CHAPTER 1 1) Summarize the three approaches (structuralism, functionalism, evolutionary approach) that shaped the history of psychology.
2)
Compare and contrast the behavioral and psychodynamic approaches to psychology.
3)
Explain the cognitive approach to psychology.
4) Summarize the seven contemporary approaches to psychology with the help of a suitable example.
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5)
Summarize the five steps of the scientific method.
6) Compare and contrast the three types of research methods (descriptive, correlational, and experimental) used by psychologists.
7) Briefly describe the importance of surveys and interviews as descriptive research methods.
8) Your local newspaper publishes the result of a current scientific study that shows exercise is positively correlated with happiness. The correlation coefficient is +.72. Interpret what this result means.
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9)
Describe the third variable problem with a suitable example.
10) Describe the four issues addressed by the American Psychological Association (APA) ethical guidelines.
11)
According to the science of psychology, a behavior is a(n) A) feeling that is acknowledged. B) attitude that can be changed. C) action that can be directly observed. D) goal for life.
12)
Which of the following is an example of behavior?
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A) thinking of a family vacation B) two people holding hands in a park C) a student's memory of a motorcycle trip D) a baby's feelings when his or her mother leaves the room
13) ________ are the thoughts, feelings, and motives that each of us experiences privately but that cannot be observed directly. A) Mental processes B) Behaviors C) Fetal processes D) Mannerisms
14)
Which of the following attitudes are central to the scientific approach to psychology? A) critical thinking, curiosity, skepticism, and objectivity B) critical thinking, curiosity, skepticism, and subjectivity C) critical thinking, curiosity, political correctness, and objectivity D) critical thinking, curiosity, political correctness, and subjectivity
15)
Which of the following statements about critical thinking is FALSE?
A) Critical thinking is the process of thinking deeply and actively, asking questions, and evaluating the evidence. B) Critical thinking comes into play when scientists consider the conclusions they draw from research. C) Critical thinking increases the likelihood that conclusions will be based on unreliable personal beliefs, opinions, and motions. D) Critical thinkers question and test what some people say are facts.
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16)
Which of the following statements best defines critical thinking in psychology? A) It is the process of accepting observed events as true. B) It is the process of reflecting deeply, asking questions, and evaluating evidence. C) It is a form of thinking intended to create something new and different. D) It is a form of thinking that has been rejected by contemporary psychologists.
17) If research found that the more free time people have the less they get done, such results would best be characterized as A) counterintuitive. B) obvious. C) falsified. D) skeptical.
18) The ________ involves gaining knowledge by observing events, collecting data, and reasoning logically. A) process of debriefing B) empirical method C) biological approach D) process of deception
19)
Which of the following goals of science does the empirical method best fulfill?
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A) expectations B) objectivity C) subjectivity D) political correctness
20)
Psychology began as a science in the discipline of A) philosophy. B) physics. C) chemistry. D) sociology.
21) Which of the following theorists primarily used the structuralism approach to studying human behavior? A) William James B) Wilhelm Wundt C) Charles Darwin D) Sigmund Freud
22) Wilhelm Wundt's approach to discovering the basic elements of mental processes is called A) functionalism. B) structuralism. C) humanism. D) behaviorism.
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23) In which of the following psychological approaches did researchers ask participants to think about what was going on mentally as various events took place? A) behaviorism B) functionalism C) structuralism D) humanism
24) If you were a psychologist who adopted the structuralism approach, you would be interested in the ________ of the mind, using ________ as your primary research method. A) functions; experimentation B) structures; externalization C) functions; retrospection D) structures; introspection
25) Wilhelm Wundt was the founder of ________, whereas William James was the founder of ________. A) structuralism; behaviorism B) behaviorism; functionalism C) functionalism; behaviorism D) structuralism; functionalism
26)
________ is most often regarded the "founding father" of modern psychology.
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A) William James B) Wilhelm Wundt C) Sigmund Freud D) Charles Darwin
27) Which of the following statements correctly differentiates between structuralism and functionalism in early psychology? A) Functionalism focused on the elements of the mind; structuralism focused on the purpose of thoughts. B) Functionalism focused on the purposes of the mind; structuralism focused on the elemental parts of mental processes. C) Functionalism relied on introspection; structuralism relied on a stream of consciousness. D) Functionalism was about the "why" of the mind; structuralism was about the "what" of the mind.
28) William James, a prominent American psychologist and philosopher, focused on human interactions with the outside world to understand the purpose of thoughts. His view is known as A) psychoanalysis. B) behaviorism. C) functionalism. D) structuralism.
29) ________ involves using introspection to investigate the components of the mind, whereas ________ involves the functions or purposes of the mind and behavior in the individual's adaptation to the environment.
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A) Structuralism; functionalism B) Functionalism; structuralism C) Functionalism; psychodynamic theory D) Behaviorism; structuralism
30) Which of the following terms refers to Charles Darwin's principle of an evolutionary process; the process in which organisms that are best adapted to their environment will survive and, importantly, produce offspring? A) natural selection B) replication C) placebo effect D) functionalism
31) Psychologists who adopt a(n) ________ approach examine behavior and mental processes by focusing on the body, especially the brain and nervous system. A) biological B) psychodynamic C) behavioral D) evolutionary
32) Michelle, a researcher, conducts a study to investigate how people's hands sweat during stressful interviews. In this scenario, Michelle is most likely following the ________ to psychology.
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A) behavioral approach B) cognitive approach C) evolutionary approach D) biological approach
33) ________ is the scientific study of the structure, function, development, genetics, and biochemistry of the nervous system. A) Neurokinesis B) Neurohumor C) Neuroscience D) Neuroacanthocytosis
34) Which of the following is true of neuroscience as a contemporary approach to psychology? A) It focuses on natural selection as the method of evolution for any species. B) It focuses on the unconscious elements of behavior, thought, and emotion. C) It emphasizes that behavior can only be understood through direct observation. D) It emphasizes that the brain is central to understanding behavior, thought, and emotion.
35)
Neuroscience studies are based on the ________ approaches to psychology. A) behavioral B) psychodynamic C) biological D) evolutionary
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36) Jake, a researcher, measures the levels of testosterone in adult males who tend to be highly aggressive. He believes hormone levels are the single-most prominent cause of male aggression. In this scenario, Jake is most likely using the ________ approach in his study. A) cognitive B) humanistic C) sociocultural D) biological
37) The ________ approach emphasizes the scientific study of observable actions and/or responses and their environmental determinants. A) environmental B) psychodynamic C) observational D) behavioral
38)
J. B. Watson and B. F. Skinner believed that
A) consciousness should always be investigated through the process of individual introspection. B) psychology should focus on an organism's visible interactions with the environment— that is, behaviors. C) psychology should study both outwardly observed behaviors and inborn mental motivations. D) psychological methods could be developed to study the process of human cognition.
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39) Annette is an adolescent with extreme social anxiety. Dr. Benson's treatment plan for Annette focuses on rewarding her whenever she takes a step toward conquering her fears. In this scenario, Dr. Benson adheres most closely to the ________ approach to psychology. A) cognitive B) behavioral C) psychodynamic D) sociocultural
40) ________ believed that psychology should be about what people do, and should not concern itself with what cannot be seen, such as thoughts, feelings, and goals. A) B. F. Skinner B) Wilhelm Wundt C) Sigmund Freud D) Carl Rogers
41)
Which approach to psychology emphasizes unconscious thought? A) behavioral approach B) sociocultural approach C) psychodynamic approach D) evolutionary approach
42) In his practice, Dr. Wagner stresses the role of unconscious processes and unresolved childhood conflicts that influence an individual's behavior. Dr. Wagner's belief aligns with the ________ approach to psychology.
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A) behavioral B) cognitive C) psychodynamic D) evolutionary
43) During a therapy session, Mrs. Brown's therapist, Donald, asks Mrs. Brown about her dreams because he believes that they are a key to her unconscious mind. In this scenario, Donald is most likely using the ________ approach to psychology. A) behavioral B) cognitive C) sociocultural D) psychodynamic
44) Which of the following statements is true of Sigmund Freud, the founding father of the psychodynamic approach? A) He based his ideas about human nature on random people he saw on the street. B) He believed that most of human behavior was caused by pleasant, conscious impulses trying to be expressed. C) He placed less emphasis on sexual drives and more on cultural or social experiences as determinants of behavior. D) He theorized that early relationships with parents shape an individual's personality.
45) Which of the following statements is true of the practitioners of the psychodynamic approach?
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A) They believe that personality is shaped entirely by genetic factors. B) They believe that sexual and aggressive impulses buried deep within the unconscious mind influence the way people think, feel, and behave. C) They emphasize that psychology should be about what people do and should not concern itself with things that cannot be seen, such as thoughts, feelings, and goals. D) They use evolutionary ideas such as adaptation, reproduction, and natural selection as the basis for explaining specific human behaviors.
46) The ________ approach to psychology views the mind as an active and aware problemsolving system. This view contrasts with the ________ outlook, which portrays actions as controlled by external environmental forces. A) behavioral; cognitive B) cognitive; behavioral C) psychodynamic; humanistic D) humanistic; psychodynamic
47) Which of the following techniques involves an analyst unlocking a person's unconscious conflicts by talking with the individual about his or her childhood memories, dreams, thoughts, and feelings? A) structuralism B) neuroscience C) introspection D) psychoanalysis
48)
Which of the following statements is true of humanistic psychologists?
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A) They stress that people have the ability to control their lives and are not simply controlled by the environment. B) They theorize that people are driven by unconscious impulses, which is similar to what the psychodynamic approach dictates. C) They emphasize that people are motivated by external rewards. D) They focus on people's visible behaviors, not thoughts or feelings.
49) The ________ approach emphasizes a person's positive qualities, the capacity for positive growth, and the freedom to choose one's destiny. A) humanistic B) psychodynamic C) evolutionary D) behavioral
50) The humanistic approach to psychology and the behavioral approach to psychology differ in that the behavioral approach states that humans are driven by A) unconscious impulses, whereas the humanistic approach states that humans are driven by external rewards. B) evolutionary factors, whereas the humanistic approach states that humans are driven by unconscious impulses. C) environmental conditions, whereas the humanistic approach states that humans are driven by free will. D) biological factors, whereas the humanistic approach states that humans are driven by evolutionary factors.
51) According to ________ psychologists, your brain houses a "mind" whose mental processes allow you to remember, make decisions, plan, set goals, and be creative.
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A) psychodynamic B) cognitive C) evolutionary D) humanistic
52) Abe and Carla are psychologists who believe that people have free will and can make choices based on higher human values. Abe and Carla's views reflect the ________ approach to psychology. A) sociocultural B) behavioral C) humanistic D) psychodynamic
53) Amaya, a psychologist, conducts a survey to determine why most people tend to help a crying child. After the survey, she explains that most people help a crying child because they choose to live by higher values such as altruism. In this scenario, Amaya's explanation is reflective of the ________ approach to psychology. A) biological B) behavioral C) humanistic D) psychodynamic
54) Samuel, a psychologist, wants to investigate why people remember their first dates for a lifetime but tend to forget subsequent dates with the same partner. In this scenario, Samuel is most likely a(n)
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A) evolutionary psychologist. B) cognitive psychologist. C) biological psychologist. D) psychodynamic psychologist.
55) Which of the following approaches to psychology focuses on how we direct our attention, perceive, remember, think, and solve problems? A) sociocultural B) behavioral C) cognitive D) psychodynamic
56) Which of the following psychologists would be most likely to conduct research on how a child processes information and solves problems? A) a psychoanalyst B) a cognitive psychologist C) a humanistic psychologist D) a behavioral psychologist
57) The ________ approach to psychology relies on concepts such as adaptation, reproduction, and natural selection as the basis for explaining specific human behaviors. A) humanistic B) psychodynamic C) evolutionary D) behavioral
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58)
According to evolutionary psychologists,
A) human behavior is traceable to problems early humans faced in adapting to their environments. B) sexual and aggressive impulses buried deep within the unconscious mind influence the way people think, feel, and behave. C) people have the ability to control their lives and are not simply controlled by the environment. D) an individual's mental processes are in control of behavior through memories, perceptions, images, and thinking.
59) In the country of Calibria, men prefer to date women with wide hips because they believe that these women are able to reproduce better. This scenario most likely illustrates the ________ to psychology. A) evolutionary approach B) biological approach C) humanistic approach D) cognitive approach
60) Dr. Badal, a psychologist, is studying achievement motivation among groups of African American, Latino, and Asian American people. In this scenario, Dr. Badal is most likely practicing the ________ approach to psychology. A) sociocultural B) biological C) evolutionary D) cognitive
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61)
Which of the following is a criticism of the evolutionary approach to psychology? A) It inaccurately explains why men and women have different social roles. B) It considers the influence of cultural diversity in shaping personalities. C) It deemphasizes the role of environment in human psychology. D) It considers the role of human experience in shaping personalities.
62) A psychologist who studies about the behavioral differences between people from different religions is most likely following the ________ approach to psychology. A) psychodynamic B) cognitive C) humanistic D) sociocultural
63) Phoebe, a psychologist, conducts a study to compare people's behaviors across the countries of Bodonia, Batangonia, and Candaria. In this scenario, Phoebe is most likely a(n) A) cognitive psychologist. B) evolutionary psychologist. C) socioculturalist. D) psychoanalyst.
64) The ______ approach asserts that human behavior is the product of biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors.
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A) biopsychosocial B) cross-cultural C) evolutionary D) biological
65) Dr. Ivanov recognizes that genetics, childhood factors, and socioeconmic status are all significantly influencing her client's behavior. Dr. Ivanov's perspective is best described as A) biopsychosocial. B) cognitive. C) sociocultural. D) evolutionary.
66) What area of specialization in psychology examines how people become who they are, from conception to death, concentrating on biological and environmental factors? A) developmental psychology B) social psychology C) personality psychology D) behavioral neuroscience
67) Dr. Elbadawi is studying the impact of depression on lifestyle behaviors and decisions and how it influences physical well-being. Dr. Elbadwai is most likely a A) health psychologist. B) forensic psychologist. C) social psychologist. D) developmental psychologist.
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68)
Which of the following is the first step in the scientific method? A) testing through empirical research B) observing some phenomenon in the world C) drawing conclusions D) formulating hypotheses and predictions
69)
Which of the following is the second step in the scientific method? A) testing through empirical research B) evaluating conclusions C) drawing conclusions D) formulating hypotheses and predictions
70) A(n) ________ is a broad idea or set of closely related ideas that attempts to explain observations and to make predictions about future observations. A) theory B) hypothesis C) operational definition D) experimental bias
71)
Which of the following statements related to the scientific method is FALSE?
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A) A theory gains credibility when the related hypotheses turn out to be true. B) A hypothesis derives logically from a theory. C) A theory can generate only one hypothesis. D) A hypothesis is a testable prediction.
72)
A scientific theory must be falsifiable, which means that a researcher must A) generate ideas that would prove the theory wrong and test those ideas. B) ensure that the research cannot be replicated by others. C) prove that all other related theories are wrong. D) gather theoretical evidence in support of the theory.
73) Allie has developed a theory concerning test grades of high school students. She believes that there is a strong causal relationship between students' frequency of study and their grades in school. In the context of psychology's scientific method, to test her theory, Allie would first have to state a A) conclusion. B) bias. C) fact. D) hypothesis.
74) ________ provide an objective description of how variables are going to be measured and observed in a particular study. A) Independent variables B) Operational definitions C) External validity checks D) Experimenter biases
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75) After careful observation, Dylan has stated a hypothesis that spending money on other people leads to greater happiness than spending money on oneself. In accordance with the scientific method, which of the following steps is Dylan most likely to take next? A) He will evaluate the results of his experiment. B) He will test the prediction by conducting empirical research. C) He will conclude whether spending money on others can be a strong predictor of happiness. D) He will publish the experimental results in a reputable journal.
76)
A key aspect of the process of testing hypotheses in the scientific method is A) experimenter bias. B) conjecture. C) data analysis. D) psychoanalysis.
77) Tamika hypothesizes that women are more helpful than men, and she decides to conduct an experiment to test her hypothesis. During lunchtime, she goes to the crowded food court and deliberately drops her folder containing papers. She then notes whether the person standing closest to her helps her pick up her papers and whether the person is male or female. What is the operational definition of "helpful" in Tamika's study? A) the gender of the person B) the person asking Tamika if she dropped her notebook C) establishing eye contact D) making an effort to gather the papers
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78) Amelia, a researcher, conducts a study and finds that teenage boys in the country of Bodonia prefer to date older girls and keep their relationships confidential. Michael, Amelia's colleague, tries to reproduce her study to see if he gets the same result. In this scenario, Michael's act illustrates A) deception. B) the principle of confidentiality. C) natural selection. D) replication.
79)
The final step in the scientific method of psychology is A) conducting empirical research. B) formulating predictions. C) evaluating conclusions. D) conducting data analysis.
80)
The goal of ________ research is to determine the basic dimensions of a phenomenon. A) descriptive B) normative C) experimental D) applied
81) Dr. Okawa is interested in studying the effect that neurological trauma can have on shortterm memory. He collects detailed information from a small number of individuals who have experienced brain damage. Using information provided by medical records, interviews, and observations, he attempts to create an in-depth portrait of each individual. What type of research method was used in this study?
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A) case study B) naturalistic observation C) experimental method D) surveys
82) In the context of descriptive research methods in psychology, ________ are performed mainly by clinical psychologists when, for either practical or ethical reasons, the unique aspects of an individual's life cannot be duplicated and tested in other individuals. A) case studies B) surveys C) correlational studies D) experiments
83) In the context of psychological research methods, which of the following scenarios is an example of the survey method? A) Dr. Adele observes children as they learn to read. B) Dr. Gomes studies patients while they undergo psychological counseling. C) Dr. Trooper collects children's school grades and test scores. D) Dr. Frank asks people how many hours of television they watch per week.
84)
A case study A) is an in-depth look at a single individual. B) is useful for studying large populations. C) involves random assignment of participants. D) relies on the experimental method.
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85) Sometimes participants in research studies tend to answer questions in a way that will make them look good rather than in a way that communicates what they truly think or feel. This is a potential problem with A) experiments. B) double-blind experiments. C) surveys. D) case studies.
86)
A correlation coefficient is a statistic that tells the A) strength and direction of association between two variables. B) direction of the causal relationship between two variables. C) extent to which demand characteristics have biased the results of the study. D) extent to which experimenter bias has influenced the results of the study.
87) What does the magnitude of the correlation coefficient indicate about the variables in a correlational study? A) size of the variables B) strength of the relationship between the variables C) number of data points D) direction of the relationship between the variables
88) Gary, a psychologist, conducts a study to determine the association between beer sales and the number of road accidents. He finds that an increase in beer sales results in an increase in the number of road accidents. However, he realizes that the time of year could also significantly affect the obtained results because there could be an increase in the number of road trips. Which of the following is most likely exemplified in this scenario? Version 1
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A) replication B) the third variable problem C) the principle of natural selection D) deception
89) Keisha wants to study the association between sleep deprivation and the number of hours spent on a computer every day. She is not keen to establish causation, but would like to determine whether and how the increase or decrease in one variable is related to the increase or decrease in the other variable. Which of the following research methods is likely to be most effective for Keisha's study? A) survey B) correlational research C) experimental research D) case study
90) Professor Izadi is interested in determining the association between sleep and cognitive performance. He surveyed his students about the number of hours they slept the night before an exam and then correlated these scores with their test grades. He found a +.81 correlation between these two variables. What does this result mean? A) There is a high negative correlation between hours of sleep and exam performance. B) There is a low negative correlation between hours of sleep and exam performance. C) There is a high positive correlation between hours of sleep and exam performance. D) There is a low positive correlation between hours of sleep and exam performance.
91) Dr. Simpson found a +.50 correlation between ice cream cone sales and violent crimes in a community. Which of the following represents the best interpretation of this result?
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A) Ice cream causes people to become more violent and aggressive. B) A third variable, such as heat, may account for the association between ice cream sales and violent crime. C) Violent people like ice cream more than nonviolent people. D) Ice cream consumption is not related to violent crime.
92)
In correlations research, third variables are also known as A) confederates. B) confounds. C) allies. D) boosters.
93) ________ is defined as a special kind of systematic observation, used by correlational researchers, that involves obtaining measures of the variables of interest in multiple waves over time. A) A longitudinal design B) A double-blind experiment C) Naturalistic observation D) Structuralism
94)
Longitudinal research involves A) observing and measuring the same variables periodically over time. B) randomly assigning participants to the control and experimental groups. C) the random selection of participants within a particular population. D) uncovering unconscious motives and conflicts.
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95) Professor Wong measures the intelligence and temperament of a group of preschoolers. He plans to study the same group of participants over time and collect data when the children are in Grades 3, 6, and 9. This is an example of which type of research design? A) sampling design B) experimental design C) longitudinal design D) double-blind experiment
96) ________ provide ways by which correlational researchers may attempt to demonstrate causal relations among variables, even though the causal relationship may still be somewhat unclear. A) Random selection techniques B) Sampling designs C) Longitudinal designs D) Survey designs
97) Which of the following is a potential problem of using correlational studies in psychological research? A) They fail to establish a clear causal relationship between variables. B) They do not allow researchers to use just one variable to predict the movement of the other variable. C) They cannot be used in situations where the issue of ethics is important. D) They can be used to study the relationship between only two variables.
98) Dr. Steinguard wants to demonstrate a cause-and-effect relationship between stress and memory. Which of the following research methods should he use? Version 1
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A) correlational studies B) the survey method C) naturalistic observation D) the experimental method
99) ________ refers to researchers' assignment of participants to groups by chance, to reduce the likelihood that an experiment's results will be due to preexisting differences between groups. A) Selection bias B) Experimenter bias C) Random assignment D) Random selection
100)
Which of the following research methods allow(s) researchers to determine causality? A) survey method B) observations C) experimental studies D) case study
101) When conducting an experiment on time management, Jamie assigns everyone who arrives before noon to the experimental group and everyone who arrives after noon to the control group. In the context of experimental research methods, what is wrong with Jamie's experiment? A) The experiment is not ethical. B) Jamie has not used random assignment. C) Jamie has introduced a confederate into the experiment. D) The experiment is deceptive.
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102) In the context of psychological research methods, which of the following refers to a carefully regulated procedure in which the researcher manipulates one or more variables that are believed to influence some other variable? A) experiments B) correlational studies C) case studies D) surveys
103)
In the context of experimental research, the logic of random assignment is
A) if participants in an experiment are assigned to each group by stratification, the actual differences between the groups will sustain over the long run. B) if participants in an experiment are assigned to each group only by chance, the actual similarities between the groups will sustain over the long run. C) if participants in an experiment are assigned to each group by stratification, the potential differences between the groups on other characteristics will cancel out over the long run. D) if only chance determines which participants are assigned to each group in an experiment, the potential differences on other characteristics will cancel out over the long run.
104) A researcher conducts an experiment to test the effects of playing violent video games on aggression. Which of the following could be the dependent variable in this example? A) frequency of violent video game play B) video game preferences C) scores on an aggressive behavior survey D) the number of hours spent playing video games
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105) In experimental research, the ________ is a manipulated experimental factor, and the ________ is the outcome. A) dependent variable; independent variable B) independent variable; dependent variable C) confounding variable; independent variable D) dependent variable; confounding variable
106) Professor Stenson is examining the effects of color on patients' anxiety levels. She randomly assigns patients to either a room painted white or a room painted black, and then she records their blood pressure. In this case, the independent variable is the A) participant's blood pressure. B) participant's anxiety level. C) room color. D) building type.
107) Andrea, a psychologist, conducts a study to determine the effect of students' ages on their college grades. She divides a class into two groups: Below Age and Above Age. Members of the Below Age group are less than 18 years of age, whereas members of the Above Age group are 18 years of age or above. In this scenario, which of the following illustrates the dependent variable? A) members of the Below Age group B) members of the Above Age group C) college grades D) ages of the students
108) A(n) ________ is a person who is given a role to play in a study so that the social context can be manipulated.
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A) confederate B) henchman C) accessory D) control group member
109)
Independent variables are A) measured by researchers. B) manipulated by researchers. C) confounds that are typically irrelevant to the hypothesis being tested. D) the factors that change in response to the changes in dependent variables.
110) In an experiment, the ________ is conceptualized as the "potential cause" and the ________ is conceptualized as the "resulting effect." A) dependent variable; independent variable B) independent variable; dependent variable C) third variable; independent variable D) third variable; dependent variable
111) Dr. Grant conducts research on stress management. Group A receives progressive relaxation training prior to taking the test, while Group B receives no training. Group A is the ________, while Group B is the ________. A) treatment group; placebo group B) experimental group; control group C) control group; treatment group D) placebo group; control group
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112) Sara, a researcher, and her team conduct a study to examine the effect of WakeMe, an energy drink, on the intelligence quotient (IQ) levels of people in a small district of Casadia. The people of Casadia are randomly divided into two equal groups. Members of one group, Group WM, are made to drink WakeMe and then take the IQ test. Members of the other group, Group NoWM, are made to drink plain water packaged in WakeMe bottles and then take the IQ test. In this scenario, who among the following exemplifies the control group? A) members of Group NoWM B) members of Group WM C) Sara and her team D) the team that designs the IQ test
113) An experimenter studies the relationship between caffeine and reaction time. She designs her experiment with four groups. Group one receives 100 mg of caffeine each in their cups of coffee; group two receives 200 mg of caffeine each in their cups of coffee; group three receives 300 mg of caffeine each in their cups of coffee; and group four receives no coffee. Twenty minutes later, participants from all the groups are given a reaction-time test. In this experiment, which group is the control group? A) group four B) group three C) group two D) group one
114)
Which of the following is true of research that uses a within-participant design?
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A) The participants in the experimental and control groups are the same people. B) The researcher uses random assignment to assign people to the experimental and control groups. C) Assignment to experimental or control groups is impossible. D) A greater number of participants are required to participate in both the experimental and control groups.
115)
How is a quasi-experimental design different from an experimental design? A) It does not randomly assign participants to a condition. B) It is not externally valid. C) It forgoes use of the scientific method. D) It does not have independent and dependent variables.
116) ________ refers to the soundness of the conclusions that a researcher draws from an experiment. A) Validity B) Reliability C) Accuracy D) Stability
117) ________ refers to the degree to which an experimental design really reflects the realworld issues it is supposed to address. A) Internal validity B) External validity C) Face validity D) Reliability
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118) ________ refers to the degree to which changes in the dependent variable are due to the manipulation of the independent variable. A) Internal validity B) External validity C) Face validity D) Reliability
119) In the case of ________, one wants to know whether the experimental methods are free from biases and logical errors that may render the results suspect. A) internal validity B) external validity C) face validity D) reliability
120) Brian conducts a study to examine the ability of boys and girls in solving difficult mathematical problems. He expects girls to perform much better than boys and communicates his expectation to the participants in a subtle manner. This is an example of A) research participant bias. B) experimenter bias. C) placebo effect. D) double-blind experiment.
121)
In experimental research, demand characteristics tend to
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A) increase the reliability of experimental results. B) eliminate confounds in a study. C) threaten the validity of experimental results. D) affect the duration of a study.
122) Aspects of a study that communicate to the participants how the experimenter wants them to behave are known as A) research cues. B) participant effects. C) confederates. D) demand characteristics.
123)
The placebo effect is an example of a(n) A) experimenter bias. B) participant bias. C) random assignment bias. D) random selection bias.
124) Which of the following situations occurs when participants' expectations, rather than the experimental treatment, produce an experimental outcome? A) the placebo effect B) the third variable problem C) experimenter bias D) deception
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125) Sonja believes that the pill prescribed to her by the doctor has cured her of anxiety disorder. However, the pill contains no active ingredients. Sonja's belief that she is better now is an example of the ________ effect. A) control B) double-blind C) confound D) placebo
126) In a ________, neither the experimenter administering the treatment nor the participants are aware of which participants are in the experimental group and which are in the control group until the results are calculated. A) double-blind experiment B) correlational research C) longitudinal design D) case study
127) A(n) ________ allows researchers to identify the specific effects of the independent variable from the possible effects of the experimenter's and the participants' expectations about it. A) double-blind experiment B) measure of central tendency C) meta-analytical study D) interview
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128) Margaret is appointed as a research director at a well-known pharmaceutical company. She is asked to design a set of research studies that will test the effectiveness of the drugs that are being manufactured by the company. To ensure that experimenter bias and research participant bias do not influence the results, Margaret should design a set of A) case studies. B) correlational studies. C) naturalistic observations. D) double-blind experiments.
129) While conducting research, Dr. Aoki used double-blind experiments to reduce the potential for A) poor operational definitions. B) experimenter bias and selection bias. C) participant bias and social desirability. D) experimenter bias and participant bias.
130) Which of the following principles should psychologists abide by to ensure that the results of their experiments are replicable? A) Researchers should be thorough in reporting the methods of their research. B) Researchers should use smaller sample sizes when possible. C) Researchers should focus on the use of double-blind experiments. D) Researchers should consider the use of quasi-experiments.
131)
The subset of a population chosen by an investigator for study is a
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A) sample. B) case. C) confederate. D) placebo.
132)
A population is
A) the entire group about which investigators want to draw conclusions. B) a smaller subset of a group of people researchers want to draw conclusions about. C) a smaller subset of a group of people about whom researchers want to draw conclusion. D) randomly defined.
133)
Which of the following best exemplifies a random sample? A) a sample that consists of all boys whose names begin with an "A" B) a sample that consists of all girls who have been selected arbitrarily C) a sample that consists of all women who are 40 years old D) a sample that consists of all men who have specialized in accounting
134) A ________ is a sample that gives every member of the population an equal chance of being selected. A) stratified sample B) random sample C) convenience sample D) cluster sample
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135) Which of the following is an advantage of conducting psychological research in a laboratory? A) It is easy to conduct laboratory research without subjects knowing that they are being observed. B) A laboratory setting is close to the real world and therefore causes subjects to behave naturally. C) A laboratory is a controlled setting with many of the complex factors of the real world removed. D) It is possible to study all aspects of the mind and behavior in a laboratory.
136) A lot of psychological research is based on samples from societies that have been described as W.E.I.R.D., which stands for Western, Educated, Industrialized, Rich, Democratic. What issue does this raise? A) Can the research results predict all human behavior? B) Have the researchers properly used the scientific method? C) Has the research been conducted in a properly controlled setting? D) Is there too much diversity in the research samples to be able to generalize the results?
137) Emma, a psychologist, wants to study the relationship that exists among female college students who stay in hostels. She disguises herself as a college student and shares a dorm with some of the students for a month. During her stay, she observes their various behaviors and makes notes when they are asleep. Which of the following is best exemplified in this scenario? A) the placebo effect B) experimenter bias C) a double-blind experiment D) naturalistic observation
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138) The ________ has developed ethics guidelines for its members, and the ________ evaluates the ethical nature of research conducted at their colleges and universities. A) Institutional Review Board (IRB); American Psychological Association (APA) B) American Psychological Association (APA); Institutional Review Board (IRB) C) county government; state government D) state government; county government
139) According to the principle of ________, all participants must know what their participation will involve and what risks might develop. A) deception B) informed consent C) confidentiality D) freedom from harm
140) According to the principle of ________, researchers are responsible for keeping all of the data they gather on individuals completely confidential and, when possible, completely anonymous. A) deception B) informed consent C) confidentiality D) freedom from harm
141) Inmates at a correctional facility take part in an experiment on social development. Once the experiment is over, the correctional officer goes home and tells his roommates about the results of the study and about the inmates who did not perform well. In this scenario, which ethical guideline of psychological research has been violated by the correctional officer? Version 1
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A) limited deception B) informed consent C) freedom from coercion D) confidentiality
142) Which of the following is one of the issues addressed by the ethics guidelines developed by the American Psychological Association? A) debriefing B) sampling C) introspection D) validity
143) After a research study has been completed, the researchers should inform the participants of its purpose and the methods they used. This is in accordance with the principle of A) deception. B) informed consent. C) confidentiality. D) debriefing.
144) In the context of ethical guidelines in psychological research, the difference between data that are anonymous and data that are confidential is that when data are confidential it is possible A) to link a participant's identity to his or her data. B) to clearly tell participants how they should act during the research. C) to explain the results of the study to the participants. D) to share a participant's details with the other participants.
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145) Olivia, a research student, wants to determine the effect of alcoholism on domestic violence as part of her thesis paper. She realizes that informing the participants of her study about its exact nature will affect the results. The participants are likely to feel ashamed of openly discussing such sensitive issues. In this scenario, which of the following would be the best approach for Olivia? A) requesting her family members and friends to participate in the study B) obtaining informed consent from the participants C) debriefing her participants after the study's completion D) changing the topic for her thesis
146) In the context of ethics guidelines in psychological research, identify a true statement about deception. A) Participants in studies involving deception are likely to be harmed during the study. B) Researchers who employ deception in their studies avoid debriefing the participants even after the study's completion. C) Participants in studies involving deception are unable to withdraw their consent. D) Researchers who employ deception in their studies must be able to justify lying to participants.
147) Which of the following statements about the use of animal studies in psychological research is true? A) Some procedures used with animals would be unethical to perform on humans. B) The majority of psychological research on animals is done with monkeys. C) Abuse of animals used in psychological research is extremely common. D) There are no ethical standards governing the use of animal subjects in psychological research.
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148)
What can you do to become a better consumer of psychology in everyday life?
A) Stay up to date by reading about psychological research online and blogs available from all sources. B) Avoid overgeneralizing based on little information. C) Only believe in psychological principles that have been derived on the basis of personal experience. D) Draw causal conclusions from correlational studies.
149) Which of the following is a guideline to follow to consume psychological information critically and wisely? A) Consider the source of psychological information. B) Apply conclusions from a group to an individual. C) Do not look for answers beyond a single study. D) Draw causal conclusions from correlational studies.
150) Researchers usually should submit their findings to a journal for review by their colleagues, who make a decision about whether to publish the paper, depending on its scientific merit. This process is known as A) publishing review. B) literature review. C) peer review. D) subject review.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 01_5e_King 1) Defining Psychology and Exploring Its Roots 2) Contemporary Approaches to Psychology 3) Contemporary Approaches to Psychology 4) Contemporary Approaches to Psychology 5) Psychology's Scientific Method 6) Types of Psychological Research 7) Types of Psychological Research 8) Types of Psychological Research 9) Types of Psychological Research 10) Conducting Ethical Research 11) C 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) C 16) B 17) A 18) B 19) B 20) A 21) B Version 1
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22) B 23) C 24) D 25) D 26) B 27) B 28) C 29) A 30) A 31) A 32) D 33) C 34) D 35) C 36) D 37) D 38) B 39) B 40) A 41) C 42) C 43) D 44) D 45) B 46) B 47) D 48) A 49) A 50) C 51) B Version 1
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52) C 53) C 54) B 55) C 56) B 57) C 58) A 59) A 60) A 61) A 62) D 63) C 64) A 65) A 66) A 67) A 68) B 69) D 70) A 71) C 72) A 73) D 74) B 75) B 76) C 77) D 78) D 79) C 80) A 81) A Version 1
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82) A 83) D 84) A 85) C 86) A 87) B 88) B 89) B 90) C 91) B 92) B 93) A 94) A 95) C 96) C 97) A 98) D 99) C 100) C 101) B 102) A 103) D 104) C 105) B 106) C 107) C 108) A 109) B 110) B 111) B Version 1
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112) A 113) A 114) A 115) A 116) A 117) B 118) A 119) A 120) B 121) C 122) D 123) B 124) A 125) D 126) A 127) A 128) D 129) D 130) A 131) A 132) A 133) B 134) B 135) C 136) A 137) D 138) B 139) B 140) C 141) D Version 1
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142) A 143) D 144) A 145) C 146) D 147) A 148) B 149) A 150) C
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CHAPTER 2 1) Briefly describe the peripheral nervous system and its four divisions. What is the function of each? Give examples of situations that would activate each division and how they would do so.
2)
Describe the structure of a neuron and explain the function of each component.
3) Briefly explain how one neuron sends a message to another neuron. Be sure to include a description of the roles that the various structures of the neuron play in communicating neural messages.
4) Compare and contrast the techniques researchers use to study the brain. Explain what type of information can be gained by each approach.
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5) Identify the major functions of the hypothalamus, cerebellum, and the reticular formation. Give examples of their functions in terms of real behaviors.
6) Explain how the right and left hemispheres of the brain are specialized for different functions.
7)
Compare and contrast the nervous system and the endocrine system.
8) How does the endocrine system transmit its messages? What functions do the pituitary gland, adrenal glands, pancreas, and gonads (testes or ovaries) perform? Version 1
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9)
Discuss the three ways through which brain repair can take place.
10) Explain the difference between genotype and phenotype. Be sure to mention the role of environmental influences.
11)
The ________ system is the body's electrochemical communication circuitry. A) pulmonary B) nervous C) endocrine D) respiratory
12)
The field that studies the nervous system is called
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A) neuroscience. B) immunology. C) physiology. D) ethnoscience.
13) Amelia, a scientist, studies the body's electrochemical communication circuitry. Amelia is most likely a(n) A) geoscientist. B) neuroscientist. C) physiologist. D) orthodontist.
14) Ashley, a secretary at Plato Inc., is typing on her computer, talking on the phone, and handing some papers to her colleague simultaneously. Which of the following characteristics of the nervous system is best illustrated in this scenario? A) complexity B) resting potential C) polarization D) plasticity
15) Liam is able to sing, play the guitar, and play the harmonica simultaneously. Which of the following characteristics of the nervous system most likely is represented by Liam's ability to carry out the multitude of tasks?
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A) complexity B) adaptability C) polarization D) plasticity
16) Which of the following characteristics of the brain refers to the brain's ability to pull information together? A) integration B) complexity C) adaptability D) plasticity
17)
The term "plasticity" refers to the A) flexibility of the endocrine system. B) lack of ability to adapt to new surroundings. C) ability to connect electrical impulses and chemical messengers. D) brain's special capacity for change.
18)
Plasticity best reflects which of the following characteristics of the nervous system? A) complexity B) integration C) adaptability D) electrochemical transmission
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19) Stand-up comedians who improvise constantly while on stage are demonstrating their ability to change according to the environment. Which of the following characteristics of the nervous system is most likely playing a predominant role? A) resting potential B) reuptake C) polarization D) adaptability
20) You are listening to a lecture. Then the bell rings in the hallway. In order to hear this stimulus, ________ nerves must carry electrochemical messages from your ears to your brain. A) afferent B) olfactory C) efferent D) pyramidal
21) The lecture you were listening to is over. The bell that rang in the hall signaled the end of class. You get up, pick up your things, and walk out the classroom door. Which kind of nerves sent the signals from your brain to your muscles to initiate your physical movements? A) afferent B) pyramidal C) efferent D) olfactory
22) Martin is riding his motorcycle to his office. When he hears the honking of a truck trying to overtake him, he gives way to the truck. In the context of the pathways in the nervous system, in this scenario, which type of nerves communicated information from Martin's brain to his muscles and made him move his motorcycle?
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A) efferent B) pyramidal C) afferent D) olfactory
23)
________ carry information out of the brain and spinal cord to other areas of the body. A) Afferent nerves B) Auditory nerves C) Efferent nerves D) Sensory nerves
24) Information from the brain and spinal cord to the muscles is sent through ________, thus enabling the body to move. A) afferent nerves B) efferent nerves C) auditory nerves D) olfactory nerves
25) Your brain has instructed your body muscles to move so that you avoid burning your hand on a hot stove. Which type of nerves carried the information from your brain to your muscles so that you could avoid getting burned? A) efferent nerves B) afferent nerves C) olfactory nerves D) auditory nerves
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26) ________ are interconnected groups of nerve cells that integrate sensory input and motor output. A) Sensory networks B) Afferent nerves C) Efferent nerves D) Neural networks
27)
Which of the following statements is true of neural networks?
A) They are networks of nerve cells that connect the brain and spinal cord to other parts of the body. B) They integrate sensory input and motor output and make up most of the brain. C) They are also called motor nerves. D) They carry information about the external environment to the brain and spinal cord.
28)
The brain and spinal cord make up the A) peripheral nervous system. B) central nervous system. C) autonomic nervous system. D) somatic nervous system.
29)
Which of the following statements is true of the central nervous system (CNS)?
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A) More than 99 percent of all nerve cells are located in the CNS. B) The neocortex makes up 40 percent of the cortex in the CNS of human beings. C) The function of the CNS is to bring information to and from the brain and spinal cord. D) The CNS has two major divisions: the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system.
30)
The ________ connects the brain and spinal cord to the rest of the body. A) central nervous system B) peripheral nervous system C) limbic system D) endocrine system
31)
The somatic nervous system and autonomic nervous system are components of the A) sensory system. B) central nervous system. C) limbic system. D) peripheral nervous system.
32)
The somatic nervous system consists of motor nerves, whose function is to A) mobilize the body for action in a dangerous situation. B) tell muscles what to do. C) reduce the stress levels of the body. D) convey information from the skin and muscles to the central nervous system.
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33)
The function of sensory nerves of the somatic nervous system is to
A) take messages to and from the body's internal organs, monitoring such processes as breathing, heart rate, and digestion. B) be involved in the experience of stress and calm the body. C) arouse the body to mobilize it for action. D) convey information from the skin and muscles to the CNS about conditions such as pain and temperature.
34) The function of the ________ is to take messages to and from the body's internal organs, monitoring such processes as breathing, heart rate, and digestion. A) central nervous system B) autonomic nervous system C) somatic nervous system D) voluntary nervous system
35) Which of the following essential body functions are under the control of the autonomic nervous system? A) functions of reproductive system B) excretory functions C) sensory functions such as vision and hearing D) functions of heart rate, breathing, and digestion
36) the
The sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system are components of
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A) central nervous system. B) endocrine system. C) somatic nervous system. D) autonomic nervous system.
37) The ________ is the part of the autonomic nervous system that arouses the body to mobilize it for action and thus is involved in the experience of stress. A) sympathetic nervous system B) parasympathetic nervous system C) somatic nervous system D) central nervous system
38)
In the context of the autonomic nervous system, the ________ calms the body. A) sympathetic nervous system B) parasympathetic nervous system C) somatic nervous system D) central nervous system
39)
Which of the following is one of the functions of the sympathetic nervous system? A) convey information from skin to the central nervous system (CNS) B) calm the body C) fight-or-flight reaction D) tell muscles what to do
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40) ________ are the circumstances and events that threaten individuals and tax their coping abilities. A) Stressors B) Synapses C) Blips D) Stimulators
41) You are walking to school when you encounter a barking dog. You start sweating and contemplate whether you should run away. Which nervous system is primarily responsible for this "fight-or-flight" reaction? A) somatic B) sympathetic C) parasympathetic D) central
42) Just before you went on a job interview your heart was pounding like crazy. You experienced a shortness of breath and felt sick to your stomach. These symptoms were most likely produced by your ________ nervous system. A) central B) somatic C) parasympathetic D) sympathetic
43) Which division of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for producing physiological symptoms (such as increased heart rate and butterflies in the stomach) under conditions of stress?
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A) somatic B) parasympathetic C) sympathetic D) central
44) If a person needs to run away from a dangerous situation, the ________ nervous system sends blood to the person's extremities to prepare them for taking off. A) central B) somatic C) sympathetic D) parasympathetic
45) After taking her English final, Natalie attempts to relax in her chair by meditating. She is attempting to reduce her heart and respiration rates, as well as her muscular tension. In this scenario, her physiological relaxation can be best attributed to the functioning of her ________ nervous system. A) somatic B) central C) parasympathetic D) sympathetic
46) After a game of football, David tries to calm down by relaxing in the swimming pool. He tries to get his breath back and relax to avoid muscle cramps. In this scenario, which part of the autonomic nervous system is most likely involved in calming David's body?
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A) the somatic nervous system B) the central nervous system C) the sympathetic nervous system D) the parasympathetic nervous system
47) Maya burns her fingers while cooking dinner. Which of the following divisions of the nervous system will be primarily responsible for the pain she feels? A) the central nervous system B) the autonomic nervous system C) the somatic nervous system D) the parasympathetic nervous system
48) After finishing a psychology test, you try to relax by engaging in some meditation techniques. Doing these exercises should increase the response of the ________ nervous system, which results in a slower heart and respiration rate and less muscular tension. A) somatic B) central C) parasympathetic D) sympathetic
49)
Corticosteroids are A) stress hormones. B) sex hormones. C) neurotransmitters that regulate mood. D) neurotransmitters that regulate memory.
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50)
________ stress is the momentary stress that occurs in response to life experiences. A) Intrinsic B) Differential C) Chronic D) Acute
51) The uncertainty of the COVID-19 pandemic resulted in a prolonged period of ______ stress for many people throughout the world. A) chronic B) acute C) sympathetic D) autonomic
52) Which of the following types of cells in the nervous system handle the informationprocessing function? A) neurons B) glial cells C) sclerenchyma cells D) sensors
53) ________ provide support, nutritional benefits, and other functions in the nervous system.
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A) Neurons B) Glial cells C) Sclerenchyma cells D) Dendrites
54) The cell body contains the ________, which directs the manufacture of substances that a neuron needs for growth and maintenance. A) myelin B) nucleus C) axon D) dendrite
55)
Which of the following is a true statement about dendrites? A) They encase and insulate most axons. B) They are treelike fibers projecting from a neuron. C) They contain the nucleus of a neuron. D) They direct the manufacture of substances required for growth of neurons.
56)
Which of the following is a true statement about an axon? A) It encases and insulates most nuclei. B) It is a treelike fiber projecting from a neuron. C) It is extremely thin and has many branches. D) It directs the manufacture of substances required for growth of neurons.
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57)
Dendrites are
A) the part of the neuron that is responsible for sending information away from the cell body toward other cells. B) treelike fibers which receive information and orient it toward the neuron's cell body. C) located inside the cell body. D) the layer of fat cells that encase and insulate the neuron.
58)
The axon is A) the part of the neuron that carries information away from the cell body toward other
cells. B) the branchlike part of the neuron that is responsible for receiving information from other neurons. C) located inside the cell body. D) the layer of fat cells that encase and insulate the neuron.
59) A ________ is a layer of fat cells that insulates most axons and speeds up the transmission of nerve impulses. A) dendrite B) myelin sheath C) cyton D) nucleolus
60)
Which of the following is a function of the myelin sheath?
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A) carry information away from the cell body toward other cells B) increase the surface area of nerve cells C) speed up the transmission of nerve impulses D) play a role in imitation
61) In multiple sclerosis, which part of the neuron typically hardens and disrupts the flow of information through the neurons? A) the nucleus B) the dendrites C) the cell body D) the myelin sheath
62) In the context of the neural impulse, the membrane that encases the axon is called semipermeable because A) only sodium ions can cross the membrane. B) any type of substance can pass through the membrane. C) fluids can sometimes flow into and out of it. D) depolarization of the membranes cannot occur.
63) Normally, when a neuron is not transmitting information and a slight negative charge is present on the inside of the cell membrane, the neuron is said to be A) depolarized. B) resting. C) active. D) highly charged.
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64)
Resting potential is the A) amount of time a signal travels through the central nervous system. B) amount of time a neuron must "rest" in between firing episodes. C) stable, positive charge of an inactive neuron. D) stable, negative charge of an inactive neuron.
65)
The membrane of the resting neuron is said to be A) deconcentrated. B) depolarized. C) concentrated. D) polarized.
66) When a neuron is at its resting state, what is the status of the charges on each side of the cell membrane? A) There is a negative charge on the outside of the cell membrane and a positive charge on the inside. B) There is a negative charge on the inside of the cell membrane and a positive charge on the outside. C) There is a negative charge on both the outside and the inside of the cell membrane. D) There is a positive charge on both the outside and the inside of the cell membrane.
67) In the context of the neural impulse, which of the following is true about the depolarization of neuron membranes?
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A) It is characterized by more negatively charged ions on the inside of the cell and more positively charged ions on the outside. B) It occurs when there is a decrease in the charge difference between the fluids inside and outside of the neuron. C) It is the brief wave of positive electrical charge that sweeps down the axon. D) It is the phase that allows sodium ions to move out of the neuron.
68)
The brief wave of positive electrical charge that sweeps down the axon is A) resting potential. B) action potential. C) graded potential. D) polarized potential.
69)
When a neuron sends an action potential, it is commonly said to be A) firing. B) grading. C) depolarizing. D) classifying.
70)
According to the all-or-nothing principle,
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A) if all the neurons in a network are not integrated, the "message" carried by the neurons will be lost. B) the amount of time a neuron must "rest" in between firing episodes is stable. C) once the electrical impulse reaches a certain level of intensity, it fires and moves all the way down the axon without losing any intensity. D) as a person ages, his or her neurological system slows down and the intensity of neural impulses decreases significantly.
71)
Which of the following refers to tiny spaces between neurons? A) dendrites B) axons C) synapses D) basal ganglia
72) ________ are chemical substances that are stored in very tiny sacs within the neuron's terminal buttons and involved in transmitting information across a synaptic gap to the next neuron. A) Neurotransmitters B) Neural impulses C) Synapses D) Dendrites
73)
Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that plays an important role in
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A) learning and memory. B) vision and hearing. C) mood regulation. D) reproductive function.
74) Your relative is experiencing memory loss related to Alzheimer disease. Research suggests that the decline in memory is due to a(n) ________ deficiency in this individual's brain. A) serotonin B) gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) C) acetylcholine D) dopamine
75) ________ inhibits the firing of neurons in the central nervous system, but it excites the heart muscle, intestines, and urogenital tract. A) Serotonin B) Dopamine C) Norepinephrine D) GABA
76)
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? A) high levels of oxytocin—Alzheimer disease B) low levels of dopamine—Parkinson disease C) low levels of acetylcholine—schizophrenia D) high levels of serotonin—depression
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77) Emma has recently started to suffer from migraine headaches and seizures. She also suffers from anxiety and depression. In the context of neurochemical messengers, which of the following conditions is most likely to be the cause for her symptoms? A) too little norepinephrine B) too much glutamate C) too much acetylcholine D) too little dopamine
78)
Depression is associated with low levels of which neurotransmitter? A) acetylcholine B) serotonin C) dopamine D) oxytocin
79) In the context of neurotransmitters, which of the following best describes the effect of norepinephrine stimulation? A) It plays a role in the human tendency to feel pleasure during orgasm. B) It plays a role in forming emotional bonds with romantic partners. C) It inhibits the heart muscle, intestines, and urogenital tract. D) It helps to control the level of alertness.
80)
Which of the following is true of the neurotransmitter serotonin?
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A) It is related to the personality trait of extraversion. B) It inhibits the firing of neurons in the central nervous system. C) It is involved in the regulation of mood and attention. D) It is hardly involved in the regulation of sleep.
81)
________ are natural opiates that mainly stimulate the firing of neurons. A) Endorphins B) Corticosteroids C) Aldosterones D) Histidines
82)
Which of the following is a function of endorphins? A) shielding the body from pain and elevating feelings of pleasure B) playing an important role in the experience of love and social bonding C) regulating sleep, mood, attention, and learning D) stimulating the release of norepinephrine, which helps to control alertness
83)
Problems regulating dopamine are associated with A) depression. B) multiple sclerosis. C) Alzheimer disease. D) schizophrenia.
84)
Who among the following is most likely to have elevated levels of endorphins?
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A) Amy, a 30-year-old teacher, who is in shock after a car wreck B) Jamie, a 40-year-old diplomat, who is on a cruise C) Martha, a 32-year-old homemaker, who is showing symptoms of schizophrenia D) Joshua, a 17-year-old student, who is depressed after seeing his low SAT scores
85) ________ is a hormone and neurotransmitter that plays an important role in the experience of love and social bonding. A) Acetylcholine B) Dopamine C) Serotonin D) Oxytocin
86)
A powerful surge of oxytocin is released in a A) person who is in shock after a car wreck. B) long-distance runner. C) young boy on a roller-coaster ride. D) mother who has just given birth.
87) Lilly, who has just given birth, is able to provide nourishment for her baby and loves her newborn unconditionally. Which of the following neurotransmitters is said to play an important role in this case? A) acetylcholine B) serotonin C) dopamine D) oxytocin
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88) An ________ is a drug that mimics or increases a neurotransmitter's effects, whereas an ________ is a drug that blocks a neurotransmitter's effects. A) agonist; antagonist B) antagonist; agonist C) oxytocin; endorphin D) endorphin; oxytocin
89) Morphine, a neurotransmitter, mimics the actions of endorphins by stimulating receptors in the brain and spinal cord associated with pleasure and pain. Morphine, therefore, is an example of a(n) A) agonist. B) antagonist. C) synapse. D) stressor.
90) Drugs used to treat schizophrenia interfere with the activity of dopamine. Such a drug is an example of a(n) A) agonist. B) antagonist. C) synapse. D) stressor.
91) Izabella Johnson, a doctor in Dallas, prescribed an antidepressant drug Prozac to her patient, Ted. Prozac works by increasing brain levels of serotonin. This means that Prozac is considered
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A) an agonist. B) an antagonist. C) an endorphin. D) an oxytocin.
92) Michael has schizophrenia. His doctor prescribed a new drug that blocks or interferes with the activity of dopamine. The doctor is using ________ to treat Michael's disorder. A) an agonist B) an antagonist C) a brain lesion D) a lobotomy
93) ________ is an abnormal disruption in the tissue of the brain resulting from injury or disease. A) Brain lesioning B) Brain imaging C) Brain ischemia D) Brain stem stroke
94) Neuroscientists who surgically remove, destroy, or eliminate the brain tissue of laboratory animals are using which of the following techniques for studying the brain? A) electroencephalogram B) positron emission tomography (PET) C) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) D) brain lesioning
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95)
Which of the following is a significance of the brain-lesioning process? A) It assesses the amount of glucose in the various brain regions. B) It gives a three-dimensional view of various brain regions. C) It gives a sense of the functions of the damaged brain regions. D) It assesses the amount of radioactivity in several brain regions.
96) Which of the following methods of studying the brain involves recording the brain's electrical activity by placing electrodes on the scalp to detect brain-wave activity? A) electroencephalograph (EEG) B) positron emission tomography (PET) C) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) D) functional MRI (fMRI)
97) Harry has been diagnosed with epilepsy by his neurologist. Which of the following should the neurologist use to assess Harry's epilepsy by studying his brain-wave activity? A) electrooculography B) electromyography C) electroencephalograph D) electrocardiograph
98) Arnold Becker, a doctor in Seattle, needs information about the location and extent of damage involving stroke and loss of memory of his patient, Judith. Which of the following techniques will he most likely use to diagnose Judith's condition?
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A) brain lesioning B) computerized axial tomography (CAT scan) C) positron emission tomography (PET) D) electroencephalogram (EEG)
99) Jasmine, a doctor, is studying the extent of damage to the brain involving loss of memory in her patient Kayla. She examines a three-dimensional image obtained from X-rays of Kayla's head that are assembled into a composite image. In the context of brain imaging, which of the following techniques was most likely used to produce the three-dimensional image? A) computerized axial tomography (CAT scan or CT scan) B) positron-emission tomography (PET scan) C) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) D) transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)
100) Stern Tyler, a neuroscientist who is collecting data for a new research study, uses a technique for monitoring the amount of glucose in various areas of the brain. Which of the following methods is Stern Tyler using in this study? A) brain lesioning B) staining C) positron emission tomography (PET scan) D) electroencephalogram (EEG)
101) In the context of brain imaging, ________ involves creating a magnetic field around a person's body and using radio waves to construct images of the person's tissues and biochemical activities.
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A) transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) B) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) C) positron-emission tomography (PET scan) D) computerized axial tomography (CAT scan or CT scan)
102)
Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) is a technique that
A) allows scientists to see what is happening in the brain while it is working. B) requires injecting the brain with a substance but still cannot portray brain function. C) measures the amount of glucose in various areas of the brain and then sends this information to a computer for analysis. D) examines the effects of lesions in brain tissue.
103) In which of the following ways does functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) detect the functioning of the brain? A) It exploits changes in blood oxygen that occur in association with brain activity. B) It measures the amount of glucose in various areas of the brain. C) It places electrodes on the scalp to detect brain-wave activity. D) It establishes a cause-effect relationship between variables associated with brain activity.
104) Which of the following principles underlies the technique of functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)?
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A) It rests on the principle that mental activity is associated with changes in glucose levels in the brain. B) It rests on the principle that mental activity is associated with changes in the oxygenated blood levels in the brain. C) It rests on the principle that mental activity is associated with changes in hydrogenated blood levels in the brain. D) It rests on the principle that mental activity is associated with changes in magnetic fields in the brain.
105) Which of the following is true of the brain-imaging technique known as transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)? A) It does not allow researchers to draw cause-and-effect conclusions. B) It examines neuronal functioning following brain-injuring events. C) It is not used to treat any neurological and psychological disorders. D) It is the most painful technique used in examining the role of various regions of the brain.
106) A researcher in the field of neuroscience has a theory about a specific area of the brain causing difficulties in face recognition. To draw a solid causal inference, they intend to test their hypothesis on dogs by disrupting regions of the dogs' brains and examining the effects of this disruption on the dogs' face-recognition capacity. Which of the following techniques should be used by the researcher? A) computerized axial tomography (CAT scan) B) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) C) transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) D) functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
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107) In the context of the major regions of the brain, which of the following is the lowest portion of the brain? A) hindbrain B) forebrain C) cerebral cortex D) hypothalamus
108)
Which part of the nervous system regulates breathing and heart rate? A) hypothalamus B) pons C) medulla D) cerebellum
109) Damien has been unable to sleep for the past few weeks. He wakes up in the middle of the night and cannot go back to sleep. On certain occasions, he cannot fall asleep at all and at other times, he is unable to wake up from sleep. In the context of organization of the brain, Damien's problem with sleep and arousal is most likely caused by the poor functioning of the A) pons. B) amygdala. C) medulla. D) cerebellum.
110) with
Marshall's cerebellum was damaged in a car accident. Marshall is likely to have problems
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A) breathing and heart rate. B) seeing and hearing. C) talking and understanding. D) balance and muscle coordination.
111)
The ________ relays information between the brain and the eyes and ears. A) forebrain B) midbrain C) hindbrain D) cerebellum
112)
The reticular formation of the midbrain is involved in
A) controlling breathing and regulating reflexes to maintain an upright posture. B) stereotyped patterns of behavior such as walking, sleeping, or turning to attend to a sudden noise. C) the control and coordination of balance, hearing, and parasympathetic function. D) governing higher brain functions, such as thinking, learning, and consciousness.
113)
Which of the following is the brain's largest division? A) forebrain B) midbrain C) hindbrain D) medulla
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114) The ________ is a set of subcortical brain structures central to emotion, memory, and reward processing. A) thalamus B) limbic system C) cerebrum D) cerebral cortex
115) Joe has suffered a massive stroke. Since then, he finds it difficult to remember names of new people whom he meets or even to recognize them. This is because he is unable to retain any new memories after the stroke. In the context of the organization of the brain, these symptoms are most likely due to a damaged A) amygdala. B) thalamus. C) hippocampus. D) hypothalamus.
116)
Which of the following parts of the brain are correctly matched? A) thalamus—hindbrain B) amygdala—midbrain C) basal ganglia—hindbrain D) limbic system—forebrain
117) Nathan is suffering from amnesia, an illness that prevents the retrieval of new memories. In the context of the organization of the brain, which area of Nathan's brain is most likely responsible for the amnesia?
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A) basal ganglia B) reticular formation C) cerebellum D) hippocampus
118) Discrimination of objects that are necessary for survival (such as appropriate food) as well as emotional awareness and expression involves the A) hippocampus. B) occipital lobe. C) medulla. D) amygdala.
119) Carrie suffered brain damage when she was injured in a car accident. Since then, she is unable to take pleasure in the things she used to. She has also lost interest in sexual intimacy with her husband and does not enjoy the taste of her favorite foods. In this scenario, damage to which of the following areas of the brain is most likely causing her inability to experience pleasure? A) medulla B) hippocampus C) hypothalamus D) pituitary gland
120) Steven was in a serious automobile accident that caused a severe injury to his hippocampus. What type of problem is Steven likely to experience as a result of this brain injury?
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A) He will probably be unable to speak. B) He will probably be unable to comprehend language. C) He will probably be unable to retain any new conscious memories. D) He will probably be unable to move on his own.
121) Large neuron clusters located above the thalamus and under the cerebral cortex that work with the cerebellum and the cerebral cortex to control and coordinate voluntary movements are called A) occipital lobes. B) basal ganglia. C) medulla. D) amygdala.
122) The ________ is a small forebrain structure that monitors pleasurable activities (e.g., eating, drinking, and sex), emotion, stress, and reward. A) hypothalamus B) basal ganglia C) corpus callosum D) medulla
123) The ________ is part of the forebrain, the outer layer of the brain, and is responsible for the most complex mental functions, such as thinking and planning. A) cerebral cortex B) hypothalamus C) amygdala D) hippocampus
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124) The ________ is the outermost part of the cerebral cortex, making up 80 percent of the human brain's cortex. A) motor cortex B) thalamus C) hypothalamus D) neocortex
125) As a result of a brain injury after an accident, James lost his vision. Which of the following regions of James's cerebral cortex is most likely to be damaged? A) association cortex B) parietal lobe C) occipital lobe D) somatosensory cortex
126) Samantha had a stroke. Doctors told her she sustained substantial damage to the occipital lobes. What type of deficiencies is Samantha likely to experience as a result of this brain damage? A) She may be blind or unable to see clearly. B) She will probably be unable to comprehend language. C) She will probably have difficulties with memory function. D) She will probably suffer from impaired cognitive functioning.
127) Structures in the cerebral cortex that are involved in hearing, language processing, and memory are called
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A) temporal lobes. B) frontal lobes. C) occipital lobes. D) parietal lobes.
128) The ________ are involved in personality, intelligence, and the control of voluntary muscles. A) temporal lobes B) frontal lobes C) occipital lobes D) parietal lobes
129) Zeus was injured in a mining accident and suffered severe brain damage. In time, his brain healed, and he was back to working in the mines. The only change was in his personality. From being a highly aggressive and temperamental individual, he became mild-mannered and calm, almost to the extent of being placid. In this scenario, the region of the cerebral cortex that was most likely damaged in the accident was the ________ lobe. A) frontal B) occipital C) temporal D) parietal
130)
Which of the following are correctly matched?
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A) frontal lobes—hearing, language processing, and memory B) occipital lobes—personality, intelligence, and the control of voluntary muscles C) temporal lobes—visual stimuli D) parietal lobes—spatial location, attention, and motor control
131) Gregory is an excellent basketball player. He is always able to gauge the distance between himself and the basket correctly, and he never misses a shot. To help him use this spatial location skill, which of the following regions of the cerebral cortex should function the most efficiently? A) the parietal lobe B) the temporal lobe C) the somatosensory cortex D) the prefrontal cortex
132) The ________, located at the front of the parietal lobes, is defined as a region in the cerebral cortex that processes information about body sensations. A) motor cortex B) prefrontal cortex C) somatosensory cortex D) neocortex
133) The ________ is the part of the cerebral cortex that processes information about voluntary movement.
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A) motor cortex B) sensory cortex C) limbic system D) temporal lobe
134)
Which of the following is true with regard to the association cortex?
A) It processes information about body sensations. B) It makes up 25 percent of the cerebral cortex. C) It is at the rear of the frontal lobes, processes information about voluntary movement. D) It is the site of the highest intellectual functions, such as thinking and problem solving.
135) Katy was in a car accident and sustained serious brain damage. Since the accident, Katy can speak only one word. This is an example of A) amnesia. B) aphasia. C) multiple sclerosis. D) epilepsy.
136) ________ plays an important role in the production of speech, whereas ________ plays an important role in the comprehension of language. A) Wernicke's area; Broca's area B) Broca's area; Wernicke's area C) The occipital lobe; the hippocampus D) The hippocampus; the occipital lobe
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137) The ________ is the large bundle of axons that connects the brain's two hemispheres and is responsible for relaying information between the two sides. A) corpus callosum B) neocortex C) association cortex D) hypothalamus
138) Neurosurgeons can reduce the unbearable seizures some epileptics experience by severing the A) hypothalamus. B) cerebellum. C) amygdala. D) corpus callosum.
139)
The left hemisphere of the brain plays an important role in managing or regulating A) speech and grammar. B) spatial perception. C) visual recognition. D) movement in the left side of the body.
140) true?
As it relates to the functioning of the brain's two hemispheres, which of the following is
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A) Most day-to-day activities involve an interplay between the brain's two hemispheres. B) All verbal abilities are controlled by the left brain. C) The brain's two hemispheres only work together when they are forced to because of some type of brain damage. D) Speech and grammar are localized in the right brain.
141)
The endocrine system
A) directs the most complex mental functions, such as thinking and planning. B) connects the brain and the spinal cord to the rest of the body. C) consists of a set of glands that regulate the activities of certain organs by releasing their chemical products into the bloodstream. D) communicates through the release of neurotransmitters.
142) Which of the following is defined as organs or tissues in the body that create chemicals that control many bodily functions? A) glands B) dendrites C) synapses D) pons
143)
The chemical messengers produced by the endocrine glands are known as A) neurotransmitters. B) hormones. C) axons. D) stem cells.
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144) The ________ gland is defined as a pea-sized gland just beneath the hypothalamus that controls growth and regulates other glands. A) sebaceous B) adrenal C) thyroid D) pituitary
145) The ________ is sometimes referred to as the "master gland" because almost all of its hormones direct the activity of target glands elsewhere. A) anterior thyroid gland B) posterior adrenal gland C) anterior pituitary gland D) posterior parathyroid gland
146) Ellie has recently experienced irregular mood swings. Her energy level has decreased, and she seems to have greater difficulty coping with stress. Based on her symptoms, it seems as though Ellie may have problems with her ________ glands. A) pituitary B) pineal C) adrenal D) thymus
147)
________ and ________ are secreted by the adrenal glands.
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A) Epinephrine; norepinephrine B) Estrogen; testosterone C) Estrogen; epinephrine D) Acetylcholine; testosterone
148) The ________ is defined as a dual-purpose gland under the stomach that performs both digestive and endocrine functions. A) pancreas B) pituitary gland C) adrenal gland D) hypothalamus
149) Which of the following play(s) an important role in insulin production, metabolism, and body weight? A) testes and ovaries B) adrenal gland C) pituitary gland D) pancreas
150)
Which of the following glands are involved in sexual development and reproduction? A) testes and ovaries B) adrenal glands C) pituitary glands D) pancreas
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151) When the axons of healthy neurons adjacent to damaged cells grow new branches, ________ has occurred. A) collateral sprouting B) substitution of function C) neurogenesis D) synaptic pruning
152) When Charlie was three years old, he fell off the slide at the playground and damaged the left hemisphere of his brain. Despite this injury, as Charlie grew older, he still retained some of his language abilities because the right hemisphere of his brain took control over the language function. Which of the following mechanisms of brain-damage repair is apparent in this example? A) collateral sprouting B) substitution of function C) neurogenesis D) lobotomy
153)
Which of the following is true about neurogenesis? A) Neurogenesis cannot occur in human adults. B) Researchers have found that neurogenesis does not occur in a few mammals such as
mice. C) Researchers have documented neurogenesis in only two brain regions in mammals: the hippocampus and the olfactory bulb. D) Recent research has revealed that exercise decreases neurogenesis.
154)
In the context of brain tissue implants, what is unique about stem cells?
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A) They survive for extended periods outside of the body. B) They can develop into most types of human cells. C) They are insusceptible to the effects of plasticity. D) They transfer genetic information into human cells.
155) In the human cell, threadlike structures that come in 23 pairs, one member of each pair originating from each parent, and that contain DNA are called A) chromosomes. B) ergosomes. C) ribosomes. D) polysomes.
156) ________ is a complex molecule in the cell's chromosomes that carries genetic information. A) RNA B) DNA C) Ribosome D) Polysome
157)
Genes A) consist of short segments of ribosomes composed of RNA. B) match and link small pieces of RNA. C) manufacture the proteins that are necessary for maintaining life. D) act independently and do not collaborate with another gene.
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158)
Which of the following refers to an organism's complete genetic material? A) genome B) action potential C) genotype D) phenotype
159)
According to ______, two brown-eyed parents can have a child with blue eyes. A) the dominant-recessive genes principle B) molecular genetics C) the genome-wide association method D) linkage analysis
160) ________ is a term used by scientists to describe the influences of multiple genes on behavior. A) Sequencing B) Polygenic inheritance C) Phenotype D) Genotype
161) ________ involves the manipulation of genes using technology to determine their effect on behavior.
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A) Molecular genetics B) Selective breeding C) Genome-wide association method D) Behavior genetics
162) ________ is a genetic method in which organisms are chosen for reproduction based on how much of a particular trait they display. A) Selective breeding B) Experimental evolution C) Polymorphism D) Natural selection
163) Matthew, a behavioral psychologist, studies the hunting ability of dogs. He controls the mating of dogs so they exhibit a particular characteristic of hunting. In this scenario, which of the following genetic methods is Matthew most likely using for his study? A) selective breeding B) natural selection C) the genome-wide association method D) polymorphism
164) A team of researchers collected DNA from a group of people with a particular form of cancer and compared it to DNA from a group of people who do not have the disease. They are hoping to determine whether certain genetic variations occur more frequently in those with the disease and, therefore, where on the human genome the disease-causing problem exists. Which of the following is true of the researchers?
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A) The researchers are using the genome-wide association method. B) The researchers are behavior geneticists. C) The researchers are undertaking an experiment in selective breeding. D) The researchers are molecular geneticists.
165) Dr. Cardinale is interested in the effects of heredity and environment on intelligence. She compares the similarity of IQ scores of identical twins to the similarity of IQ scores of fraternal twins. In this case, Dr. Cardinale is studying heredity's influence on behavior using A) human genome. B) molecular genetics. C) behavior genetics. D) selective breeding.
166)
A(n) ________ is a person's genetic heritage, his or her actual genetic material. A) prototype B) phenotype C) endophenotype D) genotype
167)
Molly's natural hair color is brown, but she has had it dyed blonde. Molly changed her A) phenotype. B) genotype. C) chromosomes. D) genetic heritage.
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168) Even if a gene has a strong relationship to a particular phenotype, that characteristic may not show itself if a person's experiences do not lead the gene to express itself. This reflects which of the following principles? A) gene x environment interaction B) dominant-recessive genes C) selective breeding D) genome-wide association
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 02_5e_King 1) The Nervous System 2) Neurons 3) Neurons 4) Structures of the Brain and Their Functions 5) Structures of the Brain and Their Functions 6) Structures of the Brain and Their Functions 7) The Endocrine System 8) The Endocrine System 9) Brain Damage, Plasticity, and Repair 10) Genetics and Behavior 11) B 12) A 13) B 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) D 18) C 19) D 20) A 21) C Version 1
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22) A 23) C 24) B 25) A 26) D 27) B 28) B 29) A 30) B 31) D 32) B 33) D 34) B 35) D 36) D 37) A 38) B 39) C 40) A 41) B 42) D 43) C 44) C 45) C 46) D 47) C 48) C 49) A 50) D 51) A Version 1
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52) A 53) B 54) B 55) B 56) C 57) B 58) A 59) B 60) C 61) D 62) C 63) B 64) D 65) D 66) B 67) B 68) B 69) A 70) C 71) C 72) A 73) A 74) C 75) C 76) B 77) B 78) B 79) D 80) C 81) A Version 1
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82) A 83) D 84) A 85) D 86) D 87) D 88) A 89) A 90) B 91) A 92) B 93) A 94) D 95) C 96) A 97) C 98) B 99) A 100) C 101) B 102) A 103) A 104) B 105) B 106) C 107) A 108) C 109) A 110) D 111) B Version 1
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112) B 113) A 114) B 115) C 116) D 117) D 118) D 119) C 120) C 121) B 122) A 123) A 124) D 125) C 126) A 127) A 128) B 129) A 130) D 131) A 132) C 133) A 134) D 135) B 136) B 137) A 138) D 139) A 140) A 141) C Version 1
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142) A 143) B 144) D 145) C 146) C 147) A 148) A 149) D 150) A 151) A 152) B 153) C 154) B 155) A 156) B 157) C 158) A 159) A 160) B 161) A 162) A 163) A 164) A 165) C 166) D 167) A 168) A
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CHAPTER 3 1) Compare and contrast the process of sensation and perception. What purpose or function does sensation and perception serve?
2)
Describe the distinction between an absolute threshold and a difference threshold.
3)
Explain inattentional blindness.
4)
What are rods and cones? Describe their functions in the eye.
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5) Describe the main principles of trichromatic theory. How does this theory explain color vision and color blindness?
6) Explain how even though images appear on the retina in two-dimensional space, we are able to perceive objects in three dimensions.
7) Describe the three types of perceptual constancies (size, shape, and color) and explain how they help us construct meaningful perceptions.
8)
Describe the structures and functions of the ear.
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9) Compare and contrast the two major theories of hearing, place theory and frequency theory.
10) Define the vestibular sense and kinesthetic sense and explain how these senses can allow us to monitor our body's position, balance, and movement.
11) ________ is the process of receiving stimulus energies from the external environment and transforming those energies into neural energy. A) Consciousness B) Perception C) Sensation D) Reception
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12) ________ is the process of organizing and interpreting sensory information so that it makes sense. A) Consciousness B) Perception C) Sensation D) Reception
13) As you walk barefoot in the park, your nose conveys to your brain the smell of the freshly cut grass; your skin sends information about the feel of the gentle breeze; and your ears transmit the sound of children laughing on the playground to your auditory cortex. This process of detecting stimuli in the environment is called A) sensation. B) selective attention. C) sensory adaptation. D) cognition.
14) While walking barefoot on a beach, the physical pain that one experiences when stepping on a jellyfish most accurately exemplifies A) sensation. B) perception. C) incubation. D) photoreception.
15) While walking in the woods, Rachel feels a sudden pain in her neck. Due to the nature of the pain, she recognizes that she has been stung by a bee. In this scenario, which of the following processes has most likely helped her identify the source of her pain?
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A) photoreception B) perception C) incubation D) transduction
16) Ali is learning how to read Spanish by speaking aloud one letter at a time. Ali is engaging in which of the following? A) top-down processing B) bottom-up processing C) sensory adaptation D) subliminal perception
17) The factor that differentiates top-down processing from bottom-up processing is that, topdown processing A) starts with cognitive processing in the brain. B) begins with the external world. C) means taking in information and trying to make sense of it. D) cannot happen in the absence of a stimulus.
18) Amelia has been working as a tea taster for approximately 15 years. She visits tea gardens in the country of Bodonia to grade teas according to their quality and taste. While tasting, she uses her prior knowledge to grade the teas. In this scenario, Amelia is most likely engaged in
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A) selective attention. B) top-down processing. C) sensory adaptation. D) perceptual constancy.
19)
The purpose of sensation and perception from an evolutionary perspective is A) to aid in adaptation that improves a species' chances for survival. B) increased cognitive capacity that sets humans apart from other animals. C) the development of expectations that help to put people in groups. D) the ability to mark differences in humans.
20)
Which of the following is true of sensory receptors?
A) Sensory receptors are specialized cells that are not selective. B) Sensory receptors send information to the environment, creating local electrical currents. C) Not all sensation begins with sensory receptors. D) Sensory receptors are the openings through which the brain and nervous system experience the world.
21) Which of the following explains the ability of an animal to distinguish among sight, sound, odor, taste, and touch? A) Sensory neurons (unlike all neurons) do not follow the all-or-nothing principle. B) The senses undergo a process known as synaesthesia that describes an experience in which one sense induces an experience in the same sense. C) Sensory receptors are selective and have different neural pathways. D) The receptor holds the frequency of action potentials sent to the brain.
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22) In the context of sensory receptors, the intensity of the stimulus is communicated to the brain by varying the ________ of action potentials sent to the brain. A) strength B) frequency C) depth D) lucidity
23)
Identify a true statement about mechanoreception. A) It plays a major role in the detection of light. B) It transmits information about chemical stimuli such as smell and taste. C) It plays a significant role in the detection of vibration and movement. D) It transmits information wherein the energy is perceived as sight.
24) Which of the following types of energy reception is most activated when a person is tasting food that is extremely salty? A) thermoreception B) chemoreception C) mechanoreception D) photoreception
25) Which of the following types of energy reception is most activated when a person is listening to a song?
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A) thermoreception B) chemoreception C) mechanoreception D) photoreception
26) Which of the following types of energy reception is most activated when a person is watching a silent movie? A) thermoreception B) chemoreception C) mechanoreception D) photoreception
27)
In the context of sensory receptors, chemoreception most likely occurs when a person A) punches a wall. B) stares at bright light. C) listens to radio. D) smells a rose.
28) In the context of sensation, which of the following types of energy reception is most activated when a person is tickled? A) thermoreception B) chemoreception C) mechanoreception D) photoreception
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29) The artist Wassily Kandinsky saw colors when he heard music and then painted what he saw onto a canvas. This best describes which of the following? A) synaesthesia B) histocompatibility complex C) kinesthetic senses D) parallel processing
30) Certain areas of the cerebral cortex are specialized to handle different sensory functions. Identify a true statement about the areas where the different sensory functions are processed. A) Information related to pain and touch is primarily processed in the temporal lobes. B) Audio information is mainly processed in the occipital lobes. C) Visual information is mainly processed in the occipital lobes. D) Information related to temperature is primarily processed in the temporal lobes.
31)
Identify an example of precognition. A) George senses a future event at a party. B) Miguel reads another person's mind. C) Sarah levitates at a park. D) Vincent performs a magic trick.
32)
Which of the following examples best illustrates extrasensory perception (ESP)?
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A) Selim performs a magic trick. B) Tony runs faster than the others in a race. C) Jeff reads another person's mind. D) Mehmet levitates in front of an audience.
33) You are studying in your room, and your neighbor is listening to the news on television at a loud volume in the adjacent room. When you gently request your neighbor to turn the volume down until you cannot hear it, you are asking your neighbor to make the volume less than your A) absolute threshold. B) difference threshold. C) minimum transduction level. D) basilar level.
34) Michael, a famous musician, is designing a new apartment that will serve as both his residence and his recording studio. Since the music studio shares a wall with his bedroom, Michael wants to be sure that the recording studio is soundproof. This means that Michael wants to be sure that any sound from the studio is well under his ________ while he is in his bedroom. A) absolute threshold B) difference threshold C) papillae D) minimum threshold
35) In the context of perception, ________ refers to the minimum amount of stimulus energy that a person can detect.
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A) just noticeable difference B) difference threshold C) absolute threshold D) just noticeable threshold
36) the
The smallest intensity of a stimulus that you can detect 50 percent of the time is known as
A) absolute threshold. B) sensory threshold. C) extrasensory perception. D) perceptual set.
37) Mihail is watching a play. He can hear the dialogue at all times except when the actors are whispering in a scene. This is because the actors' whispers are too soft for Mihail to hear. In other words, the whispers are most likely below Mihail's A) expectation. B) arbitrary value. C) absolute threshold level. D) upper limit.
38) Which of the following terms refers to the degree of dissimilarity that must exist between two stimuli before the dissimilarity is detected? A) perceptual constancy B) apparent movement C) depth perception D) difference threshold
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39) Which of the following principles states that two stimuli must differ by a constant minimum percentage to be perceived as different? A) Ricco's law B) the volley principle C) Weber's law D) perceptual attention
40) Linda usually listens to music on her phone while studying. When the volume is initially low, raising it by five decibels is highly noticeable. However, when the volume is initially high, increasing it by five decibels does not result in a noticeable change in sound. This phenomenon is best explained by A) the volley principle. B) Weber's law. C) perceptual constancy. D) selective attention.
41) Reem selects a new paint color for her bedroom. She notices a difference between sky blue and midnight blue. Reem's ability to distinguish between these two colors can best be explained by the concept of A) sensory adaptation. B) difference threshold. C) selective attention. D) top-down processing.
42) Which of the following refers to the detection of information below the level of conscious awareness? Version 1
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A) subliminal perception B) sensory adaptation C) top-down processing D) selective attention
43) Lauren is at the airport waiting to board her flight. She initiates a friendly conversation with another passenger. Despite the noise at the airport and multiple announcements being made at the same time, Lauren is able to focus on the passenger's voice. This scenario best demonstrates the A) cocktail-party effect. B) Stroop effect. C) volley principle. D) sound shadow.
44) In ________, the recognition of sensory stimuli depends on a variety of factors besides the physical intensity of the stimulus and the sensory abilities of the observer. A) opponent-process theory B) multiple-perceptual-context theory C) signal detection theory D) Weber's theory
45)
Identify a true statement about inattentional blindness. A) It is a form of a psychiatric and physiological disorder. B) It is type of color blindness. C) It is highly likely to occur when a task is difficult. D) It is predominantly associated with visual deficits or disorders.
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46) Emma enters her college auditorium that is almost packed to capacity and tries to find an empty seat. She fails to notice her friend waving to her in the crowd. This scenario most likely illustrates A) signal detection theory. B) inattentional blindness. C) subliminal perception. D) depth perception.
47) Which of the following statements about the relationship between sensation and perception and culture is NOT accurate? A) The mechanics of sensation differs depending on the culture in which one was raised. B) Perception can be shaped by the physical environment in which one lives. C) Culture influences which stimuli one attends to as they perceive the world. D) The tendency to miss changes that have occurred in a scene are influenced by the culture in which one was raised.
48) You arrive at your friend's apartment for a big party at the end of the college semester. When you first arrive, the music is so loud that it almost hurts your ears. After a couple of hours, even though the music is still as loud, it no longer bothers you or seems loud. This change in your sensations describes the process of A) auditory adjustment. B) transduction. C) sensory adaptation. D) sensory deprivation.
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49) When Mark started running for the first time, he could barely run two miles a day. After practicing rigorously for a month, he was able to run five miles a day. In this scenario, Mark's leg muscles adjusting to his running schedule best illustrates A) perceptual constancy. B) sensory adaptation. C) parallel processing. D) selective attention.
50) When Carlos first jumped into the pool, he thought that the water was very cold. Although the temperature of the pool remained constant, after a few minutes Carlos no longer complained about feeling cold. This change is his reaction to the temperature of the pool water is an example of A) sensory deprivation. B) a perceptual set. C) sensory adaptation. D) top-down processing.
51)
A predisposition or readiness to perceive something in a particular way is known as A) selective attention. B) a perceptual set. C) the cocktail-party effect. D) top-down processing.
52) George looks at the colors on a paint swatch card to select the right shade of red for the walls in his living room. He is able to differentiate between the various shades of red on the card and make a quick decision. His perception of the differences in the shades can be attributed to the ________ of light that are reflected from the card shades.
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A) gradients B) timbres C) frequencies D) wavelengths
53)
Whether wavelengths are all the same or a mix of waves determines A) the perceived saturation, or richness, of a stimulus. B) the distance from the peak of one wave to the peak of the next. C) the brightness of the stimulus. D) the response of the brain's visual system to the particular features of the stimulus.
54) Which part of an eye usually acts like the aperture of a camera, opening and closing depending on the amount of light required to enter the eye? A) the pupil B) the sclera C) the retina D) the iris
55)
The major purpose of the sclera is to A) help maintain the shape of the eye and protect it from injury. B) control the size of the pupil. C) focus light on the retina. D) record what we see and convert it to neural impulses for processing in the brain.
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56)
The iris is the
A) clear membrane just in front of the cornea through which light first passes. B) colored part of the eye that contains muscles that control the size of the pupil. C) white outer part of the eye that helps to maintain the shape of the eye and to protect it from injury. D) light-sensitive surface at the back of the eye that records what we see and converts it to neural impulses for processing in the brain.
57)
The pupil is the
A) white, outer part of the eye that helps to maintain the shape of the eye and to protect it from injury. B) colored part of the eye, which might be light blue in one individual and dark brown in another. C) opening in the center of the iris, which appears black. D) multilayered light-sensitive surface in the eye that records electromagnetic energy.
58) The multilayered light-sensitive surface in the eye that records electromagnetic energy and converts it to neural impulses for processing in the brain is known as the A) sclera. B) iris. C) retina. D) optic nerve.
59) The ________ is a transparent and somewhat flexible, disk-like structure filled with a gelatin-like material.
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A) retina B) lens C) optic nerve D) fovea
60)
Which of the followings statements is true of the rods in the eye's retina? A) Rods are very useful for color vision. B) Rods do not function at night. C) Rods are found everywhere except in the fovea. D) Rods do not function well under low illumination.
61)
In the context of the structure of the eye, the function of both the cornea and the lens is to
A) record electromagnetic energy and convert it into neural impulses for processing in the brain. B) help maintain the shape of the eye and to protect it from injury. C) bend the light falling on the surface of the eye just enough to focus it at the back. D) mainly regulate the amount of light that enters the eye.
62) Jane is having trouble sleeping. As she sits on her bed looking around the dark room, she notices that her peripheral vision seems to be better than her central vision. This is because vision in low light conditions A) depends on the rods. B) depends on the cones. C) does not require the use of the pupil. D) does not require the retina.
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63)
Cones A) are the receptors in the cornea that are insensitive to light. B) are the receptor cells in the retina that allow for color perception. C) function best at night or under low illumination conditions. D) are concentrated in the blind spot.
64)
Which of the following statements is true of the cones of the eye's retina? A) Cones require a larger amount of light to respond than the rods do. B) Cones are not light-sensitive. C) Cones are not found in the fovea. D) Cones operate best in the dark.
65) The ________ is the most important part of the retina and is a tiny area in the center of the retina at which vision is at its best. A) cornea B) fovea C) iris D) sclera
66) The axons of the ganglion cells make up the ________, which carries the visual information to the brain for further processing.
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A) fovea B) optic nerve C) lens D) iris
67) In the context of the visual system, which of the following scenarios best illustrates the functionality of rods in the retina? A) Shelby is window shopping on her favorite street during the day. B) Ray is reading under a bright light in the library. C) Marcus is trying to find his seat in the dark in a movie theater. D) Andrea is watching a football game on the television in his living room.
68) The ________ is the area on the retina where the optic nerve leaves the eye on its way to the brain, and it contains neither rods nor cones. A) cornea B) blind spot C) fovea D) optic chiasm
69)
In the visual system, the main function of rods and cones is to A) stretch and bend the light entering the eye. B) direct the optic nerve to the brain. C) adjust sensory thresholds. D) convert light into electrochemical impulses.
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70) ________ are neurons in the brain's visual system that respond to particular features of a stimulus. A) Optic chiasms B) Thermoreceptors C) Optic nerves D) Feature detectors
71)
In the visual system, which of the following statements is true of parallel processing? A) It is the transfer of information across a single neural pathway. B) It is a system that processes information about sensory qualities serially. C) It is the simultaneous distribution of information across different neural pathways. D) It first processes the shapes of different stimuli and then their color and movement.
72)
The purpose of parallel processing is to A) allow sensory information to travel rapidly through the brain. B) allow rods and cones to function simultaneously. C) prevent the misinterpretation of colors. D) use binocular cues to perceive depth.
73) In the context of visual perception, ________ is the bringing together and integration of what is processed by different neural pathways or cells.
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A) parallel processing B) binding C) depth perception D) perceptual integration
74)
Which of the following statements is true of Young and Helmholtz's trichromatic theory?
A) It states that there are four types of cones present in the human visual system. B) It states that there are three types of rods present in the human visual system. C) It is based on experiments showing that cells in the visual system respond to red-green and blue-yellow colors. D) It is based on experiments showing that a person with normal vision can match any color in the spectrum by combining three other wavelengths.
75) true?
Which of the following statements about the research study of defective color vision is
A) Most individuals who are color blind literally see the world in black and white and are unable to perceive any color other than black or white. B) Color blindness is more common among women than among men. C) The nature of color blindness depends on which of the three kinds of cones (green, red, and blue) is inoperative. D) Research on color blindness does not support the trichromatic theory of vision.
76) If Howard, a student, has the most common form of color blindness, he will have trouble distinguishing
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A) red from certain combinations of blue and white. B) white from certain combinations of red and green. C) orange from certain combinations of red and blue. D) green from certain combinations of blue and red.
77)
Which of the following is a disadvantage of the trichromatic theory of color vision? A) It cannot explain color blindness. B) It fails to adequately explain afterimages. C) It negates the role of cone receptors in color vision. D) It states that cones are sensitive to red, yellow, and blue colors.
78) Which of the following theories of vision best explains afterimages, which are sensations that remain after a stimulus is removed? A) trichromatic theory B) opponent-process theory C) frequency theory D) place theory
79) The ________ theory states that cells in the visual system respond to complementary pairs of red-green and blue-yellow colors; a given cell might be excited by red and inhibited by green, whereas another cell might be excited by yellow and inhibited by blue. A) trichromatic B) place C) frequency D) opponent-process
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80) The ________ is the principle by which we organize the perceptual field into stimuli that stand out and those that are left over. A) opponent-process theory B) trichromatic theory C) apparent movement D) figure-ground relationship
81)
One of gestalt psychology's main principles is that A) perception is the same as sensation. B) we learn to perceive the world through experience. C) the whole is different from the sum of its parts. D) perception is a neurological process.
82) When typing text messages, Juan usually leaves out the vowels in commonly used words. For example, he types "thn" instead of "then." The receiver is generally able to make sense of Juan's message. Which of the following principles most likely comes into play in this scenario? A) the gestalt principle of closure B) the gestalt principle of proximity C) the principle of size constancy D) the principle of shape constancy
83)
Which of the following is defined as the ability to perceive objects three-dimensionally?
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A) depth perception B) convergence C) subliminal perception D) parallel processing
84) ________ cues are depth cues that depend on the combination of the images in the left and right eyes and on the way the two eyes work together. A) Monocular B) Binocular C) Gradient D) Parallel
85) Which of the following terms refers to a binocular cue to depth and distance in which the muscle movements in an individual's two eyes provide information about how deep and/or far away something is? A) selective attention B) convergence C) parallel processing D) binding
86) ________ are powerful depth cues available from the image in one eye, either right or left, and under normal circumstances they can provide a compelling impression of depth. A) Thermoreceptors B) Feature detectors C) Binocular cues D) Monocular cues
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87) In the context of depth perception, familiar size and relative size, height in field of view, and shading are examples of A) binocular cues. B) monocular cues. C) stereograms. D) feature detectors.
88) In the context of examples of monocular cues, which of the following cues involves changes in perception due to the position of the light and the position of the viewer? A) texture gradient B) linear perspective C) overlap D) shading
89)
Which of the following occurs when people perceive a stationary object as moving? A) real movement B) apparent movement C) convergence D) depth perception
90) Wendy is traveling in a car from the city of Calibra to the city of Araba. After traveling for approximately three hours, she stops at a gas station. Sitting inside her car, she feels that her stationary car is moving when she looks at a car moving past hers. Which of the following is best illustrated in this scenario?
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A) selective attention B) apparent movement C) convergence D) binding
91) The recognition that objects are constant and unchanging even though sensory input about them is changing is known as A) parallel processing. B) bottom-up processing. C) selective attention. D) perceptual constancy.
92) Derek watches an airplane that is flying. The plane seems to get smaller as it goes farther away. Which of the following aspects of perceptual constancy allows Derek to understand that the airplane is not getting smaller? A) shape constancy B) size constancy C) apparent movement D) pattern recognition
93) Looking at a quarter in your hand casts a different image on your retina compared to looking at a quarter across the room, yet we know that the quarter is the same and retains the same dimensions. This phenomenon is known as
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A) perceptual constancy. B) figure-ground. C) the Ponzo illusion. D) Gestalt closure.
94) If we see a German shepherd standing 30 feet away from us, we recognize that it is just as big as it was when it was much closer to us. This is primarily due to A) size constancy. B) shape constancy. C) proximity. D) figure-ground.
95) When a person reads a book in a classroom, the black ink of the words on the white pages looks the same, regardless of the place, time, and lighting in the room. This best demonstrates the phenomenon of A) closure. B) shape constancy. C) color constancy. D) proximity.
96) A door is still perceived as a rectangle even after we view it from different angles. This is due to A) depth cues. B) retinal disparity. C) shape constancy. D) linear constancy.
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97)
A perceptual cue that leads to an error when taken out of context is referred to as a(n) A) optical illusion. B) perceptual set. C) monocular cue. D) absolute threshold.
98)
________ is the perceptual experience of the frequency of a sound. A) Amplitude B) Loudness C) Pitch D) Sound wave
99)
In the context of the nature of sound, wavelength determines a sound wave's A) frequency. B) amplitude. C) decibel level. D) timbre.
100) A sound wave's ________ refers to the amount of pressure the sound wave produces relative to a standard and is measured in decibels.
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A) pitch B) timbre C) tone D) amplitude
101) Manuel's ability to distinguish between a trumpet and a trombone and his mother's voice from his sister's voice is most likely due to the ________ of these stimuli. A) pitch B) amplitude C) decibels D) timbre
102)
Which of the following statements is true of the nature of sound? A) Frequency is the tone saturation, or the perceptual quality, of a sound. B) The amplitude of sound waves is inversely proportional to their loudness. C) High-frequency sounds are perceived as having a low pitch, and vice versa. D) Sound waves vary not only in frequency but also in amplitude.
103) Andrea, a customer care executive, is able to clearly determine if a caller is a child or an adult. Which of the following dimensions of sound plays the most important role in Andrea's ability to distinguish voices? A) loudness B) timbre C) amplitude D) frequency
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104) In the context of the structure of the ear, which of the following statements is true of the outer ear? A) It consists of the pinna and the external auditory canal. B) It is primarily responsible for channelizing and amplifying sound to the inner ear. C) It includes the oval window, cochlea, and basilar membrane. D) It converts sound waves into neural impulses and sends them to the brain.
105) The primary function of the ________ is to collect sounds and channel them into the interior of the ear. A) cochlea B) pinna C) cilia D) basilar membrane
106)
Identify the true statement about the pinna of the ear. A) It is funnel shaped and is the outer, visible part of the ear. B) It is responsible for separating the outer ear from the inner ear. C) It is the last structure through which the sound enters the ear. D) It typically vibrates in response to sounds.
107)
In the auditory system, which of the following statements is true of the middle ear?
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A) It consists of the pinna and the external auditory canal, which serve an important role in sound localization. B) It converts sound waves into neural impulses and sends them to the brain through the basilar membrane. C) It channels and amplifies sound through the eardrum, hammer, anvil, and stirrup to the inner ear. D) It includes the oval window, which transmits sound waves to the cochlea.
108)
The eardrum is located in the A) auditory cortex. B) inner ear. C) middle ear. D) outer ear.
109) In the context of the structure of the ear, which of the following is also known as the tympanic membrane, separates the outer ear from the middle ear, and vibrates in response to sound? A) the pinna B) the eardrum C) the cochlea D) the anvil
110)
In the context of the structure of the ear, identify a true statement about hair cells.
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A) They are able to regenerate automatically once destroyed. B) They are the sensory receptors of the ear. C) They line the pinna present in the ear of humans and other mammals. D) They are unlikely to be destroyed when exposed to loud noise.
111) When one hears any sound, one's eardrum vibrates. These vibrations are then transferred to the inner ear by the hammer, anvil, and stirrup. These three bones are all located in the A) outer ear. B) middle ear. C) inner ear. D) marginal ear.
112)
The cochlea is part of the A) pinnae. B) inner ear. C) middle ear. D) outer ear.
113) Samantha was injured in a skiing accident, and she lost her sense of hearing. The doctor who operated on her stated that the hair cells in Samantha's ears were damaged. In order to help Samantha detect sound again, the doctor should suggest A) proprioceptive feedback. B) subliminal perception. C) a cochlear implant. D) a hair transplant.
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114)
Which of the following statements about cochlear implants is FALSE?
A) A cochlear implant is a small electronic device that is surgically implanted in the ear and head. B) Cochlear implants, like hearing aids, work by amplifying sound. C) Cochlear implants stimulate whatever working auditory nerves the recipient has in his or her cochlea with electronic impulses. D) Cochlear implants are devices that were specifically developed to replace damaged hair cells.
115)
Place theory states that A) depth perception occurs because of a combination of binocular and monocular cues. B) color perception occurs because of different types of cones. C) a cluster of neurons "volley" neural impulses in rapid succession. D) each frequency produces vibrations at a particular spot on the basilar membrane.
116)
According to place theory,
A) the perception of a sound's frequency depends on how often the auditory nerve fires. B) low-frequency sounds are adequately explained but not high-frequency sounds. C) color perception is produced by three types of cone receptors in the retina. D) low-frequency vibrations maximally displace areas of the membrane closer to the tip of the cochlea.
117)
One criticism of place theory is that it
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A) adequately explains low-frequency sounds but not high-frequency sounds. B) adequately explains high-frequency sounds but not low-frequency sounds. C) does not explain findings from split-brain research. D) cannot explain the different functions of rods and cones.
118)
________ is needed to account for sounds above 1,000 times per second. A) A combination of frequency theory and place theory B) Place theory C) Decibel theory D) A combination of opponent-process theory and trichromatic theory
119)
In the context of the auditory system, frequency theory states that
A) the vibrations in the ear produced by auditory stimuli travel in one direction—from the tip of the cochlea to the oval window. B) each frequency produces vibrations at a particular spot on the basilar membrane of the inner ear. C) the perception of a sound's frequency depends on how often the auditory nerve fires. D) a cluster of nerve cells in the inner ear can fire neural impulses in rapid succession.
120)
In the context of the auditory system, identify a true statement about the volley principle. A) It is based on how the inner ear registers the frequency of sound. B) It states that a cluster of nerve cells fire neural impulses in unison. C) It addresses the limitations of the frequency theory of hearing. D) It better explains the perception of sounds below 1,000 times per second.
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121)
Which of the following is true of auditory processing in the brain?
A) Auditory information moves down the auditory pathway via electrochemical transmission in a less complex manner than does visual information in the visual pathway. B) In the auditory system, information about sound moves from the auditory nerve to the hair cells of the inner ear. C) Most of the auditory information from the left ear goes to the right side of the brain, but some also goes to the left side of the brain. D) Many synapses occur in the ascending auditory pathway, with all fibers proceeding directly to the hemisphere on the same side as the ear of reception.
122)
Differences in the timing and intensity of a sound A) help one to localize the sound. B) are best detected when heard through the same ear. C) are detected by the basilar membrane. D) have little impact on the way one experiences the sound.
123)
Touch, temperature, and pain make up the ______ senses. A) cutaneous B) chemical C) kinesthetic D) vestibular
124) Sensory nerve endings under the skin that respond to changes in temperature at or near the skin and provide input to keep the body's temperature at 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit are called
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A) thermoreceptors. B) feature detectors. C) monocular cues. D) the kinesthetic senses.
125) Warm thermoreceptors respond to the warming of the skin, and cold thermoreceptors respond to the cooling of the skin. When warm and cold receptors that are close to each other in the skin are stimulated simultaneously, we experience the sensation of A) hotness. B) coldness. C) both hotness and coldness. D) neither hotness nor coldness.
126)
Which of the following is true of the sense of touch?
A) Our sensitivity to touch is equally good across all areas of the skin. B) The brain devotes more space to analyzing touch signals coming from the legs than from the hands. C) In touch we detect mechanical energy, or pressure against the skin. D) Human toolmakers need very little touch discrimination in their hands.
127)
Which of the following is true of pain receptors?
A) They differ anatomically. B) They are similar in the type of physical stimuli to which they most readily react. C) They have a much lower threshold for firing than receptors for temperature and touch. D) They react mainly to physical stimuli that distort them or to chemical stimuli that irritate them into action.
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128) Two different neural pathways transmit pain messages to the brain: a fast pathway and a slow pathway. In the slow pathway, A) pain information travels through the limbic system. B) fibers connect directly with the thalamus and then to the motor and sensory areas of the cerebral cortex. C) a warning system provides immediate information about an injury to the brain. D) information about sharp, localized pain is transmitted to the brain.
129) In the ________, fibers connect directly with the thalamus and then to the motor and sensory areas of the cerebral cortex. A) slow pathway B) fast pathway C) kinesthetic sense D) vestibular sense
130) Jenny is a little girl whose experience of pain is different from other children her age. She does not have quick reactions to pain that help her avoid painful situations, such as pressing a pin between her fingers or biting her hands. However, she is able to feel the prolonged pain from these injuries. Which of the following provides the most likely explanation for Jenny's responsiveness to pain? A) Jenny's body releases no endorphins. B) Jenny's fast pathway does not function as well as her slow pathway. C) Jenny's brain is unable to receive the neural impulses from all pain receptors. D) Jenny's threshold for pain is low.
131)
Endorphins are
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A) neurotransmitters that function as natural opiates in producing pleasure and pain. B) believed to be released mainly in the synapses of the fast pathway. C) hormones that are exclusively involved in the kinesthetic sense. D) hormones that are solely involved in the vestibular sense.
132)
Which of the following statements about the perception of pain is accurate?
A) A person's experience of pain is influenced by their cultural and ethnic context. B) Individual variations in the perception of pain are solely physiological. C) Research on the perception of pain has been hindered because most of it has been conducted on female animals. D) Gender differences do not influence a person's perception of pain.
133)
The sensory receptors for taste called taste buds are located in the A) papillae. B) pinna. C) optic chiasm. D) olfactory epithelium.
134)
Which of the following actions involves the application of chemical senses? A) reading a book B) listening to music C) smelling a flower D) playing basketball
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135) The lining of the roof of the nasal cavity that contains a sheet of receptor cells for smell is known as the A) semicircular canal. B) papillae. C) olfactory epithelium. D) cochlea.
136) In the context of the chemical senses, which of the following is true of the neural pathway of smell? A) It passes through the thalamus. B) It does not go through the limbic system. C) It is the same as that of other sensory pathways. D) It goes straight to the olfactory areas in the temporal lobe.
137) The ________ senses provide information about movement, posture, and orientation, whereas the ________ senses provide information about balance and movement. A) kinesthetic; vestibular B) vestibular; kinesthetic C) limbic; thalamic D) thalamic; limbic
138)
Sensory receptors for the kinesthetic sense are
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A) located in the spinal cord. B) located in the thalamus. C) embedded in muscle fibers and joints. D) embedded in the small bones in the inner ear.
139)
Which of the following statements is true of the kinesthetic sense in humans? A) It is a form of chemical sense that deals with smell and taste. B) It works with vestibular senses to coordinate proprioceptive feedback. C) It provides information about balance and movement. D) It is transmitted along the same pathways to the brain as information about smell.
140) Abel knows that his legs are crossed and that his hands are on top of his head. This is a demonstration of A) central feedback. B) perceptual constancy. C) sensory adaptation. D) proprioceptive feedback.
141)
Which of the following statements is true about the semicircular canals of the inner ear?
A) The fluid movement in the semicircular canals results from the pressure sound exerts on the oval window. B) They line the inner wall of the cochlea, convert sound waves into neural impulses, and send them on to the brain. C) The hair cells in the semicircular canals trigger hearing impulses in the brain. D) They contain the sensory receptors that detect head motion caused when people tilt or move their heads and/or bodies.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 03_5e_King 1) How We Sense and Perceive the World 2) How We Sense and Perceive the World 3) How We Sense and Perceive the World 4) The Visual System 5) The Visual System 6) The Visual System 7) The Visual System 8) The Auditory System 9) The Auditory System 10) Other Senses 11) C 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) B 16) B 17) A 18) B 19) A 20) D 21) C Version 1
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22) B 23) C 24) B 25) C 26) D 27) D 28) C 29) A 30) C 31) A 32) C 33) A 34) A 35) C 36) A 37) C 38) D 39) C 40) B 41) B 42) A 43) A 44) C 45) C 46) B 47) A 48) C 49) B 50) C 51) B Version 1
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52) D 53) A 54) A 55) A 56) B 57) C 58) C 59) B 60) C 61) C 62) A 63) B 64) A 65) B 66) B 67) C 68) B 69) D 70) D 71) C 72) A 73) B 74) D 75) C 76) D 77) B 78) B 79) D 80) D 81) C Version 1
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82) A 83) A 84) B 85) B 86) D 87) B 88) D 89) B 90) B 91) D 92) B 93) A 94) A 95) C 96) C 97) A 98) C 99) A 100) D 101) D 102) D 103) D 104) A 105) B 106) A 107) C 108) C 109) B 110) B 111) B Version 1
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112) B 113) C 114) B 115) D 116) D 117) B 118) A 119) C 120) C 121) C 122) A 123) A 124) A 125) A 126) C 127) D 128) A 129) B 130) B 131) A 132) A 133) A 134) C 135) C 136) D 137) A 138) C 139) B 140) D 141) D Version 1
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CHAPTER 4 1)
Define the five levels of awareness and give an example of each.
2)
Explain the distinction between automatic and controlled processes.
3)
Explain how circadian rhythms affect physiological and psychological functioning.
4) Why do we sleep? What role does sleep play in influencing our psychological and physical health?
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5) Garrett pulled an "all-nighter" before his chemistry exam. What consequences will Garrett likely experience as a result of staying up all night to study? Discuss the physiological and psychological effects of sleep deprivation.
6) Compare and contrast rapid eye movement (REM) and non–rapid eye movement (nonREM) sleep. Do we dream during each type of sleep? If so, are there distinctions between REM and non-REM dreams?
7) Compare and contrast the two major theories of dreaming (the cognitive theory of dreaming and the activation-synthesis theory of dreaming).
8) Differentiate between psychological dependence and physical dependence on psychoactive drugs.
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9) Differentiate between depressants, stimulants, and hallucinogens. Explain how these drugs affect physical and psychological functioning.
10) Describe the nature of hypnosis, individual variations in hypnosis, and application of hypnosis.
11)
William James described the mind as
A) a stream of consciousness that consists of a continuous flow of changing sensations, images, thoughts, and feelings. B) a logical information-processing system with memory buffer, short-term and longterm storage, and a complex mechanism for directing attention. C) an unconscious drive that satisfies primal biological urges. D) a stable, slow, and predictable set of sensations.
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12) Your English professor gives you some advice on how to cure writer's block. She tells you to sit at your computer for 15 minutes and write whatever comes into your head. You don't censor yourself or worry about spelling or grammar. Instead, you merely translate your thoughts into words. This technique will allow your ________ to flow. A) river of dreams B) circadian rhythm C) stream of consciousness D) level of awareness
13)
To describe the processes by which we think about thinking, psychologists use the term A) metacognition. B) executive function. C) reticular activation. D) activation synthesis.
14) ________ is an individual's awareness of external events and internal sensations under a condition of arousal. A) Consciousness B) Imagination C) Somnolence D) Laterality
15)
Which of the following components are essential to the definition of consciousness?
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A) awareness and responsiveness B) awareness and arousal C) tolerance and arousal D) alertness and tolerance
16) ________ is a state of being conscious of what is going on, whereas ________ is a physiological state of being engaged with the environment. A) Arousal; awareness B) Awareness; arousal C) Arousal; alertness D) Alertness; arousal
17) Awareness and arousal are associated with different parts of the brain. Awareness involves the ________, whereas arousal is determined by the ________. A) amygdala; hippocampus B) hippocampus; corpus callosum C) corpus callosum; hippocampus D) prefrontal cortex; reticular activating system
18) ________ is a network of structures including the brain stem, medulla, and thalamus that determines arousal, one aspect of consciousness. A) Reticular activating system B) Vasomotor center C) Hypothalamospinal tract D) Pallidothalamic tract
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19) The phrase ________ refers to individuals' understanding that they and others think, feel, perceive, and have private experiences. A) theory of activation-synthesis B) theory of mechanism C) theory of awareness D) theory of mind
20) Developmental psychologists have used a procedure called the false belief task to examine children's A) theory of activation-synthesis. B) theory of mechanism. C) theory of relativity. D) theory of mind.
21)
Autism spectrum disorder is characterized by deficits in A) social communication and interaction. B) physical abilities. C) awareness and arousal. D) subconscious and unconscious awareness
22) What is the reasoning behind the approach to autism spectrum disorder that suggests that people on the autism spectrum have a deficit in theory of mind?
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A) Theory of mind is essential to social capacities like empathy and sympathy. B) Theory of mind is a key component in intelligence. C) Theory of mind is essential to the elements of subconscious awareness. D) Theory of mind best describes unconscious thought processes.
23) Robbing someone of their humanity by treating them with profound unfairness and bias is referred to as A) dehumanization. B) activation synthesis. C) unconcious bias. D) subconcious incubation.
24) ________ are the most alert states of human consciousness, during which individuals actively focus their efforts toward a goal. A) Automatic processes B) Controlled processes C) Altered processes D) Subconscious processes
25) Michael, a college student, recently purchased a new smartphone. He was reading the user manual for the smartphone and did not pay attention to his friend who was talking to him. In the context of the levels of awareness, Michael's state of focused awareness best illustrates the idea of
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A) controlled processes. B) automatic processes. C) altered processes. D) subconscious processes.
26) Which of the following individuals is exhibiting the highest level of conscious awareness? A) Maria, who is working out an algebra problem on a piece of paper B) Keiko, who is daydreaming about her upcoming vacation this weekend C) Jackson, who is hypnotized in his therapist's office D) Benjamin, who is asleep
27) Shida buys a new smartphone and tries exploring the phone's features as soon as he reaches home. While doing so, he fails to hear the doorbell, which has been ringing for five minutes. This illustrates the concept of A) controlled processes. B) automatic processes. C) altered states of consciousness. D) subconscious awareness.
28)
Identify a true statement about controlled processes.
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A) They require less conscious effort than automatic processes. B) They include concentrating on a specific aspect of experience while also paying attention to others. C) They are faster than automatic processes and are less likely to involve the prefrontal cortex. D) They involve individuals actively focusing their efforts toward a goal.
29) Which of the following refers to a person's capacity to harness consciousness by focusing in on specific thoughts while ignoring others? A) executive function B) automatic process C) reticular activation D) activation synthesis
30)
Identify a true statement about automatic processes. A) They require the highest amount of attention than any other type of processes. B) They need more conscious effort than controlled processes. C) They interfere with other ongoing activities. D) They are considered to be conscious behaviors.
31) A student is attending a lecture on the topic of semantics. He is able to concentrate on the lecture and is also able to type a message to his friend on his smartphone without looking at the phone. In the context of the levels of awareness, his state of consciousness best illustrates the concept of
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A) automatic processes. B) controlled processes. C) executive function. D) altered awareness.
32)
Controlled processes A) do not require selective attention. B) occur during REM sleep. C) are the lowest or least alert state of human consciousness. D) require more conscious effort than automatic processes.
33) The ability to type a text message on a cell phone without even looking at the keypad is an example of A) complete lack of awareness. B) executive function. C) automatic processing. D) an altered state of consciousness.
34)
Automatic processes A) require lower levels of attention than controlled processes. B) need more conscious effort than controlled processes. C) interfere with other ongoing activities. D) are unconscious behaviors.
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35) States of consciousness that require little attention and do not interfere with other ongoing activities are called A) controlled processes. B) automatic processes. C) subconscious processes. D) executive processes.
36) Daydreaming would be considered an example of which of the following levels of awareness? A) higher-level consciousness B) lower-level consciousness C) subconscious awareness D) no awareness
37)
Which of the following statements is true of daydreaming?
A) Daydreaming lies between the subconscious awareness state and the altered state of consciousness. B) Daydreaming occurs when the individual is doing something that requires full attention. C) Daydreaming most often occurs in the form of mind wandering. D) Daydreaming makes the mind completely idle and inactive.
38) During a class lecture, Veronica fancies herself to be attending a Bon Jovi concert in Miami. She is most likely
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A) in an altered state of consciousness. B) exhibiting controlled processing. C) daydreaming. D) lacking awareness.
39) An aspiring musician is commuting to work by bus. While on the bus, he starts imagining himself playing his guitar in a live concert with his favorite musicians. In the context of the levels of awareness, his state of awareness best illustrates A) daydreaming. B) controlled processes. C) automatic processes. D) executive function.
40)
Altered states of consciousness can be produced by A) fatigue. B) daydreaming. C) sleeping. D) dreaming.
41)
Drugs, trauma, fever, and sensory deprivation are among the things that can produce A) automatic processing. B) sleep apnea. C) higher-level consciousness. D) altered states of consciousness.
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42) Losing one's sense of self-consciousness and hallucinating specifically during the use of drugs exemplifies A) daydreaming. B) automatic processes. C) altered states of consciousness. D) subconscious awareness.
43) A patient has dissociative identity disorder. Dr. Harper hypnotizes her to interact with the other personalities that she exhibits as a result of her condition. The patient is most likely A) exhibiting increased level of consciousness. B) demonstrating automatic processing. C) in an altered state of consciousness. D) representing higher executive function.
44)
Sleeping would be considered an example of which of the following levels of awareness? A) higher-level consciousness B) lower-level consciousness C) subconscious awareness D) no awareness
45) It is the end of the month and Cindy is yet to pay several bills, but she does not have much money left. She spends most of the day thinking how she is going to make the payments. Later, while watching TV, she finds a solution to her problem. Cindy is demonstrating
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A) metacognition. B) meditation. C) hypnosis. D) incubation.
46) Lorenzo, a student, is in the process of finding a solution to a math problem. He struggles to solve the problem until an idea pops into his head that helps him find the solution. Which of the following levels of awareness is best illustrated in this scenario? A) subconscious awareness B) altered state of consciousness C) higher-level consciousness D) no awareness
47) According to Sigmund Freud, ________ is a reservoir of unacceptable wishes, feelings, and thoughts that are beyond awareness. A) unconscious thought B) conscious thought C) controlled thought D) subconscious thought
48) Which of the following would be an example of no awareness or an "unconscious" state of mind? A) daydreaming about your upcoming vacation B) sleeping C) mapping out the location of your vacation destination D) being anesthetized
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49) Lukas is anesthetized before a surgery. In the context of the levels of awareness, which of the following levels best illustrates Lukas's state? A) no awareness B) higher-level consciousness C) altered state of consciousness D) lower-level consciousness
50) ________ is a natural state of rest for the body and mind that involves the reversible loss of consciousness. A) Sleep B) Awareness C) Unconscious thought D) Executive function
51) ________ are periodic physiological fluctuations in the body, such as the rise and fall of hormones and accelerated/ decelerated cycles of brain activity, that can influence behavior. A) Controlled processes B) Biological rhythms C) Automatic processes D) Executive functions
52)
The biological cycle that regulates people's pattern of sleep is called a
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A) circadian rhythm. B) myoclonic event. C) non-REM sequence. D) dormant rhythm.
53) day?
Which of the following best represents the fluctuations of body temperature in a 24-hour
A) circadian rhythms B) dormant rhythms C) cellular respiration D) myoclonic event
54) The ________ is a small brain structure that uses input from the retina to synchronize its own rhythm with the daily cycle of light and dark. A) cerebellum B) suprachiasmatic nucleus C) prefrontal cortex D) corpus callosum
55)
Jet lag may be best explained by the A) elevation of serotonin in the prefrontal cortex. B) dramatic changes in environmental stimuli. C) dietary changes. D) effect of time shifts on the circadian rhythm.
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56) Which of the following circumstances is most likely to desynchronize the biological clock? A) changing work shifts B) regular sleep C) regular intervals between meals D) daily workout
57) Your friend just started working the night shift at the post office. This change in her work hours A) will result in decreasing levels of cortisol in the body. B) might lead to an increased probability of daydreaming. C) may cause Helen to be at increased risk for heart disease. D) will result in longer hours of sleep.
58) A call center employee working day shift has been asked to work a night shift on Tuesday. During her night shift, she falls asleep at her desk around midnight. Which of the following can best explain her behavior? A) Her biological clock has become desynchronized. B) She is experiencing an altered state of consciousness. C) She is demonstrating incubation. D) Her metacognition level has significantly increased.
59) From an evolutionary perspective, which of the following is true of theories on the need for sleep?
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A) They propose that sleep developed because animals needed to protect themselves at night. B) They propose that animals are active at night to avoid becoming other animals' prey. C) They propose that animals that are likely to serve as someone else's food sleep the most of all. D) They propose that the search for food and water is the safest when it is dark.
60)
Which of the following statements is true of the role of sleep in brain plasticity? A) Sleep enhances synaptic connections between neurons. B) Lack of sleep leads to stronger connections in the brain. C) Lack of sleep helps the brain possess a clear representation of new learning. D) Sleep plays a minimal role in the consolidation of memory.
61) Psychological research on sleep and memory has found that staying up all night to study for an exam is likely to A) increase memory performance. B) decrease memory performance. C) improve test scores. D) increase long-term memory.
62)
According to experts, how many hours of sleep should adults get each night? A) 7 to 9 B) 5 to 8 C) 4 to 6 D) 9 to 12
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63) While attending a lecture, Lea starts yawning and fights hard to stay awake. She reclines in her chair and within minutes she falls asleep with her head jerking upward at short intervals. Lea is in A) stage N1 sleep. B) stage N2 sleep. C) stage N3 sleep. D) stage N4 sleep.
64)
Sleep spindles are defining characteristic of ________ sleep. A) stage N1 B) stage N2 C) stage N3 D) stage N4
65) ________ is characterized by myoclonic jerks and theta waves, whereas ________ is/are characterized by delta waves. A) Stage W; Stage R sleep B) Stage N4 sleep; stage N2 sleep C) Stage N1 sleep; stage N3 sleep D) Stage N3 sleep; stage N1 sleep
66) When you go to check on your sleeping child, you observe that his eyes are moving back and forth rapidly under his eyelids. It is likely that he is
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A) in the lowest level of sleep. B) dreaming. C) in a hypnagogic state. D) experiencing night terrors.
67)
Which of the following statements is true of REM sleep? A) REM sleep is an active stage of sleep during which dreaming does not occur. B) The longer the period of REM sleep, the more likely the person will report dreaming. C) REM sleep is characterized by a lack of rapid eye movement. D) The EEG pattern for REM sleep shows slow waves similar to those of stage N3 sleep.
68)
Which of the following is true of a night's sleep? A) Individuals normally spend about 20 percent of sleep in light sleep. B) REM sleep decreases as the night progresses. C) Deep sleep is much greater in the first half than in the second half of a night's sleep. D) Most REM sleep takes place during stage N1 of a night's sleep
69) Compared with dreams that occur during the REM stage, those that occur during the nonREM stage are A) more emotional. B) more visual. C) less vivid. D) longer.
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70)
Which of the following is a neurotransmitter involved in sleep? A) serotonin B) nicotine C) dopamine D) methamphetamine
71)
Which of the following is NOT a neurotransmitter that is involved in sleep? A) serotonin B) norepinephrine C) acetylcholine D) cortisol
72) When fighting an infection, the body's cells produce ______, which are powerfully sleep inducing. A) cytokines B) GABA C) theta waves D) acetylcholine
73)
Insomnia is a disorder involving A) the temporary cessation of breathing during sleep. B) sudden uncontrollable seizures. C) periodic attacks of uncontrollable sleepiness. D) difficulty falling asleep, waking up during the night, or waking up too early.
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74) Jerry is in the process of getting a divorce and is having trouble at his job. He previously did not have any issues with sleeping but is currently experiencing difficulties. Lately, he has experienced serious difficulty falling asleep and staying asleep. Which disorder has Jerry most likely developed? A) somniloquy B) narcolepsy C) insomnia D) somnambulism
75) A student is preparing to take an exam. He is stressed about the exam and is unable to fall asleep. Even if he falls asleep, he often wakes up during the night or wakes up too early. In this scenario, which of the following disorders is the cause of his condition? A) insomnia B) narcolepsy C) somnambulism D) somniloquy
76) Moesha has been feeling very stressed about an important project at work. She has difficulty falling asleep and awakens frequently during the night. Moesha is most likely suffering from A) somnambulism. B) somniloquy. C) narcolepsy. D) insomnia.
77)
Which of the following statements is true of somnambulism?
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A) It is the formal term for sleep talking. B) It occurs during the deepest stages of sleep. C) It takes place only when a person is dreaming. D) It is highly unlikely to occur when a person is sleep deprived.
78)
Sleepwalking occurs during ________ of the sleep cycle. A) stage N1 B) stage N2 C) stage N3 D) stage R
79)
Identify a true statement about sleepwalking. A) It occurs usually due to the use of sleeping pills. B) It involves a sudden, overpowering urge to sleep. C) It is more likely to occur when individuals are sleep deprived. D) It is a symptom of sleep apnea.
80)
Falling asleep all of a sudden while talking to a friend is most likely an example of A) somniloquy. B) narcolepsy. C) insomnia. D) somnambulism.
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81) Lily has been battling insomnia for a very long time. She recently began taking medication to help her sleep. After several weeks of taking the drug, she noticed that she no longer fits into most of her clothes. She realizes that she has put on 10 pounds. Which of the following medications is she most likely taking? A) Valium B) Tylenol C) Ambien D) Prosom
82)
Night terrors typically occur A) among older adults. B) during non-REM sleep. C) following sleep apnea. D) within three hours of falling asleep.
83)
Night terrors differ from nightmares in that night terrors A) are less common than nightmares. B) are frightening dreams that awaken a dreamer. C) are absent during slow-wave sleep. D) occur during the REM sleep.
84) ________ are frightening dreams that awaken a dreamer from REM sleep. ________ involve sudden arousal from sleep and an intense physiological fear reaction (e.g., screaming, heavy breathing, and perspiration).
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A) Nightmares; Night terrors B) Night terrors; Somnambulisms C) Somnambulisms; Nightmares D) Somnambulisms; Night terrors
85)
Which of the following statements is true of nightmares? A) Nightmares' content invariably involves danger. B) Nightmares are very rare. C) Nightmares involve a sudden, overpowering urge to sleep. D) Nightmares peak at 30 to 40 years of age and then decline.
86) Nolan and his husband were standing in the middle of the kitchen discussing vacation plans when he suddenly crashed to the floor in a deep REM sleep. Nolan may suffer from A) sleep apnea. B) insomnia. C) narcolepsy. D) night terrors.
87) Miguel returns home after work on his birthday. As soon as he steps into his house, his children surprise him and gift him a watch. As a result of the excitement, he suddenly falls to the floor and enters rapid eye movement (REM) sleep. Which of the following disorders is best illustrated in this scenario? A) narcolepsy B) insomnia C) sleep apnea D) somnambulism
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88)
Narcolepsy is a sleep disorder characterized by A) sleepwalking and sleep talking. B) an anxious, panicky feeling. C) falling asleep suddenly and uncontrollably. D) excessively long sleep periods.
89)
Narcolepsy is a sleep disorder in which individuals A) fall unexpectedly into a deep sleep in the middle of an activity. B) have difficulty falling asleep at the hour at which they would like. C) wake up earlier than desired, sometimes several times a night. D) stop breathing while they are sleeping.
90) ________ is a sleep disorder in which individuals stop breathing because the windpipe fails to open or because brain processes involved in respiration fail to work properly. A) Sleep apnea B) Narcolepsy C) Night terrors D) Sleep deprivation syndrome
91) Kevin suffers from ________. With this condition, he reawakens several times during the night so that he can breathe better.
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A) somnambulism B) narcolepsy C) night terrors D) sleep apnea
92) Which of the following disorders is characterized by the temporary cessation of breathing while asleep? A) narcolepsy B) sleep apnea C) night terror D) insomnia
93) Mr. Owens always sleeps restlessly, snoring and gasping during the night. It is most likely that Mr. Owens suffers from A) sleep apnea. B) narcolepsy. C) night terror. D) insomnia.
94) Grandpa is napping in his recliner, snoring loudly, when suddenly he stops snoring. You look to see if he woke up, but he is still asleep and appears to not be breathing. For a moment you wonder if he's dead, but suddenly he snorts and resumes snoring. Grandpa is displaying signs of
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A) insomnia. B) somnambulism. C) narcolepsy. D) sleep apnea.
95) According to Freud, ________ is the surface content of a dream, containing dream symbols that disguise the dream's true meaning. A) manifest content B) latent content C) inherent content D) idle content
96) According to Freud, which of the following statements is true of the manifest content of a dream? A) It expresses a wish in disguised form. B) It is the dream's hidden content. C) It is the dream's true meaning. D) It involves the dream's unconscious meaning.
97) According to Freud, ________ is a dream's hidden content—its unconscious and true meaning. A) latent content B) manifest content C) evident content D) conspicuous content
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98) According to Freud, which of the following statements is true of the latent content of a dream? A) To get to the latent meaning of the dream, a person should analyze the dream images. B) It is the surface content of the dream. C) The latent content of the dream includes symbols that disguise the dream's true meaning. D) It expresses a wish in disguised form.
99)
According to Sigmund Freud, dreams symbolize A) our conscious thoughts and feelings. B) unconscious wishes and hidden desires. C) random neurological activity. D) our biological urges and needs.
100) Homer goes to his psychotherapist and describes his recent dreams where he flies like an eagle through the sky. His therapist listens and then offers the interpretation that this dream signifies Homer's unconscious desires to be free of his family obligations. Homer's therapist is displaying an interest in A) the manifest content of Homer's dream. B) the latent content of Homer's dream. C) Homer's neurological dream activity. D) Homer's conscious thoughts and desires.
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101) A man turned to his partner when he awoke and said, "You won't believe what I dreamed. I was being chased by men in suits; they were riding horses. They had long narrow briefcases, and they were trying to run me down!" If the man described his dream to a psychotherapist, the therapist might tell him that what he had dreamed about was his fear of financial issues and not being able to pay all his bills. Which element in this scenario represents the latent content of the dream? A) the briefcases the men were carrying B) Gary's concern over monthly bills C) the horses D) the therapist's plan to help Gary
102) ________ proposes that one can understand dreaming by applying the same intellectual concepts used in studying the waking mind. A) Cognitive theory of dreaming B) Activation-synthesis theory C) Theory of cognitive development D) Continual-activation theory of dreaming
103)
Identify a true statement about the cognitive theory of dreaming.
A) It rests on the idea that dreams are essentially subconscious cognitive processing. B) It refers to dreams as cognitive trash. C) It is based on the search for the hidden, symbolic content of dreams that Sigmund Freud sought. D) It states that dreaming occurs when the cerebral cortex synthesizes neural signals generated from activity in the lower part of the brain.
104) What theory of dreaming proposes that dreaming involves information processing and memory? Version 1
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A) Sigmund Freud's theory B) William James's theory C) cognitive theory of dreaming D) activation-synthesis theory of dreaming
105)
Which of the following statements is true of the cognitive theory of dreaming?
A) The theory rests on the idea that dreams are essentially conscious cognitive processing. B) In cognitive theory, there is an essential search for the hidden, symbolic content of dreams. C) Dreams are viewed as dramatizations of general life concerns that are similar to relaxed daydreams under the cognitive theory. D) According to the theory, very unusual aspects of dreams—such as odd activities, strange images, and sudden scene shifts—cannot be understood.
106) According to ________, dreaming occurs when the cerebral cortex synthesizes neural signals generated from activity in the lower part of the brain. A) the activation-synthesis theory B) Freud's psychoanalytic theory C) the cognitive-synthesis theory D) circadian-synthesizes theory
107)
Which of the following statements is true according to activation-synthesis theory?
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A) Dreams result from the brain's attempts to find logic in random brain activity that occurs during sleep. B) Dreaming occurs when the thalamus synthesizes neural signals generated from activity in the lower part of the brain. C) It proposes that one can understand dreaming by applying the same cognitive concepts used in studying the waking mind. D) It rests on the idea that dreams are essentially subconscious cognitive processing.
108)
A criticism of activation-synthesis theory is that A) neural activity begins with the brain. B) dreams are random. C) life experiences stimulate and shape dreaming more than the theory acknowledges. D) dreams are caused by neurotransmitter levels.
109)
Which of the following statements is true of psychoactive drugs?
A) They act on the nervous system to alter consciousness, modify perceptions, and change moods. B) They are specifically used to diagnose, cure, treat, or prevent disease. C) They are medicines sold directly to a consumer without a prescription from a healthcare professional. D) They are drugs used in the treatment and prevention of bacterial infections.
110)
Which of the following statements about psychoactive drug use is FALSE?
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A) Illicit drug use is a global problem. B) The United States has the lowest rate of adolescent drug use of any industrialized nation. C) Drug use among teens is associated with unplanned pregnancy, depression, and school-related difficulties. D) There has been declines in adolescent use of illicitly drugs since the 1990s.
111) The need to take increasing amounts of a drug to get the same effect that a lower dose used to bring is called A) dependence. B) addiction. C) tolerance. D) psychoactivity.
112) Bo smokes marijuana. When he first started smoking marijuana, he used to get high off one joint, but now he needs to smoke more and more to get the same high. This is an example of A) withdrawal. B) tolerance. C) dopamine dependence. D) serotonin dependence.
113) Santiago, a student, is introduced to smoking cigarettes by his friends. After smoking a cigarette for the first time, he experiences an immense high of nicotine. However, after two months of smoking, he is able to experience the same high only after smoking six cigarettes. Which of the following best explains Santiago's need to smoke an increased number of cigarettes to get the same effect?
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A) tolerance B) withdrawal C) revocation D) dopamine dependence
114) ________ drug dependence is the physiological need for a drug that causes unpleasant withdrawal symptoms and a craving for the drug when it is discontinued, whereas ________ drug dependence is the strong desire to repeat the use of a drug for emotional reasons. A) Psychological; physical B) Physical; psychological C) Dissociated; neodissociated D) Neodissociated; dissociated
115) Your mother must always have an early morning cup of coffee. She usually has several more cups throughout the day. If she misses her daily doses of coffee, she gets a headache. The fact that your mother experiences headaches when she discontinues the use of caffeine is an example of A) physical dependence. B) psychological dependence. C) a circadian rhythm anomaly. D) a hypnogogic reverie.
116) Ian repeatedly uses heroin to reduce stress and enhance the feeling of well-being. Ian's behavior exemplifies
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A) psychological dependence. B) narcolepsy. C) insomnia. D) increased tolerance.
117)
Drug addiction occurs when a(n) A) individual will lie about taking a drug. B) drug no longer causes a person to get high, but they take it again. C) physical and/or psychological dependence develops. D) person experiences unpleasant physical symptoms when using a drug.
118)
Drug addiction occurs when A) an individual will lie about taking a drug. B) a drug no longer causes a person to get high, but they take it again. C) physical and/or psychological dependence develops. D) a person experiences unpleasant physical symptoms when using a drug.
119)
Why do psychoactive drugs make people feel good? A) They increase epinephrine in the brain's reward pathways. B) They decrease epinephrine in the brain's reward pathways. C) They increase dopamine levels in the brain's reward pathways. D) They decrease dopamine levels in the brain's reward pathways.
120)
The brain's reward pathway is located in the
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A) ventral tegmental area and nucleus accumbens. B) hippocampus and hypothalamus. C) occipital lobe and temporal lobe. D) thalamus and limbic system.
121) ________ is a psychological disorder in which a person's use of a psychoactive drug affects his or her health and abilities to work and engage in social relationships. A) Tolerance B) Dysthymia C) Substance use disorder D) Persistent depressive disorder
122)
Psychoactive drugs that slow down mental and physical activity are called A) inhalants. B) stimulants. C) hallucinogens. D) depressants.
123)
Tranquilizers and alcohol are A) stimulants. B) hallucinogens. C) depressants. D) amphetamines.
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124)
Tranquilizers, sedatives, and opiates all belong to the category of ________ drugs. A) stimulant B) depressant C) hallucinogenic D) inhalant
125) College students who consume large amounts of alcohol on weekends are abusing which type of drugs? A) depressants B) stimulants C) hallucinogens D) amphetamines
126)
What is the most widely used drug in the United States? A) marijuana B) heroin C) caffeine D) alcohol
127)
Which of the following statements is true of alcohol?
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A) Alcohol is a type of hallucinogen. B) Alcohol decreases the concentration of the neurotransmitter gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA), which is widely distributed in many brain areas. C) Alcohol strongly affects women more than men because of the differences in body fat and stomach enzymes. D) Alcohol is a powerful drug that acts on the body primarily as a stimulant and speeds up the brain's activities.
128) What is the most common negative consequence that binge-drinking college students create for themselves? A) damaging property B) getting hurt C) getting into trouble with campus or local police D) missing class
129) What is the most common negative consequence that binge-drinking college students create for others? A) They have serious arguments with others. B) They push or assault others. C) They damage other people's property. D) They interrupt other people's study or sleep.
130) According to research on alcoholism, which of the following individuals is most likely to become dependent on alcohol?
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A) Edward, who began drinking at age 40 B) Sophia, who began drinking at age 65 C) Aaron, who began drinking at age 12 with the neighborhood kids D) Michael, who began drinking in graduate school at age 25
131)
Depressants ________, whereas stimulants ________. A) slow down central nervous system's activity; increase central nervous system's activity B) increase central nervous system's activity; slow down central nervous system's activity C) modify a person's perceptual experience; slow down central nervous system's activity D) slow down central nervous system's activity; modify a person's perceptual experience
132) ________, such as Nembutal and Seconal, are depressant drugs that decrease central nervous system activity. A) Barbiturates B) Amphetamines C) Hallucinogens D) Stimulants
133)
Identify the true statement about barbiturates. A) They are most often used in suicide attempts. B) They enhance decision making. C) They improve memory retention. D) They are most effective in curing somnambulism and somniloquy.
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134)
Which of the following is true of opioids? A) They decrease the risk of exposure to HIV. B) They aggravate body pain. C) They depress the central nervous system's activity. D) They decrease a person's appetite for food and sex.
135)
Sleeping pills are classified as a(n) A) barbiturate. B) opiate. C) hallucinogen. D) stimulant.
136) ________, such as Valium, are depressant drugs that reduce anxiety and induce relaxation. A) Tranquilizers B) Opiates C) Hallucinogens D) Stimulants
137) Thora's mother suffers from frequent panic attacks. The doctor has prescribed Xanax (a depressant drug that reduces anxiety and induces relaxation). Xanax is classified as a(n) A) stimulant. B) tranquilizer. C) opiate. D) hallucinogen.
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138)
________ are a class of drugs that act on the brain's endorphin receptors. A) Amphetamines B) Hallucinogens C) Stimulants D) Opioids
139) Ricardo broke his wrist while rollerblading in the park. Since the accident he has been taking morphine, a powerful pain killer. What type of drug is Ricardo taking? A) barbiturate B) opioid C) hallucinogen D) stimulant
140)
Which of the following is true of opioid use in the United States?
A) In one year, prescription opioids accounted for more deaths than heroin and cocaine combined. B) Opioids are an illegal substance that can only be obtained illicitly. C) Unlike opioids found on the street, prescription opioids are not addictive. D) For most people, opioids are the only treatment for acute pain.
141) Gloria can't get through the day without several cups of coffee and energy drinks. She says she needs the caffeine to function normally. What type of drug is Gloria dependent on?
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A) stimulant B) depressant C) hallucinogen D) narcotic
142) Shabnam reported a boost in energy and a sense of well-being after taking a drug. Medical tests revealed increased activity of her central nervous system. The drug she took is most likely a A) depressant. B) tranquilizer. C) hallucinogen. D) stimulant.
143)
Which of the following statements is true of caffeine? A) It is the most widely used type of depressant drug. B) It decreases central nervous system activity. C) It is derived from natural components of plants. D) It is a main psychoactive ingredient of smokeless tobacco.
144)
The most widely used stimulants in the world are ________ and ________. A) marijuana; cocaine B) marijuana; valium C) alcohol; cocaine D) caffeine; nicotine
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145) A longtime coffee drinker complains of pounding headaches and lowered mood when she skips her coffee in the morning. What is the likely cause of these complaints? A) removal of a psychoactive drug from diet B) a change in GABA C) psychological addiction D) a placebo effect
146)
Nicotine raises ________ levels in the brain. A) serotonin B) GABA C) dopamine D) epinephrine
147) The student council is putting together a school-wide health campaign. With regard to vaping, which of the following messages would be accurate? A) Vaping negatively effects the developing brain and can lead to permanent lung damage. B) If you are going to vape, you should just vape flavors. C) Vaping is a safe alternative to smoking cigarettes. D) While the aerosols from vaping are not harmful to the human body, they can yellow your teeth.
148)
What type of drug is crystal meth?
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A) opiate B) depressant C) amphetamine D) hallucinogen
149) A man takes a drug that increases his feeling of euphoria. The drug also enhances his level of activity and pleasurable feelings. Which of the following drugs did he most likely take? A) amphetamine B) barbiturate C) heroin D) valium
150) As the effects of cocaine use wear off, what causes the agitated, depressed mood that usually follows? A) a depletion of certain neurotransmitters in the brain B) a loss of memory function related to use C) the dizziness, nausea, and tremors that last for hours D) the anesthetic properties of the drug
151) Jacob's friend Kiko loves the warmth she feels for everybody when she takes Ecstasy. Jacob warns her that repeated use of this drug could have lasting negative effects on the neurotransmitter A) serotonin. B) endorphin. C) adenosine. D) GABA.
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152) Which category of drugs modifies a person's perceptual experiences and produces visual images that are not real? A) stimulants B) depressants C) hallucinogens D) narcotics
153)
Marijuana and LSD (lysergic acid diethylamide) are considered to be A) depressants. B) stimulants. C) hallucinogens. D) barbiturates.
154)
Which of the following statements is true of marijuana?
A) The active ingredient in marijuana is THC, which specifically affects serotonin. B) Repeated usage of marijuana can enhance attention and memory. C) Marijuana disrupts the membranes of neurons but does not affect the functioning of hormones. D) Marijuana can trigger increased sensitivity to sounds, tastes, smells, and colors.
155)
Identify the true statement about LSD (lysergic acid diethylamide).
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A) It acts predominantly on the neurotransmitter dopamine and has little effect on the serotonin levels. B) It induces images that are sometimes pleasurable and sometimes grotesque. C) It is the most powerful type of depressant. D) It can produce striking perceptual changes only when taken in high doses.
156) A man who frequently takes drugs keeps complaining that his drapes are growing tentacles that are threatening to strangle him. He is most likely taking A) alcohol. B) Ecstasy. C) crack. D) lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD).
157) ________ is an altered state of consciousness or psychological state of altered attention and expectation in which the individual is unusually receptive to suggestions. A) Hypnosis B) Meditation C) Caffeinism D) Extrasensory perception (ESP)
158) Mitchell wants to quit smoking, so his therapist decides to try hypnosis as a form of treatment. What is the first step that the therapist will most likely take when attempting to hypnotize Mitchell?
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A) She will tell Mitchell what to expect in the hypnotic state. B) She will minimize distractions in her office and make Mitchell comfortable. C) She will tell Mitchell to concentrate on the swinging pendulum on her desk. D) She will suggest certain events or feelings she knows will occur, such as "Your eyes are getting tired."
159) In a television reality show, Trevor, the host, puts one of his contestants in a trance and asks her to pretend to be a famous singer. The contestant starts singing with confidence even though she has never sung publicly before. The contestant is in a state of A) somniloquy. B) somnambulism. C) hypnosis. D) meditation.
160)
Which of the following statements is true of hypnosis?
A) Individuals in a hypnotic state are unreceptive to external suggestions. B) Widespread areas of the cerebral cortex are disabled when individuals are in a hypnotic state. C) Individuals in a hypnotic state show characteristics of people in a relaxed waking state. D) Hypnosis produces a state of consciousness dissimilar to other states of consciousness.
161)
The divided-consciousness view of hypnosis holds that
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A) hypnosis can block sensory input. B) the hypnotized person behaves the way he or she believes that a hypnotized person should behave. C) hypnosis involves the retention of a single state of consciousness. D) hypnosis involves a special state of consciousness in which consciousness is split into separate components.
162) Hilgard's view that hypnosis involves a splitting of consciousness into two separate components, one of which follows the hypnotist's commands and the other of which acts as a "hidden observer," is known as A) the social-cognitive-behavior view of hypnosis. B) time line therapy. C) the divided-consciousness view of hypnosis. D) interactive-phenomenological perspective.
163) ________ is a normal state in which the hypnotized person behaves the way they believe that a hypnotized person should behave. A) The social cognitive behavior view of hypnosis B) Time line therapy C) The divided-consciousness view of hypnosis D) Interactive-phenomenological perspective
164)
Which of the following statements about the effectiveness of hypnosis is FALSE?
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A) Hypnosis is most effective when combined with psychotherapy. B) Research does not support the claim that hypnosis can reduce the experience of pain. C) Hypnosis is a commonly used technique for treating problems such as overeating, diabetes, and smoking. D) Psychology and medicine recognize hypnosis as a legitimate process.
165) ________ involves attaining a peaceful state of mind in which thoughts are not occupied by worry. A) Meditation B) Hypnosis C) Self-actualization D) Stage 1 sleep
166)
Which of the following statements is true of meditation?
A) In meditation, a meditator is mindfully present to his or her thoughts and feelings but is not consumed by them. B) Meditation is an altered state of consciousness in which a meditator is unusually receptive to suggestions. C) It symbolizes unconscious wishes and uncovers a meditator's hidden desires. D) It symbolizes a reservoir of unacceptable wishes, feelings, and thoughts that are beyond a meditator's conscious awareness.
167) ________ meditation has beneficial effects on a variety of conditions, including depression, panic attacks, anxiety, chronic pain, stress, and psoriasis.
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A) View B) Concentration C) Soul D) Mindfulness
168)
Which of the following statements is true of meditation?
A) Meditation is an altered state of consciousness or a psychological state of altered attention and expectation in which the individual is unusually receptive to suggestions. B) As a physiological state, meditation shows qualities of sleep and wakefulness, yet it is distinct from both. C) The meditator is ignorant of his or her thoughts and feelings and is, therefore, not consumed by them. D) A meditative state is exactly similar to the hypnotic state.
169) As Carlton is just about to fall asleep, he experiences an overwhelming feeling of wellness and a sense that everything is going to work out. This state of mind is referred to as A) high consciousness. B) hypnagogic reverie. C) self-actualization. D) activation-synthesis.
170)
Meditation has been compared to ________, the relaxed sense that all is well. A) high consciousness B) hypnagogic reverie C) self-actualization D) activation-synthesis
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171)
Which of the following regions of the brain are involved in meditation? A) the basal ganglia and prefrontal cortex B) the amygdala and hippocampus C) the hippocampus and corpus callosum D) Broca's area and the hypothalamus
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 04_5e_King 1) The Nature of Consciousness 2) The Nature of Consciousness 3) Sleep and Dreams 4) Sleep and Dreams 5) Sleep and Dreams 6) Sleep and Dreams 7) Sleep and Dreams 8) Psychoactive Drugs 9) Psychoactive Drugs 10) Hypnosis 11) A 12) C 13) A 14) A 15) B 16) B 17) D 18) A 19) D 20) D 21) A Version 1
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22) A 23) A 24) B 25) A 26) A 27) A 28) D 29) A 30) D 31) A 32) D 33) C 34) A 35) B 36) B 37) C 38) C 39) A 40) A 41) D 42) C 43) C 44) C 45) D 46) A 47) A 48) D 49) A 50) A 51) B Version 1
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52) A 53) A 54) B 55) D 56) A 57) C 58) A 59) A 60) A 61) B 62) A 63) A 64) B 65) C 66) B 67) B 68) C 69) C 70) A 71) D 72) A 73) D 74) C 75) A 76) D 77) B 78) C 79) C 80) B 81) C Version 1
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82) B 83) A 84) A 85) A 86) C 87) A 88) C 89) A 90) A 91) D 92) B 93) A 94) D 95) A 96) A 97) A 98) A 99) B 100) B 101) B 102) A 103) A 104) C 105) C 106) A 107) A 108) C 109) A 110) B 111) C Version 1
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112) B 113) A 114) B 115) A 116) A 117) C 118) C 119) C 120) A 121) C 122) D 123) C 124) B 125) A 126) C 127) C 128) D 129) D 130) C 131) A 132) A 133) A 134) C 135) A 136) A 137) B 138) D 139) B 140) A 141) A Version 1
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142) D 143) C 144) D 145) A 146) C 147) A 148) C 149) A 150) A 151) A 152) C 153) C 154) D 155) B 156) D 157) A 158) B 159) C 160) C 161) D 162) C 163) A 164) B 165) A 166) A 167) D 168) B 169) B 170) B 171) A Version 1
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CHAPTER 5 1)
Distinguish between associative learning and observational learning.
2) Your fraternity brother knows that you are a psychology major and asks you to explain why he starts smoking again after quitting on several occasions. Describe in detail the classical conditioning components involved in smoking (the conditioned stimulus, unconditioned stimulus, conditioned response, and unconditioned response) and how spontaneous recovery can cause the reoccurrence of the smoking habit.
3)
Explain the significance of Thorndike's law of effect.
4)
Distinguish between primary and secondary reinforcers. Give an example of each.
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5)
Discuss the fixed-ratio and variable-ratio schedule of reinforcement.
6) Patricia wants to decrease the frequency of her teenage daughter's misbehavior. Give examples of positive and negative punishment techniques Patricia might consider in order to encourage her daughter to behave properly.
7) What is the difference between positive reinforcement and negative reinforcement and positive punishment and negative punishment?
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8) Shawn is trying to teach his son Cameron how to hit a baseball. Shawn begins hitting some baseballs to show his son how to swing. Cameron watches several hits and then decides to try it out for himself. According to Albert Bandura's model of observational learning, what four processes must occur for Cameron to learn how to hit a baseball?
9)
What is insight learning?
10)
How does culture influence learning?
11)
________ is a theory of learning that focuses solely on observable actions and responses. A) Psychoanalysis B) Behaviorism C) Humanism D) Endosymbiosis
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12) Your psychology assignment is to observe and list the behaviors of your relatives that indicate learning. Which of the following should be included in your list? A) Your sister bumps into a door when she has a high fever. B) Your father falls asleep while watching TV. C) Your little brother whines whenever he wants something. D) Your mother takes a nap after spending long hours surfing the Internet.
13)
From the behaviorist perspective,
A) understanding the causes of behavior requires looking at the environmental factors that produce them. B) the principles of learning behavior are different for both animals and humans. C) internal states such as thinking, wishing, and hoping are of greater importance than observable behaviors. D) learning is defined as a rapid and unobservable change in behavior.
14)
Learning that occurs when an organism makes a connection between two events is called A) latent learning. B) observational learning. C) associative learning. D) rote learning.
15)
In classical conditioning, organisms learn the association between two
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A) organizations. B) stimuli. C) motives. D) considerations.
16) Lightning is associated with thunder and regularly precedes it. Thus, when we see lightning, we often anticipate that we will hear thunder soon afterward. This is an example of A) classical conditioning. B) observational learning. C) operant conditioning. D) stimulus experience.
17) A woman feels sick every time she travels by air. She associates flying with physical illness and, as a result, hates air travel. She also finds it difficult to watch movies with airplanes or read books about airplanes because they make her uncomfortable. This scenario illustrates the learning process of A) operant conditioning. B) classical conditioning. C) observational learning. D) implicit learning.
18)
Organisms learn the association between a behavior and a consequence in A) classical conditioning. B) operant conditioning. C) latent learning. D) discovery learning.
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19)
Which of the following statements is true of observational learning? A) It occurs when people make an association between two events. B) It rarely relies on mental processes. C) It takes place when a person notices and imitates another's behavior. D) It is unlikely to be used in educational settings.
20)
Which of the following is true regarding learning through operant conditioning? A) Organisms learn the association between two stimuli. B) Organisms learn behaviors implicitly, without being reinforced. C) Organisms learn the association between behaviors and their consequences. D) Organisms learn to act by imitating others.
21) An eighth-grade chemistry teacher plays a video in class to demonstrate the process of conducting a basic experiment in chemistry. Her students are required to watch the video attentively, remember all the steps and safety instructions, and reproduce the same experiment independently. Which of the following is best illustrated when the students reproduce the experiment? A) operant conditioning B) classical conditioning C) observational learning D) latent learning
22)
Which of the following is true of observational learning?
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A) In observational learning, the learner does not reproduce the actions of another person. B) In observational learning, there is no relatively permanent change in behavior. C) Observational learning is one way in which human infants acquire skills. D) Observational learning helps the learner form associations between events.
23) The adage "When in Rome, do as the Romans do" best reflects which of the following types of learning? A) operant conditioning B) classical conditioning C) observational learning D) latent learning
24) ________ is a learning process in which a neutral stimulus becomes associated with an innately meaningful stimulus and acquires the capacity to elicit a similar response. A) Operant conditioning B) Classical conditioning C) Latent learning D) Observational learning
25)
Salivation in response to food is an example of A) latent learning. B) a learned response. C) a reflex. D) insight learning.
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26)
Pallahvi's eyes water every time she chops onions. Her response is an example of a A) habit. B) reflex. C) conditioned response. D) voluntary behavior.
27)
In Pavlov's experiment, the dog automatically salivated to food because food is a(n) A) unconditioned stimulus (US). B) conditioned stimulus (CS). C) unconditioned response (UR). D) conditioned response (CR).
28)
Which of the following is the best example of an unconditioned response? A) throwing a temper tantrum B) sneezing after sniffing pepper C) raising your hand before asking a question in a classroom setting D) learning to ride a bike by watching your older brother do so
29) Dr. Meyer is known for his difficult pop quizzes. Typically, before he conducts a pop quiz for his students, he shuts the classroom door. Students soon learn to anticipate a pop quiz whenever Dr. Meyer closes the classroom door. In this scenario, the act of closing the door has become a(n)
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A) unconditioned stimulus (US). B) conditioned stimulus (CS). C) unconditioned response (UR). D) conditioned response (CR).
30) Andrea is the mother of Leo, a six-month-old child. She wants to introduce vegetables in Leo's diet. As Leo is used to having lentil soup as his evening snack, Andrea prepares lentil soup with vegetables in it and makes Leo taste it. He does not like the taste of the soup and refuses to have it. After that day, he refuses to have even plain lentil soup. In this scenario, which of the following acts as the conditioned stimulus? A) Andrea B) Leo C) the vegetables D) the soup
31)
In classical conditioning, the ________ is unlearned, but the ________ is learned. A) unconditioned stimulus; conditioned stimulus B) unconditioned response; conditioned response C) conditioned response; conditioned stimulus D) conditioned stimulus; unconditioned stimulus
32) Before the bell was ever presented, Pavlov's dog salivated each time food was presented. In this situation, salivation was the
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A) unconditioned response. B) conditioned stimulus. C) unconditioned stimulus. D) conditioned response.
33)
Pavlov's dog salivated to the sound of a bell because the bell had become A) a reflex. B) a conditioned response. C) associated with food. D) an unconditioned stimulus for food.
34) In Pavlov's classic study on classical conditioning, the bell was a ________ before conditioning and became a(n) ________ after conditioning had occurred. A) conditioned stimulus; neutral stimulus B) conditioned stimulus; unconditioned stimulus C) neutral stimulus; conditioned stimulus D) neutral stimulus; reinforcer stimulus
35) ________ is the initial learning of the connection between the unconditioned stimulus and the conditioned stimulus when these two stimuli are paired. A) Generalization B) Spontaneous recovery C) Extinction D) Acquisition
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36)
Which of the following statements is true of acquisition in classical conditioning?
A) During acquisition, a new stimulus that is similar to the original conditioned stimulus elicits a response similar to the conditioned response. B) During acquisition, the conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented followed by the unconditioned stimulus. C) During acquisition, organisms learn to respond to certain stimuli and not others. D) During acquisition, the conditioned response weakens when the unconditioned stimulus is absent.
37) ________ means that the conditioned stimulus (CS) must not only precede the unconditioned stimulus (US) closely in time, it must also serve as a reliable indicator that the unconditioned stimulus (US) is on its way. A) Contiguity B) Contingency C) Synergy D) Reliability
38) In the context of classical conditioning, ________ means that the conditioned stimulus and the unconditioned stimulus are presented very close together in time—even a mere fraction of a second. A) contiguity B) contingency C) eventuality D) synergy
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39) ________ in classical conditioning is the tendency of a new stimulus that is similar to the original conditioned stimulus to elicit a response that is similar to the conditioned response. A) Generalization B) Discrimination C) Spontaneous recovery D) Latent learning
40) Marko's dog, Gus, sits whenever Marko says, "Sit." Marko now wants to teach Gus a new trick. He wants to teach him to bark each time he says, "Speak." But whenever Marko says, "Speak," Gus sits. The dog's behavior is most likely an example of A) generalization. B) habituation. C) contiguous occurrences. D) contingent occurrences.
41) ________ in classical conditioning is the process of learning to respond to certain stimuli and not others. A) Generalization B) Discrimination C) Spontaneous recovery D) Latent learning
42) ________ in classical conditioning is the weakening of the conditioned response when the unconditioned stimulus is absent.
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A) Generalization B) Discrimination C) Extinction D) Latent learning
43) Pavlov's dog salivates each time he hears the sound of a bell. However, after several trials of salivating to the bell and not receiving any food, the dog stops salivating. Which of the following best explains the change in the dog's behavior? A) Unconditioned response has been triggered. B) Extinction has occurred. C) Generalization has occurred. D) Spontaneous recovery has not been triggered.
44) The process in classical conditioning by which a conditioned response can recur after a time delay, without further conditioning is called A) generalization. B) discrimination. C) spontaneous recovery. D) latent learning.
45) Jamal loved swimming and swam for two hours every day. However, he had an accident and was advised to avoid any strenuous physical activity for two years. When he first went near a swimming pool after two years, he visualized himself swimming and experimenting with different strokes. He eventually jumped into the pool and swam for an hour. In the context of classical conditioning, this scenario best exemplifies
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A) habituation. B) spontaneous recovery. C) aversive conditioning. D) counterconditioning.
46) Watson and Rayner used a ________ along with an unconditioned stimulus in order to condition fear in little Albert. A) loud noise B) sealskin coat C) white rat D) black rabbit
47) In the experiment with little Albert conducted by Watson and Rayner, ________ was used as an unconditioned response for conditioning Albert to fear a white rat. A) fire B) a loud noise C) pain D) a sealskin coat
48) In John Watson's experiment on classical conditioning, a white rat was used as a(n) ________ to condition Albert. A) conditioned stimulus B) unconditioned stimulus C) conditioned response D) unconditioned response
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49) Little Albert was conditioned by John Watson to fear a white rat. Eventually, however, Albert became fearful of any stimulus that looked white and furry. He became scared not only of rats, but also of rabbits, dogs, and even sealskin coats. This study illustrates A) extinction. B) stimulus acquisition in classical conditioning. C) stimulus generalization in classical conditioning. D) spontaneous recovery.
50)
Which of the following statements is true about classical conditioning in humans? A) It is better at explaining voluntary behavior than is operant conditioning. B) It is a type of learning that requires constant awareness and effort. C) It is unlikely to be incorporated into therapies for treating phobias. D) It is likely to be at work whenever people engage in mindless, habitual behavior.
51) ________ is a classical conditioning procedure for changing the relationship between a conditioned stimulus and its conditioned response. A) Reinforced conditioning B) Generalizing C) Expectancy learning D) Counterconditioning
52) Psychologists have applied classical conditioning to helping individuals unlearn certain feelings and behaviors. Which of the following procedures is most likely used for helping individuals unlearn feelings and behaviors?
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A) bottom-up processing B) binding C) shaping D) counterconditioning
53) ________ is a form of treatment that involves repeated pairings of a stimulus with a very unpleasant stimulus. A) Instinctive drift B) Aversive conditioning C) Expectancy learning D) Generalizing
54) Robert went to a friend's place last night and had tequila. Unaware, he consumed a few shots that contained nausea-inducing substances. He spent the entire night vomiting and had a severe headache when he woke up the next morning. This incidence happened several times in the prior months as well. According to the principles of classical conditioning, how is Robert most likely to react when the same friend invites him again? A) He will feel happy about the fact that he has friends to hang around with. B) He will want to try having tequila shots at home first. C) He will feel aversive and be unwilling to go to the party. D) He will instead invite all of his friends over to his place.
55) In a treatment to reduce drinking, every time a person drinks an alcoholic beverage, he or she also consumes a mixture that induces nausea. In classical conditioning terminology, the nausea-inducing agent is the
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A) conditioned stimulus. B) unconditioned stimulus. C) neutral stimulus. D) reinforced stimulus.
56) Juan, a 27-year-old, is a marketing manager. He often complains of tiredness and lethargy. However, his medical reports do not suggest any deficiency or illness. His wife, Emma, is a nurse. She asks him to take a pill every night. The pill is actually a simple candy. After 15 days, Juan says that he feels much better and energetic. This scenario best exemplifies A) positive reinforcement. B) aversive conditioning. C) spontaneous recovery. D) the placebo effect.
57) Classical conditioning can produce ________, which is a decrease in the production of antibodies that can lower a person's ability to fight disease. A) immunosuppression B) depression C) habituation D) conditioned oppression
58)
Taste aversion is an example of A) immunosuppression. B) classical conditioning. C) observational learning. D) habituation.
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59)
Which of the following helps to explain drug habituation? A) operant conditioning B) latent learning C) classical conditioning D) discovery learning
60) Classical conditioning helps to explain ________, which refers to the decreased responsiveness to a stimulus after repeated presentations. A) immunosuppression B) habituation C) aversive conditioning D) counterconditioning
61) Over time, a person is likely to develop a tolerance for a psychoactive drug and need a higher dose of the substance to get the same effect. This scenario exemplifies A) learned helplessness. B) habituation. C) gratification. D) negative reinforcement.
62) While watching television, you can see how advertisers cunningly apply classicalconditioning principles to consumers by showing ads that pair something pleasant with a product in hope that you, the viewer, will experience those positive feelings toward the product. In this situation, the product is the
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A) unconditioned response. B) conditioned response. C) unconditioned stimulus. D) conditioned stimulus.
63) Which of the following is more effective in explaining voluntary behaviors rather than involuntary behaviors? A) discovery learning B) latent learning C) classical conditioning D) operant conditioning
64)
Classical conditioning explains how neutral stimuli become associated with A) learned behavior. B) instrumental behavior. C) involuntary responses. D) conditioned responses.
65)
In operant conditioning,
A) the consequences of behavior produce change in the probability of the behavior's occurrence. B) which is a form of respondent behavior, behavior occurs in automatic response to a stimulus. C) neutral stimuli become associated with unlearned, involuntary responses. D) behavior is a consequence of the conditioned stimulus (CS).
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66) Some bears kept in zoos allow veterinarians to routinely conduct total body checkups. These bears open their mouths for teeth cleaning and present their paws for nail clipping. Your friend wonders how anyone could ever get these dangerous animals to be so cooperative without anesthesia. You, a psychology student, quickly summarize that the bears had most likely undergone A) discovery learning. B) classical conditioning. C) secondary reinforcement. D) operant conditioning.
67) In the Water Kingdom Amusement Park, when two sea lions throw and catch balls on their nose, they are rewarded with fish after they successfully complete the act. The sea lions have been trained to perform this behavior through A) classical conditioning. B) operant conditioning. C) observational learning. D) insight learning
68)
Identify an accurate statement related to operant conditioning. A) Operant conditioning is unaffected by the contingency factor. B) Operant conditioning is a form of associative learning. C) Operant conditioning was first described by Ivan Pavlov. D) Operant conditioning is also known as observational learning.
69)
According to Thorndike's law of effect,
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A) species-specific biological predispositions favor some learning styles over others. B) behaviors followed by satisfying outcomes are strengthened and behaviors followed by frustrating outcomes are weakened. C) negative behaviors can be easily extinguished through classical conditioning. D) an organism will recover a previously conditioned response when placed in a novel context.
70)
Thorndike's law of effect is important because
A) it focuses on the fact that continuous reinforcement characterizes most life experiences. B) it presents the basic idea that the consequences of a behavior influence the likelihood of that behavior's recurrence. C) it believes that operant conditioning is much better than classical conditioning in explaining unlearned, involuntary responses. D) it assumes that contingency plays an insignificant role in operant conditioning.
71)
Which of the following statements about B. F. Skinner is FALSE?
A) Skinner conducted many of his studies with animals as opposed to human subjects. B) Skinner made every effort to study organisms under precisely controlled conditions. C) Skinner believed that the mechanisms of learning for humans are different than the mechanisms of learning for animals. D) Skinner trained pigeons to pilot missiles during World War II and congratulated himself on the degree of control he was able to exercise over the pigeons.
72) In operant conditioning, ________ refers to rewarding successive approximations of a desired behavior.
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A) contingency B) extinction C) contiguity D) shaping
73)
In the context of shaping, operant conditioning relies on the notion that
A) repeated pairings of a stimulus with a very unpleasant stimulus result in aversive conditioning. B) a behavior is likely to be repeated if it is followed by a reward. C) a behavior is likely to be avoided if it is associated with a positive stimulus. D) an organism learns that it has no control over negative outcomes.
74) The process by which a stimulus or an event following a particular behavior increases the probability that the behavior will happen again is called A) generalization. B) extinction. C) reinforcement. D) specialization.
75) The presentation of a stimulus following a given behavior in order to increase the frequency of that behavior is called A) negative reinforcement. B) positive reinforcement. C) positive punishment. D) negative punishment.
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76) The removal of a stimulus following a given behavior in order to increase the frequency of that behavior is called A) negative reinforcement. B) positive reinforcement. C) positive punishment. D) negative punishment.
77) Mark, a high school student, dislikes the fact that his mother yells at him in the morning to wake him up. His mother usually wakes up at 5:30 A.M., and he tries to wake up at around 5:15 A.M. to avoid listening to his mother's yelling. In the context of operant conditioning, which of the following is exemplified in this scenario? A) generalization B) negative reinforcement C) spontaneous recovery D) positive punishment
78) Liam is studying in his room for an exam but is disturbed by the loud music from his neighbor's house. He closes the window so that he can no longer hear the loud music. In this scenario, Liam's behavior demonstrates ________ in operant conditioning. A) negative reinforcement B) positive reinforcement C) positive punishment D) negative punishment
79) In the context of operant conditioning, identify a true statement about negative reinforcement. Version 1
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A) It involves presenting something that will increase the likelihood of a negative behavior's recurrence. B) It means following a behavior with the removal of something. C) It involves associating a positive behavior with a negative stimulus. D) It means decreasing the frequency of a negative behavior.
80) Which of the following is very powerful in the sense that a behavior is maintained even in the absence of any aversive stimulus? A) positive reinforcement B) aversive conditioning C) latent learning D) avoidance learning
81) A student receives one bad grade in his exams. However, he always studies hard thereafter to avoid the negative outcome of bad grades in the future. Even when the bad grade is no longer present as a stimulus, the pattern of behavior sticks. In the context of operant conditioning, this scenario exemplifies A) positive reinforcement. B) aversive conditioning. C) latent learning. D) avoidance learning.
82) Experience with unavoidable negative stimuli can lead to a particular deficit in avoidance learning called ________, in which an organism, exposed to uncontrollable aversive stimuli, learns that it has no control over negative outcomes.
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A) instinctive drift B) extinction C) learned helplessness D) learned generalization
83) Shirley has been a victim of domestic violence for approximately nine years, but has been unable to walk out of the relationship. In the context of operant conditioning, which of the following concepts is most likely to aid her therapist understand her situation better? A) spontaneous recovery B) discrimination C) learned helplessness D) avoidance learning
84) A(n) ________ reinforcer is innately satisfying, and it does not require any learning on the organism's part to make it pleasurable. A) secondary B) primary C) tertiary D) intermediary
85)
Which of the following is the best example of a primary reinforcer? A) praise B) money C) food D) attention
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86)
A ________ reinforcer acquires its positive value through an organism's experience. A) secondary B) primary C) tertiary D) intermediary
87)
________ is considered a secondary reinforcer. A) Food B) Water C) Money D) Sexual satisfaction
88) In operant conditioning, ________ means performing a reinforced behavior in a different situation. A) rationalization B) extinction C) discrimination D) generalization
89) Bubba, a very smart German shepherd, has learned that if he barks at the neighbors while they are grilling, they will throw him a candy. However, his owner, Paul, does not want Bubba to eat candies as it is not good for his health. He does not allow Bubba to eat candies from the neighbors. When Paul is in the yard, Bubba never barks at the neighbors. In operant conditioning terminology, Bubba is demonstrating that he can
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A) generalize. B) manage with secondary reinforcers when primary reinforcers are not available. C) learn a partial-reinforcement schedule. D) discriminate.
90)
In operant conditioning, discrimination occurs when
A) a behavior is no longer reinforced and decreases in frequency. B) an organism responds appropriately to stimuli that signal that a behavior will or will not be reinforced. C) an organism performs a reinforced behavior in a different situation. D) an organism reverts to instinctive behavior that interferes with learning.
91)
In operant conditioning, extinction occurs when
A) a behavior is no longer reinforced and decreases in frequency. B) an organism responds appropriately to stimuli that signal that a behavior will or will not be reinforced. C) an organism performs a reinforced behavior in a different situation. D) a desired behavior receives reinforcements in successive approximations.
92) The coffee machine in Linda's office stops working on Wednesday. When she comes to office on the following Monday, she tries to use the machine again, hoping that it has been fixed. This scenario best exemplifies A) spontaneous recovery. B) learned helplessness. C) delay of gratification. D) insight learning.
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93)
In operant conditioning, continuous reinforcement
A) is particularly resistant to extinction. B) is that which characterizes most life experiences. C) is the type of reinforcement in which organisms learn rapidly. D) is the type of reinforcement in which a reinforcer follows a behavior only a portion of the time.
94)
Which of the following is true of a fixed-ratio schedule in operant conditioning?
A) It reinforces a behavior after a fixed amount of time has passed. B) It reinforces a behavior after a set number of behaviors. C) It produces high, steady rates of behavior that are more resistant to extinction than the other schedules. D) It is determined by the time elapsed since the last behavior was rewarded.
95)
A batsman is unlikely to score a century in every cricket match. This is an example of A) avoidance learning. B) latent learning. C) partial reinforcement. D) continuous reinforcement.
96) A line worker in a factory is required to produce 50 units to be paid $10. In the context of the schedules of reinforcement, this scenario most likely exemplifies a
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A) fixed-interval schedule. B) variable-ratio schedule. C) variable-interval schedule. D) fixed-ratio schedule.
97)
Which of the following is true of a variable-interval schedule in operant conditioning?
A) It reinforces the first behavior after a fixed amount of time has passed. B) It rewards behaviors an average number of times but on an unpredictable basis. C) It reinforces a behavior after an inconsistent and unpredictable amount of time has elapsed. D) It reinforces a behavior after a set number of behaviors.
98) Which of the following is true of a fixed-interval schedule in the context of operant conditioning? A) It reinforces the first behavior after a set amount of time has passed. B) It produces a high, steady rate of behavior that is more resistant to extinction than the other schedules. C) It reinforces a behavior after a variable amount of time has elapsed. D) It reinforces a behavior after a set number of behaviors.
99)
Which of the following is true of a variable-ratio schedule in operant conditioning?
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A) It produces high, steady rates of behavior that are more resistant to extinction than the other schedules. B) It is a timetable in which a behavior is reinforced after a variable amount of time has elapsed. C) It rewards behavior each time it occurs. D) It is determined by the time elapsed since the last behavior was rewarded.
100)
A hitchhiker most likely gets rides on a ________ schedule of reinforcement. A) continuous B) variable-ratio C) fixed-ratio D) fixed-interval
101) Jose's employer pays him every Friday. This is an example of which of the following schedules of reinforcement? A) variable-ratio B) fixed-interval C) variable-interval D) fixed-ratio
102)
________ is a consequence that decreases the likelihood that a behavior will occur. A) Punishment B) Extinction C) Discrimination D) Generalization
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103)
Which of the following best illustrates positive punishment in operant conditioning? A) forbidding a child from watching television because he broke a glass B) forbidding a teenager from leaving the house because he got drunk C) lecturing and reprimanding a child for being rude to his or her teachers D) refusing to give his or her favorite toys to a child who refuses to eat
104)
Scolding a child for misbehavior is a form of ________; time-out is a form of ________. A) negative punishment; positive punishment B) positive reinforcement; negative reinforcement C) positive punishment; negative punishment D) negative reinforcement; positive reinforcement
105) Alejandro is scolded each time he bullies his younger brother. His mother notices that the frequency of bullying has decreased. Scolding Alejandro is an example of A) negative reinforcement. B) negative punishment. C) positive reinforcement. D) positive punishment.
106) Kanye is grounded each time he hits his little brother. After being grounded frequently, Kanye's misbehavior toward his little brother decreases. Grounding Kanye is an example of
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A) positive punishment. B) negative punishment. C) negative reinforcement. D) positive reinforcement.
107)
Identify a true statement about positive punishment.
A) In this punishment, a behavior decreases when it is followed by the presentation of a stimulus. B) It means taking away something pleasant to reduce the frequency of a behavior. C) Time-out is a form of this punishment, in which a child is removed from a positive reinforcer, such as his or her toys. D) It involves the removal of a stimulus following a given behavior in order to increase the frequency of that behavior.
108) In operant conditioning, learning is more efficient, especially in nonhuman animals, when the interval between a behavior and its consequence is A) a few seconds. B) unknown. C) several days. D) 10 to 20 minutes.
109) Samantha usually puts off the pleasure of an immediate reward in order to gain a more valuable reward later. This exemplifies
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A) delay of gratification. B) avoidance learning. C) learned helplessness. D) parallel processing.
110)
________ is the use of operant conditioning principles to change human behavior. A) Parallel processing B) Depth perception C) Bottom-up processing D) Applied behavior analysis
111)
From the perspective of applied behavior analysis, we can understand all human behavior A) as being influenced by the consequences of behavior. B) as being the result of exposure to competent models. C) as being the result of experience. D) as being influenced by instinctive behaviors.
112) Advocates of applied behavior analysis believe that many emotional and behavioral problems stem from A) inadequate or inappropriate consequences. B) deficits in mental processing. C) a lack of appropriate role models. D) learning solely from experience.
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113)
Which of the following is true of observational learning? A) It focuses on automatic, involuntary behaviors. B) It often takes less time than operant conditioning. C) It was first conceptualized by Ivan Pavlov. D) It usually begins with reinforcement and ends with extinction.
114) According to Bandura's model of observational learning, what are the four primary processes involved in observational learning? A) attention, retention, motor reproduction, and reinforcement B) attention, retention, generalization, and discrimination C) acquisition, extinction, generalization, and discrimination D) unconditioned stimulus, unconditioned response, conditioned stimulus, and conditioned response
115)
In observational learning, the first process that must occur is A) motor reproduction. B) attention. C) reinforcement. D) retention.
116) In the context of Albert Bandura's observational learning model, retention is a process in which
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A) a learner keeps the information of a model's actions in memory to retrieve it later. B) a learner withdraws attention from a model's actions. C) a learner's behavior is followed by a positive stimulus. D) a learner imitates a model's actions.
117) ________, the third element of observational learning, is the process of imitating a model's actions. A) Attention B) Motor reproduction C) Replication D) Reinforcement
118) According to Bandura's model of observational learning, which final component determines whether or not an imitated or modeled act will be repeated? A) attention B) motor reproduction C) replication D) reinforcement
119)
Which of the following describes the reinforcement element in observational learning?
A) judging whether to repeat a behavior depending on the consequences of the behavior B) encoding the information and keeping it in memory so that it can be retrieved later C) imitating and enacting a model's actions to achieve similarity in reproduction of the set of behaviors initially observed D) attending to what the model is saying or doing
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120) In the context of Albert Bandura's observational learning model, seeing a model attain a reward for an activity increases the chances that an observer will repeat the behavior. This process is called A) vicarious reinforcement. B) latent learning. C) avoidance learning. D) negative reinforcement.
121) In the context of Albert Bandura's observational learning model, seeing a model being punished for an activity makes an observer less likely to repeat the behavior. This process is called A) vicarious punishment. B) avoidance learning. C) aversive conditioning. D) positive reinforcement.
122)
Observational learning is most implicated by which of the following? A) the ability of role models to change people's perceptions B) the process of goal-directed behavior C) the observable changes caused by the placebo effect D) the effectiveness of embedded marketing
123)
According to E. C. Tolman,
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A) people learn by observing others' behavior. B) punishment increases undesirable behavior. C) much of behavior is goal-directed. D) reinforcement is ineffective.
124)
Tolman emphasized the A) discreetness of behavior. B) purposiveness of behavior. C) concept of associative learning. D) concept of operant learning.
125) Tolman said that when classical conditioning and operant conditioning occur, an organism acquires certain A) rewards. B) reinforcements. C) expectations. D) values.
126)
Latent learning is A) unreinforced learning that is not immediately reflected in behavior. B) based on insight and generalizations. C) highly susceptible to extinction. D) best explained by the concept of instinctive drift and positive reinforcement.
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127) Which of the following is sometimes called incidental learning because it "just happens" as a result of experience and happens even without reinforcement? A) learned helplessness B) latent learning C) insight learning D) avoidance learning
128) Tolman demonstrated that rats could learn to run a maze correctly even though they were never reinforced for successfully running through it. This demonstrated that the rats called on their ________ to help them reach the end of the maze more quickly. A) latent learning B) vicarious reinforcement learning C) insight learning D) trial-and-error learning
129) ________ is defined as a type of learning that occurs without reinforcement. However, this learning is not demonstrated until the person or animal is reinforced to do so. A) Classical conditioning B) Insight learning C) Latent learning D) Instinctive drift
130) ________ is a form of problem solving in which the organism develops a sudden understanding of a problem's solution.
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A) Classical conditioning B) Insight learning C) Latent learning D) Instinctive drift
131)
Which of the following is true with regard to insight learning?
A) Psychologists have confirmed that insight learning is essentially the same as learning through trial and error. B) Insight learning appears to entail only gradual processes. C) Insight learning requires thinking "outside the box," setting aside previous expectations and assumptions. D) Exposure to other cultures does not influence insight learning.
132) The tendency of animals to revert to intuitive behavior that interferes with learning is called A) instinctive drift. B) instinctive learning. C) preparedness. D) conceptualization.
133)
Which of the following is an example of instinctive drift? A) A rat learns to run a maze for a cheese food reward instead of a peanut-butter reward. B) A rabbit learns to play with children in the park. C) A pigeon learns to guide a warhead to its target. D) A pig shoves an object on the ground instead of learning to carry it in his mouth.
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134) ________ is the species-specific biological predisposition to learn in certain ways but not others. A) Instinctive drift B) Instinctive learning C) Preparedness D) Conceptualization
135) Susan Mineka and Arne Ohman (2002; Ohman and Mineka, 2003) have investigated the fascinating natural power of snakes to evoke fear in many mammals. The research study on conditioning humans and monkeys to associate snakes with fear is an example of A) aversive conditioning. B) avoidance learning. C) preparedness. D) habituation.
136)
What happens when instruction is tailored to each learners' learning style? A) There will be no difference in actual learning. B) The learners will learn the material better. C) There will be more favorable learning outcomes. D) The learning will produce students with fixed mindsets.
137) Which of the following terms is used by Carol Dweck (2012, 2017) to describe the way people's beliefs about ability dictate what goals they set for themselves, what they think they can learn, and ultimately what they do learn?
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A) attitude B) personality C) body language D) mindset
138) In the context of psychological constraints, which of the following statements is true about a fixed mindset? A) People believe in learning rather than scoring well. B) To individuals with a fixed mindset, failure indicates what they still need to learn. C) People believe that their qualities can change and improve through their effort. D) For individuals with a fixed mindset, failure means lack of ability.
139) In the context of psychological constraints, Carol Dweck (2017) studied first-year premed majors taking their first chemistry class in college. Identify a result of the study. A) Fixed-mindset students were studying to learn, whereas growth-mindset students were studying to get a good grade. B) Fixed-mindset students took charge of their motivation and learning. C) Growth-mindset students typically read and reread the text and class notes or tried to memorize everything verbatim. D) Growth-mindset students got higher grades than did fixed-mindset students.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 05_5e_King 1) Types of Learning 2) Classical Conditioning 3) Operant Conditioning 4) Operant Conditioning 5) Operant Conditioning 6) Operant Conditioning 7) Operant Conditioning 8) Observational Learning 9) Cognitive Factors in Learning 10) Biological; Cultural; and Psychological Factors in Learning 11) B 12) C 13) A 14) C 15) B 16) A 17) B 18) B 19) C 20) C 21) C Version 1
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22) C 23) C 24) B 25) C 26) B 27) A 28) B 29) B 30) D 31) B 32) A 33) C 34) C 35) D 36) B 37) B 38) A 39) A 40) A 41) B 42) C 43) B 44) C 45) B 46) C 47) B 48) A 49) C 50) D 51) D Version 1
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52) D 53) B 54) C 55) B 56) D 57) A 58) B 59) C 60) B 61) B 62) D 63) D 64) C 65) A 66) D 67) B 68) B 69) B 70) B 71) C 72) D 73) B 74) C 75) B 76) A 77) B 78) A 79) B 80) D 81) D Version 1
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82) C 83) C 84) B 85) C 86) A 87) C 88) D 89) D 90) B 91) A 92) A 93) C 94) B 95) C 96) D 97) C 98) A 99) A 100) B 101) B 102) A 103) C 104) C 105) D 106) B 107) A 108) A 109) A 110) D 111) A Version 1
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112) A 113) B 114) A 115) B 116) A 117) B 118) D 119) A 120) A 121) A 122) A 123) C 124) B 125) C 126) A 127) B 128) A 129) C 130) B 131) C 132) A 133) D 134) C 135) C 136) A 137) D 138) D 139) D
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CHAPTER 6 1) Your friend Jacinda is having difficulty "taking in" the information in her history class so she asks you to use your expertise in psychology to offer some suggestions on how to improve her memory performance. Discuss how attention, deep processing, elaboration, and the use of mental imagery can affect the encoding process.
2)
Describe the Atkinson-Shiffrin model of memory.
3)
Compare and contrast the short-term memory system with the working memory system.
4)
Describe Baddeley's view of the three components of working memory.
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5)
What are schemas and how are they relevant to memory?
6)
Describe how the connectionist process works.
7)
What is long-term potentiation and why is it important to the process of memory?
8) Describe the distinction between recall and recognition, and give an example of each. Which process typically yields better memory performance?
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9)
Define the distinction between proactive and retroactive interference.
10) Emily and Samantha were in a boating accident and both now suffer from amnesia. Emily has been diagnosed with retrograde amnesia, whereas Samantha has been diagnosed with anterograde amnesia. Describe what Emily and Samantha will likely forget.
11)
________ refers to the retention of information or experience over time. A) Learning B) Memory C) Priming D) Amnesia
12)
________ refers to the process by which information gets into memory storage.
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A) Transmission B) Retrieval C) Decay D) Encoding
13) Attention, deep processing, elaboration, and the use of mental imagery are all part of ________ processes. A) encoding B) storage C) retrieval D) chunking
14) In the context of memory processes, which of the following scenarios best illustrates the process of encoding information? A) Alex, a five-year-old boy, is reciting his alphabets. B) Deborah is watching a movie in the theater. C) Daniel is writing an essay on the dinosaurs he learned about last week. D) Mike is painting a picture of a woman he used to know.
15) ________ is the ability to maintain attention to a selected stimulus for a prolonged period of time. A) Divided attention B) Elaboration C) Multitasking D) Sustained attention
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16)
Multitasking is an example of A) mental imagery. B) divided attention. C) priming. D) rehearsal.
17)
The ability to listen to music while reading a magazine indicates A) divided attention. B) sustained attention. C) vigilance. D) chunking.
18)
Which of the following is true of divided attention in the context of memory encoding?
A) Divided attention involves concentrating on different activities, one activity at a time. B) Divided attention is the ability to maintain attention to a selected stimulus for a prolonged period of time. C) Divided attention is not likely to impede an individual's ability to pay attention to a specific aspect of an experience. D) Divided attention can be especially detrimental to the process of encoding information.
19) A student is reading his favorite novel and watching television simultaneously. Which of the following types of attention best illustrates his actions in this scenario?
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A) divided attention B) sustained attention C) executive attention D) selective attention
20) Elsa is studying for her psychology exam with the TV on in the background. Research on the effects of divided attention suggests that watching TV while studying will ________ Elsa's exam performance. A) slightly increase B) strongly increase C) decrease D) have no effect on
21) Ivan, a musician, rehearses playing the guitar for an upcoming live concert to be held in six months. He practices for three hours daily and pays close attention to the sheet music for the guitar while rehearsing. In this scenario, Ivan's rehearsal illustrates A) sustained attention. B) divided attention. C) selective attention. D) fragmented attention.
22)
Which of the following scenarios best illustrates multitasking? A) James surfing the Web and texting while doing his homework B) Lewis drawing a portrait using watercolors C) Emma playing her guitar while looking at the strings D) Logan writing down his academic goals for the current semester
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23) Fifteen-year-old Ito and his father are in an electronics store looking at video game systems. Ito gives his father a complete breakdown of the pros and cons of each of the different video game systems on display. According to research on encoding processes, Ito is able to accurately recall all this information because he A) has shallowly processed this information. B) has deeply processed this information. C) has processed this information at an intermediate level. D) used nonlinguistic encoding processes.
24)
Which of the following is true of the term "levels of processing" in memory? A) It negates the role of deep processing in memory. B) It emphasizes shallow processing as the key step in memory retrieval. C) It asserts that deeper processing produces poorer memory. D) It refers to a continuum of memory processing.
25)
Which of the following is true of shallow processing in memory?
A) Semantic, meaningful, and symbolic characteristics are used in shallow processing. B) Physical features are analyzed in the process of shallow processing. C) A deeper level of understanding is gathered through shallow processing than through intermediate processing. D) A stimulus is recognized and labeled in shallow processing.
26)
Identify a true statement about intermediate processing.
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A) The physical and perceptual features are analyzed predominantly in intermediate processing. B) In intermediate processing, a stimulus is typically identified and labeled. C) The semantic, meaningful, symbolic characteristics are used in intermediate processing. D) In intermediate processing, meaning is assigned to a stimulus.
27)
Which of the following is a feature of the deepest level of processing in memory? A) It is usually confined to analyzing the physical features of a stimulus. B) It deals with recognizing and labeling a stimulus. C) It involves thinking about the meaning of a stimulus. D) It predominantly uses the amygdala of the human brain.
28) Kwame is studying for a vocabulary test. When he studies the word "braggart," he thinks of how his childhood friend Billy acted whenever Billy was given a new toy. Which of the following is the highest level of processing Kwame has engaged in while encoding the word "braggart"? A) shallow B) intermediate C) deep D) impersonal
29) ________ refers to the formation of several different connections around a stimulus at any given level of memory encoding.
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A) Imagery B) Elaboration C) Divided attention D) Sustained attention
30) Your roommate is having difficulty in his chemistry class. He asks you for advice on how to improve his memory of the material. You suggest that rather than trying to memorize the definitions, he should learn the concept by coming up with real-world examples. You tell him to work on making links between new information and everything he already knows. Which of the following memory strategies are you recommending to your roommate? A) elaboration B) imagery C) chunking D) selective attention
31)
Which of the following is true of elaboration in memory? A) The less elaborate the processing within deep processing, the better the memory. B) There is no link between brain activity and elaboration during encoding. C) Elaboration becomes difficult when self-reference techniques are used. D) Elaboration can occur at any level of processing.
32)
Identify a true statement about elaboration in memory.
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A) Relating material to one's own experience is an effective way to elaborate on information. B) The more elaborate the processing of a stimulus, the weaker the memory will be. C) Deep, elaborate processing weakens the process of remembering. D) The process of elaboration is evident only in the mental activity of the brain.
33)
According to research, which of the following is an effective elaboration technique? A) thinking of physical characteristics B) thinking of smells C) thinking of self-references D) thinking of sounds
34)
________ of information is linked with neural activity in the left frontal lobe of the brain. A) Self-referencing B) Forgetting C) Chunking D) Elaboration
35) In the context of memory encoding, which of the following statements is true of mental imagery? A) It entails visualizing material that one wants to remember in ways that create a lasting portrait. B) It primarily involves focusing on a specific aspect of experience while ignoring others. C) It essentially involves concentrating on more than one activity at the same time. D) It entails memorizing a stimulus rather than creating a concept around it.
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36)
According to ________, memory for pictures is better than memory for words. A) Ebbinghaus's curve of forgetting B) the Atkinson-Shiffrin theory C) the dual-code theory D) parallel distributed processing (PDP)
37)
Which of the following statements is true of memory storage?
A) It refers to the retention of information over time and how this information is represented in memory. B) It refers to the formation of a number of different connections around a stimulus at any given level of memory encoding. C) It refers to the memory process that occurs when information that was retained in memory comes out of storage. D) It refers to a memory task in which an individual has to retrieve previously learned information.
38) ________ states that memory storage involves three separate systems: sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory. A) The dual-code hypothesis B) The Atkinson-Shiffrin theory C) Ebbinghaus's curve of forgetting D) Parallel distributed processing (PDP)
39)
How long does information last in sensory memory?
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A) a fraction of a second to several seconds B) 30–60 seconds C) 2–3 minutes D) 5 minutes
40) According to the Atkinson-Shiffrin theory, which of the following memory systems has a time frame of up to 30 seconds? A) sensory memory B) short-term memory C) long-term memory D) schemas
41)
According to the Atkinson-Shiffrin theory, information can last up to a lifetime in A) sensory memory. B) short-term memory. C) long-term memory. D) working memory.
42) ________ refers to the memory system that involves holding information from the world in its original form for only an instant, not much longer than the brief time it is exposed to the visual, auditory, and other senses. A) Sensory memory B) Short-term memory C) Episodic memory D) Semantic memory
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43) Although ________ is rich and detailed, we lose the information in it quickly unless we use certain strategies that transfer it into other memory systems. A) sensory memory B) selective memory C) long-term memory D) declarative memory
44)
Which of the following is true of sensory memory? A) Sensory memory is typically reflected in the sights and sounds one encounters in daily
life. B) Sensory memory is brief and without detail. C) Sensory memory holds information in time frames of 30 seconds or more. D) Sensory memory processes all the information encountered by a person.
45) Identify the element of sensory memory that would be most useful in quickly scanning a map of a country to learn the geographical location of its states. A) echoic memory B) implicit memory C) iconic memory D) procedural memory
46) ________ refers to auditory sensory memory, whereas ________ refers to visual sensory memory.
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A) Iconic memory; echoic memory B) Declarative memory; nondeclarative memory C) Echoic memory; iconic memory D) Nondeclarative memory; declarative memory
47) ________ refers to a limited-capacity memory system in which information is usually retained for only as long as 30 seconds unless strategies are used to retain it longer. A) Short-term memory B) Long-term memory C) Echoic memory D) Iconic memory
48) Which of the following correctly differentiates between sensory memory and short-term memory? A) Compared with sensory memory, short-term memory is limited in capacity. B) Compared with sensory memory, short-term memory stores information for a shorter time. C) Compared with short-term memory, sensory memory retains all information from the environment. D) Compared with short-term memory, sensory memory can store smaller amounts of information.
49) When you are asked to recall your first day of kindergarten, you rely on ________, whereas when you are asked to recall the name of a person you just met a few seconds ago, you rely on ________.
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A) sensory memory; long-term memory B) long-term memory; short-term memory C) long-term memory; procedural memory D) semantic memory; long-term memory
50) A person is most likely to store a seven-digit phone number in his or her ________ memory. A) sensory B) short-term C) implicit D) echoic
51)
Which of the following is true of short-term memory? A) It is made up of explicit and implicit memory. B) It is a relatively permanent type of memory. C) It holds perceptions of the world for just an instant. D) It is improved by chunking and rehearsal techniques.
52) George Miller's classic research showed that the average capacity of short-term memory is between ________ units of information. A) 2 and 7 B) 5 and 9 C) 7 and 12 D) 9 and 12
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53) After hearing a friend's telephone number for the first time, Harold was immediately able to recite all seven digits of the phone number in perfect order. Harold most likely used his ________ to recite these digits. A) procedural memory B) sensory memory C) long-term memory D) short-term memory
54)
Chunking involves
A) quickly scanning information for relevant details. B) immediately forgetting relevant information. C) using Miller's framework for memory retrieval. D) reorganizing information that exceeds the 7 plus or minus 2 rule into smaller more meaningful units.
55) When asked to memorize the 15 letters, C I A C B S A B C F B I I R S, Mary reorganizes them into CIA, CBS, ABC, FBI, and IRS. Mary used the tactic of A) mental structuring. B) visual structuring. C) chunking. D) cueing.
56) Jeff is trying to remember a list of 20 letters, grouped into the following chunks: OL DHA ROL DAN DYO UNG BEN. In the context of chunking, which of the following is most likely to improve his recollection of the letters?
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A) waiting at least a few hours before trying to recall the letters B) reading them only once and trying to recall them later C) re-chunking the letters to form meaningful words D) removing the chunks and arranging the letters alphabetically
57) Joseph, a college student, is given the task of remembering two word lists and then writing them down from memory in a notebook. The first word list is "all, day, I, dream, about, and sports." The second word list is "th, ewhe, elsofa, bi, and ke." Joseph is able to recall and write down the first list but not the second list. In the context of short-term memory, which of the following techniques most likely helps Joseph successfully recall the first list? A) chunking B) cueing C) unifying D) visual structuring
58) Mateo, a waiter at a restaurant, usually takes food orders from customers. On his way back to the kitchen, he consciously repeats the orders in his mind so that he does not forget them. In the context of short-term memory, Mateo applies the technique of ________ to remember the orders. A) rehearsal B) chunking C) grouping D) packing
59) Shannon is an excellent student. She rewrites her class notes after each class. Rewriting her notes is a form of
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A) rehearsal. B) priming. C) chunking. D) imagery.
60)
In the context of short-term memory, which of the following is true of rehearsal? A) Information stored in short-term memory lasts half a minute or less with rehearsal. B) Rehearsal can only be verbal, giving the impression of an inner voice. C) Information can be retained indefinitely if rehearsal is not interrupted. D) Rehearsal is the best strategy for retaining information over longer periods of time.
61) Minutes before her biology test, Katie tries to learn the definition of "osmosis" from her class notes. She repeats the definition over and over again in her mind until she is confident that she will remember it. Which of the following methods is Katie using to help her memorize the definition? A) chunking B) rehearsal C) mental imagery D) elaboration
62) Which of the following hampers the use of rehearsal as a tool for retaining information over a long period of time? A) It involves the unconscious repetition of information. B) It can only be used to store verbal information for half a minute or less. C) It always results in distortion of memories. D) It involves mechanically repeating information, without imparting meaning to it.
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63)
Working memory A) has an unlimited capacity. B) is the same thing as short-term memory. C) is a passive memory system. D) holds information temporarily while cognitive tasks are being performed.
64)
Which of the following statements is true of working memory?
A) It is a kind of mental workbench on which the brain manipulates and assembles information to guide understanding, decision making, and problem solving. B) It refers to a memory system that involves holding information from the world in its original sensory form for only an instant, not much longer than the brief time it is exposed to the visual, auditory, and other senses. C) It refers to visual sensory memory, which is retained only for about ¼ of a second. D) It is a relatively permanent type of memory that stores huge amounts of information for a long time.
65) If all of the information on the hard drive of your computer is like long-term memory, then ________, like Random Access Memory (RAM), is comparable to what you actually have open and active at any given moment. A) semantic memory B) working memory C) declarative memory D) procedural memory
66) Identify a statement that accurately differentiates between short-term memory and working memory. Version 1
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A) Short-term memory functions as an active memory system, while working memory functions as a passive storehouse. B) Short-term memory can be used to solve problems, while working memory can be used to rehearse information. C) Measures of working memory capacity are strongly related to cognitive aptitudes, whereas measures of short-term memory capacity are hardly related to cognitive aptitudes. D) Working memory has a limited capacity, while short-term memory has a virtually unlimited capacity to store information.
67)
Which of the following is true of working memory?
A) Working memory allows individuals to hold information permanently as they perform cognitive tasks. B) Working memory functions as a passive storehouse with shelves to store information until it moves to long-term memory. C) Working memory has a limited capacity, similar to the Random Access Memory (RAM) of a computer. D) Working memory's storage capacity is virtually unlimited.
68) According to Baddeley's view of the three components of working memory, the ________ acts like a supervisor who monitors which information deserves our attention and which we should ignore. A) visuospatial working memory B) central executive C) phonological loop D) amygdala
69) In the context of the three components of working memory, which of the following statements is true of the central executive?
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A) It integrates information not only from the phonological loop and the visuospatial sketchpad but also from long-term memory. B) It has a virtually unlimited capacity like the phonological loop and the visuospatial sketchpad. C) It holds information from the world in its original sensory form for only an instant, not much longer than the brief time it is exposed to the visual, auditory, and other senses. D) It is a limited-capacity memory system in which information is usually retained for only as long as 30 seconds unless people use strategies to retain it longer.
70) Which of the following is true of the different components of Alan Baddeley's model of working memory? A) The phonological loop stores visual and spatial information. B) The phonological loop and the visuospatial sketchpad function independently. C) The central executive integrates information only from the phonological loop and the visuospatial sketchpad and not from long-term memory. D) Unlike the phonological loop and the visuospatial sketchpad, the central executive has an unlimited capacity.
71) According to Baddeley, the ________ is specialized to briefly store speech-based information about the sounds of language. A) visuospatial sketchpad B) central executive C) phonological loop D) amygdala
72) According to Baddeley's view of the three components of working memory, which of the following contains two separate components: an acoustic code and rehearsal?
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A) the phonological loop B) the central executive C) the visuospatial sketchpad D) the amygdala
73)
Which of the following is true of the visuospatial sketchpad?
A) When there are many items in the visuospatial sketchpad, one can represent them accurately enough to retrieve them successfully. B) The visuospatial sketchpad depends on the phonological loop for its operations. C) The visuospatial sketchpad acts like a supervisor who monitors which information deserves attention and which should be ignored. D) The capacity of the visuospatial sketchpad is limited.
74) ________ is a relatively permanent type of memory that stores huge amounts of information for a long time. A) Long-term memory B) Short-term memory C) Iconic memory D) Echoic memory
75)
Which of the following is true of long-term memory? A) Long-term memory is a temporary type of memory. B) Long-term memory stores small amounts of information for long periods of time. C) Long-term memory has a storage capacity that is virtually unlimited. D) Long-term memory is relatively simple.
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76) ________ has to do with remembering who, what, where, when, and why. ________ has to do with remembering how. A) Semantic memory; Episodic memory B) Episodic memory; Semantic memory C) Implicit memory; Explicit memory D) Explicit memory; Implicit memory
77)
Which of the following is subdivided into episodic and semantic memory? A) sensory memory B) implicit memory C) explicit memory D) working memory
78) ________ includes the systems involved in procedural memory, classical conditioning, and priming. A) Explicit memory B) Implicit memory C) Episodic memory D) Semantic memory
79) Based on the famous case study of H.M., a patient who had severe epilepsy, H.M. underwent surgery that involved removing the hippocampus and a portion of the temporal lobes of both hemispheres in his brain. After the surgery, his epilepsy was cured, but his memory was impaired. Which of the following best describes the effect that surgery had on H.M.'s memory?
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A) H.M. developed an inability to form new memories that outlive working memory. B) H.M. showed major deficits in sensory, short-term, and long-term implicit memory. C) H.M.'s procedural memory suffered the most damage. D) H.M. could not learn new physical tasks.
80) Which of the following refers to the conscious recollection of information, such as specific facts and events and, at least in humans, information that can be verbally communicated? A) sensory memory B) short-term memory C) declarative memory D) nondeclarative memory
81)
Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the use of explicit memory?
A) Emma recounting the events in a movie that she saw last Friday B) Joseph replaying a song in his mind that he heard at an event C) James riding his motorcycle without consciously remembering how to ride a motorcycle D) Talia, a professional basketball player, showing off her basketball skills
82)
Recalling the names of the members of a famous football team is an example of A) iconic memory. B) implicit memory. C) declarative memory. D) procedural memory.
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83) Research found that those who earned an A in Spanish in a class taken 50 years earlier remembered more Spanish than those who had received a C when taking Spanish only one year earlier. That portion of original learning that appears to be destined to be with a person virtually forever, even without rehearsal, is referred to as A) permastore memory. B) procedural memory. C) parallel distribution. D) the serial position effect.
84) According to Canadian cognitive psychologist Endel Tulving, ________ is the retention of information about the where, when, and what of life's happenings. A) episodic memory B) semantic memory C) short-term memory D) sensory memory
85)
A person's knowledge about the world is known as ________ memory. A) episodic B) autobiographical C) procedural D) semantic
86)
Which of the following structures of memory is autobiographical?
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A) sensory memory B) implicit memory C) nondeclarative memory D) episodic memory
87) Best friends Kate and Diana are at the park, watching their children play together. Kate reminds Diana about the time that they had a big fight on the same playground as children and didn't talk to each other for almost a week. In the context of long-term memory, Kate's recollection of this event best exemplifies the use of her ________ memory. A) implicit B) semantic C) episodic D) procedural
88) You go to a hypnotist to help you quit smoking. The hypnotist asks you to remember and describe things that you did differently before you started smoking. Which memory system will you use most to comply with this request? A) your procedural memory system B) your permastore memory system C) your episodic memory system D) your nondeclarative memory system
89)
Recollections of one's first family vacation to Disneyland are most likely part of one's
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A) implicit memory. B) nondeclarative memory. C) episodic memory. D) procedural memory.
90) Your knowledge of the alphabet and multiplication tables is most likely to be stored in your ________ memory. A) episodic B) semantic C) autobiographical D) implicit
91) Jacob asks his little brother Boris to play a game of chess with him. As Boris has never played chess before, Jacob explains the rules of the game to him. What type of long-term memory has primarily helped Jacob to recount his knowledge of chess to Boris? A) semantic memory B) flashbulb memory C) episodic memory D) sensory memory
92) Jillian was in a car accident and sustained a serious head trauma. Since the surgery, she has forgotten her name, career, and other vital information about herself. Yet, she is still able to talk, know what words mean, and have general knowledge about the world, such as what day it is or who currently is the president of the United States. This behavior suggests that Jillian's ________ is impaired, but her ________ is still functioning.
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A) episodic memory; semantic memory B) semantic memory; episodic memory C) sensory memory; long-term memory D) declarative memory; nondeclarative memory
93) When learning a new language, you learn the words and general grammatical structure, which is a function of ______; and you might also remember how you learned them, which is function of ______. A) semantic memory; episodic memory B) implicit memory; explicit memory C) episodic memory; semantic memory D) explicit memory; implicit memory
94) ________ refers to memory in which behavior is affected by prior experience without a conscious recollection of that experience. A) Implicit memory B) Explicit memory C) Sensory memory D) Short-term memory
95)
Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the use of implicit memory? A) Daniel, a professional stunt rider, performing bike stunts B) Ava recalling the names of the players in her favorite football team C) Pablo, a student, trying to remember the formula to solve a math problem D) Christos recollecting the incidents that took place on his way back home
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96) In which subsystem of long-term memory is your knowledge of how to drive a car and how to ride a bike stored? A) episodic memory B) semantic memory C) nondeclarative (implicit) memory D) declarative (explicit) memory
97)
Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the use of procedural memory? A) Alba, a typist, typing a letter without looking at the keyboard B) Valeria, a student, recounting the scenes in a theater act C) Anna recalling the names of her colleagues D) Brenda recollecting the incidents that took place at a party
98)
Which of the following involves memory for skills? A) semantic memory B) working memory C) procedural memory D) schema
99) One type of implicit memory involves classical conditioning. Which of the following is an example of a classically conditioned association?
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A) You find yourself liking the person who sits next to you in your favorite class because they are around when you are feeling good. B) You know what is going to happen when you and a friend sit down at a restaurant. C) You can remember how to ride a bike even though it has been 10 years since you have ridden one. D) You excelled in your French class in college and, despite not ever speaking French, you still remember a lot of French vocabulary.
100) ________ is the activation of information that people already have in storage to help them remember new information better and faster. A) Priming B) Procedural memory C) Classical conditioning D) Skill memory
101)
In the context of implicit memory, which of the following statements is true of priming? A) It takes place even when explicit memory for previous information is not required. B) It is assumed to be a voluntary and conscious process. C) It is a person's knowledge about the world. D) It is the retention of information about the where, when, and what of life's happenings.
102)
Which of the following is true of implicit memory?
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A) Implicit memory is related to nonconsciously remembering skills and sensory perceptions. B) Implicit memory has two subsystems: episodic memory and semantic memory. C) Implicit memory is also known as declarative memory. D) Implicit memory is a person's knowledge about the world.
103) Jeremiah, an eight-year-old boy, did not learn to tie his shoelaces until he was six years old. Now, he ties them expertly while talking to others and without looking at his feet. Such skills are associated with ________ memory. A) flashbulb B) procedural C) episodic D) semantic
104) Although you had never been to the Fancy Foods Restaurant in your town, you weren't at all surprised when the host seated you, handed you the menu, and informed you that your server would soon be there to take your order. Shortly after, a person in a tuxedo came to your table. You knew exactly what was going to happen because you A) are a certified psychic. B) have a script for what happens in a restaurant. C) have been to similar Fancy Foods Restaurants in other towns. D) have a friend who works there.
105) In the context of long-term memory, which of the following refers to preexisting mental concepts or frameworks that help people to organize and interpret information?
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A) schemas B) phonological loops C) visuospatial sketchpads D) central executives
106) In the context of long-term memory, which of the following refers to schemas for an event, often containing information about physical features, people, and typical occurrences? A) scripts B) phonological loops C) visuospatial sketchpads D) central executives
107) People very quickly adapt to the procedures and behaviors appropriate at a birthday party. General knowledge of what to expect and how to behave at a birthday is called a(n) A) script. B) implicit memory. C) discovered memory. D) working memory.
108)
In the context of how memory is organized, which of the following is true of schemas?
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A) Schemas from prior encounters with the environment have no influence on the way individuals handle information. B) Schemas support the reconstruction process, helping individuals fill in gaps between their fragmented memories. C) According to the schema theory, memories cannot be viewed as large knowledge structures. D) According to the schema theory, memories are organized sets of neurons that are routinely activated together.
109) ________ refers to the theory that memory is stored throughout the brain in associations among neurons, several of which may work together to process a single memory. A) Connectionism B) Nonparallel distributed processing C) The Atkinson-Shiffrin theory D) Decay theory
110)
Which of the following is true of the connectionist view of memories?
A) Memories are like electrical impulses, organized only to the extent that neurons, the connections among them, and their activity are organized. B) Memories are large knowledge structures as in schema theories. C) A neural activity involving memory is spread across a number of areas of the thalamus. D) Any piece of knowledge is embedded in the strengths of hundreds or thousands of connections among neurons and is limited to a single location.
111)
The connectionist view of memory
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A) suggests that memories are large knowledge structures. B) advocates that people forget not because memories are lost from storage but because other information gets in the way of what they want to remember. C) proposes that memories are organized sets of neurons that are routinely activated together. D) states that memory storage involves three separate systems: sensory memory, shortterm memory, and long-term memory.
112) In the context of the connectionist network perspective of memory, the process by which interconnected networks are formed is called A) consolidation. B) separation. C) disassociation. D) condensation.
113) What has research in neuroscience revealed about where memories are stored and how they are processed? A) Memories are stored in a single structure in the brain. B) Neurons work independently to process memories and represent information. C) Memory is located in specific sets or circuits of neurons. D) Brain chemicals play a minimal role in forging the connections that represent memory.
114)
The locations of neural activity, called ________, are interconnected.
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A) scripts B) phonological loops C) chunks D) nodes
115)
Long-term potentiation is a concept that explains A) how people can remember material for several months. B) how memory functions at the neuron level. C) how cannibalized worms can pass on skills they had learned to the cannibals. D) why students should study exam material over a period of days instead of hours.
116) The hippocampus, the temporal lobes in the cerebral cortex, and other areas of the limbic system play a very important role in ________ memory. A) repressed B) implicit C) explicit D) sensory
117) Vince suffered serious brain injury to his cerebellum in a motorcycle accident. What effect will this have on Vince's life? A) He probably won't remember his name. B) He probably won't remember how to ride his motorcycle. C) He probably won't recognize his wife. D) He probably won't remember where he lives.
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118)
The cerebellum and ________ play an important role in implicit memory. A) cerebral cortex B) frontal lobes C) corpus callosum D) hypothalamus
119) Which of the following is true of brain structures and memory functions in long-term memory? A) The amygdala, a part of the limbic system, is involved in emotional memories. B) The hippocampus and the temporal lobes in the cerebral cortex play a role in implicit memory, not in explicit memory. C) The parietal lobes of the brain are involved in both retrospective memory and prospective memory. D) The same area of the brain is involved in the functioning of implicit and explicit memory.
120) Your brother doesn't need to look at his keyboard while typing. His fingers automatically move over the keys as he types information into the computer. In the context of memory storage, which part of his brain is active in the memory required to perform these skills? A) the temporal lobes B) the hippocampus C) the cerebellum D) the amygdala
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A) Margaret will have difficulty remembering her address and telephone number. B) Margaret will have difficulty adding numbers. C) Margaret will have difficulty with emotional memories. D) Margaret will have difficulty with short-term memories.
122)
Retrieval is the memory process that A) transforms information into a form that can be stored in memory. B) occurs when information that was retained in memory comes out of storage. C) stores information so that it can be retained over time. D) detects information from the world without receiving concrete sensory input.
123)
Which of the following statements about the retrieval of memory is true? A) Retrieval precedes the process of information rehearsal. B) Retrieval takes place after the information is encoded and before it is stored. C) Retrieval of memory is a complex and sometimes imperfect process. D) Retrieval is unaffected by how a memory was encoded.
124) The ________ is the tendency to recall the items at the beginning and end of a list more readily than those in the middle. A) halo effect B) ambiguity effect C) serial position effect D) framing effect
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125) Francisco, a soccer enthusiast, watches a soccer match. While discussing the match with his friends, he is able to remember the first and the last players to receive a yellow card from the referee but not the other players who received yellow cards in the middle of the match. This tendency of Francisco to recall only the first and the last players to receive a yellow card best illustrates A) the serial position effect. B) the phonological loop. C) chunking. D) rehearsal.
126) Kate is on the phone talking to her friend Paul, who is referring her for a job interview. Paul gives Kate a phone number, but before Kate can write it down, the call is disconnected. Kate can only recall the last three digits of the number that Paul gave her. This scenario best illustrates the ________ effect. A) primacy B) placebo C) recency D) echo
127) Having a better memory for items at the beginning of a list demonstrates the ________, whereas having a better memory for items at the end of a list demonstrates the ________. A) recency effect; primacy effect B) primacy effect; recency effect C) flashbulb memory effect; metamemory effect D) metamemory effect; flashbulb memory effect
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128) A man is asked to listen to a playlist of songs and recall their names after listening to the entire playlist. He seems to better recall the names of the songs at the beginning of the playlist. In the context of the serial position effect, which of the following best illustrates his tendency to recall the songs at the beginning of the playlist? A) the primacy effect B) the recency effect C) sensory memory D) connectionism
129) Leno follows a reality show on television. When the final episode is aired, he is able to remember the remaining contestants on the show rather than the first ones who were voted out. In the context of the serial position effect, which of the following best illustrates Leno's tendency to remember the remaining contestants on the show? A) the primacy effect B) the recency effect C) sensory memory D) connectionism
130) George has just graduated from college and is going on his first big job interview. He has learned that there are 10 other applicants for the job. According to the information on the serial position effect that he learned in his psychology class, George prefers to be either the first or the last candidate interviewed. Why does he want to be interviewed as the first or last candidate?
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A) The serial position effect predicts that either the first or the last job applicant interviewed will be remembered better than the applicants interviewed in the middle. B) The serial position effect predicts that the candidates interviewed in the "middle" positions will be viewed less favorably than the other two applicants. C) Research has shown that the serial position effect is used often by management to arbitrarily hire job applicants. D) Research has shown that people interviewed either early or late in the day are evaluated most positively.
131) According to the serial position effect, if you are a waiter trying to remember all the orders for a table of seven, you should pay particular attention to the ________ orders, because these are the ones you are most likely to forget. A) first and second B) sixth and seventh C) third, fourth, and fifth D) first, third, and seventh
132) Multiple choice exams involve testing a student's ________ abilities, whereas essay exams involve testing ________ abilities. A) episodic memory; semantic memory B) semantic memory; episodic memory C) recall; recognition D) recognition; recall
133) In the context of memory retrieval, the ________ states that information present at the time of encrypting or learning tends to be effective as a retrieval cue.
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A) encoding specificity principle B) Atkinson-Shiffrin theory C) interference theory D) serial position effect
134) In the context of memory retrieval, ________ is described as a process in which people remember better when they attempt to recall information in the same circumstances in which they learned it. A) context-dependent memory B) the serial position effect C) proactive interference D) parallel processing
135) Asking an eyewitness to describe a suspect's physical appearance to a sketch artist would be an example of a ________ task, whereas asking an eyewitness to identify a suspect on the basis of a lineup of five possible assailants is an example of a ________ task. A) recognition; recall B) recall; recognition C) rehearsal; elaboration D) chunking; rehearsal
136) Ja'Nice and Stacey go to different schools but study the same text books. Ja'Nice's endof-semester tests include only essay questions, whereas Stacey's end-of-semester tests include only multiple-choice questions. In the context of memory retrieval, which of the following statements is accurate?
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A) Stacey's tests are dependent on how well Stacey can retrieve previously learned information. B) Ja'Nice's tests have poorer retrieval cues than Stacey's tests. C) Ja'Nice's tests are based on recognition. D) Stacey's tests are based on recall.
137)
In the context of memory retrieval, which of the following is true of recognition? A) Recognition tests such as essay tests have poor retrieval cues. B) In the task of recognition, an individual has to retrieve previously learned information. C) In the task of recognition, an individual is typically confined to identify learned items. D) Recognition of a stimulus is far more difficult than recall of a stimulus.
138) Samantha prides herself on "never forgetting a face," although she frequently cannot put the correct name with a specific "face." This shows that Samantha is A) better at recognition than at recall. B) better at recall than at recognition. C) better at memory retrieval than at memory reconstruction. D) better at memory reconstruction than at memory recall.
139)
Which of the following statements is true about autobiographical memory? A) It is a special form of episodic memory. B) Autobiographical memories are the simplest of all. C) Autobiographical memories predominantly characterize the very first few years of life. D) It is a special form of semantic memory.
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140) In the context of memory retrieval, which of the following is true of autobiographical memory? A) It is a person's recollections of his or her life experiences. B) It refers to a memory system that involves holding information from the world in its original sensory form for only an instant. C) It refers to a limited-capacity memory system in which information is usually retained for only as long as 30 seconds. D) It is a combination of components, including short-term memory and attention, that allow people to hold information temporarily as they perform cognitive tasks.
141) Ashton is 45 years old. He has vivid memories of the significant events that took place in his youth. However, he finds it difficult to recollect the events that took place during the first few years of his life. In the context of memory retrieval, this ability to recall events from certain phases of his life is known as A) the reminiscence bump. B) the serial position effect. C) absentmindedness. D) interference.
142)
Most autobiographical memories are A) part reality and part myth. B) more about facts than about meanings. C) simple and cannot be categorized. D) unconnected in any way to the present.
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143) The memory of emotionally significant events that people often recall with more accuracy and vivid imagery than everyday events is known as A) precognition. B) working memory. C) procedural memory. D) flashbulb memory.
144) Elaine is writing a paper about reactions to the tragedy that occurred at the Twin Towers on September 11, 2001. She interviews 10 of her classmates and asks them to remember that day. She is surprised to learn that nearly all of the students she interviewed offer very detailed, vivid accounts of where they were and what they were doing when they first learned of the terrorist attacks. Elaine has discovered that most of her classmates have ________ of September 11, 2001. A) a repressed memory B) a flashbulb memory C) implicit but not explicit memories D) extrasensory perception
145) Motivated forgetting and repressed memories are usually associated with what type of memories? A) procedural memories B) traumatic memories C) sensory memories D) flashbulb memories
146) Janel was sexually abused by her uncle when she was five years old. This experience was so devastating and traumatic that she removed the memory from her conscious awareness. This is an example of a(n) Version 1
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A) implicit memory. B) schema. C) repressed memory. D) elaboration.
147) Which of the following advocates that repression's main function is to protect the individual from threatening information? A) the psychodynamic theory B) the Atkinson-Shiffrin theory C) connectionism D) the interference theory
148) Which of the following do people use to protect themselves from memories of painful, stressful, or otherwise unpleasant circumstances? A) motivated forgetting B) chunking C) retroactive interference D) parallel processing
149) Why did cognitive psychologist Jonathan Schooler suggest that the term recovered memories be replaced with the term discovered memories?
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A) Individuals with "discovered" memories experience them as real, whether or not the memories are accurate. B) "Discovered" memories are more accurate and detailed than "recovered" memories. C) The term discovered memories avoids the negative connotations of the term recovered memories. D) Individuals with "discovered" memories realize that the memories may be inaccurate.
150)
Which of the following is true of eyewitness testimony?
A) Racial prejudice is a factor in the inaccuracy of some eyewitness accounts. B) Eyewitness testimony is generally accurate because of people's flashbulb memories. C) Since memory cannot be altered by new information, eyewitness accounts should be taken shortly after an incident occurs. D) Eyewitness accounts tend to be less faulty than other types of emotional memories.
151)
According to Hermann Ebbinghaus, A) most forgetting occurs long after we originally learned something. B) most forgetting occurs soon after we originally learned something. C) motivated forgetting is a good treatment for overcoming traumatic events. D) motivated forgetting is a poor treatment for overcoming traumatic events.
152)
An encoding failure occurs when A) information was never entered into long-term memory. B) newly learned information interferes with preexisting knowledge. C) preexisting knowledge interferes with newly learned information. D) the number of neural connections decreases over time.
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153)
Proactive and retroactive interference are examples of A) encoding failures. B) storage failures. C) retrieval failures. D) brain damage.
154) Which of the following occurs when material that was learned earlier disrupts the recall of material learned later? A) elaboration B) proactive interference C) transference D) motivated forgetting
155) Belinda and John were best friends through their school years. Belinda now works in a café and has become good friends with her colleague, Jim. However, Belinda often finds herself referring to Jim as John, even though she has not spoken to John for at least four years. Belinda's confusion with these names may be attributed to the occurrence of A) proactive interference. B) retroactive interference. C) retrograde amnesia. D) anterograde amnesia.
156) In the context of memory retrieval failure, ________ refers to the idea that people forget not because memories are lost from storage but because other information gets in the way of what they want to remember.
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A) interference theory B) decay theory C) the Atkinson-Shiffrin theory D) psychodynamic theory
157) ________ is a situation in which material that was learned later disrupts the retrieval of information that was learned earlier. A) Retroactive interference B) Motivated forgetting C) Transience D) Transference
158) You are taking both a Spanish and a French course this semester. As you study the vocabulary words for your French test, you realize that the French words are disrupting the memory of the Spanish vocabulary words you studied last week. This is an example of A) retroactive interference. B) proactive interference. C) transience. D) transference.
159) According to ________, when we learn something new, a neurochemical memory trace forms, but over time this trace disintegrates. A) tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon B) decay theory C) interference theory D) psychodynamic theory
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160)
According to decay theory, why do memories fade?
A) There is a limited amount of storage available for long-term memories, so older memories must decay and make room for new memories. B) The cerebellum cannot hold on to information long-term. C) Synaptic connections become broken. D) A neurochemical memory trace disintegrates over time.
161) A woman remembers that she has an important meeting with her advisor right after her English class on Tuesday. This is an example of ________ memory. A) retrospective B) prospective C) procedural D) autobiographical
162)
A breakdown between attention and memory storage often results in A) absentmindedness. B) anterograde amnesia. C) retrograde amnesia. D) motivated forgetting.
163) The type of effortful retrieval associated with a person's feeling that they know something (say, a word or a name) but cannot quite pull it out of memory is known as
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A) decay phenomenon. B) tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon. C) retroactive interference. D) proactive interference.
164) Lakeisha sustained a brain injury in a car accident. Although Lakeisha's memories of her life before the accident are intact, she is no longer able to form new, long-term memories. Every night when she goes to bed, her memories of what she had done that day are lost. Lakeisha suffers from A) retrograde amnesia. B) anterograde amnesia. C) infantile amnesia. D) displacement.
165) A high-school football player received a head injury during a game. Following recovery, he was unable to remember anything that happened before the injury. However, he was able to form new relationships and new memories. In the context of forgetting, his condition best exemplifies A) anterograde amnesia. B) retrograde amnesia. C) the primacy effect. D) the recency effect.
166)
A person suffering from retrograde amnesia will
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A) lose past memories and the retention of new memories will be severely impacted. B) lose past memories and the ability to acquire new memories will remain unaffected. C) recall past memories but not be able to make new ones. D) lose some past memories but have only the sporadic ability to make new memories.
167) Samantha tells Ava, her friend, that she should use imagery when studying. In the context of the science of memory, this tip will be most useful to Ava when she is ________ information. A) retrieving B) encoding C) organizing D) rehearsing
168) Janice just rewrote her American history notes and is now testing herself on the material. This is best described as A) rehearsing. B) retrieving. C) elaborating. D) encoding.
169)
An individual's autobiographical memory forms the core of the individual's A) cognitive system. B) emotional system. C) personal identity. D) brain.
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170)
The adage most appropriate to memory function and aging is A) "Use it or lose it." B) "Better late than never." C) "A little goes a long way." D) "Seize the moment."
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 06_5e_King 1) Memory Encoding 2) Memory Storage 3) Memory Storage 4) Memory Storage 5) Memory Storage 6) Memory Retrieval 7) Memory Storage 8) Memory Retrieval 9) Forgetting 10) Forgetting 11) B 12) D 13) A 14) B 15) D 16) B 17) A 18) D 19) A 20) C 21) A Version 1
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22) A 23) B 24) D 25) B 26) B 27) C 28) C 29) B 30) A 31) D 32) A 33) C 34) D 35) A 36) C 37) A 38) B 39) A 40) B 41) C 42) A 43) A 44) A 45) C 46) C 47) A 48) A 49) B 50) B 51) D Version 1
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52) B 53) D 54) D 55) C 56) C 57) A 58) A 59) A 60) C 61) B 62) D 63) D 64) A 65) B 66) C 67) C 68) B 69) A 70) B 71) C 72) A 73) D 74) A 75) C 76) D 77) C 78) B 79) A 80) C 81) A Version 1
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82) C 83) A 84) A 85) D 86) D 87) C 88) C 89) C 90) B 91) A 92) A 93) A 94) A 95) A 96) C 97) A 98) C 99) A 100) A 101) A 102) A 103) B 104) B 105) A 106) A 107) A 108) B 109) A 110) A 111) C Version 1
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112) A 113) C 114) D 115) B 116) C 117) B 118) A 119) A 120) C 121) C 122) B 123) C 124) C 125) A 126) C 127) B 128) A 129) B 130) A 131) C 132) D 133) A 134) A 135) B 136) B 137) C 138) A 139) A 140) A 141) A Version 1
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142) A 143) D 144) B 145) B 146) C 147) A 148) A 149) A 150) A 151) B 152) A 153) C 154) B 155) A 156) A 157) A 158) A 159) B 160) D 161) B 162) A 163) B 164) B 165) B 166) B 167) B 168) A 169) C 170) A
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CHAPTER 7 1)
Concepts are important for four reasons. Briefly describe these reasons.
2)
What are the four steps that are involved in the problem-solving process?
3) Discuss the distinction between inductive and deductive reasoning and give an example of each.
4)
How does convergent thinking differ from divergent thinking?
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5)
List the characteristics of creative people.
6) Robert Sternberg believes that intelligence should be viewed as the capacity to succeed in whatever context a person finds oneself. How is this definition circular and what problem does that present?
7) Describe the concepts of validity, reliability, and standardization and then discuss their relevance to intelligence testing.
8)
Define the concept of heritability and explain how it relates to the study of intelligence.
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9) Research provides support for four environmental interventions that affect childhood intelligence quotient (IQ). Describe the four environmental interventions that can influence childhood IQ.
10) How do psychologists define intellectual disability? What is the distinction between organic intellectual disability and cultural-familial intellectual disability?
11) Evaluate Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence and Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences. What are the strengths and weaknesses of these approaches to intelligence?
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12)
Define the five basic properties of language.
13)
Cognitive psychology is the study of A) emotions and sensations. B) mental processes. C) the abnormal functioning of one's physiology. D) social relationships.
14) An analogy is sometimes drawn between human cognition and the way computers work. The physical brain is analogous to a computer's ________, and cognition is analogous to a computer's ________. A) hardware; software B) software; hardware C) hardware; hard drive D) software; random-access memory (RAM)
15) Why are computers considered to be an oversimplified model of the mind's processing of information?
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A) Most computers receive information from a human who has already coded the information and removed much of its ambiguity. B) Computer information is far too complex for such a comparison to be accurate. C) Computer information is too mathematical for such a comparison to be accurate. D) Computers are currently unable to perform tasks better than humans.
16) A computer system that can defeat numerous poker players, the Mars lander computer that chooses on its own which materials should be collected for examination, and computer projections of the spread of COVID-19 in different countries are all the function of A) artificial intelligence. B) cognitive psychology. C) prototype models. D) cognitive robotics.
17) ________ is a field of study that seeks to endow a robot with intelligent behavior so it can function in the world much like humans do. A) Epigenetic robotics B) Evolutionary robotics C) Cognitive robotics D) Bio-inspired robotics
18) Which of the following refers to the fact that robots that represent very close facsimiles of humans are likely to evoke revulsion in people?
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A) morphology B) the representativeness heuristic C) the uncanny valley D) the Flynn effect
19) Approaches that seek to explain observable behavior by investigating mental processes and structures that cannot be directly observed are labeled as ________ psychology. A) forensic B) behavioral C) cognitive D) biological
20)
________ are mental categories that are used to group objects, events, and characteristics. A) Algorithms B) Concepts C) Semantics D) Matrices
21)
Basketball, football, baseball, and soccer all fit into the ________ of sports. A) heuristic B) morpheme C) concept D) algorithm
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22)
Which of the following is true of concepts? A) Concepts prevent us from generalizing. B) Concepts are independent of experiences and objects. C) Concepts complicate the memory process. D) Concepts provide clues about how to react to a particular object or experience.
23) According to ________, when people evaluate whether a given item reflects a certain concept, they compare the item with the most typical item(s) in that category and look for a "family resemblance" with that item's properties. A) the prototype model B) the availability heuristic model C) Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence D) Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences
24) Dan is at an international food fest with his brother Jude. When Dan is served a dish of Mopane worm stew, Jude tells him reassuringly, "That's food!" and Dan comprehends his statement regarding the concept of food. Which of the following characteristics of concepts has been illustrated in this scenario? A) Concepts facilitate generalization. B) Concepts facilitate association between experiences and objects. C) Concepts aid memory. D) Concepts provide clues about how to react to a particular object.
25)
A prototype is a
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A) strategy that guarantees a solution to a problem. B) representation of the average or ideal member for a concept. C) tendency to search for and use information that supports our ideas rather than refutes them. D) way in which information is processed and manipulated in the decision-making process.
26)
Which of the following is the first step in the problem-solving process? A) evaluating solutions B) finding and framing problems C) developing good problem-solving strategies D) rethinking and redefining problems and solutions over time
27) Mateo manages a fast-food restaurant. He is frustrated because employees often call in sick at the last minute before the start of their shift. Given that Mateo recognizes this problem, which of the following is the next immediate step that he should take to solve this problem? A) Sam should rethink and redefine the problem and its solution over time. B) Sam should implement the solution that has been identified. C) Sam should evaluate the solutions offered by his employees. D) Sam should define the problem and develop strategies to solve it.
28)
The final step in the problem-solving process is A) developing good problem-solving strategies. B) evaluating solutions. C) rethinking and redefining problems and solutions over time. D) finding and framing problems.
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29)
Recognizing problems involves A) being aware of and open to experiences. B) functional fixedness. C) artificial intelligence. D) using heuristics.
30) You have to host a dinner party for 30 people on Saturday. Your apartment is a mess and your clothes need to be washed. You decide to do your laundry on Thursday, buy the groceries on Friday, clean the apartment on Saturday in the morning, and prepare the dinner on Saturday evening. Solving the problem of hosting the dinner party in this way is an example of A) subgoaling. B) using algorithms. C) using heuristics. D) prototyping.
31)
A good strategy in subgoaling is to
A) work forward in your planning by first creating a subgoal that is closest to the beginning of the problem-solving effort and finally creating a subgoal that is closest to the final goal. B) not create more than two subgoals. C) not create fewer than ten subgoals. D) work backward in your planning by first creating a subgoal that is closest to the final goal, and then work backward to the subgoal that is closest to the beginning of the problemsolving effort.
32)
Which of the following statements is true about algorithms?
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A) They are more likely than heuristics to solve real-world problems. B) Working backward when applying algorithms is a good problem-solving strategy. C) They come in different forms, such as formulas, instructions, and the testing of all possible solutions. D) Compared to humans, computers can less efficiently apply algorithms.
33)
A(n) ________ is a strategy that guarantees a solution to a problem. A) subgoal B) algorithm C) heuristic D) fixation
34) Claudia plans to cook her mother's famous lasagna. She carefully follows her mother's recipe to ensure that the dish turns out correctly. In this case, Claudia is using a(n) A) heuristic. B) subgoal. C) algorithm. D) category.
35) Which of the following is true of algorithms and heuristics used for solving real-life problems? A) Heuristics are shortcut strategies. B) Algorithms lead to different answers to a given problem. C) Heuristics guarantee a solution to a problem. D) Algorithms are faster than heuristics.
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36)
What is the primary disadvantage of using algorithms? A) They only work for large problems. B) They are very similar to trial-and-error methods. C) Correct solutions are not guaranteed. D) They are likely to take a long time to solve a simple problem.
37)
Heuristics differ from algorithms in that heuristics A) are slow. B) come in different forms. C) are complex strategies used to solve simple problems. D) do not guarantee an answer.
38) When comparing algorithms and heuristics, what is the advantage of using heuristics for solving real-life problems? A) speed and efficiency B) mental set C) accuracy D) precision
39) Developing a criterion for judging the effectiveness of a solution occurs during which step of the problem-solving process?
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A) finding and framing the problem B) developing problem-solving strategies C) evaluation of solutions D) redefining problems over time
40)
________ is a characteristic of good problem solvers. A) Pessimism B) Humility C) Egocentrism D) Fixation
41) Carolina uses a prior strategy to solve her problems and fails to look at them from a fresh, new perspective. Which of the following is exemplified in this scenario? A) fixation B) the uncanny valley C) confirmation bias D) base rate neglect
42) Ada runs out of bags to pick up after her dog at the dog park. She heads to the grocery store to buy some bags and a few other things. When she gets home from the store, she unpacks the bags she bought and the rest of her groceries and then throws away the plastic bags that the groceries came in. This best exemplifies which of the following? A) functional fixedness B) inductive reasoning C) base rate neglect D) confirmation bias
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43) People often form general rules and concepts based on specific experiences and examples. This type of reasoning is known as A) deductive reasoning. B) subgoaling. C) inductive reasoning. D) problem spacing.
44) Psychological research involves studying a sample of participants in order to make generalizations about the population from which the sample is drawn. This is an example of A) inductive reasoning. B) deductive reasoning. C) algorithms. D) artificial intelligence.
45)
Which of the following statements is true of inductive reasoning?
A) It involves drawing conclusions based on facts. B) It refers to reasoning from a general principle that individuals know to be true to a specific instance. C) It involves making predictions and then evaluating the predictions by making further observations. D) It involves forming opinions based on prior experiences.
46) ________ involves reasoning from a general case that we know to be true to a specific instance.
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A) Inductive reasoning B) Deductive reasoning C) Abductive reasoning D) Retrodictive reasoning
47) ________ uses established rules to draw conclusions, whereas in ________, such rules are not established, and we may not know the consequences of evaluating and choosing alternatives. A) Reasoning; decision making B) Heuristics; algorithms C) Creativity; reasoning D) Heuristics; reasoning
48) Which of the following characterizes the controlled (Type 2) system of reasoning and decision making? A) analytical B) rapid C) heuristic D) intuitive
49) The tendency to search for and use information that supports our ideas rather than refutes them is known as A) hindsight bias. B) confirmation bias. C) intervention bias. D) selection bias.
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50) People's decisions are likely to be biased because they tend to seek out and listen to others whose views confirm their views while they avoid those with dissenting views. This is a characteristic of A) the representativeness heuristic. B) the availability heuristic. C) hindsight bias. D) confirmation bias.
51) ________ is people's tendency to report falsely, after the fact, that they accurately predicted an outcome. It is sometimes referred to as the "I knew it all along effect." A) Hindsight bias B) Confirmation bias C) Selection bias D) Intervention bias
52) With ________, people tend to view events that have happened as more predictable than they were, and to represent themselves as being more accurate in their predictions than they actually were. A) the availability heuristic B) hindsight bias C) confirmation bias D) the representativeness heuristic
53) A 20-year-old college student wants to start jogging every morning. However, she realizes that this would mean getting up early instead of sleeping in, which she enjoys immensely. In the context of loss aversion, which of the following is she most likely to do? Version 1
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A) She will buy a pair of jogging shoes. B) She will find a jogging partner. C) She will prefer to sleep and avoid jogging. D) She will start cycling rather than jogging.
54)
In the context of loss aversion, identify a true statement about sunk-cost fallacy.
A) People ascribe greater value to things they already own, compared to objects owned by someone else. B) People disregard prior experiences or failures when making predictions about the possibility of an outcome. C) People are reluctant to give up on a venture because of past investment. D) People tend to report falsely, after the fact, that they accurately predicted an outcome.
55) In the context of loss aversion, which of the following statements is true of the endowment effect? A) People ascribe greater value to things they already own, compared to objects owned by someone else. B) People tend to make more losses than gains when making investments based on the suggestions of their peers. C) People are reluctant to give up on a venture because of past investment. D) People tend to report falsely, after the fact, that they accurately predicted an outcome.
56) ________ refers to a prediction about the probability of an event based on the ease of recalling or imagining similar events.
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A) Confirmation bias B) The availability heuristic C) The representativeness heuristic D) Hindsight bias
57) Haruto, who often travels in airplanes, experiences sudden fear of flying after he hears the news about an airplane crash. In this case, Haruto's experience demonstrates A) confirmation bias. B) the availability heuristic. C) hindsight bias. D) timing bias.
58) The fact that we hear about airplane crashes on news more often than we hear about automobile crashes may lead us to believe that we are more likely to die in a plane than a car. This is an example of A) attention bias. B) the simulation heuristic. C) the availability heuristic. D) the representativeness heuristic.
59) Fatima meets her brother's friend Drake, who is a tall, lanky man. She concludes that Drake might be a basketball player for his college team. According to the biases and heuristics in decision making, it can be concluded that Fatima mirrors ________ in this scenario.
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A) the representativeness heuristic B) the availability heuristic C) confirmation bias D) hindsight bias
60) The tendency to ignore information about general principles in favor of very specific but vivid information is known as A) Bonferroni inequalities. B) false discovery rate. C) Boole's inequality. D) base rate neglect.
61) Jabari wanted to watch an action thriller that got exceptionally good ratings. However, his friend told Jabari that she found many plot holes in the storyline and did not enjoy the movie, and Jabari decided not to watch the movie. This scenario best illustrates A) the availability heuristic. B) confirmation bias. C) loss aversion. D) base rate neglect.
62) ________ is the tendency to make judgments about group membership based on physical appearances or the match between a person and one's stereotype of a group rather than on available base rate information.
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A) Hindsight bias B) Confirmation bias C) The availability heuristic D) The representativeness heuristic
63)
The cultivation of two mental habits is essential to critical thinking. These habits are A) mindfulness and open-mindedness. B) fixedness and divergent thinking. C) heuristics and creativity. D) inductive reasoning and deductive reasoning.
64)
Which of the following describes the trait of a critical thinker? A) grasping the deeper meaning of ideas B) providing a single accurate solution to any problem C) relying on the opinions of others D) practicing groupthink
65)
Mindfulness means A) the state of being alert and mentally present for one's everyday activities. B) the state of being receptive to other ways of looking at things. C) having a strong ability to think about something in novel and unusual ways. D) having the tendency to ignore information about general principles.
66)
Open-mindedness involves
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A) being alert and mentally present for one's everyday activities. B) being receptive to other ways of looking at things. C) the tendency to ignore information about general principles in favor of very specific but vivid information. D) the tendency to predict about the probability of an event based on the ease of recalling similar events.
67)
Which of the following is most likely to result from a lack of critical thinking? A) belief in conspiracy theories B) use of convergent thinking C) hindsight bias D) reluctance to give up on a lost cause
68) ________ is defined as the ability to think about something in novel and unusual ways and to devise unconventional solutions to problems. A) An algorithm B) Creativity C) A heuristic D) Fixedness
69) In the context of creative thinking, ________ produces many solutions to the same problem. A) deductive reasoning B) convergent thinking C) divergent thinking D) inductive reasoning
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70) Lionel is the CEO of a company that is going through a financial crisis. He asks his employees to brainstorm and create a list of all possible solutions to revive the company's business. In this scenario, Lionel is asking his employees to engage in A) convergent thinking. B) divergent thinking. C) heuristic thinking. D) functional fixedness.
71)
________ produces the single best solution to a problem. A) Deductive reasoning B) Convergent thinking C) Divergent thinking D) Inductive reasoning
72)
Which of the following statements is true of convergent thinking? A) It is best when a problem has only one right answer. B) It occurs during brainstorming. C) It produces many solutions to the same problem. D) It is usually avoided by creative people.
73)
Creative people engage in
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A) divergent thinking but not in convergent thinking. B) deductive thinking. C) both convergent thinking and divergent thinking. D) functional fixedness.
74)
Which of the following is usually a trait of creative thinkers? A) dogmatic thinking B) categorical thinking C) risk avoidance D) inner motivation
75)
Brainstorming is an example of A) convergent thinking. B) divergent thinking. C) deductive reasoning. D) functional fixedness.
76) To find out a simple, yet accurate, way of measuring customer satisfaction, Carl, the human resource manager of a company, conducts a meeting and requires all employees to openly give their ideas and suggestions. He encourages them to think creatively and come up with as many ideas as possible, from which one will be chosen. Which of the following concepts related to creative thinking does this scenario exemplify? A) deductive reasoning B) brainstorming C) semantic networking D) mind mapping
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77)
Which of the following is true of individuals who think creatively?
A) Creative people make fewer mistakes than their less-imaginative counterparts. B) Creative thinkers are flexible and play with problems. C) Creative thinkers tend to be more inspired than less creative people by grades, money, or favorable feedback from others. D) Creative thinkers feel that being wrong is a failure.
78)
Which of the following is true of creative thinkers? A) They are likely to use established criteria to make judgments. B) They make fewer mistakes than their less-imaginative counterparts. C) They strive to evaluate their work subjectively. D) They are motivated externally rather than internally.
79)
Identify a fact related to creative thinkers. A) They are usually superficial in their approach. B) They are usually convergent in their approach. C) They generally strive to evaluate their work objectively. D) They tend to avoid taking risks in their decision-making process.
80) who
Flexibility, inner motivation, and willingness to face risk are characteristics of people
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A) use algorithms. B) prefer to use convergent thinking rather than divergent thinking. C) think creatively. D) use inductive reasoning.
81)
In the United States, intelligence is generally defined as
A) a trait that is shaped entirely by genetics. B) an all-purpose ability to do well on cognitive tasks, to solve problems, and to learn from experience. C) the ability to know what to do and follow through with appropriate action, under most circumstances. D) the ability to participate responsibly in family and social life.
82) Which of the following refers to the belief that the human species can be improved by discouraging reproduction among those with less desirable characteristics and enhancing reproduction of those with more desirable characteristics? A) eugenics B) fixation C) base rate neglect D) heritability
83)
When the scores on a measure relate to important outcomes, we say the test has high A) reliability. B) criterion validity. C) standardization. D) distribution.
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84) If an intelligence test produces the same score over multiple repetitions but it doesn't accurately measure intelligence, then the test is ________ but not ________. A) reliable; valid B) valid; reliable C) inductive; deductive D) divergent; convergent
85) ________ is defined as the extent to which a test yields a consistent, reproducible measure of performance. A) Predictability B) Validity C) Reliability D) Standardization
86)
Standardization
A) refers to the ability to yield a consistent result to what it is intended to measure. B) refers to the extent to which a test measures what it is intended to measure. C) is the extent to which a test yields a consistent, reproducible measure of performance. D) involves developing uniform procedures for administering and scoring a test, as well as creating norms, or performance standards, for the test.
87)
________ is an individual's level of intellectual development relative to that of others.
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A) Chronological age B) Mental age C) Psychological quotient D) Cerebral quotient
88)
If a child's mental age is higher than their chronological age, this means that A) the child's IQ is above average. B) the child has an average IQ. C) the child's IQ is lower than average. D) the child's IQ is deteriorating.
89)
A six-year-old child with a mental age of 6 would have an IQ of A) 90. B) 100. C) 110. D) 60.
90)
A child with a mental age of 9 and a chronological age of 12 has an IQ of A) 120. B) 75. C) 100. D) 90.
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91) When scores on IQ tests like the Stanford-Binet and the Wechsler scales are examined, they approximate a ______, which is a symmetrical, bell-shaped curve, with a majority of scores falling in the middle of the possible range and few scores appearing toward the extremes. A) normal distribution B) standardization C) progressive matrix D) prototype model
92) Dr. Ambrose conducts an intelligence test, and one question asks, "During which month of the year does the National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA) basketball championship start?" Students from various groups within the United States, as well as students from other countries, may have problems with this question because it is probably A) gender biased. B) culturally biased. C) unreliable. D) generalized.
93)
Which of the following is true of most intelligence tests? A) They reflect what is important to the dominant culture. B) They measure a universally accepted definition of intelligence. C) They warn those who take them that they are not culture fair. D) They accurately measure intelligence regardless of socioeconomic background.
94) ________ is the proportion of observable differences in a group that can be explained by differences in the genes of the group's members.
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A) Familiarity B) Accountability C) Heritability D) Cognizance
95)
As heritability is a proportion, the highest degree of heritability is ________ percent. A) 25 B) 40 C) 100 D) 150
96)
Which of the following statements is true of heritability?
A) Heritability has no meaning when applied to a single case. B) Heritability is a statistic that provides information about a single individual. C) Heritability estimates remain constant over time and across different groups. D) Even if the heritability of a characteristic is very high, the environment seldom matters.
97)
Which of the following is true of the heritability of intelligence? A) A large number of genetic characteristics are involved in intelligence. B) One specific gene produces intelligence. C) The majority of one's intelligence is genetically predetermined. D) Environmental interventions have very little influence on IQ scores.
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98) Which of the following environmental factors would be LEAST likely to positively influence childhood IQ? A) independently looking at books B) going to preschool C) taking an omega-3 fatty acid supplement D) early educational interventions
99) An effect of the environment on intelligence is evident in rapidly increasing intelligence quotient (IQ) test scores around the world. This phenomenon is called A) fixation. B) standardization. C) the uncanny valley. D) the Flynn effect.
100) Malcom has an IQ of 140. He has skipped three grades and is an A+ student with superior verbal and mathematical abilities. Psychologists would most likely consider Malcom to be A) gifted. B) autistic. C) socially maladjusted. D) an introvert.
101)
People who are gifted have an IQ of
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A) 110–120. B) 90. C) 70 or lower. D) 130 or higher.
102)
Which of the following statements is true of people who are gifted? A) They are typically gifted in many domains. B) They have an IQ of less than 120. C) They have superior talent in a particular area. D) They have below-average intelligence.
103) Intellectual disability is a condition of limited mental ability in which an individual has an IQ of ________ and has difficulty adapting to everyday life. A) 95 B) 110 C) 140 or above D) 70 or below
104)
________ is caused by a genetic disorder. A) Organic intellectual disability B) Cultural-familial intellectual disability C) Vitamin-deficiency intellectual disability D) Functional fixedness
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105)
Which of the following statements is true about cultural-familial intellectual disability?
A) It results in a decrease in the intelligence of people as they move toward adulthood. B) It is a cognitive disability with no evidence of organic brain damage. C) Individuals with this type of intellectual disability have an intelligence quotient (IQ) score between 0 and 50. D) Down syndrome is a form of this type of intellectual disability.
106) The American Association on Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities (2010) has developed an assessment that examines a person's level of adaptive behavior in the life domains of conceptual skills, social skills, and practical skills. Which of the following is an example of conceptual skills? A) interpersonal skills B) understanding of time C) use of the telephone D) ability to follow rules and obey
107) According to the American Association on Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities (2010), which of the following illustrates social skills? A) Martin has a good understanding of numbers. B) Andrea is able to handle money well. C) Pablo is able to follow and obey rules. D) Emma is able to use telephones.
108) According to the American Association on Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities (2010), which of the following illustrates practical skills?
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A) Grace is an extremely responsible manager. B) Emily is excellent at handling accounts. C) Noah follows and obeys traffic rules. D) Daniel drives to work daily.
109) The ability to analyze, judge, evaluate, compare, and contrast are characteristics of ________ intelligence. A) algorithmic B) analytical C) creative D) practical
110) According to Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence, ________ intelligence predominantly involves the ability to design, invent, originate, and imagine. A) intrapersonal B) analytical C) creative D) naturalist
111) According to ________ there are three forms of intelligence, whereas according to ________ there are nine types of intelligence. A) Sternberg's triarchic theory; Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences B) Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences; Sternberg's triarchic theory C) Sternberg's triarchic theory; artificial intelligence (AI) theory D) artificial intelligence (AI) theory; Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences
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112) According to Gardner's multiple intelligences, which of the following frames of mind describes the ability to think three-dimensionally? A) existentialist B) naturalist C) intrapersonal D) spatial
113) According to Gardner's multiple intelligences, which of the following occupations would most likely require bodily-kinesthetic intelligence? A) botanists B) accountants C) dancers D) musicians
114) According to Gardner's multiple intelligences, which of the following types of vocations would most likely require interpersonal intelligence? A) botanists B) accountants C) teachers D) musicians
115) Martina started her career as a war correspondent for a leading news agency. After 20 years of reporting from war zones around the world, she has decided to write an autobiography. According to Howard Gardner's nine types of intelligence, she would most likely score high on
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A) existentialist intelligence. B) naturalist intelligence. C) intrapersonal intelligence. D) verbal intelligence.
116) Li is a scientist and his sister, Min, is an engineer. According to Howard Gardner's nine types of intelligence, both Li and Min are most likely to score high on A) interpersonal intelligence. B) bodily-kinesthetic intelligence. C) mathematical intelligence. D) verbal intelligence.
117) According to Howard Gardner's multiple intelligences, who among the following is most likely to score high on spatial intelligence? A) Conor, a speaker B) Lorenzo, an accountant C) Charlie, an artist D) Andrea, a dancer
118) In the context of Howard Gardner's multiple intelligences, which of the following refers to the ability to manipulate objects and to be physically adept? A) existentialist intelligence B) naturalist intelligence C) mathematical intelligence D) bodily-kinesthetic intelligence
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119) According to Howard Gardner's multiple intelligences, a psychiatrist is most likely to score high on A) mathematical intelligence. B) spatial intelligence. C) interpersonal intelligence. D) musical intelligence.
120) Matteo specializes in the study of religious faith, practice, and experience. He is especially interested in the study of God and of God's relation to the world. According to Howard Gardner's multiple intelligences, Matteo is most likely to score high on A) spatial intelligence. B) musical intelligence. C) intrapersonal intelligence. D) naturalist intelligence.
121) According to Howard Gardner's multiple intelligences, who among the following is most likely to score high on naturalist intelligence? A) Filip, a sailor B) Carolina, a musician C) Santiago, a dancer D) Julia, an ecologist
122) According to Howard Gardner's multiple intelligences, which of the following refers to the ability to grapple with questions such as the meaning of life and death with special sensitivity to issues of spirituality?
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A) interpersonal intelligence B) spatial intelligence C) existentialist intelligence D) verbal intelligence
123)
Infinite generativity refers to A) the ability to learn more than one language. B) the ability to make unlimited decisions. C) the ability to produce an unlimited number of rules. D) the ability to produce an endless number of meaningful sentences.
124)
________ is a language's sound system. A) Phonology B) Semantics C) Morphology D) Syntax
125) ________ refers to a language's rules for combining words to form acceptable phrases and sentences. A) Phonology B) Semantic C) Morphology D) Syntax
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126)
Which of the following is the smallest unit of language that carries meaning? A) a consonant B) a vowel C) a phoneme D) a morpheme
127) Greta is teaching her students the meaning of words and sentences in the language used in the country of Calibra. In this scenario, Greta is most likely referring to the ________ of the Calibran language. A) phonology B) semantics C) pragmatics D) syntax
128)
The sentence "The bicycle talked the boy into buying a candy bar" is A) pragmatically correct but syntactically incorrect. B) semantically correct but syntactically incorrect. C) syntactically correct but semantically incorrect. D) syntactically and pragmatically incorrect.
129) The useful character of language and the ability of language to communicate even more meaning than is verbalized is known as
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A) pragmatics. B) semantics. C) syntaxes. D) morphemes.
130) In the context of the role of language in cognition, which of the following is a contribution of linguist Benjamin Whorf (1956)? A) He believed that language milestones are dependent on the language input received from the environment. B) He argued that language determines the way people think. C) He believed that children learn the full rules and structure of languages by only imitating what they hear. D) He argued that children learn language by being completely aware of its underlying logic.
131) ________ is a learning disability characterized by difficulty with learning to read fluently and with accurate comprehension, despite normal intelligence. A) Dyslexia B) Epilepsy C) Fibromyalgia D) Schizophrenia
132)
Which of the following is true of the connection between language and thought?
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A) Language and thought have evolved as separate but related components of the mind. B) Language and thought are part of a single mental system. C) Language influences thought, but thought does not influence language. D) Language and thought are completely unrelated.
133) According to American linguist Noam Chomsky, identify a true statement about language universals. A) Children learn language without an awareness of its underlying logic. B) Children are highly affected by the language input they receive from their environments. C) Children learn the full rules and structure of languages by only imitating what they hear. D) Children all over the world reach language milestones at different times and in varying orders.
134) In the context of the biological and environmental influences on language, which of the following statements is true about language and the brain? A) Language processing mainly occurs in the brain's left hemisphere. B) Broca's area contributes to language comprehension. C) Wernicke's area is involved in speech production. D) Infants are able to attach meaning to words only after the age of one.
135)
Which of the following statements is true of babbling?
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A) It usually begins when babies are 18–24 months old. B) It is unlikely to be determined by biological readiness. C) It refers to the endless repetition of sounds and syllables. D) It is determined by the amount of reinforcement or the ability to hear.
136)
Identify the age group during which children typically understand adult literary work. A) 6 to 8 years B) 15 to 20 years C) 9 to 11 years D) 5 to 6 years
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 07_5e_King 1) Thinking 2) Thinking 3) Thinking 4) Thinking 5) Thinking 6) Intelligence 7) Intelligence 8) Intelligence 9) Intelligence 10) Intelligence 11) Intelligence 12) Language 13) B 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) C 18) C 19) C 20) B Version 1
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21) C 22) D 23) A 24) D 25) B 26) B 27) D 28) C 29) A 30) A 31) D 32) C 33) B 34) C 35) A 36) D 37) D 38) A 39) C 40) B 41) A 42) A 43) C 44) A 45) D 46) B 47) A 48) A 49) B 50) D Version 1
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51) A 52) B 53) C 54) C 55) A 56) B 57) B 58) C 59) A 60) D 61) D 62) D 63) A 64) A 65) A 66) B 67) A 68) B 69) C 70) B 71) B 72) A 73) C 74) D 75) B 76) B 77) B 78) A 79) C 80) C Version 1
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81) B 82) A 83) B 84) A 85) C 86) D 87) B 88) A 89) B 90) B 91) A 92) B 93) A 94) C 95) C 96) A 97) A 98) A 99) D 100) A 101) D 102) C 103) D 104) A 105) B 106) B 107) C 108) D 109) B 110) C Version 1
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111) A 112) D 113) C 114) C 115) D 116) C 117) C 118) D 119) C 120) C 121) D 122) C 123) D 124) A 125) D 126) D 127) B 128) C 129) A 130) B 131) A 132) A 133) A 134) A 135) C 136) B
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CHAPTER 8 1)
Explain the distinction between a cross-sectional study and a longitudinal study.
2) If you were asked by some coworkers to help settle a controversy about whether heredity or environment is more important in shaping development, what would you tell them?
3)
Development is a process that follows a genetic master plan. Refute this argument.
4) Describe the three biological theories of aging (cellular-clock theory, free-radical theory, and hormonal stress theory of aging).
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5) Describe the four stages in Piaget's theory of cognitive development. What major milestones are achieved at each stage?
6) Evaluate the strengths and weaknesses of Piaget's theory of cognitive development. To what extent is Piaget's theory supported by psychological research?
7)
Describe the influence of the larger culture on adolescents' search for identity.
8)
What role do parents and peers play in adolescent development?
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9) Describe how psychologists define the emerging adulthood lifespan period, and list Arnett's five features of emerging adulthood.
10) Your friend Cal just got married. Given the high rate of divorce in the United States, Cal is interested in doing everything he can to make his marriage a success. Knowing that you are a psychology student, he turns to you for advice. Discuss the results of John Gottman's research with Cal, and describe the four principles that characterize a successful marriage.
11)
How do theorists suggest that gender schemas develop?
12)
Discuss the criticisms of Kohlberg's theory of moral development.
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13)
Development is best described as
A) the pattern of continuity and change that occurs throughout the course of life. B) a person's environmental and social experiences. C) a person's lifelong ability to recover from or adapt to difficult times. D) the changes in emotions, personality, and relationships with other people that occur over time.
14)
In a cross-sectional study related to developmental psychology, A) the same people are retested over a period of years. B) a number of people are assessed at one point in time. C) different characteristics of an individual are assessed simultaneously. D) the behavior of an individual is assessed by different researchers.
15) ________ are differences between people that stem not necessarily from their ages but from the historical period and social time in which they were born and developed. A) Butterfly effects B) Longitudinal effects C) Cohort effects D) Hawthorne effects
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16) Which of the following describes a difference between cross-sectional and longitudinal studies? A) Unlike cross-sectional studies, longitudinal studies are affected by cohort effects. B) Cross-sectional studies deal with people of the same age, whereas longitudinal studies deal with people belonging to different age groups. C) Cross-sectional studies assess people at one point in time, whereas longitudinal studies assess people over a long period of time. D) Cross-sectional studies assess participants multiple times, whereas longitudinal studies assess participants only once.
17) Developmental psychologists use which of the following terms to refer to a person's biological inheritance, especially genes? A) accommodation B) nurture C) assimilation D) nature
18) In the context of human development, ________ refers to an individual's environmental and social experiences. A) nature B) nurture C) genetics D) genealogy
19) Which of the following are most closely associated with the nurture side of the nature versus nurture debate?
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A) biological inheritances B) ranges of phenotypes C) genotypic characteristics D) social experiences
20)
Which of the following statements about a person's phenotype is correct?
A) How a person's genotype is expressed by their phenotype may depend on the environment. B) A person's phenotype is a direct reflection of their genotype. C) A person's phenotype is developed solely from the blueprint set out by their genes. D) How a person's phenotype is expressed is unrelated to their genotype.
21)
_______ refers to a person's ability to recover from or adapt to difficult times. A) Rigidity B) Assimilation C) Resilience D) Innatism
22) Which of the following situations indicates resilience that characterizes the individual's development in adulthood? A) Jayden, who did not get good grades in middle school, studies hard in high school, and gets a scholarship at an Ivy League university. B) Xen gets low SAT scores after their parents file for a divorce. C) Ryle, whose parents fund his university education, fails in his final examinations. D) Cathy is not allowed to write the examinations because she misses school to take care of her mother, who is not well.
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23) Leonard, a 30-year-old Princeton University graduate, gives up a corporate job to teach children and seniors of Lubango village. He decides that all his future endeavors will be focused on eradication of illiteracy in Lubango. In his efforts to experience life in optimal ways, Leonard has developed A) a socioemotional process. B) assimilation. C) resilience. D) a life theme.
24) ________ is often referred to asmaturation because it involves an unfolding of biological processes. A) Cognitive development B) Social development C) Physical development D) Emotional development
25)
Socioemotional processes involve changes in an individual's A) relationships with other people. B) thought and intelligence. C) language skills. D) biological nature.
26)
Who among the following engages in a cognitive process?
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A) Jacob, a 14-year-old boy, whose height and weight increase during adolescence B) Cindy, a 20-year-old student, who imagines herself as the governor of Florida C) Hamza, an infant, who smiles in response to his mother's touch D) Yolanda, a 22-year-old athlete, who is aggressive while playing any sport
27) In the ________ week of prenatal physical development, the neural tube—which eventually becomes the spinal cord—starts to take shape. A) first B) third C) sixth D) ninth
28) In the course of the prenatal development of human beings, by the end of the ________ period, the heart begins to beat, the arms and legs become more differentiated, the face starts to form, and the intestinal tract appears. A) germinal B) fetal C) conception D) embryonic
29)
Which of the following is the correct course of prenatal development? A) germinal period, embryonic period, fetal period B) fetal period, embryonic period, germinal period C) embryonic period, germinal period, fetal period D) germinal period, fetal period, embryonic period
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30)
Which of the following is true of prenatal development in humans? A) The beginnings of organs appear during the embryonic period. B) The rate of cell differentiation decreases during the embryonic period. C) The intestinal tract first appears in the fetal period of development. D) Thefetal period refers to the first and second week of conception.
31)
In the context of prenatal development, which of the following is true of the fetal period? A) It is in this period that the fertilized egg is called a zygote. B) At six months, the formation of the intestinal tract of the fetus begins. C) It is in this period that the heart of the fetus begins to beat. D) At four months, the fetus is 5 inches long and weighs about 5 ounces.
32)
A(n) ________ is any agent that causes a birth defect. A) androgen B) teratogen C) progestogen D) estrogen
33) In the context of prenatal development, which of the following statements is true regarding teratogens?
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A) They exclude substances ingested during pregnancy, such as nicotine or alcohol. B) The effects of teratogens depend on the timing of exposure. C) They are birth defects caused by radiation. D) The development of a fetus is typically enhanced by teratogens.
34) Which of the following infant reflexes disappears in the months following birth as infants develop voluntary control over many behaviors? A) gripping B) coughing C) blinking D) yawning
35)
Which of the following is true of motor and perceptual skills in infancy?
A) Motor and perceptual skills are coupled and depend on each other. B) Motor and perceptual skills are independent of one another. C) Motor skill development is related to perceptual skill development, but the two are not dependent on each other. D) The development of perceptual skills does not occur until motor skills are firmly developed.
36)
What is the biggest challenge faced by psychologists who study infant perception?
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A) Infants are already studied by pediatricians; it isn't considered appropriate for psychologists to also study them. B) Infant perception is a topic that is of little theoretical interest to psychologists. C) Since infants cannot talk, psychologists may not know whether infants can see or hear certain things. D) Infants spend too much time eating and sleeping to be good research subjects.
37) What infant-perception research technique involves giving an infant a choice of what object to look at and then looking for a reliable preference for one stimulus over the other? A) habituation B) preferential looking C) aphasia D) object permanence
38) Oscar, a 4-month-old baby, is a participant in a preferential looking experiment. Researchers show Oscar two photographs: a photo of his mother and a photo of a female stranger. The photographs are presented repeatedly in differing locations, and the amount of time Oscar spends looking at the photographs is recorded. What will researchers conclude if Oscar shows a reliable preference for the photograph of his mother over that of the stranger? A) Oscar can discriminate the photograph of his mother from that of the stranger. B) Oscar is afraid of strangers. C) Oscar likes strangers as much as his mother. D) Oscar can't see very well.
39) Min-jun is a happy and healthy 3-month-old baby. Based on research using the preferential looking technique, what can you predict about Min-jun's perceptual abilities?
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A) Min-jun will not be able to distinguish between scrambled faces and real faces. B) Min-jun will prefer a stranger's face to his mother's face. C) Min-jun will prefer real faces to scrambled faces, and he will also prefer his mother's face to a stranger's face. D) Min-jun will prefer real to scrambled faces but will not be able to distinguish his mother's face from a stranger's face.
40) Which of the following statements is true regarding the development of the brain in humans? A) Synaptic connections decrease drastically during childhood. B) The number of connections among neurons is the highest at birth. C) The process of myelination begins prenatally and continues after birth well into adulthood. D) The process of myelination stops at adolescence, usually between 14 and 17 years of age.
41)
Which of the following statements is true regarding brain development in humans?
A) At birth, there are only 10 to 20 billion neurons in the infant brain. B) The dendrites of neurons branch out and the neurons become interconnected during adulthood. C) During childhood, synaptic connections in the brain increase dramatically. D) From 3 to 6 years of age, the most rapid growth takes place in the parietal lobe of the brain.
42) Which of the following refers to a period of rapid skeletal and sexual maturation that occurs mainly in early adolescence?
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A) sensorimotor stage B) preoperational stage C) puberty D) menopause
43)
Which of the following is true of pubertal change in adolescents?
A) Hormones are solely responsible for adolescent behavior. B) Estradiol, an estrogen, is associated with the development of genitals, an increase in height, and voice changes in children assigned male at birth. C) There is no dramatic change in the concentration of certain hormones because they decrease gradually during puberty. D) Hormonal changes lie at the core of pubertal development.
44) Adolescents often have difficulty controlling their emotions and making sound decisions about risky behavior. Brain research suggests that this is due to the fact that during adolescence A) the development of the prefrontal cortex is slower than that of the amygdala. B) the prefrontal cortex is developed earlier than the amygdala. C) growth in the hippocampus is halted. D) the corpus callosum becomes severed.
45)
Which of the following statements is true of the development of the adolescent brain?
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A) Adolescents display strong cognitive skills to control their impulses effectively because of the quick development of the prefrontal cortex. B) In comparison with adults, adolescents display fewer emotions because of the slow growth of the amygdala and prefrontal cortex. C) In adolescents, brain changes first occur at the subcortical level in the limbic system. D) The developmental disjunction in the brain accounts for reduced risk-taking behaviors in adolescents.
46)
Most adults reach their peak physical development during their A) 20s. B) 30s. C) 40s. D) 50s.
47) Joon is 83. She has always loved to read but reading became difficult as she began to lose her sight a few years ago. Now, she avidly listens to her favorite authors in audio books. This best exemplifies which of the following? A) selective optimization with compensation B) cellular-clock theory C) the core knowledge approach D) accommodation
48)
According to ________, as we age, our cells become less capable of dividing.
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A) hormonal stress theory B) the free-radical theory C) the cellular-clock theory D) Erikson's theory of socioemotional development
49)
The free-radical theory states that aging is caused by A) unstable oxygen molecules in the cells that damage DNA and other cellular structures. B) the body's lowered resistance to stress and disease. C) biological constraints on cell division. D) nutritional deficiencies.
50) Which theory of aging focuses on the role of chronic stress in diminishing the functioning of the immune system? A) Erikson's theory of socioemotional development B) the free-radical theory C) the cellular-clock theory D) hormonal stress theory
51)
________ is the specialization of function in one hemisphere of the brain or the other. A) Habituation B) Lateralization C) Assimilation D) Accommodation
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52)
According to Piaget, accommodation occurs when individuals A) adjust their schemas to new information. B) incorporate new information into existing schemas. C) are deprived of parental warmth and sensitivity. D) are insecurely attached to their caregivers.
53) Baby Janice knows that when she is put in the highchair, it is time to eat. So, when her father puts her in the highchair and hands her a book, she puts the corner of the book in her mouth. According to Piaget, Janice's behavior can be best explained by A) schematic thinking. B) the assimilation process. C) the accommodation process. D) deferred imitation.
54) According to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, the first stage of cognitive development, which lasts from birth to about two years of age, is the ________ stage. A) preoperational B) concrete operational C) sensorimotor D) formal operational
55) If a child is in Piaget's preoperational stage of development, the child will most likely be able to
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A) solve mathematical problems. B) represent the world with words and images. C) reverse mental operations. D) give logical reasons for knowing something.
56) You tried to play peek-a-boo with your 1-month-old nephew, but whenever you hid your face, he would cry. You try it again six months later, and now he laughs and enjoys the game, trying to uncover your face with his hands. Your nephew has begun to develop A) egocentrism. B) object permanence. C) hindsight bias. D) conservation.
57) When something that is "out of sight" for a child is also "out of mind," that child lacks the concept of A) conservation. B) separation anxiety. C) attachment. D) object permanence.
58) Which of the following represents the correct chronological sequence of Piaget's stages of cognitive development? A) sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational B) sensorimotor, concrete operational, preoperational, formal operational C) preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational, sensorimotor D) concrete operational, formal operational, sensorimotor, preoperational
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59) Which of the following statements is true regarding Piaget's preoperational stage of cognitive development? A) Preoperational thought is less symbolic than sensorimotor thought. B) A child in the preoperational stage is allocentric and gives importance to others' perspectives. C) A child in the preoperational stage makes judgments based on gut feelings rather than logic. D) The preoperational stage lasts from approximately 8 to 12 years of age.
60) You arrange marbles in two rows of equal length. A child views the rows and states that both rows have the same number of marbles. You spread out the marbles in the bottom row, so it is longer than the top row. The child now states that the bottom row has more marbles. This child is in which of Piaget's stages? A) sensorimotor B) preoperational C) formal operational D) concrete operational
61)
If children cannot grasp the concept of conservation, they are unable to
A) accommodate in later life. B) see things from the point of view of another person. C) recognize that while superficially different, some aspects of objects can be restored when an operation is reversed. D) retain earlier schemas when confronted with new experiences.
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62) A father gives his 3-year-old and his 4-year-old children chocolate milk in identically shaped glasses to avoid conflict over who has more. The father is showing his awareness of his children's difficulty with the concept of A) language. B) object permanence. C) conservation. D) symbolism.
63) Which of Piaget's stages of cognitive development is characterized by egocentric thought? A) sensorimotor B) preoperational C) concrete operational D) post-conventional
64)
According to Piaget,egocentrism refers to young children's A) self-centered arrogance. B) exaggerated interest in pleasure. C) inability to take another person's perspective. D) difficulty in realizing that things continue to exist even when they are not visible.
65) Most children successfully acquire conservation skills during the ________ stage of cognitive development.
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A) sensorimotor B) preoperational C) concrete operational D) formal operational
66) Which stage of cognitive development involves replacing intuitive reasoning with logical reasoning in real or actual situations? A) sensorimotor B) preoperational C) concrete operational D) egocentric
67) Which of the following is true about the concrete operational stage of cognitive development? A) Adolescents can conceive of hypothetical possibilities in this stage. B) This stage denotes the ability of an adolescent to systematically deduce, or come to a conclusion about, the best path for solving a problem. C) A kind of abstract, idealistic thinking and logical reasoning occurs in this cognitive stage. D) One important skill at this stage is the ability to classify or divide things into different sets or subsets and to consider their interrelations.
68)
According to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, formal operational thought is
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A) logical, systematic, abstract, and idealistic. B) simplistic, egocentric, and systematic. C) intuitive and concrete. D) based on trial and error.
69) Bob has a beaker filled with an unknown liquid and must determine what it is. He decides to systematically use a number of tests to determine the correct answer. According to Piaget, Bob has most likely reached the ________ stage of cognitive development. A) sensorimotor B) preoperational C) formal operational D) object permanence
70) According to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, the ability to think about things that are not concrete, to make predictions, and to use logic to come up with hypotheses about the future is attained during the ________ stage. A) preoperational B) concrete operational C) formal operational D) sensorimotor
71) Jason, a 13-year-old, is working on an experiment during his science class. He is following a procedure to systematically analyze the outcome. Jason is most likely in the ________ stage of cognitive development.
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A) sensorimotor B) formal operational C) concrete operational D) preoperational
72) Using an idealistic approach and evaluating every possible alternative before purchasing a laptop is usually indicative of the ________ stage of cognitive development. A) sensorimotor B) formal operational C) concrete operational D) preoperational
73) An adolescent who hypothesizes and speaks in terms of possibilities may well be functioning in Piaget's cognitive stage of A) formal operational thought. B) concrete operational thought. C) moral realistic thought. D) transductive thought.
74) Which of the following statements about Piaget's theory of cognitive development is FALSE?
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A) Piaget believed that we go through four stages in understanding the world and that each stage involves a qualitatively different way of making sense of the world. B) Piaget believed that children do not play an active role in constructing their own understanding of the world but rather are passively reacting to environmental influences. C) Piaget believed that human beings use schemas to make sense of their experience. D) Piaget's theory suggests that over the course of the four developmental stages, a person progresses from sensorimotor cognition to abstract, idealistic, and logical thought.
75)
Nativist approaches to infant cognitive development suggest that
A) children seldom play a role in their own development. B) infants bring a great deal more with them into the world than Piaget realized. C) the development of object permanence begins during the formal operational period. D) children progress from sensorimotor cognition to abstract, idealistic, and logical thought.
76)
One of the most important criticisms of Piaget's theory of cognitive development is that
A) his theory had very little impact on psychologists' understanding of how children's minds develop. B) the popularity of his theory was short-lived. C) his theory was never scientifically tested. D) many cognitive abilities emerge earlier in children than Piaget thought.
77) Elizabeth Spelke, a nativist theorist, endorses a(n) ________, which states that infants are born with domain-specific knowledge systems.
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A) core knowledge approach B) theory of profound knowledge C) information-processing approach D) theory of prosocial behavior
78)
Lev Vygotsky was most interested in which aspect of cognitive development? A) the manner in which the process of learning pushes development forward B) the concept of different stages of cognitive development C) the idea that children must independently make cognitive advances D) the importance of physical development in cognitive advances
79) Benjamin, a 6-year-old, loves putting together puzzles. He has recently mastered putting together a 10-piece Sesame Street puzzle. His mother claps at his accomplishment but wants to continue challenging Benjamin just beyond his current abilities. The next time they play, she gives Benjamin a 15-piece puzzle and offers some guidance on how to sort the pieces out. According to Vygotsky, Benjamin's mother provides ________ that allows Benjamin's cognitive abilities to be built higher and higher. A) authoritarian parenting B) assimilation C) scaffolding D) conservation
80) Which of the following statements is true regarding Vygotsky's sociocultural cognitive theory?
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A) Vygotsky saw children as expert thinkers who do not depend on the world. B) Vygotsky's approach to cognitive development is similar to that of Piaget's theory. C) For Vygotsky, a child is simply learning to think about the world and not about their own world in particular. D) Children enter a level of cognitive sophistication by learning important aspects of their culture.
81) What approach to development focuses on basic cognitive processes such as attention, memory, and problem solving? A) the information-processing approach B) Vygotsky's sociocultural approach C) Piaget's cognitive development theory D) the core knowledge approach
82) To be successful in school, children must be able to, among other things, sit still and wait in line. The self-control and ability to inhibit one's automatic responses that this requires reflect which aspect of cognitive development? A) executive function B) egocentrism C) logical reasoning D) symbolic thought
83) Twelve-year-old Phoenix believes that she is unique and cannot be harmed. She thinks others are preoccupied with her and that they are watching her always. This best illustrates Piaget's concept of
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A) accommodation. B) object permanence. C) conservation. D) egocentrism.
84) Juliet, a 14-year-old, refuses to go to the annual spring dance held in her school because she has just developed a pimple on her chin, and she is sure everyone will talk about it behind her back. Her behavior illustrates A) preoperational thought. B) the adolescent identity crisis. C) peer influence. D) adolescent egocentrism.
85) A 13-year-old experiences his first break up, and he is very upset. No one can console him, because he believes that no one else has ever been hurt as badly as he has. The boy's beliefs are consistent with A) prepubertal romance. B) adolescent egocentrism. C) transductive reasoning. D) separation anxiety.
86) Tanya, a 14-year-old girl, thinks that she is unique and assumes that other students in her school notice everything about her. She is very confident and takes extra care of her looks. In this scenario, Tanya is exhibiting adolescent
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A) invulnerability. B) egocentrism. C) ignorance. D) immaturity.
87)
The most dangerous aspect of adolescent egocentrism is A) the sense of invincibility. B) identity confusion. C) negative affectivity. D) the false sense of hope.
88)
One important criticism of Piaget's theory of cognitive development is that
A) his theory had very little impact on psychologists' understanding of how children's minds develop. B) the popularity of his theory was short-lived. C) his theory was never scientifically tested. D) his theory underestimated infant cognition and overestimated adolescents' and adults' cognitive achievements.
89) Which of the following refers to the tendency to make judgments about group membership based on physical appearances or the match between a person and one's stereotype of a group rather than on available base rate information? A) representativeness heuristic B) similarities hypothesis C) the nativist approach D) cohort effects
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90) According to Piaget, each stage of cognitive development entails a way of thinking that is ________ from the stage before. A) qualitatively different B) qualitatively similar C) quantitatively different D) quantitatively similar
91) According to Gisela Labouvie-Vief, a cognitive development expert, which of the following has generated a need for reflective, complex thinking that takes into account the changing nature of knowledge and the kinds of challenges contemporary thinkers face? A) the lack of cognitive dissonance among adolescents B) the presence of pragmatic thinking among young adults C) the increasing complexity of cultures in the past century D) the reducing complexity of psychological research
92) According to cognitive development expert Gisela Labouvie-Vief, which of the following is a key aspect of the cognitive development of young adults? A) deciding on a particular worldview or philosophy of life B) realizing that people's worldviews are similar rather than diverse C) recognizing that an individual's worldview is objective D) identifying and eliminating the factors that make life stressful
93) Schaie's longitudinal study of intellectual abilities showed that ________ is the period when most people reach their peak for many intellectual skills.
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A) adolescence B) early adulthood C) middle adulthood D) late adulthood
94)
Which of the following is a difference between older and younger adults? A) Younger adults are usually wiser than older adults. B) Older adults process information faster than younger adults. C) Younger adults do better than older adults in most aspects of memory. D) Older adults take less time than younger adults to remember information about the
world.
95) Expert knowledge about the practical aspects of life, or ________, may improve as a person ages. A) wisdom B) logic C) memory D) perspective
96) The term ________ refers to an individual's behavioral style and characteristic way of responding. A) schema B) temperament C) generativity D) assimilation
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97) Chloe is a baby who cries a lot. She does not eat or sleep on a regular schedule, and she often has difficulty adapting to new experiences. According to psychiatrists Stella Chess and Alexander Thomas, Chloe's temperament can be described as A) difficult. B) easy. C) slow-to-warm-up. D) defiant.
98) Juan is a child with a low activity level, and he tends to withdraw from new situations. He is very cautious with new experiences. According to psychiatrists Stella Chess and Alexander Thomas, Juan has what type of temperament? A) easy B) difficult C) slow-to-warm-up D) aversive
99) Reza is an active 1-year-old child. He has a regular routine for playing, eating, and sleeping, and he is mostly in a positive mood. He is observant and readily approaches and adapts to new situations. According to psychiatrists Stella Chess and Alexander Thomas's classification of basic types of temperament in children, Reza can be considered a(n) A) difficult child. B) child who is slow to warm up. C) child who has high negative affectivity. D) easy child.
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100) Some researchers disagree with the notion that the labels "easy," "difficult," and "slowto-warm-up" are the best way to conceptualize infant temperament. They believe that we should think about infants as being high or low on different dimensions, such as A) object permanence and egocentrism. B) self-regulation, inhibition, and negative affectivity. C) parenting style and conservation. D) morality, identity, and prosocial behavior.
101)
The work of Harry Harlow established that A) early social experience in humans is essential to normal functioning in adulthood. B) infants do not depend on warm social interaction to survive or to develop. C) human behavior is hardly more complex than that of rhesus monkeys. D) contact comfort is more important than feeding in the attachment process.
102) In his classic study of the attachment of baby monkeys, Harry Harlow demonstrated that the monkeys A) were more attached to the physically cold wire mother that gave milk. B) were more attached to the cloth mother that was warm and fuzzy. C) displayed no preference for either cloth or wire artificial mothers. D) unexpectedly preferred the wire mother over the cloth mother.
103)
Infant attachment is
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A) the way in which infants change their schemas in response to new experience. B) the process through which infants incorporate new information into existing schemas. C) the way in which infants use their caregivers as a base from which to explore the environment. D) the close emotional bond between an infant and caregiver.
104)
The strange situation test is used to assess an infant's A) level of cognitive development. B) level of moral development. C) style of attachment. D) resilience.
105) Which of the following most accurately describes Ainsworth's strange situation test used to measure children's attachment? A) The caregiver and the infant watch several strangers enter the room. B) The caregiver leaves the infant with a stranger and returns later. C) The stranger takes the infant away from the caregiver and moves to a place where the caregiver cannot be seen. D) The caregiver hides the toy that the infant was playing with under a blanket.
106)
Infants who display secure attachment
A) hardly cry when their caregiver leaves the room. B) use their caregiver as a secure base from which to explore the environment. C) get very upset when their caregiver leaves and usually continue to show anger and distress when the caregiver returns. D) pay little attention to what their caregiver is doing as they know that they are secure.
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107) Marie visits her neighbor's house along with her 7-month-old son, Noah. When she places Noah on the floor, he crawls away from her and starts exploring nearby objects. However, he occasionally glances at Marie to ensure that she is close by. In the context of socioemotional development, which of the following concepts is exemplified by Noah's behavior? A) secure attachment B) object permanence C) conservation D) assimilation
108) In the context of socioemotional development in infancy, which of the following is a criticism of John Bowlby's attachment theory? A) It overemphasizes the temperamental differences among infants. B) It does not adequately account for cultural variations. C) It ignores the fact that infant experiences set the stage for future relationships. D) It does not consider the relationship between secure attachment and development.
109) According to Erikson's theory of socioemotional development, the first 18 months of life are devoted to mastering which developmental task? A) autonomy versus shame B) initiative versus guilt C) trust versus mistrust D) industry versus inferiority
110) According to Erikson's theory of socioemotional development, ________ is the best way to build an infant's sense of trust.
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A) establishing that the world is a predictable and friendly place B) encouraging object permanence C) discouraging egocentrism D) engaging in authoritarian parenting and placing limits and controls on behavior
111) Yuna, a toddler, undergoes toilet training. After a week of staying dry overnight, she experiences self-control and feels confident. In the context of Erikson's psychosocial development stages, Yuna is in the ________ stage. A) integrity versus despair B) autonomy versus shame and guilt C) initiative versus guilt D) trust versus mistrust
112) Asa is in third grade. When he won the spelling bee, he was proud of his accomplishment. But when he could not complete his science assignment on time, he felt incompetent. Which of Erikson's psychosocial development stages is exemplified in this scenario? A) autonomy versus shame and guilt B) initiative versus guilt C) industry versus inferiority D) trust versus mistrust
113) As young Javier gets off his school bus, he runs to his mother and proudly shows her the book he read at school. Which of the following Erikson's psychosocial development stages is Javier demonstrating?
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A) autonomy versus doubt B) initiative versus guilt C) industry versus inferiority D) trust versus mistrust
114) Which of the following is the correct sequence of Erikson's first four stages of psychosocial development? A) industry versus inferiority; initiative versus guilt; autonomy versus shame and guilt; trust versus mistrust B) autonomy versus shame and guilt; industry versus inferiority; trust versus mistrust; initiative versus guilt C) trust versus mistrust; autonomy versus shame and guilt; initiative versus guilt; industry versus inferiority D) initiative versus guilt; industry versus inferiority; trust versus mistrust; autonomy versus shame and guilt
115) Parents who use the ________ parenting style give strict rules to their children with little discussion of the reasons for the rules. A) authoritarian B) permissive C) authoritative D) eclectic
116) Ian came home after curfew. Without asking for an explanation, his parents sent him to his room and informed him that he was grounded for a month. Which type of parenting did Ian's parents demonstrate?
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A) authoritarian B) conventional C) authoritative D) neglectful
117) Gabriela's father practices the authoritative style of parenting. This suggests that Gabriela's father A) encourages Gabriela to be independent but still places limits and controls on behavior. B) is uninvolved in Gabriela's life. C) is restrictive, punitive, and engages in little verbal exchange with Gabriela when they have differences of opinion. D) sets very strict rules and limitations on Gabriela's behavior.
118)
Compared to authoritarian parents, authoritative parents are likely to be A) more conservative. B) less educated. C) more collaborative. D) less trusting.
119) When Justin, a teenager, told his parents that he wanted to learn an extracurricular activity, his parents gave him the liberty to choose most any activity. However, they restricted him from choosing extreme sports. In this scenario, Justin's parents are following the ________ parenting style.
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A) authoritarian B) authoritative C) neglectful D) permissive
120) Mazie's mom is loving and caring. She sets clear expectations for Mazie's behavior but allows a verbal give-and-take. In terms of parenting styles, Mazie's mom can be described as A) conventional. B) authoritative. C) authoritarian. D) permissive.
121)
Children of authoritative parents tend to A) show high self-reliance. B) be less competent socially. C) show poor self-control. D) handle independence poorly.
122)
Which of the following is true of children of neglectful parents? A) They tend to be socially responsible. B) They often compare themselves with others. C) They often expect to get their own way. D) They tend to show poor self-control.
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123) Cooper is a 10-year-old child. His mother, Erika, is a corporate executive who works long hours. Erika travels several days throughout the month and spends very little time with her son. She has never been to any of Cooper's soccer games or met any of his friends. She believes that her career is more important than raising her son. Erika's style of parenting can be described as A) authoritarian. B) authoritative. C) neglectful. D) permissive.
124) As other children in the school line up for lunch on the first day of kindergarten, Ben demands to be at the beginning of the line. His parents likely have which type of parenting style? A) authoritarian B) authoritative C) conventional D) permissive
125) Richie is a 10-year-old boy. His parents let him do whatever he wants. They place no demands on him, and they place no rules or restrictions on his behavior. Richie's parents have a(n) ________ parenting style. A) permissive B) authoritarian C) authoritative D) neglectful
126) A parenting style wherein very few limits or boundaries are set and ample freedom is given to children is most likely
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A) authoritarian. B) authoritative. C) neglectful. D) permissive.
127)
Children of permissive parents A) are socially competent, self-reliant, and socially responsible. B) fail to learn respect for others and have difficulty controlling their behavior. C) use their caregiver as a secure base from which to explore. D) handle independence poorly and often compare themselves with others.
128) According to Erikson's theory of socioemotional development, establishing ________ is the key challenge of adolescence. A) an identity B) intimacy with a partner C) generativity D) integrity
129)
According to James Marcia, the two dimensions of identity are A) temperament and attachment. B) exploration and commitment. C) parenting style and attachment. D) accommodation and assimilation.
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130)
According to Erikson, who among the following people is expressing identity confusion?
A) Said quit playing baseball and decided to try out for lacrosse. B) Marley is happy in school and has many academic achievements. C) Peter tried learning to play the guitar and realized that he is not good at it, so he is planning to learn to play the piano. D) Megan isolated herself from her family and friends after being rejected by a local music band.
131) Nadia is a 17-year-old girl who is interested in music. She wants to become a pop star and, therefore, has joined piano and vocal-training classes. According to Marcia's theory on identity status, which of the following dimensions of identity is Nadia demonstrating? A) compensation B) optimization C) commitment D) exploration
132) ________ is the identity status of an adolescent who has neither explored nor committed to an identity. A) Identity moratorium B) Identity diffusion C) Identity foreclosure D) Identity confusion
133) Elijah, a 17-year-old high school junior, is an integral part of the school soccer team. He is a good vocal artist and is part of the school's music club. He is equally passionate about calculus and is an active member of the high school calculus club. However, he is unsure of what he wants to pursue in life. In the context of Marcia's theory of identity status, which of the following is Elijah's identity status? Version 1
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A) identity confusion B) identity foreclosure C) identity moratorium D) identity achievement
134) Linda, a 16-year-old high school sophomore, has decided to pursue law because everyone in her family is a lawyer. This is an example of A) identity moratorium. B) identity diffusion. C) identity foreclosure. D) identity achievement.
135) a(n)
As adolescents work to answer central questions of identity, a key parental role is to be
A) effective manager. B) best friend. C) uninvolved bystander. D) authoritarian guide.
136)
According to Jeffrey Arnett, the transitional period from adolescence to adulthood is A) the formal operational stage. B) late adulthood. C) emerging adulthood. D) the concrete operational stage.
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137) According to Arnett, all of the following EXCEPT ________ are features of emerging adulthood. A) feeling "in between" B) self-focus C) wisdom D) identity exploration in love and work
138) Berta, a 23-year-old fashion designer, is not happy at work or at home. She is unable to create new designs for her clients. She has also broken up with her partner. According to Jeffrey Arnett, which of the following features of emerging adulthood is exemplified in this scenario? A) self-focus B) instability C) age of possibilities D) feeling "in between"
139) Aadya, a 20-year-old, is in Erikson's psychosocial development stage of intimacy versus isolation. Which of the following statements is true of Aadya at this particular stage? A) She will gain the ability to plan for herself or she will live within the limits of others. B) She will learn to meet the demands of life or she will start to feel more inferior. C) She will acquire a sense of self or she will become confused about her role in life. D) She will form meaningful relationships or she will become socially segregated from others.
140) After following married heterosexual couples and same-gender couples, John Gottman identified four principles that make relationships successful. Which of the following is NOT one of Gottman's principles for a successful relationship? Version 1
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A) giving the partner who likes be in control more power B) nurturing fondness and admiration by putting a positive spin on talk about each other C) seeing each other as friends and someone to turn to in times of stress and difficulty D) working to solve problems together
141)
Which of Erikson's stages of psychosocial development occurs in middle adulthood? A) intimacy versus isolation B) integrity versus despair C) generativity versus stagnation D) autonomy versus shame and doubt
142)
Which of the following is the final stage of Erikson's psychosocial development? A) intimacy versus isolation B) integrity versus despair C) industry versus inferiority D) generativity versus stagnation
143)
Which of the following statements is true of socioemotional selectivity theory?
A) Younger adults embrace the present moment with increasing vitality. B) Unlike younger adults, older adults tend to be preoccupied with the future. C) Older adults gain a sense of meaning by focusing on satisfying relationships and activities in the present. D) Younger adults tend to be selective in their social interactions in order to maximize positive, meaningful experiences.
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144)
Which of the following is a criticism of Erikson's psychosocial approach to development? A) He did not anticipate the identity exploration that occurs in emerging adulthood. B) He used large-scale representative samples. C) He did not give each of his stages a single theme. D) He identified too many developmental tasks in each stage.
145)
The social and psychological aspects of being male, female, both, or neither is known as A) gender. B) sex. C) sexual orientation. D) gender blindness.
146)
Which of the following is true of gender identity?
A) It always remains the same as the one assigned at birth. B) It refers to the ways people present themselves through their appearance, including clothing choices and behavior. C) It is inseparable from gender expression. D) It is a person's inner concept of themselves in relation to the ideas of being male, female, both, or neither.
147) ________ refers to ways in which people present themselves through their appearance, including hairstyle, clothing choices, voice, and behavior.
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A) Gender identity B) Gender expression C) Sexual orientation D) Gendered sexuality
148) In a genetic female embryo, what allows for the typical development of female sex organs? A) high levels of testosterone B) low levels of androgens C) the presence of teratogens D) the absence of teratogens
149) A(n) ________ is a mental framework for understanding what gender means in one's culture. A) gender schema B) gender diversity C) gender bias D) gender orientation
150) feel.
________ involve expectations for how people of different genders should think, act, and
A) Biological roles B) Gender identities C) Gender expressions D) Gender roles
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151)
According to Hyde, the gender similarities hypothesis
A) is the understanding of a gender schema without the cultural factors. B) can be confirmed by the John/Joan case. C) is the idea that people of different genders are much more similar than they are different. D) explains the contradiction between environmental factors and gender similarities.
152) ________ involves changes that occur with age in people's thoughts, feelings, and behaviors regarding the principles and values that guide them as they interact with others. A) Moral development B) Cognitive development C) Physical development D) Gender development
153) Sam is a participant in a study of moral development. In response to the Heinz moraldilemma story, Sam says "Heinz shouldn't steal the drug because he will go to jail if he steals. Jail is a bad place, and Heinz shouldn't take the risk of such harsh punishment." Sam appears to be operating at which of the following stages of moral development? A) preconventional B) conventional C) postconventional D) hyper-conventional
154) If Tony shares his toys with his little sister because he is afraid of being punished, he is reasoning at the ________ level of moral development.
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A) preconventional B) concrete C) preoperational D) conventional
155) Katya bought a few t-shirts from a garage sale. While purchasing them, she tried her best to bargain, as she knew the seller was charging her a higher price than he charged other customers. After reaching home, she found that there was an extra t-shirt in her bag for which she did not pay. As her father had taught her to return things that did not belong to her, Katya went back to the garage sale and returned the extra t-shirt. According to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, Katya is at the ________ level of moral development. A) preconventional B) concrete C) preoperational D) conventional
156) At the preconventional level of moral development, individuals decide right and wrong based on A) society's laws. B) a sense of duty. C) individual ethical principles. D) punishments or rewards.
157) Which of the following statements best describes moral reasoning at the postconventional level?
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A) "What I did was illegal, but I needed the money." B) "What I did was illegal, but nobody will ever find out." C) "What I did was illegal, but saving a life is what a good person is expected to do." D) "What I did was illegal, but the family of the person I saved offered a huge reward."
158) A child decides to steal a small item from a neighborhood store in order to be accepted into the Hawk Club. The child reasons that the stealing behavior is acceptable because it is what club members expect. According to Kohlberg, this child is operating at the ________ level. A) preconventional B) postconventional C) universal ethical D) conventional
159)
According to Kohlberg's stages of moral development, at the postconventional level, A) a person abides by standards learned from parents. B) a person develops an increasingly personal moral code. C) a person's moral reasoning is based primarily on the consequences of a behavior. D) a person's behavior is highly influenced by rewards and punishments.
160) According to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, a person who recognizes alternative moral courses, explores the options, and then develops an increasingly personal moral code is operating at the ________ level of moral development. A) conventional B) preconventional C) postconventional D) concrete
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161)
Which of the following statements is true of Carol Gilligan's care perspective? A) It focuses on the rights of the individual as the key to sound moral reasoning. B) It generally leads women to score lower than men on moral development measures. C) It overestimates the role of logical reasoning in moral judgments. D) It views people in terms of their connectedness with others.
162) Santiago and Becky are tested twice on moral reasoning. When Kohlberg's measures are used, Becky gets a lower score than Santiago. When Gilligan's approach is used, both individuals score at the same level. Which of the following is a likely reason for this discrepancy? A) Gilligan's approach is not as accurate and precise as Kohlberg's approach. B) Kohlberg's theory is a justice perspective, while Gilligan's theory is a care perspective. C) Like Kohlberg's theory, Gilligan's approach does not emphasize interpersonal relationships. D) Unlike Kohlberg's theory, Gilligan's theory is traditionally biased against women.
163)
Behavior that is intended to benefit other people is called A) behavioral cusp. B) egocentric behavior. C) prosocial behavior. D) ethical behavior.
164)
Recent research on prosocial behavior has found that
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A) children do not engage in prosocial behavior. B) children are inherently selfish. C) parenting style has little effect on children's prosocial behavior. D) empathic parenting is associated with prosocial behavior in children.
165) Which of the following is true of the studies that have explored terror management theory? A) They state that people will more strongly endorse cultural beliefs when they are reminded of their own death. B) They reject Ernest Becker's idea that cultural beliefs act as a buffer against the ultimate reality of people's inevitable demise. C) They show that reminders of death inhibit people's creativity and motivation toward personal growth. D) They state that older adults are more likely than younger adults to strongly defend their cultural worldview after contemplating their own death.
166)
Which of the following is true of the work of Kübler-Ross?
A) She proposed four statuses of identity based on crisis and commitment. B) She has shown that grief unfolds in four patterns: resilience, recovery, chronic dysfunction, and delayed grief. C) She proposed five progressive stages of coping with death, in which the dying individual progresses from denial to acceptance. D) She outlined the three stages of socioemotional development in adulthood.
167) Maxim, a 35-year-old man, is diagnosed with a Grade IV brain tumor with no chance of recovery. His doctor informs him that he has very little time left. Maxim feels furious because of the unfairness of the situation, and he asks, "Why me?" According to Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, Maxim is in the ________ stage of coping with death.
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A) depression B) anger C) denial D) bargaining
168)
Which of the following pairs is a correct match?
A) grief unfolding in four patterns—George Bonanno B) four stages of cognitive development—James Marcia C) theory of eight psychosocial stages that characterize socioemotional development— Jean Piaget D) four statuses of identity based on crisis and commitment—Erik Erikson
169) According to George Bonanno's theory of grieving, ________ is a pattern of grief in which individuals experience immediate grief over their loss but only for a brief time, and then they return quickly to their previous levels of functioning. A) recovery B) resilience C) chronic dysfunction D) delayed grief
170) According to George Bonanno, ________ is a pattern of grief in which a traumatic grief experience leads to a long-term disruption of functioning in important life domains. A) chronic dysfunction B) resilience C) recovery D) delayed grief
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171) Which of the following is true of the recovery pattern of grief explained by George Bonanno? A) People who grieve in this pattern are more likely to be at risk for disorders such as depression than people who grieve in other patterns. B) People who grieve in this pattern seldom experience a profound disruption of life, despite having gone through a staggering loss. C) In this pattern, intense feelings of sadness and distress typically come over the grieving person weeks or even months after a loss. D) In this pattern, people experience profound sadness and grief that dissipates more slowly than it does for resilient people.
172) Thomas's sister passed away in a car accident. Thomas did not experience any sadness when he heard the news or in the days and weeks that followed her death. After a few months, he was hit by an intense wave of sadness and distress. According to the patterns of grief identified by George Bonanno, this scenario illustrates the pattern of grief called A) chronic dysfunction. B) delayed grief or trauma. C) resilience. D) recovery.
173)
Assimilation allows a person to enjoy a feeling of meaning because A) it modifies current ways of thinking. B) new experiences create new schemas. C) experiences fit into their preexisting schemas. D) it makes sense of life's previously incomprehensible events.
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174)
In adult development, when experience conflicts with existing schemas A) one should forget the experience and move on. B) it is recommended that the person alter current ways of thinking. C) one should never change one's current ways of thinking. D) it is necessary to fit the experiences into the existing schemas.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 08_5e_King 1) Exploring Human Development 2) Exploring Human Development 3) Exploring Human Development 4) Physical Development 5) Cognitive Development 6) Cognitive Development 7) Socioemotional Development 8) Socioemotional Development 9) Socioemotional Development 10) Socioemotional Development 11) Gender Development 12) Moral Development 13) A 14) B 15) C 16) C 17) D 18) B 19) D 20) A Version 1
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21) C 22) A 23) D 24) C 25) A 26) B 27) B 28) D 29) A 30) A 31) D 32) B 33) B 34) A 35) A 36) C 37) B 38) A 39) C 40) C 41) C 42) C 43) D 44) A 45) C 46) A 47) A 48) C 49) A 50) D Version 1
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51) B 52) A 53) B 54) C 55) B 56) B 57) D 58) A 59) C 60) B 61) C 62) C 63) B 64) C 65) C 66) C 67) D 68) A 69) C 70) C 71) B 72) B 73) A 74) B 75) B 76) D 77) A 78) A 79) C 80) D Version 1
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81) A 82) A 83) D 84) D 85) B 86) B 87) A 88) D 89) A 90) A 91) C 92) A 93) C 94) C 95) A 96) B 97) A 98) C 99) D 100) B 101) D 102) B 103) D 104) C 105) B 106) B 107) A 108) B 109) C 110) A Version 1
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111) B 112) C 113) C 114) C 115) A 116) A 117) A 118) C 119) B 120) B 121) A 122) D 123) C 124) D 125) A 126) D 127) B 128) A 129) B 130) D 131) C 132) B 133) C 134) C 135) A 136) C 137) C 138) B 139) D 140) A Version 1
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141) C 142) B 143) C 144) A 145) A 146) D 147) B 148) B 149) A 150) D 151) C 152) A 153) A 154) A 155) D 156) D 157) C 158) D 159) B 160) C 161) D 162) B 163) C 164) D 165) A 166) C 167) B 168) A 169) B 170) A Version 1
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171) D 172) B 173) C 174) B
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CHAPTER 9 1)
Explain drive reduction theory. Discuss the criticisms of drive reduction theory.
2)
Explain the optimum arousal theory.
3) What are the four phases of the human sexual response pattern? Describe the characteristics of each phase and list the phases in the proper sequential order.
4)
Identify and rank the five needs in Maslow's hierarchy of needs.
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5)
Explain the self-determination theory.
6)
Explain the distinction between intrinsic and extrinsic motivation.
7) According to research on self-regulation, what can you do to increase your probability of successfully meeting your goal? Give suitable examples.
8)
Compare the James-Lange theory and Cannon-Bard theory of emotion.
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9) Explain the facial feedback hypothesis. Describe the experiment that was conducted by Paul Ekman and his colleagues (1983) to support the hypothesis.
10)
What are the obstacles in the pursuit of happiness?
11)
Motivated behavior is A) energized, directed, and sustained. B) excitatory, disoriented, and dynamic. C) logical, analytical, and unmanageable. D) reflexive, reflective, and adaptive.
12) Whenever Olivia watches a television commercial featuring food, she is driven by a desire to eat. These feelings of hunger stimulate Olivia to go to the kitchen and search for food. Olivia's behavior can be studied by conducting research in the area of
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A) intuition. B) motivation. C) sensation. D) perception.
13)
Ethology describes motivation from a(n) A) psychoanalytic perspective. B) behaviorism perspective. C) evolutionary perspective. D) humanistic perspective.
14)
A(n) ________ is an aroused state that occurs because of a physiological need. A) need B) drive C) instinct D) reflex
15) A(n) ________ is a physical or biological deprivation that energizes the drive to eliminate or reduce the deprivation. A) need B) drive C) instinct D) reflex
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16) ________ pertains to a psychological state, whereas ________ involves a physiological state. A) Reflex; need B) Need; drive C) Drive; need D) Need; reflex
17)
Which of the following statements is true of drive reduction theory?
A) It focuses on the idea that individuals are motivated to decrease rather than increase their drives. B) It emphasizes the fact that drives necessarily follow from needs. C) It provides a comprehensive framework for understanding motivation. D) It states that as a drive becomes stronger, people are motivated to reduce it.
18)
According to drive reduction theory, the goal of drive reduction is A) self-actualization. B) homeostasis. C) self-determination. D) to elevate the level of arousal.
19)
The body's tendency to maintain an equilibrium, or steady state, is known as A) equity. B) catharsis. C) homeostasis. D) homogeneity.
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20) A man walks out of an air-conditioned room into the heat of a summer day, and his body releases excess heat by sweating. This is because of A) intrinsic motivation. B) self-determination. C) homeostasis. D) self-actualization.
21) Jenna is a talented singer. Her singing is commendable when she is well rehearsed and is performing with her school choir group. In such situations, she is moderately aroused and fairly relaxed. However, when Jenna's friends are around, she gets overly aroused and anxious. In such situations, she finds it hard to focus and often makes mistakes. Which of the following psychological principles can be used to explain the rationale behind Jenna's performance? A) the Cannon-Bard theory B) the Yerkes-Dodson law C) the James-Lange theory D) self-regulation
22)
Which of the following statements is true of optimum arousal theory?
A) It emphasizes the Cannon-Bard theory. B) It states that performance is best under conditions of high arousal rather than moderate arousal. C) It rejects the idea that the human body tends to maintain a steady state. D) It is associated with Yerkes-Dodson law.
23) Identify a true statement about Walter Cannon and A. L. Washburn's classic experiment on hunger. Version 1
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A) It revealed that the hormone insulin helps start the digestion of food. B) It showed that the stomach fails to tell the brain about the amount of nutrients present in foods. C) It revealed a close association between stomach contractions and hunger. D) It showed that rich food takes longer to stop hunger than the same amount of water.
24)
Identify a true statement about the hormone cholecystokinin (CCK). A) It usually signals the brain to stop digesting food. B) It travels to the brain and triggers hunger. C) It travels to the stomach to aid in digestion. D) It typically signals a person to stop eating.
25)
Which of the following plays a role in glucose control? A) oxytocin B) gastrin C) insulin D) androgens
26) Which of the following chemical substances decreases food intake and increases metabolism? A) oxytocin B) leptin C) dopamine D) estrogen
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27) The chemical substance ________, released by fat cells, decreases food intake and increases energy expenditure. A) cholecystokinin B) leptin C) insulin D) oxytocin
28) In humans, ________ concentrations have been linked with weight, body fat, and weight loss in response to dieting. A) serotonin B) dopamine C) leptin D) oxytocin
29)
The ________ is involved in stimulating eating. A) ventromedial hypothalamus B) lateral hypothalamus C) amygdala D) prefrontal cortex
30)
The ________ is involved in reducing hunger and restricting eating.
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A) ventromedial hypothalamus B) lateral hypothalamus C) amygdala D) prefrontal cortex
31)
Which of the following is true of ventromedial hypothalamus?
A) When this area of an animal's brain is stimulated, the animal starts eating. B) If this part of the hypothalamus is destroyed, even a starving animal will show no interest in food. C) When this area of an animal's brain is destroyed, the animal eats profusely and quickly becomes obese. D) It is involved in insulin production and glucose control.
32) Warda is interested in working on projects that will help fight childhood obesity. She is offered a job in a laboratory where researchers are studying the effects of leptin on weight control. Is the job relevant to Warda's interest? A) No, leptin is only relevant to animal weight control. B) No, leptin is a neurotransmitter that is associated with memory. C) Yes, leptin is a hormone that is involved in blood-sugar regulation. D) Yes, leptin is a hormone that is linked to human weight loss.
33)
Up to 70 percent of the differences in obesity between people can be explained by A) genetics. B) geography. C) age. D) food preferences.
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34) Which of the following refers to the weight a person maintains when they make no effort to gain or lose weight? A) set point B) homeostasis C) two-factor theory D) resilience
35)
If it is night, we are likely to eat dinner even if we had a heavy lunch. This best illustrates A) the effect of learned associations on eating behavior. B) the effect of emotional state on eating behavior. C) the effect of suggestion on eating behavior. D) the effect of mindlessness on eating behavior.
36) Aliah is a normal-weight woman, whereas Ron is an obese man. Whenever they go out for dinner, Ron always eats more than Aliah. Ron, a psychology major, correctly explains this difference in food intake by pointing out that A) males release leptin at a slower rate than females. B) he has more fat cells than Aliah and he is not satiated until all his fat cells are filled. C) the ventromedial hypothalamus of his brain induces in him an urge to take in large portions of food. D) males and females have different levels of the hormone cholecystokinin.
37) Edna loves the sweet tea served at McDonald's. Whenever she sees the famous “golden arches,” she drives right in and orders a cup of sweet tea. This best illustrates the effect of ________ on her eating behavior.
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A) learned associations B) negative reinforcement C) avoidance learning D) modeling
38) ______ is characterized by eating until one has finished a portion (no matter how large) or not paying attention to the sheer amount one has consumed. A) Mindless eating B) Obesity C) Mindful eating D) Set point
39)
Motivation for sexual behavior is centered in the A) adrenal gland. B) hypothalamus. C) amygdalae. D) pituitary gland.
40) ________ are produced mainly by the ovaries. _______ are produced by the testes in male children and adults and by the adrenal glands in all people. A) Estrogens; Androgens B) Androgens; Estrogens C) Estrogens; Endorphins D) Endorphins; Androgens
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41) In the context of the human sexual response pattern, the ________ begins the process of erotic responsiveness. A) plateau phase B) resolution phase C) excitement phase D) orgasm phase
42)
In the context of the human sexual response pattern, orgasm lasts for only about A) 50 to 60 seconds. B) 3 to 15 seconds. C) 20 to 30 seconds. D) 40 to 45 seconds.
43) Males enter a refractory period during the ________ phase of the human sexual response pattern. A) excitement B) plateau C) orgasm D) resolution
44) In the context of the human sexual response pattern, which of the following is true of the resolution phase?
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A) The resolution phase begins the process of erotic responsiveness. B) It involves an explosive discharge of neuromuscular tension and an intensely pleasurable feeling. C) In this phase, males enter a refractory period during which they cannot have another orgasm. D) The most obvious signs of response in this phase are the beginnings of lubrication of the vagina and partial erection of the penis.
45)
What is the correct order of the human sexual response pattern? A) plateau, excitement, orgasm, and resolution B) excitement, orgasm, resolution, and plateau C) orgasm, excitement, plateau, and resolution D) excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution
46) to as
Stereotyped patterns of expectancies for how people should behave sexually are referred
A) sexual scripts. B) sexual orientations. C) sexual responses. D) sexual comprehension.
47)
Which of the following statements about affirmative consent is accurate?
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A) Partners have provided unambiguous permission and willingly engage in sexual activity. B) Partners provide a one-time consent to all sexual behaviors. C) Partners get to know each other well enough that they know the types of sexual activity for which each other would be comfortable. D) Partners agree not to change their mind with respect to the sexual behavior that they are comfortable participating in.
48) Which type of sex education most effectively delays sexual activity and prevents teen pregnancy? A) comprehensive sex education programs B) abstinence-only sex education programs C) parent-led sex education D) self-taught sex education
49) Which of the following is widely recognized as a pioneer who brought attention to sexual behavior? A) Alfred Kinsey B) Walter Cannon C) Stanley Schachter D) Jerome Singer
50) In the context of the gender differences in sexual attitudes and behavior, compared with men, women tend to
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A) view more pornography as young adults. B) show more changes in their sexual patterns and sexual desires over their lifetime. C) engage in more masturbation during their late adulthood years. D) engage in more casual sex and have more permissive attitudes about casual sex.
51) An individual's ________ refers to the direction of their erotic interests and their behaviors and identity. A) genetic factors B) gender role C) gender identity D) sexual orientation
52)
Sexual orientation is best viewed as A) a continuum. B) genetic. C) static. D) unchanging.
53)
Identify a true statement about sexual orientation.
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A) Gay, lesbian, and bisexual people are less likely to have heterosexual parents than heterosexual people. B) Gay, lesbian, and bisexual people are likely to report similar interactions with their parents, which result in the development of sexual orientation. C) Same-gender sexual experience or experimentation in childhood predicts eventual adult gay, lesbian, or bisexual orientation. D) During sexual arousal, gay and lesbian people have physiological responses that are similar to their heterosexual counterparts.
54) When a person's sexual attractions do not depend on the biological sex, gender, or gender identity of others, they would be most likely to self-identify as A) pansexual. B) bisexual. C) asexual. D) heterosexual.
55) Brooklyn is not sexually attracted to others and feels no sexual orientation. Brooklyn likely identifies as A) asexual. B) bisexual. C) pansexual. D) gay.
56)
A person's sexual orientation is most likely determined by
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A) a combination of factors, the relative weight of which varies from person to person. B) primarily genetics. C) psychological experiences during childhood. D) the amount of testosterone in their system at birth.
57) Which of the following is defined as the motivation to develop one's full potential as a human being? A) self-regulation B) confirmation bias C) hindsight bias D) self-actualization
58) In accordance with Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory, which of the following factors can best explain a person's difficulty in committing to a relationship? A) financial insecurity B) lack of self-actualization C) preference to be alone D) unfulfilled esteem needs
59) to
According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory, before a person can feel safe, they need
A) satisfy their physiological needs. B) find intimacy. C) achieve self-actualization. D) develop high self-esteem.
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60) Daiki works as a salesperson at a large retail store. He is happily married and lives in a safe neighborhood. He earns enough money to eat and provide for his family. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which of the following needs is Daiki most likely to fulfill next? A) physiological needs B) safety and security C) esteem D) love and belongingness
61) At the age of 33, Ricky is a senior partner in a law firm. He lives alone in his apartment and does not find the time to socialize. He has a lavish home with an elaborate security system, and he owns a luxurious sports car. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory, which of the following can best explain Ricky's discontentment with life? A) Ricky's physiological needs are not being met. B) Ricky's need for belongingness is not being met. C) Ricky's esteem needs are not being fulfilled. D) Ricky does not feel safe at home.
62) According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which of the following needs must be met first? A) physiological needs B) safety needs C) belongingness and love D) self-actualization
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63) Guillermo volunteers to work in a war-torn country to try and improve the lives of the citizens. They currently have enough to eat and drink. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, what would these citizens need next? A) safety B) esteem C) belongingness and love D) self-actualization
64) Jared is a salesperson at a large retail store. On meeting his monthly sales target, he is honored with the title of “Star Salesperson” by the top management. Despite the recognition, Jared is not very happy. He feels that the management should have rewarded him with a bonus instead of a title. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which of the following needs is Jared seeking to fulfill? A) safety needs B) physiological needs C) esteem needs D) self-actualization needs
65) According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, we seek to fulfill our need for love and belongingness A) after our basic physiological and safety needs are met. B) before our basic biological and safety needs are met. C) after we have found self-actualization. D) after self-esteem needs have been met.
66)
The highest and most elusive of Maslow's needs is
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A) esteem. B) self-actualization. C) belongingness. D) safety.
67)
According to Maslow, self-actualization is possible A) immediately after the needs for safety and protection have been fulfilled. B) immediately after the physiological needs have been fulfilled. C) only after the needs relating to esteem, safety, physiology, and love have been met. D) once people undergo training on how to attain it.
68)
In the context of the hierarchy of human needs, Abraham Maslow A) stated that the strongest needs are at the top of the hierarchy. B) argued that all individuals eventually move toward self-actualization. C) asserted that each lower need in the hierarchy comes from a deficiency. D) believed that the need for self-actualization is at the base of the hierarchy.
69) Research demonstrates that poor individuals are more likely than wealthy individuals to give generously to others. This contradicts A) Maslow's hierarchy of human needs. B) the concept of intrinsic motivation. C) goal approaches to motivation. D) self-determination theory.
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70)
According to self-determination theory, what are the three basic organismic needs? A) hunger, thirst, and sex B) hunger, security, and love C) competence, autonomy, and relatedness D) hunger, esteem, and achievement
71)
According to self-determination theory, competence motivation involves A) drive-reduction. B) self-efficacy and mastery. C) environmental stimuli. D) maintaining optimal arousal.
72)
From the perspective of self-determination theory,
A) the capacity for growth and fulfillment is absent in certain individuals and is likely to be acquired during adulthood. B) the organismic needs necessarily arise from deficits. C) an essential aspect of healthy functioning is actively engaging in behaviors that are self-directed. D) serving the organismic needs is unlikely to affect the well-being of individuals.
73)
Self-efficacy refers to A) the belief that one has the competence to accomplish a given goal or task. B) the sense that one can gain skills and overcome obstacles. C) the need to engage in warm relations with other people. D) the sense that one is in control of one's own life.
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74)
Relatedness refers to A) the belief that one has the competence to accomplish a given goal or task. B) the sense that one can gain skills and overcome obstacles. C) the need to engage in warm relations with other people. D) the sense that one is in control of one's own life.
75)
Autonomy refers to A) the belief that one has the competence to accomplish a given goal or task. B) the sense that one can gain skills and overcome obstacles. C) the need to engage in warm relations with other people. D) the sense that one is in control of one's own life.
76) Andrea, a sales executive, believes that she has the competence to achieve her monthly sales target. In the context of self-determination theory, Andrea best demonstrates ________ in this scenario. A) self-efficacy B) autonomy C) relatedness D) mastery
77) Li, a 22-year-old management student, stays with his parents and does not know how to cook. When he is offered a good job in a different city, he decides to relocate within a month. Li is confident that he will learn how to cook and overcome the initial obstacles faced by first-time cooks in a month's time. In the context of self-determination theory, Li best demonstrates ________ in this scenario.
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A) self-efficacy B) relatedness C) mastery D) autonomy
78) In the context of self-determination theory, a parent nurturing their child's development best reflects A) the Yerkes-Dodson law. B) extrinsic motivation. C) self-efficacy. D) the need for relatedness.
79) Daniel, a high school student, believes that he is in control of his life. He is selfmotivated and genuinely interested in the tasks that he takes up. In the context of selfdetermination theory, Daniel best demonstrates ________ in this scenario. A) autonomy B) self-efficacy C) relatedness D) mastery
80) Tariq places a great deal of value on money, prestige, and his physical appearance. Compared to someone who values the organismic needs, Tariq will be more likely to experience A) lowered self-actualization and physical illness. B) higher well-being but less physical illness. C) higher well-being but less self-esteem. D) less physical illness and well-being.
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81)
Self-determination theory has ignited some controversies. An important issue is
A) the three organismic needs being nonexistent in a few individuals. B) the capacity for growth and fulfillment existing in only certain individuals. C) the extent to which the three organismic needs are universal. D) the fact that intrinsically motivated behavior and a person's personal growth are independent factors.
82)
Which of the following is emphasized by individualist cultures? A) self-reliance B) harmony C) cooperation D) interdependence
83)
Which of the following is involved in extrinsic motivation? A) organismic needs B) punishments C) curiosity D) challenge
84) The associations between intrinsic and extrinsic motivation and supervisor ratings, work commitment, burnout, and work-family conflict, among employees in various industries, were tested in a recent study by Kuvaas and others (2017). It was found that, unlike extrinsic motivation, intrinsic motivation
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A) predicted lower burnout and work-family conflict. B) was unrelated to high supervisor ratings. C) was unlikely to result in improved performance. D) predicted lower self-esteem and confidence.
85) Amelia, a 25-year-old software engineer, wants to participate in a charity event. She plans to make and sell greeting cards at the event and subsequently use the money collected to help various social causes. This scenario best illustrates A) self-efficacy. B) self-regulation. C) parallel processing. D) intrinsic motivation.
86) Filip, a finance executive, loves playing with numbers and hates sports. His manager, Pilar, asks him to represent their company in an upcoming corporate tennis match. He agrees to participate because he wants to impress Pilar and increase his chances of being promoted and receiving a raise. In this scenario, Filip is driven by A) self-actualization. B) the need for mastery. C) extrinsic motivation. D) the need for autonomy.
87)
Which of the following is most related to extrinsic motivation?
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A) relatedness B) competence C) self-esteem D) rewards
88) Keysha reads psychology books because she is fascinated by the subject. She really enjoys learning about new approaches to psychology. In this scenario, Keysha is being driven by A) extrinsic motivation. B) intrinsic motivation. C) external attribution. D) self-actualization.
89) When a teenager studies specifically to avoid their parents' disapproval, then their attitude toward studying is most likely a result of A) self-actualization. B) self-regulation. C) extrinsic motivation. D) intrinsic motivation.
90) Annie's mother pays her $5 for every book she reads. Annie does not love reading books, but she reads crazily because she enjoys spending the earned money on candies and toys. In this scenario, Annie is driven by ________ motivation. A) intrinsic B) extrinsic C) organismic D) drive-reduction
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91)
When individuals engage in a behavior because they enjoy it, they A) are extrinsically motivated. B) are intrinsically motivated. C) have an external locus of control. D) have an internal locus of control.
92) Ray started playing basketball because he loved the sport. He was so good that he soon started playing professionally and signed a very lucrative contract with a leading company. During contract renewal, the company offered him a 20 percent raise but he thought that the raise was not enough and decided to quit. Which of the following best explains Ray's behavior from a motivational perspective? A) Ray is being driven by his organismic needs. B) The company did not give Ray his due respect. C) Extrinsic motivation has replaced Ray's intrinsic motivation to play basketball. D) Intrinsic motivation has replaced Ray's extrinsic motivation to play basketball.
93) Imani does a good job because she knows that her performance will result in a bonus if she meets her goals. Georgia does a good job because she feels a sense of accomplishment when she meets her goals. Both do the same kind of work. Who is most likely to perform better? A) Imani is most likely to perform better. B) Georgia is most likely to perform better. C) Imani is more likely to perform better but also likely to feel more bored with her work. D) They both will perform equally well.
94) Setting goals, planning for the implementation of goals, and monitoring progress are all aspects of Version 1
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A) self-determination theory. B) self-regulation. C) self-fulfilling prophecy. D) intrinsic motivation.
95)
A key aspect of self-regulation is A) getting feedback about how people are doing in their goal pursuits. B) realizing that autonomy is just about being independent and self-reliant. C) that healthy motivation is unlikely to result from freedom of choice. D) that it is difficult to remain motivated if a task becomes enjoyable.
96)
In the context of emotion, thinking about being in love with someone is an example of A) physiological arousal. B) behavioral expression. C) conscious experience. D) subconscious reaction.
97)
Which of the following is true of the sympathetic nervous system? A) It promotes relaxation and healing. B) It prepares the individual for fighting or running away. C) It functions to calm the body. D) When it is activated, heart rate and blood pressure drop.
98)
The sympathetic nervous system (SNS)
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A) leads to decreased blood pressure. B) causes slower heart rate. C) causes rapid breathing. D) leads to narcolepsy.
99)
When the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) is activated, A) blood pressure drops. B) heart rate increases. C) breathing becomes rapid. D) digestion of food becomes difficult.
100)
Identify a true statement about the parasympathetic nervous system. A) It is responsible for a rapid reaction to a stressor. B) It promotes relaxation and healing. C) It is involved in the body's arousal. D) It results in increased heart rate when activated.
101) Which of the following is a problem associated with using polygraph results as an indicator of whether or not a person is lying? A) Presence of drugs in the body influences the accuracy of the polygraph. B) Most people can camouflage their response patterns. C) Examiners are usually biased against the person being tested. D) The error rate of polygraphs is more than 85 percent.
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102) According to ________, emotion results from physiological states triggered by stimuli in the environment. Essentially, the theory proposes that after the initial perception of a stimulus, the experience of the emotion results from the perception of one's own physiological changes. A) the Cannon-Bard theory B) self-determination theory C) the James-Lange theory D) the two-factor theory of emotion
103) Which of the following would suggest that you are feeling happy because you are laughing? A) the two-factor theory of emotion B) the James-Lange theory C) the Cannon-Bard theory D) the Yerkes-Dodson law
104) Monica has an emotionally exhaustive day at work and finds it difficult to describe her emotions. After sitting quietly for a while, she starts crying. On observing her bodily reactions, she realizes that she must be sad. This example of emotional recognition is most consistent with the A) self-observation theory of emotion. B) Yerkes-Dodson law. C) James-Lange theory of emotion. D) Cannon-Bard theory of emotion.
105)
According to the James-Lange theory of emotions, crying over spilled milk will result in
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A) sorrow because you are crying. B) sorrow because the milk has spilled. C) increased heart rate because you are sad. D) several indiscriminate emotions.
106) Dominque and Salem are enjoying a picnic in a nearby forest. Suddenly, a huge black bear invades their space and heads for their picnic basket. According to the James-Lange theory of emotions, they will A) experience fear and run as a result of feeling the emotion of fear. B) run and experience the emotion of fear as a result of the physical changes in their bodies. C) experience fear, run, and as a result experience rapid breathing and increased heart rate. D) be frozen in fear until the bear begins to grab the basket.
107)
According to the ________, emotion and physiological reactions occur simultaneously. A) Cannon-Bard theory B) two-factor theory of emotion C) James-Lange theory D) self-determination theory
108)
The Cannon-Bard theory suggests that after witnessing a shocking event, a person will A) first experience shock and then be motivated to turn away. B) be motivated to turn away and will then experience shock. C) experience increased heart rate and rapid breathing as a result of anxiety. D) experience physical and emotional reactions simultaneously.
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109) Jacob notices a snake slithering up the river bank while he is fishing. The thalamus of Jacob's brain immediately stimulates his autonomic nervous system, which, in turn, increases the rate of his breathing and heartbeat. At the same time, Jacob's brain sends signals to his cerebral cortex which causes Jacob to perceive the emotional experience of fear. Consequently, Jacob experiences both fear and the physiological changes in his body at the same time. This scenario complies with the A) James-Lange theory. B) Cannon-Bard theory. C) two-factor theory. D) drive reduction theory.
110)
Which of the following brain structures plays a central role in the experience of fear? A) the thalamus B) the amygdalae C) the cerebellum D) the hippocampus
111) Which of the following statements is true about the neurotransmitters and neural circuitry involved in emotions? A) The limbic system is involved in the experience of negative emotions. B) Dopamine and endorphins are linked to negative emotions. C) Norepinephrine functions in regulating arousal and anxiety. D) High levels of serotonin are linked to anger and aggression.
112) The brain circuitry that involves the emotion of fear can follow two pathways: a direct pathway or an indirect pathway. Identify a true statement about the direct pathway. Version 1
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A) It is unlikely to be used when an organism faces a threat to its survival. B) It carries nerve impulses from the sensory organs to the thalamus. C) It has the advantage of speed when carrying information. D) It conveys detailed information about stimuli.
113) According to Schachter and Singer's two-factor theory, emotion is determined by two factors. They are A) internal and external attribution. B) intrinsic and extrinsic motivation. C) homeostasis and the Yerkes-Dodson law. D) physiological arousal and cognitive labeling.
114) Antonne, a high schooler, realizes that he is late for his school's soccer selections and runs fast to reach the venue. When he reaches the venue and sees the selectors, he realizes that his heart is racing, his breathing is fast, and he is feeling sweaty. He is not sure if he is feeling nervous or if he is just recovering from his run to the venue. He is likely to mistake his bodily sensations as indications that he is scared of the selections. This scenario best exemplifies A) drive reduction theory. B) the two-factor theory of emotion. C) the Cannon-Bard theory. D) the James-Lange theory of emotion.
115)
Richard Lazarus argued for the primacy of thinking. It means that he believed that
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A) emotions come before thoughts. B) cognitive activity is a precondition for emotion. C) cognitive ability makes intrinsic motivation possible. D) cognitive ability depends on extrinsic motivation.
116)
In the context of cognition and emotion, Zajonc famously argued A) for the primacy of thinking. B) that preferences need no inferences. C) that humans cognitively appraise themselves and their social circumstances. D) that cognitive activity is a precondition for emotion.
117) You are feeling upset. Your mother turns toward you and says, "Turn that frown upside down." You turn your frown into a smile and realize that you start feeling happy. This experience is best described by the A) Yerkes-Dodson law. B) facial feedback hypothesis. C) Cannon-Bard theory. D) self-determination theory.
118) A professor conducts an experiment in which she asks her students to either hold a pen between their teeth or between their lips. Holding the pen between one's teeth mimicked the facial expression of smiling. After five minutes, she finds out that the students who held the pen beneath their teeth reported being happier than those who held it between their lips. These results most likely support the
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A) Schachter-Singer theory. B) two-factor theory of emotion. C) Cannon-Bard theory. D) facial feedback hypothesis.
119)
The facial feedback hypothesis provides support for the A) James-Lange theory of emotion. B) Canon-Bard theory of emotion. C) two-factor theory of emotion. D) Yerkes-Dodson law.
120) Kiefer attends acting classes. His instructor uses Stanislavski's "method-acting" technique, which suggests that to feel a particular emotion, an actor should imitate the behavior of someone feeling that emotion. When Kiefer plays a scene where his character is supposed to be sad, his instructor suggests that he could try crying in order to feel sadness. "Method acting" is most consistent with the A) Cannon-Bard theory. B) James-Lange theory. C) Yerkes-Dodson law. D) self-determination theory.
121) In the context of the sociocultural factors in emotion, Paul Ekman's careful observations reveal that
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A) the many faces of emotion do not differ significantly from one culture to another. B) many nonverbal signals of emotion appear to be similar across cultures. C) the display rules for emotion are universal and do not vary across cultures. D) people from different cultures fail to label the emotion that lies behind each other's facial expressions.
122) InThe Expression of the Emotions in Man and Animals, Charles Darwin stated that the facial expressions of human beings are A) learned. B) unlikely to have evolved from the emotions of animals. C) innate. D) different in different cultures around the world.
123) Evan received an ugly pair of pajamas for his birthday. Even though he did not like the gift, he smiled and thanked his grandmother for the present. Evan's behavior is likely to be explained in terms of A) set points. B) display rules. C) the circumplex model of emotion. D) the broaden-and-build model.
124) Soccer players are expected to congratulate and shake hands with the opponent team, even when their team loses the game. This exemplifies
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A) display rules. B) a set point. C) the two-factor theory of emotion. D) the Yerkes-Dodson law.
125) The ________ of an emotion refers to whether it feels pleasant or unpleasant. The ________ of an emotion is the degree to which the emotion is reflected in a person's being active, engaged, or excited versus being more passive, relatively disengaged, or calm. A) arousal level; valence B) valence; arousal level C) manifestation; valence D) valence; manifestation
126) The term ________ refers to emotions such as anger, guilt, and sadness, whereas the term ________ refers to emotions such as joy, happiness, and interest. A) general affect; specific affect B) negative affect; positive affect C) catharsis; motivational factor D) extrinsic motivation; intrinsic motivation
127) In the context of classifying emotions, which of the following is an example of a lowarousal positive emotion? A) ecstasy B) tranquility C) excitement D) autonomy
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128) In the context of classifying emotions, which of the following is an example of a lowarousal negative emotion? A) rage B) fury C) irritation D) panic
129) According to the circumplex model of mood, a wheel of mood states can be created from the two independent dimensions of A) heritability and experience. B) individualism and collectivism. C) valence and arousal level. D) emoticons and display rules.
130) According to ________, the function of positive emotions lies in their effects on an individual's attention and ability to build resources. A) the two-factor theory of emotion B) the broaden-and-build model C) the Yerkes-Dodson law D) the James-Lange theory
131)
The broaden-and-build model begins with
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A) the adaptiveness of negative emotions. B) the influence of positive emotions on cognitive processing. C) the difference between high and low arousal emotions. D) the discrepancies between Plutchik's and Tompkins' models.
132)
In the family tree model of positive emotions, the "root" of the tree is A) the brain's reward center. B) the endocrine system. C) cognition. D) hormones.
133) Pia has a zestful, optimistic, and energetic approach toward life. She believes that brisk walking while listening to songs on her phone is the best way to cope with anger and frustration. She is likely to brighten up a dull, lifeless gathering by cracking jokes. In this scenario, Pia is most likely to score high on A) resilience. B) self-efficacy. C) self-regulation. D) autonomy.
134)
Which of the following best describes the hedonic treadmill? A) experiencing increased psychological well-being after a depressive episode B) adapting rapidly to an event that initially caused great happiness C) reacting negatively to an event that should cause significant happiness D) experiencing a negative event shortly after experiencing a positive event
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135) According to the concept of ________, any aspect of life that enhances our positive feelings is likely to do so for only a short period of time. A) self-actualization B) display rules C) self-regulation D) hedonic treadmill
136)
Alyssa wins a lottery. According to the concept of the hedonic treadmill
A) Alyssa will feel maximum happiness and fulfillment for the rest of her life. B) Alyssa will experience a short-term high from her win, but her happiness will eventually return back to its set point. C) Alyssa will selfishly spend her money in large quantities. D) Alyssa's happiness will be unaffected by her lottery win.
137) According to Lyubomirsky, which of the following effects does engaging in altruistic behavior have on one's well-being? A) It has little or no effect. B) It increases happiness. C) It decreases happiness. D) It improves physical but not psychological well-being.
138) Greta loves to help others and often engages in small acts of kindness. In this scenario, Greta is most likely
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A) low on resilience. B) behaving altruistically. C) demonstrating autonomy. D) extrinsically motivated.
139)
One technique for practicing positive self-reflection is to A) keep a gratitude journal. B) explicitly focus on trying to be happy. C) avoid failure. D) acquire new possessions.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 09_5e_King 1) Theories of Motivation 2) Theories of Motivation 3) Hunger and Sex 4) Beyond Hunger and Sex: Motivation in Everyday Life 5) Beyond Hunger and Sex: Motivation in Everyday Life 6) Beyond Hunger and Sex: Motivation in Everyday Life 7) Beyond Hunger and Sex: Motivation in Everyday Life 8) Emotion 9) Emotion 10) Motivation and Emotion: The Pursuit of Happiness 11) A 12) B 13) C 14) B 15) A 16) C 17) D 18) B 19) C 20) C 21) B Version 1
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22) D 23) C 24) D 25) C 26) B 27) B 28) C 29) B 30) A 31) C 32) D 33) A 34) A 35) A 36) B 37) A 38) A 39) B 40) A 41) C 42) B 43) D 44) C 45) D 46) A 47) A 48) A 49) A 50) B 51) D Version 1
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52) A 53) D 54) A 55) A 56) A 57) D 58) A 59) A 60) C 61) B 62) A 63) A 64) A 65) A 66) B 67) C 68) C 69) A 70) C 71) B 72) C 73) A 74) C 75) D 76) A 77) C 78) D 79) A 80) A 81) C Version 1
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82) A 83) B 84) A 85) D 86) C 87) D 88) B 89) C 90) B 91) B 92) C 93) B 94) B 95) A 96) C 97) B 98) C 99) A 100) B 101) A 102) C 103) B 104) C 105) A 106) B 107) A 108) D 109) B 110) B 111) C Version 1
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112) C 113) D 114) B 115) B 116) B 117) B 118) D 119) A 120) B 121) A 122) C 123) B 124) A 125) B 126) B 127) B 128) C 129) C 130) B 131) B 132) A 133) A 134) B 135) D 136) B 137) B 138) B 139) A
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CHAPTER 10 1) Give a brief explanation of Freud's model of personality, including the id, ego, and superego, as well as the relationship among these components.
2)
Evaluate the psychodynamic perspectives of personality.
3)
Describe Maslow's approach to personality.
4)
Describe Carl Rogers's approach to personality.
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5) What are the big five factors of personality? Are the big five factors related to one another?
6)
Evaluate the strengths and weaknesses of the trait approach to personality.
7)
What is self-efficacy and why is this concept so important to the study of personality?
8) Describe the biological basis for introversion/extraversion? How heritable are personality traits?
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9)
Identify the characteristics of self-report tests and projective measures of personality.
10) ________ is a pattern of enduring, distinctive thoughts, emotions, and behaviors that characterize the way a person adapts to the world. A) Personality B) Perception C) Intelligence D) Sensation
11) Which of the following perspectives emphasizes that personality is primarily unconscious? A) social cognitive perspectives B) psychodynamic perspectives C) humanistic perspectives D) personological and life-story perspectives
12)
Which of the following is a belief of the psychodynamic perspectives on personality?
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A) A person's personality can be truly understood by focusing exclusively on their behavior. B) The enduring patterns that make up personality are largely unavailable to an individual's conscious awareness. C) Individuals have the ability to control their lives and to achieve what they desire. D) Personality consists of broad, enduring dispositions that tend to lead to characteristic responses.
13)
Freud considered ________ to be the most important motivator of all human activity. A) the conscious mind B) the sexual drive C) rewards and punishments D) self-actualization
14) Freud developed psychoanalysis to work with patients who had physical symptoms that had no physical cause, which was otherwise referred to as A) hysteria. B) ego. C) reinforcement sensitivity. D) compensation.
15)
According to Freud, the ego A) is an individual's reservoir of sexual energy. B) operates on the "pleasure principle." C) deals with the demands of reality. D) is the harsh internal judge of one's behavior.
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16) Cookie Monster, one of the characters on the children's TV showSesame Street, has an intense urge to consume cookies, even when doing so is irrational and maladaptive. Eating cookies gives Cookie Monster a great source of pleasure and satisfaction. Freud would say that Cookie Monster's behavior reflects the fact that he is ruled by his A) id B) ego. C) superego. D) Oedipus complex.
17)
Which structure of personality did Freud refer to as the "it"? A) the id B) the ego C) the superego D) the collective unconscious
18) Carolyn's parents were extremely religious, and they brought her up with strict moral codes. She was not permitted to have male friends, and even her female friends were not allowed to spend time in their home. In college, Carolyn fell in love and, despite her strict upbringing, engaged in premarital sex. In the context of Freud's psychoanalytic theory, which personality structure was most likely responsible for Carolyn's action? A) superego B) archetype C) id D) ego
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19) Nelly's friends attempt to convince her to try cocaine at a party. Even though Nelly is tempted, she resists because she knows that the consequences of her actions would be disastrous for her body. In the context of Freud's structures of personality, Nelly's temptation to take cocaine is most likely dictated by her ________. Her decision not to take the drug is most likely dictated by her ________. A) ego; superego B) superego; ego C) id; ego D) ego; id
20) Which of the following is true of the structures of personality as described by Sigmund Freud? A) The ego and the superego are completely unconscious, whereas the id is partly unconscious. B) The id abides by the reality principle by trying to bring the individual pleasure within the norms of society. C) The ego acts as a mediator between the conflicting demands of the id and the superego, as well as the real world. D) The superego helps individuals to test reality.
21)
According to Freud's psychoanalytic theory, the ego abides by the ________ principle. A) pleasure B) self-actualization C) reality D) all-or-none
22) According to Freud, the ________ operates according to the pleasure principle, whereas the ________ operates according to the reality principle. Version 1
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A) superego; ego B) id; superego C) id; ego D) ego; id
23) Meyer plans to obtain quick money through gambling, but he realizes that he might get arrested by the police. This prevents him from going ahead with the plan. According to Freud's psychoanalytic theory, which of the following structures of personality most likely stopped Meyer from going ahead with his plan? A) superego B) ego C) id D) animus
24) According to the Freudian structures of personality, which of the following statements is true of the superego? A) It operates according to the pleasure principle. B) It does not consider whether something is right or wrong. C) It does not consider reality. D) It consists of unconscious drives.
25) If Noor is feeling guilty about lying to her mother, supporters of Freud's psychoanalytic theory would most likely argue that her ________ is making her feel this way.
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A) id B) anima C) superego D) ego
26) According to Freud, the ________ is reflected in what we often call conscience and evaluates the morality of our behavior. A) id B) ego C) superego D) collective unconscious
27) Brandon attempts to convince his girlfriend, Katherine, to have sex with him. Even though Katherine loves and desires him, her religious beliefs do not permit her to have sex before marriage. According to Freud's structures of personality, Katherine's desire to have sex with Brandon is most likely dictated by her ________. Her decision not to engage in premarital sex is most likely dictated by her ________. A) ego; id B) ego; superego C) superego; id D) id; superego
28) Mariam was reared in a home where high moral principles dominated. She has attended Sunday school and church since early childhood. In high school, her boyfriend asked her to miss school and go on a cruise with him, but something from inside her told her not to. Later, she felt very proud of herself for holding her ground. Which Freudian personality structure made Mariam feel proud of her response?
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A) superego B) preconscious C) id D) ego
29)
According to Freud, the superego A) works according to the pleasure principle. B) consists of unconscious drives and is the individual's reservoir of sexual energy. C) considers whether the id's impulses can be satisfied in acceptable moral terms. D) has no contact with reality.
30) Which of the following terms refers to the strategies that the ego uses to reduce anxiety by unconsciously distorting reality? A) fixation B) hysteria C) ego wellness D) defense mechanisms
31) Which of the following defense mechanisms involves directing unacceptable impulses at a less threatening target? A) displacement B) sublimation C) repression D) fixation
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32) Matteo was bitten by a dog when he was 2 years old. As he grew up, he developed an intense fear of dogs. However, he did not remember when and why he started being afraid of dogs. According to Sigmund Freud's psychoanalytic theory, which defense mechanism is Matteo exhibiting in this scenario? A) displacement B) rationalization C) projection D) repression
33) ________ is a defense mechanism that involves pushing threatening impulses out of conscious awareness. A) Thanatos B) Sublimation C) Repression D) Fixation
34) Welma is unable to accept the fact that she has been diagnosed with lung cancer. She refuses treatment despite her family's attempts to convince her. According to Freud's psychoanalytic theory, Welma is unconsciously engaging in a defense mechanism called A) denial. B) regression. C) rationalization. D) displacement.
35)
The most powerful and pervasive defense mechanism used by the ego is
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A) displacement. B) sublimation. C) repression. D) fixation.
36)
Which of the following is true of defense mechanisms? A) Defense mechanisms are conscious in nature. B) Even when used in moderation, defense mechanisms are unhealthy. C) Defense mechanisms are tactics the ego uses to increase anxiety. D) Repression is the foundation for all of the psychological defense mechanisms.
37) Harun has been extremely aggressive since childhood. He pursues a career in boxing, which provides a socially acceptable channel to express his aggression. This scenario best illustrates the defense mechanism called A) regression. B) sublimation. C) repression. D) rationalization.
38) John, who is jealous of his older brother, states that his older brother hates him and is jealous of him. This scenario best illustrates the defense mechanism called A) regression. B) repression. C) sublimation. D) projection.
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39) ________ is a defense mechanism that involves directing unacceptable impulses at a less threatening target. A) Regression B) Sublimation C) Repression D) Displacement
40) A defense mechanism in which people see in others those impulses that they most fear or despise in themselves is called A) fixation. B) sublimation. C) repression. D) projection.
41) Afonso often feels attracted to men. However, he strongly opposes the idea of same-sex relationships among his friends. According to Freud's psychoanalytic theory, Afonso's attitude best illustrates the defense mechanism called A) reaction formation. B) denial. C) sublimation. D) regression.
42) Which of the following is a crucial concept in Freud's psychosexual stages of personality development?
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A) erogenous zones B) collective unconscious C) self-actualization D) archetypes
43) Six-month-old Ian loves to suck on anything he can get his hands on (e.g., fingers, dolls, blocks, rattles). The fact that Ian receives pleasure and comfort by exploring the world with his mouth suggests that he is in the ________ stage of psychosexual development. A) phallic B) oral C) anal D) genital
44) According to Sigmund Freud's psychosexual stages of personality development, who among the following is in the oral stage? A) 14-month-old Aurora, who enjoys biting anything she can get hold of B) 2-year-old Farah, who is undergoing toilet training C) 21-year-old Sara, who enjoys poetry D) 28-year-old Maya, who is a wine expert
45) In Freud's view, ________ is a boy's intense desire to replace his father and enjoy the affections of his mother. A) castration anxiety B) Electra complex C) penis envy D) Oedipus complex
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46) According to Freud's psychosexual stages of development, castration anxiety occurs during the A) phallic stage. B) anal stage. C) genital stage. D) oral stage.
47) According to Freud's psychosexual stages of development, girls in the phallic stage experience A) the Oedipus complex. B) castration completed. C) castration anxiety. D) unconditional positive regard.
48) Which of the following represents the correct sequence of Freud's psychosexual stages of development? A) oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital B) anal, oral, phallic, latency, genital C) phallic, oral, anal, genital, latency D) genital, oral, phallic, anal, latency
49) According to Freud, penis envy or the Oedipus complex is experienced during which of the following psychosexual stages of development?
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A) oral B) anal C) phallic D) latency
50)
According to Freud's psychosexual stages of development, the latency period occurs A) during infancy. B) during a time when most children are experiencing toilet training. C) immediately after the phallic stage. D) in adolescence and adulthood.
51) Clarissa always needs to have something in her mouth. She is trying to give up smoking, but she can't get through the day without sucking or chewing on her nails, pencils, or any other object she can get her hands on. Freud would suggest that Clarissa may be fixated at the ________ stage of psychosexual development. A) anal B) oral C) phallic D) latency
52) Which of the following behaviors is typical of a person fixated at the oral stage of psychosexual development and uses the defense mechanism of reaction formation? A) puritanical attitude toward sex B) dislike of milk C) excessive modesty D) fear of dirt
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53) According to Freud's stages of psychosexual development, which of the following statements best indicates that 30-year-old Gayle is fixated at the oral stage? A) He is excessively concerned about cleanliness. B) He has a puritanical attitude toward sex. C) He is stubborn and prefers simplicity and structure. D) He is addicted to smoking cigarettes.
54) Yonatan, a 26-year-old, is a statistician. He spends his free time making clay sculptures as he finds working with clay to be a calming experience. According to Freud's stages of psychosexual development, Yonatan is most likely to be fixated at the A) anal stage. B) genital stage. C) oral stage. D) phallic stage.
55) According to Freud's stages of psychosexual development, which of the following best indicates that 23-year-old Elliot is fixated at the phallic stage? A) He is extremely disorganized. B) He is overtly flirtatious. C) He loves bathroom humor. D) He is addicted to alcohol.
56)
Which of the following is a criticism of Sigmund Freud's psychoanalytic theory?
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A) The ego and conscious thought processes do not play a dominant role in one's personality as Freud believed. B) Sociocultural factors are not as important in the development of personality as Freud believed. C) Sexuality is not the pervasive force behind personality that Freud believed it to be. D) The biological basis of personality is much more important than Freud thought.
57)
Freud's view of anatomy as destiny was criticized by Karen Horney primarily for A) ignoring sociocultural influences on personality development. B) underestimating cognitive differences between males and females. C) dismissing the importance of parenting style on personality development. D) overestimating intelligence differences between males and females.
58) Freud believed that the prime motive in human existence is the need for ________, Karen Horney believed that the prime motive in human existence is the need for ________. A) security; sex B) sex; security C) self-actualization; unconditional positive regard D) sex; self-actualization
59)
According to Horney, women might envy the penis but what they really want is A) a man to protect and shelter them. B) the status bestowed to those who have one. C) stronger superegos and moral convictions. D) the freedom to have multiple sexual partners.
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60)
Which of the following is true of Karen Horney's sociocultural approach?
A) She believed that the need for sex, not for security, is the prime motive for human existence. B) She felt that the unhappiness of modern people comes from hating themselves because they cannot live up to impossible standards. C) She supported Sigmund Freud's notion that anatomy is destiny. D) She rejected the notion that both sexes envy the attributes of the other, with men coveting women's reproductive capacities.
61) According to Jung, the deepest, transpersonal layer of the unconscious mind that is shared by all humans because of their common ancestral past is called the A) primal memory. B) id. C) collective unconscious. D) normative unconscious.
62)
According to Jung, the collective unconscious contains A) archetypes. B) the id. C) positive regard. D) self-actualization.
63) Jung used the term ________ to refer to the "feminine" side of our personality and the term ________ to refer to the "masculine" side of our personality.
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A) animus; anima B) anima; animus C) mandala; persona D) persona; mandala
64) At home, Carrie was moody, self-centered, and unhelpful. At social events, Carrie was the life of the party. She was funny, happy, and demonstrated social graces that none of her family ever saw at home. What is Jung's explanation of Carrie's behavior? A) Carrie adopted her persona at social events. B) Carrie exhibited her animus at home. C) Carrie was her anima at parties. D) Carrie was her archetype at home.
65) Alfred Adler would be most likely to endorse which of the following explanations for human behavior? A) People are primarily motivated by their desires to seek pleasure and avoid pain. B) People are primarily motivated by factors of which they are not consciously aware. C) People are primarily motivated by purposes and goals. D) People are primarily motivated by sexual and aggressive instincts.
66) Adler's view that people are motivated by purposes and goals and that perfection, not pleasure, is thus the key motivator in human life is known as A) individual psychology. B) humanistic theory. C) trait theory. D) social cognitive theory.
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67) According to Alfred Adler, a person's natural impulse toward warm relationships with other people is called A) sublimation. B) self-efficacy. C) social interest. D) social cognition.
68) In the context of individual psychology, which of the following statements is true of Alfred Adler? A) He believed that pleasure is the key motivator in human life. B) In his approach to personality, Adler used the terms "anima" and "animus" to identify two common archetypes. C) In his approach to personality, Adler referred to the concept of compensation and considered it abnormal. D) Adler thought that everyone strives for superiority by seeking to adapt, improve, and master the environment.
69) Dmitry is short and thin. Although he's not very strong or athletic, he excels in academics and has a great sense of humor. According to Adler, Dmitry's attempts to overcome physical weaknesses by developing strengths in other areas are an example of A) repression. B) displacement. C) sublimation. D) compensation.
70)
Which of the following is true of Alfred Adler's view on birth order?
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A) He believed that birth order puts firstborn children at an advantage. B) He held that birth order has the potential to doom anyone. C) He believed that sensitive parents could help children in any position in the family to negotiate their needs for superiority. D) He held that middle-born children are more likely to suffer from psychological disorders and to engage in criminal behavior.
71) Layla, a 15-year-old, has an older sister and a younger sister. According to Adler, which of the following is most applicable to Layla in the context of birth order? A) She is likely to be the center of attention in comparison to her siblings. B) She is most likely of the three to suffer from a psychological disorder. C) She is most likely of the three to engage in thefts and other petty crimes. D) She is most likely to be inspired by her older sister to strive for superiority.
72) Which of the following is a core principle shared by the psychodynamic perspectives on personality? A) Personality is not affected by current experiences, only by early life experiences. B) An individual's inner world is often at peace with the outer demands of reality. C) People retain the capacity for change and adaptation throughout life. D) Personality and adjustment are rightful and important topics of psychological inquiry.
73) Following are three of Freud's important contributions to psychology. Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that Freud continues to impact the field of psychology?
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A) the idea that all psychological concepts must be tested and proven through empirical study B) the idea that childhood is crucial to later functioning C) the idea that development might be understood in terms of stages D) the idea that unconscious processes might play a significant role in human life
74) Gladys is a therapist who is constantly reminding her clients that people have a natural capacity for personal growth and positive qualities. Gladys likely endorses the ________ of personality. A) psychodynamic perspective B) humanistic perspective C) learning perspective D) trait perspective
75) Brittney is a counselor who believes that her clients have the innate ability to make good choices. She accepts each individual as they are and as a person in the process of change. She holds that individuals are capable of controlling their lives and achieving their goals. Brittney is most likely to agree with the ________ of personality. A) trait theory B) psychoanalytic perspective C) social cognitive theory D) humanistic perspective
76) According to Abraham Maslow, which of the following traits is least likely to be associated with self-actualizers?
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A) spontaneity B) creativity C) intolerance D) sense of humor
77)
According to Abraham Maslow, which of the following is true of self-actualizers? A) They fixate themselves at the oral phase of psychosexual development. B) They are prone to experiencing distress. C) They seldom go through peak experiences. D) They maintain a capacity for breathtaking moments of spiritual insight.
78)
Which of the following is true of Carl Rogers's approach to personality? A) He believed that conditions of worth cannot become part of who we think we ought to
be. B) He believed that each person is born with natural capacities for growth and fulfillment. C) He believed that personality psychology should focus on understanding healthy, welladjusted individuals. D) He believed that a person must not reconnect with their true feelings and desires.
79) According to Rogers, a person's need to be liked, loved, and accepted by others regardless of their behavior is called A) unconditional positive regard. B) conditions of worth. C) the collective unconscious. D) catharsis.
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80) According to Carl Rogers, the standards people must live up to in order to receive positive regard from others are called A) archetypes. B) illusory conjunctions. C) humours. D) conditions of worth.
81) Ivan is a child who experiences regular punishment from his parents and is only rewarded for good behavior. According to Rogers, Ivan is likely to develop knowledge of A) conditions of worth. B) positive self-regard. C) unconditional positive regard. D) situational worth.
82)
Which of the following is an important element of Carl Rogers's humanistic theory? A) self-concept B) persona C) archetype D) sublimation
83) According to Carl Rogers, to reconnect with one's true feelings and desires, one should experience a relationship that includes empathy, genuineness, and
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A) conditions of worth. B) sublimation. C) regression. D) unconditional positive regard.
84)
Which of the following is a criticism of the humanistic perspectives on personality? A) They overemphasize the influence of early family experiences on personality. B) They overestimate people's freedom and rationality. C) They are too critical of the behaviors of humans. D) They place too much importance on sexuality in explaining personality.
85)
Which of the following is true of the trait theories of personality?
A) They state that biological differences among individuals are likely to explain differences in their personalities. B) They hold that the most important aspects of personality are unconscious. C) They state that behavior is best understood as changing across situations. D) They stress that personality consists of broad, enduring dispositions that tend to lead to characteristic responses.
86)
Who is considered the "founder of American personality psychology"? A) Carl Rogers B) Alfred Adler C) Gordon Allport D) Albert Bandura
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87)
Gordon Allport believed that healthy, well-adjusted individuals
A) show a positive but objective sense of self and others, and have a sense of humor, common sense, and a unifying philosophy of life. B) use their innate strengths to fulfill their conscious and unconscious instincts for pleasure, and they focus primarily on subjective reality to determine their own sense of truth. C) have achieved self-actualization, are truthful, work for the common good, and believe in social justice. D) do not use defense mechanisms, are logical, independent, and financially successful.
88)
Allport used ________ to conduct research on personality. A) the personological approach B) the lexical approach C) projective tests D) a thematic apperception test (TAT)
89) Which of the following statements accurately describes how factor analysis is used to identify personality traits? A) Factor analysis allows researchers to create operational definitions of theoretically generated personality traits. B) Factor analysis permits trait inferences by examining people's responses to ambiguous stimuli. C) Factor analysis allows researchers to identify which traits go together in terms of how they are rated. D) Factor analysis guides researchers who use projective tests.
90)
Alex is shy and keeps to himself most of the time. Alex would score low on what trait?
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A) openness B) extraversion C) agreeableness D) neuroticism
91) The big five factors of personality are neuroticism, extraversion, openness to experience, agreeableness, and A) dominance. B) genuineness. C) conscientiousness. D) empathy.
92) Chloe is liberal and tolerant. According to the five-factor model of personality, Chloe is likely to score high on A) emotional stability. B) agreeableness. C) conscientiousness. D) openness to experience.
93) According to the five-factor model of personality, which statement best describes the relationship between neuroticism and personality? A) Neuroticism is low in anxious and insecure individuals. B) Neuroticism is high when a person is positive. C) Neuroticism is high when a person is emotionally stable. D) Neuroticism is low in self-satisfied individuals.
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94)
Which statement best describes the relationship between neuroticism and emotion? A) Neuroticism is a personality trait and therefore not related to emotional experience. B) Neuroticism is related to feeling positive emotion more often than negative emotion. C) Neuroticism is related to feeling more negative emotion than positive emotion in daily
life. D) Neuroticism is related to extreme emotions, both positive and negative.
95) Christos is an insecure individual. He tends to be anxious, stressed, and moody. According to the five-factor model of personality, Christos is likely to score high on A) neuroticism. B) extraversion. C) conscientiousness. D) agreeableness.
96) Your grandma initiates regular get-togethers at her neighborhood community hall. She also believes that it's important to experience gratitude and be thankful for the wonderful life she has lived. According to the five-factor five model of personality, your grandma would likely score high on which of the following traits? A) fixedness B) extraversion C) conscientiousness D) neuroticism
97)
Which of the following individuals illustrates the trait of extraversion?
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A) Julius, who always dresses neatly but not very stylishly B) Raul, who displays superior cognitive functioning and IQ C) Archie, who maintains a good romantic relationship with his girlfriend D) Ethan, who has a lighthearted chat with all the members of his choir group
98) According to the five-factor model of personality, which of the following individuals exhibits the trait of openness to experience? A) Sarah, who resigns from her well-paid job and sets up her own business B) Phoebe, who donates generously to programs sponsored by her church C) Yuna, who experiences more negative states than positive states D) Maya, who dresses fashionably and attends weekend parties with her friends
99) Which of the following traits is related to generosity and altruism, to reports of religious faith, and to more satisfying romantic relationships? A) openness to experience B) extraversion C) conscientiousness D) agreeableness
100) Maria is a generous and altruistic woman who has a strong religious faith. According to the five-factor five model of personality, Maria would likely score high on which of the following traits? A) openness B) extraversion C) agreeableness D) neuroticism
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101)
Which of the following individuals illustrates the trait of conscientiousness? A) Edmund, who suffers in silence B) Anne, who studied hard and retook the SAT to improve her score C) Santino, who experiences more negative than positive emotions D) Alvin, who loves talking to people
102) Amelia is a teacher. She has many good friends both at work and outside work. She is well liked by both her colleagues and her students as she is hardworking and reliable. According to the five-factor model of personality, Amelia is likely to score high on A) conscientiousness. B) openness to experience. C) neuroticism. D) extraversion.
103)
Which of the five factors of personality shares the strongest relationship to longevity? A) conscientiousness B) agreeableness C) openness to experience D) extraversion
104)
How does the HEXACO model differ from the five-factor model of personality?
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A) It breaks agreeableness into two different traits. B) It does not include neuroticism as a personality factor. C) It ignores both moral and immoral behavior. D) It is not a trait approach to personality.
105) ________ is a person's assessment of their own level of positive affect relative to negative affect, and an evaluation of their life in general. A) Unconditional positive regard B) Self-efficacy C) An archetype D) Subjective well-being
106) Ernie is an extrovert. Bert is an introvert. What can you predict about Ernie and Bert given your knowledge of personality research? A) Bert will be happier than Ernie. B) Ernie experiences more positive emotions than Bert. C) Bert is less neurotic than Ernie. D) Ernie has been denied unconditional positive regard.
107) ________ are enduring characteristics of our personality. ________ are briefer depictions of our personalities. A) States; Traits B) Traits; States C) Conditions of worth; Archetypes D) Archetypes; Conditions of worth
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108)
The trait approach to personality has been faulted for
A) overestimating people's freedom and rationality. B) placing too much importance on sexuality in explaining personality. C) missing the importance of situational factors in personality and behavior. D) failing to acknowledge that people retain the capacity for change and adaptation throughout life.
109) The ________ approach to personality places emphasis on conscious awareness, beliefs, expectations, and goals. A) psychodynamic B) humanistic C) trait D) social cognitive
110) According to Bandura, the way behavior, environment, and person/cognitive factors interact to create personality is described as A) reciprocal determinism. B) collective unconscious. C) behavioral genetics. D) conditions of worth.
111)
Which of the following is a key component of Bandura's social cognitive theory?
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A) observational learning B) psychosexual stages C) delay of gratification D) reinforcement sensitivity
112) Three of the following are important aspects of Bandura's social cognitive theory. Which one is NOT emphasized by Bandura's theory? A) reticular activation B) observational learning C) personal control D) self-efficacy
113) The degree to which a person believes themselves to be in charge of the outcomes of behaviors is referred to as A) personal control. B) self-efficacy. C) situational consistency. D) observational learning.
114) The term ________ refers to the belief that one has the competence to accomplish a given goal or task. A) collective unconscious B) self-efficacy C) face validity D) self-concept
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115) Shawn approaches most aspects of life with the expectation that he will be successful. He expects a great deal of himself and sets his goals high. Soon after graduating from college as the valedictorian, he attends a job interview at the most prestigious company in his state, and he is convinced that he will get the job. You could say that he A) has a strong external locus of control. B) displays low self-acceptance. C) has a strong tendency to be conceited. D) displays high self-efficacy.
116) Mischel nearly derailed the scientific study of personality by challenging the assumption that personality traits are A) consistent. B) consciously expressed. C) masculine. D) learned.
117)
Walter Mischel's view of situationism states that A) situations are more important than traits. B) behavior varies considerably from one context to another. C) a person's personality is more important in one situation than in another. D) reinforcers in the environment help shape personality traits.
118)
Identify a true statement about Walter Mischel's view on personality.
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A) He believed that the human sexual drive was the main determinant of personality development. B) He stated that the experiences of a common past have made a deep, permanent impression on the human mind. C) He proposed that perfection is the key motivator for individuals. D) He asserted that behavior is discriminative depending on the situation.
119)
Walter Mischel's theory of personality is centered in his work on A) individual psychology. B) the collective unconscious. C) delay of gratification. D) the superego.
120) The cognitive affective processing systems (CAPS) approach to understanding personality was developed by which of the following psychologists? A) Sigmund Freud B) Henry Murray C) Walter Mischel D) Albert Bandura
121) According to ________, our thoughts and emotions about ourselves and the world affect our behavior and become linked in ways that mark our behavior. A) the five-factor model of personality B) the biological approach to personality affect C) the psychodynamic approach to personality D) the cognitive affective processing systems (CAPS) theory of personality
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122)
Which of the following is a criticism of the social cognitive approach to personality? A) It overemphasizes the enduring qualities of personality. B) It ignores the role biology plays in personality. C) It ignores the importance of situational factors in personality and behavior. D) It overestimates the influence early family experiences have on personality.
123) Eysenck suggested that the ________ of extraverts and introverts differs with respect to the baseline level of arousal. A) somatosensory cortex B) thalamus C) reticular activation system D) occipital lobe
124) According to Eysenck's theory, introversion and extraversion are characteristic patterns of behavior that A) are shaped through behaviorism. B) aim to regulate arousal around baseline. C) should be measured using projective tests. D) determine a person's sense of unconditional positive regard.
125) According to Gray's reinforcement sensitivity theory, which of the following underlie personality?
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A) the behavioral activation system (BAS) and the behavioral inhibition system (BIS) B) the cognitive affective processing systems (CAPS) C) the id, ego, and superego D) the reticular activation system (RAS)
126) According to Jeffrey Gray's reinforcement sensitivity theory, identify a true statement about the behavioral inhibition system (BIS). A) It is involved in avoidance learning. B) It predisposes one to feelings of positive emotion. C) It underlies the trait of extraversion. D) It is sensitive to rewards in the environment.
127)
Which of the following neurotransmitters is associated with extraversion? A) dopamine B) serotonin C) acetylcholine D) GABA
128) Rachel has a pessimistic attitude. She worries incessantly about things and can never seem to see the positive side of life. According to the biological approach to personality development, Rachel's attitude could best be explained by low levels of A) glutamate. B) serotonin. C) dopamine. D) adrenaline.
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129)
Which of the following neurotransmitters is associated with neuroticism? A) dopamine B) serotonin C) acetylcholine D) GABA
130)
As it relates to biological processes, neuroticism is associated with A) poor regulation of the HPA axis. B) high levels of circulating serotonin. C) difficulty in amygdalae activation. D) greater connections in the prefrontal cortex.
131) Results of behavioral genetics twin studies suggest that heritability estimates for the big five personality factors are about A) 20 percent. B) 35 percent. C) 50 percent. D) 70 percent.
132)
________ is the study of the inherited underpinnings of behavioral characteristics.
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A) Behavioral genetics B) Heuristic study C) Behaviorism D) Individual psychology
133)
Self-report personality tests A) rely on a professional's diagnosis or opinion. B) ask the test taker to interpret ambiguous stimuli. C) determine people's personality based on behavioral observation. D) directly ask people whether specific items describe their personality traits.
134)
Social desirability is A) a major problem with self-report assessments. B) being considered as an addition in the big five personality inventory. C) correlated with self-efficacy. D) a major motivational component of the psychodynamic approach.
135) ________ is a type of self-report test that is created by first identifying two groups that are known to be different on the variable one wants to measure. A) The Thematic Apperception Test B) An empirically keyed test C) The Rorschach inkblot test D) The Blacky pictures test
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136) The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) is an example of a(n) ________ test of personality. A) lexical B) observational C) projective D) empirically keyed self-report
137)
Face validity refers to A) the extent to which two examiners agree about a person's personality traits. B) the extent to which a test item appears to fit the particular trait it is measuring. C) the degree to which a personality test predicts behavior outside the test situation. D) the tendency of a person to give answers that make themselves look better.
138) A(n) ________ presents individuals with an ambiguous stimulus and asks them to describe it or to tell a story about it—to launch their own meaning onto the stimulus. A) self-report questionnaire B) psychophysiological measure C) projective test D) empirically keyed test
139) Dr. Crane is looking for a test that he can use to understand more about his clients' unconscious feelings and conflicts. He would be very likely to use a(n) A) self-report measure. B) objective measure. C) projective measure. D) observational measure.
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140)
Projective tests are most closely aligned with which theoretical approach to personality? A) humanistic B) behaviorist C) social cognitive D) psychodynamic
141) Hao's therapist administered the Rorschach inkblot test during their last session. Hao completed a(n) ________ test of personality. A) self-report B) projective C) observational D) empirically keyed
142)
Which of the following is true of the Rorschach inkblot test? A) The test is highly regarded and is widely used in personality research. B) The test is one of the most objective tests used in clinical research. C) The test has been shown to be extraordinarily reliable. D) The test does not meet certain criteria of reliability and validity.
143)
Which of the following is true of the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)?
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A) It was created by Paul Costa and Robert McCrae. B) It is a famous projective test that uses an individual's perception of inkblots to determine their personality. C) It is the most extensively used measure around the world to assess personality and predict outcomes. D) It is designed to elicit stories that reveal something about a person's unconscious motivations.
144) ________ consists of a series of pictures, each on an individual card or slide. The test taker is asked to tell a story about each of the pictures, including events leading up to the situation described, the characters' thoughts and feelings, and the way the situation turns out. A) The Rorschach inkblot test B) The Thematic Apperception Test C) The Blacky pictures test D) The Draw-a-Person test
145) A client is asked by a therapist to look at a picture and to tell a story that describes what is happening in the picture. The therapist will use the content of the story to make inferences about the client's personality. The client is likely taking the A) Rorschach inkblot test. B) Myers–Briggs Type Indicator personality inventory. C) Thematic Apperception Test. D) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 10_5e_King 1) Psychodynamic Perspectives 2) Psychodynamic Perspectives 3) Humanistic Perspectives 4) Humanistic Perspectives 5) Trait Perspectives 6) Trait Perspectives 7) Social Cognitive Perspectives 8) Biological Perspectives 9) Personality Assessment 10) A 11) B 12) B 13) B 14) A 15) C 16) A 17) A 18) C 19) C 20) C 21) C 22) C Version 1
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23) B 24) C 25) C 26) C 27) D 28) A 29) C 30) D 31) A 32) D 33) C 34) A 35) C 36) D 37) B 38) D 39) D 40) D 41) A 42) A 43) B 44) A 45) D 46) A 47) B 48) A 49) C 50) C 51) B 52) B Version 1
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53) D 54) A 55) B 56) C 57) A 58) B 59) B 60) B 61) C 62) A 63) B 64) A 65) C 66) A 67) C 68) D 69) D 70) C 71) D 72) D 73) A 74) B 75) D 76) C 77) D 78) B 79) A 80) D 81) A 82) A Version 1
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83) D 84) B 85) D 86) C 87) A 88) B 89) C 90) B 91) C 92) D 93) D 94) C 95) A 96) B 97) D 98) A 99) D 100) C 101) B 102) A 103) A 104) A 105) D 106) B 107) B 108) C 109) D 110) A 111) A 112) A Version 1
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113) A 114) B 115) D 116) A 117) B 118) D 119) C 120) C 121) D 122) B 123) C 124) B 125) A 126) A 127) A 128) C 129) B 130) A 131) C 132) A 133) D 134) A 135) B 136) D 137) B 138) C 139) C 140) D 141) B 142) D Version 1
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143) D 144) B 145) C
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CHAPTER 11 1) According to attribution theory, what three dimensions do individuals evaluate when they are trying to explain the underlying causes of behavior?
2)
Define Festinger's concept of cognitive dissonance. How can dissonance be reduced?
3)
Differentiate between altruism and egoism.
4) A politician claims that media violence is the sole cause of aggressive behavior among children and teens. He builds his campaign around setting more stringent media regulations and censorship guidelines. Is there substantial evidence for a causal link between violent media exposure and aggression? Is there evidence of a correlation between violent media exposure and aggression? What other factors are involved in the origin of aggressive behavior?
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5) What are the limitations of the social psychological research that examines attraction, love, and intimacy?
6) Pretend that you just landed a new job as a psychological consultant for an internet dating service. Your new boss has asked you to give a presentation on the social psychological principles of attraction. Discuss the factors that influence interpersonal attraction.
7) Explain the concepts of romantic love and affectionate love. How do these types of love vary over the course of a relationship?
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8) Identify the distinction between normative social influence and informational social influence.
9) Define the concept of deindividuation. What effects can deindividuation have on our behavior? How do psychologists explain the effects of deindividuation?
10) Differentiate between explicit racism and implicit racism. How might a psychologist measure implicit racism?
11)
According to social psychology, why do people develop stereotypes and prejudice?
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12) ________ is the scientific study of how people think about, influence, and relate to other people. A) Social Darwinism B) Social analytics C) Socialism D) Social psychology
13)
In contrast to sociologists, social psychologists A) are interested in how individuals influence and are influenced by groups. B) focus exclusively on the group level. C) examine human social behavior. D) disregard the immediate social situation when seeking to understand human behavior.
14) The tendency of an individual who observes an emergency to be less likely to help when other people are present than when the observer is alone is known as the A) bystander effect. B) Flynn effect. C) representativeness heuristic. D) availability heuristic.
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15) In the context of social behavior, which of the following best explains the bystander effect? A) People tend to look to others for cues about how to behave. B) People do not wait for others to offer help during emergencies. C) When witnesses are present, individuals feel a sense of personal responsibility. D) When others are watching, individuals are highly likely to behave altruistically.
16) ________ refers to the processes by which we use social stimuli to form impressions of others. A) Form perception B) Person perception C) Visual perception D) Amodal perception
17) The area of social psychology that explores how people select, interpret, remember, and use social information is called A) parapsychology. B) clinical psychology. C) social relativity. D) social cognition.
18) Attractive people are generally assumed to have a variety of positive characteristics. According to research, which of the following is key aspect in people's determination of facial attractiveness?
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A) averageness B) uniqueness C) irregularity D) disproportionality
19) A ________ is a generalization about a group's characteristics that does not consider any variations from one individual to another. A) stereotype B) hypothesis C) proposition D) classification
20) Robert Rosenthal and Lenore Jacobsen conducted a study in 1968. The researchers told grade-school teachers that five students were likely to be "late bloomers"—that these students had high levels of ability that would likely emerge over time. In reality, the students had been randomly selected by the researchers. Nonetheless, a year later, the researchers found that teachers' expectations for the "late bloomers" were reflected in student performance—the academic performance of the "late bloomers" was beyond that of other students. The results from this study demonstrate which of the following concepts? A) cognitive dissonance theory B) the butterfly effect C) self-fulfilling prophecy D) self-serving bias
21) In ________, social expectations cause individuals to act in ways that make their expectations come true.
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A) a self-fulfilling prophecy B) hindsight bias C) self-actualization D) the representativeness heuristic
22)
Self-fulfilling prophecy
A) effects show the potential power of stereotypes and other sources of expectations on human behavior. B) shows that aspects of the environment prime us to behave aggressively. C) examines the characteristics of cultures that are associated with the emergence of altruism and with the belief that everyone deserves fair treatment. D) is the solidification and further strengthening of an individual's position as a consequence of a group discussion or interaction.
23)
Which of the following statements is true of stereotype threat?
A) A person facing stereotype threat usually performs well in any test to prove that they are better than what is indicated by the stereotype. B) A person who experiences stereotype threat is well aware of stereotypical expectations for them as a member of a group. C) Stereotype threat affects performance on math tests that are taken by men compared to women. D) In stereotype-relevant situations, a person has the tendency to overperform.
24) ________ is an individual's fast-acting, self-fulfilling fear of being judged based on others' negative generalizations about the group to which they belong.
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A) Stereotype threat B) Self-serving bias C) False uniqueness effect D) Stereotype consensus effect
25) Which of the following refers to the inferences that we make in order to explain the causes of others' behavior? A) deindividuation B) validation C) perception D) attribution
26) According to attribution theory, attributions vary along which of the following dimensions? A) internal and external causes B) known and unknown causes C) regular and irregular causes D) consistent and inconsistent causes
27) Manuel and Tariq were recently dumped by their partners. Manuel believes that his boyfriend broke up with him because he was selfish and unhappy, whereas Tariq believes that his girlfriend broke up with him because she had to attend to a family emergency and could not make a commitment at the moment. Manuel is making a(n) ________ about his girlfriend's behavior, whereas Tariq is making a(n) ________.
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A) internal attribution; external attribution B) external attribution; internal attribution C) downward social comparison; upward social comparison D) upward social comparison; downward social comparison
28) Attributions that include causes inside and specific to a person, such as their traits and abilities, are called A) internal attributions. B) external attributions. C) stable attributions. D) unstable attributions.
29) You conclude that Carla is a naturally anxious woman. You ignore the fact that Carla is currently working on a tight-deadline project and is spending 100 hours per week at work. You are demonstrating the A) fundamental attribution error. B) universality mistake. C) self-serving bias. D) availability heuristic.
30) You watch as Emma stumbles and drops her books in the hall. In the context of the fundamental attribution error, how would you explain Emma's behavior? A) She must have tripped over something. B) She is a clumsy person. C) She could not help it; there were too many books to carry. D) She was trying to get out of someone else's way.
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31) In attribution theory, the person who offers a causal explanation of the actor's behavior is called the A) attributor. B) observer. C) influencer. D) mediator.
32) The tendency for observers to underestimate the impact of the external situation and overestimate the impact of internal traits when they seek explanations of another person's behavior is called A) the self-serving bias. B) the fundamental attribution error. C) the false consensus bias. D) cognitive dissonance.
33) The ________ is the observers' overestimation of the degree to which everybody else thinks or acts the way we do. A) fundamental attribution error B) self-serving bias C) stereotype threat D) false consensus effect
34) Although Jeff frequently exceeds the speed limit by at least 10 mph, he justifies his behavior by erroneously thinking that most other drivers do the same. This belief best illustrates
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A) the false consensus effect. B) the self-serving bias. C) deindividuation. D) social loafing.
35) Hana does not approve of the death penalty. She is shocked when she finds out that more than 50 percent of the people in her state are in favor of it. This is an example of A) the self-fulfilling prophecy. B) cognitive dissonance. C) the false consensus effect. D) groupthink.
36) ________ refers to the tendency to take credit for one's own successes and to deny responsibility for one's own failures. A) Positive illusion B) Learned helplessness C) Self-serving bias D) Stereotyping
37) When Claudia gets an A on her psychology exam, she believes that it is because she is an intelligent, hard-working student. However, when she receives a C on the exam, she blames the instructor's ineffective teaching style and poor choice of test questions for her poor performance. Claudia's behavior is an example of
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A) learned helplessness. B) the self-serving bias. C) the false uniqueness effect. D) the false consensus effect.
38)
Which of the following statements is true of social comparison?
A) When engaging in social comparison, people try to act like others and lose their true identity. B) Social comparison helps identify the distinctive characteristics of a person and aids in building an identity. C) Social comparison eliminates the ill effects of stereotype threats. D) Social comparison is an individual's fast-acting, self-fulfilling fear of being judged based on a negative stereotype about their group.
39)
________ are favorable views of the self that are not necessarily rooted in reality. A) Fundamental attribution errors B) Self-serving biases C) Self-deceptions D) Positive illusions
40) Despite evidence to the contrary, Denise thinks she is smarter than most of the people in her class. Denise's unfounded attitude about herself is an example of a(n) A) positive illusion. B) hallucination. C) reactive illusion. D) ideal self.
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41) The process by which individuals evaluate their thoughts, feelings, behaviors, and abilities in relation to others is known as A) peer review. B) peripheral attribution. C) social comparison. D) peer recognition.
42) "Am I as popular as Alejandra?" This question is an example of gaining self-knowledge through the process of A) peer review. B) peripheral evaluation. C) peer recognition. D) social comparison.
43)
Festinger's social comparison theory A) provides an important rationale for how individuals come to know themselves. B) identifies two ways to persuade, a central route and a peripheral route. C) examines potentially altruistic behavior. D) suggests that aspects of the environment may prime us to behave aggressively.
44) An individual's opinions and beliefs about other people, objects, and ideas, and how the individual feels about the world refers to
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A) attributions. B) traits. C) attitudes. D) skills.
45) Attitudes only sometimes predict behavior. Under which of the following conditions are attitudes LEAST likely to guide behavior? A) when a person will not be personally affected B) when a person's attitudes are strong C) when a person is aware of their attitudes and rehearses and practices them D) when a person has a vested interest
46)
________ is the psychological discomfort caused by two inconsistent thoughts. A) Consensual validation B) Cognitive dissonance C) Risky shift D) Deindividuation
47) Daphne feels uneasy when she notices an inconsistency between what she believes and what she does. This best illustrates A) the false consensus effect. B) the fundamental attribution error. C) social comparison. D) cognitive dissonance.
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48) Filip works extremely hard to get a job at LawCorp, a prestigious law firm. He feels that because it is tough to get hired by LawCorp, the firm must be worth it. In the context of cognitive dissonance theory, the scenario best exemplifies A) effort justification. B) positive illusion. C) self-serving bias. D) normative social influence.
49) Mateo hates his job as a cashier at a fast-food restaurant because he does not make enough money and it is really hard work. When his friend Sadie comes in to ask for an application, Matteo encourages her to apply and tells her that it is a great job. He tells himself that if Sadie worked there maybe it wouldn't be so bad. In this scenario, Mateo's attitude supports A) cognitive dissonance theory. B) self-perception theory. C) the false consensus effect. D) the fundamental attribution error.
50) ________ refers to rationalizing the amount of work we put into getting something by increasing its value. A) Conceptual validation B) Effort justification C) Informational social influence D) Self-perception
51) According to the self-perception theory of attitudes, what do individuals do to make inferences about their attitudes?
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A) They compare themselves to others. B) They assess their emotions. C) They ask a friend. D) They perceive their behavior.
52)
________ theory is Daryl Bem's take on how behaviors influence attitudes. A) Self-perception B) Social identity C) Self-serving D) Social comparison
53)
According to the self-perception theory, A) social comparisons aid in identity building. B) inconsistent thoughts cause psychological discomfort. C) attitudes influence behavior. D) behaviors can cause attitudes.
54) Andrea works as a customer care executive and resolves approximately 30 to 40 customer complaints in a day. She comes to realize that she spends most of her time thinking about how much she dislikes her job. She eventually concludes that she does not like her job. In this scenario, Andrea's attitude supports A) attribution theory. B) social exchange theory. C) self-perception theory. D) cognitive dissonance theory.
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55)
In the elaboration likelihood model of persuasion, the central route A) is effective when people lack the time or energy to think about the message. B) is more persuasive when people have the ability and the motivation to pay attention. C) involves factors such as the source's attractiveness or the emotional power of an
appeal. D) is usually used by television advertisers to persuade the viewers into buying their products.
56)
In the context of persuasion strategies, the door-in-the-face technique involves
A) making a small request at the beginning. B) relying on the notion that the persuader has formed a relationship with the person being persuaded. C) making the biggest request at the beginning followed by the smaller request. D) ensuring that the person being persuaded does not experience cognitive dissonance.
57)
The elaboration likelihood model
A) views people as motivated to discover the underlying causes of behavior in order to make sense of the behavior. B) explains the effects of deindividuation. C) refers to the processes by which we use social stimuli to form impressions of others. D) identifies two ways to persuade: a central route and a peripheral route.
58) Jing is at a workshop where a presenter is trying to persuade people to make a rather risky but potentially profitable financial investment. The arguments for investing appeal to logic and reasoning. After slowly and carefully considering the presenter's arguments, Jing finds that this person's idea sounds compelling and decides to invest. This example best demonstrates the Version 1
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A) peripheral route to persuasion. B) norm of reciprocity. C) central route to persuasion. D) foot-in-the-door technique.
59)
In the context of the techniques of persuasion, the peripheral route A) works by engaging the audience thoughtfully with a sound, logical argument. B) involves factors such as the attractiveness of the person giving the message. C) is primarily effective when people are paying close attention to the message. D) is persuasive when people have the time and energy to think about the message.
60) According to ________, people who have first agreed to a small request tend to comply later with a larger request. A) the foot-in-the-door technique B) the door-in-the-face-technique C) the bystander effect D) the social facilitation effect
61) When students are warned that they are going to be hit with persuasive appeals and are given arguments to help them resist these pitches, they are able to do so. In the context of persuasion, this best describes A) prejudice. B) empathy. C) inoculation. D) obedience.
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62) The campaigning committee for a politician is going door to door and asking people to display a big, ugly election sign on their lawn. If people refuse, the committee asks them if they would consider putting a smaller sign on the lawn. The committee is using A) the foot-in-the-door technique. B) the door-in-the-face technique. C) the elaboration likelihood model. D) a negative appeal.
63) ________ means helping another person for personal gain, such as to feel good, or avoid guilt. A) Egoism B) Altruism C) Ethnocentrism D) Utilitarianism
64) Amelia is known for helping her family members and friends with the ultimate goal of benefiting them, even if it incurs a cost to herself. In this scenario, Amelia's behavior best illustrates A) altruism. B) egoism. C) reciprocity. D) obedience.
65) Usman usually runs errands for his neighbors. He also helps his colleagues with their work. His sole intention of helping others is to increase the chances that they will return his favor. In this scenario, Usman's behavior best illustrates Version 1
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A) altruism. B) self-actualization. C) reciprocity. D) self-regulation.
66) One way that evolutionary psychologists explain altruism is through "costly signaling theory," which posits that we sometimes engage in behavior with high personal costs in order to A) communicate honest information about ourselves to others. B) ensure that the favor will someday be returned. C) extract a positive payoff by attracting mates. D) exhibit morality.
67) Luke usually puts himself in another person's shoes and feels what the other person is feeling. In this scenario, Luke's behavior best illustrates A) reciprocity. B) extraversion. C) empathy. D) resilience.
68)
Which of the following is true of agreeableness in the context of prosocial behavior? A) It has no association with brain structures. B) It is the personality trait that is least associated with prosocial behavior. C) It is related to greater volume in the brain area associated with empathy. D) It is most strongly associated with neuroticism.
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69) Laboratory experiments show that, compared to more wealthy individuals, those from poorer backgrounds are A) less likely to donate privately. B) more likely to engage in public giving. C) less likely to help people who are in need. D) more likely to be attuned to the suffering of others.
70) In the context of sociocultural factors predicting prosocial behavior, research by Eagly and Crowley (1986) noted that men are more likely than women to A) experience an immediate impulse to behave prosocially toward a person in need. B) help in situations in which a perceived danger is present. C) avoid helping in situations in which competence plays a major role. D) help in situations that involve existing interpersonal relationships.
71)
Deficits in the functioning of the ________ are associated with aggression. A) hippocampus B) hypothalamus C) parietal lobes of the brain D) frontal lobes of the brain
72)
The hormone that is typically implicated in aggressive behavior is
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A) estrogen. B) testosterone. C) epinephrine. D) norepinephrine.
73) A nine-year-old boy loves watching wrestling on TV. Last night, he used several of the aggressive wrestling moves on his little brother. Which of the following theories best explains his behavior? A) observational learning B) frustration-aggression theory C) identity crisis D) cognitive dissonance
74) In the context of the psychological influences on aggression, the frustration-aggression hypothesis states that A) low levels of neuroticism are associated with aggression. B) the blocking of an individual's attempts to reach a goal triggers aggression. C) individuals who are high on hostility and irritability are unlikely to behave aggressively when not provoked. D) individuals who feel callous and cold toward others are less likely to engage in aggression.
75) According to research on aggressive behavior, which of the following personality factors is mostly associated with aggression?
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A) low levels of hostility B) low levels of irritability C) low levels of neuroticism D) low levels of conscientiousness
76)
The tendency for the presence of firearms to enhance aggression is known as A) overt aggression. B) relational aggression. C) the weapons effect. D) the Flynn effect.
77)
Which of the following refers to physically or verbally harming another person directly? A) overt aggression B) relational aggression C) the weapons effect D) the Flynn effect
78)
A person who slaps their partner during an argument is most likely exhibiting A) relational aggression. B) subtle aggression. C) overt aggression. D) covert aggression.
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79) Behavior that is meant to harm the social standing of another person through activities such as gossiping and spreading rumors is known as A) relational aggression. B) institutional aggression. C) overt aggression. D) physical aggression.
80) Susan drives by an unusually colorful apartment building each day on her way to work. Initially, she does not think highly of the structure and has a mild dislike for it. However, after several months of commuting, she starts to like the apartment building and even considers renting an apartment there. This change in Susan's feelings about the building best demonstrates A) the comparison effect. B) normative social influence. C) the mere exposure effect. D) informational social influence.
81) Xavier has left his home and is attending college in a city that is far away from home where he does not know anybody. According to the mere exposure effect, Xavier will be most likely to make friends with A) Maksim, his roommate. B) Kiran, who lives across the campus. C) Wen, who lives in the same dorm but two floors below Xavier. D) Stuart, who lives in the adjacent room.
82) The phenomenon that the more individuals encounter someone or something, the more probable it is that they will start liking the person or thing even if they do not realize they have seen it before is known as the
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A) mere exposure effect. B) Flynn effect. C) uncanny valley. D) false consensus effect.
83)
You would be LEAST attracted to someone with whom you are A) opposite. B) similar. C) proximate. D) acquainted.
84)
From an evolutionary perspective, the goal of a romantic relationship is A) to produce children. B) companionship. C) to demonstrate dominance. D) commitment.
85)
According to the evolutionary perspective, women are attracted to mates who A) will invest in their offspring. B) offer youth and ruggedness. C) are warm and trustworthy. D) agree to an equitable relationship.
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86) According to contemporary relationship research, which of the following statements about mate selection is true? A) Both genders are interested in finding partners who are warm and trustworthy. B) Men prefer mates with economic resources. C) The way both people feel at the beginning of relationship is paramount to a healthy long-lasting relationship. D) Women prefer partners who are younger than them and good looking.
87) ________ involves strong components of sexuality and infatuation, and it often predominates in the early part of a love relationship. A) Romantic love B) Affectionate love C) The mere exposure effect D) Companionate love
88) Which of the following most likely occurs when an individual has a deep, caring affection for another person and desires to have that person near? A) romantic love B) affectionate love C) altruism D) reciprocity
89) Social psychologists believe that ________ is particularly strong during the early stages of a relationship, and that ________ increases as the relationship grows and matures.
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A) affectionate love; romantic love B) romantic love; affectionate love C) consensual validation; romantic love D) consensual validation; passionate love
90) From the perspective of social exchange theory, the most important predictor of relationship success is A) equity. B) self-esteem. C) sexual drive. D) personal control.
91) According to ________, social relationships involve an exchange of goods, the objective of which is to minimize costs and maximize benefits. A) psychological exchange theory B) social exchange theory C) the concept of social contagion D) the elaboration likelihood model
92) According to ________, the most important predictor of relationship success is having both partners feel that each is doing their "fair share." A) social identity theory B) social exchange theory C) the investment model D) the evolutionary approach
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93)
Equity is a strong predictor of relationship satisfaction A) among men but not among women. B) among women but not among men. C) during both the early and the later stages of a relationship. D) more in the early and less in the later stages of a relationship.
94) From the perspective of the investment model, long-term relationships are most likely to continue when A) one person is more committed to the relationship than the other person. B) both people have invested less in the relationship. C) there are few tempting alternatives for the partners. D) one person has invested more in the relationship than the other person.
95) Which of the following essentially examines the ways that commitment, investment, and the availability of attractive alternative partners predict satisfaction and stability in relationships? A) the investment model B) the triangular model C) the stages of change model D) the five-factor model of personality
96) Dave is a handsome and famous celebrity. He has been dating Gabriela, a beautiful and popular actress, for the past two months, but he doesn't feel strongly committed to their relationship. Recently, Dave has been working on a new movie and several women have expressed their interest in getting to know him better. Dave is now contemplating whether he should stay with Gabriela or explore the more tempting alternatives. According to the investment model, what will Dave probably do next? Version 1
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A) He will ask Gabriela to marry him. B) He will ask Gabriela to move in with him. C) He will stay with Gabriela for at least another year so that he can give their relationship a second chance. D) He will break up with Gabriela and give in to the temptation of dating other women.
97) The volunteer participants in Solomon Asch's experiment on conformity conformed to group pressure to select the incorrect answer approximately ________ percent of the time. A) 60 B) 10 C) 35 D) 90
98)
Which of the following defines conformity? A) a change in a person's behavior to coincide more closely with a group standard B) behavior that resists the explicit demands of an individual in authority C) the ability of a person to overcome a social influence D) unselfish interest in helping another person
99)
In the context of social influence, Solomon Asch's experiment demonstrates A) conformity. B) obedience. C) reactance. D) altruism.
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100) In the context of the psychological factors in conformity, which of the following best describes informational social influence? A) It refers to the influence people have on an individual because the individual wants to be right. B) It refers to how people resist authority when they feel their authority is being threatened. C) It refers to the influence people have on an individual because the individual wants to be liked by them. D) It refers to the focused interest that some individuals have in influencing others.
101) Fatemeh is a member of the VNoItAll group in college. She usually follows her group unconditionally because she wants to be right, and she believes that the other members of her group are likely to know something that she does not. In this scenario, Fatemeh's behavior best exemplifies A) romantic love. B) normative social influence. C) companionate love. D) informational social influence.
102) Rosalie was invited to a black-tie dinner at the Ritz Carlton. She's never been served a 10-course meal before, so she's unfamiliar with the social etiquette regarding silverware selection. Since Rosalie is in an unfamiliar environment, she gets through the night by watching others who appear to know what they are doing. For each course, she follows their selection of silverware. Rosalie is guided by
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A) normative social influence. B) informational social influence. C) group polarization. D) the bystander effect.
103) Conor, a high schooler, enrolls in a new school. He tries to participate in the same activities as the other students in his class. He does not enjoy most of these activities, but his sole intention is to impress them so that they start liking him. In this scenario, Conor's behavior best exemplifies A) informational social influence. B) normative social influence. C) the bystander effect. D) the Flynn effect.
104) Milgram's studies are a classic series of experiments by Stanley Milgram that demonstrated the profound power of A) altruism. B) persuasion. C) obedience. D) attraction.
105) The factor that differentiates Jerry Burger's recreated Milgram's study from the original Milgram's experiment is that, in Burger's study
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A) participants could see everyone else being obedient to authority. B) the authority figure was perceived to be legitimate. C) the authority figure was far away as opposed to being nearby. D) participants were never allowed to go higher than 150 volts.
106) The reduction in personal identity and erosion of the sense of personal responsibility when one is part of a group is known as A) social contagion. B) the self-serving bias. C) the false consensus effect. D) deindividuation.
107) The mayhem on the streets of Boston after the Red Sox won the World Series is an example of A) deindividuation. B) the self-serving bias. C) the false consensus effect. D) social loafing.
108) June, who is usually very quiet, recently discovered a different side of herself. During Mardi Gras, she found herself swept up in the festivities, doing the things that the other partygoers were doing. These were not behaviors that she would have ever considered engaging in on her own. Social psychologists would most likely attribute June's behavior to
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A) inoculation. B) social loafing. C) deindividuation. D) the bystander effect.
109)
One explanation for the effects of deindividuation in groups is that groups A) make people highly inhibited. B) reduce the diffusion of responsibility. C) give people anonymity. D) increase personal identity.
110) The effects of others on our behavior can take the form of ________, imitative behavior involving the spread of behavior, emotions, and ideas. A) egoism B) altruism C) social contagion D) social loafing
111) Chloe's 3-year-old son, Roman, is very excited about his first day at playschool. He leaves home in a happy mood and enjoys the 20-minute drive to school. At the school, he starts crying when he sees all the other children around him crying. This scenario best illustrates A) self-actualization. B) affectionate love. C) self-regulation. D) social contagion.
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112)
According to the social facilitation effect, the presence of others is likely to A) enhance performance on all types of tasks. B) improve performance on new tasks. C) reduce performance on difficult tasks. D) have little or no effect on performance.
113)
Psychologists believe that the social facilitation effect occurs because
A) the presence of other individuals arouses us. B) we are more relaxed in group situations than when we are alone. C) we feel more deindividuated when we are alone than when we are in a group. D) of a genetic predisposition toward heightened performance for new tasks in group settings.
114) Which of the following is most likely to occur when an individual's performance improves because of the presence of others? A) deindividuation B) companionate love C) social facilitation D) overt aggression
115) Which of the following refers to each person's tendency to exert less effort in a group because of reduced accountability for individual effort?
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A) social loafing B) social facilitation C) deindividuation D) reciprocity
116) Dr. McCall found that class projects were of poorer quality when students worked in groups compared to when each student did an individual project. This difference is best explained by the phenomenon of A) cognitive dissonance. B) social loafing. C) the sleeper effect. D) polarization.
117) The tendency for a group decision to be riskier than the average decision made by the individual group members is known as A) risk hedging. B) social loafing. C) risky shift. D) group polarization.
118)
Which of the following statements is true of the concept of risky shift?
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A) It is the tendency to shift to a group that makes less risky decisions. B) It is the tendency for individuals to more willingly endorse riskier decisions when in a group than when they are alone. C) It refers to a person's risk of losing their personal identity when they become a part of a group. D) It refers to each person's tendency to exert less effort in a group because of reduced accountability for individual effort.
119) The solidification and further strengthening of an individual's position as a consequence of a collective discussion or interaction is known as the A) mere exposure effect. B) false consensus effect. C) group polarization effect. D) bystander effect.
120)
In the context of group decision making, groupthink can be prevented by A) selecting an impartial leader. B) encouraging group conformity. C) isolating the dissenters of the group. D) excluding outside experts in group discussions.
121) In the context of group decision making, which of the following is a symptom of groupthink?
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A) willingness to hear all sides of an argument B) underestimation of the power of a group C) preference for accuracy over conformity D) pressure for unanimity
122) Trinity, who is moderately liberal, attends a very liberal college. After four years at this college, Trinity is likely to become more liberal as a result of A) the fundamental attribution error. B) cognitive dissonance. C) group polarization. D) social loafing.
123) ________ refers to the impaired decision making that occurs in a team when making the right decision is less important than maintaining group harmony. A) Group polarization B) Minority influence C) Risky shift D) Groupthink
124)
Which of the following is true of majority and minority influence in a group? A) The majority influences group decision making only through informational influence. B) The majority influences group decision making only through normative influence. C) The minority in a group cannot win through informational pressure. D) The minority in a group cannot win through normative pressure.
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125) ________ refers to the way individuals define themselves in terms of their group membership. A) Social identity B) Ethnocentrism C) Crowdsourcing D) Groupthink
126) Which of the following theories states that the way individuals define themselves in terms of their group membership is a crucial part of their self-image and a valuable source of positive feelings about themselves? A) social exchange theory B) social identity theory C) cognitive dissonance theory D) self-perception theory
127) Rob and Deandra are members of a football team. Their self-esteem is greatly affected by their team's performance. They tend to compare their team with their opponent team in order to improve their self-image. Which of the following theories best explains this scenario? A) the social identity theory B) the realistic conflict theory C) the social exchange theory D) the self-perception theory
128) To feel good about themselves, Tiana and Said need to feel good about the groups to which they belong. To improve their self-image, they continually compare their in-groups, the group to which they belong, with out-groups. This example best describes Version 1
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A) social identity theory. B) social exchange theory. C) positive influences. D) the group polarization effect.
129)
The tendency to favor one's own cultural group over other groups is called A) social identity. B) ethnocentrism. C) deindividuation. D) groupthink.
130) ________ is an unjustified negative attitude toward an individual based on the individual's membership in a particular group. A) Ethnocentrism B) Prejudice C) Discrimination D) Stereotype threat
131) Simone gets a new job and relocates to the country of Bodonia. She realizes that almost all her colleagues are from Bodonia and have been working in the company for years. At her workplace, she experiences an unjustified negative attitude toward herself. In this scenario, the attitude of Simone's colleagues best illustrates A) altruism. B) prejudice. C) reciprocity. D) egoism.
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132) Bias that is "baked in" to decision making by processes that may have been set in motion generations before is referred to as A) systemic racism. B) overt racism. C) ethnocentrism. D) microaggression.
133) Andrew openly criticizes the Asian Americans in his neighborhood. He says that the presence of these "outsiders" has led to an increase in the crime rate in the United States. Others in his neighborhood do not agree with him. His openly shared racist attitude is an example of A) institutional racism. B) covert racism. C) implicit racism. D) explicit racism.
134)
Unlike implicit racism, explicit racism A) is measured using the Implicit Associations Test (IAT). B) is a person's conscious and openly shared attitude. C) is thought to predict more spontaneous and less self-conscious actions. D) refers to attitudes that exist on a deep, hidden level.
135) Which of the following is a factor that may underlie the development of prejudice in someone?
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A) the use of stereotypes to compensate for limits on information processing abilities B) a sense of shame of one's in-group C) genetic predispositions D) the opportunity to have met many different types of people in one's life
136) Microaggressions are ______ and ______ acts that communicate bias to members of marginalized groups A) everyday; subtle B) intentional; overt C) misconstrued; unbiased D) rare; physically harmful
137) Which of the following refers to an unjustified negative or harmful action toward a member of a group simply because the person belongs to that group? A) social loafing B) deindividuation C) discrimination D) priming
138) An important feature of optimal intergroup contact that involves working together on a shared goal is known as A) the mere exposure effect. B) effort justification. C) in-group favoritism. D) task-oriented cooperation.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 11_5e_King 1) Social Cognition 2) Social Cognition 3) Social Behavior 4) Social Behavior 6) Close Relationships 7) Close Relationships 8) Social Influence and Group Processes 9) Social Influence and Group Processes 10) Social Influence and Group Processes 11) Social Influence and Group Processes 12) D 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) B 17) D 18) A 19) A 20) C 21) A 22) A Version 1
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23) B 24) A 25) D 26) A 27) A 28) A 29) A 30) B 31) B 32) B 33) D 34) A 35) C 36) C 37) B 38) B 39) D 40) A 41) C 42) D 43) A 44) C 45) A 46) B 47) D 48) A 49) A 50) B 51) D 52) A Version 1
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53) D 54) C 55) B 56) C 57) D 58) C 59) B 60) A 61) C 62) B 63) A 64) A 65) C 66) A 67) C 68) C 69) D 70) B 71) D 72) B 73) A 74) B 75) D 76) C 77) A 78) C 79) A 80) C 81) A 82) A Version 1
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83) A 84) A 85) A 86) A 87) A 88) B 89) B 90) A 91) B 92) B 93) D 94) C 95) A 96) D 97) C 98) A 99) A 100) A 101) D 102) B 103) B 104) C 105) D 106) D 107) A 108) C 109) C 110) C 111) D 112) C Version 1
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113) A 114) C 115) A 116) B 117) C 118) B 119) C 120) A 121) D 122) C 123) D 124) D 125) A 126) B 127) A 128) A 129) B 130) B 131) B 132) A 133) D 134) B 135) A 136) A 137) C 138) D
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CHAPTER 12 1) Describe the three criteria that help psychologists distinguish normal behavior from abnormal behavior with suitable examples for each.
2) Imagine a hypothetical person who is experiencing depression and goes to visit four therapists, each of whom practices a different theoretical approach (i.e., biological, psychological, sociocultural, and biopsychosocial). Give an example of how each therapist would explain the etiology of their depression.
3)
What do psychologists believe is the etiology of generalized anxiety disorder?
4)
List the symptoms of major depressive disorder.
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5)
Describe the characteristics of anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa.
6)
Differentiate between dissociative amnesia and dissociative identity disorder.
7) Describe and give examples of the positive and negative symptoms associated with schizophrenia.
8)
What is antisocial personality disorder (ASPD).
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9)
Briefly explain borderline personality disorder (BPD).
10)
Explain the biological and psychological factors contributing to suicide.
11) Which of the following is one of the criteria that distinguish abnormal behavior from normal or typical behavior? A) behavior that is deviant B) behavior that is adaptive C) behavior that is consistent D) behavior that is personally conventional
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12) Thirty-year-old Armand feels compelled to save objects that others might throw away. He is afraid that he will discard something he will need later, so his home is filled with old junk. Armand's neighbors have complained about this, and he feels embarrassed. Which criteria that define abnormality is applicable in this case? A) Armand's behavior deviates from what is acceptable in a culture and is distressing for him. B) Armand's behavior has drawn the attention of other people. C) Armand's behavior suggests that he is schizophrenic. D) Saving junk suggests that Armand is paranoid.
13) ________ is behavior that is deviant, maladaptive, or personally distressful over a relatively long period of time. A) Abnormal behavior B) Normal behavior C) Customary behavior D) Conventional behavior
14) With respect to the three characteristics of abnormal behavior, when a behavior interferes with a person's ability to function effectively in the world, it is considered A) unique. B) dependent. C) maladaptive. D) repetitive.
15)
Abnormal behavior is
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A) not related to organic or internal causes. B) often learned through operant conditioning. C) a direct outcome of poor self-esteem. D) personally distressful over a long period of time.
16) In the context of abnormal behavior, which of the following is true of the significance of culture? A) Culture establishes the norms by which people evaluate their own and oth-ers' behaviors. B) Culture is usually insignificant with regard to defining what it means to be normal or abnormal. C) Culture matters in simple ways in evaluat-ing behavior as normal or abnormal. D) Cultural norms are unlikely to be mistaken when they provide guidance about how people should behave.
17) Jenna constantly experiences feelings of hopelessness and worthlessness. Jenna's doctor, Hassan, advises her to start taking antidepressant drugs that contain serotonin and dopamine. According to Dr. Hassan's diagnosis, Jenna's depression is a result of the imbalance and improper functioning of the neurotransmitters in her brain. In the context of the theoretical approaches to psychological disorders, this diagnosis conforms to the A) sociocultural approach. B) biological approach. C) psychological approach. D) social cognitive approach.
18) The ________ approach to psychological disorders primarily focuses on the brain, genetic factors, and neurotransmitter functioning as the sources of abnormality.
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A) psychological B) sociocultural C) biological D) evolutionary
19) In the context of the theoretical approaches to psychological disorders, the ________ attributes psycho-logical disorders to organic, internal causes. A) biological approach B) psychological approach C) sociocultural approach D) biopsychosocial approach
20) In the context of the theoretical approaches to psychological disorders, the ________ describes psychological disorders as diseases with a biological origin. A) medical model B) psychological approach C) sociocultural approach D) psychosocial model
21)
The ________ approach is evident in the medical model. A) biological B) psychological C) sociocultural D) cognitive
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22) Which theoretical approach emphasizes the contributions of experiences, thoughts, emotions, and personality characteristics in explaining psychological disorders? A) the sociocultural approach B) the psychological approach C) the humanistic approach D) the biological approach
23) Harry, a behavioral psychologist, is in the process of analyzing his patient Maria Valentine's report. Maria has been diagnosed with dissociative identity disorder (DID). According to Harry, severe physical abuse in childhood could serve as a plausible explanation for Maria's psychological disorder. Maria forms alternate identities in order to shut out past memories and to cope with the trauma. In the context of the theoretical approaches to psychological disorders, it can be inferred that Harry's explanation of Maria's condition conforms to the ________ to psychological disorders. A) psychological approach B) biological approach C) biosocial approach D) sociocultural approach
24) Marilyn is depressed a great deal of the time and seeks help from a doctor. She is diagnosed as having a mental illness caused by a chemical imbalance. Marilyn is most likely being treated by a person who adheres to the ________ of psychological disorders. A) medical model B) behavioral model C) psychoanalytic model D) cognitive model
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25) In the context of the theoretical approaches to psychological disorders, which of the following statements is true of the sociocultural approach? A) It stresses the ways that culture influences the understanding and treatment of psychological disorders. B) It emphasizes biological processes such as genetics or brain structures and functions. C) It primarily focuses on the brain, genetic factors, and neurotransmitter functioning as the sources of abnormality. D) It emphasizes the contributions of experiences, thoughts, emotions, and personality characteristics in explaining psychological disorders.
26) When treating a client with a psychological disorder, a therapist makes the assumption that the person's difficulties stem primarily from the context in which a person lives. This therapist most likely identifies with the ________ to psychological disorders. A) biological approach B) psychological approach C) sociocultural approach D) cognitive approach
27) Samir has been diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder (ASPD). Samir's counselor, Lucia, believes that Samir's poor relationship with his alcoholic stepfather is a factor that contributed to Samir's psychological disorder. Which of the following theoretical approaches to psychological disorders conforms to Lucia's beliefs in this scenario? A) biological approach B) anthropological approach C) sociocultural approach D) cognitive approach
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28) Which of the following theoretical approaches to psychological disorders would be most likely to consider a person's gender and ethnicity when diagnosing a disorder? A) the sociocultural approach B) the behavioral approach C) the biological approach D) the cognitive approach
29) In the context of the theoretical approaches to psychological disorders, which of the following statements is true of the biopsychosocial model? A) According to the biopsychosocial model, biological, sociocultural, and psychological factors are independent of one another and operate distinctly in producing abnormal behavior. B) The biopsychosocial model states that biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors are all equally significant ingredients in producing both normal and abnormal behavior. C) According to the biopsychosocial perspective, a specific gene or a particular experience will inevitably lead to the development of a psychological disorder. D) The biopsychosocial model gives more importance to biological factors over psychological and sociocultural factors in producing normal and abnormal behavior.
30) The ________ is a theory suggesting that preexisting conditions, such as genetic characteristics, personality dispositions, or experiences, may put a person at risk of developing a psychological disorder. A) medical model B) diathesis-stress model C) five-factor model D) Elaboration Likelihood Model
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31) Which of the following statements about the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5), 5th ed. is true? A) It is the only diagnostic system. B) It relies on procedural norms and objective judgments. C) It includes new diagnoses such as gambling addiction. D) It was devised by the World Health Organization.
32) 5)?
Identify a criticism of theDiagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-
A) It classifies individuals on the basis of five dimensions or axes. B) It lays strong emphasis on a person's strengths and weaknesses to destigmatize psychological disorders. C) It strongly focuses on the medical model and neglects factors such as poverty and trauma. D) It does not rely on social norms and subjective judgments.
33) In the context of classifying abnormal behavior, which of the following is a criticism of theDiagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5)? A) It treats psychological disorders as if they are medical illnesses. B) It takes an overly sociological view of disorders that have their roots in biology. C) It neglects the medical model when approaching psychological disorders. D) It places minimal emphasis on social norms and subjective judgments.
34) The ________ was published in 1952 by the American Psychiatric Association for the major classification of psychological disorders in the United States.
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A) Psychodynamic Diagnostic Manual (PDM) B) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) C) International Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems (ICD-10) D) Latin American Guide for Psychiatric Diagnosis (GLDP)
35) Mathew is a critic of theDiagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM). Which of the following statements will be agreed upon by Mathew? A) It takes an overly biological view of disorders that may have their roots in social experience. B) It avoids relying on social norms and subjective judgments. C) It reflects the sociocultural approach, emphasizing factors such as poverty, unemployment, and trauma. D) It focuses on destigmatizing psychological disorders and fails to highlight the problems associated with them.
36) ________ are defined as noticeable bodily changes that either are very distressing or interfere with a person's functioning along with excessive thoughts, feelings, and behaviors about those bodily changes. A) Somatic symptom and related disorders B) Social anxiety disorders C) Autism spectrum disorders D) Dissociative disorders
37) Which of the following refers to the simultaneous presence of two or more disorders in one person?
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A) comorbidity B) mutation C) specificity D) generality
38) In the context of psychological disorders, which of the following statements is true of risk factors? A) They are characteristics, experiences, or exposures that increase the likelihood of a person developing a disorder. B) They are unassociated with the development of a disorder. C) The correlation of a risk factor with the development of a disorder implies causation. D) A person with a risk factor for a disorder necessarily develops the disorder.
39) ________ refers to a nonmedical process that helps individuals with psychological disorders recognize and overcome their problems. A) Psychotherapy B) Physiotherapy C) Psychic reading D) Homeopathy
40)
Which of the following is a key feature of autism spectrum disorder (ASD)?
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A) People with ASD show persistent deficits in social communication and social interaction across a variety of settings. B) People with ASD show irrational and overwhelming fear of a particular object or situation. C) People with ASD show extreme disturbances in eating behavior. D) People with ASD show persistent problems in sustaining attention and difficulty engaging in quiet activities for a prolonged period.
41) Which of the following is true of the cognitive approach to autism spectrum disorder (ASD)? A) It emphasizes deficits in theory of mind. B) It suggests that people with ASD are pro-foundly less interested in social stimuli compared to typically developing people. C) It focuses on the fact that sensory experiences are processed differently. D) It suggests that people with ASD have problems organizing and integrating their sensory experi-ences.
42) Which of the following is true of the social motivation approach to autism spectrum disorder (ASD)? A) It suggests that people with ASD are profoundly less interested in social stimuli compared to typically developing people. B) It emphasizes deficits in theory of mind, which refers to people's understanding that other people have subjective experiences that may differ from their own. C) It focuses on the fact that people with ASD process sensory experiences differently from others. D) It suggests that children with ASD are similar to typically developing children in being attentive to faces and to the gaze of others during social interactions.
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43) Which of the following is true of the sensory processing approach to autism spectrum disorder (ASD)? A) It focuses on the fact that people with ASD process sensory experiences differently from others. B) It suggests that people with ASD are more likely to organize their sensory experi-ences than others. C) It suggests that people with ASD are profoundly less interested in social stimuli compared to typically developing people. D) It emphasizes deficits in theory of mind, which refers to people's understanding that other people have subjective experiences that may differ from their own.
44) Three of the following are risk factors for autism spectrum disorder (ASD). Which of the following factors does NOT pose a risk for the development of ASD? A) vaccines B) preterm birth C) older parental age D) male sex
45)
Autism spectrum disorder appears to be etiologically diverse, which means A) its underlying causes may vary from person to person. B) it likely comes from exposure to two different teratogens. C) it is caused by multiple genes. D) it is impossible to pinpoint any risk factors for its development.
46)
________ refers to the use of operant conditioning principles to change human behavior.
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A) Applied behavior analysis B) Psychic reading C) Etiological analysis D) Behavioral change technology
47) ________ is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by persistent problems in sustaining attention and difficulty engaging in quiet activities for a prolonged period. A) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) B) Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) C) Somatic symptom disorder D) Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
48) Which of the following is one of the three main symptoms of attentiondeficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? A) impulsivity B) hypersensitivity C) irritability D) diligence
49) ________ is a psychological disorder, commonly diagnosed in childhood, in which an individual exhibits one or more of the following symptoms: inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. A) Borderline personality disorder B) Autism spectrum disorder C) Major depressive disorder D) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
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50) Robert's teacher, Martha, has complained about his behavior on several occasions. According to Martha, Robert cannot focus in class and is constantly distracted. She also mentioned that Robert is extremely active and very impulsive by nature. If Robert were to be taken by his teacher to Dr. Durdag, a psychiatrist, he is likely to be diagnosed with A) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. B) borderline personality disorder. C) autism spectrum disorder. D) mild neurocognitive impairment.
51) Yan is worried about her son, Jie. She finds him restless and impulsive. At times, Yan finds it exhausting to handle him because he is high-strung and shows very little concentration during his studies. She has also received several complaints from Jie's teachers regarding his poor performance in class and his lack of focus. In the context of psychological disorders, it can be inferred that Jie is exhibiting the symptoms of A) obsessive-compulsive disorder. B) mild neurocognitive impairment. C) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. D) schizophrenia.
52) Which of the following is true of the delayed maturation hypothesis about the origins of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
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A) It says that individuals with ADHD have brains that develop more slowly than typically developing individuals. B) It says that ADHD is associated with increased cortical thickness. C) It states that individuals with ADHD have more connections between the prefrontal cortex and other brain regions than typically developing individuals. D) It differs from the cognitive approaches to ADHD that emphasize problems in executive function as being the root cause of problems in the lives of those with ADHD.
53)
The medications that are used to treat ADHD are classified as A) stimulants. B) depressants. C) hallucinogens. D) steroids.
54) ________ are disabling, uncontrollable, and disruptive psychological disorders that feature motor tension, hyperactivity, and apprehensive expectations and thoughts. A) Anxiety disorders B) Somatic symptom and related disorders C) Body dysmorphic disorders D) Factitious disorders
55) A person who regularly experiences motor tension, hyperactivity, and apprehensive expectations and thoughts is likely to suffer from a(n)
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A) mood disorder. B) anxiety disorder. C) personality disorder. D) dissociative disorder.
56)
All of the following are classified as anxiety disorders, EXCEPT A) specific phobia. B) panic disorder. C) depression. D) social phobia.
57)
An individual diagnosed with an anxiety disorder is most likely to experience A) episodes of unrealistic excitement and euphoria. B) hallucinations—that is, seeing or hearing things that are not there. C) motor tension, apprehensive expectations, and thoughts. D) recurrent thoughts of death and suicide.
58) A person who has been experiencing persistent anxiety for the past six months and is unable to specify the cause or source of their nervous feelings likely suffers from A) schizophrenia. B) post-traumatic stress disorder. C) a panic disorder. D) generalized anxiety disorder.
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59) A student has been experiencing persistent anxiety and constant nervousness for the last eight months. He has also been constantly worried about his relationships and health. When asked for the reason for his anxiety, he is unable to specify it. Which of the following anxiety disorders is best described in the scenario? A) generalized anxiety disorder B) panic disorder C) specific phobia D) social anxiety disorder
60)
Which of the following statements is true of generalized anxiety disorder?
A) A person suffering from generalized anxiety disorder experiences persistent anxiety for a maximum of one month. B) A person suffering from generalized anxiety disorder is nervous most of the time. C) Generalized anxiety disorder does not have any impact on the physical health of an individual. D) Generalized anxiety disorder is often caused due to an elevation in the levels of the neurotransmitter GABA.
61) Starr has been suffering from a disorder that is characterized by exaggerated and irrational worry that tends to interfere with her daily functioning. She can't sleep properly and often complains of stomach aches. In spite of being constantly nervous and restless she cannot seem to find the specific cause of her worry. These symptoms have lasted for almost six months now. Which of the following disorders is Starr most likely to be diagnosed with? A) social anxiety disorder B) generalized anxiety disorder C) obsessive-compulsive disorder D) bipolar disorder
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62) Tyree has been in a state of incessant worry for almost half a year now. He has trouble sleeping and breathing. Dr. Simons, a psychiatrist, asks Tyree detailed questions about his symptoms and medical history. Tyree tells Dr. Simons that he cannot stop worrying and is constantly nervous. Tyree also complains of muscular tension and stomach problems. After conducting a quick examination of Tyree's symptoms, Dr. Simons discovers that Tyree's incessant worry does not have a particular cause, and it has taken a physical toll on Tyree's health. Which of the following disorders is Dr. Simons most likely to diagnose Tyree with? A) generalized anxiety disorder B) schizophrenia C) bipolar disorder D) obsessive-compulsive disorder
63) Alex has been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder. Which of the following, if true, is most likely to have played a role in the development of his disorder? A) Alex has very sensitive and liberal parents. B) Alex is unambitious and has low self-standards. C) Alex has respiratory system abnormalities. D) Alex suffered a head injury as a child.
64) In a(n) ________, a person experiences recurrent, sudden onsets of intense terror, often without warning and with no specific cause. A) panic disorder B) generalized anxiety disorder C) phobic disorder D) obsessive-compulsive disorder
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65) While working in a factory, Rodrigo suddenly starts to feel terrified for no apparent reason. He starts to tremble and has severe palpitations. He feels helpless and fears that he is likely to die any moment. Which of the following types of anxiety disorders is most likely exhibited in this scenario? A) panic disorder B) generalized anxiety disorder C) social anxiety disorder D) specific phobia
66) You are having dinner with your friend who experiences a sudden onset of intense terror, without warning and with no specific cause. Your friend would most likely be diagnosed as suffering from A) obsessive-compulsive disorder. B) panic disorder. C) phobic disorder. D) generalized anxiety disorder.
67)
Which of the following statements is true of panic disorder?
A) The brain chemical, lactate, is deficient in individuals with panic disorder. B) In terms of biological factors, genetic predisposition is a likely cause of panic disorder. C) In terms of sociocultural factors in the United States, men are twice as likely as women to have panic attacks. D) Individuals who suffer from panic attacks are less likely to display overgeneralization of fear learning.
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68) Jerel has sudden attacks of intense fear in which he experiences palpitations. He feels dizzy, and he has trouble catching his breath. During these attacks, he worries that he is going to die. From this description, it sounds like Jerel has A) schizophrenia. B) obsessive-compulsive disorder. C) panic disorder. D) generalized anxiety disorder.
69) Dr. Jamar, a psychiatrist, is in the process of diagnosing Kelly's psychological disorder. He asks Kelly a series of questions regarding her symptoms. Kelly reveals that she often experiences overwhelming fear all of a sudden which is accompanied by pains in the chest and a feeling of helplessness. During these instances, she finds it difficult to breathe, has severe palpitations, and feels like she's going to die of cardiac arrest. In the context of psychological disorders, Dr. Jamar is most likely to diagnose Kelly with A) schizophrenia. B) social anxiety disorder. C) paranoid personality disorder. D) panic disorder.
70) Arturo often experiences unanticipated attacks of intense fear. During these episodes, he feels like fainting and has trouble catching his breath. Arturo cannot identify the source of his feelings and worries that he might die of heart failure. In the context of psychological disorders, Arturo is exhibiting the symptoms of A) disruptive mood regulation disorder. B) paranoid personality disorder. C) panic disorder. D) social anxiety disorder.
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71) Lola often experiences abrupt, brief episodes of overwhelming fear. She does not know what triggers them, but she has these attacks in the grocery store, in busy restaurants, and even while driving. During these attacks, Lola's heart pounds and she has difficulty breathing. She fears that she may go crazy or have a heart attack. In the context of psychological disorders, it can be inferred that Lola may have A) catatonia. B) somatoform disorder. C) aerophobia. D) panic disorder.
72)
Which of the following statements about panic disorder is FALSE?
A) Panic disorder is associated with neurotransmitters such as norepinephrine and GABA. B) Theories of the origins of panic attack take into account biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors. C) Lactate, which plays a role in brain metabolism, has been found to be elevated in individuals with panic disorder. D) American men are twice as likely as American women to be diagnosed with panic disorder.
73) ________ is a psychological disorder in which an individual has an irrational, overwhelming, persistent fear of a particular object or situation. A) Specific phobia B) Panic disorder C) Generalized anxiety disorder D) Social anxiety disorder
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74) Lewis is afraid of stairs and slopes. He avoids climbing the stairs in any building and always uses the elevator. He goes to great lengths to stay away from houses or other buildings that do not have elevators. Which of the following anxiety disorders does Lewis most likely exhibit in this scenario? A) specific phobia B) panic disorder C) generalized anxiety disorder D) social anxiety disorder
75)
A fear becomes a phobia when A) a doctor diagnoses it as such. B) a person will go to any length to avoid the object of the fear. C) a person can specifically identify their object of fear. D) the regions of the brain like amygdala and hippocampus are deactivated.
76) A man who is extremely afraid of flying and would go to any length to avoid flying is most likely experiencing A) schizophrenia. B) panic disorder. C) specific phobia. D) post-traumatic stress disorder.
77) Alison had sustained severe injuries after being brutally attacked by a mad dog as a child. Following that incident, Alison has experienced an overwhelming sense of fear and paralysis every time she sees a dog. The fear is so intense that it keeps Alison from leaving her house. Alison believes that as long as she's inside her house, the chances of encountering a dog are slim. In the context of psychological disorders, Alison is most likely to be diagnosed with
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A) social anxiety disorder. B) specific phobia. C) obsessive-compulsive disorder. D) generalized anxiety disorder.
78) Dequan suffers from an extreme and irrational fear of spiders. His fear is exaggerated and disproportionate to the actual danger he might be in if he did encounter a spider. Dequan's fear of spiders is so intense that he would go to almost any length to avoid coming into contact with them. Dequan is most likely to be diagnosed with which of the following disorders? A) specific phobia B) generalized anxiety disorder C) social anxiety disorder D) post-traumatic stress disorder
79)
Which of the following statements about specific phobia is true?
A) All disorders that involve repetitive behavior like hoarding disorder, excoriation, and trichotillomania are related to specific phobia. B) All people who have a specific phobia also suffer from obsessive-compulsive disorder. C) Specific phobia is a disorder that develops through exposure to a traumatic event that overwhelms the person's abilities to cope. D) Many explanations of specific phobias view these disorders as based on experiences, memories, and learned associations.
80) ________ is an anxiety disorder in which an individual has an intense fear of being humiliated or embarrassed in social situations.
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A) Thanatophobia B) Xenophobia C) Social phobia D) Gamophobia
81) Eric has an extreme fear of being humiliated in public. As a result, he avoids public gatherings and functions. The thought of speaking in front of the crowd induces panic in him. Which of the following best describes Eric's disorder? A) obsessive-compulsive disorder B) generalized anxiety disorder C) algophobia D) social phobia
82) Omar is fearful of public gatherings. He does not like to interact with people and always avoids public events as he is scared of being embarrassed by people. Which of the following anxiety disorders does Omar most likely exhibit in this scenario? A) social anxiety disorder B) panic disorder C) specific phobia D) generalized anxiety disorder
83) The anxiety disorder in which an individual has anxiety-provoking thoughts that will not go away and/or urges to perform repetitive, ritualistic behaviors to prevent or produce some future situation is called
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A) specific phobia. B) post-traumatic stress disorder. C) obsessive-compulsive disorder. D) schizophrenia.
84) Andrea believes that she must always open the door of her car with her left hand and put her right leg first into the car. She also believes that she may have an accident if she fails to follow this routine every time. Which of the following disorders is most likely exemplified in this scenario? A) obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) B) social anxiety disorder C) generalized anxiety disorder D) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
85) One of the most common compulsions exhibited by individuals who have obsessivecompulsive disorder is excessive A) exercising. B) cleaning. C) sleeping. D) eating.
86)
________ are recurrent thoughts, and ________ are recurrent behaviors. A) Compulsions; obsessions B) Obsessions; compulsions C) Delusions; hallucinations D) Hallucinations; delusions
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87) Jillian can't bear to leave her home without washing all the linens and floors, vacuuming the carpets, and organizing everything in her cupboards. Because she knows that her behavior is extreme, she has tried to go to work without doing all these things, but she becomes overwhelmed with such dread that she never makes it all the way to the office. Jillian probably has A) obsessive-compulsive disorder. B) generalized anxiety disorder. C) post-traumatic stress disorder. D) panic disorder.
88) Vicente cannot control his impulse to wash his hands every five minutes. He washes his hands almost 100 times a day because he is terrified of being contaminated by germs. If Vicente doesn't wash his hands, he experiences overwhelming anxiety. In the context of anxiety and anxiety-related disorders, it can be inferred that Vicente is most likely to be diagnosed with A) autism spectrum disorder. B) obsessive-compulsive disorder. C) post-traumatic stress disorder. D) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.
89) Amya is constantly in the habit of arranging and rearranging the things in her house. She feels very anxious when things are not arranged symmetrically and engages in this behavior to dismiss her negative feelings. Consequently, Amya forbids children from entering her house because she is afraid that they will disturb the balance of orderliness. In the context of anxiety and anxiety-related disorders, Amya is most likely to be diagnosed with
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A) paranoid personality disorder. B) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. C) post-traumatic stress disorder. D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
90) What differentiates people with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) from those who don't have OCD? A) the ability to ignore or dismiss negative, intrusive thoughts B) the presence of agoraphobia C) a history of past sexual abuse D) overprotective parents
91)
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) A) does not seem to have a genetic component because it does not run in families. B) is found in people with high levels of serotonin in their brain pathways. C) is characterized by a nonfunctioning limbic system. D) sometimes occurs during a period of life stress.
92) Which of the following statements is true of individuals diagnosed with obsessivecompulsive disorder (OCD)?
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A) People with OCD have an intense fear of being humiliated or embarrassed in social situations. B) People with OCD dwell on their doubts and repeat their routines sometimes hundreds of times a day C) People with OCD experience recurrent, sudden onsets of intense terror, often without warning and with no specific cause. D) People with OCD have the ability to dismiss negative, intrusive thoughts by ignoring or effectively dismissing them.
93) In the context of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) related disorders, an individual with hoarding disorder is most likely to A) exhibit a distressing preoccupation with the flaws in his physical appearance. B) compulsively pull at their hair from the scalp, eyebrows, and other body parts. C) suffer from a compulsion that involves picking at their skin, sometimes to the point of injury. D) find it difficult to throw things away, troubled by the feeling that they might need them at a later time.
94) Diana is afraid to throw things away because she feels that she might need them in the future. Consequently, Diana compulsively collects and stores large quantities of old newspapers, broken crockery, and old clothes. In the context of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) related disorders, Diana's excessive acquisition of objects and her inability to discard them are typical characteristics of A) trichotillomania. B) excoriation. C) hoarding disorder. D) body dysmorphic disorder.
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95) Talisha is in the habit of picking at her skin every time she feels nervous or anxious. Talisha engages in this kind of compulsive behavior to such an extent that she ends up bruising herself in the process. In the context of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) related disorders, Talisha is most likely suffering from A) hoarding disorder. B) body dysmorphic disorder. C) excoriation. D) trichotillomania.
96) Each time Harry feels anxious, he compulsively pulls hair from his scalp or eyebrows. This compulsive urge to pull his hair has made him partially bald. Harry is most likely to be diagnosed with which of the following obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) related disorders? A) hoarding disorder B) trichotillomania C) excoriation D) body dysmorphic disorder
97) ________ is an obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) related disorder that involves a distressing preoccupation with imagined or slight flaws in one's physical appearance. A) Excoriation B) Trichotillomania C) Body dysmorphic disorder D) Hoarding disorder
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98) Kionna experiences a great deal of anxiety over her physical appearance. She believes that her head is too big and her nose is asymmetrical. This troubling preoccupation with her physical features interferes with Kionna's occupational and social functioning. She spends hours in front of the mirror and isolates herself from her friends. In the context of obsessivecompulsive disorder (OCD) related disorders, Kionna can be most likely diagnosed with A) excoriation. B) trichotillomania. C) hoarding disorder. D) body dysmorphic disorder.
99) ________ refers to a disorder that develops through exposure to a disturbing or distressing event that overwhelms a person's abilities to cope. A) Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) C) Panic disorder D) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
100)
All of the following are symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder EXCEPT A) flashbacks. B) impulsive outbursts of behavior. C) difficulties with memory and concentration. D) feeling emotionally charged.
101)
Which of the following statements is true of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?
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A) A person experiences PTSD symptoms only several months or years after a trauma. B) Not every person exposed to the same event develops PTSD. C) Genetic inheritance does not play a role in the development of PTSD. D) People with PTSD seek attention and are open to expressing their emotions.
102) When Sandra was 18 years old, she was in a serious car accident. Although she made a full recovery from her injuries, she experienced extreme anxiety afterward. Sandra is now very anxious when driving, has nightmares about the accident, and flinches when she goes through intersections. Sandra has symptoms suggestive of A) generalized anxiety disorder. B) social phobia. C) post-traumatic stress disorder. D) panic disorder.
103) Soldiers who have returned from the frontlines often struggle with overwhelming anxiety, nervousness, depression, and flashbacks. In many cases, these soldiers have problems with memory and an inability to experience happiness. These characteristics are indicative of A) obsessive-compulsive disorder. B) post-traumatic stress disorder. C) specific phobia. D) dissociative identity disorder.
104) Randy experienced a horrific childhood. She was physically and verbally abused by her parents. Years later, she began experiencing flashbacks, emotional numbness, and an inability to sleep. Which of the following anxiety-related disorders would best apply to this situation?
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A) major depressive disorder B) post-traumatic stress disorder C) bipolar disorder D) schizophrenia
105) Jerome was held hostage by gunmen along with 30 others in a 5-star hotel. He witnessed the gunmen shoot other hostages and was denied food and water for two days. Since then, Jerome has had trouble sleeping and focusing on his work. Sometimes, Jerome loses track of where he is and feels like he is back at the hotel. These flashback episodes terrify Jerome and disturb his peace of mind. In the context of anxiety and anxiety-related disorders, it can be inferred that Jerome shows symptoms suggestive of A) schizophrenia. B) obsessive-compulsive disorder. C) post-traumatic stress disorder. D) social anxiety disorder.
106)
PTSD may best be explained by which of the following? A) vulnerability-stress model B) medical model C) theory of mind D) false alarm theory
107)
________ involve a sudden loss of memory or change in identity.
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A) Anxiety disorders B) Mood disorders C) Personality disorders D) Dissociative disorders
108)
Dissociative disorders are sometimes seen in people who also show signs of A) bipolar disorder. B) post-traumatic stress disorder. C) antisocial personality disorder. D) panic disorder.
109)
People with dissociative disorders have A) a less voluminous hippocampus and amygdala. B) excessive levels of the neurotransmitter glutamate. C) a very small cerebral cortex. D) very few receptors for the neurotransmitter serotonin.
110)
Extreme memory loss that stems from extensive psychological stress is referred to as A) dissociative amnesia. B) multiple personality disorder. C) post-traumatic stress disorder. D) excoriation.
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111) ________ is a disorder in which an individual has two or more distinct personalities, each with its own memories, behaviors, and relationships. A) Dissociative identity disorder (DID) B) Major depressive disorder (MDD) C) Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) D) Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
112) ________ is the most dramatic, least common, and most controversial dissociative disorder. A) Dissociative amnesia B) Dissociative identity disorder C) Dissociative fugue D) Schizophrenia
113)
Which of the following was formerly called multiple personality disorder? A) dissociative amnesia B) dissociative identity disorder C) dissociative fugue D) schizophrenia
114)
Which of the following statements is true of dissociative identity disorder (DID)?
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A) In DID, one identity dominates at one time; another takes over at another time. B) People with DID have two or more ambiguous personalities with overlapping memories and behaviors. C) The majority of people who have experienced trauma develop DID. D) The vast majority of individuals with DID are men.
115)
A depressive disorder is classified as a(n) ________ disorder. A) anxiety B) mood C) personality D) delusional
116)
________ is an unrelenting lack of pleasure in life. A) Anxiety B) Fear C) Anger D) Depression
117) According to the National Institute of Mental Health, the leading cause of disability in the United States is A) obsessive-compulsive disorder. B) panic disorder. C) schizophrenia. D) major depressive disorder.
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118) For a person to be diagnosed with major depressive disorder (MDD), they must have experienced a significant depressive episode and depressed characteristics, such as lethargy and hopelessness, for at least A) a week. B) 2 days. C) 2 months. D) 2 weeks.
119) It has been over two years since the death of her husband, and Jenna still cannot cope with her loss. She feels hopeless, has been constantly preoccupied with thoughts of death, and cannot seem to find much pleasure in life. In the context of disorders involving emotion and mood, it can be inferred that Jenna is most likely suffering from A) major depressive disorder. B) bipolar disorder. C) social anxiety disorder. D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
120)
All of the following are symptoms of major depressive disorder EXCEPT A) reduced interest or pleasure in all or most activities. B) significant weight gain or loss. C) trouble sleeping or sleeping too much. D) a history of manic episodes.
121)
Depressed people tend to have too few receptors for the neurotransmitters
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A) dopamine and GABA. B) GABA and epinephrine. C) oxytocin and serotonin. D) serotonin and norepinephrine.
122) Learned helplessness and pessimistic attributional styles are two ways of understanding the ________ factors associated with depression. A) bipolar B) psychological C) sociocultural D) biological
123) Cathy is worried about her mental health. She visits Dr. Henderson, a psychiatrist, to seek treatment for her condition. When Dr. Henderson asks her questions about herself, Cathy reveals that she is unhappy and feels worthless most of the time. She doesn't eat or sleep well and has even contemplated suicide. Dr. Henderson also learns that Cathy has been experiencing these distressing symptoms for almost three weeks. In the context of disorders involving emotion and mood, it can be inferred that Dr. Henderson is likely to diagnose Cathy with A) dissociative identity disorder. B) bipolar disorder. C) major depressive disorder. D) social anxiety disorder.
124) Ever since Olga lost her job, she has been feeling worthless. It's been more than two weeks now since she slept well. She has lost a lot of weight and keeps thinking about committing suicide. In the context of disorders involving emotion and mood, it can be inferred that Olga is most likely suffering from
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A) obsessive-compulsive disorder. B) major depressive disorder. C) social anxiety disorder. D) antisocial personality disorder.
125) Which of the following statements is true of the sociocultural factors involved in depression? A) Men are nearly twice as likely as women to be diagnosed with depression. B) Studies have found very low rates of depression in Native American groups. C) Depression increases as standards of living and employment circumstances worsen. D) People with a low socioeconomic status (SES) are less likely to develop depression than their higher-SES counterparts.
126) ________ is a mood disorder that is characterized by extreme mood swings that include one or more episodes of mania, an overexcited, unrealistically optimistic state. A) Major depressive disorder (MDD) B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) C) Bipolar disorder D) Generalized anxiety disorder
127) ________ refers to a psychological state in which an individual feels overexcited and unrealistically optimistic. A) Psychosis B) Catatonia C) Mania D) Depression
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128) Aria has been awake for two nights in a row and still feels highly energetic, and euphoric. The previous day, she quit her job on an impulse and decided to become an actress. In the context of bipolar disorder, Aria is experiencing an episode of A) mania. B) catatonia. C) depression. D) psychosis.
129) Your roommate is acting very strangely. Although she has not slept much in the past few days, she says she is on top of the world. She also took all her savings and invested it in a questionable financial venture. This period of nonstop activity has lasted for well over a week and is in sharp contrast to the depression and fatigue she exhibited earlier this semester. Your roommate is exhibiting symptoms of A) bipolar disorder. B) generalized anxiety disorder. C) panic disorder. D) dissociative identity disorder.
130) Dr. Wren is in the process of diagnosing Lily's psychological disorder. After asking Lily a few questions about her symptoms, Lily reveals that she experiences alternating episodes of euphoria and distress. On some days, Lily claims that she feels like she is capable of doing anything in the world. During this phase, she can't sleep, feels restless, and is extremely excitable. On the other days, Lily feels utterly worthless and miserable. During this phase, Lily lies in bed all day and is troubled by morbid thoughts. In the context of disorders involving emotion and mood, it can be inferred that Dr. Wren is likely to diagnose Lily with
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A) major depressive disorder. B) obsessive-compulsive disorder. C) bipolar disorder. D) schizophrenia.
131)
Genetic factors are stronger predictors of ________ than predictors of ________. A) depressive disorders; bipolar disorder B) bipolar disorder; depressive disorders C) dysthymic disorders; depressive disorders D) dysthymic disorders; bipolar disorder
132)
The main medical treatment for bipolar disorder is A) lithium. B) psychotherapy. C) Zoloft. D) Adderall.
133) ________ is a depressive disorder in children who show persistent irritability and recurrent episodes of out-of-control behavior. A) Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder C) Autism spectrum disorder D) Generalized anxiety disorder
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134) ________ is an eating disorder that involves the relentless pursuit of thinness through starvation. A) Binge-eating disorder B) Anorexia nervosa C) Schizophrenia D) Dissociative identity disorder
135)
Which of the following is a main characteristic of the eating disorder anorexia nervosa? A) an intense fear of gaining weight that does not decrease with weight loss B) significantly high body weight compared to what is considered normal for age and
height C) perseverance in maintaining weight at a healthy level D) a binge-and-purge eating pattern
136) A person who is in relentless pursuit of thinness, so much so that they are starving themselves to achieve this goal is exhibiting symptoms of A) binge-eating disorder. B) anorexia nervosa. C) bulimia nervosa. D) bipolar disorder.
137) Jessie, a young American, is obsessed about losing weight. She is paranoid about having calories and often starves herself. Despite being dangerously underweight for her age, Jessie refuses to eat as she is terrified of the possibility of gaining weight. Which of the following disorders best fits the description of Jessie's condition?
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A) anorexia nervosa B) bulimia nervosa C) schizophrenia D) bipolar disorder
138)
________ is said to have the highest mortality rate of any psychological disorder. A) Generalized anxiety disorder B) Schizophrenia C) Bipolar disorder D) Anorexia nervosa
139) ________ is an eating disorder in which a person consistently follows a binge-and-purge eating pattern. A) Bulimia nervosa B) Binge-eating disorder C) Anorexia nervosa D) Schizophrenia
140)
Which of the following is true of a person with the eating disorder bulimia nervosa?
A) The person goes on an eating binge and then purges by self-induced vomiting or the use of laxatives. B) The person relentlessly pursues thinness through starvation. C) The person has significantly low body weight compared to what is considered normal for age and height. D) The person has a strong fear of becoming thin.
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141) Chronic sore throat, kidney problems, dehydration, gastrointestinal problems, and dental problems are complications commonly experienced by people with A) obsessive-compulsive disorder. B) anorexia nervosa. C) bulimia nervosa. D) bipolar disorder.
142) People with bulimia nervosa tend to have ________ of perfectionism and ________ of self-efficacy. A) high levels; high levels B) high levels; low levels C) low levels; high levels D) low levels; low levels
143)
Like those who develop anorexia nervosa, those who develop bulimia nervosa tend to be A) perfectionistic. B) under-achievers. C) overly confident. D) proud.
144) Which of the following statements about the causes of anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa is true?
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A) Genes play a substantial role in both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa. B) Sociocultural factors, such as media images of thin women, are the central determinants of both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa. C) Cultural factors are the primary cause of anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa. D) There appear to be no biological underpinnings of either anorexia nervosa or bulimia nervosa.
145) Unlike obese individuals who do not suffer from binge-eating disorder, binge eaters are more likely to A) purge after eating too much. B) stop eating before they are full. C) overvalue their physical appearance, weight, and body shape. D) suffer from diabetes, hypertension, and cardiovascular disease.
146) ________ is a severe psychological disorder that is characterized by highly disordered, psychotic thought processes. A) Social anxiety disorder B) Anorexia nervosa C) Generalized anxiety disorder D) Schizophrenia
147) ________ refers to a psychological state in which a person's perceptions and thoughts are fundamentally removed from reality.
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A) Dissociation B) Mania C) Psychosis D) Catatonia
148)
The disordered thoughts in schizophrenia are referred to as psychotic because A) they are caused by extreme memory loss. B) they are highly repetitive. C) they are the most dramatic and least common. D) they are far removed from reality.
149) ________ are sensory experiences in the absence of real stimuli. ________ are false, unusual, and sometimes magical beliefs that are not part of an individual's culture. A) Delusions; Hallucinations B) Hallucinations; Delusions C) Referential thoughts; Catatonic thoughts D) Catatonic thoughts; Referential thoughts
150) When a person hears and sees people who are not actually there, the individual is likely to be experiencing A) hallucinations. B) delusions. C) mirages. D) catatonia.
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151) A person with schizophrenia hears multiple voices inside his head talking to him at the same time and forcing him to do things. It may be inferred that he is experiencing the symptom of A) delusions. B) illusions. C) hallucinations. D) catatonia.
152)
A person with schizophrenia who falsely believes that he is Jesus Christ is experiencing A) a delusion. B) a hallucination. C) a mirage. D) flat affect.
153) The ________ of schizophrenia are marked by a distortion or an excess of normal function, whereas the ________ reflect social withdrawal, behavioral deficits, and the loss or decrease of typical functions. A) positive symptoms; negative symptoms B) negative symptoms; positive symptoms C) physical symptoms; psychological symptoms D) psychological symptoms; physical symptoms
154)
________ refers to ascribing personal meaning to completely random events.
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A) Referential thinking B) Inattention C) Excoriation D) Hoarding disorder
155) ________ is a common negative symptom of schizophrenia, which means the display of little or no emotion. A) Catatonia B) Flat affect C) Referential thinking D) Hallucination
156)
All of the following are positive symptoms of schizophrenia EXCEPT A) hallucinations. B) delusions. C) referential thinking. D) flat affect.
157)
Catatonia
A) is a state of immobility and unresponsiveness that lasts for long periods of time. B) means giving personal meaning to completely random events. C) refers to false, unusual, and sometimes magical beliefs that are not part of an individual's culture. D) refers to sensory experiences that occur in the absence of real stimuli.
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158) A person with schizophrenia sometimes lapses into a phase during which she becomes unresponsive and stiff. In this state, her body becomes rigid, and she sits for hours by herself in a sort of stupor. In the context of schizophrenia, she is experiencing A) mania. B) catatonia. C) dissociative amnesia. D) psychosis.
159) A man who believes that he is the reincarnation of a famous preacher is exhibiting the schizophrenic symptom of A) delusion. B) hallucination. C) misattribution. D) flat affect.
160)
Which of the following is true of the potential causes of schizophrenia?
A) Problems regulating the neurotransmitter dopamine play a role in schizophrenia. B) The differences between the brains of healthy individuals and those with schizophrenia are significant. C) Biological factors play a very small role in the development of schizophrenia. D) A lack of synaptic pruning has been suggested as a cause of schizophrenia.
161) Which of the following statements is true of the psychological and sociocultural factors involved in schizophrenia?
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A) Contemporary theorists strongly believe that stress is unrelated to the development of schizophrenia. B) Marriage and warm supportive friends are related to better outcomes for individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia. C) Sociocultural background is considered as the primary cause of schizophrenia. D) Individuals with schizophrenia in developing, nonindustrialized nations tend to have worse outcomes than those in developed, industrialized nations.
162) ________ is a psychological disorder characterized by guiltlessness, law-breaking, exploitation of others, irresponsibility, and deceit. A) Histrionic personality disorder B) Schizoid personality disorder C) Antisocial personality disorder D) Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
163) Which of the following people is likely to be diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder? A) a person who shows an excessive attachment to moral codes and is excessively orderly in daily life B) a person who is prone to mood swings, excessive self-criticism, and extreme judgment of others C) a person who lacks empathy for others, is egocentric, and is willing to use others for their own personal gain D) a person who perceives themself as helpless and depends on others for emotional and physical needs
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164) A superficially charming person who is indifferent to the pain of others and has spent their life in and out of prison for violent crimes would most likely be diagnosed with which type of personality disorder? A) borderline personality disorder B) narcissistic personality disorder C) antisocial personality disorder D) schizotypal personality disorder
165)
Antisocial personality disorder has been associated with A) low levels of prefrontal activation. B) increased dopamine production. C) typical brain functioning and development. D) an overaroused autonomic nervous system.
166) A subgroup of people with antisocial personality disorder are remorseless predators who engage in violence to get what they want. These people are sometimes referred to as A) psychopaths. B) vigilantes. C) renegades. D) castigators.
167) ________ is characterized by a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and emotions, and of marked impulsivity beginning by early adulthood and present in various contexts.
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A) Schizophrenia B) Dissociative identity disorder C) Antisocial personality disorder D) Borderline personality disorder
168)
All of the following are symptoms of borderline personality disorder EXCEPT A) chronic feelings of emptiness. B) recurrent suicidal behavior. C) reduced awareness. D) wild mood swings.
169)
The thinking style called splitting is associated with which of the following disorders? A) schizophrenia B) dissociative identity disorder C) antisocial personality disorder D) borderline personality disorder
170) Approximately ______ percent of people who die by suicide are estimated to have a diagnosable psychological disorder. A) 20 B) 50 C) 60 D) 90
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171)
Suicide is correlated with which of the following biological factors? A) low levels of serotonin B) increased levels of dopamine C) less activation in the prefrontal cortex D) low levels of autonomic nervous system arousal
172) According to Thomas Joiner's interpersonal theory of suicide, what two factors are involved in suicide? A) a desire to die and the acquired capability for suicide B) a genetic predisposition and a tolerance for pain C) unlimited resources and previous exposure to suicide D) cultural acceptance of suicide and depression
173) Suicide attempts vary across ethnic groups. More than 20 percent of which of the following adolescent groups reported that they had attempted suicide in the previous year? A) Native American/Alaska Native females B) African American males C) non-Latino white females D) Asian American/Pacific Islander males
174)
Research has linked suicide to which of the following types of culture? A) honor cultures B) religious cultures C) collectivistic cultures D) non-material cultures
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175) In 1973, Rosenhan conducted a study in which eight healthy individuals were asked to see a psychiatrist at various hospitals. What did the results of this study demonstrate? A) College students who experience negative symptoms of schizophrenia are very susceptible to mental health issues. B) Doctors are always correct in their diagnosis of schizophrenia. C) Once a person has been labeled with a psychological disorder, that label colors how others perceive everything else they do. D) If you are treated for schizophrenia at an early age, you are likely to recover fully.
176)
The Americans with Disabilities Act
A) made it illegal to hold social stigmas against those with psychological disorders. B) made it illegal to discriminate against a person with a psychological disorder in the workplace when the person's condition does not prevent performance of the job's essential functions. C) was designed to eliminate the cultural stereotypes of people with psychological disorders. D) was designed to provide additional healthcare coverage to people with psychological disorders who were stereotyped as violent.
177)
A critical step toward eliminating the stigma attached to psychological disorders is to A) resist defining people by their condition. B) act as if a person's condition does not exist. C) give into the illusory correlation. D) require disclosure of psychological disorders whenever possible.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 12_5e_King 1) Defining and Explaining Abnormal Behavior 2) Defining and Explaining Abnormal Behavior 3) Anxiety and Anxiety-Related Disorders 4) Disorders Involving Emotion and Mood 5) Eating Disorders 6) Dissociative Disorders 7) Schizophrenia 8) Personality Disorders 9) Personality Disorders 10) Suicide 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) C 15) D 16) A 17) B 18) C 19) A 20) A 21) A Version 1
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22) B 23) A 24) A 25) A 26) C 27) C 28) A 29) B 30) B 31) C 32) C 33) A 34) B 35) A 36) A 37) A 38) A 39) A 40) A 41) A 42) A 43) A 44) A 45) A 46) A 47) A 48) A 49) D 50) A 51) C Version 1
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52) A 53) A 54) A 55) B 56) C 57) C 58) D 59) A 60) B 61) B 62) A 63) C 64) A 65) A 66) B 67) B 68) C 69) D 70) C 71) D 72) D 73) A 74) A 75) B 76) C 77) B 78) A 79) D 80) C 81) D Version 1
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82) A 83) C 84) A 85) B 86) B 87) A 88) B 89) D 90) A 91) D 92) B 93) D 94) C 95) C 96) B 97) C 98) D 99) A 100) D 101) B 102) C 103) B 104) B 105) C 106) A 107) D 108) B 109) A 110) A 111) A Version 1
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112) B 113) B 114) A 115) B 116) D 117) D 118) D 119) A 120) D 121) D 122) B 123) C 124) B 125) C 126) C 127) C 128) A 129) A 130) C 131) B 132) A 133) A 134) B 135) A 136) B 137) A 138) D 139) A 140) A 141) C Version 1
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142) B 143) A 144) A 145) D 146) D 147) C 148) D 149) B 150) A 151) C 152) A 153) A 154) A 155) B 156) D 157) A 158) B 159) A 160) A 161) B 162) C 163) C 164) C 165) A 166) A 167) D 168) C 169) D 170) D 171) A Version 1
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172) A 173) A 174) A 175) C 176) B 177) A
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CHAPTER 13 1)
Contrast the philosophies of psychoanalytic psychotherapy and humanistic therapies.
2)
Describe client-centered therapy.
3)
Explain Aaron Beck's cognitive therapy.
4)
Describe integrative therapy and dialectical behavior therapy.
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5) How do benzodiazepines decrease anxiety? Give examples of some commonly prescribed benzodiazepines and evaluate the potential side effects of these medications.
6) Describe the four main classes of drugs that are used to regulate mood. Explain how each type of drug works to control mood.
7)
Describe the role of lithium in treating bipolar disorder.
8)
Describe the use of neuroleptics in treating psychological disorders.
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9)
Identify six potential benefits of group therapy.
10)
Describe the most widely used techniques of family therapy.
11) ________ is the area of psychology that integrates science and theory to prevent and treat psychological disorders. A) Clinical psychology B) Humanistic psychology C) Abnormal psychology D) Anomalistic psychology
12) Which of the following treatments reduces or eliminates the symptoms of psychological disorders by altering aspects of body functioning? A) psychotherapies B) humanistic therapies C) cognitive-behavioral therapies D) biological therapies
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13)
Which of the following statements about biological therapies is FALSE?
A) Biological therapies are treatments that reduce or eliminate the symptoms of psychological disorders by altering aspects of body functioning. B) Drug therapy is the most common form of biological therapy. C) Psychologists can prescribe drugs for psychological disorders in most states. D) Medical doctors can prescribe drugs for psychological disorders.
14)
______ are medical doctors who specialize in treating psychological disorders. A) Psychiatrists B) Psychologists C) Psychotherapists D) Social workers
15) In the context of the approaches to treating psychological disorders, which of the following statements is true of sociocultural therapies? A) They involve acknowledg-ing the roles and cultural contexts that characterize a person's life. B) They avoid bringing a person's relationships into the therapeutic context. C) They seek to modify emo-tions, thinking, and behaviors. D) They view psychological disorders as akin to diseases requiring specific treatments, typically medications.
16)
In the context of the sociocultural approach to therapy, a paraprofessional
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A) is a person without formal training who has been taught by a professional to provide some mental health services. B) usually has formal mental health training to provide mental health services. C) is highly unlikely to have had the disorder for which an individual is being treated. D) requires a ministerial background and training in psychology.
17)
The large body of research on the effectiveness of psychotherapy A) is mixed, in that psychotherapy works well for women but not for men. B) clearly shows that psychotherapy works. C) shows that psychoanalysis is more effective than cognitive therapy. D) shows that humanistic therapy is more effective than behavioral therapy.
18) ________ is the integration of the best available research with the therapist's clinical expertise and the client's characteristics, culture, and preferences. A) Evidence-based practice B) A hypothetical construct C) Operationalization D) The therapeutic alliance
19) In the context of the factors in effective psychotherapy, the therapeutic alliance is the relationship between the therapist and A) the client. B) the American Psychological Association. C) the local government. D) other professional therapists who practice in the same state.
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20)
Clients of therapists who do not monitor the quality of the therapeutic alliance are A) two times more likely to drop out of therapy. B) less likely to experience negative outcomes as a result of therapy. C) likely to feel more hopeful about overcoming their disorder. D) likely to feel more respected and supported by the therapist.
21) Meta-analyses on therapeutic outcomes show that ________ is the most important determinant of therapy outcome. A) the therapist's credentials B) the cost of the therapist C) the quality of the client's participation D) the client's age
22) Which of the following therapies stresses the importance of the unconscious mind, extensive interpretation by the therapist, and the role of early childhood experiences in the development of an individual's problems? A) psychodynamic therapies B) humanistic therapies C) social learning therapies D) biological therapies
23) ________ is Sigmund Freud's therapeutic technique for analyzing a person's unconscious conflicts.
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A) Psychoanalysis B) The therapeutic alliance C) Evidence-based practice D) Operationalization
24)
The main goal of psychoanalysis is to
A) persuade clients to abandon their irrational, misery-inducing beliefs. B) help people gain insight into the unconscious conflicts that are the source of their problems. C) train clients to avoid maladaptive patterns of behavior through modeling of appropriate behaviors. D) demonstrate unconditional positive regard toward the client.
25) In the context of psychodynamic therapies, which of the following is true of psychoanalytic techniques? A) Freud believed that transference was an avoidable aspect of the analyst-patient relationship. B) Transference is the psychoanalytic term for the client's unconscious defense strategies that prevent the therapist from understanding the person's problems. C) Resistance is the psychoanalytic term for the client's relating to the analyst in ways that reproduce or relive important relationships in the client's life. D) Freud believed that a person's current problems could be traced to childhood experiences.
26) Sean, a psychologist, told his colleague “My client must confront the conflicts he faced in his childhood and gain release from this burdening anxiety.” According to this statement, it can be concluded that Sean follows a ________ approach to psychology.
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A) psychodynamic B) cognitive C) behavioral D) humanistic
27) Which of the following is an important determinant of the effectiveness of psychotherapy? A) the duration of therapy sessions B) the therapeutic alliance C) the cost involved in therapy D) the number of therapy sessions
28) Dr. Billings is a therapist who specializes in psychoanalysis. The types of techniques that she is likely to use would include A) free association, dream interpretation, transference, and interpreting the client's resistance to discussing painful memories. B) teaching clients to replace their fears systematically with more relaxed responses. C) systematic desensitization and token economies. D) prescribing strong medication that will reduce the client's anxiety so that the client can learn to relax and gain insight.
29) Charlotte is a psychologist who believes that her client's problems are a result of unresolved unconscious conflicts. Since she believes that this is the cause of her client's problem, it can be inferred that Charlotte practices ________ therapy.
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A) psychodynamic B) humanistic C) social learning D) biological
30) In the context of psychodynamic therapies, ________ is a psychoanalytic technique that involves encouraging individuals to say aloud whatever comes to mind, no matter how trivial or embarrassing. A) free association B) interpretation C) dream analysis D) operationalization
31)
Your psychotherapist asks you to "free associate." What are you being asked to do?
A) You are being asked to concentrate on relaxing as your therapist presents you with anxiety-provoking stimuli. B) You are being asked to completely empty your mind of all thoughts. C) You are being asked to say aloud whatever comes to mind, no matter how trivial or embarrassing. D) You are being asked to recall everything you can about traumatic childhood events.
32) According to Freud's psychodynamic perspective, what is the best way to gain insight into a person's core problems?
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A) reinforcing the client for ignoring neurotic thoughts B) bringing unconscious conflicts into conscious awareness C) having the client transfer fears and anxieties to the therapist D) helping the client to repress unpleasant memories more effectively
33) The release of emotional tension a person experiences when reliving an emotionally charged and conflicting experience is known as A) tardive dyskinesia. B) catharsis. C) resistance. D) transference.
34)
According to Freud's therapeutic technique, getting people to talk freely A) exhausts them. B) causes them to lose focus. C) allows their deepest thoughts to emerge. D) masks their unconscious conflicts.
35)
According to the psychoanalytic approach to psychotherapy, interpretation
A) is the psychoanalytic term for the client's relating to the analyst in ways that reproduce or relive important relationships in the client's life. B) is a psychoanalytic technique that involves encouraging individuals to say aloud whatever comes to mind. C) is a psychoanalytic technique for interpreting a person's dreams. D) is a psychoanalyst's search for symbolic, hidden meanings in what the client says and does during therapy.
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36) Which of the following statements is true regarding the psychoanalytic technique of dream analysis? A) In dream analysis, every dream, including nightmares, contains a hidden, disguised unconscious wish. B) Dreams represent unconscious conflicts which should be excluded while practicing psychodynamic therapy. C) Dreams provide people with an outlet to express their conscious wishes and desires. D) In dream analysis, a psychoanalyst asks a person to say aloud whatever comes to mind.
37) In the context of dream analysis, ________ refers to the conscious, remembered aspects of a dream. A) manifest content B) latent content C) hidden content D) resistant content
38) According to Freudian dream analysis, the unconscious, hidden aspects that are symbolized by the manifest content of dreams refers to the ________ content. A) obtuse B) subliminal C) latent D) passive
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39) James dreamed that he went to his neighbor's house at midnight and made himself a sandwich. His psychoanalyst interpreted the dream to mean that James really wanted to have sex with his neighbor's wife. Making the sandwich was the A) hidden content of the dream. B) manifest content of the dream. C) latent content of the dream. D) resistant content of the dream.
40)
In psychoanalytic theory, the term transference is used to describe
A) the gradual shifting of erogenous desires from the mouth to the genitals. B) the client's relating to the analyst in ways that reproduce or relive important relationships in the client's life. C) efforts to redirect anxiety-provoking desires into socially acceptable actions. D) the repression of painful memories from conscious awareness.
41) Sherice started seeing a psychotherapist because of marital problems. She is unhappy because she feels her husband does not give her enough attention. After several sessions, she is quite taken with her male therapist because he gives her undivided attention. This growing affection for the therapist is called A) resistance. B) latent content. C) reflection. D) transference.
42) In the context of psychoanalysis, ________ is the psychoanalytic term for the client's uncon-scious defense strategies that prevent the analyst from gaining insight into the person's psychological problems.
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A) resistance B) transference C) interpretation D) free association
43) In the context of psychoanalysis, when a psychotherapist questions a client about their nightmares, the therapist is engaging in the method of A) transference. B) free association C) dream analysis. D) validation.
44) In the context of psychoanalysis, a client interacting with an analyst as if the analyst were a parent or lover exemplifies the concept of A) transference. B) free association. C) interpretation. D) unconditional positive regard.
45) Which of the following scenarios indicates the psychoanalytic phenomenon of transference? A) Dev visits his psychotherapist twice a week. B) Derek feels attached to his psychotherapist who resembles his partner. C) Mariela is unhappy with her therapist who forgets their session dates. D) Zahra schedules appointments with her therapist well in advance.
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46) Bruce is seeing a therapist for his depression, but he is always late and has missed several appointments. He talks about sports and weather to avoid facing his problems and he often becomes argumentative with his therapist. According to psychoanalytic theory, Bruce's behavior is a classic example of A) transference. B) resistance. C) projection. D) catharsis.
47) In the context of psychotherapy, ________ are treatments that uniquely emphasize people's self-healing capacities and that encourage clients to understand themselves and to grow personally. A) humanistic therapies B) psychodynamic therapies C) psychoanalytic therapies D) behavior therapies
48) In the context of psychotherapy, ________ is a form of humanistic therapy, developed by Carl Rogers, in which the therapist provides a warm, supportive interpersonal context to improve the client's self-concept and to encourage the client to gain insight into problems. A) client-centered therapy B) cognitive-behavior therapy (CBT) C) psychodynamic therapy D) behavior therapy
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49) ________ is a technique used in client-centered therapy in which the therapist mirrors the client's own feelings back to the client. A) Reflective speech B) Free association C) Interpretation D) Transference
50) According to Carl Rogers, who developed the client-centered therapy, which of the following is an essential element that humans require to grow? A) empathy B) conditional positive regard C) criticism D) conservativeness
51) Dr. Patterson tries to create a warm supportive atmosphere to help her clients improve their self-concept and to encourage insight into their problems. Dr. Patterson says little to her depressed client. Instead, she waits for them to express their feelings and for the client to decide what they want to do about the problem. This emphasis on encouraging self-reflection indicates that Dr. Patterson is practicing A) client-centered therapy. B) behavior therapy. C) systematic desensitization therapy. D) cognitive therapy.
52) James, a therapist, helps his clients identify and understand their own genuine feelings. He also assists them in becoming highly congruent by bringing their actual self-closer to their genuine self. In this scenario, which of the following forms of psychotherapy does James most likely practice? Version 1
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A) humanistic therapy B) psychodynamic therapy C) behavior therapy D) cognitive therapy
53) Daisuke, a psychologist, actively listens to his client, Samantha. When she describes her grief over the death of her child, he says, "You sound devastated," to help her identify her feelings. In the context of client-centered therapy, which of the following techniques is Daisuke most likely using in this scenario? A) reflective speech B) transference C) resistance D) free association
54)
Which of the following is a primary goal of humanistic therapists? A) to change maladaptive behaviors B) to encourage personal growth C) to resolve unconscious conflicts D) to focus on illness rather than self-fulfillment
55) Humanistic therapies differ from psychodynamic therapies in that humanistic therapies emphasize A) change of behavior rather than underlying thoughts. B) unconscious thoughts rather than conscious thoughts. C) the past rather than the present. D) self-fulfillment rather than illness.
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56) In the context of the types of therapy, client-centered therapy follows a(n) ________ approach. A) symptom-oriented B) nondirective C) skill-development D) insight-oriented
57) Antonella has been working with a therapist because she has felt very confused and unsure about herself for the past few years. Antonella's therapist tends to be very nondirective and devotes a great deal of the session to allowing Mary to explore her identity, wants, and dreams for the future. The therapist rarely gives direct advice and instead is primarily interested in helping Mary clarify her own ideas and feelings. Antonella's therapist is most likely associated with the ________ perspective of psychotherapy. A) cognitive B) behavioral C) humanistic D) biological
58) Dr. Rodrigo engages in reflective listening with Bill who suffers from depression. She waits for him to express his feelings and decide what he wants to do about his problems. According to this information, it can be inferred that Dr. Rodrigo is practicing ________ therapy. A) client-centered B) cognitive-behavioral C) classical conditioning D) directive
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59)
The therapeutic environment of client-centered therapy is likely to be characterized by A) arousal and challenge. B) structure and desensitization. C) warmth and support. D) analysis and reinforcement.
60)
Which of the following individuals is engaging in reflective speech?
A) Alexis, who comforts Gunnar since he is extremely anxious about his results B) Alan, who agrees with Ivan that he is facing obstacles at work since he is frustrated with his boss C) Horace, who tells his mother to quit her job at a departmental store because of her failing health D) Jhumpa, who congratulates his colleague, Neil, for performing well in the project
61)
The primary premise of humanistic therapy is that A) people possess the capacity to heal themselves. B) irrational thought results in negative consequences. C) the unconscious mind can affect conscious behavior. D) abnormal behavior can be manipulated in therapy.
62) "I have never been a good problem solver. I am not direct enough to be successful," the client complained. "You do not see yourself as a direct problem solver?" responded the therapist. This conversation is an example of ________ and is typical of ________.
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A) free association; client-centered therapy B) transference; psychodynamic therapy C) reflective speech; psychodynamic therapy D) reflective speech; client-centered therapy
63) ________ are called insight therapies because they encourage self-awareness as the path to psychological health. A) Cognitive and sociocultural therapies B) Behavior and humanistic therapies C) Psychodynamic and humanistic therapies D) Psychodynamic and behavior therapies
64)
The primary goal of behavior therapy is to A) uncover unconscious conflicts. B) gain self-awareness. C) reduce or eliminate maladaptive behavior. D) be sensitive to the cultural and contextual needs of the client.
65)
Which of the following statements is true of behavior therapies?
A) They encourage self-awareness as the key to psychological health. B) They offer action-oriented strategies to help people change underlying thoughts or emotions. C) They lay emphasis on the person's self-healing capacities. D) They strive to eliminate individuals' depressed symptoms or behaviors.
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66) Which of the following techniques should be most likely implemented by a behavioral therapist when a client has a fear of public speaking? A) dream analysis B) systematic desensitization C) aversive conditioning D) client-centered therapy
67) Midori is afraid of crowds. If her therapist uses systematic desensitization technique, Midori will be asked to A) identify self-defeating thoughts. B) expose her fear during group therapy. C) stand alone in a room. D) learn to associate relaxation with being in a crowd.
68)
Systematic desensitization involves
A) exposing someone to a feared situation in a real or an imagined way. B) repeated pairings of an undesirable behavior with aversive stimuli to decrease the behavior's positive associations. C) a technique in which the therapist mirrors the client's own feelings back to the client. D) using a gradual build-up of self-reflective speech.
69) ________ is a form of behavior therapy that treats anxiety by teaching the client to associate deep relaxation with increasingly intense anxiety-producing situations.
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A) Systematic desensitization B) Nondirective therapy C) Rogerian therapy D) Free association
70)
Which of the following is a part of the process of systematic desensitization? A) hypnosis B) cognitive restructuring C) deep relaxation D) dream analysis
71) Frank is seeing a therapist for his spider phobia. The therapist first teaches him muscle relaxation and then they develop a stimulus hierarchy. Frank is seeing a therapist who uses A) flooding. B) systematic desensitization. C) psychoanalysis. D) social skills training.
72)
All of the following are considered a form of behavior therapy EXCEPT A) operant conditioning. B) aversive conditioning. C) systematic desensitization. D) client-centered therapy.
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73)
Aversive conditioning can be an effective treatment for A) schizophrenia and panic disorder. B) depression. C) smoking, overeating, and drinking alcohol. D) generalized anxiety disorder.
74) As part of a smoking-cessation program, Paul receives an injection of a nausea-inducing drug and then is asked to smoke a cigarette. Even though he knows he is receiving the drug, it is hoped that Paul will associate the nausea symptoms with smoking and will thus smoke less. This example best demonstrates the procedures typically used in A) aversive conditioning. B) client-centered therapy. C) rational emotive therapy. D) systematic desensitization.
75)
Which of the following individuals would benefit from systematic desensitization? A) a person who is addicted to alcohol B) a person who is suffering from severe depression C) a person who has a phobia of closed spaces D) a person who is suffering from schizophrenia
76) If a therapist gives an alcoholic a drink laced with a nausea-inducing drug so that illness is induced after drinking the alcohol, the therapist is using
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A) systematic desensitization. B) aversive conditioning. C) social-skills training. D) an unethical procedure.
77) Which of the following therapies represents the application of operant principles to psychological disorders? A) systematic desensitization B) flooding C) applied behavior analysis D) aversion therapy
78) ________ therapies emphasize that thoughts are the main source of psychological problems, and they attempt to change the person's feelings and behaviors by changing the thoughts. A) Humanistic B) Cognitive C) Gestalt D) Psychoanalytic
79) In the context of cognitive therapies, ________ is a general concept for changing a pattern of thought that is presumed to be causing maladaptive behavior or emotion. A) cognitive restructuring B) cognitive distortion C) systematic desensitization D) reflective speech
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80) Hugo, a therapist, helps his clients recognize the connections between their thoughts and their feelings and helps them use thinking to change their feelings. He emphasizes that thoughts are the main source of psycho-logical problems. In this scenario, Hugo is most likely practicing A) cognitive therapy. B) psychoanalytic therapy. C) behavior therapy. D) humanistic therapy.
81) A therapist who uses cognitive restructuring believes that ________ are the causes of abnormal behavior. A) parental relationships B) maladaptive thoughts C) chemical imbalances D) childhood experiences
82) Daniela thinks she is depressed over her teacher's criticism of her paper. Daniela's therapist explains that her own illogical belief—that the criticism means she is stupid—is really why she is depressed. Daniela is likely to be seeing a therapist who is providing ________ therapy. A) behavioral B) Aaron Beck's cognitive C) humanistic D) psychoanalytic
83)
Aaron Beck's cognitive therapy focuses on
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A) illogical thoughts. B) resistance. C) positive reinforcement. D) the relationship between therapist and client.
84) Luanne is being treated for depression after a breakup with her boyfriend. Her therapist points out that her thoughts, and not the situation itself, cause the depression. Luanne's therapist seems to practice ________ therapy. A) psychodynamic B) humanistic C) client-centered D) Aaron Beck's cognitive
85) Which of the following is a cognitive-behavior technique that aims at teaching individuals to modify their own behavior? A) self-instructional methods B) desensitization C) reflective speech D) evidence-based practices
86)
Decatastrophize technique in cognitive therapy involves
A) helping the client evaluate whether the client is overestimating the nature of a situation. B) helping the client distribute responsibility for events appropriately. C) providing the client with ways of stopping a cascade of negative thoughts. D) systematically examining the evidence for the client's beliefs or assertions.
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87) Which of the following is an example of the “thought stopping” cognitive therapy technique? A) hearing a bell when anxious thoughts increase B) rating feelings on a scale from 0 to 10 and focusing on reducing the number C) keeping a record of examples of all-or-nothing thinking D) counting backwards from 100 by 14s
88) A psychologist who practices cognitive therapy will most likely try to help a patient who suffers from a major depressive disorder by A) using systematic desensitization to replace depression with relaxation. B) trying to get the patient to identify irrational and self-defeating thoughts. C) analyzing unconscious conflicts from the patient's past. D) involving the patient in satisfying social activities.
89) Which of the following is a cognitive therapy technique whereby clients rate their emotions in order to gain a perspective of their situation? A) distraction B) questioning the evidence C) labeling of distortions D) scaling
90)
________ is a technique in cognitive therapy.
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A) Detriangulation B) Reframing C) Validation D) Decatastrophize
91) Renata's therapist uses the technique of distraction to help her deal with anxiety and asks her to count to 200 by 13s when she feels herself becoming anxious. From this scenario, it can be inferred that Renata's therapist practices A) psychodynamic therapy. B) humanistic therapy. C) behavioral therapy. D) cognitive therapy.
92)
Which of the following is an important aspect of cognitive-behavior therapy? A) self-efficacy B) insight C) self-awareness D) cultural sensitivity
93) Which of the following indicates the view of a humanistic therapist regarding the cause of psychological problems? A) They occur as a result of transference between the therapist and the client. B) They occur as a result of client's functioning below the optimal level. C) They occur as a result of learned inappropriate behaviors. D) They occur as a result of irrational thoughts and beliefs.
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94) Tasha is seeing a therapist because she is depressed. Her therapist gives her examples of reinforcing self-statements and trains Tasha on self-instructional methods that allow her to modify her own behavior. Tasha's therapist is most likely practicing A) psychodynamic therapy. B) humanistic therapy. C) cognitive-behavior therapy. D) family therapy.
95) Carlos intends to help one of his clients who feels that he is a failure and is not capable of achieving anything in life. Which of the following cognitive therapies should be implemented by Carlos in this situation? A) contingency approach B) reflective speech C) self-instructional technique D) free-association technique
96) An important aspect of cognitive behavior therapy is the belief that one can master a situation and produce positive outcomes, which is otherwise known as A) self-efficacy. B) scaling. C) reattribution. D) thought stopping.
97)
What is the most common form of therapy used today?
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A) cognitive behavior therapy B) classical conditioning C) client-centered therapy D) psychoanalysis
98) In the context of psychotherapy, ________ refers to using a combination of techniques from different therapies based on the therapist's judgment of the method that will provide the greatest benefit for the client. A) integrative therapy B) Rogerian therapy C) nondirective therapy D) sociocultural therapy
99) Ralph, a therapist, realizes that clients present a wide range of problems, so it makes sense for him to use the best tools in each case rather than to adopt a "one size fits all" program. In this scenario, Ralph is most likely using A) integrative therapy. B) bottom-up processing. C) confirmation bias. D) the investment model.
100) Dr. Guerrero uses different therapies based on the benefits they provide for her clients. Currently she is using a behavioral approach to treat an individual with panic disorder and a cognitive therapy approach to treat a client with major depressive disorder. Dr. Guerrero is practicing
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A) psychoanalysis. B) humanistic therapy. C) biological therapy. D) integrative therapy.
101) Therapy integrations are conceptually compatible with the ________ model of abnormal behavior. A) psychodynamic B) humanistic C) biopsychosocial D) cognitive
102) Which of the following biomedical interventions for eliminating the symptoms of psychological disorders is used LEAST often? A) aversive conditioning B) psychotherapy C) psychosurgery D) drug therapy
103)
Which of the following statements is true of antianxiety drugs?
A) They reduce anxiety by making individuals calmer and less excitable. B) They work by binding to the receptor sites of neurotransmitters that become inactive during anxiety. C) They work primarily by regulating mood. D) They do not have any side effects and are best when used long-term.
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104)
Tranquilizers are ________ drugs. A) antianxiety B) antidepressant C) antipsychotic D) MAO inhibitor
105)
Xanax, Valium, and Librium are benzodiazepines that are commonly used for treating A) mood disorders. B) anxiety disorders. C) schizophrenia. D) dissociative disorders.
106)
Which of the following statements is true of antidepressant drugs?
A) They are drugs that regulate mood. B) They allow a person's brain to significantly reduce its level of important neurotransmitters. C) They are primarily used to treat bipolar disorder. D) They are ineffective in treating anxiety disorders and eating and sleep disorders.
107)
Which of the following classes of drugs are NOT considered antidepressants?
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A) tricyclics B) monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors C) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) D) benzodiazepines
108)
________ treat depression by increasing the level of norepinephrine and serotonin. A) Tricyclics B) Monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors C) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) D) Benzodiazepines
109) Derek is suffering from anxiety disorder and is currently taking medication. In this scenario, which of the following side effects would most likely be experienced by Derek as a result of taking his medication? A) tardive dyskinesia B) metabolic syndrome C) restlessness D) drowsiness
110) Avril is suffering from major depressive disorder and has been administered the drug Elavil, a tricyclic drug. According to this information, which of the following side effects is she likely to experience as a result of taking this drug? A) nervousness B) increased appetite C) memory difficulties D) suicidal thoughts
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111)
Prozac, Paxil, and Zoloft are what type of antidepressant drugs? A) tricyclics B) monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors C) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) D) benzodiazepines
112) ________ inhibits the reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine and is also known as serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. A) Prozac B) Paxil C) Zoloft D) Effexor
113) Elizabeth visited a psychiatrist who, after talking with her, recommended either Paxil or Prozac. From this scenario, it can be inferred that Elizabeth is most likely suffering from A) dyslexia. B) depression. C) amnesia. D) psychosis.
114) In addition to providing treatment for depression, antidepressant drugs may also be an effective treatment for
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A) schizophrenia. B) anxiety disorders and eating disorders. C) dissociative amnesia. D) antisocial personality disorder.
115) In the context of drug therapy, the widespread increase in the number of individuals taking selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) to combat their depression is primarily due to the A) lesser side effects as compared to other antidepressants. B) lack of withdrawal symptoms upon stopping the use of these drugs. C) misdiagnoses of depression among young people. D) reduced costs of these drugs.
116)
Lithium is commonly used to treat A) panic attacks. B) bipolar disorder. C) schizophrenia. D) major depression.
117)
By influencing norepinephrine and serotonin, lithium is thought to A) cure insomnia. B) cause drowsiness. C) improve memory. D) stabilize moods.
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118) ________ are powerful drugs that diminish agitated behavior, reduce tension, decrease hallucinations, improve social behavior, and produce better sleep patterns in people who have a severe psychological disorder, especially schizophrenia. A) Antipsychotic drugs B) Tricyclics C) Antianxiety drugs D) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
119)
Which of the following is the most extensively used class of antipsychotic drugs? A) neuroleptics B) tricyclics C) tetracyclic antidepressants D) benzodiazepines
120) Which of the following is the most widely accepted explanation for the effectiveness of neuroleptics as antipsychotic drugs? A) They affect dopamine and dopamine pathways in the brain. B) They affect the receptor sites of neurotransmitters that become overactive during anxiety. C) They help in regulating mood. D) They help alleviate depressed mood through their effects on serotonin.
121)
Antipsychotic drugs are used to treat
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A) obsessive-compulsive disorder. B) major depressive disorder. C) schizophrenia. D) panic disorder.
122)
Neuroleptic drugs A) are antianxiety drugs. B) reduce symptoms of schizophrenia. C) are also called noradrenergic antidepressants. D) cure schizophrenia.
123)
Which of the following is true of neuroleptic drugs?
A) Neuroleptic drugs treat the causes of schizophrenia, not its symptoms. B) Neuroleptic drugs have substantially increased the length of hospital stays for people with schizophrenia. C) Neuroleptic drugs are widely used to treat bipolar disorder. D) If an individual with schizophrenia stops taking neuroleptic drugs, the symptoms return.
124)
Clozapine is used to treat A) Alzheimer's disease. B) anxiety disorder. C) mood swings. D) schizophrenia.
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125) Which of the following is a class of antipsychotic drugs that is administered as a part of drug therapy? A) tricyclics B) neuroleptics C) benzodiazepines D) tetracyclics
126) Chaz has been on antipsychotic medication for several weeks. As a consequence, he is most likely to experience the side effect of A) fatigue B) loss of weight. C) involuntary muscle movement. D) excessive sleep.
127) A potential side effect of neuroleptic drugs is ________, a neurological disorder characterized by involuntary random movements of the facial muscles, tongue, and mouth, as well as extensive twitching of the neck, arms, and legs. A) insomnia B) schizophrenia C) tardive dyskinesia D) transference
128)
The goal of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is
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A) to help people eliminate illogical thinking. B) to help clients identify their own genuine feelings. C) to reduce norepinephrine and serotonin levels. D) to set off a seizure in the brain.
129)
The side effect of monoamine oxidase inhibitors prescribed for agoraphobia is A) fatigue. B) toxicity. C) nausea. D) drowsiness.
130)
Which of the following class of drugs is used to treat agoraphobia? A) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors B) neuroleptics C) tetracyclic drugs D) tricyclic drugs
131)
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a treatment sometimes used for A) dissociative identity disorder. B) severe depression. C) schizophrenia. D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
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132) Ivan is very depressed, and the danger of suicide is eminent. He is not responding to the drugs normally employed to treat depression. Of the following treatments, which is the most likely to be used to reduce Ivan's depression and suicidal behavior? A) a self-help group B) electroconvulsive therapy C) encounter groups D) minor tranquilizers
133) Gabriella has been diagnosed with a depressive disorder and her doctor has prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor. According to this information, which of the following side effects might Gabriella experience as a result of taking this medication? A) nausea B) toxicity C) drowsiness D) trembling
134) Which of the following has been considered to be a key way to prevent suicide in the extremely depressed? A) psychoanalysis B) electroconvulsive therapy C) aversive conditioning D) rational-emotive therapy
135)
For which of the following would electroconvulsive therapy be most suitable?
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A) Ahmad, who has obsessive-compulsive disorder B) Frederic, who has generalized anxiety disorder C) Brad, who is contemplating suicide D) Byron, who suffers from insomnia
136) Which of the following experimental treatments has performed as well as electroconvulsive therapy at preventing suicide and has fewer side effects? A) repeated doses of ketamine B) a prescription for lithium C) client-centered therapy D) systematic desensitization
137) ______ has become more common way to affect the brain than electroconvulsive therapy. It seeks to treat depression and other disorders by using a magnet to target certain areas of the brain. A) Transcranial magnetic stimulation B) Psychosurgery C) Aversive conditioning D) Psychodynamic therapy
138) Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) is effective in treating three of the following psychological disorders. TMS is LEAST likely to be used to treat which of the following? A) specific phobias B) OCD C) depression D) negative symptoms of schizophrenia
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139) Which of the following is a biological intervention that involves the removal or destruction of brain tissue to improve an individual's adjustment? A) electroconvulsive therapy B) psychotherapy C) psychoanalysis D) psychosurgery
140)
Which of the following statements about psychosurgery is FALSE?
A) Psychosurgery is a biological therapy that involves the removal or destruction of brain tissue to improve an individual's adjustment. B) A prefrontal lobotomy is a type of psychosurgery that involves severing fibers that connect the frontal lobe and the thalamus. C) The effects of psychosurgery can be reversed with intensive therapy. D) Present-day psychosurgery involves making just a small lesion in the amygdala or another part of the limbic system.
141) Which of the following forms of treatment would be used only as a last resort to help patients with severely debilitating conditions? A) drug therapy B) cognitive therapy C) psychosurgery D) psychoanalysis
142) What technique was initially developed to treat Parkinson's disease but is now used to treat people with treatment-resistant depression and obsessive-compulsive disorder?
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A) deep brain stimulation B) frontal lobotomies C) transcranial magnetic stimulation D) electroconvulsive therapy
143) ________ refers to a sociocultural approach to the treatment of psychological disorders that brings together individuals who share a particular psychological disorder in sessions that are typically led by a mental health professional. A) Group therapy B) Rogerian therapy C) Drug therapy D) Biomedical therapy
144) Which of the following features of group therapy helps individuals who share a psychological disorder observe that others feel anguish and suffering as well? A) information B) universality C) altruism D) interpersonal learning
145) Which of the following features of group therapy involves group members supporting one another with advice and sympathy and learning that they have something to offer others? A) altruism B) universality C) popularity D) reframing
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146)
Which of the following is a feature of group therapy? A) transference B) altruism C) self-efficacy D) self-actualization
147)
A major advantage to group therapy is that A) clients have more opportunity to develop social skills. B) clients can get more undivided attention from the therapist. C) the therapist has less work to do because the clients do most of the work. D) it is better suited to clients with severe problems.
148) In the context of family therapy, which of the following therapists is most likely using the technique of validation? A) Leo, who expresses an understanding and acceptance of each family member's feelings and beliefs and thus finds something positive to say to each family member B) Faiz, who helps families reframe problems as family problems, not an individual's problems C) Julia, who tries to restructure the coalitions in a family and suggests that the parents explore satisfying ways of being together D) Alejandra, who tries to disentangle a situation in a family where one member is the scapegoat for two other members who are in conflict but pretend not to be
149)
Among the techniques used in family therapy, validation involves
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A) the therapist finding something positive to say to each family member. B) the therapist helping families reframe problems as family problems. C) the therapist helping families reframe problems as an individual's problems. D) the therapist trying to restructure the coalitions in a family.
150) Matias, a family therapist, tries to reorganize a father–daughter coalition in a family by suggesting that the mother take a stronger disciplinarian role to relieve the father of some burden. He also suggests that the parents explore satisfying ways of being together, such as going on a vacation. In the context of family therapy, which of the following techniques is Matias most likely using in this scenario? A) structural change B) validation C) detriangulation D) reframing
151) Taylor is a family therapist who intends to resolve a mother-child coalition that has formed in the case of her client Hannah, since Hannah's husband does not spend quality time with them. According to this information, it can be inferred that Taylor is likely to implement the ________ technique. A) guided association B) desensitization C) structural change D) reattribution
152) Fiorella, a family therapist, tells Roy's family that his delinquency is related to the dynamics that exists within their family. According to this information, it can be inferred that Elizabeth practices the ________ technique with regard to family therapy.
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A) client-centered B) structural change C) reframing D) scaling
153)
Which of the following is a technique that is used in family therapy? A) scaling B) guided association C) structural change D) reattribution
154) In the context of family therapy, getting the family to acknowledge that the problem is a family problem and not just the problem of one individual is known as A) validation. B) reframing. C) structural change. D) detriangulation.
155) Validation, reframing, structural change, and detriangulation are techniques most commonly used in A) psychoanalysis. B) cognitive therapy. C) family therapy. D) behavioral therapy.
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156) One aspect of family therapy is the idea that a family member's symptoms are a function of the family relationships. If, for example, a teenage son is the scapegoat for the parents, which family-therapy technique would be the most appropriate to use? A) validation B) reframing C) structural change D) detriangulation
157)
Which of the following is a goal of couples therapy? A) to improve the communication between the partners B) to facilitate better sexual relations C) to decrease the number of rules set for each of the partners D) to increase the amount of warmth between the partners
158)
Which of the following forms of treatment is generally conducted by paraprofessionals? A) family therapy B) couples therapy C) self-help support groups D) humanistic therapy
159)
Which of the following is true of self-help support groups?
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A) Self-help support groups are conducted by a professional therapist. B) Self-help support groups specialize in family therapy. C) Self-help support groups are beneficial only to high-income groups as they are relatively expensive. D) Self-help support groups provide members with a sympathetic audience for social sharing and emotional release.
160) John, an alcoholic, does not have much money, but requires the help of a mental-health professional. He might best be served by contacting a A) board-certified psychiatrist. B) self-help support group. C) humanistic therapist. D) counseling psychologist.
161)
Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) is based on which of the following therapeutic approaches? A) family therapy B) self-help group C) rational-emotive therapy D) cognitive-behavioral therapy
162) Community mental health programs seek to help people who are disenfranchised from society to lead happier, more productive lives through the concept of A) unconditional positive regard. B) empowerment. C) transference. D) cognitive-restructuring.
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163)
In the context of community mental health movement, deinstitutionalization involves
A) releasing individuals with psychological disorders from prison. B) requiring individuals with psychological disorders to participate in community service. C) transferring individuals with psychological disorders from mental institutions to community-based facilities. D) transferring individuals with psychological disorders from the community to psychiatry-based facilities.
164) Given that collectivist cultures place more importance on the group than on the individual, some psychologists have suggested that ________ is likely to be more effective with people from Asian and Latino cultures. A) psychoanalysis B) humanistic therapy C) family therapy D) cognitive therapy
165) Researchers have found that when there is an ethnic match between the therapist and the client and when ethnic-specific services are provided, A) clients are more likely to drop out of therapy early. B) clients have better treatment outcomes. C) treatment outcomes are the same as when there is no ethnic match. D) both the client and therapist typically show evidence of bias or prejudice against other groups.
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166) In the context of the sociocultural approaches to the treatment of psychological disorders, ________ refers to a therapist's assessment of their abilities to manage cultural issues in therapy and the client's perception of those abilities. A) cross-cultural competence B) the therapeutic alliance C) cultural assimilation D) acculturation
167) Eliana is well versed in the culture of her client but understands that she cannot know precisely what it is like to belong to that culture. Eliana demonstrates A) cultural humility. B) ethnic specificity. C) cultural adaptation. D) ethnic orientation.
168) When working with a psychotherapy client who is from a different culture, Dr. Johnson uses his knowledge of the person's culture and ethnicity in working with the client but is careful not to overgeneralize and blindly apply stereotypes. Moreover, he also understands the sociopolitical influences on the client. Which of the following labels best describes Dr. Johnson? A) Dr. Johnson appears to be culturally insensitive. B) Dr. Johnson appears to be culturally skilled. C) Dr. Johnson appears to be ethnically diverse. D) Dr. Johnson appears to be an eclectic therapist.
169) The ______ approach to therapy requires that we place people in the context of social expectations and power.
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A) feminist informed B) cognitive behavioral C) psychodynamic D) group therapy
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 13_5e_King 1) Psychotherapy 2) Psychotherapy 3) Psychotherapy 4) Psychotherapy 5) Biological Therapies 6) Biological Therapies 7) Biological Therapies 8) Biological Therapies 9) Sociocultural Approaches and Issues in Treatment 10) Sociocultural Approaches and Issues in Treatment 11) A 12) D 13) C 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) B 18) A 19) A 20) A 21) C Version 1
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22) A 23) A 24) B 25) D 26) A 27) B 28) A 29) A 30) A 31) C 32) B 33) B 34) C 35) D 36) A 37) A 38) C 39) B 40) B 41) D 42) A 43) C 44) A 45) B 46) B 47) A 48) A 49) A 50) A 51) A Version 1
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52) A 53) A 54) B 55) D 56) B 57) C 58) A 59) C 60) B 61) A 62) D 63) C 64) C 65) D 66) B 67) D 68) A 69) A 70) C 71) B 72) D 73) C 74) A 75) C 76) B 77) C 78) B 79) A 80) A 81) B Version 1
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82) B 83) A 84) D 85) A 86) A 87) A 88) B 89) D 90) D 91) D 92) A 93) B 94) C 95) C 96) A 97) A 98) A 99) A 100) D 101) C 102) C 103) A 104) A 105) B 106) A 107) D 108) A 109) D 110) C 111) C Version 1
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112) D 113) B 114) B 115) A 116) B 117) D 118) A 119) A 120) A 121) C 122) B 123) D 124) D 125) B 126) C 127) C 128) D 129) B 130) D 131) B 132) B 133) A 134) B 135) C 136) A 137) A 138) A 139) D 140) C 141) C Version 1
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142) A 143) A 144) B 145) A 146) B 147) A 148) A 149) A 150) A 151) C 152) C 153) C 154) B 155) C 156) D 157) A 158) C 159) D 160) B 161) B 162) B 163) C 164) C 165) B 166) A 167) A 168) B 169) A
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CHAPTER 14 1) How does the biopsychosocial model conceptualize the relationship between the mind and body?
2) Evaluate the stages of change model. Has research supported this theoretical model? What are the major criticisms or shortcomings of the model?
3)
Describe the three primary benefits or functions of social support.
4)
Why is religious participation linked with health benefits?
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5)
Is self-efficacy an important predictor of stress and well-being? Why or why not?
6)
Describe the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome.
7)
Identify the consequences of chronic stress.
8) Describe Lazarus's cognitive model of stress. Explain the distinction between primary and secondary appraisal.
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9) Describe problem-focused and emotion-focused coping styles. Are both coping styles equally effective at reducing stress?
10)
What are the ways to prevent sexually transmitted infections (STIs)?
11) ________ is a subfield of psychology that emphasizes psychology's role in establishing and maintaining fitness and preventing and treating illness. A) Cognitive psychology B) Health psychology C) Counseling psychology D) Forensic psychology
12)
Which of the following is a primary focus area of behavioral medicine?
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A) social factors B) emotional factors C) cognitive factors D) motivational factors
13) The primary goal of which field is to help people change their lifestyle to optimize their health and to assist them in achieving balance in physical, emotional, social, spiritual, and intellectual health and wellness? A) health promotion B) public health C) health behavior D) health insurance
14) During the COVID-19 pandemic, a state agency sent out a flyer to all homes explaining the safety and importance of getting vaccinated. This is best characterized as a ______ measure. A) public health B) health promotion C) behavioral medicine D) biopsychosocial
15) According to ________, effective change requires individuals to have specific intentions about a behavioral change, a positive attitude about the new behavior, and a belief that their social group will look positively on the new behavior.
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A) the stages of change model B) the theory of reasoned action C) the general adaptation syndrome D) Lazarus's model of stress and coping
16) The theory of planned behavior includes the basic ideas of the theory of reasoned action but adds another important variable to the model. This variable is A) genetic health history. B) a person's perception of control over the outcome of a situation. C) a person's level of introversion. D) cognitive ability.
17) What is the main difference between the theory of reasoned action and the theory of planned behavior? A) The theory of reasoned action includes the stages of change model. B) The theory of planned behavior includes the stages of change model. C) The theory of reasoned action includes the idea that perceptions of control over the outcome are important for effective change. D) The theory of planned behavior includes the idea that perceptions of control over the outcome are important for effective change.
18) Which of the following statements is true of the theory of reasoned action and theory of planned behavior?
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A) The theory of reasoned action is an extension of the theory of planned behavior. B) The theory of planned behavior is a contradiction of the theory of planned action. C) The theory of planned behavior and the theory of reasoned action require individuals to hold positive attitudes about a new behavior. D) The theory of reasoned action includes a person's perception of control, while the theory of planned behavior excludes it.
19) The ________ describes the process by which individuals give up bad habits and adopt healthier lifestyles and breaks down behavioral changes into five steps. A) theory of planned behavior B) theory of reasoned action C) stages of change model D) investment model
20)
Which of the following lists the steps in the stages of change model in the correct order? A) preparation, precontemplation, contemplation, action, maintenance B) preparation, action, precontemplation, contemplation, maintenance C) precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance D) precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, maintenance, action
21)
Which of the following is the final stage in the stages of change model? A) preparation/determination B) maintenance C) action/willpower D) contemplation
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22) An alcoholic who believes that he is just being a typical college student and does not think his drinking is a problem is most likely in the ________ stage of change. A) determination B) contemplation C) precontemplation D) preparation
23) Which of the following statements is true of people in the precontemplation stage of change? A) They ideally start preparing for a plan of action to change their behavior. B) They are actively thinking toward changing their behavior. C) They usually refuse or deny that their behavior is a problem. D) They are typically planning on various methods to combat relapse of behavior.
24)
During the ________ stage, individuals are not yet genuinely thinking about changing. A) preparation B) maintenance C) precontemplation D) contemplation
25) In the context of the stages of change model, which of the following is true of the precontemplation stage of change?
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A) A key component of this stage is raising one's consciousness about a behavior problem. B) A person is actively thinking about making a behavioral change in this stage. C) A key consideration in this stage is whether a person truly feels that they are ready to change. D) A person who feels like they have control over their decision to make a life change enters this stage.
26) Lawrence was just told by his doctor that his recent weight gain has placed him at risk for type II diabetes. Lawrence chooses to ignore his doctor's diagnosis. According to the stages of change model, Lawrence is at which of the following stages? A) precontemplation B) contemplation C) preparation/determination D) action/willpower
27) Your roommate has been engaging in risky sexual behavior all semester, yet denies that anything is wrong. This is characteristic of the ________ stage of the stages of change model. A) preparation/determination B) contemplation C) termination D) precontemplation
28) Claire is a chain smoker. Since she is unaware of her problem, her friends plan to inform her about the dangers of continuing her unhealthy behavior. According to the stages of the change model, Claire is in which of the following stages?
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A) contemplation B) preparation C) action D) precontemplation
29) People who are in the ________ stage of change acknowledge their problem behavior, but they may not be ready to change it. A) action/willpower B) contemplation C) maintenance D) preparation/determination
30) Suzanne wants to lose 20 pounds before her trip to Hawaii. Although she realizes that being thinner will make her feel stronger and healthier, she has a weakness for ice cream. She's not sure that she will be able to give up the short-term pleasure of indulging in an ice-cream cone for dessert in exchange for the long-term benefits of weight loss. Suzanne appears to be in which of the following stages of change? A) maintenance B) contemplation C) preparation/determination D) action/willpower
31) In the stages of change model, a key factor that differentiates the ________ is awareness that a particular behavior is problematic.
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A) contemplation stage from the action stage B) contemplation stage from the preparation stage C) preparation stage from the action stage D) precontemplation stage from the contemplation stage
32) In the stages of change model, the ________ stage is immediately followed by the maintenance stage. A) precontemplation B) contemplation C) preparation/determination D) action/willpower
33) In the context of the stages of change model, in the ________ stage, individuals acknowledge their problem behavior but may not be ready to commit to change. A) preparation/determination B) maintenance C) action/willpower D) contemplation
34) Faith is a compulsive gambler, and she gambles frequently regardless of whether she wins or loses. She realizes that she needs to make a behavioral change in order to avoid losing all her money. She reevaluates her behavior and analyzes the impact it has had on her social and personal relationships. However, she is not yet ready to give up the thrill that gambling gives her. According to the stages of change model, Faith is likely to be in the ________ stage.
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A) precontemplation B) action/willpower C) contemplation D) preparation/determination
35) Jamaine is a chain smoker. If Jamaine were in the ________ stage of change, the best stage-matched intervention would be to inform him about the dangers of continuing this unhealthy behavior. However, if he were in the ________ stage, you would do well to provide him with training in specific skills that can help him actually stop smoking. A) contemplation; precontemplation B) precontemplation; contemplation C) preparation; contemplation D) precontemplation; preparation
36) You are trying to change your exercise routine in order to have a healthier lifestyle. You develop a new exercise schedule and plan to implement it from next month. You are in the ________ stage of the stages of change model. A) precontemplation B) contemplation C) preparation/determination D) action/willpower
37) Madison is addicted to drugs. According to the stages of the change model, if she is in the contemplation stage of changing her habit, which of the following will occur during this stage?
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A) She will reevaluate the role of this addiction in her life. B) She will deny or refuse that her addiction is real. C) She will stop doing drugs immediately. D) She will join a rehabilitation center.
38) Self-belief and especially beliefs about one's ability to "see it through" are very important in the ________ stage of change model. A) preparation/determination B) maintenance C) action/willpower D) contemplation
39)
According to the stages of change model, a key element in the preparation stage is A) raising one's consciousness about the problem. B) the amount of information the person has collected about their problematic behavior. C) whether the person truly feels they are ready to change. D) the cost involved in changing one's behavior.
40) Miguel is an alcoholic. He recognizes his problem, but he fails to make any change in his life. After his wife leaves him, he decides to change himself and considers seeking professional help. According to the stages of change model, Miguel is likely to be in the ________ stage. A) action/willpower B) maintenance C) preparation/determination D) contemplation
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41)
Which of the following occurs in the contemplation stage of the change model? A) Individuals prepare to take action. B) Individuals actively think about change. C) Individuals commit to make a behavioral change. D) Individuals enact a plan.
42) Elijah is addicted to marijuana. He starts taking surfing lessons hoping that it will give him the same rush that marijuana does. According to the stages of change model, Elijah is in the ________ stage. A) contemplation B) preparation/determination C) precontemplation D) action/willpower
43) Which of the following statements would be most typical of someone in the preparation/determination stage of change? A) "Problem? What problem? I don't have a problem." B) "I am going to continue pursuing these new alternative healthy behaviors." C) "I know that my behavior is problematic, but I'm just not ready to change it yet." D) "I'm going to do something about this problem, starting next week."
44) According to the stages of change model, during the ________ stage, individuals commit to making a real behavioral change and enact a plan for effective change.
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A) action/willpower B) contemplation C) maintenance D) preparation/determination
45) Amit has decided that it is finally time to quit smoking. He started using nicotine patches to help him control the craving to smoke. He is in the ________ stage of the change model. A) preparation/determination B) contemplation C) action/willpower D) maintenance
46) Leo quit smoking two months ago. He is hoping that he can continue to stay tobacco free, so he has been trying to find ways to support his new, healthy behavior pattern. He eats mintflavored sweets whenever he gets a craving to smoke. Leo seems to be in the ________ stage of the stages of change model. A) preparation/determination B) contemplation C) action/willpower D) precontemplation
47) When Derell realizes that he is overweight, he chalks out an exercise program for himself. Though he faces some initial difficulties, he consistently follows the exercise program. Whenever he reaches a milestone, he reinforces himself with new workout clothing. According to the stages of change model, Derell is most likely to be in the
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A) contemplation stage. B) action/willpower stage. C) termination stage. D) preparation/determination stage.
48) When Shonda first tries following a healthy diet, she constantly thinks about how to eat healthy. After several months of successfully opting to eat nutritious food as opposed to her old junk-food favorites, Shonda does not feel like a dieter anymore. She no longer has to consciously think about trying to eat healthy; rather, her new lifestyle has become a part of who she is. Shonda is in which of the following stages of change? A) preparation/determination B) maintenance C) action/willpower D) contemplation
49) In the context of the stages of change model, ________ means that individuals are no longer consciously engaged in maintaining their healthy lifestyle; rather, the lifestyle has become a part of who they are. A) determination B) transcendence C) relapse D) resistance
50) According to the stages of change model, when conscious attention is no longer required to maintain the new, healthy behaviors and such behaviors simply are part of the individual's lifestyle, ________ has been achieved. This occurs during the ________ stage of change.
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A) determination/action-willpower B) transcendence/maintenance C) optimistic appraisal/contemplation D) hardiness/preparation
51)
Which of the following statements is true of the maintenance stages of the change model? A) It involves finding ways to support new, healthy behavior patterns. B) In this stage, people commit to making a real behavioral change and enact an effective
plan. C) People who feel that they have control over their decision to make a life change are likely to enter this stage. D) In this stage, people become aware that they have a problem.
52) Mia begins running regularly to lose weight. After a year from starting the routine, she runs for the joy of running. According to the stages of change model, Mia is in the maintenance stage and has A) reached self-actualization. B) become resistant to change. C) reached transcendence. D) adapted to her weight problem.
53) According to the stages of change model, one challenge during the maintenance stage is to avoid
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A) relapse. B) boredom. C) stagnancy. D) denial.
54)
In the context of behavioral change, the return to former unhealthy patterns is called A) inoculation. B) resilience. C) assimilation. D) relapse.
55) Which of the following statements is true of relapse during the maintenance stage of the stages of change model? A) Relapse is an uncommon aspect of change. B) Real change occurs in a single attempt with no relapse. C) Relapse is considered normal by experts in changing health behavior. D) If a person has more than two relapses, they cannot reach their goal.
56)
Which of the following is a criticism of the stages of change model? A) It is not effective in predicting psychotherapy outcomes. B) It refers more to attitudes that change than to behaviors. C) It doesn't capture the ways individuals make positive life changes. D) It is relevant only to individuals trying to quit smoking and lose weight.
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57)
________ are specific strategies for dealing with the challenges of making a life change. A) Intrinsic motivators B) Attribution strategies C) Implementation intentions D) Extrinsic motivators
58) Which of the following terms refers to information and feedback from others indicating that one is loved and cared for, esteemed and valued, and included in a network of communication and mutual obligation? A) social support B) cognitive appraisal C) the collective unconscious D) primary reinforcer
59) When Samantha's father passed away, Ronnie made food for Samantha's family. The gifts of food given after the death of a loved one is an example of A) extrinsic motivation. B) emotional support. C) implementation intentions. D) tangible assistance.
60) Amber shifted to a new apartment. She is finding it difficult to adapt to the new place, so her friends help her out by arranging all her furniture. This makes Amber feel less stressed. This scenario exemplifies which type of benefit of social support?
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A) tangible assistance B) information C) emotional support D) cognitive support
61) Your coworker Riya was just laid off. You immediately inform her about a relevant job opening that you recently heard about. In the context of benefits of social support, you have tried to help Christina by offering A) tangible assistance. B) emotional support. C) an important piece of information. D) affirmation.
62) Xinyi was just fired from a job she really loved. You are her best friend, so you try to offer her all the support that she needs. In the context of the benefits of social support, giving Xinyi a hug when she is down and telling her that you will "be there for her" is an example of ________, whereas loaning her money and telling her that she can stay with you until she finds another job is an example of A) tangible assistance/emotional support. B) emotional support/tangible assistance. C) psychological support/physical support. D) physical support/psychological support.
63)
Turning to others who act as a sounding board or a willing ear is referred to as
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A) social loafing. B) social sustainability. C) social sharing. D) social stratification.
64)
In the long run, writing about traumatic life events A) is harmful because one relives the trauma over and over again. B) increases distress among men but not among women. C) is associated with physical and psychological health benefits. D) has no impact on reducing stress.
65)
A number of studies have linked religious participation to A) increased loneliness and isolation. B) a longer and healthier life. C) greater self-esteem. D) anxiety and depression.
66) Pauline is a responsible and reliable individual. She likes structure and seeing a task to its completion. She is health conscious; therefore, she exercises regularly and eats healthy. Pauline would score high on which of the following personality traits? A) extraversion B) conscientiousness C) agreeableness D) openness to new experiences
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67) In the context of personality characteristics, ________ is associated with taking the right steps toward a long, healthy life. A) an external locus of control B) a sense of personal control C) strong extrinsic motivation D) Type A behavior
68) Zoe is under a lot of stress because her project receives negative client feedback. She gives up on trying to do damage control and thinks that the client feedback is meant to be. In the context of personality characteristics related to health, Zoe is likely to have A) a high level of conscientiousness. B) a low level of personal control. C) a high level of self-efficacy. D) a low level of pessimism.
69)
Self-efficacy is the belief that you can A) teach others to be self-reliant. B) show unconditional positive regard for others. C) be empathetic to your own problems. D) master a situation and produce positive outcomes.
70)
Self-efficacy influences
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A) whether an individual tries to develop healthy habits. B) whether a person uses emotion-focused or problem-focused coping strategies. C) a person's level of intelligence. D) the precontemplation stage of the stages of change model.
71)
________ is the power of belief in yourself. A) Conscientiousness B) External locus of control C) Self-efficacy D) Self-identity
72)
People who have high self-efficacy are LEAST likely to do which of the following? A) persist in the face of obstacles B) expend effort in coping with stress C) experience less stress in challenging situations D) perceive that they have little control over challenging situations
73) An optimistic attributional style explains the causes of bad events as ________, whereas pessimists explain them as ________. A) internal, stable, and global; external, unstable, and specific B) external, unstable, and specific; internal, stable, and global C) internal, unstable, and global; external, stable, and specific D) external, stable, and global; internal, unstable, and specific
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74)
Which of the following statements is true about optimism?
A) It refers to a personality trait in which people identify the causes of bad events as internal, stable, and global. B) It refers to a sense of behavioral control that originates from outside an individual. C) It is the expectancy that good things are likely to happen in the future. D) It is a personality trait that individuals are born with, and it cannot be learned or cultivated.
75) Which of the following refers to the circumstances and events that threaten people and tax their coping abilities? A) stress B) adaptation C) resistance D) exhaustion
76)
The general adaptation syndrome describes the A) steps taken during cognitive appraisal. B) body's response to stressors. C) frustration created by conflict. D) top three stressful personality types.
77) According to Hans Selye, which of the following takes place in a person's body during the alarm stage of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)?
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A) The body enters a temporary state of shock during which resistance to illness and stress falls below normal limits. B) Glands throughout the body manufacture different hormones that protect the person from stress. C) Hormones that reduce the inflammation normally associated with injury circulate in the body at high levels. D) Endocrine and sympathetic nervous system activity is almost absent during this stage.
78) When a rat is first introduced to an overcrowded cage, it will most likely enter the ________ stage of the general adaptation syndrome. A) alarm B) resistance C) exhaustion D) action/willpower
79) Emma is shocked when her teacher announces that he is conducting a pop quiz on the reading material that was assigned the day before. Which of the following stages of the general adaptation syndrome will Emma be experiencing first? A) exhaustion B) secondary C) resistance D) alarm
80) According to Selye's general adaptation syndrome, in which stage do glands throughout the body manufacture different hormones that protect the individual?
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A) alarm stage B) resistance stage C) contemplation stage D) precontemplation stage
81) Once you get over the initial stress associated with your first exam of finals week, the fact that you have several more exams will likely lead your body to enter the ________ stage of the general adaptation syndrome. A) alarm B) resistance C) exhaustion D) action/willpower
82) In the context of Selye's general adaptation syndrome, if the body's all-out effort to combat stress fails and the stress persists, the individual moves into the A) resistance-coping stage. B) exhaustion stage. C) alarm and mobilization stage. D) irritability phase.
83) According to the general adaptation syndrome (GAS), serious, possibly irreversible damage to the body, such as heart attack or death, is likely to occur during the A) exhaustion stage. B) resistance stage. C) coping stage. D) alarm and mobilization stage.
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84) Nyla has been diagnosed with breast cancer and is under significant stress. She is undergoing a series of chemotherapy treatments. Her endocrine and sympathetic nervous system activity are elevated and the circulation of hormones that reduce the inflammation normally associated with injury is also at a high level. According to Hans Selye, Nyla is currently in the ________ stage of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS). A) preparation B) acceptance C) resistance D) deferred optimism
85) Denise has just finished a stressful week of final exams and she now feels as though she is coming down with the flu. According to the general adaptation syndrome, Denise's reaction to stress suggests that she is now in the ________ stage. A) alarm B) resistance C) exhaustion D) primary appraisal
86) Which of the following accurately describes the sequence of the general adaptation syndrome? A) alarm, resistance, and challenge B) primary appraisal, alarm, secondary appraisal C) challenge, frustration, and exhaustion D) alarm, resistance, and exhaustion
87)
A fundamental premise of the general adaptation syndrome is that
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A) alarm, resistance, and exhaustion are the three stages that constitute common effects of the stressful demands on the body. B) some people are immune to stress. C) most people experience a temporary state of shock during the exhaustion stage, which causes resistance to illness and stress to fall below normal limits. D) stress acts on the parasympathetic nervous system.
88) According to Selye's general adaptation syndrome, serious wear and tear takes a toll on individuals during the ________ stage. A) exhaustion B) resistance C) coping D) alarm
89) Which body system in Selye's general adaptation syndrome (GAS) model is responsible for regulating various body processes, including digestion, immune-system responses, emotion, and energy expenditure? A) plasma immunoreactive somatostatin (IRS) B) hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis (HPA axis) C) systemic glucagon regulation (SGR) D) β-endorphin and prolactin (PRL)
90) Which of the following statements is true of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis (HPA axis)?
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A) The activity of the HPA axis is the same for all people. B) When the brain detects a threat in the environment, the HPA axis signals the adrenal gland. C) Under chronic stress, the HPA axis can remain activated over the long haul. D) The HPA axis regulates all but immune system responses.
91) A key hormone shared by the central nervous system and the immune system is ________, which is produced in the hypothalamus and unites the stress and immune responses. A) oxytocin B) testosterone C) estrogen D) corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
92) The immune system and the central nervous system both rely on ________ mediators for communication. A) electrical B) chemical C) symbolic D) cognitive
93)
Which of the following statements is true of stress and the immune system?
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A) Unlike the central nervous system, the immune system possesses "sensory" elements, which receive information from the environment and other parts of the body. B) Unlike the immune system, the central nervous system possesses "motor" elements, which carry out an appropriate response. C) The immune system and the central nervous system are similar in their modes of receiving, and integrating, stress signals from the external environment. D) Corticotropin-releasing hormone released by the central nervous system works against the immune system, thus disintegrating the unity between the stress and immune responses.
94) Rosemary is interested in studying the relationships between psychological factors, the nervous system, and the immune system. Given these interests, she will probably want to pursue higher studies in the field of A) cognitive psychology. B) psychopharmacology. C) psychoneuroimmunology. D) anatomy and physiology.
95) Which of the following statements is true of the relationship between the immune system and stress? A) Chronic stress depresses the immune system and leaves people susceptible to disease. B) Acute stressors fail to produce immunological changes in people. C) Chronic stressors are associated with an increase in immune system responsiveness. D) Chronic emotional stress is associated with a low incidence of heart diseases.
96) Which of the following statements is true of the preliminary hypotheses about the interaction that causes vulnerability to disease?
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A) Stressful experiences increase the efficiency of the immune system. B) Stressful situations make individuals more susceptible to diseases. C) Stressful experiences cause the deactivation of dormant viruses. D) Stress directly promotes disease-fighting processes.
97) The Type A behavior pattern is defined by a cluster of characteristics, including being excessively A) competitive, hard-driven, impatient, and hostile. B) relaxed, easygoing, flexible, and carefree. C) optimistic, resilient, friendly, and intelligent. D) assertive, introverted, angry, and rational.
98) According to Meyer Friedman and Ray Rosenman, which of the following behavior patterns is exhibited by people with a cluster of behavioral characteristics, such as being relaxed and easygoing, that is related to a low incidence of heart disease? A) Type A behavior pattern B) Type B behavior pattern C) Type H behavior pattern D) Type D behavior pattern
99) Noah exhibits the Type B behavior pattern associated with a low incidence of heart diseases. According to Meyer Friedman and Ray Rosenman, which of the following best describes Noah?
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A) He is excessively competitive. B) He is hardworking and intensely ambitious. C) He is typically relaxed and easygoing. D) He is socially inhibited.
100) According to Meyer Friedman and Ray Rosenman, who among the following exemplifies the cluster characteristics of the Type A behavior pattern? A) Maria, who is often easygoing B) Shira, who appears to be relaxed C) Ren, who believes that he has no control over outcomes in his life D) Thiago, who is often impatient and hostile toward others
101) The ________ is linked with a higher incidence of heart disease, whereas ________ is linked with a lower incidence of heart disease. A) Type A behavior pattern; the Type B behavior pattern B) Type B behavior pattern; the Type A behavior pattern C) Type B behavior pattern; the Type D behavior pattern D) Type D behavior pattern; the Type A behavior pattern
102) The ________ describes individuals who are generally distressed, frequently experience negative emotions, and are socially inhibited. A) Type C behavior pattern B) Type B behavior pattern C) Type A behavior pattern D) Type D behavior pattern
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103)
Cancer patients show ________ activity in the blood. A) diminished B lymphocyte B) increased cardiomyocyte C) diminished natural killer cell (NK-cell) D) increased red blood cell (RBC)
104) Which of these is an accurate conclusion concerning the relationship of stress to the immune system and cancer? A) The physiological effects of stress provide resistance to cancer. B) The physiological effects of stress inhibit immune responses to cancer. C) The physiological effects of stress slow the progression of cancer. D) The physiological effects of stress lead to smoking, which causes cancer.
105)
Which of the following statements is true of cancer? A) If NK-cell activity is uncompromised by stress, cancer progresses slower. B) Length of survival for cancer patients is independent of NK-cell activity. C) High NK-cell activity is linked with the development of malignancies. D) Cancer patients show extremely high NK-cell activity in their blood.
106) The often preventable differences in physical and psychological functioning that are experienced by socially disadvantaged groups are referred to as which of the following?
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A) health disparities B) cognitive appraisals C) transcendence D) the biopsychosocial model
107) The differential effect of the COVID-19 pandemic on people of color is a reflection of which of the following? A) health disparities B) primary appraisal C) Type A behavior D) emotion-focused coping
108) Which of the following would be LEAST likely to influence the health disparities experienced by people of color in the United States? A) personality type B) systemic racism C) daily experiences of discrimination D) differential access to resources
109) ________ refers to managing taxing circumstances, expending effort to solve life's problems, and seeking to master or reduce stress. A) Assimilation B) Coping C) Cognitive appraisal D) Operant conditioning
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110) According to Lazarus, in ________, individuals interpret whether an event involves harm or loss that has already occurred, a threat of some future danger, or a challenge to be overcome. A) initial assessment B) initial intake C) primary appraisal D) secondary appraisal
111) Kirby just got divorced. He is currently thinking about how disruptive and significant this life change will be for him. According to Lazarus, Kirby's behavior is an example of A) primary appraisal. B) secondary appraisal. C) daily hassles and uplifts. D) the general adaptation syndrome.
112) According to Lazarus, in ________, individuals evaluate their resources and determine how effectively they can rationalize the ability to cope with the event. A) initial assessment B) initial intake C) primary appraisal D) secondary appraisal
113) Leslie, a first-grade teacher, recently received a pink-slip notice informing her that she would be laid off at the end of the academic year. She has had some time to think about how this change will impact her life, and now she is actively evaluating her resources and trying to come up with a "game plan." According to Lazarus's model, Leslie is now engaging in
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A) primary appraisal. B) secondary appraisal. C) emotion-focused coping. D) social sharing.
114) ________ is the cognitive strategy of squarely facing one's troubles and trying to solve them. A) Problem-focused coping B) Emotion-focused coping C) Denial D) Repressive coping
115) Laquita just landed her dream job. The only problem is that her workplace is far from her home. She spends about three hours commuting every day. Traffic is normally quite heavy, and Laquita is experiencing a great deal of stress. If Laquita moved closer to her place of employment in order to decrease her commute time, it would be an example of A) emotion-focused coping. B) problem-focused coping. C) repressive coping. D) denial.
116) Maria's husband was diagnosed with an advanced stage of cancer. Instead of dealing with the threat of cancer, Maria decides to sign her and her husband up for a cruise. Maria is engaging in ________ coping.
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A) problem-focused B) objective-focused C) task-focused D) emotion-focused
117) ________ entails responding to the stress that one is feeling without confronting the root problem. A) Problem-focused coping B) Emotion-focused coping C) Relapse D) Contemplation
118) Narges likes her new job, but her workplace is far from her home. She spends a lot of time driving every day. Traffic is normally quite heavy, and Narges is experiencing a great deal of stress. Telling herself to relax, listen to music, and to enjoy "alone time" in the car rather than dreading the commute would be an example of A) emotion-focused coping. B) problem-focused coping. C) social sharing. D) repressive coping.
119) You just received a letter informing you that the college you really wanted to attend next semester has denied your application for enrollment. If you use the emotion-focused coping method, you would
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A) confront the source of your stress head-on. B) acknowledge your problem and actively try to solve it. C) calm yourself and visit a friend. D) retake the SAT to try to raise your standardized test score.
120)
Which of the following is true about the types of coping?
A) Emotion-focused coping is the cognitive strategy of squarely facing one's troubles and trying to solve them. B) Problem-focused coping entails responding to the stress that one is feeling—rather than confronting the root problem. C) Emotion-focused coping is least beneficial in dealing with life's problems. D) Problem-focused coping is likely to involve coming up with goals and implementation intentions.
121)
Which of the following statements is true of coping with stress? A) Hardiness increases stress and makes it difficult for a person to cope with it. B) A sense of personal control is associated with ineffective coping. C) Multiple strategies often work better than a single strategy to effectively cope with
stress. D) People who see problems as threats rather than as challenges cope with stress effectively.
122) Although many individuals use both problem-focused and emotion-focused coping strategies, over the long term,
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A) emotion-focused coping rather than problem-focused coping usually works best. B) problem-focused coping rather than emotion-focused coping usually works best. C) both problem-focused coping and emotion-focused coping strategies are equally effective. D) neither problem-focused nor emotion-focused coping strategies are effective.
123) Reinterpreting a potentially stressful experience as less threatening, more valuable, or even beneficial is referred to as A) positive reappraisal. B) hardiness. C) primary appraisal. D) stress management.
124) Although she expected to, Ada didn't make the varsity basketball team. Although she is disappointed, she sees it as a chance to hone her skills on the junior varsity team and to get more playing time. This best characterizes which of the following? A) positive reappraisal B) secondary appraisal C) general adaptation D) contemplation
125) Someone who is actively engaged with reality even when it contains threatening news is said to be
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A) optimistic. B) pessimistic. C) agreeable. D) neurotic.
126)
Hardiness is characterized by A) a sense of control. B) a sense of alienation. C) a sense of powerlessness. D) a perception of problems as threats.
127)
Which of the following statements is true of people who exhibit hardiness? A) They have a sense of commitment. B) They see problems as threats. C) They feel powerless. D) They feel alienated.
128)
Which of the following statements is true of stress-management programs?
A) Effective stress-management programs exclude cognitive-behavioral therapy. B) Coping effectively with stress is essential for good mental health but extremely harmful for good physical health. C) Establishing healthy habits and evaluating and changing behaviors that interfere with good health help avoid the damaging effects of stress. D) Many organizations have become less motivated to help their workers cope with the stressful circumstances due to the cost of stress-management programs.
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129)
Which of the following is true about exercise?
A) Exercise designed to strengthen muscles is referred to as aerobic exercise. B) Exercise typically increases levels of anxiety. C) Exercise that stimulates heart and lung functioning is known as muscle-strengthening exercise. D) Exercise formally refers to structured activities whose goal is to improve health.
130) Claire climbs steps every day to stimulate her heart and lung functioning. She does this to remain fit and healthy. Claire's exercise is a type of A) anaerobic exercise. B) muscle-strengthening exercise. C) aerobic exercise. D) flexibility exercise.
131)
Which of the following activities will stimulate heart and lung functioning? A) typing B) swimming C) sweeping D) drinking water
132) Health experts recommend that adults engage in at least ________ minutes of moderate physical activity preferably every day of the week, and that children exercise for ________ minutes daily.
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A) 60; 120 B) 45; 90 C) 15; 30 D) 30; 60
133)
Which of the following is true of obesity in the United States? A) More than 40 percent of Americans are affected by obesity. B) The percentage of people who are classified as obese is decreasing. C) Obesity is not considered a significant health risk. D) A small minority of U.S. adults are classified as overweight or obese.
134) Three of the following are practiced by people who have lost weight and been able to keep it off. Which of the following is NOT something that someone who has been able to maintain their weight loss practices? A) avoiding the scale B) meal planning C) staying active D) limiting screen time
135)
Which of the following statements about smoking is true? A) More people smoke today than in the past. B) Smoking is linked to 10 percent of chronic pulmonary disease deaths. C) Quitting smoking has very few health benefits. D) Children of smokers are at special risk for respiratory and middle-ear diseases.
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136)
Using a substitute source of nicotine to quit smoking works by
A) using a different substance that tastes like nicotine. B) consuming large amounts of nicotine so that the body rejects it. C) supplying small amounts of nicotine to diminish the intensity of withdrawal. D) seeking professional help, including psychotherapy, medications, and a combination of both.
137)
Which of the following statements is true about research on giving up smoking?
A) Quitting smoking for good typically requires just one try, as the stages of change model suggests. B) Research confirms that giving up smoking is difficult, especially in the early days of quitting. C) Research confirms that "going cold turkey" is the most efficient method of giving up smoking. D) When individuals stop smoking, their risk of fatal lung cancer increases over time.
138) Sarah is a chain smoker and she wants to quit smoking by using a substitute source. Which of the following is Sarah likely to do in order to quit smoking? A) She is likely to use lysergic acid diethylamide. B) She is likely to use a nicotine inhaler. C) She is likely to use Valium or Xanax. D) She is likely to use a barbiturate.
139)
Which of the following approaches to quit smoking involves using a nicotine patch?
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A) psychotherapy B) going cold turkey C) seeking professional help D) using a substitute source
140) Yolanda wants to quit smoking, so she goes cold turkey. Which of the following sentences best describes Yolanda's action? A) She thinks about getting professional help to kick the habit. B) She slowly reduces the number of cigarettes smoked per day. C) She opts for alcoholic drinks instead of smoking cigarettes. D) She stops smoking right away.
141) Twenty-year-old Lily has been smoking since she was 12 and wants to quit. While no method is foolproof, the most successful avenue for breaking the addiction involves A) nicotine replacement. B) therapy. C) behavioral strategies. D) using a combination of methods.
142)
Which of the following is an active drug in cigarettes? A) caffeine B) nicotine C) opium D) tannin
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143)
Which of the following statements is true of nicotine? A) It reduces smokers' energy. B) It has a pain-reducing effect. C) It reduces smokers' alertness. D) It deactivates neurotransmitters.
144)
Which of the following is an effect of nicotine? A) It slows down the brain's activities. B) It decreases the activities of the central nervous system. C) It leads to drowsiness and confusion. D) It leads to a pleasurable and reinforcing experience.
145)
Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are contracted through A) vaginal intercourse. B) cuddling. C) massage. D) mutual masturbation (without the exchange of bodily fluids).
146)
Which of the following is an example of a sexually transmitted infection (STI)? A) erysipelas B) impetigo C) syphilis D) cellulitis
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147)
Which of the following is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that is bacterial in origin? A) genital herpes B) hepatitis B C) syphilis D) genital warts
148)
________ is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that is caused by a virus. A) Genital herpes B) Chlamydia C) Gonorrhea D) Syphilis
149)
Which of the following is true about sexually transmitted infections (STIs)? A) Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by viruses. B) All sexually active people are at risk of contracting HIV and other STIs. C) STIs are not contracted through oral-genital sex. D) Some STIs, such as genital herpes, are bacterial in origin.
150)
Which of the following is true of HIV infection? A) PrEP medications are effective at reducing HIV infection if used consistently. B) HIV infections continue to rise in the United States. C) PrEP medications can cure HIV infections. D) HIV is caused by AIDs.
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Answer Key Test name: Chap 14_5e_King 1) Health Psychology and Behavioral Medicine 2) Making Positive Life Changes 3) Resources for Effective Life Change 4) Resources for Effective Life Change 5) Resources for Effective Life Change 6) Toward a Healthier Mind (and Body): Controlling Stress 7) Toward a Healthier Mind (and Body): Controlling Stress 8) Toward a Healthier Mind (and Body): Controlling Stress 9) Toward a Healthier Mind (and Body): Controlling Stress 10) Toward a Healthier Body (and Mind): Behaving as If Your Life Depends upon It 11) B 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) B 16) B 17) D 18) C 19) C 20) C Version 1
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21) B 22) C 23) C 24) C 25) A 26) A 27) D 28) D 29) B 30) B 31) D 32) D 33) D 34) C 35) D 36) C 37) A 38) A 39) C 40) C 41) B 42) D 43) D 44) A 45) C 46) C 47) B 48) B 49) B 50) B Version 1
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51) C 52) C 53) A 54) D 55) C 56) B 57) C 58) A 59) D 60) A 61) C 62) B 63) C 64) C 65) B 66) B 67) B 68) B 69) D 70) A 71) C 72) D 73) B 74) C 75) A 76) B 77) A 78) A 79) D 80) B Version 1
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81) B 82) B 83) A 84) C 85) C 86) D 87) A 88) A 89) B 90) C 91) D 92) B 93) C 94) C 95) A 96) B 97) A 98) B 99) C 100) D 101) A 102) D 103) C 104) B 105) A 106) A 107) A 108) A 109) B 110) C Version 1
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111) A 112) D 113) B 114) A 115) B 116) D 117) B 118) A 119) C 120) D 121) C 122) B 123) A 124) A 125) A 126) A 127) A 128) C 129) D 130) C 131) B 132) D 133) A 134) A 135) D 136) C 137) B 138) B 139) D 140) D Version 1
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141) D 142) B 143) B 144) D 145) A 146) C 147) C 148) A 149) B 150) A
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