TEST BANK for Business Research Methods, 14th Edition by Pamela Schindler. by StudyGuide

CHAPTER 1 1) Explain the essential tenets of the scientific method and why this method is important for business research.

2) Explain the meaning of deduction and induction. Provide an argument that exemplifies each form.

3) Recently, several states have passed no texting while driving laws, believing that texting is a major influence in the increase in traffic accidents, especially among younger drivers. Explain the meaning of an operational definition and develop a good operational definition for texting while driving. Identify the omissions that would weaken your definition.

4) Recently, several studies have sought to measure the extent of binge drinking among college students. Explain the meaning of an operational definition and develop a good operational definition for binge drinking.

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5) Metro University has set a goal to increase the percentage of alumni who donate to the university and to increase the average amount given by those who have donated in the past. Metro University hopes that holding special events at homecoming night designed specifically for alums will result in an increase in donations. Consequently, it is planning a special Alumni Bash for homecoming night, and invitations have been sent to students who graduated between 1975 and 2000. Identify the dependent and independent variables in the example. State a hypothesis using the information provided.

6) Direct observation of phenomena, empirically testable hypotheses, and the ability to rule out rival hypotheses are all essential tenets of the ________. A) experiential method B) scientific method C) intuitive process D) strategic management process E) account planning philosophy

Business research ________ while data analytics ________.

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A) collects data to resolve a current dilemma; analyzes previously collected data. B) uses larger amounts of data; uses smaller amounts of data C) draws data from external and internal sources; draws data from internal data warehouses D) is referred to as big data; is referred to as small data

Business research ________ while data analytics ________.

A) analyzes historical data; collects data to resolve a current dilemma B) uses smaller amounts of data; uses larger amounts of data C) draws data from external and internal sources; draws data from internal data warehouses D) is referred to as big data; is referred to as small data

Business research ________ while data analytics ________.

A) analyzes historical data; collects data to resolve a current dilemma B) uses larger amounts of data; uses smaller amounts of data C) draws data from external and internal sources; draws data from internal data warehouses D) is referred to as small data; is referred to as big data

10) ________ is a form of argument that purports to be conclusive; the conclusion must necessarily follow from the reasons given. A) Induction B) Deduction C) Logic D) Philosophy E) Exposition

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11)

Which form of argument presents a conclusion based on reasons or proof? A) Induction B) Deduction C) Logic D) Philosophy E) Exposition

12)

Which of the following is a requirement for a deduction to be considered correct? A) Validity B) Reliability C) Inference D) Empiricism E) Conclusiveness

13) Consider the following statements: "Inner-city household interviewing is especially difficult and expensive. This survey involves substantial inner-city household interviewing. The interviewing in this survey will be especially difficult and expensive." This is an example of a(n) ________. A) empirical argument B) inductive argument C) exposition D) deductive argument E) hypothesis

14) ________ is a form of reasoning that draws a conclusion from one or more particular facts or pieces of evidence.

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A) Induction B) Deduction C) Empiricism D) Logic E) Association

15)

Because of the nature of induction, the conclusion can be thought of as ________. A) fact B) one explanation among many C) proof D) evidence E) empirical

16) Consider the following example: "Retail sales increases in the 2018 holiday season were below projections. Sales were disappointing because consumers were not confident about economic growth." This is an example of a(n) ________. A) inductive argument B) deductive argument C) empirical argument D) fact E) premise

17)

________ occurs when we observe a fact and ask, "Why is this?" A) Deduction B) Induction C) Exposition D) Empiricism E) Curiosity

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18) fact.

________ is the process by which we test whether a hypothesis is capable of explaining a

A) Deduction B) Induction C) Exposition D) Empiricism E) Curiosity

19) Which term below refers to a bundle of meanings or characteristics associated with certain concrete, unambiguous events, objects, conditions, or situations? A) Variable B) Construct C) Concept D) Theory E) Model

20) A ________ is an image or abstract idea specifically invented for a given research and/or theory-building project. A) variable B) construct C) concept D) theory E) model

21)

An automobile is a(n) ________ concept, while service quality is a(n) ________ concept.

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A) abstract; objective B) subjective; objective C) intangible; tangible D) objective; abstract E) factual; perceptual

22) Abstract concepts such as personality, need for variety, and materialism are often called ________. A) variables B) constructs C) concepts D) theories E) models

23)

Concepts are more ________, while constructs are more ________. A) concrete; abstract B) abstract; concrete C) intangible; tangible D) conceptual; factual E) intuitive; logical

24) Jack observes the history of his neighbor's purchase of new automobiles. His neighbor purchases a new car every year and always seems to have a nicer model than the year before. Jack thinks the dealership must appeal to his neighbor's fascination with new car styles. In this example, interest in new car styles is a ________.

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A) construct B) fact C) concept D) theory E) model

25) Bill often feels insecure about how others view him. To increase his feelings of selfesteem, Bill often buys expensive, luxury items. Self-esteem is an example of a ________. A) construct B) fact C) concept D) theory E) model

26)

A(n) ________ describes the interrelationships between concepts and constructs. A) hypothetical construct B) hypothesis C) conceptual scheme D) operational definition E) inductive argument

27) A chair is defined as a seat, and a seat is defined as an object for sitting, a chair. This is an example of a(n) ________. A) hypothetical construct B) conceptual scheme C) operational definition D) dictionary definition E) mediating variable

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28) To be categorized as a customer, an individual must have a history of shopping at the establishment at least twice prior to the start of the study with expenditures of more than $10. This is an example of a(n) ________. A) hypothetical construct B) conceptual scheme C) operational definition D) dictionary definition E) mediating variable

29)

A(n) ________ defines a variable in terms of specific measurement and testing criteria. A) hypothetical construct B) operational definition C) dictionary definition D) conceptual scheme E) moderating variable

30) Which term below refers to an event, act, characteristic, trait, or attribute that can be measured and to which we assign categorical values? A) Construct B) Concept C) Variable D) Schema E) Model

31)

Which of the following cannot be thought of as variables?

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A) Events B) Acts C) Characteristics D) People E) All of the above can be thought of as variables.

32)

Which of the following is another term for independent variable? A) Discrete B) Criterion C) Moderator D) Predictor E) Construct

33)

Which of the following is another term for dependent variable? A) Discrete B) Criterion C) Mediator D) Predictor E) Construct

34) Rachel is interested in learning the effect of using a celebrity endorsement on sales. The presence or absence of a celebrity endorsement is the ________ variable. A) independent B) dependent C) mediating D) criterion E) continuous

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35) Which variable listed below is the variable manipulated by the researcher, thereby causing an effect on another variable? A) Criterion B) Mediator C) Dependent D) Predictor E) Moderator

36) Which variable listed below is the variable measured, predicted, or otherwise monitored and expected to be affected by manipulation of another variable? A) Dependent B) Moderator C) Independent D) Predictor E) Extraneous

37) Variables that are included because they are believed to have a significant contributory or contingent effect on the independent variable–dependent variable relationship are called ________ variables. A) criterion B) predictor C) mediator D) moderating E) extraneous

38)

A variable that is assumed or excluded from a research study is a(n) ________ variable.

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A) criterion B) predictor C) mediator D) moderating E) extraneous

39) In the Southeast, the potato chip market share held by the Lays brand is 46 percent. This is an example of a(n) ________. A) research question B) descriptive hypothesis C) relational hypothesis D) explanatory hypothesis E) correlational hypothesis

40) Potato chip sales vary directly with the level of television viewing. This is an example of a ________. A) research question B) descriptive hypothesis C) correlational hypothesis D) causal hypothesis E) dichotomous hypothesis

41) An increase in hours of television viewing leads to increases in the sales of snack foods. This is an example of a ________.

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A) research question B) descriptive hypothesis C) correlational hypothesis D) causal hypothesis E) dichotomous hypothesis

42)

Which of the following is an explanatory hypothesis?

A) Young women purchase fewer meats than women who are 35 years of age or older. B) Sales of vegetarian foods vary by season. C) An increase in family income leads to an increase in the percentage of income spent on housing. D) Real estate investment trusts (REITs) experienced a record level of profitability in 2004. E) People in the South tend to rate the President more favorably than do people in the North.

43)

Which of the following is a correlational hypothesis?

A) A decrease in the value of the U.S. dollar relative to other currencies leads to an increase in exports. B) Education on the process of preparing meat for consumption leads to a decrease in the consumption of hamburgers. C) An increase in family income leads to an increase in the percentage of income spent on housing. D) Low interest rates resulted in a record year for real estate investment trusts (REITs) as individuals invested in real estate rather than other forms of investment. E) People in the South tend to rate the President more favorably than do people in the North.

44) Which of the following is not one of the conditions necessary for a hypothesis to be considered strong? Version 1

A) Adequate for its purpose B) Addresses the presence of extraneous variables C) Testable D) Better than rival hypotheses E) All of these are necessary conditions.

45) A ________ is a set of systematically interrelated concepts, definitions, and propositions that are advanced to explain or predict phenomena. A) conceptual scheme B) hypothesis C) theory D) diagram E) factual schema

46) Which term listed below refers to a representation of a system constructed to study some aspect of that system or the system as a whole? A) Conceptual scheme B) Hypothesis C) Theory D) Diagram E) Model

47)

The role of a model is to ________ while a theory's role is to ________. A) represent; explain B) explain; represent C) propose; prove D) describe; predict E) examine; experiment

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48) Which type of variable is ignored (not measured) as it is believed its effect on the independent variable is randomized? A) Confounding B) Control C) Dependent D) Independent

49)

Which of the following is not a condition of sound reasoning? A) Defining the management dilemma B) Identifying correct premises C) Testing connections between facts and assumptions D) Making claims based on adequate evidence E) All of the above are conditions for sound reasoning.

50)

Data blending requires

A) drawing data from separate data files to create a new data file that can be analyzed. B) removing identical data from multiple data files so the data exists in only one data file. C) analyzing separate data files and identifying conclusions that exist in all those files analyzed. D) merging all data files into one massive data file that can be analyzed. E) None of the above, as they do not describe data blending.

51)

A conceptual scheme

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A) identifies all concepts/constructs of interest to a research question. B) identifies the hypothesized relationships of all concepts/constructs of interest to a research question. C) provides a spatial relationship of all concepts/constructs of interest to a research question. D) identifies key concepts/constructs that must be measured to answer a research question. E) Does none of the above.

52)

CEOs believe the next 2-3 years will be more transformation than the last 50 because:

A) growth will likely come from new partnerships or mergers, rather than existing businesses B) large percent of employees will have to be retrained C) industries are in the mist of disruption D) investments in AI will pay off E) all of the above.

53) CEOs believe the next 2-3 years will be more transformation than the last 50 because of all EXCEPT which of the following: A) growth will likely come from new partnerships or mergers, rather than existing businesses B) large percent of employees will have to be retrained C) industries are in the mist of disruption D) cyber security will be guaranteed E) none of the above.

54)

A strategic inflection point is

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A) evidence that a business’s fundamentals are about to change B) evidence that existing business models are working C) do not demand a response by the business D) come from a business’s existing competitors E) none of the above.

55)

If a business can identify early warnings of strategic inflection points, it can A) change its business practices to remain competitive B) avoid irrelevance in its own industry C) challenge taken-for-granted assumptions on which its business is based D) create a disruption in its own or a different industry E) all of the above.

56)

When a business manager makes a decision about a management dilemma, he or she A) makes a judgment after careful consideration B) may rely on past experience, rather than gathering new data C) could delve into past data using sophisticated data analytics to gather new insights D) takes action appropriate to the decision. E) all of the above.

57) If a business dashboard revealed rising costs in an operating business unit, this would be a possible A) strategic inflection point. B) management dilemma. C) data silo. D) data warehouse. E) None of the above is correct.

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58)

Which of the following is data as opposed to information? A) raw, unprocessed facts B) a calculation of employee turnover for the last 12 months based on employee length of

service C) the defection rate of a machine based on percent of defective products produced by a machine in the last 30 days D) the number of employees who completed privacy compliance training during the calendar year E) A and D above

59)

Which of the following is an insight as opposed to information?

A) the number of customer complaints on social media has dropped 50% in the last year. B) customer retention is up 20 percent in the last 90 days. C) higher employee turnover is likely caused by new rule requiring employees to arrive 20 minutes before their paid shift starts. D) profits are up 8 percent over the same period last year E) None of the above are insights

60)

Which of the following is NOT a problem caused by data silos? A) incompatible data that can’t be easily blended B) data duplication C) missed opportunities D) easier access to data across the organization E) slower decision making

61) The data-driven organization is the gold-standard for business. In a data-driven organization ________.

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A) data silos are common B) decision makers have access to all business data C) only numerical data is available, not text, video, audio, or pictorial data and information D) consistency of data availability is not important E) None of the above is TRUE

62) Which term below refers to an electronic storehouse where vast arrays of data and information are organized to facilitate access and analysis by decision makers? A) Data silo B) Business dashboard C) Data blending D) Strategic Inflection Point E) Data warehouse

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 01_14e_TB 6) B 7) A 8) B 9) D 10) B 11) B 12) A 13) D 14) A 15) B 16) A 17) B 18) A 19) C 20) B 21) D 22) B 23) A 24) A 25) A 26) C 27) D 28) C 29) B 30) C 31) D Version 1

32) D 33) B 34) A 35) D 36) A 37) D 38) E 39) B 40) C 41) D 42) C 43) E 44) B 45) C 46) E 47) A 48) B 49) E 50) A 51) B 52) E 53) D 54) A 55) E 56) E 57) B 58) E 59) C 60) D 61) B Version 1

62) E

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CHAPTER 2 1) The exploration during a research project allows a researcher to accomplish several objectives. Name three of the objectives common to this stage.

2) Explain the difference between the following: data, finding, insight, and recommendation.

3) Explain the relationship between the right to quality research and the right of participant confidentiality.

Explain how a manager's hidden agenda can damage business research.

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Which of the following terms fails to capture the meaning of a research design? A) Map B) Blueprint C) Model D) Dictionary E) Guidebook

6) Apple plans to survey every customer who has purchased an Apple computer in the last 5 years. Apple plans to use a ________. A) convenience sample B) snowball sample C) systematic sample D) census E) random sample

7) Which of the following best describes the relationship between management dilemmas, key performance indicators, and dashboards? A) Dashboards cannot be designed to depict management dilemmas. B) Key performance indicators may reveal management dilemmas. C) Key performance indicators cannot be displayed on a dashboard. D) Management dilemmas are symptoms of problems, while key performance indicators are problems.

8) If a dashboard display revealed rising costs in an operating division of a business, this would be a possible

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A) research question. B) management dilemma. C) research design. D) limitation. E) None of the above is correct.

9) time

If a business does not collect data on key performance indicators, it has a more difficult

A) defining management dilemmas. B) creating a research design. C) in sampling design. D) collecting data. E) None of the above is correct.

10)

Exploration

A) is highly structured research. B) is used to refine research questions. C) cannot be used to solve a management problem. D) cannot be used to understand a manager's options when solving a problem or addressing an opportunity. E) None of the above is correct.

11)

The research question A) is a possible resolution to the management problem. B) is a hypothesis to be studied. C) represents a selection of action choices. D) is the focus of a research project. E) All of the above are correct.

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12)

A research study

A) has value only if the information collected helps make a better decision than would be made without the new information. B) has value only if the budget needed to collect the data is less than the decision's estimated value. C) has value only if the budget for research is exceeded by the decision's estimated value. D) has an estimated value that is determined from the cost of acquiring the data and the value of any possible resulting decisions. E) All of the above are correct.

13) McGraw-Hill is planning a study of educator preferences to determine the needs of college instructors. Because of the number of college instructors, McGraw-Hill will select a portion of the target population, known as a(n) ________, to participate in the study. A) element B) sample C) sample frame D) census E) extent

14) Information collected from participants, by observation, or from secondary sources is called ________. A) response B) data C) knowledge D) fact E) perceptual content

15)

Data collected from an article in a business magazine would be

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A) primary data. B) secondary data. C) nominal data. D) ratio data. E) interval data.

16)

Data collected by interview of a fan at a concert would be A) primary data. B) secondary data. C) nominal data. D) ratio data. E) interval data.

17)

Data collected by observation of which aisle a store visitor takes when entering would be A) primary data. B) secondary data. C) ordinal data. D) ratio data. E) interval data.

18)

Data collected by observation of which aisle a store visitor takes when entering would be A) secondary data. B) nominal data. C) ordinal data. D) ratio data. E) interval data.

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19)

Data collected during a survey asking someone their actual age would be A) secondary data. B) nominal data. C) ordinal data. D) ratio data. E) interval data.

20) Data collected during a survey asking someone to rank their top three favorite ice cream flavors would be A) secondary data. B) nominal data. C) ordinal data. D) ratio data. E) specialized data.

21) Data collected by asking a participant to rate three different movies based on character development, each movie on the same ten-point scale, would be A) secondary data. B) nominal data. C) ordinal data. D) ratio data. E) interval data.

22) Assume a business research study is conducted in a lab and designed to evaluate the scent of various flavors of coffee. The design requires several data collectors to evaluate those scents. The researcher will struggle with the data's

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A) abstractness. B) verifiability. C) elusiveness. D) truthfulness. E) loudness.

23) A business wants to evaluate a participant's reaction to a sound track that contains some loud noises, so it designs an experiment. Assume it cannot interview every participant immediately, so it takes a video of their response and interviews each participant within 24 hours of the event. The researcher is attempting to account for the data's A) abstractness. B) verifiability. C) elusiveness. D) truthfulness. E) concreteness.

24) A business has two options, collect data at the time of an event or interview participants about what they remember within 1 week after the event. By collecting data at the time of the event, it is attempting to account for the data's A) abstractness. B) verifiability. C) truthfulness. D) concreteness. E) categorization.

25) Data have many characteristics. If you cannot see or feel the data being measured, you are describing their level of ________.

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A) abstractness B) elusiveness C) verifiability D) closeness to the phenomenon E) replicability

26)

Secondary data have a lower level of ________ than primary data. A) abstractness B) elusiveness C) verifiability D) closeness to the phenomenon E) replicability

27)

Data preparation A) addresses recording or data entry errors. B) clarifies unclear or unexpected responses. C) assigns codes to reduce the responses to manageable categories. D) determines if the preassigned codes are appropriate for subsequent analysis. E) All of the above are correct.

28)

To address out-of-range data entry errors, during data preparation, a researcher

A) summarizes the data on each variable to determine if the codes not specified were entered. B) reviews the original data instruments to determine what response was chosen. C) determines how to address each instance of out-of-range data. D) may drop a question from the survey containing too many out-of-range data errors. E) All of the above are correct.

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29) If a ________ sampling design is chosen, the process for choosing the sample must give every person within the target population a known nonzero chance of selection. A) census B) judgment C) nonprobability D) probability E) primary

30) Which type of sample provides a group of participants who are most representative of the target population? A) Census B) Judgment C) Probability D) Nonprobability E) Primary

31) During the ________ stage, the analyst will look for patterns of responses by looking for relationships among variables. A) data editing B) data collection C) data analysis D) sampling E) reporting

32) Ensuring consistency among participants, locating omissions, and reducing errors in recording are all benefits of ________.

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A) data collection B) data preparation C) sampling D) coding E) data analysis

33)

Applying statistical techniques to data is an aspect of ________. A) sampling B) data collection C) pilot testing D) data analysis E) data transformation

34)

A key pattern in the data is called ________. A) a finding B) an insight C) a fact D) a recommendation E) data

35) In a research study on implementing new safety practices, the research discovered that employees with fewer years of experience had different preferences than those with more experience. This is an example of ________. A) a finding B) an insight C) a fact D) a recommendation E) data

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36)

Using the research question to interpret a pattern in the data is called ________. A) a finding B) an insight C) a fact D) a recommendation E) data

37) In a research study on choosing a new compensation system, the research discovered that men had different preferences than women. This is an example of ________. A) a finding B) an insight C) a fact D) a recommendation E) data

38) Offering the manager direction on a decision related to the research question is called ________. A) a finding B) an insight C) a fact D) a recommendation E) data

39) "Option A is far more strongly supported by the data than Option B. You should implement Option A." This is an example of ________.

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A) a finding B) an insight C) a fact D) a recommendation E) data

40)

Which of the following can be used to develop a research project time frame? A) CPM B) Gantt chart C) Research Process D) CPM and Gantt chart E) CPM and research process

41) Jason is entering the data analysis portion of his research project. Data preparation and examination involves all of the following activities except ________. A) reducing data to a manageable size B) developing summaries C) coding of responses D) looking for patterns E) applying statistical techniques to the data

42)

A researcher who is method-bound is likely to ________. A) be responsible for data analysis B) utilize a probability sample C) prefer one research approach over all others D) mine a client's database E) All of the above

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43)

Which of the following is not a common research process problem? A) A manager's hidden agenda B) Overembracing data analytics C) Unresearchable questions D) Ill-defined management problems E) Pilot testing

44)

Ill-defined problems are those that ________. A) have too many interrelated facets for measurement to handle with accuracy B) will take expensive methods to answer. C) can be answered through data mining D) cannot be addressed with secondary data E) develop in method-bound research projects

45) The question, "Should products be withdrawn if even one death is associated with its prescribed use, even if no fault for the tampered product accrues to the manufacturer?" is an example of a(n) ________. A) ill-defined problem B) overembracing data analytics C) favored-technique problem D) unresearchable question E) manager's hidden agenda

46) A researcher has exceptional experience in moderating focus groups and prefers to include this group interview method in all research projects, regardless of its appropriate application. This is an example of which of the following potential research process problems?

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A) Ill-defined problem B) Overembracing data analytics C) Favored-technique problem D) Unresearchable question E) A manager's hidden agenda

47) A researcher chooses the wrong statistical test to assess the strength of a relationship between two variables. This is an example of which of the following potential research process problems? A) Ill-defined problem B) Overembracing data analytics C) Researcher inexperience D) Unresearchable question E) A manager's hidden agenda

48) A researcher cannot identify a currently available research technique that can be used to address a particular research question. This is an example of which of the following potential research process problems? A) Ill-defined problem B) Overembracing data analytics C) Researcher inexperience D) Unresearchable question E) A manager's hidden agenda

49) A manager always turns to his extensive data warehouse to find data related to his research question, regardless of the data's age or applicability to current conditions, rejecting a problem-specific research project. This is an example of which of the following potential research process problems?

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A) Ill-defined problem B) Overembracing data analytics C) Favored-technique problem D) Unresearchable question E) A manager's hidden agenda

50)

Planning the research design involves decisions regarding ________. A) data collection mode B) type of study C) measurement D) sampling plans E) All of the above

51) The federal government conducts a census of the U.S. population rather than a sample because ________. A) a census is less expensive than a sample B) a sample may not fully represent the population C) it is faster to collect data using a census D) data collection is more manageable E) All of the above

52) Which of the following questions is considered when discussing the management dilemma?

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A) How can management eliminate negative symptoms? B) What does the manager need to know to choose the best alternative from the available sources of action? C) What is the recommended course of action? D) What symptoms cause management concern? E) What should be asked or observed to obtain the information the manager needs?

53)

The fundamental weakness in the research process is ________. A) incorrectly defining the research question B) identifying a flawed sample frame C) misdefining the target population D) failing to identify all relevant secondary information E) skipping the exploratory phase

54) Secondary data as a means of addressing a management problem are considered weaker than primary data because the data A) were potentially collected to address a different problem. B) are older, and therefore, irrelevant to current conditions. C) are less specific to the current problem. D) All of the above are true. E) None of the above is true.

55)

The target population A) is identical to the sample population. B) is smaller in size than the sample population. C) must be defined before research begins. D) must be able to be captured in a sample frame. E) None of the above is correct.

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56) A researcher is to conduct a survey of college graduates to study their 5-year postgraduation job placement. In this example, ________ is the target population and ________ is the case. A) any single college graduate; all college graduates B) all college graduates; any single college graduate C) all college graduates who graduated 5 years ago; any single college graduate who graduated 5 years ago D) any single college graduate who graduated 5 years ago; all college graduates who graduated 5 years ago E) None of the above is correct.

57) If a research's scope has been defined, this is one step toward achieving which standard of effective research? A) Purpose clearly defined B) Research design thoroughly planned and executed C) High ethical standards applied D) Adequate analysis for decision maker's needs E) Limitations frankly revealed

58) If a researcher avoids using his personal bias to select the method for collecting data, this is one step toward achieving which standard of effective research? A) Purpose clearly defined B) Adequate analysis for decision maker's needs C) Research design clearly planned and executed D) Limitations frankly revealed E) Findings reported unambiguously; insights and recommendations justified

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59) If a researcher operationally defines all concepts, constructs, and variables, this is one step toward achieving which standard of effective research? A) Purpose clearly defined B) Research design thoroughly planned and executed C) High ethical standards applied D) Adequate analysis for decision maker's needs E) Findings reported unambiguously; insights and recommendations justified

60) If a researcher includes design safeguards to protect participants, this is one step toward achieving which standard of effective research? A) Purpose clearly defined B) Adequate analysis for decision maker's needs C) High ethical standards applied D) Limitations frankly revealed E) Findings reported unambiguously; insights and recommendations justified

61) If a researcher connects findings to the research question, this is one step toward achieving which standard of effective research? A) Purpose clearly defined B) Adequate analysis for decision maker's needs C) High ethical standards applied D) Limitations frankly revealed E) Research design thoroughly planned and executed

62) If a researcher reveals the impact of data collection problems on findings and insights, this is one step toward achieving which standard of effective research?

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A) Purpose clearly defined B) Adequate analysis for decision maker's needs C) High ethical standards applied D) Limitations frankly revealed E) Findings reported unambiguously; insights and recommendations justified

63) A series of sequential, clearly defined stages for collecting, analyzing and reporting data defines the A) management dilemma. B) study limitation. C) research process. D) research question. E) None of the above is correct.

64)

During the process of clarifying the research question, which ethical issue is of concern? A) Participant's right of confidentiality B) Researcher's right of adequate compensation C) Researcher's right to absence of sponsor deception D) Participant's right of informed concept E) None of the above is correct.

65)

During the stage of research design which ethical issue is of concern? A) Sponsor's right to quality research B) Sponsor's right to finding's non-disclosure C) Researcher's right to adequate compensation D) Researcher's right to absence of participant deception E) None of the above is correct.

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66) Researcher's right to consenting participant's completion affects which stage in the research process? A) Stage 1: Clarify the Research Question B) Stage 2: Design the Research C) Stage 3: Collect and Prepare the Data D) Stage 4: Analyze and Interpret the Data E) Stage 5: Report Insights and Recommendations

67)

Sponsor's right to quality research affects which stage(s) in the research process? A) Stage 1: Clarify the Research Question B) Stage 2: Research Design C) Stage 3: Collect and Prepare the Data D) Stage 4: Analyze and Interpret the Data E) All of the above are correct.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 02_14e_TB 5) D 6) D 7) B 8) B 9) A 10) B 11) E 12) E 13) B 14) B 15) B 16) A 17) A 18) B 19) D 20) C 21) E 22) B 23) C 24) C 25) A 26) D 27) E 28) E 29) D 30) C Version 1

31) C 32) B 33) D 34) A 35) A 36) B 37) B 38) D 39) D 40) D 41) E 42) C 43) E 44) A 45) D 46) C 47) C 48) D 49) B 50) E 51) B 52) B 53) A 54) D 55) C 56) C 57) A 58) C 59) A 60) C Version 1

61) B 62) D 63) C 64) C 65) A 66) C 67) E

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CHAPTER 3 1) A Google search can be classified as which type of information source? (Select all that apply.)

A) Secondary B) Primary C) Tertiary D) Statistical E) External

Explain the five steps in conducting a literature search.

What are the three levels of information? Provide examples for each level.

4) What are the five factors a manager should consider when evaluating an information source? Explain each one.

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5) The exploratory research phase of a research project allows a researcher to accomplish several objectives. Name three of the objectives common to this stage.

6) Which of the following is not a type of secondary sources used during the exploratory phase of the research process? A) Research studies B) Group discussions C) Case studies D) Books E) Information from organization's database

What is the first step in conducting a literature search? A) Define the management dilemma, research question, and investigative questions B) Identify key terms, people, or events C) Search indexes, bibliographies, and the Web D) Locate and review secondary sources E) Evaluate the value and credibility of secondary sources

8) ________ are original works of research or raw data without interpretation that represent an official opinion or position.

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A) Secondary sources B) Primary sources C) Statistical sources D) Bibliographies E) Indexes

Which of the following is an example of a primary source of information? A) Newscasts B) Newspaper articles C) Encyclopedias D) Google searches E) Internal sales reports

10)

All of the following are examples of primary sources of information except ________. A) memos B) letters C) transcripts of speeches D) Google searches E) economic data

11) Micah is reviewing encyclopedia entries, textbooks, handbooks, and magazine and newspaper articles to gather information for her project. These are all examples of ________ sources of information. A) secondary B) primary C) tertiary D) statistical E) external

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12) Which information source may be interpretations of a secondary source but is generally represented by indexes, bibliographies, and Internet search engines? A) Secondary B) Primary C) Tertiary D) Statistical E) External

13) Timothy wants to identify and locate books and journal articles from a large set. What type of information source should he use? A) Index B) Bibliography C) Encyclopedia D) Handbook E) Dictionary

14)

Which of the following is a reason researchers use encyclopedias? A) To verify spelling B) To find authors and titles of prior works C) To locate articles from a large set D) To find historical information E) All of the above are correct.

15)

Which of the following is not included in a good handbook?

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A) Statistics B) Directory information C) A glossary of terms D) Lists of consultants in the field E) References

16) Contact information for professional organizations and companies in a field may be located in a(n) ________. A) index B) bibliography C) handbook D) dictionary E) directory

17)

All of the following are factors are useful in evaluating a source except ________. A) purpose B) scope C) cost D) authority E) audience

18) When researchers consider the explicit or hidden agenda of an information source, the source's ________ is under evaluation. A) purpose B) scope C) authority D) audience E) format

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19)

All of following address the authority of a source except for which question? A) What are the credentials of the author or institution? B) What is the reputation of the sponsoring organization? C) Does the source give you a means of contacting anyone for further information? D) How old is the information? E) If facts are supplied, where do they come from?

20) When evaluating an information source, the time period and geographic limitations are considered as part of the ________ factor. A) purpose B) scope C) authority D) audience E) format

21) In Nicolas Perricone's first book, his affiliation with the Yale School of Dermatology was identified on the front cover of the book. This enhanced the perceived credibility of the information in the book using the ________ factor. A) purpose B) scope C) authority D) audience E) format

22) Suppose you were starting a research study based upon secondary sources about the use of computers for educational purposes in colleges. You should probably begin by doing which of the following?

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A) Check your library's online catalog of books. B) Search Amazon.com for new publications on this topic. C) Check several bibliographic indexes. D) Since this is a technology area, consult the appropriate Doctoral Dissertation Abstracts bulletins. E) Consult a government documents research librarian.

23)

Which of the following is not a good reason for using secondary data?

A) Data on the past cannot be collected today. B) Even if the definitions of variables being studied are not the same, research can be modified according to secondary data available. C) The time involved in primary data collection may render the study obsolete. D) Authentic data required may already have been collected by other agencies.

24) For an organization, which of the following is not an example of an internal source of secondary data? A) The data stored in the records of the company's management information system B) Surveys collected by the internal sales staff, from the company's distributors C) A market survey commissioned by the organization, completed three years ago D) Inventory records of the materials department

25) Data originating from studies that are conducted by others and for a different purpose than the one for which the data are being reviewed are called ________ data. A) primary B) secondary C) quantitative D) statistical E) descriptive

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26)

Which of the following is the first step in an exploratory study? A) Define the management question. B) Choose a target population. C) Interview an expert. D) Conduct a literature search. E) Write measurement questions.

27) Maurice is beginning a new research project. As he begins exploration, Maurice will most likely begin with ________. A) a literature search B) an expert interview C) designing a survey D) preparing measurement questions E) brainstorming

28) A management question asks "Why is product A's sales below projections?" This is an example of a(n) ________ type of management question. A) evaluation of solution B) choice of purpose or objectives C) troubleshooting D) Control E) None of the above is correct.

29) Which term below refers to an electronic storehouse where vast arrays of collected, integrated data are organized to facilitate retrieval and interpretation by end users?

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A) Data record B) Data mart C) Decision support system D) Decision assessment system E) Data warehouse

30) Elizabeth has just been named project leader on a research project about perceptions of bar soap and body wash. To gain background information, Elizabeth searched for articles about consumer responses to body cleansing products using an online database. In this situation, Elizabeth relied on ________ data. A) news B) reference C) secondary D) primary E) pilot

31)

Which of the following is an example of secondary data? A) Transcripts from a series of focus groups conducted for the current research problem B) Diaries kept by panel participants who are currently evaluating their consumption of

milk C) Sales records for the past 5 years D) Completed questionnaires from a mail survey E) Data file from a Web survey deployed as part of the current research design

32)

The problem or opportunity that requires a business decision is called the ________.

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A) research question B) management-research-question hierarchy C) management dilemma D) management question E) investigative question

33) The process of stating the basic dilemma and then developing other questions by progressively breaking down the original question into more specific ones is called the ________. A) research question B) management-research-question hierarchy C) management dilemma D) management question E) investigative question

34) Which of the following questions is considered when discussing the management dilemma? A) How can management eliminate negative symptoms? B) What does the manager need to know to choose the best alternative from the available sources of action? C) What is the recommended course of action? D) What symptoms cause management concern? E) What should be asked or observed to obtain the information the manager needs?

35) Which of the following questions is considered when determining investigative questions?

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36) Which of the following questions is considered when developing measurement questions? A) How can management eliminate negative symptoms? B) What does the manager need to know to choose the best alternative from the available sources of action? C) What is the recommended course of action? D) What symptoms cause management concern? E) What should be asked or observed to obtain the information the manager needs?

37) Bank Choice is concerned about stagnating profits and asks, "How can profitability be improved?" This is an example of a(n) ________. A) management question B) research question C) investigative question D) measurement question E) management dilemma

38) Questions that the researcher must answer to satisfactorily arrive at a conclusion about the research question are called ________ questions.

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A) management B) research C) investigative D) measurement E) hypothetical

39) The actual questions that researchers use to collect data in a study are called ________ questions. A) management B) dilemma C) investigative D) measurement E) survey

40)

Measurement questions are questions posed to ________. A) managers B) researchers C) field workers D) study participants E) pollsters

41)

A researcher uses an expert interview when he or she wants ________. A) to better understand a management dilemma or management problem B) to identify possible research questions C) to define management questions D) to finalize measurement questions E) all of these except "to finalize measurement questions"

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42)

Which of the following is not an objective of exploratory research? A) Expand understanding of management dilemma. B) Gather information to refine the research question(s). C) Identify possible sample frames. D) Gather information to formulate investigative questions. E) Finalize measurement questions.

43) In evaluating a secondary source, identifying the ________ allows you to identify any hidden agenda that might bias the information in that source. A) purpose B) scope C) authority D) audience E) format

44) In evaluating a secondary source, identifying the ________ allows you to verify the credibility of the author of the source. A) purpose B) scope C) authority D) audience E) format

45) In evaluating a secondary source, identifying the ________ allows you to evaluate the age of the data and its comprehensiveness on the topic.

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A) purpose B) scope C) authority D) audience E) format

46) In evaluating a secondary source, identifying the ________ allows you to evaluate the degree to which the data might suit your necessary level of knowledge or expertise. A) purpose B) scope C) authority D) audience E) format

47) A management question asks, "Should we be developing products for millennials?" This is an example of a(n) ________ type of management question. A) evaluation of solution B) choice of purpose or objectives C) troubleshooting D) Control E) None of the above is correct.

48) A management question asks "Should we hire a search firm to fill our engineering positions or conduct the search ourselves?" This is an example of a(n) ________ type of management question.

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A) evaluation of solution B) choice of purpose or objectives C) troubleshooting D) Control E) None of the above is correct.

49) In determining whether a considered research project has value, you develop decision criteria and a decision rule to consider plausible actions. You are A) conducting an ex post facto evaluation. B) conducting an option analysis. C) conducting an exploration strategy. D) evaluating the scope of the project. E) None of the above is correct.

50)

Which of the following is a decision variable? A) person's ice cream flavor preference B) person's preferred brand of ice cream C) person's preferred ice cream packaging D) person's age E) All of the above are correct.

51) "Choose the option that appeals to the widest range of people based on age and that favors current packaging materials, while offering the best opportunity to increase profits." This is an example of a(n) ________.

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A) option analysis B) ex post facto evaluation C) decision variable D) decision rule E) management question

52) In order to get research funded, a manager must present his idea for a research project and argue its merits for company profits to the head of an in-house research department, who decides which research gets funding. This is an example of ________ budgeting? A) ex post facto B) task C) functional area D) ad hoc E) None of the above is true.

53) A manager adjusts her operating budget in order to fund a research project for her business unit. This is an example of ________ budgeting? A) ex post facto B) task C) functional area D) ad hoc E) None of the above is true.

54)

What aspect of the research process is affected by the exploration phase?

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A) Research design B) Research proposal C) Investigative questions D) Measurement questions E) All of the above are correct.

55)

Through exploration, researchers can ________. A) establish priorities for dilemmas and problems to be addressed B) develop hypotheses C) gather background information on the topics in order to refine the research question D) identify information that should be gathered to formulate investigative questions E) All of the above are correct.

56)

Exploration strategy methods exclude ________. A) examination of company annual reports B) examination of digital company records C) interviews with company decision makers D) surveys of customers E) All of the above are appropriate exploration strategy methods.

57) During exploration you conduct an expert interview. The transcript of that interview is part of your literature search. ⊚ true ⊚ false

58) The exploration strategy answers the questions "What information sources should be used?" and "What methods should be used to extract information from those sources?"

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⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 03_14e_TB 1) [C, E] 6) B 7) A 8) B 9) E 10) D 11) A 12) C 13) A 14) D 15) A 16) E 17) C 18) A 19) D 20) B 21) C 22) C 23) C 24) B 25) B 26) A 27) A 28) C 29) E 30) C Version 1

31) C 32) C 33) B 34) D 35) B 36) E 37) A 38) C 39) D 40) D 41) E 42) E 43) A 44) C 45) B 46) D 47) B 48) A 49) B 50) E 51) D 52) C 53) C 54) E 55) E 56) D 57) FALSE 58) TRUE

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CHAPTER 4 1) Explain the difference between a field setting (research under field conditions), laboratory setting, and simulation.

Compare and contrast the cross-sectional and longitudinal designs.

Describe the three aspects of research design.

Research design encompasses all of the components below except ________. A) data collection design B) sampling design C) instrument development D) data analysis E) All of the above are part of the design strategy.

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5) Which type of study provides a summation of data, often recasting data to achieve a deeper understanding? A) Formal B) Causal-predictive C) Reporting D) Experimental E) Descriptive

The goal of a formal study is to ________. A) discover future research tasks B) expand understanding of a topic C) test hypotheses D) provide insight E) develop hypotheses

All of the following are possible goals of a causal-explanatory study except ________. A) discover future research tasks B) expand relationships among variables C) test hypotheses D) determine how one variable produces changes in another E) All of the above are goals of causal-explanatory studies.

A statistical study is one that ________.

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A) attempts to capture a population's characteristics by making inferences from a sample's characteristics and testing resulting hypotheses B) emphasizes a full contextual analysis of a few events or conditions and their interrelations C) discovers answers to the questions of who, what, when, where, or how much D) attempts to reveal why or how one variable produces changes in another E) provides repeated measures over an extended period of time

A case study is one that ________.

10) In the best-selling book, Good to Great, the author examined the characteristics of eleven successful companies by studying the full context of each organization, using multiple sources of information and identifying the relationship between managerial decisions and success. This is an example of a(n) ________. A) case study B) exploratory study C) descriptive study D) statistical study E) causal study

11)

A descriptive study is one that ________.

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12)

A causal-explanatory study is one that ________.

13)

A(n) ________ study explains what happened to a measured variable after-the-fact. A) ex post facto B) exploratory C) experimental D) statistical E) causal

14) A(n) ________ study involves manipulation of one or more variables to determine the effect on another variable.

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A) ex post facto B) exploratory C) experimental D) causal-predictive E) experimental and causal-predictive

15)

An experimental study is one that ________.

A) attempts to capture a population's characteristics by making inferences from a sample's characteristics and testing resulting hypotheses B) involves manipulation of one or more variables to determine the effect on another variable C) discovers answers to the questions of who, what, when, where, or how much D) attempts to reveal why or how one variable produces changes in another E) provides repeated measures over an extended period of time

16) What type of study is being conducted when Land's End Home mails a catalog with a fluffy set of towels on the cover to one group of consumers and the same catalog with a cover featuring a photograph of a beautifully made bed to another consumer group in order to test differences in response between the two groups? A) Case study B) Longitudinal study C) Exploratory study D) Experiment E) Ex post facto study

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17) InStyle magazine wants to examine the pull power of two types of copy in increasing the level of newsstand sales for a given month. The issue will feature British royal Kate Middleton, but InStyle wants to know whether newsstand sales will be higher for a cover that mentions Middleton's daily life or one that promises to share Middleton's style secrets. The issues are identical with the exception of the copy underneath the cover graphic of Middleton. Which type of study is this an example of? A) Case study B) Experimental study C) Exploratory study D) Longitudinal study E) Ex post facto study

18) Kroger, a grocery store chain, wants to identify the ideal store layout for increasing store sales. Because it primarily uses two store designs, one a grid layout with vertical aisles divided by a center aisle and another using a traditional straight-aisle pattern, Kroger will match pairs of stores that have different designs but similar shopper demographics and location. Sales from each pair will then be compared to determine if store design is related to sales. Which type of study is this an example of? A) Case study B) Experimental study C) Exploratory study D) Longitudinal study E) Ex post facto study

19)

Which of the following is not an example of a monitoring study? A) Counting traffic at an intersection B) Recording license plates in a parking lot C) Mystery shopping in a competitor's store D) Documenting interactions between customers and a call center E) Phone interview

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20) The primary difference between a monitoring study and a communication study is that in a communication study, the researcher ________. A) observes participants B) documents activities without eliciting direct responses C) asks questions of participants D) collects data E) records information over a period of time

21)

Which of the following is a type of monitoring study? A) Phone interview B) Counting cars in a parking lot C) Mall-intercept interview D) E-mail survey E) All of the above are correct.

22) InZone Research will survey fans attending one of the Final Four games to assess preferences for pricing and products offered at concession stands. What type of study is this an example of? A) Formal B) Cross-sectional C) Longitudinal D) Monitoring E) Ex post facto

23) When political researchers assess opinions towards President Trump's plan for immigration reform, a(n) ________ study is used. However, when political researchers want to assess the change in opinion toward immigration reform since the 1990s, a(n) ________ study should be used. Version 1

A) monitoring; communication B) experimental; ex post facto C) cross-sectional; longitudinal D) exploratory; formal E) laboratory; field

24) Harris Interactive monthly surveys members of its YouthQuery, a group of consumers ages 8 to 18 who were recruited to report consumption data on a variety of products and their response to various promotional methods. The YouthQuery members are part of a ________. A) longitudinal panel B) cross-sectional study C) monitoring study D) cohort study E) statistical study

25)

Longitudinal studies of cohort groups ________. A) study the same people over time B) use panel members as participants C) study attitudes at a single point in time D) use different participants for each sequenced measurement E) occur under actual environmental conditions

26) When studies are conducted under controlled conditions that do not simulate actual environmental conditions, the study is conducted ________.

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A) experimentally B) ex post facto C) under field conditions D) under laboratory conditions E) via monitoring

27)

Studies that are conducted under field conditions ________. A) occur under actual environmental conditions B) simulate environmental conditions C) imitate reality D) control for extraneous variables E) facilitate measurement of the variables of interest

28)

Which of the following is true of studies conducted under laboratory conditions? A) Occur under actual environmental conditions B) Simulate environmental conditions C) Imitate reality D) Dependent variable naturally occurs E) Facilitate measurement of the variables of interest

29)

A simulation is a study that is designed to ________. A) occur under actual environmental conditions B) imitate reality C) facilitate measurement D) control all possible variables E) All of the above are correct.

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30)

A ________ is a study in which the conditions of a system or process are replicated. A) laboratory study B) field study C) mall-intercept study D) simulation E) mystery shopping study

31) Which of the following can be classified as a causal research study? The researcher is attempting to find out ________. A) what percentage of the population believes consumer products are of the same or better quality today than 10 years ago B) which manufacturers in the United States contribute the highest percentage of their net income to private nonprofit organizations C) how the murder rate in Detroit fluctuates with the economy and population trends D) why technology unemployment is higher in Chicago than Houston

32) Which of the following trade-offs is accurate? "Research designs may be viewed as being ________. A) exploratory or experimental B) laboratory or ex post facto C) cross-sectional or case D) descriptive or causal E) longitudinal or statistical

33)

A participant's perceptual awareness refers to their

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A) awareness of the sponsor of the study. B) changing their behavior in a study. C) understanding of the purpose of the study as explained to them by the researcher. D) awareness that they are part of a disguised study. E) All of the above are correct.

34) Which of the following research designs uses interpretive techniques to describe, decide, translate, and come to terms with the meaning of a phenomenon? A) Quantitative B) Causal-predictive C) Descriptive D) Qualitative E) All of these are correct.

35) Which of the following research designs is interested in determining the quantity and frequency of magnitude of a phenomenon? A) Quantitative B) Causal-predictive C) Descriptive D) Qualitative E) All of these are correct.

36)

Which type of research design would employ a focus group followed by a survey? A) Quantitative design B) Causal-predictive design C) Single-methodology design D) Qualitative design E) Multimethodology design

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37)

Which of the following research designs could describe an experiment? A) Exploratory design B) Descriptive design C) Single-methodology design D) Qualitative design E) Multimethodology design

38) What aspect of research design results in a decision to communicate with all members of a target population? A) Data collection design B) Development of a measurement instrument C) Sampling design D) All of these are correct. E) None of these are correct.

39) What aspect of research design results in monitoring a group of doctors in a children's hospital? A) Data collection design B) Development of a measurement instrument C) Sampling design D) All of these are correct. E) None of these are correct.

40)

What aspect of research design results in development of training for interviewers?

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A) Data collection design B) Development of a measurement instrument C) Sampling design D) All of these are correct. E) None of these are correct.

41)

What aspect of research design results in development of questions for a survey? A) Data collection design B) Development of a measurement instrument C) Sampling design D) All of these are correct. E) None of these are correct.

42)

Research design includes sampling design. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43) Causal-explanatory study is loosely structured and designed to expand understanding of a topic. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44)

The goal of a formal study is to develop hypotheses. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45)

A descriptive study can discover hypotheses.

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⊚ ⊚

46)

true false

A statistical study emphasizes a full contextual analysis of a few events or conditions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47) A case study designed to discover best practices in research would examine the procedures of the five most successful research companies using multiple sources, looking for patterns among the organizations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

48) A statistical study designed to discover best practices in research would examine the procedures of the five most successful research companies using multiple sources, looking for patterns among the organizations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

49) A descriptive study of ice cream brands would attempt to reveal how a change in packaging would affect sales. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50) Causal-explanatory study of ice cream brands would attempt to reveal how a change in packaging would affect sales. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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51) An example of an ex post facto design is a researcher using sales records to reveal the attractiveness of various ticketing approaches for a concert. ⊚ true ⊚ false

52) An example of an experiment involves employee recruits in a laboratory selecting choosing from among three formulations of ice cream to determine which formulation is deemed to have the most chocolate-like flavor. ⊚ true ⊚ false

53) An example of a descriptive study involves employee recruits in a laboratory selecting choosing from among three formulations of ice cream to determine which formulation is deemed to have the most chocolate-like flavor. ⊚ true ⊚ false

54) An example of a monitoring research design involves studying the map of clicks that led to online orders from Wal-Mart. ⊚ true ⊚ false

55) An example of a communication research design involves studying the transcripts of calls that led to orders from Target. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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56) An example of a monitoring research design involves setting up a ATM-like kiosk in a mall, where participants use a tablet computer to evaluate a product. ⊚ true ⊚ false

57) Amazon is getting into the ticket business. An example of a descriptive design is interviewing 1500 attendees at various concert venues to learn about their ticketing process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 04_14e_TB 4) D 5) C 6) C 7) A 8) A 9) B 10) A 11) C 12) D 13) A 14) E 15) B 16) D 17) B 18) E 19) E 20) C 21) B 22) B 23) C 24) A 25) D 26) D 27) A 28) E 29) B Version 1

30) D 31) D 32) D 33) D 34) D 35) A 36) E 37) C 38) C 39) C 40) B 41) B 42) TRUE 43) FALSE 44) FALSE 45) TRUE 46) FALSE 47) TRUE 48) FALSE 49) FALSE 50) TRUE 51) TRUE 52) TRUE 53) FALSE 54) TRUE 55) FALSE 56) FALSE 57) TRUE

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CHAPTER 5 1)

Explain the rationale for drawing a sample rather than using a census for every study.

2) What is the difference between a probability sample and a nonprobability sample? Which one is preferred by business researchers? Explain.

Compare and contrast stratified sampling and cluster sampling.

4) If a researcher must use a nonprobability sample because a suitable sample frame is not available, should convenience sampling or judgment sampling be used? Explain.

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5) Which term below refers to the individual participant or object on which a measurement is taken? A) Population B) Target population C) Case D) Sample frame E) Sample

6) A ________ is the total collection of elements about which the researcher wishes to make inferences. A) population parameter B) target population C) population element D) sample frame E) sample

When all the elements in a population are included in a study, the result is a ________. A) poll B) census C) sample D) sample frame E) probability sample

8) The list of cases in a population from which the sample is actually drawn is known as the ________.

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A) sample frame B) population extent C) database D) sampling base E) population directory

9) Hilton Hotels wishes to conduct a study on the determinants of brand loyalty among Hilton Hotel customers. The Hilton organization estimates that 10% of its 2,600,000 Hilton Honors club members are loyal to the Hilton brand wherever they travel. However, the remaining members may choose other hotel brands at times. The organization wants to understand how to increase loyalty among the other 90% of club members. In the Hilton example, the individual club members represent the ________. A) population B) sample C) sample frame D) case E) census

10) Hilton Hotels wishes to conduct a study on the determinants of brand loyalty among Hilton Hotel customers. The Hilton organization estimates that 10% of its 2,600,000 Hilton Honors club members are loyal to the Hilton brand wherever they travel. However, the remaining members may choose other hotel brands at times. The organization wants to understand how to increase loyalty among the other 90% of club members. In the Hilton example, the Hilton Honors membership list represents the ________. A) sample B) sample frame C) population D) population element E) target population

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11) Hilton Hotels wishes to conduct a study on the determinants of brand loyalty among Hilton Hotel customers. The Hilton organization estimates that 10% of its 2,600,000 Hilton Honors club members are loyal to the Hilton brand wherever they travel. However, the remaining members may choose other hotel brands at times. The organization wants to understand how to increase loyalty among the other 90% of club members. In the Hilton example, the target population for the study is ________. A) travelers requiring overnight lodging B) guests at Hilton-brand hotels C) Hilton Honors club members D) the top 10% of Hilton Honors club members E) the 90% of Hilton Honors club members who are not brand loyal

12) Hilton Hotels wishes to conduct a study on the determinants of brand loyalty among Hilton Hotel customers. The Hilton organization estimates that 10% of its 2,600,000 Hilton Honors club members are loyal to the Hilton brand wherever they travel. However, the remaining members may choose other hotel brands at times. The organization wants to understand how to increase loyalty among the other 90% of club members. The Hilton organization is considering a survey about factors affecting brand loyalty that will be sent to all of its Hilton Honors club members. This is an example of a(n) ________. A) population B) sample C) extent D) census E) general population survey

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13) Hilton Hotels wishes to conduct a study on the determinants of brand loyalty among Hilton Hotel customers. The Hilton organization estimates that 10% of its 2,600,000 Hilton Honors club members are loyal to the Hilton brand wherever they travel. However, the remaining members may choose other hotel brands at times. The organization wants to understand how to increase loyalty among the other 90% of club members. In the Hilton example, the sample frame is made up of the ________. A) list of Hilton Honors club members B) list of guests staying at any Hilton hotel during a designated period of time C) list of the top 10% of Hilton Honors club members D) list of the 90% of Hilton Honors members who are not brand loyal E) list of guests at Hilton's top competitors

14) Hilton Hotels wishes to conduct a study on the determinants of brand loyalty among Hilton Hotel customers. The Hilton organization estimates that 10% of its 2,600,000 Hilton Honors club members are loyal to the Hilton brand wherever they travel. However, the remaining members may choose other hotel brands at times. The organization wants to understand how to increase loyalty among the other 90% of club members. Hilton plans to send surveys to 10,000 Hilton Honors club members. This group of people is known as the ________. A) sample frame B) population C) census D) sample E) population element

15) Which of the following terms refers to the variation in measures due to some known or unknown influence that causes the scores to skew in one direction or another?

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A) Precision B) Standard error C) Systematic variance D) Sampling error E) Random error

16) Assuming that the sample frame is appropriate, systematic variance can be minimized in a study by ________. A) decreasing the sample size B) increasing the sample size C) contacting nonparticipants D) increasing response rates E) matching

17)

Sampling error refers to ________.

A) differences between the sample statistics and the population's parameters caused by random fluctuations inherent in the sampling process B) bias caused by using a poor sample frame C) error created by systematic variance D) differences between the results of a census and the population's parameters E) error created by differences between those who respond to the survey and those who do not

18)

With what does one measure the degree of precision of a sample estimate?

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A) Feasibility studies B) Census comparisons C) Unstandardized coefficients D) Standard error of the estimate E) Significance indicators

19)

The standard error of the estimate is a type of measure of ________. A) central tendency B) accuracy C) significance D) confidence E) standard deviation

20)

Which word below best describes nonprobability sampling? A) Subjective B) Objective C) Random D) Systematic E) Generalizable

21) Which term below refers to a controlled procedure that assures that each population element is given a known nonzero chance of selection into the sample? A) Nonprobability sampling B) Random selection C) Systematic selection D) Judgment sampling E) Statistical selection

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22)

Estimates of precision are possible with ________ samples. A) nonprobability B) probability C) judgment D) quota E) All of the above are correct.

23)

________ are summary descriptors of variables of interest in the population. A) Sample statistics B) Population parameters C) Systematic estimates D) Standard errors E) Standardized coefficients

24) Which term below refers to the descriptors of variables computed from sample data used to estimate those same variables in the population? A) Sample statistics B) Population parameters C) Systematic estimates D) Standard errors E) Standardized coefficients

25) When the variables of interest are measured on nominal or ordinal scales, what should be used to estimate population proportion?

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A) Standard error B) Standard deviation C) Sample proportion of incidence (p) D) Sample proportion of incidence (pq) E) Sample statistic

26) When the variables of interest are measured on nominal or ordinal scales, what should be used to estimate population variance? A) Standard error B) Standard deviation C) Sample proportion of incidence (p) D) Sample proportion of incidence (pq) E) Sample statistic

27)

The most frequent proportion measure is the ________. A) mean B) standard deviation C) mode D) correlation E) percentage

28) Hilton Hotels wishes to conduct a study on the determinants of brand loyalty among Hilton Hotel customers. The Hilton organization estimates that 10% of its 2,600,000 Hilton Honors club members are loyal to the Hilton brand wherever they travel. However, the remaining members may choose other hotel brands at times. The organization wants to understand how to increase loyalty among the other 90% of club members. In a follow-up survey to the Hilton study on brand loyalty, the organization plans to focus solely on estimating the attributes of the 10% of Hilton Honors members who are thought to be brand loyal. In this example, the 10% of club members who are loyal is the ________. Version 1

A) sample statistic B) population parameter C) population variance D) population proportion of incidence E) sample frame

29) In a study of college search behaviors among the families of college-bound high school students, the search behaviors are very different from family to family. In the situation described, which guideline below best explains why the researcher will use a larger sample size? A) The greater the variance within the population, the larger the sample should be. B) The greater the desired precision of the estimate, the larger the sample should be. C) The smaller the error range, the larger the sample must be. D) The higher the level of confidence in the estimate, the larger the sample must be. E) The greater the number of subgroups of interest within a sample, the larger the sample must be.

30)

All of the following are methods of probability sampling except ________. A) systematic B) simple random C) stratified D) cluster E) purposive

31) If one selects a sample by beginning with a random start in the sample frame and then selecting every kth element in the frame for inclusion in the sample, which type of sampling method is being used?

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A) Simple random B) Systematic C) Cluster D) Stratified E) Double

32) Which sampling method includes elements from each of several mutually exclusive groups within a population? A) Simple random B) Systematic C) Stratified D) Cluster E) Double

33) A survey that uses a sample of city blocks from a map as a way of sampling city residents is based on the ________ sampling technique. A) convenience B) quota C) stratified D) systematic E) cluster

34) With which of the following sampling techniques is the practice of double sampling typically found?

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A) Simple random B) Stratified C) Systematic D) Purposive E) Quota

35) Which two sampling techniques employ subpopulations as a component of the selection criteria? A) Simple random, systematic B) Systematic, stratified C) Stratified, cluster D) Quota, cluster E) Quota, snowball

36) The random digit dialing (RDD) technique used commonly in conjunction with phone surveys is based on ________ sampling. A) simple random B) systematic C) stratified D) cluster E) double

37) Which type of sampling technique can result in a skewed sample if periodicity exists in the population?

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A) Simple random B) Systematic C) Stratified D) Cluster E) Double

38) Brittany is developing a sampling plan for a study of alcohol consumption among college students at BigState University. She wants to ensure that students from each class level are represented. She also wants to be able to compare students who are members of fraternities and sororities to nonmembers. Finally, she wants to consider patterns by gender. Brittany plans to cross-reference BigState University's student directory with membership lists from each fraternity and sorority on campus to develop a sample frame. What type of sampling method should Brittany use? A) Simple random B) Systematic C) Stratified D) Cluster E) Double

39) Brittany is developing a sampling plan for a study of alcohol consumption among college students at BigState University. She wants to ensure that students from each class level are represented. She also wants to be able to compare students who are members of fraternities and sororities to nonmembers. Finally, she wants to consider patterns by gender. Brittany plans to cross-reference BigState University's student directory with membership lists from each fraternity and sorority on campus to develop a sample frame. In the alcohol consumption study at BigState University, students who are not members of fraternities and sororities outnumber members 6 to 4. If Brittany draws the study sample such that 60% of the sample is made up on students who are nonmembers and 40% of students who are members, what type of sampling has she used?

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A) Simple random B) Quota C) Systematic D) Proportionate stratified E) Disproportionate stratified

40) Brittany is developing a sampling plan for a study of alcohol consumption among college students at BigState University. She wants to ensure that students from each class level are represented. She also wants to be able to compare students who are members of fraternities and sororities to nonmembers. Finally, she wants to consider patterns by gender. Brittany plans to cross-reference BigState University's student directory with membership lists from each fraternity and sorority on campus to develop a sample frame. At BigState University, there are more female students than male students. However, because Brittany is particularly interested in male drinking behavior, she plans to include an equal number of men and women in the sample. What type of sampling will Brittany use? A) Simple random B) Quota C) Systematic D) Proportionate stratified E) Disproportionate stratified

41) Brittany is developing a sampling plan for a study of alcohol consumption among college students at BigState University. She wants to ensure that students from each class level are represented. She also wants to be able to compare students who are members of fraternities and sororities to nonmembers. Finally, she wants to consider patterns by gender. Brittany plans to cross-reference BigState University's student directory with membership lists from each fraternity and sorority on campus to develop a sample frame. If Brittany draws a sample of class locations (buildings with classrooms) on campus, and then samples all of the students in those selected buildings, what type of sampling technique is employed?

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A) Convenience B) Simple random C) Area D) Quota E) Systematic

42)

When selecting a convenience sample, case selection is based on ________. A) accessibility B) judgment C) random selection D) area E) All of the above.

43)

In which sampling technique are participants in a study selected by referral? A) Convenience B) Judgment C) Quota D) Snowball E) Area

44)

The skip interval refers to ________. A) amount of time between questions when interviewing a participant B) the physical distance between two questions on a questionnaire C) the calculation applied to a sample frame when drawing a systematic sample D) the place within a sample frame where you start to draw sample elements E) None of the above is correct.

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45)

Which sampling method uses a skip interval during case selection? A) Convenience B) Judgment C) Quota D) Systematic E) Simple random

46)

When you draw a multiphase sample, ________.

A) you draw two samples and one becomes your control group B) you use information from a first sample for collecting a subsequent subsample for further study C) you draw two samples from two separate sample frames D) you draw a nonprobability sample E) None of the above is correct.

47) You are designing a study where you need attitudes about investing to cover the cost of college for an unborn child. Your most appropriate target population would be ________. A) organizations B) events C) scenarios D) people E) objects

48) You are designing a study where you need to understand the effectiveness of performance training on new corporate email protocols. Your most appropriate target population would be ________.

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A) organizations B) events C) scenarios D) people E) objects

49) You are designing a study where you need to capture the power of a newly designed corporate convention booth to draw attendees as compared to its competitors. Your most appropriate target population would be ________. A) organizations B) events C) scenarios D) people E) objects

50) You are designing a study to understand where damage occurs during the dry cleaning of draperies and other fabric window coverings. Your most appropriate target population would be ________. A) organizations B) events C) scenarios D) people E) objects

51) You are designing a study of conditions in employee breakrooms across 15 different plants. Your most appropriate target population would be ________.

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A) organizations B) events C) environments D) people E) objects

52) You are designing a small study to examine conditions in employee breakrooms in preparation for a large statistical study of the firm's 15 locations. You want to be sure that you examine breakrooms in both office environments and manufacturing environments. You should use a ________. A) systematic probability sample B) nonprobability convenience sample C) double probability sample D) nonprobability judgment sample E) cluster probability sample

53) In your statistical study, those who participated are believed to have very different ideas than those who refused to participate. This study has a high ________. A) response error B) nonresponse error C) acquiescence bias D) physical presence bias E) None of the above is correct.

54) In your statistical study, participants are skipping sensitive questions. This study has significant ________.

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A) nonsampling error B) nonresponse error C) acquiescence bias D) physical presence bias E) None of the above.

55) In your nonprobability statistical study, participants are recruited such that you have equal numbers of men and women. You need a ________. A) systematic sample B) convenience sample C) double sample D) quota sample E) cluster sample

56) Your study requires that you obtain parental consent prior to interviewing children about their use of imagination when playing with certain toys. This decision affects what task of sampling design? A) Define the target population and case. B) Define the population parameters. C) Define selection and recruiting protocols. D) Define the sample method. E) Define the sample frame.

57) A lakefront resort is planning for its summer busy season. It wishes to estimate with 95% confidence the average number of nights each guest will stay in a single visit. Using a sample of guests who stayed last year, the average number of nights per guest is calculated at 5 nights. The standard deviation of the sample is 1.5 nights. The size of the sample used is 120 guests, and the resort desires a precision of plus or minus 0.5 nights. What is the standard error of the mean in the lakefront resort example? Version 1

A) 0.5 B) 0.065 C) 0.96 D) 0.13 E) 1.96

58) A lakefront resort is planning for its summer busy season. It wishes to estimate with 95% confidence the average number of nights each guest will stay in a single visit. Using a sample of guests who stayed last year, the average number of nights per guest is calculated at 5 nights. The standard deviation of the sample is 1.5 nights. The size of the sample used is 120 guests, and the resort desires a precision of plus or minus 0.5 nights. Within which range listed below can the resort expect with 95% confidence for the true population mean to fall? A) 3.12 to 6.88 B) 3.35 to 6.65 C) 2.42 to 7.58 D) 4.10 to 5.50 E) 4.65 to 6.65

59) A local restaurant is planning a study on demand for meals over holiday weekends. In calculating the desired sample size for the study, the restaurant's researcher decides to use a ruleof-thumb calculation for estimating the population dispersion. If the range of meals in the study is 0 to 30, what standard deviation does the rule-of-thumb method produce? A) 2 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 10

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60) A microbrewery plans to conduct a study on beer consumption among men between the ages of 29 and 45. A pilot test indicated that men in this age category consume an average of 6 beers per week with a standard deviation of 2.3. If the microbrewery seeks a 95% confidence level and a precision of 0.5 beers, what size sample should be used in the study? A) 70 B) 120 C) 300 D) 456 E) 987

61) The pq ratio found in calculations of sample size for a proportion can never exceed ________. A) .10 B) .25 C) .50 D) .75 E) There are no such limitations on the pq ratio.

62)

In calculations of sample size for proportions, q refers to the ________. A) calculated sample size B) quota of required completes to refusals C) proportion of the population that does not have the attribute of interest D) proportion of the population that does have the attribute of interest E) desired precision

63)

Which of the following symbols is used to refer to the sample standard deviation?

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A) p B) π C) α D) σ E) s

64) What information below is necessary for computing sample size for questions involving means? A) Precision B) Confidence level C) Expected dispersion in the population D) Size of the interval estimate E) All of the above are correct.

65) When a calculated sample size must be adjusted due to the size of the population relative to the size of the sample, which of the following formulas should be applied? A) Divide the calculatedn by the standard error of the mean B) Multiply the calculatedn by the precision estimate C) Reduce the calculatedn by 5% of the population size D) Multiply the calculated n by the square root of (N −n)/(N − 1) E) Divide the calculatedn by the standard deviation squared

66) Which of the following is not true about a community as a sample frame? Samples drawn from communities have

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A) higher response rate B) lower completion rate C) lower cost D) greater speed of data collection E) all of the above are true

67) Deception, related to sampling protocols, may be used to protect the sponsor's purpose in doing the research. ⊚ true ⊚ false

68) If a participant lies on a screening question in order to be chosen to participate in research, they will fail their responsibility related to the right to quality research. ⊚ true ⊚ false

69) Incentives may be offered to encourage participants to protect the research purpose by not disclosing their participation or the measurement questions used in the research. ⊚ true ⊚ false

70)

A private community is more costly to use as a sample frame than a public community. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 05_14e_TB 5) C 6) B 7) B 8) A 9) D 10) B 11) C 12) D 13) A 14) D 15) C 16) B 17) A 18) D 19) E 20) A 21) B 22) B 23) B 24) A 25) C 26) D 27) E 28) D 29) A 30) E Version 1

31) B 32) C 33) E 34) B 35) C 36) A 37) B 38) C 39) D 40) E 41) C 42) A 43) D 44) C 45) D 46) B 47) D 48) E 49) D 50) B 51) C 52) D 53) B 54) A 55) D 56) C 57) C 58) A 59) C 60) A Version 1

61) B 62) C 63) E 64) E 65) D 66) B 67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) TRUE 70) TRUE

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CHAPTER 6 1) How can researchers increase the confidence business decision makers have in qualitative data?

2) Explain the three types of nonprobability sampling techniques commonly used to select samples for qualitative research studies.

3) What are some of the responsibilities of interviewers aside from conducting the actual interviews? Name five of these responsibilities.

4) List and explain the factors affecting the decision of how many focus groups are needed in a qualitative research project.

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5) Which type of research includes an array of interpretative techniques that seek to describe, decode, translate, and otherwise come to terms with the meaning of certain phenomena? A) Quantitative B) Qualitative C) Statistical D) Descriptive E) Causal

6) The primary concern with using qualitative techniques is that qualitative data are too ________. A) expensive B) time-consuming C) subjective D) objective E) structured

7) Which type of research attempts a precise measurement of some behavior, knowledge, opinion, or attitude? A) Quantitative B) Qualitative C) Exploratory D) Cross-sectional E) Longitudinal

Qualitative research seeks to ________ theory while quantitative research ________ it.

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A) examine; interprets B) build; tests C) test; understands D) apply; builds E) justify; applies

Which of the following research purposes are associated with qualitative research? A) Description B) Prediction C) Theory building D) Theory testing E) Forecasting

10)

Which of the following is true of quantitative research? A) It uses a nonprobability sampling method. B) Results are generalizable. C) Distinctions between facts and judgements are less clear. D) Sample sizes are generally small. E) It uses multiple data collection methods.

11) Exercises that prepare participants for individual or group interviews on a topic are called ________. A) calisthenics B) projection techniques C) homework D) pretasking E) focused preparation

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12) Which type of sampling technique involves selecting research participants with no attempt at generating a statistically representative sample? A) Probability B) Nonprobability C) Random D) Systematic E) Cluster

13)

All of the following are types of nonprobability sampling techniques except ________. A) purposive sampling B) snowball sampling C) convenience sampling D) random sampling E) All are types of nonprobability techniques.

14) Which type of nonprobability sampling technique involves choosing participants arbitrarily for their unique characteristics, experiences, attitudes, or perceptions? A) Random sampling B) Purposive sampling C) Convenience sampling D) Snowball sampling E) Quota sampling

15) Which type of nonprobability sampling technique involves choosing participants who then refer others with similar or different characteristics?

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A) Random sampling B) Purposive sampling C) Convenience sampling D) Snowball sampling E) Quota sampling

16)

Snowball sampling is a nonprobability sampling technique in which ________.

A) participants are chosen arbitrarily for their unique characteristics, experiences, or attitudes B) participants are chosen and then refer others with similar or different characteristics C) researchers select any readily available individuals as participants D) researchers systematically select participants from a sample frame E) researchers chose readily available individuals as participants but seek to ensure a good mix of demographic characteristics

17)

Convenience sampling is a nonprobability sampling technique in which ________.

18) Which type of nonprobability sampling technique is most useful when individuals with the desired characteristics, experiences, or attitudes are difficult to identify or reach?

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A) Random sampling B) Purposive sampling C) Convenience sampling D) Snowball sampling E) Quota sampling

19) Jane is conducting interviews in order to develop a customer profile for her client. She customizes each interview to each participant and does not ask specific questions. What type of interview format is Jane using? A) Structured B) Semistructured C) Unstructured D) Closed-ended E) Direct interviewing

20) ________ interviews have certain specific questions that are asked of all participants but also allow the interviewer freedom to probe the participant based on his or her specific answers. A) Structured B) Semistructured C) Unstructured D) Closed-ended E) Direct interviewing

21)

Which of the following is true of structured interviews?

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A) They permit direct comparability of responses. B) They encourage variation in questions. C) Interviewer probes may bias answers. D) Responses are closed-ended. E) All of the above are correct.

22) Jackson is conducting interviews to identify patterns in consumer decision making for high-involvement products. Which type of interview should he use if he needs a high degree of comparability among responses, no question variability, and to maintain his own neutrality during the interviews? A) Unstructured B) Structured C) Semistructured D) Closed-ended E) Briefing

23) Which type of interview requires the least amount of skill and creativity on the part of the interviewer? A) Unstructured B) Structured C) Semistructured D) Exploratory E) Briefing

24) Which of the following channels of communication would not be used when conducting interviews?

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A) Face-to-face B) Phone C) Chat room D) Mail E) Instant messaging

25) Qualitative methods that encourage participants to reveal hidden or suppressed attitudes, ideas, emotions, and motives are called ________ techniques. A) deceptive B) unstructured C) projective D) focus group E) semistructured

26) Jack is participating in a research study. The interviewer asks Jack to say the first word that comes to mind when he hears a product's benefits. What type of creative technique is this an example of? A) Thematic apperception test B) Sentence completion C) Brand mapping D) Laddering E) Word association

27) When using the ________ creative technique, participants are asked to write the dialog for a cartoon picture.

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A) word association B) picture association C) thematic apperception test D) empty balloons E) laddering

28) When using the ________, participants are confronted with a picture and asked to describe how the person in the picture feels and thinks. A) word association B) picture association C) thematic apperception test D) cartoons or empty balloons E) laddering

29) When using ________, participants are asked to relate the properties of one thing or person or brand to another. A) imagination exercises B) picture association C) the thematic apperception test D) empty balloons E) laddering

30) When using ________, participants are asked to assume that the brand and its users populate an entire universe, and to describe the features of this new world.

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A) word association B) imaginary universe C) thematic apperception test D) empty balloons E) laddering

31) When using the ________ projective technique, participants are presented with flash cards containing component features and asked to create new combinations. A) component sorts B) picture association C) thematic apperception test D) sensory sorts E) laddering

32) When using the ________ projective technique, participants are presented cards containing various scents, textures, and sounds, and asked to arrange them by one or more criteria. A) brand mapping B) sensory sorts C) thematic apperception test D) component sorts E) laddering

33) In a study of attitudes toward buying counterfeit goods, participants are asked to complete this sentence: "People who buy fake Louis Vuitton handbags are ...." This is an example of a(n) ________ projective technique.

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A) picture association B) empty balloons C) sentence completion/fill-in the blank D) imagination exercise E) personification

34) Participants in a study designed to identify symbolic benefits associated with Sutter Home wines are shown a photograph of a man eating at an upscale restaurant. The man in the picture is alone and has a glass of wine with his meal. The participants are asked to describe how the person in the picture feels and thinks. This is an example of a(n) ________ projective technique. A) picture association B) empty balloons C) thematic apperception test D) imagination exercise E) personification

35) Which term below refers to a trained interviewer used for group interviews such as focus groups? A) Therapist B) Inquisitor C) Moderator D) Discussion guide E) Probe

36) Interview guides begin with ________ questions, following a hierarchical questioning structure.

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A) narrow issue B) narrow topical C) broad issue D) narrow interest E) Any of the above.

37) The semistructured or structured interview guide designed to qualify prospects for participation in research project is called a(n) ________. A) pretasking exercise B) recruitment screener C) hierarchical question structure D) computer-assisted interview E) None of the above is correct.

38) American Airlines is conducting a qualitative study on preferences of business travelers who fly frequently. Before inviting an individual to participate, the researcher on the project wants to ensure that all participants travel for business more than pleasure and meet the American Airlines' definition of frequent flier. What is the best way for the researcher to ensure that participants will meet these criteria? A) Use a recruitment screener prior to inviting individuals to participate. B) Delete interviews after the study ends from those who do not meet the qualifications. C) Draw a sample from a list of people with an American Airlines affinity credit card. D) Draw a sample from a list of people with an affinity credit card associated with any airline. E) Contact a travel agency for a list of prospects.

39) When individual depth interviews are aided by the use of computer-generated visual and auditory aids, the method is known as ________.

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A) computer-assisted telephone interviewing (CATI) B) computer-assisted personal interviewing (CAPI) C) online interviewing D) group interviewing E) computer-aided design (CAD)

40) Research on service quality frequently uses a technique called ________ in which the participant describes what led up to an incident, what was effective or ineffective, and the outcome. A) life histories B) cultural interviews C) sequential interviewing D) critical incident technique E) oral history

41)

How many participants are typically found in a mini-group interview? A) Two B) Three C) Two to six D) Six to 10 E) Up to 20

42) A group interview seeking to understand spousal influence on decision making or the influence of the opinion of a sibling on brand preferences would likely utilize a ________.

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A) dyad B) triad C) mini-group D) small group E) supergroup

43) Anne is moderating a focus group of university professors to understand how they use multimedia in the classroom. All of the participants teach classes with more than 100 students at large, public universities. The composition of this group could be described as ________. A) heterogeneous B) homogeneous C) nonexpert D) dyadic E) None of the above is correct.

44) Which statement below best reflects the general rule regarding how many group interviews should be conducted for a given research project? A) Conduct interviews until no new insight is gained. B) Use at least three groups for every geographic region involved. C) Include groups of men only, women only, and men and women combined. D) The more homogeneous the groups, the more groups are needed. E) All of the above are true.

45) All of the following statements about determining the number of group interviews are true except ________.

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A) the broader the issue, the more groups needed B) the larger the number of distinct segments of interest, the more groups needed C) the greater the level of detail, the more groups needed D) the more homogeneous the target population of interest, the more groups needed E) the larger the number of new ideas desired, the more groups needed

46) The focus group moderator uses the principles of ________ to focus the group in an exchange of ideas, feelings, and experiences on a specific topic. A) psychology B) sociology C) anthropology D) group dynamics E) communications

47)

What is the typical length of a focus group? A) 30 minutes B) 1 hour C) 90 minutes D) 2 hours E) 4 hours

48)

An online focus group is a viable alternative to a traditional focus group when ________. A) participants need to handle a product B) it is difficult to recruit desired participants C) sessions will run long D) participants are groups of children E) All of the above are correct.

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49)

Focus groups should not be the only research design used when ________. A) facing a high-risk decision B) stimulating new ideas for products C) obtaining general background about a topic D) uncovering perceptions about a brand E) diagnosing problems

50) The process for measuring semantic content of a communication to develop a qualitative picture of the participants' concerns, ideas, attitudes, and feelings is called ________. A) brand mapping B) component sorts C) ethnographic interpretation D) word association E) content analysis

51) The objective of a(n) ________ is to obtain multiple perspectives of a single organization, situation, event, or process at a point in time or over a period of time. A) life history B) oral history C) case study/case history D) cultural history E) semantic map

52) Which type of research is designed to address complex, practical problems using brainstorming, followed by sequential trial-and-error attempts until the desired results are achieved?

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A) Case history B) Action research C) Causal research D) Grounded theory E) Ethnography

53) The minimum number of cases used in a cross-case analysis case study is ________ case(s). A) one B) three C) four D) 15 E) 25

54) Which term below is used to describe the combining of several qualitative methods or combining qualitative with quantitative methods? A) Triangulation B) Dyadic support C) Interrater reliability D) Projection E) Component sorts

55) Which term below is used to describe a series of interviews, done with subject experts, which are used to develop or refine appropriate measurement questions for a subsequent research project?

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A) Triangulation B) Cultural interview C) Life history D) Convergent interviewing E) Ethnography

56) Cosmetic giant CoverGirl has researchers using structured individual depth interviews to interview middle-aged women about the use of Ellen DeGeneres as its spokeswoman. With each subsequent interview, the questions are kept, modified, or replaced to reflect the findings of previous interviews. CoverGirl is using what technique? A) Grounded theory B) Cultural interview C) Life history D) Sequential interviewing E) Ethnography

57) Nikon sends researchers to the homes of camera owners who have had babies within the last year to observe how new Moms are using the features of their cameras. After the observation session, the researcher interviews the Moms about what was observed to clarify the motivation. This is an example of ________. A) Triangulation B) Cultural interview C) Life history D) Convergent interviewing E) Ethnography

58)

Following the interview question funnel, the idea is to ________.

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A) ask the specific questions that address client issues first. B) introduce multiple topics very quickly and move the questions between the topics. C) ask only broad topical questions. D) start with a broad issue and continue to narrow the topic to reach specific questions of interest. E) None of the above is correct.

59) Fans of the Cincinnati Reds are asked to compare their favorite player to the U.S. president in order to highlight that player's most desired attributes. This is an example of what technique? A) Grounded theory B) Ambiguities and paradoxes C) Visitor from another planet D) Authority figure E) Laddering

60)

In order to increase participation during group interviews, moderators should ________. A) Use abstract terminology in the questions B) Not express appreciation for a participant's contributions C) Discourage participant questions D) Encourage participants to socialize E) Disguise the purpose of the interview

61)

Which of the following negatively affects participation in a group interview?

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A) Validation B) Load sharing/catharsis C) Extrinsic rewards D) Embellishment E) None of above would negatively affect participation.

62) You want to know what factors are most important in real estate agent selection, so you tell participants they are the most important real estate authority in the world and have been asked to design the perfect training program for hiring real estate agents. You are using which qualitative technique? A) Write a letter B) Storytelling C) Personification D) Third party projection E) Innovation role play

63) When the researcher keeps doing interviews until no new insights are gained, the research ________. A) is ready for data analysis B) has reached the time for pretasking C) has reached data saturation D) is using purposive sampling E) None of the above is correct.

64) The measurement instrument for an in-depth interview or a group interview is a(n) ________.

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A) convergent interview B) interview guide C) chronological interview D) laddering E) None of the above is correct.

65) Participants of group A have children, while members in group B do not have children. We would choose people from each group to populate a single focus group in order to capitalize on ________. A) common characteristics B) range of life experiences C) different perspectives on an issue D) the ability to articulate E) the willingness to collaborate to solve problems.

66) Participants create a fantasy experience in order to fully participate in a group discussion. This negative factor affecting group interview participation is ________. A) abstract terminology B) political correctness C) embellishment D) rambling account E) ego defense

67) A manager wants research to include group interviews but hires a professional moderator to conduct them. He is fulfilling which ethical responsibility?

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A) Right to confidentiality B) Right to Safety C) Right to quality research D) Right to privacy E) None of the above is correct.

68) Interviewers in qualitative research have significant responsibilities; which is NOT one of these responsibilities? A) Develop the recruitment screener B) Interpret the results C) Debrief observers and data collectors D) Write the interview guide E) All of the above are responsibilities of interviewers in qualitative research.

69)

Which of the following does NOT describe the asynchronous interview? A) more difficult to build rapport between participant and interviewer B) better control of non-verbal cues by interviewer C) more difficult to avoid use of language that leads participant to desired answers D) easier to avoid interrupting participant’s answers E) greater consistency in interviewer’s questions across participants

70)

Which of the following does NOT describe the synchronous interview? A) easier to build rapport between participant and interviewer B) less control of non-verbal cues by interviewer C) more difficult to avoid use of language that leads participant to desired answers D) more difficult avoid interrupting participant’s answers E) greater consistency in interviewer’s questions across participants

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 06_14e_TB 5) B 6) C 7) A 8) B 9) C 10) B 11) D 12) B 13) D 14) B 15) D 16) B 17) C 18) D 19) C 20) B 21) A 22) B 23) B 24) D 25) C 26) E 27) D 28) C 29) A 30) B Version 1

31) A 32) B 33) C 34) C 35) C 36) C 37) B 38) A 39) B 40) D 41) C 42) A 43) B 44) A 45) D 46) D 47) D 48) B 49) A 50) E 51) C 52) B 53) C 54) A 55) D 56) A 57) E 58) D 59) D 60) D Version 1

61) D 62) E 63) C 64) B 65) C 66) C 67) C 68) E 69) C 70) E

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CHAPTER 7 1) Research designs are classified as communication or observation by the approach used to gather primary data. Identify five conditions under which observation is an appropriate method for data collection.

2) What are the four dimensions of extralinguistic activity that can be observed? Explain the behaviors common to each dimension.

Discuss the strengths and limitations of observation as a data collection method.

4) What characteristics are important to consider when selecting individuals to work as observers in an observation research study?

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5) When observation employs standardized procedures, trained observers, schedules for recording, and other devices that reflect the scientific procedures of other primary data methods, it is said to be a(n) ________ observation. A) simple B) systematic C) organized D) structured E) semistructured

Observation means to collect data by ________. A) viewing B) listening C) touching D) smelling E) All of the above are correct.

7) Which of the following is a condition in which observation is an appropriate method for data collection? A) Anonymity is desired. B) Participants are widely dispersed. C) Attitudinal information is needed. D) Natural setting is imperative. E) Extensive amount of information is needed.

8) Observation is an appropriate method for data collection in all of the following conditions except ________.

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A) the purpose must be disguised B) a natural setting is necessary C) when anonymity is desired D) when memory decay is a factor E) when behavioral data is needed

9) Jason is developing a research design for a study of wine drinkers. The target population is widely dispersed. Jason needs to collect data on past consumption behavior and intentions for future behavior. Which type of data collection method is most appropriate for Jason's project? A) Communication B) Observation C) Monitoring D) Experimental E) Causal

10) Scott's Lawn Care has hired Visionary Insights to find out whether home improvement warehouse stores communicate the benefits of various brands of lawn care products differently than smaller stores. Visionary Insights needs to know what is communicated to consumers in the actual settings of the stores and wants to ensure that the message is not filtered. Only behavioral data is required. Which type of data collection method is most appropriate in this situation? A) Communication B) Observation C) Surveys D) Experimental E) Causal

11)

Which of the following is not a type of behavioral observation?

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A) Nonverbal behavior B) Linguistic behavior C) Activity observation D) Extralinguistic behavior E) Spatial behavior

12) The recording of physical actions or movements of participants is called ________ observation. A) nonverbal B) spatial C) verbal D) extralinguistic E) nonbehavioral

13)

The most prevalent category of observation study is ________ observation. A) linguistic B) extralinguistic C) spatial D) nonverbal E) digital

14)

Nonverbal observation can be performed by ________ and ________. A) people; machines B) psychologists; psychiatrists C) video; audio D) sociologists; anthropologists E) physical condition analysis; process analysis

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15)

Nonverbal observation includes the recording of ________. A) temporal style B) linguistics C) proxemics D) kinesics E) motor expressions

16) All of the following are reasons why researchers use machines to record behaviors except ________. A) the human eye cannot record behavior that happens rapidly B) humans cannot record and observe simultaneously C) machines can be disguised easily D) the design may require more than one person to be observed simultaneously E) trained human observers are expensive

17) Which of the following is true of the video camera and audio recorder as mechanical devices for the recording of behaviors? A) They cannot be used in natural settings. B) They can generate descriptions of behaviors, but not counts or frequencies of behaviors. C) They can record nonbehavioral observations. D) They are used extensively in retail customer tracking studies. E) They are inferior to studies involving extralinguistic analysis.

18) A lie detector is actually a(n) ________ that measures electrical activity in the participant's skin.

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A) galvanomic response machine B) video camera C) eye camera D) pupilometer E) people meter

19) The observation of human verbal behavior during conversation, presentation, or interaction is known as ________ observation. A) nonverbal B) linguistic C) extralinguistic D) spatial E) temporal

20) When a reporter interviews guests on her talk show, she tends to interrupt their answers. Which dimension of extralinguistic activity is reflected in her behavior? A) Vocal B) Temporal C) Interaction D) Verbal stylistic E) Spatial

21) In one episode of a television show, two characters make fun of each other's pronunciation peculiarities and characteristic expressions. Character A overenunciates his words. Character B makes fun of others by asking a question like "Could you BE anymore annoying?" Which dimension of extralinguistic activity is being addressed in this example?

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A) vocal B) Temporal C) Interaction D) Verbal stylistic E) Spatial

22) The recording of how humans physically relate to one another is called ________ observation. A) nonverbal B) linguistic C) spatial D) mechanical/digital E) temporal

23)

Proxemics is one form of ________ observation. A) nonverbal B) linguistic C) spatial D) mechanical/ digital E) temporal

24) The study of how people organize the territory around them and maintain discrete distances between themselves and others is known as ________. A) extralinguistics B) feng shui C) kinesics D) proxemics E) physical condition observation

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25) All of the following are advantages of observation as a data collection method except ________. A) optimizing the naturalness of the setting B) reducing obtrusiveness C) avoiding participant filtering D) quantifying data E) securing contextual information

26) Recording the radio station presets on cars brought into car repair shops is an example of ________. A) linguistic observation B) physical traces C) nonverbal behavior D) spatial behavior E) temporal behavior

27)

Which of the following is a limitation of observation as a data collection method? A) Avoidance of participant filtering and forgetting B) Use of a natural setting C) Securing physical, trace evidence D) Required time and expense E) Ability to disguise or conceal observation equipment

28)

Which of the following questions cannot be answered using the observational method?

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A) What B) Where C) Who D) How E) Why

29) The most reliable form of observation is ________ observation based on overt action or surface indicators. A) inferential B) factual C) spatial D) structured E) trace

30) Visionary Insights is observing shoppers in a retail store. The observers record surface events like smiling behavior by customers and conclude that smiling behavior is reflective of satisfaction with the shopping event. This is an example of ________ observation. A) inferential B) factual C) spatial D) structured E) trace

31)

Which of the following attributes can be identified using factual observation?

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A) Salesperson credibility B) Customer interest C) Number of customer objections D) Salesperson enthusiasm E) Attitude toward the brand

32)

Which of the following attributes must be identified using inferential observation? A) Selling points presented B) Length of sales meeting C) Time and day of week D) Salesperson credibility E) Customer purchase decision

33) The measurement instrument for recording data in an observation study is called a(n) ________. A) screener B) observation checklist C) moderator's guide D) interview guide E) pupilometer

34) ________ observation occurs when the observer is physically present and personally monitors and records the behavior of the participant. A) Indirect B) Direct C) Concealed D) Disguised E) Spatial

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35) Observers may be physically involved in the participant's social setting and interact with the participant. This form of observation is known as ________ observation. A) concealment B) deceptive C) participant D) structured E) direct

36)

Observation checklists should have all of the following characteristics except ________. A) precisely defined categories of behaviors B) mutually exclusive categories C) exhaustive categories D) conditions for observation E) open-ended questions

37) The use of videotaping, mirrored windows, and props are most feasible in ________ studies. A) structured observation B) unstructured observation C) natural D) laboratory E) field

38) Maria is conducting research to better understand how consumers respond to the atmosphere and environment in restaurants. She visits several restaurant locations and observes characteristics of the environment and all of the behaviors of the patrons. Which classification best fits Maria's observation study?

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A) Unstructured/natural B) Unstructured/laboratory C) Structured/natural D) Structured/laboratory E) Direct/participant

39) Maria is conducting research to better understand how consumers respond to the atmospherics and environmental cues in restaurants. She develops three different "restaurants" to represent the restaurant environments that should be evaluated. Participants are invited to dinner in one of these three restaurants, and their behaviors are videotaped. Which classification best fits Maria's observation study? A) Unstructured/natural B) Unstructured/laboratory C) Structured/natural D) Structured/laboratory E) Direct/participant

40) Jason is conducting research to better understand how consumers respond to the atmosphere and environment in restaurants. He visits several restaurant locations and uses a checklist to record specific behaviors he observes in each restaurant. Which classification best fits Jason's observation study? A) Unstructured/natural B) Unstructured/laboratory C) Structured/natural D) Structured/laboratory E) Direct/participant

41) Which of the following qualifications is desirable for individuals working as observers in observation studies?

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A) Concentration B) Unobtrusive C) Experienced D) Detail-oriented E) All of the above are correct.

42) A condition called the ________ creates errors when prior observations influence perceptions of current observations. A) observer drift B) groupthink C) devil's advocate D) halo effect E) self-serving bias

43) Jane took on a second-shift as an observer in the observation study of restaurant patrons. As she becomes fatigued, ________ is more likely to occur. A) observer drift B) groupthink C) devil's advocate D) halo effect E) self-serving bias

44) Which term below refers to the error caused by decay in consistency and accuracy of recorded observations by humans over time?

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A) Observer drift B) Groupthink C) Devil's advocate D) Halo effect E) Self-serving bias

45) The ability for an observer to extract the most from an observation study is most associated with the observer's level or degree of ________. A) concentration B) detail-orientation C) experience D) distinctiveness E) enthusiasm

46) The ability for an observer to remember the key aspects of an experience is most associated with the observer's level or degree of ________. A) concentration B) detail-orientation C) experience D) distinctiveness E) enthusiasm

47) The ability for an observer to function in a setting with many distractions is most associated with the observer's level or degree of ________.

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A) concentration B) detail-orientation C) experience D) distinctiveness E) enthusiasm

48) The occurrence of errors caused by a halo effect can sometimes be minimized by choosing observers with a low level of ________. A) concentration B) detail-orientation C) experience D) distinctiveness E) enthusiasm

49) What type of sampling is used when certain behavioral acts or conditions are recorded that answer the investigative questions? A) Time sampling B) Quota sampling C) Convenience sampling D) Event sampling E) Snowball sampling

50) Ebony will observe the behaviors of customers in a chain of jewelry stores. Before beginning the observation studies, Ebony decides to observe behaviors in the stores on Wednesdays between 10 a.m. and 12 p.m. and on Saturdays between 2 p.m. and 6 p.m. This selection of time points to observe and record behavior is known as ________.

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A) time sampling B) quota sampling C) convenience sampling D) event sampling E) snowball sampling

51) The error that occurs when participants alter their true behavior due to the presence of the observer is known as ________. A) observer drift B) halo effect C) social desirability responding D) self-serving bias E) reactivity response

52) At the close of business on Black Friday, Macy's store employees examined product displays throughout the store looking for disrupted displays and displays that remained undisturbed. The information is used to determine what items to put on sale early in the holiday shopping season. This is an example of using ________. A) nonverbal observation B) physical condition analysis C) activity analysis D) record analysis E) data mining

53) The use of ________ is illustrated by the frequency of replacement of carpet in front of museum exhibits as an indicator of exhibit popularity.

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A) process analysis B) data mining C) erosion measures D) record analysis E) accretion measures

54) An interesting application of ________ compared self-reported beer consumption with the amount of discarded beer containers in the trash. A) process analysis B) data mining C) erosion measures D) record analysis E) accretion measures

55)

Erosion measures and accretion measures are both types of ________. A) process analysis B) data mining C) reactive measures D) record analysis E) unobtrusive measures

56) In an attempt to discover issues related to a suspected increase in employee theft in a warehouse, a research design proposed using hidden video cameras for one week. The proposed research recommended ________.

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A) direct observation B) indirect observation C) time sampling D) record analysis E) indirect observation and time sampling

57) During a Macy's mystery shopping experience, the researcher was asked to enact a scenario as a very dissatisfied shopper demanding to see the manager. This is an example of ________. A) indirect observation B) participant observation C) proxemics D) verbal observation E) None of the above is correct.

58) A factory was experiencing a disproportionately large number of defects coming from a particular machine and chose to research the problem by dismantling the equipment to evaluate measures of wear on its various parts. This is an example of ________. A) direct observation B) linguistic behavior C) physical traces D) verbal observation E) None of the above is correct.

59) A restaurant was evaluating the popularity of its various menu items in preparation for introducing seasonal menu alternatives by studying patron orders over the last four months. It wanted to be sure it was preserving its most popular items. This is an example of ________.

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A) indirect observation B) linguistic behavior C) record analysis D) physical traces E) process (activity) analysis

60)

Nonstandardized, exploratory observation practices are known as ________. A) indirect observation B) systematic observation C) simple observation D) nonverbal observation E) None of the above is correct.

61) After an outbreak of Escherichia coli in area restaurants, a restaurant manager wanted to ensure that an outbreak was unlikely to happen in her restaurant. She installed a camera to record food handling at each work station, then reviewed the footage to compare the practices against accepted health department guidelines. This is an example of ________. A) direct observation B) simple observation C) record analysis D) process (activity) analysis E) None of the above is correct.

62) An analysis of past sales data shows that the average household purchases a new vacuum cleaner approximately every seven years. The extraction of this type of information is known as ________.

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A) process analysis B) data mining C) obtrusive measures D) record analysis E) trace evidence

63)

The study of the use of space is called ________. A) kinesics B) proxemics C) methodology D) linguistics E) feng shui

64) In order to deal with a large volume of information, we focus only on what is relevant and fail to see that which is inconsequential to us. This is called ________. A) halo effect B) reactivity effect C) selective filtering D) observational drift E) concealment

65) If a participant changes their behavior because they notice they are being observed, this is called a(n) ________. A) halo effect B) reactivity effect C) selective filtering D) observational drift E) memory decay

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66) Samantha positioned herself near a display that partially hides her presence while recording how people handled their groceries in the self-checkout line. Her decision relates to ________ in observation research. A) indirect observation B) concealment C) structured observation D) observational drift E) proxemics

67) If a researcher chooses an observation research design rather than a communication research design due to concerns about participants forgetting with the passage of time, the researcher is concerned about ________. A) halo effect B) reactivity effect C) selective filtering D) observational drift E) memory decay

68) If a participant is being monitored during an observation study in a retail store by a hidden camera mounted in the ceiling, this is an example of ________. A) full concealment B) direct observation C) partial concealment D) indirect observation E) reactivity response

69)

Full concealment as part of the design of an observation study can violate the ________.

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A) participant's right of full disclosure B) participant's right of privacy C) sponsor's right of quality research D) sponsor's right of findings non-disclosure E) None of the above is correct.

70) When you outline procedures of action for observation, including where, when, how, and how often and by whom an act will be observed, you are outlining the ________. A) sample frame B) sampling plan C) indirect observation D) data collection protocols E) time sampling

71) One major difference between simple observation and systematic observation is the rigor of the procedures used for data collection and sample design. ⊚ true ⊚ false

72) To test a hypothesis, you would conduct an unstructured observation in a field (natural) setting. ⊚ true ⊚ false

73) The halo effect in observation is cause by an observer spending long hours without a break. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 07_14e_TB 5) B 6) E 7) D 8) C 9) A 10) A 11) C 12) A 13) D 14) A 15) E 16) C 17) D 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) D 22) C 23) C 24) D 25) D 26) B 27) D 28) E 29) B 30) A Version 1

31) C 32) D 33) B 34) B 35) C 36) E 37) D 38) A 39) B 40) C 41) E 42) D 43) A 44) A 45) C 46) B 47) A 48) C 49) D 50) A 51) E 52) B 53) C 54) E 55) E 56) E 57) B 58) C 59) C 60) C Version 1

61) D 62) D 63) B 64) C 65) B 66) B 67) E 68) D 69) B 70) D 71) TRUE 72) FALSE 73) FALSE

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CHAPTER 8 1) What are the three types of evidence necessary to form a conclusion regarding the results of the bystanders and thieves study? Explain how each form of evidence would be used to draw a conclusion for the example provided.

What are the steps a researcher follows in conducting an experiment?

3) List five possible threats to internal validity. How do each of these threats weaken the design?

4) Explain the primary differences between preexperiments, true experiments, and quasiexperiments.

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5) What is an asymmetrical relationship? List and explain the four types of asymmetrical relationships that a researcher may observe.

6) What are the three types of evidence a researcher seeks when testing causal hypotheses? Explain.

7) Which term below refers to a study involving the manipulation of one or more variables to determine the effect on another variable? A) Ex post facto B) Experiment C) Monitoring study D) Communication study E) Descriptive study

Which variable in an experiment is manipulated by the researcher?

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A) Dependent variable B) Extraneous variable C) Moderating variable D) Independent variable E) Mediating variable

9) Which variable in an experiment is the variable expected to be affected by the manipulation? A) Dependent variable B) Extraneous variable C) Moderating variable D) Independent variable E) Mediating variable

10)

All of the following are terms used to refer to an independent variable except ________. A) predictor B) explanatory C) criterion D) All of the above refer to an independent variable. E) None of the above refer to an independent variable.

11) In the study of bystanders and thieves presented in the text, participants are invited to a store where they see someone steal the purse of another customer. The accosted shopper and the thief are really acting their parts to set the stage for the experiment. Participants view the robbery alone or with another participant. The study sought to determine whether participants were more likely to report a robbery when they observe it alone or in the company of another person. In the bystanders and thieves study, what is the independent variable?

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A) The store environment B) Exposure to a robbery C) State of being alone or with another person D) Act of reporting the robbery or not E) Reaction of the accosted shopper following the robbery

12) In the study of bystanders and thieves presented in the text, participants are invited to a store where they see someone steal the purse of another customer. The accosted shopper and the thief are really acting their parts to set the stage for the experiment. Participants view the robbery alone or with another participant. The study sought to determine whether participants were more likely to report a robbery when they observe it alone or in the company of another person. What is the dependent variable in the bystanders and thieves study? A) The store environment B) Exposure to a robbery C) State of being alone or with another person D) Act of reporting the robbery or not E) Reaction of the accosted shopper following the robbery

13) In the study of bystanders and thieves presented in the text, participants are invited to a store where they see someone steal the purse of another customer. The accosted shopper and the thief are really acting their parts to set the stage for the experiment. Participants view the robbery alone or with another participant. The study sought to determine whether participants were more likely to report a robbery when they observe it alone or in the company of another person. The actors playing the role of the accosted shopper and thief in the bystanders and thieves study are known as ________.

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A) confederates B) assistants C) criterions D) affiliates E) accomplices

14) In the study of bystanders and thieves presented in the text, participants are invited to a store where they see someone steal the purse of another customer. The accosted shopper and the thief are really acting their parts to set the stage for the experiment. Participants view the robbery alone or with another participant. The study sought to determine whether participants were more likely to report a robbery when they observe it alone or in the company of another person. What type of research design is used in the bystanders and thieves study? A) Descriptive B) Causal C) Exploratory D) Monitoring E) Communication

15) In the study of bystanders and thieves presented in the text, participants are invited to a store where they see someone steal the purse of another customer. The accosted shopper and the thief are really acting their parts to set the stage for the experiment. Participants view the robbery alone or with another participant. The study sought to determine whether participants were more likely to report a robbery when they observe it alone or in the company of another person. Which of the following statements best represents the hypothesis in the bystanders and thieves study?

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A) People exposed to a robbery will judge the seriousness of the situation according to the response of the victim. B) Bystanders will perceive a robbery as less frightening when in the company of another person. C) Reports of a robbery are more likely among victims of a robbery when a witness is present. D) Bystanders are more likely to report a theft if they view the theft alone than in another person's company. E) Bystanders to a theft will be less likely to shop at the store in which the theft occurred.

16) The district attorney's office wants further evidence of the results found in the bystanders and thieves study. It decides to conduct a study using data from reported thefts over the past fiveyear period. Police records indicate whether bystanders who report a crime are alone when the crime is observed or are accompanied by one or more people. The district attorney's office will assess whether more theft reports indicate that the witness was alone or with other people. Which type of study is being conducted by the district attorney's office? A) Survey B) Experiment C) Ex post facto D) Interview E) Observation

17) The district attorney's office wants further evidence of the results found in the bystanders and thieves study. It decides to conduct a study using data from reported thefts over the past fiveyear period. Police records indicate whether bystanders who report a crime are alone when the crime is observed or are accompanied by one or more people. The district attorney's office will assess whether more theft reports indicate that the witness was alone or with other people. Which of the following statements best represents the hypothesis in the district attorney's study?

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A) People exposed to a robbery will judge the seriousness of the situation according to the response of the victim. B) Bystanders will perceive a robbery as less frightening when in the company of another person. C) More robberies are reported by bystanders who view the theft alone than by bystanders who view the theft in the company of others. D) Reports of a robbery are more likely among victims of a robbery when a witness is present. E) Bystanders to a theft will be less likely to shop at the store in which the theft occurred.

18)

Which research design listed below is most appropriate for establishing causality? A) Focus group B) Individual depth interview C) Experiment D) Survey E) Behavioral observation

19) The use of a(n) ________ serves as a comparison to assess the existence and potency of the manipulation. A) experimental group B) control group C) criterion variable D) explanatory variable E) field experiment

20) When an experiment is conducted in actual environmental conditions, it is called a(n) ________ experiment.

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A) replication B) simulated C) field D) extraneous E) test market

21) Which source of evidence to support experimental results is most threatened by the use of a field experiment? A) Agreement between the independent and dependent variables B) Time order of the occurrence of the variables C) Control of contamination from extraneous variables D) Use of a control group E) Manipulation of the independent variable

22) The process of repeating an experiment with different participant groups and conditions to determine the average effect of the independent variable across people, situations, and times is known as ________. A) replication B) evaluation C) repetition D) norming E) multimodal

23)

The use of a control group in experimentation ________.

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A) provides for the manipulation of the independent variable B) serves as a comparison to assess the manipulation C) minimizes the cost of experimentation D) allows for discovery of the average effect of the independent variable in different situations E) increases generalizability of results

24)

The use of a replication in experimentation ________.

25)

The use of a field setting in experimentation ________.

26) Which of the following is a threat to a researcher's ability to generalize the results of an experiment?

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A) Artificiality of a laboratory B) Use of a field setting C) Use of a probability sample D) Control of extraneous variables E) All of the above are correct.

27) A tentative descriptive statement of the relationship between the variables is called a(n) ________. A) research question B) postulation C) hypothesis D) educated guess E) theory

28) Which term refers to the process of transforming concepts and constructs into measurable variables suitable for testing? A) Generalization B) Control C) Hypothetical D) Operationalization E) Transformation

29)

What is the first step in conducting an experiment? A) Specify the level(s) of the treatment. B) Choose the experimental design. C) Control the experimental environment. D) Select and assign participants. E) Select the relevant variables.

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30) When participants do not know if they are being exposed to the experimental treatment, they are said to be ________. A) blind B) deceived C) concealed D) controlled E) debriefed

31) When it is not possible to randomly assign participants to groups, ________ should be used. A) control groups B) matching C) replication D) purposive assignment E) pilot testing

32) The question of whether conclusions about a demonstrated experimental relationship truly imply causality is addressed by the degree of ________ associated with the experiment. A) internal validity B) external validity C) reliability D) statistical significance E) substantive significance

33) The question of whether the results of an experiment can be generalized to the population at large is addressed by the degree of ________ associated with the experiment.

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A) internal validity B) external validity C) reliability D) statistical significance E) substantive significance

34) Which threat to internal validity occurs when events that occur before or during the experiment affect the relationship being studied? A) History B) Maturation C) Testing D) Instrumentation E) Mortality

35) Which threat to internal validity results from changes between observations in either the measuring instrument or the observer? A) History B) Maturation C) Testing D) Instrumentation E) Mortality

36) Which threat to internal validity is largely overcome by using random assignment of participants to experimental and control groups?

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A) History B) Maturation C) Selection D) Instrumentation E) Mortality

37) If the levels of attrition are high among study participants, ________ will threaten the internal validity of the study. A) history B) maturation C) testing D) instrumentation E) mortality

38)

Diffusion of treatment refers to the threat to internal validity brought on when ________.

A) people in the experimental group communicate the treatment with people in the control group B) researchers compensate the control group as a sort of consolation for not receiving a desirable treatment C) competition arises between the groups D) control group members resent being deprived of a desirable treatment E) an unusual event occurs when one group, but not both, is participating in the study

39) Compensatory equalization refers to the threat to internal validity brought on when ________.

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40)

Compensatory rivalry refers to the threat to internal validity brought on when ________.

41) Resentful demoralization refers to the threat to internal validity brought on when ________. A) people in the experimental group communicate the treatment with people in the control group B) researchers compensate the control group as a sort of consolation for not receiving a desirable treatment C) competition arises between the groups D) control group members resent being deprived of a desirable treatment E) an unusual event occurs when one group, but not both, is participating in the study

42)

Local history refers to the threat to internal validity brought on when ________.

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43) ________ is concerned with the interaction of the experimental treatment with other factors and the resulting impact on the ability to generalize results to other times, settings, or persons. A) Reliability B) External validity C) Internal validity D) Statistical significance E) Substantive significance

44)

Which of the following could threaten the external validity of an experiment? A) Diffusion of treatment B) Artificial setting C) History D) Maturation E) Regression toward the mean

45)

Which of the following is an example of an after-only case study experimental design?

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A) Store traffic is measured following the announcement of a clearance sale. B) Store traffic is measured; a sale is announced; store traffic is measured again. C) People who saw an ad are compared to people who did not see the ad on their attitude toward the brand. D) Random assignment is used to divide participants into the control and experimental groups; a control group responds to a pretest on brand preferences and a posttest; an experimental group responds to a pretest, is exposed to a commercial for the brand, and responds to a posttest. E) Random assignment is used to divide participants into control and experimental groups; the experimental group is exposed to a commercial and then their attitude toward the brand is measured; their attitude toward the brand is also measured for the control group.

46) Which of the following is an example of a one-group pretest-posttest experimental design? A) Store traffic is measured following the announcement of a clearance sale. B) Store traffic is measured; a sale is announced; store traffic is measured again. C) People who saw an ad are compared to people who did not see the ad on their attitude toward the brand. D) Random assignment is used to divide participants into the control and experimental groups; a control group responds to a pretest on brand preferences and a posttest; an experimental group responds to a pretest, is exposed to a commercial for the brand, and responds to a posttest. E) Random assignment is used to divide participants into control and experimental groups; the experimental group is exposed to a commercial and then their attitude toward the brand is measured; their attitude toward the brand is also measured for the control group.

47) Which experimental design provides the best defense against the threats to internal validity?

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A) After-only case study B) Static group comparison C) One-group pretest-posttest D) Nonequivalent control group E) Pretest-posttest control group

48)

The greatest weakness to the pretest-posttest control group design is ________. A) reliability B) causality C) external validity D) internal validity E) espionage

49) Which of the following is an example of a pretest-posttest control group experimental design? A) Store traffic is measured following the announcement of a clearance sale. B) Store traffic is measured; a sale is announced; store traffic is measured again. C) People who saw an ad are compared to people who did not see the ad on their attitude toward the brand. D) Random assignment is used to divide participants into the control and experimental groups; a control group responds to a pretest on brand preferences and a posttest; an experimental group responds to a pretest, is exposed to a commercial for the brand, and responds to a posttest. E) Random assignment is used to divide participants into control and experimental groups; the experimental group is exposed to a commercial and then their attitude toward the brand is measured; their attitude toward the brand is also measured for the control group.

50) Which of the following is an example of a post-test only control group experimental design?

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51) In a pretest-posttest control group design, O1 and O2 are pretest measures, and O3 and O4 are posttest measures of the dependent variable. To evaluate the effect of the treatment in a pretest, posttest control group design, ________ is calculated. A) (O2 − O1) − (O4 − O3) B) O1 − O3 C) O4 − O3 D) O2 − O3 E) O4 − O2

52) In a pretest-posttest control group design, O1 and O2 are pretest measures, and O3 and O4 are posttest measures of the dependent variable. To assess the equivalence of the groups in a pretest, posttest control group design, ________ is calculated.

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A) (O2 − O1) − (O4 − O3) B) O1 − O3 C) O4 − O3 D) O2 − O3 E) O4 − O2

53)

True experimental designs differ from preexperimental designs in that ________. A) true experimental designs use random assignment B) preexperimental designs include the use of a control group C) preexperimental designs include the use of pretests D) true experimental designs include multiple treatment groups E) preexperimental designs have fewer threats to internal validity

54) What characteristic distinguishes the pretest-posttest control group design from the nonequivalent control group design? A) Membership in the experimental and control groups is naturally assembled in the pretest-posttest control group design. B) Random assignment is not possible in the nonequivalent control group design. C) No pretest is used in the nonequivalent control group design. D) One cannot determine which group was exposed to the treatment in the nonequivalent control group design. E) No posttest is used in the nonequivalent control group design.

55) When the researcher does not know whether a participant in an experiment is being exposed to the treatment, the experiment is described as ________.

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A) controlled B) blind C) double blind D) concealed E) independent

56) Environmental control in an experiment is necessary when ________ might influence the participants' reactions. A) variation in instructions B) physical conditions of the room C) anticipation of the treatment D) All of the above are correct. E) None of the above is correct.

57)

To operationalize an experiment, all the ________ must be predetermined. A) steps in the experiment B) construct and concept definitions C) researcher assignments D) All of the above are correct. E) None of the above is correct.

58) One tool for visualizing the matching process of participants in an experiment is ________. A) CPM B) the quota matrix C) random sampling D) experimental design symbols E) None of the above is correct.

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59) One restaurant was experimenting with lowering the cholesterol level of recipes by substituting different cooking oils/fats in their dishes. They chose olive oil, canola oil, and margarine. Different patrons received the recipe prepared with one of the three oils/fats and then were asked for their evaluation of texture, flavor, and overall satisfaction, intention to repurchase the entree. The experiment involved three ________. A) dependent variables B) treatment levels C) moderating variables D) control groups E) None of the above is correct.

60) When two variables vary together but changes in the variables are not due to changes in the other, a(n) ________ relationship is said to exist. A) reciprocal B) asymmetrical C) causal D) symmetrical E) spurious

61)

Which of the following is not a type of evidence used to test causal hypotheses? A) Covariation between variables A and B B) Time order of events C) Alternative causes D) Disposition of variable B E) All of the above can be used to test causal hypotheses.

62) The research experiment is superior to the ex post facto research design when the researcher ________. Version 1

A) must avoid influencing the variables under study and therefore avoid biasing the results B) needs to cause variables to be changed or held constant in keeping with specified research objectives C) is limited to hold all factors constant by selection of participants according to strict sampling procedures and statistical manipulation of findings D) decides to use the design more common to research in the social sciences and business

63) The basic method by which we determine equivalence between study and control groups in an ex post facto study is by ________. A) matching B) definition C) induction D) random assignment

64) The interactions between two sets of variables may reflect relationships that are ________. A) symmetrical B) reciprocal C) asymmetrical D) All of the above are correct.

65) "The introduction of a four-day week leads to increased productivity particularly among young workers by improving job satisfaction." In this statement, improving job satisfaction is the ________.

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A) independent variable B) dependent variable C) intervening variable D) moderating variable

66)

The major relationships of interest to the research analyst are those that are ________. A) asymmetrical B) exclusive C) independent D) reciprocal E) symmetrical

67) If your firm wants to test whether an increase in interest of 0.25% increases the savings rate, it would be evaluating a ________ asymmetrical causal relationship. A) stimulus-response B) property-disposition C) disposition-behavior D) property-behavior E) stimulus-property

68) If your firm wants to test whether a person's state of residence affected their interest in saving, it would be evaluating a ________ asymmetrical causal relationship. A) stimulus-response B) property-disposition C) disposition-behavior D) property-behavior E) stimulus-property

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69) If your firm wants to test whether a belief in quality of life over length of life affected investment in stocks, it would be evaluating a ________ asymmetrical causal relationship. A) stimulus-response B) property-disposition C) disposition-behavior D) property-behavior E) stimulus-property

70) If your firm wants to test whether having preschool children in the household increases the percent of income saved, it would be evaluating a ________ asymmetrical causal relationship. A) stimulus-response B) property-disposition C) disposition-behavior D) property-behavior E) stimulus-property

71) We want to evaluate dog owners' reactions to a new dog food product formulation that contains more vegetables. We bring dogs into a lab setting—a kennel-like structure where the dogs are in a no-light setting. The bowl of a small amount of food slides through a small slot door into the dog's holding area. Each dog receives two bowls 4 hours apart, one with the greater vegetable content and one with the original content, where the order is randomized. Speed to first bite is measured as well as the time to consume the full food amount. The dogs are removed from the holding area for exercise and play between bowls. The sample contains 12 different breeds and sizes of dogs. In this dog food experiment, causation explains ________.

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A) why the dogs are isolated B) why we are controlling the dogs' ability to see the food C) why we are measuring how quickly they are drawn to eat the food D) why we are manipulating the formula E) All of the above are correct.

72) We want to evaluate dog owners' reactions to a new dog food product formulation that contains more vegetables. We bring dogs into a lab setting—a kennel-like structure where the dogs are in a no-light setting. The bowl of a small amount of food slides through a small slot door into the dog's holding area. Each dog receives two bowls 4 hours apart, one with the greater vegetable content and one with the original content, where the order is randomized. Speed to first bite is measured as well as the time to consume the full food amount. The dogs are removed from the holding area for exercise and play between bowls. The sample contains 12 different breeds and sizes of dogs. In this dog food experiment, the researcher is concerned that the shape of the food or its color might influence the dog's receptivity to the food. In this example, eliminating light is a(n) ________. A) treatment B) treatment level C) control D) independent variable E) dependent variable

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73) We want to evaluate dog owners' reactions to a new dog food product formulation that contains more vegetables. We bring dogs into a lab setting—a kennel-like structure where the dogs are in a no-light setting. The bowl of a small amount of food slides through a small slot door into the dog's holding area. Each dog receives two bowls 4 hours apart, one with the greater vegetable content and one with the original content, where the order is randomized. Speed to first bite is measured as well as the time to consume the full food amount. The dogs are removed from the holding area for exercise and play between bowls. The sample contains 12 different breeds and sizes of dogs. In this dog food experiment, the researcher is concerned that the shape of the food or its color might influence the dog's receptivity to the food. In this example, using a lab setting is a(n) ________. A) treatment B) treatment level C) control D) independent variable E) dependent variable

74) We want to evaluate dog owners' reactions to a new dog food product formulation that contains more vegetables. We bring dogs into a lab setting—a kennel-like structure where the dogs are in a no-light setting. The bowl of a small amount of food slides through a small slot door into the dog's holding area. Each dog receives two bowls 4 hours apart, one with the greater vegetable content and one with the original content, where the order is randomized. Speed to first bite is measured as well as the time to consume the full food amount. The dogs are removed from the holding area for exercise and play between bowls. The sample contains 12 different breeds and sizes of dogs. In this dog food experiment, the researcher is concerned that the dog might not be as hungry for the second bowl as for the first and that the time-to-first-bite measurement might be slower as a result. The researcher is concerned about ________.

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A) history B) maturation C) testing D) instrumentation E) selection

75) We want to evaluate dog owners' reactions to a new dog food product formulation that contains more vegetables. We bring dogs into a lab setting—a kennel-like structure where the dogs are in a no-light setting. The bowl of a small amount of food slides through a small slot door into the dog's holding area. Each dog receives two bowls 4 hours apart, one with the greater vegetable content and one with the original content, where the order is randomized. Speed to first bite is measured as well as the time to consume the full food amount. The dogs are removed from the holding area for exercise and play between bowls. The sample contains 12 different breeds and sizes of dogs. Time-to-first-bite, an indicant of the aroma appeal of the formula to the dog, is the ________. A) independent variable B) control variable C) dependent variable D) regression toward the mean E) causation

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76) We want to evaluate dog owners' reactions to a new dog food product formulation that contains more vegetables. An experiment is conducted where five stores are chosen in each of two regions (A and B) with similar sales for the original formulation. In region A, the shelves are stocked with both formulations. In region B, the stores are stocked with only the original formulation. The package of the new formula is exactly the same as the original formula except for three modifications: the color is changed (from blue to green), the content label is changed, and a yellow banner with black letters "More vegetables!" diagonally crosses the upper left corner of the bag. For a sixmonth period before and after the new product formula introduction, sales of the original version are recorded in all ten stores; for the six months after the new product formulation, sales of the more-vegetable formula in the five stores are recorded. In the dog food test market, the experimental design ________. A) is a group time series design B) is a nonequivalent control group design C) measures a property-disposition relationship D) uses a quota matrix E) involves random assignment

77) We want to evaluate dog owners' reactions to a new dog food product formulation that contains more vegetables. An experiment is conducted where five stores are chosen in each of two regions (A and B) with similar sales for the original formulation. In region A, the shelves are stocked with both formulations. In region B, the stores are stocked with only the original formulation. The package of the new formula is exactly the same as the original formula except for three modifications: the color is changed (from blue to green), the content label is changed, and a yellow banner with black letters "More vegetables!" diagonally crosses the upper left corner of the bag. For a sixmonth period before and after the new product formula introduction, sales of the original version are recorded in all ten stores; for the six months after the new product formulation, sales of the more-vegetable formula in the five stores are recorded. In the dog food test market, the packaging ________.

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A) is the independent variable B) is the dependent variable C) is a moderating variable D) is a treatment E) is a treatment level

78) We want to evaluate dog owners' reactions to a new dog food product formulation that contains more vegetables. An experiment is conducted where five stores are chosen in each of two regions (A and B) with similar sales for the original formulation. In region A, the shelves are stocked with both formulations. In region B, the stores are stocked with only the original formulation. The package of the new formula is exactly the same as the original formula except for three modifications: the color is changed (from blue to green), the content label is changed, and a yellow banner with black letters "More vegetables!" diagonally crosses the upper left corner of the bag. For a sixmonth period before and after the new product formula introduction, sales of the original version are recorded in all ten stores; for the six months after the new product formulation, sales of the more-vegetable formula in the five stores are recorded. In the dog food test market, the more-vegetable formula ________. A) is the independent variable B) is the dependent variable C) is an extraneous variable D) is a treatment E) is a treatment level

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79) We want to evaluate dog owners' reactions to a new dog food product formulation that contains more vegetables. An experiment is conducted where five stores are chosen in each of two regions (A and B) with similar sales for the original formulation. In region A, the shelves are stocked with both formulations. In region B, the stores are stocked with only the original formulation. The package of the new formula is exactly the same as the original formula except for three modifications: the color is changed (from blue to green), the content label is changed, and a yellow banner with black letters "More vegetables!" diagonally crosses the upper left corner of the bag. For a sixmonth period before and after the new product formula introduction, sales of the original version are recorded in all ten stores; for the six months after the new product formulation, sales of the more-vegetable formula in the five stores are recorded. In the dog food test market, the decision to use two regions from which to draw the 10 stores involved in the test describes which task of conducting an experiment? A) Select relevant variables B) Specify treatment levels C) Choose experimental design D) Select and assign cases E) Pilot test, revise, and pretest

80) We want to evaluate dog owners' reactions to a new dog food product formulation that contains more vegetables. An experiment is conducted where five stores are chosen in each of two regions (A and B) with similar sales for the original formulation. In region A, the shelves are stocked with both formulations. In region B, the stores are stocked with only the original formulation. The package of the new formula is exactly the same as the original formula except for three modifications: the color is changed (from blue to green), the content label is changed, and a yellow banner with black letters "More vegetables!" diagonally crosses the upper left corner of the bag. For a sixmonth period before and after the new product formula introduction, sales of the original version are recorded in all ten stores; for the six months after the new product formulation, sales of the more-vegetable formula in the five stores are recorded. In the dog food test market, the decision to compare region A with region B's sales describes which task of conducting an experiment?

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A) Select relevant variables B) Specify treatment levels C) Choose an experimental design D) Select and assign cases E) Pilot test, revise, and pretest

81) We want to evaluate dog owners' reactions to a new dog food product formulation that contains more vegetables. An experiment is conducted where five stores are chosen in each of two regions (A and B) with similar sales for the original formulation. In region A, the shelves are stocked with both formulations. In region B, the stores are stocked with only the original formulation. The package of the new formula is exactly the same as the original formula except for three modifications: the color is changed (from blue to green), the content label is changed, and a yellow banner with black letters "More vegetables!" diagonally crosses the upper left corner of the bag. For a sixmonth period before and after the new product formula introduction, sales of the original version are recorded in all ten stores; for the six months after the new product formulation, sales of the more-vegetable formula in the five stores are recorded. For the dog food test market experiment, rather than selecting two regions (A and B) with similar sales levels, assume that you instead chose five stores in region C (a high-sales region) to compare to five stores in region D (a low-sales region). Which of the following factors might affect the study's internal validity? A) Regression toward the mean B) Maturation C) Experimental mortality D) Instrumentation E) Selection

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82) We want to evaluate dog owners' reactions to a new dog food product formulation that contains more vegetables. An experiment is conducted where five stores are chosen in each of two regions (A and B) with similar sales for the original formulation. In region A, the shelves are stocked with both formulations. In region B, the stores are stocked with only the original formulation. The package of the new formula is exactly the same as the original formula except for three modifications: the color is changed (from blue to green), the content label is changed, and a yellow banner with black letters "More vegetables!" diagonally crosses the upper left corner of the bag. For a sixmonth period before and after the new product formula introduction, sales of the original version are recorded in all ten stores; for the six months after the new product formulation, sales of the more-vegetable formula in the five stores are recorded. For the dog food test market experiment, rather than choosing stores that had similar sales levels, assume that you compiled a list of all the stores, alphabetized the list by their street name, and chose stores from that list using a probability sampling procedure. This would be an example of ________. A) treatment levels B) quota matrix C) matching D) random assignment E) pilot testing

83) We want to evaluate dog owners' reactions to a new dog food product formulation that contains more vegetables. A promotional booth is set up at 10 dog events around the country. We distribute a one-day sample of the new more-vegetable formula to dog owners who come by the booth. If dog owners also provide their e-mail, they will be emailed a 20% off coupon for their first purchase. We measure the effectiveness of the more-vegetable formula by the number of coupons that are used to make purchases in stores. This is an example of ________.

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A) static group comparison design B) after-only design C) posttest-only control group design D) random assignment E) pilot testing

84) We want to evaluate dog owners' reactions to a new dog food product formulation that contains more vegetables. A promotional booth is set up at 10 dog events around the country. We distribute a one-day sample of the new more-vegetable formula to dog owners who come by the booth. If dog owners also provide their e-mail, they will be emailed a 20% off coupon for their first purchase. We measure the effectiveness of the more-vegetable formula by the number of coupons that are used to make purchases in stores. This is an example of an experiment designed to assess a ________ asymmetrical causal relationship. A) stimulus-response B) property-disposition C) disposition-behavior D) property-behavior E) stimulus-property

85) Which of the following is not true about the three dog food reformulation experimental designs: (1) based on dog responses, (2) based on sales in stores, and (3) based on stopping for a sample at a dog event and later using a coupon in a store.

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A) Design 1 will reveal the dog's reaction, but this may not translate to product sales in stores. B) Design 2 will reveal that the dog owner has a positive disposition about feeding their dog vegetables that translates to initial sales, but that may not translate to repeat sales if the dog does not eat the food. C) Design 3 will reveal that the dog reacted favorably to the formula and the dog-owner has a positive disposition about feeding their dog vegetables if the coupon is used to make a purchase in the store, but that may not translate into repeat sales due to a higher subsequent price. D) Design 2 uses matching. E) Design 1 and 3 are field experiments.

86) Which experimental design requires a control group and takes only a posttest measure of both groups? A) After-only design B) Static group comparison design C) Nonequivalent control group design D) Group time series design E) None of the above is correct.

87) Which experimental design calculates the difference of a pretest measure of a control group and a posttest measure of an experimental group? A) Pretest-posttest control group design B) Static group comparison design C) Nonequivalent control group design D) Separate sample pretest-posttest design E) None of the above is correct.

88) Which of the following experimental designs can be effectively deployed using company records to locate the dates of an unexpected event? Version 1

A) Pretest-posttest control group design B) Static group comparison design C) Nonequivalent control group design D) Group time series design E) None of the above is correct.

89)

The foremost advantage of the experiment in business research is ________. A) The pretest-posttest control group design B) The ability to convincingly link one variable to another. C) The ability to prove causation between variables with certainty D) The ability to eliminate contamination from extraneous variables. E) None of the above is correct.

90) We want to evaluate dog owners' reactions to a new dog food product formulation that contains more vegetables. An experiment is conducted where five stores are chosen in each of two regions (A and B) with similar sales for the original formulation. In region A, the shelves are stocked with both formulations. In region B, the stores are stocked with only the original formulation. The package of the new formula is exactly the same as the original formula except for three modifications: the color is changed (from blue to green), the content label is changed, and a yellow banner with black letters "More vegetables!" diagonally crosses the upper left corner of the bag. For a sixmonth period before and after the new product formula introduction, sales of the original version are recorded in all ten stores; for the six months after the new product formulation, sales of the more-vegetable formula in the five stores are recorded. It would have been appropriate for this dog food test market design to have used a quota matrix in selecting participating stores. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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91)

The cost of an experiment is its major disadvantage. ⊚ true ⊚ false

92) Generalization to a target population from an experiment's nonprobability sample is a weakness of an experiment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

93)

The purpose of debriefing in an experimental design is to address participant welfare. ⊚ true ⊚ false

94) The purpose of debriefing in an experimental design is to address participant confidentiality. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 08_14e_TB 7) B 8) D 9) A 10) C 11) C 12) D 13) A 14) B 15) D 16) C 17) C 18) C 19) B 20) C 21) C 22) A 23) B 24) D 25) E 26) A 27) C 28) D 29) E 30) A 31) B 32) A Version 1

33) B 34) A 35) D 36) C 37) E 38) A 39) B 40) C 41) D 42) E 43) B 44) B 45) A 46) B 47) E 48) C 49) D 50) E 51) A 52) B 53) A 54) B 55) C 56) D 57) B 58) B 59) B 60) D 61) D 62) B Version 1

63) A 64) D 65) C 66) A 67) A 68) B 69) C 70) D 71) E 72) C 73) C 74) B 75) C 76) B 77) C 78) A 79) D 80) C 81) A 82) D 83) B 84) A 85) E 86) B 87) D 88) D 89) B 90) FALSE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE Version 1

93) TRUE 94) TRUE

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CHAPTER 9 1) Identify the three categories of error in communication research. Explain how each source can contribute to error.

2) Explain the meaning of nonresponse error. How can researchers reduce the potential for nonresponse error in surveys?

3) Compare and contrast computer-assisted telephone interviewing with the use of computer-administered telephone surveys.

A communication approach to data collection involves ________. A) observing behavior B) recording trace evidence C) surveying people D) data analytics E) linguistic behavior analysis

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Surveys are used in ________ research studies. A) monitoring B) communication C) observation D) behavioral observation E) nonbehavioral observation

All of the following are sources of error in communication research except ________. A) measurement questions B) observers C) survey questionnaires D) interviewers E) participants

7) Emma is responding to a survey about her experience using the NetFlix streaming delivery service. One question on the questionnaire asks "How satisfied are you with your overall experience with NetFlix?" The questionnaire response options provided are Strongly Agree to Strongly Disagree. Which of the following sources of error in communication research is present in this example? A) Measurement questions B) Observers C) Interviewers D) Participants E) All of the above are correct.

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8) Rachel is conducting phone interviews for Redbox on perceptions of its new "No Late Fees" program. When she interviews customers of the Redbox service, she tends to change the wording of the question from "How loyal are you to using Redbox for your rental needs?" to "So you aren't loyal to Redbox, are you?" Which of the following sources of error in communication research is present in this example? A) Measurement questions B) Observers C) Interviewers D) Participants E) All of the above are correct.

9) Mike resents getting calls from telemarketers and pollsters. A research firm called yesterday to question him concerning his preference for radio stations. When Mike was asked to report his household income, he inflated his income to the highest range offered. He also misreported his age and occupation. Which of the following sources of error in communication research is presented in this example? A) Measurement questions B) Observers C) Interviewers D) Participants E) All of the above are correct.

10)

The failure to secure full participant cooperation for a study can result in ________ error. A) measurement B) instrumentation C) data entry D) sampling E) nonresponse

11)

Interviewer error may be caused by ________.

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A) an unwillingness to participate B) participant faulty recall C) the falsification of answers D) social desirability responding E) All of the above are correct.

12) Which type of error occurs when the interviewer summarizes or interprets participant answers when recording them? A) Measurement B) Instrumentation C) Interviewer D) Participant E) Nonresponse

13)

Which of the following factors will tend to decrease participant motivation? A) Prestige of research sponsor B) Perceived importance of the topic C) Interest in the topic D) Competing activities E) Conscientiousness

14) A study reported in the Journal of Management Research concluded that individuals are more motivated to respond to surveys when ________. A) the topic is important B) incentives are offered C) participants have a strong social network D) they can respond at work E) they know others like themselves have already responded

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15) ________ occurs when the responses of participants differ in some systematic way from the responses of nonparticipants. A) Measurement error B) Data entry error C) Sampling error D) Response error E) Nonresponse error

16) David's Bridal is conducting a survey of the trends in dress preferences among women who will marry sometime in the next 12 months. Questionnaires were mailed to 100,000 women, but only 1000 responded resulting in a response rate of 1%. This study is threatened by ________. A) nonresponse error B) response error C) sampling error D) measurement error E) coverage error

17) In a phone survey, one question asks participants whether they have donated money to the American Red Cross following the recent flood and fire loss disasters. This type of question is subject to ________. A) nonresponse bias B) acquiescence C) social desirability bias D) satisficing E) sampling error

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18) The tendency for participants to give answers that are perceived as being socially acceptable, whether or not the answers are truthful, is known as ________. A) nonresponse B) item nonresponse C) acquiescence D) social desirability bias E) impression management

19)

The tendency for participants to be agreeable is called ________. A) social desirability responding B) acquiescence bias C) elaboration likelihood D) agreeableness E) conscientiousness

20) Self-administered questionnaires may be delivered via all of the following channels except ________. A) mail B) fax C) landline phone D) Internet E) smartphone

21)

Which type of communication data collection is typically the lowest-cost option?

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A) Self-administered B) Phone interview C) Personal interview D) Record analysis E) Observation

22) An instrument completed by the participant without additional contact with an interviewer beyond the initial delivery of the instrument is called a ________. A) computer-assisted self-interview B) disk-by-mail survey C) mail survey D) self-administered questionnaire E) Web survey

23)

Which of the following is not a reason for the growth in Web-based surveys? A) Participant perceptions of anonymity B) Ability to use visual stimuli C) Speed of response D) Cost efficiencies E) Recruiting a probability sample is easy

24) Surveys conducted via the Internet or mobile phone reduce costs by eliminating the costs associated with ________. A) interviewers B) postage C) data entry D) printing E) All of the above are correct.

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25)

Sample accessibility is generally maximized by the use of ________ surveys. A) landline phone B) mobile phone C) mail D) Internet E) fax

26) Confusion between telemarketing calls and legitimate phone surveys has caused an increase in ________. A) noncontract rate B) refusal rate C) social desirability bias D) acquiescence bias E) physical presence bias

27)

The survey mode with the greatest perceived anonymity is the ________. A) electronic mail (e-mail) survey B) mail survey C) phone survey D) person-administered survey E) intercept survey

28) The participants' perceptions that the interviewer will not be able to discern their identity refers to the ________.

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A) response rate B) social desirability responding C) perception of anonymity D) refusal rate E) incidence rate

29) One rule of thumb is that participants should be able to answer the questions in a selfadministered survey in no more than ________. A) 10 minutes B) 15 minutes C) 30 minutes D) 45 minutes E) There are no guidelines related to survey length.

30) The ________ suggests that a participant's burden should be minimized in the survey response process by creating questionnaires that are easy to read, offer clear response directions, include personalized communication, notify the participant about the survey in advance, and encourage the participant to participate. A) Survey Design Bible B) economic decision-making literature C) Total Design Method D) Gallup Organization E) theory of reciprocation

31) Which type of incentive has been shown to consistently improve response rates to surveys?

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A) Free product samples B) Money C) Gift certificates D) Prize draw chance E) Receipt of poststudy results

32) Response rates to self-administered surveys can be improved by using all of the following techniques except ________. A) advance notification B) reminders to complete C) promise of anonymity D) monetary incentives E) appeal for participation

33) The presence of a(n) ________ is the primary difference between a computer-assisted telephone interview and a computer-administered telephone survey. A) computer B) human interviewer C) supervisor D) participant E) recording device

34) Phoebe is working at a call center for a research company. She sits in an individual carrel with a personal computer that is networked to the phone system and to the central data processing unit. The computer selects phone numbers, dials each number, and accepts responses as Phoebe enters what the participants tell her. A software program prompts her with each question and precoded response options. Phoebe is collecting data using ________.

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A) computer-assisted telephone interviewing B) OTS software C) computer-administered telephone surveys D) computer-delivered surveys E) computer-assisted personal interviewing

35)

For which type of phone interview is the refusal rate the highest? A) Computer-assisted telephone interviewing B) OTS C) Computer-administered telephone surveys D) Computer-delivered surveys E) Computer-assisted personal interviewing

36) The ratio of those contacted who decline the interview to all eligible contacts is the ________ rate. A) nonresponse B) noncontact C) incidence D) refusal E) reachable

37) Which term below refers to the ratio of potential contacts that were never reached to all potential contacts? A) Nonresponse B) Noncontact C) Incidence D) Refusal E) Reachable

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38) Which of the following trends is increasing the noncontact rate associated with phone surveys? A) Penetration of mobile phones B) Replacement of landline telephones with mobile phones C) Caller identification systems on phones D) Voice mail systems on phones E) All of the above are correct.

39) Which of the following trends is increasing the refusal rate associated with phone surveys? A) Penetration of mobile phones B) Replacement of landline telephones with mobile phones C) Caller id systems D) Negative attitudes toward survey participation E) Voice mail

40) Which limitation listed below can be overcome by the use of random dialing in phone surveys? A) Inaccessible households B) Inaccurate or private listings in published phone directories C) Limited interview length D) Ease of interview termination E) Low participant involvement

41) Personal interviewing with computer-sequenced questions capable of employing visualization techniques is called ________.

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A) computer-assisted telephone interviewing B) computer-administered telephone interviewing C) computer-assisted personal interviewing D) computer-administered surveying E) personal-assisted computer interviewing

42)

Which of the following is not a type of personal interview data collection method? A) In-home B) Mall intercept survey C) Computer-assisted personal interview D) Email survey E) All of the above are personal interview methods.

43) Of the three locations provided, an intercept interview is most likely to occur at a ________. A) mall B) school C) hospital D) home E) All of the above are correct.

44) Brittany is considering an intercept survey as the data collection mode for her study on drinking behaviors and sexual activity. To execute this type of study, she could ________. A) email a questionnaire to students B) mail a questionnaire to a student's permanent address C) approach students outside the dining hall D) phone students using cell phone numbers E) text message students using cell phone numbers

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45) Which term is used to describe the act of obtaining permission to survey prospects or customers? A) Opt-in B) Choice C) Opt-out D) Informed consent E) Direct surveying

46)

Which data collection mode imposes the fewest time constraints on the participant? A) Mail B) Phone C) Computer-administered D) CATI E) CAPI

47) In considering the use of a Web survey for conducting surveys of the general population, the greatest disadvantage of the mode is ________. A) cost B) participant's perceived anonymity C) inconsistent Internet coverage D) ability to do numerous surveys over time E) geographic scope of participants

48) The mobile phone is the fastest growing survey data collection mode. Which of the following would not be a reason for the growth in this mode?

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A) Speed of response B) Immediate data entry C) Ability to incorporate pictures and video uploads from participants D) Ability to customize survey to participant's location E) All of the above are reasons.

49) A participant does not know the answer to a survey question, but there is not a "Don't know" response option offered so they choose an answer randomly; a ________ will occur. A) response error B) measurement error C) sampling error D) nonresponse error E) unit nonresponse

50) Which type of data collection mode is most appropriate for a survey requiring 45 minutes to complete? A) Phone B) Computer-administered telephone survey C) Mail D) Online E) Intercept

51) Collecting data over time using a panel of participants cannot be used with ________ surveys?

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A) phone B) computer-administered telephone C) mail D) online E) intercept

52)

Response error in surveys occurs when ________ surveys? A) interviewer modifies the questions between participants B) participant gives an inaccurate answer C) interviewer fails to encourage a participant to take a survey D) participant answers only some of the questions on a questionnaire E) None of the above is correct.

53) Your instructor provides to each student a URL link via email to a course evaluation following the last class session. Sally accesses her university intranet and completes the survey using her iPad. This is an example of a(n) ________. A) self-administered survey B) computer-assisted self-interview C) electronic e-mail survey D) mobile/Web survey E) None of the above is correct.

54)

The failure to secure full participant cooperation for a study can result in ________ error. A) measurement question B) observer C) interviewer D) participant E) All of the above are correct.

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55)

Which of the following might cause physical presence bias in survey research? A) Body language of the participant B) Language used by the participant C) Clothing of the interviewer D) Age of the interviewer E) Clothing of the interviewer and age of the interviewer

56) An individual with a reputation for community involvement refuses to participate in a self-administered survey about the need for critical infrastructure improvements in their county (roads, bridges, sewer, power). Which factor affecting participation is likely a major factor in her refusal? A) Participation must be perceived as having no negative consequences. B) Participation must reinforce self-image as a dutiful citizen. C) Participation must reinforce image of self-importance. D) Participation should not make the participant feel ignorant or diminished. E) Participant must have liking or compassion for interviewer.

57) If a participant chooses not to answer a particular question on a survey, they are executing their ________. A) right to privacy B) informed consent C) right to confidentiality D) right of safety E) right to quality research

58) In a phone survey, the interviewer makes discouraging noises when participants make a particular choice with which the interviewer does not agree. Which source of interviewer error should be of concern? Version 1

A) Failure to record answers accurately or completely B) Failure to secure participant cooperation C) Failure to consistently execute interview procedures D) Inappropriate influencing behavior E) Physical presence bias

59) An individual believes that they will get more unwanted telemarketing calls if they participate in a phone survey. Which factor affecting survey participation is affected? A) Participation must be perceived as pleasant and satisfying. B) Participation must be perceived as relevant. C) Participation must be perceived as having no negative consequences. D) Participation must be perceived as enhancing personal prestige or self-worth. E) Participation must not conflict with other important activities.

60) An organization trains boy scouts to conduct a phone survey of adults about candy consumption. The boys introduce themselves as a member of a local boy scout troop. Their survey has a very low refusal rate. This is likely based on which factor affecting participation? A) Participation must be perceived as eliminating loneliness. B) Participation must be perceived as relevant. C) Participant must have a liking or compassion for interviewer. D) Participation must be perceived as enhancing personal prestige or self-worth. E) Participation must not conflict with other important activities.

61) An avid nonsmoker is intercepted in the mall for a survey about the use of electronic nicotine-vapor devices. She refuses to participate. Her refusal is likely most influenced by which factor affecting participation?

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A) Participation must be perceived as having no negative consequences. B) Participation must reinforce self-image as a dutiful citizen. C) Participation must reinforce image of self-importance. D) Participation must be on a topic the participant likes. E) Participant must have liking or compassion for interviewer.

62) Submitting your questionnaire for Institutional Review Board review is a process for ensuring that questionnaire complies with government guidelines to protect participants from harm. This addresses which ethical right? A) Right to privacy B) Informed consent C) Right to confidentiality D) Right to safety E) Right to quality research

63)

Which of the following would not be classified as a biometric identifier? A) retinal scan B) someone’s walking gait C) fingerprint D) medical test result E) DNA profile

64) Understanding personally identifiable information is critical to fulfilling which ethical responsibility?

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A) Right to privacy B) Informed consent C) Right to confidentiality D) Right to safety E) Right to quality research

65) People who volunteer to join a community and express willingness to participate in surveys as part of that community are called panels. ⊚ true ⊚ false

66) A special characteristic of surveys via personal and phone interviews, compared to selfadministered surveys, is the ability to use probes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

67) If a participant is not told the topics that will be covered in a questionnaire, prior to asking for their consent to participate, the research includes deception. ⊚ true ⊚ false

68) If an interviewer does not tell the participant the research objective of the survey, prior to asking for participant consent, the research includes deception. ⊚ true ⊚ false

69)

Mobile surveys have severe limitations on their depth of topic coverage. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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70) When a business uses agile research methodology for a self-administered survey, they do so to increase the speed of completing the project. ⊚ true ⊚ false

71) If a business has only one or two measurement questions to which it needs answers, it can obtain the answers from a large sample by using an omnibus survey. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 09_14e_TB 4) C 5) B 6) B 7) A 8) C 9) D 10) D 11) C 12) C 13) D 14) A 15) E 16) A 17) C 18) D 19) B 20) C 21) A 22) D 23) E 24) E 25) C 26) A 27) B 28) C 29) A Version 1

30) C 31) B 32) C 33) B 34) A 35) C 36) D 37) B 38) E 39) D 40) B 41) C 42) D 43) A 44) C 45) D 46) A 47) C 48) E 49) A 50) C 51) E 52) B 53) B 54) C 55) E 56) D 57) A 58) D 59) C Version 1

60) C 61) D 62) D 63) D 64) C 65) TRUE 66) TRUE 67) TRUE 68) FALSE 69) TRUE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE

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CHAPTER 10 1) What are the four characteristics of mapping rules? Which of the four types of data corresponds with the possible combinations of these characteristics? Provide an example for each.

Name the four sources of error in measurement and provide an example for each.

Explain the three characteristics of a good measurement instrument.

4) What are the three dimensions of reliability? For each dimension, explain its meaning. What type of test can be used to assess each dimension?

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5) Measurement in research consists of assigning numbers to ________ in compliance with a set of rules. A) events B) objects C) properties D) activities E) All of the above are correct.

6) A ________ is a scheme for assigning numbers or symbols to represent aspects of the event being measured. A) measurement tool B) mapping rule C) ruler D) scale E) property

What is the goal of measurement in research? A) To reflect both quantitative and qualitative concepts B) To provide the highest-quality, lowest error data for data analysis C) To describe, explain, and make predictions based on the information D) To attach meaning to symbols E) To specify the empirical information needed

A(n) ________ defines a variable in terms of specific measurement criteria.

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A) operational definition B) empirical definition C) measurement rule D) mapping rule E) conceptual definition

Which of the following is not an example of an object? A) Attitude B) Furniture C) Dog D) Class affiliation E) Weight

10)

Weight, height, and temperature are all types of ________. A) objects B) physical properties C) psychological properties D) constructs E) mapping rules

11)

Attitudes are a type of ________. A) object B) physical property C) psychological property D) social property E) mapping rule

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12)

Measuring a person's leadership ability involves measuring a(n) ________. A) object B) physical property C) psychological property D) social property E) mapping rule

13) Which characteristic of mapping rules refers to the numbers used to group or sort responses when no order to the numbers exists? A) Classification B) Order C) Distance D) Origin E) Exclusivity

14) Which characteristic of mapping rules refers to ordered numbers in which one number is greater than, less than, or equal to another number? A) Classification B) Order C) Distance D) Origin E) Exclusivity

15)

Order, one of the four characteristics of mapping rules, refers to ________.

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A) the use of ordered numbers such that two is less than three but greater than one B) the use of numbers used to group or sort responses when no order to the numbers exists C) the use of a series of numbers in which each number is an equal distance from the next D) the use of a series of numbers with a unique origin indicated by the number zero E) the use of a number that is not used again

16) Which characteristic of mapping rules refers to a series of numbers in which each number in the series is an equal distance from the next number? A) Classification B) Order C) Distance D) Origin E) Exclusivity

17)

Distance, one of the four characteristics of mapping rules, refers to ________. A) the use of ordered numbers such that two is less than three but greater than one B) the use of numbers used to group or sort responses when no order to the numbers

exists C) the use of a series of numbers in which each number is an equal distance from the next D) the use of a series of numbers with a unique origin indicated by the number zero E) the use of a number that is not used again

18)

Origin, one of the four characteristics of mapping rules, refers to ________.

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19)

Which characteristics of data are exhibited by the variable gender? A) Classification only B) Classification and order C) Classification, order, and distance D) Classification, order, distance, and origin E) Classification, order, distance, origin, and exclusivity

20) LeBron James wears the number 23 on his jersey. Which of the following characteristics is exhibited by this number? A) Distance B) Order C) Classification D) Origin E) Exclusivity

21) To ride the roller coaster ride at an amusement park, customers must report their weight to the ride attendant. Which of the following characteristics are exhibited by weight?

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A) Classification only B) Classification and order C) Classification, order, and distance D) Classification, order, distance, and origin E) Classification, order, distance, origin, and exclusivity

22) Attendance at a raceway's most recent two races has hit attendance records with 60,000 present at one and 65,000 present at another. Which of the following characteristics are exhibited by these attendance measures? A) Classification only B) Classification and order C) Classification, order, and distance D) Classification, order, distance, and origin E) Classification, order, distance, origin, and exclusivity

23) The record low in Buffalo, New York for February 16th is 20 degrees below zero. Which of the following characteristics are exhibited by this temperature? A) Classification only B) Classification and order C) Classification, order, and distance D) Classification, order, distance, and origin E) Classification, order, distance, origin, and exclusivity

24) The New York Times Dining Section rates the restaurants it reviews using a system such that one star means good, two stars means very good, three stars means excellent, and four stars means extraordinary. Which of the following characteristics are exhibited by this rating scheme?

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A) Classification only B) Classification and order C) Classification, order, and distance D) Classification, order, distance, and origin E) Classification, order, distance, origin, and exclusivity

25)

A nominal scale contains ________.

A) mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive categories as well as the property of order, but not distance or unique origin B) the properties of order, classification, and equal distance between points but no unique origin C) mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive categories, but without the properties of order, distance, and origin D) the properties of classification, order, equal distance, and unique origin E) the four major sources of error

26) In a survey of football fans, each participant is asked to indicate whether they have ever attended an NFL game. This question can be categorized as a(n) ________ scale. A) ratio B) interval C) ordinal D) nominal E) semantic differential

27) When the response categories are mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive, nominal scales must be limited to ________ groups.

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A) two B) three C) five D) ten E) There is no limit

28)

When analyzing nominal data, which measure of central tendency is appropriate? A) mean B) mode C) median D) range E) dispersion

29)

________ describes how scores cluster or scatter in a distribution. A) Mode B) Mean C) Median D) Dispersion E) Range

30)

An ordinal scale contains ________.

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31)

The appropriate measure of central tendency for an ordinal scale is the ________. A) mode B) mean C) median D) range E) dispersion

32)

An interval scale contains ________.

33) Calendar time is expressed on a(n) ________ scale while minutes, hours, and days are expressed on a(n) ________ scale.

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A) nominal; ordinal B) ordinal; interval C) interval; ratio D) ordinal; ratio E) nominal; interval

34)

Which measure of central tendency is appropriate for interval scales? A) Mode B) Mean C) Median D) Range E) Dispersion

35)

The ________ is the midpoint of a distribution. A) mode B) median C) mean D) range E) dispersion

36) In the results of the most recent exam taken in the business research class, the average score was a 74.4. More students earned a 78 than any other score, and half the grades were above 72 and half the grades were below 72. What is the mode for the business research exam scores?

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A) 74.4 B) 78 C) 72 D) 50 E) Between 50 and 100

37) In the results of the most recent exam taken in the business research class, the average score was a 74.4. More students earned a 78 than any other score, and half the grades were above 72 and half the grades were below 72. What is the median for the business research exam scores? A) 74.4 B) 78 C) 72 D) 50 E) Between 50 and 100

38) In the results of the most recent exam taken in the business research class, the average score was a 74.4. More students earned a 78 than any other score, and half the grades were above 72 and half the grades were below 72. What is the arithmetic mean for the business research exam scores? A) 74.4 B) 78 C) 72 D) 50 E) Between 50 and 100

39)

A ratio scale contains ________.

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40)

The population of a city is an example of ________ data. A) ratio B) interval C) nominal D) ordinal E) dispersed

41)

Random error in measurement is the error that occurs ________. A) erratically B) due to bias C) systematically D) due to sampling E) None of the above is correct.

42) The effects of fatigue, boredom, and social class on the measurement of an object are all errors originating from the ________.

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A) situational factors B) participant C) measurer D) instrument E) sample

43) Differences in participant responses associated with where the interview took place, such as at the mall, in a home, or over the phone, are errors originating from the ________ associated with the study. A) situational factors B) participant C) measurer D) instrument E) sample

44) ________ is the extent to which a measurement tool actually measures what we wish to measure. A) Reliability B) Validity C) Practicality D) Significance E) Standardization

45)

________ is the extent to which a measurement is accurate and precise.

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A) Reliability B) Validity C) Practicality D) Significance E) Standardization

46) Which of the following types of validity refers to the extent to which measurement questions provide adequate coverage of the investigative questions? A) External B) Content C) Criterion-related D) Construct E) Discriminant

47) An attitude scale that correctly forecasts the outcome of a purchase decision has ________ validity. A) discriminant B) content C) face D) concurrent E) predictive

48)

Convergent validity and discriminant validity are components of ________ validity. A) external B) internal C) criterion-related D) construct E) content

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49) Which type of validity refers to the degree to which scores on one scale correlate with scores on other scales designed to assess the same construct? A) Predictive B) Concurrent C) Convergent D) Discriminant E) Content

50) The U.S. News and World Report is assessing the reliability of its measure of academic reputation used in its annual ranking of colleges and universities. To do so, it administers the same questions on academic reputation to its sample of academic administrators in March and again in June. Which type of test is used in the U.S. News and World Report example to assess reliability? A) Split-half B) Test-retest C) Cronbach's alpha D) Parallel forms E) None of the above is correct.

51) The U.S. News and World Report is assessing the reliability of its measure of academic reputation used in its annual ranking of colleges and universities. To do so, it administers the same questions on academic reputation to its sample of academic administrators in March and again in June. Which statistical technique listed below would be used to compare the results of the March survey to the results of the June survey in the U.S. News and World Report's assessment of reliability?

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A) Mean B) Dispersion C) Correlation D) Parallel forms E) ANOVA

52) The U.S. News and World Report is assessing the reliability of its measure of academic reputation used in its annual ranking of colleges and universities. To do so, it administers the same questions on academic reputation to its sample of academic administrators in March and again in June. If the U.S. News and World Report seeks to assess equivalence of alternate forms of measuring academic reputation, it should utilize a ________ type of test. A) test-retest B) Cronbach's alpha C) parallel forms D) split-half E) KR20

53) The U.S. News and World Report is assessing the reliability of its measure of academic reputation used in its annual ranking of colleges and universities. To do so, it administers the same questions on academic reputation to its sample of academic administrators in March and again in June. The U.S. News and World Report tested stability with a test-retest measure in its study of academic reputation; its measures were 2 days apart. It might experience what bias in its stability measure caused by ________.

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A) time delay between measurement B) participant's discernment of a study's disguised purpose C) insufficient time between measurements D) topic sensitivity E) All of the above are correct.

54) The U.S. News and World Report is assessing the reliability of its measure of academic reputation used in its annual ranking of colleges and universities. To do so, it administers the same questions on academic reputation to its sample of academic administrators in March and again in June. If the U.S. News and World Report tested alternate forms for measuring academic reputation, it was determining what reliability measure? A) Equivalence B) Internal consistency C) Stability D) Construct E) Content

55) The U.S. News and World Report is assessing the reliability of its measure of academic reputation used in its annual ranking of colleges and universities. To do so, it administers the same questions on academic reputation to its sample of academic administrators in March and again in June. If in the U.S. News and World Report's measurement of academic reputation, it determined using a parallel forms test that the questions chosen demonstrated a poor ability to categorize institutions, the researcher would be concerned about ________.

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A) equivalence B) internal consistency C) stability D) construct reliability E) content reliability

56) The U.S. News and World Report is assessing the reliability of its measure of academic reputation used in its annual ranking of colleges and universities. To do so, it administers the same questions on academic reputation to its sample of academic administrators in March and again in June. Assume in the U.S. News and World Report's measurement of academic reputation that the instrument is tested using a split-half technique. There is a high correlation between the two halves. The researcher determines that the measurement shows ________. A) equivalence B) internal consistency C) stability D) construct reliability E) content reliability

57) The U.S. News and World Report is assessing the reliability of its measure of academic reputation used in its annual ranking of colleges and universities. To do so, it administers the same questions on academic reputation to its sample of academic administrators in March and again in June. If in the U.S. News and World Report's measurement of academic reputation, after collecting the data, the researcher decides to use a different mapping rule on one question's responses to search for clearer patterns. The researcher is ________.

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A) changing the objects being measured B) changing the properties being measured C) recoding the object or property D) changing the practicality of the measure E) None of the above is correct.

58) The researcher has designed a pre-employment survey for identifying the best candidates for the company's forensic accounting positions. She must be certain that every candidate has an equal opportunity to score well when she chooses criteria to measure. She is concerned with which quality(ies) of criterion-related validity? A) Relevance B) Freedom from bias C) Reliability D) Availability E) All of the above are correct.

59)

If a survey is easy to administer, it rates highly on ________. A) convenience B) stability C) economy D) interpretability E) All of the above are correct.

60)

To recode a variable, we must reduce its statistical power. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 10_14e_TB 5) E 6) B 7) B 8) A 9) E 10) B 11) C 12) D 13) A 14) B 15) A 16) C 17) C 18) D 19) A 20) C 21) D 22) D 23) C 24) B 25) C 26) D 27) E 28) B 29) D 30) A Version 1

31) C 32) B 33) C 34) B 35) B 36) B 37) C 38) A 39) D 40) A 41) A 42) B 43) A 44) B 45) A 46) B 47) E 48) D 49) C 50) B 51) C 52) C 53) C 54) C 55) A 56) B 57) C 58) B 59) A 60) TRUE Version 1

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CHAPTER 11 1)

Explain the three bases for attitudes. Provide an example for each one.

2) Explain the researcher's dilemma in deciding whether to ask a measurement question incorporating a forced-choice rating scale or unforced-choice rating scale.

3) What tactics can researchers use to minimize participant tendencies to avoid extreme judgments or choose extreme positions on a measurement question?

4) What is the primary difference between measurement questions based on rating scales and ranking scales? List two types of each scale.

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5) What are the three types of questions that can be used when multiple responses to a single question are desired from the participant? Explain each type of question.

6) There are several possible issues that may affect measurement questions. Explain the possible effects of shared vocabulary, biased wording, and adequate alternatives on the quality of the resulting data.

7) Which of the following terms refers to a learned, stable predisposition to respond to oneself, other persons, objects, or issues in a consistently favorable or unfavorable way? A) Opinion B) Attitude C) Personality trait D) Construct E) Behavior

Which of the following characteristics is not true of attitudes?

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A) Learned B) Stable C) Accessible D) Enduring E) Fluctuating

9) "The adoption rate of smartphones continues to accelerate." This statement is an example of a(n) ________ attitude. A) cognitive B) affective C) conative D) behavioral E) peripheral

10) "It is so annoying when people use their cellular phones in restaurants." What is the basis of the attitude reflected in this statement? A) Cognitive B) Affective C) Conative D) Behavioral E) Peripheral

11) "I turn off my cellular phone when I am in restaurants." What is the basis of the attitude reflected in this statement?

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A) Cognitive B) Affective C) Conative D) Centrality E) Peripheral

12)

A cognitive basis for an attitude means that the attitude is based on a ________. A) feeling B) behavior C) value D) culture E) belief

13)

An affective basis for an attitude means that the attitude is based on a(n) ________. A) feeling B) behavior C) opinion D) culture E) belief

14)

A conative basis for an attitude means that the attitude is based on a ________. A) feeling B) behavior C) value D) culture E) belief

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15) All of the following may be used with measurement questions built on graphic rating scales except ________. A) icons B) pictures C) words D) comparisons E) numbers

16) Which of the following statements is true concerning the applicability of attitudes in understanding behavior? A) General attitudes are the best predictors of behavior. B) Behavior is affected equally by those attitudes formed via social learning and those formed via behavioral learning. C) Cognitive attitudes influence behavior better than affective-based attitudes. D) A single, global measure of attitude is necessary to predict behavior. E) All of the above are true.

17) The assignment of numbers or symbols to a property of objects according to value or magnitude is called ________. A) measurement B) scaling C) weighing D) sampling E) coding

18) What term below refers to the process of assessing an attitudinal disposition using a number that represents a person's score on an attitudinal continuum ranging from an extremely favorable disposition to an extremely unfavorable one? Version 1

A) Attitudinal monitoring B) Content analysis C) Attitudinal scaling D) Peripheral route processing E) Attitudinal chain analysis

19) A measurement question built on a ________ scale is a question that scores an object or property without making a direct comparison to another object or property. A) ranking B) rating C) categorization D) sorting E) recording

20)

A measurement question built on a rating scale is a question that ________. A) scores an object without making a direct comparison to another object B) scores an object by making a comparison and determining order among two or more

objects C) groups participants D) groups concepts according to specific criteria E) establishes relationships between two variables

21) A measurement question built on a ________ scale is used when participants score an object according to its comparative order among two or more objects.

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A) ranking B) rating C) categorization D) sorting E) recording

22)

A measurement question built on a ranking scale is a question that ________. A) scores an object without making a direct comparison to another object B) scores an object by making a comparison and determining order among two or more

objects C) groups participants D) groups concepts according to specific criteria E) establishes relationships between two variables

23)

Participants are grouped using measurement questions built on ________ scales. A) ranking B) rating C) categorization D) sorting E) recording

24)

A measurement question built on a categorization scale is a question that ________.

A) scores an object without making a direct comparison to another object B) scores an objecting by making a comparison and determining order among two or more objects C) groups participants D) groups concepts according to specific criteria E) establishes relationships between two variables

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25) A measurement question built on a ________ scale is used when participants place cards into piles using criteria established by the researcher. A) ranking B) rating C) categorization D) sorting E) recording

26) When a measurement question seeks to measure only one attribute of the participant or object, it is said to be ________. A) conative B) affective C) unidimensional D) multidimensional E) balanced

27) The SERVQUAL measurement question seeks to describe perceptions of service quality with five dimensions. This question is ________. A) unidimensional B) multidimensional C) balanced D) unbalanced E) valid

28) A measurement question built on a(n) ________ scale seeks to simultaneously measure more than one attribute of the participant or object.

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A) multidimensional B) unidimensional C) balanced D) unbalanced E) valid

29) A measurement question that uses the response options "very bad, bad, average, good, very good" is based on a(n) ________ rating scale. A) unidimensional B) multidimensional C) balanced D) unbalanced E) valid

30) Which of the following is true of the following response scale: poor - fair - good - very good - excellent? A) It is a balanced rating scale. B) It is a unforced-choice rating scale. C) It does not allow for expressions of intensity among participants with unfavorable opinions. D) It will result in an asymmetrical distribution. E) It will minimize halo effects.

31) Which of the following situations favors the use of a measurement question built on an unbalanced rating scale rather than a balanced rating scale?

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A) The participants' scores lean in one direction. B) The object being rated is familiar to participants. C) The participants are known to be easy raters. D) The participants are known to be hard raters. E) All of the above are correct.

32) Measurement question that allow participants to select a "don't know" or "no opinion" response are based on a(n) ________ scale. A) unforced-choice B) multidimensional C) balanced D) unbalanced E) forced-choice

33) A measurement question provides participants with an opportunity to express "no opinion" when they are unable to make a choice among the alternatives offered. This question is based on a(n) ________ scale. A) forced-choice B) multidimensional C) balanced D) unbalanced E) unforced-choice

34)

What is the ideal number of points for a measurement question built on a rating scale?

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A) 5 B) 7 C) 9 D) 10 E) It depends.

35) Which of the following statements about the number of measurement question alternatives is not true? A) Reliability increases as the number of scale points increase. B) Validity decreases as the number of scale points increase. C) Larger numbers of scale points provide the ability to extract more variance. D) Larger numbers of scale points increase accuracy in unidimensional scales. E) Additional scale points increase measurement sensitivity.

36)

Participants tend to ________ when they make an error of leniency. A) be easy raters B) give no opinion answers C) choose the central or neutral point D) rate objects consistently from question to question E) procrastinate in making choices

37)

Participants tend to ________ when they make an error of central tendency. A) be easy raters B) choose extreme positions among response alternatives C) choose the central or neutral point among response alternatives D) rate objects consistently from question to question E) procrastinate in making choices

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38) Which type of rater error occurs when a participant is reluctant to give extreme judgments? A) Error of leniency B) Error of central tendency C) Halo effect D) Demand effect E) Socially desirable responding

39) Which type of rater error occurs when a participant consistently chooses the extreme response alterative at one end of the scale? A) Error of strictness B) Error of central tendency C) Halo effect D) Demand effect E) Socially desirable responding

40)

All of the following are ways of combating the halo effect except ________. A) revealing only one trait at a time B) reversing the terms that anchor the endpoints of the scale C) adjusting the strength of descriptive adjectives that anchor a scale D) All of the above are correct. E) None of the above is correct.

41) Which of the following response options to a measurement question is built on a multiple-choice, single-response scale?

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A) Yes, no B) Agree, disagree C) Strongly agree, agree, neither, disagree, strongly disagree D) Important, unimportant E) Male, female

42) Jason is designing a survey to measure the extent to which college students who own iPads will recommend that others should also buy an iPad. He has created the following measures. Question 1: Have you ever recommended an iPad to anyone? Response options: Yes or no Question 2: If yes, to whom did you recommend an iPad? Check all that apply. Response options: friends, family members, teachers, other Question 3: How likely are you to recommend an iPad to someone in the future? Response options: Not at all likely, somewhat unlikely, neither likely nor unlikely, somewhat likely, very likely What type of scale is used in Jason's first measurement question about the recommendation of iPads? A) Simple category/dichotomous B) Multiple-choice, single-response C) Multiple-choice, multiple-response D) Balanced E) Unbalanced

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43) Jason is designing a survey to measure the extent to which college students who own iPads will recommend that others should also buy an iPad. He has created the following measures. Question 1: Have you ever recommended an iPad to anyone? Response options: Yes or no Question 2: If yes, to whom did you recommend an iPad? Check all that apply. Response options: friends, family members, teachers, other Question 3: How likely are you to recommend an iPad to someone in the future? Response options: Not at all likely, somewhat unlikely, neither likely nor unlikely, somewhat likely, very likely What type of scale is used in Jason's second measurement question about the recommendation of iPads? A) Simple category/dichotomous B) Multiple-choice, single-response C) Multiple-choice, multiple-response D) Balanced E) Unbalanced

44) Jason is designing a survey to measure the extent to which college students who own iPads will recommend that others should also buy an iPad. He has created the following measures. Question 1: Have you ever recommended an iPad to anyone? Response options: Yes or no Question 2: If yes, to whom did you recommend an iPad? Check all that apply. Response options: friends, family members, teachers, other Question 3: How likely are you to recommend an iPad to someone in the future? Response options: Not at all likely, somewhat unlikely, neither likely nor unlikely, somewhat likely, very likely What type of scale is used in Jason's third measurement question about the recommendation of iPads? A) Simple category/dichotomous B) Multiple-choice, single-response C) Multiple-choice, multiple-response D) Unbalanced E) Unforced-choice

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45) Jason is designing a survey to measure the extent to which college students who own iPads will recommend that others should also buy an iPad. He has created the following measures. Question 1: Have you ever recommended an iPad to anyone? Response options: Yes or no Question 2: If yes, to whom did you recommend an iPad? Check all that apply. Response options: friends, family members, teachers, other Question 3: How likely are you to recommend an iPad to someone in the future? Response options: Not at all likely, somewhat unlikely, neither likely nor unlikely, somewhat likely, very likely Jason's third measurement question is designed to determine the likelihood that an iPad owner will recommend the iPad to others. Which of the following captures the characteristics of the scale used for this question? A) Balanced; unforced choice; multiple-choice, single-response B) Balanced; forced choice; multiple-choice, single-response C) Unbalanced; forced choice; simple category D) Unbalanced; unforced choice; multiple-choice, multiple-response E) Balanced; forced choice; dichotomous

46) A measurement question built on a ________ scale consists of statements that express either a favorable or unfavorable attitude toward an object of interest. A) multiple-choice, single-response B) summated rating C) semantic differential D) constant sums E) checklist

47) A measurement question built on a ________ scale measures the psychological meanings of an attitude object using bipolar adjectives.

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A) Likert B) summated rating C) Stapel D) semantic differential E) constant sums

48) What type of data is produced by a measurement question built on a simple category scale? A) Nominal B) Ordinal C) Interval D) Ratio E) Nominal and interval

49) What type of data is produced by a measurement question built on a summated rating scale? A) Nominal B) Ordinal C) Interval D) Ratio E) Nominal and interval

50)

A measurement question built on a checklist produces ________ data. A) nominal B) ordinal C) interval D) ratio E) nominal and interval

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51)

What type of data is produced by a measurement question built on a constant-sum scale? A) Nominal B) Ordinal C) Interval D) Ratio E) Nominal and interval

52) The data obtained from a measurement question built on a Stapel scale can be analyzed in the same way as data obtained with a ________ scale. A) dichotomous B) constant sum C) semantic differential D) multiple-choice, multiple-response E) graphic rating scale

53) In a measurement question built on a ________ scale, the participant orders several objects of properties of objects. A) comparative B) constant sum C) forced ranking D) paired-comparison E) semantic differential

54)

A measurement question built on a paired comparison scale results in ________ data.

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A) nominal B) ordinal C) interval D) ratio E) absolute

55)

Measurement questions based on all forms of ranking scales result in ________ data. A) nominal B) ordinal C) interval D) ratio E) absolute

56) The purpose of a measurement questions structured as a ________ is to get a conceptual representation of a participant's attitude toward the attitude object and to compare the relationships between people. A) Likert scales B) comparative scales C) forced rating D) Q-sorts E) Stapel scales

57)

The following is true of a measurement question built on a cumulative scale. A) Identical scores from participants have the same meaning. B) It is impossible to judge which scale items were answered positively or negatively. C) There is no tool to judge whether a set of scale items forms a unidimensional scale. D) The Stapel analysis is used to judge multidimensionality of the cumulative scale. E) None of the above is correct.

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58)

With a measurement question built on a multiple rating list scale, ________. A) participants rate multiple items on a three-point scale B) the data generated are always ordinal C) it is possible to visualize the results better than with other numerical scales. D) the participant is restricted to circling their rating. E) None of the above is correct.

59)

With a measurement question built on a numerical rating list scale, ________. A) the numerical points have no verbal anchors B) the data generated are always interval C) the interval that separates the numeric scale points is equal D) a seven-point scale should always be used E) None of the above is correct.

60)

A measurement question built on the Likert scale ________. A) offers seven scale points between verbal anchors for each scale item B) is a type of summated rating scale C) generates ratio data D) is difficult to construct and infrequently used E) does not offer the researcher the ability to judge extreme views of the participants

61)

An item analysis ________.

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A) is used with multiple-choice, single response scales B) can only be used with rating scales with seven scale points C) generates ratio data D) assesses whether Likert scale items discriminate between participants with high and low scores E) does not offer the researcher the ability to judge extreme views of the participants

62) A scalogram analysis should be used with measurement questions built on which of the following scale types? A) Dichotomous scale B) Multiple choice-single response scale C) Cumulative scale D) Constant-sum scale E) Graphical rating scale

63) All of the following questions must be answered prior to designing a measurement question except ________. A) What type of scale is needed to perform the desired analysis to answer the management question? B) What data collection mode will be used? C) Should the question be structured, unstructured, or some combination? D) Should the questioning be disguised or undisguised? E) How will the results be translated into managerial recommendations?

64) A(n) ________ question is one designed to conceal the question's and the study's true purpose.

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A) undisguised B) disguised C) unstructured D) structured E) projective

65)

In which of the following situations should a study's objective be disguised? A) When the study's objective is unlikely to affect the participants' responses B) When requesting willingly shared, conscious-level information C) When requesting reluctantly shared, conscious-level information D) When requesting knowable, conscious-level information E) When requesting willingly shared, knowable information

66) A(n) ________ describes how the analysis will be structured once the data have been collected. A) dummy table B) analysis table C) analysis flowchart D) dummy variable E) branching design

67) When target questions present the participants with a fixed set of choices, they are ________. A) unstructured B) undisguised C) structured D) disguised E) open-ended

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68)

Which of the following statements is not a disadvantage of unstructured questions?

A) Unstructured questions are not suitable for self-administered questionnaires. B) Coding of responses is costly and time consuming. C) Unstructured questions tend to have a less biasing influence on response than structured questions. D) Implicitly, unstructured questions give extra weight to respondents who are more articulate. E) Unstructured questions require the use of content analysis.

69) Choosing between the questions "Do you think the distribution of soft drinks is adequate?" (Incorrect) and "Do you think soft drinks are readily available when you want to buy them?" (correct) is an example of ________. A) avoiding leading questions B) avoiding biased words C) presuming knowledge D) ensuring the right frame of reference E) providing time for thought

70) The issue of frame of reference in the design of questions and questionnaires asks ________.

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A) whether the question contains wording that implies the researcher's desire for the participant to respond in one way rather than another B) whether the question is worded from the researcher's perspective or the participant's perspective C) whether the question asks the participant for information that relates to thoughts or activity too far in the participant's past to be remembered D) whether the question uses words that have no meaning or a different meaning for the participant E) whether it is reasonable to assume that the participant can frame an answer to the question

71)

The issue of memory decay in the design of questions asks ________.

72) When a question asks a respondent to recall an experience or decision that happened a long time ago, the data may be affected by ________. A) the sensitivity of the question B) memory decay C) lack of precision D) an insufficient frame of reference E) lack of balance

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73) A measurement question whose wording suggests to the participant the desired answer is a(n) ________ question. A) double-barreled B) leading C) open-ended D) forced-choice E) free-response

74) Which type of measurement question poses more than two response choices but seeks a single answer? A) Free-response B) Open-ended C) Simple category/dichotomous D) Multiple-choice E) Checklist

75) A question that asks "What sources of information do you consider when making purchase decisions?" followed by a list of alternatives is a ________ question. A) rating B) free-response C) double-barreled D) checklist E) ranking

76) A measurement question that includes two or more questions in one is said to be ________.

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A) double-barreled B) leading C) sensitive D) subjective E) unfocused

77) In a study of grocery shopping behavior, one of the questions on the instrument asked, "To what extent are you comfortable with and willing to use self-serve checkout lines at grocery stores?" This question should be redesigned because it is ________. A) leading B) sensitive C) subject to memory decay D) too general E) double-barreled

78) In a study of grocery shopping behavior, one of the questions asked, "Why do you shop at this grocery store?" The question was a multiple-choice, single-response question and offered the following response options: (a) it is near my home, (b) it is on my way home from work, (c) the prices are reasonable, (d) it offers a good selection, and (e) it stocks the items I like to buy. This question should be redesigned because ________. A) it is double-barreled B) the response options are not mutually exclusive C) it suffers from memory decay D) it requests sensitive information E) it is too general

79) In surveys conducted with phone interviews or in-person interviews, which form of order bias is likely to occur?

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A) Recency effect B) Primacy effect C) Halo effect D) Demand effect E) Leniency

80)

In mail and in Web-based surveys, which form of order bias is likely to occur? A) Recency effect B) Primacy effect C) Halo effect D) Strictness effect E) Leniency effect

81) Which form of order bias occurs when a participant tends to choose the first alternative presented as his or her response to a closed-ended question? A) Recency effect B) Primacy effect C) Halo effect D) Strictness effect E) Leniency

82) Which form of order bias occurs when a participant tends to choose the last alternative presented as his or her response to a closed-ended question? A) Recency effect B) Primacy effect C) Halo effect D) Strictness effect E) Leniency

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83) Questions in Web surveys often use drop-down boxes as a manner of displaying the response choices for a question. This type of display method is particularly prone to ________. A) halo effects B) leniency effects C) primacy effects D) recency effects E) presumption effects

84) Checklists with several items to be considered by respondents may be subject to ________. A) halo effects B) leniency effects C) primacy effects D) recency effects E) presumption effects

85) Every time a Netflix customer rents a movie, Netflix asks the customer to evaluate the movie on a scale of 1 to 5. A 5 means that the customer thoroughly enjoyed the movie while a 1 means that the customer hated the movie. Netflix is using a(n) ________ question to learn customer preferences. A) administrative B) checklist C) ranking D) rating E) semantic differential

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86) Every time a RedBox customer returns a movie, RedBox sends an email that asks the customer to evaluate the movie relative to other movies previously rented on a scale of 1 to 5. A 5 means that the customer thought this movie was better than most others previously rented while a 1 means that the movie is among the worst rented. In this example, RedBox is using a(n) ________ question to learn customer preferences. A) administrative B) checklist C) ranking D) rating E) semantic differential

87) Which of the following syndromes affecting respondent honesty involves the respondent's adaptation of their answers in an attempt to play the system (e.g., claiming group membership to earn higher compensation for participation)? A) Peacock B) Pleaser C) Gamer D) Disengager E) None of the above is correct.

88) Which of the following syndromes affecting respondent honesty involves the respondent giving a politically correct answer to a sensitive target question? A) Peacock B) Pleaser C) Ignoramous D) Disengager E) None of the above is correct.

89) Which of the following syndromes affecting respondent honesty involves the respondent giving a quick, possibly false answer to a probing target question? Version 1

A) Unconscious decision maker B) Pleaser C) Self-delusionist D) Disengager E) None of the above is correct.

90) Which of the following syndromes affecting respondent honesty involves the respondent not having the ability to predict his or her future behavior with any certainty? A) Unconscious decision maker B) Ignoramous C) Self-delusionist D) Disengager E) None of the above is correct.

91)

Simple category/dichotomous questions are appropriate when a ________.

A) participant defines the answer choices as mutually exclusive B) participant would clarify his or her choice (e.g., under specific conditions, A; other conditions, B, etc.) C) participant does not have a clear choice among the answer choices D) participant view the answer choices as too extreme

92) The preliminary analysis plan is used to guide the development of measurement questions because ________.

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A) it describes the procedures the researcher plans for the collected data B) it determines the type of data and scale type needed by each question C) it forms the basis for dummy tables D) too expansive a plan is costly and too limited a plan will not answer the research question E) All of the above are correct.

93) Participants are asked, "Please rank the 4 brands of ice cream below based on their creaminess. Use '1' to indicate the creamiest brand and '4' to represent the least creamiest brand. Use a number only once." This is an example of a ________ question using a(n) ________. A) rating; forced choice B) ranking; forced choice C) rating; unforced choice D) ranking; unforced choice E) None of the above is correct.

94)

"Tell us what you liked best about tonight's concert." This is an example of a ________. A) rating question B) ranking question C) free-response question D) question built on a Likert scale E) None of the above is correct.

95) The appropriate frame of reference for a behavior question is its ________, which is determined by the participant's ________.

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A) behavior frequency; behavior time frame and behavior frequency B) behavior cycle; behavior time frame and behavior frequency C) behavior time frame; behavior cycle and behavior pattern D) behavior time frame; behavior cycle and behavior frequency E) behavior pattern; behavior cycle and behavior frequency

96) Some participants believe that a firm will not improve its product if sufficient participants in a survey are highly satisfied with the current product. They choose "dissatisfied" or "very dissatisfied" to every question in order to influence the behavior of the firm. The participants are creating ________. A) an acquiescence bias B) an error of central tendency C) an error of leniency D) an error of strictness E) the halo effect

97) A participant answers a screening question by claiming he or she has two children in school, when in fact that is false. The participant exhibits ________ syndrome. A) peacock B) pleaser C) gamer D) disengager E) self-delusionist

98) A participant cannot remember what he or she ate for dinner last night, so the participant makes up an answer. The participant exhibits ________ syndrome.

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A) unconscious decision-maker B) ignoramus C) gamer D) disengager E) self-delusionist

99)

Which of the following statements about attitudes and behavior is true? A) Specific attitudes are better predictors of behavior than general ones. B) Weak attitudes are better predictors of behavior than strongly held attitudes C) Direct experiences with the attitude are less likely to produce behaviors. D) Affective-based attitudes influence behaviors better than cognitive-based attitudes. E) Cognitive-based attitudes influence behaviors worse than affective-based attitudes.

100) If you were concerned about acquiescence bias, you should avoid building a measurement question on which type of scale? A) Simple category scale B) Multiple-choice, single response scale C) Multiple-choice, multiple response scale (checklist) D) Likert scale E) Semantic differential scale

101) You want to collect interval data in assessing which jobs are most likely to attract selfdirected, enthusiastic, diligent, dependable workers. You should build a measurement question on which type of scale?

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A) Simple category scale B) Multiple-choice, single-response scale C) Multiple-rating list scale D) Visual graphic rating scale E) Constant sum scale

102) Measurement questions built on this scale type permit adding the value of each item's response into a total score for each participant. Based on the total score, you can tell how positively or negatively the participant feels about the object. A) Paired comparison scale B) Forced ranking scale C) Comparative scale D) Q-sort E) Cumulative scale

103)

If your measurement question implies the desired answer, it is considered ________. A) a leading question B) a double-barreled question C) to contain an unsupported assumption D) to need a behavior time frame E) to have an inappropriate behavior cycle

104) If you are determining what behavior time frame to use in a measurement question, you are assessing ________.

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A) question coverage B) question wording C) question's frame of reference D) question personalization E) question's response alternatives

105) A common behavior time frame error is to choose too inclusive a time frame given ________. A) the behavior cycle B) the behavior frequency C) the behavior cycle and behavior frequency D) memory decay E) acquiescence bias

106) You design a question with four response options, but no "Don't Know" or "Other" option. You have designed a measurement question that reflects a(n) ________. A) forced-choice rating scale B) unidimensional scale C) unforced rating scale D) unbalanced rating scale E) multidimensional rating scale

107) In a question related to immigration reform, the interviewer asks, "Don't you agree that something must be done to change immigration laws?" This question suffers from ________.

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A) sensitive information B) double-barreled question C) biased wording D) frame of reference E) recall and memory decay

108) Which issue related to the design of measurement questions addresses whether it is reasonable to assume that the participant can frame an answer to the question? A) Precision B) Frame of reference C) Time for thought D) Biased wording E) Adequate alternatives

109) A measurement question where the participant chooses the words to frame the answer is a ________ question. A) double-barreled B) leading C) free-response D) structured E) multiple-choice

110)

How many answer response alternatives are provided in a free-response question? A) 2 B) 3–10 C) 10 or fewer D) None E) It depends on the question.

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111) A study of donor behavior for the International Red Cross seeks to identify participation from consumers through indirect gifts such as purchasing items of which a portion of proceeds will benefit disaster victims. Because such purchases do not record whether an individual made the purchase decision as a form of donation, a survey will be used to identify this behavior. In writing the target questions for the study, the instrument designer should be aware of errors arising from the issue of ________. A) precision B) time for thought C) sensitive information D) recall and memory decay E) presumed knowledge

112) When developing a questionnaire, if the researcher is asking whether a word (a) has the intended meaning, (b) has other meanings,(c) has more than one pronunciation, or (d) can be replaced by a simpler phrase, the researcher is probably concerned with ________. A) avoiding leading questions B) avoiding double-barreled questions C) choosing shared vocabulary D) personalizing the questionnaire E) providing a frame of reference

113)

The issue of biased wording in the design of questions asks ________.

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A) does the question contain wording that implies the researcher's desire for the participant to respond in one way rather than another B) whether the question is worded from the researcher's perspective or the participant's perspective C) does the question ask the participant for information that relates to thoughts or activity too far in the participant's past to be remembered D) does the question use words that have no meaning or a different meaning for the participant E) whether it is reasonable to assume that the participant can frame an answer to the question

114)

The issue of time for thought in the design of questionnaires asks ________.

A) whether the questions contain wording that implies the researcher's desire for the participant to respond in one way rather than another B) whether the questions worded from the researcher's perspective or the participant's perspective C) whether the questions ask the participant for information that relates to thoughts or activity too far in the participant's past to be remembered D) whether the questions use words that have no meaning or a different meaning for the participant E) whether it is reasonable to assume that the participant can frame an answer to the question

115)

The issue of shared vocabulary in the design of questionnaires asks ________.

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A) whether the questions contain wording that implies the researcher's desire for the participant to respond in one way rather than another B) whether the question is worded from the researcher's perspective or the participant's perspective C) whether the questions ask the participant for information that relates to thoughts or activity too far in the participant's past to be remembered D) whether the questions use words that have no meaning or a different meaning for the participant E) whether it is reasonable to assume that the participant can frame an answer to the question

116) If a participant is provided five flavors of an object and asked to rank all five in order of distinctiveness of flavor, they are being asked a ______ question. A) Paired-comparison rank question B) Forced rank question C) Multiple-choice question D) Multiple-choice, multiple-response question E) Comparative question

117) If participants in a mobile phone survey are asked to compare ten objects on durability, and are presented these objects two at a time in a series of individual question parts on their phone screen, the participants are being asked a ______ question. A) Multiple-choice, multiple-response question B) Paired-comparison rank question C) Forced rank question D) Multiple-choice question E) Comparative question

118) One purpose of pretesting of measurement questions is to reduce or eliminate all possible sources of error. Version 1

⊚ ⊚

true false

119) We would use unstructured questions if we want to determine the actual words participants would use to describe an object. ⊚ true ⊚ false

120) We would use unstructured questions if we are confident of what the response alternatives should be. ⊚ true ⊚ false

121) A larger number of scale points are needed to produce accuracy when using multidimensional versus unidimensional scales. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 11_14e_TB 7) B 8) E 9) A 10) B 11) C 12) E 13) A 14) B 15) D 16) C 17) B 18) C 19) B 20) A 21) A 22) B 23) C 24) C 25) D 26) C 27) B 28) A 29) C 30) C 31) E 32) A Version 1

33) E 34) E 35) B 36) A 37) C 38) B 39) A 40) C 41) C 42) A 43) C 44) B 45) A 46) B 47) D 48) A 49) C 50) A 51) D 52) C 53) C 54) B 55) B 56) D 57) A 58) C 59) C 60) B 61) D 62) C Version 1

63) E 64) B 65) C 66) A 67) C 68) C 69) D 70) C 71) C 72) B 73) B 74) D 75) D 76) A 77) E 78) B 79) A 80) B 81) B 82) A 83) C 84) D 85) D 86) C 87) C 88) B 89) D 90) A 91) A 92) E Version 1

93) B 94) C 95) D 96) D 97) C 98) B 99) A 100) D 101) C 102) E 103) A 104) C 105) C 106) A 107) C 108) C 109) C 110) D 111) C 112) C 113) A 114) E 115) D 116) B 117) B 118) TRUE 119) TRUE 120) FALSE 121) FALSE

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CHAPTER 12 1)

What are the tasks in drafting and refining a survey instrument?

2) Select three responsibilities during Phase 2 or Phase 3 of instrument design and detail instrument design decisions and actions that fulfill those responsibilities. Refer to Exhibit 12-3 and Exhibit 12-9.

3) Explain the meaning of pretesting, and why instrument designers should pretest questionnaires prior to using them in a study.

Which of the following goals should a good measurement instrument accomplish?

A) Encourage each participant to provide accurate responses B) Encourage participants to be succinct in their responses C) Encourage participants to answer only those questions they are comfortable answering D) Encourage participants to end the survey when they feel they have contributed enough information E) Ask as much as possible from the participants

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5) Which of the following terms is used to refer to questionnaires used in personal interviews? A) Administrative questions B) Interview schedules C) Moderator guides D) Survey schedules E) Interview guides

6) What type of question identifies the participant, interviewer, interview location, and conditions? A) Classification questions B) Target questions C) Administrative questions D) Structured questions E) Supervisory questions

All of the following question types are asked of the survey participant except ________. A) classification questions B) target questions C) supervisory questions D) administrative questions E) disguised questions

Which of the following data would be collected using a classification question?

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A) Gender B) Purchase behavior C) Attitude toward the brand D) Personality E) Behavioral intent

9) What type of question seeks to group participants' answers so that patterns can be revealed and studied? A) Classification questions B) Target questions C) Supervisory questions D) Administrative questions E) Disguised questions

10)

Classification questions seek to ________.

A) identify the participant, interviewer, interview locations, and conditions B) measure the core investigative questions C) measure sociological-demographic variables that allow participants' answers to be grouped D) frame the context of target questions E) address the primary management issue being studied

11)

What type of question seeks to address the investigative questions of a specific study? A) Classification questions B) Target questions C) Supervisory questions D) Administrative questions E) Disguised questions

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12) A question that is used to qualify a participant's knowledge about the questions of interest or experience necessary to participate is a(n) ________ question. A) administrative B) screen C) target D) branch E) classification

13) A survey of preferences among frequent air travelers will be conducted at airports nationwide. Prior to asking target questions regarding participant preferences, which of the following should occur? A) Screen questions should ensure that participants are frequent air travelers. B) Socioeconomic questions should be asked. C) Questions about terrorist concerns should be asked. D) Branch questions can distinguish between frequent air travelers and less frequent travelers. E) Free-response questions should be asked.

14) A(n) ________ question in a measurement instrument asks a subsequent measurement question based on the participant's previous answer(s). A) administrative B) screen C) target D) branch E) classification

15)

Where in a survey should personal or potentially sensitive questions be placed?

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A) At the beginning B) In the middle C) Near the end D) After the screen questions E) It does not matter.

16)

What type of measurement question is designed to establish rapport with the participant? A) Screen B) Branch C) Target D) Buffer E) Administrative

17)

The term "funnel approach" means to ________ in the questionnaire design. A) begin with general questions to more specific questions B) branch from buffer questions to target questions C) begin with buffer questions and end with screen questions D) move from screen questions to buffer questions to classification questions E) ask sensitive questions early

18)

All of the following can improve participant motivation to participate except ________. A) assuring confidentiality B) building participant interest in the topic C) offering an incentive D) limiting the number of questions asked E) All of the above improve motivation to participate.

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19)

Which of the following is a guideline for designing mobile questionnaires? A) Ask as many questions as is needed to cover the target topics. B) Use rating scale grids that require scrolling. C) Use free-response questions. D) Limit the answer choice lists on multiple-choice questions. E) None of the above is a guideline for mobile questionnaires.

20)

Which of the following is not a guideline for designing mobile questionnaires? A) Use drop-down boxes for longer answer choice lists to questions. B) Keep the question text short in all questions. C) Limit free-response questions. D) Ask 10 or fewer questions. E) All of the above are guidelines for mobile questionnaires.

21) Which of the following is not a true statement about determining target question group order in an instrument? A) Order target question groups to build and maintain participant interest. B) Order target question groups to make answering questions easier. C) Order target question groups to cluster like questions together. D) Order simpler to answer questions at the beginning of each topic. E) Order harder to answer topics first.

22) When ordering opinion target questions, there is a danger that answers to earlier questions could make a participant more likely to answer in a dissimilar way to a more specific, later question. This is called ________.

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A) acquiesce bias B) contrast effect C) assimilation effect D) recency effect E) primacy effect

23)

A(n) ________ is determined by a pretest of the instrument and affects the introduction. A) administrative question B) completion estimate C) contrast effect D) skip direction E) instrument scope

24) The researcher determines that only one question will be asked related to a particular construct. This decision affects ________. A) instrument scope B) instrument scope and coverage C) administrative questions D) skip directions E) classification questions

25)

Which of the following might result in skip directions?

A) A participant chooses not to participate in a survey. B) A participant chooses a particular answer to a survey question. C) A participant chooses to discontinue a survey. D) A participant answers a filter question in a certain way. E) A participant chooses a particular answer to a survey question, and a participant answers a filter question in a certain way.

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26)

Which of the following might result in a transition? A) A branch question B) A filter question C) A shift in target questions D) Administrative questions E) Contrast effect

27) Which type of classification question determines whether a participant is asked or is excluded from answering one or more questions within a target question topic? A) Screen question B) Administrative question C) Assimilation question D) Filter question E) Buffer question

28) When ordering opinion target questions, there is a danger that answers to earlier questions could make a participant more likely to answer in a similar way to a more specific, later question. This is called ________. A) acquiesce bias B) contrast effect C) assimilation effect D) recency effect E) primacy effect

29)

Which types of questions are directly affected by decisions about instrument coverage?

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A) Administrative questions B) Target questions C) Classification questions D) Filter questions E) Buffer questions

30)

Which types of questions are directly affected by decisions about instrument scope? A) Administrative questions B) Target questions C) Classification questions D) Filter questions E) Buffer questions

31) When a computer-based survey provides a prompt message when a participant fails to answer a question, the instrument design ________. A) encourages an individual to participate B) encourages a participant to provide an adequate amount of information C) discourages a participant from refusing to answer specific questions D) discourages a participant from early discontinuation of participation E) leaves the participant with a positive attitude about survey participation

32)

Physical design in instrument development addresses ________. A) the use of images in instruments B) the use of color in instruments C) the decision about paper weight in paper-and-pencil questionnaires D) breaking up rating question grids into individual questions. E) All of the above are correct.

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33) If we create a map of an instrument to indicate where a participant jumps questions, based on earlier answers, this map is called a skip logic diagram. ⊚ true ⊚ false

34) For the self-administered paper instrument, the size of the paper, color, and thickness all play a role in the visual design. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 12_14e_TB 4) A 5) B 6) C 7) D 8) A 9) A 10) C 11) B 12) B 13) A 14) D 15) C 16) D 17) A 18) E 19) D 20) E 21) D 22) B 23) B 24) B 25) E 26) C 27) D 28) C 29) B Version 1

30) B 31) C 32) E 33) TRUE 34) TRUE

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CHAPTER 13 1) What are the four rules that guide the coding and categorization of a data record? Explain why each one is important for researchers.

2) What is meant by stemming, aliasing and the use of exclusion filters in content analysis software applications?

3) Using the copy from the Plavix advertisement (below), briefly content analyze the ad. Include an assessment of the four types of units that can be coded using content analysis.

What advantages do stem-and-leaf displays provide over histograms?

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5) Why might a data record suffer from missing data? Explain the techniques researchers may use to handle missing data during data analysis.

6) The process of ensuring the accuracy of data and their conversion from raw form into classified forms appropriate for analysis is called ________. A) coding B) data entry C) data preparation D) data measurement E) quality control

7) All of the following activities except ________ are included in the data preparation process. A) editing B) coding C) data entry D) analyzing frequency distributions E) evaluating reliability estimates

Editing data while it is being collected during a field setting is necessary to ________.

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A) send data back to the analysis team each day B) elaborate on abbreviations commonly used during field work C) validate that interviews took place D) screen for qualified participants E) All of the above are correct.

What percentage of participants is contacted typically during data validation? A) 10% B) 15% C) 25% D) 33% E) 40%

10) Allison is editing a data record and finds that a response of 7 has been entered for a question that requests a response between 1 and 5. What should Allison do? A) Enter a response between 1 and 5 B) Enter a response of "9" for unknown C) Enter the mode for the question D) Enter a "3" as a neutral response E) None of the above is correct.

11) ________ involves assigning numbers or other symbols to answers so that the responses can be grouped into a limited number of categories. A) Editing B) Data entry C) Coding scheme D) Measurement E) Operationalization

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12)

A coding scheme generally contains all of the following information except ________. A) variable number B) record number C) code description D) instructions for coding E) variable name

13) Consider the following survey question: "Where do you like to go on vacations?" The response options are 1) beach, 2) spa, 3) adventure, 4) big city, 5) foreign travel, 6) cruise. For the vacation survey question, how many variables would be represented in the coding scheme for this question? A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four E) Six

14) Consider the following survey question: "Where do you like to go on vacations?" The response options are 1) beach, 2) spa, 3) adventure, 4) big city, 5) foreign travel, 6) cruise. Which of the following code descriptions is most appropriate for coding responses to the vacation survey question?

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A) 1 = beach, 2 = spa, 3 = adventure, 4 = big city, 5 = foreign travel, 6 = cruise B) 1 = beach only, 2 = beach and spa, 3 = beach, spa, and adventure, 4 = beach, spa, adventure, and big city, 5 = beach, spa, adventure, big city, and foreign travel, 6 = all of the above C) 1 = one item checked, 2 = two items checked, 3 = three items checked, 4 = four items checked, 5 = five items checked, 6 = six items checked D) 1 = yes, 0 = no for each variable E) None of the above is correct.

15) Consider the following survey question: "Where do you like to go on vacations?" The response options are 1) beach, 2) spa, 3) adventure, 4) big city, 5) foreign travel, 6) cruise. What type of data is produced by the vacation question? A) Interval B) Nominal C) Ordinal D) Ratio

16) Structured questions are favored over free-response questions by researchers for all of the following reasons except ________. A) ease of coding B) ease of recording C) ease of analysis D) insight provided E) efficiency

17) Which of the following guidelines must be followed in the development and use of mapping rules?

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A) Categories within a single variable must be appropriate. B) Categories within a single variable must be exhaustive. C) Categories within a single variable must be mutually exclusive. D) Categories must be derived from one classification principle. E) All of the above are correct.

18) On a survey of how students spend their time, one question asks, "Which of the following best describes your employment status?" The response options provided are 1) not employed, 2) employed part-time, 3) employed full-time, 4) full-time student, and 5) other. Which of the following code descriptions is most appropriate for the employment status question? A) 1 = not employed, 2 = employed part-time, 3 = employed full-time, 4 = full-time student, 5 = other, 9 = missing B) 1 = checked, 0 = not checked C) 1 = not employed, full-time student, 2 = employed full-time, 3 = employed part-time, full-time student, 4 = not employed, other, 5 = other D) All of the above are correct. E) None of the above is correct.

19) On a survey of how students spend their time, one question asks, "Which of the following best describes your employment status?" The response options provided are 1) not employed, 2) employed part-time, 3) employed full-time, 4) full-time student, and 5) other. In the example, which of the following characteristics of coding rules did the researcher fail to address adequately? A) Appropriate categories B) Exhaustive options C) Mutual exclusivity D) Single dimension E) Closed-ended

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20) On a survey of how students spend their time, one question asks, "Which of the following best describes your employment status?" The response options provided are 1) not employed, 2) employed part-time, 3) employed full-time, 4) full-time student, and 5) other. In the example, the use of the response option "other" is used to meet the requirement that categories be ________. A) appropriate B) exhaustive C) mutually exclusive D) of a single dimension E) numeric

21) On a survey of how students spend their time, one question asks, "Which of the following best describes your employment status?" The response options provided are 1) not employed, 2) employed part-time, 3) employed full-time, 4) full-time student, and 5) other. In the example, employment levels and student status are both included as response options. This indicates that the researcher violated the requirement for categories to be ________. A) appropriate B) exhaustive C) mutually exclusive D) of a single dimension E) numeric

22) On a survey of how students spend their time, one question asks, "Which of the following best describes your employment status?" The response options provided are 1) not employed, 2) employed part-time, 3) employed full-time, 4) full-time student, and 5) other. What type of data results from the employment status question?

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A) Dichotomous B) Nominal C) Ordinal D) Interval E) Ratio

23) Which term below refers to an analytical process for measuring the semantic content of a communication? A) ANOVA B) Regression C) Content analysis D) Factor analysis E) Reliability analysis

24)

All of the following techniques are used in content analysis except ________. A) counting words B) categorizing phrases C) assessing the structure of expressions D) triangulation E) All of the above are correct.

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25) An advertisement for the drug Plavix states the following: "If you've been hospitalized for heart-related chest pain or a certain type of heart attack, doctors call these conditions ACS, or Acute Coronary Syndrome. You can do more to help protect yourself against a future heart attack or stroke — ask your doctor about adding Plavix. For most, heart attack or stroke is caused when platelets form clots that block the flow of blood to the heart or brain. Think aspirin and other heart medications alone are enough? Adding Plavix could help protect you against a future heart attack or stroke. Plavix, added to aspirin and your current treatment, helps raise your protection against a future heart attack or stroke. Prescription Plavix and your other medications work in different ways. Adding Plavix can go beyond your current treatment. Plavix, taken with aspirin, plays its own role in keeping platelets from sticking together and forming clots —which helps keep blood flowing. Talk to your doctor about Plavix." If we were to conduct a content analysis of the Plavix advertisement, platelets would be considered as ________ units. A) syntactical B) referential C) propositional D) thematic E) semiotic

26) An advertisement for the drug Plavix states the following: "If you've been hospitalized for heart-related chest pain or a certain type of heart attack, doctors call these conditions ACS, or Acute Coronary Syndrome. You can do more to help protect yourself against a future heart attack or stroke — ask your doctor about adding Plavix. For most, heart attack or stroke is caused when platelets form clots that block the flow of blood to the heart or brain. Think aspirin and other heart medications alone are enough? Adding Plavix could help protect you against a future heart attack or stroke. Plavix, added to aspirin and your current treatment, helps raise your protection against a future heart attack or stroke. Prescription Plavix and your other medications work in different ways. Adding Plavix can go beyond your current treatment. Plavix, taken with aspirin, plays its own role in keeping platelets from sticking together and forming clots — which helps keep blood flowing. Talk to your doctor about Plavix." In a content analysis of the Plavix advertisement, the words "adding" or "added" are used four times and the phrase "heart attack" is used five times. These are ________ units in our analysis.

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A) syntactical B) referential C) propositional D) thematic E) semiotic

27) An advertisement for the drug Plavix states the following: "If you've been hospitalized for heart-related chest pain or a certain type of heart attack, doctors call these conditions ACS, or Acute Coronary Syndrome. You can do more to help protect yourself against a future heart attack or stroke — ask your doctor about adding Plavix. For most, heart attack or stroke is caused when platelets form clots that block the flow of blood to the heart or brain. Think aspirin and other heart medications alone are enough? Adding Plavix could help protect you against a future heart attack or stroke. Plavix, added to aspirin and your current treatment, helps raise your protection against a future heart attack or stroke. Prescription Plavix and your other medications work in different ways. Adding Plavix can go beyond your current treatment. Plavix, taken with aspirin, plays its own role in keeping platelets from sticking together and forming clots — which helps keep blood flowing. Talk to your doctor about Plavix." In the Plavix advertisement, the claim that adding Plavix to aspirin helps raise a person's protection against future heart attack is a ________ unit because it makes an assertion about the benefits of aspirin alone. A) syntactical B) referential C) propositional D) thematic E) semiotic

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28) An advertisement for the drug Plavix states the following: "If you've been hospitalized for heart-related chest pain or a certain type of heart attack, doctors call these conditions ACS, or Acute Coronary Syndrome. You can do more to help protect yourself against a future heart attack or stroke — ask your doctor about adding Plavix. For most, heart attack or stroke is caused when platelets form clots that block the flow of blood to the heart or brain. Think aspirin and other heart medications alone are enough? Adding Plavix could help protect you against a future heart attack or stroke. Plavix, added to aspirin and your current treatment, helps raise your protection against a future heart attack or stroke. Prescription Plavix and your other medications work in different ways. Adding Plavix can go beyond your current treatment. Plavix, taken with aspirin, plays its own role in keeping platelets from sticking together and forming clots - which helps keep blood flowing. Talk to your doctor about Plavix." The broad topic of "protection" featured in the Plavix advertisement is a ________ unit. A) syntactical B) referential C) propositional D) thematic E) semiotic

29) An advertisement for the drug, Plavix, states the following: "If you've been hospitalized for heart-related chest pain or a certain type of heart attack, doctors call these conditions ACS, or Acute Coronary Syndrome. You can do more to help protect yourself against a future heart attack or stroke — ask your doctor about adding Plavix. For most, heart attack or stroke is caused when platelets form clots that block the flow of blood to the heart or brain. Think aspirin and other heart medications alone are enough? Adding Plavix could help protect you against a future heart attack or stroke. Plavix, added to aspirin and your current treatment, helps raise your protection against a future heart attack or stroke. Prescription Plavix and your other medications work in different ways. Adding Plavix can go beyond your current treatment. Plavix, taken with aspirin, plays its own role in keeping platelets from sticking together and forming clots — which helps keep blood flowing. Talk to your doctor about Plavix." If we were using content analysis software to analyze the Plavix advertisement, which of the following words would require the use of stemming?

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A) Protect B) Help C) Aspirin D) Form E) Heart attack

30) Which of the following groups of words indicates a series of words for which stemming would be used in the content analysis? A) be, is, of, the B) pretty, beautiful, attractive C) search, searching, searches, searched D) going, walking, running, flying E) All of the above are correct.

31) Which of the following groups of words indicates a series of words for which aliasing would be used in the content analysis? A) be, is, of, the B) pretty, beautiful, attractive C) search, searching, searches, searched D) going, walking, running, flying E) All of the above are correct.

32) Which of the following is an accurate interpretation for a "don't know" response from the respondent?

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A) It isn't important enough to answer. B) I don't know. C) I don't want to answer that question. D) I'm too ambivalent to figure out the best answer. E) All of the above are correct.

33) With the ________ method, missing values are estimated using all cases that had data for each variable in the analysis. A) pairwise deletion B) replacement C) listwise deletion D) minimized deletion E) case-specific deletion

34) Which missing data technique is most appropriate when missing data are considered data missing completely at random (MCAR)? A) Pairwise deletion B) Replacement C) Listwise deletion D) Minimized deletion E) Weighting

35)

A collection of data organized for computerized retrieval is called a ________. A) data mine B) data field C) database D) data code E) computer recognition retrieval system

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36)

When viewing a data record entered into a spreadsheet, the columns identify ________. A) records B) variables C) categories D) coding instructions E) variable labels

37) Data analysis is ________ when patterns in the collected data guide the data analysis or suggest revisions to the preliminary data analysis plan. A) confirmatory B) descriptive C) exploratory D) conclusive E) forensic

38)

The primary benefit of exploratory data analysis is its ability to be ________. A) conclusive B) exclusive C) discriminatory D) flexible E) inexpensive

39)

Hypothesis testing is conducted using ________ data analysis techniques.

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A) exploratory B) confirmatory C) qualitative D) quantitative E) forensic

40) Data analysis is ________ when the analytical process is guided by classical statistical inference in its use of significance and confidence. A) confirmatory B) descriptive C) exploratory D) conclusive E) forensic

41)

Visual representations of data values are consistent with which form of data analysis? A) Confirmatory B) Exploratory C) Conclusive D) Descriptive E) Hypothesis testing

42)

All of the following are contained in a frequency table except ________. A) lowest value B) percent C) count D) cumulative percent E) quartile indicators

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43)

When will the valid percent figure in a frequency table differ from the percent figure? A) When the cumulative percent exceeds 100% B) When there are missing cases C) When using replacement for missing values D) When the frequency exceeds 10 E) Valid percent and percent will always be the same.

44) Which type of graphical depiction of frequency values uses a circle shape divided into triangles such that each triangle represents the frequency value it represents? A) Histogram B) Pie chart C) Line graph D) Pareto diagram E) Stem-and-leaf display

45) Which type of graph uses bars to represent data values such that each value occupies an equal amount of area within the enclosed area? A) Bar chart B) Pie chart C) Histogram D) Stem-and-leaf display E) Line chart

46)

Which of the following display choices is most similar to the histogram?

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A) Bar chart B) Pie chart C) Box plot D) Stem-and-leaf display E) Line graph

47)

Histograms can be used to display the ________ of a distribution. A) skewness B) kurtosis C) modal pattern D) All of the above are correct. E) None of the above is correct.

48)

The vertical axis on a histogram indicates the ________. A) number of observations in each interval B) midpoint for each interval C) variable of interest D) cumulative percent E) valid percent

49)

The horizontal axis on a histogram indicates the ________. A) number of observations in each interval B) interval of observations C) variable of interest D) cumulative percent E) valid percent

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50) A tree-type frequency distribution that specifies each data value without equal interval grouping is called a ________. A) bar chart B) histogram C) stem-and-leaf display D) pie chart E) line graph

51)

What information is presented in a stem-and-leaf display? A) Percent B) Actual values C) Valid percent D) Cumulative percent E) Value labels

52) A stem-and-leaf display differs from a histogram in that a stem-and-leaf display ________. A) presents actual data values B) groups values into intervals C) represents data using bars or asterisks D) illustrates each interval with a color for visualization E) is appropriate for nominal data

53)

In a stem-and-leaf display, each piece of information on the stem is called a ________.

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A) leaf B) stem C) trunk D) flower E) root

54) Consider the following array of values found in a stem-and-leaf display: 5 | 4 6 7 8 8 9 9 9 9. Which of the following statements best reflects the meaning of this line? A) There are nine items in the data set whose first digit is 5. B) The numbers in the data set range from 4 to 9. C) The variance in the data set is 5. D) The mean of the data set is 5. E) The values in the display are 95, 85, 75, 65, and 45; 95 appears four times and 85 appears twice.

55) Which type of display represents frequency data as a bar chart, ordered from most to least, overlayed with a line graph denoting the cumulative percentage at each variable level? A) Stem-and-leaf display B) Histogram C) Pareto diagram D) Pie chart E) Line graph

56)

Tables should have which of the following characteristics?

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A) Rounded numbers for easy comparison B) Ordered numbers, largest to smallest C) Percentages to show proportionate relationships D) Conversion of numbers for a common comparison E) All of the above are correct.

57) All of the following are sources of data that can be used in a Pareto diagram except ________. A) multiple-choice-single-response scales B) multiple-choice-multiple-response scales C) frequency counts of words D) dichotomous scales E) None of the above is correct.

58) A ________ reduces the detail of the stem-and-leaf display and provides a different visual image of the distribution's location, spread, shape, and tail length. A) histogram B) box plot C) Pareto diagram D) frequency table E) geographic map

59)

Measures that are resistant are ________. A) inappropriate for statistical analysis B) corrupted with measurement bias C) based on nominal scales D) able to resist influence of extreme values E) sensitive to localized data

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60)

Which of the following statistics is resistant? A) Mean B) Standard deviation C) Variance D) Median E) All of the above are correct.

61)

Which of the following statistics is nonresistant? A) Median B) Mode C) Range D) Quartiles E) Standard deviation

62)

All of the following are ingredients of box plots except ________. A) rectangular plot that encompasses 50% of the data values B) center line marking the median C) jagged line marking the mean D) box hinges E) whiskers that extend from the right and left hinges to the largest and smallest values

63)

Data points that exceed plus 1.5 of the interquartile range are called ________.

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A) extremists B) outcasts C) errors D) outliers E) skewed data

64)

Outliers are those data points that exceed ________ of the interquartile range. A) +1 B) +1.5 C) +2 D) +2.5 E) +3

65)

Which of the following is not an appropriate situation for the use of mapping?

A) Identify competing business locations to identify the location for a new store B) Identify the geographic location of target customer segments to plan promotions C) Identify the performance of various call centers nationwide by assessing training effectiveness D) Identify specification accuracy of machines by factory location to assess maintenance routines E) All of the above are appropriate uses of mapping.

66) Which of the research questions/hypotheses below is best answered using crosstabulations?

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A) What percentage of men and women prefer brand A over brand B? B) What percentage of residents shop at the local grocery store? C) Is brand loyalty related to brand image? D) What happens to sales when prices drop? E) Where do most of our consumers live?

67) A statistical technique that describes two or more variables simultaneously and results in tables that reflect the joint distribution of two or more variables that have a limited number of categories or distinct values is a(n) ________. A) t test B) ANOVA C) factor analysis D) cross-tabulation E) regression

68) Which of the following best expresses the value of using percentages in data presentation? A) Allows for relative comparisons B) Allows for mathematical manipulation of the values C) Focuses on the count of cases D) Provides for the calculation of marginals E) All of the above are correct.

69) The introduction of a third variable in cross-tabulation can result in which of the following possibilities?

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A) Refined association between the two original variables B) No association between the two original variables C) No change in the initial pattern D) All of the above are correct. E) None of the above is correct.

70)

When are cross-tabulations called contingency tables? A) Anytime B) When used in confirmatory data analysis C) When used for display purposes D) When presented with percentages rather than raw counts E) When used to present data

71) What oversight has occurred in the following example? The price is reduced by 400% because it was $1 and is now just 25 cents. A) Use of too large percentages B) Percentage decreases cannot exceed 100%. C) Use of too small a base D) Averaging percentages E) Percentages cannot exceed 100%.

72)

The purpose of a control variable in cross-tabulation is to ________. A) help interpret the relationship between variables B) control for outliers C) provide a comparison for the results D) establish precision E) All of the above are correct.

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73)

Cross-tabulations with more than two variables are called ________ tables. A) multivariate B) n-way C) kth D) CHAID E) nested

74) The data partitioning procedure that can search up to 300 variables for the single best predictor of a dependent variable is called ________. A) cross-tabulation B) regression C) automatic interaction detection D) data mining E) factor analysis

75)

Box plots are said to incorporate resistant statistics because they ________. A) are constructed with a five-number summary B) do not contain weak measures of central tendency like the median C) are based on a new type of dispersion statistics D) use whiskers to represent quartiles

76)

Marginals are the totals of row and/or column variables in a ________. A) pie chart B) bar chart C) cross-classification (cross-tabulation) table D) frequency table

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77)

Re-expression of collected data on a lower-power scale is called ________. A) resistant statistics B) nonresistant statistics C) recoding D) cross-tabulation E) None of the above is correct.

78)

In which of the following are bars arranged in decreasing order by size? A) Control chart B) Simple bar chart C) Pareto diagram D) Histogram E) None of the above is correct.

79) In a ________, category codes are ordered from lowest value to highest value with columns for count, percent, valid percent, and cumulative percent. A) box plot B) histogram C) stem-and-leaf diagram D) Pareto diagram E) frequency table

80)

Which of the following is most appropriately displayed with a frequency table?

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A) What percentage of people prefer Hunt's brand ketchup B) The relationship between gender and job performance C) How much explanatory value comes from the study's variables D) The home location of the most valuable customers E) The relative effectiveness of ads in newspapers verses ads in magazines

81)

Which data display technique uses the five-number summary? A) Frequency table B) Pareto diagram C) Box plot D) Stem-and-leaf display E) Pie chart

82)

In table design, you do not round the data numbers when ________. A) the data represent currency B) you want the reader to see ratio relationships C) the data must be precise D) numbers are grouped by a control variable E) None of the above is correct.

83)

In data analysis, a cell is created by ________. A) the creation of a stem in a stem-and-leaf display B) the count and percentage of a variable in a frequency table C) the bar in a Pareto diagram D) the overlap of two variables in cross-tabulation E) None of the above is correct.

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84) In content analysis, if you were studying the themes represented in CEO letters contained in annual reports, you would be studying ________. A) context units B) sampling units C) recording units D) All of the above are correct. E) None of the above is correct.

85) In content analysis, if you were studying recording units within cover letters accompanying resumes to determine the best constructs to include to get a letter noticed, you would study ________. A) syntactical units B) referential units C) propositional units D) thematic units E) ideational units

86) When you collect data, ________ can involve creation and delivery of a drop box for paper-and-pencil surveys. A) survey timeline B) survey disposition C) participant invitation D) survey activation E) participant reminder

87) If we study what assertions or claims people make about their skills in their resumes, we are interested in what type of recording units?

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A) Syntactical B) Referential C) Propositional D) Thematic E) Ideational

88)

The tool used to display content analysis recording units is a ________. A) diversions graph B) proximity plot C) bar graph D) line graph E) Pareto diagram

89)

Which of the following is a legitimate "Don't Know" response to a closed question?

A) Participant has not yet made a judgement on the issue. B) Participant is a gamer and chooses Don't Know response to mess up the survey process. C) Participant feels the topic does not warrant his or her consideration D) All of the above lead to legitimate "Don't Know" responses. E) None of the above leads to a legitimate "Don't Know" response.

90)

Which of the following is true? A) Database is smaller than a data file. B) Data record contains all answers from a single data case. C) Data variable is contained within a row on a data record. D) Data field does not contain data representing a variable. E) A single measurement question is always represented by a single data field.

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91) A participant is asked a filter question, then a branched question. Missing data is higher for the branched question. This is an example of what type of missing data? A) MCAR B) MAR C) NMAR D) Either MCAR or NMAR E) None of the above is correct.

92) When data editing replaces the missing data for a MCAR variable in a data record with the mean response for all participants who provided data for that variable, the editing strategy being used is ________. A) listwise deletion B) pairwise deletion C) predictive replacement D) pairwise replacement E) listwise replacement

93)

Which of the following statements is true? A) Exploratory data analysis often leads to recoding. B) Exploratory data analysis has no effect on the preliminary analysis plan.

94)

Which of the following is not accurate about a tabular presentation of numbers?

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A) Numbers can be rounded to permit easier comparison, unless the precision of the number is important. B) Counts should always be numbered by smallest to lowest. C) Do not use averages if you have a bimodal distribution. D) Numbers in a table should be on a common scale. E) Several small tables reveal patterns better than one large complex table.

95)

Data rows should be ordered in a table ________. A) alphabetically or randomly, so no data element is emphasized B) to best reveal the pattern in the data

96)

The title of a table should ________. A) be descriptive of its content B) may contain the key message of the data in the table C) should contain the time frame of the data D) should contain the sample size represented by noncensus data E) All of the above are correct.

97)

Which term below refers to an ordered array of all values for a variable? A) Correlation table B) Frequency distribution C) Frequency table D) Scatter diagram E) Histogram

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98) In a standard normal distribution, the mean is ________ and the standard deviation is ________. A) 0; 1 B) 5; 1 C) 3; 1 D) 1; 5 E) It varies based on the sample.

99)

Which of the following can be determined using a frequency distribution? A) How close a sample comes to the null hypothesis B) How does one variable, X, relate to another variable, Y C) Whether a systematic association exist between two variables D) The shape of the variable's distribution E) The systematic variance associated with the sample

100) The value obtained by summing all cases in a set and dividing by the number of cases is the ________. A) mean B) median C) mode D) range E) standard score

101)

Which of the following statements is not true of the mode?

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A) The mode is the most frequently occurring value. B) There may be more than one mode in a distribution. C) Distributions may not be multimodal. D) Some distributions have no mode. E) The mode is most appropriate for nominal data.

102)

The median is an appropriate measure of central tendency for ________ data. A) interval B) ratio C) ordinal D) nominal E) All of the above are correct.

103) Consider the following array of numbers: 5 6 7 7 7 8 8 9 9 9 10 15 19 20 21. In the array provided, what is the mode? A) 7 B) 9 C) 10 D) 15 E) Both 7 and 9

104) Consider the following array of numbers: 5 6 7 7 7 8 8 9 9 9 10 15 19 20 21. In the array provided, what is the median? A) 7 B) 9 C) 10 D) 15 E) Both 7 and 9

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105) Consider the following array of numbers: 5 6 7 7 7 8 8 9 9 9 10 15 19 20 21. In the array provided, what is the mean? (Round to the nearest whole number.) A) 7 B) 9 C) 11 D) 15 E) Both 7 and 9

106) Consider the following array of numbers: 5 6 7 7 7 8 8 9 9 9 10 15 19 20 21. What is the range for the array provided? A) 5 B) 7 C) 9 D) 10 E) 16

107) ________ is a measure of the relative peakedness or flatness of the curve defined by the frequency distribution. A) Kurtosis B) Deviation C) Point estimate D) Standard error E) Z score

108) Common measures of ________ include the range, interquartile range, variance or standard deviation, and variation.

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A) central tendency B) variability C) shape D) location E) significance

109) The difference between the smallest and the largest values in a distribution is the ________. A) mean B) median C) mode D) range E) deviation

110)

A ________ is equal to the observation minus the mean. A) standard deviation B) deviation score C) range D) mode E) quartile

111) The measure of deviation from the mean such that cases stretch toward one tail or the other is called ________. A) kurtosis B) platykurtic C) skewness D) ku E) mesokurtic

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112)

Which of the following is NOT included in a data collection timeline? A) when data editing starts and is expected to finish B) when data entry starts and is expected to finish C) the dates and times for training of data collectors, if applicable D) activation dates and times for each data collection task E) none of the above, as all are included

113)

Which of the following is NOT included in a data collection timeline? A) when data editing starts and is expected to finish B) when data entry starts and is expected to finish C) the dates and times for selecting participants D) activation dates and times for each data collection task E) none of the above, as all are included

114)

Which of the following is NOT included in instrument distribution?

A) process for creating the measurement instrument B) process for distributing measurement instrument to data collectors/interviewers, if included in research design C) process for collecting completed measurement instruments D) process for uploading photos taken by participants as part of research design E) none of the above, as all are included

115)

A survey timeline would include a survey activation date. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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116)

Data that has not been precoded must be coded prior to analysis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

117) Content analysis could be used for analyzing the comments attached to financial statements in the financial reports of the Fortune 500 companies. ⊚ true ⊚ false

118) Surveys using probability sampling design need fewer participant reminders than surveys using nonprobability sampling designs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

119) Preparing a descriptive statistical summary of the collected data for each variable is not a tool used to assess the coding scheme for coding errors. ⊚ true ⊚ false

120)

Data is complete when data entry follows the mapping rules for each variable. ⊚ true ⊚ false

121) A "Don't know" response means that the participant has no knowledge of the topic addressed in the measurement question. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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122) Converting counts to percentages make relative comparison between variables more difficult. ⊚ true ⊚ false

123) data.

Tables should contain summary statements so readers do not miss the message of the ⊚ ⊚

124)

true false

A table's summary statement can be contained in the title of a table. ⊚ true ⊚ false

125) A table's column headers should avoid abbreviations unless these are well-known to the audience. ⊚ true ⊚ false

126)

In table design, the number of columns should exceed the number of rows. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 13_14e_TB 6) C 7) E 8) B 9) A 10) B 11) C 12) B 13) E 14) D 15) B 16) D 17) E 18) A 19) C 20) B 21) D 22) B 23) C 24) E 25) B 26) A 27) C 28) D 29) A 30) C 31) B Version 1

32) E 33) A 34) C 35) C 36) B 37) C 38) D 39) B 40) A 41) B 42) E 43) B 44) B 45) C 46) D 47) D 48) A 49) B 50) C 51) B 52) A 53) A 54) A 55) C 56) E 57) D 58) B 59) D 60) D 61) E Version 1

62) C 63) D 64) B 65) E 66) A 67) D 68) A 69) D 70) B 71) B 72) A 73) B 74) C 75) A 76) C 77) C 78) C 79) E 80) A 81) C 82) C 83) D 84) C 85) D 86) B 87) C 88) B 89) A 90) B 91) B Version 1

92) B 93) A 94) B 95) B 96) E 97) B 98) A 99) D 100) A 101) C 102) C 103) E 104) B 105) C 106) E 107) A 108) B 109) D 110) B 111) C 112) E 113) C 114) A 115) TRUE 116) TRUE 117) TRUE 118) FALSE 119) FALSE 120) FALSE 121) FALSE Version 1

122) FALSE 123) TRUE 124) TRUE 125) TRUE 126) FALSE

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CHAPTER 14 1) Define the null and alternative hypotheses. Discuss the relationship between the two hypotheses.

2) What is the difference between a type I error and a type II error? How are the two errors related?

List the six-stage sequence for testing statistical significance.

What are the assumptions for using parametric tests for hypothesis testing?

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5) ________ statistics considers subjective probability estimates while ________ statistics considers only objective estimates. A) Classical; Bayesian B) Inductive; deductive C) Bayesian; classical D) Descriptive; exploratory E) Exploratory; descriptive

6) If a difference is not caused only by random sampling fluctuations, it is said to have ________. A) resistance B) statistical significance C) substantive significance D) reasonable doubt E) practical significance

Which of the following hypotheses is a null hypothesis?

A) There is no difference in the monthly grocery bills of families with one child and families with two children. B) Grocery bills vary according to the number of meals eaten outside the home. C) Families with two children have significantly higher grocery bills than families with just one child. D) There is a relationship between grocery bills and the number of people in a household. E) The mean age in a household is predictive of the amount of money spent on food each month.

Which of the following hypotheses is an alternative hypothesis?

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A) There is no relationship between grade point average and drinking behavior among college students. B) Seniors are no more likely than freshmen to binge drink. C) Men are more likely to binge drink than women. D) Athletes and nonathletes are equally likely to binge drink. E) There is no difference in alcohol consumption among beer drinkers and wine drinkers.

9) What type of hypothesis states that a sample statistic is either greater than or less than the population parameter? A) Null B) One-tailed C) Two-tailed D) Three-tailed E) None of the above is correct.

10) What type of hypothesis states that the sample statistic is not the same as the population statistic but is either greater than or less than, but not both? A) Null B) One-tailed C) Two-tailed D) Three-tailed E) None of the above is correct.

11)

Which of the following hypotheses uses a two-tailed test?

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A) Hamburger consumption differs among men and women. B) Men consume more hamburgers than women. C) Women are more concerned with the health consequences associated with eating hamburgers than are men. D) There is no difference in hamburger consumption among men and women. E) All of the above are two-tailed tests.

12)

Which of the following hypotheses would need a one-tailed test?

A) Hybrid cars get better gas mileage than traditional cars. B) There is a difference in the gas mileage of cars and trucks. C) There is no difference in gas mileage among two-door and four-door vehicles. D) There is a relationship between the number of miles to one's job and the gas mileage associated with his or her chosen car. E) All of the above would need a one-tailed test.

13)

Which of the following statements is not correct about the alternative hypothesis? A) It may be directional or nondirectional. B) The alternative hypothesis represents the conclusion for which evidence is sought. C) The alternative hypothesis is the opposite of the null hypothesis. D) It is always the hypothesis tested. E) None of the statements is correct.

14) "Men and women use the Internet approximately the same number of hours per week" is a ________.

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A) null hypothesis B) one-tailed test C) two-tailed test D) test of proportions E) test of means

15) "The number of hours worked is related to student grade point average" is a(n) ________ hypothesis. A) null B) one-tailed C) two-tailed D) test of proportions E) test of means

16) Which of the following illustrates the correct expression of the null hypothesis for the alternate hypothesis "more than 40% of Internet users shop online"? A) H0: µ ≤ .40 B) HA: µ > .40 C) H0: µ = .40 D) HA: µ ≠ .40 E) HA: µ = .40

17) Which of the following illustrates the correct expression of the alternate hypothesis that "customers of McDonald's consume more than the national average of 36 hamburgers each year"?

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A) H0: µ ≤ 36 B) H0: µ > 36 C) H0: µ = 36 D) HA: µ ≠ 36 E) HA: µ > 36

18) ________ occurs when the sample results lead to the rejection of a null hypothesis that is in fact true. A) Type I error B) Two-tailed error C) Type II error D) One-tailed error E) Parametric significance

19) Also known as beta error, ________ occurs when the sample results lead to the nonrejection of a null hypothesis that is in fact false. A) type I error B) two-tailed error C) type II error D) one-tailed error

20) The ________ is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is in fact false and should be rejected.

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A) type I error B) level of significance C) type II error D) power of a test E) Z score

21)

Which type of error is also known as alpha? A) Type I error B) Type II error C) Beta error D) Standard error E) Demand error

22)

Which of the following outcomes is roughly the equivalent of committing a type I error? A) Finding a guilty person guilty B) Finding a guilty person not guilty C) Finding an innocent person not guilty D) Finding an innocent person guilty E) None of the above is correct.

23) Statisticians recommend that the power of a test equal ________, that is, the probability that one will correctly reject a false null hypothesis. A) 5% B) 10% C) 50% D) 80% E) 95%

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24)

The level of significance chosen for hypothesis testing is based on ________. A) the desired level of confidence one wishes to have in the results B) the desired degree of precision C) how much risk of a type I error one is willing to accept D) the statistical test used E) whether the sample is a probability sample

25)

The most common level of significance used in hypothesis testing is ________. A) .05 B) .10 C) .25 D) .90 E) .95

26) As one increases the significance level accepted for hypothesis testing, the probability of committing a type II error ________. A) increases B) decreases C) stays the same D) is rejected E) is accepted

27)

The null hypothesis is typically rejected when ________.

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A) the calculated value is smaller than the critical value B) the critical value is smaller than the calculated value C) the level of significance chosen is .05 D) a chi-square statistic is computed E) the Z ratio approaches 1

28) The probability of observing a sample value as extreme as, or more extreme than, the value actually observed given that the null hypothesis is true is called the ________. A) level of significance B) critical value C) t statistic D) p value E) alpha

29)

Under which of the following conditions must the null hypothesis be rejected? A) p value < significance level α B) p value > significance level C) p value = significance level D) p value cannot be determined E) p value is unrelated to hypothesis testing

30) Consider the following hypothesis: "There is no relationship between income and amount of money spent on food." If the hypothesis presented is tested with a .05 level of significance and the resulting p value is .01, which of the following is the correct decision regarding the null hypothesis?

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A) Reject the null hypothesis B) Cannot reject the null hypothesis C) The decision cannot be determined with the information provided D) Reject the alternate E) None of the above is correct.

31) Consider the following hypothesis: "There is no relationship between income and amount of money spent on food." If the hypothesis presented is tested using a .05 alpha level and the resulting p value is .01, which of the following interpretations of the results is most appropriate? A) There is no relationship between income and food expenditures. B) There is a relationship between income and food expenditures. C) As income increases, food expenditures increase. D) As income decreases, the percentage of income spent on food increases. E) None of the above is correct.

32) ________ tests are hypothesis testing procedures that assume that the variables of interest are measured on at least an interval scale. A) Parameter B) Parametric C) Nonparametric D) Significance E) Metric

33) ________ tests are hypothesis testing procedures that assume that the variables are measured on a nominal or ordinal scale.

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A) Parameter B) Parametric C) Nonparametric D) Resistant E) Type I

34) How can a researcher determine whether data meet the assumption of normality necessary for using parametric tests? A) Assess the level of significance. B) Determine the probability of making a type II error. C) Determine the probability of making a type I error. D) Examine a normal probability plot. E) Examine whether the distribution is bimodal or multimodal.

35) A researcher should consider answers to all of the following questions except ________ when selecting a particular test of significance. A) how many samples are involved in the test B) are the samples related C) what type of data is involved D) what is the level of significance E) All of the above should be addressed.

36) The ________ is a parametric test to determine the statistical significance between the sample distribution mean and a population parameter.

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A) F statistic B) t-test C) Z distribution D) Z test E) t distribution

37)

When sample sizes exceed ________, the t and Z distributions are virtually identical. A) 120 B) 300 C) 500 D) 1000 E) The t and Z distributions will never be identical.

38)

Which statement is not true concerning the t distribution?

A) Compared to the normal distribution, the t distribution has more area in the tails and less in the center. B) As the number of degrees of freedom increases, the t distribution approaches the normal distribution. C) The t distributions are skewed to the left. D) The population variance is unknown and is estimated by the sample variance s2. E) As the sample size increases beyond 120, the t and Z distributions are indistinguishable.

39)

Which of the following is true of a one-sample chi-square test?

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A) The null hypothesis is that the actual frequency in each category is different than those hypothesized. B) The greater the difference between the actual and hypothesized frequencies in a category, the more likely the difference can be attributed to chance. C) The value of the X2 statistic expresses the extent of the difference between the actual and hypothesized frequencies. D) The larger the divergence, the smaller the X2 value. E) A X2 statistic is significant if it is less than .05.

40)

Which of the following involves a test of two-independent samples?

A) Test of differences in the percent of men and women who are or are not members of Greek organizations on campus B) Test of the average incomes of subscribers of Southern Living and Better Homes and Gardens C) Test of whether the mean salary of professors at Metro University is higher than the national average for university professors D) Test of whether a change occurred in the proneness for heart disease among people who switched to a diet high in fish E) Test of differences in ad recall among three experimental groups (each of which saw a different advertisement) and a control group

41)

Which of the following involves a test of two-related samples?

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42)

Which of the following involves a test of k-independent-samples?

43) Which of the following tests is most appropriate for examining differences in the average number of hours spent viewing television among four different age groups? A) Z test B) t-test C) ANOVA D) Chi-square test E) McNemar test

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44) When conducting an ANOVA, if the F ratio is close to 1, which of the following interpretations is true? A) The null hypothesis is rejected. B) There is no difference between the means of the groups examined. C) The population means are unequal. D) The between-groups variance is twice the within-groups variance. E) All of the above are true.

45)

In which of the following situations should an a priori contrast be used?

A) A t-test is used to conclude that men consume more hamburgers than women. B) A chi-square test is used to conclude that there is a difference in type of living quarters by class status. C) Using a one-way ANOVA, significant differences in advance are found between three experimental groups and one control group. D) A Z test indicates that the national average of the number of soft drinks consumed in the United States exceeds that of France. E) All of the above can use ana priori contrast.

46) Hypothesis testing of the effectiveness of two experimental manipulations against a control group finds that there is a significant difference in the mean score by group and the null hypothesis is rejected. Which test below can be used to determine where a difference exists? A) ANOVA B) Chi-square test C) F ratio D) Z test E) Scheffe's S

47)

Which of the following is not true of the Kruskal-Wallis test?

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A) It is a one-way analysis of variance by ranks. B) It assumes random selection. C) It assumes a continuous distribution. D) It is used with two-related samples. E) All of the above are true.

48)

A two-way ANOVA differs from a one-way ANOVA in that ________. A) post hoc comparisons are completed as a part of the initial test B) it requires an assumption of normality C) it examines possible interaction effects among two independent factors D) it examines possible interaction effects among two or more dependent variables E) it allows an examination of ordinal data

49)

Repeated measures taken from the same participant are called ________. A) examinations B) related samples C) time series data D) trials E) n-way tests

50) Which test is an extension of the McNemar test useful for tests involving more than two samples? A) Cochran Q B) ANOVA C) n-way ANOVA D) Kruskal-Wallis E) Mann-Whitney U

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51) In an examination of differences among the mean hamburger consumption of people in the United Kingdom (UK), United States (US), France (FR), and Korea (KR), how would the null hypothesis be stated? A) H0: UK > US > FR > KR B) HA: UK + US > FR + KR C) H0: UK = US = FR = KR D) HA: π ≠ 0 E) H0: π = 0

52)

ANOVA can be used as a parametric test of ________. A) one sample B) two-related samples C) two-unrelated samples D) k-independent samples E) All of the above are correct.

53) Jeremy is using an ANOVA to examine the alternative hypothesis that brand loyalty is higher among frequent fliers of Jet Blue than the reported brand loyalty of frequent fliers on United, US Airways, and Delta. If the p value is less than .05 and the F ratio is greater than 1, which of the following interpretations is correct? A) Jet Blue has higher brand loyalty among its frequent fliers than do the other three airlines examined. B) There is no difference in brand loyalty among customers of the four airlines. C) There is a difference in brand loyalty among customers of the four airlines. D) Jet Blue has lower brand loyalty among its frequent fliers than do the other three airlines. E) No interpretation can be made with the information available.

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54) Which of the following best explains how the F ratio examines differences among groups? A) The variability attributable to a treatment is compared to the variability arising from random error. B) The probability of making a type I error is compared to the probability of making a type II error. C) The criticalF is compared to the criticalt. D) The standard deviation for each group is subtracted from the mean of all groups. E) None of the above is correct.

55) If a data difference is not caused only by random sampling fluctuations, and its size is important to the business decision maker, it is said to have ________. A) resistance level of the statistic B) statistical significance level C) substantive significance level D) reasonable doubt E) practical significance level

56)

The region of acceptance and the region of rejection are determined by the ________. A) resistance level of the statistic B) statistical significance level C) substantive significance level D) reasonable doubt E) practical significance level

57)

Which of the following about hypothesis testing is not true?

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A) A process that involves inferential statistics B) A process of proving that an unsupported assumption about the relationship between two variables is valid C) A process that involves parametric and/or nonparametric tests D) A process that tests all differences between groups exactly the same, regardless of level of data in measurement E) All the above are true.

58) In a study of more than 10,000 sport game attendees, the null hypothesis is: "Sport season ticket holders will be no more likely to purchase fan apparel than will occasional game attendees." If we test only for the probability on the "greater than" side, we should conduct a ________. A) one-tailed test B) two-tailed test

59) A study of more than 20,000 mothers of newborns revealed a 10% greater likelihood of purchasing product A by mothers of boys verses mothers of girls. The hypothesis "Mothers of boys will be more likely to purchase product A than will mothers of girls" is the alternative hypothesis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

60) If we rejected the null hypothesis, we found a statistically difference significant between groups on a variable during hypothesis testing. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 14_14e_TB 5) C 6) B 7) A 8) C 9) C 10) B 11) A 12) A 13) D 14) A 15) C 16) A 17) E 18) A 19) C 20) D 21) A 22) D 23) D 24) C 25) A 26) B 27) B 28) D 29) A 30) A Version 1

31) B 32) B 33) C 34) D 35) D 36) D 37) A 38) C 39) C 40) B 41) D 42) E 43) C 44) B 45) C 46) E 47) D 48) C 49) D 50) A 51) C 52) D 53) C 54) A 55) E 56) B 57) D 58) A 59) TRUE 60) TRUE Version 1

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CHAPTER 15 1)

Explain how a researcher should interpret a correlation coefficient.

Briefly explain how a researcher can benefit from using scatterplots.

3) What are the assumptions made by the regression model in estimating the parameters and in significance testing?

Briefly explain how an analyst should interpret the r2 value in a regression analysis.

Which of the following hypotheses is best examined with a correlation analysis?

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A) Men differ from women on average yearly clothing expenditures. B) Income level is related to average yearly clothing expenditures. C) Clothing expenditures are higher in northern states and lower in southern and southwestern states. D) Income, geographic location, and gender are predictive of yearly clothing expenditures. E) More retail clothing stores are located in the northeast than in the southwest.

6) The ________ is a statistic summarizing the strength of association between two continuous variables. A) regression analysis B) partial correlation coefficient C) ANOVA D) Pearson's (product moment) correlation coefficient E) gamma

7) Which of the following is true of the association between brand loyalty and attitude toward the brand if the Pearson's product moment correlation coefficient between brand loyalty and attitude toward the brand is .65 with a p value of .01? A) As brand loyalty increases, attitude toward the brand increases. B) There is a moderately strong relationship between the two variables. C) The relationship can be attributed to more than simply random fluctuations. D) There is a linear relationship between the two variables. E) All of the above are correct.

What does the sign of the correlation coefficient signify?

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A) The magnitude of the relationship B) The significance of the relationship C) The importance of the relationship D) The direction of the relationship E) The p value associated with the relationship

9) The ________ measures the association between two variables after controlling or adjusting for the effects of one or more additional variables. A) regression analysis B) partial correlation C) ANOVA D) product moment correlation E) gamma

10) Bill wants to write the equation that demonstrates the model for explaining midlife crisis. He is using optimism, locus of control, income, and years since completing college as explanatory variables. Which of the following equations is most appropriate? A) B) Y =β0 +β1 +Xi C) Yi =β0 +β1X1 +β2X2 +β3X3 + X4 + ei D) E) None of the above is correct.

11) The question of "How strongly are sales related to price when the effect of brand loyalty is controlled?" is best answered using ________.

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A) regression analysis B) partial correlation C) ANOVA D) product moment correlation E) gamma

12)

Which of the following is a measure of association for noncontinuous data? A) Pearson product moment correlation B) Bivariate linear regression C) Kendall's tau D) Partial correlation E) All of the above are correct.

13) The assumption that data can be described by a straight line passing through the data array is called ________. A) resistance B) normality C) significance D) linearity E) association

14)

Which of the following is possible when r = 0?

A) No pattern is evident that can be described with a single line. B) Variables are related, but the relationship is nonlinear. C) The pattern is linear such that a straight line passes through the data array. D) The pattern is three-dimensional. E) No pattern is evident that can be described with a single line, and variables are related, but the relationship is nonlinear.

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15)

What does r2 measure? A) The proportion of variation in one variable that is explained by the other B) The proportion of error variation C) The proportion of variation inY related to the variation of the categories ofX D) The proportion of variation inY due to the variation within each of the categories of X E) The significance of the relationship betweenX andY

16) The issue of ________ is reflected in the correlation between the number of sunny days in the year and the gains in the New York Stock Exchange. A) statistical significance B) practical significance C) covariance D) error E) artifact correlations

17)

What is the meaning of a significant correlation coefficient? A) It reflects the probability of the relationship occurring in the population. B) It reflects the magnitude of the relationship. C) It reflects the direction of the relationship. D) It reflects the importance of the finding. E) It refers to the meaningfulness of the result.

18) It is possible for a correlation coefficient of .12 to be statistically significant when ________.

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A) the variables have a positive covariance B) the variables have a negative covariance C) the sample is large D) the sample is small E) it is meaningful

19)

Which of the following questions would be best answered using simple regression?

A) Are consumers' perceptions of quality related to their perceptions of prices when the effect of brand image is controlled? B) Can the variation in market share be accounted for by the size of the sales force? C) Do retailers, wholesalers, and agents differ in their attitudes toward the firm's distribution policies? D) How do advertising levels (high, medium, and low) interact with price levels (high, medium, and low) to influence brand sales? E) What factors can be thought of as being related to service quality as opposed to product satisfaction?

20)

Regression analysis seeks to ________. A) predictY usingX values B) evaluate differences betweenX andY C) determine whetherX andY are part of the same construct D) determine whether the means ofX andY are significantly different E) All of the above are correct.

21)

Which of the following is true of the intercept, β0?

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A) It is the value of the dependent variable. B) It is the change inY for a 1-unit change inX. C) It is the estimate ofX whenY = 0. D) It is the estimate ofY when X = 0. E) It is also called the rise over run.

22)

The ________ is the change in Y for a 1-unit change in X. A) regression coefficient B) slope C) intercept D) constant E) error term

23) Which statement is not true about the constant b in the bivariate regression equation Yi= a + bXi? A) It is usually referred to as the nonstandardized regression coefficient. B) It indicates the expected change inY whenX is changed by one unit. C) It is the intercept of the regression line. D) It indicates the value ofX whenY is zero. E) It may be computed asb =COVxy/Sx2.

24) In a regression analysis, the actual values of Y may be found above or below the regression line. These deviations are called the ________. A) standard deviation B) error term C) variance D) standard error of the mean E) slope

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25) In bivariate regression, which statement is true concerning the coefficient of determination, r2? A) r2 is the square of the simple correlation coefficient obtained by correlating the two variables. B) r2 varies between 0 and 1. C) r2 signifies the proportion of the total variation inY accounted for by the variation inX. D) All of the above are correct. E) None of the above is correct.

26)

Which procedure for finding a regression line keeps errors of estimate to a minimum? A) Method of least squares B) Elaboration likelihood method C) General linear model D) Goodness of fit E) Standardized residual effect

27) Which term below refers to the difference between the regression line value of Y and the real Y value? A) Least squares B) Variance C) Residual D) Error E) Slope

28) To estimate the accuracy of predicted values, Y, found in bivariate regression, it is useful to calculate the ________, that is, the standard deviation of the actual Y values for the predicted Y values.

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A) coefficient of determination B) standard error of estimate C) covariance D) standard error E) sum of squares

29)

What measure supports how well the regression equation is able to predict Y? A) F test B) Goodness of fit C) R2 D) Alpha E) p value

30) Which of the following measures is used to assess the strength of relationships between nominal measures in cross-tabulation tables? A) Nonparametric measures of association B) Parametric measures of association C) ANOVA D) Regression E) R-test

31) Statistics used to assess the strength of relationships for nominal data may be sensitive to all of the following except the ________. A) table shape B) number of cells in the table C) type of sample D) sample size E) marginals

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32)

Which of the following is true of relationships among nominal measures? A) When there is no relationship at all, the coefficient should be 1. B) When there is no relationship at all, the coefficient should be 0. C) When there is complete dependency, the coefficient should be negative. D) When there is complete dependency, the coefficient should be positive. E) None of the above is correct.

33) Which of the following measures is not used as a measure of association for nominal, nonparametric variables? A) Chi-square B) Phi C) Cramer's V D) Contingency coefficient C E) Z score

34) Which measure of association for nominal variables attempts to correct χ2 proportionately to N? A) Phi B) Cramer's V C) Contingency coefficient C D) F ratio E) Scheffe's S

35)

What size of cross-tabulation table is best for applying phi?

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A) 2 × 2 B) 2 × 3 C) 3 × 3 D) 3 × 4 E) Any size

36) Which of the following measures is used to detect the strength of a relationship between nominal variables? A) Z score B) t-test C) χ2 D) r2 E) β

37) When a researcher needs a correction to chi-square appropriate for large tables, ________ is an appropriate measure. A) Cramer's V B) r2 C) Ø D) λ E) β

38)

The primary advantage of the contingency coefficient C is ________.

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A) it can only be used on 2 × 2 tables B) that it can accommodate skewed data C) it is comparable to phi D) it replaced chi-square E) it is asymmetrical

39)

Proportional reduction in error statistics are used with ________. A) interval data B) ratio data C) regression analysis D) contingency tables E) All of the above are correct.

40) Which statistic below is a measure of how well the frequencies of one nominal variable predict the frequencies of another variable? A) Cramer's V B) r2 C) Ø D) λ E) β

41) Which statistic below is a measure of association that uses table marginals to reduce prediction errors?

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A) τ B) r2 C) Ø D) λ E) β

42) Which of the following statistics is not based on the concept of concordant and discordant pairs? A) Kendall's tau b B) Somers's d C) Kendall's tau c D) Gamma E) Spearman's rho

43) When a participant who ranks one variable higher also ranks higher on the other variable, the pairs of observations are said to be ________. A) correlated B) causal C) concordant D) discordant E) ordinal

44) When concordant pairs exceed discordant pairs in a P-Q relationship, Kendall's tau b reports a(n) ________ association between the variables under study.

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A) inverse B) positive C) negative D) weak E) strong

45) When discordant pairs exceed concordant pairs in a P-Q relationship, Kendall's tau reports a(n) ________ association between the variables under study. A) inverse B) positive C) negative D) weak E) strong

46) When the number of discordant pairs and concordant pairs in a P-Q relationship is equal, the interpretation is that the variables ________. A) are perfectly correlated B) have a weak but significant relationship C) are normally distributed D) have no relationship E) have a negative association

47)

Which of the following symbols is used to reflect Goodman and Kruskal's gamma?

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A) r2 B) γ C) β D) λ E) Ø

48)

Which of the following symbols is used to reflect the measure, lambda? A) τ B) γ C) Ø D) λ E) β

49) Which ordinal measure is a statistic that compares concordant and discordant pairs and then standardizes the outcome by maximizing the value of the denominator? A) τ B) γ C) Ø D) λ E) β

50) Which ordinal measure is a refinement of gamma for ordinal data that considers "tied" pairs?

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A) τb B) γ C) Ø D) λ E) β

51) A ________ occurs when participants have the same value of the X variable, of the Y variable, or of both. A) correlation B) resistant statistic C) tied pair D) proportional reduction in error E) positive relationship

52)

For a given sample size, how many pairs of observations will be present? A) n(n − 1)/2 B) n/2 C) (n − 2)/(2 +n) D) (P −Q)/(P +Q) E) None of the above is correct.

53) Which of the following ordinal measures is a measure of association that compensates for tied ranks and adjusts for direction of the independent variable?

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A) Kendall's tau b B) Gamma C) Phi D) Lambda E) Somers's d

54)

What type of measure is Spearman's rho? A) Chi-square statistic B) Correlation coefficient C) Measure of variance D) Measure of error E) Measure of skewness

55) When we take the observed values of X to estimate or predict corresponding Y values, the process is called ________. A) chi-square statistic B) simple prediction C) multiple regression D) proportional reduction in error E) prediction and confidence bands

56) A visual depiction of the interaction of two variables showing both direction and shape of the relationship is called ________. A) a chi-square statistic B) a scatterplot C) a box plot D) a positive correlation E) a negative correlation

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57)

Zero slopes result when ________. A) Y is completely unrelated to X, and no systematic pattern is evident B) there are constant values ofY for every value ofX C) the data are related but represented by a nonlinear function D) All of the above are correct. E) None of the above is correct.

58)

Artifact correlations describe a situation ________.

A) to be welcomed B) where correlation calculations for two separate subsets of the data show correlation differences that are masked by combining the data C) where the data are related but represented by a nonlinear function D) All of the above are correct. E) None of the above is correct.

59) Which of the following correlation elements measures the strength of a relationship between variables? A) error term B) direction C) prediction band D) magnitude E) None of the above is correct.

60) Which of the following correlation elements indicates whether variables move in unison or opposition?

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A) error term B) direction C) prediction band D) magnitude E) None of the above is correct.

61) Bivariate correlation analysis addresses a correlation of two continuous variables measured on an ordinal or nominal scale. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 15_14e_TB 5) B 6) D 7) E 8) D 9) B 10) C 11) B 12) C 13) D 14) E 15) A 16) B 17) A 18) C 19) B 20) A 21) D 22) B 23) C 24) B 25) D 26) A 27) C 28) B 29) B 30) A Version 1

31) C 32) B 33) E 34) A 35) A 36) C 37) A 38) B 39) D 40) D 41) A 42) E 43) C 44) B 45) C 46) D 47) B 48) D 49) B 50) A 51) C 52) A 53) E 54) B 55) B 56) B 57) D 58) B 59) D 60) B Version 1

61) FALSE

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CHAPTER 16 1) Provide some advice for an inexperienced speaker who is preparing to make an oral report.

2) What are three ways to keep your audience from disengaging during an oral research report?

Describe four of the seven supporting materials for oral reports listed in the chapter.

4) Describe the most important aspects of audience analysis in the planning phase of creating your oral report.

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Provide some advice for a person writing a short management research report.

All of the following are contained in a research report except ________. A) information B) insights C) raw data D) conclusions E) All of the above are part of a written research report.

7) Which of the following report-planning structures is more likely to result in recommendation implementation? A) Data-centric B) Audience-centric C) Insight-centric D) Objective-centric E) Needs-centric

8) When a research report is focused on getting the audience to embrace recommendations, it will emphasize which of the following?

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A) Data B) Information C) Insights D) Actionable insights E) Graphs

9) "Who will I be addressing?" and "Why should my listeners really care about the information I present?" are two questions that are ________. A) key for developing the logos for your oral report B) addressed in audience analysis C) primary considerations for delivering Web oral reports D) desirable for recall at the beginning of the oral report (recency effect) E) ways of adapting to auditory learners

10) Several psychological principles have important implications for oral research reports. Which of the following is true? A) An audience member comes to the oral report with past knowledge of the speaker's topic and will judge the oral report based on selective perception. B) An audience member comes to the oral report with limited knowledge of the topic and will remain open-minded throughout the oral report. C) Each audience member organizes his or her unique construct of the content presented, which is unrelated to listener experience and openness to change. D) There is no need for the research presenter to attempt to construct imaginatively how the audience will interpret the message because it is impossible to know in advance. E) All of the above are correct.

11) The ultimate success of an oral research report depends on the speaker's ability to ________.

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A) know why listeners should really care about the information presented B) understand the demographic and dispositional audience characteristics C) anticipate audience response D) know the needs of key audience members either through informal or formal advance conversations or feedback E) All of the above are correct.

12) Noted presenter and author Nancy Duarte reminds us of the need to treat your audience as your first priority. She states, "They didn't come to your oral report to see you. They came to find out what you can do for them." This means that you should ________. A) give your audience a reason for taking their time B) provide content that resonates with your audience C) ensure that it is clear what you want your audience to do D) All of the above are correct. E) None of the above is correct.

13) If an audience member searches a report for information that supports what he or she currently believes, they demonstrate ________. A) confirmation bias B) anchoring bias C) conformity bias D) survivorship bias E) loss-aversion bias

14) If an audience member rejects an insight because he or she was convinced by a person they respect who rejected the insight and its recommendation, they demonstrate ________.

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A) confirmation bias B) anchoring bias C) conformity bias D) survivorship bias E) loss-aversion bias

15) If an audience member reacts negatively to a recommendation because the report phrased it negatively, they demonstrate ________. A) confirmation bias B) anchoring bias C) conformity bias D) survivorship bias E) loss-aversion bias

16)

Which of the following answers the question, "Who will receive the research report?" A) Audience composition B) Audience knowledge of the research question C) Audience predispositions about research topic D) How audience members will be affected by recommendations E) All of the above are correct.

17) Which of the following aspects of audience analysis reveals the answer to the question, "Who is likely to reject or embrace a recommendation?" A) Audience composition B) Audience knowledge of the research question C) Audience predispositions about research topic D) How audience members will be affected by recommendations E) All of the above are correct.

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18) Which if the following is most likely to negatively influence achieving the desired audience effect. A) loss-aversion bias B) audience-centric planning C) comprehensive audience analysis D) written-only report structure E) None of the above will negatively influence achieving the desired audience effect.

19) Which report structure allows for the greatest flexibility given the nature of research results? A) Oral only B) Written only C) Oral plus written D) Oral only and oral plus written E) All of the above are correct.

20) When preparing for an audience of researchers, which type of written report should be used? A) Informal B) Technical C) Management D) Informational E) Infographic

21)

Long reports written for the client are types of written ________ reports.

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A) formal B) informal C) memorandum D) management E) technical

22) Information such as the title of the report, name of the researcher or organization conducting the research, the name of the client and the date of release should appear on/in the ________ of a written research report. A) title page B) background C) letter of authorization D) executive summary E) introduction

23) Jacob is writing a report on a study of how store traffic changes among senior citizens in Florida based on the weather. Which title below is most appropriate? A) An investigation into the effects of weather on store traffic among senior citizens in Florida B) Store traffic and weather effects C) Driving patterns among seniors in Florida D) The weather effect E) State-based investigation of weather and store traffic

24) All of the following components should be included in the title of a written research report except ________.

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A) study variables B) type of relationship studied C) population of interest D) time frame of the research E) All of the above should be included.

25) The most comprehensive discussion of the methodology used in the study will appear in a ________ research report. A) short management B) infographic C) short technical D) long management E) long technical

26) What report component refers to a concise summary of the major findings, conclusions, and recommendations in a written report? A) Authorization letter B) Letter of transmittal C) Introduction D) Executive summary E) Abstract

27) How many pages are typically needed to adequately report the required components of an executive summary?

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A) One page B) Two pages C) Three pages D) Ten pages E) It depends on the report

28)

Which type of written research report contains all possible report modules? A) Short memo B) Short letter C) Long technical D) Short technical E) Long management

29)

Which of the following written research reports should have a table of contents? A) Informational report of five pages B) Letter of transmittal C) Management report of five pages D) Technical report of 25 pages E) All reports should have a table of contents.

30) A list of tables, list of graphs, list of appendices, and list of exhibits are found in which report component of the business research written report? A) Table of contents B) Letter of transmittal C) Letter of authorization D) Executive summary E) Introduction

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31) Which report component contains a clear statement of the management question and the business research problem? A) Approach B) Problem statement C) Background D) Table of contents E) Methodology

32) Which report component of a written technical report includes discussion of sampling design, research design, and data collection procedures? A) Introduction B) Background C) Methodology D) Appendix E) Findings

33) The target population being studied and the methods for selecting participants are all part of the ________ section of the methodology portion of a written research report. A) research design B) data collection C) findings D) introduction E) sampling design

34) Where are copies of materials such as the survey instrument and consent forms placed in a written research report?

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A) Introduction B) Immediately following the table of contents C) In an appendix D) In the methodology section E) These are not included in a report.

35)

Which report component describes how data were handled and the statistical tests used? A) Methodology B) Introduction C) Findings D) Limitations E) Appendix

36)

Which report component is generally the longest? A) Introduction B) Methodology C) Findings D) Executive Summary E) Appendix

37) Which question below best guides what should be included in the findings section of a written research report? A) Is the material important to understanding the problem, insights, and recommendations? B) What statistical techniques were used to determine the findings? C) How does the finding relate to the hypothesis? D) Who is reading the report? E) What are the limitations of the findings?

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38) In what report component of a written research report are complex tables, statistical tests, and supporting documents placed? A) Introduction B) Findings C) Methodology D) Recommendations E) Appendix

39)

Which of the following is true about research limitations?

A) Limitations affect the interpretations of information and should be revealed. B) Limitations section of a report does not include how the researcher corrected for errors in research design. C) Limitations are discovered before the data is collected. D) The process of revealing limitations in a report influences pathos. E) None of the above is true about limitations.

40) Which of the following is not an advantage of an infographic report format that reduces the information report to information that addresses, the research objectives? A) Reduces the information report to information that addresses the primary research objectives B) Addresses the time pressures of the managerial audience C) Sharable D) Less memorable E) All of the above are correct.

41)

What is the motivated sequence report framework for report organization?

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A) It organizes using time sequences as a framework, for example, when each research activity (focus group, survey, experiment) occurred. B) It organizes using the sequence of ideas that, by following the normal processes of human thinking, motivates an audience to respond to the speaker's purpose. C) First part describes the cause of a problem, the second describes its effect, and the third presents a solution. D) Material is organized from the least important information to the most important. E) Benefits and disadvantages are discussed as well as how the benefits are superior.

42) Some research companies use templates that can be modified for specific research reports. When multiple reports are made to the same audience of managers using such a template approach, oral reports ________. A) may fail to hold attention and communicate persuasively B) will be greeted enthusiastically by typical managers C) will meet the requirements of planning in analog D) will meet the requirements for audience analysis

43) Research presenters are not just data presenters but must convince research sponsors to act. In building a research report, if a researcher puts the most important argument at the beginning of their recommendations, they are relying on ________ in building their oral report's organization. A) recency effect B) believability C) credibility D) primacy effect E) contrast

44)

Which report framework orders findings based on the most impact on the audience?

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A) Research brief B) Topical C) Narrative D) Classification E) Motivated sequence

45) Which report framework orders findings based on the importance of the finding, with the most important appearing last. A) Problem/solution B) Climax order C) Chronological D) Present/past/future E) Cause/effect/solution

46) Which of the following elements is useful in a written report for clarifying text that is difficult to understand? A) Use of headings B) Use of ample whitespace C) Use of visuals D) Use of well-known vocabulary terms E) Use italics

47) Which findings presentation style is most common in a written report when there are only a few statistics?

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A) Words/Text B) Tables C) Graphs D) All of the above are correct. E) None of the above is correct.

48)

According to a recent poll on the Prevention magazine Website:

"Most people (56%) reported that even though they are overweight, their doctor never discusses the role of weight in leading a healthy life. Only 14% indicated that it was not an issue because they are already in good shape." The Prevention magazine survey results are provided using ________ to present the statistics. A) words/text B) numbered list C) table D) graphs E) bullet list

49) According to a recent poll on the Prevention magazine Website: • 56% reported that their doctor never discusses weight. • 30% indicated that their doctor discussed weight issues but only if they brought the topic up first. • 14% reported that weight is not an issue for them. The Prevention magazine survey report is using which findings presentation style for information? A) words/text B) numbered list C) table D) graph E) allegory

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50) Which findings-presenting style in a written report is best for enhancing comprehension and providing adequate information? A) Words/Text B) Numbered list C) Tables D) Graphics E) Bullet list

51)

Which findings-presentation style in a written report is best for making comparisons? A) Words/Text B) Numbered list C) Tables D) Graphs E) Bullet list

52) A graphing technique used for time series and frequency distributions over time is called a ________. A) boxplot B) bar graph C) pie graph D) line graph E) Pareto diagram

53)

What type of graph uses symbols or images rather than bars to represent frequency data?

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A) Line graph B) Pie graph C) Area graph D) Pictograph E) Map

54) In a written research report, if you were restricted to the choices below, which type of graph would be better for depicting components, the entirety, or frequencies of a single variable? A) Bubble graph B) Pie graph C) Area graph D) Stacked Pie E) Geographic map or graph

55) In a written research report, if you were restricted to the choices below, which type of graph would be better for depicting clearly the relationship between two variables? A) Simple pie graph B) Simple column graph C) Column with line graph D) Pictograph E) None of the above is correct.

56)

Bar graphs differ from column graphs in that ________. A) bar graphs are better when data labels must be longer B) the frequencies are represented vertically in bar graphs C) only bar graphs can present both negative and positive changes D) bar graphs offer more easily seen comparisons between variables E) None of the above is correct.

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57) Which of the following graph or graph types offer a danger of obscuring rather than clarifying data? A) Bar graphs B) Three-dimensional surface line graphs C) Column graphs D) Exploding pie graph E) Scatter plot

58) All of the following have a greater opportunity to obscure rather than clarify data except a ________. A) Three-dimensional surface line graph B) Multiple line graph C) Spider (Radar) graph D) Column graph E) Column with line graph

59) The basis of persuasion was defined by Aristotle with his three principles of proof. They are ________. A) logos, pathos, and ethos B) logos, enthymeme, and forensic C) forensic, deliberative, and epideictic D) dialectic, rhetoric, and ethos E) None of the above is correct.

60) Our perception of a presenter's character affects how believable or convincing we find that person. The projection of credibility via personal character is the researcher's ________.

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A) logos B) pathos C) epideictic D) ethos E) peithos

61)

Which of Aristotle's types of proof makes an appeal to the audience's self-interest? A) Ethos B) Pathos C) Egos D) Logos E) Peithos

62)

What are the three types of learners? A) Learners in small, large, and research oral report audiences B) Visual, auditory, and media-savvy C) Rule of thirds-type learners D) Visual, auditory, and kinesthetic

63)

Which type of support material is appropriate for both kinesthetic and visual learners? A) Facts and statistics B) Story C) Demonstration D) Testimony/expert opinion E) Analogy/metaphor

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64)

In a research oral report, a support material known as "analogy" is defined as ________. A) a critical incident selected to prove an overarching claim; brief rather than detailed

stories B) numerical data used in the collection, analysis, and interpretation of data, but also found in data collection planning C) a comparison between two different things to highlight a point of similarity; not offered as conclusive proof for an argument, but may be useful to clarify the argument or presenter's position D) an implicit comparison between two unlike things that actually have something important in common; expresses the unfamiliar in terms of the familiar, achieving its effect via association, comparison, and resemblance E) verifiable data about situations that exist or events that are known to have occurred; often involving statistical data

65)

A type of support material in a research oral report that enhances ethos is ________. A) testimony/Expert opinion B) statistics C) specific instance D) metaphor E) graph

66)

Stories are a strong form of support material. Which is a principle of a good story? A) Order stories in your narrative based on audience impact. B) Stories must be grounded in the research data. C) Use audience analysis to match the story to your audience and topic. D) Use stories with a successful outcome to address survivorship bias. E) All of the above are correct.

67)

The research literature on oral research frameworks ________.

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A) recommends the narrative pattern as the superior report framework B) does not support the conclusion of one overall superior report framework C) provides experimental research for the use of trios, triplets, or triads D) recommends the chronological report framework E) recommends the motivated sequence report framework

68)

Which of the following statements about data data visualization is not true?

A) Visuals are fundamental to business research oral reports. B) Data visualization involves developing and organizing support materials that help the audience share in your understanding of the data. C) The composition and knowledge of the audience, the venue, and amount of time all influence choices in data data visualization. D) Twenty percent of the information humans receive comes through their eyes. For research oral reports, this number is slightly higher. E) Oral reports constructed solely as PowerPoint slides result in the presenter supplying the verbal content of a document ineffectually because the audience reads faster than the researcher can speak.

69)

Which of the following describes how pathos is established in a research report?

A) By collecting past impressions from prior associations B) Interviewing critical members of the intended audience C) Surveying a sample of the invitees regarding agreement with a series of statements about issues D) Discovering demographic and dispositional audience characteristics E) All of the above are correct.

70)

Facts as support material are ________.

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A) verifiable data about situations that exist or events that are known to have occurred B) a critical incident selected to prove an overarching claim C) a single instance used to clarify a complex concept D) a comparison between two different things to highlight a point of similarity E) a foundation of pathos

71)

Which of the following is not true about stories as support material?

A) Stories tell the particulars of an act or occurrence or course of events. B) Describing your experience with the research study lends a real-life impression that cannot be achieved through facts or statistics. C) Stories are most powerful when they do not involve personal experience. D) A good story must be persuasive, engaging, or memorable.

72)

A demonstration as a support material ________. A) establishes logos, ethos, and pathos B) is essential in research oral reports to facilitate understanding of statistics C) creates a natural, emotional response D) involves the audience in an experience or activity to clarify a finding

73)

Which psychological principle should influence data visualization in a research report?

A) The audience's inability to process large amounts of information at one time should reduce the complexity of your support. B) It is not critical for your oral report to convey what is new or a change with a separate slide or handout. C) Unfamiliar data visualization techniques should be used. D) Your audience will not automatically group items together, even if you give them such groupings.

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74) The support material design principle of whitespace means that the presenter should ________. A) reduce ideas to their most simplistic to stick them in the minds of the audience B) conceptualize the visual support materials on paper before composing the digital versions C) leave empty space surrounding important key visuals and text D) use the photographers tool (the rule of thirds), that is, compose visuals with real or imaginary cross-hairs that divide the visual field

75)

Support materials are important in an oral research report because ________.

A) recall that accuracy varies as a function of an item's position on a list or an argument's sequence B) the motivated sequence produces superior immediate recall though sight data visualization C) about 40 percent of us are visual learners D) the narrative pattern of organization results in significantly favorable attitudes toward the oral report through visuals

76) Statistics are numerical information useful and expected in oral research reports. Which of the following statements about the use of statistics is true? A) To be a credible source of support, the listener needs to know if a statistic is valid and reliable, used correctly, properly interpreted, and relevant to the point. B) Statistics used in abundance have little effect on audience fatigue. C) Visuals are essential in research oral reports to facilitate understanding of statistics. D) All of the above are correct. E) All but the effect of large amounts of statistics on audience fatigue are correct.

77)

Which of the following principles related to clarity in design of support materials is true?

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A) Smaller elements will be perceived to be more important than larger ones. B) Larger elements will be perceived to be more important than smaller ones. C) More bullet points improve understanding. D) A bar graph overlaid with a line graph is easy to interpret as a simple bar chart. E) None of the above is correct.

78)

A ________ uses a single instance to clarify a complex concept. A) story B) demonstration C) fact D) flow aid

79)

Using a metaphor as support material enhances a research report's ________. A) relevancy B) believability C) balance D) clarity E) detail

80) Sara decides to build audio sound clips of some participant's answers into her final oral research report. This is called ________, and it enhances the oral report's ________. A) example; ethos B) testimony; pathos C) example; pathos D) testimony; ethos E) testimony; logos

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81)

The choice of visual support material is affected by ________. A) intended purpose B) size of the audience C) meeting room conditions D) budget constraints E) All of the above are correct.

82) If you are restricted to the following choices and you want a graph to display total frequency, group frequency, and changes over time, you would choose a(n) ________. A) area graph B) pie graph C) bar graph D) geograph E) bullet bar graph

83) Which of the following data visualization techniques is likely to have the biggest problem achieving data clarity with a nontechnical audience? A) Area graph B) Pie graph C) Bar graph D) Geograph E) Bullet bar graph

84) The heuristic that the research report must stay within time and page limits deals with which characteristic for better support materials?

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A) Balanced B) Variety C) Style D) Spatial

85) Which audience-learning style supports the inclusion of testimonials in the research report? A) Visual learner B) Auditory learner C) Audible learner D) Kinesthetic learner E) Tactile learner

86) Which type of support material enhances the credibility of a topic or insight in a research report? A) Facts and statistics B) Story C) Demonstration D) Testimony/expert opinion E) Analogy/metaphor

87)

Which findings presentation style is built from cross-tabulated data? A) Words B) Tables C) Graphs D) Words and graphs E) Tables and graphs

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88) The heuristic that the researcher provide different types of support materials deals with which characteristic for better support materials? A) Balanced B) Variety C) Style D) Spatial E) Speaker specific

89) In editing the final version of a written report, you should do each of the following except ________. A) simplify complex or jargon filled sentences B) use shorter paragraphs C) organize text with meaningful headings D) put multiple, complex graphs on the same page E) use color consistency to enhance meaning

90)

When making an oral research report, the speaker should ________. A) vary the volume, pitch, voice quality, articulation, and pace of speaking B) memorize the speech C) begin with recommendations D) be comfortable enough with the material to "wing it" E) speak quickly

91)

A tendency presenters should avoid during an oral research report is to ________.

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A) turn their back on the audience to read from a slide B) maintain good eye contact C) vary the volume and rate of speech D) distribute a handout when ready to refer to it E) All of the above are correct.

92)

Which of the following is true about jargon and clutter in a research oral report?

A) Using jargon is a not a danger in delivery of a research report where your audience has knowledge of the techniques of research or statistical analysis. B) Clutter in speech includes repetition of fillers such as "ah," "um," "you know," "like," "basically," or "exactly" and reduces speaker credibility. C) Jargon does not add clumsy language and is not ultimately confusing. D) Jargon is language specific only to research and is considered meaningless and generally unintelligible to people outside of the researcher group.

93)

Four admonitions essential for oral research reports include ________.

A) avoid keeping your hands at your sides, being animated and lively, leaning forward, and slow speaking rates B) use statistics, testimony, expert opinion, and narration format C) be conscious of eye contact, gestures, body orientation, and paralanguage D) develop your logical proof around facts, examples, specific instances, and pathos

94)

A flow aid is used in research oral reports ________. A) to advance a story B) to plan an oral research report C) to serve as an example D) to establish associations or correlations between key findings E) None of the above is correct.

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95) Which of the following refers to the word choice and manner of expression used in a research report? A) Report's research scope B) Report's tone C) Report's pace D) Report's clarity E) Report's simplicity

96) Which of the following refers to restricting content of a research report to only the topics and variables studied? A) Report's research scope B) Report's tone C) Report's pace D) Report's clarity E) Report's simplicity

97) Which aspect of content and style in a research report has to do with actually preparing report pages and presentation slides? A) Organize B) Visualize C) Compile D) Practice E) Deliver

98) The report heuristics a pause in an oral report is like whitespace in a written report influences which aspect of a report's content and style?

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A) Organize B) Visualize C) Compile D) Practice

99) If a research sponsor is worried about competitors discovering the results of the research before the company can implement changes, it is worried about what ethical issue? A) Right to quality research B) Right to participant confidentiality C) Right to absence of sponsor deception D) Right to findings nondisclosure E) Right to purpose nondisclosure

100) A researcher who obtains written signed consent from a participant prior to using a video in her or his oral report is interested in the ethical ________. A) right to quality research B) right to participant confidentiality C) right to absence of sponsor deception D) right to findings nondisclosure E) right to purpose nondisclosure

101) A formal audience analysis involves surveying audience members before the research report is developed. ⊚ true ⊚ false

102)

You need only achieve logos for an effective research report.

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⊚ ⊚

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true false

Answer Key Test name: Chap 16_14e_TB 6) C 7) B 8) D 9) B 10) A 11) E 12) D 13) A 14) C 15) E 16) A 17) C 18) D 19) C 20) B 21) D 22) A 23) A 24) D 25) E 26) D 27) B 28) C 29) D 30) A 31) B Version 1

32) C 33) E 34) C 35) A 36) C 37) A 38) E 39) A 40) D 41) B 42) A 43) D 44) C 45) B 46) C 47) A 48) A 49) A 50) C 51) D 52) D 53) D 54) B 55) C 56) A 57) B 58) D 59) A 60) D 61) B Version 1

62) D 63) C 64) C 65) A 66) E 67) B 68) D 69) E 70) A 71) C 72) D 73) A 74) C 75) C 76) E 77) B 78) A 79) D 80) D 81) E 82) A 83) A 84) D 85) B 86) D 87) E 88) B 89) D 90) A 91) A Version 1

92) B 93) C 94) E 95) B 96) A 97) C 98) D 99) D 100) B 101) FALSE 102) FALSE

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