DUMPS BASE
EXAM DUMPS
JUNIPER JN0-348
28% OFF Automatically For You Enterprise Routing and Switching, Specialist
1.What are two benefits of 802.3ad link aggregation? A. It ensures symmetrical paths. B. In increases bandwidth C. It creates physical layer redundancy D. It simplifies interface configuration. Answer: BC
2.What is the purpose of the configuration shown in the exhibit?
A. This configuration causes all routes for directly connected interfaces to be installed in oth the inet.0 routing table and the inet.0 routing table for the blue routing instance. B. This configuration allows you to specify my-rib-group in a static route's next-table statement to cause the static route to first try to resolve the address in inet.0 and then in blue.inet.0. C. This configuration causes all routes for directly connected interfaces that are assigned to the blue routing instance to be installed in both the inet.0 routing table and the inet.0 routing table for the blue routing instance. D. This configuration causes all routes from inet.0 to also be installed in blue.inet.0. Answer: A
3.Which statement regarding the benefits of using GRE instead of IP-IP tunneling is true? A. GRE supports authentication. B. GRE supports private IP addresses over the Internet. C. GRE supports encryption. D. GRE supports both IP traffic and non-IP traffic. Answer: D
4.Which two put ge-0/0/0 and ge-0/0/1 into the VLAN data? A. set interfaces interface-range data-ports member ge-0/0/0 set interfaces interface-range data-ports member ge-0/0/1 set interfaces interface-range data-ports unit 0 family ethernet-switching vlan members data B. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 to ge-0/0/1 unit 0 family ethernet-switching vlan members data C. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 family ethernet-switching vlan members data set interfaces ge-0/0/1 unit 0 family ethernet-switching vlan members data D. set interfaces ge-0/0/0-1 unit 0 family ethernet-switching vlan members data Answer: AC
5.Which two statements are true about IS-IS router behavior? A. If an IS-IS DIS attached to a broadcast, multi-access network fails, a new DIS is elected. B. An IS-IS router attached to a broadcast, multi-access network establishes an adjacency only to the network's elected DIS. C. An IS-IS router attached to a broadcast, multi-access network establishes adjacencies with all of its neighbors on the network. D. If an IS-IS DIS attached to a broadcast, multi-access network fails, the backup DIS assumes the primary DIS role. Answer: AC
6.You want several different subnets within your enterprise network to be reachable from outside the enterprise network. Your edge router must share a single route advertisement about these subnets with external devices. If one of the subnets is unavailable, your edge router should drop any traffic destined to that subnet. Which type of route, configured on the edge device with default behavior, accomplishes these objectives? A. a primary contributing route B. an OSPF route C. an aggregate route D. a generated route Answer: C
7.You are currently defining a new OSPF area. The area must advertise external routes but should not receive external routes from another area. In this scenario,
which type of area should you define? A. stub B. backbone C. not-so-stubby D. totally stubby Answer: A
8.You configured an aggregate route of 192.168.8.0/21 and committed the updated configuration. Using an operational show command, you notice that the newly configured route is not present in the output. What would explain this behavior? A. There are no active contributing routes. B. The next hop is not resolvable. C. The next hop is not reachable. D. An aggregate route will not show up in the local table; it will be shared only with BGP neighbors. Answer: A
9.Referring to the exhibit, which type of route is displayed?
A. generate B. aggregate
C. martian D. static Answer: B
10.A root bridge in an RSTP network is connected to other neighboring bridges using point-to-point links. Which combination of port types can exist on the root bridge? A. There can be some combination of designated ports and alternate ports. B. All ports will be designated ports. C. All ports will be root ports. D. There can be some combination of root ports and alternate ports. Answer: B
11.What is the correct sequence of OSPF adjacency formation? A. Down, 2way, Init, ExStart, Exchange, Loading, Full B. Down, Init, ExStart, 2way, Loading, Exchange, Full C. Down, Init, 2way, Loading, ExStart, Exchange, Full D. Down, Init, 2way, ExStart, Exchange, Loading, Full Answer: D
12.Which statement correctly describes the Border Gateway Protocol ( BGP)? A. A routing protocol used between autonomous systems. B. A redundancy protocol that assists with interface failover on the LAN side of a device at the network edge. C. A security protocol that monitors traffic on a gateway device and shuts down a port based on configured thresholds. D. A switching protocol used between switches on a branch office LAN. Answer: A
13.What information is included in the DHCP snooping database? A. DHCP options B. client MAC address C. DHCP server address D. VLAN Answer: BD
14.Host-1 was recently added in the network and is attached to ge-0/0/10 on Switch A. Host-1 is powered on and has its interface configured with default Layer 2 settings
and an IP address on the 172.17.12.0/24 IP subnet. Host-1’s MAC address is not shown in Switch-A’s bridging table. What are three explanations for this state? A. The ge-0/0/10 interface is not operationally or administratively up. B. The ge-0/0/10 interface does not have an associated RVI. C. The ge-0/0/10 interface has not received any traffic from Host-1. D. The ge-0/0/10 interface is configured as an access port. E. The ge-0/0/10 interface is configured as a trunk port. Answer: ACE
15.During OSPF neighbor adjacency formation, in which state is the initial database descriptor sequence number chosen? A. Exchange B. ExStart C. Loading D. 2Way Answer: B
16.Which port is selected as the designated port if a designated bridge has multiple ports connected to a LAN segment? A. The port with the highest port ID B. The port with the lowest MAC address C. The port with the highest MAC address D. The port with the lowest port ID Answer: D
17.What is reviewed first in the BGP route selection process? A. the route with an origin of incomplete B. the path with no MED value C. the peer with the lowest IP address D. the next-hop resolution Answer: D
18.Which two new port roles does RSTP introduce? A. backup B. designated C. forwarding D. alternate Answer: AD
19.What would be used to combine multiple switches into a single management platform? A. graceful Routing Engine switchover B. redundant trunk groups C. Virtual Chassis D. Virtual Router Redundancy protocol Answer: C
20.Which two statements are true regarding a designated intermediate system ( DIS) in an IS-IS network? ( Choose two.) A. It is not allowed to send any PDUs on a designated intermediate system ( DIS). B. It performs a similar role to the designated router ( DR) in OSPF. C. DIS selection uses the router's IP address as a tiebreaker. D. A backup DIS is not elected. Answer: BD
21.The IS-IS adjacency between routers R1 and R2 will not establish.
Referring to exhibit, what is the problem? A. The IP address is not configured on interface lo0. B. The level is not configured under protocols isis. C. The link MTU is too small on interface ge-0/0/1. D. The ISO address is not configured on interface ge-0/0/1. Answer: C
22.You are analyzing packet captures on your network. You observe an OSPF Type 7 LSA. In which area type did this packet originate? A. stub B. not-so-stubby area C. backbone D. totally stubby Answer: B
23.Which statement describes the operation of a stub area? A. A stub area receives no external routes from other areas. B. A stub area is automatically configured based on the presence of the E-bit in the hello messages sent from the ABR. C. A stub area receives only a default route. D. A stub area receives all routes from all other areas. Answer: A
24.Which statement is true about IS-IS PDUs? A. Separate CSNP and PSNP types exist for Level 1 and Level 2 systems. B. Both the DIS and the backup DIS broadcast CSNPs over a broadcast link. C. PSNPs contain header information for all link-state PDUs in the IS-IS database. D. CSNPs are exchanged only during initial adjacency establishment when a complete LSDB is being built. Answer: A
25.Which OSPF packet type is sent when an OSPF router detects its database is stale? A. database description B. hello C. link-state acknowledgment D. link-state request Answer: D
26.Which two statements are true about DIS elections in IS-IS? ( Choose two.) A. If a priority tie occurs, the router with the lower subnetwork point of attachment ( SNPA) value becomes the DIS. B. The router with the higher priority value becomes the DIS. C. If a priority tie occurs, the router with the higher subnetwork point of attachment ( SNPA) value becomes the DIS. D. The router with the lower priority value becomes the DIS. Answer: BC
27.Which command correctly assigns AS 65432 as the local router's autonomous system? A. set routing-options local-as 65432 B. set routing-options autonomous-system 65432 C. set protocols bgp local-as 65432 D. set protocols bgp autonomous-system 65432
Answer: B
28.VLANs provide separation for which type of domains? A. virtual domains B. collision domains C. broadcast domains D. multicast domains Answer: C
29.Which command can you use to view IS-IS link-state PDUs? A. show isis route detail B. show isis database detail C. show isis spf results D. show isis adjacency Answer: B
30.Which three statements are true when determining the master VRRP router? A. The router with preempt configured is the master. B. The highest primary address is preferred if the priority is the same. C. The router with the same primary and virtual address is the master. D. The lower priority is preferred. E. The higher priority is preferred. Answer: ABE
31.Which static route next-hop value indicated that the packet will be silently dropped? A. reject B. resolve C. discard D. next-table Answer: C
32.You want to allow RIP routes to be redistributed by an ASBR into the connected OSPF area, but you do not want to recieve external routes from other OSPF areas. Which OSPF area type would be used to satisfy the requirement? A. transit area B. totally stubby area C. not-so-stubby area
D. stub area Answer: C
33.Which two statements are true regarding the default VLAN in EX Series switches? A. An administrator can change the VLAN ID of the default VLAN. B. The show interface-command shows an asterisk ( *) after the interface name if the interface is part of default VLAN. C. An interface that is part of the default VLAN cannot carry tagged traffic. D. All switch ports not specifically assigned to a user-defined VLAN belong to the default VLAN. Answer: AD
34.Under which hierarchy do you configure BGP neighbors? A. *[edit policy-options]* B. *[edit interfaces]* C. *[edit protocols bgp]* D. *[edit routing-options]* Answer: C
35.Exhibit:
Referring to the outputs shown in the exhibit, which statement is correct? A. The switch is the only switch in the RSTP topology.
B. The switch is not the root bridge. C. The switch’s bridge priority is 16k. D. The switch’s bridge priority is 4k. Answer: B
36.Which two statements are true about nonstop active routing ( NSR)? ( Choose two.) A. Graceful Routing Engine switchover ( GRES) must be configured for NSR to function properly. B. When NSR is enabled, RPD runs on the backup Routing Engine. C. NSR and graceful restart can be enabled at the same time. D. NSR relies on helper support on neighboring routers. Answer: AB
37.You are deploying a Virtual Chassis consisting of four EX4200s. You have powered on all four switches at the same time with the settings shown in the exhibit.
Which Virtual Chassis member will become the master? A. Switch-4 B. Switch-3 C. Switch-1 D. Switch-2 Answer: A
38.Your customer wants to connect a VoIP phone to interface ge-0/0/5 on an EX4200 switch in VLAN 20 and connect a PC to the VoIP phone. The PC should be part of VLAN 30. Which two commands will implement this solution? A. set interface ge-0/0/5.0 family ethernet-switching vlan members vlan-20 B. set ethernet-switching-options voip interface ge-0/0/5.0 vlan 20 C. set interface ge-0/0/5.0 family ethernet-switching vlan members vlan-30 D. set ethernet-switching-options voip interface ge-0/0/5.0 vlan 30 Answer: BC
39.There is a GRE tunnel configured over the Internet between Router-1 and Router-2. An OSPF adjacency is configured over this GRE tunnel. However the OSPF adjacency briefly reaches the Full state before it is torn down. This cycle repeats indefinitely. Which two actions would you perform to solve this problem? ( Choose two) A. Configure static routes to the tunnel endpoints. B. Configure OSPF to not export the tunnel endpoint interface routes. C. Configure the GRE interfaces on both routers as passive interfaces in OSPF. D. Configure the physical WAN interfaces on both routers as passive OSPF interfaces. Answer: AB
40.Why would you configure root protection? A. You want to prevent unwanted user authentication to the root bridge by defining an acceptable source-address list for authorized access. B. You want to avoid a broadcast storm that originates on the root bridge. C. You want to protect your network from unwanted topology changes from a rogue switch attempting to become the root bridge. D. You want to protect the root bridge from receiving BPDUs on unauthorized interfaces. Answer: C
41.Exhibit:
Referring to the exhibit, which three statements are true? ( Choose three.) A. Frames on interface ge-0/0/0 can be tagged with VLAN ID 101. B. Interface ge-0/0/1 is an access port. C. Frames on interface ge-0/0/2 can be tagged with VLAN ID 101 or VLAN 1. D. There are no active ports in the default VLAN. E. The switch cannot be managed through the production network. Answer: ABE
42.Referring to the exhibit, why is the 0.0.0.0/0 route hidden?
A. There are no contributing routes. B. You cannot make a 0.0.0.0/0 generated route. C. You already have an active BGP default route. D. The next hop is set to discard. Answer: A
43.Refer to the command-line output shown in the exhibit.
How many routes has this router received from the BGP peer at 10.10.10.1? A. 2 routes B. 0 routes C. 3 routes D. 57 routes Answer: C
44.What is one benefit of a switched LAN? A. It limits the collision domain. B. It ensures that all hosts can reach each other by flooding all traffic to all ports. C. It limits memory use by eliminating the need for a bridging table. D. It enables the LAN to forward non-IP traffic. Answer: A
45.Your OSPF network consists of five Junos devices, R1 through R5, all in Area 0. You want to reset the LSDB for the entire area. Which action accomplishes this task? A. Configure the OSPF lsa-refresh-interval parameter to 0 on each device. B. Add the overload parameter to each device's OSPF configuration. C. Issue the clear ospf database purge command on R1. D. Issue the clear ospf neighbor command on R2. Answer: C
46.Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are true? ( Choose two.)
A. The device will not form adjacencies with devices in a different area. B. The IS-IS protocol is disabled on the device. C. The Level 2 database will be empty. D. The device will not have a Level 2 database. Answer: AC
47.You want to enable an Ethernet Link Aggregation Group ( LAG) on an EX Series switch.
Which commands enable this? A. [edit chassis] user@switch# set aggregated-devices ethernet device-count 2 [edit interfaces] user@switch# set ae1 aggregated-ether-options minimum-links 1 user@switch# set ae1 aggregated-ether-options link-speed 10g user@switch# set ae1 unit 0 family inet address 192.168.1.0/24 user@switch# set xe-0/1/0 ether-options 802.3ad ae1 user@switch# set xe-1/1/0 ether-options 802.3ad ae1 B. [edit chassis] user@switch# set chassis aggregated-devices ethernet device-count 1 [edit interfaces] user@switch# set interface ae0 aggregated-ether-options minimum-links 1 user@switch# set interface ae0 aggregated-ether-options link-speed 10g user@switch# set interface ae0 unit 0 family inet address 192.168.1.0/24 user@switch# set interface xe-0/1/0 ether-options 802.3ad ae0 fast user@switch# set interface xe-1/1/0 ether-options 802.3ad ae0 fast C. [edit chassis] user@switch# set aggregated-devices ethernet device-count 1 [edit interfaces] user@switch# set ae1 aggregated-ether-options minimum-links 1 user@switch# set ae1 aggregated-ether-options link-speed 10g user@switch# set ae1 unit 0 family inet address 192.168.1.0/24 user@switch# set xe-0/1/0 ether-options 802.3ad ae1 user@switch# set xe-1/1/0 ether-options 802.3ad ae1 D. [edit chassis] user@switch# set chassis aggregated-devices ethernet device-count 2 [edit interfaces] user@switch# set interface ae0 aggregated-ether-options minimum-links 1 user@switch# set interface ae0 aggregated-ether-options link-speed 10g user@switch# set interface ae0 unit 0 family inet address 192.168.1.0/24 user@switch# set interface xe-0/1/0 ether-options 802.3ad ae0 fast user@switch# set interface xe-1/1/0 ether-options 802.3ad ae0 fast Answer: A
48.Which type of OSPF area restricts external routes from other areas but allows external routes to be flooded by ASBRs within its own area? A. stub area B. stub area with no-summaries configured C. backbone area D. not-so-stubby area Answer: D
49.In the exhibit, the route 66.129.237.5 belongs to a Web server within AS 344.
If you view the AS-path attribute of this route on a router in AS 9021, what will it be? A. 9021 221 6044 11 344 B. 221 6044 11 344 9021 C. 344 11 221 6044 D. 221 6044 11 344 Answer: D
50.A packet with a source MAC address of 00:26:88:02:74:23 enters your EX Series switch on port ge-0/0/2.
Assuming the filter in the exhibit has been applied to interface ge-0/0/2, which action will apply? A. It discards the packet. B. It discards and counts the packet. C. It accepts the packet. D. It rejects and counts the packet. Answer: B
51.What is the default value of the TTL in a VRRP advertisement? A. 64 TTL B. 1 TTL C. 0 TTL D. 255 TTL Answer: D
52.A network administrator would like to prevent certain network addresses from
being part of the routing table. Which Junos feature would be used to accomplish this task? A. route maps B. prefix lists C. static routes D. Martian addresses Answer: D
53.Which two LSA types are generated only by area border routers? ( Choose two.) A. Type 4 B. Type 3 C. Type 5 D. Type 2 Answer: AB
54.What is a requirement for link aggregation? A. Member links must be on the same switch in a Virtual Chassis. B. Member links must be on continuous ports. C. The speed of the member links must be the same. D. LACP must be configured. Answer: C
55.Referring to the exhibit, R1, R2, and R3 boot at the same time. Several minutes later, R4 boots.
After R4 has been online for 40 seconds, which router will be the OSPF designated router? A. R1 B. R2 C. R4 D. R3 Answer: B
56.As shown in the exhibit, you recently installed four EX Series switches in your network. These switches are using the default RSTP configuration.
Which two statements are correct? A. Switch-4 selects ge-0/0/9.0 as its root port. B. Switch-4's root cost path is 40000. C. Switch-4 selects ge-0/0/10.0 as its root port. D. Switch-4's root cost path is 4000. Answer: AB
57.You just installed Switch-1 and Switch-2 in your network. Both switches are EX Series switches and are connected to each other using a Layer 2 switch port. Switch-1 must run STP, whereas Switch-2 must run RSTP. Given the scenario, which statement is true? A. The two switches run in dual-mode and communicate using STP and RSTP. B. The two switches communicate using RSTP. C. The two switches communicate using STP. D. The two switches will not communicate using STP or RSTP. Answer: C
58.You want STP to behave similar to RSTP. Which three configuration settings under the [edit protocols stp] hierarchy on an EX Series switch allow this? A. hello-time B. bridge-priority C. edge D. forwarding-delay E. max-age Answer: ADE
59.Which three statements accurately describe the factory-default storm control configuration? A. Storm control shuts down the interface on which the storm control level is exceeded. B. Storm control monitors traffic levels for broadcast traffic. C. Storm control monitors traffic levels for unknown unicast traffic. D. Storm control monitors traffic levels for multicast traffic. E. Storm control drops all monitored traffic in excess of 80 percent. Answer: BCE
60.Which two prefixes are martian routes by default? A. 127.0.0.0/16
B. 127.0.0.0/8 C. 192.0.0.0/24 D. 192.0.0.0/16 Answer: BC
61.What are three types of OSPF packets? A. open B. link-state interval C. link-state acknowledgement D. link-state request E. database description Answer: CDE
62.Several routers share a common LAN segment in area 224 and have formed adjacencies using IS-IS. One router is elected as the designated intermediate system ( DIS). To which multicast address will the peers send their hello packets? A. 224.0.0.6 B. 224.0.0.5 C. 49.0001.0224.0000.0015.00 D. 01:80:C2:00:00:14 Answer: D
63.Which two statements about dynamic ARP inspection ( DAI) are true? A. You enable DAI on each port. B. You can set individual ports as trusted by adding the dhcp-trusted parameter on a given port. C. Trunk ports are untrusted by default. D. DAI depends on the entries found in the DHCP snooping database. Answer: BD
64.You execute the operational-mode command show ospf neighbor and notice that one neighbor relationship remains in the exStart state. What causes this behavior? A. The authentication parameters do not match on each end of the link. B. The area IDs do not match on each end of the link. C. The MTU does not match on each end of the link. D. The dead interval does not match on each end of the link. Answer: C
65.Referring to the exhibit, which route is eligible for installation on the local inet.0 routing table? [edit routing-options martians] user@router# show 66.0.0.0/8 longer; 67.0.0.0/8 orlonger; 68.0.0.0/8 exact; 69.0.0.0/8 prefix-length-range /8-/16; A. 25.0.0.0/8 B. 26.0.0.0/8 C. 23.0.0.0/8 D. 24.0.0.0/8 Answer: C
70.You are monitoring your IS-IS router and issue the command shown in the exhibit.
Which two statements are true in this scenario? ( Choose two) A. The loopback address of the local router is 5.0.0.100.
B. The name of the remote device is r1 C. The name of the local device is r1. D. The loopback address of the local router is 10.100.0.1. Answer: CD
71.You are asked to configure a port to support both tagged and untagged traffic. You want to make the trunk port ge-0/0/0 and also accept untagged traffic for the data VLAN. Which configuration will satisfy the requirement? A. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 native-vlan-id data B. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 untagged-vlan data C. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 default-vlan data D. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 vlan members data Answer: A
72.Which BGP attributes are listed in the correct route selection order? A. MED, origin, local preference, AS path B. local preference, AS path, origin, MED C. local preference, MED, AS path, origin D. AS path, local preference, origin, MED Answer: B
73.Which side of the OSPF router initiates the database description exchange? A. the side with the higher IP address B. the side with the higher priority C. the side with the higher router ID D. the side with the higher uptime Answer: C
74.A generated route is used to create a route of last resort when BGP routes from the 10.0.0.0/23 block are present.
Given the following output, which next hop will be used as the forwarding next hop for the generated route? A. 172.16.0.2 B. 172.16.0.14 C. 172.16.0.6 D. 172.16.0.10 Answer: A
75.Refer to the router configuration shown in the exhibit.
To which IS-IS area does this router belong? A. Area 49.2020.0100.1001.0001 B. Area 49.2020 C. Area 49 D. Area 0100 Answer: B
76.You would like the network attached to the ge-0/0/1.0 interface to be advertised into OSPF, but you also want to prevent OSPF adjacencies from being formed on ge-0/0/1.0. Which command will satisfy this requirement? A. [edit protocols] user@R1# set ospf area 1 interface ge-0/0/1.0 passive B. [edit protocols] user@R1# set ospf area 1 interface ge-0/0/1.0 disable C. [edit protocols] user@R1# set ospf area 1 interface ge-0/0/1.0 secondary D. [edit protocols] user@R1# set ospf area 1 interface ge-0/0/1.0 flood-reduction Answer: A
77.Two routers have established a peering using EBGP over a single T1 link. How often will the routing table be synchronized between the two routers? A. every 30 minutes B. when an update message is received C. every 30 seconds D. when a notification message is received Answer: B
78.As shown in the exhibit, Switch-3 receives a superior BPDU from Switch-2 over the ge-0/0/10.0 interface.
Which two statements are correct? A. Switch-3's ge-0/0/10.0 port assumes the alternate role and blocking state. B. Switch-3's ge-0/0/10.0 port assumes the designated role and forwarding state. C. Switch-2's ge-0/0/10.0 port assumes the designated role and forwarding state. D. Switch-2's ge-0/0/10.0 port assumes the backup role and blocking state. Answer: AC
79.Which LSA type describes the router ID of ASBR routers located in remote areas? A. Type 7 B. Type 4 C. Type 3 D. Type 5 Answer: B
80.Which virtual interface is used to configure a GRE tunnel? A. gre-0/0/0 B. vt-0/0/0 C. gr-0/0/0 D. ip-0/0/0 Answer: C
81.Which statement is true about GRE tunnels? A. Packets are encapsulated unchanged before entering the tunnel. B. GRE tunnels support point-to-multipoint. C. GRE tunnels ensure that a packet does not live forever. D. GRE tunnels can be used for only IP packets. Answer: A
82.What is the default route preference for BGP? A. 179 B. 167 C. 170 D. 150 Answer: C
83.Which configuration provides dynamic ARP inspection on access port ge-0/0/0? A. secure-access-port { interface ge-0/0/0.0 { dhcp-trusted; } vlan vlan10 { arp-inspection; examine-dhcp; } } B. secure-access-port { interface ge-0/0/0.0 { static-ip 255.255.255.255 } vlan vlan10 { arp-inspection; } } C. secure-access-port {
interface ge-0/0/0.0 { no-dhcp-trusted; } vlan vlan10 { dynamic-arp-inspection; examine-dhcp; } } D. secure-access-port { interface ge-0/0/0.0 { dhcp-trusted; } vlan vlan10 { dynamic-arp-inspection; } } Answer: A
84.The exhibit shows an IS-IS network where R2 has failed.
Which router becomes the new DIS? A. R3 B. R5 C. R4 D. R1 Answer: B
85.You want your switch to disable an edge port when it receives spanning tree communications on that port. Which feature accomplishes this objective? A. RSTP edge port B. root protection C. switch protection D. BPDU protection Answer: D
86.Which two statements describe the scenario when a router will send out a Type 4 link-state update packet to its neighbors? A. Type 4 link-state update packets are unicast to every neighbor on regular intervals to keep the database consistent between neighbors. B. Type 4 link-state update packets are sent when the interface receives a Type 3 Link-State Request packet from a neighbor. C. Type 4 link-state update packets are multicast to every neighbor on regular intervals to keep the database consistent between neighbors. D. Type 4 link-state update packets are sent out to the designated router ( DR) or backup designated router ( BDR) when a topology change occurs. Answer: BD
87.Which Junos operational mode command displays all BGP routes sent to the 172.16.1.1 peer? A. show route send-protocol bgp 172.16.1.1 B. show route advertised-routes bgp 172.16.1.1 C. show route advertising-protocol bgp 172.16.1.1 D. show route sent-routes bgp 172.16.1.1 Answer: C
88.You manage the network shown in the exhibit.
All four switches have the default RSTP settings. The elected root bridge is switch-1. You must ensure that switch-4 always prefers the connection to switch-3 to reach the root bridge. Which two configurations will accomplish this task? A. user@switch-4# show protocols rstp { interface ge-0/0/3.0 { priority 128; cost 20000; } } {master:0}[edit] B. user@switch-4# show protocols rstp { interface ge-0/0/3.0 { priority 64; cost 20000; }
} {master:0}[edit] C. user@switch-3# show protocols rstp { interface ge-0/0/2.0 { priority 128; cost 2000; } } D. user@switch-3# show protocols rstp { interface ge-0/0/2.0 { priority 240; cost 200000; } } {master:0}[edit] Answer: BC
89.Company A wants to control how BGP traffic reaches the Internet.
What should you configure to ensure that traffic exits the network by way of Router 1 toward ISP 1? A. You should set Router 2's MED to a higher value using an IBGP export policy to make its routes less preferable. B. You should change the underlying IGP metric to make Router 1 more preferable. C. You should configure Router 1 to have a community with an IBGP export policy, which makes its routes more preferable. D. You should configure Router 1 to have a higher local-preference value with an EBGP import policy to make its routes more preferable. Answer: D
90.Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are true? A. The policy B routing policy is used by neighbor 10.0.0.4. B. No policy is used for neighbor 10.0.0.4 C. The policy D routing policy is the only policy used by neighbor 10.0.0.2. D. The policy A routing policy takes precedence over all other policies. Answer: AC
91.What is the reason for the adjacency state shown in the exhibit? user@router> show ospf neighbor Address Interface State ID Pri Dead 92.129.12.2 ge-0/0/2.0 ExStart 66.129.12.2 128 37 A. There is a hello interval mismatch. B. There is an interface MTU mismatch. C. There is an authentication mismatch. D. There is an IP network mismatch. Answer: B
93.Which misconfiguration would cause an OSPF neighbor ship to be stuck in an ExStart state? A. authentication mismatch B. subnet mismatch C. MTU mismatch D. timer mismatch Answer: C
94.You are troubleshooting your OSPF configuration and notice that you have subnet mismatch errors when running the show ospf statistics command. Which two actions would further troubleshoot the errors? ( Choose two.) A. Examine your interface configuration on impacted devices. B. Examine messages from the traceoptions log file. C. Examine the stub configuration for mismatches. D. Examine the interface assignment to areas in your OSPF configuration. Answer: AB
95.Referring to the exhibit which statement explains why the route to 192.168.178.0/24 advertised from 192.168.35.90 is hidden?
A. The AS path contains invalid confederation attributes. B. The import routing policy rejected the route. C. The next-hop address is a multicast address. D. The AS path contains a zero. Answer: B
96.Referring to the exhibit, what is the problem?
A. LAG requires more than two member links. B. Aggregated interfaces must be defined under the chassis stanza. C. LACP is required for LAG to work. D. The LAG member interfaces are configured across different line cards. Answer: B
97.Which two statements are correct about how EX Series switches support STP and RSTP interoperability? A. A switch running only STP discards RSTP BPDUs. B. A switch running RSTP accepts STP BPDUs and responds using STP BPDUs. C. A switch running RSTP accepts STP BPDUs and responds using RSTP BPDUs. D. A switch running only STP accepts RSTP BPDUs and discards the RSTP-specific information. Answer: AB
98.You are performing network tests and notice that the Layer 3 interface in the Finance VLAN on an EX Series switch is not responding to pings. You review the device status from the console.
What is causing the problem, as shown in the exhibit? A. There are no interfaces configured in the Finance VLAN. B. There is no route in the routing table for the Finance VLAN Layer 3 interface. C. There are no active physical ports in the Finance VLAN. D. The Layer 3 interface in the Finance VLAN is administratively disabled. Answer: B
99.What will be two results of the OSPF configuration shown in the exhibit? ( Choose two.)
A. Only Type 7 LSAs will be present in Area 1. B. There will be no Type 3 LSAs in Area 1. C. Area 0 will not generate summary LSAs for networks in Area 1. D. A default route will be advertised into Area 1 as a Type 7 LSA. Answer: CD
100.You have a device that is sending a malicious packet to other devices in your Layer 2 network. You are asked to ensure that packets sent from this device are not allowed to enter your network. You must also keep track of the number of packets that are being received. The device's IP address is 10.100.0.254. You have created and applied the firewall filter shown in the exhibit to the correct port. However, traffic is still being forwarded into the network. What is causing the problem? A. The filter family is incorrect for a port based filter. B. Layer 2 firewall filters do not have visibility to the Layer 3 header information.
C. The count term is implicitly accepting the traffic. D. The reject-traffic term must be placed before the count term. Answer: C
101.Which command shows you the status of the redundant trunk groups configured on an EX Series switch? A. show spanning-tree interface B. show redundant-trunk-group C. show ethernet-switching redundant-trunk-group D. show interfaces Answer: D
102.You want to ensure that interface routes appear in multiple routing instances. Which configuration accomplishes this scenario? A. Add an import policy for each routing instance. B. Configure the routing instance to be a forwarding type instead of a virtual-router type. C. Configure a RIB group and configure the router to install interface routes in the RIB group. D. Configure each interface under multiple routing instances. Answer: C
103.Which statement describes optional transitive BGP attributes? A. If they are not recognized, they are ignored and not passed to other peers. B. Although not required, they should be passed along, unchanged to other BGP peers when included. C. They must be supported in all BGP implementations, but do not have to be included in every BGP update. D. They must be supported by all BGP implementations and must be included in every BGP update. Answer: B
104.Which area us reserved for the OSPF backbone? A. Area 1111 B. Area 3.3.3.3 C. Area 0.0.0.0 D. Area 2.2.2.2 Answer: C
105.What is preserved by enabling graceful Routing Engine switchover ( GRES)? A. interface and kernel information B. link-state protocol adjacencies C. control-plane state D. BGP peering relationships Answer: A
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