Animal Physiology From Genes to Organisms 2nd Edition Sherwood Test Bank
Homeostasis and Integration: The Foundations of Physiology A.
Multiple Choice
Key/ Page
No.
b 1
1.
Physiology is the study of a. matter, energy and their interactions. b. how organisms function. c. the mind. d. temperament and character based on outward appearances.
a 1
2.
The process of maintaining physiological stability in the face of disturbance is referred to as a. homeostasis. b. homeothermy. c. home remedy. d. homeopathy.
c 1
3.
Which of the following statements is true? a. Structure/function relationships are evident at the organismal level, but not at the molecular level. b. Evolution by natural selection led to physiologic adaptation historically, but is not relevant to extant organisms. c. Homeostasis is the tendency toward relative stability in the internal environment of an organism. d. Feedback control refers specifically to the homeostatic mechanisms that help organisms stop eating when they’re satiated.
c 3
4.
The August Krogh Principle states that a. understanding physiology can only be accomplished through the study of evolution by natural selection. b. the shortest distance between two points is a straight line. c. understanding physiological phenomena is enhanced by studying model organisms that have adapted to deal with particular physiological challenges. d. salamanders are good for studying regeneration of limbs since what will be learned can be applied to human medicine.
a 6
5.
Which of the following is NOT part of the hypothetico-deductive method of scientific investigation? a. proving one's hypothesis b. asking questions about the natural world c. proposing explanations for phenomena in the natural world d. designing experiments that enable one to test a hypothesis e. conducting experiments and making observations
b 7
6.
The smallest unit of life is a. a DNA molecule. b. a cell. c. an organelle. d. a virus. e. a protein.
e 7
7.
The basic functions of all cells include a. self-organization. b. self-regulation. c. self-support (structural) and movement. d. self-replication. e. all of the above
d 2 13-17
8.
Which of the following terms have NO relationship? a. adaptations and cost-benefit ratio b. homologous traits and a common ancestry c. negative feedback and set point d. feedforward system and acclimiatization e. antagonistic control and two effectors
e 9, 10
9.
The primary types of tissues found in animals are a. muscular. b. nervous. c. epithelial. d. connective. e. all of the above
a 9
10.
Which of the following is NOT an example of connective tissue? a. muscle b. bone c. blood d. tendon e. cartilage
d 10 F 1-4
11.
Which of the following statements is true? a. The only physiological function for which surface-area-to-volume ratio is relevant is digestion. b. The only physiological function for which surface-area-to-volume ratio is irrelevant is reproduction. c. For any physiological function, a high surface-area-to-volume ratio is advantageous. d. Surface area increases as the square of the linear dimension while volume increases as the cube. e. All statements are true.
b 13
12.
With respect to thermoregulation, most fishes are a. regulators. b. conformers. c. warm-blooded. d. best fried.
c 13
13.
Enantiostasis is a. the maintenance of a nearly constant internal environment by direct compensatory mechanisms. b. the maintenance of one of two constant internal environments, in which the two environments are mirror images of each other. c. the maintenance of a nearly constant internal environment by an indirect compensatory mechanism. d. none of these.
b 17
14.
From a physiological perspective, the increase in pelage (i.e. fur) that some mammals experience in winter represents a. acclimation. b. acclimatization. c. adaptation. d. feedback inhibition.
b 17, 18
15.
Some hormones act to regulate the concentration of intracellular signals like cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cyclic AMP, or cAMP) by activating or inhibiting adenylyl cyclase, the enzyme responsible for its production, or by activating or inhibiting phosphodiesterases, which are responsible for its destruction. Cyclic AMP, in turn, functions by activating enzyme cascades that set certain metabolic pathways in motion. The regulation of cAMP levels in cells is an example of a. homeostasis. b. rheostasis. c. equilibrium. d. adaptation. e. all of these.
a 13, 14
16.
In physiological terms, a set point can be defined as a. the value of a parameter, such as the concentration of sugar in the blood, that homeostatic mechanisms aim to maintain. b. the value of a parameter, such as the concentration of sugar in the blood, that set homeostatic mechanisms in motion. c. the location in a thermal gradient at which a poikilothermic organism rests, reflecting is preferred body temperature. d. the winning stroke in a tennis match.
a 17
17.
Prior to being used as subjects, many laboratory animals are given a period of time to get used to the conditions in the laboratory, e.g., the light/dark cycle. The process they undergo during this time is referred to as a. acclimation. b. acclimatization. c. adaptation. d. adjustment. e. evolution.
a 21
18.
The nervous system is an example of a a. whole-body control b. maintenance c. support and movement d. reproductive e. solar plexus
e 21, 22
19.
Drinking, a behavioral effector of homeostatic control of body fluid levels, involves which of the following physiological systems? a. nervous b. endocrine c. muscular d. skeletal e. all of these
e 22
20.
Which of the following is NOT transported by the circulatory system? a. nutrients b. dissolved gases c. electrolytes d. heat e. none of these
e 3, 4
21.
Which of the following disciplinary courses of study contribute to understanding physiology? a. physics b. genomics c. evolution d. molecular biology e. all of these
system.
d 2
22.
Teleology is a. the study of bony fishes. b. the study of life on other planets. c. the study of media for mass communication. d. explanations that presume a purposeful goal for evolutionary adaptations. e. the study of bald-headed men.
d 7
23.
Pancreatic acinar cells are specialized for secreting digestive enzymes ultimately into the small intestine. This specialization reflects an elaboration of which of the following basic cell functions? a. obtaining oxygen and nutrients b. eliminating wastes c. synthesizing components needed for the cell's survival d. controlling movement of materials between the cell and its environment e. reproducing
e 12, 13
24.
Which of the following body parameters is NOT homeostatically maintained? a. concentration of blood sugar b. concentration of dissolved gases c. blood volume d. blood pressure e. urine volume
b 4, F 1-1
25.
Based on phylogenetic analysis, to which of the following phyla are chordates most closely related? a. Porifera (e.g. sponges) b. Echinodermata (e.g. sea stars) c. Platyhelminthes (e.g. flatworms) d. Arthropoda (e.g. insects) e. Mollusca (e.g. octopi)
d 9 F 1-2
26.
The parathyroid gland, which secretes parathyroid hormone, is an organ comprising mainly tissue. a. nervous b. muscle c. connective d. epithelial
d 9 F 1-3
27.
Salivary glands, which secrete amylase into the oral cavity, comprise tissue. a. nervous b. muscle c. connective d. epithelial
d 16, 17
28.
Which statement about a feedforward system is true? a. Feedforward systems anticipate oncoming disturbances. b. Feedforward systems reduce the delay response associated with negative feedback systems. c. The production and accompanying response insulin following the ingestion of food is one type of feedforward system. d. All of these are true. e. None of these are true.
e 2, 4 17
30.
Which of the following terms have NO relationship? a. analogous traits and independent evolution b. chordata and dorsal notochord c. dormancy and acclimatization d. acclimation and controlled environment e. none of these
e 2, 3 13
31.
Which of the following statements is true? a. The spine evolved as an adaptation for swimming in fish. b. Some organisms have vestigial genes. c. Enantiostasis involves a change in two variables. d. Two of these. e. All of these.
b 7
32.
Glial cells of the brain are remarkable for their ability to avoid exploding when they are placed in distilled water. This ability comes in part as a consequence of activating ion transport mechanisms that enable them to control cell volume. This activity is an example of a. self-organization. b. self-regulation. c. self-support (structural) and movement. d. self-replication. e. all of these.
e 7
33.
Which of the following exemplify the basic cellular function of structural "self-support and movement"? a. ciliary beating in the respiratory epithelium of the trachea b. flagellar beating of sperm cells c. microvilli on the luminal surface of intestinal epithelial cells d. muscle contraction e. all of these
e 17
34.
Which of the following is considered to be homeostatic? a. locomotion. b. nerve conductance. c. mammalian body temperature. d. Two responses are homeostatic. e. No responses are homeostatic.
d 2
35.
Smaller birds tend to lay smaller eggs with a smaller yolk supply than larger birds. This would be recognized as an example of a. down regulation. b. a preadaptation. c. genetic fitness. d. a cost-benefit trade off. e. intrinsic control.
b 1
36.
The presence of mitochondria in virtually all eukaryotic cells is attributed to the historical existence of bacterial endosymbionts which invaded ancestral eukaryotes. This explanation could be considered a. mechanistic. b. evolutionary. c. both of these. d. neither of these.
a 1
37.
Pronghorn antelopes are able to run at high altitudes where oxygen is scant relative to low altitudes for long periods of time. This ability is attributed to the superabundance of mitochondria in their limb muscles. This explanation could be considered a. mechanistic. b. evolutionary. c. both of these. d. neither of these.
c 2
38.
Organisms, like the arctic fox, that live in cold environments have evolved countercurrent heat exchangers in their limbs to help maintain their body temperature at a level well above the ambient temperature. This explanation could be considered a. mechanistic. b. evolutionary. c. teleological. d. all of these. e. none of these.
a 1, 11
39.
Insulin is secreted from the pancreatic islets of Langerhans in response to elevated levels of glucose in the blood plasma. The effect of insulin is to stimulate cells to take up glucose (out of the plasma), resulting in decreased plasma glucose levels. This system is an example of the physiological principle of a. homeostasis. b. homeothermy. c. home remedy. d. homeopathy. e. digestion.
d 13, 14
40.
An unreferenced negative feedback system will include a. an integrator. b. an effector. c. both of these. d. neither of these.
B.
True or false
True 1
1.
Biological features are the result of variation and natural selection.
False F1-1
2.
In a evolutionary tree constructed using morphological and molecular data, annelids would be more closely related to mollusks nematodes.
True 1, 13
3.
In populations where social homeostasis is evident, an increase in population density would likely trigger a response within the colony causing a reduction in breeding.
True 4. 16 F 1-9a
The combined result of shivering to raise body heat and sweating to lower body heat is an example of antagonistic control of body temperature.
False 18, 19
Positive feedback mechanisms continually move the controlled variable in the direction of the initial change making them dangerous and not beneficial to humans.
5.
True 6. 22 F 1-11
The primary function of the integumentary system is similar to that of the plasma membrane to a cell.
False 2
7.
Bird wings and insect wings are considered to be homologous structures.
True 2
8.
In humans, the muscles responsible for moving the outer visible part of the ear, the pinna, are considered to be vestigial structures.
True 18
9.
Nonhomoeostatic regulation is referred to as rheostasis.
False 19, 20
10.
With regard to homeostic mechanisms, extrinsic control factors originate outside of the body and intrinsic factors originate within the body.
C.
Matching (correct answers are aligned with each number; e.g., #1 matches with letter a)
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
A feature of all cells Skeletal muscle Cardiac muscle Smooth muscle Epithelium Exocrine Endocrine Birth Pathophysiology Internal fluid environment
D.
Essay
Page 22
No. 1.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j.
cell membrane muscle that moves the skeleton muscle found in the heart muscle found in the wall of the stomach tissue found in glands ducted ductless positive feedback disease extracellular fluid
Write an essay in PHYSIOLOGICAL terms agreeing with or disagreeing with the following statement from your text: “Reproductive systems are not essential for homeostasis and therefore are not essential for survival of the individual.”
13, 19 22
2.
Describe why the respiratory system is a good example of a system involved in maintaining homeostasis rather than homostasis.
13-16
3.
Describe a situation in which the breakdown of glycogen by a cell reflects exercise of local control and a situation in which the same process reflects response to commands from an "integrator."
7,8
4.
What features are shared in common by all cells?
7,8
5.
Many biologists do not consider viruses to be living because they are unable to perform some of the functions common to cells, and by extension, to living organisms. Choose one of the functions from the list below and describe whether viruses can or cannot perform that function. Conclude whether you consider viruses to be living. a. b. c. d. e.
self-organization self-regulation self-support (structural) and movement self-replication all of the above
Cellular and Molecular Physiology A.
Multiple Choice
Key/ Page
No.
e 25
1.
Which of the following is an organic molecule? a. naturally grown hemp b. oxygen c. phosphate d. sodium e. octane
a 26
2.
Which of the following is NOT a lipid? a. glycogen b. trigylceride c. phosphotidylserine d. cholesterol e. fatty acids
3.
Which of the following is a protein? a. creatine b. muscle c. insulin d. creatine phosphate
d 27
4.
Which of the following is the monomeric, building block of nucleic acids? a. ribose b. phosphate c. nitrogenous base (A, G, C, T, U) d. nucleotide e. amino acid
e 27
5.
Which of the following bases is unique to RNA? a. adenine b. cytosine c. guanine d. thymine e. uracil
c 26
d
6.
Which of the following bases is unique to DNA? a. adenine b. cytosine c. guanine d. thymine e. uracil
a 28
7.
Which of the following pairs have NO Relationship? a. ribosomes and membranous organelles b. inclusions and excess nutrients c. peroxisomes and detoxification d. mitochondria and rod or oval shapes e. vaults and octagonal barrels
d 27
8
The a. b. c. d. e.
b 27
9.
Prokaryotes are different from eukaryotes in that the former lack a. cell walls. b. nuclei. c. DNA. d. membrane transport proteins. e. none of these.
e 27
10.
Protein function and activity can be modified by a. allosteric regulators. b. changes in electric fields. c. phosphorylation. d. physical deformation. e. all of these.
c
11.
The proteins with which DNA associates to form chromosomes are called a. histamines. b. histidines. c. histones. d. ribosomes. e. nuclear lamins.
27
30
is unique to eukaryotes. plasma membrane cytoplasm ribosomes nucleus genetic material
e 31
12.
Which DNA sequence must be bound by proteins to form a basal transcription complex which recognizes the promoter code and then activates RNA polymerase to make premRNA? a. AAGG b. TAGC c. GCTA d. GCGC e. TATA
d 33
13.
Which of the following has been shown to be associated with how long an animal might be expected to live (lifespan)? a. the amount of RNAi in cells b. the number of pseudogenes c. the amount of junk DNA d. the length telemeres e. none of these has been found to have any effect on the lifespan of an organism.
d 31
14.
Your muscle cells are able to express a different complement of proteins from your brain cells because a. they contain different genes. b. muscles and brains are the vestiges of different symbiotic organisms present in our ancestors. c. you inherit the genes for your muscles from your father and the genes for your brain from your mother. d. the expression of muscle-specific genes is regulated by transcription factors not present in brain cells and vice versa.
d 34
15.
A researcher identified an uncharacterized mouse gene and the protein it encoded. The researcher prepared antibodies to the purified protein. To determine the specificity of the antibody the researcher incubated tissue sections from a knock-out mouse with the new antibody. If the antibody were specific for the protein under study, would you expect to see labeling in these tissue sections? a. Yes, because antibody binding does not involve gene products. b. Yes, because the protein is a mouse protein. c. Yes, because the gene was knocked out, not the protein. d. No, because the protein cannot be expressed if the gene is absent. e. No, because proteins are too small to visualize under a light microscope.
e 35
16.
Gene chips a. are individual segments of DNA. b. are arrays of genomic DNA adhered to a substrate. c. bind cDNA. d. are bound to microtiter plates prior to analysis. e. Two answers are correct.
b 38
17.
Ribosomes function in the process of a. transcription. b. translation. c. transversion. d. transformation. e. transition.
e 38-41
18.
Which of the following is NOT a component of the secretory pathway in cells? a. rough endoplasmic reticulum b. smooth endoplasmic reticulum c. Golgi complex d. granules e. peroxisome
c 41
19.
The presence of abundant smooth endoplasmic reticulum in vertebrate liver cells is related to its function in a. steroid hormone production. b. enzyme secretion. c. detoxification of harmful substances. d. protein synthesis. e. calcium storage.
a 41
20.
The sarcoplasmic reticulum is another name for a. the smooth endoplasmic reticulum of muscle cells. b. the rough endoplasmic reticulum of muscle cells. c. the secretory complex of muscle cells. d. the endocytic pathway of muscle cells. e. none of these.
e 41, 42
21.
Which of the following is NOT true of the Golgi complex? a. The Golgi complex consists of cisternae. b. The majority of newly synthesized proteins leave the smooth ER and travel to the Golgi. c. The vesicles leaving the Golgi have docking markers. d. The nematocysts found in cnidarians originate in the Golgi. e. All of these are true statements about the Golgi complex.
d 37
22.
Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. Cellular division is one example of cloning. b. Cloning may involve nuclear transplantation. c. In whole animal cloning the cells need to revert to the pluripotent state d. All of these are true. e. None of these are true.
c 45, 46
23.
The genetically programmed process of cell death that occurs normally during development and aging is called a. proteoloysis. b. pneumatosis. c. apoptosis. d. ptosis. e. necrosis.
e 56
24.
Which of the following is a product of anaerobic metabolism? a. ethanol b. tauropine c. alanine d. alanopine e. all of these
c 464
25.
Catalase is an enzyme used to a. break beef down into its component amino acids. b. break prions down into their component amino acids. c. break hydrogen peroxide down to form water and oxygen. d. break carbonic acid down to form water and carbon dioxide. e. break down a variety of metabolites.
a 46
26.
The major product generated in the peroxisome is a. hydrogen peroxide. b. ethanol. c. perchloric acid. d. amino acids.
a 47
27.
Which of the following tissues has the highest mitochondrial density (is the most oxygendependent)? a. nervous tissue b. muscle tissue c. blood tissue d. respiratory epithelial tissue e. Mitochondrial density is consistent between tissues.
d 57, 59
28.
Which of the following do NOT have a relationship? a. microtubules and largest cytoskeletal elements b. molecular motors and intracellular transport c. anoxic animals and hydrogenosomes d. Clostridium and protozoa e. all pairs have a relationship
d 47
29.
In animal cells, the electron transport chain used in energy conversion is located in the a. plasma membrane. b. cytoplasm. c. outer mitochondrial membrane. d. inner mitochondrial membrane. e. mitochondrial matrix.
a 47
30.
The physiological significance of mitochondrial cristae is they a. provide more surface area across which electrons can be transported. b. provide a histological cue to enable organelle identification. c. decrease the volume of the matrix, thereby increasing the concentration of its components. d. decrease the volume of the matrix, allowing cells to economize on the production of its components. e. None of these.
b 48
31
The process of glycolysis occurs in the a. plasma membrane. b. cytoplasm. c. outer mitochondrial membrane. d. inner mitochondrial membrane. e. mitochondrial matrix.
d 48
32.
Which of the following is a potential substrate a cell can use to produce ATP? a. its own intracellular nutrient stores b. nutrients stored in other, specialized storage cells c. recently ingested (and digested) food d. all of these e. none of these
c 26, 48
33.
Which of the following statements about glycogen is NOT true? a. Glycogen is stored in glia. b. Glycogen is an energy source in short term as opposed to long term periods of strenuous activity. c. Glycogen is a major energy source for migrating salmon. d. Glycogen is stored in the fat-body of insects. e. Aerobic metabolism of glycogen can yield at least 30 molecules of ATP.
b 49
34.
The end-product of glycolysis is a. glucose. b. pyruvic acid. c. lactic acid. d. ethanol. e. carbon dioxide.
e 49
35.
The citric acid cycle occurs in the a. plasma membrane. b. cytoplasm. c. outer mitochondrial membrane. d. inner mitochondrial membrane. e. mitochondrial matrix.
c 51, 53
36
Most of the ATP generated as a consequence of oxidative breakdown of glucose comes from a. substrate-level phosphorylation associated with glycolysis. b. substrate-level phosphorylation associated with the citric acid cycle. c. oxidative phosphorylation associated with the electron transport chain. d. none of the above
e (b, d) 51
37
Which statement about oxygen is true? a. Oxygen is required for the synthesis of ATP.. b. Oxygen becomes negatively charged during ATP synthesis in the mitochondria. c. Oxygen is bound to water forming peroxide during the final step of ATP synthesis in the mitochondria. d. In the electron transport chain, oxygen receives an electron initially released from NADH. e. Two of these statements are true.
d 51-53
38.
The electron transport chain is involved in a. the oxidation of cofactors (NADH and FADH2) reduced during oxidation of citric acid cycle intermediates. b. the transport of hydrogen ions from the mitochondrial matrix to the intermembrane space. c. generating water. d. all of these e. none of these
b F 2-20
39.
During ATP synthesis by oxidative phosphorylation, a. hydrogen ions pass from the mitochondrial matrix to the intermembrane space, activating ATP synthase. b. hydrogen ions pass from the intermembrane space to the mitochondrial matrix, activating ATP synthase. c. water passes from the mitochondrial matrix to the intermembrane space, activating ATP synthase. d. water passes from the intermembrane space to the mitochondrial matrix, activating ATP synthase.
d 53
40
Which of the following IS NOT an enzyme involved in scavenging reactive oxygen species? a. superoxide dismutase. b. catalase. c. glutathione peroxidase. d. ascorbate.
B.
True or False
True 54
1.
Concentrations of ATP remain fairly constant in any particular tissue.
False 55
2.
Lactate accumulation in tissues causes the pH to rise.
True 57
3.
Facultative anaerobes utilize a molecule other than oxygen as the final electron acceptor in ATP synthesis.
True 57
4.
Cells contain organelles called vaults which are thought to transport molecules synthesized in the nucleus such as mRNAs.
False 60
5.
Microtubules are the dominant structural component of cilia whereas microfilaments are the dominant structure in flagella.
True 65
6.
Many cells making up tissues are held together primarily by factors in the extracellular matrix rather than by contacts made with neighboring cells.
True 28
7.
The intermediate filaments found in the cytoplasm of cells help to resist mechanical stress.
False 33
8.
RNAi inhibits protein synthesis by binding to tRNA and blocking translation.
False 40
9.
Lysosomes arise from the endoplasmic reticulum.
False 46
10.
Ubiquitin-tagged proteins are destined for lysosomal degradation.
C.
Matching (correct answers are aligned with each number; e.g., #1 matches with letter a)
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Simple sugar Glycogen Ribosome Rough endoplasmic reticulum Smooth endoplasmic reticulum Golgi Alternative splicing Proteosome Apoptosis Mitochondria
D.
Essay
Page
No.
35
1.
Describe the experimental details outlining how you would use microarray technology to determine which gene is responsible for draught resistance in a species of tree such as the white oak?
33
2.
What is the difference between genomics and proteomics? Would you expect the genome for a cell to be larger or smaller than its proteome? Explain.
34, 35
3.
With respect to knock-out technology, it has been said "If a protein's function is important, its knock-out will result in lethality. On the other hand, if it's very important its function will be duplicated by another protein, and there will be no obvious phenotype for the knock-out." Please explain this statement in your own words.
34, 35
4.
How would you use knock-out and knock-in methodology to show that two genes have an added effect on a cellular process as opposed to the process being regulated by only one of them individually?
46-53
5.
Would you expect the number of peroxisomes to be positively or negatively correlated with the number of mitochondria? Justify your answer in terms of the function of each or in the context of overall cellular functions.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j.
Monosaccharide Polysaccharide Protein synthesis Glycosylation Protein packaging Protein sorting RNA-protein complex Protein degradation Programmed cell death Endosymbiotic
Membrane Physiology A.
Multiple Choice
Key/ Page b 70
No. 1.
All cells (not just animal cells) have a. mitochondria. b. a cell membrane. c. a cell wall. d. a nucleus. e. microtubules.
b 70
2.
Phospholipids are able to form bilayer membranes in aqueous environments because a. they have hydrophobic heads and hydrophilic tails. b. they have polar heads and nonpolar tails. c. they have polar tails and nonpolar heads. d. the phospho-portion can form phosphodiester bonds between adjacent phospholipids. e. two of these.
c 70, 71
3.
The lipid bilayer is held together mainly by a. covalent bonding between membrane lipids. b. hydrogen-bonding between the phospholipids' tails. c. repulsion between the phospholipids' tails and water. d. covalent bonding between the ends of phospholipids tails in opposite layers. e. hydrogen-bonding between the head groups of the phospholipids.
b 70
4.
Cell membranes have a structure with the polar head groups of the phospholipids facing toward the aqueous environment and the facing toward the interior of the membrane. a. bilayer, hydrophilic tails b. bilayer, hydrophobic tails c. micellar, hydrophilic tails d. liposomal, hydrophilic tails e. liposomal, hydrophobic tails
e 71, 72
5.
Cholesterol is a membrane lipid that a. reduces the permeability of gill membranes to water. b. affects the activity of membrane proteins. c. regulates membrane fluidity and stability. d. two of these. e. all of these.
c 71
6.
Which of the following statements regarding lipid membranes is true? a. Phospholipids will spontaneously form liposomes in nonpolar solvents. b. A solution of pure fatty acids forms a lipid bilayer in a polar solvent. c. Membrane lipids move laterally within their own layer. d. Membrane lipids frequently move between one layer of the bilayer and the other. e. The preferred form of a lipid bilayer in water is a flat sheet with exposed edges.
a 72
7.
Which of the following statements regarding the fatty acid tails of phospholipids is FALSE? a. Phospholipids with unsaturated tails make the bilayer more fluid because the tails contain fewer hydrogens and thus form fewer hydrogen bonds with each other. b. Saturated phospholipids’ tails pack more tightly against each other than do unsaturated tails. c. Most membrane phospholipids have one fully saturated tail. d. Phospholipid tails in a membrane can interact with each other via van der Waals interactions. e. Fatty acid tails vary in length.
a 72
8.
Which of the following animals would you expect to have the most unsaturated fatty acyl chains in the plasma membranes of its cells? a. arctic fish b. penguins c. polar bears d. tropical fish e. pelicans
b 72
9.
Membrane proteins are found a. as distinct layers with one layer facing the extracellular fluid and the other facing the intracellular fluid. b. both embedded in and associated with the lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane. c. associated with the lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane, but not actually embedded in it. d. only in the plasma membrane, and not in other cellular membranes. e. none of these.
c 73
10.
Which of the following statements about the plasma membrane is true? a. The plasma membrane is symmetrical (on average) around the plane between the inner and outer halves. b. The carbohydrate portion of glycoproteins is only found on the part of the protein facing the cytoplasm. c. The carbohydrate portion of glycoproteins is only found on the part of the protein facing the extracellular fluid. d. The carbohydrate portion of glycoproteins is found on both the extracellular facing and intracellular facing part of the protein. e. There are no glycoproteins in the plasma membrane.
a 73
11.
Which of the following statements about the lipid bilayer portion of the plasma membrane is FALSE? a. Some membrane phospholipids form transmembrane channels that allow ion movement. b. The lipid bilayer defines the boundaries of the cell. c. The lipid bilayer forms a permeability barrier to polar and charged substances. d. The lipid bilayer confers fluidity to the plasma membrane. e. All of the above statements are true.
d 81
12.
Ion channels a. can exist in open or closed states. b. are typically selective with respect to the types of substances that pass through them. c. can selectively repel particular ions. d. all of these. e. none of these.
b 72
13.
From a structural standpoint, integral membrane proteins are most similar to which membrane lipids? a. cholesterol b. phospholipids c. neutral lipids d. polyunsaturated fatty acids. e. none of these.
d 78, 79
14.
Which of the following pairs have NO relationship? a. hydrostatic pressure and osmosis. b. osmotic pressure and osmosis. c. osmotic pressure and colligative properties of solutes. d. all of these pairs have a relationship. e. none of these pairs has a relationship.
b 78 - 80
15.
A semipermeable membrane encloses a solution of 10 mM NaCl and 5 mM KCl. This “cell” is placed into a solution of 6 mM CaCl2 and 6 mM NaCl. a. The “cell” will be hypertonic to the surrounding solution. b. The “cell” will be isotonic to the surrounding solution. c. The “cell will be hypotonic to the surrounding solution. d. The “cell” has a lower hydrostatic pressure than the surrounding solution. e. Not enough information is provided to answer the question.
C 75
16.
Molecules that can cross a membrane unassisted due so either by a. carrier mediated transport or facilitated diffusion. b. passive diffusion or active transport. c. conduction or passive transport. d. facilitated diffusion or active transport. e. none of these.
b 75, 76
17.
Which of the following does NOT directly affect the rate of diffusion of a substance across a membrane? a. concentration gradient b. cellular volume c. permeability of the membrane to the diffusing substance d. surface area across which diffusion is taking place e. molecular weight of the diffusing substance
e 77, 78
18.
Osmosis is the movement of water a. using a carrier-mediated transport mechanism. b. down a solute's concentration gradient. c. down its own concentration gradient. d. across a membrane irrespective of concentration gradients. e. across a membrane down its own concentration gradient.
b 78
19.
Osmotic pressure is a. a measure of the concentration of solvent in a solution. b. equal to the hydrostatic pressure required to oppose the movement of water into a solution. c. low in a solution with a high solute concentration. d. dependent upon the lipid composition of the membrane. e. two of these are correct.
d 79, 81
20.
Which of the following statements is true? a. Tonicity refers to the effect of penetrating solutes on cell volume. b. A one molal solution contains 1 mole of solute per liter of solution. c. To accommodate larger molecules, membrane channels have an average diameter of 1 – 1.5 nanometers. d. Carrier proteins span the membrane and can undergo shape changes. e. Aquaporins regulate solute movement across membranes.
b 83
21.
In a lab experiment with isolated lung cells you observe a linear uptake in choline from the extracellular medium by the cells until the extracellular concentration of choline reaches 200 nM. At this concentration the curve levels off and the same rate of uptake is seen at 200 and 225 nM extracellular choline. What has happened that can explain this observation? a. Cellular and extracellular choline concentrations are at equilibrium. b. The transporters for choline saturate at 200 nM. c. At choline concentrations of 200 nM and above, the osmotic pressure of the cytoplasm prevents additional choline from entering the cell. d. The cell cannot synthesis enough ATP to keep up with the energy demand of the carrier. e. None of these.
c 83, 84
22.
A scientist measuring the rate of uptake of radiolabeled alanine by cultured cells finds that rates are faster when the experiments are carried out in a buffered, balanced salts solution than when the experiments are carried out in a complete (containing all nutrients required for survival and growth) medium. The most likely explanation for this observation is a. the concentration gradient for alanine is steeper in the former case than the latter. b. the crenation (shrinkage of cells) in the salts solution increases the surface area-tovolume ratio for the cells increasing the rate of diffusion. c. the absence of amino acids in the balanced salts solution decreases the abundance of molecules competing for transport, and therefore increases the apparent transport rate. d. the temperature of the balanced salt solution is higher, so rates of transport are greater. e. no response provides a valid answer.
e 84
23.
The movement of glucose into a cell is an example of a. simple diffusion. b. facilitated diffusion. c. active transport. d. There is not enough information given to distinguish between simple or facilitated diffusion. e. There is not enough information given to distinguish between facilitated diffusion and active transport.
e 87, 88 90
24.
Which of the following pairs have NO relationship? a. Secondary active transport and cotransport carriers. b. Symporters and cotransport carriers. c. Na+-K+ pump and ouabain. d. Caveolae and cell transport. e. Osmosis and carrier mediated transport.
c 86
25.
Which of the following is a NOT direct function of the Na+-K+ pump? a. development of a Na+ gradient across the cell membrane b. development of a K+ gradient across the cell membrane c. regulation of cellular pH d. cell volume regulation e. all of these are direct functions of this pump.
e 89
26.
Nursing babies obtain some immunity by intestinal absorption of antibodies found in their mother’s milk. This process requires the movement of intact antibodies from the lumen of the intestine into the blood. This process involves a combination of a. endocytosis. b. exocytosis. c. cotransport carriers. d. endocytosis and cotransport carriers. e. endocytosis and exocytosis.
a 89
27.
The term potocytosis refers to a. the uptake of substances through the activity of caveolae. b. the specific uptake of tetrahydrocannabinol by facilitated diffusion. c. the uptake of solid substances involving the formation of pseudopods. d. the uptake of liquids through cellular drinking.
c 91, 92
28.
Which of the following would disqualify a chemical messenger from being considered a paracrine signal? a. It is an organic molecule. b. It is not transported in the blood. c. It affects the cell that released it. d. Once released, it is distributed to its target(s) by simple diffusion. e. It is released as a specific response to a signal.
b 93
29.
The affect a chemical messenger elicits in a cell is determined primarily by the identity of a. the chemical messenger. b. the receptor for the chemical messenger. c. the second messengers present in the cell. d. the cell. e. the organism.
d 95
30.
The activation of certain receptors results in the phosphorylation of a target protein. The enzyme responsible for this phosphorylation would be classified as a . a. proteinase (or protease) b. receptorase c. phosphatase d. kinase e. ATPase
b 97, 98 F 3-19
31.
Which of the following sequences best represents the order of events in the cAMP second messenger pathway? a. cAMP → receptor → G-protein activation → PKA → phosphoproteins b. receptor → G-protein activation → AC → cAMP → PKA → phosphoproteins c. AC → decreased temperature → phospholipid-breakdown → cAMP → PKA → phosphoproteins d. G-protein activation → GDP → cGMP → cAMP → PKA → phosphoproteins e. None of the above.
c 94, 95 97, 98
32.
One advantage of signaling pathways involving the generation of second messengers has compared to a signaling pathway that utilizes the influx of ions is a. the former are much faster in terms of generating cellular responses to first messengers. b. the former are slower in terms of generating cellular responses, allowing cells to be more circumspect in their response to chemical signals. c. the former require less first messenger to elicit a response, since they allow for signal amplification. d. the former require more first messenger to elicit a response, allowing for more rapid termination of the signaling event. e. none of these.
c 94
33.
The internal (intracellular) receptor for steroid hormones acts as a transcription factor. Therefore, the cellular response to a steroid would be expected to include a. an increase in mRNA produced from specific genes. b. an increase in protein production, representing specific gene products. c. both of these. d. neither of these.
d 102, 103
34.
Two chambers containing aqueous solutions are separated by a membrane. Chamber 1 contains 10 mM Na+ while chamber 2 contains 1 mM Na+. The membrane potential (1 relative to 2) in this scenario a. is greater than 0 mV. b. is equal to 0 mV. c. is less than 0 mV. d. cannot be determined based on the information given.
a 104
35.
Potassium efflux from most cells is driven by a. the concentration gradient for potassium. b. the charge gradient across the membrane. c. the concentration gradient for sodium. d. the action of the Na+-K+ pump. e. none of these.
d 91 - 93
36.
Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Hormones are long distance signaling molecules. b. Nanotubes allow the movement of organelles between adjacent cells. c. Cytokines may act as small, long distance signaling molecules. d. Paracrine signaling molecules are one type of chemical communication between organisms. e. Steroids are hydrophobic molecules derived from cholesterol.
b 106, 107
37.
Two chambers are separated by a cation-permeable membrane. The first chamber contains 10 mM NaCl and 1 mM KCl, and the second chamber contains 10 mM KCl and 1 mM NaCl. At equilibrium, the membrane potential (with chamber 1 relative to chamber 2) is a. greater than 0 mV. b. equal to 0 mV. c. less than 0 mV. d. unable to be determined without knowing the temperature.
d 106, 107
38.
For most cells, the membrane potential is closer to the Ek+ (-90 mV) than for ENa+ (+ 60 mV). This is because a. EK+ <<<< ENa+, and systems tend toward lower energy states. b. cells like potassium better than sodium, so they work to maintain potassium closer to its equilibrium distribution. c. cell membranes are equally permeable to Na+ and Cl-, so every time a Na+ comes in, its depolarizing effect is negated by a Cl- ion. d. cell membranes are more permeable to K+ than Na+, so there are a greater number of pathways available for K+ to move towards its equilibrium distribution than are available for Na+ to do the same. e. none of these.
c 93
39.
Signaling molecules are divided into categories based upon their chemical structure. Which of the following is NOT a chemical structure category for signaling molecules? a. retinoids b. gases c. pyrimidines d. amines e. peptides
e 104 107
40.
The equilibrium potential for most neurons is around -70mV. The maintenance of this potential is an example of a. equilibrium. b. homeostasis. c. steady state. d. both equilibrium and homeostasis. e. both homeostasis and steady state.
B
True or false
True 73
1.
Glycoproteins are found only on the outer surface of membranes.
False 75
2.
Net diffusion leads to the establishment of an equilibrium, but not a steady state.
False
3.
The electrochemical gradient is the charge difference that occurs across the plasma
77
membrane.
True 80
4.
A solution that is hypertonic is also hyperosmotic.
True 84, 87
5.
Secondary active transport relies on an ion concentration gradient.
False 91
6.
Histamine is an example of an autocrine signaling molecule.
True 91
7.
Nanotubes are one example of intercellular communication in mammals.
False 91, 92
8.
Neurosecretory neurons are adapted for hormone production and therefore do not conduct.
False 97
9.
The G-protein signaling pathway begins with the binding of the first messenger to adenylyl cyclase.
True 102
10.
The term membrane potential means that the separated ions have the ability to do work.
C.
Matching (correct answers are aligned with each number; e.g., #1 matches with letter a)
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Caveloae Exocytosis AC PLC PDE PKC Calmodulin Nernst equation Hydrostatic pressure Agonist
D.
Essay
Page
No.
86, 87
1.
70 - 73 2.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j.
Potocytosis secretion ATP PIP2 cAMP DAG Ca2+ equilibrium potential cell volume receptor
Assuming that the Na+-K+ pumps are located on the basolateral membrane (the side away from the environment) of salmon gill epithelium, explain how increasing the number of pumps helps the animal adjust to life in the sea. Describe an experiment to demonstrate that lipid composition and structure affect plasma membrane fluidity and stability.
77 - 80 3.
Why is the chemical composition of a cell’s cytoplasm so critical to its survival in the body?
102 – 104
4.
Describe an experiment that would enable you to test whether a specific ion was important in determining the membrane potential for a specific cell.
106, 107
5.
Explain why a large increase in extracellular potassium is more life-threatening than a similar increase in extracellular sodium.
Neuronal Physiology A.
Multiple Choice
Key/ Page
No.
b 111
1.
In the nervous system, the term membrane potential refers to the a. ability of a cell membrane to conduct an electrical impulse b. separation of charges across a biological membrane. c. ability of a membrane to give rise to vesicles. d. ability of a cell membrane to transport Na+ and K+ ions e. ability of the plasma membrane to form T-tubules.
a 111
2.
Resting (membrane) potential is determined primarily by membrane. a. leak channels. b. voltage-gated channels. c. ligand-gated channels. d. stretch-activated channels. e. phosphorylation-dependent channels.
e 112, F 4-8
3.
When compared to normal resting conditions, a neuron will become hyperpolarized a. when there is an increase in transmembrane potential. b. if positive ions such as Ca2+ ions leak into the neuron. c. if there is a decrease in number of intracellular potassium ions. d. if positive ions such as Ca2+ ions leak into the neuron or when there is an increase in transmembrane potential. e. if there is a decrease in number of intracellular potassium ions or when there is an increase in transmembrane potential .
a
4.
In terms of Ohm's law, three factors vary during an action potential. Which of the following factors is NOT constant during voltage-clamp operations? a. current b. membrane potential c. equilibrium potential d. None of these answers the question.
112, 115
in the plasma
b
5.
Which of the following characteristics are associated with graded potentials? a. They exhibit an "all-or-none" character. b. Their magnitude is related to the intensity of the stimulus that elicits them. c. They spread by active conductance. d. They occur only in axons.
6.
Local passive current flow decreases with distance because a. ion pumps which drive current flow run out of energy (ATP) as they drift from the stimulus site. b. current leakage across the membrane attenuates current available for intracellular current flow. c. as it gets away from the active zone, the membrane fluidity decreases and prevents influx of booster current. d. of all of these reasons. e. of none of these reasons.
7.
Increasing axonal diameter increases the length constant for that axon by a. decreasing longitudinal resistance. b. increasing longitudinal resistance. c. decreasing membrane resistance. d. increasing membrane resistance. e. increasing capacitance.
8.
Threshold potential is a. typically between –50 mV and –55 mV. b. typically 10 mV to 15 mV higher than resting potential. c. the membrane potential at which a graded potential is converted to an action potential. d. all of these. e. none of these.
9.
During the initial, depolarizing phase of the action potential, the voltage-gated Na+channel is in which conformation? a. closed but capable of opening b. open, or activated c. closed and not capable of opening d. activation gate open; inactivation gate closed e. activation gate closed; inactivation gate closed
10.
Once threshold potential has been achieved, the permeability of the membrane to Na+ is a. greater than it was at rest. b. greater than its permeability to K+. c. increased due to activation of voltage-gated Na+ channels. d. all of these. e. none of these.
113
b 114
a 129
d 116
b 117 F 4-8
d 120 F 4-8
b 112
11.
Which of the following is responsible for initiating changes in membrane potential resulting in an electrical signal? a. opening of voltage-gated ion channels b. changes in membrane permeability in response to a stimulus c. closing of voltage-gated ion channels d. a change in the movement of ions through leak channels e. closing of voltage-gated potassium channels
c
12.
Which part of a neuron will have the highest density of voltage-gated Na+ channels? a. the dendrites b. the cell body c. the axon hillock d. the axon e. the axon terminal.
13.
During the absolute refractory period for a neuron, most voltage-gated Na+-channels are in which conformation? a. closed but capable of opening b. open, or activated c. closed and not capable of opening d. Any of these. e. None of these.
14.
A scientist genetically engineers a neuron whose voltage-gated Na+ channels lack the inactivation gate but which is otherwise normal. This neuron would be expected to a. conduct action potentials bidirectionally. b. lack an absolute refractory period. c. lack a relative refractory period. d. all of these.
15.
Stimulus intensity, or strength, is encoded in a. the amplitude (height) of the action potential with stronger stimuli eliciting taller action potentials. b. duration of a single action potential with stronger stimuli eliciting overshoots with more area under the curve. c. frequency of action potentials with stronger stimuli eliciting higher frequencies. d. faster conduction velocities with stronger stimuli resulting in more rapid depolarization of contiguous segments of the axonal membrane. e. all of these.
16.
Myelination of axons is accomplished in the nervous system by the nervous system by . a. central, Schwann cells, peripheral, oligodendrocytes b. vertebrate, Schwann cells, invertebrate, oligodendrocytes c. central, oligodendrocytes, peripheral, Schwann cells d. vertebrate, oligodendrocytes, invertebrate, Schwann cells
122
c 125
d 125
c 126
c 126
and in
17.
Which of the following evolutionary adaptations would result in an increase in the speed of conduction of action potentials by decreasing the longitudinal resistance of the axon? a. increasing the number of channels in the plasma membrane b. myelinating the axon c. increasing the diameter of the axon d. placing all voltage-gated ion channels at distant intervals e. None of these.
b
18.
Which of the following evolutionary adaptations would result in an increase in the speed of conduction of action potentials by increasing the membrane resistance of the axon? a. increasing the number of channels in the plasma membrane b. myelinating the axon c. increasing the diameter of the axon d. placing all voltage-gated ion channels at distant intervals e. decreasing the number of channels in the membrane.
e
19.
Neurotransmitters are a. chemical messengers used at chemical synapses. b. found in synaptic vesicles in the synaptic knob. c. released in response to elevated calcium in the axon terminal. d. able to bind to receptors on the post-synaptic cell. e. All of these.
20.
An investigator places an isolated neuron in a calcium-free medium. They give the neuron a suprathreshold stimulus and then perform an assay to test whether neurotransmitter is released into the medium. Which of the following outcomes would you predict? a. No neurotransmitter is detected since influx of calcium into the synaptic knob is required for neurotransmitter release. b. No neurotransmitter is detected since influx of calcium is required in order for the neuron to conduct an action potential. c. Neurotransmitter is detected since calcium is not required for action potential conduction and the initial stimulus was suprathreshold. d. We cannot predict the outcome without knowing whether the neuron was myelinated. e. None of these.
c 129
130
a 132 F 4-16
21.
If an electrical synapse conducted an action potential "backward" (from what would normally be the postsynaptic neuron to the presynaptic neuron), would an action potential be conducted in a retrograde direction (along the axon toward the cell body)? a. Yes. b. No, since the normally presynaptic neuron lacks receptors for the ions carrying current from the normally postsynaptic neuron. c. No, since the normally presynaptic neuron would be refractory to retrograde conduction. d. No, unless the concentration gradients for all the relevant ions were reversed. e. No, since there's no axon hillock at the axon terminal of the normally presynaptic neuron.
e 112, 113
22.
Which of the following pairs are NOT related? a. leak channels and nongated channels b. gated channels and triggering event c. chemically gated channels and ligand gated channels d. mechanically gated channel and stretch activated channels e. graded potentials and leak channels
b 114
23.
Which of the following statements is true? a. The lower the resistance the lower the current flow between two regions of an axon. b. The lower the resistance the greater the current flow between two regions of an axon. c. Capacitance is a measurement of current flow along an axon. d. Neurons that rely on electronic flow of current for communication purposes are noted for their low membrane resistance. e. None of these statements are true.
c
24.
In cells where the equilibrium potential for Cl- equals the resting potential, opening Clchannels in the subsynaptic membrane a. has no effect on the probability of the postsynaptic cell reaching threshold since there's no movement of Cl-. b. increases the probability of the postsynaptic cell reaching threshold since the entry of Na+ into the cell (through another route) will make the cell less negative and allow Cl- to leave the cell, offsetting the effect of Na+. c. decreases the probability of the postsynaptic cell reaching threshold since the entry of Na+ into the cell (through another route) will make the cell less negative and Cl- will enter the cell, offsetting the depolarizing effect of Na+. d. none of these.
a 132
132
c 118
25.
Which of the following statements about the Na+ and K+ gradients in neurons is NOT true? a. In a resting neuron the electrical gradient for sodium is inward. b. In a resting neuron the electrical gradient for potassium is inward. c. In a resting neuron the concentration gradient for sodium is outward. d. In a resting neuron the concentration gradient for potassium is outward. e. In a resting neuron, the electrical and concentration gradients for sodium and potassium result in a membrane potential.
a
26.
The neurotransmitter associated with the neuromuscular junction is a. acetylcholine. b. acetyl CoA. c. acetic acid. d. glutamic acid. e. acetylcholinesterase.
27.
The purpose of acetylcholinesterase is to a. break down acetylcholine at synapses to limit its availability for activating its receptor. b. transfer the acetyl group of acetyl CoA to oxaloacetate in the tricarboxylic acid cycle. c. import acetylcholine into synaptic vesicles in the nerve endings. d. transfer the acetyl group of acetyl CoA to choline to generate acetylcholine.
28.
When a single synaptic input fires repeatedly, generating a cumulative effect on the postsynaptic membrane potential, that phenomenon is known as summation. a. temporary b. temporal c. lateral d. spatial e. grand
29.
If an excitatory synapse is activated at the same time as an inhibitory synapse, the effect on postsynaptic membrane potential will be a. no change. b. a net depolarization since excitation normally triumphs over inhibition. c. a net hyperpolarization since inhibition normally overwhelms excitation. d. impossible to predict since we don't know the relative strength of these synapses.
30.
Action potentials are normally initiated at the axon hillock because a. there is a particularly high density of voltage-gated sodium channels there. b. threshold potential is lower there than at other sites along the plasma membrane. c. activation of sodium channels at the axon hillock results in a particularly strong inward current and consequent depolarization. d. all of these. e. none of these.
134
a 136
b 137
d 137, 138
d 131
d 124
31.
Which of the following statements about graded potentials and action potentials is NOT true? a. The duration of a graded potential is related to the duration of the stimulus. b. Graded potentials can by produced by the net movement of Na+, Cl-, K+ or Ca+ across the plasma membrane. c. Graded potentials can occur as the result of either hyperpolarization of depolarization of the plasma membrane. d. Action potentials show temporal and spatial summation. e. Action potentials are triggered through the passive spread of membrane depolarization.
c
32.
Retrograde signaling occurs when a. receptors on the presynaptic membrane are activated resulting in a depolarization of the presynaptic dendrites. b. acetylcholinesterase levels in a synapse are too high . c. a postsynaptic cell secretes a signaling molecule that influences the sensitivity of the presynaptic terminal. d. enzymes responsible for the breakdown of the neurotransmitter at a synapse are not produced in sufficient quantity. e. none of these.
33.
The drug cocaine exerts its stimulatory effect by a. inhibiting phosphodiesterase activity, allowing an accumulation of cAMP and stimulation of PKA. b. activating purinergic receptors. c. inhibiting dopamine reuptake, resulting in prolonged activation of dopamine receptors by endogenous dopamine. d. none of these.
34.
The venom from black widow spiders causes massive release of neurotransmitters which means its primary effect is on which membrane? a. presynaptic b. postsynaptic c. subsynaptic d. suprasynaptic
35.
If increased atmospheric pressure decreases the activity of the Na +-K+ pump, an animal that lives in the deep sea would be expected to have density of Na+-K+ pumps in their neuronal membranes compared with animals living in shallow water. a. a higher b. an equal c. a lower
141
c 142
a 144
a 145
b 117
36.
Which of the following statements about voltage-gated sodium channels is true? a. All cells contain voltage-gated sodium channels. b. Voltage-gated sodium channels are integral membrane proteins. c. Voltage-gated sodium channels have roughly equal permeability to Na+ and K+. d. Voltage-gated sodium channels open in response to any change in membrane potential. e. Voltage-gated sodium channels open in response to binding of acetylcholine.
e 129
37.
Which of the following statements about giant axons is NOT true? a. They can be found in annelids and cockroaches. b. They can be unicellular. c. They are involved in the coordination of abrupt movements. d. They were first identified and studied in squid. e. They may arise as the result of fusion of smaller fibers.
b 112, 117
38.
Which of the following reasons explains why channels are required in membranes in order for neurons to perform their function? a. Neurons have to function in reception (e.g. sensory); therefore, they must be able to switch channels in order to get the appropriate information. b. The lipid bilayer is impermeable to ions and polar molecules, and ion flow through the membrane is essential for nervous transmission of information. c. Channels permit the flow of water through the membrane, and water is necessary for hydrolysis reactions in the cytoplasm. d. Channels are required in order to keep Ca2+ levels low inside the cytoplasm.
d 143
39.
Tetrodotoxin (TTX) is generally associated with pufferfish, which in fact gain it from symbiotic bacteria residing in them. Interestingly, the pufferfish themselves aren't affected by this neurotoxin. The most plausible explanation for the fish's insensitivity to TTX is a. the fish lack neurons. b. the fish have neurons, but with very short axons that enable them to rely entirely on electrical conduction based on local passive current flow. c. the fish lack voltage-gated sodium channels . d. the fish have voltage-gated sodium channels, but they have a slightly different sequence from voltage-gated sodium channels found in other organisms, and this difference affects TTX's ability to bind the channel.
e 142
40.
Fluoxetine (Prozac) is a serotonin re-uptake inhibitor. Serotonin is generally an excitatory neurotransmitter; therefore, one would expect using fluoxetine to result in in the post-synaptic neuron. a. action potentials of greater amplitude to be conducted b. an increase in the conduction velocity of action potentials c. graded potentials of lesser amplitude d. graded potentials of shorter duration e. graded potentials of longer duration
B.
True and False
True 129
1.
Action potentials are transmitted unperturbed across electrical synapses.
False 132
2.
In myelinated fibers the action potential can be significantly slowed down by synaptic delays of as much as 1-2 msec.
True 133
3.
The binding of a specific neurotransmitter at fast synapses with the appropriate subsynaptic receipts always leads to the same chain in membrane permeability.
False 134
4.
At a neuromuscular synapse receptors of the cholinergic type bind acetylcholine.
True 134
5.
The depolarization of the muscle membrane that occurs at the neuromuscular junction is transmitted in both directions away from the motor end plate.
False 137
6.
If they arrive simultaneously, as few as 30 EPSPs can bring a postsynaptic membrane to threshold.
True 140
6.
Neruomodulators are chemical messengerse that do not cause either EPSPs or IPSPs.
False 142
7.
Tetraethylammonium (TEA) is one compound that is used to block Na+ channels.
True 144
8.
During the so called depolarization block the voltage-gated Na+ channels are in their “closed and not capable” of opening configuration.
False 111
9.
Due to their size, single cell organisms such as the Paramecium can rely on simple diffusion of signals to facilitate their movement.
True 112
10.
Gated channels are an example of flexible proteins.
C.
Matching (correct answers are aligned with each number; e.g., #1 matches with letter a)
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Synaptic vesicle Neurotransmitter receptor Electrical synapse Neuropeptides Action potential Depolarization Hyperpolarization Graded potential Myelination Signal intensity
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j.
Calcium Postsynaptic neuron Gap junction Dense-core vesicles All-or-none Reduced membrane potential Increased membrane potential Decremental Salutatory conduction Action potential frequency
D.
Essay
Page
No.
116 - 120
1.
Explain what would happen to the resting membrane potential and the establishment and conductance of an action potential if a nerve were in an extracellular solution with a lower than normal level of extracellular potassium (hypokalemia).
129-133
2.
Neurons form three types of synapses: electrical, fast chemical and slow chemical. Describe these three synapses and the advantages associated with each.
126, 129
3.
Based on the urgency of the information they convey, would you expect pain fibers to be myelinated or unmyelinated, large in diameter or small in diameter? Justify your answer.
132
4.
Distinguish between excitatory and inhibitory postsynaptic events. Your answer should include a definition of each and an explanation of the ion currents associated with each.
118, 132
5.
In auditory hair cells depolarization of the membrane is achieved using a current carried by potassium ions. How must the potassium equilibrium potential compare to the membrane potential for that to be true? Justify your answer.
Nervous Systems A.
Multiple Choice
Key/ Page
No.
b 148
1.
As a general rule, the nervous system coordinates system regulates . a. nervous activity, endometrial activity b. rapid responses, long lasting activities c. nail-biting, immune responses d. feeding behavior, digestion
while the endocrine
a 148
2.
Which of the following is NOT an advantage conferred by centralization of the nervous system? a. The delay between sensory stimulus input and motor response allows an individual to weigh the merits of its options. b. The output neuron can receive inputs from multiple sources, including "higher" centers like the brain. c. The "higher" centers can suppress reflex responses. d. The "higher" centers can alter sensitivity of the motor neuron to its other inputs. e. The "higher" centers can activate motor neurons in an anticipatory fashion.
e 150
3.
Nerve nets a. are the simplest type of nervous system. b. are simple. c. are found in cnidarians. d. are not primitive. e. All of these.
e 152
4.
Ganglia are a. clusters of neuronal cell bodies. b. precursors to evolution of a brain. c. are an evolutionary step between nerve nets and true brains. d. evolved as animal behaviors became more complex. e. all of these.
b 154
5.
The evolution of a true brain (superganglion) occurred in a. animals with radial symmetry. b. animals with bilateral symmetry c. cnidarians. d. echinoderms. e. all animals having symmetry.
b 154
6.
Among the invertebrates, a. insects b. cephalopods c. annelids d. primates e. echinoderms
a 155
7.
Which of the following statements about brain size is true? a. Elephants have a larger number of neurons in their brain than humans do. b. Octopods have a larger number of neurons in their brains than humans do. c. The neurons in human brains are larger than the neurons in other primates' brains. d. The brains of leaf-eating primates are larger than the brains of fruit-eating primates. e. The ratio of brain size to body size is larger in baleen whales than in dolphins.
e 156
8.
The expensive tissue hypothesis includes the argument that a. evolution occurs in the face of cost-benefits trade-offs. b. maintaining the membrane potential consumes much energy. c. there is a corresponding decrease in the size of the digestive tract that parallels the increase in brain size. d. large brain sizes require high quality diets to support them, and high quality diets yield nutrients easily and adequately to smaller digestive tracts. e. all of these.
d 155
9.
Which of the following is NOT considered to be a trend in brain development? a. Many birds and mammals have a similar brain to body size as sharks. b. Nonmigratory birds tend to have larger brains than migratory birds. c. Within primates, dolphins have the second largest brain size. d. none of these. e. all of these
have the most complex brains.
d 158
10.
Efferent neurons a. have their cell bodies outside the central nervous system. b. carry information from the periphery to the central nervous system. c. exist entirely within the central nervous system. d. carry information from the central nervous system to the periphery. e. exist entirely outside the central nervous system.
a 159
11.
The sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system a. generally exert opposite effects on visceral organs. b. are sensory and motor, respectively. c. are central and peripheral, respectively. d. are autonomic and automatic, respectively. e. are generally excitatory and inhibitory, respectively.
c 161
12.
The main advantage of antagonistic control of visceral organs by the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems is it a. saves energy. b. economizes on volume requirements since organs can constrict when they're not being used. c. allows precise regulation of the activity of the organs so innervated. d. all of these. e. none of these.
c 162
13.
Post-ganglionic parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers release a. acetylcholine. b. norepinephrine. c. acetylcholine and norepinephrine, respectively. d. norepinephrine and acetylcholine, respectively. e. norepinephrine and noreadrenaline, respectively.
a 164
14.
Found on the cell bodies of neurons in both parasympathetic and sympathetic ganglia, are examples of . a. nicotinic receptors; ligand-gated ion channels b. nicotinic receptors; G-protein coupled receptors c. muscarinic receptors; ligand-gated ion channels d. muscarinic receptors; G-protein coupled receptors e. adrenergic receptors; G-protein coupled receptors
c 165
15.
Brain centers for controlling cardiovascular, respiratory and digestive activity via the autonomic system are located in the a. cerebrum. b. hypothalamus. c. medulla. d. sympathetic chain ganglia. e. spinal cord.
c 167
16.
Which of the following is NOT a type of glial cell found in the central nervous system? a. oligodendrocytes b. astrocytes c. Schwann cells d. ependymal cells e. microglia
d 169
17.
Which of the following types of glial cells is most closely associated with the production of cerebrospinal fluid? a. oligodendrocytes b. astrocytes c. Schwann cells d. ependymal cells e. microglia
b 169
18.
The layer of the meninges which lies closest to the bony cranium is the a. arachnoid mater. b. dura mater. c. pia mater.
e 169, 170
19.
The blood-brain barrier a. consists of both anatomical and physiological factors. b. regulates to some extent the passage of substances from the blood to the interstitial fluid of the brain. c. is anatomically related to the formation of tight junctions between adjacent capillary endothelial cells. d. is induced by the astrocytes. e. all of these.
a 171
20.
Changes in the interconnections among neurons that occur in response to experience are examples of a. synaptic plasticity. b. the amazing regenerating capacity of the brain. c. mutation. d. growth. e. none of these.
a 174
21.
In evolutionary terms, the most ancient part of the brain is the a. brain stem. b. cerebellum. c. diencephalons. d. cerebrum. e. basal nuclei.
a 177
22.
The term gray matter refers to a. the part of the cerebral cortex which contains neuronal cell bodies and glia. b. the nerve connection between the two hemispheres of the brain. c. part of the brain affected by Alzheimer's disease and showing signs of senescence. d. fiber tracts carrying information between the spinal cord and the brain. e. none of these.
b 192
23
The somatosensory cortex is located in the a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital
lobe of the cerebrum.
a 192
24.
The primary motor cortex is located in the a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital
lobe of the cerebrum.
e 194
25.
Which of the following areas of the brain are involved in developing motor programs? a. supplementary motor cortex b. premotor cortex c. posterior parietal cortex d. cerebellum e. All of these.
d 186,
26.
Functions of the basal ganglia include a. inhibiting muscle tone throughout the body. b. selecting and maintaining purposeful motor activity while suppressing useless or unwanted patterns of movement. c. helping monitor and coordinate slow, sustained contractions. d. all of these. e. none of these.
b 177, 187
27.
Which brain area and function are NOT correctly paired? a. cerebellum: skilled voluntary activity b. brain stem: sense of fear c. thalamic region: crude awareness of sensation d. cerebral cortex: personality traits e. amygdala: emotional memories
b 188
28.
The limbic system of the brain is involved in a. the control of movements involving the extremities, such as arm gestures. b. the control of innate behaviors. c. the response to hunger. d. the response to fatigue. e. none of these.
c 189
29.
Which of the following is NOT a neurotransmitter that has been primarily associated with emotional and behavioral pathways? a. norepinephrine b. dopamine c. acetylcholine d. serotonin e. none of these.
d 184
30.
Which of the following is NOT a part of the cerebellum? a. cerebrocerebellum b. spinocerebellum c. vestibulocerebellum d. thalamocerebellum e. none of these.
e 183, 184
31.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the brain stem? a. reflex control of the heart b. control of cortical alertness c. modulating one's sense of pain d. regulating postural reflexes. e. none of these.
b 158
32.
Which statement about nervous systems is NOT true? a. The arthropod nervous system has ganglia that lie within the central nervous system. b. Arthropods have a solid and dorsal nerve cord c. The nerve cord of vertebrates has a segmental branching pattern. d. In vertebrates, interneurons are only found in the central nervous systems.. e. In vertebrates only two neurotransmitters control the effector organ responses regulated by efferent neuronal terminals.
a 177
33.
Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. The ventral corticospinal tract of the spinal cord carries ascending information to the brain from the stretch receptors in muscles. b. A bundle of peripheral axons, a nerve, may contain both afferent and efferent axons. c. A spinal nerve is a collection of peripheral axons collected within a connective tissue sheath and continuous with either the dorsal or ventral root of a spinal segment. d. The ventral horn of the spinal cord gray matter houses cell bodies of efferent motor neurons supplying the skeletal muscles.
e 181
34.
The spinal withdrawal reflex a. is associated with responding to a painful stimulus. b. involves sensory and motor neurons on the same side of the spinal cord. c. connects with interneurons traveling to the brain. d. involves blocking a response by the antagonistic muscle group. e. all of these.
d 182
35.
The stretch reflex differs from the withdrawal reflex in that a. activation of the afferent results only in excitatory reflex responses in the former case, but in both excitatory and inhibitory responses in the latter case. b. the former is monosynaptic and the latter is polysynaptic. c. the motor neurons associated with the former directly stimulate muscle stretching while those associated with the latter cause muscle contraction. d. two of these. e. all of these.
b 182
36.
Which statement about fixed action patterns is NOT true? a. They occur in both vertebrates and invertebrates. b. They are not considered to be reflexes. c. They use command fibers located in the central nervous system. d. They are generated in response to a specific stimulus. e. A species of animals will carry out the behavior in the same manner.
a 197
37.
The ability to type questions without looking at the keyboard is a manifestation of memory. a. procedural b. explicit c. short term d. imprinting-type e. random access
d 200
38.
Individuals who have had a night of heavy drinking often have trouble remembering exactly what happened. This lapse in memory is the primary result of ethanol a. initiating inhibitory cAMP pathways involved in memory storage. b. slowing the transfer of short term memory events into long term memory storage. c. slowing the release of calcium in presynaptic neurons. d. blocking binding to NMDA receptors. e. blocking LTP pathways.
d 196
39.
The part of the brain most closely associated with declarative memories is the a. hypothalamus. b. hypophysis. c. amygdala. d. hippocampus. e. cerebellum.
e 197
40.
The part of the brain most closely associated with procedural memories is the a. hypothalamus. b. hypophysis. c. amygdala. d. hippocampus. e. cerebellum.
B.
True or False
True 150
1.
A centralized brain can be detrimental to some kinds of neural regulation.
False 157
2.
A division of the central nervous system, the enteric nervous system, innervates the kidneys and intestinal tract.
False 161
3.
The adrenal medulla is one example of where sympathetic and parasympathetic innvervation of an endocrine gland affects hormone release.
True 164
4.
All adrenergic receptors are coupled to G proteins.
True 165
5.
Norepinephrine is release both as a neurotransmitter from the sympathetic postganglionic fibers and as a hormone from the adrenal medulla.
False 167
6.
Glial cells make up over 80% of the human brain in both number of total cells and volume occupied by the nervous system.
True 171
7.
Neurogenesis is an example of plasticity in the human central nervous system.
False 192
8.
The somatosensory cortex is located in the posterior region of the frontal lobe in a region called the precentral gyrus.
False 195
9.
Episodic memories are memories related to facts.
True 148
10.
Outside of vertebrates, the octopus has the largest brain to body ratio.
C.
Matching (correct answers are aligned with each number; e.g., #1 matches with letter a)
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Short-term memory Habituation Long-term potentiation Astrocytes Adrenal medulla Nitrous oxide Sympathetic nervous system Complex memories Cnidarians’ nervous system Parasympathetic nervous system
D.
Essay
Page
No.
162
1.
Sympathetic stimulation of the muscular walls of arterioles and veins causes vasoconstriction. Considering that the circulatory system in vertebrates is a closed system (i.e. normally all blood is contained in blood vessels), explain why animals can get by with having arterioles and veins innervated by the sympathetic nervous system without antagonistic innervation by the parasympathetic nervous system.
155
2.
Compare and contrast brain size and body size in three different pairs of animals. Include an explanation as to why you think each pair evolved different brain to body ratios.
194
3.
Based on your apprehension of what they do, would you expect physiologists to be more right-brained or left-brained, or would you expect them to be ambihemispheric? Justify your answer.
197-99 4.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j.
Sensitization Calcium channel inactivation Days Synaptic formation Modified ganglion Retrograde signal Fight-or-flight Neuronal networks Nerve nets Rest-and-digest
Compare and contrast the mechanisms of habituation and sensitization. Include a statement on the major difference in meaning between the two.
188
5.
Assume it is possible to selectively knock out the vertebrate limbic system. Describe two differences you would notice in the pre-knockout and post-knockout conditions of the animal.
Sensory Physiology A.
Multiple Choice
Key/ Page
No.
b 208
1.
The process of transduction associated with membrane receptors is inextricably linked to a. a stimulus interacting with peripheral membrane proteins. b. ion channels present in the membrane. c. the establishment of a transmembrane potential. d. ions moving up their concentration gradient. e. none of these.
a 208
2.
It is believed that the group of channels responsible for sensing osmotic stress evolved first. This group of channels are a. mechanically gated. b. ion gated. c. voltage-gated. d. ligand-gated. e. receptor-activated.
d 208, 211
3.
A receptor cell a. is involved in converting stimulus energy into action potentials. b. is specialized to respond to a particular sensory modality. c. can often be found in a sense organ grouped with other cells responsive to the same adequate stimulus. d. all of these. e. none of these.
b 214
4.
Which receptor for vibrations and pressure is found in birds? a. Pacinian corpuscle b. Herbst corpuscle c. Avian corpuscle d. tactile disc e. none of these.
b 208, 209
5.
One can categorize sensory receptors according to sensory modality. Which of the following is NOT a type of receptor? a. photoreceptor b. intelreceptor c. mechanoreceptor d. chemoreceptor e. thermoreceptor
e 213
6.
Stimulus intensity is typically encoded in a. action potential amplitude. b. frequency of action potentials. c. number of receptors activated. d. Both action potential and amplitude and frequency. e. Both action potential frequency and number of receptors stimulated.
a 213
7.
Sensory adaptation refers to a. the ability of receptors to become less responsive to a stimulus of a given intensity. b. a phenomenon through which a receptor specialized for one sensory modality evolves to respond to another sensory modality. c. the ability of receptors to become more sensitive to a stimulus as a consequence of repeated exposure. d. none of these.
e 213
8.
A tonic receptor a. quickly adapts to a stimulus. b. has an off response. c. ignores continuous information. d. all of these. e. none of these.
d 239
9.
Which of the following statements about light detection is TRUE? a. Light detection is synonymous with vision. b. Light detection is always initiated in a rod or cone photoreceptor, though these need not be located in an eye. c. Even in its most primitive form, light detection evolved in structures dedicated to this purpose. d. Light detection evolved numerous times in a variety of structures. e. None of these.
d 239
10.
Which of the following statements about eyespots is NOT true? a. Eyespots contain photoreceptor cells. b. Eyespots are found in planarians and cnidarians. c. Eyespots contain pigments that assure only light coming from a particular direction is absorbed. d. Eyespots form an image perceived by the animal's ganglion. e. Eyespots have a large visual field to which they respond.
a 240
11.
The tough, outer layer of connective tissue that covers most of the eyeball is the a. sclera. b. eyelid. c. eye socket. d. choroid. e. cornea.
c 239
12.
Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. The Amoeba is capable of responding to light. b. The surface of rhabdomeric photoreceptors consists of parallel microvilli. c. Due to the size of their visual field, pinhole eyes do not form images. d. Recognition of predator-prey movement requires a visual system that permits the formation of an image. e. Butterflies sense light with their genitalia.
b 242
13.
Pupillary constriction results from contraction of the consequence of stimulation. a. circular; sympathetic b. circular ; parasympathetic c. radial; sympathetic d. radial; parasympathetic e. suspensory; somatic motor
d 243
14.
Which of the following strategies do animals use to help protect the retina from damage due to ultraviolet radiation? a. pigmented cornea b. pigmented lens c. pigmented oil droplets in the photoreceptor inner segments d. all of these. e. none of these.
c 244
15.
In mammals, contraction of the ciliary muscle of the eye leads to a. decreased pupil size. b. increased pupil size. c. increased curvature of the lens. d. decreased curvature of the lens. e. squinting.
e 244
16.
Accommodation a. is the processes focusing the visual image on the retina. b. occurs in fish by moving the lens either forward or backward. c. can be accomplished by changing the fluid volume in the optic chamber . d. only two of these. e. all three of these.
muscle of the iris as a
c 245, 246
17.
Which of the following does NOT form one of the neural layers of the retina? a. rod and cone photoreceptors b. bipolar cells c. retinal pigment epithelium d. ganglion cells e. All of these are components of the neural retina.
b 245
18.
The is the region of the retina where the optic nerve exits and the blood vessels enter the eye. a. fovea b. optic disc c. macula lutea d. corpus luteum e. pupil
a 247
19.
The part of a visual photoreceptor in which the detection of light (signal transduction) is initiated is the a. outer segment. b. inner segment. c. synaptic terminal. d. nucleus. e. Golgi stacks.
a 248
20.
The cyclic nucleotide whose modulation is most closely associated with phototransduction in vertebrates is a. cGMP. b. cCMP. c. cAMP. d. cTMP. e. 5'-GMP.
e 248
21.
Transducin a. activates adenylyl cyclase resulting in the formation of cAMP. b. activated calcium-activated channels leading to depolarization of the receptor cell. c. activates the messenger pathway leading to an increase in cGMP. d. is found in the inner segment of photoreceptor cells. e. is a G-protein.
a 248
22.
In terms of vision, the first order cells are the , while the second and third order cells, respectively. a. photoreceptors; bipolar cells; ganglion cells b. photoreceptors; ganglion cells; bipolar cells c. bipolar cells; ganglion cells; photoreceptors d. bipolar cells; photoreceptors; ganglion cells e. ganglion cells; bipolar cells; photoreceptors
and
are the
b 250
23.
Which of the following features account(s) for the greater acuity that occurs in cones, relative to the rods? a. Different cone opsins have different absorbance maxima for wavelengths of light. b. There is little convergence in the cone system. c. Cones are less sensitive (require a stronger stimulus) than rods. d. All of these contribute to acuity. e. None of these influence acuity.
a 250
24.
The term light adaptation refers to a. the changes that occur in the visual pigment system when going from a dark into a light environment. b. the evolutionary changes that enable a species to maintain a diurnal life style. c. the changes that occur in visual pigment system when going from a light into a dark environment. d. none of these.
e 250, 251
25.
Which of the following pairs are NOT related in any way? a. night blindness and retinene b. dark adaptation and sunlight c. long (L) cones and the color yellow d. primates and trichromatic vision e. cones and high visual sensitivity
a 253
26.
On-center ganglion cells receptive field is stimulated by light. a. increase b. decrease c. do not change
a 253
27.
Information from the medial retina of each eye crosses to the opposite side to join its corresponding lateral visual field at the level of the a. optic chiasma. b. optic nerve. c. optic tract. d. corpus callosum. e. geniculate nucleus.
b 253
28.
The term optic radiations refers to a. visual tracts that cross between the cerebral hemispheres. b. fiber tracts carrying information in the visual pathways from the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus to different zones in the cortex. c. the evolution of diverse specialized organs for vision. d. the radial muscles in the iris that enable dilation of the pupil. e. the visual field associated with off-center ganglion cells.
their spike frequency when the center of their
b 247
29.
In which portion of the photoreceptor is the light detecting pigment found? a. inner segment b. outer segment c. middle segment d. synaptic segment e. transducing segment
d 258
30.
Phototransduction in invertebrates differs from that in vertebrates in that in invertebrates a. no G-proteins are involved. b. no cation channels are involved. c. no opsins are involved. d. photoreceptors depolarize in response to stimulation. e. first-order cells hyperpolarize in response to stimulation.
b 218
31.
Statocysts are sensory organs used to perceive a. consciousness, or state of being. b. an organism's orientation in space. c. surface hardness. d. none of the above.
e 235
32.
Which of the following pairs is NOT related? a. Sour taste and blocking of K+ channels b. Salty taste and ENaC channels c. Umami taste and amino acids d. Sweet taste and IP3 induced release of calcium e. none of these.
c 222
33.
The otolith organs are a. the ampulla and the ventricle. b. the uvula and the spicule. c. the utricle and the saccule. d. cupula and ampulla.
a 221, 222
34.
In the mammalian vestibular apparatus, the are used to detect while the are used to detect . a. semicircular canals; angular acceleration; otolith organs; linear acceleration b. semicircular canals; linear acceleration; otolith organs; angular acceleration c. hair cells; linear acceleration; scale cells; angular acceleration d. hair cells; angular acceleration; scale cells; linear acceleration
d 226, 239
35.
The pitch of a sound is determined by the most similar to the of light. a. amplitude; brightness b. amplitude; wavelength c. frequency; brightness d. frequency; wavelength
of vibrations, and in that respect is
d 233, 234
36.
Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. Taste and smell senses are highly variable in sensitivities among species. b. The intraspecies roles of olfaction are largely mediated by pheromones. c. Sensilla are specialized projections from the cuticle of insects and are involved in chemical sensing d. In humans, the cortical gustatory area is located in the temporal lobe. e. The modality for mammalian taste receptors is called a tastant.
e 228
37.
In the normal hearing pathway, sound waves have to pass from air to liquid as sound is transmitted from the external ear to the inner ear. This occurs as a result of a. the increase in pressure on the oval window relative to the pressure on the tympanic membrane. b. the increase in force applied to the oval window which is accomplished by the lever action of the inner ear ossicles. c. the difference in surface areas of the tympanic membrane and the membrane of the oval window . d. two of these. e. all of these.
b 229
38.
The cochlea of each ear contains about 16,000 hair cells. Even though they are in the minority, it is the hair cells that are principally responsible for transducing sound waves into what we perceive as sound sensations. a. outer b. inner c. utricular d. saccular e. ampullar
c 230, 231
39.
Due in part to the physical properties of the basilar membrane, the cochlea is tuned so that a. high amplitude sounds are perceived optimally at the base of the narrow end of the cochlea (toward the oval window). b. low amplitude sounds are perceived optimally at the base of the narrow end of the cochlea (toward the oval window). c. high frequency sounds are perceived optimally at the base of the narrow end of the cochlea (toward the oval window). d. low frequency sounds are perceived optimally at the base of the narrow end of the cochlea (toward the oval window).
c 232
40.
The pitch of a sound is perceived in part due to frequency matching in the action potentials of the , and in part due to spatial (tonotopic) mapping of the a. hair cells; basilar membrane b. hair cells; vestibular membrane c. auditory neurons; basilar membrane d. auditory neurons; vestibular membrane e. auditory neurons; tympanic membrane
.
B.
True and false
False 208
1.
Ion currents can be found in all vertebrates (eukaryotes) but not in prokaryotes.
True 208, 217
2.
The detection of physical forces in the environment is most likely the most ancient of the senses.
True 221
3.
Evolutionary adaptations related to movement have had a significant impact on the size of the semicircular canals.
True 228
4.
Animal communication in oceans occurs best at low frequencies because salts in seawater absorb high-frequency sounds.
False 251
5.
Most deep-sea dwelling organisms have evolved L (red) cones as a way to compensate for the diminished penetration of blue wavelength light into the deep sea.
True 252
6.
Polarized light is used by some butterflies to find a mate.
False 258
7.
Light induced phototransduction in both compound eyes and vertebrate eyes involves depolarization of the photoreceptors cells, rods and cones.
True 259
8.
Mammals have a cold-gated channel that is structurally similar to the heat-gated channel used by pit vipers to locate their prey.
False 261
9.
Passive electroreception uses an electric organ located in the tail of certain fish.
False 256
10.
The vertebrate eye has a blind spot because it is formed through a series of invaginations of the epidermis.
B.
Matching (correct answers are aligned with each number; e.g., #1 matches with letter a)
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Generator potential Mechanoreceptor Chemoreceptor Thermally gated channels Electroreceptors Magnetoreceptor Tonic Sensory cell Acuity Ommatidia
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j.
Afferent neuron Touch Taste Paramecium Electric fields Magnetic fields Slowly adapting Adequate stimulus Receptor density Compound eye
C.
Essay
Page
No.
256
1.
Compare and contrast the development of the retina in cephalopods and humans.
251,252 2.
Considering how animals adapt through evolution to live in their environment, explain why whales lack blue cones. Would you expect this to reflect the condition of its common ancestor with terrestrial mammals, or would you consider this a derived trait?
215,216 3.
Describe and discuss how lateral inhibition would be involved in the localization of pain to an ingrown toenail on lateral side of your left big toe.
235
4.
Develop an argument that supports the following statement. Salt receptors provided an adaptive advantage to early humans?
260
5.
Experiencing pain through the fast pain pathway has the obvious benefit of eliciting a withdrawal reflex to prevent further damage from the painful stimulus. What benefit do you think might be derived from experiencing persistent dull pain through the slow pain pathway?
Endocrine Systems A.
Multiple Choice
Key/ Page
No.
c 272
1.
A tropic hormone is one whose function is to a. stimulate the central nervous system. b. trigger cellular development. c. stimulate endocrine tissue to secrete hormones. d. stimulate growth and development.
e 273
2.
Which of the following statements about the endocrine system is true? a. Each endocrine gland secretes a single type of hormone. b. Each endocrine hormone is secreted by a single endocrine tissue. c. Each endocrine hormone acts on a single target tissue. d. Each endocrine hormone activates a single type of receptor. e. Many endocrine tissues have other non-endocrine functions.
e 271
3.
Steroid hormones a. are lipophilic. b. may be converted into other hormones. c. are derived from cholesterol. d. are synthesized in steroidogenic cells and organs. e. all of these.
b 271
4.
Steroid hormones differ from peptide hormones in that a. the site of synthesis of steroids is distinct from their site of release. b. the former are not stored, but instead are released upon synthesis. c. the former are synthesized ubiquitously. d. they don't have a specific receptor protein with which they interact. e. none of these.
e 275
5.
Endocrine disrupting compounds a. may often mimic the effects of estrogen. b. are human made substances c. can be passed from one generation to the next. d. only two of these. e. all of these..
e 324
6.
Intracellular calcium levels have an effect on a. cell motility. b. cilia action. c. secretion by exocytosis. d. muscle contraction. e. all of these.
a 277
7.
Down-regulation a. refers to the expression of fewer receptors at the cell surface as part of a negative-feedback mechanism. b. refers to the decrease in cortisol secretion that occurs as an animal's metabolism slows down to its basal level. c. occurs in response to too little hormone reaching the target cells. d. is an idiopathic response to endocrine disrupters. e. occurs in response to the excretion of excess hormone by the kidneys.
a 278
8.
In the context of endocrine regulation, permissiveness refers to a. one hormone enhancing the responsiveness of a target cell to another hormone. b. the combined action of several hormones acting complementary to one another. c. the expression of receptors by a cell allowing it to respond to a hormone. d. the increase in receptor number that occurs on the surface of a target cell during hyposecretionof a hormone . e. none of these.
e 324
9.
Which of the following is NOT true? a. Calcium can be stored in the body and sodium cannot. b. Parathyroid hormone is the primary hormone responsible for maintaining calcium homeostasis. c. Calcitonin is not essential for routine maintenance of calcium concentration in mammals. d. Calcium is required for normal blood clotting. e. All of these are true statements.
a 282
10.
The pineal gland secretes the hormone a. melatonin. b. melanin. c. melanocyte stimulating hormone. d. estradiol. e. melanopsin.
e 285
11.
Which of the following is NOT a normal function of melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH)? a. camouflage b. immune suppression c. pelage of feathers d. appetite control e. All of these are normal functions.
c 286
12.
Vasopressin, or antidiuretic hormone, is secreted from the posterior pituitary in response to input from hypothalamic osmoreceptors which were activated by a. increased levels of osmium in the blood. b. softening of the cervical os (the outlet of the uterus). c. increased plasma osmolarity. d. increased blood volume. e. increased blood pressure.
b 286
13.
In lower vertebrates, arginine vasotocin (AVT) is involved in regulating several different processes. Which of the following AVT-stimulated events does NOT involve smooth muscle contraction? a. vasoconstriction b. ejection of milk from mammary glands. c. oviposition d. birth in viviparous snakes. e. All of these involve smooth muscle contraction.
a 288
14.
The anterior pituitary hormone produce milk. a. prolactin b. oxytocin c. luteinizing hormone d. growth hormone e. none of these.
d 289
15.
Which of the following have capillaries which are part of a portal system? a. liver b. pituitary c. hypothalamus d. liver, pituitary, and hypothalamus e. pituitary and hypothalamus
stimulates the mammary glands to
d 290
16.
Cortisol is secreted by the adrenal cortex in response to stress. In addition to its function in a stress response, it functions in negative feedback by a. inhibiting the hypothalamus so that corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) secretion is reduced. b. reduces the secretion of ACTH by the anterior pituitary. c. suppressing its own secretion by its actions on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary. d. all of these. d. none of these.
b 292
17.
Metabolic effects of growth hormone include a. stimulating cell division. b. elevating blood glucose levels. c. elevating glycogen breakdown by muscles. d. promoting glucose uptake by muscles. e. all of these except promoting glucose uptake by muscles.
d 292
18.
IGF-I and IGF-II are examples of a. somatomedins. b. peptide hormones. c. endocrine hormones. d. all of these. e. none of these.
a 327
19.
Absorption of calcium and phosphate by the intestine is regulated by a. parathyroid hormone. b. thyroid hormone. c. calcitonin. d. phosphate concentration in the blood. e. Vitamin C levels in the blood.
d 299
20.
Unlike steroid hormones, thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) can be stored after synthesis. This is due to the fact that a. thyroid hormones are not membrane-permeant molecules. b. thyroid hormones are protein hormones, and are stored in vesicles until an elevation in intracellular calcium stimulates their release. c. thyroid hormones are sequestered in colloid, surrounded by a wall of follicular cells, and that presents too much of a barrier for the hormones to pass through. d. thyroid hormones remain attached to a larger protein molecule until the thyroid is stimulated to secrete them, at which point they are cleaved from the protein and diffuse from the cell into the circulation. e. None of the above is correct.
c 270
21.
Which of the following has NO relationship? a. peptide hormones and secretory granules b. steroids and lipid droplets c. Catecholamines and adrenal cortex d. peptide hormones and rough endoplasmic reticulum e. thyroid hormones and lipophilic molecules
e 301
22.
Which of the following are effects of thyroid hormone? a. increased basal metabolic rate b. increased conversion of glycogen to glucose c. increased conversion of glucose to glycogen d. increased expression of catecholamine target-cell receptors e. all of these.
b 303
23.
Regulation of thyroid hormone synthesis is primarily under the control of a. thyroid hormone. b. thyroid stimulating hormone. c. thyroid releasing hormone. d. thyrotropin stimulating hormone. e. thyrotropin releasing hormone.
d 304
24.
Hypothyroidism can result from a. a deficiency in thyrotropin releasing hormone. b. a deficiency in thyroid stimulating hormone. c. insufficient amounts of iodine in the diet. d. all of these.
e 304
25.
Symptoms of hyperthryoidism include a. inability to tolerate heat. b. excessive perspiration. c. anxiety. d. weakness. e. all of these.
a 304
26.
Mineralocorticoids such as aldosterone are produced primarily in the adrenal gland. a. zona glomerulosa b. zona fasciculata c. zona reticularis d. adrenal medulla e. chromaffin cells
of the
e 276
27.
Endocrine rhythm, the rise and fall in hormone level, a. is a response to external clues. b. occurs in diurnal animals. c. is influence by endogenous oscillators. d. two of these. e. all of these.
b 306
28.
The main role of glucocorticoids is to a. enhance sodium reuptake from the urine. b. elevate glucose levels in the blood. c. enhance the elimination of sugars in the urine. d. enhance the reuptake of sugar from tubular fluids in the kidney. e. none of these.
c 306
29.
Prolonged elevation of glucocorticoids due to stress is associated with , which illustrates the folly of cramming for exams, especially during all-nighters! a. increased growth of facial hair b. increased water retention. c. memory loss d. fatigue e. none of these.
d 307
30.
In female mammals, the androgen produced by the adrenal cortex that is of physiological significance in females is a. testosterone (TST). b. dihydroxytestosterone (DHT). c. estrogen (EST). d. dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA). e. thalidomide.
a 308
31.
The adrenal medulla consists of modified, post-ganglionic sympathetic neurons called chromaffin cells which store norepinephrine and epinephrine in chromaffin granules. In this situation, when these chemical transmitters are released they act as a. neurohormones. b. neurotransmitters. c. stress inducers. d. glucocorticoids. e. mineralocorticoids.
a 309, 310
32.
Epinephrine and norepinephrine a. have a generalized vasoconstrictor effect. b. promote vasodilation of blood vessels supply muscles. c. promote mobilization of stored carbohydrates. d. dilate respiratory airways. e. none of these.
c 310
33.
In many respects, cortisol and epinephrine duplicate each other's effects in the stress response. However, cortisol and NOT epinephrine a. causes an elevation in glucose in the blood. b. causes an increase in fatty acids in the blood. c. causes an increase in amino acids in the blood. d. causes a decrease in glucose in the blood. e. causes a mobilization of carbohydrates.
a 279
34.
Y-organs in the head of decapods a. produce crustecydsone b. produce chromatophorotropins for changing cuticle color. c. hyperglycemic hormone to regulate glucose levels. d. all of these. e. none of these.
D 314
35.
A 316
36.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver as regards glucose homeostasis? a. secreting ketone bodies in response to excess plasma glucose levels b. storing glycogen when excess glucose is available c. releasing glucose when plasma glucose levels drop d. converting organic chemicals like amino acids into glucose via gluconeogenesis e. All of these are functions of the liver relating to glucose homeostasis.
D 315
37.
Glucose sparing refers to a phenomenon occurring during the a. absorptive phase of metabolism in which recently ingested glucose is saved in the form of glycogen for future use. b. postabsorptive phase of metabolism in which glucose ingested earlier is saved in the form of glycogen for use during prolonged fasting. c. postabsorptive phase of metabolism in which numerous body tissues release glucose for immediate use by the brain. d. postabsorptive phase of metabolism in which numerous body tissues switch to metabolizing alternative, non-glucose energy sources, so that glucose remains available for the brain.
a. b. c. d. e.
are one of a few cell types that store glucose in the form of glycogen. Glial cells Liver cells Muscle cells All of these. None of these.
B 317
38.
Somatostatin functions in glucose homeostasis by a. promoting reduced growth of the body, decreasing the need of individual cells for glucose, and thereby promoting glucose sparing. b. inhibiting digestion and absorption of nutrients, preventing hyperglycemia. c. inhibiting secretion of prolactin, reducing production of lactose for milk, and preventing hypoglycemia. d. doing all of these. e. doing none of these.
C 318
39.
In most cells, insulin stimulates uptake of glucose by a. penetrating the cellular membranes itself, and thereby providing a pathway for glucose to enter the cells. b. activating insulin receptors, which are themselves glucose transporters. c. stimulating the recruitment of glucose transporters to the membrane, which in turn facilitate the import of glucose. d. activating the transcription and translation of glucose transporter-genes, increasing their expression. e. altering the ratio of intracellular sodium concentrations to extracellular sodium concentrations in a way that favors co-transport of glucose and sodium.
c 320
40.
Glucagon secretion occurs in response to a. parasympathetic stimulation. b. sympathetic stimulation. c. low levels of plasma glucose. d. low levels of plasma amino acids. e. all of these.
B.
True and Flase
True 318
1.
Insulin is the only hormone capable of lowering blood glucose levels.
False 327
2.
Calcitonin is produced by the C cells of the parathyroid gland.
True 332
3.
If the demand for calcium needed to produce egg shells regularly exceeds the level of calcium intake, egg-laying birds may replace all of their medullary bone to meet that demand.
True 269
4.
Steroids are neutral lipids.
False 275
5
Steroid hormones differ from peptide hormones in that all steroid hormones are known to bind nuclear receptors.
True 279
6.
Annetocin is an annelid hormone that is similar to vertebrate oxytocin.
False 283
7.
The pineal gland connects to the hyothalamus via a portal system.
True 283
8.
All eukaryotes have clock genes which interact in a cyclic fashion that lasts about 24 hours.
False 284
9.
Melanopsin is a gene involved in skin pigmentation.
True 288
10.
Lactotrophs secrete prolactin.
C.
Matching (correct answers are aligned with each number; e.g., #1 matches with letter a)
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Pineal gland Hypothalamus Anterior pituitary Posterior pituitary Parathyroid Thyroid Adrenal cortex Adrenal medulla Pancreatic α-cells Pancreatic β-cells
D.
Essay
Page
No.
314
1.
A healthy person has about two month's worth of energy stored in fat. Oxidation of fats yields about 9 kcal/gram. Assuming a healthy adult requires 1500 kcal/day to function, how many grams of fat does a typical, healthy adult have? How much glycogen would a person have to store to have a comparable energy supply, assuming a caloric yield of 4 kcal/gram?
*
2.
In systems geared toward maintaining homeostasis, there is generally some parameter that is monitored by a sensor which responds to deviations from a set point by stimulating a response from an effector system that in turn causes an adjustment to the parameter. Give an example from the endocrine system of homeostatic control. Be sure to identify the sensor(s), parameter(s) and effector(s) and how they interact to maintain homeostasis. If negative feedback is involved, describe that aspect as well.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j.
Melatonin Multifaceted stress response Adrenocorticotropic hormone Oxytocin Vitamin D activation Calcitonin Cortisol Catecholamines Glucagon Insulin
* The answer to this question could be drawn from multiple points in the chapter. 321-323 3.
Distinguish between diabetes mellitus type I and type II. Which is more pharmacologically tractable? Why?
330
4.
Compare and contrast the interactions between parathyroid hormone and vitamin D in controlling plasma calcium levels. Be sure to include the directional change in calcium levels, the organs involved, and where the hormone and vitamin D are having their effects.
331
5.
Discuss the homeostatic control of plasma phosphate levels in situations where phosphate levels are too high and where they are too low. Be sure to include such things as the hormones involved, organs involved, and the direction of change in phosphate levels
Muscle Physiology A.
Multiple Choice
Key/ Page
No.
d 336
1.
Skeletal muscle is a. striated. b. unstriated. c. voluntary. d. Both striated and voluntary. e. Both unstriated and involuntary.
e 336
2.
Within a muscle fiber the contractile elements may constitute as much as volume. a. 50% b. 60% c. 70% d. 80% e. 90%
e 338
3.
The sarcomere lies within the boundaries of which of these structures? a. A bands b. H bands c. I bands d. sarcoplasmic reticulum e. Z lines
b 339
4.
The principal role of calcium in skeletal muscle contraction is to a. participate in the propagation of an action potential along the surface of the muscle fiber. b. bind troponin, which in turn permits tropomyosin to uncover the cross-bridge binding site on the thin filament. c. bind tropomyosin, which in turn permits troponin to uncover the cross-bridge binding site on the thin filament. d. activate a calcium-calmodulin-dependent protein kinase, which in turn phosphorylates and activates myosin.
of the cell
e 341
5.
Which of the following observations confirms the sliding filament mechanism for muscle contraction? a. As the sarcomere shortens, the H zone becomes smaller. b. As the sarcomere shortens, the width of the A band remains the same. c. As the sarcomere shortens, the I band becomes smaller. d. Two of these. e. All of these.
d 343
6.
In skeletal muscle depolarization of the T tubule membrane causes a. activation of Ca2+ ATPase pumps which triggers a rise in intracellular calcium levels b. dihydropyridine to bind calcium channel receptors which triggers a rise in intracellular calcium levels. c. activation of stretch-activated Ca2+ channels which triggers a rise in intracellular calcium levels. d. activation of dihydroxypyridine receptors in membrane of the T tubule which triggers a rise in intracellular calcium levels. e. ryanodine to bind calcium channel receptors which triggers a rise in intracellular calcium levels.
c 344 346
7.
Which of the following choices most accurately represents the sequence of steps occurring in the contraction cycle? The events numbered 1 through 6 may be used more than once. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. a. b. c. d. e.
b 343 346
8.
Mysoin binds ATP Mysoin hydrolyzes ATP and goes into cocked position Myosin releases ADP and inorganic phosphate Myosin binds actin filament Power stroke Myosin releases actin filament
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 1 1, 2, 4, 3, 5, 1, 6 1, 6, 2, 4, 3, 5, 1, 6 1, 2, 6, 3, 4, 5, 6, 1 None of these.
One way one can purify myosin from other skeletal muscle proteins is to immobilize actin on a column, pour a mix of the muscle proteins through, wash first to get out the nonspecific proteins and then do a second to wash to obtain myosin. Based on the contraction cycle, your first wash should a. include ATP, but the second wash should not. b. not include ATP, but the second wash should. c. include ATP, as should the second wash. d. not include ATP, and neither should the second. e. should include calcium, but the second one should not.
b 347, 348
9.
Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. Rigor mortis occurs as a result of a rise in intracellular calcium concentrations. b. In skeletal muscle a single action potential lasts about 5-10 msec. c. In skeletal muscle the relaxation time lasts slightly longer than the contractile time. d. In skeletal muscle the contractile response ceases when the lateral sacs take up Ca2+. e. A spring can move much faster than a muscle can contract.
c 350
10.
A vertebrate motor unit is a. a muscle and the motor neurons that innervate it. b. a muscle fiber and the motor neurons that innervate it. c. a motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates. d. a motor neuron and the muscle it innervates. e. none of these.
a 350
11.
Which of the following does NOT affect the tension that can be developed by a muscle fiber? a. the number of motor units recruited b. the frequency of action potentials conducted by the motor neuron c. the length of the fiber at the onset of contraction d. diameter of the muscle fiber e. All of these affect tension development by a muscle fiber.
e 353
12.
Arthropod muscle differs from vertebrate muscle in that a. a single muscle fiber may be innervated by multiple motor neurons. b. a single motor neuron forms multiple synapses (multiterminal innervation) with a single muscle fiber. c. development of muscle tension is modulated by inhibitory presynaptic inputs. d. muscle fibers are innervated by both excitatory and inhibitory neurons. e. All of these.
d 354
13.
In the length-tension curve shown, why does force decrease at sarcomere lengths less than lo?
a. b. c. d.
e.
b 355, 356
14.
Not as much Ca2+ is released in a sarcomere with a length less than lo.. Interference between actin filaments originating from opposite ends of the sarcomere prevents maximal or optimal cross-bridge formation. The muscle fiber runs out of ATP. In this situation, Ca2+ availability and the position of the actin filaments are responsible for the decrease in muscle shortening because ATP will still be available. All of these contribute to reduced muscle shortening in a sarcomere with a length less than lo.
Which of the following is NOT true? a. Muscle tension is produced internally within the sarcomeres. b. Muscle tension is transmitted to the skeleton by tightening of the series-elastic component within the sarcomere. c. It is possible for a skeletal muscle to produce movement without the muscle being attached to bone at both ends. d. With respect to skeletal muscle, the load and velocity for shortening are inversely related for concentric contractions. e. Actually, all of these are true statements.
a 355
15.
An isometric contraction is a contraction in which a. tension (or force) increases, but length stays the same. b. tension (or force) stays the same, but length increases. c. tension (or force) stays the same, and length stays the same. d. tension (or force) stays the same, but length decreases. e. tension (or force) decreases, and length decreases.
b 355
16.
In an isotonic, concentric contraction, a. circular muscles (like those in the iris of the eye) contract, making a smaller aperture. b. muscle length shortens while tension remains constant. c. muscle lengths shorten, drawing objects closer to the body midline. d. None of these.
b 359
17.
Which of the following ATP-dependent steps of the contraction-relaxation cycle could be accomplished with a non-hydrolyzable form of ATP such as ATP--S for example? a. cocking of the cross-bridge in anticipation of the power-stroke b. release of actin by myosin c. sequestration of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum d. All of these could be accomplished with ATP--S. e. None of these could be accomplished with ATP--S.
d 359
18.
provides a ready supply of high energy phosphate for conversion of ADP to ATP during muscle activity. a. Glucose-1-phosphate b. Glucose-6-phosphate c. NADPH d. Creatine-phosphate e. NADH
a 359
19.
Creatine is an important metabolite in muscle physiology. Based on your understanding of its role in muscle energetics, which of the following statements is true? a. The concentration of creatine rises as the concentration of ATP rises. b. The concentration of creatine falls as the concentration of ATP rises. c. The concentration of creatine is independent of the concentration of ATP. d. The concentration of creatine rises as the concentration of ADP rises.
c 359
20.
Which of the following is a function of myoglobin? a. to transport oxygen in the blood b. to hold together the lipid bilayers that collectively form a myelin sheath c. to increase the rate of transfer of oxygen from the blood to the muscle d. to mark foreign bodies for consumption by macrophages e. None of these.
a 361
21.
For muscles the endproduct of anaerobic glycolysis is a. pyruvic acid. b. lactic acid. c. ethanol. d. acetyl CoA. e. carbon dioxide.
e 362
22.
How much of the energy available in ATP is lost as heat energy during an isotonic contraction by skeletal muscle? a. 15% b. 25% c. 50% d. 60% e. 75%
b 362
23.
Fast muscle fibers differ from slow muscle fibers in that fast muscle fibers a. are able to take up oxygen more quickly from the blood. b. are equipped with a myosin-ATPase with more rapid kinetics. c. are able to generate ATP more rapidly. d. conduction action potentials more rapidly. e. are recruited by the nervous system more rapidly.
d 363
24.
An advantage of the large fiber diameter of fast glycolytic muscle is a. it's correlated with its large volume, which in turn means it can hold more oxygen, and generate ATP aerobically. b. it implies more cross-sectional area and the fiber can therefore hold more mitochondria, which means it can generate more ATP to power contraction. c. it has less surface area relative to its volume, so it depolarizes more rapidly, since current has less distance to spread. d. it has more myofibrils per unit length, which means it can form more cross-bridges, and generate more power (force). e. none of these.
e 363
25.
Which fibers will have a rich blood supply and a high myoglobin content? a. slow oxidative fibers (Type I) b. fast oxidative fibers (Type IIa) c. fast glycolytic fibers (Type IIx) d. fast and slow glycolytic fibers e. fast and slow oxidative fibers
a 368
26.
In spinal reflex pathways, motor neurons receive inputs from a. sensory afferents and/or internurons. b. cortical neurons whose cell bodies reside in the primary motor cortex. c. cortical neurons whose cell bodies reside in the somatosensory cortex. d. cerebellar neurons. e. brain stem neurons.
a 370
27.
Regarding the proprioceptors concerned with muscles, the gives information about muscle length, whereas the gives information about muscle tension. a. muscle spindle; Golgi tendon organ b. Golgi tendon organ; muscle spindle c. muscle spindle; Golgi apparatus d. Golgi apparatus; muscle spindle e. None of these.
c 370
28.
Golgi tendon organs are a. regulated by the activity of motor neurons. b. activated by sensory input from the muscle spindle. c. activated by changes in muscle tension. d. activated by changes in muscle length. e. activated by input from the muscle receptor organ.
a 370, 371
29.
Which of the following statements is correct? a. Gamma motor neuron activity is too weak to affect whole muscle tension. b. Golgi tendon organs lie within the belly of the muscle. c. A muscle spindle is a collection of extrafusal fibers. d. The primary purpose of the stretch reflex is to counteract the unintended contraction of the quadriceps. e. Each muscle spindle has one efferent and two afferent neurons which are used for reciprocal innvervation.
c 373 – 375
30.
Which of the following characteristics do skeletal muscle and smooth muscle have in common? a. Calcium is bound by the protein calmodulin prior to formation of cross-bridges. b. Tropomyosin is removed from the myosin-binding site on actin, permitting formation of cross-bridges c. Sliding of thick and thin filaments relative to one another depends on a rise in cytosolic calcium. d. Sliding of thick and thin filaments relative to one another results in shortening of the sarcomeres. e. All of these.
b 375
31.
The protein whose removal enables myosin to bind actin in smooth muscle is a. tropomyosin. b. caldesmon c. myosin light chain kinase d. calmodulin e. synapsin
c 378
32.
Multiunit smooth muscle is considered neurogenic, which means a. contraction occurs following a spontaneous depolarization event. b. contraction is regulated by pacemaker cells lying within the muscle. c. the muscle is stimulated to contract through direct nervous input. d. contraction is proportional to the generator potential of the nerve. e. more than one of these.
c 381
33.
The stress relaxation response enables hollow organs, like the stomach, to accommodate increases in the volume of its contents. Typically, an upper limit is placed on the volume, however, by a. reflex contraction initiated in response to stretch. b. tension due to stretching of the intermediate filaments within the smooth muscle. c. inelastic connective tissue associated with the smooth muscle of the organ. d. the number of cross-bridge sites present on the myosin filaments.
a 374, 375
34.
Which of the following features distinguishes cardiac muscle from skeletal muscle? a. Cardiac muscle contraction is modified by hormones. b. Cardiac cells lack T tubules. c. Only cardiac muscle has slow myosin ATPase activity. d. In skeletal muscle Ca2+ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. e. Skeletal muscle has thick myosin and thin actin filaments
d 375, 376
35.
Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. Smooth muscle can be classified according to the timing and means of increasing cytosolic Ca2+. b. In smooth muscle, C-type Ca2+ channels regulate the influx of extracellular Ca2+. c. Smooth muscle tone exists because the muscle has a relatively low resting potential. d. In smooth muscle, Ca2+ binds directly to myosin light chain kinase as opposed to troponin as it does in skeletal muscle. e. Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle differ in the energy source used for contraction.
b 374, 375
36.
Which of the following features distinguishes skeletal muscle from smooth muscle? a. Only smooth muscle contraction is modified by hormones. b. Only smooth muscle takes up Ca2+ from the extracellular fluid. c. Only skeletal muscle is neurogenic. d. Only skeletal muscle has a moderately developed sacroplasmic reticulum. e. Two of these.
d 380
37.
Varicosities a. are bulges at the end of certain types of nerve terminal branches b. can be found on the postganglionic autonomic fibers associated with certain smooth muscle cells c. contain neurotransmitter d. all of these e. none of these.
b 379
38.
In single unit smooth muscle, tension is increased by a. increasing the number of individual cells recruited by neurons to contract. b. increasing the levels of cytoplasmic calcium available to permit cross-bridge formation. c. increasing the synthesis of contractile units so that more power is attained. d. doing all of these. e. doing none of these.
c 375
39.
Which of the following muscle types has tone in the absence of an external stimulus? a. skeletal b. multiunit smooth muscle c. single-unit smooth muscle d. cardiac muscle e. all of these
d 375
40.
Which of the following muscle types has a clear-cut length tension relationship? a. skeletal b. smooth c. cardiac d. both skeletal and cardiac e. both smooth and cardiac
B.
True of False
True 338
1.
The myosin filaments of a sarcomere are attached to the Z line by an elastic protein.
True 339
2.
The largest known protein in any organism is called connectin.
False 342
3.
The cross-bridges aligned with given thin filaments stroke in unison during a contraction.
False 347
4.
A single action potential in a skeletal muscle lasts only about 3-5 msec.
True 381
5.
In skeletal muscle, a single contractile response may last up to 100 times longer than the action potential that produced it.
True 350
6.
Arthropod muscles attach to internal ridges of the exoskeleton called apodemes.
False 352
7.
A tectonic contraction is a summation of individual twitches and therefore has the same strength.
False 354
8.
In vivo, muscles are usually positioned at a relaxed length that is approximately 80% of their optimal length which maximizes contraction strength.
True 356
9.
Load and velocity are directly related for eccentric contractions.
False 365
10.
It is known that interconversion of muscle fiber types is possible. Thus, depending on usage, fast-glycolytic fibers can be converted to slow-glycolytic fibers.
C.
Matching (correct answers are aligned with each number; e.g., #1 matches with letter a)
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Dihydropyridine receptor Ryanodine receptor Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors Cardiac muscle Slow-oxidative Fast-oxidative Fast-glycolytic Rigor Cross bridges H-zone
D.
Essay
Page
No.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j.
T tubule Lateral sacs Motor endplate Heart Type I Type IIa Type IIx ATP depletion Myosin heads Myosin tails
374, 375 1.
Compare and contrast 8 major characteristics of multiunit and single-unit smooth muscle.
342-344 2. 375-376
Compare and contrast the source and involvement of Ca 2+ in smooth muscle and skeletal muscle contraction. In addition, why is it that T tubules are absent in smooth muscle but present in skeletal muscle cells?.
359
3.
Discuss the importance of creatine phosphate in muscle contraction. Where does creatine phosphate come from?
377- 3794.
Compare and contrast excitation and contraction in neurogenic multiunit smooth muscle cells and myogenic single-unit smooth muscle cells.
349
Explain why muscles evolved for speed.
5.
Circulatory Systems A.
Multiple Choice
Key/ Page
No.
a 385
1.
Which of the following components is essential for a circulatory system? a. fluid b. pump-organ c. vessels d. cells e. all of these
d 387
2.
The hematocrit is a. the packed hemocytes found in hemolymph. b. the packed red blood cells only. c. the packed white blood cells only. d. the total packed cell volume of blood. e. the total volume of oxygen carried in the blood.
b 387
3.
Plasma proteins constitute about a. 8- 10 b. 6-8 c. 4-6 d. 1-4
a 387
4.
The dominant inorganic cation in blood is a. Na+ b. Clc. K+ d. HCO3e. Ca2+
c 389
5.
Antibodies are a. -globulins. b. -globulins. c. -globulins.
percent of plasma by weight.
d 389
6.
Which of the following does NOT contain cholesterol? a. chylomicrons b. high density lipoproteins c. low density lipoproteins d. very low density lipoproteins e. All of these contain cholesterol.
d 389
7.
Both insects and vertebrates have in their circulatory fluid a. chylomicrons b. high density-lipoproteins c. low-density lipoproteins d. high-density and low-density lipoproteins e. chylomicrons, high-density and low-density lipoproteins
e 392
8.
Erythrocytes function in the transport of CO2 by a. containing carbonic anhydrase, which catalyzes the interconversion of CO2 and bicarbonate. b. containing hemoglobin, which binds CO2 to the iron portion. c. containing hemoglobin, which binds CO2 to the protein portion. d. both containing carbonic anhydrase and binding CO2 to the iron portion. e. both containing carbonic anhydrase and binding CO2 to the protein portion.
a 392
9.
In humans, old, worn out erythrocytes are destroyed in the are derived from residing in the . a. spleen; pluripotent stem cells; red marrow b. spleen; embryonic stem cells; red marrow c. red marrow; pluripotent stem cells; spleen d. red marrow; embryonic stem cells; spleen e. liver; pluripotent stem cells; red marrow
c 392
10.
The hormone is secreted by the kidney in response to reduced oxygen delivery. a. renin b. angiotensin c. erythropoietin d. aldosterone e. thrombopoietin.
a 394
11. a. b. c. d. e.
is the arrest of bleeding from a broken blood vessel. Hemostasis Homeostasis Homeopathy Homeotics None of these.
and their replacements
e 395
12.
Vascular spasm as a result of trauma to vessels minimizes blood loss by a. slowing blood flow through the vessels as a consequence of constriction. b. pressing together the surfaces of the vessel, promoting adhesion and sealing off the damaged vessel. c. slowing blood flow as a result of sympathetic stimulation. d. Only two of these. e. All of these.
c 395
13.
ADP released by platelets is involved in reducing blood flow through an injured vessel by a. causing the vascular musculature to remain contracted longer during the vascular spasm. b. causing the surface of nearby endothelial cells to become sticky so that platelets will stick to them, enhancing aggregation of platelets. c. causing the surface of nearby platelets to become sticky so that platelets will stick to them, enhancing aggregation of platelets. d. increasing the release of fibrinogen by activated platelets. e. all of these.
c 395
14.
Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin by a. factor XIII. b. prothrombin. c. thrombin. d. factor X. e. platelet factor 3 (PF3).
a 398
15.
The dissolution of clots is accomplished in part by the fibrinolytic activity of a. plasmin. b. thrombin. c. fibrinogen. d. factor XII. e. factor X.
b 400
16.
Although a grasshopper has a heart, it only functions in pumping blood when it's at rest because during activity blood is pumped by a type pump. a. flagella b. extrinsic c. peristaltic muscle d. chamber muscle e. none of these.
b 402
17.
In the heart of cartilaginous fishes, blood enters the circulation by the . a. right atrium; left ventricle b. sinus venosus; conus arteriosus c. sinus arteriosus; conus venosus d. sinus venosus; bulbus arteriosus e. sinus arteriosus; bulbus venosus
and is returned to the systemic
d 402
18.
A significant change in vertebrate hearts began when a. the ancestors of whales returned to the oceans. b. flight evolved in birds. c. reptiles moved onto land. d. air-breathing fish evolved. e. amphibians transitioned to life on land and in water.
a 403
19.
Brisket disease a. is the development of tissue edema in cattle that have acclimatized to high altitude and then been shifted to low altitude. b. is a disease occurring in race horses resulting in insufficient blood flow to support running. c. occurs when the right atrium over fills as a result of circulatory edema . d. none of these.
c 403
20.
Veins are defined as blood vessels that a. carry deoxygenated blood. b. connect multiple capillary beds. c. function in returning blood to the heart. d. carry oxygenated blood. e. function in carrying blood away from the heart.
a 403
21.
Which of the following statements about the heart is true? a. The left side of the heart is stronger than the right side. b. The right side of the heart is stronger than the left side. c. The left side of the heart pumps a greater volume of blood than the right side. d. The right side of the heart pumps a greater volume of blood than the left side. e. None of these.
b 386
22.
Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. Cnidarians circulate fluid in the coelenteron. b. The differences between an open and a closed circulatory system are clear-cut. c. Many animals have an internal extracellular fluid that is separate from the environment. d. The fluid leaving the capillary bed of closed circulatory systems is similar to the hemolymph of open systems. e. Closed circulatory systems are made necessary by the large size of organisms that have them and the large distances between nutrient sources and cells.
b 405
23.
The middle, muscular portion of the heart wall is referred to as the a. endocardium. b. myocardium. c. myometrium. d. endometrium. e. myoma.
d 405
24.
Which statement about desmosomes is NOT true? a. They hold cells together under high mechanical stress. b. They are located in intercalated discs. c. They are found in vertebrate hearts. d. They conduct electrical impulses between cardiac cells. e. all of these are true.
d 408
25.
The problem of electrical discontinuity caused in the normal heart by the connective tissue separating the atria from the ventricles is solved by a. having the A-V node function as a secondary pacemaker. b. having an ectopic pacemaker. c. coordinating electrical activity in the atria with electrical activity in the ventricles by connecting them via the vagus nerve. d. coordinating electrical activity in the atria with electrical activity in the ventricles by connecting them via the bundle of His. e. coordinating electrical activity in the atria with electrical activity in the ventricles by connecting them via the Purkinje fibers.
e 409
26.
The movement of which two ions is responsible for maintaining the plateau phase of the action potential of contractile cardiac muscle cells? a. Na+ and Clb. Na+ and K+ c. K+ and Cld. Ca2+ and Na+ e. Ca2+ and K+
b 408
27.
Which of the following normally functions as the main pacemaker of the heart? a. the atrioventricular node b. the sinoatrial node c. the Purkinje fibers d. the node of Ranvier e. the bundle fibers
c 416
28.
An increase in heart rate is accompanied by a. an increase in L-type Ca2+ channel activity. b. an increase in K+ flux through voltage-gated K+ channels. c. an increase in the passive movement of Na+ into cells of the SA node. d. an increase in the passive movement of K+ out of cells of the SA node. e. a combined increase in passive movement of Na+ and K+ out of the cells of the SA node.
d 410
29.
The P wave of an ECG represents a. the contraction of the atria. b. the contraction of the ventricles. c. the depolarization of the ventricles. d. the depolarization of the atria. e. the repolarization of the ventricles.
c 430
30.
In a normal ECG, no separate wave is detected for atrial repolarization because a. the amount of atrial tissue is too little for the current to be detected by the ECG electrodes. b. the time period between atrial depolarization and repolarization occurs too rapidly. c. atrial repolarization and ventricular depolarization are simultaneous, and the expected wave is masked by the QRS complex. d. None of these.
b 414
31.
At the onset of ventricular diastole, the A-V valves close as a result of a. higher pressure in the atria relative to the ventricles. b. higher pressure in the ventricles relative to the atria. c. higher pressure in the arteries (pulmonary and aorta) relative to the ventricles. d. higher pressure in the venae cavae relative to the atria. e. contraction of the small muscles which attach to the valves.
b 412
32.
Ventricular systole includes the periods of a. isometric contraction and ventricular ejection. b. isovolumetric contraction and ventricular ejection. c. isometric contraction and end-systolic volume. d. isovolumetric contraction and end-systolic volume. e. none of these
c 385
33.
Stroke volume is defined as a. the amount of blood pumped into the ventricles from the atria. b. the amount of blood ejected by each ventricle during a single contraction. c. the difference between the end diastolic volume and the end systolic volume for each ventricle. d. the amount of blood delivered by the vena cavae and ejected by the ventricles..
a 414
34.
Which of the following statements about cardiac output is true? a. Cardiac output is the mathematical product of heart rate and stroke volume. b. Cardiac output is the mathematical sum of heart rate and stroke volume. c. Cardiac output is regulated exclusively by adjusting heart rate. d. Cardiac output is regulated exclusively by adjusting stroke volume. e. None of these.
e 415
35.
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding sympathetic stimulation of the heart? a. It increases the rate of depolarization of the SA node. b. It increases excitability of the AV node. c. It results in stronger ventricular contractions. d. It increases venous return. e. None of these.
e 425
36.
Parasympathetic stimulation of the heart a. increases venous return to the heart. b. has an impact on the ventricular conduction pathway. c. increases the number of cross-bridges that can form during contraction. d. increases the strength of contraction. e. none of these.
d 417
37.
Venous return and by extension end-diastolic volume are examples of factors directly related to the control of stroke volume. a. endocrine b. nervous c. extrinsic d. intrinsic e. sympathetic
e 434
38.
Which of the following will cause local adjustments in an arteriole’s radius and hence vessel diameter? a. decreased O2 b. increased K+ c. increased O2 d. increased acid e. all of these.
e 447
39.
Venous return is affected by a. the cardiac suction effect. b. the respiratory pump. c. the skeletal muscle pump. d. none of these. e. all of these.
c 453
40.
Which of the following decreases with increased muscular activity? a. venous return b. mean arterial blood pressure c. peripheral resistance d. blood flow to brain e. none of these.
B.
True or False
True 429
1.
The total cross-sectional area of arteries is less than that of the arterioles.
False 431
2.
Arteries but not veins have elastic fibers in their walls.
True 433
3.
Differences in flow are determined by the amount of vascularization and the amount of resistance in the arterioles.
False 435
4.
Histamine whose release increases blood flow is released in response to local metabolic changes that require greater delivery of oxygen.
True 435
5.
Nitric oxide (NO) interferes with platelet function and blood clotting.
False 443
6.
Concentration gradients not bulk flow of solutes determines the distribution of extracellular fluids.
True 452
7.
While an individual is at rest about 20% of the total cardiac output goes to the kidneys.
False 393
8.
Both thrombocytes and platelets are living cells but they are found in different organisms.
True 395
9.
Thrombin is formed in a positive-feedback cycle.
True 399
10.
It is exposed collagen that initiates the clotting cascade.
C.
Matching (correct answers are aligned with each number; e.g., #1 matches with letter a)
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Open circulatory system Factor XII Erythrocytes Acetylcholine Thrombocytes Norepinephrine High density lipoprotein Sinus venosus Hemacyanin Hemoglobin
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j.
Hemolymph Hageman factor Oxygen transport Parasympathetic neurotransmitter Clotting Sympathetic neurotransmitter "good cholesterol" Elasmobranchs Copper Iron
D.
Essay
Page
No.
415
1.
Compare and contrast the effect of sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulation on the SA node, AV node, arterial muscle, ventricular muscle, and veins.
426
2.
Describe the amphibian heart structure and the flow of blood through the heart and body.
416
3.
During periods stress and high anxiety, it may be important to have increased blood flow to skeletal muscle in particular. What are the overall effects of sympathetic stimulation on the heart and blood delivery.
417
4.
Although the Frank-Starling mechanism can be accounted for in terms of lengthtension relationships, one could also invoke increases in cytosolic calcium resulting from opening of stretch-activated calcium channels. What role does calcium play in muscle contraction, and why would increasing cytosolic calcium levels increase the amount of tension developed?
437
5.
Capillaries are the vessels with the smallest diameter, yet they offer less resistance to flow than the arterioles. How can these facts be reconciled, given that resistance (R) is inversely proportional to the radius raised to the 4th power (r4)?
Defense Systems A.
Multiple Choice
Key/ Page
No.
e 459
1.
Pathogens a. have the ability to produce a disease. b. may disrupt normal cellular processes and causing the release of nutrients. c. may be intracellular or extracellular organisms. d. two of these. e. all of these.
d 460
2.
Self-recognition in mammals depends in part on a. the presence of interleukins b. innate immunity. c. the presence of cytokines d. Toll-like receptors e. all of these.
e 460, 461
3.
Which of the following are NOT correctly paired? a. cytokines and nongland cells b. vertebrate immune cell communication and immunosynapse c. inflammation and second line of defense d. amoebocytes and hemocytes e. antimicrobial peptides and opsonin
b 464, 465
4.
Which of the following leukocytes are phagocytic? a. natural killer cells b. neutrophils c. eosinophils d. natural killer cells and neutrophils e. neutrophils and eosinophils
e 465
5.
Mast cells are . a. are transformed monocytes b. are a subset of B-cells c. a subset of T-cells d. are macrophages that remain in the circulation e. are analogous to sensing-integrating endocrine glands.
.
d 465
6.
The a. b. c. d. e.
is/are the origin of all leukocytes. lymph nodes spleen tonsils bone marrow thymus
d 465
7.
Which of the following is a type of protein that defends against viral infections? a. complement b. interleukin c. cytokines d. interferon e. complement and interferon
d 466
8.
Which of the following statements about sweat glands is NOT true? a. Sweat glands are derived from the epidermis. b. Sweat glands are important in thermoregulation. c. Sweat glands produce anti-microbial compounds. d. Sweat glands produce sebum. e. None of these.
a 466467
9.
Which of the following skin cells does NOT play a role in immune function? a. melanocytes b. keratinocytes c. dendritic cells d. Granstein cells e. All of these play a role in immune function.
c 466, 467
10.
The first line of defense against bacterial infection from coming in contact with a contaminated surface is a. macrophages. b. mast cells. c. the skin. d. mucous membranes. e. Langerhan cells.
a 468
11.
The secretion of histamine by mast cells causes a. vasodilation, bringing phagocytic cells to the site of infection. b. invading bacterial cells to lyse. c. invading bacterial cells to coagulate. d. all of these. e. none of these.
b 469
12.
Neutrophils secrete a. nitric oxide b. cathelicidins c. interleukin-1 d. TLRs
c 469
13.
As part of their defense against bacteria, neutrophils secrete the iron-binding protein , making iron unavailable for bacterial multiplication. a. transferrin b. heme c. lactoferrin d. lactose e. macferrin
c 469
14.
The function of kallikrein is to a. activate the complement system. b. enhance vascular permeability. c. convert kininogens to kinins. d. activate pain receptors at the site of a wound. e. act as chemotaxins.
e 469
15.
Interleukin-6 a. functions as an endogenous pyrogen. b. stimulates the release of prostaglandins within the hypothalamus. c. decreases plasma iron concentrations d. two of these. e. all of these.
b 471
16.
Released by cells as part of the nonspecific, second line of defense against infection, interferon functions in a. interfering with the replication of extracellular bacteria. b. inhibiting replication of viruses in cells infected with them. c. preventing viruses from adhering to the cell surface and injecting their genetic material. d. is a cytokine that blocks replication of virally infected cells. e. more than one of these.
b 471
17. a. b. c. d. e.
that kill invading microbes.
nonspecifically cause virus-infected cells to lyse. Cytotoxic T-cells Natural killer cells Lymphocytes Macrophages Granulocytes
d 472
18.
Antibodies are produced by a. antibody presenting cells. b. macrophages. c. monocytes. d. plasma cells. e. serum cells.
e 472
19.
Lymphoid tissue a. stores lymphocytes. b. processes lymphocytes. c. includes the adenoids. d. is found in the lining of the digestive tract. e. all of these.
c 473
20.
e 473, 474
21.
Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. The more complex a foreign molecule the greater its antigenicity. b. Isolated molecules may act as antigens. c. Large polysaccharides may act as antigens. d. T cells reside in colonies. e. The key to B- and T-cell specificity is the TLRs present in their membrane that binds antigens.
b 475
22.
Milk and other exocrine secretions contain which of the following immunoglobulins? a. IgM b. IgA c. IgG d. IgE e. IgD
a 474
23.
The specificity of an antibody for its antigen is determined by the a. structure of the arm region of the "Y." b. structure of the tail region of the "Y." c. Fc region of the antibody. d. variability between the arm and tail region of the “Y”. e. process of optimization during development.
a. b. c. d. e.
is a hormone responsible for maintaining T-cell lineages. Interferon Cathelicidin Thymosin Erythropoietin Insulin
c 475
24.
Neutralization by antibodies refers to a process through which a. antibodies buffer the pH of plasma in a way that is inhospitable to invading bacteria. b. antibodies crosslink antigens into chains or clumps, preventing them from exerting their pathogenic effects. c. antibodies combine with bacterial toxins, preventing them from harming susceptible cells. d. none of these.
e 475
25.
Which of the following is NOT a function of antibodies? a. agglutination of foreign cells b. activation of the complement system c. enhancement of phagocytosis d. stimulation of killer cells. e. All of these are functions of antibodies.
a 482, 483
26.
Which of the following are immune cells specifically located in the skin? a. Langerhans cells b. T helper 2 cells c. angry macrophages 9activated macrophages with high phagocytic activity) d. dendritic cells e. none of these.
c 476
27.
Memory cells are a. hippocampal neurons. b. exocrine cells that produce milk. c. dormant, non-secreting B-cells. d. dormant, non-secreting T-cells. e. antibody secreting B-cells.
d 480
28.
The phenomenal diversity of antibodies produced by an individual is possible because a. B-cells contain more genes than other cells of the body. b. once the gene encoding an antibody is transcribed, the mRNA is sloppily translated, in effect introducing mutations (and therefore diversity) post-translationally. c. even though they have the same number of genes as other cells of the body, virtually all of their genome is dedicated to antibody genes. d. the gene fragments encoding antibodies are cut, reshuffled and spliced during a Bcell's development, enabling innumerable amino acid sequences to be generated. e. None of these.
d 483
29.
Although B-cells (as plasma cells) are specialized to secrete antibodies, they require the assistance of a number of other types of cells, including a. macrophages. b. dendritic cells. c. T-helper cells. d. all of these. e. none of these.
e 484
30.
The rate of signal transfer between helper T cells and antigen presenting cells is increased by the presence of a. cytokines. b. interleukins. c. MHC I. d. MHC II. e. nanotubes.
b 482
31.
Human immunodeficiency virus selectively destroys a. the spleen. b. helper T-cells. c. cytotoxic T-cells. d. killer T-cells. e. B-cells.
e 485, 486
32.
Immune tolerance preventing a normal immune system from attacking the individual's own tissues involves a. clonal deletion. b. clonal anergy. c. receptor editing. d. immunological ignorance. e. all of these.
c 486
33.
Immune privilege refers to a. the existence of an immune system in a limited number of taxa. b. the inhibition throughout life of immune cells that are specific for the body’s own tissues. c. the ability of the eyes to escape immune attack. d. two of these.
a 486
34.
All of the following are thought to be autoimmune diseases except a. AIDS. b. type I diabetes. c. multiple sclerosis. d. lupus. e. rheumatoid arthritis.
c 484
35.
The major histocompatibility complex a. was first observed in virally infected fish. b. is a group of cells responsible for presenting antigens to B-cells to stimulate antibody production. c. is a cluster of genes which encode self-antigens. d. is the membrane glycoprotein and associated antigen presented to B-cells. e. none of these.
e 487
36.
Immune defense against cancer depends on a. the release of inteferon. b. the presence of macrophages. c. the presence of cytotoxic cells. d. two of these. e. all of these.
d 487
37.
Although many cells undergo mutation during an animal's lifetime, malignancy is rare since a. only a small fraction of the genome encodes proteins involved in cell cycle regulation, so the probability of mutation of these genes is low. b. generally multiple mutations are required to turn a normal cell into a cancer cell. c. immune surveillance results in nascent cancer cells being eliminated by cytotoxic Tcells. d. all of these. e. none of these.
e 488
38.
IL-1 release by immune cells results in the secretion of glucocorticoids such as cortisol. Cortisol, in turn, a. mobilizes amino acids. b. mobilizes energy reserves and enhances immune function by making more energy available. c. suppresses immune function. d. mobilize energy reserves and suppress immune function. e. does all of these.
e 460, 490
39.
As a part of their specific immune defenses Drosophila rely on a. Down syndrome cell-adhesion molecule receptors. b. amoebocytes. c. Toll receptors. d. drosomycins. e. two of these.
d 489
40.
Until recently, acquired immunity was thought to only occur in jawed vertebrates. Which of the following observations suggest that this is NOT the case? a. Phenoloxidase activity enables hemocytes to form an impermeable wall of melanin around an infecting pathogen. b. Invertebrate immune cells secrete an IL-1 like compound. c. Invertebrates produce lectins, which coat bacterial cells, priming them for phagocytosis. d. Copepods become resistant to tapeworms after an initial exposure. e. None of these.
B.
True or False
True 489
1.
The shark immune system has been so effective that they have survived longer than mammals have been on earth.
True 458
2.
Carotenoids suppress inflammatory reactions in birds.
False 462
3.
Invertebrates such as sea stars secrete a cytokine similar to interleukin-2 found in vertebrates.
False 464
4.
Most vertebrate have two lines of defense.
False 466
5.
In addition to producing melanin, melanocytes play a role in immunity.
True 467
6.
SALT refers to the epidermal components of the immune system.
False 468
7.
Mast cells release histamine that will act as an autocrine cytokine and stimulate further release of histamine.
True 470
8.
Many of the vertebrate complement proteins are related to the defensins found in invertebrates.
True 474
9.
The Toll-like receptors of the innate system bind numerous generic markers on microorganisms.
False 482
10.
T cell growth factor, IL-2, secreted by helper T cells is one of several interleukins that stimulate B cells.
C.
Matching (correct answers are aligned with each number; e.g., #1 matches with letter a)
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Innate immune system Acquired immune system Thymus Bone marrow Allergy Cytokines Interleukin-2 AIDS Class I MHC glycoproteins Class II MHC glycoproteins
D.
Essay
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j.
nonspecific response specific response T-cell B-cell IgE Helper T-cells T-cell growth factor HIV virtually all nucleated body cells special types of immune cells
Page 488
No. 1. Many systems use feedback loops as a regulatory mechanism. Discuss how the stress response involving the nervous system is involved in a negative feedback loop associated with immune function.
489, 490
2.
Discuss at three examples of acquired immunity that occur in nonvertebrates and any similarities they have with vertebrate immunity.
479
3.
Compare and contrast the immunologic response that occurs as a result of natural exposure to a pathogen as opposed to exposure to a pathogen via vaccination. What effect does this have on long-term immunity?
482
4.
Compare and contrast the body’s defenses to a viral infection when the virus is free in the extracellular fluid as opposed to after a virus has entered a cell.
476-478
5.
Describe how clonal selection works to give both primary and secondary immune responses.
Respiratory Systems A.
Multiple Choice
Key/ Page
No.
b 495
1.
The individual pressure exerted independently by a particular gas within a mixture of gases is known as its . a. diffusion pressure b. partial pressure c. gradient pressure d. equilibrium pressure e. total pressure
d 494, 495
2.
Diffusion directly depends on the a. partial pressure gradient b. solubility of the gas in water c. distance d. two of these e. all of these
b 498
3.
In water, gas solubility a. increases b. decreases c. remains the same
c 498
4.
Variation in availability of oxygen among different animal habitats affects the component of Fick’s law. a. A b. D c. ∆P d. ∆X e. none of these.
b 499
5.
The structure of fish gills enhance diffusion by having a a. low “D” value. b. low ∆X. c. low “A” value. d. high ∆P. e. two of these.
.
as temperature increases.
a 497, 498
6.
Which of the following is NOT true? a. The rate of diffusion of gases is about the same for water and air environments. b. Proteins convert gases between diffusible and nondiffusible forms. c. Trachea have a high “D” value. d. Sinking cold water oxygenates the lower regions of oceans. e. Cilia provide water flow for oxygenation in aquatic Paramecium.
a 494, 495
7.
The single-celled protists are often elongated rather than spherical in order to a. decrease ∆X from environment to mitochondria. b. increase “D.” c. increase ∆P. d. increase “A.”
d 548
8.
Neural control of respiration a. involves factors that regulate the magnitude of ventilation to match physiological needs. b. factors that modify respiratory activity to serve other purposes. c. the neural pattern generator program responsible for the alternating inspiration/expiration rhythm. d. all of these. e. none of these.
e 502
9.
Aquatic respiratory systems can perform non respiratory functions like a. fluid and solute balance. b. acid-base balance. c. excretion. d. nutrient and mineral uptake. e. all of these.
e 509
10.
To accommodate for their high surface to volume ratio, smaller mammals a. reduce the size of each alveolus. b. increase alveolar density. c. increase the density of capillaries used in gas exchange. d. reduce the size of each alveolus and increase alveolar density. e. all of these.
d 548, 549
11.
Which of the following is NOT true? a. When the dorsal respiratory group stops firing, expiration occurs. b. The ventral respiratory group becomes active during periods of increased ventilation. c. In mammals it is thought ventilation rhythm is established in the pre-Botzinger complex. d. The pneumotaxic center sends impulses to the dorsal respiratory group that help switch on the inspiratory neurons. e. None of these.
d 531
12.
Which respiratory pigment is found only in annelids? a. erthyrocruorin b. chlorocruorin c. hemerythrin d. erthyrocruorin and chlorocruorin e. all of these are present in phylum Annelida.
d 506
13.
Lungs in fish originally evolved as a simple evagination of the a. gills. b. integument. c. buccal cavity. d. pharynx. e. digestive system.
a 506
14.
Air enters from the buccal cavity into the lungs of a. amphibians. b. mammals. c. birds. d. reptiles. e. none of these.
c 507
15.
The most complex respiratory system among vertebrates is found in a. mammals. b. reptiles. c. birds. d. amphibians. e. fish.
a 507
16.
In birds and mammals, the surface area of the lungs increases markedly because of a. their high metabolic rate. b. the high oxygen concentration in air. c. a large body size. d. their endothermic metabolism. e. the drier air environment.
c 507
17.
Air capillaries are found in a. mammals. b. reptiles. c. birds. d. fish. e. amphibians.
c 509
18.
In mammalian lungs gas exchange occurs a. in the bronchioles. b. Across the surface of the type II cells. c. in the alveoli. d. the pores of Kohn. e. two of these.
a 511
19.
In contrast to mammals, the lungs of birds are comparatively a. small and inelastic. b. large and inelastic. c. small and more elastic. d. large and more elastic.
e 511, 513
20.
Respiration in birds differs from mammals in that birds have a. lungs used for gas exchange only. b. a comparatively higher tracheal volume. c. air capillaries. d. air sacs for ventilation. e. all of these.
e 517, 518
21.
Thoracic wall and lungs remain in close apposition because of a. the intrapleural fluid’s cohesiveness. b. the intraaveolar pressure. c. the atmospheric pressure. d. the transmural pressure gradient. e. the combination of intrapleural fluid cohesiveness and the transmural pressure gradient.
b 510
22.
The space between lungs and thoracic wall is called a. ventricle. b. pleural cavity. c. bronchiole. d. alveoli. e. pericardial cavity.
b 519
23
According to Boyle’s law, at any constant temperature, the pressure exerted by gas varies a. directly proportional to the volume of the gas. b. inversely proportional to the volume of the gas. c. It doesn’t vary. d. There is no correlation. e. None of the above is correct.
c 514
24.
In birds, one breathing cycle is made up of a. one inspiration and one expiration. b. one inspiration and two expirations. c. two inspirations and two expirations. d. two inspirations and one expirations. e. two inspirations and three expirations.
a 511
25.
During inspiration in mammals the a. external intercostal muscles contract. b. internal intercostal muscles contract. c. external intercostal muscles relax. d. internal intercoastal muscles relax. e. abdominal muscles contract.
d 511
26.
During passive expiration a. diaphragm relaxes. b. external intercostal muscles relax. c. internal intercostals muscles relax. d. two of these. e. all of these.
b 519
27.
As inspiration begins, the intra-alveolar pressure is a. higher than the atmospheric pressure. b. lower than the atmospheric pressure. c. the same as the atmospheric pressure. d. higher than internal pressure. e. none of these.
c 519
28.
The intrapleural pressure a. falls before inspiration. b. falls during expiration. c. falls during inspiration. d. remains constant. e. falls before expiration.
d 532
29.
Hemoglobin may increase in animals as a result of a. seasonal changes. b. locomotory activity. c. anemia. d. all of these. e. none of these.
a 523
30.
The volume entering or leaving the lungs during a single breath is called the a. tidal volume. b. expiratory reserve volume. c. inspiratory reserve volume. d. residual volume. e. inspiratory capacity.
d 523
31.
The minimum volume of air remaining in the lungs after a maximal expiration is called the a. inspiratory reserve volume. b. inspiratory capacity. c. tidal volume. d. residual volume. e. expiratory reserve volume.
c 526
32.
The volume of the air which remains in the conducting airways and is NOT available for gas exchange is called the a. vital capacity. b. functional residual capacity. c. anatomic dead space. d. forced expiratory volume. e. residual capacity.
e 523
33.
Pulmonary ventilation is the product of a. residual volume and respiratory rate. b. anatomic dead space and respiratory rate. c. tidal volume and inspiration capacity. d. residual volume and expiration capacity. e. tidal volume and respiratory rate.
e 546, 547
34.
Too little alveolus ventilation in comparison to its perfusion results in a. an increase in carbon dioxide level. b. an increase in oxygen level. c. a decrease in carbon dioxide level. d. a increase in carbon dioxide level and an increase in oxygen level. e. an increase in carbon dioxide level and a decrease in oxygen level.
e 546, 547
35.
Decrease in alveolar oxygen concentration causes a. vasoconstriction of the pulmonary arteriole. b. relaxation of bronchiolar smooth muscle. c. vasodilation of the pulmonary arteriole. d. vasoconstriction of the pulmonary arteriole and vasodilation of the pulmonary arteriole. e. vasoconstriction of the pulmonary arteriole and relaxation of bronchiolar smooth muscle.
e 529, 530
36.
Thickness of the barriers separating the air or water from the blood increases because of a. low or high environmental pH. b. pulmonary edema. c. pulmonary fibrosis. d. pneumonia. e. all of these.
c 531
37.
Five different respiratory pigments can be found in a. mammals. b. crustaceans. c. annelids. d. mollusks. e. birds.
a 530
38.
Hemocyanin contains a. copper. b. iron. c. sulphur. d. validium. e. phosphorus.
c 532
39.
How many oxygen molecules bind to each polypeptide chain of hemoglobin? a. two b. three c. one d. four e. five
b 537
40.
Effect of pH on % Hb saturation is called a. acidity effect. b. Bohr effect. c. Root effect. d. CO2 effect. e. none of these.
B.
True or False
True 502
1.
Gills are involved in heat transfer as well as gas exchange.
True 502
2.
Tuna, one of the most active fish in the ocean, have lost their breathing muscles.
True 533
3.
Cytogloin, a respiratory pigment, has been found in fibroblasts.
False
4.
The Root effect shifts the hemoglobin saturation curve to the right of normal.
538 False 542
5.
Hypoxic hypoxia is characterized by reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.
False 546
6.
Airflow in and out of the spiracles of the insect tracheal system is regulated by motor output from the cerebral ganglia.
True 549
7.
The apneustic center prevents the inspiratory neurons from being switched off.
True 551
8.
In a normal, healthy individual, a fall in arterial PCO2 reflexly reduces the respiratory drive.
False 505
9.
Bimodal breathers have the ability to use positive or negative pressures for ventilation.
True 514
10.
Birds have a membranous instead of a muscular diaphragm.
C.
Matching (correct answers are aligned with each number; e.g., #1 matches with letter a)
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Air capillaries Effect of pH on % Hb saturation Hemocyanin Alveoli Hemoglobin Relaxation of diaphragm Contraction of diaphragm T- state of hemoglobin R-state of hemoglobin Effect of blood acidosis on lowering blood oxygen content
D.
Essay
a b c d e f g h i j
bird Bohr’s effect Copper Mammals iron expiration inspiration low affinity for oxygen high affinity for oxygen Root effect
Page
No.
494, 495
1.
While considering Fick’s law, discuss the affect pulmonary adema (fluid accumulation in the interstitial space) would have on blood oxygenation.
501, 502 514, 515
2.
Compare and contrast ventilation and gas exchange in fish with gas exchange in birds..
517, 518
3.
Explain why the lungs are normally stretched to fill the thoracic cavity.
511, 512
4.
Discuss various muscle movements in inspiration and expirations.
542
5.
Compare and contrast the four categories of respiratory hypoxia.
Excretory Systems A.
Multiple Choice
Key/ Page
No.
e 557
1.
Functions of excretory systems include a. removal of waste and harmful substances. b. maintenance of water balance. c. selective retention of inorganic solutes. d. waste removal and water balance. e. all of these.
d 558
2.
Which of the following organ systems is not involved in excretion? a. urinary system b. respiratory system c. integumentary system d. lymphatic system
b 558
3.
Most aquatic organisms excrete nitrogenous wastes in the form of a. urea. b. ammonia. c. uric acid. d. glutamine.
e 561
4.
Which of the following is a form of nitrogenous waste? a. creatinine b. allantoin c. guanine d. creatinine and guanine e. all of these.
c 561
5.
Transporting salt without water involves a. a Na+-activated Cl- channel. b. Na+ build up inside the cell. c. Na+/K+ ATPase. d. a Cl--activated Na+ channel. e. a NaCl channel.
a 569
6.
What region of the mammalian kidney collects urine after its formation? a. Renal pelvis b. Renal medulla c. Renal cortex d. Ureter
e 563
7.
Urine formation involves the process of a. secretion b. reabsorption c. osmoconcentration d. two of these. e all of these
d 563, 565
8.
Ultrafiltration and osmoconcentration occur in a. Protonephridia. b. Metanephridia. c. Mesonephridia. d. metanephridia and mesonephridia. e. protonephridia and metanephridia.
d 566, 567
9.
Which of the following happens in Malpighian tubules? a. K+ is secreted into the lumen of the tubule. b. A V-ATPase pumps H+ ions. c. Cl- is secreted into the lumen. d. Two of these. e. None of these.
c 576, 577
10.
Which of the following is NOT part of the mammalian cortical nephron? a. Bowman’s capsule b. Glomerulus c. Vasa recta d. Loop of Henle e. Distal tubule
a 579
11.
Which of the following forces is NOT involved in glomerular filtration? a. Renal hydrostatic pressure b. Plasma-colloid osmotic pressure c. Glomerular capillary blood pressure d. Net filtration pressure e. Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure
e 579
12.
According to fluid dynamics, glomerular filtration is similar to ultrafiltration in other capillaries with the exception that a. filtration occurs throughout the length of the capillaries due to the forces acting on the glomerular membrane. b. glomerular capillaries have high permeability. c. in other systems reabsorption only occurs towards the ends of the capillaries. d. higher capillary permeability ensures higher filtration at any pressure in the capillaries. e. all of these.
c 579
13.
At a typical filtration pressure of 10 mmHg, the average individual filters about the plasma that enters the glomerulus. a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 25% e. 30% delete line->
b 579
14.
The glomerular filtration coefficient does NOT account for a. glomerular membrane permeability. b. net filtration pressure. c. glomerular surface area.
a 580
15.
Vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole causes a. a decrease in the glomerular filtration rate. b. an increase in the blood flow to the glomerulus. c. an increase in the net filtration pressure. d. an increase in the glomerular filtration rate.
e 582
16.
If plasma volume is decreased by hemorrhage a. baroreceptors in the aortic arch sense the pressure change. b. cardiac output increases. c. total peripheral resistance increases d. a reflex response is initiated. e. all of these.
b 581
17.
The myogenic mechanism for GFR auto regulation involves a. the response to changes in the nephron’s tubular component. b. the response to changes in pressure within the nephron’s vascular component. c. the release of vasoactive paracrines from the juxtaglomerular apparatus. d. the detection of flow changes by the cells of the macula densa.
of
a 583
18.
The filtration coefficient (Kf) a. is affected by the contractile activity of the filtration membrane. b. is affected by the amount of K+ in the filtrate.. c. is inversely related to GFR which means when Kf decreases the GFR increases. d. is regulated by the parasympathetic nervous system. e. all of these.
b 584
19.
Which of the following is NOT a barrier to reabsorption? a. the cytosol b. the basolar cell membrane c. the wall of the capillary d. the interstitial fluid e. none of these.
e 585
20.
Na+ reabsorption of sodium in the kidney plays a role in a. amino acid reabsorption. b. water reabsorption. c. regulation of ECF osmolality. d. secretion of K+ . e. all of these.
a 585
21.
The term transport maximum, Tm, refers to a. the maximum amount of a substance that the tubular cells can transport within a given period. b. the maximum amount of a substance that flows through the peritubular capillary within a given period. c. the maximum rate of diffusion of sodium through the glomerular membrane. d. the maximum amount of filtrate that can be produced in the presence of aquaporins.
e 586
22.
The reabsorption and secretion of a. Ca2+ b. PO43c. K+ d. Ca2+and PO43e. PO43- and K+
c 585
23.
As sodium is reabsorbed actively, which of the following is absorbed passively? a. Ca2+ b. PO43c. Cld. Na+ e. K+
is regulated by parathyroid hormone.
d 587
24.
A high sodium load in the ECF will lead to a/an blood pressure. a. increase, decrease b. decrease, decrease c. decrease, increase d. increase, increase e. none of these.
in plasma volume and a/an
d 587
25.
Increased renin secretion is NOT due to a. granular cell activation. b. a pressure drop in the afferent arteriole. c. an increase in sympathetic nervous system activity. d. an increase in ECF volume. e. a drop in blood pressure.
e 590
26.
Tubular secretion of potassium a. is controlled by the distal portions of the nephron. b. occurs through the sodium potassium pump. c. is minimized due to reabsorption in the proximal tubule. d. involves passive diffusion from the tubular cell to the lumen. e. all of these.
a 587, 589
27.
Increased aldosterone production does NOT result in a/an a. decrease in tubular K+ secretion. b. increase in urinary K+ excretion. c. increase in tubular K+ secretion. d. decrease in urinary Na+ excretion. e. increase in tubular Na+ reabsorption.
c 592
28.
Which of the following is NOT a function of organic anion and cation carriers in the proximal tubule? a. facilitating the elimination of non-filterable organic ions in urine b. facilitating the excretion via glomerular filtration of blood borne chemical messengers c. facilitating the excretion of K+ and Na+ in the urine d. facilitating the removal of foreign organic chemicals e. none of these.
b 593
29.
Plasma clearance refers to a. the amount of a particular substance removed from the plasma by the kidneys per minute. b. the volume of plasma that is completely cleared of a particular substance per minute. c. the amount of solutes removed from the plasma filtrate per minute.
in
d 595597, 599
30.
Which of the following does NOT contribute to medullary hypertonicity? a. countercurrent exchange of NaCl and H2O in the long limbs of the loop of Henle and the interstitial fluid b. the accumulation of NaCl in the medulla c. the accumulation of urea in the medullary interstitial fluid d. none of these.
b 598
31.
Which of the following statements is NOT descriptive of vasopressin? a. It is also known as ADH. b. It decreases tubular permeability to urea. c. It is produced by the hypothalamus. d. It is released by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland. e. It stimulates reabsorption of water.
c 601
32.
A weak osmoconcentrator will have a. primarily juxtamedullary nephrons. b. a large medulla. c. primarily cortical nephrons. d. a small body size. e. none of these.
b 605
33.
Umbrella cells a. are located in the kidney. b. are located in the bladder. c. are located in the urethra. d. are at the base of the internal urethral sphincter. e. none of these.
e 572
34.
What feature is NOT a characteristic of marine bony fish? a. small glomeruli b. chloride cells c. hypo-osmotic d. small proximal tubules e. none of these.
c 566
35.
Malpighian tubules are part of the a. avian b. mammalian c. arthropod d. reptilian e. amphibian
d 558
36.
The major human nitrogenous waste is a. allantoin. b. uric acid. c. ammonia. d. urea.
excretory system.
e 558
37.
Nitrogenous wastes are produced as a by-product of a. lipid b. glucose c. protein d. amino acid e. amino acid and protein
metabolism.
c 558
38.
Large, complex aquatic organisms and all terrestrial ones a. are urotelic. b. are ammonotelic. c. evolved specialized tubules lined with transport epithelia. d. are uricotelic. e. none of these.
d 573
39.
Many Antarctic fish a. are aglomerular b. do not use ultrafiltration to produce urine. c. begin urine formaqtion in the distal tubule. d. two of these. d. all of these.
e 607
40.
Which of the following is NOT a cause of renal disease? a. toxic agents b. duct blockage c. inappropriate immune response d. insufficient renal blood supply e. none of these.
B.
True or False
True 569
1.
Insect urine formation is influence by diuretic hormones.
True 580
2.
Urinary obstructions such as an enlarged prostate gland can result in elevated capsular hydrostatic pressure.
False 583
3.
Reabsorption of most filtered materials occurs in the distal tubule.
False 593
4.
If a substance is filtered and reabsorbed but not secreted its plasma clearance rate is always more than the GFR.
True 607
5.
Micturition involves a spinal reflex and cortical control.
True 558
6.
Urate is the soluble form of uric acid in the blood.
False 561
7.
The dessert rat produces highly concentrated urine and excretes uric acid.
True 563
8.
Renal organs are classified according to which fluids they process and how.
False 568
9.
In mosquitoes, natriuretic pepetide selectively decreases Na+ secretion.
True 572
10.
In marine bony fish the kidneys play a minor role in correcting Na+ imbalances.
C.
Matching (correct answers are aligned with each number; e.g., #1 matches with letter a)
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Ammonotelic Ureotelic Uricotelic Protonephridia Metanephridia Malpighian tubules Macula densa Endothelin Bradykinin Vasopresin
D.
Essay
Page
No.
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j.
+
NH4 excretion via gills Use uricolytic pathway Uric acid excretors Filtration driven by cilia Filtration driven by fluid pressure Filtration driven by ion secretion Flow detectors Vasoconstrictor Vasodialator ADH
565-567
1.
Discuss urine formation in Malpighian tubules and cite any similarities with urine formation in the mammalian kidney.
581-582
2.
Describe the effects of the myogenic and tubuloglomular feedback mechanisms on the autoregulation of the GFR.
587-589
3.
Discuss the processes involved in activation and suppression of the rennin-angiotensinaldosterone system (RASS) and the effects it has on the kidney.
607-609
4.
Aging and various diseases result in decreased renal function. Discuss five different ramifications of mammalian renal failure.
597-598
5.
Compare and contrast the role of vasopressin in the dehydration and over hydration mechanisms.
Fluid and Acid-Base Balance A.
Multiple Choice
Key/ Page
No.
d 614
1.
ICF in marine mollusks and crustaceans makes up a. 2/3 b. 90% c. 70% d. 1/3 to 1/2 e. 10%
of the total body water.
a 615
2.
Blood plasma in birds is about a. 40% b. 15% c. 20% d. 70% e. 10%
b 615
3.
In vertebrates a. the ECF and ICF have the same composition. b. the plasma and the interstitial fluid have similar composition. c. the cellular proteins freely permeate into the ECF from ICF. d. the concentration of sodium ions and potassium ions in ECF and ICF is the same. e. all these.
c 615
4.
Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. In the ECF, Na+ is accompanied primarily by Cl- and to a lesser extent by HCO 3-. b. In the ICF K+ is accompanied by PO 43-. c. In most organisms Na+ is the primary ion in the ICF. d. A fluid compartment found in all animals is produced by the digestive tract. e. All plasma constituents except proteins are freely exchanged between plasma and interstitial fluid.
a 615
5.
The net transfer of water between the interstitial fluid and ICF across the plasma membrane a. is mainly due to the difference in the osmotic force between the ICF and the interstitial fluid. b. is controlled by the channel proteins in the plasma membrane. c. is primarily due to the difference in the hydrostatic pressure between ICF and the interstitial fluid. d. all these. e. none of these.
of the ECF.
d 616
6.
When sodium ions enter a cell a. osmotic pressure of the cell increases. b. water molecules accompany sodium ions. c. the cell becomes swollen. d. all these. e. none of these.
b 617
7.
Insects prevent water loss and disturbance in the osmotic balance in cells by a. having a water-proof cell wall around each cell. b. having a cuticle that makes the body water-proof. c. having an outer epidermis made of keratinized cells. d. having equal concentration of molecules in ECF and ICF.
c 618, 619
8.
Which of the following is NOT correctly paired? a. organic osmolytes and compatible solutes b. counteracting solute and TMAO c. methylamine and proline d. carbohydrate and myo-inositol e. none of these.
c 617
9.
To overcome long-term osmotic challenges caused by osmotic changes in the external environment, osmoconformers a. raise their cellular content of sodium, potassium and chloride ions. b. lower the level of sodium, potassium and chloride ions in the ICF. c. raise the osmotic pressure of ICF by raising the level of organic osmolytes. d. raise intracellular ion content and ICF osmotic pressure. e. lower ICF ion content and osmotic pressure.
e 617
10.
Important organic osmolytes in marine osmoconformers are a. polyols and sugars. b. glycine and taurine. c. methylamine and methylsulfonium. d. urea. e. all of these.
c 617
11.
Which among the following byproducts of bacterial action on an organic osmolyte in fish is used as an indicator of fish spoilage? a. urea b. ammonia c. trimethylamine (TMA) d. dimethylsufoxide (DMS) e. taurine
b 618
12.
Why do marine osmoconformers use organic osmolytes in their ICF to attain osmotic balance instead of the more easily available inorganic osmolytes such as sodium, potassium and chloride ions? a. because organic osmolytes can be easily absorbed from the sea water b. because organic osmolytes do not disrupt the function of macromolecules c. because the cells can make organic osmolytes without using cellular energy d. because the cells have to use energy to obtain inorganic osmolytes
b 620
13.
Stenohaline osmoconformers such as sea anemones and sea stars a. can tolerate a wide range of osmotic changes in their marine environment. b. have limited tolerance to changes in salinity of the surrounding sea water. c. are adapted to live in marine and fresh water habitats. d. use methylamines and amino acids in ECF to maintain osmotic balance. e. regulate the osmolytes in ICF and ECF in order to survive extreme changes in salinity of sea water.
c 620
14.
Animals living in intertidal zones are a. strict osmoconformers. b. hypo-ionic osmoconformers. c. euryhaline. d. stenohaline. e. not capable of changing the composition of ECF when the osmotic pressure ofsea water changes.
d 621, 622
15.
Marine sharks and rays a. are ureosmotic conformers. b. are hyper-ionic osmoconformers. c. have ICF and ECF with equal or slightly higher osmotic pressure than the sea water. d. two of these. e. all of these.
d 622
16.
In sharks and rays TMAO a. is present in a 2:1 ratio with urea. b. counteracts the toxic effect of urea. c. serves as a hyper-ionic regulator. d. two of these. e. all of these.
c 624
17.
Osmoregulators: a. change the ECF osmotic pressure when osmotic pressure in the surrounding water changes. b. have to regulate ICF organic osmolytes to counteract cell volume changes. c. maintain a relatively steady ECF osmotic pressure even when the osmotic pressure changes in the external environment. d. are hyperosmotic in marine environments. e. are hypo-osmotic in freshwater environments..
d 630
18.
Muscle is about water. a. 25% b. 45% c. 60% d. 75% e. None of these.
e 626
19.
Fresh water vertebrates a. are hyper-osmotic regulators. b. produce large volumes of hypotonic urine. c. maintain lower internal osmolarities in order to minimize water intake. d. are adapted to take in ions of sodium, chlorine and calcium by means of gills, chloride cells and moist skin. e. all these.
e 628, 629
20.
In osmoregulators such as mammals a. the osmotic balance between the ECF and the ICF is carefully monitored and controlled by the kidneys. b. cells will lose water if the ECF becomes hypertonic. c. some cells exhibit RVI (regulatory volume increase) as a way of compensating water loss when the ECF becomes hypertonic. d. the ICF is influenced by changes in the ECF. e. all of these.
e 629
21.
Camels are perfectly adapted to desert conditions because a. they can tolerate up to 30% loss of body water without any severe consequences. b. they can slow down their metabolism when dehydration causes hypertonicity of ECF. c. they have the ability to maintain plasma volume at the same homeostatic range even when the interstitial fluid becomes hypertonic. d. their body cells do not go into osmotic shock when they drink water rapidly after prolonged dehydration. e. all of these.
e 631
22.
Vasopressin and thirst are inhibited when a. ECF increases. b. plasma volume increases. c. arterial blood pressure is raised. d. ECF and plasma volumes increase e. all of these.
d 631
23.
Increase in ECF osmolarity a. stimulates the osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus and causes the release of vasopressin (ADH). b. may decrease systemic blood pressure. c. may cause vasodilation in order to increase arterial blood pressure. d. may cause the release of vasopressin and a decrease in systemic blood pressure. e. may decrease systemic blood pressure and cause vasodilation.
b 632
24.
ECF volume is directly dependent on the total quantity of which of the following salts in the body? a. salts of potassium b. salts of sodium c. salts of calcium d. salts of magnesium e. all of these equally.
b 632
25.
Mammalian herbivores a. have more K+ ions than Na+ ions in their ECF. b. swap Na+ for K+ in the distal tubule secretion. c. drink more water than carnivores. d. have more K+ ions than Na+ ions in their ECF and swap Na+ for K+ in the distal tubule secretion. e. swap Na+ for K+ in the distal tubule secretion and drink more water than carnivores.
d 633
26.
The most important factor regulating the mammalian ECF volume and blood pressure is a. vasopressin. b. thirst. c. increase of Na+ ions in ECF. d. renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. e. decrease of K+ ions in ECF.
b 637
27.
pH of arterial blood is slightly higher than that of venous blood because a. arterial blood has more hydrogen ions. b. arterial blood has less acidic metabolites such as carbon dioxide and lactic acid. c. venous blood has less carbon dioxide. d. arterial blood always has more oxygen. e. of the H+ ions generated during the formation of HCO 3-.
e 637, 638
28.
Acidosis in humans a. results when blood pH goes below 7.35. b. reduces oxygen delivery to cells by hemoglobin. c. depresses the central nervous system, and may lead to coma and death. d. two of these. e. all of these.
e 638
29.
When [H+] in the blood increases from the optimum a. kidney (renal) tubules remove hydrogen ions by tubular secretion. b. kidney tubules retain more potassium ions than what the body needs. c. retained potassium ions adversely affect cardiac functions. d. kidney tubules secrete H+ and absorb K+. e. all of these.
d 639
30.
The major source of hydrogen ions in the body is a. dietary intake of acids such citric acid and acetic acids. b. phosphoric acids and sulfuric acids formed by protein metabolism. c. fatty acid metabolites such as keto acids. d. carbon dioxide produced by cellular respiration. e. hydrochloric acid produced by gastric glands.
c 640
31.
The most effective chemical buffer in ECF is a. hemoglobin. b. peptide buffers. c. carbon dioxide-bicarbonate buffers. d. phosphate buffers. e. Lactate buffers.
b 641
32.
Buffering of lactic acid produced during anaerobic glycolysis in the Painted Turtle (Chrysemys picta) during winter is by a. the carbon dioxide-carbonic acid buffers. b. the massive shell of the turtle. c. the phosphate buffers. d. the protein buffers. e. all of these.
c 640
33.
The primary erythrocyte buffer for carbonic acid changes a. is phosphates. b. is histidine. c. is hemoglobin. d. is dipeptides. e. all of these.
e 642
34.
Phosphate buffer a. is an important ECF buffer. b. is a urinary buffer. c. is an intracellular buffer. d. is an important ECF buffer and an intracellular buffer. e. is a urinary buffer and an ICF buffer.
e 643
35.
Which of the following is NOT correctly paired? a. distal tubule and intercalated cells b. Type A intercalated cells and H+ secretion c. Type A intercalated cells and HCO 3- reabsorption d. proximal tubule and H+ secretion e. fish gills and H+ ATPase pumps
e 645, 646
36.
Kidneys maintain acid-base balance in the body by a. removing hydrogen ions from all the sources in the body. b. excreting bicarbonate ions rapidly when acidity of body fluid decreases. c. secreting ammonia into the urine. d. removing hydrogen ions and secreting ammonia into the urine. e. removing hydrogen ions, secreting ammonia into the urine, and excreting bicarbonate ions when body fluid acidity decreases.
a 645
37.
During acidosis, the renal tubules: a. secrete more hydrogen ions into the filtrate. b. filter out more bicarbonate ions from blood. c. retain more hydrogen ions in blood. d. reabsorb less bicarbonates from the filtrate. e. two of these.
d 645, 646
38.
During alkalosis, the renal tubules a. secrete less hydrogen into the filtrate. b. filter out more bicarbonate ions from blood into the filtrate. c. reabsorb very little bicarbonate ions from the filtrate. d. all of these. e. none of these.
e 647
39.
Respiratory alkalosis a. is caused by hypoventilation. b. is caused by hyperventilation. c. may result from fever, anxiety, toxins and high altitude. d. is caused by hypoventilation and may result from fever, anxiety, toxins and high altitude. e. is caused by hyperventilation and may result from fever, anxiety, toxins and high altitude.
e 649
40.
Severe diarrhea causes metabolic acidosis because a. the body loses large quantities of hydrogen ions. b. the digestive system fails to reabsorb the bicarbonate ions secreted into the digestive tube by the digestive glands. c. less hydrogen ions will be buffered by bicarbonate ions. d. the body loses large quantities of hydrogen ions and the digestive system fails to reabsorb the bicarbonate ions secreted into the digestive tube by the digestive glands e. the digestive system fails to reabsorb the bicarbonate ions secreted into the digestive tube by the digestive glands and less hydrogen ions will be buffered by bicarbonate ions.
B.
True or False
True 615
1.
Transcellular fluids consist of a number of small specialized fluid volumes that are secreted by specific cells into a particular cavity to perform some specialized function.
False 615
2.
Mammalian cerebrospinal fluid decreases in volume when the body as a whole is experiencing a negative water balance.
True 626
3.
Hyperosmotic regulation is found in all freshwater animals.
False 626
4.
Freshwater animals have more NaCl in the ECF and little or no amino acid osmolyes in the ICF.
True 629
5.
An animal with abnormally low sodium levels is suffering from hyponatremia
True 630
6.
Insects and arachnids get water from water vapor in humid air.
False 638
7.
A cold water fish will have a lower internal pH than a warm water fish.
True 643
8.
Insects have a feedforward activity for regulating pH in anticipation of increased activity.
False 647
9.
Anytime the [HCO3-]/[CO 2] ratio falls below 10:1, an acidosis exists.
True 643
10.
Excretory organs are the third line of defense against changes in [H+].
C.
Matching
1. 2. 3.
Trimethalamine (TMA) DMSP (dimethyl sulfonopropionate) Stenohaline
a. b. c.
4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
Euryhaline Hyperosmotic regulators Hyposomotic regulators Uremic acidosis Carbonic anhydrase
d. e. f. g. h.
9. 10.
Chloride cells Salt glands
i. j.
D.
Essay
Severe renal failure Excretion of salt by marine birds and reptiles Mediates interconversion of CO2 and bicarbonates in RBC Fish odor Special cells in the gills of marine fish Decaying sea weeds Strict osmoconformers Osmoregulators with tolerance for different salinities Fresh water organisms Marine bony fishes
Page
No.
621 - 625
1.
Citing examples, describe the differences between hypo-ionic osmoconformers and hypo-osmotic osmoregulators. Your answer should specify how each group attains osmotic balance.
620 - 621
2.
How do stenohaline organisms maintain osmotic balance between their body fluid and the sea water surrounding them? Why do stenohaline organisms die when placed in fresh water?
624, 625 632, 633
3.
Compare and contrast sodium handling by chloride cells with sodium handling in the mammalian kidney.
617 - 619
4.
Compare and contrast the use of compatible and counteracting organic osmolytes by osmoconformers and discuss the impact these substances have on ECF and ICF.
647 - 650
5.
Compare and contrast respiratory alkalosis and metabolic alkalosis. Include in your discussion any causes, effects, and compensatory mechanisms that might occur in these situations.
Digestive Systems A.
Multiple Choice
Key/ Page
No.
e 657
1.
The absorbable unit of carbohydrates is a. glucose. b. fructose. c. galactose. d. glucose or fructose. e. all of these.
b 657
2.
The most important carbohydrate for flight in insects is a double glucose molecule called a. maltose. b. trehalose. c. galactose. d. fructose. e. insectose.
e 660
3.
In the digestive system, autonomous smooth muscle activity a. involves slow-wave potentials. b. involves a basic electrical rhythm initiated by pacesetter cells. c. is initiated by the interstitial cells of Cajal. d. is initiated by cells in the boundary between circular and longitudinal muscle. e. all of these.
c 659, 660
4.
Which of the following are paired incorrectly? a. voltage-gated Ca+ channels and slow-wave action potentials in smooth muscle b. intestinal smooth muscle and a syncytium c. spiral valve and teleost fish d. salivary glands and metazoans e. peristalsis and rumen
d 658, 659
5.
Which of the following is not part of the digestive tract? a. small intestine b. gall bladder c. esophagus d. spleen e. exocrine pancreas
e 658
6.
The crop and proventriculus are parts of the a. midgut. b. foregut. c. stomodaeum. d. stomoach. e. stomodaeum also known as the foregut. Reviewer is not totally correct here
c 660
7.
Which of the following is not an example of a digestive contractile activity? a. peristalsis b. segmentation c. threshold contractions d. haustral contractions e. none of these
e 661
8.
External neural and hormonal regulation are ways to modulate a. smooth muscle and glands directly. b. the nerve plexuses. c. smooth muscle only. d. glands only. e. all of these.
d 661
9.
The intrinsic nerve plexus refers to the a. enteric nervous system. b. myenteric plexus. c. submucous plexus. d. all of these.
c 660
10.
Which of the following receptor types is not found in the digestive tract? a. chemoreceptor b. osmoreceptor c. proprioceptors d. mechanoreceptor e. none of these.
e 664
11.
Which of the following is a function of saliva? a. antibacterial action b. acid neutralizing c. thermoregulation d. antocoagulation e. all of these
b 665
12.
What type of salivary reflex would be triggered by a pavlovian stimuli? a. simple b. conditioned c. unconditioned d. two of these.
d 667
13.
Which of the following is not an activity which prevents food from entering the trachea or nasal passage? a. inhibition of respiration b. elevation of the larynx c. positioning of the tongue against the hard palate d. contraction of the pharyngeal muscles e. elevation of the uvula
e 668
14.
Which of the following is NOT a gas associated with ruminants? a. nitrogen b. hydrogen sulfide c. oxygen d. methane e. none of these
a 668
15.
Achalasia a. is a condition in which the lower esophageal sphincter closes more tightly during swallowing. b. is a condition in the ruminant stomach which prevents the pyloric sphincter from opening and closing properly. c. refers to the incomplete digestion of protein by ruminants. d. is the protection from ingested toxins provided by the epithelium lining of the intestinal tract. e. none of these.
a 658, 670
16.
In arthropods the midgut is also referred to as the a. mesenteron b. antrum c. corpus d. filter chamber e. proctodaeum
b 673
17.
What is the result of high acidity in the duodenum? a. decreased acid production by the stomach b. inhibition of further emptying of stomach c. activation of pancreatic digestive enzymes d. inhibition of NaHCO3 production e. increased peristaltic activity
d 673
18.
Which of the following factors influences the rate of gastric emptying in response to changes in osmolarity? a. fat in the chyme b. distention of the stomach c. acididity of chyme d. hypertonicity of the duodenal lumen
a 675
19.
Which of the following secretes pepsinogen, which in turn initiates protein digestion? a. chief cells b. mucous cells c. parietal cells d. G cells HCl is not involved in a. protein denaturation. b. digestion of connective tissue and muscle. c. D cell activation. d. pepsin activation. e. antimicrobial activity.
c 677
20.
a 678
21.
Control of gastric secretion in response to food related stimuli acting on the brain occurs in what phase? a. cephalic phase b. gastric phase c. intestinal phase d. all of these
d 682, 683
22.
Which of the following pancreatic enzymes contributes to carbohydrate digestion? a. amylase b. chitinase c. carboxypeptidase d. amylase and chitinase e. all of these
e 685
23.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver? a. vitamin C synthesis b. gluconeogenesis c. storage of iron d. buoyancy This is a part of the list for liver functions in the book. e. none of these
d 690, 691
24.
Which of the following layers of the digestive tract wall is a sparse layer of smooth muscle? a. sub mucosa b. mucosa c. lamina propria d. muscularis mucosa e. serosa
d 689
25.
Which of the following does not form part of a micelle? a. lecithin b. bile salt c. cholesterol d. hydrophilic core e. hydrophilic shell
a 695
26.
Which enzyme is responsible for the hydrolysis of protein to peptide fragments? a. pepsin b. trypsin c. aminopepsidase d. amylase e. maltase
a 695
27.
Which enzyme is active at the small intestine brush border? a. aminopepsidase b. lipase c. chymotrypsin d. pepsin e. invertase
e 696 – 698
28.
Which of the following is absorbed by secondary active transport? a. glucose b. galactose c. amino acids d. glucose and amino acids e. all of these
e 696
29.
Nonruminats absorb about a. 5 to 10 b. 10 to 20 c. 10 to 30 d. 20 to 30 e. 20 to 40
d 707
30.
Hardware disease a. occurs when ruminants swallow foreign objects that penetrate the reticulum allowing bacteria to escape. b. can lead to peritonitis. c. can occur because ruminants chew the regurgitated cud instead of swallowing their food a single time. d. two of these e. all of these.
a 705
31.
The difference between the ruminant and pseudoruminant digestive system is that a. the pseudoruminant stomach lacks the omasum. b. the pseudoruminant stomach lacks the pregastric region. c. the pseudoruminant stomach lacks the reticulum. d. the pseudoruminant stomach has four compartments. e. the pseudoruminant reticulum is the site of nutrient absorption.
grams of endogenous proteins a day.
e 711, 712
32.
Which of the following hormons is NOT correctly paired with its function? a. GIP and stimulation of insulin release b. CCK and stimulating release of pancreatic enzymes c. secretin and stimulation of NaHCO 3d. gastrin and stimulation of ileal motility e. ghrelin and stimulation of the release of growth hormone from the posterior pituitary
c 701
33.
Which of the following is not a result of diarrhea? a. dehydration b. loss of nutrient material c. increased production of HCl d. metabolic acidosis e. elimination of harmful material
a 702
34.
Which of the following is not a function of the large intestine? a. digestion at the brush border b. electrolyte and fluid balance c. site of microbial fermentation d. volatile fatty acid production e. temporary excreta storage
c 696
35.
Which of the following constitutes part of the endogenous proteins that enter the digestive system? a. plant protein b. animal protein c. digestive enzymes d. none of these
e 692
36.
Which of the following is not a component of the villus? a. terminal lymphatic vessel b. capillary network c. epithelial cell covering d. central lacteal e. none of these
d 675, 676
37.
Which cells secrete gastrin? a. oxyntic cells b. ECL cells c. D cells d. G cells
e 671
38.
Gastric mixing involves which of the following? a. partially open pyloric sphincter b. closed pyloric sphincter c. propulsion of chyme through duodenum d. strong antral peristaltic contractions e. two of these
c 671
39.
Where does gastric mixing take place? a. body of the stomach b. fundus of the stomach c. antrum of the stomach d. duodenum of the small intestine after the entrance of chime from the stomach
e 672
40.
Which of the following factors influence gastric emptying? a. amount of chyme b. fluidity of chyme c. impulses along the intrinsic plexuses d. impulses along the vagus nerve e. all of these
B.
True or False
True 653
1.
Until nutrients are absorbed, they are not considered to be inside the body even though they are inside the digestive tract.
True 657
2.
Waxes are a common lipid in marine food chains
False 668
3.
The crop is a modified region of the pharynx.
False 668
4.
The gastroesophageal sphincter guards the upper opening of the esophagus.
True 669
5.
Epithelial cells lining the crop of some birds respond to the hormone prolactin.
True 669
6.
Some birds have structures that act as a modified rumen because they contain bacteria that that detoxifies harmful alkaloids.
False 677
7.
The alligator has one of the lowest alkaline tides (buildup of HCO 3- in the blood as a result of HCl being secreted into the stomach).
False 658
8.
The ruminant intestinal tract contains may different types of bacteria including Taeniae coli.
True 699
9.
Fat soluble vitamins are carried in micelles and passively absorbed with the end products of fat digestion in the small intestine.
True 705
10.
The omasum is the smallest chamber of the ruminant stomach.
C.
Matching (correct answers are aligned with each number; e.g., #1 matches with letter a)
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
acetylcholine Nitric oxide Salivary amylase Lingual lipase Invertase Lysozyme ectoperitrophic endopertrophic Cholecysokinin secretin
D.
Essay
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j.
Promotes smooth muscle contraction Promotes smooth muscle relaxation Starch digestion Lipid digestion Sugar digestion Bacterial digestion Outer lumen Inner lumen Regulates gall bladder contraction Secreted in response to high duodenum acidity
Page
No.
678 - 680
1.
Gastric secretion involves three stages of stimulation and regulation. Compare and contrast the events that occur during the cephalic phase of gastric secretion with those that occur during the gastric phase.
684
2.
Secretin and CCK are involved in the regulation of pancreatic secretions. Discuss the affects of each of these hormones on the pancrease.
665, 666
3.
Compare and contrast simple and conditioned reflexes on salivary secretions. How is the autonomic nervous system involved in salivary secretions?
696 - 699
4.
Discuss the breakdown and absorption of proteins in the vertebrate small intestine.
707 - 710
5.
The ruminant digestive tract contains many different types of microbes. Discuss the role these microbes play in ruminant nutrition.
Energy Balance and Thermal Physiology A.
Multiple Choice
Key/ Page
No.
b 716
1.
Which of the following statements about energy is NOT correct? a. Energy is subject to an input-output balance similar to that for water. b. An example of internal work is the energy expended by muscles to lift a heavy object. c. Almost 75% of nutrient energy is lost as heat and not used to do work. d. Energy is normally expressed in terms of heat energy. e. none of these.
e 716, 719
2.
Which of the following is not correctly paired? a. chemical energy in ATP and kinetic energy of locomotion b. standard metabolic rate and resting metabolic rate c. basal metabolic rate and thermal neutral zone d. field metabolic rate and average metabolic expenditure over time e. endotherms and amphibians
e 720
3.
Metabolic scope measurements a. are measured during periods of aerobic activity. b. involve the use of treadmills. c. are an indicator of an animal’s activity capacity. d. are the ratio of metabolic rate to SMR. e. two of these.
a 722
4.
Obligatory diet-induced thermogenesis activity a. results from an increase in metabolic activity associated with processes occurring in the gut. b. is the increase in heat production that occurs after a meal c. has historically been studied in endotherms. d. is affected by the amount of food an animal consumes. e. all of these.
b 717
5.
Diet-induced thermogenesis a. is the generation of heat to compensate for sudden weight loss associated with dieting. b. is an increase in metabolic rate due to the energy expenditures associated with feeding and digestion. c. is the generation of heat associated with "fat-burning" diets. d. offsets the energy expenditures associated with SMR and BMR. e. involves both internal and external work.
a 719
6.
With respect to thermal adaptation, amphibians are considered to be a. ectothermic. b. endergonic. c. exergonic. d. endothermic. e. homeothermic.
d 719
7.
The minimal metabolic activity required to maintain bodily functions in a mammal is known as the a. resting metabolic rate. b. standard metabolic rate. c. minimal metabolic rate. d. basal metabolic rate. e. none of these.
d 720
8.
The fact that large animals typically have lower basal metabolic rates than smaller animals can be explained by a. their larger size which means they have more surface area for absorbing radiant energy, so they require less metabolic energy to stay warm. b. their larger size which makes them less susceptible to predation, so they don't have to use energy to escape from predators. c. their greater weight which makes them less inclined to move, so they expend less energy in locomotion. d. their lower surface to volume ratio which means they lose a lesser percentage of their energy to the environment. e. none of these.
d 717
9.
The "animal energy equation" for endotherms states that Einput-Eloss= EBMR+Eproduction+Eactivity+EDIT. In this equation, Eloss refers to a. thermal energy given off as a consequence of the first law of thermodynamics. b. thermal energy given off as a consequence of the second law of thermodynamics. c. thermal energy given off as a consequence of dietary intake. d. potential energy given off in the form of undigested foodstuffs (feces), sloughed skin, hair or other body products. e. none of these.
c 717
10.
If a reduction of body mass is one's goal, then the factor in the animal energy equation one would most like to is . a. decrease; EBMR b. decrease; Eloss c. decrease; Eproduction d. increase; Eproduction e. increase; Einput
a 729
11.
Uncoupling proteins function in maintaining long-term neutral energy balance by a. uncoupling electron transport in mitochondria from ATP production. b. uncoupling glycolysis from ATP production. c. uncoupling food intake from nutrient uptake in the gut. d. all of these. e. none of these.
d 720
12.
BMR a. b. c. d.
e 724
13.
Which of the following has the highest rate of energy expenditure? a. sexual intercourse b. bicycling on a level surface c. swimming d. jogging e. walking up stairs
e 728
14.
Ghrelin and obestatin a. are secreted by the digestive tract. b. arise from the same gene. c. arise from the same protein. d. are secreted by the digestive tract and arise from the same gene. e. all of these.
b 728
15.
Which of the following does not function in decreasing appetite? a. cholecystokinin (CCK) b. ghrelin c. corticotropin releasing hormone d. PYY3-36 e. insulin
is regulated by thyroid hormones. is affected by bile acids. is affected by the amount of fat in the diet. all of these.
b 726
16.
Leptin stimulates the hypothalamus to secrete appetite. a. -MSH; stimulate b. -MSH; suppress c. melanocortin; stimulate d. melanocortin; suppress e. none of these.
, which in turn acts to
a 731
17.
Which of the following animals would you expect to have the most unsaturated fatty acyl chains in the plasma membranes of its cells? a. arctic fish b. penguins c. polar bears d. tropical fish e. pelicans
a 732
18.
Skeletal muscle myosin from lizard shows maximal ATPase activity over a wide range of temperatures. This is due to the fact that a. in poikilothermic organisms, muscles must function over a broad range of temperatures, and myosin ATPase activity is essential for muscle function. b. at lower temperatures, myosin can uncouple from actin, and the ATPase activity can be used to generate heat without locomotion, allowing the lizard to warm up metabolically. c. both of these. d. neither of these.
d 733
19.
Metabolic thermoregulators are considered since they rely on (bio)chemical reactions to maintain their body temperature when they are losing heat to the environment. a. ectothermic b. endergonic c. poikilothermic d. endothermic e. homeothermic
e 734
20.
When elephants get hot, they flap their ears. This works nicely as a mechanism for heat loss because a. the large surface to volume ratio of the ear favors loss of heat to the environment. b. the flapping favors heat loss by conduction. c. the flapping favors heat loss by convection. d. the flapping favors heat loss by evaporation. e. all of these.
c 734
21.
While working outside on a hot day the wind blows making you feel cooler. This is most likely due to heat loss through a. conduction. b. convection. c. evaporation. d. radiation. e. metabolism.
e 739
22.
Some ecotherms survive freezing despite the fact that as much as water freezes. a. 25% b. 45% c. 50% d. 65% e. 80%
c 733, 737
23.
Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. Some ectotherms can regulate their body temperature as efficiently as a mammal. b. Ectothermic regulators may also be poikilotherms. c. Endotherms gain all their heat from internal, biochemical reactions. d. Some poikilotherms are homeotherms. e. None of these.
d 739
24.
Peeper frogs freeze during the winter. As they begin to freeze, their livers break down glycogen and release glucose into the blood, which can then be taken up into cells. This provides a benefit to the frog in that a. plasma glucose acts as a cryoprotectant by lowering the freezing point of the extracellular fluid. b. cellular glucose acts as a cryoprotectant by lowering the freezing point of the intracellular fluid. c. cellular glucose is readily available for glycolysis once the frog thaws. d. all of these. e. none of these.
d 739
25.
Animals that practice freeze avoidance have antifreeze proteins which a. lower the freezing point of plasma due to their colligative properties. b. raise the melting point of plasma ice due to their colligative properties. c. nucleate the formation of ice crystals in the extracellular fluid. d. interact with ice crystals to prevent their growth. e. none of these.
of their body
e 740
26.
Heat shock proteins a. are also known as stress proteins. b. are hydrophobic proteins. c. are attracted to hydrophobic amino acids normally located on the inside of folded proteins. d. are also called molecular chaperones. e. all of these.
b 743
27.
Polar bears have black skin. This characteristic helps them deal with cold stress by a. increasing the amount of air trapped next to the skin. b. increasing the absorption of radiant energy from the sun. c. increasing the insulation provided by subcutaneous fat. d. reducing heat loss by restricting blood flow to the skin.
c 743
28.
Vasoconstriction helps an animal retain heat by a. generating heat through the metabolic activity of the vascular musculature. b. causing piloerection, which increases the amount of air (a poor thermal conductor) trapped next to the skin. c. directing blood away from the body surface, avoiding the transfer of heat from the blood to the environment. d. causing the skin of the animal to blanch, increasing the ability of radiant energy to penetrate to the animal's core. e. none of these.
e 734, 738
29.
The advantage of shivering over other forms of muscle activity (like running) as a means of thermogenesis is a. shivering increases ATP use and heat production without increasing heat loss due to convection. b. with shivering all the energy expended is released as heat since no work is done. c. shivering increases ATP use and heat production without increasing heat loss due to conduction. d. shivering increases ATP use and heat production without increasing heat loss by either convection or conduction. e. all of these.
e 747
30.
Small desert mammals are often osmotically stressed in addition to being heat stressed; therefore they will want to a. avoid heat loss by evaporative cooling and instead employ heat storage mechanisms to deal with heat stress. b. avoid heat loss by evaporative cooling and instead burrow to seek cooler microclimates. c. avoid heat loss by evaporative cooling and instead restrict their activity to night when ambient temperatures are cooler. d. avoid heat loss by entering into extended periods of sleep and inactivity during the summer (estivation) which is similar to hibernation by some animals in the winter. e. avoid heat loss by evaporative cooling by burrowing and restricting activity to times with cooler temperatures.
c 747
31.
When a bird ruffles its feathers in response to heat stress it a. permits convective currents to carry heat away from the body surface. b. permits exchange of air with 100% humidity for air with lower humidity, enabling evaporative cooling to occur. c. both of these. d. neither of these.
d 748
32.
The thermal neutral zone (TNZ) is a. range of environmental temperatures when the animal does not need to expend large amounts of energy on thermoregulation. b. the body temperatures which an animal maintains while at its basal metabolic rate. c. the range in environmental temperatures where mechanisms involving insulation are sufficient. d. two of these. e. all of these.
c 748
33.
In birds, the hypothalamus does not a. stimulate shivering. b. stimulate panting. c. stimulate erection of plumage. d. none of these.
A 748
34.
The ambient temperature at which metabolism increases to cope with heat loss to the environment is called the a. lower critical temperature. b. critical neutral temperature. c. upper critical temperature.
d 750
35.
Fever a. b. c. d. e.
c 750
36.
Regional heterotherms are animals that are a. ectotherms in certain parts of their range and endotherms in other parts of their range. b. endotherms that only practice thermogenesis in certain strata of their habitat. c. endothermic, but only in specific tissues of their body. d. two of these. e. all of these.
e 751
37.
For reasons that are uncertain, hibernating animals periodically rewarm and recool during the hibernation period. It is thought that this is because a. they need to void wastes. b. they need to eat a little to restore glycogen stores, especially in their brains. c. they need to rewarm to activate their immune systems in case they've become infected. d. two of these. e. all of these.
a 719
38.
Minimal metabolic rate is measured a. at the optimal temperature for the organism. b. during sleep. c. with diet-induced thermogenesis subtracted from the final value. d. two of these. e. all of these.
a 721
39.
For running mammals a. the increase in metabolism is roughly linear with velocity. b. the increase in metabolism is inversely related to velocity. c. the increase in metabolic rate is independent of velocity.
d 753
40.
Naked mole rats are unusual mammals that a. have no hair. b. produce young parthenogenically. c. don't nurse their young. d. are ectothermic. e. don't regulate body mass.
is a hypothalamic response to pyrogens released by white blood cells. is a pathological response to combat infections. is a poorly understood mechanism to fight disease. two of these. all of these.
B.
True or False
True 716
1.
According to the second law of thermodynamics, as life become more organized the environment becomes disorganized.
False 720
2.
BMR and SMR are constant for a species.
True 726
3.
Leptin signaling is the dominant factor responsible for long-term balance of total body energy.
False 740
4.
Cryoprotective dehydration allows cells to freeze without ice crystal buildup inside the cells.
True 725
5.
Adipocytes secrete messengers called adipokines one of which is adiponectin.
False 717
6.
The joule is the international unit for one calorie.
True 719
7.
Respirometry can be used to measure minimal metabolic rate.
True 732
8.
The membranes of a warm-adapted organism generally contain saturated fatty acids.
False 736
9.
Poikilothermic ectotherms that live in thermally variable environments manage to maintain a relatively stable body temperature.
True 744
10.
One of the ways that birds retain internal heat involves behavioral insulation.
C.
Matching (correct answers are aligned with each number; e.g., #1 matches with letter a)
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Leptin Ghrelin Heat retention Heat acquisition Poikilotherm Homeotherm Water Air Rete mirabile Regional heterothermy
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j.
hibernation stomach feathers dark surface variable body temperature constant body temperature high thermal conductivity low thermal conductivity heat exchange endothermic animals
D.
Essay
Page
No.
718
1.
Based on your knowledge of the chemical structure of carbohydrates and fats, explain why the respiratory quotient (ratio of the volume of CO2 produced per volume O2 consumed) is higher for the former than the latter.
750, 751
2.
Citing examples of each, compare and contrast torpor with hibernation.
730
3.
Many biological processes, e.g. enzyme-catalyzed reactions, have a temperature optimum.
Explain why activity increases as temperature rises, reaches a maximum, and then decreases. What is the evolutionary/adaptational significance of the temperature optimum? 724, 725
4.
Discuss the role of the hypothalamus and arcuate nucleus in food intake in mammals.
744, 745
5.
Explain how countercurrent heat exchange is used in maintaining core body temperature.
746 747
6.
There are times during thermoregulation when animals need to generate. Compare and contrast shivering and other muscle activity with nonshivering (chemical) thermogenesis as a means of generating body heat.
Reproductive Systems A.
Multiple Choice
Key/ Page
No.
d 758
1.
A k-selected species a. produces a large number of young. b. provides minimal nourishment to its offspring. c. has low offspring survival. d. demonstrates high parental involvement.
e 758
2.
Which of the following is ovoviviparous? a. some sharks b. all birds c. guppies d. rattlesnakes e. all of these
e 762
3.
Which of the following is not a secondary sexual characteristic? a. colored feathers b. body configuration c. sexual weaponry d. hair distribution e. sensory sensilla
d 762
4.
Birds derive seminal fluid from the a. seminiferous tubules. b. vasa efferentia. c. vas deferens. d. seminiferous tubules and vasa efferentia. e. seminiferous tubules and vas deferens.
d 764
5.
The copulatory plug a. can be found in certain insects. b. prevents semen from escaping from the female reproductive tract. c. lasts until the offspring are born. d. can be found in certain insects and prevents semen from escaping the female reproductive tract. e. all of these.
e 764
6.
Which organ stores sperm in insect reproductive systems? a. ovariole b. ovipositor c. spermatophore d. germarium e. spermatheca
c 765
7.
Juvenille hormone (JH) a. is involved in oogenesis. b. is involved in vitellogenesis. c. is involved in oogenesis and vitellogenesis. d. is not involved in either of these.
b 765
8.
Gametogenesis is accomplished through a. mitosis. b. meiosis. c. binary fission. d. mitosis and meiosis. e. all of these.
c 767
9.
In mammals, gonadal differentiation is determined by a. genotypic sex. b. gonadal sex. c. the presence or absence of the Y chromosome. d. the presence or absence of the X chromosome. e. the presence or absence of specific hormones.
c 767
10.
What effect does the presence of Mullerian inhibiting substance have on fetal development? a. development of male organs b. development of Wolffian ducts c. degeneration of Mullerian ducts d. development of female organs e. none of these
a 772
11.
Before birth testosterone is responsible for a. promoting the descent of testes. b. maintenance of the reproductive tract. c. controlling gonadotropin secretion. d. all of these.
e 773
12.
Testosterone a. stimulates bone growth. b. prevents bone growth by stimulating the closure of the growth plates. c. has an effect on aggression in males. d. two of these. e. all of these.
d 775
13.
The acrosome of the mammalian spermatozoa is a. an enzyme containing vesicle. b. responsible for lysing the outer egg covering. c. a derivative of the golgi. d. all of these.
e 775, 776
14.
Sertoli cells a. are epithelial cells. b. span the distance from the outer membrane of the tubule to the lumen. c. are joined by tight junctions. d. form gap junctions with the developing sperm. e. all of these.
a 779
15.
Which of the following secrete an alkaline fluid that increases sperm viability? a. prostate gland b. vesicular glands c. bulbourethral glands d. seminal vesicles
b 786
16.
Primary oocytes are a. haploid. b. diploid. c. anovulatory. d. released from the primary follicle.
b 787
17.
The first meiotic division of the primary oocyte is completed a. after fertilization. b. before ovulation. c. after ovulation. d. in the fallopian tube. e. in the uterus.
e 786
18.
Which of the following constitutes the primordial follicle? a. primary oocyte b. polar body c. granulosa cells d. primary oocyte and polar body e. primary oocyte and granulose cells
a 791
19.
Which of the following hormones is responsible for causing the differentiation of follicular cells and the formation of a mature follicle? a. LH b. FSH c. GnRH d. Oocyte maturation-inhibition substance
c 800
20
Which of the following proteins binds to egg ZP3 to ensure species recognition during fertilization? a. allurin b. inhibin c. fertilin d. esstradiol e. none of these
b 791
21.
The LH surge associated with ovulation is triggered by a. a rise in progesterone levels. b. a positive feedback cycle with estrogen. c. a negative feedback cycle with FSH. d. changes in the follicle as it transitions to the corpus luteum.
a 777
22.
Which of the following hormones passes the blood brain barrier and is converted to estradiol? a. testosterone b. androgen c. aromatase d. estrogen
d 803
23.
Rejection of the embryo/fetus a. is blocked by Fas ligand binding to cytotoxic T cells causing apoptosis of these cells. b. is blocked by the destruction of tryptophan. c. is blocked by an increase in the number of regulatory T cells. d. all of these.
c 775
24.
What is the importance of cytoplasmic bridges formed between spermatocytes? a. X bearing sperm cannot produce all cell products necessary for survival of the cell. b. Y bearing cells have a greater amount of chromosomes. c. They permit cytoplasmic exchange between the cells. d. All of these.
d 777
25.
The regulation of testosterone production is a result of LH acting on a. Sertoli cells. b. androgen binding protein. c. follicular cells. d. Leydig cells. e. the hypothalamus.
a 779
26.
Which of the following is not a function of the vesicular glands? a. provides fibrinolysin b. secretion of prostaglandins c. fructose suppliers d. provides the majority of semen volume e. secretion of fibrinogen
e 786
27.
Which of the following is a function of estrogen in the mammalian reproductive system? a. lactation b. sexual receptiveness c. ova maturation d. sperm transport e. all of these
e 785
28.
Which of the following is a type of environmental estrogen? a. EDCs b. androgen c. phsytoestrogen d. EDCs and androgen e. EDCs and phystoestrogen
a 784
29.
The estrous cycle a. occurs in mammals. b. is also referred to as an animal in heat. c. refers to the events that occur in the ovary leading up to and including ovulation. d. lasts about 28 days. e. none of these.
c 790
30.
Which of the following characteristics is indicative of the luteal phase? a. maturing follicles b. reduced secretion of FSH c. corpus luteum d. ovulatory follicle e. formation of antrum
b 791
31.
The LH surge during ovulation does not a. initiate local prostaglandin production. b. stimulate the production of the Graafian follicle. c. end estrogen production by the follicular cell. d. reinitiate meiosis. e. trigger differentiation of follicular cells to luteal cells.
d 794
32.
The hormonal pathway in the reproduction of nonviviparous vertebrates is activated by a. environmental cues. b. day length. c. pheromones. d. all of these. e. none of these.
c 795
33.
What protein is the major precursor of yolk in hen oocyte development? a. LH b. GnRH c. VLDL d. AVT e. GTH-2
a 797
34.
Which of the following describes the asynchronous mode of teleost oocyte development? a. multiple spawners; prolonged season b. multiple spawners; short season c. single spawners; prolonged season d. single spawners, short season e. none of these
c 798
35.
Which of the following has effects similar to LH in teleost reproduction? a. GTH-1 b. MIH c. GTH-2 d. AVT e. GnRH
a 797
36.
Which of the following has effects similar to FSH in teleost reproduction? a. GTH-1 b. MIH c. GTH-2 d. AVT e. GnRH
a 805
37.
Which of the following placental hormones helps direct maternal use of fatty acids? a. placental lactogen b. chorionic gonadotropin c. Progesterone d. estrogen e. PTHrp
b 802
38.
Which developmental form implants in the uterus? a. morula b. blastula c. gastrula d. trophoblast e. blastocoele
c 794
39.
The release of estrogen affects the endometrium by a. loosening the endometrial connective tissue which favors implantation. b. preventing the initiation of the menstrual cycle. c. inducing the production of progesterone receptors. d. inducing growth of endometrial blood vessels. e. inducing the endometrial glands to secrete glycogen for fetal development.
e 785
40.
Which of the following is a source of endocrine disrupting chemicals? a. insecticides b. food preservatives c. plastic softeners d. pesticides e. all of these
B.
True of False
True 758
1.
Some fish and arthropods have micropiles by which sperm reach the ovum.
False 759
2.
Rat pups, which are considered to be precocial, are dependent upon parental care for survival.
True 764
3.
The infundibulum is actively involved in “catching” the egg released from the ovary.
False 772
4.
P450 aromatase is responsible for feminization of the hypothalamus so that a female pattern of hormone secretion occurs.
True 775
5.
The X chromosome and not the Y chromosome codes for cellular products essential for sperm development.
True 780
6.
In lizards and snakes the penis is an extension of the cloaca.
False 791
7.
Tonic LH secretion is reduced to low frequency by increasing concentrations of FSH.
True 782
8.
The erection reflex is a spinal reflex.
False 794
9.
A subnormal luteal phase is defined by low secretion of estrogen.
True 802
10.
The outermost layer of the blastocyst, the trophoectoderm, is responsible for accomplishing implantation.
C.
Matching (correct answers are aligned with each number; e.g., #1 matches with letter a)
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Rheostasis Oviparity Ovoviviparity Viviparity Anestrus Parthenogenesis Protoandry Protogyny Freemartin Atresia
C.
Essay
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j.
Regulated changes Egg laying Eggs within body Live birth, no egg Reproductive quiescence Development without fertilization Male becomes female Female becomes male Infertile Follicle degeneration
Page
No.
766, 767
1.
Sex determination is not the same for all organisms. Discuss sex determination in birds, nonavian reptiles, urodele amphibians, and insects.
760, 761
2.
Discuss how seasonal breeding, synchronization, and mating behaviors are important factors in animal reproduction.
791-794 776, 777
3.
Compare and contrast the role of FSH and LH in the male and female reproductive systems.
811, 812
4.
Discuss the involvement of the hormones prolactin and oxytocin in the lactation process of mammals.
786-790
5.
List the steps associated follicular development of the oocyte from its formation to its degeneration or formation as the corpus luteum of pregnancy.