal cortex B)
the cortex.
C)
the limbic system.
D) the temporal cortex.
5. Huntington disease is caused by: A) a genetic error. B)
loss of neural connections.
C)
progressive cell death.
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D) rapid cell death.
6. Multiple sclerosis is characterized by: A) progressive cell death. B)
rapid cell death.
C)
loss of neural connections.
D) genetic alteration.
7.
Tay-Sachs disease is caused by: A) loss of neural connections. B)
progressive cell death.
C)
rapid cell death.
D) a genetic error.
8. Which of the following is (are) caused by genetic errors? A) phenylketonuria B)
Huntington disease
C)
Tay-Sachs disease
D) All of the answers are correct.
9. Korsakoff syndrome is often the result of: A) traumatic brain injury. B)
a poor diet.
C)
a stroke.
D) genetic abnormalities.
10.
can be treated by diet restrictions such as limiting the intake of foods high in protein, for example beef, cheese, and fish. A) Tay-Sachs disease B)
Autism
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C)
Phenylketonuria
D) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
11.
is characterized by decreased neuron size and dendritic length and spine density, as well as mental retardation. A) Phenylketonuria B)
Autism
C)
Tay-Sachs disease
D) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
12. The symptoms of Parkinson disease become apparent when approximately cells die in the dopamine pathway. A) 25 percent to 30 percent; nigrostriatal B)
35 percent to 50 percent; mesolimbic
C)
60 percent to 80 percent; nigrostriatal
of
D) 90 percent to 100 percent; mesolimbic
13. Rats with specific lesions to the nigrostriatal dopamine system are used for a model of: A) Huntington disease. B)
Parkinson disease.
C)
Tay-Sachs disease.
D) multiple sclerosis.
14. Epidemiology is the study of: A) epidemics. B)
bugs.
C)
the distribution and causes of diseases in human populations.
D) genetics.
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15. According to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM), which type of disorder is characterized by physical symptoms (e.g., paralysis) that have been caused by psychological rather than physical factors? A) mood disorders B)
dissociative disorders
C)
somatoform disorders
D) impulse control disorders
16. Enlarged ventricles may occur in: A) schizophrenia. B)
Alzheimer disease.
C)
alcoholism.
D) All of the answers are correct.
17. Adult-onset schizophrenia has been linked to: A) abnormalities in prefrontal cortex. B)
abnormalities in the hippocampus.
C)
decreased occipital lobe volume.
D) All of the answers are correct.
18. Which of the following is NOT a treatment for Parkinson disease? A) deep brain stimulation B)
lesioning the thalamus
C)
lesioning the caudate nucleus
D) stimulating the globus pallidus
19. Parkinson disease may be treated by: A) brain stimulation. B)
brain lesions.
C)
pharmacological treatment.
D) brain stimulation, brain lesions, and pharmacological treatment.
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20. Deep brain stimulation is effective in treating: A) depression. B)
obsessive-compulsive disorder.
C)
Parkinson disease.
D) All of the answers are correct.
21. Deep brain stimulation is used to treat Parkinson disease by stimulating the: A) caudate nucleus. B)
putamen.
C)
globus pallidus.
D) substantia nigra.
22. Studies have shown that neural transplantation of stem cells: A) can be used to cure Parkinson disease. B)
can completely reverse the effects of stroke.
C)
can cure Parkinson disease and reverse the effects of stroke.
D) has only limited efficacy.
23. Electroconvulsive therapy was developed as a treatment for: A) schizophrenia. B)
anxiety attacks.
C)
depression.
D) obsessive-compulsive disorders.
24. Electroconvulsive therapy may help treat depression by increasing: A) the number of new neurons in the brain. B)
levels of glutamate in the brain.
C)
levels of brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF).
D) levels of GABA in the brain.
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25. Which of the following treatments has (have) been used to treat depression? A) insulin therapy B)
electroconvulsive therapy
C)
transcranial magnetic stimulation
D) All of the answers are correct.
26. Transcranial magnetic stimulation has been used to treat: A) depression. B)
schizophrenia.
C)
Alzheimer disease.
D) depression and schizophrenia.
27. Patients who take neuroleptics for long periods may develop: A) Parkinson disease. B)
tardive dyskinesia.
C)
ataxia.
D) All of the answers are correct.
28.
is a disorder in which the patient is unable to stop the tongue, hands, or other body parts from moving. A) Parkinson disease B)
Ataxia
C)
Tardive dyskinesia
D) Schizophrenia
29. Freud is BEST known for developing: A) behavior therapy. B)
cognitive therapy.
C)
psychotherapies.
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D) group therapies.
30.
can be used to help people learn to change their behavior by changing their patterns of brain activity. A) Transcranial magnetic stimulation B)
Functional near infrared spectroscopy
C)
Real-time functional magnetic resonance imaging
D) Electroencephalography
31.
has been used to treat Parkinson disease and stroke. A) Music therapy B)
TMS
C)
Real-time fMRI
D) Emotional therapy
32. The MOST common cause of brain injury in people under 40 is: A) meningitis. B)
traumatic brain injury.
C)
stroke.
D) aneurysms.
33. Traumatic brain injuries are more common in A) women; 15 to 30 B)
men; 15 to 19
C)
men; 25 to 40
and peak at age
.
D) women; 15 to 19
34. A child's chance of having a significant closed-head injury before he or she is old enough to drive is: A) 1 in 50,000. B) 1 in 1000.
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C) 1 in 30. D) 1 in 20.
35. Traumatic brain injury can result in: A) brain swelling. B)
scar tissue.
C)
disruptions in blood supply.
D) All of the answers are correct.
36. Josh played professional football for a number of years, during which he had numerous concussions. Following his retirement from football, Josh became depressed, had trouble controlling his temper, and made bad decisions that ended in the breakup of his marriage. Josh later committed suicide. An autopsy of Josh's brain revealed that he had clear signs of: A) Alzheimer disease. B)
ischemia.
C)
chronic traumatic encephalopathy.
D) diaschisis.
37. Chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE) is characterized by: A) neurofibrillary tangles. B)
amyloid plaques.
C)
white matter loss.
D) both neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques.
38. Repeated concussions have been associated with later development of: A) Alzheimer disease. B)
chronic traumatic encephalopathy.
C)
Parkinson disease.
D) All of the answers are correct.
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39. The areas of the brain that are MOST susceptible to closed-head injuries are: A) parietal and temporal lobes. B)
temporal and frontal lobes.
C)
frontal and occipital lobes.
D) temporal and occipital lobes.
40. Brain damage that occurs opposite the site of impact during a traumatic brain injury is called: A) contrecoup injury. B)
coup injury.
C)
recoil injury.
D) shearing injury.
41. Samantha was in a car accident yesterday. She hit her forehead directly against the dash, which resulted in a traumatic brain injury. It is likely that she damaged her: A) frontal lobe. B)
occipital lobe.
C)
both frontal and occipital lobe.
D) temporal lobe.
42. Loss of complex cognitive functions, including reductions in mental speed, concentration, and overall cognitive efficiency, is characteristic of: A) recovery from coma. B)
discrete impairment from frontal lobe damage.
C)
contrecoup lesions.
D) tears due to movement of the hemispheres.
43. TBI can be diagnosed MOST easily using: A) CT scans. B)
MRI.
C)
MRS.
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D) DTI.
44. Closed-head injuries that have significant effects on personality and social behavior are usually associated with damage to: A) temporal and parietal lobes. B)
parietal and frontal lobes.
C)
frontal and temporal lobes.
D) occipital and frontal lobes.
45. A technique to identify changes in specific markers of neural function, such as Nacetylaspartate (NAA), is called: A) a PET scan. B)
magnetic resonance spectroscopy.
C)
magnetic resonance imaging.
D) a CT scan.
46. The LEAST likely function to recover after closed-head injuries is: A) memory. B)
cognitive skills.
C)
social skills.
D) motor skills.
47. Ischemia is a: A) bulge in an artery. B)
bulge in a vein.
C)
disruption in blood supply.
D) disruption in blood supply due to bleeding in the brain.
48. A stroke can produce: A) changes in pH. B)
diaschisis.
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C)
a drop in metabolic rate in the brain.
D) All of the answers are correct.
49. During an ischemic stroke, starts a chain of events that result in further brain damage. A) excessive intake of calcium B)
excessive release of glutamate
C)
reduction of ATP in mitochondria
D) excessive release of GABA
50. During a stroke too much A) calcium B)
potassium
C)
chloride
enters the neuron, and it has a toxic effect.
D) sodium
51. During , areas of the brain distant from the site of injury are functionally depressed. A) diaschisis B)
a traumatic brain injury
C)
an epileptic seizure
D) neurosurgery
52. Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) has been shown to be effective in treating some types of: A) traumatic brain injury. B)
stroke.
C)
aneurysm.
D) brain tumors.
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53. One of the most effective treatments for recovering function in a limb following a brain injury is: A) virtual reality therapy. B)
administration of neuroprotectants.
C)
t-PA.
D) constraint-induced therapy.
54. The probability of having one seizure in your lifetime is: A) 1 in 20. B)
1 in 50.
C) 1 in 100. D) 1 in 200.
55. Seizures are MOST likely to occur when a person is: A) watching television. B)
driving.
C)
sleeping.
D) exercising.
56.
seizures might have sensory, motor, or autonomic features that are localized to a particular part of the body. A) Focal B)
Generalized
C)
Grand mal
D) Complex partial
57. Anticonvulsant drugs that are used to treat epilepsy typically influence: A) GABA receptors. B)
NMDA receptors.
C)
glutamate receptors.
D) acetylcholine receptors.
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58. Which of the following has (have) been used to treat epilepsy? A) GABA agonists B)
neurosurgery
C)
deep brain stimulation
D) All of the answers are correct.
59. Multiple sclerosis primarily damages: A) motor neurons. B)
sensory neurons.
C)
myelin.
D) dorsal root ganglion.
60. Multiple sclerosis is relatively common in: A) Japan. B)
men.
C)
northern Europe.
D) China.
61. The classic feature of multiple sclerosis is: A) hemiplegia. B)
tremors.
C)
paraplegia.
D) dysphasia.
62. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Multiple sclerosis is most prevalent in Japan. B)
Worldwide, about 1 million people are afflicted with multiple sclerosis.
C)
Women are more likely to have multiple sclerosis than men are.
D) Where multiple sclerosis occurs, its incidence is 50 per 100,000.
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63. The liberation therapy for multiple sclerosis is based on the idea that it is caused by: A) an autoimmune reaction. B)
a lack of vitamin D.
C)
improper blood drainage from the brain.
D) a viral infection
64. Which of the following has NOT been proposed as a possible cause of multiple sclerosis? A) an autoimmune disorder B)
lack of vitamin B
C)
a problem with misfolded proteins
D) insufficient blood drainage from the brain
65. Dementia affects of people over age 80. A) 10 percent to 20 percent B)
5 percent to 10 percent
C)
1 percent to 6 percent
D) 30 percent to 50 percent
66. Which of the following is NOT a form of degenerative dementia? A) Parkinson disease B)
Alzheimer disease
C)
Corticobasal degeneration
D) Vascular dementia
67. Richard has hypertension and diabetes, and he is a longtime smoker who is obese. Richard may be at high risk for: A) vascular dementia. B)
Parkinson disease.
C)
frontal-temporal dementia.
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D) Wilson disease.
68. Parkinson disease seems to be related to degeneration of: A) the red nucleus. B)
the globus pallidus.
C)
the substantia nigra.
D) the caudate.
69. Tremor, rigidity, loss of spontaneous movement, and disturbances of posture suggest: A) Parkinson disease. B)
Pick disease.
C)
Huntington disease.
D) Alzheimer disease.
70. Resting tremor, muscular rigidity, and involuntary movements are all: A) positive symptoms of Parkinson disease. B)
negative symptoms of Parkinson disease.
C)
negative symptoms of Huntington disease.
D) positive symptoms of Huntington disease.
71. Akathesia is: A) involuntary movements. B)
muscular rigidity.
C)
tremors at rest.
D) All of the answers are correct.
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72. Jack is 73 years old. He has great difficulty getting out of his chair. When he walks, it takes him a very long time to get his legs moving, but when he does start moving, he begins to go very quickly, almost as if he is starting to run. In addition, while he walks, his arms often hang motionless by his sides. When he is seated, he will stay motionless for long periods with a blank, emotionless expression. Jack is displaying classic symptoms of: A) Alzheimer disease. B)
Wilson disease.
C)
Parkinson disease.
D) multiple sclerosis.
73. Festination is: A) a balance disorder. B)
a motor initiation problem.
C)
short, shuffling steps.
D) faster and faster steps that end up in running.
74. Which of the following symptoms is (are) associated with Parkinson disease? A) loss of libido B)
loss of motive
C)
loss of attention
D) All of the answers are correct
75. Lesioning the internal portion of the globus pallidus has been used as a treatment for: A) Alzheimer disease. B)
Huntington disease.
C)
Pick disease.
D) Parkinson disease.
76. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor associated with Alzheimer disease? A) the presence of the Apoe4 gene. B)
below-average IQ.
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C)
a history of traumatic brain injury.
D) a history of smoking.
77. Neurofibrillary tangles (accumulation of microtubules from dead neurons) have been observed in: A) Alzheimer disease. B)
Parkinson disease.
C)
Down syndrome.
D) All of the answers are correct.
78. Which of the following are neuropathological changes in the brains of patients with Alzheimer disease? A) amyloid plaques B)
neurofibrillary tangles
C)
Lewy bodies
D) All of the answers are correct.
79. The MOST widespread cause of cortical atrophy in Alzheimer disease appears to be loss of: A) dendritic arborization. B)
large neurons.
C)
glial cells.
D) both large and small neurons.
80. Which of the following neurotransmitters is (are) reduced in Alzheimer disease? A) acetylcholine B)
dopamine
C)
serotonin
D) All of the answers are correct.
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81. A circular fibrous structure that forms within a cytoplasm of neurons is called: A) amyloid plaque. B)
a neurofibrillary tangle.
C)
a Lewy body.
D) None of the answers is correct.
82. The presence of Lewy bodies has been associated with: A) Parkinson disease. B)
Alzheimer disease.
C)
Down syndrome.
D) both Parkinson and Alzheimer disease.
83. Compared to younger people, older people tend to demonstrate executive networks when performing cognitive tasks. A) decreased activation B)
increased activation
C)
the same amount of activation
in attentional and
D) no activation
84. The prevalence of schizophrenia is approximately A) 12 percent B)
5 percent
C)
3 percent
of the population.
D) 1 percent
85. Which of the following is a diagnostic symptom of schizophrenia? A) disorganized thinking B)
catatonic behavior
C)
hypokinesia (slowness of movement)
D) hallucinations
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86. The concordance rate for schizophrenia in identical twins is: A) 100 percent. B)
75 percent.
C)
25 percent.
D) 50 percent.
87. Families with a history of schizophrenia are also at elevated risk for: A) Parkinson disease. B)
multiple sclerosis.
C)
major depression.
D) antisocial personality disorder.
88. Individuals with schizophrenia tend to show the largest degree of cortical atrophy in the: A) parietal cortex. B)
frontal cortex.
C)
temporal cortex.
D) temporal and frontal cortices.
89. Which of the following is NOT one of the brain correlates of schizophrenia? A) enlarged ventricles B)
smaller dendritic fields in in the hippocampus
C)
decreased frontal and temporal lobe volume
D) smaller dendritic fields in the nucleus accumbens
90. Which of the following neurotransmitters was FIRST linked with schizophrenia? A) dopamine B)
glutamate
C)
GABA
D) serotonin
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91. Which of the following neurotransmitter systems is (are) impaired in individuals with schizophrenia? A) dopamine B)
glutamate
C)
GABA
D) All of the answers are correct.
92. What is the MOST likely diagnosis of people who have periods of excessive euphoria and uncontrollable hyperactivity alternating with periods of feeling worthless and guiltridden, with frequent thoughts of suicide? A) depression B)
mania
C)
generalized anxiety disorder
D) bipolar disorder
93. Antidepressant drugs increase synaptic levels of: A) norepinephrine. B)
serotonin.
C)
dopamine.
D) norepinephrine and serotonin.
94. When a person is stressed, the hypothalamus secretes the release of cortisol. A) corticotrophin-releasing hormone B)
adrenocorticotrophic hormone
C)
cortisol-releasing hormone
, which eventually results in
D) glucocorticoids
95. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of major depression? A) feelings of worthlessness and guilt B)
disturbances in eating habits
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C)
hallucinations
D) thoughts of suicide
96. Individuals with depression have elevated levels of: A) dopamine. B)
serotonin.
C)
norepinephrine.
D) cortisol.
97. The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis is influenced by: A) chronic stress. B)
cortisol levels.
C)
stressful early life events.
D) All of the answers are correct.
98. Fluoxetine (Prozac): A) decreases serotonin in the cortex. B)
increases dopamine in the cortex.
C)
induces neurogenesis in the hippocampus.
D) reduces brain-derived neurotropic factor.
99. Aside from drugs, one of the best treatments for depression is: A) TMS. B)
ECT.
C)
cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT).
D) sleep.
100.
Imaging studies of people with anxiety disorders show increased baseline activity in: A) the cingulate cortex. B)
the amygdala.
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C)
both the cingulate cortex and the amygdala.
D) the hypothalamus.
101.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are thought to reduce depression through: A) increasing levels of serotonin. B)
increasing levels of norepinephrine.
C)
increasing the number of neurons in the hippocampus.
D) both increasing levels of serotonin and increasing the number of neurons in the hippocampus.
102.
Imaging studies in individuals with anxiety disorders demonstrate: A) increased activation in the amygdala and prefrontal cortex. B)
decreased activation in the amygdala and prefrontal cortex.
C)
increased activation in the temporal lobes.
D) decreased activation in the parahippocampal gyrus.
103.
Studies investigating the treatments for anxiety have found that effective in reducing anxiety. A) benzodiazepines B)
selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
C)
cognitive-behavioral therapy
D) All of the answers are correct.
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tend(s) to be