BIOD 171 Final Exam (Module 1-3) True/False. A virus is classified as a microbe. - ✔True True or False: The smallest biological unit of life is the molecule. - ✔False -smallest unit of life is the cell. At a generalized level, all cells are comprised of what? - ✔Proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, and Polysaccharides How many different types of amino acids are available from which to make proteins? ✔20 How many amino acids are classified as being essential amino acids? - ✔9 What are the two major types of nucleic acids and their roles? - ✔DNA (deoxyribonucleic acids): contains genetic material and hereditary info in living organisms, RNA (ribonucleic acid): decodes sequence of hereditary info that is found in DNA Complete the following DNA strand, and indicate how many bonds are formed for each complementary pair: 3' GGTCATCG 5' 5' CC AGC 3' - ✔3' GGTCATCG 5', 5' CCAGTAGC 3', 2 bonds between A & T, 3 bonds between C & G The plasma membrane (select all that are true): - ✔Restricts movement of materials in and out of the cell, Prevents essential nutrients from escaping How many carbon atoms are present in the monosaccharide glucose? - ✔6 The molecular formula of Glucose is - ✔C6H12O6 True of False: The genetic material within a prokaryotic cell is contained within a membrane-enclosed region. - ✔False , Only eukaryotic cells contain genetics in nucleus. True or False: Prokaryotic cells can be subdivided into Bacteria and Archaea. - ✔True True or False: Archaea is noted for its ability to survive under harsh conditions. - ✔True
Which of the following microorganisms are considered to be Eukarya? Select all that apply. - ✔Animalia , Plantae , Fungi, Protista Microorganisms classified as _________ obtain most of their energy by converting light energy into chemical energy. - ✔Plantae Which of the following are considered Protista? Select all that apply. - ✔Algae , Amoeba True or False: Protista retain a unicellular classification, as they are unable to form tissue layers. - ✔True The function of the lysosome is (select all that apply): - ✔Waste disposal via hydrolytic enzymes Identify the following cellular components by matching the number with the description. ✔1 C Nucleus, 2 G Lysosome, 3 E Plasma membrane, 4 B Golgi apparatus, 5 A Rough endoplasmic reticulum, The combination of the cell membrane and the outer membrane is referred to as the (select all that apply): - ✔Cell envelope The function of the Golgi is (select all that apply): - ✔Protein modification and distribution True or False. All multicellular microorganisms classified as Animalia are autotropic. ✔False True or False: As movement requires energy, metabolism can be defined as a controlled set of biochemical reactions that occur in only motile organisms in order to maintain life. - ✔False Metabolism occurs in all living organisms, not just those that move. True or False: Enzymes are polysaccharides that catalyze chemical reactions - ✔False Enzymes are proteins that catalyze chemical reactions. What is a cofactor? And give a general example. - ✔A cofactor is a small chemical compound and helps an enzyme to catabolize a general example is metal ions. Define catabolism - ✔Catobloism is breakdown of large molecules into energy sources. Upon cellular injury, which metabolic process is involved during the growth and repair phases of the cell? - ✔Anabolism is the metabolic process to build up (biosynthesis) small molecules into larger ones during growth and repairing phases of the cell.
Describe the energy transfer process relative to both ATP and ADP. - ✔ATP has the energy (phosphate group) to donate while ADP can accept energy in the form of a phosphate group. Thus, ATP can be reduced (ATP ⟶ADP + Pi) while ADP can be built into ATP (ADP + Pi ⟶ATP). From what source do chemotrophs acquire energy? - ✔Chemotrophs aquire energy from chemicals found in environment. An organism that derives its energy by removing electrons from elemental sulfur would be classified as a __________? - ✔Lithotroph This phosphorylation process occurs in the mitochondria of chemotropic eukaryotes. ✔Oxidative phosphorylation The catabolism of a single molecule of glucose goes through what 3 distinct transitions? - ✔The breakdown of glucose goes through (1) Glycolysis then (2) Fermentation or Respiration and finally through (3) the electron transport chain (ETC). What is the most energetic transition in the catabolism of glucose? - ✔The electron transport chain yields 34 ATP while both glycolysis and fermentation (or respiration) each yield only 2 ATP. Identify the products of the following chemical equation: Glucose + 2NAD+ → 2 NADH + 2 Pyruvate + 2 ATP - ✔The products are to the right of the arrow: 2NADH, 2 Pyruvates and 2 ATP The presence of what molecule 'signals' to the cell that glycolysis is about to start? ✔G6P which is Glucose - 6 - Phospate True or False: In the absence of oxygen fermentation produces 2 ATP. - ✔False Fermentation only reduces NADH back to NAD+ How many ATP does the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle produce per pyruvate? - ✔1 ATP The TCA cycle produces only 1 ATP per pyruvate. True or False. The products of the TCA cycle enter and fuel the electron transport system. - ✔True In the absence of glucose, which of the following can be used as alternative energy sources? Select all that apply. - ✔Lipids Lactose Carbohydrates
For the catabolism of proteins and lipids, which of the following enzymes are used? Select all that apply. - ✔Lipases, Proteases, Proteases breakdown proteins while lipases breakdown lipids. True or False. The β-oxidation pathway catabolizes the fatty acid chains of lipids. ✔True Describe the relationship between chloroplasts and chlorophyll. - ✔Plants and algae contain chloroplasts, which are double membrane enclosed organellese housing the chlorophyll . True or False. Plants, algae and bacteria all contain chloroplasts. - ✔False Chloroplasts are specific to algae and plants only. The process of carbon fixation begins with which of the following reactants: select all that apply. - ✔Carbon fixation uses the ATP/NADPH produced during light reactions to convert CO2 and H2O into useful sources of energy (carbohydrates). What is one of the main functions of light reactions? - ✔Generate a proton concentration gradient to create ATP True or False: Dark reactions can occur in the presence or absence of light. - ✔True How many turns (or repititions) of the Calvin Cycle are required to generate one molecule of glucose? - ✔Six Complete the following equation by placing the appropriate numbers where indicated. [answer1]CO2 + [answer2]ATP + [answer3]NADPH + [answer4] H20 à C6H12O6 + [answer5]ADP + [answer6] NADP+ - ✔6 CO2 + 18 ATP + 12 NADPH + 12 H20 à C6H12O6 + 18 ADP + 12 NADP+ A + B → A − B - ✔Ligases A b + C → A + Cb - ✔Transferases A — + B → A + B — - ✔Oxidoreductases A − B → A + B - ✔Lyases A nanometer is defined as: - ✔10^-9 Resolution and contrast are two critical factors that influence your ability to see an object. Explain each. - ✔Resolution is distance between 2 objects, where the objects
can still be seen as separate, but poor resolution may appears as one object not separated. Contrast is difference in light absorbance between 2 objects, poor contrast makes visualization of multiple objects difficult. Assuming a fixed ocular, identify the part of the microscope you would adjust to enhance the magnification of a sample. - ✔Only the oculars (eyepiece) and the objectives contribute to the magnification of the sample. Since the eyepiece is fixed, only the objectives could be altered. What is the total magnification (relative to your eye) of a sample imaged with a 60x objective and a 10x eyepiece? Show your math. - ✔60 x 10 = 600 x magnification True or False: Staining is often required to image a cell that is adherent and flat (thin). ✔True Which of the following could NOT be seen clearly by the unaided eye? - ✔Virus with a diameter of 0.2 μm, Bacteria with diameter of 24 μm,A and C. The unaided eye can, on average, clearly resolve objects > 100 μm 1. eyepiece 2. neck 3.Fine adjustment knob 4.Objective 5.stage 6. Base - ✔Label the following unmarked microscope components (numbered arrows) by matching it with the components provided (letters). This type of microscope is best suited for visualizing GFP, RFP, and YFP proteins. ✔Fluorescence This type of microscope can provide detailed images of live cells without staining. ✔Phase-Contrast This type of microscope is used to greatly increase the contrast between samples and background by reflecting light off of the specimen. - ✔Dark Field This type of microscope uses neither halogen nor UV light sources but rather lasers to illuminate stained cells in high resolution. - ✔Confocal Identify what type of electron microscope was used to capture the following image and explain your choice. - ✔SEM (Scanning Electron Microscope) magnigication is now 200nm, because it generates a detailed three-dimensional shell model of the surface of a specimen.
Gram-Positive cells appear [answer1] in color due to a [answer2] peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall. - ✔Purple; thick Gram-Negative cells appear [answer1] in color due to a [answer2] peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall. - ✔Pink; Thin True or False: The distinguishing characteristic of Gram-Negative bacteria is the presence of LPS in the outer membrane. - ✔True True or False: If you wish to study the motility of an organism you cannot heat fix, but you can chemically fix the specimen. - ✔False Both heat and chemical fixation strategies will kill the cell, making motility observations impossible. You want to observe the size and shape of a cell. What is the easiest staining technique that you could perform? Name at least one dye you would use during this process. - ✔A simple stain is easiest with a methylene blue or crystal violet dye. You suspect a patient may have TB. Once a sample has been obtained, it is sent off to the lab for an acid-fast stain. If the patient were infected with TB, describe what you would expect to see on the stained slide. - ✔You would see red blood cells which are TB +, with a blue backgroud TBTrue or False: If a patient is suspected of having malaria, a Giemsa stain would be an appropriate differential test to perform. - ✔True Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM) with a 200nm resolution, substructures are still visible, no outside shell. - ✔Identify what type of electron microscope was used to capture the following image and explain your choice.