TEST BANK for Anatomy and Physiology: The Unity of Form and Function 9th Edition by Kenneth Saladin. by StudyGuide

ATLAS A TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The frontal plane passes vertically through the body or an organ and divides it into equal right and left portions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) The cut of a guillotine (decapitation) is an example of a section done in the midsagittal plane. ⊚ ⊚

The appendicular region consists of the head, neck, and trunk. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The appendix is typically found in the right lower quadrant. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The liver is proximal to the diaphragm. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) When the abdomen is divided into nine regions, the most superior horizontal line is called the midclavicular line. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

The most lateral and superior region of the abdomen is called the hypochondriac region. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) The heart occupies a space called the pericardial cavity between the parietal and visceral pericardium. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The cranial cavity contains the brain. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 10) The __________ cavity is inferior to the _____________ cavity. A) B) C) D) E)

11)

cranial; thoracic thoracic; abdominopelvic pericardial; pleural thoracic; peritoneal thoracic; cranial

The most superior segment of the upper limb is called the __________. A) B) C) D) E)

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digits manual region carpal region antebrachial region brachial region

12) The __________ region of the left lower limb is proximal to the __________ region of the ipsilateral limb. A) B) C) D) E)

13)

carpal; manual femoral; crural antebrachial; brachial tarsal; crural brachial; femoral

The ______ wraps around the stomach, small intestine, and parts of the large intestine. A) B) C) D) E)

pleura pericardium meninges visceral peritoneum parietal peritoneum

14) The ___________ is an organ directly associated with the_________ and __________systems. A) B) C) D) E)

15)

stomach; digestive; reproductive pancreas; digestive; endocrine small intestine; digestive; integumentary testis; male reproductive; urinary ovary; female reproductive; lymphatic

Which one of the following is not in the correct anatomical position?

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A) B) C) D) E)

Arms at sides Standing upright Face and eyes facing forward Feet flat on the floor Palms facing hips

16) The plane that passes vertically through the body or an organ and divides it into anterior and posterior portions is called the __________ plane. A) B) C) D) E)

17)

The interscapular region is __________ tothe scapular region. A) B) C) D) E)

18)

sagittal frontal median transverse oblique

anterior posterior medial lateral superior

The sternum (breastbone) is __________ to the vertebral column. A) B) C) D) E)

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anterior posterior superior inferior medial

19)

The __________ part of the small intestine is the part closest tothe stomach. A) B) C) D) E)

20)

The right shoulder is __________ and __________ to the umbilical region. A) B) C) D) E)

21)

dorsal ventral proximal distal medial

superior; lateral superior; medial inferior; lateral inferior; medial posterior; lateral

The trachea is __________ to the esophagus. A) B) C) D) E)

superior dorsal anterior posterior inferior

22) In the cat, the head is _________ to the tail. In the human, the head is ________ to the gluteal region (buttock). A) B) C) D) E)

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superior; superior anterior; superior posterior; dorsal ventral; distal anterior; posterior

23)

The visceral pericardium is __________ to the parietal pericardium. A) B) C) D) E)

24)

The lumbar vertebrae are __________ to the thoracic vertebrae. A) B) C) D) E)

25)

anterior superior cephalic posterior inferior

Most of the stomach is located in the _________of the abdomen. A) B) C) D) E)

26)

lateral medial superficial deep anterior

right upper quadrant (RUQ) right lower quadrant (RLQ) left upper quadrant (LUQ) left lower quadrant (LLQ) left middle quadrant (LMQ)

The superolateral regions of the abdomen are called the _________ regions. A) B) C) D) E)

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epigastric inguinal hypochondriac hypogastric lateral abdominal

27)

The urinary bladder is located in the __________ region. A) B) C) D) E)

epigastric umbilical hypogastric inguinal hypochondriac

28) In the appendicular region, the wrist is called the _________ region, and the ankle is called the ___________ region. A) B) C) D) E)

29)

The spineencloses the __________. A) B) C) D) E)

30)

manual; pedal brachial; crural crural; antebrachial carpal; tarsal metacarpal; metatarsal

thoracic cavity abdominal cavity pelvic cavity vertebral canal cranial cavity

The brain and spinal cord are protected by the _________.

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A) B) C) D) E)

31)

The thoracic cavity and abdominopelvic cavity are eachlined with ___________. A) B) C) D) E)

32)

an endothelium the pericardium the meninges a serous membrane amucous membrane

The left and right portions of the thoracic cavity are divided by the _________. A) B) C) D) E)

33)

pleura pericardium peritoneum serosa meninges

mediastinum diaphragm serous membrane meninges peritoneum

The __________ cavity contains the lungs, which are enfolded in the __________. A) B) C) D) E)

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thoracic; pleurae thoracic; pericardium thoracic; peritoneum abdominopelvic; peritoneum abdominopelvic; pleurae

34) The most superficial wall of the pleural cavity is lined by the __________, whereas the outer surface of the lungs is covered by the __________. A) B) C) D) E)

35)

The heart is in the __________ cavity and is covered by the __________. A) B) C) D) E)

36)

thoracic; pleura thoracic; pericardium pericardial; pleura pericardial; peritoneum cranial; meninges

The surface of the heart is formed by a membrane called the __________. A) B) C) D) E)

37)

mesothelium; endothelium parietal pericardium; visceral pericardium visceral pleura; parietal pleura parietal pleura; visceral pleura visceral peritoneum; parietal peritoneum

parietal peritoneum visceral peritoneum parietal pericardium visceral pericardium parietal pleura

The abdominopelvic cavity contains a moist serous membrane called the __________. A) B) C) D) E)

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peritoneum pleura pericardium mediastinum meninges

38)

The kidneys, ureters, adrenal glands, aorta, and inferior vena cava are all __________. A) B) C) D) E)

located within the peritoneal cavity retroperitoneal inside the visceral peritoneum within the pelvic cavity located within the thoracic cavity

39) The continuation of the peritoneum that binds the small intestine and suspends it from the abdominal wall is called the __________. A) B) C) D) E)

greater omentum mesentery mesocolon lesser omentum mediastinum

40) The fatty membrane that hangs like an apron from the inferolateral margin of the stomach and overlies the small intestine is called the __________. A) B) C) D) E)

greater omentum mesentery mesocolon lesser omentum mediastinum

41) The __________system provides protection, water retention, thermoregulation, and vitamin D production.

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A) B) C) D) E)

42)

The thymus, spleen, and tonsils are principal organs of the __________system. A) B) C) D) E)

43)

lymphatic muscular skeletal integumentary digestive

endocrine respiratory lymphatic circulatory muscular

The __________ and __________ systems control and coordinate every cell in a human. A) B) C) D) E)

muscular; nervous circulatory; lymphatic endocrine; nervous circulatory; endocrine muscular;skeletal

44) The __________system stores 99% of your calcium and is critical for blood cell formation. A) B) C) D) E)

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circulatory skeletal excretory muscular endocrine

45) The __________ system exchanges oxygen and carbon dioxide with the air, whereas the __________ system transports oxygen and carbon dioxide throughout the body. A) B) C) D) E)

46)

respiratory; urinary circulatory; digestive respiratory; digestive circulatory; urinary respiratory; circulatory

The __________ system breaks down food and absorbs nutrients. A) B) C) D) E)

digestive urinary reproductive circulatory lymphatic

47) The __________system regulates blood volume and pressure, stimulates red blood cell formation, eliminates wastes and detoxifies the body, and controls fluid, electrolyte, and acidbase balance. A) B) C) D) E)

48)

urinary respiratory digestive muscular lymphatic

An image of a typical chest X-ray shows a(an) __________ view of the thoracic region.

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A) B) C) D) E)

sagittal frontal transverse oblique lateral

49) Inflammation of the membrane that lines the abdominopelvic cavity is called ___________. A) B) C) D) E)

50)

peritonitis pericarditis pleuritis meningitis arthritis

Peritonitis, a life-threatening condition, can be caused by a_____________. A) B) C) D) E)

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head injury heart attack ruptured appendix punctured lung verterbral fracture

51) anatomical plane is labeled 2? A) B) C) D) E)

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Which

Transverse plane Frontal plane Sagittal plane Medial plane Coronal plane

SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions. 52)

52.1) Version 1

Which abdominal region is labeled 1?

A) B) C) D) E) F)

52.2) A) B) C) D) E) F)

52.3) A) B) C) D) E) F)

52.4)

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Epigastric region Hypochondriac region Lumbar region Inguinal region Umbilical region Hypogastric region

Which abdominal region is labeled 2? Epigastric region Hypochondriac region Lumbar region Inguinal region Umbilical region Hypogastric region

Which abdominal region is labeled 3? Epigastric region Hypochondriac region Lumbar region Inguinal region Umbilical region Hypogastric region

Which abdominal region is labeled 4?

A) B) C) D) E) F)

52.5) A) B) C) D) E) F)

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Epigastric region Hypochondriac region Lumbar region Inguinal region Umbilical region Hypogastric region

Which abdominal region is labeled 5? Epigastric region Hypochondriac region Lumbar region Inguinal region Umbilical region Hypogastric region

53)

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53.1) A) B) C) D) E)

53.2) A) B) C) D) E)

53.3) A) B) C) D) E)

53.4) A) B) C) D) E)

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Which body cavity is labeled 1? Pleural cavity Pericardial cavity Abdominal cavity Pelvic cavity Cranial cavity

Which body cavity is labeled 2? Pleural cavity Pericardial cavity Abdominal cavity Pelvic cavity Cranial cavity

Which body cavity is labeled 3? Pleural cavity Pericardial cavity Abdominal cavity Pelvic cavity Cranial cavity

Which body cavity is labeled 4? Pleural cavity Pericardial cavity Abdominal cavity Pelvic cavity Cranial cavity

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Answer Key Test name: Atlas A Test Bank 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) E 11) E 12) B 13) D 14) B 15) E 16) B 17) C 18) A 19) C 20) A 21) C 22) B 23) D 24) E 25) C 26) C Version 1

27) C 28) D 29) D 30) E 31) D 32) A 33) A 34) D 35) B 36) D 37) A 38) B 39) B 40) A 41) D 42) C 43) C 44) B 45) E 46) A 47) A 48) B 49) A 50) C 51) A 52) Section Break 52.1) B 52.2) A 52.3) E 52.4) F Version 1

52.5) D 53) Section Break 53.1) A 53.2) B 53.3) C 53.4) D

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ATLAS B TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The plantar surface refers to the sole of the foot. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) The heart occupies a space called the pericardial cavity between the parietal and visceral pericardia. ⊚ ⊚

true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 3) Which of the following bones is/are part of the appendicular region? Check all that apply. A) B) C) D) E)

Which of the following is/are considered part of the axial region? Check all that apply. A) B) C) D) E)

Ilium (part of the hip bone) L5 vertebra (part of the spine) Humerus (upper arm bone) Sternum (breast bone) Femur (thigh bone)

Sternum Humerus Ribs Sacrum Scapula

Which of these directional terms are being used correctly? Select all that apply.

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A) B) C) D) E)

The wrist is distal to the elbow. The ears are lateral to the nose. The umbilicus (belly button) is superior to the chin. The ankle is proximal to the knee. The trachea is deep to the esophagus.

6) Which of the following structures is contained within the abdominopelvic cavity? Check all that apply. A) B) C) D) E)

Liver Lower esophageal sphincter Descending aorta Spleen Pancreas

7) Which of the following structures is found within the thoracic cavity? Check all that apply. A) B) C) D) E)

heart liver lungs fundus of the stomach descending aorta

8) Which of the following statements is correct regarding directional terms? Check all that apply. A) B) C) D) E)

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The sternum (breast bone) is anterior to the spine. The shoulder is proximal to the elbow. The umbilicus (belly button) is inferior to the chin. The spine is lateral to the shoulder. The hips are medial to the umbilicus (belly button).

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 9) Which of the following is not found in the axial region of the body? A) B) C) D)

10)

The most proximal region of the upper limb is called the __________ region. A) B) C) D) E)

11)

Cervical region Abdominal region Thoracic region Carpal region

palmar cubital carpal antebrachial brachial

The superolateral regions of the abdomen are called the __________ regions. A) B) C) D) E)

epigastric inguinal hypochondriac hypogastric lower quadrant

12) The duodenum is the region of the small intestine closest to the stomach. It is therefore referred to as the most __________ region of the small intestine.

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A) B) C) D) E)

13)

The right shoulder is __________ and __________ to the umbilical region. A) B) C) D) E)

14)

medial superficial superior dorsal distal

The __________ region is immediately medial to the coxal region. A) B) C) D) E)

16)

superior; lateral superior; medial inferior; lateral inferior; medial posterior; lateral

The tarsal region is __________ to the popliteal region. A) B) C) D) E)

15)

dorsal ventral proximal distal medial

inguinal hypochondriac umbilical popliteal cubital

Between the two scapulae is a region referred to as the __________ region.

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A) B) C) D) E)

scapular brachial interscapular lumbar cervical

17) In the appendicular region, the wrist is called the __________ region, and the ankle is called the __________ region. A) B) C) D) E)

18)

Which of these regions is not part of the upper limb? A) B) C) D) E)

19)

manual; pedal brachial; crural crural; antebrachial carpal; tarsal metacarpal; metatarsal

Plantar Carpal Cubital Brachial Palmar

The anatomical term for the upper arm region is __________. A) B) C) D)

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brachial carpal biceps crural

20) The __________ wraps around and is directly adhered to the stomach, small intestine, and large intestine. A) B) C) D) E)

pleura pericardium meninges visceral peritoneum parietal peritoneum

21) The thoracic cavity is divided into right, left, and medial portions by a region called the _________. A) B) C) D) E)

mediastinum diaphragm serous membrane meninges peritoneum

22) A fatty membrane that hangs like an apron from the inferolateral margin of the stomach and overlies the small intestine is called the __________. A) B) C) D) E)

23)

greater omentum mesentery mesocolon lesser omentum mediastinum

Which of the following terms indicates the largest gluteus muscle?

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A) B) C) D) E)

24)

The _____ region of the left lower limb is proximal to the _____ region of the same limb. A) B) C) D) E)

25)

carpal; manual femoral; crural antebrachial; brachial tarsal; crural brachial; femoral

What is the Latin term for "lip"? A) B) C) D)

26)

Magnus Major Maximus Minimus Majorus

Labium Oris Buccal Mental

Which of the following muscles is not externally visible on the trunk of the body? A) B) C) D) E)

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Transverse abdominal Latissimus dorsi Trapezius Pectoralis major External oblique

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 27) The forearm is more appropriately referred to as the __________ region.

28) The visceral __________ is the serous membrane covering the external surface of the lungs.

29)

The anterior pit of the elbow is called the __________ region.

30)

The posterior pit of the knee is called the __________ region.

31)

The cheek area is known as the __________ region.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 32) Lay people often misunderstand medical terminology. What do you think people really mean when they say they have “planter’s warts”?

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SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions.

33) CopyrightJoeDeGrandis/McGraw-HillEducation

33.1)

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Which letter represents the mental region?

A) B) C) D) E)

A C D E F

33.2) A) B) C) D) E)

Which letter represents the auricular region? A C D E F

33.3) A) B) C) D) E)

Which letter represents the buccal region? A C D E F

33.4) A) B) C) D) E)

33.5) Version 1

Which letter represents the cervical region? A C D E F

Which letter represents the frontal region?

A) B) C) D) E)

A C D E F

34) CopyrightJoeDeGrandis/McGraw-HillEducation

34.1)

Version 1

Which letter represents the linea alba?

A) B) C) D) E)

A B C D E

34.2) A) B) C) D) E)

Which letter represents the costal margin? A B C D E

34.3) A) B) C) D) E)

Which letter represents the body of the sternum? A B C D E

34.4) A) B) C) D) E)

34.5) Version 1

Which letter represents the body of the clavicle? A B C D E

Which letter represents the trapezius muscle?

A) B) C) D) E)

A B C D E

35) CopyrightJoeDeGrandis/McGraw-HillEducation

35.1)

Version 1

Which letter represents the brachioradialis?

A) B) C) D) E)

A B C D E

35.2) A) B) C) D) E)

Which letter represents the teres major? A B C D E

35.3) A) B) C) D) E)

Which letter represents the infraspinatus? A B C D E

35.4) A) B) C) D) E)

35.5) Version 1

Which letter represents the erector spinae? A B C D E

Which letter represents the deltoid?

A) B) C) D) E)

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A B C D E

Answer Key Test name: Atlas B Test Bank 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) [A, C, E] 4) [A, C, D] 5) [A, B] 6) [A, B, D, E] 7) [A, C, E] 8) [A, B, C] 9) D 10) E 11) C 12) C 13) A 14) E 15) A 16) C 17) D 18) A 19) A 20) D 21) A 22) A 23) C 24) B 25) A 26) A Version 1

27) antebrachial 28) pleura 29) cubital 30) popliteal 31) buccal 32) Suggested Answer: It is a misunderstanding of the word plantar, the surface where such warts commonly occur. 33) Section Break 33.1) C 33.2) D 33.3) B 33.4) E 33.5) A 34) Section Break 34.1) E 34.2) D 34.3) C 34.4) B 34.5) A 35) Section Break 35.1) A 35.2) B 35.3) D 35.4) E 35.5) C

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CHAPTER 1 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Feeling for swollen lymph nodes is an example of auscultation. ⊚ ⊚

We can see through bones with magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). ⊚ ⊚

true false

Cells were first named by microscopist Robert Hooke. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Histology is the study of structures that can be observed without a magnifying lens. ⊚ ⊚

true false

All functions of the body can be interpreted as the effects of cellular activity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) The hypothetico-deductive method is common in physiology, whereas the inductive method is common in anatomy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

An individual scientific fact has more information than a theory.

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⊚ ⊚

Evolutionary (Darwinian) medicine traces some of our diseases to our evolutionary past. ⊚ ⊚

true false

A molecule of water is more complex than a mitochondrion (organelle). ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

Organs are made of tissues. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

The terms development and evolution have the same meaning in physiology. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

Homeostasis and occupying space are both unique characteristics of living things. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) Negative feedback is a self-amplifying chain of events that tends to produce rapid change in the body. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14) Positive feedback helps to restore normal function when one of the body's physiological variables gets out of balance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) Anatomists around the world adhere to a lexicon of standard international terms which stipulates both Latin names and accepted English equivalents. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) Lou Gehrig disease is the eponym for Amyotropic Lateral Sclerosis, made famous by the "ice bucket challege." ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) Sometimes anatomical terms come from origins that do not lend any insight into their meaning. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 18) The study of normal body structures is called ___________. A) B) C) D) E)

19)

physiology anatomy pathology microscopy biology

The study of how the body functions is called ___________.

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A) B) C) D) E)

neuroanatomy anatomy chemistry histology physiology

20) Feeling structures with your fingertips is called __________, whereas tapping on the body and listening for sounds of abnormalities is called __________. A) B) C) D) E)

palpation; auscultation auscultation; percussion percussion; auscultation palpation; percussion percussion; palpation

21) Which of these is the best imaging technique for routinely examining the anatomical development of a fetus? A) B) C) D) E)

22)

Auscultation PET scan MRI Sonography Radiography

The study of the structure and function of cells is called __________. A) B) C) D) E)

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cytology gross anatomy exploratory physiology comparative physiology radiology

23)

Ultrastructure refers to the detailed structure to the level of the ___________. A) B) C) D) E)

24)

The study of how hormones function is called ____________. A) B) C) D) E)

25)

molecule cell organelle tissue organ

neuroanatomy neurophysiology endocrinology histology pathophysiology

The study of mechanism of disease is called __________. A) B) C) D) E)

neuroanatomy neurophysiology endocrinology histology pathophysiology

26) The terms physics, physiology, and physician come from a term __________ proposed to distinguish natural causes from supernatural causes.

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A) B) C) D) E)

Hippocrates Plato Schwann Aristotle Avicenna

27) Who was a physician to the Roman gladiators, learned by dissection of animals, and saw science as a method of discovery? A) B) C) D) E)

Hippocrates Plato Schwann Aristotle Galen

28) Knownas "the father of modern anatomy," __________ was the first to publish accurate drawings of the body. A) B) C) D) E)

29)

Vesalius Maimonides Harvey Aristotle van Leeuwenhoek

The most influential medical textbook of the ancient era was written by __________. A) B) C) D) E)

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Hippocrates Aristotle Galen Vesalius Avicenna

30) Who established a code of ethics for physicians and is considered the "father of medicine"? A) B) C) D) E)

Aristotle Hippocrates Galen Vesalius Hooke

31) What is the process of using numerous observations to develop general principles and predictions about a specific subject called? A) B) C) D) E)

Experimental design The deductive method The inductive method A hypothesis Statistical testing

32) Most people think that ulcers are caused by psychological stress. It was discovered that an acid-resistant bacterium, Heliobacter pylori, lives in the lining of the stomach. If these bacteria cause ulcers, then treatment with an antibiotic should reduce ulcers. This line of investigation is an example of __________. A) B) C) D) E)

hypothetical reasoning hypothetico-deductive reasoning the inductive method experimental design statistical analysis

33) The use of controls and statistical testing are two aspects of experimental design that help to ensure __________.

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A) B) C) D) E)

an adequate sample size objective and reliable results experimental bias psychosomatic effects treatment groups

34) Which process submits a scientist's ideas to the critical judgment of other specialists in the field before the research is funded or published? A) B) C) D) E)

Adjudication Statistical testing Falsification Peer review Hypothetico-deductive testing

35) A new drug apparently increases short-term memory. Students were divided randomly into two groups at the beginning of the semester. One group was given the memory pill once a day for the semester, and the other group was given a same-looking pill, but it was just sugar. The sugar pill is termed a(n) __________. A) B) C) D) E)

controlled pill placebo treatment pill variable effective dose

36) Two groups of people were tested to determine whether garlic lowers blood cholesterol levels. One group was given 800 mg of garlic powder daily for four months and exhibited an average 12% reduction in the blood cholesterol. The other group was not given any garlic and after four months averaged a 3% reduction in cholesterol. The group that was not given the garlic was the __________ group.

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A) B) C) D) E)

37)

peer test treatment control double-blind

An educated speculation or a possible answer to a question is called a(n) __________. A) B) C) D) E)

scientific method theory law hypothesis fact

38) Which of the following would contain the greatest amount of information that scientists consider to be true to the best of their knowledge? A) B) C) D) E)

A fact A law of nature A hypothesis An equation A theory

39) If a species of animal evolves over generations to grow a large fan-blade like growth on its back to catch the wind and cool its body, this would be an example of responding to __________. A) B) C) D) E)

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selection pressure adaptation natural selection climate change positive feedback

40)

What is a change in the genetic composition of a population over time called? A) B) C) D) E)

41)

The constant appearance of new strains of influenza virus is an example of __________. A) B) C) D) E)

42)

a model evolution selection pressure survivorship success

What is the principal theory of how evolution works? A) B) C) D) E)

43)

Mutation Natural selection Selection pressure Evolution Adaptation

Natural pressure Selective pressure Darwinian pressure Natural adaptation Natural selection

Stereoscopic vision provides __________. A) B) C) D) E)

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opposable perception color perception depth perception bipedalism opposition of thumbs

44)

Most primates are __________, meaning they live in trees. A) B) C) D) E)

prehensile bipedal cursorial troglodytic arboreal

45) Which of the following was an adaptation thatevolved in connection with human upright walking? A) B) C) D) E)

Hair Fully opposable thumbs Stereoscopic vision Color vision Spinal and pelvic anatomy

46) A human isborn before his/her nervous system has matured. This is traceable to __________. A) B) C) D) E)

47)

their inability to regulate body temperature skeletal adaptations to bipedalism the arboreal habits of early primates the conditions of modern civilization the diet of early species of Homo

What is the species of modern humans?

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A) B) C) D) E)

Homo erectus Homo sapiens Homo habilis Neanderthal Australopithecus

48) An __________ is composed of two or more tissues types, whereas __________ are microscopic structures in a cell. A) B) C) D) E)

organ system; organs organ system; organelles organ; organelles organ; molecules organelle;molecules

49) Which of the following lists levels of human structure from the most complex to the simplest? A) B) C) D) E)

Organelle, cell, tissue, organ, organ system Organ system, organ, cell, tissue, organelle Organ system, organelle, tissue, cell, organ Organ system, organ, tissue, cell, organelle Organ, organ system, tissue, cell, organelle

50) Which of the followinglists examples of body structures from the simplest to the most complex? A) B) C) D) E)

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Mitochondrion, connective tissue, protein, stomach, adipocyte (fat cell) Protein, mitochondrion, adipocyte (fat cell), connective tissue, stomach Mitochondrion, connective tissue, stomach, protein, adipocyte (fat cell) Protein, adipocyte (fat cell), stomach, connective tissue, mitochondrion Protein, stomach, connective tissue, adipocyte (fat cell), mitochondrion

51) A(n) __________ is a group of similar cells and their intercellular materials in a discrete region of an organ performing a specific function. A) B) C) D) E)

52)

All of the following are human organ systems except __________. A) B) C) D) E)

53)

macromolecule organ system organelle organism tissue

skeletal endocrine epidermal reproductive lymphatic

All of the following are organs except __________. A) B) C) D) E)

teeth the skin nails the liver the digestive system

54) Taking apart a clock to see how it works is similar to __________ thinking about human physiology.

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A) B) C) D) E)

comparative evolutionary holistic inductive reductionist

55) Which of the following approaches understanding the human body by studying the interactions of its parts? A) B) C) D) E)

Naturalism Reductionism Vitalism Holism Rationalism

56) What is the view that not everything about an organism can be understood or predicted from the knowledge of its components; that is, the whole is greater than the sum of its parts? A) B) C) D) E)

Naturalism Reductionism Holism Materialism Science

57) The fact that most of us have five lumbar vertebrae, but some people have six and some have four, is an example of what type of variation among organisms? A) B) C) D) E)

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Cellular Holistic Physiological Anatomical Reductionist

58)

Why does a surgeon need to be familiar with different versions of anatomy? A) B) C) D) E)

59)

What are the simplest body structures considered alive? A) B) C) D) E)

60)

Cellular adaptation Holistic medicine Physiological variation Anatomical variation Evolutionary adaptation

Organ systems Organs Cells Organelles Molecules

Metabolism is the sum of all __________ change. A) B) C) D) E)

external physical external chemical internal chemical internal physical internal integrative

61) The change in size of the bone marrow (where blood cells are produced) as an infant matures is an example of __________, whereas the transformation of blood stem cells into white blood cells is an example of __________.

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A) B) C) D) E)

development; differentiation growth; development growth; differentiation differentiation; growth differentiation; development

62) A hemoglobin level of 12g/dL is normal for an adult female, but low for an adult male. What is this is an example of? A) B) C) D) E)

63)

Cellular adaptation Holistic medicine Physiological variation Anatomical variation Structural differentiation

Which of the following is not an aspectthat could result in physiological variation? A) B) C) D) E)

Age Gender Environment Physical activity These are all aspects that can cause physiological variation.

64) We live in an ever-changing environment outside of our body, yet our internal conditions remain relatively stable. This is called __________. A) B) C) D) E)

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homeostasis metastasis responsiveness adaptation evolution

65)

What are the three common components of a feedback loop? A) B) C) D) E)

Stimulus, integrating (control) center, and organ system Stimulus, receptor, and integrating (control) center Receptor, integrating (control) center, and effector Receptor, organ, and organ system Receptor, integrating (control) center, and organ system

66) During exercise, one generates excess heat and the body temperature rises. As a response, blood vessels dilate in the skin, warm blood flows closer to the body surface, and heat is lost. This is an example of__________. A) B) C) D) E)

negative feedback positive feedback dynamic equilibrium integration control set point adjustment

67) Blood glucose concentration rises after a meal and stimulates the pancreas to release the hormone insulin. Insulin travels in the blood and stimulates the uptake ofglucose by body cells from the bloodstream, thusreducing blood glucose concentration. This is an example of _________. A) B) C) D) E)

68)

negative feedback positive feedback dynamic equilibrium integration control set point adjustment

Negative feedback loops are __________.

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A) B) C) D) E)

homeostatic mechanisms not homeostatic mechanisms associated with "vicious circles" self-amplifying cycles usually harmful

69) When a woman is giving birth, the head of the baby pushes against her cervix and stimulates therelease of the hormone oxytocin. Oxytocin travels in the blood and stimulates the uterus to contract. Labor contractions become more and more intense until the baby is expelled. This is an example of __________. A) B) C) D) E)

70)

negative feedback positive feedback dynamic equilibrium integration control set point adjustment

Which of the following is most likely to cause disease? A) B) C) D) E)

Positive feedback Negative feedback Homeostasis Equilibrium Irritability

71) A physiological __________ is a difference in chemical concentration, electrical charge, physical pressure, temperature, or other variables between one point and another.

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A) B) C) D) E)

gradient barrier membrane imbalance feedback loop

72) Chemicals in a solution can move down a concentration gradient. This means the chemical will move from the area of__________ concentrationto the area of_________ concentration. A) B) C) D) E)

73)

higher; lower lower; higher equal; equal lower; lower higher; higher

Which of the following is not an example of a physiological gradient? A) B) C) D) E)

Tissue Thermal Concentration Pressure Electrical

74) What type of gradient causes the movement of ions due to both charge and concentration differences? A) B) C) D) E)

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Electrochemical gradient Thermal gradient Concentration gradient Pressure gradient Osmotic gradient

75) Modern anatomical language is based on what two languages because individuals speaking these languages made most of the early anatomical discoveries? A) B) C) D) E)

76)

The term fallopian tube (uterine tube) is an example of __________. A) B) C) D) E)

77)

a Latin root used in medical terminology the use of prefixes to name an anatomical structure the use of suffixes to name an anatomical structure an eponym an acronym

The lexicon of standard international anatomical terms is __________. A) B) C) D) E)

78)

Greek and Latin English and Japanese English and Spanish Roman and Latin Latin and Chinese

called Terminologia Anatomica (TA) called Nomina Anatomica (NA) formed from thousands of English word roots formed from thousands of Italian word roots formed from thousands of French word roots

The prefix hypo- means __________, whereas hyper- means __________.

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A) B) C) D) E)

79)

front; back right; left inside; outside clear; dark below; above

What does "hypercalcemia" mean? A) B) C) D) E)

Elevated calcium levels Lowered calcium levels Elevated sodium levels Lowered sodium levels Elevated potassium levels

80) DNA is an example of an __________, whereas PET scan is an example of an __________. A) B) C) D) E)

abbreviation; acronym acronym; abbreviation eponym; acronym acronym; eponym eponym; abbreviation

81) The plural of axilla (armpit) is __________, whereas the plural of appendix is __________. A) B) C) D) E)

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axillae; appendices axillides; appendages axillies; appendi axilli; appendices axilles; appendices

82)

The plural of villus (hair) is __________, whereas the plural of diagnosis is __________. A) B) C) D) E)

83)

Why is precise spelling important in anatomy? A) B) C) D) E)

84)

villuses; diagnosises villi; diagnoses villus; diagnosis villi; diagnosis villuses; diagnosis

It is important to practice language skills. There are many different ways to spell certain terms. Eponyms are difficult to memorize. There are many similar terms in anatomy that refer to different structures. It is easier to remember acronyms when spelled correctly.

The ileum is __________, whereasthe ilium is ____________. A) B) C) D) E)

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part of the hip bone; part of the small intestine part of the small intestine; part of the hip bone a bone in the wrist; a muscle of the back a muscle; a bone a bone; a muscle

85)

What is the name of the highlighted organ?

A) B) C) D) E)

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Small intestine Stomach Liver Large intestine Spleen

86)

What is the name of the highlighted organ?

A) B) C) D) E)

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Adrenal gland Spleen Liver Kidney Pancreas

SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions.

87)

87.1) A) B) C) D) E)

Which letter represents the receptor of this feedback loop? A B C D E

87.2) A) B) C) D) E)

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Which letter represents the effectorof this feedback loop? A B C D E

87.3) A) B) C) D) E)

87.4) A) B) C) D) E)

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Where in this feedback loop is homeostasis present? A B C D E

This feedback loop is an example of which of the following? Negative feedback Positive feedback Dynamic equilibrium Thermal gradient Natural selection

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88.1) A) B) C) D) E)

88.2) A) B) C) D) E)

88.3) A) B) C) D) E)

88.4)

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Which letter represents a pressuregradient? A B C D All of these represent a pressure gradient.

Which letter represents a thermalgradient? A B C D All of these represent a thermal gradient.

Glucose would move down which of these gradients? A B C D Glucose can move via all of these mechanisms.

Ions would move down which of these gradients?

A) B) C) D) E)

A B C D Ions can move via all of these mechanisms.

89)

a: U.H.B. Trust/The Image Bank/Getty Images; b: pang_oasis/Shutterstock; c: Miriam Maslo/Science Source; d: UHB Trust/Getty Images; e: ISM/Sovereign/Medical Images

89.1)

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Which image is produced using an X-ray?

A) B) C) D) E)

A B C D E

89.2) A) B) C) D) E)

Which image is produced using Computed Tomography? A B C D E

89.3) A) B) C) D) E)

Which image is produced using Magnetic Resonance Imaging? A B C D E

89.4) Which imaging technique would be used to determine the location of a blocked artery? A) B) C) D) E)

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A B C D E

89.5) Which imaging technique would be used to determine the metabolically active areas of the brain? A) B) C) D) E)

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A B C D E

90)

90.1)

Version 1

What level of structural hierarchy is represented by the letter E?

A) B) C) D) E)

90.2) A) B) C) D) E)

90.3) A) B) C) D) E)

90.4) A) B) C) D) E)

90.5) Version 1

Organelle Cell Tissue Organ Molecule

What level of structural hierarchy is represented by the letter H? Organ system Cell Tissue Organ Molecule

What is the study of the structure at E called? Cytology Histology Physiology Organismal biology Pathology

What is the study of the structure at F called? Cytology Histology Physiology Organismal biology Pathology

The integumentary system is an example of which level of structural hierarchy?

A) B) C) D) E)

A C E H I

90.6) A) B) C) D) E)

A lymph node is an example of which level of structural hierarchy? G C E H I

90.7) A) B) C) D) E)

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A ribosome is an example of which level of structural hierarchy? A C E H D

91)

91.1) A) B) C) D) E)

91.2) Version 1

This is an example of which of the following? Positive feedback Negative feedback Dynamic equilibrium Adaptation Natural selection

In this feedback loop, what is the receptor?

A) B) C) D) E)

91.3) A) B) C) D) E)

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Brain Oxytocin Uterus Ovaries Adrenal gland

In this feedback loop, what is the effector? Cervix Brain Oxytocin Uterine muscles Ovaries

Answer Key Test name: Chap 01_9e 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) B 19) E 20) D 21) D 22) A 23) A 24) C 25) E 26) D Version 1

27) E 28) A 29) C 30) B 31) C 32) B 33) B 34) D 35) B 36) D 37) D 38) E 39) A 40) D 41) B 42) E 43) C 44) E 45) E 46) B 47) B 48) C 49) D 50) B 51) E 52) C 53) E 54) E 55) B 56) C Version 1

57) D 58) D 59) C 60) C 61) C 62) C 63) E 64) A 65) C 66) A 67) A 68) A 69) B 70) A 71) A 72) A 73) A 74) A 75) A 76) D 77) A 78) E 79) A 80) A 81) A 82) B 83) D 84) B 85) C 86) D Version 1

87) Section Break 87.1) B 87.2) D 87.3) E 87.4) A 88) Section Break 88.1) A 88.2) D 88.3) B 88.4) C 89) Section Break 89.1) A 89.2) C 89.3) D 89.4) B 89.5) E 90) Section Break 90.1) B 90.2) A 90.3) A 90.4) B 90.5) D 90.6) A 90.7) E 91) Section Break 91.1) A 91.2) A 91.3) D

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CHAPTER 2 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Minerals are organic elements extracted from the soil by plants. ⊚ ⊚

Molecules composed of two or more atoms are called compounds. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Potassium, sodium, and chlorine are trace elements. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Hydrogen, deuterium, and tritium are three isotopes of hydrogen. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Ionic bonds break apart in water more easily than covalent bonds do. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) A solution is a mixture of two or more substances that are physically blended but not chemically combined. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The pH of blood plasma is approximately 7.4, which is slightly acidic.

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⊚ ⊚

The high heat capacity of water makes it a very ineffective coolant. ⊚ ⊚

true false

In an exchange reaction, covalent bonds are broken and new covalent bonds are formed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Chemical reactions in which larger molecules are broken down into smaller ones are called catabolic reactions. ⊚ ⊚

11)

The opposite of a dehydration synthesis reaction is a hydrolysis reaction. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

Unsaturated fatty acids have as much hydrogen as they can carry. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

A dipeptide is a molecule with two peptide bonds. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

14) All amino acids have both a carboxyl group and an amino group attached to a central carbon. ⊚ ⊚

15)

ATP is the body's most important form of long-term energy storage. ⊚ ⊚

16)

true false

A molecule that is oxidized gains electrons and energy. ⊚ ⊚

17)

true false

Minerals are organic molecules that must be obtained through food. ⊚ ⊚

true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 18) Which of these is a cation? Check all that apply. A) B) C) D) E)

O 2 K+ Na+ Ca 2+ Cl -

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 19) The most abundant element in the human body, by weight, is __________.

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A) B) C) D) E)

20)

Sodium has an atomic number of 11 and an atomic mass of 23. Sodium has __________. A) B) C) D) E)

21)

nitrogen hydrogen carbon oxygen calcium

12 neutrons and 11 protons 12 protons and 11 neutrons 12 electrons and 11 neutrons 12 protons and 11 electrons 12 electrons and 11 protons

The chemical properties of an atom are determined by its __________. A) B) C) D) E)

protons electrons neutrons protons and neutrons particles

22) Na (atomic no. 11) reacts with Cl (atomic no. 17) to become stable. In the reaction, Na will ____________, while Cl will ____________. A) B) C) D) E)

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accept one electron; give up one electron give up one proton; accept one proton share one electron with chlorine; share one electron with sodium become an anion; become a cation give up one electron; accept one electron

23) Oxygen has an atomic number of 8 and an atomic mass of 16. How many valence electrons does it have? A) B) C) D) E)

2 4 6 8 16

24) Oxygen has an atomic number of eight. When two oxygen atoms come together, they form a(n) __________ bond. A) B) C) D) E)

25)

When table salt, sodium chloride (NaCl), is placed in water __________. A) B) C) D) E)

26)

hydrogen nonpolar covalent polar covalent ionic Van der Waals

Na + and Cl - form ionic bonds with each other Na + and Cl - form polar covalent bonds with each other Na + and Cl - form hydrogen bonds with water ionic bonds between Na + and Cl - are broken Na + and Cl - become separated by their Van der Waals forces

The bonding properties of an atom are determined by its __________.

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A) B) C) D) E)

27)

What type of bond attracts one water molecule to another? A) B) C) D) E)

28)

An ionic bond A peptide bond A hydrogen bond A covalent bond A hydrolytic bond

__________ account for 98.5% of the body's weight. A) B) C) D) E)

29)

electrons protons positrons neutrons photons

Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, sodium, potassium, and chlorine Carbon, oxygen, iron, sodium, potassium, and chlorine Carbon, nitrogen, hydrogen, sodium, potassium, and chlorine Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen, sodium, and potassium Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen, calcium, and phosphorus

__________ differ from one another in their number of neutrons and atomic mass. A) B) C) D) E)

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Cations Anions Isotopes Electrolytes Free radicals

30) When jumping into water you notice resistance. This resistance is caused by water's __________. A) B) C) D) E)

31)

adhesiveness cohesiveness hydrophobic tension hydrophilic tension osmotic equilibrium

Which of these is hydrophobic? A) B) C) D) E)

Glucose K + Cl Water Fat

32) Blood contains NaCl, protein, and cells. The NaCl is in a(n) __________, the protein is in a(n) __________, and the cells are in a __________. A) B) C) D) E)

33)

emulsion; solution; suspension solvent; emulsion; colloid colloid; suspension; solution suspension; colloid; solution solution; colloid; suspension

Which of these is the most appropriate to express the number of molecules per volume?

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A) B) C) D) E)

34)

A solution with pH 4 has __________ the H + concentration of a solution with pH 8. A) B) C) D) E)

35)

Molarity Volume Percentage Weight per volume Milliequivalents per liter

½ 2 times 4 times 10,000 times 1/10,000

Which of these has the highest H + concentration? A) B) C) D) E)

Lemon juice, pH = 2.3 Red wine, pH = 3.2 Tomato juice, pH = 4.7 Saliva, pH = 6.6 Household ammonia, pH = 10.8

36) In a workout your muscle cells produce lactate, yet you maintain a constant blood pH because _________. A) B) C) D) E)

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metabolic acids are neutralized in muscle cells before released into the blood metabolic bases are produced at the same rate by muscle cells to neutralize the acids the respiratory system removes excess H + from the blood before the pH is lowered the body contains chemicals called buffers that resist changes in pH endothelial cells secrete excess H + to prevent a decrease in pH

37) A solution that resists a change in pH when an acid or base is added to it is a(n) __________. A) B) C) D) E)

buffer catalyst reducing agent oxidizing agent colloid

38) A chemical reaction that removes electrons from an atom is called a(n)__________ reaction. A) B) C) D) E)

39)

reduction condensation hydrolysis anabolic oxidation

The most relevant free energy in human physiology is the energy stored in __________. A) B) C) D) E)

electrolytes ionized in water free radicals with an odd number of electrons radioisotopes the chemical bonds of organic molecules Van der Waals forces

40) The breakdown of glycogen (an energy-storage compound) is an example of a(n) __________ reaction.

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A) B) C) D) E)

41)

exergonic endergonic exchange synthesis equilibrium

Potential energy stored in bonds is released as__________ energy. A) B) C) D) E)

electromagnetic electrical chemical heat kinetic

42) The breakdown of glucose to yield carbon dioxide, oxygen, and ATP can be described as __________. A) B) C) D) E)

43)

anabolic and endergonic catabolic and exergonic anabolic and exergonic catabolic and endergonic anabolic and exothermic

Which one of the following would not increase the rate of a reaction? A) B) C) D) E)

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An increase in reactant concentrations A rise in temperature The presence of a catalyst The presence of an enzyme A decrease in reactant concentrations

44)

Which of the following terms encompasses all of the other ones? A) B) C) D) E)

Catabolism Anabolism Metabolism Oxidation reactions Reduction reactions

45) The breakdown of starch by digestive enzymes into glucose molecules is a(n) __________ reaction. A) B) C) D) E)

46)

Which of the following equations depicts an exchange reaction? A) B) C) D) E)

47)

synthesis decomposition exchange anabolic reduction

AB → A + B A + B → AB AB + CD → AC + BD AB → A - + B + A + B → AB → C + D

Which of these functional groups contains nitrogen? A) B) C) D) E)

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Carboxyl group Methyl group Hydroxyl group Amino group Phosphate group

48)

Which of the followingis not an organic compound? A) B) C) D)

49)

C 16H 18N 3ClS Na 2HPO 3(H 2O) CH 4 C 3H 7O 2N

A __________ reaction breaks a __________ down into its monomers. A) B) C) D) E)

hydrolysis; polymer dehydration synthesis; molecule dehydration synthesis; polymer polymer; molecule condensation; reactant

50) The formula of an amino group is __________; the formula of a carboxyl group is __________. A) B) C) D) E)

-COOH; -OH -CH 3; -NH 2 -OH; -SH -NH 2; -COOH -SH; -H 2PO 4

51) Table sugar is a disaccharide called __________ and is made up of the monomer(s) __________.

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A) B) C) D) E)

52)

Which of the following is a disaccharide? A) B) C) D) E)

53)

Fructose; sucrose Galactose; maltose Lactose; glycogen Glucose; starch Cellulose; glucose

In general, __________ have a 2:1 ratio of hydrogen to oxygen. A) B) C) D) E)

55)

Galactose Lactose Glucose Fructose Amylose

__________ is a monosaccharide, whereas __________ is a polysaccharide. A) B) C) D) E)

54)

maltose; glucose and sucrose sucrose; glucose and fructose lactose; glucose and galactose glycogen; glucose and fructose glucose; galactose and fructose

enzymes proteins lipids carbohydrates nucleic acids

Proteoglycans are composed of __________.

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

carbohydrates and fats nucleic acids and fats carbohydrates and proteins proteins and fats nucleic acids and proteins

56) Triglycerides consist of a 3-carbon compound called __________ bound to three __________. A) B) C) D) E)

57)

__________ are major components of cell membranes, and are said to be __________. A) B) C) D) E)

58)

pyruvate; fatty acids lactate; glycerols eicosanoid; steroids glycerol; fatty acids sterol; fatty acids

Triglycerides; hydrophobic Steroids; hydrophilic Bile acids; fat-soluble Eicosanoids; water-soluble Phospholipids; amphiphilic

Which of these molecules is hydrophobic? A) B) C) D) E)

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Glucose Cholesterol Amino acid Protein Disaccharide

59)

Proteins perform all of the following functions except __________. A) B) C) D) E)

catalyze metabolic reactions give structural strength to cells and tissues produce muscular and other forms of movement regulate transport of solutes into and out of cells store hereditary information

60) A drastic conformational change in a protein in response to extreme heat or pH is called __________. A) B) C) D) E)

61) 3282

contamination denaturation saturation sedimentation deconformation

Proteins are __________ built from __________ different amino acids.01_20_2015_CS-

A) B) C) D) E)

monomers; 10 molecules; 10 polymers; 20 macromolecules; 40 peptides; 25

62) The folding and coiling of a protein into a globular shape is the __________ structure of the protein.

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A) B) C) D) E)

63)

An enzyme issubstrate-specific because of the shape of its __________. A) B) C) D) E)

64)

Lactase Amylase Galactase Protease Sucrase

All enzymes are __________. A) B) C) D) E)

66)

active site receptor secondary structure terminal amino acid alpha chain

Lactose is the substrate of which enzyme? A) B) C) D) E)

65)

primary secondary tertiary quaternary denatured

cofactors proteins lipids carbohydrates nucleic acids

Nucleic acids are __________ of __________.

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

67)

ATP__________ endergonic and exergonic reactions. A) B) C) D) E)

68)

monomers; monosaccharides monomers; ATP polymers; nucleotides polymers; cAMP polymers; DNA

opposes decomposes reduces links dehydrates

An atom with 12 electrons, 13 neutrons, and 11 protons is a(n) __________. A) B) C) D) E) F)

anion cation free radical isotope both an anion and an isotope both an anion and a free radical

69) The concentration of a solution may be expressed by all of the following except _________. A) B) C) D)

Version 1

weight per volume percentage molarity pH

70)

The vibration of an ear drum is an example of __________ energy. A) B) C) D)

71)

In the following reaction, what is(are) the product(s)? CO 2 + H 2O ---> H 2CO 3 A) B) C) D)

72)

kinetic potential elastic radiant

H 2CO 3 CO 2 and H 2O CO 2 and H 2CO 3 H 2O and H 2CO 3

Which of the following will increase the rate of a chemical reaction? A) B) C) D)

An increase in reactant concentration An increase in product concentration A decreased temperature Enzyme inhibition

73) Carbon is very versatile in forming bonds with other atoms because it has __________ valence electrons. A) B) C) D)

four two eight six

74) Amylase is a digestive enzyme that breaks starches down into sugars through __________ reactions.

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A) B) C) D)

75)

Which of the following is not a nucleotide? A) B) C) D)

76)

RNA GTP ATP cAMP

Metabolism is the sum of __________ and __________. A) B) C) D) E)

77)

hydrolysis dehydration synthesis anabolic endergonic

inhalation; exhalation growth; differentiation anabolism; catabolism positive; negative feedback responsiveness; movement

Minerals do which of the following? A) B) C) D) E)

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Contribute to the structure of bones and teeth Act as fully functional enzymes Store energy within the body Act as the monomers of nucleic acids Form the nuclei of atoms

78)

What is indicated by the arrow? A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Electron Proton Neutron Anion Prion

79)

What is thecorrect condensed structural formula for ethyl ether? (What goes in the box labeled 1?) A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

CH3OCH3 CH 3O CH 3CH 3OH C2H6O CH2CH2OH

80)

What is thecorrect molecular formula for ethyl ether? (What goes in the box labeled 2?) A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

C2H6O C2 H 3 O CH 3O C 3H 6O C3 H 3 O

81)

What type of bond is labeled 1? A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Covalent Hydrogen Ionic Disulfide Van der Waals

82)

What type of bond is labeled 1? A) B) C) D) E)

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Single polar covalent bond Double polar covalent bond Single nonpolar covalent bond Double nonpolar covalent bond Triple covalent bond

83)

What type of bond is labeled 2? A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Hydrogen Polar covalent Nonpolar covalent bond Ionic Disulfide

84)

What type of reaction is shown here? A) B) C) D) E)

Dehydration synthesis reaction Hydrolysis reaction Exergonic reaction Catabolic reaction Oxidation reaction

85)

What type of reaction is shown here?

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

Hydrolysis reaction Dehydration synthesis reaction Endergonic reaction Anabolic reaction Reduction reaction

86)

What type of molecule is maltose? A) B) C) D) E) F)

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Disaccharide Monosaccharide Polysaccharide Polypeptide Oligopeptide Triglyceride

87) What molecule is shown here? A) B) C) D) E)

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ATP cAMP Lecithin Glucose Cholesterol

SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions. 88)

Version 1

88.1) A) B) C) D) E)

88.2) A) B) C) D) E)

88.3) A) B) C) D) E)

88.4)

Version 1

Which functional group is labeled 1? Hydroxyl Methyl Carboxyl Amino Phosphate

Which functional group is labeled 2? Hydroxyl Methyl Carboxyl Amino Phosphate

Which functional group is labeled 3? Hydroxyl Methyl Carboxyl Amino Phosphate

Which functional group is labeled 4?

A) B) C) D) E)

88.5) A) B) C) D) E)

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Hydroxyl Methyl Carboxyl Amino Phosphate

Which functional group is labeled 5? Hydroxyl Methyl Carboxyl Amino Phosphate

89)

89.1) A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Identify the structural component of ATP labeled 1. Triphosphate Adenine Ribose Adenosine cAMP

89.2) A) B) C) D) E)

89.3) A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Identify the structural component of ATP labeled 2. Triphosphate Adenine Ribose Adenosine cAMP

Identify the structural component of ATP labeled 3. Triphosphate Adenine Ribose Adenosine cAMP

Answer Key Test name: Chap 02_9e 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) FALSE 17) FALSE 18) [B, C, D] 19) D 20) A 21) B 22) E 23) C 24) B 25) D 26) A Version 1

27) C 28) E 29) C 30) B 31) E 32) E 33) A 34) D 35) A 36) D 37) A 38) E 39) D 40) A 41) C 42) B 43) E 44) C 45) B 46) C 47) D 48) B 49) A 50) D 51) B 52) B 53) D 54) D 55) C 56) D Version 1

57) E 58) B 59) E 60) B 61) C 62) C 63) A 64) A 65) B 66) C 67) D 68) E 69) D 70) A 71) A 72) A 73) A 74) A 75) A 76) C 77) A 78) A 79) A 80) A 81) A 82) A 83) A 84) A 85) A 86) A Version 1

87) A 88) Section Break 88.1) A 88.2) B 88.3) C 88.4) D 88.5) E 89) Section Break 89.1) A 89.2) B 89.3) C

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CHAPTER 3 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) If a cell doubled in diameter, it would have twice as much cytoplasm to maintain. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) The most important advantage of the transmission electron microscope (TEM) over the light microscope (LM) is its higher resolution. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) In the plasma membrane, glycolipids and glycoproteins face toward the cytoplasm, while peripheral proteins always face toward the ECF. ⊚ ⊚

A cell's second messengers serve to transport material through cellular membranes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The greater the concentration gradient, the faster the diffusion rate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Microvilli and cilia differ in their function, but have the same internal structure. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Na +-K + ATPase is a countertransport antiport carrier, which always requires energy.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

8) The sodium-glucose transport protein (SGLT) is one example of an active transport process involving a uniport carrier. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) One example of pinocytosis is the uptake of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) by endothelial cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Facilitated diffusion requires energy and can transport molecules against a concentration gradient. ⊚ ⊚

11)

Both the nucleus and the mitochondrion are surrounded by a two-layermembrane. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

In most cells, the nucleus is the largest organelle. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

Ribosomes are made of proteins and RNA. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14)

The Golgi complex makes peroxisomes, but not lysosomes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) A crystal of calcium phosphate in the cytoplasm of a cell should be classified as an inclusion. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) The sodium-potassium pump moves sodium out of the cell three ions at a time and returns potassium ions into the cell two ions at a time. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 17) Which of the following statementsis nota tenet of modern cell theory? A) its cells. B) C) D) E)

An organism's structure and all of its functions are ultimately due to the activities of All cells come only from preexisting cells. All cells occupy space. All organisms are composed of cells and cell products. The cell is the basic structural and functional unit of life.

18) Cells were first discovered when a scientist named __________ observed cell walls in cork under a microscope.

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A) B) C) D) E)

19)

Cells thatare thick in the middle and tapered toward the end are called __________ cells. A) B) C) D) E)

20)

Robert Hooke Theodor Schwann Louis Pasteur Galen Galileo

squamous stellate columnar spheroid fusiform

The flat-shaped cells found covering the skin are _________ in shape. A) B) C) D) E)

cuboidal columnar cylindrical squamous spherical

21) Most human cells range from 10 to 15 micrometers in diameter. What limits how large a cell can get? A) B) C) D) E)

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The cell's lifespan The nutrients available in the environment The relationship between the cell's volume and length The relationship between the cell's length and surface area The relationship between the cell's volume and surface area

22) Although the transmission electron microscope (TEM) can magnify much more than a light microscope, even at identical magnifications the TEM has the advantage of __________. A) B) C) D) E)

23)

The fluid outside of a cell is called __________. A) B) C) D) E)

24)

being able to produce photographs of the specimen being able to work in a vacuum being able to show individual molecules producing higher resolution working better with thinner tissue specimens

cytosol intracellular fluid extracellular fluid cytoplasm nucleoplasm

Which of the following is not one of the three basic components of a cell? A) B) C) D) E)

Cytoplasm Nucleus Plasma membrane Interstitial fluid None of these are basic components of a cell.

25) Most transmembrane proteins have ___________ regions facing the intra- and extracellular fluid, and __________ regions embedded in the phospholipid bilayer.

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A) B) C) D) E)

26)

hydrophilic; hydrophilic hydrophilic; hydrophobic hydrophobic; hydrophobic hydrophobic; hydrophilic lipophilic; lipophobic

The most abundant molecules in the plasma membrane are __________. A) B) C) D) E)

glycolipids phospholipids prostaglandins proteins cholesterol molecules

27) Proteins that do not protrude into the phospholipid bilayer, but adhere to the surface of the plasma membrane, are called __________. A) B) C) D) E)

28)

peripheral proteins channel proteins glycoproteins lipoproteins transmembrane proteins

A protein that is bound to a carbohydrate is called a _________. A) B) C) D) E)

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phosphoprotein proteocalyx glycoprotein lipoprotein phospholipid

29) The plasma membrane is mostly made of molecules that have hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails. These molecules are called _________. A) B) C) D) E)

proteoglycans glycolipids glycoproteins phospholipids lipoproteins

30) Membrane proteins that bind to signals by which cells communicate are called __________. A) B) C) D) E)

receptors enzymes carriers cell-identity markers cell-adhesion molecules

31) A receptor protein in the plasma membrane will not bind to just any chemical in the extracellular fluid, but only to certain ones. This property is called _________. A) B) C) D) E)

32)

selectivity specificity efficacy saturation fidelity

Channel protein gates respond to all these stimuli except __________.

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A) B) C) D) E)

chemical messengers ligands changes in electrical potential (voltage) across a cellular membrane physical deformation of a cellular membrane water in the extracellular fluid

33) What would be the consequence if the highlighted structures (reference leader lines) suddenly became nonpolar?

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A) The fatty acid "tails" would fall off. B) The phospholipids would flip upside down. C) The lipid bilayer would not be able to hold its shape in waterand the cell membrane would disassemble. D) Only a lipid monolayer would be possible. E) It would become impermeable to all solutes.

34) In its second-messenger role, cAMP activates enzymes called _________, whose job is to regulate other enzymes by adding phosphate groups to them. A) B) C) D) E)

transmembrane proteins peripheral proteins kinases glycocalyx blockers

35) In the glycocalyx, __________ act like identification tags that enable the body to distinguish its own cells from foreign and diseased cells. A) B) C) D) E)

glycoproteins lipoproteins cholesterol molecules phospholipids cell-adhesion molecules

36) The fuzzy coat of carbohydrates on the outer surface of the plasma membrane that functions in cell identification is called the __________.

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A) B) C) D) E)

brush border glycocalyx cholesterol coat phospholipid bilayer cell-adhesion molecule

37) __________ provide motility to a sperm cell, __________ act as sensory "antennae" in many cells, and ____________ increase a cell's surface area. A) B) C) D) E)

Cilia; microvilli; flagella Microvilli; cilia; flagella Microvilli; flagella; cilia Flagella; microvilli; cilia Flagella; cilia; microvilli

38) The plasma membrane of cells lining the small intestine has __________, which are specialized for absorption of nutrients. A) B) C) D) E)

flagella cilia microvilli a glycocalyx dynein arms

39) The term _____________ refers to a membrane that allows some things to pass through it, but not others. A) B) C) D) E)

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selectively permeable glycocalyx phospholipid bilayer specificity carrier-mediated

40)

Cellular membranes are permeable to __________, but impermeable to __________. A) B) C) D) E)

nutrients; wastes proteins; nutrients phosphates; wastes nutrients; proteins wastes; nutrients

41) ATP is consumed when __________ transfer solutes from one side of the membraneto the other. A) B) C) D) E)

receptors pumps cell-adhesion molecules channels cell-identity markers

42) __________ is the process in which __________ forces water and small solutes, such as salts, through narrow clefts between capillary cells. A) B) C) D) E)

Filtration; hydrostatic pressure Osmosis; hydrostatic pressure Active transport; osmotic pressure Active transport; hydrostatic pressure Osmosis; osmotic pressure

43) Water flows through a selectively permeable membrane in a process called __________, but water molecules cross the membrane more easily through channels of transmembrane proteins called __________.

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A) B) C) D) E)

osmosis; water pumps osmosis; aquaporins osmosis; uniport filtration; aquaporins filtration; water pumps

44) Insulin is taken up, via endocytosis,by the endothelial cells thatline bloodcapillaries.Then, it'stransported across the cell to the other side, where it is released. This transport is called __________. A) B) C) D) E)

pinocytosis receptor-mediated phagocytosis passive transport facilitated transport transcytosis

45) Sodium and glucose are transported together from the intestinal lumen into an intestinal cell. The carrier protein is a(n) __________ and the process is called __________. A) B) C) D) E)

symport; cotransport symport; countertransport antiport; countertransport antiport; cotransport uniport; facilitated diffusion

46) The sodium-potassium (Na +-K +) pump transports both sodium and potassium __________ their concentration gradients in a process called __________.

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A) B) C) D) E)

47)

What do facilitated diffusion and active transport have in common? A) B) C) D) E)

48)

Facilitated diffusion Simple diffusion Filtration Osmosis Active transport

Which of the following is not a method by which particles can leave a cell? A) B) C) D) E)

50)

Both involve transport of a solute up its concentration gradient. Both involve transport of a solute down its concentration gradient. Both involve the use of energy provided by ATP. Neither require ATP to function. Both are examples of carrier-mediated transport.

Which of the following processes could occur only through a cellular membrane? A) B) C) D) E)

49)

up; active transport up; facilitated transport up; cotransport down; active transport down; countertransport

Active transport Exocytosis Simple diffusion An antiport system Pinocytosis

White blood cells engulf bacteria by means of __________.

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A) B) C) D) E)

51)

Which of the following is not a function of the Na +-K + pump? A) B) C) D) E)

52)

phagocytosis cotransport pinocytosis active transport receptor-mediated endocytosis

Heat production Transport of Na + into the cell and K Secondary active transport Regulation of cell volume Maintenance of membrane potential

out of the cell

Which of these is an example of active transport?

A) The diffusion of oxygen from a place of high concentration to a place of lower concentration B) The facilitated diffusion of K + C) The transport of glucose down its concentration gradient D) The transport of Na + from a place of low concentration to a place of higher concentration E) The transport of Cl - following its concentration gradient

53)

Which of these brings nonspecific material into a cell? A) B) C) D) E)

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Phagocytosis Receptor-mediated endocytosis Transcytosis Pinocytosis Exocytosis

54)

Which of the following does not affect the rate of diffusion? A) B) C) D) E)

Temperature Size of molecules Presence of enzymes Steepness of the concentration gradient Membrane permeability

55) Which type of solution contains higher than normal amounts of osmotically active solutes? A) B) C) D) E)

Pure water Isotonic solution Hypotonic solution Hypertonic solution Equitonic solution

56) Which of the following is the type of transport that LDL (low-density lipoprotein) uses to enter a cell? A) B) C) D) E)

Phagocytosis Cotransport Receptor-mediated endocytosis Diffusion Countertransport

57) Two solutions are separated by a selectively permeable membrane. If solution A has a higher concentration of a nonpermeating solute than solution B, then __________.

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A) B) C) D) E)

the solute will pass down its concentration gradient from solution A to B the solute will pass down its concentration gradient from solution B to A water will pass down its concentration gradient from solution A to B water will pass down its concentration gradient from solution B to A neither the solute nor water will diffuse

58) A red blood cell is placed in a hypertonic solution. This means theconcentration of solutes in the solution is __________ than the concentration of solutes in the intracellular fluid, and will cause the cell to __________. A) B) C) D) E)

higher; swell lower; swell higher; shrink lower; shrink lower; burst

59) The number of particles of a solute in a solution is described by its__________. The ability of a solution to affect the fluid volume in a cell is referred to as its __________. A) B) C) D) E)

tonicity; osmolarity osmolarity; diffusion osmolarity; tonicity osmolarity; molarity tonicity; diffusion

60) A patient was severely dehydrated, losing a large amount of fluid. The patient was given intravenous fluids of normal saline. Normal saline is __________ to your blood cells and is about __________ NaCl.

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A) B) C) D) E)

isotonic; 9% isotonic; 0.9% hypertonic; 9% hypotonic; 0.9% hypotonic; 9%

61) Which of the following gives a cellstructural support, determines the shape of a cell, and directs the movement of substances through a cell? A) B) C) D) E)

62)

Which of the following is not associated with the composition of thecytoskeleton? A) B) C) D) E)

63)

Cholesterol The nucleus The plasma membrane The Golgi complex The cytoskeleton

Microfilaments Microtubules Cilia Intermediate filaments Terminal web

Which of the following is not a membranous organelle? A) B) C) D) E)

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Mitochondrion Ribosome Nucleus Endoplasmic reticulum Golgi complex

64) Among other functions, hepatocytes (liver cells) are specialized for detoxifying drugs or other chemicals. Hepatocytes have large amounts of __________. A) B) C) D) E)

65)

Which function would immediately cease if the ribosomes of a cell were destroyed? A) B) C) D) E)

66)

Exocytosis Active transport Ciliary action Protein synthesis Osmosis

Which organelle is most active in causing programmed cell death? A) B) C) D) E)

67)

DNA smooth endoplasmic reticulum microtubules cilia centrioles

Rough endoplasmic reticulum Nucleus Centriole Lysosome Mitochondrion

Muscle cells contain numerous __________ to serve their high demand for ATP. A) B) C) D) E)

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ribosomes lysosomes mitochondria inclusions Golgi vesicles

68)

Which organelle synthesizes steroids in the ovary and stores calcium in muscle cells? A) B) C) D) E)

69)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum Rough endoplasmic reticulum Nucleus Mitochondrion Golgi complex

__________ play an important role in cell division, and are made of __________. A) B) C) D) E)

Mitochondria; microtubules Ribosomes; intermediate filaments Nucleoli; microfilaments Centrioles; microtubules Inclusions; centrosomes

70) __________ synthesize(s) carbohydrates and put(s) finishing touches on proteins synthesized at __________. A) B) C) D) E)

Smooth ER; rough ER The Golgi complex; rough ER Smooth ER; the Golgi complex The Golgi complex; smooth ER Ribosomes; smooth ER

71) Which of the following decomposes fatty acids, and detoxifies alcohol, free radicals, and drugs?

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A) B) C) D) E)

72)

Lysosomes Microvilli Inclusions Peroxisomes Golgi vesicles

Which of the following organelles is not involved in protein synthesis? A) B) C) D) E)

Smooth ER Rough ER The Golgi complex The nucleus Ribosomes

73) Which of the following organelles sorts, cuts, splices, and packages newly formed proteins into membrane-bound vesicles? A) B) C) D) E)

Smooth ER Rough ER Golgi complex Mitochondrion Nucleolus

74) Which of the following is a double-membraned organelle consisting of a matrix and cristae? A) B) C) D) E)

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Mitochondrion Rough ER Smooth ER Golgi complex Nucleolus

75)

Which of the following is not considered an inclusion? A) B) C) D) E)

76)

Lysosome Fat droplet Glycogen granule Bacterium Dust particle

What are accumulated cell products that are never enclosed in a unitmembrane called? A) B) C) D) E)

Organelles Inclusions Microtubules Microfilaments Centrioles

77) During an infection, plasma cells produce millions of antibodies per second. As antibodies are proteins, which organelle are plasma cells likely to have an abundance of? A) B) C) D) E)

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A B C D E

SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions.

78)

78.1) A) B) C) D) E)

78.2) A) B) C) D) E)

78.3)

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Cell A is __________ relative to its surrounding environment. hypertonic hypotonic isotonic equitonic in equilibrium

Cell C is __________ relative to its surrounding environment. hypertonic hypotonic isotonic equitonic in equilibrium

Which cell is at risk of lysing?

A) B) C) D) E)

A B C None of the cells All of the cells

79)

79.1) A) B) C) D) E)

79.2)

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Which cell shape is represented at F? Stellate Spheroidal Discoidal Squamous Fusiform

Which cell shape is represented at I?

A) B) C) D) E)

79.3) A) B) C) D) E)

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Stellate Speheroidal Discoidal Squamous Fusiform

Where is the cell shape at A found in the human body? Lining the esophagus Liver Brain Skeletal muscle Smooth muscle

80)

80.1) A) B) C) D) E)

White blood cells use which organelle to break down bacteria they have ingested? A B C D F

80.2) Spermatozoa require a lot of ATP in order to power their flagellum. Because of this, which organelle do they contain a large number of?

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A) B) C) D) E)

A B D E F

81)

81.1) A) B) C) D) E)

81.2)

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Which letter identifies the hydrophobic region of a transmembrane protein? A B C D E

Which letter identifies a cytoskeletal protein?

A) B) C) D) E)

A B C D E

81.3) A) B) C) D) E)

Which letter identifies a carbohydrate? A B C D E

82)

82.1) Which protein would be used to tell an immune system cell if a body cell is "self" or "nonself" (foreign)?

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A) B) C) D) E)

A C E F B

82.2) Which protein would bind a chemical messenger like the neurotransmitter acetylcholine? A) B) C) D) E)

A C E F B

82.3) A) B) C) D) E)

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Which protein would only open at certain voltages? A C E F D

83)

83.1) A) B) C) D) E)

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Solution A is __________ to solution B. hypotonic hypertonic isotonic in equilibrium with equitonic

83.2) A) B) C) D) E)

83.3) A) B) C) D) E) F)

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Which solutions are in equilibrium? C and D A and B A and C B and D A and D

In which solution is the osmotic pressure higher than the hydrostatic pressure? D A B C D None of the solutions

84)

84.1) A) B) C) D) E)

84.2)

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What molecule is found at the letter A? Na + K + ATP Glucose Ca 2+

What type of transport is pictured here?

A) B) C) D) E)

84.3) A) B) C) D) E)

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Active transport Facilitated diffusion Cotransport Simple diffusion Pinocytosis

What molecule is found at the letter C? Na + K + ATP Glucose Ca 2+

85)

85.1) A) B) C) D) E)

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Which letter represents a microfilament? A B C D E

85.2) A) B) C) D) E)

Which letter represents a structure made of the protein tubulin? A B C D E

85.3) A) B) C) D) E)

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Which letter represents a structure that is used to help form cilia and flagella? A B C D E

Answer Key Test name: Chap 03_9e 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) C 18) A 19) E 20) D 21) E 22) D 23) C 24) D 25) B 26) B Version 1

27) A 28) C 29) D 30) A 31) B 32) E 33) C 34) C 35) A 36) B 37) E 38) C 39) A 40) D 41) B 42) A 43) B 44) E 45) A 46) A 47) E 48) E 49) E 50) A 51) B 52) D 53) D 54) C 55) D 56) C Version 1

57) D 58) C 59) C 60) B 61) E 62) C 63) B 64) B 65) D 66) D 67) C 68) A 69) D 70) B 71) D 72) A 73) C 74) A 75) A 76) B 77) B 78) Section Break 78.1) A 78.2) B 78.3) A 79) Section Break 79.1) A 79.2) E 79.3) A 80) Section Break Version 1

80.1) A 80.2) E 81) Section Break 81.1) E 81.2) C 81.3) A 82) Section Break 82.1) C 82.2) A 82.3) E 83) Section Break 83.1) A 83.2) A 83.3) A 84) Section Break 84.1) A 84.2) A 84.3) C 85) Section Break 85.1) A 85.2) C 85.3) C

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CHAPTER 4 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Naked DNA is called chromatin. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) DNA is composed of double-ring nitrogenous bases, whereas RNA is composed of single-ring nitrogenous bases. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) A gene can be defined as an information-containing segment of RNA that codes for the production of a polypeptide. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Although all cells synthesize phospholipids, there are no genes for phospholipids. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) DNA never migrates from the nucleus to the cytoplasm to participate directly in protein synthesis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The enzyme RNA polymerase participates in translation. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

There are three codons that do not code for any amino acid. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) All proteins made by the ribosomes are exported from a cell for use elsewhere in the body. ⊚ ⊚

true false

A cell starting prophase has 92 molecules of DNA in its nucleus. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) After mitosis, each chromosome consists of two parallel filaments called sister chromatids. ⊚ ⊚

11)

Mitosis is responsible for embryonic development and tissue growth. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

Many genes occur in alternative forms called alleles. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

Phenotype is the result of genetic influences only. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14)

Oncogenes and tumor-suppressor genes have similar effects on cell division. ⊚ ⊚

15)

true false

Eye color is a normal polygenic trait. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

16)

Science SourceTrue or false: The human karyotype shown here is from a male. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 17) DNA is a polymer of __________, which consist of a sugar, a phosphate group, and a __________.

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A) B) C) D) E)

amino acids; nucleotide nucleic acids; nucleotide nucleotides; nitrogenous base nucleotides; nucleic acid proteins; nucleotide

18) If a DNA molecule were known to be 22% thymine (T), what would be the percentage of guanine (G) present? A) B) C) D) E)

19)

8% 11% 22% 28% 78%

Which of these is the correct sequence from simple to more complex? A) B) C) D) E)

Chromatin, carbon, nucleotide, nitrogenous base, DNA Carbon, nitrogenous base, nucleotide, chromatin, DNA Chromatin, DNA, nucleotide, nitrogenous base, carbon Carbon, nucleotide, nitrogenous base, chromatin, DNA Carbon, nitrogenous base, nucleotide, DNA, chromatin

20) A __________ is composed of a granular cluster of eight proteins called __________ with DNA wound around them. A) B) C) D) E)

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nucleosome; centrosomes nucleosome; histones chromosome; histones chromosome; centromeres centromere; chromatin

21)

What is the complementary DNA base sequence to the DNA strand TGCCAT? A) B) C) D) E)

TGCCAT UGCCAU ACGGTA ACGGUA ACCGTA

22) A __________ contains the necessary information for the production of a molecule of RNA. A) B) C) D) E)

23)

What is all of the DNA in a set of 23 chromosomes referred to as? A) B) C) D) E)

24)

genome gene nucleotide genetic code codon

A centromere A chromatid The karyotype The phenotype The genome

The human genome consists of approximately __________ pairs of nucleotides. A) B) C) D)

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3 billion 3 million 300,000 3000

25) Copying genetic information from DNA into RNA is called __________; using the information contained in mRNA to make a polypeptide is called __________. A) B) C) D) E)

26)

Which of the following is not directly involved in translation? A) B) C) D) E)

27)

transcription; translation translation; transcription DNA replication; translation DNA duplication; transcription DNA translation; RNA transcription

DNA mRNA tRNA rRNA Ribosomes

Transcription occurs in the __________, but most translation occurs in the __________. A) B) C) D) E)

nucleus; cytoplasm nucleus; nucleolus cytoplasm; nucleus nucleolus; cytoplasm nucleolus; rough endoplasmic reticulum

28) __________ are turned on or off by regulatory proteins in accordance with changing needs for the __________ they encode.

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A) B) C) D) E)

29)

Enzymes; products Ribosomes; proteins Genes; proteins Proteins; genes Genes; ribosomes

Anticodons, codons, and base triplets correspond to __________ respectively. A) B) C) D) E)

tRNA, DNA, and mRNA DNA, tRNA, and mRNA tRNA, mRNA, and DNA DNA, RNA, and pre-mRNA RNA, DNA, and pre-mRNA

30) After translation, a protein may undergo structural changes called __________ modifications. A) B) C) D) E)

splicing posttranscriptional posttranslational polyribosomal secretory

31) Since there are no genes coding for carbohydrates, nucleic acids, or lipids, how do cells produce them? A) B) C) D) E)

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Enzymes encoded by genes synthesize these products. Cells are born with all the products they need. Cells absorb these products by endocytosis. Cells import these products from older cells. Cells can produce carbohydrates, nucleic acids, and lipids out of proteins.

32) The genetic code is the link between the __________ and the __________ that they represent. A) B) C) D) E)

DNA molecule; 20 amino acids DNA molecule; 64 amino acids mRNA anticodons; 20 amino acids mRNA codons; 64 amino acids mRNA codons; 20 amino acids

33) You were able to radioactively tag and thereby trace an amino acid that is used to make insulin, a hormone that will be exported out of the cell. The pathway of the tagged amino acid would be __________. A) B) C) D) E)

free ribosome → cytosol → vesicle → extracellular fluid rough ER → Golgi complex → Golgi vesicle → extracellular fluid rough ER → smooth ER → Golgi complex → Golgi vesicle → extracellular fluid smooth ER → Golgi complex → Golgi vesicle → extracellular fluid smooth ER → Golgi complex → lysosome → extracellular fluid

34) The gene coding for a polypeptide made of 51 amino acids would have a minimum of _________ bases. A) B) C) D)

35)

20 51 102 153

Which of the following is the template for transcription?

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A) B) C) D) E)

36)

What is the product of translation? A) B) C) D) E)

37)

An mRNA A DNA molecule A tRNA An rRNA A cDNA

DNA polymerase is most active during which phase of the cell cycle? A) B) C) D) E)

39)

A newly synthesized amino acid A newly synthesized polypeptide A newly synthesized nucleic acid An mRNA A tRNA

Which molecule contains anticodons? A) B) C) D) E)

38)

The molecule that carries codons The molecule that carries anticodons The molecule that carries base triplets The molecule that carries amino acids The molecule that carries tRNA

S G 1 G 2 M G 0

The G 1, S, and G 2 phases of the cell cycle are collectively called __________.

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A) B) C) D) E)

40)

All of the following participate in DNA replication except __________. A) B) C) D) E)

41)

The S phase Telophase Metaphase Prophase Interphase

A mutation is __________. A) B) C) D) E)

43)

DNA ribosomes DNA ligase DNA helicase DNA polymerase

Cytokinesis overlaps with which phase of mitosis? A) B) C) D) E)

42)

interphase telophase cytokinesis prophase anaphase

a change in size or shape of a cell a beneficial change in DNA structure a harmful change in DNA structure a neutral change in DNA structure a change in DNA structure that might be beneficial, harmful, or neutral

DNA replication is called semiconservative because __________.

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A) B) C) D) E)

each daughter DNA consists of one new helix and one old helix each daughter DNA consists of one new nucleotide and one old nucleotide each daughter DNA consists of one new chromatid and one old chromatid each daughter cell receives one new chromatid and one old chromatid each daughter cell receives one new helix and one old helix

44) __________ opens up one segment of the DNA helix during replication; __________ adds complementary free nucleotides to the exposed DNA strand. A) B) C) D) E)

45)

Which of these cannot cause a mutation? A) B) C) D) E)

46)

DNA ligase; DNA helicase DNA helicase; DNA polymerase DNA ligase; DNA polymerase DNA helicase; DNA ligase DNA polymerase; DNA ligase

Radiation A virus A chemical A mistake made by the DNA polymerase A mistake made by the RNA polymerase

Cell division is stimulated by __________ and suppressed by __________. A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

mitosis; cytokinesis mitosis; contact inhibition cell size; cytokinesis growth factors; contact inhibition cell size; contact inhibition

47)

The stage at which chromosomes aggregate along the equator of a cell is __________. A) B) C) D) E)

48)

prophase metaphase anaphase telophase interphase

Which of these processes occurs during a cell's first gap (G 1) phase? A) B) C) D) E)

DNA is semiconservatively replicated. The nuclear envelope breaks down. The cell synthesizes the enzymes that control mitosis. The cell synthesizes proteins and grows. The chromatin condenses into visible chromosomes.

49) Sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles of a cell during __________ of the cell cycle. A) B) C) D) E)

the S phase the G 2 phase prophase metaphase anaphase

50) Chromatin shortens and thickens, coiling into compact rods during __________ of mitosis.

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

51)

telophase anaphase interphase prophase metaphase

Which of the following omits some stage(s) of the cell cycle? A) B) C) D) E)

G1, S, G2, mitosis Interphase, mitosis G1, DNA replication, G2, mitosis Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis Interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis

52) A karyotype shows the __________ chromosomes sorted and isolated from a cell in __________. A) B) C) D) E)

53)

23; interphase 23; metaphase 46; prophase 46; metaphase 46; S phase

Which of these is not found in the karyotype of a normal human male? A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

46 chromosomes 23 pairs of homologous chromosomes X and Y chromosomes 46 chromatids 92 DNA molecules

54) A cell finishing mitosis has __________ DNA molecules, while a cell finishing DNA replication has __________ DNA molecules. A) B) C) D) E)

46; 46 46; 92 46; 23 23; 46 23; 23

55) If one allele is not phenotypically expressed in the presence of another, we say that it is a __________ allele. A) B) C) D) E)

56)

Hemophilia is caused by a sex-linked recessive allele. This means that __________. A) B) C) D) E)

57)

homozygous heterozygous recessive dominant suppressed

women can be carriers but cannot get hemophilia the gene is found on the Y chromosome a man can give the allele to his son but not to his daughter a son who has hemophilia inherited the allele from his mother a son who has hemophilia inherited the allele from his father

Eye color is caused by genes at multiple loci. This phenomenon is called __________.

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A) B) C) D) E)

pleiotropy sex linkage polygenic inheritance incomplete dominance multiple carriers

58) Germ cells have __________ unpaired chromosomes and are thus called __________ cells. A) B) C) D) E)

23; somatic 23; haploid (n) 23; diploid (2n) 46; somatic 46; diploid (2n)

59) The allele for cleft chin (C) is dominant to the allele for uncleft chin (c). A male and female who are both heterozygous for cleft chin have a child. What is the chance that this child will have an uncleft chin? A) B) C) D) E)

0% 25% 50% 75% 100%

60) The alleles possessed by all members of a population collectively are called the __________.

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

species DNA population DNA gene pool genetic drift phenotype

61) In familial hypercholesterolemia, individuals with two abnormal alleles die of heart attacks in childhood, those with only one abnormal allele typically die as young adults, and those with two normal alleles have normal life expectancies. This exemplifies __________. A) B) C) D) E)

penetrance codominance pleiotropy complete dominance incomplete dominance

62) All of the body's nonreproductive cells, called __________, usually have 23 pairs of chromosomesand are thus called __________ cells. A) B) C) D)

63)

germ cells; haploid (n) germ cells; diploid (2n) somatic cells; haploid (n) somatic cells; diploid (2n)

Which of the following is not found in RNA? A) B) C) D)

Version 1

Thymine Uracil Ribose Guanine

64)

Genes produce their products __________. A) B) C) D)

65)

as their products are needed or not at a steady rate all the time only when the appropriate hormone is present when the transcription activator is inhibited by an extracellular signal

Cells undergo division when which of the following conditions have been met?

A) They have grown large enough and replicated their DNA. B) They are still growing and have ample nutrients. C) They are stimulated by growth factors and neighboring cells are squeezed tightly against them. D) They have grown large enough and neighboring cells are squeezed tightly against them.

66)

Name the process illustrated here. A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Transcription Translation Replication Splicing Mitosis

67)

What process is shown here? A) B) C) D) E)

Transcription Translation Replication Mitosis Splicing

68)

What process is shown here?

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Transcription Translation Replication Mitosis Splicing

69)

What type of nucleic acid is shown here?

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

Transfer RNA (tRNA) Messenger RNA (mRNA) Filamentous DNA (chromatin) Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) Sister chromatids

70) step of translation is pictured here?

Version 1

Which

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Initiation Elongation Termination Modification Transcription

71)

Which step of translation is pictured here?

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Initiation Elongation Termination Modification Transcription

72)

Which step of translation is pictured here?

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

Initiation Elongation Termination Modification Transcription

73)

Based on the figure shown here, why do you think that DNA replication is referred to as "semiconservative"? A) Each daughter DNA consists of one new strand and one old strand. B) The incoming nucleotides are recycled. C) RNA is broken down to produce DNA. D) The genetic code is conserved in the daughter DNA. E) The parent DNA is broken down, and the free nucleotides are reassembled to form daughter DNA.

Version 1

74)

Which phase of mitosis is shown here? A) B) C) D) E)

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Metaphase Prophase Anaphase Telophase Interphase

75)

Which phase of mitosis is shown here? A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Metaphase Prophase Anaphase Telophase Interphase

76)

Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a rare genetic disorder resulting from inadequate levels of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH). PAH is required to convert dietary phenylalanine to tyrosine. Use this information and the diagram above to determine which of the following statements is true. A) Blue eyes can be a symptom of PKU. B) PKU is only seen in individuals with brown eyes. C) PAH is called "Enzyme 2" in this figure. D) Increased melatonin levels is a common symptom of PKU. E) Environmental factors such as diet cannot affect genetically determined traits such as eye color.

Version 1

77)

Based on the information in the diagram above, which of the following statements is true? A) Human eye color is a polygenic trait. B) The blue eyed phenotype is dominant. C) Brown eyes are caused by a lack of phenylalanine in the diet. D) The gene for brown eyes codes for a pigment protein called melanin. E) Environmental factors such as diet cannot affect genetically determined traits such as eye color.

Version 1

78)

Which statement is true based on the table above? A) B) C) D) E)

More than one codon may represent the same amino acid. Each codon may represent multiple amino acids. Each codon may bind to several different anticodons. There are more types of amino acids than can be represented by unique codons. Each base triplet of DNA may code for up to three different amino acids.

Version 1

SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions.

79)

79.1) A) B) C) D) E)

79.2) A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Identify the component of the nucleotide labeled 1. Phosphate group Deoxyribose sugar Nitrogenous base Anticodon Amino acid

Identify the component of the nucleotide labeled 2. Phosphate group Deoxyribose sugar Nitrogenous base Anticodon Amino acid

79.3) A) B) C) D) E)

Identify the component of the nucleotide labeled 3. Phosphate group Deoxyribose sugar Nitrogenous base Anticodon Amino acid

80)

80.1) Version 1

Name the structure labeled 1. 34

A) B) C) D) E)

80.2) A) B) C) D) E)

80.3) A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Kinetochore Centromere Sister chromatids Histone Nucleosome

Name the "pinched in" region of the chromosome labeled 2. Kinetochore Centromere Sister chromatids Histone Nucleosome

Name the two rod-like structures labeled 3. Kinetochore Centromere Sister chromatids Histone Nucleosome

81)

81.1) A) B) C) D) E)

81.2) A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Identify the enzyme labeled 1. DNA helicase DNA polymerase DNA ligase RNA polymerase RNA primase

Identify the enzyme labeled 3. DNA helicase DNA polymerase DNA ligase RNA polymerase RNA primase

81.3) A) B) C) D) E)

Identify the enzyme labeled 4. DNA helicase DNA polymerase DNA ligase RNA polymerase RNA primase

82)

Version 1

82.1) A) B) C) D) E)

82.2) A) B) C) D) E)

82.3) A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Which phase of the cell cycle is labeled 1? First gap phase (G 1) Second gap phase (G 2) Synthesis phase (S) Mitotic phase (M) G-zero phase (G o)

Which phase of the cell cycle is labeled 2? First gap phase (G 1) Second gap phase (G 2) Synthesis phase (S) Mitotic phase (M) G-zero phase (G o)

Which phase of the cell cycle is labeled 3? First gap phase (G 1) Second gap phase (G 2) Synthesis phase (S) Mitotic phase (M) G-zero phase (G o)

Answer Key Test name: Chap 04_9e 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) C 18) D 19) E 20) B 21) C 22) B 23) E 24) A 25) A 26) A Version 1

27) A 28) C 29) C 30) C 31) A 32) E 33) B 34) D 35) C 36) B 37) C 38) A 39) A 40) B 41) B 42) E 43) A 44) B 45) E 46) D 47) B 48) D 49) E 50) D 51) D 52) D 53) D 54) B 55) C 56) D Version 1

57) C 58) B 59) B 60) C 61) E 62) D 63) A 64) A 65) A 66) A 67) E 68) B 69) A 70) A 71) B 72) C 73) A 74) A 75) C 76) A 77) A 78) A 79) Section Break 79.1) A 79.2) B 79.3) C 80) Section Break 80.1) A 80.2) B 80.3) C Version 1

81) Section Break 81.1) A 81.2) B 81.3) C 82) Section Break 82.1) A 82.2) C 82.3) B

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CHAPTER 5 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The clear gel that usually surrounds cells is called interstitial fluid. ⊚ ⊚

Mesoderm gives rise to muscle, bone, and blood. ⊚ ⊚

true false

In an epithelium, there is almost no extracellular matrix. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Columnar cells lining the small intestine have a brush border of microvilli on the apical surface. ⊚ ⊚

Nonkeratinized cells exfoliate from the surface of the skin. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Connective tissues contain abundant cells that are on contact with one another. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Plasma cells produce the ground substance that forms the matrix of connective tissues.

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⊚ ⊚

Fibrocartilage is found in intervertebral discs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Smooth and cardiac muscles are under involuntary control. ⊚ ⊚

14)

true false

Dendrites in a neuron send outgoing signals to other cells. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

Neurons are a major type of cell found in nervous tissue. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

Adipose connective tissue is a type of dense connective tissue. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

Blood consists of cells and a ground substance made of formed elements. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

One function of muscle tissue is to provide heat production.

Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

15) Desmosomes are more effective than tight junctions in preventing substances from passing between cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) The duct of an endocrine gland leads into the bloodstream rather than onto an epithelial surface. ⊚ ⊚

17)

The secretory product of a gland is produced by its parenchyma, not its stroma. ⊚ ⊚

18)

true false

Adult stem cells are usually pluripotent. ⊚ ⊚

20)

true false

Most growth in childhood is the result of hyperplasia. ⊚ ⊚

19)

true false

The process of a cell changing types to respond to its environment is called neoplasia. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

21)

Rapid cell death caused by a complete cutting off of blood supply is called gangrene. ⊚ ⊚

true false

22) Scar tissue helps to hold an organ together but does not restore normal function of the damaged tissue. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 23) The four primary tissue types found in adult organs include all of the following except _________ tissue . A) B) C) D) E)

24)

The clear gel inside a cell is called __________. A) B) C) D) E)

25)

connective fibrous nervous epithelial muscular

matrix ground substance interstitial fluid cytosol tissue fluid

The __________ gives rise to the __________.

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

mesoderm; digestive glands endoderm; muscular system and skeletal system ectoderm; nervous system and epidermis endoderm; mesoderm mesoderm; endoderm

26) The middle primary germ layer is called __________, which gives rise to a gelatinous material called __________, which then gives rise to different types of connective tissue such as bone, cartilage, and blood. A) B) C) D) E)

27)

ectoderm; stem cells mesoderm; mesenchyme endoderm; mesenchyme mesoderm; fibroblasts ectoderm; mesenchyme

A thin, stained slice of tissue mounted on a microscope is called a __________. A) B) C) D) E)

fixative histological section spread stain smear

28) The histological section that divides a specimen along its long axis is called a(n) __________ section. A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

cross oblique transverse sagittal longitudinal

29) The covering of body surfaces and the lining of body cavities is composed of __________ tissue. A) B) C) D) E)

30)

The basement membrane is found between __________ and __________. A) B) C) D) E)

31)

interstitial muscle adipose epithelial nervous

epithelium; connective tissue epithelium; extracellular material epithelium; intracellular material extracellular material; intracellular material interstitial fluid; extracellular fluid

Which of the following is not a feature of epithelia? A) B) C) D) E)

Abundant extracellular material Avascular Basement membrane Specialized intercellular junctions Polarity

32) Rapid diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide through the air sacs (alveoli) of the lungs takes place through __________ epithelium.

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A) B) C) D) E)

simple squamous simple cuboidal simple columnar keratinized stratified squamous nonkeratinized stratified squamous

33) Most kidney tubules are made of __________ epithelialtissue, which isspecialized for absorption and secretion. A) B) C) D) E)

simple columnar stratified columnar pseudostratified columnar simple cuboidal stratified cuboidal

34) __________ epithelium provides a moist and slippery surface and is well suited to resist stress, as seen in the __________. A) B) C) D) E)

Stratified; tongue Keratinized; tongue Nonkeratinized; skin Keratinized; skin Nonkeratinized; vagina

35) An epithelium whose cells are tall and narrow, with each one touching the basement membrane and reaching the apical surface, is called __________ epithelium. A) B) C) D) E)

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stratified squamous stratified cuboidal simple cuboidal simple columnar pseudostratified columnar

36) __________ epithelium is the most widespread epithelium in the body, whereas __________ epithelium is rare. A) B) C) D) E)

Simple columnar; stratified columnar Stratified squamous; stratified columnar Pseudostratified; stratified squamous Simple cuboidal; stratified squamous Stratified squamous; simple squamous

37) A brush border of microvilli is foundin __________ epithelium, which can befound in the __________. A) B) C) D) E)

pseudostratified; nasal cavity simple cuboidal; esophagus simple columnar; small intestine stratified squamous; anal canal stratified squamous; esophagus

38) All cells in __________ epitheliumreach the basement membrane, but only cells that reach the free surface have cilia. A) B) C) D) E)

pseudostratified columnar simple columnar stratified columnar stratified cuboidal stratified squamous

39) Found in the urinary bladder, __________ resembles __________, but the apical cells are rounded, not flattened.

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A) B) C) D) E)

urothelium; stratified squamous epithelium stratified squamous epithelium; pseudostratifiedepithelium stratified squamous epithelium; stratified columnarepithelium simple columnar epithelium; pseudostratifiedepithelium urothelium; simple cuboidalepithelium

40) An epithelium with a single layer of tall cells would be classified as which type of epithelium? A) B) C) D) E)

Stratified squamous epithelium Simple squamous epithelium Stratified cuboidal epithelium Simple columnar epithelium Urothelium

41) Some simple columnar and pseudostratified columnar epithelia have _________ cells, which produce aprotective mucous coating over the mucous membranes. A) B) C) D) E)

fibrous blood basal keratinized goblet

42) __________ is associated with rapid transport of substances through a membrane, whereas __________ is associated with resistance to abrasion. A) B) C) D) E)

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Simple columnar epithelium; urothelium Simple squamous epithelium; stratified squamous epithelium Simple cuboidal epithelium; pseudostratified epithelium Pseudostratified epithelium; simple squamous epithelium Pseudostratified epithelium; simple cuboidalepithelium

43) Which of the following is not a feature that almost all connective tissues have in common? A) B) C) D) E)

44)

Most cells are not in direct contact with each other. Ground substance is so scarce that it is not visible with a light microscope. Cells usually occupy less space than the extracellular material. Protein fibers are usually present in the ground substance. Most connective tissuesare highly vascular.

Fibroblasts and protein fibers are associated with both __________ and __________. A) B) C) D) E)

dense regular; dense irregular connective tissues plasma; formed elements elastic cartilage; hyaline cartilage spongy bone; compact (dense) bone adipose tissue; reticular tissue

45) New triglycerides are constantly beingsynthesized and stored, while others are hydrolyzed and released into the circulation by thecells foundin __________. A) B) C) D) E)

blood fibrous connective tissue adipose tissue reticular tissue urothelial tissue

46) The rubbery matrix of cartilage is secreted by __________, whereas _________ produce the fibers and ground substance that form the matrix of fibrous connective tissue.

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A) B) C) D) E)

47)

Where are chondrocytes and osteocytes located? A) B) C) D) E)

48)

chondroblasts; plasma cells mast cells; fibroblasts osteocytes; chondroblasts chondroblasts; fibroblasts adipocytes; plasma cells

In bone In cartilage In muscle In lacunae In plasma

Collagenous fibers are very abundant in __________. A) B) C) D) E)

blood and hyaline cartilage blood, adipose tissue, and osseous tissue ligaments, bones, and the most superficial portion of the skin tendons, ligaments, and the deeper portion of the skin areolar tissue, tongue, and bones

49) A connective tissue fiber refers to a(n) __________, a nerve fiber refers to a(n) __________, and a muscle fiber refers to a(n) __________. A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

entire cell; organelle; tissue organelle; entire cell; part of a cell organelle; entire cell; complex of macromolecules complex of macromolecules; entire cell; part of a cell complex of macromolecules; part of a cell; entire cell

50) Marfan syndrome is a hereditary defect of elastin fibers. People with this syndrome have __________. A) B) C) D) E)

hyperextensible joints a small cranium elastic bones stronger bones viscous blood

51) Which of the following does notaccount for the gelatinous consistency of connective tissue ground substance? A) B) C) D) E)

Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) Proteoglycans Chondroitin sulfate Hyaluronic acid Collagen

52) Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) help give the ground substance some of its qualities, including _________. A) B) C) D) E)

helping to transfer charges in the nervous system holding water and maintaining electrolyte balance giving bone its brittle, inorganic structure providing the major structural support of tendons and ligaments acting as an energy reserve for muscle contraction

53) An example of a highly vascular tissue is __________ tissue. An example of a tissuethat is not highly vascular is __________.

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A) B) C) D) E)

54)

Which of the following is not a feature that connective tissues have in common? A) B) C) D) E)

55)

dense regular connective tissue dense irregular connective tissue elastic cartilage fibrocartilage ligaments

Which of the following is not a type of fibrous connective tissue? A) B) C) D) E)

57)

Very conspicuous fibers The presence of fibroblasts The presence of collagen Ground substance with a gelatinous to rubbery consistency A calcified matrix

The shape of a person's external ear is due to the presence of __________. A) B) C) D) E)

56)

epithelial; cartilage muscular; osseous tissue dense regular connective; dense irregular connective tissue areolar; cartilage nervous; osseous tissue

Reticular tissue Hyaline cartilage Dense regular connective tissue Dense irregular connective tissue Areolar tissue

Blood functions to __________.

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

allow for heart contraction and relaxation store energy for the heart provide support to the heart line the heart chambers transport nutrients to the tissues

58) __________ exhibits a lot of apparently empty space, and is found in many serous membranes. A) B) C) D) E)

59)

Which type of connective tissue is abundant in the walls of arteries, and in the airway? A) B) C) D) E)

60)

Blood Areolar tissue Osseous tissue Dense irregular connective tissue Adipose tissue

Dense irregular connective tissue Elastic tissue Dense regular connective tissue Cartilage Smooth muscle

Which of the following is not a category of connective tissue? A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Connective tissue proper Supporting connective tissue Fluid connective tissue Aerobic connective tissue Cartilage

61) __________ tissues respond quickly to outside stimuli by means of changes in membrane potential. A) B) C) D) E)

62)

Nervous tissue consists predominantly of two cell types, neurons and __________. A) B) C) D) E)

63)

Excitable Responsive Adipose Epithelial Connective

fibroblasts chondrocytes neuroglia myocytes osteocytes

Which of the following parts of a neuron receive and process information? A) B) C) D) E)

Cell body Axon Synapse Dendrite Telodendrion

64) Astronauts in zero gravity are able to move food through their digestive tracts because __________.

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A) smooth muscle produces waves of contractions that propel material through the digestive tract B) skeletal muscle puts pressure on the digestive tract C) cardiac muscle maintains a high pressure that moves material through the digestive tract D) striated muscle creates a pressure gradient that forces material from one end of the digestive tract to the other E) skeletal muscle sphincters contract and allow materials to move through thedigestive tract

65)

Skeletal muscle is described as __________. A) B) C) D) E)

66)

striated and voluntary striated and involuntary nonstriated and voluntary nonstriated and involuntary fibrous and containing ground substance

Which type of muscle tissue is found in the walls of hollow organs? A) B) C) D) E)

Smooth muscle Cardiac muscle Skeletal muscle Organ muscle Elastic muscle

67) In the intestine, __________ ensure(s) that most digested nutrients pass through the epithelial cells and not between them.

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

the plasma membrane desmosomes tight junctions gap (communicating) junctions ground substance

68) How would the genetic inheritance of a gene producing abnormal gap junctions affect muscle tissue? A) All types of muscle tissue would function normally. B) All types of muscle tissue would function abnormally. C) Cardiac muscle and some smooth muscle would function abnormally. Skeletal muscle would be unaffected. D) Skeletal muscle would function abnormally. Smooth muscle and cardiac muscle would be unaffected. E) Skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle would function abnormally. Smooth muscle would be unaffected.

69)

__________ secrete __________ into __________. A) B) C) D) E)

Goblet cells; mucus; the blood Endocrine glands; hormones; ducts Exocrine glands; hormones; ducts Endocrine glands; hormones; the blood Exocrine glands; mucus; the blood

70) Glands that have branched ducts and secretory cells that form sacs at one end of the ducts are classified as ___________ glands.

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A) B) C) D) E)

areolar simple acinar simple coiled tubular compound acinar compound tubuloacinar

71) Mucin is secreted by __________ glands, which combines with water to form a thick and sticky product. _________ glands produce a relatively watery fluid. A) B) C) D) E)

mucous; Serous eccrine; Holocrine apocrine; Mixed endocrine; Exocrine serous; Mucous

72) __________ glands (such as tear glands) have vesicles that release their secretion via exocytosis. __________ glands (such as oil-producing glands) secrete a mixture of disintegrated cells and their products. A) B) C) D) E)

Endocrine; Exocrine Mucous; Serous Exocrine; Apocrine Mucous; Cutaneous Eccrine; Holocrine

73) The membrane that lines the lumenal surfaces of the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts consists of __________.

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A) B) C) D) E)

simple squamous epithelium and dense irregular connective tissue areolar and dense irregular connective tissue epithelium and lamina propria areolar tissue and lamina propria simple squamous epithelium and areolar tissue

74) Most membranes are composed of two or three tissue types. However, an example of an exception is the ___________ membrane. A) B) C) D) E)

mucous serous synovial cutaneous basement

75) The membrane that lines passageways that open to the exterior environment is called __________. A) B) C) D) E)

the lamina propria endothelium a synovial membrane a serous membrane (serosa) a mucous membrane (mucosa)

76) After six months of lifting weights at the gym, you notice that some of your muscles have increased in size. This increase in size is due to __________ of muscle cells. A) B) C) D) E)

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hyperplasia neoplasia hypertrophy metaplasia atrophy

77) Most biologists see embryonic stem (ES) cells as a possible treatment for diseases that result from the loss of functional cells. This possibility is based on the fact that ES cells are __________ stem cells. A) B) C) D) E)

unipotent multipotent pluripotent totipotent omnipotent

78) The pseudostratified columnar epithelium of the bronchi in smokers may transform into stratified squamous epithelium. This is an example of__________. A) B) C) D) E)

neoplasia metaplasia atrophy differentiation hyperplasia

79) It is normal for breasts to shrink after lactation ceases. This is a consequence of __________ in human breast cells. A) B) C) D) E)

80)

necrosis apoptosis atrophy infarction gangrene

With regard to the healing of a skin wound, macrophages ___________.

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A) B) C) D) E)

81)

release histamine to increase blood flow to the area produce and secrete collagenous fibers phagocytize and digest tissue debris stimulate epithelial cells to multiply make capillaries more permeable allowing white blood cells to migrate into the area

The replacement of damaged tissue with scar tissue is called _________. A) B) C) D) E)

necrosis apoptosis gangrene regeneration fibrosis

SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions.

82)

82.1)

Version 1

Which tissue would be found lining the lumen of the trachea?

A) B) C) D) E)

A B C D E

82.2) A) B) C) D) E)

Which tissue would be found lining the lumen of the vagina? A B C F E

82.3) A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Which tissue would be found lining the lumen of the small intestine? A B C D E

83)

83.1) A) B) C) D) E)

83.2) A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Where in the human body would this tissue be found? Calcaneal tendon Heart wall Dermis of the skin Lining the lumen of the aorta Intervertebral disc

What is a function of this tissue? To connect bone to bone To regulate blood pressure To connect an epithelium to underlying tissue To resist compression To protect against abrasion

84)

84.1) A) B) C) D) E)

Where would this tissue be found in the human body? Epiglottis Patellar ligament Joint capsule At the ends of long bones Spinal cord

84.2)

What is a function of this tissue?

A) B) C) D) E)

To provide flexible support To pump blood throughout the body To maintain a patent airway To conduct electrical impulses To connect muscle to bone

Version 1

85)

85.1) A) B) C) D) E)

85.2) A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Where in the human body would this tissue be found? Biceps brachii Wall of the heart Dermis of the skin Wall of a blood vessel Patellar tendon

What is a function of this tissue? To generate heat To move food through the digestive tract To pump blood throughout the body To connect the epidermis to the dermis below To resist compression

86)

86.1) A) B) C) D) E)

86.2) A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Where in the human body would this tissue be found? Spinal cord Beneath the epithelium in a serous membrane In a joint capsule Within blood vessels The stroma of the spleen

What is the function of this tissue? To conduct electrical impulses To resist pulling in several directions To absorb nutrients To connect an epithelium to deeper structures To absorb nutrients

87) Version 1

87.1) A) B) C) D) E)

87.2) A) B) C) D) E)

87.3) A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Which gland(s) produce(s) hormones? A B Both A and B Neither A or B C

Which gland(s) produce(s) digestive enzymes? A B Both A and B Neither A or B A, B, and C

Which mode of secretion is pictured at C? Eccrine Holocrine Endocrine Paracrine Apocrine

88)

88.1) A) B) C) D) E)

88.2) A) B) C) D) E)

88.3)

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Where in the human body would this membrane be found? Lining the lumen of the digestive tract Lining the lumen of an artery Lining the pericardial cavity In the skin Lining a joint cavity

What is the name of the layer at B in this membrane? Lamina propria Serosa Mesothelium Epithelium Dermis

What type of tissue is found at B?

A) B) C) D) E)

88.4) A) B) C) D) E)

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Areolar Dense irregular Elastic cartilage Nervous Smooth muscle

What type of gland is pictured at D? Unicellular exocrine Unicellular endocrine Multicellular exocrine Multicellular endocrine Unicellular apocrine

Answer Key Test name: Chap 05_9e 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) FALSE 20) FALSE 21) FALSE 22) TRUE 23) B 24) D 25) C 26) B Version 1

27) B 28) E 29) D 30) A 31) A 32) A 33) D 34) E 35) D 36) B 37) C 38) A 39) A 40) D 41) E 42) B 43) B 44) A 45) C 46) D 47) D 48) D 49) E 50) A 51) E 52) B 53) D 54) E 55) C 56) B Version 1

57) E 58) B 59) B 60) D 61) A 62) C 63) A 64) A 65) A 66) A 67) C 68) C 69) D 70) D 71) A 72) E 73) C 74) C 75) E 76) C 77) D 78) B 79) B 80) C 81) E 82) Section Break 82.1) B 82.2) C 82.3) A 83) Section Break Version 1

83.1) A 83.2) A 84) Section Break 84.1) A 84.2) A 85) Section Break 85.1) A 85.2) A 86) Section Break 86.1) A 86.2) A 87) Section Break 87.1) A 87.2) B 87.3) A 88) Section Break 88.1) A 88.2) A 88.3) A 88.4) A

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CHAPTER 6 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The skin carries out the first step in the synthesis of vitamin D. ⊚ ⊚

Living keratinocytes exfoliate from the epidermis as tiny specks called dander. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Albinism is the genetic lack of melanin that results in a milky white coloration of the ⊚ ⊚

true false

Melanin, hemoglobin, and carotene give color to the skin. ⊚ ⊚

6) skin.

true false

The youngest keratinocytes are found in the stratum basale. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The deeper of the two layers of the skin is the hypodermis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Embarrassment can be perceived by an abnormal coloration of the skin called cyanosis.

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⊚ ⊚

Freckles are elevated patches with an abnormal coloration of the skin. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Straight hair is round, wavy hair is oval, and curly hair is relatively flat. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

Hair and nails are composed of collagen. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) Merocrine sweat glands are associated with hair follicles in the pubic and anal regions, axilla, areola, and beard. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) Pattern baldness is relatively rare in women because women have lower testosterone levels than men. ⊚ ⊚

13) skin.

true false

The acidity of sweat contributes to the acid mantle that inhibits bacterial growth in the ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14)

Debridement is not necessary to infection control. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) The three forms of skin cancer are defined by the types of cells from which they originate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 16) Which of the following is not part of the skin? A) B) C) D) E)

17)

Which of the following is not found in the epidermis? A) B) C) D) E)

18)

Epidermis Papillary layer Hypodermis Stratum basale Dermis

Melanocytes Fibroblasts Stem cells Keratinocytes Tactile cells

Skin covering the __________ has sweat glands but no hair follicles or sebaceous glands.

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A) B) C) D) E)

19)

Most of the skin is __________ mm thick. A) B) C) D) E)

20)

Stratum basale Stratum spinosum Stratum corneum Dermis Hypodermis

Which of the skin layers below is the most superficial? A) B) C) D) E)

22)

0.01 to 0.02 0.1 to 0.2 1 to 2 10 to 20 100 to 200

In which of the following skin layers would a subcutaneous injection be administered? A) B) C) D) E)

21)

forearm buttocks abdomen fingertips back

Basal lamina Epidermis Papillary layer Reticular layer Hypodermis

Which of the following best describes the composition of the dermis?

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A) B) C) D) E)

23)

Collagen and living keratinocytes Collagen and dead keratinocytes Collagen and fibroblasts Elastic fibers and melanocytes Elastic fibers and dendritic cells

What type of tissue is found in the most superficial layer of skin? A) B) C) D) E)

Simple squamous epithelium Stratified squamous epithelium Dense irregular connective tissue Areolar connective tissue Dense regular connective tissue

24) Looking at aslide of thin skin under the microscope, you note that the stratum basale is the __________ layer of the epidermis in from the surface. A) B) C) D) E)

25)

second third first fifth fourth

Which of the following cells is largely responsible for skin color? A) B) C) D) E)

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Dendritic cell Keratinocyte Melanocyte Tactile cell Dead keratinocyte

26)

Which layer of the epidermis consists of up to 30 layers of dead cells? A) B) C) D) E)

27)

Which of the following are associated with the sense of touch? A) B) C) D) E)

28)

Fibroblasts Melanocytes Keratinocytes Dendriticcells Tactile cells

The fastest rate of mitosis happens in the __________. A) B) C) D) E)

29)

Stratum basale Stratum spinosum Stratum granulosum Stratum lucidum Stratum corneum

stratum basale stratum spinosum stratum granulosum stratum lucidum stratum corneum

Which of the following cells stand guard against toxins, microbes, and other pathogens? A) B) C) D) E)

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Keratinocytes Melanocytes Adipocytes Dendritic cells Tactile cells

30)

Fingerprints left on things we touch are associated with our __________. A) B) C) D) E)

31)

Calluses or corns are the result of accelerated multiplication by ___________. A) B) C) D) E)

32)

melanocytes keratinocytes fibroblasts tactile cells red blood cells

The __________ is absent from most epidermis. A) B) C) D) E)

33)

dermal papillae dermal connective tissue stratum basale subcutaneous tissue subcutaneous adipose

stratum basale stratum spinosum stratum granulosum stratum lucidum stratum corneum

Leather is made of the __________ layer of the dermis. A) B) C) D) E)

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areolar keratin reticular collagen papillary

34)

The hypodermis is characterized byan abundance of which tissue? A) B) C) D) E)

35)

Statified squamous epithelium Smooth muscle Nervous tissue Adipose tissue Dense irregular connective tissue

The skin discoloration most likely to suggest physical abuse is __________. A) B) C) D) E)

pallor albinism erythema hematoma jaundice

36) The reddish color of the skin of the lips is primarily due to the presence of which pigment? A) B) C) D) E)

37)

Hemoglobin Myoglobin Melanin Carotene Keratin

Which skin color is most likely to result from anemia?

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A) B) C) D) E)

38)

Increased bilirubin levels cause a skin discoloration called __________. A) B) C) D) E)

39)

UV radiation exposure the quantity of hemoglobin carried in the blood the quantity of melanin produced the number of melanocytes the number of keratinocytes

A __________ is an elevated patch of melanized skin. A) B) C) D) E)

41)

erythema jaundice pallor bronzing cyanosis

Ethnic differences in skin color are primarily caused by differences in ___________. A) B) C) D) E)

40)

Pallor Erythema Hematoma Albinism Jaundice

hemangioma mole freckle flexion line friction ridge

A pilus is a __________.

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A) B) C) D) E)

42)

What type of hair is present prenatally and usually replaced by birth? A) B) C) D) E)

43)

bulb root shaft dermal papilla medulla

The base where a hair follicle originates in the skin is known as the __________. A) B) C) D) E)

45)

Lunule Peach fuzz Terminal hair Vellus Downy (Lanugo)

Blood vessels in the __________ provide a hair with its sole source of nutrition. A) B) C) D) E)

44)

hair hair follicle tiny muscle that moves a hair sensory nerve fiber around the base of a hair gland associated with a hair follicle

hair bulb hair root shaft medulla cuticle

The contraction of the arrector muscles in humans causes __________.

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A) B) C) D) E)

46)

A hair cycle consists of three developmental stages in which order? A) B) C) D) E)

47)

Anagen, telogen, and catagen Anagen, catagen, and telogen Catagen, anagen, and telogen Catagen, telogen, and anagen Telogen, anagen, and catagen

Each hair grows in an oblique epithelial tube called a __________. A) B) C) D) E)

48)

hairs to stand on end, trapping an insulating layer of warm air next to the skin generation of heat to raise the body temperature hairs to stand on end to make the individual appear bigger hairs to stand on end with no apparent function increased ability to feel pain

hair follicle vellum pilus bulb shaft

Excessive hairiness is called __________. A) B) C) D) E)

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telogenism anagenism catagenism alopecia hirsutism

49) The narrow zone of dead skin overhanging the proximal end of a nail is called the __________. A) B) C) D) E)

50)

What is the white opaque "moon" often found at the proximal end of a fingernail called? A) B) C) D) E)

51)

Free edge Nail body Eponychium Lunule Nail root

Variations in hair color arise from differing amounts of __________. A) B) C) D) E)

52)

eponychium lunule nail plate nail body nail root

collagen and elastic filaments keratin and melanin carotene and hemoglobin carotene and collagen eumelanin and pheomelanin

Mitosis in the __________ accounts for growth of the nail. A) B) C) D) E)

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nail plate nail fold eponychium hyponychium nail matrix

53)

The oil of your scalp is secreted by __________ glands associated with the hair follicles. A) B) C) D) E)

merocrine sweat apocrine sweat sebaceous ceruminous eccrine sweat

54) Secretions from __________ glands contribute to the acid mantle that inhibits bacterial growth on the skin. A) B) C) D) E)

55)

mammary ceruminous sebaceous apocrine sweat eccrine sweat

__________ is/are formed partly from the secretions of glands in the external ear canal. A) B) C) D) E)

Sebum Cerumen Sweat Scents Mucus

56) Looking at a slide of axillary skin under the microscope, you notice the presence of __________ glands that are absent on slides of the scalp.

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A) B) C) D) E)

57)

Which cutaneous glands are concerned with cooling the body? A) B) C) D) E)

58)

merocrine apocrine sebaceous ceruminous perspiration

Ceruminous glands Sebaceous glands Merocrine glands Apocrine glands Exothermic glands

The __________ glands are a source of sex pheromones. A) B) C) D) E)

ceruminous merocrine mammary sebaceous apocrine

59) Mammary glands are modified __________ glands that develop within the female breasts. A) B) C) D) E)

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merocrine apocrine ceruminous sebaceous eccrine

60)

Which two strata of the epidermis are most susceptible to cancer? A) B) C) D) E)

Stratum corneum and stratum lucidum Stratum basale and stratum corneum Stratum spinosum and stratum basale Stratum granulosum and stratum spinosum Stratum lucidum and stratum granulosum

61) The "ABCD rule" for recognizing early signs of malignant melanoma refers to which of the following characteristics of the lesion? A) B) C) D) E)

62)

The least common, but most deadly, type of skin cancer is __________. A) B) C) D) E)

63)

Asymmetry, border irregularity, color, and diameter Asymmetry, brightness, color, and diameter Aspect, brightness, color, and distance Aspect, border irregularity, color, and distance Area, border irregularity, color, and density

basal cell carcinoma squamous cell carcinoma melanoma skin lymphoma skin sarcoma

Basal cell carcinoma initially affects cells of the stratum __________. A) B) C) D) E)

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spinosum germinativum corneum basale lucidum

64)

__________ burns involve the epidermis, all of the dermis, and often some deeper tissue. A) B) C) D) E)

65)

The most immediate threat to the life of a patient with severe burns is __________. A) B) C) D) E)

66)

fluid loss eschar heat loss pain infection

The skin is a barrier to all of the following except __________. A) B) C) D)

67)

First-degree Second-degree Third-degree Partial-thickness Malignant

metals such as mercury infectious organisms water UV rays

In whom are fully developed mammary glands found? A) B) C) D)

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In lactating females In lactating and non-lactating females In non-lactating females In non-lactating females and males

68)

Which structure is highlighted in the cadaver skin?

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Epidermis Subcutaneous layer Dermis Hypodermis Sebaceous layer

69)

Which structure is highlighted in the cadaver skin and picture?

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Epidermis Sebaceous gland Dermis Hypodermis Subcutaneous layer

70)

Which accessory structure is highlighted in the picture?

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Sebaceous Piloerector Dermis Hypodermis Hair

71)

Which structure is highlighted in the picture and cadaver?

<p><span style=" font-size: xxsmall;">{MISSING IMAGE} © The McGraw-Hill Companies, Inc. A) B) C) D) E)

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Epidermis Piloerector muscle Dermis Hypodermis Hair follicle

72)

Which structure is highlighted on this section of a cadaver finger?

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Free edge Nail bed Lunule Eponychium Nail fold

SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions. 73)

73.1) Examine this picture of the skin, paying close attention to the cutaneous vasculature.What impact might the location of the blood vessels have on the life history of keratinocytes?

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A) Keratinocytes in the deepest layers of the epidermis (close to the dermis) are the only ones that receive enough nutrients and oxygen to undergo mitosis. B) The stratum corneum is the thickest layer of the epidermis because it receives the most oxygen and nutrients. C) Keratinocytes in the stratum granulosum receive the most nutrients and therefore undergo the fastest mitosis, thus producing the stratum corneum. D) New keratinocytes produced by stem cells in the stratum corneum migrate downward through the epidermis because they are attracted to a chemical factor released from the dermal blood vessels. E) Keratonocytes in the stratum spinosum and stratum graulosum are dead because they do not receive enough oxygen and nutrients.

73.2) Examine this picture of the skin, paying close attention to the cutaneous innervation.What impact might the location of the nerve fibers have on sensation? A) Unlike first-degree burns, third-degree burns destroy the nerve fibers in the dermis and may therefore be painless. B) Since there are no nerve fibers in the skin, it cannot convey or respond to any sensory information. C) Sensory receptors in the uppermost layers of the epidermis (stratum corneum) respond to heat and cold, making it important for thermoregulation. D) A shallow scrape that penetrates into the stratum granulosum may be more painful than a deeper cut that reaches the dermis. E) Due to the relative density of nerve fibers in the different layers of the skin, the epidermis is much more sensitive than the underlying dermis.

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74)

74.1) A) B) C) D) E)

74.2) A) B) C) D) E)

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Identify the cutaneous gland labeled 1. Apocrine sweat gland Eccrine sweat gland Sebaceous gland Ceruminous gland Mammary gland

Identify the cutaneous gland labeled 2. Apocrine sweat gland Eccrine sweat gland Sebaceous gland Ceruminous gland Mammary gland

74.3) A) B) C) D) E)

Identify the cutaneous gland labeled 3. Apocrine sweat gland Eccrine sweat gland Sebaceous gland Ceruminous gland Mammary gland

74.4) Use this picture to carefully examine the structure of the apocrine and sebaceous gland ducts. Which of the following statements is true? A) Both types of glands release their products into hair follicles. B) The apocrine gland duct opens directly onto the skin surfaceand the sebaceous gland empties into a hair follicle. C) The sebaceous gland duct opens directly onto the skin surfaceand the apocrine gland empties into a hair follicle. D) Both types of glands have ducts that open directly onto the skin surface through pores. E) Neither type of gland has a duct.

74.5) Use this picture to carefully examine the secretory portions of these three types of cutaneous glands. (Note: "Lumina" is the plural form of "lumen.") Which of the following statements is true? A) Both types of sweat gland have lumina, but the sebaceous gland does not. B) The sebaceous gland and the eccrine sweat glands have lumina, but the apocrine sweat gland does not. C) All three types of gland have large, clear lumina. D) None of the three types of gland has a clear lumen. E) Although all three glands have clear lumina, the lumen of the sebaceous gland is the largest.

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74.6) Use this picture to carefully examine the histology of the apocrine and sebaceous glands, then choose the correct words to complete the following sentence. The secretory portion of apocrine sweat glands is made up of __________ epithelium, and thesecretory portion of sebaceous glands is made up of __________ epithelium. A) B) C) D) E)

simple cuboidal; stratified cuboidal simple cuboidal; simple squamous simple squamous; stratified squamous stratified squamous; simple cuboidal stratified columnar; simple squamous

75)

a: Dennis Strete/McGraw-Hill Education; b: David M. Phillips/Science Source, c. Susumu Nishinaga/Science Source

75.1)

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Name the layer of skin labeled 1.

A) B) C) D) E)

75.2) A) B) C) D) E)

Papillary dermis Reticular dermis Stratum corneum Hypodermis Epithelium

Name the layer of skin labeled 2. Papillary dermis Reticular dermis Stratum corneum Hypodermis Epithelium

75.3) Examine the picture showing the two layers of the dermis, then choose the correct words to complete this sentence. The papillary layer of the dermis is made up of __________ , and the reticular layer of the dermis is made up of __________ . A) B) C) D) E)

75.4)

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areolar tissue; dense irregular connective tissue dense regular connective tissue; areolar tissue areolar tissue; reticular connective tissue dense irregular connective tissue; adipose tissue epithelial tissue; adipose tissue

How does the structure of the papillary dermis relate to its functional properties?

A) Bundles of densely packed collagen fibers help the skin withstand stretching in many different directions. B) The sparse network of branching reticular fibers provides a scaffolding to help store large numbers of white blood cells. C) Multiple layers of large, round adipocytes store fat. D) The loosely organized tissue allows the diffusion of nutrients and the movement of white blood cells between the dermis and the avascular epidermis. E) The clear, glassy matrix provides cushioning and support.

75.5) Use this picture to examine and compare the tissue structure in the papillary and reticular layers of the dermis. Which of the following best describes your observations? A) The reticular layer is thicker and more fibrous. The papillary layer is a thinner zone of more loosely organized tissue containing many "wandering" white blood cells. B) The papillary layer is a thick layer of tightly packed dead skin cells, while the reticular layer is much thinner and more fragile. C) The papillary layer is dominated by large, empty-looking cells, while the reticular layer is made of a loose network of fibers infiltrated with white blood cells. D) Both layers contain packed, parallel fibers, but the papillary dermis is thicker and much denser. E) Both layers consist of a loose arrangement of thin, branching fibers in abundant ground substance.

75.6)

How does the structure of the reticular dermis relate to its functional properties?

A) Bundles of densely packed collagen fibers help the skin withstand stretching in many different directions. B) The loose network of branching reticular fibers provides a scaffolding to help store large numbers of white blood cells. C) Multiple layers of large, round adipocytes store fat. D) The loosely organized tissue allows the diffusion of nutrients and the movement of white blood cells between the dermis and the avascular epidermis. E) The clear, glassy matrix provides cushioning and support.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 06_9e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) C 17) B 18) D 19) C 20) E 21) B 22) C 23) B 24) E 25) C 26) E Version 1

27) E 28) A 29) D 30) A 31) B 32) D 33) C 34) D 35) D 36) A 37) A 38) B 39) C 40) B 41) A 42) E 43) D 44) A 45) D 46) B 47) A 48) E 49) A 50) D 51) E 52) E 53) C 54) E 55) B 56) B Version 1

57) C 58) E 59) B 60) C 61) A 62) C 63) D 64) C 65) A 66) A 67) A 68) C 69) A 70) E 71) D 72) B 73) Section Break 73.1) A 73.2) A 74) Section Break 74.1) A 74.2) B 74.3) C 74.4) A 74.5) A 74.6) A 75) Section Break 75.1) A 75.2) B 75.3) A Version 1

75.4) D 75.5) A 75.6) A

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CHAPTER 7 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Bones, cartilage, and ligaments are tissues and organs of the skeletal system. ⊚ ⊚

Most blood cells are produced in the red marrow of bones. ⊚ ⊚

true false

A vertebra is considered alongbone. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Osteoid tissue is similar to bone except for a lack of minerals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Osteogenic cells are bone stem cells that differentiate into osteoblasts and osteoclasts. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Red bone marrow is important in the production of new bone cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Concentric lamellae within an osteon are connected by lacunae.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

The hematopoietic tissue in a bone is otherwise known as myeloid tissue. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Intramembranous ossification is common in children, whereas endochondral ossification is typical in young adults. ⊚ ⊚

10)

A radiograph (X-ray) of a child's hand will show epiphysial lines. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

Bones grow in diameter by interstitial growth. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12)

Hypercalcemia is rare, but hypocalcemia can result from a wide variety of conditions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

13)

Hypercalcemia causes depression of the nervous system. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14)

Parathyroid hormone (PTH) binds to receptors on osteoblasts. ⊚ ⊚

15)

true false

Osteomalacia results in bone brittleness. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) Osteoporosis often leads to an exaggerated thoracic spinal curvature, which iscalled kyphosis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

17)

Closed reduction is the surgical realignment of the parts of a broken bone. ⊚ true ⊚ false

18)

Adding pins and plates to a fracture to aid repair is called traction. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 19) Which of the following tissues is not found as part ofa long bone?

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A) B) C) D) E)

20)

Osseous tissue Nervous tissue Adipose tissue Cartilage Transitional epithelium

Which of the following is not a function of the skeleton? A) B) C) D) E)

Storage ofcalcium and phosphate ions Storage ofred blood cells Providing support for most muscles Protecting the brain Protecting the spinal cord

21) The ___________ is an example of bone as an organ; ___________ bone is an example of bone as a tissue. A) B) C) D) E)

22)

femur; spongy spongy; femur skull; marrow compact; sesamoid red marrow; compact

Osseous tissue is a(an) ____________ tissue. A) B) C) D) E)

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connective epithelial dense regular dense irregular reticular

23)

The cortex of the long bone's diaphysis is made of _________. A) B) C) D) E)

marrow compact bone spongy bone dense regular connective tissue articular cartilage

24) The thin layer of slightly denser spongy bone that separates anadult'sepiphysis from the diaphysis is called the __________. A) B) C) D) E)

25)

The center cavity of the diaphysis of a long bone is called the __________. A) B) C) D) E)

26)

periosteum metaphysis growth plate epiphysial line diaphysial line

marrow cavity central canal nutrient foramen canaliculus epiphysis

The expanded head at each end of a long bone is called the__________. A) B) C) D) E)

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epiphysis diaphysis articular cartilage periosteum endosteum

27) A longbone is covered externally with a sheath called the__________, whereas the marrow cavity is lined with the__________. A) B) C) D) E)

epiphysis; diaphysis diaphysis; epiphysis compact bone; spongy bone periosteum; endosteum endosteum; periosteum

28) When ____________ become enclosed in lacunae, they become cells called _____________. A) B) C) D) E)

29)

Bone-forming cells are called __________. A) B) C) D) E)

30)

osteogenic cells; osteoblasts osteoblasts; osteoclasts osteoblasts; osteocytes osteocytes; osteoclasts osteocytes; osteoblasts

osteogenic (osteoprogenitor) cells osteoblasts osteoclasts osteocytes osteons

Which of the following is an inorganic component of the bone matrix?

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A) B) C) D) E)

Proteoglycans Glycoproteins Collagen Hydroxyapatite Glycosaminoglycans

31) The hardness of bone comes from __________, whereas __________ provide(s) some degree of flexibility. A) B) C) D) E)

hydroxyapatite and other minerals; proteins collagen and elastic fibers; minerals glycoproteins; proteoglycans calcium carbonate; calcium phosphate proteins; collagen

32) The plasma membrane of __________ have a ruffled border with many deep infoldings, whereas __________ have long, thin, fingerlike cytoplasmic processes. A) B) C) D) E)

33)

osteoclasts; osteocytes osteocytes; osteoclasts osteoblasts; osteoclasts osteoblasts; osteocytes osteocytes; osteogenic cells

Which one of the following bone cells would have the greatest number of lysosomes? A) B) C) D) E)

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Osteoblasts Osteoclasts Osteocytes Osteogenic cells Stem cells

34)

Spicules and trabeculae are found in __________. A) B) C) D) E)

35)

compact bone bone matrix yellow bone marrow red bone marrow spongy bone

It is common to find __________ in compact bone, but they arenot seen in spongy bone. A) B) C) D) E)

lamellae osteoclasts lacunae central canals osteocytes

36) The spaces found within the concentric lamellae are called __________, and they contain __________. A) B) C) D) E)

37)

canaliculi; osteoblasts osteons; stem cells lacunae; osteocytes lacunae; osteoclasts central canals; osteocytes

Red bone marrow does not contain __________.

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A) B) C) D) E)

myeloid tissue yellow bone marrow hematopoietic tissue white blood cells red blood cells

38) What would you find in the marrow cavity of the diaphysis of an adult humerus (arm bone)? A) B) C) D) E)

39)

Periosteum Hematopoietic tissue Red bone marrow Yellow bone marrow Compact bone

Intramembranous ossification produces the __________. A) B) C) D) E)

irregular bones of the vertebrae flat bones of the skull long bones of the limbs short bones of the wrist short bones of the ankle

40) In endochondral ossification, the precursor connective tissue is __________, which is replaced by bone. A) B) C) D) E)

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embryonic mesenchyme fibrous membranes hyaline cartilage transitional epithelium fibrocartilage

41) The __________ is a marginal zone of the epiphysial plate where, in children and adolescents, bone can be seen replacing the hyaline cartilage. A) B) C) D) E)

metaphysis primary ossification center secondary ossification center osteoid tissue epiphysial line

42) Achondroplastic dwarfism is a hereditary condition, in which the long bones of the limbs fail to elongate normally because of reduced hyperplasia and hypertrophy of cartilage in the __________. A) B) C) D) E)

43)

Mature bones are remodeled throughout life via a process known as__________. A) B) C) D) E)

44)

primary ossification center secondary ossification center primary bone marrow secondary bone marrow epiphysial plate

intramembranous ossification endochondral ossification interstitial growth appositional growth metaphysical growth

Chondrocytes multiply in the zone of __________ of themetaphysis.

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A) B) C) D) E)

45)

Bone elongation is a result of __________. A) B) C) D) E)

46)

reserve cartilage cell proliferation cell hypertrophy calcification bone deposition

cartilage growth muscle growth osseous tissue growth fibrous membrane addition dense irregular connective tissue addition

Wolff's law of bone explains the effect of __________. A) B) C) D) E)

different diets on bone elongation mechanical stress on bone remodeling temperature on bone growth age on bone thickening sex on bone widening

47) A growing long bone in a child has only two areas of cartilage at the epiphysis. These two areas are the __________. A) B) C) D) E)

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elastic cartilage and epiphysial plate epiphysial plate and epiphysial line primary and secondary ossification centers fibrocartilage and articular cartilage articular cartilage and epiphysial plate

48) Which of the following exemplifies a positive feedback process happening in bone mineral deposition? A) B) C) D) E)

The first few crystals that form attract more calcium and phosphate. Osteoblasts neutralize inhibitors that prevent bone resorption. Osteoclasts secrete acid phosphatase that digests collagen. Collagen is digested by enzymes and hydroxyapatite by hydrochloric acid. Solubility product is reached in the tissue fluids.

49) The process of dissolving bone and returning its minerals to the bloodstream is known as _________. A) B) C) D) E)

50)

Arteriosclerosis is one example of ectopic ossification, which means __________. A) B) C) D) E)

51)

mineralization mineral deposition crystallization resorption ossification

the solubility product has been reached artery mineralization by osteoblasts abnormal calcification of a tissue accumulation of collagenous fibers in blood vessels ossification of an entire blood vessel

Phosphate is necessary for all of the following except __________.

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A) B) C) D) E)

52)

Calcium plays an essential role in all of the following except __________. A) B) C) D) E)

53)

emotional disturbances depression of the nervous system muscle weakness sluggish reflexes muscle spasms

Which of the following is not a function of parathyroid hormone (PTH)? A) B) C) D) E)

55)

muscle contraction exocytosis blood clotting DNA synthesis communication among neurons

Hypocalcemia can cause __________. A) B) C) D) E)

54)

ATP DNA phospholipids RNA amino acids

Promote calcium reabsorption by the kidneys Stimulate osteoclast activity Lower blood calcium Promote calcitriol synthesis Inhibit osteoblast activity

Which of the following does not put women at risk for hypocalcemia?

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A) B) C) D) E)

Lactation Pregnancy Removal of the parathyroid glands Removal of the thyroid gland Lack of exposure to UV radiation

56) Synthesized by the combined action of the skin, kidneys, and liver, _________ is important to the deposition of bone. A) B) C) D) E)

57)

growth hormone testosterone estrogen calcitonin calcitriol

Blood Ca 2+ deficiency stimulates __________ secretion, which leads to __________. A) B) C) D) E)

calcitonin; more urinary phosphate reabsorption calcitriol; more urinary phosphate excretion parathyroid hormone; increased osteoclast activity growth hormone; increased osteoblast activity thyroid hormone; less urinary calcium excretion

58) If a thyroid tumor secreted an excessive amount of calcitonin, we would expect ___________. A) B) C) D) E)

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an elevated level of osteoclast activity an elevated level of osteoblast activity a reduced rate of endochondral ossification a rise in blood calcium concentration increasingly brittle bones

59)

The most common bone disease is __________. A) B) C) D) E)

osteomyelitis osteoporosis osteosarcoma osteomalacia rickets

60) Osteoporosis is most common in elderly women because of the lack of ___________, which would otherwise inhibit ____________. A) B) C) D) E)

dietary calcium; estrogen production osteoblasts; osteoclast activity estrogen; osteoclast activity parathyroid hormone; osteocyte activity exercise; osteoblast activity

61) The result of blood calcium and phosphate levels being too low for normal deposition is a softness of the bones called __________ in children and __________ in adults. A) B) C) D) E)

osteomalacia; rickets rickets; osteomalacia osteoporosis; osteomalacia osteomyelitis; osteosarcoma osteomyelitis; osteomalacia

62) A fracture in which the bone is broken into three or more pieces is called a __________ fracture.

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A) B) C) D) E)

63)

linear pott comminuted greenstick compound

Bone protrudes through the skin in a fracture called __________. A) B) C) D) E)

complete incomplete closed open displaced

64) A break in a bone that is already weakened by some other disease is called a(n) __________ fracture. A) B) C) D) E)

greenstick open closed pathologic displaced

65) Patches of fibrocartilage formed in the healing of a fracture are called __________, whereas the bony collar formed around the fracture is called __________. A) B) C) D) E)

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fracture hematoma; granulation tissue granulation tissue; soft callus fracture hematoma; hard callus granulation tissue; hard callus soft callus; hard callus

66) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the healing of a bone fracture? A) Bone remodeling → soft callus formation → hard callus formation → hematoma formation B) Bone remodeling → hard callus formation → soft callus formation → hematoma formation C) Hematoma formation → soft callus formation → hard callus formation → bone remodeling D) Hematoma formation → hard callus formation → soft callus formation → bone remodeling E) Soft callus formation → hard callus formation → hematoma formation → bone remodeling

67)

A soft callus forms during ___________. A) B) C) D) E)

68)

In appositional bone growth, new bone is deposited around a __________. A) B) C) D) E)

69)

endochondral ossification intramembranous ossification bone growth at the metaphysis the remodeling of bone the healing of a fracture

blood vessel collection of osteoblasts central core of existing bone small nerve lymphatic

Appositional bone growth is a process that __________.

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A) B) C) D) E)

70)

forms new bone on the surface of older bone eliminates blood vessels from bone reduces the number of osteons replaces older bone with new bone forms new bone from fibrocartilage

New bone is deposited by cells known as __________. A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

osteoblasts periosteum endosteum tunnel cells osteoclasts

SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions.

71)

71.1)

Version 1

Where would red bone marrow be found in this adult femur?

A) B) C) D) E)

71.2) A) B) C) D) E)

71.3) A) B) C) D) E)

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A B C D E

If this were the femur of a ten-year-old child, where would red marrow be found? E B and C C B B and E

What type of growth occurs at E? Interstitial Appositional Intrastitial Periosteal Endosteal

72)

72.1) A) B) C) D) E)

Which cell is responsible for bone deposition? A B C D E

72.2) A) B) C) D) E)

72.3)

Version 1

Which cell is responsible for bone resorption? A B C D E

Which cell is stimulated by the hormones calcitriol and PTH?

A) B) C) D) E)

A B C D E

73)

73.1) A) B) C) D) E)

In which stage of ossification is an epiphysial plate present? A B C D E

73.2) A) B) C) D) E)

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In which stage of ossification does the primary marrow cavity appear? A B C D E

73.3) A) B) C) D) E)

What tissue does stage A primarily consist of? Hyaline cartilage Elastic cartilage Compact bone Spongy bone Osteoid

74)

74.1) A) B) C) D) E)

74.2)

Version 1

Which hormone(s) is(are) represented by B? Calcitriol Calcitonin Parathyroid hormone Calcitriol and parathyroid hormone Calcitriol and calcitonin

Hypersecretion of which hormone(s) would result in hypocalcemia?

A) B) C) D) E)

74.3) A) B) C) D) E)

A B C D B and C

Which hormone(s) is(are) represented by A? Calcitriol Calcitonin Parathyroid hormone Calcitriol and parathyroid hormone Calcitriol and calcitonin

75)

75.1) A) B) C) D) E)

75.2)

Version 1

What tissue is the callus at B largely formed from? Fibrocartilage Elastic cartilage Mesenchyme Compact bone Spongy bone

What is the blood clot at A called?

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Hematoma Soft callus Hard callus Thrombus Embolus

Answer Key Test name: Chap 07_9e 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) FALSE 19) E 20) B 21) A 22) A 23) B 24) D 25) A 26) A Version 1

27) D 28) C 29) B 30) D 31) A 32) A 33) B 34) E 35) D 36) C 37) B 38) D 39) B 40) C 41) A 42) E 43) D 44) B 45) A 46) B 47) E 48) A 49) D 50) C 51) E 52) D 53) E 54) C 55) D 56) E Version 1

57) C 58) B 59) B 60) C 61) B 62) C 63) D 64) D 65) E 66) C 67) E 68) A 69) A 70) A 71) Section Break 71.1) B 71.2) B 71.3) A 72) Section Break 72.1) B 72.2) E 72.3) E 73) Section Break 73.1) D 73.2) B 73.3) B 74) Section Break 74.1) B 74.2) B 74.3) A Version 1

75) Section Break 75.1) A 75.2) A

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CHAPTER 8 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Condyles are found in the axial skeleton only. ⊚ ⊚

Trochanters are unique to the femur. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Sutures are found between the cranial bones. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The optic canal is part of thesphenoid bone. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Healthy paranasal sinuses are filled with mucus. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The mastoid process cannot be palpated on a living person. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The atlantoaxial joint is the joint between C1 and C2. ⊚ ⊚

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true false 1

All ribs articulate with the sternum. ⊚ ⊚

Men have one rib fewer than women. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

Medial and lateral condyles of the femur are involved in the hip joint. ⊚ ⊚

14)

true false

The pubic symphysis can be palpated as a hard prominence above the genitalia. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

There are three bones in the thumb. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

The styloid process of the radius can be palpated proximal to the thumb. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

The ischium is posterior to the pubis and inferior to the ilium. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 15) Several bones are closely associated with the skull, but not considered part of it. Select the accurate statements about them. Check all that apply. A) The auditory ossicles are named the malleus, incus, and stapes. B) Forensic pathologists look for a fractured hyoid as evidence of strangulation. C) The hyoid bone serves for attachment of several muscles that control the maxilla, tongue, and larynx. D) The hyoid is one of the few bones that does not articulate with any other. E) There are three auditory ossicles in each middle-ear cavity and the hyoid bone beneath the chin.

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 16) The average number of bones in the adult skeleton is __________. A) B) C) D) E)

56 106 156 206 256

17) All the bones below belong to the axial skeleton, except the __________, which belongs to the appendicular skeleton. A) B) C) D) E)

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frontal bone mandible scapula thoracic vertebra stapes

18)

A rounded knob that articulates with another bone is called a(n)__________. A) B) C) D) E)

19)

Any bony prominence is called a(n) ___________. A) B) C) D) E)

20)

epicondyle tubercle fossa head process

Why does an adult not have as many bones as a child? A) B) C) D) E)

21)

condyle sulcus alveolus foramen sinus

Osteoporosis leads to bone loss with age. Some separate bones gradually fuse with age. Many bones are replaced by cartilage with age. Bones are reabsorbed with age. Osteoclast activity overcomes osteoblast activity with age.

What is a sesamoid bone? A) B) C) D) E)

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A bone growing within some cartilages in response to pressure A bone that forms within some tendons in response to stress A bone that forms in the cranium in response to trauma A bone made of hyaline cartilage A bone made of dense regular connective tissue

22) A hole through a bone that usually allows passage for nerves and blood vessels is called a(n) _________. A) B) C) D) E)

23)

Which of the bones below does not belong to the appendicular skeleton? A) B) C) D) E)

24)

Clavicle Patella Ethmoid Ulna Fibula

Most of the bones of the skull are connected by immovable joints called __________. A) B) C) D) E)

25)

canal alveolus fissure foramen sinus

sinuses syndesmoses symphyses fissures sutures

Sinuses are absent from which bone?

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

26)

All of the following are found on the temporal bone except the __________. A) B) C) D) E)

27)

Sphenoid Frontal Temporal Maxilla Ethmoid

zygomatic process mastoid process external acoustic meatus sella turcica mandibular fossa

Which of the following are not considered facial bones? A) B) C) D) E)

Parietal bones Maxillae Lacrimal bones Nasal bones Palatine bones

28) The __________ houses the pituitary gland (hypophysis) and is found in the __________. A) B) C) D) E)

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foramen magnum; occipital bone sella turcica; sphenoid bone lambdoid suture; parietal bones supraorbital margin; frontal bone occipital condyle; occipital bone

29)

Which of the following bones is a single unpaired bone? A) B) C) D) E)

30)

The __________ suture separates the temporal bone from the parietal bone. A) B) C) D) E)

31)

coronal squamous lambdoid sagittal frontal

Which bone is a part of the skull and not just associated with it? A) B) C) D) E)

32)

Ethmoid Parietal Maxilla Zygomatic Palatine

Incus Malleus Hyoid Stapes Vomer

Fontanelle are __________ in an infant. A) B) C) D) E)

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spaces between the unfused cranial bones cartilages covering cranial bones fibrous connective tissues lining the cranial cavity fibrous connective tissues lining the orbits fibrous connective tissues lining paranasal sinuses

33)

All of these contribute to the wall of the orbit except the __________ bone. A) B) C) D) E)

34)

Which of the following bones is adjacent to both the coronal and lambdoid sutures? A) B) C) D) E)

35)

Occipital bone Sphenoid bone Parietal bone Zygomatic bone Frontal bone

Which bone helps form the coronal, lambdoid, and squamous sutures of the skull? A) B) C) D) E)

36)

sphenoid frontal maxilla zygomatic nasal

Occipital bone Sphenoid bone Parietal bone Temporal bone Frontal bone

Which of the following bones forms the bulk of the hard palate? A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Nasal bone Mandible Ethmoid bone Maxilla Lacrimal bone

37)

Which of the following articulates with the vertebral column? A) B) C) D) E)

38)

From superior to inferior, how many individual vertebrae are there of each type? A) B) C) D) E)

39)

12; 7; 5; 5; 4 12; 5; 5; 7; 4 7; 5; 5; 12; 4 7; 12; 5; 5; 4 7; 5; 5; 4; 12

Which of the followingis the most common spinal curvature deformity? A) B) C) D) E)

40)

Mandibular fossa Mastoid process Occipital condyle Foramen magnum Zygomatic arch

Scoliosis Hyperlordosis Hyperkyphosis Osteosis Herniation

Which intervertebral disc is largest? A) B) C) D) E)

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The one between C2 and C3 The one between C7 and T1 The one between T4 and T5 The one between T12 and L1 The one between L4 and L5

41)

Which of the following is not found on a typical vertebra? A) B) C) D) E)

42)

Which of the following is only found on the axis vertebra? A) B) C) D) E)

43)

Spinous process Transverse processes Vertebral head Vertebral foramen Vertebral body

Transverse foramen Spinous process Dens (odontoid process) Vertebral arch Superior articular facet

Which of the following is not true ofa thoracic vertebra?

A) The body has facets as points of articulation for ribs. B) It usually has a facet at the end of each transverse process for attachment of a rib. C) The body is more massive than those of cervical vertebrae but less than those of lumbar vertebrae. D) The spinous process is pointed and angled sharply downward. E) It has a pair of transverse foramina.

44) The __________ belongs to the thoracic cage, whereas the __________ belongs to the pectoral girdle.

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A) B) C) D) E)

45)

The manubrium is part of what bone? A) B) C) D) E)

46)

true floating false pelvic cartilaginous

The __________ can be easily palpated between the clavicles. A) B) C) D) E)

48)

Clavicle Sternum Scapula A rib Vertebra

Rib 7 is a __________ rib. A) B) C) D) E)

47)

sternum; clavicle clavicle; sternum vertebra T5; vertebra T1 scapula; clavicle scapula; sternum

xiphoid process suprasternal notch body of the sternum costal cartilage costal groove

The spinous process has a bifid tip in most __________ vertebrae.

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

cervical thoracic lumbar sacral coccygeal

49) In a herniated disc, the ring of fibrocartilage called the __________ ruptures and the __________ oozes out. A) B) C) D) E)

50)

Which of the followingdo costal cartilages connect? A) B) C) D) E)

51)

nucleus pulposus; anulus fibrosus lamina; nucleus pulposus anulus fibrosus; nucleus pulposus anulus fibrosus; body nucleus pulposus; lamina

The clavicles with the sternum The true ribs with the scapula The floating ribs with xiphoid process The false ribs with the viscera and peritoneum The ribs with the sternum

Which of the following is not part of the pectoral girdle? A) B) C) D) E)

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The glenohumeral joint The acromioclavicular joint The sternoclavicular joint The sacroiliac joint The clavicle and scapula

52)

The acromion is an anatomicalfeature of the __________. A) B) C) D) E)

53)

The antebrachium contains the __________. A) B) C) D) E)

54)

radius and ulna humerus carpals and metacarpals scapula and clavicle phalanges

The glenoid cavity of the __________ articulates with the head of the __________. A) B) C) D) E)

55)

clavicle scapula ulna scaphoid pollex

scapula; sternum radius; humerus humerus; scapula sternum; humerus scapula; humerus

One hand of an adult has __________ bones. A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

15 18 25 27 28

56) A young girl falls off her bike and lands on her hand, breaking the medial bone of her antebrachium. Which bone did she break? A) B) C) D) E)

57)

Which of the following is found in the palm of your hand? A) B) C) D) E)

58)

Carpal Metacarpal Tarsal Metatarsal Phalanx

Which of the following is a sesamoid bone? A) B) C) D) E)

59)

Her carpal Her metacarpal Her humerus Her radius Her ulna

Metatarsal Tarsal Tibia Fibula Patella

Which of the following is not considered a weight-bearing bone?

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

60)

Spines of the __________ form a part of the pelvic outlet. A) B) C) D) E)

61)

humerus femur patella tibia hip bone

A newbornpasses through the__________ of its mother during birth. A) B) C) D)

63)

sacrum pubis ischium ilium pubic symphysis

The acetabulum articulates with the __________. A) B) C) D) E)

62)

Femur Tibia Fibula Talus Calcaneus

obturator foramen pelvic outlet acetabulum false pelvis

Male and female pelves differ in all of the following features except __________.

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

64)

The __________ does not belong to the femur. A) B) C) D) E)

65)

the male pelvis is more massive the male pelvic outlet is smaller the female pubic arch is usually greater than 100 degrees the female coccyx is tilted posteriorly the female sacrum is longer

anterior border fovea capitis medial condyle greater trochanter lesser trochanter

You cannot palpate the __________ on a living person. A) B) C) D) E)

lateral malleolus tibial tuberosity medial surface of the fibula anterior border of the tibia calcaneus

66) There are __________ bones in a newborn compared with the average number in an adult. A) more B) fewer C) the same number of

67)

What are the three auditory ossicles?

Version 1

A) B) C) D)

The malleus, incus, and stapes The superior, middle, and inferior nasal conchae The hyoid, mandible, and maxilla The temporal, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones

68) The __________ is a U-shaped bone that sits above the larynx yet does not articulate with any other bone. A) B) C) D)

hyoid bone mandible maxilla zygomatic bone

69) Which cranial bone(s) are separate right and left bones at birth but generally fuse by the age of 5? A) B) C) D)

Frontal bone and mandible Frontal bone and maxilla Mandible and maxilla Frontal bone and occipital bone

70) One difference between the male and female pelvis is that the subpubic angle of a female is generally __________. A) B) C) D)

greater than 100 degrees less than 90 degrees greater than 120 degrees less than 20 degrees

71) Identify the bone highlighted in green (reference leader line).{MISSING IMAGE}McGraw-Hill Education Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

Maxilla Mandible Sphenoid Palatine bone Frontal bone

72) Identify the bone highlighted in green (reference leader line).{MISSING IMAGE}McGraw-Hill Education A) B) C) D) E)

Maxilla Mandible Sphenoid Palatine bone Frontal bone

73) Identify the bone highlighted in green (reference leader line).{MISSING IMAGE}McGraw-Hill Education A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Maxilla Mandible Sphenoid Palatine bone Frontal bone

74)

This picture shows a vertebra from the __________ region of the spinal column.

McGraw-Hill Education A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Cervical Lumbar Thoracic Sacral Caudal

75)

This picture shows a vertebra from the __________ region of the spinal column.

McGraw-Hill Education A) B) C) D) E)

Cervical Lumbar Thoracic Sacral Caudal

76) Name the portion of the hip bone highlighted green in this picture (reference leader line).{MISSING IMAGE}McGraw-Hill Education A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Ilium Ischium Pubis Symphysis Sacrum

77) Name the portion of the hip bone highlighted green in this picture (reference leader line).{MISSING IMAGE}McGraw-Hill Education A) B) C) D) E)

Ilium Ischium Pubis Coccyx Sacrum

78) Name the portion of the hip bone highlighted green in this picture (reference leader line).{MISSING IMAGE}McGraw-Hill Education A) B) C) D) E)

Ilium Ischium Pubis Coccyx Sacrum

79) Name the bone highlighted green in this picture (reference leader line).{MISSING IMAGE}McGraw-Hill Education A) B) C) D) E) F)

Radius Ulna Humerus Medial phalanx Metacarpal Lateral phalanx

80) Name the bone highlighted green in this picture (reference leader line).{MISSING IMAGE}McGraw-Hill Education

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E) F)

Radius Ulna Humerus Medial phalanx Metacarpal Lateral phalanx

81) Name the bone highlighted green in this picture (reference leader line).{MISSING IMAGE}McGraw-Hill Education A) B) C) D) E)

Scaphoid Lunate Hamate Triquetrum Capitate

82) The part of the humerus highlighted in green (reference leader lines) is called the ______.{MISSING IMAGE}McGraw-Hill Education A) B) C) D) E)

Trochlea Capitulum Head Greater tubercle Lesser tubercle

83) Name the bone highlighted green in this picture (reference leader lines).{MISSING IMAGE}McGraw-Hill Education

Version 1

A) B) C) D) E)

Talus Calcaneus Navicular Intermediate cuneiform Capitate

84) Name the bone highlighted green in this picture (reference leader lines).{MISSING IMAGE}McGraw-Hill Education A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Talus Calcaneus Navicular Intermediate cuneiform Capitate

85)

Which letter corresponds to the temporal bone?

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

A B C D E

86)

The end of the clavicle is labeled 1 is called the __________ end.

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

sternal acromial costal distal mandibular

87)

The end of the clavicle is labeled 1 is called the __________ end.

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

sternal acromial costal proximal coronal

88)

Which letter corresponds to the trochleaon this diagram of the distal humerus?

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

A B C D E

89)

Identify the indentation labeled 1 on this drawing of the distal humerus.

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Coronoid fossa Radial fossa Olecranon fossa Intertubercular sulcus Trochlear notch

90)

Identify the indentation labeled 2 on this drawing of the distal humerus.

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Coronoid fossa Radial fossa Olecranon fossa Intertubercular sulcus Trochlear notch

91)

Identify the indentation labeled 3 on this drawing of the distal humerus.

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Coronoid fossa Radial fossa Olecranon fossa Intertubercular sulcus Trochlear notch

92)

Which of the following is a metacarpal bone?

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

A B C D E

93)

Which bone is labeled 1 in this diagram of the wrist?

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Pisiform Triquetrum Hamate Scaphoid Trapezium

94)

Which bone is labeled 6 in this diagram of the wrist?

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Capitate Lunate Hamate Scaphoid Trapezoid

95)

Which of these bones is the hamate?

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

A B C D E

96)

The region of the hip bone labeled 1 is called the __________.

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

ilium ischium pubis acetabulum coccyx

97)

The region of the hip bone labeled 2 is called the __________.

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

ilium ischium pubis acetabulum coccyx

98)

The region of the hip bone labeled 3 is called the __________.

A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

ilium ischium pubis acetabulum coccyx

99) This diagram shows the distal end of the femur. Which letter indicates the lateral condyle?

A) B) C) D) E)

100)

Which of the following sutures connects the greatest number of bones? A) B) C) D)

101)

A B C D E

Sagittal suture Squamous suture Lambdoid suture Coronal suture

Which of the following is the most lateral bone in the forearm?

Version 1

A) B) C) D)

102)

Radius Ulna Tibia Fibula

When you are sitting, your body weight rests on which of the following? A) B) C) D) E)

Version 1

Ischial tuberosity Acetabulum Greater sciatic notch Iliac crest Pubic symphysis

103)