Test Bank for Anatomy & Physiology: An Integrative Approach, 4th Edition, Michael McKinley, Valerie by StudyGuide

CHAPTER 1 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Anatomy is the study of structure and form. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Because the body has been the same for thousands of years, anatomy is considered a static classification system instead of adynamic science. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Cytology is a subdivision of gross anatomy. ⊚ ⊚

Physiologists use chemistry to understand the workings of the body's organ systems. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Both anatomists and physiologists are awarethat form and function are interrelated. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Homeostasis refers to an organism's ability to regulate its internal environment despite changes in the external environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

A molecule is made up of a combination of two or more atoms.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

8) In the anatomic position, the specimen rests horizontally on the examination tableand the arms are extended away from the torso. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The mediastinum is within the ventral cavity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) The fact that the structures of cells vary widely reflects the specializations needed for their different functions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) Organs contain two or more tissues that work together to perform specific, complex functions. ⊚ ⊚

12)

The cell is the smallest living portion of the human body. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

Fortunately for science, there is but one single property that defines life. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14) The life characteristic of reproduction may be interpreted at both the cellular and organismal levels. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) The urinary system filters the blood, concentrates waste products, and removes waste products from the body. ⊚ ⊚

16)

The anatomic position allows all observers to have a common point of reference. ⊚ ⊚

17)

true false

The antecubital region is proximal to the carpal region. ⊚ ⊚

20)

true false

The chest is superior to the head. ⊚ ⊚

19)

true false

A coronal plane is a vertical plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior parts. ⊚ ⊚

18)

true false

The mediastinum is a serous cavity.

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⊚ ⊚

21)

The right and left iliac regions are found lateral to the hypogastric region. ⊚ ⊚

22)

true false

The lumbar regions are located lateral to the umbilical region. ⊚ ⊚

true false

23) The central nervous system acts as the control center for the regulation of blood calcium and blood glucose. ⊚ ⊚

true false

24) If your body temperature starts to decline, your body responds by exciting skeletal muscles so that you shiver and your temperature returns to normal. This is an example of negative feedback. ⊚ ⊚

25)

true false

The term "positive feedback" means that the outcome of the system is a good one. ⊚ true ⊚ false

26) Damage to the heart can cause inadequate blood circulation, which can lead to more damage to the heart. This is an example of a positive feedback cycle. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

27) For better retention of material, it is better to break up study sessions into multiple smaller chunks (e.g. 30 minutes each) rather than fewer, longer sessions (e.g. several hours each). ⊚ ⊚

true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 28) If a scientist forms and tests a hypothesis, but gets unexpected results, what is a logical next step? Check all that apply. A) Accept the original hypothesis B) Reject the original hypothesis C) Revise the original hypothesis D) Design a new experiment based on a new or modified hypothesis.

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 29) The word "anatomy" comes from A) Latin and means "to be born." B) Hebrew and means "shape." C) Greek and means "to cut apart." D) German and means "body." E) Italian and means "form."

30) A scientist who describes the layers of the heart wall and their relationship to the surrounding pericardium would be a(n)

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A) anatomist. B) physiologist. C) pathologist. D) pulmonologist.

31) ______ anatomy examines both superficial anatomic markings and internal body structures as they relate to the skin covering them. A) Regional B) Surface C) Radiographic D) Surgical E) Systemic

32)

Which branch of microscopic anatomy is the study of tissues? A) Histology B) Cytology C) Embryology D) Developmental anatomy E) Surgical anatomy

33)

Gross anatomy refers to the study of A) cells. B) structures formedby cells. C) structures notvisible to the unaided eye. D) structures visibleto the unaided eye. E) nasalsecretions.

34)

The anatomic changes that result from disease are studied under

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A) pathologicanatomy. B) systemicanatomy. C) histology. D) surgicalanatomy. E) developmentalanatomy.

35)

The two main divisions of microscopic anatomy are A) embryology andparasitology. B) cytology andhistology. C) comparativeanatomy and pathological anatomy. D) neurobiology andsurface anatomy.

36) When medical students study all of the structures in a particular area of the body as a unit(for example,all the muscles, blood vessels, and nerves of the leg), that approach is called A) surfaceanatomy. B) comparativeanatomy. C) poplitealphysiology. D) regionalanatomy. E) systemicanatomy.

37)

The scientific discipline that studies the functions of body structures is A) anatomy. B) physiology.

38)

Which is a physiological description rather than an anatomical one?

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A) The muscles of theintestinal wall contract slowly and involuntarily. B) The walls of bloodcapillaries are composed of a thin epithelium. C) The muscles of thethigh are composed of skeletal muscle tissue. D) There arefenestrations (openings) in the epithelial cells of capillary walls. E) The esophageal wallincludes a middle layer of dense irregular connective tissue.

39)

Respiratory physiology is primarilythe study of A) cell shape withinthe alveoli of the lungs. B) the branchingpattern of the small airways of the lungs. C) the tissuecomposition of the airways, air sacs, and blood vessels. D) how gases aretransferred between the lungs and the blood vessels supplying them.

40)

The large surface area of the inside of the small intestine means that this structure is A) well adapted forits physiological role in absorption. B) derived from anembryological structure that served a different function. C) anatomicallycomplex but physiologically simple. D) maladaptive inthat it harbors bacteria.

41) The mechanism by whichthe body propels food through the digestive tract is primarily a topic of study for A) anatomists. B) physiologists.

42)

The term that refers to the ability of organisms to react to changes in the environment is

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A) responsiveness. B) reproduction. C) metabolism. D) development. E) organization.

43)

The various chemical reactions that organisms carry out are collectively called A) reproduction. B) homeostasis. C) metabolism. D) responsiveness. E) development.

44) The category of reactions in which larger molecules are broken down into smaller ones is known as A) anabolism. B) catabolism. C) synthesis. D) homeostasis. E) enzymatic.

45)

The smallest structural unit that exhibits the characteristics of living things is A) an organ. B) an individual. C) tissue. D) a cell. E) a system.

46)

Which level consists of related organs that work to achieve a common function?

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A) Organ system level B) Cellular level C) Tissue level D) Chemical level E) Organ level

47)

At what level of organization is a tooth, which contains multiple tissue types? A) Tissue level B) Cell level C) Organ level D) System level E) Atomic level

48)

Which of the following statements accurately describes the organization of structures?

A) Organs are made upof tissues, which are made up of cells, which are made up of organelles andmolecules. B) Tissues are madeup of organs, which are made up of cells, which are made up of individualatoms. C) Organisms are madeup of tissues, which are made up of organ systems, which are made up ofDNA. D) Organ systems aremade up of cells, which are made up of tissues, which are made up oforganelles. E) Organs are made up of cells, which aremade up of atoms, which are made up of molecules.

49) Which system is responsible for providing protection, regulating body temperature, and being the site of cutaneous receptors?

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A) Respiratory B) Muscular C) Integumentary D) Urinary E) Nervous

50) The body system that provides support and protection as well as being a site of blood cell production (hemopoiesis) is the ____________ system. A) skeletal B) muscular C) cardiovascular D) respiratory E) lymphatic

51) The system responsible for the exchange of gases between the blood and atmospheric air is the _____________ system. A) urinary B) respiratory C) cardiovascular D) endocrine E) nervous

52)

Which describes the anatomic position? A) Body isupright. B) Palms are facingforward. C) Thumbs point awayfrom the body. D) Feet are flat onthe floor. E) All of the choices are correct.

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53)

The word _____ implies an imaginary flat surface passing through the body. A) section B) plane C) direction D) tangent E) figure

54)

A plane that passes through the structure at an angle is called A) frontal. B) coronal. C) oblique. D) sagittal. E) transverse.

55)

A(n) _______ plane separates the body into superior and inferior parts. A) transverse B) oblique C) sagittal D) coronal E) frontal

56)

Which best defines "superficial"? A) On the inside B) On the outside C) Toward the end of an appendage D) Close to the attachment of the appendage to the trunk E) At the head end

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57)

The directional term that means "away from the midline of the body" is A) inferior. B) superior. C) medial. D) lateral. E) caudal.

58)

The directional term that means "closest to the point of attachment to the trunk" is A) distal. B) proximal. C) medial. D) cephalic. E) dorsal.

59)

The directional term that means "in back of" or "toward the back surface" is A) posterior. B) caudal. C) cephalic. D) anterior. E) proximal.

60)

The best term for referring to the rear or "tail end" is A) caudal. B) cephalic. C) inferior. D) superior. E) lateral.

61)

The head, neck, and trunk make up the ______ region of the body.

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A) appendicular B) axial C) cephalic D) caudal E) thoracic

62)

The cranial cavity houses the A) eyeball. B) ear canals. C) brain. D) spinal cord. E) nasalstructures.

63)

The bones of the vertebral column form a cavity called the A) nervous systempassageway. B) abdominalcavity. C) pleural cavity. D) vertebralcanal.

64)

The axillary region is ______ to the pectoral region. A) lateral B) medial C) distal D) proximal E) inferior

65)

The anatomic term for the cheek is

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A) buccal. B) pelvic. C) cervical. D) crural. E) sacral.

66)

The popliteal region is best seen from a(n) ________ view. A) anterior B) lateral C) superior D) inferior E) posterior

67)

What is the anatomic term for the foot? A) Pubic B) Patellar C) Ped D) Popliteal E) Acromial

68)

Which anatomical term describes the wrist region? A) Tarsal B) Carpal C) Digital D) Olecranal E) Perineal

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69) With the subject in the anatomic position, onecan best see the dorsum of the manus from a(n) ______ view. A) lateral B) superior C) inferior D) posterior E) anterior

70)

The primary function of serous fluid is A) to serve as alubricant. B) to provideastabilizing force. C) to insulate. D) to storeenergy. E) to provide anattachment surface.

71)

The anatomic term for the calf is A) crural. B) popliteal. C) tarsal. D) carpal. E) sural.

72)

The term "hallux" refers to the A) little finger. B) thumb. C) great toe. D) lateral-mosttoe. E) middle digit.

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73)

What is the anatomic term for the hip region? A) Sternal B) Coxal C) Dorsal D) Crural E) Sural

74)

A professional fighter hit in the mental region might have damage to the A) jaw. B) ear. C) nose. D) knee. E) shoulder.

75)

"Pollex" refers to the A) eyebrow. B) thumb. C) great toe. D) little finger. E) kneecap.

76)

An inguinal hernia is in the region of the A) umbilicus. B) groin. C) calf. D) thigh. E) shoulder.

77)

Which serous membrane covers the surface of an organ?

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A) The parietal layer B) The visceral layer C) The muscle layer D) The dorsal layer E) The ventral layer

78)

The pleural cavity is the A) same as themediastinum. B) the serous membranelining the abdomen. C) space within whichthe heart sits. D) potential spacebetween the twoserous membranes surrounding a lung.

79)

The limbs of the body are attached to the axis and make up the A) abdominalregion. B) thoracicregion. C) axial region. D) appendicularregion. E) antebrachialregion.

80)

The median space in the thoracic cavity is called the A) pleuralcavity. B) pericardialcavity. C) mediastinum. D) peritonealcavity. E) hypochondriacspace.

81)

The pericardium is a two-layered serous membrane that

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A) encloses theheart. B) encloses thekidney. C) encloses alung. D) provideslubrication for the knee. E) covers the smallintestine.

82)

The serous fluid that helps in cardiac function is located A) inside the heart'schambers. B) between theparietal pericardium and the sternum. C) in the pericardialcavity, between the parietal and visceral pericardial layers. D) between thevisceral pericardium and the cardiac muscle.

83) With a specimen in the anatomic position, you can best see the mediastinum with a _____ view. A) midsagittal B) superior C) inferior D) frontal E) posterior

84) the

The moist, two-layered serous membrane that lines the abdominopelvic cavity is called

A) peritoneum. B) thoracic diaphragm. C) synovium. D) pleura. E) pericardium.

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85) Of the nineabdominopelvic regions, the one that is most superior in themiddle column is called the A) lumbar. B) umbilical. C) epigastric. D) hypogastric. E) hypochondriac.

86)

Which abdominopelvic regions have both a right and a left side? A) Only the lumbar andiliac B) Only thehypogastric and hypochondriac C) The hypochondriac,lumbar, and hypogastric D) Only the iliac andhypochondriac E) The lumbar, iliac,and hypochondriac

87)

Lateral to the umbilical abdominopelvic region are the _____ regions. A) hypochondriac B) iliac C) hypogastric D) epigastric E) lumbar

88)

The urinary bladder is found in which abdominopelvic region? A) Hypogastric B) Right lumbar C) Hypochondriac D) Left iliac E) Left lumbar

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89) The abdominopelvic quadrants are formed by passing one horizontal and one vertical line through the A) patellarregion. B) umbilicus. C) antebrachialregion. D) glutealregion. E) crural region.

90)

The control center of a homeostatic mechanism A) bringsaboutchange to the internal environment. B) integrates sensoryinput and signals for change as needed. C) is a change in theexternal environment. D) detects a changein a variable that is being regulated.

91)

The part of the homeostatic control mechanismthat brings about change is the A) controlcenter. B) stimulus. C) effector. D) receptor.

92) When you are exposed to bright light, a reflex is initiated and the muscles of your iris contract to decrease your pupil size. The iris muscles areacting as a(n) A) effector. B) controlcenter. C) receptor. D) postitivefeedback.

93) When you are exposed to bright light, cells in the retina detect the stimulus and send it to the brain for processing. The brain commands the iris to constrict and decrease pupil size. Which structure serves as a receptor in this system? Version 1

A) The retina B) The iris C) The eyelid D) The brain's visualcortex

94) Which of the following choices places the components of a homeostatic control system in proper order? A) Effector, controlcenter, stimulus, receptor B) Stimulus, receptor,control center, effector C) Receptor, effector,control center, stimulus D) Stimulus, controlcenter, effector, receptor E) Receptor, controlcenter, stimulus, effector

95)

The normal level at which a physiological variable is maintained is known as its A) stimulus. B) controlcenter. C) negativefeedback. D) set point. E) effector.

96)

If carbon dioxide levels rise in the body, negative feedbackmechanisms will trigger A) an increase inbreathing so that carbon dioxide levels decline to the set point. B) an increase inbreathing so that carbon dioxide levels rise further above set point. C) a decrease inbreathing so that carbon dioxide levels rise to the set point. D) a decrease inbreathing so that carbon dioxide levels decline below set point.

97) In the positive feedback mechanism governing breastfeeding, the mammary glands of the breast serve as the

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A) controlcenter. B) receptor. C) effector. D) set point.

98)

Disease is often considered the result of A) negativefeedback. B) failure ofhomeostatic systems. C) maintenance of setpoint. D) feedback loops.

99)

Diagnosing a disease involves determining the A) cause of thehomeostatic imbalance. B) multiple sideeffects of a drug. C) effector and theset point. D) negativity of thefeedback.

100) Which of the following is an example of a best practice for effectively studying anatomy and physiology material? A) Explaining a concept to a study partner B) Study by exclusively reading and re-reading the material C) Wait until a day or two before the test before studying D) Study in fewer, longer sessions as compared to numerous, shorter sessions

101)

Which of the following describes the sequence of steps in the scientific method?

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A) Observe a natural event, form a hypothesis, experiments and testing, form conclusions B) Form a hypothesis, form conclusions, experiments and testing, observe a natural event C) Experiments and testing, form a hypothesis, observe a natural event, form conclusions D) Form conclusions, observe a natural event, form a hypothesis, experiments and testing

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 102) The discipline known as _____________ anatomy examines similarities and differences across species.

103) The discipline that studies the functions of the nervous system, including the way that impulses are conducted, is known as __________.

104) The discipline that associates changes in organ system function with disease or injury is known as ____________.

105) The group of metabolic reactions in which smaller molecules are combined to form larger ones is ___________.

106)

Specialized subunits of cells that are made of macromolecules are called __________.

107) The organ system that transports andfilters interstitial fluid while also participating in immune responses is the __________ system.

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108) The pituitary, thyroid, and adrenal glands are typically grouped within the __________ system.

109) The appendix is in the right iliac region, and is therefore located in the _____ ______ quadrant.

110)

The level of organization one step more complex than the organ level is the______ level.

111) The state of equilibrium, or fairly constant interval environment, in the body is called ________.

112)

The ______ reproductive system produces oocytes.

113)

The antecubital region is ______ to the brachial region.

114) The muscular partition that separates the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities is the thoracic ______.

115)

The hypogastric region is located ______ to the right iliac region.

116) Sensory nerves that detect changes in a variable that is being regulated comprise the ________ of the control mechanism.

117) In a homeostatic control mechanism, the receptor detects changes in the environment and relays that information to the ____________.

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118)

The reinforcement of a stimulus so that a climax is reached is known as ____________.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 119) Describe the positions of the thumbs and the palms of the hands in the anatomic position.

120) Explain the spatial relationship between the following: thoracic cavity, pericardial cavity, ventral cavity, mediastinum.

121)

Define the term "negative feedback."

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 122) Some researchers think pheromones are important tools in human communication. Pheromones are chemical signals that one individual sends to another. What research questions might be asked by anatomists, and what questions might be asked by physiologists, to determine if pheromones are important to humans?

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123) Iron atoms help our blood transport oxygen. Describe each level of anatomical structural complexity for an iron atom in your blood, working from the simplest level (atom) to the most complex (organism).

124) If someone speaks too loudly into a microphone, a public address system will sometimes produce a loud whistle of amplified feedback. Explain whether this is an example of negative or positive feedback, and explain how the microphone, control box,and speaker of the system serve as the different components of a feedback loop.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 01_4e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) TRUE 20) FALSE 21) TRUE 22) TRUE 23) FALSE 24) TRUE 25) FALSE 26) TRUE Version 1

27) TRUE 28) [B, C, D] 29) C 30) A 31) B 32) A 33) D 34) A 35) B 36) D 37) B 38) A 39) D 40) A 41) B 42) A 43) C 44) B 45) D 46) A 47) C 48) A 49) C 50) A 51) B 52) E 53) B 54) C 55) A 56) B Version 1

57) D 58) B 59) A 60) A 61) B 62) C 63) D 64) A 65) A 66) E 67) C 68) B 69) D 70) A 71) E 72) C 73) B 74) A 75) B 76) B 77) B 78) D 79) D 80) C 81) A 82) C 83) D 84) A 85) C 86) E Version 1

87) E 88) A 89) B 90) B 91) C 92) A 93) A 94) B 95) D 96) A 97) C 98) B 99) A 100) A 101) A 102) comparative 103) neurophysiology 104) pathophysiology 105) anabolism 106) organelles 107) lymphatic 108) endocrine 109) right lower 110) organ system 111) homeostasis 112) female 113) distal 114) diaphragm 115) medial 116) receptor Version 1

117) control center 118) positive feedback 119) Thumbs point out, palms face forward. 120) The pericardial cavity is a potential space between membranes that reside within the mediastinum. The mediastinum sits medially within the thoracic cavity. The thoracic cavity is the superior portion of the ventral body cavity. 121) Negative feedback is asystem of homeostatic control in which the output counters the input stimulus so that the physiological variable stays relatively constant. 122) Students might consider that anatomists would look for organs (and cellular machinery)to transmit pheromones and to receive them. Comparative anatomists might also look for structures in the brain that are homologous to pheromone processing areas in animals. Physiologists might study how pheromones are released, received, and processed. These studies could involve cellular and molecular approaches and would involve multiple organ systems (e.g., integumentary and nervous systems). 123) The iron atom helps make up a hemoglobin molecule. The hemoglobin molecule helps make up a red blood cell. The blood cell helps make blood, a connective tissue. Blood travels within vessels, which are organs. All of this is part of the cardiovascular system, which helps make up the person, the organism. 124) This is an example of positive feedback, where the mic is a receptor (it receives the input), the control boxis a control center (it has knobs to adjust settings),and the speaker is an effector (it ultimately produces the sound).

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CHAPTER 2 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) An atomic nucleus consists of protons and neutrons and is positively charged. ⊚ ⊚

true false

All isotopes of a given element have the same atomic mass. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The half-life of a radioisotope is at least one day and at most ten years. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Elements in the first column of the periodic table contain one electron in their outer shell. ⊚ ⊚

Positively charged ions are called cations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Phosphate ions are common cations within the body. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO ⊚ ⊚

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3) is considered an ionic compound.

true false

Isomers of the same molecule have identical chemical properties. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) When two atoms with very different electronegativity share electrons a polar covalent bond is formed. ⊚ ⊚

10)

Oxygen is more electronegative than carbon. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

Any molecule that contains a polar bond within it is a polar molecule. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) Intermolecular forces between nonpolar molecules are weaker attractions than covalent bonds. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

Water is the main solute of the body. ⊚ ⊚

true false

14) "Hydrophobic exclusion" refers to the chemical interactions that prevent nonpolar molecules fromdissolving in water.

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⊚ ⊚

15)

A hydroxide ion carries a negative charge. ⊚ ⊚

16)

true false

A base is described as a proton donor. ⊚ ⊚

17)

true false

The higher the concentration of H ⊚ ⊚

is, the lower the pH is.

true false

18) The addition of a buffer to liquid such as bloodwith a pH of 7.4 causes the pH to drop to 7.0 (chemically neutral). ⊚ ⊚

true false

19) When water mixtures are formed, the components are chemically altered and the new molecular bonds can be separated only by chemical means. ⊚ true ⊚ false

20) An emulsion is a combination of water and a nonpolar liquid that have been forcibly mixed. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

21)

Molarity is measured in the units of moles solute/L solution. ⊚ ⊚

22)

All inorganic molecules contain carbon. ⊚ ⊚

23)

true false

Starch and cellulose are examples of polysaccharides found in plants. ⊚ ⊚

26)

true false

In general, lipids are water insoluble. ⊚ ⊚

25)

true false

Water and sodium chloride are examples ofinorganic molecules. ⊚ ⊚

24)

true false

Adenine and thymine are examples of double-ring nitrogenous bases called pyrimidines. ⊚ ⊚

true false

27) Within DNA, adenine makes hydrogen bonds with thymine, and guanine makes hydrogen bonds with cytosine. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

28)

FAD and NAD ⊚ ⊚

29)

are examples of nucleotides.

true false

A charged amino acid tends to decrease a protein's solubility in water. ⊚ ⊚

true false

30)

The three-dimensional shape of a protein is known as its primary structure. ⊚ true ⊚ false

31)

A beta sheet is an example of a secondary structure of a protein. ⊚ ⊚

32)

true false

A covalent bond forms when both atoms require electrons to become stable. ⊚ ⊚

true false

33) Like glucose, ribose and deoxyribose are monosaccharides, but they are composed of five carbons rather than six. ⊚ ⊚

true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 34) Which of the following are among the top four most common elements in the human body?

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A) Carbon B) Sulfur C) Oxygen D) Phosphorus

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 35) The three forms of matter are A) air, water, andsolids. B) solids, liquids,and gases. C) blood, bone, andair. D) vapor, water, andsolid.

36)

Which of the following has the smallest mass? A) An electron B) An atomicnucleus C) A proton D) A neutron

37)

Which of the following statements accurately describes electrons? A) They are foundinside the nucleus and have a positive charge. B) They are inorbitals outside the nucleus and have a positive charge. C) They are foundinside the nucleus and have a negative charge. D) They are inorbitals outside the nucleus and have a negative charge.

38) An element's atomic number is determined by the number of __________ in one atom of that element.

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A) protons B) nuclei C) electrons D) neutrons E) atomic mass units

39)

Within the periodic table, elements are organized consecutively by A) atomic mass withincolumns. B) atomic mass withinrows. C) atomic numberwithin columns. D) atomic numberwithin rows.

40)

The number of neutrons in an atom can be determined by A) subtracting theatomic number from the atomic mass. B) subtracting theatomic mass from the atomic number. C) adding the atomicmass to the atomic number. D) adding the numberof protons to the number of electrons. E) adding the numberof protons to the atomic number.

41)

When diagramming an atom, the innermost shell is filled with ______ electrons. A) two B) six C) eight D) ten

42) When diagramming an atom, how many electrons can fit in each of the shellsbeyond the innermost shell?

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A) Two B) Six C) Eight D) Ten

43)

Two atoms that differ only in the number of neutrons they contain are known as A) anions. B) isomers. C) isotopes. D) ions.

44)

Radioisotopes contain A) an insufficientnumber of neutrons. B) an insufficientnumber of electrons. C) an insufficientnumber of protons. D) an excess ofprotons. E) an excess ofneutrons.

45)

Biological half-life is the time required for A) half of an ioniccompound to ionize. B) half of aradioactive material to be eliminated from the body. C) radioactivity levels of organic compoundsto stabilize at one-half their original value. D) radiation exposurethat is lethal for half of a biological population.

46) On the periodic table, beryllium sits above magnesium and to the right of lithium. Given that magnesium has two electrons in its outer shell and lithium has one, how many electrons would you predict beryllium has in its outer shell?

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A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four

47)

An ion is an atom or group of atoms that has A) a different numberof neutrons than most atoms of that element. B) lost or gained aproton. C) lost or gained anelectron. D) a biological half-life due to radioactive decay.

48)

The molecular formula for bicarbonate ion is HCO3-. It is therefore a A) polyatomicanion. B) polyatomiccation. C) radioactiveisotope. D) cationiccompound.

49)

When atoms ofelements on the left side of the periodic table ionize, they tend to A) gain electrons andtherefore become anions. B) gain protons andtherefore become anions. C) lose electrons andtherefore become cations. D) lose protons andtherefore become cations. E) add neutrons and therefore becomemegaions.

50) When elements found in column VIA of the periodic table become ions, they usually have a charge of

Version 1

A) –2. B) –1. C) +1. D) +2. E) +3.

51) If an ionic compound formed between an element from the first column of the periodic table and another from the sixth column, you would expect the compound to include A) one atom from eachof the two elements. B) one atom from the first-column element and two atoms from the sixth-column element. C) two atoms from the first-column element and one atom from the sixth-column element. D) three atoms from the first-column element and two from the sixth-column element.

52)

Ionic bonds involve A) electrostaticinteractions between anions and cations. B) the sharing ofelectrons between two atoms of the same element. C) the attractionbetween water and salts. D) the release ofprotons by negatively charged particles.

53)

In the formation of a compound of sodium chloride, A) a chlorine atomdonates an electron to a sodium atom. B) a chloride iondonates two protons to a sodium ion. C) a sodium atomdonates an electron to a chlorine atom. D) a sodium iondonates two electrons to a chlorine atom. E) the sodium and chlorine atoms share apair of electrons equally.

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54) Water contains two hydrogen atoms bound to one oxygen atom; "H2O" is therefore water's A) molecularformula. B) ioniccompound. C) isotope ratio. D) stochasticisomer.

55)

Which statement accurately describes isomers? A) They possessdiffering numbers of neutrons in their nuclei. B) They have the samemolecular shape but involve different elements. C) They have the samestructural formula but different molecular formulas. D) They have the samemolecular formula but different structural formulas. E) They have gained or lost electrons attheir outer shell.

56) What is thenumber of covalent bonds that an atom of nitrogen can form within a molecule? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

57)

Which of the following is not one of the fourmost common elements in the body? A) Oxygen B) Nitrogen C) Hydrogen D) Carbon E) Calcium

58)

A double covalent bond involves

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A) the sharing of onepair of electrons. B) the sharing of twopairs of electrons. C) the donation ofone pair of electrons. D) the donation oftwo pairs of electrons.

59) Consider an atom with four electrons in its outer shell. If that atom is covalentlybound to three other atoms within a molecule, then it is A) in a double bondwith one atom and in single bonds with two atoms. B) in a single bondwith one atom and in double bonds with two atoms. C) in a triple bondwith one atom and in single bonds with two atoms. D) in double bondswith all three atoms. E) in single bonds with all threeatoms.

60) If anelement from the first columnof the periodic table entered into a covalent bond with one from the sixth column, then the bond would be a A) polar bond, withthe element from the first column developing a partial negative charge. B) polar bond, withthe element from the sixth column developing a partial negative charge. C) nonpolar bond,with the element from the first column developing a partial positivecharge. D) nonpolar bond,with the element from the sixth column developing a partial positivecharge. E) nonpolar bond, with neither elementdeveloping any partial charges at all.

61)

Fatty acids consist mainly of carbon and hydrogen, and so fatty acids are A) nonpolar and donot dissolve in water. B) nonpolar anddissolve in water. C) polar and do notdissolve in water. D) polar and dissolvein water.

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62)

Phospholipids are described as A) polar. B) nonpolar. C) amphipathic. D) amphiprotic.

63)

An individualhydrogen bond in a sample of water would be described as A) strong andintramolecular. B) strong andintermolecular. C) weak andintramolecular. D) weak andintermolecular.

64) Hydrogen bonds form between molecules containing _________ bonds; the hydrogen bond is between a hydrogen atomof one molecule and a partially_________ charged atom of another. A) polar covalent;negatively B) polar covalent;positively C) nonpolar covalent;positively D) nonpolar covalent;negatively E) ionic; positively

65) The molecular formula of chlorine gas is Cl2. One molecule of this gas would be attracted to another by A) polar covalentbonds. B) intermolecular forces between nonpolar molecules. C) ionic bonds. D) hydrogenbonds. E) intramolecular forces.

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66) An individual water molecule contains ______ atoms and enters into ______ hydrogen bonds with other water molecules. A) two; two B) three; two C) three; three D) three; four E) three; six

67)

Water has a A) high specificheat, and this tends to cause large amounts of sweating. B) high specificheat, and this tends to keep body temperature relatively constant. C) low specific heat,and this tends to lead to variability in body temperature. D) low specific heat,and this tends to minimize sweating. E) low specific heat,and this tends toresult in chills and shivering.

68) The hydrogen bonds in a sample of water result in ________ cohesion and a _____ heat of vaporization. A) increased; high B) increased; low C) decreased; high D) decreased; low

69) Surfactant is necessary to prevent collapse ofthe alveoli in the lung because in its absence water molecules A) vaporize and takeup much less space. B) are more stronglyattracted to each other by van der Waals forces. C) are more stronglyattracted to each other by cohesive forces. D) congregate aroundnearby proteins to which they adhere.

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70)

When a strong acid is placed in water, it A) does not dissolveor dissociate. B) dissolves but doesnot dissociate. C) dissolves anddissociates. D) dissociates, butdoes not dissolve.

71)

When a nonpolar molecule is placed in water, it will A) neither dissolvenor carry electrical current. B) dissolve and carryelectrical current. C) dissociate andcarry electrical current. D) carry electrical current but not dissolve or dissociate.

72) Chemical barriers composed of phospholipid bilayers form within biological systems because A) cells expend ATPto position the phospholipid tails close together. B) hydrophobicexclusion results in the close positioning of the nonpolar tails. C) van der Waalsforces attract the polar heads to the water inside the cell. D) the inability ofthe polar heads to dissolve in water causes the heads to adhere to oneanother.

73) In a sample of distilled water, a water molecule that has picked up an extra hydrogen ion is called a(n) A) amphipathicmacromolecule. B) hydroxide ion. C) hydronium ion. D) proteinaceous watermolecule.

74)

Bicarbonate (HCO3-) is a

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A) strong protondonor. B) strong protonacceptor. C) weak protondonor. D) weak protonacceptor.

75) be?

Given a watery solution in which 1/1,000,000 particles are free H+ ions, what will the pH

A) 2 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) 10

76)

Compared to a solution with a pH of 7, a solution with a pH of 4 is A) more acidic andhas a 1,000-fold increase in [H +]. B) more acidic andhas a 300-fold increase in [H +]. C) more basic and hasa 1,000-fold increase in [H +]. D) more basic and hasa 300-fold increase in [H +]. E) more basic and has a 300-fold decreasein [H +].

77)

To neutralize a base, a(n) ________ must be added. A) acid B) buffer C) weak base D) hydroxide ion

78)

Generally, a chemical buffer is described as

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A) a strong acid or strong base that brings the pH of a solution to 7.0. B) a weak acid andweak base that help prevent big changes in pH. C) a neutral moleculethat does not influence the pH in any way. D) a weak acid thatmakes a solution slightly more basic by its presence.

79)

When a protein of 50 nanometers is mixed with water, the opaque result is called a(n) A) suspension. B) emulsion. C) solution. D) colloid.

80)

Which of the following statements accurately describes the solutes within a solution?

A) Water is theuniversal solute, and solutes are more abundant in solutions than solventsare. B) The solutes arenot visible, do not scatter light, and do not settle if the solution is leftstanding. C) Solutes are greater than 1 millimeter in size, and will settle out of solution if the mixture is left standing. D) Solutes are between 1 nanometer and 1 millimeter in size; they do not scatter light but will settle out of solution if left standing.

81) A technician is asked to make up a solution of physiological saline and is told that it should be a 0.9% NaCl solution using the mass/volume percent measurement of concentration. If the technician is making 100 milliliters of solution, how much NaCl should be included? A) 9 micrograms B) 9 kilograms C) 9 grams D) 0.9 grams E) 90 grams

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82)

How many osmoles are in a solution of 1M NaOH? A) 1 osm B) 2 osm C) 3 osm D) 4 osm

83) Given that the mass of an oxygen atom is 16 amu and that of a hydrogen atom is 1 amu, 1 mole of water would be equal to A) 17 amu. B) 18 amu. C) 15 grams. D) 18 grams. E) 6.02 × 10 23 grams.

84)

Which of the following is an accurate description of hydrocarbons? A) Most of themcontain phosphorus. B) They are nonpolarmolecules. C) Most of themcontain sulfur. D) They are polarmolecules.

85)

Like most functional groups, carboxyl groups are A) nonpolar andtherefore increase a biomolecule's solubility in water. B) nonpolar andtherefore decrease a biomolecule's solubility in water. C) polar and thereforeincrease a biomolecule's solubility in water. D) polar and thereforedecrease a biomolecule's solubility in water.

86)

Proteins are

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A) polymers made upof amino acid monomers. B) monomers. C) monomers made ofrepeating subunits of polymers. D) neither monomersnor polymers. E) polymers made of repeating units ofcarbohydrates.

87) When biological molecules engage in condensation, such reactions are _________ reactions. A) synthesis B) hydrolysis C) catabolic D) amphipathic E) ergonomic

88)

Which of the following is a list ofthree types of lipids? A) Riposes, purines,and pyrimidines B) Eicosanoids,steroids, and triglycerides C) Fatty acids,proteins, and nucleotides D) Glucose, starch,and triglycerides E) Steroids, peptides, and sugars

89)

The most common lipids in the body are A) triglycerides, andthey are used for energy storage in adipose. B) glycoproteins, andthey are used as backbones for cell membranes. C) eicosanoids, andthey are used as hormonal messengers. D) steroids, and theyare used as signaling molecules in inflammatory responses. E) phospholipids, and they are used as keyingredients of bile salts.

90)

The two fatty acids within a phospholipid molecule make up its

Version 1

A) nonpolarheads. B) polar heads. C) nonpolartails. D) polar tails.

91)

For every atom of carbon in a carbohydrate A) there isapproximately one atom of hydrogen. B) there areapproximately two atoms of hydrogen. C) there areapproximately three atoms of hydrogen. D) there areapproximately four atoms of hydrogen

92)

The simple sugar glucose is an example of a A) monosaccharide. B) lipid. C) polysaccharide. D) polymer. E) glycogen.

93) While a runner is in a marathon, his or her liver will have to free some stored energy to keep blood sugar levels adequate; the liver will liberate this energy by way of a process called A) dehydrationsynthesis. B) glycogensis. C) glycogenolysis. D) polysaccharidesynthesis. E) dialysis.

94)

Nucleic acids are made up of

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A) nucleotides joinedby covalent, phosphodiester bonds. B) nitrogenous basesjoined by ionic, disulfide bonds. C) ribose sugarsjoined by intermolecular, hydrogen bonds. D) proteins and sugarsjoined by polar, covalent, double bonds.

95)

The three parts making up a nucleotide are A) a purine, apyrimidine, and a ribose sugar. B) a five-carbon sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base. C) an adenine, aguanine, and a cytosine. D) a double helix, asingle strand, and a chromosome. E) a phosphorous, a deoxygenated ribose,and an amino acid.

96)

RNA is A) single-stranded andcontains thymine. B) single-stranded andcontains uracil. C) double-stranded andcontains thymine. D) double-stranded andcontais uracil.

97)

ATP is a nucleotide that is composed of A) adenine, ribose,and three covalently bonded phosphate groups. B) adenine, thymine,and three covalently bonded phosphate groups. C) adipose, thymine,and three phosphate groups linked by ionic bonds. D) adenosine,deoxyribose, and three phosphorous atoms. E) arginine, thymidine and threephosphorous atoms.

98) Hemoglobin in blood, components of the cytoskeleton, and enzymes in the digestive system are all examples of

Version 1

A) proteins. B) lipids. C) amino acids. D) carbohydrates. E) catalysts.

99)

Which of the following listsdescribes three of the main functions served by proteins? A) Waterproofing,energy storage, and transmission of the genetic code B) Cushioning oforgans, thermal insulation, and establishing cell boundaries C) Synthesis and digestion reactions, protection, and movement D) Energy storage, protection, thermal insulation

100)

A protein consists of A) an amine group, a carboxyl group, and an R group. B) amino acids linked by peptide bonds. C) between 3 and 20 fatty acids. D) a C-terminal, several nucleic acids, and an N-terminal.

101)

Which statement accurately describes amino acids? A) There are twentyvarieties, with each type having a different R group. B) There are twentyvarieties, with each type having a different C-terminal end. C) There are over 200varieties, with each type having a different R group. D) There are over 200varieties, with each type having a different C-terminal end.

102)

Which list contains all four types of amino acids?

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A) Ionic, covalent, hydrogen, and intramolecular B) Charged, polar,nonpolar, and those with special functions C) Glutamate,aspartate, arginine, and thymine D) Polar, nonpolar,ionic, and hydrophobic

103) Amino acids such as alanine contain hydrocarbons as side groups, and these amino acids engage in hydrophobic interactions with each other. Such amino acids are A) charged. B) hydrostatic. C) polar. D) nonpolar. E) polyunsaturated.

104)

In some proteins, anionic bond mayform between anamino acid with A) a positive R group and an amino acid with a negative R group. B) a negative R group and a nonpolar amino acid. C) a sulfhydryl groupand an amino acidwith an amine group. D) a carboxyl groupand an amino acid with a C-terminal. E) a glycine and another with atryptophan.

105)

The first amino acid put in place when a protein is being synthesized at a ribosome is A) glycine. B) tryptophan. C) methionine. D) cysteine. E) proline.

106) When two or more polypeptide chains come together to give a protein its ultimate shape, that structure is described as the _________ structure.

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A) microB) secondary C) quaternary D) tertiary E) heme group

107) Polar R groups of closely positioned amino acids often enter into _________ with each other, which helps give a protein its three-dimensional shape. A) hydrophobicinteractions B) ionic bonds C) hydrogen bonds D) van der Waalrepulsions E) sulfur-carbon bonds

108)

Which statement accurately describes how pH is related to denaturation? A) Either a largeincrease or a large decrease in pH can lead to denaturation. B) Neither a large increase nor a large decrease in pH can lead to denaturation. C) A large increasebut not a large decrease in pH can lead to denaturation. D) A large decreasebut not a large increase in pH can lead to denaturation.

109) In the formation of an ionic bond between Na and Cl to form common table salt, sodium (Na) _____ an electron and chlorine (Cl) _____ an electron. A) loses; gains B) gains; loses C) loses; also loses D) gains; also gains

110) MgCl 2 fully dissociates into Mg 2+ and Cl - ions when mixed with water. Therefore, the bonds between Mg 2+ and Cl - in MgCl 2 can be described as Version 1

A) ionic. B) polar covalent. C) nonpolar covalent. D) hydrogen bonds.

111)

12O

6 is an example of a ______ formula.

A) molecular B) structural

112) Fatty acids in soap have a polar end and a nonpolar end. Which of the following best describes these molecules? A) Amphipathic B) Hydrophilic C) Hydrophobic D) Charged

113) In a water molecule, each oxygen can form up to _____ hydrogen bonds with other water molecules. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5

114)

An emulsion is classified as a specific type of

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A) colloid. B) suspension. C) solution.

115)

Glycogen is a polymer of ______ molecules. A) glucose B) starch C) fructose D) amino acid

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 116) Anything that has mass and occupies space is considered to be________.

117) Two atoms that have the same chemical characteristics but different atomic masses are considered __________.

118)

Another name for the outer electron shell of an atom is the________ shell.

119) In general, the number of electrons that would fill an atom'souter shell and make it nonreactive is _______.

120)

An atom with a positive or negative charge is known as a(n) ________.

121)

The most common extracellular cation is ________.

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122) The numbers and types of atoms in a molecule as well as the spatial arrangement of those atoms is provided by the ________ formula.

123) The amount of energy (measured in calories) required to increase the temperature of 1 gram of a substance by 1degree Celsius is known as ____________.

124) A molecule with polar and nonpolar parts that only partially dissolves in water is described as __________.

125)

When the pH of an acidic solution is brought to 7.0, that change is called __________.

126) When solution concentration is measured in moles of solute per kilogram of solvent, that measurement is known as _________.

127)

A polymer is made up of several subunits called __________.

128) When a large biological molecule is digested by the addition of water, the reaction is termed _________.

129) When dehydration synthesis occurs between two amino acids, a covalent bond called a _________ bond forms between them.

130)

In some proteins, disulfide covalent bonds form between two _________ amino acids.

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131) When extreme temperature changes a protein's shape so much that it can no longer perform its usual function, that change is known as __________.

132)

Ions with a negative charge are called ______.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 133) Explain how the structure of an oxygen atom with an atomic mass of sixteen would be diagrammed. Include the number of subatomic particles in each part of the atom.

134) Steroid hormones are nonpolar molecules that travel in the blood. Explain how such molecules interact with the water of the plasma.

135) Blood has been described as an example of a suspension, and soda has been described as a solution. Define these two categories of mixtures and provide different examples of each type. In the examples you provide, explain the molecular properties (approximate size, polarity) of the substances that mix with water.

136) Explain the mechanisms by which certain changes in environmental conditions can denature proteins.

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ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 137) Describe the ionic form of calcium (what is its charge)? Then describe how three physiological systems would malfunction if calcium levels were not maintained homeostatically.

138) Explain the attractive forces within and between molecules. In your answer, distinguish between polar and nonpolar bonds, and distinguish between single, double, and triple bonds. Also be sure to explain three types of intermolecular attractions.

139) Name and describe the four main categories of lipids, and compare and contrast their structures and functions.

140) Imagine you are trying to create a living, artificial cell in a lab. Considering their role in human cells, explain how you would try touse each of the four types of biological molecules in your artificial cell.For example, explain how you would use one type of molecule to establish a boundary between the water in your test tube and the inside of your artificial cell.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 02_4e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) FALSE 20) TRUE 21) TRUE 22) FALSE 23) TRUE 24) TRUE 25) TRUE 26) FALSE Version 1

27) TRUE 28) TRUE 29) FALSE 30) FALSE 31) TRUE 32) TRUE 33) TRUE 34) [A, C] 35) B 36) A 37) D 38) A 39) D 40) A 41) A 42) C 43) C 44) E 45) B 46) B 47) C 48) A 49) C 50) A 51) C 52) A 53) C 54) A 55) D 56) C Version 1

57) E 58) B 59) A 60) B 61) A 62) C 63) D 64) A 65) B 66) D 67) B 68) A 69) C 70) C 71) A 72) B 73) C 74) D 75) C 76) A 77) A 78) B 79) D 80) B 81) D 82) B 83) D 84) B 85) C 86) A Version 1

87) A 88) B 89) A 90) C 91) B 92) A 93) C 94) A 95) B 96) B 97) A 98) A 99) C 100) B 101) A 102) B 103) D 104) A 105) C 106) C 107) C 108) A 109) A 110) A 111) A 112) A 113) A 114) B 115) A 116) matter Version 1

117) isotopes 118) valence 119) eight 120) ion 121) sodium 122) structural 123) specific heat 124) amphipathic 125) neutralization 126) molality 127) monomers 128) hydrolysis 129) peptide 130) cysteine 131) denaturation 132) anions 133) The nucleus would consist of eight protons and eight neutrons. There would be two electron shells; the innermost would contain two electrons and the outer one would hold six. 134) Because they are nonpolar, steroids are hydrophobic and are excluded from dissolving within the watery plasma. Like other nonpolar plasma solutes, they require carrier proteins to be transported through the blood. 135) Common examples of suspensions include muddy water and a mixture of flour with water. Flour is a large carbohydrate, so it is polar and its particle size is greater than 100 nanometers. Saltwater is a common example of a solution. Sodium and chloride are ions (charged particles) that are single atoms smaller than 1 nanometer.

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136) High temperatures weaken the intramolecular forces that hold the protein in its normal conformation. Excessive H+ (low pH) disrupts electrostatic interactions within the protein by binding to the negative R group. High pH disrupts protein structure by altering existing electrostatic interactions that involved hydrogen atoms that have changed their position due to the presence of base. 137) Calcium is a divalent cation. If calcium levels are abnormal: 1) bones may weaken, 2) excitable tissues might malfunction (e.g., skeletal and cardiac muscle contractions are impaired), and 3) blood clotting might be inadequate. 138) A complete answer should describe the sharing of electrons in different types of covalent bonds, and should explain the basic nature of hydrogen bonds, van der Waals forces, and hydrophobic interactions. 139) Essays should describe triglycerides, steroids, phospholipids, and eicosanoids. 140) Answers should describe how classes of macromolecules are used in living systems. Lipids are useful in establishing relatively impermeable barriers to water. Carbohydrates are excellent sources of quick fuel. Nucleic acids provide a chemical substance for transmission of heritable informationin reproduction. Proteins are crucial functional molecules in many ways, including enzymatic catalysis and cell motility. Membrane proteins will also be crucial in maintaining solute concentrations inside the cell at appropriate levels.

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CHAPTER 3 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Stored energy is described as potential energy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The energy stored in a molecule's chemical bonds is a form of kinetic energy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) The propagation of an impulse along the axon of a neuron is considered electrical energy, a form of kinetic energy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) The first law of thermodynamics states that once energy is consumed, it can no longer be converted to any other form of energy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) When a car burns gasoline, the majority of the gasoline's chemical energy is transformed to sound and heat. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Typically, synthesis reactions are endergonic. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

7) The exchange of a phosphate group between creatine phosphate and adenosine diphosphate is categorized as a catabolic (rather than anabolic) reaction. ⊚ ⊚

A reaction with a very high activation energy should have a very high reaction rate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Enzymes are biological catalysts that are crucial for normal human metabolism. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

Exergonic reactions do not require activation energy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) In the absence of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, the combination of water and carbon dioxide to form carbonic aciddoes not occur. ⊚ ⊚

12)

Cofactors are generally proteins. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

Lactase is an enzyme that digests lactose. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

14)

An isomerase bonds two similar molecules together to form a larger one. ⊚ ⊚

15)

Both pepsin and trypsin are proteins that digest proteins. ⊚ ⊚

16)

true false

Generally, a decrease in substrate concentration leads to an increase in reaction rate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) Enzyme saturation occurs when substrate levels are so high that all enzyme molecules are actively engaged in the chemical reaction, and so further increases in substrate concentration do not increase reaction rate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

18) Cold temperatures (below 36°C) denature proteins, which is why biochemistry labs never freeze enzymes. ⊚ ⊚

19)

true false

The less acidic (more basic)the environment is, the more efficient an enzyme will be. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

20) A largedecrease in pH results in increased H+ binding to an enzyme, which can disrupt electrostatic interactions within the molecule. ⊚ true ⊚ false

21)

Allosteric inhibitors are also called noncompetitive inhibitors. ⊚ ⊚

true false

22) When multiple enzymes are organized in a metabolic pathway, each enzyme catalyzes one reaction and then releases the product. ⊚ ⊚

true false

23) In the regulation of enzymes, negative feedback ensures that a lot of product can be made from only a little bit of substrate. ⊚ true ⊚ false

24)

A protein kinase is an enzyme that adds a phosphate to its substrate. ⊚ ⊚

25)

true false

Glucose oxidation is exergonic. ⊚ ⊚

true false

26) In substrate-level phosphorylation, energy is first released to coenzymes and then transferred to form ATP. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 4

27)

Glycolysis requires oxygen. ⊚ true ⊚ false

28) Glycolysis results in the breakdown of a glucose molecule and the net production of four ATP molecules. ⊚ ⊚

29)

true false

The binding of ATP to phosphofructokinase inhibits the glycolytic pathway. ⊚ ⊚

true false

30) Pyruvate dehydrogenase is a multienzyme complex that brings together a molecule of pyruvate and a molecule of coenzyme A. ⊚ ⊚

31)

Decarboxylation occurs during the intermediate stage of aerobic cellular respiration. ⊚ ⊚

32)

true false

During decarboxylation, NAD ⊚ ⊚

is formed from NADH.

true false

33) Oxidative phosphorylation within the electron transport system accounts for a little less than half of the ATP synthesized from the breakdown of glucose.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

34) In the first step of the electron transport chain, the coenzymes NADH and FADH oxidized. ⊚ ⊚

2 are

true false

35) If oxygen is in short supply, the activity of the electron transport chain increases in order to compensate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

36) Diseases of the respiratory orcirculatorysystems that impair oxygen delivery to body cells will diminish ATP production in those cells. ⊚ ⊚

37)

true false

All amino acids enter the cellular respiration pathway at the citric acid cycle. ⊚ ⊚

true false

38) A chemical reaction occurs when chemical bonds in an existing molecule are broken and new ones are formed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 39) The sodium levelinside and outsideof a resting cell is an example of the

Version 1

A) kinetic energy ofsodium rushing out of a cell down its concentration gradient. B) kinetic energy ofthe large difference in sodium concentration on the inside versus the outsideof the cell. C) potential energy of a concentration gradient, because sodium is more abundant outside the cell. D) potential energy of an electron transport chain, because sodium has an extra electron to donate. E) conversion of potential energy to kinetic energy, because sodium can never move across the cell membrane and must move across its surface.

40)

As a runner sprints down a track, her movement is an example of A) potentialenergy. B) mechanicalenergy. C) heat. D) radiant energy. E) chemical energy.

41)

Three molecules that are important energystorage locationsin the body are A) DNA, tRNA, andrRNA. B) glucose, glucagon,and glycogen. C) ATP, glycogen, andtriglyceride. D) ADP, DNA, andmRNA. E) glucagon, insulin, and protein.

42)

Which is a form of energy that is generally unavailable to do any work? A) Heat B) Kinetic energy C) Radiant energy D) Sound energy E) Mechanical energy

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43) According to the second law of thermodynamics, when energy is transformed from one kind to another A) some of it isconverted to heat. B) some energy isdestroyed. C) new energy iscreated. D) homeostasis ismaintained. E) chemical bonds must be broken.

44)

When we shiver on a cold day, the heat produced by muscle tissue is a demonstration of A) radiant potentialenergy. B) the first law ofthermodynamics. C) the second law ofthermodynamics. D) the creation ofenergy.

45) When our inner ears convert sound energy into neural impulses or our retinas convert light into neural impulses, A) no heat isgenerated, and so it is an exception to the first lawofthermodynamics. B) it is an exception to both laws of thermodynamics, because no usable energy is lost. C) it is consistentwith the secondlaw of thermodynamics, but an exception to the first. D) the conversion isconsistent with both laws of thermodynamics.

46)

The reaction in which water and carbon dioxide combine to form carbonic acid is

A) irreversible, ascarbonic acid rapidly causes a drop in pH. B) reversible, andcan proceed in either direction depending on the concentrations of themolecules. C) exergonic, and isan important energy source within the body. D) an exchangereaction in which protons are transferred between atoms. E) a catabolic reaction in which theformation of a larger molecule can lead to an increase in cell size.

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47)

The building of complex molecules from simpler ones is described as A) anabolism. B) catabolism. C) exergonic. D) irreversible. E) reversible.

48) When the body's digestive system breaks down starch, a complex carbohydrate, into simpler carbohydrates, the reaction is A) anabolic andendergonic. B) anabolic andexergonic. C) catabolic andexergonic. D) catabolic andendergonic.

49) Which one of the following choicesincludes three descriptions that are consistent with each other (that is, that describe the same type ofchemical reaction)? A) Anabolic,dehydration, endergonic B) Exchange,hydrolysis, endergonic C) Catabolic,dehydration, irreversible D) Metabolic,synthesis, exergonic E) Anabolic,catabolic, dehydration

50)

The term "metabolism" refers to

A) reactionsinvolving the breakdown of complex molecules into simpler ones. B) reactionsinvolving the breakdown of complex molecules or the exchange of atoms betweensimilarly sized reactants. C) all the chemicalreactions in the body. D) reactionsinvolving the synthesis of complex molecules from simpler ones. E) digestive system reactions that areeither catabolic or exchange reactions.

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51)

When NAD+ becomes NADH, it is being A) reduced andgaining chemical energy. B) reduced andreleasing chemical energy. C) oxidized andgaining chemical energy. D) oxidized andreleasing chemical energy.

52) In a chemical reaction where an electron is exchanged from one reactant to another, the structure that loses an electron is A) analyzed. B) catalyzed. C) oxidized. D) reduced.

53)

In a redox reaction, when one reactant is oxidized, the other A) is reduced. B) is alsooxidized. C) is hydrolyzed intoa smaller molecule. D) releases chemicalenergy in the form of ATP. E) becomes a larger, more complexmolecule.

54)

Generally, a cell stores enough ATP to meet the energy requirements of a few A) seconds. B) minutes. C) hours. D) days.

55)

ATP formation

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A) is endergonic andliberates energy for cellular processes that require energy. B) is endergonic andrequires the presence of fuel molecules such as glucose. C) is exergonic andliberates energy for cellular processes that require energy. D) is exergonic andrequires the presence of fuel molecules such as glucose.

56)

In a lab setting, heating a vessel full of reactants will generally A) increase thekinetic energy of the molecules and increase the reaction rate. B) raise theactivation energy and catalyze the reaction. C) lower theactivation energy and the kinetic energy of the reactants. D) convert products toreactants by increasing the energy requirements. E) lower the reaction rate due to thechange in structure of the reactants.

57)

The term "activation energy" refers to the amount of energy A) released by an exergonic reaction. B) released by an endergonic reaction. C) released by a catabolic reaction. D) required to initiate any chemical reaction. E) required to initiate only catabolic reactions.

58)

The presence of an enzyme within a chemical system A) increasesactivation energy. B) decreasesactivation energy. C) increasespotential energy. D) does not affecteither activation energy or potential energy.

59)

Structurally, enzymes are generally

Version 1

A) globularproteins. B) fibrousproteins. C) sphericalcarbohydrates. D) elongatedcarbohydrates. E) four-ring steroids.

60)

The region of an enzyme into which the substrate fits is a A) one-size-fits-all active site. B) highly specificactive site. C) highly specificantibody. D) one-size-fits-all antibody.

61)

The enzyme-substrate complex is A) another name forthe active site. B) the reactantswhose chemical reaction the enzyme catalyzes. C) the chemicalstructure formed when the substrate binds to the active site. D) a pocket on thesubstrate that the enzyme recognizes.

62) Pancreatic amylase _________ the cells that make it, so the enzyme can serve its function (digestion of starch) in the lumen of the small intestine. A) is secreted from B) is embedded in the membranes of C) remains within D) None of the choices are correct.

63) Lactose intolerance is caused by the lack of the enzyme lactase. This enzyme _________ the cells that make it.

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A) is embedded within the membranes of B) is secreted from C) remains within D) None of the choices are correct.

64)

The enzyme RNA polymerase is synthesized A) at a ribosome, and it remains within the cell. B) at the rough endoplasmic reticulum, and it is secreted from the cell. C) at the Golgi apparatus, and it is embedded in the cell membrane. D) in the nucleus, and it is converted to RNA for export outside the cell.

65)

Which answer lists the steps of enzyme action in correct order?

A) Formation ofenzyme-substrate complex, induced fit, formation or breakage of chemical bonds,release of product B) Induced fit,formation of enzyme-substrate complex, formation or breakage of chemical bonds,release of product C) Formation orbreakage of chemical bonds, induced fit, formation of enzyme-substrate complex,release of substrate D) Induced fit,formation or breakage of chemical bonds, formation of enzyme-substrate complex,release of product

66) When an enzyme catalyzing a catabolic reaction changes conformation to an induced fit with the substrate, A) it strengthens thechemical bonds in the enzyme so that it remains perpetually active. B) it stresseschemical bonds in the substrate, making it easier to break them. C) it strengthenschemical bonds in the substrate so that cofactors can act on it. D) it stresses chemical bonds in the enzyme so that the enzyme breaks into two catalytic subunits.

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67)

In the final step of enzymatic catalysis,

A) the substrate isreleased and the enzyme is inactivated. B) the product iscompleted and the enzyme is inactivated. C) the products arereleased and the enzyme is free to bind other substrates. D) the enzyme andsubstrate form chemical bonds with each other resulting in a new product. E) equilibrium is obtained so that theenzyme does not catalyze further reactions.

68)

In performing its enzymatic function, carbonic anhydrase A) requires theinorganic coenzyme zinc. B) requires theorganic coenzyme carbon dioxide. C) is facilitated by the inorganic coenzyme NAD+. D) is facilitated bythe organic coenzyme zinc. E) requires the inorganic coenzymeNADPH.

69)

Which enzyme class splits a chemical bond in the absence of water? A) Ligase B) Oxidoreductase C) Lyase D) Hydrolase E) Dehydrogenase

70)

Which enzyme class transfers electrons from one substance to another? A) Oxidoreductase B) Transferase C) Isomerase D) Ligase E) Electin

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71)

An enzyme that is described as a protein kinase is a A) hydrolase thatremoves an amino acid from a protein. B) transferase thattransfers a phosphate group to a protein substrate. C) ligase that addsan amino acid to a protein. D) isomerase thatchanges one protein into another. E) protease that transfers electrons fromone protein to another.

72) Which statement accurately describes the effects of substrate and enzyme concentrations on reaction rate? A) An increase ineither substrate or enzyme concentration will increase the reaction rate. B) An increase ineither substrate or enzyme concentration will decrease the reaction rate. C) An increase insubstrate concentration increases the reaction rate, but enzyme concentrationhas no effect. D) A decrease insubstrate concentration or an increase in enzyme concentration increases thereaction rate. E) An increase in substrate concentrationor a decrease in enzyme concentration will increase the reaction rate.

73)

Saturation occurs when

A) there is so muchenzyme present thatthe reaction rate decreases if more is added. B) all enzymes arebusy and further increases in substrate concentrationwill not increasereaction rate. C) enzymes becomefatigued and can no longer catalyze changes in the substrate. D) intramolecularinteractions are disrupted in the enzyme, decreasing its efficiency anddecreasing reaction rate. E) the substrate is denatured and theenzyme cannot catalyze any changes in its structure.

74)

At temperatures above 40°C (104°F) in the human body,

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A) enzymatic reactions with substrates are more quickly catalyzed. B) enzymes denatureand reaction rates decrease. C) protein flexibilityis optimum and reaction rates increase. D) protein shape isrigid and reaction rates are constant.

75)

A fever of 101°F causes most enzymes in the human body A) to denature. B) to become morerigid. C) to be moreflexible and efficient. D) to saturate.

76)

The optimal pH range for most human enzymes is A) 1–2. B) 4–6. C) 6–8. D) 8–10. E) 13–14.

77)

The optimal pH range for the stomach enzyme pepsin is A) 2–4. B) 6–8. C) 7.3–7.4. D) 10–12. E) 12.0–13.5.

78)

Noncompetitive inhibition of an enzyme occurs when the inhibitor binds tothe

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A) allosteric site,and its effectivenessis not influenced bysubstrateconcentration. B) allosteric site,and its effectiveness depends on substrate concentration. C) active site, andits effectiveness is not influenced by substrate concentration. D) active site, andits effectiveness depends on substrate concentration. E) substrate, and itseffectiveness depends on product concentration.

79)

A group of enzymes that are physically attached to one another is referred to asa(n) A) allostericpathway. B) metabolicpathway. C) multienzymecomplex. D) phosphatecomplex.

80) Which enzyme system allows for regulation at a single site and also diminishes the chance that a needed substrate will diffuse away from a catalyst? A) Metabolicpathway B) Multienzymecomplex

81)

To prevent depletion of a substrate, theproduct of a metabolic pathway will A) turn off an enzymeearly in the pathway. B) catalyze its ownproduction. C) increase enzymeactivity through positive feedback. D) occupy the activesite of an enzyme early in the pathway.

82)

Enzyme regulation by negative feedback involves

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A) allostericinhibition of an enzyme by a product of its metabolic pathway. B) allostericfacilitation of an enzyme by a substrate of its metabolic pathway. C) allostericmodification of a substrate by an enzyme of an alternate metabolic pathway. D) occupation of theactive site of an enzyme so that it catalyzes less efficiently. E) enhancement of the active site by anegatively charged substrate.

83)

Phosphorylation is carried out by a A) kinase, and itresults in the negative feedback inhibition of an enzyme. B) kinase, and it mayactivate some enzymes and inhibit others. C) phosphatase, and itresults in the negative feedback inhibition of an enzyme. D) phosphatase, and itmay activate some enzymes and inhibit others.

84)

When one glucose moleculeis fully oxidized, how many molecules of CO

2 result?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 6

85)

The more common way that ATP is produced in cells is A) the indirectpathway known as oxidative phosphorylation. B) the indirectpathway known as substrate-level phosphorylation. C) the direct pathwayknown as oxidative phosphorylation. D) the direct pathwayknown as substrate-level phosphorylation.

86) Which of the following choices lists the order of stages of cellular respiration in proper order?

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A) Glycolysis,intermediate stage, citric acid cycle, and the electron transport system B) Citric acid cycle,glycolysis, intermediate stage, and the electron transport system C) Glycolysis, citricacid cycle, intermediate stage, and the electron transport system D) Glycolysis,intermediate stage, electron transport system, and the citric acid cycle E) Citric acid cycle, electron transportchain, intermediate stage, and glycolysis

87)

The first stage of cellular respiration is A) electrontransport, and it occurs in the cytosol. B) electrontransport, and it occurs in the mitochondria. C) glycolysis, and itoccurs in the cytosol. D) glycolysis, and itoccurs in the mitochondria. E) the citric acid cycle, and it occurs atthe mitochondria.

88)

The intermediate stage of cellular respiration A) produces ATP and occurs in the cytosol. B) produces carbon dioxide and occurs in the mitochondria. C) requires Coenzyme A and occurs in the cytosol. D) produces pyruvate and occurs in the mitochondria.

89) Hexokinase is an enzyme involved in cellular respiration and its substrate is glucose. Considering this information, hexokinase must be located A) in the lumen ofthe stomach. B) in the lumen ofthe small intestine. C) inside themitochondria of cells. D) in the cytosol ofcells.

90)

In the process of glycolysis

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A) one enzyme convertsglucose into NADH. B) two enzymes areinvolved in breaking glucose down to ten pyruvate molecules. C) ten enzymes areinvolved in breaking glucose down to two pyruvate molecules. D) twelve enzymessplit glucose into thirteen smaller molecules. E) six enzymes use two ATP to splitglucose in half.

91) During the early steps of glycolysis, glucose is converted to glucose 6-P, and then glucose 6-P is converted directlyto A) aldolase. B) fructose 6-P. C) isomerase. D) pyruvate. E) NADH.

92)

Pyruvate dehydrogenase is located in the A) cytosol. B) cell membrane. C) outer compartmentof the mitochondrion. D) middle of thecrista. E) matrix of the mitochondrion.

93)

Which stage of cellular respiration is catalyzed by pyruvate dehydrogenase? A) Electron transportsystem B) Intermediatestage C) Citric acidcycle D) Glycolysis E) Fermentation to lactate

94)

During cellular respiration, decarboxylation occurs when

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A) a carbon atom isremoved from glucose. B) a carbon dioxidemolecule is removed from the cytosol. C) a carboxyl groupisreleased from pyruvate. D) a carbon atom is removed from and an oxygen atom is added to fructose. E) all carbon and oxygen atoms are released from a high-energy molecule.

95) During the citric acid cycle, an acetyl CoA molecule produced in the intermediate stage combines with a molecule of A) oxaloaceticacid. B) pyruvate. C) citrate. D) succinate.

96)

The citric acid cycle involves A) a multienzymecomplex within the cytosol. B) several enzymeswithin the matrix of the mitochondrion. C) a multienzymecomplex within the outer compartment of the mitochondrion. D) several enzymeswithin the cytosol and the outer membrane of the mitochondrion.

97)

One turn of the citric acid cycle results in the formation of

A) 1 ATP, 3 NADH, and1 FADH 2. B) 2 pyruvates and 2ATP. C) 2 ATP, 2NADH +, and 3 FADH. D) 2 citrates, 4 ATP,and 3 FADH 2.

98) are

The coenzymes that will provide the electrons needed for the electron transport system

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A) NADH andFADH 2. B) NAD andFAD +. C) acetyl CoA andcitrate. D) pyruvate andNADH. E) FAD and decarboxylase.

99)

The electron transport chain

A) does not require oxygen, and involves proteins in the outer membrane of mitochondria. B) does not require oxygen, and involves proteins in the cristae of mitochondria. C) requires oxygen, and involves proteins in the outer membrane of mitochondria. D) requires oxygen, and involves proteins in the cristae of mitochondria.

100)

The proteins in the electron transport chain transport H+ A) from the cytosolto the matrix. B) from the matrix tothe outer compartment. C) from the outercompartment to the cytosol. D) from the outercompartment to the matrix. E) from the cristae to the matrix.

101) The enzyme that harnesses the energy of H+ diffusion down its concentration gradient within a mitochondrionto make high-energy molecules for the cell is A) ATPphosphatase. B) ATP synthase. C) pyruvatedecarboxylase. D) succinicdehydrogenase. E) creatine phosphatase.

102) The total number of ATP generated by the breakdown of glucose is 38, but the net number of ATP generated is Version 1

A) 2. B) 24. C) 30. D) 36. E) 40.

103) During electron transport, how many ATP can be generated from the energy contributed by a molecule of NADH? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 30 E) 36

104)

When oxygen is low, pyruvate is converted to lactate, while A) NADH is convertedto NAD +. B) ATP is convertedto AMP. C) citrate isconverted to pyruvate. D) FADH is convertedto NADH. E) FADH 2 is reduced toFAD +.

105) If oxygen levels drop such that glucose metabolism becomes primarily anaerobic, then the amount of ATP produced per glucose molecule will A) increaseslightly. B) remain roughly thesame. C) be halved. D) decrease tomuchless than half of what it was.

106)

At rest, muscle tissue prefers to use _________ molecules as sources of fuel.

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A) pyruvate B) fatty acid C) insulin D) protein E) simple carbohydrate

107)

Fatty acids enter the cell respiration pathway at A) the citric acid cycle, once they have been converted to acetyl CoA. B) glycolysis, once they have been converted to glucose. C) electron transportchain, once they have been converted to NADH. D) the intermediatestage, once they have been converted to pyruvate.

108) The breakdown ofH 2CO 3into CO 2 and H 2O is catalyzed by an enzyme called carbonic anhydrase. Which of the following is a reactant in this reaction? A) H 2CO 3 B) Carbonic anhydrase C) H 2O

109) The chemical reaction shown above A) is an example of an irreversible reaction. B) has reactants CO 2 and H 2O, which are permanently consumed as H 2CO 3 is produced. C) can proceed to the right, where H 2CO 3 is produced, or the left, where CO 2 and H 2O are produced. D) All of the choices are correct.

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FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 110) The energy of motion is known as _________ energy.

111) __________ is a monomer that is stored as thepolymer glycogenwithin theliver and muscle.

112) The form of kinetic energy that refers to the movement of electromagnetic waves is _________ energy.

113)

Chemical reactions that release energy are called __________ reactions.

114) In order for a reaction to occur, energy is neededto break the bonds that already exist in the reactant molecules; that energy is called the _________ energy.

115) When an enzyme's conformational change results in the enzymehugging the substrate in itsactive site, the action isreferred to as the __________ model of enzyme function.

116)

Organic cofactors are referred to as _________.

117) Extremely high temperatures break intramolecular interactions and _________ anenzyme, resulting in aloss of its function.

118) A substance that binds to the active site of an enzyme and turns it off is called a _________ inhibitor.

119)

Enzymes that remove phosphate groups from their substrates are called __________.

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120) During cellular respiration, whenglucose is fullydisassembled to carbon dioxide and water, the other reactant (with glucose) in the chemical equation is ___________.

121) The indirect method of ATP production involves coenzymes such as FAD and is referred to as _________ phosphorylation.

122) If insufficient oxygen is available for the anaerobic breakdown of pyruvate, it is converted to _________.

123)

The net ATP available for a cell to use after glycolysis of one glucose molecule is _____.

124) The reaction by which lactate is formed from pyruvate is catalyzed by lactate __________.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 125) Explain the relationship between activation energy and reaction rate. For example, how would an increasein activation energy affect reaction rate? How do biological systems differ from lab settings when considering these chemical variables?

126) Briefly describe how enzymes are named. What is generally used for the root of the name, and what is generally used as the suffix? Provide one example.

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ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 127) Compare and contrast chemical energy and radiant energy. Into which broad category of energy (kinetic or potential) does each fit? What are two examples of each type of energy that relate to human physiology?

128) Imagine that you discovered an enzyme in the human stomach that turned the substrate "ABC" into the product "XYZ". Name this enzyme (using the standard convention) and describe its chemical characteristics. Under what conditions would it be an effective catalyst? How might its activity be regulated?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 03_4e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) FALSE 20) TRUE 21) TRUE 22) TRUE 23) FALSE 24) TRUE 25) TRUE 26) FALSE Version 1

27) FALSE 28) FALSE 29) TRUE 30) TRUE 31) TRUE 32) FALSE 33) FALSE 34) TRUE 35) FALSE 36) TRUE 37) FALSE 38) TRUE 39) C 40) B 41) C 42) A 43) A 44) C 45) D 46) B 47) A 48) C 49) A 50) C 51) A 52) C 53) A 54) A 55) B 56) A Version 1

57) D 58) B 59) A 60) B 61) C 62) A 63) A 64) A 65) A 66) B 67) C 68) A 69) C 70) A 71) B 72) A 73) B 74) B 75) C 76) C 77) A 78) A 79) C 80) B 81) A 82) A 83) B 84) D 85) A 86) A Version 1

87) C 88) B 89) D 90) C 91) B 92) E 93) B 94) C 95) A 96) B 97) A 98) A 99) D 100) B 101) B 102) C 103) C 104) A 105) D 106) B 107) A 108) A 109) C 110) kinetic 111) Glucose 112) radiant 113) exergonic 114) activation 115) induced-fit 116) coenzymes Version 1

117) denature 118) competitive 119) phosphatases 120) oxygen 121) oxidative 122) lactate 123) 2 124) dehydrogenase 126) The root is usually the substrate (or product) and the suffix is generally "-ase". An example is lactase, which digests lactose. 127) Chemical energy is potential energy and radiant energy is kinetic energy. Two examples of chemical energy are triglycerides and complex carbohydrates such as glycogen.Two examples of radiant energy are UV light (a DNA mutagen) and visible light (sensed by the visual system). 128) The enzyme "ABCase" would work bestat or near human body temperature and at the acidic pH of the stomach. The enzyme is a globular protein that acts as a catalyst.Its activity might be regulated in a variety of fashions described in section 3.3 of the book.

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CHAPTER 4 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The diameter of a red blood cell is a little less than 1 μm. ⊚ ⊚

Most cells in the human body are between 1 μm and 100 μm in diameter. ⊚ ⊚

true false

One example of a membrane-bound organelle is a ribosome. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Peroxisomes are membrane-bound organelles. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Cartilage cells and intestinal lining cells are described as being cube-shaped. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The centrosome is considered to bean inclusion. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) One of the general functions that all cells must maintain throughout their life is the ability to divide and give rise to new cells.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

8) All cells must obtain nutrients, form new chemical structures, and dispose of waste molecules. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Over time diffusion results in the even distribution of a substance throughout an area. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10)

Water can cross cell membranes only by way of channel-mediated diffusion. ⊚ true ⊚ false

11)

Placing a red blood cell in an extremely hypertonic solution leads to hemolysis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) The sodium-potassium pump moves ions against their concentration gradients and helps maintain an electrochemical gradient across the plasma membrane. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) Symport active transporters move two substances across the membrane in the same direction. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

14)

Exocytosis is a form of secondary active transport. ⊚ ⊚

15)

true false

Most cells perform pinocytosis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) Body cells communicate with immune system cellsthrough direct contact involving the glycocalyx. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) When a skin wound is healing, cell contact on all sides is a strong stimulus for cell division. ⊚ ⊚

18)

true false

Peroxisomes are membrane-bound organelles. ⊚ ⊚

true false

19) Tight junctions provide direct passageways for substances to travel between neighboring cells. ⊚ ⊚

20)

true false

A little over 50% of the total amount of DNA in a human cell consists of genes. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false 3

21)

A start codon consists of the three-base sequence AUG. ⊚ ⊚

22)

true false

A single mRNA molecule can be read by more than one ribosome simultaneously. ⊚ ⊚

true false

23) DNA directs the synthesis of proteins, including enzymes that catalyze the synthesis of several important molecules. ⊚ ⊚

24)

true false

Chromosomes are loose, and chromatin is tightly packed genetic material. ⊚ ⊚

true false

25) Transmission electron microscopy (TEM) uses an electron beam to create an image for viewing. ⊚ ⊚

true false

26) Lysosome functions range from the digestion of materials ingested by the cell to the selfdestruction of the cell. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

27) Mitochondria engage in aerobic cellular respiration to complete thedigestion of fuel molecules to allow for transfer of energy for the synthesis of ATP. ⊚ ⊚

true false

28) Among the functions of the plasma membrane are to form specialized intercellular connections, provide for selective permeability, and facilitate the recognition and response to molecular signals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

29) Materials tend to move less rapidly when their concentrations are significantly different between two compartments. ⊚ ⊚

true false

30) The amount of rough ER is greater in cells producing large amounts of protein for secretion. ⊚ ⊚

31)

true false

Everything packaged by the Golgi apparatus for secretion leaves the cell within a vesicle. ⊚ ⊚

true false

32) Lysosomes contain enzymes that prepare the vesicles that will be used by the Golgi apparatus to package its secretory products. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

33)

Ribosomes that are attached to the RER are called "free ribosomes". ⊚ ⊚

34)

true false

Generally, the shape of a nucleus mirrors the shape of the cell within which it is found. ⊚ ⊚

true false

35) The subunits of ribosomes are exported outside the nucleus into the cytoplasm, where they are assembled into their finished product. ⊚ ⊚

true false

36) Under normal conditions and when a cell is at "rest," there is more potassium in the cytosol than in the extracellular fluid. ⊚ true ⊚ false

37) When a cell is at its resting membrane potential, more potassium diffuses out than sodium diffiuses in. ⊚ true ⊚ false

38) As potassium diffuses down its concentration gradient, it moves out of the cell. However, this movement is resisted by the accumulating negative charge outside the cell. ⊚ true ⊚ false

39) The sodium-potassium pump is continually active while the cell is at a stable resting membrane potential. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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40) The sodium-potassium pump moves both potassium and sodium down their concentration gradients, from higher to lower concentration. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41)

The lysosome is an example of a membrane-bound organelle. ⊚ ⊚

true false

42) DNA is the control center of the cell because it directs the synthesis of proteins, which are responsible for most cellular functions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 43) Select all that are required for translation to occur. A) DNA B) RNA Polymerase C) mRNA D) tRNA

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 44) What unit of measurement isoften used to measure cell size?

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A) Millimeter B) Micrometer C) Nanometer D) Centimeter

45) The microscope of choice for a detailed three-dimensional study of the surface of a specimen is the A) scanning electronmicroscope. B) transmissionelectron microscope. C) lightmicroscope. D) telescope.

46)

An image produced by passing visible light through a specimen is obtained using the A) transmissionelectron microscope. B) lightmicroscope. C) scanning electronmicroscope. D) dissectingscope. E) ocular examinationmethod.

47) Some of the largestspherical cells in the human body (for example, oocytes) have a diameter of approximately A) 1 nm. B) 1 cm. C) 1 μm. D) 100 nm. E) 100 μm.

48)

The shape of skeletal muscle cells is described as

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A) columnar. B) biconcave. C) cylindrical. D) spherical. E) irregular.

49)

Another name for the intracellular fluid is A) cytosol. B) interstitialfluid. C) intercellularmatrix. D) cytoplasm. E) cisternae.

50)

Which is not considered part of the cytoplasm? A) Cytosol B) Nucleus C) Organelles D) Inclusions

51)

The _______ is responsible for forming the outer, limiting barrier of a cell. A) peroxisome B) ribosome C) mitochondrion D) plasma membrane E) centrosome

52) The largest internal cellular structure is known as the ______ andis the cell's control center.

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A) Golgi apparatus B) nucleus C) lysosome D) cytosol E) smooth ER

53)

Which is a non-membrane-bound organelle? A) Microtubule B) Lysosome C) Golgi apparatus D) Rough endoplasmic reticulum E) Mitochondrion

54)

The pigment melanin is a(n) A) membrane-boundorganelle. B) non-membrane-boundorganelle. C) inclusion. D) nutrient. E) triglyceride.

55)

If the nutrient glycogen is found stored inside a cell, it is considered a(n) A) inclusion. B) membrane-boundorganelle. C) non-membrane-boundorganelle. D) pigment.

56)

Which of the following choices describes three general functions cells must perform?

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A) Maintain shape,obtain nutrients, and dispose of wastes B) Respond to allhormones, maintain a waterproof barrier, give rise to gametes C) Grow untildividing, store complex carbohydrates, generate antibodies D) Take up oxygen,prevent water entry, undergo mitosis frequently

57) The lipid that stabilizes the membrane at extreme temperatures and is found in the hydrophobic regions of the bilayer is A) the polarhead. B) the nonpolartails. C) cholesterol. D) glycolipid. E) glycocalyx.

58) The most abundant lipid of the membrane consists of a head and two tails. This type of lipid is A) aphospholipid. B) cholesterol. C) glycolipid. D) glycoprotein. E) a steroid.

59)

Glycolipids are found on the

A) outer layer of thecell membrane, and they help make the sticky sugar coating on its surface. B) middle layer ofthe cell membrane, and they function to transmit solutes through themembrane. C) inner layer of thecell membrane, and they provide scaffold support to the cell membrane. D) inside of the cell, where they are a source of high-energy nutrition to power mitochondria.

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60) Proteins that are embedded within, and extend across, the phospholipid bilayer are called _____ proteins. A) catalytic B) integral C) cytoskeleton D) peripheral

61) Proteins that assist the movement of a substance across the membrane are called _________ proteins. A) catalytic B) cytoskeleton C) transport D) identification E) intercellularattachment

62) Which type of protein is used by cells of the immune system to distinguish normal cells from foreign or infected cells? A) Anchoringproteins B) Ligands C) Cell adhesionproteins D) Identitymarkers E) Transport proteins

63) Movement of a substance from an area of higher concentration to one where it is less concentrated is known as

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A) equilibrium. B) activetransport. C) diffusion. D) facilitation. E) selective transport.

64)

Diffusion rate isfastest when the concentration gradientis A) steepest andtemperature is highest. B) steepest andtemperature is at body temperature. C) slightest andtemperature is highest. D) slightest andtemperature is at body temperature. E) slightest and temperature islowest.

65)

Which is a passive transport process? A) Phagocytosis B) Pinocytosis C) Receptor-mediated endocytosis D) Osmosis E) Ion pump

66)

Channel-mediated diffusion is a subtype of A) simplediffusion. B) carrier-mediateddiffusion. C) activetransport. D) facilitateddiffusion. E) endocytosis.

67)

The movement of glucose across a plasma membrane is achieved by

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A) ion pumps. B) receptor-mediatedexocytosis. C) osmosis. D) facilitateddiffusion. E) phagocytosis.

68) When a small, polar solute binds to amembrane protein that then changes shape and transports the solute across the membrane, the process is known as A) simplediffusion. B) channel-mediateddiffusion. C) carrier-mediateddiffusion. D) activetransport. E) endocytosis.

69) During osmosis, water moves toward the solution with the _________ solute concentration. A) greater B) lesser

70)

Osmosis is the diffusion of A) water within theinside of a cell. B) water across amembrane. C) solutes within theinside of a cell. D) solutes across amembrane.

71) Consider a cell with a total internal solute concentration of 0.9%. Placing the cell in which bath solution would result in creation of the greatest osmotic pressure in the cell?

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A) 0.5% NaCl B) 0.9% NaCl C) 1.2% NaCl

72) When a cell is placed in a solution with a very low solute concentration, water diffuses into the cell. Such a solution is called a(n) _________ solution. A) hypertonic B) hypotonic C) isotonic D) endergonic

73) Cell shrinking, also known as crenation, occurs when a cell is placed into a(n) _________ solution. A) isotonic B) hypertonic C) hypotonic D) exergonic

74)

The sodium-potassium ATPase functions by performing A) primary activetransport. B) secondary activetransport. C) exocytosis. D) both exocytosis andendocytosis. E) receptor-mediatedendocytosis.

75)

The sodium-potassium pump moves

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A) sodium andpotassium into the cell. B) sodium andpotassium out of the cell. C) sodium into thecell and potassium out of the cell. D) sodium out of thecell and potassium into the cell.

76) Coupled transport that involves the moving ofone substance against its concentration gradient by using energy from a second substance moving down its concentration gradient is known as A) primary activetransport. B) receptor-mediatedendocytosis. C) bulktransport. D) sympatheticexocytosis. E) secondary active transport.

77)

The release of neurotransmitter from a neuron is an example of A) endocytosis and isa form of passive transport. B) receptor-mediated endocytosis and it requires expenditure of ATP. C) exocytosis and isa form of passive transport. D) exocytosis and itrequires expenditure of ATP. E) pinocytosis and it is a form of primaryactive transport.

78)

The uptake of cholesterol into cells is an example of A) phagocytosis. B) pinocytosis. C) receptor-mediatedendocytosis. D) receptor-mediatedexocytosis. E) simplediffusion.

79) When a cell surrounds a large particle with pseudopodia and then engulfs it, the process is called Version 1

A) exocytosis. B) phagocytosis. C) pinocytosis. D) secondary activetransport. E) receptor-mediated endopinocytosis.

80)

Pinocytosis is the process in which the cell A) internalizes ("drinks") a droplet of interstitial fluid. B) internalizes("eats") a large solid particle. C) splits("pinches") off a small part of itself to secrete into theextracellular space. D) pumps smallsolutes against their concentration gradient and out of the cell.

81)

When fertilization occurs, the sperm recognizes the egg by A) the chemicalmessages the egg secretes into the interstitial space. B) the uniqueglycocalyx on the egg's surface. C) the much largerrelative size of the egg. D) the strong acidityof the egg's environment.

82) When ligands bind to them, ___________ receptors directly phosphorylate enzymes within the cell. A) enzymatic B) channel-linked C) Gprotein-coupled D) phosphatase

83) Which choice describes the activation steps of a G protein-coupled receptor properly (and in correct order)?

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A) Ligand binds toreceptor, G protein activated, effector protein activated, second messengermade available B) Ligand binds toreceptor, second messenger activated, G protein turned on, protein kinaseactivated C) Protein kinaseactivated, ion channel opened, ions enter and activate second messenger, Gprotein turned on D) Ion channelopened, G protein activated, second messenger synthesized, phosphatase endssignal

84)

The _________ are responsible for synthesizing most of a human body cell's ATP. A) lysosomes B) microfilaments C) nucleoli D) ribosomes E) mitochondria

85)

Identify the organelle that provides enzymes for autolysis. A) Peroxisomes B) Mitochondria C) Smooth ER D) Golgi apparatus E) Lysosomes

86) Which of the following structures function in holding organelles in place, maintaining cell shape and rigidity, and directing organelle movement?

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A) Centrioles B) Flagella C) Golgi apparatus D) Microtubules E) Cilia

87)

Which is an active transport process? A) Simple diffusion B) Bulk filtration C) Osmosis D) Facilitated diffusion E) Ion pump

88)

Which ofthe followingfactors influence cell membrane permeability? A) Phospholipidcomposition of the membrane B) Ionic charge alongthe membrane C) Presence or absenceof transport proteins D) Molecule size E) All of the choices are correct.

89)

Exocytosis occurs as a result of A) hydrostaticpressure. B) the expenditure ofenergy in the form of ATP. C) molecular movementwith carrier assistance. D) concentrationgradients. E) ion pumps.

90) In order to process digested nutrients and detoxify chemical agents such as drugs and alcohol, the ______ contains abundant amounts of smooth ER. Version 1

A) liver B) kidney C) smallintestine D) pancreas E) stomach

91)

Which is not a membrane-bound organelle? A) Endoplasmic reticulum B) Lysosome C) Golgi apparatus D) Peroxisome E) All of the choices are membrane-bound organelles.

92)

Removal of old organelles is via a process called A) pinocytosis. B) autophagy. C) autolysis. D) filtration. E) vascularization.

93)

Catalase-containing peroxisomes are most abundant in ______ cells. A) liver B) kidney C) pancreas D) thymus E) pituitary

94)

The folds of the internal membrane of a mitochondrion are called

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A) matrix. B) vesicles. C) vacuoles. D) cristae. E) cisternae.

95) The organelles responsible for organizing microtubules that are part of the mitotic spindle are called A) centrioles. B) nucleoli. C) microvilli. D) cilia. E) vesicles.

96)

In humans, the only cell that bears a flagellum is the ________ cell. A) kidney B) oocyte C) red blood D) brain E) sperm

97) Which of the followingserve to increase the surface area of a cell for absorption and secretion? A) Flagella B) Microvilli C) Cilia D) Cilia and flagella E) Cilia and microvilli

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98) Because they produce ribosome subunits, one would expect to find large numbers of nucleoli in cells that synthesize A) energysources. B) pigments. C) solubility-enhancing substances. D) steroidhormones. E) proteins.

99)

Which are the smallest components of the cytoskeleton? A) Microtubules B) Microfilaments C) Intermediate filaments D) Centrosomes E) Centrioles

100)

These junctions hold adjacent cells together and provide resistance to mechanical stress. A) Gap junctions B) Desmosomes C) Tightjunctions D) Synapses

101) Mucus is moved along the lining of the trachea by extensions from cell membranes known as A) cilia. B) flagella. C) microvilli. D) stereovilli.

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102)

The building blocks that form the DNA double helix are called A) nucleoli. B) nucleotides. C) steroid bases. D) nitrogenousacids. E) nuclear pores.

103)

Which is not one of the bases found in DNA nucleotides? A) Adenine B) Cytosine C) Guanine D) Thymine E) Diamine

104)

The function of the nucleolus is to make A) DNA molecules. B) the subunits ofribosomes. C) the secretions thatwill be packaged by the Golgi apparatus. D) histones. E) the deoxyribosesugar.

105)

The nuclear envelope consists primarily of A) a double helix ofDNA. B) ribosomalsubunits. C) two phospholipidbilayers. D) messenger RNA.

106)

Which statement is accurate?

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A) DNA is made upentirely of genes; a chromosome is the unwoven form of chromatin. B) A sequence ofnucleotides in DNA constitutes a gene; DNA and associated proteins formchromatin. C) Human cellscontain 46 genes; another name for a gene is a nucleosome. D) Each nucleotide ina gene is bound by hydrogen to the next nucleotide in the sequence; chromatinis a nitrogenous base.

107)

During transcription A) an RNA molecule isformed as a DNA sequence is read. B) a protein is formedas a DNA sequence is read. C) a DNA sequence isformed as a RNA sequence is read. D) an amino acid istransferred to a ribosome as a DNA sequence is read. E) a protein is formed as a RNA sequenceis read.

108)

Which of the following is considered a required enzyme for the process of transcription? A) Aminoacyl-tRNAsynthetase B) DNA polymerase C) RNA polymerase D) Amine transferase

109) If the sequence of DNA nucleotidesbeing read is TTACTG, then transcription results in the formation of the sequence A) AAUGAC. B) TTUGUC. C) GTCATT. D) TTACTG. E) AAAGGG.

110)

The term "codon" refers to

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A) a three-nucleotidesequence of DNA that codes for a protein. B) an amino acid thatis coded for by three bases of DNA. C) a three-basesequence of mRNA. D) the part of a rRNAmolecule where a new amino acid is added. E) the part of tRNAthat is a triplet of bases that forms hydrogen bonds with complementarysequences.

111)

The E site of a ribosome is where A) new amino acidsenter the ribosome. B) the polypeptideelongates. C) the tRNA exits theribosome.

112)

Which of the following shows the correct sequence of mitosis? A) Prophase - metaphase - anaphase - telophase B) Metaphase - prophase - anaphase - telophase C) Telophase - metaphase - prophase - anaphase D) Metaphase - telophase - anaphase - prophase E) Prophase - anaphase - metaphase - telophase

113) The phase of mitosis that begins as spindle fibers pull sister chromatids apart at the centromere is A) metaphase. B) anaphase. C) telophase. D) prophase. E) interphase.

114) The phase of mitosis that begins with the arrival of a group of single-stranded chromosomes at each pole of the cell is

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A) metaphase. B) anaphase. C) telophase. D) prophase. E) S phase.

115)

Which does not occur during the G2 phase? A) Centriolereplication is completed. B) Organelleproduction continues. C) Enzymes needed forcell division are synthesized. D) Each DNA moleculereplicates. E) No exceptions; allof these occur during the G 2 phase.

116)

The last part of interphase is called A) the first"gap" phase. B) the second"gap" phase. C) telophase. D) the S phase. E) anaphase.

117)

The replication of a DNA molecule during interphase occurs during the A) first"gap" phase. B) S phase. C) second"gap" phase. D) generation"gap" phase. E) metaphase.

118)

Cytokinesis usually begins before ________ ends.

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A) prophase B) interphase C) metaphase D) anaphase E) telophase

119)

Which is not characteristic of a cell undergoing apoptosis? A) Chromatin degradation B) Shrinkage in volume C) Abnormal development in organelle structure D) Abnormal development in plasma membrane structure E) No exceptions; all of these are characteristic of a cell undergoing apoptosis.

120)

The term "flagellum" is appropriate for the structure it represents because it means A) an eyelid. B) the center. C) a nut orkernel. D) a whip. E) a bench.

121) The potential across a cell membrane has changed drastically, from –90mV to +30mV. In other words, A) there is a postive charge on the inside of the cell, relative to the outside. B) there is a negative charge on the inside of the cell, relative to the outside. C) the resting membrane potential has been established. D) there is no relative charge difference between the inside and the outside of the cell.

122)

To maintain a resting membrane potential, the sodium-potassium pump

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A) actively transports 3 sodium ions out of the cell and 2 potassium ions into the cell. B) passively transports 3 sodium ions out of the cell and 2 potassium ions into the cell. C) actively transports 3 potassium ions out of the cell and 2 sodium ions into the cell. D) passively transports 3 potassium ions out of the cell and 2 sodium ions into the cell.

123)

Which of the following serves to increase the surface area of a cell? A) Microvilli B) Microfilaments C) Centrioles D) The nucleolus

124)

Apoptosis is best described as A) a process where cells destroy themselves. B) the process of an aging cell becoming cancerous. C) the destruction of a cell through mechanical damage. D) the process of immune cells recognizing an infected cell as "foreign".

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 125) The fluid contained in the nucleus is the _________.

126) Some membrane proteins are not embedded within the lipid bilayer but are instead anchored loosely to either the inner or the outer surface. Such proteins are called _________ proteins.

127) The pressure that must be exerted onto a solution in order to prevent water from diffusing into that solution through a semipermeable membrane is called ___________ pressure.

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128) Physiological saline contains the same concentration of solutes as the inside of a cell, and it is therefore a(n) __________ solution.

129) If a transport protein moves two solutes across a membranein opposite directions, the protein is called a countertransporter or _________.

130) The type of vesicular transport by which large molecules or large amounts of substances are secreted from a cell is _________.

131)

Channel-linked receptors are also known as __________ gated channels.

132)

The coding regions of DNA that are both transcribed and translated are the ________.

133) The process of reading an mRNA molecule and synthesizing a protein is known as __________.

134)

When a cell is dividing, the genetic material is in the compact form of __________.

135)

The process of programmed cell death ("cell suicide") is known as __________.

136) _____________ is the general term for all cellular contents located between the plasma membrane and the nucleus.

137) _____________ are short, membrane-attached projections containing microtubules that occur in large numbers on exposed membrane surfaces.

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138) The term used to describe the fluid within a cell is _______________, or intracellular fluid.

139) The _____________ proteins are those that are not embedded in the membrane lipid bilayer but are attached loosely to its external and internal surfaces.

140) The fuzzy coat made of glycoproteins and glycolipids found on the external surface of the plasma membrane is called the _______________.

141) A membrane that is able to regulate the movement of materials in and out of the cell is described as being _________ _________ (2 words).

142) In _____________ transport, substances move across a plasma membrane without the expenditure of energy by the cell.

143) _______________ transport is required to move a substance across a membrane against a concentration gradient.

144) A cell-mediated process that transports large molecules across the plasma membrane and out of the cell is called ________________.

145)

The technical term for "cellular drinking" is _______________.

146)

The digestion of a cell by its own enzymes is called _______________.

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147) _________ are barrel-shaped, protein-digesting organelles in both the nucleus and the cytoplasm.

148) _____________ ribosomes are responsible for the synthesis of proteins that remain within the cell.

149) The cytoskeleton has three separate components: microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and ______________.

150) DNA is organized into discrete units called ____________ that provide information for the production of specific proteins.

151) Nuclear ____________ are open passageways that penetrate fused regions of the double membrane of the nuclear envelope.

152)

The two identical cells that arise from mitosis are called ____________ cells.

153)

_____________ is the division of the cytoplasm during cell division.

154) The duplicated chromosome that appears during prophase consists of two genetically identical structures called sister ________________.

155) Neurons have a _______ membrane potential of –70mV. In other words, this is their stable membrane potential under normal conditions.

156) Two perpendicularly oriented _______ form the centrosome, which is responsible for organizing microtubules during cell division. Version 1

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 157) Describe the process of transcription. What does it produce? Where in the cell does it occur? What molecules are involved? Explain what happens in each of the following stages: initiation, elongation, termination, and splicing.

158) Explain interphase.Name the three subphases of interphase and describe what occurs in each.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 04_4e 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) FALSE 20) FALSE 21) TRUE 22) TRUE 23) TRUE 24) FALSE 25) TRUE 26) TRUE Version 1

27) TRUE 28) TRUE 29) FALSE 30) TRUE 31) TRUE 32) FALSE 33) FALSE 34) TRUE 35) TRUE 36) TRUE 37) TRUE 38) FALSE As potassium diffuses out of a cell, positive charges accumulate outside the cell (due to both potassium and sodium). This serves as some resistance against potassium diffusion and contributes to an equilibrium that is reached. 39) TRUE 40) FALSE The sodium-potassium pump moves both potassium and sodium up their concentration gradients, from lower to higher concentration. 41) TRUE 42) TRUE 43) [C, D] 44) B 45) A 46) B 47) E 48) C 49) A 50) B Version 1

51) D 52) B 53) A 54) C 55) A 56) A 57) C 58) A 59) A 60) B 61) C 62) D 63) C 64) A 65) D 66) D 67) D 68) C 69) A 70) B 71) A 72) B 73) B 74) A 75) D 76) E 77) D 78) C 79) B 80) A Version 1

81) B 82) A 83) A 84) E 85) E 86) D 87) E 88) E 89) B 90) A 91) E 92) B 93) A 94) D 95) A 96) E 97) B 98) E 99) B 100) B 101) A 102) B 103) E 104) B 105) C 106) B 107) A 108) C 109) A 110) C Version 1

111) C 112) A 113) B 114) C 115) D 116) B 117) B 118) D 119) E 120) D 121) A 122) A 123) A 124) A 125) nucleoplasm 126) peripheral 127) osmotic 128) isotonic 129) antiporter 130) exocytosis 131) chemically 132) exons 133) translation 134) chromosomes 135) apoptosis 136) Cytoplasm 137) Cilia 138) cytosol 139) peripheral 140) glycocalyx Version 1

141) selectively permeable 142) passive 143) Active 144) exocytosis 145) pinocytosis 146) autolysis 147) Proteosomes 148) Free 149) microtubules 150) genes 151) pores 152) daughter 153) Cytokinesis 154) chromatids 155) resting 156) centrioles

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CHAPTER 5 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Epithelial tissue tends to be richly innervated and highly regenerative. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) In nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelial tissue, the cells in the superficial layers are dead. ⊚ ⊚

Exocrine glands secrete hormones into the blood. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Many connective tissues play a role in immune protection. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)are polysaccharides. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Mesenchyme is found only in the umbilical cord. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Cardiac muscle is also known as visceral muscle.

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⊚ ⊚

Glial cells transmit impulses. ⊚ ⊚

true false

All muscle tissue develops from mesoderm. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

Some neurons are longer than 1 meter. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells in a tissue. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) An organ is made up of only one tissue type; for example, the heart is made of cardiac muscle. ⊚ ⊚

true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 13) Select all that are categorized as supporting connective tissue, and therefore have a more solid ground substance as compared to connective tissue proper and fluid connective tissue.

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A) Cartilage B) Bone C) Dense regular D) Reticular

14) Select the two connective tissue examples that are most closely related to each other in their structure, function, and classification. A) Hyaline cartilage B) Lymph C) Dense irregular D) Reticular

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 15) Which tissue type covers bodysurfaces and lines the inside of organs and body cavities? A) Muscle B) Connective C) Epithelial D) Nervous E) None of the choices is correct.

16)

In what tissue would you expect to find very little, if any, extracellular matrix? A) Muscle tissue B) Nervous tissue C) Immune tissue D) Epithelial tissue E) Connective tissue

17)

Which feature is not characteristic of epithelial tissue?

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A) Polarity B) Cells connected to each other by intercellular junctions C) High regeneration capacity D) Attachment to a basement membrane E) Large amount of extracellular matrix

18)

Which of the following is not a function of epithelial tissue? A) Secretion B) Physical protection C) Selective permeability D) Sensation E) No exceptions; these are all functions of epithelial tissue

19) A(n) ___________ is two or more tissue types working together to perform common, specific functions. A) organ B) organ system C) organism D) tissue category

20)

Which is avascular (lacks blood vessels)? A) Epithelial tissue B) Muscle tissue C) Nervous tissue D) Connective tissue E) All of the choices are correct.

21) A _____________ epithelium consists of a single layer of flattened cells attached directly to a basement membrane.

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A) simple columnar B) simple squamous C) simple cuboidal D) stratifiedsquamous E) stratifiedcuboidal

22) Which type of epithelium is composed of multiple layers, including anapical layercontaining tall, slender cells? A) Simple squamous B) Simple columnar C) Pseudostratifiedsquamous D) Stratifiedsquamous E) Stratified columnar

23) The walls of kidney tubules are formed by _____________ epithelium, which functions in resorbing materials filtered from blood plasma such as nutrients, ions, and water. A) simplecuboidal B) simplesquamous C) stratifiedcuboidal D) stratifiedsquamous E) stratifiedcolumnar

24)

Which of the following is not lined by nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium? A) Oral cavity B) Pharynx C) Vagina D) Esophagus E) Small intestine

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25) Microscopic folds that extend from the apical surface of certain epithelia to increase the surface area for absorption and secretion are called A) cilia. B) microvilli. C) flagella. D) mucus. E) desmosomes.

26)

If you gently rub your thumb and forefinger together, each finger is contacting A) simple squamousepithelium. B) keratinized simplesquamous epithelium. C) keratinizedstratified squamous epithelium. D) nonkeratinizedsimple squamous epithelium. E) nonkeratinizedstratified squamous epithelium.

27)

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium is found lining A) portions of therespiratory system. B) the larger bloodvessels. C) the oviduct. D) large kidneytubules. E) ducts of sweatglands.

28) The type of epithelium that lines the urinary bladder and may include some binucleated cells is called ____________ epithelium. A) stratifiedsquamous nonkeratinized B) stratifiedsquamous keratinized C) pseudostratified D) transitional E) simplesquamous

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29)

What type of epithelium would be most suited for high levels of diffusion and filtration? A) Simple squamous B) Stratified squamous C) Pseudostratified D) Transitional E) Stratified columnar

30)

The lining of the air sacs in the lungs (alveoli) is comprised of what epithelium? A) Simple squamous B) Simple columnar C) Simple cuboidal D) Stratified squamous E) Transitional

31)

Which type of epithelial tissue would be the least protective? A) Stratified keratinized B) Stratifiednonkeratinized C) Simple columnar D) Transitional E) Simple squamous

32) Epithelial tissues have an attached (basal) border and a free (apical) border. This arrangement is known as A) bilateralsymmetry. B) distalorientation. C) polarity. D) proximalorientation. E) lateralflexibility.

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33) If you were to rub your finger over the surface of your face, you would notice that the skin is oily. What makes up the oil? A) Waste material from cellular metabolism B) Waste material (bilirubin) from dead red blood cells C) Ruptured cells from sebaceous glands D) Extracellular fluid not drained by the lymphatic system E) Plasma leakage from damaged blood vessels

34)

You would most likely find goblet cells in what type of tissue? A) Cartilage B) Nervous tissue C) Muscle tissue D) Bone E) Epithelial tissue

35) If a person were unable to form saliva, what type of gland could be missing or malfunctioning? A) Merocrine glands B) Holocrine glands C) Apocrine glands

36)

When mucin mixes with water, it becomes A) fatty tissue. B) solid. C) mucus. D) bone. E) muscle.

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37)

Which of the following is not secreted by glands? A) Mucin B) Hormones C) DNA D) Enzymes E) Waste products

38)

Endocrine glands A) possess short ductsand secrete their products directly onto the skin surface. B) lack ducts andsecrete their products onto the skin surface. C) possess ducts tosecrete their products into the bloodstream or into interstitial fluid. D) lack ducts andsecrete their products into the bloodstream or into interstitial fluid. E) secrete mucusdirectly into a body cavity.

39) The type of exocrine gland in which the entire cell disintegrates, liberating any accumulated products, is the __________ gland. A) apocrine B) merocrine C) goblet cell D) holocrine E) None of the choices is correct.

40)

Endocrine glands secrete A) sweat. B) hormones. C) saliva. D) digestiveenzymes. E) All of the choicesare correct.

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41)

An exocrine gland has two parts: A) a duct and abasement membrane. B) a basementmembrane and a goblet cell. C) a brush border anda glandular portion. D) an acinus and abrush border. E) a duct and asecretory portion.

42) Which primary tissue type would be represented by blood, body fat, ligaments and tendons, dermis of the skin, and the cartilage of some joints? 6-18-2013 A) Epithelial tissue B) Connective tissue C) Nervous tissue D) Muscle tissue E) None of the choices is correct.

43)

Which of the primary tissue types is most widely distributed throughout the body? A) Connective B) Muscle C) Nervous D) Epithelium

44)

All connective tissues have three features in common. They are A) cells, proteinfibers, and mucus. B) cells, hormones,and protein fibers. C) protein fibers, aliquid portion, and ground substance. D) cells, a liquidportion, and protein fibers. E) cells, proteinfibers, and ground substance.

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45)

In connective tissue, the extracellular matrix consists of A) cells and groundsubstance. B) protein fibers andground substance. C) cells and proteinfibers. D) ground substanceand intracellular fluid. E) ground substanceonly.

46)

All connective tissue is formed from which embryonic germ layer? A) Endoderm B) Ectoderm C) Mucoderm D) Mesoderm E) Epiderm

47) Which is the first type of connective tissue to form in the embryo and the source of all other adult connective tissues? A) Mesenchyme B) Mucous C) Adipose D) Areolar E) Umbilical

48) Which cell type, found in connective tissue proper, is formed from monocytes and serves to phagocytize damaged cells or pathogens?

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A) Macrophage B) Fibroblast C) Mesenchymal cell D) Adipocyte E) Chondrocyte

49) Which type of connective tissue protein fiber forms a meshlike framework that provides structural support within many organs (within the spleen, for example)? A) Collagen fibers B) Reticular fibers C) Elastic fibers D) Mucoid fibers E) Cartilaginous fibers

50) Connective tissue proper is divided into two broad categories: loose connective tissue and dense connective tissue. This classification is based upon the A) location of thetissue. B) size of the cellspresent. C) relativeproportions of cells, fibers, and ground substance present. D) number of differentcells types and their respective arrangement. E) origin of thetissue type.

51) Which type of connective tissue is found in the papillary layer of thedermis and contains all of the cell types of connective tissue proper? A) Adipose B) Reticular C) Dense irregular D) Dense regular E) Areolar

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52) Which type of connective tissue predominates in the deep portion of the dermis, where it lends strength to the skin? A) Adipose B) Dense regular C) Dense irregular D) Cartilage E) Areolar

53)

The most common type of cartilage, named for its glassy appearance, is A) fibrocartilage. B) hyalinecartilage. C) elasticcartilage. D) reticularcartilage. E) areolarcartilage.

54)

Which feature is found in both cartilage and bone? A) Chondrocyte B) Osteocyte C) Perichondrium D) Central canal E) Lacuna

55)

The internal feature of bone that makes it simultaneously strong and lightweight is the A) presence ofcartilage. B) latticeworkstructure of spongy bone. C) pattern ofosteons. D) areolar connectivetissue in the central cavity. E) arrangement ofcollagenous fibers.

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56) What unit of bone consists of a central canal (containing blood vessels, nerves, and lymph vessels) surrounded by concentric rings of calcified matrix? A) Canaliculus B) Lamella C) Osteon D) Osteocyte E) Trabeculum

57)

Some bone interiors contain hemopoietic tissue, which functions in A) storing fat. B) producinghormones. C) making connectivetissue fibers. D) producing bloodcells. E) breaking downtoxins.

58)

Plasma is A) a liquid groundsubstance containing dissolved proteins. B) a dissolved groundmatrix and a lining of epithelial cells. C) a liquefied groundsubstance that includes several dissolved cells. D) platelets, redblood cells, and white blood cells. E) platelets and awatery ground substance.

59)

There are four types of body membranes. Select the exception. A) Serous B) Cutaneous C) Mucous D) Cartilaginous E) Synovial

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60) The type of membrane that prevents desiccation, provides lubrication, and traps bacteria and foreign particles is A) serous. B) cutaneous. C) mucous. D) cartilaginous. E) synovial.

61) The largest of the body membranes, commonly called the skin, is the _______ membrane. A) serous B) cutaneous C) mucous D) cartilaginous E) synovial

62) The heart is confined within a double-walled serous membrane sac. The part of the membrane that is in contact with the heart is the _____ layer. A) serous B) visceral C) parietal D) synovial E) mesothelial

63) Synovial membranes are composed of areolar connective tissue covered with _________ epithelial cells.

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A) squamous B) cuboidal C) columnar D) pseudostratified

64)

The type of membrane that lines many of the body's joints is a _________ membrane. A) serous B) mucous C) cutaneous D) synovial E) metastatic

65) The type of muscle that has elongated, multinucleated cells and is under voluntary control is __________ muscle. A) skeletal B) cardiac C) smooth

66)

What type of muscle contains intercalated discs? A) Skeletal B) Cardiac C) Smooth

67)

The type of muscle that is found in blood vessel walls is __________ muscle.

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A) skeletal B) cardiac C) smooth

68)

Dendrites A) transmit signalsaway from the cell body. B) transmit signalstoward the cell body. C) manufactureproteins to be used by the neuron. D) use hormones totransmit information. E) releaseneurotransmitter.

69)

Axons A) transmit signalsaway from the cell body. B) transmit signalstoward the cell body. C) manufactureproteins to be used by the neuron. D) use hormones totransmit information. E) None of the choicesis correct.

70)

The nucleus of a neuron is found in its A) glioma. B) axon. C) cell body. D) dendrite.

71) The general name given to the phenomenon that occurs when a mature epithelium changes to a different form is

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A) mesothelia. B) hyperplasia. C) hypertrophy. D) metaplasia. E) neoplasia.

72)

Which list is in correct developmental order? A) Zygote,blastocyst, embryo B) Blastocyst,embryo, zygote C) Zygote, embryo,blastocyst D) Blastocyst,zygote, embryo

73)

The epithelial linings of the respiratory and digestive systems develop from the A) ectoderm. B) endoderm. C) mesoderm. D) lumenoderm.

74)

When hyperplasia proceeds out of control, a tumor may develop. This condition is termed A) hypertrophy. B) neoplasia. C) atrophy. D) metaplasia. E) fibrosis.

75)

Shrinkage of tissue by a decrease in either cell number or cell size is termed

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A) hypertrophy. B) neoplasia. C) atrophy. D) metaplasia. E) fibrosis.

76)

With age, connective tissues A) become moreflexible. B) become thinner. C) lose their bloodsupply. D) lose theirpliability and resiliency. E) increase inmass.

77)

With age, epithelial tissues A) become moreflexible. B) becomethinner. C) lose their bloodsupply. D) lose resiliencybut gain pliability. E) increase inmass.

78)

With age, bones A) become moreflexible. B) become brittle. C) lose their bloodsupply. D) increase theirpliability. E) increase inmass.

79)

The two types of cells that make up the nervous system are

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A) macrophages and fibroblasts. B) neurons and fibroblasts. C) fibroblasts and glial cells. D) neurons and macrophages. E) neurons and glialcells.

80)

Where in the body would you find a glial cell? A) In the stomach B) In the cardiovascular system C) In the immune system D) In the nervous system E) In the skeletal system

81)

The primary role of epithelial tissue in the stomach is A) housing bloodvessels and nerves. B) secretion ofsubstances for chemical digestion. C) mixing andpropulsion of foodstuffs. D) regulation ofcontraction.

82) Suppose that you had a congenital condition that prevented your body from forming holocrine glands. If that were the case, which statement would be most accurate? A) Your skin wouldbecome excessively dry for lack of oil from sebaceous glands. B) You would beunable to digest your food. C) Your bones wouldbe like rubber. D) Your nerves couldnot transmit signals. E) You would havedifficulty breathing.

83)

Mucous connective tissue is found only in

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A) the cartilage ofthe nose. B) certain bones ofthe skull. C) the umbilicalcord. D) serous fluid. E) fibers of therespiratory system.

84)

Which cells produce fibers and ground substance in connective tissue proper? A) Adipocytes B) Fibroblasts C) Glial cells D) Mesenchymal cells E) Fixed macrophages

85)

What is the most abundant protein in the body, forming about 25% of all body protein? A) Myosin B) Elastin C) Actin D) Fibrogen E) Collagen

86) What feature of your ear accounts for its ability to regain its shape after it has been deformed or compressed? A) The elastic fibers present in the ear's cartilage B) The elastic fibers present in the ear's muscles C) The ear's built-in memory based upon its overall size and shape D) The abundance of reticular fibers forming a dense meshwork E) The elastic fibers in the ear's skin that contract after being stretched

87)

Where in the body would you expect to find a perichondrium?

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A) Covering bones B) Lining kidney tubules C) Covering the heart D) Inside of the brain E) Covering cartilage

88) Suppose that you were involved in an automobile accident and suffered a back injury. When examined by your physician you are told that you have a slipped disc in the lower back. What type of tissue is involved? A) Adipose tissue B) Bone C) Elastic cartilage D) Fibrocartilage E) Dense regular connective tissue

89)

A skeletal muscle fiber is A) an elongated seriesof muscles held together by dense connective tissue. B) a collection ofseveral muscles bound together by a membrane. C) a skeletal musclecell. D) found only incardiac muscle. E) a contractilefilament within the osteon of bone.

90) If you were examining a microscope slide containing a type of muscle tissue and observed a branching network of striatedcells, each with one or two central nuclei, you could conclude thatyou were looking at _____ muscle.

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A) smooth B) skeletal C) cardiac D) osseous E) voluntary

91) Which type of muscle contains fusiform cells that function to propel materials through hollow organs? A) Voluntary B) Striated C) Smooth D) Skeletal

92) cell?

The nucleus and other organelles of a neuron are primarily housed in which part of the

A) Axon B) Dendrite C) Glial cell D) Cell body E) None of the choices is correct.

93)

A tissue transplant from an animal to a human is a(n) A) autograft. B) syngeneticgraft. C) allograft. D) heterograft. E) homograft.

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94) a(n)

A tissue transplant from one person to another (one who is not genetically identical) is

A) autograft. B) syngeneticgraft. C) allograft. D) heterograft. E) homograft.

95) Suppose you cut your finger only slightly in what is known as a "paper cut." You observe that the cut hurts but it doesn't bleed. How would you interpret your observation? A) Nerve endingsoccur in epithelium but blood vessels do not. B) The paper severedthe skin, missing blood vessels, but hitting nerve endings. C) Very thin cutsnever draw blood but do sever nerves. D) You probably havesome unknown condition related to blood clotting. E) The paper had somefactor that prevented the release of blood but not the sensation of pain.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 96) The tissue in which all cells contact the basement membrane, even though some appear (at first glance) to be stacked on top of others, is called ___________ columnar epithelium.

97)

In serving their roles as gatekeepers, epithelial tissues demonstrate selective __________.

98) Clusters of cells that make up the secretory portion of an exocrine gland are known as __________.

99) Flat cells with tapered ends that are the most abundant resident cells in connective tissue proper are known as ___________.

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100) A large molecule made up of a glycosaminoglycan linked to a protein is known as a __________.

101)

Intercalated discs are made up of gap junctions and __________.

102) The ____________ is the primary germ layer from whichthe brain and the rest of the nervous system develops.

103)

The term used to describe tissue death is _________.

104) The type of tissue that helps mechanically mix materials within the digestive system organs is ________ muscle.

105)

When an oocyte (egg) is fertilized by a sperm, it forms a diploid cell called a _______.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 106) What is a gland?

107)

Describe three functions of connective tissue and provide an example for each.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 05_4e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) [A, B] 14) [C, D] 15) C 16) D 17) E 18) E 19) A 20) A 21) B 22) E 23) A 24) E 25) B 26) C Version 1

27) A 28) D 29) A 30) A 31) E 32) C 33) C 34) E 35) A 36) C 37) C 38) D 39) D 40) B 41) E 42) B 43) A 44) E 45) B 46) D 47) A 48) A 49) B 50) C 51) E 52) C 53) B 54) E 55) B 56) C Version 1

57) D 58) A 59) D 60) C 61) B 62) B 63) A 64) D 65) A 66) B 67) C 68) B 69) A 70) C 71) D 72) A 73) B 74) B 75) C 76) D 77) B 78) B 79) E 80) D 81) B 82) A 83) C 84) B 85) E 86) A Version 1

87) E 88) D 89) C 90) C 91) C 92) D 93) D 94) C 95) A 96) pseudostratified 97) permeability 98) acini 99) fibroblasts 100) proteoglycan 101) desmosomes 102) ectoderm 103) necrosis 104) smooth 105) zygote 106) The book defines glands as " either individual cells or multicellular organs composed predominantly of epithelial tissue. They secrete substances either for use elsewhere in the body or for elimination from the body. "

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CHAPTER 6 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The process of keratinization begins in the stratum granulosum. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Fingernails are helpful in protecting the distal tips of fingers and in grasping small objects. ⊚ ⊚

3) off.

Apocrine sweat glands secrete sweat by havingthe apical portion of epithelial cells pinch ⊚ ⊚

true false

Transpiration is another name for sweating. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Skin is an entirely waterproof barrier, preventing all gain or loss of fluid from the skin except sweat. ⊚ ⊚

One of the components of sweat is the nitrogenous waste urea. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Fingernails reach the tips of the fingers before toenails are fully formed.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

8) The skin consists of different tissue types that perform specific activities and therefore is to be considered an organ. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) When the body is cold and needs to conserve heat, the blood vessels in the dermis dilate to allow for more blood flow in that region. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) The epidermal dendritic cells are able to play an important immune response role by their phagocytic activity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) Melanocyte cytoplasmic processes transfer pigment granules into stratum basale keratinocytes; these pigment granules shield the nuclear DNA from UV radiation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) The epidermis exhibits variations among different body regions within a single individual, as well as differences between individuals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) The thin epidermis, lacking the stratum lucidum, contains only four strata and covers most of the body.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

14) The reason for the reddish tint seen in lightly pigmented skin is the molecule formed by the combination of oxygen and melanin. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) Carotene, a pigment that contributes to skin color, is acquired in the body by eating various yellow-orange vegetables. ⊚ ⊚

16)

Deep cuts that occur perpendicular to cleavage lines tend to gape. ⊚ ⊚

17)

true false

Nails, hair, and sweat and sebaceous glands are all derived from the epidermis. ⊚ ⊚

19)

true false

The subcutaneous layer, or hypodermis, is one of the two parts of the integument. ⊚ ⊚

18)

true false

Most of the nail body appears pink because of the blood in the underlying capillaries. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

20)

Sebum has bactericidal properties. ⊚ ⊚

true false

21) The ability of the components of the integumentary system to respond to stress or trauma is independent of nervous or endocrine system control. ⊚ ⊚

true false

22) During aging of the integumentary system, sweat production increases as a result of improved sweat gland activity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

23) During the fetal period, sebum from the sebaceous glands mixes with the cells of the sloughed off periderm to form the vernix caseosa. ⊚ ⊚

true false

24) Although sweat and sebaceous glands develop from the stratum basale of the epidermis, they eventually burrow and remain in the underlying dermis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 25) Another name for the skin is the _________ membrane.

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A) serous B) parietal C) mucous D) cutaneous E) visceral

26)

Which is not a function of the integument? A) Protection B) Water loss prevention C) Temperature regulation D) Synthesis of cholecalciferol (vitamin D precursor) E) All of the choices are correct.

27)

What type ofepithelium is found in the epidermis? A) Keratinized stratified squamous B) Nonkeratinizedstratified squamous C) Keratinized stratified cuboidal D) Nonkeratinized stratitified cuboidal E) Transitional

28)

From deep to superficial, the order of the strata of the epidermis is A) Basale - spinosum - granulosum - lucidum - corneum B) Spinosum - granulosum - basale - lucidum - corneum C) Corneum - lucidum - granulosum - spinosum - basale D) Basale - granulosum - spinosum - lucidum - corneum E) Corneum - granulosum - lucidum - spinosum - basale

29)

Keratinocytes are

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A) the most abundantcell type in the epidermis. B) found throughoutall epidermal strata. C) sometimes alive andsometimes dead, depending on where they arefound. D) able to synthesizethe protein keratin. E) All of the choicesare correct.

30)

Tactile (Merkel) cells are sensitive to A) sound. B) light. C) touch. D) heat. E) cold.

31)

Epidermal dendritic (Langerhans) cells function as part of the ______ response. A) immune B) sensory C) tanning D) heating E) sweating

32) Which are applicable to the stratum corneum? a: Most superficial stratum b: Consists of about 3–5 cell layers c: Cells are dead d: Interlocking keratinized cells e: Cells are anucleate

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A) a, c, d B) a, c, e C) a, b, d D) a, c, d, e E) a, b, c, d, e

33)

Thick skin contains A) seven epidermalstrata and lacks sweat glands. B) five epidermalstrata and lacks sweat glands. C) four epidermalstrata and lacks sebaceous glands. D) six epidermalstrata and lacks sweat glands. E) five epidermalstrata and lacks sebaceous glands.

34) Normally, skin color results from a combination of a: melanin b: hemoglobin c: bilirubin d: carotene A) a, b, d B) a, c, d C) a, d D) a, b, c E) b, c, d

35)

Generally, people have ________ number of melanocytes ______________. A) about the same; no matter where they live B) a highly variable; irrespective of where they live C) a lower; if they live in colder climates of the northern hemisphere D) a higher; if they live in the warmer climates near the equator E) a higher; if they live in the southern hemisphere

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36)

The function of melanin in the skin is to A) reduce waterloss. B) preventinfections. C) help regulate bodytemperature. D) protect against UVlight. E) keep the epidermissoft and pliable.

37)

Within the body, carotene is converted to A) vitamin A, which isimportant for auditory function. B) vitamin E, which isimportant for auditory function C) vitamin E, which isimportant for visual function. D) vitamin A, which isimportant for visual function.

38)

Which skin markings usually disappear during childhood? A) Friction ridges B) Capillary hemangiomas C) Cavernoushemangiomas D) Pili E) Nevi

39)

Freckles are the result of A) melanocyte numberand genetic inheritance. B) melanocyte numberand sun exposure. C) melanocyteactivity, genetic inheritance, and sun exposure. D) melanocyte number,genetic inheritance, and diet. E) melanocyte activityand diet.

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40) Structures found in the dermis include a: sweat glands b: hair follicles c: collagen fibers d: sensory nerve endings e: arrector pilimuscles A) a, b, d B) a, c, d C) a, b, d, e D) a, b, c, e E) a, b, c, d, e

41)

Blood capillaries that supply nourishment for the epidermis are located in the A) dermalpapillae. B) epidermalridges. C) reticularconnective tissue. D) epidermisproper. E) subcutaneouslayer.

42)

The reticular layer of the dermis consists primarily of A) adipose tissue. B) reticularconnective tissue. C) dense irregularconnective tissue. D) nervous tissue. E) elastic connectivetissue.

43)

Why might someone pale when they are exposed to a cold temperature?

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A) Increased blood flow to affected areas. B) Vasoconstriction of dermal blood vessels. C) Dehydration of the stratum corneum. D) Constriction of the dermal collagen and elastic fibers. E) Increased melanin production.

44)

The deeper sublayer of the dermis is the ________ layer, and it is the _______ of the two. A) reticular,thicker B) reticular,thinner C) papillary,thicker D) papillary,thinner

45)

To speed healing from surgery, incisions should be placed ________ to lines of cleavage. A) parallel B) perpendicular

46)

Lines of cleavage are a result of A) the alignment ofdermal papillae. B) the orientation ofcollagen fibers in the dermis. C) the alignment ofepidermal ridges. D) wounds to theepidermis such as hemangiomas.

47)

What is the composition of the subcutaneous layer?

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A) Adipose connective tissue B) Areolar connective tissue C) Dense irregular connective tissue D) Areolar connective tissue and dense irregular connective tissue E) Areolar connective tissue and adipose connective tissue

48)

Testosterone tends to cause accumulation of subcutaneous fat in the

A) hipsandbuttocks. B) abdomen, forearms,and hips. C) neck, abdomen, andbuttocks. D) breasts, upperback, and buttocks.

49)

The hypodermis is rich in adipose, and thus its functions include A) frequentregeneration, structural support, and defense against infection. B) maintenanceofboundaries andsensation of stimuli. C) water regulationand vitamin synthesis. D) organ protection,energy storage, and thermal insulation.

50)

Nails are hard derivatives formed from the stratum ______ of the epidermis. A) granulosum B) basale C) lucidum D) corneum E) spinosum

51)

Which is the actively growing part of the nail?

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A) Free edge B) Nail root C) Nail bed D) Nail folds E) Nail matrix

52) Which of these comprise the nail plate? a: Free edge b: Nail folds c: Eponchyium d: Nail root e: Nail body A) a, d, e B) a, b, d, e C) a, b, c, e D) a, c, d, e E) a, b, e

53)

Another name for the cuticle is the A) eponychium. B) hyponychium. C) nail bed. D) nail matrix. E) nail root.

54)

Which type of hair forms the beard on the face in response to testosterone?

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A) Terminal B) Lanugo C) Vellus D) Nonpigmented E) Pilus

55) Fine hair called _________, which is unpigmented or lightly pigmented, is the primary human hair and is found on the upper and lower limbs. A) terminal B) lanugo C) vellus D) cuticle E) phalanx

56)

The part of the hair that extends beyond the skin surface is called the A) shaft. B) root. C) bulb. D) papilla. E) alopecia.

57)

While most of the cells in a hair are dead, the living epithelial cells are found in A) the cuticle of thehair shaft. B) the cortex of thehair shaft. C) the hair bulb. D) thehyponychium.

58)

The structure responsible for pulling on the follicle and causing "goose bumps" is the

Version 1

A) external rootsheath. B) internal rootsheath. C) epithelial rootsheath. D) arrector pilimuscle. E) papilla.

59) The epithelial tissue root sheath is the _________ layer of the concentric layers making up the hair follicle wall; it derives from the ________. A) inner; epidermis B) inner; dermis C) outer; epidermis D) outer; dermis

60)

Where on the human body is the hair thick enough to retain heat? A) Beard B) Axillary region C) Nose D) Pubic region E) Scalp

61) Which of these are functions of hair? a: Sensory reception b: Heat retention c: Immune function d: Protection e: Formation of Vitamin D 3

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A) a, b, d B) a, d, e C) a, b, d, e D) a, b, c, d, e

62) A hair grows for 1.5 to 7 years during the __________ phase, and then the hair becomes dormant. A) anagen B) catagen C) telogen D) carcinogen

63) The type of gland that secretes sweat into a hair follicle that is foundin the axillary, anal, and genital regions is the ________ sweat gland. A) apocrine B) merocrine C) ceruminous D) sebaceous

64)

Sebum is a secretion that A) cools the skin andeliminates certain drugs. B) lubricates skinand helps defend against bacteria. C) maintains waterbalance through waterproofing the skin. D) acts as apheremone once reproductive maturity is reached.

65)

Cerumen is a secretion that

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A) lubricatesvellushairs and waterproofs the skin of the limbs. B) lubricates the earcanal and traps debris before it reaches the eardrum. C) cools the bodythrough water evaporation. D) tends to causeacne on the skin of the face. E) acts as a pheremone.

66)

What is the greatest risk factor for skin cancer? A) Exposure to UV light rays B) Advanced age C) Being a female D) Low skin hydration levels E) Using excessive sun block

67)

One of the main dangers of burns is A) dehydration, aswater can escape from the body. B) hyperthermia, astemperture regulation is very compromised. C) hypocalcemia, asblood ion levels are dramatically altered. D) respiratoryinfection, as body defenses are concentrated superficially.

68) Production of this vitamin requires skin exposure to the sun. This vitamin is crucial forregulation ofcalcium and phosphate. A) Vitamin A B) VitaminB 12 C) Vitamin C D) Vitamin D E) Vitamin E

69) When exposed to ultraviolet light, keratinocytes convert a steroid precursor into ________, a molecule that is crucial for regulation of calcium levels. Version 1

A) calcitriol B) cholecalciferol C) calcitonin D) creatine E) phosphorus

70) Drugs that are administered by skin patches tend to be _______ soluble molecules that are absorbed ________. A) lipid; slowly B) lipid; quickly C) water; slowly D) water; quickly

71)

Cancer cells in the epidermis are attacked by A) Merkel cells. B) epidermaldendritic cells. C) melanocytes. D) keratinocytes.

72)

Immune cells of the epidermis tend to be found in the stratum A) granulosum. B) lucidum. C) spinosum. D) basale. E) corneum.

73)

In order to retain heat, what occurs in the skin on a cold day?

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A) Blood vessels ofthe dermis constrict. B) Blood vessels ofthe dermis dilate. C) Blood vessels ofthe epidermis constrict. D) Blood vessels ofthe epidermis dilate.

74)

Fingernails and toenails start to form in the ______ week of development. A) 2nd B) 3rd C) 5th D) 10th E) 16th

75)

Severe injuries and burns to the skin result in scars that are

A) produced bystratum basale keratinocytes, which effectively bind damaged skin partstogether. B) produced bychondrocytes and made mainly of desmosomes. C) produced byfibroblasts and made mainly of collagen. D) made bymacrophages, which produce adense granulation tissue. E) fully functional regenerations.

76)

The two types of leukocytes that clean up debris underneath the blood clot of a wound are A) keratinocytes andmacrophages. B) Merkel cells anddendritic cells. C) dendritic cells andkeratinocytes. D) macrophages andneutrophils. E) fibroblasts and neutrophils.

77)

Granulation tissue is

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A) vascular connectivetissue. B) avascularconnective tissue. C) vascular epithelialtissue. D) avascularepithelial tissue.

78)

The epidermis derives from A) mesoderm. B) ectoderm. C) mesenchyme. D) granulationtissue.

79)

Early in the development of skin, ectoderm becomes A) periderm andmesoderm becomes mesenchyme. B) mesenchyme andendoderm becomes periderm. C) the vernix caseosaand mesoderm becomes the stratum basale. D) perichondrium andmesoderm becomes the vernix caseosa.

80)

Sweat and sebaceous glands develop from the A) stratumcorneum. B) stratum basale ofthe epidermis. C) hypodermis. D) reticularlayer. E) papillary layer of the dermis.

81)

Compared to a young adult, an older individual has ________ skin. A) thicker B) thinner

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82)

Compared to the young, elderly individuals have _______ epidermal dendritic skin cells. A) fewer B) more

83) Skin cancer is the _______ type of cancer, and due to sun exposureit occurs most frequently on the __________. A) most common; head and neck B) third most common; head and neck C) most common; hands and ears D) third most common; hands and ears

84) Of the three phases of the hair growth cycle, cells of the hair bulb are dividing only during the __________ phase. A) anagen B) catagen C) telogen D) carcinogen

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 85) The skin's immune responsiveness will be diminished by a decrease in the number of epidermal _________ cells.

86) The stratum _________ derives its name from the spiny appearance of the "bridges" that connect neighboring cells.

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87) The stratum _______ is found only in thick skin, such as the skin covering the palms and soles.

88)

The white crescent at the proximal end of the nail plate is called the _________.

89) The stratum basale attaches to an underlying _______ membrane that separates the epidermis from the adjacent dermis.

90) After about 10 weeks of development, hair follicles begin to appear as pockets of cells, called hair _________.

91) A ______, also called a mole, is a harmless, localized overgrowth of melanin-forming cells.

92) A _______ is a congenital anomaly that results in skin discoloration due to blood vessels that proliferate and form a benign tumor.

93) The police science of fingerprinting takes advantage of the unique pattern of ________ ridges found on human fingers, toes, palms, and soles.

94) The epidermal ridges and dermal ________ increase the area of contact between the epidermis and dermis to help connect these layers.

95) Collagen fibers impart tensile strength to our skin while ______ fibers allow for some stretch and contraction in the dermis during movement.

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96) When the body is too warm, dermal blood vessels will undergo _______ in order to increase heat loss.

97) _______ is a fine, unpigmented, downy hair that first appears on the fetus in the last trimester of development.

98) Hair production involves a specialized type of keratinization that occurs in the hair ______.

99)

Thinning of the hair is called ________.

100)

Sudoriferous glands and ______ glands are examples of exocrine glands in the skin.

101) Sweat gland secretion occurs in response to stimulation by the _______ division of the nervous system.

102) The cells that contract and squeeze sweat glands causing them to discharge their accumulated secretions are called __________ cells.

103) The secretion of ________ sweat glands is viscous, cloudy, and rich in proteins and lipids.

104)

Sebaceous glands discharge an oily, waxy secretion called _______.

105)

________ glands are modified sweat glands located only in the external ear canal.

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106)

The mammary glands of the breasts are modified ______ sweat glands.

107) In response to severe injuries or burns, the body may repair itself by producing scar tissue to fill the damaged area. This process is called _______.

108)

Replacement of dead and damaged cells with the same types of cells is called _________.

109)

The dermis is derived from the germ layer known as_________.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 110) From what else, besides physical trauma, does the skin provide protection?

111) Skin is very tough but extremely sensitive. Explain how some structures in the skin allow it to withstand a vigorous pinch and tug, while other structures allow it to detect the presence of a mosquito on your arm.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 112) Describe the changes in the skin that occur with aging. Although skin cancers can occur at any age, why might skin cancers have a higher incidence in the elderly?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 06_4e 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) TRUE 21) FALSE 22) FALSE 23) TRUE 24) TRUE 25) D 26) E Version 1

27) A 28) A 29) E 30) C 31) A 32) D 33) E 34) A 35) A 36) D 37) D 38) B 39) C 40) E 41) A 42) C 43) B 44) A 45) A 46) B 47) E 48) C 49) D 50) D 51) E 52) A 53) A 54) A 55) C 56) A Version 1

57) C 58) D 59) A 60) E 61) A 62) A 63) A 64) B 65) B 66) A 67) A 68) D 69) B 70) A 71) B 72) C 73) A 74) D 75) C 76) D 77) A 78) B 79) A 80) B 81) B 82) A 83) A 84) A 85) dendritic 86) spinosum Version 1

87) lucidum 88) lunula 89) basement 90) buds 91) nevus 92) hemangioma 93) friction 94) papillae 95) elastic 96) vasodilation 97) Lanugo 98) matrix 99) alopecia 100) sebaceous 101) sympathetic 102) myoepithelial 103) apocrine 104) sebum 105) Ceruminous 106) apocrine 107) fibrosis 108) regeneration 109) mesoderm 110) UV radiation and " ...harmful chemicals, toxins, microbes, and excessive heat or cold."

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111) Skin's toughness comes from the durability of the epidermis and the reticular layer of the dermis. The many dead keratinocytes superficially and the desmosomes that link keratinocytes help withstand trauma. Tougher still is the collagenous dense irregular tissue of the dermis. Sensitivity comes from the many light touch cutaneous receptors. The hair follicle receptors can detect when a hair has been bent by the landing of an insect on the arm. 112) Among other effects of aging, skin becomes thinner and regeneration slows. Increased cancer risk might in part relate to greater duration of sun exposure and also decreased numbers of epidermal dendritic cells.

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CHAPTER 7 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Neither short nor flat bones contain a medullary cavity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

In adults, the medullary cavities of most long bones contain red marrow. ⊚ true ⊚ false

An osteoclast has a ruffled border and multiple nuclei. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Mature cartilage is avascular. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Most of the bones of the upper and lower limbs are formedby intramembranous ossification. ⊚ ⊚

Calcitriol stimulates absorption of calcium in the small intestine. ⊚ ⊚

true false

For most individuals a common source of vitamin D is dietary intake of milk. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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8) Parathyroid hormone is released by the thyroid gland and causes the small intestine to increase calcium absorption. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Since cartilage must be continuously replaced in the body, appositional and interstitial growth of cartilage continues throughout life. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) In adults, an area of compact bone called the epiphyseal tract replaces the epiphyseal plate. ⊚ ⊚

11)

Osteoblasts are bone-forming cells; osteoclasts are bone-dissolving cells. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

Osteons run perpendicular to the diaphysis of a long bone. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) Endochondral ossification is a form of bone growth in which a cartilaginous model is replaced by bone. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14)

The flat bones of the cranium form by intramembranous ossification. ⊚ ⊚

15)

true false

Further lengthwise bone growth cannot occur once the epiphyseal lines have formed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) Once we reach adulthood and our bones are fully formed and hardened, they cannot be remodeled. ⊚ ⊚

17)

true false

About 80% of the human skeleton is replaced yearly as a result of bone remodeling. ⊚ ⊚

true false

18) In general, the mechanical stresses on bones that result from exercise tend to weaken them and lead to more frequent fractures. ⊚ ⊚

true false

19) Spongy bone makes up less than half of total bone mass, and is located internal to compact bone. ⊚ ⊚

20)

true false

Bone is considered part of the skeletal system, but ligaments are not. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 21) Select all that are components of the skeletal system. A) Compact bone B) Trabecular bone C) Articular cartilage D) Ligaments

22)

Select all that develop through the process of intramembranous ossification. A) Frontal bone of skull B) Occipital bone of skull C) Ulna of forearm D) Femur of thigh

23)

Select all that develop through the process of endochondral ossification. A) Flat bone of cranium B) Most bones in the body C) Radius (long bone) of forearm D) Femur (long bone) of thigh

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 24) Which is an alternate term for compact bone?

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A) Cancellous bone B) Trabecular bone C) Spongy bone D) Diploe E) Cortical bone

25)

What is the function of cartilage located in the epiphyseal plates? A) Site of bone elongation and growth. B) Provides passageway for blood vessels. C) Forms articular surface. D) Supports soft tissues. E) Provides flexibility for bending.

26)

Which type of cartilage is found in the intervertebral discs? A) Hyaline cartilage B) Fibrocartilage C) Reticular cartilage D) Articular cartilage E) Elastic cartilage

27)

Which is not a function of bone? A) Protection B) Mineral storage C) Body movement D) Generation of heat E) Hematopoiesis

28)

Where does hematopoiesis occur?

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A) Epiphyseal line B) Endosteum C) Red bone marrow D) Yellow bone marrow E) Nutrient foramina

29)

Bone is considered an important storage reservoir for A) calcium, phosphate,and lipids. B) steroids, proteins,and complex carbohydrates. C) glycogen,nitrogenous bases, and calcium. D) phosphate,glycogen, and nonpolar amino acids. E) calcium, complexcarbohydrates, and polar amino acids.

30)

The bones of the fingers and toes (phalanges) are categorized as_____ bones. A) long B) irregular C) short D) flat E) sesamoid

31)

The bones of the wrist are classified as _____ bones. A) long B) regular C) short D) irregular E) flat

32)

Which is a sesamoid bone?

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A) Patella B) Cuboid C) Talus D) Sphenoid E) Scaphoid

33)

An example of a flat bone would be the A) femur (ofthigh). B) radius (offorearm). C) trapezoid (ofwrist). D) sternum (breastbone). E) calcaneus(heel).

34)

Flat bones A) protect underlyingsoft tissue and may be slightly curved. B) have elaborate shapes, and sometimes resemble sesame seeds. C) include the bones of the wrist that glide across each other. D) are, by definition,not at all curved. E) have a diaphysis and an epiphysis.

35) Consider the classifications of bone, and examples of each. Which classification comprises bones used primarily for movement rather than protection? A) Short bones B) Long bones C) Flat bones D) Irregular bones E) Regular bones

36)

Which region of a growing bone contains the epiphyseal plate?

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A) Distal epiphysis B) Proximal epiphysis C) Metaphysis D) Diaphysis E) Periphysis

37)

The knobby region of a long bone at the end that is farthest from the trunk is the A) distaldiaphysis. B) proximalepiphysis. C) distalepiphysis. D) superiordiaphysis

38) What is the incomplete layer of cells that covers all internal surfaces of the bone within the medullary cavity? A) Diaphysis B) Epiphysis C) Endosteum D) Periosteum E) Trabecula

39)

Which is false regarding the periosteum? A) It includes twolayers: outer fibrous and inner cellular. B) It is composed ofdense regular connective tissue. C) It provides stemcells for bone growth and repair. D) It is anchored tothe bone by collagen fibers. E) It covers theentire bone surface, with the exception of articular areas.

40)

The periosteum is anchored to the bone by collagen fibers called _____ fibers.

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A) transverse B) perforating C) penetrating D) connecting E) cementing

41)

Bone is ________ and contains mainly ________ nerves. A) avascular; sensory B) avascular; motor C) highly vascularized; sensory D) highly vascularized; motor

42)

Severe anemia may trigger an adaptive conversion of A) yellow marrow tored marrow. B) red marrow toyellow marrow. C) spongy bone tocompact bone. D) bone marrow tospongy bone.

43) If a clinician were looking to harvestbone marrow that made blood cells, which bone of a donor would be sampled? A) Distal head offemur B) Os coxa C) Phalanges D) Distal humerus

44)

Which type of cell produces new bone tissue by secreting matrix?

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A) Osteocytes B) Osteoclasts C) Osteoblasts D) Osteoprogenitor cells E) Bone-lining cells

45) Bone cells called __________ break down bone by secreting hydrochloric acid and enzymes that dissolve the matrix. A) osteoprogenitorcells B) osteoid cells C) osteocytes D) osteoclasts E) osteoblasts

46)

During appositional growth of cartilage, the cells that produce the matrix are the A) chondrocytes. B) osteocytes. C) fibroblasts. D) chondroblasts. E) osteoblasts.

47) Placein correct order the following steps in the process of appositional growth of cartilage. a: New matrix is produced and secreted. b: Chondrocytes differentiate, each in its own lacuna. c: Stem cells undergo mitosis. d: Committed cells differentiate into chondroblasts.

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A) c. - d. - a. -b. B) d. - c. - b. -a. C) c. - d. - b. -a. D) a. - c. - b. -d. E) a. - c. - d. -b.

48) Interstitial growth of cartilage increases its ______ and occurs in the _______ region of the cartilage. A) length; internal B) length; peripheral C) width; internal D) width; peripheral

49)

Which affects osteoblast and osteoclast activity? A) Gravity B) Mechanical stress C) Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone levels D) Blood calcium level E) All of the choices are correct.

50)

As the bone matrix calcifies and the secreting cells become walled in, A) osteoblasts becomeosteocytes. B) osteogenicprogenitors become osteoclasts. C) osteoblasts becomeosteoclasts. D) osteoclasts becomeosteocytes.

51)

What gives bone its flexibility?

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A) Inorganic salts B) Yellow bone marrow C) Collagen fibers D) Trabeculae E) Elastic fibers

52)

Osteoid is the A) organic part ofthe bone matrix that gives it rigidity. B) organic part ofthe bone matrix that gives it tensile strength. C) inorganic part ofthe bone matrix that gives it rigidity. D) inorganic part ofthe bone matrix that gives it tensile strength.

53)

What helps bone resist compression? A) Yellow bone marrow B) Reticular fibers C) Inorganic salts D) Red bone marrow E) Endosteum

54) If a bone is immersed in a weak acid such as vinegar for several days, its inorganic components will dissolve. What will be the result of such an experiment? A) The bone willdissolve completely. B) The compact bonewill dissolve, leaving only the inner spongy bone. C) The bone willbecome extremely brittle. D) The bone willbecome soft and bendable. E) The spongy bonewill dissolve, leaving only the outer compact bone.

55)

What would be the effect on bone growth of insufficient dietary calcium?

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A) There would be no effect, because the body is able to synthesize calcium. B) The matrix wouldbe softer. C) The bone would beless flexible. D) The epiphysealplates would ossify earlier in development. E) There would beincreased formation of spongy bone.

56)

What are the matrix rings of compact bone that surround the central canal of each osteon? A) Canaliculi B) Concentric lamellae C) Circumferential lamellae D) Perforating canals E) Interstitial lamellae

57) In compact bone, ___________ connect adjacent lacunae, thereby providing pathways for nutrients and other materials to pass between osteocytes. A) osteoniccanals B) blood vessels C) lamellae D) canaliculi E) perforatingcanals

58)

Compact bone A) is located deep tospongy bone in the diaphysis. B) is composed oftubular units called osteons. C) has a brace-likearrangement of trabeculae. D) is avascular. E) All of the choicesare correct.

59)

Which is not correct about spongy bone?

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A) Its spaces holdred bone marrow. B) It is located deepto compact bone. C) It forms diploe inthe cranial bones. D) It is composed oftubular units called osteons. E) It is located inthe epiphyses of long bones.

60)

Spongy bone A) contains noosteocytes. B) has spaces filledwith yellow marrow. C) is composed oftubular units called osteons. D) forms diploe inthe cranial bones. E) All of the choicesare correct.

61)

Which is characteristic of cartilage connective tissue? A) Gel-like ground substance B) Matrix of protein fibers C) Cells called chondrocytes D) Avascular E) All of the choices are correct.

62) Hyaline cartilage contains a ______ percentage of water; cartilage cells reside in small spaces called ________. A) low; lacunae B) low; canaliculi C) high; lacunae D) high; canaliculi

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63) Before beginning orthodontic treatment, a patient may have her wrist and hand x-rayed to determine her stage of growth. What feature of the long bones will the orthodontist use to assess this? A) Osteon B) Periosteum C) Spongy bone D) Epiphyseal plate E) Compact bone

64)

The formation of bone from a cartilaginous model is termed A) mesenchymalossification. B) intramembranousossification. C) boneremodeling. D) orthodontia. E) endochondralossification.

65)

When bone forms by intramembranous ossification, the ossification centers are within A) hyalinecartilage. B) compact bone. C) mesenchyme. D) elasticcartilage. E) spongy bone.

66)

Which bone forms by intramembranous ossification? A) Zygomatic B) Radius C) Axis D) Hamate E) First metatarsal

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67) Which choice places the steps of intramembranous ossification in correct chronological order? a: Formation of lamellar bone. b: Osteoid undergoes calcification. c: Ossification centers form. d: Formation of woven bone and its periosteum. A) b - a - c - d B) c - b - d - a C) c - b - a - d D) a - c - d - b E) b - c - d - a

68)

Endochondral ossification begins with a(n) _________ model. A) mesenchyme B) dense connectivetissue C) hyalinecartilage D) membranous E) osteoid

69)

When during human development does the process of endochondral ossification begin? A) 12 weeks after birth. B) 8th-9th month of embryonic development. C) 8th week of embryonic development. D) 3-4 months of age. E) 10-25 years of age.

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70) The steps in the process of endochondral ossification are a: Ossification center forms in the diaphysis. b: Cartilage calcifies and a bone collar forms. c: Ossification centers form in the epiphyses. d: Bone replaces cartilage. e: Epiphyseal plates ossify. f: Cartilage model develops. The correct chronological order for these steps is A) f. - b. - c. - d.- a. - e. B) b. - c. - f. - a.- e. - d. C) a. - c. - b. - d.- e. - f. D) f. - b. - a. - c.- d. - e. E) a. - e. - c. - d.- b. - f.

71) During the process of endochondral ossification, chondrocytes in the cartilage model die. Why does this occur? A) Blood supply tothe cartilage is cut off by the developing periosteum. B) Canaliculiconnecting adjacent chondrocyte lacunae fuse. C) Nutrients cannotdiffuse to the chondrocytes through the calcified matrix. D) The developingbone collar secretes enzymes that destroy the chondrocytes. E) Phagocyticosteoclasts in the new bone engulf and destroy the chondrocytes.

72) The zones found in an epiphyseal plate are a: Calcified cartilage b: Hypertrophic cartilage c: Ossification d: Resting cartilage e: Proliferating cartilage The correct order for these zones, beginning with the edge closest to the epiphysis and proceeding toward the diaphysis, is

Version 1

A) c - a - b - e - d. B) d - b - e - a - c. C) e - d - a - c - b. D) c - d - e - a - b. E) d - e - b - a - c.

73)

Within which zone of the epiphyseal plate do cartilage cells undergo mitosis? A) The zone closest to the medullary cavity. B) The zone closest to the epiphysis. C) The second closest bone to the medullary cavity. D) The second closest zone to the epiphysis.

74)

Which is an accurate description of appositional bone growth?

A) Osteoblasts buildbone at the circumferential lamellae while osteoclasts widen themedullary cavity. B) Osteoclasts buildbone at the concentric lamellae while osteoblasts build bone at theinterstitial lamellae. C) Osteoblasts buildbone at the concentric lamellae while osteoclasts build bone at theepiphyses. D) Osteocytes buildbone at the interstitial lamellae while osteoclasts expand the lengthofthe medullary cavity. E) Osteocytes and osteoclasts expand thebone at its epiphyses, chondrocytes construct cartilage.

75)

Bone growth in which the bone increases in diameter iscalled

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A) interstitialgrowth. B) epiphysealgrowth. C) appositionalgrowth. D) endostealgrowth. E) cancellous bonegrowth.

76)

Which is false regarding bone remodeling? A) It occursthroughout life. B) It assists in themaintenance of calcium and phosphate levels in the body. C) It occurs at boththe endosteal and periosteal surfaces of the bone. D) It occurs only atarticular surfaces. E) It can occur inresponse to stress on a bone.

77) The type of bone tissue that is replaced more frequently is ________ bone; the part of the femur that is replaced more frequently is the __________. A) compact; distal epiphysis B) compact; diaphysis C) spongy; distal epiphysis D) spongy; diaphysis

78)

Mechanical stress of bones, such as that caused by weight lifting, is detected by

A) osteocytes, whichthen communicate to osteoblasts to increase synthesis of osteoid. B) osteoclasts, whichthen communicate to osteocytes to increase the size of lacunae. C) chondrocytes,which then trigger osteoblasts to increase bone in a lengthwise fashion. D) osteoblasts, whichthen communicate to osteocytes and osteoclasts to deposit morehydroxyapatite.

79)

The epiphyseal plates in the _________ are the last ones in the body to ossify.

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A) femur B) humerus C) clavicle D) radius E) tibia

80)

Which hormone inhibits bone growth? A) Calcitonin B) Estrogen and testosterone C) Thyroid hormone D) Parathyroid hormone E) Growth hormone

81) Glucocorticoids increase bone ________; high levels of serotonin lead to _____ bone density. A) formation; high B) formation; low C) loss; high D) loss; low

82)

Which vitamin is required for the normal synthesis of collagen? A) Vitamin D B) Vitamin B C) Vitamin A D) Vitamin C E) Vitamin K

83)

To trigger bone growth, growth hormone stimulates the

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A) liver to produce somatomedin. B) liver to producecalcitonin. C) brain to produceserotonin. D) parathyroid toproduce parathyroid hormone. E) thyroid to produce calcitriol.

84)

What explains the dramatic acceleration in lengthwise bone growth at puberty?

A) Increased activityof osteoclasts occurs in response to parathyroid hormone stimulation. B) Increased rate ofcalcium deposition occurs due to high blood calcium levels. C) Increased physicalactivity causes lengthwise growth in response to bone stress. D) Increased secretionof sex hormones promotes epiphyseal plate growth. E) Increasedabsorption of dietary vitamins and minerals strengthens the matrix.

85) Rickets, a disease characterized by overproduction and deficient calcification of osteoid tissue, is caused by a lack of sufficient A) Vitamin D. B) Calcitonin. C) Thyroidhormone. D) Vitamin A. E) Vitamin C.

86)

Calcidiol circulates in the blood andis converted to calcitriol in the A) kidney. B) skin. C) liver. D) bone.

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87) In the kidneys, parathyroid hormone acts to ________ production of calcitriol and to ________ excretion of calcium in urine. A) increase; increase B) increase; decrease C) decrease; decrease D) decrease; increase

88)

Parathyroid hormone and calcitriol A) stimulateosteoclasts to resorb bone and release calcium into the blood. B) stimulateosteoblasts to deposit bone by producing calcified matrix. C) stimulateosteoblasts to resorb bone and lower blood calcium levels. D) stimulateosteoclasts to move calcium from the blood and into the bone.

89)

Parathyroid hormone release is triggered by _______ levels of calcium in the blood. A) high B) low

90)

High blood calcium and exercise cause calcitonin release to A) increase. B) decrease.

91)

Calcitonin _________ osteoclast activity, which will _________ blood calcium levels. A) stimulates; increase B) stimulates; decrease C) inhibits; increase D) inhibits; decrease

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92)

Which hormone normally has a more significant effect on blood calcium levels in adults? A) Calcitonin B) Parathyroidhormone

93)

Which is the definition for a greenstick fracture? A) The bone is twistedas it fractures. B) The fracture is atright angles to the long axis of the bone. C) The bone issplintered into several fragments. D) Only one side ofthe bone is broken; the other side is bent. E) The fracture is atan oblique angle to the long axis of the bone.

94)

A fracture parallel to the long axis of the bone is a(n) _________ fracture. A) transverse B) oblique C) linear D) comminuted E) medial

95) The break of a bone that has been weakened by disease is a ________fracture; when a broken end of the bone piercesthe skin, the fracture is ________. A) stress; greenstick B) epiphyseal; stress C) greenstick; simple D) pathologic; compound E) pathologic,simple.

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96)

Which is not involved in the process of bone repair following a fracture? A) Fibroblastsproduce collagen fibers to connect broken pieces of bone. B) Afibrocartilaginous callus serves as a model for new bone growth. C) Osteoclasts removeexcess bone from the hard callus. D) The fracturehematoma reorganizes to form a procallus. E) No exceptions; allof the choices are involved in the process of bone repair.

97)

During bone repair, when does the bony callus form? A) Before the fracture hematoma. B) After the soft callus forms. C) Before the soft callus forms. D) After bone remodeling.

98) The process of bone repair includes these steps: a: Fracture hematoma forms b: Bone is remodeled c: Fibrocartilaginous callus forms d: Bony callus forms The correct chronological order for these steps is A) a - c - d - b. B) a - b - d - c. C) c - d - b - a. D) d - a - b - c. E) b - a - c - d.

99)

Which sex tends to lose more bone mass with aging? A) Women B) Men

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100)

Which is a change in bone architecture or mass related to aging? A) Insufficient calcification B) Demineralization C) Reduction in the organic content of the matrix D) Loss of flexibility and increase in brittleness E) All of the choices are correct.

101) Achondroplastic dwarfism is a disorder that affects endochondral ossification. Which of the following bones will be affected? A) Most bones of the body. B) Long bones in the fingers and toes. C) The humerus (long bone) of the upper limb. D) The tibia (long bone) of the leg. E) All of the choices are correct.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 102) The shaft of a long bone is called the _________.

103) Blood vessels enter the diaphysis of a long bone through an opening called the _________ foramen.

104)

The spongy bone found within a flat bone is called _________.

105)

With aging comes insufficient ossification of bone, a condition known as _________.

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106)

Chondrocytes occupy spaces in the matrix called _________.

107) The growth patterns of cartilage include interstitial growth (from within) and _________ growth (from without).

108) Found within both the periosteum and endosteum, _________ cells are derived from mesenchyme and serve as the stem cells of bone.

109) During bone formation, calcium phosphate and calcium hydroxide interact to form crystals of _________, which serve to harden the matrix.

110)

Osteons are also called _________ systems.

111)

A fracture of the distal end of the radius is a _________ fracture.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 112) Describe the stimulus for bone resorption and how resorption is carried out at the cellular and chemicallevels.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 07_4e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) FALSE 18) FALSE 19) TRUE 20) FALSE 21) [A, B, C, D] 22) [A, B] 23) [A, B] 24) E 25) A 26) B Version 1

27) D 28) C 29) A 30) A 31) C 32) A 33) D 34) A 35) B 36) C 37) C 38) C 39) B 40) B 41) C 42) A 43) B 44) C 45) D 46) D 47) A 48) A 49) E 50) A 51) C 52) B 53) C 54) D 55) B 56) B Version 1

57) D 58) B 59) D 60) D 61) E 62) C 63) D 64) E 65) C 66) A 67) B 68) C 69) C 70) D 71) C 72) E 73) D 74) A 75) C 76) D 77) C 78) A 79) C 80) D 81) D 82) D 83) A 84) D 85) A 86) A Version 1

87) B 88) A 89) B 90) A 91) D 92) B 93) D 94) C 95) D 96) E 97) B 98) A 99) A 100) E 101) A 102) diaphysis 103) nutrient 104) diploe 105) osteopenia 106) lacunae 107) appositional 108) osteoprogenitor 109) hydroxyapatite 110) haversian 111) Colles 112) When blood calcium is low, resorption is stimulated. Lysosymes of osteoclasts degrade osteoid by secreting digestive enzymes; hydrocholoric acid dissolves the inorganic matrix.

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CHAPTER 8 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The calvaria is made up of cranial bones and is part of the skull. ⊚ ⊚

The orbital complex includes part of the sphenoid bone. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The lacrimal bone helps form both the orbital and nasal complexes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

One of the ossicles is the incus. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) A young child’s cranium is relatively smaller compared to the rest of its body than that of an adult. ⊚ ⊚

The posterior fontanelle normally closes within one month after birth. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Sutural bones are most commonly found in the squamous suture.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

8) The crista galli of the ethmoid bone serves as a point of attachment for the falx cerebri of the dura mater. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) There are three pairs of nasal conchae in the nasal cavity; the superior and middle pairs are part of the ethmoid bone, but the inferior ones are separate bones. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) The seven bones that form the orbit are the maxilla, frontal, nasal, ethmoid, sphenoid, palatine, and zygomatic bones. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) Though it does not articulate with any other bone, the hyoid bone is considered to be part of the axial skeleton. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) Supraorbital margins with thick, rounded, blunt borders are characteristic of female skulls. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

The “base” is the superior portion of the sacrum.

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⊚ ⊚

14)

true false

The tubercle of rib 4 articulates with the transverse costal facet of T3. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) Joints of the upper limb are more mobile, whereas joints of the lower limb are more stable. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) The head of the ulna articulates withthe distal medial surface of the radius known astheulnar notch. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) When the radius and ulna are parallel with one another, the forearm is said to be in pronation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

18) The sacrum articulates with the ilium at a rough area of the ilium known as the auricular surface. ⊚ ⊚

19)

true false

The pelvic inlet is also known as the superior pelvic aperture. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

20)

Upper limb development lags behind lower limb development by about three days. ⊚ ⊚

21)

The posterior “bump” of the elbow is the olecranon of the ulna. ⊚ ⊚

22)

true false

Metacarpal V is located at the base of the thumb. ⊚ ⊚

24)

true false

The head of the radius is distal; the head of the ulna is proximal. ⊚ ⊚

23)

true false

The acetabulum is formed by the fusion of three separate bones. ⊚ ⊚

true false

25) The ossa coxae are united anteriorly by the pubic symphysis and posteriorly by the sacrum. ⊚ ⊚

26)

true false

The pelvic outlet is the space surrounded by the pelvic brim. ⊚ ⊚

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true false 4

27)

In anatomic position, the fibula is lateral to the tibia. ⊚ ⊚

true false

28) The medial longitudinal arch prevents the medial side of the foot from touching the ground. ⊚ ⊚

true false

29) Age-related changes to the pubic symphysis make the os coxae a reliable indicator of age at death for skeletal remains. ⊚ ⊚

true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 30) Select all that are true. The lower limb bones are _____ than the upper limb bones, which reflects their weight bearing role but lack of ability tointeract and manipulate the surrounding environment. A) larger B) smaller C) more mobile D) less mobile

31)

Select all that apply. Which tissues are developing embryonic limbs composed of?

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A) Mesoderm B) Ectoderm C) Endoderm D) Mesenchyme

32)

Select the bones that form an os coxae. A) Pubis B) Ilium C) Ishium D) Sacrum

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 33) The skull consists of _____ cranial bones and _____ facial bones. A) 8, 14 B) 7, 12 C) 10, 12 D) 5, 7 E) 9, 11

34) Protection of vital organs and hematopoiesis are two functions commonly named for the __________ skeleton. A) axial B) appendicular

35)

Which bone is not part of the axial skeleton?

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A) Malleus B) Sacrum C) Clavicle D) Atlas E) Frontal bone

36)

Which is not a cranial bone? A) Vomer B) Frontal C) Occipital D) Temporal E) Parietal

37)

Which bone is not paired? A) Maxilla B) Mandible C) Lacrimal D) Nasal E) Zygomatic

38)

Which of these skull bones cannot be easily palpated? A) Frontal B) Temporal C) Occipital D) Parietal E) Ethmoid

39)

The _______ suture is the articulation between the occipital bone and both parietal bones.

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A) lambdoid B) coronal C) sagittal D) squamous E) frontal

40)

Which of these bones does not contribute to the region known as the pterion? A) Frontal B) Sphenoid C) Occipital D) Parietal E) Temporal

41) The zygomatic process of the temporal bone and the _________ process of the zygomatic bone form the zygomatic arch. A) zygomatic B) maxillary C) frontal D) temporal E) mastoid

42)

Which bonesform the calvaria? A) Occipital and parietals. B) Parietals and frontal. C) Occipital, parietals, and temporals. D) Occipital, parietals, and frontal. E) Occipital, parietals, temporals, and frontal.

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43)

Which cranial fossa supports the cerebellum? A) Anterior B) Posterior C) Middle D) Lateral E) Medial

44) the

The basin in the floor of the cranium that accommodates the temporal lobe of the brain is

A) posterior cranialfossa. B) middle cranialfossa. C) inferior corticalplate. D) cribriformfissure. E) sella turcica.

45)

The sagittal suture joins the A) left and rightparietal bones. B) left and righttemporal bones. C) parietal andoccipital bones. D) temporal andoccipital bones. E) frontal and parietal bones.

46)

Which bone is not part of the nasal complex? A) Nasal B) Frontal C) Inferior nasalconcha D) Temporal E) Ethmoid

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47)

Which bone bears the superior and inferior temporal lines? A) Temporal B) Occipital C) Parietal D) Frontal E) Zygomatic

48)

What is the function of the nuchal lines? A) Attachment for dura mater. B) Attachment for muscles and ligaments. C) Passageway for cranial nerves. D) Passageway for jugular vein. E) Grooves for dural sinuses.

49)

The portion of the sphenoid bone that houses the pituitary gland is the A) pterygoidprocess. B) pterygoidplate. C) greater wing. D) lesser wing. E) sella turcica.

50)

Which is not a feature of the ethmoid bone? A) Cribriform foramina B) Perpendicular plate C) Crista galli D) Inferior nasal concha E) Orbital plate

51)

Which bone bears the infraorbital foramen?

Version 1

A) Frontal B) Temporal C) Mandible D) Maxilla E) Zygomatic

52)

Which is not a correct pairing of bone and feature? A) Occipital bone - foramen magnum B) Sphenoid bone - foramen rotundum C) Temporal bone - carotid canal D) Frontal bone - supraorbital foramen E) Parietal bone - mental foramen

53)

The jugular foramen is located between the _____ and _____ bones. A) temporal; parietal B) sphenoid; ethmoid C) sphenoid; occipital D) occipital; temporal E) occipital; parietal

54)

What is the function of the cribriform plate? A) Permits air to enter the cranial cavity to cool the brain. B) Provides large surface area for muscle attachment. C) Permits passage of the olfactory nerves. D) Forms part of the nasal septum. E) Articulates with the atlas for rotational head movement.

55)

The pterygoid spines and optic canals are features of the _____ bone.

Version 1

A) ethmoid B) temporal C) sphenoid D) occipital E) frontal

56)

Which bone is not a facial bone? A) Temporal B) Mandible C) Zygomatic D) Maxilla E) Nasal

57)

Which bone is unpaired? A) Lacrimal B) Vomer C) Inferior nasal concha D) Palatine E) Maxilla

58)

The _________ process of the mandible articulates with the temporal bone. A) alveolar B) condylar C) mastoid D) temporal E) coronoid

59)

Which bones articulate with the zygomatic bone?

Version 1

A) Frontal, temporal, and maxilla. B) Temporal and maxilla. C) Temporal and parietal. D) Frontal, parietal, and occipital. E) Temporal, sphenoid, and maxilla.

60)

A perpendicular plate is a feature of the _____ and _____ bones. A) palatine; lacrimal B) ethmoid; sphenoid C) palatine; ethmoid D) nasal; lacrimal E) maxilla; zygomatic

61)

Which bone bears the mandibular fossa? A) Maxilla B) Temporal C) Zygomatic D) Mandible E) Frontal

62)

The incisive foramen and palatine process are features of which bone? A) Mandible B) Palatine bone C) Vomer D) Maxilla E) Temporal bone

63)

Which of these is not a paranasal sinus?

Version 1

A) Maxillary sinus B) Ethmoid sinus C) Sphenoid sinus D) Mastoid sinus E) Frontal sinus

64)

Which bones form the inferior margin of the orbit? A) Maxilla and zygomatic B) Frontal and sphenoid C) Palatine and sphenoid D) Lacrimal and ethmoid E) Zygomatic and sphenoid

65)

Which bone bears the greater and lesser cornua? A) Maxilla B) Stapes C) Hyoid D) Incus E) Mandible

66)

What is the location of the auditory ossicles? A) Petrous part of temporal bone. B) Squamous part of temporal bone. C) Tympanic part of temporal bone. D) Auditory part of temporal bone. E) Mastoid part of temporal bone.

67)

Which of the following is a sexually dimorphic characteristic of the skull?

Version 1

A) Chin pointed and triangular. B) Mandibular angle greater than 125 degrees. C) Little or no prominence to superciliary arches. D) External surface of occipital bone relatively smooth. E) All of the choices are characteristic of a female skull.

68)

Developmentally, the most significant growth in the skull occurs A) between the agesof 5 and 10. B) between the agesof 10 and 15. C) before age 5. D) between the agesof 15 and 20. E) between the agesof 20 and 25.

69)

The membranous sheets that connect developing cranial bones are called A) sutures. B) fontanelles. C) intraosseousmembranes. D) craniochondralarticulations. E) ossicles.

70) Of the following list, which describe the functions of the paranasal sinuses? a: Warm and moisten inhaled air. b: Strengthen the bone. c: Provide resonance to the voice. A) a, b, and c B) None of the listedfunctions describe those of the sinuses. C) a only D) b only E) a and c

Version 1

71)

The ossicles are A) three of thefourteen facial bones. B) six of thefourteen cranial bones. C) three small boneswithin each ear. D) neck bones thatarticulate with the larynx (voice box).

72)

The hyoid bone is located between the A) mandible and thelarynx. B) maxilla and themandible. C) pharynx and thenasal cavity. D) cranium and theaxilla. E) larynx and the trachea.

73)

A skull with five gracile features and one robust feature is most likely a _______ skull. A) male B) female

74)

Which fontanel is the last to close? A) Anterior B) Sphenoidal C) Mastoid

75)

Which is not a function of the vertebral column?

Version 1

A) Supporting the weight of the head. B) Maintaining upright body position. C) Passageway for cranial nerves. D) Passageway for spinal nerves. E) Protecting the spinal cord.

76)

What is the correct order for the vertebral regions, from superior to inferior? A) Cervical - thoracic - sacral - coccygeal - lumbar B) Thoracic - sacral - lumbar - thoracic - coccygeal C) Cervical - thoracic - lumbar - sacral - coccygeal D) Thoracic - coccygeal - cervical - lumbar - sacral E) Thoracic - cervical - lumbar - coccygeal - sacral

77)

The vertebral column protects A) the kidneys. B) the spinalcord. C) the spleen. D) All of the choices are correct.

78)

Which statement accurately describes the articulations between ribs and vertebrae? A) Three of thecervical and ten of the thoracic vertebrae articulate with ribs. B) Twelve thoracicvertebrae articulate with the ribs. C) Two lumbar and tenthoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs. D) Two cervical, twolumbar and eight thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs. E) Nine thoracic and three lumbarvertebrae articulate with the ribs.

79)

The vertebral column includes ___ cervical, ___ thoracic, and ___ lumbar vertebrae.

Version 1

A) 5, 12, 7 B) 6, 14, 6 C) 7, 13, 4 D) 7, 12, 5 E) 6, 13, 5

80)

Which curves of the vertebral column are present at birth? A) Thoracic and sacral. B) Lumbar and cervical. C) Lumbar and sacral. D) Cervical and thoracic. E) Lumbar and thoracic.

81)

Which of the spinal curves forms when a child is about 12 months of age? A) Sacral B) Lumbar C) Cervical D) Thoracic E) Coccygeal

82) The _________ provide passageways for spinal nerves to exit the vertebral column and travel to other parts of the body. A) vertebralforamina B) intervertebralforamina C) vertebralcanals D) articularfacets E) transverseforamina

Version 1

83)

What is the inner, gelatinous region of each intervertebral disc called? A) Annulus fibrosus B) Nucleus pulposus C) Lamella D) Chondral ring E) Articular ring

84)

Transverse foramina are found in _____ vertebrae. A) thoracic B) lumbar C) cervical D) sacral E) all

85) The vertebral processes that are most easily palpated along the midline of the back are the _____ processes. A) transverse B) inferiorarticular C) superiorarticular D) lamellar E) spinous

86)

The cervical and lumbar curvatures are ________ curves, and they arch ________. A) primary; anteriorly B) primary; posteriorly C) secondary; anteriorly D) secondary; posteriorly

Version 1

87) The spinal curvature that develops as a child learns to walkshifts the trunk weight over the legs. It is an example of a ________ curve. A) primary B) secondary

88)

The occipital condyles articulate with the A) axis. B) atlas. C) dens. D) vertebraprominens. E) odontoidprocess.

89)

Which cervical vertebra is also known as the vertebra prominens? A) C1 B) C2 C) C4 D) C5 E) C7

90)

Which of these features is found in a lumbar vertebra? A) Pedicles B) Vertebral foramen C) Spinous process D) Vertebral arch E) All of the choices are correct.

91)

Which features are found only on thoracic vertebrae?

Version 1

A) Costal facets and demifacets B) Transverse foramina C) Spinous processes D) Vertebral foramina E) Laminae

92)

Which feature is unique to the axis? A) Dens B) Bifid spinous process C) Superior articular facet D) Transverse foramen E) Vertebral foramen

93)

The inferior termination of the sacral canal is an opening called the A) anterior sacralforamen. B) sacralpromontory. C) posterior sacralforamen. D) sacral hiatus.

94)

Each auricular surface of the sacrum is located on a(n) A) ala. B) median sacralcrest. C) sacral cornu. D) apex. E) spinousprocess.

95)

The clavicles articulate with the sternum at the _____ notches.

Version 1

A) clavicular B) suprasternal C) mastosternal D) jugular E) first costal

96)

What is the superior portion of the sternum called? A) Xiphoid process B) Manubrium C) Body D) Gladiolus E) Coccyx

97)

The sternal angle can be used as an anatomical landmark to identify the position of the A) apex of theheart. B) jugular vein. C) second rib. D) trachea. E) hyoid bone.

98)

How many pairs of ribs articulate (directly or indirectly) with the sternum? A) 7 B) 12 C) 10 D) 5 E) 24

99)

How many pairs of ribs are “floating ribs” that do not articulate with the sternum?

Version 1

A) 5 B) 2 C) 7 D) 12 E) 10

100)

Rib 1 articulates with vertebra ______ and the ______. A) T1; body of the sternum B) T2; body of the sternum C) T1; manubrium of the sternum D) C7; manubrium of the sternum E) T2; clavicle

101)

Which bone count is not correct for a normal adult human? A) 14 facial bones B) 7 pairs of true ribs C) 7 lumbar vertebrae D) 6 auditory ossicles E) 8 cranial bones

102)

The part of a rib that articulates with the demifacets on the bodies of vertebrae is the A) head. B) tubercle. C) shaft. D) tuberosity.

103)

Which bone does not belong to the appendicular skeleton?

Version 1

A) Femur B) Sacrum C) Calcaneus D) Clavicle E) Ulna

104)

Which statement accurately compares the hand and the foot? A) The hand and thefoot each have 14 phalanges. B) The hand and thefoot each have 15 phalanges. C) Each hand has 14phalanges, but each foot has 15 phalanges. D) Each hand has 15phalanges, but each foot has 14 phalanges.

105) The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the _____ articulates with the _____. A) humerus; scapula B) scapula; clavicle C) scapula; thoracic cage D) clavicle; humerus E) clavicle; sternum

106)

Which bones comprise each pectoral girdle? A) Scapula, clavicle, and sternum B) Scapula, clavicle, sternum, and humerus C) Scapula andclavicle D) Sternum and clavicle E) Scapula, clavicle, and humerus

107)

What bone(s) does the clavicle articulate with?

Version 1

A) Scapula only B) Scapula and sternum C) Scapula and humerus D) Humerus and sternum E) Humerus only

108)

The ___________ of the scapula is the point where the medial and lateral borders meet. A) lateral angle B) superior angle C) supraglenoidtubercle D) infraglenoidtubercle E) inferior angle

109)

The costal tuberosity is a feature of the A) manubrium of thesternum. B) clavicle. C) scapula. D) xiphoidprocess. E) body of thesternum.

110)

The bones of the antebrachium are the A) radius, ulna, andhumerus. B) radius, ulna,humerus, and carpals. C) radius, ulna,carpals, and metacarpals. D) radius andulna. E) carpals,metacarpals, and phalanges.

111)

Which bones articulate with the humerus?

Version 1

A) Scapula, radius, and ulna. B) Scapula and radius. C) Scapula and ulna. D) Clavicle, scapula, ulna, and radius. E) Clavicle and ulna.

112)

The head of the humerus articulates with the A) greatertrochanter. B) trochlearnotch. C) glenoidcavity. D) greatertubercle. E) intertubercularsulcus.

113)

The bony projections that can be palpated medially and laterally at the wrist are the A) medial and lateralepicondyles. B) spinousprocesses. C) styloidprocesses. D) medial and lateralmalleoli. E) greater andlesser trochanters.

114)

In anatomic position, the radius lies _____ to the ulna. A) posterior B) medial C) superior D) inferior E) lateral

115)

Which is not a feature of the ulna?

Version 1

A) Trochlear notch B) Ulnar notch C) Coronoid process D) Head E) Styloid process

116)

The biceps brachii muscle attaches to the _________ of the radius. A) neck B) radialtuberosity C) styloidprocess D) head E) radial notch

117)

Which is not among the bones in the proximal row of carpals? A) Triquetrum B) Lunate C) Scaphoid D) Trapezoid E) Pisiform

118)

A pollex has ______ phalanges. A) 2 B) 3 C) 14 D) 10 E) 7

119)

Which is not a carpal bone?

Version 1

A) Hamate B) Trapezium C) Capitulum D) Scaphoid E) Trapezoid

120)

At what location do the three bones of the os coxae fuse? A) Iliac crest B) Ischial tuberosity C) Acetabulum D) Pelvic brim E) Pubic symphysis

121)

Which is not correct regarding the pelvis? A) The adult pelvisis composed of 4 bones. B) The pelvisincludes the sacrum. C) The pelvic girdleprotects the viscera of the pelvic cavity. D) In anatomicposition, the pubis is posterior and inferior to the ischium. E) There are twosacroiliac articulations.

122)

On the os coxae, the ischial ramus is fused to the A) inferior pubic ramus. B) superior pubic ramus. C) ischial spine. D) ischial body. E) pubic tubercle.

123)

The ___________ subdivides the pelvis into the “true pelvis” and the “false pelvis”.

Version 1

A) sacralpromontory B) pelvic brim C) pelvic inlet D) pelvic outlet E) pubicsymphysis

124)

Which does not contribute to the pelvic brim? A) Arcuate line B) Sacral promontory C) Pubic crest D) Gluteal line E) Pectineal line

125)

Which is not characteristic of a male pelvis? A) Greater sciatic notch narrow, U-shaped, and deep. B) Coccyx tilted posteriorly. C) Pubic arch less than 90 degrees. D) Obturator foramen oval. E) Superior inlet heart-shaped.

126) What are you resting your hands on when you rest them on your hips, just below the waist? A) Iliac crests B) Superior gluteal lines C) Ischial spines D) Ischial tuberosities E) Arcuate lines

Version 1

127)

As an adult ages, the symphysial surface of the pubis

A) becomes moreflattened, and the bony ridge at its circumference progressivelydisappears. B) becomes moreflattened, and a bony rim forms at its circumference. C) becomes morebillowed, and the bony ridge at its circumference progressively disappears. D) becomes morebillowed,and a bony rim forms at its circumference.

128)

Which is not a site for muscle attachment on the femur? A) Gluteal tuberosity B) Pectineal line C) Linea aspera D) Greater trochanter E) Lateral condyle

129)

Which is not correct regarding the femur? A) The condyles arelocated at the distal end of the bone. B) In anatomicposition, the femur is angled medially. C) The head of thefemur articulates with the acetabulum. D) The intercondylarfossa is located on the anterior surface of the bone. E) The depression inthe head of the femur is called the fovea.

130)

Which is a sesamoid bone? A) Femur B) Patella C) First metatarsal D) Clavicle E) Calcaneus

Version 1

131)

Which bones articulate with the femur? A) Os coxae, tibia, patella B) Os coxae, tibia, fibula C) Scapula, radius, ulna D) Os coxae, fibia, tibula E) Tibia, fibula, patella, os coxae

132)

Which is not correct regarding the patella? A) The patella istriangular in shape. B) The patella islocated in the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle. C) The posterioraspect of the patella articulates with the femur. D) The broad superiorportion of the patella is called the apex. E) The patella can bepalpated on the anterior surface of the knee.

133)

The medial and lateral condyles of the tibia articulate with the A) apex of thepatella. B) medial andlateral condyles of the femur. C) medial andlateral epicondyles of the femur. D) head of thefibula. E) greater andlesser trochanters of the femur.

134)

The tibial tuberosity is the attachment site for the A) patellarligament. B) hamstringmuscles. C) patellartendon. D) sciatic nerve. E) intercondylareminence.

135)

What is the name of theprominence on the medial surface of the ankle?

Version 1

A) Tibial tuberosity B) Medial condyle C) Medial malleolus D) Calcaneus E) Head of the fibula

136)

The head of the fibula articulates with the fibular articular facet on the A) lateral condyle ofthe tibia. B) lateral condyle ofthe femur. C) medial malleolus ofthe tibia. D) medial condyle ofthe tibia. E) medial condyle ofthe femur.

137)

Which of the following choices accurately describes the crural bones? A) Both the tibia andfibula are weight-bearing. B) Only the fibula isweight-bearing. C) Only the tibia isweight-bearing. D) Neither the tibianor fibula are weight-bearing.

138)

The expanded distal end of the fibula is called the A) head. B) neck. C) lateralmalleolus. D) medialmalleolus. E) shaft.

139)

Which tarsal bone articulates with metatarsals IV and V?

Version 1

A) Talus B) Calcaneus C) Lateral cuneiform D) Cuboid E) Medial cuneiform

140)

Which bone articulates with all three cuneiform bones? A) Cuboid B) Calcaneus C) Navicular D) First metatarsal E) Talus

141) Not counting sesamoid bones, what is the total number of tarsals, metatarsals, and phalanges in a single ankle and foot? A) 24 B) 26 C) 27 D) 30 E) 32

142)

Which bone does not contribute to the medial longitudinal arch of the foot? A) Talus B) Navicular C) Cuboid D) Metatarsal I E) Medial cuneiform

Version 1

143)

Which is the highest of the three arches of the foot? A) The transversearch B) The mediallongitudinal arch C) The laterallongitudinal arch

144)

The apical ectodermal ridge A) forms at theproximal end of each limb bud. B) plays a role indifferentiation and elongation of the limb. C) ossifies prior toformation of the hand and foot plates. D) must undergoapoptosis before the limb can develop. E) secretes mesodermfor muscle formation.

145)

Which is not a correct pairing of a bone and its common name? A) Clavicle - collar bone B) Patella - knee cap C) Scapula - shoulder blade D) Talus - heel E) Tibia - shin

146)

Each of the depressions on the maxillae and mandible that holds a tooth is called a(n) A) fossa. B) sulcus. C) sinus. D) alveolus. E) foramen.

147)

Which bone marking does not serve as an articulating surface?

Version 1

A) Head B) Epicondyle C) Condyle D) Facet E) Trochlea

148)

Rami, trochanters, tubercles, and tuberosities are bone markings that serve as A) articulatingsurfaces. B) passageways fornerves. C) attachments forligaments or tendons. D) pits ordepressions to hold cartilage. E) passageways forblood vessels.

149) When dribbling a basketball, the radius is crossed over the ulna in the forearm. In other words, the forearm is A) pronated. B) supinated.

150)

In the hand, how many phalanges does each digit have (not including the thumb)? A) Three B) Two C) One D) Four

151) An archeologist finds a pelvis during a dig. She notices the pelvis is wide and shallow, with a small, triangular obturator foramen and ischial spines that do not project into the pelvic outlet. Is this pelvis from a male or female?

Version 1

A) Female B) Male

152)

Which of the following is a leg bone that bears the most weight? A) Tibia B) Fibula C) Radius D) Ulna

153)

During embryonic development of the limbs, which limb buds appear first? A) Upper limb buds B) Lower limb buds

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 154) Blood vessels and nerves travel in a marking of each rib known as its costal _________.

155)

The roof of the cranium is called the _________, or skullcap.

156)

The ________ forms the inferior portion of the nasal septum.

157)

The auditory ossicles are the malleus, the incus, and the _________.

158) Collectively, the hollow cavities in the maxillae, ethmoid, sphenoid, and frontal bones are called the ____________ sinuses. Version 1

159)

As a person ages, the teeth wear down from use in a process called dental __________.

160) The primary curves of the vertebral column are also called accommodation curves, while the secondary curves are also called _____________ curves.

161)

Each vertebral arch is composed of two pedicles and two _____________.

162) At the distal end of the humerus is a depression on the anteromedial surface. This depression accommodates a pointy projection of the ulna and is known as the ___________ fossa.

163)

The three bones that make up each of theox coxae are the ilium, pubis, and _______.

164)

The ___________ neck of the humerus marks the position of the former epiphyseal plate.

165) The radius and ulna exhibit ______________ borders that are connected to each other by dense regular connective tissue.

166)

The deltoid muscle attaches to the humerus at the deltoid _____________.

167)

The palm of the hand is formed by the _________ bones.

168) The smooth, curved surface of the acetabulum that articulates with the head of the femur is called the _____________ surface. Version 1

169) The portion of the lower limb between the knee and the ankle is known as the _________ region, or leg.

170)

The ____________ arch of the foot runs perpendicular to the longitudinal arches.

171)

A narrow, slit-like opening through a bone is called a _________.

172) The proximal end of the femur articulates with the coxal bone at a depressioncalled the ______.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 173) Briefly describe the structure and function of fontanelles.

174)

Describe the similarities between the skeletal structures of theupper and lower limbs.

Version 1

SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions.

175)

175.1) This figure shows the major cavities within the skull. Which number indicates the sphenoid sinus? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) The sphenoid sinus is not shown on this figure.

175.2) This figure shows the major cavities within the skull. Which number indicates the frontal sinus? Version 1

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) The frontal sinus is not shown on this figure.

176)

176.1) This figure shows a lateral view of the skull. Which number indicates the lambdoid suture?

Version 1

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) The lambdoid suture is not shown on this figure.

176.2) This figure shows a lateral view of the skull. Which number indicates the styloid process? A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) The styloid process is not shown on this figure.

176.3) This figure shows a lateral view of the skull. What bone is visible within the suture indicated by number 3? A) Wormian bone B) Sesamoid bone C) Pterygoid bone D) Condylar bone E) Lambdoid bone

Version 1

177)

177.1) This figure shows a superior view of the cranial cavity. Which number indicates the foramen ovale? A) 2 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) 8

Version 1

177.2) This figure shows a superior view of the cranial cavity. Which number indicates the sella turcica? A) 1 B) 3 C) 4 D) 9 E) 10

177.3) This figure shows a superior view of the cranial cavity. Which number indicates the crista galli? A) 1 B) 3 C) 9 D) 10 E) The crista galli is not labeled on this figure.

Version 1

178)

178.1) This figure shows a superior view of a vertebra. Which number indicates the spinous process? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 6 E) 7

178.2) This figure shows a superior view of a vertebra. What feature is indicated by number 4?

Version 1

A) Transverse foramen B) Intervertebral foramen C) Vertebralhiatus D) Neural canal E) Vertebral foramen

179)

179.1)

Version 1

This figure shows the thoracic cage. What vertebra is indicated by number 8?

A) L1 B) L2 C) T1 D) T12 E) T10

179.2)

This figure shows the thoracic cage which number(s) indicate a costal notch?

A) 2, 3 B) 3 C) 2, 3, 6 D) 2, 6 E) 3, 6

179.3)

This figure shows the thoracic cage. Which number indicates the xiphoid process?

A) 1 B) 4 C) 5 D) 7 E) The xiphoid process is not labeled on this figure.

Version 1

180)

180.1) This figure shows the scapula. The feature indicated by number 6 is the _____ border.

Version 1

A) superior B) medial C) lateral D) anterior E) vertebral

180.2)

This figure shows the scapula. Which number indicates the acromion?

A) 1 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 7

180.3)

This figure shows the scapula. What is the feature indicated by number 9?

A) Subscapular fossa B) Glenoid cavity C) Supraspinous fossa D) Glenoid fossa E) Infraspinous fossa

180.4)

This figure shows the scapula. Which number indicates the superior angle?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 7 E) 10

Version 1

Version 1 181)

181.1)

This figure shows thehumerus. Which number indicates the medial epicondyle?

A) 1 B) 4 C) 5 D) 2 E) 7

181.2)

This figure shows the humerus. What is the feature indicated by number 3?

A) Surgical neck B) Anatomical neck C) Greater tubercle D) Lesser tubercle E) Deltoid tuberosity

181.3) This figure shows the humerus. The _________ articulates with the depression indicated by number 8. A) head of theradius B) trochlea of theradius C) olecranon of theulna D) coronoid processof the ulna E) styloid process ofthe ulna

181.4)

Version 1

This figure shows the humerus. What is the feature indicated by number 6?

A) Capitulum B) Trochlea C) Head D) Medial condyle E) Lateral condyle

182)

182.1) spine?

Version 1

This figure shows the os coxa. Which number indicates the anterior inferior iliac

A) 1 B) 2 C) 8 D) 9 E) 10

182.2) This figure shows the os coxa. Which of these statements about the figure is correct? A) The figure shows aright bone, and number 1 indicates the anterior superior iliac spine. B) The figure shows aleft bone, and number 6 indicates the ischial tuberosity. C) The figure shows aleft bone and number 7 indicates the obturator foramen. D) The figure shows aright bone, and number 3 indicates the greater sciatic notch. E) The figure shows aright bone, and number 8 indicates the ischial spine.

182.3)

This figure shows the os coxa. Which number indicates a feature of the pubis?

A) 2 B) 4 C) 5 D) 8 E) 9

Version 1

183)

183.1)

Version 1

This figure shows the bones of the ankle and foot. What view is shown?

A) Inferior view of left ankle and foot B) Superior view of left ankle and foot C) Superior view of right ankle and foot D) Ventral view of right ankle and foot E) Lateral view of right ankle and foot

183.2) This figure shows the bones of the ankle and foot. Which bone does the number 1 indicate? A) Proximal phalanx of the hallux. B) Distal phalanx of the pollex. C) Middle phalanx of the hallux. D) Distal phalanx of the hallux. E) Proximal phalanx of the pollex.

183.3) This figure shows the bones of the ankle and foot. Which number indicates the cuboid bone? A) 3 B) 4 C) 10 D) 8 E) 9

183.4) This figure shows the bones of the ankle and foot. The bone indicated by number 4 is the A) lateralcuneiform. B) intermediatecuneiform. C) navicular. D) medialcuneiform. E) talus.

Version 1

183.5) This figure shows the bones of the ankle and foot. Which number indicates the lateral cuneiform bone? A) 2 B) 6 C) 7 D) 8 E) 9

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 08_4e 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) FALSE 21) TRUE 22) FALSE 23) FALSE 24) TRUE 25) TRUE 26) FALSE Version 1

27) TRUE 28) TRUE 29) TRUE 30) [A, D] 31) [A, B] 32) [A, B, C] 33) A 34) A 35) C 36) A 37) B 38) E 39) A 40) C 41) D 42) D 43) B 44) B 45) A 46) D 47) C 48) B 49) E 50) D 51) D 52) E 53) D 54) C 55) C 56) A Version 1

57) B 58) B 59) A 60) C 61) B 62) D 63) D 64) A 65) C 66) A 67) E 68) C 69) B 70) E 71) C 72) A 73) B 74) A 75) C 76) C 77) B 78) B 79) D 80) A 81) B 82) B 83) B 84) C 85) E 86) C Version 1

87) B 88) B 89) E 90) E 91) A 92) A 93) D 94) A 95) A 96) B 97) C 98) C 99) B 100) C 101) C 102) A 103) B 104) A 105) E 106) C 107) B 108) E 109) B 110) D 111) A 112) C 113) C 114) E 115) B 116) B Version 1

117) D 118) A 119) C 120) C 121) D 122) A 123) B 124) D 125) B 126) A 127) B 128) E 129) D 130) B 131) A 132) D 133) B 134) A 135) C 136) A 137) C 138) C 139) D 140) C 141) B 142) C 143) B 144) B 145) D 146) D Version 1

147) B 148) C 149) A 150) A 151) A 152) A 153) A 154) groove 155) calvaria 156) vomer 157) stapes 158) paranasal 159) attrition 160) compensation 161) laminae 162) coronoid 163) ischium 164) anatomical 165) interosseous 166) tuberosity 167) metacarpal 168) lunate 169) crural 170) transverse 171) fissure 172) acetabulum 173) They are soft spots in the fetal and neonatal skull made of dense connective tissue. They ease childbirth and allow for post-natal skull growth (and brain growth).

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174) Each limb is held in place by a girdle (pectoral girdle for the upper limbs, pelvic girdle for the lower limbs). The arm and thigh each contain one bone, the forearm and leg contain two bones that pivot against one another, there are multiple short bones in the wrist and proximal foot, and both the hand and foot contain 14 phalanges each. 175) Section Break 175.1) E 175.2) A 176) Section Break 176.1) C 176.2) B 176.3) A 177) Section Break 177.1) E 177.2) D 177.3) D 178) Section Break 178.1) A 178.2) E 179) Section Break 179.1) D 179.2) E 179.3) C 180) Section Break 180.1) C 180.2) C 180.3) E 180.4) A 181) Section Break 181.1) E Version 1

181.2) A 181.3) C 181.4) B 182) Section Break 182.1) D 182.2) D 182.3) D 183) Section Break 183.1) C 183.2) A 183.3) D 183.4) C 183.5) E

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CHAPTER 9 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The connection between a tooth and jaw bone is an example of a joint. ⊚ ⊚

Sutures permit skull growth during childhood. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Articular cartilage is composed of hyaline cartilage that lacks a perichondrium. ⊚ ⊚

true false

A fibrous joint contains a joint capsule. ⊚ ⊚

true false

A tendon sheath is a fat pad that fills the spaces that form when bones move. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) One of the functions of synovial fluid is to act as a shock absorber that distributes force evenly across the joint surface. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The part of a lever from the fulcrum to the point of effort is called the effort arm.

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⊚ ⊚

Gliding is an example of an angular motion. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Adduction is an example of an angular motion. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

Circumduction is an example of a gliding motion. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) The ankle joint is the only joint that makes the movements “dorsiflexion” and “plantar flexion”. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) Medial rotation turns the anterior surface of the femur or humerus away from the main axis of the body. ⊚ true ⊚ false

13)

Lateral rotation is also known as external rotation. ⊚ ⊚

14)

true false

The temporomandibular joint is the only mobile joint between skull bones.

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⊚ ⊚

15)

The sternoclavicular joint contains an articular disc. ⊚ ⊚

16)

true false

The talocrural joint is a modified hinge joint that permits dorsiflexion and plantar flexion. ⊚ ⊚

21)

true false

The deltoid ligament is also known as the medialligament. ⊚ ⊚

20)

true false

The glenohumeral joint is more stable than the hip joint. ⊚ ⊚

19)

true false

The hip allows for flexion, extension, abduction, adduction,rotation, and circumduction. ⊚ ⊚

18)

true false

The elbow is considered to be a stable joint. ⊚ ⊚

17)

true false

At the ankle, the lateral ligament is stronger than the medial ligament.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

22) The joints in the body that are the most mobile, such as the glenohumeral joint or coxal joint, are also the most stable. ⊚ ⊚

23)

true false

The epiphyseal plates in long bones are examples of synchondroses. ⊚ ⊚

true false

24) At the knee, the articular capsule encloses only the medial, lateral, and anterior regions of the joint. ⊚ ⊚

true false

25) Moderate exercise improves the health of joints by increasing the flow of synovial fluid in and out of the articular cartilage. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 26) Which is not correct regarding articulations? A) An articulation isa joint between a bone and another bone, cartilage, or tooth. B) All articulationscontain some type of cartilage. C) Arthrology is thescientific study of articulations. D) Articulations canrange in motion from freely mobile to immobile. E) There are threestructural categories of articulations.

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27)

The term "diarthrosis" refers to a joint that is A) immobile. B) freely mobile. C) fused. D) slightlymobile. E) dislocated.

28)

In fibrous joints, the articulating surfaces are held together by A) dense regularconnective tissue. B) areolar connectivetissue. C) dense irregularconnective tissue. D) fibrocartilage. E) articularcartilage.

29)

The sagittal suture is a(n) A) cartilaginousjoint. B) fibrous joint. C) synovialjoint. D) synchondrosis. E) amphiarthrosis.

30)

Sutures are joints that are found A) throughout theaxial and appendicular skeletons. B) between all bonesand teeth of the skull. C) between certainbones of the skull. D) only where a facialbone articulates with a cranial bone.

31)

An articular capsule is present in

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A) fibrousjoints. B) fibrous joints andcartilaginous joints. C) synovialjoints. D) fibrous joints andsynovial joints. E) all joints.

32)

Gomphoses A) containfluid-filled joint cavities. B) are found only intooth sockets. C) consist of sheetsof hyaline cartilage. D) cover the tendonsin the shoulder and coxal joints. E) are also calledsaddle joints.

33)

Functionally, a gomphosis is categorized as a A) cartilagenousjoint. B) diarthrosis. C) synarthrosis. D) synovialjoint.

34)

The interosseous membrane between the radius and the ulna is an example of a A) synchondrosis. B) suture. C) synostosis. D) synarthrosis. E) syndesmosis.

35)

Structurally, a syndesmosis is a _________ joint; functionally, it is a __________.

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A) cartilagenous; diarthrosis B) cartilagenous; amphiarthrosis C) fibrous; amphiarthrosis D) fibrous; synarthrosis E) ball and socket; pivot

36)

A synarthrosis is A) always made ofcartilage. B) a joint that has acapsule. C) a joint within afetus that ossifies during early development. D) immobile. E) slightly mobile.

37)

The pubic symphysis is classified as a A) cartilaginousjoint and an amphiarthrosis. B) fibrous joint anda synarthrosis. C) synovial joint anda diarthrosis. D) cartilaginousjoint and a synarthrosis. E) fibrous joint andan amphiarthrosis.

38)

A synarthrotic joint would have A) high mobility andhigh stability. B) high mobility andlow stability. C) low mobility andlow stability. D) low mobility andhigh stability.

39)

Which is not a cartilaginous joint?

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A) First costochondral joint B) Intervertebral joint C) Second costochondral joint D) First sternocostal joint E) Second sternocostal joint

40)

In a young person, the joint between the sphenoid bone and the occipital bone is a A) suture. B) synchondrosis. C) syndesmosis. D) symphysis. E) gomphosis.

41)

What type of cartilage is located between the bones in a symphysis? A) Elastic cartilage B) Reticular cartilage C) Hyaline cartilage D) Fibrocartilage E) Sutural cartilage

42)

Which is false about synovial joints? A) All articulatingbone surfaces are covered with articular cartilage. B) Synovial jointsare enclosed by fibrous articular capsules. C) Synovial fluid issecreted by the synovial membrane. D) Ligamentsstrengthen and reinforce joints. E) Blood circulateswithin the joint cavity to nourish the articular cartilage.

43)

Which is not a function of synovial fluid?

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A) Nourishes osteocytes B) Lubricates articulating surfaces C) Removes wastes D) Serves as shock absorber E) Distributes stress forces across articular surfaces

44)

Which is false regarding ligaments? A) Intracapsularligaments are within the articular capsule. B) Ligaments arecomposed of dense regular connective tissue. C) Extrinsicligaments are physically separate from the articular capsule. D) Intrinsicligaments are thickenings of the articular cartilage. E) Extracapsularligaments are outside the articular capsule.

45)

Which are not considered to be features of a synovial joint? A) Muscles B) Sensory receptors C) Blood vessels D) Articular cartilage E) Synovial fluid

46)

Fluid-filled sacs that cushion synovial joints are called A) fat pads. B) articulardiscs. C) bursae. D) menisci. E) diarthroses.

47)

Synovial fluid is

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A) a watery fluidproduced by hyaline cartilage. B) an oily fluidproduced by the synovial membrane. C) a watery fluidproduced by capsular ligaments. D) an oily fluidproduced by articular cartilage.

48)

Based on its range of motion, the elbow is classified as a(n) __________ joint. A) multiaxial B) gliding C) uniaxial D) biaxial E) ellipsoid

49)

Which joint is multiaxial? A) Pivot B) Ball and socket C) Condylar D) Plane E) Hinge

50)

Which of these synovial joints does not have at least one rounded or convex surface? A) Saddle B) Ball and socket C) Pivot D) Plane E) Condylar

51) The joint formed by the axis and atlas that permits the “no” shaking of the head is a _____ joint. Version 1

A) condylar B) hinge C) plane D) pivot E) saddle

52) The metatarsophalangeal joints allow movement in two planes and are classified as _________ joints. A) planar B) ball andsocket C) condylar D) pivot E) hinge

53)

Which is not a correct pairing of a joint with its classification? A) Tibiofemoral - hinge B) Glenohumeral - ball and socket C) Trapezium and first metacarpal - saddle D) Intertarsal - condylar E) Proximal radioulnar - pivot

54)

The ________ joint is the simplest synovial joint and also the least mobile synovial joint. A) pivot B) plane C) hinge D) saddle E) suture

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55)

The fixed point around which a lever rotates is the A) fulcrum. B) condyle. C) resistance node. D) effort arm. E) multiaxis.

56)

In the body, a joint serves as a________ for along bone. A) fulcrum B) lever C) effort arm D) resistor

57) When considering leverage, the part of the bone from the muscle attachment to the joint would be the A) fulcrum. B) effort arm. C) resistance arm.

58) If aheavy load is at one end of a lever, the distance between the fulcrum and that load is called the A) effort arm. B) resistancearm. C) lever length.

59)

In a first-class lever

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A) the fulcrumisin the middle, between the effort and the resistance. B) the resistance isbetween the fulcrum and the effort. C) the effort isbetween the resistance and the fulcrum. D) there is no effortarm.

60)

When considering joints in the human body, themost common lever type is the A) first-classlever. B) second-classlever. C) third-classlever.

61) Our calf muscles contract to cause plantar flexion, resembling the lever system of a wheelbarrow. Therefore, it is a _______ -class lever. A) first B) second C) third

62)

In general, the movements demonstrated at plane joints between the carpals are A) rotations. B) glidingmovements. C) flexions andextensions. D) circumductions. E) pivots.

63) A movement that increases or decreases the angle between two bones is a(n) __________ motion.

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A) angular B) rotational C) eversion D) sliding

64) When the angle between articulating bones increases beyond normal, the movement is referred to as A) dislocation. B) supination. C) hyperextension. D) hyperflexion. E) hypertrophy.

65) Rotation of the forearm so as to direct the palm anteriorly (as in anatomic position) is called A) abduction. B) pronation. C) eversion. D) supination. E) protraction.

66)

Movement of a body part toward the main axis of the body is called A) abduction. B) flexion. C) inversion. D) retraction. E) adduction.

67) The movement that occurs when the trunk of the body moves in a coronal plane laterally away from the body is Version 1

A) adduction. B) hyperextension. C) eversion D) lateralflexion. E) gliding.

68)

When the arm is raised anteriorly, the movement at the shoulder is A) extension. B) flexion. C) abduction. D) adduction. E) rotation.

69) If you move your head in such a way to look up at the ceiling, you are _________ your neck. A) extending B) rotating C) circumducting D) flexing E) elevating

70) Clenching the fingers to make a fist, then relaxing and straightening them, is an example of __________ followed by __________. A) flexion; extension B) extension; flexion C) adduction; abduction D) abduction; adduction E) extension; hyperextension

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71)

The joint movement called eversion involves A) lateral rotationof the coxal joint. B) medial rotationof the coxal joint. C) turning the soleof the foot laterally. D) turning the palmof the hand laterally. E) turning the palmof the hand or sole of the foot laterally.

72) Ifyou were toreach out your hand to receive a set of keys from someone, what movements of your forearm and hand would beinvolved? A) Pronation of the forearm and adduction of the hand B) Supination of the forearm and extension of the hand C) Depression of the forearm and flexion of the hand D) Protraction of the forearm and rotation of the hand E) Eversion of the forearm and abduction of the hand

73)

Which does not correctly pair a movement with its opposing movement? A) Flexion - extension B) Abduction - adduction C) Pronation - supination D) Elevation - retraction E) Dorsiflexion - plantar flexion

74)

Which is not a correct pairing of a joint with its common name? A) Radiocarpal joint- wrist B) Glenohumeral joint - elbow C) Metacarpophalangeal - knuckle D) Temporomandibular - TMJ E) Talocrural - ankle

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75) In the temporomandibular joint, a pad of fibrocartilage called the _________ divides the synovial cavity into two separate chambers. A) meniscus B) articulardisc C) mandibularpartition D) sphenomandibularligament E) coronoidcapsule

76)

The articular capsule of the temporomandibular joint is exceptionally A) loose. B) tight.

77) When protracting the jaw or making small side-to-side movements during chewing, the temporomandibular joint makes ________ movements. A) rotation B) gliding C) flexion D) extension E) circumduction

78) When elevating the mandible to chew food, the temporomandibular joint functions as a _________ joint. A) pivot B) ball andsocket C) hinge D) saddle

79)

Which ligament is not associated with the glenohumeral joint?

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A) Coracoacromialligament B) Coracohumeral ligament C) Glenohumeral ligament D) Humeral collateral ligament

80)

The acromioclavicular joint is part of the A) sternum. B) shoulder. C) elbow. D) neck. E) cranium.

81)

The sternoclavicular joint is a saddle joint with a _______ range of movement. A) wide B) narrow

82) The coracoclavicular ligament is a ______ ligament that connects the clavicle to part of the _______. A) strong; scapula B) strong; sternum C) weak; scapula D) weak; sternum

83)

The glenohumeral joint exhibits

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A) a high degree ofstability and a wide range of motion. B) a high degree ofstability but a narrow range of motion. C) a low level ofstability but a wide range of motion. D) a low level ofstability and a narrow range of motion.

84) One of the weakest parts of the shoulder is the part that lacks tendons of the rotator cuff. This weak area is the ______ aspect of the shoulder. A) inferior B) superior C) anterior D) posterior

85)

The glenohumeral ligaments are A) strong anddistinct. B) weak andindistinct.

86)

Which joints are responsible for flexion and extension at the elbow? A) Glenohumeral andhumeroulnar B) Humeroulnar and humeroradial C) Humeroulnar, humeroradial, and radioulnar D) Humeroradial, radioulnar, and radiocarpal E) Humeroradial and radioulnar

87)

The elbow is a _______ joint.

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A) plane B) hinge C) condyle D) saddle

88)

Which ligament is responsible for holding the head of the radius in place? A) Anular ligament B) Ulnar collateral ligament C) Radial collateral ligament D) Transverse humeral ligament E) Deltoid ligament

89)

The main ligament supporting the lateral aspect of the elbow is the A) radial collateralligament. B) lateral cruciateligament. C) annularligament. D) ulnar collateralligament. E) ulnar condylar ligament.

90)

The elbow contains _____ articular capsule(s). A) one B) two C) three

91)

The fibrocartilage rim that deepens the hip socket is the

Version 1

A) coxalretinaculum. B) obturatormembrane. C) acetabularlabrum. D) glenoid labrum.

92)

Strong reinforcement for the anterior aspect of the hip joint is provided by the Y-shaped A) iliofemoralligament. B) pubofemoralligament. C) ligament of thehead of the femur. D) ischiofemoralligament.

93)

The ligamentum teres of the hip extends from the A) ilium to thelesser trochanter of the femur. B) acetabulum to thehead of the femur. C) pubis to thegreater trocanter of the femur. D) iliac crest to thehead of the femur. E) ischium to theintertrochanteric crest of the femur.

94)

When compared to the shoulder, the hip joint has A) a deeper bonysocket and stronger supporting ligaments. B) a deeper bonysocket but weaker supporting ligaments. C) a shallower bonysocket and weaker supporting ligaments. D) a shallower bonysocket but stronger supporting ligaments.

95) In addition to its hinge function, when the knee is _______ it allows for some slight________.

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A) flexed; circumduction B) flexed; rotation C) extended; supination D) extended; gliding

96)

Which knee ligament is most crucial for preventing hyperadduction? A) Tibial collateralligament B) Fibular collateralligament C) Patellarligament D) Anterior cruciateligament E) Medial meniscus

97) the

In addition to the joint between the tibia and the femur, the knee contains a joint between

A) fibula and thefemur. B) patella and thefibula. C) patella and thefemur. D) patella and thetibia.

98)

The patellar ligament attaches the patella to the A) femur. B) quadricepsmuscle. C) fibula. D) tibia. E) hamstring muscles.

99)

Which of the following describes a meniscus?

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A) Attach one bone to another at a joint B) Fibrous cartilagepads C) Flat,fluid-filled sacs D) Found only at thetemporomandibular joint E) Attach muscles to bones

100)

What is the function of the cruciate ligaments in the knee joint? A) Hold the patella in place on the femur B) Hold the patella in place on the tibia C) Limit the movement of the femur on the tibia D) Limit the movement of the fibula on the femur E) Limit the movement of the fibula on the tibia

101) The deltoid ligament, lateral ligament, and tibiofibular ligaments belong to the ________ joint. A) tarsometatarsal B) talocrural C) humeroradial D) knee E) fibulometatarsal

102) In the human body, joints start to form by the _________ week of embryonic development. A) 4th B) 8th C) 6th D) 10th E) 12th

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103) During development of synovial joints, the articular capsule forms from mesenchymal tissue that is A) laterallylocated. B) centrallylocated.

104) Common, wear-and-tear arthritis, in which repeated use of a joint gradually wears down the articular cartilage, is known as A) gout. B) osteoarthritis. C) rheumatoidarthritis. D) osteopenia. E) articular porosis.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 105) A slightly mobile joint is referred to as a(n) _________.

106) In a gomphosis, a tooth is held in place byfibrous structures known as __________ membranes.

107) A _________ is an elongated, rigid object that can be used toalter the distance of movement produced by a force.

108) When the distal end of a limb makes a circular motion while the proximal end of the limb stays stationary, such that the entire limb's movement defines an imaginary cone shape, the motion is known as ___________.

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109) Humans are able to grasp objects between the thumb and fingers due to a special joint movement called _____________.

110) In an older adult, the tissue in a suture may become completely ossified, fusing the skull bones together. This type of suture is called a _____________.

111)

The lining of an articular capsule is called the ___________ membrane.

112)

A joint in which the bone can move in two planes is said to be __________.

113) At the knee, a bone called the ____________ is embedded within the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle.

114)

A common knee injury is a torn ACL, which stands for anterior ________ ligament.

115) During development, tissue called ___________ differentiates to form the connective tissues of cartilagenous and fibrous joints.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 116) Define "angular motion" and describe two examples of joint movements that are angular.In addition, providetwo examples of movementsthat are not angular.For each of the four types of motion, provide an example of a joint that demonstrates that movement.

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117) Imagine that you are designing a two-segment robot arm that has the sole function of bending and straightening at a single joint. When designing the robotjoint, which jointin the human body would you try to copy? What features would your robot joint share with the biological joint? Would mobility or stability be your priority?

SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions.

118)

118.1) This figure shows the temporomandibular joint. Which number indicates the sphenomandibular ligament? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) None of the choices is correct.

118.2) This figure shows the temporomandibular joint. Which number indicates the articular capsule?

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A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) None of the choices is correct.

119)

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119.1) These figures show the coxal joint. Which number indicates the pubofemoral ligament? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

119.2)

These figures show the coxal joint. What structure does number 6 indicate?

A) Ischiofemoral ligament B) Iliofemoral ligament C) Articular capsule D) Ligament of head of femur E) Acetabular ligament

Version 1

120)

120.1) This figure shows the knee joint. Which number indicates the tibial collateral ligament? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 6

120.2)

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This figure shows the knee joint. What structure does number 4 indicate?

A) Posterior cruciate ligament B) Fibular collateral ligament C) Medial meniscus D) Lateral meniscus E) Anterior cruciate ligament

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 09_4e 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) TRUE 20) TRUE 21) FALSE 22) FALSE 23) TRUE 24) FALSE 25) TRUE 26) B Version 1

27) B 28) A 29) B 30) C 31) C 32) B 33) C 34) E 35) C 36) D 37) A 38) D 39) E 40) B 41) D 42) E 43) A 44) D 45) A 46) C 47) B 48) C 49) B 50) D 51) D 52) C 53) D 54) B 55) A 56) A Version 1

57) B 58) B 59) A 60) C 61) B 62) B 63) A 64) C 65) D 66) E 67) D 68) B 69) A 70) A 71) C 72) B 73) D 74) B 75) B 76) A 77) B 78) C 79) D 80) B 81) A 82) A 83) C 84) A 85) B 86) B Version 1

87) B 88) A 89) A 90) A 91) C 92) A 93) B 94) A 95) B 96) B 97) C 98) D 99) B 100) C 101) B 102) C 103) A 104) B 105) amphiarthrosis 106) periodontal 107) lever 108) circumduction 109) opposition 110) synostosis 111) synovial 112) biaxial 113) patella 114) cruciate 115) mesenchyme

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117) While varied answers might be acceptable, one imagines a uniaxial hinge joint that resembles the elbow. It should be highly stable and designed with features that minimize friction and provide an effective fulcrum. 118) Section Break 118.1) D 118.2) A 119) Section Break 119.1) B 119.2) D 120) Section Break 120.1) C 120.2) E

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CHAPTER 10 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The floor of the pelvic cavity includes skeletal muscles that function to support organs in that cavity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Deep fascia is also known asmuscular fascia; itis composed of dense irregular connective tissue. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Because skeletal muscle cells are so close together, muscle contains very few blood vessels. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) The connections between the nervous system and skeletal muscle allow for voluntary control of movement. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Satellite cells are multinucleate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Muscles that are used for precisely controlled movements generally contain large motor units. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

The neuromuscular junction is usually located at one of the two ends of the muscle fiber. ⊚ ⊚

Myosin kinase catalyzes the transfer ofP ⊚ ⊚

true false

i from creatine phosphate to ADP.

true false

Aerobic respiration involves the oxidation of pyruvate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) If someone is engaged in six minutes of vigorous exercise, nearly all of the ATP used is generated by phosphate transfer. ⊚ true ⊚ false

11) Heavy breathing to compensate for an oxygen debt helps the body convert lactate to glucose. ⊚ true ⊚ false

12)

In general, fast-twitch fibers generate less power than slow-twitch fibers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

13) Compared to slow-twitch fibers, fast-twitch fibers respond to a stimulus with less delay and with a shorter contraction duration. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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14)

Glycolytic muscle fibers tend to be very rich in myoglobin and mitochondria. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) One's genes have a greater impact than exercise habits in determining the proportion of fast-twitch and slow-twitch fibers throughout the body. ⊚ true ⊚ false

16)

The contraction phase of a muscle twitch has a shorter duration than the relaxation phase. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) A subthreshold stimulus evokes only a smallmuscle twitch instead of a full tetanic contraction. ⊚ true ⊚ false

18) In a graph of wave summation, the tension level returns to baseline between each peak of force. ⊚ ⊚

19)

During REM sleep, muscle tone decreases significantly. ⊚ ⊚

20)

true false

In general, a muscle's resting length is itsoptimal lengthfor force generation.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

21) One of the most crucial factors in the development of fatigue appears to be a depletion of ATP. ⊚ ⊚

22)

true false

Smooth muscle cells tend to be shorter but thicker than skeletal muscle cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

23) Myosin light-chain phosphatase is an enzyme that dephosphorylates the myosin heads in smooth muscle, which stopsATPase activity and fosters relaxation of smooth muscle. ⊚ ⊚

true false

24) Energy requirements for smooth muscle contractions are generally higher than those for skeletal muscle contractions. ⊚ ⊚

25)

true false

Similar to skeletal muscle cells, all smooth muscle cells are excited by ACh. ⊚ true ⊚ false

26) In the hierarchy of skeletal muscle fiber components, the myofibril is made up of myofilaments. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

27)

The fat and connective tissue that encircle a beef steak form the endomysium. ⊚ ⊚

28)

true false

The T-tubules and sarcoplasmic reticulum are unique to muscle fibers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

29) The embryonic-like cells that remain in adult skeletal muscle tissue are known as satellite cells. ⊚ ⊚

30)

true false

During skeletal muscle fiber contraction, the I bands and H zones narrow. ⊚ ⊚

true false

31) The return of a contracted muscle fiber to its resting length is an active (energy requiring) process. ⊚ ⊚

true false

32) During skeletal muscle contraction, more force is created when more motor units are activated. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

33) In an isotonic contraction, the tension produced exceeds the resistance and muscle fibers will shorten. ⊚ ⊚

true false

34) Slow-twitch fibers are specialized to continue contracting for extended periods of time without experiencing fatigue. ⊚ true ⊚ false

35) The metabolic reactions within fast-twitch fibers derive much of their energy from aerobic respiration. ⊚ true ⊚ false

36)

Cardiac muscle cells tend to be thicker and shorter than skeletal muscle cells. ⊚ ⊚

37)

true false

The number of satellite cells in skeletal muscle steadily decreases with age. ⊚ ⊚

true false

38) Smooth muscle tissue is found in the organs of the digestive tract, the walls of blood vessels, and the iris. ⊚ ⊚

true false

39) When a skeletal muscle fiber is at rest, there is more sodium outside the cell as compared to the sarcoplasm. ⊚ true ⊚ false Version 1

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 40) Select all that are true when a muscle fiber is at rest. A) There is a charge difference across the sarcolemma. B) Sodium-potassium pumps are active. C) Calcium is stored in the sarcoplasm. D) ACh receptors are open.

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 41) The characteristic of muscle that allows it to be passively stretched is A) conductivity. B) elasticity. C) excitability. D) extensibility. E) contractility.

42) Which are possible functions of skeletal muscles? a: Maintenance of posture. b: Both highly coordinated and localized simple movements. c: Temperature regulation. d: Support of certain body organs. e: Regulation ofthe movement of material through certain body tracts. A) a, b, e B) a, b, c C) a, b, c, e D) a, b, c, d E) a, b, c, d, e

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43) The property of muscle tissue that allows an impulse to travel down the entire length of the cell membrane is A) elasticity. B) conductivity. C) extensibility. D) contractility. E) responsibility.

44) is

The spring-like property that returns muscle to its original length after a contraction ends

A) extensibility. B) elasticity. C) contractility. D) treppe effect. E) conductivity.

45) In general, a skeletal muscle is composed of a: connective tissue sheaths b: nerves c: arteries d: veins e: muscle fibers A) a, b, c, e. B) a, b, d, e. C) b, c, d, e. D) a, b, c, d. E) a, b, c, d, e.

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46) Which is a correct listing of the hierarchy of a skeletal muscle’s components, beginning with the smallest? a: Myofibrils b: Muscle fiber c: Fascicle d: Skeletal muscle A) a, b, c, d B) a, c, b, d C) d, c, b, a D) c, b, a, d E) b, c, a, d

47) Which is the correct order of the connective tissue layers of a skeletal muscle, beginning with the most superficial? a: Endomysium b: Epimysium c: Perimysium A) a, b, c B) b, a, c C) c, a, b D) b, c, a E) c, b, a

48)

The structure responsible for attaching muscle to bone is a A) sphincter. B) ligament. C) fascia. D) tendon. E) myofibril.

49) A flat, thin structure made of dense connective tissue that serves toattach a muscle to a bone (or toanother muscle) is a(n) Version 1

A) aponeurosis. B) tendon. C) perimysium. D) myolemma. E) superficial fascia.

50)

The neurons that stimulate muscle contraction are called _____ neurons. A) sensory B) contractile C) inhibitory D) motor E) association

51)

The multiple nuclei in skeletal muscle cells are the result of the A) fusion ofmyoblasts. B) cytokinesis ofembryonic satellite cells. C) spontaneousdevelopment of nuclei in embryonic cells. D) stimulation offibroblasts by hormones. E) action oftestosterone on mesenchyme cell.

52) The membranous network that wraps around myofibrils and holds relatively high concentrations of calciumis known as the A) sarcolemma. B) T-tubule. C) sarcoplasmicreticulum. D) sarcomere. E) Golgi body.

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53) the

Invaginations of the muscle cell membrane that extend deep into the cell are known as

A) T-tubules. B) terminalcisternae. C) titincomplexes. D) Z-discs. E) end plates.

54)

Which are the reservoirs that store the calcium required for muscle contraction? A) Synaptic vesicles B) Synaptic clefts C) Terminal cisternae D) Peroxisomes E) Mitochondria

55)

Which protein makes up the thick filaments? A) Myosin B) Actin C) Tropomyosin D) Troponin E) Myopathy

56)

Which is not a protein found in thin filaments? A) Actin B) Troponin C) Tropomyosin D) Myosin E) No exceptions; all are found in thin filaments

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57) Each thick filament contains about ______ protein molecules (each molecule has two heads and two braided tails). A) 2 B) 20 C) 200 D) 2000

58) A skeletal muscle cell contains hundreds to thousands of _________, which are complex organelles. They are cylindrical in shape, 1–2 micrometers in diameter, and as long as the cell. A) myofibrils B) microfilaments C) sarcomeres D) T-tubules E) sarcolemma

59)

What is the letter associated with the dark bands in a sarcomere? A) I B) A C) Z D) M E) H

60) Which letter is associated with the line that is a thin protein structure that serves as an attachment site for thin filament ends?

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A) I B) A C) Z D) M E) H

61) Which letter is associated with a zone (in a relaxed muscle) that is a little more lightly shaded because only thick filaments are present? A) I B) A C) M D) Z E) H

62)

Which letter is associated with the light band and contains thin filaments only? A) I B) A C) M D) Z E) H

63) Which of the following structures has the active sites to which the heads of the thick filaments will bind? A) Actin B) Troponin C) Tropomyosin D) Myosin E) Sarcoplasm

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64) A sarcomere is defined as the distance from one _____ to the next adjacent ____ . (The same answer fills in both spaces.) A) Z disc B) I band C) H zone D) A band E) M line

65)

Myoglobin is a molecule within muscle cells that can bind A) creatinephosphate. B) oxygen. C) hemoglobin. D) acetylcholine. E) ATP.

66)

A typical skeletal muscle cell contains approximately _____ mitochondria. A) 3 B) 30 C) 300 D) 3000

67) The presence of mitochondria and myoglobin facilitate _________ respiration in muscle cells. A) aerobic B) anaerobic

68) One feature that helps provide fast energy to a muscle cell is the presence of granules containing the complex carbohydrate Version 1

A) creatinephosphate. B) myoglobin. C) glycogen. D) nebulin. E) hemoglobin.

69)

A motor unit consists of A) multiple motorneurons and multiple muscle fibers. B) a single motorneuron and the multiple muscle fibers it controls. C) multiple motorneurons and the one muscle fiber they control. D) one synapticterminal button, a cleft, and an acetylcholine receptor. E) an end plate, a T-tubule, and sarcoplasmic reticulum.

70)

A motor unit within the powerful quadriceps muscle would A) contain severalmotor neurons. B) be much like thosein the eye muscles. C) generallycontainless than ten fibers. D) generally containseveral hundred fibers.

71)

Fibers from one motor unit A) are clusteredtogether within one fascicle of the muscle. B) are dispersedthroughout most of the muscle.

72) The narrow space that separates the motor neuron and the skeletal muscle fiber in a neuromuscular junction is called the

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A) motor endplate. B) synapticvesicle. C) synapticcleft. D) synaptic knob.

73)

Which structures are reservoirs that store acetylcholine? A) Synapticvesicles B) Synaptic clefts C) Terminal cisternae D) Lysosomes E) Sarcomeres

74)

When an impulse arrives at the knob of the motor neuron, calcium A) enters throughactive transport pumps and triggers the release of transmitter. B) enters throughvoltage-gated channels and triggers the release of transmitter. C) exits throughactive transport pumps and brings transmitter with it. D) exits throughvoltage-gated channels and triggers transmitter release. E) is released fromsynaptic vesicles.

75)

Acetylcholine is released from a neuron A) by a primaryactive transport pump. B) by rapid diffusionwhen a voltage-gated ion channel opens for it. C) through exocytosiswhen a vesicle fuses with the membrane. D) by conductionthrough a gap junction from nerve to muscle.

76)

Acetylcholine exerts its effect by

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A) stimulating themotor neuron's synaptic knob. B) binding toreceptors at the motor end plate. C) activatingacetylcholinesterase. D) allowing calciumto enter the cell.

77) Which is the neurotransmitter that causes the release of calcium ions from reservoirs within the muscle celland therebyinitiates the steps of contraction? A) Acetylcholinesterase B) Acetylcholine C) Serotonin D) Norepinephrine

78)

The calcium ions involved in skeletal muscle contraction bind to a(n)______ subunit. A) myosin B) actin C) elastin D) tropomyosin E) troponin

79)

An end plate potential is an event that involves a gain of A) positive charge along the inside of the cell membrane, as potassium rapidly enters. B) positive charge along the inside of the cell membrane, as sodium rapidly enters. C) negative charge along the inside of the cell membrane, as potassium rapidly enters. D) negative charge along the inside of the cell membrane, as sodium rapidly enters.

80)

The action potential of a muscle fiber occurs

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A) at the endplate. B) along thesarcolemma and down the T-tubules. C) within thesarcoplasmic reticulum. D) in themitochondria.

81)

The repolarization of the action potential involves the opening of A) chemically gatedNa + channels. B) voltage-gatedNa + channels. C) chemically gatedK + channels. D) voltage-gatedK + channels.

82) Which sequence correctly lists the changes that allow the thick and thin filaments to slide past one another in skeletal muscle contraction? A) Attach - pivot - detach - return B) Pivot - attach - return - detach C) Attach - detach - pivot - return D) Return - pivot - attach - detach E) Pivot - attach - detach - return

83)

During which phase of the crossbridge cycle is ATP split into ADP and P i? A) Immediately preceding the detachment of the myosin head. B) Immediately precedingthe resetting of the myosin head. C) Immediately preceding the power stroke.

84)

A power stroke involves

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A) an actin moleculepulling a myosin molecule toward the M-line. B) a thin filamentshortening in length and thereby shortening the sarcomere. C) a myosin headpulling a thin filament toward the center of the sarcomere. D) a thick filamentpushing an actin filament towards the nearest Z-line.

85)

A drug that inhibited acetylcholinesterase would result in A) a failure to stimulate the muscle due to decreased ACh release. B) enhanced stimulation of the muscle due to decreased ACh breakdown. C) enhanced stimulation of the muscle due to enhanced ACh release. D) poor muscle stimulation due to enhanced ACh breakdown.

86)

For relaxation to occur, A) ACh receptors close and Ca++ channels on the sarcoplasmic reticulum close. B) ACh receptors close and Ca++ channels on the sarcoplasmic reticulum open. C) ACh receptors open and Ca++ channels on the sarcoplasmic reticulum close. D) ACh receptors open and Ca++ channels on the sarcoplasmic reticulum open.

87)

For relaxation to occur,

A) calcium leaves the sarcoplasmic reticulum, and troponin binds calcium and blocks the binding sites on actin. B) calcium enters themyofibril, it detaches from myosin, and the binding sites on myosin becomeinactive. C) sarcoplasm calciumlevels fall, calcium is removed from troponin, and tropomyosin blocks bindingsites on actin. D) extracellularcalcium levels fall, calcium is pumped into the myofibril, and tropomyosinslides away from actin.

88)

When a muscle relaxes,

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A) crossbridges formand muscle extensibility returns the muscle to rest length. B) crossbridges formand muscle elasticity returns the muscle to rest length. C) crossbridges stopforming and muscle elasticity returns the muscle to rest length. D) crossbridges stopforming and muscle extensibility returns the muscle to rest length

89)

Phosphate transfer is used for A) immediate ATP needsand is dependent on oxygen. B) immediate ATPneeds and is not dependent on oxygen. C) long term ATP needsand is dependent on oxygen. D) long term ATP needsand is not dependent on the presence of oxygen.

90)

Glycolysis is an A) aerobic processthat occurs in the cytosol. B) aerobic processthat occurs in the mitochondria. C) anaerobic processthat occurs in the cytosol. D) anaerobic processthat occurs in the mitochondria.

91)

The net energy yield from one glucose molecule through the process of glycolysis is A) 2 ATP. B) 6 ATP. C) 30 ATP. D) 36 ATP.

92)

For a sprint lasting 60 seconds, ATP is supplied primarily by A) aerobic respiration only. B) phosphate transfer and glycolysis. C) conversion of lactate to pyruvate. D) phosphate transfer only.

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93)

Oxidative fibers are A) red andfatigue-resistant. B) red andfatigable. C) white andfatigue-resistant. D) white andfatigable.

94) The type of fibers specialized to continue contracting for extended periods of time, as would be required in running a marathon, for example, are _____ fibers. A) fast-twitch B) slow-twitch C) intermediate

95) The vascular supply to slow-twitch muscle fibers is ______ the network of capillaries around fast-twitch muscle fibers. A) more extensivethan B) less extensivethan C) the same as thatof

96)

"Intermediate fiber" is another name for A) a fast-twitch, glycolytic fiber. B) a fast-twitch, oxidative fiber. C) a slow-twitch, glycolytic fiber. D) a slow-twitch, oxidative fiber.

97) Which fibers dominate many of the back and calf muscles that contract almost continually to maintain posture?

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A) Slow-twitch B) Fast-twitch C) Intermediate

98) Muscles of the eye and hand have a high percentage of _______ fibers, because these parts of the body require quick, responsive movements. A) fast-twitch B) slow-twitch

99) Events of excitation contraction coupling, such as the release of calcium from intracellular stores, occur during the ________ period of a muscle twitch. A) relaxation B) contraction C) latent

100) Release of crossbridges and a decline in muscle tension characterize the _______ period of a twitch. A) contraction B) latent C) relaxation

101) The increase in muscle tension that occurs with an increase in the intensity (voltage) of a stimulus is called

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A) recruitment. B) tone. C) wave summation. D) incompletetetany.

102) Consider the difference between lifting a light pad of paper versus a heavy textbook. The primary way the level of force of muscle contraction is controlled is by A) recruiting adifferent number of motor units. B) activatingdifferent regions of the muscle. C) activating themotor units at a different frequency. D) altering thenumber of crossbridges each individual fiber uses.

103)

In a lab, wave summation is demonstrated by increasing the _________ of the stimulus. A) intensity B) frequency C) capacitance D) warm up time

104) Muscle tone is a result of _________ nervous system activity, and it acts to _________ joint position. A) involuntary,stabilize B) involuntary,continuously vary C) voluntary,stabilize D) voluntary,continuously vary

105)

Which contraction occurs when you try (unsuccessfully) to move a wall?

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A) Isometric B) Isotonic

106)

When a muscle is isometrically contracted, its length _______ change. A) does B) does not

107) The top long-distance runners probably have _______ proportion of slow muscle fibers in their leg muscles. A) a higher B) a lower C) the same

108)

The most prevalentof skeletal muscle fibers in the body are _____ fibers. A) slow-twitch B) fast-twitch C) intermediate

109) One of the reasons you might struggle to lift a heavy object with your arm fully extended is because A) in extension, theproximity of Z discs to thick filaments restricts the slidingmovementwithin sarcomeres. B) full extensionresults in decreased overlap between thick and thin filaments in themuscle. C) in that posture,somemyosin heads overlap actin in the wrong orientation andtugactin in the wrong direction. D) motor neurons cannot release as much ACh in that posture.

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110) with

Increased phosphate ion concentration is believed tocontribute to fatigue byinterfering

A) calcium releasefrom the sarcoplasmic reticulum. B) levels ofavailable ATP to provide energy for contraction. C) phosphate releaseby myosin heads during crossbridge cycling. D) ACh release by synaptic knobs of motor neurons.

111)

Which may occur as a result of muscle atrophy? A) Reduction in muscle size. B) Fibers become weaker. C) Muscle loses tone. D) Fibers waste away and die. E) All of the choices are correct.

112)

With increased age, skeletal muscles show A) a decrease in thenumber of myofibrils. B) an increase inmuscle fiber diameter. C) no change inoxygen storage capability. D) increased glycogenreserves. E) a tendency tofatigue less rapidly.

113)

Lifting weights will cause muscles to enlarge. This is primarily due to A) an increase in the number of muscle cells. B) an increase in the size of muscle cells.

114)

A term that describes the change in muscle following a lack of exercise is

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A) proliferation. B) hypertrophy. C) convergence. D) atrophy. E) myofascia.

115) The type of muscle fibers that have only a single nucleus, both thick and thin filaments, but no Z discs, are A) skeletal. B) cardiac. C) smooth. D) cardiac andsmooth. E) cardiac andskeletal.

116) Growth of the uterus during pregnancy is accomplished by _________ of its smooth muscle. A) neitherhypertrophy nor hyperplasia B) both hypertrophyand hyperplasia C) hypertrophy butnot hyperplasia D) hyperplasia butnot hypertrophy

117)

The latchbridge mechanism of myosin heads is a property of ________ muscle. A) cardiac B) skeletal C) smooth

118)

To initiate a smooth muscle cellcontraction, calcium enters the cell and binds to

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A) troponin, which then activates myosin light-chain kinase. B) calmodulin, which then binds to and activates myosin light-chain kinase. C) a myosin head,which then activates calmodulin. D) myosin light-chain kinase, which then hydrolyzes ATP. E) aphosphatase,which then removes the tropomyosin blockade.

119) The branch of the nervous system that helps govern smooth muscle contraction is the _______ nervous system. A) autonomic B) somatic

120)

When smooth muscle is stretched for a prolonged period of time, it responds by A) contracting. B) relaxing.

121) Smooth muscle tissue in which cells are individually sent signals to contract (rather than contracting in unison) is referred to as A) single-unit. B) multiunit.

122) The iris of the eye is composed of nonstriated muscle that is involuntarily controlled. Therefore, it must contain A) skeletalmuscle. B) multiunit smoothmuscle. C) single-unit smoothmuscle. D) cardiacmuscle.

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123)

The most abundant form of smooth muscle is A) single-unit, whichis also known as visceral smooth muscle. B) cardiac muscle,which is also known as visceral smooth muscle. C) multiunit, whichis also known as visceral smooth muscle. D) multiunit, whichis also known as varicose muscle. E) single-unit, whichis also known as somatic nervous system muscle.

124) Rather than tightly coupled synapses between neurons and muscle cells, single-unit smooth muscle contains A) gap junctions thatconnect neurons to smooth muscle cells. B) varicosities of asubset ofmuscle fibersso that individual cells can be separatelystimulated. C) diffuse junctionswhere neuron varicosities are responsible for neurotransmitter release. D) plaques andcaveolae that contain multiple hormone receptors for discrete endocrinecontrol.

125) The type of muscle fibers that are striated, form Y-shaped branches, and are joined by intercalated discs are A) skeletal. B) cardiac. C) smooth. D) voluntary. E) skeletal andvoluntary.

126) Which type of smooth muscle is innervated most similar to skeletal muscle, with muscle cells arranged as motor units and each cell stimulated by a single motor neuron? A) Multiunit smooth muscle B) Single-unit smooth muscle

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FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 127) A circular muscle band that contracts at an orifice is also known as a _______________.

128) __________ is a protein thatanchors myofibrils that are adjacent to the sarcolemma to proteins in the sarcolemma.

129) Relaxation is facilitated by the release of passive tension that developed in cablelike __________ proteins that were compressed during contraction.

130) The electron transport system refers to oxidative phophorylation using the coenzymes FADH 2 and _______.

131) When someone engages in exercise that requires more oxygen than is available, they develop a(n) _____ _______ (2 words), which results in heavy breathing for several minutes after the exercise is complete.

132) A graph of a muscle twitch contains three periods. The period during which there is no change in external muscle tension (and no change in muscle length) is the ________ period.

133) A continuous, smooth contraction of musclein which twitches are fully fused is referred to as _________.

134) A reduced ability to generate tension due to recent exertion of force is known as muscle ________.

135) During aging, muscle is often replaced by dense connective tissue, a process called _________. Version 1

136) Within smooth muscle cells, intermediate filaments are linked by dense _________ at points where they attach on the inner surface of the cell membrane.

137) Each skeletal muscle is composed of _____________, which are bundles of muscle fibers.

138)

The _____________ is the connective tissue covering of a fascicle.

139) The _____________ is the innermost connective tissue layer that surrounds each muscle fiber.

140) One of the names for the areolar connective tissue and adipose connective tissue that separates muscle from skin is ______________ fascia.

141) The junction between an axon and the muscle fiber itself is called a _____________ junction.

142)

The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber is called the ______________.

143) On a muscle fiber, the two terminal cisternae and the centrally placed T-tubule form a structure called a ______________.

144) During muscle contraction, myosin heads attach to actin and thereby form connections called ______________.

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145)

The functional contractile unit of a skeletal muscle fiber is called a _______________.

146) The enzyme _____________ resides in the synaptic cleft and breaks down molecules of ACh.

147) Skeletal muscle contraction requires large amounts of energy in the form of ___________ in order to complete the sequence of cyclic events that lead to sarcomere shortening.

148) When tension outputexceeds resistance and the muscle exerts a constant force as it changes length, the contraction is described as _________.

149)

An increase in the size of a muscle fiber is called _________________.

150) ______________ muscle fibers have large myoglobin stores, slow contraction velocity, and the highest resistance to fatigue.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 151) A champion weight lifter picks up a pencil.A minute later she picks up a sixty-pound object using the same muscles.What was different about the two movements?Also, what are the differences (at the cellular and molecular levels) in her arm musclesas compared to those of a weaker, untrained person?

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152) Describe a hypothetical situation in which two isolated human populations evolve very different muscle fiber composition.In other words, what environmental conditionsor foodgathering strategies might cause a prevalence of one fiber type (fast-twitch versus slow-twitch) to be more adaptive than another?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 10_4e 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) FALSE 19) TRUE 20) TRUE 21) FALSE 22) FALSE 23) TRUE 24) FALSE 25) FALSE 26) TRUE Version 1

27) FALSE 28) TRUE 29) TRUE 30) TRUE 31) FALSE 32) TRUE 33) TRUE 34) TRUE 35) FALSE 36) TRUE 37) TRUE 38) TRUE 39) TRUE 40) [A, B] 41) D 42) E 43) B 44) B 45) E 46) A 47) D 48) D 49) A 50) D 51) A 52) C 53) A 54) C 55) A 56) D Version 1

57) C 58) A 59) B 60) C 61) E 62) A 63) A 64) A 65) B 66) C 67) A 68) C 69) B 70) D 71) B 72) C 73) A 74) B 75) C 76) B 77) B 78) E 79) B 80) B 81) D 82) A 83) B 84) C 85) B 86) A Version 1

87) C 88) C 89) B 90) C 91) A 92) B 93) A 94) B 95) A 96) B 97) A 98) A 99) C 100) C 101) A 102) A 103) B 104) A 105) A 106) B 107) A 108) B 109) B 110) C 111) E 112) A 113) B 114) D 115) C 116) B Version 1

117) C 118) B 119) A 120) B 121) B 122) B 123) A 124) C 125) B 126) A 127) sphincter 128) Dystrophin 129) connectin 130) NADH 131) oxygen debt 132) latent 133) tetany 134) fatigue 135) fibrosis 136) plaques 137) fascicles 138) perimysium 139) endomysium 140) superficial 141) neuromuscular 142) sarcolemma 143) triad 144) crossbridges 145) sarcomere 146) acetylcholinesterase Version 1

147) ATP 148) isotonic 149) hypertrophy 150) Slow-twitch 151) The movement of the heavier object involved recruitment of more motor units. Those units were able to do the job because her resistance training exercise stimulated the hypertrophy of skeletal muscle cells; that is, individual cells contain more myofibrils and are capable of generating more tension during contraction. (One might also discuss the possibility that she has more powerful fast-twitch fibers and perhaps a few more muscle cells than nonathletic peers.) 152) One might suggest that slow-twitch fibers are adaptive for hunters that used distance running to chase down prey that were fast but easily winded. In contrast, if prey animals were relatively slow moving, human hunters with lots of fast-twitch fibers might eat well and pass on their genes.

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CHAPTER 11 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The rectus abdominis is classified as a convergent muscle. ⊚ ⊚

Muscles that assist an agonist in performing a movement are known as synergists. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Several pharynx muscles are innervated by cranial nerve X, the vagus nerve. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Two features that are used in the naming of muscles are tissue color and fiber size. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Some muscles are named according to the orientation of their fibers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The omohyoid is an example of an infrahyoid muscle. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) When the quadratus lumborum muscles contractbilaterally, they flex the vertebral column.

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⊚ ⊚

Contraction of the ⊚ ⊚

true false

The pelvic diaphragm supports the pelvic viscera. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

The internal oblique and external oblique muscles both insert on the linea alba. ⊚ ⊚

11)

serratus posterior inferior contributes to forced expiration.

Contraction of the rectus abdominis results in rotation of the vertebral column. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

The anal triangle includes the urethra. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) Muscles of the vertebral column are simple, having only one inferior attachment and one superior attachment. ⊚ ⊚

14)

true false

As the diaphragm contracts, the vertical dimensions of the thoracic cavity are decreased.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

15) A condition in which a portion of the viscera protrudes through a weakened point of the muscular wall of the abdominopelvic cavity is known as a hernia. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) The flexor pollicis longus muscle attaches proximally to the medial epicondyle of the humerus. ⊚ true ⊚ false

17)

Most muscles within the medial compartment of the thigh function to adduct the thigh. ⊚ ⊚

true false

18)

The piriformis muscle attaches distally tothe greater trochanter of the femur. ⊚ true ⊚ false

19)

The pectoralis major extends the arm, whereas the latissimus dorsi flexes it. ⊚ true ⊚ false

20)

Hamstring muscles extend the thigh. ⊚ true ⊚ false

21) The quadriceps femoris is a composite muscle with four heads that work together to flex the leg.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 22) For axial muscles, which is usually a muscle'sless movable attachment? A) The superior attachment site. B) The inferior attachment site. C) The proximal attachment site. D) The distal attachment site.

23)

A muscle whose action opposes that of the prime mover is known as a(n) A) agonist. B) antagonist. C) synergist. D) extensor.

24)

For elbow flexion, A) biceps brachii isthe agonist and triceps brachii is the antagonist. B) biceps brachii isthe antagonist and triceps brachii is the agonist. C) triceps brachii isthe synergist and biceps brachii is the antagonist. D) deltoid is theagonist and biceps brachii is the synergist. E) biceps brachii is the synergist andtriceps brachii is the agonist.

25)

The word "biceps" in the name of a muscle refers to the fact that A) the insertion ofthe muscle is split into two parts. B) the muscle isshaped in two round sections, one after the other. C) the muscle has twotendons of origin. D) the muscle has twovery different actions.

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26)

The rhomboid muscle is named for its A) size. B) origin. C) fiberorientation. D) shape. E) action.

27)

When a person blinks, she is using her A) occipitofrontalismuscle. B) orbicularisoris. C) procerus. D) orbicularisoculi. E) depressor labiiinferioris.

28) You just ran over a skunk on your way to class. The odor was overwhelming and in response you wrinkled your nose in disgust by contracting your A) nasalismuscle. B) procerusmuscle. C) depressor angulioris. D) frontal belly ofthe occipitofrontalis muscle. E) occipital belly ofthe occipitofrontalis muscle.

29)

Which is the "kiss muscle" used for puckering the lips? A) Orbicularis oris B) Orbicularis oculi C) Depressor labii inferioris D) Depressor anguli oris E) Procerus

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30)

A nursing baby is using what muscle to suckle? A) Risorius B) Platysma C) Mentalis D) Levator labii superioris E) Buccinator

31)

The mentalis muscle has what action? A) Smiling B) Frowning C) Pouting D) Blowing E) Sucking

32)

The frontal belly of the occipitofrontalis muscle causes what action? A) Sneering B) Smiling C) Flaring thenostrils D) Wrinkling the brow(forehead) E) Frowning

33) You hear a sharp noise to your left causing you to shift your eyes in that direction. Which muscles were responsible for your glance?

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A) Left eye - lateral rectus, right eye - medial rectus B) Left eye - medial rectus, right eye - lateral rectus C) Left eye and right eye - lateral rectus D) Left eye and right eye - medial rectus E) Left eye - superior oblique, right eye - inferior oblique

34)

Which extrinsic eye muscle moves through a pulleylike loop? A) Inferioroblique B) Superior oblique C) Lateral rectus D) Medial rectus E) Superior rectus

35)

Which extrinsic eye muscle is innervated by the abducens nerve (CN VI)? A) Inferior oblique B) Superior oblique C) Lateral rectus D) Medial rectus E) Superior rectus

36)

Which cranial nerve innervates the superior oblique muscle? A) The abducensnerve B) The trigeminalnerve C) The trochlearnerve D) The oculomotornerve E) The glossopharyngeal nerve

37)

There are four muscles of mastication. Select the exception.

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A) Buccinator B) Masseter C) Temporalis D) Lateral pterygoid E) Medial pterygoid

38)

Which muscle does not move the mandible? A) Temporalis B) Masseter C) Lateral pterygoid D) Medial pterygoid E) Genioglossus

39)

The ending “glossus” on the name of a muscle refers to A) the tongue. B) mastication. C) the neck. D) swallowing. E) the jaw.

40)

Which muscle is usedfor sticking out the tongue? A) Hyoglossus B) Palatoglossus C) Styloglossus D) Hypoglossus E) Genioglossus

41)

Of the muscles listed, the only one that inserts on the hyoid bone is the

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A) hyoglossus. B) palatoglossus. C) styloglossus. D) lateralpterygoid. E) genioglossus.

42)

Pharyngeal constrictor muscles are especially important for which function? A) Breathing B) Swallowing C) Expressingfright D) Chewing food E) Mixing food with enzymes

43) You have just disembarked from an airplane following a cross-country flight. You are experiencing difficulty in hearing and notice that your ears are plugged. To relieve the pressure you try “yawning” to clear the ear canal. It worked. What muscle was involved? A) Middle constrictor B) Levator veli palatini C) Salpingopharyngeus D) Palatopharyngeus E) Tensor veli palatini

44) Muscles whose functions are to depress either the hyoid bone or the thyroid cartilage of the larynx are the _________ muscles. A) mylohyoid B) suprahyoid C) infrahyoid D) stylohyoid

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45) This muscle has its inferior attachment on the manubrium and sternal end of the clavicle and its superior attachment on the mastoid process. A) Longissimus capitis B) Sternocleidomastoid C) Scalene D) Splenius capitis E) Splenius cervicus

46)

If the right sternocleidomastoid contracts unilaterally, the resulting movement will be A) lateral flexion ofthe head to the right and rotation of the head to the left. B) lateral flexion ofthe head to the left and rotation of the head to the right. C) lateral extensionof the head to the right and rotation of the head to the left. D) lateral extensionof the head to the left and rotation of the head to the right.

47)

When the left and right splenius capitis contract together, the resulting movement is A) wrinkling of thebrow. B) flexion of theneck. C) elevation of thelarynx. D) extension of theneck. E) pulling of the scalp anteriorly.

48) The most laterally placed of the three erector spinae components, the ___________ group, is composed of three parts: cervical, thoracic, and lumbar. A) longissimus B) spinalis C) iliocostalis

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49) This muscle extends and rotates the vertebral column toward the opposite side of the body. Its inferior attachments are on the sacrum and transverse processes of each vertebra and its superior attachments are the spinous processes of more superior vertebrae. A) Multifidus B) Interspinales C) Intertransversarii D) Rotators E) Quadratus lumborum

50) These muscles elevate the ribs and have their origin on the inferior border of the superior rib and their insertion on the superior border of the inferior rib. A) Internal intercostals B) External intercostals C) Transversus thoracis D) Diaphragm E) Serratus posterior inferior

51) When contracted, this muscle causes expansion of the thoracic cavity and increases pressure in the abdominopelvic cavity. Its insertion is on a central tendon. A) Internal intercostals B) External intercostals C) Transversus thoracis D) Diaphragm E) Serratus posterior inferior

52)

The muscle that forms a partition between the thoracic and abdominal cavities is the

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A) scalenes. B) interspinales. C) internalintercostal. D) diaphragm. E) transversusthoracis.

53)

Contraction of the diaphragm assists in A) expiration. B) inspiration. C) flexion at thewaist. D) extension at thewaist. E) All of the choices are correct.

54)

Which of the following elevates the ribs? A) External intercostals B) Internal intercostals C) Serratus posterior inferior D) Transversus thoracis

55)

The deepest of the abdominal muscles are the _________ muscles. A) rectusabdominis B) transversusabdominis C) internaloblique D) externaloblique E) tendinousintersections

56)

Which muscle forms the traditional “six-pack” of a well-toned abdominal wall?

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A) Rectus abdominis B) Transversus abdominis C) Internal oblique D) External oblique E) Longissimus

57)

What are tendinous intersections?

A) Round tendonlike structures attaching muscle to bone. B) Fibrous, perpendicular insertions between successive sheets or blocks of muscle. C) Flat sheets of connective tissue used for muscle insertion. D) Thin layers of muscle used to attach two other muscles together. E) Narrow, vertical, fibrous strips used to attach muscle sheaths of the left and right rectus abdominis.

58)

Which of the abdominal muscles is innervated by spinal nerves T7–T12? A) Rectus abdominis B) Transversus abdominis C) Internal oblique D) External oblique E) None of these choices is correct.

59)

Which of the abdominal muscles has its fibers running in an inferomedial direction? A) Rectus abdominis B) Transversus abdominis C) Internal oblique D) External oblique E) None of these choices is correct.

60)

For defecation to take place, the puborectalis must

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A) contract. B) relax.

61)

What is the diamond-shaped region between the lower appendages called? A) The periosteum B) The pedundal triangle C) The perineum D) The posterior diaphragm E) The coccygeal triangle

62) The superficial layer of the urogenital triangle contains three muscles. Select the exception. A) Puborectalis B) Bulbospongiosus C) Ischiocavernosus D) Superficial transverse perineal

63)

Of the muscles listed, which is the only one not innervated by the pudendal nerve? A) External anal sphincter B) Coccygeus C) Iliococcygeus D) Pubococcygeus E) Puborectalis

64) In the male, which muscle ejects urine or semen, compresses the base of the penis, and helps in formation of an erection?

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A) Iliococcygeus B) Superficial transverse perineal muscle C) External urethral sphincter D) Bulbospongiosus E) Pubococcygeus

65) Which muscle is part of the urogenital diaphragm and constricts the urethra to voluntarily inhibit urination? A) Ischiocavernosus B) Superficial transverse perineal muscle C) External urethral sphincter D) Bulbospongiosus E) Pubococcygeus

66)

The anterior border of the perineum is the A) anus. B) urethra. C) pubic symphysis. D) scrotum in the maleand thelabia majora in the female.

67)

Which muscles arise from the skull and often attach to the skin? A) Extrinsic eye muscles B) Muscles of mastication C) Muscles that move the tongue D) Muscles of facial expression E) Muscles of the pharynx

68)

Which muscles help us in the initial breakdown of food?

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A) Extrinsic eye muscles B) Muscles of mastication C) Muscles that move the tongue D) Muscles of facial expression E) Muscles of the pharynx

69)

Muscles that protract the scapula would be ________ thoracic muscles. A) anterior B) posterior

70)

Muscles of the pectoral girdle attach proximally on the A) clavicle and scapula and attach distally on the axial skeleton. B) humerus and attach distally on the axial skeleton. C) axial skeleton and attach distally on the humerus. D) axial skeleton and attach distally on the clavicle and scapula. E) humerus and attach distally on the clavicle and scapula.

71)

There are three anterior thoracic muscles. Select the exception. A) Levator scapulae B) Pectoralis minor C) Serratus anterior D) Subclavius

72)

Which of the following muscles elevates and retracts (adducts) the scapula?

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A) Pectoralisminor B) Rhomboid major C) Subclavius D) Serratusanterior E) Scalenes

73) The _________ is a large, saw-toothed, flat, fan-shaped muscle positioned between the ribs and the scapula. A) levatorscapulae B) serratusanterior C) subclavius D) pectoralisminor E) trapezius

74) Of the muscles that move the glenohumeral joint, two attach proximally on the axial skeleton. Which ones? a: Latissimus dorsi b: Deltoid c: Pectoralis major d: Teres major e: Coracobrachialis A) a and b B) a and c C) b and d D) c and e E) d and e

75)

All of these muscles, except one, adduct the arm. Select the exception.

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A) Infraspinatus B) Teres minor C) Supraspinatus D) Coracobrachialis E) Triceps brachii

76) All of these muscles, except one, have their proximal attachment on the scapula. Select the exception. A) Pectoralis major B) Coracobrachialis C) Triceps brachii D) Subscapularis E) Infraspinatus

77) All of the followingmusclesthat move the glenohumeral joint attach distally to the humerus except the A) coracobrachialis. B) triceps brachii. C) latissimus dorsi. D) pectoralis major. E) supraspinatus.

78) The principal elbow flexors located on the anterior side of the humerus are the a: biceps brachii b: brachialis c: brachioradialis d: deltoid e: trapezius

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A) a, b, c B) b, c, d C) c, d, e D) a, c, e E) b, d, e

79)

As a baseball pitcher winds up to throw, he medially rotates his arm by contracting his A) supraspinatus. B) subscapularis. C) infraspinatus. D) teres minor.

80)

Which of the following is not one of the rotator cuff muscles? A) Teres major B) Teres minor C) Supraspinatus D) Infraspinatus E) Subscapularis

81)

What muscle is known as the “swimmer’s muscle”? A) Deltoid B) Latissimus dorsi C) Trapezius D) Coracobrachialis E) Triceps brachii

82)

Which muscle is the prime extensor of the elbow joint?

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A) Deltoid muscle B) Triceps brachii C) Biceps brachii D) Brachialis E) Brachioradialis

83)

Which of the following muscles is not innervated by the radial nerve? A) Pronator teres B) Triceps brachii C) Anconeus D) Supinator

84)

Besides the supinator, which other muscle is a powerful supinator of the forearm? A) Pronator teres B) Pronator quadratus C) Triceps brachii D) Brachialis E) Biceps brachii

85) Many of the muscles in the anterior compartment of the forearm work to _______ the wrist, and they have their proximal attachment on the _______ epicondyle of the humerus. A) flex, lateral B) flex, medial C) extend, lateral

86) Within which layer of the anterior compartment of the forearm is the flexor pollicis longus located?

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A) Deep layer B) Intermediatelayer C) Superficiallayer

87)

What is a retinaculum? A) A flat band of muscle. B) A wide aponeurosis. C) A sliding tendon. D) An area where several muscles converge. E) A thickened fibrous band of fascia.

88) The condition known as “tennis elbow” is caused by trauma or overuse of the common tendon of muscles that cause wrist extension. In other words, it is caused by damage to the A) common flexortendon of the anterior forearm muscles. B) common flexortendon of the posterior forearm muscles. C) common extensortendon of the anterior forearm muscles. D) common extensortendon of the posterior forearm muscles. E) None of the choicesis correct.

89)

The extensor digitorum muscle is found in the A) deep layer of theposterior compartment of the forearm. B) superficial layerof the posterior compartment of the forearm. C) superficial layerof the anterior compartment of the forearm. D) deep layer of theanterior compartment of the forearm.

90)

Which group of muscles forms a thick, fleshy mass at the base of the thumb?

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A) Hypothenar group B) Thenar group C) Midpalmar group D) Dorsal interossei group E) Abductor digit group

91) If you had all of your fingers (including the thumb) spread out wide, which muscle or group would bring your thumb toward your first finger? A) Adductor pollicis B) Palmar interossei C) Dorsal interossei D) Lumbricals E) Abductor pollicis longus

92) If you had all of your fingers (including the thumb) spread out wide, which muscle or group would bring fingers 2–5 together? A) Adductor pollicis B) Palmar interossei C) Dorsal interossei D) Lumbricals E) Abductor pollicis longus

93) When a child raises her hand to show you she is five years old, she is using all of the following muscles except the A) extensordigitorum. B) flexordigitorum. C) palmarinterossei. D) lumbricals. E) dorsalinterossei.

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94)

Most muscles that move the thigh attach proximally tothe A) iliotibialtract. B) os coxae. C) sacral spine. D) head of thefemur. E) linea alba.

95) Which is one of the largest muscles in the body and the one most responsible for extending and laterally rotating the thigh? A) Sartorius B) Tensor fasciae latae C) Pectineus D) Gluteus maximus E) Gracilis

96)

Which is not one of the hamstring muscles? A) Biceps femoris B) Semimembranosus C) Rectus femoris D) Semitendinosus

97)

Which muscle does notattach proximally tothe ischial tuberosity? A) Biceps femoris B) Semimembranosus C) Adductor longus D) Semitendinosus E) Quadratus femoris

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98)

Which of the followingmuscles attaches distally to the head of the fibula? A) Gluteus maximus B) Tensor fasciae latae C) Semimembranosus D) Semitendinosus E) Biceps femoris

99)

Which is the longest muscle of the body? A) Sartorius B) Gracilis C) Quadriceps femoris D) Biceps brachii E) Brachioradialis

100)

The function of the biceps femoris is to A) flex the hip andankle. B) extend the thighand flex the leg. C) flex the thigh andextend the leg. D) flex the thigh(with no action at the leg). E) adduct the thighand extend the knee.

101) With three seconds left on the clock, Mia breaks free and scores the winning goal in her soccer game. Of the muscles listed, select the one with the primary action in extending the leg for kicking. A) Biceps femoris B) Semimembranosus C) Sartorius D) Quadriceps femoris E) Tensor fasciae latae

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102)

Crural muscles are those that move the A) vertebralcolumn. B) hip. C) thigh. D) wrist. E) ankle, foot, andtoes.

103)

Which muscle is the primary dorsiflexor of the foot at the ankle? A) Tibialis anterior B) Extensor hallucis longus C) Fibularis brevis D) Extensor digitorum longus E) Gracilis

104)

The extensor hallucis longus is located in the A) superficial layerof the posterior compartment of the leg. B) anteriorcompartment of the leg. C) deep layer of theposterior compartment of the leg.

105)

The muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg function to A) dorsiflex the footand extend the toes. B) dorsiflex the footand flex the toes. C) plantarflex thefoot and extend the toes. D) plantarflex thefoot and flex the toes.

106)

If you were to remove the gastrocnemius muscle, you would expose the

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A) tibialisposterior. B) tibialisanterior. C) soleus. D) fibularislongus. E) flexor digitorumlongus.

107) These two muscles are known as the triceps surae and together are the most powerful plantar flexors of all of the leg muscles. A) Tibialis posterior and popliteus B) Gastrocnemius and soleus C) Flexor digitorum longus and flexor hallucis longus D) Tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus E) Extensor hallucis longus and fibularis longus

108) All of the muscles listed, except one, are innervated by the deep fibular nerve. Select the exception. A) Extensor digitorum longus B) Gastrocnemius C) Extensor hallucis longus D) Tibialis anterior E) Fibularis tertius

109)

The flexor digitorum longus is located in the A) deep layer of the posterior compartment of the leg, and it flexes toes 2–5. B) deep layer of the posterior compartment of the leg, and it flexes toes 1–3. C) superficial layer of the posterior compartment of the leg, and it flexes toes 2–5. D) superficial layer of the posterior compartment of the leg, and it flexes toes 1–3. E) anterior compartment of the leg, and it flexes toes 1–5.

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110)

What two muscles attach distally tothe calcaneal tendon? A) Tibialis posterior and popliteus B) Gastrocnemius and soleus C) Flexor digitorum longus and flexor hallucis longus D) Tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus E) Extensor hallucis longus and fibularis longus

111)

Which muscle “unlocks” the fully extended knee joint? A) Popliteus B) Tibialis posterior C) Tibialis anterior D) Gastrocnemius E) Soleus

112)

The __________ muscles of the foot attach proximally and distally within the foot. A) intrinsic B) extrinsic C) intrinsic andextrinsic

113)

The intrinsic foot muscles form a __________ group and a _________ group. A) posterior,flexor B) anterior,posterior C) dorsal, plantar D) anterior,flexor E) dorsal, ventral

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114) This thick sheet of fascia extends between the phalanges of the toes and the calcaneus, and also encloses the plantar muscles of the foot. A) Extensor retinaculum B) Extensor aponeurosis C) Intrinsic fascia D) Plantar aponeurosis E) Elevator tendonosis

115)

Whichmuscle or group is responsible for adduction of the toes? A) Adductor hallucis B) Flexor hallucis brevis C) Plantar interossei D) Dorsal interossei E) Quadratus plantae

116)

Which muscle is not innervated by the plantar nerve? A) Extensor digitorum brevis B) Flexor digitorum brevis C) Lumbricals D) Flexor hallucis brevis E) Plantar interossei

117) Of the following, the muscle or group that doesnothave its proximal attachment onthe calcaneus is the A) extensor digitorumbrevis. B) lumbricals. C) abductorhallucis. D) quadratusplantae. E) flexor digitorumbrevis.

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118) The pronator teres and pronator quadratus cause pronation of the forearm. What muscle opposes this movement? A) Pectoralis major B) Subscapularis C) Supinator D) Biceps brachii E) Triceps brachii

119) There are three gluteal muscles. Select the one that is correctly matched with its primary action. A) Gluteus medius: abducts the thigh B) Gluteus maximus: abducts the thigh C) Gluteus minimus: rotates the thigh

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120) This figure shows an anterior view of the upper limb muscles. What muscle does number 1 indicate?

A) Biceps brachii B) Brachialis C) Coracobrachialis D) Brachioradialis E) Triceps brachii

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121) This figure shows an anterior view of the right thigh. What muscle does number 1 indicate?

A) Gluteus maximus B) Gluteus medius C) Psoas major D) Gracilis E) Vastus lateralis

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122)

This figure shows a lateral view of the right thigh. What muscle does number 1 indicate?

A) Gluteus maximus B) Gluteus medius C) Psoas major D) Gracilis E) Vastus lateralis

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 123) Typically, the more movable attachment of axial muscles is the superior attachment. For muscles in the limbs, the more moveable attachment is the _____ attachment.

124) Muscles whose fascicles are arranged in a pattern that resembles a feather are referred to as __________ muscles.

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125) The muscles between the ribs that function to depress the ribs during forced expiration (exhalation) are the __________ intercostal muscles.

126)

The rectus abdominis inserts on the _________ process, as well as on ribs 5–7.

127) The muscles that form the fleshy mass at the base of the little finger are known as the ___________ group.

128)

The large muscle in the calf that has lateral and medial heads is the __________,

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 129) Imagine an athlete jumping up to test her vertical leap. For such a jump, name the muscles acting aspowerful agonists, synergists, and antagonists.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 130) Both the forearm and the lower leg have anterior and posterior compartments. Compare and contrast the functions of muscles in each of these four compartments and name one muscle contained withineach.

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SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions.

131)

131.1) This figure shows the muscles of facial expression. What muscle does number 1 indicate? A) Nasalis B) Procerus C) Epicranius D) Orbicularis oculi E) Platysma

131.2) This figure shows the muscles of facial expression. What muscle does number 2 indicate? A) Nasalis B) Procerus C) Epicranius D) Orbicularis oculi E) Platysma

131.3) This figure shows the muscles of facial expression. What muscle does number 3 indicate?

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A) Nasalis B) Orbicularis oris C) Epicranius D) Orbicularis oculi E) Platysma

131.4) This figure shows the muscles of facial expression. What muscle does number 4 indicate? A) Zygomaticus major B) Risorius C) Masseter D) Buccinator E) Orbicularis oris

131.5) This figure shows the muscles of facial expression. What muscle does number 5 indicate? A) Zygomaticus major B) Risorius C) Masseter D) Buccinator E) Orbicularis oris

131.6) This figure shows the muscles of facial expression. What muscle does number 6 indicate? A) Zygomaticus major B) Risorius C) Masseter D) Orbicularis oculi E) Orbicularis oris

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131.7) This figure shows the muscles of facial expression. What muscle does number 7 indicate? A) Mentalis B) Levator labii superioris C) Risorius D) Sternocleidomastoid E) Depressor labii inferioris

131.8) This figure shows the muscles of facial expression. What muscle does number 8 indicate? A) Mentalis B) Levator labii superioris C) Risorius D) Sternocleidomastoid E) Depressor labii inferioris

131.9) This figure shows the muscles of facial expression. What muscle does number 9 indicate? A) Mentalis B) Levator labii superioris C) Risorius D) Sternocleidomastoid E) Depressor labii inferioris

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132)

132.1) This figure shows a lateral view of the muscles of facial expression. What muscle does number 1 indicate? A) Temporalis B) Masseter C) Buccinator D) Sternocleidomastoid E) Platysma

132.2) This figure shows a lateral view of the muscles of facial expression. What muscle does number 2 indicate?

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A) Temporalis B) Masseter C) Buccinator D) Sternocleidomastoid E) Platysma

132.3) This figure shows a lateral view of the muscles of facial expression. What muscle does number 3 indicate? A) Temporalis B) Masseter C) Buccinator D) Sternocleidomastoid E) Platysma

132.4) This figure shows a lateral view of the muscles of facial expression. What muscle does number 4 indicate? A) Temporalis B) Masseter C) Buccinator D) Sternocleidomastoid E) Platysma

132.5) This figure shows a lateral view of the muscles of facial expression. What muscle does number 5 indicate? A) Temporalis B) Masseter C) Buccinator D) Sternocleidomastoid E) Platysma

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133)

133.1) This figure shows a medial view of the right eye. What muscle does number 2 indicate? A) Superior oblique B) Inferior oblique C) Lateral rectus D) Medial rectus E) Superior rectus

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133.2) This figure shows a medial view of the right eye. What muscle does number 3 indicate? A) Superior oblique B) Inferior oblique C) Lateral rectus D) Medial rectus E) Superior rectus

133.3) This figure shows a medial view of the right eye. What structure does number 4 indicate? A) Trochlea B) Common tendinous ring C) Optic nerve D) Optic canal E) Superior rectus muscle

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134)

134.1) This figure shows an anterior view of the right orbit. What muscle does number 1 indicate?

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A) Superior oblique B) Inferior oblique C) Lateral rectus D) Medial rectus E) Superior rectus

134.2) This figure shows an anterior view of the right orbit. What muscle does number 2 indicate? A) Superior oblique B) Inferior oblique C) Lateral rectus D) Medial rectus E) Superior rectus

134.3) This figure shows an anterior view of the right orbit. What feature does number 4 indicate? A) Trochlea B) Common tendinous ring C) Optic nerve D) Optic canal E) Central tendinous ring

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135)

135.1) This figure shows the muscles that move the tongue. What muscle does number 1 indicate? A) Palatoglossus B) Styloglossus C) Stylohyoid D) Hyoglossus E) Genioglossus

135.2) This figure shows the muscles that move the tongue. What muscle does number 2 indicate? A) Palatoglossus B) Styloglossus C) Stylohyoid D) Hyoglossus E) Genioglossus

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135.3) This figure shows the muscles that move the tongue. What muscle does number 3 indicate? A) Palatoglossus B) Styloglossus C) Stylohyoid D) Hyoglossus E) Genioglossus

136)

136.1) This figure shows the muscles of the anterior neck. What muscle does number 1 indicate? A) Sternocleidomastoid B) Trapezius C) Sternothyroid D) Geniohyoid E) Sternohyoid

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136.2) This figure shows the muscles of the anterior neck. What muscle does number 2 indicate? A) Sternocleidomastoid B) Trapezius C) Sternothyroid D) Geniohyoid E) Sternohyoid

136.3) This figure shows the muscles of the anterior neck. What muscle does number 3 indicate? A) Sternocleidomastoid B) Trapezius C) Sternothyroid D) Geniohyoid E) Sternohyoid

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137)

137.1) This figure shows the muscles of respiration. What muscles are indicated by number 1? A) External intercostals B) Internal intercostals C) Scalenes D) Diaphragm E) Transversus thoracis

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137.2) This figure shows the muscles of respiration. What muscle does number 2 indicate? A) External intercostal B) Internal intercostal C) Scalene D) Diaphragm E) Transversus thoracis

137.3) This figure shows the muscles of respiration. What muscles are indicated by number 3? A) External intercostals B) Internal intercostals C) Scalenes D) Diaphragm E) Transversus thoracis

137.4) This figure shows the muscles of respiration. What muscle does number 4 indicate? A) External intercostal B) Internal intercostal C) Scalene D) Diaphragm E) Transversus thoracis

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138)

138.1) This figure shows the muscles of the abdominal wall. What muscle or feature does number 2 indicate? A) Rectus abdominis B) Transversus abdominis C) Internal oblique D) External oblique E) Linea alba

138.2) This figure shows the muscles of the abdominal wall. What muscle or feature does number 3 indicate? Version 1

A) Rectus abdominis B) Transversus abdominis C) Internal oblique D) External oblique E) Linea alba

139)

139.1) This figure shows the muscles of the anterior trunk. What muscle does number 1 indicate?

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A) Pectoralis major B) Deltoid C) Latissimus dorsi D) Biceps brachii E) Pectoralis minor

139.2) This figure shows the muscles of the anterior trunk. What muscle does number 3 indicate? A) Pectoralis major B) Deltoid C) Latissimus dorsi D) Biceps brachii E) Pectoralis minor

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140)

140.1) This figure shows the muscles of the posterior trunk. What muscle does number 1 indicate? A) Trapezius B) Rhomboid major C) Latissimus dorsi D) Infraspinatus E) Supraspinatus

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140.2) This figure shows the muscles of the posterior trunk. What muscle does number 3 indicate? A) Trapezius B) Rhomboid major C) Latissimus dorsi D) Infraspinatus E) Supraspinatus

140.3) This figure shows the muscles of the posterior trunk. What muscle does number 2 indicate? A) Trapezius B) Rhomboid major C) Latissimus dorsi D) Infraspinatus E) Supraspinatus

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141)

141.1) This figure shows superficial and deep arm muscles. What muscle does number 1 indicate? A) Biceps brachii B) Brachialis C) Coracobrachialis D) Brachioradialis E) Triceps brachii

141.2) This figure shows superficial and deep arm muscles. What muscle does number 2 indicate?

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A) Biceps brachii B) Brachialis C) Coracobrachialis D) Brachioradialis E) Triceps brachii

142)

142.1) This figure shows the right anterior forearm. What muscle does number 1 indicate?

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A) Flexor carpiradialis B) Brachialis C) Pronator teres D) Brachioradialis E) Palmaris longus

142.2) This figure shows the right anterior forearm. What muscle does number 2 indicate? A) Flexor carpi radialis B) Brachialis C) Pronator teres D) Brachioradialis E) Palmaris longus

142.3) This figure shows the right anterior forearm. What muscle does number 3 indicate? A) Flexor carpi radialis B) Brachialis C) Pronator teres D) Brachioradialis E) Palmaris longus

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143)

143.1) This figure shows a palmar view of the hand. What muscle does number 1 indicate? A) Abductor pollicisbrevis B) Flexor digiti minimi brevis C) Opponens pollicis D) Adductor pollicis E) Lumbrical

143.2) This figure shows a palmar view of the hand. What muscle does the number 2 indicate?

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A) Abductor pollicis brevis B) Flexor digiti minimi brevis C) Opponens pollicis D) Adductor pollicis E) Lumbrical

144)

144.1) This figure shows a posterior view of the right thigh. What muscle does number 1 indicate?

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A) Semitendinosus B) Semimembranosus C) Biceps femoris D) Adductor magnus E) Gluteus maximus

144.2) This figure shows a posterior view of the right thigh. What muscle does number 2 indicate? A) Semitendinosus B) Semimembranosus C) Biceps femoris D) Adductor magnus E) Gluteus maximus

144.3) This figure shows a posterior view of the right thigh. What muscle does number 3 indicate? A) Semitendinosus B) Semimembranosus C) Biceps femoris D) Adductor magnus E) Gluteus maximus

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145)

145.1) This figure shows a lateral view of the right leg. What muscle is indicated by the number 1? A) Tibialis anterior B) Gastrocnemius C) Soleus D) Fibularis longus E) Fibularis tertius

145.2) This figure shows a lateral view of the right leg. What muscle does number 2 indicate?

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A) Tibialis anterior B) Gastrocnemius C) Soleus D) Fibularis longus E) Fibularis tertius

145.3) This figure shows a lateral view of the right leg. What muscle does number 3 indicate? A) Tibialis anterior B) Gastrocnemius C) Soleus D) Fibularis longus E) Fibularis tertius

146)

146.1) These figures show the intrinsic muscles of the right foot. What muscle or group does number 1 indicate?

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A) Flexor digitorum brevis B) Abductor digiti minimi C) Abductor hallucis D) Lumbricals E) Interossei

146.2) These figures show the intrinsic muscles of the right foot. What muscle or group does number 2 indicate? A) Flexor digitorum brevis B) Abductor digiti minimi C) Abductor hallucis D) Lumbricals E) Interossei

146.3) These figures show the intrinsic muscles of the right foot. What muscle does number 3 indicate? A) Flexor digitorum brevis B) Abductor digiti minimi C) Plantar interossei D) Lumbricals E) Flexor hallucis brevis

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 11_4e 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) FALSE 20) TRUE 21) FALSE 22) B 23) B 24) A 25) C 26) D Version 1

27) D 28) B 29) A 30) E 31) C 32) D 33) A 34) B 35) C 36) C 37) A 38) E 39) A 40) E 41) E 42) B 43) E 44) C 45) B 46) A 47) D 48) C 49) A 50) B 51) D 52) D 53) B 54) A 55) B 56) A Version 1

57) B 58) A 59) D 60) B 61) C 62) A 63) B 64) D 65) C 66) C 67) D 68) B 69) A 70) D 71) A 72) B 73) B 74) B 75) C 76) A 77) B 78) A 79) B 80) A 81) B 82) B 83) A 84) E 85) B 86) A Version 1

87) E 88) D 89) B 90) B 91) A 92) B 93) B 94) B 95) D 96) C 97) C 98) E 99) A 100) B 101) D 102) E 103) A 104) B 105) A 106) C 107) B 108) B 109) A 110) B 111) A 112) A 113) C 114) D 115) C 116) A Version 1

117) B 118) C 119) A 120) D 121) D 122) E 123) distal 124) pennate 125) internal 126) xiphoid 127) hypothenar 128) gastrocnemius 129) The quadriceps would be the prime agonist, with help (synergy) from the triceps surae muscles (gastrocnemius and soleus). The hamstrings would be the main antagonist. 130) The anterior compartment of the forearm generally flexes the wrist and fingers, whereas the anterior compartment of the leg dorsiflexes the ankle and extends the toes. The posterior compartment of the forearm extends wrist and fingers, whereas the posterior compartment of the leg plantarflexes the ankle and flexes the toes. 131) Section Break 131.1) E 131.2) A 131.3) D 131.4) C 131.5) D 131.6) E 131.7) B 131.8) A 131.9) E Version 1

132) Section Break 132.1) B 132.2) A 132.3) C 132.4) E 132.5) D 133) Section Break 133.1) A 133.2) E 133.3) A 134) Section Break 134.1) C 134.2) D 134.3) D 135) Section Break 135.1) D 135.2) E 135.3) C 136) Section Break 136.1) B 136.2) E 136.3) A 137) Section Break 137.1) B 137.2) A 137.3) C 137.4) D 138) Section Break 138.1) A 138.2) E Version 1

139) Section Break 139.1) A 139.2) E 140) Section Break 140.1) A 140.2) B 140.3) D 141) Section Break 141.1) B 141.2) C 142) Section Break 142.1) C 142.2) E 142.3) A 143) Section Break 143.1) E 143.2) A 144) Section Break 144.1) B 144.2) A 144.3) D 145) Section Break 145.1) A 145.2) C 145.3) D 146) Section Break 146.1) A 146.2) D 146.3) E

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CHAPTER 12 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The spinal cord is part of the central nervous system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Anterograde transport is the movement of materials from synaptic knobs to the cell body. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Typically, a multipolar neuron has many dendrites and one axon extending from the cell body. ⊚ ⊚

Chemical synapses are more common than electrical synapses. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The nervous system contains more neurons than glial cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Glial cells help maintain the structure of synapses and they can modify neural transmission. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

7) In the CNS all axons are myelinated, but in the PNS some are myelinated and some are unmyelinated. ⊚ true ⊚ false

8) Although severing a peripheral axon leads to somedegeneration, the neurilemma remains largely intact. ⊚ ⊚

true false

A neuron's membrane contains more potassium leak channels than sodium leak channels. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Negatively charged protein molecules are more prevalent within a neuron's cytosol than in the interstitial fluid. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

Graded potentials generally occur only on the axon of a neuron. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) An action potential involves a temporary reversal of polarity across the plasma membrane (that is,the inside of the axon becomes relatively positive compared to the interstitial fluid). ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

A postsynaptic potential is a graded potential.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

14) As it moves from the tip of a dendrite to the axon hillock, a postsynaptic potential will maintain a constant magnitude (strength). ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) Some inhibitory neurotransmitters exert their effect by causing the opening of chloride channels, which results in the postsynaptic membrane becoming more negative. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) The size of an EPSP is independent of the amount of excitatory neurotransmitter that is released by the presynaptic cell. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) Voltage-gated potassium channels in a neuron's axon are triggered to open when membrane potential becomes more negative. ⊚ ⊚

true false

18) Voltage-gated sodiumchannels at a neuron's initial segment are triggered to open when the membrane becomes more positive. ⊚ ⊚

true false

19) Neurotransmitter isreleased from the synaptic knob by exocytosis, and it then diffuses across the synaptic cleft.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

20) A neuropeptide is a molecule that is synthesized from an amino acidby the removal of a carboxyl group and the addition of another small functional group such as an amine group. ⊚ ⊚

21)

true false

One main category of neurotransmitters is amino acids. ⊚ ⊚

true false

22) Substance P is a neuropeptide that functions in the transmission of pain information to the brain. ⊚ ⊚

true false

23) Transmission of nerve impulses along myelinated axons requires more energy than transmission along unmyelinated axons. ⊚ ⊚

true false

24) As the distance between a damaged axon and its receptor organ increases, the possibility of repair increases. ⊚ ⊚

25)

true false

A tumor can occur in any tissue within the CNS. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

26)

Nerve impulses are transmitted only along exposed portions of an axon. ⊚ true ⊚ false

27)

Saltatory conduction of a nerve impulse occurs only along myelinated axons. ⊚ ⊚

true false

28) A sensory neuron detecting an intense stimulus will generate action potentials of greater strength as compared to a sensory neuron detecting a weak stimulus. ⊚ true ⊚ false

29) A neurotransmitter binds chemically gated ion channels on the postsynaptic cell, causing a depolarization. Functionally, this neurotransmitter can be classified as excitatory. ⊚ true ⊚ false

30)

Any neurotransmitter that generates an IPSP is functionally classified as inhibitory. ⊚ true ⊚ false

31)

Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter frequently used in the autonomic nervous system. ⊚ true ⊚ false

32) Endocannabinoids are neuromodulators that decrease neurotransmitter release from presynaptic neurons. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 33) Select all the features you would expect in a nerve fiber that conducted signals slowly, such as those that control gastric secretions and other functions that are not urgent. A) Small diameter B) Unmyelinated C) Large diameter D) Myelinated

34)

Select all that are true of nitric oxide. A) It is a large, polar molecule. B) It is a gas. C) It is released by postsynaptic neurons. D) It can cause smooth muscles to contract, resulting in vasoconstriction.

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 35) Receptors are parts of the nervous system that allow it to A) initiate responsesto information. B) processinformation. C) collectinformation. D) conduct impulsesto muscles.

36) The nervous system controls the activity of muscles and glands. Muscles and glands can generate changes and are therefore called A) afferents. B) effectors. C) stimuli. D) visceral.

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37)

Nerves and ganglia are structures found in the A) central nervoussystem. B) peripheral nervoussystem. C) central and peripheral nervous systems.

38)

Which is not a general function of the nervous system? A) Transporting materials throughout the body B) Collecting information C) Processing and evaluating information D) Responding to information E) No exceptions; all are general functions of the nervous system.

39)

The afferent division of the nervous system is also known as the _____ division. A) motor B) cranial C) ganglial D) efferent E) sensory

40)

Which is not a function of the motor division of the nervous system? A) Conducts impulsesfrom the CNS B) Transmits impulses to muscles and glands C) Transmits impulses from the viscera D) Voluntary control of skeletal muscle E) Involuntary control of the heart

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41) The portion of the nervous system that conducts impulses from the skin, joints, skeletal muscles, and special senses is the ___________ division. A) autonomicmotor B) somaticsensory C) somatic motor D) visceralsensory

42) The portion of the nervous system that has voluntary control over skeletal muscles is the _____________ division. A) autonomicmotor B) somaticsensory C) somatic motor D) visceralsensory

43) A neuron conducting an impulse from the CNS to the detrusor muscle of the urinary bladder would be classified as a(n) __________ neuron. A) autonomicmotor B) somaticsensory C) somatic motor D) visceralsensory

44) A neuron conducting an impulse from the stomach wall to the CNS would be classified as a(n) __________ neuron. A) autonomicmotor B) somaticsensory C) somatic motor D) visceralsensory

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45)

Which is not characteristic of neurons? A) High mitotic rate B) High metabolic rate C) Require continuous supplies of glucose and oxygen D) Extreme longevity E) No exceptions; all of these are characteristic of neurons.

46)

Conductive activity in a neuron generally causes it to secrete A) a specificneurotransmitter that either excites or inhibits its target. B) a specificneurotransmitter that always excites its target. C) several types of neurotransmitters simultaneously, all of which excite the cell's

target. D) several types of neurotransmitters simultaneously, that are broadcast toexcite and inhibit multiple targets. E) several types of neurotransmitterssimultaneously, that all work to prevent another immediate impulse.

47)

Which statement is consistent with the current understanding of neural tissue?

A) A personisborn with all of the neurons they will ever have. B) Most neuronsformed in fetal development last a lifetime, but some brain regions inadultscan generate new neurons. C) Neurons areconstantly dying and being replaced throughout all regions of the brain. D) Stem cells in thebrain become glia, which can later become neurons if there is a need for themto do so.

48)

Which part of the neuron contains the nucleus?

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A) Dendrite B) Axon C) Soma D) Axon hillock E) Synaptic knob

49)

Where are synaptic knobs located? A) At the distal ends of an axons B) At the ends of dendrites C) Within the cell body D) Along axon collaterals E) At the axon hillock

50)

The cytoplasm within a cell body of a neuron is called the A) soma. B) perikaryon. C) neurokaryon. D) chromatophilicsubstance. E) chromatophobicsubstance.

51)

What structures extend into the axon and dendrite of a neuron to provide tensile strength? A) Motorfilaments B) Nissl bodies C) Telodendria D) Neurofibrils E) Collateral fibers

52)

Fast axonal transport is

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A) passive and onlyoccurs in the anterograde direction. B) passive and onlyoccurs in the retrograde direction. C) active (requiresATP)and only occurs in the anterograde direction. D) active (requiresATP)and only occurs in the retrograde direction. E) active (requiresATP)and can occur in either the anterograde or retrograde direction.

53) Vesicles and glycoproteins required at the synapse are moved down a nerve fiber by _______ axonal transport. A) fast B) slow

54)

Based on structure, the most common type of neuron is the _______ neuron. A) multipolar B) bipolar C) unipolar D) pseudounipolar

55)

Based on function, the vast majority of neurons are A) sensoryneurons. B) motor neurons. C) unipolarneurons. D) bipolarneurons. E) interneurons.

56) The neurons that are responsible for integrating information by retrieving, processing, storing, and “deciding” how the body responds to stimuli are

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A) sensoryneurons. B) motor neurons. C) accessoryneurons. D) correlationneurons. E) interneurons.

57)

Which functional class of neurons lies entirely within the central nervous system? A) Bipolarneurons B) Sensoryneurons C) Interneurons D) Unipolarneurons E) Motor neurons

58)

A bipolar neuron has

A) two axonsextending from the cell body. B) two dendritesextending from the cell body. C) one axon and onedendrite extending from the cell body. D) a single short process that extends from the cell body and then splits into a peripheral and a central branch.

59)

A mixed nerve is one that contains both A) cranial and spinalnerve fibers. B) sensory and motorneurons. C) unipolar andbipolar neurons. D) an endoneurium andan epineurium. E) presynaptic andpostsynaptic neurons.

60)

In a mixed nerve,

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A) some axonstransmit sensory information and others transmit motor information. B) individual axonstransmit both sensory and motor information. C) chemical synapsesoccur along with electrical synapses. D) astrocytes areinterspersed with ependymal cells.

61)

Most commonly, a synapse is made between a A) presynapticneuron's dendrite and a postsynaptic membrane's cell body. B) presynapticneuron's axon and a postsynaptic neuron'sdendrite. C) presynapticneuron's axon hillock and a postsynaptic neuron's cell body. D) presynapticneuron's soma and a postsynaptic neuron's synaptic knob.

62)

When transmission occurs at a synapse, neurotransmitter is released by A) the presynapticneuron's synaptic knob into the synaptic cleft. B) the postsynapticneuron's dendrites into the synaptic cleft. C) the presynapticneuron's dendrites into the synaptic cleft. D) the presynapticneuron's soma into synaptic vesicles. E) the postsynaptic neuron's telodendriainto the axon hillock.

63)

Electrical synapses involve coupling of neurons by A) synapticclefts. B) desmosomes. C) gap junctions. D) satellitecells.

64) Which statement accurately compares the transmission speed of the different types of synapses?

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A) Transmission atchemical synapses involves a brief synaptic delay, but electrical synapses arefaster. B) Transmission at both chemical and electrical synapses involves a synaptic delay of approximately 1 millisecond. C) Transmission atelectrical synapses involves a brief synaptic delay, but chemical synapses arefaster. D) Electricalsynapses have a constant delay of 1 millisecond, but chemical synaptic delaysvary between 0.1 and 0.3 millisecond.

65)

Glial cells differ from neurons in that they A) are larger andcapable of meiosis. B) are smaller andcapable of mitosis. C) are found only inthe CNS. D) are found only inthe PNS. E) transmit nerveimpulses much more slowly.

66)

What is themost abundant glial cell in the CNS? A) Astrocyte B) Ependymal cell C) Neurolemmocyte D) Microglial cell E) Oligodendrocyte

67)

The glial cell that helps to circulate cerebrospinal fluid is the A) astrocyte. B) ependymal cell. C) neurolemmocyte. D) microglialcell. E) oligodendrocyte.

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68)

The glial cell that myelinates and insulates axons within the CNS is the A) astrocyte. B) ependymalcell. C) neurolemmocyte. D) microglialcell. E) oligodendrocyte.

69)

The glial cell that helps to form the blood-brain barrier is the A) astrocyte. B) ependymalcell. C) neurolemmocyte. D) microglialcell. E) oligodendrocyte.

70)

The glial cell that myelinates and insulates axons in the peripheral nervous system is the A) astrocyte. B) ependymalcell. C) neurolemmocyte. D) microglialcell. E) oligodendrocyte.

71)

The glial cell that defends the body against pathogens is the A) astrocyte. B) ependymalcell. C) neurolemmocyte. D) microglialcell. E) oligodendrocyte.

72)

The glial cell that protects neuron cell bodies located within ganglia is the

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A) satellitecell. B) ependymalcell. C) neurolemmocyte. D) astrocyte. E) oligodendrocyte.

73) isthe

The glial cell with the responsibility of occupying the space left by dead or dying neurons

A) astrocyte. B) ependymalcell. C) neurolemmocyte. D) microglialcell. E) oligodendrocyte.

74)

The glial cell that provides structural support and organization to the CNS is the A) astrocyte. B) ependymalcell. C) neurolemmocyte. D) microglialcell. E) oligodendrocyte.

75)

The glial cell with perivascular feet that wrap around capillaries in the CNS is the A) astrocyte. B) ependymal cell. C) neurolemmocyte. D) microglialcell. E) oligodendrocyte.

76)

What do all glial cells have in common?

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A) They help totransmit the nerve signals. B) They transfer bloodto the various neurons. C) They assist neuronsin their respective functions. D) They all attackpathogens. E) They absorb extrablood and cerebrospinal fluid.

77)

The glossy-white appearance of most axons is due to A) the high lipidcontent of the myelin sheath. B) their proximity tolight-reflecting cartilage. C) their proximity towhite bone. D) the white color ofthe perivascular feet. E) the covering ofependymal cells.

78)

Which is true regarding the action of a neurolemmocyte? A) Eachneurolemmocyte can form a myelin sheath around many axons simultaneously. B) A neurolemmocyteis responsible for forming part of the blood-brain barrier. C) Neurolemmocytesfunction only within the CNS. D) Eachneurolemmocyte can wrap only a 1 mm portion of a single axon. E) A neurolemmocyteattacks pathogens.

79)

Which statement is true regarding the action of an oligodendrocyte? A) Eacholigodendrocyte can form a myelin sheath around many axons simultaneously. B) An oligodendrocyteis responsible for forming part of the blood-brain barrier. C) Oligodendrocytesfunction only within the PNS. D) Each oligodendrocyte can wrap only a 1-mm portion of a single axon. E) A neurolemmocyteattacks pathogens.

80)

The function of myelin is to

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A) block thetransmission of a nerve impulse. B) provide points ofattachment for nerve threads. C) produce fasternerve impulse propagation. D) produce slowbutcontinuous impulse conduction.

81)

Continuous conduction of a nerve impulse occurs only along A) myelinatedaxons. B) dendrites. C) unmyelinatedaxons. D) axons in thePNS. E) axons in theCNS.

82) With damage tonerve fibers, larger distances between the site of damage and the target structureinnervated result in _________ chances of successful regeneration. A) increased B) decreased

83)

Which division of the nervous system shows a greater capacity for regeneration? A) CNS B) PNS

84)

Following damage to axons nearby, oligodendrocytes A) secrete growthfactors. B) do not secrete anychemicals. C) secretegrowth-inhibitory molecules. D) grow their ownfibers to occupy the space.

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85)

Wallerian degeneration involves the breakdown of

A) the segments ofaxon and myelin sheath between the site of damageand the peripheraleffector. B) the segments ofaxon and myelin sheath between the site of damageand the cell body. C) the neurilemma bothcentral and peripheral to the site of trauma. D) macrophages andmicroglia that have completed the job of CNS cleanup after trauma.

86)

A nerve A) contains a singleaxon. B) is found only inthe CNS. C) carries onlysensory information. D) carries informationonly toward the PNS. E) is a cablelikebundle of parallel axons.

87) Which choice correctlyorders theconnective tissue wrappings of a nerve, beginning at the outermost layer? A) Perineurium → epineurium → endoneurium B) Perineurium → endoneurium → epineurium C) Epineurium → perineurium → endoneurium D) Epineurium → endoneurium → perineurium E) Endoneurium → perineurium → epineurium

88)

The endoneurium is composed of A) dense regularconnective tissue. B) simple squamousepithelium. C) dense irregularconnective tissue. D) areolar connectivetissue. E) pseudostratifiednonkeratinized epithelium.

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89)

The epineurium is composed of A) dense regularconnective tissue. B) simple squamousepithelium. C) dense irregularconnective tissue. D) areolar connectivetissue. E) pseudostratifiednonkeratinized epithelium.

90)

The connective tissue wrapping that surrounds bundles (fascicles) of axons is the A) epineurium. B) endoneurium. C) perineurium. D) endosteum. E) periosteum.

91)

The type of transport protein that moves a substance down its concentration gradient is a A) channel. B) pump.

92)

Chemically gated ion channels are mainly found in the ________ segment of a neuron. A) initial B) receptive C) conductive D) transmissive

93) The type of voltage-gated channel that possesses an inactivation gate that temporarily closes after the channel is active is the

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A) voltage-gatedpotassium channel. B) voltage-gatedsodium channel. C) voltage-gatedcalcium channel. D) voltage-gatedchloride channel.

94)

Potassium has a higher concentration

A) inside the cellversus outside the cell, and sodium is also more concentrated inside versusoutside the cell. B) inside the cellversus outside the cell, whereas sodium has a higher concentration outsideversus inside the cell. C) outside the cellversus inside the cell, and sodium is also more concentrated outside versusinside the cell. D) outside the cellversus inside the cell, whereas sodium has a higher concentration inside versusoutside the cell.

95)

The electrochemical gradient refers to A) the difference inconcentration of a substance between two areas. B) the difference inelectrical charge between two areas. C) the combination ofelectrical and chemical gradients between two areas. D) the resistance a membrane has to allow any charged chemical to pass through it.

96)

According to Ohm's law, current is A) directly relatedto both voltage and resistance. B) directly relatedto voltage and inversely related to resistance. C) inversely relatedto both voltage and resistance. D) indirectly relatedto voltage and directly related to resistance.

97) The separation of oppositely charged ionic particles across a resting neuron'smembrane results ina potentialthat is measuredasa

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A) current. B) voltage. C) conductance. D) resistance.

98)

Typically, the resting membrane potential of a neuron is A) 7 V. B) 700 mV. C) −7 V. D) −70 mV. E) 0 mV.

99)

To measure the resting potential of a neuron, a physiologistwould place A) two electrodesinside the neuron. B) one microelectrode inside the neuron and another in the interstitial fluid. C) one electrodeinside the cell and another inside another cell. D) one electrodeinside the cell and another outside the body.

100)

The most crucial factor determining the resting potential of a neuron is the diffusion of A) potassium out ofthe cell through leak channels. B) potassium intothe cell through gated channels. C) sodium out of thecell through leak channels. D) sodium into thecell through gated channels.

101) be

If there were no sodium leak channels, the resting membrane potential of a neuron would

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A) more negative. B) more positive. C) the same. D) 0 mV.

102) Maintenance of appropriate ion concentrations (especially after nerve impulses that involved ion diffusion) is primarily the job of A) voltage-gatedchannels. B) sodium-potassiumpumps. C) chemically gatedchannels. D) mechanically gatedchannels.

103) A depolarization is when the inside of a neuron becomes _______________ the resting membrane potential. A) more negativethan B) less negativethan C) closer to

104)

Hyperpolarization of a neuronresults from A) either the entryof an anion or the exit of a cation. B) the entry of anyion. C) either the entryof a cation or the exit of an anion. D) the entrance ofeither sodium or potassium.

105)

A graded potential is one that

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A) is all or none(always the same intensity). B) travels the length of the nerve fiber (is long-distance). C) varies in sizedepending on the magnitude of the stimulus (larger voltage change for strongerstimulus). D) lasts for severalseconds after ion channels have opened, closed, and reset.

106) Action potentials are generated by the opening of ________ gated channels and they occur on the ________. A) voltage-,axon B) voltage-,dendrite C) chemically,axon D) chemically,dendrite

107) When a neurotransmitter opens a chemically gated ion channel that allows sodium to enter the postsynaptic cell, the result is an A) EPSP. B) IPSP.

108) When a neurotransmitter causes the opening of chemically gated potassium channels on the postsynaptic cell, the postsynaptic potential that results is an A) EPSP, which is adepolarization. B) EPSP, which is ahyperpolarization C) IPSP, which is adepolarization. D) IPSP, which is ahyperpolarization.

109)

A graph ofan EPSP would plot time against a voltage trace that would resemble

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A) a hill where thehigh point approaches the threshold value. B) a hill where thehigh point is the farthest away from the threshold value. C) a valley where thelow point approaches the threshold value. D) a valley wherethe low point is the farthest away from the threshold value.

110)

In neurophysiology, the term "summation" refers to the addition of A) action potentialsat the node of Ranvier. B) postsynapticpotentials at the initial segment. C) excitatoryneurotransmitter molecules at a receptor. D) resting membranepotentials in a particular area of the brain. E) presynaptic hyperpolarizations.

111) When multiple presynaptic neurons release neurotransmitter at various locations onto the postsynaptic neuron at the same time, this results in A) suprathresholdhyperpolarization. B) temporalsummation. C) spatialsummation. D) several actionpotentials.

112) The conductive segment of a neuron is its _______, a region thatcontains many _______ gated channels. A) axon; voltageB) axon; chemically C) dendrite; voltageD) dendrite; chemically

113)

When voltage-gated K+ channels open on the conductive segment of a neuron,

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A) potassium exits,repolarizing the cell to a negative value. B) potassium exits,depolarizing the cellto an even morenegative value. C) potassium enters,depolarizing the cell to a positive value. D) potassium enters,repolarizing the cell to a negative value. E) potassium enters, repolarizing the cellto a positive value.

114)

The hyperpolarization that occurs at the end of an action potential is due to the prolonged A) open state ofvoltage-gated sodium channels. B) closure ofchemically gated sodium channels. C) open state ofvoltage-gated potassium channels. D) closure ofvoltage-gated potassium channels. E) open state ofchemically gated sodium channels.

115)

Which occurs first? A) Absoluterefractory period B) Relativerefractory period

116)

As a neuron's refractory period ends, its sodium channels are changing from A) their resting state to their inactivated state. B) their inactivatedstate to their resting state. C) their restingstate to their activated state. D) their activatedstate to their resting state.

117)

When a nerve impulse reaches the transmissive segment of a neuron,

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A) calcium is pumpedinto the neuron and neurotransmitter diffuses out through channels. B) calcium is releasedfrom the neuron along with neurotransmitter from synaptic vesicles. C) calcium diffusesinto the neuron and neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis. D) calcium andneurotransmitter diffuse into the synaptic knob. E) calcium is immediately pumped out ofthe neuron and vesicles of neurotransmitter undergo phagocytosis.

118)

Arrival of an action potential at the synaptic knob results in

A) opening ofvoltage-gated calcium channels and diffusion of calcium into the synapticknob. B) opening ofvoltage-gated calcium channels and diffusion of calcium out of the synapticknob to the interstitial fluid. C) closure ofvoltage-gated calcium channels in the synaptic knob membrane. D) opening ofchemically gated calcium channels and diffusion of calcium into the synapticknob. E) opening of chemically gated calciumchannels and diffusion of calcium out of the synaptic knob to the interstitialfluid.

119)

In order to trigger the release of neurotransmitter from a neuron terminal, calcium ions

A) exit the synapticknob through diffusion. B) bind to proteins onthe surface of synaptic vesicles. C) penetrate thesynaptic vesicles and bind to molecules of neurotransmitter. D) bind to ionchannels on the neuron membrane and cause them to open for the transmitter.

120)

A nerve impulse travels fastest along ________ axons of ______ diameter.

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A) myelinated,small B) unmyelinated,small C) myelinated,large D) unmyelinated,large

121)

In a myelinated axon, the greatest concentration of voltage-gated ion channels is in the A) myelinatedregions. B) neurofibrilnodes.

122)

Saltatory conduction occurs in A) myelinated axons,where action potentials occur only at neurofibril nodes. B) myelinated axons,where action potentials occur onlyunder the myelin sheath. C) myelinated axons,where action potentials occur continuously down the entire axon. D) unmyelinatedaxons, where action potentials occur continuously down the entire

axon. E) the axon terminal, where full-size action potentials occur at the hillock.

123)

The slowest category of nerve fibers are the A) A fibers, and theyconduct impulses at 10 meters per second. B) C fibers, and theyconduct impulses at 1 meter per second. C) D fibers, and theyconduct impulses at 0.1 meter per second. D) C fibers, and theyconduct impulses at 100 meters per second. E) D fibers, and theyconduct impulses at 0.01 meter per second.

124)

Somatic motor neuron axons fall into the category of

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A) A fibers. B) B fibers. C) C fibers. D) D fibers.

125)

Catecholamines are a subtype of __________ neurotransmitter. A) acetylcholine B) neuropeptide C) monoamine D) amino acid E) soluble gas

126)

The monoamine that has functions related to sleep, appetite, cognition, and mood is A) dopamine. B) serotonin. C) norepinephrine. D) acetylcholine. E) epinephrine.

127)

The primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain is A) glutamate. B) valine. C) GABA. D) serotonin. E) serine.

128)

One of the ways in which neurotransmitter is removed from the synaptic cleft is

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A) endocytosis by thepostsynaptic cell. B) reuptake by thepresynaptic cell. C) phagocytosis by amacrophage. D) dendriticlassos.

129)

The main way acetylcholine is cleared from a synapse is by A) degradation by anenzyme. B) uptake by thepostsynaptic cell. C) reuptake by thepresynaptic cell. D) being engulfed bya supporting glialcell.

130) When a neuromodulatorslows the reuptake of a neurotransmitteror causes expression ofan increased number of receptors on postsynaptic neurons, the effect is called A) facilitation. B) temporalsummation. C) spatialsummation. D) presynapticpotentiation. E) recruitment.

131) Choose the answer that correctly lists, in chronological order, the events involved in synaptic transmission. a: A nerve impulse reaches the synaptic knob. b: Neurotransmitter molecules diffuse across the synaptic cleft. c: A nerve impulse begins in the postsynaptic cell. d: Neurotransmitter molecules bind to receptors in the postsynaptic cell. e: A voltage change occurs in the postsynaptic cell.

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A) a, c, b, d, e B) a, b, e, d, c C) c, b, d, e, a D) a, b, d, e, c E) c, a, b, d, e

132)

There are two types of synapses, based on mode of communication. What are they? A) Mechanical andchemical B) Magnetic and physical C) Physical and chemical D) Chemical and electrical E) Mechanical and electrical

133) Of the two types of synapses, based on mode of communication, which is less common but allows faster signal transmission? A) Chemical synapse B) Mechanical synapse C) Physical synapse D) Magnetic synapse E) Electrical synapse

134)

Billions of CNS interneurons are grouped in complex patterns called neuronal A) networks. B) complexes. C) pools. D) meshes. E) webs.

135)

Which is not a type of neuronal pool?

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A) Converging B) Triangular-pre-discharge C) Diverging D) Parallel-after-discharge E) Reverberating

136) The type of neuronal circuit in which several nerve impulses come together at a single postsynaptic neuron is a _____________ circuit. A) converging B) diverging C) reverberating D) parallel-after-discharge E) None of the choices is correct.

137) The type of neuronal circuit that uses feedback to produce a repeated, cyclical stimulation of the circuit is a _____________ circuit. A) converging B) diverging C) reverberating D) parallel-after-discharge E) None of the choices is correct.

138) The type of neuronal circuit in which several neurons process the same information at one time is a _____________ circuit. A) converging B) diverging C) reverberating D) parallel-after-discharge E) None of the choices is correct.

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139) The type of neuronal circuit that spreads information from one presynaptic neuron to several postsynaptic neurons is a _____________ circuit. A) converging B) diverging C) reverberating D) parallel-after-discharge E) None of the choices is correct.

140)

What type of circuit would you use to solve a higher-order mathematical problem? A) Converging B) Diverging C) Reverberating D) Parallel-after-discharge E) None of the choices is correct.

141)

What type of circuit is used to maintain body posture while walking? A) Converging B) Diverging C) Reverberating D) Parallel-after-discharge E) None of the choices is correct.

142) You walk into a restaurant and amidst the sights, sounds, and smells of food preparation, you notice that you have begun to salivate. This is evidence that a particular neuronal circuit has been activated. Which one?

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A) Converging B) Diverging C) Reverberating D) Parallel-after-discharge E) None of the choices is correct.

143) The type of neuronal circuit that ensures that we continue to breathe while asleep is a _____________ circuit. A) converging B) diverging C) reverberating D) parallel-after-discharge E) None of the choices is correct.

144)

Neural stem cells in the CNS A) have no knownfunction. B) can only form glialcells. C) can form newneurons throughout the CNS. D) can form newneurons in only certain portions of the CNS such as the hippocampus. E) can migrate to thePNS as needed.

145) A scientist observes a particular nerve fiber that is among the fastest at conducting action potentials in the body. Which of the following best describes its likely structure? A) Large diameter and myelinated B) Large diameter and unmyelinated C) Small diameter and myelinated D) Small diameter and unmyelinated

146)

Which of the following is false regarding acetylcholine?

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A) It is rarely used in the body. B) It is the neurotransmitter used at the neuromuscular junction. C) It is stored and released by the presynaptic cell. D) It is synthesized from acetic acid and choline.

147) Which of the following describes how a presynaptic neuron would communicate a strong signal to a postsynaptic neuron? A) Increasing the frequency of its action potentials B) Increasing the magnitude (voltage change) of each action potential C) Changing the direction the action potentials are traveling down its conductive segment D) Changing the destination of the action potentials

148) Some viruses can infect the distal portion of a neuron and utilize transport processes within the neuron to move to the cell body. What type of transport helps the virus in this situation? A) Retrograde transport B) Anterograde transport C) Slow axonal transport D) All of the choices are correct.

149)

Which of the following contains neuron cell bodies clustered together? A) A ganglion B) A nerve C) A synapse D) A neurofibril node

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150) The ___________ nervous system contains ___________, which consist of axons bundled together, as well as ____________, which are clusters of neuron cell bodies. A) peripheral; nerves; ganglia B) central; nerves; ganglia C) peripheral; ganglia; nerves D) central; ganglia; nerves

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 151) The motor nervous system is also known as the __________ nervous system.

152)

Electrical signals are conducted toward the cell body of a neuron by its __________.

153)

A nerve cell that has dendrites but no axons is categorized as a(n) ___________ neuron.

154) Spinal nerves extend from the spinal cord, whereas ________ nerves extend from the brain.

155) The periphery of a myelinating neurolemmocyte that contains its cytoplasm and nucleus is called the _________.

156)

Along an axon, the gaps between neurolemmocytes are called neurofibril ________.

157)

The axon hillock makes up the ________ segment of a neuron.

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158) When a single presynaptic neuron repeatedly releases neurotransmitter in a very short period of time, it results in ____________ summation in thepostsynaptic neuron.

159) After an impulse, the __________ refractoryperiod is the time whenit is possible to initiate another impulse, but it requires astronger than usual stimulus.

160) ___________ is the release of chemicals that locally regulate the response of neurons to neurotransmitters.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 161) Contrast chemically gated and voltage-gated channels. How do their functions differ? In which segments of a neuron are they found?

162) Imagine a genetic mutation that resulted in a malfunctioning inactivation gate in a voltage-gated sodium channel. The defective gate wouldn't always open and close when it should. What functional problems would this cause for the neurons?

163) What effect would an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor have on an acetylcholine synapse? Describe how you think it would influence muscle function. What effect do serotonin reuptake inhibitors have on serotonin synapses? Describe how you think they influence mood.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 12_4e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) FALSE 21) TRUE 22) TRUE 23) FALSE 24) FALSE 25) FALSE 26) TRUE Version 1

27) TRUE 28) FALSE All action potentials are the same strength. Signal strength is coded by varying action potential frequency. 29) TRUE 30) TRUE 31) TRUE 32) TRUE 33) [A, B] 34) [B, C] 35) C 36) B 37) B 38) A 39) E 40) C 41) B 42) C 43) A 44) D 45) A 46) A 47) B 48) C 49) A 50) B 51) D 52) E 53) A 54) A Version 1

55) E 56) E 57) C 58) C 59) B 60) A 61) B 62) A 63) C 64) A 65) B 66) A 67) B 68) E 69) A 70) C 71) D 72) A 73) A 74) A 75) A 76) C 77) A 78) D 79) A 80) C 81) C 82) B 83) B 84) C Version 1

85) A 86) E 87) C 88) D 89) C 90) C 91) A 92) B 93) B 94) B 95) C 96) B 97) B 98) D 99) B 100) A 101) A 102) B 103) B 104) A 105) C 106) A 107) A 108) D 109) A 110) B 111) C 112) A 113) A 114) C Version 1

115) A 116) B 117) C 118) A 119) B 120) C 121) B 122) A 123) B 124) A 125) C 126) B 127) C 128) B 129) A 130) A 131) D 132) D 133) E 134) C 135) B 136) A 137) C 138) D 139) B 140) D 141) B 142) A 143) C 144) D Version 1

145) A 146) A 147) A 148) A 149) A 150) A 151) efferent 152) dendrites 153) anaxonic 154) cranial 155) neurilemma 156) nodes 157) initial 158) temporal 159) relative 160) Neuromodulation 161) Chemically gated channels are generally receptors for a ligand, and they open when the ligand is present, while voltage-gated channels open in response to a change in charge. Chemically gated channels are found in receptive segments of a neuron (dendrites, soma), while voltage-gated channels are found in the initial, conductive and transmissive segments (hillock, axon, knob). 162) Neurons' axons would not fire action potentials appropriately. Sometimes, when the gate is improperly closed, they would not fire when they should (despite a strong stimulus). Other times, when the gate remained inappropriately open, the axon would lack a refractory period-it might fire bursts of impulses when only one is called for, and it might propagate impulses backward and forward.

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163) Ach E inhibitors cause more Ach to be in the synapse. One application for this is treating myasthenia gravis, where the drugs inhibit Ach breakdown and facilitate muscle stimulation by nerve. SSRIs also cause more neurotransmitter to remain in the synapse longer, and are known to elevate mood.

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CHAPTER 13 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The brain floats within the cerebrospinal fluid. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Lipid-soluble compounds are incapable of penetrating the blood-brain barrier. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Generally, the left cerebral hemisphere issues motor commands for the right side of the body. ⊚ ⊚

The frontal eye field is immediately anterior to the premotor cortex. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The Wernicke area is the motor speech area of the frontal lobe. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) The left hemisphere is dominant for speech in almost all right-handed people and in many left-handed ones. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The hypothalamus exerts master control over the motor system.

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⊚ ⊚

Functions of the hypothalamus includeregulation ofbody temperature and water intake. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The medulla oblongata contains a cardiac center and a medullary respiratory center. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

The inferior colliculi are auditory reflex centers of the midbrain. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

The inferior cerebellar peduncles connect the cerebellum to the midbrain. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) One function of the reticular formation is to assist in the regulation of respiration and blood pressure. ⊚ ⊚

13)

Prefrontal cortexaxons generally complete myelination by the time puberty is reached. ⊚ ⊚

14)

true false

Damages to the amygdaloid body result in atypical expressions of emotion.

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⊚ ⊚

15)

true false

Most of the gyri and sulci of the human brain develop very early in the fetal period. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) The gray matter of the brain houses motor neuron and interneuron cell bodies, dendrites, and unmyelinated axons. ⊚ ⊚

17)

true false

The white matter of the brain derives its color from myelin. ⊚ ⊚

true false

18) In both the cerebrum and the cerebellum, white matter lies deep to superficial gray matter. ⊚ ⊚

true false

19) The brain ventricles are continuous with one another and with the central canal of the spinal cord. ⊚ ⊚

20)

true false

The cerebral aqueduct carries CSF from the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

21)

Cerebrospinal fluid is identical to blood plasma. ⊚ ⊚

true false

22) The vestibulocochlear nerve is the only cranial nerve that doesn’t exit the skull via an opening or foramen. ⊚ ⊚

true false

23) The prefrontal cortex changes very little after age 10. Therefore, in its structure and maturity this brain region in a teenager is similar to that of an adult. ⊚ true ⊚ false

24) Alpha and beta waves are typically seen in an awake, alert adult, and indicate a brain functioning normally. ⊚ true ⊚ false

25) Brain activity is decreased during sleep. In fact, the brainstem typically shows no activity at all. ⊚ true ⊚ false

26) The corpus callosumallows cortical regions within the same cerebral hemisphere to communicate. ⊚ ⊚

27)

true false

The epithalamus is composed of the pituitary gland and habenular nucleus.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

28) The pituitary gland secretes melatonin, which is involved in regulating the sleep-wake cycle. ⊚ ⊚

29)

true false

Gray matter derives its color from the myelinated axons that compose it. ⊚ ⊚

true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 30) Select all the brain areas containing autonomic nuclei involved in controlling respiration (breathing). A) Pons B) Medulla oblongata C) Midbrain D) Cerebellum

31)

Select all that are components of the limbic system. A) Cingulate gyrus B) Prefrontal cortex C) Reticular formation D) Hippocampus

32)

Select all that apply. The limbic system includes the

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A) amygdaloid body. B) parahippocampal gyrus. C) Broca area. D) olfactory cortex.

33) Which of the following are examples of subconscious, programmed motor patterns controlled by either the cerebellum, midbrain, or cerebral nuclei? Select all that apply. A) Swinging the arms while walking B) Riding a skateboard C) Jumping back when suddenly startled D) Solving a complex math problem

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 34) Lobes of the brainare named for the bones that protect them, and these lobes are part of the A) cerebrum. B) cerebellum. C) diencephalon. D) metencephalon.

35)

The shallow depressions between folds on the surface of the brain are called A) gyri. B) sulci. C) ventricles. D) syncitia.

36)

In human brain anatomy, the term ______ is synonymous with anterior.

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A) caudal B) dorsal C) rostral

37) Arrange the primary brain vesicles in the correct anterior to posterior order. a: Rhombencephalon b: Mesencephalon c: Prosencephalon A) a, c, b B) b, a, c C) a, b, c D) c, b, a E) c, a, b

38)

Neural tissue develops in the embryo from a portion of the A) ectoderm. B) endoderm. C) mesoderm.

39)

The primary vesicle from which the metencephalon arises is the A) diencephalon. B) rhombencephalon. C) mesencephalon. D) myelencephalon. E) prosencephalon.

40)

The opening of the neural tube that is closest to the future head is the

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A) anterior neuralfold. B) cranialneuropore. C) rostral neuralgroove. D) caudal neuralcanal. E) neural crest aperture.

41) Arrange the five secondary vesicles in the correct anterior to posterior order. a: Diencephalon b: Myelencephalon c: Telencephalon d: Metencephalon e: Mesencephalon A) b, a, c, d, e B) a, b, c, d, e C) b, c, a, e, d D) c, d, e, a, b E) c, a, e, d, b

42) Which secondary brain vesicle forms the portion of the adult brain that includes the epithalamus, thalamus, and hypothalamus? A) Telencephalon B) Diencephalon C) Myelencephalon D) Metencephalon E) Mesencephalon

43) The portion of the adult brain that includes the cerebrum is derived from which secondary brain vesicle?

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A) Telencephalon B) Diencephalon C) Myelencephalon D) Metencephalon E) Mesencephalon

44) The portion of the adult brain that includes the medulla oblongata is derived from which secondary brain vesicle? A) Telencephalon B) Diencephalon C) Myelencephalon D) Metencephalon E) Mesencephalon

45) The portion of the adult brain that includes the cerebral peduncles, superior colliculi, and inferior colliculi is derived from which secondary brain vesicle? A) Telencephalon B) Diencephalon C) Myelencephalon D) Metencephalon E) Mesencephalon

46) Clusters of gray matter that contain neuron cell bodies and lie within masses of white matter are the A) cortex. B) cerebralganglia. C) cerebralnuclei. D) cerebralpeduncles. E) ventricles.

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47)

The cerebral cortex consists of ______ matter. A) gray B) white

48) What is the correct order for the cranial meninges, from superficial to deep? a: Dura mater b: Pia mater c: Arachnoid mater A) a, b, c B) a, c, b C) b, a, c D) b, c, a E) c, b, a

49) Which of the cranial meninges consists of dense irregular connective tissue in two layers (the periosteal layer and the meningeal layer)? A) Pia mater B) Arachnoid C) Dura mater D) Subdural layer E) Subarachnoid layer

50)

Dural venous sinuses are areas where A) the meningeal andperiosteal layers separate to form large blood-filled spaces. B) cerebrospinalfluid is produced. C) cerebrospinalfluid is stored. D) large numbers ofnuclei congregate. E) glial cells areformed.

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51)

The meninx composed of a delicate web of collagen and elastic fibers is the A) pia mater. B) arachnoidmater. C) dura mater. D) periosteallayer. E) subarachnoidlayer.

52) The meninx composed of a thin layer of delicate areolar connective tissue that follows every contour of the brain surface is the A) pia mater. B) arachnoidmater. C) dura mater. D) periosteallayer. E) subdurallayer.

53) The horizontally-oriented fold of dura mater that separates the occipital and temporal lobes of the cerebrum from the cerebellum is the A) diaphragmasellae. B) falxcerebelli. C) tentoriumcerebelli. D) superior sagittalsinus. E) falx cerebri.

54) The largest of the four dural septa, this large, sickle-shaped vertical fold of dura mater separates the left and right cerebral hemispheres.

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A) Diaphragmasellae B) Falx cerebelli C) Tentorium cerebelli D) Superior sagittal sinus E) Falx cerebri

55) the

A sickle-shaped vertical partition that divides the left and right cerebellar hemispheres is

A) diaphragmasellae. B) falxcerebelli. C) tentoriumcerebelli. D) superior sagittalsinus. E) falx cerebri.

56)

A brain ventricle located in the cerebrum is the _____ ventricle. A) third B) lateral C) fourth D) median E) falx

57)

The brain ventricle located in the diencephalon is the _____ ventricle. A) third B) lateral C) fourth D) median E) falx

58)

The brain ventricle located between the pons and the cerebellum is the _____ ventricle.

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A) third B) lateral C) fourth D) median E) falx

59)

The partition between the lateral ventricles is the A) central canal. B) interventricularforamen. C) mesencephalicaqueduct. D) ventricularcanal. E) septumpellucidum.

60)

Which is not a function of cerebrospinal fluid? A) CSF helps to removewaste products from the brain. B) CSF helps to reducethe effective weight of the brain. C) CSF transportsnutrients and chemicals to the brain. D) CSF helps topromote mitosis within neuronal tissue. E) CSF provides aliquid cushion to protect the brain from sudden movements.

61)

Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by the A) choroidplexus. B) arachnoidvilli. C) arachnoidgranulation. D) septumpellucidum. E) mesencephalicaqueduct.

62)

The amount of CSF within the brain at any given moment is approximately

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A) 600 ml. B) 1,200 ml. C) 130 ml. D) 12 ml. E) 4,800 ml.

63)

Excess CSF is removed from the subarachnoid space by A) the medianaperture. B) microglia. C) astrocytes. D) arachnoidvilli. E) the choroidplexus.

64) List these events in the correct order for CSF flow in the CNS. a: CSF flows into the arachnoid villi b: CSF enters the blood c: CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct to the 4th ventricle d: CSF flows into the subarachnoid space e: CSF is produced by the choroid plexus A) a, b, c, e, d B) e, a, b, c, d C) c, d, a, e, b D) e, c, d, a, b E) e, d, a, b, c

65)

The blood-brain barrier is made up of A) microglialextensions and capillary endothelial cells. B) ependymal cellsand venous blood vessels. C) astrocyteperivascular feet and capillary endothelial cells. D) astrocyteextensions and dural sinuses. E) astrocyteperivascular feet and the falx cerebri.

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66) The blood-brain barrier is reduced or missing from three locations in the brain. Which is not one of these locations? A) Hypothalamus B) Pineal gland C) Cerebrum D) Choroid plexus

67) The location of conscious thought processes and the origin of all complex intellectual functions is the A) cerebellum. B) pons. C) hypothalamus. D) corpuscallosum. E) cerebrum.

68)

The major pathway of communication between the right and left hemispheres is the A) cerebralgyri. B) cerebralsulci. C) longitudinalfissure. D) hypothalamus. E) corpuscallosum.

69)

Most commonly, which cerebral hemisphere is responsible for controlling speech? A) Left B) Right

70)

Which of the five cerebral lobes isthe one not visible on the surface of the brain?

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A) Insula B) Temporal C) Frontal D) Occipital E) Parietal

71)

One function of the brain’s frontal lobe is A) smell. B) verbalcommunication. C) hearing. D) speechinterpretation. E) vision.

72)

The portion of the brain involved primarily with vision is the A) occipitallobe. B) temporal lobe. C) insula. D) parietal lobe. E) frontal lobe.

73)

Cerebral lateralization refers to the

A) difficulty inassigning a precise function to a specific region of the cortex. B) generalizationthat both cerebral hemispheres receive their sensory information from andproject motor commands to the opposite side of the body. C) separation of thevarious lobes of the brain from each other. D) crisscrossing ofinformation between the two hemispheres. E) functionaldifferences between the right and left hemispheres.

74) The lobe that is immediately posterior to the central sulcus and that is involved in general sensory functions is the Version 1

A) occipitallobe. B) temporal lobe. C) insula. D) parietal lobe. E) frontal lobe.

75)

The lateral sulcus is superior to the A) occipitallobe. B) temporal lobe C) insula D) parietal lobe E) frontal lobe

76) The primary gustatory cortex processes information about ________ and is located in the ______. A) sound; cerebellum B) taste; insula C) taste; frontal lobe D) smell; parietal lobe E) smell; temporal lobe

77)

The feet of the sensory homunculus are located A) medially on thepostcentral gyrus. B) medially on theprecentral gyrus. C) laterally on thepostcentral gyrus. D) laterally on theprecentral gyrus.

78)

Association areas

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A) correlateinformation from opposite sides of the brain. B) correlate similarfunctions from different lobes on the same side of the brain. C) correlate similarfunctions from the same lobes on the opposite side of the brain. D) integrate newsensory inputs with memories of past experiences. E) integrate outgoingmotor information.

79)

A person with damage to the frontal eye field A) cannot read a sentence but can understand spoken words. B) cannot read a sentence and cannot understand spoken words. C) can read a sentence but does not understand what is read. D) can read a sentence and can understand what is read.

80)

Association tracts A) connect differentregions of the cerebral cortex with the opposite hemisphere. B) extend between theright and left cerebral hemispheres. C) link the cerebralcortex to the caudal brain regions and the spinal cord. D) connect differentregions of the cerebral cortex within the same hemisphere. E) None of the choices is correct.

81)

Commissural tracts A) extend betweenthe right and left cerebral hemispheres. B) connect a regionof one lobe with another lobe in the same hemisphere. C) connect differentregions within a lobe. D) connect differentregions of the cerebral cortex within the same hemisphere. E) link the cerebralcortex to the caudal brain regions and the spinal cord.

82)

Projection tracts

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A) extend betweenthe right and left cerebral hemispheres. B) link the cerebralcortex to the caudal brain regions and the spinal cord. C) connect differentregions within a lobe. D) connect differentregions of the cerebral cortex within the same hemisphere. E) connect a regionof one lobe with another lobe in the same hemisphere.

83) The ______ hemisphere is known for its involvement in categorization, symbolization, and analytical reasoning. A) left B) right

84)

Which skills are associated with the right hemisphere for most individuals? A) Language and tasksequencing B) Categorization andsymbolization C) Visuospatialskills and music D) Mathematics andthe partitioning of information into small fragments

85)

Which structures form the lentiform nucleus? A) Putamen and globus pallidus B) Globus pallidus and caudate nucleus C) Caudate nucleus and claustrum D) Putamen and claustrum E) Amygdaloid body and globus pallidus

86) Paired, irregular masses of gray matter buried deep within the central white matter in the basal region of the cerebral hemispheres, inferior to the floor of the lateral ventricle, are the

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A) cerebralnuclei. B) corpuscallosi. C) inferiorcolliculi. D) interthalamicadhesions. E) ventricularconnections.

87) Which nucleus stimulates the muscles to produce the pattern of arm and leg movements associated with walking? A) Amygdaloid body B) Caudate nucleus C) Putamen D) Globus pallidus E) Claustrum

88) Which nucleus is part of the lentiform nucleus thatcontrols muscular movement at the subconscious level? A) Amygdaloidbody B) Caudate nucleus C) Putamen D) Dentatenucleus E) Claustrum

89) This nucleus both excites and inhibits the activities of the thalamus to control and adjust muscle tone. A) Amygdaloid body B) Caudate nucleus C) Putamen D) Globus pallidus E) Claustrum

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90) Following a head injury, a young woman frequently loses her temper and is often depressed and otherwise “moody.” What part of the brain do you think has been damaged? A) Amygdaloid body B) Caudate nucleus C) Putamen D) Globus pallidus E) Claustrum

91)

Which part of the brain contains the epithalamus, hypothalamus, and the thalamus? A) Pons B) Medulla oblongata C) Diencephalon D) Cerebrum E) Cerebellum

92) This portion of the brain forms part of the roof of the diencephalon and covers the third ventricle. Its posterior portion houses the pineal gland and the habenular nuclei. A) Epithalamus B) Thalamus C) Hypothalamus D) Cerebellum E) Infundibulum

93) This portion of the brain secretes the hormone melatonin, which helps to regulate the body’s circadian rhythm.

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A) Habenular nucleus B) Anterior nucleus C) Pineal gland D) Mammillary body E) Paraventricular nucleus

94) Which structure plays a crucial role in filtering out the irrelevantnoise at a crowded party so that you can listen to someone speaking to you? A) Thalamus B) Hypothalamus C) Epithalamus

95) Which structure serves as the main relay point for sensory information that is headedto a primary sensory region of thecerebral cortex? A) Hypothalamus B) Epithalamus C) Thalamus D) Pineal body E) Pons

96) A football player can hear his coach’s voice above the noise of the crowd and can sense an opponent about to run him down. These abilities are due to the action of what part of the brain? A) Hypothalamus B) Epithalamus C) Thalamus D) Pineal body E) Pons

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97)

The brain region that exerts significant control over the endocrine system is the A) pons. B) thalamus. C) hypothalamus. D) epithalamus.

98)

The sleep-wake cycle and the sex drive are both regulated by the A) pons. B) thalamus. C) hypothalamus. D) olive.

99)

The tectal plate(corpora quadrigemina) is part of what portion of the brain? A) Diencephalon B) Brainstem C) Thalamus D) Telencephalon E) Epithalamus

100) As motor tracts descend to the brainstem, they become the anterolateral surfaces of the midbrain known as the A) inferiorcolliculi. B) accessorynerves. C) inferior olivary complexes. D) cerebralpeduncles. E) substantianigra.

101)

The superior olivary complex is involved in detecting the

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A) location of asound. B) brightness of alight. C) flavor of ataste. D) intensity of asmell. E) texture of a touchstimulus.

102)

Which are the midbrain nuclei that produce dopamine, and therebyaffect motor control? A) Red nuclei B) Cerebralnuclei C) Substantianigra D) Arcuatenuclei

103)

The superior colliculi help you respond to A) visual stimuli — for example, when you turn toward a bright flash of light. B) auditory stimuli — for example, when you turn toward a loud bang. C) somatic stimuli — for example, when you swat at a bug that has landed on your arm. D) internal stimuli from your viscera — for example, when you feel abdominal pain.

104)

Which portion of the brain is posterior to the fourth ventricle? A) Pons B) Thalamus C) Medulla oblongata D) Hypothalamus E) Cerebellum

105)

Axons of the corticospinal tract cross the brainstem at the

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A) middle cerebellar peduncle of the pons. B) decussation of thepyramids in the medulla oblongata. C) primary fissure ofthe cerebellum. D) cerebral aqueductof the midbrain. E) hypoglossalcanal.

106) The vasomotor center is an important regulator of ________ and is located in the ________. A) voluntary movement; frontal lobe B) blood pressure; pons C) visual reflexes; pons D) blood pressure; medulla oblongata. E) visual reflexes; midbrain

107)

Which part of the brain contains the arbor vitae? A) Pons B) Medulla oblongata C) Cerebrum D) Cerebellum E) Epithalamus

108)

The middle cerebral peduncles connect the cerebellum to the A) spinal cord. B) pons. C) medulla. D) midbrain. E) diencephalon.

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109) This portion of the brain ensures that skeletal muscle contraction follows the correct pattern leading to smooth, coordinated movements. A) Pons B) Medulla oblongata C) Cerebrum D) Cerebellum E) Epithalamus

110) Which portion of the brain adjusts skeletal muscle activity to maintain equilibrium and posture? A) Pons B) Medulla oblongata C) Cerebrum D) Cerebellum E) Epithalamus

111) The __________ is composed of multiple structures that collaboratively process and contribute to the experience of emotions. A) medullaoblongata B) cerebellum C) hypothalamus D) limbic system E) cerebellarpeduncle

112)

The limbic system allows

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A) processing andexperiencing of emotion. B) bending overbackwards. C) perception oflanguage. D) expression oflanguage. E) retrievingmemories from a long time ago.

113) The part of the limbic system involved in storing memories and forming long-term memory is the A) cingulategyrus. B) amygdaloidbody. C) fornix. D) mammillarybody. E) hippocampus.

114) During a mugging, a person experiences an extreme level of fear. What portion of the limbic system is responsible for this and other emotional states? A) Cingulate gyrus B) Amygdaloid body C) Fornix D) Mammillary bodies E) Hippocampus

115) What is the name of the brainstem sensory area that contains axons that project to the cerebral cortex to arouse us from sleep? A) Habenularnucleus B) Reticularactivating system C) Mammillarybody D) Hippocampus E) Parahippocampal gyrus

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116)

The reticular formation is an area of the brain that A) is sensory infunction. B) is motor infunction. C) has sensory andmotor components. D) serves higher-order cognitive functions.

117) Damage to which lobe of the brain (that normally plans appropriate behavior) has been most frequently associated with personality abnormalities? A) Frontal B) Parietal C) Occipital D) Temporal E) Insula

118)

Cognition is generally thought to be governed by A) association areasof the cerebrum. B) gray matter of thecerebellum. C) the reticularformation of the brainstem. D) primary sensorycortices and projection tracts. E) the corpuscallosum.

119) The advances in higher-order brain functioning that happen from birth to age five correlate with A) an increase in thenumber of brain neurons. B) completion of PNSmyelination. C) an increase intotal brain size and complexity. D) completion ofmyelination of the frontal cortex.

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120)

A memory that has lasted over a weekend is described as a A) short-term memory. B) long-term memory.

121) Formation of new memories involves the ________, and storage of long-term memories primarily involves the ________. A) hippocampus; association areas of the cerebrum B) habenula; amygdaloid body C) amygdala; reticular formation D) cerebellum; corpus callosum E) lateral ventricles; hippocampus

122)

Your memories of the sights and sounds of your elementary school are probably stored in A) the arbor vitae ofyour cerebellum. B) association cortexareas of your cerebrum. C) your hippocampusand amygdala. D) your thalamus andhypothalamus. E) your limbic system and cranialnerves.

123) Interpretation of emotion is governed by the _______, and expression of emotion is governed by the ________. A) hippocampus; hypothalamus B) hypothalamus; hippocampus C) limbic system; prefrontal cortex D) prefrontal cortex; amygdala E) endocrine system; association cortex

124) Which would be the correct order of brain area activation if one were to understand a sentence and repeat it aloud?

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A) Wernicke area,Broca area, primary motor cortex B) Primary motorcortex, Broca area, Wernicke area C) Broca area,Wernicke area, primary motor cortex D) Wernicke area,primary motor cortex, Broca area E) Broca area, primary motor cortex,Wernicke area

125)

Which is the most anterior cranial nerve? A) Trochlear B) Optic C) Olfactory D) Oculomotor E) Accessory

126) A patient visits her doctor and explains that since being hit on the cheek with a hockey puck she has been suffering from dry eyes and a dry mouth. It’s apparent to the doctor that, because both lacrimal secretion and salivary secretion are affected, there may be damage to the ____________ nerve. A) Trigeminal B) Hypoglossal C) Glossopharyngeal D) Abducens E) Facial

127)

Which cranial nerve is composed of only motor fibers? A) VI B) VIII C) IX D) V E) I

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128) The cranial nerve responsible for movement of the medial rectus, superior rectus, inferior rectus, and inferior oblique muscles is the __________ nerve. A) oculomotor B) trochlear C) abducens D) trigeminal E) hypoglossal

129) The cranial nerve that innervates smooth muscle and glands of the heart, lungs, larynx, trachea, and most abdominal organs is the ___________ nerve. A) facial B) trigeminal C) vagus D) accessory E) hypoglossal

130) The cranial nerve that passes through the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone is the __________ nerve. A) optic B) olfactory C) trigeminal D) oculomotor E) abducens

131) Bell palsy is a condition characterized by paralysis of facial muscles, eyelid droop, and sagging at the corners of the mouth. What nerve is affected in this condition?

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A) Olfactory B) Trigeminal C) Facial D) Accessory E) Hypoglossal

132)

The prefrontal cortex A) has axons that continue to myelinate well into our 20s. B) matures soon after birth. C) is primarily responsible for understanding spoken or written language. D) processes raw visual information, putting it into context.

133)

An electroencephalogram measures A) electrical activity in the brain. B) blood flow in the brain. C) the use of glucose in the brain. D) the production of CSF in the brain.

134)

Non-REM sleep A) comprises most of our sleep time. B) is characterized by movements of the eyes. C) is where we have our most memorable dreams. D) is a time when the brain is very active.

135)

Which of the following is false regarding sleep?

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A) The longest bouts of REM sleep occur early in the night, with shorter REM periods toward the morning. B) During REM sleep, the brain uses as much oxygen as when the individual is awake. C) Different stages of non-REM sleep are characterized by different brain waves. D) REM sleep is important for memory processing and consolidation.

136) Which of the following contains descending axon bundles carrying voluntary motor commands from the primary motor cortex? A) Cerebral peduncle B) Cerebellar peduncle C) Cerebral aqueduct D) Substantia nigra

137) While out on a walk, which nucleus will your brain use to help determine the origin of a sound such as a dog barking? A) Superior olivary nucleus B) Superior colliculus C) Nucleus gracilis D) Nucleus cuneatus

138) The _____ component of the reticular formation is called the reticular activating system (RAS). A) sensory B) motor

139) A lesion in the _____ is likely to affect thinking, planning, and overall personality, as this brain region plays a significant role in cognition.

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A) prefrontal cortex B) olfactory bulb C) reticular activating system D) premotor cortex

140) A lesion in the _____ may result in difficulty forming long-term memories because this limbic system structure is critical to memory consolidation. A) hippocampus B) pineal gland C) cingulate gyrus D) superior olivarynucleus

141)

The medulla oblongata contains the A) pyramids. B) tectal plate. C) cerebral peduncles. D) superior olivary nuclei.

142)

In cross-section, the outermost portion of the cerebellum is composed of A) the cerebellar cortex. B) the arbor vitae. C) cerebral peduncles. D) cerebellar nuclei.

143) After the cerebellum receives proprioceptive information from muscles carrying out a voluntary movement, where does it send corrective feedback?

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A) Primary motor cortex and cerebral nuclei B) Primary somatosensory cortex and primary motor cortex C) Premotor cortex and Broca area D) Premotor cortex and somatosensory association area

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 144) The process by which the notochord induces the formation of the neural tube is known as _________.

145)

The scientific name for the embryonic midbrain is the _________.

146) The area underneath the middle meninx where cerebrospinal fluid is located is the __________ space.

147) cell.

The type of glial cell that plays a critical role in the formation of CSF is the _________

148) Endothelial cells within capillaries of the brain are linked to their neighbors by ______ junctions that prevent diffusion of some substances across the capillary wall.

149) The bundle of projection tracts that passes between the cerebral nuclei and the thalamus is the ________ capsule.

150)

Anatomical asymmetries between the two cerebral hemispheres are known as _______.

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151) An arch of white matter that connects the hippocampus to structures in the diencephalon is the ________.

152) An inability to recognize stimuli (e.g., faces) or understand the meanings of common words is generally called _______.

153)

Dull, emotionless speech is called _________.

154)

The _____ respiratory center regulates the skeletal muscles involved in breathing.

155) _____ is thenatural, temporary absence of consciousness from which a person can be aroused by normal stimulation.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 156) Primary sensory areas of the brainhave connections to association areas. What are the names, locations, and functions of the association areas forsight, hearing, and touch?

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 157) Locate and explain the areas of the brain that are essential to the comprehension and expression of language. In which lobes of the brain are they located? On which side of the brain are they found in most individuals? What does each specific area do? Which area of the brain comprehends the emotional nuances of a speaker's message?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 13_4e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) FALSE 21) FALSE 22) TRUE 23) FALSE The prefrontal cortex changes significantly throughout our teens and into our 20s, as reflected by increased myelination of axons and synaptic pruning. Version 1

24) TRUE 25) FALSE The brainstem is responsible for many vital body functions, and therefore its activities continue during sleep. 26) FALSE The corpus callosum is composed of commissural fibers that connect the left and right cerebral hemispheres. Therefore, it allows them to communicate. 27) FALSE The epithalamus is composed of the pineal gland and habenular nucleus. 28) FALSE The pineal gland secretes melatonin, which is involved in regulating the sleep-wake cycle. 29) FALSE White matter derives its color from the myelinated axons that compose it. 30) [A, B] 31) [A, D] 32) [A, B, D] 33) [A, B, C] 34) A 35) B 36) C 37) D 38) A 39) B 40) B 41) E Version 1

42) B 43) A 44) C 45) E 46) C 47) A 48) B 49) C 50) A 51) B 52) A 53) C 54) E 55) B 56) B 57) A 58) C 59) E 60) D 61) A 62) C 63) D 64) D 65) C 66) C 67) E 68) E 69) A 70) A 71) B Version 1

72) A 73) E 74) D 75) B 76) B 77) A 78) D 79) A 80) D 81) A 82) B 83) A 84) C 85) A 86) A 87) B 88) C 89) D 90) A 91) C 92) A 93) C 94) A 95) C 96) C 97) C 98) C 99) B 100) D 101) A Version 1

102) C 103) A 104) E 105) B 106) D 107) D 108) B 109) D 110) D 111) D 112) A 113) E 114) B 115) B 116) C 117) A 118) A 119) C 120) B 121) A 122) B 123) C 124) A 125) C 126) E 127) A 128) A 129) C 130) B 131) C Version 1

132) A 133) A 134) A 135) A 136) A 137) A 138) A 139) A 140) A 141) A 142) A 143) A 144) neurulation 145) mesencephalon 146) subarachnoid 147) ependymal 148) tight 149) internal 150) petalias 151) fornix 152) agnosia 153) aprosodia 154) pontine 155) Sleep 156) For descriptions of the functions of the somatosensory, visual, and auditory association areas in the parietal, occipital, and temporal lobes, see the text.

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157) In the left brain,Wernicke's area (temporal lobe) for comprehension and Broca's area (frontal lobe) for speech. The opposite side of Wernicke's area (in right temporal lobe) sorts out the prosody of speech.

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CHAPTER 14 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The subdural space is the region between the arachnoid mater and the dura mater. ⊚ ⊚

The spinal dura mater contains an outer periosteal layer and an inner meningeal layer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The white matter of the spinal cord is surrounded by its gray matter. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The innermost of the meninges is the pia mater. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The lateral funiculus contains both ascending and descending tracts. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) An individual tract within the spinal cord contains either sensory nerve signals or motor nerve signals only. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) A pathway has two parts: a bundle of CNS axons and a collection of neuron cell bodies in the CNS.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

Motor pathways are also called ascending pathways. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Abdominal pain from digestive organs (e.g., from a stomach ulcer) would be conveyed to the brain by way of somatosensory pathways. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Neurons in the primary somatosensory cortex receive input from tertiary neurons that have their cell bodies residing in the thalamus. ⊚ ⊚

11)

The spinocerebellar pathway is an ascending somatosensory pathway. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

Some motor pathways originate in the cerebellum. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) The cell bodies of lower motor neurons are housed in the posterior horns of the spinal cord. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14) Motor neurons that innervate the head and neck are located in the motor nuclei of cranial nerves and in the reticular formation. ⊚ ⊚

15)

Lower motor neurons are always excitatory. ⊚ ⊚

16)

true false

Usually, awareness of the stimulus occurs before a reflex action has been initiated. ⊚ ⊚

20)

true false

The obturator nerve innervates muscles of the lateral thigh. ⊚ ⊚

19)

true false

Axons of the anterior corticospinal tracts decussate in the medulla. ⊚ ⊚

18)

true false

The tectospinal tract is part of the medial pathway, which is an indirect motor pathway. ⊚ ⊚

17)

true false

The alar plate of the embryo develops into the gray commissure of the spinal cord. ⊚ ⊚

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true false 3

21) In the brain, the outer cerebral cortex consists of gray matter, but in the spinal cord, gray matter is confined to the innermost regions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

22) In general, nerves from the posterior division of the brachial plexus tend to innervate muscles that extend the parts of the upper limb. ⊚ ⊚

23)

A monosynaptic response is one that does not involve an interneuron. ⊚ ⊚

24)

true false

The spinal cord exhibits some reflexes that do not involve the brain. ⊚ ⊚

true false

25) The spinal cord relays both sensory and motor information between the CNS and rest of the body. ⊚ ⊚

26)

true false

There are seven cervical vertebrae but eight cervical spinal nerves. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

27) The lumbar region of the spinal cord is closest to the lumbar vertebrae of the vertebral column. ⊚ ⊚

28)

In the spinal cord, white matter surrounds (is external to) the gray matter. ⊚ ⊚

29)

true false

Nerve plexuses are networks of interweaving posterior rami of spinal nerves. ⊚ ⊚

true false

30) A reflex allows an individual to quickly respond to a potentially dangerous stimulus without having to wait for the brain to process the information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 31) Select all that are properties of a reflex. A) They require a stimulus. B) Synaptic delay is minimal. C) A particular reflex occurs the same way every time. D) They are voluntary, conscious responses.

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 32) What is the correct order for the parts of the spinal cord, from superior to inferior?

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A) Cervical - thoracic - sacral - coccygeal - lumbar B) Cervical - thoracic - lumbar - sacral - coccygeal C) Thoracic - lumbar - sacral - cervical - coccygeal D) Thoracic - cervical - lumbar - coccygeal - sacral E) Thoracic - lumbar - sacral - coccygeal - cervical

33)

A typical spinal cord in an adult is A) 24–26 inches long. B) 12–14 inches long. C) 8–10 inches long. D) 16–18 inches long. E) 20–24 inches long.

34) In adults, thespinal cord is not the same length as the vertebral canal, and most of the lumbar part of the spinal cord is within A) the coccyx. B) the sacrum. C) the cervicalvertebrae. D) the thoracicvertebrae. E) the cauda equina.

35)

The inferior tip of the spinal cord is the ___________ part. A) thoracic B) lumbar C) coccygeal D) cervical E) sacral

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36)

What is the thin strand of pia mater that helps to anchor the spinal cord to the coccyx? A) Conus medullaris B) Cervical enlargement C) Terminus coccyx D) Filum terminale E) Coccygeal tendon

37)

The spinal cord part with the largest diameter is the ___________ part. A) thoracic B) cervical C) lumbar D) sacral E) coccygeal

38)

The tapered, conical inferior end of the spinal cord is called the conus A) finalis. B) medullaris. C) equine. D) caudalis. E) sacralis.

39)

Each side of the spinal cord gives rise to _____ cervical nerves. A) two B) six C) seven D) eight E) twelve

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40)

The most inferior spinal nerve is A) C7. B) C8. C) Co1. D) Co7. E) CN XII.

41)

Which statement accurately describes spinal nerves? A) Most spinal nervesare motor nerves. B) Each spinal nerveis mixed in that it contains some sensory axons and some motor

axons. C) All spinal nervesare sensory nerves. D) Odd-numbered spinal nerves are sensory and even-numbered spinal nerves are motor. E) Spinal nerves are central axonscontained within the vertebral canal.

42) Which space associated with the spinal cord meninges contains areolar connective tissue, blood vessels, and adipose connective tissue? A) Subarachnoidspace B) Epidural space C) Central canal D) Subdural space E) Epiarachnoid space

43)

Which space associated with the spinal cord meninges contains cerebrospinal fluid?

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A) Epidural space B) Subdural space C) Subarachnoid space D) Epiarachnoid space E) Subpial space

44)

In a lumbar puncture (spinal tap), fluid is extracted from the A) central canal ofthe spinal cord. B) epiduralspace. C) subduralspace. D) epipial space. E) subarachnoidspace.

45) the

The most delicate of the meninges consists of elastic and collagen fibers and is known as

A) pia mater. B) dura mater. C) falx cerebri. D) arachnoidmater.

46)

The posterior horns of the spinal cord contain A) axons of motorneurons and cell bodies of interneurons. B) axons of sensoryand motor neurons. C) axons ofinterneurons. D) axons of sensoryneurons and cell bodies of interneurons. E) autonomic motorneurons.

47)

The lateral horns of the spinal cord contain

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A) axons of motorneurons and interneuron cell bodies. B) axons of sensoryand motor neurons. C) cell bodies ofsomatic sensory neurons. D) axons of sensoryneurons and interneuron cell bodies. E) cell bodies ofautonomic motor neurons.

48) This structure contains unmyelinated axons and serves as a communication route between the right and left sides of the gray matter in the spinal cord. A) Gray commissure B) White commissure C) Lateral commissure D) Posterior commissure E) Denticulate ligaments

49) Nuclei within the gray matter of the spinal cord that receive information from sensory receptors such as pain or pressure receptors in the skin are _____ nuclei. A) visceralsensory B) somatic sensory C) autonomic motor D) somatic motor

50) The _______ nuclei within the gray matter of the spinal cord send nerve impulses to skeletal muscles. A) visceralsensory B) somaticsensory C) autonomicmotor D) somatic motor

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51) These nuclei are located in the lateral horns and innervate smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands. A) Sensory nuclei B) Autonomic motor nuclei C) Visceral sensory nuclei D) Somatic sensory nuclei E) Somatic motor nuclei

52)

In sum, there are ____ pairs of spinal nerves. A) 13 B) 31 C) 40 D) 51 E) 12

53) The large section of spinal white matter that is found between the posterior gray horns is known as the posterior A) commissure. B) funiculus. C) decussation. D) peduncle.

54)

Which of the following accurately compares sections of spinal white matter? A) A fasciculus issmaller than a funiculus. B) A fasciculus islarger than a funiculus. C) A fasciculus issmaller than a tract. D) A fasciculus islarger than a tract.

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55)

A conduction pathway consists of a(n) A) nerve andeffector. B) nerve and atract. C) ganglion and anucleus. D) tract and anucleus.

56)

Which accurately describes sensory and motor pathways? A) Sensory pathwaysterminate in the brain, and motor pathways terminate at effectors. B) Both sensory andmotor pathways terminate in the brain. C) Both sensory andmotor pathways terminate in the PNS. D) Sensory pathwaysterminate at effectors and motor pathways terminate in the brain.

57) Because most pathways decussate, each side of the brain processes information from the _________ side of the body. A) contralateral B) ipsilateral

58) ________ pathways have peripheral primary neurons and centralsecondary and tertiary neurons. A) Motor B) Sensory

59)

Neurons of the thalamus that are part of sensory conduction pathways are considered A) primaryneurons. B) secondaryneurons. C) tertiaryneurons. D) quaternaryneurons.

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60) Information about temperature, proprioception, and pressure from skin, joints, and muscles is conveyed by A) somatomotorpathways. B) visceromotorpathways. C) somatosensorypathways. D) viscerosensorypathways.

61)

The axons of primary sensory neurons make synapticconnections with A) posterior rootganglia of spinal nerves. B) secondary neuronsin the CNS. C) secondary neuronsin the PNS. D) thalamicneurons.

62)

The fasciculus cuneatus is part of the A) anterolateralpathway. B) spinocerebellarpathway. C) posterior funiculus–medial lemniscal pathway. D) lateralspinothalamic tract. E) fasciculus gracilis.

63)

The medial lemniscus is A) gray matter in thespinal cord that processes information about proprioception and

touch. B) gray matter in thespinal cord that processes information about pain and temperature. C) white matter inthe brainstem that conducts information about proprioception and touch. D) white matter inthe brainstem that conducts information about pain and temperature.

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64) In both the anterolateral pathway and the posterior funiculus–medial lemniscal pathway, the axons of the ________ neurons decussate in the CNS. A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary

65)

Information about pain and temperature is conveyed to the brain by way of the A) posteriorfuniculus–medial lemniscal pathway. B) spinocerebellarpathway. C) anterolateralpathway. D) fasciculusgracilis. E) tectospinal tract.

66)

The anterior spinocerebellar tract conducts signals about A) pain from theupper limbs. B) pain from thelower limbs. C) proprioceptionfrom the upper limbs. D) proprioceptionfrom the lower limbs.

67)

The neurons that directly innervate skeletal muscles are called A) first-order neurons. B) second-order neurons. C) upper motorneurons. D) lower motorneurons.

68)

The function of upper motor neurons is to

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A) directly exciteskeletal muscle cells. B) excite or inhibitskeletal muscle cells. C) excite or inhibitlower motor neurons. D) excite motorportions of the thalamus. E) excite or inhibit motor portions of thecerebral cortex.

69)

The direct motor pathway originates in the A) motor cortex ofthe cerebral cortex. B) superiorcolliculus of the midbrain. C) vestibular nucleiof the brainstem. D) reticularformation of the brainstem.

70) The lateral corticospinal tracts include a ________ of the upper motor neuron axons that pass through the medulla, and they govern control of ___________. A) majority; axial muscles B) majority; muscles used for finely controlled movements C) minority; axial muscles D) minority; muscles used for finely controlled movements

71)

Axons of the corticobulbar tracts

A) descend in thelateral funiculus of the spinal cord and synapse with anterior horn motorneurons. B) descend in theanterior funiculus of the spinal cord and synapse with lateral horn motorneurons. C) do not passthrough the spinal cord, as they synapse with lower motor neurons in brainstemcranial nuclei. D) do not passthrough the spinal cord, as they synapse with cerebellar Purkinje cells. E) connect the supplementary motor cortexwith the primary motor cortex.

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72)

Motor pathways are _________ tracts that control _________. A) ascending; affectors B) ascending; effectors C) descending; affectors D) descending; effectors

73)

Which of the rami is much smaller than the other? A) The anteriorramus B) The posteriorramus

74)

Which are not spinal nerve branches? A) Rami communicantes B) Posterior rami C) Anterior rami D) Lateral rami

75)

A posterior root contains A) sensory axonsonly. B) motor axonsonly. C) a mix of sensoryand motor axons. D) autonomic nervoussystem axons.

76)

Which of the following structures is closest to the spinal cord?

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A) Posteriorramus B) Posterior rootganglion C) Posteriorrootlets D) Posterior root

77)

The third cervicalspinal nerve exits the vertebral column through the A) intervertebralforamen between C2 and C3 vertebrae. B) intervertebralforamen betweenC3 and C4 vertebrae. C) transverse foramenof C3 vertebra. D) vertebral canal of vertebraeC2, C3, and C4.

78)

The second thoracic spinal nerve exits the spinal column through the A) vertebral canal of vertebrae T1, T2, and T3. B) sacral hiatus. C) intervertebralforamen between vertebrae T2 and T3. D) intervertebralforamen between vertebrae T1 and T2.

79) If a patient experiences numbness in the boundaries of adermatome, it is suggestive of damage to A) the somatosensorycortex. B) the thalamus. C) one of the spinalfuniculi. D) the anterior hornof grey matter in the spinal cord. E) a spinal nerve.

80)

The posterior ramus of a typical spinal nerve innervates the

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A) deep muscles ofthe back and the skin of the back. B) major thoracic andabdominal organs. C) abdominalwall. D) anterior andlateral trunk and the limbs. E) specialsenses.

81)

The anterior ramus of a typical spinal nerve innervates the A) deep muscles ofthe back and the skin of the back. B) major thoracic andabdominal organs. C) abdominalwall. D) anterior andlateral trunk and the limbs. E) specialsenses.

82)

A network of interwoven anterior rami of spinal nerves is a A) ramus. B) communicans. C) ganglion. D) dermatome. E) plexus.

83)

The anterior rami of T1–T11 are called A) dorsal plexuses. B) anteriorplexuses. C) intercostalnerves. D) branchialnerves. E) cervicalnerves.

84)

The plexuses that lie on either side of the neck are the _____ plexuses.

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A) cervical B) branchial C) lumbar D) radial E) mandibular

85) If a person suffers a thorax-crushing injury and is unable to breathe properly, you would suspect that this nerve was damaged. A) Transverse cervical nerve B) Accessory nerve C) Phrenic nerve D) Sciatic nerve E) Greater auricular nerve

86)

The cervical plexus is formed by the A) posterior rami of spinal nerves C2–C6. B) posterior rami of spinal nerves C4–C8. C) anterior rami of spinal nerves C1–C4. D) anterior rami of spinal nerves C3–C7. E) rami communicantes of spinal nerves C1–C7.

87)

The plexus that supplies the upper limbs is the _________ plexus. A) cervical B) brachial C) bronchiole D) lumbar E) sciatic

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88)

Which spinal nerves contribute to the brachial plexus? A) S1–Co1 B) L1–L5 C) C5–T1 D) L4–S4 E) C1–C5

89) Which of the following lists the components of the brachial plexus in correct order starting with the most medial? A) Cords, divisions,nerves, rami B) Rami, divisions,cords, trunks C) Trunks,divisions, rami, cords D) Ganglia, rami,nerves, terminals E) Rami, trunks,divisions, cords

90)

Within the axilla, axons of neurons are organized within A) three cords—the posterior, medial, and lateral cords. B) three divisions—the superior, middle, and inferior divisions. C) five cords—the superior, inferior, medial, lateral, and middle divisions. D) five divisions—proximal, distal, ulnar, median, and radial divisions.

91) The nerve that innervates the deltoid muscle and receives sensory input from the superolaterallateral arm is the A) axillarynerve. B) musculocutaneousnerve. C) median nerve. D) radial nerve. E) ulnar nerve.

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92) Following an injury to his arm, a patient complains that he has no sensations from the thumb, index finger, middle finger, and part of the ring finger. What nerve do you suspect to bedamaged? A) Median nerve B) Radial nerve C) Musculocutaneousnerve D) Ulnar nerve E) Axillary nerve

93) Following an injury to his arm, a patient complains that he has lost the ability to flex his elbow and supinate his forearm. Which nerve do you suspect he has damaged? A) Median nerve B) Radial nerve C) Musculocutaneous nerve D) Ulnar nerve E) Axillary nerve

94) Following an injury to his arm, a patient complains that he cannot extend the forearm, wrist, and digits. You suspect that he has damaged the A) median nerve. B) radial nerve. C) musculocutaneousnerve. D) ulnar nerve. E) axillarynerve.

95) Following an injury to his arm, a patient complains that he has no sensations from his “pinky.” You suspect that he has damaged the

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A) median nerve. B) radial nerve. C) musculocutaneousnerve. D) ulnar nerve. E) axillarynerve.

96)

A person suffering from carpal tunnel syndrome has lost function of the A) median nerve. B) radial nerve. C) musculocutaneousnerve. D) ulnar nerve. E) axillarynerve.

97)

Two of the nerves of the lumbar plexus are the A) femoral and sciaticnerves. B) femoral andobturator nerves. C) obturator andpudendal nerves. D) pudendal andsciatic nerves.

98) The nerve responsible for innervation (movement) of the quadriceps femoris muscle is the _____ nerve. A) femoral B) sciatic C) obturator D) genitofemoral E) tibial

99)

The largest and longest nerve in the body is the _________ nerve.

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A) femoral B) radial C) sciatic D) obturator E) saphenous

100)

This nerve helps to plant the foot and receives sensory signals from the skin of the sole. A) Femoral nerve B) Deepfibularnerve C) Obturator nerve D) Genitofemoral nerve E) Tibial nerve

101)

The spinal nerves that give rise tothe sacral plexus are A) L4-S4. B) T11-Co1. C) L2-S1. D) S4-C2.

102)

Where the sciatic nerve splits, it branches directly to the A) deep andsuperficial fibular nerves. B) tibial and commonfibular nerves. C) femoral andobturator nerves. D) deep femoral andtibial nerves. E) popliteal and sural nerves.

103)

Reflexes are described as

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A) slow andspontaneous. B) spontaneous andself-initiating. C) pre-programmed andvoluntary. D) rapid andinvoluntary.

104) What is the correct order for the events that occur during a reflex? a: Impulse travels through sensory neuron to the CNS b: A stimulus activates a receptor c: Information is processed by interneurons d: Motor neuron transmits impulse to effector e: Effector responds A) a, b, c, d, e B) b, a, c, d, e C) c, b, a, e, d D) c, a, b, d, e E) b, d, c, a, e

105) A reflex arc in which both the receptor and the effector organs of the reflex are on the same side of the spinal cord is A) monosynaptic. B) polysynaptic. C) ipsilateral. D) contralateral. E) None of thechoices is correct.

106) Late one night you are leaving the science building during a snowstorm. As you approach your car, your right foot suddenly slips on a patch of ice. Your left leg immediately stiffens as you try to regain your balance. The reflex action you relied upon is a(n)

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A) unilateralreflex. B) ipsilateralreflex. C) contralateralreflex. D) voluntary reflex. E) None of thechoices is correct.

107)

Which type ofreflex occurs with the smallest delay? A) Polysynaptic B) Monosynaptic

108)

The simple knee-jerk reflex is an example of a(n) _____ reflex. A) ipsilateral B) contralateral C) monosynaptic D) crossed-extensor E) multisynaptic

109)

Stepping on a piece of glass would most likely invoke a _____ reflex. A) tendon B) withdrawal C) stretch D) pain E) motor

110)

If someone steps on a sharp object with their right foot, it will lead to

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A) polysynapticreflexes involving contraction of the right hamstring and left quadriceps. B) polysynapticreflexes involving contraction of the right quadriceps and left hamstrings. C) a monosynapticreflex causing contraction of the right hamstring and a polysynaptic reflexcausing contraction of the left hamstring. D) a monosynaptic reflex causing contraction of the right quadriceps and a polysynaptic reflex causing contraction of the left hamstring.

111)

For many reflexes, including the stretch reflex, the excitation of a muscle leads to A) excitation of all motor neurons that are contralateral. B) inhibition ofmotor neurons of itsantagonist. C) inhibition ofmotor neurons of itssynergist. D) excitation ofmotor neurons of the antagonist. E) inhibition of sensory neurons thatinitiate the reflex.

112)

The tendon reflex A) helps to overcomepain. B) aids in sendingsensory information to the muscles. C) prevents skeletalmuscles from tensing excessively. D) prevents musclesfrom contracting. E) helps to gainbalance through a complex series of muscular contractions.

113) A monosynaptic reflex that monitors and regulates skeletal muscle length is a _____ reflex. A) withdrawal B) flexor C) Golgi tendon D) stretch E) hypoactive

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114) A diminished reflex response that may indicate damage to a segment of the spinal cord is a(n) _____ reflex. A) hypoactive B) hyperactive C) diminutive D) ponderous E) excessive

115)

Clonus often accompanies a ______ reflex after damage has occurred to the brain. A) cremaster B) pupillary C) hypoactive D) hyperactive

116) When the Achilles tendon is tapped or the bottom of the foot is stroked, the reflexive response is that the foot A) plantar flexes. B) dorsiflexes. C) inverts. D) everts.

117) The embryonic feature that gives rise to the anterior and lateral horns of gray matter is the _____ plate. A) basal B) alar C) ulnar D) anterior E) posterior

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118) The adult spinal cord extends inferiorly from the brain through the vertebral canal and ends at the level of the _____ vertebra. A) S4 B) L1 C) L6 D) S1 E) T8

119)

The nerves projecting inferiorly from the spinal cord are collectively called the A) terminalfinale. B) cauda equina. C) terminusfilus. D) caudalterminale. E) caudusfinalis.

120)

The cell bodies of sensory neurons are located in the A) posterior rootganglion. B) anteriorfuniculus. C) graycommissure. D) anterior horn. E) posteriorfuniculus.

121)

Which of these spinal nerve counts is incorrect? A) Thoracic nerves = 8 pairs B) Cervical nerves = 8 pairs C) Lumbar nerves = 5 pairs D) Sacral nerves = 5 pairs E) Coccygeal nerves = 1 pair

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122) Sensory impulses traveling through the posterior root will reach the _______ upon entering the spinal cord. A) posterior horn B) anterior horn C) central commissure D) posterior root ganglion

123) Motor impulses destined for skeletal muscle will leave the spinal cord through the _______ before passing through a spinal nerve. A) posterior horn B) anterior root C) central canal D) posterior root ganglion

124)

What is a likely result of damage to the phrenic nerve? A) Loss of motor control of the thoracic diaphragm. B) Inability to flex the elbow. C) Lack of sensation from the anterior thigh. D) Inability to flex the torso.

125)

The femoral nerve arises from which nerve plexus? A) Lumbar B) Sacral C) Brachial D) Cervical

126)

The sciatic nerve arises from which nerve plexus?

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A) Lumbar B) Sacral C) Brachial D) Cervical

127)

The common fibular nerve originated from which nerve plexus? A) Lumbar B) Sacral C) Brachial D) Cervical

128) In a common reflex arc, after a sensory nerve signal is processed by interneurons in the integration center, where does the signal go next? A) Motor neuron B) Sensory neuron C) Sensory receptor D) Effector

129)

The lumbar plexuses are formed from the anterior rami of A) L1-L4. B) C5-T1. C) L4-S4. D) T5-T12.

130)

The anterior rami of L1-L4 form the

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A) lumbar plexuses. B) sacral plexuses. C) cervical plexuses. D) brachial plexuses.

131) The superior and inferior ____________ nerves emerge from the sacral plexus to innervate muscles of the posterior hip. A) gluteal B) femoral C) pudendal D) sciatic

132) The pudendal nerve is a relatively small nerve that originates from the ___________ plexus. A) sacral B) brachial C) lumbar D) cervical

133)

The anterior rami of C5-T1 form the A) lumbar plexuses. B) sacral plexuses. C) cervical plexuses. D) brachial plexuses.

134) The inferior gluteal nerve forms from rami of the ____________ region(s) of the spinal cord, and it innervates the _____________.

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A) lumbar and sacral; gluteus maximus muscle B) sacral and coccygeal; gluteus medius muscle C) thoracic; skin on the posterior thigh D) lumbar; muscles of the perineum

135) The pudendal nerve forms from rami of the ____________ region(s) of the spinal cord, and it innervates the _____________. A) lumbar and sacral; gluteus maximus muscle B) sacral and coccygeal; gluteus medius muscle C) sacral; skin on the posterior thigh D) sacral; muscles of the perineum

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 136) Paired, lateral triangular extensions of the spinal pia mater that extend to the dura to suspend and anchor the spinal cord are known as _________ ligaments.

137)

A specific segment of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve is a ___________.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 138) If someone sustained damage to the left side of their spinal cord at the T2 levelsuch that both the anterolateral pathway and the posterior funiculus were severed on the leftside only, what sensory deficits would exist in the left and right lower limbs?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 14_4e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) FALSE 19) FALSE 20) FALSE 21) TRUE 22) TRUE 23) TRUE 24) TRUE 25) TRUE 26) TRUE Version 1

27) FALSE Because the vertebral column outgrows the spinal cord during development, the lumbar region of the spinal cord is closest to the inferior thoracic vertebrae of the vertebral column. 28) TRUE 29) FALSE Nerve plexuses are networks of interweaving anterior rami of spinal nerves. 30) TRUE 31) [A, B, C] 32) B 33) D 34) D 35) C 36) D 37) B 38) B 39) D 40) C 41) B 42) B 43) C 44) E 45) A 46) D 47) E 48) A 49) B 50) D Version 1

51) B 52) B 53) B 54) A 55) D 56) A 57) A 58) B 59) C 60) C 61) B 62) C 63) C 64) B 65) C 66) D 67) D 68) C 69) A 70) B 71) C 72) D 73) B 74) D 75) A 76) C 77) A 78) C 79) E 80) A Version 1

81) D 82) E 83) C 84) A 85) C 86) C 87) B 88) C 89) E 90) A 91) A 92) A 93) C 94) B 95) D 96) A 97) B 98) A 99) C 100) E 101) A 102) B 103) D 104) B 105) C 106) C 107) B 108) C 109) B 110) A Version 1

111) B 112) C 113) D 114) A 115) D 116) A 117) A 118) B 119) B 120) A 121) A 122) A 123) B 124) A 125) A 126) B 127) B 128) A 129) A 130) A 131) A 132) A 133) D 134) A 135) D 136) denticulate 137) dermatome 138) Proprioception and light touch perceptionpertaining tothe left leg would be compromised; pain and temperature perception pertaining to the right legwould be compromised. Version 1

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CHAPTER 15 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) White rami communicantes carry preganglionic sympathetic axons from the T1–L2 spinal nerves to the sympathetic trunk. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Norepinephrine is a catecholamine. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Autonomic tone allows for a single division of the autonomic nervous system to control an organ by changing that division's activity levels up or down from baseline. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) The somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system are part of both the peripheral nervous system and the central nervous system. ⊚ ⊚

The autonomic nervous system may receive input from visceral sensory neurons. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The ANS uses pathways that include two-neuron chains to innervate its effector organs. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

7) Neuronal divergence occurs when axons from one preganglionic cell synapse on numerous ganglionic cells. ⊚ true ⊚ false

The somatic nervous system can both excite and inhibit effectors. ⊚ true ⊚ false

9) Both types of axons of the sympathetic branch of the ANS use norepinephrine as the neurotransmitter. ⊚ ⊚

10)

The parasympathetic division of the ANS is also called the craniosacral division. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

The sympathetic division of the ANS is also called the thoracosacral division. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) Terminal and intramural ganglia are associated with the parasympathetic branch of the ANS. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) The postganglionic axons of the sympathetic branch of the ANS are short compared to those in the parasympathetic division. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 2

14) With respect to divergence of axons in the sympathetic division of the ANS, one axon innervates fewer than four ganglionic cell bodies. ⊚ ⊚

15)

Paravertebral and prevertebral ganglia are part of the parasympathetic branch of the ANS. ⊚ ⊚

16)

true false

Parasympathetic stimulation of the ciliary muscles allows one to see close-up objects. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) Postganglionic axons of the parasympathetic branch of the ANS cause increased secretion by the lacrimal (tear) glands. ⊚ ⊚

true false

18) Parasympathetic postganglionic axons from the otic ganglion cause an increase in secretion from the parotid salivary glands. ⊚ ⊚

true false

19) Parasympathetic activity is responsible for increased smooth muscle motility and secretory activity in digestive tract organs. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

20) The parasympathetic innervation from the pelvic splanchnic nerves is responsible for erection of the female clitoris and the male penis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

21) The lack of extensive divergence of parasympathetic preganglionic axons prevents the mass activation seen in the sympathetic division. ⊚ ⊚

true false

22) The superior mesenteric ganglion of the sympathetic branch of the ANS is adjacent to the origin of the superior mesenteric artery. ⊚ ⊚

23)

Sweating is a result of sympathetic stimulation. ⊚ ⊚

24)

true false

Micturition is partly the result of autonomic stimulation of the urinary bladder. ⊚ ⊚

25)

true false

The ANS functions independently of any influence from the CNS. ⊚ ⊚

true false

26) The enteric nervous system is a network of neurons found throughout the walls of thoracic organs, such as the lungs.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 27) Select all that are locations where neurons in the enteric nervous system can be found. A) Submucosal plexus B) Myenteric plexus C) Cardiac plexus D) Hypogastric plexus

28)

Select all that are examples of how autonomic reflexes help maintain homeostasis. A) Decreasing blood pressure B) Emptying of the bladder C) Initiating defecation D) Preventing overstretching of skeletal muscles

29)

Select all that occur with increased sympathetic stimulation. A) Release of insulin from the pancreas B) Contraction of the gallbladder, resulting in bile release C) Vasoconstriction of blood vessels serving the skin D) Vasodilation of blood vessels serving skeletal muscles

30) What are some likely changes to the body of a nervous student about to give a speech in front of the class?

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A) A decrease in pupil size B) Release of renin from the kidneys, resulting in increased blood pressure C) Vasodilation of blood vessels serving the skin D) Vasodilation of coronary blood vessels on the surface of the heart

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 31) Consider a basketball playerwhose heart is racing during the final moments of a game. With seconds on the clock, she makes a jump shot. Her excitement is a function of her ________ nervous system, and her movements are a function of her _______ nervous system. A) parasympathetic; sympathetic B) sympathetic; parasympathetic C) somatic; sympathetic D) sympathetic; somatic E) somatic; parasympathetic

32)

Which of the following is correct about the autonomic nervous system (ANS)? A) The ANS is part ofboth the CNS and the PNS. B) ANS functions areinvoluntary. C) ANS motor neuronsinnervate cardiac muscle fibers, smooth muscle fibers, and

glands. D) ANS motor pathwaysalways include two neurons. E) All of the choices are correct.

33) We lack awareness of many of our bodies' systems for maintaining homeostasis. The sensations, movements, and secretions of organs such as the heart and intestinesare governed bythe A) autonomic nervoussystem. B) somatic nervoussystem.

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34)

Which is false regarding the somatic nervous system (SNS)? A) The SNS is undervoluntary control. B) The SNS uses motorand sensory neurons. C) The SNS innervatesskeletal muscle fibers. D) The SNS is part ofboth the CNS and the PNS. E) The SNS isactivated by visceral sensory neurons.

35) The knee jerk reflex (when the quadriceps muscles contract after the patellar tendon is tapped) is directed by the A) autonomic nervoussystem. B) somatic nervoussystem.

36) In an autonomic motor pathway, the first cell in the two-neuron chain is the ______ neuron. A) preganglionic B) postganglionic C) posterior D) terminal E) primary

37)

Postganglionic axons are A) myelinated. B) unmyelinated. C) sometimesmyelinated and sometimes unmyelinated.

38)

Motor neurons of the _________ nervous system contain more rapidly conducting axons.

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A) autonomic B) somatic

39)

Motor neurons of the autonomic nervous system A) always exciteeffector organs. B) always inhibiteffector organs. C) can either excite or inhibit effector organs. D) do not excite effector organs butmonitor their status of activity.

40)

Preganglionic axons of the ANS release A) acetylcholine. B) norepinephrine. C) eitheracetylcholine or norepinephrine.

41) Which statement accurately compares the motor systems of thesomatic nervous system (SNS)and autonomic nervous system (ANS)? A) Both the SNS and the ANS house their motor neurons in ganglia. B) The SNS does not have ganglia for its motor neurons but the ANSdoes. C) The ANS does nothave ganglia for its motor neurons but the SNS does. D) Neither the SNS nor the ANS houses its motor neurons in ganglia.

42) The circuitry of the autonomic system allows for control in activation. The characteristic that allows a small number of preganglionic cells to stimulate a large number of postganglionic cells is

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A) convergence. B) reverberation. C) divergence. D) reciprocalinnervation.

43)

Many different neurons can stimulate an autonomic ganglion cell simultaneously due to A) convergence. B) reciprocity. C) divergence. D) reverberation.

44)

Which is not an effector innervated by the autonomic nervous system? A) Cardiac muscle B) Smooth muscle C) Glands D) Skeletal muscle E) None of the choices is correct.

45)

The two divisions of the autonomic nervous system A) use preganglionicand postganglionic neurons to innervate skeletal muscle. B) contain autonomicganglia to house ganglionic neurons. C) are voluntary. D) are composed ofPNS structures only. E) function onlyduring sleep.

46)

Which division functions to conserve energy and replenish the supply of nutrients?

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A) Parasympathetic B) Somatic C) Sympathetic

47) Which division functions to increase alertness and direct bodily responses in stressful situations? A) Parasympathetic B) Sympathetic

48)

The "fight-or-flight" system is the __________ nervous system. A) parasympathetic B) somatic C) sympathetic

49)

Which system has more divergence of preganglionic axons? A) Parasympatheticdivision B) Sympatheticdivision

50) Which system has long preganglionic axons and therefore ganglia that are relatively far from the central nervous system? A) Parasympatheticnervous system B) Somatic nervoussystem C) Sympatheticnervous system

51)

Which system contains short preganglionic axons that branch extensively?

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A) Parasympathetic nervous system B) Somatic nervoussystem C) Sympatheticnervous system

52) Which statements are correct concerning the parasympathetic division of the ANS? a: Contains preganglionic cell bodies in brainstem nuclei b: Contains preganglionic cell bodies in the lateral horns of the T1–L2 regions c: Participates in the “fight-or-flight” response d: Helpsmaintain homeostasis e: Contains preganglionic cell bodies in the sacral region of the spinal cord A) a, d, e B) a, c, e C) b, c, d D) b, c E) c, d, e

53)

The sympathetic division of the ANS has A) long postganglionic axons. B) norepinephrine as neurotransmitter. C) preganglionic neuron cell bodies in the T1–L2 regions of the spinal cord. D) All of the choicesare correct.

54)

Which is not characteristic of the parasympathetic division of the ANS? A) Longpostganglionic axons B) Long preganglionicaxons C) No ramicommunicantes D) Terminal ganglia close to the target organ E) Craniosacral preganglionic neuron cell bodies

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55)

Which system engages in mass activation? A) Parasympatheticnervous system B) Sympathetic nervoussystem

56)

Limited branching of preganglionic axons allows for A) massactivation. B) local and discreteactivation. C) rapid changes innumerous structures at once.

57) Which cranial nerves are associated with the parasympathetic division of the ANS? a: III b: IV c: V d: VII e: IX f: X g: XII A) a, d, e, f B) b, c, d, e C) a, c, d, g D) c, d, f, g E) b, e, f, g

58)

The preganglionic axons of CN III extend to the _______ ganglion.

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A) pterygopalatine B) submandibular C) otic D) pelvic E) ciliary

59)

The preganglionic axons of CN VII extend to the A) pterygopalatineganglion. B) submandibularganglion. C) otic ganglion. D) pterygopalatineand submandibular ganglia. E) pterygopalatine,submandibular, and otic ganglia.

60)

The glossopharyngeal nerve innervates the A) parotid salivarygland. B) largeintestine. C) lacrimalgland. D) sublingualsalivary gland. E) ciliarymuscle.

61)

From which part of the CNS doparasympathetic preganglionic axons of CN VII emerge? A) Mesencephalon B) Cerebral cortex C) Pons D) Lateral horns of the S1 spinal cord segment E) Lateral horns of the T1 spinal cord segment

62)

Tear secretions are governed by parasympathetic fibers within which cranial nerve?

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A) III B) V C) VII D) IX E) X

63)

The cranial nerve that supplies parasympathetic innervation to the thoracic organs is A) CN II. B) CN III. C) CN VI. D) CN IX. E) CN X.

64) The postganglionic parasympathetic fibers that are controlled bypelvic splanchnic nerves innervate the a: Large intestine b: Reproductive organs c: Salivary glands d: Pupillary constrictor muscles e: Urinary bladder f: Ureters A) a, d, e B) b, c, e C) a, b, e, f D) c, d, f E) a, c

65)

Activation of parasympathetic fibers in pelvic splanchnic nerves leads to A) increased smoothmuscle motility in the digestive tract. B) decreased smoothmuscle motility in the digestive tract. C) no effect on the digestive tract.

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66)

Activation of parasympathetic fibers in pelvic splanchnic nerves leads to A) inhibition ofurinary bladder contractions. B) erection of themale penis and female clitoris. C) decreasedsecretions in the digestive tract. D) an increase in theheart rate. E) decreased secretion of adrenaline fromthe adrenal glands.

67)

The cranial nerve having multiple terminal and intramural ganglia is A) CN III. B) CN VII. C) CN IX. D) CN X. E) CN XII.

68)

Preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic division originate in the A) dorsal horns ofthe craniosacral brain and spinal cord. B) ventral horns ofthe cervical and sacral spinal cord. C) dorsal horns ofthe thoracolumbar spinal segments. D) lateral horns ofthe thoracolumbar spinal segments. E) ventral horns of the cervical andthoracic spinal segments.

69)

The sympathetic trunks are located A) superior to thebrachial plexus. B) inferior to thesacral plexus. C) immediatelylateral to the vertebral column. D) lateral toprevertebral ganglia. E) in thecraniosacral regions.

70)

The sympathetic trunk ganglia are primarily composed of

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A) axons ofpreganglionic neurons. B) axons of ganglionic neurons. C) somas ofpreganglionic neurons. D) somas of ganglionicneurons.

71)

A structure that is said to resemble a pearl necklace is a A) sympathetictrunk. B) parasympathetictrunk. C) parasympatheticganglion. D) splanchnic ganglion.

72) Postganglionic sympathetic axons are carried from the sympathetic trunk to the spinal nerve by the A) white ramicommunicantes. B) superior cervicalganglion. C) gray ramicommunicantes. D) splanchnicnerves. E) pterygopalatineganglion.

73)

Gray rami from the sympathetic trunk connect to A) alternating spinalnerves. B) the cranialnerves. C) all spinalnerves. D) the sympathetictrunk.

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74) The sympathetic postganglionic axons from the superior cervical ganglion innervate a: Sweat glands in the head b: Sweat glands in the palms c: Smooth muscle of blood vessels in the head d: Smooth muscles of blood vessels in the antebrachial region e: Superior tarsal muscle of the eye f: Submandibular salivary gland A) a, c, e B) b, d, f C) a, c, f D) d, e, f E) b, d

75)

Specific prevertebral ganglia are named after the A) effector organstimulated by the postganglionic axon. B) major abdominalarteries around which they are found. C) vertebra fromunder which the preganglionic axon travels. D) distance from thecorresponding parasympathetic ganglion. E) early anatomistwho discovered and described them.

76)

Prevertebral ganglia are located A) posterior to thevertebral column. B) lateral to thevertebral column. C) anterior to thevertebral column. D) at the terminationsite of the postganglionic axon. E) medial to thedorsal spinal columns.

77)

Postganglionic axons from the celiac ganglion innervate the

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A) stomach. B) spleen. C) liver. D) gallbladder. E) All of the choices are correct.

78)

There are ________ prevertebral ganglia. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 12

79)

The postganglionic axons from the superior mesenteric ganglion innervate A) the distal half ofthe duodenum. B) part of thepancreas. C) part of the smallintestine. D) the proximal partof the large intestine. E) All of the choices are correct.

80) The prevertebral ganglion that receives axons that originate in the L1–L2 segments of the spinal cord is the _____ ganglion. A) celiac B) superiormesenteric C) inferiormesenteric D) splenic E) hepatic

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81) The superior mesenteric ganglion receives preganglionic sympathetic neurons from the _______ segments of the spinal cord. A) T1–T4 B) T2–T6 C) T5–T9 D) T7–T9 E) T10–T12

82)

Sympathetic splanchnic nerves are composed of

A) preganglionicsympathetic axons that synapse in a sympathetic trunk ganglion. B) preganglionicsympathetic axons that did not synapse in a sympathetic trunk ganglion. C) postganglionicsympathetic axons that synapse in a sympathetic trunk ganglion. D) postganglionicsympathetic axons that did not synapse in a sympathetic trunk ganglion. E) None of the choices is correct.

83)

Once inside the sympathetic trunk, the sympathetic preganglionic axons A) remain at the levelof entry. B) travelsuperiorly. C) travelinferiorly. D) follow any of theroutes listed.

84)

Which sympathetic pathway involves only a preganglionic axon going to the effector? A) Splanchnic nerve pathway B) Adrenal medulla pathway C) Postganglionic sympathetic nerve pathway D) Spinal nerve pathway

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85) Which sympathetic pathway involves a preganglionic neuron that synapses with a ganglionic neuron in a sympathetic trunk ganglion, but the postganglionic axon does not leave the trunk via a gray ramus? A) Splanchnic nerve pathway B) Adrenal medulla pathway C) Postganglionic sympathetic nerve pathway D) Spinal nerve pathway E) None of the choices is correct.

86)

The arrector pili muscles receive their sympathetic innervation via the A) splanchnic nervepathway. B) adrenal medullapathway. C) postganglionicsympathetic nerve pathway. D) spinal nervepathway. E) None of thechoices is correct.

87) Which sympathetic pathway is responsible for activating the esophagus, heart, lungs, and thoracic blood vessels? A) Splanchnic nerve pathway B) Adrenal medulla pathway C) Postganglionic sympathetic nerve pathway D) Spinal nerve pathway E) None of the choices is correct.

88) The sympathetic division pathway that results in innervation of the pelvic organs has its spinal cord segment origin in

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A) T1–T2. B) T1–L2. C) T1–T4. D) T5–T12. E) T10–L2.

89) Which autonomic plexus consists of postganglionic sympathetic axons that come off the cervical and thoracic sympathetic trunk ganglia, as well as preganglionic axons from the vagus nerve? A) Esophageal plexus B) Pulmonaryplexus C) Abdominal aortic plexus D) Hypogastric plexus E) Cardiac plexus

90)

Which autonomic plexus innervates viscera within the pelvic region? A) Esophageal plexus B) Pulmonary plexus C) Abdominal aortic plexus D) Hypogastric plexus E) Cardiac plexus

91) The cardiac sphincter is innervated by parasympathetic axons coming from the _______ plexus.

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A) esophageal B) abdominalaortic C) pulmonary D) hypogastric E) cardiac

92)

When norepinephrine is released from postganglionic neurons, its targets are A) adrenergicreceptors on effectors such as smooth muscle. B) adrenergicreceptors on preganglionic sympathetic neurons. C) cholinergicreceptors on effectors such as cardiac muscle. D) cholinergicreceptors on preganglionic sympathetic neurons.

93)

Nicotinic receptors bind A) acetylcholine andallow chloride ions to exit the cell. B) acetylcholine andallow sodium ions to enter the cell. C) muscarine andincrease the contractility of intestinal muscle. D) norepinephrine andcan either stimulate or inhibit the cell. E) norepinephrine andallow potassium entry, thereby exciting the cell.

94)

When ACh binds to nicotinic receptors, it

A) always produces anexcitatory response. B) always produces aninhibitory response. C) sometimes excitesand sometimes inhibits the target cell depending on the subtype ofreceptor. D) sometimes excitesand sometimes inhibits the target cell depending on the extracellular fluidsurrounding the cell.

95)

Muscarinic receptors are proteins that bind the neurotransmitter

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A) acetylcholine. B) epinephrine. C) norepinephrine.

96) When neurotransmitter binds tomuscarinic receptors on smooth muscle cells in the gastrointestinal tract, A) motilityincreases. B) motilitydecreases.

97)

Catecholamines include A) acetylcholine,epinephrine, and norepinephrine. B) dopamine,epinephrine, and norepinephrine. C) acetylcholine,epinephrine, and dopamine. D) epinephrine,norepinephrine, serotonin, and all monoamines.

98) The type of adrenergic receptor found on the smooth muscle cells of blood vessels in the skin is A) α 1 B) α 2 C) β 1 D) β 2

99)

Typically, alpha adrenergic receptors have A) stimulatory effects. B) inhibitoryeffects.

100)

Stimulation of β2 receptors in the lung causes

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A) bronchoconstriction. B) bronchodilation.

101)

In the heart, activation of these receptors increases heart rate. A) α 1 B) α 2 C) β 1 D) β 2

102)

Autonomic tone refers to A) whether a responseis stimulatory or inhibitory. B) whether the body'sreaction is to fight or to flee. C) the continualactivity maintained by the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. D) the degree oftension in skeletal muscles at rest.

103)

Dual innervation means that an individual effector A) may be excited orinhibited by a single division of the autonomic nervous system. B) receives input from both the somatic and the autonomic nervous systems. C) receives input from both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic nervous systems. D) receives twoautonomic axons on each smooth muscle cell.

104)

The sympathetic and parasympathetic systems have _________ effects on heart rate. A) antagonistic B) cooperative C) synergistic D) negligible

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105)

Which type of innervation causes pupil dilation? A) Parasympathetic B) Sympathetic

106)

Which type of innervation causes reduced blood flow to the digestive tract? A) Parasympathetic B) Sympathetic

107)

Which type of innervation causes the heart rate to increase? A) Parasympathetic B) Sympathetic

108)

Which may be involved in an autonomic reflex? A) Cardiac muscle contraction B) Smooth muscle contraction C) Secretion by glands D) All of the choices are correct. E) None of the choices are correct.

109) In the brain, the ________ is the integration and command center for autonomic functions.

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A) medulla B) cerebralcortex C) spinal cord D) brainstem E) hypothalamus

110)

The centers for cardiac, digestive, and vasomotor functions are housed within the A) brainstem. B) hypothalamus. C) spinal cord. D) cerebralcortex. E) cerebellum.

111) The parasympathetic autonomic responses associated with defecation and urination are processed and controlled at the level of the A) brainstem. B) hypothalamus. C) spinal cord. D) cerebellum. E) limbic center.

112)

Sweat glands and arrector pili muscles are controlled A) only by theparasympathetic nervous system. B) only by thesympathetic nervous system. C) by both thesympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. D) by both theautonomic and somatic nervous systems.

113) The diameter of many blood vessels is controlled exclusively by the ________ nervous system, and decreases in the activity of this system result in _________.

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A) parasympathetic; vasoconstriction B) parasympathetic; vasodilation C) somatic; vasoconstriction D) sympathetic; vasoconstriction E) sympathetic; vasodilation

114)

The micturition reflex results in

A) vigorouscontraction of the smooth muscle of the large intestine and relaxation of analsphincters. B) contraction ofsmooth muscle in the bladder and relaxation of urinary sphincters. C) a decrease in bloodpressure due to a slowing of heart rate. D) retention of urineand feces by relaxing some muscles and contracting others.

115)

A rise in blood pressure causes a reflexive A) activation of theparasympathetic system and inhibition of the sympathetic system. B) activation of thesympathetic system and inhibition of the parasympathetic system. C) activation of boththe parasympathetic system and the sympathetic system. D) inhibition ofboththe parasympathetic system and the sympathetic system.

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116)

Which type of pathway does this diagram illustrate?

A) Spinal nerve pathway B) Postganglionic sympathetic nerve pathway C) Adrenal medulla pathway D) Splanchnic nerve pathway E) Raynaud nerve pathway

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117)

Which type of pathway is illustrated?

A) Spinal nerve pathway B) Postganglionic sympathetic nerve pathway C) Adrenal medulla pathway D) Splanchnic nerve pathway E) Raynaud nerve pathway

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118)

What pathway is illustrated?

A) Spinal nerve pathway B) Postganglionic sympathetic nerve pathway C) Adrenal medulla pathway D) Splanchnic nerve pathway E) Raynaud nerve pathway

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119)

Which sympathetic pathway is illustrated?

A) Spinal nerve pathway B) Postganglionic sympathetic nerve pathway C) Adrenal medulla pathway D) Splanchnic nerve pathway E) Raynaud nerve pathway

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FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 120) In the stress response, the process by which many structures are activated simultaneously is known as ________ activation.

121) When an effector receives input from both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic divisions, it is said to have ________ innervation.

122)

The second neuron in an autonomic pathway is called a _________ neuron.

123) Neuronal __________ occurs when axons from numerous preganglionic cells synapse on a single ganglionic cell.

124)

White rami appear white in color due to the fact that they are ___________.

125) The __________ division of the ANS is most commonly associated with the preparation of the body for emergencies.

126) Parasympathetic ______________ axons are longer than their counterparts in the sympathetic division.

127) In the parasympathetic division, _________ ganglia are located in the wall of the target organ.

128)

In the parasympathetic division, _________ ganglia are located close to the target organ.

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129) “Rest and digest,” as well as the maintenance of homeostasis, is associated with the action of the _________ division of the ANS.

130) The parasympathetic postganglionic axons that travel to the pupillary constrictor muscle result in pupil ________ when the eye is exposed to bright light.

131) The sympathetic preganglionic neuron cell bodies are housed in the _______ horn of the appropriate thoracolumbar regions of the spinal cord.

132) Except for the _______ region of the spinal cord, one sympathetic trunk ganglion is approximately associated with each spinal nerve.

133) _______ rami communicantes carry postganglionic sympathetic axons from the sympathetic trunk to the spinal nerves.

134) _______ nerves are composed of preganglionic sympathetic axons that did not synapse in a sympathetic ganglion.

135) The _______ mesenteric ganglion receives preganglionic sympathetic neurons from the T10–T12 segments of the spinal cord.

136) The ________ ganglia differ from the sympathetic trunk ganglia segments in that they are single structures, rather than paired.

137) An axon takes the ______ nerve pathway if a preganglionic neuron synapses with a ganglionic neuron in a sympathetic trunk ganglion.

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138) Autonomic _________ are collections of sympathetic postganglionic axons and parasympathetic preganglionic axons, as well as some visceral sensory axons.

139) The abdominal _______ plexus consists of the celiac plexus, superior mesenteric plexus, and inferior mesenteric plexus.

140) Both the cardiac plexus and the _______ plexus consist of postganglionic sympathetic axons from the thoracic sympathetic trunk ganglia and preganglionic axons from the vagus nerve.

141)

All ANS preganglionic axons release _____________ as their neurotransmitter.

142)

The axons that release norepinephrine are called _________.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 143) Explain how both the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems both influence male reproductive physiology, and indicate whether the two systems work antagonistically or cooperatively.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 15_4e 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) FALSE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) TRUE 21) TRUE 22) TRUE 23) TRUE 24) TRUE 25) FALSE 26) FALSE Version 1

The enteric nervous system is a network of neurons found throughout the walls of the gastrointestinal tract, from esophagus to anus. 27) [A, B] 28) [A, B, C] 29) [C, D] 30) [B, D] 31) D 32) E 33) A 34) E 35) B 36) A 37) B 38) B 39) C 40) A 41) B 42) C 43) A 44) D 45) B 46) A 47) B 48) C 49) B 50) A 51) C 52) A 53) D 54) A Version 1

55) B 56) B 57) A 58) E 59) D 60) A 61) C 62) C 63) E 64) C 65) A 66) B 67) D 68) D 69) C 70) D 71) A 72) C 73) C 74) A 75) B 76) C 77) E 78) B 79) E 80) C 81) E 82) B 83) D 84) B Version 1

85) C 86) D 87) C 88) E 89) E 90) D 91) A 92) A 93) B 94) A 95) A 96) A 97) B 98) A 99) A 100) B 101) C 102) C 103) C 104) A 105) B 106) B 107) B 108) D 109) E 110) A 111) C 112) B 113) E 114) B Version 1

115) A 116) B 117) C 118) A 119) D 120) mass 121) dual 122) ganglionic 123) convergence 124) myelinated 125) sympathetic 126) preganglionic 127) intramural 128) terminal 129) parasympathetic 130) constriction 131) lateral 132) cervical 133) Gray 134) Splanchnic 135) superior 136) prevertebral 137) spinal 138) plexuses 139) aortic 140) pulmonary 141) acetylcholine 142) adrenergic 143) The systems cooperate: parasympathetic erection, sympathetic ejaculation. Version 1

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CHAPTER 16 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Our body responds to the osmolarity of our blood plasma, but we are not consciously aware of it. Because we respond but are not aware, this is an example of a sensation, but not of a stimulus. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Receptors contain modality-gated channels within their plasma membranes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Visual pathways include axons that project from the optic tracts to the superior colliculi. ⊚ true ⊚ false

4) The superior colliculi and pretectal nuclei function to direct reflexive responses to visual stimuli. ⊚ true ⊚ false

The semicircular ducts are part of the membranous labyrinth. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Axons from the vestibular nerve project to each of the cranial nuclei that control the extrinsic eye muscles. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) Gustatory receptors are classified as mechanoreceptors because food molecules must be dissolved in saliva before they can be tasted. Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

8) The reason we can detect so many different odors is that each olfactory neuron is slightly different from the others, allowing for a wide range of odor sensations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

9) Stimulation of olfactory receptor cells involves activation of G-protein molecules inside them. ⊚ ⊚

10)

Suspensory ligaments function to change the shape of the lens within the eye. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

The otolithic membrane functions in hearing and in maintaining equilibrium. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

The retina is composed of two layers: an inner pigmented layer and an outer neural layer. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

Olfactory receptor cells are modified bipolar neurons that bear olfactory hairs. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14) As the eye adjusts to focus on a near object, the cornea must change shape because the lens is unable to. ⊚ true ⊚ false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 15) Select all that light must pass through on its way to being focused on the retina. A) Cornea B) Aqueous humor C) Lens D) Choroid E) Sclera

16)

Which of the following are proprioceptors? Select all that apply. A) Muscle spindles B) Lamellated corpuscles C) Tactile discs D) Golgi tendon organs

17) Which of the following receptors adapt very slowly, which is important when sending continual positional movement to the brain? Select all that apply. A) Joint kinesthetic receptors B) Muscle spindles C) Tactile corpuscles D) Golgi tendon organs E) Root hair plexuses

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 18) Changes in the external and internal environment are ________ that are detected by the sensory system. A) sensations B) receptors C) stimuli D) adaptations E) transducers

19)

Conscious awareness of incoming sensory information is called A) sensation. B) receptor. C) a stimulus. D) adaptation. E) transducer.

20)

By definition, transducers A) are electricaldevices that do not work withbiological systems. B) change one form ofenergy into another form. C) transmit signalsaway from the central nervous system. D) transmit signalstoward the central nervous system.

21)

Which statement accurately describes the merits of different receptive field properties?

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A) Having small receptive fields allows for more precision, but because more receptors are needed it increases overallenergy costs. B) Having large receptive fields allows for more precision, but because the area of responsiveness is larger, itincreases the body'senergy costs. C) Having smallreceptive fields allows for more precision, smaller body surfaces, anddecreased energy costs overall. D) Having largereceptive fields allows for more precision, larger body surfaces, and decreasedenergy costs overall.

22)

Our ability to preciselylocate a stimulus is ________ proportional to receptive field size. A) directly B) inversely

23)

The entire area through which the sensitive ends of the receptor cells are distributed is the A) sensory field. B) receptivefield. C) stimulus area. D) adaptativeradius. E) transducerfield.

24)

If the receptive fields of the skin's receptors were smaller, then

A) precision would begreater, and we would not need as many receptors to monitor the environment forstimuli. B) precision would begreater, but we would need more receptors to monitor the environment forstimuli. C) precision would belessened, and we would need more receptors to monitor the environment forstimuli. D) precision would belessened, but we would not need as many receptors to monitor the environmentfor stimuli.

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25)

The type of receptor that readily adapts to a stimulusis known as a ________ receptor. A) phasic B) tonic C) transducer D) multimodal

26)

In general, you become unaware of the shirt on your back because your touchreceptors A) are tonic. B) undergoadaptation. C) aretransducers. D) maintain firing but are ignored.

27)

A reduction in sensitivity to a continually applied stimulus is called A) sensation. B) tonicity. C) consciousawareness. D) adaptation. E) transduction.

28)

Which of the following is not one of the three criteria used to describe receptors? A) Stimulus strength(intensity of stimulus) B) Stimulus origin(location of stimulus) C) Receptordistribution (body location) D) Modality ofstimulus (stimulating agent)

29)

The classification of a receptor as a photoreceptor or a mechanoreceptor depends on

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A) the location oforigin of the stimulus it perceives. B) the modality of thestimulus it perceives. C) its location in thebody. D) whether it is asomatic or visceral receptor.

30)

Which term best describes receptors that detect stimuli from the external environment? A) Interoceptors B) Exteroceptors C) Proprioceptors D) Nociceptors E) Thermoreceptors

31)

Which term best describes receptors that detect stimuli from internal organs? A) Interoceptors B) Exteroceptors C) Proprioceptors D) Nociceptors E) Thermoreceptors

32) Which term best describes receptors that detect body and limb movements, skeletal muscle contraction and stretch, and joint capsule structure? A) Interoceptors B) Exteroceptors C) Proprioceptors D) Nociceptors E) Thermoreceptors

33)

These receptors detect specific molecules in our external and internal environments.

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A) Chemoreceptors B) Thermoreceptors C) Photoreceptors D) Mechanoreceptors E) Baroreceptors

34)

These receptors respond to changes in temperature. A) Chemoreceptors B) Thermoreceptors C) Photoreceptors D) Mechanoreceptors E) Baroreceptors

35)

These receptors detect changes in the color, intensity, and movement of light. A) Chemoreceptors B) Thermoreceptors C) Photoreceptors D) Mechanoreceptors E) Baroreceptors

36)

These receptors respond to touch, pressure, vibration, and stretch. A) Chemoreceptors B) Thermoreceptors C) Photoreceptors D) Mechanoreceptors E) Baroreceptors

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37) These receptors detect changes in pressure within the body caused by the stretch or distention of internal structures. A) Chemoreceptors B) Thermoreceptors C) Photoreceptors D) Mechanoreceptors E) Baroreceptors

38)

These receptors respond to pain caused by external and internal stimuli. A) Chemoreceptors B) Thermoreceptors C) Photoreceptors D) Mechanoreceptors E) Nociceptors

39)

The most numerous type of receptor in the body is the A) chemoreceptor. B) tactilereceptor. C) thermoreceptor. D) nociceptor. E) photoreceptor.

40)

There are three types of unencapsulated tactile receptors. Select the exception. A) Free nerve endings B) Sebaceous filaments C) Root hair plexuses D) Tactile discs

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41) The battery of your electric toothbrush is running down and so you feel a low-frequency vibration in your oral cavity. Which receptors detect this stimulus? A) Root hair plexus B) Free nerve ending C) Bulbouscorpuscle D) End bulbs E) All of the choices are correct.

42)

There are four types of encapsulated receptors. Select the exception. A) End bulbs B) Lamellated corpuscles C) Arrector pili corpuscles D) Bulbous corpuscles E) Tactile corpuscles

43)

The receptors responsible for detecting deep pressure and high-frequency vibration are A) end bulbs. B) lamellatedcorpuscles. C) arrector pilicorpuscles. D) bulbous corpuscles. E) tactilecorpuscles.

44)

This receptor detects continuous deep pressure and distortion of the skin. A) End bulbs B) Lamellated corpuscles C) Arrector pili corpuscles D) Bulbous corpuscles E) Tactile corpuscles

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45)

Phasic receptors for light touch and texture are A) end bulbs. B) lamellatedcorpuscles. C) arrector pilicorpuscles. D) bulbous corpuscles. E) tactilecorpuscles.

46) A person having a heart attack may feel pain along the medial side of the left arm. This pain is known as A) referred pain. B) phantom pain. C) selected pain. D) covert pain. E) masked pain.

47) Because numerous cutaneous and visceral sensory neurons conduct signals on _______ ascending tracts of the spinal cord, the brain sometimes falsely localizes the location of a pain stimulus. A) the same B) very different

48) Which papillae, distributed on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue surface, lack taste buds? A) Papiform B) Filiform C) Fungiform D) Vallate E) Foliate

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49) The papillae located mainly on the tip and sides of the tongue that contain only a few taste buds each are the _______ papillae. A) papiform B) filiform C) fungiform D) vallate E) foliate

50) The least numerous but the largest of the papillae are arranged as a V-shape on the posterior dorsal surface of the tongue. They contain the majority of taste buds and are called _____ papillae. A) papiform B) filiform C) fungiform D) vallate E) foliate

51) The least developed of the papilla types are the ______ papillae, which house only a few taste buds during infancy and early childhood. A) papiform B) filiform C) fungiform D) vallate E) foliate

52)

Which statement accurately describes structures at a taste bud?

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A) The gustatory microvillus of a gustatory cell extends through the taste pore of a taste bud. B) The gustatory villiof basal cells project through the taste bud to the surface of theepithelium. C) The gustatory microvillus of a papilla project through the gustatory pore to the gustatory glomerulus. D) Basal cells containvilli that project through the pore of a papilla to make a taste bud.

53) There are five basic taste sensations. Select the one mismatched with its stimulating agent. A) Sweet; organic compounds such as sugar B) Sour; hydrogen ions from acids such as those in lemons C) Salty; metal ions such as potassium or sodium D) Bitter; acids such as those in toxins or poisons E) Umami; amino acids such as glutamate or aspartate found in chicken soup

54)

Caffeine and unsweetened chocolate both tastebitter, as they are A) alkaloids. B) acids. C) amino acids. D) ions of heavymolecular weight. E) carbohydrates.

55)

The flavor of food depends upon A) olfaction. B) gustation. C) both olfaction andgustation. D) neither olfactionnor gustation.

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56) The route that the sensation of taste follows is a: Primary axons pass along cranial nerves VII and IX. b: Primary neurons synapse in the nucleus solitarius. c: Secondary neurons synapse in the thalamus. d: Tertiary neurons travel to the primary gustatory cortex. A) a, b, c, d B) b, c, a, d C) a, d, b, c D) d, c, b, a E) c, d, a, b

57)

Olfactory receptor cells are _____ neurons. A) multipolar B) unipolar C) bipolar D) nonpolar E) apolar

58)

Which is not a cell type found in the olfactory epithelium? A) Olfactory receptor cell B) Supporting cell C) Basal cell D) Fungiform cell

59)

Where would you find olfactory hairs?

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A) Scattered among the lamina propria B) At the apical surface of olfactory neurons C) Buried within the olfactory glands D) At the surface of supporting cells E) Concentrated along basal cells

60)

Certain odors can initiate behavioral and emotional reactions because

A) the olfactorypathway is connected directly to the medulla oblongata. B) there arewidespread olfactory associations within the hypothalamus and limbicsystem. C) olfactorysensations are interpreted at the prefrontal cortex. D) the olfactorypathway is connected directly to the occipital lobe. E) the sense ofolfaction occurs immediately at the olfactory epithelium.

61)

The olfactory tracts project

A) directly to theprimary olfactory cortex of the temporal lobe of the cerebrum. B) directly to theprimary olfactory cortex of the frontal lobe of the cerebrum. C) to the thalamusand then to the primary olfactory cortex of the temporal lobe of thecerebrum. D) to the thalamusand then to the primary olfactory cortex of the frontal lobe of thecerebrum.

62)

Olfactory glomeruli are located in the A) thalamus. B) olfactoryepithelium. C) olfactorybulbs. D) hypothalamus.

63) Some odors cause visceral reactions, such as a gagging response to the smell of rotten food. Such responses are a result of olfactory pathways through the Version 1

A) cerebellum. B) amygdala. C) thalamus. D) hypothalamus. E) cerebrum.

64)

What molecules help concentrate odorants at the olfactory receptor cells? A) Sustentacularin B) Odorant-bindingproteins C) Volatilemolecules D) G-proteins E) Tastants

65)

The conjunctiva is composed of _____ epithelium. A) simplesquamous B) simplecuboidal C) stratifiedsquamous D) simplecolumnar E) stratifiedkeratinized

66) The conjunctiva that lines the internal surface of the eyelids is termed the _____ conjunctiva. A) palpebral B) retinal C) ocular D) epithelial E) visceral

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67)

The primary function of eyebrows is to A) allow theappropriate amount of light to enter the eye. B) prevent excesslight from entering the eye. C) prevent objectsfrom striking the eye. D) prevent sweatfrom dripping into the open eye. E) form a protectivebarrier of fat and hair to help shade the eye.

68)

Eyelids serve two purposes: one is to protect the eye and the other is to A) help distributeblood to the eye surface. B) help distributelacrimal fluid to cleanse and lubricate the surface. C) help spreadantiviral solution. D) help to controlthe transmission of the nerve impulse to the retina. E) prevent excessmucus from obscuring vision.

69) What is the correct sequence for lacrimal fluid production and drainage? a: Tears disperse across the surface of the eye. b: Tears are produced by the lacrimal gland. c: Fluid drains through the nasolacrimal duct. d: Fluid enters the nasal cavity. e: Fluid enters the lacrimal canaliculi and collects in the lacrimal sac. A) a, b, c, d, e B) b, a, c, d, e C) c, a, d, b, e D) b, a, e, c, d E) c, a, b, e, d

70)

The eye measures about ________ in diameter.

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A) 2.5 mm B) 12.5 mm C) 2.5 cm D) 12.5 cm E) 22.5 cm

71) The proper sequence of eye layers from the outermost to the innermost layer is a: Neural tunic b: Fatty tunic c: Vascular tunic d: Fibrous tunic A) a, b, c B) b, a, c C) a, b, d D) c, a, d E) d, c, a

72)

The fibrous tunic of the eye is composed of two parts. What are they? A) The cornea and the sclera B) The conjunctiva and the cornea C) The conjunctiva and the sclera D) The sclera and the retina E) The sclera and the uvea

73)

The structural continuity between the cornea and the sclera is called A) the substantiapropria. B) the limbus. C) the uvea. D) Decemet’smembrane. E) Schlemm’smembrane.

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74) The vascular tunic of the eye has three distinct regions. From anterior to posterior what are they? a: Ciliary body b: Choroid c: Iris A) a, b, c B) b, a, c C) c, a, b D) c, b, a E) b, c, a

75)

The structure that functions as a diaphragm to control pupil size is the A) ora serrata. B) suspensoryligament. C) iris. D) cornea. E) anteriorchamber.

76) If you were to cut a cross-section of the retina and examine it under a microscope, what would be the order of features from the choroid to the posterior cavity? a: Rods and cones b: Ganglionic axons progressing to the optic nerve c: Bipolar cells d: Ganglion cells' bodies e: Pigmented retina A) a, b, c, d, e B) e, a, c, d, b C) c, a, e, d, b D) d, e, a, b, c E) e, d, c, b, a

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77)

Which eye feature provides vitamin A for photoreceptor cells? A) Cornea B) Conjunctiva C) Sclera D) Pigmented layer of the retina E) Neural layer of the retina

78)

What part of the retina lacks photoreceptors? A) Optic disc B) Macula lutea C) Fovea centralis D) Posterior retina E) All of the choices are correct.

79)

What part of the retina is responsible for the sharpest vision? A) Optic disc B) Ora serrata C) Fovea centralis D) Posterior retina E) All of the choices are correct.

80)

Where is the greatest concentration of cones located? A) In the optic disc B) In the oraserrata C) In the fovea centralis D) In the posterior retina E) In the optic nerve

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81)

Where would you find the protein crystallin? A) In the retina B) In the ciliary body C) In the choroids D) In the lens E) In the optic nerve

82)

The lens of the eye flattens when A) ciliary musclescontract. B) ciliary musclesrelax. C) extrinsic eyemuscles contract. D) extrinsic eyemuscles relax. E) intrinsic musclesof the iris contract.

83) As middle-aged persons get older, the lenses of their eyes no longer assume as round a shape when their ligaments slacken. This results in difficulty in A) seeing nearbyobjects. B) seeing distantobjects. C) seeing coloredobjects. D) seeing low-contrast scenes.

84)

A flattened lens A) is necessary fornear vision. B) is necessary fordistant vision. C) is necessary forboth near and far vision. D) functions only with color vision. E) reflects lightrays.

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85)

Accommodation of the lens occurs when A) ciliary musclescontract. B) the ciliary bodymoves closer to the lens. C) parasympatheticaxons stimulate the ciliary muscles. D) the lens becomesmore spherical. E) All of the choices are correct.

86)

The gelatinous mass inside of the eye is called the A) lacrimalsecretion. B) mucoid body. C) vitreoushumor. D) hyaloid mass. E) scleroidhumor.

87) Which sequence correctly traces the pathway of aqueous humor in the eye? a: Aqueous humor is secreted by epithelial ciliary cells. b: Aqueous humor is released into the posterior chamber. c: Aqueous humor is drained into the scleral venous sinus. d: Aqueous humor washes over the lens and then passes through the pupil into the anterior chamber. A) a, b, c, d B) b, a, c, d C) a, b, d, c D) d, a, c, b E) a, c, b, d

88)

Which photoreceptor cells function in dim light? A) Rods B) Cones

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89)

Which photoreceptor cells are more numerous? A) Rods B) Cones

90)

Sharp, color vision is a result of the function of A) rods. B) cones.

91)

A photopsin is a protein A) of a photopigmentwithin cone photoreceptors. B) of a photopigmentwithin rod photoreceptors. C) that is derivedfrom Vitamin E. D) that allows ions toflow into rod and cone photoreceptors.

92)

Phototransduction is the process in which A) retinal ganglioncells signal changes in the color of light. B) bipolar cellssignal the presence of contrast in a visual scene. C) photoreceptorsconvert light energy to changes in membrane potential. D) primary visualcortex recognizes and identifies a stimulus.

93)

When light strikes rhodopsin, the retinal is converted A) from cis to trans,and retinal and opsin combine. B) from cis to trans,and retinal and opsin disassociate. C) from trans to cis,and retinal and opsin combine. D) from trans to cis,and retinal and opsin disassociate.

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94)

When light strikes a photoreceptor it A) deporlarizes andreleases more neurotransmitter. B) depolarizes andreleases less neurotransmitter. C) hyperpolarizes andreleases more neurotransmitter. D) hyperpolarizes andreleases less neurotransmitter.

95) It may take nearly a half hour for rods of the retina to regenerate a full supply of photopigment during the process of A) darkadaptation. B) lightadaptation. C) lateralinhibition. D) opsonization.

96)

The "dark current" of photoreceptors refers to A) the exit of Na+ and Ca2+ out ofthe cell when light is not hitting the cell. B) the entry of Na+ and Ca2+ into the cell when light is not hitting the cell. C) the entry ofK + into the cell when light is not hitting the cell. D) the exit of K + out ofthe cell when light is not hitting thecell.

97) Which sequence correctly traces the visual pathway followed by the majority of axons? a: Optic nerve b: Optic chiasm c: Occipital lobe d: Lateral geniculate nucleus of thalamus A) a, b, c, d B) b, a, d, c C) a, d, c, b D) c, a, b, d E) a, b, d, c

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98)

Most axons within the optic tract terminate in the A) temporal lobe ofthe cerebral cortex. B) occipital lobe ofthe cerebral cortex. C) lateral geniculatenucleus of the thalamus. D) medial geniculatenucleus of the thalamus.

99)

At the optic chiasm

A) all axons fromeach optic nerve cross to the opposite side of the brain. B) none of the axonsactually cross to the opposite side of the brain. C) ganglion cellaxons from the medial region of each retina cross to the opposite side of thebrain. D) ganglion cellaxons from the lateral region of each retina cross to the opposite side of thebrain.

100) Some preyanimals, such as rabbits, have laterally placed eyes, and the images on their two retinas do not overlap. Such animals would be expected to show _________ depth perception. A) excellent B) poor

101) When our brains process visual information about objects directly in front of us, they areable to use information that compares signals from the two eyes (stereoscopic vision) in order to provide A) depthperception. B) colorperception. C) motiondetection. D) brightnesslevels.

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102)

The middle and inner ear are housed within the _____ bone. A) sphenoid B) maxillary C) frontal D) occipital E) temporal

103)

What is the function of the auditory tube? A) To transmit sound waves to the inner ear. B) To equalize air pressure between the atmosphere and the middle ear. C) To prevent the invasion of microorganisms into the inner ear. D) To provide a passageway for fluid from the middle to the inner ear. E) To provide an airway between the middle and inner ear.

104) Arrange the middle ear bones from lateral to medial. a: Stapes b: Incus c: Malleus A) a, b, c B) b, a, c C) c, a, b D) a, c, b E) c, b, a

105)

Where is the saccule located?

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A) Within the middle ear B) Lateral to theauditory ossicles C) Within the cochlea D) Within the vestibule E) In the auditory tube

106)

Which structure is not considered to be part of the membranous labyrinth? A) Scalavestibuli B) Semicircular duct C) Saccule D) Cochlear duct E) Utricle

107)

The function of the ossicles is to A) detectacceleration of the head. B) amplify soundwaves and transmit them to the inner ear. C) determine statichead position. D) support thetympanic membrane and protect hair cells of the inner ear. E) initiate action potentials thatpropagate to the inner ear.

108)

The footplate of the stapes is A) much larger than the tympanic membrane, and the ossiclestherefore amplify sound

waves. B) much smaller than the tympanic membrane, and the ossiclestherefore amplify sound waves. C) much larger than the tympanic membrane, and the ossiclestherefore dampen sound waves. D) much smaller than the tympanic membrane, and the ossiclestherefore dampen sound waves.

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109) The part of the cochlea that converts pressure waves (from sounds)into changes in membranepotentials is the A) modiolus. B) scala tympani. C) spiral organ. D) scalavestibuli. E) helicotrema.

110) What is the correct chronological sequence of events for hearing? a: The tympanic membrane vibrates. b: Ossicles vibrate. c: Spiral organ hair cells convert stimulus to nerve impulse. d: Pressure waves from oval window travel through the scala vestibuli. A) a, b, c, d B) b, c, d, a C) c, b, a, d D) a, b, d, c E) e, c, , a, b

111)

The stereocilia of cochlear hair cells project into the A) modiolus. B) basilarmembrane. C) tectorialmembrane. D) helicotrema. E) spiral ganglion.

112)

High-frequency sounds activate neurons within the cochlea that are

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A) near the ovalwindow at the base of the cochlea. B) far from the ovalwindow at the apex of the cochlea. C) along the entirelength of the cochlea.

113) The _______ of a sound stimulus is interpreted as its pitch and measured in hertz, whereas its _______ is the amplitude of the sound waves and is measured in decibels. A) frequency; timbre B) frequency;loudness C) timbre;loudness D) loudness;frequency

114)

After being funneled by the auricle, sound waves pass (in sequence) through the

A) external acousticmeatus, tympanic membrane, ossicles, and oval window. B) external acousticmeatus, oval window, ossicles, and cochlea. C) external acousticmeatus, tympanic membrane, internal acoustic meatus, and oval window. D) internal acousticmeatus, tympanic membrane, oval window, and ossicles. E) internal acoustic meatus, tympanicmembrane, ossicles, and round window.

115)

After causing vibrations of the malleus, sound waves pass (in sequence) through the

A) stapes, roundwindow, scala externa perilymph, scala media endolymph, and oval window. B) incus, stapes,oval window, scala vestibuli perilymph, and cochlear duct endolymph. C) oval window, scalatympani perilymph, scala vestibuli endolymph, and spiral organ. D) incus, stapes,oval window, scala tympani endolymph, scala vestibuli, and helicotrema. E) stapes, incus,round window, scala media perilymph, andscala vestibuli endolymph.

116)

Distortion of hair cells in the cochlea causes

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A) initiation ofaction potentials in CN VI. B) bending of thebasilar membrane. C) movement of thetympanic membrane. D) initiation ofaction potentials in CN VIII.

117) What is the correct order for structures in the nervous system pathway for hearing? a: Axons project to the auditory cortex. b: Axons project to inferior colliculi. c: Axons project tothe cochlear nucleus in the brainstem. d: Axons project to the medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus. e: Impulse travels in cochlear nerve sensory fibers. A) e, c, b, d, a B) b, c, d, e, a C) c, b, a, d, e D) e, d, c, a, b E) a, b, e, c, d

118)

Auditory cells in the superior olivary nucleus receive their input from the

A) cochlear nuclei,and they are involved inlocalizing the source of a sound. B) cochlear nuclei,and they determine the pitch of a sound. C) inferior colliculi,and they are used to relay the information directly to the primary auditorycortex. D) inferiorcolliculi, and they filter out irrelevant auditory information. E) thalamus, and they allow us torecognize familiar voices.

119)

What inner ear structure detects acceleration and deceleration movements of the head?

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A) Tensor tympani andstapedius B) Spiral organ C) Maculae D) Ossicles E) Scala vestibule

120) When you travel on a moving walkway or an elevator, the linear acceleration of your body is sensed by the A) cochlea. B) semicircular canals. C) utricle andsaccule. D) ossicles.

121)

The otolithic membrane is part of the A) maculae of theinner ear. B) tympanic cavityof the middle ear. C) semicircularcanals of the inner ear. D) cochlea of theinner ear.

122)

When we initiate a rapid rotation of our head, it results in bending of cilia on hair cells A) in the utricle ofour cochleas. B) in the maculae ofour semicircular ducts. C) in the ampullae ofour semicircular ducts. D) in the maculae ofour vestibules. E) in the ampullae of our vestibules.

123)

The vestibular nuclei are located within the _______ and project directly to the _______.

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A) medulla; cerebellum B) cerebellum; medulla C) cerebellum; thalamus D) thalamus; cerebral cortex E) thalamus; cerebellum

124) The refractive indices between glass and oil are quite similar, as compared to the refractive indices between glass and air, which are quite different. Therefore, in which of the following situations will light bend the most? A) When passing between glass and air B) When passing between glass and oil

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 125) _________ receptors respond continuously to a stimulus at a constant rate.

126)

A receptor that is wrapped in connective tissue is referred to as being __________.

127) When pain signals originating from visceral structures are perceived to be coming instead from the skin, the phenomenon is called ________ pain.

128) In the olfactory epithelium, ______ cells act as stem cells to continually replace olfactory neurons.

129)

Another name for the vascular tunic of the eye is the _______, which means "grape."

130)

The opsin in rods is called _________.

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131) When your eyes adjust from low levels of illumination to bright light, the process is known as light _________.

132) The part of the thalamus that filters auditory information and relays some of it on to the temporal lobe of the cortex is the ________ geniculate nucleus.

133) The bending of light as it passes through to different media (such as glass vs. water) is referred to as ___________.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 134) Contrast the visual deficits that would result from someone having a mutation in the gene for rhodopsin versus a mutation in one of the genes for a photopsin.

135) If someone hears a high-pitch, quiet sound (the whisper of a flute) followed by a booming, low-pitch tone (the boom of a bass drum), what differences in activity of the cochlea allowed them to recognize the differences?

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 136) Compare and contrast rods and cones in terms of their number, location, pigment content, and abilitiesto assist in sharp vision, color vision, and night vision.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 16_4e 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE The shape (and therefore refractive index) of the cornea is fixed and the lens is responsible for changing shape when the eye transitions to view a near or far object. The ciliary muscles are responsible for controlling lens shape. 15) [A, B, C] 16) [A, D] 17) [A, B, D] 18) C 19) A 20) B 21) A 22) B Version 1

23) B 24) B 25) A 26) B 27) D 28) A 29) B 30) B 31) A 32) C 33) A 34) B 35) C 36) D 37) E 38) E 39) B 40) B 41) D 42) C 43) B 44) D 45) E 46) A 47) A 48) B 49) C 50) D 51) E 52) A Version 1

53) D 54) A 55) C 56) A 57) C 58) D 59) B 60) B 61) A 62) C 63) D 64) B 65) C 66) A 67) D 68) B 69) D 70) C 71) E 72) A 73) B 74) C 75) C 76) B 77) D 78) A 79) C 80) C 81) D 82) B Version 1

83) A 84) B 85) E 86) C 87) C 88) A 89) A 90) B 91) A 92) C 93) B 94) D 95) A 96) B 97) E 98) C 99) C 100) B 101) A 102) E 103) B 104) E 105) D 106) A 107) B 108) B 109) C 110) D 111) C 112) A Version 1

113) B 114) A 115) B 116) D 117) A 118) A 119) C 120) C 121) A 122) C 123) A 124) A 125) Tonic 126) encapsulated 127) referred 128) basal 129) uvea 130) rhodopsin 131) adaptation 132) medial 133) refraction 134) A mutation to rhodopsin gene would influence the rod system, and night vision (scotopic vision) would be impaired (less sensitive eyes). A typical result of a defective photopsin gene is red-green colorblindness—there is still effective,photopic vision of form and shape and some colors, but some color discrimination is impaired. 135) High-pitch, quiet sound: base of cochlea is active but generates a low frequency of action potentials. Low-pitch and loud sound: high frequency of action potentials generated at cochlear apex.

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136) Rods contain rhodopsin and are more numerous, more peripheral, and specialized for night vision. Cones contain photopsins andare responsible for sharp color vision.

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CHAPTER 17 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The reaction time for endocrine effects is generally measured in milliseconds. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Among their many functions, hormones regulate blood volume, cellular concentration, and number of platelets. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Although hormones influence activity in the neural and reproductive systems, they do not influence the digestive system. ⊚ ⊚

The liver contains endocrine cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Steroids, peptides, and nucleic acids are the three classes of hormones. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Eicosanoids are a primary type of local hormone. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

7) Like proteins, eicosanoids are synthesized on ribosomes in a process that involves transcription and translation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Like all other hormone transport proteins, albumin is highly specific in terms of which hormone it carries through the blood. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The anterior pituitary is also calledthe adenohypophysis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) The function of each of theregulatory hormones of the hypothalamus is totrigger the release of atropic hormone from the pituitary. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) Growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH)is one of the regulatory hormones released by the hypothalamus that acts on the pituitary. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) When follicular cells of the thyroid are stimulated to secrete thyroid hormone (TH), they take up TH precursors from the inside of the follicle, transport and enzymatically modifythem within a lysosome, and release TH to the blood. ⊚ true ⊚ false

13)

Increasing levels of cortisol inhibit the release of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH).

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⊚ ⊚

14)

true false

All hormone secretion is under the direct control of the hypothalamus. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) The posterior pituitary does not produce its own hormones but stores hormones produced by the hypothalamus. ⊚ ⊚

16)

The pancreas has both endocrine and exocrine functions. ⊚ ⊚

17)

true false

Somatostatin suppresses the release of pancreatic polypeptide. ⊚ ⊚

true false

18) Pancreatic hormones are secreted directly into the pancreatic duct for rapid transport to the small intestine. ⊚ ⊚

true false

19)

Parathyroid hormone functions to raise blood calcium levels. ⊚ true ⊚ false

20)

The thymus gland secretes erythropoietin in response to low blood oxygen.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

21) To be a target cell for a particular hormone, the cell must have a specific receptor for that hormone. ⊚ ⊚

22) duct.

Once produced by an endocrine cell, a hormone enters the blood after passing through a ⊚ ⊚

23)

true false

Like PTH, calcitoninincreases blood calcium levels. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 24) Compared to the nervous system, the endocrine system has A) more localized andlong-lasting effects. B) more widespreadand long-lasting effects. C) more localized andshort-term effects. D) more widespreadand short-term effects.

25)

Endocrine glands

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A) are ductlessglands. B) are the organs ofthe endocrine system. C) secrete hormonesdirectly into the bloodstream. D) help maintainhomeostasis. E) All of the choices are correct.

26)

Which is NOT characteristic of the endocrine system? A) Effects: causes metabolic activity changes in target cells B) Response time: slow reaction time = seconds to hours C) Duration of response: long-lasting = minutes to weeks D) Recovery time: rapid, immediate return to prestimulation level E) Communication method: hormones in the bloodstream

27)

The parathyroid glands are located A) just below thethalamus. B) within thethymus. C) above thekidneys. D) anterior to thethyroid gland. E) posterior to the thyroid gland.

28) Parathyroid hormone release depends on blood levels of calcium.Such an endocrine reflex is said to be initiated by A) hormonalstimulation. B) humoralstimulation. C) neuralstimulation. D) positive feedbackstimulation.

29) Aldosterone release can be triggered by the presence of the blood-borne messengerangiotensin II or by low levels of sodium, and so its secretion regulationis said to be

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A) purely neural. B) both hormonal andhumoral. C) both antagonisticand synergistic. D) both neuralandsynergistic. E) purely hormonal.

30)

Thyroid hormone is somewhat unique in that it is a A) biogenic amine that is lipid-soluble. B) protein hormonethat is water-soluble. C) steroid hormone that is water-soluble. D) steroid hormone that is lipid-soluble. E) monoamine that is water-soluble.

31)

Follicle-stimulating hormone is a A) glycoprotein. B) steroid. C) monoamine. D) oligopeptide.

32)

Protein hormones are A) lipid-soluble. B) water-soluble. C) soluble in bothwater and lipids. D) soluble in neitherwater nor lipids.

33)

Eicosanoids are synthesized from

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A) cholesterol. B) prostaglandin. C) arachidonicacid. D) amino acids.

34) When a chemical messenger helps initiate an inflammatory response by causing cellular changes in neighboring cells, it is demonstrating ___________ signaling. A) autocrine B) paracrine C) allomone D) pheromone

35)

Most hormones are made ofchains of amino acids and are therefore A) steroids. B) biogenicamines. C) proteins. D) catecholamines.

36)

Steroid hormones are lipids, derived from A) cholesterol. B) glycerol. C) amines. D) polypeptides. E) nucleic acids.

37)

Which type of hormone requires a carrier protein in the blood?

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A) Autocrinehormone B) Water-solublehormone C) Oligopeptide D) Lipid-solublehormone

38) The binding of a hormone and a carrier protein is _______;a very ______ fractionof such ahormonein the blood is bound to a carrier at any onepoint in time. A) temporary; large B) temporary; small C) permanent; large D) permanent; small

39) Damage to the liver might impair enzymatic degradation of some hormones.The levels of such hormones in the blood would therefore be expected to A) increase. B) decrease. C) remainunchanged.

40)

Generally, the shorter the half-life of a hormone A) the morefrequently it must be replaced. B) the lessfrequently it must be replaced.

41)

The half-life of a hormone is

A) one-half of the time it takes to synthesize the chemical messenger molecule. B) the timenecessary to reduce the hormone concentration in the blood to half of what hadbeen secreted. C) half the timeuntil the hormone molecule dissolves. D) half of theduration of the hormone's effects on its target cells throughout the body.

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42)

Lipophilic hormones bind to ___________ receptors of target cells. A) intracellular B) membrane-bound

43) Lipid-soluble hormones, such as progesterone, exert their effects by forming hormonereceptor complexes that A) activate a G protein and second-messenger cascade. B) bind to DNA andinitiate transcription. C) open ion channelsin the cell membrane. D) activate adenylatecyclase.

44) When the effects ofwater-soluble hormones on their target cells are considered, the hormone itself is A) the G protein. B) the secondmessenger. C) the firstmessenger. D) thehormone-response element. E) the phospholipase.

45)

A G protein is

A) a type ofwater-soluble hormone. B) a second messengeractivated by a steroid hormone. C) a molecule thatbinds a guanine nucleotide and helps transduce a signal inside a targetcell. D) a receptor for awater-soluble hormone that causes arachidonic acid to be extracted from aphospholipid. E) an enzyme that catalyzes the conversionof ATP into cyclic AMP.

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46)

Within the adenylate cyclase signal transduction pathways of target cells, cAMP activates A) the G protein. B) adenylatecyclase. C) proteinkinase. D) the receptor. E) transcription of a mRNA.

47) In the signal transduction pathway that results in the formation of inositol triphosphate, the G protein directly activates A) phospholipaseC. B) protein kinaseA. C) calmodulin. D) adenylatecyclase.

48) Oxytocin results in more forceful smooth muscle contractions in the uterus by causing target cells to increase production of A) adenylatecyclase. B) mRNA formyosin. C) inositoltriphosphate. D) glucose.

49)

Intracellular signaling pathways within target cellsare organized such that A) each step allowsfor amplification of the signal where one molecule can activate

many. B) each step involvesone molecule activating or synthesizing exactly one other molecule for precisecontrol. C) enzymes are usedup and degraded after each individual reaction they catalyze.

50)

Reduced hormone concentration in the blood often causes target cells to

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A) up-regulatereceptors in order to increase cell sensitivity. B) up-regulatereceptors in order to decrease cell sensitivity. C) down-regulate receptors in order to increase cell sensitivity. D) down-regulatereceptors in order to decrease cell sensitivity.

51)

The term down-regulation refers to the process by which

A) a glandular celldecreases the amount of hormone it secretes. B) a large amount ofhormone shuts down all metabolic activity in a target cell. C) a cell decreasesthe number of receptors it has for a hormone. D) a carrier proteinincreases the rate of degradation for a hormone and therebydecreases itsblood concentration. E) a carrier protein decreases the rate ofdegradation of the protein it ferries.

52) As someone starts todevelop in puberty, most cells in their reproductive organs are probably starting to express A) more receptors forsex hormones. B) fewer receptors for sex hormones.

53)

Once a structure is fully grown and mature,it willprobably A) up-regulate its receptors for growth hormone, as it no longer receives as much of the

ligand. B) up-regulate its receptors for growth hormone, as it no longer needs to continue to grow at a fast rate. C) down-regulate its receptors for growth hormone, as it no longer receives as much of the ligand. D) down-regulate its receptors for growth hormone, as it no longer needs to continue to grow at a fast rate.

54)

Glucagon and insulin work _________ on blood glucose levels.

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A) antagonistically B) permissively C) synergistically

55) When the effects of one hormone reinforce the activity of another hormone on the same target cell, the interaction is said to be A) agonistic. B) antagonistic. C) synergistic. D) permissive.

56) the

The part of the brain that functions as a“master control center” of the endocrine system is

A) pineal gland. B) cerebralcortex. C) spinal cord. D) hypothalamus. E) adrenalcortex.

57) Within the infundibulum, the axons from neurons extending into the posterior pituitary are known as the A) hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract. B) primary plexus. C) secondaryplexus. D) supraoptic portalsystem.

58) The pituitary gland is located _________ to the hypothalamus and is connected by the ________.

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A) superior,thalamus B) inferior,infundibulum C) inferior,epithalamus D) posterior,infundibulum

59)

Which lobe of the pituitaryis larger and secretes more hormones? A) Anteriorpituitary B) Posteriorpituitary

60)

The hormone oxytocin is synthesized in the A) anteriorpituitary. B) posteriorpituitary. C) paraventricularnucleus. D) pineal gland. E) nucleus of the solitary tract.

61)

The hormones that comefrom the posterior pituitary

A) are synthesizedthere and are released upon signals from the anterior pituitary. B) are synthesized inthe hypothalamus and are released from the posterior pituitary when nervesignals arrive. C) are synthesized inthe anterior pituitary and are transported to and from the posterior pituitaryby the primary and secondary plexus. D) are synthesized inthe posterior pituitary and released by the anterior pituitary by way of thehypophyseal portal system.

62)

The two hormones released from the posterior pituitary are

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A) oxytocin andantidiuretic hormone. B) thyrotropin-releasing hormone and corticotropin-releasing hormone. C) prolactin andgrowth hormone. D) prolactin andvasopressin. E) follicle-stimulating hormone and leutenizing hormone.

63)

Where is the pituitary gland located? A) Within the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone B) Between the cerebrum and cerebellum, inferior to the occipital lobe C) On the posterior surface of the thyroid gland D) On the tracheal surface, inferior to the larynx E) Within the third ventricle of the brain

64) In which order would blood flow through these structures as it travels from the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland? a: Primary plexus b: Secondary plexus c: Hypophyseal portal veins A) a - b - c B) a - c - b C) c - a - b D) b - a - c E) c - b - a

65)

Thyrotropin-releasing hormone is secreted by the

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A) hypothalamus and itincreases release of thyroid-stimulating hormone from the anteriorpituitary. B) hypothalamus and itincreases release of thyroid-stimulating hormone from the posteriorpituitary. C) anteriorpituitaryand it increases release of thyroid hormone from the thyroidgland. D) parathyroid hormoneand it increases release of thyroid hormone from the thyroid gland. E) thymus and it increases release ofthyroid hormone from the thyroid gland.

66) The hypothalamic hormone that triggers the release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)is A) cortisol. B) corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH). C) vasopressin. D) adrenalfollicle-stimulating hormone. E) corticalstimulating factor (CSF).

67)

Which is not a tropic hormone? A) Thyroid-stimulating hormone B) Adrenocorticotropic hormone C) Follicle-stimulating hormone D) Prolactin

68)

Where are the target cells for follicle-stimulating hormone? A) Thyroid follicles B) Ovaries and testes C) Mammary glands D) Uterus E) Hair follicles

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69)

The primary function of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is to A) regulate salt andwater balance by acting onthe renal system. B) stimulateglucocorticoid release from the adrenal glands. C) stimulateadrenaline release from the adrenal medulla. D) stimulate cellgrowth and cell division in muscle and bone. E) stimulate the development of the foldson the surface of the brain.

70)

Which hormones are collectively called the gonadotropins? A) Prolactin andoxytocin B) Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin C) Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone D) Follicle-stimulating hormone and growth hormone E) Thyroid-stimulating hormone and adrenocorticotropic hormone

71)

Growth hormone is secreted by __________ cells in the anterior pituitary. A) somatotropic B) gonadotropic C) thyrotropic D) mammotropic E) corticotropic

72)

Which is NOT correct regarding growth hormone (GH)? A) GH affects mostbody cells. B) GH stimulates cellgrowth and mitosis. C) GH is also knownas somatotropin. D) GH stimulates thekidney to secrete somatomedin. E) GH is a tropichormone.

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73) Exercise causes a(n) _______ in growth hormone (GH) levels; a rise in amino acid levels or decrease in glucose levels causes a(n) ________ in GH levels. A) increase,increase B) increase,decrease C) decrease,decrease D) decrease,increase

74)

Excessive secretion of growth hormone in adults can cause A) Gravesdisease. B) acromegaly. C) pituitarygigantism. D) pituitarydwarfism. E) Cushingsyndrome.

75)

The thyroid gland is located A) anterior to theatria of the heart. B) immediatelyanterior to the trachea. C) immediatelysuperior to the larynx. D) immediatelyposterior to the cricoid cartilage.

76)

Which is not true about the thyroid gland? A) It requiresiodine to synthesize thyroid hormone. B) It is located onthe anterior surface of the trachea, inferior to the thyroid cartilage. C) It has two lobesconnected by a central portion called the commissure. D) It secretesthyroid hormone in response to stimulation by TSH. E) An enlargement ofthe thyroid gland is called a goiter.

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77) Thyroid hormone synthesis involves secretion of a glycoprotein called ___________ by the follicular cells. A) colloid B) thyroxine C) triiodothyronine D) thyroglobulin E) tetraiodothyronine

78)

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is secreted by the A) hypothalamus, and it targets cells of the posterior pituitary gland. B) hypothalamus, andit targets cells of the anterior pituitary gland. C) anteriorpituitary, and it targets follicular cells of the thyroid gland. D) posteriorpituitary, and it targets parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland. E) thyroid gland, and it targets cells ofthe parathyroid gland.

79)

Thyroid hormone's effects are to A) increase metabolicrate and body temperature by increasing protein synthesis in target

cells. B) increase metabolic rate and body temperature by turning on the G protein, cAMP cascade. C) decrease metabolicrate and body temperature by increasing protein synthesis in target cells. D) decrease metabolic rate and body temperature by turning on the G protein, cAMP cascade. E) increase metabolic rate and body temperature by turning off the G protein, cAMP cascade.

80) You are “shadowing” an endocrinologist who is examining a patient complaining of weakness, weight loss, and heat intolerance. The doctor points out the patient’s obvious exophthalmos and asks for your diagnosis. What would you speculate is the patient’s problem?

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A) Hyposecretion of parathyroid hormone B) Hypersecretion of parathyroid hormone C) Hyposecretion of thyroid hormone D) Hypersecretion of thyroid hormone E) Hyposecretion of calcitonin

81)

The release of hormones from the adrenal cortex is stimulated by A) thyroidhormone. B) adrenocorticotropic hormone. C) oxytocin. D) antidiuretichormone. E) luteinizinghormone.

82)

Which hormone group is not secreted by the adrenal cortex? A) Corticosteroids B) Glucocorticoids C) Mineralocorticoids D) Gonadocorticoids E) No exceptions; all choices are secreted by the adrenal cortex

83)

Which region of the adrenal cortex synthesizes glucocorticoids? A) Zona reticularis B) Zona glucosa C) Zona papillarosa D) Zona fasciculata E) Zona glomerulosa

84)

What is the function of the mineralocorticoids secreted by the adrenal gland?

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A) Regulate glucose levels in the blood B) Act as secondary sex hormones C) Stimulate metabolism of lipids D) Regulate electrolyte concentration in body fluids E) Stimulate metabolism of proteins

85) The disease called ___________ is caused by excessive secretion of glucocorticoids, and is characterized by redistribution of body fat to produce characteristic features such as "moon face." A) Cushing syndrome B) Addison disease C) androgenital syndrome D) pheochromocytoma E) Graves disease

86)

The release of hormones from the adrenal medulla is stimulated by A) adrenocorticotropic hormone. B) the sympatheticdivision of the autonomic nervous system. C) follicle-stimulating hormone. D) growthhormone. E) thyrotropichormone.

87) The adrenal glands are located ________ to the parietal peritoneum and each has a cortex of a ________ color. A) anterior, brown B) anterior,yellow C) posterior,brown D) posterior,yellow

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88) In most of its target cells, cortisol ________ glucose uptake and _______ protein metabolism. A) increases,increases B) increases,decreases C) decreases,decreases D) decreases,increases

89) Cortisol binds to _________ receptors and has the effect of ________ blood glucose levels. A) intracellular,raising B) intracellular,lowering C) membrane-bound,raising D) membrane-bound,lowering

90) Which hormone induces its target cells to take up glucose, thereby lowering blood glucose levels? A) Pancreatic polypeptide B) Somatostatin C) Glucagon D) Insulin E) Somatotropin

91)

Which is not a cell type found in the pancreatic islets? A) Alpha cell B) Delta cell C) Beta cell D) F cell E) C cell

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92)

Which is not correct regarding the pancreas? A) It is locatedposterior to the stomach, between the small intestine and the spleen. B) It has both endocrine and exocrine functions. C) It is elongated inshape, spongy, and nodular. D) The majority of cells in the pancreas are acinar cells. E) It does not beginto secrete its hormones until puberty.

93)

In addition to secreting hormones, the pancreas also produces A) white bloodcells. B) sodiumchloride. C) pancreaticjuice. D) endorphins. E) prostaglandins.

94) In response to high blood glucose, the pancreas releases insulin to enable glucose to enter body cells. When the blood glucose level returns to normal, insulin release stops. This is an example of regulation by A) endocrinedysplasia. B) negativefeedback. C) positivefeedback. D) neuralregulation. E) somaticregulation.

95) The hormone that increases the rate of glycogen breakdown and glucose release by the liver is

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A) insulin. B) glucagon. C) glucocorticoid. D) somatostatin. E) epinephrine.

96)

Which hormone is secreted by the beta cells of the pancreas? A) Insulin B) Glucagon C) Somatostatin D) Pancreatic polypeptide E) Pancreatic lipase

97) The metabolic condition called ___________ results from the destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas due to an autoimmune response. A) Type 2 diabetes B) gestational diabetes C) beta cell diabetes D) insulin-independent diabetes mellitus E) Type 1 diabetes

98) The pancreas is located ________ to the stomach, and it liesbetween the duodenum and the ________. A) anterior,liver B) anterior,spleen C) posterior,liver D) posterior,spleen

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99) Insulin causes a(n) _______ in glycogenesis in the liver and a(n) _______ in lipogenesis in adipose. A) increase,increase B) increase,decrease C) decrease,decrease D) decrease,increase

100)

Glucagon works by

A) binding to hormoneresponse elements on DNAand stimulating glycogenolysis andgluconeogenesis. B) binding to hormone response elements on DNA and stimulating glycogenesis. C) activating secondmessengersand stimulating glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis. D) activating secondmessengersand stimulating glycogenesis.

101)

Which hormone is secreted by the pineal gland? A) Melatonin B) Insulin C) Melanin D) Cortisol E) Oxytocin

102)

How does aging affect the endocrine system?

A) Secretory activityof endocrine glands decreases. B) Normal levels ofhormones, particularly growth hormone and sex hormones, often decrease. C) Aging reduces theefficiency of endocrine system functions. D) Endocrine systemimbalances can lead to weight gain or muscle loss. E) All of the choices are correct.

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103) Compared to young adults, the elderly usually have ______ levels of circulating growth hormone and _____ levels of circulating sex hormones. A) higher, higher B) higher, lower C) lower, lower D) lower, higher

104)

Which of the following is false? A) The pineal gland forms part of the epithalamus. B) The pineal gland is found within the diencephalon of the brain. C) The pineal gland secretes melatonin in a cyclical fashion. D) Melatonin makes us feel alert and awake.

105) During thyroid surgery, a surgeon mistakenly removes the parathyroid glands from his patient. Which of the following is a likely outcome in the patient? A) Blood calcium levels will drop. B) His kidneys will decrease the loss of calcium in the urine. C) He will lose bone mass due to excessive bone erosion. D) His blood sugar will increase.

106)

Which of the following does not have an endocrine function? A) Urinary bladder B) Adipose tissue C) Liver D) Small intestine

107) In response to excessive amounts of hormone, a target cell may reduce its number of receptors for that hormone. This is an example of

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A) down-regulation. B) up-regulation. C) increasing sensitivity to a hormone. D) increasing specificity to a hormone.

108)

Growth hormone A) stimulates gluconeogenesis. B) decreases blood glucose. C) increases lipogenesis. D) has few target cells in the body.

109)

As growth hormone levels in the blood increase, A) glycogenolysis increases. B) fat production increases. C) protein synthesis decreases. D) blood glucosedecreases.

110)

Calcitonin A) stimulates osteoblast activity. B) stimulates bone resorption (breakdown). C) increases blood calcium. D) is synthesized by the skin, liver, and kidneys.

111) A lack of dietary iodine can render the thyroid gland unable to synthesize TH. Without the negative feedback of TH, the anterior pituitary ____________, ultimately resulting in the development of a goiter.

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A) will increase the release of TSH B) will decrease the release of TSH C) will increase the release of TRH D) will decrease the release of TRH

112) Normally, TH has a ____________ feedback effect on the anterior pituitary, which responds by _____________ release of TSH. A) negative; decreasing B) negative; increasing C) positive; decreasing D) positive; increasing

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 113) The hormones and neurotransmitters released by the endocrine and nervous systems are chemical substances referred to as _________.

114)

The small, cone-shaped gland that is in the epithalamus of the brain is the _______ gland.

115)

Modified amino acids that act as hormones are referred to as ________ amines.

116) When eicosanoids bring about cellular changes within the cell from which they were formed, the process is called _________ stimulation.

117) When the activity of one hormone requires that of a second hormone, the interaction is said to be _________.

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118) Until thyroid hormone needs to be secreted, precursors to itare stored in a viscous, protein-rich fluid within the center of thyroid follicles. This viscous fluid is known as _________.

119)

Alpha cells of the pancreas secrete the hormone _________.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 120) Generally, there are two main factors that determine the levels of a hormone in the blood. Explain what those factors are and provide examples of how they might increase or decrease a hormone's level.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 121) The word "cascade" can bedefined asa series of small waterfalls, one leading to the next.Describe a specific second-messenger cascadethat results from the series of chemical reactions (from one to the next)initiated by a hormone binding to its receptor.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 17_4e 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) FALSE 19) TRUE 20) FALSE The kidneys secrete erythropoietin in response to low blood oxygen. 21) TRUE 22) FALSE 23) FALSE 24) B 25) E Version 1

26) D 27) E 28) B 29) B 30) A 31) A 32) B 33) C 34) B 35) C 36) A 37) D 38) A 39) A 40) A 41) B 42) A 43) B 44) C 45) C 46) C 47) A 48) C 49) A 50) A 51) C 52) A 53) D 54) A 55) C Version 1

56) D 57) A 58) B 59) A 60) C 61) B 62) A 63) A 64) B 65) A 66) B 67) D 68) B 69) B 70) C 71) A 72) D 73) A 74) B 75) B 76) C 77) D 78) C 79) A 80) D 81) B 82) E 83) D 84) D 85) A Version 1

86) B 87) D 88) D 89) A 90) D 91) E 92) E 93) C 94) B 95) B 96) A 97) E 98) D 99) A 100) C 101) A 102) E 103) C 104) D 105) A 106) A 107) A 108) A 109) A 110) A 111) A 112) A 113) ligands 114) pineal 115) biogenic Version 1

116) autocrine 117) permissive 118) colloid 119) glucagon 120) Hormone synthesis is directly related to plasma hormone levels, and hormone elimination (by liver, kidneys, and target cell uptake) is inversely related to plasma hormone levels. 121) One example is howglucagon works through the cAMP, PKA cascade to cause release of glucose from liver cells. The receptor activates the G protein, which activates AC, which synthesizes cAMP, which activates PKA, which phosphorylates enzymes within the liver cell.

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CHAPTER 18 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Blood helps regulate the pH and the temperature of the body. ⊚ ⊚

Platelets are formed elements. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Iron, lactic acid, and lipids are all considered to be nutrients in blood plasma. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Natural killer cells derive from T-lymphoblasts and monocytes derive from the granulocyte line. ⊚ ⊚

true false

During hematopoiesis, the lymphoid line forms lymphocytes only. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Areticulocyte is a cell formed during erythropoiesis that has lost its nucleus and all organelles except some ribosomes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Most colony-stimulating factors are growth factors.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Platelets are roughly the same size as erythrocytes, and like erythrocytes, they eject their nucleus just before entering circulation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Vascular spasm is triggered by blood vessel injury and further triggered by the release of serotonin. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

For a relatively small injury, a platelet plug is formed within 1 minute. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) The extrinsic pathway is a clotting system that is initiated by chemicals that come from outside the body. ⊚ true ⊚ false

12)

Compared to young adults, older individualshave relatively less red bone marrow. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

When viewing a centrifuged blood sample, the erythrocytes will be on the top. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14)

Simply put, antibodies are molecules on the lookout for antigens. ⊚ ⊚

15)

true false

The antigen-antibody reaction is an example of the regulation function of blood. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) Erythrocytes exhibit a limited lifespan due to their inability to synthesize the proteins necessary to repair themselves. ⊚ ⊚

17)

The blood type of a person missing the surface antigen D is Rh-positive. ⊚ ⊚

18)

true false

The ABO and Rh blood types are inherited independently of each other. ⊚ ⊚

true false

19) Macrophages are the converted monocytes that phagocytize bacteria, cell fragments, dead cells, and debris. ⊚ ⊚

true false

20) The GM-CSF growth factor accelerates the formation of all granulocytes and monocytes from their progenitor cells. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 3

21) M-CSF is a growth factor that stimulates the production of monocytes from myeloblast cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 22) If a blood clot was removed from the body and analyzed for its contents, what would be found? Select all that apply. A) Fibrin B) Erythrocytes C) Hemocytoblasts D) Leukocytes E) Megakaryocytes F) Platelets

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 23) Which term best describes the function of blood when considering the presence of carbon dioxide and endocrine hormones? A) Regulation B) Protection C) Prevention D) Transportation

24) Which term best describes the function of blood when considering the presence of leukocytes and antibodies?

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A) Regulation B) Prevention C) Protection D) Transportation

25)

Oxygen-poor blood is _________ in color. A) bright red B) dark red C) light blue D) dark blue

26)

The temperature of blood is about _________ than measured body temperature. A) 1° C higher B) 10° C higher C) 1° C lower D) 10° C lower

27) The viscosity of blood is ________ proportional to the number of erythrocytes and _______ proportional to the amount of fluid. A) directly,directly B) directly,indirectly C) indirectly,indirectly D) indirectly,directly

28) Blood plasma is slightly _______; if pH drifts out of the normal range, dire consequences can result from alterations in the structure of_______ .

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A) acidic,glucose B) acidic,proteins C) acidic,glycogen D) basic, glucose E) basic, proteins

29)

Typically, an adult's body contains _______ of blood. A) 1 liter B) 5 liters C) 10 liters D) 15 liters

30)

Blood is correctly classified as a(n) A) organ. B) tissue. C) organ system. D) intracellularfluid.

31)

The “buffy coat" in a centrifuged blood sample is composed of A) platelets andleukocytes. B) leukocytes. C) platelets. D) erythrocytes. E) erythrocytes andleukocytes.

32)

When blood is centrifuged and its components separate, the bottom of the tube holds the

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A) electrolytes andwaste products. B) buffy coat. C) monocytes. D) erythrocytes. E) platelets. F) plasma.

33)

Plasma makes up about ______ percent of a centrifuged sample of whole blood. A) 25 B) 35 C) 45 D) 55 E) 75

34)

The clinical definition of the hematocrit refers to the percentage of A) erythrocytes in theblood. B) leukocytes in theblood. C) platelets in theblood. D) plasma in theblood. E) all formed elementsin the blood.

35)

A comparison of the clinical hematocrit and true hematocrit would indicate that A) the clinicalhematocrit is much larger. B) the truehematocrit is much larger. C) their values arevery similar.

36) If a patient becomes dehydrated, the percentage of plasma in a centrifuged sample of his or her blood would likely

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A) increase. B) decrease. C) not change.

37)

The most numerous of the formed elements are the A) neutrophils. B) platelets. C) erythrocytes. D) basophils. E) albumins.

38) Leukocytesare the _______ of the formed elements, and leukocytes have ______________. A) largest, nonucleus B) largest, prominentnuclei C) smallest, nonucleus D) smallest,prominent nuclei

39) A malnourished person might have abnormally low levels of plasma proteins. As a result, colloid osmotic pressure A) increases, andthere is fluid retention in the interstitial space. B) increases, and soblood volume is abnormally high. C) decreases, andthere is fluid retention in the interstitial space. D) decreases, and soblood volume is abnormally high.

40)

Which most closely approximates the percentage of water in plasma by weight?

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A) 1% B) 25% C) 46% D) 92% E) 98%

41) One of the functions of blood is to regulate fluid levels in the body. If too much fluid escapes from the bloodstream and enters the tissues, blood pressure will A) increase. B) decrease.

42)

The smallest and most abundant plasma proteins are the A) globulins. B) endocrinehormones. C) albumins. D) fibrinogens. E) prothrombins.

43)

The globulins make up about ________ percent of all plasma proteins. A) 58 B) 37 C) 4 D) 1 E) 85

44)

An individual’s hematocrit would vary with

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A) age. B) sex. C) altitude. D) All of the choices are correct.

45)

Beta-globulins transport ________, whereas gamma-globulins are ________. A) antibodies,lipids B) iron ions,antibodies C) lipids, heavymetals D) oxygen, clottingproteins E) clotting factors, hormones

46)

Sodium, calcium, andbicarbonate are all described as plasma A) solvents. B) nutrients. C) electrolytes. D) proteins. E) formed elements.

47)

Glucose is a A) polar molecule,and therefore it dissolves readily in plasma. B) polar molecule,and therefore it requires a transporter in the blood. C) nonpolar molecule,and therefore it dissolves readily in plasma. D) nonpolar molecule,and therefore it requires a transporter in the blood.

48)

One of the unhealthy effects of blood doping is to

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A) increase theviscosity of the blood. B) decrease the bloodpressure in the arteries. C) decrease theoxygen carrying capacity of the blood. D) increase thecarbon dioxide carrying capacity of the blood. E) increase theoxygen carrying capacity of the blood.

49) The reason it is more appropriate to call an erythrocyte a “formed element” rather than a “cell” is that erythrocytes A) are actuallydead. B) lack a nucleus andorganelles. C) have lots ofinclusion molecules. D) are not red.

50)

The hemoglobin found in erythrocytes is able to chemically attach to A) only oxygen. B) only carbondioxide. C) only nitrogen. D) both oxygen andcarbon dioxide. E) oxygen, carbondioxide, and nitrogen.

51) Extensions from megakaryocytes that extend through blood vessel walls in red marrow are sliced off from the cells by the force of blood flow. These extensions are A) reticulocytes. B) promegakaryocytes. C) myeloid stemcells. D) lateerythroblasts. E) proplatelets.

52)

The process of producing the formed elements of blood is called

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A) leukopenia. B) hematopoiesis. C) leukocytosis. D) erythroblastosis. E) agglutination.

53) Which depicts the order of cell formation in erythropoiesis? a: Proerythroblast b: Normoblast c: Myeloid stem cell d: Reticulocyte e: Erythroblast f: Mature erythrocyte A) c, a, e, b, d, f B) a, b, c, e, d, f C) a, c, d, b, e, f D) c, b, a, d, e, f E) c, a, b, e, d, f

54)

In hematopoiesis, granulocytes such as neutrophils are formed from the _________ line. A) lymphoid B) myeloid C) monocyte D) killer cell

55)

Macrophage colony-stimulating factor stimulates the production of

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A) granulocytes fromtheir progenitors. B) erythrocytes frommyeloid stem cells. C) megakaryocytes andplatelets. D) monocytes frommonoblasts. E) erythrocyte progenitor cells.

56)

How many globins (protein building blocks) are found in a single hemoglobin molecule? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 E) 8

57)

How many oxygen molecules may bind to a single molecule of hemoglobin? A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 16

58) The carbon dioxide molecules that bind to the hemoglobin molecule are attached to the __________ units. A) heme B) globin C) iron D) calcium

59)

The life span of an erythrocyte is about _________ days.

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A) 10 B) 30 C) 60 D) 120 E) 360

60)

Congenital hemolytic anemia is

A) when destruction oferythrocytes is more rapid than normal. B) when there is aninherited anemia associated with a defect in iron uptake. C) caused by afailure of the body to absorb Vitamin B 12. D) characterized by alarge number of immature, nucleated cells. E) characterized bysignificantly decreased formation of erythrocytes and hemoglobin due todefective red bone marrow.

61)

Old erythrocytes are phagocytized in the A) liver. B) spleen. C) lung. D) liver andspleen. E) spleen andlung.

62) Which events occur during the recycling of aged or damaged erythrocytes? (Order is not important.) a: The heme group is converted into biliverdin. b: Bilirubin is placed in long-term storage in the liver. c: The iron ions in hemoglobin are removed. d: The iron ions are stored in the liver. e: The iron ions are stored in the red bone marrow. f: Membrane proteins and globin proteins are broken down and reused. g: The erythrocyte contents, excluding the globins, are excreted unchanged via the digestive tract.

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A) a, b, c, e, f B) a, c, d, f C) a, b, c, g D) c, d, g E) c, e, g

63) Which are characteristics of type O blood? a: Has anti-A antibodies b: Has anti-B antibodies c: Has surface antigen O on its erythrocytes d: Has surface antigen A on its erythrocytes e: Has neither surface antigen A nor B on its erythrocytes A) a, b, c B) a, b, e C) b, c, e D) b, c, d E) c

64) Which are characteristic of type A blood? a: Has anti-A antibodies b: Has anti-B antibodies c: Has surface antigen A on its erythrocytes d: Has surface antigen B on its erythrocytes e: Has neither surface antigen A nor B on its erythrocytes f: Will agglutinate with blood type B A) b, c, d, f B) a, c, d, f C) a, d, f D) b, c, f E) a, c, f

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65) Which are characteristic of type Rh negative blood? a: Always has Rh (anti-D) antibodies b: Only under certain conditions will Rh (anti-D) antibodies be present c: Always has Rh (D) antigen d: Only under certain conditions will the Rh (D) antigen be present e: Is inherited independent of the ABO group A) a, c B) b, c, e C) a, d, e D) b, e E) a, e

66)

If agglutination occurs after a blood transfusion, it may indicate A) the wrong bloodtype was used. B) the recipient hadtype AB blood. C) there were noagglutinins (antibodies) in the recipient blood. D) the donor had typeO blood.

67)

The agglutinogens (or antigens) that determine the ABO and Rh blood types are A) found on thesurface of erythrocytes. B) found in the cytosol of the erythrocytes. C) located on thesurface of the leukocytes. D) located in the cytosol of the leukocytes. E) part of thereticular connective tissue of the spleen.

68)

Which is going to result in significant agglutination?

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A) Donor is type A, recipient has antibody anti-B B) Donor is type B, recipient has antibody anti-A C) Donor is type O, recipient is Type O D) Donor is type A, recipient is type AB E) Donor is type AB, recipient is type B

69)

The main function of leukocytes is to A) triggerallergies. B) defend againstpathogens. C) carry oxygenthrough the blood. D) carry carbondioxide through the blood. E) form clots.

70) Which are characteristic of leukocytes? a: Smaller than erythrocytes b: Have a nucleus c: Have no hemoglobin d: More numerous than erythrocytes e: Depending on type, may or may not contain granules A) a, b, c, d B) b, c, e C) b, c, d, e D) a, b, c, d, e E) a, b, e

71) Which leukocytes are granulocytes? a: Neutrophils b: Eosinophils c: Lymphocytes d: Monocytes e: Basophils f: Erythrocytes Version 1

A) a, b, c B) b, d, e C) a, b, e, f D) c, d E) a, b, e

72)

Which type of leukocyte releases histamine? A) Eosinophil B) Basophil C) Lymphocyte D) Neutrophil E) Monocyte

73)

The type of leukocyte that is very active during a bacterial infection is a(n) A) eosinophil. B) basophil. C) lymphocyte. D) neutrophil. E) monocyte.

74)

T-lymphocytes are a category of A) eosinophils. B) basophils. C) lymphocytes. D) neutrophils. E) monocytes.

75) The type of leukocyte that will migrate in the blood and take up residence in the tissues as a macrophage is a(n)

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A) eosinophil. B) basophil. C) monocyte. D) lymphocyte. E) neutrophil.

76)

Which arethe most numerous of the leukocytes? A) Eosinophils B) Basophils C) Lymphocytes D) Neutrophils E) Monocytes

77)

Which arethe least numerous of the leukocytes? A) Eosinophils B) Basophils C) Monocytes D) Lymphocytes E) Neutrophils

78) When trying to diagnose an infection that alters the percentages of leukocyte types found in the blood, it is useful for clinicians to perform A) a white blood cell differential count. B) a red blood cell differential count. C) a total cell count for red and white blood cells. D) blood typing.

79) The growth factor that increases the formation of erythrocytes, all classes of granulocytes, monocytes, and platelets from myeloid stem cells is Version 1

A) EPO. B) M-CSF. C) G-CSF. D) Multi-CSF. E) GM-CSF.

80)

Which leukocytes are derived from the myeloid line? A) Neutrophils B) Basophils and eosinophils C) Lymphocytes and monocytes D) Lymphocytes E) Neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, and monocytes

81) Platelets play a key role in _________, but if they are not used they are broken down after about ________ days. A) hemostasis,120 B) hemostasis, 9 C) hematopoiesis,120 D) hematopoiesis,9

82)

The first phase in hemostasis is A) vascular spasm. B) elimination ofclots. C) coagulation. D) platelet plugformation.

83)

The first phase of hemostasis involves

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A) blood vesseldilation. B) blood vesselconstriction. C) relese of procoagulants. D) fibrinolysis.

84)

Vascular spasms last A) a few millisecondswhen tissue damage is moderate. B) almost a fullminute when tissue damage is extensive. C) several minuteswhen tissue damage is extensive. D) several hours whentissue damage is moderate.

85)

Prostacyclin is an eicosanoid that acts as a A) plateletattractant. B) plateletrepellant.

86)

During platelet plug formation, platelets begin to stick to A) collagen with theassistance of von Willebrand factor. B) collagen with theassistance of prothrombin. C) prostacyclin withthe assistance of activated factor V. D) prostacyclin withthe assistance of thromboxane A2. E) proconvertin with the assistance offactor IX.

87)

As a platelet plug forms at an injury site, platelets become activated and their cytosol A) degranulates asthey release chemicals such as ADP and thromboxane A 2. B) degranulates asthey release chemicals such as fibrinogen and prothrombin. C) becomes granularas they take up chemicals such as ADP and thromboxane A 2. D) becomes granularas they take up chemicals such as fibrinogen and prothrombin.

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88) Which clotting pathway involves more steps and takes more time (approximately 5 minutes)? A) The intrinsicpathway B) The extrinsicpathway

89) Which clotting pathway involves the combining of thromboplastin (factor III) with factor VII and calcium? A) The intrinsicpathway B) The extrinsicpathway C) The commonpathway D) Each of the threepathways (intrinsic, extrinsic, and common).

90)

Which of the following is a step within the common pathway of blood clotting? A) Factor IIIcombines with factor VII. B) Factor XIIconverts inactive factor XI to active factor XI. C) Prothrombin isactivated to thrombin. D) Calcium combineswith factor IX.

91)

The formation of a web-like polymer of fibrin occurs late in the ________ pathway. A) common B) extrinsic C) intrinsic

92) When over 10% of the body's blood has been lost, a survival response occurs involving activation of the ________ nervous system.

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A) parasympathetic B) somatic C) sympathetic

93)

To compensate for significant blood loss, the autonomic nervous systemtriggers A) vasoconstrictionand an increase in heart rate. B) vasoconstrictionand a decrease in heart rate. C) vasodilation andan increase in heart rate. D) vasodilation and adecrease in heart rate.

94) Fibrinolysis involves ________ of the fibrin framework, and it involves the protein _______. A) construction,thrombokinase B) construction,plasmin C) construction,actinomyosin D) destruction,plasmin E) destruction, thrombokinase

95) In fetal development, hemocytoblasts begin to colonize red mone marrow at approximately A) 10 days. B) 10 weeks. C) 5 months. D) 8 months.

96) In young children, hematopoiesis occurs in most of their bones, but in adulthood it primarily occurs in

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A) long bones of thehands and feet. B) flat bones of theaxial skeleton. C) short bones of theappendicular skeleton. D) the liver andspleen.

97)

In many of the elderly, leukocytes appear to be A) decreased innumber and less efficient. B) decreased in numberbut more efficient. C) increased in numberbut more efficient. D) increased in numberand more efficient.

98) When blood oxygen is _____, erythropoietinis released, which ______ production of erythrocytes. A) low; stimulates B) high; stimulates C) low; inhibits D) high; inhibits

99) The process of ______________ is the third and final phase of _______________, where the protein fibrin forms a meshwork that catches other elements of the blood. A) coagulation; hemostasis B) platelet plug formation; hemostasis C) coagulation; hematopoiesis D) platelet plug formation; hematopoiesis

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 100) The percentage of volume of red blood cells is called the _______________.

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101)

The production of leukocytes is called _______________.

102)

The production of platelets is called _______________.

103) Platelets are continually produced in the red bone marrow by cells called _____________.

104) _______________ is a growth factor that stimulates both the production of megakaryocytes in the bone marrow and the subsequent formation of platelets.

105) The process of hematopoiesis starts with hemopoietic stem cells called ________________.

106) The test that measures the amount of each type of leukocyte in the blood is a __________ count.

107) When actinomyosin of platelets contracts and squeezes the serum out of a clot, the process is called clot _________.

108) When clotting proteins are removed from plasma, the remaining fluid is called _____________.

109) Fibrin, which is produced from the plasma protein _______________, helps form blood clots.

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110) When a finger is pricked, the blood will quickly stop flowing because of the action of the formed elements called ______________.

111) The molecule to which both oxygen and carbon dioxide can attach in an erythrocyte is called _________________.

112) Two of the four globin chains in the hemoglobin molecule are called alpha chains and the other two are called ________________ chains.

113) The iron of the heme unit of hemoglobin is transported in the blood by the protein _________________ after the aged erythrocytes are phagocytized.

114) The iron that has been transferred to the liver after the aged erythrocytes were phagocytized is stored by the protein _______________.

115) Aged erythrocytes are phagocytized in the liver and spleen by cells called ________________.

116) The heme group from the phagocytized erythrocyte is converted into a green pigment called ________________.

117) A person with erythrocytes that have surface antigen A, but not surface antigen B, is said to have type _________ blood.

118)

The rupture of erythrocytes is called ____________.

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119) Surface antigens found on erythrocytes are also called _____________ based on the response initiated when they interact with antibodies.

120) The binding of antibodies in the blood plasma to their corresponding surface antigens on the erythrocyte plasma membrane is called _____________.

121)

A reduced number of leukocytes causes a serious disorder called ____________.

122) Movement of leukocytes between the endothelial blood vessel cells into the body tissues is called _____________.

123) ____________ is the attraction of leukocytes to a site of infection due to the presence of molecules released by damaged cells, dead cells, or invading pathogens.

124)

__________ are the most numerous type of leukocyte in the blood.

125) Making up 2 to 4 percent of the leukocytes, the ___________ increase in number when they react to or phagocytize antigen-antibody complexes or allergens.

126) Among the three categories of lymphocytes, it is the _____________ killer cells that attack abnormal and infected tissue cells.

127) Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the _______________ to increase the rate of production and maturation of erythrocyte progenitor and erythroblast cells.

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SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 128) Describe how a change in the blood's pH might result in adverse changes tothe structure and function of important molecules within it. Name a specific functional impairment resulting from damage to a specific functional macromolecule in the blood.

129) If someone with kidney damage was losing lots of protein in their urine, what would happen to colloid osmotic pressure and how might it lead to edema (swelling) of body tissues?

130) Explain how the body tries to maintain enough blood pressure to keep the most vital organs functioning after a catastrophic loss of over 10% of total blood volume.

131) If one of your classmates comes down with mononucleosis, he will probably notice that his neck and axillary area are tender. A differential white count would reveal an unusually high level of one type of leukocyte. Which leukocyte proliferates and how does activation of this leukocyte change its appearance? How would this relate to the axillary tenderness?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 18_4e 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) TRUE 21) FALSE 22) [A, B, D, F] 23) D 24) C 25) B 26) A Version 1

27) B 28) E 29) B 30) B 31) A 32) D 33) D 34) A 35) C 36) B 37) C 38) B 39) C 40) D 41) B 42) C 43) B 44) D 45) B 46) C 47) A 48) A 49) B 50) D 51) E 52) B 53) A 54) B 55) D 56) C Version 1

57) B 58) B 59) D 60) A 61) D 62) B 63) B 64) D 65) D 66) A 67) A 68) E 69) B 70) B 71) E 72) B 73) D 74) C 75) C 76) D 77) B 78) A 79) D 80) E 81) B 82) A 83) B 84) C 85) B 86) A Version 1

87) A 88) A 89) B 90) C 91) A 92) C 93) A 94) D 95) B 96) B 97) A 98) A 99) A 100) hematocrit 101) leukopoiesis 102) thrombopoiesis 103) megakaryocytes 104) Thrombopoietin 105) hemocytoblasts 106) differential 107) retraction 108) serum 109) fibrinogen 110) platelets 111) hemoglobin 112) beta 113) transferrin 114) ferritin 115) macrophages 116) biliverdin Version 1

117) A 118) hemolysis 119) agglutinogens 120) agglutination 121) leukopenia 122) diapedesis 123) Chemotaxis 124) Neutrophils 125) eosinophils 126) natural 127) kidney 128) Swings in pH could denature proteins. As a result, alterations in protein antibodies coulddisrupt body defenses; denaturation of clotting proteins impairs hemostasis. 129) Osmotic pressure would decrease. Because less fluid would be retained by the osmotic draw of the proteins, capillaries would lose more fluid, and swelling could result. 130) The sympathetic nervous system triggers general vasoconstriction, increased heart rate and increased heart contractility. Blood is distributed to heart and brain. 131) There are several lymphocytes in the differential count, and activation makes several of them look large (and atypically similar to a monocyte, hence the name of the condition). Inflammation of lymph nodes explains the location of the tenderness.

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CHAPTER 19 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The main functions of the cardiovascular system include the transport and exchange of respiratory gases, nutrients, and wastes throughout the body. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Arteries carry blood toward the heart, while veins carry blood away from the heart. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) The receiving chambers of the heart are the atria, and the forcefully pumping chambers of the heart are the ventricles. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) The pericardium helps prevent overfilling of the heart and it lessens the friction ofmovements during heartbeats. ⊚ ⊚

Myofibrils within cardiac muscle cells are aligned in sarcomeres. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Cardiac muscle is able to use a variety of fuel types for cellular respiration. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Nodal cells contain fast voltage-gated calcium channels.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

8) The hearts nodal cells have a more negative resting potential than neurons do, because nodal cells lack leak channels for sodium and potassiumions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

SA nodal cells are autorhythmic. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Like skeletal muscle cells, cardiac muscle cells have an absolute refractory period prior to repolarization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) Immediately prior to atrial contraction, blood continues to enter the atria from the venae cavae and pulmonary veins. ⊚ true ⊚ false

12)

Cardiac reserve is greater in a nonathletic individual than in a highly trained athlete. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) Preload is the stretch of the heart wall as determined by the amount of blood returned by the veins. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14) Parasympathetic innervation influences the heart rate, but generally tends to have no direct effect on the force of contractions. ⊚ ⊚

15)

Blood flow to the heart wall courses through coronary vessels in a steady stream. ⊚ ⊚

16)

true false

All of the heart’s sulci house blood vessels that supply the myocardium. ⊚ ⊚

17)

true false

The left ventricle walls are typically thicker than the right ventricular wall. ⊚ ⊚

true false

18) It is the contraction of the atria during atrial systole that completes the filling of the ventricles while the ventricles are in diastole. ⊚ ⊚

true false

19) About 70% of the ventricle filling is achieved passively without the contraction of the atria. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

20) During ventricular contraction, the semilunar valves close in order to permit the blood to enter the large arterial trunks that carry blood away from the heart. ⊚ true ⊚ false

21) Though the autonomic innervation by autonomic centers in the brainstem cannot initiate a heartbeat, it can increase or decrease the heart rate. ⊚ ⊚

22)

true false

Purkinje fibers are small fibers within the atria that conduct impulses rapidly. ⊚ ⊚

true false

23)

Normally, the left and right ventricles eject the same amount of blood. ⊚ true ⊚ false

24)

The atrial reflex relies upon chemoreceptors to detect stretch in the atrial wall. ⊚ true ⊚ false

25)

Parasympathetic and sympathetic influence on heart rate is controlled by reflexes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

26) Around day 21 of development the primitive heart begins to beat. At this stage it contains the four chambers: two atria and two ventricles. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 27) Select all that occur during the plateau phase of an action potential on a cardiac muscle cell. A) Calcium is entering the cell. B) Potassium is exiting the cell. C) Sodium is entering the cell. D) Calcium is exiting the cell.

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 28) The units for perfusion of blood are typically A) grams perminute. B) milliliters perminute per gram. C) millimiters perhour per kilogram. D) liters pergram. E) beats per minute per gram.

29)

Occlusion ofblood vessels tends to lead to A) increases inperfusion. B) increases incapillary exchange. C) inadequate bloodsupply and damage to body tissues. D) defibrillation ofcardic muscle cell contraction.

30) Which can be used to characterize blood flow in the human body? a: There is a unidirectional blood flow. b: Arteries always carry oxygenated blood. c: Veins always carry deoxygenated blood. d: Arteries carry blood away from the heart. e: Veins carry blood toward the heart.

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A) a, c, d, e B) a, b, c, d, e C) a, d, e D) b, c, d, e E) d, e

31) The pulmonary trunk receives blood from the right ventricle and conducts it toward the lung. The pulmonary trunk is a(n) A) artery. B) capillary. C) vein.

32)

Which carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart? A) Pulmonary arteries B) Pulmonary veins C) Pulmonary trunk D) Inferior venacava E) Superior vena cava

33) Which circuit of the cardiovascular system is responsible for sending blood to the kidneys, stomach, and pelvic regions? A) Pulmonary circuit B) Visceral circuit C) Coronary circuit D) Systemic circuit

34)

Which of the cardiovascular system’s circuits has deoxygenated blood in its arteries?

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A) Pulmonary circuit B) Visceral circuit C) Coronary circuit D) Systemic circuit

35)

Which circuit of the cardiovascular system includes the left ventricle and aorta? A) Pulmonary circuit B) Cardio circuit C) Coronary circuit D) Systemic circuit

36)

Which heart chambers containdeoxygenated blood? A) Left atrium and right atrium B) Left ventricle and right ventricle C) Right atrium and right ventricle D) Left atrium and left ventricle E) Right atrium and left ventricle

37)

Which pair is located more anteriorly in a heart in normal position? A) Left atrium and left ventricle B) Left atrium and right ventricle C) Right atrium and left atrium D) Right atrium and right ventricle E) Right atrium and left ventricle

38)

The base of the heart faces in the _____________ directions.

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A) anterior andinferior B) anterior andsuperior C) posterior andsuperior D) posterior andinferior E) None of these choices is correct.

39)

Which correctly describes the heart’s apex? A) Projects slightly anteroinferiorly toward the left side of the body. B) Projects slightly anteroinferiorly toward the right side of the body. C) Projects slightly posteroinferiorly toward the left side of the body. D) Projects slightly posteroinferiorly toward the right side of the body. E) Projects slightly posteroinferiorly toward the midline of the body.

40)

The term "epicardium" is another name for the A) visceral layer of the serosal pericardium. B) parietal layer of the serosal pericardium. C) external layer ofthe fibrous pericardium. D) myocardium. E) mediastinum.

41)

The serous fluid within the pericardial cavity works to A) lubricatemembranes of the pericardium. B) slow the heartrate. C) equalize thepressure in the great vessels. D) eliminate bloodpressure spikes. E) All of the choices are correct.

42)

The pericardial cavity is between the

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A) heart muscle andserous pericardium. B) fibrous and serouslayers of the pericardium. C) visceral andparietal layers of the serous pericardium. D) parietal andmyocardial layers of the fibrous pericardium.

43)

Which layer is made of dense irregular connective tissue? A) Myocardium B) Fibrouspericardium C) Epicardium D) Serouspericardium E) Endocardium

44)

The atria are separated from the ventricles externally by the A) anteriorinterventricular sulcus. B) posteriorinterventricular sulcus. C) sinoventricularsulcus. D) coronarysulcus. E) None of the choices is correct.

45)

The posterior interventricular sulcus A) is another namefor the coronary sulcus. B) contains the greatcardiac vein and coronary sinus. C) is a groovebetween the ventricles on the back of the heart. D) is a valve in theinterventricular septum that closes at birth.

46) Each of the receiving chambers of the heart has awrinkled flaplike extension; the one that is more visible from an anterior view is the

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A) interatrialseptum. B) interventricularseptum. C) left auricle. D) right auricle.

47) From which view is the connection between the pulmonary veins and the heart most visible? A) Anterior view B) Posterior view

48)

The layer of the heart wall composed of cardiac muscle tissue is the A) pericardium. B) myocardium. C) endocardium. D) pericardialcavity. E) pectinatemuscle.

49) Which describes the endocardium? a: Has single layer of epithelium b: Has layer of areolar connective tissue c: Epithelial cells are squamous d: Epithelial cells are cuboidal e: Has layer of adipose connective tissue f: Has patches of myocardium A) a, b, c B) a, b, d C) a, d, e D) a, b, c, e E) a, e, f

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50)

The fossa ovalis appears just above the opening of the coronary sinus within the A) left atrium. B) leftventricle. C) right atrium. D) rightventricle.

51)

The papillary muscles attach to the cusps of the atrioventricular valves by means of the A) pectinatemuscles. B) trabeculaecarneae. C) conusarteriosus. D) tendinous cords. E) tricuspidvalve.

52) The internal wall surface of each ventricle displays large, smooth, irregular muscular ridges called A) conusarteriosus. B) atrioventricularopening. C) trabeculaecarneae. D) tendinous cords. E) pectinatemuscles.

53)

Pectinate muscles are found on the A) posterior wall ofthe right ventricle. B) anterior wall ofthe right ventricle. C) internal walls ofthe right and left atria. D) posterior walls ofthe right and left ventricles. E) external wall of the right atrium.

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54) Which are functions performed by the fibrous skeleton of the heart? a: Separates the atria and ventricles b: Anchors the heart valves c: Provides electrical insulation between the atria and ventricles d: Provides the framework for the attachment of the myocardium e: None of these are true functions of the fibrous skeleton of the heart A) a, d B) b, d C) a, c, d D) a, b, c, d E) e

55) Which featurepermits the compression necessary to pump large volumes of blood out of the ventricles? A) Negative pressure inside the ventricles B) Absence of oxygenated blood in the atria C) Arrangement of cardiac muscle in the heart wall D) Presence of skeletal muscle tissue in the heart skeleton E) Presence of papillary muscles in the ventricles

56) Which are differences between cardiac muscle tissue and skeletal muscle tissue? a: The sarcoplasmic reticulum in cardiac muscle is less extensive. b: The sarcoplasmic reticulum in cardiac muscle is more organized. c: Cardiac muscle has intercalated discs; skeletal muscle does not. d: Cardiac muscle has 1 or 2 nuclei per cell; skeletal muscle has multiple nuclei per cell. e: Cardiac muscle has more well-defined terminal cisternae. A) a, c, d B) a, c, e C) b, c, e D) a, b, e E) b, d, e

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57)

What are the cell-to-cell contacts of the cardiac muscle fibers called? A) Z discs B) T-tubules C) Intercalateddiscs D) Cardiac discs E) Sarcoplasmic reticulum

58)

The metabolic pathways of cardiac muscle make it

A) somewhat susceptible to heart attack, because it relies so exclusively on aerobic metabolism. B) extremely susceptible to heart attack, because it uses such a variety of fuel sources. C) somewhat susceptible to heart attack, because it has so few mitochondria. D) relativelyresistant to heart attack, because it uses exclusively anaerobicmetabolism. E) relatively resistant to heart attack,because it has a great capacity to accrue oxygen debt.

59)

Metabolically, cardiac muscle relies on A) aerobic metabolismusing glycolysis of glycogen to meet most ATP demands. B) aerobic metabolismusing many mitochondria and a rich supply of myoglobin. C) anaerobicmetabolism using glycolytic enzymes to quickly generate ATP. D) anaerobicmetabolism using myoglobin, creatin kinase, and ketone bodies.

60)

The heart valves A) stabilize and holdthe arteries leaving the heart. B) permit the passageof blood in one direction. C) separate the rightand left sides of the heart. D) are only used inthe fetal heart. E) direct theconduction impulse through the heart muscle.

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61)

Which action leads tothe closure of the right atrioventricular valve? A) Contraction of the right atrium B) Contraction of the left atrium C) Contraction of the right ventricle D) Relaxation of theright ventricle E) Relaxation of the left atrium

62)

How many half-moon shaped, pocketlike cusps are found in each semilunar valve? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 6

63) Which valve prevents the backflow of blood into the left ventricle when the ventricles relax? A) Left atrioventricular valve B) Aortic semilunar valve C) Right atrioventricular valve D) Pulmonary semilunar valve E) None of the choicesis correct.

64)

As blood is pumped out of the heart and into the major arteries leaving the heart, it

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A) pushes against thesemilunar valves and opens them. B) pushes against thesemilunar valves and closes them. C) fills the cusps ofthe semilunar valves, causing them to expand and block the backflow ofblood D) pushes against theatrioventricular valves and opens them. E) fills the cusps ofthe atrioventricular valve causing opening of the bicuspid and closure of thetricuspid.

65) Typically, there are __________ papillary muscles that project from the wall of the left ventricle and attach to the tendinous cords that support the left AV valve. A) three B) two C) a highly variablenumber of D) six E) no

66)

An autorhythmic heart cell is one inwhich A) action potentialsfire spontaneoulsy. B) action potentialsare stimulated by internal stores of acetylcholine. C) action potentialsalways occur at exactly the same frequency. D) allfilamentscontract and relax with a high degree of synchrony. E) action potentials are initiated by theautonomic nervous system.

67)

Once an SA nodal cell reaches threshold, the depolarization phase occurs during which A) potassium comes inthrough fast voltage-gated channels. B) calcium comes inthrough fast voltage-gated channels. C) potassium movesout through fast voltage-gated channels. D) sodium moves outthrough slow voltage-gated channels. E) calcium moves out through slowvoltage-gated channels.

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68)

For the repolarization phase of an SA nodal cell action potential, A) sodium andpotassium channels open. B) calcium channelsopen and sodium channels close. C) calcium andpotassium channels close. D) calcium channelsclose and potassium channels open. E) sodium and chloride channels open.

69)

Vagal tone refers to the A) decreasingofthe heart rate below its inherent rhythm by parasympatheticstimulation. B) decreasingofthe heart rate below its inherent rhythm by sympatheticstimulation. C) increasingofthe heart rate above its inherent rhythm by sympatheticstimulation. D) increasing of theheart rate above its inherent rhythm by parasympathetic stimulation.

70) What is the sequence of events in the transmission of an impulse through the heart muscle? a: AV node b: AV bundle c: SA node d: Through the atria e: Through the ventricles f: Bundle branches g: Purkinje fibers A) c, d, a, b, f, g, e B) d, b, a, c, f, g, e C) b, a, d, c, f, g, e D) f, g, d, c, b, a, e E) c, d, a, f, b, g, e

71)

At the AV node of the conduction system, the action potential is

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A) rapidly advanceddue to the cells being large and well connected by gap junctions. B) rapidly advanceddue to the cells being small and well insulated by myelin. C) delayed due to thecells being small and having few gap junctions. D) delayed due to thecells being large and having many leakage channels.

72)

The membrane of a contractile cardiac muscle cell contains A) fast voltage-gatedsodium channels and fast voltage-gated calcium channels. B) fast voltage-gatedsodium channels and slow voltage-gated calcium channels. C) slow voltage-gatedsodium channels and slow voltage-gated calcium channels. D) slow voltage-gatedsodium channels and fast voltage-gated calcium channels.

73)

The membrane of a contractile cardiac muscle cell contains

A) no calciumpumps. B) calcium pumps thatmove calcium out of the cell. C) calcium pumps thatmove calcium into the cell. D) calcium pumps thatopen and allow calcium to diffuse down its concentration gradient to reachequilibrium.

74)

During the plateau phase of a cardiac muscle cell's action potential, the membrane stays A) depolarized aspotassium exits and calcium enters. B) depolarized aspotassium enters and calcium exits. C) repolarized assodium enters and calcium exits. D) hyperpolarized assodium and calcium exit. E) hyperpolarized as potassium enters andcalcium exits.

75) As with action potentials in other types of cells, the repolarization of cardiac muscle cells involves the

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A) entrance ofcalcium through voltage-gated channels. B) exit of potassiumthrough voltage-gated channels. C) entrance of sodiumthrough voltage-gated channels. D) binding of ACh to ACh receptor. E) simultaneous closure of sodium channelsand opening of calcium channels.

76)

Most of the calcium that triggers contraction of cardiac muscle comes A) into the cellthrough leakage channels in the sarcolemma. B) into the cellthrough voltage-gated channels in the sarcolemma. C) from thesarcoplasmic reticulum of the cell. D) from the Golgiapparatus of the cell.

77)

To initiate a cardiac muscle cell contraction, calcium A) binds tocalmodulin. B) binds totroponin. C) binds toactin. D) binds to theZ-disc. E) binds to tropomyosin.

78)

Which type of muscle cell exhibits a longer refractory period? A) Cardiac musclecell B) Skeletal musclecell

79)

The plateau phase of an action potential

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A) occurs only inskeletal muscle and makes those fibers'contractions most forceful. B) leads to tetaniccontractions in smooth and skeletal muscle. C) allows cardiacmuscle cells to contract and then relax without locking up. D) allows cardiacmuscle cells to exhibit synchronous fibrillation.

80) What part of the cardiac conduction system is located in the posterior wall of the right atrium, adjacent to the entrance of the superior vena cava? A) AV bundle B) Bundle branches C) Purkinje fibers D) AV node E) SA node

81)

The atrioventricular (AV) node is located in the A) floor of the leftatrium. B) floor of the rightatrium. C) roof of the leftventricle. D) back wallofthe right ventricle. E) back wall of the left ventricle.

82)

In an ECG, what doesthe T wave represent? A) Depolarization ofthe atria B) Depolarization of the right ventricle C) Repolarization of the ventricles D) Closure of the AV valves E) Depolarization of the left ventricle

83)

In an ECG, the P wave is generated when the

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A) ventriclesdepolarize. B) atriadepolarize. C) atriarepolarize. D) ventriclesrepolarize. E) Purkinjefibersinitiate an impulse.

84) Which segment of the ECG reflects the plateau phase of ventricular muscle cells' action potentials? A) P-T segment B) S-T segment C) Q-R segment D) P-R interval E) T-P interval

85)

Someone with a heart block would have A) a long P-Rinterval. B) a long T-Pinterval. C) a short P-Rinterval. D) a short T-Pinterval.

86)

Someone with tachyarrhythmia would be expected to show an abnormally A) small Q-Tinterval. B) large P-Rinterval. C) large R-Rinterval. D) high amplitude Pwave.

87)

During the S-T segment, what is occurring within cardiac muscle cells?

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A) Sodium is rapidlydiffusing out of atrial muscle cells. B) Sodium channelsare beginning to open in ventricular cells and calcium is entering through slowchannels in atrial cells. C) Calcium isentering and potassium is leaving ventricular cells. D) Potassium isentering atrial cells and sodium is leaving ventricular cells.

88)

During a cardiac cycle, how many of the four chambers contract at any one time? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) Highly variable, depending on the heart beat rate E) None of the choices is correct.

89)

During ventricular contraction A) only the AV valvesopen. B) only the AV valvesclose. C) only the semilunarvalves close. D) the semilunarvalves close and the AV valves open. E) the semilunarvalves open and the AV valves close.

90)

The opening and closing of theheart valves is caused by A) contraction andrelaxation of papillary muscles that pull on heart strings. B) pressure changes ofalternating contraction and relaxation during the cardiac cycle. C) contraction of thesmooth muscle in the walls of the great vessels leaving the heart. D) action potentialswithin the cusps of the valves.

91)

Blood moves into and then out of a heart chamber because

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A) it moves along itspressure gradient, and that gradient depends on contraction and relaxationduring the cardiac cycle. B) it is underconstant pressure, but its movement is dictated by the control of valveopenings and closures. C) the veins andarteries constrict and dilate to propel and attract blood. D) All of the choicesare correct.

92)

Atrial contraction occurs just before A) isovolumic relaxation. B) atrial relaxation and ventricular filling. C) ventricular ejection. D) isovolumic contraction.

93)

Just prior to atrial contraction, A) all four chambersare at rest and AV valves are open. B) all four chambersare at rest and AV valves are closed. C) all four chambersare contracting and all valves are open. D) both ventriclesare contracting and blood is being ejected into the major arteries. E) both atria are contracting and blood isbeing ejected into the major arteries.

94)

The shutting of the semilunar valves occurs during which phase? A) Isovolumic contraction B) Ventricular ejection C) Isovolumic relaxation D) Atrial contraction and ventricular filling E) Late ventricular diastole

95)

Cardiac output is the amount of blood that is pumped

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A) by a singleventricle in one hour. B) by a singleventricle in one minute. C) by both ventriclesin one hour. D) by both ventriclesin one minute. E) by the left ventricle into the aorta inone beat.

96)

Cardiac output is usually expressed in A) beats perminute. B) mL per beat. C) mm Hg. D) liters perminute.

97)

Cardiac output equals the A) end diastolicvolume minus end systolic volume. B) blood pressuremultiplied by heart rate. C) heart ratemultiplied by stroke volume. D) stroke volumedivided by heart rate. E) cardiac reserve minus the strokevolume.

98)

Cardiac reserve is

A) the potentialincrease in stroke volume someone would show if they engaged in athletictraining. B) the increase incardiac output an individual is capable of demonstrating during vigorousexercise. C) the amount ofblood left in the heart after the ventricle has contracted during cardiaccycles at rest. D) the blood that theheart uses to nourish its cardiac muscle and does not put into generalcirculation.

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99) Large doses of certain stimulants can lead to dangerous increases in heart rates. Such a stimulant is a A) positivechronotropic agent. B) negativechronotropic agent. C) positive inotropicagent. D) negative inotropicagent.

100)

Norepinephrine is considered a positive chronotropic agent because it causes A) less calcium toenter heartcells, which leads to lower risk of heart attack. B) more forcefulcontractions during each heart rate. C) an increase in thefiring rate of SA node cells. D) thyroid hormone tohave a steadying effect on heart activity. E) heart cell membrane potentials to become more positive during actionpotentials.

101)

Which of the following is not one of the three main factors influencing stroke volume? A) Afterload B) Chronotropicagents C) Inotropicagents D) Venous return

102)

According to the Frank-Starling law

A) the more calcium available to the heart cell, the more forcefully it will contract. B) as the volume ofblood entering the heart increases, ventricular contractions become moreforceful. C) the faster the heart rate, the larger the stroke volume. D) the greater the resistance from the arteries, the higher the blood pressure.

103) A drug that decreased calcium levels in a muscle cell and thereby lowered the number of crossbridges formed during the heart's contractions would be a

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A) positivechronotropic agent. B) negativechronotropic agent. C) positive inotropicagent. D) negative inotropicagent.

104)

Which of the following would cause a decrease in cardiac output? A) An increase invenous return B) An increase inafterload C) Addition ofpositive inotropic agents D) An increase inheart rate

105)

Parasympathetic innervation of the heart occurs via A) CN IV. B) CN VI. C) CN VIII. D) CN X. E) CN XII.

106) Sympathetic innervation of the heart arises from the ________ segments of the spinal cord. A) T1–T5 B) T3–T8 C) T5–T10 D) T6–T11 E) T11–L2

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107) Sympathetic innervation of the heart a: increases the heart rate b: decreases the heart rate c: increases the force of contractions d: decreases the force of contractions e: has no effect on contraction force A) a, c B) b, d C) a, d D) b, e E) a, e

108)

The right border of the heart is supplied by the A) circumflexartery. B) posteriorinterventricular artery. C) anteriorinterventricular artery. D) right marginalartery. E) great cardiacvein.

109)

The left and right coronary arteries

A) are interconnected with several high-volume anastomoses allowing for well perfusedalternate blood paths. B) are functional end arteries because the blockage of one of them leads to tissue death in the area it supplies.

110) What would you expect a cardiologist to recommend if there was substantial occlusion to a patient'sleft coronary artery but not the right coronary artery?

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A) Because there are multiple alternate paths for blood delivery, the cardiologist would not intervene. B) Because this is a relatively small, unimportant artery, the cardiologist would not intervene. C) Because this is an important artery, and alternate vascular paths are inadequate,the cardiologist would treat the condition. D) Because occlusions require blood to be moved undergreater pressure, the cardiologist would prescribe drugs to raise blood pressure.

111)

The posterior interventricular artery is a branch off of the A) superior venacava. B) left marginalartery. C) right coronaryartery. D) left coronaryartery. E) coronary sinus.

112)

Coronary vessels are open when the heart is A) contracting. B) relaxed.

113)

The great cardiac vein runs alongside the A) anteriorinterventricular artery. B) posteriorinterventricular artery. C) right marginalartery. D) aorta. E) coronarysinus.

114)

The function of the coronary sinus is to

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A) connect the topand bottom halves of the heart. B) guide the aortaout of the heart. C) guide the inferiorvena cava into the right atrium. D) take blood fromthe coronary circulation to the right atrium. E) shunt blood fromthe right atrium to the left atrium.

115)

Which vein drains the posterior aspect of the ventricles of the heart? A) Great cardiacvein B) Middle cardiacvein C) Small cardiacvein D) Circumflexvein

116)

Which prenatal structure forms the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk? A) Truncus arteriosus B) Sinus venosus C) Primitive atrium D) Primitive ventricle E) Conus cordis

117)

The foramen ovale of the fetal heart is an opening in the A) interventricularseptum. B) interatrialseptum. C) fossa ovalis. D) aorticopulmonaryseptum. E) tetralogy ofFallot.

118)

The tetralogy of Fallot is

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A) a condition inwhich the left and right sides of the heart are completely reversed. B) a developmentaldisorder that is a cardiac septal defect. C) an exceptionallyfast heart rate. D) an inadequatecardiac output due to poorly contracting heart chambers. E) occlusion of the left coronaryartery.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 119) The inferior, conical end of the heart is called the _______________.

120) Deep to the interventricular sulci is the thick muscular wall that divides the left and right ventricles, known as the interventricular ________.

121) The time that startswhen a muscle cell is depolarized and ends when itis able to be restimulated is the __________ period.

122) The beginning of ventricular contraction, when all four valves are closed,is a phase called (2 words) __________________.

123)

A chemical that alters heart rate is known as a(n) __________ agent.

124)

The resistance in arteries to the ejection of blood by the heart is known as _________.

125) This artery is sometimes referred to as the "widowmaker" because blockage of it often leads to fatal heart attack. It serves the anterior heart and is more formally called the (2 words) _________ __________ artery.

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126) The middle layer of the heart wall that is made of cardiac muscle tissue is the ________________.

127) The numerous ________________ within the intercalated discs prevent cardiac muscle fibers from pulling apart.

128)

The anterior part of each atrium is a flaplike extension called a(n) _______________.

129)

The inferior chambers of the heart are called ________________.

130) The property that allows the heart to initiate each heartbeat itself is called __________________.

131)

The heartbeat is initiated by the cells of the _______________ node.

132)

________________ innervation increases the rate and the force of heart contraction.

133) The connections shared by arteries that allow them to shunt blood from one artery to another are called _________________.

134)

The _______________ cardiac vein travels alongside the right marginal artery.

135) The term used to describe the inadequate blood flow to a structure caused by obstruction of the blood supply is _________________.

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136) If the stroke volume is unequal between the left and right ventricles, ________ may occur, which is excess fluid surrounding or within cells.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 137) Contrast the length-tension relationship for cardiac muscle to that which is found in skeletal muscle. In other words, for each type of muscle, what is the optimal length? How is such an arrangement adaptive to cardiac muscle?

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 138) Explain the factors that affect cardiac output. In your answer provide one example of a positive inotropic agent and one example of a positive chronotropic agent. For each of those examples, explain what specifically happens to the cells of the heart when they have their effect.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 19_4e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) FALSE 21) TRUE 22) FALSE 23) TRUE 24) FALSE The atrial reflex relies upon baroreceptors to detect stretch in the atrial wall. Version 1

25) TRUE 26) FALSE When the heart begins to beat around day 21 it is composed of a single tube that is later partitioned into chambers (weeks 5 through 8). 27) [A, B] 28) B 29) C 30) C 31) A 32) B 33) D 34) A 35) D 36) C 37) D 38) C 39) A 40) A 41) A 42) C 43) B 44) D 45) C 46) D 47) B 48) B 49) A 50) C 51) D 52) C Version 1

53) C 54) D 55) C 56) A 57) C 58) A 59) B 60) B 61) C 62) C 63) B 64) A 65) B 66) A 67) B 68) D 69) A 70) A 71) C 72) B 73) B 74) A 75) B 76) C 77) B 78) A 79) C 80) E 81) B 82) C Version 1

83) B 84) B 85) A 86) A 87) C 88) B 89) E 90) B 91) A 92) D 93) A 94) C 95) B 96) D 97) C 98) B 99) A 100) C 101) B 102) B 103) D 104) B 105) D 106) A 107) A 108) D 109) B 110) C 111) C 112) B Version 1

113) A 114) D 115) B 116) A 117) B 118) B 119) apex 120) septum 121) refractory 122) isovolumic contraction 123) chronotropic 124) afterload 125) anterior interventricular 126) myocardium 127) desmosomes 128) auricle 129) ventricles 130) autorhythmicity 131) sinoatrial 132) Sympathetic 133) anastomoses 134) small 135) ischemia 136) edema 137) Unlike skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle does not produce the greatest force at rest length, but at a somewhat longer length. In both cases the optimal length depends on actin-myosin overlap. But when the heart is especially engorged with blood, the ventricles can contract more forcibly to expel the added volume.

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138) CO = SV × HR, so a positive inotropic agent increases calcium levels in the muscle cells. A positive chronotropic agent usuallycauses the SA node to reach threshold more quickly.

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CHAPTER 20 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Some large molecules, such as fatty acids, are transported between capillaries and tissues by vesicular transport. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Filtration and reabsorption are processes that involve water (a solvent) but not solutes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Blood hydrostatic pressure in systemic capillaries is greater than interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Although local blood flow to different organs varies from time to time (based on demand), the distribution of blood vessels in the various organs of the body is fairly similar. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) The higher the degree of vascularization in a tissue, the greater the potential for local blood flow. ⊚ ⊚

true false

A vasodilator causes a decrease in local blood flow at a capillary bed. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

7) The contraction of skeletal muscles plays an important role in the movement of blood in the veins. ⊚ ⊚

true false

An increase in blood vessel diameter would lead to a decrease in blood flow. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Epinephrine, aldosterone, and antidiuretic hormone each cause an increase in blood pressure. ⊚ ⊚

10)

Increases in angiotensin II levels cause decreases in blood pressure. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

The azygos vein is located on the left side of the vertebrae. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

Pulmonary veins carry blood toward the left atrium of the heart. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

The great saphenous vein is a deep vein and the popliteal vein is a superficial vein.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

14) Of the three artery types, the elastic arteries have the greatest ability to vasoconstrict and vasodilate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) Systolic pressure is greater than diastolic pressure due to the force generated by ventricular contraction. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) Among the advantages of the cerebral arterial circle is the presence of collateral channels of blood flow to the brain should a supply artery become blocked. ⊚ ⊚

17)

true false

The stomach needs the celiac artery blood supply in order to receive blood. ⊚ ⊚

true false

18) The liver receives oxygenated blood from the common hepatic arteryand deoxygenated blood from the hepatic portal vein. ⊚ ⊚

true false

19) The left suprarenal and gonadal veins differ from the right suprarenal and gonadal veins in how directly they get to the inferior vena cava.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

20) Branches of the subclavian arteries carry blood on the way to the brain, neck and shoulder muscles, and mammary glands. ⊚ ⊚

true false

21) During a dangerous situation, the sympathetic nervous system causes widespread vasoconstriction, raising systemic blood pressure. This is an example of the myogenic response. ⊚ true ⊚ false

22) When blood flow increases stretch of specific arterioles in the kidney, the arterioles reflexively contract to keep blood pressure from getting too high. This is an example of the myogenic response. ⊚ true ⊚ false

23) Slow blood flow in the capillaries allows time for exchange of nutrients and wastes between the blood and tissues. ⊚ ⊚

true false

24) When resistance is high, a larger blood pressure gradient must be produced to maintain adequate blood flow. ⊚ ⊚

true false

25) Most venous blood from the cranium drains into dural venous sinuses, which drain into the internal jugular veins.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 26) Select all that describe total blood flow. A) It is the amount of blood transported through a specific tissue in given period of time. B) It is equivalent to cardiac output. C) It increases during exercise. D) It averages 5 liters per minute during rest.

27)

Select all that contribute to the cerebral arterial circle. A) Internal carotid arteries B) External carotid arteries C) Anterior cerebral arteries D) Posterior communicating arteries

28)

Select all that apply. The hepatic portal vein contains blood from the A) splenic vein. B) superior mesenteric vein. C) inferior mesenteric vein. D) hepatic veins.

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 29) The ________ is composed of circularly arranged layers of smooth muscle cells.

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A) tunica media B) tunica externa C) tunica intima D) tunica interna E) None of theanswers is correct.

30) A network of small arteries called the ___________ provides a blood supply to the tunica externa of very large vessels. A) vasa vasorum B) companionvessels C) distributingarteries D) fenestratedarteries E) thoroughfarechannels

31)

In arteries, the thickest layer of the wall is the A) tunicaexterna. B) tunica media. C) tunica intima. D) tunicaadventitia. E) None of the answers are correct because all the layers are of the same dimension.

32) The ________ is composed of an endothelium and a subendothelial layer made up of a thin layer of areolar connective tissue. A) tunica media B) tunica externa C) tunica intima D) tunicaadventitia E) None of the answers is correct.

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33) Gas, nutrient, and waste exchange occur between the __________ and the tissues of the body. A) arteries B) veins C) capillaries D) capillaries andveins E) capillaries andarteries

34)

As an arterial pathway moves farther from the heart, the arteries A) get smaller. B) get larger. C) show no change intheir lumen size.

35)

As a venous pathway moves closer to the heart, the veins A) get smaller. B) get larger. C) show no change intheir lumen size.

36) Which are found in the capillary wall? a: Endothelium b: Subendothelial layer c: Internal elastic lamina d: Intercellular clefts e: External elastic lamina f: Basement membrane

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A) a, d, f B) a, b, d, f C) a, b, d, e, f D) a, c, d, e, f E) b, d, e, f

37)

In general, as an artery’s diameter decreases, the artery walls show

A) a decrease in therelative amountof smooth muscle and an increase in the relativeamountof elastic fibers. B) an increase in therelativeamount of smooth muscle and a decrease in the relativeamountof elastic fibers. C) an increase inrelative amounts ofsmooth muscle and elastic fibers and a decrease inendothelium. D) a decrease in bothsmooth muscle and elastic fibers and an increase in areolar connectivetissue.

38)

The largest arteries of the body are classified as A) musculararteries. B) arterioles. C) elasticarteries. D) muscular and elastic because they have the same dimensions. E) None of the answers is correct.

39)

Which of the artery types contain the internal and external elastic laminae? A) Elastic arteries B) Arterioles C) Muscular arteries D) Elastic and muscular arteries E) Elastic arteries and arterioles

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40)

The function of the postcapillary venule is to A) allow for diffusionof nutrients to the tissues. B) allow for diffusionof metabolic wastes from the tissues. C) drain the capillarybed. D) supply metarteriolewith blood. E) allow for diffusionof nutrients and metabolic wastes.

41)

Precapillary sphincters will A) control blood flowinto the true capillaries. B) cause blood to flowdirectly from the metarteriole into the postcapillary venule. C) open when thetissue needs nutrients. D) close when thetissue’s needs have been met. E) All of the answers are correct.

42) Sinusoids are found in a: bone marrow b: spleen c: small intestine d: kidney e: liver f: muscle g: skin A) a, b, e B) b, c, e, f C) c, d D) f, g E) b, c, d, g

43)

Which is the most common type of capillary?

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A) Fenestrated B) Sinusoids C) Continuous D) Venules E) Discontinuous

44)

A venule becomes a vein when its diameter is greater than ____ micrometers. A) 1 B) 10 C) 100 D) 1000

45)

Valves in veins A) make the use of askeletal muscle pump unnecessary for venous blood flow. B) are the leadingcause of high blood pressure. C) are found only inthe largest veins. D) cause venous bloodflow to go in only one direction. E) are formed of thetunica media.

46)

Which part of the circulatory system holds the largest amount of blood? A) Pulmonaryarteries B) Pulmonary veins C) Systemicarteries D) Systemic veins

47)

When physical exertion has ended and the body is at rest, veins demonstrate

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A) vasodilation sothat they function as blood reservoirs. B) vasodilation sothat blood is shifted toward the rest of the circulatory system. C) vasoconstrictionso that they function as blood reservoirs. D) vasoconstrictionso that blood is shifted toward the rest of the circulatory system.

48)

Circulation to the spleen demonstrates a(n) A) simple pathway, asone artery delivers blood and one vein drains the organ. B) simple pathway, asits two capillary beds are separated by a portal vein. C) anastomosis, asone artery delivers blood and one vein drains the organ. D) anastomosis, asits two capillary beds are separated by a portal vein.

49)

A portal system A) includes afunctional end artery that makes an arterial anastomosis. B) is a simplecirculatory system with an areriovenous anastomosis. C) is one in whichblood flows through two capillary beds before being sent back to the

heart. D) is one in whichcirculation to a large organ involves only one artery and one main (portal)vein. E) is one in which multiple arteriesconverge on one organ or body region.

50) Oxygen and carbon dioxide are transported between the blood and interstitial fluid by way of A) exocytosis andendocytosis by endothelial cells. B) pinocytosis usingfluid-filled vesicles. C) diffusion fromareas of higher concentration to lower concentration. D) active transport(using ATP) by protein carriers of endothelial cells.

51)

Which statement accurately compares filtration and reabsorption?

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A) Filtration isdriven by concentration gradients, whereas reabsorption depends on hydrostaticpressure. B) Filtrationinvolves bulk flow of fluid out of the blood, whereas reabsorption is bulk flowback into the blood. C) Filtration happensat the venule end of a capillary bed and reabsorption happens in feederarterioles. D) The direction offiltration can be either into or out of the blood, but reabsorption alwaysinvolves fluids entering the blood.

52)

Blood colloid osmotic pressure is largely due to

A) the proteins inthe blood, and it promotes reabsorption. B) the high amount ofwater in the blood, and it promotes diffusion out of the capillaries. C) the proteins inthe blood, and it promotes filtration. D) the pressuregenerated by the heart, and it favors osmosis into the arteriole end of thecapillary bed. E) the high amount ofwater in the blood, and it promotes filtration from arterioles.

53)

Which statement is accurate?

A) Filtrationdominates at the arterial end of a capillary bed, and is driven by osmoticpressure. B) Filtrationdominates at the arterial end of a capillary bed, and is driven by hydrostaticpressure. C) Filtrationdominates at the venous end of a capillary bed, and is driven by osmoticpressure. D) Filtrationdominates at the venous end of a capillary bed, and is driven by hydrostaticpressure.

54)

Net filtration pressure (NFP)is equal to the

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A) blood hydrostaticpressure minus the tissue hydrostatic pressure. B) colloid osmoticpressure in the blood divided by resistance in the tissue. C) blood pressuretimes the total peripheral resistance. D) net hydrostaticpressure minus the net colloid osmotic pressure. E) osmotic pressure in the tissue minusthe hydrostatic pressure in the blood.

55) As blood moves from the arterial end to the venous end of a capillary, net filtration pressure A) increases, asblood hydrostatic pressure rises. B) increases, asblood colloid osmotic pressure rises. C) decreases, asblood hydrostatic pressure decreases. D) decreases, asblood colloid osmotic pressure decreases. E) remains the same, as rises in bloodosmotic pressure are offset by declines in tissue osmotic pressure.

56) If someone were to have abnormally low levels of protein in their blood, then net filtration pressure would A) be higher thannormal. B) be lower thannormal.

57) If someone suffered from hypertension, such that the blood pressure in their capillaries was elevated, then net filtration pressure would be A) above normal. B) below normal.

58)

Concerning the exchange between blood and interstitial fluid atsystemic capillaries,

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A) more fluid isabsorbed and reabsorbed than is filtered. B) more fluid isfiltered than reabsorbed. C) the fluidreabsorbed into the capillary exactly matches the amount filtered by thecapillary.

59)

Considering the bulk flow that occurs at capillary beds, the lymphatic system is needed to A) reabsorb excessfluid from the interstitial fluid. B) filter additionalfluid to the interstitial fluid. C) connect arteriolesto venules and provide a shunt from the true capillaries. D) regulate colloidosmotic pressure so that filtration levels do not decline.

60)

Tendons and ligaments have A) a high degree ofvascularization, therefore high perfusion and rapid healing. B) a high degree ofvascularization, therefore high perfusion and slow healing. C) a high degree ofvascularization, therefore low perfusion and slow healing. D) a low degree ofvascularization, therefore high perfusion and rapid healing. E) a low degree of vascularization,therefore low perfusion and slow healing.

61) If someone were to decrease their food intake and increase aerobic exercise, they might lose adipose tissue and condition their muscles. These changes would also influencetheir blood vessels, as there would be A) regression of blood vessels in adipose tissue and angiogenesis in skeletal muscle. B) angiogenesis inboth adipose tissue and skeletal muscle. C) regression of blood vessels in both adipose tissue and skeletal muscle. D) angiogenesis in adipose tissue and regression of blood vessels in skeletal muscle. E) changes in the diameter of bloodvessels, but no angiogenesis nor regression.

62)

Angiogenesis

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A) is a momentarychemical control of local blood flow. B) involves muscularconstriction of arterioles to alter local perfusion. C) allows for anincrease in the perfusion of a local tissue. D) involves buildingnew muscle tissue and decreasing the amount of blood vessels in a region.

63)

At a capillary bed, avasoconstrictor A) constricts localarterioles, thereby increasing pressure and increasing local blood

flow. B) stimulatesprecapillary sphincters and decreases local blood flow. C) dilates localarterioles, thereby increasing pressure and increasing local blood flow. D) inhibitsprecapillary sphincters to relaxand decreases local blood flow. E) constricts precapillary sphincters andthereby increases local blood flow.

64) Imagine yourself sitting in an awkward position in an uncomfortable chair that is depriving part of your leg from normal blood flow. This deprivation of adequate perfusion will result in what sort of local changes in your leg? A) Decreases incarbon dioxide and hydrogen ions will cause vasodilation. B) Buildup of carbon dioxide and hydrogen ions will cause vasoconstriction. C) Buildup of carbon dioxide and hydrogen ions will cause vasodilation. D) Decreases inoxygen and potassium will cause vasoconstriction. E) Increases in oxygen and potassium willcause vasodilation.

65)

Tissue damage can trigger local release of histamine, which can A) stimulate releaseof nitric oxide, a vasodilator. B) stimulate releaseof nitric oxide, a vasoconstrictor. C) inhibit release ofnitric oxide, a vasodilator. D) inhibit release ofnitric oxide, a vasoconstrictor.

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66)

To prevent excessive blood loss following tissue damage, local chemicals such as A) bradykininsarereleased to trigger vasoconstriction. B) nitric oxidesarereleased to trigger vasoconstriction. C) thromboxanes arereleased to trigger vasoconstriction. D) prostaglandins arereleased to trigger vasodilation. E) vasopressins arereleased totrigger vasodilation.

67)

Which statement accurately describes total blood flow?

A) Total blood flowequals cardiac output and is a fixed number given that there is a finite amountof blood in the body. B) Total blood flowequals cardiac output and can vary significantly over time with activitylevels. C) Total blood flowis measured as the sum of blood flow to upper and lower extremities and ismeasured in liters. D) Total blood flowis measured as the sum of blood flow to upper and lower extremities and ismeasured in beats per minute. E) Changes in total blood flow areaccompanied byequivalent changes in local blood flow in all areas of thebody.

68)

Blood pressure is lowest in A) arteries. B) veins. C) arterioles. D) venules. E) capillaries.

69)

Systolic blood pressure is recorded

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A) in arteries and isthe minimum pressure that is recorded during ventricular relaxation. B) in arteries and isthe maximal pressure that is recorded during ventricular contraction. C) in veins and isthe maximal pressure recorded during atrial contraction. D) in veins and isthe minimum pressure recorded during atrial relaxation. E) in both arteries and veins and is themaximum pressure recorded during diastole of the heart.

70)

The force per unit area that blood places on the inside wall of a blood vessel A) is called thepulse. B) is called theblood pressure. C) increases thefurther the vessel is from the heart. D) is greater duringdiastole. E) is greater in theinferior vena cava than in the common iliac vein.

71) be

If someone's blood pressure were listed as 125/75 mmHg, then their pulse pressure would

A) 125 mmHg. B) 5/3. C) 50 mmHg. D) 40 mmHg. E) 100 mmHg.

72) If someone's blood pressure were listed as 110/65 mmHg, then their mean arterialpressure (MAP) would be A) 70 mmHg. B) 80 mmHg. C) 90 mmHg. D) 100 mmHg. E) 110 mmHg.

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73) The respiratory pump assists blood movement within the veins of thetrunk, because as a person inspires, A) intra-abdominal andintrathoracic pressure both increase. B) intra-abdominal andintrathoracic pressure both decrease. C) intra-abdominalpressure increasesand intrathoracic pressure decreases. D) intra-abdominalpressure decreasesand intrathoracic pressure increases.

74)

Peripheral resistance is A) directly related toboth vessel length and radius. B) inversely relatedto both vessel length and radius. C) directly relatedto vessel length and inversely related to vessel radius. D) inversely relatedto vessel length and directly related to vessel radius.

75) Imagine someone who drank too much water before running a race. Their very watery blood would have A) high viscosity andtherefore havehigh resistance. B) high viscosity andtherefore havelow resistance. C) low viscosity andtherefore havehigh resistance. D) low viscosity andtherefore havelow resistance.

76)

Blood flow is A) directly relatedto both the pressure gradient and the resistance. B) directly related to the pressure gradient but inversely related to theresistance. C) inversely relatedto both the pressure gradient and the resistance. D) inversely relatedto the pressure gradient but directly related to the resistance.

77)

Atherosclerosis involves a

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A) sustained increasein blood flow that leads to decreases in venous resistanceto keep bloodpressure constant. B) sustained increasein resistance that leads to increases in arterial pressure to maintain adequateblood flow. C) sustained decreasein resistance that leads to decreasesin arterial pressure to maintainadequate blood flow. D) sustained decreasein blood flow that leads to increases in arterial diameter to lower resistanceand raise pressure. E) sustained increase in blood pressurethat leads to compensatory vasodilation.

78)

Increased cardiac output ______ the blood pressure. A) decreases B) increases C) will notaffect

79)

The cardiac center of the brainstem includes the A) cardioacceleratory center, from which parasympathetic pathways extend. B) cardioacceleratory center, from which sympathetic pathways extend. C) vasomotor center, from which parasympathetic pathways extend. D) cardioinhibitory center, from which sympathetic pathways extend. E) All of the choicesare correct.

80)

Excitation of the vasomotor center results in

A) increasedsympathetic activity and predominantly more vasoconstriction thanvasodilation. B) increasedparasympathetic activity and predominantly more vasodilation thanvasoconstriction. C) increasedautonomic activity that increases heart rate and dilates blood vessels. D) decreasedautonomic activity that decreases heart rate and constricts blood vessels. E) redistribution of blood flow away fromthe skeletal muscles and towardthe skin.

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81) Imagine a patient who loses lots of blood and therefore has less stretch of their aorta with each heartbeat. What reflex will result? A) Baroreceptorsincrease firing, the vasomotor center increases firing, and skin blood vesselswill dilate to cause a compensatory increase in flow. B) Baroreceptorsdecrease firing, the cardioacceleratory center increases firing, and cardiacoutput will exhibit a compensatory increase. C) Baroreceptorsincrease firing, the cardioinhibitory center increases firing, and the heartslows significantly to prevent further bleeding. D) Baroreceptors decrease firing, the cardioinhibitory center and vasomotor centers increase firing, the heart slows, and blood is redirected.

82)

High carbon dioxide levels and low pH in blood of the carotid arteries will stimulate

A) baroreceptors toactivate the vasomotor center. B) chemoreceptors toactivate the vasomotor center. C) baroreceptors toactivate the cardioinhibitory center and inhibit the cardioacceleratorycenter. D) chemoreceptors toinhibit the vasomotor center. E) baroreceptors andchemoreceptors to activate the cardioinhibitory center and inhibit thevasomotor center.

83)

Renin converts A) antiotensin I toantiotensin II. B) angiotensin II toangiotensin I. C) angiotensinogen toangiotensin I. D) antidiuretichormone to angiotensin. E) antidiuretic hormone toangiotensinogen.

84)

Angiotensin II causes

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A) increased heartrate, vasodilation, and less urine formation. B) decreased heartrate, vasoconstriction, and increased urine formation. C) vasoconstriction,decrease urine formation, and increased thirst. D) decreased thirst,vasodilation, and increased urine formation. E) vasoconstriction,increased urine formation, anddecreased thirst.

85)

Atrial natriuretic peptide stimulates A) vasoconstriction,increased urine output, and therefore increased blood pressure. B) vasodilation,increased urine output, and therefore decreased blood pressure. C) vasoconstriction,decreased urine output, and therefore decreased blood pressure. D) vasodilation,decreased urine output, and therefore increased blood pressure. E) vasoconstriction, sodium retention, andtherefore increased blood pressure.

86)

Aldosterone and atrial natriuretic peptide have ________ effects on blood pressure. A) similar B) opposite

87) Blood velocity is measured in _________ and is generally _________ related to total cross-sectional area of blood vessels. A) cm/second; directly B) cm/second; inversely C) liter/min; directly D) liter/min; inversely

88)

The velocity of blood flow through capillaries is

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A) rapid, due totheir small total cross sectional area. B) rapid, whichprevents pooling in lower extremeties. C) slow, due to small total cross-sectional area, low friction and high pressure. D) slow, which allowssufficient time for exchange of gases and nutrients between blood andtissues.

89) During exercise, blood flow to skeletal muscles increases. What other blood flow changes occur? A) Blood flow tocoronary vessels increases, and flow to abdominal organs decreases. B) Blood flow to skindecreases, and flow to the kidneys increases. C) Blood flow tocoronary vessels increases, and flow to skin and brain decreases. D) Blood flow toskin, heart, and kidneys decreases.

90)

The pulmonary trunk carries A) oxygenated bloodfrom the left ventricle toward the lungs. B) oxygenated bloodfrom the right ventricle toward the lungs. C) oxygenated bloodfrom the lungs toward the left atrium of theheart. D) deoxygenated bloodfrom the right ventricle toward the lungs. E) deoxygenated blood from the lungs tothe right atrium of the heart.

91) Pulmonary arteries are wider than systemic arteries. Therefore, pulmonary circuit blood pressureis A) high and bloodflows very rapidly through pulmonary capillaries, maximizing gas exchange. B) high and bloodflows very slowly through pulmonary capillaries, maximizing gas exchange. C) low and bloodflows very rapidly through pulmonary capillaries, maximizing gas exchange. D) low and bloodflows very slowly through pulmonary capillaries, maximizing gas exchange.

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92) The artery that bifurcates into the right subclavian artery and the right common carotid artery is the A) brachiocephalicartery. B) right common iliacartery. C) right brachialartery. D) right coronaryartery. E) superior venacava.

93)

The end of the aorta occurs when the vessel bifurcates into the A) brachiocephalicartery. B) subclavianarteries. C) common iliacarteries. D) common carotidarteries. E) None of theseanswers is correct.

94)

The vessels that supply the lower limbs are the A) commoncarotids. B) internal iliacarteries. C) subclavianarteries D) external iliacarteries. E) vertebralarteries.

95) The branch of the external carotid that is responsible for supplying the teeth, gums, nasal cavity, and meninges is the _____ artery. A) jugular B) maxillary C) lingual D) occipital E) internalcarotid

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96) The artery that will eventually subdivide to form the posterior cerebral arteries is the _____ artery. A) basilar B) externalcarotid C) maxillary D) superficialtemporal E) internalcarotid

97)

The anterior communicating artery of the cerebral arterial circle connects the A) posterior cerebralarteries. B) anterior cerebralarteries. C) vertebralarteries. D) basilar artery andthe internal carotid artery. E) posteriorcommunicating artery and the middle cerebral artery.

98) The brachiocephalic veins are formed by the a: Internal jugular veins b: Right sigmoid sinus c: Left sigmoid sinus d: Subclavian veins e: Straight sinus A) a, b, e B) a, c, d C) b, c, e D) a, d E) b, d, e

99) The internal thoracic artery will become the _________, which carries blood to the superior abdominal wall.

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A) superior epigastricartery B) inferior epigastricartery C) anteriorintercostal arteries D) musculophrenicartery E) None of the answers is correct.

100) At the bifurcation of the aorta in the pelvic region, the _______ artery arises to supply the sacrum and coccyx. A) lumbar B) posteriorintercostal C) subclavian D) median sacral E) femoral

101)

The superior vena cava is formed by the merging of the _______ veins. A) internalthoracic B) inferiorepigastric C) lumbar D) brachiocephalic E) internaljugular

102)

Several esophageal branches emerge off of which of the following vessels? A) Celiac trunk B) Bronchial arteries C) Left gastric artery D) Superior mesentericartery

103)

Superior phrenic arteries supply the ______ and emerge from the _____.

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A) diaphragm;descending abdominal aorta B) diaphragm;descending thoracic aorta C) stomach;descending abdominal aorta D) pancreas;descending abdominal aorta E) esophagus;descending thoracic aorta

104)

What branches arise directlyfrom the celiac trunk? A) Left gastric and splenic arteries B) Left gastroepiploic and splenic arteries C) Left gastric and common hepatic arteries D) Left gastric, left gastroepiploic, and splenic arteries E) Left gastric, splenic, and common hepatic arteries

105) The artery that arises from the descending aorta and is immediately inferior to the celiac trunk is the _____ artery. A) inferiormesenteric B) right gastric C) common hepatic D) superiormesenteric E) splenic

106)

The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the A) transversecolon. B) transverse colonand descending colon. C) sigmoid colon. D) sigmoid colon andascending colon. E) transverse colon,descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum.

107)

Which carries blood from the liver to the inferior vena cava?

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A) Hepatic portal vein B) Splenic vein C) Inferior mesenteric vein D) Superior mesenteric vein E) Hepatic veins

108)

The hepatic portal system allows for the processing of A) drugs and toxinsin the blood so that they are secreted directly into the urine. B) bacteria that growin the large intestine but need to be regulated. C) nutrients andtoxins absorbed from the gastrointestinal system into the blood. D) hormones that aresecreted by glands and must be directed to their target organs.

109) The left renal vein, right renal vein, right suprarenal vein, and right gonadal vein merge directly into the A) superior venacava. B) great saphenousvein. C) inferior venacava. D) common iliacvein. E) obturator vein.

110) Which sequence indicates the correct pathway for blood in the arterial flow of the upper appendage? A) Axillary artery - brachial artery - subclavian artery - ulnar artery B) Brachial artery - subclavian artery - axillary artery - radial artery C) Axillary artery - subclavian artery - radial artery - ulnar artery D) Subclavian artery - brachial artery - axillary artery - radial artery E) Subclavian artery - axillary artery - brachial artery - ulnar artery

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111) The arteries that anastomose and form the two arterial arches in the palm are the _____ and _____ arteries. A) axillary; subclavian B) radial; ulnar C) radial; brachial D) ulnar; brachial E) axillary; brachial

112) The _________ run(s) adjacent to the medial surface of the upper limb and eventually helps form the axillary vein. A) cephalic vein B) radial veins C) ulnar veins D) brachial veins E) basilic vein

113) The radial and ulnar veins fuse to form ________ veins; all of these veins are _______ veins. A) brachial, deep B) brachial,superficial C) cephalic, deep D) cephalic,superficial

114)

The popliteal artery supplies the A) hip joint. B) knee joint. C) elbow joint. D) palmar region.

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115)

Which path of arterieswould a blood cell follow on its way from the thigh to the foot? A) Deep femoral a., medial planar a., posterior tibial a., plantar arterialarch B) Femoral a.,popliteal a., anterior tibial a., dorsalis pedis a. C) Internal iliac a.,deep femoral a., poplitial a., posterior fibular a. D) Lateral sacral a.,femoral a., hamstring a., tibial a., dorsalis pedis a. E) Femoral a.,saphenous a., azygous a., anterior tibial a.

116)

The femoral vein becomes the external iliac vein when it A) merges with thepopliteal vein. B) merges with theinternal iliacvein. C) passes above theinguinal ligament. D) passes above thetenth thoracic vertebra.

117)

The umbilical cord contains _____ umbilical vein(s) and _____ umbilical artery(ies). A) one; one B) two; two C) one; two D) two; one E) two; three

118)

Which fetal circulatory structure shunts blood from the pulmonary trunk to the aorta? A) Foramen ovale B) Ductusvenosus C) Ductus arteriosus D) Umbilical vein E) Umbilical artery

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119) What causesmuch of the blood in the fetal right atrium to beshunted to the left atrium through the foramen ovale? A) The blood pressurein the right atrium is greater than in the left atrium. B) There is a valvethat directs the blood that way. C) The fetus is in anantigravity situation provided by the amnionic fluid. D) The blood pressurein the left atrium is greater than in the right atrium. E) The umbilicalarteries have valves.

120)

After birth, the remnant of theumbilical vein becomes the A) fossa ovalis. B) ligamentumarteriosum. C) ligamentumteres. D) ligamentumvenosum. E) medial umbilicalligament.

121)

Umbilical arteries carry _______ blood. A) deoxygenated B) oxygenated C) lymph but not

122)

What causes closure of theforamen ovale at birth? A) Higher pressure inthe left atrium, which causes interatrial septum flaps to close B) Rapid myocardial tissue growth stimulated by pregnancy hormones C) A rise in fetal oxygen levels, which triggers growth of the epithelial lining D) An increase in endothelial mucous production, which forms a plug E) Migration of connective tissue from the right atrioventricular valve

123)

Which of the following vessel types typically has the thickest tunica media?

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A) Veins B) Capillaries C) Arteries

124) Low blood pressure may cause the net hydrostatic pressure of a capillary to be less than normal. This will result in a(n) ______ net filtration pressure. A) decreased B) increased C) unchanged

125)

The _____ in the pulmonary circuit carry deoxygenated blood. A) arteries B) veins

126)

Which of the following supplies blood to the abdominal wall? A) Lumbar arteries B) Posterior intercostal arteries C) Subclavian arteries D) Median sacral artery

127)

Which of the following supplies blood to the urinary bladder? A) Superior vesical artery B) Superior gluteal artery C) Middle rectal artery D) Obturator artery

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128)

Which of the following supplies blood to the medial thigh muscles? A) Superior vesical artery B) Superior gluteal artery C) Middle rectal artery D) Obturator artery

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 129) The formation of new blood vessels is a process known as __________.

130) An increase in blood flow that follows a temporary disruption of blood flow is known as reactive _________.

131) The driving force propelling blood through the circulatory system is the difference in blood pressure from the beginning of a blood vessel to its end. This difference is known as the blood pressure _________.

132) The aorta contains specialized sensory nerve endings that respond to stretch of the vessel wall. These pressure-sensitive structures are called aortic arch_________.

133) Most of the venous blood of the cranium drains through large vessels known asthe _____________ venous sinuses.

134)

The azygos vein merges with the _____________ vena cava.

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135) Because of their role in material exchanges, the _______________ are considered to be the functional units of the cardiovascular system.

136) The cyclical process of contracting and relaxing of the precapillary sphincters is called _________________.

137)

_________________ capillaries have pores within each endothelial cell.

138) Formed primarily of tunica intima and strengthened by elastic and collagen fibers, the _________________ in veins prevent blood from pooling.

139) The hepatic ______________ system is a venous network that drains the GI tract and delivers blood to the liver.

140) _______________ arteries emerge from the superficial and deep palmar arches to supply the fingers.

141) As the popliteal vein travels up the leg, it curves to the anterior portion of the thigh and is renamed the ________________ vein.

142) The _____________ vein runs alongside the lateral aspect of the upper limb and eventually drains into the axillary vein.

143) In the fetus, the blood from the umbilical vein is shunted away from the liver and sent to the inferior vena cava through the ductus ______________.

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144) It is important that flow of blood in the ______ is slow, allowing time for nutrients and wastes to be exchanged between the blood and tissues.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 145) Give the formula for net filtration pressure; then include typical values (at the arterial end of a capillary bed)for all variables and include units.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 146) Describe the changes in blood flow and pressure that result when someone engages inprolonged strenuous exercise. Indicate how pressure, flow, and resistance change systemically and in the skeletal muscles being used.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 20_4e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) TRUE 21) FALSE In this example, systemic blood pressure is changing. In contrast, the myogenic response controls local blood flow to a specific tissue. 22) TRUE 23) TRUE 24) TRUE Version 1

25) TRUE 26) [B, C, D] Total blood flow is the amount of blood transported through the entire vasculature in given period of time. 27) [A, C, D] 28) [A, B, C] 29) A 30) A 31) B 32) C 33) C 34) A 35) B 36) A 37) B 38) C 39) C 40) C 41) E 42) A 43) C 44) C 45) D 46) D 47) A 48) A 49) C 50) C 51) B 52) A Version 1

53) B 54) D 55) C 56) A 57) A 58) B 59) A 60) E 61) A 62) C 63) B 64) C 65) A 66) C 67) B 68) B 69) B 70) B 71) C 72) B 73) C 74) C 75) D 76) B 77) B 78) B 79) B 80) A 81) B 82) B Version 1

83) C 84) C 85) B 86) B 87) B 88) D 89) A 90) D 91) D 92) A 93) C 94) D 95) B 96) A 97) B 98) D 99) A 100) D 101) D 102) D 103) B 104) E 105) D 106) E 107) E 108) C 109) C 110) E 111) B 112) E Version 1

113) A 114) B 115) B 116) C 117) C 118) C 119) A 120) C 121) A 122) A 123) C 124) A 125) A 126) A 127) A 128) D 129) angiogenesis 130) hyperemia 131) gradient 132) baroreceptors 133) dural 134) superior 135) capillaries 136) vasomotion 137) Fenestrated 138) valves 139) portal 140) Digital 141) femoral 142) cephalic Version 1

143) venosus 144) capillaries 145) NFP = (HPb - HPif) - (COPb - COPif). For example, (35 - 0) - (26 5) = 14 mmHg. 146) CO rises dramatically, increasing flow and pressure. Within skeletal muscle, vasodilation leads to lower resistance and increased flow.

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CHAPTER 21 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Lymph contains protein. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Lymph contains red blood cells. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Being avascular, epithelia typically contain a dense network of lymphatic capillaries. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Like veins, lymphatic vessels rely on skeletal muscle and respiratory pumps to help propel fluid through them. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) The walls ofthe smallest lymphatic vessels contain muscle tissue that rhythmically propels lymph through the system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) The pulsing of arteries that are adjacent to lymphatic vessels provides a pressure on the vessels that helps them propel the lymph. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The spleen is considered a primary lymphoid structure.

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⊚ ⊚

Tonsils are secondary lymphoid structures. ⊚ ⊚

true false

One of the functions of the lymphatic system is to transport fat. ⊚ ⊚

14)

true false

One of the functions of the spleen is phagocytosis of bacteria in the blood. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

The cortex of a lymph node contains multiple lymphoid nodules. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

The appendix contains lymphoid nodules. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

The ossa coxae contain red marrow. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

The walls of lymphatic capillaries are only one cell thick.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

15) The germinal center of a lymphoid nodule contains proliferating B-lymphocytes and macrophages. ⊚ ⊚

16)

true false

The thymus gland begins to atrophy immediatelyafter birth. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) The spleen is essentially a giant lymph node, because it is encapsulated, has trabeculae, and filters lymph to remove antigens. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 18) Which fluid does lymph most closely resemble? A) Whole blood B) Blood plasma C) Interstitial fluid D) Intracellular fluid

19)

Lymphatic capillaries

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A) cannot bediscerned structurally from cardiovascular system capillaries. B) originate asclosed-ended tubes associated with blood capillary networks. C) filter lymph. D) concentrate lymphprior to passing it to larger lymphatic vessels. E) include layers ofsmooth muscle for peristalsis.

20)

Lymphatic capillaries originate in the A) peripheral nervoussystem ganglia. B) red bonemarrow. C) yellow bonemarrow. D) tissue spacesbetween cells. E) cisternachyli.

21)

A lymphatic capillary that picks up dietary lipids in the small intestine is called a(n) A) cisternachyli. B) lacteal. C) afferent lymphaticvessel. D) trabeculum. E) efferent lymphaticvessel.

22)

The force that drives fluid into lymphatic capillaries is A) osmosis. B) diffusion of bothwater and solutes. C) endocytosis. D) exocytosis. E) hydrostatic pressure.

23)

The path that fluid takes as it enters a lymphatic capillary is through

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A) pores(fenestrations) in the cells of the capillary wall. B) cellmembraneleakage channels that allow diffusion. C) vesicles that movethe fluid across the cell (transcytosis). D) spaces between capillary endothelial cells that are arranged as one-way flaps. E) active transportprotein pumps on endothelial cell membranes.

24)

The lymphatic system's two main functions are to assist in A) immunity and fluidbalance. B) blood cellproduction and endocrine function. C) endocrine functionand neural support. D) neural support andblood sugar control. E) removal of fatsfrom the blood and inflammatory responses.

25) Lymph is transported through a network of increasingly larger lymphatic passageways. What is the correct order of these, from smallest diameter to largest diameter? A) Capillaries - ducts - trunks - vessels B) Ducts - capillaries - vessels - trunks C) Vessels - capillaries - trunks - ducts D) Ducts - vessels - capillaries - trunks E) Capillaries - vessels - trunks - ducts

26)

Lymphatic capillaries A) are open at bothends. B) are smaller indiameter than blood capillaries. C) are like continuouscapillaries in that they have many tight junctions. D) lack a basementmembrane. E) are abundant inepithelial tissues.

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27) Because lymphatic vessels have three tunics (intima, media, and externa) and valves, they structurally resemble A) veins. B) arterioles. C) capillaries. D) arteries.

28)

Fluid collected in lacteals will be carried in__________ trunks. A) bronchomediastinal B) lumbar C) intestinal D) thoracic

29)

Of the lymphatic trunks, which ones drain lymph from deep thoracic structures? A) Jugular trunks B) Subclavian trunks C) Bronchomediastinal trunks D) Intestinal trunks E) Lumbar trunks

30)

Subclavian trunks drain lymph from the A) deep thoracicstructures. B) head and neck. C) upper limbs,breasts, and superficial thorax. D) abdominopelvicwall.

31)

Which of the lymphatic trunks drain into the cisterna chyli?

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A) Intestinal trunks B) Lumbar trunks C) Intestinal trunks and lumbar trunks D) Subclavian trunks and jugular trunks E) Bronchomediastinal trunks and intestinal trunks

32)

Which is not drained by the right lymphatic duct? A) Right side ofabdomen B) Right side of thorax C) Right side of head and neck D) Right shoulder E) Right arm

33)

The thoracic duct collects lymph from all of the following except the A) abdomen. B) left leg. C) right arm. D) right foot. E) left shoulder.

34)

The thoracic duct and the right lymphatic duct empty lymph into the A) superior venacava. B) subclavianveins. C) inferior venacava. D) azygos vein. E) brachiocephalicveins.

35) Which would be the route taken by lymph traveling from lymphatic vessels in the right leg to the bloodstream?

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A) Right lumbar trunk - cisterna chyli - thoracic duct - right subclavian vein B) Right lumbar trunk - cisterna chyli - thoracic duct - left subclavian vein C) Right lumbar trunk - right intestinal trunk - right lymphatic duct - right subclavian vein D) Right femoral trunk - right lumbar trunk - right lymphatic duct - superior vena cava E) Right femoral trunk - cisterna chyli - thoracic duct - left subclavian vein

36) Although they are not a site of lymphocyte formation, _________ lymphoid structures provide sites where immune responses are initiated. A) hematopoietic B) primary C) red marrow D) secondary

37)

The term "primary lymphoid structure" applies A) only to red bonemarrow. B) to the spleen andlymph nodes. C) to the red bonemarrow and thymus. D) only to lymphnodes. E) to lymph nodes and MALT.

38)

Red marrow is found within A) the large cavitiescontained within the shafts of long bone. B) compact bonecanals. C) spaces withinspongy bone. D) all osseous tissueof the appendicular skeleton.

39)

Which of the following does not contain red marrow?

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A) Ribs B) Sternum C) Flat bones of theskull D) Vertebrae E) Long bones of digits

40)

Where do T-lymphocytes mature? A) Spleen B) White bone marrow C) Tonsils D) Thymus gland E) Thyroid gland

41)

B-lymphocytes are A) antibody-producing red blood cells. B) platelets that aregenerated in the thymus. C) white blood cellsthat are generated in red bone marrow. D) immune systemcells that are generated in the tonsils. E) blood cells found only in people withtype B blood.

42)

Which part of a thymic lobule contains mature lymphocytes? A) Cortex B) Medulla C) Capsule D) Trabecula

43)

The thymus contains ______ lobes and is located _______.

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A) 2; anterior to the laryngeal prominence (Adam's apple) B) 2; in the mediastinum C) 4; anterior to the laryngeal prominence (Adam's apple) D) 4; in the mediastinum

44)

The thymus is at its maximum size A) at birth. B) at puberty. C) between 30 and 50years of age. D) in old age.

45)

The thymus contains lymphoid cells as well as secretory _________ tissue. A) muscle B) neural C) epithelial D) osseous E) areolar

46)

Lymphoid organs A) contain acomplete capsule of dense irregular connective tissue. B) contain anincomplete capsule of dense irregular connective tissue. C) lack a connectivetissue capsule.

47)

MALT is found in which layer of the wall of a hollow organ?

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A) Epithelial B) Lamina propria C) Muscularisexterna D) Submucosa

48) for?

With respect to the lymphatic system, what do the letters in the acronym MALT stand

A) Membrane-adhering lymphoid T-cells B) Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue C) Multiple-antigen lymphocyte target D) Multiple-antibody lymphocyte test

49)

Which area does not contain MALT? A) Urinary tract B) Respiratory tract C) Genital tract D) Gastrointestinal tract E) No exceptions; all choices contain MALT

50)

Regions of MALT called Peyer patches are found in the A) urinarybladder. B) stomach. C) vagina. D) smallintestine. E) trachea.

51)

Another name for a lymphoid follicle is a

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A) lymphoid nodule. B) white pulp. C) lymph nodemedulla. D) thymic lobule.

52)

Lymphoid nodules consist of A) central arteriesand monocytes. B) lymphoid cells, extracellular matrix, and an incomplete connective tissue capsule. C) crypts,trabeculae, and Reed-Sternberg cells. D) afferent vessels,efferent vessels, a cortex, and medulla. E) a hilum that is located intermediate totwo lobules.

53)

Tonsils have multiple invaginated outer edges called _______ that help trap material. A) crypts B) trabeculae C) sinuses D) clefts E) fissures

54)

Which are not tonsils? A) Adenoids B) Palatine tonsils C) Pharyngeal tonsils D) Lingual tonsils E) Palatoglossal tonsils

55)

The main function of tonsils is to detect and protect against infections agents that are

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A) in the blood. B) in the lymph. C) ingested orinhaled. D) secreted bysalivary glands.

56)

The pharyngeal tonsil is located A) along theposterior margins of the tongue. B) in the posteriorwall of the nasopharynx. C) at the base of thepalatoglossal arches. D) in theposterolateral region of the oral cavity. E) lateral to theuvula in the oropharynx.

57) Lymph nodes may be found individually, or clustered in specific regions of the body. Which cluster of lymph nodes receives lymph from the head and neck? A) Inguinal lymph nodes B) Cervical lymph nodes C) Thoracic lymph nodes D) Axillary lymph nodes E) Abdominal lymph nodes

58) Which is NOT correct regarding lymph nodes? 3-14-2013 A) They contain strands of lymphoid cells supported by medullary cords. B) They are drained by efferent lymphatic vessels. C) They containmacrophages. D) They filterlymph. E) No exceptions; all are true of lymph nodes.

59)

Which is NOT correct regarding lymph nodes?

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A) They are coveredby a connective tissue capsule. B) They contain a network of sinuses. C) Each node has anouter cortex and inner medulla. D) Connective tissuebands called tendineae divide nodes. E) Lymphoid nodules produce lymphocytes.

60)

Lymph nodes A) filter lymph. B) contain a densenetwork of collagen fibers. C) serve as auxiliaryexchange surfaces for respiratory gases. D) produce red bloodcells. E) serve as the mainrecycling centers for red blood cells and their parts.

61) When women with breast cancer undergo surgery to remove the tumor or the entire breast, the axillary lymph nodes are often removed as well. Why? A) In removing thebreast, the blood supply to the nodes is removed and they will inevitably ceaseto function. B) The axillarylymph nodes receive lymph from the breast and may contain cancer cells. C) The nerves thatsupply the axillary lymph nodes are often cut during the breast surgery. D) It is impossibleto remove the breast without physically damaging the lymph nodes. E) With the removalof the breast, there is no further need for lymph drainage and filtering inthat part of the body.

62)

Typically, a hilum of a lymph node contains A) one afferent lymphatic vessel. B) one efferentlymphatic vessel. C) numerous afferentvessels. D) numerous efferentvessels.

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63)

The term "swollen glands" is usually meant to refer to lymph nodes in which A) the valves ofafferent vessels are bulging. B) macrophages areclogging afferent lymphatic vessels. C) lymphocytes areproliferating in germinal centers. D) phagocytes areconsuming the infected lymph nodes. E) macrophages are entering at thehilum.

64)

Which lymphoid organ contains red pulp and white pulp? A) Thymus gland and lymph nodes B) Spleen and lymph nodes C) Lymph nodes D) Spleen E) Thymus gland

65)

Which is not a function of the spleen? A) Serves as aplatelet reservoir B) Filters blood C) Filters lymph D) Recycles aged erythrocytes E) Houses lymphocytes

66)

In which abdominal quadrant is the spleen located? A) Left upper quadrant B) Right upper quadrant C) Left lower quadrant D) Right lower quadrant

67)

The hilum of the spleen is part of its

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A) concaveanteromedial border. B) concaveposterolateral border. C) convexanteromedial border. D) convexposterolateral border.

68)

Which is not correct regarding the spleen? A) It has an outercortex and inner medulla. B) It is dividedinto sections by capsular extensions called trabeculae. C) Its white pulpcontains T-lymphocytes, B-lymphocytes, and macrophages. D) Its blood issupplied by the splenic artery and drained by the splenic vein.

69) Within the red pulp of the spleen are enlarged capillaries called _________, which have a discontinuous basement membrane that allows blood cells to enter and exit easily. A) splenic cords B) trabecularvessels C) splenicvessels D) splenicsinusoids E) trabecularcords

70)

Which is not correct regarding the white pulp of the spleen? A) Its cells includeT-lymphocytes, B-lymphocytes, and macrophages. B) Its cells arearranged in clusters that are circular in shape. C) It containsa central artery. D) It serves as ablood reservoir.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 71) Migration of cancerous cells through the lymphatic system to other regions of the body is called ______________. Version 1

72) Structures that connect lymphatic capillary cells to surrounding tissue and prevent the capillaries from collapsing are called _________ filaments.

73)

Lymph from the head and neck is drained by the _________ trunks.

74)

The letter "T" within "T-lymphocytes" stands for the _________.

75) Fibrous extensions of the connective tissue capsule that surround thymic lobes are known as septa or ___________.

76) Obstruction of the flow of lymph in lymphatic vessels can lead to an accumulation of interstitial fluid in the tissues. This condition is characterized by pain and swelling, and is called ________________.

77) A lymphoid nodule contains a germinal center surrounded by a region containing Tlymphocytes, dendritic cells, and macrophages; this outer region is known as a ________ zone.

78) Old or defective erythrocytes and platelets are engulfed within the lymphoid organ known as the ________.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 79) What conditions would warrant removal of the spleen (splenectomy) or removal of the tonsils (tonsillectomy), and what prognosis or complications (if any) might result from these procedures?

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80) It has been suggested that the lymphatic system evolved when animals became larger and the hydrostatic pressure in their circulatory systems rose. Explain how this suggestion is consistent with the function of the lymphatics—how does high blood pressure make lymphatic function essential? Also, what other advantages were gained by animals that developed lymphatic systems?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 21_4e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE Epithelia do not contain blood vessels or lymphatic capillaries/vessels. 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) FALSE 18) C 19) B 20) D 21) B 22) E 23) D 24) A

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25) E 26) D 27) A 28) C 29) C 30) C 31) C 32) A 33) C 34) B 35) B 36) D 37) C 38) C 39) E 40) D 41) C 42) B 43) B 44) B 45) C 46) A 47) B 48) B 49) E 50) D 51) A 52) B 53) A 54) E Version 1

55) C 56) B 57) B 58) E 59) D 60) A 61) B 62) B 63) C 64) D 65) C 66) A 67) A 68) A 69) D 70) D 71) metastasis 72) anchoring 73) jugular 74) thymus 75) trabeculae 76) lymphedema 77) mantle 78) spleen 79) Spleens might be removed after rupture from abdominal trauma, and while this isn't life-threatening, there may be an increase in infection risk. Tonsillectomies are performed after chronic throat infections and do not seem to increase later risks of infection.

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80) Higher blood pressure results in more filtration at capillary beds, so much so that reabsorption by osmosis is inadequate to maintain plasma volume. Lymphatics' role in fluid balance would be consistent with the hypothesized initial adaptation. The other main advantage of the slowflowing lymphatic system is immune surveillance against pathogenic microorganisms. Like airport security lines, the slow screening prevents harmful agents from having widespread effects.

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CHAPTER 22 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Most bacterial species are pathogenic. ⊚ ⊚

Protozoans are obligate intracellular parasites. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The microglia of the brain are macrophages. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Eosinophils and lymphocytes are both types of leukocytes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Cytokines are agents that affect neighboring cells without triggering systemic effects. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) In addition to creating a physical barrier to pathogen entry, mucus contains antimicrobial substances such as IgA. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) Complement facilitates inflammation by activating basophils and mast cells and byattracting macrophages and neutrophils.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

8) The inflammatory response includes a decrease in the permeability of capillaries to prevent excessive blood lossafter injury. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Exudate formation delivers substances to eliminate injurious agents, and the resulting increase in interstitial hydrostatic pressure leads to increased fluid uptake by lymphatic capillaries. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Compared to most interstitial fluid in the body, the interstitial fluid of aninflamed area would have a lower osmolarity and a lower concentration of proteins. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

High fevers can lead to protein denaturation and raise the likelihood of seizures. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) Sustained fevers that are 1° C above normal core body temperature usuallylead to irreversible brain damage. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

Metals and plastics of artificial implantsgenerally have high immunogenicity.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

14) B-lymphocytes cannot bind directly with an antigen, and so require presentation by another type of cell. ⊚ ⊚

15)

Erythrocytes are antigen-presenting cells. ⊚ ⊚

16)

true false

Dendritic cells serve as antigen-presenting cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) MHC class II molecules are loaded with exogenous antigen after the antigen has been digested into fragments within a phagolysosome. ⊚ true ⊚ false

18)

Negative selection is the process by which cells learn self-tolerance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

19) The second signal during cytotoxic T-lymphocyte activation involves interactions between receptors other than CD8 (on the lymphocytes) and MHC-I (on the APC). ⊚ true ⊚ false

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20) Helper T-lymphocyte activation involves MHC class I, whereas cytotoxic T-lymphocyte activation involves MHC class II. ⊚ ⊚

true false

21) One function of helper T-lymphocytes is to enhance the activity of cells of the innate immune system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

22) Over their life span, plasma cells produce hundreds of millions of antibodies against one specific antigen. ⊚ ⊚

true false

23) The constant region of the five classes of immunoglobulins are the same, and their names depend on their variable regions. ⊚ ⊚

24)

The Fc region of some antibodies can trigger the activity of NK cells. ⊚ ⊚

25)

true false

Some antibodies cross the placenta. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

26) Elevated antibody production during a primary response generally lasts for months or years, whereas antibody production in secondary responses decreases to baseline levelgenerally within a couple of weeks. ⊚ ⊚

27)

Active immunity is a natural process, whereas passive immunity is generated artificially. ⊚ ⊚

28)

true false

In passive immunity, the individual has not had an antigenic challenge. ⊚ ⊚

29)

true false

Helper T-lymphocytes primarily contain the CD8 coreceptor. ⊚ ⊚

true false

30) “Booster” shots are required following certain vaccinations because the memory Blymphocytes produced in response to the initial vaccination don’t survive indefinitely. ⊚ ⊚

31)

One of the goals of an inflammatory response is to prevent the spread of an infection. ⊚ ⊚

32)

true false

After maturation, T lymphocytes tend to remain in the same lymphoid structure for life. ⊚ ⊚

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true false 5

33) The cell-mediated branch of the immune system is called such because it interacts with antigens associated with cells. ⊚ ⊚

34)

true false

Both active and passive immunity can be acquired though natural or artificial means. ⊚ ⊚

true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 35) Select all that occur as a result of inflammation. A) Destruction of pathogens B) Remove cellular debris C) Allow for tissue repair D) Limiting the spread of an infectious agent

36) If a pathogen penetrates the first line of defense, what nonspecific internal defenses (as part of the second line of defense) will it possibly encounter? Select all that apply. A) An inflammatory response B) Neutrophils C) T-lymphocytes D) B-lymphocytes

37) Which of the following are examples of nonspecific internal defenses (as part of the second line of defense)? Select all that apply.

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A) Fever B) NK cells C) Basophils D) Plasma cells

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 38) A virus is______ than a bacterial cell, and a virus is composedof _________. A) larger;nucleic acid within a protein capsid. B) larger; a eukaryotic cell with a cell wall. C) smaller;nucleic acid within a protein capsid. D) smaller; a eukaryotic cell with a cell wall.

39)

Malaria is a disease caused by a A) multicellularparasite. B) protozoan. C) fungus. D) virus. E) bacterium.

40)

Fungi are A) eukaryotic cellswith a cell wall. B) prokaryoticcells. C) multicellularparasites that reside within a host. D) protozoans lackinga cell wall. E) viruses that arefragments of infectious proteins.

41)

"Mad cow disease" (variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease) is caused by a

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A) fungus. B) protozoan. C) prion. D) virus. E) bacterium.

42)

Consuming meat that has been infected with a prion can lead to the disease A) trichomoniasis. B) bovine spongiformencephalopathy. C) clostridiumtetani. D) histoplasmosis.

43)

Dendritic cells of the skin are derived from A) macrophages. B) B-lymphocytes. C) T-lymphocytes. D) monocytes. E) neutrophils.

44) Which cells resemble basophils and are found in connective tissue, close to small blood vessels? A) Dendriticcells B) Mast cells C) NK cells D) Alveolarmacrophages E) Cytokines

45) In terms of their chemical structure, cytokines are _______; their function is to serve as _________.

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A) proteins; chemical messengers B) proteins; receptors C) steroids; chemical messengers. D) steroids; receptors.

46)

Cytokines have a _____ half-life and exert influence on ________________. A) long; immune cells only. B) long; immune and non-immune cells. C) short; immune cells only. D) short; immune and non-immune cells.

47)

When a chemical messenger has a short half-life, it means that A) it will not have anextremely prolonged effecton target cells. B) it will not beeliminated quickly from the blood.

48)

Interferons are one of theclasses of A) interleukins. B) cytokines. C) colony-stimulating factors. D) tumor necrosisfactors.

49) Which class of chemical messenger facilitates white blood cell formation in bone marrow? A) Interleukins B) Colony-stimulatingfactors C) Tumor necrosisfactors D) Interferons

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50)

A delayed response to a specific antigen is provided by A) adaptiveimmunity. B) innateimmunity. C) inflammation.

51)

Nonspecific immunity is another name for A) adaptive immunity. B) innateimmunity. C) cell-mediatedimmunity. D) acquired immunity.

52) Defensins and lysosomes are both part of ________ immunityand function as ___________. A) adaptive; physical barriers to pathogen entry B) adaptive; attackers of pathogenic cells C) innate; physical barriers to pathogen entry D) innate; attackers of pathogenic cells

53)

Which of the following lists the body's first, second, and third lines of defense in order? A) Adaptive immunity,external innate immunity, internal immunity B) External innateimmunity, internal innate immunity, adaptive immunity C) External innateimmunity, adaptive immunity, internal innate immunity D) External adaptiveimmunity, internal adaptive immunity, innate immunity E) Innate immunity, internal adaptiveimmunity, internal innate immunity

54) If someone had a cut in their skin through which a bacterium entered, but that bacterium was then destroyed by a neutrophil, this would be an example of

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A) failedexternaladaptive immunity, but successful innate immunity. B) failed innateimmunity, but successful adaptive immunity. C) failed externalinnate immunity, but successful internal innate immunity. D) failed externalimmunity, but successful internal acquired immunity.

55) Which type of cell is the most effective to attack multicellular parasites such as tapeworms? A) Basophils B) Eosinophils C) Macrophages D) Neutrophils

56) Which type of cell attacks a variety of unwanted cells and causes those cells to undergo apoptosis? A) Natural killercells B) Basophils C) Neutrophils D) Eosinophils E) Macrophages

57)

Often a virus-infected cell will release _________ to prevent spread of the infection. A) histamine B) complement C) interferon D) perforin E) serotonin

58)

Which is not an action of interferon?

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A) It stimulatesmacrophages and NK cells to destroy virus-infected cells. B) It triggerssynthesis of enzymes that destroy viral nucleic acids. C) It signals theimmune system that the secreting cell is part of the body and so should not beattacked. D) It binds toreceptors of neighboring cells preventing them from being infected.

59)

"Complement" refers to a group of A) white bloodcells. B) antibodies. C) plasmaproteins. D) molecules on thesurface of pathogenic microbes.

60)

In the classical pathway of complement activation, A) complement isactivated within liver cells and released into the blood. B) complement bindsto an antibody that is bound to a foreign substance. C) complement bindswith polysaccharides on a microbial cell wall. D) complementinhibits inflammation and binds to opsonins.

61)

A membrane attack complex is a protein grouping that A) triggersphagocytosis of a target cell by a nearby macrophage or neutrophil. B) forms a channel inthe target cell membranethat causes cytolysis. C) links a pathogento a red blood cell so that it is carried to the liver or spleen. D) stimulatesbasophils to attack a multicellular parasite in the body.

62)

Inflammation is a(n)

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A) antigen-specific process that occurs in avascular tissue. B) antigen-specific process that occurs in vascularized tissue. C) nonspecific processthat occurs in avascular tissue. D) nonspecific processthat occurs in vascularized tissue.

63)

Chemotaxis is the process by which

A) CAMs on leukocytesadhere to CAMs on endothelial cells of capillaries within injured tissues. B) cells migratealong chemical gradients. C) cells exit theblood by squeezing out between cells in the blood vessel wall. D) chemical messengers are secreted that stimulate the sensation of pain thataccompanies inflammation.

64)

Exudate is

A) blood that escapescapillaries, passes beyond the skin and leaves the body. B) increasedperfusion of capillary beds within the region of an injury. C) lymph that flowsaway from the heart and toward the site of an injury. D) fluid that leavescapillaries to "wash" the interstitial space of an injured tissue. E) clotting proteins that wall offmicrobes and prevent them from spreading through the bloodstream.

65)

Which is not one of the cardinal signs of inflammation? A) Heat B) Redness C) Loss of function D) Numbness E) Swelling

66)

Inflamed tissue feels warm due to

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A) increased bloodflow and increased metabolic activity. B) the margination ofwhite blood cells. C) chemotaxis anddefervescence. D) activation ofcomplement by binding of C-reactive protein to bacterial carbohydrates.

67)

Interleukin 1 and interferons act as A) defervescents andtrigger an elevation of body temperature. B) defervescents andtrigger a decrease of body temperature. C) pyrogens andtrigger an elevation of body temperature. D) pyrogens andtrigger a decreaseof body temperature.

68)

Pyrogens act on the __________ of the brain where they cause release of ________. A) hippocampus; PGE2 B) hippocampus; exudate C) hypothalamus; PGE2 D) hypothalamus; exudate

69) A fever __________ reproduction of bacteria and ___________ CAMs on the endothelium of capillaries of lymph nodes. A) stimulates; increases B) stimulates; decreases C) inhibits; increases D) inhibits; decreases

70)

Antigens are

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A) something made bya white blood cell to destroy a pathogen. B) something that anantibody or T-lymphocyte binds to. C) disordersinvolving overactive immune systems. D) membrane receptorson B-lymphocytes.

71)

Which type of antigen would have the greatest immunogenicity? A) One that is small, simple, familiar, and abundant B) One that is small but complex and rare C) One that is large, complex, foreign, and abundant D) One that is large but simple and familiar

72)

Poison ivy contains a toxin that acts as a hapten by A) raising the body'ssensitivity to a wide variety of chemicals such as penicillin. B) cutting plasmaprotein antibodies in half. C) preventingeffective immune responses by blocking release of bradykinin. D) combining with abody protein and then triggering an immune response.

73)

Helper T-lymphocytes are also known as A) cytotoxicT-lymphocytes. B) CD8 + cells. C) CD4 +cells. D) T8 cells. E) memoryT-lymphocytes.

74) Which type of lymphocyte has coreceptors that assist in the interaction of the lymphocyte with a cell presenting antigen?

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A) T-lymphocyte B) B-lymphocyte

75)

Antigen presentation involves the display of an antigen A) inside thecytoplasm of a B-lymphocyte. B) on the surface ofa cell so that a B-lymphocyte can be exposed toit. C) inside thecytoplasm of a T-lymphocyte. D) on the surface ofa cell so that a T-lymphocyte can be exposed toit.

76) Antigen-presenting cells are ________________, andthey display antigens to both ________________ and ______________. A) immune cells; B-lymphocytes; T-lymphocytes B) immune cells; helper T-lymphocytes; cytotoxic T-lymphocytes C) any nucleated cell; B-lymphocytes; T-lymphocytes D) any anucleate cell; helper T-lymphocytes; cytotoxic T-lymphocytes E) any blood cell; helper B-lymphocytes; cytotoxic B-lymphocytes

77)

Which class of major histocompatibility molecules is specific to antigen-presenting cells? A) MHC class I B) MHC class II

78)

MHC class I molecules are A) glycolipidsynthesized on the smooth endoplasmic reticulum. B) glycoproteinssynthesized on the rough endoplasmic reticulum. C) small peptides synthesized on free ribosomes. D) phospholipidssynthesized in secretory vesicles.

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79) MHC class I molecules present peptide fragments that are either "self" or"nonself"; in either case, the fragment becomesbound to the molecule while A) in the Golgiapparatus. B) in thecytosol. C) in a secretoryvesicle. D) in the roughendoplasmic reticulum.

80)

MHC class I molecules on a cell allow it to interact with A) macrophages and dendritic cells. B) cytotoxicT-lymphocytes. C) helperT-lymphocytes. D) CD8 +B-lymphocytes.

81)

Activation of lymphocytes occurs in A) primary lymphoid structures. B) secondary lymphoid structures. C) tertiary lymphoid structures. D) effectors such asmuscles and glands.

82)

The site of infection is the location at which lymphocytes A) are formed. B) provide aneffector response. C) are activated. D) become able torecognize one specific foreign antigen.

83)

When they leave the red marrow, pre-T-lymphocytes have

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A) only the CD4protein. B) only the CD8protein. C) both the CD4 andCD8 proteins. D) neither the CD4nor CD8 protein. E) either the CD4 or CD8 protein.

84)

In positive selection of T-lymphocytes, those cells that A) bind self antigensare eliminated. B) can bind MHCsurvive. C) bind to selfantigens survive. D) bind to MHC class II are eliminated.

85) If T-lymphocytes that failed the negative selection test were not destroyed, the immune system would likely A) cause autoimmunedisorders. B) exhibit verydelayedactivity. C) be unable torecognize a particular class of pathogen. D) exhibit morenegative membrane potentials.

86)

As T-lymphocytes leave the thymus, they are A) naive and not yetcompetent. B) naive andimmunocompetent. C) activated but notyet competent. D) activated andimmunocompetent.

87)

The first signal during helper T-lymphocyte activation involves

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A) BCR of the helperT-cell binding with free antigen and engulfing it. B) CD8 of the helperT-cell binding with MHC class III of the antigen-presenting cell. C) CD4 of the helperT-cell binding with MHC class I part of the antigen fragment. D) CD4 of the helperT-cell binding with MHC class II of the antigen-presenting cell.

88)

Upon activation,a T-lymphocyte A) ceases dividingand becomes a plasma cell. B) ceases dividingand becomes a memory cytotoxic helper cell. C) proliferates toform clones and memory cells. D) proliferates toform B cells and plasma cells.

89)

The second signal during B-lymphocyte activation involves stimulation from A) IL-2 released bycytotoxic T-lymphocytes. B) IL-4 released byhelper T-lymphocytes. C) bradykinin released by antigen-presenting cells. D) antibodiesreleased by antigens.

90)

Most activated B-lymphocytes differentiate into A) memory helperT-lymphocytes. B) macrophages. C) plasma cells. D) antigen-presenting cells.

91)

Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes destroy infected cells by releasing A) antibodies. B) bradykinin andhistamine. C) perforin andgranzymes. D) CD4 +.

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92)

Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes destroy infected cells by A) increasing thepermeability of infected cells and inducing apoptosis. B) increasing thepermeability of infected cells and preventing apoptosis. C) decreasing thepermeability of infected cells and inducing apoptosis. D) decreasing thepermeability of infected cells and preventing apoptosis.

93)

Why are functions of T-lymphocytes referred to as "cell-mediated" immunity? A) BecauseT-lymphocytes are cells and not just plasma proteins B) BecauseT-lymphocytes work against antigens associated with cells C) BecauseT-lymphocytes work only against single-celled infectious agents D) Because T-lymphocytes must activateother classes of cells in order to have any

effect

94)

What are considered the effectors of antibody-mediated immunity? A) HelperT-lymphocytes B) CytotoxicT-lymphocytes C) Antibodies D) Macrophages E) Natural killer cells

95) Plasma cells have a life span of about _________, which is mainly spent in the _________. A) 5 days; blood B) 5 days; lymph nodes C) 130 days; blood D) 130 days; lymph nodes

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96)

An immunoglobulin is a(n) A) antibody, which isa white blood cell. B) antibody, which isa protein molecule. C) lymphocyte, whichis a white blood cell. D) lymphocyte, whichis a protein molecule. E) antigen, which isa cell receptor.

97)

Which part of an antibody attaches to an antigen? A) The hingeregion B) The constantregion C) The heavychain D) The variableregion

98) The clumping of foreign cells that occurs when antibodies cross-link their antigens is known as A) agglutination. B) neutralization. C) precipitation. D) opsonization. E) fixation.

99)

Opsonization involves

A) cross-linkingseveral antigens together so that they are no longer soluble, and it isfacilitated by the Fc region of the antibody. B) marking a target for phagocytosis, and it is facilitated by interaction of the Fc region of the antibody with a phagocyte. C) activation of NK cells, and it is a function of the antigen-binding site of the antibody. D) fixation ofantibodies in the IgG and IgM classes, and it involves the antigen-binding siteof the antibody.

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100)

What are the five main classes of immunoglobulins found in humans? A) IgA, IgC, IgE, IgG, IgI B) IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM, IgS C) IgB, IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM D) IgA, IgB, IgC, IgD, IgE E) IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM

101)

The most prevalent antibody in blood and lymph is A) IgA. B) IgC. C) IgD. D) IgE. E) IgG.

102) Which type of antibody is formed in response to parasitic infections and allergies, and has the effect of activating mast cells and basophils? A) IgA B) IgB C) IgD D) IgE E) IgG

103)

IgA is primarily found A) in blood. B) in externalsecretions such as tears, saliva, and mucus. C) in lymph. D) on the surface ofB-lymphocytes. E) in the thymus,spleen, and lymph nodes.

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104)

Agglutination of mismatched blood is a function of A) IgD, which is adimer. B) IgD, which is apentamer. C) IgM, which is adimer. D) IgM, which is apentamer.

105)

The secondary response of the immune system to an infectious agent involves

A) fewer cells thanthe antigen challenge, as the response has become more specific. B) more cells thanthe antigen challenge, due to the proliferation of memory cells. C) amnesia of pastexposures, so that a perfectly adapted response can be generated to the newpathogen.

106)

Vaccines are effective because they A) immediatelystimulate cellular immunity to eliminate all of the pathogen in the body. B) inhibit antibodiesfrom having secondary responses. C) stimulate the development of immunologic memory. D) increase thenumber of natural killer cells while decreasing the numbers of T and

Bcells.

107) A secondary response to an infectious agent has a _______ latent phase than a primary response has. A) longer B) shorter

108)

When compared to a primary response, the antibody levels in a secondary response

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A) rise more rapidlyand with a greater proportion of IgG antibodies. B) rise more rapidlyand with a smaller proportion of IgG antibodies. C) rise moregradually and with a greater proportion of IgG antibodies. D) rise moregradually and with a smaller proportion of IgG antibodies.

109)

The immunity that occurs as a result of a vaccination is _________ immunity. A) active B) passive

110)

Immunity can be transferredfrom mother to child. When the child'simmunity is acquired

A) through the placenta, it is passive immunity, but through breastmilk it is active immunity. B) through the placenta or through breastmilk, it is passive immunity. C) through the placenta or through breastmilk, it is active immunity. D) through the placenta, it is active immunity, but through the breastmilk it is passive immunity.

111)

Active immunity requires A) the transfer ofantibodies from another individual. B) direct encounterwith the antigen. C) that an active virus be used in a vaccine. D) that all immuneresponses to the pathogen result in symptoms of illness.

112)

Passive immunity lasts

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A) from days toweeks, and involves development of memory cells. B) from days toweeks, and does not involve development of memory cells. C) from years to alifetime, and involves the development of memory cells. D) from years to alifetime, and does not involve development of memory cells.

113)

The function of helper T-lymphocytes is to A) initiate andoversee the immune response. B) turn off the immuneresponse once it has been activated. C) secrete toxins tokill or disable pathogens. D) trigger cell deathby disrupting metabolic activities. E) All choices arecorrect.

114) Once a helper T-lymphocyte recognizes an antigen, it begins the immune response by secreting chemical signals called A) antibodies. B) immunoglobulins. C) memoryB-lymphocytes. D) memoryT-lymphocytes. E) cytokines.

115) A variety of lymphoid cells are involved in the immune response. Which is not part of the process? A) Production of antibodies B) Direct attack and destruction of foreign or abnormal agents C) Replication of antigens D) Formation of memory cells

116)

Which type of cell responds to multiple antigens?

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A) Memory B-lymphocyte B) Memory T-lymphocyte C) Natural killer cell D) Plasma cell E) Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte

117)

Which type of cell produces and secretes antibodies? A) Memory B-lymphocyte B) Memory T-lymphocyte C) Natural killer cell D) Plasma cell E) Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte

118)

Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes that have killed a foreign cell may transform into A) memoryB-lymphocytes. B) natural killercells. C) plasma cells. D) helperT-lymphocytes. E) None of the choices is correct.

119)

Which cell type is targeted by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? A) CytotoxicT-lymphocyte B) Memory B-lymphocyte C) Helper T-lymphocyte D) Natural killer cell E) Plasma cell

120)

The primary goal of the immune response is

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A) destruction orinactivation of pathogens and foreign material. B) maintenance of theproper ionic balance between lymph and blood. C) stimulation ofmitotic activity in order to replace cells damaged by infection. D) reduction of thenumber of circulating memory lymphocytes. E) removal of antibodies from lymph and lymphoid organs.

121)

Activation of a CD4+ cell requires an APC to present antigen with A) MHC class II protein. B) MHC class I protein. C) CD8 protein. D) a B cell receptor.

122) An individual gets a snake bite and goes to the hospital to receive antibodies against the venom. This individual is acquiring A) passive immunity. B) active immunity.

123)

Regulatory T-lymphocytes (Tregs) A) bind moderately to self antigen during negative selection. B) release cytokines that enhance the activity of helper and cytotoxic T-lymphocytes. C) remain in the thymus after development. D) All of the choices are correct.

124)

If a person is deficient in regulatory T-lymphocytes (Tregs), they are more likely to

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A) develop an autoimmune disorder, where immune cells recognize self-antigen as foreign. B) have a suppressed immune system, making them vulnerable to opportunistic infections. C) have impaired physical and chemical barriers to infection. D) All of the choices are correct.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 125) Small fragments of infectious proteins that cause disease in nervous tissue are known as ________.

126) Acquired immunity is a system in which lymphocytes respond to particular antigens they encounter during a lifetime. Another name for acquired immunity is _________ immunity.

127) One way in which complement defends against bacteria is by binding to it and facilitating phagocytosis. This process is known as _____________.

128) Proteins known as _______ are produced by a variety of cells; they increase capillary permeability, increaseCAM production in the endothelium, and stimulate pain receptors.

129) When part of the immune system recognizes and binds to a foreign molecule, the part of the molecule to which binding occursis called the epitope or _________ determinant.

130) Lymphocytes that are able to bind and respond to antigen are said to be _______________.

131) The concentration of a particular antibody within the blood is referred to as the antibody ________.

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132) When an antibody covers the region of a virus that the virus uses to bind to a cell receptor, that covering functionis known as ____________.

133) If a substance is not immunogenicby itself, but initiates an immune reaction when combined with a protein in the body, that substance is called a ______.

134) The display of an antigen on the surface of a cell's plasma membrane surface is called (2 words) ______ ______.

135) During development, T lymphocytes are tested to make sure they react to antigen. In other words, they are tested to see if they are ________.

136) Lymphocytes don't stay in one lymphoid structure for long, which ensures better chances of meeting their antigen. This process of lymphocytes re-entering the blood and lymph to circulate every few days is called lymphocyte _______.

137)

Antibody concentration is termed antibody _____.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 138) Describe the structure of an antibody. What type of molecule is it? What is its shape, how many parts does it have, and how do the parts differ?

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ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 139) Some biologists have criticized the traditional analogy of the immune system to an army, arguing that it is unnecessarily militaristic. They have proposed other analogies that compare immune functioning to gardening or housekeeping. Develop one of these or create your own analogy for immune function and describe the roles of helper T-lymphocytes, cytotoxic Tlymphocytes, and B-lymphocytes using language that fits your metaphor.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 22_4e 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) FALSE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) FALSE 21) TRUE 22) TRUE 23) FALSE 24) TRUE 25) TRUE 26) FALSE Version 1

27) FALSE 28) TRUE 29) FALSE 30) TRUE 31) TRUE 32) FALSE T lymphocytes enter the blood and circulate to different lymphoid structures every few days to enhance their chances of encountering antigen. This is called lymphocyte recirculation. 33) TRUE 34) TRUE 35) [A, B, C, D] 36) [A, B] 37) [A, B, C] 38) C 39) B 40) A 41) C 42) B 43) D 44) B 45) A 46) D 47) A 48) B 49) B 50) A 51) B 52) D 53) B Version 1

54) C 55) B 56) A 57) C 58) C 59) C 60) B 61) B 62) D 63) B 64) D 65) D 66) A 67) C 68) C 69) C 70) B 71) C 72) D 73) C 74) A 75) D 76) B 77) B 78) B 79) D 80) B 81) B 82) B 83) D Version 1

84) B 85) A 86) B 87) D 88) C 89) B 90) C 91) C 92) A 93) B 94) C 95) B 96) B 97) D 98) A 99) B 100) E 101) E 102) D 103) B 104) D 105) B 106) C 107) B 108) A 109) A 110) B 111) B 112) B 113) A Version 1

114) E 115) C 116) C 117) D 118) E 119) C 120) A 121) A 122) A 123) A 124) A 125) prions 126) adaptive 127) opsonization 128) kinins 129) antigenic 130) immunocompetent 131) titer 132) neutralization 133) hapten 134) antigen presentation. 135) immunocompetent 136) recirculation 137) titer 138) Antibodies are Y-shaped proteins made of four subunits. It has two heavy chains and two light chains. Its two variable regions are the branches or arms and they attach to the antigen.

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139) Many answers are possible. Helper T-lymphocytes could be considered as craftsmen who start and oversee a job (e.g., a sculpture). They help activate cytotoxic T-lymphocytes with IL-2. Cytotoxic T-cells are as apprentices who do important aspectsof the work of the project (e.g., chisel off infected cells). The B-lymphocytes could be considered as a large assortment of tools for different jobs (e.g., chisels, hammers). When helper cells help activate them with IL-4 (e.g., sharpen them), they start to become ready for use. An individual antibody is the right tool (e.g., right size & sharpnesschisel) for a specific job.

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CHAPTER 23 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The depth and rate of respiration influence blood levels of hydrogen ion. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) The epithelial lining of theoropharynx and the superior larynx(vocal cords) is nonkeratinized stratified squamous. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) In general, respiratory zone structures are lined with a thicker mucosa than conducting zone structures. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Mucous secretions of the respiratory tractinclude antimicrobial substances such as lysozyme and defensins. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Another name for the nasal septum is the turbinate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Olfactory receptors located in the superior region of the nasal cavity are stimulated when airborne molecules are inhaled and dissolved in the mucous covering. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Bronchoconstriction results from relaxation of smooth muscle in the walls of airways. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The bronchial circulation is a component of the pulmonary circulation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) The chest wall is anatomically configured to contract inwardly, so that when the thorax is opened surgically its walls collapse. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) The phrenic and intercostal nerves are made up primarily of autonomic nerves for smooth muscle control. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

Histamine release results in increased airway resistance and decreased airflow. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) If all else remains equal, an increase in the difference between atmospheric and alveolar pressure results in an increase in airflow. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

Inspiratory capacity is greater than inspiratory reserve volume. ⊚ ⊚

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true false 2

14) When a partial pressure gradient exists for a gas, it will move from the area of its lower partial pressure to the area of higher partial pressure. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) From moment to moment, the oxygen partial pressure gradient between systemic capillary blood and systemic cellsswitches: one moment it favors diffusion toward the blood and the next moment it favors diffusion toward the cells. ⊚ ⊚

16)

Most carbon dioxide is transported through the blood as bicarbonate dissolved in plasma. ⊚ ⊚

17)

true false

Hyperventilation leads to hypercapnia. ⊚ true ⊚ false

18) The main stimulus that drives increased breathing during exercise is a drop in blood levels of oxygen. ⊚ ⊚

true false

19) The left primary bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertically oriented than the right primary bronchus. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

20)

Depression of the ribs increases the lateral dimensions of the thoracic cavity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

21) Consistent with Boyle’s law, air flows from a region of lower pressure (the atmosphere) into a region of higher pressure within the lungs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

22) The pulmonary plexus is a weblike network of nerve fibers that surrounds the primary bronchi and enters the lungs at the hilum. It consists of both sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

23) Prematurely born infants sometimes experience respiratory distress due to inadequate production of surfactant. ⊚ ⊚

true false

24) As the thoracic cavity (and therefore the lungs) increase in size, the pressure inside increases proportionally. ⊚ ⊚

true false

25) During tissue gas exchange, oxygen diffuses from the blood into the tissues and carbon dioxide diffuses from the tissues into the blood. ⊚ ⊚

26)

true false

Breathing rate affects venous return of blood and lymph.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 27) Select all that can bind to the globin portion of hemoglobin. A) Oxygen B) Carbon dioxide C) H + D) Bicarbonate

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 28) Which is not part of the conducting portion of the respiratory system? A) Alveoli B) Trachea C) Larynx D) Nasal cavity E) Bronchi

29)

Which is not a function of the respiratory system? A) Sound reception B) Gas exchange C) Odor detection D) Air passage

30) The terms "upper respiratory system" and "lower respiratory system" are ___________ categorizations of the respiratory system.

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A) structural B) functional C) outdated

31)

Which region(s) of the pharynx is lined by pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium? A) Oropharynx B) Nasopharynx C) Laryngopharynx D) Oropharynx and nasopharynx E) Oropharynx, nasopharynx, and laryngopharynx

32)

Terminal bronchioles of the lower respiratory tract are lined with A) keratinizedstratified squamous epithelium. B) simple cuboidalepithelium. C) pseudostratifiedciliated columnar epithelium. D) stratified columnarepithelium. E) nonkeratinizedstratified squamous.

33)

Exposure to irritants causes mucus production to A) increase. B) decrease.

34)

Mucin _______ the viscosity of mucus, facilitating the ______ of dust and dirt particles. A) increases; trapping B) decreases; flushing C) increases; diluting D) decreases; exocytosis

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35) Several things happen to inhaled air in a process called conditioning. Select the exception. A) The air iscooled. B) The air ishumidified. C) The air iscleansed. D) The air ismoistened. E) The air becomesturbulent.

36)

The nose contains a single septal cartilage. How many alar cartilages are in the nose? A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four

37) The region of the nasal cavity immediately internal to the nostrils is the _________; it contains coarse guard hairs. A) choanae B) olfactoryregion C) vestibule D) respiratoryregion E) nasopharynx

38)

An air passage (valley) beneath a turbinate within the nasal cavity is referred to as a A) vestibule. B) concha. C) vibrissa. D) meatus.

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39)

Which bone does not contain a paranasal sinus? A) Sphenoid bone B) Frontal bone C) Ethmoid bone D) Mandible E) Maxilla

40)

What structures are used by both the respiratory and digestive systems? A) Oropharynx andlaryngopharynx B) Laryngopharynx andlarynx C) Nasal cavity andnasopharynx D) Paranasal sinuses E) Laryngopharynx andesophagus

41)

Which statement is false regarding the oropharynx? A) It houses thepaired palatine tonsils. B) It is locatedposterior to the oral cavity. C) It houses thelingual tonsils. D) It houses thepharyngeal tonsil. E) It extends fromthe soft palate to the level of the hyoid bone.

42)

Into what region of the pharynx do auditory tubes open? A) Oropharynx B) Nasopharynx C) Laryngopharynx

43)

Food is normally prevented from entering the nasopharynx by the

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A) elevation of theepiglottis. B) elevation of thesoft palate. C) depression of thehard palate. D) closure of thenasal conchae. E) constriction ofthe esophagus.

44)

What structure is also known as the "voice box"? A) Larynx B) Pharynx C) Esophagus D) Bronchus E) Trachea

45)

What connects the pharynx to the trachea? A) Esophagus B) Bronchi C) Alveolar ducts D) Larynx E) Nasal cavity

46) What structure prevents food and drink from entering the trachea, conducts air, and produces sound? A) Esophagus B) Bronchi C) Pharynx D) Nasal cavity E) Larynx

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47)

The larynx is supported by nine pieces of cartilage. Which cartilages occur in pairs? A) Thyroid and corniculate B) Corniculate andcricoid C) Cricoid, corniculate, and arytenoid D) Corniculate, cuneiform, and arytenoid E) Arytenoid andepiglottis

48)

The malevoice tends to be in a lower range than a female's voice because men have A) more tautvestibular folds. B) more air to pushthrough the rima glottidis. C) wider arytenoidcartilages. D) shorter and fattervestibular ligaments. E) longer and thickervocal folds.

49) Pitch refers to the ________ of sound waves; pitch is determined by the tension produced by ________ laryngeal muscles. A) frequency; intrinsic B) frequency; extrinsic C) loudness; intrinsic D) loudness; extrinsic

50)

What structure connects the larynx to the primary bronchi? A) Trachea B) Pharynx C) Esophagus D) Bronchioles E) Alveolar ducts

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51)

Tracheal cartilages provide for _______ on the ________ aspect of the trachea. A) flexibility; anterior B) flexibility; posterior C) rigidity; anterior D) rigidity; posterior

52)

What prevents the trachea from collapsing? A) The internal air pressure within the trachea B) The surrounding muscles C) The internal epithelium D) The C-shaped cartilaginous rings

53)

Which statement is true regarding the location of the trachea?

A) It lies superiorto the esophagus, inferior to the larynx, and superior to the primary bronchiof the lungs. B) It lies posteriorto the esophagus, inferior to the larynx, and superior to the primary bronchiof the lungs. C) It lies anteriorto the esophagus, inferior to the larynx, and inferior to the primary bronchiof the lungs. D) It lies anteriorto the esophagus, inferior to the larynx, and superior to the primary bronchiof the lungs. E) It lies superiorto the esophagus, superior to the larynx, and superior to the primary bronchiof the lungs.

54)

What type of tissue lines the trachea?

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A) Cuboidal epithelium B) Simple squamous epithelium C) Stratified squamous keratinized epithelium D) Stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium E) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

55)

Foreign particles A) are more likely tolodge in the right primary bronchus. B) are more likely tolodge in the left primary bronchus. C) lodge equallyoftenin each of the two primary bronchi.

56)

Which statement is true regarding secondary bronchi?

A) The right lung hastwo secondary bronchi and the left lung has three secondary bronchi. B) The left lung hastwo secondary bronchi and the right lung has three secondary bronchi. C) Each lung has twosecondary bronchi. D) Each lung has threesecondary bronchi. E) Each lung has foursecondary bronchi.

57)

Which do not belong to the respiratory zone of the respiratory system? A) Respiratory bronchioles B) Alveolar ducts C) Terminal bronchioles D) Pulmonary alveoli E) Alveolar sacs

58)

Alveoli abut each other, causing them to appear _________ in cross section.

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A) enlarged B) polygonal C) stratified D) circular E) columnar

59)

The most commoncell making up the alveolar wall is the A) alveolar type IIcell. B) alveolar type Icell. C) alveolarmacrophage. D) dust cell. E) septal cell.

60)

The alveolar cell that secretes pulmonary surfactant is the A) alveolar type IIcell. B) alveolar type Icell. C) alveolarmacrophage. D) dust cell. E) squamous alveolarcell.

61)

Phagocytic cells of the alveolus are the A) alveolar type IIcells. B) alveolar type Icells. C) alveolarmacrophages. D) septal cells. E) squamous alveolarcells.

62)

Which is not part of the respiratory membrane?

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A) Capillary endothelium B) Fused basement membrane C) Plasma membrane of Type I cell D) Plasma membrane of Type II cell

63)

Which is not correct about the left lung? A) It is slightlysmaller than the right lung. B) It has a cardiacimpression. C) It has a cardiacnotch. D) It has 2 lobes and1 fissure. E) It has anesophageal depression.

64)

Each lung consists of a number of segments called A) alveolarsegments. B) bronchopulmonarysegments. C) mesothelialsegments. D) pleuralsegments. E) systemicsegments.

65)

The hilum of the lung

A) is an indented areathrough which the bronchi, pulmonary vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nervespass. B) is the point ofexit of exhaled air. C) is the point ofentrance for inhaled air. D) is an elevated areathrough which the trachea, pulmonary vessels, and nerves pass. E) serves to anchorall pulmonary structures to the mediastinum.

66)

Which of the two lungs is larger and wider?

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A) The left lung B) The right lung

67)

Bronchial arteries carry _________ blood to the tissues of the lung. A) oxygenated B) deoxygenated

68)

Activation of sympathetic nerves that innervate lung tissue results in A) bronchoconstriction. B) bronchodilation.

69) On each side of the chest, the _________ pleura lines the internal thoracic wall and the __________ pleura tightly covers the lung. A) thoracic;pulmonary B) parietal;visceral C) visceral;parietal D) fibrous;serous E) respiratory;pleural

70)

The main function of serous fluid is to A) lubricate andreduce friction between pleural membranesaround the lung. B) improve adhesionof the lungs to the thoracic wall. C) facilitate thediffusion of oxygen across the respiratory membrane.

71)

Foreign particles that are not filtered out by the respiratory epithelium are

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A) dissolved byenzymes in the alveoli. B) coughed up duringnormal daily activities. C) collected by lymphnodes. D) carried away inblood. E) stored in nearbypulmonary alcoves.

72)

The lungs remain inflated because A) intrapulmonarypressure is less than intrapleural pressure. B) intrapleuralpressure is less than intrapulmonary pressure. C) intrapleuralpressure is exactly equal to intrapulmonary pressure. D) intrapleuralpressure is exactly equal to atmospheric pressure.

73) Organize the items listed into the proper sequence of events for gas exchange. a: O 2 is transported to cells by circulatory system. b: O 2 is drawn into the lungs during inhalation. c: Cells use O 2 and generate CO 2. d: CO 2 is exhaled. e: The circulatory system transports CO 2 to the lungs. A) a, b, c, d, e B) b, a, c, d, e C) b, a, c, e, d D) c, e, d, a, b E) e, d, c, b, a

74) Which answer places the following events in proper order for pulmonary ventilation? a: Thoracic cavity volume changes. b: Brainstem nuclei stimulate skeletal muscles to contract. c: Air flows down its pressure gradient. d: Dimensional changes in the thorax lead to pressure changes within the lung.

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A) b, a, d, c B) d, c, b, a C) b, d, c, a D) a, c, d, b E) c, a, d, b

75) You may have noticed that after a large meal you have had some difficulty breathing. Which explanation is most accurate with regard to this situation? A) The food presses on the bronchi, making air flow difficult. B) The largequantity of food retards pulmonary blood flow. C) Oxygen to thelungs is restricted due to fullness in the stomach. D) A full stomachimpedes contraction of the diaphragm, limiting inhalation.

76) These muscles increase thoracic cavity dimensions by elevating the first and second ribs during forced inhalation. A) External intercostals B) Scalenes C) Transversus thoracis D) Internal intercostals E) Serratus posterior inferior

77) These muscles extend from a superior rib inferomedially to the adjacent inferior rib. They elevate the ribs upon contraction, thereby increasing the transverse dimensions of the thoracic cavity during inhalation. A) External intercostals B) Scalenes C) Transversus thoracis D) Internal intercostals E) Serratus posterior inferior

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78)

Contraction of these muscles depresses the ribs, but only during forced exhalation. A) External intercostals B) Scalenes C) Transversus thoracis D) Internal intercostals E) Serratus posterior inferior

79) According to Boyle's law, the pressure of a gas _________ if the volume of its container increases. A) increases B) decreases C) remains thesame

80)

Air flows out of the body during expiration because A) intrapulmonarypressure is greater than atmospheric pressure. B) intrapleuralpressure is greater than intrapulmonary pressure. C) atmosphericpressure is greater than intrapulmonary pressure. D) intrapleuralpressure is greater than atmospheric pressure.

81) The involuntary, rhythmic activities that deliver and remove respiratory gases are regulated in the A) brainstem. B) midbrain. C) cerebellum. D) cerebralnuclei. E) occipital lobe ofthe brain.

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82) What is the name of the column of neurons within the medulla that initiates neural impulses for inspiration and expiration? A) Pontinerespiratory center B) Ventralrespiratory group C) Dorsal respiratorygroup D) Phrenicnucleus

83)

At rest, a normal person breathes about _____ times per minute. A) 8 B) 12 C) 26 D) 32 E) 50

84) Also known as the pneumotaxic center, this area allows for smooth transitions between inspiration and expiration. A) Dorsal respiratorygroup B) Ventral respiratorygroup C) Pontine respiratorycenter D) Medullaryrespiratory center E) Carotid body

85)

When central chemoreceptors detect a drop in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid,

A) medullaryrespiratory centers trigger an increase in rate and depth of breathing. B) medullaryrespiratory centers trigger a decreasein rate and depth of breathing. C) pontine respiratorycenters trigger a decreasein rate and depth of breathing. D) the vagus andphrenic nerves stimulate decreased production of the catalyst carbonicanhydrase.

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86) The carotid bodies contain _________ chemoreceptors that respond to changes in ________________. A) peripheral;bloodconcentrations of H + and O 2 B) central;bloodconcentrations of H +, but not CO 2 and O 2 C) peripheral;cerebrospinal fluidconcentrations of H + D) central;cerebrospinalconcentrations of CO 2 E) peripheral;concentrationsof carbon, dust, and pollution in the lungs

87)

Where would you find the trachealis muscle? A) Between the esophagus and the diaphragm B) Between the trachea and the diaphragm C) Superior to the larynx D) Between the esophagus and the trachea E) Between the larynx and the pharynx

88) Breathing muscles such as the diaphragm are controlled by neurons of the _________ nervous system. A) somatic B) autonomic C) enteric

89)

Which type of receptor initiates the inhalation (or Hering-Breuer) reflex? A) Centralchemoreceptors B) Baroreceptors C) Peripheralchemoreceptors D) Proprioceptors

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90) Suppose that following an automobile accident, a broken rib penetrates into the pleural cavity, causing air to accumulate in the space between the visceral and parietal pleura. This condition is known as a A) pneumothorax. B) tensionhemothorax. C) hemothorax. D) cysticfibrosis.

91) Airflow is ________ related to the pressure gradient and __________ related to resistance. A) directly; directly B) directly; inversely C) inversely; inversely D) inversely; directly

92)

Pulmonary fibrosis A) decreaseselasticity, thereby increasing resistance and decreasing airflow. B) increaseselasticity, thereby increasing resistance and decreasing airflow. C) decreaseselasticity, thereby decreasing bothresistance and airflow. D) increaseselasticity, thereby decreasing resistance and increasing airflow.

93)

During expiration, relaxation of the diaphragm and external intercostals A) increases thevolume of the thoracic cavity. B) increases thepressure in the thoracic cavity. C) expands the ribcage. D) flattens the floorof the thoracic cavity. E) stimulates thephrenic nerve.

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94) Two individuals of the same size (same dead space) have a minute ventilation of 6 L/min, but one is breathing 10 breaths/min and the other is breathing 15 breaths/min. How do their alveolar ventilation rates compare? A) The slower breatherhas a greater alveolar ventilation rate. B) The faster breatherhas a greater alveolar ventilation rate. C) Their alveolarventilation rates are equivalent.

95)

An increase in dead space results in A) increases in both alveolar and minute ventilation. B) decreases in both alveolar and minute ventilation. C) a decrease in alveolar ventilation but no change in minute ventilation. D) an increase in alveolar ventilation but a decrease in minute ventilation. E) a decrease in alveolar ventilation but an increase in minute ventilation. F) an increase in alveolar ventilation but no change in minute ventilation.

96)

A buildup of fluid in the lungs caused by pneumonia leads to an increase in the A) physiologic deadspace. B) anatomic deadspace. C) residualvolume.

97)

The amount of air that can be forcibly inhaled after a normal inspiration is the A) inspiratoryreserve volume. B) inspiratorycapacity. C) residualvolume. D) functionalresidual capacity.

98)

The expiratory reserve volume plus the residual volume equals the

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A) tidal volume. B) functionalresidual capacity. C) inspiratoryreserve volume. D) vitalcapacity. E) forced expiratory volume.

99) The percentage of the vital capacity that can be exhaled during a specific time period is known as the A) tidal volume. B) alveolarventilation. C) forced expiratoryvolume. D) maximal lungcapacity rate. E) pulmonary minute ventilation.

100)

Maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) is the greatest amount of air that can be A) inspired and thenexpelled in 1 minute. B) expired in 1second. C) held within thelungs for over 30 seconds. D) inspired in onebreath (regardless of dead space).

101) Compared to itspartial pressure at sea level, what would be the partial pressure of oxygen at an altitude with an atmospheric pressure of only 380 mm Hg (recall that sea level atmospheric pressure is 760 mm Hg)? A) Po 2 would be half as much as it would be at sea level. B) Po 2would be twice as much as it would be at sea level. C) Po2 would be one-fourthas much as it would be at sea level. D) Po2 would be three-quartersas much as it would be at sea level.

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102) Compared to its partial pressure in the atmosphere, oxygen's partial pressure in the alveoli is A) higher. B) lower. C) equivalent.

103)

Which of the following has the highest partial pressure of carbon dioxide? A) The alveoli of thelungs B) The bloodcirculating in systemic arteries C) The systemiccells

104)

Because oxygen has a low solubility coefficient in water,

A) it is easilydissolved in water and requires only a slight partial pressure gradient toenter the water. B) it is easilydissolved in water and the partial pressure gradient is irrelevant to itssolubilty. C) it isnoteasily dissolved in water and requires a steeppartial pressuregradient to enter the water. D) it is impossibleto dissolve oxygen into water unless the partial pressure gradient is veryminor.

105) The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the air in the alveoli and blood in the lungs is called A) ventilation. B) systemicrespiration. C) tissue gas exchange. D) pulmonary gas exchange. E) cellularrespiration.

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106)

Which statement accurately describes pulmonary gas exchange of oxygen?

A) Oxygen diffusesfrom the alveolus to the blood because the alveolus has a higher partialpressure of oxygen. B) Oxygen diffusesfrom the alveolus to the blood because the alveolus has a lower partialpressure of oxygen. C) Oxygen diffusesfrom the blood to the alveolus because the alveolus has a higher partialpressure of oxygen. D) Oxygen diffusesfrom the blood to the alveolus because the alveolus has a lower partialpressure of oxygen.

107) The anatomic features of the respiratory membrane that make pulmonary gas exchange so efficient are A) the high degree ofmoisture and the large ratio of volume to surface area. B) its large surfacearea and minimal thickness. C) its thinness, high water content, and scarcity of capillaries. D) its heartythickness and the presence of oxygen transport pumps.

108)

An increase in the partial pressure of CO2 causes bronchioles to A) constrict. B) dilate.

109) An increase in the partial pressure of oxygen causes pulmonary arterioles to ________, thereby altering _______ to make gasexchange more efficient. A) constrict; perfusion B) dilate; perfusion C) constrict; ventilation D) dilate; ventilation

110)

As blood travels through a systemic capillary and exchanges gases with systemic cells,

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A) the partialpressure of oxygen in blood decreases as it goes from arterioles tovenules. B) the partialpressure of oxygen in blood increases as it goes from arterioles tovenules. C) the partialpressure of oxygen on blood remains the sameas it goes from arterioles tovenules.

111)

Which statement accurately describes pulmonary and tissue gas exchange?

A) In both pulmonary and tissue gas exchange, oxygen diffuses out of the blood. B) In both pulmonary and tissue gas exchange, oxygen diffuses into the blood. C) In pulmonary gas exchange oxygen diffuses into the blood, but in tissue gas exchange it diffuses out of the blood. D) In pulmonary gas exchange oxygen diffuses out of the blood, but in tissue gas exchange it diffuses into the blood.

112) Hemoglobin is crucial for oxygen transport in the blood because oxygen has a _______ solubility coefficient in water. A) high B) low

113) Approximately what percent of the oxygen in blood is transported by the hemoglobin of erythrocytes? A) 33% B) 50% C) 66% D) 75% E) 98%

114) About 23% of the carbon dioxide in the blood is attached to the _______ portion of hemoglobin.

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A) heme B) globin C) carboxyl D) anhydrase

115) Which reaction involving CO capillaries of the lung?

2 predominates within erythrocytes in the pulmonary

A) HCO - 3 combines withH + to formH 2 CO 3 , which dissociates into CO 2 and H 2 O. B) HCO - 3 dissociates intoH + , CO, and O 2 . C) CO 2 combines with H + to form HCO 2. D) CO 2combines with water to form bicarbonate ion and carbonic acid.

116)

About 70% of the CO2 that diffuses into systemic capillaries

A) directly dissolvesin the plasma. B) combines with water to formcarbonic acid, which then dissociates into bicarbonate and hydrogenions. C) binds tohemoglobin. D) forms carbonicanhydrase, which combines carbonic acid and water to solubilize the CO 2.

117)

In addition to oxygen, hemoglobin also transports A) carbonic acid andbicarbonate ions. B) calcium and carbondioxide. C) carbon dioxide andhydrogen ions. D) iron andalbumin.

118) If someone at sea level is given pure oxygen to breathe, it would cause the oxygen saturation of their hemoglobin

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A) to increase bymore thandouble. B) to increase byonly a tiny amount. C) to decrease due touncooperative binding.

119) When blood passes through systemic capillaries, the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin changes A) from about 98% toabout 75% saturated. B) from about 40% toabout 80% saturated. C) from about 70%saturated to about 99% saturated. D) from about 99%saturated to about 25% saturated.

120) An actively contracting muscle will cause local temperature to rise and will produce acidic molecules. Warmth and lower pH cause the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve to shift ______ reflecting that hemoglobin releases ______ oxygen. A) left; more B) left; less C) right; more D) right; less

121)

What changes in the blood levels of respiratory gases result from hyperventilation? A) Oxygen and carbondioxide levels rise. B) Oxygen and carbondioxide levels fall. C) Oxygen levelsrise and carbon dioxide levels fall. D) Oxygen levels donot change but carbon dioxide levels fall.

122)

Airway obstruction can lead to hypoventilation, which can cause

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A) hypoxia andrespiratory acidosis. B) hypocapnia andrespiratory alkalosis. C) hypocapnia andhyperpnea. D) hypoxia andrespiratory alkalosis.

123) When someone begins to hyperventilate, the increased movements of their respiratory muscles ________ venous return of blood to the heart. A) increase B) decrease

124)

When someone exercises vigorously, their breathing is described as demonstrating A) hyperpnea,involving deeper but not faster breathing. B) hyperventilation,involving both deeper and faster breathing. C) bradypnea,involving deeper and slower breathing. D) hypopnea,involving shallower but faster breathing.

125)

During quiet expiration, A) thoracic cavity volume decreases. B) the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract. C) inspiratory neurons in the VRG spontaneously depolarize. D) air moves from the atmosphere to the alveoli.

126) _____ in the _____ cavity provides lubrication and reduces friction as the lungs change size during ventilation.

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A) Serous fluid; pleural B) Synovial fluid; peritoneal C) Mucus; pericardial D) Mucus; pleural

127) Which of the following accounts for the loss of functional alveoli in an individual with a lung disease? A) Physiologic dead space B) Anatomic dead space

128) Compared to carbon dioxide, oxygen has a relatively _____ solubility coefficient and so requires a _____ partial pressure gradient to help diffuse the gas into the blood. A) low; large B) low; small C) high; large D) high; small

129) The lungs of an individual with emphysema provide poor gas exchange due to the loss of alveolar walls. This exemplifies the need for a large _____ for efficient gas exchange. A) respiratory membrane surface area B) respiratory membrane thickness

130) cell?

During tissue gas exchange, what happens to carbon dioxide after it enters a red blood

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A) It reacts with water to form carbonic acid. B) It reacts with bicarbonate to become carbonic acid. C) It reacts with carbonic acid to become bicarbonate. D) It attaches to the heme portion of hemoglobin, forming carbaminohemoglobin.

131) Hyperventilation causes generalized ______, which ______ blood flow to the brain and can result in feeling dizzy or faint. A) vasoconstriction; decreases B) vasoconstriction; increases C) vasodilation; decreases D) vasodilation; increases

132) Paranasal sinuses function in warming and humidifying _____________, and they are lined with a ______________ epithelium. A) air; pseudostratified ciliated columnar B) air; ciliated simple columnar C) mucus; pseudostratified ciliated columnar D) mucus; ciliated simple columnar

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 133) At the inferior end of the trachea is a n internal ridge of mucosal covered cartilage that initiates a cough reflex when it is stimulated; this structure is the __________.

134)

Another name for the tertiary bronchi is the _________ bronchi.

135) Relaxation of the smooth muscle within the walls of bronchioles leads to _______________. Version 1

136)

Parasympathetic innervation to the lungs is from the ________ nerves.

137) The potential space between the serous membranes surrounding each lung is known as the pleural _________.

138)

__________ is the amount of air that moves into and out of the lungs with each breath.

139) T he amount of air left in the lungs even after the most forceful expiration is referred to as the _________ volume.

140) The amount of air that moves into and out of the respiratory tract with each breath is called _____.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 141) List, in order, the structures of the respiratory membrane that carbon dioxidemust cross to move from the blood into an air sac of the lung.

142) In a situation where one small bronchus is obstructed, the air in that segment of the lung will develop a high partial pressure of carbon dioxide and a low partial pressure of oxygen. What changes in ventilation and perfusion will occur in that segment in response to this condition?

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ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 143) Imagine that someone is climbing a mountain on a very hot day.As their muscles work, acidic by-products are generated. Describe the relevant responses of the respiratory system and also describe how the affinity for hemoglobin will change under these conditions.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 23_4e 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) FALSE 19) FALSE 20) FALSE 21) FALSE 22) TRUE 23) TRUE 24) FALSE

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As stated in Boyle's law, the relationship between volume in pressure is inversely proportional. For example, when the volume of a container increases, the pressure inside of it decreases. 25) TRUE 26) TRUE This is referred to as the respiratory pump, as muscular movement and pressure changes in the thoracic and abdominal cavities promote venous return. 27) [B, C] 28) A 29) A 30) A 31) B 32) B 33) A 34) A 35) A 36) D 37) C 38) D 39) D 40) A 41) D 42) B 43) B 44) A 45) D 46) E 47) D Version 1

48) E 49) A 50) A 51) C 52) D 53) D 54) E 55) A 56) B 57) C 58) B 59) B 60) A 61) C 62) D 63) E 64) B 65) A 66) B 67) A 68) B 69) B 70) A 71) C 72) B 73) C 74) A 75) D 76) B 77) A Version 1

78) D 79) B 80) A 81) A 82) B 83) B 84) C 85) A 86) A 87) D 88) A 89) B 90) A 91) B 92) A 93) B 94) A 95) C 96) A 97) A 98) B 99) C 100) A 101) A 102) B 103) C 104) C 105) D 106) A 107) B Version 1

108) B 109) B 110) A 111) C 112) B 113) E 114) B 115) A 116) B 117) C 118) B 119) A 120) C 121) D 122) A 123) A 124) A 125) A 126) A 127) A 128) A 129) A 130) A 131) A 132) A 133) carina 134) segmental 135) bronchodilation 136) vagus 137) cavity Version 1

138) Airflow 139) residual 140) airflow 141) The carbon dioxide must pass through the pulmonary capillary endothelium, then the fused basement membrane, then the squamous cell of the alveolar wall. 142) The changes in gas pressures will result in bronchiole dilation and arteriolar constriction. 143) Answers should mention the stimulation of peripheral chemoreceptors by hypoxia as well as exercise-induced changes in respiration (some apparently feed-forward).Minute ventilation rate should increase.Heat, low oxygen, and low pH will all lower Hb affinity for oxygen (favoring unloading at active body tissues).

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CHAPTER 24 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) During prolonged fasting, the kidneys produce glucose from noncarbohydrate sources. ⊚ ⊚

The paranephric fat is deep to the fibrous capsule of the kidney. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Sympathetic axons innervate the afferent and efferent arterioles of the kidneys. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) The tubular pole of the renal corpuscle is where afferent and efferent arterioles attach to the glomerulus. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The glomerulus is part of the renal tubule. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Both the proximal convoluted tubule and the distal convoluted tubule reside in the cortex of the kidney. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Collecting ducts are larger than collecting tubules.

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⊚ ⊚

Type A and Type B cells of kidney tubules are types of principal cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Macula densa cells signal granular cells to release renin through paracrine stimulation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Peritubular capillaries are associated with the convoluted tubules, while vasa recta are associated with the nephron loop. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) The pattern of venous drainage in the kidney differs from the arterial supply in that there are no arcuate or segmental veins. ⊚ ⊚

12)

Fluid contained within a minor calyx is called urine. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

Upon leaving the renal pelvis, urine passes directly into a ureter. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14)

Large proteins and red blood cells normally pass freely through the filtration membrane. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) Water and glucose are freely filtered through the filtration membrane of a renal corpuscle. ⊚ ⊚

16)

Blood colloid osmotic pressure opposes glomerular hydrostatic pressure. ⊚ ⊚

17)

true false

Increases in capsular hydrostatic pressure result in increases in net filtration pressure. ⊚ ⊚

19)

true false

Increases in NFP result in increases in GFR. ⊚ ⊚

18)

true false

Increases in the levels of plasma proteins result in increases in net filtration pressure. ⊚ ⊚

true false

20) Tubuloglomerular feedback and myogenic response are both components of renal autoregulation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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21)

The hormone atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)causes an increase in GFR. ⊚ ⊚

true false

22) Substances that move through epithelial cells for reabsorption are said to undergo transcellular transport. ⊚ ⊚

true false

23) The higher the concentration of a substance in the blood, the greater its transport maximum is. ⊚ ⊚

true false

24) Generally, the higher a substance's transport maximum is, the lower its renal threshold will be. ⊚ ⊚

true false

25) Peptides such as angiotensin are reabsorbed by means of phagocytosis by tubule wall cells.The peptide is then transported back to the blood as a functional molecule. ⊚ ⊚

26)

true false

The reabsorption of both sodium and potassium is carefully regulated. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

27) Usually theurine of someone with a high-protein dietdoes not contain any bicarbonate ions, as all of it that is filtered is reclaimed from the tubules. ⊚ true ⊚ false

28)

Both aspirin and morphine are eliminated in the urine. ⊚ ⊚

29)

true false

The countercurrent multiplier is a negative feedback mechanism. ⊚ ⊚

true false

30) After the hairpin turn in the vasa recta, the blood within it starts to lose salt and gain water. ⊚ ⊚

true false

31) The diffusion of ureaout of the distal convoluted tubule is an important part ofmaintaining the concentration gradient of the renal medulla. ⊚ ⊚

true false

32) A GFR measurement will be directly related to the concentration of inulin in the plasma and inversely related to the concentration of inulin in the urine. ⊚ ⊚

true false

33) Generally, the higher the renal plasma clearance of a given drug, the more frequently the drug must be given in orderto be effective.

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⊚ ⊚

34)

true false

Glucose and protein are common solutes within urine. ⊚ ⊚

true false

35) The specific gravity of urine is its density compared to that of water, and the more solutes urine has, the higher its specific gravity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

36) Individuals can voluntarilyempty their bladder by contracting their abdominal muscles as part of the Valsalva maneuver. ⊚ ⊚

37)

true false

Sympathetic fibers inhibit micturition. ⊚ ⊚

true false

38) The internal urethral sphincter is formed by skeletal muscle fibers of the urogenital diaphragm. ⊚ ⊚

39)

true false

The external urethral sphincter is voluntarily controlled. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 40) Select all that have regulated reabsorption. A) Glucose B) Sodium C) Water D) Calcium

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 41) The ___________ transfer urinefrom the kidneys to the urinary bladder. A) ureters B) urethras C) vas deferens anduterine tubes D) efferentarteries

42)

What is the correct sequence of organs for the formation and elimination of urine? A) Bladder, urethra,kidney, ureter B) Kidney, ureter,bladder, urethra C) Kidney, urethra,bladder, ureter D) Kidney, bladder,ureter, urethra E) Urethra, bladder, kidney, ureter

43)

Which is not a function of the kidneys?

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A) Regulation of bloodpressure B) Removal of wastesfrom the blood C) Regulation oferythrocyte production D) Regulation of lymphocyte production E) Regulation ofacid-base balance

44)

In response to low blood ________, the kidneys secrete __________. A) calcium; renin B) oxygen; erythropoietin C) sodium; calcitriol D) potassium; erythropoietin E) glucose; calcitriol

45)

The average adult kidney weighs about 100 grams and measures about A) 12 cm long, 6.5 cmwide, and 2.5 cm thick. B) 8 cm long, 4 cmwide, and 1.5 cm thick. C) 15 cm long, 10.5 cmwide, and 4.5 cm thick. D) 8 cm long, 10.5 cmwide, and 2.5 cm thick. E) 12 cm long, 2.5 cmwide, and 8 cm thick.

46)

In order to accommodate the large liver, A) the left kidney isabout 2 centimeters inferior to the right kidney. B) the right kidneyis about 2 centimeters inferior to the left kidney.

47)

The kidneys are located ___________ the peritoneum.

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A) within B) anterior to C) posterior to

48)

From innermost to outermost, the protective layers on the kidney are the A) fibrous capsule,perinephric fat, renal fascia, paranephric fat. B) renal corpuscle,perinephric fat, renal fascia, paranephric fat. C) renal fascia,paranephric fat, renal corpuscle, perinephric fat. D) renal fascia,perinephric fat, fibrous capsule, paranephric fat. E) fibrous capsule,paranephric fat, renal fascia, perinephric fat.

49)

The fibrous capsule of the kidney is composed of A) dense irregularconnective tissue. B) adipose connectivetissue. C) reticularconnective tissue. D) smooth musclefibers.

50)

An adult human kidney typically contains ______ renal pyramid(s). A) 2 to 5 B) 8 to 15 C) 16 to 24 D) 1 E) 30 to 40

51)

Where are the renal pyramids located within the kidney?

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A) Renal cortex B) Renal sinus C) Renal pelvis D) Renal medulla E) Renal papilla

52) Which of the following choiceslists structures in the order in which urine flows through them? A) Major calyx, minorcalyx, renal pelvis B) Renal pelvis, majorcalyx, minor pelvis C) Minor calyx, majorcalyx, renal pelvis D) Major pelvis, minorcalyx, renal pelvis E) Major calyx, renalpelvis, minor calyx

53)

The first structure in the kidney to collect newly formed urine is the A) renalcapsule. B) minor calyx. C) renal pelvis. D) renal sinus. E) renal cortex.

54)

Autonomic innervation of the kidney includes A) Cranial Nerve V and sympathetic nerves from T1–T2. B) Cranial Nerve V and sympathetic nerves from T10–T12. C) Cranial Nerve X and sympathetic nerves from T1–T2. D) Cranial Nerve X and sympathetic nerves from T10–T12.

55)

Which is not correct regarding the innervation of the kidney?

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A) Parasympatheticinnervation is from the vagus nerve. B) The kidney isserved by the renal plexus. C) Sympatheticinnervation is from segments T10-T12 of the spinal cord. D) Sympatheticstimulation causes vasoconstriction of the renal blood vessels. E) Parasympatheticstimulation decreases the rate of filtrate formation.

56)

Pain from the kidneys is usually referred by way of the A) autonomic pathwaysto the inferior pelvicorgans. B) sympathetic pathways to the T11–L2 dermatomes. C) somatic pathwaysto the left shoulder. D) parasympathetic pathways to the T1–T2 dermatomes.

57)

The renal corpuscle is located within the A) collectingduct. B) renal medulla. C) renal cortex. D) renal pelvis.

58)

The thick tangle of capillary loops found within a corpuscle is known as the A) Bowman. B) convolutedcapillary bed. C) glomerularcapsule. D) glomerulus. E) nephron.

59)

The proximal convoluted tubule is lined with a

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A) cuboidal epithelium with a large surface area. B) simple columnarepithelium with a slick smooth surface. C) stratifiedsquamous epithelium with a large surface area. D) stratified squamousepithelium with a tough, durable surface. E) simple squamous endothelium that makesa slick surface.

60) The nephron loop makes a hairpin turn within the ________ and its ________ limb ends at the distal convoluted tubule. A) cortex; ascending B) cortex; descending C) medulla; ascending D) medulla; descending

61) Which class of nephron is crucially important in establishing a salt concentration gradient in the kidney so that urine concentration can be regulated? A) Intercalatednephrons B) Juxtamedullarynephrons C) Adrenalnephrons D) Corticalnephrons

62) Cortical nephrons have their corpuscles near the _________ edge of the cortex and are the ______ common type of nephron. A) deeper; more B) deeper; less C) peripheral; more D) peripheral; less

63)

Which is not correct regarding nephrons?

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A) The renal corpuscleincludes the glomerulus and the glomerular capsule. B) The renal tubule iscomposed of the proximal convoluted tubule, nephron loop, and distal convolutedtubule. C) The nephron is thefunctional filtration unit in the kidney. D) Eighty-five percentof nephrons are cortical nephrons. E) The renal corpusclemay be located in the renal cortex or renal medulla.

64)

How are nephrons, collecting ducts, and collecting tubules related to each other?

A) One collecting ductdrains into one nephron, and one nephron drains into one collecting tubule. B) One nephron drainsinto one collecting tubule, and several collecting tubules empty into acollecting duct. C) One nephron drainsinto one collecting duct, and several collecting ducts empty into a collectingtubule. D) One collectingtubule drains into one nephron, and several nephrons drain into one collectingduct. E) One nephron drains into severalcollecting tubules, and all tubules eventually lead to one collecting duct.

65) Which type of epithelial cell within collecting tubules and collecting ducts are responsive to aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone? A) Type A cells B) Type B cells C) Principalcells D) Intercalatedendocrine cells

66)

The juxtaglomerular apparatus is located

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A) within the renalsinus. B) in the renalpapilla. C) in the perinephricfat. D) inside the tubularpole of the glomerulus. E) near the vascular pole of the renalcorpuscle.

67)

The main parts of the juxtaglomerular apparatus are the A) principal cellsand macula densa. B) granular cells andmacula densa. C) granular cells andintercalated cells. D) intercalated cellsand principal cells. E) principal cells and granular cells.

68)

Stimulation of granular cells by the sympathetic nervous system causes them to A) contract. B) relax. C) releasecalcitriol. D) increaseendocytosis.

69)

Granular cells synthesize and release the enzyme A) angiotensinogen. B) antidiuretichormone. C) renin. D) calcitriol.

70)

Macula densa cells monitor the concentration of

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A) glucose in theblood. B) antidiuretichormone in the urine. C) sodium chloride inthe fluid within the distal convoluted tubule. D) calcium in thefluid of the proximal convoluted tubule. E) aldosterone in the afferentarteriole.

71) Which is the correct sequence of arteries that a drop of blood would flow through as it entered the kidney and moved toward a glomerulus? A) Segmental artery - interlobar artery - interlobular artery - renal artery - arcuate artery B) Interlobar artery - segmental artery - interlobular artery - renal artery - arcuate artery C) Renal artery - interlobar artery - segmental artery - arcuate artery - interlobular artery D) Renal artery - segmental artery - interlobar artery - arcuate artery - interlobular artery E) Arcuate artery - interlobular artery - segmental artery - interlobar artery - renal artery

72) The capillaries of the glomerulus differ from most other capillary networks in the body because they A) carry onlydeoxygenated blood. B) drain into anarteriole instead of a venule. C) contain noendothelium. D) absorb nutrientsfrom the glomerular capsule. E) secrete mucus.

73)

An obstruction in the glomerulus would affect the flow of blood into the A) renal artery. B) proximalconvoluted tubule. C) efferentarteriole. D) distal convolutedtubule. E) afferentarteriole.

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74) Immediately before blood enters arterioles of the kidney, it travels through small arteries that project peripherally into the renal cortex. These arteries are the A) arcuatearteries. B) interlobulararteries. C) segmentalarteries. D) lobararteries. E) peritubular arteries.

75)

As it is leaving the kidney, blood passes directlyfrom the arcuate vein to the A) renal vein. B) vasa recta. C) segmentalvein. D) interlobarvein. E) interlobular vein.

76)

Fluid contained within the lumen of a nephron loop is called A) plasma. B) tubular fluid. C) filtrate. D) urine.

77)

In the process of urine formation, first A) filtrate isformed, then tubular fluid, then urine. B) tubular fluid isformed, then filtrate, then urine.

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78) Place the regions of the nephron in the correct order for the process of urine formation. a: Capsular space of glomerulus b: Nephron loop c: Collecting duct d: Distal convoluted tubule e: Proximal convoluted tubule A) a, c, b, e, d B) e, d, b, a, c C) b, e, c, d, a D) b, d, c, e, a E) a, e, b, d, c

79)

Urine passes from the renal papilla into a A) major calyx, thento a minor calyx, then to a ureter. B) minor calyx, thento a major calyx, then to the renal pelvis. C) ureter, then to aminor calyx, then to a major calyx. D) renal pelvis, thento a major calyx, then to a ureter. E) collecting duct,then to a minor calyx, then to a major calyx.

80)

Which step(s) in the process of urine formation occur(s) in the renal tubule? A) Filtration only B) Secretion only C) Reabsorptiononly D) Filtration, secretion, and reabsorption E) Secretion andreabsorption only

81)

How are the processes of reabsorption and secretion related?

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A) They both involvemovement of material from the blood into the tubular fluid. B) Materials move inopposite directions: reabsorption moves materials into the blood, whereassecretion removes them from the blood. C) Materials move inopposite directions: secretion moves materials into the blood, whereasreabsorption removes them from the blood. D) They both involvemovement of material from the tubular fluid into the blood.

82)

The active transport of solutes out of the blood and into the tubular fluid is called A) filtration. B) tubularreabsorption. C) tubularsecretion. D) fenestration. E) titration.

83)

The endothelium of the glomerulus is made up of _________ capillaries. A) fenestrated B) continuous

84) The basement membrane of the glomerulus is composed of glycoproteins and _________, and it restricts the passage of _________. A) phospholipids; plasma ions B) phospholipids; plasma proteins C) proteoglycans; plasma ions D) proteoglycans; plasma proteins

85)

Podocytes are cells with foot-like processes called pedicels. Podocytes are found in the

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A) basement membraneof the glomerulus. B) visceral layer ofthe glomerular capsule. C) periphery of thedistal convoluted tubule. D) endothelium of theglomerulus.

86)

Generally, negatively charged plasma proteins are A) moved across the filtration membrane by active transport pumps. B) attracted by thepositive charge of the filtration membrane. C) repelled by thenegative charge of the filtration membrane. D) engulfed byendocytosis and reabsorbed at the filtration membrane.

87)

Mesangial cells help keep the basement membrane clean by A) secretingemulsifying agents that dissolve trapped particles. B) engulfingmacromolecules caught in its basement membrane. C) opening largerpores in the membrane so that trapped particles move accross. D) secretingantibodies that attack the molecules caught in the endothelium.

88) Blood pressure in the glomerulus is _______ than in other capillaries due to the relatively large diameter of ________ arterioles. A) higher; afferent B) higher; efferent C) lower; afferent D) lower; efferent

89)

Glomerular hydrostatic pressure is the pressure of

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A) blood in thenephron capsule. B) tubular fluid in the glomerular capsule. C) blood in theglomerular capillaries. D) filtrate in theglomerular capillaries. E) solutes in the tubular fluid.

90)

The presence of proteins in the plasma tends to A) push fluid acrossthe filtration membrane. B) draw fluid backinto the glomerulus.

91) The capsular hydrostatic pressure is generally ______ than the glomerular hydrostatic pressure; increases incapsular hydrostatic pressure _________ the formation of additional filtrate. A) larger; facilitate B) larger; impede C) smaller; facilitate D) smaller; impede

92)

Net filtration pressure is equal to the

A) capsularhydrostatic pressure plus the sum of the blood colloid osmotic pressure and theglomerular hydrostatic pressure. B) glomerularhydrostatic pressure minus the sum of the blood colloid osmotic pressure andcapsular hydrostatic pressure. C) capsularhydrostatic pressure minus the sum of the blood colloid osmotic pressure andglomerular hydrostatic pressure. D) blood colloidosmotic pressure minus the capsular hydrostatic pressure. E) glomerular hydrostatic pressure plus bloodcolloid osmotic pressureminus capsular hydrostatic pressure.

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93)

The units for measurement of glomerular filtration rate are A) mm Hg. B) mm Hg perminute. C) liters. D) liters perminute.

94) If the filtration membrane were made more porous, how would you expect theglomerular filtration rate to change? A) Increase B) Decrease C) No change

95) Sympathetic nervous system influences on glomerular filtration rate are considered ________ controls. A) intrinsic B) extrinsic

96) The myogenic response that occurs within afferent arterioles of the kidney is an __________ control of GFR. A) intrinsic B) extrinsic

97) If there is an increase in systemic blood pressure, the resulting stretch of afferent arterioles results in reflexive

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A) vasoconstriction ofefferent arterioles to raise GFR. B) vasoconstrictionof afferent arterioles to keep GFR normal. C) vasodilation ofefferent arterioles to lower GFR. D) vasodilation ofafferent arterioles to keep GFR normal.

98)

The tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism responds to an increase in

A) systemic bloodpressure by signaling for a decrease in heart rate through bloodbornehormones. B) urine productionby signaling for a decrease in urine production through the hormone ADH. C) NaCl concentrationin tubular fluid by signaling for afferent arteriole constriction with localchemical messengers. D) glomerularcapillary hydrostatic pressure by signaling for afferent arterioles toconstrict and increase filtration rate.

99)

If someone is bleeding severely, the body's adaptive response is to A) increasesympathetic stimulation of the kidney and therefore increase GFR. B) increasesympathetic stimulation of the kidney and therefore decrease GFR. C) decreasesympathetic stimulation of the kidney and therefore decrease GFR. D) decreasesympathetic stimulation of the kidney and therefore increase GFR.

100)

Sympathetic stimulation causes

A) mesangial cells torelease angiotensin, which ultimately leads to granular cell contraction. B) mesangial cells torelease angiotensin, which ultimately leads to granular cell relaxation. C) granular cells torelease renin, which ultimately leads to mesangial cell contraction. D) granular cells torelease renin, which ultimately leads to mesangial cell relaxation. E) inhibited release of erythropoietin andcontraction of granular and mesangial cells.

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101)

Sympathetic stimulation of the kidney results in

A) constriction ofafferent arterioles and an increase in the surface area of the glomerulus. B) constriction ofafferent arterioles and a decreasein the surface area of theglomerulus. C) dilation ofafferent arterioles and an increase in the surface area of the glomerulus. D) dilation ofafferent arterioles and a decreasein the surface area of theglomerulus.

102)

ANP is a hormone that causes A) constriction ofthe afferent arterioles and release of renin. B) constriction ofthe afferent arterioles and inhibition of renin release. C) dilation of theafferent arterioles and release of renin. D) dilation of theafferent arterioles and inhibition of renin release.

103)

The hormone ANP is released from the heart and causes the urinary system to A) increase urinevolume and blood volume. B) increase urinevolume and decreaseblood volume. C) decrease urinevolume and blood volume. D) decrease urinevolume and increaseblood volume.

104)

Most tubular reabsorption occurs in the A) proximal convolutedtubule, wherecells have many flagella. B) proximal convolutedtubule, where cells have many microvilli. C) distal convolutedtubule, where cells have many flagella. D) distal convolutedtubule, where cells have many microvilli.

105)

Peritubular capillaries tend to exhibit

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A) high hydrostaticpressure and high colloid pressure. B) high hydrostaticpressure and low colloid pressure. C) low hydrostaticpressure and low colloid pressure. D) low hydrostaticpressure and high colloid pressure.

106) The largest possible amount of a substance that can be reabsorbed or secreted across a kidney tubule wall in a given duration of time is known as the A) glomerularfiltration rate. B) renalthreshold. C) transportmaximum. D) net filtrationpressure. E) renal clearance exponent.

107)

The renal threshold of a substance refers to

A) the number ofprotein transporters for the substanceper tubule. B) the plasmaconcentration of the substance below which it does not appear in the urine. C) the concentrationof the substance found in the kidney before the substancebecomestoxic. D) the concentrationof the substance in the urine that results in an overall increase in urinevolume.

108) For glucose to be reabsorbed from the tubule lumen, it is transported into the tubule cell by means of a A) glucoseuniporter. B) Na +/glucose symporter. C) glucose proteinchannel. D) Na +/glucose antiporter.

109)

Nutrients such as glucose and amino acidswithin the tubular fluid

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A) are completelysecreted. B) are completelyreabsorbed. C) have half of theirplasma concentration secreted. D) have a little lessthan half of their tubular fluid concentration reabsorbed. E) have concentrations in the filtrate and urine thatmatch theirtransport maximum.

110) Proteins that are recaptured from tubular fluid are transported into theluminal membrane by way of A) diffusion. B) pinocytosis. C) secondary activetransport with a symporter. D) primary activetransport with a protein pump. E) facilitated diffusion with acarrier.

111) Generally, a very _______ percent of Na reabsorption takes place _________.

in the tubular fluid is reabsorbed, and the

A) high; only in thenephron loop B) high; along the entire tubule C) small; only in the nephron loop D) small; along the entire tubule

112) Aldosterone is a steroid hormone that __________ synthesis of Na + channels in principal cells of kidney tubules.

pumps and Na

A) stimulates B) inhibits

113)

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

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A) stimulatesreabsorption of both calcium and phosphate. B) stimulatesreabsorption of calcium but inhibits phosphate reabsorption. C) inhibitsreabsorption of calcium but stimulates phosphate reabsorption. D) inhibitsreabsorption of both calcium and phosphate.

114)

The primary mechanism of water reabsorption in the kidney is A) primary activetransport by means of a protein pump. B) osmosis throughaquaporins. C) secondary activetransport by means of a sodium-water symporter. D) bulk transport bymeans of endocytosis.

115)

Generally, most water reabsorption in a nephron occurs at the A) nephron loop andis called obligatory water reabsorption. B) nephron loop andis called facultative water reabsorption. C) proximalconvoluted tubuleand is called obligatory water reabsorption. D) proximalconvoluted tubule and is called facultativewater reabsorption.

116)

Dehydration results in A) increased ADHsecretion and increased water reabsorption. B) increased ADHsecretion and decreased water reabsorption. C) decreased ADHsecretion and increased water reabsorption. D) decreased ADHsecretion and decreased water reabsorption.

117) Someone with a diet that is high in vegetables but low in animal protein is likely to have very active

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A) type A cells, which secrete HCO3- and reabsorb H+. B) type A cells, which reabsorb HCO3- and secrete H+. C) type B cells, which secrete HCO3- and reabsorb H+. D) type B cells, which reabsorb HCO3- and secrete H+.

118) Which of the following is a nitrogenous waste product produced from nucleic acid breakdown in the liver? A) Urea B) Deoxyribose C) Uric acid D) Creatinine

119)

Which processes does urea undergo within the kidney? A) It is filtered butneither reabsorbed nor secreted. B) It is filtered andcan be reabsorbed and secreted. C) It is filtered andcan also be secreted but not reabsorbed. D) It is not filterednor reabsorbed but can be secreted. E) It is not filtered but can be secretedand reabsorbed.

120)

Which accurately describes the handling of urea by the kidney? A) All of the ureathat reaches the kidney is excreted in the urine. B) About half of theurea that is filtered is excreted in the urine. C) None of the ureathat reaches the kidney is excreted in the urine.

121)

Pregnancy tests often involve checking the urine for the presence of

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A) bilirubin from thefetus. B) human chorionicgonadotropin. C) sulfonamides. D) epinephrine andprostaglandin.

122)

The countercurrent multiplier is a system by which the

A) nephron loopmultiplies the concentration of salts in the interstitial fluid of the kidneymedulla. B) nephron loopdilutes the concentration of solutes in the tubular fluid at its hairpinturn. C) vasa recta secretesmultiple amounts of metabolic wastes against their concentration gradient. D) vasa recta becomesmore concentrated with nitrogenous wastes than the urine.

123) The word "countercurrent" within "countercurrent multiplier" refers to the opposite direction of flow of A) sodium andpotassium across the wall of the nephron. B) tubular fluidwithin the ascending and descending limb of the nephron loop. C) salts and wateracross the wall of the renal tubule. D) tubular fluid inthe proximal convoluted tubule and collecting tubule.

124) As blood flows through the vasa recta alongside the ascending limb of the nephron loop, the blood is flowing A) toward thecortex. B) deep into themedulla.

125) To measure GFR, an individual's urine is examined for the concentration of a test substance that they received by injection. How is that test substance treated by the kidney?

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A) It is filtered,reabsorbed, and excreted, but it is not secreted. B) It is neitherfiltered nor reabsorbed, but it is secreted. C) It is filtered butneither reabsorbed nor secreted. D) It is filtered andsecreted, but not reabsorbed. E) It is notfiltered, but it is secreted and reabsorbed.

126) To calculate GFR, the concentration of a marker molecule is measured in both the blood and the urine, and the total volume of urine produced is also measured. Which of the following sets of results indicates the highest GFR? A) High concentrationof the marker in the blood, high volume of urine, low concentration of themarker in the urine B) High concentrationof the marker in the urine, high volume of urine, low concentration of themarker in the blood C) High concentrationof the marker in the urine, low volume of urine, high concentration of themarker in the blood D) High concentrationof the marker in the blood, low volume of urine, high concentration of themarker in the blood

127) Substances that are both filtered and reabsorbed have a renal plasma clearance that is _________ the GFR. A) higher than B) lower than C) the same as

128) Careful measurements of GFR are made by injection of _______, but approximations of GFR can be made more simply by measuring renal plasma clearance of _________.

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A) creatine phosphate; insulin B) insulin; creatine phosphate C) inulin; creatinine D) creatinine; inulin

129)

Renal plasma clearance A) is lower than GFRfor substances that are both filtered and secreted. B) is the same as GFRfor substances that are both filtered and secreted. C) is the amount ofwater loss from the plasma to the urine over the course of one hour. D) is the volume ofplasma that can be entirely cleared of a substance in one minute.

130)

The normal pH for urine A) is anything below7.0. B) is anything above7.0 C) ranges between 4.5and 8.0. D) ranges between 3.0and 6.0. E) ranges between 8.0 and 9.0 for someonewith a diet high in protein.

131) Normal urine has a specific gravity that is ________ thanthe specific gravity of pure water; dehydration leads to a __________ in the specific gravity of urine. A) higher; increase B) higher; decrease C) lower; decrease D) lower; increase

132)

Urine flow from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder is produced by

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A) ciliary action inthe renal pelvis. B) suction from theurinary bladder. C) peristalsis of theureters. D) hydrostaticpressure from the small intestine. E) contraction of thedetrusor muscle.

133)

Which layer is not found in the wall of the ureter? A) Adventitia B) Muscularis C) Mucosa D) Submucosa

134)

What is the value of transitional epithelium in the urinary system? A) Its cilia helppropel the urine. B) It can contract toproduce peristalsis. C) It allowsdistension. D) It protectsagainst trauma. E) It providescushioning.

135)

Where in the urinary tract is transitional epithelium found? A) Urinary bladder B) Urethra C) Ureters, urinary bladder, and prostatic urethra D) Ureters E) Ureters and urinary bladder

136)

Which layer is not found in the wall of the urinary bladder?

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A) Adventitia B) Muscularis C) Mucosa D) Submucosa E) No exceptions; all layers are found in the wall of the urinary bladder

137)

Which is not correct regarding the urinary bladder? A) There are twoureteral openings. B) The inferiorportion of the bladder is called the apex. C) The mucosa hasrugae for distension. D) The peritoneumcovers only the superior surface of the bladder.

138)

The muscularis layer of the urinary bladder is commonly called the _____ muscle. A) detrusor B) trigone C) extrusor D) extrinsic

139)

Within the urinary system, the storage reflex involves A) contraction of boththe detrusor muscle and the internal urethral sphincter. B) contractionofthe detrusor muscleand relaxation of the internal urethral sphincter. C) relaxation of thedetrusor muscleand contraction of the internal urethral sphincter. D) relaxation of boththe detrusor muscle and the internal urethral sphincter.

140)

Micturition

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A) is another namefor urination. B) is a reflextriggered by stretch receptors in the urinary bladder. C) requires theopening of two sphincters. D) requirescontraction of the muscularis layer of the urinary bladder. E) All of the choices are correct.

141) Put the portions of the male urethra in the correct order, from the urinary bladder to the exterior. a: Spongy part b: Urethral orifice c: Prostatic part d: Membranous part A) b, c, a, d B) c, a, d, b C) b, c, d, a D) c, d, a, b E) b, a, c, d

142) Which of the following is the correct formulat for calculation of net filtration pressure (NFP)? A) NFP = HP g - OP g - HP c B) NFP = HP g+ OP g - HP c C) NFP = HP c- OP g - HP g D) NFP = HP c- OP g+ HP g

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 143) The kidneys make the final enzyme for synthesis of the hormone _________, which causes increased calcium absorption in the small intestine.

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144)

The concave medial border of the kidney is called the __________.

145) Extensions of the renal cortex that project into the medulla (and subdivide it)are known as the renal __________.

146) Passive movement of water and solutes from the plasma to the capsular space of kidney corpuscles is a process known as __________.

147) Substances that are reabsorbed by passing between epithelial cells of the tubular walls undergo _________ transport.

148) To test someone's glomerular filtration rate, the individual is injected with the polysaccharide _____________.

149)

Each kidney contains more than a million “functional units” called ___________.

150)

The ball of capillaries in the renal corpuscle is called the ________________.

151) The juxtaglomerular cells release the enzyme ______________ when the macula densa cells detect low blood volume or solute concentration.

152) The triangular area within the urinary bladder that is delimited by the openings of the ureters and the urethra is called the __________.

153)

Urination is triggered by a complex sequence of events called the ___________ reflex.

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154) Intraglomerular _____ cells help keep the filtration membrane "clean" as they phagocytose (engulf) items such as antigen-antibody complexes.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 155) Contrast the effects of aldosterone and ADH on water reabsorption in the kidney. How are they similar and how do they differ?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 24_4e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) FALSE 20) TRUE 21) TRUE 22) TRUE 23) FALSE 24) FALSE 25) FALSE 26) TRUE Version 1

27) TRUE 28) TRUE 29) FALSE 30) TRUE 31) FALSE 32) FALSE 33) TRUE 34) FALSE 35) TRUE 36) TRUE 37) TRUE 38) FALSE 39) TRUE 40) [B, C, D] 41) A 42) B 43) D 44) B 45) A 46) B 47) C 48) A 49) A 50) B 51) D 52) C 53) B 54) D 55) E 56) B Version 1

57) C 58) D 59) A 60) C 61) B 62) C 63) E 64) B 65) C 66) E 67) B 68) A 69) C 70) C 71) D 72) B 73) C 74) B 75) D 76) B 77) A 78) E 79) B 80) E 81) B 82) C 83) A 84) D 85) B 86) C Version 1

87) B 88) A 89) C 90) B 91) D 92) B 93) D 94) A 95) B 96) A 97) B 98) C 99) B 100) C 101) B 102) D 103) B 104) B 105) D 106) C 107) B 108) B 109) B 110) B 111) B 112) A 113) B 114) B 115) C 116) A Version 1

117) C 118) C 119) B 120) B 121) B 122) A 123) B 124) B 125) C 126) B 127) B 128) C 129) D 130) C 131) A 132) C 133) D 134) C 135) C 136) E 137) B 138) A 139) C 140) E 141) D 142) A 143) calcitriol 144) hilum 145) columns 146) filtration Version 1

147) paracellular 148) inulin 149) nephrons 150) glomerulus 151) renin 152) trigone 153) micturition 154) mesangial 155) Both hormones increase water reabsorption, but aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption by principal cells (through increased synthesis of sodium pumps and channels), whereas ADH increases water reabsorption near the end ofthe tubule by stimulating increased insertion of aquaporins into principal cell membranes.

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CHAPTER 25 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) In elderly individuals, 75% of body weight is made up of fluid. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) When comparing two individuals of the same body weight, the one with more muscle and less fat will have a higher percentage of fluid in their body. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Most of the fluid in our body is contained within our cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) As an individual becomesdehydrated, the net movement of fluid in their body is from cells toward plasma. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) In order for a state of fluid balance to be achieved, obligatory water loss must equal facultative water loss. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Insensible water loss is an example of facultative water loss. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

During dehydration, blood plasma becomes hypotonic relative to the body's cells. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Extreme hypotonic hydration can cause brain cells to swell. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Fluid intake causes blood volume to increase. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Changes in blood osmolarity that turn off the thirst center also increase the release of ADH from the pituitary gland. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

Angiotensin II, aldosterone, and ADH each help decrease urine output. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) A substance that dissociates in water to form cations and anions is called a nonelectrolyte. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

Most nonelectrolytes are covalently bonded organic molecules. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14) Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system triggers renin release from the juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidneys. ⊚ ⊚

15)

true false

Angiotensin II stimulates the adrenal cortex to release aldosterone. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) Decreased stretch of baroreceptors within the aorta and carotid arteries results in stimulation of the hypothalamus; this stimulationincreases ADH secretion. ⊚ ⊚

17)

The release of aldosterone is triggered by a decrease in blood plasma potassium levels. ⊚ ⊚

18)

true false

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) inhibits the release of aldosterone, ADH, and renin. ⊚ ⊚

20)

true false

ANP causes an increase in the loss of sodium and water through urine. ⊚ ⊚

19)

true false

Fixed acid is also called volatile acid.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

21)

Lactic acid, a product of metabolism, is considered a volatile acid. ⊚ true ⊚ false

22)

Severe diarrhea leads to a decrease in the pH of the blood. ⊚ ⊚

true false

23) Collectively, the renal and respiratory systems comprise the chemical buffering system of the body. ⊚ ⊚

true false

24) Both intracellular proteins (such as hemoglobin) and extracellular proteins (such as plasma proteins) can act as chemical buffers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

25) To buffer the body's extracellular fluid compartment, dihydrogen phosphate acts as a strong base and prevents acidosis of the plasma. ⊚ ⊚

true false

26) The bicarbonate buffering system is the most important buffering system in the extracellular fluid. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

27)

Hyperventilation leads to respiratory alkalosis. ⊚ ⊚

28)

Excessive intake of alcohol leads to respiratory alkalosis. ⊚ ⊚

29)

true false

Impaired renal function within the elderly elevates their risk for acid-base imbalance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

30) To compensate for metabolic acidosis, the respiratory system increases breathing rate, which lowers the partial pressure of carbon dioxide below normal levels. ⊚ true ⊚ false

31)

Volatile acid is eliminated by the respiratory system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

32) Respiratory acid-base disturbances involve fluctuations in carbonic acid whereas metabolic acid-base disturbances involve fluctuations in bicarbonate levels. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 33) At which stage of life is the percentage of fluid in the human body highest? Version 1

A) Infancy B) Childhood C) Middle age D) Advanced age

34) When comparing a lean adult female to a lean adult male, which will most likely have a higher percentage of body fluid? A) The female B) The male

35) Fluid imbalances are more common in individuals with a _________ percentage of body fluid. A) high B) low

36) Elderly individuals generally have a _______ percentage of body fluid and are therefore _______ prone to fluidimbalances. A) high; more B) high; less C) low; less D) low; more

37)

A comparison of the two major body fluid compartments reveals that

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A) two-thirds ofthetotal fluid is outside our cells and one-third is within ourcells. B) two-thirds ofthetotal fluid is within our cells and one-third is outside ourcells. C) half ofthetotal fluid is within our cells and half is outside our cells. D) six-sevenths of thetotal fluid is within our cells and one-seventh is outside our cells. E) six-sevenths of the total fluid isoutside our cells and one-seventh is within our cells.

38) The plasma of our blood constitutes ______ than half of the fluid in our body; plasma is part of the _____________ fluid. A) more; intracellular B) more; extracellular C) less; intracellular D) less; extracellular

39)

Interstitial fluid composes about ________ of the body's extracellular fluid. A) one-tenth B) one-third C) one-half D) two-thirds E) nine-tenths

40) Cerebrospinal fluid of the central nervous system and synovial fluid of joint capsules are both examples of A) intracellularfluid. B) extracellularfluid.

41)

When compared to extracellular fluid, intracellular fluid contains

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A) more potassium andmore negatively charged proteins. B) more potassium butfewer negatively charged proteins. C) less potassium butmore negatively charged proteins. D) less potassium andless negatively charged proteins.

42) Interstitial fluid has a relatively _______ concentration of sodium and chloride; the concentrations of ionswithin theinterstitial fluid andblood plasma are very ______. A) high; similar B) high; different C) low; similar D) low; different

43) Which statement accurately describes the permeability to water of the cell membrane and the capillary wall? A) Both the plasmamembrane and the capillary wall are permeable to water. B) The plasmamembrane is permeable to water, but the capillary wall is not. C) The plasmamembrane is not permeable to water, but the capillary wall is. D) Neither the plasma membrane nor the capillary wall is permeable to water.

44)

Drinking a liter of water will cause the osmolarity of blood plasma to A) increase. B) decrease.

45) If someone runs a marathon through a desert while eating pretzels and not drinking water, their plasma osmolarity

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A) rises and becomeshypertonic to the interstitial and intracellular fluid compartments. B) rises and becomeshypotonic to the interstitial and intracellular fluid compartments. C) decreases andbecomes hypertonic to the interstitial and intracellular fluidcompartments. D) decreases andbecomes hypotonic to the interstitial and intracellular fluid compartments.

46)

Which type of intake accounts for most of our daily fluid intake? A) Metabolicwater B) Preformedwater

47)

Aerobic cellularrespiration and dehydration synthesis reactions result in A) metabolic waterintake. B) preformed waterintake. C) insensible wateroutput. D) preformed wateroutput. E) obligatory water output.

48)

Ingestion of food results in water

A) intake, as foodcontains some water. B) output, as foodabsorbs water and we lose more water through feces than we gain througheating.

49)

Water lost through feces is considered ___________ water loss.

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A) sensible,obligatory B) sensible,facultative C) insensible,obligatory D) insensible,facultative

50)

Facultative water loss is loss that A) occurs regardlessof the state of hydration of the body. B) is controlled byhormone effects on the kidney. C) occurs throughsweating and breathing.

51)

In the condition of volume excess, fluid gain involves A) an increase inosmolarity of body fluid. B) a decreaseinosmolarity of body fluid. C) no changeintheosmolarity of body fluid.

52) If someone in an accident suffered severe burns as well as hemorrhage, they would be at high risk for A) hypotonichydration. B) volumedepletion. C) hypotonicdehydration. D) volume excess.

53)

Renal failure would likely lead to A) volumedepletion. B) hypotonicity. C) volume excess. D) hypertonicascites.

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54)

Diabetes mellitus, profuse sweating, and hyposecretion of ADH can each lead to A) volume excess. B) dehydration. C) hypotonicplasma. D) overhydration.

55) Runners who drink too much water before a marathon run a risk of water intoxication, also known as A) diabetesinsipidus. B) volume excess. C) hypotonichydration. D) volumedepletion. E) hypertonic ascites.

56)

Edema is an example of A) dehydration. B) volumedepletion. C) total volumeexcess. D) fluidsequestration.

57) Blockage of lymphatic vessels or surgicalremoval of lymphatic vessels increases the likelihood of A) ascites, which isan example of volume depletion. B) ascites, which isan example of hypertonicity. C) edema, which is aan example of fluid sequestration. D) edema, which is aan example of volume depletion. E) pleural effusion, which is an exampleof hypertonic hydration.

58)

Feelings of thirstiness are brought on by

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A) increases insalivary secretions and increases in blood osmolarity. B) increases insalivary secretions and decreases in blood osmolarity. C) decreases insalivary secretions and increases in blood osmolarity. D) decreases insalivary secretions and decreases in blood osmolarity.

59)

Decreases in blood pressure turn _____ the thirst center of the brain. A) on B) off

60)

The thirst center of the brain is located in the A) hippocampus. B) hypothalamus. C) occipitallobe. D) pons.

61)

Distention of the stomach causes thirst to A) increase. B) decrease.

62)

Which of the following does not turn off the thirst center of the brain? A) Decreased bloodosmolarity B) Entry of fluid inthe stomach C) Decreased salivarysecretions D) Increased bloodpressure

63) When compared with the effects of blood pressure and osmolarity on fluid intake, the effects of saliva and stomach distention are Version 1

A) more immediate andmore accurate. B) more immediate butless accurate. C) more long-term andmore accurate. D) more long-term butless accurate.

64)

The hormone ANP A) increases urineoutput and increases blood volume. B) increases urineoutput and decreases blood volume. C) decreases urineoutput and decreases blood volume. D) decreases urineoutput and increases blood volume.

65)

The molecule HCl is an example of a(n) A) electrolyte. B) nonelectrolyte. C) base.

66) To account for their effects on osmotic pressure, the concentration of electrolytes is often expressed in A) moles. B) moieties. C) milliequivalentsper liter. D) moles perliter. E) milliliters.

67)

When NaCl is added to body fluids,it results in the addition of

Version 1

A) one soluteparticle per NaCl molecule and exerts an osmotic pressure equivalent to that ofa nonelectrolyte. B) two soluteparticles per NaCl molecule and exerts twice the osmotic pressure of the samenumber of nonelectrolyte molecules. C) three soluteparticles per NaCl molecule and exerts one-third the osmotic pressure of thesame number of nonelectrolyte molecules. D) one soluteparticle per NaCl molecule, but because it is uncharged it does not result inosmotic pressure.

68)

The most abundant cation within cells is A) sodium. B) potassium. C) calcium. D) chloride. E) magnesium.

69)

The most abundant anion in the extracellular fluid is A) negatively chargedproteins. B) phosphate. C) chloride. D) hydrogen. E) acetic acid.

70) Which ion is the principal solute of the ECF and is crucial for neuromuscular and renal function? A) Magnesium B) Phosphate C) Calcium D) Sodium E) Potassium

Version 1

71)

How are sodium levels and blood pressure related?

A) Increased plasmasodium levels decrease water retention, decrease blood volume, and increaseblood pressure. B) Decreased plasmasodium levels increase water retention, increase blood volume, and decreaseblood pressure. C) Increased plasmasodium levels increase water retention, blood volume, and blood pressure. D) Decreased plasmasodium levels decrease water retention, increase blood volume, and increaseblood pressure.

72)

Most potassium loss from the body occurs through A) sweat. B) urine. C) feces. D) respiration.

73)

When the pH of the ECF decreases, K+ starts to move from the A) ECF to theICF. B) ICF to theECF.

74) Insulin causes blood plasma levels of potassium to ________ by _______ activity of the + Na /K + pumps. A) increase; stimulating B) increase; inhibiting C) decrease; stimulating D) decrease; inhibiting

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75) Increases insecretion of the hormone ADH cause sodium concentration in the blood plasma to A) increase. B) stay at the samelevel. C) decrease.

76)

How does the hormone aldosterone influence potassium levels?

A) It increasespotassium secretion by the kidneys and increases potassium bloodconcentration. B) It increasespotassium secretion by the kidneys and decreases potassium bloodconcentration. C) It increasespotassium reabsorption by thekidneys and decreases potassium bloodconcentration. D) It increasespotassium reabsorption by thekidneys and increases potassium bloodconcentration.

77)

Low levels of calcium within cells are maintained by A) a high number ofvoltage-gated and leakage channels for calcium in cell membranes. B) frequentexocytosis and endocytosis of calcium-containing vesicles. C) pumps that movecalcium out of cells or into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. D) osmosis of largeamounts of water into cells that have any calcium within them.

78)

Renin is released from the juxtaglomerular apparatus in response to A) high blood pressureor increased NaCl in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule. B) high blood pressureor decreased NaCl in the fluid within the distal convoluted

tubule. C) low blood pressureor increased NaCl in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule. D) low blood pressureor decreased NaCl in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule.

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79)

Angiotensin II triggers A) vasoconstrictionand increased urine output from the kidneys. B) vasoconstrictionand decreased urine output from the kidneys. C) vasodilation andincreased urine output from the kidneys. D) vasodilation anddecreased urine output from the kidneys.

80)

Angiotensin II causes a(n) A) stimulation of thethirst center and increased release of ADH. B) stimulation of thethirst center and decreased release of ADH. C) inhibition of thethirst center and increased release of ADH. D) inhibition of thethirst center and decreased release of ADH.

81) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is synthesized in the _________ and released from the _________. A) anterior pituitary; posterior pituitary B) anterior pituitary; hypothalamus C) hypothalamus; posterior pituitary D) hypothalamus; anterior pituitary

82)

The stimuli that trigger the release of ADH are A) high bloodpressure, high blood volume, and high blood osmolarity. B) high bloodpressure, low blood volume, and low blood osmolarity. C) low bloodpressure, low blood volume, and high blood osmolarity. D) low bloodpressure, high blood volume, and high blood osmolarity. E) low blood pressure, low blood volume,and low blood osmolarity.

83)

High levels of ADH cause

Version 1

A) vasoconstrictionand therefore increases in blood pressure. B) vasoconstrictionand therefore decreases in blood pressure. C) vasodilation andtherefore increases in blood pressure. D) vasodilation andtherefore decreases in blood pressure.

84) In the brain ADH _______ the thirst center, and in the kidneys ADH causes an increase in water __________. A) stimulates; secretion B) stimulates; reabsorption C) inhibits; secretion D) inhibits; reabsorption

85)

The adrenal gland releases aldosterone in response to A) ANP and increasedblood plasma sodium levels. B) ANP and decreasedblood plasma sodium levels. C) angiotensinIIand increased blood plasma sodium levels. D) angiotensinIIand decreased blood plasma sodium levels.

86)

Aldosterone exerts effects on principal cells of the kidney by causing A) increased levels of cAMP and increases in the total number of Na+ channels. B) decreased levelsof cAMP and decreases in the number of openK + channels. C) increased numbersof Na +/K + pumps. D) decreased numbersof Na +/K + pumps.

87)

Aldosterone causes kidney tubules to

Version 1

A) reabsorb moresodium, water, and potassium. B) reabsorb moresodium and water, and secrete more potassium. C) reabsorb moresodium, and secret more water and potassium. D) secrete moresodium, water, and potassium. E) secrete more sodium and reabsorb morepotassium.

88)

The stimulus that directlytriggers release of ANP is A) decreased pressuredetected by baroreceptors in the aorta and carotid arteries. B) increased stretchof theheart atria. C) increased saltinessin the cerebrospinal fluid bathing the hypothalamus of the brain. D) increased saltinessof tubular fluid in the proximal convoluted tubule.

89)

The hormone ANP causes systemic blood vessels to A) constrict, whichraises blood pressure. B) constrict, whichlowers blood pressure. C) dilate, whichraises blood pressure. D) dilate, whichlowers blood pressure.

90) Atrial natriuretic peptide causes __________ of afferent arterioles and _________ of mesangial cells. A) constriction; contraction B) constriction; relaxation C) dilation; contraction D) dilation; relaxation

91)

Fixed acids are generally regulated by physiologicalbuffering provided bythe

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A) respiratorysystem. B) kidneys. C) lymphaticsystem.

92)

Most of the fixed acid in our body comes from A) the oxygen webreathe. B) acid absorbed fromthe GI tract. C) loss ofbicarbonate in feces. D) lactic acid frommuscle.

93)

A diet rich in animal protein contributes to increased levels of A) volatile acid. B) bicarbonateions. C) fixed acid.

94)

When blood starts to become too acidic, the kidneys respond by A) synthesizing andsecreting bicarbonate ions while reabsorbing H +. B) synthesizing andreabsorbing H + while filtering bicarbonate ions. C) synthesizing andreabsorbing bicarbonate ions while secreting H +. D) decreasingfiltration rate and increasing reabsorption of both bicarbonate ionsandH +. E) increasing filtration rate andincreasing reabsorption of H +.

95)

When blood starts to become more alkaline than normal, the renal tubules begin to A) secretebicarbonate and H + through type B cells. B) secretebicarbonate while reabsorbing H + in exchange through type Bcells. C) secreteH + while reabsorbing bicarbonate in exchange through type Acells. D) absorb bicarbonateand H + through type A cells.

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96)

The process by which the kidneys eliminate excess acid or base is relatively A) quick (takesminutes) and powerful. B) quick (takesminutes) but limited (is not very powerful). C) slow (takes hoursto days) but powerful. D) slow (takes hoursto days) and limited (is not very powerful).

97) If someone begins to hyperventilate due to anxiety, the CO blood decreases; this causes__________ in blood pH.

2 concentration in their

A) an increase B) a decrease C) no change

98)

If an individual's respiratory rate decreases, then bloodCO2 levels A) rise, blood H+levels rise, and blood pH rises. B) rise, blood H+levels rise, and blood pH falls. C) rise, blood H+levels fall, and blood pH falls. D) fall, blood H+levels rise, and blood pH rises. E) fall, blood H+ levels fall, and bloodpH falls.

99)

The amine groups contained within amino acids of proteins can act as weak A) acids. B) bases.

100) If a strong acid were to add H+ to the intracellular fluid, the effect would most likely be buffered, because

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A) HPO 4 2- would act as a weak acid and donate anH + to become PO 4 -. B) HPO 4 2- would act as a weak base and accept anH + to become H 2PO 4 -. C) H 2PO 4 - would act as a weak acid and accept anH + to become H 3PO 4 -. D) PO 4would act as a strong base and accept an H + to becomeHPO 4.

101) The bicarbonate system is composed of H accurately describes these molecules?

2CO

3 and HCO

3. Which statement

A) H 2CO 3 and HCO - 3 are both weak acids. B) H 2CO 3 is a weak acid, and HCO - 3 is a weak base. C) H 2CO 3 is a weak base, and HCO - 3 is a weak acid. D) H 2CO 3 and HCO - 3 are both strong bases. E) H 2CO 3 is a strong base, and HCO - 3 is a weak acid.

102) If a physiologic condition resulted in blood pH reaching 7.2, but then physiological buffering systems brought the pH to 7.4, that increase in pH would be called A) acidosis. B) alkalosis. C) compensation. D) imbalance. E) partial noncompensation.

103)

The most common type of acid-base imbalance is A) metabolicacidosis. B) metabolicalkalosis. C) respiratoryacidosis. D) respiratoryalkalosis.

104)

Respiratory acidosis occurs when the partial pressure of

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A) oxygen rises. B) oxygen falls. C) carbon dioxiderises. D) carbon dioxidefalls.

105) Emphysema causes a decrease in the surface area of the respiratory membrane and thereby leads to respiratory A) acidosis. B) alkalosis.

106) Compared to adults, infants are _______ susceptible to respiratory acidosis due to lower _________. A) more, carbondioxide levels. B) more, residualvolume. C) less, carbondioxide levels. D) less, residualvolume.

107)

Climbing at high altitude where oxygen levels are insufficient can lead to A) respiratoryacidosis. B) respiratoryalkalosis. C) metabolicacidosis. D) metabolicalkalosis.

108)

Medicines that overstimulate respiratory centers in the brain lead to

Version 1

A) respiratoryacidosis. B) respiratoryalkalosis. C) metabolicacidosis. D) metabolicalkalosis.

109) is

When bicarbonate levels fall due to an accumulation of fixed acids in the body, the result

A) metabolicacidosis. B) metabolicalkalosis. C) insufficientrespiration. D) respiratoryacidosis. E) respiratory alkalosis.

110)

Severe diarrhea results in the increased elimination of A) hydrogen ions andtherefore causes acidosis. B) hydrogen ions andtherefore causes alkalosis. C) bicarbonate ionsand therefore causes acidosis. D) bicarbonate ionsand therefore causes alkalosis.

111)

The high metabolic rate of infants puts them at increased risk of metabolic A) acidosis. B) alkalosis.

112)

Elevated HCO3- levels brought about by vomiting is classified as A) respiratoryacidosis. B) respiratoryalkalosis. C) metabolicacidosis. D) metabolicalkalosis.

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113) An individual who consumes many antacids for stomach upset and many diuretics for high blood pressure will be at risk for metabolic A) acidosis. B) alkalosis.

114)

Renal compensation for acidosis results in A) urine with a highpH and anelevation of blood bicarbonate levels. B) urine with a highpH and adecline of blood bicarbonate levels. C) urine with a low pHand anelevation of blood bicarbonate levels. D) urine with a low pHand a declineof blood bicarbonate levels.

115)

Renal compensation to a decrease in blood H+ levels is to increase the activity of type A) A cells to secrete more bicarbonate. B) A cells to secrete less bicarbonate. C) B cells to secrete more bicarbonate. D) B cells to secrete less bicarbonate.

116) The development of hypoxia can limit the effectiveness of respiratory compensation for metabolic A) acidosis. B) alkalosis.

117)

Fixed acid is regulated by the _____ through the absorption and elimination of _____.

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A) kidney; bicarbonate and H + B) respiratory system; bicarbonate and H + C) kidney; carbonic acid D) respiratory system; carbonic acid

118)

When pH decreases, the kidney responds by A) secreting H +. B) reabsorbing carbon dioxide. C) secreting bicarbonate. D) secreting carbonic acid.

119) Infants have a relatively low residual volume, putting them at risk for _____ to accumulate in the blood, resulting in _____. A) carbonic acid; respiratory acidosis B) carbonic acid; metabolic acidosis C) bicarbonate; respiratory acidosis D) bicarbonate; metabolic acidosis

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 120) When fluid intake equals fluid output, and there is a normal distribution of solvent and solutes in the body's fluid compartments,fluid ________ exists.

121) An accumulation of fluid in one area of the body, such that the fluid is not available for use elsewhere, is known as fluid _________.

122)

An elevated level of potassium in the blood is referred to as __________.

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123) Changes in blood osmolarity within capillaries of the hypothalamus are a signal for ADH release. The neurons that are sensitive to these changes in osmolarity are _________.

124) Carbonic acid is referred to as _________ acid because it is produced from a gas that evaporates quickly.

125) When bicarbonate acts as a weak base and accepts a proton, the molecule ________ acid is formed.

126) When physiological systems cannot compensate for an acid-base disturbance, and the deviation from normal pH becomes more persistent, it is referred to as an acid-base ________.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 127) Imagine that an unprepared hiker goes for a long walk on a hot day and gets lost. He hasno water, he isnervous, and he issweating profusely. What effects will these conditions have on his endocrine system, and how will the hormones that are secreted influence his renal system?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 25_4e 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) FALSE 21) FALSE 22) TRUE 23) FALSE 24) TRUE 25) FALSE 26) TRUE Version 1

27) TRUE 28) FALSE 29) TRUE 30) TRUE 31) TRUE 32) TRUE 33) A 34) B 35) B 36) D 37) B 38) D 39) D 40) B 41) A 42) A 43) A 44) B 45) A 46) B 47) A 48) A 49) A 50) B 51) C 52) B 53) C 54) B 55) C 56) D Version 1

57) C 58) C 59) A 60) B 61) B 62) C 63) B 64) B 65) A 66) C 67) B 68) B 69) C 70) D 71) C 72) B 73) B 74) C 75) C 76) B 77) C 78) D 79) B 80) A 81) C 82) C 83) A 84) B 85) D 86) C Version 1

87) B 88) B 89) D 90) D 91) B 92) B 93) C 94) C 95) B 96) C 97) A 98) B 99) B 100) B 101) B 102) C 103) C 104) C 105) A 106) B 107) B 108) B 109) A 110) C 111) A 112) D 113) B 114) C 115) C 116) B Version 1

117) A 118) A 119) A 120) balance 121) sequestration 122) hyperkalemia 123) chemoreceptors 124) volatile 125) carbonic 126) imbalance 127) Sympathetic stimulation (nervousness), low blood volume (from sweating), and high blood osmolarity (sweat is dilute) will stimulate secretion of renin and ADH. These hormones will cause vessel constriction, decreases in GFR, increased thirst, increased reabsorption of water in the kidneys, and increased secretion of aldosterone.

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CHAPTER 26 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The term "motility" refers onlyto involuntary contractions (not voluntary contractions) that mix andmove materials through the GI tract. ⊚ ⊚

The gallbladder is part of the gastrointestinal tract. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The esophagus is part of the gastrointestinal tract. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The pancreas is part of the alimentary canal. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The liver and gallbladder are accessory digestive organs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) The function of the muscularis of the GI tract wall is to both propel and mix the contents of the tract. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Short reflexes of digestion involve the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves.

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⊚ ⊚

Long reflexes of digestioninvolve activity of the central nervous system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Sympathetic stimulation causes saliva to be more viscous. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

The stomach is considered part of the upper gastrointestinal tract. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

Mastication is one component of the mechanical digestion of food. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) The upper half of the esophagus contains smooth muscle and the lower half contains skeletal muscle. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) The pharyngeal phase of swallowing is a voluntary process that is controlled bythe cerebral cortex. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14)

Cholecystokinin decreases stomach motility and inhibits release of gastrin. ⊚ ⊚

15)

true false

The transverse colon is part of the upper gastrointestinal tract. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) The outer layer of the mucularis of the colon is discontinuous (does not entirely surround the colon), and forms the bundles of smooth muscles known as the teniae coli. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) Vitamin K and B vitamins produced by bacteria of the large intestine are absorbed into the blood. ⊚ ⊚

18)

Salivary amylase is activated once it enters the acidic environment of the stomach. ⊚ ⊚

19)

true false

Maltase is a brush border enzyme of the small intestinethat digests the sugar maltose. ⊚ ⊚

true false

20) Chief cells store and release an inactive precursor of a proteolytic enzyme (rather than the active form)to avoid destroying proteins within themselves. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 3

21) Bile catalyzes the breakdown of triglyceride into a monoglyceride and two free fatty acids. ⊚ ⊚

true false

22) Once micelles enter intestinal epithelial cells, fatty acids and monoglycerides combine to form triglycerides. ⊚ ⊚

true false

23) During swallowing, elevation of the uvula and soft palate prevents food or fluid from entering the nasopharynx. ⊚ ⊚

true false

24) The submandibular ducts open into the floor of the oral cavity, lateral to the lingual frenulum. ⊚ ⊚

25)

true false

The pharynx is lined with a keratinized epithelium to protect against abrasion. ⊚ ⊚

true false

26) The quadrate lobe is visible on the inferior surface of the liver, adjacent to the gallbladder. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

27)

Pancreatic juice is secreted by the exocrine pancreatic acini. ⊚ ⊚

28)

The cystic duct and common bile duct unite to form the common hepatic duct. ⊚ ⊚

29)

true false

The small and large intestines are considered part of the lower GI tract. ⊚ ⊚

true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 30) Select all that describe the movements of the small intestine. A) Segmentation B) Peristalsis C) Haustral churning D) Mass movements

31) The pancreas produces enzymes that digest which of the following nutrients? Select all that apply. A) Carbohydrates B) Proteins C) Lipids D) Nucleic acids

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 32) Which is not a function of the digestive system? A) Absorption B) Ingestion C) Secretion D) Micturition E) Elimination

33)

Which organ is not part of the gastrointestinal tract? A) Esophagus B) Large intestine C) Stomach D) Oral cavity E) Liver

34)

Which organ is not considered an accessory digestive organ? A) Tongue B) Teeth C) Pancreas D) Salivaryglands E) Pharynx

35) An organ that helps break down food but is not part of the tube through which the foodstuffs pass is referred to as a(n)

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A) chemicallydigesting organ. B) accessorydigestive organ. C) alimentary canalorgan. D) diffuse ingestivestructure. E) organ of mastication.

36)

Peristalsis

A) is under voluntarycontrol. B) involves theopening and closing of muscular sphincters. C) involvesback-and-forth movement for mixing. D) is the alternating contraction of muscle layers in the GI tract wall thatpropels materials through the tract. E) All of the choices are correct.

37)

The initial site of both mechanical and chemical digestion is the A) stomach. B) smallintestine. C) esophagus. D) oral cavity. E) pharynx.

38)

The __________ are considered theopening from the oral cavity to the oropharynx. A) fauces B) choana C) conchae D) fossae E) glossus

39)

Where are the transverse palatine folds located?

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A) Soft palate B) Glossopalatine arch C) Hard palate D) Pharyngopalatine arch E) Labial frenulum

40)

Which bones form the hard palate? A) Palatine bones B) Maxillae and inferior nasal conchae C) Ethmoid and sphenoid bones D) Palatine bones and maxillae E) Maxillae and sphenoid

41)

What type of epithelium lines the majority of the oral cavity? A) Keratinized stratified squamous B) Nonkeratinized stratified squamous C) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar D) Keratinized stratified cuboidal E) Nonkeratinized stratified cuboidal

42)

The lining of the gastrointestinal tract that allows for absorption and secretion is A) keratinizedstratified squamous epithelium. B) nonkeratinizedstratfied squamous epithelium. C) areolar connectivetissue. D) simple columnarepithelium. E) simple squamous epithelium.

43)

Lipid molecules that are absorbed from the GI tract enter

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A) mesentericarteries. B) mesentericveins. C) lymphaticcapillaries. D) the liver.

44)

A sphincter is a

A) thickening of thelongitudinal layer of the muscularis that propels materials through the GItract. B) thickening of thecircular layer of the muscularis that controls movement of materials throughthe GI tract. C) fold of the mucosaof the GI tract that increases the total surface area for absorption ofnutrients. D) circle ofadventitia that anchors the GI tract to neighboring structures.

45)

The type of receptor within the GI tract wall that detects stretch is the A) steroidreceptor. B) chemoreceptor. C) mechanoreceptor. D) retroperitonealproprioceptor.

46)

Mechanoreceptors and chemoreceptors are found in the A) adventitia of theupper portion of the GI tract. B) epithelium of theinferior portion of the GI tract. C) mucosa andsubmucosa of the GI tract along its length. D) myenteric plexusof the mucosa of the intestine. E) muscularis interna of the entire lengthof the GI tract.

47) If a fatty meal has been ingested, the liver and gallbladder need to be alerted about the need for bile. The receptors that are responsible for sensing the fat in the ingested food are refered to as Version 1

A) bilireceptors. B) mechanoreceptors. C) chemoreceptors. D) omentalneurons E) osmodetectors.

48) In some digestive reflexes, the facial nervestimulates salivary glands; the salivary glands are acting as A) afferents. B) receptors. C) efferents. D) effectors. E) control centers.

49)

Secretin is a hormone that is secreted by the A) stomach. B) smallintestine. C) largeintestine. D) liver. E) pancreas.

50)

Cholecystokinin is a(n) _________ released by the _________. A) enzyme; stomach B) enzyme; small intestine C) enzyme; gallbladder D) hormone; small intestine E) hormone; gallbladder

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51) Which of the following is considered to beone of the primary digestive system hormones? A) Bile B) Gastrin C) Hydrochloricacid D) Pancreaticamylase

52)

Anenzyme found within saliva is salivary A) pancreatase. B) nuclease. C) amylase. D) protease. E) pepsin.

53)

The lingual salivary glands are A) unicellulilarendocrine glands. B) unicellulilar exocrine glands. C) multicellulilarendocrine glands. D) multicellulilarexocrine glands.

54)

The buccal, lingual, and labial salivary glands are __________ salivary glands. A) extrinsic B) intrinsic

55)

Most saliva is produced by the _________ gland.

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A) parotid B) submandibular C) sublingual D) lingual E) buccal

56)

Lysozyme within saliva primarily functions to A) moisten anddispersefood. B) initiate thechemical breakdown of starch. C) inhibit bacterialgrowth. D) wash materials offteeth.

57)

An increased secretion of watery saliva will result when the

A) basal nuclei ofthe brainstem activate sympathetic pathways to salivary glands. B) basal nuclei ofthe cerebrum activate somatic pathways to salivary glands. C) salivary nuclei ofthe brainstem activate parasympathetic pathways to salivary glands. D) salivary nuclei ofthe cerebrum activate sympathetic pathways to salivary glands. E) glossopharyngealnuclei of the pons activate somatic and sympathetic pathways to the salivaryglands.

58)

The mastication center is located in the _____________ of the brain. A) hippocampus andamygdala B) medulla andpons C) hypothalamus D) entorhinal cortexand basal nuclei E) solitary nucleus

59)

Mastication is a process thatfacilitates

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A) propulsion ofmaterialsthrough the intestine, and it involves simultaneous secretion ofenzymes. B) mixing of foodwithin the stomach, and it occurs with simultaneous hormone secretionthere. C) swallowing offood, and it increases the surface area of the food for exposure toenzymes. D) absorption ofnutrients into the bloodstream, and it involves carrier proteins in theepithelium.

60) The projections on the superior surface of the tongue, some of which house taste buds, are the A) tonsils. B) cilia. C) rugae. D) glossalspines. E) papillae.

61) Late one night, while studying for your anatomy class, you open a box of saltine crackers to do a little snacking. After chewing on a starchy morsel for a few minutes, you begin to notice a sweet taste in your mouth. What accounts for this? A) “Sweet” tastereceptors are slower to respond than others B) Activity ofbacteria in the mouth lowers the pH C) Esophagealreflux D) Salivary amylaseactivity E) Phagocytosis by the pharyngeal tonsils produces by-products that taste sweet

62)

Which cranial nerves innervate the salivary glands?

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A) V and VII B) XI and XII C) VII and IX D) VI and IX E) V and XI

63)

Which of the following statements is true about teeth? A) The primarycomponent of teeth is dentin. B) The outer surfaceof enamel forms the crown of a tooth. C) The root is coveredby cementum. D) All of the choices are correct.

64) The deciduous teeth are the _________ teeth, and there are a total of ____ deciduous teeth. A) milk; 8 B) milk; 20 C) wisdom; 4 D) permanent; 20 E) permanent; 28

65)

The term “canines” describes the teeth that A) are most anterior,used for slicing and cutting. B) are lateral to theincisors, used for puncturing and tearing. C) bear dental cuspsfor cutting and grinding. D) are only found aspermanent teeth.

66)

The central cavity of a tooth is filled with

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A) cementum. B) dentin. C) pulp. D) enamel. E) calciumphosphate.

67) Which is the layer of the serous membrane that directly covers the surface of internal organs? A) Omental layer B) Visceralperitoneum C) Parietalperitoneum D) Rectalperitoneum E) Muscularis mucosa

68)

Which list of terms progresses from the most superficial structure to the deepest? A) Peritoneal cavity,visceral peritoneum, parietal peritonoeum B) Parietalperitoneum, peritoneal cavity, visceral peritoneum C) Visceralperitoneum, peritoneal cavity, parietal peritoneum D) Visceral peritoneum, parietal peritoneum, peritoneal cavity

69)

Which is not a fold of peritoneum that forms a mesentery? A) Lesser omentum B) Falciform ligament C) Mesentery proper D) Mesocolon E) Intraperitoneal ligament

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70) The term “retroperitoneal” may be used to describe the location of certain abdominal organs. This means that such organs are located A) between thevisceral and parietal layers of the peritoneum. B) posterior to theparietal peritoneum. C) in the peritonealcavity. D) between folds ofthe parietal peritoneum. E) deep to thevisceral peritoneum.

71)

Which peritoneal fold supports the large intestine? A) Greater omentum B) Lesser omentum C) Falciform ligament D) Mesocolon E) Peritoneal ligament

72)

Which peritoneal fold attaches the liver to the anterior internal body wall? A) Coronary ligament B) Falciform ligament C) Mesentery proper D) Intraperitoneal ligament E) Hepatic ligament

73)

Which organ is retroperitoneal? A) Stomach B) Jejunum C) Transverse colon D) Pancreas E) Cecum

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74) The accumulation of large amounts of adipose tissue in the __________ that extends from the inferolateral surface of the stomachcan form what is commonly called a “beer belly”. A) greateromentum B) mesenteryproper C) mesocolon D) lesser omentum E) falciformligament

75) The gastroenterologist has just determined that you have a blockage in your jejunum and he will have to perform surgery, making a small incision in the wall to remove the obstruction. Which tunic will be cut first? A) Mucosa B) Submucosa C) Tunica muscularis D) Serosa E) Adventitia

76) What is the correct order for the layers of the GI tract wall, from innermost (next to lumen) to outermost? A) Mucosa - submucosa - adventitia/serosa - muscularis B) Muscularis - mucosa - adventitia/serosa - submucosa C) Adventitia/serosa - mucosa - submucosa - muscularis D) Mucosa - submucosa - muscularis - adventitia/serosa E) Adventitia/serosa - muscularis - mucosa - submucosa

77)

For the majority of the GI tract, which layer(s) of the wall contain smooth muscle?

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A) Muscularisonly B) Mucosa andadventitia C) Serosa only D) Mucosa and muscularis E) Submucosa andmuscularis

78)

Which layer(s) of the wall of the GI tract contain a nerve plexus? A) Muscularisonly B) Mucosa andserosa C) Adventitiaonly D) Mucosa and muscularis E) Submucosa and muscularis

79)

The esophagus A) secretes digestiveenzymes from its mucosa. B) is located anteriorto the trachea. C) opens to thestomach at the pyloric sphincter. D) contains bothsmooth and skeletal muscle fibers. E) is lined withpseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.

80)

The inferior esophageal sphincter is also known as the A) cardiacsphincter. B) pyloricsphincter. C) pharyngoesophagealsphincter. D) pharyngealgastricsphincter. E) esophagealhiatus.

81)

Stenosis (constriction) of the pyloric sphincter would interfere with

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A) passage of bileand pancreatic juice into the duodenum. B) peristalsis. C) passage of a bolusinto the stomach. D) passage of chymeinto the duodenum. E) mucussecretion.

82) Manufacturers of some medications used to treat heartburn advertise that their products shut down the acid-producing pumps in the stomach. Where are these “acid-producing pumps”? In other words, which type of gastric gland cell secretes acid? A) Chief cells B) Parietal cells C) Mucous neck cells D) Surface mucous cells E) Enteroendocrine cells

83)

Of the five types of secretory cells in the gastric glands, which ones secrete pepsinogen? A) Chief cells B) Parietal cells C) Surface mucous cells D) Mucous neck cells E) Enteroendocrine cells

84)

Gastric mixing changes A) foodstuffs intobile. B) food intochyle. C) a bolus intochyme. D) chyle intopepsin. E) proteins into lipids.

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85)

Which phase of digestion involves the thought, smell, and sight of food? A) Gastric phase B) Cephalic phase C) Enteric phase D) Colic phase

86) The presence of food in the stomach triggers the release of a hormone that stimulates contraction of the pyloric sphincter. Specifically, these events involve release of A) secretin in thecephalic phase of digestion. B) gastrin in thegastric phase of digestion. C) CCK in the intestinal phase of digestion. D) lipase in theintestinal phase of digestion. E) chyle in the secretory phase ofdigestion

87) Duodenal glands (Brunner glands) that secrete a viscous mucus into the small intestine are located in the A) serosa. B) adventitia. C) mucosa. D) submucosa. E) muscularis interna.

88)

"Segmentation" within the small intestine refers to the A) propulsion ofmaterial between the segments ofthe GI tract. B) division offunction between the different segments of the small intestine. C) back-and-forthmotion that mixes chyme with glandular secretions. D) gastroileal reflexthat moves materials from the stomach to the large intestine.

89)

Villi

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A) are foundthroughout the gastrointestinal tract. B) generate movementof materials in the large intestine. C) increase surfacearea in the small intestine. D) contain bothsmooth and skeletal muscle fibers. E) All of the choices are correct.

90)

Protein digestion begins in the A) stomach. B) mouth. C) esophagus. D) smallintestine. E) largeintestine.

91)

Lacteals A) are found only inthe large intestine. B) absorb the productsof fat digestion. C) secrete intestinaljuice. D) connect directly tothe liver. E) All of the choices are correct.

92) Which of the following is the correct sequence of regions of the small intestine, from beginning to end? A) Ileum - duodenum - jejunum B) Jejunum - duodenum - ileum C) Duodenum - ileum - jejunum D) Ileum - jejunum - duodenum E) Duodenum - jejunum - ileum

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93) What is the correct order for the list of structures of the large intestine, starting at the cecum and ending at the rectum? a: Left colic flexure b: Ascending colon c: Transverse colon d: Right colic flexure e: Sigmoid colon f: Descending colon A) f, c, d, e, a, b B) b, d, c, a, f, e C) e, b, a, c, d, f D) b, a, c, d, f, e E) e, b, d, c, a, f

94) Which region of the digestive tract moves material by peristalsis, haustral churning, and mass movement? A) Large intestine B) Small intestine C) Stomach D) Esophagus E) Pharynx

95)

What is the primary function of the large intestine? A) Storage of vitamins and minerals B) Protein digestion and nutrient absorption C) Water and electrolyte absorption D) Secretion of water, salts, sodium bicarbonate, and enzymes

96)

Which is (are) not found in the wall of the large intestine?

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A) Goblet cells B) Simple columnar epithelium C) Lymphoid nodules D) Villi E) Intestinal glands

97) Bacteria within the large intestine, some of which produce vitamins, are called __________ bacteria. A) indigenous B) exogenous C) parasitic D) pathogenic

98)

Which duct transports bile to and from the gallbladder? A) Common bile duct B) Pancreatic duct C) Hepatopancreatic duct D) Cystic duct E) Hepatic duct

99)

What material is transported in the sinusoids of the liver? A) Bile B) Arterial blood C) Venous blood D) Mixed arterial and venous blood E) Hepatic juice

100)

What structures compose a portal triad?

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A) Branches of the hepatic artery, hepatic vein, and hepatic duct B) Branches of the common bile duct, central vein, and hepatic artery C) Branches of the hepatic duct, cystic duct, and central vein D) Branches of the hepatic artery, hepatic portal vein, and hepatic duct E) Branches of the cystic duct, central vein, and hepatic artery

101)

Which is not a lobe of the liver? A) Right lobe B) Caudate lobe C) Round lobe D) Quadrate lobe E) Left lobe

102)

Stenosis (constriction) of the hepatopancreatic ampulla would interfere with A) the transport ofbile and pancreatic juice. B) the secretion ofmucus. C) the passage ofchyme into the small intestine. D) peristalsis. E) salivary glandsecretion.

103) The pancreas is located primarily on the ______ side of the body, and it produces an _______juice that is rich in a variety of enzymes. A) left, acidic B) left, alkaline C) right, acidic D) right, alkaline

104)

Vagus nerve activity ________ release of pancreatic juice.

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A) stimulates B) inhibits

105) The presence of fatty chyme in the small intestine stimulates it to release _______, which causes the _____. A) gastrin;liver to secrete analkaline solution B) CCK; gallbladder to release bile C) CCK; stomach to increase gastric secretion D) secretin;stomach to increase motility E) secretin;pancreas to release acidic pancreatic juice

106)

Which is an accurate description of glucose and sucrose?

A) Glucose is amonosaccharide, sucrose is a polysaccharide, both molecules are starches. B) Glucose is amonosaccharide, sucrose is a disaccharide, both molecules arecarbohydrates. C) Glucose is adisaccharide, sucrose is a monosaccharide, both molecules are lipids. D) Glucose is adisaccharide, sucrose is a glycolipid, both molecules are essentialnutrients. E) Glucose is a monoamine, sucrose is adipeptide, both molecules are acidic.

107)

Amylase from saliva digests A) lipids. B) protein. C) glucose. D) starch.

108) Lactose intolerant individuals cannot digest the _________ lactose because they lack the enzyme _________.

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A) polysaccharide; maltase B) disaccharide; lactase C) monosaccharide; dextrolactase D) lipid; pancreatic lipase E) fatty acid; sucrolactase

109) Digestion of carbohydrates within the small intestine involves enzymes that come from the a: mouth. b: stomach. c: pancreas. d: lining of the small intestine.

A) a, b B) b, c C) c, d D) a, d E) a, b, c, d

110)

Digestion of proteins is initiated by the enzyme A) amylase. B) hydrochloricacid. C) aminopeptidase. D) pepsin. E) CCK.

111)

The enzyme pepsin becomes active when pH is A) high. B) low.

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112)

Pepsinogen is an

A) active enzyme thatis released in the small intestine and digests carbohydrates. B) inactive precursorto the enzyme pepsin that digests proteins in the stomach. C) active enzyme thatdigests proteins within the small intestine. D) inactive precursorto a nonspecific enzyme that is synthesized in the pancreas and released in thesmall intestine.

113)

Proteolytic enzymes secreted from the pancreas are activated A) once they reachthe pancreatic duct. B) within the lumenof the small intestine. C) in secretoryvesicles within pancreatic secretory cells. D) once they reachthe large intestine.

114)

Carboxypeptidase is an enzyme that helps digest A) amino acids withinthe stomach. B) complexcarbohydrates within the small intestine. C) peptides withinthe small intestine. D) disaccharideswithin the duodenum. E) starch within the stomach.

115) As a protein is broken down into smaller and smaller fragments, each fragmentultimately requires splitting of the last peptide bond within it. The breaking of the bond between those last two amino acids is catalyzed by the enzyme A) pepsin. B) chymotrypsin. C) dipeptidase. D) trypsin. E) glucoamylase.

116)

Bile salts are

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A) amphipathic. B) completely hydrophilic. C) completely hydrophobic.

117)

Nucleic acids are digested within the A) mouth. B) stomach. C) smallintestine. D) pancreas. E) large intestine.

118)

Nucleosidase is an enzyme that breaks the A) phosphodiesterbond between nucleotides within DNA. B) bond that attachesthe phosphate to the nucleoside. C) bond between thesugar and the nitrogenous base of the nucleoside. D) bonds within thenitrogenous bases of rRNA.

119) Intestinal glands contain ____________ cells, which secrete antimicrobial substances such as lysozyme. A) paneth B) stem C) enteroendocrine D) absorptive

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 120) There are two aspects to digestion: chemical digestion and _______________ digestion.

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121) Chewed food mixed with saliva is called a _____________, which is swallowed once mastication is complete.

122) The largest salivary gland is the ________ gland, and its duct opens near the second upper molar.

123)

The process of swallowing is also called _____________.

124) The wall of the pharynx is formed by three muscle pairs: the superior, middle, and inferior pharyngeal _______________.

125) At the pylorus of the stomach, closure of the pyloric sphincter during the multistep process of gastric emptying leads to a reverse current of material; this reverse flow event is known as ___________.

126)

A lymphatic capillary within a villus of the small intestine is called a ____________.

127) Of the three regions of the small intestine, the terminal (end) portion is the _____________.

128) A complex carbohydrate that consists of several repeating units of simple sugars is referred to as a _________.

129) The process by which bile breaks up large fat droplets into smaller ones is called __________.

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130) Within intestinal epithelial cells, lipids are wrapped in a protein coat to form __________, which will be packaged into secretory vesicles at the Golgi apparatus.

131)

Lipids are absorbed from the small intestine into lymphatic capillaries called _________.

132) lips.

The _____________ is the region of the oral cavity between the gums and the cheeks or

133) The teniae coli of the large intestine pull the large intestine into many sacs, collectively called _____________.

134) The sinusoids of the liver are lined by phagocytic reticuloendothelial cells, also called ___________ cells.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 135) Describe the anatomy and physiology of swallowing. Specifically, explain the three phases of swallowing, and how they are controlled.

136) The gastrointestinal tract lining changes along its length. Choose one section of the tract that has a simple epithelium and one section that has a stratified epithelium, and for each section describe the specific epithelium present andhow that type of epithelium suits the organ's function.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 26_4e 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) TRUE 20) TRUE 21) FALSE 22) TRUE 23) TRUE 24) TRUE 25) FALSE 26) TRUE Version 1

27) TRUE 28) FALSE 29) TRUE 30) [A, B] 31) [A, B, C, D] 32) D 33) E 34) E 35) B 36) D 37) D 38) A 39) C 40) D 41) B 42) D 43) C 44) B 45) C 46) C 47) C 48) D 49) B 50) D 51) B 52) C 53) B 54) B 55) B 56) C Version 1

57) C 58) B 59) C 60) E 61) D 62) C 63) D 64) B 65) B 66) C 67) B 68) B 69) E 70) B 71) D 72) B 73) D 74) A 75) D 76) D 77) D 78) E 79) D 80) A 81) D 82) B 83) A 84) C 85) B 86) B Version 1

87) D 88) C 89) C 90) A 91) B 92) E 93) B 94) A 95) C 96) D 97) A 98) D 99) D 100) D 101) C 102) A 103) B 104) A 105) B 106) B 107) D 108) B 109) C 110) D 111) B 112) B 113) B 114) C 115) C 116) A Version 1

117) C 118) C 119) A 120) mechanical 121) bolus 122) parotid 123) deglutition 124) constrictors 125) retropulsion 126) lacteal 127) ileum 128) polysaccharide 129) emulsification 130) chylomicrons 131) lacteals 132) vestibule 133) haustra 134) Kupffer 135) The cerebrum and skeletal muscles govern the voluntary phase, which is followed by the involuntary pharyngeal phase(coordination of palate and pharynxy governed by medulla), and the involuntary esophageal phase (peristalsis and sphincter coordination). 136) A variety of answers are possible, but an obvious example follows. The oral cavity and pharynx have stratified squamous epithelium to contend with the friction of the food that is ingested. The small intestine has a simple columnar epithelium with many secretory cells; this epithelium is thin and has many microvilli (large surface area)to allow for efficient absorprtion and secretion.

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CHAPTER 27 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Simple sugars are carbohydrates. ⊚ ⊚

true false

For a protein to be complete, it must contain twenty-six different types of amino acids. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Most amino acids are essential amino acids. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Incomplete proteins contain all essential amino acids, but none of the others. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Essential amino acids are so physiologically important that the body can synthesize them by modifying other (nonessential) amino acids. ⊚ ⊚

Citrus fruit is a good source of fat-soluble vitamins. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The body is able to produce and recycle vitamin A (retinol) as needed.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

Essential vitamins must be provided in the diet. ⊚ ⊚

true false

A deficiency in thiamine (vitamin B1) may result in a weakened heart and edema. ⊚ true ⊚ false

10)

Minerals are organic molecules. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) Spinach is a complete food, as it contains all ofthe essential amino acids, all of the major minerals, and all of the water-soluble vitamins. ⊚ true ⊚ false

12)

Vegetable oils and fish oils are dietarysources of triglycerides. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) Since beans contain the essential amino acid methionine, beans are considered complete protein sources. ⊚ ⊚

true false

14) Individuals who are growing or recovering from an injury exhibit positive nitrogen balance. Version 1

⊚ ⊚

15)

true false

Tea canserve as a source of manganese. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) Recommended daily allowances are government-established values for nutrient intake that are used for food planning and labeling. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) According to the MyPlate system, bread, cereals, rice, and pasta should make up a little more than halfof an individual's diet. ⊚ ⊚

18)

true false

Food labels are required by law to include the amount of cholesterol in each serving. ⊚ ⊚

true false

19) The number of essential amino acids in a food product is required to be placed on its label. ⊚ ⊚

true false

20) One of the ultimateeffects of insulin is to stimulate protein synthesis within cells of the body. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

21)

Glucagon stimulates the liver to form glycogen from glucose. ⊚ ⊚

true false

22) Low dietary intake of cholesterol triggers cholesterol synthesis within the liver to increase. ⊚ ⊚

true false

23) The majority of the bile salts synthesized from cholesterol are removed from the body as a component of feces. ⊚ ⊚

24)

The liver is involved in the metabolism of each of the three major nutrient biomolecules. ⊚ ⊚

25)

true false

The liver absorbs bilirubin and eliminates it as part of bile. ⊚ ⊚

26)

true false

The liver serves as a storage site for vitamin A and vitamin D. ⊚ ⊚

true false

27) One of the products of tryglyceride breakdown is glycerol; glycerol enters the cellular respiration pathway by being converted to glucose (in the liver)and thenundergoing glycolysis.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

28) Whenever an amino acid is used for cellular respiration, it enters the pathway at the intermediate stage. ⊚ ⊚

true false

29) Individuals who consume excess carbohydrates can deposit additional triglycerides into their adipose tissue. ⊚ ⊚

30)

true false

Age, sex, hormone levels, and stress all influence basal metabolic rate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

31) Because basal metabolic rate is constant across individuals, everyone has a core body temperature of 98.6°F. ⊚ true ⊚ false

32) Conscious changes in behavior governed by the cerebral cortex do not meaningfullycontribute to regulation of body temperature. ⊚ ⊚

33)

true false

Thyroid hormone increases metabolic rate. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

34)

Protein is a macronutrient. ⊚ true ⊚ false

35) Some amino acids can be synthesized by the body. Such an amino acid would be classified as a nonessential nutrient. ⊚ true ⊚ false

36)

Cholesterol is both acquired through the diet and synthesized in the body. ⊚ true ⊚ false

37)

Cholesterol is a required component of cell membranes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

38)

The metabolic rate is the measure of energy used in a given period of time. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 39) Disaccharides are one typeof A) carbohydrate. B) starch. C) lipid. D) essential aminoacid. E) triglyceride.

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40)

Triglycerides and steroids are both examples of A) essential aminoacids. B) nonessential aminoacids. C) lipids. D) carbohydrates. E) proteins.

41)

Gram for gram, the largest amount ofenergy can be stored in the body in the form of A) vitamins. B) steroids. C) triglycerides. D) monosaccharides. E) polysaccharides.

42)

A nonessential amino acid is one that A) is not used in anyphysiological functions. B) can be made withinthe body. C) has the samestructure as one of the other amino acids. D) needs to come fromthe diet.

43)

Vitamin C is a A) fat-soluble,essential vitamin. B) fat-soluble,nonessential vitamin. C) water-soluble,essential vitamin. D) water-soluble,nonessential vitamin.

44) Whichtype of vitamins will be absorbed from the intestine into lacteals (lymphatic capillaries)?

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A) Fat-soluble B) Water-soluble

45)

Vitamins A, D, E, and K are A) fat-soluble. B) water-soluble.

46) Cofactors such as NADH are found in all cells of the body and are often recycled. Such cofactors are categorized as __________ vitamins. A) essential B) nonessential

47)

A deficiency in vitamin _____ may result in night blindness as well as dry, flaky skin. A) A B) B 12 C) C D) D E) E

48)

A deficiency in vitamin ______ may lead to bleeding problems. A) A B) K C) D D) E E) C

49)

Inorganic ions such as sodium and potassium are

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A) vitamins. B) essential aminoacids. C) minerals. D) tracecarbohydrates.

50)

All of the following are associated with a deficiency in calcium, except A) loss of bone mass. B) muscle weakness. C) anemia. D) depressed nerve activity.

51)

Iron is considered a A) major mineral, because it has a crucial physiological role. B) trace mineral,because less than 100 milligrams are required daily in the diet. C) major mineral,because it is extremely abundant in the Earth. D) trace mineral,because it is rare on the Earth.

52)

Muscle cramps are associated with a deficiency in A) copper. B) chloride. C) vitamin A. D) monosaccharides.

53)

Calcium, chloride, and potassium are all examples of _______ minerals. A) major B) trace C) fat-soluble D) nonessential

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54)

Iodine is an example of a(n) A) essential aminoacid. B) vitamin. C) mineral. D) nitrogenousbase.

55)

Milk is a source of lactose, which is a A) lipid. B) carbohydrate. C) protein. D) vitamin.

56) Cellulose is a type of __________ from plants that remains in the GI tract as fiber and aids in the movement of material through the tract. A) vitamin B) lipid C) protein D) carbohydrate E) mineral

57)

Fruits, maple syrup, and sugar are all sources of A) cellulose. B) sucrose. C) lactose. D) nitrogen.

58)

Lacto-ovo vegetarians do not eat animal flesh,

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A) nor do they eatmilk, eggs, or cheese. B) but do eat milk,eggs, and cheese.

59)

Positive nitrogen balance is a condition where A) an individual'snitrogen input is equal to its loss in urine and feces. B) an individualabsorbs more nitrogen than is excreted. C) an individual'snitrogen intake is greater than phosphate intake. D) too many proteinsare being ingested in the diet. E) a food has a positive effect on bloodnitrogen levels.

60)

Negative nitrogen balance is commonly seen in individuals who A) are pregnant orgrowing. B) have lost blood orare malnourished.

61) on

Recommended daily allowances established by the Food and Nutrition Board are based

A) individual needsand factor in sex, age, and body mass. B) averages obtainedfrom population studies.

62) Recommended daily allowances were established by the Food and Nutrition board as directed by the A) largestfood-producing companies. B) National Academyof Sciences.

63)

In 2011, the USDA created ________ to replace the food pyramid.

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A) RDA B) the Food andNutrition Board C) MyPlate D) NutritionFacts

64)

MyPlate depicts fruits and vegetables occupying _______ of the plate. A) one-tenth B) one-fourth C) one-half D) nine-tenths

65)

The fed state occurs A) about 12 hoursafter a meal, when you are sleeping. B) from when you areeating until about 4 hours after the meal.

66)

During the fed state, insulin release is A) inhibited. B) stimulated.

67)

In response to the increased availability of nutrients during the fed state, liver and muscle A) increaseglycogenesis. B) increasegluconeogenesis. C) decrease aminoacid uptake. D) All of the choices are correct.

68)

Insulin causes adipose tissue to

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A) stimulatelipolysis and inhibit lipogenesis. B) inhibit lipolysisand stimulate lipogenesis. C) stimulate bothlipolysis and lipogenesis. D) stimulatelipolysis and gluconeogenesis.

69)

To maintain homeostasis, thehormone that issecreted during the fasting state causes A) a decrease in thelevel of fatty acidsin the blood. B) an increase inprotein synthesis in tissue cells. C) formation oftryglicerides from fatty acids. D) an increase inthe level of blood sugar.

70)

What effect does glucagon have on protein metabolism? A) It directlystimulates catabolism of proteins. B) It stimulates thebuildup of proteins from amino acids. C) It increasesabsorption of amino acids in the intestine. D) It has no effecton body proteins.

71)

Beta oxidation is a step in the synthesis of cholesterol that involves A) closing of alinear fatty acid chain into a steroid loop. B) breakdown of fattyacids into two-carbon units to form acetyl CoA. C) synthesis of bilesalts from precursor lipids. D) absorption ofmicelles from the small intestine.

72) Compared to other types of lipoproteins, very-low-density lipoproteins contain the _______ lipid. A) most B) least

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73)

How do low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)move into cells? A) LDLs diffusethrough channels in the membrane. B) LDLs are engulfedthrough receptor-mediated endocytosis. C) LDLs diffusethrough the phospholipid bilayer. D) LDLs aretransported through a pump that is also an ATPase.

74)

High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) are associated with the tranport of lipid from the A) liver to periperaltissues. B) peripheral tissuesto the liver.

75)

One of the metabolic functions of the liver is transamination, which is conversion of A) NH 2 tourea. B) one amino acidform to another. C) amino acid intocarbohydrate. D) acetyl CoA to aketone body.

76)

When glucose enters glycolysis, it A) is converted intoacetyl CoA. B) binds tooxaloacetic acid and forms citric acid. C) is oxidized to twopyruvate molecules. D) forms the coenzyme NAD.

77) When fatty acids are metabolized for cellular respiration, the first step involves breaking two carbons off the chain at a time to form acetyl CoA molecules. Acetyl CoA then

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A) undergoesglycolysis. B) enters the citricacid cycle. C) begins theelectron transport chain. D) is converted topyruvate and lactate.

78)

An amine group that is removed from an amino acid within a hepatocyte is then A) used to form apeptide bond between a protein and a lipid. B) used to generate bile salts and excreted in the feces. C) converted to ureaand eliminated as part of urine. D) sent to amitochondria to enter the citric acid cycle.

79)

If more glucose is consumed than is needed, the glucose can be A) converted to anessential amino acid so that protein synthesis can increase. B) converted toacetyl CoA that is then used to synthesize triglycerides for storage. C) broken down to 2NADH molecules that can enter the citric acid cycle. D) deaminated by theliver and sent to the kidney for excretion in the urine.

80)

In general, the greater the surface area of the skin, the ________ the basal metabolic rate. A) higher B) lower

81)

Metabolic rate is a measurement of the A) total number ofcalories consumed per hour. B) amount of oxygenconsumed per kilogram of body weight. C) energy used in agiven period of time. D) heat given off bycontracting muscles.

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82)

Metabolic rate can be measured with a respirometer that measures

A) water content ofthe breath in order to directly measure the products of cellularrespiration. B) water content ofthe breath in order to indirectly measure the products of cellularrespiration. C) temperature of the expired air in order to measure the rate of the sum ofall reactions within the body. D) oxygen consumptionin order to indirectly measure heat production and energy expenditure. E) temperatures ofcarbon dioxide and oxygen to determine how much the body warmed the respiratorygas.

83)

When an individualis exposed to cold temperatures, total metabolic rate A) decreases. B) increases. C) remainsconstant.

84)

Vigorous physical activity causes total metabolic rate to A) increase for theduration of the exercise. B) increase duringthe exercise and for hours afterwards. C) remainconstant. D) decrease toconserve energy during the exercise but increase to repay oxygen debt. E) decrease during the exercise and forhours afterwards.

85)

Core body temperature is the A) averagetemperature across all portions of the body. B) averagebodytemperature across all hours of the day. C) temperature of thehead and torso. D) temperaturerecorded at the center of the long bones of the limbs.

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86)

Sweating and shivering are necessary adaptations because

A) all parts of thebody must remain at normal body temperature to maintain life. B) the health ofvital organs requires a near-normaltemperature, andmetabolic ratefluctuates with changes in the environment. C) to ensure thattotal metabolic rate remains constant, the body generates or releases heat asneeded. D) proteins rapidlydenature when tissue temperature drops below 98.5°F.

87)

The area of the brain that provides the primary control ofbody temperature is the A) cerebellum. B) cerebralcortex. C) hypothalamus. D) pineal gland. E) medulla.

88)

An increase in metabolic rate would alter body temperature and trigger a compensatory A) stimulation ofsweat glands and vasoconstriction in blood vessels of the skin. B) stimulation ofsweat glands and vasodilation in blood vessels of the skin. C) inhibition ofsweat glands and vasoconstriction in blood vessels of the skin. D) inhibition ofsweat glands and vasodilation in blood vessels of the skin.

89)

Frostbite results from peripheral _________ due toexposure to cold temperatures. A) vasoconstriction B) vasodilation

90)

In response to decreases in body temperature, the brain signals the

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A) anterior pituitaryto release thyroid-stimulating hormone. B) anterior pituitaryto release thyroid-inhibiting hormone. C) posteriorpituitary to release thyroid-releasing hormone. D) posteriorpituitary to release thyroid-inhibiting hormone.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 91) Proteins that supply all of our essential amino acids are described as ________ proteins.

92) Vitamin _____ is crucial for the absorption of calcium from the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, a deficiency in this vitamin may result in rickets and other bone abnormalities.

93) Minerals that must be ingested at levels greater than 100 milligrams per day are referred to as _______ minerals.

94)

The major regulatory hormone of the fasting state is ___________.

95) Because lipids are nonpolar, they must be wrapped by other molecules to be transported through the blood. This combined molecule is known as a ___________.

96) Removal of the amine group from amino acids is a process that occurs in the liver known as ___________.

97) A water-filled chamber into which someone is placed in order to measure her basal metabolic rate is called a __________.

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98) __________ is the study of the means by which living organisms both obtain and utilize the nutrients they need to grow and sustain life.

99) _______ include organic molecules, vitamins, and minerals that the body needs for growth and maintenance.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 100) Explain how the ability to interconvert nutrients is beneficial.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 101) Imagine that you were asked to provide advice to a young adolescent about how to engage in healthy eating. The adolescent doesn't know much about nutrition, butlikes to browse the Internet. What suggestions might you give for that young person for online learning and careful choices in the supermarket?

102) Explain the different types of vegetarians and the ways by which they meet their dietary needs regarding proteins.

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103) Graves' disease is a condition in which some of the body's antibodies mimic thyroidstimulating hormone and cause overactivity of the thyroid gland. Whatconsequences would this have for neurons in the body, and how would metabolic rate be affected? Would you expect someone with Graves' disease to feel chillier or warmer than someone who wasunaffected?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 27_4e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) FALSE 20) TRUE 21) FALSE 22) TRUE 23) FALSE 24) TRUE 25) TRUE 26) TRUE Version 1

27) TRUE 28) FALSE 29) TRUE 30) TRUE 31) FALSE 32) FALSE 33) TRUE 34) TRUE 35) TRUE 36) TRUE 37) TRUE 38) TRUE 39) A 40) C 41) C 42) B 43) C 44) A 45) A 46) B 47) A 48) B 49) C 50) C 51) B 52) B 53) A 54) C 55) B 56) D Version 1

57) B 58) B 59) B 60) B 61) B 62) B 63) C 64) C 65) B 66) B 67) A 68) B 69) D 70) D 71) B 72) A 73) B 74) B 75) B 76) C 77) B 78) C 79) B 80) A 81) C 82) D 83) B 84) B 85) C 86) B Version 1

87) C 88) B 89) A 90) A 91) complete 92) D 93) major 94) glucagon 95) lipoprotein 96) deamination 97) calorimeter 98) Nutrition 99) Nutrients 100) Interconversion allows the body to producedifferent types of needed molecules (e.g., carbohydrates for fuel) even if the diet is limited in terms ofthe variety of nutrients consumed.Also it allows for efficient storage of energy (high energy per mass) in the form of triglycerides regardless of the nutrition source; this is usefulfor times when food might be scarce. 101) Onemight suggest myplate.gov as a first place to learn about dietary needs. Many other excellent nutrition sites also exist.Using the nutrition information on food labels is extremely valuable, as is an understanding of RDAs. Emphasis should be placed on balance and adequacy in the diet. 102) Vegetarian types include lacto-ovo vegetarians (will eat dairy) and vegans (will not eat any animal products). Vegetarians need to be careful to obtain all essential amino acids by eating a variety of protein sources (e.g., legumes and brown rice).

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103) Neurons would generate more sodium/potassium pumps and produce more heat. Metabolic rate would rise. Individuals with Graves' disease often feel warm.

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CHAPTER 28 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Both males and females have accessory reproductive organs, including ducts through which gametes are carried. ⊚ ⊚

Prior to puberty, the anterior pituitary does not release FSH and LH. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Mitosis involves crossing over and the production of haploid daughter cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The X and Y chromosomes are considered homologous autosomes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The ischiocavernosus muscleis located within the urogenital triangle. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Meiosis I is a reduction division. ⊚ true ⊚ false

7) The final products of the two meiotic divisions are four haploid daughter cells from an original diploid cell.

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⊚ ⊚

Primary follicles form before birth. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The corpus luteum secretes progesterone and estrogen. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Along with local growth factors, FSH helps facilitate the development of a primary follicle, and estrogen released by a primary follicle inhibits production of GnRH, LH, and FSH. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) Estrogen levels rise during the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle, and estrogen assists with the development of the dominant follicle. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) During female sexual excitement, the mammary glands, clitoris, and labia become engorged with blood. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

Efferent ductules contain cilia that propel sperm toward the epididymis. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14)

The corpora cavernosa extend within the glans of the penis. ⊚ ⊚

15)

true false

During the resolution phase, the central artery of the penis decreases in diameter. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) Male embryos develop both Wolffian and Mullerian ducts, but only the Wolffian ducts remain in the male fetus. ⊚ ⊚

17)

The testes are the male gametes. ⊚ ⊚

18)

true false

The corpus luteum secretes the hormones estrogen and progesterone. ⊚ ⊚

20)

true false

Production of new primary oocytes by mitosis continues throughout a woman’s life. ⊚ ⊚

19)

true false

Movement of the oocyte along the uterine tube is due to peristalsis and ciliary action. ⊚ ⊚

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true false 3

21)

The clitoris is homologous to the penis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

22) The dartos muscle is composed of smooth muscle; the cremaster muscle is composed of skeletal muscle. ⊚ ⊚

23)

true false

Sperm begin to exhibit motility once they exit the seminiferous tubules. ⊚ ⊚

true false

24) An erection is the result of parasympathetic innervation, and ejaculation is the result of sympathetic innervation. ⊚ ⊚

25)

Seminal fluid is a component of semen. ⊚ ⊚

26)

true false

Typically, girls reach puberty before boys. ⊚ ⊚

27)

true false

For girls, menarche is usually the first sign that puberty has begun.

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⊚ ⊚

28)

true false

In both genders, the development of axillary hair signals the onset of puberty. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 29) The gonads A) are the male testesand female ovaries. B) secrete sexhormones. C) producegametes. D) are dormant untilpuberty. E) All of the choices are correct.

30)

The male homologue to the labia majora is the A) testis. B) scrotum. C) penis. D) bulbourethralgland. E) prostate gland.

31)

Puberty is initiated when a region of the brain begins secreting A) luteinizinghormone. B) estrogen ortestosterone. C) follicle-stimulating hormone. D) gonadotropin-releasing hormone. E) androgens.

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32)

The primary target cells for GnRH are located in the A) hypothalamus. B) gonads. C) anterior pituitarygland. D) adrenal gland. E) genitals.

33)

The perineum consists of an anterior A) ischial tuberosityand a posterior anal ellipse. B) urethral orifice and a posterior pubic crest. C) false pelvis and aposterior true pelvis. D) urogenital triangleand a posterior anal triangle. E) pubic quadralateral and a posterioranal rhombus.

34)

The anterior border to the perineum is the A) anus. B) pubicsymphysis. C) ischialtuberosity. D) bulbospongiosusmuscle.

35)

Human somatic cells contain only one pair of A) chromosomes. B) autosomes. C) homologouschromosomes. D) sexchromosomes.

36)

A cell that contains 23 pairs of chromosomes is

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A) polyploid. B) diploid. C) haploid. D) monoid.

37) A child has the same number of chromosomes as each of his parents. This is because the gametes that combined when that child was conceived each contained _____ chromosomes. A) 12 B) 23 C) 46 D) 92 E) 2

38)

When the process of meiosis is complete, the result is A) two daughter cellsthat are diploid. B) two daughter cellsthat are haploid. C) four daughter cellsthat are diploid. D) four daughter cellsthat are haploid.

39)

Which choice best distinguishes between mitosis and meiosis?

A) Mitosis producessex cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell, whereas meiosisproduces somatic cells that are genetically different from the parent cell. B) Mitosis producessex cells that are genetically different fromthe parent cell, whereasmeiosis produces somatic cells that are genetically identical totheparent cell. C) Mitosis producessomatic cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell, whereasmeiosis produces sex cells that are genetically different from the parentcell. D) Mitosis producessomatic cells that are genetically different fromthe parent cell, whereasmeiosis produces sex cells that are genetically identical tothe parentcell.

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40) The process by which double-stranded, homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material is known as A) crossing over, andit occurs in interphase. B) crossing over, andit occurs in mitosis. C) crossing over, andit occurs in meiosis. D) interphase, and itoccurs in meiosis. E) interphase, and it occurs inmitosis.

41)

A replicated chromosome consists of two identical structures known as A) centromeres. B) sisterchromatids. C) telomeres. D) haploids. E) tetrads.

42)

Interphase occurs A) prior tomeiosis. B) between meiosis Iand meiosis II. C) between anaphase Iand telophase I. D) between prophase Iand prophase II. E) between telophase II andcytokinesis.

43)

When homologous replicated chromosomes pair up during meiosis, they form a A) sisterchromatid. B) tetrad. C) single-strandedchromosome. D) centromere.

44)

A reduction division is one in which

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A) the chemicalreactions of oxidation and reduction take place. B) the daughter cellsreceive only half as many chromosomes as the parent cell had. C) one daughter cellis substantially reduced in size compared to the parent cell. D) the size ofchromosomes is reduced from double-stranded to single-stranded.

45)

Sister chromatids are pulled apart in A) prophase I. B) anaphase I. C) interphase. D) prophase II. E) anaphase II.

46)

The daughter cells that result from meiosis I are A) diploid andcontain single-stranded chromosomes. B) diploid andcontain double-stranded chromosomes. C) haploid andcontain single-stranded chromosomes. D) haploid andcontain double-stranded chromosomes.

47)

Which cord or sheet of connective tissue attaches to the ovary at the hilum? A) Suspensory ligament B) Ovarian ligament C) Mesovarium D) Broad ligament E) Round ligament

48)

Which is not correct regarding the ovaries?

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A) Each ovary has anouter cortex and an inner medulla. B) The ovaries arelocated lateral to the uterus. C) The ovarian arteryand vein join the ovary at its hilum. D) The gametesdevelop from the ovarian germinal epithelium. E) The tunicaalbuginea is deep to the germinal epithelium.

49)

Which type of ovarian follicle contains a secondary oocyte? A) Secondaryfollicle B) Primary follicle C) Mature follicle D) Primordial follicle E) Polar follicle

50)

What structure forms from the remnants of the follicle following ovulation? A) Corona radiata B) Zona pellucida C) Corpus albicans D) Corpus luteum E) Antrum

51)

Throughout childhood,primary oocytes are arrested in A) prophase I. B) anaphase I. C) prophase II. D) metaphase II. E) metaphase I.

52)

The volume of the antrum is largest in a(n) __________ follicle.

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A) primary B) secondary C) primordial D) antral E) mature

53)

Ovulation occurs when an oocyte is released from a ruptured _____ follicle. A) secondary B) primary C) mature D) primordial E) oogonial

54)

In a female infant, the ovaries contain A) primordial oocyteswithin primordial follicles. B) primary oocyteswithin primordial follicles. C) primordial oocyteswithin secondary follicles. D) primary oocyteswithin corpora lutea. E) primordial oocytes within corporaalbicans.

55)

A secondary oocyte arrests in A) prophase I. B) anaphase II. C) prophase II. D) metaphase II. E) metaphase I.

56)

How many secondary oocytes ultimately develop from each primary oocyte?

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A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

57)

What is the correct order for the phases of the ovarian cycle, beginning with day 1? A) Luteal,follicular, ovulation B) Follicular,luteal, ovulation C) Follicular,ovulation, luteal D) Ovulation,follicular, luteal E) Ovulation,luteal, follicular

58)

Ovulation is induced by a peak in the secretion of A) inhibin. B) LH. C) ovulin. D) estrogen. E) progesterone.

59)

Inhibin is secreted by A) uterine liningcells, and it inhibits development of ovarian follicles. B) follicular cells,and it inhibits FSH production. C) the anteriorpituitary,and it inhibits GnRH production. D) the posteriorpituitary, and it inhibits ovulation. E) hypothalamic cells, and it inhibits LHproduction.

60) days

Ovulation typically occurs on day 14 of the ovarian cycle, and the luteal phase occurs on

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A) 1–5. B) 6–14. C) 15–28. D) 8–18.

61)

The lateral margin of the uterine tube, which bears the fimbriae, is called the A) ampulla. B) fornix. C) isthmus. D) infundibulum. E) uterine part.

62)

Fimbriae A) are extensions ofthe ovarian ligament. B) line the ampullaof the uterine tube. C) enclose the ovaryat the time of ovulation. D) are sloughed offduring menstruation. E) assist in themovement of sperm through the female reproductive tract.

63)

The normal site of fertilization is the A) vagina. B) body of theuterus. C) fundus of theuterus. D) ampulla of the uterine tube. E) uterine part ofthe uterinetube.

64)

What is the correct order for the segments of the uterine tube, beginning at the ovary?

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A) Infundibulum - isthmus - ampulla - uterine part B) Uterine part - infundibulum - ampulla - isthmus C) Ampulla - infundibulum - uterine part - isthmus D) Infundibulum - ampulla - isthmus - uterine part E) Uterine part - isthmus - ampulla - infundibulum

65) Although the lining of the uterine tubes contains cilia and the lining of the uterus does not, the epithelium within both organs is categorized as A) pseudostratifiedcolumnar epithelium. B) simple columnarepithelium. C) nonkeratinizedsquamous epithelium. D) stratifiedcuboidal epithelium. E) simple cuboidalepithelium.

66)

Which is not a uterine function? A) Protection andsupport of developing embryo B) Usual site offertilization C) Site ofimplantation D) Muscle contraction for labor and delivery E) Passageway for sperm

67)

Which does not provide structural support for the uterus? A) Round ligament B) Transverse cervical ligament C) Uterosacral ligament D) Uterine ligament E) Urogenital diaphragm

68)

The portion of the uterine wall that includes the basal layer is the

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A) myometrium. B) perimetrium. C) endometrium. D) serosa. E) muscularis.

69)

The external os is the A) opening of thecervix into the vagina. B) inferior portionof the central cavity. C) bone thatsupports the uterus during pregnancy. D) uterine tubeattachment site. E) primarysuspensory ligament for the uterus.

70)

The myometrium of the uterus is composed of A) skeletalmuscle. B) mucousmembrane. C) fibrousconnective tissue. D) loose connectivetissue. E) smoothmuscle.

71)

Whatfibromuscular structureis about 10 centimeters long and serves as the birth canal? A) Fallopian tube B) Vagina C) Uterus D) Isthmus

72)

The hymen is located

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A) at the cervix. B) near the fundus ofthe uterus. C) at the superiorend of the vagina. D) near the vaginalorifice. E) at the external urethral sphincter.

73)

Menarche is A) the first fourdays of menstruation. B) a female’s firstmenstrual cycle. C) the stageimmediately preceding menopause. D) marked by adramatic decline in androgen secretion. E) the final phaseof the uterine cycle.

74)

Which layer of the uterine wall is sloughed off during menstruation? A) Perimetrium B) Basal layer of endometrium C) Myometrium D) Functional layer of endometrium E) Epimetrium

75)

The secretory phase of the uterine cycle coincides with A) ovulation. B) the luteal phaseof the ovarian cycle. C) menstruation. D) the follicularphase of the ovarian cycle. E) proliferation.

76)

What is the correct order for the phases of the uterine cycle, beginning with day 1?

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A) Menstrual -proliferative - secretory B) Proliferative - secretory - menstrual C) Secretory - proliferative - menstrual D) Menstrual - secretory - proliferative E) Proliferative - menstrual - secretory

77) Although the length of the menstrual cycle varies between women, menstruation consistently occurs 14 days after ovulation, and thus the _________ phase is constant in length. A) follicular B) secretory C) proliferative D) menstrual

78)

Progesterone levels are highest during the ________ phase of the ovarian cycle. A) menstrual B) proliferative C) follicular D) luteal E) ovulation

79)

Which of these structures contains sebaceous glands? A) Clitoris B) Vestibular bulb C) Mons pubis D) Labia minora E) Prepuce

80)

Which is not part of the vulva?

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A) Mons pubis B) Clitoris C) Labia majora D) Labia minora E) Vagina

81)

The secretory structures that produce milk in a lactating female are the A) lactiferoussinuses. B) lactiferousducts. C) alveoli. D) areolarglands. E) Bartholinglands.

82)

The posterior pituitary hormone that is crucial for milk ejection is A) LH. B) GnRH. C) oxytocin. D) prolactin. E) progesterone.

83) During the excitement phase of the female sexual response, the uterus shifts to a more _________ position. A) anteverted B) erect

84)

The function of the dartos and cremaster muscles is to

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A) attach the penisto the body wall. B) produceerections. C) regulate thetemperature of the testes. D) help the testesdescend into the scrotum prior to birth. E) move sperm alongthe ductus deferens.

85)

The ridge that is visible externally along the midline of the scrotum is called the A) septum. B) raphe. C) perineum. D) tunicaalbuginea. E) scrotal cord.

86) Which of the following is a thin layer of smooth muscle just beneath the skin of the scrotum? A) Raphe B) Cremaster C) Tunicavaginalis D) Dartos muscle E) Inguinal muscle

87)

Which structure is derived from the peritoneum of the abdominal cavity? A) Tunica vaginalis B) Perineal raphe C) Spermatic cord D) Tunica albuginea E) Mediastinum testis

88)

Sperm are produced in the

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A) rete testis. B) seminiferoustubules. C) epididymis. D) seminalvesicles. E) efferentductules.

89)

The interstitial cells in the testes A) undergo mitosisto produce primary spermatocytes. B) support andprotect the developing sperm cells. C) secretetestosterone. D) convert fructoseto glucose to nourish the sperm. E) form the liningof the seminiferous tubules.

90)

Developing sperm cells are protected by a blood-testis barrier formed by A) connective tissuesepta. B) interstitialspaces. C) Leydig cells. D) sustentacularcells. E) leukocytes.

91)

Which is not true about spermatogenesis? A) The processincludes two meiotic divisions. B) The final stageof the process is called spermiogenesis. C) Mature spermatozoa are haploid. D) Spermatogenesisbegins at birth and continues throughout a man’s life. E) The process takesplace in the walls of the seminiferous tubules.

92)

What part of a spermatozoon contains the nuclear material?

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A) Acrosome cap B) Head C) Midpiece D) Flagellum E) Tail

93) The stages that appear during spermatogenesis are a: spermatid b: primary spermatocyte c: spermatogonium d: spermatozoon e: secondary spermatocyte What is the correct order of appearance of these stages? A) b, e, c, d, a B) c, e, d, a, b C) c, b, e, a, d D) a, c, b, e, d E) d, b, c, e, a

94)

The acrosome cap contains A) testosterone. B) nutrients tosustain the sperm. C) enzymes to allowpenetration into the oocyte. D) mitochondria toprovide energy for movement. E) buffers toneutralize the acidity of the female reproductive tract.

95)

How many spermatozoa ultimately develop from each primary spermatocyte?

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A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

96)

In men, LH stimulates A) hypothalamic cellsto secrete GnRH. B) interstitial cellsto secrete testosterone. C) anterior pituitarycells to secrete FSH. D) sustentacular cellsto secrete testosterone. E) spermatogenic cells to secrete ABP.

97)

When comparing gamete production in males and females, males produce A) more gametes thatare larger in size. B) more gametes thatare smaller in size. C) fewer gametes thatare larger in size. D) fewer gametes thatare smaller in size.

98)

Where are spermatozoa stored until they are fully mature? A) Epididymis B) Rete testis C) Ductus deferens D) Seminiferous tubules E) Efferent ductules

99)

Which structure is not found in both males and females?

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A) Glans B) Corpora cavernosa C) Tunica albuginea D) Prepuce E) Vestibular gland

100)

The rete testis A) receives spermfrom the seminiferous tubules. B) is the nerveplexus that supplies the testis. C) is a venousnetwork that cools the arterial blood traveling to the testis. D) transports seminalfluid to the efferent ductules. E) is the site ofspermiogenesis.

101) The structures of the male reproductive tract are a: ductus deferens b: urethra c: epididymis d: ejaculatory duct e: ampulla What is the order in which sperm passes through these structures from the testes to the penis? A) a, b, c, e, d B) c, a, e, d, b C) a, c, e, b, d D) c, a, b, d, e E) d, a, c, e, b

102)

The ejaculatory duct is formed by the

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A) ampulla and theproximal portion of the seminal vesicle. B) ductus deferensand the ducts of the prostate gland. C) ampulla and thedistal portions of the bulbourethral glands. D) ductus deferensand the ducts of the prostate gland and bulbourethral glands. E) ampulla and theprostatic urethra.

103)

Which of the male accessory glands encircles the urethra? A) Seminal vesicle B) Bulbourethral gland C) Prostate gland D) Cowper’s gland E) Urethral gland

104)

Which gland secretes a fluid containing fructose? A) Seminal vesicle B) Bulbourethral gland C) Vestibular gland D) Prostate gland E) Urethral gland

105)

Which of the following is not a component of seminal fluid? A) Prostaglandin B) Citric acid C) Mucous D) Seminalplasmin E) Calcium

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106) Which of these male reproductive structures is unpaired (meaning there is only one in the body)? A) Epididymis B) Bulbourethral gland C) Prostate gland D) Seminal vesicle E) Corpus cavernosum

107) Which of the following are tubuloacinar glands that produce a clear, viscous mucin to serve as a lubricant during sexual intercourse? A) Seminalvesicles B) Prostate glands C) Bulbourethralglands D) Areolar glands

108)

Which of the following is true? A) Semen is composedof seminal fluid and sperm. B) Seminal fluid iscomposed of semen and sperm. C) Sperm are composedof seminal fluid within a cell membrane. D) The threeingredients of ejaculate are sperm, semen, and prostate-specific antigen.

109)

The external urethral orifice is found at the _________ of the penis. A) bulb B) crus C) glans D) corpuscavernosum E) body

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110)

An erection of the penis is caused by A) semen pressurefrom the testes and ductus deferens. B) muscle flexion ofthe penile muscles. C) increasedsecretions of lymph into the spongy tissue. D) blood filling theerectile bodies and compressing the veins. E) ejaculatorymuscles.

111) The ___________ nervous system facilitates increased blood flow to the penis by facilitating local release of __________. A) sympathetic,nitric oxide B) sympathetic,norepinephrine C) parasympathetic,nitric oxide D) parasympathetic,norepinephrine E) somatic, acetylcholine

112)

During orgasm, the ductus deferens undergoes A) peristalsis, andthe internal urethral sphincter of the bladder relaxes. B) peristalsis, andthe internal urethral sphincter of the bladder contracts. C) segmentation, andthe external urethral sphincter contracts. D) segmentation, andthe external urethral sphincter becomes engorged with blood.

113) In males, the _________ region on the Y chromosome initiates male phenotypic development. A) HRT B) AMH C) TDF D) SRY E) BPH

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114) The expression of the ________ gene results in the production of proteins that stimulate synthesis of androgens that initiate development af a male phenotype. A) MDF B) SRY C) GRH D) YXP

115)

The appearance of the external genitalia determines an individual's A) genderidentity. B) genetic sex. C) phenotypicsex. D) genotypic sex.

116)

The changes that occur in a woman’s body at menopause are due to A) atrophy of thethermoregulatory center of the hypothalamus. B) reduced levels ofestrogen and progesterone. C) increasedproduction of androgens by the adrenal gland. D) depletion ofoocyte supply. E) fluid retentionthat disrupts the osmotic balance of the body.

117) When a woman in her fifth decade of life is not pregnant and has stopped having menstrual cycles for _________, she is said to be in menopause. A) 2 months B) 4 months C) 6 months D) 1 year E) 18 months

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118)

During menopause, the vaginal wall

A) becomes thicker. B) becomes thinner.

119)

Which is not considered to be a change associated with aging in males? A) Erectile dysfunction B) Impotence C) Decreased testosterone levels D) Prostate enlargement E) Termination of spermatogenesis

120)

During development, the __________ ducts form the female duct system. A) mesonephric B) paramesonephric C) metanephric D) parametanephric E) Wolffian

121)

What structures fuse during female development to form the uterus? A) The superior endsof the mesonephric ducts B) The anterior endsof the Wolffian ducts C) The caudal ends ofthe paramesonephric ducts D) The posterior endsof the gubernaculum

122)

Paramesonephric ducts degenerate when the hormone ________ is present.

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A) inhibin B) estrogen C) testosterone D) AMH E) TSH

123)

In females, the genital tubercle forms the A) clitoris. B) vagina. C) labia majora. D) labia minora. E) uterus.

124)

In males, the labioscrotal swellings form the A) scrotum. B) scrotum andtestes. C) scrotum and rootof the penis. D) scrotum and dorsalside of the penis. E) scrotum andventral side of the penis.

125)

Anti-Mullerian hormone is secreted by A) ovarian follicularcells. B) primary spermatocytes. C) sustentacularcells. D) interstitialcells. E) paramesonephriccells.

126) The external genitalia do not become clearly differentiated until about week ____ of development.

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A) 6 B) 12 C) 20 D) 32 E) 38

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 127) In both males and females, primary sex organs called _________________ produce the gametes.

128) When a cell's genetic content consists of a single set of chromsomes, the cell is said to be _________.

129) The process that occursduring prophase I, during which tetrads are formed, is known as ________.

130)

The most primitive type of ovarian follicle is a _____________ follicle.

131)

The fold of the labia minora that forms a hood over the clitoris is the ________.

132) The channels that convey milk from the mammary glands to the nipples are called __________ ducts.

133)

The anterior pituitary hormone that facilitates milk production is _________.

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134) The final stage of spermatogenesis, during which spermatids develop into mature sperm, is known as ___________.

135)

During fetal development, the vagina forms from the _________ sinus.

136) The uterine tubes are covered and suspended by a superior portion of the broad ligament called the _________________.

137) Normally, the uterus is angled anterosuperiorly within the body, a position referred to as _________________.

138)

The _______________ cells support, nourish, and protect developing sperm cells.

139) The ______________ is a comma-shaped structure that lies on the surface of the testis, and includes a head, body, and tail.

140) Decreased testosterone levels in males in their 50s signal a change called the male _________________.

141) _____ is a period in adolescence where the reproductive organs become fully functional and the external sex characteristics become more prominent.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 142) Define the term "independent assortment" and indicate how this leads to diversity in the genetic content of gametes.

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143) Someone born with an inherited condition known asadrenal hyperplasia might have two X chromosomes but genitalia that resemble those of a male. Explain the effects on theindividual's phenotypic and genotypic sex.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 144) Describe how internal reproductive structures develop. What genetic factors determine whether development proceeds in a male or female manner? What ducts are formed in male and female embryos and fetuses?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 28_4e 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) FALSE 19) TRUE 20) TRUE 21) TRUE 22) TRUE 23) FALSE 24) TRUE 25) TRUE 26) TRUE Version 1

27) TRUE 28) TRUE 29) E 30) B 31) D 32) C 33) D 34) B 35) D 36) B 37) B 38) D 39) C 40) C 41) B 42) A 43) B 44) B 45) E 46) D 47) C 48) D 49) C 50) D 51) A 52) E 53) C 54) B 55) D 56) A Version 1

57) C 58) B 59) B 60) C 61) D 62) C 63) D 64) D 65) B 66) B 67) D 68) C 69) A 70) E 71) B 72) D 73) B 74) D 75) B 76) A 77) B 78) D 79) D 80) E 81) C 82) C 83) B 84) C 85) B 86) D Version 1

87) A 88) B 89) C 90) D 91) D 92) B 93) C 94) C 95) D 96) B 97) B 98) A 99) E 100) A 101) B 102) A 103) C 104) A 105) E 106) C 107) C 108) A 109) C 110) D 111) C 112) B 113) D 114) B 115) C 116) B Version 1

117) D 118) B 119) E 120) B 121) C 122) D 123) A 124) A 125) C 126) C 127) gonads 128) haploid 129) synapsis 130) primordial 131) prepuce 132) lactiferous 133) prolactin 134) spermiogenesis 135) urogenital 136) mesosalpinx 137) anteverted 138) sustentacular 139) epididymis 140) climacteric 141) Puberty 142) Independent assortment is described in the text asthe random alignment of homologous chromosomes (maternal and paternal) along the equator during metaphase I of meiosis. Because thecellular division distributesthe maternal and paternal chromosomes randomly, a wide variety of gametes are generated. Version 1

143) Because a genetic mutation led to excessive production of androgens in the fetus, the individual's genetic sex is female, but the individual's phenotypic sex could be considered ambiguous or male. 144) Expression of SRY from the Y chromosome causes Sertoli cells to secrete AMH, which leads to degeneration of the paramesonpheric ducts and continued development of Wolffian ducts to form the epididymis and ductus deferens. In the absence of SRY proteins, mesonephric ducts degenerate and paramesonephric ducts continue to develop helping to form the uterus and uterine tubes.

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CHAPTER 29 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Polyspermy results in the production of monozygotic twins. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Cells within the embryoblast have the ability to differentiate into any type of cell within the body. ⊚ ⊚

Presence of hCG in a woman's urine indicates that she is pregnant. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Mesoderm gives rise to the heart and the epithelial lining of blood vessels. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Blood cells and antibodies pass freely across the placenta. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Human chorionic gonadotropin stimulates the degeneration of the corpus luteum. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The process of organogenesis begins in the fetal period.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

8) To prepare for the strain of labor and delivery, female reproductive hormones cause ligaments of pelvic joints to tighten. ⊚ ⊚

true false

During pregnancy, the levels of CRH and aldosterone within a mother's blood decline. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Increased levels of estrogen, progesterone, and corticosteroids result in increased insulin resistance during preganancy. ⊚ ⊚

11)

When pregnant, a woman has an increased sensitivity to the hormone angiotensin. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

Pregnancy increases a woman's risk of urinary tract infection. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

Progesterone makes the uterine myometrium more irritable. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14)

Late in pregnancy, levels of estrogen and oxytocin rise. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) True labor contractions increase with frequency over time, and pain from such contractions does not change in response to movement. ⊚ ⊚

16)

true false

Neonates will take their first breath only after umbilical cord vessels have been clamped. ⊚ true ⊚ false

17) Shortly after birth, the foramen ovale of the fetal heart ceases to function as an open pathway for blood. ⊚ ⊚

18)

Shortly after birth the pressure within the right side of the heart rises. ⊚ ⊚

19)

true false

Breast milk contains large amounts of vitamin D. ⊚ ⊚

true false

20) Breastfeeding prolongs the duration of time it takes for the uterus to shrink to its prepregnancy size. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

21)

Sickle-cell disease exhibits strict dominant-recessive inheritance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 22) The third through eighth weeks of development are known as the ___________ period. A) fetal B) pre-embryonic C) embryonic D) cleavage

23)

The pre-embryonic period ends when A) a morula isformed. B) the zygoteundergoes cleavage. C) the blastocystimplants in the uterus. D) the morula developsa trophoblast.

24) Fertilization typically occurs in the _________, and it restores the _________ number of chromosomes. A) ampulla of the uterine tube; haploid B) ampulla of the uterine tube; diploid C) body of the uterus; polyploid D) isthmus of the uterine tube; haploid E) isthmus of the uterine tube; polyploid

25) Which type of gamete remains viable for a longer time after it enters the female reproductive tract?

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A) Sperm B) Egg

26)

After ovulation, the oocyte A) waits passivelyfor a sperm to penetrate. B) releases negativeions that create an electrical gradient that all sperm swim toward. C) releases chemotaxicsignals to attract sperm to its location. D) propels itselftoward seminal fluidby calcium-dependent kinesis.

27)

Capacitation lasts several ________ and involves removal of ___________. A) seconds; lipids from the surface of the egg B) hours; proteins from the surface of the sperm C) days; carbohydrates from the surface of the egg D) weeks; glycolipids from the surface of the sperm

28) What is the correct order of structures through which the sperm penetrates during fertilization? A) Corona radiata,oocyte plasma membrane, zona pellucida B) Zona pellucida,corona radiata, oocyte plasma membrane C) Corona radiata,zona pellucida, oocyte plasma membrane D) Zona pellucida,oocyte plasma membrane, corona radiata

29) Cleavage involves a series of ________ divisions and __________ in the overall size of the conceptus.

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A) meiotic; an increase B) meiotic; no change C) meiotic; a decrease D) mitotic; no change E) mitotic; an increase

30)

Cleavage occurs during A) the fetalperiod. B) the pre-embryonicperiod. C) organogenesis. D) the embryonicperiod. E) fertilization.

31)

At the 16-cell stage, the conceptus is known as a(n) A) trophoblast. B) blastocyst. C) embryoblast. D) morula. E) zygote.

32)

The trophoblast is located at the A) periphery of theblastocyst. B) center of theblastocyst. C) periphery of themorula. D) center of themorula. E) center of the embryoblast.

33)

The process by which a blastocyst embeds within the uterine endometrium is known as

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A) cleavage. B) morulation. C) implantation. D) capacitation. E) the acrosome reaction.

34)

Implantation usually begins at about the end of the first ________ of development. A) day B) week C) month D) trimester

35)

The outer layer of the trophoblast that burrows into the lining of the uterus is the A) embryoblast. B) syncytiotrophoblast. C) cytotrophoblast. D) morula. E) zona pellucida.

36)

The hormone that signals that fertilization and implantation have taken place is A) pluripotentprolactin. B) human chorionicgonadotropin. C) gonadotropinreleasing hormone. D) progesterone. E) pre-embryonic pellucida factor.

37)

Human chorionic gonadotropin is secreted from cells of the

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A) morula. B) embryoblast. C) syncytiotrophoblast. D) zygote.

38) What thin membrane, continuous with the epiblast layer,secretes fluid to bathe the embryo? A) Chorion B) Amnion C) Yolk sac D) Corona radiata

39)

Which structure develops directlyinto a bilaminar germinal disc? A) Trophoblast B) Embryoblast C) Morula D) Cytotrophoblast

40)

The hypoblast layer of the blastodisc is made of A) columnar cells andforms during the morula stage. B) columnar cells andforms during gastrulation. C) cuboidal cells andforms during the fetal period. D) cuboidal cells andforms during the pre-embryonic period.

41)

Approximately when in developmentdoes the bilaminar germinal disc begin to form?

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A) Day 8 B) Day 32 C) Week 8 D) Week 24

42)

The outermost extraembryonic membrane that eventually helpsform the placenta is the A) amnion. B) chorion. C) yolk sac. D) hypoblast.

43) Which structure is an important site for early blood cell formation and is the first of the extraembryonic membranes to form? A) Amnion B) Yolk sac C) Chorion D) Zona pellucida

44)

The maternal portion of the placenta arises from the A) amnion. B) ectoderm. C) functional layer ofthe uterus. D) germinal disc. E) myometrium.

45)

The fingerlike structures of the placentathat form from its fetal portion are known as

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A) amnioticvilli. B) chorionicvilli. C) amnioticstalks. D) chorionicstalks.

46)

Which pathogen (within the mother)is most likely to be transmittedacross the placenta? A) A multicellularparasite that is presentduring the first week of pregnancy B) A multicellularparasite that is present during the sixth week of pregnancy C) A blood-borne virusthat is present during the first week of pregnancy D) A blood-borne virusthat is present during the sixth week of pregnancy

47)

Gastrulation results in the formation of a(n) A) morula. B) embryo. C) blastocyst. D) trophoblast. E) umbilical cord.

48) At the start of gastrulation, a long,thin depression known as the primitive __________ forms on the surface of the epiblast. A) furrow B) node C) streak D) groove E) yolk

49) When epiblast cells travel through the primitive streak and underneath the epiblast layer, that movement is described as

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A) capacitation. B) invagination. C) chemotaxation. D) cleavage.

50)

The primary germ layer that takes the place of the hypoblast is the A) mesoderm. B) endoderm. C) centroderm. D) chorion. E) trophoblast.

51)

Cephalocaudal folding occurs because of the rapid growth of the A) amnion andembryonic disc. B) yolk sac.

52) The process that involves thefusion of thetwo sides of the embryonic discat a newly formedmidline, therebycreating a cylindrical embryo is __________ folding. A) invagination B) cephalocaudal C) transverse D) amphiamniotic E) coronal

53) The future head and buttocks regions of the embryo are facilitated by the process of _____________ folding.

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A) cleavage B) cephalocaudal C) transverse D) amitotic E) chorionic

54)

Neurulation is the development of the nervous system from the A) endoderm. B) mesoderm. C) ectoderm. D) hypoderm.

55)

The structure of the mesoderm that induces formation of the neural tube is the A) headmesenchyme. B) amnion. C) notochord. D) paraxialmesoderm.

56)

Which part of the embryo develops into the kidneys? A) Endoderm B) Paraxialmesoderm C) Notochord D) Intermediatemesoderm

57) Drugs that lead to birth defects in the formation of the limbs are most damaging when the conceptus is exposed to them during weeks

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A) 1–2 of development, before the placenta is fully formed. B) 4–8 of development, when limbs are undergoing peak development. C) 12–16 of development, when limbs have formed but are not fully mature. D) 24–28 of development, when plasticity of surrounding tissues has been lost.

58)

Teratogens are most damaging to organ systems if exposure to them occurs A) early inpre-embryonic development. B) when the organsystems are undergoing peak development in the embryo. C) in the fetalperiod, after systems have formed but have not completed maturation.

59)

What is the approximateduration of the fetal period of development? A) 4 weeks B) 12 weeks C) 29 weeks D) 39 weeks

60) Increases in weight of the conceptus are largest during the _________ two months of pregnancy. A) first B) middle C) last

61)

The trimester during which an embryo becomes a fetus is the _________ trimester. A) first B) second C) third

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62)

The second trimester of a pregnancy includes months A) 2–5 B) 4–6 C) 5–7 D) 5–9

63)

During pregnancy, estrogen and progesterone from the placenta

A) stimulate FSH andLH secretion and thereby stimulate ovarian follicle development. B) inhibit FSH and LHsecretion and thereby arrest ovarian follicle development. C) stimulate GnRHsecretion and thereby inhibit overgrowth of the uterus. D) inhibit release ofcorticotropin-releasing hormone and thereby prevent excessive stressresponses.

64)

In pregnant women, the high levels of estrogen and progesterone secretion lead to A) stronger nails andfuller hair. B) weaker nails andthinner hair.

65) Growth of the functional layer and prevention of menstruation during pregnancyare brought about by secretion of A) relaxin. B) progesterone. C) cortisol. D) melanocyte-stimulating hormone. E) human placental lactogen.

66)

Changes in the size of the uterus during pregnancy are due to

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A) hypertrophy but nothyperplasia. B) hyperplasia but nothypertrophy. C) both hypertrophyand hyperplasia.

67) The uterine enlargement that occurs during the first 10 weeks of pregnancy is mostly the result of A) growth of theconceptus from a zygote to a fetus. B) amniotic fluidproduction as well as growth of uterine muscle and theplacenta.

68) By the 4th month of pregnancy, the fundus of the uterus is located inches below the ________ and by the ninth month it is located at the level of the ____________. A) urinary bladder; umbilicus B) umbilicus; xiphoid process C) diaphragm; laryngeal prominence D) pubic symphysis; heart

69)

During pregnancy, a woman's areolae and nipples become darker under the influence of A) melanin from thepineal gland. B) vasopressin fromthe posterior pituitary gland. C) melanocyte-stimulating hormone from the placenta. D) estrogen andprogesterone from the ovary.

70) Prolactin is secreted from the ________ gland, and its levels ___________ during pregnancy.

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A) hypothalamus; double B) mammary; double C) corpus luteum; increase tenfold D) anterior pituitary; increase tenfold

71) Human placental lactogen _________ the effects of insulin and causes a pregnant woman's tissuesto metabolize ______ glucose. A) facilitates; more B) facilitates; less C) inhibits; more D) inhibits; less

72)

Which type of food do women suffering from morning sickness generally prefer? A) Carbohydrate-richfoods B) Protein-richfoods

73) Although pregnancies are highly variable, morning sickness is most commonly experienced in the ________ trimester. A) first B) second C) third

74) Edema and varicose veins in the lower extremities sometimes develop in the third trimester of a pregnancy due to

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A) decreased cardiacoutput. B) elevated bloodpressure. C) compression ofabdominal blood vessels. D) elevatedhematocrit.

75)

During pregnancy, the mother's A) cardiac output andhematocrit rise. B) cardiac output andhematocrit fall. C) cardiac outputrises and hematocrit falls. D) cardiac outputfalls and hematocrit rises.

76) Hormonal and neural changes during pregnancy function to facilitate diffusion of gases across the placenta. One way this occurs is by _________ respiration rate, thereby __________ CO 2 levels in the blood. A) increasing; raising B) increasing; lowering C) decreasing; raising D) decreasing; lowering

77) Although pregnancy sometimes results in frequent urination, the one trimester when this tends to benot as problematic is the A) first. B) second. C) third.

78)

As the fetus develops, the mother's glomerular filtration rate

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A) increases by about10%. B) increases by about40%. C) decreases by about10%. D) decreases by about40%.

79)

In the late stages of pregnancy, estrogen stimulates increased A) release ofhCG. B) secretion ofatrial natriuretic factor by the heart. C) growth of thecorpus luteum. D) production ofoxytocin receptors in the uterus.

80)

Braxton-Hicks contractions tend to be A) regular andincreasingly frequent as time passes. B) increasinglyintense as time passes. C) irregularly spacedand do not become more frequent as time passes. D) regular in timing but relatively weak.

81)

Braxton-Hicks contractions are those that occur A) during prematurelabor. B) during falselabor. C) during truelabor. D) in smooth musclenear the uterus. E) with the most painful intensity.

82) Pain from false labor contractions tends to be more localized to the __________ abdomen than that experienced fromcontractions of true labor.

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A) upper B) lower

83) The beginning of labor involves increased production of ________ from the fetal hypothalamus, resulting in secretion of _________ by the placenta. A) GnRH; prolactin B) prolactin; oxytocin C) oxytocin; prostaglandins D) prostaglandin; prolactin E) prolactin; GnRH

84)

Prostaglandins are _________ acids that ___________ the cervix. A) amino; constrict B) amino; dilate C) fatty; constrict D) fatty; dilate

85)

Stretching of the cervix causes oxytocin secretion to A) increase. B) decrease.

86) Which statement accurately describes the effects of oxytocin and prostaglandins on uterine contractions? A) Both oxytocin andprostaglandins stimulate uterine contraction. B) Both oxytocin andprostaglandins inhibit uterine contraction. C) Oxytocinstimulates uterine contractions, but prostaglandins inhibit them. D) Prostaglandinsstimulate uterine contractions, but oxytocin inhibits them.

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87)

Which stage would you expect to take the longest time? A) Dilation stage oflabor ofa parous woman B) Dilation stage oflabor ofa nulliparous woman C) Expulsion stage oflabor of a parous woman D) Expulsion stage oflabor of a nulliparous woman

88)

What is expelled during the expulsion stage of labor? A) Colostrum B) The fetus C) The placenta andremaining fetal membranes D) Only amniotic fluid

89)

Typically, at the moment a full-term baby is born, the child's lungs are

A) fully inflated dueto practice respiratory movements in the womb. B) not fullyinflated, but they will inflate within about ten seconds. C) not fullyinflated, and will not inflate fully for ten days, when surfactant productionbegins.

90)

Upon a newborn's first breath, pulmonary arterioles A) constrict. B) dilate.

91)

Postpartum, estrogen and progesterone levels

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A) rise steeply. B) rise gradually. C) fall steeply. D) fall gradually.

92)

After delivering a child, the levels of CRH in the mother's blood A) increase. B) decrease. C) remain thesame.

93)

After childbirth, lochia lasts for A) 3-4 days. B) 2-3 weeks. C) 3-5 months.

94) After childbirth, a woman's aldosterone levels ________ which results in _________ urine volume. A) increase; increased B) increase; decreased C) decrease; decreased D) decrease; increased

95) In nonpregnant women, ____________ inhibits secretion of substantial amounts of prolactin.

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A) GnRH B) dopamine C) estrogen D) progesterone

96)

Compared to breast milk, colostrum contains A) more fat and moreimmunoglobulins. B) more fat but lessimmunoglobulins. C) less fat but moreimmunoglobulins. D) less fat and lessimmunoglobulins.

97) Release of breast milk occurs when the hormone __________ stimulates _________ cells to contract. A) prolactin; mechanoreceptor B) oxytocin; myoepithelial C) estrogen; areolar D) prolactin; mammary acini E) oxytocin; suspensory

98)

In a mother who has recently delivered a child, afterpains occur when A) dopamine triggersuterine contractions. B) oxytocin triggersuterine contractions. C) estrogen triggersprostaglandin release. D) progesteroneinhibits prostaglandin release.

99)

The display of chromosome pairs arranged by size and similar features is known as the

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A) genotype. B) Punnet square. C) karyotype. D) heredity gel.

100)

The place on a chromosome where a particular gene is located is its A) locus. B) phenotype. C) karyotype. D) genotype. E) linkage.

101)

Individuals who are described asheterozygous have different A) genotypes than thepredominant genotype. B) genes for onetrait on several chromosomes. C) alleles for aparticulartrait. D) parents whodisplayed two different phenotypes.

102) Mendelian inheritance specifies that if two heterozygous individuals mate, the chances that a child would be homozygous for the recessive allele would be A) 25%. B) 50%. C) 75%. D) impossible topredict.

103)

Blood type is an example of a trait that demonstrates

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A) strict Mendelianinheritance. B) codominantinheritance. C) incompletedominance. D) polygenicdominance. E) sex-linkedrecessiveness.

104) Which is the larger of the sex chromosomes and is more commonly involved in sexlinked inheritance? A) The X chromosome B) The Ychromosome

105) Consider a mother with normal vision who hasason with red-green color blindness. The mother was a "carrier" of the affected gene,as she had a normal phenotype but A) two recessivealleles. B) two dominantalleles. C) one dominant andone recessive allele. D) a codominant setof alleles. E) an incompletelypenetrating genotype.

106) Someone with the genotype associated with hereditary pancreatitis might not show symptoms of the disorder because the disorder does not have a _________ level of 100%. A) dominance B) penetrance C) polygenicity D) homozygous E) sex-linkage

107)

Fetal alcohol syndrome involves a disorder that alters the

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A) sequence of base pairs in the genes of the fetus. B) structuralintegrity of the chromosomes of the fetus. C) expression ofgenes in the fetus. D) gametes of thefetus.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 108) The maturation that occurs within the pre-embryonic and embryonic periods is known as __________.

109) Sperm undergo a process of conditioning known as __________ after they arrive in the female reproductive tract.

110) During fertilization, the nuclei of the sperm and the ovum are referred to as _________, before they come together and fuse to form a single nucleus.

111) Within the bilaminar germinal disc, the layer of columnar cells that is adjacent to the amniotic cavity is the _________ layer.

112) The process by which the three primary germ layers are formed during the third week of development is known as __________.

113)

The germ layer between the ectoderm and the endoderm is the __________.

114) Blocklike masses that form from paraxial mesoderm and develop into muscle, axial skeleton, cartilage, and dermis are known as __________.

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115) Substances that can cause birth defects or the death of the embryo are referred to as __________.

116)

Blood vessel growth within the uterus is promoted by the hormone __________.

117) Difficulty with breathing that may accompany physical exertions of a pregnant woman is called __________.

118)

An alternate term for labor is ___________.

119) During thedilation stage, the cervix expands and becomes thinner. This stage ends once the cervix has fully dilated and ________ (thinned).

120) Endometrial tissue, blood, and mucus are released from the uterus after childbirth as ___________.

121) The release of breast milk that occurs when a mother hears a crying child is called the milk ________ reflex.

122) A trait is said to exhibit ____________ dominance when the phenotype of a heterozygous individual is intermediate between the phenotypes of individuals whoare homozygous dominant and individuals who arehomozygous recessive.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 123) Describe the main functions of the placenta. Version 1

124) Define postpartum depression and describe what hormonal situation might be related to this condition.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 125) Describe the causes and effects of gastrointestinal ailments during pregnancy.

126) Explain the feedback mechanism involved in true labor.Indicate the components of the feedback system (for example, identify the control center), their responses to stimuli, and the nature of the response (is it positive or negative feedback?).

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 29_4e 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) FALSE 20) FALSE 21) FALSE 22) C 23) C 24) B 25) A 26) C Version 1

27) B 28) C 29) D 30) B 31) D 32) A 33) C 34) B 35) B 36) B 37) C 38) B 39) B 40) D 41) A 42) B 43) B 44) C 45) B 46) D 47) B 48) C 49) B 50) B 51) A 52) C 53) B 54) C 55) C 56) D Version 1

57) B 58) B 59) C 60) C 61) A 62) B 63) B 64) A 65) B 66) C 67) B 68) B 69) C 70) D 71) D 72) A 73) A 74) C 75) C 76) B 77) B 78) B 79) D 80) C 81) B 82) B 83) C 84) D 85) A 86) A Version 1

87) B 88) B 89) B 90) B 91) C 92) B 93) B 94) D 95) B 96) C 97) B 98) B 99) C 100) A 101) C 102) A 103) B 104) A 105) C 106) B 107) C 108) embryogenesis 109) capacitation 110) pronuclei 111) epiblast 112) gastrulation 113) mesoderm 114) somites 115) teratogens 116) relaxin Version 1

117) dyspnea 118) parturition 119) effaced 120) lochia 121) letdown 122) incomplete 123) The placenta is responsible for: 1)exchange of gases, nutrients, and wastes; 2) transmission of antibodies from mother to fetus; and 3) production of estrogen and progesterone. 124) Postpartum depression is extremely low mood in a woman who has recently given birth. It has been linked with high levels of CRH during pregnancy which then fall after giving birth. 125) Common complaints are nausea, heartburn, indigestion, constipation, hemorrhoids, and weight gain. Proposed causes are many. One ultimate (evolutionary) cause that has been proposed for food aversions is the protection this may afford the developing conceptus from spoiled foods. Proposals for proximate causes include high levels of hCG; high levels of progesterone slowing the intestines; compression of the viscera by the enlarged uterus; and weight gain fromenlargement of the breasts, placenta, and uterus. 126) Labor involves a positive feedback cycle. Oxytocin release stimulates prostaglandin release and uterine contraction. Contractions cause increased pressure against the cervix. Cervical stretch stimulates the hypothalamus (control center) to secrete more oxytocin and the cycle repeats and is amplified.

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