TEST BANK for Biology: The Dynamic Science 5th Edition Russell & McMillan. ISBN: 9780357706947. by StudyGuide

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Chap 01_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. Much of our understanding of how large organisms respond to environmental variation is based on observations of model species. 2. Protists do not constitute a kingdom because they do not share a unique common ancestor. 3. The process by which producers harness electromagnetic energy and convert it into chemical energy is cellular respiration. 4. Internal body temperature in humans is regulated primarily by behavioral mechanisms. 5. The process by which RNA is converted into protein is called transcription. 6. Favorable mutations may produce adaptations. 7. Although Darwin and Wallace understood the central importance of heritability among organisms to the process of evolution, they could not explain how new variations arose or how they were passed to the next generation. 8. The example of an adaptation provided by the rock pocket mice illustrates the observation that genetic differences often develop between individuals. 9. Researchers who study the impact of nitrogen-based fertilizers on increasing crop growth use applied research methods. 10. Populations can be described in terms of their diversity and stability. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. You are studying an ecosystem on your campus. After a solid base of carefully observed and described facts, your next step would be to ____. a. make more observations b. make a hypothesis c. share your data with others d. wait for instructions e. design an experiment 12. The group that is the most inclusive and has recently been added to the classification scheme is ____. a. animalia b. kingdom c. eukarya d. protista e. domain

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Chap 01_5e 13. Which term describes a community and the nonliving environmental factors with which it interacts? a. ecosystem b. planet c. multicellular organism d. biosphere e. community 14. All of the populations of different organisms that live in the same place form a(n) ____. a. ecosystem b. community c. biosphere d. sample e. organ 15. Cats, dogs, and fish are consumers that have the ability to move actively from one place to another. These organisms belong to the ____ kingdom. a. Animalia b. Bacteria c. Protist d. Fungi e. Plantae 16. Living systems have the capacity to detect environmental changes and compensate for them through controlled responses. This is possible because living systems have ____. a. sensitivity b. hormones c. nerves d. reflexes e. receptors 17. A researcher in a lab finds a microscopic organism that has no nucleus, but has distinctive structural molecules and mechanisms of photosynthesis. The organisms are abundant in virtually every habitat on Earth. The researcher has identified this organism as belonging to the domain ____. a. Bacteria b. Animalia c. Eukarya d. Protist e. Amoeba

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Chap 01_5e 18. Populations of all organisms change from one generation to the next because their DNA changes over time. This is known as ____. a. developmental selection b. cellular respiration c. experimental variables d. genomics e. biological evolution 19. Emergent properties are ____. a. characteristics of atoms but not molecules b. characteristics that depend on the level of organization of matter but do not exist at lower levels of organization c. characteristics of nonliving matter that depend on the level of organization d. dependent on higher levels of organization of living and nonliving matter e. characteristics of all multicellular organisms but not unicellular organisms 20. A biologist who searches for explanations about natural phenomena solely to satisfy her curiosity and advance our collective knowledge of living systems practices ____. a. artificial science b. basic research c. general research d. applied research e. simple research 21. A cell is minimally defined by ____. a. a nucleus that contains DNA b. an organized chemical system and specialized molecules and subcellular structures surrounded by a membrane c. an organized chemical system for harnessing energy d. a membrane comprised of phospholipids e. specialized molecules that respond to their environment 22. The information in DNA is copied into molecules of ____. a. RNA b. carbohydrates c. lipid d. oxygen e. hydrogen peroxide

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Chap 01_5e 23. The most fundamental and important molecule that distinguishes living systems from nonliving matter is ____. a. protein b. DNA c. fructose d. water e. glucose 24. When a student manipulates a system under study, he or she is collecting ____. a. factual data b. analytical data c. experimental data d. empirical data e. observational data 25. Scientists that focus on the small, individual parts of a living system are using a(n) ____ approach. a. systemic b. microbiological c. reductionist d. molecular e. bioinformatics 26. Scientists want to determine whether chemical X, a component of fertilizer, is harmful to fish. They treat fish in the laboratory with increasing amounts of the chemical for one week and then measure their viability. When researchers designed this experiment, they wrote "If chemical X is toxic, the fish will begin to look sick and die." This statement is a(n) ____. a. interpretation b. theory c. hypothesis d. result e. prediction 27. Shitake mushrooms are decomposers that break down biological molecules from dead organisms. These organisms belong to the ____ kingdom. a. Protist b. Animalia c. Bacteria d. Fungi e. Plantae

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Chap 01_5e 28. The most fundamental grouping in the classification of living organisms is the ____. a. family b. genus c. order d. species e. class 29. Within an organism, all cells have the same ____, whereas different cell types contain different ____. a. RNA; genes b. protein; RNA c. genes; proteins d. RNA; protein e. proteins; genes 30. What is the correct order of the basic steps of the scientific method? a. observe-->hypothesize-->predict-->experiment-->interpret b. predict-->hypothesize-->experiment-->observe-->interpret c. hypothesize-->observe-->predict-->experiment-->interpret d. observe-->predict-->hypothesize-->experiment-->interpret e. hypothesize-->predict-->experiment-->observe-->interpret 31. Which group would be considered a community? a. fish, birds, alligators, water b. a group of alligators c. polar bears, seals, fish d. pandas, bamboo, and mountains e. a group of seaweed 32. The pages of your textbook consist mainly of material made by multicellular, photosynthetic organisms that function as producers in ecosystems. These organisms belong to the kingdom ____. a. Fungi b. Bacteria c. Protist d. Plantae e. Animalia 33. The lowest level of biological organization that can survive and reproduce is the ____. a. cell b. tissue c. proton d. nucleus e. DNA Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e 34. The sequential stages through which individuals develop, grow, maintain themselves, and reproduce are collectively known as the ____. a. central dogma b. catabolic reactions c. anabolic reactions d. transformation e. life cycle 35. Bulldogs have been bred to have such a large head size that they can no longer give birth naturally. The process by which these dogs changed over time is called ____. a. artificial breeding b. artificial selection c. artificial evolution d. artificial engineering e. artificial insemination 36. Bacteria and protozoans ____. a. can be either unicellular or multicellular organisms b. reside solely in oceans c. are multicellular organisms d. are unicellular organisms e. are precursors to cells 37. Monkeys, trees, snakes, moss, birds, sunlight, rain, rocks, and bugs together would be considered a(n) ____. a. population b. ecosystem c. biosphere d. community e. organism 38. The algae used to make sushi rolls are classified as ____. a. bacteria b. animals c. plants d. fungi e. protists

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Chap 01_5e 39. The process by which cells break down complex molecules in the presence of oxygen to release energy is called ____. a. anabolism b. photosynthesis c. metabolism d. translation e. cellular respiration 40. Maintaining your body's internal temperature within a narrow tolerable range is one example of ____. a. perspiration b. compensation c. homeostasis d. respiration e. hydrolysis 41. The highest level of the hierarchical classification of life is the ____. a. biosphere b. domain c. ecosystem d. population e. cell 42. Scientists structure hypotheses in such a way that if they are wrong, they will be able to demonstrate it is wrong. This is the principle of ____. a. falsifiability b. the null hypothesis c. fallibility d. hierarchy e. errors 43. Mutations are ____. a. always bad for populations b. always good for populations c. always harmful for individuals d. the basis of homogeneity in a population e. the basis of variability among individuals 44. Which research topic would be most likely to fall within the area of systems biology? a. looking at the interaction of Gene X and Gene Y in cancer cells b. understanding how stress hormones affect the organs in the human body c. designing a new valve for a heart d. finding a novel receptor for a known hormone e. determining the bacteria levels in Lake Michigan before and after a rainfall Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e 45. The large, double-stranded, helical molecule that contains instructions for assembling a living organism from simpler molecules is ____. a. RNA b. DNA c. ATP d. protein e. NADPH 46. It is through ____ that we further our knowledge of living things. a. ideologies b. biological research c. logic d. ethics e. philosophy 47. Every population of animals has an age structure, a graphical representation of the distribution of age groups within the population. While each individual in a population has a specific age, individuals themselves do not have an age structure. Age structure is therefore an example of a(n) ____ property. a. emergent b. hierarchical c. environmental d. organizational e. cellular 48. Scientists want to determine whether chemical X, a component of fertilizer, is harmful to fish. They treat fish in the laboratory with increasing amounts of the chemical for one week and then measure their viability. When researchers designed this experiment, they wrote "chemical X is toxic to fish" in their lab notebook. This statement is a(n) ____. a. interpretation b. prediction c. hypothesis d. result e. theory 49. In order to determine where a protein is expressed within a cell, a researcher tags the protein with a fluorescent label and then views the cell using a fluorescence microscope. The location of the protein within the cell as determined by the researcher is considered the ____. a. experimental data b. predicted data c. observational data d. replicate data e. experimental variable

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Chap 01_5e 50. The process by which parents produce offspring is called ____. a. feeding b. homeostasis c. compensation d. artificial selection e. reproduction 51. Scientists want to determine whether chemical X, a component of fertilizer, is harmful to fish. They treat fish in the laboratory with increasing amounts of the chemical for one week and then measure their viability. Fish that are not treated with chemical X are considered ____. a. experimental data b. controls c. replicates d. experimental variables e. the null hypothesis 52. Scientists want to determine whether chemical X, a component of fertilizer, is harmful to fish. They treat fish in the laboratory with increasing amounts of the chemical for one week and then measure their viability. What is the experimental variable for this experiment? a. chemical X b. fish c. river d. farming e. water 53. The scientific name of an organism is composed of two names. The first part identifies the ____ while the second part designates the ____. a. family; genus b. genera; genus c. genus; species d. species; genus e. phylum; species 54. In the mid-nineteenth century, Charles Darwin and Alfred Russel Wallace observed many organisms. Based on these observations, they arrived at an explanation called ____ for how populations change through time. a. creationism b. natural evolution c. natural selection d. genetics e. evolution

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Chap 01_5e 55. The observations you make and experimental data you collect in your biology laboratory class are examples of ____. a. biological research b. statistical analysis c. hypothesis building d. biological dogma e. model systems 56. A randomly selected group of organisms from an order would show more genetic and anatomical variability than a similar group randomly picked from a(n) _____. a. kingdom b. genus c. family d. phylum e. class 57. The difference between living and nonliving matter depends not only on the kinds of atoms and molecules present, but on their ____ as well. a. chemical complexity b. electrons c. organization and interactions d. atomic profile e. energy levels 58. An experimental approach in which scientists make observations about the natural world, develop tentative explanations about what they observe, and then test those explanations by collecting more information, is referred to as ____. a. science b. the biological method c. education d. the scientific method e. biology 59. A group of organisms of the same species that live together in the same place make up a(n) ____. a. population b. cell c. biosphere d. tissue e. ecosystem

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Chap 01_5e 60. Photosynthesis and cellular respiration are examples of ____. a. catabolism b. cleavage c. anabolism d. synthesis e. metabolism 61. Which pair of organisms would be classified as prokaryotes? a. Fungi and Plantae b. Bacteria, Archaea, and Fungi c. Animalia and Plantae d. Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia e. Bacteria and Archaea 62. When conducting descriptive research, a scientist primarily uses ____. a. experiments b. experimental data c. control data d. observational data e. speculation 63. The percentage of African-Americans, Hispanics, Caucasians, and Asians in a neighborhood is an emergent property of a(n)____. a. organism b. community c. population d. ecosystem e. biosphere 64. A group of similar species that share recent common ancestry is a(n) ____. a. class b. order c. species d. kingdom e. genus 65. Inheritance is the process by which genetic information is ____. a. transmitted to offspring in the form of RNA b. transmitted to offspring in the form of DNA c. transcribed from DNA into RNA d. transmitted to offspring in the form of proteins e. translated from RNA into proteins Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e 66. A researcher in a lab finds a microscopic organism that is a producer. Populations of this organism are found in extreme environments (e.g., hot springs). The researcher will correctly identify this organism as belonging to the domain ____. a. Amoeba b. Eukarya c. Archaea d. Bacteria e. Animalia 67. A student encounters an organism that resembles a plant and whose cells contain a nucleus. The organism is most likely classified as a(n) ____. a. Bacteria b. Archaea c. Eukarya d. Amoeba e. Animalia 68. A cell that is observed under the microscope is found to have its DNA enclosed in a nucleus and has other specialized internal compartments. The cell is a(n) ____. a. bacterium b. E. coli c. prokaryote d. eukaryote e. archaean 69. Applied researchers conduct their work to ____. a. answer all questions b. prove hypotheses c. solve any problem they face d. solve specific practical problems e. advance our collective knowledge of living systems 70. Which mutation is an example of an adaptation? a. A mutation results in decreased sperm count in humans. b. A mutation is found to be the cause of Alzheimer's disease. c. A mutation results in hairless cats, reducing allergies in humans. d. A mutation increases the size of tomato plants. e. A mutation renders an individual immune to HIV infection.

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Chap 01_5e 71. Which of the following scientific names is written in the correct format? a. canis Familiaris b. c. Latrans c. Canis Lupus d. Canis latrans e. Canis Familiaris 72. Statements about what a researcher expects to happen to one variable if another variable changes are called ____. a. observational variables b. hypotheses c. experimental variables d. theories e. scientific research 73. In the field of ____, researchers determine how multiple proteins interact with each other. a. systematics b. genomics c. proteomics d. microbiology e. bioinformatics 74. Our understanding of the evolutionary process reveals that ____. a. favorable traits become less common in future generations b. all populations are related through a shared ancestry c. evolution has produced the spectacular diversity of life on Earth d. all organisms change through time e. development has produced the spectacular diversity of life on Earth 75. A series of programmed changes encoded in DNA, through which a fertilized egg divides into many cells that ultimately are transformed into an adult organism, is known as ____. a. transformation b. development c. inheritance d. homeostasis e. compensation

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Chap 01_5e 76. A group of organisms in which the individuals are so closely related in structure, biochemistry, and behavior that they can successfully interbreed is a(n) ____. a. class b. genus c. order d. species e. kingdom 77. The science of ____ explains the origin and persistence of life, and studies the changes in living things. a. nanotechnology b. biology c. pharmacology d. mathematics e. chemistry 78. The process by which information in genes guides the production of RNA and proteins is called ____. a. translation b. gene expression c. synthesis d. cellular respiration e. transcription Match the descriptions of the organisms with the appropriate hierarchical category. a. Domain Bacteria b. Domain Archaea c. Domain Eukarya d. Protist e. Kingdom Plantae f. Kingdom Fungi g. Kingdom Animalia 79. one of the three highest levels of organization, comprised of unicellular and multicellular organisms that contain a nucleus 80. eukaryotic, multicellular organisms that function as producers 81. prokaryotic, unicellular organisms with unique structural molecules and mechanisms of photosynthesis 82. eukaryotic, multicellular organisms that function as consumers and have the ability to move 83. both unicellular and multicellular species that can be producers, consumers, and decomposers 84. prokaryotic, unicellular organisms that inhabit extreme environments 85. both unicellular and multicellular species that live as decomposers, but do not carry out photosynthesis

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Chap 01_5e Read the description of an experiment below, then match the appropriate term to the relevant part of the experiment. Previously, an anticholesterol drug was reported by a few patients as potentially alleviating the symptoms of Alzheimer's disease. Hypothesis: Drug X will alleviate signs of Alzheimer's disease. Experimental design: Patients with Alzheimer's disease are split into two groups: one group will receive Drug X and the other will receive a placebo (sugar pill). Patients: 400 patients with Alzheimer's disease were recruited for this study and arbitrarily assigned to a treatment group. Treatment: Patients were treated for 90 days with either Drug X or placebo. Study measurements: Patients were assessed using a memory test before and after the treatment period. Results: Patients given Drug X scored higher on the memory test. Conclusions: Drug X can enhance memory in patients suffering from Alzheimer's disease. a. experimental variable b. control group c. replicates d. experimental group e. experimental results 86. 400 patients with Alzheimer's disease 87. patients treated with placebo 88. memory test scores 89. Drug X 90. patients on anticholesterol drug Match the statement highlighting research on an emergent property to the biological organization level to which it applies. a. biosphere b. community c. ecosystem d. multicellular organism e. population 91. determining the percentage of mosquitoes living in the forest as compared to other insect types 92. understanding how the conversion of farmland into suburbs affects animal behavior 93. determining the mortality rate of women with breast cancer 94. determining how human and animal behaviors affect greenhouse gases 95. understanding the mechanisms involved in human learning

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Chap 01_5e 96. Scientific theories are of fundamental importance in science. Explain the difference between the term "theory" as employed in science versus "theory" as employed in everyday language.

97. Explain the need for a null hypothesis, especially in ecology and evolution. What does a null hypothesis accomplish?

98. Why do scientists use model organisms?

99. List one of Darwin's and Wallace's observations and conclusions explaining biological evolution.

100. You are at the stage in your research when you must design an experiment to test your hypothesis. Which factors must you include to ensure that you obtain valid data?

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Chap 01_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. False - photosynthesis 4. False - homeostatic 5. False - translation 6. True 7. False - variability 8. False - populations 9. True 10. False - Communities 11. b 12. e 13. a 14. b 15. a 16. e 17. a 18. e 19. b 20. b 21. b 22. a 23. b 24. c 25. c 26. e 27. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e 28. d 29. c 30. a 31. c 32. d 33. a 34. e 35. b 36. d 37. b 38. e 39. e 40. c 41. b 42. a 43. e 44. b 45. b 46. b 47. a 48. c 49. c 50. e 51. b 52. a 53. c 54. c 55. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e 56. b 57. c 58. d 59. a 60. e 61. e 62. d 63. c 64. e 65. b 66. c 67. c 68. d 69. d 70. e 71. d 72. b 73. c 74. c 75. b 76. d 77. b 78. b 79. c 80. e 81. a 82. g 83. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e 84. b 85. f 86. c 87. b 88. e 89. a 90. d 91. b 92. c 93. e 94. a 95. d 96. Scientific theories have withstood the test of time and have been extensively confirmed by repeated experiments. The term as used in science has validity, whereas in everyday context, it takes the form of an opinion or a guess that is not confirmed as extensively. 97. A null hypothesis is a statement of what a researcher would see if the hypothesis being tested is wrong. Ecologists usually tackle systems that are too complex to control, so a null hypothesis anticipates, or provides, an alternative hypothesis to answer questions. 98. Model organisms have rapid development, short life cycles, and small adult sizes, making them ideal to work with in a laboratory setting. Many forms of life share similar molecules, structures, and processes; thus, research on these small and often simple organisms provides insights into biological processes that operate in larger and more complex organisms. 99. 1. Most organisms can produce numerous offspring, but environmental factors limit the number that actually survive and reproduce. 2. Heritable variations allow some individuals to compete more successfully for space, food, and mates. 3. These successful individuals somehow pass the favorable characteristics on to their offspring. 4. As a result, the favorable traits become more common in the next generation, and less successful traits become less common. 100. Any experimental design must include an untreated control group, an experimental group exposed to a variable, and replicates to validate the data.

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Chap 02_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. Atoms with atomic numbers between lithium and neon have two energy levels. 2. Carbon dioxide is an element. 3. In the representation of hydrogen gas, H-H, the dash represents two electrons being shared equally. 4. The polarity of water allows it to create a hydration layer that prevents salt from coming back out of solution after it has been dissolved. 5. Hydrogen, atomic number 1, has three isotopes, 1H, 2H, 3H. 1H is comprised of one proton, one neutron, and one electron. 6. Ice floats in liquid water because there are, on average, fewer hydrogen bonds between molecules in ice than water, resulting in a lower density. 7. Proteins in thermophiles must be stabilized by van der Waals forces, because hydrogen bonds cannot be maintained at high temperatures. 8. Acid precipitation can have a pH as low as 3. 9. The four elements that make up more than 96.5% of the weight of living organisms are oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, and calcium. 10. Buffers can increase the pH of a solution when acids are added.

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Chap 02_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Figure 2.5 11. The water lattice illustrated in the figure above forms as a result of ____ between water molecules. a. covalent bonds b. hydrogen bonds c. nonpolar interactions d. ionic bonds e. van der Walls forces 12. When added to water at neutral pH (7.0), an acid will ____. a. act as a proton donor, raising the pH of the solution b. act as a proton acceptor, raising the pH of the solution c. act as a proton donor, lowering the pH of the solution d. act as a proton acceptor, lowering the pH of the solution e. do nothing since the aqueous solution is neutral 13. An orbital describes the ____ of an electron. a. exact location b. exact path c. most frequent locations d. charge e. chemical bonds

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Chap 02_5e 14. Lemon juice has a pH of 2.0, therefore, ____. a. [H+] < [OH-] b. [H+] = [OH-] c. [H+] = 0 d. [OH-] = 0 e. [H+] > [OH-] 15. When salt dissolves in water, the water molecules form ____ around the Na+ and Cl- ions. a. covalent bonds b. hydration layers c. nonpolar interactions d. membranes e. ionic bonds 16. When water molecules exposed to the air form hydrogen bonds between adjacent water molecules below and beside them, molecules in the upper layer become more resistant to separating from those underneath. This property of water is known as ____. a. cohesion b. adhesion c. a hydration layer d. a water lattice e. surface tension 17. How many calories, as defined in chemistry, are in one calorie, which is the unit used to quantify the amount of energy in the food we eat? a. 10 b. 100 c. 1,000 d. 10,000 e. 100,000 18. The formation and breaking of bonds between atoms requires ____. a. a chemical reaction b. van der Walls forces c. partial charges d. an empty valence shell e. an enzyme

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Chap 02_5e 19. The chemical bonds that are formed when atoms share electrons equally are called ____. a. polar covalent bonds b. van der Waals forces c. ionic bonds d. hydrogen bonds e. nonpolar covalent bonds 20. Which type of chemical linkage is the weakest? a. polar covalent bonds b. van der Waals forces c. ionic bonds d. hydrogen bonds e. nonpolar covalent bonds 21. A polar covalent bond would be most likely to form between ____. a. atoms with different electronegativities b. cations and anions c. atoms with partial positive and partial negative charges d. atoms with filled valence shells e. atoms of the same element 22. Sodium has one valence electron in its third energy level. To reach a stable energy configuration, sodium will tend to____. a. take up an electron from another atom b. move its valence electron to the second energy shell c. give up an electron to another atom d. share its valence electron with another atom e. move an electron from the second energy level to the valence shell

Figure 2.3 23. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The molecule shown is held together by ____. a. polar covalent bonds b. van der Waals forces c. ionic bonds d. hydrogen bonds e. nonpolar covalent bonds

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Chap 02_5e 24. A pH of 6 is ____ times more ____ than a pH of 2. a. 3; acidic b. 4; acidic c. 3; basic d. 10,000; basic e. 40; basic 25. Seawater typically is ____. a. highly basic b. neutral c. somewhat basic d. somewhat acidic e. highly basic 26. The substance O2 is considered to be ____. a. both a molecule and a compound b. a compound but not a molecule c. neither a molecule nor a compound d. a molecule but not a compound e. both a molecule and an ion 27. Metallic ions such as Ca2+, Na+, and Fe3+ readily form ____. a. polar covalent bonds b. van der Waals forces c. ionic bonds d. hydrogen bonds e. nonpolar covalent bonds 28. The most common isotope of carbon has an atomic number of 6 and a mass number of 12, while the most common isotope of oxygen has an atomic number of 8 and a mass number of 16. A molecule of CO2 made up of these common isotopes has a molecular weight of ____. a. 28 b. 44 c. 56 d. 14 e. 22

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Chap 02_5e 29. Water has an important stabilizing effect on temperature in living organisms and their environments because as water absorbs heat, much of the energy is used to ____ instead of raising the temperature. a. create hydrogen bonds b. create covalent bonds c. break surface tension d. break hydrogen bonds e. create hydration layers 30. A mixture of vegetable oil and water will separate into layers because oil is ____ and forms ____. a. hydrophobic; nonpolar associations b. hydrophilic; nonpolar associations c. hydrophilic; polar associations d. hydrophobic; polar associations e. hydrophobic; ionic associations 31. The chemical linkages that exert an attractive force over the greatest distance are ____. a. polar covalent bonds b. van der Waals forces c. ionic bonds d. hydrogen bonds e. nonpolar covalent bonds

Figure 2.1 32. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The mass number of the atom depicted in the figure is ____. a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 12 e. 18

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Chap 02_5e

Figure 2.4 33. The water strider shown in the figure above is able to stand on water because of the ____ of water. a. covalent bonds b. surface tension c. van der Waals forces d. density e. hydration layer 34. A molecule of water in the middle of a chunk of ice will usually have ____ hydrogen bonds with other water molecules. a. two b. three c. 3.4 d. four e. six

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Chap 02_5e 35. Consider the equilibrium established in the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system, which maintains pH balance in mammalian blood: During hypoventilation, breathing rate decreases, and therefore elimination of CO2 during exhalation decreases. How is optimal blood pH maintained when acid levels increase in our blood from hypoventilating? a. Excess H+ from the acid reacts with H2CO3 to decrease pH level. b. Excess H+ from the acid reacts with H2CO3 to increase pH level. c. Excess H+ from the acid reacts with H2CO3 to maintain pH level. d. Excess H+ from the acid reacts with HCO3- to increase pH level. e. Excess H+ from the acid reacts with HCO3- to maintain pH level. 36. Which element is most likely to share electrons with other atoms in joint orbitals? a. chlorine (seven valence electrons) b. calcium (two valence electrons) c. argon (eight valence electrons) d. carbon (four valence electrons) e. potassium (one valence electron) 37. In water, NaOH almost completely separates into Na+ and OH- ions. Thus, NaOH is _____. a. a strong acid b. a strong base c. a weak acid d. a weak base e. neutral 38. Water has an unusually high boiling point for its molecular weight because water molecules ____. a. are very dense b. get much heavier as they are heated c. are held to each other by hydrogen bonds d. are held together by covalent bonds e. form hydration layers 39. Electronegativity is the tendency of an atom to attract ____ to itself in a chemical bond. a. neutrons b. protons c. electrons d. delta forces e. polar associations

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Chap 02_5e 40. Which substance would have the most difficulty entering a water lattice? a. table salt (NaCl) b. a nonpolar molecule c. a sodium ion d. a proton (H+) e. an electron 41. Radioactive ____ is commonly used to treat patients with dangerously overactive thyroid glands. a. carbon b. radium c. iodine d. thallium e. cobalt 42. An oxygen atom has ____ surrounding a nucleus composed of ____. a. neutrons; electrons and protons b. electrons; protons and neutrons c. protons and electrons; neutrons d. protons; neutrons and electrons e. electrons and neutrons; protons 43. A trace element is one found in specific organisms in ____ quantities and is ____ for normal biological functions. a. moderate; unnecessary b. moderate; vital c. small; unnecessary d. large; unnecessary e. small; vital 44. Which element is most likely to accept an electron from another atom? a. chlorine (seven valence electrons) b. calcium (two valence electrons) c. neon (eight valence electrons) d. carbon (four valence electrons) e. potassium (one valence electron) 45. Isotopes of the same element differ from each other in the number of ____. a. electrons and protons b. neutrons only c. protons and neutrons d. electrons only e. protons, neutrons, and electrons Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5e 46. The hydrogen-bond lattice causes water to have an unusually ____ specific heat, an unusually ____ heat of vaporization, and an unusually ____ density in solid form. a. high; high; high b. low; low; low c. high; low; high d. high; high; low e. low; low; high 47. Ethanol, the alcohol found in wine and beer, has the molecular formula CH3CH2OH. What is the molecular weight of ethanol if the atomic weight of C=12, H=1, and O=16? a. 29 g/mol b. 30 g/mol c. 34 g/mol d. 45 g/mol e. 46 g/mol 48. Most pH buffers are ____. a. strong acids b. weak acids or weak bases c. weak acids d. strong bases e. strong acids or strong bases 49. Geckos are able to cling to vertical walls due to ____. a. polar covalent bonds b. van der Waals forces c. ionic bonds d. hydrogen bonds e. nonpolar covalent bonds 50. Chemical bonds that are formed when one atom with a partial positive charge (created from unequal sharing of electrons) is electrically attracted to another atom with a partial negative charge (also created from unequal sharing of electrons) are called ____. a. polar covalent bonds b. van der Waals forces c. ionic bonds d. hydrogen bonds e. nonpolar covalent bonds

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Chap 02_5e 51. Solution A has a pH of 6 and solution B has a pH of 8. Therefore, ____. a. A has 10 times greater H+ concentration than B. b. B has 10 times greater H+ concentration than A. c. A has 100 times greater H+ concentration than B. d. B has 100 times greater H+ concentration than A. e. A has 1,000 times greater H+ concentration than B. 52. When the isotope 14C undergoes radioactive decay, a neutron splits into an electron and a proton, with ejection of the electron. This decay produces an atom of ____. a. iron b. carbon c. hydrogen d. oxygen e. nitrogen 53. Avogadro's number represents the ____. a. number of grams in a mole of substance b. number of moles in a gram of substance c. number of atoms in one gram of substance d. atomic weight of an atom divided by the weight of an atom of that element e. weight of an atom of an element divided by the atomic weight of that element 54. When added to water, a base will act as a(n) ____ and cause the pH of the solution to ____. a. proton acceptor; rise b. proton donor; rise c. proton acceptor; fall d. proton donor; fall e. acid; fall 55. Pure water has a pH of 7.0, therefore, ____. a. [H+] < [OH-] b. [H+] = [OH-] c. [H+] = 0 d. [OH-] = 0 e. [H+] > [OH-]

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Chap 02_5e 56. In a molecule of methane, CH4, each hydrogen atom shares an orbital with the carbon atom. The total number of shared electrons in CH4 is ____. a. one b. two c. four d. five e. eight 57. A carbon atom with six protons, seven neutrons, and six electrons has a mass number of ____. a. 6 b. 7 c. 12 d. 13 e. 19 58. Which element is likely to be chemically unreactive? a. chlorine (seven valence electrons) b. calcium (two valence electrons) c. argon (eight valence electrons) d. carbon (four valence electrons) e. potassium (one valence electron) 59. 14C is heavier than 12C because it has ____. a. two more electrons than 12C b. two more neutrons than 12C c. two more protons than 12C d. two more protons and two more electrons than 12C e. one more proton and one more neutron than 12C 60. The smallest unit that retains the chemical and physical properties of an element is a(n) ____. a. proton b. compound c. molecule d. neutron e. atom

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Chap 02_5e 61. Molecules such as H-H and O=O are held together by ____. a. polar covalent bonds b. van der Waals forces c. ionic bonds d. hydrogen bonds e. nonpolar covalent bonds 62. Diluted acetic acid, CH3COOH, is commonly called vinegar. How many atoms of hydrogen are present in one molecule of acetic acid? a. one b. two c. three d. four e. five 63. A ____ is formed when a ____ is dissolved in a ____. a. solution; solute; solvent b. solute; solvent; solution c. solution; solvent; solute d. solvent; solution; solute e. solvent; solute; solution 64. When sugar dissolves in water, water is acting as a ____ and the sugar molecules are acting as ____. a. solution; solvents b. solute; solutions c. solvent; solutes d. solute; solvents e. solvent; solutions

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Chap 02_5e

Figure 2.2 65. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The electrons at the lowest energy level in the neon atom depicted are found in which orbital? a. 1s b. 2s c. 2px d. 2py e. 2pz 66. In the presence of water, nonpolar associations form between molecules or regions of molecules that are ____. a. partially charged b. hydrophobic and hydrophilic c. hydrophobic d. fully charged e. hydrophilic

67. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The atomic number of the atom depicted in the figure is ____. a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 12 e. 18 68. The attraction between Na+ cations and Cl- anions form ____ that hold the ions together in the compound NaCl. a. polar covalent bonds b. van der Waals forces c. ionic bonds d. hydrogen bonds e. nonpolar covalent bonds

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Chap 02_5e

69. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The atom depicted in this figure can form ____ covalent bonds with another atom. a. 0 b. 2 c. 4 d. 3 e. 6

Figure 2.2 70. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. All of the orbitals shown in the neon atom are completely filled with electrons. How many electrons does this neon atom have? a. five b. six c. eight d. 10 e. 16 71. Four elements, including ____, make up more than 96.5% of the mass of most living organisms. a. sodium b. potassium c. phosphorus d. nitrogen e. calcium 72. In contrast to ionic bonds, covalent bonds ____. a. hold atoms together b. have distinct, three-dimensional forms c. transfer electrons from one atom to another d. are rarely broken e. are transient

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Chap 02_5e 73. Water has a molecular weight of 18 g per mole, and glucose has a molecular weight of 180 g per mole. Which masses of water and glucose would have an approximately equal number of molecules? a. 1 g of water and 180 g of glucose b. 90 g of water and 9 g of glucose c. 180 g of water and 1 g of glucose d. 9 g of water and 90 g of glucose e. 90 g of water and 90 g of glucose 74. The substance H2O is considered to be ____. a. both a molecule and a compound b. a compound but not a molecule c. neither a molecule nor a compound d. a molecule but not a compound e. both a molecule and an ion 75. Without ____, living organisms would often experience major changes in pH in their cells. a. buffers b. acids c. surface tension d. nonpolar bonds e. bases 76. Prolonged iodine deficiency causes ____, a condition in which the thyroid gland enlarges so much that the front of the neck swells significantly. a. gout b. cancer c. a goiter d. anemia e. granuloma 77. Biological membranes are held together mainly by ____. a. hydrogen bonds between lipid molecules b. hydration layers over lipid molecules c. exclusion of the nonpolar regions of lipids by water d. hydrogen bonds between water molecules e. surface tension at the interface between layers of water molecules

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Chap 02_5e 78. Which of the three atomic particles are charged? a. electrons and protons b. neutrons only c. protons and neutrons d. electrons only e. protons, neutrons, and electrons 79. Multiple hydrogen bonds together stabilize proteins into a spiral structure called a ____. a. water lattice b. alpha helix c. chemical groups d. delta minus e. delta plus 80. High levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere are causing ____. a. the pH of the ocean to increase b. the pH of the ocean to decrease c. the natural buffers in the ocean to die d. increased calcification of the coral reefs e. increased biodiversity in coral reefs For each of the following situations, choose the correct type of chemical bond. Some choices may be used more than once. a. ionic bonds b. nonpolar covalent bonds c. polar covalent bonds d. hydrogen bonds e. van der Waals forces 81. Occurs in sodium chloride (NaCl) 82. The weakest of the chemical linkages listed 83. Generates regions of partial positivity and partial negativity within a molecule 84. Characteristic of molecules that contain atoms of only one kind 85. Forms when atoms gain or lose valence electrons completely 86. Attraction that arises when the constant movement of electrons, by chance, produces temporary zones of partial positive and partial negative charges 87. Occurs when electrons are shared unequally between two atoms 88. Creates a region that is hydrophobic 89. Occurs between water molecules 90. Occurs in molecular oxygen (O2)

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Chap 02_5e Match each of the following terms with its correct definition. a. Anything that occupies space and has mass b. A pure substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substances by ordinary chemical or physical techniques c. An atom with the same number of protons as another atom but a different number of neutrons d. The locations around an atomic nucleus where an electron occurs most frequently e. A molecule whose component atoms are different from each other 91. element 92. compound 93. matter 94. orbital 95. isotope 96. Explain how radiometric dating allows scientists to determine the age of a particular fossil.

97. If van der Waals forces are weak, how can geckos utilize these forces to cling to and walk up vertical smooth surfaces?

98. Why is iodine considered a trace element, and what is its biological function in humans?

99. Describe the difference between cohesion and adhesion, and how they, together, allow water to move upward in plants.

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Chap 02_5e 100. The pH of your stomach is between 1 and 3. Use your knowledge of polar and nonpolar substances to explain why the acids in your stomach do not alter the pH of your blood.

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Chap 02_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. False - a compound 3. True 4. True 5. False - one proton, one electron, and no neutrons 6. False - more 7. True 8. True 9. False - oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen 10. False - maintain 11. b 12. c 13. c 14. e 15. b 16. e 17. c 18. a 19. e 20. b 21. a 22. c 23. d 24. d 25. c 26. d 27. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5e 28. b 29. d 30. a 31. c 32. d 33. b 34. d 35. e 36. d 37. b 38. c 39. c 40. b 41. c 42. b 43. e 44. a 45. b 46. d 47. e 48. b 49. b 50. d 51. c 52. e 53. d 54. a 55. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5e 56. e 57. d 58. c 59. b 60. e 61. e 62. d 63. a 64. c 65. a 66. c 67. b 68. c 69. c 70. d 71. d 72. b 73. d 74. a 75. a 76. c 77. c 78. a 79. b 80. b 81. a 82. e

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Chap 02_5e 83. c 84. b 85. a 86. e 87. c 88. b 89. d 90. b 91. b 92. e 93. a 94. d 95. c 96. Radioactive isotopes decay in a very predictable way. By knowing the approximate concentration of a radioisotope that is naturally present, and determining the concentration of the radioisotope in the fossil, you can calculate the length of time that it took for the radioactive isotope to decay to the level in the fossil. 97. The toes of geckos are covered by millions of hairs (setae). At the tip of each setae are hundreds of thousands of pads, where each pad forms a weak interaction with a smooth surface due to van der Waal forces. Collectively, these forces form strong attractive forces. 98. Iodine is 0.0004% of a human’s weight, compared to elements that occur at quantities greater than 0.01%. Iodine is required for proper thyroid gland function. Lack of iodine affects metabolism and growth. In the short-term, iodine deficiency results in lethargy, apathy, and sensitivity to cold temperatures; in the long-term, iodine deficiency causes a goiter. 99. Cohesion is the resistance of molecules to separate from each other, where adhesion is the ability of molecules to stick to surfaces. Cohesion in water is the resistance to separate due to the hydrogen-bond lattice. Adhesion in water is the ability of hydrogen bonds to form with charged and polar groups associated with surfaces. A water column in a plant is a result of cohesion—water molecules being held together—and maintained by water adhering to the walls of the water conducting tissue (xylem). 100. Cells are comprised of a lipid bilayer that excludes hydrophillic substances, including acids. The cells lining the inside of the stomach prevent the acid from moving across the cell membrane into the blood stream.

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Chap_03_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. The tertiary structure of proteins is the three-dimensional shape comprised of two or more polypeptides. 2. Amino acids, the monomer units comprising proteins, contain two functional groups, amino and carboxyl. 3. Chitin is a reinforcing fiber in the external skeleton of arthropods. 4. Glucose and fructose, which have the same chemical formula, are considered stereoisomers. 5. The complementary sequence to the DNA template 5'-ATACGCT-3' is 3'-TATGCGA-5'. 6. Triglycerides are used to coat skin, hair, and feathers of animals to keep them protected, lubricated, and pliable. 7. One important way in which RNA differs from DNA is that RNA is missing a key hydroxyl group on its sugar. 8. Unsaturated fats are considered healthier than saturated fats in the human diet. 9. The most abundant organic molecules in the world are nucleic acids. 10. Most of the enzymes that catalyze biochemical reactions involving amino acids recognize the L stereoisomer. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Amylose is a polymer made up of glucose monomers joined by ____. a. b(1-4) linkages b. b(1-6) linkages c. a(1-4) linkages d. a(1-6) linkages e. both b(1-4) and a(1-6) linkages 12. In addition to serving as building blocks of DNA, what other function do nucleotides perform in a cell? a. regulate cellular activity b. regulate gene expression c. chaperone protein folding d. activate vesicular transport e. trigger muscle contractions 13. Chaperonins assist with ____. a. proteins synthesis b. assembly of DNA strands c. polysaccharide synthesis d. protein folding e. forming the DNA double helix

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Chap_03_5e 14. Waxy coatings, such as those found on skin, hair, and feathers of some animals and the cuticle of some plants, are commonly used by living organisms for protection against water loss and for lubrication. Such waxes are considered to be a type of ____. a. triglyceride b. steroid c. neutral lipid d. phospholipid e. fatty acid 15. Hereditary information in all eukaryotes, prokaryotes, and viruses is stored in ____. a. proteins b. lipids c. nucleic acids d. carbohydrates e. amino acids 16. When molecules are referred to as D- or L- (for example D-forms of sugars and L-forms of amino acids), the D- and L- designations refer to the specific ____. a. functional group b. structural isomer c. covalent bond d. secondary structure e. stereoisomer 17. Monosaccharides and disaccharides are types of ____. a. proteins b. lipids c. nucleic acids d. carbohydrates e. amino acids 18. Glycerol forms the backbone of ____. a. triglycerides only b. polysaccharides and nucleic acids c. nucleic acids only d. polypeptides only e. triglycerides and phospholipids

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Chap_03_5e

Figure 3.17 19. The molecule in the accompanying figure is the pyrimidine ____, which is typically found in both DNA and RNA. a. thymine b. adenine c. uracil d. guanine e. cytosine

Figure 3.18 20. The molecule shown above is the purine ____. a. thymine b. adenine c. uracil d. guanine e. cytosine 21. After a long period of gradual evolution of protein domains, a period of explosive change (the “big bang”) in protein domain complexity occurred at roughly the same time as the three taxonomic domains were undergoing rapid diversification. In which taxonomic domain was this diversification most extensive? a. Eukarya b. Protista c. Archaea d. Animalia e. Bacteria

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Chap_03_5e

Figure 3.5 22. The molecule in the accompanying figure is mannose, an example of a ____ sugar. a. triose b. hexose c. pentose d. heptose e. tetrose 23. Probably the most abundant carbohydrate on Earth, which unbranched chain of b-glucose subunits is the primary structural fiber in plant cell walls? a. chitin b. amylopectin c. cellulose d. glycogen e. amylose 24. The molecule in the accompanying figure is ____, and has ____. a. unsaturated; a carbon-carbon double bond b. saturated; a carbon-carbon double bond c. unsaturated; no carbon-carbon double bonds d. saturated; no carbon-carbon double bonds e. saturated; a carbon-carbon triple bond 25. In an elegant set of experiments, which protein did Anfinsen study in order to understand how the threedimensional structure of proteins is determined? a. ovalbumin b. chaperonin c. ribonuclease d. insulin e. hemoglobin

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Chap_03_5e 26. Nucleotides are joined together to make a nucleic acid strand by ____ bonds. a. phosphodiester b. disulfide c. glycosidic d. hydrogen e. peptide 27. Reactions that remove the equivalent of a water molecule when subunits are joined to make a larger molecule are called ____ reactions. a. equilibrium b. hydration c. hydrolysis d. redox e. dehydration synthesis 28. Excessive heat or extremes of pH often cause denaturation of proteins, which means that the proteins ____. a. have fallen apart into individual monomer subunits b. are no longer biological molecules c. have broken into many separate domains d. are no longer in a functional three-dimensional conformation e. are highly reactive 29. Which two nucleotides also serve as transporters of chemical energy? a. ATP and GTP b. ATP and CTP c. ATP and TTP d. CTP and TTP e. CTP and UTP

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Chap_03_5e

Figure 3.13 30. The two amino acids in the accompanying figure both have side chains (R groups) that are ____. a. acidic and polar b. uncharged and nonpolar c. basic and polar d. acidic and nonpolar e. uncharged and polar 31. Which class of molecule is the most diverse in terms of structure and roles played in cells? a. proteins b. lipids c. nucleic acids d. carbohydrates e. amino acids 32. In his experiments, Anfinsen treated a protein with a chemical that broke disulfide bonds and then removed the chemical to see how this would affect the function of the molecule. What did he conclude from these experiments? a. The information for determining the three-dimensional shape of ribonuclease lies in its amino acid sequence. b. The disulfide bonds are essential for quaternary, but not tertiary, protein structure. c. Protein conformation is maintained when disulfide bonds are disrupted. d. Altering the three-dimensional shape of the protein is irreversible. e. Disulfide bonds are unnecessary for proper protein function. 33. Structural isomers differ from each other ____. a. in the arrangement of their covalent bonds b. in their molecular formulas c. by being mirror images that cannot be superimposed on each other d. by having double covalent bonds instead of single bonds e. by having different atomic isotopes in their molecules

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Chap_03_5e 34. Testosterone has important regulatory functions in humans and many other animals. Molecules with regulatory functions like testosterone are called ____. a. phytosterols b. enzymes c. lipoproteins d. hormones e. receptors 35. The sugar in DNA is comprised of ____ carbons. a. three b. four c. five d. six e. seven 36. Amino acids are linked together by ____ bonds. a. phosphodiester b. disulfide c. glycosidic d. hydrogen e. peptide 37. Which amino acid can be involved in special covalent "disulfide bridges" that, when present, help to stabilize the tertiary and quaternary structure of proteins? a. proline b. alanine c. leucine d. cysteine e. methionine

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Chap_03_5e

Figure 3.1 38. The accompanying figure illustrates the synthesis of ____. a. sucrose b. maltose c. lactose d. cellulose e. fructose

Figure 3.9 39. The molecule in the accompanying figure is ____, and has ____. a. unsaturated; a carbon-carbon double bond b. saturated; a carbon-carbon double bond c. unsaturated; no carbon-carbon double bonds d. saturated; no carbon-carbon double bonds e. saturated; a carbon-carbon triple bond.

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Chap_03_5e

Figure 3.11 (Question 41) 40. The two amino acids in the accompanying figure both have side chains (R groups) that are ____. a. acidic and polar b. uncharged and nonpolar c. basic and polar d. acidic and nonpolar e. uncharged and polar 41. Sterol regulatory element binding proteins (SREBPs) are involved in regulating the synthesis of ____. a. proteins b. lipids c. nucleic acids d. carbohydrates e. amino acids 42. Consider the DNA sequence 5'-GATTACA-3'. If the strand with this sequence forms a double helix with another DNA strand, the sequence on the other strand should be ____. a. 5'-TCGGCAC-3' b. 3'-GATTACA-5' c. 5'- ACATTAG-3' d. 3'-GTGCCGA-5' e. 3'-CTAATGT-5' 43. The two strands of a DNA double helix are held to each other by ____ bonds between nitrogenous bases. a. phosphodiester b. disulfide c. glycosidic d. hydrogen e. peptide

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Chap_03_5e 44. Which polysaccharide is a chain of glucose units that are modified by having nitrogen-containing groups, is the main structural fiber in the external skeletons of arthropods, and also a structural material in the cell walls of fungi? a. chitin b. amylopectin c. cellulose d. glycogen e. amylose

Figure 3.7 45. The molecule shown above is a(n) ____. a. triglyceride b. amino acid c. steroid d. polysaccharide e. phospholipid 46. A large molecule whose subunits consist of a sugar and a nitrogenous base is called a ____. a. nucleoside b. nucleotide c. nucleic acid d. nucleosome e. nuclear unit 47. Why are trans fats more harmful for consumption than saturated fats? a. Trans fats increase LDL cholesterol levels more than saturated fats. b. Trans fats decrease HDL cholesterol levels more than saturated fats. c. Saturated fats prevent LDL transport more than trans fats. d. Trans fats are often consumed with other food additives that increase fat absorption in the gut. e. Saturated fats are more natural, and better digested in the gut.

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Chap_03_5e

Figure 3.6 48. The molecule in the accompanying figure is a(n) ____. a. triglyceride b. amino acid c. steroid d. polysaccharide e. phospholipid 49. In many animals, this polysaccharide is found in large quantities in liver and muscle cells. It is highly branched, with many a(1-4) and a(1-6) linkages. a. chitin b. amylopectin c. cellulose d. glycogen e. amylose 50. Reactions that use the equivalent of a water molecule to break a molecule into smaller subunits are called ____ reactions. a. equilibrium b. hydration c. hydrolysis d. redox e. dehydration synthesis

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Chap_03_5e

Figure 3.14 51. The two amino acids depicted above both have side chains (R groups) that are ____. a. acidic and polar b. uncharged and nonpolar c. basic and polar d. acidic and nonpolar e. uncharged and polar 52. A fatty acid has a(n)____ group at the end of a hydrocarbon chain. a. carbonyl group b. hydroxyl group c. phosphate group d. amino group e. carboxyl group

Figure 3.4 53. The molecule in the accompanying figure is glyceraldehyde, an example of a ____ sugar. a. triose b. hexose c. pentose d. heptose e. tetrose 54. Which functional group forms the highly reactive part of aldehydes and ketones? a. carbonyl b. hydroxyl c. phosphate d. amino e. carboxyl

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Chap_03_5e 55. Isomers are two or more molecules with ____ chemical formula and ____ molecular structures. a. a different; different b. the same; different c. a different; the same d. the same; the same e. a structural; theoretical 56. Which functional group acts as an organic base? a. carbonyl b. hydroxyl c. phosphate d. amino e. carboxyl

Figure 3.8 57. The molecule shown above is a(n) ____. a. triglyceride b. amino acid c. steroid d. polysaccharide e. phospholipid

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Chap_03_5e 58. Approximately how many base pairs comprise one turn of the double helix in DNA? a. 2.5 b. 5 c. 10 d. 20 e. 50

Figure 3.2 59. The disaccharide in the accompanying figure is ____. a. cellulose b. galactose c. maltose d. sucrose e. lactose

Figure 3.12 60. The two amino acids in the accompanying figure both have side chains (R groups) that are ____. a. acidic and polar b. uncharged and nonpolar c. basic and polar d. acidic and nonpolar e. uncharged and polar

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Chap_03_5e

Figure 3.15 61. The image in the accompanying figure is an example of a(n) ____. a. random coil b. double helix c. b sheet d. a helix e. b polysaccharide 62. The unique sequence of monomer subunits in a protein is the ____ structure of the protein. a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary e. linear

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Chap_03_5e 63. Which molecules are the most important for a cell to protect from damage if the cell is to stay alive and reproduce? a. proteins b. lipids c. nucleic acids d. carbohydrates e. amino acids 64. We would expect to find fatty acids with ____ carbons in living organisms. a. eight b. 13 c. 16 d. 19 e. 26 65. Suppose that an equal amount of each polysaccharide was placed in a landfill. Which polysaccharide should last the longest before it is decomposed? a. chitin b. amylopectin c. cellulose d. glycogen e. amylose 66. The sex hormones of many animals are lipid molecules known as ____. a. fatty acids b. phospholipids c. carotenoids d. steroids e. lipoproteins 67. How many hydrogen bonds are formed between adenine and thymine? a. one b. two c. three d. four e. six

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Chap_03_5e 68. If three molecules of a fatty acid having the formula C16H22O2 are each joined to a molecule of glycerol (C3H8O3) by a dehydration synthesis reaction, what will be the formula of the resulting neutral fat molecule? a. C48H66O6. b. C48H72O8. c. C51H68O6. d. C51H72O8. e. C51H74O9. 69. In proteins, structural segments called ____ provide flexibility that allow parts of the protein to bend, fold, or move. a. random coils b. peptide bonds c. b sheets d. a helices e. b polysaccharides 70. Which functional group is polar and a key component of alcohols? a. carbonyl b. hydroxyl c. phosphate d. amino e. carboxyl 71. Two structural differences between a uridine monophosphate and thymidine monophosphate are ____ and ____. a. the number of hydrogen bonds formed between it and its matching base; the presence of a hydroxyl group on the ribose b. the presence of a methyl group on the nitrogen base; the presence of a hydroxyl group on the ribose c. the number of hydrogen bonds formed between it and its matching base; the presence of a methyl group on the nitrogen base d. the number of hydrogen bonds formed between it and its matching base; the location of the ribose attachment to the nitrogenous base e. the presence of a methyl group of the nitrogen base; the location of the ribose attachment to the nitrogenous base

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Chap_03_5e 72. When DNA is heated, the hydrogen bonds break and allow the two strands of DNA to separate from one another. Which sequence of DNA would be most resistant to heating, and therefore stay double stranded longer? a. AATTGGCC b. ATGCATTC c. AGGAGCTC d. TGGCTTAG e. TACCAATT 73. Proteins are polymers of ____. a. amino acids b. monosaccharides c. steroids d. nucleotides e. phospholipids

Figure 3.16 74. The molecule in the accompanying figure is the pyrimidine ____, which is typically found in DNA but not RNA. a. thymine b. adenine c. uracil d. guanine e. cytosine 75. HDL cholesterol is considered "good" cholesterol. What role does HDL play in preventing coronary heart disease? a. HDL cholesterol inhibits LDL cholesterol synthesis b. HDL cholesterol prevents transport of LDL cholesterol in blood c. HDL cholesterol activates LDL cholesterol breakdown d. HDL cholesterol prevents free radical formation in plaques e. HDL cholesterol removes excess cholesterol from plaques

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Chap_03_5e 76. A hydrogen bond between the amino acid side chains (R groups) of two different polypeptide chains in a multichain protein would be considered part of the ____ structure of the protein. a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary e. linear

Figure 3.3 77. The disaccharide in the accompanying figure is ____. a. lactose b. fructose c. maltose d. cellulose e. sucrose 78. Which molecule is the main structural component of biological membranes? a. starch b. triglyceride c. protein d. phospholipid e. steroid 79. The linkage commonly found between subunits in a chain of monosaccharides is called a ____ bond. a. phosphodiester b. disulfide c. glycosidic d. hydrogen e. peptide

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Chap_03_5e 80. Which of these hydrocarbons has a double bond in its structure? a. C3H8 b. C2H6 c. CH4 d. C2H4 e. C2H2 Choose the class of biological molecules that is most closely associated with each of the following items. Choices may be used more than once. a. carbohydrate b. lipid c. protein d. nucleic acid 81. phosphodiester bond 82. chemical formula at or close to a multiple of (CH2O) 83. peptide bond 84. nitrogenous base 85. triglyceride 86. glycosidic bond 87. sugar-phosphate backbone 88. a helix 89. cholesterol

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Chap_03_5e Match each of the functional groups below with the molecule that has the functional group highlighted. Figure 3.19

f. 90. phosphate 91. carboxyl 92. sulfhydryl 93. carbonyl 94. hydroxyl 95. amino 96. What are protocells and why are they considered important to the evolution of life?

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Chap_03_5e 97. RNA is significantly less stable than DNA. Based on the structural differences between these molecules, what is a plausible hypothesis as to why this is?

98. Are saturated or unsaturated fats generally solids at room temperature? Explain why there is a difference in the fluidity of these two related molecules.

99. Describe the general structure of amino acids.

100. Using what you know about how carbohydrate monomers are linked to form polymers, explain why most animals can digest starch more easily than cellulose?

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Chap_03_5e Answer Key 1. False - quaternary structure 2. True 3. True 4. False - structural isomers 5. True 6. False - waxes 7. False - DNA 8. True 9. False - carbohydrates 10. True 11. c 12. a 13. d 14. c 15. c 16. e 17. d 18. e 19. e 20. b 21. a 22. b 23. c 24. a 25. c 26. a 27. e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_03_5e 28. d 29. a 30. b 31. a 32. a 33. a 34. d 35. c 36. e 37. d 38. b 39. d 40. c 41. b 42. e 43. d 44. a 45. c 46. a 47. b 48. a 49. d 50. c 51. a 52. e 53. a 54. a 55. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_03_5e 56. d 57. e 58. c 59. d 60. e 61. c 62. a 63. c 64. c 65. c 66. d 67. b 68. c 69. a 70. b 71. b 72. c 73. a 74. a 75. e 76. d 77. a 78. d 79. c 80. d 81. d 82. a

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Chap_03_5e 83. c 84. d 85. b 86. a 87. d 88. c 89. b 90. e 91. b 92. a 93. c 94. d 95. f 96. Protocells are the hypothesized precursors of cells that existed billions of years ago. Protocells would have been organic molecules assembled into aggregates that became bounded by phospholipid bilayer membranes. They are considered important because life depends on chemical reactions occurring in a controlled and sequestered environment. 97. DNA is comprised of deoxyribose, which lacks the reactive hydroxyl group that is present in RNA's ribose. Additionally, DNA is double-stranded, which can protect the nucleotides from endonucleases. 98. Saturated fats are generally solids at room temperature. Saturated long-chain fatty acids are straight, and can pack tightly together. However, unsaturated fats have double bonds that kink the long carbon chains, creating more disorder and preventing them from packing together like the saturated fats. 99. For 19 out of the 20 amino acids, a central carbon atom is attached to an amino group, a carboxyl group, a hydrogen atom, and a side group. Proline has a ring structure where the central carbon atom is attached to a carboxyl group and an imino group. 100. Plant starches are held together by alpha (1→4) linkages, whereas cellulose is held together by beta (1→4) linkages. These different linkages have very different properties, with the alpha (1→4) linkages being more reactive than the beta(1→4) linkages, which tend to be more stable.

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Chap_04_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. The primary functions of the extracellular matrix are protection and support. 2. Amyloplasts are responsible for the colors of ripening fruits or autumn leaves. 3. Gap junctions that connect nerve cells in dental pulp are responsible for the discomfort felt when teeth are damaged. 4. Lipid synthesis occurs in the Golgi complex. 5. Proteins on the cell surface label the cells as "self", identifying them to the immune cells as belonging to the organism. 6. Tonoplasts store salts, organic acids, sugars, storage proteins, and pigments in plant cells. 7. Mitochondria convert solar energy into chemical energy. 8. All cells have DNA to carry genetic information, a plasma membrane that serves as a selective barrier, and mitochondria for the generation of energy. 9. Some prokaryotes have a capsule, which is an external layer of polysaccharides that protects the cells from physical damage. 10. As the total surface area of a cell increases, the surface area/volume ratio decreases. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Chloroplasts are the site of ____. a. DNA synthesis b. cellular digestion c. protein synthesis d. photosynthesis e. lipid synthesis 12. Which early scientist proposed that cells arise only from preexisting cells by a process of division? a. Anton van Leeuwenhoek b. Robert Brown c. Matthias Schleiden d. Theodor Schwann e. Rudolf Virchow 13. In normal cells, cell adhesion molecules are partially responsible for the cell's ability to ____. a. migrate to new locations in the body b. recognize other cells as "self" c. exocytosis d. both migrate to new locations in the body and recognize other cells as “self” e. recognize linkages between cells in muscle and bone Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_04_5e 14. As a plant cell grows and matures, additional layers are added to the cell wall to construct the more rigid ____. a. middle lamella b. secondary cell wall c. primary cell wall d. plasma membrane e. central vacuole 15. Cells that are making large quantities of proteins will have numerous ____. a. centrioles b. chromosomes c. cilia d. plastids e. ribosomes 16. Trace the correct path in the endomembrane followed by a protein, beginning with its site of synthesis in the rough ER. a. rough ER ® smooth ER ® Golgi complex ® plasma membrane b. rough ER ® Golgi complex ® vesicle ® plasma membrane c. rough ER ® vesicle ® lysosome ® plasma membrane d. rough ER ® vesicle ® smooth ER ® plasma membrane e. rough ER ® smooth ER ® lysosome ® plasma membrane 17. How do flagella bend? a. Myosin motor proteins slide microtubules over each other. b. Dynein motor proteins slide microtubule doublets over each other. c. Myosin motor proteins slide actin filaments over each other. d. Microfilaments contract due to the action of kinesin. e. Actin filaments contract due to the action of myosin. 18. Plant cells permit ions and small molecules to move between adjacent cells by means of cytoplasmic channels in their cell walls known as ____. a. gap junctions b. plasmodesmata c. desmosomes d. cell junctions e. tonoplasts

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Chap_04_5e 19. Cellular respiration is the process by which ____ and ____ are converted to water and carbon dioxide during the synthesis of ATP. a. CO2; glucose b. CO2; fats c. O2; CO2 d. O2; glucose e. ATP; O2 20. The slime layer external to the prokaryotic cell wall is called the ____. a. glycocalyx b. extracellular matrix c. plasma membrane d. pilus e. flagellum 21. The most commonly used unit for measuring cell size is a ____. a. decimeter (dm) b. centimeter (cm) c. millimeter (mm) d. micrometer (mm) e. nanometer (nm) 22. The main components of the extracellular matrix are ____. a. glycolipids b. phospholipids c. glycoproteins d. cellulose e. glucose 23. Microtubules are assembled from ____. a. keratin b. myosin c. laminin d. actin e. tubulin

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Chap_04_5e 24. In which type of microscopy is a beam of electrons used to scan the specimen, followed by the conversion of the excited electrons to a three-dimensional image? a. confocal laser scanning microscopy b. phase-contrast microscopy c. bright field microscopy d. scanning electron microscopy e. fluorescence microscopy 25. Over time, cancerous cells typically lose the cell adhesion molecules embedded in their plasma membrane. Loss of these molecules is best associated with which of the following traits of cancer cells? a. increased rate of cell division b. production of new proteins c. angiogenesis d. migration to new locations in the body e. loss of chromosomes 26. Tight junctions ____. a. seal the spaces between cells b. allow ions and small molecules to pass between cells c. allow cells to communicate with each other d. give the cell its shape e. anchor the cell membrane to the cell wall 27. A human egg is approximately 100 mm, or ____ mm, in diameter. a. 0.10 b. 10.0 c. 0.010 d. 0.0010 e. 1.0 28. In cell fractionation, which cellular structure or molecule is isolated in a pellet after the first centrifugation? a. nuclei b. mitochondria c. ribosomes d. proteins e. nucleic acids

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Chap_04_5e 29. Chromatin consists of ____. a. only DNA b. DNA and RNA c. RNA only d. DNA and associated proteins e. proteins only in the nucleus 30. Systems cell biologists often work with ____ to develop models of cellular processes that can be refined by experimental validation. a. molecular biologists b. reduction scientists c. the membrane d. mathematicians e. mathematicians and computer scientists 31. Cells actively secreting enzymes would likely carry out more ____ than other cells. a. exocytosis b. osmosis c. endocytosis d. conjugation e. fractionation 32. Chloroplasts utilize light energy to make ____. a. carbohydrates b. fats c. proteins d. nucleic acids e. steroids 33. Which structures radiate outward from the centrosome? a. microtubules b. microfilaments c. intermediate filaments d. centrioles e. cisternae 34. In plant cells, starch is stored in ____. a. chloroplasts b. amyloplasts c. chromoplasts d. vacuoles e. leucoplasts Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_04_5e 35. What is the function of sex pili in prokaryotes? a. biofilm formation b. transfer of DNA c. protein polymerization d. energy production e. lipid synthesis 36. Scientists believe that mitochondria may have evolved from ancient bacteria because ____. a. both are surrounded by a cell wall b. both have their own DNA and ribosomes c. the shapes and size of both are exactly the same d. both have cristae to increase surface area e. both have five chromosomes 37. Plant cells grow primarily by increasing ____. a. cell number through cell division b. cell size through cell differentiation c. pressure and volume of the central vacuole d. the amount of extracellular matrix e. the concentration of lignin 38. In prokaryotes, photosynthesis occurs in the ____. a. ribosomes b. nucleoid c. chloroplasts d. mitochondria e. plasma membrane 39. How did researchers determine the proteins involved in the secretory pathway? a. interfering with the translation of proteins and examining the cell's ability to transport fluorescently tagged proteins b. adding a detergent to the cells to lyse the membranes and examining transport of fluorescently tagged proteins c. genetically engineering mutations in genes and measuring changes in Golgi complex morphology d. treating cells with inhibitors of the secretory pathway and measuring changes in Golgi complex morphology e. altering the pH of the media to selectively regulate different enzymes and measuring changes in Golgi complex morphology

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Chap_04_5e 40. Which type of microscopy passes light directly through a stained and killed specimen? a. confocal laser scanning microscopy b. phase-contrast microscopy c. bright field microscopy d. scanning electron microscopy e. fluorescence microscopy 41. The membrane that surrounds the central vacuole is the ____. a. chloroplast b. tonoplast c. chromoplast d. amyloplast e. ionoplast 42. Desmosomes are a type of ____. a. anchoring junction b. cell adhesion molecule c. tight junction d. intermediate filament e. gap junction 43. E. coli is propelled by ____. a. rotating bundles of pili b. a single cilium c. a single flagellum d. rotating bundles of cilia e. rotating bundles of flagella 44. The ____ is/are involved in the synthesis of lipids. a. rough endoplasmic reticulum b. Golgi complex c. smooth endoplasmic reticulum d. ribosomes e. nucleoli 45. The first observed cells were from ____. a. cork b. a maple leaf c. human skin d. pollen e. bacteria

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Chap_04_5e 46. The chloroplast shares many similarities with which organelle? a. mitochondrion b. rough endoplasmic reticulum c. nucleus d. Golgi complex e. lysosome 47. Why can eggs be larger than other cell types? a. Eggs contain a large store of nutrients b. Eggs do not perform exocytosis c. Other cell types need higher concentrations of glucose d. Other cell types divide when they get too large e. Other cell types require phospholipids for organelle membranes 48. Eukaryotic cilia and flagella arise from which of the following cellular components? a. nucleus b. Golgi complex c. centrioles d. chromosomes e. nucleolus 49. The ____ contains hydrolytic enzymes for the digestion of proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, and polysaccharides. a. Golgi complex b. rough endoplasmic reticulum c. nucleus d. peroxisome e. lysosome 50. Lysosomal enzymes function best at a pH of about ____. a. 7 b. 6.5 c. 3 d. 5 e. 8.5 51. Cytoskeletal elements are assembled from ____. a. proteins b. phospholipids c. glycogen d. nucleotides e. triglycerides

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Chap_04_5e 52. Which type of microscopy utilizes lasers that scan across a fluorescently-stained specimen and a computer that focuses the light to give sharp 3D images? a. confocal laser scanning microscopy b. phase-contrast microscopy c. bright field microscopy d. scanning electron microscopy e. fluorescence microscopy 53. The nucleoli, found within the nucleus, are the sites of ____ synthesis. a. chromatin b. mRNA c. ribosomal subunit d. gene e. protein 54. In plant cells, the ____ provides cellular support and protects the cell from pathogens. a. cytoplasm b. cell membrane c. cytoskeleton d. plasmodesmata e. cell wall 55. The cell wall of plants is composed primarily of cellulose, which is a network of highly branched ____. a. carbohydrates b. nucleic acids c. proteins d. steroids e. phospholipids 56. Which molecules integrate changes outside and inside the cells through communicating changes in the extracellular matrix to the cytoskeleton? a. gap junctions and proteoglycans b. collagen and integrin c. fibronectin and collagen d. fibronectin and integrin e. gap junctions and fibronectin

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Chap_04_5e 57. At one point in human development, tissue connects the fingers, giving the hand a “webbed” appearance. Enzymes eventually destroy the cells of the webbing and the fingers separate. These enzymes are probably localized in the ____. a. chromosomes b. smooth endoplasmic reticulum c. lysosomes d. nucleus e. vacuoles 58. Which methodology was used by researchers to identify the nuclear localization sequence? a. infection of cells in culture with viruses containing sequential deletions of amino acids in a protein known to localize to the nucleus, followed by microscopic determination of cellular localization b. treatment of cells in culture with pharmacological agents that inhibit the nuclear pore complex, followed by microscopic determination of cellular localization c. transfection of cells in culture with mutant human proteins containing sequences believed to be required for nuclear localization followed by microscopic determination of cellular localization d. fluorescently labeling cells with known nuclear proteins and tracking changes in localization in the presence or absence of nuclear pore complex proteins e. treatment of cells in culture with pharmacological agents that binds to the nuclear localization sequence and prevents nuclear transport, followed by microscopic determination of cellular localization 59. In a mature plant cell, ____ may occupy more than 90% of the cell's volume. a. the nucleus b. chromoplasts c. rough endoplasmic reticulum d. the central vacuole e. chloroplasts 60. The semiliquid substance within the nucleus is called ____. a. nucleoplasm b. nuclear gel c. cytoplasm d. chromatin e. protoplasm 61. Aerobic cellular respiration occurs in the ____. a. Lysosomes b. Chloroplasts c. Mitochondria d. Peroxisomes e. Golgi complex

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Chap_04_5e 62. A bundle of ____ extends from the base to the tip of a eukaryotic flagellum or cilium. a. microtubules b. microfilaments c. actin d. cytokeratin e. intermediate filaments 63. Gap junctions ____. a. seal the spaces between cells b. allow ions and small molecules to pass between cells c. allow plant cells to communicate with each other d. give the cell its shape e. anchor the cell membrane to the cell wall 64. In animal cells, ____ radiating from the cell center anchor organelles such as the ER and Golgi complex, and provide tracks for vesicle movement. a. microfilaments b. microtubules c. laminins d. actins e. cytokeratins 65. Why is there an upper limit to the surface area-to-volume ratio in a cell? a. The volume of the cell maximizes the use of phospholipids. b. The surface area must be sufficient to provide adequate nutrient and waste exchange to sustain the chemical activities of the cell. c. The cells require a balance between endocytosis of precursor molecules to transporters in the membrane. d. The size of a cell is limited by the number of mitochondria. e. The organelles in cells require communication with the extracellular environment to support internal functions. 66. Microfilaments are assembled from ____. a. keratin b. myosin c. laminin d. actin e. tubulin

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Chap_04_5e 67. Cell walls are found in ____. a. animal cells only b. plant cells only c. fungal cells only d. plant and fungal cells e. animal and plant cells 68. The prokaryotic chromosome is comprised of a ____. a. highly coiled mass of a single, linear molecule of DNA b. loosely coiled mass of a single, linear molecule of DNA c. highly coiled mass of a double, circular molecule of DNA d. highly coiled mass of a single, circular molecule of DNA e. loosely coiled mass of a single, circular molecule of DNA 69. The ____ regulates the movement of molecules in and out of the cell. a. nucleus b. cytoplasm c. cystol d. plasma membrane e. DNA 70. What is a function of prokaryotic common pili? a. biofilm formation b. transfer of DNA c. protein polymerization d. energy production e. lipid synthesis 71. During cell fractionation, the ____ cannot be isolated since it is destroyed when intact cells are lysed. a. lysosomes b. mitochondria c. plasma membrane d. proteins e. nucleic acids 72. The coordinated beating of the heart is accomplished in part by the presence of ____ in heart muscle tissue that allows for communication between the cells. a. tight junctions b. desmosomes c. adherens junctions d. anchoring junctions e. gap junctions Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_04_5e 73. Grana and thylakoids are structural components found in ____. a. nucleoli b. mitochondria c. ribosomes d. chromoplasts e. chloroplasts 74. A network of protein filaments called ____ lines and reinforces the inner surface of the nuclear envelope in animal cells. a. actins b. chromatins c. lamins d. tubulins e. lamellae 75. Which structure is present in all eukaryotic cells investigated so far? a. motor proteins b. actin-tubulin cytoskeleton c. nuclear lamins d. cytoplasmic intermediate filaments e. microtubule-associated proteins 76. The cell's hereditary information is stored in ____. a. DNA b. protein c. RNA d. glucose e. amino acids 77. The surface area of the inner mitochondrial membrane is greatly increased by ____. a. cristae b. the matrix c. centrioles d. nucleoli e. microfilaments 78. A eukaryotic chromosome is composed of ____. a. DNA only b. RNA only c. DNA and carbohydrate d. DNA and protein e. RNA and protein Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_04_5e 79. The individual credited with first observing cells is ____. a. Anton van Leeuwenhoek b. Robert Hooke c. Matthias Schleiden d. Theodor Schwann e. Rudolf Virchow 80. The walls of adjacent plant cells are held together by the ____. a. secondary cell wall b. cell membrane c. primary cell wall d. middle lamella e. plasmodesmata Labeling Identify each of the cellular structures indicated in a eukaryotic plant cell.

Figure 4.1 a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_04_5e f. F g. G h. H i. I j. J k. K l. L m. M 81. chloroplast 82. plasma membrane 83. Golgi complex 84. smooth ER 85. nucleus 86. free ribosomes 87. mitochondrion 88. cell wall 89. central vacuole 90. microtubules 91. vesicle Classification Match each of the following cellular structures to the cell type in which it would be found. An answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all. a. a feature of all living cells b. found in prokaryotic cells only c. found in eukaryotic cells only d. found in plant cells only e. found in animal cells only 92. ribosome 93. cell membrane 94. nucleoid 95. mitochondria 96. What evolutionary advantage do prokaryotes have over eukaryotes?

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Chap_04_5e 97. If prokaryotic cells do not have mitochondria, in which cellular region is cellular energy produced?

98. Compare the structures of animal and plant cells. How are they different? How are they the same?

99. Explain how the internal structure of a cell isolated from the pancreas (a glandular organ that secretes hormones such as insulin, as well as digestive enzymes) differs from that of a muscle cell.

100. Why are viruses not considered to be living organisms?

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Chap_04_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. False - Chromoplasts 3. True 4. False - Protein modification 5. True 6. False - Central vacuoles 7. False - Chloroplasts 8. False - eukaryotic cells 9. True 10. True 11. d 12. e 13. b 14. b 15. e 16. b 17. b 18. b 19. d 20. a 21. d 22. c 23. e 24. d 25. d 26. a 27. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_04_5e 28. a 29. d 30. e 31. a 32. a 33. a 34. b 35. b 36. b 37. c 38. e 39. a 40. c 41. b 42. a 43. e 44. c 45. a 46. a 47. a 48. c 49. e 50. d 51. a 52. a 53. c 54. e 55. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_04_5e 56. d 57. c 58. a 59. d 60. a 61. c 62. a 63. b 64. b 65. b 66. d 67. d 68. d 69. d 70. a 71. c 72. e 73. e 74. c 75. b 76. a 77. a 78. d 79. b 80. d 81. e 82. h

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Chap_04_5e 83. b 84. i 85. m 86. j 87. a 88. g 89. d 90. f 91. c 92. a 93. a 94. b 95. c 96. Prokaryotes are more versatile biochemically than eukaryotes, as evidenced by the fact that they can use a variety of substances for energy, they can synthesize all of their required organic molecules from simple inorganic raw materials, and they can live in almost all regions of the Earth's surface 97. The cell membrane contains most of the molecular systems needed to metabolize food molecules to generate ATP. 98. Both animal and plant cells have a plasma membrane, nucleus, mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes, and Golgi complex. Animal cells, however, do not have a cell wall, central vacuole, or chloroplasts, which are present in plant cells. 99. Both cell types would contain the same organelles; however, due to the very different functions of the two cells, the proportion of certain organelles would be different. For example, the pancreatic cell, which is involved in the production of digestive enzymes and hormones, would have an extensive rough ER network, while a muscle cell would have a large proportion of mitochondria to make the large amount of energy necessary for muscle contraction. 100. Viruses consist only of a nucleic acid molecule surrounded by a protein coat. They are not capable of carrying out all the activities of life such as reproduction, response to external stimuli, growth, etc.

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Chap_05_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. Cholesterol is essential for keeping cell membranes from thickening. 2. In primary active transport, the carrier protein that transports a substance also hydrolyzes ATP to power the transport directly. 3. An animal cell placed in a hypertonic solution will swell and perhaps burst. 4. Unlike active transport, facilitated diffusion does not become saturated at high concentrations. 5. Bulk endocytosis is also called pinocytosis. 6. As a result of calcium pumps, calcium concentrations are typically higher outside cells than in the cytosol. 7. A hypertonic environment would be ideal for a healthy plant. 8. In facilitated diffusion, the membrane components responsible for transport are proteins. 9. Particular mutations in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance (CFTR) gene result in a CFTR molecule that transports sodium ions poorly or not at all. 10. In receptor-mediated endocytosis, the receptors collect into a depression called a coated pit for endocytosis after the target molecules bind to them. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Movement of a substance from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration using energy obtained from ATP is called ____. a. passive transport b. diffusion c. facilitated transport d. osmosis e. active transport 12. When referring to membrane glycolipids and glycoproteins, the term "glyco-" indicates ____. a. carbohydrate groups are attached to the molecules b. the molecules are bound to the glycocalyx c. the molecules are found on both the interior and exterior of the membrane d. the molecules are attached to the membrane by ionic bonds e. the molecules are rarely found on the membrane exterior

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Chap_05_5e 13. Two solutions of differing glucose concentration are placed in a container separated by a selectively permeable membrane that restricts large molecules like glucose, but allows the free diffusion of water. What will be the glucose concentration in the container after dynamic equilibrium has been reached? a. The water molecules will be evenly distributed in the container, with more glucose molecules on one side than the other. b. The volumes of the solution will be different, with a higher volume on the side that originally contained the higher concentration of glucose. c. The volumes of the solution will be different, with a lower volume on the side that originally contained the higher concentration of glucose. d. The glucose concentration of the two solutions will be identical on both sides of the membrane, but the volumes will remain unchanged. e. The volume and concentrations will be unchanged on both sides of the membrane. 14. Our current view of membrane structure is based on the fluid mosaic model, proposed by ____ in 1972. a. Frye and Edidin b. Watson and Crick c. Singer and Goldstein d. S. Singer and G. Nicolson e. Brown and Goldstein 15. Which class of proteins is embedded in the phospholipid bilayer? a. cytoskeletal proteins b. integral membrane proteins c. transcription factor proteins d. peripheral membrane proteins e. protein hormones 16. The polar end of a phospholipid contains a phosphate group bound to ____, while the nonpolar end contains ____. a. alcohols or amino acids; two fatty-acid tails b. glycoproteins; one fatty-acid tail c. two fatty-acid tails; sterols d. variable proteins; cholesterol e. water; choline 17. Which function of cellular membranes is critical to the molecular organization of cells? a. the controlled transport of ions and molecules across the membrane b. cell-cell binding c. recognition of other cells as being "foreign" or "self" d. reception of chemical signals from other cells e. participation in metabolic reactions

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Chap_05_5e 18. In plants, extreme wilting of leaves and stems can cause the cells to retract from the cell wall, a condition known as ____. a. hemolysis b. an increase in turgor pressure c. plasmolysis d. a lack of solutes in the cell e. a higher than normal concentration of water in the cell 19. The selective permeability of a cell membrane is due to ____. a. the hydrophobic core formed by the phospholipid tails b. the hydrophilic surface facing the cell's exterior c. glycolipids on the surface of the membrane d. the position of cholesterol in the membrane bilayer e. the hydrophilic core formed by the phospholipid tails 20. For osmosis to occur, ____. a. a selectively permeable membrane must be present b. a concentration gradient cannot exist c. cellular energy must be expended d. pure water must be on one side of the membrane e. only solutes can pass through the membrane 21. What happens when the concentrations of a solute that can freely diffuse across a membrane are equal inside and outside the cell? a. The osmotic pressure is equilibrated on both sides of the membrane. b. Solute molecules no longer diffuse across the membrane. c. Solute molecules continue to diffuse across the membrane. d. Transporter proteins are inhibited to prevent movement across the membrane. e. Channel proteins are gated to prevent movement across the membrane. 22. Distilled water is ____ to body cells. a. isotonic b. hypertonic c. hypotonic d. protonic e. aquatonic

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Chap_05_5e 23. A scientist fused a mouse cell and a human cell, then treated the cell with specific antibodies covalently linked to colored fluorescent dyes (antibodies to mouse proteins were labeled green; antibodies to human proteins were labeled red). Forty minutes later, what will the researcher observe? a. The fused cell will still be half red and half green. b. The red and green fluorescent labels will be uniformly distributed throughout the entire membrane. c. The red and green labels will be distributed in intermingled patches. d. The red and green labels will flash intermittently. e. The red and green labels will be distributed in a swirling pattern. 24. Where do exocytic secretory vesicles originate? a. endoplasmic reticulum b. plasma membrane c. the Golgi complex d. lysosomes e. microbodies 25. Cells undergo exocytosis ____. a. to pump protons down a concentration gradient b. when replicating c. to secrete protein and wastes from the cell d. to ingest nutrients e. as a means of cellular protection 26. The major structural components of a cell membrane are ____. a. phospholipids and cellulose b. phospholipids, protein, and sterols c. protein and sterols d. glycolipids and proteins e. phospholipids and glycolipids 27. A(n) ____ gradient is created as ions diffuse across membranes. a. chemical b. electrochemical c. negative d. electrical e. active

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Chap_05_5e 28. Glycolipids and glycoproteins form a surface coat on the outside of the cell surface called a ____, which protects the cell against chemical and mechanical damage. a. cell wall b. outer matrix c. extracellular matrix d. glycocalyx e. lipid raft 29. In patients with familial hypercholesterolemia, which cellular process is inhibited? a. bulk endocytosis b. receptor mediated endocytosis c. exocytosis d. primary active transport e. secondary active transport 30. Cystic fibrosis primarily affects which organ? a. brain b. heart c. muscle d. lungs e. bones 31. Pinocytosis and phagocytosis are accomplished in the cell by the ____. a. nucleus b. lysosome c. endoplasmic reticulum d. plasma membrane e. mitochondria 32. Which molecules demonstrate dual solubility characteristics? a. sterols only b. proteins only c. phospholipids only d. sterols and phospholipids e. sterols, phospholipids, and proteins 33. A red blood cell placed in a beaker of solution immediately begins to swell and ultimately bursts. This occurs because the cytoplasm of the cell was ____ to the solution in the beaker, which was ____. a. hypertonic; hypotonic b. hypotonic; hypertonic c. hypotonic; isotonic d. hypertonic; isotonic e. isotonic; hypotonic Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_05_5e 34. Which adaptation to the plasma membrane allows mammals to hibernate in subzero temperatures without their plasma membranes freezing? a. increase in cholesterol content only b. increase in protein content only c. increase in the number of double covalent bonds in phospholipids d. increase in both cholesterol and protein content e. increase in both cholesterol and double covalent bonds in phospholipids 35. Humans with mutations in the AQP1 (aquaporin-1) gene do not produce the AQP1 protein. The absence of AQP1 causes an inability to ____ in these individuals. a. produce concentrated urine b. recognize thirst c. make large volumes of dilute urine d. control sweating e. salivate 36. The net movement of molecules or ions from a low concentration to a higher concentration is called ____. a. active transport b. facilitated diffusion c. exocytosis d. osmosis e. diffusion 37. Which process moves materials against a concentration gradient? a. active transport b. dialysis c. facilitated diffusion d. simple diffusion e. osmosis 38. When a plant cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, the cell wall prevents ____. a. plasmolysis b. diffusion c. active transport d. the cell from bursting e. the cell from shrinking

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Chap_05_5e 39. Carrier proteins are often used by the cell to transport ____. a. H2O b. proteins c. amino acids d. steroid hormones e. CO2 40. The force that pushes plant cell membranes tightly against the cell wall and helps support softer tissues against the force of gravity is known as ____ pressure. a. turgor b. osmotic c. diffusion d. concentration e. plasmolysis 41. Membrane sterols, such as cholesterol, function in animal cell membranes to ____. a. increase the rate of diffusion b. store cellular energy c. facilitate ion transport d. maintain membrane fluidity e. receive chemical signals 42. The pressure that must be applied to a solution to prevent water movement across a membrane is known as ____ pressure. a. turgor b. osmotic c. diffusion d. concentration e. plasmolysis 43. Which organelle's membrane contains the enzymes that convert light energy to chemical energy in eukaryotes? a. plasma b. chloroplast c. Golgi complex d. lysosome e. endoplasmic reticulum

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Chap_05_5e 44. According to the fluid mosaic model of cell membranes, the fluid part of the model refers to ____. a. the constant movement of the hydrophilic tails in the interior of the membrane b. a thin layer of water found sandwiched between the two layers of phospholipids c. the phospholipid molecules that vibrate, spin, and exchange places within the same layer of the bilayer d. the free movement of cholesterol molecules within the membrane e. the frequent flip-flop of phospholipids from one side of the membrane to the other 45. The voltage across a membrane is called the ____. a. electrochemical gradient b. turgor pressure c. membrane potential d. chemical gradient e. electron potential 46. In secondary active transport, when the driving ion concentration is high and the transport ion concentration is low outside of the cell, in which direction will the two ions move? a. As the driving ion moves in, the transport ion moves in. b. As the driving ion moves in, the transport ion moves out. c. As the driving ion moves out, the transport ion moves in. d. As the driving ion moves out, the transport ion moves out. e. As long as both ions are moving together, they can go either in or out. 47. Transport of a molecule across a cell membrane by facilitated diffusion ____. a. does not exhibit specificity for a particular type of molecule b. requires the input of energy c. depends on a concentration gradient d. goes against the concentration gradient e. allows nonpolar uncharged molecules to diffuse across a membrane 48. Which ion is actively transported to regulate pollen growth and fertilization? a. hydrogen b. potassium c. sodium d. calcium e. magnesium 49. The ____ component of the cell membrane functions as a selective barrier, while the ____ component has specific functions such as transport, recognizing other cells, and binding to other cells. a. carbohydrate; nucleic acid b. protein; lipid c. lipid; protein d. lipid; carbohydrate e. carbohydrate; protein Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_05_5e 50. The "mosaic" part of the fluid mosaic model refers to the membrane ____. a. proteins b. phospholipids c. cholesterol d. functions e. layers 51. As part of an experiment, researchers grew several different types of cells in the presence of radioactive iodine. After some time had passed, the cells were washed, and the levels of iodine inside the cell were determined. What is the most plausible explanation for why some cells had higher levels of radioactivity after treatment than others? a. Cells that had high radioactivity levels after treatment contain iodine transporters. b. Cells that had high radioactivity levels after treatment lack iodine transporters. c. Cells that had high radioactivity levels after treatment had a mutation in genes encoding iodine transporter proteins. d. Cells that had high radioactivity levels after treatment lack clathrin. e. Cells that had high radioactivity levels after treatment lack lysosomes. 52. A transport system in which the transport of an ion in one direction provides the energy for active transport in the opposite direction is known as ____. a. antiport b. active diffusion c. symport d. facilitated diffusion e. osmosis 53. Which proteins in the plasma membrane identify a cell as part of the same individual or as foreign? a. transport proteins b. recognition proteins c. receptor proteins d. cell adhesion proteins e. nuclear proteins 54. Which proteins recognize and bind molecules from other cells that act as chemical signals? a. transport proteins b. recognition proteins c. receptor proteins d. cell adhesion proteins e. nuclear proteins

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Chap_05_5e 55. The movement of water across a membrane from an area of lower solute concentration to a region of higher solute concentration is called ____. a. osmosis only b. active transport only c. endocytosis only d. both diffusion and osmosis e. both osmosis and active transport 56. What is the energy source for facilitated diffusion? a. ATP hydrolysis b. concentration gradients c. glucose metabolism d. GTP hydrolysis e. lipid phosphorylation 57. Which molecules most easily diffuse across a cell membrane? a. ionic b. large, polar c. large, hydrophilic d. small, hydrophobic e. large, hydrophobic 58. Facilitated diffusion is specific, which indicates that ____. a. a specific protein will transport certain polar or charged molecules but not others b. only one specific integral membrane protein per membrane is involved in this process c. the energy molecule ATP is specifically required for transport d. only specific hydrophobic molecules can be transported e. transport of molecules occurs only in specific cells 59. A channel that opens in response to changes in ionic charge across a membrane is called a(n) ____ channel. a. voltage-gated b. ligand-gated c. charge-gated d. electric-gated e. positive-gated 60. The movement of water across a membrane from an area of high to low water concentration is an example of ____. a. active transport only b. endocytosis only c. osmosis only d. both osmosis and active transport e. both diffusion and osmosis Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_05_5e 61. When a drop of food coloring is placed in a container of clear water, the colored dye molecules ____. a. diffuse to a different location by osmosis b. diffuse to a different location by active transport c. concentrate at the top of the container d. diffuse equally throughout the container e. stay at the bottom of the container 62. Which type of lipid is most important to the structure of biological membranes? a. fat b. wax c. phospholipid d. neutral fat e. triglyceride 63. In secondary active transport, when both the driving ion and the transport ion are in high concentration outside of the cell, in which direction will the two ions move? a. As the driving ion moves in, the transport ion moves in. b. As the driving ion moves in, the transport ion moves out. c. As the driving ion moves out, the transport ion moves in. d. As the driving ion moves out, the transport ion moves out. e. As long as both ions are moving together, they can go either in or out. 64. Carrier proteins are utilized for ____. a. active transport only b. passive transport only c. both active and passive transport d. osmosis e. transport of all types of molecules 65. In what way do the various membranes of a cell differ? a. Phospholipids are found only in certain membranes. b. Certain proteins are unique to each membrane. c. Only certain membranes are constructed from molecules with dual solubility. d. Only certain membranes of a cell are selectively permeable. e. Some membranes have hydrophobic surfaces exposed to the cytoplasm, while others have hydrophilic surfaces facing the cytoplasm.

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Chap_05_5e 66. Mutations in different types of aquaporin proteins lead to a variety of clinical manifestations, such as diabetes insipidus, epileptic seizures, and cataracts. What best explains the differences in the conditions caused by these mutations? a. Different types of aquaporin proteins allow different rates of water diffusion. b. Different aquaporin proteins are localized to different membranes in the cell. c. Different types of aquaporin proteins are produced in different cell types. d. Different types of aquaporin proteins alter the amount of water retention within a cell. e. Different aquaporin proteins have different functions within the cells. 67. Aquaporins are ____. a. pores made of water molecules b. required for water to enter a cell c. found only in bacterial cells d. specific channels for water transport e. useful for cell signaling 68. Which molecules coat the inside of the cytosolic membrane to help form endocytic vesicles? a. clathrins b. cholesterols c. antibodies d. aquaporins e. microtubules 69. An isotonic solution has a solute concentration ____ the solute concentration inside the cell. a. equal to b. greater than c. less than d. that depends on e. that alters 70. In an aqueous environment, the phospholipids of a membrane ____. a. are arranged in a single layer b. are arranged in a bilayer with the polar heads of each layer located at the membrane surface c. are arranged in a bilayer with the fatty acid tails located at the membrane surface d. are arranged in a bilayer but the phospholipids have no specific orientation e. dissociate into their lipid and protein components 71. A(n) ____ environment is ideal for plant cells, while a(n) ____ environment is best for animal cells. a. isotonic; hypotonic b. hypotonic; isotonic c. hypotonic; hypertonic d. hypertonic; isotonic e. isotonic; isotonic Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_05_5e 72. Organisms must constantly bring in certain molecules and ions while keeping others out. This function is accomplished by ____. a. the nucleus b. lysosomes c. vesicles d. the plasma membrane e. the Golgi complex 73. The Na+/K+ pump creates a ____ charge inside the cell and a ____ charge outside the cell. a. negative; negative b. positive; negative c. positive; positive d. negative; positive e. neutral; positive 74. Which proteins form channels in the membrane that allow selected polar molecules and ions to pass through and across the membrane? a. transport proteins b. recognition proteins c. receptor proteins d. cell adhesion proteins e. nuclear proteins 75. The selective permeability of a membrane refers to the ____. a. movement of a molecule from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration b. ability of a substance to pass through any membrane c. ability of only certain molecules to pass across a membrane d. need for carrier proteins to transport some molecules across a membrane e. ability of molecules to be transported across a membrane 76. The Na+/K+ pump transports ____. a. two sodium ions in and two potassium ions out b. two sodium ions in and three potassium ions out c. two sodium ions out and three potassium ions in d. three sodium ions in and two potassium ions out e. three sodium ions out and two potassium ions in

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Chap_05_5e 77. Polar and charged molecules typically cross the cell membrane by way of ____. a. simple diffusion b. osmosis c. filtration d. active transport e. facilitated diffusion 78. Which protein group links cells together by recognizing and binding receptors or chemical groups on other cells or the extracellular matrix? a. transport proteins b. recognition proteins c. receptor proteins d. cell adhesion proteins e. nuclear proteins 79. Which proteins would be considered peripheral membrane proteins? a. aquaporins b. cell adhesion proteins c. carrier proteins d. microtubules e. receptors 80. In order to visualize LDL entry into the cell, researchers tagged the LDL with which heavy metal? a. iron b. mercury c. lead d. manganese e. zinc

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Chap_05_5e Match each of the following mechanisms of cellular transport with its correct definition. a. Movement of a molecule from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration. b. Cells internalize molecules into a cell by the inward budding of vesicles possessing receptors specific to the molecule being transported. c. Movement of water from a hypotonic solution into a hypertonic solution across a selectively permeable membrane. d. Large particles are enveloped by the cell membrane and internalized. e. A process in which liquid droplets are ingested by living cells. f. Diffusion of molecules across the plasma membrane with the assistance of transport proteins. g. Secretory vesicles that have moved through the cytoplasm along microtubules contact the plasma membrane and release their contents 81. exocytosis 82. osmosis 83. facilitated diffusion 84. phagocytosis 85. pinocytosis 86. receptor-mediated endocytosis 87. diffusion

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Chap_05_5e Identify each structure found in a typical plasma membrane, as shown in the figure below.

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Chap_05_5e These micrographs show the effects of various aqueous environments on red blood cells. Identify the correct environment depicted in each panel.

©2014 Brooks/Cole, Cengage Learning a. A b. B c. C 93. Isotonic 94. Hypertonic 95. Hypotonic 96. Explain how cells can adapt to colder temperatures by altering the number of double bonds in the lipids that comprise cell membranes.

97. Explain why the transport of molecules across the cell membrane is considered to be both specific and directional.

98. Water is a strongly polar molecule. How does it cross the plasma membrane?

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Chap_05_5e 99. Describe the steps involved in the functioning of the Na+/K+ pump, including the order and cellular localization of the binding of the ions, as well as how the transporter works.

100. People with type A blood have red blood cells that express one type of recognition protein, while those with type B blood express a different recognition protein. People with AB blood express both recognition proteins. Why can a person with AB blood receive blood from a person with type A, but a person with type A blood cannot receive blood from a person with type AB?

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Chap_05_5e Answer Key 1. False - fluid 2. True 3. False - hypotonic 4. False - simple diffusion 5. True 6. True 7. False - hypotonic 8. True 9. False - chloride 10. True 11. e 12. b 13. b 14. d 15. b 16. a 17. a 18. c 19. a 20. a 21. c 22. c 23. b 24. c 25. c 26. b 27. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_05_5e 28. d 29. b 30. d 31. d 32. e 33. a 34. e 35. a 36. a 37. a 38. d 39. c 40. a 41. d 42. b 43. b 44. c 45. c 46. a 47. c 48. d 49. c 50. a 51. a 52. a 53. b 54. c 55. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_05_5e 56. b 57. d 58. a 59. a 60. e 61. d 62. c 63. b 64. c 65. b 66. c 67. d 68. a 69. a 70. b 71. b 72. d 73. d 74. a 75. c 76. e 77. e 78. d 79. d 80. a 81. g 82. c

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Chap_05_5e 83. f 84. d 85. e 86. b 87. a 88. c 89. b 90. a 91. e 92. d 93. c 94. a 95. b 96. Increasing the number of lipids with double bonds in the membrane prevents the lipids from packing tightly and orderly, which is required for lipids to freeze. 97. Transport is considered directional because only certain ions and molecules can move into the cell, while others can only move out of the cell. Transport is specific because only certain ions and molecules can actually move across the membrane. 98. Water molecules are small enough to slip through spaces transiently created between the hydrocarbon tails of phospholipid molecules as they flex and rotate in the fluid bilayer. This type of water movement is relatively slow, however. It can also pass through aquaporins, channels specific for water. 99. First, three sodium ions in the cytosol bind to the receptor. Then, ATP is hydrolyzed in order to change the conformation of the transporter. The sodium ions are released into the extracellular space and two potassium ions then bind. The transporter then changes conformation again to release the potassium ions into the cytosol before the transporter reverts to its initial conformation. 100. The glycoproteins present on the surface of red blood cells are markers that tell the body that they are part of the individual rather than foreign. Patients with type A blood will recognize the A recognition protein found in AB blood, but they will not recognize the B recognition proteins. Therefore, the white blood cells from a type A person will attack the B antigens as foreign. Patients with AB blood recognize both the A and B recognition proteins, so people with AB blood will recognize the A blood, and not consider it foreign. Therefore, there will be no rejection of the type A blood.

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Chap_06_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. The first law of thermodynamics states that the total disorder of a system always increases. 2. Enzymes don't change the DG of a reaction. 3. If an enzyme is bound by an allosteric activator, the enzyme will convert from a low-affinity state to a highaffinity state. 4. The rate of catalysis is proportional to the concentration of the enzyme. 5. ATP synthesis is exergonic. 6. Enzymes alter the equilibrium point of a reaction. 7. Reactions that reach an equilibrium point are reversible. 8. The potential energy in a chemical bond is defined as chemical energy. 9. At equilibrium, the concentrations of the reactants equals that of the products. 10. Ribozymes are enzymes. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Enzymes ____. a. change the rate of a reaction b. change the direction of a reaction c. change the free energy of a reaction d. are used up in a reaction e. are present in concentrations approaching their substrates' concentrations 12. What is the ultimate source of energy for almost all organisms? a. catabolism of sugars b. ATP c. catabolism of fats d. the sun e. catabolism of sugars, fats, and proteins 13. During every energy transformation, it can be said that ____. a. the entropy of the universe increases b. the entropy of the universe decreases c. there is an increase in the free energy of the universe d. there is a change in the total energy of the universe e. the system becomes more organized

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Chap_06_5e 14. Where does the energy for ATP synthesis come from? a. anabolism of complex molecules into simpler molecules b. catabolism of complex molecules into simpler molecules c. anabolism of simple molecules into complex molecules d. catabolism of simple molecules into complex molecules e. anabolism of complex molecules directly into ATP 15. How did Zhang and Cech purify the RNA molecules that were able to catalyze the linkage between two amino acids? a. passing the reaction mixture through a column that binds biotin b. passing the reaction mixture through a column that binds all proteins c. passing the reaction mixture through a column that binds RNA d. centrifuging the reaction mixture to concentrate the proteins e. centrifuging the reaction mixture to concentrate the RNA molecules 16. Reversible reactions in a cell rarely reach equilibrium because ____. a. the products are generally reactants in other reactions and are thus immediately used b. a cell at equilibrium is dead c. they are highly regulated to prevent overuse of reactants d. cells have no way of measuring the relative ratios of reactants and products e. conditions in the cell change too rapidly for any reaction to ever reach equilibrium

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Chap_06_5e

Figure 6.4 17. Answer the question by using the accompanying graph. If all three enzymes catalyze the same reaction and your experimental conditions require a pH of 8, which enzyme would you choose? a. enzyme 1 b. enzyme 2 c. enzyme 3 d. either enzyme 2 or 3 e. both enzymes 2 and 3 18. In an exothermic reaction, ____. a. ATP is phosphorylated b. heat energy is absorbed c. the products have less potential energy than the reactants d. the reactants have less potential energy than the products e. H (enthalpy) = 0 19. According to the first law of thermodynamics, ____. a. matter can be created and destroyed b. matter only changes forms c. energy can be created and destroyed d. energy only changes forms e. matter and energy can be interconverted

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Chap_06_5e

Figure 6.3 20. In the accompanying figure, why does the curve sharply drop after approximately 45°C instead of mirroring the slope of the line going from 0-40°C? a. At high temperatures, the reactions proceed so quickly that enzymes are no longer helpful or required. b. This is true of all catalysts and is not due to any special features of enzymes. c. The kinetic energy of the reactants is so great that it destabilizes the enzyme and diminishes the enzyme's activity. d. The kinetic energy of the reactants is lower than that of the products, forcing a change in enzyme activity. e. The enzyme begins to denature above a certain temperature, eliminating all catalytic activity of the protein. 21. The ultimate fate of the energy used by organisms is ____. a. conversion into heat b. transmission onto offspring c. to be recycled repeatedly without loss d. to be recycled as metabolic energy e. move into the environment by conduction 22. Allosteric inhibitors are often ____. a. substrates of the reactions they regulate b. products of the reactions that they regulate c. charged amino acids in the active site d. large, complex organic molecules e. competitive inhibitors 23. Zhang and Cech’s experiments confirmed which feature of ribozyme activity? a. Ribozymes inhibit rates of biological reactions. b. Ribozymes catalyze formation of bonds between amino acids in protein synthesis. c. Ribozymes catalyze formation of the fundamental linkage tying nucleic acids to proteins. d. Ribozymes can link nucleic acids together even if their proteins are removed. e. Ribozymes provide a possible solution to the question of whether proteins or nucleic acids appeared first in evolution. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_5e 24. The conversion of a diamond into graphite is a spontaneous reaction. Why are most women walking around with diamond rings and not graphite rings? a. Inorganic substances, like diamonds, do not react like organic substances. b. The transition state is very stable. c. The energy of activation is very high. d. The free energy of this reaction is too low. e. The free energy of this reaction is too high. 25. Coenzymes that bind tightly to enzymes are called ____. a. cofactors b. appendages c. regulatory groups d. prosthetic groups e. magnetic groups 26. What is the primary determinant of the function and specificity of an enzyme? a. the cofactors bound to the enzyme b. the presence or absence of an allosteric regulator c. prosthetic groups d. the enzyme's conformation e. the pH of its environment 27. If a reaction is endergonic, what can we infer about the reaction? a. ΔH must be positive. b. ΔH must be negative. c. ΔG must be positive. d. ΔG must be negative. e. ΔS must be positive. 28. The discovery of ____ suggested that nucleic acids likely existed prior to proteins. a. RNA b. ribozymes c. RNA polymerase d. peptide bonds e. endoplasmic reticulum 29. What is the optimum pH of most enzymes? a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7 e. 9 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_5e 30. Is a ribozyme a true enzyme? a. Yes, because it is a catalyst. b. No, because it is not a protein. c. No, because it cannot catalyze a reaction. d. Yes, because it can synthesize a protein. e. No, because it doesn't require cofactors. 31. Which reaction is most likely to have more products than reactants when it reaches equilibrium? a. DG = -25 kcal/mol b. DG = -50 kcal/mol c. DG = -75 kcal/mol d. DG = -100 kcal/mol e. They will all have the same ratio of products to reactants regardless of the DG value. 32. Which system is considered an open system? a. a human b. a thermos c. a wine keg d. a greenhouse e. the Earth 33. Enzymes function primarily by ____. a. forcing the reactants into an altered environment which in turn creates a change in the free energy of the reactants relative to the products b. altering the equilibrium point of a particular reaction to favor the formation of products c. increasing the probability that the reactants will come into close proximity to each other in the proper orientation for forming the transition state molecule d. removing reactants from solution in a set ratio to increase the chances of the remaining individual reactants interacting with each other e. changing the ratio of reactants to products so that the forward reaction is favored 34. The term that best describes all of the chemical reactions of a cell, including acquisition and use of molecules and energy, is ____. a. metabolism b. anabolism c. catabolism d. energy budget e. thermodynamics

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Chap_06_5e 35. How does the cell overcome inhibition from irreversible inhibitors? a. by binding a second inhibitor, which forces the enzyme's conformation to dislodge the first inhibitor b. by phosphorylating the enzyme, altering the enzyme's conformation to dislodge the inhibitor c. by altering the cellular pH, which will decrease the bonding between the enzyme and the inhibitor d. by degrading the enzyme-inhibitor complex and generating new enzyme e. by upregulating the expression of other enzymes with similar catalytic functions 36. Which equation is used to calculate the free energy associated with a reaction? a. ΔG = ΔH-TΔS b. ΔG = ΔH+TΔS c. ΔG = - ΔH+TΔS d. ΔG = ΔS+TΔH e. ΔG = -ΔS-TΔH 37. An exergonic reaction will have a ____. a. negative change in kinetic energy b. positive change in enthalpy c. negative change in entropy d. DG = 0 e. negative change in free energy

Figure 6.4 38. Answer the question by using the accompanying graph. The optimal pH for enzyme 2 is ____. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 7 e. 8

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Chap_06_5e 39. Which example would have a negative change in entropy? a. water freezing b. fermentation of wine c. expansion of the universe d. a supernova (stellar explosion) e. a frog's life cycle 40. Eating and digesting a candy bar for energy during a sports event is a good example of ____. a. catabolism b. anabolism c. converting kinetic energy into potential energy d. metabolism e. converting heat energy into chemical energy 41. What is the name of the specific region of an enzyme responsible for catalysis? a. functional domain b. active site c. binding site d. allosteric site e. reaction domain 42. Because of some of the problems with explaining how the first RNA organisms originated, an alternative possibility has been proposed in which ____. a. proteins and RNA evolved simultaneously b. DNA existed before RNA c. lipids functioned as enzymes d. a different form of life existed before the RNA world e. viruses functioned as carriers for RNA 43. Which statement is a part of the first law of thermodynamics? a. Energy can be neither created nor destroyed. b. Energy cannot be transformed. c. The entropy of the universe is constant. d. The entropy of the universe is decreasing. e. Potential energy is the energy of motion.

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Chap_06_5e 44. You do an experiment in the laboratory and add increasing amounts of substrate to a solution containing an enzyme and a pH buffer. You incubate the container at the optimal temperature for your enzyme. Each time you add more substrate, you measure the rate of the reaction. If you graph the results with substrate concentration on the x-axis and reaction rate on the y-axis, what will you find over time? a. The rate of the reaction will proceed with a slope of 1 and continue in a linear fashion indefinitely or until you run out of reactants. b. The rate of the reaction will increase rapidly, taper off, and plateau. c. The rate of the reaction will increase slowly, plateau, and then drop sharply back to zero. d. The resulting graph will be a perfect bell curve. e. There is no way to predict what the graph will look like without more information. 45. Identify the exergonic reaction in the list below. a. burning wood for a campfire b. folding laundry c. building a tower out of blocks d. synthesizing a protein e. storing the third slice of pie in the form of fat 46. What is the effect of the proper balance of ionized and deionized amino acids in an enzyme? a. optimal enzyme efficiency b. an acid/base reaction required for synthesis c. the binding of substrates that otherwise would not fit d. an electronic current to provide the energy for the reaction e. increased salt concentration required for the chemical reaction to occur 47. The free energy of ATP hydrolysis is -31.0 kJ/mol. The free energy of glucose phosphorylation by hexokinase is +14.3 kJ/mol. These two reactions are coupled to allow them to proceed spontaneously. What is the overall free energy associated with this coupled reaction? a. -45.3 kJ/mol b. -31 kJ/mol c. -16.7 kJ/mol d. 16.7 kJ/mol e. 45.3 kJ/mol 48. We can calculate whether a reaction is spontaneous by calculating the change in free energy and accounting for entropy. Your paycheck always lists your gross pay, net (take home) pay, and tax withholdings. Which of the following best correlates your paycheck to the changes in free energy? a. gross salary = net salary - tax; total energy = free energy - entropy b. net salary = gross salary - tax; free energy = total energy - entropy c. tax = gross - net salary; entropy = total energy - free energy d. gross salary = tax - net salary; total energy = entropy - free energy e. net salary = gross salary + tax; free energy = total energy + entropy

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Chap_06_5e 49. What is the difference between cofactors and coenzymes? a. Cofactors are not necessary for enzyme function, but coenzymes are. b. Cofactors can be inorganic or organic, but coenzymes are always inorganic. c. Cofactors can be inorganic or organic; coenzymes are organic cofactors. d. Cofactors are always vitamins; coenzymes are always ions. e. Cofactors help with essential metabolic reactions; coenzymes assist with nonessential metabolic reactions.

Figure 6.4 50. Answer the question by using the accompanying graph. The optimal pH for enzyme 1 is ____. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 7 e. 8 51. Harry Noller's experiments in which he extracted the ribosomal proteins and found that RNA molecules could catalyze protein synthesis had one major flaw. What was the flaw? a. The extraction process may have altered the RNA molecules. b. Protein synthesis may have occurred prior to extraction. c. Coenzymes, which were not extracted, might have been responsible for the reaction. d. The extraction process may have altered the pH of the environment. e. Undetectable amounts of protein may have remained.

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Chap_06_5e 52. When an enzyme-catalyzed reaction reaches equilibrium ____. a. the enzymes are now inhibited b. the chemical reactions cease c. the rate of the forward and reverse reactions are equal d. the concentration of reactants equals the concentration of products e. ATP is no longer required to drive the reaction 53. How does energy coupling allow chemical reactions that are not spontaneous to proceed? a. The energy from both reactions increases the total free energy. b. The energy from the endergonic reaction is transferred to the substrate to stabilize it. c. The energy from the endergonic reaction is transferred to the enzyme to stabilize the transition state. d. The energy from the exergonic reaction is transferred to the substrate to stabilize it. e. The energy from the exergonic reaction is transferred to the substrate to destabilize it. 54. Enzymes aid in metabolism by ____. a. changing the DG of the reaction b. adding additional reactants to the system c. slowing the rate of some reactions and increasing the rate of other reactions d. stabilizing the transition state e. removing unused reactants from the system 55. How do cells overcome the energy requirement of endergonic reactions? a. coupling ATP synthesis with phosphorylation reactions b. coupling endergonic and exergonic reactions c. coupling endothermic and endergonic reactions d. coupling ATP transport with endergonic reactions e. coupling ATP synthesis with endergonic reactions 56. You modify the primary sequence of an enzyme in a region that will be the active site when the protein is properly folded. What is the predicted outcome of this change? a. The enzyme will not bind to the substrate properly. b. The enzyme will not be able to bind an allosteric inhibitor. c. The enzyme will have an increased rate of activity. d. There will be no change in the enzyme's function. e. The enzyme will bind the substrate but not be able to release the products. 57. Enzymes are ____ catalysts. a. protein b. lipid c. nucleic acid d. inorganic e. ionic Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_5e 58. In order to prevent hair loss in men, one popular treatment is to use an inhibitor of the enzyme that converts testosterone to a different androgen (DHT). The inhibitors are steroids similar to testosterone that cannot be converted into DHT. How would you classify this type of inhibition? a. competitive inhibition b. noncompetitive inhibition c. allosteric inhibition d. feedback inhibition e. ionic inhibition 59. A child swinging on a swing utilizes which type(s) of energy? a. kinetic energy only because the child is in constant motion b. potential energy only, because the child has to invest energy to get the swing to move c. chemical energy only, because it is the child's metabolism that powers the muscles that make the swing move d. kinetic and potential energy only, but in constantly changing ratios: when changing direction, it is pure potential energy; at the bottom of the arc, it is pure kinetic energy e. kinetic, potential, and chemical energy: the child powers the swing with chemical energy in the muscle, cells and the swing moves like a pendulum with changing ratios of kinetic and potential energy. 60. Although energy cannot be created or destroyed, energy transformations are not 100% efficient. Why? a. Energy is lost as an increase in heat. b. Energy is lost as an increase in entropy. c. Energy is lost as a change in free energy. d. Energy is lost as a decrease in heat. e. Energy is lost as a decrease in entropy. 61. Approximately how many ATP molecules are hydrolyzed and resynthesized each second in a typical cell? a. 100 b. 10,000 c. 100,000 d. 10,000,000 e. 100,000,000 62. Why do Siamese cats have brown ears, nose, tails and paws? a. Siamese cats contain heat-sensitive enzymes that are more active in the extremities. b. Siamese cats contain heat-sensitive enzymes that are more active in the core body. c. Siamese cats contain pH-sensitive enzymes that are more active in regions of the body exposed to UV radiation. d. Siamese cats contain pH-sensitive enzymes that are more active in regions of the body that are not exposed to UV radiation. e. Siamese cats contain pH-sensitive enzymes that are more active in regions of the body that contain nerve endings.

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Chap_06_5e 63. Which statement is true for exergonic reactions? a. A net input of energy is necessary for the reaction to proceed. b. The products have less free energy than the reactants. c. The products have more free energy than the reactants. d. The reactants will always be completely converted to products. e. The entropy of the system is reduced. 64. Answer the question using the accompanying graph. Which portion of the graph shows the free energy of the reaction? a. A b. B c. C d. W + X e. Y + Z 65. The breakdown of glucose into carbon dioxide, water, and ATP is an example of a(n) ____ pathway. a. endergonic b. catabolic c. cyclical d. anabolic e. endothermic 66. Which system is considered a closed system? a. a human b. a gas-powered automobile c. a single-celled organism d. a propane furnace e. the Earth

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Chap_06_5e

Figure 6.1 67. What can be inferred from the accompanying graph? a. This reaction is endergonic, with a positive ΔG. b. This reaction is endergonic, with a negative ΔG. c. This reaction is exergonic, with a positive ΔG. d. This reaction is exergonic, with a negative ΔG. e. There is not enough information to make a determination. 68. Which two factors determine whether a reaction is spontaneous? a. free energy and activation energy b. activation energy and enthalpy c. enthalpy and entropy d. entropy and activation energy e. activation energy and energy coupling 69. In competitive inhibition, the ____. a. products block the active site of the enzyme b. products bind to a site other than the active site of the enzyme and block enzyme activity indirectly c. substrate and cofactors compete for the active site d. inhibitor binds to and directly blocks the active site of the enzyme e. inhibitor binds to the enzyme at a site other than its active site 70. In molecules, the constant motion of the atoms is an example of ____ energy, while the arrangement of atoms and bonds is an example of ____ energy. a. potential; chemical b. kinetic; potential c. potential; free d. chemical; free e. kinetic; chemical

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Chap_06_5e 71. If a reaction is spontaneous, then ΔG is ____ and the reaction is ____. a. negative; endergonic b. negative; exergonic c. zero; endergonic d. positive; endergonic e. positive; exergonic 72. What happens when an enzyme is bound by an allosteric activator? a. The enzyme transitions from an activate state to an inactive state. b. The enzyme transitions from a low affinity state to a high affinity state. c. The enzyme transitions from a high affinity state to a low affinity state. d. The enzyme can now bind to the cofactors necessary for the reaction. e. The enzyme can no longer bind to inhibitors. 73. If an enzyme is saturated, ____. a. it cannot continue to catalyze the reaction b. the reaction is at equilibrium c. the rate of the reaction will slow and the reaction will stop d. it recruits more reactants e. the reaction is being catalyzed at the maximum rate 74. Energy from ATP is transferred to the reactant of an endergonic reaction by addition of a(n) _____ group to that molecule. a. nitrate b. ribose c. deoxyribose d. acetyl e. phosphate 75. What happens to an enzyme after it has catalyzed a reaction? a. It is sent to the proteasome for degradation. b. It is inactivated by phosphorylation. c. It is inactivated by dephosphorylation. d. It releases the cofactor to get a new one ready for catalysis. e. It returns to its original state. 76. If an enzyme's optimal temperature is 37°C, then the enzyme ____. a. has a cofactor b. is likely to catalyze the reaction at the same rate at 30°C c. will probably be inactive at a pH below 4.5 d. will completely denature at 38°C e. activity will drop at temperatures above 37°C and likely be eliminated by 60°C Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_5e 77. Ribozymes are ____. a. RNA catalysts b. proteins that catalyze RNA synthesis c. RNA molecules that slow the rate of protein synthesis d. the products of RNA degradation e. amino acids that catalyze RNA synthesis 78. The removal of a phosphate group during an enzyme-catalyzed reaction takes ____. a. 1012 years b. about 10 milliseconds c. about 1021 milliseconds d. more time than for an uncatalyzed reaction e. less time at 1000o C than at 100o C

Figure 6.2 79. Answer the question using the accompanying graph. Which portion of the graph shows the activation energy in the absence of enzyme? a. A b. B c. C d. W + X e. Y + Z

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Chap_06_5e 80. Answer the question using the accompanying graph. Which portion of the graph shows the activation energy in the presence of enzyme? a. A b. B c. C d. W + X e. Y + Z For each of the following situations, choose the most appropriate term. Some choices may be used more than once. a. endergonic b. exergonic c. equilibrium 81. protein synthesis 82. digestion of a candy bar 83. a dead cell 84. a reaction where DG is positive 85. a reaction where DG is negative 86. the rate of synthesis equals the rate of degradation

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Chap_06_5e Match each of the following terms with its correct definition. a. The product of the reaction that interacts with an enzyme in a noncompetitive way to inhibit or enhance enzyme activity b. The linking of an exergonic reaction with an endergonic reaction that allows a cell to drive a nonspontaneous reaction to completion c. A series of chemical reactions where the products of one reaction are the reactants for a subsequent reaction d. A substance that facilitates a chemical reaction without itself being consumed by the reaction e. The energy needed to start a reaction, be it endergonic or exergonic f. The portion of the enzyme that binds to a reactant or reactants g. A state in which the rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction h. An intermediate arrangement of unstable bonds between atoms that can proceed towards either the reactants or products of a reaction i. The reactant molecule that binds to an enzyme 87. coupled reaction 88. equilibrium point 89. metabolic pathway 90. catalyst 91. activation energy 92. active site 93. substrate 94. transition state 95. allosteric regulation 96. Why is using heat to speed up biological reactions problematic?

97. What is the significance of activation energy?

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Chap_06_5e 98. Why does the existence of ribozymes offer a possible solution to the question of whether nucleic acids or proteins appeared first in evolution?

99. Why is energy defined as "the capacity to do work"?

100. Define metabolism.

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Chap_06_5e Answer Key 1. False - second law of thermodynamics 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. False - endergonic 6. False - activation energy 7. True 8. True 9. False - rate of formation 10. False - biological catalysts 11. a 12. d 13. a 14. b 15. a 16. a 17. c 18. c 19. d 20. e 21. a 22. b 23. b 24. c 25. d 26. d 27. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_5e 28. b 29. d 30. b 31. d 32. a 33. c 34. a 35. d 36. a 37. e 38. d 39. a 40. a 41. b 42. d 43. a 44. b 45. a 46. a 47. c 48. b 49. c 50. b 51. e 52. c 53. e 54. d 55. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_5e 56. a 57. a 58. a 59. e 60. b 61. d 62. a 63. b 64. c 65. b 66. e 67. a 68. c 69. d 70. b 71. b 72. b 73. e 74. e 75. e 76. e 77. a 78. b 79. a 80. b 81. a 82. b

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Chap_06_5e 83. c 84. a 85. b 86. c 87. b 88. g 89. c 90. d 91. e 92. f 93. i 94. h 95. a 96. Although increasing the temperature increases the rates of all reactions, high temperatures destroy the structural components of cells, particularly proteins, and this can result in cell death. 97. Activation energy is the initial energy investment required to start a reaction. Without this initial energy, reactions will not start. 98. Because nucleic acids contain the required genetic information, enzymes are required for the duplication of this information. Because ribozymes are both nucleic acids and enzymes, this suggests that they could have served both roles in early life forms. 99. Energy cannot be directly measured or weighed and can only be detected through its effects on matter, including its ability to move objects against opposing forces, such as friction, gravity, or pressure, or to push chemical reactions toward completion. 100. Metabolism is the total of all of the chemical reactions in a cell. These reactions can be catabolic or anabolic and are used to synthesize new molecules or extract energy from molecules to power cellular work.

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Chap_07_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Products of fermentation include NADH and FADH2. a. True b. False 2. During the process of pyruvate oxidation, pyruvate is broken down and the remaining two carbons are attached to coenzyme A. a. True b. False 3. During glycolysis, ATP is produced by oxidative phosphorylation. a. True b. False 4. Both plants and animals possess mitochondria, which are used for some cellular respiration pathways to make ATP. a. True b. False 5. If during a chemical reaction, a molecule loses hydrogens, it could be described as being oxidized. a. True b. False 6. The key enzyme that regulates glycolysis by responding to changing levels of ATP is hexokinase. a. True b. False 7. Glycolysis yields a net of 2 pyruvate, 2 NADH, and 2 ATP. a. True b. False 8. Two mobile electron carriers that are important for the electron transport chain are cytochrome c and coenzyme Q. a. True b. False 9. Glycolysis takes place in the mitochondria. a. True b. False 10. The process of glucose biosynthesis is called gluconeogenesis. a. True b. False

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Chap_07_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Which part of the ATP synthase is responsible for catalyzing ATP formation? a. the basal unit b. the headpiece c. the stalk d. the lollipop e. the electrons 12. The oxidation of which macromolecule yields the most energy by weight? a. lipids b. glycogen c. starch d. glucose e. protein 13. In order to completely oxidize glucose, it takes two turns of the citric acid cycle, which yields a net of two ATP, six NADH and two FADH2. How many of the 32 total ATP molecules produced in cellular respiration come from the citric acid cycle, including the contribution from the NADH and FADH2? a. 32 b. 28 c. 24 d. 20 e. 16 14. Free radicals, highly reactive species with unpaired electrons that damage molecules and cells, and can contribute to aging. Coenzyme Q (also known as ubiquinone or CoQ) is often found in lotions and moisturizers. Given what you know about the role of CoQ in cellular respiration, why would it be added to these products? a. It recruits free radicals to help increase the rate of glycolysis in skin cells. b. It absorbs free radicals that can cause damage to skin cells. c. Removing free radicals decreases the rate of metabolism and slows growth of skin cells. d. It allows for the regeneration of new skin cells. e. It drives the spontaneous death of older skin cells that have accumulated too many free radicals. 15. Anaerobic respiration produces ATP by _____. a. glycolysis only b. glycolysis and the Krebs only c. glycolysis, the Krebs, and electron transport chain with inorganic molecules as a final acceptor d. glycolysis, the Krebs, and electron transport chain with organic molecules as a final acceptor e. electron transport chain with organic molecules as a final acceptor only

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Chap_07_5e 16. During glycolysis, glucose molecules are broken down by breaking the carbon-hydrogen bonds that are present and forming carbon-oxygen bonds. In this process, glucose is ____. a. partially oxidized b. partially reduced c. completely oxidized d. completely reduced e. hydrolyzed 17. What powers ATP synthase directly? a. electron transfer b. NADH and FADH2 c. carbohydrate metabolism d. the proton gradient e. protein complexes 18. In the process of aerobic metabolism, carbon containing molecules are broken down and the energy from the electrons is used to ____. a. directly supply the energy needs of an organism b. alter enzyme structure c. generate a proton gradient d. heat the organism in a cold environment e. supply heat to stored fat 19. At the end of cellular respiration, oxygen combines with electrons of a very low energy level. How are the specific properties of oxygen beneficial to the organism that uses it as a final electron acceptor? a. Oxygen is highly reactive and readily accepts electrons. b. Oxygen is strongly electronegative and helps pull the electrons through the electron transport chain. c. Oxygen allows a maximum output of energy for ATP synthesis. d. Oxygen is the only molecule that can act as a final electron acceptor. e. Oxygen is highly reactive and readily oxidizes methane. 20. How are NADH and FADH2 similar? a. They both directly produce ATP. b. They are both used in glycolysis. c. They both contain high energy phosphates. d. They both contain high energy electrons. e. They are both in the oxidized form.

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Chap_07_5e 21. Compared to the mitochondrial intermembrane space, the mitochondrial matrix could be described as having ____ pH and _____ pyruvate concentration. a. a lower; higher b. a higher; higher c. a lower; lower d. a higher; lower e. the same; the same 22. The enzyme succinate dehydrogenase, located in the inner mitochondrial membrane, is directly involved in ____. a. glycolysis and pyruvate oxidation b. pyruvate oxidation and citric acid cycle c. citric acid cycle and electron transport chain d. electron transport chain and glycolysis e. electron transport chain and fermentation 23. What supplies the electrons for oxidative phosphorylation? a. ATP b. NADH and FADH2 c. glucose d. the proton gradient e. ATP synthase 24. What type of chemical reaction must occur for electrons to flow from one molecule to the next and supply the energy for metabolism? a. acid/base b. reduction/oxidation c. exothermic d. trimolecular e. phosphorylation 25. Which of these molecules has the most potential energy? a. glucose b. pyruvate c. ATP d. NADH e. FADH2

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Chap_07_5e 26. The initial step of glycolysis involves the ____ of glucose. a. condensation b. hydrolysis c. oxidation d. phosphorylation e. reduction 27. If the inner membrane of the mitochondria were compromised in some way, what effect would this have on cellular respiration? a. The transport of electrons across the inner mitochondrial membrane would not occur. b. The proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane would dissipate. c. The ATP synthase enzyme would relocate to the mitochondrial matrix. d. The cell would generate more ATP. e. ATP would no longer be made anywhere in the cell by any mechanism. 28. About 10-20% of patients with Leigh Syndrome, a mitochondrial disease, have a mutation in MT-ATP6, a gene that codes for ATP synthase. These patients often experience high levels of _____ in their cells due to an increase in levels of pyruvate that are unable to convert to acetyl-CoA. a. NADH b. FADH2 c. lactate d. ethanol e. carbon dioxide 29. Why does NADH produce more energy than FADH2? a. FADH2 donates electrons to protein complex III as opposed to complex II. b. FADH2 requires more ATP to produce it and gives more energy back. c. NADH and FADH2 are synthesized in different steps of cellular respiration. d. NADH has a high free energy and can be oxidized more readily than FADH2. e. NADH supplies fewer electrons that are of a higher energy state than FADH2. 30. When the H+ concentration is significantly higher in the mitochondrial matrix than the intermembrane space, ATP synthase would ____. a. require an ion to stabilize it b. no longer function properly c. hydrolyze ATP to form ADP to pump protons out of the matrix d. generate ATP to pump protons into the matrix e. be uncoupled from the electron transport chain

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Chap_07_5e 31. What is the function of NADH and FADH2? a. Both release energy for glycolysis to proceed forward. b. Both provide electrons to the electron transport chain. c. Both produce ATP by substrate-level phosphorylation. d. NADH delivers electrons, while FADH2 supplies H+. e. NADH is found only in the cytosol and FADH2 only in the matrix. 32. When individuals have mitochondrial disorders, why are the skeletal and heart muscles and the brain most often affected? a. They are the most important organs. b. They have the highest energy needs. c. They are generally very fragile. d. They have fewer mitochondria in the cell. e. They are the most complex organs. 33. A toxic substance has been found to inhibit glucose transport into mammalian cells. If this substance is administered to a hamster, the likely cause of death would be a lack of ____ production. a. NAD+ b. ATP c. GTP d. CO2 e. FAD 34. How efficient is cellular respiration in extracting the energy stored in the bonds of glucose? a. 25% b. 33% c. 45% d. 50% e. 80% 35. During which stages of cellular respiration is CO2 released? a. glycolysis b. pyruvate oxidation c. citric acid cycle d. electron transport system e. both pyruvate oxidation and citric acid cycle

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Chap_07_5e 36. What are the functions of cytochrome c and ubiquinone? a. They translocate protons from the matrix to the inner mitochondrial space. b. They shuttle electrons between the protein complexes. c. They synthesize water from molecular oxygen. d. They produce ATP by substrate-level phosphorylation. e. They produce ATP by oxidative phosphorylation. 37. Fermentation bypasses _____. a. pyruvate oxidation only b. the citric acid cycle only c. oxidative phosphorylation and the citric acid cycle only d. pyruvate oxidation, the citric acid cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation e. oxidative phosphorylation only 38. In prokaryotes, ____ occur(s) in the cytosol. a. only glycolysis b. only pyruvate oxidation c. only the citric acid cycle d. glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, and the citric acid cycle e. only glycolysis and pyruvate oxidation 39. Where is ATP synthase located in non-photosynthetic eukaryotes? a. outer membrane of the cell b. nuclear envelope c. rough endoplasmic reticulum d. matrix of the mitochondria e. inner mitochondrial membrane 40. What is directly responsible for pumping protons out of the mitochondrial matrix? a. protein complexes I, II, III, and IV b. cytochrome c and ubiquinone c. protein complexes I and III d. protein complexes I, III, and IV e. NADH and FADH2 41. The final product of glycolysis is ____. a. glucose b. fructose c. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate d. pyruvate e. carbon dioxide

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Chap_07_5e 42. What is the ultimate fate of the atoms in oxygen gas (O2) in cellular respiration? a. They are respired as CO2. b. They are incorporated to water. c. They are attached to glucose. d. They are attached to pyruvate. e. They accept electrons in glycolysis. 43. Suppose a human metabolic disease only allows electrons to be used from NADH and not FADH2. What is a probable cause of this disease? a. a defect in assembly protein genes for complex II of the electron transport chain b. enzyme defects in glycolysis and the citric acid cycle c. a deficient amount of cytochrome c and coenzyme Q d. improper regulation of phosphofructokinase e. inability of oxygen to act as a final electron acceptor 44. To reach the mitochondrial matrix, protons travel through a channel made by the ____ of ATP synthase. a. basal unit b. headpiece c. stalk d. lollipop e. three catalytic sites 45. Where would you expect to find proteins responsible for controlling the substances that enter and leave mitochondria? a. plasma membrane of the cell b. inner mitochondrial membrane c. outer mitochondrial membrane d. nuclear membrane e. lysosomal membrane 46. When a molecule is reduced, it ____. a. gains electrons b. loses electrons c. stores electrons d. loses energy e. burns energy

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Chap_07_5e 47. Glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, and the citric acid cycle all produce ____. a. CO2 b. H2O c. ATP d. FADH2 e. NADH 48. What is the fate of CoA after it delivers an acetyl group into the citric acid cycle? a. It is degraded and used for energy. b. It is recharged with another acetate. c. It is used in protein synthesis. d. It remains in an inactive form until the cell dies. e. It is reused to start glycolysis. 49. Which molecule stimulates phosphofructokinase to increase the flow of intermediates through glycolysis? a. NADH b. FADH2 c. ATP d. AMP e. acetyl CoA 50. What is the proton-motive force? a. the force needed to move protons into the inner mitochondrial space b. the amount of energy required to protonate a glucose molecule c. the free energy associated with the removal of hydrogen from NADH d. the combination of a proton and voltage gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane e. the synthesis of ATP from a proton gradient 51. Which enzyme in the glycolytic pathway acts as a switch that can be regulated by ATP, AMP, and citrate? a. pyruvate kinase b. triosephosphate isomerase c. aldolase d. ATP synthase e. phosphofructokinase

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Chap_07_5e 52. Which molecule(s) is/are responsible for delivering the high energy electrons from the citric acid cycle to the electron transport chain? a. NADH only b. FADH2 only c. Both NADH and FADH2 d. Cyt C and Q e. ATP and ADP 53. Which molecule is the final electron acceptor in respiration? a. water b. ATP c. carbon dioxide d. oxygen e. hydrogen 54. Oxidative phosphorylation is the process by which ____. a. high energy NADH is made to supply the cell with its needed energy b. a final electron acceptor is used indirectly to facilitate the production of ATP c. ATP is made using high energy intermediates of cellular respiration d. specific enzymes are regulated to control cellular respiration e. NAD+ is regenerated to allow glycolysis to continue 55. Suppose we hypothesize that potato plants use uncoupling proteins (UCPs) in a similar way as mammals. What would be the evidence to support this hypothesis? a. increased amounts of ATP production b. decreased sugar metabolism c. increased internal tissue temperature d. decreased mitochondrial catabolism e. increased cytosolic pH 56. Racker and Stoeckenius used synthetic phospholipid membrane vesicles that contained a light-activated protein pump and ATP synthase to test Mitchell's chemiosmotic hypothesis. What was the conclusion of this experiment? a. Phospholipid membrane vesicles require a proton gradient to maintain integrity. b. ATP synthase is powered by the proton-motive force. c. ATP synthase can generate a proton gradient. d. Light-activated proton pumps can generate a proton gradient. e. Light-activated proton pumps interact with ATP synthase to modulate its activity.

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Chap_07_5e 57. For every glucose molecule that goes through cellular respiration, how many carbon atoms are fully oxidized to CO2 in the citric acid cycle? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 58. The final step of the citric acid cycle oxidizes malate to oxaloacetate and reduces NAD+. What is the purpose of this step? a. to replenish the supplies of NAD+ b. to replenish free CoA c. to regenerate oxaloacetate to attach another acetate molecule d. to produce ATP by substrate-level phosphorylation e. to produce ATP by oxidative phosphorylation 59. What directly supplies the electrons for the electron transport chain? a. ATP and ADP b. FADH2 and NADH c. pyruvate and acetate d. various enzymes e. oxygen and water 60. Which answer best describes energy flow in biological systems? a. glucose --> G3P --> NADH --> ATP b. bacteria --> archaea --> plants --> animals c. NAD+ --> NADH --> ADP --> ATP d. G3P --> glucose --> ATP --> NAD+ e. pyruvate oxidation --> glycolysis --> fermentation --> citric acid cycle 61. The Warburg effect is the observation that cancer cells produce energy using a high rate of glycolysis followed by fermentation rather than oxidative phosphorylation. Although the exact cause is still under investigation, which explanation is most plausible? a. Tumors attract blood vessels to increase levels of available oxygen. b. In order to grow quickly, high levels of ATP are required. c. Mutations in phosphofructokinase prevent feedback inhibition. d. Tumor formation upregulates glycolytic proteins. e. Rapid cell proliferation damages mitochondrial function.

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Chap_07_5e 62. We study cellular respiration because it is one of the most important pathways in biology. In fact, nearly all carbohydrates at some point in their catabolism are directed through cellular respiration. Why is it unnecessary to have multiple independent pathways to break down different molecules? a. Using cellular respiration is theoretically the most efficient way to break down sugars and other molecules. b. Oxygen must be used in the breakdown of all molecules in order to yield ATP. c. Greater complexity would lead to an eventual failure of the biological system. d. Most biological cells only catabolize one or two different types of sugars and only need one main pathway. e. Energy-containing macromolecules can be converted to products that can enter at various points in the cellular respiration pathway. 63. Per molecule of glucose, oxidation occurs ____ times during the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 64. Citrate synthase, the first enzyme in the citric acid cycle, is regulated by ATP concentrations. Why is early regulation of ATP production the most beneficial method for the cell? a. It is not possible to regulate the last enzyme in a pathway. b. More ATP can be produced before the first enzyme is inactivated. c. ATP production always needs to be maximized. d. Citrate synthase controls the amount of pyruvate produced by glycolysis. e. Regulating early steps conserves cellular fuels. 65. A patient with a mitochondrial disease is found to have a mutation in Gene X. A homologous gene in a Drosophila (fruit fly), did not cause a similar deficit. What does this suggest? a. Gene X is highly conserved between humans and Drosophila. b. Gene X is not conserved between humans and Drosophila. c. Gene X is encoded in nuclear DNA. d. Gene X is encoded in mitochondrial DNA. e. Gene X is a redundant protein in Drosophila. 66. Glucose biosynthesis is called _____. a. glyconeogenesis b. fatty acid oxidation c. glycolysis d. pentose phosphate pathway e. gluconeogenesis

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Chap_07_5e 67. After one minute without oxygen, brain cells begin to die. After three minutes, this damage is likely to cause severe neurological deficits. The dependence of brain cells on oxygen for survival indicates that these cells are ____. a. strict aerobes b. strict anaerobes c. facultative aerobes d. facultative anaerobes e. transitional aerobes 68. A typical eukaryotic cell that has an abundant supply of glucose and O2 will generate a proton gradient in its mitochondria by ____ that is used primarily for ____. a. chemiosmosis; substrate-level phosphorylation b. the electron transport chain; chemiosmosis c. the electron transport chain; substrate-level phosphorylation d. fermentation; NAD reduction e. glycolysis; production of CO2 69. Ultimately, the carbon molecules in pyruvate end up in which molecule? a. NADH b. acetate c. ATP d. CoA e. CO2 70. Which molecule is responsible for carrying the acetyl group from pyruvate into the citric acid cycle? a. NADH b. FADH2 c. ATP d. CoA e. oxaloacetate 71. The enzymes responsible for hydrolyzing glucose into glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) are found in which part of the cell? a. cytosol b. mitochondria c. rough ER d. nucleus e. cell membrane

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Chap_07_5e 72. How does cellular respiration differ in prokaryotes and eukaryotes? a. Eukaryotes use substrate-level phosphorylation; prokaryotes use oxidative phosphorylation. b. Eukaryotes perform reactions in mitochondria; prokaryotes use the plasma membrane. c. Eukaryotes use NAD+/NADH as electron acceptors; prokaryotes use FAD+/FADH2. d. Eukaryotes do not use oxygen; prokaryotes only use oxygen. e. Eukaryotes metabolize only glucose; prokaryotes metabolize only galactose. 73. As a result of fermentation, cells produce ____. a. ADP b. NADH c. FAD d. O2 e. NAD+ 74. When ATP levels are high, which enzyme's activity will be directly decreased by feedback inhibition? a. aconitase b. malate dehydrogenase c. citrate synthase d. isocitrate dehyrogenase e. fumerase 75. When triglycerides are hydrolyzed, they are broken down into glycerol and fatty acids. The fatty acids are further broken down into two-carbon fragments in a process called fatty acid oxidation. At which pathway do these fragments enter respiration? a. glycolysis b. pyruvate oxidation c. citric acid cycle d. oxidative phosphorylation e. carbohydrate hydrolysis 76. What is one potential fate for a proton in the mitochondrial matrix? a. They are attached to NAD+ and FAD. b. They combine with oxygen to form water. c. They synthesize ATP by substrate-level phosphorylation. d. They help in the production of CO2. e. They regenerate Coenzyme A.

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Chap_07_5e 77. In the absence of ATP synthase, animal cells would not be able to ____. a. create a proton gradient b. hydrolyze glucose to G3P c. carry out oxidative phosphorylation d. produce ATP e. carry out pyruvate oxidation 78. It has been thought that many diseases now associated with aging are related to malfunctioning mitochondria. Why are the mitochondria so important to all cells? a. They produce energy in the form of ATP. b. They carry out anaerobic respiration. c. They are the source of all human disease. d. They are extremely large. e. They are located only in vital organs. 79. Some organisms are not able to live in an environment where there is oxygen; these types of organisms are called strict anaerobes. Which explanation is most plausible for how they survive without oxygen? a. They are able to survive using less energy than aerobes. b. All of their ATP is imported into the cell from an external source. c. Sulfur is used instead of oxygen because it is chemically similar. d. These organisms use photosynthesis to produce energy. e. Their mitochondria are damaged, and consequently they are short-lived. 80. Patients with pyruvate dehydrogenase complex deficiency develop neurological symptoms. Patients with this disease fail to make the substrates required for which metabolic process? a. pyruvate oxidation b. oxidative phosphorylation c. glycolysis d. the citric acid cycle e. fatty acid oxidation

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Chap_07_5e Match the following coenzymes to their function. a. NAD+ b. NADH c. FADH2 d. CoQ e. CoA 81. serves as an acetyl group carrier 82. serves as an electron carrier and is oxidized in Complex I for oxidative phosphorylation 83. serves as an electron carrier between complexes 84. serves as an electron carrier and is oxidized in Complex II for oxidative phosphorylation 85. serves as an electron carrier and is reduced throughout respiration

Refer to the accompanying figure for questions 71-75. In what part of the mitochondrion or cell do the following steps of cellular respiration take place? Not all choices will be used; some may be used more than once. a. outer mitochondrial membrane b. intermembrane compartment c. cytosol d. inner mitochondrial membrane e. matrix 86. glycolysis 87. pyruvate oxidation 88. citric acid cycle 89. electron transport chain 90. ATP synthesis

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Chap_07_5e Match the following processes with the correct products. a. glycolysis b. the citric acid cycle c. pyruvate oxidation d. oxidative phosphorylation e. fermentation 91. CO2, NADH, FADH2, ATP, H+, and CoA 92. acetyl-coA, CO2 , NADH, and H+ 93. NAD+, FAD, and ATP 94. pyruvate, ATP, NADH , H+, and H2O 95. lactate and NAD+ 96. Explain why FADH2 generates less ATP than NADH.

97. Both glycolysis and the citric acid cycle can be regulated by feedback inhibition. Provide two examples of feedback inhibition.

98. How do cyanide and carbon monoxide affect cellular respiration?

99. What is the difference between a strict anaerobe and a facultative anaerobe?

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Chap_07_5e 100. In eukaryotes, where do the reactions of cellular respiration occur?

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Chap_07_5e Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. False 4. True 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. b 12. a 13. d 14. b 15. c 16. a 17. d 18. c 19. c 20. d 21. d 22. c 23. b 24. b 25. a 26. d

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Chap_07_5e 27. b 28. c 29. d 30. c 31. b 32. b 33. b 34. b 35. e 36. b 37. d 38. d 39. e 40. d 41. d 42. b 43. a 44. a 45. b 46. a 47. e 48. b 49. d 50. d 51. a 52. c 53. d 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_5e 55. c 56. b 57. d 58. c 59. b 60. a 61. e 62. e 63. b 64. e 65. b 66. e 67. a 68. b 69. e 70. d 71. a 72. b 73. e 74. c 75. c 76. b 77. d 78. a 79. c 80. d 81. e 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_5e 83. d 84. c 85. a 86. c 87. e 88. e 89. d 90. d 91. b 92. c 93. d 94. a 95. e 96. NADH enters the mitochondrial electron transport chain at Complex I, while FADH2 enters at Complex II. Complex I pumps H+ into the intermembrane compartment whereas Complex II does not. Therefore, NADH can contribute additional H+ to the gradient, which will translate into an increase in proton motive force and increased ATP. Also, NADH contains an abundance of free energy (higher energy than FADH2) and can be oxidized readily. 97. In glycolysis, if excess ATP is present in the cytosol it binds to phosphofructokinase inhibiting fructose-6-phosphate from being converted to fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate. In the citric acid cycle the enzyme citrate synthase is inhibited by elevated ATP concentrations. 98. Cyanide blocks the transfer of electrons from complex IV to oxygen. Carbon monoxide leads to abnormalities in mitochondrial function that inhibit complex IV activity. 99. Strict anaerobes cannot utilize oxygen as a final acceptor and generally live in oxygen free environments; therefore, they carry out fermentation. Facultative anaerobes can switch between fermentation and full oxidative pathways depending on oxygen supply. 100. Glycolysis occurs in the cytosol. The other reactions occur in the mitochondria. Pyruvate oxidation and the citric acid cycle take place in the mitochondrial matrix, while the electron transport occurs in the inner mitochondrial membrane.

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Chap_08_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Orchids, which grow well in regions that are hot and dry during the day and cool at night, are classified as CAM plants. a. True b. False 2. In photorespiration, there is a net gain of carbon. a. True b. False 3. The Calvin cycle is sometimes referred to as the C3 pathway because it generates a single three-carbon molecule for every three turns of the cycle. a. True b. False 4. The beautiful fall leaves get their orange and yellow colors from carotenoids. a. True b. False 5. When chlorophyll absorbs photons, it transfers electrons to a primary acceptor, which is thereby oxidized. a. True b. False 6. Rubisco's enzymatic activity is stimulated by NADP+ and ADP. a. True b. False 7. The loss of O2 in the atmosphere 600-800 million years ago was likely due to the "fossilization" of organic matter trapped in Earth's crust. a. True b. False 8. Atmospheric O2 is a waste product of photosynthesis. a. True b. False 9. Photosystem II functions before photosystem I in the linear flow of electrons. a. True b. False 10. Cyclic electron flow generates ATP and O2, but not NADPH. a. True b. False

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Chap_08_5e 11. Carbon fixation is a reduction reaction that converts inorganic CO2 into an organic molecule. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 12. The primary purpose of the light-dependent reactions is to ____. a. provide electrons and energy for the light-independent reactions b. generate O2 gas c. make ADP in cyclic photophosphorylation d. transfer electrons to the primary electron acceptors e. produce sugars such as glucose 13. As temperatures rise, photorespiration activity ____, because gas exchange via the ____ is inhibited. a. increases; grana b. decreases; grana c. increases; stroma d. decreases; stroma e. increases; stomata 14. Rubisco has 16 subunits joined together to make a functional unit. Eight of the subunits are large, the other eight are small. On which subunit(s) is/are the active sites located? a. on each of the eight large subunits b. on each of the eight small subunits c. on one of the eight large subunits d. on one of the eight small subunits e. on each of the 16 subunits 15. The molecule of chlorophyll a in photosystem II's reaction center is known as P680 because ____. a. it absorbs 680 photons per minute b. it absorbs photons with a wavelength of 680 nm c. there are exactly 680 accessory pigments in the photosystem d. it will generate 680 molecules of ATP per photon absorbed e. there are 680 electrons that can be energized by light 16. Which molecule(s) regulate(s) photosynthesis by sensing the metabolic status of the chloroplast and regulating proton flow out of the thylakoid lumen? a. ATP synthase b. chlorophyll a c. chlorophyll b d. carotenoids e. the antenna complex

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Chap_08_5e 17. Why is photorespiration more likely to occur during warm weather? a. Plants require warm weather (at least 23°C) to drive photosynthesis. b. Plants are more likely to close their stomata in the nighttime than during the day. c. Plants are more likely to dehydrate in warm weather, forcing them to close the stomata to conserve water, thus preventing CO2 from entering the leaf. d. The rubisco enzyme is very temperature sensitive and becomes less efficient in warmer temperatures, allowing it to fix O2 instead of CO2. e. Plants use up the water in their central vacuoles in warm weather, inhibiting the water-requiring light reactions; this in turn alters the activity of rubisco. 18. In the C4 pathway, which molecule is formed after the addition of CO2 to PEP? a. phosphoenolpyruvate b. malate c. oxaloacetate d. pyruvate e. 3PGA 19. In the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, an excited electron from photosystem II is passed along an electron transport chain to ____. a. NAD+ b. NADH c. photosystem I d. oxygen e. water 20. The process by which CO2 is released through the oxygenase activity of rubisco is called ____. a. photosynthesis b. photophosphorylation c. phosphorylative oxidation d. photorespiration e. oxidative phosphorylation 21. Which statement describes the role of photosynthesis in an ecosystem? a. Primary producers convert chemical energy to light energy. b. Primary consumers rely directly on light energy. c. Primary producers convert light energy to chemical energy as a service to the ecosystem, not for their own gain. d. Primary consumers rely on primary producers to make light energy available in a usable form. e. Primary producers make no contribution to the flow of energy into the ecosystem.

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Chap_08_5e 22. Photosynthesis is ____, while all other processes of life are ____. a. exergonic; exothermic b. endergonic; endothermic c. endergonic; exergonic d. exergonic; endergonic e. exergonic; endothermic 23. Which plant cell structure is comprised of approximately 300 chlorophyll molecules and about 40 carotenoid pigments, organized together to optimize the capture of light energy? a. reaction center b. chlorophyll c. antenna complex d. cytochrome complex e. stomata 24. Which characteristic of the light absorbing regions of chlorophylls and carotenoids most likely accounts for the ability of these molecules to absorb light? a. ringed structures b. the presence of aldehyde side-groups c. the presence of magnesium d. an extensive network of double bonds e. long hydrocarbon chain 25. In any experiment, changes to the dependent variable based on the manipulations of the independent variable are measured. When determining the action spectrum of a given plant, what is the independent variable and what is the dependent variable? a. independent = absorption of light; dependent = wavelength b. independent = wavelength; dependent = absorption of light c. independent = rate of O2 release in photosynthesis; dependent = absorption of light d. independent = wavelength; dependent = rate of O2 release in photosynthesis e. independent = rate of O2 release in photosynthesis; dependent = wavelength 26. If you were to extract all of the proteins from a leaf and measure the composition of rubisco, you would find that it comprises about ____% of the total leaf protein. a. 10 b. 25 c. 50 d. 75 e. 90

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Chap_08_5e 27. Where does photosynthesis take place in cyanobacteria? a. plasma membrane b. Golgi bodies c. cytosol d. mitochondria e. chloroplasts 28. When does a CAM plant take in atmospheric CO2? a. daytime only b. nighttime only c. summer only d. winter only e. anytime the Calvin cycle is occurring 29. When does a C4 plant use rubisco? a. daytime only b. nighttime only c. summer only d. winter only e. anytime the Calvin cycle is occurring 30. 2D chromatography is so named because ____. a. there are two steps: labeling with a radioactive marker and separation via chromatography b. the molecules are separated into a linear arrangement, meaning two dimensions c. the process separates the molecules in two directions, first along the x axis and then along the y axis d. two different solutions are used in the paper chromatography process e. two different types of radioactive markers must be used 31. In higher plants, thylakoids are arranged into stacks called ____. a. stroma b. stomata c. photosystems d. grana e. stromal lamellae 32. What is the purpose of cyclic electron flow? a. to prevent the formation of NADPH and excessive reactive oxygen species b. to prevent the loss of light energy when the ATP production pathway is saturated c. to ensure that all of the energy harvested by the sun is converted into ATP d. to protect the cell when CO2 is unavailable and the Calvin cycle is not operating e. to increase the net production of ATP in times when CO2 is unavailable Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_5e 33. Chloroplasts kept in the dark can continue to make sugar if provided with ____. a. NADPH, ATP, and CO2 b. NADPH and ATP c. CO2 and ATP d. NADPH, CO2, and ADP e. water and ATP 34. Why is Rubisco present in high concentrations in leaves? a. to compensate for its low rate of catalysis b. because it has a high rate of catalysis c. because it has eight large subunits d. because it has eight small subunits e. because it is not a regulatory site 35. Why isn't the oxygenase function of rubisco active under normal environmental conditions? a. The oxygenase activity of the enzyme requires more energy. b. The affinity of the enzyme favors the binding of CO2. c. The oxygenase activity of the enzyme is inhibited by O2. d. The binding site of the enzyme is allosterically inhibited under normal conditions. e. The oxygenase binding site has a higher affinity for ATP. 36. The purpose of the Calvin cycle is to ____. a. convert inorganic carbon into a useable form of carbon b. recover electrons lost when water was split c. capture photons of light to harvest solar energy d. counteract increasing atmospheric CO2 concentrations (global warming) e. generate the O2 gas required for cellular respiration 37. Where can you find ATP synthase in a plant cell? a. in the thylakoid membrane only b. in the mitochondrial inner membrane only c. both the thylakoid and inner mitochondrial membranes d. only in the nucleus e. embedded in the plasma membrane

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Chap_08_5e 38. The chemical structure of chlorophyll is based on a complex organic ring structure, with a long hydrophobic side chain and a(n) ____ atom in the center of the ring. a. carbon b. manganese c. magnesium d. iron e. nitrogen 39. C3 plants are more susceptible to photorespiration than either C4 or CAM plants. Why do most plants lack the C4 pathway? a. Rubisco is more efficient in C3 plants when compared to rubisco of C4 and CAM plants. b. Photorespiration is not a serious problem for most plants. c. Most plant species do not have vacuoles in their cells to store the malate generated from CO2 taken in during the night. d. There is an energetic cost to C4 and CAM pathways that only makes them advantageous in very hot and/or arid environments. e. Switching between C3, C4, and CAM photosynthesis is very difficult for most plants. 40. P700 is located in photosystem ____ and is comprised of chlorophyll ____. a. I; b b. I; a c. II; b d. II; a e. I and II; a 41. Which of these waves has the longest wavelength? a. blue visible light b. gamma rays c. UV rays d. x-rays e. red visible light

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Chap_08_5e 42. Which statement correctly summarizes the two phases of photosynthesis? a. The light-dependent reactions occur in the cytosol; the light-independent reactions occur in the stroma. b. The products of the light-dependent reactions are ATP, NADPH, and O2; the products of the lightindependent reactions are ADP, NADP+, and sugar. c. The light-dependent reactions occur only during the daylight hours; the light-independent reactions occur only when it is dark. d. The light-dependent reactions produce water as a by-product; the light-independent reactions produce carbon dioxide as a waste product. e. The products of the light-dependent reactions are ADP, NADP+, and O2; the products of the lightindependent reactions are ATP, NADPH, and sugar. 43. Which molecule associated with photorespiration is toxic to plant cells? a. 3PGA b. G3P c. phosphoglycolate d. glycolate e. rubisco 44. Where does the Calvin cycle occur? a. thylakoid membrane b. thylakoid lumen c. stromal lamellae d. cytosol e. stroma 45. If a plant synthesized a molecule of sugar that has 12 carbons, how many turns of the Calvin cycle would be needed? a. two b. three c. six d. 12 e. 24 46. When a photon of light is absorbed by a pigment molecule, electrons jump to an excited state. What is one possible fate of these excited electrons? a. The excited electrons release energy in the form of a photon. b. The excited electrons are transferred to an electron donor molecule. c. The excited electrons revert to their ground state without releasing any energy. d. The excited electrons jump to a lower energy level, releasing energy to a nearby pigment molecule. e. The excited electrons jump to a lower energy level, releasing energy in the form of ATP.

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Chap_08_5e 47. Rubisco has 16 subunits joined together to make a functional unit. Eight of the subunits are large, the other eight are small. What is the function of the small subunits? a. The small subunits contain the reactant binding sites. b. They stabilize the overall enzyme's structure but have no intrinsic function. c. The function of the small subunits is still unknown. d. They regulate the enzyme's rate of catalysis. e. The small subunits contain allosteric regulator binding sites. 48. Malate produced by the CAM pathway in CAM plants ____. a. is immediately used in cellular respiration b. is stored during the night in the central vacuole c. is stored during the day in the stroma d. diffuses to bundle sheath cells for degradation in the lysosomes e. is stored in mesophyll cells 49. The synthesis of ATP coupled to the transfer of electrons energized by photons of light is called ____. a. photosynthesis b. photophosphorylation c. phosphorylative oxidation d. photorespiration e. oxidative phosphorylation 50. Which plant structure is responsible for gas exchange? a. stroma b. stomata c. thylakoid d. grana e. stromal lamellae 51. What is the purpose of the third phase of the Calvin cycle? a. carbon fixation b. generation of ATP c. reduction of NADPH d. oxidation of NADPH e. regeneration of RuBP 52. What is the most common form in which the products of photosynthesis circulate from cell to cell in vascular plants? a. glucose b. sucrose c. cellulose d. fructose e. amylose Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_5e 53. Which products of the light reactions are used in the Calvin cycle? a. ADP and NADP+ b. water, O2, ATP c. CO2 and RuBP d. electrons and photons e. ATP and NADPH 54. The C4 cycle ____. a. replaces the second stage of the Calvin cycle b. supplements the activity of rubisco by providing a second source of 3PGA for the reduction stage of the Calvin cycle c. is more efficient than the Calvin cycle because less ATP is consumed in the process d. ensures that CO2 is provided to rubisco and thus prevents photorespiration e. is most commonly associated with plants living in humid climates 55. Photosynthesis occurs in ____, while cellular respiration occurs in ____. a. plants; animals b. animals; plants c. plants and animals; animals d. plants; plants and animals e. plants and animals; plants and animals 56. The action spectrum of higher plants is bimodal, with two major peaks. Which two molecules largely determine the two peaks? a. photosystems I and II b. P680 and P700 c. chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b d. chlorophyll and carotenoid e. ATP and NADH 57. Which phase(s) of the Calvin cycle require ATP? a. phase I only b. phase II only c. phase III only d. phases I and II only e. phases II and III only

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Chap_08_5e 58. In 2D chromatography analysis, each of the spots on the chromatography paper represent different proteins. In order to correctly identify the proteins and interpret the data, which experimental control must be included? a. using cellular carbohydrate extract that was not labeled with radioactivity to determine the effect of radioactive labeling on the study b. using purified proteins of interest in individual trials to identify each protein's profile on the chromatography paper c. using water in place of the cellular carbohydrate extract to compare the profile of the proteins to a completely pure sample d. using water in place of the solvent to determine the effect of the solvent on the movement of the proteins on the chromatography paper e. removing excess proteins from the cellular carbohydrate extract before chromatography 59. In order to understand the driving force of ATP synthase in chloroplasts, researchers broke open chloroplasts, isolated the thylakoid membrane and measured ATP synthesis under different light conditions. What were the results of this experiment? a. ATP production occurred only in light, suggesting that the light is directly responsible for the activation of ATP synthase. b. ATP production occurred only in light, suggesting that the light is indirectly responsible for the activation of ATP synthase. c. ATP production occurred only in dark, suggesting that the light directly inhibits ATP synthase. d. ATP production occurred only in dark, suggesting that the photons of light act as allosteric (noncompetitive) inhibitors of ATP synthase. e. ATP production occurred only in dark, suggesting that the light is indirectly responsible for the activation of ATP synthase. 60. What is the correct order of the three phases of the Calvin cycle? a. carbon fixation, oxidation, regeneration b. carbon fixation, reduction, regeneration c. carbon fixation, regeneration, oxidation d. carbon fixation, regeneration, reduction e. oxidation, carbon fixation, regeneration 61. I'm a botanist looking for new species of C4 plants. Where should I focus my search? a. Maine b. Quebec, Canada c. equatorial rainforest d. The Everglades (in Florida) e. Arizona

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Chap_08_5e 62. Fluorescence occurs when ____. a. a high-energy electron returns to its ground state by releasing energy in a photon b. a low-energy electron moves to a high-energy state by absorbing heat c. a high-energy electron leaves its nucleus and moves to a different molecule d. a pigment molecule accepts a high-energy electron and releases a photon of energy e. the energy from an electron is transferred to a different molecule while the electron returns to the ground state 63. If you want to buy a colored light bulb for your indoor plants, which color would be the least effective? a. red b. blue c. green d. yellow e. orange 64. Which event probably made the evolution of cellular respiration possible? a. accumulation of carbon dioxide in atmosphere b. emergence of prokaryotes c. accumulation of oxygen in atmosphere d. emergence of eukaryotes e. emergence of plants 65. What is the source of electrons for carbon fixation in plants? a. O2 b. CO2 c. H2O d. H+ e. C6H12O6 66. Photosynthesis must provide a source of electrons and H+ because ____. a. atmospheric CO2 must be oxidized by adding electrons b. CO2 must be reduced to produce sugars c. hydrogen atoms are added to oxygen to form water d. hydrogen ions and electrons react to produce hydrogen gas e. hydrogen ions and electrons are converted into oxygen gas

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Chap_08_5e 67. Why isn't oxygen produced by organisms that perform anoxygenic photosynthesis? a. Their photosystems do not utilize the Calvin cycle. b. They use a different enzyme for the initial reactions of the Calvin cycle. c. They use electron donors other than water. d. Their membranes lack ATP synthase. e. Their chlorophyll contains an iron center rather than magnesium. 68. Rubisco functions as both a(n) ____ and a(n) ____. a. enzyme; substrate b. enzyme; product c. carboxylase; kinase d. carboxylase; phosphatase e. carboxylase; oxygenase 69. In Engelmann's classic experiment, why were the oxygen-requiring bacteria clustered around the regions of Spirogyra algae that were bathed in red, blue, and violet light? a. Chlorophyll is green and thus reflects green light. b. The bacteria were immobile and that is where Engelmann happened to place them. c. Photosynthesis is most active in those wavelengths of light and thus more oxygen is consumed by the algae in those regions. d. Photosynthesis is most active in those wavelengths of light and thus more oxygen is produced by the algae in those regions. e. The most energy-rich wavelengths of light are found at the edges of visible and nonvisible light (ultraviolet and infrared). 70. When does a CAM plant use rubisco? a. daytime only b. nighttime only c. summer only d. winter only e. anytime the Calvin cycle is occurring 71. Where does photosynthesis occur in plant cells? a. plasma membrane b. Golgi bodies c. cytosol d. mitochondria e. chloroplasts

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Chap_08_5e 72. Suppose you explored a new planet and found a photosynthetic organism unlike any on Earth. You repeat Engelmann's classic experiment using this new organism in place of Spirogyra and find that oxygen-dependent bacteria cluster near the green and yellow portions of the spectrum. What does this tell you? a. The sun of this new planet emits different wavelengths of light than our own. b. This new organism is using yellow and green light to drive photosynthesis. c. This organism appears green, just like plants on Earth. d. This organism utilizes the most energy-rich photons of the spectrum. e. This new organism is using blue and red light to drive photosynthesis. 73. If photosynthetic eukaryotic cells are provided with CO2 synthesized with heavy oxygen (18O), the 18O label may be found in all but one compound. That compound is ____. a. 3-phosphoglycerate b. cellulose c. glucose d. O2 gas e. RuBP (ribulose bisphosphate) 74. What is the fate of electrons from NADPH during the Calvin cycle? a. They are accepted by molecular oxygen, just like in cellular respiration. b. They are used to regenerate RuBP from G3P c. They are added to 3PGA. d. They are transferred to rubisco. e. They remain on NADPH to help drive the light reactions 75. In order to elucidate the Calvin cycle, Calvin and his colleagues used two-dimensional paper chromatography to analyze the presence of different molecules under different conditions. What did they conclude from the accumulation of RuBP when CO2 levels were low? a. RuBP only reacts with CO2 in the sunlight. b. RuBP only reacts with CO2 when concentrations of ATP are low. c. RuBP is the first substrate to react with CO2. d. RuBP is the last substrate to react in the Calvin cycle. e. CO2 serves as a non-competitive inhibitor of rubisco. 76. Which products of the Calvin cycle are used in the light reactions? a. G3P, ATP, and NADPH b. O2, water, and ATP c. ADP, Pi, and NADP+ d. electrons from CO2 e. protons and Pi Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_5e For each of the following statements, choose the most appropriate process. Some choices may be used more than once; some may not be used at all. a. light-dependent reactions only b. Calvin cycle only c. both light-dependent reactions and the Calvin cycle d. neither the light-dependent reactions nor the Calvin cycle 77. produces O2 78. consumes NADPH 79. creates a proton gradient 80. requires ATP 81. produces ADP 82. produces ATP 83. consumes O2 84. produces NADP+ 85. requires rubisco 86. occurs during the daytime

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Chap_08_5e Answer the following questions using the accompanying figure. Identify each structure in the figure below. Some choices may be used more than once.

©2014 Brooks/Cole, Cengage Learning Figure 8.1 a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 87. thylakoid lumen 88. outer membrane 89. stroma 90. thylakoid membrane 91. inner membrane 92. site of light-dependent reactions 93. site of light-independent reactions 94. where you would search for rubisco 95. membrane most important in generating a proton gradient for ATP synthesis

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Chap_08_5e 96. Why is rubisco considered an important enzyme?

97. What is a major similarity and difference between photorespiration and aerobic respiration?

98. How are the C4 and CAM pathways similar? How are they different?

99. Why do the photosynthetic tissues of plants look green?

100. Explain the following statement: Nearly all life on Earth ultimately depends on the sun for energy.

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Chap_08_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. False 7. False 8. True 9. True 10. False 11. True 12. a 13. e 14. a 15. b 16. a 17. c 18. c 19. c 20. d 21. d 22. c 23. c 24. d 25. d 26. c

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Chap_08_5e 27. a 28. b 29. a 30. c 31. d 32. a 33. a 34. a 35. b 36. a 37. c 38. c 39. d 40. b 41. e 42. b 43. d 44. e 45. d 46. d 47. d 48. b 49. b 50. b 51. e 52. b 53. e 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_5e 55. d 56. c 57. e 58. b 59. a 60. b 61. e 62. a 63. c 64. c 65. c 66. b 67. c 68. e 69. d 70. a 71. e 72. b 73. d 74. c 75. c 76. c 77. a 78. b 79. a 80. b 81. b 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_5e 83. d 84. b 85. b 86. c 87. c 88. a 89. e 90. d 91. b 92. d 93. e 94. e 95. d 96. Rubisco is the world’s most abundant protein. Rubisco is the enzyme that catalyzes the first reaction of the Calvin cycle, and is the key regulatory site of the Calvin cycle. Rubisco provides the source of organic molecules for most of the world’s organisms. 97. Photorespiration does not generate ATP, while aerobic respiration does generate ATP; however, both processes require oxygen and produce carbon dioxide and water. 98. Both pathways utilize alternative carbon fixation pathways, fixing CO2 into oxaloacetate by PEP carboxylase. Also, in both pathways, the oxidation of malate is used in the rubisco-catalyzed first step of the Calvin cycle. The difference between the two pathways is that in the C4 pathway, the fixation of carbon and the Calvin cycle occurs in two different cell types, while in the CAM pathway, the two steps occur in the same cell but at different times of day. 99. Photosynthetic tissue contains chlorophyll. Chlorophyll absorbs blue and red light, and transmits or reflects most of the wavelengths in between. Therefore, we see the wavelengths of light that are reflected, which for chlorophyll, is primarily green light. 100. Photosynthetic organisms convert light energy into chemical energy. While the photosynthetic organisms use this chemical energy to drive their own cellular processes, other organisms consume plants (or consume the herbivores that consumed the plants) to acquire chemical energy. Through this process, nearly all organisms on Earth can trace their energy back to the original photosynthetic process, which was dependent on sunlight.

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Chap 09_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. After the binding of a signaling molecule to a surface receptor, the signaling molecule does not enter the cell. a. True b. False 2. G-protein–coupled receptors are found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes. a. True b. False 3. In the liver, the enzyme glycogen phosphorylase catalyzes the breakdown of glucose. a. True b. False 4. Steroid hormones are nonpolar molecules derived from cholesterol. a. True b. False 5. An active phosphatase adds phosphate groups to other molecules. a. True b. False 6. The system of communication between cells through signaling pathways is called homeostasis. a. True b. False 7. Cross-talk between second messenger pathways is probably involved in particular types of olfactory signal transduction in many animals. a. True b. False 8. In breast cancer, ERα is often lost, which increases cell proliferation. a. True b. False 9. Steroid hormones, such as testosterone and estrogen, are polar signaling molecules. a. True b. False 10. In plants, the IP3/DAG pathways control the organism's responses to water loss and changes in light intensity. a. True b. False

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Chap 09_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Dictyostelium amoebas gather to form a fruiting body in a process similar to ____. a. G-protein—coupled signaling b. quorum sensing c. a phosphorylation cascade d. paracrine signaling e. autocrine signaling 12. In the IP3/DAG pathway, what is the effector molecule? a. IP3 b. DAG c. PIP2 d. phospholipase C e. calcium 13. Inactive G proteins are ____. a. bound to GMP b. bound to GDP c. bound to GTP d. phosphorylated e. unphosphorylated 14. The recognition of a chemical signal by a receptor protein in the membrane is most similar to ____. a. mRNA specifying the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide b. binding of a specific substrate to the active site of an enzyme c. turning on gene transcription d. allosteric regulation of proteins e. an enzyme requiring a specific optimum pH and temperature for activity 15. Ras proteins are of interest to researchers because of their role in ____. a. reproduction b. linking plant hormones to germination c. the development of many types of cancer d. relieving cluster headaches e. eliciting the fight-or-flight response

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Chap 09_5e 16. How many transmembrane domains are present in a G-protein–coupled receptor? a. one b. three c. five d. seven e. nine 17. You have recently identified a molecule you believe to be a signaling molecule associated with signal transduction. All you know about this molecule is that it is hydrophilic; therefore, you expect it to interact with a receptor ____. a. on the cell surface b. within the cytoplasm of the cell c. in the nucleus of the cell d. on the cytoplasmic surface of the plasma membrane e. associated with the endoplasmic reticulum 18. Hormone-independent steroid hormone receptor activation is an example of ____. a. allosteric activation b. gene regulation c. receptor integration d. protein mutation e. cross-talk 19. A neuron synthesizes and secretes substance D, which binds to a receptor on the neuron cell membrane, triggering an influx of calcium. Substance D therefore is a ligand for a ____. a. a receptor tyrosine kinase b. a G-protein–coupled receptor c. a hormone receptor d. a ligand-gated ion channel e. guanylyl cyclase 20. Which molecule is a common second messenger? a. cGTP b. cATP c. PIP2 d. diacylglycerol e. Ras

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Chap 09_5e 21. In the first step of signal transduction, what is the trigger for the cellular response? a. target protein b. kinase c. ligand d. second messenger e. effector 22. Nitric oxide (NO) binds to an ____. a. internal receptor and activates a second messenger cascade b. internal receptor and triggers a phosphorylation cascade c. external receptor and activates a second messenger cascade d. external receptor and triggers a phosphorylation cascade e. external receptor and opens a ligand-gated ion channel. 23. In the cAMP pathway, the G protein activates ____. a. adenylyl cyclase b. diacylglycerol c. phospholipase C d. inositol triphosphate e. phosphodiesterase 24. Estrogen receptor (ER) α typically ____, while ERβ typically ____. a. stimulates DNA binding; inhibits DNA binding b. stimulates cell proliferation; inhibits cell proliferation c. stimulates channel opening; inhibits channel opening d. inhibits DNA binding; stimulates DNA binding e. inhibits cell proliferation; stimulates cell proliferation 25. The insulin receptor is an example of a(n) ____. a. G-protein-coupled receptor b. hydrophobic receptor c. hormone receptor d. receptor tyrosine kinase e. ion channel receptor 26. What happens immediately after a signaling molecule binds to an RTK? a. receptor dimerization b. receptor trimerization c. receptor denaturation d. receptor polymerization e. receptor hydrolysis

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Chap 09_5e 27. NO can only function as a paracrine regulator because____. a. it is hydrophilic and cannot travel free in the blood b. it is hydrophobic and cannot travel free in the blood c. it is rapidly converted into nitrates and nitrites d. its receptors are rapidly turned over e. its receptors are immediately internalized when the ligand binds 28. In the process of quorum sensing, bacteria release signaling molecules in ____ concentrations as cell density ____. a. increasing; decreases b. increasing; increases c. decreasing; increases d. decreasing; decreases e. constant; increases 29. Substance B is synthesized in neurons, travels through gap junctions, and triggers the transduction of an electrochemical signal. This is an example of ____. a. autocrine signaling b. paracrine signaling c. long-distance signaling d. local signaling e. communication by direct contact 30. Substance A is secreted by the liver, travels through the circulatory system bound to a carrier protein, and causes a change in gene expression in its target cell. Substance A is therefore a ligand for ____. a. a receptor tyrosine kinase b. a G-protein–coupled receptor c. a steroid hormone receptor d. a ligand-gated ion channel e. guanylyl cyclase 31. Structurally similar RTKs have been found in all multicellular animals, suggesting that ____. a. RTK genes are resistant to mutation b. RTKs evolved relatively early in the history of animals c. RTKs evolved from G proteins d. RTKs are not involved in vital processes in animals e. RTKs have evolved independently of each other in animals

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Chap 09_5e 32. Many signal transduction pathways utilize second messengers to ____. a. transport a signal through the lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane b. relay a signal from the outside of the cell to the inside c. relay a signal from the inside of the cell to the outside d. decrease the message once the signaling molecules have left the receptor e. relay the message from the inner surface of the plasma membrane throughout the cytoplasm 33. Researchers have determined that the growth of hormone-responsive breast cancer cells depends upon ____. a. the relative concentrations of ERα and ERβ in the tumor cells b. the ability of ERβ to stimulate cancer cell growth c. the ability of ERα to inhibit cancer cell growth d. whether DNA binding sites exists for ERα, but not ERβ e. the relative concentrations of estrogen and testosterone in breast tissue 34. In general, a cell receiving a message undergoes three stages of cell signaling. What are these stages? a. paracrine, autocrine, and local b. signal reception, signal transduction, and cellular response c. signal reception, nucleus disintegration, and apoptosis d. signal reception, cellular response, and cell division e. the alpha, beta, and gamma 35. Protein kinases ____. a. add phosphate groups to proteins b. bind cGMP c. stimulate adenylyl cyclase d. polymerize amino acids e. hydrolyze proteins 36. The two major categories of extracellular signaling molecules that bind to cell surface receptors are ____. a. peptide hormones and steroid hormones b. steroid hormones and neurotransmitters c. neurotransmitters and vitamins d. growth hormones and vitamins e. peptide hormones and neurotransmitters 37. The overall process by which information carried by a signaling molecule is translated into changes that occur inside the cell is called signal ____. a. digestion b. digression c. induction d. interaction e. transduction Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5e 38. How is the NO pathway manipulated by Viagra to treat erectile dysfunction? a. NO synthesis is decreased b. NO synthesis is increased c. the enzyme catalyzed by NO is stabilized d. the enzyme catalyzed by NO is inhibited e. the breakdown of cGMP is inhibited 39. NO binds to and activates____ to trigger its cellular response. a. receptor tyrosine kinase b. G-protein–coupled receptors c. MAPK d. adenylyl cyclase e. guanylyl cyclase 40. Cell signaling pathways evolved ____. a. thousands of years ago b. in multicellular organisms c. hundreds of millions of years ago d. tens of billions of years ago e. 1 million years ago 41. The effects of protein kinases are reversed by another group of enzymes called ____. a. hydrolases b. catalases c. isomerases d. phosphatases e. proteases 42. Signaling molecules bind to the ____ region of a receptor tyrosine kinase. a. intracellular b. hydrophobic c. extracellular d. cytoplasmic e. intramembrane 43. Steroid and thyroid hormones do not bind to membrane surface receptors because they ____. a. are small enough to pass directly through the membrane b. are soluble in the lipid bilayer c. pass through special membrane channels d. are water-soluble e. dissolve in the cholesterol present in cell membranes

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Chap 09_5e 44. How do cells distinguish between estrogen and testosterone? a. Only male cells respond to testosterone, and female cells respond to estrogen. b. Eestrogen is hydrophilic and binds to surface receptors, while testosterone is hydrophobic and binds to internal receptors. c. Eestrogen and testosterone have similar functional groups but different basic structures that are easily distinguished by their individual receptors. d. Estrogen and testosterone have the same basic structures, but different side chains that are easily distinguished by their individual receptors. e. Estrogen and testosterone bind to different carrier proteins, which help receptors distinguish between the two molecules. 45. Substance A is synthesized in the liver, travels through the circulatory system bound to a carrier protein, and causes a change in gene expression in a target cell. This is an example of ____. a. autocrine signaling b. paracrine signaling c. long-distance signaling d. local signaling e. communication by direct contact 46. How does a cell surface receptor respond to the binding of a signaling molecule? a. The cell surface receptor denatures. b. The signal is transduced through the plasma membrane and into the cell. c. The receptor relays a signal to another location on the cell surface. d. The cell surface receptor flips through the membrane to the inside of the cell. e. Polarization of the cell surface changes. 47. Steroid hormones ____. a. are proteins b. include testosterone, estrogens, and cortisol c. never activate second messengers d. never alter membrane transport of ions e. are large nonpolar molecules 48. The protein kinase activity of the receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) is located ____ region of the protein. a. on the extracellular b. on the cytoplasmic c. within the hydrophobic d. in the nuclear e. in the inactive

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Chap 09_5e 49. An example of a nonpolar signaling molecule is ____. a. epinephrine b. insulin c. testosterone d. growth factors e. neurotransmitters 50. Neurotransmitters are molecules released by ____. a. gonads b. polar hormones c. peptide hormones d. cells in the blood e. neurons 51. Quorum sensing ____. a. allows receptors from different parts of the cell to work together to elicit a response b. allows receptors from different parts of the body to work together to elicit a response c. uses multiple cellular pathways to elicit a specific response d. is a type of communication between unicellular organisms e. is a type of cell communication between multicellular organisms 52. Acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter, binds to ____. a. receptor tyrosine kinases b. ligand-gated ion channels c. adenylyl cyclase d. MAPK e. G-coupled protein receptors 53. The amino acid targets of protein kinases in all GPCR pathways are ____. a. serine and glycine b. serine and tyrosine c. serine and threonine d. glycine and tyrosine e. glycine and threonine 54. Amplification of a signal increases as the ____. a. number of enzyme-catalyzed steps increases b. number of enzyme-catalyzed steps decreases c. volume of the cell increases d. volume of the cell decreases e. rate of reaction of the rate-limiting reaction increases

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Chap 09_5e 55. Adjacent animal cells utilize ____ to rapidly communicate with each other. a. gap junctions b. plasmodesmata c. hormones d. desmosomes e. neurotransmitters 56. Why are steroid hormones bound to carrier proteins in the blood? a. to prevent them from entering non-target cells b. to keep them in an inactivate state c. to mask hydrophobic groups on the steroids to allow for circulation in the blood d. to help them bind to surface receptors and trigger a cellular response e. to help them bind to surface receptors and trigger endocytosis 57. The last protein in a signaling pathway is called the ____. a. target protein b. final acceptor c. electron acceptor d. second messenger e. effector protein 58. Hormone receptors are comprised of two domains, the hormone binding domain and the ____, which triggers the cellular response. a. gene activation domain b. DNA-binding domain c. phosphorylation domain d. kinase domain e. phosphatase domain 59. Which cellular response follows activation of a ligand-gated ion channel? a. direct regulation of gene expression b. generation of an electrical signal c. activation of a phosphorylation cascade d. activation of a second messenger pathway e. direct activation of a kinase 60. Many of the different types of GPCRs in humans function to ____. a. distinguish different volatile molecules for odor recognition b. regulate metabolism by sensing and responding to changes in glucose levels c. regulate liver function by responding to different macromolecules d. aid in memory by binding to neurotransmitters in the amygdala e. trigger the fight of flight response by binding to hormones in the hypothalamus Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5e 61. In the 1950s, Earl Sutherland and colleagues discovered that epinephrine ____. a. triggers the release of a second messenger that leads to the hydrolysis of glycogen to glucose b. triggers the release of a second messenger that lowers blood glucose by causing it to bind to liver cells c. interacts directly with the enzyme glycogen phosphorylase d. interacts directly with the cell membrane to help transport glucose into the cell e. is a signaling molecule that does not require a cell surface receptor 62. Once activated, cAMP is quickly degraded to AMP by ____, switching off the signal pathway. a. adenylyl cyclase b. diacylglycerol c. phospholipase C d. acetylcholinesterase e. phosphodiesterase 63. Arrange the events in the pathway activated by G-protein–coupled receptors (GPCRs) in the correct order. 1. Activation of effector 2. Activation of protein kinases 3. Receptor binds first messenger 4. Production of second messenger 5. Activation of G protein a. 1→3→5→2→4 b. 2→3→5→4→1 c. 3→1→5→4→2 d. 3→5→1→4→2 e. 3→5→2→4→1 64. Substance C is secreted from a neuron, and binds to its receptor on a nearby cell, triggering an increase in intracellular cAMP. Substance C is therefore a ligand for a ____. a. a receptor tyrosine kinase b. a G-protein–coupled receptor c. a hormone receptor d. a ligand-gated ion channel e. guanylyl cyclase 65. More than 60% of all prescribed drugs target ____, due to their wide physiological impact. a. receptor tyrosine kinases b. hormone receptors c. guanylyl cyclase d. ligand-gated ion channels e. G-protein–coupled receptors

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Chap 09_5e 66. In order for a cell to respond to the signaling molecule epinephrine, it must have ____. a. ion channels b. a lipid bilayer through which epinephrine can pass c. receptors with an epinephrine binding site on the cytoplasmic side of the plasma membrane d. receptors with an epinephrine binding site on the plasma membrane surface e. nuclear membrane receptors 67. Receptors for polar molecules are found ____, while receptors for nonpolar molecules are located ____. a. on the cell surface; within the cell b. within the cell; on the cell surface c. on the cell surface; on the nuclear membrane d. on the nuclear membrane; on the cell surface e. on the cell surface; within the lipid bilayer 68. What is the second step of signal transduction? a. reception b. transduction c. differentiation d. division e. response 69. Activated Ras ____. a. activates MAP kinase (MAP K) b. opens a calcium channel c. triggers gene transcription d. binds DNA e. triggers the secretion of growth factors 70. G proteins are inactivated when ____. a. GDP is converted to GTP b. GTP is converted to GDP c. the G protein rebinds the receptor d. the G protein is released from the receptor e. the receptor is broken down 71. Activated G proteins ____. a. trigger endocytosis of the G-protein–coupled receptor b. bind to second messengers c. separate into two parts d. activate a kinase e. inhibit guanylyl cyclase

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Chap 09_5e 72. Communication and integration of responses between simultaneously occurring cell signaling pathways is called ____. a. mutualistic responding b. effector coordination c. cross-talk d. amplification e. signal transduction 73. During autophosphorylation, RTKs add phosphate groups to which amino acids? a. serine b. glycine c. threonine d. tryptophan e. tyrosine 74. The surface receptors that recognize and bind signaling molecules are ____. a. glycoproteins b. glycolipids c. phospholipids d. promoters e. ligands 75. Inactive Ras is bound to receptor tyrosine kinases by ____. a. G proteins b. adapter proteins c. phosphate bonds d. peptide tethers e. GDP 76. Nonpolar signaling molecules enter the cell by ____. a. facilitated diffusion b. simple diffusion c. osmosis d. active transport e. receptor-mediated endocytosis 77. In order for a target cell to receive a signal, it must possess a ____ specific to the signaling molecule. a. glycolipid b. glycoprotein c. receptor d. transfer protein e. hormone Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5e 78. Substance E is made in the pancreas, travels through the blood, and binds to a surface receptor on a target cell. After dimerization and autophosphorylation, the receptor activates a signaling protein. Substance E is therefore the ligand for ____. a. a receptor tyrosine kinase b. a G-protein–coupled receptor c. a hormone receptor d. a ligand-gated ion channel e. guanylyl cyclase 79. Adjacent plant cells utilize ____ to rapidly communicate with each other. a. gap junctions b. plasmodesmata c. transport proteins d. desmosomes e. neurotransmitters 80. How do cells in the body of a multicellular organism communicate with each other? a. by way of signaling molecules that interact with specific receptors b. through long projections that directly connect cells to each other c. through electrical signals passed between a cell and its external environment d. by the transport of ions between cells in different parts of the organism e. by the transport of ions in water

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Chap 09_5e Answer the following questions using the accompanying figure. Match the types of cell communication shown in the figures with the descriptions below. Some choices may be used more than once.

Figure 9.1 a. a b. b c. c d. d 81. cell communication by direct contact 82. paracrine regulation 83. autocrine regulation 84. long-distance signaling 85. communication used by neurotransmitters acting on neuron across a synapse 86. communication used by cardiac muscle cells to synchronize heart contractions 87. mediation of the fight-or-flight response by epinephrine

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Chap 09_5e Match the type of cell communication with the correct description. a. Ras b. receptor tyrosine kinase c. ligand-gated ion channel d. nitric oxide e. hormone receptors f. signal transduction g. IP3 /DAG h. cAMP 88. binds to and activates the enzyme guanylyl cyclase 89. directly bind to DNA to affect transcription 90. lithium reduces the activity of this pathway 91. G protein activated by a receptor tyrosine kinase 92. binds to acetylcholine 93. pathway triggered by glucagon to stimulate glycogen breakdown 94. defects in this receptor type can lead to diabetes and dwarfism 95. converts an extracellular signal into an intracellular response 96. Amplification is an important characteristic of signal transduction pathways involving surface receptors. What is amplification and how is it accomplished in the cell?

97. How does cAMP regulate glucose levels in mammals?

98. Why is it necessary for cells to communicate with each other in a regulated way?

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Chap 09_5e 99. What is the function of signal transduction?

100. Why is cell communication considered evolutionarily ancient?

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Chap 09_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. False 7. True 8. False 9. False 10. True 11. b 12. d 13. b 14. b 15. c 16. d 17. a 18. e 19. d 20. d 21. c 22. a 23. a 24. b 25. d 26. a

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Chap 09_5e 27. c 28. b 29. e 30. c 31. b 32. e 33. a 34. b 35. a 36. e 37. e 38. e 39. e 40. c 41. d 42. c 43. b 44. d 45. c 46. b 47. b 48. b 49. c 50. e 51. d 52. b 53. c 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5e 55. a 56. c 57. a 58. b 59. b 60. a 61. a 62. e 63. d 64. b 65. e 66. d 67. a 68. b 69. a 70. b 71. c 72. c 73. e 74. a 75. b 76. b 77. c 78. a 79. b 80. a 81. d 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5e 83. b 84. c 85. a 86. d 87. c 88. d 89. e 90. g 91. a 92. c 93. h 94. b 95. f 96. Amplification is an increase in the magnitude of each step in a signal transduction pathway. Amplification occurs because many of the proteins that carry out individual steps in the pathway are enzymes. Once activated, each enzyme can activate hundreds or thousands of proteins in the signal transduction cascade. 97. Glucagon, which is released from pancreatic cells when blood glucose levels fall, triggers a cAMP receptor response pathway. In response, glycogen is broken down to glucose. 98. Regulated communication is responsible for the controlled growth and development of an animal as well as coordinating the functions of tissues and organs. 99. Signal transduction refers to the process by which a cell converts a chemical signal from outside the cell into an intracellular signal typically through a series of biochemical reactions involving enzymes. This ultimately results in a specific cellular response occurring. 100. Some protein components of cell communication pathways are the same in prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Some entire cell signaling pathways are conserved between distantly related organisms, for example, Drosophila and humans.

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Chap 10_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Experiments that led to the understanding of cell cycle control were performed on yeast. a. True b. False 2. Kinetochore microtubules extend between the spindle poles. a. True b. False 3. Humans (which have a chromosome number of 2n=46) have 92 chromosomes during G2. a. True b. False 4. In plants, the microtubules organizing centers are comprised of microtubules. a. True b. False 5. Histones are positively charged proteins that complex with DNA in eukaryotic chromosomes. a. True b. False 6. Bacterial DNA is not compacted into an organized higher structure. a. True b. False 7. The evolution of binary fusion solved the mechanical problems associated with distributing long DNA molecules without breakage. a. True b. False 8. Mitotic cyclins bind to S-phase Cdks in G2, which is required for the progression of the cell through mitosis. a. True b. False 9. Sister chromatids connect at a region of DNA called the centrosome. a. True b. False 10. An organism with a chromosome number of n=7 is said to be haploid. a. True b. False

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Chap 10_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Answer the following questions using the accompanying figure. Figure 10.1 11. Identify the stage of mitosis shown in panel B. a. interphase b. prophase c. metaphase d. anaphase e. telophase 12. A plant cell with three sets of chromosomes is ____. a. haploid b. diploid c. triploid d. tetraploid e. hexaploid 13. A cell is committed to progressing through the cell cycle through to mitosis once it transitions from ____. a. G2 to prophase b. G1 to G0 c. G1 to S d. S to G2 e. telophase to cytokinesis 14. During the mitotic spindle checkpoint, ____. a. cells are in anaphase b. cells arrest if chromosomes are attached properly to the mitotic spindle c. cells become irreversibly committed to S phase d. proper spindle attachment to chromosomes is assessed e. cells enter G0

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Chap 10_5e 15. Colchicine, a chemical extracted from the autumn crocus (Colchicum autumnale), inhibits the formation of microtubules. Mitotic cells exposed to colchicine will therefore be arrested at ____. a. anaphase b. interphase c. prophase d. telophase e. metaphase

Answer the following questions using the accompanying figure. Figure 10.1 16. Identify the stage of mitosis shown in panel A. a. interphase b. prophase c. metaphase d. anaphase e. telophase 17. At the conclusion of mitosis, each daughter cell has ____. a. twice the amount of DNA and half the cytoplasm of the parent cell b. DNA identical to the parent cell c. half the DNA and half the cytoplasm found in the parent cell d. twice the cytoplasm and the same amount of DNA as the parent cell e. DNA genetically different from the parent cell 18. At the conclusion of S phase, a diploid cell with 40 chromosomes will have ____ chromosomes and _____ sister chromatids. a. 20; 40 b. 20; 20 c. 40; 40 d. 40; 80 e. 80; 80

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Chap 10_5e 19. Organisms that reproduce asexually usually do so through the process of ____. a. mitosis b. meiosis c. gametogenesis d. spore formation e. fertilization 20. Karyotype analyses are performed on cells in ____ of mitosis. a. prophase b. prometaphase c. metaphase d. anaphase e. telophase 21. In order to understand how chromosomes move during anaphase of mitosis, researchers tagged ____ with a fluorescent label before photobleaching the cell and examining chromosomal movement under a microscope. a. DNA b. kinetochore microtubules c. nonkinetochore microtubules d. histones e. motor proteins 22. Compared to the parent cell, each of two daughter cells that result from normal mitotic division contains ____ chromosomes and is genetically ____. a. the same number of; different b. the same number of; identical c. half the number of; different d. half the number of; identical e. double the number of; identical 23. Comparison of a cancer cell to a normal cell reveals that ____. a. only cancer cell growth is limited by contact inhibition b. only normal cell growth is limited by contact inhibition c. cancer cells cannot metastasize, while normal cells can d. regulation of mitosis is strictly regulated in cancer cells, but not in normal cells. e. cancer cells remain adherent to other cells, while normal cells do not

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Chap 10_5e 24. If a given protein’s level peaks early in G1, but is absent before the G2 transition, what can be inferred about its possible role in regulating the cell cycle? a. This protein inhibits S-phase Cdks. b. This protein activates S-phase Cdks. c. This protein inhibits G1/S Cdks. d. This protein activates G1/S Cdks. e. This protein is involved in DNA synthesis. 25. The separation of duplicated chromosomes into two new nuclei is known as ____. a. mitosis b. cytokinesis c. binary fission d. meiosis e. fertilization 26. A somatic cell divides to form two genetically identical daughter cells during mitosis. Prior to mitosis, what must occur? a. The cell must replicate its DNA. b. The cell must first be fertilized. c. The nucleus must divide. d. Chromatids must be separated. e. The nuclear envelope must disintegrate. 27. How many unique chromosomes does an organism with a chromosome number of 4n=32 have? Assume that none of these are sex chromosomes, and do not count any duplicate homologous chromosomes in this number. a. 4 b. 8 c. 16 d. 32 e. 64 28. The cells produced by mitotic divisions are considered to be ____ the original cell. a. smaller versions of b. genetically unique from c. clones of d. mutants of e. plasmids of

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Chap 10_5e 29. Contact inhibition is an important mechanism for maintaining cell growth in developed organs and tissues. As long as the cells maintain contact with each other, they remain in ____ and are prevented from dividing. a. prophase b. G1 c. G2 d. G0 e. S 30. Loosely packed regions of DNA associated with histones are called ____. a. euchromatin b. heterochromatin c. chromosomes d. nucleosomes e. 30-nm chromatin fibers 31. Which sequence of the cell cycle is correct? a. prophase, metaphase, interphase, telophase, anaphase b. prometaphase, anaphase, prophase, telophase, interphase, metaphase c. anaphase, interphase, telophase, prometaphase, prophase, metaphase d. interphase, prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase e. interphase, metaphase, prometaphase, prophase, telophase, anaphase 32. Certain human cell types, such as skeletal muscle cells, have several nuclei per cell. Based on your understanding of mitosis, how could this happen? a. The cell undergoes repeated cytokinesis but not mitosis. b. The cell undergoes repeated mitotic divisions with concomitant cytokinesis. c. The cell undergoes repeated mitotic divisions but not cytokinesis. d. The cell undergoes anaphase twice before entering telophase. e. The cell goes through multiple S phases before entering mitosis. 33. If a cell contains 84 sister chromatids at metaphase of mitosis, how many chromosomes will be present in each nucleus in late telophase? a. 168 b. 84 c. 42 d. 21 e. cannot be determined from the information given

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Chap 10_5e 34. Generally, which phase of the cell cycle varies the most in length? a. G1 b. S c. G2 d. M e. All phases are the same length among cells 35. The microtubules making up the mitotic spindle attach to specialized structures called ____ that are found in the centromere region of the chromosome. a. nucleosomes b. centrosomes c. kinetochores d. chromatids e. centrioles 36. Chromosomes decondense into chromatin at which point in the cell cycle? a. at the beginning of S phase b. at the end of interphase c. at the beginning of prophase d. at the beginning of metaphase e. at the end of telophase 37. If a diploid cell with 40 chromosomes undergoes meiosis, each daughter nuclei will have ____ chromosomes. a. 10 b. 20 c. 40 d. 60 e. 80 38. The mitotic spindle is primarily composed of ____. a. actin b. intermediate filaments c. microtubules d. keratin e. motor proteins 39. Bacterial cells typically have ____ while eukaryotic cells have ____. a. a single circular chromosome; many linear chromosomes b. several circular chromosomes; many linear chromosomes c. one linear chromosome; many circular chromosomes d. two circular chromosomes; numerous circular chromosomes depending on the species e. numerous circular chromosomes depending on the species; many linear chromosomes Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5e 40. The microtubule organizing center (MTOC) of an animal cell is an identifiable structure known as the ____. a. cell plate b. centrosome c. kinetochore d. centromere e. chromosome 41. If a cell has 36 chromosomes at the beginning of G1, how many chromosomes will be present at the end of G2? a. 36 b. 18 c. 72 d. 64 e. 44 42. During which phase(s) of mitosis are chromosomes composed of two sister chromatids? a. prophase and prometaphase only b. prophase, prometaphase, and metaphase c. prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, and anaphase d. anaphase and telophase only e. all phases of mitosis 43. The ____ genome was the first eukaryotic genome to be sequenced. a. Escherichia coli b. Caenorhabditis elegans c. Drosophila melanogaster d. Saccharomyces cerevisiae e. Schizosaccharomyces pombe 44. The nucleosome core particle is made up of ____. a. two molecules each of H2A, H2B, H3, and H4 b. one molecule each of H2A, H2B, H3, and H4 c. two molecules each of H1, H2, H3, and H4 d. one molecule each of H1, H2, H3, and H4 e. six proteins 45. Binding of ____ activates proteins involved in DNA replication. a. mitotic cyclins to mitotic Cdks b. S-phase cyclins to S-phase Cdks c. G1 cyclins to G1 Cdks d. G1/S cyclins to G1/S Cdks e. the MPF Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5e 46. Chromosomes are in a condensed form at which stage(s) of the cell cycle? a. prophase only b. prophase and metaphase c. interphase d. all stages of interphase and mitosis e. throughout mitosis until late telophase

Answer the following questions using the accompanying figure. Figure 10.1 47. Identify the stage of mitosis shown in panel E. a. interphase b. prophase c. metaphase d. anaphase e. telophase 48. What is the role of Cdks? a. to add phosphate groups to target proteins b. to check for proper attachment of spindle fibers to chromosomes c. to remove phosphate groups from cyclins d. to arrest the cell cycle e. to allow the cell cycle to work forward or backward 49. Cytokinesis typically begins during which stage of mitosis? a. prophase b. prometaphase c. metaphase d. anaphase e. telophase

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Chap 10_5e

Answer the following questions using the accompanying figure. Figure 10.1 50. Identify the stage of mitosis shown in panel D. a. interphase b. prophase c. metaphase d. anaphase e. telophase 51. Most cancers require at least two mutations: 1) one in an oncogene, which encodes proteins that trigger cell division, and 2) one in a tumor suppressor gene, whose protein products, in their unmutated form, play a key role in preventing the cell cycle from progressing if the DNA is damaged or in the absence of specific cues. Which class of proteins might be considered tumor suppressors? a. Cdk inhibitors b. cyclins c. growth factor receptors d. microtubules e. transcription factors 52. What is the role of nonhistone proteins in the nucleus? a. to regulate nuclear envelope formation b. to facilitate nuclear transportation c. to provide additional chromosomal structure d. to disassemble the nuclear envelope e. to aid in microtubule formation during mitosis 53. Centriole replication occurs during ____. a. G1 phase b. S phase c. G2 phase d. prophase e. telophase

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Chap 10_5e 54. Contact inhibition is best explained by which statement? a. Contact between neighboring cells triggers reactions leading to inhibition of mitosis. b. As neighboring cells become more tightly packed together, their size is restricted and cytokinesis can no longer occur. c. As cell number increases, the protein kinases they produce compete with neighboring cells, inhibiting mitosis. d. As cell number increases, the level of waste products increases, consequently slowing metabolism leading to mitosis. e. As cell number increases, size restrictions inhibit protein synthesis. 55. Progression through the phases of the cell cycle is regulated by fluctuating concentrations of ____. a. microtubules b. actin c. cyclins d. cyclin-dependent kinases e. histones 56. Oncogenes are often ____. a. mutant forms of cell cycle genes b. normal forms of cell cycle genes c. needed for normal cells to metastasize d. required for normal contact inhibition of cells e. not involved in cell division 57. Binary fission ____. a. is thought to have evolved from mitosis b. is involved in gamete formation c. results in the production of two identical daughter cells d. requires spindle formation e. is important for eukaryotic cell growth 58. Duplicated centrioles move to opposite poles of a(n) ____ cell during ____ of the cell cycle. a. animal; prophase b. plant; prophase c. animal; metaphase d. plant; metaphase e. both animal and plant cells; prophase

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Chap 10_5e 59. Embryonic development begins with a single egg fertilized by a single sperm, forming a zygote which then divides by mitosis. How many cells are present in the embryo at the conclusion of four mitotic divisions? a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 16 e. 32 60. Early in mitosis, chromatin condenses. Which process takes place more easily as a result? a. disappearance of the nuclear envelope b. replication of DNA c. orderly distribution of DNA into the two new nuclei d. formation of the mitotic spindle e. disintegration of nucleoli 61. The microtubules of the mitotic spindle originate from the ____ in both plant and animal cells. a. microtubule organizing centers (MTOCs) b. centromere c. chromatid d. centriole e. centrosome 62. Research conducted by G.J. Gorbsky and colleagues suggests that during anaphase, chromosomes move as a consequence of ____. a. a combined action of actin and microtubules b. the disassembly of kinetochore microtubules c. the movement of kinetochore microtubules d. constriction of the contractile protein actin e. sliding over or along kinetochore microtubules 63. Where is the centromere found? a. position where metaphase chromosomes align b. location where the mitotic spindle forms c. central region of a chromosome where the spindle microtubules attach d. location where chromosomes cluster during telophase e. center of the cell where the nucleus is found during prophase 64. When plants are produced by cloning, which process is most directly involved? a. mitotic cell division b. binary fission c. meiotic cell division d. gamete production e. budding Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5e

Answer the following questions using the accompanying figure. Figure 10.1 65. Identify the stage of mitosis shown in panel C. a. interphase b. prophase c. metaphase d. anaphase e. telophase 66. Which statement best describes the difference between cell division in plant and animal cells? a. Cytokinesis occurs by formation of a cleavage furrow in animal cells, but not plant cells. b. Cytokinesis occurs by formation of a cleavage furrow in plant cells, but not animal cells. c. Centrosomes play an important role in spindle formation in plant cells, but not in animal cells. d. Chromosome replication occurs during interphase in animal cells, while in plant cells, replication occurs when the nuclear envelope disintegrates. e. Animal cells divide via the cell cycle whereas plant cells divide by binary fission. 67. Addition of mitosis-promoting factor (MPF) to germinal cells in the skin arrested in G2 leads the cells to ____. a. stop dividing b. enter prophase c. undergo cytokinesis without mitosis d. die e. remain arrested in G2 68. When growth factors bind to receptors on the cell surface, the signaling cascade will ____. a. initiate cell growth b. prevent cell division c. trigger cell death d. cause the cells to enter the G0 state e. trigger mitosis without the other stages of the cell cycle

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Chap 10_5e 69. Replication of DNA occurs during ____. a. S phase b. G1 phase c. G0 phase d. prophase e. cytokinesis 70. The tight packing of chromatin into the chromosomes visible during nuclear division is possible due to links between ____ proteins. a. Cdk b. H1 histone c. H3 histone d. H4 histone e. nonhistone 71. Some bacteria produce the enzyme β-lactamase, which results in resistance to certain antibiotics such as penicillin. Since these same organisms reproduce asexually, they produce offspring that ____. a. can be killed by penicillin b. have an abnormally high rate of mutation c. are resistant to penicillin d. have variable numbers of chromosomes e. can make penicillin 72. If a dividing cell had no functional G1/S Cdk protein, the cell would not be able to ____. a. phosphorylate cyclins b. transcribe the Cdk gene c. enter S phase d. translate cyclin mRNA e. degrade cyclins 73. Which statement characterizes cancer cells? a. Mitosis in cancer cells is strictly regulated. b. Cancer cells form tumors that adhere strongly to surrounding tissues. c. Cancer cells display uncontrolled cell division. d. Tumors formed by cancer cells remain encapsulated and only grow in one location. e. Cancer cells behave like normal cells.

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Chap 10_5e 74. Chromatin condenses into chromosomes and the mitotic spindle begins to form during ____. a. interphase b. prophase c. metaphase d. anaphase e. telophase 75. Once human nerve cells become mature, they normally exit the cell cycle and remain in ____. a. G0 b. G1 c. G2 d. S phase e. prophase 76. Vinblastine, a chemotherapeutic drug used to treat breast and testicular cancers, interferes with the assembly of microtubules. Speculate how this drug works to inhibit cancer cell growth. a. Vinblastine inhibits transition from G1 to S. b. Vinblastine inhibits transition from S to G2. c. Vinblastine inhibits cytokinesis. d. Vinblastine disrupts mitotic spindle formation and consequently mitosis. e. Vinblastine inhibits cyclin production. 77. Replication of a bacterial chromosome begins at a specific region called the ____. a. ter b. replication fork c. beg d. ori e. rep 78. During ____, microtubules disassemble, pulling the chromatids to the ends of the spindle. a. prophase b. interphase c. anaphase d. metaphase e. telophase

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Chap 10_5e 79. During prokaryotic cell division, two chromosomes separate and are distributed to the two ends of the cell by ____. a. the action of the mitotic spindle b. an unknown mechanism c. attachment to actin d. attachment to separating membrane regions e. formation of a newly made cell wall 80. One of the three internal cell cycle checkpoints occurs during ____ and monitors ____. a. the G1/S transition; mitotic spindle integrity b. late S phase; the presence of DNA damage c. the G2/M transition; the presence of DNA damage d. the G2/M transition; mitotic spindle integrity e. anaphase; the presence of DNA damage Match the statement to the most appropriate component of cell cycle regulation. Not all choices will be used. a. Cdk b. cyclins c. Cdk/cyclin complex d. growth factors 81. intracellular levels remain constant throughout the cell cycle 82. binds to, and activates, Cdk 83. intracellular levels fluctuate throughout the cell cycle 84. activated kinase phosphorylates target proteins, allowing cell division to proceed

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Chap 10_5e Identify the stage of mitosis at which each of the following activities occurs. Some choices may be used more than once. a. prophase b. prometaphase c. metaphase d. anaphase e. telophase 85. nuclear envelope disappears 86. duplicated chromosomes condense 87. mitotic spindle disassembles 88. RNA synthesis shuts down 89. spindle fiber begins to form 90. chromosomes align at the center of the cell 91. sister chromatids are pulled to opposite spindle poles 92. daughter chromosomes decondense and the nuclear envelope reforms Match the cell cycle checkpoint to the correct description. Some choices may be used more than once; some may not be used at all. a. G1/S checkpoint b. G2/M checkpoint c. mitotic spindle checkpoint 93. Cdk1 phosphorylates target proteins to overcome the checkpoint for this transition 94. the primary checkpoint influenced by extracellular signals 95. binding of S cyclin to Cdk2 activates target proteins to overcome the checkpoint for this transition. 96. Explain how the non-kinetochore microtubules lead to the elongation of the cell during anaphase.

97. How is cell division different in plants versus animal cells?

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Chap 10_5e 98. Which external factors influence a cell to divide?

99. What is the purpose of mitosis in living organisms?

100. What are the two main features of prokaryotic binary fission?

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Chap 10_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. False 9. False 10. True 11. d 12. c 13. c 14. d 15. e 16. a 17. b 18. d 19. a 20. c 21. b 22. b 23. b 24. d 25. a 26. a

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Chap 10_5e 27. b 28. c 29. d 30. a 31. d 32. c 33. c 34. a 35. c 36. e 37. b 38. c 39. a 40. b 41. a 42. b 43. d 44. a 45. b 46. e 47. c 48. a 49. e 50. e 51. a 52. c 53. b 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5e 55. c 56. a 57. c 58. a 59. d 60. c 61. a 62. e 63. c 64. a 65. b 66. a 67. b 68. a 69. a 70. b 71. c 72. c 73. c 74. b 75. a 76. d 77. d 78. c 79. b 80. c 81. a 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5e 83. b 84. c 85. b 86. a 87. e 88. a 89. a 90. c 91. d 92. e 93. b 94. a 95. a 96. Two different mechanisms are responsible: 1) the motor proteins walk in opposite directions along overlapping nonkinetochore microtubules, which push the spindles apart; and 2) the microtubules grow as they slide along, pushing the poles apart. 97. 1. Unlike animal cells, no centrosome or centrioles are present in most types of plants. Instead, the spindle forms from microtubules originating from multiple MTOCs surrounding the nucleus. 2. Cytokinesis occurs by different pathways in plants and animals; animals (plus protists and many fungi) form a cleavage furrow composed of microfilaments of actin, which surround the cell and gradually deepen until it cuts the cytoplasm in two. In plants, a new cell wall called the cell plate forms between the daughter nuclei and grows until it divides the cytoplasm. 98. A variety of external chemical and physical factors can influence cell division. Particularly important for mammalian cells are growth factors, proteins released by one group of cells that stimulate other cells to divide. Each cell type responds specifically to a certain growth factor or combination of factors. 99. Multicellular organisms mainly use cell division by mitosis for growth and for cell replacement and repair. 100. Replication of the single circular chromosome followed by division of the cytoplasm.

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Chap 11_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. What is the difference between sister chromatids before and after anaphase II? a. Before anaphase II, the sister chromatids are separate; after anaphase II, the sister chromatids join and form a chromosome. b. Before anaphase II, the sister chromatids form a single chromosome; after anaphase II, each sister chromatid is an individual chromosome. c. Before anaphase II, each sister chromatid is an individual chromosome; after anaphase II, the sister chromatids form a single chromosome. d. Before anaphase II, the sister chromatids form a single chromosome; after anaphase II, the sister chromatids become homologous chromosomes. e. There is no difference; they are still together as a single chromosome. 2. Which statement describes a similarity between the diploid and haploid phases of plant life? a. Both end in fertilization. b. Both are multicellular. c. Both are immediately followed by meiosis. d. Both contain sporophytes. e. Both contain spores. 3. Which of the following occurs during interkinesis? a. The single spindle of the first meiotic division disassembles. b. Two new meiotic spindles reassemble for the second meiotic division. c. Two spindles from the first meiotic division disassemble. d. DNA is replicated. e. Both answer a and answer b are correct. 4. How do the haploid and diploid phases of the plant life cycle differ from those of the animal life cycle? a. In plants, the diploid phase dominates the life cycle, while in animals the haploid phase dominates the life cycle. b. In plants, mitosis occurs only during the haploid phase, while in animals mitosis occurs only during the diploid phase. c. In plants, mitosis occurs only during the diploid phase, while in animals mitosis occurs only during the haploid phase. d. In plants, mitosis occurs during both the haploid and diploid phases, while in animals mitosis occurs only during the diploid phase. e. In plants, meiosis occurs during the haploid phase, while in animals meiosis occurs during the diploid phase.

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Chap 11_5e 5. If a normal diploid germ cell in a bird has eight chromosomes, then ______. a. there are eight homologous pairs of chromosomes per diploid germ cell b. there are eight chromatids per diploid germ cell after DNA replication c. there are four chromosomes per cell after the first meiotic division and cytokinesis d. there are eight chromosomes in the sperm cells made from this diploid germ cell e. there are eight copies of each chromosome in this diploid germ cell 6. Before they begin meiosis I, sister chromatids ______. a. are separated during anaphase I b. have different alleles for the same genes c. are replicated before meiosis I and II d. are replicated before meiosis II e. have identical DNA sequences 7. If both chromatids of a sister-chromatid pair are found in one daughter cell, what most likely occurred? a. improper replication of DNA b. failure of maternal and paternal chromosomes to separate c. nondisjunction during meiosis I d. nondisjunction during meiosis II e. an error during crossing-over 8. At what stage of meiosis do sister chromatids become separate chromosomes? a. anaphase I b. metaphase I c. anaphase II d. telophase II e. both prophase I and anaphase II 9. Which pattern of diploid and haploid phases reflects the life cycle in plants? a. alternation between haploid and diploid generations b. two haploid generations followed by a diploid generation c. one haploid generation followed by two diploid generations d. a single generation that limits the haploid state to gametes, while the rest of the organism is diploid e. a single generation that limits the diploid state to gametes, while the rest of the organism is haploid 10. Identical twins can result from ____. a. the fusion of two sets of identical gametes b. a division of a zygote into two separate cells that develop into two separate embryos c. the fusion of two paternal gametes with a single maternal gamete that then divides d. a lack of chromosomal separation during meiosis resulting in gametes that are diploid e. a mechanism that is not understood

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Chap 11_5e 11. Which pattern of diploid and haploid phases reflects the life cycle in some fungi and algae, but not plants or animals? a. alternation between haploid and diploid generations b. two haploid generations followed by a diploid generation c. one haploid generation followed by two diploid generations d. a life cycle that limits the diploid state to a single cell produced by fertilization e. a life cycle that limits the haploid state to a single cell that is immediately fertilized 12. When two pairs of homologous chromosomes join for crossing-over, the complex is called a ____. a. kinetochore b. centromere c. sister chromatid d. tetrad e. chiasmata 13. When do chromosomes line up at the metaphase plate in pairs? a. metaphase I b. prophase I c. metaphase II d. anaphase I e. prometaphase II 14. Assuming a single cross-over event with respect to one homologous pair of chromosomes, the completion of meiosis produces ____. a. three daughter cells with parental chromosomes and one daughter cell with a recombinant chromosome b. four daughter cells with recombinant chromosomes c. two daughter cells with parental chromosomes and two daughter cells with recombinant chromosomes d. one daughter cell with parental chromosomes and one cell with recombinant chromosomes e. two daughter cells, each with recombinant chromosomes 15. The daughter cells produced by meiosis are ____. a. identical to the parent, but genetically different from each other b. identical to each other, but genetically different from the parent c. genetically different from the parent and each other d. genetically identical to the parent and each other e. genetically different from each other, but with the same chromosome number as the parent 16. The process of fertilization joins male and female gametes ____. a. randomly b. that contain a greater number of paternal chromosomes c. that contain a greater number of maternal chromosomes d. with the fewest mutations e. with the best adaptive traits Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e 17. If the diploid number of chromosomes in mouse somatic cells is 40, how many chromosomes are present during prophase I? a. 40, each composed of a single paternal or maternal chromosome b. 80, each composed of a pair of homologous chromosomes c. 20, each composed of a single sister chromatid d. 80, each composed of a single sister chromatid e. 40, each containing a pair of sister chromatids 18. What is the immediate product of meiosis in plants? a. diploids b. gametes c. spores d. sporophytes e. somatic cells 19. Following the completion of meiosis in animals, males produce ____ sperm cell(s) and females produce ____ egg(s). a. 4 diploid; 1 diploid b. 4 haploid; 1 haploid c. 2 diploid; 4 haploid d. 4 haploid; 2 diploid e. 4 haploid; 3 haploid 20. Which statement most accurately describes plant gametes? a. Gametophytes produced by mitotic divisions of spores can mature into gametes. b. Gametes are formed directly from meiosis. c. Haploid spores produced by meiosis are mature gametes. d. Gametophytes produced directly from meiosis are mature gametes. e. Sporophytes undergo meiosis to produce mature gametes called spores. 21. In plants and some fungi, individuals that form the diploid generation are called ____. a. spores b. sporophytes c. gametophytes d. spermatozoa e. ova

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Chap 11_5e 22. In plants, the gametes produced by a particular gametophyte are ____. a. always identical because they result from meiosis b. always identical because they result from mitosis c. sometimes identical because they result from meiosis d. sometimes identical because they result from mitosis e. never identical because they result from meiosis 23. Which meiotic phase is matched with the mitotic phase it most closely represents, except for the halving of chromosome number in the meiotic phase? a. anaphase I and anaphase b. anaphase II and anaphase c. metaphase I and metaphase d. interkinesis and telophase e. metaphase II and prophase 24. Which statement correctly describes the X and/or Y chromosomes? a. The X and Y chromosomes are completely homologous. b. The Y chromosome determines the sex of the individual. c. The Y chromosome is larger than the X chromosome. d. The Y chromosome is found in both males and females. e. The X chromosome only comes from the father. 25. How is sexual reproduction facilitated in flowering plants? a. Pollen reaches the ovule by traveling through the flower petal. b. The male gametophyte is found in the flower, while the female gametophyte is released as pollen. c. The female gametophyte is found in the flower, while the male gametophyte is released as pollen. d. Pollen is only able to fertilize plants of different species to ensure genetic diversity. e. The ovule is carried by birds to other plants for reproduction to occur with the male gametophyte. 26. A homologous chromosome pair is best described as two chromosomes having ____. a. the same genes in the same order, but possibly having different alleles of those genes b. the same alleles of the same genes in the same order c. the same alleles of the same genes in a different order d. different alleles of the same genes arranged in a different order e. identical DNA sequences 27. Egg and sperm cells are ____. a. sporophytes b. gametes c. gametophytes d. diploid e. somatic cells Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e 28. The chromosome number is halved by ____ and restored by ____. a. independent assortment; meiosis b. mitosis; meiosis c. meiosis; mitosis d. meiosis; fertilization e. mitosis; fertilization 29. Which statement describes the production of offspring by wingless female aphids? a. Wingless female aphids can produce clones of female offspring by laying eggs. b. When the amount of food available in the environment increases, the number of male offspring increases. c. Wingless female aphids only produce female clones, and these clones are made without the mother laying eggs. d. Different proportions of winged male, non-egg-laying female, and egg-laying female offspring are produced based on the temperature and amount of daylight. e. Environmental conditions do not affect the sexuality of wingless female aphid offspring; sexuality is only determined genetically. 30. What is the name of the period of time that separates meiosis I and meiosis II? a. telophase II b. interkinesis c. prophase II d. interphase e. telophase I 31. In meiosis, sister chromatids ____. a. separate before DNA replication b. separate before crossing-over c. separate during anaphase I d. separate during anaphase II e. never separate; sister chromatids do not separate in meiosis 32. Alleles are ____. a. sex chromosomes b. somatic cells c. crossover sites d. attachment sites for microtubules e. different versions of the same gene

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Chap 11_5e 33. If a species has 42 pairs of chromosomes, how many maternal and paternal chromosome combinations are possible during independent assortment? a. 422 b. 242 c. 221 d. 212 e. 842 34. Homologous chromosomes undergo recombination during ____. a. prophase II b. metaphase I c. metaphase II d. both prophase I and II e. prophase I 35. Crossing-over during meiosis ____. a. holds homologous pairs of chromosomes together b. produces chromosomes consisting of two identical sister chromatids c. produces daughter nuclei with too much or too little genetic material d. creates chromosomes containing both paternal and maternal genes e. ensures that the developing zygote receives cytoplasm from one of the parents 36. Which structure holds homologous chromosomes tightly together and supports them as they undergo recombination? a. kinetochore b. centromere c. microtubules d. spermatozoa e. synaptonemal complex 37. In a frog in which the diploid number of chromosomes per cell is 24, what is the total number of chromatids present during prophase I? a. 4 b. 6 c. 12 d. 24 e. 48

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Chap 11_5e 38. For humans, which parent’s gamete will determine the sex of the child? a. The father, because his gametes only contain the Y chromosome. b. The mother, because her gametes only contain the X chromosome. c. The father, because his gametes can contain either the X or the Y chromosome. d. The mother, because her gametes can contain either the X or the Y chromosome. e. Either parent, because the random mixing of gametes determines the sex of the child. 39. After the first meiotic division, the two daughter cells ____. a. are identical to each other b. replicate their DNA before dividing again c. contain unequal chromosome numbers d. have half the diploid number of chromosomes e. always contain equal numbers of paternal and maternal chromosomes 40. Which pattern of diploid and haploid phases reflects the life cycle in animals? a. alternation between haploid and diploid generations b. two haploid generations followed by a diploid generation c. one haploid generation followed by two diploid generations d. a single generation that limits the haploid state to gametes, while the rest of the organism is diploid e. a single generation that limits the diploid state to gametes, while the rest of the organism is haploid 41. Sexual reproduction involves ____. a. one diploid cell fertilizing a haploid cell b. the union of two somatic cells c. the union of male and female gametes d. a single mitotic division of the parent cell to produce a daughter cell e. the union of two gametes to produce a haploid zygote 42. Genetic variability in meiosis results from ____. a. recombination of homologous chromosomes only b. independent assortment of chromosomes only c. random joining of male and female gametes only d. recombination between sister chromatids and homologous chromosomes e. recombination of homologous chromosomes, independent assortment of chromosomes, and random joining of male and female gametes 43. During telophase I, ____. a. chromosomes condense b. chromosomes align along the equatorial plane of the cell c. nuclear envelopes form in some species, but not in others d. homologous chromosomes separate e. tetrads form Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e 44. During prophase I of meiosis, each chromosome consists of ____. a. one single-stranded DNA molecule b. two sister chromatids c. one sister chromatid d. four sister chromatids e. one double-stranded DNA molecule 45. Sex chromosomes are ____. a. completely different between the two sexes b. partially homologous, but also have unique regions c. found only in males d. unable to line up properly at the metaphase plate e. completely homologous, but always have different alleles 46. The manner in which chromosomes align themselves along the metaphase plate is completely random. This quality makes ____ possible. a. metaphase I b. synapsis c. meiosis d. fertilization e. independent assortment 47. Human diploid cells have ____ chromosomes, while human gametes have ____ chromosomes. a. 46; 23 b. 23; 46 c. 96; 48 d. 48; 96 e. 46; 92 48. If an organism has the same life strategy as a maple tree, the synaptonemal complex will be observed ____. a. only in alternating generations b. in each generation c. only in a unicellular haploid phase d. only in a multicellular haploid phase e. only in gametophytes

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Chap 11_5e 49. Two genes (A and B) are located on each of two pairs of homologous chromosomes. In a tetrad, one sister chromatid contains alleles ab, while the other sister chromatid contains alleles AB (upper and lower case indicate different alleles of the same gene). Which genetic combinations are possible in the four gametes that are produced from a single chiasma between these chromosome pairs? a. Ab, AB, ab, aB b. Ab, Ab, aB, aB c. Aa, Bb, ab, Ab d. Ab, Ab, AB, AB e. AB, AB, ab, ab 50. Meiosis produces ____. a. four haploid cells b. two diploid cells c. two diploid cells and two haploid cells d. four diploid cells e. one haploid and three diploid cells 51. Nondisjunction during meiosis I results in ____. a. the generation of an extra daughter cell b. a change in the status of a daughter cell from diploid to haploid c. a change in the status of a daughter cell from haploid to diploid d. one pole of the cell receiving neither member of a homologous pair of chromosomes e. a gamete that cannot fuse with another gamete 52. By itself, independent assortment of chromosomes increases the likelihood that individual daughter cells have ____. a. some paternal chromosomes and some maternal chromosomes b. only paternal chromosomes c. only maternal chromosomes d. chromosomes containing genes from both paternal and maternal chromosomes e. different numbers of chromosomes 53. Sexual reproduction has an advantage over asexual reproduction by ____. a. requiring an interaction between two individuals b. creating more genetic diversity c. ensuring a greater number of progeny d. keeping the number of chromosomes constant more effectively e. allowing for the production and use of gametes

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Chap 11_5e 54. Which statement describes a similarity between meiosis and mitosis? a. Both halve the chromosome number of the parent cell. b. Both produce 4 daughter cells. c. Both produce genetically identical daughter cells. d. Both create genetically different daughter cells. e. DNA is replicated only once in both processes. 55. Which stage of meiosis is characterized by DNA condensation into compact chromosomes? a. prometaphase II b. anaphase I c. prophase II d. prometaphase I e. metaphase I 56. In a frog in which the diploid number of chromosomes per cell is 24, what is the total number of chromatids present per cell in prophase II after the first division and cytokinesis? a. 0 b. 6 c. 12 d. 24 e. 48 57. Recombination at the synaptonemal complex always results in ____. a. two changed and two unchanged chromatids b. four unchanged chromatids c. four changed chromatids d. a random number of changed vs. unchanged chromatids e. one unchanged and three changed chromatids 58. Synapsis refers to the ____. a. crossing-over between homologous chromosomes b. alignment of homologous chromosomes along the equatorial plane c. alignment of sister chromatids along the equatorial plane d. pairing of homologous chromosomes during prophase I e. pairing of sister chromatids during prophase II 59. Which statement describes chromosomes? a. Chromosomes are always spread out as chromatin. b. Chromosomes are always condensed. c. Homologous chromosomes have the same genes, but can have different alleles. d. Homologous chromosomes always have the same alleles. e. Chromosomes always consist of two sister chromatids. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e 60. During what stage of meiosis does the nuclear membrane begin to reform around a haploid number of chromosomes composed of one chromatid each? a. telophase I b. interkinesis c. anaphase I d. telophase II e. prophase II 61. Crossing-over ____. a. only takes place towards the middle of chromatids b. can only occur once for each non-sister chromatid c. can only occur once for each homologous chromosome pair d. only takes place between sister chromatids e. can occur at multiple sites in each set of paired chromosomes 62. A zygote is formed ____. a. after a fertilized egg undergoes mitotic divisions to mature b. by the fusion of male and female somatic cells c. by the fusion of an egg cell and a sperm cell and the resultant fusion of their nuclei d. directly by meiosis in fungi e. by the mitotic divisions of spores in plants 63. Meiosis occurs in the ____. a. testes only b. ovaries only c. somatic cells d. synaptonemal complex e. gonads 64. An unknown organism from an alien planet is observed and found to have a diploid state in every other generation that results from fertilization. The haploid state is able to grow into a gametophyte-like structure. This alien organism most closely mimics the life cycle strategy of which of the following earth organisms? a. humpback whale b. chimpanzee c. algae d. bacteria e. all plants and some fungi

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Chap 11_5e 65. Which statement describes a difference between human male and female somatic cells? a. Male somatic cells contain only paternal chromosomes; female somatic cells contain only maternal chromosomes. b. Male somatic cells contain 46 chromosomes; female somatic cells contain 44 chromosomes. c. Male somatic cells contain 44 chromosomes; female somatic cells contain 46 chromosomes. d. Male somatic cells contain two X chromosomes; female somatic cells contain an X chromosome and a Y chromosome. e. Male somatic cells contain 22 pairs of homologous chromosomes; female somatic cells contain 23 pairs of homologous chromosomes. 66. DNA replication occurs ____. a. during interphase before meiosis b. during prophase I of meiosis c. during prophase II of meiosis d. between meiosis I and meiosis II e. during interkinesis 67. Chiasmata form during which phase of meiosis? a. prophase I b. metaphase I c. telophase I d. prophase II e. metaphase II 68. Homologous chromosomes ____. a. are found in somatic cells and gametes b. align along the equatorial plane during metaphase II c. are replicated during interkinesis d. contain a maternal and paternal chromosome e. are preserved in each daughter cell produced by meiosis 69. Which statement describes a difference between meiosis I and meiosis II? a. DNA is replicated during meiosis II, but not during meiosis I. b. Homologous chromosomes separate during meiosis I; sister chromatids separate during meiosis II. c. Meiosis I produces diploid cells; meiosis II produces haploid cells. d. Chromosomes align along the equatorial plane of the cell in meiosis I, but not in meiosis II. e. Crossing-over occurs during meiosis II, but not during meiosis I.

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Chap 11_5e 70. The formation of gametes is called ____. a. gametogenesis b. mitosis c. gametosis d. fertilization e. reproduction Match the meiotic phases below with the event that occurs during that phase. Some answers may be used more than once; some may not be used at all. a. Prophase I b. Prometaphase I c. Metaphase I d. Anaphase I e. Telophase I f. Interkinesis g. Prophase II h. Prometaphase II i. Metaphase II j. Anaphase II k. Telophase II 71. The first breakdown of the nuclear envelope. 72. Homologous chromosomes undergo recombination. 73. Tetrads align at the metaphase plate. 74. Spindles are disassembled and replaced by new spindles. 75. In some species, the nuclear envelope may reform during this stage. 76. The nuclear envelope reforms in ALL species during this phase. 77. Sister chromatids are separated.

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Chap 11_5e Examine the following figure. Match each letter of the figure with the appropriate cell structure.

a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 78. chiasma 79. nuclear envelope 80. spindle microtubules 81. tetrad 82. centriole

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Chap 11_5e Match each of the following terms with its correct definition. a. Cell division that is modified to generate haploid cells b. The haploid products of meiosis c. The pairing of homologous chromosomes during prophase I d. A term used to describe cells having two sets of chromosomes e. Diploid body cells that do not undergo meiosis f. A term used to describe cells having a single set of chromosomes g. A life strategy that involves fusion of haploid gametes from two source organisms to form a diploid cell h. Another name for crossover sites i. A variant of a particular gene having a slightly different DNA sequence than another variant of the same gene j. The diploid product of gamete fusion k. The process of gamete fusion 83. gametes 84. somatic cells 85. sexual reproduction 86. zygote 87. fertilization 88. meiosis 89. haploid 90. diploid 91. allele 92. synapsis 93. chiasmata 94. List and briefly explain the three ways in which genetic variability is increased during meiosis.

95. In some organisms, crossing-over does not occur, and the homologous chromosomes are held together via some other mechanism. Even though crossing-over leads to genetic diversity, the absence of crossing-over in these organisms does not prevent the production of diverse gametes. Why is this?

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Chap 11_5e 96. What is the main difference between the haploid and diploid phases of animal and plant life cycles?

97. Explain the purpose of meiosis.

98. Describe the life cycles of animals, plants/some fungi, and other fungi/algae with respect to the amount of time each type of organism spends in their haploid and diploid phases. Also, indicate whether those haploid and diploid phases are unicellular or multicellular.

99. Describe the meiotic events that generate genetic diversity in gametes.

100. Compare the events of meiosis I and II in the production of gametes.

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Chap 11_5e Answer Key 1. b 2. b 3. e 4. d 5. c 6. e 7. d 8. c 9. a 10. b 11. d 12. d 13. a 14. c 15. c 16. a 17. e 18. c 19. b 20. a 21. b 22. b 23. b 24. b 25. c 26. a

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Chap 11_5e 27. b 28. d 29. d 30. b 31. d 32. e 33. b 34. e 35. d 36. e 37. e 38. c 39. d 40. d 41. c 42. e 43. c 44. b 45. b 46. e 47. a 48. a 49. a 50. a 51. d 52. a 53. b 54. e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e 55. c 56. d 57. a 58. d 59. c 60. d 61. e 62. c 63. e 64. e 65. e 66. a 67. a 68. d 69. b 70. a 71. b 72. a 73. c 74. f 75. e 76. k 77. j 78. a 79. e 80. d 81. c 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e 83. b 84. e 85. g 86. j 87. k 88. a 89. f 90. d 91. i 92. c 93. h 94. Meiosis increases genetic variability in three ways: recombination, independent assortment, and random fertilization. Recombination occurs when homologous chromosomes swap segments, creating a new combination of alleles on each chromosome. Independent assortment refers to the random sorting of homologous chromosomes to the daughter cells. This results in gametes that can have both paternal and maternal chromosomes in a haploid cell. Fertilization is random in the joining of male and female gametes that fuse to form a zygote. 95. Independent assortment also leads to genetic diversity, and the more chromosome pairs there are, the more possible gamete types can be produced even in the absence of crossing-over. 96. In animals, the diploid phase is the predominant one, and the haploid phase is reduced. In plants, there is an alternation between haploid and diploid multicellular phases. 97. Meiosis is a process that reduces the chromosomal content of a cell to a haploid state so that a daughter cell can fuse with another haploid cell from a different member of the same species. The union of the two haploid cells produces a diploid zygote with a unique genetic make-up, containing genetic elements from both parents. This increases genetic variation in the species. 98. Animals spend most of their life cycle in the diploid multicellular phase with a reduced unicellular haploid phase. Plants and some fungi spend equal amounts of their life cycle in the haploid and diploid phases, and each is multicellular. Other fungi/algae have a dominant haploid phase that is multicellular and a reduced diploid phase that is unicellular. 99. The two stages of meiosis that are the most significant in terms of genetic diversity are prophase I and anaphase I. Of the three events of sexual reproduction that contribute to genetic variability, two occur in meiosis itself. Prophase I is a significant stage due to crossing-over events in the tetrads. This generates genetic variability at the chromosomal level. Anaphase I increases genetic variation via independent assortment. This distributes maternal and paternal chromosomes randomly amongst the daughter cells. 100. Meiosis I is important in providing opportunities for genetic variability to be introduced. This is accomplished via crossing-over in prophase I and via independent assortment of homologous chromosomes in anaphase I. In addition, meiosis I reduces the diploid chromosome number in the parent cell to the haploid state in daughter cells. The primary purpose of meiosis II is to segregate sister chromatids to produce four total daughter cells. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e

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Chap 12_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Your mother has albinism, which is a recessive trait. Your father has cystic fibrosis, which is also a recessive trait. You discover that your new father-in-law has albinism and cystic fibrosis. If neither you nor your spouse has either albinism or cystic fibrosis, what are the odds that your first child will have either albinism or cystic fibrosis, but not both? a. 1/16 b. 3/8 c. 1/8 d. 1/4 e. 0 2. What is the probability of rolling a die twice and getting a 2 and a 6 in no particular order? a. 1/3 b. 1/4 c. 1/8 d. 1/18 e. 1/36 3. A man and woman are each heterozygous for the autosomal recessive gene for albinism. They already have two non-albino children and want to have two more. What is the probability that their next two children will be phenotypically identical to each other with regard to skin color (i.e., either both albino or neither albino)? a. 1/16 b. 3/16 c. 4/16 d. 9/16 e. 10/16 4. A testcross is used to ____. a. determine if a parent with a dominant trait is heterozygous or homozygous b. determine which allele is dominant c. determine if the progeny of an experimental cross will have a random assortment of alleles d. prove an organism is double recessive e. cross an individual with a dominant phenotype with a homozygous dominant individual to prove the alleles are dominant 5. ____ occurs within a single plant, while ____ occurs between two plants. a. A dihybrid cross; a monohybrid cross b. Epistasis; polygenic inheritance c. A testcross; cross-pollination d. Self-pollination; cross-pollination e. A dihybrid cross; self-pollination

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Chap 12_5e 6. The ability of an individual heterozygous for two different genes to produce the four possible gamete types in equal numbers reflects Mendel’s Law(s) of ____. a. Segregation b. Independent Assortment c. Punnett Squares d. Chromosome Theory e. Segregation and Independent Assortment 7. The site on a chromosome where a gene is located is called its ____. a. character b. marker c. locus d. trait e. homologue 8. The different alleles in human blood type are a demonstration of ____. a. incomplete dominance only b. codominance only c. dominance and codominance d. dominance and incomplete dominance e. dominance, codominance, and incomplete dominance 9. Use the product rule to calculate the probability (P) of two independent events, X and Y, both occurring. a. P = P(X2) + P(Y2) b. P = P(X2) x P(Y2) c. P = P(X) x P(Y) d. P = P(X) + P(Y) e. P = (P(X) + P(Y))2 10. A plant of genotype CCdd is crossed to a plant of genotype ccDD; the F1 offspring are then testcrossed to a ccdd plant. If the genes are on different chromosomes, what percentage of the offspring will be ccdd? a. 10 b. 20 c. 25 d. 30 e. 50

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Chap 12_5e 11. A couple are both heterozygous for the dominant allele for polydactyly. They want to have three children. What is the probability that all three children will have polydactyly? a. 3/4 b. 9/64 c. 1/64 d. 27/64 e. 1/2 12. June has type B blood and has a baby, Joey, with type AB blood. Her husband, Jim, has type O blood. June believes that there has been a mix-up at the hospital. She suspects that another couple, Ann and Al, who had a baby the same day, were allowed to take her son home. That baby Arnie has type O blood. Al and Ann both have type A blood. Which of the following is a correct statement about who is Joey's father? a. Neither Jim nor Al could be Joey’s father. b. Jim could be Joey’s father, but Al could not. c. Either Jim or Al could be Joey’s father. d. Al could be Joey’s father, but Jim could not. e. Al is definitely Joey’s father, but Jim could also. 13. In snapdragons, the red allele CR is incompletely dominant over the white allele CW. Which two plants would you cross to produce a true-breeding pink snapdragon? a. pink with pink b. pink with red c. red with white d. pink with white e. a true-breeding pink snapdragon cannot be created 14. In pea plants, yellow seed color is dominant to green and wrinkled seed texture is dominant to smooth. In a dihybrid cross between two heterozygous plants with yellow, wrinkled seeds, if the two alleles assort independently, what is the probability that an offspring will have smooth, yellow seeds? a. 0 b. 9/16 c. 3/16 d. 1/16 e. 1/4 15. Your father is heterozygous for the recessive disorder phenylketonuria (PKU). You know your mother has two "good" alleles. You have a ____chance of having the disorder. a. 0% b. 100% c. 25% d. 50% e. 75%

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Chap 12_5e 16. In snapdragons, the red allele CR is incompletely dominant over the white allele CW. If you cross a pink snapdragon (CRCW) with a white snapdragon (CWCW), what percentage of the progeny will be red? a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% e. 100% 17. A parent has a genotype of RrYy. What is the probability of this individual producing a gamete with the RY genotype? a. 1/2 b. 1/4 c. 3/4 d. 1/8 e. 0 18. Which notation represents a testcross? (A “dash” indicates the allele's identity is unknown.) a. R-MM x R-mm b. RRMM x rrmm c. R-M- x R-Md. rrMM x RRmm e. R-M- x rrmm 19. Your parents are both heterozygous for the recessive disorder phenylketonuria (PKU). What is the probability that you will have the disorder? a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 100% e. 25% if your three siblings are healthy; 75% if your siblings also have the disorder 20. Mendel studied what he called characters and traits. What is the relationship between these terms? a. Characters are heritable characteristics; traits are alternative forms of these characters. b. Traits are heritable characteristics; characters are alternative forms of these traits. c. Characters are the unknown packages transferred to the next generation; traits result from this transfer. d. Characters are passed to the next generation; traits are never passed to the next generation. e. Characters and traits are synonymous in Mendel's writings.

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Chap 12_5e 21. If your mother and father both have cystic fibrosis, which is caused by a recessive allele, the odds of you having cystic fibrosis are ____. a. 1/4 b. 1/2 c. 3/4 d. 1 e. 0 22. Pairs of alleles are found at a particular ____ on a pair of ____. a. gene; gametes b. base; homozygous genes c. nucleotide; genes d. locus; homologous chromosomes e. sister chromatid; homologous chromosomes 23. What is the key difference between incomplete dominance and codominance? a. In incomplete dominance, the recessive allele cannot be detected; in codominance, the expression of the recessive allele is apparent. b. In incomplete dominance, it is possible to detect the expression of a recessive allele; in codominance, both alleles contribute equally to the phenotype. c. In codominance, it is possible to detect the expression of a recessive allele; in incomplete dominance, both alleles contribute equally to the phenotype. d. In incomplete dominance, it is possible to detect the expression of the dominant allele; in codominance, two different genes contribute to multiple phenotypes. e. The two terms are synonymous. 24. Rice plants may be tolerant or intolerant to flooding. A true-breeding tolerant plant was crossed with a truebreeding intolerant plant, creating an F1 generation. When plants from the F1 generation are crossed to each other, approximately 75% of the resultant F2 generation was tolerant to flooding. What does this most likely suggest about the flood-tolerant and flood-intolerant alleles? a. Multiple alleles control flood-tolerance. b. The alleles for flood-tolerance and flood-intolerance are codominant. c. The allele for flood-tolerance is incompletely dominant. d. The allele for flood-intolerance is dominant, while the allele for flood-tolerance is recessive. e. The allele for flood-tolerance is dominant, while the allele for flood-intolerance is recessive. 25. A ____ individual is always part of a testcross. a. heterozygous b. homozygous recessive c. homozygous dominant d. self-fertilized e. dihybrid

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Chap 12_5e 26. Your father has type B blood, and your mother has type O blood. You learn that you also have blood type O. What does this tell you? a. Your father is homozygous for type B blood. b. Your mother is heterozygous for type O blood. c. Your father's genotype is IBi and your mother's genotype is ii. d. Your father's genotype is IBIB and your mother's genotype is ii. e. Your father's genotype is IAIB and your mother's genotype is ii. 27. A man and woman are each heterozygous for the autosomal recessive disorder cystic fibrosis. If they want to have three children, what is the probability that only one of the children will have cystic fibrosis? a. 1/4 b. 3/4 c. 9/16 d. 9/64 e. 27/64 28. We now know that some of the seven alleles Mendel studied are on the same chromosome in pea plants. Despite this, the law of independent assortment still applies. How would you explain this? a. Recombination via the synaptonemal complex might have occurred during mitosis. b. Recombination via the synaptonemal complex might have occurred during meiosis. c. The law of independent assortment applies to all alleles regardless of their arrangement on chromosomes. d. Mendel was a good enough mathematician to design experiments that would result in the predicted ratios. e. Independent assortment occurred during mitosis. 29. Events X and Y are independent of each other. If the probability of event X occurring is 1 in 4, and the probability of event Y occurring is 1 in 5, the probability of both events occurring is ____. a. (1/4)2 + (1/5)2 = (1/16) + (1/25) = (25/400) + (16/400) = 41/400 b. (1/4) + (1/5) = (5/20) + (4/20) = 9/20 c. (1/4)2(1/5)2 = (1/16)(1/25) = 1/400 d. (1/4)(1/5) = 1/20 e. (1/4 + 1/5)2 = (5/20 + 4/20)2 = (9/20)2 = 81/400 30. From his experiments, Mendel concluded that each individual carries two factors, or ____, that govern the inheritance of each trait. Different versions of each factor are known as ____. a. alleles; gene markers b. genes; loci c. alleles; genes d. genes; alleles e. gene markers; genes

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Chap 12_5e 31. The fact that a person who suffers from sickle-cell anemia has symptoms like pneumonia, heart and kidney failure, fatigue, and paralysis is an example of ____. a. pleiotropy b. incomplete dominance c. codominance d. the effects of multiple alleles e. epistasis 32. An F1 individual resulting from a cross between a homozygous dominant parent and a homozygous recessive parent is always ____. a. heterozygous or homozygous dominant b. heterozygous or homozygous recessive c. homozygous dominant d. homozygous recessive e. heterozygous 33. You have type O blood (genotype ii). Who can you donate blood to in an emergency? a. type O only b. type B only c. type A only d. type AB only e. types A, B, AB, and O 34. Which notation represents a dihybrid cross? a. RrMM x Rrmm b. RRMM x rrmm c. RrMm x RrMm d. rrMM x RRmm e. RrMm x rrmm 35. If your mother is heterozygous for Huntington’s disease, which is caused by a dominant allele, the odds that you will inherit the disorder from her are ____. a. 1/4 b. 1/2 c. 3/4 d. 1 e. 0

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Chap 12_5e 36. Characters that have a continuous distribution, such as height, weight, and skin color, are called ____, and the individual genes that control them are known as ____. a. quantitative phenotypes; quantitative trait markers b. quantitative genotypes; quantitative trait loci c. quantitative traits; quantitative trait markers d. quantitative traits; quantitative trait loci e. quantitative markers; quantitative trait markers 37. Which notation represents a monohybrid cross? a. RrMM x Rrmm b. RRMM x rrmm c. Rr x Rr d. rr x RR e. Rr x rr 38. In the case of complete dominance, if a plant has a ____ genotype for a particular trait, its phenotype will be the ____ trait. a. heterozygous; recessive b. homozygous dominant; recessive c. homozygous recessive; dominant d. heterozygous; dominant e. heterozygous; recessive 39. If your mother and father both have cystic fibrosis, which is caused by a recessive allele, the odds of you inheriting only one allele for the disorder are ____. a. 1/4 b. 1/2 c. 3/4 d. 1 e. 0 40. Identify the disorder caused by a dominant allele. a. achondroplasia b. cystic fibrosis c. albinism d. sickle-cell anemia e. Down syndrome

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Chap 12_5e 41. Your mother has albinism, which is a recessive trait. Your father has cystic fibrosis, which is also a recessive trait. You discover that your new father-in-law has albinism and cystic fibrosis. If neither you nor your spouse has either albinism or cystic fibrosis, what are the odds that your first child will have both albinism and cystic fibrosis? a. 1/16 b. 1/8 c. 1/4 d. 1/2 e. 0 42. Two snapdragons heterozygous for alleles that encode red and white flower color are crossed. If the red and white alleles show incomplete dominance, what will be the ratios of phenotypes in the offspring? a. 100% pink b. 100% red c. 50% white, 50% red d. 25% red, 50% pink, 25% white e. 25% pink, 50% white, 25% red 43. According to the chromosome theory of inheritance, ____. a. genes on chromosomes always assort independently b. paternal chromosomes determine the offspring’s phenotype c. maternal chromosomes determine the offspring’s phenotype d. genes and their alleles are carried on chromosomes e. genes are carried on chromosomes and alleles are the product of gene expression 44. Your father is heterozygous for a recessive disorder. You know your mother has two "good" alleles. What is the probability that you will have the disorder? a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% e. 100% 45. Mendel crossed true-breeding plants having yellow peas with true-breeding plants having green peas. The resulting plants all had yellow peas. An F1 cross resulted in 3/4 of the plants having yellow peas and 1/4 of the plants having green peas. What does this tell you about the alleles for color? a. Yellow is usually the dominant color, but sometimes green can be dominant. b. Green is the dominant color. c. Yellow is the dominant color. d. Yellow is the recessive color. e. Yellow and green are codominant.

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Chap 12_5e 46. If a gene has multiple alleles, ____. a. only two alleles of the gene exist in the population b. more than two alleles of the gene are present in any given individual c. more than two alleles of the gene are present in the population d. one or more of the alleles is epistatic to the other(s) e. the alleles must be incompletely dominant 47. If your mother has cystic fibrosis, which is caused by a recessive allele, the odds of you having cystic fibrosis are ____. a. 1/4 b. 1/2 c. 3/4 d. 1 e. impossible to determine without knowing your father’s genotype 48. If your mother and father both are healthy but carry the allele for cystic fibrosis, which is caused by a recessive allele, the odds of you inheriting at least one allele for the disorder are ____. a. 1/4 b. 1/2 c. 3/4 d. 1 e. 0 49. What is the main premise of the blending theory of inheritance that predominated before 1900? a. We inherit traits from only one parent. b. Traits are inherited via a mixing of parental blood. c. Parental chromosomes undergo recombination to produce blended chromosomes in their offspring. d. Traits may skip a generation due to the blending of paternal and maternal phenotypes. e. Paternal and maternal chromosomes separate independently in meiosis, creating gametes with a blend of paternal and maternal chromosomes. 50. If your mother and father are both heterozygous for Huntington's disease, which is caused by a dominant allele, the odds of you having the disorder are ____. a. 1/4 b. 1/2 c. 3/4 d. 1 e. 0

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Chap 12_5e 51. A patient presents with the following symptoms: anemia, heart failure, pneumonia, paralysis, and abdominal pain. After learning about their family history, you run a genetic test for which disorder? a. cystic fibrosis b. albinism c. sickle-cell anemia d. achondroplasia e. schizophrenia 52. If a woman has blood type O and a man has blood type AB, what is the probability that they will have a child with blood type O? a. 0 b. 1/16 c. 1/4 d. 1/2 e. 3/4 53. In pea plants, yellow seed color is dominant to green, and wrinkled seed texture is dominant to smooth. In a dihybrid cross between two heterozygous plants with yellow, round seeds, if the two alleles assort independently, what is/are the predicted phenotypic ratio(s) of the offspring? a. all are yellow and round b. 8 yellow and round: 8 green and wrinkled c. nine green and wrinkled: four yellow and round: three green and round d. nine green and round: three yellow and round: three yellow and wrinkled: one green and wrinkled e. nine yellow and round: three green and round: three yellow and wrinkled: one green and wrinkled 54. In pea plants, round pea texture is dominant over wrinkled texture. How can you obtain true-breeding pea plants having round peas with the least amount of work? a. Cross plants having round peas with plants having wrinkled peas. Select round pea plants from the progeny because they are now true-breeding. b. Cross plants having round peas with other plants having round peas. Do this for multiple generations. c. Cross plants having round peas with plants having wrinkled peas. Select round pea plants from the progeny and do a testcross to determine which parental plants were homozygous dominant. d. Cross plants having round peas with plants having wrinkled peas. This will tell you which round pea plants are homozygous dominant and are thus true-breeding. e. It's not possible. You can only get true-breeding plants that have wrinkled peas. 55. An individual heterozygous for sickle-cell disease produces both normal and abnormal polypeptides. This is an example of ____. a. epistasis b. incomplete dominance c. polygenic inheritance d. multiple alleles e. pleiotropy Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e 56. When an individual has two different alleles for a given gene, they are ____ for that gene. a. heterozygous b. homozygous c. self-fertilized d. self-pollinated e. recessive 57. Human skin color is an example of ____, while sickle-cell anemia is an example of ____. a. multiple alleles; epistasis b. incomplete dominance; multiple alleles c. polygenic inheritance; pleiotropy d. pleiotropy; polygenic inheritance e. incomplete dominance; pleiotropy 58. If a monohybrid cross results in 1:2:1 genotypic and phenotypic ratios in the offspring, then which type of inheritance might be at work? a. dominance b. incomplete dominance c. epistasis d. pleiotropy e. polygenic inheritance 59. You have type A blood (genotype IAi). Who can you donate blood to in an emergency? a. type O only b. type AB only c. type A only d. types A and B, not O e. types A and AB 60. Polygenic inheritance is often modified by ____. a. the environment b. gene blending c. epistasis d. dihybrid crosses e. pleiotropy

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Chap 12_5e 61. A cross is performed between parents with genotypes aaBbCc and aaBbcc. What is the probability that the offspring will have the same genotype as the first parent? Assume that capital letters indicate dominant alleles and lower case letters indicate recessive alleles. a. 1/8 b. 1/4 c. 3/8 d. 3/16 e. 9/16 62. In ____, genes at one locus mask the effect of genes at another locus. a. incomplete dominance b. codominance c. epistasis d. polygenic inheritance e. pleiotropy 63. How does sickle cell disease cause death? a. The malformed red blood cells cannot transport oxygen. b. The malformed red blood cells can block capillaries. c. The malformed red blood cells have a higher affinity for CO2 than for oxygen. d. The mutant hemoglobin polypeptide cannot bind O2 due to a change in three amino acids. e. More cells assume the sickle shape as oxygen concentration in the tissues increases. 64. Mouse pigmentation is subject to epistasis of the B alleles by the d alleles. B (black) is dominant over b (brown), and D is dominant over d. Homozygous d is epistatic to the black and brown genes. Given this information, what genotype(s) result in a white mouse (no pigment)? a. BBdd only b. Bbdd only c. bbDD only d. bbDd only e. BBdd and Bbdd 65. What is the probability of obtaining a head and a tail (in either order) when tossing a coin two times? a. 1/2 b. 1/4 c. 1/8 d. 1/16 e. 1

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Chap 12_5e 66. Mouse pigmentation is subject to epistasis of the B alleles by the d alleles. B (black) is dominant over b (brown), and D is dominant over d. Homozygous d is epistatic to the black and brown genes. Given this information, what will result from a F1 cross between two mice? a. 9/16 black, 3/16 brown, 4/16 white b. 9/16 white, 3/16 brown, 4/16 black c. 9/16 black, 6/16 brown, 1/16 white d. 9/16 white, 6/16 brown, 1/16 black e. all black mice 67. Your mother has albinism, which is a recessive trait. Your father has cystic fibrosis, which is also a recessive trait. You discover that your new father-in-law has albinism and cystic fibrosis. If neither you nor your spouse has either albinism or cystic fibrosis, what are the odds that your first child will have neither albinism nor cystic fibrosis? a. 1/16 b. 3/8 c. 1/8 d. 9/16 e. 0 68. If purple flower color is dominant in pea plants, a cross between true breeding P generation purple and white plants will result in ____. a. all white flowers in the F1 generation b. all purple flowers in the F1 generation c. all purple flowers in the F1 generation, but a lighter purple than in the parents d. mostly purple flowers in the F1 generation, with an occasional white flower e. half of the plants having purple flowers and half having white flowers 69. R is the dominant allele for round pea texture; r is the recessive allele for wrinkled pea texture. If you cross plants having round peas with plants having wrinkled peas, ____. a. all progeny will be homozygous for pea texture b. you are conducting a dihybrid cross c. you are conducting a reciprocal cross d. all progeny will have wrinkled peas e. you will be able to determine if the plant with round peas is homozygous or heterozygous for this trait 70. Your mother has albinism, which is a recessive trait. You learn that your spouse's mother also has albinism. Neither you nor your spouse have albinism. What are the odds that your first child will have albinism? a. 0 b. 1/4 c. 1/2 d. 3/4 e. 1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e Match each of the following terms with its correct definition. a. When displayed traits are unchanged over multiple generations b. The first generation of offspring from the cross of two true-breeding parents c. True-breeding plants used in an initial cross d. The result of a cross between two first-generation (F1) organisms e. When one allele completely masks the effect of another f. The allele that is expressed only if two identical copies are present g. Any organism with 2 identical alleles of a gene h. Any organism with 2 different alleles of a gene i. An F1 heterozygote (for a single trait) j. The genetic makeup of an organism k. The physical traits of an organism l. The likelihood of something occurring as a matter of chance m. An organism that is heterozygous for two different traits n. Where an allele is found on a chromosome o. When one allele cannot completely mask the effects of another allele p. When alleles at one locus mask the expression of alleles at a different locus q. When different genes contribute to a particular phenotype r. When a single allele has multiple phenotypic effects 71. F2 generation 72. F1 generation 73. dominance 74. homozygote 75. recessive 76. phenotype 77. dihybrid 78. heterozygote 79. pleiotropy 80. P generation 81. probability 82. genotype 83. true breeding 84. locus 85. polygenic inheritance 86. epistasis 87. monohybrid 88. incomplete dominance Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e Match the five types of allele effects listed below with the correct example. a. dominance b. incomplete dominance c. codominance d. epistasis e. polygenic inheritance 89. snapdragon flower color (red, pink, and white) 90. human AB blood type 91. Labrador retrievers fur color (black, chocolate brown, yellow) 92. human height 93. wrinkled vs. round peas 94. What is the difference between polygenic inheritance and pleiotropy?

95. Explain the genetic basis of height in humans.

96. A couple wants to start a family, but they are concerned that their child might have cystic fibrosis. After taking a family history, you determine that while neither of them has the disease, the woman had a sister with cystic fibrosis (with unaffected parents), and the man's father also had cystic fibrosis. What do you tell them?

97. How is Mendel’s Principle of Independent Assortment related to meiosis?

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Chap 12_5e 98. Define epistasis and give an example.

99. Would meiosis, when it was discovered, have been understood without Mendel's work? Explain why or why not, using Mendel's three key findings about inheritance.

100. Explain why Mendel's work was groundbreaking.

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Chap 12_5e Answer Key 1. b 2. d 3. e 4. a 5. d 6. e 7. c 8. c 9. c 10. c 11. d 12. d 13. e 14. c 15. a 16. a 17. b 18. e 19. a 20. a 21. d 22. d 23. b 24. e 25. b 26. c

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Chap 12_5e 27. d 28. b 29. d 30. d 31. a 32. e 33. e 34. c 35. b 36. d 37. c 38. d 39. e 40. a 41. a 42. d 43. d 44. a 45. c 46. c 47. e 48. c 49. b 50. c 51. c 52. a 53. e 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e 55. b 56. a 57. c 58. b 59. e 60. a 61. b 62. c 63. b 64. e 65. a 66. a 67. d 68. b 69. e 70. b 71. d 72. b 73. e 74. g 75. f 76. k 77. m 78. h 79. r 80. c 81. l 82. j Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e 83. a 84. n 85. q 86. p 87. i 88. o 89. b 90. c 91. d 92. e 93. a 94. In polygenic inheritance, a single character is controlled by multiple genes. In pleiotropy, a single gene affects two or more characters. 95. Human height is a result of polygenic inheritance where multiple genes contribute to this single phenotypic trait. When genes are inherited from two parents of vastly different heights, it usually results in offspring with intermediate height compared to the parents; however, genetic analysis indicates that the height of the offspring may range over a continuum from short to tall due to the combined effect of Mendelian inheritance for multiple genes influencing height. It is possible that some children may be taller or shorter than either of their parents in this situation. 96. To produce a child affected by cystic fibrosis, each parent must pass on a recessive allele. The man is heterozygous for the cystic fibrosis trait, since he must have inherited a recessive allele from his father, but is not sick. Since the woman's sister had the disease, but her parents did not, both parents must be heterozygous. The probability that she is also heterozygous is 1/4 + 1/4 = 1/2. If both she and her partner are heterozygous, the probability of having a child with cystic fibrosis is equal to the chance of each of them passing on a recessive allele: 1/2 x 1/2 = 1/4. However, there is only a 1/2 chance that the woman has the mutant allele; therefore, the probability that these individuals could have a child affected by cystic fibrosis is 1/4 x 1/2 = 1/8. 97. From his experiments, Mendel concluded that in dihybrids, the alleles of the genes governing the two characters assort independently during gamete formation. During meiosis, pairs of chromosomes do indeed segregate independently of the other pairs of chromosomes to produce gametes. 98. In epistasis, two or more genes affect the same phenotype. The phenotypic expression of one or more alleles of a gene at one locus inhibits or masks the effects of the phenotypic expression of one or more alleles of a gene at a different locus. An example would be coat color in Labrador retrievers. In these dogs, the genes for black and brown fur can be silenced by the expression of a homozygous recessive allele that blocks pigment deposition in fur.

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Chap 12_5e 99. No, meiosis would not have been understood without Mendel's work to explain why the chromosome movements and interactions were taking place. Mendel discovered the fundamental patterns of inheritance, such as an individual having two alleles for a single trait with one allele coming from each parent. This was followed by the patterns of dominance, which would explain why phenotypes could change over generations, even though individuals were closely related to each other. Furthermore, Mendel’s principle of segregation explained why meiosis, and not mitosis, was necessary for the formation of gametes. The importance of Mendel's work cannot be overstated, as it is the foundation upon which all of modern genetics rests. 100. Mendel applied both the scientific method and mathematics to understanding the patterns of inheritance in pea plants. His work explained the rules of genetics even before chromosomes had been discovered, and while these rules have been refined, the fundamental rules of genetics that he established are still considered to be valid today. He was ahead of his time in his thinking, and his work was not well-known or appreciated until long after his death.

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Chap 13_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Figure 13.3 1. The change in the chromosomes depicted between the top and the bottom in the accompanying figure represents a(n) ____. a. inversion b. duplication c. reciprocal translocation d. deletion e. Philadelphia chromosome 2. The presence of genes that encode many types of hemoglobin in mammals, but not in other vertebrates that evolved earlier, is evidence of ____ of genetic material. a. an inversion b. the duplication c. reciprocal translocation d. the deletion e. both duplication and deletion 3. Which process results in the production of offspring who are recombinant for two genes on the same chromosome? a. movement of transposable elements b. pairing of nonhomologous chromosomes c. gene duplication d. exon shuffling e. crossing over between homologous chromosomes

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Chap 13_5e

Figure 13.5 4. The change in the chromosome depicted between the top and the bottom in the accompanying figure represents a(n) ____. a. inversion b. duplication c. reciprocal translocation d. deletion e. Philadelphia chromosome 5. About half of all flowering plant species, including many important crop plants, are ____. a. polyploids b. haploids c. aneuploids d. monoploids e. diploids 6. Why are mitochondrial genes inherited in a non-Mendelian pattern? a. The mitochondrial genes are on the X chromosome. b. The mitochondrial genes are autosomal. c. The mitochondrial genes are not separated by meiosis. d. Both parents contribute an equal number of mitochondrial genes to the offspring. e. A zygote receives most of its cytoplasm from the male parent. 7. An autosome is a ____. a. chromosome other than a sex chromosome b. structure used to transport genetic material to the cytoplasm c. chromosome containing a group of genes involved in autoimmune disorders d. region of the DNA that is self-replicating e. cellular body involved in autoimmune disorders 8. One mechanism of genomic imprinting silences an allele by DNA ____. a. methylation b. mutation c. transposition d. deletion e. inversion

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Chap 13_5e 9. You are observing a number of human uterine cells with a microscope. In the nucleus of each cell, you can see a mass of condensed heterochromatin at one side of the nucleus. Which chromosome is likely to be included in the condensed heterochromatin? a. a Y chromosome b. chromosome 21 c. an X chromosome d. chromosome 5 e. the Philadelphia chromosome 10. You are a genetic counselor, and a couple comes to you with concerns that if they have a child together, he or she could have hemophilia. The man has an X-linked recessive form of hemophilia, but the woman does not. Genetic tests reveal the woman is not a carrier for hemophilia. How should you advise them? a. Half of their children will have hemophilia. b. All of their sons and half of their daughters will have hemophilia. c. None of their children will have hemophilia, but all of their daughters will be carriers for hemophilia. d. Each of their sons will have a 50% chance of having hemophilia, and each of their daughters will have a 50% chance of being carriers. e. All of their sons will have hemophilia, and all of their daughters will be carriers. 11. Cytoplasmic inheritance refers to genes found in ____. a. sex chromosomes b. mitochondria and chloroplasts c. viruses d. bacteria e. linkages

Figure 13.5a 12. Which genetic condition is revealed in the karyotype display shown in the accompanying figure? a. Turner syndrome b. Down syndrome c. cri-du-chat d. Triple-X syndrome e. Klinefelter syndrome Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5e 13. Most hospitals in the United States routinely test all newborns for ____, an autosomal recessive disorder in which a metabolic abnormality causes a buildup of compounds that damage brain tissue and can lead to mental retardation, unless a restricted diet is followed. a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy b. phenylketonuria c. achondroplasia d. sickle-cell anemia e. cystic fibrosis 14. When two genes on the same chromosome are located 10 map units from each other, ____ of the offspring from a testcross for genetic linkage should have a recombinant phenotype. a. over 75% b. about 50% c. about 25% d. about 10% e. about 5% 15. Individuals with extra or missing copies of one or more chromosomes are called ____. a. polyploids b. haploids c. aneuploids d. euploids e. diploids 16. A recombinant phenotype is ____. a. a combination of traits in offspring different from the combination seen in either parent b. identical to the traits seen in both parents c. an expression of dominant traits only d. an expression of recessive traits only e. the result of crossing two homozygous dominant individuals 17. Exceptions to the principle of independent assortment were discovered and explained by ____ as resulting from genes being physically associated with each other on the same chromosome. a. Watson b. Sturtevant c. Morgan d. Mendel e. Crick

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Chap 13_5e 18. Suppose that in studies of genes on the same chromosome you find the following recombination frequencies:

Figure 13.2 Why is the total distance between a and b less than the distance between a and c plus the distance between c and b? a. Genes a and b are not linked. b. The distances were calculated incorrectly. c. Gene b is in between genes a and c. d. Double crossovers between a and b decrease recombinants. e. All three genes encode the same trait. 19. As an undergraduate research assistant, you are given a genetic mapping project. You are told that genes a and b are 7.4 map units from each other and that genes b and c are 5.7 map units from each other. You perform a testcross to determine the map distance between a and c. Which of the following results would indicate that c lies between a and b? a. 11.1 map units b. 15.0 map units c. 2.0 map units d. 14.8 map units e. 13.1 map units 20. In Drosophila melanogaster, the allele for red eyes is dominant over the allele for purple eyes, and the allele for a gray body is dominant over the allele for a black body. A testcross was done to check for genetic linkage between the genes for these traits. The results for the offspring are listed as follows: 478 flies with red eyes and a gray body 27 flies with red eyes and a black body 462 flies with purple eyes and a black body 33 flies with purple eyes and a gray body Which of the choices below best represents the map distance between the genes for these two traits? a. 50.0 map units b. 30.0 map units c. 47.0 map units d. 27.0 map units e. 6.0 map units

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Chap 13_5e 21. Which statement correctly describes autosomal recessive inheritance? a. Individuals who are heterozygous for the recessive allele display the trait. b. Individuals who are homozygous for the recessive allele display the trait. c. Individuals who are homozygous for the dominant allele are known as carriers. d. Autosomal alleles are found on the X and Y chromosomes. e. Individuals will never express these traits. 22. Linked genes are ____. a. genes whose effects combine to influence a single characteristic b. different alleles of the same gene c. genes that affect two different traits and lead to a 9:3:3:1 phenotype ratio in a dihybrid cross d. genes that do not sort independently because they are physically near each other on the same chromosome e. genes on two different chromosomes 23. In Drosophila melanogaster, the gene for eye color is located on the X chromosome. The allele for red eye color (Xw+) is dominant over the allele for white eye color (Xw). You examine a vial of 100 flies that are all offspring from a single genetic cross. You find only red-eyed females and red-eyed males present. Flies from the vial were allowed to interbreed, and in the next generation you find only red-eyed females, but you find both red-eyed and white-eyed males. The genotypes of the original parents were ____. a. Xw+Xw+; XwY b. Xw+Xw; XwY c. XwXw; Xw+Y d. Xw+Xw; Xw+Y e. XwXw; XwY 24. Sex-linked genes are ____. a. found on autosomes b. only found on the Y chromosome c. only inherited from the mother d. involved in sex determination and can be found on any chromosome e. found on the X and Y chromosomes

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Chap 13_5e 25. The map distances for four linked genes are as follows: A is 22 cM from B, B is 7 cM from C, C is 9 cM from D, B is 2 cM from D, A is 20 cM from D, and A is 29 cM from C. Based on these data, what is the order of these four genes on the chromosome? a. ABCD b. ADBC c. ABDC d. BADC e. CADB

Figure 13.6 26. The change in the chromosome depicted between the top and the bottom in the accompanying figure represents a(n) ____. a. inversion b. duplication c. reciprocal translocation d. deletion e. Philadelphia chromosome 27. In humans, an extra copy of chromosome 21 typically leads to moderate to severe mental retardation and sterility, as well as to a greater likelihood of heart defects and other problems. This disorder is known as ____. a. Turner syndrome b. Down syndrome c. cri-du-chat d. Triple-X syndrome e. Klinefelter syndrome 28. A mutation in the human gene for a fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) appears to be responsible for ____. a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy b. phenylketonuria c. achondroplasia d. sickle-cell anemia e. cystic fibrosis

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Chap 13_5e 29. Carriers of the sickle-cell allele have a genetic advantage because they have ____. a. lower blood pressure b. the ability to carry more oxygen in their blood c. increased resistance to malaria d. hyperactive immune systems e. extra red blood cells 30. Genetic studies of an animal show that eye color is controlled by an autosomal gene with the dominant allele (R) for red eye color and the recessive allele (r) for yellow eye color. A second autosomal gene has the dominant allele (T) for paws with thumbs and the recessive allele (t) for paws without thumbs. The genetic cross RRTT x rrtt creates offspring with genotype RrTt. One of those dihybrids is mated in a testcross (RrTt x rrtt). If the two genes are completely linked (no recombination occurs between them), then the testcross should produce offspring with the phenotype ratio ____. a. three red-eyed with thumbs: one yellow-eyed without thumbs b. one red-eyed with thumbs: one yellow-eyed with thumbs: one red-eyed without thumbs: one yellow-eyed without thumbs c. one red-eyed with thumbs: one yellow-eyed without thumbs d. nine red-eyed with thumbs: three yellow-eyed with thumbs: three red-eyed without thumbs: one yelloweyed without thumbs e. one yellow-eyed with thumbs: one red-eyed without thumbs 31. A woman with normal blood clotting mates with a man who also has normal blood clotting. Their first child is a boy who has hemophilia. Tests show that the child's hemophilia is X-linked and that he has normal genetic inheritance. You can predict that if the couple has more children together, then it is likely that ____. a. all of the children will have hemophilia b. half of the boys and none of the girls will have hemophilia c. none of the rest of children should have hemophilia d. all of the boys and half of the girls will have hemophilia e. half of the boys and half of the girls will have hemophilia 32. The product of the ABL gene is a ______. a. hormone b. tyrosine phosphatase c. tyrosine kinase d. hormone receptor e. protein kinase 33. Recombination frequency is ____. a. high if two genes are linked b. a physical measurement of the distance between two genes on a chromosome c. low if crossovers are common between two genes d. measured in centigrams e. used to create linkage maps Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5e 34. A woman with normal blood clotting mates with a man who has hemophilia. Their first child is a boy who has hemophilia. Tests show that the father and son both have the same form of hemophilia, that it is X-linked, and that the boy has normal genetic inheritance. You can predict that if the couple has more children together, it is likely that ____. a. all of the children will have hemophilia b. half of the boys and none of the girls will have hemophilia c. none of the other children should have hemophilia d. all of the boys and half of the girls will have hemophilia e. half of the boys and half of the girls will have hemophilia 35. In humans, males are the ____ sex, and females are the ____ sex. a. autosomal, maternal b. recessive, dominant c. dominant, recessive d. homogametic, heterogametic e. heterogametic, homogametic 36. If two genes are linked on the same chromosome, then ____. a. they tend to segregate away from one another during meiosis b. the more crossing-over occurs between them c. the less crossing-over occurs between them d. they tend to segregate away from one another during mitosis e. they control the same trait

Figure 13.7 37. Examine the pedigree in the accompanying figure. Individuals affected by the genetic condition in question are indicated by filled squares or circles. Which inheritance pattern is most likely correct for this condition in this family? a. autosomal dominant b. X-linked recessive c. X-linked dominant d. cytoplasmic inheritance e. autosomal recessive Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5e 38. Which process exchanges alleles between homologous chromosomes? a. mitosis b. genetic recombination c. asexual reproduction d. independent assortment e. anaphase 39. In Drosophila melanogaster, the allele for long wings is dominant over the allele for vestigial wings, and the allele for a gray body is dominant over the allele for a black body. A testcross was done to check for genetic linkage between the genes for these traits, with the following results for the offspring: 410 flies with long wings and a gray body 105 flies with long wings and a black body 390 flies with vestigial wings and a black body 95 flies with vestigial wings and a gray body Which of the choices below best represents the map distance between the genes for these two traits? a. 20.0 map units b. 40.0 map units c. 10.0 map units d. 100.0 map units e. 9.5 map units 40. During normal human embryonic development, if ____, then the SRY gene switches development toward ____. a. a Y chromosome is present; maleness b. an X chromosome is present; femaleness c. two X chromosomes are present; femaleness d. the X chromosome is absent; maleness e. a Y chromosome is present; femaleness 41. The principles of linkage and recombination were discovered using which organism? a. yeast b. E. coli c. viruses d. fruit flies e. cattle 42. The X chromosome ____. a. carries the SRY gene b. is present in two copies in males c. pairs with an autosome during meiosis d. carries many genes that are not involved in sex determination e. is not present in males

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Chap 13_5e 43. Which condition would most likely lead to an apparently normal human female? a. Turner syndrome b. Down syndrome c. cri-du-chat d. Triple-X syndrome e. Klinefelter syndrome 44. In Drosophila melanogaster, the gene for eye color is located on the X chromosome. The allele for red eye color (Xw+) is dominant over the allele for white eye color (Xw). You examine a vial of 100 flies that are all offspring from a single genetic cross. You see only red-eyed females present, but you see both red-eyed and white-eyed males present. The genotypes of the parents were ____. a. Xw+Xw+; Xw+Y b. XwXw; Xw+Y c. Xw+Xw; XwY d. Xw+Xw; Xw+Y e. XwXw; XwY 45. An individual who is a carrier of a genetically inherited disease ____. a. has the disease, and all of their offspring will have the disease b. does not have the disease, but must have a parent with the disease c. does not have the disease, but may have offspring with the disease d. has the disease and must have a parent with the disease e. does not have the disease, but must have a parent with the disease and may have offspring with the disease 46. In cells of human individuals with three or more X chromosomes, ____. a. one X chromosome remains active and the others are inactivated b. all of the X chromosomes remain active c. two X chromosomes remain active and the others are inactivated d. two X chromosomes remain active in females and one remains active in males; the rest are inactivated e. only one X chromosome is inactivated

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Chap 13_5e 47. You are genetic counselor, and a couple comes to you with concerns that if they have a child together, he or she could have sickle-cell anemia. Genetic tests reveal that both the man and woman are carriers for sickle-cell anemia. How should you advise them? a. Half of their children will have sickle-cell anemia, and the other half will be carriers. b. All of their children will have sickle-cell anemia. c. There are no concerns, because none of their offspring have a chance of inheriting the sickle-cell allele. d. While none of their children will have sickle-cell anemia, each child will have a 50% chance of being a carrier. e. Each of their children will have a 25% chance of having sickle-cell anemia. 48. When one parental allele is expressed and the other is silenced, the phenomenon is called ____. a. sex-linked inheritance b. uniparental inheritance c. cytoplasmic inheritance d. genomic imprinting e. maternal inheritance 49. Individuals with three or more copies of each of their chromosomes are called ____. a. polyploids b. haploids c. aneuploids d. euploids e. diploids 50. Prenatal diagnosis techniques, such as amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling, remove cells produced by the embryo. These cells are then used ____. a. to treat diseases b. for implantation to produce pregnancy c. to develop embryonic stem cells d. to test for the presence of mutant alleles or chromosomal alterations e. for cloning 51. If a hypothetical human female of genotype XX had no Barr body in any of her cells, ---____. a. she would be phenotypically male b. she would be considered triploid c. the genes on both X chromosomes would be expressed d. she would have Turner syndrome e. she would have a Y chromosome

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Chap 13_5e 52. Which individual may be a carrier for a recessive X-linked trait in humans? a. a homozygous recessive male b. a homozygous recessive female c. a homozygous dominant female d. a heterozygous female e. a heterozygous male 53. What is another name for map unit? a. linkage b. genotype c. locus d. centimorgan e. autosome

54. Examine the pedigree in the accompanying figure. Individuals affected by the genetic condition in question are indicated by filled squares or circles. Which inheritance pattern is most likely correct for this condition in this family? a. autosomal dominant b. X-linked recessive c. X-linked dominant d. cytoplasmic inheritance e. autosomal recessive

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Chap 13_5e 55. In Drosophila melanogaster, the gene for eye color is located on the X chromosome. The allele for red eye color (Xw+) is dominant over the allele for white eye color (Xw). You examine a vial of 100 flies that are all offspring from a single genetic cross. You see only red-eyed females and white-eyed males present. The genotypes of the parents were ____. a. Xw+Xw+; XwY b. Xw+Xw; XwY c. XwXw; Xw+Y d. Xw+Xw; Xw+Y e. XwXw; XwY 56. You are a genetic counselor, and a couple comes to you with concerns that if they have a child together, he or she could have hemophilia. Neither of them has hemophilia, but the woman's biological father did have an Xlinked recessive form of hemophilia. How should you advise them? a. Half of their children will have hemophilia. b. All of their sons and half of their daughters will have hemophilia. c. None of their children will have hemophilia, but all of their daughters will be carriers for hemophilia. d. Each of their sons will have a 50% chance of having hemophilia, and each of their daughters will have a 50% chance of being carriers. e. All of their sons will have hemophilia, and all of their daughters will be carriers. 57. About 4% of individuals of Northern European descent are carriers for ____, an autosomal recessive genetic disorder in which a defective membrane transport protein leads to deficient chloride levels in extracellular fluids. a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy b. phenylketonuria c. achondroplasia d. sickle-cell anemia e. cystic fibrosis

Figure 13.4 58. The change in the chromosome depicted between the top and the bottom in the accompanying figure represents a(n) ____. a. inversion b. duplication c. reciprocal translocation d. deletion e. Philadelphia chromosome Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5e 59. Genetic map units represent ____. a. absolute physical distances between genes b. locations of different alleles of a gene c. the chromosome on which a given gene is located d. the actual DNA sequence of a gene e. relative positions of genes with respect to one another 60. When two genes are located on different chromosomes, ____ of the offspring from a testcross for genetic linkage should have a recombinant phenotype. a. over 75% b. about 50% c. about 25% d. about 10% e. about 5% 61. Which is most likely to happen to a human polyploid? a. natural abortion b. death around the age of 1 year c. survival until the early teens d. survival until the mid-thirties e. death around the age of 1 month 62. Sex-linked genes are ____. a. expressed differently based on the sex of an individual b. linked to the SRY sex-determining gene c. located on sex chromosomes d. determinants of the sex of an individual e. found exclusively in one sex or the other 63. Recombination frequency for two genes is a function of the ____. a. distance between the two genes on a single chromosome b. overall size of the chromosome on which the genes are located c. distance between the two chromosomes on which the two genes are located d. relative sizes of the two chromosomes on which the two genes are located e. sex of the parent that supplies each gene 64. If you see a male calico cat, you can be fairly certain that his diploid cells have a sex chromosome combination of ____. a. XYY b. XY c. XX d. XXY e. XO Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5e 65. In Drosophila melanogaster, the gene for eye color is located on the X chromosome. The allele for red eye color (Xw+) is dominant over the allele for white eye color (Xw). You examine a vial of 100 flies that are all offspring from a single genetic cross. You find both red-eyed females and white-eyed females as well as both red-eyed males and white-eyed males. The genotypes of the parents were ____. a. Xw+Xw+; XwY b. Xw+Xw; XwY c. XwXw; Xw+Y d. Xw+Xw; Xw+Y e. XwXw; XwY 66. In humans, sex determination generally depends upon the ____. a. presence of the X chromosome b. number of X chromosomes present c. environment in the womb d. presence of the Y chromosome e. number of autosomes 67. You are a genetic counselor, and a couple comes to you with concerns that if they have a child together, he or she could have cystic fibrosis. Genetic tests reveal that the woman is a carrier for cystic fibrosis, but the man is not. How should you advise them? a. Half of their children will have cystic fibrosis, and the other half will be carriers. b. All of their children will have cystic fibrosis. c. There are no concerns, because none of their offspring have a chance of inheriting the cystic fibrosis allele. d. While none of their children will have cystic fibrosis, each child will have a 50% chance of being a carrier. e. All of their children will have a 25% chance of having cystic fibrosis.

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Chap 13_5e

68. Examine the pedigree in the accompanying figure. Individuals affected by the genetic condition in question are indicated by filled squares or circles. Which inheritance pattern is most likely correct for this condition in this family? a. autosomal dominant b. X-linked recessive c. X-linked dominant d. cytoplasmic inheritance e. autosomal recessive 69. Nondisjunction refers to the ____. a. failure of sister chromatids to separate during mitosis b. improper pairing of nonhomologous chromosomes during meiosis c. failure of sister chromatids to pair during mitosis d. failure of homologous pairs or sister chromatids to separate during meiosis e. failure of homologous pairs to separate during mitosis 70. Which genetic condition has an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern? a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy b. phenylketonuria c. achondroplasia d. sickle-cell anemia e. cystic fibrosis 71. In birds and butterflies, males contain ____ sex chromosomes and females contain ____ sex chromosomes. a. XY; XX b. ZZ; ZW c. ZY; XW d. XX; XY e. ZW; ZZ

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Chap 13_5e 72. In humans, a deletion from chromosome 5 typically leads to severe mental retardation and a malformed larynx; this disorder is known as ____. a. Turner syndrome b. Down syndrome c. cri-du-chat d. Triple-X syndrome e. Klinefelter syndrome 73. Suppose that in studies of genes on the same chromosome you find the following recombination frequencies:

Figure 13.1 In this case, it would be proper to say that a, c, and b are ____. a. linked genes b. different alleles of the same gene c. a trisomy resulting from nondisjunction d. linked genes that are not physically possible, since the recombination frequencies do not add up e. three inverted genes

Figure 13.6 74. Examine the pedigree in the accompanying figure. Individuals affected by the genetic condition in question are indicated by filled squares or circles. Which inheritance pattern is most likely correct for this condition in this family? a. autosomal dominant b. X-linked recessive c. X-linked dominant d. cytoplasmic inheritance e. autosomal recessive

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Chap 13_5e 75. You are a genetic counselor, and a couple comes to you with concerns that if they have a child together, he or she could have hemophilia. The woman has an X-linked recessive form of hemophilia, but the man does not. How should you advise them? a. Half of their children will have hemophilia. b. All of their sons and half of their daughters will have hemophilia. c. None of their children will have hemophilia, but all of their daughters will be carriers for hemophilia. d. Each of their sons will have a 50% chance of having hemophilia, and each of their daughters will have a 50% chance of being carriers. e. All of their sons will have hemophilia, and all of their daughters will be carriers. 76. Chemical compounds released during tobacco use can cause ____. a. sickle-cell anemia b. color blindness c. cancer d. cystic fibrosis e. hemophilia 77. This autosomal dominant genetic trait is associated with a gene on human chromosome 4 and causes a type of dwarfing due to defective cartilage formation. a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy b. phenylketonuria c. achondroplasia d. sickle-cell anemia e. cystic fibrosis 78. For most multicellular eukaryotes, including humans, mitochondria are inherited ____. a. only from the father b. from both the father and the mother c. from the mother for female offspring and from the father for male offspring d. randomly from either the father or the mother e. only from the mother 79. Which statement correctly describes the inheritance of sex chromosomes? a. A woman will pass on a specific X chromosome to all of her daughters. b. A woman will pass on an X chromosome to half of her children. c. A woman will pass on an X chromosome to all of her children. d. A woman’s genetic contribution determines the sex of her children. e. A man will pass on an X chromosome to all of his children.

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Chap 13_5e 80. In placental mammals, such as humans, the dosage compensation mechanism to equalize expression of sexlinked genes in males and females involves ____. a. doubling the gene expression for most genes on the X chromosome in males b. doubling the number of X chromosomes in males during embryonic development c. having all major genes on the X chromosome also present on the Y chromosome d. halving the gene expression for most genes on each X chromosome in females e. inactivating one of the two X chromosomes in most female somatic cells 81. About 10-15% of African Americans in the US are carriers for ____, an autosomal recessive genetic disorder in which a defective version of the hemoglobin protein is produced. a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy b. phenylketonuria c. achondroplasia d. sickle-cell anemia e. cystic fibrosis 82. Progeria is a genetic condition that causes ____. a. pattern baldness as early as age twenty b. socially inappropriate vocal outbursts and muscular twitches c. a high incidence of cancer with any exposure to sunlight d. muscular and mental deterioration shortly after puberty e. premature aging which typically leads to death in the early teens 83. Genetic studies of an animal show that eye color is controlled by an autosomal gene with the dominant allele (R) for red eye color and the recessive allele (r) for yellow eye color. A second autosomal gene has the dominant allele (T) for paws with thumbs and the recessive allele (t) for paws without thumbs. The genetic cross RRTT x rrtt creates offspring with genotype RrTt. One of those dihybrids is mated in a testcross (RrTt x rrtt). Based on the principle of independent assortment, the testcross should produce offspring with the phenotype ratio ____. a. three red-eyed with thumbs: ne yellow-eyed without thumbs b. one red-eyed with thumbs: one yellow-eyed with thumbs: one red-eyed without thumbs: one yellow-eyed without thumbs c. one red-eyed with thumbs: one yellow-eyed without thumbs d. nine red-eyed with thumbs: three yellow-eyed with thumbs: three red-eyed without thumbs: one yelloweyed without thumbs e. three yellow-eyed with thumbs: one red-eyed without thumbs

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Chap 13_5e Choose the mode of inheritance that has been determined for each of the following genetic conditions in humans. Some choices may be used more than once. a. autosomal recessive b. autosomal dominant c. X-linked recessive d. X-linked dominant e. aneuploidy 84. Down syndrome 85. achondroplasia 86. sickle-cell anemia 87. hereditary enamel hydroplasia 88. phenylketonuria 89. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 90. cystic fibrosis 91. red-green colorblindness 92. progeria 93. A certain genetic disorder appears to be inherited from mother to child. What are two possible modes of inheritance for this disorder?

94. Explain the difference in meiotic products that arise when nondisjunction occurs during the first meiotic division versus those that arise when nondisjunction occurs during the second meiotic division.

95. Two genes are on the same chromosome, yet crossing-over occurs between them every time meiosis occurs. Are these genes linked or unlinked and why?

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Chap 13_5e 96. It has been known for some time that fetal cells can be found in a pregnant woman’s bloodstream, sometimes years after a pregnancy. A new technique has been developed that allows scientists to isolate these fetal cells from a pregnant woman’s blood. Why would this be a useful new tool for parents interested in genetic testing of their fetus?

97. Suppose that you have discovered a new mutant in Drosophila melanogaster. The trait is known to be sex linked. Which crosses should you perform to determine if the mutant trait is recessive or dominant?

98. You are working in a research lab on the organism Drosophila melanogaster, and you have been given the job of determining the relative positions of three linked genes for your undergraduate research project. A graduate student in the lab tells you that gene a is 5.0 centimorgans from gene b, and that gene c is 2.7 centimorgans from gene b. What should you do to finish mapping these three genes? What are the likely results that may occur, and how would you interpret such results?

99. Your cousin learns that she is a carrier for phenylketonuria (PKU). Her husband's biological mother has PKU. She asks you to explain what this could mean if she and her husband have children and asks what, if anything, could be done to best protect any child that may have. What would you tell her?

100. Turner Syndrome (XO) is the only viable monosomy found in humans. Some sex chromosome trisomies are also viable, including XXX, XXY, and XYY. There are no viable autosomal monosomies, and a small handful of viable autosomal trisomies exist, such as trisomy 21 (Down syndrome), and trisomy 13 and 18, both of which are lethal within the first year of life. Clearly, aneuploidy is not tolerated well in humans. Speculate as to why there are so few viable monosomies (only one) in humans, and why there are so few viable trisomies. Also, speculate as to why aneuploidy involving the sex chromosomes is better tolerated than those involving autosomes.

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Chap 13_5e

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Chap 13_5e Answer Key 1. c 2. b 3. e 4. b 5. a 6. c 7. a 8. a 9. c 10. c 11. b 12. b 13. b 14. d 15. c 16. a 17. c 18. d 19. c 20. e 21. b 22. d 23. a 24. e 25. b 26. d

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Chap 13_5e 27. b 28. c 29. c 30. c 31. b 32. c 33. e 34. e 35. e 36. c 37. c 38. b 39. a 40. a 41. d 42. d 43. d 44. d 45. c 46. a 47. e 48. d 49. a 50. d 51. c 52. d 53. d 54. e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5e 55. c 56. d 57. e 58. a 59. e 60. b 61. a 62. c 63. a 64. d 65. b 66. d 67. d 68. b 69. d 70. a 71. b 72. c 73. a 74. a 75. e 76. c 77. c 78. e 79. c 80. e 81. d 82. e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5e 83. b 84. e 85. b 86. a 87. d 88. a 89. c 90. a 91. c 92. b 93. This could be maternal inheritance with the disorder being caused by a mutation in the mitochondrial DNA. This could also be a disorder related to epigenetics, where the paternal copy of a gene is inactivated so the only active copy is the maternal copy, which, if mutated, would cause the disorder. 94. If nondisjunction occurs during the first division, all meiotic products are affected and are aneuploid. If nondisjunction occurs during the second division, half of the meiotic products are normal, and the other half are aneuploid. 95. Unlinked. The definition of linkage is when two genes do not assort independently. If crossing over occurs between two genes every time meiosis occurs, these genes will always assort independently. 96. Currently, chorionic villus sampling and amniocentesis are the methods of choice for acquiring fetal cells for genetic testing. A blood sample from the mother would be a much less invasive way to obtain fetal cells for testing. 97. You should do the following crosses: Cross a male with the mutant phenotype and a female without the mutant phenotype. If none of the offspring have the mutant phenotype, the mutant phenotype is likely X-linked recessive. Alternatively, if about half of the male offspring and about half of the female offspring have the mutant phenotype, the mutant phenotype is likely X-linked recessive. If none of the male offspring have the mutant phenotype and all of the female offspring have the mutant phenotype, the mutant trait is likely X-linked dominant. Cross a male without the mutant phenotype and a female with the mutant phenotype. If all of the male offspring and none of the female offspring have the mutant phenotype, the mutant phenotype is likely X-linked recessive. If about half of the male offspring and about 50% of the female offspring have the mutant phenotype, the mutant phenotype may be X-linked dominant. Alternatively, if all of the male offspring and about half of the female offspring have the mutant phenotype, the mutant phenotype may be X-linked dominant. 98. To complete this task, you should perform crosses that will allow determination of the recombination frequency between gene a and gene c, which will give the map distance between these genes. There are two likely outcomes: an a-c map distance of about 2.3 centimorgans and an a-c map distance of about 7.7 centimorgans. The results may not be exactly these values, but they should be close to one or the other. A result of close to 2.3 centimorgans would indicate that gene c is between genes a and b, while a result of close to 7.7 centimorgans would indicate that gene b is between genes a and c. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5e 99. First, I would tell her that PKU is easily treated by dietary adjustments, and that with proper guidance and behavior, people with PKU are able to lead full, productive, and essentially normal lives. I would tell her that PKU demonstrates autosomal recessive inheritance; therefore, her husband must be a carrier. He received a normal PKU allele from his father, and the mutant PKU allele from his mother. The normal copy from his father prevents him from being affected. I would explain to her that, as a carrier, she is in the same situation—she has one normal allele and one abnormal allele. Since the odds of passing on any allele are essentially the same as flipping a coin, any child that she has will have a 50% chance of receiving a normal allele and a 50% chance of receiving an abnormal allele. The same will apply to her husband. Since having PKU requires inheriting an abnormal allele from both parents, each of their children will have a 25% chance of having PKU. Then, I would tell her that nearly all hospitals in the United States screen newborn infants for PKU, and she should ensure any child she has is tested. If the results of the test indicate the child has PKU, she should follow the dietary instructions for the child closely to protect the child's brain development. 100. Monosomic cells are missing an entire chromosome. Because only one monosomy is viable, this suggests human cells must require two of each chromosome to function normally. Possibly, some autosomal genes must be present in two copies to achieve adequate expression levels in order to be functional for the cell. Trisomic cells have an extra copy of a chromosome. Due to the low tolerance for human trisomies, human cells seem to require only two copies of each gene, and having three copies of some genes is lethal as there may be too much gene function. The few viable autosomal trisomies are either lethal shortly after birth (trisomy 13 and 18) or have a variety of associated symptoms, including a slightly shortened lifespan (trisomy 21). During human development, all X chromosomes beyond one per cell are inactivated. Therefore, aneuploidy is better tolerated when involving sex chromosomes because there is already a natural process in place for partially “haploidizing” those chromosomes. Despite this, there are symptoms associated with XO, XXY, XYY, and XXX individuals.

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Chap 14_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. In prokaryotes, the DNA molecule that makes up a chromosome is ____ and has ____ replication origin. a. circular; one b. circular; more than one c. linear; more than one d. linear; one e. linear; no 2. A short RNA chain is synthesized as the first nucleotides in a new DNA strand by the enzyme ____ to provide a ____ for DNA elongation. a. topoisomerase; 3' hydroxyl group b. primase; 3' hydroxyl group c. primase; 5' hydroxyl group d. DNA polymerase; 5' phosphate group e. DNA polymerase; 3' hydroxyl group 3. The active site of DNA polymerase is similar in ____. a. archaea and bacteria only b. archaea, bacteria, and eukaryotes c. archaea and eukaryotes only d. none of these groups e. bacteria and eukaryotes only 4. During normal DNA replication, part of the sequence at the ends of linear chromosomes is not copied into the new DNA strands because ____. a. DNA ligase cannot join pieces at the end of a chromosome b. RNA primers at the beginning of a new strand cannot be replaced with DNA c. those ends are Okazaki fragments that are lost d. cells do not need the DNA at the ends of chromosomes e. the ends of chromosomes are made of protein, not DNA 5. Helicase ____. a. proofreads the newly synthesized DNA b. relieves over-twisting ahead of the DNA replication fork c. rewinds the newly synthesized DNA strands into a double-stranded helix d. unwinds the double-stranded DNA helix e. binds DNA polymerase to the template strand

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Chap 14_5e 6. Suppose that you performed a version of the Hershey and Chase experiment, this time using 32P-labeled viruses that insert their double-stranded DNA into the DNA of the cells that they infect. The viral DNA is then treated as part of the cell's own DNA and is replicated during DNA replication and passed onto daughter cells when the cell divides. You infect a population of cells with the 32P-labeled viruses, and then let the infected cells go through two generations of cell divisions. If you then examine the cells, you should find 32P-labeled DNA in ____ of the cells. a. none b. about 1/4 c. about 1/2 d. about 3/4 e. all 7. The width of a DNA double helix ____. a. is constant b. is narrower where adenine is present than where cytosine is present c. is wider where purines are present than where pyrimidines are present d. varies randomly e. is wider where pyrimidines are present than where purines are present 8. Individuals with xeroderma pigmentosum inherit a faulty DNA repair mechanism. As a consequence, ____. a. they are sterile b. their cells have no proofreading abilities during DNA replication c. Okazaki fragments produced during DNA replication cannot be joined d. they easily develop skin cancer when exposed to sunlight e. their telomeres are shorter than average 9. In DNA, the purines are ____. a. thymine and cytosine b. adenine and cytosine c. adenine and guanine d. thymine and adenine e. guanine and thymine 10. The genetic material of all living organisms is ____. a. protein b. deoxyribonucleic acid c. ribonucleic acid d. glycoprotein e. polypeptide

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Chap 14_5e 11. Which nucleotide sequence is complementary to the DNA sequence 5'-GACGTT-3'? a. 5'-TCATGG-3' b. 3'-TCATGG-5' c. 3'-CTGCAA-5' d. 3'-AGTACC-5' e. 5'-TTGCAG-3' 12. After DNA repair enzymes remove an incorrect nucleotide resulting from a replication error, ____ is/are needed to complete the repair. a. primase, DNA polymerase, and DNA ligase b. DNA polymerase c. DNA polymerase and DNA ligase d. primase and DNA ligase e. primase and DNA polymerase 13. In the Hershey and Chase experiment, 32P was used to label ____ and 35S was used to label ____. a. RNA; protein b. protein; DNA c. phospholipids; protein d. protein; phospholipids e. DNA; protein 14. Imagine that a cell contains a genetic mutation in the gene encoding the primase enzyme, rendering it unable to synthesize RNA strands. Assuming that all of the other enzymes directly involved in DNA replication are still functional in these cells, how much of the DNA replication process would you expect to see in these cells? a. The leading strand would be synthesized, but not the lagging strand. b. No part of the DNA replication process could occur. c. The DNA helix would be unwound by helicase, but no new strands will be produced. d. Both the leading and lagging strand would be synthesized, but pieces of discontinuous strands would not be joined together. e. DNA replication would still proceed completely since RNA strands are not part of the final product of DNA replication. 15. Why is DNA ligase most active on the lagging strand during DNA replication? a. The lagging strands contain more short DNA segments, which are joined together by DNA ligase, than the leading strand. b. The lagging strand is synthesized more slowly, and DNA ligase speeds up the DNA polymerase. c. The lagging strand synthesizes DNA in the 3' —> 5' direction. d. The lagging strand requires DNA ligase to couple the RNA primer to the Okazaki fragments. e. DNA ligase performs the function of RNA primase on the lagging strand.

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Chap 14_5e 16. Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty continued Griffith’s work with S. pneumoniae and concluded that DNA was the hereditary material. If protein were the hereditary material instead of DNA, what would happen to mice after injection of heat-killed virulent bacteria mixed with live non-virulent bacteria after treatment with protease? a. The mice would live. b. The mice would die. c. The mice would get sick, but recover. d. The mice would grow tumors. e. The mice would degrade the protein. 17. When DNA is replicated, ____. a. parental histones are degraded and entirely replaced by new histones b. DNA is permanently freed from histone binding c. new histone proteins are also produced d. new histone proteins are not needed e. the number of histones that bind to each DNA molecule is halved 18. Variability in offspring is largely a result of ____. a. mutations b. nucleosomes c. Okazaki fragments d. DNA repairs e. RNA primers 19. Proofreading by ____ corrects errors that occur during DNA replication. a. DNA polymerase b. primase c. telomerase d. DNA ligase e. helicase 20. Suppose a DNA replication error is not corrected. After two cell divisions, how many of the four daughter cells contain this mutation (assuming that the mistake was never corrected)? a. none b. one c. two d. three e. four

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Chap 14_5e 21. Prior to the 1940s, many biologists believed ____, which is composed of 20 different types of ____, was most likely the genetic material. a. protein; amino acids b. DNA; amino acids c. protein; nucleotides d. DNA; nucleotides e. RNA; nucleotides 22. Nucleosomes are best described as ____. a. prokaryotic DNA associated with nonhistone proteins b. eukaryotic DNA associated with histone proteins c. prokaryotic DNA associated with histone proteins d. eukaryotic DNA associated with nonhistone proteins e. associated histone and nonhistone proteins 23. The T2 bacteriophages used in the Hershey and Chase experiment contain ____. a. DNA only b. RNA and protein c. protein, phospholipid, and DNA d. DNA and protein e. protein, phospholipid, DNA, and RNA 24. Suppose you take a cell from an adult cow and attempt to use it to produce a clone of that cow. If telomerase is not functioning in that cell or in any of the cell’s progeny, what would you expect to happen to your clone? a. The clone will be unable to grow. b. When the clone matures, it will most likely have cancer. c. The clone's cells may divide, but after a certain number of generations, cell division will stop. d. The lack of telomerase should have no effect on the clone. e. When the clone matures, it will most likely be sterile. 25. Some research has indicated that increased exercise is linked to increased telomere length in renewable tissues, like blood. Assuming that telomerase levels are not increased by exercise, what might explain the increase in telomere length? a. DNA replication occurred more frequently in individuals who exercised. b. Cell division occurred more rapidly in individuals who exercised. c. Telomerase activity was higher in individuals who exercised. d. Telomerase activity was lower in individuals who exercised. e. Fewer DNA replication errors occurred in individuals who exercised.

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Chap 14_5e 26. The energy to form the new bonds between nucleotides in a growing DNA strand is provided primarily by ____. a. unwinding of the DNA double helix b. hydrolysis of pyrophosphate c. breaking hydrogen bonds between base pairs d. DNA helicase e. forming hydrogen bonds between base pairs 27. The two strands of a DNA double helix are said to be antiparallel. This means that ____. a. the 5' end of one strand is directly paired with the 5' end of the other strand b. since the double helix twists, it is not perfectly parallel c. one strand has a negative charge, and the other strand has a positive charge d. the 5' end of one strand is directly paired with the 3' end of the other strand e. both strands have a negative charge

28. Figure 14.1 The accompanying figure depicts the result of an experiment to determine how DNA replication occurs. Based on these results, it appears that after replication, each new DNA molecule contains ____. a. either entirely old DNA strands or entirely new DNA strands b. one old DNA strand and one new DNA strand c. entirely new DNA d. some DNA helix regions from old DNA alternating with some DNA regions from new DNA e. two strands that are each a mix of old and new DNA 29. The alteration of a cell’s hereditary type by the uptake of DNA released by the breakdown of another cell is called ____. a. replication b. transformation c. crossing-over d. excision repair e. ligation

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Chap 14_5e 30. DNA ligase closes nicks between ____ by forming ____ bonds. a. nitrogenous bases; hydrogen b. RNA fragments; noncovalent c. DNA and RNA fragments; covalent d. DNA fragments; peptide e. DNA fragments; covalent 31. What is unlikely to happen if the sliding clamp is nonfunctional? a. The overall rate of DNA synthesis is low. b. The DNA polymerase and the template strand of DNA are not properly anchored together. c. The DNA polymerase detaches from the DNA after only a few polymerizations. d. Many thousands of polymerizations occur before the DNA polymerase detaches. e. The rate of DNA replication is low. 32. In eukaryotes, the DNA molecule that comprises a chromosome is ____ and has ____ replication origin. a. circular, one b. circular, more than one c. linear, more than one d. linear, one e. linear, no 33. When Hershey and Chase labeled viruses with radioactive phosphorus, they concluded that the virus injects DNA and not protein into its host because ____. a. most of the radioactive protein was inside the bacteria b. most of the radioactive DNA, but little protein ,was inside the bacteria c. both radioactive DNA and protein were inside the bacteria d. neither radioactive DNA nor protein was inside the bacteria e. entire viruses were inside the bacteria 34. In humans, telomerase ____. a. adds telomere repeats in some human cells b. removes telomere repeats in all human cells c. adds telomere repeats in all human cells d. removes telomere repeats in some human cells e. transcribes telomere repeats in some human cells 35. The components of nucleosomes is(are) ____. a. DNA only b. DNA, RNA, and protein c. DNA and RNA d. RNA and protein e. DNA and protein Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e 36. DNA polymerase ____. a. synthesizes a short RNA segment to begin DNA replication b. adds nucleotides to the 5' end of an existing strand to synthesize a new DNA strand c. adds nucleotides to the 3' end of an existing strand to synthesize a new DNA strand d. seals nicks between adjacent segments of DNA e. unwinds the DNA double helix at the origin of replication 37. What is the function of the sliding clamp in DNA replication? a. unwind DNA ahead of the replication fork b. anchor DNA polymerase to the template strand c. remove DNA polymerase from the template strand d. anchor primase to the template strand e. bind to single stranded DNA to stabilize it before it is replicated 38. During DNA replication, the ____ strand is assembled in the ____ direction as helix unwinding and is synthesized by ____ replication. a. leading; opposite; continuous b. lagging; same; discontinuous c. leading; same; discontinuous d. lagging; opposite; continuous e. leading; same; continuous 39. The transforming principle described by Griffith in his work with Streptococcus pneumoniae was later shown by Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty to be ____. a. a polysaccharide capsule b. a phospholipid c. protein d. RNA e. DNA 40. In the Meselson-Stahl experiment, bacterial DNA was labeled completely with heavy nitrogen (15N) and then grown in the presence of light nitrogen (14N). When only mixed DNA was observed after ONE generation of growth in 14N, what was the conclusion? a. DNA replication is semiconservative b. DNA replication is conservative c. DNA replication is dispersive d. DNA replication is either semiconservative or dispersive e. DNA replication is either semiconservative or conservative

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Chap 14_5e 41. Purines and pyrimidines are ____. a. Okazaki fragments b. pentose-phosphate backbones c. nucleic acids d. phosphate bases e. nitrogenous bases 42. Adjacent nucleotides on a strand of DNA are connected to each other by a(n) ____. a. hydrophobic interaction b. phosphodiester bond c. hydrogen bond d. peptide bond e. ionic bond 43. The polynucleotide chain of DNA has polarity: the 5' end has a bound ____, while the 3' end has a bound ____. a. deoxyribose sugar, ribose sugar b. adenine, thymine c. cytosine, guanine d. hydroxyl group, phosphate group e. phosphate group, hydroxyl group 44. During DNA replication, nucleosomes must ____ ahead of the replication fork and ____ after DNA is replicated. a. disassemble; reassemble b. reassemble; disassemble c. unwind DNA; disassociate d. synthesize primers; proofread e. cut DNA; ligate DNA 45. Adding nucleotides onto a growing DNA strand during DNA replication in cells occurs in ____. a. the 5' —> 3' direction for the leading strand and the 3' —> 5' direction on the lagging strand b. either the 5' —> 3' direction or the 3' —> 5' direction on both strands, depending on where replication begins c. the 5' —> 3' direction only d. the 3' —> 5' direction for the leading strand and the 5' —> 3' direction on the lagging strand e. the 3' —> 5' direction only

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Chap 14_5e 46. The genome of an organism contains 30% adenine. Based on this, you would predict that this organism's genome also contains 30% ____. a. thymine b. cytosine c. each of cytosine and guanine d. each of thymine and guanine e. guanine 47. Which statement correctly describes DNA base pairing? a. Two hydrogen bonds bind A and T; three hydrogen bonds bind G and C. b. Two hydrogen bonds bind A and C; three hydrogen bonds bind T and G. c. Two hydrogen bonds bind G and C; three hydrogen bonds bind A and T. d. Two hydrogen bonds bind A and T, and two hydrogen bonds bind G and C. e. Three hydrogen bonds bind A and C, and three hydrogen bonds bind T and G. 48. Nucleic acids are long chains of ____. a. amino acids b. lipids c. nucleotides d. sugars e. peptides 49. Telomeres are found ____. a. in the middle of chromosomes b. at replication origins c. where DNA strands are joined together d. within genes e. at the ends of chromosomes 50. Cancer cells ____. a. maintain telomerase function b. have longer telomeres than normal cells c. eventually die due to shortening chromosomes d. have circular chromosomes e. cannot replicate their DNA 51. Reiji Okazaki discovered what are now called "Okazaki fragments" produced during DNA replication. These fragments are ____. a. short lengths of new DNA on the leading strand b. RNA primers on the lagging strand c. RNA primers on both the lagging and leading strand d. short lengths of new DNA on the lagging strand e. RNA primers on the leading strand Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e 52. DNA replication is said to be semiconservative because ____. a. the number of nucleotides within genes remains constant b. half of the DNA in a cell comes from one parent, and the other half from the other parent. c. the same process of DNA replication is used by all organisms d. the total amount of DNA within an individual remains the same e. each new DNA molecule is composed of one old strand and one new strand 53. The nucleosome core particle consists of ____. a. two chromosomes linked together b. RNA wrapped around an eight-protein histone complex c. DNA wrapped around an eight-protein histone complex d. DNA associated with the nuclear envelope e. DNA replication enzymes associating to form the replisome 54. Topoisomerase functions by ____. a. creating cuts in the DNA to relieve over-twisting and strain ahead of the replication fork b. binding DNA polymerase to hold it tightly to the template DNA c. unwinding the DNA double helix to expose the template strands for replication d. binding the newly synthesized DNA to re-twist it into a double helix after replication e. reading the DNA template and synthesizing a complementary strand of DNA 55. Without proofreading, the rate of DNA replication errors in bacteria and eukaryotes is as high as one for every ____ nucleotides assembled. a. 10 to 100 b. 100,000 to 1,000,000 c. 1,000 to 10,000 d. 10,000,000 to 100,000,000 e. 100,000,000 to 1,000,000,000 56. In their experiments to identify the transforming principle, Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty used enzymes that break down ____. a. protein, DNA, and RNA b. protein and RNA only c. DNA only d. protein, lipids, and RNA e. lipids and DNA only

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Chap 14_5e 57. In DNA, the pyrimidines are ____. a. thymine and cytosine b. adenine and cytosine c. adenine and guanine d. thymine and adenine e. guanine and thymine 58. If a stretch of human double-stranded DNA contains 47% G and C bases, then ____. a. it contains 47% A and T bases b. there are more pyrimidines than purines c. there are more purines than pyrimidines d. it contains 53% A and T bases e. there are no genes in this stretch of DNA 59. A DNA double helix has two strands that are held together by ____. a. hydrogen bonds b. ionic bonds c. hydrophobic interactions d. phosphodiester bonds e. covalent bonds 60. The genome of an organism contains 14% guanine; therefore, its genome also contains ____% thymine and ____% cytosine. a. 86; 14 b. 14; 36 c. 36; 36 d. 14; 86 e. 36; 14 61. In the Hershey and Chase experiment, phage-infected bacteria and viral progeny were radioactive following bacterial infection with 32P-labeled viruses. Why? a. Bacteria had incorporated radioactive proteins into their DNA. b. Phage DNA labeled with 32P had entered the bacteria and appeared in progeny phages. c. Viral progeny had used the 32P to build new viral proteins. d. Bacteria had incorporated radioactive proteins into their cell membranes. e. 32P was left outside the cell during viral infection.

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Chap 14_5e 62. Wilkins and Franklin studied the structure of DNA using ____. a. molecular scale models of nucleotides b. X-ray diffraction c. computer-assisted graphics d. electron microscopy e. light microscopy 63. Cancer treatments may specifically target rapidly dividing cells by using drugs or chemicals that ____. a. promote DNA replication only b. inhibit DNA repair enzymes only c. inhibit DNA replication only d. promote DNA replication or inhibit DNA repair enzymes e. inhibit DNA replication or DNA repair enzymes 64. What happens when living R strain Streptococcus pneumoniae bacteria are mixed with heat-killed S strain Streptococcus pneumoniae bacteria? a. The S strain bacteria come back to life. b. The R strain bacteria are killed, and the S strain bacteria remain dead. c. The R strain bacteria are transformed into S strain bacteria. d. The S strain bacteria are transformed into R strain bacteria. e. The R strain bacteria are killed, and the S strain bacteria come back to life. 65. James Watson, Francis Crick, Rosalind Franklin, and Maurice Wilkins are recognized for their contributions to the discovery of the ____. a. presence of nuclein (DNA) in white blood cells b. role of DNA in cells c. chemical components of DNA d. three-dimensional structure of DNA e. location of DNA in cells 66. Each DNA nucleotide is composed of ____. a. a six-carbon sugar, a phosphate group, and one of twenty amino acids b. a five-carbon sugar, a nitrogenous base, and one of twenty amino acids c. a five-carbon sugar, a phosphate group, and one of four nitrogenous bases d. a six-carbon sugar, a nitrogenous base, and one of four amino acids e. a five-carbon sugar, a phosphate group, and one of four amino acids 67. How are purines distinguished from pyrimidines? a. Purines are derived from a pair of fused C-N rings, while pyrimidines are derived from a single C-N ring. b. Pyrimidines are derived from a pair of fused C-N rings, while purines are derived from a single C-N ring. c. Purines have a carbon-containing ring, while pyrimidines have a nitrogenous ring. d. Pyrimidines have a carbon-containing ring, while purines have a nitrogenous ring. e. Purines are found only in DNA, while pyrimidines are found only in RNA. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e

Identification For the following questions, match the feature of DNA replication with its description. a. origin of replication b. leading strand c. lagging strand d. double helix e. replication bubble f. replisome g. replication fork 68. The strand synthesized in the direction the replication fork moves 69. Y-shape produced by the unwinding of the DNA double-helix 70. Point at which the double helix begins unwinding 71. Complex of DNA replication enzymes 72. Forms as a result of two replication forks being produced at the origin of replication 73. The strand synthesized in the opposite direction to the movement of the replication fork 74. The structure of DNA Classification For the following question(s), identify the researcher(s) associated with the discovery or experiment from the following list. a. Watson and Crick b. Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty c. Griffith d. Hershey and Chase e. Meselson and Stahl 75. Showed that DNA is the transforming principle responsible for transforming nonvirulent Streptococcus pneumoniae into a virulent strain 76. Showed that DNA replication in Escherichia coli is semiconservative 77. Showed that a transforming principle from heat-killed S strain Streptococcus pneumoniae could be used to make the R strain virulent 78. Worked out the double helix model for DNA structure 79. Showed that the genetic material of bacteriophage T2 is DNA

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Chap 14_5e Labeling Examine the accompanying figure. Match each letter of the figure with the appropriate DNA replication protein or enzyme.

Figure 14.2 a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 80. topoisomerase 81. helicase 82. primase 83. DNA polymerase III 84. single-stranded binding protein

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Chap 14_5e Classification For the following questions, match the enzyme involved in DNA replication with its function. a. topoisomerase b. primase c. helicase d. single-stranded binding proteins e. DNA polymerase III f. DNA polymerase I g. DNA ligase h. sliding clamp 85. Stabilizes single-stranded DNA 86. Main enzyme that extends RNA primer by adding DNA nucleotides to it 87. Seals nicks between adjacent DNA segments 88. Unwinds DNA helix 89. Relieves over-winding of DNA ahead of the replication fork 90. Tethers DNA polymerase to the template DNA 91. Synthesizes short RNA segment to initiate new DNA strand 92. Contains 5' —> 3' exonuclease activity to remove RNA preceding previous Okazaki fragment and uses its 5' — > 3' polymerization activity to replace RNA nucleotides with DNA nucleotides 93. The steps of DNA replication and the enzymes involved are largely conserved amongst bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotes. How can this evolutionary conservation be explained?

94. Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty showed that DNA was the transforming principle by demonstrating that mice survived when injected with a mixture of dead virulent bacteria and live nonvirulent bacteria that were treated with a DNA degrading enzyme. If RNA was the genetic material, what would have been the effect on the mice? Why?

95. In Hershey and Chase’s experiment, why would it not have been suitable to use radioactive nitrogen to label DNA?

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Chap 14_5e 96. In many cancers, the cancerous cells have fully active telomerase enzymes. Explain how this might play a role in enabling cancer cells to keep rapidly dividing.

97. What are two main reasons why DNA mutations are so rare?

98. Describe what happens to the nucleosome during DNA replication.

99. Although Watson and Crick are credited with the discovery of the structure of DNA, they based this discovery on the bench work of many other scientists of the time. Name at least three different pieces of knowledge that Watson and Crick used in their discovery that was based on work from other scientists.

100. Describe the roles of the following enzymes during DNA replication: ligase, single-stranded binding proteins (SSBs), DNA polymerase III, primase, DNA helicase.

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Chap 14_5e Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. b 4. b 5. d 6. c 7. a 8. d 9. c 10. b 11. c 12. c 13. e 14. c 15. a 16. a 17. c 18. a 19. a 20. c 21. a 22. b 23. d 24. c 25. c 26. b

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Chap 14_5e 27. d 28. b 29. b 30. e 31. d 32. c 33. b 34. a 35. e 36. c 37. b 38. e 39. e 40. d 41. e 42. b 43. e 44. a 45. c 46. a 47. a 48. c 49. e 50. a 51. d 52. e 53. c 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e 55. c 56. a 57. a 58. d 59. a 60. e 61. b 62. b 63. e 64. c 65. d 66. c 67. a 68. b 69. g 70. a 71. f 72. e 73. c 74. d 75. b 76. e 77. c 78. a 79. d 80. a 81. c 82. e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e 83. b 84. d 85. d 86. e 87. g 88. c 89. a 90. h 91. b 92. f 93. DNA replication is vital to living organisms; it is how they grow, develop, and repair damaged tissues. Because the process is critical to life, it likely evolved very early and remained consistent as higher organisms evolved. Changes to the process of DNA replication are as likely to be detrimental to the process as they are to be beneficial since mutations are undirected. Thus, if the mechanism of DNA replication is functional and efficient, there would be no evolutionary pressure to change it. 94. The mice would die because DNA would be degraded, but not RNA. Thus, if RNA was the genetic material, it would still be present and able to transform the nonvirulent bacteria to virulent bacteria. The newly transformed bacteria would subsequently kill the mice. 95. Hershey and Chase wanted to determine if the genetic material was DNA or protein. Both DNA and protein contain nitrogen. Therefore, if they had used radioactive nitrogen, it would have labeled both the DNA and the protein. Thus, it would be impossible to distinguish whether DNA or protein had been transferred from the phage to the bacterial cell. 96. Cancer cells are characterized by their ability to divide uncontrollably with no apparent limit to the number of generations they can produce. Active telomerase would appear to play a key role in allowing cancer cells to do this. During each round of DNA replication, part of the ends of chromosomes cannot be replicated. Thus, with each cell generation, a cell loses some of its DNA. Active telomerase places new telomere repeats at the ends of chromosomes so that the DNA that is lost will be from telomere repeats rather than from critical genes. For most cells, telomerase is not active, and this places a natural limit on how many replications can be performed before the cell loses critical genetic information and is unable to continue replicating and dividing. Cancer cells with active telomerase are able to override this natural limit on cell replication. 97. DNA polymerase has a proofreading activity; it is able to correct mistakes that it makes during the replication process. Any mismatches missed by DNA proofreading can be fixed by DNA repair mechanisms, such as mismatch repair. 98. As DNA prepares to be replicated, the nucleosome must be disassembled so that the DNA replication machinery can access the DNA template. Almost immediately after DNA is replicated, the newly replicated DNA assembles into nucleosomes. Because DNA replication results in the production of two DNA molecules, the nucleosome components must also be duplicated so that the entire chromosome structure can be duplicated and partitioned into daughter cells. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e 99. Scientists had previously determined that DNA was made of four components: adenine, cytosine, guanine, and thymine. Chargaff had shown that the amounts of A and T were always equal and that the amounts of C and G were always equal. Rosalind Franklin produced an X-ray diffraction image, indicating that DNA formed a double helix structure. 100. DNA helicase binds to an origin of replication and unwinds the two DNA strands, which are then bound by SSBs to keep them apart. Primase uses DNA as a template to make an RNA primer that provides a 3'-hydroxyl group for DNA polymerase III, which extends the RNA primer with DNA nucleotides. Once the RNA primers have been removed and replaced with DNA, any gaps in the sugar-phosphate backbone are connected using ligase.

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Chap 15_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. During the elongation stage of transcription ____. a. DNA nucleotides are added to the transcript b. the transcript grows in the 5'—>3' direction c. transcription factors recruit RNA polymerase to the template strand d. the double helix remains single-stranded after being used as a template e. RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region 2. If a codon in the mRNA is 5'-ACG-3', then the anticodon of the proper tRNA will be ____. a. 5'-UGC-3' b. 3'-CGU-5' c. 5'-CGT-3' d. 3'-CGT-5' e. 5'-GCA-3' 3. Consider a mutant organism that is unable to make the amino acid arginine. Knowing that the metabolic pathway for arginine production is ornithine —> citrulline —> arginine, you test the ability of the mutant to grow in the presence of just one of these compounds. You find that the mutant can grow in the presence of arginine, but not in the presence of citrulline or ornithine. From this, you can conclude that the product of the mutant gene is most directly involved in the production of ____. a. arginine from ornithine b. arginine from citrulline c. citrulline from ornithine d. ornithine from arginine e. citrulline from arginine 4. The number of proteins humans can produce vastly exceeds the number of genes in the human genome. This is best explained by ____. a. aminoacylation b. exon shuffling c. the wobble hypothesis d. degeneracy e. alternative splicing 5. In an mRNA transcript, the 3' UTR refers to the region of the mRNA that is ____. a. upstream from the start codon b. upstream from the site for initiation of transcription c. downstream from the stop codon d. the coding region e. downstream from the site for termination of transcription

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Chap 15_5e

©2014 Brooks/Cole, Cengage Learning Use the table above for questions 67-69. 6. Assume that an mRNA transcript is synthesized complementary to this DNA sequence: 3'-CTTACATGGCATCC-5' See the provided genetic code table. If the start codon is considered the first codon, which amino acid is specified by the second codon? a. asparagine b. tyrosine c. arginine d. proline e. cysteine 7. A polysome is ____. a. the combination of a large and a small ribosomal subunit b. the complex where mRNA splicing occurs c. the promoter assembly at the site of transcription initiation d. an mRNA transcript to which multiple ribosomes are attached e. the complex that adds a poly(A) tail onto an mRNA

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Chap 15_5e 8. A gene being transcribed uses transcription factors to recruit RNA polymerase II to the DNA at the promoter region. After the polymerase is recruited, transcription elongation occurs, and nucleotides are added to the transcript in the 5'—>3' direction. How do you know that the gene being transcribed is not a prokaryotic gene? a. In prokaryotes, the promoter comes after the transcription unit. b. Prokaryotes do not have promoters. c. In prokaryotes, nucleotides are added to the transcript in the 3'—>5' direction. d. Prokaryotes use ribosomes rather than RNA polymerase to transcribe genes. e. In prokaryotes, RNA polymerase binds directly to DNA at the promoter without transcription factors. 9. The cap on an mRNA transcript is the site where ____. a. ribosomes attach at the start of translation b. the start codon is located c. translation is terminated d. the stop codon is covered until needed e. the 3' end of the mRNA is protected from attack by RNA-digesting enzymes 10. Beadle and Tatum used nutritional mutants called ____ to study the relationship between genes and proteins in Neurospora. a. transposons b. chaperones c. polysomes d. auxotrophs e. wild types 11. Helper proteins that assist in protein folding are called ____. a. snRNPs b. molecular chaperones c. ribosomes d. spliceosomes e. polysomes 12. Enzymes are ____. a. lipid molecules b. proteins c. DNA molecules d. transposable elements e. codons

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Chap 15_5e 13. Which region(s) of the ribosome accept(s) charged tRNA molecules during the elongation phase of translation? a. the A site b. the A site or the E site c. the P site d. the P site or the E site e. the E site 14. Which process occurs in the cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell? a. translation b. DNA replication and transcription c. transcription d. DNA replication e. translation and transcription 15. Translation ends when a stop codon in the ____ site allows a ____ to bind there. a. P; release factor b. A; terminator tRNA c. E; terminator tRNA d. A; release factor e. P; terminator tRNA 16. The formation of peptide bonds during translation is catalyzed by ____ found in the ____. a. RNA polymerase; large ribosomal subunit b. peptidyl transferase; small ribosomal subunit c. peptidyl transferase; large ribosomal subunit d. aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase; small ribosomal subunit e. aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase; tRNA 17. The central dogma describes the flow of information of gene expression as ____. a. DNA —> RNA —> protein b. RNA —> DNA c. RNA —> DNA —> protein d. protein —> DNA —> RNA e. DNA —> protein —> RNA 18. Segments of DNA that can move from one place to another within a cell’s genome are called ____. a. target sites b. transposases c. transposable elements d. replicative factors e. release factors

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Chap 15_5e 19. Noller’s research with ribosomes showed that the site of peptide bond formation is located on ____. a. the tRNA molecules b. ribosomal DNA c. proteins of the small ribosomal subunit d. ribosomal RNA e. proteins of the large ribosomal subunit 20. Every protein is assembled on a(n) ____ according to instructions copied from ____, using ____ as an intermediate. a. mRNA; tRNA; DNA b. tRNA; mRNA; DNA c. ribosome; mRNA; tRNA d. tRNA; DNA; mRNA e. ribosome; DNA; mRNA 21. Pre-mRNA is modified on its 5' end by ____. a. exon shuffling b. the addition of a poly(A) tail c. mRNA splicing d. the addition of a guanine cap e. aminoacylation 22. During translation, tRNAs bind to mRNA through ____. a. ionic bonds b. van der Waals forces c. nonpolar covalent bonds d. hydrogen bonds e. polar covalent bonds 23. The complete set of 61 sense codons can be read by fewer than 61 distinct tRNA molecules according to ____. a. alternative splicing b. degeneracy c. exon shuffling d. the wobble hypothesis e. aminoacylation 24. In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, the start codon (or initiator codon) is ____, which codes for the amino acid ____. a. UGA; proline b. UUU; phenylalanine c. AAA; lysine d. ACG; threonine e. AUG; methionine Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 25. Except for the stop codons, the codons in the genetic code specify which of the ____ amino acids will be added to a growing polypeptide chain. a. 5 b. 64 c. 4 d. 20 e. 3 26. The reading frame for translation is established by ____. a. removal of the cap from the mRNA b. pairing of the initiator tRNA with the start codon c. the first base in the mRNA molecule d. the ribosome binding site e. the poly(A) tail 27. With minor exceptions, the genetic code ____. a. is the same for all living organisms and viruses b. is specialized so that viruses use a different code from all living organisms c. differs between different organisms and viruses d. is the same for all viruses and for single-celled organisms, but is more complex in multicellular organisms e. has three versions: one for viruses, one for single-celled organisms, and one for multicellular organisms 28. The process of transcription refers to the use of information encoded in ____ to make ____. a. RNA; a complementary DNA copy b. DNA; a polypeptide c. DNA; a complementary RNA copy d. a polypeptide; RNA e. RNA; a polypeptide 29. The poly(A) tail of an mRNA ____. a. is where the start codon is located b. covers the stop codon until it is needed c. protects the 3' end of the mRNA from attack by RNA-digesting enzymes d. is where ribosomes attach at the start of translation e. is where translation terminates 30. The routing of proteins to their final destinations in eukaryotic cells is ____. a. essentially random b. based on transcription factors c. controlled by the type of ribosome used d. directed by signals that are part of the proteins e. primarily determined by mRNA splicing Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 31. Srb and Horowitz’s research led to the ____ hypothesis, which has since been modified to the ____ hypothesis. a. one gene-one enzyme; one gene-one polypeptide b. one gene-one polypeptide; one gene-one enzyme c. one gene-one protein; one gene-one enzyme d. one gene-one polypeptide; one gene-one protein e. one gene-one enzyme; one gene-one protein 32. The TATA box is a key element of the ____ of most eukaryotic protein-coding genes. a. terminator b. coding region c. promoter d. transcription start point e. introns 33. Proteins called transcription factors are involved in ____ of transcription. a. both initiation and termination stages b. both initiation and elongation stages c. the termination stage d. the initiation stage e. the initiation, elongation, and termination stages 34. Initiation factors are ____ that assist in the initiation of translation. a. mRNAs b. proteins c. tRNAs d. amino acids e. snRNPs 35. At the start of translation, the initiator tRNA pairs with the start codon at the ____ of the ribosome. a. A (aminoacyl) site b. promoter c. P (peptidyl) site d. ribosomal binding site e. E (exit) site

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Chap 15_5e

©2014 Brooks/Cole, Cengage Learning Use the table above for questions 67-69. 36. See the provided genetic code table. The start codon for translation directs incorporation of which amino acid? a. lysine b. phenylalanine c. methionine d. glycine e. no amino acid is encoded; the start codon simply begins the process 37. The first part of a new polypeptide chain being produced in a eukaryotic cell has a signal peptide. Translation of this polypeptide ____. a. occurs on a free ribosome in the cytosol b. begins on a free ribosome in the cytosol and is completed on the rough ER c. occurs in the Golgi apparatus d. begins on the rough ER and is completed in the Golgi apparatus e. occurs on the rough ER 38. Substitution of one base pair for another in the coding region of a gene can result in a ____ mutation where the changed codon still specifies the same amino acid. a. missense b. chromosomal c. frameshift d. silent e. nonsense

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©2014 Brooks/Cole, Cengage Learning Use the table above for questions 67-69. 39. See the provided genetic code table. A change in a single base pair could cause which missense mutation? a. glutamic acid to threonine b. glycine to proline c. threonine to glutamine d. glutamic acid to methionine e. valine to methionine 40. Relative to the mRNA, which of the following moves during translocation? a. attached tRNAs and the ribosome b. attached tRNAs and the polypeptide chain c. the ribosome only d. the ribosome and the polypeptide chain e. the polypeptide chain only 41. The process of linking the correct amino acid to a tRNA molecule is catalyzed by ____. a. the tRNA itself b. RNA polymerase c. an mRNA d. the ribosome e. an aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

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Chap 15_5e 42. Protein-encoding genes in eukaryotes are transcribed by ____. a. RNA polymerase I b. RNA polymerase II c. RNA polymerase III d. either RNA polymerase I or III e. either RNA polymerase II or III 43. Which bases are found in RNA? a. adenine and uracil only b. adenine, thymine, and cytosine only c. adenine, uracil, and cytosine only d. adenine, uracil, guanine, and cytosine e. adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine 44. The pre-mRNA transcript of mammalian α-tropomyosin undergoes ____ to produce different mRNAs in smooth and striated muscles. a. aminoacylation b. alternative splicing c. polyadenylation d. degeneracy e. exon shuffling 45. The ____ , located ____ of the transcription start point, is the site at which RNA polymerase associates with DNA to begin transcription. a. promoter; upstream b. initiator; downstream c. initiator; upstream d. promoter; downstream e. intron; downstream 46. In the process of mRNA splicing, the lariat structure is the ____. a. splicing complex b. region where two exons are pasted together c. enzyme that cuts the pre-mRNA d. released intron e. region where two introns are pasted together

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Chap 15_5e

Figure 15.1 47. The structure in the figure above represents a molecule of ____. a. pre-mRNA b. tRNA c. snRNA d. mRNA e. rRNA 48. The regions retained in finished mRNA transcripts after pre-mRNA processing are called ____. a. spliceosomes b. snRNPs c. exons d. domains e. introns 49. Proteins that function in the cytosol are synthesized ____. a. on free ribosomes in the cytosol b. on the rough ER before being transported to the cytosol c. in the Golgi apparatus d. on the rough ER before being transported to the Golgi apparatus e. in the nucleus before being transported to the cytosol

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Chap 15_5e 50. The process of removing introns from mRNA and joining exons together occurs in a complex called the ____. a. ribosome b. anticodon c. lariat d. polysome e. spliceosome 51. The antibiotics streptomycin and erythromycin work by inhibiting the function of ____ in bacteria, but not eukaryotes. a. RNA polymerases b. aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases c. spliceosomes d. DNA polymerases e. ribosomes 52. During translation, mRNA is read in the ____ direction and the polypeptide is assembled from the ____. a. 5'—>3'; N-terminal end to the C-terminal end b. 5'—>3'; C-terminal end to the N-terminal end c. 3'—>5'; N-terminal end to the C-terminal end d. 3'—>5'; C-terminal end to the N-terminal end e. 5'—>5'; N-terminal end to the C-terminal end 53. The genetic code is said to be degenerate because ____. a. some codons do not specify an amino acid b. most amino acids are represented by more than one codon c. the code varies considerably between different organisms d. the code is commaless with no indicators of spaces between codons e. the code varies considerably between different cell types within a multicellular organism 54. Mutagenesis ____. a. is an example of spontaneous mutation b. acts directly on proteins by causing them to unfold c. occurs due to a single mRNA being translated by too many ribosomes simultaneously d. is the production of mutations in a laboratory by exposure of a living organism to a mutagen e. occurs when errors made by DNA polymerase are not repaired 55. In which process are existing protein regions or domains mixed in novel combinations to produce new proteins? a. alternative splicing b. degeneracy c. exon shuffling d. the wobble hypothesis e. aminoacylation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 56. Which proteins below are made only on free ribosomes in the cytosol? a. glycolytic enzymes b. digestive enzymes c. microtubule proteins d. cell surface receptors e. both microtubules and glycolytic enzymes 57. Energy for the three stages of translation is directly provided by ____. a. sugars b. ATP c. GTP d. dNTP e. fats 58. The ribosome binding site in an mRNA transcript is located ____ and is where ____. a. at the start codon; the large ribosomal subunit binds to the mRNA-tRNA complex in prokaryotes b. just upstream of the start codon; the large ribosomal subunit binds to mRNA in eukaryotes c. at the start codon; the small ribosomal subunit binds to the mRNA-tRNA complex in eukaryotes d. on aminoacyl-tRNA; the large ribosomal subunit binds to tRNA in prokaryotes e. just upstream of the start codon; the small ribosomal subunit binds to mRNA in prokaryotes 59. Proteins are sorted to mitochondria, chloroplasts, and the nucleus after they have been made on _________. This sorting mechanism is called ___________. a. ribosomes bound to the endoplasmic reticulum; posttranslational import b. ribosomes bound to the endoplasmic reticulum; cotranslational import c. ribosomes bound to the Golgi complex; posttranslational import d. free ribosomes in the cytosol; posttranslational import e. free ribosomes in the cytosol; cotranslational import 60. A ribosome consists of ____. a. two small subunits b. two large subunits c. three subunits of different size d. rRNA and ribosomal proteins e. tRNA and ribosomal proteins 61. The region in a tRNA molecule that base-pairs with mRNA during translation is the ____. a. anticodon b. aminoacylation site c. TATA box d. cloverleaf e. reading frame Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 62. Transcription is terminated in prokaryotes by ____. a. generation of a stop codon b. transcription of an mRNA terminator sequence c. splicing introns out and pasting exons together d. generation of a guanine cap e. generation of a poly-A tail 63. Small ribonucleoprotein particles (snRNPs) are involved in ____. a. mRNA splicing b. initiation of transcription c. aminoacylation of tRNA d. initiation of translation e. termination of translation 64. Insertion of two bases into the coding region of a gene just after the start codon of a gene will result in a ____ mutation. a. missense b. chromosomal c. frameshift d. silent e. nonsense 65. Pre-mRNA is found____. a. only in prokaryotes b. in both the nucleus and cytoplasm of eukaryotes c. only in the cytoplasm of eukaryotes d. in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes e. only in the nucleus of eukaryotes 66. The process of translation refers to the use of information encoded in ____ to make ____. a. RNA; a complementary DNA copy b. DNA; a polypeptide c. DNA; a complementary RNA copy d. a polypeptide; RNA e. RNA; a polypeptide 67. Substitution of one base pair for another in a coding region of a gene can result in a ____ mutation where a codon specifying an amino acid is changed to a stop codon. a. missense b. chromosomal c. frameshift d. silent e. nonsense Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 68. For most eukaryotic genes, translation begins in the____. a. cytoplasm b. nucleolus c. nucleus d. mitochondria e. Golgi apparatus 69. During transcription, ____. a. double-stranded RNA chains are produced b. the entire DNA molecule is copied to RNA c. primase creates an RNA primer to start the RNA strand d. only one of the two DNA strands acts as a template e. protein is made from RNA 70. Substitution of one base pair for another in a coding region of a gene can result in a ____ mutation where the changed codon specifies a different amino acid. a. missense b. chromosomal c. frameshift d. silent e. nonsense Match each of the following types of RNA with the correct description. a. RNA transcribed from a protein-coding gene that is ready to be translated b. RNA that binds with proteins in a complex that is involved in removing introns and joining exons c. RNA that forms part of the ribosome d. RNA with an anticodon and a linkage site for a specific amino acid e. RNA in eukaryotes that must be processed in the nucleus before it is ready to be translated 71. snRNA 72. pre-mRNA 73. tRNA 74. rRNA 75. mRNA

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Chap 15_5e Match each of the following terms with its correct definition. a. Indicates the end of transcription in prokaryotes b. First codon read in translation c. Amino-acid coding sequence retained in mature mRNA d. Indicates the end of translation e. Control sequence ahead of a transcription unit 76. Promoter 77. Exon 78. Stop codon 79. Terminator 80. Start codon For each of these items or events, indicate the process with which it is associated. Some choices may be used more than once. a. Processing of pre-mRNA b. Translation c. Sorting proteins in cells d. Transcription 81. TATA box 82. Ribosome 83. Spliceosome 84. Capping enzyme 85. Signal peptidase 86. RNA polymerase

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Chap 15_5e Examine the following figure. Match each letter of the figure with the appropriate structure or protein involved in transcription.

Figure 15.2 a. a b. b c. c d. d e. e 87. RNA transcript 88. Template strand 89. Nontemplate strand 90. RNA polymerase 91. Hybrid RNA-DNA double helix 92. Describe how exon shuffling could lead to the formation of novel proteins.

93. Missense, nonsense, and silent mutations are all caused by single base changes in the coding region of a gene. How are these three types of mutations different?

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Chap 15_5e

94. ©2014 Brooks/Cole, Cengage Learning Using the genetic code shown here, predict the amino acid sequence that would be produced from the following partial DNA sequence if the top strand is the template strand: 3'-...TAC ACG TGG ACG TGA TTC TTA...-5' 5'-...ATG TGC ACC TGC ACT AAG AAT...-3'

95. List two main differences between the processes of transcription and DNA replication.

96. Describe the process of transcription in prokaryotes.

97. Briefly describe the positions of tRNA in the ribosome and relate them to the process of translation elongation.

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Chap 15_5e 98. Describe the process of mRNA splicing.

99. Compare and contrast the cellular locations, templates, and products of transcription and translation in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

100. Explain how proteins that are produced in a cell are correctly directed to the cytosol, the endomembrane system, and the mitochondria.

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Chap 15_5e Answer Key 1. b 2. b 3. b 4. e 5. c 6. b 7. d 8. e 9. a 10. d 11. b 12. b 13. a 14. a 15. d 16. c 17. a 18. c 19. d 20. e 21. d 22. d 23. d 24. e 25. d 26. b

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Chap 15_5e 27. a 28. c 29. c 30. d 31. a 32. c 33. d 34. b 35. c 36. c 37. b 38. d 39. e 40. c 41. e 42. b 43. d 44. b 45. a 46. d 47. b 48. c 49. a 50. e 51. e 52. a 53. b 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 55. c 56. e 57. c 58. e 59. d 60. d 61. a 62. b 63. a 64. c 65. e 66. e 67. e 68. a 69. d 70. a 71. b 72. e 73. d 74. c 75. a 76. e 77. c 78. d 79. a 80. b 81. d 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 83. a 84. a 85. c 86. d 87. c 88. e 89. b 90. a 91. d 92. Exon-intron junctions often fall at points that divide major functional regions, or domains, in encoded proteins. Genetic duplications and rearrangements can occasionally cut and paste parts of different genes together. When the cutting and pasting happens within introns, this will bring together novel combinations of exons that will produce a new protein. The individual domains generally retain their specific function in the new protein. This mechanism can produce changes more quickly and more efficiently than random point mutations that only affect individual amino acids in a protein. 93. Silent mutations do not lead to an amino acid change in the resulting protein encoded by the DNA. Missense mutations do lead to an amino acid change in the resulting protein encoded by the DNA. Nonsense mutations change a codon that specifies an amino acid into a stop codon, thus resulting in the production of a shortened protein. 94. If the top strand is the template strand, the RNA will be 5’- ...AUG UGC ACC UGC ACU AAG AAU...-3’ Therefore, the amino acid sequence for this stretch of nucleotides would be met-cys-thr-cys-thr-lys-asn 95. Only one DNA strand is used as a template for transcription, but both are used as templates for DNA replication. Only a small portion of the DNA strand, the coding sequence of a gene, is used as a template for transcription, whereas the entirety of both strands of DNA is used as a template for replication. 96. First, RNA polymerase binds directly to specific promoter sequences immediately upstream of where production of the mRNA will begin; the enzyme is directed to the promoter by a protein factor that is released once transcription begins. RNA polymerase unwinds the DNA to expose the template strand and begins synthesizing a new RNA molecule just past the promoter region. Only one of the DNA strands is used as a template, and the RNA strand is synthesized in the 5'—>3' direction, antiparallel to the template DNA strand. RNA polymerase progresses away from the promoter, growing the RNA strand. As the RNA strand elongates, it is displaced from the DNA immediately behind the RNA polymerase as the DNA strands reform the DNA double helix. Eventually, the RNA polymerase reaches a DNA terminator sequence. For one type of terminator, the terminator sequence is transcribed and folds into a shape that causes the transcript to separate from the DNA template and the RNA polymerase. This ends transcription in prokaryotes.

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Chap 15_5e 97. A ribosome has three locations where tRNAs can be found: the A, P, and E sites. During elongation, new, charged tRNAs enter the A site of the ribosome. The P site is adjacent to the A site in the ribosome. The polypeptide chain linked to the tRNA in the P site forms a peptide bond with the amino acid on the tRNA in the A site. After the polypeptide chain is transferred to the tRNA in the A site, translocation occurs, moving the tRNA in the P site to the E site and the tRNA in the A site to the P site. The uncharged tRNA in the E site will exit the ribosome. The P site now holds the tRNA bound to the polypeptide chain. A new, charged tRNA enters the A site, and the process repeats. 98. First, snRNPs bind with sequences at the intron-exon junctions. Additional snRNPs are recruited to form a larger complex that loops out the intron and brings the two exon ends close together; the active spliceosome has now formed. The active spliceosome then cuts the pre-mRNA at the 3' end of the first exon and the 5' end of the adjacent intron, and the intron loops back to bond with itself at its 3' end. The spliceosome then cuts the pre-mRNA at the junction between the 3' end of the intron and the 5' end of the next exon and joins together the exons that were on either side of the intron. The intron (called a lariat structure because of its shape) is released and later degraded by enzymes. Meanwhile, the spliceosome disassembles as the snRNPs are released. When all introns are removed and all exons are joined together, the mRNA is finished and ready for translation. 99. In prokaryotes, both transcription and translation occur in the cytoplasm. In eukaryotes, transcription occurs in the nucleus and translation occurs in the cytoplasm. In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, DNA is used as a template for transcription to produce an mRNA product, and the mRNA product is used as a template for translation to produce a protein product. In eukaryotes, the direct product of transcription is pre-mRNA, which must be processed in the nucleus before it is released into the cytoplasm for translation. Processing events include the additions of a 5' guanine-containing cap and a 3' poly(A) tail, as well as the removal of introns from the pre-mRNA. In prokaryotes, a mature mRNA is directly produced by transcription and is immediately available for translation. 100. Proteins destined for the cytosol are synthesized on free ribosomes, so the proteins are simply released into the cytosol after termination of translation. Proteins targeted for the endomembrane system are also made on free ribosomes. However, they have a short signal sequence (signal peptide) of amino acids near their N-terminal ends that allows the proteins to be delivered to the rough ER (RER), where translation is completed as the proteins enter the lumen of the RER. This sorting mechanism is called cotranslational import because the import of the polypeptide into the RER occurs simultaneously with the translation of the mRNA encoding the polypeptide. Once protein synthesis is complete and the polypeptides are in the RER lumen, they are folded into their final form, chemically modified by the addition of carbohydrate groups and perhaps being given a chemical tag that specifies the final destination of each protein, if they do not already have a specific amino acid sequence that specifies their destination. The proteins may remain in the RER, or they may be directed to another location if their specific tag directs their transport elsewhere. Proteins that need to be delivered to the mitochondria are also made on free ribosomes, but contain a targeting signal that directs them to the mitochondria. The targeting signals are recognized by specific receptors on the mitochondrial surface, which trigger the import of the protein into the organelle by specific pathways. This sorting mechanism is called posttranslational import because it occurs after translation has been completed.

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Chap 16_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Long noncoding RNAs ____. a. are transcribed by RNA polymerase I rather than by RNA polymerase II b. do not have their introns removed c. are missing a 5' cap and 3' poly(A) tail d. may regulate the expression of protein-coding genes e. encode large proteins 2. One function of the 3' UTR (untranslated region) of mRNA is to ____. a. control the half-life of mRNA b. bind RNA polymerase to initiate transcription c. help activators bind to the enhancer region d. base pair with the translated region of the transcript to mark it for degradation e. bind ribosomes to initiate translation 3. Methylation regulates transcription by ____. a. adding a methyl group to cytosine bases of DNA b. adding a methyl group to cysteine residues on RNA polymerase II c. adding a methyl group to cysteine bases of DNA d. adding a methyl group to cytosine residues on RNA polymerase II e. interfering with the chromatin remodeling process 4. Genes under positive control are ____. a. off until they are turned on b. always expressed c. expressed unless a repressor protein is present d. controlled by several promoters to increase transcription e. regulated by feedback inhibition 5. Steroid hormones can trigger gene expression in a select number of cells because ____. a. only target cells allow the steroid hormone to cross the plasma membrane b. nontarget cells have a steroid hormone response element encoded in their DNA c. only target cells have the correct receptor in their cytosol to bind to the hormone d. nontarget cells lack the genes found in target cells e. only target cells have the genes that steroid hormones activate 6. An unmutated version of an oncogene in a normal cell is called a ____. a. growth-inhibiting factor gene b. driver gene c. proto-oncogene d. pre-oncogene e. tumor suppressor gene Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_5e 7. What is the relationship between operons and transcription units? a. They are synonymous terms. b. An operon consists of a transcription unit plus associated regulatory DNA sequences. c. A transcription unit consists of an operon plus associated regulatory DNA sequences. d. An operon is composed of multiple transcription units. e. A transcription unit is composed of multiple operons. 8. In prokaryotes, high levels of cAMP ____. a. are present when glucose levels are high b. are present when glucose levels are low c. negatively regulate the lac operon d. promote CAP production e. lead to CAP degradation 9. The anterior-posterior orientation of Drosophila embryos is initially controlled and determined by ____. a. maternal-effect genes b. gap genes c. pair rule genes d. segment polarity genes e. homeotic genes 10. Changes in pre-mRNA processing and the rate at which mRNAs are degraded are a part of ____. a. histone modifications b. chromatin remodeling c. transcriptional regulation d. posttranscriptional regulation e. genomic imprinting 11. In eukaryotic cells, ____. a. gene expression is regulated mostly at the level of transcription b. all mRNAs tend to remain stable for about the same length of time c. mRNA activity is altered through modifications, such as phosphorylation d. promoters are typically "on" in the absence of regulatory proteins e. genes involved in similar processes are clustered together in operons 12. Hox genes, one class of ____ genes, contain a conserved ____ region and encode transcription factors. These encoded transcription factors contain a _____ that corresponds to the conserved region in the Hox genes and binds to the regulatory sequences of the target genes whose transcription they regulate. a. maternal-effect; homeodomain; homeobox b. segmentation; homeobox; homeodomain c. segmentation; homeodomain; homeobox d. homeobox; homeobox; homeodomain e. homeobox; homeodomain; homeobox Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_5e 13. Other than the proteins that they encode, what is a major difference between cell-specific and housekeeping genes? a. Cell-specific genes are expressed only in a single cell type; housekeeping genes are expressed in all cell types. b. Cell-specific genes have promoter proximal elements and enhancers; housekeeping genes have only promoter proximal elements. c. Cell-specific genes have promoter proximal elements that use cell-specific activators; housekeeping genes use "universal" activators found in all cells. d. Cell-specific genes are only found in certain cell types; housekeeping genes are found in all cell types. e. Cell-specific genes have promoter proximal elements that use "universal" activators found in all cells; housekeeping genes have promoter proximal elements that respond only to cell-specific activators. 14. A tumor comprised of cells that invade and disrupt surrounding tissues is called a(n) ____ tumor. a. benign b. malignant c. oncogenic d. unsuppressed e. familial 15. In the lac operon, CAP binding to the CAP site of the promoter ____. a. occurs when glucose is present b. inhibits RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter c. occurs when cAMP is absent d. helps the repressor protein bind to the operator e. enables RNA polymerase to transcribe the operon’s genes 16. Regulatory proteins bind to the ____ of a gene operon. a. transcription unit only b. promoter only c. operator only d. transcription unit and promoter e. operator and promoter 17. p53 is a ____. a. transcription factor that turns on the expression of cell-division-inhibiting proteins b. protein encoded by an oncogene c. protein that promotes entry into the cell cycle when DNA is undamaged d. hormone used to treat cancer e. growth-promoting factor

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Chap 16_5e 18. In eukaryotes, ____ regulation is the first level at which gene expression is controlled. a. transcriptional b. translational c. posttranscriptional d. posttranslational e. replicative 19. Cytoplasmic determinants are ____. a. key mRNAs and proteins stored in the sperm cytoplasm that direct the early stages of development b. key mRNAs and proteins stored in the egg cytoplasm that direct the early stages of development c. evenly distributed throughout the egg cell d. distributed symmetrically to daughter cells e. proteins from the egg and sperm cytoplasm that interact to form novel protein complexes in the zygote 20. In a process called ____, cells lose their normal regulatory controls and revert partially or completely to an embryonic developmental state. a. metastasis b. embryogenesis c. induction d. determination e. dedifferentiation 21. Experiments with mouse cells indicate that long noncoding RNAs ____. a. block cardiac cell development b. play a critical role in cardiac cell differentiation c. are not expressed in embryonic stem cells d. are only expressed after cardiac cells have differentiated e. are transcription factors that promote cardiac cell differentiation 22. When lactose is present in the medium, RNA polymerase will bind to the ____ of the E. coli lac operon. a. lacI gene b. operator c. promoter d. transcription initiation site e. first codon of the lacZ gene 23. In prokaryotes, the genes for metabolic pathways are ____. a. always expressed for early steps in the pathway, but generally not expressed for later steps in the pathway b. always expressed so the bacteria can respond to rapidly changing conditions c. turned on and off as conditions change d. always independently regulated e. generally expressed at low levels, but expressed at high levels when conditions warrant Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_5e 24. The trp operon is an example of a(n) ____ operon where tryptophan acts as a(n) ____. a. inducible; inducer b. inducible; activator c. repressible; corepressor d. repressible; repressor e. repressible; inducer 25. Acetylation adds a ____ group ____. a. CH3CO—; to the cytosine nucleotides of DNA b. CH3CH2—; to the DNA of a promoter sequence c. CH3CO—; to the histone protecting the transcription unit of a gene d. CH3CO—; to the histone protecting the promoter region of a gene e. CH3CH2–; to the RNA polymerase that will initiate transcription at the promoter region 26. Increases in poly(A) tail length result in increased ____. a. transcription b. translation c. protein stability d. mRNA degradation e. alternative splicing 27. The trp operon is ____ unless tryptophan is ____. a. turned on; available in the environment b. turned on; bound to the operator c. turned off; bound to the repressor d. turned off; bound to the promoter e. turned on; synthesized by the trp repressor gene 28. The role of a tumor suppressor protein in a cell is to ____. a. promote cell division of healthy cells b. inhibit cell growth and division c. promote cell division of abnormal cells d. trigger DNA replication in preparation for cell division e. serve as a cell receptor for growth factors

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Chap 16_5e 29. A small molecule of RNA is transcribed in the nucleus. It is folded, cleaved by the Dicer enzyme, forms a complex with proteins, which then binds to a target molecule of mRNA. This molecule of RNA must be ____. a. miRNA b. siRNA c. an mRNA that was not properly capped d. an mRNA that never received its poly-A tail e. a transcript for a repressor protein 30. Sporadic cancers ____. a. may develop when proto-oncogenes mutate to form tumor suppressor genes b. may develop when tumor suppressor genes are over-expressed c. are caused by benign tumors d. are cancers that are not inherited e. are less frequent than familial cancers 31. If the lacI repressor gene were permanently silenced by a DNA mutation, what would be the impact on the expression of the lac operon? a. The lac operon would only be expressed if glucose were absent. b. The lac operon would always be expressed. c. There would be no impact on lac operon expression. d. The lac operon would only be expressed when lactose was present. e. The lac operon would never be expressed. 32. Which genes encode proteins that regulate the cell cycle in normal cells? a. tumor suppressor genes b. proto-oncogenes c. oncogenes d. tumor suppressor genes and proto-oncogenes e. tumor suppressor genes, proto-oncogenes, and oncogenes 33. If an operon is regulated by ____ control, genes are ____ by a regulatory protein called a ____. a. positive; on unless they are switched off; repressor b. negative; off unless they are switched on; repressor c. negative; on unless they are switched off; repressor d. positive; off unless they are switched on; repressor e. positive; on unless they are switched off; activator

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Chap 16_5e 34. Pepsin, a digestive enzyme that degrades proteins in the stomach, is synthesized as pepsinogen and converted to active pepsin in the stomach by the removal of several amino acids. The activation of pepsin is an example of ____. a. transcriptional regulation b. translational regulation c. posttranscriptional regulation d. posttranslational regulation e. RNAi 35. Genes expressed in almost all cell types are called ____ genes. a. housekeeping b. regulated c. activator d. homeotic e. structural 36. When a DNA promoter sequence is methylated, ____. a. it is permanently silenced because the methyl group can never be removed b. it is temporarily silenced because the methyl group can be removed c. it is perpetually transcribed because the methyl group can never be removed d. it is temporarily transcribed because the methyl group can be removed e. the impact on expression depends on the gene being controlled by the promoter 37. Micro RNAs (miRNAs) are important in ____. a. alternative splicing b. transcriptional activation c. chromatin remodeling d. genomic imprinting e. RNA interference (RNAi) 38. The expression of any gene can be _______ using ____. a. knocked out completely; miRNA b. knocked out completely; siRNA c. knocked out completely; RNAi d. knocked down to low levels; RNAi e. knocked down to low levels; siRNA, but not miRNA 39. A driver gene ____. a. contains a driver mutation that does not affect gene expression b. does not have any effect on cancer progression c. contains a driver mutation that causes apoptosis in normal cells d. contains a driver mutation or is expressed abnormally and confers a growth advantage on the cell e. is the unmutated form of a proto-oncogene Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_5e 40. Which statement accurately describes the relationship between RNAi, small interfering RNA (siRNA), and miRNA? a. They all describe different methods of post-translational gene regulation. b. miRNAs are classified into two types: RNAi molecules and siRNAs. c. RNAi occurs in two ways: by miRNAs or by siRNAs. d. RNAi is accomplished by siRNA and miRNA, but only siRNAs are cleaved by Dicer proteins. e. miRNAs are transcribed from viruses, while siRNAs are transcribed from nuclear DNA; both are types of RNAi. 41. Transcription of the lac operon is most efficient when ____. a. cAMP levels are low b. the CAP site of the promoter is not bound to cAMP c. glucose is present and lactose is absent d. lactose is present and glucose is absent e. lactose and glucose are present 42. What is the relationship between operators, transcription units, and operons? a. Operators contain transcription units and operons. b. Operons contain transcription units and operators. c. Operators contain multiple transcription units associated with a single operon. d. Operons contain multiple operators associated with a single transcription unit. e. Operons contain multiple transcription units associated with a single operator. 43. Oncogenes are ____ to ____. a. dominant; proto-oncogenes b. recessive; proto-oncogenes c. incompletely dominant; proto-oncogenes d. dominant; tumor suppressor genes e. recessive; tumor suppressor genes 44. Why is ubiquitin nicknamed the "doom tag"? a. When ubiquitin binds to a target protein, the ubiquitin enzyme degrades the protein. b. When ubiquitin binds to a target protein, the complex is sent to the proteasome and degraded. c. If a cell is deficient in ubiquitin, the cell will die. d. High levels of ubiquitin in a cell cause the cell to destroy vital proteins, leading to premature cell death. e. Ubiquitin binds to ribosomes and prevents them from translating proteins necessary for cell survival.

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Chap 16_5e 45. Which statement correctly describes BRCA? a. Mutations to BRCA2 appear to be more lethal than mutations to BRCA1. b. It is an oncogene associated with breast cancer. c. It is a tumor suppressor gene associated with breast cancer. d. BRCA mutations are not inherited. e. BRCA is a proto-oncogene involved in breast tissue development. 46. Gene silencing ____. a. cannot be inherited b. occurs when DNA is methylated c. occurs due to histone acetylation d. is an example of posttranscriptional regulation e. occurs only on the X chromosome 47. Many proto-oncogenes encode ____. a. growth-inhibiting factors b. intracellular receptors c. tumor suppressor proteins d. receptors for growth-inhibiting factors e. growth factors 48. The E. coli lac operon encodes three genes. These genes ____. a. cleave lactose into glucose and galactose, produce transacetylase, and actively transport lactose into the cell b. encode an enzyme that cleaves glucose, a transport protein for active transport, and a transacetylase enzyme for solubilizing lactose in the cytosol c. encode an enzyme that cleaves lactose, a transport protein for active transport of lactose, and a transacetylase enzyme whose function is unknown d. catalyze the synthesis of lactose from glucose and galactose, produce transacetylase, and actively export lactose from the cell e. directly interact with the Lac repressor and initiate their own transcription 49. Where is the trp repressor gene located? a. Just upstream of the trp operon b. On a region of the chromosome at some distance from the trp operon c. Adjacent to the lac repressor gene d. Just downstream of the trp operon e. Directly adjacent to the promoter region of the trp operon

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Chap 16_5e 50. How is lac operon transcription regulated by the presence or absence of lactose? a. When lactose is available, the repressor will bind to allolactose instead of blocking RNA polymerase by binding to the operator. b. When lactose is not available, the repressor will bind to the promoter and block RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter. c. When lactose is not available, the repressor will bind to allolactose. d. When lactose is available, allolactose is produced and binds to the operator, blocking RNA polymerase. e. In the absence of lactose, transcription occurs at a low level, resulting in the production of allolactose, which, in turn, stimulates the cell to take up lactose. 51. When histones are rearranged to control gene access, it is called ____. a. transcription b. chromatin remodeling c. DNA condensation d. remodeling complex formation e. acetylation 52. Which process sets the developmental fate of an embryonic cell? a. fertilization b. meiosis c. induction d. differentiation e. determination 53. A bridge is formed between the activators at the enhancer and the proteins at the promoter and promoter proximal region by ____. a. hormones b. RNA polymerase II c. repressors d. inducers e. coactivators 54. How does RNA polymerase II bind to the DNA? a. It binds directly to the eukaryotic promoter sequence. b. It binds directly to the TATA box. c. It binds to transcription factors in the nucleus, and the complex then binds to the promoter. d. Transcription factors first bind to the promoter, then recruit RNA polymerase II to that site. e. Some transcription factors bind to the promoter, while others bind to RNA polymerase II, then the two groups of proteins bind to each other.

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Chap 16_5e 55. The genes in an operon are ____. a. each transcribed into individual mRNAs b. transcribed into a single mRNA transcript c. controlled by separate promoters d. transcribed as a single mRNA in prokaryotes, but as individual mRNAs in eukaryotes e. located at different chromosomal loci 56. Variations in pre-mRNA processing, such as in ____, can determine which ____ are made in cells. a. alternative splicing; proteins b. exon shuffling; proteins c. alternative splicing; transcripts d. histone modifications; transcripts e. genomic imprinting; transcripts 57. Posttranslational modification includes ____. a. cleavage of poly-A tails from mRNA b. the binding of miRNAs to mRNA c. the chemical modification, processing, and degradation of proteins d. chromatin remodeling e. splicing of mRNAs 58. When cells differentiate, they ____. a. lose DNA b. remain totipotent c. express a specific subset of genes d. stop growing e. gain DNA 59. Transcription factors that control genes for developmental events are encoded by ____ genes. a. transcriptomes b. domestic c. master regulatory d. elevator e. secretory 60. Which level of regulation directly determines the rate at which proteins are made? a. transcriptional regulation b. posttranscriptional regulation c. translational regulation d. posttranslational regulation e. chromatin remodeling regulation

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Chap 16_5e 61. A cell that is totipotent ____. a. has the potential to become any cell type of the adult b. induces nearby cells to follow a certain developmental pathway c. will never differentiate d. will not undergo determination e. has unregulated gene expression 62. In RNAi, imperfect pairing of miRNA to target mRNA results in ____ or ____, while perfect pairing of miRNA to target mRNA causes ____. a. blocking transcription of the target mRNA; a shorter half-life for the mRNA; mRNA degradation b. blocking translation of the target mRNA; a shorter half-life for the mRNA; mRNA degradation c. recruitment of siRNA; a shorter half-life for the mRNA; blocking translation of the target mRNA d. mRNA degradation; a longer half-life for the mRNA; recruitment of siRNA e. blocking target mRNA transcription; blocking translation of the target mRNA; a longer half-life for the mRNA 63. Gene regulation in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes ____. a. involves significant chromatin remodeling b. requires transcription and translation to occur in separate cellular compartments c. produces differentiated cells d. involves transcriptional control e. involves alternative splicing 64. Which statement about eukaryotic gene organization and regulation is correct? a. There is only one promoter for each gene. b. There is only one transcription start site (TSS) for each gene. c. A gene may have more than one promoter and more than one transcription start site (TSS). d. Transcription start sites (TSSs) are highly evolutionarily conserved. e. Data shows there are more genes than promoters in the human genome. 65. Eukaryotic cells regulate the expression of multiple genes by having ____. a. individual activators for individual genes b. a few activators that can interact with small subsets of genes c. activators that serve as catalysts for further activator protein synthesis d. a few activators that work in different combinations to activate different genes e. a single activator that undergoes modifications to enable interaction with different promoters

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Chap 16_5e 66. A key difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic genomes is ____. a. the lack of gene expression controls in prokaryotes b. the physical arrangement of genes on the chromosome(s) c. simultaneous transcription and translation in eukaryotes vs. sequential transcription and translation in prokaryotes d. the physical separation of transcription and translation in prokaryotes compared to the lack of separation of these processes in eukaryotes e. the regulation of the cell cycle by prokaryotes, which is not observed in eukaryotes. 67. When a(n) ____ by mutation, it confers a selective growth advantage to the cell. a. tumor suppressor gene is activated b. oncogene is inactivated c. proto-oncogene is inactivated d. tumor suppressor gene is inactivated e. apoptosis gene is activated 68. Some transcriptional repressors work by ____. a. binding to the same sequence where activators normally bind b. binding to and disabling the activator c. recruiting histone acetylation enzymes and thus interfering with chromatin remodeling d. binding to RNA polymerase II and preventing it from binding to the transcription factor complex e. methylating DNA 69. RNAi could be used as an anti-viral treatment by ____ and thus preventing viral infection and spread. a. degrading the viral genome or mRNAs and stopping key viral protein production b. increasing immune system response to the virus c. binding to receptors on host cells used for viral entry d. promoting expression of viral DNA-degrading enzymes e. stimulating host cells to produce anti-viral compounds 70. Removing a nucleosome from DNA to expose a promoter is an example of ____. a. induction b. dedifferentiation c. post-transcriptional regulation d. gene silencing e. chromatin remodeling 71. An enhancer is a sequence that increases transcription of a gene ____. a. when its orientation is the same as that of the gene it controls b. when it is located just downstream of the promoter c. when it is located just upstream of the promoter d. when it is distant from the gene it controls e. independently of its position, orientation, and distance from a promoter Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_5e 72. The primary difference between individual nucleated cells in a developing zygote is the ____. a. genetic code of each cell b. differential expression of housekeeping genes c. differential expression of regulated genes d. number of chromosomes present in the nucleus e. presence or absence of gene regulatory sequences

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Chap 16_5e Identify each labeled part in the following illustration of the lac operon.

Figure 16.2 (questions 80-90) a. a b. b c. c d. d e. e f. f g. g h. h i. i j. j k. k 73. lacZ 74. promoter 75. lacY 76. transcription termination site 77. lacI 78. lac operon 79. Lac repressor 80. lacA 81. operator 82. RNA polymerase 83. transcription initiation site

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Chap 16_5e Identify each labeled part of the following illustration of eukaryotic DNA.

Figure 16.1 (questions 73-79) a. a b. b c. c d. d e. e f. f g. g 84. activators 85. coactivator multiprotein complex 86. promoter 87. transcription initiation site 88. enhancer 89. proximal promoter region 90. RNA polymerase 91. Assume that a bacterial cell produces a Lac repressor that is able to bind to the operator sequence of the lac operon, but cannot bind allolactose. Explain the effect on transcription of the lac operon in the presence and absence of lactose.

92. Compare DNA methylation to histone acetylation.

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Chap 16_5e 93. Explain the difference between benign and malignant tumors.

94. Many breast cancers are associated with mutations in the BRCA1 gene. Explain the difference between sporadic and familial breast cancer caused by this gene at a molecular level.

95. Explain the concept of combinatorial gene regulation in eukaryotes.

96. Explain how Dicer and miRISC are involved in the production and function of miRNAs.

97. Describe the relationships between induction, determination, and differentiation.

98. Compare gene regulation in prokaryotes and eukaryotes, and explain the benefits of each regulatory arrangement.

99. Compare the functions of maternal-effect genes, segmentation genes, and homeotic genes in Drosophila.

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Chap 16_5e 100. The default state for the lac operon is "off," while the default state for the trp operon is "on." Explain this difference in regulation and the mechanism of control via the repressor proteins.

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Chap 16_5e Answer Key 1. d 2. a 3. a 4. a 5. c 6. c 7. b 8. b 9. a 10. d 11. a 12. d 13. c 14. b 15. e 16. c 17. a 18. a 19. b 20. e 21. b 22. c 23. c 24. c 25. d 26. b

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Chap 16_5e 27. a 28. b 29. a 30. d 31. b 32. d 33. c 34. d 35. a 36. b 37. e 38. d 39. d 40. c 41. d 42. b 43. a 44. b 45. c 46. b 47. e 48. c 49. b 50. a 51. b 52. e 53. e 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_5e 55. b 56. a 57. c 58. c 59. c 60. c 61. a 62. b 63. d 64. c 65. d 66. b 67. d 68. a 69. a 70. e 71. e 72. c 73. e 74. b 75. f 76. h 77. j 78. k 79. i 80. g 81. c 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_5e 83. d 84. a 85. g 86. e 87. f 88. c 89. d 90. b 91. The Lac repressor binds the operator in the absence of lactose to prevent transcription of the lac operon. However, when lactose is present, allolactose normally binds the repressor, removing the repressor from the operator and allowing transcription to occur. In this mutant bacterial cell, the repressor cannot bind allolactose. Therefore, there will be no transcription even in the presence of lactose because the repressor will remain bound to the operator. 92. DNA methylation and histone acetylation are two types of transcriptional regulation. Histone acetylation is a highly reversible way of granting transcriptional machinery access to a promoter. In histone acetylation, acetyl groups are added to specific amino acids in histone tails to loosen the association of histones with the DNA. DNA methylation silences gene expression by methylating cytosine bases in DNA, a process that is reversible. Both histone acetylation and DNA methylation are epigenetic phenomena that can be preserved from one generation to the next. 93. In benign tumors, the cells have dedifferentiated into a less specialized state. The cells remain in a single mass and do not invade surrounding tissues. For this reason, they are generally not life-threatening. Malignant tumors, in contrast, are disruptive to the surrounding tissues. Like benign tumors, they are comprised of dedifferentiated cells. Due to the disruptive nature of malignant tumors and their ability to metastasize, they are life-threatening. 94. In order to develop breast cancer from a mutation in the BRCA1 gene, both copies of the gene must be mutated. In sporadic breast cancer, the cell originally has two normal copies of the gene, but over time, a mutation arises in one copy and then the other. In familial cancer, an individual inherits one normal copy of the gene and one mutant copy. Therefore, a cell only needs to acquire a mutation in the one normal copy of the gene for cancer to develop. 95. Gene transcription is activated by the binding of transcription factors to promoters and other regulatory sequences. Different genes require different combinations of transcription factors for their activation, and each transcription factor can be involved in the activation of multiple genes. 96. RNA polymerase II transcribes the miRNA gene. Proteins process the pre-miRNA transcript to produce a stem-loop structure (a hairpin). Next, the pre-miRNA is exported to the cytoplasm where the Dicer enzyme removes the loop from the hairpin to produce a short, double-stranded RNA molecule (21 – 22 bp long). A protein complex binds to the double-stranded RNA, and an enzyme in the complex degrades one of the RNA strands, leaving the miRNA. The miRNA and the complex form the miRNA-induced silencing complex (miRISC). miRNA in the miRISC binds to target mRNAs that have complementary or nearly complementary base sequences in their 3' UTRs. If the pairing is imperfect, translation of that mRNA is blocked. If the pairing is perfect, the mRNA is degraded.

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Chap 16_5e 97. Induction is when a group of cells causes another group of cells to follow a certain developmental pathway. Induction leads to determination, which is the process that establishes a cell’s developmental fate to become a particular cell type. Once a cell is determined, it differentiates to become that particular cell type with its clearly defined structures and functions that derive from specific patterns of gene expression. Differentiation thus involves the establishment of a cell-specific developmental program in the cells. 98. In prokaryotes, the entire organism consists of a single cell. Because prokaryotes do not contain membrane-bound organelles (such as the nucleus), the processes of transcription and translation are not separated. Thus, transcription and translation can occur almost simultaneously on the same mRNA, and gene expression can be altered very quickly to respond to changing environmental conditions. Since translation can begin as soon as a transcript begins to be produced, the major form of gene expression control is at the level of transcription. In contrast, in eukaryotic organisms, the regulation is more complicated. Regulation of gene expression in eukaryotes must account for the complexity of eukaryotes; eukaryotic DNA is organized into nucleosomes, eukaryotes produce large numbers and types of cells, and the processes of transcription and translation are separated by the nuclear envelope in eukaryotes. By regulating gene expression at multiple stages or levels (i.e., transcriptional, posttranscriptional, translational, and posttranslational), eukaryotic organisms can coordinate cell division, differentiation, body development, and normal cellular functions. 99. Maternal-effect genes are expressed in the mother, and the transcripts are stored in the egg in patterns that dictate the anterior-posterior polarity of the egg and, therefore, the developing embryo. Segmentation genes are responsible for progressively subdividing the embryo into particular regions. Homeotic genes are master regulatory genes that specify what each segment will become by controlling the development of structures, such as wings, antennae, legs, and eyes on particular segments. 100. The lac operon's function is to allow a cell to use lactose as an energy source. Thus, the operon only needs to be expressed when lactose is present in the environment. Consequently, the Lac repressor normally binds to the operator, preventing transcription. However, when lactose is present, allolactose will bind to the repressor, thereby preventing the repressor from binding to the operator. When the repressor is not bound to the operator, RNA polymerase is able to transcribe the lac operon. The trp operon's function is to allow the bacterial cell to synthesize tryptophan, which is an amino acid used as a building block in protein synthesis. The cell must make tryptophan unless it is available in the environment. Therefore, the trp operon is on unless there is tryptophan available in the environment. When tryptophan is available, it binds to the Trp repressor and activates it, causing the repressor to bind to the operator and inhibit transcription of the operon.

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Chap 17_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. In an Hfr X F- conjugation, ____. a. the Hfr cell can lose chromosomal genes that it transfers to the F- cell b. the donor cell can become a partial diploid c. plasmid DNA is transferred from the Hfr cell to the F- cell d. chromosomal DNA can be transferred from the F- cell to the Hfr cell e. chromosomal DNA can be transferred from the Hfr cell to the F- cell 2. Following genetic recombination, ____. a. the bacterial cell is unable to divide b. the bacterial cell is no longer able to replicate its DNA c. the bacterial cell is a partial haploid d. any remnants of DNA that did not contribute to the genetic recombination form plasmids e. all progeny of the recombinant cell contain the new gene combination 3. All viruses must contain ____. a. proteins b. carbohydrates and proteins c. proteins and nucleic acids d. nucleic acids e. carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids 4. The linear DNA fragments taken up from disrupted infective cells recombine with the chromosomal DNA of the noninfective cells by ____, much in the same way as genetic recombination takes place during conjugation. a. meiosis b. metaphase II c. nuclear division d. crossovers e. transformation 5. Auxotrophs ____. a. are nutritional-requirement mutants b. can grow on minimal media c. feed on proteins d. make their own nutrients e. produce antibiotics

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Chap 17_5e 6. Cultures of genetically identical cells are called ____. a. bacteriophages b. clones c. prophages d. prions e. auxotrophs 7. Enveloped viruses ____. a. generally lyse host cells as they are released b. synthesize envelope lipids as they replicate within the host cell c. acquire their envelope as they bud from the host cell d. acquire their envelope as they enter the host cell e. always contain DNA genomes 8. Medium that contains a full complement of nutrient substances, including amino acids and other chemicals that normal bacterial strains can synthesize themselves, is called ____ medium. a. agar b. minimal c. nutritious d. complete e. rich 9. During bacterial conjugation, bacteria use a long tubular structure called a(n) ____ to contact each other. a. metabolic pilus b. asexual pilus c. flagellum d. cilia e. sex pilus 10. Transformation is used in genetic engineering to ____. a. generate bacteria with an F factor for conjugation b. understand how bacteriophages transfer DNA to bacteria c. obtain large quantities of viruses for study d. produce large quantities of the inserted DNA in order to increase yields of the target product e. introduce new genes into a bacterium’s mitochondrial DNA 11. R plasmids provide ____. a. antibiotic resistance b. a fertility factor c. transformation ability d. genes necessary for genetic recombination e. nutrients Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_5e 12. Conjugation is a process by which bacterial cells ____. a. transfer DNA from one cell to another through a cytoplasmic bridge b. release DNA into their surroundings to be taken up by neighboring bacteria c. disrupt each other by lysing cell membranes d. are infected with a virus e. use a bacteriophage to carry DNA from one bacterium to another 13. A researcher is looking for met- strains. He compares two plates. One plate has colonies growing on complete medium. The other plate has colonies growing on methionine-deficient medium. How can the researcher determine which colonies are met-? a. The colonies growing on the methionine-deficient plate are met-. b. Colonies growing on the complete medium, but not on the methionine-deficient medium are met-. c. More experiments must be performed to identify the met- colonies. d. All of the colonies growing on the complete medium are met-. e. Colonies growing on the methionine-deficient medium, but not on complete medium are met-. 14. Which of the following diseases is not caused by prions? a. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease b. mad cow disease c. Marburg hemorrhagic fever d. bovine spongiform encephalopathy e. kuru

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Chap 17_5e 16. Which statement correctly describes horizontal gene transfer? a. Conjugation, transformation, and transduction are all forms of horizontal gene transfer. b. Conjugation and transformation are forms of horizontal gene transfer, but transduction is a form of vertical gene transfer. c. Eukaryote-eukaryote transfers of nuclear genes are most common. d. Prokaryote-eukaryote transfers of nuclear genes are most common. e. Partial diploids never result from horizontal gene transfer. 17. In Lederberg and Tatum’s experiments with E. coli auxotrophs, they found that when cells of two mutant strains were cultured together, ____. a. cells were able to grow on minimal medium supplemented with nutrients required by the first mutant strain b. cells were able to grow on minimal medium supplemented with nutrients required by the second mutant strain c. some cells were able to grow on minimal medium d. no cells were able to grow on minimal medium e. cells were able to grow in liquid medium, but not on gel-like medium containing agar 18. How does a phage transfer DNA from one bacterium to another? a. Phages form a bridge between bacterial cells that allows DNA to pass from the host cell to the recipient cell. b. Phages form a bridge between bacterial cells that allows DNA to pass in both directions between the two cells. c. Phages lyse bacterial cells, releasing bacterial DNA into the environment, which is taken up by other phages for transfer to new cells. d. When phages assemble in an infected bacterial cell, they may incorporate host DNA; released phages may attach to other cells and inject the bacterial DNA into those cells. e. Phages attach to receptors on bacterial cells and receive some of the target cells' DNA; the phages release this DNA into the environment to be taken up by other bacterial cells. 19. What is the outcome of F+ X F- conjugation? a. The F- cell receives a copy of the F factor and becomes an F+ cell. b. The F- cell receives a copy of the F factor but remains an F- cell. c. Chromosomal DNA is transferred from the F+ cell to the F- cell. d. Chromosomal DNA is transferred from the F- cell to the F+ cell. e. A genetic recombination of bacterial genes takes place.

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Chap 17_5e 20. Donor cells in conjugation are labeled ____ cells, whereas recipient cells are labeled ____ cells. a. F+; Fb. F+; F+ c. F-; F+ d. F1; F2 e. F+; F2 21. The series of events from infection of a cell through the release of progeny phages from a lysed cell is called the ____ cycle. a. lytic b. lysogenic c. Krebs d. citric acid e. lytic or lysogenic 22. Hfr cells are bacterial cells that ____. a. perform meiosis b. have the F factor integrated into their chromosome c. maintain the F factor in a plasmid d. have a low frequency of recombination e. have received DNA from a bacteriophage

Figure 17.1 Use the accompanying figure for questions 9-11. 23. If strains 1 and 2 conjugate and are plated on minimal medium, cells growing on the minimal medium will have the genotype ____. a. bio- met- thr- leu+ b. bio+ met+ thr+ leu+ c. bio+ met- thr- leu+ d. bio+ met+ thr- leu+ e. bio- met- thr- leu-

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Chap 17_5e 24. DNA can be transferred from one bacterial cell to another by ____. a. conjugation only b. transformation only c. conjugation and transformation only d. conjugation and transduction only e. conjugation, transformation, and transduction

Figure 17.2 The accompanying figure above shows the distances between genes in minutes. Assume that the time listed between two genes corresponds to the transfer time of the first of the two genes in the pair. Use the figure to answer questions 29-32. 25. Suppose that after bacterial conjugation, the recipient cell contained the a and b genes. From this information, what can you conclude? a. The donor cell was unable to make contact with the recipient cell. b. The donor cell was F-. c. The donor cell produced an abnormal sex pilus. d. All of the genes could not fit through the sex pilus at one time. e. The sex pilus was broken before the rest of the genes could be transferred. 26. The purpose of the sex pilus is to ____. a. connect bacterial cells so a cytoplasmic bridge can form for conjugation b. form a gap junction between bacterial cells for conjugation c. block cytoplasmic exchange d. enable bacteriophage infection e. lyse the cell 27. Lederberg and Tatum used the bacterial strains bio- met- leu+ thr+ thi+ and bio+ met+ leu- thr- thi- in their experiments to determine if genetic recombination occurs in bacteria. Would it have been better to use two strains with the genotypes met- leu+ and met+ leu- instead? a. Yes, because it is easier to study two genes than five genes. b. Yes, because the met- leu+ and met+ leu- strains only have one mutation, which makes it easier for genetic recombination to occur. c. No, because the met- leu+ and met+ leu- strains only have one mutation. A single random mutation could restore methionine or leucine synthesis in the strains. d. No, because strains with only one nutrient-deficient gene can still grow on minimal medium. e. No, because cells have two genes that encode different versions of leucine, so the met+ leu- strain would still be able to grow on minimal medium. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_5e 28. In transduction, bacterial cells ____. a. take up pieces of DNA that are released as other cells disintegrate b. receive DNA from an infecting phage c. replicate DNA molecules d. make replicate copies of one another e. generate their own DNA 29. All viruses have genes encoding ____. a. the proteins of their capsid b. enzymes required for nucleic acid replication c. the proteins of their capsid and enzymes required for nucleic acid replication d. a plasma membrane e. the proteins of their capsid and a plasma membrane 30. A researcher exposes a nonvirulent strain of Streptococcus pneumoniae to heat-killed cells of a virulent strain. After exposure, the bacterial cells will be ____. a. transduced b. artificially transformed c. transformed d. nonvirulent e. conjugated 31. The F factor contains genes that encode____. a. lipids of the cytoplasmic bridge b. receptor proteins on the recipient cell c. bacteriophages d. DNA polymerase for plasmid DNA replication e. proteins of the sex pilus 32. A plate of solid growth medium with colonies on it is pressed gently onto sterile velveteen. The velveteen "stamp" is used to make identical plates. This technique is called ____. a. replication b. replica plating c. plating d. plate making e. horizontal gene transfer 33. The two basic structural forms taken by most viruses are ____. a. polyhedral or enveloped b. helical or enveloped c. helical or polyhedral d. cylindrical or polyhedral e. cylindrical or enveloped Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_5e 34. F+ cells ____. a. are able to conjugate with donor cells b. are able to conjugate with recipient cells c. are able to conjugate with other F+ cells d. receive DNA during conjugation e. are infected with a virus 35. Prions ____. a. are more complex than viruses b. have large DNA genomes c. cause neurodegenerative disorders in mammals d. infect plant cells e. encode their own polymerases for nucleic acid replication 36. Genetic recombination can occur ____. a. during DNA replication b. during asexual reproduction c. during mitosis d. from an Hfr X F- conjugation e. from an F+ X F- conjugation 37. Viruses with a tail attached at one side of a polyhedral head are called ____. a. simple viruses b. helical viruses c. enveloped viruses d. complex viruses e. viroids 38. Viruses that kill bacterial host cells during each cycle of infection are called ____. a. virulent bacteriophages b. enveloped viruses c. temperate bacteriophages d. phages e. nonvirulent bacteriophages

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Chap 17_5e 39. Small circles of DNA that occur in bacteria in addition to the main circular chromosomal DNA molecule are called ____. a. transformants b. plastids c. plasmids d. plasmitrons e. bacteriophages 40. Arrange the following steps of the HIV life cycle in order: 1.Viral RNAs and proteins assemble into new viral particles that bud from the cell. 2.DNA copy of the viral genome is integrated into the host genome. 3.Viral reverse transcriptase makes a double-stranded DNA copy of the viral RNA genome. 4.Viral particle enters the cell. 5.The provirus is transcribed into viral RNA genomes and mRNAs to make viral proteins. a. 3,2,5,1,4 b. 2,3,4,5,1 c. 4,2,3,1,5 d. 2,4,3,5,1 e. 4,3,2,5,1 41. A complete viral particle is called a ____. a. capsule b. virion c. capsid d. viroid e. prophage 42. Viroids ____. a. are more complex than viruses b. have large DNA genomes c. encode their own polymerase for nucleic acid replication d. cause diseases in plants e. infect animal cells 43. For some virulent phages, fragments of the host DNA may be included in the heads as the viral particles assemble, providing the basis for ____. a. transformation b. transmutation c. metabolism d. specific transduction e. generalized transduction

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Chap 17_5e 44. Bacteriophage lambda ____. a. is a temperate phage b. is a virulent phage c. infects plant cells d. infects animal cells e. is a T-even phage 45. How do the constituents of liquid medium differ from solid, gel-like medium? a. Liquid medium contains agar, a polysaccharide extracted from algae. b. Solid medium contains agar, a polysaccharide extracted from algae. c. Solid medium contains agar, a complex lipid extracted from bacterial membranes. d. Liquid medium contains more salts, which lower the freezing point. e. Solid medium contains more fatty acids, which raise the melting point. 46. The movement of genetic material between organisms other than by descent is called ____. a. vertical gene transfer b. horizontal gene transfer c. parallel gene transfer d. sexual reproduction e. asexual reproduction 47. Ammonium chloride, a commonly used salt in minimal medium, ____. a. is an organic carbon source b. provides nitrogen c. jellifies the medium d. liquefies the medium e. sterilizes the medium 48. Some animal viruses may enter a ____ stage in which the virus remains in the cell in inactive form. a. latent b. virulent c. temperate d. transformation e. lytic 49. The core of a virus is a ____ molecule. a. protein b. sugar c. nucleic acid d. fat e. phosphate

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Chap 17_5e 50. A colony of mice is treated with a nonvirulent strain of the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae. Before treatment, a researcher exposed this nonvirulent strain to heat-killed cells of a virulent strain. What will be the effect on the mouse population? a. The mice will all remain healthy. b. Some mice will develop a paralytic condition, but most will remain healthy. c. Most or all of the mice will develop pneumonia. d. Some mice will develop pneumonia, but most will remain healthy. e. The mice will become immune to the bacteria. 51. A virus in a lysogenic cycle is referred to as a ____. a. prophage b. virulent phage c. artificial phage d. T-even phage e. lytic phage 52. Laboratory strains of E. coli ____. a. undergo meiosis b. divide every 2 hours c. can be transformed, but not conjugated d. have been engineered to produce human insulin e. are harmful to humans 53. Viruses ____. a. can reproduce independently b. are made up of cells c. grow and develop d. generate metabolic energy e. adapt very readily over time 54. Electroporation ____. a. exposes cells briefly to rapid pulses of electrical current to induce transformation b. exposes cells to calcium ions to induce transformation c. exposes cells to calcium ions to induce transduction d. inserts the foreign DNA into chloroplast DNA e. inserts the foreign DNA into mitochondrial DNA 55. Temperate bacteriophages ____. a. kill their hosts during each cycle of infection b. infect only animals c. may enter an inactive phase in which they do not kill their host d. are enveloped viruses e. infect organisms living in temperate environments Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_5e 56. The results of Lederberg and Tatum’s experiments with E. coli auxotrophs indicated that ____. a. bacteria can be transformed when free DNA is available in their environment b. bacteria are able to exchange genetic material with eukaryotic organisms c. bacteria reproduce by sexual rather than asexual reproduction d. genetic recombination can occur in bacteria e. genetic recombination does not occur in bacteria since they do not undergo meiosis 57. The pattern of gene transfer from Hfr to F- cells ____. a. occurs with genes furthest from the F factor being transferred first b. can be used to map chromosomal genes in the F- cell c. was used to map the E. coli chromosome d. cannot be used to indicate the relative positions of genes within the Hfr cell e. is random because the F factor moves between different positions in the chromosome

Figure 17.2 The accompanying figure above shows the distances between genes in minutes. Assume that the time listed between two genes corresponds to the transfer time of the first of the two genes in the pair. Use the figure to answer questions 29-32. 58. In order to transfer gene a to an F- cell, the sex pilus must be in place for at least ____ minutes. a. 0 b. 6 c. 10 d. 14 e. 25 59. During the ____ cycle, viral DNA, which has been inserted into the host DNA, remains mostly or completely inactive, but is replicated and passed onto host cell progeny. a. lytic b. lysogenic c. Krebs d. citric acid e. lytic or lysogenic

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Chap 17_5e

Figure 17.1 Use the accompanying figure for questions 9-11. 60. The gene that governs a cell's ability to synthesize biotin from inorganic precursors is labeled “bio.” The designation bio+ indicates the ____. a. normal allele b. mutant allele c. bacterium is biologically active d. bacterium is biologically inactive e. bacterium cannot make its own biotin 61. What happens when a phage containing bacterial DNA attaches to and injects DNA into another bacterial cell? a. The phage is destroyed. b. The phage replicates. c. The bacterial cell dies from the phage infection. d. The bacterial cell lives and produces many copies of the phage. e. The bacterial cell becomes a partial diploid and may undergo genetic recombination. 62. The ability to conjugate depends on the presence of a plasmid called the ____ within the donor cell. a. X factor b. F factor c. C factor d. sex pilus e. S factor 63. Bacterial cells that cannot readily pick up DNA molecules from their surroundings can be induced to do so by ____. a. artificial transformation b. double crossing-over c. crossing-over d. constriction e. infection

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Chap 17_5e

Figure 17.2 The accompanying figure above shows the distances between genes in minutes. Assume that the time listed between two genes corresponds to the transfer time of the first of the two genes in the pair. Use the figure to answer questions 29-32. 64. The genetic map shown in the figure was generated by identifying transferred genes after ____. a. allowing transformation to proceed for varying amounts of time b. allowing conjugation to proceed for varying amounts of time c. bacterial cells were infected by various bacteriophages d. replica plating of E. coli auxotrophs e. allowing transduction to proceed for varying amounts of time 65. All viruses ____. a. are parasites of the host they infect b. replicate in the same way c. share the same structure d. use the same mechanisms for gene expression e. enter host cells in the same manner 66. During transformation, cells ____. a. take up pieces of DNA that are released as other cells disintegrate b. take up pieces of DNA through a viral infection c. replicate DNA molecules d. make replicate copies of one another e. generate their own DNA 67. Exposing E. coli to calcium ions and DNA and then incubating the culture at low temperatures in the presence of ice followed by a quick heat shock induces ____. a. artificial transformation b. a double crossover c. a single crossover d. DNA replication e. infection

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Chap 17_5e 68. Bacteria that undergo natural transformation ____. a. are very common b. are strains of E. coli c. are subjected to electroporation to induce DNA uptake d. generally have a DNA-binding protein on the exterior of their cell wall e. integrate foreign DNA into their chromosome through conjugation 69. Retroviruses ____. a. have DNA genomes b. use an RNA intermediate to replicate their genome c. replicate their RNA genome directly to produce progeny RNA genomes d. do not have an envelope e. require reverse transcriptase to replicate their genome 70. Genetic recombination ____. a. occurs in eukaryotes, but not prokaryotes b. involves exchange between non-homologous regions of DNA c. results from asexual reproduction d. decreases genetic diversity e. can occur in the absence of meiosis 71. As early as the 1940s, researchers knew that bacteria could be grown in a minimal medium containing ____ as an organic carbon source. a. peptidase b. glucose c. rubisco d. catalase e. ammonium chloride 72. If a phage is carrying host cell DNA fragments inside its capsid and then infects another bacterial cell, ____. a. it causes the recipient bacterium to shrink in size b. it kills the recipient bacterium in a matter of minutes c. it assembles a new organism that is a cross between the phage and the recipient bacterium d. it will not kill the recipient because it lacks the bacteriophage genome. e. it transforms the new recipient into a bacteriophage 73. T-even bacteriophages ____. a. infect E. coli b. are nonvirulent c. consist of a head with no tail d. contain two molecules of double-stranded DNA in their head e. are temperate bacteriophages that do not have a lytic cycle Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_5e 74. Bacteria ____. a. are haploid b. are diploid c. are polyploid d. have double-stranded RNA genomes e. have single-stranded DNA genomes

Figure 17.1 Use the accompanying figure for questions 9-11. 75. The gene that governs a cell's ability to synthesize methionine from inorganic precursors is labeled “met.” The designation met- indicates the ____. a. normal allele b. mutant allele c. bacterium is biologically active d. bacterium is biologically inactive e. bacterium can make its own methionine 76. Escherichia coli bacteria ____. a. has only recently been employed in scientific research b. can undergo natural transformation c. is a disease caused by prions d. replicates slowly e. can be infected by bacteriophages 77. The F factor can be integrated into the bacterial chromosome through ____. a. mitosis b. DNA replication c. transcription d. crossover events e. transduction

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Chap 17_5e Match each of the following terms with its correct definition. a. This cycle begins when the lambda phage chromosome integrates into the host cell's DNA by crossingover. Once integrated, the lambda genes are mostly inactive. b. Type of virus that does not kill a host cell in every replication cycle c. Type of virus that kills a host cell in every replication cycle d. When an animal virus remains in the cell in an inactive form. e. Enzyme that can make DNA from RNA. f. The cycle in which a virulent phage kills the bacterial cell by lysis as the phage is released. g. Virus with an RNA genome that is copied into DNA. h. Integrated viral DNA. i. Includes phages such as T2 and T4. j. Layer of protein surrounding the viral nucleic acid. k. During this process, DNA is transferred from one cell to another through a cytoplasmic bridge. l. Transferring DNA using a virus. m. E. coli phage. 78. Lytic cycle 79. Lysogenic cycle 80. Transduction 81. Virulent phage 82. Temperate phage 83. Latent stage 84. Reverse transcriptase 85. Retrovirus 86. Prophage 87. T-even bacteriophages 88. Conjugation 89. Capsid 90. Bacteriophage lambda Match each virus with its structure. a. Enveloped virus b. Polyhedral virus c. Helical virus d. Complex polyhedral virus 91. Tobacco mosaic virus 92. Herpes virus 93. T-even bacteriophage 94. Adenovirus Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_5e 95. What makes a prion unique as an infectious particle?

96. What is the main difference between a virulent and temperate bacteriophage?

97. Conjugation, transduction, and transformation are the three main mechanisms for gene transfer between bacteria. Compare these three mechanisms in terms of how DNA is transferred.

98. How can the influenza virus infect individuals who have been previously infected and, therefore, produce antibodies against this virus?

99. A bacterial cell that is bio- met- leu+ thr- thi+ is infected by a virus carrying bacterial DNA containing bio+ met+ leu- thr- thi+. If all five genes from the virally transduced DNA are recombined into the recipient cell, what kinds of nutrients will the resulting cell still require from the medium in order to grow? Explain your answer.

100. After conjugation between an F+ cell and an F- cell, does the F- cell remain as F- or does it become F+? After conjugation between an Hfr cell and an F- cell, does the F- cell remain as F- or does it become F+? Explain each answer.

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Chap 17_5e Answer Key 1. e 2. e 3. c 4. d 5. a 6. b 7. c 8. d 9. e 10. d 11. a 12. a 13. b 14. c 15. d 16. a 17. c 18. d 19. a 20. a 21. a 22. b 23. b 24. e 25. e 26. a

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Chap 17_5e 27. c 28. b 29. a 30. c 31. e 32. b 33. c 34. b 35. c 36. d 37. d 38. a 39. c 40. e 41. b 42. d 43. e 44. a 45. b 46. b 47. b 48. a 49. c 50. c 51. a 52. d 53. e 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_5e 55. c 56. d 57. c 58. b 59. b 60. a 61. e 62. b 63. a 64. b 65. a 66. a 67. a 68. d 69. e 70. e 71. b 72. d 73. a 74. a 75. b 76. e 77. d 78. f 79. a 80. l 81. c 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_5e 83. d 84. e 85. g 86. h 87. i 88. k 89. j 90. m 91. c 92. a 93. d 94. b 95. Prions are the only known infectious agents that do not contain a nucleic acid molecule. 96. A virulent phage kills its host with each infection cycle. A temperate phage might also kill the host, but it can also enter an inactive phase in which its viral DNA integrates into the host cell’s chromosome. 97. Conjugation involves the transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another via direct contact between the donor and recipient cells. In transduction, a virus packages some bacterial DNA into its capsid; when the virus infects another bacterial cell, it injects bacterial DNA from the first cell into the second cell. In transformation, bacteria take up from the surrounding medium DNA pieces that are released as other cells disintegrate. 98. The influenza virus mutates and infectious viruses are produced with new combinations of H and N proteins. Infection by a mutated virus means, therefore, that we see new antigens for which we now have to make new antibodies. In the meantime, the virus attacks cells and the symptoms of influenza develop. 99. If all five of the transduced genes recombine into the recipient DNA, the resulting cell will be bio+ met+ leu- thr- thi+. This means the cell will not be able to make its own leucine or threonine and will require both of these nutrients in the medium. 100. After conjugation between F+ and F- cells, the F- cell becomes F+ because the F factor is completely transferred from the F+ cell to the F- cell. After conjugation between Hfr and F- cells, the F factor is not completely transferred, and, therefore, the F- cell remains F-.

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Chap 18_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Reverse transcriptase creates a single-stranded DNA molecule that is complementary to an mRNA template. a. True b. False 2. Transgenic organisms contain extra copies of their own genes. a. True b. False 3. DNA fingerprinting is limited to human studies. a. True b. False 4. Pluripotent cells can differentiate into many, but not all, of the different cell types of the body. a. True b. False 5. Gene therapy is used to treat many diseases. a. True b. False 6. Different methodologies can be used to obtain the same information about a DNA sequence. a. True b. False 7. Germline and somatic gene therapy are used to treat human genetic diseases. a. True b. False 8. Gel electrophoresis can only be used to analyze DNA samples. a. True b. False 9. Genetically modified crops have been banned in the United States. a. True b. False 10. Adult stem cells can only differentiate into the cell types that comprise the tissues in which they are located. a. True b. False

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Chap 18_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Figure 18.1 (questions 44-47) 11. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Of the fragments labeled A-D, which is closest to the positive electrode? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. It is impossible to tell. 12. Crops that are resistant to the herbicide Roundup ____. a. express the enzyme degraded by Roundup at high levels so that not all of the enzyme is inhibited b. have an extra coating outside their cell wall that inhibits Roundup from entering the cells c. contain a bacterial version of the chloroplast enzyme inhibited by Roundup d. produce a compound that degrades Roundup e. do not have the membrane channels through which Roundup enters the plant 13. What is the main difference between germline gene therapy and somatic gene therapy? a. Only somatic gene therapy can result in the modified genes being passed to the next generation. b. The effects of germline gene therapy are limited to the current generation. c. In germline gene therapy, the gametes are altered; in somatic gene therapy, body cells affected by a genetic disorder are altered. d. In somatic gene therapy, the gametes are altered; in germline gene therapy, only the body cells are altered. e. Only germline gene therapy is ethical for research purposes in rodents

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Chap 18_5e 14. Which feature of a plasmid cloning vector is necessary for the plasmid to be replicated inside a host cell? a. lacZ+ gene b. ampicillin resistance gene c. origin of replication d. ribosomal binding site e. restriction site 15. Bacteria transformed with plasmids are plated on growth medium containing ampicillin and X-gal. White colonies on the plate contain bacteria with a ____ plasmid, meaning the lacZ+ gene is ____. a. recombinant; deleted from the plasmid b. nonrecombinant; intact c. recombinant; intact d. nonrecombinant; disrupted by the inserted DNA fragment e. recombinant; disrupted by the inserted DNA fragment 16. What molecular tool has applications like correcting gene mutations, creating specific mutations, knocking out genes, inserting genes, engineering animals for use in human organ transplants, engineering crops and livestock to improve yields, and developing animal models of human genetic diseases? a. agarose gel electrophoresis b. the CRISPR-Cas9 system c. gene targeting d. DNA cloning e. polymerase chain reaction (PCR) 17. Some restriction endonucleases cut DNA in such a way that short, single-stranded regions known as ____ ends are created. a. hydrogen-bonding b. sticky c. tacky d. blunt e. jagged 18. Copies of recombinant DNA are produced in a genetically engineered organism by ____. a. reverse transcriptase b. exonucleases c. restriction endonucleases d. DNA ligase e. DNA polymerase

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Chap 18_5e 19. 40. Identify the correct steps for cloning a gene of interest, then arrange them in the correct order. One of the steps below is left out of the answer. 1. Transform the bacteria. 2. Incubate the DNA fragments and cut cloning vector with DNA ligase. 3. Use restriction enzymes to cut the gene of interest and the cloning vector. 4. Spread bacteria on medium containing lactose and ampicillin. 5. Spread bacteria on medium containing X-gal and ampicillin. a. 4, 3, 1, 5 b. 3, 2, 5, 1 c. 3, 2, 1, 5 d. 2, 3, 1, 5 e. 3, 2, 1, 4

©2015 Brooks/Cole, Cengage Learning Figure 18.2 (question 74) 20. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The figure shows the alleles present at an STR locus in two adults and four juveniles. Which of the juvenile(s) could be offspring of the adults? a. juvenile 2 only b. juveniles 2 and 3 c. juveniles 1 and 4 d. juveniles 2 and 4 e. juveniles 1, 2, 3, and 4 21. What is the natural function of restriction endonucleases? a. research applications b. DNA manipulation in vitro c. defense against viruses that infect bacteria d. regulating bacterial gene expression e. breaking phosphodiester bonds in mammalian DNA

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Chap 18_5e 22. The DNA sequence recognized by restriction endonucleases is generally ____ base pairs long. a. 1-2 b. 4-8 c. 10-15 d. 24-32 e. 36-47 23. Mass quantities of a target DNA sequence can be obtained by ____. a. restriction endonuclease digestion only b. gene cloning only c. PCR only d. restriction endonuclease digestion and PCR e. gene cloning and PCR 24. A researcher wants to insert a DNA fragment into a plasmid. Which enzyme will join the two DNA molecules together? a. primase b. β-galactosidase c. restriction endonuclease d. DNA ligase e. DNA polymerase

Figure 18.1 (questions 44-47) 25. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Of the fragments labeled A-D, which is closest to the negative electrode? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. They are all the same distance from the negative electrode.

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Chap 18_5e 26. In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA is visualized by ____. a. staining the gel with an agarose-binding dye so the gel, but not the DNA bands, fluoresces under UV light b. staining the DNA with a DNA-binding dye that fluoresces under natural light c. staining the DNA with X-gal so that the DNA bands appear blue d. staining the gel with a DNA-binding dye that fluoresces under UV light e. staining the gel with a DNA-binding dye that fluoresces under natural light 27. In sickle cell anemia, a ____ mutation in the β-globin gene eliminates a ____. a. single base-pair; restriction site b. frameshift; restriction site c. nonsense; promoter region d. single base-pair; promoter region e. nonsense; restriction site 28. What distinguishes expression vectors from other cloning vectors? a. Expression vectors do not have an origin of replication. b. Only expression vectors have origins of replication. c. Expression vectors contain regulatory sequences to allow transcription and translation of an inserted gene. d. Inserted genes cannot be transcribed from an expression vector. e. Expression vectors do not contain antibiotic resistance genes. 29. What enables a PCR-amplified gene to be inserted into a cloning vector? a. The PCR reaction adds sticky ends onto the amplified DNA, allowing ligation to a cloning vector. b. Restriction enzyme sites are added to the 5¢ ends of both primers; therefore, digestion of the PCRamplified gene allows ligation to a cloning vector cut with the same restriction enzyme. c. The PCR-amplified gene is sequenced to locate restriction sites in order to determine which restriction enzymes to use for cloning. d. The PCR-amplified gene is cut with one restriction enzyme, then ligated to a cloning vector cut by a different restriction enzyme. e. The cloning vector is added to the PCR reaction, and once the gene is amplified, it immediately ligates to the cloning vector. 30. Most genetic alterations performed by researchers aim to change the ____. a. genotype of the organism without a change in phenotype b. genotype of the organism, causing a change in phenotype c. phenotype of the organism without a change in genotype d. phenotype of the organism, causing a change in genotype e. proteome of the organism without a change in genotype

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Chap 18_5e 31. How is a DNA fragment containing a gene of interest generated for cloning? a. The gene with a cloning vector is ligated. b. Agarose gel electrophoresis takes place. c. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies the DNA fragment from the genome. d. A DNA polymerase specific for the fragment is used to make copies. e. DNA fingerprinting allows the fragment to be copied from the chromosome. 32. Plasmid cloning vectors generally contain genes for which two traits? a. lacA production and ampicillin resistance b. β-galactosidase enzyme production and ampicillin resistance c. DNA ligase production and sticky ends d. DNA ligase and reverse transcriptase production e. DNA polymerase production and antibiotic resistance 33. When cloning DNA into bacteria, the ____. a. DNA sequence is inserted into a plasmid b. DNA sequence is inserted into the bacterial chromosome c. linear DNA sequence is circularized, thus generating a plasmid d. new DNA is directly introduced into the bacterial cell e. approach depends on the species of host bacteria used in the experiment 34. If a restriction endonuclease cuts a linear DNA three times, how many fragments should there be after the DNA is subjected to electrophoresis through an agarose gel? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 35. When the sequence of nucleotides read in the 5¢®3¢ direction on one strand is same as the sequence read in the 5¢®3¢ direction on the complementary strand, the sequence is called a(n) ____. a. inverted sequence b. palindrome c. restriction site d. restriction fragment length polymorphism e. inactive restriction site

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Chap 18_5e 36. DNA fingerprinting is a method used to ____. a. identify a species b. distinguish between two individuals of the same species c. examine the DNA sequences encoding for human fingerprints d. extract DNA samples from human fingerprints e. determine the sequence of the human genome 37. Bacteria transformed with plasmids are plated on growth medium containing ampicillin and X-gal. Blue colonies on the plate contain bacteria with a ____ plasmid, meaning the lacZ+ gene is ____. a. recombinant; deleted from the plasmid b. nonrecombinant; intact c. recombinant; intact d. nonrecombinant; disrupted by the inserted DNA fragment e. recombinant; disrupted by the inserted DNA fragment 38. If a restriction endonuclease cuts a circular DNA three times, how many fragments should there be after the DNA is subjected to electrophoresis through an agarose gel? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 39. During DNA cloning, why is the DNA of interest inserted into the middle of the lacZ+ coding sequence in the plasmid vector? a. It makes the bacteria resistant to the antibiotic. b. It allows researchers to distinguish bacteria that contain the plasmid from those that do not. c. It aids scientists in developing new antibiotic treatments. d. It allows researchers to distinguish bacteria that contain the recombinant plasmid from those that contain just the vector. e. It makes the bacteria produce more clones. 40. The phases of each PCR cycle listed in order are ____. a. denaturation, extension, and annealing b. annealing, extension, and denaturation c. extension, denaturation, and annealing d. annealing, denaturation, and extension e. denaturation, annealing, and extension

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Chap 18_5e 41. The vectors used in somatic gene therapy are mostly _____. a. bacterial plasmids b. eukaryotic plasmids c. retroviruses or inactivated viruses d. DNA viruses and reactivated viruses e. naked genes 42. Why are numerous replication cycles – each performed at three difference temperatures — a necessary part of a PCR reaction? a. The initial cycles do not produce many copies of the target sequence, but since the number of molecules produced doubles with each cycle, millions of copies are produced after 20-30 cycles. b. The initial cycles amplify DNA slowly, but as the temperature increases, DNA polymerase works more quickly to produce millions of copies of the target sequence. c. The bacteria used in the reaction divide with each cycle, replicating the target DNA. d. Only non-target DNA is made during the first 10 cycles, while only cycles 11-20 specifically target the gene of interest. e. Once the enzyme starts working, it must continue until there are no remaining nucleotides. 43. An example of pharming is ____. a. photosynthetic bacteria that clean up oil spills b. transgenic sheep that produce a protein required for normal blood clotting in humans c. E. coli that synthesize restriction enzymes for use in genetic engineering d. yeast that produce ethanol for use as fuel in vehicles e. a genetically modified crop plant that is resistant to pesticide 44. In standardized DNA fingerprinting used in the United States, ____. a. 20 different noncoding loci are examined b. 20 different coding loci are examined c. only loci that do not vary among individuals are examined d. only long tandem repeats loci are examined e. the sequence of short tandem repeats is determined 45. The key elements of a PCR reaction are ____. a. the four nucleoside triphosphates, DNA primase, DNA polymerase, and an agarose gel b. a pair of primers, the four nucleoside triphosphates, DNA primase, and DNA polymerase c. DNA with the target sequence to be amplified, the four nucleoside triphosphates, DNA primase, and DNA polymerase d. DNA with the target sequence to be amplified, a pair of primers, the four nucleoside triphosphates, and DNA primase e. DNA with the target sequence to be amplified, a pair of primers, the four nucleoside triphosphates, and DNA polymerase

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Chap 18_5e 46. Bioinformatics combines the fields of ____ to extract information from biological data. a. computer science and social science b. mathematics and social science c. mathematics and computer science d. biology and history e. biology and physics 47. Why was the nucleus removed from the egg cell used to create Dolly, the cloned sheep? a. to remove the mitochondrial DNA of the egg donor b. to test whether the genetic contribution from a sperm cell alone could produce a lamb c. to create a cloned sheep in the absence of DNA d. since the genome for the clone was supplied by the diploid mammary cell, the presence of the egg cell DNA would result in triploidy e. to see whether egg cell DNA injected into a sperm cell could produce a lamb 48. Reverse-transcriptase PCR ____. a. uses Taq polymerase to produce cDNA copies of RNA transcripts b. uses RNA polymerase to amplify cDNA copies of RNA transcripts c. uses RNA polymerase to produce mRNA copies of a gene d. amplifies cDNA copies of RNA transcripts e. uses reverse transcriptase to produce mRNA copies of a gene 49. When DNA fragments are sealed together by DNA ligase, the process is referred to as ____. a. transformation b. gene remodeling c. the polymerase chain reaction d. restriction cloning e. ligation 50. PCR is ____. a. repeated DNA replication cycles of a specific region of a DNA molecule b. DNA replication in which DNA polymerase replicates an entire chromosome c. a reaction in which restriction enzymes cut a gene of interest from the chromosome d. transcription during which only a portion of the cell’s DNA is expressed e. translation during which only some mRNA molecules are translated to make proteins 51. I need to determine if the gene for a particular protein is the same length in frogs, humans, and trees. Which method(s) will be most helpful to me? a. PCR and agarose gel electrophoresis b. DNA cloning and PCR c. DNA cloning only d. PCR only e. agarose gel electrophoresis only Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_5e 52. Bacteria protect restriction sites in their own DNA from being cut by restriction enzymes by ____. a. synthesizing low quantities of restriction enzymes b. producing restriction enzymes that do not recognize sequences in their own DNA c. chemically modifying bases within the restriction sites d. only activating restriction enzymes when foreign DNA is present in the cell e. inactivating restriction enzymes through phosphorylation 53. Restriction endonucleases break ____ bonds. a. phosphodiester b. ester c. glycosidic d. peptide e. hydrogen 54. The Ti plasmid is used to ____. a. create clones of mammals b. treat human diseases by somatic gene therapy c. insert transgenes into bacteria d. insert transgenes into plants e. insert transgenes into animals 55. Organisms that have been genetically engineered are called ____, because they have been modified to contain genetic information called a(n) ____ from an external source. a. transgenic; transgene b. transgenic; oncogene c. somatic; Ti plasmid d. genetically modified organisms; restriction fragment length polymorphism e. somatic; transgene 56. Restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs) are used to ____. a. test the effectiveness of different restriction enzymes on a sequence of DNA b. compare the DNA sequences between individuals by looking for changes in restriction enzyme digest patterns c. compare the full DNA sequences of two individuals d. prepare DNA for further sequence analysis e. treat sickle-cell anemia

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Chap 18_5e 57. Recombinant DNA is ____. a. DNA encoding restriction endonucleases b. a gene of interest found in the genome c. DNA fragments from the same organism that have been joined together to form a single molecule d. DNA fragments from two or more different sources that have been joined together to form a single molecule e. a plasmid containing DNA from a single source 58. How is DNA introduced into plants using the Ti plasmid? a. The gene of interest remains in the Ti plasmid after the plasmid has transformed the plant, and the gene is expressed in the plant. b. The Ti plasmid inserts the gene of interest directly into the plant's nuclear DNA. c. The entire Ti plasmid including the gene of interest is inserted into the plant’s nuclear DNA. d. The Ti plasmid inserts the foreign DNA into the plant's chloroplast DNA. e. The Ti plasmid inserts the foreign DNA into the plant's mitochondrial DNA. 59. All stem cells ____. a. are differentiated cells that proliferate indefinitely b. can differentiate into any cell type, but can only divide once after terminally differentiating c. have the ability to differentiate into all cell types d. are undifferentiated cells that proliferate indefinitely e. are undifferentiated cells that proliferate a finite number of times 60. The CRISPR-Cas9 system is exploited experimentally for ____. a. programmable RNA-guided genome editing b. programmable DNA-guided genome editing c. cutting DNA at specific sites so it can be inserted into a cloning vector d. increasing transcription of a gene of interest e. enhancing DNA polymerase activity in PCR reactions 61. A researcher is interested in studying gene X, but not gene Y, in Drosophila. What does she need to amplify only gene X from the Drosophila genome? a. some prior knowledge of the gene X sequence so that appropriate primers can be designed b. a heat-stable restriction endonuclease c. restriction endonucleases that cut gene X, but not gene Y d. a cloning vector that has multiple antibiotic resistance genes e. a cloning vector that will ligate to gene X, but not to gene Y

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Chap 18_5e

Figure 18.1 (questions 44-47) 62. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Of the fragments labeled A-D, which is the smallest? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. it is impossible to tell 63. β-galactosidase is used in bacterial screening assays for visualization of colonies that contain recombinant DNA. What is its substrate? a. lactose b. X-gal c. sucrose d. lacZ e. agarose 64. Taq polymerase is commonly used in PCR reactions because it ____. a. keeps the primers from annealing to the DNA b. makes fewer DNA replication errors than other DNA polymerases c. is a heat-stable DNA polymerase d. is more efficient at replicating DNA than other DNA polymerases e. helps the primers anneal to the correct DNA sequence 65. DNA is cut by ____. a. nucleases b. proteases c. stem cells d. Ti plasmids e. restriction fragment length polymorphisms

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Chap 18_5e 66. In which situation would gene cloning occur? a. A DNA fragment is inserted directly into a bacterium and is replicated. b. A DNA fragment is inserted into a plasmid, which is then introduced into a bacterium where the gene is expressed, but the plasmid does not replicate. c. A DNA fragment is inserted into a plasmid, which is then introduced to a bacterium where the plasmid replicates. d. A DNA fragment is inserted directly into a bacterium and is digested by nucleases. e. A protein of interest is taken up by a bacterium, which incorporates the protein into its cell membrane. 67. The enzyme ____ produces ____ DNA that is complementary to mRNA. a. reverse transcriptase; single-stranded b. reverse transcriptase; double-stranded c. DNA polymerase; single-stranded d. DNA polymerase; double-stranded e. RNA polymerase; single-stranded 68. Restriction enzyme-generated DNA fragments of different lengths from the same region of the genome are called ____. a. DNA elements b. endonuclease sites c. restriction sites d. restriction fragment length polymorphisms e. restriction elements 69. Which statement correctly describes single-nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)? a. A SNP locus typically has more than two alleles. b. SNPs are typically used as markers of a region of the genome. c. The frequency of the rarer SNP allele must be less than 1%. d. SNPs are the least common form of human genetic variation. e. If only two alleles are associated with a SNP, both must have relatively the same frequency in the population. 70. The characterization of whole genomes, including their structures (sequences), functions, and evolution is called ____. a. genetic engineering b. genomics c. bioinformatics d. biotechnology e. genetic engineering

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Chap 18_5e 71. The protein-coding region of a eukaryotic gene ____. a. can be amplified directly from the genome b. is obtained by producing a cDNA copy from the gene’s transcript c. contains introns, so an mRNA copy must be produced from the gene’s transcript d. contains exons that are removed by restriction enzymes, while the remaining introns are ligated together e. contains introns that are removed by restriction enzymes, while the remaining exons are ligated together 72. How do scientists determine the annealing temperature used in PCR reactions? a. It is always 55ᵒC because the DNA polymerase works best at this temperature. b. It is always 55ᵒC because primers anneal best at lower temperatures. c. It is always 65ᵒC because any other temperature would destabilize the DNA. d. It can vary from 55-65ᵒC depending on the primers being used. e. It can vary from 55-65ᵒC depending on the type of DNA polymerase being used. 73. Plasmids are ____. a. enzymes that cut DNA b. RNA molecules c. small proteins that help replicate cloned genes d. protein-coding genes in the chromosome e. circular DNA molecules that replicate separately from chromosomal DNA 74. Why is it important to have an antibiotic resistance gene in plasmid cloning vectors? a. It helps the host bacteria grow faster. b. It allows researchers to distinguish bacteria that contain the plasmid from those that do not. c. It aids scientists in developing new antibiotic treatments. d. It allows researchers to distinguish bacteria that contain the recombinant vector from those that contain just the vector. e. It helps the bacteria replicate the recombinant plasmid more quickly. 75. Which component of the PCR reaction is responsible for its specificity? a. the pair of DNA primers b. the pair of RNA primers c. DNA polymerase d. the four nucleoside triphosphates e. the thermocycler

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Chap 18_5e 76. In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules move toward the ____ pole because they ____. a. positive; are negatively charged b. negative; are positively charged c. bottom; are pulled by a magnetic force d. bottom; are pulled by gravity e. bottom; have a greater density than the gel

Figure 18.1 (questions 44-47) 77. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. What does letter E represent? a. different RNA molecules transcribed from a coding region of DNA b. the products of a PCR reaction in which the primers annealed to multiple sites c. the products of a PCR reaction performed without one of the nucleoside triphosphates d. the products of a PCR reaction that had more than two primers e. a DNA marker ladder 78. The technique by which DNA, RNA, or protein molecules are separated in a gel that is subjected to an electric field is called ____. a. PCR b. biotechnology c. amplification d. a restriction enzyme digestion e. gel electrophoresis 79. Agarose gel electrophoresis separates DNA molecules according to their ____. a. charge b. length c. sequence d. percentage of GC base pairs e. structure

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Chap 18_5e 80. Which statement is accurate regarding DNA technologies? a. Humans have been successfully cloned. b. Germline gene therapy is used to treat genetic conditions in humans. c. Genetically engineered microorganisms constitute a large public concern. d. Possible problems associated with GMOs are a public concern. e. Bacterial cloning and animal cloning follow largely similar techniques. 81. An organism whose genome has been modified to change a genetic trait or traits by using traditional breeding techniques, classical genetic approaches, or modern molecular manipulation techniques is called a ____. a. bacterium b. clone c. transcriptionally modified organism d. genetically altered organism e. somatic organism 82. What is another name for a short tandem repeat (STR) sequence? a. minisatellite b. microsatellite c. microRNAs (miRNAs) d. STDs e. lncRNAs 83. Genetically altered organisms are ____. a. always genetically modified organisms b. always made using DNA technologies c. only used in basic research d. only used in applied research e. created through natural mutations or by using DNA technologies 84. A plasmid cloning vector and DNA fragments containing the XYZ gene, each digested with the same restriction enzyme, are mixed with DNA ligase. Which product(s) will result? a. Recombinant plasmids only b. Nonrecombinant plasmids only c. Joined-together copies of the DNA fragment containing the XYZ gene only d. A mixture of recombinant plasmids, nonrecombinant plasmids, and joined-together copies of the DNA fragment containing the XYZ gene e. No reaction will occur because DNA polymerase, rather than DNA ligase, is needed to insert the DNA fragments into the plasmid cloning vector

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Chap 18_5e Match each of the following terms with its correct definition. a. DNA technology used to alter genes in a cell or organism. b. Bacterial enzymes that recognize and cut specific DNA sequences. c. An international agreement on the safe use and handling of GMOs. d. The products of restriction endonuclease action. e. Short 2–6 bp sequences repeated in series. f. Any technique applied to biological systems or living organisms to make or modify products or processes for a specific purpose. g. This procedure can be described as a photocopy machine for specific DNA sequences. h. DNA from two different sources that have been joined together into a single molecule. i. This term is used to describe organisms that have been modified to contain genetic information from an external source. j. This technique is used to separate DNA molecules based on their relative sizes. k. Using STR loci, this technique revealed that the source of Dolly's genomic DNA was the ewe who supplied the mammary cell 85. genetic engineering 86. recombinant DNA 87. restriction endonucleases 88. restriction fragments 89. PCR 90. agarose gel electrophoresis 91. DNA fingerprinting 92. transgenic 93. short tandem repeat 94. Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety 95. biotechnology 96. Explain the ethical concerns with germline gene therapy in humans.

97. Define the purpose of inserting a gene into a plasmid cloning vector.

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Chap 18_5e 98. Suppose a DNA fingerprinting analysis reveals that DNA from a crime scene matches a suspect’s DNA at four out of five different loci. What can be concluded from this information?

99. What is a GMO? What are the potential concerns and benefits associated with GMOs?

100. Discuss the reasons why cloning transgenic animals may be preferable over traditional breeding. What are some of the problems with animal cloning?

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Chap 18_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. False 9. False 10. True 11. c 12. c 13. c 14. c 15. e 16. b 17. b 18. e 19. c 20. d 21. c 22. b 23. e 24. d 25. b 26. d

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Chap 18_5e 27. a 28. c 29. b 30. b 31. c 32. b 33. a 34. d 35. b 36. b 37. b 38. c 39. d 40. e 41. c 42. a 43. b 44. a 45. e 46. c 47. d 48. d 49. e 50. a 51. a 52. c 53. a 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_5e 55. a 56. b 57. d 58. b 59. d 60. a 61. a 62. c 63. b 64. c 65. a 66. c 67. a 68. d 69. b 70. b 71. b 72. d 73. e 74. b 75. a 76. a 77. e 78. e 79. b 80. d 81. d 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_5e 83. e 84. d 85. a 86. h 87. b 88. d 89. g 90. j 91. k 92. i 93. e 94. c 95. f 96. Germline gene therapy introduces genes into germline cells, which are passed on to the next generation. Thus, germline gene therapy would create changes to the human genome that could be passed to future generations, and scientists do not entirely understand what the consequences of those changes will be. For these reasons, gene therapy in humans is limited to somatic cells only. 97. After inserting a gene into a cloning vector, the recombinant plasmid can be transformed into bacterial host cells. Here, hundreds of copies of the gene can be generated very easily by DNA replication when the bacteria divide. This allows the gene or DNA of interest to be produced in amounts that can then be used in other applications, such as restriction enzyme digestions or sequencing. If the protein-coding region of a gene is combined with an expression vector, mass production of its protein product is possible by transcription and translation in the host cell. 98. This means that the DNA at the crime scene did not come from the suspect. If it did, all five loci would match. 99. A GMO is a genetically altered organism whose genome has been engineered to introduce or change a genetically controlled trait. Two main concerns include the safety of genetically modified food for human consumption and the potential adverse effects of these organisms in the environment (e.g., cross breeding of GMOs with native plant species). The benefits of GMOs include: 1) pest-resistant crops (e.g., Bt crops) – less pesticide use; 2) diseaseresistant crops – the minimization of crop losses due to disease; 3) herbicide-resistant crops (Roundup Ready) – herbicides do not harm crop plants; and 4) altered nutritional content – increased nutritional value (e.g., golden rice).

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Chap 18_5e 100. Making transgenic mammals is expensive and inefficient. Also, because only one copy of the transgene typically becomes incorporated into the treated cell, not all progeny of a transgenic animal inherit that gene. Scientists reasoned that an alternative to breeding a valuable transgenic mammal to produce progeny with the transgene would be to clone the mammal. Each clone would be identical to the original, including the expression of the transgene. The cloning of domestic animals has its drawbacks. Many cloning attempts fail, leading to the death of the transplanted embryos. Cloned animals often suffer from conditions, such as birth defects and poor lung development. Genes may be lost during the cloning process or may be expressed abnormally in the cloned animal. Also, the clone may not be identical (phenotypically) to the original animal.

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Chap_19_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Protein-coding ORFs are easier to identify in which type of organism? a. eukaryotes because they have easily identifiable regulatory regions b. eukaryotes because they have fewer introns c. prokaryotes because they have few introns d. eukaryotes because they have more exons e. prokaryotes because they have more exons 2. The Human Genome Project completed in 2003 focused on sequencing the genome(s) of _____. a. the mouse only b. humans only c. bacteria only d. humans and prokaryotes only e. humans and other model organisms 3. The goal(s) of proteomics include(s) the determination of protein_____. a. structure only b. function only c. location only d. sequence, interactions, and structure e. structure, function, location, and interactions 4. A researcher is interested in creating a phylogenetic tree showing the evolutionary relationship of several cyanobacterial species based on the closeness of their nitrogenase gene sequences. Which field of research most directly applies to the researcher’s project? a. comparative proteomics b. comparative genomics c. comparative transcriptomics d. comparative phylogenetics e. comparative phenotype 5. Which eukaryotic organelle(s) contain its/their own DNA? a. chloroplasts only b. endoplasmic reticulum only c. mitochondria only d. mitochondria and chloroplasts e. mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum

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Chap_19_5e 6. What is an open reading frame (ORF)? a. a protein coding sequence plus associated regulatory sequences b. the sequence between and including a start codon and a stop codon c. the sequence between and including a start codon and a stop codon, minus the introns d. the sequence between and including a start codon and a stop codon, minus the exons e. the sequence between a start codon and stop codon in prokaryotes only 7. Which gene-altering event is most likely to create a new gene encoding a functional protein? a. gene duplication followed by small mutations b. gene duplication followed by large mutations c. exon shuffling d. transposition of DNA sequences e. inversion of DNA sequences 8. In humans, there are three genes encoding different nitric oxide synthase enzymes. These three genes form a ____. a. multigene locus b. replicate gene family c. multi-enzyme family d. multigene family e. gene grouping 9. In humans, the majority of a transcription unit is composed of ____. a. exons b. introns c. promoter regions d. start codons e. regulatory elements 10. To study how genes have evolved, scientists compare the genome sequences of related organisms, a research approach known as _____. a. genome sequence determination b. genome annotation c. comparative genomics d. functional genomics e. proteomics 11. What has been learned from comparative genomics studies? a. Similar genes in different organisms perform very different functions. b. Prokaryotic DNA has different nucleotide bases compared to eukaryotic DNA. c. Similar genes do not exist in different species. d. Some genes are present in the genomes of almost all present-day organisms. e. Different species can have identical genome sequences. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_19_5e 12. Through a sequence similarity search, a researcher identifies a gene whose predicted protein product has a putative function of a photosynthesis-enhancing enzyme. Which experimental method could be performed to verify this function? a. PCR b. an assay measuring photosynthetic productivity c. identification of signature genes d. DNA microarray e. gene knockout 13. When the human genome was sequenced, we learned that there are fewer than expected protein-coding genes (approximately 20,000). Yet, the total number of proteins produced in humans approaches 100,000. What accounts for this discrepancy in numbers? a. We have not yet identified all of the open reading frames in the human genome. b. We have not yet fully sequenced the human genome. c. Processing mechanisms for mRNAs allow multiple proteins to be produced from a single DNA sequence. d. Some noncoding DNA sequences encode proteins. e. There has been a gross over-estimation of the number of proteins produced in humans. 14. The chemical difference between dideoxyribonucleotides used in Sanger sequencing and the deoxyribonucleotides normally found in DNA is the presence of a(n) _____ in the deoxyribose sugar of dideoxyribonucleotides. a. 3' – H rather than – OH b. 5' – H rather than – OH c. 5' – OH rather than – H d. 5' – H rather than – OH e. 3' – COOH rather than – OH 15. The _____ technique is most effective for transcriptomics studies in non-model organisms because _____. a. DNA microarray; DNA sequences from related organisms can be used as probes b. RNA-seq; it is less expensive c. DNA microarray; prior knowledge about the genome sequence is not required d. RNA-seq; the probes used are smaller than those for DNA microarrays e. DNA microarray; fluorescence gives the best indication of gene activity 16. During DNA sequence annotation, which feature is not identified? a. protein-coding genes b. noncoding RNA genes c. origins of replication d. pseudogenes e. protein interactions

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Chap_19_5e 17. Genes that are closely related evolutionarily, have the same function, and are present in the genomes of two or more different organisms are called _____. a. genologs b. heterologs c. Paralogs d. Metalogs e. orthologs 18. What can be removed from pre-mRNA during alternative splicing? a. exons and ribosomal binding sites b. ribosomal binding sites c. exons only d. introns only e. exons and introns 19. Human and chimpanzee genomes share 96% DNA sequence identity. What most likely causes humans to be phenotypically distinct from chimpanzees? a. the presence of many new genes unique to humans b. a much larger human genome compared to the chimpanzee genome c. the loss of higher functioning genes in chimpanzees d. dramatic changes in chromosome structure and organization in humans e. subtle mutations in protein coding sequences and changes in regulatory units of human genes 20. Which gene would most likely be found in the genomes of all present-day organisms? a. an amino-acyl tRNA synthetase gene b. a photosynthetic gene c. a nitrogen fixation gene d. a gene for anaerobic respiration-producing lactate e. a gene for cellulose breakdown 21. A researcher obtains the results of his RNA-seq analysis. Several transcripts are listed as being derived from the same gene. How is this possible? a. Alternative splicing allows for different transcripts to be created by the same gene sequence. b. The researcher’s sample was contaminated. c. Exon shuffling allows for different transcripts to be created by the same gene sequence. d. Intron shuffling allows for different transcripts to be created by the same gene sequence. e. It is not possible; there was an error in the alignment process.

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Chap_19_5e 22. In the microarray shown in the textbook (p. 414), the cDNAs were labeled with red and green fluorescent tags. Why do some spots on the microarray emit yellow light? a. Red and green are two of the primary colors, and if both cDNAs hybridize to the spot, the combination of the two will produce yellow light. b. The yellow light comes from the laser, and a yellow spot indicates that neither cDNA hybridized to that spot on the microarray. c. The over-expression of one cDNA relative to the other will skew the color pattern of the spot on the microarray, resulting in the yellow color. d. The color choice was an arbitrary decision by the artist and doesn't reflect how the process actually works. e. Yellow spots are those that contain no DNA probes on the chip. 23. You are studying a particular gene in mice. In one sample of the genome from a mouse, you find that the gene that you have been studying has moved to a completely different location in the genome. The gene that has moved to the new location is bounded by inverted repeat sequences. What is responsible for this finding? a. unequal crossing-over b. a retrotransposon c. a chromosomal duplication d. a chromosomal inversion e. a DNA transposon 24. To experimentally determine the function of an annotated gene, a researcher may _____. a. look for similar gene sequences of known function b. examine the putative protein structure c. perform a gene knockout d. find a pseudogene for the gene e. determine the amino acid sequence 25. RNA-seq (whole-transcriptome sequencing) _____. a. is a new hybridization technique used in transcriptomics b. is the most common method used to identify certain cancer genes c. identifies and quantifies RNA transcripts in a sample d. is being replaced by DNA microarrays in transcriptomics e. can only identify 100 sequences at a time 26. A(n) _____ has a DNA sequence similar to a functional gene, but has been mutated so that it no longer produces a functional gene product. a. pseudogene b. homologous gene c. orthologous gene d. microRNA-encoding sequence e. operon

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Chap_19_5e 27. A gene encoding a subunit of hemoglobin in humans is found to be homologous to a gene in chimpanzees. The homologous gene in chimpanzees likely _____. a. is a pseudogene b. encodes the same hemoglobin subunit c. is inactive because it is in a different species d. is a regulatory sequence e. encodes a respiratory enzyme 28. Proteomics _____. a. refers to the analysis of the entire protein content of a cell b. refers to the analysis of all the DNA of a species c. looks only at plasmids d. studies mRNA levels e. uses DNA chips 29. During a microarray analysis, cDNAs made from normal cells are stained with a green fluor and cDNAs from abnormal cells are stained with a red fluor. Which of the following statements is true about the results of this experiment? a. Red spots indicate genes that are under-expressed in abnormal cells. b. Red spots indicate genes that are not expressed in abnormal cells. c. Red spots indicate genes that are over-expressed in abnormal cells. d. Red spots indicate genes that are over-expressed in normal cells. e. Red spots indicate pseudogenes. 30. Which pre-mRNA processing mechanism allows different proteins to be produced from the same DNA sequence? a. transposition b. alternative splicing c. intron shuffling d. intron splicing e. open reading frame shuffling 31. Which event can introduce a protein domain into a pre-existing protein? a. gene alignment b. intron shuffling c. exon shuffling d. peptide shuffling e. exon splicing

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Chap_19_5e 32. Which technique can most accurately quantify RNA and determine levels of gene expression? a. RNA-seq b. microarray analysis c. Illumina/Solexa sequencing d. alignment searches e. Sanger sequencing 33. Which field of study applies mathematics and computer science to gain information from biological data, such as data related to gene structure and function? a. computer forensics b. statistical biology c. bioinformatics d. genome sampling e. metagenomics 34. A scientist obtains the DNA sequence data for a bacterial plasmid. The data include As, Ts, and Gs, but no Cs. What is the most likely cause of this result? a. ddCs were omitted from the sequencing reaction. b. The cytosine deoxyribonucleotides were omitted from the sequencing reaction. c. DNA polymerase was omitted from the sequencing reaction mix. d. The ddG fluorescent tags were degraded. e. There is no cytosine in this DNA molecule. 35. During a DNA sequencing experiment, the researcher adds all the required components to the reaction, but accidentally adds only one of the four dideoxynucleotides, the ddC. What products will be observed after this reaction is complete? a. All fragments will end in A. b. All fragments will end in C. c. All fragments will end in G. d. All fragments will end in T. e. No fragments will be made. 36. Which study indicates that some mutations are inherited from our parents? a. study of mutations in nerve cells b. study of mutations in somatic cells c. study of mutations in germline cells d. study of mutations in premature infants e. study of mutations in in vitro babies

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Chap_19_5e 37. Unequal crossing over _____. a. is an abnormal crossover event that occurs during mitosis b. occurs between different points on homologous chromosomes c. generates a single point mutation d. is the result of alternative splicing e. occurs between heterologous chromosomes 38. In whole-genome shotgun sequencing, ____. a. DNA is broken into many random, overlapping fragments that are sequenced and then assembled using computer algorithms b. whole chromosomes are sequenced intact from the 3' end to the 5' end c. whole chromosomes are sequenced intact from the 5' end to the 3' end d. DNA is broken into a few, non-overlapping fragments that can be read directly by computer algorithms e. DNA is broken into individual nucleotides that are sequenced and then assembled using computer algorithms 39. When copies of a gene are found at different locations on the same or different chromosomes, the phenomenon is called _____. a. dispersed duplication b. dispersed localization c. duplicate localization d. gene dispersion e. random dispersion 40. A researcher wants to investigate the function of a gene without permanently altering the gene’s function or activity. Which experimental approach should she choose? a. gene knockout b. gene knockdown c. electrophoresis d. RNA-seq e. bioinformatics 41. Many cancers can be identified based on microarray analysis of _____. a. signature genes b. genes in red blood cells c. mitochondrial DNA d. Y chromosome DNA e. DNA probes

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Chap_19_5e 42. Which element of a dideoxy sequencing reaction allows for visualization of the DNA sequence? a. the mixture of the four dideoxyribonucleotides, each with a different fluorescent label b. DNA primer c. the mixture of the four deoxyribonucleotides d. DNA polymerase e. DNA ligase 43. Chromosomal rearrangement can occur by ____. a. translocation only b. inversion only c. translocation and inversion d. point mutations e. alternative splicing 44. Deoxyribonucleotides are included in the Sanger sequencing reaction mix to _____. a. provide a substrate for RNA polymerase b. enhance the activity of the dideoxyribonucleotides c. allow longer DNA fragments (up to 300 additional base pairs) to be sequenced d. allow the production of multiple DNA fragments of different lengths e. prevent the DNA polymerase from making too many errors 45. The proteome represents _____, while the cellular proteome represents _____. a. all of the proteins able to be made by all living organisms; the proteins made by unicellular organisms b. the set of proteins made by any multicellular organism; the set of proteins made by unicellular organisms c. all of the proteins able to be expressed by an organism’s genome; the subset of proteins found in a particular cell type d. all of the proteins that are common to all living organisms; the proteins found in the same cell types of different species e. the subject of proteomics research; the subject of phenomics research 46. Multigene families arise from _____. a. a single gene duplication event b. repeated cycles of gene duplication followed by mutation c. single point mutations d. exon shuffling e. deletions of genes 47. Which organism has the largest number of protein-coding genes? a. E. coli (bacteria) b. Saccharomyces cerevisiae (yeast) c. Homo sapiens (human) d. Oryza sativa (rice) e. Drosophila melanogaster (fruit fly) Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_19_5e 48. Genes with novel functions are most commonly produced by ____. a. inversion of DNA sequences b. nondisjunction during meiosis c. unequal crossing-over d. exon shuffling e. small mutations 49. What marks the 5' end of an ORF in a DNA sequence? a. the stop codon TAG b. the stop codon TAA c. the start codon AUG d. the start codon ATG e. the promoter region containing a consensus sequence 50. Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of a prokaryotic genome like that of E. coli? a. The genes are close together with little space between them. b. The genes almost always contain introns. c. Genes can be transcribed off either of the two strands of DNA. d. Some genes are single transcription units, but about 50% of the protein-coding genes are found in operons. e. The genes vary in length and reflect the lengths of their encoded proteins. 51. A sequence similarity search reveals that a candidate gene's sequence has a partial match to a known gene’s sequence. What does this most likely indicate? a. There is no relationship between the candidate and known gene. b. The candidate gene encodes an identical transcript to the known gene. c. The candidate gene encodes the same protein as the known gene. d. The protein encoded by the candidate gene contains a protein domain also found in the known gene’s protein. e. The protein encoded by the candidate gene has the same function as the protein encoded by the known gene. 52. You are studying a particular gene in mice. In one sample of the genome from a mouse, you find two copies of the gene while in other mice you have studied there are two copies of the gene. One of the copies is in the normal location; the other is in a completely different location in the genome. The copy of the gene found in a different location from what is normal is bounded by sequences that are directly repeated rather than being in an inverted form. What is responsible for this finding? a. a retrotransposon b. a DNA transposon c. a point mutation d. a chromosomal inversion e. an unequal cross-over

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Chap_19_5e 53. RNAi is commonly used in which experimental strategy? a. gene overexpression b. DNA sequencing c. gene knockout d. gene knockdown e. microarray analysis 54. Which was the first mammalian genome sequenced? a. chimpanzee b. gorilla c. mouse d. human e. sheep 55. A researcher obtains a sequence of a gene of interest, including the ORF, 5' untranslated region, and 3' untranslated region. Which portion of the gene sequence encodes the protein? a. the 5' untranslated region and the ORF only b. the ORF only c. the ORF and 3' untranslated region only d. the 5' and 3' untranslated regions only e. the ORF, 5' untranslated region, and 3' untranslated region 56. In the whole-genome shotgun method, the genome is fragmented and individual fragments are sequenced. How is the order of the nucleotides determined for the original intact chromosome? a. The fragmentation is done in a systematic way such that the physical arrangement of fragments is readily apparent. b. The random fragmentation produces overlapping sequences that can be aligned and assembled to generate the original intact DNA molecule. c. We supplement our information with data from a different technique to determine the final chromosome arrangement. d. DNA hybridization assays are conducted to determine the physical arrangement of the genes on the chromosome. e. After sequencing, the fragments are labeled and used as probes in a microarray. 57. DNA microarrays that reveal differential expression patterns are used to study the _____. a. genome b. transcriptome c. proteome d. interactome e. ribosome

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Chap_19_5e 58. The study of gene function by observing changes in phenotype is termed _____. a. phenomics b. genomics c. mutagenomics d. proteomics e. transcriptomics 59. Researcher A studies the protein interactions involving the polypeptides that comprise hemoglobin, while Researcher B studies protein interactions between a protein kinase and its target protein. Researcher A will therefore focus on ____, and researcher B will focus on ____. a. protein localization; protein sequence b. protein sequence; protein localization c. permanent protein interactions; transient protein interactions d. transient protein interactions; permanent protein interactions e. protein regulation; transcriptional regulation 60. The human genome is composed of approximately _____ billion base pairs. a. 1 b. 3 c. 7 d. 10 e. 14 61. How might a researcher best determine the location of a protein in a cell? a. studying the amino acid sequence of the protein b. attaching a fluorescent tag to the protein in some way to visualize its cellular location under a microscope c. attaching an antibiotic tag to the protein and determining its location using DNA microarrays d. analyzing the untranslated regions of the gene encoding the protein e. understanding the protein’s function

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Chap_19_5e

©2014 Brooks/Cole, Cengage Learning 62. A portion of a microarray is shown above in which the expression of genes on human chromosome 21 was examined in normal brain cells (cDNAs labeled with a white fluor) or brain cells from an individual with a neurological disorder (cDNAs labeled with a black fluor). Which genes are over-expressed in the abnormal cells compared to the normal cells? a. A2, B1, B3, and C4 b. B2 and C1 c. A1, A3, A4, B4, C2, and C3 d. A1, A2, B2, and C1 e. A2, C2, and C4 63. Protein structure can be predicted nonexperimentally by ____, but not as reliably as by experimental methods. a. microscopy b. nuclear magnetic resonance c. X-ray crystallography d. computer algorithms based on amino acid chemical attractions e. electrophoresis 64. What is directly sequenced in RNA-seq? a. protein b. transcripts c. RNA d. DNA e. cDNA 65. Gene duplication can result from _____. a. a normal crossover event b. exon shuffling c. unequal crossing-over d. a point mutation e. alternative splicing

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Chap_19_5e 66. Microarrays let us identify which DNA sequences are present in a particular cell type under certain conditions.How can microarrays help us understand cellular functions? a. Microarrays let us study different cellular structures under different conditions. b. Microarrays let us directly measure protein expression in individual cells. c. Microarrays let us identify which portions of a genome were being expressed in a cell at a particular time. d. Microarrays let us identify which DNA sequences are present in a particular cell type under certain conditions. e. Microarrays let us identify which portions of a genome serve as regulatory sequences. 67. What is a difference between human male and female genomes? a. Males have 46 chromosomes; females have 45. b. Males have 22 pairs of autosomal chromosomes; females have 21 pairs of autosomal chromosomes. c. Males have 23 pairs of chromosomes plus 1 Y chromosome; females have 23 pairs of chromosomes. d. Males have 24 different chromosomes; females have 23 different chromosomes. e. Males have an X chromosome; females do not. 68. The percentage of the human genome sequence that is protein-coding is less than _____. a. 2% b. 20% c. 30% d. 50% e. 85% 69. Which domain(s) have densely packed genomes with little noncoding space? a. Archaea only b. Bacteria only c. Eukarya only d. Archaea and Eukarya e. Bacteria and Archaea 70. How do scientists most often access genome sequences determined by research projects? a. They must request the sequence from the group that performed the research. b. They must request the sequence from the governmental or private group that funded the research. c. They must request the sequence from the company that performed the sequencing. d. They can retrieve the sequence from an online public database, such as GenBank. e. They must sequence the organism themselves to obtain the sequence.

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Chap_19_5e Match the techniques listed below to the correct application. a. Whole-genome shotgun sequencing b. Illumina/Solexa Sequencing c. Sanger sequencing d. DNA microarray analysis e. Gene knockout f. Gene knockdown 71. Replaces a normal gene with a defective one to observe the gene's function. 72. The general strategy for genome sequencing; involves sequencing amplified DNA fragments and then assembling the sequences using computer software. 73. A method for sequencing 10 million DNA fragments simultaneously. 74. Uses dideoxynucleotide terminators to determine the sequence of a DNA fragment. 75. Used to compare the gene expression patterns of identical cells under different conditions. 76. Used to decrease a gene’s expression to observe the gene's function. Match each of the following terms with its correct definition. a. The proteins that can be expressed by an organism's genome b. All transcripts produced by a cell c. The study of proteins produced from an organism's genome d. The study of similarities and differences between genome sequences of different species e. The study of whole genomes f. Using computer programs to extract biological information from sequence data g. The study of all transcripts produced from an organism's genome 77. transcriptome 78. transcriptomics 79. genomics 80. proteome 81. comparative genomics 82. proteomics 83. bioinformatics

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Chap_19_5e For each of the following research techniques, choose the most appropriate macromolecule being studied or manipulated from the list below. Some choices may be used more than once. a. DNA b. mRNA/cDNA c. protein 84. RNA-seq 85. PCR 86. Illumina/Solexa Sequencing 87. Microarray expression analysis 88. Genomics 89. Cellular proteomics 90. Shotgun library 91. Proteomics 92. Sanger method 93. What is the difference between a gene knockout and a gene knockdown?

94. What are the main differences between the fields of genomics, transcriptomics, and proteomics?

95. Summarize the relationships between the following types of organisms with respect to genome size: viruses, bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotes.

96. List at least three differences in how the E. coli and human genomes are arranged.

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Chap_19_5e 97. How do gene duplication and exon shuffling lead to new genes?

98. There are three types of sequencing techniques described in the text: Sanger (dideoxy) sequencing, wholegenome shotgun sequencing, and Illumina/Solexa sequencing. Which one(s) would be best to use for sequencing a single gene versus an entire genome and why?

99. Comparative genomics is an approach used to learn how genes and genomes have evolved. Describe three different concepts that have been revealed by comparative genomics studies.

100. Explain how proteomics is considered by some to be even more important than genome sequencing.

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Chap_19_5e Answer Key 1. c 2. e 3. e 4. b 5. d 6. b 7. a 8. d 9. b 10. c 11. d 12. e 13. c 14. a 15. b 16. e 17. e 18. e 19. e 20. a 21. a 22. a 23. e 24. c 25. c 26. a

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Chap_19_5e 27. b 28. a 29. c 30. b 31. c 32. a 33. c 34. a 35. b 36. c 37. b 38. a 39. a 40. b 41. a 42. a 43. c 44. d 45. c 46. b 47. d 48. d 49. d 50. b 51. d 52. a 53. d 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_19_5e 55. b 56. b 57. b 58. a 59. c 60. b 61. b 62. a 63. d 64. e 65. c 66. c 67. d 68. a 69. e 70. d 71. e 72. a 73. b 74. c 75. d 76. f 77. b 78. g 79. e 80. a 81. d 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_19_5e 83. f 84. b 85. a 86. a 87. b 88. a 89. c 90. a 91. c 92. a 93. A gene knockout is when researchers replace the normal gene with a defective one so that no functional protein product can be made from that gene. A gene knockdown is when researchers decrease the amount of expression from a gene by using a technique, such as RNA interference. Both are used to assess the phenotype of eliminating or decreasing a gene’s function in the cell. 94. Genomics is the study of whole genomes at the DNA level. Transcriptomics analyzes the transcription of all genes from a genome under a certain set of conditions. Proteomics focuses on the proteins, including determining their structure and function, their locations in or out of the cell, and their interactions with each other. 95. Viruses have the smallest genomes of these four types of organisms. Bacterial and archaeal genomes are similar in size to each other. Eukaryotes have the largest genome sizes of these four groups. There is overlap among the groups, however, in that viral genome sizes overlap with genomes from archaea/bacteria, and eukaryote genome sizes overlap with genomes from archaea/bacteria. 96. The E. coli genome consists of one circular chromosome, whereas the human genome is composed of many linear chromosomes. The human genome contains many more nucleotides and protein-coding genes than the genome of E. coli. Despite that, only about 1.2% of the human genome is coding, whereas nearly 90% of the E. coli genome is coding. Finally, each human gene contains eight introns on average, but E. coli genes do not contain introns at all. 97. Gene duplication results in a second copy of a gene on the same chromosome. At first, both copies will produce the same protein. However, over time, mutations can arise that change the genes. If these mutations are not deleterious, the "new" gene will be able to ultimately produce a slightly different protein from the original gene that may function slightly differently. Exon shuffling is a mechanism whereby exons from existing genes are combined in new ways to produce new genes that may produce new functional proteins. 98. Single genes can be sequenced using the Sanger method since this technique, although automated, can also be pared down to focus on a single gene or DNA fragment. All three methods can be used for whole-genome sequencing. The Illumina/Solexa method is used to sequence whole genomes in an automated way and would never be used to sequence a single gene or fragment. Whole-genome shotgun sequencing is not really a sequencing technique, per se, but is rather an approach to combining the data from sequencing genomic fragments after using either the Sanger method or the Illumina/Solexa method to acquire the sequence data. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_19_5e 99. By comparing genomes from different organisms, we have first learned that many present-day organisms share a large number of genes, many of which are used for standard shared processes such as transcription and translation, metabolism, etc. Second, we have learned that there are genes that are restricted to certain groups (eukaryotes, archaea, and bacteria; or plants, animals, primates, humans, etc.). These differences are one way to determine how different organisms are related to each other and how life evolved at a molecular level. Third, comparative genomics has also been used to study human evolution. Although the human was the first mammal to have its genome sequenced, there have been many more mammalian genomes sequenced since then, including many primates. The similarities and differences found among various mammalian genomes are useful in determining evolutionary relationships among those mammals. 100. There are limits to what genome sequencing can tell us about an organism. It has been said by some that the genome sequences are like a dictionary; the dictionary can teach words, but it doesn't teach how a language is used. The proteomics field seeks to determine how all of the proteins expressed in a cell work together. This will help us understand how the cells actually function and tell us which genes are being expressed and for what purpose. If the genome is a dictionary, then the proteome is a novel.

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Chap_20_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Darwin developed his theory of evolution without any knowledge of genetics. a. True b. False 2. Darwin provided both physical and spiritual explanations for the origins of biological diversity. a. True b. False 3. Darwin predicted that advantageous, heritable characteristics would become less common in a population when individuals were forced to compete for limited resources. a. True b. False 4. The authors of the modern synthesis focused on evolutionary change within genomes. a. True b. False 5. Evolutionary studies that use comparative morphology to analyze the structures of related organisms are primarily based on comparisons of homologous traits. a. True b. False 6. Species on oceanic islands often closely resemble species on the nearest mainland, suggesting that the island and mainland species share a common ancestry. a. True b. False 7. Insecticide resistance is an example of macroevolution resulting from artificial selection. a. True b. False 8. Scientists determined that African elephants are the closest living relatives of the woolly mammoth based on fossil evidence, because DNA cannot yet be extracted from fossils of extinct species. a. True b. False 9. Some primitive snakes, like the ball python (Python regius), have vestigial forelimbs. a. True b. False 10. The notion of orthogenesis is no longer supported because we now know that evolution proceeds as an ongoing process of dynamic adjustment, not toward any fixed goal. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_20_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. An example of evolutionary divergence is best characterized by Darwin's observation of ____. a. fossils along the coast of Argentina b. body armor similarities between armadillos and fossilized glyptodonts c. differences in appearance between nutria and beaver d. differences in bill shape and food habits of finches e. genotypic and phenotypic variability of species 12. Extinction is most likely an example of ____. a. microevolution b. macroevolution c. orthogenesis d. uniformitarianism e. gradualism 13. Darwin's inference that individuals within a population compete for limited resources was based on which observation(s)? a. Most organisms produce more than one or two offspring. b. Populations do not increase in size indefinitely. c. Food and other resources are limited for most populations. d. Most organisms produce more than one or two offspring, and populations do not increase in size indefinitely. e. Most organisms produce more than one or two offspring, populations do not increase in size indefinitely, and food and other resources are limited for most populations. 14. Charles Darwin did NOT study the ____ during his long career. a. classification of barnacles b. effects of earthworms on soil c. response of plants to light d. genetic basis of heritable traits e. form of insectivorous plants 15. Pigs have feet with toes that do not touch the ground. These toes are examples of ____. a. vestigial structures b. evolving structures c. homologous traits d. deleterious mutations e. biological gradualism

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Chap_20_5e 16. In the book On the Origin of Species by Means of Natural Selection, ____ proposed that natural mechanisms produce and transform the diversity of life on Earth. a. Alfred Russel Wallace b. Charles Lyell c. Charles Darwin d. Joseph Hooker e. Charles Darwin and Alfred Russel Wallace 17. Why didn't Darwin's contemporaries readily accept his theory of natural selection? a. There was strong evidence for inheritance of acquired traits. b. There was a lack of fossil evidence. c. Darwin did not provide a plausible theory of heredity. d. There was strong evidence for the principle of use and disuse. e. Darwin did not provide evidence for artificial selection 18. Which statement does NOT distinguish Darwin’s theory of natural selection from earlier descriptions of biological diversity and adaptive traits? a. Biological diversity has purely physical, rather than spiritual, origins. b. Evolutionary change occurs in groups of organisms, rather than in individuals. c. Spiritual explanations account for the origin but not the diversification of individuals. d. Some organisms function better than others in a particular environment. e. Evolution is a multistage process and natural selection eliminates unsuccessful variations. 19. When fossils were first discovered, some scientists suggested they were the remains of extinct organisms. This idea conflicted with the views of natural theologians who____. a. believed that body plans were perfect b. did not believe in the stratification of rocks c. did not believe extinctions ever occurred d. believed fossils in the uppermost layers were those of living organisms e. believed fossils in each different rock layer were similar to one another 20. Darwin’s primary scientific achievement was identifying the ____. a. method for estimating the age of fossils b. idea that organisms change over time and form new species c. process by which genes are passed from one generation to the next d. concept of gene pools and changes in allele frequencies e. mechanism by which populations of organisms change over time

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Chap_20_5e 21. A mutation in the Hoxc8 gene in the ancestor of modern snakes caused its descendants to have ____. a. no forelimbs or necks b. vestigial forelimbs c. necks but not forelimbs d. no ribcages or limbs e. no forelimbs or hindlimbs 22. Today, all biological research is undertaken with the recognition that ____. a. the views of evolution put forth by Charles Darwin are without error b. all forms of life are unique, having evolved from independent ancestors c. all living organisms share the same common ancestor d. the products of evolution are easily predicted e. evolution can be ignored unless the research explicitly examines evolutionary processes 23. Which branch of biology examines the form and variety of organisms in their natural environment? a. taxonomy b. natural history c. comparative morphology d. biogeography e. geology 24. Structures in an organism that have no current function are referred to as ____. a. homologous b. vestigial c. mutualistic d. fossils e. convergent 25. Based on his experiences while aboard the H.M.S. Beagle, Darwin realized that ____ provided the only plausible explanation for his observations. a. descent with modification b. a metaphysical perfecting principle c. the principle of use and disuse d. catastrophes in ancient environments e. inheritance of acquired characteristics 26. If we apply Darwin’s theories to many characteristics that affect survival and reproduction, natural selection would cause the populations to become more different over time, a process called ____. a. morphological deviation b. artificial selection c. goal orientation d. evolutionary divergence e. genetic modification Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_20_5e 27. To determine conclusively that the 15 Galápagos finch species are descended from a common ancestor, biologists could most effectively use ____. a. Darwin's notebooks describing his observations b. comparative molecular biology c. comparative embryology d. Mendelian genetics e. modern historical biogeography and Darwin's observations 28. The concept of ____, the view that slow and continuous physical processes, acting over long periods of time, produced Earth’s major geological features, was proposed by ____. a. gradualism; James Hutton b. natural selection; Charles Darwin c. catastrophism; Georges Cuvier d. natural theology; Nicolaus Copernicus e. uniformitarianism; Thomas Huxley 29. Gregor Mendel published his work on genetics in ____. a. 1849 b. 1858 c. 1866 d. 1887 e. 1900 30. Upon Darwin's return from his voyage on the H.M.S Beagle, he spent time breeding ____. a. dogs b. pigeons c. barnacles d. goldfish e. peas 31. A scientist who examines the distributions of species around the world is most likely studying ____. a. taxonomy b. paleobiology c. biogeography d. natural theology e. natural history

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Chap_20_5e 32. Which of Lamarck's ideas was the least influential to Darwin’s evolutionary theory? a. Species change through time. b. New characteristics are passed from one generation to the next. c. Organisms change in response to their environment. d. Acquired characteristics are passed on from parents to offspring. e. Specific mechanisms exist that foster evolutionary change. 33. Genetically based characteristics that make organisms more likely to survive and reproduce are referred to as ____. a. acquired characteristics b. adaptive traits c. favored characteristics d. selective traits e. divergent characteristics 34. Darwin's voyage took place between ____. a. 1730 and 1735 b. 1831 and 1836 c. 1853 and 1858 d. 1878 and 1885 e. 1930 and 1938 35. The comparison of homologous traits in living and extinct organisms is an example of ____. a. comparative morphology b. taxonomy c. historical biogeography d. paleontology e. molecular biology 36. Biological evolution occurs in ____ when specific processes cause genomes of organisms to differ from those of their ancestors. a. individuals b. populations c. communities d. phenotypes e. genotypes 37. Which structure(s) grow(s) just in front of animal tissues where only the Hoxc6 gene is expressed? a. forelimbs and hindlimbs b. hindlimbs only c. ribs only d. forelimbs only e. forelimbs and ribs Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_20_5e 38. Archaeopteryx is an important link between ____. a. mammals and birds b. lizards and birds c. small carnivorous dinosaurs and birds d. crocodiles and birds e. nonflying birds and flying birds 39. Which morphological feature in lizards, mammals, and birds provides evidence of their descent from a shared ancestor? a. ribcages positioned right behind heads in the embryonic stage b. absence of limb buds in embryonic development c. presence of limb buds in embryonic development d. differences in limb structures in adults e. vestigial hindlimbs near the base of the tail in adults 40. During Mendel's time, a widely accepted theory called ____ suggested that evolution occurred in spurts rather than by gradual change. a. catastrophism b. uniformitarianism c. mutationism d. natural selection e. genetic transformation 41. Darwin calculated that if reproduction was not limited, a single pair of elephants would leave roughly ____ descendants after 750 years. a. 750 b. 15,000 c. 150,000 d. 19 million e. 190 million 42. Woolly mammoths were determined to be closely related to living elephants on the basis of ____. a. DNA sequencing of nuclear genes b. fossilized morphological evidence c. embryological evidence inferred from fossils d. mitochondrial and nuclear DNA sequences e. cytochrome c amino acid sequences

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Chap_20_5e 43. The branch of biology that classifies organisms is called ____. a. natural history b. taxonomy c. evolution d. morphology e. paleobiology 44. At first, the most important conflict between Darwin's and Mendel's theories appeared to be that ____. a. Mendel's theory was based on experimentation while Darwin's was based on observation b. Mendel's experiments were based on simple traits while Darwin's evidence was based on complex characteristics c. Mendel's experiments were unbiased, while Darwin set out to prove evolution by natural selection d. Mendel's experiments were based on peas while Darwin used a variety of examples e. Darwin was a scientist while Mendel was a monk 45. New genetic variations sometimes become more common within populations because ____. a. most parts of the genome are noncoding and available for selection b. proteins can be "recruited" for advantageous function c. the resulting proteins are advantageous and selected for by nature d. adaptation occurs rapidly in the few species that have survived through time e. mutations are able to select against genetic variations that had disadvantageous function 46. One reason Mendel could interpret his experimental results so clearly is because ____. a. he incorporated his spirituality into his studies b. he analyzed complex morphological traits c. several genes often control simple traits d. simple traits are rarely controlled by single genes e. a single gene often controls simple traits 47. Monkeys in Africa and Asia most recently evolved from ____. a. a different common ancestor than monkeys in South America b. a shared common ancestor with monkeys in South America c. multiple common ancestors d. different common ancestors than one another e. a common ancestor on a neighboring island 48. How did Thomas Malthus influence Darwin's thinking? a. Darwin was convinced artificial selection could work in nature. b. Darwin realized species typically produce more offspring than needed to replace the parent generation. c. Darwin realized that the fate of humanity was dependent on artificial selection. d. Darwin believed the fate of humanity was dependent on natural selection. e. Darwin was convinced to publish his ideas about natural selection Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_20_5e 49. Before Darwin, ____. a. no one had conceived of biological evolution b. Lamarck wrote about biological evolution, but had the mechanism wrong c. Malthus developed a theory of evolution d. Lamarck proposed the idea of natural selection, but was ignored e. Malthus demonstrated the progression of fossils in sedimentary rocks 50. Molecular techniques have revealed that ____ caused the loss of forelimbs in snakes. a. the absence of Hoxc6 and Hoxc8 genes in snake genomes b. selection in dinosaurian ancestors of snakes c. the lack of useful limbs d. mutations in limb buds e. changes in the spatial pattern of Hoxc8 gene expression 51. The proposition that species change through time was proposed by ____. a. Charles Darwin only b. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck only c. Alfred Russel Wallace only d. Charles Darwin and Jean Baptiste de Lamarck e. Charles Darwin, Jean Baptiste de Lamarck, and Alfred Russel Wallace 52. Fossils in the deepest layers of sedimentary rocks are typically ____ compared to fossils in the more shallow layers. a. relatively large and fragile b. those that resemble living organisms c. those that resemble dinosaurs d. larger and more complex e. relatively small and simple 53. According to the modern synthesis, macroevolution results from ____. a. abrupt changes in a species environment b. the chance appearance of “hopeful monsters” c. changes in genes that occur in spurts d. abrupt changes in an individual’s genetic makeup e. the gradual accumulation of microevolutionary changes 54. Darwin hypothesized that advantageous hereditary traits in nature would become more common in populations due to the process of ____. a. inheriting acquired traits b. use and disuse c. selective breeding d. artificial selection e. natural selection Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_20_5e 55. Fossils and molecular techniques reveal that the closest ancient wolflike relatives of most modern dogs lived in ____. a. Asia b. Africa c. South America d. North America e. Europe 56. The forelimbs of bats and birds are ____. a. homologous because their common ancestor had wings b. not homologous because their similar internal bone structure evolved independently as an adaptation for flight c. homologous because they are adapted for the same function d. homologous because they have similar internal bone structure inherited from a common ancestor e. not homologous because wings evolved from different ancestral organs in birds and bats 57. Based on molecular analyses, scientists now believe the domestication of the closest relatives of modern dogs began between ____ years ago. a. 800 and 1,200 b. 1,000 and 3,000 c. 4,000 and 8,000 d. 9,000 and 12,000 e. 18,800 and 32,100 58. Early in the twentieth century, some scientists embraced the notion of orthogenesis, the idea that evolution ____. a. is progressive but not goal-oriented b. produces new species with the goal of improvement c. a natural progression set in motion by the Creator d. occurs in spurts, induced by mutations, rather than gradually e. happens due to the inheritance of acquired characteristics 59. In the 1930s and 1940s, a theory referred to as the ____integrated data from biogeography, comparative morphology, comparative embryology, paleontology, and taxonomy within an evolutionary framework. a. genetic synthesis b. mutationism theory c. unification theory d. modern synthesis e. convergent theory

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Chap_20_5e 60. As a young child, you preferred to collect shells and insects, dig through the mud around a pond, and watch birds rather than play video games. What did you have in common with Charles Darwin? a. an interest in history b. an interest in evolution c. an interest in natural history d. an interest in geology e. an interest in biogeography 61. Who was known as “Darwin’s bulldog” because he was such a staunch advocate of Darwin’s evolutionary theory? a. Thomas Malthus b. Thomas Huxley c. James Hutton d. Charles Lyell e. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck 62. The specific discipline that linked Mendel's and Darwin's work was ____. a. population ecology b. paleobiology c. population genetics d. biogeography e. modern synthesis 63. A small evolutionary shift in the size of the bill of a finch species is an example of ____. a. macroevolution b. sexual selection c. mutation d. microevolution e. orthogenesis 64. Recently discovered fossils reveal that many dinosaurian ancestors of birds had ____. a. boneless tails b. toothless mouths c. enlarged forelimbs d. wings e. feathers 65. Who developed the science of taxonomy? a. Charles Darwin b. Aristotle c. Alfred Russel Wallace d. Sir Isaac Newton e. Carolus Linnaeus Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_20_5e 66. Evolution of embryonic pathways probably occurs most commonly through ____. a. macroevolutionary mechanisms b. microevolutionary mechanisms c. protein recruitment d. extinction e. mutations during embryonic development 67. When insect populations exposed to insecticides develop resistance to these toxic chemicals over time, it is an example of natural selection ____. a. changing nonmorphological traits b. altering reproductive mechanisms c. acting in a goal-oriented manner d. replacing morphological characteristics e. facilitating mutations in populations 68. The modern synthesis is NOT based on ____. a. connecting microevolution and macroevolution b. bridging Darwinism with Mendel's work c. focusing on population genetics d. linking population growth with variation to explain natural selection e. interpreting data from a variety of biological disciplines in an evolutionary framework 69. Lamarck argued that long-legged wading birds are descended from short-legged ancestors that stretched their legs to stay dry while feeding in shallow water, and consequently produced offspring with slightly longer legs. Which mechanism did he use to support this argument? a. principle of use and disuse b. theory of catastrophism c. inheritance of acquired characteristics d. natural selection e. evolution of vestigial structures 70. A concept presented by Charles Lyell, called ____, contends the geological processes that sculpted Earth’s surface over long periods of time are exactly the same as the processes observed today. a. catastrophism b. sedimentation c. orthogenesis d. gradualism e. uniformitarianism

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Chap_20_5e 71. In the early twentieth century, ____ discovered that genes are carried on chromosomes. a. Thomas Hunt Morgan b. Francis Crick c. Gregor Mendel d. James Watson e. Thomas Huxley 72. Which scientist did NOT influence Darwin's writing of On the Origin of Species by Means of Natural Selection? a. Mendel b. Wallace c. Lyell d. Malthus e. Lamarck 73. According to Lamarck’s principle of use and disuse, the growth of body parts is related to____. a. genetic changes inherited from the parents b. how much a particular body part is used c. microevolution through natural selection d. spiritual influences in design e. biogeographic location 74. While on the H.M.S. Beagle, Darwin observed that ____. a. organisms on the Galápagos Islands resembled species on the mainland b. armadillos and glyptodonts coexisted in some habitats but not others c. similar organisms colonized similar habitats in South America and Europe d. organisms in different South American habitats resembled each other, but did not resemble organisms in similar European habitats e. no organisms resembled fossilized extinct animals 75. What percentage of the species that have ever lived have become extinct? a. 1% b. 9% c. 50% d. 75% e. 99% 76. Which pairing between evolutionary evidence and a biological discipline is NOT correct? a. pesticide resistance: historical biogeography b. forelimbs of all four-legged vertebrates are homologous: comparative morphology c. short tails of African and Asian monkeys: historical biogeography d. gill pouches in embryos of four-limbed vertebrates: comparative embryology e. species on islands often resemble species on the mainland: historical biogeography Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_20_5e 77. Recent advances in molecular techniques allowed paleobiologists to sequence DNA that was preserved in a woolly mammoth that died ____ years ago. a. 27,000 b. 4,000 c. 2,700 d. 1,000 e. 500 78. The fossil record documents ____, providing clear evidence of ongoing change in biological lineages. a. the occurrence of nonmorphological evolution b. the disconnect between living and extinct organisms c. disruptions in evolutionary processes d. continuity in morphological characteristics e. discontinuity in morphological features 79. Which idea(s) were established well before Darwin's time? a. Offspring frequently resemble their parents. b. Offspring inherit genes from their parents. c. Selective breeding improves domesticated plants and animals. d. Offspring frequently resemble their parents, and selective breeding improves domesticated plants and animals. e. Offspring frequently resemble their parents, offspring inherit genes from their parents, and selective breeding improves domesticated plants and animals. 80. Due to their similarities to fossilized glyptodonts, Darwin hypothesized that armadillos were ____ glyptodonts. a. the same species as b. unrelated to c. living descendants of d. coexisting in similar habitats as e. genetically identical to 81. While aboard the H.M.S. Beagle, Darwin was given a book called Principles of Geology, which primed him to apply ____ to the living world. a. the modern synthesis and orthogenesis b. genetics and biogeography c. natural theology and uniformitarianism d. catastrophism and gradualism e. gradualism and uniformitarianism

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Chap_20_5e 82. Georges Cuvier and his followers developed the theory of ____, reasoning that each layer of fossils represented the remains of organisms that had died as a result of dramatic shifts in ancient environments. a. fossilization b. uniformitarianism c. sedimentation d. catastrophism e. gradualism 83. At the time of the voyage of the H.M.S. Beagle, experienced sailors could easily identify a tortoise’s island of origin by the ____, supporting Darwin's observation that animals on different islands varied slightly in form. a. site it chose to breed b. shape of its shell c. color of its skin d. algae it chose to eat e. courtship it displayed 84. Morphological differences between European beavers and South American ____ contributed to Darwin's thoughts on species diversification. a. nutrias b. iguanas c. glyptodonts d. armadillos e. beavers 85. Which statement is NOT supported by the theory of evolution? a. Humans and apes share a common ancestry. b. Humans and apes are descended from an apelike common ancestor. c. Humans and apes have been evolving up until this very moment. d. Humans and apes have stopped evolving and are stable lineages. e. Humans and apes will continue to evolve for as long as their descendants persist.

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Chap_20_5e Answer the questions using the accompanying figure. Examine the following figure depicting homologous bones in mammalian forelimbs. Match each letter of the figure with the appropriate bone structure. Note that homologous bones are pictured in the same color.

Figure 20.3 (questions 81-85) a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 86. ulna 87. digits 88. humerus 89. carpals 90. radius

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Chap_20_5e Match each of the following concepts to the scientist(s) with whom it best corresponds. Some choices may be used more than once. a. vestigial structures b. population grows faster than agricultural capacity c. inheritance of acquired characteristics d. gradualism e. inheritance of discrete genetic units f. uniformitarianism g. taxonomic classification h. evolution by natural selection i. catastrophism 91. Charles Darwin 92. Charles Lyell 93. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck 94. Alfred Russel Wallace 95. George-Louis de Buffon 96. James Hutton 97. Gregor Mendel 98. Thomas Malthus 99. Georges Cuvier 100. Carolus Linnaeus 101. Explain the genetic evidence for the evolutionary changes that caused the loss of forelimbs in snakes.

102. What is the general mechanism for the development of pesticide resistance in insects?

103. Describe Lamarck’s four most important ideas that influenced Darwin’s evolutionary theory.

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Chap_20_5e 104. Explain how observing artificial selection provides an inference for natural selection.

105. Briefly summarize the seminal idea presented in Darwin’s famous publication, On the Origin of Species by Means of Natural Selection.

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Chap_20_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. False 4. False 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. False 9. False 10. True 11. d 12. b 13. e 14. d 15. a 16. c 17. c 18. c 19. c 20. e 21. a 22. c 23. b 24. b 25. a 26. d

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Chap_20_5e 27. b 28. a 29. c 30. b 31. c 32. d 33. b 34. b 35. a 36. b 37. d 38. c 39. c 40. c 41. d 42. d 43. b 44. b 45. c 46. e 47. a 48. b 49. b 50. e 51. e 52. e 53. e 54. e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_20_5e 55. e 56. d 57. e 58. b 59. d 60. c 61. b 62. c 63. d 64. e 65. e 66. c 67. a 68. d 69. c 70. e 71. a 72. a 73. b 74. d 75. e 76. a 77. a 78. d 79. d 80. c 81. e 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_20_5e 83. b 84. a 85. d 86. b 87. e 88. a 89. d 90. c 91. h 92. f 93. c 94. h 95. a 96. d 97. e 98. b 99. i 100. g 101. Most snakes lack limbs. However, they have Hoxc6 and Hoxc8 genes that are associated with the formation of limb buds and forelimbs in other vertebrates. In these animals, ribs, but not forelimbs, grow where both Hoxc6 and Hoxc8 genes are expressed. In snakes, these genes are expressed all along the backbone, beginning at the base of the skull; therefore, the ribcage develops just behind the head and limbs and limb buds do not form. This spatial patterns of gene expression caused the loss of forelimbs in snakes. 102. Pesticide resistance is natural selection on the microevolution level. The general mechanism is that only a few pesticide-resistant individuals have to be present, or migrate into a population, for the resistant genes to spread through a population. Since the resistant individuals will survive and reproduce, they will soon become more common in the population and the evolution of the resistant trait will spread quickly. 103. First, he proposed that all species change through time. Second, he recognized that new characteristics are passed from one generation to the next. Third, he suggested that organisms change in response to their environments. And fourth, he hypothesized the existence of specific mechanisms that fostered evolutionary change. All four of these ideas became cornerstones of Darwin’s evolutionary theory.

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Chap_20_5e 104. The two processes are analogous, in that individuals with desirable or survival-enhancing traits are selected—either by humans or by nature—to reproduce and pass their characteristics on to the next generation. 105. Darwin proposed natural selection as the mechanism that drives evolutionary change. Most of The Origin was an explanation of how natural selection acted on the variability within groups of organisms, preserving advantageous traits and eliminating disadvantageous ones.

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Chap 21_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. The maintenance of the HbS (sickle) allele in humans is an example of homozygote advantage. a. True b. False 2. Stabilizing selection reduces genetic and phenotypic variation and increases the frequency of intermediate phenotypes a. True b. False 3. Like directional selection, sexual selection pushes phenotypes toward one extreme. a. True b. False 4. Genetic drift is nonselective and therefore does not contribute to microevolution. a. True b. False 5. The Hardy-Weinberg principle describes how genotype frequencies are established in sexually reproducing organisms. a. True b. False 6. Natural selection is a quick and effective way of eliminating harmful alleles from the population. a. True b. False 7. Genetic drift can eliminate alleles from a population more quickly than natural selection. a. True b. False 8. Natural selection results in organisms perfectly adapted to their environments. a. True b. False 9. Genetic variation can originate both from the production of new alleles and from the arrangement of existing alleles. a. True b. False 10. Knowing that each diploid organism has one copy of each gene, a scientist can calculate the relative abundances of the different alleles in a population. a. True b. False

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Chap 21_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Inbreeding is primarily due to ____. a. gene flow b. nonrandom mating c. neutral mutations d. natural selection e. adaptive radiation 12. Natural selection that shifts the adaptation of an entire population toward one extreme is known as ____. a. stabilizing selection b. directional selection c. disruptive selection d. artificial selection e. sexual selection 13. For an autosomal gene locus, there are ____ possible genotypes and ____ possible alleles. a. two; three b. two; four c. three; two d. three; four e. four; three 14. In many species, sexual selection is the most probable cause of ____, differences in the size or appearance of males and females. a. adaptive radiation b. inbreeding c. mutation d. polymorphism e. sexual dimorphism 15. Genetic drift is most likely to lead to ____. a. artificial selection b. mutation c. the founder effect d. gene flow e. adaptation

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Chap 21_5e 16. Natural selection acts upon the ____ to create microevolutionary change. a. alleles in the gene pool of a population b. genotypic frequencies of a population c. alleles of an individual organism d. allele frequencies in a population e. phenotype of an individual organism 17. The high incidence of Ellis-van Creveld syndrome among the Old Order Amish population is caused by ____. a. a population bottleneck b. artificial selection c. sexual selection d. inbreeding e. random mating 18. The gene locus governing flower color in snapdragons exhibits ____ because heterozygous individuals appear pink while homozygous individuals are either white or red. a. codominance b. equilibrium c. autosomal dominance d. complete dominance e. incomplete dominance 19. The agent of microevolutionary change that is most likely to introduce genetic variation from another population is referred to as ____. a. genetic drift b. gene flow c. natural selection d. mutation e. nonrandom mating 20. In humans, ____ mutations cause forms of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, a disruption of collagen synthesis that may result in loose skin or weak joints. a. frameshift b. deleterious c. advantageous d. lethal e. neutral

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Chap 21_5e 21. In some studies that use observational rather than experimental data, investigators develop ____, which conceptually predict what they would see if a particular factor had no effect. a. control treatments b. null models c. experimental controls d. null treatments e. experimental models 22. With ____ selection, the frequency of the mean phenotype decreases while the frequencies of extreme phenotypes increase. a. directional b. stabilizing c. disruptive d. sexual e. dominant 23. In humans, a diploid organism, an individual’s genotype includes ____ of each autosomal gene. a. one copy b. two copies c. hundreds of copies d. thousands of copies e. millions of copies 24. The only survivors of a colony on Venus are a man and a woman, who both happen to originally be from southern Ukraine. Their descendants will show the effect of ____. a. genetic drift b. punctuated equilibrium c. excessive mutation d. heterozygote advantage e. frequency-dependent selection 25. Very small and very large human newborns are less likely to survive than those born at an intermediate weight due to ____. a. sexual selection b. artificial selection c. disruptive selection d. directional selection e. stabilizing selection

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Chap 21_5e 26. Seeds of many plants fall to the ground when they mature. This is an example of a characteristic that is influenced by ____. a. basic physical laws b. adaptive evolution c. chance events d. genetic drift e. neutral mutations 27. The fossil record reveals that the structure of shoulder joints in birds, which is essential for flight, is an adaptation that originated in ____. a. nonflying birds b. ancient bats c. ancestral birds d. nonflying dinosaurs e. flying dinosaurs 28. Research by Malte Andersson suggests the long tail feathers of male African widowbirds are a product of ____ selection because females are more strongly attracted to males with long tails than to males with short tails. a. disruptive b. intersexual c. intrasexual d. artificial e. stabilizing 29. Genetic drift will have a progressively larger impact on allele frequencies in a population as ____. a. gene flow increases b. population size decreases c. mutation rate decreases d. population size increases e. random mating increases 30. Which circumstance violates the conditions of the Hardy-Weinberg model? a. The population is infinitely large. b. The population is closed to migration from other populations. c. No mutations are occurring. d. All genotypes in the population survive and reproduce equally well. e. Nonrandom mating with respect to genotypes occurs between individuals.

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Chap 21_5e 31. If there are two alleles for a gene in a population, and the frequency of the dominant allele (p) is .5, then the frequency of the recessive allele (q) is ____. a. .5 b. .025 c. .25 d. .75 e. .05 32. Most new alleles probably arise from ____. a. crossing over between homologous chromosomes b. independent assortment of nonhomologous chromosomes c. rearrangement of existing alleles into new combinations d. small-scale mutations in DNA e. large-scale changes in chromosome structure 33. As adults, female ground finches on the Galápagos island of Daphne Major choose their mates according to characteristics they learned as young birds, a process known as ____. a. sexual equilibrium b. the founder effect c. selective inbreeding d. sexual imprinting e. adaptive radiation 34. The source of new alleles within a population is ____. a. natural selection b. mutation c. nonrandom mating d. adaptation e. genetic drift 35. According to the Hardy-Weinberg principle, microevolution occurs when ____. a. a population experiences a shift in allele frequencies b. no mutations are occurring in a population c. a population is closed to migration from other populations d. a feature of an individual animal changes through use or disuse e. when a population has different forms of the same gene 36. The stable presence of two or more phenotypes in a population is called a ____. a. balanced polymorphism b. mixed gene pool c. mutation pressure d. population bottleneck e. competitive advantage Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 21_5e 37. Changing environmental conditions would most likely cause an existing species to undergo ____. a. disruptive selection b. deleterious mutation c. directional selection d. stabilizing selection e. lethal mutation 38. Microevolution is ____. a. the appearance of a life form adapted to a new adaptive zone b. the formation of a new species c. the occurrence of a new mutation d. a change in allele frequencies within a population e. the gradual change in the form of fossils over geological time 39. The sum of all gene copies at all gene loci in all individuals in a population defines a ____. a. ploidy level b. genome c. polymorphism d. gene pool e. genetic database 40. Bacterial resistance to penicillin began to appear ____. a. several decades after its first use b. 100 years after its first use c. after the drug was developed from synthetic sources d. during the AIDS outbreak in the 1980s e. within a few years of its introduction into general use 41. Most copies of rare recessive alleles exist in ____. a. homozygotes b. heterozygotes c. females d. males e. males and females equally 42. Sometimes the most abundant color form of an animal is preyed upon more extensively than less common forms. This illustrates the phenomenon of ____ selection. a. stabilizing b. directional c. disruptive d. frequency-dependent e. artificial Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 21_5e 43. Characters that exist in two or more discrete states are described as exhibiting ____. a. quantitative variation b. qualitative variation c. genetic equilibrium d. punctuated equilibrium e. disruptive selection 44. Dog breeders produced the long body and short legs of a dachshund by employing ____ selection. a. dominant b. directional c. stabilizing d. disruptive e. sexual 45. If a lethal mutation occurs in a dominant allele, ____ individuals will die from its effects. a. only homozygous dominant b. only heterozygous c. only homozygous recessive d. both homozygous dominant and heterozygous e. both homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive 46. Directional selection favors ____. a. intermediate phenotypes b. phenotypes at one end of the distribution c. phenotypic extremes at both ends d. heterozygous individuals e. homozygous individuals 47. John G. Swallow and his colleagues used ____ techniques to demonstrate that the observed differences in activity levels of house mice have a genetic basis. a. artificial selection b. sexual selection c. random mating d. gel electrophoresis e. DNA sequencing 48. What is the most accurate definition of microevolution? a. heritable changes in the genetics of a population b. natural selection leading to adaptation c. the occurrence of a series of mutations over time d. the origin of new species through natural selection e. the origin of major new forms of life over time Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 21_5e 49. Mendel inferred the genetic basis of ____, such as flower color in peas, by crossing plants with different phenotypes. a. adaptive traits b. allele shuffling c. allelic recombination d. quantitative traits e. qualitative traits 50. Disadvantageous recessive alleles are protected from natural selection due to ____. a. homozygosity b. diploidy c. genetic drift d. haploidy e. adaptation 51. The bipedal posture of humans evolved from ____. a. deleterious mutations b. a novel mutation c. quadrupedal ancestors d. bipedal ancestors e. flightless birds 52. The Hardy-Weinberg principle specifies the conditions under which a population of diploid organisms achieves ____. a. progressive evolution b. allopatric speciation c. adaptive radiation d. punctuated equilibrium e. genetic equilibrium 53. In an isolated population of fruit flies, 4% of the individuals have pink eyes, a homozygous recessive condition, and 96% have the dominant black eye phenotype. What percentage of the population are heterozygotes? a. 32% b. 16% c. 48% d. 88% e. 4%

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Chap 21_5e 54. Snow geese usually select mates of their own color, an example of ____. a. genetic drift b. founder effects c. population bottlenecks d. nonrandom mating e. random mating 55. With frequency-dependent selection, highest mortality can be expected in ____. a. the most abundant genotype b. the least abundant genotype c. the least well-adapted genotype d. heterozygous genotypes e. homozygous recessive genotypes 56. When male moose engage in their annual battles, butting heads with their oversized antlers, they are exhibiting ____ selection. a. stabilizing b. disruptive c. directional d. intrasexual e. intersexual 57. On occasion, a stressful factor such as disease, starvation, or drought kills a large proportion of the individuals in a population, producing ____ that dramatically reduces the population size. a. natural selection b. artificial selection c. a lethal mutation d. a founder effect e. a population bottleneck 58. Genetic variations that confer no apparent selective advantage or disadvantage in a particular environment are said to be selectively ____. a. random b. deleterious c. neutral d. benign e. stabilizing

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Chap 21_5e 59. Microevolutionary change resulting from the differential survivorship or reproduction of individuals with different genotypes is known as ____. a. nonrandom mating b. mutation c. gene flow d. natural selection e. genetic drift 60. In the 1960s, evolutionary biologists identified protein polymorphisms using ____, which allowed them to infer how much genetic variation exists within populations. a. genome sequencing b. gel electrophoresis c. artificial selection d. polymerase chain reactions e. DNA microarrays 61. Andrew P. Hendry and colleagues discovered that Galápagos ground finches with small bills and ground finches with large bills were more common and had higher fitness than birds with bills of intermediate size, a demonstration of ____ selection. a. disruptive b. directional c. stabilizing d. sexual e. artificial 62. Hybridization between different species is rare because it ____. a. requires the breakdown of a barrier preventing interbreeding b. causes lethal mutations in hybrid offspring c. leads to the exchange of genes between closely related species d. leads to gene flow between species e. contradicts the species concept 63. The success of camouflage from predatory birds drives the predominant phenotypes in snail color. This is an example of ____. a. predation as an agent of natural selection b. sexual selection c. predation as an agent of artificial selection d. the founder effect e. a selectively neutral phenotype

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Chap 21_5e 64. Any product of natural selection that increases the relative fitness of an organism in its environment is called a(n) ____. a. neutral mutation b. adaptive trait c. founder effect d. speciation event e. polymorphic trait 65. Individuals with one sickle cell allele and one normal hemoglobin allele are not affected by the malaria parasite because of ____. a. neutral mutations b. heterozygote advantage c. frequency-dependent selection d. disruptive selection e. stabilizing selection 66. The development of penicillin-resistant bacteria represents an example of ____. a. punctuated equilibrium b. speciation c. genetic drift d. microevolution e. mutation 67. The existence of discrete variants of a particular character is known as ____. a. homozygous dominance b. a quantitative trait c. genotypic variation d. a polymorphism e. genetic equilibrium 68. Which of the following evolution-related events is in the correct cause-and-effect sequence? a. mutation → variation → natural selection → adaptation → speciation b. variation → adaptation → mutation → natural selection → speciation c. speciation → adaptation → variation → mutation → natural selection d. mutation → speciation →adaptation → variation → natural selection e. natural selection → variation → mutation → adaptation → speciation 69. A scientist could test how the traits of desert plants are adaptive by ____. a. transplanting individuals that have the trait into moister habitats b. selectively breeding individuals displaying that trait c. conducting straightforward experiments in the desert habitat d. crossing individuals in the desert with individuals in moister habitats e. comparing them to traits in related species from moister habitats Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 21_5e 70. When a few individuals colonize a distant locality and start a new population, the allele frequencies of the gene pool may be different than those in the original population. This is known as ____. a. the founder effect b. a population bottleneck c. genetic equilibrium d. the Hardy-Weinberg principle e. natural selection 71. The Hardy-Weinberg formula is used to calculate changes in ____. a. population size b. speciation c. allele frequencies d. mutation e. dimorphism 72. Dispersal agents, such as pollen-carrying wind or seed-carrying animals, are responsible for ____ in most plant populations because they often introduce novel alleles into a population. a. gene flow b. genetic drift c. mutations d. nonrandom mating e. natural selection 73. Natural selection exerts little or no effect on traits that appear during an individual’s ____. a. preadolescent years b. embryonic development c. juvenile phase d. postreproductive life e. reproductive life 74. Researchers study the inheritance of particular human traits by ____. a. performing breeding experiments b. crossing individuals with different phenotypes c. analyzing genealogical pedigrees d. selectively breeding certain individuals e. using artificial selection techniques

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Chap 21_5e 75. Natural selection results most directly in ____. a. adaptation b. mutations c. new species d. genetic drift e. gene flow 76. The phenomenon of chance events causing the allele frequencies in a population to change unpredictably is known as ____. a. genetic drift b. gene flow c. deleterious mutations d. nonrandom mating e. natural selection 77. The accumulation of traits that increase the relative fitness of organisms in their environment over time results in ____. a. mutation b. adaptation c. heterozygote advantage d. homozygote advantage e. diploidy 78. A group of individuals of a single species that live together in the same place and time is referred to as a(n) ____. a. community b. biome c. population d. gene pool e. ecosystem 79. The process by which successful traits become more common in subsequent generations is called ____. a. speciation b. mutation c. natural selection d. genetic drift e. gene flow

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Chap 21_5e 80. The contribution an individual makes to the gene pool of the next generation compared to the contributions of other individuals is called ____. a. competition b. genetic drift c. relative fitness d. gene flow e. mutation Match the Hardy-Weinberg factor with the correct genetic designation. a. frequency of heterozygotes b. frequency of the dominant allele c. frequency of the recessive allele d. the total gene pool for a gene with two alleles e. frequency of homozygous recessive genotypes f. frequency of homozygous dominant genotypes 81. p 82. q 83. q2 84. p2 85. 2pq 86. p + q Match each of the following definitions with the correct agent of microevolutionary change. a. gene flow b. nonrandom mating c. genetic drift d. mutation e. natural selection 87. heritable change in DNA 88. change in allele frequencies as individuals join a population and reproduce 89. random changes in allele frequencies caused by chance events 90. differential survivorship or reproduction of individuals with different genotypes 91. choice of mates based on their phenotypes and genotypes

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Chap 21_5e Answer the questions using the accompanying figure. Match each letter of the figure with the appropriate mode of natural selection.

Figure 21.1 (questions 83-85) a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G 92. disruptive selection 93. directional selection 94. stabilizing selection 95. The gallmaking fly larvae feeds on goldenrod plants, causing the plant tissue to produce a growth deformity called a gall. How does parasitism of small galls by wasps and predation of fly larvae in large galls by birds result in a higher percentage of medium-sized galls?

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Chap 21_5e 96. How does gene flow introduce novel genetic variants into populations?

97. How can harmful alleles persist in a population despite natural selection?

98. How can a researcher determine whether variation in a phenotypic trait is caused by environmental factors or by genetic differences?

99. Distinguish between quantitative and qualitative variation.

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Chap 21_5e Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. b 12. b 13. c 14. e 15. c 16. e 17. d 18. e 19. b 20. b 21. b 22. c 23. b 24. a 25. e 26. a

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Chap 21_5e 27. d 28. b 29. b 30. e 31. a 32. d 33. d 34. b 35. a 36. a 37. c 38. d 39. d 40. e 41. b 42. d 43. b 44. b 45. d 46. b 47. a 48. a 49. e 50. b 51. c 52. e 53. a 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 21_5e 55. a 56. d 57. e 58. c 59. d 60. b 61. a 62. a 63. a 64. b 65. b 66. d 67. d 68. a 69. e 70. a 71. c 72. a 73. d 74. c 75. a 76. a 77. b 78. c 79. c 80. c 81. b 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 21_5e 83. e 84. f 85. a 86. d 87. d 88. a 89. c 90. e 91. b 92. c 93. a 94. b 95. If wasps preferentially parasitize fly larvae in small galls and birds preferentially eat fly larvae in large galls, stabilizing selection favors medium-sized galls. That is, the opposing forces of directional selection for small or large galls create selection for the gall-making fly to make a higher percentage of medium-sized galls. 96. When an individual or gamete from one population enters another population and introduces novel alleles, the allele and genotypic frequencies may be shifted away from the values predicted by the Hardy-Weinberg model. That is, HardyWeinberg assumes populations are closed to migration, whereas gene flow introduces new alleles into a population. 97. The diploid condition reduces the effectiveness of natural selection in eliminating harmful recessive alleles from a population. Although such alleles are disadvantageous in the homozygous state, they may have little or no effect on heterozygotes. Thus, recessive alleles can be protected from natural selection by the phenotypic expression of the dominant allele. 98. We can test for an environmental cause experimentally by changing one environmental variable and measuring the effects on genetically similar subjects. For example, by growing cuttings from an ivy plant in shade and other cuttings from the same plant in full sun, one could see that the cuttings grown in sun will produce smaller leaves and shorter stems. This would be evidence that the variation is due to environmental factors because the cuttings all had the same genotype, having been taken from the same plant. 99. Both types of variation describe phenotypic variation. Quantitative traits are those that vary in small, incremental ways. Qualitative traits are those that exist in two or more discrete states.

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Chap 22_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. The biological species concept can be used to distinguish all living and extinct species. a. True b. False 2. Hybrid organisms frequently die as embryos or at an early age, a phenomenon called hybrid breakdown. a. True b. False 3. Many host races of the apple maggot have been identified; this is an example of allopatric speciation. a. True b. False 4. Today, evolutionary biologists view speciation as an event. a. True b. False 5. Unreduced gametes are those that contain additional sets of chromosomes. a. True b. False 6. Polyploid plants are often unhealthy compared to diploid plants. a. True b. False 7. If two organisms cannot mate due to physical differences, it is known as temporal isolation. a. True b. False 8. An example of a prezygotic isolating mechanism is behavioral isolation. a. True b. False 9. Sympatric speciation often occurs in animals through polyploidy. a. True b. False 10. Individuals from different subspecies usually interbreed where their geographic distributions meet. a. True b. False

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Chap 22_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. When an error of meiosis results in a diploid gamete, the gamete is said to be ____, which can result in ____. a. reduced; allopolyploidy only b. reduced; autopolyploidy only c. unreduced; allopolyploidy only d. unreduced; autopolyploidy only e. unreduced; both allopolyploidy and autopolyploidy 12. The phylogenetic species concept defines species in terms of ____. a. environmental adaptations and morphology b. genetic data and environmental adaptations c. morphology and environmental adaptations d. morphology and genetic data e. species response to adverse conditions and genetic data 13. The biological species concept emphasizes the ability of individuals to ____. a. adapt to the environment b. have greater longevity c. intermingle with other species d. live in a variety of habitats e. interbreed and produce fertile offspring 14. Identifying species based on evolutionary relationships is an example of the ____ concept. a. biological species b. ring species c. clinal variation d. morphological species e. phylogenetic species 15. Postzygotic isolating mechanisms occur when the offspring ____. a. survive to reproductive age b. have vigorous health c. inherit the same numbers of chromosomes from each parent d. inherit different developmental instructions from each parent e. have hybrid viability 16. A hybrid zone is defined as an area where two populations may breed and produce ____. a. inviable, sterile offspring b. viable host races c. inviable hybrid subspecies d. viable, fertile offspring e. viable, sterile offspring Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 22_5e 17. Bread wheat (2n=42), which is a staple food for about a third of the world's population, evolved from two wheat-like ancestors (both 2n=14); therefore, bread wheat is a ____ organism. a. diploid b. hexaploid c. triploid d. tetraploid e. tetraploid 18. A sterile hybrid plant can form a new fertile species if its chromosomes are doubled. This is referred to as ____. a. allopatric speciation b. cladogenesis c. a hybrid zone d. anagenesis e. sympatric speciation 19. A triploid plant is usually ____ because chromosomes cannot segregate properly during ____. a. not viable; mitosis b. sterile; meiosis c. sterile; mitosis d. not viable; meiosis e. not viable; spore formation 20. The evolution of a host race is due to the reproductive isolating mechanism called ____ isolation. a. behavioral b. temporal c. mechanical d. gametic e. ecological 21. Which reproductive isolating mechanism is displayed in a mule, the product of a cross between a horse and a donkey? a. mechanical isolation b. hybrid inviability c. hybrid sterility d. hybrid breakdown e. temporal isolation

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Chap 22_5e 22. An allopolyploid is ____. a. a polyploid that arose from hybridization b. a species that arose after secondary contact c. an allopatrically arising species d. a polyploid arising from a single diploid individual e. any sympatrically arising species 23. Two different species are crossed and the second generation (F2) illustrates reduced fitness. This is an example of ____. a. behavioral isolation b. gametic isolation c. hybrid breakdown d. crossing over e. hybrid sterility 24. Paleobiologists apply the ____ species concept to identify fossilized remains. a. phylogenetic b. paleontological c. genomic d. biological e. morphological 25. Eggs have receptors that recognize surface proteins on sperm of their own species. This illustrates ____. a. behavioral isolation b. gametic isolation c. hybrid breakdown d. hybrid inviability e. hybrid sterility 26. With the biological species concept, the process of speciation is frequently defined as the evolution of ____ between populations. a. genetic drift b. gene flow c. reproductive isolation d. geographic separation e. reproductive inclusion

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Chap 22_5e 27. Which scenario is an example of mechanical reproductive isolation? a. two plants that bloom months apart b. two flowers that are pollinated by different insects c. two mammals that have different habitats d. two fish that have incompatible gametes e. two birds that have different mating rituals 28. When two organisms do not mate because they breed at different times of the year, they are exhibiting ____ reproductive isolation. a. behavioral b. ecological c. gametic d. mechanical e. temporal 29. A smooth pattern of variation along a geographical gradient is referred to as a ____. a. ring species b. hybrid zone c. morphological species d. cline e. cluster of subspecies 30. Many closely related duck species exhibit ____, the dramatic variation in the appearance of males but not females, which is an almost certain sign of ____. a. asexual reproduction; sexual selection b. asexual reproduction; artificial selection c. sexual dimorphism; sexual selection d. sexual dimorphism; artificial selection e. sexual uniformitarianism; sexual selection 31. Polyploid individuals arising from chromosome duplications within a single species are called ____. a. allopolyploids b. tetraploids c. triploids d. autopolyploids e. hexaploids

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Chap 22_5e 32. The female reproductive tract of some Drosophila species blocks sperm of another species from reaching her eggs. This is an example of ____. a. gametic isolation b. hybrid breakdown c. hybrid inviability d. mechanical isolation e. temporal isolation 33. A small population isolated at the edge of a species’ geographic distribution may experience ____ and genetic drift, which may lead to the evolution of distinctive traits by ____. a. population bottlenecks; artificial selection b. a founder effect; natural selection c. gene flow; natural selection d. natural selection; population bottlenecks e. population bottlenecks; founder effects 34. A phylogenetic species comprises ____. a. populations that share a recent evolutionary history b. individuals that share certain traits c. interbreeding populations that are reproductively isolated d. individuals that share measurable traits that distinguish them e. one large gene pool subdivided into local populations 35. Allopolyploidy is defined as ____ chromosome number due to ____. a. maintenance of; interbreeding within a single species b. decreased; hybridization of different species c. decreased; interbreeding within a single species d. increased; hybridization of different species e. increased; interbreeding within a single species 36. A host race may develop ____. a. only when an organism’s genes for the host choice change b. only when an organism’s genes for mating preferences change c. only when a geographical barrier exists d. when genes for the host choice and genes for mating preferences change e. when genes for mating preferences change and geographical barriers exist 37. Biologists are not yet able to apply the phylogenetic species concept to all forms of life because ____. a. individuals within populations exhibit genotypic and phenotypic variation b. detailed evolutionary histories have been described for relatively few groups of organisms c. many forms of life reproduce asexually d. evolutionary history cannot be determined for extinct species e. it does not distinguish closely related species that are nearly identical in appearance Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 22_5e 38. Polyploidy is a mechanism of sympatric speciation most common to ____. a. mammals b. birds c. amphibians d. plants e. fishes 39. At least two host races of apple maggots have appeared within the past 150 years, suggesting they may be undergoing ____. a. adaptive radiation b. allopatric speciation c. sympatric speciation d. genetic drift e. development of a hybrid zone 40. On the Hawaiian Islands, speciation in Drosophila occurred when a small group of males and females colonized a new island, where they faced environmental selection pressures. In addition, sexual dimorphism – and therefore, sexual selection – maintained reproductive isolation from other populations on the new island. These populations, although closely related, remained ecologically different. These events are examples of ____. a. a founder effect only b. genetic drift only c. adaptive radiation only d. a founder effect and genetic drift, but not adaptive radiation e. a founder effect, genetic drift, and adaptive radiation 41. A plant with a very small tubular type of flower that cannot be pollinated by a large honeybee is exhibiting which prezygotic isolating mechanism? a. behavioral b. ecological c. gametic d. mechanical e. temporal 42. Mammals living in cold environments tend to have ____ bodies and ____ appendages than species living in warm environments. a. larger; fewer b. larger; longer c. larger; shorter d. smaller; shorter e. smaller; longer

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Chap 22_5e 43. To distinguish two organisms using the morphological species concept, a scientist would ____. a. perform a genetic analysis on the two organisms b. look at the appearance of two organisms c. mate the two organisms to see if viable offspring result d. observe the mating rituals of the two organisms e. trace the common ancestry of the two organisms 44. The biological species concept cannot be applied to ____. a. animals that interbreed b. crossbreeding plants c. protists that interbreed d. animals that reproduce sexually e. plants that reproduce asexually 45. Research comparing chromosomal structure between the genomes of humans and other primates reveals that humans are most closely related to ____. a. monkeys b. orangutans c. chimpanzees d. gorillas e. lemurs 46. To answer questions about the genetic changes underlying speciation, scientists are now isolating and sequencing ____. a. sympatric genes b. allopatric genes c. neutral mutations d. deleterious mutations e. speciation genes 47. Two plant species live in the same location and flower at the same time, but do not hybridize because they have unique pollinators. This is an example of ____. a. hybrid inviability b. hybrid breakdown c. a postmating reproductive mechanism d. a postzygotic reproductive barrier e. a prezygotic reproductive barrier

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Chap 22_5e 48. Female fireflies identify males by their flashing patterns, which are often so complicated that signals sent by one species cannot be understood by another species. This reproductive isolating mechanism is called ____. a. ecological isolation b. gametic isolation c. temporal isolation d. behavioral isolation e. mechanical isolation 49. A species cluster is defined as a group of ____. a. closely related species with a recent common ancestor b. species that developed host races c. species that exhibit polyploidy d. totally unrelated species living in a common habitat e. distantly related species that have multiple ancestors 50. When autopolyploid speciation occurs in a plant, a spontaneous doubling of chromosomes during meiosis leads to the production of ____ gametes. If the plant fertilizes itself, a ____ zygote will be produced. a. haploid; diploid b. diploid; tetraploid c. diploid; haploid d. haploid; tetraploid e. tetraploid; diploid 51. Today, evolutionary biologists view speciation as a ____, and instead study the ____ of speciation using classical and genomic approaches. a. single event; products b. process; products c. product; process d. product; events e. single event; process 52. The uplift of the Isthmus of Panama, a geological event that occurred about five million years ago, separated populations of marine organisms and led to ____. a. allopatric speciation b. sympatric speciation c. gametic isolation d. hybrid sterility e. hybrid inviability

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Chap 22_5e 53. The evolution of prezygotic barriers to reproduction after postzygotic barriers already exist is called ____. a. species fusion b. reinforcement c. adaptive radiation d. geographic isolation e. hybridization 54. Polyploidy refers to an individual ____ and occurs most often in ____. a. with one or more additional sets of chromosomes; animals b. with one or more additional sets of chromosomes; plants c. lacking one or more sets of chromosomes; plants d. lacking one or more sets of chromosomes; animals e. lacking individual chromosomes; animals 55. A ring species is one in which ____. a. a clinal variation occurs b. all of the various populations can mate successfully c. an area's climate interferes with speciation d. none of the various populations can mate successfully e. only intermediary populations can mate successfully 56. A zebroid is the sterile hybrid offspring of a horse and a zebra. This is an example of ____. a. hybrid inviability b. hybrid sterility c. allopatric speciation d. prezygotic reproductive isolation e. hybrid breakdown 57. Researchers believe the evolution of common bread wheat (Triticum aestivum) resulted from a series of ____ between related species, some of which produced ____ species. a. hybridizations; allopolyploid b. geographic separations; allopolyploid c. centromere inversions; autopolyploid d. chromosome deletions; autopolyploid e. chromosome rearrangements; autopolyploid

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Chap 22_5e 58. Researchers hypothesize that the hybrid zone of Bullock’s orioles and Baltimore orioles remains narrow because hybrids ____. a. are routinely eliminated by natural selection within the hybrid zone b. prefer the moist habitats of the Baltimore oriole c. prefer hotter and drier habitats of the Bullock’s oriole d. are well adapted to both the dry habitats of the Bullock’s oriole and to the moist habitats of the Baltimore oriole e. are not well adapted to the dry habitats of the Bullock’s oriole or to the moist habitats of the Baltimore oriole 59. The apple maggot's natural host plant is the hawthorne; however, over the past 150 years, new populations were found that feed on apples and cherries. This is an example of ____ speciation via the development of ____. a. sympatric; allopolyploidy b. allopatric; host races c. sympatric; host races d. allopatric; autopolyploidy e. sympatric; autopolyploidy 60. Which combination is an example of prezygotic mechanisms of isolation? a. hybrid breakdown and temporal isolation b. hybrid breakdown and gametic isolation c. hybrid sterility and temporal isolation d. mechanical and temporal isolation e. mechanical and hybrid breakdown 61. A ____ mutation in snails can reverse the direction of shell coiling, which ____ mating. a. single; encourages b. single; prohibits c. double; encourages d. double; prohibits e. large deletion; encourages 62. Speciation that takes place when a physical barrier subdivides a large population is called ____ speciation. a. morphologic b. phylogenetic c. allopatric d. sympatric e. geographic

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Chap 22_5e 63. According to the biological species concept, members of the same species look alike primarily because they ____. a. live in the same environment b. share the same gene pool c. have a common ancestor d. have stopped evolving e. are adapted to the same life style 64. Flowers that bloom in early spring versus those that bloom in late summer experience which type of reproductive isolation? a. behavioral b. ecological c. gametic d. temporal e. mechanical 65. If the gene pools of allopatric populations did not differentiate much during geographical separation, then upon reestablishing contact, the populations may interbreed and merge into one. This phenomenon is called ____. a. species clustering b. divergence c. hybridization d. species fusion e. convergence 66. If an organism with 64 chromosomes mates with a closely related organism with 62 chromosomes, the most likely result will be ____. a. many unhealthy offspring due to hybrid breakdown b. many unhealthy offspring due to hybrid inviability c. no offspring due to hybrid sterility d. sterile offspring due to hybrid inviability e. sterile offspring due to hybrid sterility 67. When allopatric populations reestablish contact upon elimination of a geographical barrier, ____ has occurred. a. species clustering b. secondary contact c. adaptive radiation d. sympatric speciation e. evolutionary convergence

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Chap 22_5e 68. Abrupt genetic changes that quickly lead to the reproductive isolation of a group of individuals will likely lead to ____. a. sympatric speciation b. allopatric speciation c. secondary contact d. species fusion e. geographic separation 69. Which scenario is NOT an example of a prezygotic isolating mechanism? a. An iris blooms at a different time of the year than a daffodil. b. A peacock puts on a different mating display than a sparrow. c. A snail with a shell coiling in one direction cannot mate with a snail whose shell curls in the other direction. d. A zebroid, a cross between a horse and zebra, is sterile. e. One type of roundworm would reject the sperm from another species of roundworm. 70. If two species of lizards do not mate because their mating rituals differ greatly, they are exhibiting ____ reproductive isolation. a. behavioral b. ecological c. gametic d. mechanical e. temporal 71. The biological species concept is primarily based on ____ criteria. a. phylogenetic b. morphological c. genetic d. reproductive e. anatomical 72. Which avenue of research is least likely to reveal whether asexual organisms form species? a. analyzing whether a cluster of bacteria constitutes a species b. exploring various niches in which different populations reside c. looking into previously undiscovered types of bacteria d. performing genomic research e. hybridizing polyploid plants

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Chap 22_5e 73. Species that live in different habitats exhibit ____ reproductive isolation. a. temporal b. behavioral c. gametic d. ecological e. mechanical 74. Darwin recognized that ____ had generated the amazing diversity of organisms on Earth. a. descent with modification b. genetic mutations c. genetic variation d. differences in allele frequencies e. differences in genotype frequencies 75. Genomic analyzes of the apple- and hawthorn-feeding races of Rhagoletis suggest that genetic divergence between the two species has largely been driven by ____ selection, a diversifying form of natural selection. a. disruptive b. directional c. stabilizing d. artificial e. sexual 76. Allopatric speciation typically occurs in two stages. The first stage is ____ of two populations and the second stage is ____. a. geographic separation; reproductive isolation b. natural selection; geographic separation c. mutation; reproductive isolation d. reproductive isolation; geographic separation e. genetic drift; reproductive isolation 77. Clinal variation usually results from ____ between ____ populations that are each adapting to slightly different conditions. a. isolation; adjacent b. isolation; distant c. genetic drift; distant d. gene flow; adjacent e. genetic drift; adjacent

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Chap 22_5e 78. Because ____ is less likely to occur between distant populations of the same species, their gene pools and phenotypes are often somewhat different. a. genetic drift b. a population bottleneck c. a founder effect d. gene flow e. asexual reproduction 79. Analysis of human chromosome 2 reveals that it was produced by the ____ that are still present in our closest ancestral ape relatives. a. fusion of many larger chromosomes b. fusion of two smaller chromosomes c. inversion of several centromeres d. reversal of centromere locations e. division of one larger chromosome 80. Which scientist published the book titled, “Systematics and the Origin of Species” in 1942? a. Charles Darwin b. Gregor Mendel c. Ernst Mayr d. Charles Lyell e. Carolus Linnaeus Match each definition to the correct term. a. morphological species concept b. autopolyploidy c. biological species concept d. species cluster e. allopolyploidy f. subspecies g. phylogenetic species concept 81. local variants of a species that exhibit dramatic, easily recognized phenotypic differences

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Chap 22_5e Match each definition to the correct term. a. morphological species concept b. autopolyploidy c. biological species concept d. species cluster e. allopolyploidy f. subspecies g. phylogenetic species concept 82. a group of closely related species recently descended from a recent common ancestor Match each definition to the correct term. a. morphological species concept b. autopolyploidy c. biological species concept d. species cluster e. allopolyploidy f. subspecies g. phylogenetic species concept 83. species comprise populations that share a recent evolutionary history on the Tree of Life 84. species are members of natural populations that interbreed and produce fertile offspring 85. all individuals of a species share measurable traits that distinguish them from other species Match each definition to the correct term. a. species live in different habitats b. species breed at different times c. species cannot communicate d. species cannot physically mate e. species have nonmatching receptors on gametes f. hybrid offspring do not complete development g. hybrid offspring cannot produce gametes h. hybrid offspring have reduced survival or fertility 86. hybrid breakdown 87. hybrid inviability 88. hybrid sterility

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Chap 22_5e Match each definition to the correct term. a. species live in different habitats b. species breed at different times c. species cannot communicate d. species cannot physically mate e. species have nonmatching receptors on gametes f. hybrid offspring do not complete development g. hybrid offspring cannot produce gametes h. hybrid offspring have reduced survival or fertility 89. behavioral isolation 90. ecological isolation 91. gametic isolation 92. mechanical isolation 93. temporal isolation Match each definition to the correct term. a. morphological species concept b. autopolyploidy c. biological species concept d. species cluster e. allopolyploidy f. subspecies g. phylogenetic species concept 94. two closely related species hybridize and form polyploid offspring 95. chromosome duplications within a single species give rise to polyploid individuals 96. In what way is clinal variation exhibited in animals?

97. Define a species cluster and provide examples.

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Chap 22_5e 98. Explain how reproductive isolation is central to the biological species concept.

99. How did researchers establish the connection between chimpanzees and humans?

100. Based on the morphological species concept, why would you assume that there are many different species of rat snakes?

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Chap 22_5e Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. False 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. False 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. d 12. d 13. e 14. e 15. d 16. d 17. b 18. e 19. b 20. e 21. c 22. a 23. c 24. e 25. b 26. c

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Chap 22_5e 27. b 28. e 29. d 30. c 31. d 32. a 33. b 34. a 35. d 36. d 37. b 38. d 39. c 40. e 41. d 42. c 43. b 44. e 45. c 46. e 47. e 48. d 49. a 50. b 51. b 52. a 53. b 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 22_5e 55. e 56. b 57. a 58. e 59. c 60. d 61. b 62. c 63. b 64. d 65. d 66. e 67. b 68. a 69. d 70. a 71. d 72. e 73. d 74. a 75. a 76. a 77. d 78. d 79. b 80. c 81. f 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 22_5e 83. g 84. c 85. a 86. h 87. f 88. g 89. c 90. a 91. e 92. d 93. b 94. e 95. b 96. Clinal variation usually results from gene flow between nearby populations when each population is adapting to slightly different conditions. When a species is distributed over a large, environmentally diverse area, some traits may exhibit a cline, a smooth pattern of variation across a geographical gradient. For example, many birds and mammals in the northern hemisphere show clinal variation in body size and the relative length of their appendages. In general, populations living in colder environments have larger bodies and shorter appendages. 97. A species cluster is a group of closely related species recently descended from a common ancestor. Species clusters are often found in oceanic archipelagos because of multiple invasions on each island in an archipelago. Species of fruit flies on the Hawaiian Islands provides an example of a species cluster that evolved relatively rapidly. 98. The biological species concept defines species in terms of population genetics and evolutionary theory based on the ability to interbreed. Two different reproductive isolating mechanisms are recognized, prezygotic and postzygotic, which are, respectively, premating and postmating mechanisms. Reproductive isolation prevents gene pools of two species from mixing. 99. Researchers examined the chromosomes of humans, apes, gorillas, and chimpanzees. They looked for similar chromosomal banding patterns among the species and established that those of chimpanzees are most closely related to human chromosomes. 100. The rat snake is present in many diverse areas of the country. Individual snakes from these different locations have different banding patterns and do not resemble each other. Based on a morphological approach, one would assume that they are different species. In reality, they are subspecies that could successfully mate if brought to a common location.

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Chap 23_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. The mass extinction of most dinosaurs occurred rapidly as a result of a single cataclysmic event. a. True b. False 2. Vicariance is defined as the movement of organisms away from their place of origin. a. True b. False 3. Using the geological time scale, scientists can determine the absolute age of rocks and fossils. a. True b. False 4. Scientists hypothesize that the massive Permian extinction was triggered by an asteroid impact. a. True b. False 5. An exaptation is described as a trait that evolves in anticipation of future evolutionary needs or benefits. a. True b. False 6. The marsupial mammals of Australia and the placental mammals of North America include many pairs of morphologically convergent species. a. True b. False 7. The punctuated equilibrium hypothesis suggests that speciation usually occurs in isolated populations at the edge of a species’ geographical distribution. a. True b. False 8. The most severe mass extinction occurred at the end of the Permian Period. a. True b. False 9. Most fossils form in sedimentary rocks. a. True b. False 10. An adaptive radiation may be triggered after the demise of a successful group. a. True b. False

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Chap 23_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. The changing size ratio between an animal's head and the rest of its body during development is an example of ____. a. allometric growth b. punctuated equilibrium c. phyletic gradualism d. heterochrony e. paedomorphosis 12. The skulls of infant chimpanzees and infant humans are remarkably similar in shape. However, as they mature, they become quite different due to differences in ____. a. allometric growth b. paedomorphosis c. gradualism d. vicariance e. heterochrony 13. Alan Cheetham observed a punctuated pattern of evolution in the ____, small ectoprocts from the Caribbean Sea. a. trilobites b. arthropods c. crustaceans d. Metrarabdotos e. echinoderms 14. Today we are living in one of the ____ periods of Earth’s history, but global climate change is occurring much ____ than ever before. a. cooler; faster b. cooler; slower c. warmer; faster d. warmer; slower e. warmer; more unpredictably 15. Most dinosaurs died out by the end of the ____ period. a. Triassic b. Jurassic c. Cretaceous d. Quaternary e. Permian

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Chap 23_5e 16. The evolution of horses is best characterized as ____. a. a linear sequence of intermediate forms leading to modern horses b. an example of evolutionary convergence c. poorly documented and speculative d. a gradual increase in body size e. a complex branched history with many extinct lineages 17. The 14 species of finches native to the Galápagos Islands ____, and therefore illustrate adaptive radiation. a. diverged following a mass extinction event b. evolved from a single common ancestor c. migrated independently from South America d. represent a convergent evolutionary process e. evolved from numerous distant ancestors 18. Most dinosaurs were extinct by ____ years ago. a. 10,000 b. 1 million c. 500 million d. 65 million e. 1 billion 19. The earliest signs of life appeared on Earth during the ____. a. Archean b. Paleozoic c. Mesozoic d. Cambrian e. Cenozoic 20. Which group of animals are living representatives of the theropods, a lineage of bipedal predatory dinosaurs? a. birds b. crocodiles and alligators c. snakes and lizards d. turtles e. mammals 21. The narrower and more tubular shape of Delphinium nudicaule flowers, which mature at an earlier stage of development than Delphinium decorum flowers, is the product of ____. a. allometric growth b. exaptation c. paedomorphosis d. disjunct vicariance e. continuous vicariance Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 23_5e 22. Which element is least useful for dating fossils greater than 10 million years old? a. Carbon-14 b. Uranium-238 c. Uranium-235 d. Thorium-232 e. Rubidium-87 23. Mammals underwent an evolutionary "explosion", or major adaptive radiation, during the ____. a. Mesozoic era b. Cambrian period c. Triassic period d. Devonian period e. Cenozoic era 24. The fossil record indicates that the immediate ancestors of modern marine animals diversified in the ____ period, right after the ____ extinction. a. Ordovician; Cambrian b. Jurassic; Triassic c. Carboniferous; Devonian d. Paleogene; Cretaceous e. Triassic; Permian 25. The radioactive decay of carbon-14 can be used to determine ____. a. relative dating b. absolute dating c. mutation rates d. plate tectonics e. extinction rates 26. Angiosperms first appeared during the ____ period. a. Cambrian b. Jurassic c. Cretaceous d. Neogene e. Devonian 27. As a result of plate tectonics, new crust is added to the Earth at ____, and old crust is recycled into the mantle at ____. a. oceanic ridges; oceanic trenches b. oceanic ridges; continental crusts c. oceanic trenches; oceanic ridges d. continental crusts; oceanic trenches e. oceanic trenches; continental crusts Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 23_5e 28. Different clusters of related Galápagos finch species each occupy a somewhat different ____, a term that describes a general way of life. a. niche zone b. adaptive zone c. hybrid zone d. novel habitat e. disjunct habitat 29. Which terrestrial herbivore in Australia shares overall similarities in body form and ecological roles as the distantly related North American woodchuck (Marmota monax)? a. marsupial mole (Notoryctes typhlops) b. yellow-footed marsupial mouse (Antechinus flavipes) c. wombat (Vombatus ursinus) d. honey glider (Petaurus breviceps) e. Tasmanian wolf (Thylacinus cynocephalus) 30. Changes in the timing of developmental events is called ____. a. paedomorphosis b. homeosis c. heterochrony d. homoplasy e. allometry 31. Although ferns and conifers maintained their diversity into the early Cenozoic era, ____ may have hastened their decline in the early Cretaceous. a. cycads b. gymnosperms c. angiosperms d. invertebrates e. mammals 32. To which zoogeographical realm does the North American continent belong? a. Palearctic b. Oceanian c. Neotropical d. Panamanian e. Nearctic

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Chap 23_5e 33. Which is a likely result of a mass extinction? a. The creation of “empty niche spaces,” which can stimulate radiation of surviving groups. b. The elimination of non-beneficial alleles from gene pools. c. The increase in the rate of new mutations in remaining species. d. The decrease in the rate of new mutations in remaining species. e. The introduction of mutations that have a greater than usual effect. 34. Fossil evidence from five continents exists for 100 extinct, and one extant, species of ____ a. humans b. birds c. trilobites d. insects e. horses 35. Throughout Earth’s history, changes in climate patterns that led to declining sea levels took an especially severe toll on organisms living in ____ environments. a. interior freshwater b. interior terrestrial c. coastal terrestrial d. shallow marine e. deep marine 36. The potential seventh mass extinction refers to ____. a. the loss of 50% of species on Earth, including dinosaurs, at the end of the Cretaceous b. the most extensive loss of species that occurred during the Permian c. what will happen to the human species if a nuclear war occurs d. the rapid loss of biodiversity due to human degradation of the environment e. events that occurred just before insects diversified on land 37. About 250 million years ago Earth’s continents merged into one supercontinent called ____. a. Nazca b. Eurasia c. Laurasia d. Gondwana e. Pangaea 38. Which adaptation is least likely to be found in any dinosaurs? a. bright coloration b. bipedal posture c. feathered wings d. gills for breathing underwater e. posture with heads upright and tails off the ground Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 23_5e 39. Fossils are predominantly found in ____. a. metamorphic rocks b. igneous rocks c. sedimentary rocks d. crystalline rocks e. radioactive rocks 40. The most severe mass extinction on Earth occurred at the end of the ____ period. a. Cambrian b. Carboniferous c. Jurassic d. Permian e. Devonian 41. Radiometric dating works best with ____. a. sedimentary rocks b. limestone c. metamorphic rock d. volcanic rocks e. meteorites 42. When rapid speciation produces a cluster of closely related species that occupy different habitats or consume different foods, the process is referred to as ____. a. punctuated equilibrium b. disjunct dispersal c. disjunct vicariance d. adaptive radiation e. continuous vicariance 43. When scientists examined fossils of Ordovician trilobites, they found that a sample from any given stratum was almost always intermediate in their morphology between samples from strata just above or below it, providing evidence of ____. a. convergent evolution b. rapid speciation c. adaptive radiation d. punctuated equilibrium e. phyletic gradualism

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Chap 23_5e 44. At times when Earth’s climate was cooler than it is today, the polar ice caps ____, rainfall ____, and sea levels ____. a. retreated; increased; rose b. retreated; decreased; fell c. grew larger; increased; fell d. grew larger; increased; rose e. grew larger; decreased; fell 45. Over time, the carbon isotope 14C decays into ____. a. 12C b. 14N c. 12N d. 13C e. 12B 46. The evolutionary mode in which species evolve rapidly at first and then remain stable for very long periods of time is called ____. a. catastrophism b. uniformitarianism c. disruptive selection d. punctuated equilibrium e. phyletic gradualism 47. In some amphibians, including salamanders, paedomorphosis results from mutations that ____. a. reduce thyroid hormone production only b. reduce pituitary hormone production only c. limit the responsiveness of some developmental processes to thyroid hormone concentration only d. reduce pituitary hormone production, limit the responsiveness of some developmental processes to pituitary hormone concentration, or both e. reduce thyroid hormone production, limit the responsiveness of some developmental processes to thyroid hormone concentration, or both 48. Plate tectonics causes oceanic ridges to form where ____. a. continental plates collide b. shallow seas dry up c. magma rises through fissures in the sea floor d. old oceanic crust sinks below continental crust e. subduction uplifts continental crust

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Chap 23_5e 49. According to the geological time scale, which segment of Earth’s history is the oldest? a. Hadean eon b. Archean eon c. Proterozoic eon d. Paleozoic era e. Cenozoic era 50. On a regional level, coastal areas generally experience ____ fluctuations in temperature compared to interior regions of land masses. a. smaller daily but larger seasonal b. larger daily but smaller seasonal c. only larger daily d. smaller daily and seasonal e. larger daily and seasonal 51. Genes in the Hox family of homeobox genes control the body plans of animals along the ____ axis, including where ____ will develop on the animal’s body. a. dorsal-ventral; appendages b. dorsal-ventral; light-sensing organs c. internal-external; internal organs d. anterior-posterior; appendages e. anterior-posterior; light-sensing organs 52. A trait that is adaptive in one context and later turns out to have adaptive value in a different context is called ____. a. paedomorphic b. heterochronic c. allometric d. an exaptation e. endemic 53. During the Cretaceous period, ____. a. mammals diversified and flourished b. life appeared on this planet c. the first animals with shells and skeletons appeared d. the dinosaurs reached their peak and then most species became extinct e. the first human-like apes appeared

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Chap 23_5e 54. Australia and Eurasia each have a mouse-like mammal, one a marsupial, the other a placental. These distantly related species are an example of ____. a. disjunct dispersal b. disjunct vicariance c. adaptive radiation d. convergent evolution e. distant migration 55. The concept that most morphological changes in species occur gradually over long periods of time is known as the ____. a. phyletic gradualism hypothesis b. principle of convergent evolution c. punctuated equilibrium hypothesis d. unified theory of evolution e. concept of adaptive radiation 56. The appendages in both fishes and tetrapods develop from buds of ____, the middle embryonic tissue layer. a. ectoderm b. endoderm c. mesoderm d. epiderm e. hypoderm 57. In which period was a mass extinction event least likely? a. Permian b. Neogene c. Cretaceous d. Ordovician e. Devonian 58. Scientists hypothesize that the massive Permian extinction was triggered by ____. a. asteroid impacts that caused atmospheric dust clouds b. a series of ongoing volcanic eruptions c. degradation of the environment by humans d. rising sea levels that covered most landmasses e. extreme global cooling that made Earth uninhabitable 59. The time interval used to measure the absolute age of rocks by radiometric dating is called the ____. a. radioisotope unit b. radiometric unit c. radiometric life d. radioisotope life e. half-life Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 23_5e 60. A species confined to a specific geographic area and found nowhere else on Earth is called ____. a. endemic b. allopatric c. sympatric d. autopolyploid e. polymorphic 61. The term ____ refers to all the organisms, including plants and animals, living in a particular region. a. fauna b. biota c. flora d. population e. ecosystem 62. As environments change, poorly adapted organisms will not survive and reproduce; therefore, we can expect species to disappear at some low rate, called the ____. a. background extinction rate b. punctuated equilibrium c. rate of phyletic gradualism d. rate of adaptive radiation e. mass extinction rate 63. Peter Sheldon found that the number of tail “ribs” in ____ changed over a 3 million year period with no evidence of speciation. a. horses b. trilobites c. insects d. humans e. ectoprocts 64. A ____ gene determines the structure of body parts during embryonic development. a. homoplasy b. homeostatic c. homologous d. homeobox e. homogenous

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Chap 23_5e 65. Dinosaurs flourished during the ____ era. a. Archaean b. Paleozoic c. Mesozoic d. Cambrian e. Cenozoic 66. Continental drift caused the large supercontinent that existed during the Paleozoic era to separate into a northern continent, called ____, and a southern continent, called ____. a. Pangaea; Laurasia b. Laurasia; Gondwana c. Gondwana; Laurasia d. Pangaea; Gondwana e. Gondwana; Pangaea 67. The first dinosaur fossils were discovered in ____, leading to the first public dinosaur craze. a. Britain b. Australia c. United States d. South Africa e. China 68. A single seed lands on one of a group of isolated islands. Several million years later, its descendants have evolved into a number of new species on the different islands, representing a variety of trees, shrubs, and vines. This is an example of ____. a. adaptive radiation b. punctuated equilibrium c. genetic drift d. microevolution e. mutation 69. The movement of organisms away from their place of origin, called ____, can produce a ____ distribution, in which closely related species live in widely separated locations. a. fragmentation; continuous b. vicariance; disjunct c. vicariance; continuous d. dispersal; disjunct e. dispersal; continuous

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Chap 23_5e 70. The apparent lack of intermediate forms in the fossil record can be explained by the ____ hypothesis. a. disruptive selection b. fossil decay c. punctuated equilibrium d. genetic drift e. allopatric speciation 71. The diversity of terrestrial vascular plants has increased almost continuously since the ____ period. a. Devonian b. Ordovician c. Cambrian d. Silurian e. Proterozoic 72. What percentage of the species that have ever existed on Earth are probably now extinct? a. less than 10% b. more than 99.9% c. about 80% d. about 25% e. about 75% 73. Fossilized wood and bone fragments can be accurately aged using ____. a. Thorium-232 b. Uranium-238 c. Uranium-235 d. Potassium-40 e. Carbon-14 74. Which characteristic possessed by Archaeopteryx was least likely present in their dinosaurian ancestors? a. teeth b. feathers c. a long tail with many vertebrae d. three clawed fingers on each hand e. a forked breastbone 75. If the entire history of the Earth is symbolized by a 12-month calendar, dinosaurs and mammals both appear in the month of ____. a. August b. September c. October d. November e. December Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 23_5e 76. The analysis of large-scale changes in morphology and diversity over life’s 3.8-billion-year history comprises the study of ____. a. microevolution b. mutation c. macroevolution d. artificial selection e. genetic drift 77. Some animals have evolved sexual maturity in juvenile body forms. This is called ____. a. allometric growth b. vicariance c. paedomorphosis d. punctuated equilibrium e. convergence 78. A paleontologist estimates that when a particular rock formed, it contained 12 mg of the radioactive isotope potassium-40, which has a half-life of 1.25 billion years. The rock now contains 3 mg of the isotope. About how old is the rock? a. 2.5 billion years b. 5.0 billion years c. 1.25 billion years d. 0.3 billion years e. 0.4 billion years 79. Today, Australia, Antarctica, and South America represent fragments of ____. a. Australasia b. Laurasia c. Gondwana d. Eurasia e. Amerasia 80. In marine sticklebacks, the Pitx1 gene is ____, but in freshwater sticklebacks, the Pitx1 gene is ____. a. not expressed in fin buds of the pelvic region and spines are present; expressed and spines are absent b. not expressed in fin buds of the pelvic region and spines are absent; expressed and spines are present c. expressed and spines are present; not expressed in fin buds in the pelvic region and spines are absent d. expressed and spines are absent; not expressed in fin buds in the pelvic region and spines are present e. present so spines develop; absent so spines do not develop

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Chap 23_5e Match each of the following events with the correct time interval of Earth’s history. a. Archaean b. Cambrian c. Silurian d. Devonian e. Carboniferous f. Permian g. Triassic h. Jurassic i. Cretaceous j. Cenozoic - Tertiary 81. diversification of terrestrial vascular plants; first amphibians and insects 82. modern birds and mammals diversify 83. origin of mammals; Pangaea begins to break up 84. large swamp forests formed by vascular plants; first flying insects and amniotes 85. birds appear; dinosaurs diversify and dominate 86. initial radiation of animal phyla 87. asteroid at the end of this period causes extinction of most dinosaurs 88. origin of life; evolution of prokaryotes 89. first vascular plants and jawed fishes appear 90. continents coalesce into Pangaea; mass extinction at the end of this period destroyed 85 percent of life

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Chap 23_5e Answer the questions using the accompanying figure depicting the history of vascular plant diversity. Match each color and corresponding letter in the key to the group of vascular plants it represents.

Figure 23.15 (questions 81-85) a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G 91. conifers 92. cycads 93. ferns 94. angiosperms 95. ginkgos 96. Why is it difficult to find intermediate fossils for organisms that have evolved under the punctuated equilibrium model?

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Chap 23_5e 97. Why would migration to an island by a single pair of birds be likely to lead to adaptive radiation in their descendants?

98. Why is fossil record biased and incomplete?

99. How does today’s climate compare to most of the Earth’s history? What does this indicate about how human activities can affect climate?

100. What is the general trend in diversity in vascular plants for the past 145 million years?

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Chap 23_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. False 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. True 10. True 11. a 12. a 13. d 14. a 15. c 16. e 17. b 18. d 19. a 20. a 21. c 22. a 23. e 24. e 25. b 26. c

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Chap 23_5e 27. a 28. b 29. c 30. c 31. c 32. e 33. a 34. e 35. d 36. d 37. e 38. d 39. c 40. d 41. d 42. d 43. e 44. e 45. b 46. d 47. e 48. c 49. a 50. d 51. d 52. d 53. d 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 23_5e 55. a 56. c 57. b 58. b 59. e 60. a 61. b 62. a 63. b 64. d 65. c 66. b 67. a 68. a 69. d 70. c 71. a 72. b 73. e 74. e 75. e 76. c 77. c 78. a 79. c 80. c 81. d 82. j Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 23_5e 83. g 84. e 85. h 86. b 87. i 88. a 89. c 90. f 91. d 92. c 93. e 94. a 95. b 96. Evolutionary change in these organisms has been so rapid that relatively few intermediate individuals lived, and so were unlikely to have been fossilized. 97. Islands are often poor in species, with many unoccupied ecological niches, because relatively small numbers of animals are capable of crossing large expanses of ocean. 98. Fossilization is more likely to occur in lowland areas where sediments are being deposited, and so species living in mountainous or dry areas are less likely to fossilize. In addition, organisms with hard body parts are more likely to fossilize than soft-bodied organisms. Hence there is a far more complete fossil record of vertebrate evolution than of the evolution of flowers, for example. Finally, abundant, widespread organisms are more likely to have been fossilized than rare organisms, or those restricted to very specialized habitats. 99. The Earth is currently in a relatively cool period, relative to the history of climate. While the Earth’s climate has experience repeated temperature shifts, the changes have occurred slowly relative to the lifetime of individual organisms, which allows adaptations of populations and evolutionary lineages. Evidence suggests that today’s climate is changing faster today than in the past; these changes in global climate are due to human activities. 100. The approximate number of species has increased in the past 145 million years. Angiosperm species became dominant between 65 and 23 million years ago. The proportion of all other groups of vascular plants has declined as the diversity of angiosperms increased.

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Chap 24_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. With the cladistic method, biologists construct phylogenetic trees and classifications by grouping together only those species that share ancestral character states. a. True b. False 2. Ferns comprise a good outgroup of the vascular plant phylogenetic tree because they share all of the same derived character states as the ingroup. a. True b. False 3. Traditional evolutionary systematics used the Linnaean system of classification. a. True b. False 4. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a technique used to produce many copies of a specific DNA sequence. a. True b. False 5. Homoplasies are useful characters for phylogenetic analyses a. True b. False 6. Carolus Linnaeus developed a classification system for organisms based on their DNA sequences. a. True b. False 7. Common names for a species may vary widely among different groups of people who use those names, and thus are not reliable for scientific use. a. True b. False 8. The traditional kingdom Monera is now divided into two domains, Archaea and Bacteria. a. True b. False 9. A plant systematist studies the physiological systems of plants. a. True b. False 10. Homoplasies are the result of convergent evolution. a. True b. False

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Chap 24_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Mendel; DarwinIn the 1700s, ____ classified organisms by their morphological similarities and differences, and in the 1800s, ____ provided the scientific rationale for the heritable basis of these morphological variations. a. Mendel; Linnaeus b. Darwin; Linnaeus c. Linnaeus; Darwin d. Linnaeus; Mendel e. Mendel; Darwin 12. Because ____ character states are shared by the ingroup and the outgroup, phylogenetic trees are constructed by cladistic analyses that group species that share only ____ character states. a. derived; derived b. nongenetic; genetic c. derived; ancestral d. ancestral; genetic e. ancestral; derived 13. Since birds descended from one group of terrestrial dinosaurs, the grouping that includes only terrestrial dinosaurs is ____. a. anagenetic b. analogous c. monophyletic d. polyphyletic e. paraphyletic 14. Behavioral traits are useful in differentiating species because behaviors ____. a. are never genetically determined b. related to mating may create prezygotic isolation c. of fossilized specimens are easy to infer d. are independent of morphological characteristics e. are always learned 15. Analyses of molecular sequences for study of evolutionary relationships are constrained by ____. a. the fact that every base in a nucleic acid serves as a separate, independent character for analysis b. the presence of many genes that have been conserved by evolution c. the limited number of nucleotide characters, making it difficult to determine whether genetic similarities between species are homoplastic or homologous d. the usefulness of genes for studying only closely related species that have minor morphological differences e. nucleic acids that are not directly affected by the developmental or environmental factors that cause nongenetic morphological variations

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Chap 24_5e 16. On a phylogenetic tree for Anthropoidea, the clade that includes ____ and the clade that includes ____ are sister taxa because they emerged from a common node. a. chimpanzees; orangutans b. orangutans; humans c. gorillas; chimpanzees d. gorillas; both chimpanzees and humans e. old world monkeys; both chimpanzees and humans 17. Influencing the philosophy and analysis of many systematists in the mid-1900s, ____ published Phylogenetic Systematics, arguing that classifications should be based solely on evolutionary relationships. a. Carolus Linnaeus b. Willi Hennig c. Gregor Mendel d. Charles Darwin e. Ernst Mayr 18. Characters that provide evidence for evolutionary relationships based on shared ancestry are called ____. a. homologous b. analogous c. taxonomic d. convergent e. exaptations 19. The movement of genetic material between organisms by any mechanism other than descent is known as ____. a. lateral gene substitution b. polyphyly c. hybridization d. cloning e. horizontal gene transfer 20. When describing phylogenetic trees, each branching point is called a ____. a. clade b. node c. point d. root e. split 21. Morphological characteristics are widely used for taxonomic classifications because they are ____. a. the most likely indicators of evolutionary relationships b. the most likely to represent reproductive isolation among groups c. easy to assess in living, preserved, or fossilized specimens d. always the exact phenotypic expression of genotypes e. indicative of genetic relatedness Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 24_5e 22. Gene sequences that evolve at a constant rate can be used to ____. a. index the time of divergence between two species b. calculate speciation rates across lineages c. calculate speciation rates within different lineages d. index the number of extinct species within a lineage e. calculate extinction rates across lineages 23. The external morphological traits of two North American species of tree frog (Hyla versicolor and H. chrysoscelis) are very similar; therefore, scientists use ____ to distinguish them. a. internal anatomy b. behavioral traits c. homologous appendages d. skin coloration e. analogous structures 24. When systematists compare vertebrates to all other animals, the absence of a vertebral column is the ____ character state, and the presence of a vertebral column is the ____. a. homologous; homoplasy b. ancestral; homology c. homologous; derived d. derived; ancestral e. ancestral; derived 25. Fossils of plants found in deeper geologic layers do not show vascular tissues, while fossils in shallower geologic layers include some specimens with and some without vascular tissues. Thus, vascular tissue in plants is considered a ____ character. a. ancestral b. homoplasious c. primitive d. derived e. physiologically essential 26. By definition, a monophyletic lineage is a ____. a. clade b. taxon c. genus d. family e. phylogenetic tree

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Chap 24_5e 27. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) has advanced our understanding of systematics because it allows for ____. a. analysis of morphological traits b. analysis of small amounts of DNA from museum specimens and fossils c. the reconstruction of entire individuals from a small amount of DNA d. the reconstruction of entire individuals from a small amount of RNA e. the analysis of an entire genome from a small fossil fragment 28. A taxon that includes only birds and bats, two clades of vertebrates capable of flight, is considered ____. a. paraphyletic b. polyphyletic c. monophyletic d. complete e. incomplete 29. A molecular clock is based on ____. a. measurement of daylight by pigment complexes b. daily changes in amino acid sequence in specialized proteins c. regulation of gene expression d. precise oscillations of atoms in a crystal e. a constant rate of mutation in DNA sequences 30. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. In the figure, letter C represents a ____ taxon, which includes ____. a. polyphyletic; an ancestral species and all of its descendants b. monophyletic; an ancestral species and all of its descendants c. monophyletic; species from different evolutionary lineages d. paraphyletic; an ancestral species and only some of its descendants e. polyphyletic; an ancestral species and only some of its descendants 31. The closest living relatives of birds are ____. a. mammals b. lizards c. turtles d. crocodiles e. amphibians

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Chap 24_5e 32. Turtles, lizards, snakes, crocodilians, and birds descended most recently from an ancestral ____. a. amniote b. tetrapod c. archosaur d. reptile e. archelosaur 33. The PhyloCode is a set of rules for ____. a. naming organisms using traditional taxonomic groups b. classifying organisms into Linnaean hierarchies c. identifying and naming clades d. creating binomial species names e. allowing paraphyletic groups to be named 34. The organisms included within any category of the taxonomic hierarchy comprise a(n) ____. a. family b. class c. order d. taxon e. domain 35. On which continent are introduced mosquito species absent? a. Asia b. North America c. South America d. Antarctica e. Australia 36. In the absence of evidence from fossils, systematists frequently use a technique called ____ to identify ancestral and derived character states. a. outgroup comparison b. ingroup analysis c. gel electrophoresis d. microarray analysis e. homology comparison

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Chap 24_5e 37. The systematics of today is very different from the systematics learned a generation ago. As a result, which statement is the least accurate? a. The biological species concept has no validity. b. The number of existing species is known with certainty. c. The Linnaean system of classification is wrong most of the time. d. Morphological traits are not reliable for determining species relationships. e. Evolutionary-based classification has entirely reorganized the classification and categories of organisms and their relationships to one another. 38. Similarity in any type of biological trait resulting from shared ancestry is called ____. a. homology b. homoplasy c. exaptation d. anagenesis e. cladogenesis 39. On a phylogenetic tree, two clades that emerge from the same node are called ____ because they are each other’s closest relatives. a. sister clades b. ancestral clades c. phyla d. families e. cousins 40. Which traits were originally used for classifying organisms into taxonomic categories? a. morphology and behavior b. DNA and amino acid sequences c. physiology and biochemical pathways d. geography and ecology e. morphology and physiology 41. A diagram that hypothesizes the evolutionary relationships between a set of organisms is a ____ tree. a. comparison b. phylogenetic c. classification d. taxonomic e. species

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Chap 24_5e 42. The evolutionary process whereby an ancestral species undergoes speciation and produces two descendant species, both distinct from their common ancestor, is known as ____. a. gradualism b. equilibrium c. taxonomy d. anagenesis e. cladogenesis 43. According to cladistics, a derived character state is called a(n) ____. a. apomorphy b. exaptation c. polymorphy d. homology e. homoplasy 44. Systematists aided in the effort to eradicate malaria from Europe by ____. a. developing insecticides to kill mosquitoes b. categorizing mosquitoes into six species c. discovering that all mosquitoes breed in standing water d. cloning the genes of the malaria pathogen e. identifying Plasmodium as the parasite that causes malaria 45. When identifying and naming new species, Linnaeus used the ____ species concept. a. ecological b. taxonomic c. phylogenetic d. biological e. morphological 46. Comparison of the wings of birds and the wings of bats reveals that they____. a. are completely homologous structures b. are completely analogous structures c. are completely homoplastic structures d. are vestigial structures e. have homoplastic and homologous components

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Chap 24_5e 47. Phenotypic similarities that provide no information about shared ancestry because they are not inherited from a common ancestor are ____. a. homologies b. homoplasies c. morphological d. anatomical e. physiological 48. Clues to evolutionary relationships are provided by differences in DNA sequences resulting from ____. a. insertions only b. deletions only c. substitutions only d. both insertions and deletions e. insertions, deletions, and substitutions 49. The best outgroup to use for resolving phylogenetic relationships of vascular plants is the ____ because all of its character states are considered ancestral. a. angiosperms b. ferns c. conifers d. cycads e. ginkgophytes 50. The eradication of malaria in Europe resulted from a specific breakthrough in the science of ____. a. systematics b. ecology c. morphology d. physiology e. sanitation 51. With cladistic analyses, characters of an organism exist in ____ form(s), referred to as ____. a. one; a character state b. two; character states c. two; variable traits d. many; polymorphic states e. many; variable traits

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Chap 24_5e 52. Crocodilians are classified as reptiles; however, they share a common ancestor with birds, which are not classified as reptiles. Therefore, Reptilia is a ____ taxon. a. monophyletic b. polyphyletic c. paraphyletic d. genetically unrelated e. homoplastic 53. To which phylum does the American black bear (Ursus americanus) belong? a. Mammalia b. Carnivora c. Chordata d. Ursidae e. Ursus 54. A plant systematist aims to ____ organisms. a. identify and name b. identify and describe c. identify, name, and classify d. identify, describe, name, and classify e. identify, describe, name, classify, and determine evolutionary relationships of 55. Which innovation(s) places birds in a separate class? a. wings only b. high metabolic rate c. wings and flight d. high metabolic rate and dry skin e. wings, flight, and high metabolic rate 56. A group that contains species from separate evolutionary lineages is considered ____. a. paraphyletic b. polyphyletic c. monophyletic d. haplophyletic e. multiphyletic 57. In the taxonomic hierarchy, a family consists of a group of similar ____. a. orders b. classes c. species d. genera e. domains Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 24_5e 58. The class Reptilia is a group of species that share a common ancestor and some, but not all of its descendants. It is therefore considered ____. a. monophyletic b. polyphyletic c. paraphyletic d. an outgroup e. a domain 59. Linear chromosome structure is a character unique to members of the domain(s) ____. a. Eukarya b. Archaea c. Bacteria d. Eukarya and Bacteria e. Archaea and Bacteria 60. To identify the optimal phylogenetic tree from multiple potential trees, many systematists use the ____, which states that the simplest plausible explanation of any phenomenon is the best. a. maximum likelihood method b. principle of parsimony c. genetic distance method d. gradual phyletic hypothesis e. punctuated equilibrium hypothesis 61. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. In the figure, letter B represents a ____ taxon, which includes ____. a. monophyletic; an ancestral species and all of its descendants b. polyphyletic; species from different evolutionary lineages c. polyphyletic; an ancestral species and all of its descendants d. paraphyletic; species from different evolutionary lineages e. paraphyletic; an ancestral species and only some of its descendants 62. Which domain(s) consist(s) of prokaryotic organisms? a. Bacteria only b. Archaea and Eukarya c. Bacteria and Eukarya d. Bacteria and Archaea e. Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya

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Chap 24_5e 63. The Hominidae taxon includes ____. a. only humans b. only humans and chimpanzees c. gorillas, chimpanzees, and humans d. gibbons, orangutans, gorillas, chimpanzees, and humans e. new world monkeys and old world monkeys 64. Phenotypic similarity that evolved independently in different lineages is called ____. a. cladogenesis b. anagenesis c. embryogenesis d. homology e. homoplasy 65. Currently, taxonomic domains include ____. a. Kingdom, Phylum, Class, and Species b. Plantae, Animalia, Fungi, Protista, and Monera c. Archaea, Bacteria, Eukarya d. Mammalia, Insecta, Aves, and Plantae e. North America, South America, Eurasia, Africa, and Australia 66. An ancestral ____ gave rise to animals including mammals, lizards, turtles, and birds. a. amniote b. reptile c. archosaur d. dinosaur e. archelosaur 67. Homarus americanus and Bufo americanus are ____ because ____. a. different species; they are classified in different genera b. the same species; they have the same specific epithet c. plants; all plants have the specific epithet americanus d. closely related; they have the same specific epithet e. classified in different domains; they have different scientific names 68. Which pair of traits is homologous? a. butterfly wings and bat wings b. the surfaces of bird and bat wings c. the skeletons of bird and bat wings d. butterfly wings and bird wings e. bird wings and bat wings

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Chap 24_5e 69. To account for variations in the evolutionary rates at different genetic loci, the ____ compares alternative trees reflecting different rates of evolutionary change to identify the best evolutionary path. a. punctuated equilibrium hypothesis b. gradual phyletic hypothesis c. traditional systematic method d. principle of parsimony e. maximum likelihood method 70. Which list of taxonomic levels is in the correct order, from most inclusive to least inclusive? a. domain – kingdom – phylum – class b. species – kingdom – family – order c. genus – family – order – species d. phylum – genus – family – species e. kingdom – family – class - order 71. The scientific name of a polar bear is Ursus maritimus. The first part, Ursus, is the ____ name. a. family b. genus c. species d. order e. phylum 72. In the system of binomial nomenclature, species are assigned a two-part name: the first part is the ____ and the second part is the ____. a. species; genus b. genus; specific epithet c. species; family d. genus; family e. family; species 73. The ____ is a bone in the middle ear of tetrapod vertebrates that evolved from, and is therefore ____to, the hyomandibula in early fishes. a. hyomandibula; homologous b. eardrum; analogous c. eardrum; unrelated d. stapes; unrelated e. stapes; homologous

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Chap 24_5e 74. Mammalia, the taxon that includes all mammals, is ____ because all mammals are the descendants of a common ancestor. a. biphyletic b. monophyletic c. polyphyletic d. homoplastic e. paraphyletic 75. The principle of parsimony ____ for constructing the phylogenetic tree that represents the smallest number of evolutionary changes. a. minimizes the number of homologies b. maximizes the number of homologies c. completely ignores homologies d. minimizes the number of homoplasies e. maximizes the number of homoplasies 76. The first modern practitioner of taxonomy was ____. a. Ernst Mayr b. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck c. Alfred Russel Wallace d. Charles Darwin e. Carolus Linnaeus 77. According to the convention for properly writing Latin binomials, the scientific name for modern human beings should be written as ____. a. Homo sapiens b. Homo Sapiens c. Homo sapiens d. homo sapiens e. h. sapiens

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Chap 24_5e

78. Figure 24.3 (questions 27-29) Answer the question using the accompanying figure. In the figure, letter A represents a ____ taxon, which includes ____. a. polyphyletic; species from different evolutionary lineages b. polyphyletic; an ancestral species and all of its descendants c. paraphyletic; an ancestral species and only some of its descendants d. monophyletic; species from different evolutionary lineages e. monophyletic; an ancestral species and all of its descendants 79. The scientific approach that classifies organisms based on evolutionary relationships is known as ____. a. comparative morphology b. evolutionary ecology c. taxonomy d. cladistics e. genetics 80. Unless a derived character state is lost or replaced by newer characters over evolutionary time, ____ can serve as markers for ____ lineages that underwent adaptive radiation. a. apomorphies; polyphyletic b. apomorphies; paraphyletic c. synapomorphies; monophyletic d. synapomorphies; polyphyletic e. synapomorphies; paraphyletic

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Chap 24_5e Match each of the following terms with its corresponding definition. a. cladistics b. outgroup c. homology d. polymerase chain reaction (PCR) e. monophyletic taxon f. molecular clock g. domain h. synapomorphy i. taxonomy j. phylogeny k. homoplasy 81. technique to amplify DNA for use in sequencing Match each of the following terms with its corresponding definition. a. cladistics b. outgroup c. homology d. polymerase chain reaction (PCR) e. monophyletic taxon f. molecular clock g. domain h. synapomorphy i. taxonomy j. phylogeny k. homoplasy 82. mutation rate that indexes time of divergence among related groups

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Chap 24_5e Match each of the following terms with its corresponding definition. a. cladistics b. outgroup c. homology d. polymerase chain reaction (PCR) e. monophyletic taxon f. molecular clock g. domain h. synapomorphy i. taxonomy j. phylogeny k. homoplasy 83. evolutionary history of a group of organisms 84. identifying, naming, and classifying species Match each of the following terms with its corresponding definition. a. cladistics b. outgroup c. homology d. polymerase chain reaction (PCR) e. monophyletic taxon f. molecular clock g. domain h. synapomorphy i. taxonomy j. phylogeny k. homoplasy 85. distantly related group used as a comparison in a phylogeny

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Chap 24_5e Answer the questions using the accompanying figure depicting the phylogenetic tree for human evolution. Match each letter of the figure to the taxonomic group with which it corresponds.

Figure 24.2B (questions 82-85) a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G 86. Hominoidea 87. Anthropoidea 88. Hominini 89. Hominidae

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Chap 24_5e Match each of the following terms with its corresponding definition. a. cladistics b. outgroup c. homology d. polymerase chain reaction (PCR) e. monophyletic taxon f. molecular clock g. domain h. synapomorphy i. taxonomy j. phylogeny k. homoplasy 90. similarities in characters that arose from shared ancestry 91. phenotypic similarities that arose independently in different lineages Match each of the following terms with its corresponding definition. a. cladistics b. outgroup c. homology d. polymerase chain reaction (PCR) e. monophyletic taxon f. molecular clock g. domain h. synapomorphy i. taxonomy j. phylogeny k. homoplasy 92. highest level of taxonomic hierarchy

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Chap 24_5e Match each of the following terms with its corresponding definition. a. cladistics b. outgroup c. homology d. polymerase chain reaction (PCR) e. monophyletic taxon f. molecular clock g. domain h. synapomorphy i. taxonomy j. phylogeny k. homoplasy 93. a derived character state found in two or more species Match each of the following terms with its corresponding definition. a. cladistics b. outgroup c. homology d. polymerase chain reaction (PCR) e. monophyletic taxon f. molecular clock g. domain h. synapomorphy i. taxonomy j. phylogeny k. homoplasy 94. group with one ancestral species and all of its descendants

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97. Why is the traditionally defined taxon Reptilia paraphyletic?

98. Describe why many systematists adopt the principle of parsimony.

99. Explain how systematists commonly identify ancestral and derived character states in the absence of fossil evidence.

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Chap 24_5e 100. Describe the difference between anagenesis and cladogenesis.

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Chap 24_5e Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. False 7. True 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. c 12. e 13. e 14. b 15. c 16. d 17. b 18. a 19. e 20. b 21. c 22. a 23. b 24. e 25. d 26. a

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Chap 24_5e 27. b 28. b 29. e 30. d 31. d 32. d 33. c 34. d 35. d 36. a 37. b 38. a 39. a 40. a 41. b 42. e 43. a 44. b 45. e 46. e 47. b 48. e 49. b 50. a 51. b 52. c 53. c 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 24_5e 55. e 56. b 57. d 58. c 59. a 60. b 61. b 62. d 63. c 64. e 65. c 66. a 67. a 68. c 69. e 70. a 71. b 72. b 73. e 74. b 75. d 76. e 77. a 78. e 79. d 80. c 81. d 82. f Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 24_5e 83. j 84. i 85. b 86. b 87. a 88. d 89. c 90. c 91. k 92. g 93. h 94. e 95. a 96. Because mutations that arise in noncoding regions of DNA do not affect protein structure, they are not often eliminated by natural selection. If mutations accumulate in these segments at a reasonably constant rate, differences in their DNA sequences can serve as a molecular clock, indexing the time since two species diverged. Large differences imply divergence in the distant past, whereas small differences suggest a more recent common ancestor. 97. A paraphyletic taxon includes an ancestral species and only some of its descendants. Amphibian and mammalian lineages each diverged early from an ancestral tetrapod, while the remaining lineages, collectively called Reptilia, diverged into the Lepidosauromorpha (including living lizards and snakes) and the Archelosauromorpha (including living turtles, crocodilians, and birds). Thus, although crocodilians, with their scaly skin and sprawling posture outwardly resemble lizards, evolutionary biologists have long recognized that crocodilians share a more recent common with birds. However, the traditionally defined taxon Reptilia is clearly paraphyletic because, even though crocodilians share a common ancestor with birds, Reptilia includes the former taxon, but not the latter. Thus, birds share a common ancestor with reptiles, but birds are placed in a separate taxon. 98. The analysis of character traits is complicated based on the number of possible phylogenetic trees that could be produced from data. The principle of parsimony suggests that the best phylogenetic tree is the one that hypothesizes the smallest number of evolutionary changes needed to account for the distribution of character states within a clade. 99. In the absence of evidence from fossils, systematists frequently use a technique called outgroup comparison to identify ancestral and derived character states. Using this approach, systematists compare characters in the ingroup, the clade under study, to those in an outgroup, one or a few species that are related to the clade but not included within it. Character states observed in the outgroup are considered ancestral, and those observed only in the ingroup are considered derived. And because the outgroup and the ingroup are phylogenetically related, outgroup comparison allows researchers to hypothesize the root of the phylogenetic tree.

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Chap 24_5e 100. Anagenesis is the pattern of gradual phyletic change. Speciation as a result of anagenesis does not increase biodiversity. Cladogenesis is an evolutionary pattern whereby an ancestral species undergoes speciation via divergence, two descendant species are produced, both of which are distinct from the common ancestor. Cladogenesis increases biodiversity.

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Chap 25_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Stromatolites are fossils of ancient, photosynthetic cyanobacteria. a. True b. False 2. The first truly living cells must have been prokaryotic in structure. a. True b. False 3. Phylogenetic systems based on morphology cannot reveal the relationships between different kingdoms. a. True b. False 4. Archaea genomes contain introns. a. True b. False 5. Scientists agree that life originated on Earth. a. True b. False 6. Phospholipids created in a laboratory can self-assemble into bilayers. a. True b. False Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 7. Proteins may have been the first information-storage molecules because they can self-replicate as well as catalyze reactions. 8. Most scientists believe that prokaryotes evolved from eukaryotes. 9. The development of the endoplasmic reticulum and nucleus are explained by the endosymbiotic theory. 10. Mitochondria probably developed before the atmosphere was oxygen rich. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. The first information storage molecule was probably ____. a. DNA b. RNA c. protein d. carbohydrates e. lipids

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Chap 25_5e 12. DNA is favored as the storage molecule of genetic information because it ____ than RNA. a. has more nucleotides b. has greater chemical stability c. can assemble into longer coding sequences d. has more nucleotides and greater chemical stability e. has greater chemical stability and can assemble into longer coding sequences 13. “Prebiotic soup” refers to ____. a. the interior contents of protocells b. the cytoplasm of early prokaryotic cells c. the mix of gases in the atmosphere that gave rise to the first organic molecules d. the polymerized slime coating ancient clay particles e. the accumulation of organic molecules that formed in the oceans before there was life on Earth 14. Around 150 living genera of animals provide direct support of the endosymbiont theory by ____. a. hosting Archaea in their cells b. having bacterial ribosomes in their cells c. using the cell membrane to protect against bacterial invaders d. ejecting cyanobacterial invaders e. hosting eukaryotic algae or cyanobacteria in their cells 15. One function provided by cell membranes is ____. a. the free passage of materials into and out of the cell b. the exclusion of nucleic acids c. structural integrity d. protection from parasitic genetic information e. to counteract size restrictions 16. Which line of evidence supports the protein-first hypothesis? a. Amino acids existed on prebiotic Earth and in meteorites. b. Proteins display more chemical diversity than nucleic acids. c. Proteins display more structural diversity than nucleic acids. d. Protein function can be reproduced in a population. e. Nucleic acids are too simple to have been the first "polymers of life." 17. What assumption is made by researchers when designing experiments to model how life may have arisen on Earth? a. The chemical reactions of living things are only possible inside living systems. b. Living organisms are composed of elements commonly found on Earth, but absent in the rest of the universe. c. Conditions on Earth have not changed over time. d. Life arose on Earth from non-living matter. e. The development of living cells from nonliving matter was very rapid. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 25_5e 18. Evidence for the endosymbiotic theory includes ____. a. RNA in prokaryotes, mitochondria, and chloroplasts arranged in a single, circular genome b. endocytosed cells observed to survive in the cytoplasm of the host cell c. endocytosed organelles observed to survive free in the environment d. fossils of prokaryotic cells in the process of endocytosing cyanobacteria e. rRNA sequences that are unique to prokaryotes, mitochondria, and chloroplasts 19. According to the endosymbiont hypothesis, ____. a. most of the genes from the endocytosed bacteria moved to the nucleus b. the host anaerobe became dependent upon the endocytosed bacteria c. the endocytosized bacteria became dependent on the host cell d. all endocytosed bacteria were photosynthetic e. most of the genes from the endocytosed bacteria moved to the nucleus, the host anaerobe became dependent upon the endocytosed bacteria, and the endocytosed bacteria became dependent on the host cell 20. According to Oparin and Haldane, the prebiotic soup accumulated because molecules were not ____. a. broken down by oxygen attack or microbial decay b. broken down by reduction reactions or fungal decay c. broken down by oxygen attack or fungal decay d. broken down by reduction reactions or microbial decay e. recycled by environmental conditions 21. The RNA world proposal suggests that the first information molecules were ____. a. transfer RNA b. ribosomes c. messenger RNA d. ribozymes e. unpaired strands of DNA 22. Where did Earth's atmosphere originate? a. Earth's gravity trapped gases from passing comets. b. Gases were released from Earth itself as it cooled. c. Earth’s gravity trapped gases from Earth itself. d. Earth’s gravity trapped gases from passing comets, gases were released from the Earth itself as it cooled, and Earth’s gravity trapped gases from the Earth itself. e. Gases were released from Earth itself as it cooled Earth’s gravity trapped gases from the Earth itself.

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Chap 25_5e 23. A characteristic of all modern, living cells is ____. a. a semi-permeable membrane keeping the internal environment of the cell separate from the external environment b. nucleic acids linked in a sequence to form multiple large macromolecule chains c. a requirement for the nucleic acids to be contained behind a nuclear membrane d. a mechanism of converting energy from the sun e. a method of converting protein changes into nucleic acids 24. The continuously sparking electrodes in the apparatus used in the Miller-Urey experiment simulated ____. a. solar energy b. lightning strikes c. volcanic eruptions d. radioactivity e. hydrothermal vents 25. One criticism of the Miller-Urey experiment among scientists is it ____. a. was based on an oxidizing environment b. was likely contaminated with modern atmosphere c. added too much energy d. was based on a reducing environment e. did not add the proper starting components 26. The earliest photosynthesizers likely used ____ as electron donors. a. chloride gas b. hydrogen peroxide c. hydrogen sulfide d. magnesium sulfide e. ammonia 27. Eukaryotic evolution relied on ____. a. horizontal gene transfer from bacteria b. endosymbiosis of prokaryotic cells c. an archaean ancestor d. natural selection e. all of these are correct 28. Chloroplasts evolved from endosymbionts but the endomembrane system evolved from __________. a. mitochondria b. Archaea c. the plasma membrane d. the endoplasmic reticulum e. stromatolites Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 25_5e 29. Fatty acids and ribozymes are incompatible as early molecules of life because ____. a. they have different pH requirements b. they most likely developed millions of years apart c. fatty acid vesicles are impermeable to ribozymes bound to ferrous oxide d. magnesium is required for ribozyme function but causes fatty acids to precipitate e. magnesium is required for fatty acids to form vesicles but causes ribozymes to precipitate 30. Cells with ____ are able to harvest the greatest amount of energy from electrons. a. double membranes b. photosystems c. cytochromes d. chloroplasts e. nuclei 31. Assuming geological evidence is accurate, life on Earth may have originated ____ billion years ago. a. 14 b. 4.6 c. 3.5 d. 2.1 e. 1.2 32. What happens when phospholipids are placed in an aqueous solution? a. They disperse and form polar bonds with other organic molecules present in the solution. b. They move to the water's surface and form a single-layered membrane between the water and the atmosphere. c. They repel one another. d. They spontaneously form bilayers. e. The hydrophobic tales force the phospholipids to form "beads" at the surface, much like what you see when vegetable oil is added to water 33. Archaeans resemble bacteria by the ____, and resemble eukaryotes by the ____. a. lack of membrane-bound organelles; presence of a nucleus b. presence of similar cell wall proteins; presence of similar rRNA sequences c. ability to perform aerobic respiration; presence of similar cell wall proteins d. lack of membrane-bound organelles; presence of introns e. presence of nucleoid region; lack of a nuclear envelope 34. The evolution of life on Earth was made possible by ____. a. DNA b. organelles c. an environment that favors oxygen photosynthesizers d. natural selection that favors efficient reproduction of organisms e. random mutations Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 25_5e 35. Experimental studies have produced ribozymes that ____. a. reverse transcribe DNA from an RNA template b. polymerize new RNA from an RNA template c. cleave cellular membranes d. produce completely new RNA strands e. polymerize new proteins from an RNA template 36. Which feature of Archaea is shared with Bacteria but not with Eukarya? a. the sequestration of DNA into a nucleus b. the common occurrence of introns c. the chemical structure of the cell walls d. the plasma membrane struct e. a genome comprised of a single, circular molecule of DNA 37. Modern eukaryotic cells appeared ____ billion years ago. a. 0.5 b. 1 c. 1.7 d. 2 e. 3.7 38. The RNA molecules of an RNA world on early Earth may have been composed of bases other than A, U, G, and C because ____. a. DNA does not use all four bases b. these nucleotides will not form a double helix c. these nucleotides cannot be created in a Miller-Urey like experiment d. G is somewhat unstable in water e. C is somewhat unstable in water 39. Why is the distance of Earth from the sun so crucial for life as we know it? a. The distance provides the optimal temperature for water to occur in a liquid form. b. The distance allows Earth's orbit to have a year of a reasonable length. c. The distance allows for multiple seasons in temperate climates, which was crucial for the emergence of chemicals used to build the first protocells. d. The distance provides ample opportunity for water to freeze into ice. e. The distance ensures that ample water is available for all of the organisms on Earth.

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Chap 25_5e 40. The ____ ion is required for ribozymes to become active and begin self-replication. a. ferrous iron b. ferric iron c. zinc d. magnesium e. selenium 41. The energy source that may have driven the chemical reactions leading to modern Earth's atmosphere was ____. a. sunlight b. electrical storms (lightning) c. photosynthesis d. radioactive decay e. heat energy released from Earth's core 42. The most basic essence of life is ____. a. reproduction of a keystone species b. reproduction of genetic information c. reproduction of cells d. photosynthesis e. redox reactions 43. One line of evidence for endosymbiosis is that chloroplasts resemble ____. a. anaerobic bacteria b. aerobic bacteria c. fungi d. protists e. cyanobacteria 44. The famous Miller-Urey experiments provided crucial support for the ____ hypothesis. a. endosymbiosis b. Oparin-Haldane c. RNA World d. Dickerson oxidizing atmosphere e. hydrothermal vent 45. What is an argument against the theory that RNA was the first polymer of life? a. Only limited replication of proteins is possible. b. The transfer of information from RNA to DNA under early conditions is difficult. c. The early nucleotides could not form a polymer. d. RNA cannot transfer genetic information to xeno-nucleic acids. e. The synthesis of RNA nucleotides under early conditions is difficult. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 25_5e 46. The earliest evidence of biochemical reactions by living cells dates to about ____ billion years ago. a. 0.5 b. 1 c. 1.5 d. 2 e. 3.7 47. Ribozymes may have originally developed by ____. a. ATP synthesis b. the chance assembly of RNA molecules c. cellular respiration d. glycolysis e. electron transfer systems 48. The final step in the development of eukaryotic cells was likely ____. a. duplication of function in the endosymbiont and host cell b. transfer of genes and function from the endosymbiont to the host cell c. circularization of DNA d. formation of membrane-bound organelles e. ingestion of photosynthetic bacteria 49. Molecules that are able to store and reproduce genetic information are known generally as ____. a. molecular hard drives b. molecular replicators c. DNA d. RNA e. ribozymes 50. Evidence for the possible evolution of information storage from RNA to DNA is the fact that ____. a. they use the same nucleotides b. some modern viruses synthesize DNA from an RNA template c. bacteria use RNA as a genetic information storage molecule d. RNA is a simpler molecule than DNA e. RNA and DNA will form complementary pairs 51. If RNA was the first information storage molecule, which macromolecule would have been the "next" molecule produced in the progression toward living cells? a. DNA b. lipids c. carbohydrates d. sugars e. proteins Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 25_5e 52. What is a criticism of the hydrothermal vent origin of life theory? a. Hydrothermal vents are too hot and would have destroyed the organic molecules even as they formed. b. Hydrothermal vents are too salty and would have destroyed the organic molecules even as they formed. c. Hydrothermal vents are unstable in general and would have dissipated the organic molecules. d. Hydrothermal vents lack sufficient oxygen for the evolution of aerobic organisms. e. Hydrothermal vents contain too many dissolved mineral ions. 53. Early biological activity may be found in rocks by investigating ____. a. stromatolites b. isotope ratios c. microfossils d. all of these are correct e. none of these are correct 54. Who developed the modern endosymbiotic theory? a. Charles Darwin b. Lynn Margulis c. Richard Dickerson d. Wendy Johnson e. Stanley Miller 55. Life today derives nearly all its energy from ____. a. glucose molecules b. the sun c. hydrothermal vents d. geochemical activity e. radioactive decay 56. The leading candidate for the molecular replicator during the origin of cells is ____. a. pyranose b. xeno-nucleic acids c. protein d. RNA e. DNA 57. The ____ provides evidence that RNA molecules generated the first proteins. a. redundancy of the genetic code b. ability of rRNA to catalyze the formation of peptide bonds between amino acids c. polymerase activity of some ribozymes d. cleavage of mRNA molecules by rRNA e. physical structure of polypeptides

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Chap 25_5e 58. The nonequilibrium created by ____ represents a renewing source of energy. a. temperature gradients b. acidic ocean vents c. alkaline ocean vents d. radioactive decay e. protocell formation 59. What is an alternative to RNA as the first polymer of life? a. single nucleotides b. non-genetic polymers c. polymers that do not form a double helixm a double helix d. other genetic polymers containing different sugars e. other genetic polymers containing different amino acids 60. Modern cells are thought to have arisen from ____. a. protocells b. pre-cells c. gas and dust clouds d. prokaryotic cells that predated protocells e. prokaryotic cells that predated pre-cells 61. Why is the protein-first hypothesis not accepted by most scientists? a. Proteins cannot be catalysts. b. There is no known mechanism of protein self-replication. c. Of all of the macromolecules, only DNA can self-replicate. d. There is no evidence that proteins can store information. e. Proteins are too complex to have been the first "polymers of life." 62. Protocells likely grew within microscopic compartments in porous alkaline vent chimneys, where ____. a. protocells could use the energy provided by H+ gradients b. the vents offered physical protection c. protocells could use readily available ammonia sources d. the vents funneled geothermal warmth e. the vents were the right size 63. Horizontal gene transfer is the movement of a gene from ____. a. a prokaryotic genome to a eukaryotic genome b. the chloroplast genome to a eukaryotic genome c. the mitochondrial genome to a eukaryotic genome d. a viral genome to the eukaryotic genome e. all of these are correct

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Chap 25_5e 64. One piece of evidence in support of the endosymbiotic theory is that ____. a. mitochondria, plastids, and bacteria have cell walls of the same composition b. mitochondria and plastids are similar in size to bacteria c. mitochondria and plastids are similar in structure to archaea d. plastids can live free of a eukaryotic cell e. mitochondria and cyanobacteria process energy similarly 65. Some scientists believe that RNA was the first information storage molecule because ____. a. some viruses use RNA as their information storage molecule b. RNA can be an enzymatic catalyst as well as an information storage molecule c. amino acids cannot form peptide bonds without ribosomes to catalyze their formation d. RNA is a less stable molecule than DNA e. proteins are made of far more amino acid monomers (over 20) than RNA (4) 66. Evolutionarily, Archaea likely arose ____ Bacteria. a. as a direct result of b. concurrently c. before d. after e. distinct from 67. Organic macromolecules may have formed by ____. a. addition of water to small organic subunits to facilitates enzymatic synthesis reactions b. dehydration synthesis reactions that combined smaller subunits into larger molecules c. increasing availability of inorganic compounds d. sequestration inside a semi-permeable membrane e. spontaneous aggregation of the different organic compounds in the atmosphere 68. The ancestor of the three domains of life was ____. a. a prokaryotic bacterium b. an archaean endosymbiont c. a proto-eukaryote d. the last universal common ancestor (LUCA) e. none of these are correct 69. The hypothesis that mitochondria and chloroplasts originated from the phagocytic activity of prokaryotes that was not followed by digestion is called the ____. a. theory of natural selection b. endosymbiotic hypothesis c. ribozymes-first hypothesis d. Oparin-Haldane hypothesis e. stromatolite hypothesis Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 25_5e 70. Aside from the traditional hypothesis that life on Earth developed via organic compounds produced in a reducing atmosphere, which alternative hypotheses is most likely? a. Life could have arisen from the organic compounds formed around hydrothermal vents far below the ocean floor. b. Life could have developed on another planet and was then delivered by meteorites. c. The organic compounds necessary for life were delivered to Earth by meteorites. d. Life on Earth may have arisen inside land-based volcanoes. e. The organic compounds necessary for life could only have been produced in an oxidizing atmosphere. 71. Stars provided ____ elements making up cells on Earth. a. none of the b. about half of the c. only the radioactive d. most of the e. all of the 72. Early life most likely evolved where ____ was plentiful. a. lightning b. solar energy c. hydrothermal vents d. geochemical activity e. radioactive decay 73. The Sun provided ____ in order to power the development of life on early Earth. a. continual energy b. a temperature range for liquid water to form c. radiation to power mutations d. continual energy and a temperature range for liquid water to form e. continual energy, a temperature range for liquid water to form, and radiation to power mutations 74. Why is the absence of atmospheric oxygen (O2) so important to the Oparin-Haldane hypothesis? a. Oxygen is corrosive and thus would have degraded many of the metallic compounds on Earth's surface, releasing toxic gasses into the new atmosphere. b. Oxygen is more reduced than hydrogen gas, methane, or ammonia. c. Oxygen would have supported microorganisms that promote chemical decay. d. Oxygen is able to reverse reactions by removing electrons and hydrogen from organic molecules, thus destroying the first organic compounds as quickly as they developed. e. Oxygen would have caused multiple explosions, converting chemical energy into heat energy and rendering that energy unavailable for driving the synthesis of organic molecules.

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Chap 25_5e 75. Which feature of Archaea is shared with Eukarya but not with Bacteria? a. the sequestration of DNA into a nucleus b. the common occurrence of introns c. the chemical structure of the cell walls d. the plasma membrane structure e. a genome comprised of a single, circular molecule of DNA 76. Carl Woese and George Fox derived the three-domain system based on ____. a. comparing shared morphological characters b. determining the activities of molecular replicators c. comparing sequences of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) genes d. analyzing membrane lipid composition e. searching for introns in the genomes 77. Natural sources of energy on the early Earth caused ____. a. spontaneous genetic mutations b. chemical bonds to break c. chemical bonds to form d. chemical bonds to break and form e. spontaneous genetic mutations and chemical bonds to break and form 78. Many of the eukaryotic genes for information processing came from ____. a. an archaeal ancestor b. horizontal gene transfer from a chloroplast c. horizontal gene transfer from a mitochondrion d. horizontal gene transfer from a prokaryote e. horizontal gene transfer from a bacterium 79. According to the Oparin-Haldane hypothesis, ____ was likely absent or near absent in Earth's early atmosphere. a. O2 (oxygen) b. H2 (hydrogen) c. CH4 (methane) d. H2O (in vapor form) e. NH3 (ammonia) 80. Volcanic activity on early Earth was responsible for the release of ____. a. gases for the early atmosphere b. oxygen for photosynthesis c. water vapor necessary to form the first oceans d. gases for the early atmosphere and oxygen for photosynthesis e. gases for the early atmosphere and water vapor necessary to form the first oceans Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 25_5e Match each phrase below with one of the following terms: a. microfossil b. extraterrestrial theory c. natural selection d. molecular replicator e. cell membranes f. binary fission g. evolution of life h. chemical gradients 81. molecules capable of storing and copying genetic material Match each phrase below with one of the following terms: a. microfossil b. extraterrestrial theory c. natural selection d. molecular replicator e. cell membranes f. binary fission g. evolution of life h. chemical gradients 82. remains of a cell that has decayed and been filled in by silica or calcium carbonate Match each phrase below with one of the following terms. Not all terms will be used. a. ribozymes b. protocells c. prebiotic soup d. hydrothermal vent e. lipid bilayer f. stromatolite g. cyanobacteria h. endosymbionts i. archaeans 83. rock structures where the earliest evidence of life is found

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Chap 25_5e Match each phrase below with one of the following terms. Not all terms will be used. a. ribozymes b. protocells c. prebiotic soup d. hydrothermal vent e. lipid bilayer f. stromatolite g. cyanobacteria h. endosymbionts i. archaeans 84. the basic chemical structure that serves as the containment of cells and cell-like objects Match each phrase below with one of the following terms: a. microfossil b. extraterrestrial theory c. natural selection d. molecular replicator e. cell membranes f. binary fission g. evolution of life h. chemical gradients 85. enable cells to control ionic gradients Match each phrase below with one of the following terms. Not all terms will be used. a. ribozymes b. protocells c. prebiotic soup d. hydrothermal vent e. lipid bilayer f. stromatolite g. cyanobacteria h. endosymbionts i. archaeans 86. the precursors of mitochondria and chloroplasts

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Chap 25_5e Match each phrase below with one of the following terms. Not all terms will be used. a. ribozymes b. protocells c. prebiotic soup d. hydrothermal vent e. lipid bilayer f. stromatolite g. cyanobacteria h. endosymbionts i. archaeans 87. possible origin site for life on Earth; abundance of chemicals essential for life and a reducing environment Match each phrase below with one of the following terms. Not all terms will be used. a. ribozymes b. protocells c. prebiotic soup d. hydrothermal vent e. lipid bilayer f. stromatolite g. cyanobacteria h. endosymbionts i. archaeans 88. the likely first information molecules Match each phrase below with one of the following terms: a. microfossil b. extraterrestrial theory c. natural selection d. molecular replicator e. cell membranes f. binary fission g. evolution of life h. chemical gradients 89. theory about possible origins of life that cannot be tested

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Chap 25_5e Match each phrase below with one of the following terms. Not all terms will be used. a. ribozymes b. protocells c. prebiotic soup d. hydrothermal vent e. lipid bilayer f. stromatolite g. cyanobacteria h. endosymbionts i. archaeans 90. these share a common ancestor with the first eukaryotic cells Match each phrase below with one of the following terms: a. microfossil b. extraterrestrial theory c. natural selection d. molecular replicator e. cell membranes f. binary fission g. evolution of life h. chemical gradients 91. inevitable outcome of physical and chemical conditions of Earth’s origins Match each phrase below with one of the following terms: a. microfossil b. extraterrestrial theory c. natural selection d. molecular replicator e. cell membranes f. binary fission g. evolution of life h. chemical gradients 92. source of free energy at alkaline ocean vents

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Chap 25_5e Match each phrase below with one of the following terms. Not all terms will be used. a. ribozymes b. protocells c. prebiotic soup d. hydrothermal vent e. lipid bilayer f. stromatolite g. cyanobacteria h. endosymbionts i. archaeans 93. the first water-splitting photosynthesizers Match each phrase below with one of the following terms: a. microfossil b. extraterrestrial theory c. natural selection d. molecular replicator e. cell membranes f. binary fission g. evolution of life h. chemical gradients 94. replication process shared by plastids and bacteria Match each phrase below with one of the following terms: a. microfossil b. extraterrestrial theory c. natural selection d. molecular replicator e. cell membranes f. binary fission g. evolution of life h. chemical gradients 95. required process that must have occurred before the first cells existed 96. What key assumption of the endosymbiotic theory is observed in living animals?

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Chap 25_5e 97. If life evolved in hydrothermal vents, is it likely the first cells were in the Domain Archaea?

98. Distinguish between stromatolites and biosignatures.

99. The hypothesis that life evolved on another planet and was transported to Earth by meteorites cannot be disregarded. Why?

100. Define the Oparin-Haldane hypothesis and explain how it has been tested in a laboratory.

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Chap 25_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. False - RNA 8. False - eukaryotes, prokaryotes 9. False - chloroplast, mitochondria 10. False - after 11. b 12. b 13. e 14. e 15. d 16. a 17. d 18. b 19. e 20. a 21. d 22. e 23. a 24. b 25. d 26. c 27. e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 25_5e 28. c 29. d 30. c 31. c 32. d 33. d 34. d 35. b 36. e 37. c 38. e 39. a 40. d 41. b 42. b 43. e 44. b 45. e 46. e 47. b 48. b 49. b 50. b 51. e 52. a 53. d 54. b

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Chap 25_5e 55. b 56. d 57. b 58. c 59. e 60. a 61. b 62. a 63. e 64. b 65. b 66. d 67. b 68. d 69. b 70. a 71. e 72. d 73. d 74. d 75. b 76. c 77. d 78. a 79. a 80. e 81. d 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 25_5e 83. f 84. e 85. e 86. h 87. d 88. a 89. b 90. i 91. g 92. h 93. g 94. f 95. c 96. Engulfed cells and organelles are observed to survive in the cytoplasm of the ingested cells. These include algae or cyanobacteria that are living in the cytoplasm of an animal cell. There are examples of species in at least 150 genera distributed among 11 phyla. 97. Not necessarily. Organisms found in hydrothermal vents are closely related to modern organisms that do not live in hydrothermal vents. Archaea are more closely related to Eukarya than Bacteria are to Eukarya. While the name Archaea suggests they are “ancient,” the evidence does not suggest they are more ancient than Bacteria. 98. Fossil stromatolites could be of biological origin and are layers of carbonate or silicate rock. The biological component is hypothesized to be phototrophic prokaryotes. Biosignatures are found in sedimentary rock. They are hypothesized to be formed by cellular activity. 99. The hypothesis is not testable. Most scientists believe it is unlikely, but it cannot be ruled out by experimentation. 100. The Oparin-Haldane hypothesis proposes that conditions on early Earth allowed the formation of organic compounds that were essential building blocks for the first cells. In a closed vessel, hydrogen, methane, ammonia, and water vapor were exposed to charged electrodes. Over the course of a week, urea, amino acids, lactic acid, formic acid, and acetic acids had all formed in the container. If the original atmosphere had the same composition as what was in the container, this experiment showed one way in which organic molecules could have been formed.

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Chap 26_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. Organisms that live optimally in cold temperatures are called barophiles. 2. Spirilli are Gram-negative bacteria that possess internal flagella, which cause the entire cell to twist in a corkscrew pattern. 3. A lichen is sometimes a symbiotic association between a proteobacterium and a fungus. 4. The flagella of bacteria rotate at their bases like propellers. 5. Genome sequence comparisons have now shown that the Korarchaeota are most likely a sister group of the Euryarchaeota. 6. Chlamydias are bacteria that possess cell walls, but lack peptidoglycan. 7. Quorum sensing is used by bacteria to facilitate the formation of endospores. 8. A slime coat called peptidoglycan covers the walls of many bacteria. 9. Transformation involves contact between two bacterial cells, followed by the unidirectional transfer of plasmid genes. 10. Archaea have multiple types of RNA polymerase. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. A(n) ____ would likely kill Methanococcus species. a. anoxic environment b. swamp c. intestine of a cow d. anaerobic environment e. aerobic environment 12. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which number identifies the structure that carries out protein synthesis? a. 2 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 e. 9 13. The major structural component of bacterial cell walls is ____. a. cellulose b. chitin c. proteoglycan d. peptidoglycan e. arabinogalactan Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 26_5e 14. Prokaryotic cells generally reproduce by ____. a. mutation b. binary fission c. conjugation d. transduction e. transformation 15. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which branch of this phylogenetic tree identifies Archaea? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 16. In biological nitrogen-fixation, ____. a. ammonia is converted to nitrogen gas b. nitrogen gas is converted to ammonia c. ammonia is converted to nitrate d. amino acids are linked into proteins in ribosomes e. nitrate is converted to ammonia 17. Archaeans like Sulfolobus have multiple origins of replication. This suggests that they ____. a. are more like bacteria than eukaryotes b. are more like eukaryotes than bacteria c. have a unique form of chromosomal replication d. have multiple plasmids, whose replication must be coordinated e. have multiple chromosomes 18. Most of the bacteria that cause human disease are ____. a. chemoautotrophs only b. chemoheterotrophs c. photoautotrophs d. photoheterotrophs only e. chemoautotrophs and photoheterotrophs 19. The three domains of life are ____. a. eukaryotes, prokaryotes, and viruses b. animals, plants, and microorganisms c. Prokaryota, Eukaryota, and Protostista d. Archaebacteria, Eubacteria, and Eukaryota e. Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya

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Chap 26_5e 20. Microbes that are found in hot springs or other extreme environments are most likely to be ____. a. Gram-negative b. Gram-positive c. archaeans d. cyanobacteria e. proteobacteria 21. After performing a Gram stain on a mixed culture of Gram-positive and Gram-negative cells, you realize that you omitted the iodine step. What would you expect to see if you observed the slide under the microscope? a. pink Gram-positive and purple Gram-negative cells b. purple Gram-positive and pink Gram-negative cells c. pink Gram-positive and pink Gram-negative cells d. colorless Gram-positive and pink Gram-negative cells e. colorless Gram-positive and colorless Gram-negative cells 22. The ____ are limited to three groups of proteobacteria. a. chemoautotrophs only b. chemoheterotrophs c. photoautotrophs d. photoheterotrophs only e. chemoautotrophs and photoheterotrophs 23. The ____ use solar energy and organic molecules as their nutritional sources. a. chemoautotrophs b. chemoheterotrophs c. photoautotrophs d. photoheterotrophs e. Archaea 24. In order to prove that a bacterium is pathological according to Koch’s postulates, the ____. a. bacteria must be present in most cases of the disease b. bacteria must be isolated from the infected host and grown in mixed culture c. specific disease must be induced when a pure culture of the bacteria is introduced into a healthy host d. bacteria must be isolated from a transfer host e. bacterium must produce spores that can be transmitted from one individual to another 25. The ____ have a single, circular chromosome. a. Archaea b. Bacteria c. Archaea and Bacteria d. cyanobacteria only e. methanogens only Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 26_5e 26. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which number identifies the structure that carries supplemental genetic information? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 27. Biofilms ____. a. are formed by prokaryotes living in a watery environment b. may develop on surgical implants c. are exemplified by dental plaque d. are formed by prokaryotes living in a watery environment and may develop on surgical implants e. are formed by prokaryotes living in a watery environment, may develop on surgical implants, and are exemplified by dental plaque 28. Dormant structures formed by certain bacteria in response to unfavorable environmental conditions are called ____. a. capsids b. endospores c. endotoxins d. exotoxins e. heterocysts 29. DNA in prokaryotes is found in ____. a. the nucleoid only b. the nucleolus only c. plasmids only d. the nucleoid and plasmids e. the nucleolus and plasmids 30. Prokaryotic ribosomes are composed of ____. a. proteins only b. proteins and DNA c. proteins and RNA d. glycolipids and DNA e. glycolipids and RNA

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Chap 26_5e 31. Korarchaeota ____. a. includes halophiles b. includes psychrophiles c. diverged very early in Archaean evolution d. includes halophiles and thermophiles e. diverged very late in Archaean evolution 32. Methanogens are classified as ____. a. Crenarchaeota only b. Euryarchaeota only c. Korarchaeota d. Nanoarchaeota e. both Crenarchaeota and Euryarchaeota 33. The ____ is a Gram-negative bacterium. a. Clostridium b. Staphylococcus c. Streptococcus d. Salmonella e. Lactobacillus 34. The lipopolysaccharides are associated with the ____ membrane of Gram- ____ bacteria. a. outer; positive b. outer; negative c. plasma; positive d. plasma; negative e. plasma; positive and negative 35. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which number identifies a structure that is composed of polysaccharides? a. 1 b. 3 c. 6 d. 7 e. 9 36. Prokaryotes typically undergo ____ via the process of ____. a. asexual reproduction; mitosis b. sexual reproduction; meiosis c. asexual reproduction; binary fission d. sexual reproduction; binary fission e. asexual reproduction; budding Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 26_5e 37. Which type of bacteria can grow in the presence or absence of oxygen? a. obligate aerobes b. obligate anaerobes c. facultative anaerobes d. obligate aerobes and obligate anaerobes e. obligate anaerobes and facultative anaerobes 38. Prokaryotes ____. a. lack a nucleus b. are generally larger than eukaryotes c. are found only in certain niches d. have a narrow range of metabolic activities e. have a smaller biomass than plants 39. The botulism toxin ____. a. is an endotoxin b. is produced by an extremophile c. may be found as a contaminant in expired food d. is marketed as Botox e. causes muscles to contract

40. Figure 26.2 (questions 40-45); note that B, D, and E are domains. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which branch of this phylogenetic tree identifies the common ancestor of all modern organisms? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 26_5e 41. Which domain(s) contains organisms with flagella? a. Archaea only b. Bacteria only c. Archaea and Bacteria d. Eukarya only e. Eukarya and Archaea 42. Cyanobacterial photosynthesis is similar to plant photosynthesis in the ____. a. type of chlorophyll used b. splitting of water c. production of oxygen d. type of chlorophyll used and splitting of water e. type of chlorophyll used, splitting of water, and in the production of oxygen 43. Archaea that have been cultured in the laboratory include ____. a. Crenarchaeota and Euryarchaeota b. Crenarchaeota and Korarchaeota c. Euryarchaeota and Korarchaeota d. Euryarchaeota and Nanorarchaeota e. Nanoarchaeota and Korarchaeota 44. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which number identifies the structure that facilitates movement? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 45. There are ____ major evolutionary groups in the domain Bacteria. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. at least 6 46. How long does it take for a biofilm to form? a. seconds to minutes b. minutes to hours c. hours to days d. days to months e. months to years Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 26_5e 47. An organism that obtains its energy from sunlight is a(n) ____. a. autotroph b. auxotroph c. heterotroph d. chemotroph e. phototroph 48. The presence of branched membrane lipids with ether linkages is a characteristic of ____. a. Archaea only b. Bacteria only c. both Archaea and Bacteria d. of neither Archaea nor Bacteria e. Archaea, Bacteria and Eukarya 49. How many distinct evolutionary branches exist in the domain Archaea, as revealed by genome sequencing studies? a. two b. three c. four d. five e. at least six 50. All chemoautotrophs and photoheterotrophs are ____. a. archaea only b. bacteria only c. eukaryotes only d. prokaryotes and eukaryotes e. prokaryotes 51. The presence of a nuclear membrane is characteristic of ____. a. Archaea only b. Bacteria only c. both Archaea and Bacteria d. neither Archaea nor Bacteria e. Archaea, Bacteria and Eukarya 52. An organism that obtains its carbon from CO2 is a(n) ____. a. autotroph b. auxotroph c. heterotroph d. chemotroph e. photoheterotroph Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 26_5e 53. The ____ are potentially pathogenic to humans. a. Archaea b. Bacteria c. Archaea and Bacteria d. cyanobacteria e. methanogens 54. The correct sequence of reagents used in the Gram stain technique is ____. a. iodine, alcohol, safranin, and crystal violet b. safranin, crystal violet, alcohol, and iodine c. crystal violet, iodine, alcohol, and safranin d. crystal violet, alcohol, iodine, and safranin e. alcohol, iodine, crystal violet, and safranin 55. Arrange the following layers from most external to most internal. 1 = Cell membrane 2 = Capsule 3 = Cell wall a. 1, 2, 3 b. 2, 1, 3 c. 2, 3, 1 d. 3, 1, 2 e. 3, 2, 1 56. Bacterial flagella ____. a. are smaller and simpler than eukaryotic flagella b. consist of a straight fiber of protein c. are found in all motile bacteria d. are powered by a gradient of calcium ions e. contain microtubules 57. Formylmethionine is the first amino acid in proteins in ____. a. Archaea only b. Bacteria only c. both Archaea and Bacteria d. neither Archaea nor Bacteria e. Archaea, Bacteria and Eukarya

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Chap 26_5e 58. Prokaryotes that are curved and comma-like are called ____. a. cocci b. bacilli c. vibrios d. spirilla e. sarcina 59. If the peptidoglycan layer is between two plasma membranes in an organism, that organism is ____. a. Gram-negative b. an archaean c. Gram-positive d. chemoautotrophic e. eukaryotic 60. Cyanobacteria are ____. a. chemoautotrophs only b. chemoheterotrophs c. photoautotrophs d. photoheterotrophs only e. chemoautotrophs and photoheterotrophs 61. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which branch of this phylogenetic tree identifies Bacteria? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 62. Plaque is _____ caused by _____. a. an infectious disease; bacterial biofilms b. a non-infectious disease; inflammation of the gums c. an infectious disease; non-pathogenic bacteria d. a non-infectious disease; E. coli e. an infectious disease; E. coli 63. The presence of cytoplasmic membrane-bound organelles is characteristic of ____. a. Archaea only b. Bacteria only c. both Archaea and Bacteria d. neither Archaea nor Bacteria e. Achaea, Bacteria and Eukarya

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Chap 26_5e 64. The genome of most prokaryotes consists of ____. a. a single linear DNA molecule b. a single circular DNA molecule c. many linear DNA molecules d. many circular DNA molecules e. a single DNA molecule that may be circular or linear, depending on the species 65. In which of the following ways is proteobacterial photosynthesis different from plant photosynthesis? a. Proteobacterial photosynthesis uses a different molecule than chlorophyll. b. Proteobacterial photosynthesis does not produce oxygen. c. Proteobacterial photosynthesis uses water as an electron donor. d. Proteobacterial photosynthesis uses a different molecule than chlorophyll and does not produce oxygen e. Proteobacterial photosynthesis occurs in the dark. 66. Prokaryotes were split into two domains based on differences in ____. a. staining characteristics b. metabolic capabilities c. rRNA sequences d. cell membrane properties e. cell wall composition 67. Archaea were first found ____. a. to be pathogenic b. living on the surface of leaves c. in surface ocean water d. in extreme environments e. in benign environments 68. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which branch of this phylogenetic tree identifies a phylum? a. C b. D c. E d. D and E e. C, D, and E 69. The ____ contain Gram-positive and Gram-negative species. a. Archaea b. Bacteria c. Archaea and Bacteria d. extremophiles e. methanogens Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 26_5e 70. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which branch of this phylogenetic tree identifies Eukarya? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E

71. Figure 26.1 (questions 23-29) Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which type of cell is represented in this figure? a. a Gram-positive bacterium b. a Gram-negative bacterium c. either a Gram-positive or a Gram-negative bacterium d. an archaeal cell e. any prokaryotic cell 72. Which symptom indicates the presence of plaque in a dental patient? a. Presence of E. coli in the patient's mouth. b. A bacterial culture from a patient's mouth that appears pink after Gram staining. c. Presence of cyanobacteria in the patient's mouth. d. A bacterial culture from the patient's mouth that appears purple after Gram staining. e. Non-pathogenic biofilms in the patient's mouth.

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Chap 26_5e 73. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which branch is most closely related to (shares a unique common ancestor with) the eukaryotes? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 74. Why is nitrogen fixation by prokaryotes essential to life on Earth? a. It removes nitrogen from the soil. b. It converts atmospheric nitrogen to a non-toxic form. c. It provides nitrogen sources for plants and animals. d. It provides an energy source for photosynthesis. e. It allows for the breakdown of complex macromolecules. 75. An organism that obtains its energy by oxidizing organic or inorganic substances is a(n) ____. a. autotroph b. auxotroph c. heterotroph d. chemotroph e. phototroph 76. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which numbers identify structures that are found in all prokaryotes? a. 2 and 4 b. 3 and 4 c. 1 and 5 d. 5 and 9 e. 7 and 8 77. The evolutionary ancestors of mitochondria are believed to have been ancient ____. a. Archaea b. cyanobacteria c. proteobacteria d. green bacteria e. Gram-positive bacteria 78. A Gram-positive bacterium is characterized by the ____. a. presence of a thin peptidoglycan cell wall b. presence of a thick peptidoglycan cell wall c. absence of a cell wall d. presence of an outer membrane e. absence of ribosomes Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 26_5e 79. The process of nitrification is the conversion of ____. a. N2 → NH4+ b. NH4+ → N2 c. N2 → NO3d. NO3- → N2 e. NH4+ → NO380. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which number identifies a structure that aids in attachment? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 7 e. 8 Match each prokaryotic genus with its correct description. a. causes anthrax b. fixes nitrogen c. causes syphilis d. thrives in very high temperatures e. causes typhoid fever f. aids in the production of yogurt g. causes necrotizing fasciitis (flesh-eating disease) h. thrives in very high salt concentrations i. causes gonorrhea j. produces CH4 k. causes the most common sexually transmitted infections of the urinary and reproductive tracts in humans l. releases oxygen as a byproduct of photosynthesis m. causes gastric ulcers n. causes pneumonia o. component of inhaled biofilm that causes respiratory infection 81. Halobacterium 82. Methanosarcina 83. Pyrolobus

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Chap 26_5e Match each prokaryotic genus with its correct description. a. causes anthrax b. fixes nitrogen c. causes syphilis d. thrives in very high temperatures e. causes typhoid fever f. aids in the production of yogurt g. causes necrotizing fasciitis (flesh-eating disease) h. thrives in very high salt concentrations i. causes gonorrhea j. produces CH4 k. causes the most common sexually transmitted infections of the urinary and reproductive tracts in humans l. releases oxygen as a byproduct of photosynthesis m. causes gastric ulcers n. causes pneumonia o. component of inhaled biofilm that causes respiratory infection 84. Helicobacter 85. Mycoplasma 86. Legionella 87. Azotobacter 88. Bacillus 89. Chlamydia 90. Lactobacillus 91. Neisseria 92. Cyanobacteria 93. Streptococcus 94. Treponema 95. Salmonella 96. Why are archaeans more tolerant of extreme environmental conditions than bacteria?

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Chap 26_5e 97. What are the primary evolutionary mechanisms that result in the great diversity and adaptation in prokaryotes?

98. Differentiate between endotoxins and exoenzymes.

99. Which characteristics clearly separate Eukarya from Bacteria, but not Eukarya from Archaea?

100. Why is it problematic to take antibiotics for viral diseases?

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Chap 26_5e Answer Key 1. False - psychrophiles 2. False - spirochetes 3. False - cyanobacterium 4. True 5. False - Lokiarchaeota 6. True 7. False - biofilms 8. False - glycocalyx 9. False - conjugation 10. True 11. e 12. c 13. d 14. b 15. d 16. b 17. b 18. b 19. e 20. c 21. c 22. d 23. d 24. c 25. c 26. b 27. e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 26_5e 28. b 29. d 30. c 31. c 32. b 33. d 34. b 35. c 36. c 37. c 38. a 39. d 40. a 41. c 42. e 43. a 44. a 45. d 46. d 47. e 48. a 49. d 50. e 51. d 52. a 53. b 54. c 55. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 26_5e 56. a 57. b 58. c 59. a 60. c 61. b 62. a 63. d 64. e 65. b 66. c 67. d 68. a 69. c 70. e 71. b 72. b 73. d 74. c 75. d 76. d 77. c 78. b 79. e 80. c 81. h 82. j 83. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 26_5e 84. m 85. n 86. o 87. b 88. a 89. k 90. f 91. i 92. l 93. g 94. c 95. e 96. There are differences in their plasma membrane and cell wall. The chemical bond between hydrocarbon chains and glycerol in the plasma membrane is more resistant to disruption. The molecular components of peptidoglycan-related molecules in cells wall are different, and some Archaean cell walls are assembled from proteins or polysaccharides that make them highly resistant to disruption by extreme conditions. 97. Genetic variability primarily arises due to mutation. Prokaryotes have approximately 1,000 times more mutations per gene, per unit time, per individual, than do eukaryotes. Natural selection then works on the large populations that result from rapid reproduction, leading to rapid adaptation. 98. Endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides released when a bacterium dies and lyses. These lipopolysaccharides cause disease. Exoenzymes are proteins released by some bacteria that can rupture host cells or digest extracellular materials such as collagen. 99. The presence of multiple types of RNA polymerase, methionine as the first amino acid placed in proteins, and aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases. 100. Antibiotics do not kill viruses. But more importantly, the overuse of antibiotics leads to resistant strains of bacteria in the body.

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Chap 27_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. Radiolarians have frothy vacuoles and lipid droplets, which provide them with buoyancy in marine environments. 2. The land plants are termed viridaeplantae. 3. Dinoflagellates became photosynthetic via secondary endosymbiosis 4. The Chlorophyta are believed to be the ancestors of fungi and animals. 5. The White Cliffs of Dover, England, are composed of shells of ancient diatoms. 6. The parasite that causes African sleeping sickness is transmitted through the bite of a mosquito. 7. Amoeba is a term used to describe unicellular protists that move by means of flagella. 8. Slime molds are classified as Amoebozoa. 9. The pigments responsible for the color of red algae are the chlorophylls. 10. The single-celled eukaryotes most closely related to animals and fungi are the ciliates. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Brown algae lack true roots but have similar structures called ____ that anchor them to their substrate. a. stipes b. blades c. holdfasts d. thalli e. rhizoids 12. A ____ is an extension of a lobe of the cytoplasm, which is used by some single-celled eukaryotes for movement. a. gullet b. pseudopod c. cilium d. pilus e. flagellum

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Chap 27_5e

13. Figure 27.1 (questions 11-16) Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The function of the structure labeled "2" is ____. a. food intake b. digestion c. waste elimination d. water discharge e. asexual reproduction 14. The only single-celled eukaryotes that have two types of nuclei in each cell are the ____. a. Archaeplastida b. dinoflagellates c. ciliates d. Excavates e. amoebozoans 15. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The structures labeled "5" are ____. a. trichocysts b. micronuclei c. flagella d. pili e. gullet 16. Some single-celled eukaryotes have a pellicle, which is used for ____. a. defensive purposes b. sexual reproduction c. structural support d. water absorption e. food storage

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Chap 27_5e 17. Diatoms belong to the group ____. a. Bacillariophyta b. Phaeophyta c. Chrysophyta d. Rhodophyta e. Chlorophyta 18. Algin is a substance used to thicken products as diverse as ice cream, cosmetics, and floor polish. It is extracted from the cell walls of ____ algae. a. green b. golden c. blue-green d. brown e. red 19. The cause of malaria is a ____. a. Pseudomonas b. Phytophthora c. Plasmodium d. Physarum e. Phytophthora 20. Secondary endosymbiosis occurs when a ____ eukaryote engulfs a ____. a. photosynthetic; photosynthetic prokaryote b. photosynthetic; non-photosynthetic prokaryote c. photosynthetic; non-photosynthetic eukaryote d. non-photosynthetic; photosynthetic prokaryote e. non-photosynthetic; photosynthetic eukaryote 21. Slime molds move about in a way similar to ____. a. water molds b. fungi c. amoebas d. dinoflagellates e. ciliates 22. The ____ group includes human pathogens. a. parabasalids b. euglenoids c. forams d. red algae e. brown algae Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 27_5e 23. Rhodophyta consist of 4,000 species of ____algae. a. brown b. red c. golden d. green e. blue-green 24. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Water balance is maintained by the structures labeled ____. a. 1 and 3 b. 5 and 9 c. 7 and 8 d. 6 and 9 e. 1 and 6 25. The ____ acquired plastids through primary endosymbiosis. a. stramenopiles b. red algae c. dinoflagellates d. ciliates e. euglenoids 26. The production of cyclic AMP in Dictyostelium results in ____. a. sexual reproduction b. cell division c. swimming d. spore production e. aggregation of cells 27. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The structures labeled "4" are ____. a. trichocysts b. cilia c. flagella d. pili e. pellicles 28. The most diverse archaeplastida group is composed of ____. a. red algae b. brown algae c. diatoms d. green algae e. charophytes Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 27_5e 29. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The degeneration of nuclei is occurring in step(s) ____. a. 4 only b. 5 only c. 8 only d. 4 and 5 e. 4 and 8 30. Many algal species have life cycles consisting of alternating haploid and diploid generations. The most common life cycle in green algae consists of organisms that are ____ in the haploid stage and ____ in the diploid stage. a. unicellular; multicellular b. multicellular; unicellular c. unicellular; unicellular d. multicellular; multicellular e. colonial; colonial 31. Giardia lamblia, spread by water contaminated with feces, forms resistant ____. a. endospores b. exospores c. cysts d. sporangia e. trophozoites 32. Many algal species have life cycles consisting of alternating haploid and diploid generations. The most common life cycle in brown algae consists of organisms that are ____. a. unicellular in the haploid stage and multicellular in the diploid stage b. multicellular in the haploid stage and unicellular in the diploid stage c. unicellular in both the haploid and diploid stages d. multicellular in both the haploid and diploid stages e. colonial in both the haploid and diploid stages 33. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The structure labeled "7" is the ____. a. food vacuole b. gullet c. macronucleus d. micronucleus e. mitochondrion 34. Kinetoplastids are ____. a. non-photosynthetic b. parasitic c. ciliated d. non-photosynthetic and parasitic e. non-photosynthetic, parasitic, and ciliated Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 27_5e 35. You find a small eukaryote that is unicellular, heterotrophic, and non-flagellated. It has two nuclei of different sizes. You correctly conclude that this organism is a(n) ____. a. kinetoplastid b. plasmodial slime mold c. ciliate d. foram e. amoebozoan 36. The protists are a defunct group of organisms that were traditionally grouped together because they all ____. a. have the same type of nutrition b. live in the same environments c. have very similar DNA sequences d. have very similar shapes e. are not prokaryotes, fungi, plants, or animals 37. Which statement best describes the phylogenetic relationship between single-celled eukaryotes, fungi, plants, and animals? a. Fungi and animals share a common protist lineage, while plants arose from a different single-celled eukaryotic ancestor. b. Fungi and plants share a common protist lineage, while animals arose from a different single-celled eukaryotic ancestor. c. Animals and plants share a common protist lineage, while fungi arose from a different single-celled eukaryotic sancestor. d. Plants, animals, and fungi each arose from a different single-celled eukaryote lineage. e. Plants, animals, fungi, and protists each arose from the same prokaryotic ancestor. 38. According to the latest research, what statement best describes the first eukaryote? a. It lacked a nucleus, a mitochondrion, or a chloroplast. b. It lacked a nucleus but contained a mitochondrion and a chloroplast. c. It contained a nucleus and a chloroplast, but not a mitochondrion. d. It contained a nucleus and a mitochondrion, but not a chloroplast. e. It contained a nucleus, a mitochondrion, and a chloroplast. 39. Amoebas use pseudopodia for movement and ____. a. sexual reproduction b. excretion c. feeding d. avoiding predation e. asexual reproduction

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Chap 27_5e 40. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. What is occurring in step 11? a. cytoplasmic division b. fusion c. fertilization d. the first meiotic division e. the second meiotic division 41. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The structure labeled "E" is formed ____. a. under favorable conditions b. under unfavorable conditions c. by mitosis d. by meiosis e. by fusion of individual cells 42. Ciliates include the genus ____. a. Euglena b. Anopheles c. Trichomonas d. Paramecium e. Entamoeba 43. When under attack, ciliates can eject dart-like protein threads from surface organelles called ____. a. vacuoles b. gullets c. trichocysts d. phagosomes e. alveoli 44. The ____ are members of the Oomycota. a. water molds b. white rusts c. downy mildews d. water molds and white rusts e. water molds, white rusts and mildews 45. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Mitosis is occurring in step(s) ____. a. 7 only b. 8 only c. 10 only d. 7 and 8 e. 7, 8, and 10

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Chap 27_5e 46. The green algae include ____. a. unicellular species only b. multicellular species only c. unicellular and multicellular species d. unicellular and colonial species e. unicellular, multicellular, and colonial species 47. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. What is occurring in step 2? a. mitosis b. the first meiotic division c. the second meiotic division d. fertilization e. fusion 48. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which stage(s) produce(s) the characteristic chills and fever of malaria? a. A only b. B only c. C only d. A and B e. B and C 49. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which stage of the Plasmodium life cycle does label D represent? a. sporozoite b. gametocyte c. cyst d. zygote e. merozoite 50. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Label B illustrates Plasmodium infection of the ____. a. kidney b. liver c. gall bladder d. stomach e. lung 51. The majority of single-celled eukaryotes are ____. a. anaerobic b. aerobic c. autotrophic d. parasitic e. photosynthetic Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 27_5e 52. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The fruiting body is the structure with the label ____. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 53. A number of major disease-causing protists are members of ____. a. Euglenoids b. Excavates c. Archaeplastida d. diatoms e. brown algae 54. The cause of malaria is a ____. a. bacterium b. protist c. virus d. fungus e. animal 55. Shells of forams consist of organic matter reinforced by ____. a. silica b. cellulose c. calcium carbonate d. copper sulfate e. hydrogen sulfide 56. All algae ____. a. are unicellular b. are multicellular c. have chlorophyll d. are motile at all stages of their life cycle e. have life cycles with alternating generations 57. Under favorable conditions, plasmodial slime molds exist primarily as ____. a. a coordinated, multicellular mass b. individual amoeba-like cells c. individual flagellated cells d. a single, multinucleated cellular mass e. spore-forming fruiting bodies

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Chap 27_5e

58. ©2014 Brooks/Cole, Cengage Learning Figure 27.4 (questions 56-60) Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which stage of the Plasmodium life cycle does Label A represent? a. sporozoite b. gametocyte c. cyst d. zygote e. merozoite 59. The ____ are heterotrophic fungus-like protists. a. Rhodophyta b. Chrysophyta c. Phaeophyta d. Bacillariophyta e. Oomycota 60. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The function of the structure labeled "9" is ____. a. food intake b. digestion c. sexual reproduction d. water discharge e. asexual reproduction

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Chap 27_5e 61. Most golden algae are ____. a. unicellular and autotrophic b. unicellular and heterotrophic c. colonial and autotrophic d. colonial and heterotrophic e. multicellular and heterotrophic 62. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The slug is the structure with the label ____. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 63. The least mobile single-celled eukaryotes are the ____. a. apicomplexans b. dinoflagellates c. diatoms d. heterokonts e. euglenoids 64. Eukaryotes arose when a. an aerobic bacterium consumed an archaean by phagocytosis. b. a photosynthetic bacterium consumed an aerobic bacterium by phagocytosis. c. an archaean consumed an aerobic bacterium by phagocytosis. d. a ciliate consumed an archaean by phagocytosis. e. a ciliate consumed an aerobic bacterium by phagosytosis. 65. Currently malaria ____. a. kills about two million people each year in the U.S. b. has no known treatment c. can be prevented with a vaccination d. can be prevented with the drug quinidine e. is a temporary infection 66. Diatoms can best be described as ____. a. unicellular and autotrophic b. unicellular and heterotrophic c. multicellular and autotrophic d. multicellular and heterotrophic e. multicellular and parasitic

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Chap 27_5e 67. You discover an organism that has a nucleus but no mitochondria. This organism could be a(n) ____. a. euglenoid b. diplomonad c. kinetoplastid d. ciliate e. dinoflagellate

68. ©2014 Brooks/Cole, Cengage Learning Figure 27.3 (questions 45-48) Answer the question using the accompanying figure. This figure illustrates the life cycle of a ____. a. brown algae b. green algae c. water mold d. plasmodial slime mold e. cellular slime mold 69. The ____ are the primary photosynthetic organisms of marine plankton. a. apicomplexans b. diatoms c. dinoflagellates d. parasitic ciliates e. free-living ciliates

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Chap 27_5e 70. The algal ancestors of land plants were most likely similar to the ____. a. Rhodophyta b. Phaeophyta c. Chrysophyta d. charophytes e. Radiolaria 71. Single-celled eukaryotes that have a single flagellum are called ____. a. Amorphea b. opisthokonts c. Excavta d. euglenoids e. rhizarians 72. The undulating membrane of Parabasala is used for ____. a. defensive purposes b. asexual reproduction c. structural support d. food absorption e. movement 73. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The animal labeled "E" is a ____. a. mosquito of the genus Aedes b. mosquito of the genus Anopheles c. mosquito of the genus Culex d. fly of the genus Musca e. tick of the genus Amblyoma 74. The ____ absorb nutrients through their plasma membranes and lack food vacuoles. a. golden algae b. apicomplexans c. dinoflagellates d. diatoms e. red algae 75. Small, photosynthetic single-celled eukaryotes found in aquatic habitats are collectively called ____. a. zooplankton b. phytoplankton c. phagoplankton d. bryophytes e. chrysophytes

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Chap 27_5e 76. Red tide and extensive fish kills are caused by population blooms of ____. a. euglenoids b. dinoflagellates c. diatoms d. ciliates e. brown algae 77. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. What is occurring in step 6? a. fission b. fusion c. fertilization d. the first meiotic division e. the second meiotic division

78. Figure 27.2 (questions 25-30) Answer the question using the accompanying figure. This figure illustrates the process of ____. a. conjugation b. transformation c. transduction d. translocation e. excystation

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Chap 27_5e 79. Cellular slime molds can be distinguished from plasmodial slime molds on the basis of ____ a. reproductive structures b. spore formation c. nuclei per cytoplasm d. slime trails e. food requirements 80. Radiolarians have characteristic ____, which are thin, ray-like strands of cytoplasm supported internally by bundles of ____. a. axopods; microfilaments b. axopods; microtubules c. spicules; microfilaments d. spicules; microtubules e. microfilaments; axopods Match each genus with its correct description. a. causes African sleeping sickness b. free-living with anterior flagella c. a multicellular photosynthetic protist d. causes amoebic dysentery e. causes a sexually transmitted disease f. a plasmodial slime mold g. a cellular slime mold 81. Ulva Match each genus with its correct description. a. causes African sleeping sickness b. free-living with anterior flagella c. a multicellular photosynthetic protist d. causes amoebic dysentery e. causes a sexually transmitted disease f. a plasmodial slime mold g. a cellular slime mold 82. Entamoeba 83. Physarum 84. Dictyostelium

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Chap 27_5e Choose the type of algae that corresponds to each of the characteristics listed below. Not all options need be used; some may be used more than once. a. blue-green b. green c. brown d. red e. golden 85. most diverse 86. grows at the deepest ocean levels 87. ancestors of plants 88. source of carrageenan, a thickening agent 89. source of nori, the sushi "wrapper" Choose the type of algae that corresponds to each of the characteristics listed below. Not all options need be used; some may be used more than once. a. blue-green b. green c. brown d. red e. golden 90. largest and most complex 91. Chrysophyta 92. harvested as food crops and fertilizers Match each genus with its correct description. a. causes African sleeping sickness b. free-living with anterior flagella c. a multicellular photosynthetic protist d. causes amoebic dysentery e. causes a sexually transmitted disease f. a plasmodial slime mold g. a cellular slime mold 93. Euglena 94. Trichomonas 95. Trypanosoma

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Chap 27_5e 96. Discuss how single-celled eukaryotes can be distinguished from each of the following: bacteria, fungi, plants, and animals.

97. Provide a brief argument for the following statement: “single-celled eukaryotes are complex.”

98. Why is it probably not a good idea to drink water directly from a mountain stream (i.e., untreated) even if it appears to be unaffected by human activities?

99. Describe phylogenomics and its contributions to phylogenetic relationships between single-celled eukaryotes and other eukaryotes.

100. Describe the term protozoa and algae, and indicate why these terms are outdated.

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Chap 27_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. False - Choanoflagellata 5. False - forams 6. False - tsetse fly 7. False - pseudopodia 8. True 9. False - phycobilins 10. False - choanoflagellates 11. c 12. b 13. c 14. c 15. a 16. c 17. a 18. d 19. c 20. e 21. c 22. a 23. b 24. d 25. b 26. e 27. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 27_5e 28. d 29. e 30. b 31. c 32. d 33. c 34. d 35. c 36. e 37. a 38. d 39. c 40. a 41. b 42. d 43. c 44. e 45. d 46. e 47. b 48. c 49. b 50. b 51. b 52. a 53. b 54. b 55. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 27_5e 56. c 57. d 58. a 59. e 60. d 61. c 62. e 63. a 64. c 65. d 66. a 67. b 68. e 69. b 70. d 71. b 72. e 73. b 74. b 75. b 76. b 77. b 78. a 79. c 80. b 81. c 82. d 83. f Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 27_5e 84. g 85. b 86. d 87. b 88. d 89. d 90. c 91. e 92. c 93. b 94. e 95. a 96. Single-celled eukaryotes differ from bacteria simply because they are eukaryotes, and bacteria are prokaryotes. Protists possess a nucleus and various organelles, all of which are lacking in bacteria. Single-celled eukaryotes do have features in common with fungi, animals, and plants. Indeed, these three eukaryotic lineages arose from singlecelled eukaryotes ancestors. However, single-celled eukaryotes have several distinctive characteristics. For example, many single-celled eukaryotes lack cell walls, while true fungi possess them. The cell walls that are found in singlecelled eukaryotes typically contain different components than those found in fungi (cellulose versus chitin). In contrast to land plants, single-celled eukaryotes lack highly differentiated structures equivalent to true roots, stems, and leaves. They also lack the protective structures that encase developing embryos in plants. Finally, single-celled eukaryotes are distinguished from animals by their lack of highly differentiated structures such as limbs and a heart, and by the absence of features such as nerve cells, complex developmental stages, and an internal digestive tract. Single-celled eukaryotes also lack collagen, the characteristic extracellular support protein of animals. 97. There are a number of intracellular structures in some single-celled eukaryotes, and some of these structures are not found in any other living organisms. The cell must carry out all of the functions of the organism, and this is often controlled by specialized structures. For example, a single-celled eukaryotes may control water movement in and out of the cell (contractile vacuole), digest prey (food vacuoles), and move (flagella, pseudopodia, or cilia). 98. It is possible the water contains Giardia. Giardia is a metamonada that induces severe diarrhea and abdominal cramps and is spread by water contaminated with feces. Therefore, if animals have been using the stream, there is a chance of it containing Giardia. 99. Phylogenomics is a type of analysis that utilizes molecular data to compare sequences of whole genomes, or large segments of genomes. Phylogenomics has clearly illustrated relationships between single-celled eukaryotes, plants, animals and fungi, including the most ancient bifurcation of eukaryotes: Archaeplastida (which contains the plants) and Amorphea (which contains animals and fungi).

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Chap 27_5e 100. Protozoa translates into “first animal.” Protozoa is a name for a diverse assemblage of heterotrophic single-celled eukaryotes that were once considered to be animals. Algae refers to several groups of photosynthetic single-celled eukaryotes. Therefore, neither term describes a taxonomic group of single-celled eukaryotes.

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Chap 28_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Molecular, biochemical, cellular, and morphological evidence supports the view that bryophytes are a monophyletic group. a. True b. False 2. Modern nonvascular plants are generally small because they lack leaves. a. True b. False 3. Meristems, regions of unspecialized cells that give rise to new plant parts, exist in all extant plant groups. a. True b. False 4. The haploid phase of the plant life cycle begins in the sporangia. a. True b. False 5. Seedless vascular plants found in deserts do not require water for sperm to reach eggs. a. True b. False 6. A moss sporophyte must obtain some carbohydrates from the gametophyte. a. True b. False 7. Leaves arose several times during plant evolution. a. True b. False 8. Coal was formed primarily from buried remains of nonvascular plants. a. True b. False 9. Bryophytes are clearly adapted to live in fresh water. a. True b. False 10. Except for tropical tree ferns, the stems of most ferns are underground rhizomes. a. True b. False

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Chap 28_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. The emergence of land plants correlated with the near ____ of the genes that bryophytes inherited from a(n)____ ancestor. a. doubling; liverwort b. doubling; algal c. tripling; liverwort d. tripling; algal e. quadrupling; algal 12. The zygotes of modern charophytes and reproductive spores in land plants are protected from desiccation by ____. a. stomata b. chlorophyll c. a cuticle d. starch e. sporopollenin 13. In liverworts, the gametophyte generation is a flat, branching, ribbonlike plate of tissue closely pressed against damp soil called a ____. a. rhizoid b. gemmae c. antheridium d. archegonium e. thallus 14. Consisting of the fossilized remains of seedless vascular plant life, ____ was the first fuel to be widely used by human societies. a. gasoline b. petroleum c. natural gas d. crude oil e. coal 15. The phylum ____ has about 10,000 known living species of nonvascular plants, including those in the genus Sphagnum, a peat moss used by humans for its absorbent property. a. Hepatophyta b. Monilophyta c. Bryophyta d. Lycophyta e. Anthocerophyta

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Chap 28_5e 16. The gametophyte generation of plants begins ____, where meiosis produces ____. a. after fertilization; a multicellular, diploid organism b. after fertilization; a multicellular; haploid organism c. in the sporangia; a multicellular; diploid organism d. in the sporangia; haploid spores e. in the sporangia; diploid spores 17. Which statement best describes fertilization in the fern life cycle? a. Pollen is blown by the wind to a female cone, where it forms a pollen tube that grows toward where the egg will form. b. Flagellated sperm swim in a film of water on the surface of the plant to reach an egg. c. Flagellated sperm are blown by the wind to a location near an egg, and then swim through plant fluids to reach the egg. d. Flagellated sperm swim through plant fluids to reach an egg. e. Flagellated sperm attach to the moist skin of certain animals and are transferred to the surface of the plant to reach an egg. 18. Club mosses, spike mosses, and quillworts are members of the ____ phylum. a. Hepatophyta b. Monilophyta c. Bryophyta d. Lycophyta e. Anthocerophyta 19. A change in the number of single chromosomes without a change in the overall number of genes is called ____ and the duplication of a whole genome is called ____. a. haplodiploidy; dysploidy b. polyploidy; haplodiploidy c. polyploidy; dysploidy d. dysploidy; haplodiploidy e. dysploidy; polyploidy 20. Which ecological role is least likely to be performed by bryophytes? a. enhancing the water-holding capacity of garden soil b. stabilizing soil surfaces with a biological crust in harsh places c. supplying a food source for animals in the arctic tundra d. providing pollination services for agricultural crops e. helping to build soil on bare rock

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Chap 28_5e 21. Antheridia and archegonia are the two types of ____ present in bryophytes. a. sporophytes b. sporangia c. gametangia d. gemmae e. thalli 22. Molecular studies place ____ as the sister clade of vascular plants. a. ferns b. mosses c. liverworts d. hornworts e. stone worts 23. Which trait is least likely to be shared between green algae and land plants? a. presence of stomata b. chloroplasts with chlorophyll a c. cellulose in their cell walls d. store energy captured during photosynthesis as starch e. chloroplasts with chlorophyll b 24. The liverwort genus Marchantia can reproduce asexually by way of ____, small cell masses that form in cuplike growths on a ____. a. antheridia; gemmae b. gemmae; thallus c. archegonia; thallus d. thallus; gemmae e. antheridia; thallus 25. Club moss sporangia form on specialized leaves called ____ that occur near stem tips. a. cladophylls b. archegonia c. thalli d. antheridia e. sporophylls 26. The slender, rootlike structures found in nonvascular plants are called ____. a. thalli b. rhizomes c. gametangia d. protonema e. rhizoids Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 28_5e 27. Today, there are at least ____ living plant species, which collectively make up the Kingdom Plantae. a. 18,000 b. 120,000 c. 280,000 d. 1,200,000 e. 2,800,000 28. Seedless vascular plants were the dominant plants on Earth until their dominance ended at the end of the Carboniferous period, about ____. a. 1.5 billion years ago b. 420 million years ago c. 250 million years ago d. 125 million years ago e. 17 million years ago 29. The phylum ____ consists of about 200 known species of nonvascular plants that produce hornlike sporophytes, and are the only land plants whose chloroplasts contain alga-like protein bodies called pyrenoids. a. Hepatophyta b. Monilophyta c. Bryophyta d. Lycophyta e. Anthocerophyta 30. A gametophyte that develops from a ____ spore is bisexual, meaning that it can produce both sperm and eggs. a. homosporous b. polysporous c. heterosporous d. diplosporous e. bisporous 31. Eggs form in protective structures called ____ in bryophytes and seedless vascular plants. a. antheridium b. stoma c. strobilus d. sporangium e. archegonium 32. The filamentous growths of moss gametophytes that produce numerous leafy shoots from buds are called ____. a. rhizoids b. thalli c. sporophytes d. zygotes e. protonema Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 28_5e 33. Which group has the largest number of chromosomes? a. hepatophytes b. gymnosperms c. angiosperms d. lycophytes e. charophytes 34. A special capsule or chamber where a plant will make the first cells of the gametophyte generation is called a ____. a. vascular system b. protonema c. sporangium d. rhizome e. shoot system 35. When plants colonized land, they dramatically changed conditions on Earth by altering the global ____ cycle. a. carbon b. hydrologic c. nitrogen d. phosphorus e. sulfur 36. The ____ phylum of seedless vascular plants has about 1,000 known living species, including those in the genera Lycopodium and Selaginella; the gametophyte of some of these species cannot photosynthesize, and instead use mycorrhizae to obtain nutrients. a. Hepatophyta b. Monilophyta c. Bryophyta d. Lycophyta e. Anthocerophyta 37. The polysaccharide that helps strengthen cell walls in transport tissues of hornworts is called ____. a. xylan b. chlorophyll c. lignin d. chlorophyll a e. chlorophyll b

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Chap 28_5e 38. Liverworts, hornworts, and mosses are ____. a. seedless vascular plants b. seed plants c. nonvascular plants d. charophytes e. gymnosperms 39. Over geological time, organic matter from seedless vascular plants, buried beneath ____, formed the fossil fuels we use today. a. agricultural fields b. ocean and river sediments c. volcanic ash d. granitic and basaltic rock e. Earth’s mantle 40. All plants have two multicellular phases, one diploid and one haploid, a phenomenon called ____. a. alternation of generations b. double fertilization c. polyploidy d. mitosis e. dysploidy 41. In the moss life cycle, ____. a. gametophytes originate within, and are dependent upon, sporophytes b. sporophytes originate within, and are dependent upon, gametophytes c. both gametophytes and sporophytes are independent from each other and are equally dominant d. gametophytes are free-living and photosynthetic, but are replaced by a dominant sporophyte generation e. gametophytes are photosynthetic and partially independent from the sporophytes 42. All plants are multicellular, and most are ____ that carry out photosynthesis. a. freshwater autotrophs b. freshwater heterotrophs c. marine autotrophs d. terrestrial autotrophs e. terrestrial heterotrophs 43. Ferns, whisk ferns, and horsetails are members of the ____ phylum, which has about 13,000 described living species. a. Hepatophyta b. Monilophyta c. Bryophyta d. Lycophyta e. Anthocerophyta Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 28_5e 44. Bryophytes have ____. a. true leaves b. two spore types c. true roots d. true stems e. one spore type 45. Heterospory refers to having ____. a. both male and female gametes b. two types of spores in two different types of sporangia c. both male and female parts on the same plant d. separate male and female plants e. both sporophyte and gametophyte generations 46. Members of the phylum ____ are considered by many researchers to be the living plants most closely related to vascular plants, based on their morphology and mitochondrial gene sequence data. a. Hepatophyta b. Monilophyta c. Bryophyta d. Lycophyta e. Anthocerophyta 47. Which statement describes the fern life cycle? a. Gametophytes originate within, and are dependent upon, sporophytes. b. Sporophytes originate within, and are dependent upon, gametophytes. c. Both gametophytes and sporophytes are totally independent from each other and are equally dominant. d. Gametophytes are free-living and photosynthetic, but are replaced by a dominant sporophyte generation. e. Gametophytes are photosynthetic and partially independent from the sporophytes. 48. A structure with stems and leaves that arises from an apical meristem is called a ____. a. vascular system b. protonema c. sporangium d. rhizome e. shoot system

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Chap 28_5e 49. Recent studies on the evolutionary divergence of seed plants from seedless vascular plants used the genome of a ____, a lycophyte, as a comparison for genomes of the more derived land plants. a. numerous, large apical cells on the edges of their fronds b. single, large apical cell on the tip of their fronds c. single, large apical cell at the tip of their apical meristems d. numerous, small apical cells at the base of their apical meristems e. single, small apical cell at the base of their apical meristems 50. Anchoring organs in plants that absorb water and nutrients are referred to as ____. a. stems b. leaves c. roots d. thalli e. tracheids 51. Much of the world’s coal reserves were formed from the buried remains of ____, the dominant plants of the Carboniferous period. a. bryophytes b. seedless vascular plants c. gymnosperms d. angiosperms e. gymnosperms and angiosperms 52. A horizontal stem modified to penetrate the substrate and anchor a plant is a ____. a. sporangium b. rhizome c. vascular system d. protonema e. shoot system 53. Which structure was least likely to be present in the charophyte ancestors of land plants? a. spores b. gametes c. multicellular organs d. diploid embryos e. chloroplasts 54. Some bryophyte species are ____, meaning that they grow independently on another organism. a. tracheophytes b. epiphytes c. parasites d. charophytes e. rhizoids Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 28_5e 55. In sexually reproducing animals, a multicellular body develops when ____ cells divide by ____. a. haploid; meiosis I b. diploid; meiosis I c. diploid; meiosis II d. haploid; mitosis e. diploid; mitosis 56. Which tissue distributes water and dissolved mineral ions through vascular plant bodies? a. plasmodesmata b. phloem c. xylem d. rhizomes e. meristem 57. Tiny openings in the cuticle-covered surfaces of most land plants, called ____, control water loss and carbon dioxide uptake for photosynthesis. a. gemmae b. tracheophytes c. sporopollenins d. stomata e. thalli 58. Fossils of Cooksonia, which date to approximately ____ years ago, represent the oldest known fossils of vascular plants. a. 1.5 billion b. 425 million c. 250 million d. 125 million e. 17 million 59. The mature sporophyte body form of a typical ____ has fronds growing from a rhizome, with sori on the lower surface or margins of some of the fronds. a. moss b. whisk fern c. fern d. club moss e. horsetail

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Chap 28_5e 60. Which geological time period of Earth’s history is commonly referred to as the Coal Age? a. Carboniferous b. Cretaceous c. Devonian d. Jurassic e. Permian 61. Leaves that are narrow and have a single vein are termed ____, and leaves that are broad and have multiple veins are termed ____. a. rhizomes; rhizoids b. rhizoids; megaphylls c. microphylls; rhizomes d. microphylls; megaphylls e. megaphylls; macrophylls 62. The sporophyte generation of plants begins after ____, when the resulting ____ grows into a multicellular, ____ organism. a. fertilization; zygote; haploid b. fertilization; zygote; diploid c. fertilization; gamete; haploid d. meiosis; gamete; haploid e. meiosis; gamete; diploid 63. Molecular studies point to the order Zygnematales, whose modern representatives include ____, as the sister clade of all land plants. a. Equisetum b. Plasmodium c. Marchantia d. Spirogyra e. Giardia 64. A moss spore develops into a young gametophyte called a(n) ____. a. gametangium b. antheridium c. protonema d. prothallus e. archegonium

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Chap 28_5e 65. Represented by only one living genus, Equisetum, ____ have leaves in whorls around a photosynthetic stem that is stiff and gritty because it is rich with silica. a. mosses b. whisk ferns c. ferns d. club mosses e. horsetails 66. A sorus is a cluster of ____. a. sporangia b. fronds c. strobili d. gametangia e. rhizomes 67. The synonym for land plants is ____ because all land plants produce a protected embryo during their reproductive cycle. a. tracheophyte b. embryophyte c. sporophyte d. gametophyte e. charophyte 68. Which mechanism is the least likely explanation for high chromosome numbers in ferns? a. dysploidy b. polyploidy c. increased independent assortment d. increased recombination rates e. homospory 69. Which of these features is found in both nonvascular and vascular plants? a. lignin b. roots c. cuticle d. xylem e. phloem

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Chap 28_5e 70. Which statement best describes fertilization in the moss life cycle? a. Pollen is blown by the wind to a female cone, where it forms a pollen tube that grows toward where the egg will form. b. Flagellated sperm swim in a film of water on the surface of the plant to reach an egg. c. Flagellated sperm are blown by the wind to a location near an egg, and then swim through plant fluids to reach the egg. d. Flagellated sperm swim through plant fluids to reach an egg. e. Flagellated sperm attach to the moist skin of certain animals and are transferred to the surface of the plant to reach an egg. 71. Lignified, tube-like structures that branch throughout the body of some plants, conducting water and solutes, are called ____. a. vascular tissues b. apical meristems c. root systems d. rhizomes e. shoot systems 72. Sperm cells form within a rounded structure called ____ in bryophytes and some other plants. a. antheridium b. stoma c. strobilus d. sporangium e. archegonium 73. Ferns are particularly useful for research on plant growth and development because of the ____. a. numerous, large apical cells on the edges of their fronds b. single, large apical cell on the tip of their fronds c. single, large apical cell at the tip of their apical meristems d. numerous, small apical cells at the base of their apical meristems e. single, small apical cell at the base of their apical meristems 74. Represented by only two living genera, Psilotum and Tmesipteris, ____ resemble the extinct Cooksonia. Having no true roots or leaves, these seedless vascular plants are essentially forking green stems. a. mosses b. whisk ferns c. ferns d. club mosses e. horsetails

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Chap 28_5e 75. Which statement best explains why modern seedless vascular plants are confined largely to wet or humid environments? a. They require external water for reproduction. b. They do not have true roots. c. They lack stomata. d. They have a dominant sporophyte generation. e. They do not have flowers or fruits. 76. Land plants form a ____ clade descended from a common ____ ancestor. a. polyphyletic; green algal b. polyphyletic; fungal c. monophyletic; green algal d. monophyletic; brown algal e. monophyletic; fungal 77. The phylum ____ contains about 6,000 known living species of nonvascular plants, including the genus Marchantia, whose members can reproduce asexually using gemmae. a. Hepatophyta b. Monilophyta c. Bryophyta d. Lycophyta e. Anthocerophyta 78. Land plants arose from a lineage of freshwater green algae in the phylum ____. a. Rhodophyta b. Charophyta c. Chlorarachniophyta d. Phaeophyta e. Chrysophyta 79. In vascular plants, the ____ generation is larger, more complex, and longer-lived than the ____ generation. a. haploid gametophyte; haploid sporophyte b. haploid gametophyte; diploid sporophyte c. diploid sporophyte; diploid gametophyte d. diploid sporophyte; haploid gametophyte e. haploid sporophyte; haploid gametophyte 80. A pollen grain is best described as a ____. a. female spore b. female gametophyte c. male gametophyte d. male sporophyte e. female sporophyte Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 28_5e

Answer the questions using the accompanying figure. Examine the overview of alternation of generations in plants. Match each letter with the part of the plant life cycle it represents.

Figure 28.1 (questions 82-85) a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G 81. gametes 82. zygote 83. spores 84. multicellular sporophyte 85. multicellular gametophyte

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Chap 28_5e Answer the questions using the accompanying figure. Examine the images of seedless plants and match each letter to the appropriate name.

Figure 28.2 (questions 82-85) a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G 86. horsetail 87. fern 88. liverwort 89. moss Match the plant reproductive structure to its corresponding description. a. male gametophyte b. female gametophyte c. sporangia d. archegonia e. sporophyte f. antheridia 90. capsules in which reproductive spores form 91. a pollen grain 92. zygote grows mitotically into a multicellular, diploid organism 93. structure in which eggs form and fertilization occurs 94. flask-shaped structures on bryophytes in which eggs form 95. rounded structures on bryophytes in which flagellated sperm form

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Chap 28_5e 96. Defend the argument that seedless vascular plants are among the most economically important plants that have ever lived.

97. Besides the presence of vascular tissue, what is the main importance of the plant traits that separate seedless vascular plants from nonvascular plants?

98. Explain the difference between homosporous and heterosporous plants.

99. What are the differences between dysploidy and polyploidy?

100. Provide evidence that supports the hypothesis that liverworts were the first land plants.

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Chap 28_5e Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. False 9. False 10. True 11. b 12. e 13. e 14. e 15. c 16. d 17. b 18. d 19. e 20. d 21. c 22. d 23. a 24. b 25. e 26. e

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Chap 28_5e 27. c 28. c 29. e 30. a 31. e 32. e 33. d 34. c 35. a 36. d 37. a 38. c 39. b 40. a 41. b 42. d 43. b 44. e 45. b 46. e 47. d 48. e 49. c 50. c 51. b 52. b 53. d 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 28_5e 55. e 56. c 57. d 58. b 59. c 60. a 61. d 62. b 63. d 64. c 65. e 66. a 67. b 68. a 69. c 70. b 71. a 72. a 73. c 74. b 75. a 76. c 77. a 78. b 79. d 80. c 81. e 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 28_5e 83. c 84. b 85. d 86. c 87. b 88. d 89. a 90. c 91. a 92. e 93. b 94. d 95. f 96. When leaves, branches, and other parts of seedless vascular plants fell to the ground in the swampy landscape of the Carboniferous period, they became buried in anaerobic sediments. Over geological time, these buried remains were compressed and modified, forming deposits of coal, oil, and natural gas that have been major global energy sources since the Industrial Revolution. 97. In vascular seedless plants, the presence of lignin provides mechanical support for vertical growth. In addition, the presence of apical meristems allows for a branching shoot system to develop. Also, roots, stems, and leaves provide for enhanced uptake and transport of nutrients as well as improved photosynthesis. Finally, the diploid phase of the life cycle became more dominant resulting in a larger, longer-lived sporophyte. 98. When a plant makes only one type of spore, it is said to be homosporous, meaning “same spore”. A gametophyte that develops from such a spore is bisexual because it can produce both sperm and eggs. The sperm have flagella and swim through liquid water in order to encounter female gametes. Other vascular plants are heterosporous. They produce two types of spores in two different types of sporangia, and those spores develop into small, sexually different gametophytes. In seed plants, the smaller spore type develops into a male gametophyte, a pollen grain. The larger one develops into a female gametophyte, in which eggs form and fertilization occurs. 99. Dysploidy is a change in the number of a single chromosome without a change in the overall number of genes. Polyploidy is a duplication in the whole genome (doubling the number of chromosomes). Both result in changes in chromosome number; however, dysploidy is rare and polyploidy is common. 100. Both molecular and fossil evidence support the hypothesis that liverworts were the first land plants. Mitochondrial gene sequence data show that liverworts lack several introns that are present in all other bryophytes and in vascular plants. A recent fossil discovery in Argentina, five morphologically distinct types of liverwort spores in rocks dated to 472 may suggest that even then, liverworts had been diversifying for millions of years.

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Chap 29_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Phytochromes are pigment proteins that allow plants to detect light. a. True b. False 2. Grasses, palms, and orchids are examples of eudicots. a. True b. False 3. Darwin referred to the evolutionary origin of angiosperms as an “abominable mystery,” because they seem to appear suddenly in the fossil record. a. True b. False 4. Conifer sporophytes are longer-lived, and anatomically and morphologically more complex than other gymnosperms. a. True b. False 5. All land plants have seeds, although many reproduce asexually. a. True b. False 6. The world’s oldest continuously standing tree is a giant sequoia. a. True b. False 7. Today, wild ginkgo trees are found only in warm-temperate forests of central China. a. True b. False 8. Gymnosperms are the most ecologically diverse plants on Earth. a. True b. False 9. All seed plants are homosporous. a. True b. False 10. Progymnosperms are a group of extinct seedless vascular plants. a. True b. False

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Chap 29_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. The ____ phylum has about 185 known living species of vascular, seed-bearing plants. Many of them look like palm trees, and some produce massive strobili, with male and female strobili found on separate plants. a. Cycadophyta b. Anthophyta c. Gnetophyta d. Coniferophyta e. Ginkgophyta 12. In seedless plants, ____ in each megasporangium produces ____ megaspores that are released to the environment when the mature megasporangium opens. a. mitosis; two b. meiosis; two c. meiosis; four d. meiosis; eight e. mitosis; four 13. In the pine life cycle, microspores are produced in ____ and develop into ____. a. microsporangia of pollen cones; pollen b. microsporangia of ovulate cones; ovules c. microsporangia of pollen cones; megaspores d. microsporangia of pollen cones; zygotes e. megasporangia of ovulate cones; eggs 14. Which taxon is not a member of the basal angiosperm group? a. Ginkgo biloba b. Nymphaeales c. Austrobaileyales d. Amborella trichopoda e. Magnoliales 15. One of the two main angiosperm clades, the ____, has about 60,000 species that are characterized by a single cotyledon and pollen grains with one groove; additionally, most have parallel-veined leaves. a. eudicots b. laurels c. monocots d. water lilies e. magnoliids

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Chap 29_5e 16. Seeds may remain dormant ____, sprouting only when external conditions such as temperature and available moisture favor the seedling’s growth. a. up to days b. up to weeks c. up to months d. up to months or years e. for months, years, or even millennia 17. In seed plants, the transfer of immature male gametophytes to female reproductive parts is a process called ____. a. meiosis b. pollination c. fertilization d. mitosis e. sporulation 18. The male gametophytes of seed plants consist of a few cells enclosed by a sturdy wall made mostly of the resistant polymer ____. a. sporopollenin b. xylan c. lignin d. cellulose e. pectin 19. Living members of ____ are often the dominant land plants in cool temperate zones. Among other products, they are important sources of lumber, paper pulp, resins, and turpentine. a. lycophytes b. ferns c. gymnosperms d. bryophytes e. angiosperms 20. The largest basal angiosperm group, ____, includes avocados and plants that are the sources of spices. a. Nymphaeales b. Austrobaileyales c. Magnoliales d. Chloranthales e. Amborella

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Chap 29_5e 21. To study the genome of the loblolly pine, Pinus taeda, researchers obtained DNA from ____ cells, thereby halving the amount of DNA for initial sequencing. a. haploid b. diploid c. triploid d. polyploid e. hexaploid 22. Various cycad tissues produce ____, which may help deter predatory insects. a. turpentine b. histamines c. salicylic acid d. alkaloids e. pheromones 23. The evolution of the ovule allowed seed plants to ____. a. coevolve with animal pollinators b. develop vascular tissue c. occupy freshwater, marine, and terrestrial habitats d. protect the small gametophyte e. rely on spores for reproduction 24. Situated in the center of the flower, the structure in which female gametophytes form is called the ____. a. petal b. carpel c. stamen d. anther e. sepal 25. Analysis of the nucleotide sequences of genes coding for phytochrome pigments suggest that the ancestors of angiosperms were adapted for survival in ____. a. freshwater aquatic environments b. sunny, xeric habitats c. shady forests d. habitats with very cold winters e. coastal marine waters

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Chap 29_5e 26. After pollination delivers sperm to an ovule and the egg is fertilized, the ovule develops into a ____ and the integument becomes the ____. a. seed; micropyle b. seed; seed coat c. micropyle; seed d. micropyle; seed coat e. seed coat; seed 27. Which trait is a characteristic of most eudicots? a. four or five floral parts, or multiples of four or five b. three furrows with pores on pollen grain c. vascular bundles organized as a ring in ground tissue d. branching fibrous root system e. two seed leaves of embryo inside the seed 28. Which genetic mechanism is most likely responsible for the evolutionary origin of new and complex plant structures, such as flowers? a. gene duplication b. asexual reproduction c. genes coding for flower development d. mutations in noncoding regions e. gene splicing 29. Which floral structure is considered a male reproductive organ? a. carpel b. petal c. stigma d. style e. stamen 30. Which structure is not a component of a carpel? a. anther b. stigma c. style d. ovary e. ovule 31. Which plant family includes cereal grains, such as wheat, corn, rice, and oats? a. grass family (Poaceae) b. pea family (Fabaceae) c. potato family (Solanaceae) d. rose family (Rosaceae) e. euphorb family (Euphorbiaceae) Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 29_5e 32. In seed plants, meiosis produces ____ megaspores, however ____ leaving a single functional megaspore to produce a ____ gametophyte. a. four; three disintegrate; male b. four; three disintegrate; female c. eight; seven disintegrate; female d. two; one disintegrates; male e. two; one disintegrates; female 33. Which group of plants has the smallest gametophytes? a. gymnosperms b. angiosperms c. progymnosperms d. seedless vascular plants e. seedless nonvascular plants 34. The ____ phylum consists of vascular, seed-bearing plants, including pines, spruces, firs, hemlocks, junipers, cypresses, and redwoods. Most of them are evergreens that form woody reproductive cones. a. Cycadophyta b. Anthophyta c. Gnetophyta d. Coniferophyta e. Ginkgophyta 35. The “naked” seeds of conifers develop ____. a. on scales of the ovulate cones b. on scales of pollen cones c. in microsporangia of pollen cones d. in archegonia of ovulate cones e. in antheridia of pollen cones 36. The showy leaflike parts of flowers with distinctive colors, patterns, and shapes that help attract pollinators are known as ____. a. sepals b. petals c. stamens d. filaments e. carpels

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Chap 29_5e 37. The ____ phylum contains one living vascular, seed-bearing plant species – a deciduous tree with fan-shaped leaves. It has separate male and female plants, and the males are often planted in cities because of their resistance to pollution, insects, and disease. a. Cycadophyta b. Anthophyta c. Gnetophyta d. Coniferophyta e. Ginkgophyta 38. The cycad lineage probably arose from ____. a. club mosses b. seed ferns c. whisk ferns d. ginkgos e. palms 39. The immature male gametophytes of angiosperms develop in ____ contained within ____. a. ovaries; carpels b. anthers; stigmas c. pollen grains; carpels d. pollen sacs; anthers e. stigmas; stamens 40. By 250 mya, the seed plants called ____ were our planet’s dominant flora. a. hepatophytes b. lycophytes c. bryophytes d. angiosperms e. gymnosperms 41. Which trait is a characteristic of most monocots? a. four or five floral parts, or multiples of four or five b. three furrows with pores on pollen grain c. vascular bundles organized as a ring in ground tissue d. branching fibrous root system e. two seed leaves of embryo inside the seed

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Chap 29_5e 42. The Mesozoic era was not only the age of the dinosaurs, but also the age of the ____ because they were the most dominant plants of that time. a. progymnosperms b. gymnosperms c. angiosperms d. eudicots e. monocots 43. Which evolutionary change was not one of the four primary milestones contributing to the evolution of the seed? a. the proliferation of flagellated sperm b. the emergence of sexually different spores c. the protection of female spores and gametophytes within the body of the sporophyte d. the trend toward reduced gametophytes e. the evolution of the ovule 44. Which plant family provides the majority of calories that humans consume? a. potato family (Solanaceae) b. euphorb family (Euphorbiaceae) c. pea family (Fabaceae) d. grass family (Poaceae) e. rose family (Rosaceae) 45. The buttery, edible flesh that encloses the large seed of an avocado is tissue of the ____. a. microspore b. ovule c. ovary d. cotyledon e. pollen 46. The original source of salicylic acid, the pain-relieving substance in aspirin, was ____. a. resin from conifers b. leaves from bamboo c. bark from willow trees d. fibers from flax plants e. seeds from yew trees 47. If you see a red flower with very little odor, it is likely pollinated by ____. a. flies b. birds c. bats or moths d. butterflies e. bees Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 29_5e 48. Angiosperms that originated as hybrids resulting from a cross between two closely related species are known as ____. a. paleopolyploids b. autopolyploids c. allopolyploids d. hexapolyploids e. tetrapolyploids 49. In pines, the mature male gametophyte is called the ____. a. flagellated sperm b. pollen cone c. pollen tube d. pollen grain e. pollination drop 50. Pollination in most cycads usually occurs when ____ transfer pollen from male plants to the developing gametophyte on female plants. a. beetles b. mosquitoes c. honeybees d. butterflies e. ants 51. Seed plants as a whole belong to a nontaxonomic grouping called the ____. a. angiosperms b. gnetophytes c. gymnosperms d. Spermatophyta e. tracheophytes 52. The oldest well-documented flowering plant fossils date to about ____ years ago. a. 1.5 billion b. 420 million c. 125 million d. 250 million e. 17 million 53. The ____ are the only land plants make true flowers and fruits. a. bryophytes b. seedless vascular plants c. gymnosperms d. angiosperms e. gymnosperms and angiosperms Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 29_5e 54. To date, ____ plant genomes have been partially or fully sequenced, which will open new doors for research. a. five b. ten c. several dozen d. several hundred e. several thousand 55. Most of the creamy flesh of a corn kernel is ____ tissue. a. pollen b. endosperm c. ovary d. carpel e. ovulec 56. Archaeopteris belongs to the now-extinct lineage of seedless vascular plants called ____, and is proposed to be the possible ancestor of gymnosperms. a. Charophyta b. Monilophyta c. Lycophyta d. proangiosperms e. progymnosperms 57. One advantage of angiosperm seeds is the presence of seed ____, a nutritive tissue produced during fertilization that nourishes the developing embryo. a. a coat b. endosperm c. ovule d. pollen sac e. ovary 58. Based on morphology and gene sequencing data, it appears that the closest living relative of the first flowering plants is ____. a. Magnolia grandiflora b. Illicium floridanum c. Nelumbo nucifera d. Archaefructus sinensis e. Amborella trichopoda

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Chap 29_5e 59. Which floral structure is a female reproductive part? a. anther b. pollen sac c. stigma d. stamen e. filament 60. Conifers are estimated to have genomes ranging from 18 to 35 ____ base pairs, whereas the human genome has approximately 3.3 billion base pairs. a. hundred b. thousand c. million d. billion e. trillion 61. Two of the oldest flowering plant fossils are known to belong to the genus ____, and are thought to have lived during the early ____ period. a. Archaefructus; Cretaceous b. Archaefructus; Carboniferous c. Amborella; Cretaceous d. Amborella; Carboniferous e. Eucalyptus; Cretaceous 62. About 80% of all living gymnosperm species belong to the phylum ____. a. Anthophyta b. Cycadophyta c. Ginkgophyta d. Gnetophyta e. Coniferophyta 63. If you see a yellow flower with "nectar guide" stripes and a strong, sweet odor, it is likely pollinated by ____. a. flies b. birds c. bats or moths d. butterflies e. bees 64. In heterosporous plants, megaspores form in ____ and give rise to ____. a. megasporangia; egg-producing female gametophytes b. megasporangia; sperm-producing male gametophytes c. microsporangia; egg-producing female gametophytes d. microsporangia; sperm-producing male gametophytes e. megasporangia; both egg-producing and sperm-producing gametophytes Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 29_5e 65. Which group of plants best represents the sister clade to angiosperms? a. Amborella b. Nymphaeales c. gymnosperms d. bryophytes e. charophytes 66. The ____ phylum has about 550 known living species of vascular, seed-bearing plants, the most among gymnosperms. Many of them have needlelike leaves with thick cuticles and sunken stomata, and are thus adapted to dry conditions. a. Cycadophyta b. Anthophyta c. Gnetophyta d. Coniferophyta e. Ginkgophyta 67. The ____ phylum has an estimated 350,000 known living species of vascular, seed-bearing plants, and is the dominant group of land plants today. a. Cycadophyta b. Anthophyta c. Gnetophyta d. Coniferophyta e. Ginkgophyta 68. An embryo sporophyte surrounded by nutritive tissue and a tough, protective outer coating makes up a(n) ____. a. pollen grain b. spore c. ovule d. seed e. strobilus 69. The immature male gametophyte of seed plants is called a(n) ____. a. sporopollenin b. ovule c. seed d. strobilus e. pollen grain

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Chap 29_5e 70. In the pine life cycle, the processes of pollination, fertilization, and seed formation typically take ____ to complete. a. a few days b. a few weeks c. a few months d. one year to five years e. six months to two years 71. Many angiosperm species ____ animal pollinators. a. compete with b. are poisonous to c. deter d. coevolved with e. avoid 72. When mature, the ovary is referred to as a(n) ____ that encloses the angiosperm seed. a. ovule b. endosperm c. fruit d. carpel e. inflorescence 73. In the life cycle of a flowering plant, a single megaspore undergoes cytokinesis producing a female gametophyte that consists of ____ cells. a. two b. three c. four d. seven e. eight 74. In pine trees, megaspores develop within a(n) ____. a. sporopollenin b. ovule c. seed d. pollen tube e. pollen grain 75. The only extant seed plants that have swimming sperm are the ____. a. cycads b. ginkgos c. conifers d. cycads and ginkgos e. cycads, ginkgos, and conifers Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 29_5e 76. In living seed plants, a megasporangium and its integument together form a(n) ____. a. seed b. pollen grain c. ovary d. mature ovule e. immature ovule 77. The ____ phylum has only about 70 living species of vascular, seed-bearing plants in three genera, including Welwitschia and Ephedra. Some species have a two-step fertilization process, similar to fertilization in angiosperms. a. Cycadophyta b. Anthophyta c. Gnetophyta d. Coniferophyta e. Ginkgophyta 78. In angiosperms, double fertilization produces a trinucleate cell that gives rise to a ____ endosperm and a ____ embryo. a. haploid; triploid b. triploid; haploid c. triploid; diploid d. diploid; triploid e. diploid; haploid 79. Apples, peaches, cherries, strawberries, and many other fruits all belong to the ____ family. a. grass b. rose c. potato d. euphorb e. pea 80. One of the two main angiosperm clades, the ____ has about 200,000 species. All members of this group have pollen grains with three grooves, and most have two cotyledons and net-veined leaves. a. eudicots b. laurels c. monocots d. water lilies e. magnoliids

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Chap 29_5e Match the definition to the corresponding term. a. pollen grain b. megaspore c. microspore d. cotyledon e. endosperm 81. an immature male gametophyte Match the definition to the corresponding term. a. pollen grain b. megaspore c. microspore d. cotyledon e. endosperm 82. nutritive tissue that nourishes the developing embryo Match the definition to the corresponding term. a. pollen grain b. megaspore c. microspore d. cotyledon e. endosperm 83. embryonic seed leaf Match the definition to the corresponding term. a. pollen grain b. megaspore c. microspore d. cotyledon e. endosperm 84. gives rise to egg-producing female gametophytes 85. gives rise to male gametophytes that produce sperm

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Chap 29_5e Answer the questions using the accompanying figure. Examine the parts of a flower. Match each letter with the floral part it represents.

Figure 29.1 (questions 76-85) a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G h. H i. I j. J 86. ovule 87. anther 88. stigma 89. ovary 90. filament 91. style 92. petal 93. sepal 94. stamen 95. carpel

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Chap 29_5e 96. Provide evidence that coevolution between plants and animals is probably more important in angiosperms than gymnosperms.

97. Support the argument that species in the grass family, Poaceae, are the most important seed plants today.

98. How is the seed of an angiosperm different than the seed of a gymnosperm?

99. Describe the major differences and similarities between gymnosperms and angiosperms.

100. A seed is often described as "a baby plant in a box with its lunch." Explain this statement using the appropriate terms for baby plant, box, and lunch.

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Chap 29_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. False 7. True 8. False 9. False 10. True 11. a 12. c 13. a 14. a 15. c 16. e 17. b 18. a 19. c 20. c 21. a 22. d 23. d 24. b 25. c 26. b

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Chap 29_5e 27. e 28. a 29. e 30. a 31. a 32. b 33. b 34. d 35. a 36. b 37. e 38. b 39. d 40. e 41. d 42. b 43. a 44. d 45. c 46. c 47. b 48. c 49. c 50. a 51. d 52. c 53. d 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 29_5e 55. b 56. e 57. b 58. e 59. c 60. d 61. a 62. e 63. e 64. a 65. c 66. d 67. b 68. d 69. e 70. e 71. d 72. c 73. d 74. b 75. d 76. e 77. c 78. c 79. b 80. a 81. a 82. e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 29_5e 83. d 84. b 85. c 86. h 87. b 88. e 89. g 90. c 91. f 92. j 93. d 94. a 95. i 96. The pollen of gymnosperms is dispersed by wind. However, the pollen of many angiosperms is dispersed by animals. Therefore, angiosperms coevolved with pollinators. The fact that angiosperms have distinctive flowers, scents, and sugary nectar to attract and reward animals, and that plant-pollinator relationships are often very specific, is evidence that coevolution is more important in angiosperms than gymnosperms. 97. Today, species in the grass family arguably are the most important seed plants because they produce cereal grains— wheat, corn, rice, oats, sorghum, and barley—that provide the majority of calories humans consume. They and other domesticated grasses also nourish people indirectly as feed for livestock and poultry. Sugarcane is a grass that provides 80% of the global sugar supply. Bamboos are fast-growing grasses used for everything from food and building materials to musical instruments. 98. The angiosperm seed is considered enclosed. The ovary surrounds and protects the ovules, and later, when the ovary matures into a fruit, it protects the seeds. The gymnosperm seed is considered naked. The seed is not surrounded by the tissue of a fruit. 99. Gymnosperms and angiosperms both produce seeds, specialized structures for protecting the developing sporophyte embryo from drying out and other dangers. Gymnosperms and angiosperms also produce gametophytes that develop within protective tissues in the sporophyte. Gymnosperms and angiosperms make pollen grains, specialized male gametophytes that are protected from drying out and that do not need external water to reach an egg. All of these adaptations allow gymnosperms and angiosperms to generally live in dry conditions. Angiosperms differ significantly from gymnosperms in many ways. Angiosperms have enhanced xylem and phloem that provide more efficient transport of water and nutrients. Angiosperms have enhanced nutrition for embryos, with double fertilization that produces a unique triploid endosperm to nourish the embryo. They have flowers that often attract animal pollinators, providing more efficient means for pollination. Also, angiosperms have ovaries, tissues that shelter the ovule from desiccation and attack. Ovaries typically develop into fruits that can help protect seeds as well as aid in seed dispersal Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 29_5e 100. A seed has a "baby plant" called an embryo, which is the developing sporophyte. It is surrounded by its "lunch," food supplies in the form of nutritive tissue such as endosperm. The embryo and the nutritive tissue are in a "box," hardened tissue called a seed coat that protects the embryo from drying out.

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Chap 30_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Chytrids are the only fungi that produce spores propelled by flagella. a. True b. False 2. Fungi were present on land at least 500 million years ago. a. True b. False 3. The mushroom structure of a fungus usually represents a small fraction of the organism’s total mass. a. True b. False 4. Ramalina lichens are damaged by nitrates. a. True b. False 5. Parasitism is a type of symbiotic association. a. True b. False 6. In fungi, both asexual and sexual spores are haploid, and both can germinate into diploid individuals. a. True b. False 7. Most fungi are aquatic. a. True b. False 8. A mycobiont, the fungal partner in a lichen, makes up about 10% of the vegetative body resulting from an association between a fungus and a photosynthetic partner. a. True b. False 9. The carbon source for saprobes is dead organic material. a. True b. False 10. Endophytic fungi were originally discovered in pine trees. a. True b. False

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Chap 30_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. The dikaryotic stage of a fungal life cycle is described as ____. a. n b. n + n c. 2n + 2n d. 2n e. 2n + n 12. Mating types in fungi are generally termed ____. a. sperm and eggs b. a and b c. male and female d. plus and minus e. fungi do not have specific mating types 13. Where does karyogamy occur in basidiomycetes? a. basidia b. conidiophores c. sporangia d. asci e. zygospores 14. Organisms traditionally called mushrooms, as well as shelf fungi, coral fungi, bird's nest fungi, stinkhorns, and puffballs, are all members of which fungal phylum? a. Mucoromycota b. Basidiomycota c. Chytridiomycota d. Zoopagomycota e. Ascomycota 15. All known members of the phylum ____ form mutualistic associations with plant roots. a. Mucoromycota b. Basidiomycota c. Chytridiomycota d. Zoopagomycota e. Ascomycota

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Chap 30_5e 16. You discover a fungus that makes both sexual and asexual spores. The sexual spores are made in groups of eight within a structure that bursts open to release the spores. The structures containing sexual spores are found within a multicellular structure that is about 5 inches tall. Into which group should you classify this fungus? a. Mucoromycota b. Basidiomycota c. Chytridiomycota d. Zoopagomycota e. Ascomycota 17. Reproduction in mucoromycetes is typically ____ via spores that form ____. a. sexual; in sporangia b. asexual; at the tips of hyphae c. sexual; at the tips of hyphae d. asexual; in sporangia e. asexual; both in sporangia and at the tips of hyphae 18. The toxin found in Amanita phalloides has deadly effects on humans because it inhibits ____. a. DNA replication b. RNA polymerase c. peptide bond formation d. muscle contraction e. active transport 19. Worldwide, decay of organic matter is important to the global carbon cycle because it ____ tens of billions of tons of carbon dioxide each year. a. removes from the atmosphere b. prevents the planet from losing c. returns to the atmosphere d. prevents plants from having access to e. releases to space 20. Members of which fungal phylum produce motile spores? a. Mucoromycota b. Basidiomycota c. Chytridiomycota d. Zoopagomycota e. Ascomycota

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Chap 30_5e 21. You discover a fungus that makes mainly asexual spores, but that occasionally makes sexual spores. When produced, the sexual spores come out of a thickened, hardened structure. A close examination of hyphae of this fungus reveals no septa. Into which group should you classify this fungus? a. Microsporidia b. Basidiomycota c. Chytridiomycota d. Zoopagomycota e. Ascomycota 22. Worldwide, ____ are often used as pollution-monitoring devices. a. chytrids b. mycorrhizae c. lichens d. yeast e. mushrooms 23. The first fungi were most likely ____. a. airborne b. terrestrial c. arboreal d. aquatic e. amphibious 24. The main benefit to a plant from a mycorrhizal association is ____. a. enhanced water uptake b. removal of excess carbohydrates c. enhanced flow of carbohydrates to the roots d. enhanced mineral ion uptake e. enhanced protection of roots from bacterial infections 25. The black bread mold Rhizopus stolonifer and dung-infesting fungi of the genus Pilobolus are members of which fungal phylum? a. Mucoromycota b. Basidiomycota c. Chytridiomycota d. Zoopagomycota e. Ascomycota

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Chap 30_5e 26. The substance that typically provides rigidity to fungal cell walls, and is also found in the external skeletons of insects and other arthropods, is called ____. a. lignin b. cellulose c. starch d. collagen e. chitin 27. In a mycorrhizal association, the fungus benefits mainly by ____. a. absorbing water from the plant b. using the plant roots as a growth surface c. absorbing mineral ions from the plant d. providing water to the plant e. absorbing carbohydrates from the plant 28. Creation of a special, resistant zygospore during sexual reproduction is characteristic of members of which fungal phylum? a. Microsporidia b. Basidiomycota c. Chytridiomycota d. Zoopagomycota e. Ascomycota 29. Experiments have shown that increased nitrogen may affect the community composition of ____ fungi. a. mycorrhizal fungi alone b. club fungi alone c. saprobic fungi alone d. both mycorrhizal and club e. both mycorrhizal and saprobic 30. The grouping "conidial fungi," also known as "imperfect fungi" or deuteromycetes, is a convenience grouping for fungi that are not classified in other groups, because the conidial fungi ____. a. have a dikaryotic phase in their life cycle b. are unicellular c. have no known sexual phase d. have a haploid phase in their life cycle e. lack a cell wall

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Chap 30_5e 31. You discover an aquatic fungus that makes spores that use flagella to swim. Into which group should you classify this fungus? a. Mucoromycota b. Basidiomycota c. Chytridiomycota d. Zoopagomycota e. Ascomycota 32. Organisms of significant value to humans from the ____ phylum include truffles and morels. a. Mucoromycota b. Basidiomycota c. Chytridiomycota d. Zoopagomycota e. Ascomycota 33. Based on molecular evidence, fungi were present on land at least ____ years ago. a. 1 billion b. 500 million c. 250 million d. 125 million e. 10 million 34. Which fungal phylum has the fewest known living species, even though they collectively make up roughly half of the fungi in the soil? a. Mucoromycota b. Basidiomycota c. Chytridiomycota d. Zoopagomycota e. Ascomycota 35. Members of which fungal phylum are also called club fungi? a. Mucoromycota b. Basidiomycota c. Chytridiomycota d. Zoopagomycota e. Ascomycota 36. The study of fungi is called ____. a. ecology b. botany c. mycology d. microbiology e. parasitology Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 30_5e 37. Members of which fungal phylum are also called sac fungi? a. Mucoromycota b. Basidiomycota c. Chytridiomycota d. Zoopagomycota e. Ascomycota 38. The process in fungi that allows nutrients to flow from food-absorbing parts of the fungal body to other, nonabsorptive, parts is referred to as ____. a. osmosis b. karyogamy c. cytoplasmic streaming d. plasmogamy e. mutual symbiosis 39. Which fungal phylum has the most known living species? a. Mucoromycota b. Basidiomycota c. Chytridiomycota d. Zoopagomycota e. Ascomycota 40. Members of which fungal phylum form associations with approximately 90% of land plants by forming mycorrhizae with them? a. Mucoromycota b. Basidiomycota c. Chytridiomycota d. Zoopagomycota e. Ascomycota 41. Old man's beard (Usnea trichodea) and yellow Evernia lichens are sensitive to elevated levels of ____. a. sulfur dioxide b. nitrogen oxides c. nitrate d. sunlight e. fluoride salts

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Chap 30_5e 42. In eastern Oregon, the mycelium of a single individual, Armillaria ostoyae, a member of the fungal phylum ____, covers an area equivalent to 1,665 football fields (nearly 6000 m across). a. Mucoromycota b. Basidiomycota c. Chytridiomycota d. Zoopagomycota e. Ascomycota 43. Most chytrids are ____. a. saprobes in soil b. parasites of plants c. symbiotic partners of cattle d. parasites of animals e. aquatic 44. The tough, pliable body of a lichen is called a(n) ____. a. soredium b. arbuscule c. thallus d. sporangium e. haustorium 45. Asexually produced spores will result in offspring that ____. a. have no mating type b. are genetically distinct from the parent fungus c. are clones of the parent fungus d. have a different mating type from the parent fungus e. are unable to reproduce 46. Production of sexual spores in ascomycetes occurs in ____. a. basidia b. conidiophores c. sporangia d. asci e. zygospores 47. Multicellular fungi grow as branching filaments called ____. a. mycorrhizae b. conidia c. asci d. hyphae e. basidia Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 30_5e 48. Fungi generally digest large organic molecules ____. a. in special compartments called arbuscules b. within feeding hyphae c. in visible mushrooms d. in special compartments called haustoria e. outside of their cells 49. Having aseptate hyphae, members of the phylum ____ are described as coenocytic since they have numerous nuclei in a common cytoplasm. a. Mucoromycota b. Basidiomycota c. Chytridiomycota d. Microsporidia e. Ascomycota 50. The fusion of the cytoplasms of two genetically different cells is known as ____. a. osmosis b. karyogamy c. cytoplasmic streaming d. plasmogamy e. mutual symbiosis 51. Where does karyogamy occur in ascomycetes? a. basidia b. conidiophores c. sporangia d. asci e. zygospores 52. Single-celled parasites known as ____ infect insects, fish, and humans (especially those with compromised immune systems). a. amoebae b. red algae c. microsporidia d. dinoflagellates e. apicomplexans 53. Production of sexual spores in basidiomycetes occurs on ____. a. basidia b. conidiophores c. sporangia d. asci e. zygospores Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 30_5e 54. Traditionally, classification of fungi has been based on ____. a. DNA sequences b. body type c. mode of feeding d. whether the fungus is a saprobe, parasite, or in a mutual symbiosis e. structures that release sexual spores 55. You discover a fungus that is associated with plant roots, with hyphae that actually penetrate the root cells and produce tree-like structures within the root cells. Into which group should you classify this fungus? a. Mucoromycota b. Basidiomycota c. Chytridiomycota d. Zoopagomycota e. Ascomycota 56. A mutualistic symbiosis in which fungal hyphae penetrate plant root cells is called a(n) ____. a. rhizobium b. lichen c. arbuscule d. mycorrhiza e. haustorium 57. Pathogenic members of which fungal phylum are responsible for Dutch elm disease and athlete's foot? a. Mucoromycota b. Basidiomycota c. Chytridiomycota d. Zoopagomycota e. Ascomycota 58. Where does karyogamy occur in zygomycetes? a. basidia b. conidiophores c. sporangia d. asci e. zygospores 59. Yeast are ____. a. single-celled fungi b. multicellular plants c. single-celled plants d. single-celled protists e. multicellular fungi Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 30_5e 60. Molecular relationships and other studies have allowed for many conidial fungi to be reclassified into a fungal phylum. Most of these reclassified conidial fungi have turned out to belong to ____. a. Mucoromycota b. Basidiomycota c. Chytridiomycota d. Zoopagomycota e. Ascomycota 61. Mature fungal spores are ____. a. always haploid b. always diploid c. always dikaryotic d. either diploid or dikaryotic e. either haploid or diploid 62. The general term for a state in which two or more species live together in close association is ____. a. commensalism b. parasitism c. mutualism d. predation e. symbiosis 63. Production of asexual spores in ascomycetes often occurs on ____. a. basidia b. conidiophores c. sporangia d. asci e. zygospores 64. Some members of the ____ phylum can trap small worms, which are then digested. a. Mucoromycota b. Basidiomycota c. Chytridiomycota d. Zoopagomycota e. Ascomycota 65. Before examining a fungal cell under a microscope, you are told that it is dikaryotic. Given that, you should expect the cell to have two ____. a. complete sets of chromosomes b. diploid nuclei c. hyphae d. haploid nuclei e. diploid nuclei and two hyphae Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 30_5e 66. All fungi can reproduce via ____. a. asci b. pollen c. spores d. conidia e. basidia 67. The chytrid Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis is responsible for a disease that ____. a. is sexually transmitted in humans b. has wiped out many species of frogs c. infects wheat, rye, and other grain crops d. is killing trees in temperate forests e. kills millions of humans each year 68. A mycelium is best defined as a(n) ____. a. mushroom b. mass of hyphae c. association between a fungus and a plant root d. reproductive structure of a fungus e. fungal cell 69. The fusion of the nuclei in a dikaryotic cell is called ____. a. osmosis b. karyogamy c. mutualism d. plasmogamy e. symbiosis 70. Recent molecular analyses of Rozella allomycis suggest that the phylum ____ is the earliest-diverging clade of fungi. a. Mucoromycota b. Ascomycota c. Cryptomycota d. Chytridiomycota e. Zoopagomycota

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Chap 30_5e 71. Your favorite tree is dying, and you find that there is a fungal infection on its leaves. If you were to look at the cells of the infected leaves of your tree, which structure(s) would you expect to find? a. mycorrhizae b. arbuscules c. haustoria d. both mycorrhizae and arbuscules e. both mycorrhizae and haustoria 72. In a lichen, the photosynthetic partner, or photobiont, usually receives ____. a. nutrients b. protection from herbivory c. aid in sexual reproduction d. enhanced dispersal of offspring e. shelter from radiation and desiccation 73. A cell cluster with both algal and hyphal cells that is used for asexual reproduction in lichens is called a(n) ____. a. soredium b. arbuscule c. thallus d. sporangium e. haustorium 74. You discover a fungus that only makes sexual spores (no asexual spores). The spores are made in groups of four on the tips of club-shaped structures. Into which group should you classify this fungus? a. Mucoromycota b. Basidiomycota c. Chytridiomycota d. Zoopagomycota e. Ascomycota 75. The ____ hypothesis predicts that ecosystem functions will be maintained more reliably in natural communities when multiple species perform a given ecological function but differ in their responses to environmental changes. a. scientific redundancy b. ecosystem function c. biological insurance d. natural community e. fungal dominance

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Chap 30_5e 76. In a lichen, the fungal partner, or mycobiont, receives ____. a. nutrients b. protection from herbivory c. aid in sexual reproduction d. enhanced dispersal of offspring e. shelter from radiation and desiccation 77. A basidiocarp is the ____ of a basidiomycete. a. feeding stage b. asexual sporangium c. reproductive body d. infecting vessel e. haploid life cycle stage 78. Fungal ____ live within leaves or other plant tissues, appearing to form a mutually beneficial symbiotic association. a. haustoria b. endophytes c. ectophytes d. mycorrhizae e. mycobionts 79. A single vegetative body that contains both a fungus and a green alga is called a(n) ____. a. ectomycorrhizal b. lichen c. arbuscule d. endomycorrhiza e. haustorium 80. The fly agaric mushroom (Amanita muscaria) and the death cap mushroom (Amanita phalloides) are members of which fungal phylum? a. Mucoromycota b. Basidiomycota c. Chytridiomycota d. Zoopagomycota e. Ascomycota

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Chap 30_5e Match the term with its corresponding definition. a. conidia b. plasmogamy c. mold d. karyogamy 81. asexual stage of many multicellular fungi 82. asexual spores produced by many ascomycetes and some basidiomycetes 83. second phase of fertilization in which the nuclei in the dikaryotic cell fuse to make a 2n zygote nucleus 84. initial sexual stage in which the cytoplasms of two mating types fuse Answer the questions using the accompanying figure. Examine the fungal hyphae structures. Match each letter with the form or part represents.

Figure 30.1 (questions 81-85) a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 85. septate hypha 86. cell walls 87. nuclei 88. coenocytic hypha 89. septa

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Chap 30_5e Match the fungal phylum most closely associated with each description. a. Mucoromycota b. Basidiomycota c. Chytridiomycota d. Zoopagomycota e. Ascomycota f. Cryptomycota 90. possess aseptate hyphae; many are saprobes that feed on plant detritus in soil 91. one to several cells; motile spores propelled by flagella 92. specialized to form mycorrhizal associations with plant roots 93. single-celled, sporelike parasites; phylogenetic status uncertain 94. include the mushroom-forming species, among others; possess a prominent fruiting body 95. commonly referred to as sac fungi 96. Why is the term “conidial fungi” confusing?

97. What is the major difference between animals and fungi in how they obtain nutrients?

98. Explain the difference between plasmogamy and karyogamy.

99. Describe the major roles of fungi that affect humans and their environment.

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Chap 30_5e 100. What are the different ways in which species of Penicillium are important to humans?

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Chap 30_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. False 7. False 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. b 12. d 13. a 14. b 15. a 16. e 17. b 18. b 19. c 20. c 21. d 22. c 23. d 24. d 25. a 26. e

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Chap 30_5e 27. e 28. d 29. e 30. c 31. c 32. e 33. b 34. a 35. b 36. c 37. e 38. c 39. e 40. a 41. a 42. b 43. e 44. c 45. c 46. d 47. d 48. e 49. a 50. d 51. d 52. c 53. a 54. e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 30_5e 55. a 56. d 57. e 58. e 59. a 60. e 61. a 62. e 63. b 64. e 65. d 66. c 67. b 68. b 69. b 70. c 71. c 72. e 73. a 74. b 75. c 76. a 77. c 78. b 79. b 80. b 81. c 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 30_5e 83. d 84. b 85. a 86. e 87. c 88. b 89. d 90. d 91. c 92. a 93. f 94. b 95. e 96. Conidial is not a true taxonomic classification. It refers to: 1) the formation of conidia in several phyla of fungi as part of their asexual reproductive cycle and 2) to fungi that have yet to be formally classified because no sexual reproductive stage has been observed. 97. Fungi are absorptive heterotrophs and animals are ingestive heterotrophs. Fungi obtain nutrients by extracellular digestion. They are not mobile, and they lack mouths or appendages for capturing and handling food items. 98. Plasmogamy is the fusion of two cells so they share a common cytoplasm but keep the two original nuclei separate. It results in a cell that has two distinct nuclei, also called a dikaryon, with ploidy of n + n. Karyogamy is the fusion of the two nuclei; when this occurs, the cell ceases being an n + n dikaryon and instead becomes a true 2n diploid cell. 99. Fungi have many effects on humans and their environment. First, along with bacteria, fungi are the primary decomposers on Earth. Decomposers provide vital recycling of carbon and other nutrients; without such recycling, the planet would quickly face a nutrient crisis as carbon and other nutrients became locked up in leaf litter and other cast-off organic matter. Second, fungi are the cause of many diseases. They are the greatest cause of plant diseases, and many diseases in animals (including humans) are caused by fungi. Third, fungi provide extremely important direct benefits to about 90% f plants via mycorrhizae. Fourth, fungi are part of lichens, which begin the process of making soils from bare rocks and which are the primary producers in some harsh environments like the arctic tundra. Finally, fungi are used by humans for such things as baking, making cheeses, making alcoholic beverages, making antibiotics, and as model organisms for studies of molecular biology and genetic engineering in eukaryotes. 100. Some species of Penicillium are the source of antibiotics, and therefore are important in medicine. Some species of Penicillium produce the aroma and distinctive flavor in some cheeses, and therefore are important in the food industry.

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Chap 31_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. The two phyla of soft-bodied organisms, Cnidaria and Ctenophora, have bilateral symmetry and tissues. a. True b. False 2. Sponges have been abundant since the Cambrian period, especially in shallow coastal areas. a. True b. False 3. The molting process exhibited in animals such as nematodes and arthropods is referred to as ecdysis. a. True b. False 4. Most biologists now agree that the common ancestor of all animals was probably a eumetazoan. a. True b. False 5. Many arthropods are equipped with a highly organized central nervous system. a. True b. False 6. All animals are eukaryotic, multicellular organisms with cell walls surrounding their cells. a. True b. False 7. Most mollusks have a closed circulatory system in which hemolymph is confined within the walls of hearts and vessels. a. True b. False 8. Ctenophores capture their food with feeding tentacles. a. True b. False 9. Most Hydrozoan polyps form sessile colonies that develop asexually from one individual. a. True b. False 10. The protostomes include most invertebrate phyla. a. True b. False

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Chap 31_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Which animal taxon is named for the cuticle or external skeleton that its members secrete and periodically molt? a. Deuterostomia b. Ecdysozoa c. Reptilia d. Lophotrochozoa e. Protostomia 12. An insect whose larval and adult forms occupy different habitats and consume different food probably undergoes ____ metamorphosis. a. no b. incomplete c. complete d. pupal e. instar 13. Members of the phyla Ectoprocta, Brachiopoda, and Phoronida all possess a lophophore, which is a(n) ____. a. cluster of pores along the aboral surface, used for expelling wastes from the digestive tract b. hard shell made of calcium carbonate c. outpocket of the digestive tract, where metabolic wastes are processed before emptying into the digestive tract for expulsion d. circular fold with one or two rows of hollow, ciliated tentacles e. extra body cavity surrounding the digestive tract filled with muscles used for locomotion 14. Found mostly in freshwater, members of the ____ Lophotrochozoan phylum have a wheel-like, ciliated foodgathering organ around their head called a corona, and some reproduce by parthenogenesis. a. Rotifera b. Mollusca c. Platyhelminthes d. Annelida e. Nemertea 15. In sponges, spicules are ____. a. fibrous skeletal proteins b. specialized digestive cells c. complicated pore openings and passageways d. needlelike skeletal structures made up of silica or calcium carbonate e. feeding cells with a flagellum surrounded by a collar

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Chap 31_5e 16. Members of the ____ ("jointed feet") Ecdysozoan phylum have a segmented body encased in a rigid exoskeleton made of chitin plus other materials. a. Arthropoda b. Onychophora c. Nemertea d. Annelida e. Nematoda 17. Paired, fleshy extensions of the body wall in bristle worms that are used for locomotion and gas exchange are called ____. a. metanephridia b. parapodia c. septa d. clitella e. setae 18. Members of the ____ Lophotrochozoan phylum have highly segmented bodies, with many repeating units that are usually separated by transverse partitions called septa. a. Rotifera b. Mollusca c. Platyhelminthes d. Annelida e. Nemertea 19. The beating flagellae of ____ maintain a constant flow of water through sponges. a. amoeboid cells b. choanocytes c. sperm d. porocytes e. pinacoderm 20. Animals that lack a body cavity to separate the gut from the muscles of the body wall are referred to as ____. a. pseudocoelomates b. mesenteries c. acoelomates d. indeterminates e. coelomates

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Chap 31_5e 21. The members of the ____ subphylum have a three-part body plan: a head, thorax, and abdomen. a. Myriapoda b. Trilobita c. Chelicerata d. Hexapoda e. Crustacea 22. Members of the ____ lineage, including octopuses, squids, and nautiluses, have a fused head-foot body with the "foot" modified into a set of arms and tentacles. a. Cephalopoda b. Polyplacophora c. Bivalvia d. Gastropoda e. Scaphopoda 23. Members of the ____ lineage, known as leeches, are mostly freshwater parasites, are dorsoventrally flattened, and do not have septa. a. Hirudinea b. Polychaeta c. Monogenoidea d. Cestoda e. Oligochaeta 24. In most eumetazoans, the innermost tissue layer during development is the ____. a. mesoderm b. epiderm c. mesoglea d. endoderm e. ectoderm 25. Chitin-reinforced bristles that protrude outward from the body wall and are used by most segmented worms to anchor themselves against a substrate are called ____. a. metanephridia b. parapodia c. septa d. clitella e. setae

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Chap 31_5e 26. Found mostly in marine environments, members of the ____ Lophotrochozoan phylum have a muscular, mucuscovered proboscis that they can turn inside out to capture prey. a. Rotifera b. Mollusca c. Platyhelminthes d. Annelida e. Nemertea 27. Members of the ____ subphylum, including spiders, ticks, mites, scorpions, and horseshoe crabs, have fanglike appendages used for biting prey and pedipalps used as grasping organs, sensory organs, or walking legs. a. Myriapoda b. Trilobita c. Chelicerata d. Hexapoda e. Crustacea 28. Members of the ____ flatworm lineage are parasites of vertebrates, characterized by modified heads for attaching to the intestinal wall of hosts, and a series of reproductive units called proglottids. a. Trematoda b. Turbellaria c. Polychaeta d. Cestoda e. Hirudinea 29. Found mostly in marine environments, members of the ____ flatworm lineage are free-living, and acquire food with a muscular pharynx; most are hermaphroditic. a. Trematoda b. Turbellaria c. Polychaeta d. Cestoda e. Hirudinea 30. The gut develops from the ____in most animal embryos. a. schizocoelom b. mesoglea c. archenteron d. enterocoelom e. blastopore

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Chap 31_5e 31. Adult members of the ____ Cnidarian lineage, including jellyfishes, are predominately medusae and are not active swimmers. a. Hydrozoa b. Scyphozoa c. Trematoda d. Cubozoa e. Anthozoa 32. Animals are ____ organisms, and their cells ____ cell walls. a. all prokaryotic; lack b. all eukaryotic; have c. either prokaryotic or eukaryotic; have d. all eukaryotic; lack e. either prokaryotic or eukaryotic; lack 33. Members of the ____ lineage have a pair of hinged shells that can be closed by contraction of one or two adductor muscles. a. Cephalopoda b. Polyplacophora c. Bivalvia d. Gastropoda e. Scaphopoda 34. Asymmetry, choanocytes, filter feeding, osculum, and spicules are all terms associated with which phylum? a. Nematoda b. Ctenophora c. Nemertea d. Porifera e. Cnidaria 35. Many sponges are hermaphroditic, which means that ____. a. both males and females are filter feeders b. both males and females produce sperm c. a single individual produces both sperm and eggs d. only males have flagellae e. both males and females produce gemmules 36. Comparisons of genetic information from various invertebrate groups have ____. a. confirmed nearly all classifications that were based on phenotypic resemblances b. provided a complete and final picture of animal phylogeny c. led to a decision to forgo formal classification of animals d. led to a reshuffling of the classification of animals that is still being refined e. confirmed that some invertebrates should be classified as vertebrates Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 31_5e 37. Members of the ____ subphylum are now all extinct, but they were extremely numerous in shallow Paleozoic seas. Most of them were dorsoventrally flattened and heavily armored, with two deep longitudinal grooves that gave their body a three-lobed appearance. a. Myriapoda b. Trilobita c. Chelicerata d. Hexapoda e. Crustacea 38. Molecular sequence analysis has revealed that Crustacea is paraphyletic, because it includes an ancestor but not all of its descendants; the descendants not included in this clade are the ____. a. trilobites b. myriapods c. hexapods d. annelids e. chelicerates 39. Most contemporary animal lineages first appeared between 530 and 520 million years ago, the time period referred to as the ____ explosion. a. Silurian b. Cretaceous c. Cambrian d. Permian e. Jurassic 40. In sponges, spicules are secreted by ____. a. amoeboid cells b. choanocytes c. sperm cells d. porocytes e. pinacoderm 41. Members of the ____ phylum have radial symmetry, nematocysts, and polyp and/or medusa body forms as adults. a. Nematoda b. Cnidaria c. Porifera d. Rotifera e. Ctenophora

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Chap 31_5e 42. In most protostomes, the ____ is the developmental origin of the body cavity between the gut and muscles of the body wall. a. schizocoelom b. mesoglea c. archenteron d. enterocoelom e. blastopore 43. Members of the ____ lineage, including slugs and snails, may have a shell, and most undergo torsion during development. a. Cephalopoda b. Polyplacophora c. Bivalvia d. Gastropoda e. Scaphopoda 44. A Malpighian tubule is a(n) ____. a. rasping tongue with chitinous teeth b. muscular sac used for extending tube feet in echinoderms c. filamentous projection of the mantle d. specialized tube in some arthropods used for waste processing e. abdominal appendage in some arthropods that secretes silk 45. Ringlike patterns on an earthworm and "six-pack abs" in humans are evidence of ____ in an animal's body plan. a. cephalization b. segmentation c. radial symmetry d. mesenteries e. cleavage 46. In deuterostomes, early embryos undergo ____ cleavage. a. spiral, indeterminate b. radial, indeterminate c. spiral, determinate d. radial, determinate e. radial, followed by spiral 47. More than half of the known animal species comprise the ____ Ecdysozoan phylum. a. Arthropoda b. Onychophora c. Nemertea d. Annelida e. Nematoda Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 31_5e 48. The members of the ____ Cnidarian lineage exist only as polyps as adults, and most build calcium carbonate exoskeletons and have mutualistic relationships with photosynthetic protists. a. Hydrozoa b. Scyphozoa c. Trematoda d. Cubozoa e. Anthozoa 49. Which phylum is a member of the Radiata clade? a. Nemertea b. Porifera c. Rotifera d. Ctenophora e. Echinodermata 50. Members of the ____ subphylum, including shrimp, lobsters, and crabs, generally have five pairs of appendages on their heads: two pairs of antennae and three pairs of mouthparts, including mandibles. a. Myriapoda b. Trilobita c. Chelicerata d. Hexapoda e. Crustacea 51. Paired excretory organs found in most body segments of segmented worms are called ____. a. metanephridia b. parapodia c. septa d. clitella e. setae 52. Like other members of their phylum, jellyfishes have specialized stinging cells called ____ as part of their epidermis, which they use to paralyze small prey. a. choanocytes b. polyps c. cnidocytes d. flame cells e. tentacles

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Chap 31_5e 53. Which embryonic cell layer develops into the lining of the gut in most eumetazoans? a. mesoderm b. epiderm c. mesoglea d. endoderm e. ectoderm 54. Species in the ____ Lophotrochozoan phylum have a body divided into three regions: visceral mass, head-foot, and mantle. a. Rotifera b. Mollusca c. Platyhelminthes d. Annelida e. Nemertea 55. Members of the ____ lineage are highly active, have a closed circulatory system, and a high oxygen requirement. a. Cephalopoda b. Polyplacophora c. Bivalvia d. Gastropoda e. Scaphopoda 56. Members of the ____ Cnidarian lineage exist primarily as cube-shaped medusae, are active swimmers, and produce one of the deadliest toxins made by animals. a. Hydrozoa b. Scyphozoa c. Trematoda d. Cubozoa e. Anthozoa 57. In most eumetazoans, the muscles of the body wall are derived mainly from which embryonic cell layer? a. mesoderm b. epiderm c. mesoglea d. endoderm e. ectoderm

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Chap 31_5e 58. Members of the ____ Ecdysozoan phylum include insects, spiders, crustaceans, millipedes, and centipedes. a. Arthropoda b. Onychophora c. Nemertea d. Annelida e. Nematoda 59. The ____Lophotrochozoan phylum contains the most species, with about 100,000 living species described. a. Rotifera b. Mollusca c. Platyhelminthes d. Annelida e. Nemertea 60. In most eumetazoans, the nervous system is derived mainly from which embryonic cell layer? a. mesoderm b. epiderm c. mesoglea d. endoderm e. ectoderm 61. Members of the____ phylum have radial symmetry, and use their two tentacles to capture prey. They have eight longitudinal plates of cilia that they use for movement, making them the largest animals to use cilia as their primary means of locomotion. a. Nematoda b. Cnidaria c. Porifera d. Rotifera e. Ctenophora 62. Only 180 living species of velvet worms, characterized by jaws, an open circulatory system, and relatively large brains, comprise the ____ Ecdysozoan phylum. a. Arthropoda b. Onychophora c. Nemertea d. Annelida e. Nematoda

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Chap 31_5e 63. The ____ is the initial opening between the developing gut and the outside environment for most animal embryos. a. schizocoelom b. mesoglea c. archenteron d. enterocoelom e. blastopore 64. Members of the ____ Lophotrochozoan phylum are acoelomate, dorsoventrally flattened, and do not have circulatory or respiratory systems. a. Rotifera b. Mollusca c. Platyhelminthes d. Annelida e. Nemertea 65. Most members of the ____ Cnidarian lineage, including Obelia species, have both polyp and medusa stages in their life cycles, with the polyp stage typically forming a colony. a. Hydrozoa b. Scyphozoa c. Trematoda d. Cubozoa e. Anthozoa 66. Polyplacophora, Gastropoda, Bivalvia, and Cephalopoda are all lineages within the phylum ____. a. Rotifera b. Mollusca c. Platyhelminthes d. Annelida e. Nemertea 67. Members of the ____ lineage, commonly called chitons, have a dorsal shell divided into eight plates that allow it to conform to irregularly shaped surfaces. a. Cephalopoda b. Polyplacophora c. Bivalvia d. Gastropoda e. Scaphopoda

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Chap 31_5e 68. Members of the phylum ____ exhibit radial symmetry, with their body parts arranged regularly around a central axis. a. Porifera b. Mollusca c. Cnidaria d. Platyhelminthes e. Chordata 69. In most eumetazoans, the middle tissue layer during development is the ____. a. mesoderm b. epiderm c. mesoglea d. endoderm e. ectoderm 70. The organism Caenorhabditis elegans, a member of the ____ phylum, is an important model organism for studies of the genetic control of development. a. Arthropoda b. Onychophora c. Nemertea d. Annelida e. Nematoda 71. Flatworms have specialized cells called ____ that function in osmoregulation. a. choanocytes b. polyps c. cnidocytes d. flame cells e. tentacles 72. Members of the ____ flatworm lineage are vertebrate endoparasites; some, called blood flukes, cause an often deadly disease in humans called schistosomiasis. a. Trematoda b. Turbellaria c. Polychaeta d. Cestoda e. Hirudinea

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Chap 31_5e 73. Groups of cells that share a common structure and function are considered ____. a. organs b. mesenteries c. colonies d. tissues e. organ systems 74. Which phylum is a member of the Parazoa clade? a. Nemertea b. Porifera c. Rotifera d. Ctenophora e. Echinodermata 75. Most biologists agree that the most recent common ancestor of all animals was probably a ____, an idea first proposed by Ernst Haeckel in 1874. a. jellyfish b. ciliated protozoan c. sessile sponge d. single-celled chytrid e. colonial, flagellated protist 76. Members of the ____ Ecdysozoan phylum, commonly called roundworms, are so plentiful in soil and other places that they may be the most abundant animals on Earth., a. Arthropoda b. Onychophora c. Nemertea d. Annelida e. Nematoda 77. Members of the ____ subphylum, including the centipedes and millipedes, have two body regions: a head with one pair of antennae and a segmented trunk with one or two pairs of legs per segment. a. Myriapoda b. Trilobita c. Chelicerata d. Hexapoda e. Crustacea

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Chap 31_5e 78. Members of the ____ subphylum are mostly insects and were among the first animals to colonize terrestrial habitats. a. Myriapoda b. Trilobita c. Chelicerata d. Hexapoda e. Crustacea 79. Members of the ____ lineage, known as bristle worms, are found primarily in marine environments and are characterized by the presence of parapodia. a. Hirudinea b. Polychaeta c. Monogenoidea d. Cestoda e. Oligochaeta 80. Members of the ____ Lophotrochozoan phylum include earthworms, bristle worms, and leeches. a. Rotifera b. Mollusca c. Platyhelminthes d. Annelida e. Nemertea Match each of the groups of organisms listed with the correct phylum. a. Annelida b. Arthropoda c. Cnidaria d. Ctenophora e. Mollusca f. Nematoda g. Nemertea h. Onychophora i. Platyhelminthes j. Porifera 81. sponges

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Chap 31_5e Match each of the groups of organisms listed with the correct phylum. a. Annelida b. Arthropoda c. Cnidaria d. Ctenophora e. Mollusca f. Nematoda g. Nemertea h. Onychophora i. Platyhelminthes j. Porifera 82. spiders, insects, shrimp, and crabs 83. velvet worms 84. roundworms Match each of the groups of organisms listed with the correct phylum. a. Annelida b. Arthropoda c. Cnidaria d. Ctenophora e. Mollusca f. Nematoda g. Nemertea h. Onychophora i. Platyhelminthes j. Porifera 85. bristle worms, earthworms, and leeches Match each of the groups of organisms listed with the correct phylum. a. Annelida b. Arthropoda c. Cnidaria d. Ctenophora e. Mollusca f. Nematoda g. Nemertea h. Onychophora i. Platyhelminthes j. Porifera 86. flatworms Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 31_5e Match each of the groups of organisms listed with the correct phylum. a. Annelida b. Arthropoda c. Cnidaria d. Ctenophora e. Mollusca f. Nematoda g. Nemertea h. Onychophora i. Platyhelminthes j. Porifera 87. chitons, snails, slugs, and scallops Examine the parts of a trochophore larva. Match each letter with the structure it represents.

Figure 31.1 (questions 81-85) a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 88. anus 89. mouth 90. stomach 91. apical tuft of cilia 92. band of cilia

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Chap 31_5e Match each of the groups of organisms listed with the correct phylum. a. Annelida b. Arthropoda c. Cnidaria d. Ctenophora e. Mollusca f. Nematoda g. Nemertea h. Onychophora i. Platyhelminthes j. Porifera 93. ribbon worms Match each of the groups of organisms listed with the correct phylum. a. Annelida b. Arthropoda c. Cnidaria d. Ctenophora e. Mollusca f. Nematoda g. Nemertea h. Onychophora i. Platyhelminthes j. Porifera 94. jellyfishes, corals, and sea anemones Match each of the groups of organisms listed with the correct phylum. a. Annelida b. Arthropoda c. Cnidaria d. Ctenophora e. Mollusca f. Nematoda g. Nemertea h. Onychophora i. Platyhelminthes j. Porifera 95. comb jellies

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Chap 31_5e 96. Which life history patterns in some rotifers are adapted to living in small bodies of water?

97. Describe some of the advantages of segmentation.

98. What are some similarities between cephalopods and vertebrates?

99. How do the nervous systems of cnidarians and arthropods differ?

100. How does embryonic cleavage differ in protostomes and deuterostomes?

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Chap 31_5e Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. False 8. True 9. True 10. True 11. b 12. c 13. d 14. a 15. d 16. a 17. b 18. d 19. b 20. c 21. d 22. a 23. a 24. d 25. e 26. e

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Chap 31_5e 27. c 28. d 29. b 30. c 31. b 32. d 33. c 34. d 35. c 36. d 37. b 38. c 39. c 40. a 41. b 42. a 43. b 44. d 45. b 46. b 47. a 48. e 49. d 50. e 51. a 52. c 53. d 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 31_5e 55. a 56. d 57. a 58. a 59. b 60. e 61. e 62. b 63. e 64. c 65. a 66. b 67. b 68. c 69. a 70. e 71. d 72. a 73. d 74. b 75. a 76. e 77. a 78. d 79. b 80. d 81. j 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 31_5e 83. h 84. f 85. a 86. i 87. e 88. e 89. d 90. c 91. a 92. b 93. g 94. c 95. d 96. Since small bodies of water are susceptible to drying periods and freezing, rotifers' ability to reproduce asexually through parthenogenesis in different ways in different conditions is adaptive. During most months, females produce diploid females. But when environmental conditions deteriorate, females produce haploid males that fertilize haploid eggs to produce diploid female zygotes. These fertilized eggs have durable shells and food reserves that allow them to survive drying or freezing. 97. Segmentation allows for flexibility of movement. Segmentation improves control over movement because segments can act independently. Different segments can contain different, and in many cases, a complete set of organs. Therefore, segments can be severely damaged without the entire organism being damaged or killed. 98. Cephalopods have separate sexes and elaborate courtship behaviors. Some cephalopods can learn to recognize objects with distinctive shapes or colors and can be trained to approach or avoid them. Their image-forming eyes are also similar. 99. Cnidarians have a nerve net, which threads through two tissue layers and coordinates responses to stimuli. However, there is no central control organ or brain. Arthropods have a highly organized central nervous system, which coordinates responses through three tissue layers. 100. Many protostomes undergo determinant cleavage while many deuterostomes undergo indeterminate cleavage. Therefore, in protostomes the fate of each cell’s developmental fate is determined when the cell is produced and in deuterostomes the fate of each cell is determined later in development.

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Chap 32_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. The jawless vertebrates, referred to as agnathans, form a monophyletic group that includes an ancestor and all of its descendants. a. True b. False 2. Echinoderms achieve locomotion by using their water vascular system. a. True b. False 3. The living descendants of the clade Reptilia include lizards, snakes, turtles, crocodiles, and birds. a. True b. False 4. In animals, one group of homeobox genes, the Hox gene family, regulates the development and location of structures such as legs and wings along the anterior-posterior axis of the body. a. True b. False 5. The internal skeleton of species in the subphylum Vertebrata provides both structural support for muscles and protection for internal organs. a. True b. False 6. All living amphibians are herbivorous as adults. a. True b. False 7. All living species in the Osteichthyes clade have endoskeletons composed entirely of cartilage. a. True b. False 8. Mammalian monotremes are limited to the Australian region. a. True b. False 9. Most Devonian osteolepiforms had strong, stout fins that enabled them to crawl on the muddy bottom of shallow pools. a. True b. False 10. In chordates, the notochord forms from the endoderm layer that is ventral to the developing digestive system. a. True b. False

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Chap 32_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Deuterostomia is a ____ lineage of animals that dates to the ____. a. polyphyletic; Mesozoic b. paraphyletic; Cenozoic c. monophyletic; Paleozoic d. paraphyletic; Paleozoic e. polyphyletic; Cenozoic 12. At some point during development, all members of the ____ phylum have a hollow dorsal nerve cord, a perforated pharynx, a notochord, and segmented muscles in both the body wall and postanal tail. a. Hemichordata b. Echinodermata c. Cnidaria d. Arthropoda e. Chordata 13. The ___ Echinoderm lineage is made up of sea cucumbers, which are elongated along their oral-aboral axis and have a well-developed circulatory system. a. Echinoidea b. Ophiuroidea c. Crinoidea d. Holothuroidea e. Asteroidea 14. Which structure do turtles lack? a. carapace b. jaws c. teeth d. plastron e. keratinized beak 15. Dating to about 3.5 to 3 million years ago, the famous fossil "Lucy," found in northern Ethiopia, represents a member of ____. a. Homo habilis b. Homo erectus c. Australopithecus africanus d. Australopithecus afarensis e. Homo neanderthalensis

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Chap 32_5e 16. Members of the ____ lizard genus are commonly used as model systems for studies of ecology and evolutionary biology. a. Ichthyostega b. Anolis c. Dunkleosteus d. Eusthenopteron e. Archaeopteryx 17. Which feature is a unique, derived trait present in all birds? a. ability to fly b. four-chambered heart c. feathers d. lack of a urinary bladder e. migration 18. A four-chambered heart, hollow limb bones with supporting struts, and a keeled sternum are features associated with most modern ____. a. mammals b. snakes c. turtles d. lizards e. birds 19. Based on the fossil record, which group appeared first? a. chimpanzees b. humans c. new world monkeys d. gorillas e. old world monkeys 20. Which substance is a waste product of nitrogen metabolism in some amniotes that is excreted as a semisolid paste, reducing water loss? a. nitric oxide b. uric acid c. squalene d. urea e. ammonium

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Chap 32_5e 21. While lancelets, members of the lineage ____, live mostly buried in the sand in warm, shallow marine habitats, they do have well-developed segmented muscles and can move. a. Petromyzontoidea b. Placodermi c. Cephalochordata d. Urochordata e. Myxinoidea 22. Which lineage has the largest number of Hox genes, reflecting their complex anatomy? a. cnidarians b. cephalochordates c. vertebrates d. arthropods e. eurochordates 23. The opossum and kangaroos are living members of the ____ mammalian lineage. a. Strepsirhini b. monotremes c. Rodentiac d. Haplorhini e. marsupials 24. Which structure surrounds and protects the brain in all vertebrates? a. pharynx b. neural crest c. oral hood d. notochord e. cranium 25. Based on the fossil record, ____ evolved about 1.8 million years ago and made fairly sophisticated tools, including the hand axe. a. Homo habilis b. Homo erectus c. Australopithecus africanus d. Australopithecus afarensis e. Homo neanderthalensis

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Chap 32_5e 26. Tunicates, members of one major class of the ____ lineage, have tadpolelike larvae, but their sessile adult forms are usually encased in a leathery "tunic." a. Petromyzontoidea b. Placodermi c. Cephalochordata d. Urochordata e. Myxinoidea 27. Which substance is a typical source of nutrients and water for developing amniote embryos? a. squalene b. bone c. keratin d. collagen e. albumin 28. Which cell type is unique to vertebrates, and distinct from endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm? a. pharyngeal b. neural crest c. oral hood d. notochordal e. cranial 29. Water enters the water vascular system of a sea star through a structure called the ____. a. ampulla b. ossicle c. radial canal d. ring canal e. madreporite 30. A key trait that distinguishes gnathostomes from other chordate lineages is the presence of ____. a. bony scales b. claspers c. jaws d. the operculum e. keratin 31. Birds are living representatives of the ____ lineage. a. anapsids b. archosaurs c. lepidosaurs d. synapsids e. crocodilia Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 32_5e 32. Which group is most closely related to humans? a. gorillas b. new world monkeys c. orangutans d. old world monkeys e. chimpanzees 33. Acorn worms, members of the phylum ____, use their mucus-coated proboscis to construct U-shaped burrows to trap food particles. a. Hemichordata b. Echinodermata c. Cnidaria d. Arthropoda e. Chordata 34. Occupying Europe and western Asia from about 150,000 to 28,000 years ago, ____ had a heavier build, more pronounced brow ridges and slightly larger brains than modern humans, and were culturally and technologically sophisticated. a. Homo habilis b. Homo erectus c. Australopithecus africanus d. Australopithecus afarensis e. Homo neanderthalensis 35. The majority of mammal species living today are ____, or placentals, including such diverse groups as rodents, bats, whales, and primates. a. protherians b. therapsids c. anthropoids d. eutherians e. metatherians 36. Ecomorphs are ____. a. distantly related members of the same genus that are morphologically and ecologically diverse b. closely related members of the same genus that are morphologically similar and ecologically diverse c. members of the same species that live in very different habitats d. distantly related members of the same genus that are morphologically and ecologically similar e. closely related members of the same genus that are morphologically and ecologically similar

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Chap 32_5e 37. In chordates, the ____ is a digestive system structure just posterior to the mouth. a. pharynx b. neural crest c. oral hood d. notochord e. cranium 38. The tympanum and stapes are used in tetrapods for ____. a. seeing b. hearing c. heat-sensing d. tasting e. smelling 39. Based on fossil evidence, ____ is the oldest of the species listed. a. Homo habilis b. Homo erectus c. Australopithecus africanus d. Australopithecus afarensis e. Homo neanderthalensis 40. The ___ Echinoderm lineage is composed of sea stars, each with a central disk surrounded by 5 to 20 "arms." a. Echinoidea b. Ophiuroidea c. Crinoidea d. Holothuroidea e. Asteroidea 41. Which group is most closely related to bonobos? a. tarsiers b. humans c. lorises d. orangutans e. gibbons 42. Two extant species of coelacanths and six species of lungfish are members of the ___ lineage. a. Petromyzontoidea b. Chondrichthyes c. Actinopterygii d. Myxinoidea e. Sarcopterygii

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Chap 32_5e 43. According to the fossil record, tetrapods arose from ____. a. acanthodians b. conodonts c. osteolepiforms d. placoderms e. ostracoderms 44. Turtles are members of the ____ reptilian lineage. a. Testudines b. Archosauria c. Squamata d. Sphenodontida e. Amphibia 45. Fossil tooth parts of extinct ____ suggest that these organisms were the earliest vertebrates with bonelike structures. a. acanthodians b. conodonts c. osteolepiforms d. placoderms e. ostracoderms 46. Living members of the ____ lineage have fins supported by thin and flexible bony rays. a. Petromyzontoidea b. Chondrichthyes c. Actinopterygii d. Myxinoidea e. Sarcopterygii 47. The ____ lineage was a diverse group in the Mesozoic, but now is composed of only two living members, including the tuatara. a. Testudines b. Archosauria c. Squamata d. Sphenodontida e. Amphibia

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Chap 32_5e 48. Several lineages of extinct ____ were jawless fishes with bony plates and scales and three brain regions (forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain). a. acanthodians b. conodonts c. osteolepiforms d. placoderms e. ostracoderms 49. Which structure is a covering for the gill chamber in ray-finned fishes? a. swim bladder b. spiral valve c. operculum d. atrium e. lateral-line system 50. A tube foot of a sea star moves when the small muscular bulb called the ____ contracts, forcing fluid into the tube foot. a. ampulla b. ossicle c. radial canal d. ring canal e. madreporite 51. The ____ lineage contains the fleshy-finned fishes, with fins supported by muscles and an internal bony skeleton. a. Petromyzontoidea b. Chondrichthyes c. Actinopterygii d. Myxinoidea e. Sarcopterygii 52. Galagos, lemurs, and lorises are the living members of the ____ mammalian lineage. a. Strepsirhini b. monotremes c. Rodentia d. Haplorhini e. marsupials

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Chap 32_5e 53. The living members of the ____ lineage, the hagfishes, are jawless vertebrates with axial skeletons composed of only a cranium and a notochord. a. Petromyzontoidea b. Placodermi c. Cephalochordata d. Urochordata e. Myxinoidea 54. Legless caecilians belong to the ____ lineage. a. Caudata b. Aves c. Squamata d. Gymnophiona e. Anura 55. Along with lipids, the skin of amniotes is filled with ____ to help prevent water loss. a. squalene b. bone c. keratin d. collagen e. albumin 56. Frogs and toads belong to the ____ lineage. a. Caudata b. Aves c. Squamata d. Gymnophiona e. Anura 57. Salamanders belong to the ____ lineage. a. Caudata b. Aves c. Squamata d. Gymnophiona e. Anura 58. Cnidarians have ____ Hox gene complex(es) while fishes have as many as ___. a. one; three b. three; five c. five; three d. 13; five e. one; 13 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 32_5e 59. Lizards and snakes are living members of the ____ lineage. a. Testudines b. Archosauria c. Squamata d. Sphenodontida e. Amphibia 60. Which mammalian lineage contains organisms that lay eggs? a. Strepsirhini b. monotremes c. Rodentia d. Haplorhini e. marsupials 61. The duck-billed platypus shares which trait with non-mammalian animals? a. teeth b. lack of cloaca c. laying eggs d. hair e. females produce milk 62. American alligators are living members of the ____ lineage. a. Testudines b. Archosauria c. Squamata d. Sphenodontida e. Amphibia 63. The ____ forms the skeleton of invertebrate chordates. a. pharynx b. neural crest c. oral hood d. notochord e. cranium 64. Members of the ____ phylum have bilaterally symmetrical larvae, but exhibit secondary radial symmetry as adults, usually organized around five rays, or "arms." a. Hemichordata b. Echinodermata c. Cnidaria d. Arthropoda e. Chordata Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 32_5e 65. Members of the ____ phylum have a unique water vascular system connected to tube feet that are used for movement. a. Hemichordata b. Echinodermata c. Cnidaria d. Arthropoda e. Chordata 66. Living members of the ____ lineage include the sharks, skates, and rays, all of which have skeletons made entirely of cartilage. a. Petromyzontoidea b. Chondrichthyes c. Actinopterygii d. Myxinoidea e. Sarcopterygii 67. The parasitic lampreys, living members of the ____ lineage, have shards of cartilage that partially cover the nerve cord, which may represent an early stage of the evolution of vertebrae. a. Petromyzontoidea b. Placodermi c. Cephalochordata d. Urochordata e. Myxinoidea 68. Members of the ___ Echinoderm lineage include sessile sea lilies and feather stars, which can swim or crawl as adults. a. Echinoidea b. Ophiuroidea c. Crinoidea d. Holothuroidea e. Asteroidea 69. The internal skeleton of echinoderms is made of calcium-stiffened ____ that develop from mesoderm. a. ampullae b. ossicles c. radial canals d. ring canals e. madreporites

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Chap 32_5e 70. Mammals are thought to be living descendants of ____. a. anapsids b. archosaurs c. lepidosaurs d. synapsids e. diapsids 71. The fossil record shows that the jawed fishes called ____, which diversified in the Devonian and Carboniferous periods but left no direct descendants, had heads covered with large, heavy, bony plates and jaws with sharp cutting edges. a. acanthodians b. conodonts c. osteolepiforms d. placoderms e. ostracoderms 72. The ___ Echinoderm lineage is made up of sea urchins and sand dollars, whose ossicles are fused into solid tests that restrict flexibility but provide excellent protection. a. Echinoidea b. Ophiuroidea c. Crinoidea d. Holothuroidea e. Asteroidea 73. The ___ Echinoderm lineage is made up of brittle and basket stars, each with elongated, slender, somewhat snakelike arms surrounding a well-defined central disk. a. Echinoidea b. Ophiuroidea c. Crinoidea d. Holothuroidea e. Asteroidea 74. Crocodiles are living representatives of ____. a. anapsids b. archosaurs c. lepidosaurs d. synapsids e. dinosaurs

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Chap 32_5e 75. The Anura, Caudata, and Gymnophiona clades are all part of the ____ lineage. a. Testudines b. Archosauria c. Squamata d. Sphenodontida e. Amphibia 76. Two species of spiny anteaters (echidnas) and the duck-billed platypus are the only known living members of the ____ mammalian lineage. a. Strepsirhini b. monotremes c. Rodentia d. Haplorhini e. marsupials 77. The pattern of locomotion used by gibbons and siamangs, in which they use their arms to hang below branches and swing forward, is called ____. a. bipedal movement b. peristalsis c. gliding d. brachiation e. orthokinesis 78. Vertebrates evolved from an invertebrate ancestor through _____. a. lateral gene transfer from an ancestral vertebrate b. duplication of the Hox gene complex c. endosymbiosis of a vertebrate predecessor d. deletion of the genes needed for notochord development e. amplification of a gene complex for synapse origin 79. Which structure is derived from an ancestral air-breathing lung in ray-finned fishes and is used to increase buoyancy? a. swim bladder b. spiral valve c. operculum d. atrium e. lateral-line system

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Chap 32_5e 80. Tarsiers, new world monkeys, old world monkeys, and apes are all living members of the ____ mammalian lineage. a. Strepsirhini b. monotremes c. Rodentia d. Haplorhini e. marsupials Match each group of organisms with the correct lineage. a. Amphibia b. Metatheria c. Chondrichthyes d. Aves e. Cephalochordata f. Eutheria g. Testudines h. Squamata 81. birds Match each group of organisms with the correct lineage. a. Amphibia b. Metatheria c. Chondrichthyes d. Aves e. Cephalochordata f. Eutheria g. Testudines h. Squamata 82. turtles

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Chap 32_5e Match each group of organisms with the correct lineage. a. Amphibia b. Metatheria c. Chondrichthyes d. Aves e. Cephalochordata f. Eutheria g. Testudines h. Squamata 83. humans 84. kangaroos Match each group of organisms with the correct lineage. a. Amphibia b. Metatheria c. Chondrichthyes d. Aves e. Cephalochordata f. Eutheria g. Testudines h. Squamata 85. lizards and snakes

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Chap 32_5e Answer the questions using the accompanying figure. Match the structures in the amniote egg with the correct term.

Figure 32.23 (questions 79-85) a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G 86. yolk sac 87. embryo 88. shell 89. chorion 90. amnion 91. albumin 92. allantois Match each group of organisms with the correct lineage. a. Amphibia b. Metatheria c. Chondrichthyes d. Aves e. Cephalochordata f. Eutheria g. Testudines h. Squamata 93. frogs and salamanders

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Chap 32_5e Match each group of organisms with the correct lineage. a. Amphibia b. Metatheria c. Chondrichthyes d. Aves e. Cephalochordata f. Eutheria g. Testudines h. Squamata 94. sharks, skates, and rays Match each group of organisms with the correct lineage. a. Amphibia b. Metatheria c. Chondrichthyes d. Aves e. Cephalochordata f. Eutheria g. Testudines h. Squamata 95. lancelets 96. How are echinoderms uniquely different than other deuterostomes?

97. Why do vertebrates have more individual Hox genes than most invertebrates, and what is the general significance?

98. Why is the absence of bone in Chondrichthyes considered a derived trait?

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Chap 32_5e 99. How is neural crest different from endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm?

100. How might Devonian osteolepiforms have facilitated the transition of animals to land?

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Chap 32_5e Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. False 7. False 8. True 9. True 10. False 11. c 12. e 13. d 14. c 15. d 16. b 17. c 18. e 19. c 20. b 21. c 22. c 23. e 24. e 25. b 26. d

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Chap 32_5e 27. e 28. b 29. e 30. c 31. b 32. e 33. a 34. e 35. d 36. d 37. a 38. b 39. d 40. e 41. b 42. e 43. c 44. a 45. b 46. c 47. d 48. e 49. c 50. a 51. e 52. a 53. e 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 32_5e 55. c 56. e 57. a 58. e 59. c 60. b 61. c 62. b 63. d 64. b 65. b 66. b 67. a 68. c 69. b 70. d 71. d 72. a 73. b 74. b 75. e 76. b 77. d 78. b 79. a 80. d 81. d 82. g Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 32_5e 83. f 84. b 85. h 86. e 87. b 88. a 89. g 90. d 91. c 92. f 93. a 94. c 95. e 96. Echinoderms, as adults, are radially symmetric. Echinoderms have no excretory system or respiratory system, and most have only a minimal circulatory system. The water vascular system, which they use for locomotion, is unique. 97. The entire Hox gene complex was duplicated in the vertebrate lineage. The additional copies of Hox genes probably evolved to specify the development of uniquely vertebrate characteristics. 98. All the fishes that lived before the appearance of Chondrichthyes had either bony armor or a bony endoskeleton. Therefore, it is concluded that the trait was lost in the evolution of the lineage. 99. Neural crest cells arise next to the developing nervous system and later migrate throughout a vertebrate’s body. Ectoderm gives rise to the nervous system. Endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm are not unique to vertebrates; neural crest cells give rise to unique vertebrate structures including parts of cranium, teeth, sensory organs, cranial nerves, teeth, and sensory organs. 100. Most osteolepiforms had strong, stout fins that enabled them to crawl on the muddy bottom of shallow pools, and their vertebral column included crescent-shaped bones that provided good support. They also had nostrils leading to sensory pits that housed olfactory receptors. Finally, they probably had lungs to augment gill respiration in the swampy, oxygen-poor water where they lived.

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Chap 33_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Terminal buds release a hormone that inhibits the growth of nearby lateral buds. a. True b. False 2. Guard cells contain chloroplasts. a. True b. False 3. Meristems produce three plant organ systems. a. True b. False 4. Parenchyma ground tissue is the site of photosynthesis. a. True b. False 5. Cactus leaves are modified as trichomes. a. True b. False 6. If the root cap of a root is damaged, the quiescent center is likely damaged as well. a. True b. False 7. All perennials have secondary tissues. a. True b. False 8. Adventitious roots arise from a plant’s stem. a. True b. False 9. Molecular studies have found that the knotted-1 (KN-1) gene normally causes knobby growth. a. True b. False 10. Veins throughout a leaf are formed by vascular epidermis. a. True b. False

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Chap 33_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Specialized outgrowths of the plant epidermis called ____ are hairlike projections, such as root hairs. a. cuticles b. protoplasts c. stomata d. trichomes e. bark 12. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. In the internal leaf structure, the structure labeled "3" is ____. a. a vascular bundle b. spongy mesophyll c. epidermis d. a stoma e. palisade mesophyll 13. The site of new primary growth at the apex of a shoot is the ____. a. terminal bud b. internode c. axil d. lateral bud e. node 14. The ____ of the plant refers to the structure and arrangement of its internal parts. a. morphology b. ecology c. anatomy d. distribution e. physiology 15. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. In the diagram of a root tip, the structure labeled "4" is the ____. a. quiescent center b. zone of cell division c. zone of elongation d. root cap e. zone of maturation

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Chap 33_5e 16. Rhizomes, tubers, corms, and stolons are examples of modified ____. a. leaves b. bulbs c. roots d. flowers e. stems 17. Apical dominance is maintained by ____. a. hormones released by the terminal bud b. sugars produced in the leaves c. water transported from the roots d. hormones released by the lateral buds e. sugars produced in the lateral buds 18. Vascular plant bodies typically consist of a(n) ____ shoot system and a ____ root system. a. photosynthetic; photosynthetic b. nonphotosynthetic; photosynthetic c. photosynthetic; nonphotosynthetic d. nonphotosynthetic; nonphotosynthetic e. heterotrophic; phototrophic 19. Older roots become thick and woody through the buildup of ____. a. periderm b. meristem c. cork cambium d. vascular cambium e. pericycle 20. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. In the internal leaf structure, the item labeled "5" is ____. a. a vascular bundle b. spongy mesophyll c. epidermis d. a stoma e. palisade mesophyll 21. A plant stem is considered to be a(n) ____. a. shoot system b. tissue c. root system d. meristem e. organ

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Chap 33_5e 22. Which term refers to plants that complete their life cycle in one growing season? a. perennials b. annuals c. monocots d. biennials e. eudicots 23. Plant tissue specialized for conducting fluids is known as ____. a. ground tissue b. protoderm c. vascular tissue d. meristem e. dermal tissue 24. Similar to animal cells, cells in some plant organs, such as leaves, flowers, and fruits, undergo ____ growth. a. determinate b. indeterminate c. lateral d. apical e. plastic 25. The innermost layer of the root cortex, known as the ____, is a selectively permeable barrier that helps control the movement of water and dissolved minerals. a. endodermis b. root cap c. quiescent center d. pericycle e. root hairs

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Chap 33_5e

26. ©2014 Brooks/Cole, Cengage Learning Figure 33.2 (questions 59-63) Answer the question using the accompanying figure. In the internal leaf structure, the structure labeled "1" is ____. a. a vascular bundle b. spongy mesophyll c. epidermis d. a stoma e. palisade mesophyll 27. Plant surfaces are covered and protected by ____. a. ground tissue b. protoderm c. vascular tissue d. meristem e. dermal tissue 28. When ____ cells mature, they develop thick secondary walls strengthened by lignin and cellulose and die, leaving empty cells that serve as pipelines for water and mineral transport. a. sclerenchyma b. tracheids c. collenchyma d. parenchyma e. vessel members 29. The ____ of the plant refers to the mechanisms by which the plant body functions in its environment. a. morphology b. ecology c. anatomy d. distribution e. physiology

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Chap 33_5e 30. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. In the diagram of a root tip, the structure labeled "3" is the ____. a. quiescent center b. zone of cell division c. zone of elongation d. root cap e. zone of maturation

31. ©2014 Brooks/Cole, Cengage Learning Figure 33.1 (questions 42-46) Answer the question using the accompanying figure. In the diagram of a root tip, the structure labeled "1" is the ____. a. quiescent center b. zone of cell division c. zone of elongation d. root cap e. zone of maturation 32. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. In the internal leaf structure, the structure labeled "4" is ____. a. a vascular bundle b. spongy mesophyll c. epidermis d. a stoma e. palisade mesophyll Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 33_5e 33. Which tissue gives rise to primary vascular tissues? a. protoderm b. apical meristem c. ground meristem d. vascular cambium e. procambium 34. The KN-1 gene in maize is normally expressed in ____. a. primary meristems, where it initiates the process of differentiation b. apical meristems, where it maintains the undifferentiated state c. apical meristems, where it initiates the process of differentiation d. primary meristems, where it maintains the undifferentiated state e. lateral meristems, where it initiates the process of secondary growth 35. Which organism controls its salt concentration by releasing salt from a structure on the leaf epidermis? a. Dionaea muscipula b. Atriplex spongiosa c. Lathyrusodoratus d. Phaseolus e. Quercus suber 36. Which list represents the correct order of structures from outside to inside in the stem of a vascular plant? a. stele, cortex, epidermis, pith b. epidermis, pith, cortex, stele c. cortex, stele, pith, epidermis d. epidermis, cortex, stele, pith e. stele, epidermis, pith, cortex 37. Most plants have parts that can continue growing throughout their lives. This is referred to as ____ growth. a. determinate b. meristematic c. indeterminate d. shoot e. immortal 38. The ____ tissue system forms a protective covering on the plant. a. dermal b. ground c. meristem d. organ e. vascular

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Chap 33_5e 39. Cuticle, guard cells, stomata, and trichomes are all terms associated with ____. a. ground tissue b. vascular tissue c. meristem d. dermal tissue e. secondary tissue 40. Vascular tissue cells with long, tapered, overlapping ends are known as ____. a. sclerenchyma b. tracheids c. collenchyma d. parenchyma e. vessel elements 41. Primary and secondary xylem that can no longer transport water and solutes, but can store defensive compounds, is called ____. a. bark b. heartwood c. vascular cambium d. sapwood e. secondary epidermis 42. Root systems that are adapted to absorb water and nutrients from the upper layers of soil are called a(n) ____. a. adventitious root systems b. prop root systems c. fibrous root systems d. taproot systems e. storage root systems 43. The ____ is self-perpetuating embryonic tissue typically found at the tips of shoots and roots. a. ground tissue b. protoderm c. vascular tissue d. meristem e. dermal tissue 44. Wood is composed of ____. a. primary xylem b. secondary xylem c. primary phloem d. secondary phloem e. both xylem and phloem Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 33_5e 45. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. In the diagram of a root tip, the structure labeled "2" is the ____. a. quiescent center b. zone of cell division c. zone of elongation d. root cap e. zone of maturation 46. In vascular plants, sugars are transported throughout the plant by ____. a. sclerenchyma b. phloem c. collenchyma d. parenchyma e. xylem 47. Starting from the outside and moving in toward the center, which list gives the correct order of tissues in the stem of a young tree? a. secondary phloem, primary phloem, primary xylem, secondary xylem b. primary xylem, secondary xylem, secondary phloem, primary phloem c. primary phloem, secondary xylem, secondary phloem, primary xylem d. secondary phloem, primary xylem, secondary xylem, primary phloem e. primary phloem, secondary phloem, secondary xylem, primary xylem 48. When an apical meristem cell divides, one daughter cell is called the initial and the other is called the derivative. What are the fates of these cells? a. The initial is used to form primary meristems, and the derivative remains part of the apical meristem. b. Both the initial and the derivative remain part of the apical meristem. c. The initial remains part of the apical meristem, and the derivative is used to form primary meristems. d. Both the initial and the derivative are used to form primary meristems. e. The initial is used to form primary meristems, and the derivative is used to form secondary meristems. 49. In A. thaliana, genes encoding proteins involved in secondary cell wall development are regulated by an average of five different ____. a. tissues b. lignins c. transcription factors d. ribosomes e. genes

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Chap 33_5e 50. Sieve tube elements are components of the ____. a. ground tissue b. phloem c. dermal tissue d. meristem e. xylem 51. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. In the diagram of a root tip, the structure labeled "5" is the ____. a. quiescent center b. zone of cell division c. zone of elongation d. root cap e. zone of maturation 52. The place on a stem where one or more leaves are attached is called the ____. a. terminal bud b. internode c. axil d. lateral bud e. node 53. Lateral roots arise from the ____. a. endodermis b. root cap c. quiescent center d. pericycle e. root hairs 54. The uptake of water and mineral ions from the soil occurs primarily at the ____. a. endodermis b. root cap c. quiescent center d. pericycle e. root hairs 55. Archaeologists have found that people were growing wheat in what today is Turkey ____ years ago. a. 100 b. 1,200 c. 12,000 d. 120,000 e. 1,200,000 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 33_5e 56. Often connected to a petiole, ____ may be either simple or compound and are typically the main organs of photosynthesis and gas exchange. a. roots b. leaves c. flowers d. stems e. trichomes 57. Which plant function is NOT typically a main task performed by stems? a. mechanical support b. the storage of water, nutrients, and sugars c. energy capture d. routes for vascular tissues e. new growth 58. The ____ tissue system is made up of interconnecting cells that form transport channels throughout the plant. a. ground b. organ c. vascular d. dermal e. xylem 59. Epidermal cells secrete a coating called the ____ that protects the plant from water loss and attacks by microbes. a. cuticle b. protoplast c. stoma d. trichome e. bark 60. Which term refers to plants that typically grow for many years? a. perennials b. annuals c. monocots d. biennials e. eudicots 61. The root apical meristem is surrounded and protected by a structure called the ____. a. endodermis b. root cap c. quiescent center d. pericycle e. root hairs Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 33_5e 62. Vascular tissue cells that join end to end in tubelike columns are known as ____. a. sclerenchyma b. tracheids c. collenchyma d. parenchyma e. vessel elements 63. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. In the internal leaf structure, the structure labeled "2" is ____. a. a vascular bundle b. spongy mesophyll c. epidermis d. a stoma e. palisade mesophyll 64. Plant cells called ____ form flexible support strands such as the "strings" in celery. a. sclerenchyma b. tracheids c. collenchyma d. parenchyma e. vessel members 65. Among other functions, the ____ of a vascular plant performs most of the photosynthesis conducted by the plant. a. ground tissue b. protoderm c. vascular tissue d. meristem e. dermal tissue 66. Growth from apical meristems, generally resulting in an increase in the length of a plant, is referred to as ____ growth. a. horizontal b. typical c. secondary d. longitudinal e. primary

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Chap 33_5e 67. The _____ within each meristem is the source for new cells that are not yet committed to a specific organ or tissue fate. a. new cell region b. blank cell region c. cell generator d. cell tank e. stem cell reservoir 68. Which statement is true regarding typical plant development? a. Growing tips and zones are present throughout a plant's life, and final plant form is not influenced by the environment. b. Plant bodies have a fixed final size, and final plant form is influenced by the environment. c. Final plant form is not influenced by the environment, and growing tips and zones are present throughout a plant's life. d. Growing tips and zones are present throughout a plant's life, and plant bodies do not have a fixed final size. e. Plant bodies do not have a fixed final size, and final plant form is not influenced by the environment. 69. A(n) ____ is a single main root that is adapted for storage and typically grows downward and fairly deep. a. adventitious root b. fibrous root c. rhizome d. taproot e. tuber 70. A unique characteristic of plant cells is their ability to ____. a. photosynthesize b. carry out cellular respiration c. continuously grow and generate new organs throughout their life cycle d. form defensive compounds e. protect themselves through movement 71. Cork cambium produces ____. a. vascular tissue b. heartwood c. vascular cambium d. sapwood e. secondary epidermis

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Chap 33_5e 72. The upper angle between a stem and attached leaf is called a(n) ____. a. terminal bud b. internode c. axil d. lateral bud e. node 73. Which term refers to plants that complete their life cycle in two growing seasons? a. perennials b. annuals c. monocots d. biennials e. eudicots 74. Plant cells called ____ make up the bulk of the soft primary growth of roots, stems, leaves, flowers, and fruits. a. sclerenchyma b. tracheids c. collenchyma d. parenchyma e. vessel members 75. In response to increased carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere over the past 200 years, stomata in leaves of some species have ____. a. become smaller b. declined in number c. increased in number d. disappeared e. become larger 76. Xylem and phloem are types of ____. a. ground tissue b. protoderm c. vascular tissue d. meristem e. dermal tissue 77. In vascular plants, water and dissolved minerals are transported from roots to the stems and leaves by ____. a. sclerenchyma b. phloem c. collenchyma d. parenchyma e. xylem Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 33_5e 78. Plants with ____ life cycles typically ____. a. annual; lack secondary growth b. biennial; die after one growing season c. perennial; lack secondary growth d. perennial; lack primary growth e. annual; do not reproduce 79. Multistranded cords of primary xylem and phloem are ____. a. vascular bundles b. found only in monocots c. found only in dicots d. formed by stele e. formed by pith 80. Girdling is the process by which bark is removed from the entire circumference of a tree or branch. This is lethal to a tree because it prevents ____. a. water uptake b. photosynthesis c. respiration d. sugar transport to roots e. water transport to leaves 81. The ____ of the plant refers to its external form. a. morphology b. ecology c. anatomy d. distribution e. physiology 82. In flowering plants, companion cells are connected via plasmodesmata to ____. a. trichomes b. tracheids c. sieve tube elements d. guard cells e. vessel members 83. Which tissue gives rise to secondary xylem and phloem? a. protoderm b. apical meristem c. ground meristem d. vascular cambium e. procambium Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 33_5e

Figure 33.3 (questions 74-78) Answer the questions using the accompanying figure. Match each labeled structure in the diagram with the appropriate term. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 84. terminal bud 85. node 86. lateral bud 87. internode 88. apical meristems

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Chap 33_5e

Figure 33.4 (questions 79-85) Answer the questions using the accompanying figure. Match each labeled structure in the diagram with the appropriate term. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G 89. heartwood 90. secondary xylem 91. bark 92. secondary phloem 93. periderm 94. sapwood 95. vascular cambium 96. Which types of plant cells function like stem cells in animals? How do they function?

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Chap 33_5e 97. If you were analyzing tree rings, how might you distinguish between fires that occurred in the spring versus fires that occurred in the summer (assuming the fires left fire scars)?

98. Explain the difference between primary and secondary growth.

99. Why doesn't mowing grass damage the meristem and inhibit growth in height, but pruning a shrub does?

100. Girdling is the process by which bark is removed from the entire circumference of a tree or branch. Explain why a deciduous tree that is completely girdled in mid-summer can retain leaves throughout some or all of the rest of the growing season, but eventually die.

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Chap 33_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. False 9. False 10. False 11. d 12. b 13. a 14. c 15. a 16. e 17. a 18. c 19. d 20. a 21. e 22. b 23. c 24. a 25. a 26. c

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Chap 33_5e 27. e 28. a 29. e 30. d 31. e 32. d 33. e 34. b 35. b 36. d 37. c 38. a 39. d 40. b 41. b 42. c 43. d 44. b 45. b 46. b 47. e 48. c 49. c 50. b 51. c 52. e 53. d 54. e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 33_5e 55. c 56. b 57. c 58. c 59. a 60. a 61. b 62. e 63. e 64. c 65. a 66. e 67. e 68. d 69. d 70. c 71. e 72. c 73. d 74. d 75. b 76. c 77. e 78. a 79. a 80. d 81. a 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 33_5e 83. d 84. a 85. d 86. c 87. e 88. b 89. d 90. c 91. f 92. b 93. a 94. e 95. g 96. Initials are the daughter cells of a dividing apical meristem cell. This initial remains part of the meristem. A derivative, the other daughter cell, becomes the source of specialized cells. Initials are continually resupplied in the meristem. 97. A spring fire would damage “spring wood” and a summer would damage “summer wood.” These portions of an annual tree ring are distinguished by either being a light band (spring wood) or a dark band (summer wood). 98. Primary growth, which is found in all vascular plants, derives from apical meristems and results mainly in elongation of the plant in both the root and shoot systems. Secondary growth occurs in some plants, and when it does occur, it primarily increases the girth of the plant through growth that comes from the vascular cambium and the cork cambium. Woody tissues are a hallmark of secondary growth. 99. Unlike in eudicots where the most active growing region is internodes nearest a stem apex, in grasses cell division is limited to a meristematic region at the base of the internode. Damaging the apical meristem of a eudicot will result in branching rather than growth in height. Mowing does not damage the meristem, so the grasses grow in height rapidly after damage. 100. The tissue that would be damaged that would ultimately result in the death of the tree is vascular cambium and secondary phloem. This would prevent sugars produced during photosynthesis in leaves from reaching the tree’s roots. However, xylem tissue would be left intact and water would still be available to keep leaf stomata open and leaves turgid.

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Chap 34_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Rising air temperatures at the leaf surface can increase evaporation, although evaporation can also cool a leaf somewhat. a. True b. False 2. An ant that consumes the "honeydew" from an aphid's anus benefits by obtaining a source of carbon. a. True b. False 3. Root epidermal cells passively transport ions inward from the soil because the ions are unable to follow a concentration gradient into the cells. a. True b. False 4. The loss of water vapor from aerial plant parts is called evapotranspiration. a. True b. False 5. The root-to-shoot water flow in a plant is called the transpiration stream. a. True b. False 6. In plants, the long-distance transport of substances is called transpiration. a. True b. False 7. In some plants, companion cells become modified into phloem cells that facilitate the short-distance transport of various organic solutes from the symplast into the apoplast. a. True b. False 8. Translocation in sieve tubes requires passive transport. a. True b. False 9. The living portion of the pathway through which water travels through a root is called the apoplastic pathway. a. True b. False 10. In a wilted leaf, the protoplast has shrunk away from the cell wall. a. True b. False

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Chap 34_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. A plant stoma is found between two ____. a. leaves b. root hairs c. xylem veins d. trichomes e. guard cells 12. Consider a living plant cell in a living leaf that is not wilted. The pressure potential (ψP) of such a cell ____ that in the fluids surrounding the cell. a. is typically lower than b. varies widely from higher to lower than c. is typically higher than d. is typically about the same as e. is typically less negative than 13. Water can move inside a root via the ____. a. symplastic pathway only b. transmembrane and symplastic pathways c. transmembrane pathway only d. apoplastic, transmembrane, and symplastic pathways e. apoplastic pathway only 14. The hypothesis that high pressure forces phloem sap to flow was tested and supported by studies using ____. a. caterpillars b. radiolabeled hormones c. vacuum chambers d. aphids e. radiolabeled sugars 15. The most widely accepted and supported model that explains the movement of xylem sap is the ____ mechanism. a. cohesion–tension b. translocation c. pressure flow d. osmosis e. transpiration

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Chap 34_5e 16. What is the ψP of a living plant cell that has ψ = –0.2 MPa and ψS = –0.4 MPa? a. ψP = –0.6 MPa b. ψP = 0.08 MPa c. ψP = –0.2 MPa d. ψP = 0.2 MPa e. ψP = 0.5 MPa 17. In most plants, stomata are ____. a. open during the night and closed during the day b. nearly always open c. closed only when guard cells are not exposed to sunlight d. almost never open e. open during the day and closed during the night 18. Companion cells load most of the carbohydrates into sieve tube members ____. a. through plasmodesmata b. by osmosis c. by antiport d. through carrier proteins e. by symport 19. Metabolomics is based on the premise that ____. a. plant mitochondria are unique to harnessing ATP to develop alternative energy sources b. plant chloroplasts are unique to harnessing light for energy c. harnessing the 200,000 to 1 million different chemicals produced by plant metabolism for human needs is increasingly important d. plant metabolism is difficult to manipulate e. plant metabolism is simple to manipulate 20. A plant cell with a ψP = 0.2 MPa maintains a constant volume when bathed in a solution that has a ψS = –0.2 MPa and is in an open container. What do you know about the cell? a. The cell has a ψS = 0.4 MPa. b. The cell has a ψS = –0.2 MPa. c. The cell has a ψS = –0.4 MPa. d. The cell has aψ = –0.4 MPa. e. The cell has aψ = 0.2 MPa 21. Individual plant cells typically gain or lose water mainly via ____. a. facilitated diffusion b. symport c. guttation d. osmosis e. bulk flow Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 34_5e 22. Which factor has little effect on the rate of transpiration? a. air temperature b. relative humidity c. air movement d. the amount of direct solar radiation e. daily fluctuations in atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations 23. The Angel Oak on Johns Island, South Carolina, is estimated to be up to ____ years old. a. 300 b. 1,000 c. 1,400 d. 2,000 e. 2,400 24. The most prominent known role in the opening and closing of stomata is played by____ ions. a. Ca2+ b. Cl– c. K+ d. NH4+ e. Na+ 25. Theoretically, based on the cohesion–tension mechanism, the maximum height for the tallest trees should be about ____. a. 50 ft b. 130 m c. 6 ft d. 3 m e. 75 m 26. The movement of phloem sap is best described from the ____ to the ____. a. shoot system; root system b. sinks; sources c. root system; shoot system d. sources; sinks e. shoot system; sinks

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Chap 34_5e 27. In phloem movement, ____ does not serve as a source. a. photosynthesizing cells in a leaf b. roots c. photosynthesizing cells in a stem d. food storage cells in a stem e. soil 28. If the ψ of surrounding soil is higher than that in living root epidermal cells, then water should ____. a. leave the root cells, making them flaccid b. enter the root cells, making them turgid c. leave the root cells, making them turgid d. enter the root cells, making them flaccid e. None of these accurately describe water movement. 29. The movement of NH4+ ions into a cell down an electrochemical gradient created by H+ pumping is an example of ____. a. an ion pump b. passive diffusion c. facilitated diffusion d. secondary active transport e. passive transport 30. The movement of xylem sap is best described from the ____ to the ____. a. shoot system; root system b. sinks; sources c. root system; shoot system d. sources; sinks e. shoot system; sinks 31. The majority of the water in xylem sap typically ____. a. is used in capturing light energy b. becomes part of new plant cells c. is used to make sugars d. is stored in older plant cells e. evaporates into the air 32. The ____ prevent(s) important substances in the xylem from leaking into the root cortex. a. primary xylem b. root hairs c. endodermis d. tonoplasts e. pericycle Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 34_5e 33. Consider a living plant cell in a living leaf that is not wilted. The solute potential (ψS) of such a cell ____ that in the fluids surrounding the cell. a. is typically lower than b. varies widely from higher to lower than c. is typically higher than d. is typically about the same as e. is typically less negative than 34. In a living plant cell in a living plant, you would expect the cytoplasm to be ____. a. much more negatively charged than the fluid outside the cell b. essentially the same charge as the fluid outside the cell c. slightly more positively charged than the fluid outside the cell d. much more positively charged than the fluid outside the cell e. slightly more negatively charged than the fluid outside the cell 35. Loading of most carbohydrates produced by photosynthesis into companion cells at a source occurs by ____. a. osmosis b. proton pumping c. suction from unloading at a sink d. active transport e. diffusion of water from the xylem 36. Water that moves through nonliving regions of root, such as air spaces in root tissue, is following the ____. a. symplastic pathway only b. transmembrane and symplastic pathways c. transmembrane pathway only d. apoplastic, transmembrane, and symplastic pathways e. apoplastic pathway only 37. The general term for long-distance transport of substances in plants is called ____. a. cohesion–tension b. translocation c. pressure flow d. osmosis e. transpiration 38. Leaves on the lower part of a bush primarily feed the ____. a. roots b. leaf tips c. stems d. upper leaves e. flowers Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 34_5e 39. The main form in which sugars are transported in the phloem sap is ____. a. glucose b. lactose c. starch d. sucrose e. fructose 40. Stomata generally close in response to ____. a. the release of abscisic acid by the roots b. a drop in CO2 concentration in leaf air spaces c. exposure to red light d. a drop in O2 concentration in leaf air spaces e. an increase in CO2 concentration in the leaf air spaces 41. The longest limb on the Angel Oak on Johns Island, South Carolina, is ____. a. 10 m b. 17 m c. 40 m d. 57 m e. 75 m 42. Suppose two living plant cells are in contact with each other so that water, but not solutes, can pass between them. The cells have the same water potential. One cell has ψP = 0.3 MPa and ψS = –0.5 MPa, while the other cell has ψS = –0.3 MPa. What is the ψP of the second cell? a. ψP = –0.8 MPa b. ψP = 0 MPa c. ψP = 0.5 MPa d. ψP = 0.8 MPa e. ψP = 0.1 MPa 43. Suppose a living plant cell has ψP = 0.4 MPa and ψS = –0.5 MPa. If the plant cell is placed into a beaker filled with a solution with ψ = ψS = –0.9 MPa, then the cell should ____. a. take up water until it bursts b. lose water until its ψ = ψ of the solution c. take up water until within the cell ψP = –ψS d. take up water until its ψ = ψS of the solution e. lose water until its ψS = its ψP

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Chap 34_5e 44. Active transport in plant root cells requires that those cells have access to O2. Normally there is enough O2 available in air pockets in the soil, but flooded soil has very little O2. Thus, unless they have special adaptations, plants in flooded soil effectively have no active transport in their roots. Which of the following should you expect to occur for trees without special adaptations to flooding after several days in flooded soil? a. excess uptake of water and minerals in the xylem only b. wilting of their leaves c. bursting of leaf cells due to excess water flow d. excess water pushed out at the margins of their leaves only e. excess uptake of water and minerals in the xylem, and excess water pushed out at the margins of their leaves 45. The membrane potential refers to the ____ across a cell membrane. a. difference in water concentration b. charge difference c. rate of movement d. distance e. difference in salt concentration 46. Generally, the energy for pumping protons outside of a plant cell comes most directly from ____. a. sunlight b. starch c. ATP d. diffusion e. glucose 47. Consider a living plant cell in a living leaf that has a higher water potential than the fluids surrounding the cell. In such a situation there should be ____. a. a net flow of water out of the cell b. gain of water by the cell only if the cell's pressure potential is high enough c. no net flow of water into or out of the cell d. a net flow of water into the cell e. gain of water by the cell only if the cell's pressure potential is low enough 48. When solutes are unloaded from phloem, water ____. a. is pumped into the phloem by active transport b. leaves the xylem by osmosis c. moves into the phloem by facilitated diffusion d. is pumped out of the phloem by active transport e. leaves the phloem by osmosis

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Chap 34_5e 49. The principal driving force for guttation is ____. a. passive transport b. sunlight c. root pressure d. upward pressure as sugar is forced into the roots e. pumping by the xylem cells 50. If a living plant cell is placed in a beaker with pure water, it will take up water until ____. a. within the cell ψP = –ψS b. it bursts c. its ψP = 0 d. its ψS = ψS of the pure water e. its ψS = 0 51. In herbaceous plants, the stress-related closing of stomata is regulated by ____. a. sunlight b. ion concentrations in the xylem c. CO2 concentration d. O2 concentration e. abscisic acid 52. The most widely accepted and supported model that explains the movement of phloem sap in flowering plants is the ____ mechanism. a. Cohesion–tension b. translocation c. pressure flow d. osmosis e. transpiration 53. In a living plant cell in a living plant, you would expect to find protons ____. a. moving out of the cell via passive diffusion b. being actively pumped into the cell c. moving out of the cell via facilitated diffusion d. being actively pumped out of the cell e. moving into the cell via passive diffusion

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Chap 34_5e 54. Many plants wind up with a Na+ concentration that is considerably lower than that of the surrounding soil. Which of these plays a key role in allowing for such a difference to exist? a. water potential b. aquaporins c. root cap d. endodermis e. tonoplast 55. According to the cohesion–tension mechanism of water transport, ____ does not contribute to the flow of the xylem sap. a. hydrogen bonding between water molecules b. adhesion of water molecules to the xylem vessel walls c. evaporation of water from the leaves d. water potential in leaf cells below that of the leaf xylem e. root pressure 56. In CAM plants, such as cacti, stomata are ____. a. open during the night and closed during the day b. nearly always open c. closed only when guard cells are not exposed to sunlight d. almost never open e. open during the day and closed during the night 57. Sucrose moves into a cell against its concentration gradient at the same time that protons move into the cell along their concentration gradient. This is an example of ____. a. symport b. passive diffusion c. antiport d. facilitated diffusion e. active transport 58. Phloem does not transport ____. a. carbohydrates b. hormones c. amino acids d. fatty acids e. nitrate

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Chap 34_5e 59. Most mineral ions that plants need are moved into the ____. a. symplast via active transport b. transmembrane pathway via bulk flow c. apoplast via facilitated diffusion d. symplast via facilitated diffusion e. the apoplast via bulk flow 60. “Honeydew” is essentially ____. a. xylem sap forced out of the margins of leaves b. xylem sap harvested by honeybees c. phloem sap harvested as syrup d. xylem sap separated from syrup e. phloem sap leaving the anus of an aphid 61. Which plant organelle stores solutes and plays a major role in maintaining turgor pressure? a. nucleus b. cell wall c. chloroplast d. vacuole e. mitochondrion 62. When a cell contains enough water that the plasma membrane presses tightly against the cell wall, it is said to be ____. a. palsmolytic b. tight c. wilted d. full e. turgid 63. Aquaporins are ____. a. channel proteins for water b. carrier proteins for solutes c. channel proteins for solutes d. carrier proteins for water e. carrier proteins for water and solutes 64. The loss of water vapor from aboveground plant parts is called ____. a. passive transport b. transpiration c. root pressure d. evaporation e. sublimation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 34_5e 65. Sieve elements differentiate through a process called ____ that causes the destruction of certain cell structures. a. adsorption b. rotting c. ecdysis d. autolysis e. translocation 66. Stomata are opened when ____ guard cells and they become ____. a. active transport pumps H+ into; turgid b. active transport of H+ stops in; flaccid c. active transport pumps H+ out of; turgid d. active transport pumps H+ into; flaccid e. active transport of H+ stops in; turgid 67. When the protoplast shrinks away from the cell wall, it is called ____. a. plasmolysis b. tight c. wilted d. turgid e. full 68. Water that moves through living cells in a root is following the ____. a. symplastic pathway only b. transmembrane and symplastic pathways c. transmembrane pathway only d. apoplastic, transmembrane, and symplastic pathways e. apoplastic pathway only 69. Phloem sap would not be expected to contain ____. a. carbohydrates b. hormones c. water d. amino acids e. lipids

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Chap 34_5e 70. Water potential, the inherent capacity of water molecules to move from one site to another when conditions dictate, is typically represented by the Greek letter ____. a. α b. γ c. ψ d. π e. θ 71. Stomata close when ____ guard cells and they become ____. a. active transport pumps H+ into; turgid b. active transport of H+ stops in; flaccid c. active transport pumps H+ out of; turgid d. active transport pumps H+ into; flaccid e. active transport of H+ stops in; turgid 72. The major cost to plants for having cuticle-covered epidermis in the shoot system to reduce water loss is reduced ____ uptake. a. carbon dioxide b. potassium c. nitrogen d. calcium e. oxygen 73. Stomata open when K+ concentration in guard cells ____, followed by water ____ the guard cells by osmosis. a. increases; entering b. decreases; entering c. decreases; leaving d. increases; leaving e. increases H+; leaving 74. You would expect essentially no transpiration to occur in conditions of ____. a. brisk winds b. 100 percent relative humidity c. no winds d. one percent relative humidity e. hot air temperature and no winds

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Chap 34_5e 75. Experiments have shown that xylem sap transport peaks ____. a. in the early morning b. by mid-morning c. at midday d. in the evening e. overnight 76. An air temperature rise of 10°C will typically ____ evaporation from leaves. a. completely eliminate b. double the rate of c. mostly eliminate d. triple the rate of e. quadruple the rate of 77. Approximately ____ percent of water that enters a plant’s roots is used for photosynthesis and other parts of metabolism and growth. a. 1–3 b. 2–5 c. 5–10 d. 15–20 e. 25–30 78. Over ____ of analytes in plant samples identified from mass spectrometry are classified as “unknown.” a. 6% b. 16% c. 46% d. 60% e. 96% 79. Researchers in Finland determined the function of NAC proteins in the formation of ____. a. glucose b. root hairs c. chloroplasts d. xylem e. sieve tube elements 80. Suppose a living plant cell has ψ = ψS = –0.5 MPa. If the plant cell is placed into a beaker filled with a solution with ψ = 0, then the cell should ____. a. take up water until it bursts b. lose water until its ψ = ψ of the solution c. take up water until within the cell ψP = 0 d. take up water until its ψ = ψS of the solution e. lose water until its ψS = its ψP Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 34_5e 81. The Casparian strip of the endodermis stops water from the ____ before it reaches the stele. a. symplastic pathway only b. transmembrane and symplastic pathways c. transmembrane pathway only d. apoplastic, transmembrane, and symplastic pathways e. apoplastic pathway only 82. At a source, the phloem typically has a water potential that is ____ that in surrounding xylem. a. lower than b. about the same as c. higher than d. exactly the same as e. less negative than 83. Stomata generally open in response to ____. a. the release of abscisic acid by the roots b. a drop in CO2 concentration in leaf air spaces c. exposure to red light d. a drop in O2 concentration in leaf air spaces e. an increase in CO2 concentration in the leaf air spaces 84. If a living plant cell is placed in a beaker with a solution that has a ψ value lower than the ψ value of the plant cell, the plant cell will ____. a. take up water until it bursts b. lose water until its ψ = ψ of the solution c. take up water until within the cell ψP = –ψS d. take up water until its ψ = ψS of the solution e. lose water until its ψS = its ψP 85. A cell expends energy when moving substances against a gradient during ____. a. symport b. passive diffusion c. active transport d. facilitated diffusion e. antiport 86. In phloem movement, ____ cannot serve as a sink. a. young leaves b. young roots c. developing fruits d. tulip bulbs after the plant has bloomed e. soil Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 34_5e 87. According to the cohesion–tension mechanism of water transport, cohesion occurs because ____. a. waxy coatings on insides of xylem keep water molecules together in the xylem b. evaporation removes water from the leaves c. water molecules tend to form hydrogen bonds with each other d. water is pushed into the xylem by bulk flow e. water is pushed into the xylem by phloem pressure 88. The typical movement of xylem sap from roots to shoot parts is best described as ____. a. facilitated diffusion b. symport c. guttation d. osmosis e. bulk flow

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Chap 34_5e Examine the following figure. Match each letter of the figure with the appropriate structure.

Figure 34.8 A a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G 89. Xylem 90. Upper epidermis 91. Phloem 92. Lower epidermis 93. Cuticle 94. Spongy mesophyll 95. Palisade mesophyll 96. How does water move so rapidly across plant cell membranes?

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Chap 34_5e 97. Describe how NO3– is transported into a plant cell.

98. Explain why a dry, hot, breezy day can result in the leaves of certain plants having to completely replace their water each hour.

99. Explain what happens when NaCl and other salts build up in soils?

100. Discuss permeability in plant cell walls.

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Chap 34_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. False 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. False 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. e 12. c 13. d 14. d 15. c 16. d 17. e 18. a 19. c 20. c 21. d 22. e 23. c 24. c 25. b 26. d

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Chap 34_5e 27. e 28. b 29. d 30. c 31. e 32. c 33. a 34. e 35. d 36. e 37. b 38. a 39. d 40. a 41. d 42. e 43. b 44. b 45. b 46. c 47. a 48. e 49. c 50. a 51. e 52. c 53. d 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 34_5e 55. e 56. a 57. a 58. e 59. a 60. e 61. d 62. e 63. a 64. b 65. d 66. c 67. a 68. b 69. e 70. c 71. b 72. a 73. a 74. b 75. c 76. b 77. b 78. d 79. e 80. c 81. e 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 34_5e 83. b 84. b 85. c 86. e 87. c 88. a 89. e 90. b 91. d 92. g 93. a 94. f 95. c 96. Aquaporins are channel proteins that allow the bulk flow of water across cell membranes—a mechanism much speedier than normal osmosis. 97. Both of these ions are transferred by secondary active transport powered by a H+ gradient. NO3– moves into plant cells by a process called symport. Here, the potential energy released as H+ follows its gradient is coupled to the uptake of ions such a NO3–. 98. The lower the relative humidity, the lower (more negative) the water potential in the atmosphere. A hot day will speed evaporation at the leaf surface. Air moving across a leaf surface carries water vapor away. 99. The buildup of salts decreases soil water potential. Reducing soil water potential can lead to plant wilting, because the movement of water from the soil into the roots and up to the leaves depends on a water potential gradient. When soil water potential is at the wilting point, leaves will wilt. 100. The primary plant cell wall does not prevent most solutes from moving into plant cells. The majority of solutes can diffuse through the wall. However, some molecules such as proteins, RNAs, and virus particles cross the cell wall by way of plasmodesmata that connect adjacent cells.

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Chap 35_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. A square meter of fertile soil contains trillions of bacteria. a. True b. False 2. Ectomycorrhizae hyphae pass through the walls of the cells in the root cortex. a. True b. False 3. The size of soil particles is one of the major factors that determine how much water is available to plants. a. True b. False 4. The A horizon contains little, if any, organic matter. a. True b. False 5. Epiphytes are non-parasitic plants that grow on other plants. a. True b. False 6. Plants usually grow best in sandy soils. a. True b. False 7. Inadequate drainage can lead to a buildup of excess salts in the soil. a. True b. False 8. Carbon is rarely deficient in plants. a. True b. False 9. In arid regions, a deep root system is more common than a shallow-but-broad system. a. True b. False 10. Chlorosis is a condition that results in yellowed plant tissues. a. True b. False

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Chap 35_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Animals trapped and digested by "carnivorous" plants such as the cobra lily are used primarily as ____. a. an energy supplement during winter months b. a carbon source for the plant c. a nutrient supplement in nutrient-deficient environments d. food for bacteria and fungi that grow symbiotically with the plant roots e. an energy supplement for small plants growing in shady areas 12. The process of producing NH4+ from decaying organic material is called ____. a. nitrification b. ammonification c. nitrogen cycling d. nitrogen fixation e. nitrogen assimilation 13. Harrison and van Buuren used ____ to reveal the molecular basis of how mycorrhizae transport phosphate. a. proteins b. mRNA c. cDNA d. cRNA e. viruses 14. Soil mineral particles that are less than 0.002 mm in diameter are called ____. a. sand b. humus c. clay d. silt e. microparticles 15. In the process of nitrogen assimilation, ____ is converted to ____, which is then rapidly used to synthesize organic molecules. a. NH4+; NO3– b. N2; NO3– c. NO3–; NH4+ d. NH3; NH4+ e. NO3–; N2

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Chap 35_5e 16. The ____ both parasitizes other plants and performs photosynthesis. a. snow plant b. lady-of-the-night orchid c. mistletoe d. cobra lily e. dodder 17. The nutrients that a plant needs for normal growth and development are acquired through the ____. a. Sun b. rain c. leaves d. roots e. bark 18. A mutant soybean plant that is unable to produce leghemoglobin will most likely suffer from ____ deficiency. a. phosphorus b. magnesium c. potassium d. oxygen e. nitrogen 19. Legumes grown in sterile soil would be expected to have ____. a. purplish veins b. chlorosis and mottled or bronzed leaves c. chlorosis in older leaves and stunted growth d. burned leaf edges and curled, mottled, or spotted older leaves e. pale green, rolled, or cupped leaves 20. Roots obtain cations through cation exchange, where soil particles absorb ____ provided directly or indirectly by the root, and thus release cations. a. Cl– b. K+ c. H+ d. water e. CO2 21. Species of Rhizobium and Bradyrhizobium bacteria are most directly associated with ____. a. nitrification b. ammonification c. nitrogen cycling d. nitrogen fixation e. nitrogen assimilation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 35_5e 22. Soil mineral particles that range from 0.2–0.02 mm in diameter are called ____. a. fine sand b. humus c. clay d. silt e. coarse sand 23. Bacteroids are ____. a. specialized nitrifying bacteria b. small buds from ammonifying bacteria c. specialized bacteria that help some plant roots absorb phosphorus d. enlarged and immobilized nitrogen-fixing bacteria e. interactions between plant root hairs and bacteria 24. The most common limit to plant growth is a lack of ____. a. phosphorous b. carbon c. hydrogen d. oxygen e. nitrogen 25. The ____ horizon is the most fertile soil layer, where the roots of most herbaceous plants are located? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. O 26. Which element is not considered an essential micronutrient for plants in general, but is required by horsetails and perhaps some grasses such as wheat? a. gold b. boron c. silicon d. zinc e. magnesium 27. Soil mineral particles that range from 0.02–0.002 mm in diameter are called ____. a. fine sand b. humus c. clay d. silt e. coarse sand Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 35_5e 28. Most plants absorb nitrogen in the form of ____. a. NH4+ b. CN c. N2 d. NH3 e. NO3– 29. The ____ horizon is usually light in color and contains little organic matter. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. O 30. Which characteristic is not true for an essential element? a. It may play only one role in plant metabolism. b. It is necessary for normal growth and reproduction. c. It may be contained in plant seeds in high enough quantities to sustain the adult plant. d. Occasionally, it can be functionally replaced by another element. e. It may be required in only trace amounts. 31. The surfaces of clay particles in soil ____. a. often bear positively charged ions b. release water to plants easily c. often bear negatively charged ions d. are generally hydrophobic e. acidify the soil 32. Which element is considered an essential micronutrient for plants? a. calcium b. lithium c. sulfur d. nickel e. oxygen 33. What element is considered an essential macronutrient for plants? a. gold b. manganese c. chromium d. nitrogen e. copper Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 35_5e 34. Farmers often grow legumes such as soybeans every few years and plow much of the plant parts into the soil. This practice serves mainly to replenish the soil with useful forms of ____. a. carbon b. nitrogen c. phosphorus d. oxygen e. manganese 35. What soil component is most important for retaining water in soil for use by plants? a. sand b. humus c. clay d. silt e. rock 36. Most plants would grow best in a soil with ____. a. very small air spaces b. relatively large air spaces c. air spaces filled almost entirely with water d. various sizes of air spaces e. no air spaces 37. Experiments have shown that even if it is supplied by no other means, plants near the ocean can get enough of the essential micronutrient ____ from the air, and plants can also get this essential micronutrient from sweat from a person’s hands. a. sulfur b. manganese c. chlorine d. magnesium e. sodium 38. Which element is considered an essential micronutrient for plants? a. zinc b. potassium c. hydrogen d. arsenic e. platinum

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Chap 35_5e 39. Which element is considered an essential macronutrient for plants? a. oxygen b. boron c. lithium d. silicon e. molybdenum 40. The ____ horizon tends to accumulate mineral ions but relatively little organic matter, and is generally penetrated by mature tree roots? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. O 41. Studies of a soybean plant (Glycine max) and the bacterium Bradyrhizobium japonicum have shown that the tip of a root hair curls toward the bacterium in response to ____. a. a flavonoid released by soybean roots b. nod gene products produced by soybean roots c. nod gene products produced by the bacterium d. nitrogen fixation by the bacterium e. a flavonoid produced by the bacterium 42. Which substance is not released by plant roots to enable and improve access to particular nutrients in the soil? a. amino acids b. carbohydrates c. enzymes d. fatty acids e. carbon dioxide 43. You might infer from packages of commercial fertilizer that which nutrients are most limiting to plant growth? a. carbon, nitrogen, and phosphorous b. nitrogen, phosphorous, and potassium c. hydrogen, phosphorus, and magnesium d. iron, magnesium, and nitrogen e. phosphorus, potassium, and calcium

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Chap 35_5e 44. Hydroponic culture is the process of ____. a. growing plants in pure water mixed with carefully measured amounts of specific minerals b. irrigation of dry areas to improve mineral absorption by plants c. growing plants in ponds and lakes to improve their access to water, allowing the plants to place more resources into the shoot system d. irrigation of dry areas to prevent crop plants from wilting e. growing plants with specific hydrocarbons added to the soil to test the effect on plant growth 45. Soil particles composed of decomposing organic matter are called ____. a. sand b. humus c. silt d. clay e. mineral 46. Harrison and van Buuren identified a phosphate transport protein in Glomus, which is a ____. a. carnivorous plant b. bacterium that parasitizes plants c. mycorrhizal fungus d. bacteroid e. parasitic plant 47. Which element is considered an essential micronutrient for plants? a. phosphorus b. silver c. molybdenum d. carbon e. lead 48. Leaf chlorosis is not likely to be caused by a deficiency in ____. a. nitrogen b. magnesium c. iron d. zinc e. boron 49. Mycorrhizae are ____. a. intertwined roots of different species of plants b. connecting points between branching roots c. symbiotic associations between a fungus and plant roots d. specialized root hairs e. localized swellings in plant roots filled with nitrogen-fixing bacteria Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 35_5e 50. Root nodules are ____. a. intertwined roots of different species of plants b. connecting points between branching roots c. symbiotic associations between a fungus and plant roots d. specialized root hairs e. localized swellings in plant roots filled with nitrogen-fixing bacteria 51. The soils in which most plants do best are ____. a. mixtures of mainly sand and silt b. sandy soils c. soils made mostly of humus d. clay soils e. loams 52. The process in which NH4+ is oxidized to NO3– is called ____. a. nitrification b. ammonification c. nitrogen cycling d. nitrogen fixation e. nitrogen assimilation 53. Epiphytes are ____. a. plants that are not parasites but that do grow on other plants instead of the soil b. plants that trap animals and digest them c. parasitic plants that use mycorrhizae to obtain nutrients and food indirectly from other plants d. plants that deal with nutrient-deficient soil by growing a large, netlike mesh of roots through several layers of the soil e. parasitic plants that use haustoria to obtain nutrients and food directly from other plants 54. A common consequence of nutrient deficiencies in plants is chlorosis, which is ____. a. wilting due to a lack of chlorine in leaves b. death of the growing tips c. premature loss of leaves d. bursting of cells from excess water uptake due to an inability to clear chlorine from them e. yellowing of plant tissues due to a lack of chlorophyll 55. Which element is considered an essential micronutrient for plants? a. gold b. carbon c. uranium d. nitrogen e. copper Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 35_5e 56. What macronutrient is rarely deficient? a. carbon b. hydrogen c. oxygen d. zinc e. carbon dioxide 57. Haustorial roots of dodders and other nonphotosynthetic, parasitic plants rob the host plant of ____. a. sugars only b. minerals only c. water only d. sugars and minerals only e. sugars, minerals, and water 58. If nitrifying bacteria were not present in a soil, plants would ____. a. take up nitrogen for their use mainly as NH4+ b. not survive because they could not get useful nitrogen c. take up nitrogen for their use mainly as N2 d. take up nitrogen for their use mainly as NH3 e. take up nitrogen for their use mainly as NO3– 59. Imagine that you are a farmer who chose not to rotate your crops with soybeans even though the local extension agent recommended that you do so. Which deficiency symptom in your crops should indicate to you that the extension agent's advice was correct? a. chlorosis and mottled or bronzed leaves b. burned leaf edges and curled, mottled, or spotted older leaves c. purplish veins d. pale green, rolled, or cupped leaves e. chlorosis in older leaves and stunted growth 60. Scientists are attempting to genetically modify rice so that it will not incorporate ____ into the grains. a. arsenic b. methylmercury c. chelated iron d. lead e. uranium hexafluoride

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Chap 35_5e 61. Leghemoglobin, which contains an iron-containing heme group, is used to ____. a. remove O2 from roots b. produce H2O from O2 c. limit O2 entry into the nodule d. transport O2 in the xylem e. produce O2 from H2O 62. Which of the following is mostly performed by bacteria living within the roots of plants in the legume family? a. nitrification b. ammonification c. nitrogen cycling d. nitrogen fixation e. nitrogen assimilation 63. What element is considered an essential macronutrient for plants? a. zinc b. uranium c. iron d. nickel e. carbon 64. The process of adding hydrogen to N2, creating NH3 and eventually NH4+, and which requires a substantial input of ATP, is called ____. a. nitrification b. ammonification c. nitrogen cycling d. nitrogen fixation e. nitrogen assimilation 65. The enzyme nitrogenase is irreversibly inhibited by low concentrations of ____. a. O2 b. NO3– c. N2 d. CO2 e. NH4+

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Chap 35_5e 66. The enzyme nitrogenase is most directly involved in the process called ____. a. nitrification b. ammonification c. nitrogen cycling d. nitrogen fixation e. nitrogen assimilation 67. Mycorrhizae, present for most plant species, generally do not help roots with the uptake of ____. a. water b. nitrogen c. phosphate d. carbon e. sugars 68. A soil that is mostly ____ will tend to dry quickly compared to other soil types. a. sand b. humus c. clay d. silt e. organic matter 69. Plant tissues are more than 90% ____ by weight. a. carbohydrates b. water c. carbon d. nitrogen e. cellulose 70. Studies of a soybean plant (Glycine max) and the bacterium Bradyrhizobium japonicum have shown that after the bacterium enters the root, cells of the root cortex begin to divide in response to ____. a. a flavonoid released by soybean roots b. nod gene products produced by soybean roots c. nod gene products produced by the bacterium d. nitrogen fixation by the bacterium e. a flavonoid produced by the bacterium

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Chap 35_5e 71. Plants can generally absorb and make use of nitrogen in the form of ____. a. NO3– only b. both NO3– and NH4+ c. NH4+ only d. N2 only e. both N2 and NH4+ 72. A soil with roughly equal amounts of humus, silt, clay, and sand is called a ____. a. topsoil b. loam c. subsoil d. compost e. oversoil 73. Areas that receive heavy rainfall tend to have ____ soils, and arid regions tend to have ____ soils. a. acidic; alkaline b. pH-neutral; acidic c. alkaline; acid d. acidic; pH-neutral e. pH-neutral; alkaline 74. Plants are able to generate all of the substances they need for their metabolism using energy from the ____. a. soil b. air c. root d. Sun e. rain 75. Research in Colorado’s San Juan Mountains has illustrated that in comparison to stands of lodgepole pine and Englemann spruce, stands of trembling aspen are not likely to ____. a. grow in warmer soil b. grow in soil with higher nitrate concentrations c. be associated with different arrays of soil-dwelling organisms d. allow more sunlight to reach the soil surface e. retain their leaves through the winter

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Chap 35_5e 76. Phytoremediation is ____. a. rotating crops so that soil minerals are replenished b. replacing eroded topsoil so that plants can grow in the soil again c. plowing under all or parts of crops to improve the soil d. the use of plants to remove pollutants from the environment e. replacing unwanted plants with plants useful to humans 77. The ____ horizon extends to the underlying bedrock, and consists of mineral particles and rock fragments but generally no organic material? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. O 78. Plants having the ability to take up organic nitrogen are most likely to be found in the ____. a. arctic tundra b. salt marsh c. tropical forest d. grassland e. temperate forest

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Chap 35_5e Choose the appropriate category of general plant nutritional requirement for each element given below. a. nonmineral macronutrient b. mineral macronutrient c. micronutrient d. not generally considered an essential nutrient 79. manganese 80. gold 81. oxygen 82. nickel 83. sulfur 84. magnesium 85. carbon 86. arsenic 87. calcium 88. iron 89. chlorine 90. lithium 91. zinc 92. potassium

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Chap 35_5e Examine the following figure. Match each letter of the figure with the appropriate soil layer

Figure 35.4 Soil horizons in a grassland. a. A b. B c. C 93. Subsoil 94. Topsoil 95. Parent material 96. Nutrients clearly limit the growth of plants. Explain four ways that plants have adapted to increase access to nutrients and what limits the association from becoming more common.

97. What is the potential significance of root exudates?

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Chap 35_5e 98. What deficiency symptom is common among plants with inadequate levels of nitrogen, magnesium, iron, zinc, or copper? What characteristics would be seen in the plants’ leaves?

99. Why might a soil that has a sufficient concentration of a mineral element—for example, calcium—not have sufficient availability of the element to maximize plant growth rates?

100. Why are hydroponics used in mineral nutrition experiments examining essential elements?

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Chap 35_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. c 12. b 13. c 14. c 15. c 16. c 17. d 18. e 19. c 20. c 21. d 22. a 23. d 24. e 25. a 26. c

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Chap 35_5e 27. d 28. e 29. b 30. d 31. c 32. d 33. d 34. b 35. b 36. d 37. c 38. a 39. a 40. b 41. c 42. e 43. b 44. a 45. b 46. c 47. c 48. e 49. c 50. e 51. e 52. a 53. a 54. e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 35_5e 55. e 56. a 57. e 58. a 59. e 60. a 61. c 62. d 63. e 64. d 65. a 66. d 67. d 68. a 69. b 70. c 71. b 72. b 73. a 74. d 75. e 76. d 77. c 78. a 79. c 80. d 81. a 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 35_5e 83. b 84. b 85. a 86. d 87. b 88. c 89. c 90. d 91. c 92. b 93. b 94. a 95. c 96. Mycorrhizal associations are very common in plants. This plant root-fungal association promotes the uptake of water and some essential ions, especially phosphate. Presumably, even though there is a carbon cost to the plant to maintain the association, its commonness suggests that the benefits are great. Nitrogen-fixing plants are plants that form a bacterial mutualistic association with the roots of plants in the legume family. While the legume family contains many species, this association is relatively rare. Presumably, this association is not more common, that is, found in many species in many families, because it is costly to the plant. Some plants supplement their mineral nutritional requirements by digesting animals. Presumably, this adaptation is evolutionarily restricted to very nutrient poor environments. Other plants have evolved mechanisms to parasitize other plant species to obtain nutrients, including in some cases, sugars. There are many species of epiphytes, which grow on other plants and trap falling debris or water, where the roots absorb nutrients from it as the litter decomposes. Finally, some plant species have been found to take up organic nutrients in the form of amino acids. Like carnivorous plants, this adaptation appears to be very restricted to nutrient poor environments, although this phenomenon has just started to be examined. 97. Root exudates are organic compounds such as carbohydrates, enzymes, and other proteins that are released into the soil by roots. These root exudates may improve a plant’s access to particular nutrients. Root exudates may also promote the growth of soil organisms that convert nitrogen into a chemical form plant roots can absorb. 98. Chlorosis is a symptom in plants with inadequate levels of nitrogen, magnesium, iron, zinc, or copper. Chlorosis is associated with light-green newer leaves and older leaves that are yellow and die. 99. Chemical reactions in soils are dependent on soil pH. If the pH is too high or too low, the nutrient element can be in a form that is unavailable to roots. Therefore, pH can have a major impact on whether plant roots take up various mineral cations, independent of the concentration on the mineral element in the soil.

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Chap 35_5e 100. Soil is a mix of complex mineral particles, so using soils collected in the field would not work because you could not be sure of systematically omitting specific essential elements and the processes related to soil nutrients, including the activity of bacteria and fungi. Even if you had sterile soil and could keep it sterile, soil characteristics affect the availability of nutrient elements independent of concentration; for example, cation exchange.

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Chap 36_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. In plants, but not animals, each daughter cell differentiates and becomes specialized for its particular function. a. True b. False 2. A flower develops from the end of the floral shoot, called the receptacle. a. True b. False 3. A fruit is a matured or ripened ovary. a. True b. False 4. Vegetative reproduction is rare in nature. a. True b. False 5. All imperfect flowers are also incomplete. a. True b. False 6. Cells removed from callus that can grow into plantlets illustrates that differentiated cells can be returned to a totipotent state. a. True b. False 7. The process by which plants produce seeds begins with fertilization. a. True b. False 8. When a plant zygote first forms, it starts to develop and elongate after mitosis begins. a. True b. False 9. Animals grow mainly by increasing the number of body cells, while plants grow mainly by increasing cell size. a. True b. False 10. Strawberries are accessory fruits. a. True b. False

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Chap 36_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. The micropyle is ____. a. the mature male gametophyte b. the inner seed coat c. a small opening at one end of an ovule d. a passageway through the style for sperm e. the eight-cell stage of a plant embryo 12. The Bartlett pear and McIntosh apples are example of commercially important fruits that come from plants produced by ____. a. fragmentation b. tissue culture c. somaclonal selection d. grafting e. apomixes 13. The first complete plant genome to be sequenced was that of ____. a. Phaseolus vulgaris (kidney bean) b. Arabidopsis thaliana (thale cress) c. Zea mays (corn) d. Capsella burse-pastoris (shepherd's purse) e. Oryza sativa (rice) 14. Along with the egg, in the part of an embryo sac next to the micropyle you should find ____. a. the central cell b. a seed c. the pollen tube d. synergids e. antipodal cells 15. Unlike most angiosperms, Theobroma cacao flowers are produced ____. a. at the tips of floral shoots b. from buds on the roots c. from buds on the tree trunk d. asexually e. only on trees grown on plantations

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Chap 36_5e 16. For a typical flowering plant, the first cell of the triploid (3n) endosperm is formed from ____. a. one sperm fused with two antipodal cells b. two sperm fused with the egg c. one sperm fused with the synergid d. one sperm fused with the endosperm mother cell e. two sperm fused with a synergid 17. The female gametophyte in flowering plants usually consists of ____. a. a complete pistil b. seven cells embedded in floral tissues c. a single ovary d. a seed e. shoot parts bearing female flowers 18. In flowering plants an ovary is part of a(n) ____. a. corolla b. ovule c. calyx d. stamen e. carpel 19. Studies have shown that in the flowering plant Arabidopsis the root-shoot axis is established ____. a. by the first cell division of the embryo b. within hours after the seed germinates c. during the torpedo stage of embryonic development d. shortly after the eight-cell embryo stage e. by plant tissues breaking through the seed coat and making contact with soil 20. A fruit that develops from several ovaries in multiple flowers, such as a pineapple, is called a(n) ____. a. aggregate fruit b. accessory fruit c. multiple fruit d. simple fruit e. compound fruit 21. Many fully differentiated plant cells are totipotent, meaning that they ____. a. will grow roots if they touch the ground b. will perform photosynthesis if exposed to sunlight c. can fertilize an egg d. have the potential to form a whole, fully functional plant e. can undergo meiosis

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Chap 36_5e 22. Meiosis in flowering plants gives rise to cells that are ____. a. haploid gametophytes b. diploid sporophytes c. sporophytes that can be haploid or diploid d. diploid gametophytes e. haploid sporophytes 23. The end of floral shoot where a flower develops is called the ____. a. ovule b. calyx c. receptacle d. filament e. carpel 24. The male gametophyte in flowering plants forms in a ____. a. corolla b. receptacle c. stamen d. calyx e. carpel 25. After fertilization in flowering plants, an embryo in a seed ____. a. begins as a gametophyte and ends up as a sporophyte before germination b. is always a sporophyte c. is usually a gametophyte but can be a sporophyte d. begins as a sporophyte and ends up as a gametophyte before germination e. is always a gametophyte 26. Why do most plants produce large numbers of seeds? a. Most seeds are not viable. b. Most of a plant’s seeds are produced as food for animals that disperse the seed. c. Most plants have many flowers. d. Most plants only flower once e. Few seeds survive, germinate and grow into mature individuals. 27. A fruit, such as a strawberry, that develops from tissues of the receptacle as well as the ovary would be considered a(n) ____. a. aggregate fruit b. accessory fruit c. multiple fruit d. simple fruit e. compound fruit Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 36_5e 28. Unlike in animal meiosis, meiosis in plants gives rise to ____. a. diploid spores b. haploid spores c. diploid gametes d. haploid gametes e. cells without walls 29. In a flower, an anther is typically at the tip of a(n) ____. a. calyx b. receptacle c. carpel d. filament e. ovule 30. The sepals of a flower make up the ____. a. receptacle b. corolla c. carpel d. calyx e. filament 31. Which of the following occurs for the production of a pollen grain from a microspore mother cell? a. mitosis only b. mitosis, then meiosis c. mitosis, then meiosis, then mitosis d. meiosis only e. meiosis, then mitosis 32. Which of the following is an unusual event that occurs as trichomes differentiate? a. DNA replication b. endoduplication c. cell expansion d. mitosis e. regulation of the cell cycle 33. The onset of the growth of a plant embryo, termed ____, starts when the seed begins to soak up water. a. imbibition b. hatching c. splitting d. germination e. gestation

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Chap 36_5e 34. The parts of a flower most likely to have distinctive colors, patterning, and shapes for attracting pollinators are the ____. a. petals b. carpels c. stamens d. receptacles e. sepals 35. Chemical cues that help guide a developing pollen tube toward an ovule are released by the ____. a. antipodal cells b. synergids c. egg d. central cell e. sperm 36. Which part of a flower is typically the most leaf like, and when green can carry out photosynthesis? a. carpels b. receptacles c. sepals d. petals e. stamens 37. A flower with petals, sepals, and one carpel but no stamens is ____. a. perfect and incomplete b. imperfect and complete c. imperfect and incomplete d. perfect and complete e. sterile 38. A plant species where each plant makes some flowers that are male and some that are female is called a ____ species and always has ____ flowers. a. monoecious; complete b. dioecious; imperfect c. dioecious; complete d. monoecious; imperfect e. monoecious; perfect 39. The structure between the carpel and stigma is the ____. a. stamen b. sepal c. style d. ovary e. anther Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 36_5e 40. A plant species where each plant can only make either male or female flowers is called a ____ species and always has ____ flowers. a. monoecious; complete b. dioecious; imperfect c. dioecious; complete d. monoecious; imperfect e. monoecious; perfect 41. Almost immediately after a young leaf primordium first begins to bulge out ____. a. undifferentiated vascular tissues that will later become xylem and phloem penetrate it b. small xylem vessels penetrate it first, followed soon after by phloem c. small phloem vessels penetrate it first, followed soon after by xylem d. small xylem and phloem vessels penetrate it together e. specialized vascular tissue cells penetrate and soon differentiate into phloem or xylem vessels 42. In the part of an embryo sac farthest away from the micropyle you should find ____. a. the central cell b. a seed c. the pollen tube d. synergids e. antipodal cells 43. The growth of a new plant on the margin of a leaf that eventually falls to the ground and grows independently is an example of ____. a. fragmentation b. protoplast fusion c. somaclonal selection d. grafting e. apomixes 44. Joining a scion with useful fruit traits to a stock with useful root traits is called ____. a. fragmentation b. protoplast fusion c. somaclonal selection d. grafting e. apomixes

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Chap 36_5e 45. When pollen from one species lands on the stigma of a flower from another species, the pollen tube typically ____. a. does not develop b. forms, but the sperm cannot penetrate the egg c. forms and grows to the ovary, but then stops d. forms, but the sperm are killed e. forms and the egg is usually fertilized, but the embryo rarely grows 46. In flowering plants, how many egg cells are typically produced from each megaspore mother cell? a. one b. two c. three d. four e. eight 47. Where in a flowering plant should you expect meiosis to occur? a. leaves b. roots and leaves c. flowers d. flowers, roots, and leaves e. roots 48. The fruit wall, or pericarp, develops from the ____. a. ovary wall b. petals c. seed coat d. endosperm e. receptacle 49. The female gametophyte in flowering plants forms in a _____. a. calyx b. carpel c. receptacle d. corolla e. stamen

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Chap 36_5e 50. Flowering plants ____. a. only reproduce asexually b. produce clones through sexual reproduction, and under certain circumstances seeds through asexual reproduction c. reproduce asexually about half the time and sexually about half the time d. only reproduce sexually e. produce seeds through sexual reproduction, and under certain circumstances clones through asexual reproduction 51. The oldest cells in a mature leaf are found ____. a. at the base of the leaf b. near the very center of the leaf c. at the stomata d. at the leaf tip e. as files of cells at the widest point of the leaf 52. A(n) ____ provides nutrients in germinating seedlings of eudicots. a. suspensor b. epicotyl c. hypocotyl d. endosperm e. cotyledon 53. In Arabidopsis the gene TRIPTYCHON is involved in determining ____. a. how closely trichomes will develop to each other b. whether or not trichomes are formed c. which side of a leaf will have trichomes d. the number of branches of a trichome e. cell division within trichomes 54. Which of the following is the main reason why pollen withstands decay much better than typical plant parts? a. hemicellulose b. sporopollenin c. lignin d. cellulose e. pectin

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Chap 36_5e 55. Studies have shown that in the flowering plant Arabidopsis the development of parts of a flower is governed by ____. a. differential uptake of hormone signals from the leaves b. the oxygen gradient from outside to inside of the closed flower c. differentiation of cell types as they are formed from the apical meristem d. the timing of cell division e. the expression patterns of several floral organ homeotic genes 56. The male reproductive whorl of a flower typically consists of one or more ____. a. petals b. carpels c. stamens d. receptacles e. sepals 57. Growing useful mutants that develop from callus culture is called ____. a. fragmentation b. protoplast fusion c. somaclonal selection d. grafting e. apomixes 58. The innermost whorl of a flower typically consists of one or more ____. a. petals b. carpels c. stamens d. receptacles e. sepals 59. Approximately ____ genes have been identified in the genome of Arabidopsis thaliana. a. 5,400 b. 28,000 c. 67,000 d. 120,000 e. 3,200,000 60. A fruit that develops from a single ovary, such as a peach, in a single flower is called a(n) _____. a. aggregate fruit b. accessory fruit c. multiple fruit d. simple fruit e. compound fruit Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 36_5e 61. Studies have shown that in the flowering plant Arabidopsis whether or not a root epidermal cell develops a root hair is determined ____. a. by the distance of the cell from the root tip b. from the timing of cell division c. by positional information from cells of the root cortex d. shortly after the eight-cell embryo stage e. by the direction of cell division 62. Fleshy fruits, such as blueberries, usually aid seed dispersal by ____. a. catching in the hair or feathers of animals b. being buried by animals c. falling directly under the parent plant d. floating away from the parent plant e. being eaten by animals 63. The female reproductive whorl of a flower typically consists of one or more ____. a. petals b. carpels c. stamens d. receptacles e. sepals 64. Once a pollen tube lands on a compatible stigma ____. a. chemical cues guide the pollen tube from the stigma to the embryo sac of an ovule b. that pollen tube continues on to another ovule c. other pollen tubes are attracted to that ovule d. other pollen tubes can penetrate that ovule more easily e. the flower dies to prevent further pollination 65. A flower with petals, sepals, stamens, and one carpel is ____. a. perfect and incomplete b. imperfect and complete c. imperfect and incomplete d. perfect and complete e. sterile 66. Self-incompatibility in flowering plants is a biochemical recognition and rejection process that prevents ____. a. both self-fertilization and self-pollination b. self-pollination and occasionally prevents self-fertilization c. self-fertilization but not self-pollination d. self-pollination but not self-fertilization e. self-fertilization and occasionally prevents self-pollination Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 36_5e 67. The petals of a flower make up the ____. a. corolla b. filament c. ovule d. calyx e. receptacle 68. The process of asexual reproduction where a diploid embryo develops from an unfertilized egg or from diploid cells in ovule tissue is called ____. a. fragmentation b. protoplast fusion c. somaclonal selection d. grafting e. apomixes 69. A flower with carpels and stamens but no petals or sepals is ____. a. perfect and incomplete b. imperfect and complete c. imperfect and incomplete d. perfect and complete e. sterile 70. A fruit that develops from several ovaries in a single flower, such as a raspberry, is called a(n) ____. a. aggregate fruit b. accessory fruit c. multiple fruit d. simple fruit e. compound fruit 71. Unique to flowering plants, the making of an embryo-nourishing ____ is an outcome of double fertilization. a. hypocotyl b. endosperm c. seed coat d. cotyledon e. epicotyl 72. The female gametophyte in flowering plants is the ____. a. ovary b. seed c. embryo sac d. megasporocyte e. ovule Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 36_5e 73. In flowering plants, the gametophytes are ____. a. smaller than the sporophytes and do not nourish themselves b. smaller than the sporophytes but are free-living and nourish themselves for most of their lives c. usually larger than the sporophytes, and free-living d. usually larger than the sporophytes, and both nourish themselves e. roughly equal in size tosporophytes and both nourish themselves 74. Which of the following are the male gametophytes in flowering plants? a. stamens b. sperm c. shoot parts bearing male flowers d. pollen grains e. anthers 75. Which of the following it the most typical order of events in seed germination? a. shoot cells divide and elongate ® root cells divide and elongate ® seed coat splits ® water imbibition b. water imbibition ® seed coat splits ® root cells divide and elongate ® shoot cells divide and elongate c. water imbibition ® root cells divide and elongate ® seed coat splits ® shoot cells divide and elongate d. seed coat splits ® water imbibition ® root cells divide and elongate ® shoot cells divide and elongate e. seed coat splits ® water imbibition ® shoot cells divide and elongate ® root cells divide and elongate 76. The direction of expansion for a plant cell is determined primarily by ____. a. location of the cell plate b. the direction of cell division c. the direction to the nearest meristem d. orientation of cellulose microfibrils e. gravity 77. The outermost whorl of a flower typically consists of one or more ____. a. petals b. carpels c. stamens d. receptacles e. sepals 78. The embryonic root, which is where the pollen tube enters the ovule prior to fertilization, is called the ____. a. suspensor b. epicotyl c. hypocotyl d. endosperm e. cotyledon

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Chap 36_5e 79. Which process is not a method of asexual reproduction? a. production of new plants at nodes along stolons in strawberries b. humans growing trees from cuttings c. production of new plants at nodes along underground rhizomes in Bermuda grass d. buds from an underground stem of an onion e. self-fertilization 80. In flowering plants, how many sperm cells are typically produced from each microspore mother cell? a. one b. two c. three d. four e. eight 81. The landing platform for pollen in flowering plants is the ____. a. filament b. stigma c. anther d. style e. ovary 82. How is pollen tube elongation facilitated? a. Pollen tube growth relies on chemical signals released by the pollen grain. b. Pollen tube elongation will occur as long as the pistil provides moisture and energy. c. Chemical cues from female tissues help guide pollen tube growth, but the identity of these chemicals is not known. d. All the details of the chemical interactions between the pollen tube and pistil tissue have been elucidated and are well-described. e. Pollen tube elongation occurs only in the absence of chemical cues from the female tissues.

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Chap 36_5e Examine the following figure. Match each letter of the figure with the appropriate structure.

a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G h. H 83. receptacle 84. anther 85. style 86. stigma 87. petal 88. filament 89. sepal 90. ovule

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Chap 36_5e Match each of the following flower parts with its description. a. encloses and protects all other flower parts before the flower opens b. male reproductive parts c. female reproductive parts d. often showy parts that function in attracting bees or other animal pollinators e. all of the sepals combined 91. petals 92. carpels 93. sepals 94. stamens 95. calyx 96. Describe the process of double fertilization in flowering plants.

97. Describe the benefits of self-incompatibility and self-compatibility.

98. Describe several ways that fruits can aid seed dispersal.

99. Describe the process of how four different embryo sac cells become differentiated.

100. Plant cells have a ridged cell wall. How do plant cells expand, and how important is cell expansion to plant growth?

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Chap 36_5e Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. False 9. False 10. True 11. c 12. b 13. b 14. d 15. c 16. d 17. b 18. e 19. a 20. c 21. d 22. a 23. c 24. c 25. b 26. e

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Chap 36_5e 27. b 28. b 29. d 30. d 31. e 32. b 33. d 34. a 35. b 36. c 37. c 38. d 39. c 40. b 41. c 42. e 43. a 44. d 45. a 46. a 47. c 48. a 49. b 50. e 51. d 52. e 53. d 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 36_5e 55. e 56. c 57. c 58. b 59. b 60. d 61. c 62. e 63. b 64. a 65. d 66. c 67. a 68. e 69. a 70. a 71. b 72. c 73. a 74. d 75. b 76. d 77. e 78. d 79. e 80. e 81. b 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 36_5e 83. a 84. d 85. g 86. e 87. f 88. c 89. b 90. h 91. d 92. c 93. a 94. b 95. e 96. In flowering plants fertilization is typically a double event. In one event a single sperm joins with a single egg, creating a diploid cell that will become the embryo. In the other event a single sperm joins with the central cell of the embryo sac; the central cell begins with two nuclei, so this joining produces a triploid cell. This triploid cell gives rise to endosperm, a tissue that provides nourishment for the developing embryo. 97. A benefit of self-incompatibility is that it prevents inbreeding. Inbreeding can result in deleterious mutations. Selfincompatibility promotes genetic variation by increasing the probability of outcrossing. Self-compatibility can benefit a plant population by preserving adaptive traits. In addition, a self-compatible plant does not have to rely on wind or animals for pollination, and therefore can ensure that seeds can form. 98. In flowering plants fertilization is typically a double event. In one event a single sperm joins with a single egg, creating a diploid cell that will become the embryo. In the other event a single sperm joins with the central cell of the embryo sac; the central cell begins with two nuclei, so this joining produces a triploid cell. This triploid cell gives rise to endosperm, a tissue that provides nourishment for the developing embryo. 99. A major factor in determining the roles and identities of cells and nuclei within the embryo sac is auxin. During mitosis, an auxin gradient forms along what will become the embryo sac. The amount of auxin present determines what type of cell will be produced during subsequent rounds of mitosis. For example, antipodal cells develop in areas where the concentration of auxin is the lowest. 100. The cellulose meshwork of primary cell wall of a plant must loosen for a plant cell to expand. Turgor pressure supplies the force for expansion. The loosening of the cell wall is associated with a drop in pH, but the exact mechanism for loosening is not known. Cell expansion is very important for plant growth. An individual plant cell can expand to 100 times it embryonic length.

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Chap 37_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. The most widely accepted hypothesis for gravitropism proposes that plants detect gravity much the same way animals detect gravity. a. True b. False 2. Tropisms explain how plants can move from place to place. a. True b. False 3. Specific cells in developing seeds and maturing fruits have receptors for ethylene, but cells in stems generally do not. a. True b. False 4. External cues such as increasing day length or warming after a cold snap stimulate gibberellin synthesis, which results in bolting in plants such as cabbages. a. True b. False 5. Larrea tridenta is chemically defended against most herbivores and some are able to survive thousands of years. a. True b. False 6. A plant hormone has the same effects in different plant tissues. a. True b. False 7. When a plant becomes infected by pathogenic bacteria or fungi, it may respond by way of a fight or flight response – a defense that cordons off an infection site surrounding it with dead cells. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 8. Commercial grape growers use ____ to get larger grapes by lengthening the stem on which fruits develop. a. abscisic acid b. ethylene c. auxins d. salicylic acid e. gibberellins

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Chap 37_5e 9. Chaperone-type proteins that stabilize other proteins in response to environmental stresses such as salinity, drought, heat, and cold are ____. a. systemins b. phytoalexins c. PR proteins d. R genes e. heat-shock proteins 10. The plant hormone ____ is primarily responsible for helping break the dormancy of seeds and buds. a. gibberellin b. cytokinin c. ethylene d. auxin e. jasmonate 11. The plant hormones ____ appear to regulate the expression of genes associated with a plant's growth responses to light. a. salicylic acid b. brassinosteroids c. gibberellins d. jasmonates e. oligosaccharins 12. The type of plant hormone primarily responsible for promoting the formation of lateral roots is/are ____. a. jasmonates b. gibberellins c. auxins d. systemin e. cytokinins 13. A pea plant that is not able to make GA1 will ____. a. grow away from light b. not be able to make flowers c. be a dwarf d. not be able to make fruits e. have nearly no root growth

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Chap 37_5e 14. An agar block filled with auxin is placed on top of a shoot that has had the shoot tip removed. The agar block is placed so that it covers only one side of the top of the shoot. You would expect the shoot to ____. a. stop growing b. grow faster on the side away from the agar block c. grow straight up d. grow faster on the side with the agar block e. grow faster on both the side away from the agar block and on the side with agar block 15. Researchers have used molecular analysis to determine that ____ evolved after flowering plants, but before eudicots and monocots emerged. a. auxins b. cytokinins c. jasmonates d. gibbererlins e. ethylene 16. Thigmotropism is a growth response to ____. a. light b. day length c. contact with a solid object d. circadian rhythms e. gravity 17. During daylight hours, primarily ____. a. P r absorbs red light and is converted to Pfr b. P r absorbs far-red light and is converted to Pfr c. P fr absorbs red light and is converted to Pr d. P fr absorbs far-red light and is converted to Pr e. P fr is converted to Pr 18. The plant hormone structurally similar to adenine is ____. a. brassinosteroid b. abscisic acid c. ethylene d. cytokinin e. systemin

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Chap 37_5e 19. The type of plant hormone primarily responsible for inhibiting leaf abscission is/are ____. a. gibberellins b. ethylene c. jasmonates d. abscisic acid e. auxins 20. The plant hormone ____ is apparently synthesized from carotenoid pigments inside plastids. a. salicylic acid b. cytokinin c. abscisic acid d. jasmonate e. brassinosteroid 21. Molecular data has shown that ____ originated during the period when non-bryophytes diverged from the bryophytes. a. auxins b. cytokinins c. jasmonates d. gibberellins e. ethylene 22. The type of plant hormone primarily responsible for inhibiting growth of lateral meristems on shoots and restricting the formation of branches is/are ____. a. abscisic acid b. cytokinins c. auxins d. salicylic acid e. gibberellins 23. Plants exude ____ from roots to stimulate the growth of soil fungi. a. strigolactones b. cytokinins c. ethylene d. auxins e. jasmonates

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Chap 37_5e 24. The plant hormone synthesized mainly in root tips and apparently transported through the plant in xylem sap is ____. a. gibberellins b. auxins c. oligosaccharins d. ethylene e. cytokinins 25. The plant hormone ____ is primarily responsible for the bending of a plant shoot toward light. a. auxin b. ethylene c. systemin d. salicylic acid e. brassinosteroid 26. In the back and forth evolutionary struggle between plants and virulent bacteria, plants use ____ immunity to combat the bacteria. a. effector-triggered b. systemic acquired c. gene-for-gene d. hypersensitive e. jasmonate response 27. The plant hormone ____ is generally responsible for long-term inhibition of plant growth such as in buds and seeds. a. auxin b. gibberellin c. oligosaccharin d. brassinosteroid e. abscisic acid 28. Flowering in Arabidopsis appears to require ____. a. production in leaves of CO protein and FT protein b. movement of CO protein from leaves to the shoot apex c. expression of CO protein in the shoot apex d. movement of FT mRNA from leaves to the shoot apex e. movement of FT protein from leaves to the shoot apex

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Chap 37_5e 29. Typically, ____ does not promote dormancy in perennial plants. a. dry soil b. nitrogen deficiency c. long nights d. cold nights e. warm nights 30. A plant’s response to the relative lengths of light and dark periods in its environment during each 24-hour period is a phenomenon called ____. a. gravitropism b. photoperiodism c. thigmotropism d. circadian rhythms e. phototropism 31. Leaf aging is retarded by ____. a. salicylic acid b. abscisic acid c. cytokinins d. ethylene e. gibberellins 32. The plant hormone ____ stimulates stomata to close during a drought. a. salicylic acid b. gibberellin c. abscisic acid d. auxin e. oligosaccharin 33. Statoliths, particles that move in the direction gravity pulls them, are typically ____ in plants. a. amyloplasts b. calcium carbonate crystals c. nuclei d. vacuoles e. hormones 34. Boiling DNA can produce ____. a. salicylic acid b. auxins c. cytokinins d. abscisic acid e. jasmonates Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 37_5e 35. Bioactive specialized compounds are ____. a. synthesized in some plants as part of basic metabolism b. only synthesized in plant leaves c. molecules that attract herbivore pollinators d. synthesized in floral structures to attract pollinating insects e. only synthesized in plant roots 36. ____ were first discovered in experiments to define the nutrient media required for plant tissue culture. a. Gibberellins b. Cytokinins c. Salicylic acid d. Auxins e. Brassinosteroids 37. Movement of IAA in a shoot tip is as follows: a. IAA initially moves downward from the shoot tip via polar transport. b. IAA initially moves laterally from the shaded to illuminated side of the shoot tip. c. IAA initially moves laterally from the illuminated to shaded side of the shoot tip. d. IAA initially moves laterally in the shoot tip via non-polar transport. e. IAA moves from root tips upwards towards leaves. 38. The plant hormone ____ governs senescence in plants, such as the loss of leaves in autumn by some plants. a. cytokinins b. abscisic acid c. gibberellins d. brassinosteroids e. ethylene 39. Trimming a shrub will make it become more bushy (have more lateral growth) primarily due to a reduction in the amount of ____. a. auxin b. ethylene c. abscisic acid d. gibberellin e. cytokinin 40. The plant hormone ____ has been shown to both promote pollen tube elongation and inhibit root elongation. a. jasmonate b. ethylene c. brassinosteroid d. salicylic acid e. oligosaccharin Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 37_5e 41. In monoecious species of plants, plants that have separate "male" and "female" flowers both on the same plant, applications of gibberellin ____. a. cause all flowers formed to be "female" b. encourage proportionally more "male" flowers to develop c. cause all flowers formed to actually be both "male" and "female" d. cause all flowers formed to be "male" e. encourage proportionally more "female" flowers to develop 42. Darwin’s experiments on phototropism illustrated that ____. a. plant stems bend away from bright lights b. signals from plant roots control phototropism c. an opaque cap placed over a shoot tip will cause a plant to bend toward light, but will inhibit growth d. a translucent cap placed over a shoot tip will cause a plant to bend toward light, but will inhibit growth e. a translucent cap placed over a shoot tip will cause a plant to both grow and bend toward light 43. Where is the auxin receptor ABP1 located in plant cells? a. cell wall b. cytoplasm c. endoplasmic reticulum d. plasma membrane e. nucleus 44. At night, assuming no artificial lights, primarily ____. a. P r absorbs red light and is converted to Pfr b. P r absorbs far-red light and is converted to Pfr c. P fr absorbs red light and is converted to Pr d. P fr absorbs far-red light and is converted to Pr e. P fr is converted to Pr 45. Bioactive specialized compounds that function to protect plants from viral, fungal and bacterial pathogens are ____. a. systemins b. phytoalexins c. PR proteins d. R genes e. heat-shock proteins

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Chap 37_5e 46. The plant signaling molecule ____ is similar in structure to aspirin. a. abscisic acid b. ethylene c. salicylic acid d. jasmonate e. oligosaccharin 47. Plant activities that follow a biological clock so that they are based on cycles of about 24 hours are ____. a. gravitropisms b. photoperiodisms c. thigmotropisms d. circadian rhythms e. phototropisms 48. The growth-promoting substance that promotes stem elongation and bending toward light is produced primarily in ____. a. root tips, traveling to the stem in the xylem b. the center of the stem region where elongation or bending occurs c. flowers and flower buds d. the shoot tip e. root tips, traveling to the stem in the phloem 49. When a plant has a hypersensitive response, production of ____ triggers effects such as the expression of PR proteins. a. oligosaccharins b. salicylic acid c. ethylene d. cytokinin e. brassinosteroids 50. Imagine that you own a nursery and you want to reduce the chance that plants you ship will suffer from shipping damage. You should you apply ____ to the plants before shipping. a. cytokinins b. abscisic acid c. oligosaccharins d. gibberellins e. ethylene

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Chap 37_5e 51. Fruit ripening is promoted by ____. a. ethylene b. jasmonates c. gibberellins d. brassinosteroids e. abscisic acid 52. If you want all of the orange trees in your orchard to uniformly flower and set fruit, you should spray ____ on your plants. a. brassinosteroids b. auxins c. ethylene d. salicylic acid e. cytokinins 53. The first peptide hormone discovered in plants was ____, which functions in wound response in the tomato. a. cytokinin b. systemin c. gibberellin d. jasmonate e. salicylic acid 54. Plant hormones generally ____ concentrations to be effective, and usually have ____ on different plant tissues. a. are effective only in extremely large; the same effect b. require only low; different effects c. require only low; the same effect d. are effective only in extremely large; different effects e. require moderate; the same effect 55. The plant hormone ____ is a gas at normal temperature and pressure. a. abscisic acid b. ethylene c. auxin d. salicylic acid e. systemin 56. Chitinases are examples of ____. a. systemins b. phytoalexins c. PR proteins d. R genes e. heat-shock proteins Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 37_5e 57. Which of the following serves as a switching mechanism in the photoperiodic response in plants? a. phytochrome b. auxin c. cryptochrome d. calmodulin e. phytoalexin 58. Work by Charles Darwin and Francis Darwin was instrumental in the discovery of ____. a. auxins b. brassinosteroids c. jasmonates d. cytokinins e. gibberellins 59. In some cases, when an insect begins feeding on a leaf the plant responds by activating a signaling pathway that results in the production of ____, which disrupt an insect's capacity to digest proteins. a. gibberellins b. lipases c. chitinases d. protease inhibitors e. cytokinins 60. Research by Philip A. Wigge has shown that ____. a. the genome size of plants varies little between species b. the genome size of individual plants of the same species is constant c. FT is important for flowering d. FT plays no role in flowering e. the genome size of plants is related to plant size 61. The most widely used herbicide in the world, 2,4-D, is a synthetic form of ____. a. abscisic acid b. ethylene c. salicylic acid d. gibberellin e. auxin 62. Placing a ripe apple with other apples that are not ripe will cause the other apples to ripen sooner due to the release of ____. a. brassinosteroids b. ethylene c. auxins d. oligosaccharins e. abscisic acid Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 37_5e 63. After a plant has survived a microbial invasion, the rest of the plant is often less vulnerable to future infections. This is called ____. a. systemic acquired resistance b. wound defense c. gene-for-gene recognition d. hypersensitive response e. jasmonate response 64. The synthesis of ____ is triggered when cells bind systemin. a. gibberellin b. auxin c. jasmonate d. cytokinin e. brassinosteroids 65. Plant ____ are not known to be influenced by plant hormones. a. patterns of plant growth b. cell metabolism c. gene expression d. growth responses to light e. extinction rates 66. The plant hormone ____ appears to play a major role in gravitropism in roots and shoots. a. salicylic acid b. gibberellin c. abscisic acid d. auxin e. oligosaccharin 67. In systemic acquired resistance, the regulatory protein NPR-1 moves from the cytoplasm to the cell nucleus, apparently in response to a buildup of ____ in the cytoplasm. a. ethylene b. brassinosteroids c. oligosaccharins d. jasmonates e. salicylic acid

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Chap 37_5e 68. The main stimulus for phototropism is light of ____ wavelengths. a. red b. green c. yellow d. blue e. far red 69. Synthetic compounds similar to ____ are used to prolong the shelf life of vegetables such as lettuces and mushrooms and to keep cut flowers fresh. a. salicylic acid b. jasmonates c. abscisic acid d. gibberellins e. cytokinins 70. The most important natural auxin is ____ acid. a. abscisic b. gibberellic c. jasmonic d. indoleacetic e. salicylic 71. The plant hormone ____ causes chloroplasts to mature. a. cytokinin b. salicylic acid c. abscisic acid d. ethylene e. gibberellin 72. The second messenger inositol triphosphate (IP3) appears to be involved in stomatal closure triggered by ____. a. auxins b. abscisic acid c. oligosaccharins d. salicylic acid e. gibberellins 73. If you want to prevent a grass seedling shoot from bending toward light, you should ____. a. remove the shoot tip b. place a translucent cap on the shoot tip c. place an opaque cap on the shoot tip d. either remove the shoot tip or place a translucent cap on the shoot tip e. either remove the shoot tip or place an opaque cap on the shoot tip Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 37_5e 74. According to the acid-growth hypothesis, auxin causes increased acidity in cell walls, which then activates ____ that disrupt(s) bonds between cellulose microfibrils, allowing cell expansion. a. a membrane potential b. AUX1 transporters c. proteins called expansins d. an mRNA e. K+ ions 75. Suppose you are culturing tobacco callus in a Petri dish at a 10:1 ratio of auxin to cytokinin. To promote only shoot development you would ____. a. increase the cytokinin ratio b. increase the auxin ratio c. reduce the auxin level significantly and increase the cytokinin level slightly d. grow the tobacco in the dark e. grow the tobacco in the light 76. The plant hormone ____ is primarily responsible for the growth of a floral stalk in rosette plants such as cabbages. a. salicylic acid b. cytokinins c. ethylene d. gibberellin e. brassinosteroid 77. The plant hormone ____ trigger plant responses to environmental stresses such as cold snaps, high salinity, and drought. a. abscisic acid b. cytokinin c. oligosaccharin d. jasmonate e. ethylene 78. The creosote bush exhibits ____, an adaptation that evolved as a response to their biotic environment. a. chemical defenses to deter carnivores b. chemical defenses to deter herbivores c. drought tolerance d. high success rates of seed germination e. low rates of clonal asexual reproduction

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Chap 37_5e 79. You observe a sunflower that moves its leaves so that it tracks the sun across the sky through the day, and a sensitive plant that reversibly folds up its leaflets when you touch it. These are both examples of ____. a. phototropism b. thigmotropism c. stress responses d. circadian rhythms e. nastic movements Choose the type of plant hormone most closely associated with the action(s) or researcher(s) given below. a. gibberellins b. salicylic acid c. auxins d. abscisic acid e. ethylene f. strigolactones 80. fruit ripening 81. promoting leaf abscission Choose the type of plant hormone most closely associated with the action(s) or researcher(s) given below. a. gibberellins b. salicylic acid c. auxins d. abscisic acid e. ethylene f. strigolactones 82. bolting 83. breaking seed dormancy 84. promoting cell division Choose the type of plant hormone most closely associated with the action(s) or researcher(s) given below. a. gibberellins b. salicylic acid c. auxins d. abscisic acid e. ethylene f. strigolactones 85. leaf bud dormancy

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Chap 37_5e Choose the type of plant hormone most closely associated with the action(s) or researcher(s) given below. a. gibberellins b. salicylic acid c. auxins d. abscisic acid e. ethylene f. strigolactones 86. apical dominance 87. Charles and Francis Darwin 88. phototropism 89. Frits Went Choose the type of plant hormone most closely associated with the action(s) or researcher(s) given below. a. gibberellins b. salicylic acid c. auxins d. abscisic acid e. ethylene f. strigolactones 90. Victoria Gomex-Roldan 91. enhance development of mycorrhizae Choose the type of plant hormone most closely associated with the action(s) or researcher(s) given below. a. gibberellins b. salicylic acid c. auxins d. abscisic acid e. ethylene f. strigolactones 92. systemic acquired resistance 93. Describe the various effects of auxins in plants.

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Chap 37_5e 94. Explain the hypersensitive response.

95. How does thigmotropism affect the growth of a plant?

96. To grow roses commercially, which growing conditions would be optimal?

97. How might a plant communicate to another plant that it has been attacked by a herbivore?

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Chap 37_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. False 7. False 8. e 9. e 10. a 11. b 12. c 13. c 14. d 15. e 16. c 17. a 18. d 19. e 20. c 21. d 22. c 23. a 24. e 25. a 26. a

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Chap 37_5e 27. e 28. d 29. e 30. b 31. c 32. c 33. a 34. c 35. a 36. b 37. c 38. e 39. a 40. c 41. b 42. e 43. d 44. e 45. b 46. c 47. d 48. d 49. b 50. b 51. a 52. b 53. b 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 37_5e 55. b 56. c 57. a 58. a 59. d 60. c 61. e 62. b 63. a 64. c 65. e 66. d 67. e 68. d 69. e 70. d 71. a 72. b 73. e 74. c 75. a 76. d 77. a 78. b 79. e 80. e 81. e 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 37_5e 83. a 84. a 85. d 86. c 87. c 88. c 89. c 90. f 91. f 92. b 93. Auxins are involved in a variety of plant growth responses. The elongation of stems is promoted by auxins, as is the growth of stems so that they bend toward light. Auxins also promote fruit development and inhibit leaf abscission. Auxins also promote dormancy in lateral buds. In the roots, auxin promotes lateral growth. Auxin also is involved in orientation of growth with respect to gravity in both shoots and roots. 94. When a plant becomes infected by bacteria or fungi it may be able to defend against the attack by surrounding the infected cells with dead cells. The process begins when a highly reactive oxygen-containing compound breaks down nucleic acids, inactivate enzymes, or compounds that have other toxic effects on cells. This initiates the killing of cells. 95. Thigmotropism is seen when plants grow in contact with a solid object. This usually occurs in climbing plants like peas. The plants grow structures that allow them to hang on the surface. This often is seen as tendrils that are formed form specialized epidermal cells that rapidly wrap around the object on which they are climbing. 96. Roses are day-neutral plants. They flower whenever they become mature enough to do so. Therefore, it is how fast they grow to maturity rather than day length that determines when they flower. Presumably, you would grow them in a greenhouse if the climate is cold or seasonal. Or, you would only grow them seasonally when temperatures are suitable. Or, grow them year round in areas where temperatures are relatively constant throughout the year. 97. In some plants, such as creosote bush, the secondary compound that protects the plant from herbivore damage is a volatile compound. For example, terpenes are volatile and easily diffuse out the plant into the surrounding air. Such release of a volatile might elicit responses in neighboring plants or attract insects to the plant that prey on the herbivore.

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Chap 38_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Skeletal muscle is arranged in highly ordered parallel units, giving the tissue a banded appearance under a microscope. a. True b. False 2. The birth process in mammals is an example of positive feedback. a. True b. False 3. Blood plasma is separated from cells by interstitial fluid. a. True b. False 4. People who do not exhibit changes in blood pressure based on a circadian rhythm are more likely to have a heart attack. a. True b. False Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 5. The cell body of a neuron propagates electrical signals to the axon terminals. 6. The regulation of blood pressure is an example of local homeostatic controls. 7. An organized group of specialized cells is called a(n) organ. 8. Elastin, the most elastic material known, is found only in insects and some crustaceans. 9. Tight junctions between muscle cells help muscle tissue function as a unit. 10. The lymphatic system is composed of lymph nodes and ducts, the spleen, thymus, bone marrow, and white blood cells, all of which are central players in defending the body against microorganisms and viruses. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Which component of a negative feedback mechanism is responsible for producing the effect that counteracts the original environmental change away from homeostasis? a. sensor b. response c. effector d. stimulus e. integrator

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Chap 38_5e 12. An examination of the arrangement of bones in the hand is an example of a(n) ____. a. ecological study b. taxonomic study c. anatomical study d. physiological study e. homeostatic study 13. You would expect the bones of a growing child to have extremely active ____. a. osteoclasts b. fibroblasts c. osteoblasts d. adipocytes e. chondrocytes 14. What type of animal is most likely a thermoconformer? a. eagle b. monkey c. shark d. elephant e. penguin 15. Which component of the accompanying scenario would be considered the compensatory response? a. release of insulin b. glycogen and fat synthesis c. potassium ion channel d. increased glucose levels e. liver and muscle 16. Which major tissue type often has more extracellular matrix material than cellular material? a. epithelial tissue b. connective tissue c. muscle tissue d. nervous tissue e. skin tissue 17. The expression of the microRNA miR-4423 is ____ in lung tumors, and ____ its expression can decrease tumor size, suggesting that a decrease in miR-4423 contributes to lung carcinogenesis. a. increased; increasing b. decreased; increasing c. increased; decreasing d. decreased; decreasing e. increased; preventing Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 38_5e 18. Which component of the accompanying scenario would be considered the stimulus? a. release of insulin b. glycogen and fat synthesis c. potassium ion channel d. increased glucose levels e. liver and muscle 19. A response to change in the internal/external environment that intensifies the change is called ____ feedback. a. positive b. physiological c. reflex d. negative e. anatomical 20. Which structure is an example of a tissue? a. basal lamina b. skin c. neurons d. bone e. fibroblasts 21. Which component of the accompanying scenario would be considered the sensor? a. release of insulin b. glycogen and fat synthesis c. potassium ion channel d. increased glucose levels e. liver and muscle 22. An epithelial tissue containing a single layer of flattened cells is classified as ____. a. simple columnar epithelium b. stratified cuboidal epithelium c. stratified columnar epithelium d. stratified squamous epithelium e. simple squamous epithelium 23. Which list is arranged from the smallest to the largest organization level? a. tissue, organ, organ system b. tissue, organ system, organ c. organ system, organ, tissue d. organ system, tissue, organ e. organ, organ system, tissue

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Chap 38_5e 24. Which organ system includes the pituitary, thyroid, and adrenal glands? a. endocrine system b. reproductive system c. lymphatic system d. respiratory system e. skeletal system 25. Which tissue is composed of spindle-shaped contractile cells that are commonly found in the walls of tubular organs such as blood vessels? a. squamous epithelium b. smooth muscle c. skeletal muscle d. cardiac muscle e. adipose tissue 26. Which tissue has contractile cells that are joined by intercalated disks, allowing it to contract as a unit? a. smooth muscle b. cartilage c. skeletal muscle d. cardiac muscle e. adipose tissue 27. For changes that occur in response to environmental conditions, changes in gene expression are most likely due to ____, while changes in DNA sequence are more likely due to ____. a. evolutionary adaptation; acclimatization b. evolutionary adaptation; acclimation c. evolutionary adaptation; biorhythms d. acclimatization; evolutionary adaptation e. acclimation; evolutionary adaptation 28. Which organ system includes the spleen, lymph nodes, and thymus? a. circulatory system b. endocrine system c. nervous system d. digestive system e. lymphatic system 29. Which component of a negative feedback mechanism does the brain or spinal cord represent? a. response b. sensor c. integrator d. effector e. stimulus Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 38_5e 30. A new species of mammal is discovered deep in the Antarctic. This mammal contains an organ that does not seem to be homologous to any other known organ. Upon examination, it appears that this organ is responsible for secreting hormones necessary for regulating subcutaneous fat levels to regulate body temperature. To which system does this new organ most likely belong? a. digestive system b. integumentary system c. immune system d. endocrine system e. nervous system 31. Unlike single-celled organisms that have direct contact with their external environment, most cells in a multicellular organisms do not have direct contract with their external environment. How do these cells acquire nutrients and eliminate wastes? a. by active and passive transport between the basal lamina and the interstitial fluid b. by active and passive transport between the basal lamina and the plasma c. by active and passive transport between the intracellular fluid and the interstitial fluid d. by active and passive transport between the intracellular fluid and the plasma e. through gap junctions between the intracellular fluid and the plasma 32. The extracellular matrix of blood consists of ____. a. fibronectin b. elastin c. plasma d. basal lamina e. interstitial fluid 33. Which part(s) of a neuron that conduct(s) an electrical signal towards an adjacent neuron? a. dendrites b. cell body c. axon d. both dendrites and the axon e. dendrites, cell body, and the axon 34. Which connective tissue is best at withstanding compression due the elasticity of its matrix? a. loose connective tissue b. bone tissue c. cartilage d. fibrous connective tissue e. dense connective tissue

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Chap 38_5e 35. Which substance would most likely be excreted by an endocrine gland? a. sweat b. venom c. earwax d. testosterone e. milk 36. What is the correct order of the components of a negative feedback loop? a. stimulus → integrator → sensor → effector(s) → compensatory response b. stimulus → sensor → integrator → effector(s) → compensatory response c. stimulus → effector(s) → integrator → sensor → compensatory response d. sensor → integrator → stimulus → effector(s) → compensatory response e. sensor → stimulus → integrator → effector(s) → compensatory response 37. Which tissue is striated and can contract rapidly, producing voluntary movements? a. skeletal muscle b. smooth muscle c. bone tissue d. cardiac muscle e. adipose tissue 38. A ____ feedback control system functions when a change in the internal environment triggers the body to oppose the change and restore the normal environmental conditions. a. positive b. physiological c. reflex d. negative e. anatomical 39. Due to disruptions in circadian rhythms, when are heart attacks and strokes most likely to occur? a. 8 am b. 12 pm c. 4 pm d. 10 pm e. 3 am 40. Two or more different tissues arranged to carry out a specific function is called a(n) ____. a. organ system b. organ c. tissue d. organism e. tissue system Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 38_5e 41. The cells of which muscle type are connected by gap junctions? a. skeletal muscle only b. cardiac muscle only c. smooth muscle only d. both cardiac and skeletal muscle e. both cardiac and smooth muscle 42. Glands with ducts are known as ____. a. endocrine b. exocrine c. connective d. epithelial e. autocrine 43. You observe a tissue with one free surface and several cell layers attached to a basal lamina. This is an example of ____. a. connective tissue only b. epithelial tissue only c. muscle tissue only d. nervous tissue only e. connective and muscle tissue 44. Which type of epithelium is found in skin? a. simple squamous epithelium b. stratified squamous epithelium c. cuboidal epithelium d. simple columnar epithelium e. simple pseudostratified columnar epithelium 45. The presence of cilia is a common feature of some ____ tissues. a. nervous b. muscle c. connective d. epithelial e. adipose 46. Maintenance of the body's internal environment at relatively constant levels is called ____. a. feedback b. homeostasis c. physiology d. natural selection e. feedforward Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 38_5e 47. What are microRNAs? a. mutated RNAs found in cancer cells b. short noncoding RNAs found in all cells c. short coding RNAs found in viruses d. RNAs found in organelles within a cell e. artificially made RNAs for experimental study 48. Which type of connective tissue forms tendons and ligaments? a. loose connective tissue b. blood c. cartilage d. dense connective tissue e. adipose tissue 49. Which cell junction type is responsible for allowing the bladder lining to stretch, thus accommodating increasing volumes of urine? a. anchoring junctions only b. gap junctions only c. tight junctions only d. both anchoring junctions and gap junctions e. both anchoring junctions, tight junctions and gap junctions 50. Which human cell type can be over a meter in length? a. neurons b. chondrocytes c. columnar epithelial cells d. skeletal muscle cells e. adipocytes 51. Which type of epithelium functions in diffusion? a. simple squamous epithelium b. stratified squamous epithelium c. cuboidal epithelium d. simple columnar epithelium e. simple pseudostratified columnar epithelium 52. A person takes a medication that blocks the neurons' ability to receive chemical signals. Which part of the neuron is most likely being affected by this medication? a. axon terminals b. the axon c. dendrites d. nucleus e. All parts of the neuron would be affected. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 38_5e 53. What cell type(s) are found in nervous tissue? a. neurons only b. glial cells only c. squamous cells only d. both neurons and glial cells e. both glial cells and squamous cells 54. Which scenario is an example of positive feedback? a. When oxygen levels are low, the kidneys secrete erythropoietin, which stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of red blood cells until oxygen demands are met. b. As blood pressure increases, specialized neurons relay the change to the brainstem, which in turn, decreases the contractility of the heart and leads to vasodilation, thereby decreasing blood pressure. c. After an injury, chemicals released at the site of injury will activate platelets, which will in turn activate additional platelets, and so on, until the clot has formed and the injury is no longer bleeding. d. When stress levels are high, the hypothalamus secretes corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), which in turn stimulates the secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which then triggers the release of cortisol. Increased cortisol levels then inhibit the release of CRH and ACTH. e. After eating, when glucose levels are high, insulin levels increase, leading to an increase in glycogen and fat synthesis to remove excess glucose from circulation. 55. Collagen provides which of the following? a. tissue flexibility b. support for the liver c. tensile strength d. tissue elasticity e. low-friction surface 56. Which process would be considered a biorhythm? a. eating at preset times throughout the day b. feeling sleepy right after you eat a big meal c. seasonal depression manifesting every winter d. removing your hand rapidly from a hot stove e. a gestation period of approximately 40 weeks 57. Which tissue is best described as a sparse distribution of cells surrounded by an open network of collagen and elastin fibers? a. fibrous connective tissue b. adipose tissue c. bone tissue d. loose connective tissue e. blood

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Chap 38_5e 58. Which organ system(s) play role(s) in eliminating metabolic wastes from the body? a. excretory system only b. respiratory system only c. nervous system only d. excretory and respiratory system e. excretory, respiratory, and circulatory system 59. Which structure is a component of the integumentary system? a. bone marrow b. nails c. cartilage d. sensory organs e. thymus 60. Which tissue type can transmit electrical impulses from one part of an organism to another? a. epithelial tissue b. connective tissue c. muscle tissue d. nervous tissue e. adipose tissue 61. What is the function of gap junctions in cells? a. Anchor the cells to basal lamina. b. Hold the cell wall close to the plasma membrane. c. Allow ions and small molecules to flow freely between cells of a given tissue type. d. Serve as a scaffold for active transport proteins to cluster together. e. Anchor the cells to neighboring cells. 62. Which molecule is the most abundant in the extracellular matrix of connective tissues? a. collagen b. cholesterol c. fibronectin d. albumin e. elastin 63. An examination of the processes of muscle contraction in fishes is an example of a(n) ____. a. ecological study b. taxonomic study c. anatomical study d. physiological study e. homeostatic study

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Chap 38_5e 64. Which tissue has very little extracellular matrix, acts as an insulator, and is used to store chemical energy? a. loose connective tissue b. blood c. cartilage d. fibrous connective tissue e. adipose tissue 65. Which cell junction type creates a barrier between two cells? a. anchoring junctions only b. gap junctions only c. tight junctions only d. both anchoring junctions and gap junctions e. both anchoring junctions, tight junctions and gap junctions 66. Which cell type is specialized for fat storage? a. osteoclast b. leukocyte c. adipocyte d. osteon e. chondrocyte 67. Which component of the accompanying scenario would be considered the effector? a. release of insulin b. glycogen and fat synthesis c. potassium ion channel d. increased glucose levels e. liver and muscle 68. Glial cells function to ____. a. conduct electrical impulses b. support and nourish neurons c. secrete collagen fibers into the extracellular matrix d. release secretions from a free surface e. move ions across the cell membrane 69. Hypothermia results from ____. a. a drop in core temperature for a prolonged period of time b. a lack of homeostasis c. an imbalance between energy inputs (nutrients) and energy output d. prolonged exposure to heat e. dehydration

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Chap 38_5e 70. Which connective tissue contains fibroblasts? a. blood b. adipose c. cartilage d. bone e. loose connective tissue 71. Which type of epithelium is found in the lining of the gut? a. simple squamous epithelium b. stratified squamous epithelium c. cuboidal epithelium d. simple columnar epithelium e. simple pseudostratified columnar epithelium 72. The evolution of multicellular organisms would not have been possible without the ability for all cells to interact, in some capacity, with the external environment through the ____. a. basal lamina b. endocrine glands c. internal fluid d. gap junctions e. epithelium 73. Many people develop "mountain sickness" when they travel to high altitudes, developing headaches, difficulty sleeping, and nausea from the lack of oxygen. Which process fails to occur in people who continue to have mountain sickness after being at high altitude for a few days? a. evolution b. dynamic equilibrium c. acclimation d. acclimatization e. biorhythms 74. What is the function of ligaments? a. anchor muscle to bone b. connect bones to each other c. link sheets of epithelial tissues to other tissues d. anchor muscles to epithelial tissues e. connect bones to epithelial tissues

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Chap 38_5e 75. The two most important regulatory systems for the maintenance of homeostasis are ____. a. circulatory and nervous systems b. endocrine and circulatory systems c. lymphatic and circulatory systems d. nervous and endocrine systems e. lymphatic and circulatory systems 76. Which type of epithelium is found in the inner lining of blood vessels? a. simple squamous epithelium b. stratified squamous epithelium c. cuboidal epithelium d. simple columnar epithelium e. simple pseudostratified columnar epithelium 77. A group of specialized cells of similar structure and function is a(n) ____. a. organ system b. cell cluster c. organ d. tissue e. organism 78. Which major tissue type contains contractile cells? a. epithelium b. connective tissue c. muscle tissue d. nervous tissue e. adipose tissue 79. Which tissue acts to transport nutrients and wastes throughout the body? a. blood b. adipose tissue c. loose connective tissue d. fibrous connective tissue e. cartilage 80. A tissue sample containing fibroblasts surrounded by parallel bundles of collagen and elastin fibers is an example of ____. a. bone tissue b. dense connective tissue c. cartilage d. blood e. adipose tissue Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 38_5e Match each organ systems with its correct description. a. coordinates body activities through the conduction of electrical impulses b. helps regulate internal water balance and pH c. provides leverage for body movements d. moves body parts e. converts ingested matter into molecules and ions that can be absorbed into the body f. covers external body surfaces and protects against injury and infection g. returns excess fluid to the body and protects it against pathogens h. passes on genes to the next generation i. coordinates body activities though secretion of hormones j. distributes water and nutrients throughout the body 81. nervous system 82. endocrine system 83. muscular system 84. skeletal system 85. integumentary system 86. circulatory system 87. lymphatic system 88. digestive system 89. excretory system 90. reproductive system

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Chap 38_5e

Figure 38.1 (questions 71-75) Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Identify the components of a neuron. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 91. axon 92. axon terminals 93. cell body 94. dendrites 95. nucleus 96. Why are both blood and bone considered connective tissue?

97. Distinguish between a circadian clock and circadian rhythm.

98. Distinguish between exocrine and endocrine glands.

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Chap 38_5e 99. How are the cells of a multicellular animal connected to the external environment? Briefly describe how nutrients and wastes are transferred from these cells to the external environment.

100. In animals, the functions of organ systems are integrated and coordinated to accomplish five main tasks that are vital for survival. List these tasks.

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Chap 38_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. False - axon 6. False - systemic 7. False - tissue 8. False - Resilin 9. False - Gap junctions 10. False - immune system 11. c 12. c 13. c 14. c 15. b 16. b 17. b 18. d 19. a 20. d 21. c 22. e 23. a 24. a 25. b 26. d 27. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 38_5e 28. e 29. c 30. d 31. c 32. c 33. c 34. c 35. d 36. b 37. a 38. d 39. a 40. b 41. e 42. b 43. b 44. b 45. d 46. b 47. b 48. d 49. a 50. a 51. a 52. c 53. d 54. c 55. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 38_5e 56. c 57. d 58. e 59. b 60. d 61. c 62. a 63. d 64. e 65. c 66. c 67. e 68. b 69. a 70. e 71. d 72. c 73. d 74. b 75. d 76. a 77. d 78. c 79. a 80. b 81. a 82. i 83. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 38_5e 84. c 85. f 86. j 87. g 88. e 89. b 90. h 91. c 92. d 93. b 94. a 95. e 96. Connective tissue consists of cells that form networks or layers in and around body structures. Connective tissue also contains an extracellular matrix secreted by cells in tissue. The extracellular matrix, which is non-living, separates the cellular portions of connective tissue. Bone is a dense connective tissue of two types of cells embedded in an extracellular matrix containing collagen and a type of calcium-phosphate mineral. In blood, the cellular components are red and white blood cells. The extracellular matrix is plasma, which is a fluid. 97. A circadian rhythm describes physiological processes that have a 24-hour rhythm. This rhythm is generated by a genebased circadian clock. Differential expression of circadian clock genes establishes and controls circadian rhythms. 98. Exocrine glands remain connected to epithelium by a duct. Examples of exocrine secretions include mucus, saliva and sweat. Endocrine glands are not connected to epithelium by a duct. They become suspended in connective tissue underlying the epithelium. They release hormones directly into the interstitial fluid, which are then passed into the blood to be distributed by the circulatory system. Examples include the pituitary gland and thyroid gland. 99. Cells are connected by the aqueous extracellular fluid (ECF). The ECF has two components: the plasma (fluid portion of the blood) and the interstitial fluid (fluid surrounding the cells). The ECF is the transitional zone connecting the intracellular fluid (ICF) to the external environment. 100. 1. Acquiring nutrients and oxygen, distributing them throughout the body, and disposing of wastes. 2. Synthesizing the building blocks required for structure and function of the organism. 3. Sensing and responding to changes in the environment. 4. Protecting the body against injury and attack. 5. Reproduction, nourishment and protection of offspring.

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Chap 39_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. If the equilibrium potential is close to the resting membrane potential, the net ionic movement across the membrane will be very small. a. True b. False 2. Whether a neurotransmitter is inhibitory or excitatory depends on the type of receptor it binds to on the postsynaptic neuron. a. True b. False 3. Oligodendrocytes are responsible for myelinating central nervous system axons. a. True b. False 4. Neurotransmitters are stored in vesicles located within axon terminals. a. True b. False 5. GABA can bind to metabotropic receptors. a. True b. False 6. EPSPs can form due to the diffusion of Na+ across a neuron plasma membrane. a. True b. False Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 7. Neurotransmitters that bind to G-protein-coupled receptors act more rapidly than those binding to ionotropic receptors. 8. The additive effect of one neuron sending many EPSPs to another neuron over a brief period of time is called spatial summation. 9. Saltatory conduction is the slowest form of action potential propagation. 10. Depolarization occurs due to the diffusion of K+ across a neuron plasma membrane.

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Chap 39_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Otto Loewi demonstrated that neurons transmit signals across synapses by ____. a. electrical signals b. calcium channels c. acetylcholine d. chemical signals e. proteins 12. Which sequence of the neural signaling pathway is correctly arranged from the earliest to the latest event as it occurs in the nervous system? a. integration, response, reception b. response, reception, integration c. reception, response, integration d. reception, integration, response e. integration, reception, response 13. The spaces between adjacent Schwann cells are called ____. a. nodes of Ranvier b. axon terminals c. dendrites d. intercalated discs e. active gaps 14. When a fist clenches to grasp a pencil, which neurotransmitter is most likely involved? a. norepinephrine b. serotonin c. dopamine d. acetylcholine e. glutamate 15. After burning your hand on a hot burner, which neurotransmitter will most likely be released from the pain receptors? a. glutamate b. dopamine c. substance P d. GABA e. acetylcholine

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Chap 39_5e 16. What will be the effect of a drug that prevents the release of intracellular calcium? a. a decreased number of IPSPs b. a decreased number of EPSPs c. a prolonged hyperpolarization d. increased neurotransmitter release e. decreased neurotransmitter release 17. Assume a neuron receives EPSPs and IPSPs from several adjacent neurons. How might that neuron's threshold potential be reached, causing it to produce its own action potential? a. if IPSPs outnumber EPSPs b. if IPSPs equal EPSPs c. if EPSPs outnumber IPSPs d. if the adjacent neurons contain many axon terminals e. if the receiving neuron contains many dendrites 18. At which neuronal structure does summation occur? a. dendrites b. cell body c. axon hillock d. Schwann cells e. axon terminals 19. When threshold potential is reached, ____. a. the activation gates of Na+ channels open b. the inactivation gates of Na+ channels open c. the activation gates of K+ channels open d. the inactivation gates of Na+ channels open e. Na+/K+ active transport pumps are activated 20. Jean-Luc Eiselé and his coworkers used ______ receptors in their research on neurotransmitter receptor function. a. African clawed frog b. toad c. artificial d. dog e. human

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Chap 39_5e

21. Figure 39.1 (questions 37-40) Answer the question using the accompanying figure. At which point in this action potential diagram are Na+ inactivation gates opening? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 22. Approximately how many neurons comprise the human brain? a. 1,000 b. 50,000 c. 100,000 d. 75,000,000 e. 86,000,000,000 23. Which neuronal structure has the greatest density of voltage-gated Na+ channels, resulting in the lowest threshold potential along a neuron? a. dendrites b. cell body c. axon hillock d. axon e. axon terminals

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Chap 39_5e 24. In what type of neuron does the axon form many branches close to the cell body? a. projection neuron b. dendritic tree c. interneuron d. motor neuron e. astrocyte 25. In vertebrates, the neurotransmitter acetylcholine ____. a. can act as a direct neurotransmitter between neurons and muscle cells b. is involved in memory and learning c. can be released into the circulation and act as a hormone d. can act as a pain reducer and initiate euphoria e. is involved in pain perception 26. In an electrical synapse, an electrical signal is communicated between two cells via ____ through ____. a. ion flow; the synaptic cleft b. neurotransmitter flow; the synaptic cleft c. neurotransmitter flow; gap junctions d. ion flow; gap junctions e. exocytosis; the plasma membrane 27. The Nernst equation is used to calculate the ____. a. action potential b. equilibrium potential c. membrane potential of a neuron at rest d. membrane potential of a hyperpolarized neuron e. membrane potential of a depolarized neuron 28. Where are most synapses formed? a. on the dendrites of postsynaptic neurons b. on cell bodies c. on axon terminals d. on oligodendrocytes e. on Schwann cells 29. Which cells assist and nourish neurons that transmit electrical signals? a. receptor cells b. neurons c. effector cells d. glial cells e. signal cells

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Chap 39_5e 30. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. At which point in this action potential diagram does the K+ channel close to stabilize the membrane potential? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 31. What is the typical resting potential of an isolated neuron? a. -60 mV b. -70 mV c. -80 mV d. -90 mV e. 100 mV 32. To which class of neurotransmitters does glutamate belong? a. acetylcholine b. monoamines c. amino acids d. neuropeptides e. gaseous neurotransmitters 33. What is(are) the name(s) for the thin, membrane-enclosed tubes that protrude from the neuron cell body and extend long distances away? a. nerve fibers b. dendrites c. axons d. both dendrites and axons e. all of these are correct 34. In the context of the nervous system, what does the term "nucleus" mean? a. a cluster of EPSPs converging on an axonal hillock b. a cluster of IPSPs converging on an axonal hillock c. a cluster of axon terminals converging on a single neuron d. a cluster of dendrites centralized on a single neuron e. a cluster of neurons with a related function

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Chap 39_5e 35. Calculate ENa for a neuron that has an extracellular concentration of Na+ of 78 mM and an intracellular concentration of Na+ of 6 mM. a. -68.0 mV b. -1.14 mV c. 1.14 mV d. 31.6 mV e. 68.0 mV 36. Cells in the nervous system that send and receive electrical signals are called ____. a. receptors b. neurons c. sensors d. glial cells e. signal cells 37. If a drug binds to a receptor, which normally triggers the opening of a Na+ channel, causing it to open in the absence of neurotransmitter release, what is the most likely result? a. an increased number of IPSPs b. an increased number of EPSPs c. a prolonged hyperpolarization d. a decreased number of IPSPs e. a decreased number of EPSPs 38. When measuring membrane potential, the tip of a microelectrode is inserted into a(n) ____. a. axon b. node of Ranvier c. Schwann cell d. dendrite e. glial cell 39. The minimum level of depolarization required to initiate an action potential in an excitable cell is called the ____ potential. a. electrical b. refractory c. membrane d. resting e. threshold

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Chap 39_5e 40. An action potential is propagated down an unmyelinated neuronal plasma membrane because it stimulates voltage-gated ____ channels adjacent to it. (Choose the most accurate answer.) a. Na+ b. Ca2+ c. K+ d. Na+ and Ca2+ e. K+ and Ca2+ 41. The neurotransmitter receptor research of Jean-Luc Eiselé and his coworkers showed that ____. a. neurotransmitters are dependent on the activity of Na+ b. neurotransmitters are dependent on the activity of K+ c. neurotransmitters are dependent on the activity of Cl d. neurotransmitters are dependent on the activity of Ca+ e. the parts of a receptor binding a neurotransmitter and conducting ions function independently 42. Depolarization of the neuronal plasma membrane occurs due to ____. a. the diffusion of K+ into the cell b. the diffusion of K+ out of the cell c. the diffusion of Na+ into the cell. d. the diffusion of Na+ out of the cell e. closed gated channels 43. If a drug binds irreversibly to a postsynaptic receptor to prevent the binding of an excitatory neurotransmitter, what is the most likely result? a. an increased number of IPSPs b. an increased number of EPSPs c. a prolonged hyperpolarization d. a decreased number of IPSPs e. a decreased number of EPSPs 44. The binding of a neurotransmitter to ligand-gated Na+ channels will cause ____ in the postsynaptic membrane. a. depolarization only b. hyperpolarization c. repolarization only d. apolarization e. depolarization and repolarization

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Chap 39_5e 45. When a neuron membrane potential goes below its resting value it becomes ____. a. depolarized b. hyperpolarized c. repolarized d. damaged e. restimulated 46. An abrupt and transient change in membrane potential is called a(n) ____. a. electrical potential b. refractory potential c. threshold potential d. resting potential e. action potential 47. During an action potential, the membrane potential can reach as high as ____. a. -10 mV b. 0 mV c. +10 mV d. +20 mV e. +30 mV 48. For a neuron at rest, there is a higher concentration of ____ outside the cell than inside. a. Na+ b. K+ c. Ca2+ d. anions e. ATP 49. In an effort to determine the mechanism of neuronal signaling, Otto Loewi isolated ____. a. frog hearts b. frog brains c. rat hearts d. rat brains e. rat vagus nerve 50. When a neuron membrane potential becomes less negative, it is said to be ____. a. depolarized b. hyperpolarized c. repolarized d. damaged e. activated above the threshold potential Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 39_5e 51. Which process is responsible for the release of neurotransmitters from the presynaptic neuron into the synapse? a. diffusion b. endocytosis c. exocytosis d. fusion e. synaptic release 52. What removes Ca2+ from the inside of an axon terminal of a chemical synapse after an electrical impulse has passed? a. ion channels b. active transport pumps c. passive carrier proteins d. exocytosis e. simple diffusion through the plasma membrane 53. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. At which point in this action potential diagram does the onset of Na+ channel inactivation stop the inward flow of Na+? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 54. The magnitude of an action potential ____ as it is propagated down an excitable membrane due to the ____ principle. a. increases; all-or-nothing b. remains constant; all-or-nothing c. increases; threshold d. remains constant; threshold 55. What characterizes projection neurons? a. forming many branches near the tip b. communicating with other nearby neurons c. Axons extending far from the cell body d. forming many branches near the cell body e. both forming many branches near the tip and axons extending far from the cell body

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Chap 39_5e 56. About how far do dendrites extend from the cell body in most neurons? a. 1 nm b. 1 cm c. 1 mm d. 5 mm e. 10 mm 57. The binding of a neurotransmitter to ligand-gated Cl- channels will cause ____ in the postsynaptic membrane. a. depolarization only b. hyperpolarization c. repolarization only d. apolarization e. depolarization and repolarization 58. If the K+ channels of an excitable plasma membrane were blocked by the action of a drug, which process(es) would be disrupted? a. repolarization b. depolarization c. hyperpolarization d. repolarization and depolarization e. repolarization and hyperpolarization 59. The intensity of an electrical impulse is reflected in the ____ of action potentials. a. frequency b. magnitude c. duration d. intensity e. the frequency and duration 60. Most neurons that release GABA and glycine are ____. a. astrocytes b. projection neurons c. interneurons d. oligodendrocytes e. Schwann cells 61. The binding of a neurotransmitter to ligand-gated K+ channels will cause ____ in the postsynaptic membrane. a. depolarization only b. hyperpolarization c. repolarization only d. apolarization e. depolarization and repolarization Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 39_5e 62. Action potentials are propagated in a one-way direction down a neuronal plasma membrane because a. the action potential is of insufficient intensity to stimulate the voltage-gated ion channels behind it b. the adjacent channels upstream from the action potential are ligand-gated c. the adjacent channels upstream from the action potential are in a refractory period d. voltage-gated ion channels are suppressed e. the adjacent channels upstream from the action potential are at their threshold potential 63. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. At which point in this action potential diagram are many Na+ activation gates open and K+ activation gates closed? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 64. The refractory period of a neuronal plasma membrane is important because it ____. a. establishes the resting potential b. initiates an action potential c. ensures that the threshold potential will be reached d. ensures that an impulse will travel in a one-way direction e. resets the threshold potential 65. To which class of neurotransmitters does substance P belong? a. acetylcholine b. monoamines c. amino acids d. neuropeptides e. gaseous neurotransmitters 66. To which class of neurotransmitters does dopamine belong? a. acetylcholine b. monoamines c. amino acids d. neuropeptides e. gaseous neurotransmitters

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Chap 39_5e 67. As the action potential peaks, ____. a. the activation gates of Na+ channels close b. the inactivation gates of Na+ channels close c. the activation gates of K+ channels close d. the inactivation gates of Na+ channels close e. Na+/K+ active transport pumps are activated 68. Which neurotransmitter is most likely to be inhibitory? a. glutamate b. dopamine c. Substance P d. GABA e. acetylcholine 69. The duration of an action potential is approximately five ____. a. microseconds b. milliseconds c. centiseconds d. seconds e. nanoseconds 70. Which category of organic macromolecule allows myelinated sheaths to act as electrical insulators? a. proteins b. carbohydrates c. lipids d. RNA e. DNA 71. Which part of the neuron conducts the electrical signals away from the cell body of a neuron? a. axon terminal b. axon c. axon hillock d. nucleus e. dendrites 72. Neuropeptide neurotransmitters ____. a. can act as direct neurotransmitters between neurons and muscle cells b. can act as postsynaptic membrane inhibitors c. directly open K+ channels to inhibit neurons d. can act as pain reducers and initiate euphoria e. directly inhibit euphoria Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 39_5e 73. Which glial cells serve as electrical insulators? a. Schwann cells b. oligodendrocytes c. astrocytes d. interneurons e. Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes 74. A graded, subthreshold change in the postsynaptic membrane potential that moves it toward threshold is called a(n) ____. a. IPSP b. hyperpolarization c. EPSP d. depolarization e. repolarization 75. Which component of a neural signaling pathway sorts and interprets messages? a. response b. integration c. transmission d. reception e. action 76. If a drug inhibits the uptake of an excitatory neurotransmitter after it has been released into the synaptic cleft, what is the most likely result? a. an increased number of IPSPs b. an increased number of EPSPs c. a prolonged hyperpolarization d. a decreased number of IPSPs e. a decreased number of EPSPs 77. Action potential propagation is the fastest in ____. a. a myelinated axon with a small diameter b. an unmyelinated axon with a small diameter c. a myelinated axon with a large diameter d. an unmyelinated axon with a large diameter e. all myelinated axons regardless of diameter

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Chap 39_5e 78. When an action potential reaches the axon terminal, the ____ channels are activated to trigger synaptic vesicle release. a. voltage-gated Cl- channels b. voltage-gated Ca2+ channels c. voltage-gated Na+ channels d. ligand-gated Cl- channels e. ligand-gated Ca2+ channels 79. Place the events in chemical synapse transmission in the correct order. (1) Ca2+ enters axon terminal. (2) Ligand-gated ion channels open in postsynaptic membrane. (3) Neurotransmitter binds to postsynaptic receptor. (4) Action potential reaches axon terminal of presynaptic neuron. (5) Neurotransmitter released by exocytosis. a. 4, 1, 5, 3, 2 b. 4, 3, 1, 5, 2 c. 4, 5, 1, 3, 2 d. 4, 1, 3, 5, 2 e. 4, 5, 2, 3, 1 80. Which type of glial cell provides physical support to neurons? a. Schwann cells b. astrocytes c. oligodendrocytes d. dendrites e. axons Match the descriptions with the most appropriate term. All terms will be used more than once. a. depolarization b. repolarization c. hyperpolarization 81. an IPSP, for example 82. an EPSP, for example 83. occurs in a postsynaptic membrane when ligand-gated Cl- channels open

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Chap 39_5e

Figure 39.2 (questions 71-75) Answer the questions using the accompanying figure. Identify the structures at a synapse. a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. 84. axon terminal of presynaptic cell 85. plasma membrane of postsynaptic cell 86. receptors 87. synaptic cleft 88. synaptic vesicles Match the descriptions with the most appropriate term. All terms will be used more than once. a. depolarization b. repolarization c. hyperpolarization 89. occurs due to the diffusion of Na+ 90. causes a neuron membrane potential to become more negative, allowing it to approach its resting potential 91. occurs in a postsynaptic membrane when ligand-gated Na+ channels open 92. the phase of an action potential when the membrane potential becomes more positive 93. begins when Na+ channel inactivation gates close and K+ activation gates open 94. describes the change in resting membrane potential that causes it to approach threshold potential 95. occurs when a membrane potential becomes more negative than its resting membrane potential

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Chap 39_5e 96. A toxin interferes with the opening of Na+ channels in the postsynaptic membrane so they open more slowly when bound to a neurotransmitter. What effect would there be on action potential formation in the postsynaptic membrane?

97. Valium is a drug that causes voltage-gated Cl- channels to open. What effects would this cause in a postsynaptic membrane?

98. Explain how the resting membrane potential and resting ion distributions are established in a neuron.

99. Explain how neuron action potential propagation rate can be increased.

100. In terms of changes in membrane potential, compare and contrast action potentials and graded potentials.

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Chap 39_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. False - less 8. False - temporal summation 9. False - fastest 10. False - Na+ 11. d 12. d 13. a 14. d 15. c 16. e 17. c 18. c 19. a 20. c 21. d 22. e 23. c 24. c 25. a 26. d

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Chap 39_5e 27. b 28. a 29. d 30. e 31. b 32. c 33. e 34. e 35. e 36. b 37. b 38. a 39. e 40. a 41. e 42. c 43. e 44. a 45. b 46. e 47. e 48. a 49. b 50. a 51. c 52. b 53. b 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 39_5e 55. e 56. c 57. b 58. e 59. a 60. c 61. b 62. c 63. a 64. d 65. d 66. b 67. b 68. d 69. b 70. c 71. b 72. d 73. e 74. c 75. b 76. b 77. c 78. b 79. a 80. b 81. c 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 39_5e 83. c 84. a 85. e 86. d 87. c 88. b 89. a 90. b 91. a 92. a 93. b 94. a 95. c 96. This would cause a postsynaptic membrane action potential to form more slowly (if at all), as well as slow action potential propagation speed. 97. Valium would cause hyperpolarization in the postsynaptic membrane. Thus, it would take more frequent, or a greater number, of EPSPs to generate an action potential in a postsynaptic membrane. 98. A resting membrane potential of -70 mV is established due to the unequal distribution of ions across the neuron plasma membrane. Na+/K+ pumps accumulate Na+ outside the plasma membrane and K+ inside the plasma membrane, while the presence of negatively charged anions inside the cell gives the inside of the plasma membrane an overall negative charge relative to the outside. 99. Neuron action potential propagation can be increased in two ways: (1) by increasing axonal diameter, and (2) myelinating the axon. Increased axonal diameter reduces electrical resistance to current flow. Myelination causes an electrical current to "jump" from one node of Ranvier to the next by saltatory conduction, which is more rapid than conduction in an unmyelinated neuron. 100. Action potentials are all-or-none phenomena that form when a membrane potential of an excitable cell reaches threshold potential. Graded potentials are additive subthreshold changes in the membrane potential of an excitable cell. The net effect of graded potentials may cause a membrane potential to move closer to, or further away from, threshold potential.

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Chap 40_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Sensitization is a type of memory in which increased responsiveness to mild stimuli occurs after experiencing a strong stimulus. a. True b. False 2. An individual with a damaged cerebellum will have problems with balance. a. True b. False 3. The cell body of the second neuron of the parasympathetic division is located outside of the CNS. a. True b. False 4. Smell is an important stimulus in the activation of the limbic system. a. True b. False 5. A brain is associated with bilateral symmetry. a. True b. False Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 6. The limbic system is involved in sleep-wake cycles. 7. The parasympathetic ganglia are arranged in an orderly chain along the spinal cord. 8. Reptiles have a smaller brain than amphibians of the same body size. 9. Gray matter is composed of axons with myelin sheaths. 10. Alpha waves are associated with wakefulness. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Which region(s) of the brain, present in a five-week-old embryo, is/are derived from the midbrain? a. telencephalon only b. diencephalon only c. mesencephalon only d. telencephalon and diencephalon e. telencephalon and mesencephalon

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Chap 40_5e 12. In animals, the evolutionary development of bilateral symmetry is most associated with ____. a. a brain b. sensory neurons c. ganglia d. nerve nets e. nerves 13. Arrange the steps of one of the two reflex pathway in the correct order. a. stimulus → receptors → afferent neurons → interneurons → efferent neurons → muscle inhibition b. stimulus → receptors → afferent neurons → efferent neurons → muscle inhibition c. stimulus → receptors → afferent neurons → interneurons → efferent neurons → muscle activation d. stimulus → receptors → efferent neurons → interneurons → afferent neurons → muscle inhibition e. stimulus → receptors → efferent neurons → afferent neurons → muscle activation 14. During deep sleep, the brain is emitting ____. a. alpha waves b. beta waves c. delta waves d. gamma waves e. theta waves 15. In invertebrates, such as flatworms, groups of neurons called ____ perform common functions. a. nerve cords b. ganglia c. brains d. nerve nets e. nerves 16. Which molecule represents one of the best examples of a commonly shared signaling pathway connected to memory in invertebrates and vertebrates? a. cyclic AMP b. cyclic GMP c. RNA cyclase d. RNA binding protein e. non-responsive binding protein 17. Which brain region is most likely to contribute to the establishment of motor memory, the ability to perform complex motor skills? a. frontal cortex b. cerebellum c. hypothalamus d. amygdala e. brain stem Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 40_5e 18. Bob is recovering from a brain injury. He is unable to speak, but he clearly understands both the written and spoken word. The area of damage that resulted in these symptoms is ____. a. Wernicke’s area of the temporal lobe b. Broca’s area of the frontal lobe c. the primary somatosensory area of the parietal lobe d. the cerebellar association area e. the brain stem 19. A lesion in which brain center is most likely to lead to a coma or even death? a. occipital cortex b. frontal cortex c. hypothalamus d. brain stem e. spinal cord 20. Which function is most likely controlled primarily by the gray-matter centers in the brain stem? a. vomiting b. learning c. patellar tendon reflex d. writing e. pain recognition 21. A PET scan can be used to monitor ________ when a person is performing specific _______ tasks. a. brain activity; physical b. glucose activity; physical c. brain activity; mental d. hemoglobin activity; mental e. hemoglobin; physical 22. During a nap, the brain is emitting ____. a. alpha waves b. beta waves c. delta waves d. gamma waves e. theta waves 23. Gay matter is located in the ____ of the cerebrum. a. outer region b. inner region c. ventricle d. right, but not left, hemisphere e. left, but not right, hemisphere Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 40_5e 24. When you encounter a bear while hiking, which part of your nervous system triggers an increase in your heart rate and breathing to help you run away? a. the central nervous system b. the sympathetic nervous system c. the parasympathetic nervous system d. somatic nervous system e. cranial nerves 25. Your alarm clock goes off once again, and it is 7 a.m. Which neural event sends the signal to your cortex for you to know to hit the snooze button? a. The number of alpha waves emitted by the brain increases. b. The number of theta waves emitted by the brain increases. c. The reticular activating system sends stimuli to the cerebral cortex. d. The cerebellum sends stimuli to the cerebral cortex. e. The cerebellum sends stimuli to the limbic system. 26. Areas of the body such as the lips or fingers are represented by ____ regions of the somatosensory cortex; the arms and legs are represented by relatively _____ regions of the somatosensory cortex. a. large; small b. small; large c. motor; sensory d. sensory; motor e. cerebellum; brain stem 27. A young woman develops a tumor in her pituitary gland. Which symptoms might the doctor use to diagnose this tumor? a. inability to regulate temperature b. inability to formulate new memories c. inability to recognize faces d. increase in anger e. decrease in sensation in feet 28. A patient has a stroke that leaves him without any impulse control. Where is the most likely location of the brain damage? a. limbic association cortex b. prefrontal association cortex c. Wernicke’s area d. occipital cortex e. somatosensory cortex

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Chap 40_5e 29. During a fight, a boxer received a hard blow to the side of his head. As a result, the boxer was unable to recognize and interpret words. Which specific area of the brain must have been damaged during the fight? a. the cortex of the cerebellum b. Broca’s area c. the corpus callosum d. Wernicke’s area e. the brain stem 30. In vertebrates, the two major divisions of the central nervous system are the ____. a. autonomic and peripheral nervous systems b. central and peripheral nervous systems c. brain and spinal cord d. nerves from the brain and the peripheral nervous system e. cranial and spinal nerves 31. In vertebrates, the central nervous system (CNS) consists of the ____. a. brain and spinal cord b. brain and gray matter c. spinal cord and gray matter d. brain and reflexes e. spinal cord and nerves 32. To form the blood-brain barrier, capillary epithelial cells are sealed together by ____. a. fibronectin b. collagen c. gray matter d. myelin e. tight junctions 33. Which animal has the least advanced nerve cord? a. chordate b. arthropod c. flatworm d. human e. octopus 34. In an experiment, the development of the occipital lobe of a rat was inhibited. Predict the most likely consequence of this procedure. a. The rat was not able to make noises. b. The rat was unable to move. c. The rat was unable to detect touch. d. The rat was not able to process visual input. e. The rat could not right itself. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 40_5e 35. If light were prevented from reaching the right side of both retinas, what would occur? a. The right half of the visual field would be lost. b. Only the right cerebral hemisphere would be stimulated by the light. c. No information about the light would be carried in the left optic nerve. d. The left half of the visual field would be lost. e. Sight would be lost. 36. Which animal has the simplest known central nervous system? a. a flatworm b. an arthropod c. a chordate d. a mollusk e. an echinoderm 37. The portion of the nervous system that is responsible for both increasing heart rate and increasing movement of the intestines is the ____. a. peripheral nervous system b. sympathetic nervous system c. parasympathetic nervous system d. somatic nervous system e. interaction between the somatic and autonomic nervous systems 38. Which region(s) of the adult brain is/are derived from the diencephalon? a. cerebrum only b. thalamus only c. hypothalamus only d. cerebrum and thalamus e. thalamus and hypothalamus 39. One of your friends is an excellent pianist. Which statement could be used to describe your friend? a. Her limbic system is very well developed. b. Her right hemisphere is well developed for musical ability. c. Her left hemisphere is well developed for musical ability. d. Her reticular formation is well developed for musical ability. e. Her right hemisphere is well developed for control over the right side of the body. 40. Autonomic nervous system pathways contain ____. a. three neurons b. two neurons c. one neuron d. four neurons e. no neurons Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 40_5e 41. Which region(s) of the adult brain is/are derived from the metencephalon? a. cerebellum only b. pons only c. medulla oblongata only d. cerebellum and pons e. medulla oblongata and pons 42. Which region(s) of the brain, present in a five-week-old embryo, is/are derived from the forebrain? a. telencephalon only b. diencephalon only c. mesencephalon only d. telencephalon and diencephalon e. telencephalon and mesencephalon 43. In an experiment, the development of the frontal lobe of a rat was inhibited. Predict the most likely consequence of this procedure. a. The rat was not able to make noises. b. The rat was unable to move. c. The rat was unable to detect touch. d. The rat was not able to process visual input. e. The rat could not hear. 44. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Identify the developmental brain region that gives rise to the shaded region in this image.

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Chap 40_5e 45. Which brain waves are emitted while dreaming? a. alpha waves b. beta waves c. delta waves d. gamma waves e. theta waves 46. Eric Kandel, who received a Nobel Prize for his discoveries in signal transduction pathways involved in memory, performed experiments on ____. a. Pacific sea hares b. sea anemones c. sea stars d. flatworms e. Drosophila 47. Radially symmetrical animals have loose meshes of neurons that are called ____. a. nerve nets b. brain nets c. ganglia nets d. nerve cords e. sensory nets 48. In an experiment, the development of the parietal lobe of a rat was inhibited. Predict the most likely consequence of this procedure. a. The rat was not able to make noises. b. The rat was unable to move. c. The rat was unable to detect touch. d. The rat was not able to process visual input. e. The rat could not right itself. 49. If the blood-brain barrier prevents toxic substances from getting into the central nervous system, how does alcohol most likely impair a person's judgment? a. Alcohol acts on the peripheral nervous system, which then activates neurons in the cortex that impair judgment. b. Alcohol acts on the liver, creating toxins that can cross the blood-brain barrier, which then activate neurons in the cortex that impair judgment. c. Alcohol decreases blood oxygen levels, which leads to impaired judgment. d. Alcohol can bind to glucocorticoid transporters in the brain, which causes impaired judgment by binding to neurons in the cortex. e. Because it is hydrophobic, alcohol can pass directly across the blood-brain barrier and cause impaired judgment by binding directly to neurons in the cortex.

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Chap 40_5e 50. The occipital lobe of the brain is responsible for ____. a. speech b. memory c. smell d. coordination of movement e. vision 51. Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) is a type of ____. a. MRI b. PET scan c. X-ray d. sonogram e. CT scan 52. A person suffers a stroke due to a blood clot that reduces blood flow in the brain. She is unable to speak, but is able to read and understand text. Which scenario best explains the damage caused by the stroke? a. The cortex of the cerebellum was affected by the reduced blood flow. b. The interruption in blood flow affected the corpus callosum. c. The region of damage was responsible for integration of visual and auditory stimuli. d. The reduced blood flow damaged Wernicke’s area of the temporal lobe. e. The reduced blood flow damaged Broca’s area of the temporal lobe. 53. Where are the cell bodies of most motor neurons located? a. in the ganglia alongside the spinal cord b. in the spinal cord c. in the brain d. in the brain stem e. in the cerebellum 54. Which phenomenon describes the unequal distribution of functions between the right and left hemisphere? a. unihemispherization b. bifunctionality c. lateralization d. functional segregation e. functional localization 55. Brain tumors in children are very common in the cerebellum. Which symptoms might lead a doctor to suspect this type of tumor? a. difficulty hearing b. difficulty seeing c. difficulty walking d. forgetting previously learned skills e. suddenly starting to speak in gibberish Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 40_5e 56. Identify the animal with the most advanced nervous system. a. a flatworm b. an arthropod c. a chordate d. a mollusk e. an echinoderm 57. Sensory information is transmitted to the CNS by the ____. a. efferent neurons of the autonomic nervous system b. afferent neurons of the peripheral nervous system c. somatic neurons of the peripheral nervous system d. somatic neurons of the sympathetic division e. efferent neurons of the sympathetic division 58. Your finger touches a hot pot on the stove. Information is carried via ____ neurons to the ____, where it connects to the ____, which signal you to move your hand. a. afferent; thalamus; efferent b. efferent; thalamus; afferent c. afferent; spinal cord; efferent d. efferent; spinal cord; afferent e. afferent; somatosensory cortex; efferent 59. Chronic alcoholics often develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which is characterized by a number of different neurological symptoms, including ataxia (an abnormal gait). Which specific brain region is most likely responsible for this symptom? a. Wernickeʼs area b. cerebellum c. prefrontal association cortex d. amygdala e. brain stem 60. If an action potential persists for one minute or longer, an increase in the strength of synaptic connections develops. Which term describes the resulting establishment of memory between two neurons? a. lateralization b. consciousness potentiation c. long-term potentiation d. long-term association e. ganglion association

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Chap 40_5e 61. Which substance can easily cross the human blood-brain barrier in a healthy individual? a. viral proteins b. bacterial DNA c. human white blood cells d. cortisol e. albumin 62. What region of the five-week-old embryo gives rise to the cerebrum? a. telencephalon b. diencephalon c. mesencephalon d. metencephalon e. myelencephalon 63. In examining sex differences in the brains of male and female humans, researchers found that males had ____ connections between the two hemispheres of the cortex and ____ connections between the two hemispheres of the cerebellum than females. a. stronger; stronger b. stronger; weaker c. weaker; weaker d. weaker; stronger e. weaker; indistinguishable 64. Patients with Parkinson's disease are treated with L-DOPA, a hydrophobic precursor to dopamine, a hydrophilic neurotransmitter that is depleted in these patients. What is the most probable reason why these patients are given the precursor L-DOPA instead of dopamine? a. L-DOPA is better at activating dopamine receptors than dopamine. b. L-DOPA is more toxic than dopamine. c. L-DOPA cannot cross the blood-brain barrier. d. Dopamine cannot cross the blood-brain barrier. e. Dopamine given orally could activate acetylcholine receptors. 65. If the protective coverings of the brain were damaged, the ____ would be damaged. a. ventricles b. thalamus c. medulla d. meninges e. reflexes

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Chap 40_5e 66. Which structure of the brain contains the cerebral spinal fluid? a. ventricles b. thalamus c. medulla d. meninges e. reflexes 67. Amnesia is common after surgery due to the drugs used to anesthetize the patient. Which brain region is most affected by these drugs to cause this symptom? a. brain stem b. Broca’s area c. limbic association cortex d. prefrontal association cortex e. parietal-tempora-occipital association cortex 68. Bob dreamt he was biking for five hours. The actual time he was in ____ sleep was probably about ____ minutes. a. beta; 15–20 b. EEG; 10–5 c. REM; 60–90 d. REM; 10–15 e. EEG; 90 69. Memories are associated with which brain regions? a. parietal lobe of the cortex b. frontal lobe of the cortex c. parietal-temporal-occipital association cortex d. limbic association cortex e. prefrontal association cortex 70. A patient has a stroke that leaves him unable to hear. Where is the most likely location of the brain damage? a. limbic association cortex b. prefrontal association cortex c. Wernicke’s area d. temporal lobe e. somatosensory cortex 71. The temporal lobe is associated with ____. a. touch and movement to that touch b. vision c. smell d. speech e. memory Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 40_5e 72. Which statement concerning the sympathetic and parasympathetic branches of the nervous system is true? a. The sympathetic system controls external stimuli, while the parasympathetic system controls internal stimuli. b. The sympathetic system generally produces increased physical activity, while the parasympathetic system produces a decrease in physical activity. c. Both nervous systems stimulate the activities of many organs. d. Both nervous systems release norepinephrine. e. The sympathetic system is under voluntary control, and the parasympathetic system is under involuntary control. 73. Destruction of the motor areas in the right cerebral cortex results in the loss of ____. a. sensation on the right side of the body b. sensation on the left side of the body c. voluntary movement on the left side of the body d. voluntary movement on the right side of the body e. involuntary control of the right side of the body 74. Similarities at the neural circuit level between humans and ____ are easy to detect and therefore are used in evolutionary studies examining the requirements for neural circuits. a. rodents b. invertebrates c. fruit flies d. sea hares e. bees 75. Detection and response to environmental cues or stimuli are primarily functions of ____. a. metabolism b. the nervous system c. catabolism d. the digestive system e. thermodynamics 76. Regine Verma and colleagues wanted to know if there was a sex difference in the human connectome. Which age group(s) had a detectable a sex difference using DTI? a. 8–13.3 years b. 13.4–17 years c. 17.1–22 years d. both 13.4–17 and 17.1–22 years e. all ages examined

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Chap 40_5e 77. In experiments to determine the function of the cerebral hemispheres, all the patients in the study had ____, which was necessary to be able to parse out the lateralization of the cortex. a. injury of the optic nerve b. severed corpus callosum c. damaged occipital cortex d. impaired judgment e. auditory impairment 78. During conscious quiet rest, the brain is emitting ____. a. alpha waves b. beta waves c. delta waves d. gamma waves e. rapid, irregular waves 79. In humans, the amputation of a limb results in the loss of neurons in the brain due to the absence of its target cells. However, not all of these neurons are lost—some of them become rerouted and can establish connections with other neurons. What is this process called? a. sensitization b. plasticity c. long-term potentiation d. myelination e. lateralization 80. Memory is ____. a. the storage and retrieval of sensory or motor experience b. the response to stimuli based on experiences c. the awareness of ourselves and surroundings d. voluntary e. involuntary

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Chap 40_5e Match each of the following structures of the nervous system with the correct definition. a. connects to 31 pairs of spinal nerves b. connects to 12 pairs of cranial nerves c. efferent portion of the PNS d. afferent portion of the PNS e. comprises two-neuron series with the presynaptic neuron in the CNS and the postsynaptic neuron in a ganglion f. motor neurons 81. spinal cord 82. brain 83. controls voluntary movement of muscles

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Chap 40_5e Figure 40.4 (Questions 71-78) Answer the questions with the accompanying figure. Identify the adult brain regions. a. Hemisphere of cerebrum b. Hypothalamus c. Thalamus d. Midbrain e. Pons f. Medulla oblongata g. Spinal Cord h. Cerebellum 84. cerebellum 85. hemisphere of cerebrum 86. hypothalamus 87. medulla oblongata 88. midbrain 89. pons 90. spinal cord 91. thalamus Match each of the following divisions of the nervous system with the correct definition. a. innervates the digestive tract b. carries nervous activity from the brain and spinal cord to effector structures c. efferent portion of the PNS dealing with body movements that are under conscious, voluntary control d. is comprised of the brain and spinal cord e. is comprised of a two-neuron series with the presynaptic neuron in the CNS and the postsynaptic neuron in a ganglion f. predominates in situations involving stress, danger, excitement, or strenuous physical activity g. predominates during quiet, low-stress situations. 92. central nervous system 93. enteric nervous system 94. peripheral nervous system 95. somatic nervous system 96. Explain why you move your hand from hot stimuli before you register pain.

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Chap 40_5e 97. Define long-term potentiation.

98. Define and explain the importance of the blood-brain barrier.

99. Compare the invertebrate nervous system to that of vertebrates.

100. What are the three sequential mechanisms involved with learning? Explain how a mouse would learn to locate cheese in a maze as indicated by these steps.

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Chap 40_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. False - reticular formation 7. False - sympathetic 8. False - larger 9. False - white 10. False - beta waves 11. c 12. a 13. a 14. c 15. b 16. a 17. b 18. b 19. d 20. a 21. c 22. e 23. a 24. b 25. c 26. a 27. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 40_5e 28. b 29. d 30. c 31. a 32. e 33. c 34. d 35. d 36. a 37. b 38. e 39. b 40. b 41. d 42. d 43. b 44. a 45. b 46. a 47. a 48. c 49. e 50. e 51. a 52. e 53. b 54. c 55. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 40_5e 56. c 57. b 58. c 59. b 60. c 61. d 62. a 63. d 64. d 65. d 66. a 67. c 68. d 69. d 70. d 71. e 72. b 73. c 74. a 75. b 76. e 77. b 78. a 79. b 80. a 81. a 82. b

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Chap 40_5e 83. f 84. h 85. a 86. b 87. f 88. d 89. e 90. g 91. c 92. d 93. a 94. b 95. c 96. In a reflex, the afferent neuron carries the information about the hot surface to the spinal cord, where it makes a direct connection with the motor neuron that moves your hand away. The information that makes you aware of the hot surface is processed in your somatosensory cortex. Here, a connection between the spinal cord and an interneuron sends the information to the thalamus; therefore, at least one or two extra synapses are required for you to ‘‘know’’ that your hand is touching something hot than it takes for the reflex to move your hand away. 97. Long-term potentiation is a series of events involved in the permanent alteration of neurons and neuron pathways to create long-term memory. Long-term potentiation is a long-lasting increase in the strength of synaptic connections in activated neural pathways followed by brief periods of repeated stimulation. The synapses become increasingly sensitive over time, so that a constant level of presynaptic stimulation is converted into a larger postsynaptic output that can last hours, weeks, months, or years. 98. The blood-brain barrier is a structural system of tight cellular junctions. Many substances are prevented from passing from the blood to the neurons because of these cellular junctions. This provides protection from microorganisms and toxins.

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Chap 40_5e 99. Invertebrate nervous systems are relatively simple, typically containing fewer neurons, arranged in less complex networks, than vertebrate systems. Radially symmetrical invertebrates, such as cnidarians and echinoderms, have loose meshes of neurons called nerve nets. In cnidarians, these neurons do not have clearly differentiated dendrites and axons. Although invertebrates with nerve nets do not have brains, often the neurons may be more concentrated in some regions. More complex invertebrates, such as flatworms, arthropods, and mollusks, have neurons with clearly defined axons and dendrites and more specialized functions. In addition, some neurons are concentrated into a functional cluster called a ganglion. A trend in animal evolution is the formation of a distinct head region containing ganglia that form a brain. Central and peripheral nervous systems are also present. In vertebrates, the CNS consists of a large brain located in the head and a hollow spinal cord, and the PNS consists of all nerves and ganglia that connect the brain and spinal cord to the rest of the body. The head contains specialized sensory organs that are connected directly to the brain by nerves. 100. 1) storing memories 2) scanning memories when a stimulus is encountered 3) modifying the response when a stimulus is encountered in accordance with the information stored as a memory. 1) The mouse first has to find the cheese in a maze. 2) The second time he is put in the maze, he will remember where that cheese is, and therefore 3) he will head directly to where the cheese was the last time he was in the maze.

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Chap 41_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. One way the intensity and extent of a stimulus is registered is by the frequency of action potentials traveling along the axons of afferent neurons. a. True b. False 2. All animals perceive light using different forms of a pigment called retinal. a. True b. False Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 3. Both rods and cones have four segments, each of which has a specialized function. 4. Many invertebrates have separate and differentiated receptors for taste and smell, while others have a single receptor for both. 5. Mechanical receptors can be used to stun or kill prey. 6. Substance P activates chemoreceptors. 7. Humans have different thermoreceptors for heat and cold. 8. In mammalian eyes, light must pass through neural cells to reach the photoreceptors in the retina. 9. The optic nerve transmits information from the basilar membrane to the brain. 10. The position of the head with respect to gravity is detected by receptors in the basilar membrane. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Some animals, like humans, have two eyes on the front of the head that perceive a mostly overlapping visual field. In contrast, some herbivores (rabbits, for example) have eyes on the sides of their head and visual fields that may not overlap at all. How does this impact perception of the environment? a. Humans have better depth perception and a wider field of vision than rabbits. b. Humans have poorer depth perception and a narrower field of vision than rabbits. c. Humans have better depth perception and a narrower field of vision than rabbits. d. Humans have poorer depth perception and a wider field of vision than rabbits. e. Due to integration by the brain, there is really no difference in depth perception or visual field size when comparing humans to rabbits. 12. The loss of function of the ____ renders fish unable to school. a. vestibular apparatus b. statocyst c. lateral line d. eyes e. saccule Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 41_5e 13. The lateral line system in fish comprises multiple ____ that allow fish to detect vibrations and water currents. a. statoliths b. neuromasts c. statocysts d. stereocilia e. cupulas 14. If a stimulus is outside the temperature range of the known thermoreceptors, ____. a. no action potential is generated b. a continuous action potential is generated c. the action potential has the highest frequency possible d. the neural signal is perceived as pain e. the neural signal is the same as its closest receptor 15. When light is absorbed by rhodopsin, ____. a. discs from the outer segment of the rods and cones begin to grow b. discs from the outer segment begin to shed c. cis-retinal is converted to trans-retinal d. trans-retinal is converted to cis-retinal e. the inner segment of the rods and cones releases neurotransmitters 16. The combined function of the malleus, incus, and stapes is to ____. a. convert the mechanical vibration of the tympanic membrane into a pressure wave in the cochlear duct b. amplify the vibrations of the ear drum c. equalize the pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane d. convert the oval window's vibrations into vibrations of the tympanic membrane e. dampen the vibrations of the tympanic membrane 17. In the dark, when rhodopsin is ____, rods ____ glutamate. a. active; release b. inactive; inhibit release of c. active; inhibit release of d. inactive; release e. inactive; inhibit synthesis of 18. Bats use high ultrasonic sounds to perceive their environment via a process known as ____. a. sound reflection navigation b. extrasensory perception c. echolocation d. ultralocation e. auditory navigation

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Chap 41_5e 19. Which animal would you expect to have the most diverse olfactory receptors to enhance their sense of smell? a. dog b. monkey c. human d. angelfish e. earthworm 20. Eyeglasses correct deficiencies in the function of the ____ in a near-sighted person. a. ciliary muscle b. cornea c. iris d. lens e. pupil 21. The function of the iris is to ____. a. control the amount of light entering the eye b. focus the image on the retina c. respond to particular colors d. keep the lens under tension to allow for image focusing e. prevent light scattering upon entry to the eye 22. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which label identifies the sensory hair cells? a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 5 e. 6 23. Vertigo is the sensation of dizziness. Which structure is most likely involved in this sensation? a. basilar membrane b. pinna c. semicircular canals d. stapes e. oval window 24. In invertebrates, the hairs of taste receptors ____, while those of smell receptors ____. a. directly contact the stimulus; indirectly contact the stimulus b. are derived from microvilli and contain microfilaments; are derived from cilia and contain microtubules c. transmit signals to the temporal lobes; transmit signals to the parietal lobes d. perceive taste and pain stimuli; perceive odors and taste stimuli e. detect airborne molecules; function as chemoreceptors

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Chap 41_5e 25. Magnetoreceptors ____. a. are well characterized and understood b. are known to rely on the mineral magnetite c. help many types of animals navigate long distances d. have been studied only in homing pigeons e. have been studied primarily in moths 26. Each cone responds primarily to a single color. What kinds of cones are present in the human retina? a. Two cones that perceive red or blue light. b. Three cones that perceive red, blue, or green light. c. Three cones that perceive orange, green, or purple light. d. Three cones that perceive red, blue, or yellow light. e. Four cones that perceive red, blue, yellow, or green light. 27. Thermoreceptors consist of ____. a. sensory receptors enclosing an afferent neuron b. sensory receptors formed by a cell that synapses with an afferent neuron c. free nerve endings of afferent neurons d. stereocilia e. statocysts 28. Synesthesia occurs when ____. a. one sense is confused with another b. two senses are perceived together c. three senses are perceived together d. sight, taste, and vision are perceived together e. vision, taste, and pain are perceived together 29. In retinal visual processing, the ____ receive synaptic signals from the bipolar cells. a. ganglion cells b. amacrine cells c. cones d. rods e. horizontal cells 30. Which eye is the best at detecting motion? a. compound eye b. single-lens eye c. ocellus d. ommatidia e. photoreceptor

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Chap 41_5e 31. Which receptors allow you to respond to changes in muscle load? a. muscle spindles b. cupula c. vestibular apparatus d. semicircular canals e. otoliths 32. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which number identifies the structure that transmits auditory signals to the brain? a. 2 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8 e. 9 33. How can humans perceive multiple sounds at once? a. Each portion of the basilar membrane vibrates at a unique frequency, and multiple regions can be stimulated at the same time. b. The more frequencies of sounds that are present, the further the sound travels into the cochlea. c. We have two ears, each perceiving a subset of frequencies in the environment. d. The fluid in the middle ear can transmit multiple frequencies to the oval window. e. Sounds reaching the left or right ear result in different nerve impulses. 34. An invertebrate statocyst contains ____, which surround movable ____; changes in body position move the latter, triggering action potentials. a. statoliths; sensory hair cells b. sensory hair cells; statoliths c. otoliths; sensory hair cells d. efferent neurons; otoliths e. efferent neurons; statoliths 35. The ____ responds to red light. a. outer segment of rods b. outer segment of red cones c. inner segment of rods d. inner segment of red cones e. synaptic terminals of both rods and cones

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Chap 41_5e 36. How did Kenneth Lohmann study the navigation ability of young loggerhead sea turtles? a. He placed radio transmitters on the shells of numerous hatchlings and tracked their migration patterns in the Atlantic ocean. b. He genetically engineered turtles so they lacked magnetoreceptors and then studied their behavior compared to a control group. c. He subjected turtles to an electromagnetic field opposite that of Earth's magnetic field, and then tracked the direction the hatchlings swam. d. The loggerhead turtles were injected with magnetite to see what impact it had on their navigation. e. Small magnets were glued to the hatchlings' shells, and their behaviors were monitored. 37. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which label identifies the structure through which the vibrations of the oval window pass? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5 e. 7 38. In the process of lateral inhibition, ____ inhibit distant bipolar cells. a. ganglion cells b. amacrine cells c. cones d. rods e. horizontal cells 39. Eye drops used by an ophthalmologist to dilate the eyes for an eye exam act on the nerves that control the ____. a. fovea b. lens c. ciliary muscle d. cornea e. iris 40. Which mechanoreceptor(s) responds to vibrations? a. free nerve endings only b. Pacinian corpuscles only c. Ruffini endings only d. free nerve endings and Ruffini endings e. Pacinian corpuscles and Meissner’s corpuscles

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Chap 41_5e 41. What detects levels of molecules such as oxygen, carbon dioxide, and hydrogen ions in the body? a. rhodopsin b. photoreceptors c. chemosensory neurons d. thermoreceptors e. nociceptors 42. The simplest eye structure, which is able to perceive light but not form an image, is called a(n) ____. a. compound eye b. single-lens eye c. ocellus d. ommatidia e. photoreceptor 43. In the context of vision, what does accommodation mean? a. Accommodation is the lack of receptor response to continuous light signals. b. Accommodation refers to changing the shape of the lens. c. Accommodation is the movement of the lens closer to or further away from the retina in order to focus the image. d. Accommodation keeps the lens under tension to allow for image focusing. e. Accommodation prevents light from scattering upon entry to the eye. 44. Many aquatic invertebrates use ____ to perceive changes in their body's position and orientation. a. statocysts b. lateral line systems c. stereocilia d. saccules e. otoliths

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Chap 41_5e

©2014 Brooks/Cole, Cengage Learning Figure 41.9 (questions 30-32) 45. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which structure vibrates and bends the sensory hairs? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 46. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which number identifies the structure that vibrates and DIRECTLY creates the pressure waves in the cochlear fluid? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 47. Glaucoma is a disease of the eye, often caused by an increase in intraocular pressure. This increased intraocular pressure is most likely caused by ____. a. loss of lens opacity b. increase in vitreous humor production c. increase in the size of the fovea d. increase in the thickness of the cornea e. contraction of the ciliary muscle 48. What is the function of pain? a. It causes an organism to move away from, or otherwise decrease exposure to, a damaging stimulus. b. It stimulates the brain to release endorphins to prevent an addiction. c. It protects an organism from encountering harmful conditions. d. It works faster than conscious thought. e. It causes an organism’s heart rate to increase to deliver more blood to a damaged body part. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 41_5e 49. Which receptor type makes you aware that you just touched a hot object? a. mechanoreceptors b. photoreceptors c. chemoreceptors d. thermoreceptors e. nociceptors 50. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which number identifies the location where the organ of Corti is found? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 e. 10 51. The pitch of a sound depends on the ____of the sound wave. a. wavelength b. amplitude c. frequency d. type e. substance 52. Which type of receptor is used by a rat to detect pheromones from a potential mate? a. mechanoreceptors b. photoreceptors c. chemoreceptors d. thermoreceptors e. nociceptors 53. Which type of receptor is used by an owl to visually detect the movement of prey? a. mechanoreceptors b. photoreceptors c. chemoreceptors d. thermoreceptors e. nociceptors 54. An earthworm detects sound ____. a. through specialized tympanic membranes located near the head b. through a thinned region of the exoskeleton that forms a tympanum c. through general mechanoreceptors on its skin d. by using a specialized organ that measures the frequency of vibration of the surrounding dirt particles e. through a series of mechanoreceptors arranged in a lateral line Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 41_5e 55. While some people love cilantro, others think it tastes like soap. This is due to a mutation in a receptor that binds to the airborne aldehydes found in cilantro. Which type of receptors is most likely affected by this mutation? a. nociceptors b. thermoreceptors c. chemoreceptors d. mechanoreceptors e. photoreceptors 56. Which receptor type helps a gymnast to know when to unfold from a back flip? a. proprioreceptors b. photoreceptors c. chemoreceptors d. thermoreceptors e. nociceptors 57. Which mechanoreceptor(s) responds to light touch? a. free nerve endings only b. Pacinian corpuscles only c. Ruffini endings only d. free nerve endings and Meissner's corpuscles e. Pacinian corpuscles and Ruffini endings 58. What is the function of an amacrine cell? a. transmit information from photoreceptors directly to the brain b. modulate the activity of other photoreceptors c. transmit information from bipolar cells to the ganglion cells d. modulate lateral inhibition e. transmit information from photoreceptors to bipolar cells 59. Taste buds are ____. a. really just modified sensilla b. found only on the tongue in humans c. collections of papilla that respond to different stimuli d. small capsules of cells, each with a pore at the top though which sensory hairs project and interact with environmental molecules e. able to respond to all flavors simultaneously through sensory hairs that connect to papillae 60. In humans, where is the tympanic membrane? a. in the outer ear, adjacent to the pinna b. deep within the middle ear c. between the outer ear and the middle ear's cavity d. adjacent to the stapes e. between the middle ear and inner ear Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 41_5e 61. Only ____ make direct contact with brain interneurons rather than afferent neurons. a. olfactory receptors b. taste receptors c. chemoreceptors d. mechanoreceptors e. photoreceptors

©2014 Brooks/Cole, Cengage Learning Figure 41.9 (questions 26-29) 62. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which number identifies the tympanic membrane? a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 8 e. 10 63. Colorblindness is ____. a. more prevalent in females than males b. more prevalent in males than females c. present in both sexes equally d. encoded by genes on the Y chromosome e. not a genetic condition 64. The loudness of a sound depends on the ____ of the sound wave. a. wavelength b. amplitude c. frequency d. type e. substance

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Chap 41_5e 65. Moths evade bats by ____. a. becoming invisible to the bat's echolocation signals b. flying in straight-line flight patterns c. detecting the bats echolocation clicks d. flying only in erratic patterns e. flying primarily in the daylight hours 66. Sensory adaptation ____. a. increases a receptor system’s sensitivity to changes in environmental stimuli b. increases a receptor system’s sensitivity to pain c. is primarily associated with thermoreceptors d. functions the same way in all types of sensory receptors e. is unique to predator animals 67. How do photoreceptors regenerate inactive cis-retinal? a. The cell degrades the active form and synthesizes new, inactive proteins. b. Enzymes convert trans-retinal back to the inactive conformation c. trans-retinal reverts back to the inactive state on its own. d. Active trans-retinal is digested by proteases to regenerate the inactive form. e. The mechanism is not known. 68. An insect, such as a moth or cricket, detects sound ____. a. though specialized tympanic membranes located near the head b. through a thinned region of the exoskeleton that forms a tympanum c. through general mechanoreceptors on its skin d. by using a specialized organ that measures the frequency of vibration of the surrounding air particles e. through a series of mechanoreceptors arranged in a lateral line 69. If a person has fully functional eyes, except for the absence of a lens, they would ____. a. be totally blind b. be able to perceive light and even respond to different light intensities c. be able to perceive light and even colors (solid color over a large area), but not details d. be able to see some details and read print, but only if the text were written in large, black letters e. have normal vision if given glasses 70. Jalapeño peppers contain the chemical capsaicin. If you lack the nociceptors that bind capsaicin, what would be the predicted outcome? a. You would be especially sensitive to spicy foods containing capsaicin. b. You would be able to eat foods containing high concentrations of capsaicin and not feel any burning in your mouth. c. You would have the same sensitivity to capsaicin as most other people. d. You would experience a feeling of cold when eating foods containing capsaicin. e. You would be more easily addicted to capsaicin-containing foods than normal individuals. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 41_5e 71. In a healthy human cochlea, fluid is found in the ____. a. vestibular canal only b. vestibular and tympanic canals only c. tympanic canal only d. vestibular canal, tympanic canal, and cochlear duct e. cochlear duct only 72. What is an otolith? a. sensory hair b. proprioceptor c. small microvilli d. gelatinous structure e. calcium carbonate crystal 73. Mutations in opsin proteins in the cones will lead to ____. a. difficulty seeing at night b. colorblindness c. complete blindness d. tunnel vision e. cortical blindness 74. In the mammalian eye, the lens focuses an image ____. a. across the entire surface of the retina b. primarily on the fovea c. on the rods only d. slightly in front of the retina e. it varies based on where you are looking 75. Nociceptors consist of ____. a. sensory receptors enclosing an afferent neuron b. sensory receptors formed by a cell that synapses with an afferent neuron c. free nerve endings of afferent neurons d. stereocilia e. statocysts 76. A sensillum is ____. a. a hollow sensory bristle that contains chemoreceptors b. located on the antennae, foot, or mouthparts of aquatic insects c. a specialized olfactory receptor in invertebrates d. common to earthworms, insects, and cnidarians e. a type of taste receptor in vertebrates

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Chap 41_5e 77. The outer segments of cones and rods contain ____. a. metabolic machinery b. light-inhibiting photopigments c. light-absorbing photopigments d. synaptic terminal e. ciliary muscles 78. Cataracts occur when the lens becomes opaque. Which symptoms most likely would be present in a patient with this condition? a. increased intraocular pressure b. enlarged pupil c. eye pain d. blurred vision e. headache 79. Which statement about rods and cones in the eye is correct? a. Cones respond to particular wavelengths (colors) of light, while rods perceive light at low intensity without color perception. b. Rods respond to particular wavelengths (colors) of light, while cones perceive light at low intensities without color perception. c. Cones are more sensitive to single photons of light than rods. d. Nocturnal animals have a high concentration of cones and relatively few rods. e. Humans have approximately equal numbers of rods and cones, but the cones are primarily localized in the fovea. 80. Electroreceptors ____. a. are only used by fishes for navigational purposes b. can be used for communication between primates c. can receive, but not produce, electrical signals d. generate electrical fields within special electric organs in some invertebrates e. function in communication, navigation, and hunting

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Chap 41_5e Identify each numbered cell in the human eye shown in the following figure.

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Chap 41_5e Match the appropriate receptor to the correct description. Some choices may be used more than once. a. mechanoreceptors b. photoreceptors c. chemoreceptors d. thermoreceptors e. nociceptors 88. used to detect motion of an organism's own body 89. perceives specific chemical conditions, such as alkalinity 90. detects specific molecules, such as glucose 91. detects the flow of heat energy 92. detects an increase in pressure against the skin 93. perceives light energy 94. perceives damage in some internal organs Match the appropriate receptor to the correct description. Some choices may be used more than once. a. mechanoreceptors b. photoreceptors c. chemoreceptors d. thermoreceptors e. nociceptors 95. stimulus may result in a sensation of pain 96. Define sensory adaptation.

97. Explain how proprioceptors work.

98. Why might you purposely yawn when you descend to land while flying in an airplane?

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Chap 41_5e 99. After a robbery, two witnesses may describe the incident very differently from one another. Explain why.

100. Explain the general process of sensory transduction.

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Chap 41_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. False - three 4. True 5. False - Electroreceptors 6. False - nociceptors 7. True 8. True 9. False - cochlear nerve 10. False - utricle and saccule 11. c 12. c 13. b 14. d 15. c 16. b 17. d 18. c 19. a 20. d 21. a 22. c 23. c 24. b 25. c 26. b 27. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 41_5e 28. b 29. a 30. a 31. a 32. c 33. a 34. b 35. b 36. c 37. e 38. e 39. c 40. e 41. c 42. c 43. b 44. a 45. e 46. d 47. b 48. a 49. e 50. d 51. c 52. c 53. b 54. c 55. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 41_5e 56. a 57. d 58. c 59. d 60. c 61. a 62. e 63. b 64. b 65. c 66. a 67. b 68. b 69. c 70. b 71. b 72. e 73. b 74. b 75. c 76. a 77. c 78. d 79. a 80. a 81. b 82. f

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Chap 41_5e 83. a 84. d 85. g 86. e 87. c 88. a 89. c 90. c 91. d 92. a 93. b 94. e 95. e 96. Sensory adaptation is when a constant stimulus results in a reduction of the frequency of the action potentials generated by the afferent neurons. 97. Proprioceptors allow the central nervous system to monitor the body’s position and help keep the body in balance. They are slow to adapt, so that body position and balance are constantly monitored. Your body can detect and adjust to changes in weight on the body so that it stays in balance; that is, proprioceptors allow your body to compensate unconsciously. 98. Eustachian tubes protect the tympanic membrane (eardrum) from damage by changes in environmental atmospheric pressure. The pressure changes associated with flying can be relieved by yawning or swallowing because the tube opens. The tube opening allows air to flow into or out of the middle ear, resulting in equalization of pressure on both sides of the eardrum. 99. Perception is based on a number of different factors, including the types of receptors that are involved in the perception of a situation, the enhancement or diminishment of stimuli during processing, and processing in the cortex. Humans mostly have the same types of receptors, so the biggest difference between the perception of two people comes down to the comparison of the situation to memories of a previous, similar situation. 100. Sensory transduction is when a particular stimulus of a receptor cell results in a change in membrane potential. This membrane potential can then generate action potentials that relay the signal to the central nervous system.

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Chap 42_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Estrogens can both induce and prevent breast cancer cell proliferation. a. True b. False 2. Increases in melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) could result in increased pigmentation. a. True b. False 3. Because they interfere with metamorphosis, ecdysone inhibitors could be effective as insecticides. a. True b. False 4. Fruit flies, mollusks, and humans all have insulin-like hormones and receptors, even though molecular studies suggest that their last common ancestor existed more than 800 million years ago. a. True b. False 5. Oxytocin can generate feelings of well-being as well as anxiety and stress. a. True b. False Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 6. Prostaglandins are under neuroendocrine regulation. 7. Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary in females only. 8. Cyclic AMP activity is associated with hydrophobic hormones. 9. Hormones are cleared from the body by endocrine glands. 10. Insulin is produced and released from the pineal gland. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. The ____ gland has a neurosecretory component as well as a component that is not under direct neural control. a. thyroid b. pineal c. adrenal d. pituitary e. parathyroid

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Chap 42_5e 12. The pituitary gland is regulated most directly by the ____. a. pineal gland b. hypothalamus c. pancreas d. adrenal gland e. thyroid gland 13. Type 1 diabetes causes ____, while type 2 diabetes results in ____. a. hyperglycemia; hypoglycemia b. protein breakdown; protein synthesis c. blindness; kidney disorder d. insulin hypersecretion; insulin hyposecretion e. insulin deficiency; insulin resistance 14. The release of chemical signals into the extracellular fluid to affect nearby target cells is an example of ____ regulation. a. autocrine b. endocrine c. paracrine d. systemic e. exocrine 15. The synthesis and secretion of ____ is ultimately regulated by gonadotropin-releasing hormone from the ____. a. estrogen; posterior pituitary b. estrogen; ovaries c. testosterone; hypothalamus d. testosterone; testes e. androgens; gonads 16. The secretions of endocrine glands ____. a. only affect their own tissue b. provide feedback by paracrine action c. reach their target tissue via the ECF d. reach their target tissues via the circulatory system e. are only active in the nervous system 17. Metamorphosis to adult frogs would not occur.You are studying the hormonal control of metamorphosis in amphibians. If the anterior pituitary was prevented from releasing TSH, what would be the effect on tadpoles? a. Metamorphosis to adult frogs would be increased five-fold. b. Metamorphosis to adult frogs would not occur. c. Calcium secretion in tadpoles would be inhibited. d. Metabolism in tadpoles would be greatly increased. e. Metamorphosis would proceed, but arrest after limb formation. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 42_5e 18. The anterior pituitary secretes more ACTH, leading to more glucocorticoids in plasma, which causes the anterior pituitary to then secrete less ACTH. This is an example of ____ regulation. a. amplification only b. positive feedback only c. negative feedback d. cascading feedback e. both amplification and positive feedback 19. Target cells for steroid hormones and thyroid hormones do not have membrane receptors for these hormones because they ____. a. stimulate the cell by changes in electrical activity b. are hydrophobic c. enter the cell by ion channels d. are small enough to diffuse directly into the cell e. dissolve readily in the extracellular fluid (ECF) 20. The ovaries are regulated by the____. a. anterior pituitary b. posterior pituitary c. hypothalamus d. presence of environmental estrogens e. gonadal hormones 21. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Many ____ act via the signaling fashion illustrated by this figure. a. neurohormones b. digestive hormones c. stress hormones d. blood sugar regulators e. growth factors 22. When hydrophilic hormones bind to surface receptors, the ____. a. signal is amplified b. signal is inhibited c. receptor is activated d. receptor is deactivated e. hormone is transduced

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Chap 42_5e 23. Biological rhythms and the onset of sleep are regulated by ____ produced by the ____. a. cortisol; pineal gland b. melatonin; pituitary gland c. parathyroid hormone; parathyroid gland d. melatonin; pineal gland e. cortisol; adrenal gland 24. Which hormone is responsible for the release of calcium and phosphate ions from bone tissues into the blood? a. glucagon b. insulin c. epinephrine d. parathyroid hormone e. glucocorticoids 25. Which statement about steroid hormones in invertebrates and vertebrates is most accurate? a. An invertebrate hormone injected into a vertebrate would have a greater effect than the endogenous hormone. b. A vertebrate hormone injected in an invertebrate would have a greater effect that the endogenous hormone. c. The reaction pathways stimulated by steroid hormones in invertebrates and vertebrates are similar. d. The reaction pathways stimulated by steroid hormones in invertebrates and vertebrates are different. e. Invertebrates do not produce steroid hormones. 26. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are ____ hormones. a. steroid b. glucocorticoid c. mineralocorticoid d. gonadotropin e. catecholamine 27. Overproduction of epinephrine and norepinephrine can cause ____. a. increased digestive processes b. the formation of a tumor in the adrenal medulla c. increased heart rate d. increased blood flow to the kidneys and intestines e. decreased blood flow to the heart

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Chap 42_5e 28. The regulation of water balance, milk release, and uterine contractions during childbirth are mediated by the ____ gland. a. parathyroid b. pineal c. anterior pituitary d. posterior thyroid e. posterior pituitary 29. Which hormone involved in reproductive functions is produced outside the gonads? a. testosterone b. estrogen c. progesterone d. follicle-stimulating hormone e. prolactin 30. The ____ hormones are vital to growth, development, maturation, and metabolism in all vertebrates. a. thyroid b. parathyroid c. adrenal d. gonadal e. insulin

31. Figure 42.11 (questions 62 and 63) a. A b. B c. C d. D Answer the question using the accompanying figure. In the box labeled ‘A,’ ____ levels ____. a. insulin; decrease b. insulin; increase c. glucagon; decrease d. glucagon; increase e. glycogen; decrease Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 42_5e 32. When human volunteers were given high doses of AAS, ____ a. TSH levels increased b. gonadotropin levels increased c. natural testosterone levels increased d. thyroxine levels decreased e. TSH levels were unaffected 33. When molt-inhibiting hormone secretion (MIH) is prevented, ____. a. ecdysone levels increase b. ecdysone levels decrease c. molting is inhibited d. growth is inhibited e. growth is stimulated 34. In an experiment examining adrenergic receptors, epinephrine alone was not able to trigger an increase in cAMP, but when beta receptors were fused with animal cells, there were high levels of cAMP. This indicates ____ was occurring. a. activation of epinephrine b. protein kinase inhibition c. activation of adenylyl cyclase only d. protein kinase amplification only e. both activation of adenylyl cyclase and protein kinase amplification 35. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. During metamorphosis of a tadpole, 'A' is the ____. a. thyroid b. parathyroid c. hypothalamus d. adrenal cortex e. posterior pituitary 36. Select the appropriate order of hormone action. a. transduction, reception, response b. reception, response, transduction c. transduction, response, reception d. reception, transduction, response e. reception, translation, response

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Chap 42_5e

37. Figure 42.1D (questions 60 and 61) Answer the question using the accompanying figure. This figure illustrates ____ signaling. a. classical endocrine b. exocrine c. autocrine d. Paracrine e. neuroendocrine 38. Your job is to determine if a steroid hormone is having an effect on its target tissue. Which response would indicate activation of the target tissue by the hormone in question? a. increased cyclic AMP levels b. activation of G-proteins c. increased levels of mRNA d. increased calcium level in the cytoplasm e. increased polysaccharide levels in the cytoplasm 39. In order for crustacean molting to occur, ____ secretion must ____. a. molt-inhibiting hormone; increase b. juvenile hormone; be inhibited c. prothoracicotropic hormone; decrease d. ecdysone; increase e. insulin-like hormone; increase 40. Hormone levels and action are determined by ____. a. other hormones or releasing agents b. carbohydrate activity c. positive feedback systems d. prostaglandins e. touch receptors

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Chap 42_5e 41. Select the correct sequence of events involved in regulating secretion of thyroid hormones. 1. pituitary releases thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 2. hypothalamus secretes thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH) 3. thyroid hormones inhibit long-term TRH secretion 4. thyroid secretes thyroid hormones 5. thyroid hormones inhibit TSH secretion a. 1, 2, 4, 5, 3 b. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3 c. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2 d. 3, 4, 1, 2, 5 e. 2, 4, 5, 1, 3 42. Cortisol is a ____ secreted by the ____. a. amine; adrenal medulla b. glucocorticoid; adrenal cortex c. glucocorticoid; adrenal medulla d. amine; adrenal cortex e. catecholamine; adrenal glands 43. Ovaries produce ____ to prepare the uterus prior to implantation of a fertilized egg. a. estradiol b. oxytocin c. progesterone d. prolactin e. estrogen 44. Prostaglandins are ____. a. protein molecules that act either by paracrine or autocrine mechanisms b. fatty acid derivatives that act either by paracrine or autocrine mechanisms c. neurotransmitters that act by paracrine mechanisms d. amine molecules that act by neuroendocrine mechanisms e. steroid molecules that are lipid soluble 45. In bull elks, the mating season is triggered by the length of daylight which has a direct role on ____. a. metabolism b. endocrine activity c. catabolism d. ecological events e. thermodynamics

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Chap 42_5e 46. Why do diabetes patients often display tissue degeneration in the extremities? a. The body is unable to process enough glucose and therefore supports only the major organs. b. The fat deposits protecting the extremities are utilized as an energy source. c. The body utilizes protein as an energy source, weakening blood vessels, especially those in the extremities. d. The unutilized glucose in the extremities crystallizes and damages these tissues. e. The excess exercise used to control the diabetic condition causes tissue degeneration. 47. A cell that contains a receptor for a hormone is known as a(n) ____. a. endocrine gland b. paracrine cell c. neuroendocrine cell d. target cell e. signaling cell 48. One of the main functions of the hypothalamus is to produce ____ hormones, which affect the ____ pituitary. a. releasing; posterior b. releasing; anterior c. activating; posterior d. amplification; anterior e. growth factor; anterior 49. Which organ and hormone pair is incorrectly matched? a. pancreas and insulin b. thyroid gland and thyroxine c. hypothalamus and melatonin d. adrenal cortex and glucocorticoids e. posterior pituitary and oxytocin 50. Target tissues often have receptors for multiple hormones. The response of the target tissue may depend on ____. a. blood levels of and coordinated activities of several hormones secreted by different glands, only b. blood levels of the hormones that affect it only c. coordinated activities of several hormones secreted by different glands only d. the effects of other signaling molecules, such as prostaglandins only e. blood levels of, coordinated activities of several hormones secreted by different glands, and the effects of other signaling molecules, such as prostaglandins

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Chap 42_5e 51. How do mammalian and nonmammalian adrenal glands differ? a. they have totally different functions b. they have opposite effect on target tissues c. the mammalian glands consists of two distinct regions while the nonmammalian glands consist of separate glands d. the mammalian glands are antagonistic while the nonmammalian glands work in concert e. the mammalian glands are the same size while the nonmammalian glands are different sizes 52. Which hormone(s) is/are responsible for sodium reabsorption in the kidneys and intestine? a. insulin-like hormones b. glucocorticoids c. cortisol d. mineralocorticoids e. glucagon 53. Overproduction of the mineralocorticoid ______ causes excessive water retention. a. cortisol b. aldosterone c. epinephrine d. catecholamine e. ADH 54. Negative feedback loops to the hypothalamus and the pituitary operate to regulate the levels of ____, the most important regulator of thyroid hormone secretion. a. TRH b. thyroid hormone c. TSH d. ADH e. calcitonin 55. Melatonin levels in mammals are regulated by a(n) ____. a. inhibitory pathway b. stimulating pathway c. negative feedback loop d. positive feedback loop e. triggering signal 56. During stressful situations, epinephrine initiates ____. a. dilation of blood vessels to the skin b. dilation of blood vessels to the heart c. constriction of blood vessels to the brain d. a decrease in metabolic rate e. a decrease in blood glucose levels Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 42_5e 57. Synthetic ____ are successfully used to treat delayed puberty, cancer, AIDS, severe burns, liver and kidney failure, and anemias. a. anabolic-androgenic steroids b. pituitary hormones c. estrogen diethylstilbestrols d. oxytocins e. progestins 58. If adenylyl cyclase were inhibited in animal cells, ____. a. binding of epinephrine to beta receptors would have no effect on cyclic AMP levels. b. binding of epinephrine to beta receptors would increase cyclic AMP levels. c. an increase in mRNA for cyclic AMP would occur. d. an increase in mRNA for more beta receptors would occur. e. epinephrine would not be able to bind to beta receptors. 59. A hormone that is hydrophobic, derived from cholesterol, and binds to intracellular receptors is most likely a(n) ____ hormone. a. fatty acid b. steroid c. protein d. amine e. carbohydrate

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Chap 42_5e

60. FIGURE 42.8 (questions 58 and 59) a. A b. B c. C Answer the question using the accompanying figure. During metamorphosis of a tadpole, TSH is active at ____. a. A b. B c. C d. B and C e. A, B, and C 61. While neural activity involves transmission of information through electrical events, endocrine activity involves ____. a. transport of hormones to trigger slow, persistent responses b. transport of hormones to trigger fast, transient responses c. release of hormones from exocrine glands for transport outside the body d. changes in neural activity for transport of hormones to target tissues e. transmission of information through chemical reactions

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Chap 42_5e 62. Which hormone has a role in both feelings of well-being and in social stress responses in both sexes? a. oxytocin b. endorphins c. insulin-like growth factors d. epinephrine e. norepinephrine 63. If melanocyte-stimulating hormone were increased, you would expect ____. a. changes in kidney function for retention of water b. increase in reproductive or estrus cycles c. decrease in heat loss from the body surface d. increase in pigmentation in the skin e. decrease in milk production in females 64. In humans, an adult suffering from hyperthyroidism ____. a. is always tired b. shows lack of emotions c. experiences insomnia and weight loss d. sleeps a significant amount of the time e. has a low heart rate 65. The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland stores and secretes ____. a. ADH only b. TSH only c. oxytocin only d. ADH and oxytocin only e. ADH, oxytocin and TSH 66. An important functional role of the endocrine system is to ____. a. respond rapidly to changes in the body b. control gene action c. inhibit nervous system action on muscles and glands d. regulate digestion e. fight infection 67. Small quantities of hormone can result in profound responses in target tissues. This type of response is referred to as ____. a. amplification b. a first messenger response c. a gene activation response d. a neural response e. a growth factor response Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 42_5e 68. When rats are given high doses of anabolic-androgenic steroids (AAS), they experience ____. a. decreased muscle mass and overall strength b. increased fertility c. increased aggression and anxiety d. increased gonadotropins and gonadal hormones e. decreased sex drive and energy levels 69. In insects, the level of ____ controls the formation of a pupa. a. molt-inhibiting hormone b. juvenile hormone c. prothoracicotropic hormone d. ecdysone e. insulin-like hormone 70. Calcium levels are primarily under the control of ____. a. calcitonin and thyroxine b. prolactin and oxytocin c. prolactin and oxytocin d. parathyroid hormone and thyroxine e. progesterone and ADH 71. Select the endocrine gland whose secretory function is under direct control of the sympathetic nervous system. a. pancreas b. thyroid c. adrenal medulla d. parathyroid e. posterior pituitary 72. The parathyroid gland ____. a. functions in regulation of sodium levels in the blood b. produces numerous hormones active in regulating downstream endocrine glands c. is the largest gland outside the hypothalamus d. produces only a single hormone, the thyroid regulating hormone e. produces only a single hormone, the parathyroid hormone 73. The actions of insulin and glucagon are ____. a. synergistic b. permissive c. cooperative d. antagonistic e. mutualistic Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 42_5e 74. Hydrophobic hormones act by ____. a. triggering a genomic response b. triggering a signal transduction pathway c. activating an effector molecule d. inhibiting feedback loops e. preventing translation 75. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. In type 1 diabetes, the box(es) labeled ____ malfunctions. a. A b. B c. C d. A and C e. B and D 76. In many cases, negative feedback loops maintain homeostasis by adjusting hormones that act in ____. a. concert b. sequence c. antagonistic ways d. additive ways e. parallel 77. Anabolic-androgenic steroids are ____. a. synthetic forms of testosterone b. synthetic forms of estrogens c. used to treat early puberty d. natural variants of testosterone e. natural variants of estrogen 78. Which hormones enter cells and alter mRNA production? a. steroid and peptide hormones b. steroid and phospholipid hormones c. thyroid and peptide hormones d. peptide and phospholipid hormones e. steroid and thyroid hormones

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Chap 42_5e

79. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The ____ glands are shown in this figure. a. thyroid b. pituitary c. adrenal d. pancreatic e. pineal 80. The reason some individual hormones have multiple effects on different target tissues is that ____. a. gene transcription is altered b. second messengers trigger cascade or amplification effects c. many different cells in different tissues have specific receptors for the hormone d. only a small amount of the hormone is required for its effect e. hormones can conform to multiple receptors

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Chap 42_5e Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Identify the endocrine glands in the figure. Answers may be used more than once.

Figure 42.6 (questions 71-85) a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G h. H i. I 81. produces epinephrine and norepinephrine

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Chap 42_5e Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Identify the endocrine glands in the figure. Answers may be used more than once.

Figure 42.6 (questions 71-85) a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G h. H i. I 82. controls biological rhythms

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Chap 42_5e Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Identify the endocrine glands in the figure. Answers may be used more than once.

Figure 42.6 (questions 71-85) a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G h. H i. I 83. hormones from this gland play an important role in metamorphosis in amphibians 84. production and release of calcitonin Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 42_5e Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Identify the endocrine glands in the figure. Answers may be used more than once.

Figure 42.6 (questions 71-85) a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G h. H i. I 85. production site of androgens 86. gland that produces progesterone that is under the control of GnRH Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 42_5e Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Identify the endocrine glands in the figure. Answers may be used more than once.

Figure 42.6 (questions 71-85) a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G h. H i. I 87. a portion is neuroendocrine and a portion is under hormonal control of the hypothalamus 88. production site of the hormone that directly promotes growth in bones and muscles 89. production site of hormone that stimulates thyroid hormone production Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 42_5e 90. production site of hormone that targets the kidneys to stimulate water reabsorption and retention

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Chap 42_5e Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Identify the endocrine glands in the figure. Answers may be used more than once.

Figure 42.6 (questions 71-85) a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G h. H i. I 91. primary calcium regulation 92. the hormone produced by this gland works in a synergistic fashion with vitamin D Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 42_5e Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Identify the endocrine glands in the figure. Answers may be used more than once.

Figure 42.6 (questions 71-85) a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G h. H i. I 93. ADH production

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Chap 42_5e Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Identify the endocrine glands in the figure. Answers may be used more than once.

Figure 42.6 (questions 71-85) a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G h. H i. I 94. production site of the hormone that stimulates uterine contractions and milk let-down

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Chap 42_5e Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Identify the endocrine glands in the figure. Answers may be used more than once.

Figure 42.6 (questions 71-85) a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G h. H i. I 95. production and release of insulin

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Chap 42_5e 96. Compare and contrast receptor recognition between a hydrophobic and hydrophilic hormone.

97. If a hormone caused an increase in protein kinase activity, predict the type of hormone responsible and the intracellular signaling mechanism of its action.

98. Explain negative feedback control using thyroid hormones as an example.

99. Describe amplification of hormone action.

100. A patient has very low plasma glucose levels, a condition called hypoglycemia. The problem is not associated with insulin, but with the secretion of glucocorticoids. How would you evaluate the patient to determine where in the feedback system the problem is located?

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Chap 42_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. False - autocrine or paracrine 7. False - both males and females 8. False - hydrophilic 9. False - enzymatic breakdown 10. False - pancreas 11. d 12. b 13. e 14. c 15. c 16. d 17. b 18. c 19. b 20. a 21. e 22. c 23. d 24. d 25. c 26. e 27. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 42_5e 28. e 29. d 30. a 31. c 32. a 33. a 34. e 35. c 36. d 37. c 38. c 39. d 40. a 41. b 42. b 43. c 44. b 45. b 46. c 47. d 48. b 49. c 50. e 51. c 52. d 53. b 54. c 55. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 42_5e 56. b 57. a 58. a 59. b 60. c 61. a 62. a 63. d 64. c 65. d 66. d 67. a 68. c 69. b 70. b 71. c 72. e 73. d 74. a 75. b 76. c 77. a 78. e 79. c 80. c 81. c 82. f

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Chap 42_5e 83. g 84. g 85. e 86. d 87. b 88. b 89. b 90. b 91. h 92. h 93. a 94. a 95. i 96. Hydrophobic hormones are typically lipid soluble hormones--steroids or fatty acid derivatives. These will diffuse into the cell and bind to intracellular receptors. Typical action of these hormones is to affect gene activity. Hydrophilic hormones are non-lipid soluble and thus cannot easily enter the cell. Receptors are typically membrane bound. The binding of the hormone to the receptor results in activation of a type of second messenger, which then causes a variety of effects from permeability changes to changes in enzyme activity. 97. The hormone is most likely an amine or peptide—or other hydrophilic molecule. The receptor is a membrane bound receptor and a type of second messenger mechanism is involved. The second messenger could either be cyclic AMP or G-proteins. In either case, the hormone-receptor complex would either activate adenylyl cyclase or G-proteins. As a result, protein kinase would be activated by the second messenger products 98. Thyroid hormones (T3 & T4) are produced by the thyroid gland. Levels are maintained within a physiological range. When theT3 and T4 levels drop due to metabolism, the hypothalamus produces thyroid releasing hormone (TRH), which acts on the anterior pituitary to produce thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). TSH stimulates the thyroid to produce and release T3 and T4. As the levels of T3 and T4 increase, the hypothalamus decreases the production of TRH and thus TSH from the anterior pituitary also decreases. 99. Small quantities of hormones can typically produce profound effects in cells and on body functions (the basic process of amplification). In amplification, binding of the hormone to a receptor triggers activation of many proteins, each of which then activates an even larger number of proteins for the next step in the cellular reaction pathway, and so on, increasing in magnitude for each step in the pathway.

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Chap 42_5e 100. The adrenal cortex secretes glucocorticoids under the control of ACTH from the anterior pituitary. The anterior pituitary is under the control of releasing hormones (RHs) from the hypothalamus. The patient could be given an injection of ACTH and then monitor blood glucose levels. Next, the patient could be given an injection of RHs and blood glucose levels evaluated. Another way to address the problem would be to measure the levels of ACTH and RHs in the patient. If the RHs were elevated, then the problem would be ACTH production from the pituitary.

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Chap 43_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. The striated muscles in most invertebrates have thick and thin filaments arranged in sarcomeres entirely similar to those of vertebrates. a. True b. False 2. Muscles that can be controlled precisely and delicately have few muscle fibers in each motor unit. a. True b. False 3. When you collect a sand dollar on the beach, you are looking at the shell of an echinoderm consisting of ossicles formed from calcium carbonate crystals. a. True b. False 4. Recent research has shown that myostatin can negatively regulate cardiac muscle growth. a. True b. False 5. Skeletal muscles are attached to bones by cords of connective tissue called tendons. a. True b. False Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 6. In a(n) hydrostatic skeleton, the force of muscle contraction is applied against a rigid, external body covering. 7. The sliding filament model of muscle contraction depends on the dynamic interactions between myostatin and myoglobin proteins. 8. When Ca2+ diffuses into the cytoplasm of muscle cells and initiates the crossbridge cycle without a neurotransmitter trigger, the animal is most likely stressed. 9. The flexor joints, the most moveable joints in the vertebrate skeleton, are lubricated by fluid that allows bones to slide easily as the joint moves. 10. The patterns by which muscles connect to bones are the same in all vertebrates. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Skeletal muscle growth and development is inhibited by ____ produced in muscle cells. a. erythropoietin b. acetylcholine c. epidermal growth factor d. epinephrine e. myostatin Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 43_5e 12. The ____ muscles are an example of an antagonist muscle pair in humans. a. calf and gluteus maximus b. deltoid and pectoral c. hamstring and biceps d. calf and hamstring e. biceps and triceps 13. The bodies of arthropods are supported mainly by ____. a. an exoskeleton b. only nonskeletal structures c. a hydrostatic skeleton d. an endoskeleton e. joined exo- and endoskeletons 14. The Z lines in skeletal muscle are composed of ____. a. discs to which thin filaments are anchored b. stacked thick filaments along with the parts of thin filaments that overlap both ends c. thin filaments but no thick filaments d. thick filaments but no thin filaments e. stacked thin filaments along with parts of thick filaments that overlap both ends 15. Research indicates that compared to the genomes of bony fish, the elephant shark genome contains ____ the genes necessary for bone formation. a. none of b. half of c. most of d. all but one of e. double 16. Skeletal muscle H zones are composed of ____. a. discs to which thin filaments are anchored b. stacked thick filaments along with the parts of thin filaments that overlap both ends c. thin filaments but no thick filaments d. thick filaments but no thin filaments e. stacked thin filaments along with parts of thick filaments that overlap both ends 17. Skeletal muscles are made up of bundles of elongated, cylindrical cells called ____. a. muscle fibers b. sarcomeres c. tendons d. ligaments e. myofibrils Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 43_5e 18. The radius and ulna are considered to be part of ____. a. both the axial skeleton and the appendicular skeleton b. the axial skeleton only c. neither the axial skeleton nor the appendicular skeleton d. the appendicular skeleton only e. the axial or appendicular skeleton depending on the animal 19. A motor unit is a ____. a. single muscle fiber activated individually b. complete set of muscle fibers in a single muscle c. single sarcomere d. sequence of muscle fibers activated in order e. group of muscle fibers activated as a block 20. A single, weak contraction of a muscle fiber is called ____. a. an action potential b. a muscle twitch c. fatigue d. tetanus e. constriction 21. Annelids must utilize ____ muscles in order to move. a. only circular b. only longitudinal c. crosswise d. circular and longitudinal e. crosswise or longitudinal 22. The primary source of new red blood cells in mammals is the ____. a. liver b. blood, itself c. spleen d. heart e. bone marrow 23. A muscle that decreases the angle between two bones at a joint is called a(n)____. a. flexor b. agonist c. depressor d. antagonist e. extensor

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Chap 43_5e 24. A muscle that increases the angle between two bones at a joint is called a(n) ____. a. flexor b. agonist c. depressor d. antagonist e. extensor 25. The ____ joints are usually highly moveable, with a fluid-filled capsule of connective tissue surrounding them. a. synovial b. cartilaginous c. fibrous d. agonist e. antagonistic

26. Figure 43.3 (questions 63, 64, and 65) a. A b. B c. C d. D Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The structure labeled “B” forms at the ____. a. junctions of A bands and I bands b. H zone c. junctions of A bands and H zones d. M line e. junctions of I bands and M lines

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Chap 43_5e 27. Myoglobin content is high in ____. a. fast anaerobic fibers only b. slow muscle fibers only c. slow muscle fibers and fast aerobic muscle fibers d. fast aerobic and fast anaerobic muscle fibers e. slow muscle fibers and fast anaerobic fibers

28. Figure 43.9 (questions 61 and 62) a. A b. B Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The muscle indicated by the letter ‘A’ is a(n) ____ muscle. a. flexor b. agonist c. depressor d. antagonist e. extensor 29. Each motor unit is composed of ____. a. both slow and fast aerobic muscle fibers b. both fast aerobic and anaerobic fibers c. all types of muscle fibers mixed together d. only one type muscle fiber e. both slow and fast anaerobic muscle fibers 30. Vertebrates such as ____ have both exo- and endoskeletons. a. birds b. humans c. turtles d. lobsters e. fish

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Chap 43_5e 31. Synovial joints are held together by ____. a. muscle fibers b. sarcomeres c. tendons d. ligaments e. myofibrils 32. Individual skeletal muscle cells are packed with cylindrical contractile elements about 1 mm in diameter called ____. a. muscle fibers b. sarcomeres c. tendons d. ligaments e. myofibrils 33. Clostridium botulinum produces a deadly toxin that stops muscle contractions by ____. a. destroying cell membranes b. killing mitochondria c. disrupting the structure of actin filaments d. preventing ATP synthesis e. blocking acetylcholine release 34. In skeletal muscle contraction, ____ directly fuels the movement of the myosin head. a. glucose b. fatty acids c. GTP d. ATP e. an H+ gradient 35. A muscle that causes any type of movement in a joint when it contracts is called a(n) ____. a. flexor b. agonist c. depressor d. antagonist e. extensor 36. Muscles that act as opposing pairs are____. a. flexors b. agonists c. depressors d. antagonists e. extensors Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 43_5e 37. The main role of myoglobin in muscle fibers is to ____. a. magnify responses to neurotransmitters b. sequester ions c. synthesize ATP d. store oxygen e. enhance the strength of the power stroke 38. The region between two adjacent “Z lines” is known as a ____. a. muscle fiber b. sarcomere c. tendon d. ligament e. myofibril 39. The ____ joints, found in the vertebrae and some rib bones, have fibrous connective tissue covering the ends of the bones involved and are somewhat moveable. a. synovial b. cartilaginous c. fibrous d. agonist e. antagonistic 40. The human elbow is an example of a ____ joint. a. hinge b. fulcrum c. ball-and-socket d. lever e. ligament 41. The binding of ____to ____ directly triggers the power stroke in skeletal muscle contraction. a. myosin; actin b. tropomyosin; myosin c. myosin; troponin d. tropomyosin; actin e. troponin; tropomyosin 42. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The structure labeled “C” is a modified form of the ____. a. Golgi apparatus b. plasma membrane c. rough endoplasmic reticulum d. smooth endoplasmic reticulum e. nuclear membrane Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 43_5e 43. A defect in the transport of ____ ions would have the most direct effect on muscle contraction. a. Clb. K+ c. Ca2+ d. Na+ and Zn2+ e. Zn2+ 44. A ____ joint can move only in one direction, providing limited range of motion. a. hinge b. fulcrum c. ball-and-socket d. lever e. ligament 45. The ____ is a system of vesicles that wraps around each A band and I band. a. neuromuscular junction b. Golgi apparatus c. sheath d. microvillus e. sarcoplasmic reticulum 46. The frozen contraction of muscle cells called rigor mortis occurs after death because ____. a. ions are not available in the cytoplasm of muscle cells b. tropomyosin breaks down quickly c. crossbridges become very rigid structures d. ATP production stops e. muscle cells are flooded with neurotransmitters 47. By _____, researchers had established how actin and myosin arrangements changed during muscle ____. a. 1924; relaxation b. 1954; contraction c. 1924; contraction d. 1994; relaxation e. 1904; stimulation

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Chap 43_5e 48. A ____ joint can move rotate about its axis, providing maximum range of motion. a. hinge b. fulcrum c. ball-and-socket d. lever e. ligament 49. The mechanism of muscle contraction was first studied in ____ muscle using high-resolution ____ microscopy. a. skeletal; light b. smooth; light c. skeletal; electron d. smooth; electron e. cardiac; electron 50. The A bands in skeletal muscle are composed of ____. a. discs to which thin filaments are anchored b. stacked thick filaments along with the parts of thin filaments that overlap both ends c. thin filaments but no thick filaments d. thick filaments but no thin filaments e. stacked thin filaments along with parts of thick filaments that overlap both ends 51. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The muscle indicated by the letter ‘B’ is analogous to the ____ muscle in a human. a. calf b. deltoid c. biceps d. tongue e. triceps 52. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Neurotransmitters and ____ are key components in the pathway for stimulating skeletal muscle contractions. a. A b. B c. C d. A and B e. B and C 53. Unlike endurance training, weight lifting will convert ____. a. slow muscle fibers to fast muscle fibers b. fast muscle fibers to slow muscle fibers c. fast muscle fibers from the anaerobic to the aerobic type d. fast muscle fibers from the aerobic to the anaerobic type e. fat to muscle fibers Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 43_5e 54. A typical human body has ____ skeletal muscles. a. 78 b. 168 c. 206 d. 417 e. over 600 55. The human finger contains ____ joints. a. hinge b. fulcrum c. ball-and-socket d. lever e. ligament 56. Exercising a muscle results in ____. a. the expression of genes involved in energy metabolism, insulin response, and muscle inflammation b. the expression of genes involved in metabolism only c. no phenotypic or biochemical changes d. no change in the expression of genes, but changes in phenotypes e. changes in the expression of genes, but no changes in phenotypes 57. A muscle contraction during which fibers cannot relax between stimuli is called ____. a. an action potential b. a muscle twitch c. fatigue d. tetanus e. constriction 58. Skeletal muscles in vertebrates connect to ____. a. tendons b. sarcomeres c. bones d. ligaments e. myofibrils 59. Bone tissue is composed of ____ and ____ regions. a. spongy; muscular b. spongy; compact c. compact; diffuse d. aerobic; anaerobic e. red; white

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Chap 43_5e 60. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is caused by a mutation that ____. a. weakens the cytoskeleton of the muscle fiber b. weakens myofibrils c. decreases the transmission of force d. disrupts the sarcomere e. increases the transmission of force 61. In skeletal muscle contraction, an increase in ____in the cytosol triggers the crossbridge cycle. a. troponin b. Ca2+ c. tropomyosin d. ATP e. acetylcholine 62. Skeletal muscle contractions can be adjusted from gentle to strong because ____ are controlled by the axon branches of a single efferent neuron. a. muscle fibers b. sarcomeres c. motor units d. ATP molecules e. neurotransmitters 63. An animal that is evolved for rapid movement over the ground will have relatively ____ bones. a. heavy and thick b. heavy c. light and thin d. light e. heavy and thin 64. In skeletal muscle contraction, the neurotransmitter ____ is released at the axon terminal of the neuromuscular junction to trigger an action potential in the muscle cell. a. troponin b. Ca2+ c. tropomyosin d. ATP e. acetylcholine

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Chap 43_5e 65. Thick filaments are parallel bundles of ____ molecules. a. actin b. tropomyosin c. acetylcholine d. myosin e. troponin 66. A rapid, powerful movement of short duration that could not be sustained very long would likely involve mainly ____. a. fast anaerobic fibers b. fast aerobic and fast anaerobic muscle fibers c. slow muscle fibers and fast aerobic muscle fibers d. slow muscle fibers e. fast aerobic fibers 67. Which muscle type is found in the walls of body tubes and cavities of vertebrates, such as blood vessels and the intestines? a. cardiac b. smooth c. skeletal d. rough e. epithelial 68. A typical human body has ____ bones. a. 78 b. 168 c. 206 d. 417 e. over 600 69. The I bands in skeletal muscle are composed of ____. a. discs to which thin filaments are anchored b. stacked thick filaments along with the parts of thin filaments that overlap both ends c. thin filaments but no thick filaments d. thick filaments but no thin filaments e. stacked thin filaments along with parts of thick filaments that overlap both ends 70. The most common type of lever system in the body has the force applied ____. a. at the free end of the bone b. at the attached end of the bone c. at the fulcrum d. between the fulcrum and the load e. at the load end Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 43_5e 71. How are the muscle attachments optimized in animals evolved for movement through the soil? a. The attachments produce levers that move relatively rapidly. b. The attachments produce levers that need to apply large forces for movement. c. The attachments produce levers that move relatively slowly, but need to apply only small forces for movement. d. The attachments produce levers that move rapidly, but need to apply only small forces for movement. e. The attachments produce levers that swing freely. 72. A promising means of improving conditions for patients with type-2 diabetes may be ____. a. injections with myostatin b. increasing muscle mass c. ketoacidosis d. injections with acetylcholine e. increasing consumption of simple carbohydrates 73. Bone plays a critical role in providing ____ for the blood. a. sodium and calcium ions b. magnesium and phosphate ions c. carbon dioxide d. phosphate and calcium ions e. calcium ions and oxygen 74. Tube feet of sea stars, erectile tissue of the penis in vertebrates, and the bodies of cnidarians are all supported by ____. a. an exoskeleton b. cardiac muscle c. a hydrostatic skeleton d. an endoskeleton e. joined exo- and endoskeletons 75. In skeletal muscle contraction, when ____ binds to Ca2+, it undergoes a conformational change that allows tropomyosin to move to the grooves in the actin double helix. a. troponin b. myosin c. phosphate ions d. ATP e. acetylcholine

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Chap 43_5e 76. Human vertebrae are held together by ____ joints. a. synovial b. cartilaginous c. fibrous d. both fibrous and cartilaginous e. both synovial and fibrous 77. Skeletal muscle cells have ____ and are controlled by the ____ nervous system. a. many nuclei; somatic b. many nuclei; autonomic c. one nucleus each; autonomic d. one nucleus each; somatic e. two nuclei each; somatic 78. The ribs and sternum are considered to be part of ____. a. both the axial skeleton and the appendicular skeleton b. the axial skeleton only c. neither the axial skeleton nor the appendicular skeleton d. the appendicular skeleton only e. the axial or appendicular skeleton depending on the animal 79. For humans and most vertebrates, the body is supported primarily by ____. a. an exoskeleton b. only nonskeletal structures c. a hydrostatic skeleton d. an endoskeleton e. joined exo- and endoskeletons 80. Skeletal muscles attach to bones by ____. a. ligaments b. cartilage c. smooth muscles d. tendons e. joints

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Chap 43_5e Match the muscle fiber type(s) with the correct description. Each choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. a. slow b. fast aerobic c. fast anaerobic d. both slow and fast aerobic e. both fast aerobic and fast anaerobic 81. intermediate glycogen content 82. slow contraction speed 83. high contraction intensity 84. intermediate fatigue resistance 85. high myosin-ATPase activity 86. low oxidative phosphorylation capacity 87. high fatigue resistance 88. many mitochondria 89. low myoglobin content 90. red fiber color Match each of the following molecules with its correct description. a. forms a twisted double helix that makes up most of the thin filaments b. neurotransmitters involved in muscle cell contraction c. blocks the crossbridge binding sites when the muscle is not contracting d. comprise the thick filaments e. binds to Ca2+touncover the crossbridge binding sites 91. myosin 92. tropomyosin 93. actin 94. troponin 95. acetylcholine 96. How is movement in vertebrates analogous to the movement of a lever?

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Chap 43_5e 97. Describe the process by which botulinum toxin interrupts the crossbridge cycle. Provide other possible uses for this toxin.

98. What is the difference between red and yellow marrow?

99. Compare and contrast a single, weak contraction of a muscle fiber, a twitch summation, and tetanus.

100. Describe the molecular activity that leads to muscle contractions, beginning at the neuromuscular junction.

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Chap 43_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. False - exoskeleton 7. False - actin and myosin 8. False - dead 9. False - synovial 10. False - varies widely 11. e 12. e 13. a 14. a 15. d 16. d 17. a 18. d 19. e 20. b 21. d 22. e 23. a 24. e 25. a 26. a 27. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 43_5e 28. e 29. d 30. c 31. d 32. e 33. e 34. d 35. b 36. d 37. d 38. b 39. b 40. a 41. a 42. d 43. c 44. a 45. e 46. d 47. b 48. c 49. a 50. b 51. c 52. e 53. d 54. e 55. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 43_5e 56. a 57. d 58. c 59. b 60. a 61. b 62. c 63. c 64. e 65. d 66. a 67. b 68. c 69. c 70. d 71. c 72. b 73. d 74. c 75. a 76. b 77. a 78. b 79. d 80. d 81. b 82. a

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Chap 43_5e 83. c 84. b 85. e 86. c 87. a 88. d 89. c 90. d 91. d 92. c 93. a 94. e 95. b 96. The bones connected by movable joints work like levers. Levers are ridged and move around a pivot point known as a fulcrum. Levers, like joints, differ with respect to where the fulcrum is located along the lever and where the force is applied. Whether muscles produce large movements at high speed is dependent on where the fulcrum is relative to where the force is applied. 97. The bacterium Clostridium botulinum, which grows in food stored improperly, produces botulinum toxin that blocks acetylcholine release in neuromuscular junctions. These muscles are therefore unable to contract. The toxin is used for cosmetic treatment of wrinkles (the brand name for the product is Botox). 98. False - Red marrow is found in the interior of some flat bones such as hip and rib bones. Red marrow is the primary source of new red blood cells. Yellow marrow is found in the shaft of long bones such as the femur. Yellow marrow is a type of adipose tissue and is a source for some white blood cells. 99. A single action potential will usually cause a single, weak contraction of a muscle fiber called a muscle twitch. The membrane potential will rise and fall quickly (30-40 msec). A twitch summation occurs when a muscle fiber is restimulated before it has relaxed completely, and results in a stronger contraction. Tetanus occurs when stimuli arrive so quickly that the Ca2+ channels remain open and there is a continuous contraction. 100. An action potential arriving at the neuromuscular junction results in a release of acetylcholine, which triggers an action potential in the muscle fiber. This action potential leads to an increase in the concentration of Ca2+ in the fiber’s cytosol, which triggers the crossbridge cycle. The Ca2+ combines with troponin, inducing a conformation change that moves tropomyosin away from the myosin-binding sites on thin filaments, Exposure of the sites allows myosin crossbridges to bind and initiate the crossbridge cycle in which myosin heads of thick filaments attach to a thin filament, pull, and release in cyclic reactions powered by ATP hydrolysis.

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Chap 44_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. All organisms with circulatory systems have a heart. a. True b. False 2. The risk of heart attacks and stroke can be reduced by avoiding conditions that damage the blood vessel endothelium. a. True b. False 3. Diffusion is slow over distances of a few millimeters, making it an unsuitable mechanism by which large animals exchange gases and nutrients between the external and internal environments. a. True b. False 4. Cardiac output is defined as the pressure and amount of blood pumped by the ventricles. a. True b. False 5. The composition of plasma is not fully known due to its complexity. a. True b. False 6. The blood pressure in the aorta is highest during systole. a. True b. False Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 7. Fish have a circulatory system that contains two ventricles and two atria. 8. The primary function of erythrocytes is to participate in immune reactions. 9. Lymph capillaries are smaller in diameter than blood capillaries. 10. In times of stress, the sympathetic nervous system decreases blood pressure. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. The ____ carries oxygenated blood. a. inferior vena cava b. pulmonary artery c. pulmonary vein d. superior vena cava e. lymphatic vessel

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Chap 44_5e 12. Nitric oxide (NO) serves as a local signal for vasodilation because it ____. a. is broken down quickly b. dissipates quickly c. recycles rapidly in cells d. counteracts the action of oxygen e. blocks adrenergic receptors 13. The main function of erythrocytes is to ____. a. carry oxygen b. form clots c. fight off infections d. produce blood cells e. secrete erythropoietin 14. Epinephrine raises blood pressure by ____. a. increasing the strength and rate of the heartbeat b. decreasing the strength and rate of the heartbeat c. stimulating vasodilation d. reducing vasodilation e. decreasing blood flow to the heart, skeletal muscles, and lungs 15. The systemic circuit is complete when ____. a. oxygen-depleted blood collects in veins b. oxygen-rich blood collects in veins c. blood enters the pulmonary veins d. blood enters the aorta e. blood enters the right atrium 16. The ____ regulate(s) blood pressure through the release of hormones. a. adrenal glands only b. anterior pituitary only c. posterior pituitary only d. adrenal glands and posterior pituitary e. adrenal glands and anterior pituitary 17. Hypertension is a complication associated with ____. a. too little exercise b. disorders involving the adrenal medulla c. relaxing of blood vessel walls d. stiffening of blood vessel walls e. too much exercise

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Chap 44_5e 18. When blood returns from the pulmonary circuit, it first enters the ____ chamber of the heart. a. left atrium b. left ventricle c. right atrium d. right ventricle e. both the left atrium and the right atrium 19. While running, ____. a. only diastolic blood pressure increases b. only systolic blood pressure increases c. both diastolic and systolic blood pressures increase d. both diastolic and systolic blood pressures decrease e. there would be no change in either diastolic or systolic blood pressure 20. Hematocrit makes up approximately ____ % of the total blood volume. a. 10 b. 25 c. 45 d. 55 e. 70 21. Which structures contain valves? a. arteries and veins b. arteries and heart c. arteries, capillaries, and heart d. lymph capillaries, arteries, and heart e. lymph capillaries, veins, and heart 22. In the average human, the heart beats ____ times per minute. a. 10 b. 53 c. 72 d. 95 e. 120 23. Select the proper order of the propagation of an electrical (depolarization) signal in the heart. a. AV node →Purkinje fibers →SA node b. AV node →SA node →Purkinje fibers c. Purkinje fibers →AV node →SA node d. Purkinje fibers →SA node →AV node e. SA node →AV node →Purkinje fibers

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Chap 44_5e 24. Which animal has a gastrovascular cavity? a. earthworm b. fish c. hydra d. insect e. sponge 25. Actual gas exchange occurs through the walls of the ____. a. arteries b. arterioles c. capillaries d. veins e. venules 26. In Waller's experiment, he placed each of his feet into a pan containing ____. a. carbon dioxide b. iron c. mercury d. pure water e. salt solution 27. Blood pressure is greatest in the ____. a. arterioles b. arteries c. capillaries d. veins e. venules 28. Of the cellular blood components, ____ are the smallest in size. a. erythrocytes b. leukocytes c. platelets d. albumins e. lymphocytes 29. Which two animals have no distinct circulatory system? a. grasshopper and fish b. grasshopper and hydra c. hydra and fish d. sponge and fish e. sponge and hydra

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Chap 44_5e 30. Approximately ____ % of plasma is water. a. 10 b. 27 c. 55 d. 77 e. 92 31. The main force that moves blood throughout the system of blood vessels is ____. a. arterial blood pressure b. skeletal muscle action c. smooth muscle action d. valve action e. venous blood pressure 32. The ____ are the smallest vessels that carry blood in the body. a. arterioles b. arteries c. capillaries d. veins e. venules 33. The ____ is an accessory system of vessels and organs that helps balance the fluid content of the blood and surrounding tissues. a. circulatory system b. non-circulatory system c. accessory vessel system d. lymphatic system e. heart 34. The veins and venules may contain up to ____% of the total blood volume. a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 80 e. 90 35. Chronic hypertension is dangerous to a person’s health because ____. a. the pressure buildup can cause veins to rupture b. it can lead to damage to the endothelial cells lining the arteries and veins c. it makes the heart work too hard d. it tears capillaries e. the pressure diverts blood from the brain Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 44_5e 36. Which substance or cell is too large to pass through capillary walls? a. erythrocytes b. glucose c. ions d. water e. carbon dioxide 37. The ____ are considered to be blood reservoirs. a. arteries b. arterioles c. capillaries d. heart e. veins 38. The ____ is a large branched artery that leads to all body regions except the lungs. a. pulmonary artery b. coronary artery c. aorta d. superior vena cava e. inferior vena cava 39. The ____ components of blood are involved in the formation of clots. a. albumin and fibrinogen b. albumin and leukocytes c. fibrinogen and erythrocytes d. fibrinogen and platelets e. platelets and albumin 40. Blood pressure reduces as it moves away from the heart due mainly to ____. a. loss of volume b. friction c. inertia d. gravity e. distance traveled 41. Arrange the structures that control cardiac output in the correct order. a. baroreceptors → brain stem → autonomic nervous system → heart b. baroreceptors → heart → brain stem → autonomic nervous system c. brain stem → baroreceptors → autonomic nervous system → heart d. autonomic nervous system → brain stem → heart → baroreceptors e. heart → baroreceptors → autonomic nervous system → brain stem

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Chap 44_5e 42. The function of heart valves is to ____. a. form blood cells b. participate in immunity c. prevent backflow of blood d. prevent clot formation e. push blood into the aorta 43. The ____ are the most numerous type of leukocyte in a healthy individual. a. basophils b. eosinophils c. lymphocytes d. monocytes e. neutrophils 44. The sinoatrial node is located in the ____. a. left atrium b. left ventricle c. pulmonary artery d. right atrium e. right ventricle 45. Bulk flow in capillaries is driven by ____. a. gravity b. concentration gradients c. actual blood pressure d. pumping of the heart e. reciprocal exchange with oxygen 46. The evolution of the blood clotting mechanism is likely explained by ____. a. constant mutations b. direct response to environmental factors c. gene duplication d. sharing of gene pools between species e. inbreeding 47. In a resting human, a ventricle pump moves roughly ____ liter(s) of blood per minute. a. 1 b. 2 c. 5 d. 10 e. 50

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Chap 44_5e 48. Lymph moves throughout the lymph vessels due to ____. a. contraction of the heart b. conscious actions c. constriction of blood vessels d. dilation of blood vessels e. skeletal muscle and breathing movements 49. Which type of blood cell is produced from lymphoid stem cells? a. basophils b. B lymphocytes c. eosinophils d. erythrocytes e. neutrophils 50. In an average person, ____ erythrocytes are produced each second. a. 200 to 300 b. 2,000 to 3,000 c. 2 to 3 million d. 4.8 to 5.4 million e. 2 to 3 billion 51. In humans, blood cells are produced in the ____. a. bone marrow b. heart c. kidneys d. liver e. lymph nodes 52. Atherosclerosis has its most serious effects in the ____. a. extremities b. coronary arteries c. pulmonary arteries d. brain e. heart muscle cells 53. The main danger from deep vein thrombosis is ____. a. a clot breaking loose and moving elsewhere in the body b. unsightly veins c. loss of blood flow in the extremities d. blood pooling below the heart e. a clot dispersing without warning

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Chap 44_5e 54. The gastrovascular cavity of a sponge serves important functions in both the circulatory and ____ systems. a. digestive b. endocrine c. muscular d. reproductive e. urinary 55. The two most abundant ions in plasma are ____. a. HCO3- and Ca2+ b. HCO3- and Clc. Na+ and Ca2+ d. Na+ and Cle. Na+ and K+ 56. Plasma makes up approximately ____ % of the total blood volume. a. 10 b. 25 c. 50 d. 75 e. 90 57. The lymphatic system returns ____ liters of fluid to the bloodstream each day. a. 1 to 2 b. 3 to 4 c. 6 to 7 d. 10 to 13 e. more than 50 58. What causes deep venous thrombosis? a. anemia b. decreased skeletal muscle action c. high blood pressure d. increased skeletal muscle action e. low blood pressure 59. Signals from the atrioventricular (AV) node are carried to the bottom of the heart by ____. a. the sinoatrial (SV) node b. Purkinje fibers c. pacemaker cells d. neurogenic cells e. the polarization node Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 44_5e 60. An open circulatory system ____. a. contains blood in blood vessels b. is composed of two circulatory systems c. mixes hemolymph and interstitial fluids together d. is more efficient than a closed system e. opens directly to the outside 61. An animal's circulatory system contains ____. a. solid medium to transport nitrogen b. blood vessels for transporting solid food c. blood vessels leading to the heart d. a mouth opening to the outside e. nitrogen to transport wastes 62. Coronary circulation involves ____. a. only the aorta b. only the coronary arteries c. only capillaries d. the aorta and coronary arteries e. the aorta, coronary arteries, and capillaries 63. In the mammalian heart, the systemic and pulmonary circuits ____. a. carry only oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, respectively b. carry only deoxygenated and oxygenated blood, respectively c. mix during times of stress d. intermix freely e. are completely separate 64. Lymph nodes normally contain ____, which function to engulf invading organisms. a. erythrocytes b. macrophages c. platelets d. neutrophils e. basophils 65. Atherosclerosis is ____. a. a clot in an artery b. buildup of plaque in an artery c. buildup of plaque in a vein d. high blood pressure e. low blood pressure

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Chap 44_5e 66. The inferior vena cava moves blood from the ____. a. head only b. forelimbs only c. head and forelimbs d. abdominal organs only e. abdominal organs and hind limbs 67. The "lub" heart sound represents ____. a. a heart murmur b. closure of the atrioventricular valves c. closure of the semilunar valves d. hypertension e. movement of actual heart muscle 68. Augustus Waller invented a machine that measures ____. a. blood pressure when the ventricles are contracting b. blood pressure when the ventricles are relaxed c. cardiac output d. electrical activity of the brain e. electrical activity of the heart 69. Amphibians can accomplish gas exchange using ____. a. gills only b. lungs only c. respiration through the skin only d. both gills and lungs e. gills, lungs, and respiration through the skin 70. The baroreceptors are located in the ____. a. adrenal glands b. brainstem c. heart d. erythrocytes e. walls of blood vessels 71. The first evidence that the vasodilatory signal molecule was produced by ____ was reported in 1980. a. nitric oxide b. endothelial cells c. CO2 d. cardiac muscle cells e. platelets

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Chap 44_5e 72. When the body experiences stress, the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system stimulates the adrenal medulla to release ____. a. epinephrine only b. norepinephrine only c. knockout hormones only d. epinephrine and norepinephrine e. epinephrine, norepinephrine, and knockout hormones 73. The atrioventricular valve(s) is/are located ____. a. between the left atrium and the left ventricle only b. between the right atrium and the right ventricle only c. where blood enters the aorta d. where blood enters the pulmonary arteries e. between the left atrium and the left ventricle, and between the right atrium and the right ventricle 74. The ____ component of plasma constitutes antibodies. a. albumin b. dissolved gas c. fibrinogen d. hormone e. immunoglobulin 75. The purpose(s) of two circuits in a closed circulatory system is to ____. a. collect and distribute blood within the heart b. take blood to and from all parts of the body c. take blood to and from the lungs d. keep oxygenated and deoxygenated blood separate e. allow oxygenated and deoxygenated blood to mix 76. In healthy adult humans, normal systolic pressure is ____ mm Hg and normal diastolic pressure is ____ mm Hg. a. 20 to 50; 5 to 20 b. 60 to 80; 90 to 120 c. 90 to 120; 60 to 80 d. 90 to 120; 130 to 150 e. 130 to 150; 90 to 120 77. Atherosclerosis ____. a. decreases arterial lumen size b. affects the diameter of veins c. has no effect on arterial lumen size d. increases arterial lumen size e. presents many clinical symptoms immediately Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 44_5e 78. Heart rate ____ in response to ____ arterial pressure. a. skips; fluctuations in b. decreases; any change in c. decreases; low d. increases; high e. increases; low 79. A lymph capillary is composed of ____. a. a single layer of endothelial cells surrounded by collagen fibers b. a single layer of endothelial cells surrounded by elastic fibers c. collagen fibers only d. elastic fibers only e. a single layer of endothelial cells only 80. Erythropoietin, a hormone that stimulates stem cells in the bone marrow to increase erythrocyte production, is produced in the ____. a. bone marrow b. heart c. kidneys d. liver e. lymph nodes

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Chap 44_5e

©2014 Brooks/Cole, Cengage Learning Figure 44.2 (questions 81-85) Use the accompanying figure to label these important structures of the lymphatic system. Not all choices will be used. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G 81. lymph nodes 82. lymph vessels 83. right lymphatic duct 84. spleen 85. thoracic duct

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Chap 44_5e

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Chap 44_5e Figure 44.1 (questions 71-80) Use the accompanying figure and list of structures below to label the diagram of the human heart. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G h. H i. I j. J k. K l. L 86. aorta 87. inferior vena cava 88. left atrium 89. left pulmonary veins 90. left ventricle 91. pulmonary arteries 92. right pulmonary veins 93. right ventricle 94. septum 95. superior vena cava 96. Why would an iron deficiency result in anemia?

97. Why are veins less elastic than arteries?

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Chap 44_5e 98. How do lymph nodes aid in a cancer diagnosis?

99. Why have sports governing bodies banned the use of EPO in athletes?

100. Why must amphibians remain moist?

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Chap 44_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. False - one, one 8. False - leukocytes 9. False - larger 10. False - increases 11. c 12. a 13. a 14. a 15. a 16. d 17. d 18. a 19. b 20. c 21. e 22. c 23. e 24. c 25. c 26. e 27. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 44_5e 28. c 29. e 30. e 31. a 32. c 33. d 34. d 35. b 36. a 37. e 38. c 39. d 40. b 41. a 42. c 43. e 44. d 45. c 46. c 47. c 48. e 49. b 50. c 51. a 52. b 53. a 54. a

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Chap 44_5e 55. d 56. c 57. b 58. b 59. b 60. c 61. c 62. e 63. e 64. b 65. b 66. e 67. b 68. e 69. e 70. e 71. b 72. a 73. e 74. e 75. c 76. c 77. a 78. e 79. a 80. c 81. g 82. f Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 44_5e 83. b 84. e 85. d 86. f 87. e 88. i 89. h 90. k 91. g 92. b 93. d 94. l 95. a 96. A hemoglobin molecule has an iron atom at its center. Therefore, if inadequate amounts of iron are present, hemoglobin cannot be produced at an adequate rate. Hemoglobin is the oxygen-carrying substance in an erythrocyte, so a deficiency of hemoglobin results in anemia. 97. When blood enters the arteries, it is traveling fast and with a great deal of pressure. The arteries must have a lot of elasticity so that they can swell and recoil as a response to the pressure exerted by the blood flow. By the time blood enters veins, the pressure is greatly dissipated and not as much elasticity is required. 98. The lymphatic system filters extracellular fluids. Therefore, if cancerous cells have metastasized (spread from the initial location), it is likely that some cancerous cells may be located in the lymph nodes. The examination of numerous lymph nodes surrounding the primary site of the cancer may enable the physician to determine if localized treatment will be effective or if a broader spectrum approach is necessary. 99. EPO stimulates erythrocyte production, which in turn directly relates to the amount of oxygen that can be carried in the blood of a person. Injected EPO would result in a greater oxygen carrying capacity, potentially offering an unfair advantage to an athlete compared to another who had not taken excess EPO. 100. Even though an amphibian may contain lungs and/or gills, those structures do not entirely meet the respiration needs of the animal. In addition, respiration occurs through the skin, and a moist environment is necessary for gas exchange to take place effectively through the skin.

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Chap 45_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Anaphylactic shock can be controlled by an immediate injection of histamine. a. True b. False 2. Upon antigenic stimulation, CD8+ T cells differentiate into helper T cells. a. True b. False 3. The gut microbiome influences host immunity. a. True b. False 4. Antibody-mediated immunity is also called humoral immunity. a. True b. False 5. Invertebrates have an adaptive immune and an innate immune system. a. True b. False 6. B cells differentiate into plasma cells, which produce antibodies. a. True b. False 7. T cells are produced in the bone marrow but mature in the thyroid. a. True b. False 8. All invertebrates have phagocytic cells, but lack antibodies. a. True b. False 9. In the respiratory tract, ciliated cells constantly sweep mucus that contains trapped foreign matter. a. True b. False

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Chap 45_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 10. Arrange the three lines of defense from the first to the last. 1 = Adaptive immune system 2 = Physical barriers 3 = Innate immune system a. 1, 2, 3 b. 2, 1, 3 c. 2, 3, 1 d. 3, 1, 2 e. 3, 2, 1 11. Interferons____. a. make holes through bacterial cell membranes b. make holes through bacterial cell walls c. prevent entry of viruses into cells d. block the replication of viruses within cells e. bind iron and make it unavailable for bacteria and viruses 12. The major phagocytic cells in the body are____. a. macrophages and lymphocytes b. macrophages and neutrophils c. macrophages and mast cells d. monocytes and mast cells e. monocytes and basophils 13. Disease-causing viruses or organisms are called ____. a. pathogens b. vaccines c. mast cells d. macrophages e. memory cells 14. The enzyme lysozyme offers protection from some ____ by breaking down their ____. a. viruses; protein coat b. bacteria; cell walls c. viruses; envelopes d. bacteria; DNA e. viruses and bacteria; nucleic acids

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Chap 45_5e 15. During inflammation, tissue damage activates ____, which release ____. a. cytotoxic T cells; cytokines b. macrophages; histamine c. mast cells; histamine d. neutrophils; cytokines e. eosinophils; chemokines 16. B cells and T cells that react with self-antigens are destroyed by____. a. apoptosis b. phagocytosis c. cytokinesis d. diakinesis e. endocytosis 17. Adaptive immunity is also referred to as ____ immunity. a. acquired b. innate c. secondary d. latent e. hidden 18. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The region that determines the class of antibody is indicated by number ____. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 19. The secondary immune response is ____ than the primary immune response because the secondary immune response ____. a. more rapid; does not require B or T cells b. more rapid; involves memory B and T cells that have been stored c. slower; requires initiation of clonal selection of new B and T cells d. slower; requires more antigen than the primary immune response e. more rapid; is less specific than the primary immune response 20. The inherited mechanisms that protect the body from pathogens are called ____. a. the immune system b. vaccination c. restriction endonucleases d. the pathogen defense system e. immunological tolerance Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 45_5e 21. The ____ is largely protected from pathogens because it is acidic. a. skin b. mouth c. eye d. nose e. vagina 22. Antibodies are classified as____. a. nucleoproteins b. immunoglobulins c. steroids d. carbohydrates e. lipids 23. Hybridomas are cells formed by the fusion of____. a. B cells and melanoma cells b. B cells and myeloma cells c. T cells and melanoma cells d. T cells and myeloma cells e. B cells, T cells, and myeloma cells 24. Anaphylactic shock ____. a. involves IgG antibodies rather than IgE antibodies b. can occur the first time an individual is exposed to an allergen c. involves the release of antihistamine from mast cells d. results from HIV infection e. is a life-threatening condition resulting from severe inflammation 25. How is active immunity different from passive immunity? a. Active immunity is slower in onset and shorter-lived. b. Active immunity is slower in onset and longer-lived. c. Active immunity is faster in onset and shorter-lived. d. Active immunity is faster in onset and longer-lived. e. Only active immunity involves antibodies. 26. A typical primary response to an antigen peaks at about____. a. one-two days b. four-five days c. two weeks d. two months e. four months

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Chap 45_5e 27. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The variable region of a light chain is indicated by number____. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 28. Edward Jenner infected individuals with ____ to protect them from ____. a. chickenpox; smallpox b. smallpox; chickenpox c. smallpox; cowpox d. cowpox; smallpox e. cowpox; chickenpox 29. A foreign molecule that triggers an adaptive immune response is called a(n)____. a. lymphocyte b. antibody c. antigen d. chemokine e. pyrogen 30. Rheumatoid arthritis is caused by____. a. a deficiency of antibodies b. inability to respond to antigenic stimulation c. a virus d. a self-attack on blood cells e. a self-attack on joints 31. Antibodies enhance ____ of bacteria and viruses because cells, such as macrophages, have receptors on their surfaces that recognize the ____ end of antibodies. a. phagocytosis; heavy-chain b. phagocytosis; antigen-binding c. neutralization; heavy-chain d. neutralization; light-chain e. phagocytosis; light-chain 32. Asthma is an inflammatory response mediated by ____ antibodies. a. IgE b. IgA c. IgG d. both IgE and IgA e. both IgA and IgG Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 45_5e

Figure 45.1 (questions 28-33) 33. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The antigen-binding site is indicated by number____. a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 5 e. 6 34. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The constant region of a heavy chain is indicated by number____. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 35. Dendritic cells present antigens on their surface in the context of ____. a. class I major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins b. class II MHC proteins c. antibodies d. B-cell receptors e. T-cell receptors 36. B-cell receptors on B cells are ____. a. IgG molecules only b. IgE molecules only c. IgD or IgE molecules d. IgM or IgD molecules e. IgM molecules only Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 45_5e 37. Moths have an immunoglobulin-family protein called ____, which binds to pathogens and enhances their phagocytosis. a. hemolysin b. cadherin c. interleukin d. hemolin e. defensin 38. Natural killer cells destroy target cells by releasing ____. a. antibiotics, which break down the target cell’s membrane b. perforin, which creates holes in the target cell’s membrane c. histamine, which signals other blood cells to aggregate d. lysozyme, which breaks down the bacterium’s cell wall e. antibodies, which break down the bacterium’s cell wall 39. How is antibody-mediated immunity different from cell-mediated immunity? a. Antibody-mediated immunity requires lymphocytes; cell-mediated immunity does not. b. Antibody-mediated immunity is innate; cell-mediated immunity is adaptive. c. Antibody-mediated immunity is adaptive; cell-mediated immunity is innate. d. Antibody-mediated immunity requires both B and T cells; cell-mediated immunity requires T cells but not B cells. e. Antibody-mediated immunity requires T cells; cell-mediated immunity requires B cells. 40. Vaccinations introduce ____ into the body to stimulate the immune system and produce immunological memory. a. T cells b. antigens c. antibodies d. B cells e. dendritic cells 41. The main antibody present during the primary immune response is____. a. IgE b. IgA c. IgD d. IgG e. IgM 42. In ____, antibodies bind to toxin molecules, preventing them from carrying out their damaging action. a. inflammation b. phagocytosis c. agglutination d. neutralization e. clonal selection Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 45_5e 43. The complement system is a group of ____. a. vaccines b. defense proteins c. antibodies d. antibiotics e. lymphocytes 44. An antibody molecule consists of ____ polypeptide chain(s). a. four light b. four heavy c. two light and two heavy d. three light and one heavy e. one light and three heavy 45. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. If an antibody serves as a B-cell receptor, it will bind to the host cell membrane via region number____. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 6 46. Allergens induce ____ cells to secrete an overabundance of ____ antibodies. a. CD4+ T; IgA b. B; IgE c. dendritic; IgG d. CD8+ T; IgE e. B; IgG 47. The transfer of IgA antibodies in the first breast milk fed from the mother to the baby is an example of ____. a. active immunity b. passive immunity c. innate immunity d. cell-mediated immunity e. autoimmunity 48. B cells and dendritic cells can both ____. a. act as APCs b. produce antibodies c. differentiate into memory cells d. carry out a cell-mediated immune response e. activate helper T cells Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 45_5e 49. Which symptoms are characteristic of the inflammatory response? a. pain only b. swelling only c. tenderness and swelling only d. pain and heat only e. pain, swelling, tenderness, and heat 50. Histamine ____. a. causes blood vessels to contract b. causes capillaries to lose their permeability c. causes an outward flow of fluids from the capillaries d. reduces tissue swelling e. causes cells to release interferons 51. Molecules that regulate defense responses via signal transduction pathways are called ____. a. complement proteins b. histamines c. macrophages d. cytokines e. defensins 52. Arrange the steps of antibody-mediated immunity in the proper order. 1. Plasma cells secrete antibodies. 2. Helper T cells interact with B cells displaying the same antigen-MHC complex. 3. Contact with antigen. 4. Clones of B cells produced. 5. Fragmentation of antigen. a. 3, 2, 5, 1, 4 b. 3, 5, 2, 4, 1 c. 1, 3, 5, 2, 4 d. 4, 3, 2, 1, 5 e. 5, 3, 4, 2, 1 53. According to a 2003 study performed by Michelle Khan and her coworkers, the rate of cervical cancer appears to be the greatest when women are ____. a. positive for HPV16 b. negative for HPV16 but positive for HPV18 c. negative for HPV16/18 but positive for other cancer-causing HPV d. negative for all cancer-causing HPV e. positive for HIV

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Chap 45_5e 54. Helper T cells secrete ____, which activate B cells and stimulate their proliferation. a. antigens b. allergens c. antibodies d. interferons e. interleukins 55. While running in a garden, a girl steps on an old board and a nail goes through her shoe and skin, causing a deep puncture wound. Which nonspecific defense mechanism will aid in protecting her from pathogens? a. ciliated epithelial cells b. lysozyme c. acidic skin secretions d. inflammation e. cytotoxic T cells 56. A patient's serum is analyzed and found to have an abnormally low level of CD8 molecules. This suggests that the patient has insufficient numbers of ____. a. macrophages b. B cells c. cytotoxic T cells d. helper T cells e. NK cells 57. The leukocytes that are central to adaptive immunity are the____. a. lymphocytes b. macrophages c. neutrophils d. mast cells e. eosinophils 58. Which defense mechanism(s) is/are found in invertebrates? a. phagocytes and antibodies b. lysozyme and antibodies c. antibodies only d. phagocytes and lysozyme e. phagocytes, lysozyme, and antibodies 59. Immunological tolerance refers to ____. a. decreased immune system response to latent viruses b. decreased immune system response to nonpathogenic bacteria c. decreased tolerance of the body for pathogens it has already encountered d. desensitization to allergens to lessen allergic responses e. protection of the body’s own molecules from attack by its immune system Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 45_5e 60. Edward Jenner’s work became the basis for worldwide ____ against ____. a. vaccination; polio b. vaccination; smallpox c. antibiotic treatment; polio d. antibiotic treatment; smallpox e. vaccination; chickenpox 61. An epitope is ____. a. the antigen binding site of an antibody molecule b. found only in IgG and IgM c. part of an antigen that binds to a specific antibody d. too small to stimulate an immune response e. a complement protein that initiates lysis of target cells 62. B cells differentiate in the ____, while T cells mature in the ____. a. bone marrow; thymus b. thymus; bone marrow c. bone marrow; bone marrow d. bone marrow; blood e. blood; thymus 63. You had a cold last month and you caught another one this month from your brother. What is the most likely reason for this happening? a. Memory cells were not formed as a response to the first cold. b. The antibodies formed as a response to the first cold were degraded. c. The two cold viruses are different. d. Your macrophages are unable to perform phagocytosis. e. Your antigen-presenting cells do not recognize the second cold virus. 64. A CD8+ T cell binds to an antigen only if this antigen is____. a. in a complex with a class I MHC protein b. in a complex with a class II MHC protein c. in a complex with a class III MHC protein d. not in a complex with MHC proteins e. presented on the surface of a B cell

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Chap 45_5e 65. APCs interact with ____during an antibody-mediated immune response, and with ____ during a cell-mediated immune response.____ a. CD8+ T cells; CD4+ T cells b. CD4+ T cells; CD8+ T cells c. CD8+ T cells; CD8+ T cells d. CD4+ T cells; CD4+ T cells e. macrophages; CD4+ T cells 66. Which autoimmune disease is correctly matched with the tissue it affects? a. lupus - blood b. rheumatoid arthritis - lymphatics c. multiple sclerosis - joints d. lupus - nerves e. multiple sclerosis - pancreas 67. Which immune cells are long-lived cells that can respond to a later encounter with the same antigen? a. helper T cells b. plasma cells c. dendritic cells d. memory cells e. cytotoxic T cells 68. The immune system consists of ____. a. physical barriers only b. innate immunity only c. adaptive immunity only d. innate and adaptive immunity only e. physical barriers, innate immunity, and adaptive immunity 69. How is adaptive immunity different from innate immunity? a. Adaptive immunity is less effective than innate immunity. b. Adaptive immunity is nonspecific; innate immunity is specific. c. Adaptive immunity is immediate; innate immunity is slower acting. d. Adaptive immunity has memory; innate immunity does not. e. Adaptive immunity is the first line of defense; innate immunity is the second line of defense. 70. A CD4+ T cell binds to an antigen only if this antigen is ____. a. in a complex with a class I MHC protein b. in a complex with a class II MHC protein c. in a complex with a class III MHC protein d. not in a complex with MHC proteins e. presented on the surface of a B cell Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 45_5e 71. Upon a second exposure to a pathogen, the ____ immune system responds ____ than it did upon the first exposure. a. innate; slower b. adaptive; slower c. innate; faster d. adaptive; faster e. innate; more powerfully 72. A monoclonal antibody reacts against____. a. a single antigenic determinant b. different epitopes on the same antigen c. different antigens of the same organism d. a single type of pathogen e. different types of macromolecules on the same pathogen 73. Arrange the steps of an allergic response in the proper order. 1. Allergic symptoms appear. 2. Allergen binds with IgE. 3. IgE combines with mast cell receptors. 4. Mast cells release histamine. 5. Plasma cells sensitized. a. 5, 3, 2, 4, 1 b. 1, 5, 2, 4, 3 c. 5, 2, 4, 3, 1 d. 1, 4, 5, 2, 3 e. 4, 5, 2, 3, 1 74. Which macromolecules can serve as antigens? a. proteins only b. carbohydrates only c. nucleic acids only d. proteins and carbohydrates only e. proteins, carbohydrates, and nucleic acids 75. Which type of leukocyte is involved in killing eukaryotic parasites? a. monocytes b. neutrophils c. eosinophils d. lymphocytes e. basophils

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Chap 45_5e 76. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The constant region of a light chain is indicated by number____. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 77. A dendritic cell with an antigen displayed on its surface is called a(n) ____. a. cytotoxic T cell b. plasma cell c. antigen presenting cell d. major histocompatibility complex e. CD4+ T cell 78. Autoimmune diseases result from a breakdown in the ability of the body to____. a. produce antibodies b. produce memory cells c. destroy major histocompatibility proteins d. distinguish self from non-self e. distinguish between harmless and pathogenic microorganisms 79. The major source of diversity for B- and T-cell receptors is____. a. mitosis b. meiosis c. transcript processing d. random recombination of gene segments e. mutation

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Chap 45_5e Choose the class of immunoglobulin that corresponds to each of the characteristics listed below. Some answers may be used more than once. a. IgA b. IgD c. IgE d. IgG e. IgM 80. The first to be produced in response to an antigenic stimulus 81. Found mainly in secretions 82. Crosses the placenta 83. The most abundant in blood 84. Secreted by plasma cells of the skin and tissues lining the gastrointestinal and respiratory tracts 85. The major component of the secondary immune response 86. Plays major role in the allergic response 87. Transferred from mother to baby through breast milk 88. Serves as a B-cell receptor but is not the first antibody produced during an immune response Match each cell with its correct description. a. phagocytic cell that engulfs bacterium and presents antigens to T cells b. functions in the defense against parasitic worms c. differentiates into helper T cell d. differentiates into macrophage e. differentiates into cytotoxic T cell f. induces apoptosis in virus-infected cells g. produces antibodies h. used to produce monoclonal antibodies i. kills bacteria and then usually dies j. releases histamine 89. CD4+ cell 90. CD8+ cell 91. dendritic cell 92. eosinophil 93. hybridoma 94. mast cell 95. monocyte 96. neutrophil 97. NK cell 98. plasma cell Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 45_5e 99. Discuss the phenomena of immunological tolerance and autoimmune disease.

100. What is clonal selection with regard to B cells? How does it occur?

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Chap 45_5e Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. True 10. c 11. c 12. b 13. a 14. b 15. c 16. a 17. a 18. e 19. b 20. a 21. e 22. b 23. b 24. e 25. b 26. c

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Chap 45_5e 27. b 28. d 29. c 30. e 31. a 32. a 33. a 34. e 35. b 36. d 37. d 38. b 39. d 40. b 41. e 42. d 43. b 44. c 45. e 46. b 47. b 48. a 49. e 50. c 51. d 52. b 53. a 54. e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 45_5e 55. d 56. c 57. a 58. d 59. e 60. b 61. c 62. a 63. c 64. a 65. b 66. a 67. d 68. d 69. d 70. b 71. d 72. a 73. e 74. e 75. c 76. c 77. c 78. d 79. d 80. e 81. a 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 45_5e 83. d 84. c 85. d 86. c 87. a 88. b 89. c 90. e 91. a 92. b 93. h 94. j 95. d 96. i 97. f 98. g 99. Immunological tolerance is the phenomenon that protects the body's own tissues from attack by the immune system. Self-antigens are typically not recognized as foreign by B and T cells, and do not induce an immune response. Those B and T cells that do react with self-antigens are destroyed during their differentiation (eliminated through apoptosis or inactivation). This occurs throughout the lifetime of the individual. Failure of this immunological tolerance results in autoimmune disease, which is the production of antibodies against the molecules of the body. In most cases, the effects of such anti-self-antibodies are mild. However, in about 5–10% of the human population, they can cause serious problems. Autoimmune diseases include type I diabetes (antibodies against pancreatic beta cells producing insulin), systemic lupus erythematosus (antibodies against blood cells and platelets, and potentially the heart and kidneys), rheumatoid arthritis (self-attack on joints), and multiple sclerosis (antibodies against the myelin sheaths surrounding neurons). 100. Clonal selection is the process by which a particular B cell is specifically selected for proliferation when it recognizes a particular foreign antigen. An individual has an enormous number of inactivated B cells, each displaying a specific B-cell receptor on its surface. After binding and processing the antigen that matches its B-cell receptor, and under the stimulation of interleukins from helper T cells, the B cell proliferates to produce a clone of cells. Some of the Bcell clones differentiate into plasma cells, which are short-lived cells and produce antibodies. A few B-cell clones differentiate into memory B cells, which remain in circulation ready to mount a faster response against the same antigen at a later time.

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Chap 46_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. Each molecule of hemoglobin can bind up to six molecules of oxygen. 2. When the diaphragm contracts, it moves up into the thoracic cavity, thereby decreasing its volume. 3. A larynx is found at the beginning of each insect trachea. 4. Humans ventilate their lungs by negative pressure breathing. 5. CO2 and H2O are converted to HCO3- and H+ in the blood of the lungs. 6. Birds utilize mechanisms similar to countercurrent exchange to optimize diffusion of O2 across their respiratory surfaces. 7. Alveoli are surrounded by pulmonary capillaries. 8. Alveoli are the respiratory surfaces of birds. 9. The circulatory surface provides the interface between the body and the respiratory medium. 10. Blood O2 levels have the greatest influence on mammalian breathing rate. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Air movement to the mammalian respiratory surfaces can be reduced when smooth muscle in the walls of the ____ contract(s). a. epiglottis b. bronchioles c. large bronchi d. trachea e. aorta 12. In humans, ____ is involved in both cellular and physiological respiration. a. the circulatory system b. the respiratory surface c. mitochondria d. the respiratory medium e. blood 13. Marine mammals use ____ to extend dive times. a. decreased blood volume b. increased erythrocyte count c. increased in lung volume d. reduced concentrations of muscle myoglobin e. elevated circulation to nonessential organs Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 46_5e 14. Living at high altitudes can cause ____ as a respiratory adaptation. a. elevated erythrocyte count b. decreased number of alveoli c. decreased number of lung capillaries d. hemoglobin molecules with less affinity for O2 e. decreased erythrocyte count 15. Air is the least optimal respiratory medium because ____. a. air flow increases evaporation of water from the respiratory surface b. air contains 30 times as much O2 as water c. air is 1,000 times less dense than water d. air requires more energy to ventilate over the respiratory surface e. O2 diffuses more rapidly in air than in water 16. The ____ are air-filled respiratory system structures common in insects. a. gills b. tracheal tubes c. lungs d. integumentary surfaces e. air sacs 17. Amphibians often use ____ as a respiratory surface. a. skin b. a tracheal system c. internal gills d. external gills e. scales 18. Victims of CO poisoning turn “classic cherry red” in ____ percent of cases. a. 90 b. 50 c. 20 d. 2 e. 0 19. Studies indicate that in utero nicotine exposure can cause breathing abnormalities in neonatal mammals, including ____. a. elevated breathing rate while awake b. increased frequency of apneas during sleep c. delayed arousal from sleep in response to hypoxia d. elevated breathing rate while awake and increased frequency of apneas during sleep e. increased frequency of apneas during sleep and delayed arousal from sleep in response to hypoxia Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 46_5e 20. What would you predict would happen in an area of the body where PO2 is relatively low? a. O2 would bind more readily to hemoglobin. b. CO2 would bind more readily to hemoglobin. c. O2 would release from hemoglobin. d. CO2 would release from hemoglobin. e. binding of O2 by hemoglobin would cease. 21. Most O2 is transported in the blood ____. a. dissolved in the plasma b. as bicarbonate ions c. bound to hemoglobin d. as carbon dioxide e. bound to bicarbonate ions 22. Gas exchange between the air and a cell in an insect tracheal system occurs at the ____. a. trachea b. tracheal branches c. gill filaments d. tracheoles e. spiracles 23. The number-one risk factor for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is ____. a. an infant lying on their back b. breast feeding an infant c. premature feeding of solid foods d. exposure to tobacco smoke e. holding the infant 24. O2 is transported from air in the lungs into the blood through the process of ____. a. active transport b. simple diffusion c. facilitated diffusion d. osmosis e. active transport

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Chap 46_5e 25. If N2 gas comprises 79 percent of atmospheric air at sea level, what is PN2? a. about 300 mm Hg b. about 400 mm Hg c. about 500 mm Hg d. about 600 mm Hg e. about 700 mm Hg 26. As elevation increases, O2 ____. a. availability increases b. availability decreases c. availability remains constant d. levels increase, but there is none present above 20,000 feet e. levels decrease, until there is none present above 20,000 feet 27. The process of ____ is the exchange of gases between a respiratory surface and the circulatory system. a. ventilation b. cellular respiration c. perfusion d. bulk flow e. physiological respiration 28. Tibetan people have ____ in their blood despite living at high altitude. a. less oxygen b. more erythropoietin c. less erythropoietin d. more hemoglobin e. less hemoglobin 29. During forceful exhalation, the ____ muscles contract. a. diaphragm and abdominal b. external intercostal c. internal intercostal d. diaphragm and external intercostal e. diaphragm and internal intercostal 30. During a dive, a marine mammal experiences an increase in the partial pressure of dissolved gases of about 1 atmosphere for every ____ meter(s) in depth. a. 1 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15 e. 20 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 46_5e 31. As altitude increases, ____. a. P O2 increases b. P O2 decreases c. P CO2 increases d. P CO2 decreases e. P N2 increases 32. Which mechanism is used to encourage the movement of water over gills? a. beating of cilia b. contraction of the diaphragm c. relaxation of a muscular mantle d. a fish swimming with its mouth closed e. relaxation of body muscles 33. Hemoglobin binds most strongly to ____. a. oxygen b. carbon monoxide c. carbon dioxide d. carbonic acid e. bicarbonate ions 34. In aquatic animals, the most disadvantaged in terms of respiratory media are those living in ____. a. cold saltwater b. cold freshwater c. warm saltwater d. warm freshwater e. warm brackish water 35. Planes maintain an atmospheric pressure equivalent to about 8,000 feet to sustain ____. a. a stable temperature b. oxygen levels c. oxygen availability d. oxygen levels and availability e. oxygen availability and reduce buildup of carbon dioxide 36. The ____ changes during exercise. a. residual volume b. tidal volume c. vital capacity d. lung capacity e. lung volume Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 46_5e 37. The respiratory surfaces of mammalian lungs are called ____. a. alveoli b. bronchi c. tracheae d. bronchioles e. air sacs 38. Why does countercurrent exchange optimize gas exchange across some gills? a. It sustains an optimal thermal environment for gas exchange. b. It optimizes perfusion to the respiratory surface. c. It sustains an optimal respiratory gas concentration gradient, allowing diffusion to occur across the entire respiratory surface. d. It optimizes delivery of the respiratory medium to the respiratory surface. e. It minimizes the area of diffusion. 39. What would you predict would happen in an area of the body where blood was relatively acidic (low pH)? a. O2 would bind more readily to hemoglobin. b. CO2 would bind more readily to hemoglobin. c. O2 would release from hemoglobin. d. CO2 would release from hemoglobin. e. Binding of O2 by hemoglobin would cease. 40. Respiratory neurons from the dissected brainstem of a neonatal rodent can maintain rhythmic firing for ____ hours. a. 0.5 b. 1.0 c. 4.5 d. 6.0 e. 8.5 41. The ____ cells are most sensitive to reduced O2 levels. a. heart b. kidney c. liver d. brain e. pancreatic

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Chap 46_5e 42. As oxygenated blood enters tissue capillaries, the oxygen ____. a. binds more tightly to hemoglobin b. diffuses from blood plasma into body cells c. diffuses from interstitial fluid into blood plasma d. acts as a substrate for carbonic anhydrase e. reaches equilibrium in blood plasma and interstitial fluid 43. Air becomes deoxygenated during the ____ of a bird’s respiratory cycle. a. first inhalation b. first exhalation c. second inhalation d. second exhalation e. third exhalation 44. Countercurrent exchange allows for the removal of ____ percent of O2 from water flowing over gills. a. 50-60 b. 60-70 c. 70-80 d. 80-90 e. 90-100 45. Among air breathing animals, birds have the most effective mechanism of extracting oxygen from air because ____. a. birds utilize crosscurrent exchange b. bird lungs have more surface area c. bird lungs are the largest among vertebrates d. the air sacs provide additional respiratory surfaces e. birds utilize positive force exchange 46. Water is an optimal respiratory medium because ____. a. water holds less O2 than air b. O2 concentration in water is affected by solute concentration c. the density of water allows maximal ventilation over the respiratory surface d. O2 concentration in water increases at higher temperatures e. water keeps the respiratory surface wetted

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Chap 46_5e 47. Research indicates that the Tibetan and Han Chinese inherited a variant EPAS1 allele from ____. a. a common Denisovan ancestor b. interbreeding with Denisovans while still a common ancestral group c. interbreeding with Denisovans as distinct groups with overlapping territories d. an ancestor common to all humans e. an ancestor shared with the Andean people 48. The ____ keeps the lungs from completely deflating, even after a maximal exhalation. a. residual volume b. tidal volume c. vital capacity d. lung capacity e. lung volume 49. Why is proper ventilation important for a respiring animal? a. It directly increases gas exchange between the blood and cells. b. It maintains proper O2 and CO2 levels on the external side of the respiratory surface so diffusion across it can be maintained. c. It maintains blood circulation within the body of an animal. d. It maintains proper O2 and CO2 levels on the internal side of the respiratory surface so diffusion across it can be maintained. e. It directly maintains proper O2 and CO2 levels in tissues. 50. The ____ of marine mammals receives normal blood supply during deep dives. a. lungs b. heart c. brain d. blood vessels e. heart, brain, and blood vessels 51. CO2 is transported in the blood ____. a. dissolved in the plasma exclusively b. as bicarbonate ions exclusively c. bound to hemoglobin exclusively d. dissolved in the red blood cells exclusively e. dissolved in the plasma, as bicarbonate ions, and bound to hemoglobin

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Chap 46_5e 52. The ____ in the mammalian airway acts as the "windpipe." a. bronchus b. trachea c. larynx d. bronchiole e. pharynx 53. The function of carbonic anhydrase is to increase the rate ____. a. of conversion of CO2 and H2O into HCO3- and H+ b. of conversion of HCO3- and H+ into CO2 and H2O c. at which CO2 binds to hemoglobin d. at which O2 binds to hemoglobin e. of conversion of HCO3- and H+ into CO2 and H2O, and the rate at which CO2 binds to hemoglobin 54. The ____ drive(s) inhalation by stimulating contraction of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles. a. ventral respiratory group b. pons respiratory group c. carotid bodies d. dorsal respiratory group e. aortic bodies 55. Which animal uses positive pressure breathing to ventilate its lungs? a. human b. lizard c. bird d. cat e. salamander 56. A ____ uses air sacs to ventilate its lungs. a. human b. bird c. frog d. reptile e. horse

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Chap 46_5e 57. The ____ stimulate(s) forceful inhalation and exhalation. a. ventral respiratory group b. pons respiratory group c. carotid bodies d. dorsal respiratory group e. aortic bodies 58. Decreases in CO2 concentration result in ____. a. faster breathing b. deeper breathing c. faster and deeper breathing d. slower and more shallow breathing e. slower breathing 59. Airways of the mammalian respiratory system function to ____. a. filter oxygen from carbon dioxide b. moisten external air c. cool external air d. filter water out of the air e. keep water out of the lungs 60. The concentration of ____ has the greatest influence on the regulation of breathing rate. a. O2 b. CO2 c. H+ d. N2 e. CO 61. The ____ are respiratory structures composed of moist evaginations. a. tracheal tubes b. lungs c. gills d. skin cells e. nasal passages 62. Which respiratory surface lacks physical protection from the external environment? a. tracheal system tubes b. human lungs c. external gills d. internal gills e. bird lungs Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 46_5e 63. Traveling to a high altitude can result in “altitude sickness”; however, the body eventually adjusts through ____. a. increased hemoglobin circulation b. decreased erythrocyte production c. increased secretion of erythropoietin d. decreased hemoglobin circulation e. decreased secretion of erythropoietin 64. A ____ uses positive pressure breathing to ventilate its lungs. a. bird b. frog c. dog d. reptile e. human 65. The ____ are the initial branches of the trachea that lead into each lung. a. bronchioles b. alveoli c. pleura d. bronchi e. larynx 66. Choose the correct order of tracheal system structures from most external to most internal. a. spiracles, tracheae, tracheal branches, tracheoles b. tracheoles, tracheae, tracheal branches, spiracles c. tracheoles, tracheal branches, tracheae, spiracles d. spiracles, tracheal branches, tracheae, tracheoles e. spiracles, tracheoles, tracheae, tracheal branches 67. Which event occurs in the lungs? a. Free H+ binds to hemoglobin. b. Plasma HCO3- enters erythrocytes. c. CO2 and H2O are converted into HCO3- and H+ in the plasma. d. Carbonic anhydrase converts CO2 and H2O into HCO3- and H+ in erythrocytes. e. CO2 binds to hemoglobin.

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Chap 46_5e 68. During human inhalation, the diaphragm ____ and the external intercostal muscles ____. a. contracts; relax b. relaxes; contract c. contracts; contract d. relaxes; relax e. expands; vibrate 69. Which breathing abnormalities can occur in neonatal mammals exposed to nicotine? a. reduced ventilatory output b. increased duration of apneas c. SIDS d. reduced ventilatory output and increased duration of apneas e. reduced ventilatory output, increased duration of apneas, and SIDS 70. The ____ represent an internal respiratory system. a. skin folds on an amphibian b. broad, flat body of a flatworm c. branched gill filaments d. folds within human lungs e. gills on a salamander 71. During resting exhalation in humans, the diaphragm ____ and the internal intercostal muscles ____. a. contracts; relax b. relaxes; contract c. contracts; contract d. relaxes then contracts; contract then relax e. relaxes; relax 72. A man is found dead with no marks on his body in a small enclosed furnace closet. The medical examiner rules death by hypoxia. However, the criminal investigation finds that the room has adequate air flow. What is the most reasonable explanation for the cause of death that should be investigated further? a. There was too little oxygen in the room. b. The furnace was faulty and burned up all the oxygen. c. The furnace was faulty and released carbon monoxide, which accumulated in the closet. d. There was too much carbon dioxide in the room. e. The man strangled himself but the rope disappeared. 73. The primary muscle(s) involved in human breathing is/are the ____. a. external intercostals b. internal intercostals c. diaphragm d. abdominal wall e. lung Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 46_5e 74. The ____ are most sensitive to changes in CO2. a. aortic bodies b. carotid bodies c. receptors of the medulla d. receptors of the aorta e. medulla bodies 75. Diffusion of respiratory gases is enhanced by ____. a. a large surface area b. a thick epithelial layer c. cool temperatures d. the presence of active transport pumps e. the presence of carbon dioxide 76. Some deer mice are physiologically adapted to live at high altitudes because ____. a. adults maintain fetal forms of hemoglobin b. of mutations in hemoglobin that increase its oxygen-binding affinity c. of mutations in myoglobin that increase its oxygen-binding affinity d. of mutations that increase heart rates e. of mutations that decrease heart rates 77. Changes in humans caused by high altitude exposure are ____. a. always temporary b. always permanent c. temporary or permanent depending on duration of exposure d. temporary or permanent depending on developmental timing of exposure e. temporary or permanent depending on duration and developmental timing of exposure 78. An example of local control over breathing is ____. a. automated lung ventilation and perfusion adjustments to changing O2 levels in the blood b. the aortic bodies signaling an increase in breathing rate when blood pH is acidic c. refinement by the pons respiratory group of contractions involved in inhalation and exhalation d. the carotid bodies signaling an increase in breathing rate when O2 levels are low e. the ventral respiratory group signaling an increase in breathing rate and depth during exercise 79. During exhalation, the chest cavity ____ in size, which causes air pressure in the lungs to ____. a. increases; increase b. decreases; decrease c. increases; decrease d. decreases; increase e. expands; remain the same Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 46_5e 80. The ____ is/are responsible for closing off the airway during swallowing. a. larynx b. epiglottis c. pharynx d. intercostal muscles e. pleura Answer the questions using the accompanying figure. Match the appropriate part of the human respiratory system with its correct label. Not all letters will be used.

Figure 46.1 (questions 76-85) a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G h. H i. I j. J Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 46_5e k. K l. L 81. lung 82. pleura 83. nasal passages 84. intercostal muscles 85. alveoli 86. epiglottis 87. bronchiole 88. trachea 89. diaphragm 90. pharynx Match each of the following terms with its correct description. a. The flow of blood (or body fluids) on the internal side of the respiratory surface b. Energy producing reactions that use O2 and release CO2 c. Environmental source and sink for respiratory gases d. The flow of the respiratory medium over the external side of the respiratory surface e. The sequence of events by which animals exchange gases with their surroundings 91. respiratory medium 92. ventilation 93. perfusion 94. physiological respiration 95. cellular respiration 96. Explain how a diving marine mammal increases its supply of stored O2, in spite of the fact that its lungs are collapsed at depths below 25 meters.

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Chap 46_5e

97. Figure 46.2 (question 99) Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Llamas, which are customarily known as mountain dwellers, have hemoglobin with higher O2 binding affinity than that of humans. How would the llama hemoglobin-O2 dissociation curve differ from that of a human?

98. How is breathing rate regulated in humans before and during physical exercise?

99. Describe three adaptations that enhance the function of a respiratory surface.

100. Compare the efficiency of mammalian lungs versus fish gills.

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Chap 46_5e Answer Key 1. False - four 2. False - relaxes 3. False - spiracle 4. True 5. False - body tissues 6. False 7. True 8. False - parabronchi 9. False - respiratory 10. False - CO2 11. b 12. a 13. b 14. a 15. a 16. b 17. a 18. d 19. e 20. c 21. c 22. d 23. d 24. b 25. d 26. b

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Chap 46_5e 27. e 28. e 29. c 30. c 31. b 32. a 33. b 34. c 35. c 36. b 37. a 38. c 39. c 40. d 41. d 42. b 43. b 44. d 45. a 46. e 47. b 48. a 49. b 50. c 51. e 52. b 53. a 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 46_5e 55. e 56. b 57. a 58. d 59. b 60. b 61. c 62. c 63. c 64. b 65. d 66. a 67. b 68. c 69. d 70. d 71. e 72. c 73. c 74. c 75. a 76. b 77. c 78. a 79. d 80. b 81. e 82. i Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 46_5e 83. a 84. j 85. h 86. c 87. g 88. d 89. k 90. b 91. c 92. d 93. a 94. e 95. b 96. Marine mammals increase their stores of O2 by (1) increasing size-relative blood volume, (2) increasing erythrocyte concentrations, and (3) increasing myoglobin concentrations in the muscles. 97. The slope of the llama hemoglobin-O2 dissociation curve would be steeper, effectively shifting the curve to the left. Thus, the llama hemoglobin is shown to bind to O2 at lower partial pressures than that of a human. 98. Signals from respiratory groups in the medulla produce breathing movement. These signals stimulate inhalation by causing the diaphragm and the external intercostal muscles to contract, which expands the chest cavity and produces an inhalation. In rest, the signals are turned off as the lungs become moderately full. Together these signals create breathing rhythm. However, during exercise, which requires increased oxygen, some ventral neurons send signals that stimulate the abdominal and internal intercostal muscles to contract, therefore causing active exhalation. 99. Gas diffusion can be enhanced across a respiratory membrane by (1) increasing its surface area so more gases diffuse, (2) making the respiratory surface thin so gas diffusion is more rapid, and (3) making the respiratory surface moist so gases diffuse across cells more readily. 100. Fish gills are 80% to 90% efficient. This is due to countercurrent exchange. Mammalian lungs are only about 25% efficient. However, the oxygen content in water is low compared to air.

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Chap 47_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. In the human diet, linoleic and linolenic acids are the only essential fatty acid acids. 2. In most animals with a digestive tract, digestion occurs in four successive steps, with the digested material moving by muscular contractions through the digestive tube. 3. A bird cracks open the seed coat with its teeth before swallowing. 4. The "small" in the small intestine refers to its length. 5. Much of the control of the digestive system originates in the neuron networks of the submucosa. 6. The appendix is a vestigial structure in humans. 7. The villi in the human small intestine helps to maximize nutrient absorption. 8. The quality of food herbivores ingest is relatively nutrient rich, therefore their digestive systems are relatively simple. 9. Individual species do not differ in the vitamins, essential amino acids, and fatty acids they require. 10. The digestive system of an earthworm is more advanced than that of a flatworm. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. The ____ layer of the mammalian gut performs peristalsis. a. mucosa b. muscularis c. serosa d. submucosa e. submucosa and muscularis 12. Deficiencies of ____may result in muscular weakness. a. iron and copper b. iron and manganese c. iodine and iron d. phosphorus and calcium e. phosphorus and potassium 13. An example of an animal with a long digestive tract and molars with large, ridged surfaces is a ____. a. cat b. deer c. dog d. shark e. tiger

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Chap 47_5e 14. An example of a fluid feeder is a ____. a. hummingbird b. lamprey c. gray whale d. snake e. heron 15. Which two animals are classified as suspension feeders? a. clams and aphids b. clams and fiddler crabs c. lampreys and rabbits d. lampreys and rabbits e. gray whales and clams 16. Weight loss dieting in humans has been shown to ____. a. increase absolute numbers of Firmicutes bacteria b. decrease absolute numbers of Firmicutes bacteria c. increase the abundance of Firmicutes bacteria relative to Bacteroidetes bacteria d. decrease the relative abundance of Firmicutes bacteria relative to Bacteroidetes bacteria e. not affect bacterial populations in human intestines 17. What function does the presence of alkaline components in pancreatic juice serve? a. They create an optimum environment for digestion in the small intestine. b. They neutralize the acidity of the stomach. c. They stimulate peristalsis in the small intestine. d. They create an optimum environment for digestion in the stomach. e. They stimulate peristalsis in the stomach. 18. A deficiency of vitamin C can result in ____. a. anemia b. beriberi c. night blindness d. rickets e. scurvy 19. The appendix is a vestigial structure that extends off of the ____. a. cecum b. colon c. duodenum d. rectum e. stomach

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Chap 47_5e 20. Which group consumes animals? a. carnivores and herbivores b. carnivores and omnivores c. omnivores and herbivores d. carnivores only e. herbivores only 21. The top priority for energy allocation in animals is ____. a. maintenance metabolism b. growth c. reproduction d. storage e. growth of sexually dimorphic features 22. During digestion ____. a. carbohydrates are split into proteins b. proteins are broken down into fatty acids c. fatty acids are split into non-fatty acids d. carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids are split into smaller chemical subunits e. carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids are split into larger chemical subunits 23. Mechanical digestion in the human digestive system is best illustrated by ____. a. absorption b. amylase c. bacterial action in the large intestine d. chewing e. pepsin 24. The digestion of lipids in humans begins in the ____. a. large intestine b. mouth c. pancreas d. small intestine e. stomach 25. The ____ regulates the movement of food into the stomach, and the ____ regulates the passage of food into the small intestine. a. epiglottis; gastroesophageal sphincter b. epiglottis; pyloric sphincter c. gastroesophageal sphincter; epiglottis d. gastroesophageal sphincter; pyloric sphincter e. pyloric sphincter; anal sphincter Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 47_5e 26. Place the following digestive structures of an annelid in the proper order, beginning at the start of the digestive tract. a. mouth →esophagus →crop →gizzard →intestine →anus b. mouth →esophagus →intestine →crop →gizzard →anus c. mouth →esophagus →gizzard →crop →intestine →anus d. mouth →esophagus →crop →intestine →gizzard →anus e. mouth →esophagus →intestine →gizzard →crop →anus 27. Vitamins ____ are produced within the human body. a. A and C b. A and D c. C and D d. C and K e. D and K 28. The two proteases in the small intestine that complete protein digestion are ____. a. aminopeptidase and dipeptidase b. aminopeptidase and disaccharidase c. dipeptidase and disaccharidase d. dipeptidase and phosphatase e. nucleotidase and nucleosidase 29. The gastrovascular cavity of a flatworm serves as both the ____ and ____ systems of the body. a. digestive; circulatory b. digestive; reproductive c. digestive; respiratory d. circulatory; respiratory e. respiratory; reproductive 30. The presence of hydrochloric acid in the stomach serves to ____. a. inactivate pepsinogen b. digest fats c. activate amylase d. kill bacteria e. emulsify proteins 31. Place the five steps of digestion in most animals with a digestive tube in the proper order. a. absorption →enzymatic hydrolysis →mechanical processing →secretion of enzymes →elimination b. absorption →mechanical processing →enzymatic hydrolysis →secretion of enzymes →elimination c. mechanical processing →absorption →secretion of enzymes →enzymatic hydrolysis →elimination d. mechanical processing →secretion of enzymes →enzymatic hydrolysis →absorption →elimination e. mechanical processing →secretion of enzymes →absorption →enzymatic hydrolysis →elimination Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 47_5e 32. What is the purpose of the watery fluid secreted by the serosa of the human digestive tract? a. emulsifies fats b. initiates peristalsis c. kills bacteria d. neutralizes acidic conditions e. reduces friction between nearby organs 33. Ruminants have ____ chamber(s) in their stomachs. a. one b. two c. three d. four e. five 34. A diet of primarily grains would likely be deficient in the____ fatty acids. a. linoleic and phospholipid b. linoleic and linolenic c. omega-5 and omega-3 d. linolenic and omega-5 e. phospholipid and omega-3 35. The digestive structure that stores concentrated bile is the ____. a. duodenum b. gallbladder c. liver d. pancreas e. stomach 36. The digestion of starches begins in the ____. a. esophagus b. large intestine c. mouth d. small intestine e. stomach 37. The ____ digestive structures in humans secrete amylase. a. liver and gallbladder b. liver and pancreas c. pancreas and gallbladder d. pancreas and salivary glands e. pancreas, liver, and salivary glands

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Chap 47_5e 38. The pancreas is located between the ____ and the ____. a. gallbladder; liver b. liver; stomach c. liver; small intestine d. stomach; small intestine e. stomach; liver 39. Human saliva contains ____ enzymes. a. aminopeptidase b. amylase c. chymotrypsin d. pepsin e. trypsin 40. The ____ produces gastrin that activates secretion of HCl and pepsinogen within itself. a. mouth b. liver c. large intestine d. small intestine e. stomach 41. A diet that does not contain any dark green vegetables, whole grains, yeast, or legumes may result in a ____ deficiency. a. vitamin B1 b. vitamin B2 c. vitamin B6 d. folic acid e. niacin 42. The____layer of the digestive tract in mammals is in direct contact with the lumen. a. mucosa b. muscularis c. submucosa d. serosa e. serosa and muscularis 43. The ____ in humans is active in both the digestion of food and the absorption of nutrients. a. mouth b. liver c. pancreas d. small intestine e. stomach Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 47_5e 44. Vitamin ____ is water soluble. a. A b. C c. D d. E e. K 45. The liver ____. a. detoxifies toxic substances b. breaks down bile c. absorbs amylase d. synthesizes lipoproteins e. turns glycogen into glucose 46. Anemia can result from a deficiency of ____. a. calcium b. chlorine c. iodine d. iron e. phosphorus 47. The pH of stomach acids is usually ____or lower. a. 2 b. 4 c. 7 d. 10 e. 12 48. What is the role of the lysosome in intracellular digestion? a. absorption b. enzymatic digestion c. filtration d. mechanical digestion e. energy production 49. Vitamin ____ is produced in human skin when exposed to sunlight. a. A b. B1 c. C d. D e. folic acid

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Chap 47_5e 50. The ____secretes bile. a. liver b. gallbladder c. pancreas d. small intestine e. stomach 51. Heartburn is caused by the ____. a. gastroesophageal sphincter remaining too tightly closed b. gastroesophageal sphincter remaining a bit open c. pyloric sphincter remaining too tightly closed d. pyloric sphincter remaining a bit open e. the gastroesophageal and the pyloric sphincters remaining too tightly closed 52. The ____ cells produce pepsinogen in the stomach. a. brush border cells b. chief cells c. choanocytes d. parietal cells e. villi 53. A byproduct of digestion in the stomach of some mammals is ____, and it may be produced in large quantities in ____. a. methane; carnivores b. methane; ruminants c. mucus; carnivores d. mucus; ruminants e. mucus; both carnivores and ruminants 54. Humans are an example of ____. a. bulk feeders b. deposit feeders c. fluid feeders d. suspension feeders e. bulk and fluid feeders 55. The ____ tooth type may not be present in herbivores, yet is prominent in carnivores. a. canine b. incisor c. molar d. premolar e. wisdom Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 47_5e 56. Individuals with a vitamin ____ deficiency may develop ____. a. A; bone softening b. D; night blindness c. C; increased blood clotting time d. E; neuromuscular problems e. K; fatigue 57. How does a calorie (lower case "c") differ from a Calorie (upper case "C")? a. One calorie equals 100 Calories. b. One calorie equals 1000 Calories. c. One Calorie equals 100 calories. d. One Calorie equals 1000 calories. e. They are the same. 58. Food is formed into a bolus in the ____. a. large intestine b. liver c. mouth d. small intestine e. stomach 59. Which enzyme is paired with the substance it digests? a. lipase - protein b. pancreatic amylase - starch c. pepsin - starch d. salivary amylase - protein e. trypsin - fats 60. When a ruminant "chews his cud," digested food is regurgitated from the ____, rechewed, and swallowed. a. abomasum and omasum b. abomasum and rumen c. omasum and rumen d. rumen and reticulum e. reticulum and omasum 61. The ____ of the human digestive tract can be classified as endocrine glands since they produce hormones. a. liver and gallbladder b. liver and pancreas c. liver and small intestine d. pancreas and small intestine e. pancreas and stomach

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Chap 47_5e 62. Place the layers of a mammalian gut in order, from the outermost layer to the lumen. a. mucosa →submucosa →muscularis→serosa b. muscularis→mucosa →submucosa →serosa c. serosa →muscularis→submucosa →mucosa d. serosa →mucosa →submucosa →muscularis e. serosa →submucosa →mucosa →muscularis 63. The majority of digestion in the human body takes place in the ____. a. liver b. mouth c. large intestine d. small intestine e. stomach 64. Which teeth are used to crush and grind food? a. canines only b. incisors only c. molars only d. canines and incisors e. incisors and molars 65. Food is classified as chyme in the ____. a. large intestine b. liver c. mouth d. small intestine e. stomach 66. The ____ in the bird's digestive tract is utilized for food storage. a. crop b. esophagus c. gizzard d. intestine e. mouth 67. The primary function of the large intestine is to ____. a. absorb water b. absorb nutrients c. complete the digestion of carbohydrates d. complete the digestion of fats e. complete the digestion of protein

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Chap 47_5e 68. The ____ of a bird's digestive system contains sand and rocks to aid in mechanical digestion. a. crop b. esophagus c. gizzard d. intestine e. mouth 69. Veins from the ____ join together and form the hepatic portal vein. a. large intestine b. liver c. pancreas d. small intestine e. stomach 70. The ____ in the human body regulates hunger and satiety (a sense of fullness). a. hypothalamus b. liver c. pancreas d. small intestine e. stomach 71. Choanocytes are found in ____ and participate in intracellular digestion. a. birds b. earthworms c. grasshoppers d. humans e. sponges 72. A deficiency of ____ produces a goiter in humans. a. calcium b. iodine c. magnesium d. manganese e. zinc 73. Of the 13 essential vitamins, ____ are water soluble and ____ are fat soluble. a. 3; 10 b. 4; 9 c. 5; 8 d. 9; 4 e. 10; 3

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Chap 47_5e 74. A deficiency in thiamin causes the nervous system disorder ____. a. beriberi b. pellagra c. rickets d. scurvy e. anemia 75. The ____ has a digestive tract. a. coral b. earthworm c. flatworm d. hydra e. sea anemone 76. When fat enters the duodenum, it stimulates release of ____. a. amylase b. cholecystokinin c. gastrin d. secretin e. trypsin 77. The anglerfish obtains food by ____. a. catching the fish with its appendages b. emitting a scent into the water c. swimming to the surface d. inverting its stomach e. luring the fish near its mouth 78. Most peptic ulcers are caused by ____. a. antibiotics b. bacteria c. heartburn d. lactose intolerance e. malnutrition 79. Cholesterol can be scavenged by ____. a. VLDLs b. HDLs c. LDLs d. LCATs e. HDLs and LDLs

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Chap 47_5e 80. The digestion of proteins in humans begins in the ____. a. large intestine b. mouth c. pancreas d. small intestines e. stomach Figure 47.1 (questions 71-81) Answer the questions using the accompanying figure. Use the following terms to label the diagram. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G h. H i. I j. J k. K l. L 81. small intestines Figure 47.1 (questions 71-81) Answer the questions using the accompanying figure. Use the following terms to label the diagram. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G h. H i. I j. J k. K l. L 82. anus

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Chap 47_5e

Figure 47.1 (questions 71-81) Answer the questions using the accompanying figure. Use the following terms to label the diagram. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G h. H i. I j. J k. K l. L 83. stomach

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Chap 47_5e

Figure 47.1 (questions 71-81) Answer the questions using the accompanying figure. Use the following terms to label the diagram. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G h. H i. I j. J k. K l. L 84. mouth 85. esophagus 86. pharynx Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 47_5e 87. salivary glands Figure 47.2 (questions 82-85) Answer the questions using the accompanying figure. Label each tooth type in the diagram. a. A b. B c. C d. D 88. incisors 89. molars 90. premolars 91. canines Figure 47.1 (questions 71-81) Answer the questions using the accompanying figure. Use the following terms to label the diagram. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G h. H i. I j. J k. K l. L 92. liver 93. pancreas 94. gallbladder

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Chap 47_5e Figure 47.1 (questions 71-81) Answer the questions using the accompanying figure. Use the following terms to label the diagram. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G h. H i. I j. J k. K l. L 95. large intestines 96. What is the function of villi and microvilli in the small intestine?

97. The mosquito is often a vector of disease. How does this relate directly to its method of obtaining food?

98. How does undernutrition impact the human body?

99. How are the gastric glands in the stomach protected from digestion by the enzyme they produce?

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Chap 47_5e 100. Describe the enzymatic digestion that takes place in each structure of the digestive tract.

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Chap 47_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. False - five 3. False - beak 4. False - diameter 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. False - poor, specialized 9. False - differ 10. True 11. b 12. e 13. b 14. a 15. e 16. d 17. a 18. e 19. a 20. b 21. a 22. d 23. d 24. d 25. d 26. a 27. e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 47_5e 28. a 29. a 30. d 31. d 32. e 33. d 34. b 35. b 36. c 37. d 38. d 39. b 40. a 41. d 42. a 43. d 44. b 45. a 46. d 47. a 48. b 49. d 50. a 51. b 52. b 53. b 54. a 55. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 47_5e 56. d 57. d 58. c 59. b 60. d 61. e 62. c 63. d 64. c 65. e 66. a 67. a 68. c 69. d 70. a 71. e 72. b 73. d 74. a 75. b 76. b 77. a 78. b 79. b 80. e 81. e 82. h

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Chap 47_5e 83. d 84. d 85. c 86. b 87. i 88. d 89. a 90. b 91. c 92. j 93. l 94. k 95. f 96. The mucosa of the small intestine has villi and microvilli as adaptations to greatly increase surface area for absorption. 97. The mosquito is classified as a fluid feeder because the females obtain the blood of other animals as one of its food sources. It is this practice of obtaining blood from various animals that has the capability of spreading blood-borne pathogens from one animal to another. 98. Once nutrient stores in the body are fully utilized, components of the body are broken down as energy sources. This process leads to the destruction of muscles and organs, and can eventually lead to death. 99. The chief cells in the gastric glands produce the inactive form of the enzyme called pepsinogen. The pepsinogen does not become active, in the form of pepsin, until it encounters hydrochloric acid in the stomach. A thick coating of alkaline mucus, secreted by mucous cells, protects the mucosal layer of the stomach from attack by pepsin and HCl. 100. Enzymatic digestion in humans starts in the mouth. Amylase from the salivary glands begins the digestion of starches. This digestion only takes place while the food is in the mouth and during the quick trip down the esophagus. When the amylase contacts strong stomach acids, it is denatured. In the stomach, however, pepsin begins the digestion of proteins. Once the food reaches the small intestine, digestion is completed, primarily due to the action of the enzymes produced by accessory structures. The liver secretes bile that serves to emulsify fats, which makes it easier for the lipase (secreted by the pancreas) to digest the fats. Pancreatic juice also contains trypsin to complete the digestion of proteins and amylase to complete the digestion of starches. At this point, the nutrients are in a simplified, usable form and ready to be absorbed by the small intestine.

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Chap 48_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. Winged arthropods rely solely on behavioral mechanisms for thermoregulation. 2. Torpor during the summer is called estivation. 3. A marine fish's kidney plays little role in nitrogenous-waste removal. 4. Flatworms and mussels have cellular and extracellular fluids with osmolarity lower than that of the external environment 5. Marine mammals produce uric acid that is less concentrated than seawater. 6. The temperature range that provides good organismal performance is the same from one species to another. 7. All animals gain or lose heat by a combination of four general mechanisms. 8. The hormone ADH causes the reabsorption of water in the kidney by increasing the number of aquaporin water channels in the plasma membrane of the collecting ducts. 9. Elevated blood pressure stimulates specialized cells in the heart to release antidiuretic hormone, a peptide hormone that inhibits renin release. 10. Considering solutions on either side of a selectively permeable membrane, a solution of higher osmolarity is said to be hyperosmotic to a solution of lower osmolarity Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Because it has no aquaporins, water is generally trapped in the ____ in mammals. a. distal convoluted tubule b. Bowman's capsule c. descending segment of the loop of Henle d. proximal convoluted tubule e. ascending segment of the loop of Henle 12. Most marine animals have an osmolarity of about ____ mOsm/L. a. 5 b. 225 c. 300 d. 1,000 e. 1,500 13. The ____ of the mammalian nephron receives the filtrate first. a. distal convoluted tubule b. Bowman's capsule c. descending segment of the loop of Henle d. proximal convoluted tubule e. ascending segment of the loop of Henle Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 48_5e 14. The main form of nitrogenous wastes released by birds to their environment is ____. a. nitrate b. ammonia c. uric acid d. amino acids e. urea 15. Organisms that obtain heat primarily from the external environment are called ____. a. endotherms b. isotherms c. exotherms d. ectotherms e. allotherms 16. Compared to uric acid, producing urea as the main form of nitrogenous waste requires ____. a. more energy and water b. less energy and water c. more energy and less water d. the same amount of energy and water e. less energy and more water 17. The adrenal cortex produces ____ to trigger increased Na+ reabsorption in the kidneys. a. atrial natriuretic factor b. renin c. aldosterone d. antidiuretic hormone e. angiotensin 18. True kidneys have tubules called ____. a. nephrons b. hepatic tubules c. metanephridia d. Malpighian tubules e. protonephridia 19. In mammals, the glomerulus is located within the ____. a. distal convoluted tubule b. Bowman's capsule c. descending segment of the loop of Henle d. proximal convoluted tubule e. ascending segment of the loop of Henle

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Chap 48_5e 20. Osmoregulation is the control of ____. a. the internal environment b. temperature c. metabolic wastes d. water and ion balance e. hyperthermia 21. Metanephridia are found in ____. a. annelids b. mammals c. flatworms d. insects e. reptiles 22. You examine an animal and find that it has an excretory tubule with a closed proximal end immersed in hemolymph and a distal end that empties into the gut. You correctly identify this tubule as a ____. a. nephron b. hepatic tubule c. metanephridium d. Malpighian tubule e. protonephridium 23. Produced in the posterior pituitary, ____ increases water absorption in the kidneys. a. atrial natriuretic factor b. renin c. aldosterone d. antidiuretic hormone e. angiotensin 24. The smallest branches of ____ end(s) with a large flame cell. a. nephrons b. hepatic tubules c. metanephridia d. Malpighian tubules e. protonephridia 25. The exiting of wastes from the excretory system is called ____. a. reabsorption b. excretion c. filtration d. secretion e. diffusion Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 48_5e 26. In response to a significant drop in blood pressure, ____ is produced, which quickly raises blood pressure by constricting many arterioles. a. atrial natriuretic factor b. renin c. aldosterone d. antidiuretic hormone e. angiotensin 27. The excretory system used by adult mollusks consists of tubules called ____. a. nephrons b. hepatic tubules c. metanephridia d. Malpighian tubules e. protonephridia 28. Research has demonstrated that ____ play a role in the pathogenesis of polycystic kidney disease in mice models. a. hexokinases b. dsRNAs c. miRNAs d. rRNAs e. sorbitases 29. If a scientist wants to study kidney disease in humans, why might she use human subjects instead of animal models? a. She can perform invasive experiments on humans. b. She can carry out planned matings in humans. c. Humans have a long generation time. d. She can examine renal phenotypes in conjunction with genetic analyses. e. She can genetically manipulate her patients. 30. Organisms that obtain heat primarily from internal physiological sources are called ____. a. endotherms b. isotherms c. exotherms d. ectotherms e. allotherms

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Chap 48_5e 31. Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by ____. a. large amounts of protein in the urine b. the inability to thermoregulate c. the inability to urinate d. large amounts of urea in the urine e. increased urine production 32. The relatively simple excretory system used by flatworms consists of tubules called ____. a. nephrons b. hepatic tubules c. metanephridia d. Malpighian tubules e. protonephridia 33. Freshwater fishes deal with the osmotic stress of living in hypoosmotic conditions in part by ____. a. active transport of ions into the body through the gills b. excreting nitrogenous wastes through their kidneys as urea c. active transport of ions out of the body by chloride cells d. excreting excess salt through the actions of specialized salt glands in their heads e. maintaining high levels of urea and trimethylamine oxide in body fluids 34. Aquaporins are ____. a. cells that are specialized for water transport b. transport channels for water c. the entry point of filtrate into a nephron d. transport channels for ions e. the exit channel for urine out of a nephron 35. An example of an ectotherm is a(n) ____. a. elephant b. lizard c. owl d. bat e. human 36. As filtrate moves through the ____ in mammals, it generally undergoes a dramatic decrease in osmolarity. a. distal convoluted tubule b. Bowman's capsule c. descending segment of the loop of Henle d. proximal convoluted tubule e. ascending segment of the loop of Henle

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Chap 48_5e 37. Nitrogenous waste is excreted from Malpighian tubules mainly in the form of ____. a. nitrate b. ammonia c. uric acid d. amino acids e. urea 38. The ____ in mammals allows water to exit but does not allow ions or urea to exit. a. distal convoluted tubule b. Bowman's capsule c. descending segment of the loop of Henle d. proximal convoluted tubule e. ascending segment of the loop of Henle 39. Many terrestrial ectotherms regulate their temperature by ____. a. moving into or out of the shade b. eating more c. hibernating d. growing more hair e. increasing metabolic rate 40. The main form of nitrogenous wastes released by mammals to their environment is ____. a. nitrate b. ammonia c. uric acid d. amino acids e. urea 41. Many birds, such as seagulls (which rarely drink fresh water), deal with the osmotic stress of taking in large quantities of salt in their food mainly by ____. a. active transport of ions into the body through their feet b. excreting nitrogenous wastes through their kidneys as urea c. active transport of ions out of the body by chloride cells d. excreting excess salt through the actions of specialized salt glands in their heads e. maintaining high levels of urea and trimethylamine oxide in body fluids 42. The tube through which urine leaves the urinary bladder is called the ____. a. collecting duct b. urethra c. renal pelvis d. ureter e. renal vein Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 48_5e 43. In mammals, the filtrate leaves the blood by exiting from the ____. a. efferent arteriole b. peritubular capillaries c. renal artery d. afferent arteriole e. glomerulus 44. Mammals may ____ as a response to cold in order to limit the amount of heat lost to the surroundings. a. shiver b. go off to lay alone so that others do not take their heat c. press hair shafts close to the body d. reduce blood flow to the skin e. lose brown adipose tissue 45. Osmolarity is the ____. a. total solute plus solvent concentration in a solution b. total solvent concentration in a solution c. ratio of solvent to solute in a solution d. total solute concentration in a solution e. ratio of solute to solvent in a solution 46. Nephrons are found in ____. a. annelids b. mammals c. flatworms d. insects e. adult mollusks 47. An extended period of torpor entered by an animal during the winter when the environment is too cold and food is scarce is called ____. a. estivation b. hyperthermia c. thermal acclimatization d. hypothermia e. hibernation 48. The nonselective movement of water and a number of solutes into excretory system tubules is called ____. a. reabsorption b. excretion c. filtration d. secretion e. diffusion Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 48_5e 49. The osmoreceptors that detect and react to dehydration are located in the ____. a. hypothalamus b. adrenal glands c. efferent arteriole d. kidneys e. posterior pituitary 50. In humans, an increase of body temperature a few degrees above normal for a prolonged period produces a state called ____. a. estivation b. hyperthermia c. thermal acclimatization d. hypothermia e. hibernation 51. The typical osmolarity of body fluids in most freshwater invertebrates is about ____ mOsm/L. a. 5 b. 225 c. 300 d. 1,000 e. 1,500 52. The typical osmolarity of most body fluids in humans and other mammals is about ____ mOsm/L. a. 5 b. 225 c. 300 d. 1,000 e. 1,500 53. Which animals are typically osmoconformers? a. freshwater teleost fishes b. sharks c. birds d. marine teleost fishes e. freshwater invertebrates 54. Protonephridia are found in ____. a. annelids b. mammals c. flatworms d. insects e. reptiles Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 48_5e 55. In humans, brown adipose tissue is used for ____. a. nitrogenous waste processing b. controlling blood pressure c. nonshivering thermogenesis d. digestion of fats e. cooling the body when exposed 56. The descending segment of the longest loops of Henle descends into the ____. a. renal pelvis b. renal cortex c. Bowman's capsule d. collecting ducts e. renal medulla 57. Marine teleost fishes deal with the osmotic stress of living in seawater mainly by ____. a. active transport of ions into the body through the gills b. excreting nitrogenous wastes through their kidneys as urea c. active transport of ions out of the body by chloride cells d. excreting excess salt through the actions of specialized salt glands in their heads e. maintaining high levels of urea and trimethylamine oxide in body fluids 58. Cells in the juxtaglomerular apparatus secrete ____ in response to a significant drop in blood pressure or blood volume. a. atrial natriuretic factor b. renin c. aldosterone d. antidiuretic hormone e. angiotensin 59. In mammals, urine drains out of the ____ into a collecting duct. a. distal convoluted tubule b. Bowman's capsule c. descending segment of the loop of Henle d. proximal convoluted tubule e. ascending segment of the loop of Henle 60. The urine of marine mammals is ____ when compared to ____. a. hypoosmotic; seawater b. hypoosmotic; their body fluids c. hyperosmotic; seawater d. isoosmotic; their body fluids e. isoosmotic; seawater Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 48_5e 61. In all but the simplest animals, osmoregulation and excretion is carried out using tubules that are ____. a. specialized blood vessels b. part of the lining of the digestive tract c. modifications of the respiratory and digestive systems d. associated with the surface of the skin e. formed from transport epithelium 62. The ____ is a hormone produced by specialized cells in the heart in response to high blood pressure. a. atrial natriuretic factor b. renin c. aldosterone d. antidiuretic hormone e. angiotensin 63. Physiological changes that occur in ectotherms in response to seasonal temperature shifts are called ____. a. estivation b. hyperthermia c. thermal acclimatization d. hypothermia e. hibernation 64. Suppose sugar is removed from an excretory system tubule and returned to the blood. This would be an example of ____. a. reabsorption b. excretion c. filtration d. secretion e. diffusion 65. Molecules and ions reabsorbed from the nephron reenter the blood at the ____. a. efferent arteriole b. peritubular capillaries c. renal artery d. afferent arteriole e. glomerulus 66. The human temperature set point typically ____. a. ranges from about 96.0°F to about 99.9°F b. stays right at about 98.6°F c. stays right at about 96.8°F d. ranges from about 98.0°F to about 99.5°F e. ranges from about 94.0°F to about 99.0°F Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 48_5e 67. Polycystic kidney disease results in kidney failure due to ____. a. compression of nephrons b. compression of the glomerulus c. swelling of nephrons d. swelling of the glomerulus e. blocking aquaporins 68. Sharks and rays deal with the osmotic stress of living in seawater mainly by ____. a. active transport of ions into the body through the gills b. excreting nitrogenous wastes through their kidneys as urea c. active transport of ions out of the body by chloride cells d. excreting excess salt through the actions of specialized salt glands in their heads e. maintaining high levels of urea and trimethylamine oxide in body fluids 69. An example of an endotherm is a ____. a. mouse b. salamander c. turtle d. frog e. snake 70. Osmoreceptors help the body deal with dehydration in part by stimulating release of ____. a. atrial natriuretic factor b. renin c. aldosterone d. antidiuretic hormone e. angiotensin 71. Where in the mammalian kidney would you expect to find cells with the highest concentration of osmolytes such as sorbitol? a. renal pelvis b. renal cortex c. Bowman's capsule d. collecting ducts e. renal medulla 72. The process of ____ is the transfer of heat from a body to a fluid that passes over its surface. a. conduction b. radiation c. evaporation d. convection e. radiative cooling Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 48_5e 73. The process of ____ is the flow of heat between atoms or molecules in direct contact. a. conduction b. radiation c. evaporation d. convection e. radiative cooling 74. If you were stranded in the Sahara Desert with very little water, you would likely die as a result of ____. a. dehydration only b. hyperthermia only c. hypothermia only d. dehydration and hyperthermia e. dehydration, hyperthermia, and hypothermia 75. The movement of some molecules and ions out of excretory system tubules and back into body fluids is called ____. a. reabsorption b. excretion c. filtration d. secretion e. diffusion 76. Suppose a cell's membrane is permeable to water, but not to Na+ or Cl- or any other solute. The NaCl concentration is higher outside the cell than inside the cell, and the osmolarity of the cell is higher than that of the solution surrounding the cell. What will occur? a. Overall, the cell will lose water. b. Overall, the cell will take up water, Na+, and Cl-. c. Overall, the cell will take up water. d. Overall, the cell will take up water and lose Na+ and Cl-. e. Overall, the cell will lose water and take up Na+ and Cl-. 77. The kangaroo rat gets the bulk of its water from ____. a. drinking liquids b. absorption through its skin c. ingesting food d. oxidative reactions in its cells e. reuptake of water from urine

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Chap 48_5e 78. As temperature decreases, the metabolic rate of an endotherm typically ____, and the metabolic rate of an ectotherm typically ____. a. decreases; decreases b. increases; decreases c. decreases; increases d. increases; increases e. increases; remains the same 79. The main form of nitrogenous wastes released by aquatic invertebrates to their environment is ____. a. nitrate b. ammonia c. uric acid d. amino acids e. urea 80. Malpighian tubules are found in ____. a. annelids b. mammals c. flatworms d. insects e. reptiles 81. The selective movement of specific small molecules and ions into excretory system tubules is called ____. a. reabsorption b. excretion c. filtration d. secretion e. diffusion

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Chap 48_5e Choose the nephron structure that best matches the description. Some choices may be used more than once. a. ascending segment of the loop of Henle b. proximal convoluted tubule c. Bowman's capsule d. descending segment of the loop of Henle e. distal convoluted tubule 82. site where water and small substances are first passed into the nephron 83. tubule segment that usually has the largest decrease in osmolarity 84. may start in the cortex and end in the medulla 85. empties into a collecting duct 86. site of reabsorption of nearly all glucose 87. may start in the medulla and end in the cortex 88. surrounds the glomerulus 89. Na+ and Cl- are actively transported out here, but water and urea are not moved across the membrane 90. tubule segment that usually has the largest increase in osmolarity 91. site of over half of the water reabsorption from the filtrate

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Chap 48_5e

Figure 47.1 (questions 81-85) Answer the questions using the accompanying figure. Use the following terms to label the diagram of a kidney. Not all choices will be used. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F 92. renal pelvis 93. renal vein 94. ureter 95. renal medulla 96. renal cortex 97. Describe the different types of torpor.

98. Which waste products result from the breakdown of proteins in animals?

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Chap 48_5e 99. Would drinking a gallon of tap water, a gallon of sea water, or a gallon of beer produce the most urine? Which would produce the least urine? Why?

100. What are the benefits and costs to animals that excrete uric acid?

101. How do ectotherms control their body temperature?

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Chap 48_5e Answer Key 1. False - on both behavioral and physiological 2. True 3. True 4. False - higher 5. False - urine; more 6. False - varies 7. True 8. True 9. False - atrial natriuretic factor 10. True 11. e 12. d 13. b 14. c 15. d 16. e 17. c 18. a 19. b 20. d 21. a 22. d 23. d 24. e 25. b 26. e 27. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 48_5e 28. c 29. d 30. a 31. a 32. e 33. a 34. b 35. b 36. e 37. c 38. c 39. a 40. e 41. d 42. b 43. e 44. d 45. d 46. b 47. a 48. c 49. a 50. b 51. b 52. c 53. b 54. c 55. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 48_5e 56. e 57. c 58. b 59. a 60. c 61. e 62. a 63. c 64. a 65. b 66. a 67. a 68. e 69. a 70. d 71. e 72. d 73. a 74. d 75. a 76. c 77. d 78. b 79. b 80. d 81. d 82. c

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Chap 48_5e 83. a 84. d 85. e 86. b 87. a 88. c 89. a 90. d 91. b 92. e 93. d 94. f 95. a 96. b 97. Torpor is a sleeplike state where metabolic, nervous, and physical activity are reduced below the normal range. Some animals enter into daily torpor that corresponds to variation in daily temperature. Some animals enter into seasonal torpor, often triggered by day length. Extended torpor during winter is called hibernation. Torpor to avoid high temperatures or water scarcity is called estivation. 98. Proteins are broken down to the nitrogen containing molecules of ammonia, urea, or uric acid and excreted. The particular molecule or combination of molecules depends on a balance among toxicity, water conservation, and energy requirements. 99. A gallon of beer would produce the most urine, because alcohol inhibits ADH release. Sea water would produce the least amount of urine because sea water causes dehydration. 100. Animals that excrete uric acid, such as birds and terrestrial reptiles, are able to conserve water by excreting uric acid. Uric acid is an almost water-free form of nitrogenous waste excretion. However, making uric acid requires more energy than making urea. 101. Ectotherms use various behavioral responses in order to regulate body temperature. They may move between shaded and sunny regions or orient their bodies towards or away from the sun. They may also use physiological activities such as vibrating large muscles in a mechanism similar to shriving in humans.

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Chap 49_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which statement best describes the gametes of most animals? a. A sperm is large and motile; an egg is small and nonmotile. b. A sperm is small and nonmotile; an egg is large and motile. c. A sperm is large and nonmotile; an egg is small and motile. d. A sperm is small and motile; an egg is large and nonmotile. e. The sperm and egg are about the same size, but only the sperm is motile. 2. The major difference between the human male and female reproductive systems is the ____. a. site for fertilization and embryo development in the female b. production of haploid gametes only by the male c. diploid polar bodies of the female d. generation of millions of eggs, but only thousands of sperm each month e. presence of a duct system opening to the body's exterior only in females 3. Menstrual flow results in the discharge of ____. a. the follicle b. the corpus luteum c. the lining of the endometrium d. surface cells from the vagina e. blood from vessels on the outer side of the uterus 4. The presence of ____ in urine indicates a pregnancy. a. estrogen b. progesterone c. human chorionic gonadotropin d. FSH e. LH 5. Which male structure is shared by both the urinary and reproductive systems? a. urinary bladder b. prostate gland c. ureter d. vas deferens e. urethra

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Chap 49_5e 6. Which statement is a part of the definition of infertility? a. Infertility only occurs in females. b. Infertility is always caused by low sperm counts in males. c. Infertility is diagnosed when a couple is unable to become pregnant after 12 months. d. Female infertility is only caused by hormonal imbalances. e. Female infertility is caused by environmental factors, such as rigorous physical exercise, that do not affect males. 7. How does the human male body respond to a decrease in testosterone in the bloodstream? a. The hypothalamus releases testosterone. b. The hypothalamus releases GnRH. c. The Sertoli cells release testosterone. d. The Leydig cells release FSH. e. The Leydig cells release inhibin. 8. Investigators who study sea urchins, amphibians, and humans have reported that ____. a. sperm cannot detect and swim toward attractant molecules b. sperm can detect and swim toward attractant molecules c. eggs release chemicals that repel sperm d. sperm attraction can be inhibited by chemicals e. sperm can release chemicals that kill other sperm 9. Which group lists the male accessory glands? a. prostate gland, bulbourethral gland, seminal vesicles b. vestibular gland, seminal vesicles, prostate gland c. bulbourethral gland, prepuce, prostate gland d. seminal vesicles, prepuce, prostate gland e. prostate gland, bulbourethral gland, hypothalamus 10. In many mammalian species, including bats and most non-human primates, a bone in the penis, called the ____, helps to maintain it in an erect state. a. pendulum b. baculum c. colostrum d. prepuce e. marsupium 11. The oral contraceptive pill contains ____. a. synthetic estrogen only b. synthetic estrogen and/or progestin c. synthetic estrogen and FSH d. FSH and progestin e. synthetic estrogen, progestin, and FSH Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 49_5e 12. Which mammalian group lays eggs? a. monotremes b. eutherians c. polytherians d. metatherians e. marsupials 13. Tubal ligation causes sterility because ____. a. eggs are no longer produced b. the endometrium is unable to form c. sperm is unable to enter the female reproductive tract d. sex hormones are no longer produced by the ovaries e. eggs are unable to travel through the oviducts to the uterus 14. The sequence of cells produced during oogenesis is ____. a. oogonium → primary oocyte → secondary oocyte → ootid → egg b. oogonium → ootid → primary oocyte → secondary oocyte → egg c. primary oocyte → secondary oocyte → oogonium → ootid → egg d. ootid → oogonium → secondary oocyte → primary oocyte → egg e. secondary oocyte → primary oocyte → oogonium → egg → ootid 15. If the number of chromosomes in an animal's gametes is 20, then a somatic cell from that animal would contain ____ chromosomes. a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 40 e. 80 16. In humans, spermatogenesis differs from oogenesis in that spermatogenesis ____. a. involves meiosis, while oogenesis involves mitosis b. begins at birth, while oogenesis begins at puberty c. has unequal cytoplasmic divisions, while oogenesis does not d. produces somatic cells, while oogenesis produces gametes e. produces four functional gametes, while oogenesis produces one functional gamete 17. The cortical reaction is triggered by ____. a. the acrosomal reaction b. sperm entering the nucleus c. a depolarization event d. Ca+2 ions Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 49_5e 18. Which mechanism(s) increase(s) genetic diversity? a. crossing-over between chromosomes during meiosis only b. independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis only c. random DNA mutations only d. crossing-over between chromosomes and independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis only e. crossing-over between chromosomes, independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis, and random DNA mutations 19. Asexual reproduction can involve ____. a. fertilization only b. fission only c. fission, budding, or fertilization d. fragmentation, fission, or fertilization e. fragmentation, fission, or budding 20. Parthenogenesis ____. a. is a form of sexual reproduction b. involves the growth and development of a sperm cell without fertilization c. involves the growth and development of an egg without fertilization d. occurs through budding e. always produces haploid offspring 21. The greater vestibular glands ____. a. secrete a mucus-rich fluid that lubricates the vulva b. receive and transport newly ovulated eggs to the uterus c. maintain the endometrium d. assist in transporting eggs to the oviduct e. produce and release female steroids, such as estrogen and estradiol 22. The mammalian acrosome contains enzymes that ____. a. digest the zona pellucida b. digest the endometrium c. stimulate ovulation d. stimulate sperm motility e. inhibit premature ejaculation 23. Which contraceptive method is the most effective form of birth control if properly implemented and adhered to? a. condoms b. diaphragms c. abstinence d. oral contraceptives e. vasectomy Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 49_5e 24. In some fish, fertilized eggs develop and hatch inside the mother's body before the offspring are released to the exterior. This is an example of ____. a. oviparity b. viviparity c. ovoviparity d. budding e. fission 25. Oviparous animals ____. a. lay eggs that contain the nutrients needed for development of the embryo outside the mother’s body b. retain the embryo within the mother’s body and nourish it at least through early embryo development c. have a specialized temporary structure, the placenta, which connects the embryo to the uterus during development d. retain fertilized eggs within the body, where the embryo develops using the nutrients provided by the egg e. have mature egg-producing and mature sperm-producing tissue present in the same individual 26. The starting point for the ovarian cycle is a ____. a. primary oocyte arrested in meiosis I b. primary oocyte arrested in meiosis II c. primary oocyte having just completed meiosis I d. secondary oocyte arrested in meiosis I e. secondary oocyte arrested in meiosis II 27. In humans, the gonads ____. a. produce gametes only b. secrete hormones only c. nourish the embryo only d. produce gametes and secrete hormones only e. produce gametes, secrete hormones, and nourish the embryo 28. In ____, the parent separates into two or more offspring of approximately the same size. a. fission b. fertilization c. fragmentation d. budding e. parthenogenesis 29. In the ovarian cycle, the pituitary gland releases ____. a. estrogen and estradiol b. progesterone only c. progesterone and inhibin d. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) e. gonadotropin-releasing hormone Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 49_5e 30. Ovulation typically occurs on day ____ of a 28-day ovarian cycle. a. 1 b. 7 c. 10 d. 14 e. 28 31. In the female, the ____ acts as a temporary endocrine gland and secretes ____. a. pituitary; LH and FSH b. corpus luteum; estrogen and progesterone c. ovaries; estrogen and LH d. endometrium; estrogen and FSH e. uterus; LH and FSH 32. At birth, the baby passes from the uterus to the outside of the mother's body through the ____. a. oviduct b. urethra c. ovary d. vagina e. vulva 33. In ____, pieces separate from the body of a parent and develop into new individuals. a. fission b. fertilization c. fragmentation d. budding e. parthenogenesis 34. The ovarian cycle produces a(n) ____. a. mature egg b. parthenogenic egg c. embryo d. endometrium e. mature somatic cell 35. One secondary spermatocyte ultimately produces ____ mature sperm. a. one b. two c. three d. four e. eight

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Chap 49_5e 36. The "pill" works primarily by ____. a. blocking sperm from entering the uterus b. causing spontaneous abortions c. inhibiting the release of FSH and LH d. preventing implantation of the embryo e. stimulating the release of GnRH 37. In bees, haploid male drones are produced by ____ while new queens and sterile workers are produced by ____. a. parthenogenesis; fertilization b. budding; fertilization c. fragmentation; parthenogenesis d. fertilization; parthenogenesis e. fission; budding 38. What is a disadvantage of sexual reproduction? a. Sexual reproduction generates less genetic diversity than asexual reproduction. b. Sexual reproduction decreases the chance that offspring may be able to live and reproduce in diverse environments. c. Sexual reproduction decreases the chance that, in a changing environment, at least some offspring will grow and reproduce successfully. d. Sexual reproduction produces fewer offspring per parent than asexual reproduction. e. On average, sexual reproduction generates unequal numbers of males and females. 39. The product of meiosis II during spermatogenesis is the ____. a. sperm b. spermatid c. primary spermatocyte d. secondary spermatocyte e. spermatogonium 40. Vasectomy causes sterility because ____. a. sperm is no longer produced b. sperm is unable to leave the testis c. sperm is unable to reach the vas deferens d. sperm is unable to reach the urethra e. semen is no longer produced

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Chap 49_5e 41. In females, meiosis II is completed ____. a. before birth b. at the time of birth c. when eggs are ovulated each month d. at puberty e. only if the egg is fertilized 42. A human egg can only be fertilized in the ____. a. oviduct b. ovary c. uterus d. cervix e. vagina 43. Research suggests that contamination of water by agricultural chemicals appears to____. a. increase sperm count b. decrease sperm count c. increase sperm motility d. eliminate sperm production completely e. have no effect on sperm 44. In ____, a new individual grows and develops while attached to the parent. a. fission b. fertilization c. fragmentation d. budding e. parthenogenesis 45. Which condition favors sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction? a. a stable and uniform environment b. highly variable environments c. sparsely settled populations d. sessile animals e. an unstable environment 46. How does the hypothalamus of the sexually mature human male regulate reproductive hormone levels? a. The hypothalamus continuously secretes large amounts of GnRH. b. The hypothalamus responds to low levels of testosterone by synthesizing and releasing testosterone. c. The hypothalamus secretes GnRH in brief pulses every two to three hours. d. The hypothalamus secretes LH in response to high levels of testosterone. e. The hypothalamus responds to low levels of GnRH by synthesizing and releasing testosterone.

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Chap 49_5e 47. The acrosome of a sperm cell contains ____. a. a haploid number of chromosomes b. a diploid number of chromosomes c. enzymes and other proteins d. mitochondria e. ATP 48. Which contraception technique consists of avoiding intercourse during the time of the cycle when the egg can be fertilized? a. withdrawal b. tubal ligation c. vasectomy d. rhythm method e. diaphragm and spermicidal jelly 49. Humans are ____ animals. a. oviparous b. viviparous c. ovoviviparous d. marsupial e. parthenogenic 50. The mitochondria present in the sperm provide ____. a. energy for the movement of the flagellum b. energy for the acrosome to penetrate the egg c. energy for the maturation of the sperm d. nutrients for the sperm e. nutrients for the developing embryo 51. The ovarian cycle includes the ____ phases. a. luteal and secretory b. menstrual and proliferative c. follicular and luteal d. follicular and proliferative e. proliferative and secretory 52. Sperm are stored in the ____ after they are produced. a. epididymis b. seminiferous tubules c. penis d. prostate gland e. vas deferens Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 49_5e 53. Sperm are produced in the ____. a. epididymis b. seminiferous tubules c. penis d. prostate gland e. vas deferens 54. Recent research has indicated that for human _____, vocal pitch changes may be associated with fertility. a. males b. females c. males and females d. females during menopause e. males during puberty 55. Menstruation begins in response to ____. a. rising levels of FSH and LH b. rising levels of GnRH c. rising levels of progesterone d. falling levels of progesterone e. rising levels of estrogen 56. External fertilization is most common in animals living in ____. a. mountains b. prairies c. forests d. oceans e. deserts 57. The type of contraception technique that can interfere with implantation of a fertilized egg is ____. a. tubal ligation b. spermicidal jelly c. birth control pills d. an intrauterine device e. a diaphragm 58. What is released by the acrosomal reaction? a. enzymes that digest a path that a sperm can follow through the egg coats b. proteins that solidify the sperm tail c. sperm nuclei d. enzymes that directly fuse the sperm and egg nuclei together e. proteins that mark the path the sperm cells must follow to the oviduct

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Chap 49_5e 59. The morning-after pill works by ____. a. blocking ovulation or fertilization b. blocking passage of sperm through the female reproductive tract c. blocking passage of sperm through the male reproductive tract d. causing shedding of the endometrial lining and any implanted embryo e. increasing the effectiveness of the acrosomal reaction 60. In the female reproductive cycle, the endometrium is thickest ____. a. as the menstrual phase transitions to the proliferative phase b. as the proliferative phase transitions to the secretory phase c. shortly before ovulation d. during ovulation e. as the secretory phase transitions to menstrual phase 61. The drug mifepristone (RU-486) is a contraceptive that ____. a. blocks passage of sperm through the male reproductive tract b. blocks passage of sperm through the female reproductive tract c. prevents ovulation d. causes shedding of the endometrial lining and any implanted embryo e. prevents implantation by blocking estrogen receptors in the uterus 62. The presence of both male and female reproductive tissue in the same individual is termed ____. a. parthenogenesis b. hermaphroditism c. oviparity d. viviparity e. ovoviparity 63. The female erectile structure analogous to the male penis is the ____. a. labia majora b. labia minora c. mons pubis d. cervix e. clitoris 64. A human female could ovulate about ____ times in her lifetime. a. 40 b. 400 c. 4,000 d. 40,000 e. 400,000

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Chap 49_5e 65. The acrosomal reaction is the ____. a. activation of a sperm cell through attachment of an acrosome b. release of digestive enzymes from the acrosome after the initial attachment of a sperm to an egg c. fusion of sperm and egg nuclei using enzymes from the acrosome d. use of enzymes from the acrosome to block the attachment of other sperm cells to the egg e. initial binding of the sperm to the zona pellucida 66. Asexual reproduction ____. a. is common in vertebrates b. involves the fusion of two sperm c. involves the fusion of two eggs d. gives rise to offspring without the fusion of gametes e. involves the fusion of a male gamete and a female gamete 67. The ____ cells are stimulated by ____ to secrete testosterone. a. Sertoli; LH b. Sertoli; FSH c. Leydig; LH d. Leydig; FSH e. Sertoli and Leydig; LH 68. One function of the developing follicle is to ____. a. stimulate ovulation b. secrete progesterone c. secrete estrogens d. secrete gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) e. secrete glycoproteins, which promote sperm motility 69. Individuals change from one sex to the other in ____. a. simultaneous hermaphroditism b. sequential hermaphroditism c. oviparity d. parthenogenesis e. gametogenesis 70. The palolo worm reproduces by ____ reproduction, and its biological clock is timed by ____. a. asexual; periods of moonlight b. sexual; periods of moonlight c. asexual; the age of the worm d. sexual; the age of the worm e. asexual; the temperature of its environment

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Chap 49_5e Identify each labeled part of the following illustration.

a. a b. b c. c d. d e. e f. f g. g h. h i. i j. j 71. seminal vesicle 72. rectum 73. bulbourethral gland 74. epididymis 75. testis 76. urinary bladder 77. urethra 78. scrotum 79. prostate gland 80. vas deferens Identify each labeled part of the following illustration.

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Chap 49_5e

a. a b. b c. c d. d e. e f. f Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 49_5e g. g 81. ovary 82. vagina 83. urethra 84. oviduct 85. labia majora 86. labia minora 87. uterus Match each hormone with its correct description. a. triggers ovulation; stimulates Leydig cells in the testes to secrete testosterone b. stimulates oocytes in the ovaries to begin meiosis; stimulates Sertoli cells in the testes to secrete molecules needed for spermatogenesis c. secreted by the developing embryo; maintains function of the corpus luteum d. induces contraction of the uterus e. stimulates growth of the uterine lining and inhibits contractions of the uterus f. secreted by the corpus luteum and helps maintain the endometrium; secreted by Sertoli cells and inhibits FSH secretion by the anterior pituitary g. secreted by the hypothalamus; stimulates the release of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary h. secreted by follicular cells; stimulates the growth of a new endometrium i. secreted by the corpus luteum even after it regresses later in pregnancy; blocks uterine contractions until the time of birth is near j. secreted by Leydig cells; stimulates spermatogenesis and controls the growth and function of male reproductive structures 88. estrogen 89. follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) 90. gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) 91. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) 92. inhibin 93. luteinizing hormone (LH) 94. oxytocin 95. progesterone 96. relaxin 97. testosterone 98. Describe the cortical reaction, and explain its significance in the process of fertilization.

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Chap 49_5e 99. Explain the roles of the hormones GnRH, FSH, and LH in the male and female reproductive systems.

100. List some of the environmental factors that may be associated with male and female infertility.

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Chap 49_5e Answer Key 1. d 2. a 3. c 4. c 5. e 6. c 7. b 8. b 9. a 10. b 11. b 12. a 13. e 14. a 15. d 16. e 17. d 18. e 19. e 20. c 21. a 22. a 23. c 24. c 25. a 26. a

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Chap 49_5e 27. d 28. a 29. d 30. d 31. b 32. d 33. c 34. a 35. b 36. c 37. a 38. d 39. b 40. d 41. e 42. a 43. b 44. d 45. a 46. c 47. c 48. d 49. b 50. a 51. c 52. a 53. b 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 49_5e 55. d 56. d 57. d 58. a 59. a 60. e 61. d 62. b 63. e 64. b 65. b 66. d 67. c 68. c 69. b 70. b 71. b 72. d 73. e 74. g 75. i 76. a 77. j 78. h 79. c 80. f 81. b 82. g Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 49_5e 83. d 84. a 85. f 86. e 87. c 88. h 89. b 90. g 91. c 92. f 93. a 94. d 95. e 96. i 97. j 98. In the cortical reaction, cortical granules just under the plasma membrane of the egg, fuse with the membrane and release their contents to the outside by exocytosis. Enzymes released from the cortical granules alter the egg's coat within minutes after fertilization, so that no further sperm can attach and penetrate to the egg. Once this barrier, termed the slow block to polyspermy, is set up, no further sperm can reach the egg plasma membrane in any animal species. 99. In both males and females, gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) is secreted by the hypothalamus gland and acts on the pituitary gland to release follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) into the bloodstream. In females, the target of FSH and LH is the ovary. FSH stimulates primary oocytes to develop into secondary oocytes, which become surrounded by a layer of cells and form a follicle. LH triggers ovulation and subsequent formation of the corpus luteum from the remaining follicle cells. In males, the target of the two gonadotropins is the testes. FSH stimulates Sertoli cells to secrete molecules required for spermatogenesis, while LH stimulates the Leydig cells to secrete testosterone. 100. Environmental factors, such as a person’s health or lifestyle, can affect male fertility. Such factors include obesity, being underweight, malnutrition, emotional stress, alcohol or drug dependency, and tobacco smoking. Many of the environmental factors that cause female infertility are the same as those that cause male infertility. In addition, female athletes with vigorous training regimens, such as cycling and running, may experience dysfunctions in their menstrual cycles, a condition called athletic menstrual cycle irregularities. The dysfunctions include amenorrhea (no menstrual periods) and cycles of normal length, but without ovulation.

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Chap 50_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. The process of apoptosis can remove structures, such as mammary tissue in male mammals. a. True b. False 2. The nervous system structures develop from the ectoderm. a. True b. False 3. The material in the gray crescent of a frog embryo is necessary for normal development. a. True b. False 4. Maternal blood mixes directly with the embryo's blood in the placenta. a. True b. False 5. In a human fetus that has the XX combination of sex chromosomes, the gonads develop into ovaries. a. True b. False 6. Cells that undergo apoptosis are essential to the organism into adulthood. a. True b. False 7. The hormone progesterone triggers the smooth muscles of the uterine wall to begin the contractions of labor. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 8. In ____, the gray crescent establishes the ____ axis of the body. a. birds; dorsal-ventral b. frogs; dorsal-ventral c. humans; dorsal-ventral d. birds; anterior-posterior e. sea urchin; anterior-posterior 9. Which group of adult tissues is derived from the mesoderm? a. lining of the digestive tract, liver, pancreas b. muscles, bones, cartilage c. skin, brain, retina d. skin, liver, pancreas e. lining of respiratory tract, thyroid gland, urinary bladder Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 50_5e 10. During early embryonic development, implantation into the uterine lining occurs at the ____ stage. a. zygote b. morula c. blastocyst d. gastrula e. hypoblast 11. Experiments on selective adhesion between ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm derived from amphibian embryos demonstrated that ____. a. ectoderm cells have positive affinity for mesoderm cells, but negative affinity for endoderm cells b. ectoderm cells have negative affinity for mesoderm cells, but positive affinity for endoderm cells c. mesoderm cells have negative affinity for endoderm and ectoderm cells d. ectoderm cells have positive affinity for both endoderm and mesoderm cells e. endoderm cells have positive affinity for both ectoderm and mesoderm cells 12. During the process of ____, blastomeres undergo extensive cellular rearrangements to produce an embryo with three distinct primary cell layers. a. induction b. cleavage c. organogenesis d. metamorphosis e. gastrulation 13. In ____, one group of cells causes or influences another nearby group of cells to follow a particular developmental pathway. a. apoptosis b. induction c. differentiation d. determination e. cleavage 14. Tissues present during organ development that are not found in the fully formed organ are removed by ____. a. apoptosis only b. differentiation only c. induction only d. apoptosis and differentiation e. apoptosis, differentiation, and induction

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Chap 50_5e 15. The outer single layer of cells of the blastocyst is called the _____. a. gastrula b. trophoblast c. inner cell mass d. endometrium e. zona pellucida 16. The correct sequence of embryonic development is ____. a. gastrulation, organogenesis, and fertilization b. cleavage, gastrulation, and organogenesis c. gastrulation, fertilization, and organogenesis d. gastrulation, cleavage, and organogenesis e. fertilization, organogenesis, and cleavage 17. In an egg, the ____ pole typically gives rise to surface structures and the anterior end of the embryo, while the ____ pole gives rise to internal structures, such as the gut and the posterior end of the embryo. a. cleavage; gastrulation b. gastrulation; animal c. animal; vegetal d. cleavage; embryonic e. vegetal; animal 18. Most of the mRNA and protein molecules in the zygote are from the ____ because ____. a. mother; the fertilizing sperm contributes essentially no cytoplasm to the zygote b. mother; the fertilizing sperm contributes essentially no DNA to the zygote c. mother; the proteins in the egg degrade mRNA and protein molecules contained in the sperm d. father; the egg contributes essentially no cytoplasm to the zygote e. father; the egg contributes essentially no DNA to the zygote 19. Morphology refers to the ____ of an organism. a. reproductive ability b. form or shape c. habitat d. lifespan e. movement 20. Removal of webbing between human fingers is an example of ____. a. induction b. apoptosis c. differentiation d. meiosis e. determination Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 50_5e 21. Muscles originate from the ____. a. ectoderm only b. endoderm only c. mesoderm only d. ectoderm and endoderm e. ectoderm and mesoderm 22. Which structure of the eye is matched appropriately with its developmental origin? a. ectoderm → cornea b. crystallin → cornea c. optic cup → lens d. crystallin → retina e. mesoderm → retina 23. In vertebrates, cells of the neural crest develop into ____. a. bones of the inner ear only b. cartilage of the face only c. cranial nerves only d. muscles of the chest and cranial nerves e. bones of the inner ear, cartilage of the face, and cranial nerves 24. Genetic testing performed on cells of the placenta is called ____, while a similar procedure that uses cells derived from the amniotic fluid is called ____. a. placenta sampling; chorionic villus sampling b. trophoblast testing; amniocentesis c. trophoblast testing; chorionic villus sampling d. chorionic villus sampling; amniocentesis e. placenta sampling; amniocentesis 25. The chorion is produced from which primary tissue layer(s)? a. ectoderm and endoderm b. ectoderm and mesoderm c. endoderm and mesoderm d. ectoderm only e. endoderm only 26. Normally, human fertilization occurs in the ____. a. vagina b. cervix c. ovary d. uterus e. oviduct Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 50_5e 27. The pharyngeal arches contribute to the formation of the ____. a. brain and spinal cord b. heart c. legs and arms d. lungs e. larynx and pharynx 28. When the SRY gene of the Y chromosome becomes active (around seven weeks), the ____. a. Müllerian and Wolffian ducts both develop into male reproductive structures b. Müllerian ducts develop into male reproductive structures and the Wolffian ducts disappear c. Müllerian ducts disappear and the Wolffian ducts develop into male reproductive structures d. Müllerian and Wolffian ducts both disappear e. Müllerian and Wolffian ducts both develop into female reproductive structures 29. Apoptosis begins when ____ is inactivated. a. CED-3 b. CED-4 c. CED-9 d. the death signal receptor e. a nuclease 30. In sea urchin embryogenesis, the mouth is formed ____. a. where the archenteron contacts the ectoderm b. by the blastopore c. by the blastocoel d. by migrating secondary mesenchyme cells e. where the blastopore contacts the ectoderm 31. At the cellular level, the development of an adult animal from a fertilized egg involves ____. a. mitosis only b. meiosis only c. cell differentiation only d. mitosis, cell differentiation, and morphogenesis e. meiosis, cell differentiation, and morphogenesis 32. Whole-cell movements involve the coordinated activity of ____. a. microtubules only b. microfilaments only c. blastomeres only d. microtubules and microfilaments e. microtubules, microfilaments, and blastomeres

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Chap 50_5e 33. When the optic vesicle contacts overlying ectoderm, developmental events are induced, leading to ____ in the developing lens. a. crystallin and keratin synthesis b. crystallin synthesis c. keratin synthesis d. degradation of crystalline and keratin e. apoptosis 34. Compared to other mammals, the human brain is unique with respect to its ____. a. integrative capacity only b. degree of complexity only c. pathway of embryonic development only d. integrative capacity and degree of complexity e. integrative capacity, degree of complexity, and pathway of embryonic development 35. During frog gastrulation, cells of the ____ of the blastopore control blastopore formation. a. blastocoel b. archenteron c. hypoblast d. dorsal lip e. blastodisc 36. Arrange the developmental stages in the proper order. a. blastula → gastrula → morula b. blastula → morula → gastrula c. gastrula → blastula → morula d. morula → blastula → gastrula e. morula → gastrula → blastula 37. How does the amount of yolk relate to the nourishment of the organism? a. An egg with a small amount of yolk contains all of the nutrients for the embryo's development. b. An egg with a large amount of yolk contains all of the nutrients for the embryo's development. c. An egg lacking yolk contains all of the nutrients for the embryo's development. d. There is no relationship between the amount of yolk and the nourishment of the organism. e. All animal eggs have the same amount of yolk and provide the same amount of nourishment.

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Chap 50_5e 38. Unequal distribution of yolk and other components in a mature egg is termed ____. a. cleavage b. gastrulation c. involution d. neurulation e. polarity 39. During gastrulation in sea urchins, invagination produces a cavity called the ____. a. archenteron b. primary mesenchyme c. secondary mesenchyme d. blastocoel e. blastocyst 40. In bird embryos, the pathway for cell migration into the blastocoel is formed by the ____, while in frog embryos, the pathway for cell migration into the blastopore is formed by the ____. a. archenteron; dorsal lip of the blastopore b. epiblast; dorsal lip of the blastopore c. primitive groove; ventral lip of the blastopore d. primitive groove; dorsal lip of the blastopore e. hypoblast; ventral lip of the blastopore 41. Eggs from which organism contain the lowest percentage of yolk? a. birds b. humans c. insects d. reptiles e. moths 42. Cleavage-stage cells are called ____; they initially form a solid ball or layer called a ____. a. morulas; blastomere b. blastocoels; blastomere c. blastomeres; morula d. blastomeres; blastula e. blastulas; blastocoel 43. During ____, the three germ layers rearrange to produce tissues and organs. a. organogenesis b. fertilization c. parturition d. gastrulation e. cleavage Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 50_5e 44. Scientists have traced the cell lineage of every somatic and germ-line cell in C. elegans and found that the resulting embryo differentiates into an adult hermaphrodite that has exactly _____ cells or an adult male that has _____ cells. a. 1,031; 959 b. 959; 1,551 c. 959; 1,031 d. 1,551; 959 e. 1,551; 1,031 45. The blastopore is the ____. a. opening of the archenteron at the animal pole b. opening of the archenteron at the vegetal pole c. outer layer of the blastula d. cavity in the blastula formed by invagination e. region of the blastula establishing dorsal-ventral polarity 46. Place the cellular processes responsible for animal development in the correct order. a. induction → differentiation → determination b. induction → determination → differentiation c. determination → induction → differentiation d. determination → differentiation → induction e. differentiation → determination → induction 47. Cells capable of producing all the various types of cells of the adult are called ____ cells. a. semipotent b. pluripotent c. totipotent d. multipotent e. differentiated 48. Apoptosis is ____. a. cell determination b. cell induction c. a mechanism of cellular adhesion d. programmed cell death e. cell differentiation

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Chap 50_5e 49. During differentiation, organs develop with different numbers of cells due to ____. a. cell adhesion molecules that are only present in some tissues b. cell migration c. cell determination d. the variable length of mitotic interphase e. microtubule rearrangement 50. As embryonic cells divide during cleavage, the daughter cells ____. a. grow to the same size as the parent cell b. become progressively smaller c. become progressively larger d. are different in size from each other and the parent cell e. may increase or decrease in size depending on their position 51. After childbirth, ____ in the mother. a. oxytocin stimulates the production and secretion of milk b. oxytocin stimulates the production of milk and prolactin stimulates the secretion of milk c. prolactin stimulates the production and secretion of milk d. prolactin stimulates the production of milk and oxytocin stimulates the secretion of milk e. estrogen and progesterone are directly responsible for the production and secretion of milk 52. Which group of organisms has a pattern of gastrulation that is the most similar to humans? a. amphibians b. birds c. drosophila d. sea urchins e. zebra fish 53. During gastrulation in frog embryos, cells migrate into the blastopore by a process called ____. a. invagination b. involution c. cleavage d. induction e. adhesion 54. Evidence that all differentiated cells contain the organism's complete genome is provided by ____. a. comparing frog and sea urchin development b. observing that some cells remain totipotent c. observing that totipotent cells give rise to multipotent cells d. observing that multipotent cells give rise to pluripotent cells e. the successful cloning of a sheep, Dolly

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Chap 50_5e 55. Which event occurs in a human fetus with the XX combination of sex chromosomes? a. Anti-Müllerian hormone is produced. b. The SRY gene is activated. c. Testosterone is secreted. d. The Wolffian ducts develop. e. The gonads develop into ovaries. 56. As the period of fetal growth comes to an end, a steep rise in ____ levels directly causes ____. a. progesterone; uterine cells to express oxytocin receptor genes b. progesterone; uterine contractions c. estrogen; uterine cells to express oxytocin receptor genes d. estrogen; uterine contractions e. estrogen; oxytocin production 57. During mitotic cleavage. ____. a. no cell division occurs and the embryonic mass does not change b. no cell division occurs and the embryonic mass increases c. cell division occurs and the embryonic mass does not change d. cell division occurs and the embryonic mass increases e. the cell is in a dormant stage 58. In sea urchins, the primary mesenchyme cells eventually become the ____. a. ectoderm b. endoderm c. mesoderm d. endoderm and mesoderm e. ectoderm and endoderm 59. Place the three primary cell layers of an embryo in order from superficial to deep. a. ectoderm → endoderm → mesoderm b. ectoderm → mesoderm → endoderm c. endoderm → ectoderm → mesoderm d. endoderm → mesoderm → ectoderm e. mesoderm → ectoderm → endoderm 60. Determination ____, while differentiation ____. a. is a cell's commitment to a developmental fate; is a cell's development into specialized cell types b. is a cell's development into specialized cell types; is a cell's commitment to a developmental fate c. is permanent; is reversible d. is a result of a cell's own genetic program; is a result of influence by other cells e. results in the final fate of a cell; results in determination

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Chap 50_5e 61. What determines the development of male or female sex organs in the human embryo? a. environmental factors b. genes on the X chromosome c. genes on the Y chromosome d. genes on both the X and Y chromosomes e. neither the X nor Y chromosomes 62. The information directing the development of the fertilized egg is provided by ____. a. the egg nucleus only b. the sperm nucleus only c. mRNAs in the egg cytoplasm only d. proteins in the egg and sperm cytoplasm e. the egg and sperm nuclei, mRNAs in the egg cytoplasm, and proteins in the egg cytoplasm 63. In vertebrates, the central nervous system develops directly from the ____. a. somites b. neural plate c. notochord d. cells of the neural crest e. neural tube 64. Uterine contractions ____. a. often occur during the second trimester b. are controlled by negative feedback c. are controlled by positive feedback d. are stimulated by the hormone prolactin e. only occur during the first two stages of labor 65. The extraembryonic membrane that secretes fluid around the developing embryo is the ____. a. allantois b. amnion c. chorion d. yolk sac e. both the allantois and the yolk sac 66. In vertebrates, organogenesis begins with ____. a. neurulation b. gastrulation c. fertilization d. determination e. differentiation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 50_5e 67. Research indicates that ____ defects occur ____ often with multiple births than single births. a. central nervous system; less b. heart; more c. musculoskeletal; more d. gastrointestinal; less e. chromosomal; less 68. Yolk, when unequally distributed in the egg cytoplasm, is most commonly concentrated in the ____ half of the egg. a. cleavage b. gastrulation c. animal d. vegetal e. embryonic 69. Human development ____. a. is complete at birth b. begins at puberty c. is complete at puberty d. occurs only during adult life e. begins at conception 70. Normally, gestation lasts for approximately ____ weeks in humans. a. 28 b. 38 c. 44 d. 50 e. 60 71. Before zygotic genes become active, the stages of animal development are directed by the ____. a. environment b. cytoplasmic determinants of the egg c. cytoplasmic determinants of the sperm d. cytoplasmic determinants of the egg and the sperm e. zygote nucleus 72. Cell differentiation occurs due to ____. a. unequal cytoplasmic divisions b. the removal of different genes in different cell types c. polarization of the cell d. the presence of the X and/or Y chromosome in the cell e. changes in gene expression in different cell types Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 50_5e 73. The epidermis of the skin and the lens, cornea, and retina of the eye originate from the ____, while the lining of the respiratory tract originates from the ____. a. ectoderm; endoderm b. ectoderm; mesoderm c. endoderm; ectoderm d. endoderm; mesoderm e. 74. The final body form of an animal is generated as differentiated cells settle into their appropriate sites; this process is called ____. a. fertilization b. morphogenesis c. parturition d. involution e. gastrulation 75. At the cellular level, the development of an animal from a fertilized egg involves cell division by _____. a. meiosis b. mitosis c. differentiation d. morphogenesis e. cloning 76. When a dorsal lip from a newt is attached to the ventral side of another embryo, it results in ____. a. two separate newts b. two attached newts c. survival of only the original newt d. death of the newt e. no observable result 77. As cleavage divisions continue, the ball or layer hollows out to form the ____. a. morula b. zygote c. blastomere d. blastula e. gastrula

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Chap 50_5e 78. A human embryo is first considered to be a fetus at ____ weeks. a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 10 e. 12 Match each term to its appropriate definition. a. A fluid-filled cavity within the blastula b. An early embryo that has three primary tissue layers c. A solid ball of blastomeres d. An opening that eventually becomes the anus or mouth e. Series of mitotic divisions in which cycles of DNA replication and division occur without the production of new cytoplasm f. Early structure formed during nervous system development g. A hollowed ball of blastomeres 79. blastocoel 80. blastopore 81. blastula 82. cleavage 83. gastrula 84. morula 85. neural plate

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Chap 50_5e

Answer the questions using the accompanying figure. Label the structures in a developing bird embryo with the appropria a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 50_5e f. F g. G 86. allantois 87. amnion 88. amniotic cavity 89. embryo 90. chorion 91. yolk sac 92. shell 93. Describe the three stages of labor.

94. What is the immune function of the placenta in human embryonic development?

95. What is the evidence that differentiation produces specialized cells without the loss of genes?

96. List and briefly describe the four stages of whole-cell migration.

97. What are the characteristics of the animal and vegetal poles of the egg?

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Chap 50_5e 98. Explain how the SRY gene induces the development of testes and the male reproductive tract.

99. Describe the experimental evidence for the selective adhesion property of cells.

100. What are cadherins?

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Chap 50_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. False 8. b 9. b 10. c 11. a 12. e 13. b 14. a 15. b 16. b 17. c 18. a 19. b 20. b 21. c 22. a 23. e 24. d 25. b 26. e

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Chap 50_5e 27. e 28. c 29. c 30. a 31. d 32. d 33. b 34. d 35. d 36. d 37. b 38. e 39. a 40. d 41. b 42. c 43. a 44. c 45. b 46. b 47. c 48. d 49. d 50. b 51. d 52. b 53. b 54. e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 50_5e 55. e 56. c 57. c 58. c 59. b 60. a 61. c 62. e 63. e 64. c 65. b 66. a 67. b 68. d 69. e 70. b 71. b 72. e 73. a 74. b 75. b 76. b 77. d 78. c 79. a 80. d 81. g 82. e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 50_5e 83. b 84. c 85. f 86. d 87. b 88. c 89. a 90. e 91. g 92. f 93. In the first stage of labor, the contractions push the fetus further against the cervix, dilating it up to 10 cm in diameter. In response to cervix dilation, stretch receptors in the walls send nerve signals to the hypothalamus, which responds by stimulating the pituitary to secrete more oxytocin. In turn, the oxytocin stimulates more forceful contractions of the uterus, pressing the fetus more strongly against the cervix, and further stretching its walls. The second stage of labor is the actual birth of the baby. Continued uterine contractions begin to push the baby through the cervix and the vagina. In the third stage of labor, continuing contractions of the uterus expel the placenta and any remnants of the umbilical cord and embryonic membranes as the afterbirth. 94. The placenta prevents fetal blood from entering the maternal bloodstream. The fetal blood circulation system remains closed, and nutrients and oxygen from the mother's circulation pass into the circulation of the embryo by diffusion. Since the maternal and fetal blood circulations do not directly mix, this prevents the mother from developing an immune reaction against cells of the embryo, which, because it is genetically different from the mother, may be recognized as foreign by the mother’s immune system. 95. Research has indicated that selective gene loss does not occur in differentiated cells. First, if a nucleus from a fully differentiated frog cell is inserted into a fertilized egg where the nucleus has been destroyed, the egg will develop into a normal tadpole and adult frog. Second, the sheep, Dolly, was successfully cloned from an adult cell nucleus, which is only possible if the adult cells retain all of their genes. 96. In the first stage, the front and back ends of a cell become defined by a polarization process. In the second stage, the front end of the cell protrudes as actin microfilaments assemble into long, parallel bundles. In the third stage, the cell adheres to the surrounding extracellular matrix. In the fourth stage, adhesion at the rear end of the cell is released, and the cell migrates forward and adheres to a new attachment point. 97. The egg nucleus is typically located at the animal pole of the egg. The animal pole generally gives rise to surface structures and the anterior end of the embryo. The opposite end of the egg is called the vegetal pole and typically gives rise to internal structures, such as the gut and the posterior end of the embryo. Yolk, when unequally distributed in the egg cytoplasm, is most commonly concentrated in the vegetal half of the egg.

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Chap 50_5e 98. The SRY gene becomes active in the seventh week of embryonic development. The protein encoded by the gene sets a molecular switch that causes the primitive gonads to develop into testes. The fetal testes then secrete two hormones, testosterone and the anti-Müllerian hormone (AMH). The testosterone stimulates development of the Wolffian ducts into the male reproductive tract, including the epididymis, vas deferens, and seminal vesicles. Testosterone additionally stimulates the development of the male genitalia. AMH stimulates Müllerian duct regression. 99. Easily recognizable cells from the primary cell layers of amphibian embryos were placed individually in alkaline solution, which caused the tissues to break down into single cells. Researchers then combined different mixtures of cells, such as ectoderm + mesoderm and ectoderm + mesoderm + endoderm. When the pH was returned to neutrality, the cells did not remain segregated, but formed aggregates. In the ectoderm + mesoderm mixture, the ectoderm moved to the periphery of the aggregate, surrounding the mesoderm cells. In the ectoderm + mesoderm + endoderm mixture, the ectoderm cells were located on the periphery, the endoderm cells were internal, and the mesoderm cells were between the other two cell types. The researchers concluded that the cells had selective affinity for each other; these properties result from cell surface molecules that give cells specific adhesion properties. 100. Cadherins are cell-adhesion molecules. They are necessary for establishing and maintaining connections between cells, and they play a critical role in the organization of cells in the body.

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Chap 51_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Crystal-clear mountain lakes are oligotrophic. a. True b. False 2. A climograph portrays the particular combination of temperature and rainfall conditions in each terrestrial biome. a. True b. False 3. Behavioral responses that animals may or may not use are called facultative. a. True b. False 4. Rain shadows form on the leeward sides of mountain ranges. a. True b. False 5. Most ocean currents flow clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere. a. True b. False Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 6. The Gulf Stream takes relatively cold water toward northwestern Europe. 7. Soils in tropical rain forests are nutrient rich. 8. The effects of global climate change are restricted to terrestrial environments. 9. Mangroves encourage the erosion of soils on coastlines. 10. In coastal areas, wind blows in from the sea during the night. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. According to Hertz and Huey, which compensatory mechanism allows lizards living at high altitudes to survive lower mean air temperatures? a. hibernation b. torpor c. increased time spent basking d. increased consumption of food e. shelter-seeking behavior

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Chap 51_5e 12. The thermocline prevents ____ the top layer of the limnetic zone and the deep profundal zone. a. plankton growth in b. vertical mixing between c. autumn overturn in d. photosynthesis in e. detritus formation in 13. A rain shadow is created when ____. a. cool air descends and replaces warm air over land through onshore flow b. wind direction reverses seasonally c. cool air descends and replaces warm air over the sea through offshore flow d. dry air on the windward side rises and absorbs water on the leeward side, such that the leeward side remains dry e. mountains force air to sink and absorb water on the windward side, causing the leeward side of the mountains to receive excessive rainfall 14. Stands of white spruce and balsam fir dominate North America’s ____. a. tropical montane forests b. temperate grasslands c. boreal forest d. temperate rainforest e. chaparral

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Chap 51_5e

15. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Letter "C" in the diagram represents the ____ zone. a. neritic b. abyssal c. oceanic d. benthic e. intertidal 16. Which city has a continental climate? a. London b. San Francisco c. Rio De Janeiro d. Minneapolis e. Mumbai 17. Expanding air masses ____. a. sink b. rise c. are cool and dry d. can hold less water e. experience no change

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Chap 51_5e 18. Which marine zone supports kelp forests? a. the pelagic province b. the benthic province c. the neritic zone d. the abyssal zone e. the intertidal zone 19. Tropical deciduous forests experience ____. a. mean annual temperature of at least 25oC b. summer drought c. winter drought d. frequent mists e. slow growth 20. In streams flowing through dense forest, ____; therefore, nutrients from organic detritus are particularly important. a. dissolved oxygen levels are high b. dissolved oxygen levels are low c. the water moves slowly d. dense vegetation blocks light necessary for photosynthesis e. photosynthetic organisms make up most of the life in these streams 21. Cool, dry air descends at which latitude? a. the equator b. 30o N and S c. 45o N and S d. both 30o and 60o N and S e. at the poles 22. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. According to the graph, which biome is defined as having the highest overall mean annual precipitation? a. savanna b. grassland c. tropical rainforest d. tundra e. desert

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Chap 51_5e 23. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which letter represents the littoral zone? a. A only b. B only c. C only d. A and B e. B and C 24. Coastal regions where seawater mixes with fresh water from rivers, streams, and runoff are called ____. a. neritic zones b. estuaries c. benthos d. wetlands e. intertidal zones 25. Where do cold ocean currents generally occur? a. along the west coast of continents b. near the poles c. near the equator d. along the east coast of continents e. in the open ocean 26. Monsoon cycles are a result of_____. proximity to the ocean a. rain shadows b. seasonal reversals of wind direction c. microclimate d. e. adiabatic cooling 27. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The benthic province includes the intertidal zone, represented by letter ____, and the abyssal zone, represented by letter ____. a. G; H b. B; H c. E; H d. B; C e. E; F

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Chap 51_5e 28. An increase in air temperature will result in ____ water vapor in the atmosphere because warm air holds ____ water vapor than cold air does. a. more; less b. more; more c. less; less d. less; more e. no change in; less 29. In the tropics, warm but nutrient-poor water above continental shelves is often occupied by ____. a. coral reefs b. kelp forests c. rocky shores d. salt marshes e. phytoplankton blooms

30. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which lake zone(s) support(s) detritivores and decomposers, but not photosynthesizers? a. A only b. B only c. C only d. A and B e. B and C 31. Which biome experiences the driest and warmest conditions? a. desert b. tropical rainforest c. chaparral d. temperate deciduous forest e. boreal forest Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 51_5e 32. Forests containing ____ trees once stretched unbroken across eastern North America, Europe, and eastern Asia before farmers cleared the land. a. white spruce and balsam fir b. sages c. epiphytes d. teak e. ash, beech, birch, elm, and oak 33. Which weather pattern is characteristic of a La Niña event? a. high pressure over the western Pacific b. high ocean surface temperatures c. warm and dry weather in the southern U.S. d. ocean surface waters moving from west to east e. air movement from west to east 34. According to Donald Perry, how do rainforest birds interact with the Norantea sessilis vine? a. Birds nest within the shelter of the thorny vine, which repels predators. b. Birds feed on the fruits of the vine, distributing the seeds around the forest in their droppings. c. Birds appear to be overfeeding on the vine's succulent fruits, probably limiting the plant's chances of longterm survival. d. Birds that feed on the nectar of the flowers inadvertently transfer pollen from one vine to another on their feet. e. Birds that feed on the nectar of the flowers inadvertently transfer pollen from one vine to another on their beaks. 35. Which biome occurs where winter drought reduces photosynthesis and most trees drop their leaves? a. tropical montane forests b. tropical deciduous forests c. boreal forests d. dry savannas e. temperate forests 36. In a lotic system ____. a. there is no border between freshwater and terrestrial systems b. water stands in an open basin c. freshwater and marine systems intermix d. water flows through channels e. marshes predominate

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Chap 51_5e 37. Hydrothermal vents allow organisms to live in ____. a. the open ocean b. the intertidal zone c. the deep sea d. the kelp forest e. coral reefs 38. An ecologist who studies the distribution of a frog species along a latitudinal gradient is performing a(n) ____ experiment. a. natural b. experimental c. predictive d. lab e. modeling 39. Which physiological process allows many organisms to maintain relatively constant conditions within their cells and tissues? a. torpor b. homeostatic responses c. facultative responses d. behavioral adaptations e. photosynthesis 40. The ____ includes all of the water on Earth. a. abiotic environment b. biotic environment c. hydrosphere d. lithosphere e. atmosphere 41. In the savanna, ____ lasts for months. a. cold temperatures b. storms c. periods of fast growth d. fires e. droughts

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Chap 51_5e 42. According to researchers Parmesan and Yohe, how are living systems responding to anthropogenic global warming? a. All biomes are remaining intact but are shifting their distributions northward. b. Some species are moving northward and others are not, so communities are being disrupted. c. All biomes are remaining intact, but some are shifting their distributions and other biomes are not. d. Most plants are shifting their distributions northward, but most animals are not. e. Most animals are shifting their distributions northward, but most plants are not. 43. An ecologist who studies groups of populations that occur together in one area is a(n) ____ ecologist. a. behavioral b. population c. community d. ecosystem e. organismal 44. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which letter(s) represent(s) the limnetic zone? a. A only b. B only c. C only d. A and B e. B and C 45. What is the difference between an estuary and a salt marsh? a. Salt marshes are found far from the ocean, while estuaries border the ocean. b. Salt marshes are not affected by tides, while estuaries are. c. Salt marshes are dominated by grasses, while estuaries are defined by tidal influence. d. Salt marshes border the ocean, while estuaries exist in river environments. e. Salt marshes are affected by tides, while estuaries are not. 46. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which image represents the position of the Earth during the vernal (March) equinox? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. A and C

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Chap 51_5e 47. In the Northern Hemisphere, seasonal variation in temperatures is caused mainly by ____. a. the Earth's elliptical orbit taking it closer to and farther away from the sun b. the Earth's tilt on its axis of 23.5o c. seasonal variation of energy output from the sun d. warm equatorial air masses rising and spreading north and south e. uneven warming of the ocean's surface water 48. Which organism is classified as nekton? a. sponge b. clam c. sea anemone d. fungi e. whale 49. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The oceanic zone is represented by letter ____. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 50. Where does most photosynthesis occur in the open ocean? a. the top 10 meters b. below 100 meters c. the top 50 meters d. below 50 meters e. photosynthesis occurs uniformly in the open ocean 51. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. According to the graph, which biomes are defined by a mean annual precipitation under 50 cm? a. tropical forest, desert, and savanna b. temperate deciduous forest, savanna, and tropical forest c. boreal forest, temperate deciduous forest, and tundra d. desert, tundra, and chaparral e. desert, tundra, and grassland 52. Adiabatic cooling takes place when ____. a. latitudinal differences alter rainfall amounts b. reversals of wind direction occur seasonally c. a decrease in air temperature occurs without loss of heat energy d. an increase in air temperature occurs without loss of heat energy e. anytime air loses heat energy Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 51_5e

53. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which image represents the position of the Earth during the December solstice? a. A only b. B only c. C only d. D only e. A and C 54. Dissolved oxygen is highest in which body of water? a. warm eutrophic lake b. slow-moving tropical river c. pool within a cool forest stream d. white water stretch of a cold river e. dissolved oxygen should be the same in all waters 55. Alpine tundra occurs _____. a. near the equator b. above 90o latitude c. on the windward side of continents d. on the leeward side of continents e. on high mountaintops 56. The addition of excess phosphorus causes lakes to become eutrophic because the nutrients trigger blooms of photosynthetic cyanobacteria. Why do these blooms cause low oxygen levels in lakes? a. Cyanobacteria use up more oxygen than they produce. b. Excess phosphorus binds to dissolved oxygen in the water. c. Cyanobacteria are net producers of oxygen while alive, but when they die aerobic bacteria use oxygen while decomposing them. d. Cyanobacterial blooms only occur in waters naturally low in oxygen. e. Cyanobacteria are aerobic heterotrophs, consuming oxygen and producing carbon dioxide.

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Chap 51_5e 57. Permafrost is a major repository of ____ in the environment. a. water b. carbon c. oxygen d. carbon dioxide e. ice 58. Which winds push surface water toward the equator? a. trade winds b. westerlies c. easterlies d. polar e. adiabatic 59. In marine environments, salinity averages about ____%. a. 1 b. 3 c. 8 d. 12 e. 25 60. Adiabatic cooling reduces air temperatures by ____ oC per 1,000 m increase in altitude. a. 1 – 2 b. 2 c. 3 – 6 d. 8 – 10 e. 20 – 30

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Chap 51_5e

61. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. According to the graph, the upper mean annual temperature for boreal forests is approximately ____ oC. a. -7 b. 2 c. 15 d. 25 e. 35 62. A microclimate ____. a. occurs when the climate is moderated by the ocean b. occurs when topographic features influence rainfall c. describes weather conditions prevailing over an extended period of time d. describes daily maximum and minimum temperatures e. is the abiotic conditions immediately surrounding an organism

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Chap 51_5e 63. A biome is most specifically defined as ____. a. a vegetation type plus its associated microorganisms, fungi, and animals b. a biological community and the physical environment with which it interacts c. the total dry weight of plants present in a specific area at any given time d. an assemblage of species living in the same place e. a group of organisms of the same species living together at one time 64. What is the average annual rainfall in the desert biome? a. over 250 cm b. 80 – 90 cm c. less than 25 cm d. 40 – 80 cm e. 100 – 150 cm 65. What makes temperate rainforests different from their tropical counterparts? a. Winters are mild and wet, and summers are cool, b. Winters are cold, and summers are mild and wet. c. They receive more rain. d. They contain more species. e. They differ only in latitude. 66. Which marine zone is one of the most stressful habitats on Earth? a. the pelagic province b. the continental shelf c. deep sea trenches d. the abyssal zone e. the intertidal zone 67. Tropical forests receive ____. a. intense solar radiation and heavy rainfall b. moderate solar radiation and heavy rainfall c. intense solar radiation and virtually no rainfall d. moderate solar radiation and moderate rainfall e. low solar radiation and heavy rainfall 68. Chaparral dominates coastal land between ____ latitudes? a. 0 o – 15 o b. 20 o – 30 o c. 15 o – 30 o d. 30 o – 40 o e. 45 o – 55 o Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 51_5e 69. A state of extreme sluggishness is known as ____. a. torpor b. endothermic c. migration d. extinction e. reproduction 70. Some studies suggest that, as global warming progresses, tropical lowland trees may be limited in their ability to move northward because of ____. a. predicted desertification of temperate areas b. temperatures in the north still being too low c. flooding of coastal areas d. extreme weather events like hurricanes and blizzards e. development and habitat loss 71. Temperate deciduous forests generally have ____ annual precipitation levels and ____ temperatures than boreal forests. a. higher; higher b. the same; lower c. the same; higher d. lower; lower e. lower; the same 72. The cold adaptation of the octopus nervous system ____. a. is a feature of all octopus species b. is caused by Na+ ion flow out of the neurons c. relies on the temperature sensitivity of K+ channels in neurons d. is caused by K+ ion flow into the neurons e. relies on the temperature sensitivity of Na+ channels in neurons 73. What is the main determinant of biome distribution? a. vegetation type b. climate c. ocean currents d. elevation e. weather

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Chap 51_5e 74. Which consequence is a documented result of global warming? a. Cold-adapted species are more common. b. Plants display later flowering and growth. c. Minimum temperatures at Yosemite have increased about 3o over the last century. d. Animals display later migration and breeding. e. Minimum temperatures at Yosemite have decreased about 3o over the last century. 75. Which organisms live in the profundal zone? a. amphibians b. bacterial decomposers c. plants d. zooplankton e. photosynthetic algae 76. All environments have both ____ and ____ components. a. hydrospheric; lithospheric b. lithospheric; atmospheric c. ecologic; atmospheric d. biotic; abiotic e. organismal; ecologic 77. Most deserts occur near ____ latitude because of the presence of dry descending air masses. a. 0 o b. 10 o c. 20 o d. 30 o e. 40 o 78. An ecologist who studies the cycling of nutrients and the flow of energy between the biotic and abiotic components of an ecological community is a(n) ____ ecologist. a. behavioral b. behavioral c. community d. ecosystem e. organismal

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Chap 51_5e 79. Which biome occurs in the interiors of continents where winters are cold and snowy and summers are warm and fairly dry? a. tropical montane forests b. temperate grasslands c. chaparral d. dry savannas e. temperate forests 80. Which event occurs during a strong El Niño year? a. light rains in the central and eastern Pacific ocean b. upwelling of cold water in the western Pacific ocean c. death of phytoplankton in western coastal areas d. cold surface currents flowing from west to east e. strengthened equatorial winds Match these five terms to the following questions. a. epilimnion b. hypolimnion c. thermocline d. fall overturn e. spring overturn 81. The top layer of the limnetic zone is called the ________, and is heated by the sun in summer. 82. The epilimnion cools, becomes denser, and sinks, eliminating the thermocline during the ________. 83. The deep water of a lake's profundal zone is called the ________. 84. Water temperature is briefly uniform at all depths, and winds create vertical currents during the ________. 85. At the ________, water temperature changes abruptly over a narrow depth range.

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Chap 51_5e Match each of these terrestrial biomes with its correct description. a. occurs on mountaintops throughout the world; strong winds; plants form low mats; cold winter temperatures b. north of boreal forests; permafrost; very short summers; short, low-growing plants c. grasslands with few trees, adjacent to tropical forests; have wet and dry seasons d. long cold winters, wet summers; dominated by coniferous trees; northern latitudes e. scrubby mix of trees and low shrubs in coastal land between 30o and 40o latitude f. mean annual rainfall > 250 cm; mean annual temperature ≥ 25oC; humidity > 80%; tall trees g. warm summers, cold winters; annual precipitation 75 – 250 cm; most plants shed leaves in winter h. rainfall < 25 cm per year; near 30o latitude; little organic matter present in topsoil, which is eroded by rare deluges of rain i. west coast of North America; heavy rain and fog; Douglas fir, Sitka spruce, and redwoods 86. tropical rain forest 87. savanna 88. chaparral 89. temperate deciduous forest 90. boreal forest 91. arctic tundra 92. alpine tundra 93. desert 94. temperate rain forest 95. In which of the three vertical intertidal zones is biodiversity the highest? Why?

96. Explain how an oligotrophic lake can become eutrophic.

97. Communities near benthic hydrothermal vents survive in perpetual darkness, where no photosynthesis is possible. What do the producers of this ecosystem use as an energy source?

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Chap 51_5e 98. Describe the five levels of ecological organization in the context of the biosphere and biomes.

99. Biologists sometimes damage ecosystems in order to study them. For example, researchers have fogged rainforest trees with insecticides to search for undiscovered species that fall to the ground when poisoned. Others have deliberately added phosphates to natural lakes to study the eutrophication process. What is your ethical position on such studies? Should they be banned, or is the knowledge gained worth the harm they cause?

100. Distinguish between observational and experimental research.

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Chap 51_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. False - warm 7. False - poor 8. False - are not 9. False - deposition 10. False - day 11. c 12. b 13. d 14. c 15. a 16. d 17. b 18. c 19. c 20. d 21. b 22. c 23. a 24. b 25. a 26. b 27. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 51_5e 28. b 29. a 30. c 31. a 32. e 33. c 34. d 35. b 36. d 37. c 38. a 39. b 40. c 41. e 42. b 43. c 44. b 45. c 46. b 47. b 48. e 49. d 50. c 51. d 52. c 53. c 54. d 55. e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 51_5e 56. c 57. b 58. a 59. b 60. c 61. c 62. e 63. a 64. c 65. a 66. e 67. a 68. d 69. a 70. a 71. c 72. c 73. a 74. c 75. b 76. d 77. d 78. d 79. b 80. c 81. a 82. d

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Chap 51_5e 83. b 84. e 85. c 86. f 87. c 88. e 89. g 90. d 91. b 92. a 93. h 94. i 95. Biodiversity is highest in the lower intertidal, because that zone is submerged for the greatest proportion of time. Exposure to the air is challenging to tidal organisms, not all of which can sustain long periods out of water. 96. An oligotrophic lake is poor in nutrients and organic matter; eutrophic lakes are rich in nutrients and organic matter. Over long periods of time, as sediments and nutrients accumulate, lakes naturally change from oligotrophic to eutrophic. The decomposition of organic matter in eutrophic lakes depletes oxygen in the hypolimnion, and high productivity in the epilimnion often chokes the water with seasonal blooms of cyanobacteria and filamentous algae. 97. Hydrogen sulfide from the hot water vents serves as an energy source for autotrophic bacteria. These bacteria act as primary producers for the ecosystem, sometimes residing as endosymbionts in larger organisms. 98. Biomes are defined by vegetation types, and include the microorganisms, fungi, and animals that are associated with the vegetation type. The five levels of ecological organization are defined by increasingly complex and inclusive levels of organization. Any given level of organization obviously occurs within the biosphere, and can be, but does not have to be, associated with a particular biome. Organismal ecology focuses on the genetic, biochemical, physiological, morphological, and behavioral adaptations of organisms to the abiotic environment. Since the abiotic environment, primarily precipitation and temperature, defines biomes, organisms occur or do not occur in some respects within biomes. Population ecology focuses on groups of individuals of the same species that live in the same area (together). Community ecology focuses on groups of populations that occur together in one area. Ecosystem ecology focuses on the cycling of nutrients and flow of energy between the biotic components of an ecological community and the abiotic environment. The biosphere includes all organisms on Earth and the places where they live. All levels of ecological organization are bounded by the extent of the biosphere, that is, where life is found, from terrestrial to freshwater to marine environments. All biomes and their freshwater and marine counterparts are also bounded by the extent of the biosphere and defined by the morphological and physiological similarities in species that occupy similar abiotic environments.

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Chap 51_5e 99. There are two possible perspectives in answer to this question, both equally correct. Possible "pro" answer: It is often difficult, if not impossible, to glean information from living systems without disassembling them or altering their normal function. These studies are ethical, because the knowledge gained is well worth the limited harm caused. Damage to one ecosystem may yield information that will prevent similar damage from occurring to many other similar systems. For example, phosphates are now banned from detergents in Florida because they caused eutrophication in the Everglades. Without research, the connection between eutrophication and phosphates could not have been demonstrated. Possible "con" answer: Biologists, more than any other scientists, should respect the natural world. Especially now, when so many systems are stressed from human activity, it is not ethical to deliberately cause widespread destruction. It will certainly take longer to gain knowledge this way, but the alternative is unacceptable. Pollution, overpopulation, and global warming are bringing the planet near the breaking point, and we must do everything in our power to reverse these trends. Ethical limits that already exist for human and animal experimentation should be extended to ecosystems as well. 100. In experimental research, a scientist compares data from an experimental treatment group to data from a control (untreated) group, to test a hypothesis. In observational research, scientists gather descriptive information (observations) that serve as the background for more analytical (experimental) studies.

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Chap 52_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. An "S" shaped curve is characteristic of logistic population growth. 2. Egg yolk and seed endosperm are examples of passive parental care. 3. Logistic population growth describes growth without limitation. 4. A cohort is a group of individuals of the same sex. 5. Uniform dispersion usually results from individuals of a species repelling each other. 6. The tools used by ecologists to study mortality rates were developed by developmental biologists. 7. Populations of bay checkerspot butterflies that occupy large patches of suitable habitat serve as sink populations for individuals that recolonize small patches of suitable habitat where butterfly populations frequently become extinct. 8. Parasitism is a density-independent factor of population control. 9. Biologists captured and marked 120 butterflies, and later captured 150 of which 30 were marked. The population estimate is 1000 butterflies. 10. It took 3 million years for the human population to reach 1 billion, 123 years to grow to 2 billion, and 12 years to grow from 6 to 7 billion. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Populations in which environmental conditions don’t vary much within a habitat tend to have ____ dispersion. a. random b. clumped c. uniform d. dynamic e. unpredictable 12. Organisms use ____ for maintenance, growth, and reproduction. a. survivorship b. predation c. energy d. parental care e. dispersion

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Chap 52_5e 13. In the case of the red harvester ant, colonies that survive to ____ years of age are likely to contribute to the next generation of colonies. a. one b. three c. four d. seven e. ten 14. Rabbits introduced to Australia overpopulated because in their new habitat, ____. a. people rarely hunted them b. they had no natural diseases c. they had no natural predators d. their food supply was larger e. there were few herbivorous competitors 15. The difference between the per capita birth rate and the per capita death rate is the ____. a. per capita growth rate b. per capita population curve c. intrinsic rate of increase d. geometric population curve e. exponential population curve 16. The density of a population is defined as the ____. a. number of individuals in a population at a specified time b. number of individuals in a population at a specified place c. number of individuals per unit area or per unit volume of habitat d. size of the individual organisms per unit area e. number of individual organisms per family unit 17. Population dispersion is the ____. a. statistical description of the relative numbers of individuals in each age class b. number of individuals per unit area c. number of individuals in a population d. average time between the birth of an organism and the birth of its offspring e. spatial distribution of individuals within a geographical range 18. The ____ method is often used to estimate the population size of mobile animals that live within a restricted geographic range. a. mark-release-recapture b. direct count c. extrapolation of counts from quadrants to entire population d. plot e. indirect count Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 52_5e 19. For the bay checkerspot butterfly, a poor flyer, to recolonize small patch habitats, the new habitats must be ____. a. high quality b. low quality c. close to a source population d. far from a source population e. above a certain number of individuals 20. Organisms store energy as ____. a. starch only b. glycogen only c. fat only d. sugar e. starch, glycogen or fat 21. A(n) ____ is a group of neighboring populations that exchange individuals. a. K-selected species b. Type I species c. r-selected species d. sink population e. metapopulation

22. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Rapid population growth is represented by the letter ____. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E

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Chap 52_5e 23. In the equation ΔN/Δt = B – D, B represents ____. a. change in population size b. time period c. total births d. total deaths e. change in population size over time 24. Fecundity is ____. a. a summary of the demographic characteristics of a population b. a group of individuals of similar age c. the average number of offspring produced d. the proportion of individuals alive at the start of an interval that die during that interval e. the proportion of individuals alive at the start of an interval that survive to the start of the next interval 25. Which of these species' population growth rate is least affected by the number of males? a. northern elephant seals b. trumpeter swans c. Canadian geese d. European rabbits e. Norwegian rats 26. Recent studies have demonstrated evolution in some populations over a span of time as short as ____. a. single years b. decades c. centuries d. thousands of years e. millions of years 27. Life history patterns of guppies in Trinidad are a result of which natural selection force? a. Competition differences in different streams. b. Predation differences in different streams. c. Temperature differences in different streams. d. Pollution differences in different streams. e. Salt concentration differences in different streams. 28. Populations in which individuals repel each other because resources are in short supply tend to have ____ dispersion. a. random b. clumped c. uniform d. dynamic e. unpredictable Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 52_5e 29. The lifetime patterns of growth, maturation, and reproduction determine the ____ of a species. a. survivorship curve b. life history c. specific mortality d. age-specific fecundity e. dispersion

30. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Sea turtles are likely to die when they are young but have a good chance of surviving once they reach large size. Which survivorship curve best fits this species? a. Type I, which is graph A b. Type II, which is graph B c. Type I, which is graph C d. Type III, which is graph C e. Type III, which is graph A 31. A population's ____ occurs under ideal, unrealistic conditions. a. per capita growth rate b. per capita population curve c. intrinsic rate of increase d. geometric population curve e. exponential population curve 32. Lizards can control spider populations on Caribbean islands by which density-dependent mechanism(s)? a. predation only b. competition only c. predation on a common predator only d. predation and competition e. predation, competition, and predation on a common predator

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Chap 52_5e 33. Which characteristic is descriptive of a population experiencing geometric population growth? a. population doubles in size after each generation b. graph of the population growth produces a "J" shaped curve c. per capita growth rate remains constant d. ΔN/Δt is increasing e. population increases at an increasing rate 34. Why do species with large body sizes typically have lower population densities? a. each large organism consumes more available resources b. there are not enough individuals to grow the population c. genetic diversity is low d. small organisms have more potential mates e. large organisms do not like living near one another 35. Which trait is characteristic of a K-selected species? a. adapted to rapidly changing environments b. small body size c. short generation time d. provide substantial parental care to offspring e. single reproductive event 36. Which factor is responsible for reductions in population size? a. immigration b. death c. birth d. reproduction e. dispersion 37. Birth rates generally reach their highest point in which stage of a country's demographic transition? a. preindustrial b. transitional c. industrial d. postindustrial e. stage 1 38. Which statement describes the general relationship between population density and body size? a. Population density increases with increasing body size. b. Population density is equal to body size. c. Population density decreases with increasing body size. d. Population density is not related to body size. e. Population density first decreases then increases with increasing body size.

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Chap 52_5e 39. A population’s ____ is the number of individuals in the population at a specific time. a. growth rate b. geographical range c. size d. habitat e. dynamics 40. The success of human populations resulted from ____. a. their ability to solve ecological problems b. a stable climate c. their society d. their hunting ability e. absence of predators 41. What was the long-term effect of the introduction of myxoma virus to control rabbits in Australia? a. The rabbits were all killed. b. Most rabbits became immune to the virus. c. The virus killed off some of the rabbit population but also infected kangaroos and wallabies. d. The virus became less virulent and the rabbits gained some immunity. e. The virus had no effect. 42. What is true of most deciduous trees in the temperate zone? a. they spend all of their energy on reproduction b. growth and reproduction occur simultaneously c. they only produce one or two offspring annually d. they produce thousands of seeds for one or two years e. they only begin to breed after reaching adulthood 43. In the logistic model of population growth, what is expected to happen to r when N = K? r will approach 1 a. r will approach rmax b. r will approach 1 c. r becomes negative d. r = 0 e. r > 0

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Chap 52_5e 44. The transformation of humans from hunter-gatherer societies to agriculturally based ones occurred approximately ____. a. 14,000 years ago b. 11,000 years ago c. 7,000 years ago d. 1,500 years ago e. 200 years ago 45. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The letter “A” represents ____. a. rapid growth b. negative growth c. prereproductive populations d. postreproductive populations e. zero growth 46. The sum total of all the resources we use is called the ____. a. demographic transition model b. age-structure diagram c. habitat d. ecological footprint e. transitional age 47. An example of passive parental care is ____. a. nutrients that cross the placenta b. nursing c. nurturing d. the nest environment e. protection from predators 48. The logistic model assumes that ____ will become increasingly limited as population grows larger. a. deaths b. births c. immigration d. competition e. vital resources 49. Carrying capacity is ____. a. determined by the individuals of a species b. defined for each population, and varies from one habitat to another c. the same across all environments d. the same in one habitat through time e. the same across all populations Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 52_5e 50. The beginning of the industrial and scientific revolution occurred ____. a. when human population size was approximately one billion b. when human population size was approximately one million c. when human population size was approximately five million d. approximately 500 years ago e. approximately 100 years ago 51. An increase in generation time with increasing body size is least likely in ____. a. bacteria b. plants c. animals d. protists e. fungi 52. Type III survivorship curves reflect ____. a. high juvenile mortality b. low juvenile mortality c. high survivorship d. relatively constant mortality e. high adult mortality 53. Mathematical models suggest that ____ will be favored by natural selection if organisms grow larger as they age. a. fecundity b. iteroparity c. delayed reproduction d. early reproduction e. semelparity 54. What is the relationship between age-specific mortality and age-specific survivorship? a. age-specific mortality is the proportion of individuals alive at the start of an age interval; age-specific survivorship is the proportion that die before the start of the next interval b. age-specific survivorship is the proportion of individuals alive at the start of an age interval that die during the age interval; age-specific mortality is the proportion that survive until the start of the next interval c. the sum of age-specific mortality and age-specific survivorship always equals 1 d. the sum of age-specific mortality and age-specific survivorship is always less than 1 e. age-specific survivorship is always greater than 1

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Chap 52_5e 55. The increased mortality of coniferous trees in the Pacific Northwest between 1955 and 2007 is an example of a reaction to ____. a. density-independent factors b. density-dependent factors c. predation d. crowding e. population growth 56. A human population living without medical care in a developing country would probably have ____. a. a rectangle-shaped age structure diagram b. an r value < 0 c. a pyramid-shaped age structure diagram d. per capita birth and death rates consistent with those of a stage 4 society e. no density-dependent factors operating 57. Which organism’s reproductive pattern exhibits semelparity? a. grizzly bear b. oak tree c. red deer d. salmon e. maple tree 58. The intrinsic rate of increase is ____ for bacteria, protists, and animals with short generation times and ____ for those with long generation time. a. high; low b. high; constant c. low; high d. low; constant e. constant; low 59. Which statement characterizes human population growth? a. The rate of human population growth appears to be declining. b. The rate of human population growth appears to be increasing. c. The rate of human population growth is exponential. d. Human birth rates are higher than death rates. e. Human death rates are higher than birth rates.

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Chap 52_5e 60. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. A species with a relatively constant rate of mortality in all age classes would most likely exhibit which survivorship curve? a. Type I, which is graph A b. Type II, which is graph B c. Type I, which is graph C d. Type III, which is graph C e. Type III, which is graph A 61. Intraspecific competition and predation are ____ factors. a. crowding b. density-dependent c. reproductive d. population e. logistic 62. Marine biologists tagged and released 50 marlin. Later, fishermen caught 300 marlin, 15 of which had tags. What is the estimate for the number of marlin in the population? a. 5,000 b. 315 c. 365 d. 2,500 e. 1,000 63. To estimate population size using the mark-release-recapture method, ____ samples must be captured. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 64. A population of mostly ____ individuals with a ____ generation time and a ____ proportion of females is expected to show the most growth in the future. a. prereproductive; short; high b. reproductive; short; low c. reproductive; long; low d. postreproductive; long; low e. prereproductive; short; low

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Chap 52_5e 65. What is an example of an extrinsic control of cycles in population size? a. the relationship between a species and its predators b. hormonal changes c. dispersal d. population density e. a single reproductive event 66. Males have little influence on population growth in populations with ____. a. more males than females b. more females than males c. equal numbers of females and males d. one male e. animals that form lifelong pairs 67. Which group exhibits the longest generation time? a. bacteria b. plants c. animals d. protists e. fungi 68. Studies have determined that ____ is not responsible for the cyclical rise and fall of arctic hare and lynx populations. a. predation b. a limited food supply for hares c. predation by other mammals d. intraspecies competition e. disease 69. Which population dispersion is the most common in nature? a. random b. clumped c. uniform d. dynamic e. unpredictable

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Chap 52_5e 70. A population of 100 animals undergoing logistic growth has rmax = 0.4 and K = 102. Given that r = rmax(K – N)/K, calculate the value of r. a. 0.0078 b. 0.792 c. - 0.580 d. 0.078 e. 0.99 71. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Humans living in environments with access to good medical care are most likely to exhibit which of the following survivorship curves? a. Type I, which is graph A b. Type II, which is graph B c. Type I, which is graph C d. Type III, which is graph C e. Type III, which is graph A 72. Research has shown that commercial fisheries place selective pressure on fish populations by harvesting mostly the ____ fish, resulting in ____. a. young; aging populations b. larger; maturity at smaller sizes c. smaller; maturity at larger sizes d. prereproductive; declining birth rates e. postreproductive; no change in population size 73. The postindustrial age is defined by ____. a. high birth and death rates b. zero population growth c. dramatic slowing in population growth d. declining death rate e. declining birth rate 74. In the equation ΔN/Δt = B – D, expressing deaths and births as per capita rates allows ecologists to _____. a. apply the model to a population of any size b. accurately measure births c. accurately measure deaths d. find the population growth rate e. model geometric growth

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Chap 52_5e 75. A human population with an age structure diagram that is narrower at the base than at the top would have ____. a. zero population growth b. r < 0 c. r > 0 d. been affected by density independent factors e. (K – N)/K < 1 76. Population growth of rabbits in Australia can best be described as ____. a. fast b. exponential c. virulent d. stable e. epidemic 77. In the construction of a life table for colonial species in which most organisms do not reproduce, ____ is/are considered as a reproductive individual. a. each individual b. clusters of individuals c. the entire population in a geographical area d. the entire population on Earth e. each separate colony 78. Crowding ____. a. has a positive effect on reproduction b. decreases the growth rate of individuals c. only occurs in plant species d. causes immigration e. stimulates developmental and behavioral changes 79. A time lag in the response of survivorship and fecundity to a population's density can occur because ____ is usually determined by the availability of resources at some time in the past. a. death b. immigration c. fecundity d. competition e. population growth

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Chap 52_5e 80. A stage 3 society, based on the demographic transition model, would not be characterized by ____. a. an r value > 0 b. industrialization c. a clumped population distribution d. (K – N)/K approaching 1 e. an r value approaching 1 Categorize the following traits as belonging predominantly to an r-selected species or a K-selected species. a. r-selected b. K-selected 81. short maturation time 82. long life span 83. low mortality rate 84. one reproductive episode 85. early timing of first reproduction Match each of the following terms with its correct definition. a. population increasing steadily by a constant ratio b. the average number of offspring produced by females during each age interval c. population growth slows as population approaches K d. the number of individuals per unit area or unit volume e. movement out of a population 86. population density Match each of the following terms with its correct definition. a. population increasing steadily by a constant ratio b. the average number of offspring produced by females during each age interval c. population growth slows as population approaches K d. the number of individuals per unit area or unit volume e. movement out of a population 87. exponential population growth 88. the logistic model Match each of the following terms with its correct definition. a. population increasing steadily by a constant ratio b. the average number of offspring produced by females during each age interval c. population growth slows as population approaches K d. the number of individuals per unit area or unit volume e. movement out of a population 89. emigration 90. age-specific fecundity Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 52_5e Use the five equations listed below to answer the following question(s). a. ΔN/Δt = B – D b. dN/dt = (b – d)N c. dN/dt = rmaxN d. d = (D/N) e. dN/dt = rmaxN(K – N)/K 91. population growth under ideal conditions 92. logistic model of population growth 93. exponential model of population growth 94. per capita death rate 95. change in population size 96. How are an organism’s lifetime energy use and economics analogous?

97. Which characteristics are consistent with a K-selected species? Where do humans fall on the r through K continuum?

98. What basic information does a demographer need to know to predict a species population size through time?

99. Which phenotypic effects does crowding have on the migratory locust? How are these changes adaptive?

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Chap 52_5e 100. What type of population dispersion is most common, and how does area sampled affect how dispersion appears to a researcher?

101. According to the text, humans have two options for limiting population growth: 1) make a global effort to limit our own population, or 2) can wait until the environment does it for us. Briefly address each scenario. Which methods would result in a successful global decline in birthrate? Which environmental events are the alternatives?

102. What are some density-dependent factors that affect humans at higher population densities? How have these been addressed in industrial societies?

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Chap 52_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. False - exponential 4. False - age 5. True 6. False - insurance companies 7. False - source 8. False - dependent 9. False - 600 10. True 11. a 12. c 13. c 14. c 15. a 16. c 17. e 18. a 19. d 20. e 21. e 22. c 23. c 24. c 25. a 26. a 27. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 52_5e 28. c 29. b 30. d 31. c 32. d 33. a 34. a 35. d 36. b 37. b 38. c 39. c 40. a 41. d 42. b 43. d 44. b 45. e 46. d 47. a 48. e 49. b 50. a 51. a 52. a 53. c 54. c 55. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 52_5e 56. c 57. d 58. a 59. a 60. b 61. b 62. e 63. b 64. a 65. a 66. e 67. b 68. e 69. b 70. a 71. a 72. b 73. b 74. a 75. b 76. b 77. e 78. b 79. c 80. e 81. a 82. b 83. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 52_5e 84. a 85. a 86. d 87. a 88. c 89. e 90. b 91. c 92. e 93. b 94. d 95. a 96. Every organism is constrained by a finite energy budget, the total amount of energy it can accumulate and use for activities (growth, reproduction, maintenance). Energy can be stored (saved) and allocated (spent) for various functions as needed within the constraints of its genetics, physiology and morphology. When energy is “spent” on one function, it cannot be “spent” on another function. However, energy budgets cannot be overspent (overdrawn). 97. K-selected species tend to have larger body size, longer generations, and a lower reproductive rate. More energy is devoted to each offspring so individual offspring have a higher chance of survival than r-selected offspring. Humans are K-selected, especially when compared to r-selected organisms like houseflies or plants, which produce thousands of offspring. However, exponential growth is associated with r-selected species. 98. A demographer needs to have some knowledge about initial population size, birth rates and death rates, as well as the data that are used to predict birth and death rates, including age-specific fecundity, survivorship, and mortality. Knowledge of immigration and emigration are also important. 99. Migratory locusts can develop into either solitary or migratory forms. Crowding induces a transformation to the migratory form with more body fat and longer wings. These changes are adaptive because dispersal reduces competition in the original environment and may establish new populations in unoccupied environments. 100. Clumped dispersion is extremely common in nature because suitable habitat conditions are patchy in nature. However, the area sampled can affect how dispersion appears. Dispersion may appear random or clumped or uniform at one spatial scale, but different at a different spatial scale. For example, a population may appear randomly dispersed at a small scale, but over the entire extent of the population, may be clumped. The larger the sampled area, the more closely the actual dispersion pattern will be revealed, although dispersion at all spatial scales is ecologically relevant. 101. Government-sponsored family planning programs have had great success both in reducing birth rates, and in improving the health and status of women. Providing medical care in conjunction with such programs encourages families to have fewer children. In places with high child mortality rates, family sizes are high. Environmental events that will bring about an uncontrolled decline in population include war, famine, drought, and exposure to accumulating toxins. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 52_5e 102. Competition for all resources increases at high population densities. This leads to an increased mortality rate. Disease, violence, and famine are some of the factors that worsen at high population densities. In industrial societies, sanitation has decreased death by disease. Poverty has been addressed less successfully in industrialized nations and can be viewed as an outcome of competition for resources. War, too, is almost invariably a result of competition for resources, although fighters are often recruited using religious or cultural propaganda.

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Chap 53_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. Realized niches are larger than fundamental niches. 2. In general, species richness follows a longitudinal gradient. 3. In many ecological communities, one common species can function as a foundation species, defining the nature of a community by creating locally stable environmental conditions. 4. The evolution of a genetically based, reciprocal adaptation in two or more interacting species is described as coadaptation. 5. Two snakes that have similar bright color patterns are exhibit aposematic coloration. 6. During the 1960s and 1970s, ecologists emphasized competition as the primary factor structuring communities. 7. In interference competition, two or more populations use the same limiting resource. 8. Most analyses of population distributions along environmental gradients point toward the individualistic view of communities. 9. A keystone species has a greater effect on community structure than its numbers might suggest. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 10. In the experiment involving bluegill sunfish and their choice of diet, when equal numbers of small, medium, and large Daphnia are present, the sunfish ____. a. prefer small Daphnia b. prefer medium Daphnia c. prefer large Daphnia d. show no preference e. will not consume Daphnia 11. What was the overall effect of removing the predatory sea star Pisaster ochraceus from its food web? a. Species richness decreased rapidly. b. Species richness increased rapidly. c. Species richness stayed the same. d. Another predator moved to the top position in the food web. e. Mussel populations decreased. 12. Sympatric populations are able to coexist without competing for resources due to morphological differences known as ____. a. niches b. character displacements c. resource partitions d. mimics e. parasitoids Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 53_5e 13. A climax community is ____. a. relatively stable b. a result of primary succession only c. a result of secondary succession only d. defined by high species diversity e. dominated by r-selected species 14. A community in which many species are involved in a food web is ____. a. more fragile since organisms have more than a single food source b. more fragile since organisms have only a single food source c. more stable since organisms have more than a single food source d. more stable since organisms have only a single food source e. most prone to damage from human interference 15. An insect lays eggs inside another organism and the young consume the tissues of the living host. This is an example of a____. a. parasite b. fundamental niche c. parasitoid d. mutualist e. carnivore 16. Which interaction is advantageous for one species, but has a negative effect on the other? a. predation only b. herbivory only c. mutualism only d. parasitism only e. predation, herbivory and parasitism 17. According to the intermediate disturbance hypothesis, species richness is greatest in communities that experience ____. a. rare moderate disturbances b. high temperatures c. frequent severe disturbances d. frequent moderate disturbances e. rare intense disturbances 18. Which best describes a dominant species? a. A dominant species is the only species in an area. b. A dominant species has low genetic diversity. c. A dominant species has high species richness. d. A dominant species has a high relative abundance. e. A dominant species has a low relative abundance. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 53_5e 19. Why do early successional stages harbor many r-selected species? a. they often require shade b. they are long-lived c. they are not damaged by disturbances d. they produce many small seeds that colonize open areas e. they grow slowly 20. Succession in abandoned farms (“old fields”) takes at least 100 years, and therefore is often reconstructed using ____. a. field experiments b. laboratory experiments c. historical records d. evolutionary records e. fossil records 21. According to the ____, new species are prevented from entering a community by the existing species. a. equilibrium theory of island biogeography b. facilitation hypothesis c. inhibition hypothesis d. intermediate hypothesis e. tolerance hypothesis 22. The species-area effect for island habits is greater than that for contiguous habitats because a. colonization rates are higher and extinction rates are lower in contiguous habitats than islands b. extinction rates are higher in contiguous habitats c. all islands have low species richness d. large islands have lower species richness than contiguous habitats e. immigration cannot be measured in contiguous habitats 23. In 1935, the cane toad was introduced to Australia to control insect pests. Its population has since grown to 2 million, mostly due to ____. a. herbivory of sugar cane b. the absence of competing species or natural predators c. its mutually beneficial relationship with some native species d. parasitism of sugar cane e. it only occupies a small niche environment

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Chap 53_5e 24. An example from the text contrasts two forests, each with 10 species and a total of 50 trees. In the first forest, 39 of the 50 trees represent the dominant species. The second forest has 5 of each of the 10 different species. What conclusion can be drawn regarding these two forests? a. The amount of animal species in each forest would be the same. b. The first forest is more diverse than the second. c. The first forest must have had some human interference. d. The second forest is more diverse than the first. e. The second forest must have had some human interference. 25. What causes a disclimax community? a. primary succession b. secondary succession c. facilitation d. inhibition e. disturbance inhibiting successional change 26. If cowbird eggs are laid in an oropendola nest in the open woodlands of Central America, what would be the expected outcome? a. The cowbird eggs would be ejected from the nest to eliminate the competition. b. The cowbird eggs would be ejected from the nest due to a reaction of the mother bird's immune system. c. The cowbird eggs would not be ejected from the nest because they provide an additional food source. d. The cowbird eggs would not be ejected from the nest because they provide protection from large predators. e. The cowbird eggs would not be ejected from the nest because they provide protection from parasites. 27. Tertiary consumers feed directly on _____. a. carnivores b. producers c. herbivores d. parasites e. decomposers 28. Interference competition and exploitative competition are both examples of ____. a. coevolution b. mimicry c. interspecific competition d. intraspecific competition e. parasitism

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Chap 53_5e 29. The range of conditions and resources required by a population is known as its ____, while the range of conditions and resources that it actually uses is known as its ____. a. fundamental niche; habitat b. trophic level; habitat c. realized niche; fundamental niche d. fundamental niche; realized niche e. ecological niche; trophic level 30. What is an ecotone? a. a parasite that is external to the body b. a parasite that is internal to the body c. an example of an individualistic hypothesis d. a zone between two communities e. the combination of species in an environment that is constant 31. How do pancake tortoises protect themselves from predators? a. Their coloration serves as a disguise. b. They emit an undesirable scent. c. They have large jaws with teeth. d. They puff themselves up and become wedged in between cracks in rocks. e. They retreat into their shell. 32. How can predators influence the species richness and structure of communities? a. Predators increase the carrying capacity of their prey. b. Predators destabilize competitive interactions among their prey. c. Predators increase the population sizes of pathogens. d. Predators increase the population sizes of their prey. e. Predators reduce the population sizes of their prey. 33. An herbivore with the ability to recognize odors and avoid toxic plants is exhibiting evidence of ____. a. predation b. herbivory c. coevolution d. optimal foraging e. mimicry

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Chap 53_5e 34. Thomas Bell and his colleagues studied bacterial species richness in isolated European beech treehole basins ("islands"). Their data showed that ______. a. island size affects beech tree populations b. the number of bacterial species decreases with treehole volume c. the number of bacterial species increases with treehole volume d. large beech trees support higher bacteria populations than small beech trees e. the species-area effects on bacterial species differs from species-area effects on animal and plant populations on true islands 35. Which trophic level would be best represented by saprophytic fungi? a. decomposer b. detritivore c. primary consumer d. primary producer e. secondary consumer 36. What benefit do legumes derive from Rhizobium? a. help make carbon dioxide more available b. increase root surface area c. nitrogen fixation d. protection from predators e. retain water so it is more available to the plant 37. Allopatric populations that are morphologically ____ use ____ resources. a. similar; similar b. similar; different c. different; different d. different; similar e. unrelated; mimicry 38. Which event can be followed by primary succession? a. a landslide b. storm c. a fire d. a volcanic eruption e. logging 39. What is the effect of stress on a population? a. Plants compete less with each other in stressful environments. b. Plants compete more with each other in a stressful environments. c. Only abiotic factors contribute to environmental stress. d. Stressful environments brought about by humans do not affect populations. e. Stressful environments brought about by nature do not affect populations. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 53_5e 40. The colonization of Glacier Bay, Alaska by lichen and mosses allowed the growth on the mountain avens, a(n) ____ species. a. nitrogen-fixing b. predator c. keystone d. K-selected e. r-selected 41. What is the relationship between species richness and recovery from natural disturbances? a. Communities with more diversity do not recover from natural disturbances. b. Communities with more diversity experience more natural disturbances. c. Communities with more diversity recover less rapidly from natural disturbances. d. Communities with more diversity recover more rapidly from natural disturbances. e. There is no correlation between community diversity and recovery from natural disturbances. 42. Who believed that once a mature community was established, its species composition was at equilibrium? a. Clements b. Gleason c. Darwin d. Whittaker e. Connell 43. The evolution of genetically based, reciprocal adaptations in two or more interacting species is called ____. a. commensalism b. coevolution c. mutualism d. parasitism e. predation 44. Which trophic level would be best represented by an herbivorous rabbit? a. decomposer b. detritivore c. primary consumer d. primary producer e. secondary consumer

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Chap 53_5e 45. Which conclusion can be drawn from Gause's experiments on interspecific competition between two species of Paramecium that are cultured together and feed on the same resource? a. Both populations of Paramecium expire due to a build-up of waste products. b. One population of Paramecium used the other as a food source. c. Paramecium populations survive well together because they have no limiting resources. d. When two populations of Paramecium use the same limiting resource, they can coexist long term. e. When two populations of Paramecium use the same limiting resource, they cannot coexist long term. 46. Community structure is a result of ____ interactions. a. atypical b. factorial c. only positive d. only negative e. positive and negative 47. A crow that consumes plants, insects and carrion is a ____. a. generalist and an omnivore b. generalist and an herbivore c. specialist and a carnivore d. specialist and a generalist e. specialist and an herbivore 48. An ant species that can live only on acacia trees is an example of ____. a. an obligatory mutualism b. parasitism c. an ectoparasite d. an endoparasite e. character displacement 49. Periwinkle snails prefer to feed on the green alga Enteromorpha. In tide pools, Enteromorpha, which other alga species, while in areas exposed at low tide, the red alga Chondrus outcompetes Enteromorpha. How did these feeding and competing interactions affect the algal populations? a. Periwinkles decreased species richness in both tide pools and exposed areas. b. Periwinkles eliminated all of the less dominant algal species. c. Periwinkles eliminated the dominant algae entirely. d. Periwinkles decreased species richness when Enteromorpha is dominant, but increased species richness when Enteromorpha is competitively inferior. e. Periwinkles increased species richness when Enteromorpha is dominant, but decreased species richness when Enteromorpha is competitively inferior.

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Chap 53_5e 50. If cowbird eggs are laid in an oropendola nest that is located near bee hives, what would be the expected outcome? a. The cowbird eggs would be ejected from the nest to eliminate the competition. b. The cowbird eggs would be ejected from the nest due to a reaction of the mother bird's immune system. c. The cowbird eggs would not be ejected from the nest because they provide an additional food source. d. The cowbird eggs would not be ejected from the nest because they provide protection from large predators. e. The cowbird eggs would not be ejected from the nest because they provide protection from parasites. 51. A panda bear that consumes a diet primarily of eucalyptus leaves is a ____. a. generalist and a carnivore b. generalist and an herbivore c. specialist and a carnivore d. specialist and a generalist e. specialist and an herbivore 52. Two species utilizing the same food source is an example of ____. a. coevolution b. mimicry c. interference competition d. exploitative competition e. mutualism 53. Three plants that share the same niche have taproots of different length. This is an example of ____. a. character displacement b. the competitive exclusion principle c. resource partitioning d. allopatric speciation e. 54. How do North American porcupines protect themselves from predators? a. Their coloration serves as a disguise. b. They seek shelter in a tree. c. They have large jaws with teeth. d. They release a noxious spray. e. They release sharp modified hairs that stick in a predator’s mouth.

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Chap 53_5e 55. Saltmarsh cordgrass is known as a(n)_____ because patches slow the velocity of incoming tides and stabilize stormy beach habitat. a. parasite b. foundation species c. symbiote d. mimic e. ecotone 56. Which adaptation(s) allow(s) a rattlesnake to locate prey more effectively? a. acute sense of hearing only b. heat and chemical sensors c. acute sense of smell only d. acute sense of vision and chemical sensors e. acute sense of smell and vision 57. Which statement best describes parasitism? a. A parasite is harmful to the host. b. A parasite provides nutrients for the host. c. A parasite does not harm the host. d. A parasite does not receive any benefits from the host. e. A parasite always kills its host. 58. The monarch butterfly has an undesirable taste and the viceroy butterfly has a selective advantage because it looks like the monarch. This is an example of ____. a. aposematic coloration b. Batesian mimicry c. competitive exclusion principle d. cryptic coloration e. Müllerian mimicry 59. More _____ need to be studied in order to find out whether interspecific competition strongly influences the species composition and structure of most communities. a. communities b. K-selected species c. r-selected species d. predators e. prey species

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Chap 53_5e 60. How has the grasshopper mouse coevolved to consume the Eleodes longicollis beetle? a. The grasshopper mouse avoids the undesirable secretions by burying the beetle's abdomen. b. The grasshopper mouse uses cryptic coloration to sneak up on the beetle. c. The grasshopper mouse is immune to the beetle's toxins. d. The grasshopper mouse poisons the beetle first. e. The grasshopper mouse uses heat detectors to easily locate the beetle. 61. Which interaction is advantageous for one species, but has no effect on the other? a. commensalism b. herbivory c. mutualism d. parasitism e. predation 62. Aposematic coloring occurs when ____. a. coloration serves as a disguise b. a harmless species resembles a repellant one c. two or more repellant species resemble one another d. an individual can increase its size when threatened e. repellant species exhibit bright, contrasting patterns 63. According to the MacArthur-Wilson model, the mainland harbors ____. a. a lower species richness than islands b. a species pool from which species migrate to nearby islands c. none of the same species as on nearby islands d. an easier community to study than nearby islands e. many species that are extinct on nearby islands 64. Colonization rates from one habitat patch to another are ____ and extinction rates within habitat patches are ____ in contiguous habitats than on islands. a. lower; lower b. lower; higher c. higher; higher d. higher; lower e. even; lower 65. A cougar investing more time hunting a mountain goat than a jackrabbit is an example of ____. a. a specialist species b. a generalist species c. optimal foraging theory d. predation e. high prey density Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 53_5e 66. Which factor(s) determine a species' optimal foraging theory? a. availability of parasites b. availability of predators c. energy needed to capture food and court mates d. energy that foraging provides e. energy needed to capture food and the energy that the food provides 67. A milkweed plant discourages consumption by herbivores by ____. a. exuding a toxic sap b. developing an appearance that mimics an undesirable plant c. having hairy leaves d. producing an undesirable scent e. having thorns 68. A foundation species ____. a. provides a foundation for parasites b. has mutualistic relationships with many species c. defines the nature of a community d. lives in many different habitats e. provides protection for species in its community 69. Which interaction is advantageous to both populations? a. commensalism b. competition c. mutualism d. parasitism e. predation 70. A cinereous mourner bird’s chicks resemble the poisonous larvae of flannel moths. This is an example of____. a. aposematic coloration b. Müllerian mimicry c. competitive exclusion principle d. cryptic coloration e. Batesian mimicry 71. What role do bees play in the interaction between cowbirds and oropendola birds? a. keep away large predators b. keep away insect pests c. pollinate species that only cowbirds prefer d. pollinate species that only oropendola birds prefer e. have no effect on the relationship between cowbirds and oropendolas

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Chap 53_5e 72. In a study examining the effects of disturbances and recruitment on the growth of coral in a portion of the Great Barrier Reef, researchers concluded that changes in the coral colonies are ____. a. due to external factors only. b. due to internal factors only. c. due to both external and internal factors. d. solely due to human interference. e. not observable after disturbances 73. Leopard seals feed on emperor penguins, which feed on secondary consumers. Which trophic level would the leopard seal occupy in this food web? a. decomposer b. detritivore c. primary consumer d. primary producer e. quaternary consumer 74. Which scenario is an example of commensalism? a. acacia trees coevolved with ant colonies that protect the tree from herbivores b. bacteria provide glucose to legume plants c. cattle egrets feed on insects flushed out from the grass by cattle d. plants coevolved with their pollinators e. tapeworms feed and reproduce in the intestines of pigs 75. Which concept helps visualize resource use and the potential for interspecific competition in nature? a. allopatric speciation b. the competitive exclusion principle c. sympatric speciation d. ecological niche e. resource partitioning 76. Which statement best describes the interactive view of communities? a. Species exhibit similar distributions along environmental gradients, and the boundaries between communities are sharp. b. Species distributions are independent, and the boundaries between communities are wide transition zones. c. Species exhibit similar distributions along environmental gradients, and the boundaries between communities are wide transition zones. d. Species distributions are independent, and the boundaries between communities are sharp. e. Species exhibit the same distribution along environmental gradients, and there are no boundaries between communities.

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Chap 53_5e 77. Species richness on an island is determined by ____. a. distance from the mainland only b. island size only c. the type of species on the island only d. distance from the mainland and island size e. distance from the mainland and type of species on the island 78. Connell studied two barnacle species, Balanus balanoides and Chthamalus stellatus. Where these species coexist, ____. a. the realized niche of Balanus is smaller than its fundamental niche due to competition by Chthamalus b. the realized niche of Balanus is larger than its fundamental niche due to competition by Chthamalus c. the realized niche of Chthamalus is smaller than its fundamental niche due to competition by Balanus d. Balanus' fundamental niche includes all of Chthamalus fundamental niche e. the realized niche of Balanus is about equal to its fundamental niche 79. The individualistic view of communities proposed by ____ is supported by data showing that species compositions change gradually across environmental gradients. a. Clements b. Gleason c. Darwin d. Whitaker e. Connell 80. Which sequence lists the correct order of dominant plants in the ecological succession in Glacier Bay, Alaska? a. lichens and moss, shrubs, young conifers, established spruce and hemlock forests b. shrubs, young conifers, lichens and moss, established spruce and hemlock forests c. established spruce and hemlock forests, shrubs, young conifers, lichens and moss d. established spruce and hemlock forests, young conifers, shrubs, lichens and moss e. lichens and moss, shrubs, established spruce and hemlock forests, young conifers Match the description to the appropriate term. Not all choices will be used. a. aposematic coloration b. interference competition c. ecological niche d. exploitative competition 81. sporting a brightly contrasting, dangerous-looking pattern 82. two or more species use the same limiting resource 83. the resources a population uses, and the environmental conditions it requires LABELING Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Match the correct trophic level in the food web to the appropriate feeding relationship. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 53_5e

Figure 53.1 (questions 80-85) a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F 84. primary consumers 85. primary producers 86. quaternary consumers 87. secondary consumers 88. tertiary consumers 89. top carnivore

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Chap 53_5e Match the type of species interaction with the correct description. a. predation b. herbivory c. competition d. commensalism e. mutualism f. parasitism 90. one population obtains energy from plants; plants are negatively affected 91. one population obtains energy from animals; animals are killed 92. one population obtains energy from a host; the host is injured or killed 93. both populations in the relationship benefit 94. one population benefits from the host; the host is unaffected 95. two populations lose access to some resources 96. What is the difference between a food chain and a food web?

97. What is the difference between a decomposer and a detritivore?

98. Why do frequent moderate intensity disturbances increase species richness?

99. Since all land-dwelling animals utilize atmospheric oxygen for respiration, does that make oxygen a limiting factor?

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Chap 53_5e 100. When populations of antelopes and cheetahs coexist, which population changes are likely to occur due to natural selection?

101. Discuss two hypotheses that attempt to explain the high species richness in the tropics.

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Chap 53_5e Answer Key 1. False - smaller 2. False - latitudinal 3. True 4. False - coevolution 5. True 6. True 7. False - exploitative competition 8. True 9. True 10. c 11. a 12. b 13. a 14. c 15. c 16. e 17. d 18. d 19. d 20. c 21. c 22. a 23. c 24. d 25. e 26. e 27. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 53_5e 28. c 29. d 30. d 31. d 32. e 33. c 34. c 35. a 36. c 37. a 38. d 39. a 40. e 41. d 42. a 43. b 44. c 45. e 46. e 47. a 48. a 49. e 50. a 51. e 52. d 53. c 54. e

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Chap 53_5e 55. b 56. b 57. a 58. b 59. c 60. a 61. a 62. e 63. b 64. d 65. c 66. e 67. a 68. c 69. c 70. e 71. b 72. c 73. e 74. c 75. d 76. a 77. d 78. c 79. b 80. a 81. a 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 53_5e 83. c 84. e 85. f 86. b 87. d 88. c 89. a 90. b 91. a 92. f 93. e 94. d 95. c 96. A food chain is depicted in a straight line to indicate which species eat which other species. Rarely in nature is any relationship between organisms in a community that simple. A food web shows the interwoven relationships between species, because most organisms have more than one food source. 97. A decomposer is a small organism such as bacteria or fungi that feeds on dead or dying matter. A detritivore, or scavenger, is usually larger, and is an animal that ingests dead organisms, digestive wastes, and cast-off body parts such as leaves. Examples of detritivores or scavengers are turkey vultures and earthworms. 98. According to the intermediate disturbance hypothesis, species richness is greatest in communities that experience fairly frequent disturbances of moderate intensity. Moderate disturbances create some openings for r-selected species to arrive and join the community, but they allow K-selected species to survive. Thus, communities that experience intermediate levels of disturbance contain a rich mixture of species. 99. Even though all land-dwelling animals require oxygen, it is not considered a limiting factor since it is in abundant supply. 100. First, the antelope population may decline due to heavy predation by the cheetahs. Natural selection would encourage the survival of faster antelopes that may be able to escape predation by the cheetahs. Natural selection would again come into play and encourage the survival of the fastest cheetahs since they would be the best adapted to capture their food source. 101. An ecological hypothesis is based on the fact that tropical regions experience abiotic conditions that provide long and predictable growing seasons. Plants flourish in this environment, which then supports a rich assemblage of herbivores. The rich assemblage of herbivores then supports many carnivores and parasites. A historical hypothesis is based on the assumption that the tropical climate is benign. A benign environment decreases extinction rates and allows organisms to have more generations per year, which results in high speciation rates.

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Chap 54_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If it is false, change the identified word(s) to make the statement true. 1. Large zooplankton decrease the ecosystem's main productivity when they are abundant. 2. Most biomass in trees is found in leaves, which do undergo photosynthesis. 3. Lake ecosystems have many trophic levels. 4. A large percentage of energy passes on from one trophic level to the next. 5. Energy losses are multiplied in successive energy transfers in a food web. 6. Scientists estimate that carbon dioxide in the atmosphere has increased by 35% in the last 150 years. 7. Fossil fuels are the result of buried organisms where low oxygen levels existed. 8. Oceans and the tropical rain forests contribute equally to global productivity. 9. In the second half of the twentieth century, human activities have more than tripled the amount of nitrogen released from land into the atmosphere or aquatic systems. Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 10. The overall ecological efficiency of most organisms is between ____ percent. a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 5 c. 5 and 20 d. 10 and 50 e. 50 and 75 11. What is the main cause of carbon dioxide buildup in the atmosphere? a. burning fossil fuels b. deforestation c. droughts d. flooding e. respiration due to overpopulation 12. Herbivores are ____ energy transfer(s) away from the sun. a. one b. two c. three d. four e. five

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Chap 54_5e 13. The largest reservoir of phosphorus is the ____. a. oceans b. polar ice and glaciers c. rocks d. lakes and rivers e. atmosphere 14. One disadvantage of a simulation model of an ecosystem is that it ____. a. does not take into effect interactions between organisms b. does not take into effect nutrient availability c. does not take into effect water availability d. may not be accurate e. may predict disastrous consequences 15. What is the ratio of the energy content of food consumed to the energy content of food available? a. ecological efficiency b. harvesting efficiency c. production efficiency d. assimilation efficiency e. net primary productivity 16. Nearly all ecosystems receive a constant input of energy from ____. a. bacteria b. biomass c. nutrients d. plants e. the sun 17. Greenhouse gases include ____. a. carbon dioxide, water, nitrogen, and hydrogen b. carbon dioxide, water, methane, ozone, and nitrous oxide c. carbon dioxide, phosphorous, water, and ozone d. carbon dioxide, methane, and carbon monoxide e. carbon dioxide, ozone, nitrous oxide, and phosphorous 18. The Lake Erie ecosystem was affected by humans because human activities ____. a. extracted resources without replacement b. caused global warming c. used the water without replacement d. disrupted energy flow and the cycling of nutrients e. extracted energy without replacement

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Chap 54_5e 19. Net primary productivity is a measure of the rate at which ____ accumulate energy, as well as the rate at which new ____ is added to a system. a. consumers; inorganic material b. producers; inorganic material c. carnivores; prey d. producers; biomass e. consumers; biomass 20. Humans have disrupted the nitrogen cycle primarily by ____. a. irrigation b. cutting down forests c. using nitrogen-containing fertilizers d. crop rotation e. leaching 21. Which marine ecosystem has the highest mean net primary productivity? a. continental shelf b. estuaries c. kelp beds and reefs d. open ocean e. upwelling zones 22. Which class of organisms makes up the detrital food web? a. carnivores and decomposers b. decomposers and detritivores c. decomposers and producers d. herbivores and carnivores e. producers and herbivores 23. In aquatic ecosystems, CO2 reacts with water to form ____. a. HCO b. HNO3 c. CaCO3 d. CO e. H2CO3

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Chap 54_5e 24. The Hubbard Brook Watershed Project illustrated that ____. a. deforestation increases nutrients in nearby aquatic ecosystems b. deforestation can result in polluted streams c. deforestation results in calcium retention in soil d. primary consumers are the most important part of that energy pyramid e. trees absorb too much water and are not useful in a watershed area 25. The main natural source of phosphorus is ____. a. Earth's crust b. fertilizer c. guano d. legumes e. water 26. The analysis of energy flow in an aquatic ecosystem in Silver Springs, Florida, revealed that ____. a. energy flows are difficult to measure b. most of the sun's energy is harvested c. only a little energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next d. the energy flow in carnivores is equal to that of producers e. trophic energy losses are not significant 27. A ____ restricts productivity. a. primary producer b. secondary producer c. photosynthesizer d. detritivore e. limiting nutrient 28. Climate change leads to ____, which releases additional carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. a. increased frequency and severity of forest fires b. increased logging c. increased size of polar ice caps d. sea level reductions e. increased severity of volcanic eruptions 29. Salt marsh cordgrass is consumed by herbivorous marsh periwinkle snails, which in turn are consumed by blue crabs. Research has shown that cordgrass productivity is controlled ____. a. indirectly by the abundance of snails b. indirectly by the abundance of snail predators c. directly by the abundance of snail predators d. directly by the availability of nutrients in the salt marsh e. indirectly by the amount of sunlight penetrating the water Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 54_5e 30. Which three factors determine the ecological efficiencies of consumers? a. assimilation and harvesting efficiencies, and nutrient volume b. assimilation and harvesting efficiencies, and water volume c. production, harvesting, and assimilation efficiencies d. production and harvesting efficiencies, and amount of sunlight e. production and harvesting efficiencies, and percentage of decomposers 31. What are the specific environmental consequences of a phytoplankton bloom? a. An increase in phytoplankton acidifies ocean water. b. Phytoplankton are decomposed by aerobic bacteria, which depletes the surrounding water of oxygen. c. Phytoplankton fix nitrogen in the water causing nitrification. d. Phytoplankton are decomposed by anaerobic bacteria which enriches the surrounding water with oxygen. e. Phytoplankton use up hydrogen ions, which decreases the acidity of the surrounding water. 32. Which factor is least useful for making predictions about how urbanization and climate change will affect the carbon cycle? a. the architecture of the canopy of trees overhead b. leaf positioning c. leaf losses d. timing of natural events e. extent of agricultural practices 33. Zooplankton eating phytoplankton almost as soon as they appear in marine ecosystems causes the pyramid of biomass to ____. a. resemble the pyramid of energy b. invert c. widen at the base d. add trophic levels e. to become obsolete 34. Which ecosystem covers a large percentage of Earth’s surface and, despite having low productivity, contributes a high percentage of total net primary productivity? a. open ocean b. extreme desert, rock, sand, ice c. desert and thornwoods d. tropical deciduous forest e. temperate rainforest

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Chap 54_5e 35. Assimilation efficiency is the ratio of ____. a. energy content of food consumed to the energy content of food available b. energy absorbed from consumed food to the food’s total energy content c. energy content of new tissue produced to the energy assimilated from food d. net productivity at one trophic level to the trophic level below e. producers to consumers 36. Sedimentation converts ions and particles from the ____ into rocks of the ____. a. available inorganic compartment; unavailable inorganic compartment b. unavailable inorganic compartment; unavailable organic compartment c. available inorganic compartment; available organic compartment d. available inorganic compartment; unavailable organic compartment e. available organic compartment; unavailable inorganic compartment 37. Which factors besides sunlight influence the rate of primary productivity? a. temperature and total number of organisms b. photosynthesis and availability of nutrients c. temperature and availability of water d. photosynthesis and availability of water e. temperature and photosynthesis 38. Which forms of nitrogen are readily usable by plants? a. NH3, NH4+, and NO3b. NH4+ and NO2c. N2 and NH3 d. NH4 and NH3 e. NO3- and NO439. Endothermic animals use the majority of their energy to _____. a. digest b. grow c. move d. reproduce e. stay warm

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Chap 54_5e 40. The products of ____ are N2O and N2. a. ammonification b. biological magnification c. denitrification d. nitrification e. nitrogen fixation 41. How much solar energy is ultimately converted into chemical energy by photosynthesis? a. less than 1% b. 1-2% c. 5% d. 10% e. 20% 42. A small decrease in seawater pH was shown to have a significant effect on ____. a. climate change b. the oceanic sink for carbon dioxide c. gene expression in sea urchin larvae d. genes expression in zooplankton e. carbon dioxide accumulation in the ocean 43. An available nutrient molecule ____. a. exists in living or dead tissues b. cannot be assimilated by organisms c. can be assimilated by organisms d. exists in rocks and soil e. exists as an ion 44. Nitrogen is made available to plants for their use by the process(es) of ____. a. ammonification only b. nitrification only c. nitrogen fixation only d. ammonification and nitrification only e. ammonification, nitrification, and nitrogen fixation 45. Why should humans consider eating “lower on the food chain”? a. We digest and assimilate plant material more efficiently than meat. b. We digest and assimilate meat more efficiently than plant material. c. Many regions exist that support vegetation suitable only for feeding large herbivores. d. Energy efficiency is greater when passed through fewer trophic levels. e. No biological reaction is 100% efficient.

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Chap 54_5e 46. Which ecosystem has the lowest percentage of total net primary productivity? a. open ocean b. savanna c. swamp and march d. temperate deciduous forests e. tundra 47. Which factors govern the rate of primary productivity in freshwater and marine ecosystems? a. availability of water b. availability of sunlight and nutrients only c. depth of the water only d. depth of the water and availability of sunlight and nutrients e. availability of oxygen 48. Compared to other regions, day length is ____ and sunlight intensity is ____ near the equator. a. least variable; strongest b. least variable; weakest c. more variable; strongest d. more variable; weakest e. least variable; constant 49. Geographically, where is net primary productivity the highest? a. at the north pole b. at the south pole c. between 30o and 60o d. in the Northern hemisphere e. at the equator 50. How do the pyramids of biomass for Silver Springs, Florida, and the English Channel compare? a. They are both typical of most ecosystems. b. They both indicate that producers are quickly eaten by herbivores. c. The pyramid for Silver Springs is typical of most ecosystems, and the English Channel pyramid indicates that producers are quickly eaten by herbivores. d. The pyramid for Silver Springs indicates that producers are quickly eaten by herbivores, and the English Channel pyramid is typical of most ecosystems. e. Both pyramids indicate overgrowth of producers.

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Chap 54_5e 51. About how much solar energy is intercepted by Earth every minute? a. 9 kcal per square meter b. 19 kcal per square meter c. 190 kcal per square meter d. 19 kcal per square kilometer e. 190 kcal per square kilometer 52. A non-native species accidentally introduced into Lake Erie, ____ inadvertently helped restore the polluted lake by eating phytoplankton. a. mayflies b. oligochaete worms c. phytoplankton d. salmon e. zebra mussels 53. In the hydrologic cycle, water moves from the land to the air by ____ and returns to the land via ____. a. precipitation; evaporation and transpiration b. precipitation and evaporation; transpiration c. precipitation and transpiration; evaporation d. transpiration; precipitation and evaporation e. transpiration and evaporation; precipitation 54. Which carbon reservoir contains the most carbon? a. atmosphere b. biomass on land c. lakes d. oceans e. soil 55. Why is a pyramid of numbers for a forest sometimes narrow at the bottom? a. Energy decreases as it passes through each trophic level. b. Energy increases as it passes through each trophic level. c. Individual producers are small and very numerous. d. Herbivorous insects vastly outnumber large producers. e. Large producers vastly outnumber insects. 56. Anthropogenic events ____. a. refer to the carbon cycle b. refer to all nutrient cycles c. originate with human activities d. refer to absorption of the sun’s energy in the atmosphere e. are caused by human overpopulation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 54_5e 57. The largest reservoir of carbon is ____. a. consumers b. nutrients in soil c. producers d. sedimentary rock e. water 58. The rate at which producers convert solar energy into chemical energy is an ecosystem’s ____. a. standing crop biomass b. biogeochemical cycle c. net primary productivity d. efficiency e. gross primary productivity 59. What was one of the primary results from the Hubbard Brook Watershed Project? a. Deforestation increases flooding. b. New plant species that absorb less water were discovered. c. Pollution gravely affected the water supply. d. Primary consumers are the most important part of the energy pyramid. e. Trees absorb too much water and are not useful in a watershed area. 60. Burning fossil fuels has clearly resulted in ____. a. increases in atmospheric concentrations of carbon dioxide b. increases in extinction rates c. increases in concentrations of carbon dioxide in soils d. increases in carbon retention in animals e. decreases in atmospheric concentrations of oxygen 61. Most available carbon is present as ____. a. CO2 b. CaCO3 c. C d. HCO3¯ e. N2 62. Experiments in which nitrogen supplementation increased the biomass of both plants and herbivores show ____. a. bottom-up control b. top-down control c. indirect control d. inverted cascades e. nutrient cycling Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 54_5e 63. Biological magnification is best defined as ____. a. the increase in toxicity of a chemical compound resulting from its metabolism by a living organism b. the higher relative proportion of biomass among producers as compared to consumers in an ecosystem c. the concentration of nondegradable poisons within organisms at higher trophic levels d. the concentration of degradable poisons within organisms at lower trophic levels e. the declining relative proportion of nondegradable poisons in organisms at higher trophic levels as compared to those at lower trophic levels 64. The Amazon rainforest’s declining ability to withdraw CO2 from the atmosphere has not been attributed to increased ____. a. logging b. farming c. tree mortality rates d. logging bans e. fires 65. Which organisms would most likely have the highest tissue concentration of DDT? a. zooplankton b. small herbivorous fish c. large predatory fish d. osprey e. large herbivorous fish 66. The standing crop biomass is the ____. a. amount of sunlight absorbed by the plants b. amount of water accumulated per acre of crop plants c. total dry weight of plants at a given time d. number of plant species present e. productivity of the plants 67. Trophic pyramids typically have a ____ base and a ____ top portion. a. narrow; narrow b. narrow; wide c. wide; narrow d. wide; wide e. flat; flat

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Chap 54_5e 68. Ecologists use compartment models to describe ____. a. grazer food webs b. detrital food webs c. nutrient cycling d. species richness e. inputs of solar energy 69. Earth is essentially a closed system with respect to ____. a. energy b. matter c. oxygen d. photosynthesis e. ecosystems 70. Once in the ocean, most of the available phosphorous ____. a. enters marine food webs b. enters ocean plants c. becomes ionized d. precipitates out of solution e. enters a gaseous phase 71. Which process is performed by bacteria in mutualistic relationships with legumes? a. ammonification b. biological magnification c. denitrification d. nitrification e. nitrogen fixation 72. Which factor has caused primary productivity in Amazon forests to decline steadily over the past 30 years? a. ocean acidification b. nitrogen fixation c. soil runoff d. increasing droughts e. depletion of oxygen in the atmosphere 73. Ocean acidification is caused by ____. a. global warming b. nitrogen fertilizer runoff c. phosphorous fertilizer runoff d. transfer of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere to the ocean e. transfer of carbon dioxide from the ocean to the atmosphere

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Chap 54_5e 74. What is thought to be responsible for the worldwide deaths of corals and their endosymbiotic algae? a. ocean acidification b. nitrogen fixation c. soil runoff d. declining primary productivity e. depletion of oxygen in the oceans 75. Geological processes in the nutrient cycle operate ____. a. quickly b. slowly c. on living material d. only on organic matter e. on solar energy 76. Respiration affects a compartment model by ____. a. moving carbon, but not oxygen, from the available organic compartment to the available inorganic component b. moving oxygen, but not carbon, from the available organic compartment to the available inorganic component c. moving both carbon and oxygen from the available organic compartment to the available inorganic component d. moving both carbon and oxygen from the available inorganic compartment to the available organic component e. moving carbon, but not oxygen, from the available inorganic compartment to the available organic component 77. Greenhouse gases ____, which is directed back toward Earth, maintaining the temperature of the atmosphere. a. emit heat energy b. absorb heat energy c. emit carbon dioxide d. absorb solar energy e. absorb carbon dioxide 78. Biogeochemical cycles describe ____. a. the constant recycling of nutrients between biotic and abiotic components of ecosystems b. pathways by which energy and nutrients move through biotic components of ecosystems c. all available nutrients in an ecosystem d. a series of mathematical equations that define an ecosystem’s most important relationships e. the input of solar energy into a closed ecosystem

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Chap 54_5e 79. High ____ concentrations in Lake Erie encouraged the growth of photosynthetic algae, which changed the phytoplankton community. a. sewage b. detergent c. coliform bacteria d. phosphorous e. dead fish Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Match the appropriate terms to the boxes in the following image.

Figure 54.12 (questions 81-85) a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 80. coal, oil, and peat 81. soil water 82. terrestrial food webs 83. terrestrial rocks 84. gaseous reservoir of carbon dioxide

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Chap 54_5e Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Match the appropriate terms with the boxes in the following image.

Figure 54.2 (questions 76-80) a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 85. detritivores and decomposers 86. primary consumers 87. primary producers 88. secondary consumers 89. tertiary consumers

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Chap 54_5e Match each description with the appropriate term. Not all choices will be used. a. biogeochemical cycles b. ecological efficiency c. ecological pyramid d. generalized compartment model e. gross primary productivity f. limiting factor g. net primary productivity h. pyramid of biomass i. secondary productivity j. simulation modeling k. standing crop mass l. trophic cascade 90. predicts what would happen if an ecosystem was changed 91. describes how nutrients accumulate in four compartments 92. the energy transfer from producers to consumers 93. gross primary productivity minus the energy used for cellular respiration 94. the relationship between a predator and prey that affects populations in two or more trophic levels 95. Where do terrestrial plants obtain the necessary carbon for photosynthesis?

96. Why is nitrogen necessary in the human body?

97. How is the net primary productivity of an ecosystem calculated?

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Chap 54_5e 98. Why is the productivity poor in the deeper parts of the ocean?

99. How would ecological efficiency change if all humans became vegetarians?

100. What have you learned in the chapter about how humans can minimize their effects on food webs and nutrient cycles?

101. What is the relationship of food webs to biological magnification of toxins?

102. How do agricultural practices affect the nitrogen cycle?

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Chap 54_5e Answer Key 1. True 2. False - wood, which does not 3. False - few 4. False - small 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. False - doubled 10. c 11. a 12. b 13. c 14. d 15. b 16. e 17. b 18. d 19. d 20. c 21. c 22. b 23. e 24. a 25. a 26. c 27. e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 54_5e 28. a 29. b 30. c 31. b 32. e 33. b 34. a 35. b 36. a 37. c 38. a 39. e 40. c 41. a 42. c 43. c 44. e 45. d 46. e 47. d 48. a 49. e 50. c 51. b 52. e 53. e 54. d

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Chap 54_5e 55. d 56. c 57. d 58. e 59. a 60. a 61. d 62. a 63. c 64. c 65. d 66. c 67. c 68. c 69. b 70. d 71. e 72. d 73. d 74. a 75. b 76. c 77. b 78. a 79. d 80. e 81. c 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 54_5e 83. b 84. a 85. e 86. b 87. a 88. c 89. d 90. j 91. d 92. i 93. g 94. l 95. Plants obtain the majority of their carbon from carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. 96. Nitrogen is required in order for the body to produce proteins, nucleic acids, and other biological molecules. It is one of the nutrients necessary for life. 97. The energy used for cellular respiration is subtracted from the gross primary productivity. Gross primary productivity is the rate that plants convert solar energy into chemical energy. 98. In the deeper parts of the ocean, sunlight only influences the activities happening near the surface since the sunlight does not penetrate deep into the water. In addition, many nutrients sink to the bottom of the ocean. This impacts productivity greatly since both sunlight and nutrients are necessary to improve the productivity. 99. Since energy is lost at each trophic level, we would conserve more energy by consuming plants directly. By including another trophic level (an herbivore) or even two more trophic levels (an herbivore and a carnivore), more energy is lost and thus, efficiency is compromised. 100. We have learned that human activities disrupt or affect food webs and nutrient cycles. Eliminating the existence of a lower-level species may not seem very significant, but it may have a huge impact on that particular ecosystem. Also, we must take steps to conserve water, and prevent fertilizers and other disruptive substances from becoming runoff into our water supplies. We should develop more efficient machines to reduce the amount of greenhouse gases produced. Globally, we should have zero population growth. In short, there is much we can do individually and as a species to minimize our impacts on food webs and nutrient cycles. 101. When there are toxins present in the soil, water, etc., they are absorbed into organisms in the bottom of the food chain. Progresses up the food chain, the amount of toxins present will increase. This is why researchers often study the effects of toxins on small, seemingly insignificant species. Determining the deleterious effects of these toxins on lower-level organisms may alert humans to the ultimate danger of these substances.

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Chap 54_5e 102. Agriculture depletes soil nitrogen by removing plants from the field. Therefore, the plant parts are not available for ammonification. Traditional agricultural practices minimized soil erosion and maximized nutrient retention. For example, farmers rotated their crops, cultivating nitrogen-fixing legumes. Modern industrial agriculture adds nitrogen to the soil in the form of synthetic fertilizer. Fertilizer application is related to increased nitrogen in aquatic systems, which affects nitrogen cycling in fresh and marine systems.

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Chap 55_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. A DNA barcode system uses a nuclear gene that varies greatly between species. a. True b. False 2. A 20 m wide edge disrupts a smaller fraction of a small habitat patch than that of a large habitat patch. a. True b. False 3. The yellow-bellied glider is a mammal whose continued survival depends on undisturbed eucalyptus forests. a. True b. False 4. More than 90% of deforestation occurs in tropical regions. a. True b. False 5. Beta-diversity measures diversity across communities. a. True b. False 6. Ecotourism measures ecosystem services such as carbon dioxide processing or water retention and purification. a. True b. False 7. Most deaths among endangered Florida panthers are caused by disease. a. True b. False 8. The introduction of Kudzu was inadvertent. a. True b. False 9. Background extinction rates once eliminated seven to eight species per year. a. True b. False 10. The study of how large-scale ecological factors influence local populations and communities is specifically defined as conservation biology. a. True b. False

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Chap 55_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Populations that occupy ____ inevitably experience low carrying capacities. a. ecotones b. endangered habitats c. small habitat patches d. large habitat patches e. small ecological niches 12. Which area of the United States experiences rainfall with the lowest pH? a. southwest b. southeast c. northeast d. Midwest e. northwest 13. Forest burning contributes nearly ____ % of all greenhouse gases released into the atmosphere. a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 30 e. 50 14. Scientists at the Natural History Museum in London estimate that more than ____ percent of living species have not yet been discovered. a. 11 b. 27 c. 32 d. 56 e. 98 15. By one estimation, the gross global ecosystem valuation is ____. a. equivalent to the total carbon dioxide processed by all ecosystems b. equivalent to the total amount of carbon fixed c. equivalent to the value of all goods produced on Earth d. greater than the value of all goods produced on Earth e. less than the value of all goods produced on Earth

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Chap 55_5e 16. What is the main factor contributing to the current human-caused mass extinction? a. increased population growth b. burning of fossil fuels c. the industrial revolution d. global-warming e. decreased population growth 17. Which human activity is an example of hydrologic alteration? a. overfishing b. small-scale diversion of water for agriculture c. damming of rivers d. digging wells e. desalination 18. The number of species a patch will support depends on its ____ and ____. a. size; species richness b. size; habitat c. area; species richness d. size; proximity to larger patches e. habitat; proximity to larger patches 19. Overexploitation occurs as a result of ____. a. harvesting of predators b. transformation of an ecosystem to a desert c. soil nutrient loss d. the combined outcome of desertification and global warming e. excessive harvesting of an animal or plant species 20. Scientists have found that the Bd infection ____. a. affects amphibians and fish b. enhances lymphocyte production c. may travel from low elevation to high elevation habitats d. may travel in streams that flow from high elevation to low elevation habitats e. cannot infect amphibians that never enter standing water 21. The oldest known Bd infections in the world dated to ____. a. 1894 in Brazil b. 1894 in Korea c. 1900 in Illinois d. 1911 in Korea e. 1900 in Brazil

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Chap 55_5e 22. The ____ and ____ of rivers are key determinants of their physical habitats. a. flow rate; volume b. size; shape c. flow rate; temperature d. location; volume e. biodiversity; species richness 23. Which factor disrupts the life histories of aquatic species? a. increased sedimentation b. reduced connectivity in river systems c. introduction of nonnative species d. disruption of river flow patterns e. low river volume 24. In Gibson’s experiment with small mammal populations in the tropical forest, ____. a. most species disappeared from small islands within the first 5-7 years after fragmentation b. all species disappeared from small islands within the first 5-7 years after fragmentation c. populations increased 25 years after fragmentation d. most species disappeared from small islands, but quickly recolonized after 5-7 years e. fragmentation had no effect on small mammal species 25. Which environment would be most likely to harbor a biodiversity hotspot? a. tropical island b. temperate grassland c. temperate deciduous forest d. desert e. savanna 26. What is an invasive species? a. a nonnative species that often outcompetes native species, leading to their extinction b. a native species that evolves a new trait and occupies more ecological niches c. a nonnative species that enriches the species diversity of a new ecosystem d. a nonnative species that often outcompetes native species, leading to evolution e. a nonnative species that eventually becomes extinct 27. Taxol, a drug treatment for breast and ovarian cancer, was isolated from ____. a. frog skin b. vascular cambium of a tree c. roots of a tree d. insects e. primates

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Chap 55_5e 28. The Ngorongoro Conservation Area is an example of ____. a. conservation through preservation, with people completely excluded b. conservation through preservation, with people allowed only as temporary visitors c. mixed use conservation, with some human residents and livestock grazing d. mixed use conservation, with no human residents and limited livestock grazing e. conservation through restoration, with efforts to remove contaminants underway 29. Conservation biology is a ____. a. mature science b. young science c. science that addresses speciation rates d. science practiced by environmentalists e. declining science 30. How does reduced river connectivity affect aquatic species? a. It helps nonnative species establish in certain ecosystems. b. It prevents species from migrating freely. c. It reduces water temperature. d. It increases river volume. e. It assists species in long migrations. 31. Which term refers to the concentration of salts in soil? a. alinization b. desertification c. erosion d. deforestation e. overexploitation 32. Which data were used in the population viability analysis conducted for the yellow-bellied glider? a. age distributions and survival probabilities b. litter sizes and sex ratios c. home ranges and litter sizes d. sex ratios, age distributions, and litter sizes e. litter sizes, sex ratios, lifespan, home range sizes, survival probabilities, and age distributions 33. Which molecule dissolves in water vapor and falls as acid precipitation? a. sulfuric acid b. ozone c. mercury d. sulfur dioxide e. carbonic acid

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Chap 55_5e 34. The European starling and the kudzu vine are examples of ____. a. native species b. pollution c. pathogenic viruses d. fungi e. invasive species 35. The global decline and extinction of insects affects which organisms? a. wild plants b. agricultural crops c. mammals d. amphibians, reptiles, and birds e. wild plants and agricultural crops, amphibians, reptiles, and birds 36. More than 40% of the 595 sites of imminent extinction are ____. a. completely protected b. already developed c. unprotected d. of large size e. of small size 37. Which habitat patch sustains more species? a. small b. large c. intact d. separated e. threatened 38. Why is the COI gene sequence unsuitable as a DNA barcode for plants? a. The gene has a much faster evolution rate in plants. b. The gene has a much slower evolution rate in plants. c. There are too many plant species. d. There are not enough plant species. e. It is too difficult to extract plant DNA. 39. Conservation through restoration involves ____. a. completely excluding people b. people allowed only as temporary visitors c. some human residents and livestock grazing d. limited livestock grazing e. efforts to remove contaminants and other unnatural obstructions

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Chap 55_5e 40. Conservation biologists conduct population viability analyses to determine ____. a. whether an environment is too badly degraded to support a species b. how large a population must be to ensure its long-term survival c. likely source populations d. likely sink populations e. the annual reproduction rate of a population 41. Where in the world does most deforestation occur? a. the taiga in Siberia b. the boreal forest in Canada c. the tropical rainforest in Africa d. the tropical rainforest in South America e. the temperate rainforest in North America 42. Which airborne pollutant contributes to global warming? a. carbon dioxide b. ozone c. mercury d. sulfur dioxide e. carbonic acid 43. Sea otter populations were reduced by overhunting, allowing an overgrowth of one of their prey animals, the ____, which subsequently consumed and decimated ____.populations. a. crabs; shrimp b. abalone; algae c. sea urchin; kelp d. harbor seals; fish e. crab; kelp 44. What were the conclusions of Gibson’s experiments with small mammal populations? a. Fragmentation increases biodiversity. b. Fragmentation leads to extinction of native populations. c. Fragmentation does not affect small mammal populations. d. Fragmentation has the same effect on large and small mammal populations. e. Fragmentation has more impact in aquatic than in terrestrial habitats. 45. Fungi and soil microorganisms provide ____ to ecosystems. a. provisioning services b. regulating services c. carbon sequestration d. hybridization e. support services Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 55_5e 46. Worldwide declines in the population size of frogs have recently been linked to ____. a. overharvesting b. a fungus c. dams d. decreases in global temperatures e. increases in precipitation 47. Photosynthetic organisms are essential for limiting the damage done by global warming because they ____. a. move carbon from the atmosphere to living organisms b. move carbon from the soil to the atmosphere c. move carbon from the atmosphere to the soil d. produce oxygen e. sequester carbon in geologic sediments 48. The success of Chitwan National Park in Nepal is attributed primarily to ____. a. ecotourism b. exclusion of local residents c. ecosystem valuation d. benefits provided to local residents e. income derived through hunting 49. Biologists believe that whooping cranes suffer from a high rate of developmental deformities of the spine and trachea because of ____. a. biological magnification of DDT b. exposure to hormone-mimicking pollutants from plastics c. a population bottleneck and loss of genetic variability d. conservation biologists saving chicks that would have died at hatching e. exposure to PCBs used as insulators in electronics 50. An alternative to species-based conservation focuses on the preservation of ____. a. small species b. large species c. plant species only d. insect species only e. intact habitats 51. Scientists have found that extinction rates among ____ are accelerating rapidly. a. endangered species b. trigger species c. bird species d. amphibian species e. plant species Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 55_5e 52. When subtropical forest is cleared, which biome is most likely to replace it? a. grassland suitable for grazing b. cropland ideal for agriculture c. young forest with the same species d. desert with poor, eroded soil e. chaparral with grass and low bushes 53. Disturbance and exposure at borders of habitat fragments are collectively termed ____. a. edge effects b. fragmentation effects c. anthropogenic disturbances d. reduced perimeter diversity e. boundary decline 54. Teosinte, a wild relative of corn, was crossed with domestic corn in an attempt to produce a ____ variety. a. herbicide resistant b. pest resistant c. high lysine d. perennial e. higher yielding 55. The smallest population that fits specifications of a conservation plan is a(n) ____. a. target population b. endangered population c. minimum viable population size d. an entire ecosystem e. threatened species 56. According to Myers, a biodiversity hot spot must harbor at least ____. a. 20 predator species b. 100 endemic plant species c. 15 extinct species d. 1500 endemic plant species e. 100 endangered species 57. Photosynthetic organisms provide ____ to ecosystems. a. provisioning services b. regulating services c. nutrient cycling d. hybridization e. support services

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Chap 55_5e 58. Which event accounts for 20% of the greenhouse gases recorded annually? a. deforestation of dry tropical forests b. deforestation of moist tropical forests c. burning of fossil fuels d. burning of coal e. urbanization 59. Which group includes the highest proportion of critically endangered, endangered, and vulnerable species? a. cone snails b. conifers c. freshwater shrimps d. reef-forming corals e. cycads 60. How does habitat fragmentation affect biodiversity? a. As long as the fragments are of good quality habitat, biodiversity will not be affected. b. Habitat fragmentation increases biodiversity because it reduces entry of exotic species. c. Habitat fragmentation is a threat to biodiversity because small habitat patches sustain only small populations. d. Habitat fragmentation increases biodiversity because adaptation to local conditions stimulates evolution. e. Habitat fragmentation connects terrestrial and aquatic habitats. 61. Which concept reflects the increasing numbers of species present in an area that includes a wide variety of habitats, vegetation types, and small-scale environments? a. landscape ecology b. the species-area relationship c. conservation biology d. alpha-diversity e. beta-diversity 62. Background extinction rates eliminate approximately ____ species ____. a. 7-8; per 100 years b. 7-8; per 1000 years c. 7-8; per year d. 100; per year e. 100; per 1000 years 63. A DNA barcode is being developed for use in conservation biology based on ____. a. mitochondrial genes in plants b. chloroplast genes in plants c. nuclear genes in animals d. mitochondrial genes in animals e. bacterial genes Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 55_5e 64. Provisioning services ____. a. are critical functions that preserve and recycle resources upon which ecosystems depend b. transfer CO2 to a nutrient compartment in the biosphere c. enable populations to function within their food webs d. describe the availability of plants, animals, and other materials useful to all organisms e. involves planting crops for use by many organisms 65. The greatest rate of extinction of all time is/was probably caused by ____. a. an ice age b. unknown reasons c. formation of Pangea d. human activity e. asteroid impact 66. A group of neighboring populations that exchange individuals is defined as a ____. a. metapopulation b. megapopulation c. community d. source population e. sink population 67. Why did local residents in the Pacific Northwest remain hostile to conservation efforts? a. When the northern spotted owl was listed as endangered, logging workers lost jobs. b. The northern spotted owl has not been listed as endangered. c. When the northern spotted owl was listed as endangered, the logging industry experienced a boom. d. Conservation efforts to protect trees from logging have been unsuccessful. e. Conservation efforts focus on the local population and take their jobs into consideration. 68. Which statement best summarizes the results of the experiment by Damschen and her colleagues on the effect of landscape corridors on species richness? a. Habitat patches with landscape corridors are at higher risk of encroachment by exotic species than are isolated habitat patches. b. Over time, the number of native species harbored by habitat patches with landscape corridors was increasingly greater than in isolated habitat patches. c. The number of both native and exotic species increased over time in habitat patches that were connected by landscape corridors. d. The number of native species increased over time in isolated habitat patches but not in those connected by corridors. e. The number of exotic and native species decreased in patches connected by landscape corridors.

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Chap 55_5e 69. Conservation efforts using ____ are being used to protect the critically endangered Florida panther by allowing the animals to move safely between fragmented conservation areas. a. landscape corridors b. ecotourism c. beta-diversity d. population viability analyses e. introduction of nonnative prey species 70. The administration of the drug diclofenac to livestock inadvertently poisoned ____ and led to an increase in ____ cases. a. cattle; hoof and mouth b. vultures; rabies c. children; epilepsy d. coyotes; hemolytic E. coli e. cattle egrets; avian flu 71. Why have so few primates gone extinct compared to other species, such as mussels or birds? a. Primates have large brains. b. Primates are not killed for food or other human uses. c. Primates live in stable environments. d. Primates are among the most closely monitored and protected species. e. Primates are highly mobile. 72. Biologists have recently been interested in Miss Waldron's red colobus monkey (Procolobus badius waldroni) because it is ____. a. increasing in numbers b. a pest to farmers c. thought to be extinct d. capable of carrying HIV e. capable of carrying the Ebola virus 73. Biodiversity hotspots are defined as areas where biodiversity is both ____ and ____. a. concentrated; endangered b. researched; protected c. low; increasing d. overexploited; studied e. low; declining

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Chap 55_5e 74. Which benefit, derived from biodiversity, would be categorized as an ecosystem service? a. the anticancer drug Taxol, derived from the yew tree b. plants and fruits that are edible by humans c. cotton and other useful plant-derived fibers d. decomposition of wastes e. wild organisms as a source of genes for genetic engineering 75. Flying insect biomass in Germany, according to Hallman and colleagues, declined ____ between 1989 and 2016. a. 22% b. about 50% c. 63% d. 76% e. nearly 100% 76. Why has Atlantic cod evolved to mature at a younger age and smaller size? a. DNA damage from radiation released accidentally from nuclear power plants b. unknown causes c. food competition from other predatory fish d. intraspecies competition e. overexploitation by fishing 77. Which field of ecology analyzes how large-scale ecological factors influence local populations and communities? a. conservation ecology b. mixed-use conservation c. alpha-diversity d. landscape ecology e. community ecology 78. In ____, visitors pay a fee to visit a natural preserve. a. ecotourism b. mixed-use conservation c. ecosystem valuation d. restoration e. preservation 79. What is the significance of genetic variation? a. It influences population interactions. b. It interacts within the biosphere. c. It is the raw material for sexual reproduction. d. It is the most fundamental level of species classification. e. It is the raw material for adaptation, speciation, and evolution.

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Chap 55_5e 80. The communities established under pure stands of eastern hemlock will likely become extinct because of ____. a. feeding on the trees by the wooly adelgid b. the Bd infection of hemlock trees c. pathogenic viruses attacking these populations d. pathogenic fungi attacking hemlock trees e. invasive species exploiting their niche Match each of the following terms with its correct definition. Not all choices will be used. a. ecosystem services b. ecosystem valuation c. desertification d. endemic species e. endangered species f. exotic species g. conservation biology h. population viability analysis 81. non-native organisms in an ecosystem 82. in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range 83. indirect benefits from normal activity of ecological processes 84. used to determine how large a population must be to ensure its long-term survival 85. interdisciplinary science that focuses on the maintenance and preservation of biodiversity Match each of the ecological problems with its immediate (most direct) cause. Not all choices will be used. a. increasing rate of asthma b. decline in Atlantic cod population c. global spread of exotic species d. death of vultures and increase in populations of feral dogs, rats, and flies e. salt water intrusion to the water table 86. excessive tapping of groundwater for irrigation, landscaping, and household use 87. decline of native species due to competition by newly introduced species 88. overexploitation 89. airborne pollutants from combustion of fossil fuels 90. use of drugs on domestic cattle poisoned native bird species

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Chap 55_5e Match each conservation project with one of the categories below. Some categories may be used more than once. a. ecosystem valuation b. conservation through restoration c. conservation through preservation d. mixed-use conservation 91. The Nature Conservancy buys up ecologically important tracts of land. 92. An electric company building a hydroelectric dam pays people upstream not to deforest the watershed. 93. Replanting of trees in habitat corridors between forest fragments. 94. U.S. National Forest land may be leased by ranchers for grazing. 95. Conservation of Pine Bush habitat near Albany, NY 96. A developer putting tract housing in a previously pristine area plans numerous small, open space areas where the original habitat is to remain. As a conservationist, how would you suggest changing the plan, if at all (assume that canceling the development is not an option)? Why?

97. Define conservation biology and distinguish it from the science of ecology.

98. What is a population viability analysis (PVA), and what predictions does it allow population biologists to make?

99. Briefly describe some of the pros and cons of using ecotourism to generate income from a natural area.

100. What are at least two arguments for conserving biodiversity?

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Chap 55_5e 101. Summarize the human social elements necessary to address when designing a conservation plan.

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Chap 55_5e Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. False 7. False 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. c 12. c 13. c 14. e 15. d 16. a 17. c 18. d 19. e 20. d 21. a 22. a 23. d 24. a 25. a 26. a

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Chap 55_5e 27. b 28. c 29. b 30. b 31. a 32. e 33. d 34. e 35. e 36. c 37. b 38. b 39. e 40. b 41. d 42. a 43. c 44. b 45. e 46. b 47. a 48. d 49. c 50. e 51. b 52. d 53. a 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 55_5e 55. c 56. d 57. b 58. b 59. e 60. c 61. e 62. c 63. d 64. d 65. d 66. a 67. a 68. b 69. a 70. b 71. d 72. c 73. a 74. d 75. d 76. e 77. d 78. a 79. e 80. a 81. f 82. e Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 55_5e 83. a 84. h 85. g 86. e 87. c 88. b 89. a 90. d 91. c 92. a 93. b 94. d 95. c 96. One large preserve would be better than many small preserves, since populations in isolated habitat patches have a high risk of extinction. Isolated populations often become inbred as they may not be able to travel to individuals in other habitat patches. 97. Conservation biology is a science that seeks to protect native species, communities and ecosystems from the effects of human activity. Conservation biology is based on the assumption that there is a biodiversity crisis while ecology is not based on any assumptions per se. 98. A PVA is a collection of information about a threatened species, including its diet, predators, mating habits, space requirements, distribution, and response to disturbances. This allows population biologists to predict the chances of its survival given various different habitat protection scenarios. 99. Ecotourism employs local people and increases support for the preservation of ecosystems and endangered species. However, heavy tourism traffic can damage ecosystems and put pressure on ecosystem services like sewage disposal and clean water supplies. 100. The chapter outlines three general benefits and provides examples for each. Biodiversity benefits humans directly. For example, a cancer drug found in the Pacific yew tree and genes from wild species that may serve as sources for genetic variation in agricultural crops. Biodiversity is related to ecosystem services, which benefit humans indirectly. For example, carbon sequestration. Finally, it is argued that biodiversity has intrinsic value where emotional or spiritual connections to natural landscapes and species enhance human existence.

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Chap 55_5e 101. To be successful, a conservation plan must have support from the local people. They must benefit in some way, often economically, from the preserve. Legislating preserves that exclude or disenfranchise local people is not a good idea. Poaching and illegal harvesting of resources are rampant in places where the locals are opposed to the conservation plan. Ecotourism, or allowing limited extraction of resources from the preserve, is an option that has been successful. Education of the local people about ecosystem services and consequences of ecological degradation is valuable as well.

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Chap 56_5e Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. The zenk gene in the zebra finch brain is activated by tactile stimuli. a. True b. False 2. Food preference in garter snakes is a learned behavior. a. True b. False 3. Neurons in the higher vocal center of a male zebra finch's brain are stimulated to proliferate by testosterone. a. True b. False 4. GnRH-producing cells in the brains of male cichlids are larger in territorial individuals. a. True b. False 5. In honeybees, queen bees are haploid organisms while male drones are diploid. a. True b. False 6. Younger honeybees have higher levels of juvenile hormone. a. True b. False 7. Half siblings share on average 50% of their alleles by inheritance from their shared parent, making their degree of relatedness 0.50. a. True b. False 8. When individuals of a species do not form close pair bonds, and both males and females mate with multiple partners, the species’ mating system is described as promiscuous. a. True b. False 9. A change in the rate or frequency of movements in response to environmental stimuli is called taxis. a. True b. False 10. The red spot on the beak of a herring gull parent is a sign stimulus received by baby gulls. a. True b. False

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Chap 56_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. A male zebra finch can discriminate between the songs of strangers and the songs of established neighbors on adjacent territories through a cluster of neurons in the ____. a. cerebellum b. brainstem c. midbrain d. forebrain e. hindbrain 12. When geese or ducks are imprinted, this means that they ____. a. will return to the place they were born to breed and raise their own young b. have become habituated to harmless stimuli c. have been experimentally trained by operant conditioning d. learned the features of a suitable mate during a critical period e. have two nonfunctional copies of a particular gene 13. Which chemical exerts its effect on honeybee behavior by stimulating neural transmissions and reinforcing memories? a. estrogen b. octopamine c. testosterone d. androgen e. epinephrine 14. Recent research suggests that a homing pigeon can navigate to its home coop from any direction by using ____ as their compass and ____ as their map. a. the position of the Sun; olfactory cues b. the position of the stars; other visual cues c. olfactory cues; the position of the stars d. olfactory cues; the position of the Sun e. landmarks; olfactory cues 15. Research of knockout mice with no active copies of the Dvl1 gene can be used to study ____ in humans. a. schizophrenia only b. obsessive compulsive disorder only c. Huntington disease only d. prostate cancer only e. schizophrenia, obsessive compulsive disorder, and Huntington disease

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Chap 56_5e 16. What are the proximate causes that underlie an animal’s ability to detect and respond to stimuli? a. only physiological mechanisms b. only genetic mechanisms c. genetic and physiological mechanisms d. genetic, cellular, physiological, and anatomical mechanisms e. genetic, physiological, and anatomical mechanisms 17. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Bees C and D ____. a. had a different father than bees E and F b. had a different mother than bees E and F c. inherited different alleles than bees E and F from their mother d. inherited different alleles than bees E and F from their father e. are haploid drones, while bees E and F are diploid female workers 18. Female silkworm moths produce a ____ signal referred to as bombykol, which generates a message in specialized receptors on the antennae of any male silkworm moth that is downwind. a. chemical b. visual c. electrical d. acoustical e. tactile 19. The degree of relatedness between a niece and an uncle is ____, and the degree of relatedness between first cousins is ____. a. 0.75; 0.50 b. 0.50; 0.25 c. 0.25; 0.125 d. 0.125; 0.0625 e. 0.0625; 0.03125 20. Males and females often differ in their reproductive strategies due to the fact that males can increase the number of offspring they produce by ____ while females reproduce most successfully by ____. a. mating with a high-quality female; mating with a high-quality male b. driving off other males; defending a productive territory c. defending a productive territory; enlisting multiple males to aid in raising her offspring d. mating with multiple females; mating with a high-quality male e. mating with multiple females; mating with multiple males

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Chap 56_5e 21. Kin selection is a form of natural selection in which ____. a. dominant individuals share resources disproportionately with their close relatives b. individuals help relatives only if they are likely to return the favor in the future c. group members sacrifice their own reproductive success to help individuals who are not their direct descendants d. shared alleles for altruism are perpetuated if the assisted animals produce more offspring than the helper could have produced if he had not helped e. shared alleles for altruism are perpetuated if the helper produces more offspring than the relatives that he aids 22. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The male bee represented by letter A is ____ and the queen bee represented by letter B is ____. a. diploid; triploid b. haploid; triploid c. triploid; diploid d. diploid; haploid e. haploid; diploid 23. Upon finding a carcass, a raven will only call and attract other ravens to the food source if the ____. a. nearby ravens are relatives b. food source is large and plentiful c. food is found in a resident pair's territory d. food is found in his own territory e. food is being consumed by an animal of another species

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Chap 56_5e

Figure 56.29 (questions 66-69). 24. Answer the question based on the accompanying figure. The worker bees represented by letters E and F, which received the same alleles from the queen, are related to each other by ____. a. 50% b. 75% c. 0% d. 100% e. 25% 25. The Arctic tern makes an annual migration of up to ____. a. 700,000 km b. 70,000 km c. 7,000 km d. 700 km e. 70 km

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Chap 56_5e 26. A worker bee that is a day old is most likely to perform which function? a. cleaning cells b. feeding nestmates c. packing pollen d. feeding brood e. foraging 27. Which trait is least consistent with evolution by sexual selection? a. males are larger than females b. females actively choose superior males c. males often bear showy or defensive structures d. males gather and defend harems of females e. female queen bees are responsible for reproducing 28. Territorial behavior provides a specific example of ____, the conveyance of information to other individuals. a. taxis b. kinesis c. habituation d. communication e. imprinting 29. Male Jarrow’s spiny lizards ordinarily exhibit strong territoriality only during the ____ mating season, when elevated blood levels of ____ stimulate their aggressive behavior. a. summer; estrogen b. summer; testosterone c. autumn; octopamine d. autumn; estrogen e. autumn; testosterone 30. Questions about ultimate causes of behavior are ____ questions, while proximate questions about behavior are ____ questions. a. how; why b. what; how c. how; when d. what; who e. why; how

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Chap 56_5e 31. Bioluminescent signals that fireflies and certain fishes send to distant receivers in the dark are classified as ____ signals. a. tactile b. visual c. chemical d. electrical e. mechanical 32. Migratory birds in the Northern Hemisphere most likely head to tropical overwintering grounds because ____. a. they are looking for appropriate sites for egg-laying b. of seasonal changes in the abundance of predators c. they are looking for appropriate breeding sites d. of seasonal changes in food supplies e. they are ectotherms and cannot withstand cold temperatures 33. In many animals, visual signals are ____, meaning they have become exaggerated and stereotyped over evolutionary time, forming an easily recognized visual display. a. tactile b. conditioned c. ritualized d. habituated e. operants 34. Altruism involves ____, but reciprocal altruism involves ____. a. the sacrifice of an individual's reproductive success to help others; the expectation of a future favor in return for present aid b. aid given to nonrelatives; benefits given to close relatives only c. the expectation of a future favor in return for present aid; close relatives helping each other d. low-risk behavior that provides minor benefits to others; high-risk behavior providing major benefits to others e. aid given to relatives; benefits given to nonrelatives only 35. In studying the dance of the honeybees, Karl von Frisch determined that the duration of the dance conveyed the ____ of the food and the angle of the dance conveyed the ____ of the food. a. direction; distance b. distance; direction c. type; direction d. direction; type e. distance; type

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Chap 56_5e 36. The brains of female zebra finches lack the hormonal influences that occur in the brains of males. As a result, what changes are seen in the female brains? a. Auditory processing centers are especially well-developed in females. b. More neurons are produced in the higher vocal center. c. There is increased transcription of genes whose products are involved in memory retention. d. The number of neurons in the higher vocal center declines. e. Octopamine levels increase, stimulating neural transmissions. 37. As a result of the hormonal and neuroanatomical differences between the male and female brains of zebra finches, ____. a. only males sing their species’ songs b. only females sing their species’ songs c. males sing their species’ songs at earlier ages than females d. females sing their species’ songs at earlier ages than males e. females only sing their species’ songs later in their lives 38. What is an example of an ultimate cause of animal behavior? a. physiological b. cellular c. genetic d. anatomical e. adaptive 39. An animal that finds its way by the mechanism known as piloting is using ____. a. familiar landmarks to guide his journey b. the sun's position in the sky to orient himself c. both the sun's position and a mental map d. the Earth's magnetic field to orient himself e. another animal to lead the way as he learns the route 40. The process of song learning by white-crowned sparrows is similar to the process of territory-holding by African cichlid fishes because brain cells in both animals can change ____ in response to well-defined social stimuli. a. only their biochemistry b. only their structure c. only their function d. only their structure and function e. their biochemistry, structure, and function

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Chap 56_5e 41. When Tinbergen arranged pinecones around the nest of a female digger wasp, then moved them when the wasp was gone, the wasp ____. a. did not find the nest unless the pinecones were returned b. dug a new nest in the center of the repositioned circle of pinecones c. found the nest immediately demonstrating pinecone placement was irrelevant d. abandoned the nest entirely e. took longer to find the nest 42. Male zebra finches behave differently toward familiar neighbors, whom they largely ignore, and unfamiliar singers, whom they attack and drive away. This behavior is a result of ____. a. operant conditioning b. classical conditioning c. cognition d. imprinting e. habituation 43. Pheromones are ____ signals. a. tactile b. electrical c. acoustical d. visual e. chemical

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Chap 56_5e

44. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which graph represents the age span of worker bees primarily involved in foraging? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 56_5e 45. When young male white-crowned sparrows first begin to sing, they match their vocal output to ____. a. any birdsong they hear during their initial days of singing b. an instinctive blueprint of their species' song c. the memory of their species' song heard months earlier d. the memory of whatever song they heard during an early critical period e. the songs of male relatives heard during their initial days of singing 46. When one male and one female form a long-term association, the mating system is referred to as ____. a. promiscuous b. polygamous c. monogamous d. polygynous e. polyandrous 47. According to Niko Tinbergen, which question is least likely to be addressed by basic studies of animal behavior? a. What is the behavior’s ecological function and how does it increase an animal’s chances of surviving and reproducing? b. How did the behavior evolve? c. Which mechanisms trigger a specific behavioral response? d. How does the expression of a behavior develop as an animal matures? e. How will the behavior be displayed after future evolutionary processes occur? 48. When a foraging honeybee discovers pollen or nectar, it returns to its colony and performs a dance involving ____ signals in the complete darkness of the hive. a. visual and acoustical b. visual and chemical c. tactile, acoustical, and chemical d. tactile, acoustical, chemical, and electrical e. visual, tactile, acoustical, chemical, and electrical 49. A subordinate animal in a dominance hierarchy has limited access to food and mates. The most likely reason he remains in a social group that dominates him is because ____. a. he is exhibiting altruistic behavior b. his chances of survival and reproduction are better in the group than alone c. he expects to become dominant in the future d. he does not know that it would be an advantage for him to leave e. dominant group members will not allow him to leave

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Chap 56_5e 50. The most complex wayfinding mechanism is ____, in which animals use both a compass and a mental map of the area. a. piloting b. orienteering c. compass orientation d. migration e. navigation 51. When behavioral biologists look at the ultimate evolutionary benefit of animal communication, they are primarily focusing on the effects of the communication on the individual's ability to ____. a. secure food resources b. intimidate other animals c. form alliances with other animals d. produce surviving offspring e. maintain a favorable position in the dominance hierarchy 52. An animal that is apparently aware of its circumstances and uses reasoning to achieve a goal is said to have ____. a. conditioning b. habituation c. cognition d. imprinting e. learning 53. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. The worker bees represented by letters C and F, which receive different alleles from the queen, are related to each other by ____. a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% e. 100% 54. How does losing or acquiring territory affect the brain anatomy and chemistry of an African cichlid fish? a. Only the size of the brain is changed. b. Only the shape of brain is changed. c. Both the size and shape of the brain are changed. d. The size of brain cells producing sex hormones are changed. e. The size of brain cells producing territorial hormone are changed.

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Chap 56_5e 55. Classical conditioning associates ____, while operant conditioning links ____. a. two phenomena that are usually unrelated; a voluntary activity with a reward b. a response with a punishment; a response with a reward c. instinctive behaviors with punishments; learned behaviors with rewards d. a voluntary activity with a reward; two phenomena that are usually unrelated e. learned behaviors with rewards; instinctive behaviors with rewards 56. Some migratory birds that fly during the day position themselves using the location of the Sun in conjunction with an internal biological clock. This wayfinding mechanism is called ____. a. solar migration b. landmark migration c. piloting d. navigation e. compass orientation

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Chap 56_5e

57. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which graph represents the age span of worker bees primarily involved in feeding the brood? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 58. A taxis is ____ movement, while a kinesis is ____ movement. a. ordered; a change in the rate of b. disordered; ordered c. random; uniform d. a group; an individual e. a change in the rate of; disordered

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Chap 56_5e 59. Animals establish and defend territories only when ____. a. the effort does not endanger the life of the individual b. males compete for females by fighting c. some critical resource is in short supply d. females choose among displaying males e. territorial defense is not energetically costly 60. Instinctive behaviors are ____, while learned behaviors are ____. a. acquired from observation; acquired from practice b. taught by parents; acquired from trial and error c. incomplete the first few times they are displayed; apparently a product of reason d. genetically programmed responses; dependent upon experience e. dependent upon experience; genetically programmed responses 61. Which type of signal only operates over very short distances? a. chemical b. tactile c. electrical d. visual e. acoustical 62. When extra juvenile hormone is experimentally administered to worker bees (Apis mellifera), they ____. a. revert to performing duties of younger bees b. live longer and produce more offspring c. begin to mate and lay eggs d. produce more chemicals that reinforce memory e. develop impaired memories 63. Polyandry is the mating system in which ____. a. one male and one female form a long-term association b. both males and females mate with multiple partners c. one male mates with many females d. one female mates with many males e. both males and females provide care to offspring 64. In an experiment on wayfinding, indigo buntings were housed in outdoor cages with blotting paper walls and inkpads on the floors. Which line of evidence demonstrated to researchers that the indigo bunting uses the positions of stars to orient its migration? a. The birds' inky feet made prints indicating the direction in which they attempted to fly. b. In spring, the inky footprints were mostly on the northern side of the cage. c. In fall, the inky footprints were mostly on the south side of the cage. d. On cloudy nights, the inky footprint patterns were evenly distributed in all directions. e. In spring, the birds’ anterior pituitary gland generated a series of hormonal changes. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 56_5e 65. Ethology is the study of ____. a. the genetic mechanisms that underlie behavior b. how evolution shaped animal behavior c. how humans influence animal behavior d. the physiological mechanisms that underlie behavior e. how animals process information 66. If a species of animal defends territories primarily to secure sufficient food supply for reproduction, we would expect the size of territories to be most closely related to ____. a. the intensity of competition for nesting sites b. the density of food resources in the territory c. the habitat in which the territory exists d. the amount of parental care invested by the species e. the mating system used by the species 67. Biologists categorize the cue that stimulates young herring gulls to peck as a sign stimulus because the pecking behavior ____. a. requires learning to perfect b. is a cue released by the baby gulls to their parents c. is triggered by presentation of the cue d. is only triggered by the cue if it is accompanied by species-specific behaviors e. appears both in the presence and absence of the cue 68. Young male white-crowned sparrows that were experimentally raised without ever hearing the song of their species ____. a. instinctively performed the song perfectly b. never sang at all c. sang a poorly developed, but similar, version of their species' song d. sang a recognizable version of an ancestral species’ song e. never sang the way wild males do 69. The courtship display of the wandering albatross is primarily a(n) ____display. a. acoustical b. visual c. chemical d. electrical e. tactile

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Chap 56_5e 70. When researchers studied knockout mice with no active copies of the Dvl1 gene, they found these mice were____. a. physically abnormal b. socially normal c. not easily startled d. physically and socially normal e. physically normal, but socially abnormal 71. Experiments on the feeding preferences of newborn garter snakes born to coastal vs. inland California revealed that even in the same species, differential instinctive responses can be ____. a. learned b. genetic c. forgotten d. homozygous e. sex-linked 72. Place the events illustrating how genes and hormones interact in the development of behavior in the correct order. 1. target neurons change intracellularly 2. hormones change genetic activity and enzymatic biochemistry in their target neurons 3. genes code for hormone production 4. animal’s behavior changes a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. 3, 2, 1, 4 c. 2, 3, 1, 4 d. 2, 1, 3, 4 e. 3, 1, 2, 4 73. The pecking behavior in young herring gulls is triggered primarily by a red spot on the bill of the parent, and is performed repeatedly in the same way; therefore, it is an example of ____. a. imprinting b. a learned response c. a fixed action pattern d. operant conditioning e. classical conditioning 74. What is a proximate cause of the non-combative behavior of male African cichlids that do not hold territories? a. Cichlids can detect and store information about aggressive encounters. b. The GnRH-producing neurons in the hypothalamus are small. c. The testes do not produce testosterone. d. GnRH production is high. e. Non-combative behavior allows the male to build his strength for a takeover attempt of territory. Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 56_5e 75. Winkler and Sheldon used the _____ to study _____ in swallows and martins. a. coefficient of relatedness; kin selection b. coefficient of relatedness; nest building behavior c. comparative method; mating systems d. comparative method; nest building behavior e. reproductive method; kin selection 76. Tinbergen's wasp experiments demonstrated that wasps find their nests by ____ cues. a. olfactory b. auditory c. visual d. both olfactory and visual e. both magnetic and auditory

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Chap 56_5e

77. Answer the question using the accompanying figure. Which graph represents the age span of worker bees primarily involved in packing pollen? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 78. Instinctive behaviors that are performed in exactly the same way every time they are triggered are defined as ____. a. habitual behaviors b. sign stimuli c. conditioned behaviors d. imprinted responses e. fixed action patterns

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Chap 56_5e 79. Which hormone results in the production of more neurons in the higher vocal center of the brains of male, but not female, zebra finches? a. testosterone b. estrogen c. octopamine d. epinephrine e. androgen 80. In African cichlid fish, ____ regulates neurons that control sexual and aggressive behavior. a. testosterone b. estrogen c. androgen d. gonadotropin-releasing hormone e. follicle-stimulating hormone Answer questions 76–85 using the accompanying figure. Examine the figure depicting pheromone-producing glands in an ant’s body. Match each letter of the figure with the appropriate structure.

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Chap 56_5e

a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G h. H i. I j. J 81. maxillary gland 82. Dufour’s gland 83. poison gland reservoir 84. poison gland 85. propharyngeal gland 86. labial gland 87. mandibular gland 88. poison gland tube 89. metapleural gland 90. postpharyngeal gland

Match each of the learned behaviors with its corresponding description. a. cognition b. operant conditioning c. habituation d. classical conditioning e. imprinting 91. association between phenomena that are usually unrelated 92. trial-and-error learning 93. affinity for caretaker species, developed during critical period 94. insight learning in novel situations 95. loss of responsiveness

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Chap 56_5e 96. Why do peahens choose peacocks with the longest, showiest tails, when a long tail might be easily grabbed by a predator?

97. Under which circumstances does the zenk gene become active in zebra finches, and what is its effect?

98. What symptoms are shared by knockout mice with nonfunctional DvII genes and humans with certain psychiatric disorders?

99. Briefly explain some of the advantages and disadvantages of living in social groups.

100. What is haplodiploidy, and how is it related to altruism in honeybees?

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Chap 56_5e Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. False 7. False 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. d 12. d 13. b 14. a 15. e 16. d 17. c 18. a 19. c 20. d 21. d 22. e 23. c 24. b 25. b 26. a

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Chap 56_5e 27. e 28. d 29. e 30. e 31. b 32. d 33. c 34. a 35. b 36. d 37. a 38. e 39. a 40. d 41. a 42. e 43. e 44. e 45. c 46. c 47. e 48. c 49. b 50. e 51. d 52. c 53. c 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 56_5e 55. a 56. e 57. b 58. a 59. c 60. d 61. b 62. d 63. d 64. d 65. b 66. b 67. c 68. e 69. b 70. e 71. b 72. e 73. c 74. b 75. d 76. c 77. d 78. e 79. b 80. d 81. h 82. g Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 56_5e 83. d 84. f 85. j 86. b 87. i 88. e 89. c 90. a 91. d 92. b 93. e 94. a 95. c 96. Studies have shown the ability to survive despite the long tail is predictive of the survival and health of offspring. The long tail is a handicap, so males that can thrive in spite of that handicap apparently have excellent genetics. 97. Transcription of the zenk gene is stimulated when the zebra finch hears its species' song. Zenk produces an enzyme that changes the structure and function of neurons. The outcome is an auditory sensitization to slight variations in the song. 98. Knockout mice with nonfunctional DvII genes do not build nests or socialize with other mice. These mice also have an intensified startle response. Humans with certain psychiatric disorders may also startle easily, and often do not display appropriate social behavior. 99. Social animals face more competition for food, nesting sites, and other resources. They also tend to contract diseases and parasites more easily, due to frequent contact between individuals. The advantages of social behavior include safety in numbers for prey animals. Predators can take on larger prey when working together. In higher animals, learning may take place more effectively in social groups. 100. Drones (male bees) are haploid, while queen bees are diploid. Worker bees are either 50 percent or 100 percent related to each other, depending on whether they share the same alleles from their mother. Non-reproducing workers help to pass alleles they share into the next generation by caring for their siblings.

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