TEST BANK for Focus on Health.11th Edition, by Dale Hahn, Wayne Payne & Ellen Lucas.

(Focus on Health, 11e Dale Hahn, Wayne Payne, Ellen Lucas) (Test Bank, Answer at the end of each Chapter)

Chap 01 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. As opposed to rehabilitation, remediation of a loss of physical function means to A. accept the loss of one function but strengthen those that remain. B. correct the problem through alternative means. C. maintain what function remains. D. restore the original function.

2. The term morbidity refers to A. illness and disease. B. the process of death. C. the incidence of unhealthy though patterns. D. high risk behaviors.

3. The traditional American approach to health care is A. multidimensional. B. preventive. C. episodic. D. holistic.

4. Which of the following BEST illustrates the traditional American approach to health care? A. an emphasis on disease prevention B. seeing doctors only when sick or injured C. eliminating high-risk behaviors from your lifestyle D. taking advantage of your school or company's fitness center

5. The goal of preventive medicine is to A. identify and reduce risk factors in the patient's life. B. promote managed health care over traditional insurance. C. prevent people from having to visit doctors. D. treat illness.

6. Of the following, which is not one of the central goals proposed by Healthy People 2020? A. Eliminate preventable disease, disability, injury, and premature death. B. Achieve health equity, eliminate disparities, and improve the health of all groups. C. An increasing acceptance of integrative forms of health care including reflexology and herbalism. D. Promote healthy development and healthy behaviors across every stage of life.

7. Which term BEST describes the process in which individuals or groups gain increasing control over their health? A. wellness B. holistic health C. empowerment D. health promotion

8. Which of the following BEST illustrates group-oriented health promotion as described in your text? A. A small rural town attracts a new physicians' clinic. B. A city receives federal funding to establish an AIDS awareness campaign. C. A new neighborhood is designed so that parks, stores, and medical clinics are easily reached by walking or by bus. D. An inner-city neighborhood creates volunteer groups to clean up parks, organize a crime watch program, and offer youth sports leagues.

9. During which of Prochaska's Stages of Change would an individual think about making a change in behavior but have no actual intention of stopping in the next few months? A. Preparation Stage B. Precontemplation Stage C. Contemplation Stage D. Termination Stage

10. According to the text, to define health A. one must first understand the dynamics of illness and death. B. it is important to focus on illness prevention and the postponement of death. C. it is important to look past illness prevention and the postponement of death. D. none of these is correct.

11. Rodney has been in his first job only two months, but already some of his colleagues dislike him. He doesn't mean any harm; he just says what's on his mind. In which of the following areas does Rodney need improvement? A. independence B. responsibility C. social skills D. intimacy

12. Unlike most other concepts of health, holistic health considers ________ to be part of overall health. A. intellectual and spiritual dimensions B. others' perceptions of your health C. your attitudes about your health D. tolerance for risk

13. Your body weight, visual ability, strength, and level of susceptibility to disease are components of which dimension of health? A. occupational B. social C. emotional D. physical

14. Your ability to cope with stress, remain flexible, and compromise to resolve conflict encompasses which dimension of health? A. intellectual B. emotional C. spiritual D. social

15. People who have good emotional health tend to A. be more dominant in social situations. B. accept rejection without complaint. C. enjoy life more. D. enjoy conflict.

16. Your ability to process information, clarify values and beliefs, and exercise decision-making ability lies primarily in which dimension of health? A. social B. spiritual C. physical D. intellectual

17. The dimension of health that focuses on your relation to others, the nature of human behavior, and your willingness to serve others is the ______________ dimension. A. social B. spiritual C. physical D. intellectual

18. This dimension of health encompasses the ability to interact comfortably in diverse settings. A. social B. physical C. intellectual D. spiritual

19. The significant contribution that the occupational dimension makes to the wellness movement is that it A. affords many people material needs. B. defines for many the importance of the workplace to their sense of well being. C. allows many people to fill their days without boredom. D. adds to the gross national product of the United States.

20. Many physicians say they have little time to practice preventative medicine because insurance companies will not reimburse them for that care. True False

21. Health promotion programs are not legally defined as medical practices and, thus, do not require the involvement of physicians. True False

22. In the multidimensional concept of health, you are considered healthy if you have achieved full access to growth and development opportunities in any single dimension. True False

23. Holistic health is the view of health in terms of physical, social, and emotional makeup. True False

24. To improve your spiritual health, you must gain an appreciation for a transcendent truth that unifies the material world. True False

25. Your occupation should not be considered another dimension of health. True False

26. Wellness differs from other kinds of health care because it has no interest in morbidity and mortality. True False

27. You are less likely to be happy and have a meaningful direction if you do not have a theist-based perception of life's meaning. True False

28. Describe preventive medicine, and explain its benefits and limitations.

29. List and briefly explain Prochaska's Stages of Change.

30. Describe the five developmental tasks of young adults.

31. Describe the basic difference between the conventional Western view of health and the definition of health proposed by your authors.

32. Explain why behavior change is often difficult.

Chap 01 Key

1. (p. 6) As opposed to rehabilitation, remediation of a loss of physical function means to A. accept the loss of one function but strengthen those that remain. B. correct the problem through alternative means. C. maintain what function remains. D. restore the original function.

Focus - Chapter 01 #1

2. (p. 9) The term morbidity refers to A. illness and disease. B. the process of death. C. the incidence of unhealthy though patterns. D. high risk behaviors.

Focus - Chapter 01 #2

3. (p. 8) The traditional American approach to health care is A. multidimensional. B. preventive. C. episodic. D. holistic.

Focus - Chapter 01 #3

4. (p. 8) Which of the following BEST illustrates the traditional American approach to health care? A. an emphasis on disease prevention B. seeing doctors only when sick or injured C. eliminating high-risk behaviors from your lifestyle D. taking advantage of your school or company's fitness center

Focus - Chapter 01 #4

5. (p. 9) The goal of preventive medicine is to A. identify and reduce risk factors in the patient's life. B. promote managed health care over traditional insurance. C. prevent people from having to visit doctors. D. treat illness.

Focus - Chapter 01 #5

6. (p. 11-12) Of the following, which is not one of the central goals proposed by Healthy People 2020? A. Eliminate preventable disease, disability, injury, and premature death. B. Achieve health equity, eliminate disparities, and improve the health of all groups. C. An increasing acceptance of integrative forms of health care including reflexology and herbalism. D. Promote healthy development and healthy behaviors across every stage of life.

Focus - Chapter 01 #6

7. (p. 10) Which term BEST describes the process in which individuals or groups gain increasing control over their health? A. wellness B. holistic health C. empowerment D. health promotion

Focus - Chapter 01 #7

8. (p. 10) Which of the following BEST illustrates group-oriented health promotion as described in your text? A. A small rural town attracts a new physicians' clinic. B. A city receives federal funding to establish an AIDS awareness campaign. C. A new neighborhood is designed so that parks, stores, and medical clinics are easily reached by walking or by bus. D. An inner-city neighborhood creates volunteer groups to clean up parks, organize a crime watch program, and offer youth sports leagues.

Focus - Chapter 01 #8

9. (p. 13) During which of Prochaska's Stages of Change would an individual think about making a change in behavior but have no actual intention of stopping in the next few months? A. Preparation Stage B. Precontemplation Stage C. Contemplation Stage D. Termination Stage

Focus - Chapter 01 #9

10. (p. 13) According to the text, to define health A. one must first understand the dynamics of illness and death. B. it is important to focus on illness prevention and the postponement of death. C. it is important to look past illness prevention and the postponement of death. D. none of these is correct.

Focus - Chapter 01 #10

11. (p. 14) Rodney has been in his first job only two months, but already some of his colleagues dislike him. He doesn't mean any harm; he just says what's on his mind. In which of the following areas does Rodney need improvement? A. independence B. responsibility C. social skills D. intimacy

Focus - Chapter 01 #11

12. (p. 13-14) Unlike most other concepts of health, holistic health considers ________ to be part of overall health. A. intellectual and spiritual dimensions B. others' perceptions of your health C. your attitudes about your health D. tolerance for risk

Focus - Chapter 01 #12

13. (p. 14) Your body weight, visual ability, strength, and level of susceptibility to disease are components of which dimension of health? A. occupational B. social C. emotional D. physical

Focus - Chapter 01 #13

14. (p. 14) Your ability to cope with stress, remain flexible, and compromise to resolve conflict encompasses which dimension of health? A. intellectual B. emotional C. spiritual D. social

Focus - Chapter 01 #14

15. (p. 14) People who have good emotional health tend to A. be more dominant in social situations. B. accept rejection without complaint. C. enjoy life more. D. enjoy conflict.

Focus - Chapter 01 #15

16. (p. 14) Your ability to process information, clarify values and beliefs, and exercise decision-making ability lies primarily in which dimension of health? A. social B. spiritual C. physical D. intellectual

Focus - Chapter 01 #16

17. (p. 14-15) The dimension of health that focuses on your relation to others, the nature of human behavior, and your willingness to serve others is the ______________ dimension. A. social B. spiritual C. physical D. intellectual

Focus - Chapter 01 #17

18. (p. 14) This dimension of health encompasses the ability to interact comfortably in diverse settings. A. social B. physical C. intellectual D. spiritual

Focus - Chapter 01 #18

19. (p. 15) The significant contribution that the occupational dimension makes to the wellness movement is that it A. affords many people material needs. B. defines for many the importance of the workplace to their sense of well being. C. allows many people to fill their days without boredom. D. adds to the gross national product of the United States.

Focus - Chapter 01 #19

20. (p. 9) Many physicians say they have little time to practice preventative medicine because insurance companies will not reimburse them for that care. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 01 #20

21. (p. 10) Health promotion programs are not legally defined as medical practices and, thus, do not require the involvement of physicians. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 01 #21

22. (p. 13-14) In the multidimensional concept of health, you are considered healthy if you have achieved full access to growth and development opportunities in any single dimension. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 01 #22

23. (p. 13-15) Holistic health is the view of health in terms of physical, social, and emotional makeup. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 01 #23

24. (p. 14-15) To improve your spiritual health, you must gain an appreciation for a transcendent truth that unifies the material world. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 01 #24

25. (p. 15) Your occupation should not be considered another dimension of health. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 01 #25

26. (p. 10) Wellness differs from other kinds of health care because it has no interest in morbidity and mortality. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 01 #26

27. (p. 15) You are less likely to be happy and have a meaningful direction if you do not have a theist-based perception of life's meaning. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 01 #27

28. (p. 9) Describe preventive medicine, and explain its benefits and limitations. Preventative medicine is a physician-centered medical care in which risk factors are assessed. Once identified, health practitioners attempt to lower these risk factors through education, lifestyle modification, and medical intervention. While guided by practitioners, this medical care centers only on the physical dimension and provides no coverage by third-party payers.

Focus - Chapter 01 #28

29. (p. 12-13) List and briefly explain Prochaska's Stages of Change. Precontemplation stage: A person is not thinking about making a change and may not realize that there is a problem. Contemplation stage: A person might develop the desire to change but has little understanding of how to go about it. Preparation stage: A person might begin making plans to change the behavior. Action stage: Plans and changes are implemented during which these changes are sustained for about six months. Maintenance stage: New habits are consolidated and practiced for an additional six months. Termination stage: New habits are well established, and efforts to change are complete.

Focus - Chapter 01 #29

30. (p. 2-4) Describe the five developmental tasks of young adults. Forming an Initial Adult Identity: During this first task, a young person will construct perceptions of himself or herself as an adult and formulate behavior patterns that will project this identity to society. This is necessary to establish a foundation for maturity. Establishing Independence: During this task, the young adult attempts to move away from the dependent relationship that exists between himself and his family, thus establishing independence. Assuming Responsibility: During this task, the young person is expected to take on increasing levels of responsibilities via college classroom assignments, relationships, or employment. Broadening Social Skills: During this task, the young adult is broadening the range of appropriate and dependable social skills through active participation in varied social settings. Nurturing Intimacy: During this task, the young adult establishes one or more intimate relationships whereby he or she can share his or her most deeply held thoughts and feelings.

Focus - Chapter 01 #30

31. (p. 13-14) Describe the basic difference between the conventional Western view of health and the definition of health proposed by your authors. The conventional definition focuses on the physical dimension almost to the exclusion of others. The conventional Western view of health is based on the absence of disease/illness and a reliance on medical services and health promotion to ensure longevity. By contrast, the authors' definition of health is multidimensional and focuses on one's ability to access resources for growth within each dimension.

Focus - Chapter 01 #31

32. (p. 12) Explain why behavior change is often difficult. Behavioral change is often difficult because several factors strongly influence a person's desire to change. They include the knowledge that a particular behavioral pattern is clearly associated with a particular health problem; the belief that their behavioral patterns will make them susceptible to a particular health problem; the recognition that risk-reduction intervention strategies exist and, should they adopt them in a compliant manner, they will reduce the risk of a particular health problem; the belief that benefits of newly adopted health-enhancing behaviors will be more reinforcing than the behaviors being given up; the feeling that significant others in their lives truly want them to alter their high-risk health behaviors and will support their efforts.

Focus - Chapter 01 #32

Chap 01 Summary Category

# of Questions

Focus - Chapter 01

32

Chap 02 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. Which of the following is the BEST indication of an emotionally healthy person? A. a tendency to respond to every situation, good or bad, with humor B. an ability to remain calm and in control of one's emotions in every situation C. a tendency to show a range of emotions that reflect life's "ups and downs" D. a tendency to restrain one's happiness, knowing that bad experiences can happen at any time

2. Which of the following examples of humor MOST clearly signifies emotional wellness? A. when it is only used to poke fun at others B. when you can recognize the humor in everyday situations C. when it is restrained and carefully considered D. when it is only used to poke fun at oneself

3. April feels shy and often lonely when she attends parties. She should A. develop her communication skills. B. attend the party with people she is acquainted with. C. have one or two drinks to make herself feel better. D. only attend a party if she knows the people who will be there.

4. How are communication skills related to emotional health? A. Good communication skills are indicators of good social interactions. B. Emotionally healthy people must excel at communication. C. Communication skills are based on emotional health. D. There is no correlation between the two.

5. Which of the following is FALSE regarding nonverbal communication? A. It is what is communicated by facial expression and body posture. B. The way in which you breathe is a form of nonverbal communication. C. It is not a powerful means of communication. D. It is the more important aspect of the message being communicated.

6. Which of the following is an important principle for effective verbal communication? A. Speak quickly to give your message more impact. B. If your argument is weak, raise your voice. C. Provide as many details as possible. D. Start on a positive note.

7. When you have an important message to communicate, it is most essential that you A. take the time to think before speaking. B. be forceful. C. seek feedback. D. adopt a conversational tone.

8. Which of the following would NOT be included in nonverbal communication? A. facial cues B. the environment C. body posture D. eye contact

9. Which of the following has been cited as one of the MOST important sources of nonverbal communication? A. body posture B. personal space C. eye contact D. facial expressions

10. Seth was upset at John's lack of consideration regarding a shared project at work. Seth wanted to share his feelings about the situation with John. As they talked, Seth realized that the conversation was becoming volatile and heated. What conflict management technique should Seth use? A. Seth should acknowledge John's feelings. B. Seth should watch his body posture. C. Seth and John should agree to discuss this matter at another time. D. Seth should use assertive communication.

11. Abraham Maslow proposed that emotional growth occurs as one's ________ are satisfied. A. emotions B. metaneeds C. basic needs D. long-range goals

12. In Maslow's concept of emotional growth, the highest level of growth is A. self-denial. B. self-realization. C. self-actualization. D. self-determination.

13. The first requirement in Maslow's hierarchy to be met is A. safety needs. B. self-esteem needs. C. belonging and love. D. physiological needs.

14. According to Maslow, spirituality, creativity, and curiosity are considered A. metaneeds. B. basic needs. C. essential needs. D. fundamental needs.

15. Your friend Walter recently lost his job and his apartment. He is living temporarily with his parents and seems quite cynical. According to Maslow's theory, what would be the best way you could help him start to rebuild his self-esteem? A. Help Walter find a job and a place to live. B. Direct Walter's attention to transcendent things. C. Take Walter out to dinner so that he can forget his troubles for a while. D. Introduce Walter to a young woman you think would find him attractive.

16. According to the authors, which of the following is seen as one of the MOST important traits of a creative person? A. nonconformity B. persistence C. independence D. curiosity

17. People who are creative tend to possess which of the following characteristics A. confidence. B. persistence. C. humor. D. spirituality.

18. Which of the following people is MOST likely to be labeled creative? One who A. is not detail oriented. B. is always very well organized. C. likes to solve problems. D. likes to be in charge.

19. An important benefit of spirituality is that it A. keeps you humble. B. discourages the use of drugs. C. has been found to increase your psychological wellness. D. provides a basis on which to judge the behavior of others.

20. People with spiritual health A. tend to be self-absorbed. B. seek meaning and purpose in their lives. C. tend to be anxious individuals. D. tend to be egocentric.

21. One of the benefits of mindfulness is that it enables you to A. plan your day without interruptions. B. accept yourself and your experience. C. complete a simple chore. D. concentrate on your breathing.

22. Pessimism and low self-esteem tend to result from A. personalization. B. permanence. C. pervasiveness. D. learned helplessness.

23. When an individual views a task as being hard, anticipates failing at that task, and subsequently performs poorly, they are experiencing which of the following A. permanence B. pessimism C. low self-esteem D. learned helplessness

24. When you personalize events, you A. blame oneself and have an internal explanatory style for negative events. B. blame others and have an external explanatory style for negative events. C. see yourself the way others see you. D. change how you view the world.

25. Which of the following chemicals is said to be deficient in people with depression? A. melatonin B. ACTH C. beta endorphins D. serotonin

26. Your roommate Celine is normally an active person, but over the last two weeks she has remained in the apartment for several days. She won't talk to her friends when they call, and she seems to have no appetite. Celine is most likely suffering from A. schizophrenia. B. bipolar disorder. C. clinical depression. D. general anxiety disorder.

27. The drug Prozac is A. most commonly used to treat bipolar disorder. B. highly effective, but also known for its many side effects. C. a highly effective antidepressant. D. being replaced in most cases by newer, more effective medications.

28. Ellen is always moody and tired most days between late December and early April. She is most likely suffering from A. seasonal affective disorder. B. primary depression. C. major depression. D. dysthymia.

29. Common symptoms of seasonal affective disorder include which of the following? A. increased sex drive B. fatigue C. weight loss D. insomnia

30. Which of the following is TRUE regarding suicide? A. Suicide is the leading cause of death for young adults 15-to-24 years old. B. Asian Americans are the highest risk group to complete suicide. C. Women tend to use more lethal methods to commit suicide than men. D. Suicide occurs more often among middle-aged Americans.

31. Bipolar disorder was previously known as A. major depression. B. manic depression. C. dysthymic depression. D. obsessive-compulsive disorder.

32. Mel was recently found on a rooftop claiming that he could fly. The next time you saw him, he did not even get out of bed, claiming he was worthless and would be better off dead. Several days later, police catch Mel driving at high speeds in the wrong direction on a freeway. Mel's behavior is most characteristic of A. bipolar disorder. B. major depression. C. general anxiety disorder. D. obsessive compulsive disorder.

33. Which of the following statements about suicide in the United States is MOST accurate? A. Suicide is more a problem of the elderly than of young people. B. Suicidal tendencies are distinctly different from other emotional disorders. C. Suicidal symptoms include feelings of depression and helplessness. D. Suicidal symptoms are hard to identify because they are usually well hidden.

34. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor associated with suicidal behavior? A. having little or no support system B. possessing a firearm C. having a problem with drugs or alcohol D. being easily distracted and irritated

35. Bipolar disorder is MOST commonly treated with A. drug therapy and psychotherapy. B. shock therapy and lithium. C. counseling only. D. family and group therapy.

36. Your friend Sue is talking about committing suicide. Which intervention strategy should you use to help her? You should A. assume she is not serious and change the topic of discussion. B. avoid the subject completely because it might upset her more. C. stay with her until you can get further assistance. D. argue with her that things are not that bad.

37. Charlyce is always tired, tense, overreacts, and is always fearful things will go wrong. Her behavior is most characteristic of A. acrophobia. B. bipolar disorder. C. a panic disorder. D. generalized anxiety disorder.

38. Which of the following statements about generalized anxiety disorder is MOST accurate? A. People with this disorder can easily mask their symptoms. B. People with this disorder tend to be lethargic and unresponsive to others. C. People with this disorder appear to worry all the time about everything. D. People treated for this disorder are typically cured.

39. Carey has experienced intense and frequent bouts of excessive worrying over everything for the past six months. She is an individual with A. panic disorder. B. generalized anxiety disorder. C. agoraphobia. D. post-traumatic stress disorder.

40. An emotional episode that features rapid pulse, heavy sweating, shortness of breath, nausea, and the feeling of being out of control is probably a(n) A. panic attack. B. defense reaction. C. obsessive-compulsive episode. D. endogenous-depression episode.

41. Which of the following is FALSE regarding panic disorders? A. Many panic disorder sufferers feel as if they are about to die or are losing control. B. A panic attack could last a few minutes or a few hours. C. Symptoms of a panic attack can mirror that of a heart attack. D. Sufferers generally perform repetitive behaviors to reduce the panic attack.

42. The MOST effective treatment for panic disorders is A. drug therapy. B. counseling. C. stress management techniques. D. all of the above choices.

43. A person who does unreasonable things like constantly washing his hands or constantly checking door locks is MOST likely showing signs of A. major depression. B. suicidal tendencies. C. dysthymic depression. D. obsessive-compulsive disorder.

44. Aleesha was suffering from obsessive-compulsive disorder, but recently has been doing much better. Which of the following is MOST likely? She A. underwent microsurgery. B. underwent shock therapy. C. was removed from her old environment. D. is receiving behavioral and drug therapy.

45. Michael believes he was kidnapped by aliens. He said he reported his kidnapping to the FBI, but they ignored him. Much of his conversation is impossible to understand. Michael is MOST likely suffering from A. schizophrenia. B. panic disorder. C. general anxiety disorder. D. obsessive-compulsive disorder.

46. One of the defining characteristics of schizophrenia is A. the repetition of meaningless behaviors. B. profound distortions in one's personality. C. a tendency to argue with everyone. D. suicidal impulses.

47. Which of the following statements about the treatment of schizophrenia is MOST accurate? A. New techniques in psychotherapy have made treatments very effective. B. Recent advances in drug therapy have made treatments very effective. C. Most forms of the disorder respond to treatment similarly. D. There is no cure for schizophrenia.

48. Unlike other mental health professionals, psychiatrists are A. medical doctors. B. holders of doctorate degrees. C. qualified to practice psychotherapy. D. grouped according to their subspecialties.

49. Biological and medical interventions are used by A. counselors. B. psychiatrists. C. psychologists. D. psychiatric social workers.

50. Which of the following mental health care providers has a doctoral-level degree in counseling or clinical psychology? A. counselor B. psychiatrist C. psychologist D. social worker

51. Which of the following is TRUE regarding counselors? They A. can write prescriptions for their patients. B. treat psychological disorders using behavioral therapy. C. tend to focus less on talking about a patient's problem. D. can specialize in areas such as substance abuse treatment, marriage and family therapy, and vocational rehabilitation.

52. Psychodynamic therapy is based upon the belief that A. faulty thinking patterns are the root of all problems. B. treatment must focus on changing an individual's thoughts. C. effective treatment must focus on psychological forces underlying a patient's problems. D. effective treatment is based upon the learned optimism paradigm.

53. The therapy that is based upon the belief that people, left to their own devices, will naturally grow in positive and constructive ways is termed A. humanistic therapy. B. solution-based therapy. C. cognitive therapy. D. naturalistic therapy.

54. Which of the following is TRUE regarding behavior therapy? A. The therapy sessions are very expensive. B. It focuses on the person's childhood years only. C. It is a form of client-centered therapy. D. It focuses on behavior modification rather than one's thoughts.

55. Which form of therapy is especially effective in treating anxiety, eating, and mood disorders? A. behavioral therapy B. cognitive-behavioral therapy C. dynamic therapy D. group therapy

56. Which of the following BEST describes cognitive-behavioral therapy? It A. focuses on changing thoughts in order to change a behavior. B. features probing the unconscious mind for solutions to problems. C. uses peer education to help discover solutions to problems. D. features "acting out" one's emotions to dispel them.

57. In which type of therapy are clients encouraged to envision a future in which their problems are no longer a dominant force in their lives? A. dynamic B. supportive C. behavioral D. solution-focused

58. Which of the following statements about group therapy is MOST accurate? It A. is less effective than one-on-one types of therapy. B. is not a technique in itself, only an alternative to individual therapy. C. is an effective approach for group members to understand one another's experiences and support one another. D. is least effective in treating problems such as chemical dependency and eating disorders.

59. Techniques such as posture, eye contact, and facial expression are important components in nonverbal communication. True False

60. The highest level in Maslow's hierarchy of needs is belonging and love. True False

61. Maslow proposed that our "metaneeds" must be satisfied before our "basic needs." True False

62. In general, highly creative people tend to have wide range of interests and a broad base of knowledge. True False

63. Creative people are very concerned with what other people think of them. True False

64. Learned helplessness is a theory explaining how individuals can learn how to feel powerless and defeated. True False

65. Pervasiveness refers to whether you perceive events as specific or general. True False

66. Pessimism and low self-esteem tend to come from blaming others and having an external explanatory style for negative events. True False

67. The most effective treatment for depression is a combination of counseling and medication. True False

68. Women commit suicide four times more often than men do. True False

69. Anxiety disorders include obsessive-compulsive disorder, post-traumatic stress disorder, and panic disorder. True False

70. Anxiety disorders are difficult to treat successfully. True False

71. Fear of having a panic attack may cause individuals to stay confined to their home. True False

72. Social phobia is characterized by feelings of extreme dread and embarrassment in situations where one has to speak in public. True False

73. Schizophrenia and multiple personality disorder are similar mental illnesses. True False

74. A psychologist is also a medical doctor. True False

75. Behavior therapy is also known as supportive therapy. True False

76. Behavior therapy is especially effective for treatment of anxiety disorders such as phobias. True False

77. Psychodynamic therapy is used to uncover childhood experiences that underlie an individual's current problems. True False

78. Solution-focused therapy helps clients change by dwelling on problems rather than looking for an answer to their problems. True False

79. Marital counseling, conflict mediation, and divorce counseling are all certified specialties in couples and family therapy. True False

80. Ritalin has been effective in the treatment of schizophrenia. True False

81. Define self-concept and self-esteem, and describe the relationship between the two.

82. List the techniques for effectively managing conflict.

83. Describe the connection between emotional health and creativity.

84. Describe the basic attributes of schizophrenia.

85. Discuss the mind-body connection in terms of the psychological and physical health of the individual.

Chap 02 Key

1. (p. 31-32) Which of the following is the BEST indication of an emotionally healthy person? A. a tendency to respond to every situation, good or bad, with humor B. an ability to remain calm and in control of one's emotions in every situation C. a tendency to show a range of emotions that reflect life's "ups and downs" D. a tendency to restrain one's happiness, knowing that bad experiences can happen at any time

Focus - Chapter 02 #1

2. (p. 35) Which of the following examples of humor MOST clearly signifies emotional wellness? A. when it is only used to poke fun at others B. when you can recognize the humor in everyday situations C. when it is restrained and carefully considered D. when it is only used to poke fun at oneself

Focus - Chapter 02 #2

3. (p. 34) April feels shy and often lonely when she attends parties. She should A. develop her communication skills. B. attend the party with people she is acquainted with. C. have one or two drinks to make herself feel better. D. only attend a party if she knows the people who will be there.

Focus - Chapter 02 #3

4. (p. 32) How are communication skills related to emotional health? A. Good communication skills are indicators of good social interactions. B. Emotionally healthy people must excel at communication. C. Communication skills are based on emotional health. D. There is no correlation between the two.

Focus - Chapter 02 #4

5. (p. 34) Which of the following is FALSE regarding nonverbal communication? A. It is what is communicated by facial expression and body posture. B. The way in which you breathe is a form of nonverbal communication. C. It is not a powerful means of communication. D. It is the more important aspect of the message being communicated.

Focus - Chapter 02 #5

6. (p. 34) Which of the following is an important principle for effective verbal communication? A. Speak quickly to give your message more impact. B. If your argument is weak, raise your voice. C. Provide as many details as possible. D. Start on a positive note.

Focus - Chapter 02 #6

7. (p. 34) When you have an important message to communicate, it is most essential that you A. take the time to think before speaking. B. be forceful. C. seek feedback. D. adopt a conversational tone.

Focus - Chapter 02 #7

8. (p. 34-35) Which of the following would NOT be included in nonverbal communication? A. facial cues B. the environment C. body posture D. eye contact

Focus - Chapter 02 #8

9. (p. 34) Which of the following has been cited as one of the MOST important sources of nonverbal communication? A. body posture B. personal space C. eye contact D. facial expressions

Focus - Chapter 02 #9

10. (p. 35) Seth was upset at John's lack of consideration regarding a shared project at work. Seth wanted to share his feelings about the situation with John. As they talked, Seth realized that the conversation was becoming volatile and heated. What conflict management technique should Seth use? A. Seth should acknowledge John's feelings. B. Seth should watch his body posture. C. Seth and John should agree to discuss this matter at another time. D. Seth should use assertive communication.

Focus - Chapter 02 #10

11. (p. 32) Abraham Maslow proposed that emotional growth occurs as one's ________ are satisfied. A. emotions B. metaneeds C. basic needs D. long-range goals

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12. (p. 32) In Maslow's concept of emotional growth, the highest level of growth is A. self-denial. B. self-realization. C. self-actualization. D. self-determination.

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13. (p. 32) The first requirement in Maslow's hierarchy to be met is A. safety needs. B. self-esteem needs. C. belonging and love. D. physiological needs.

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14. (p. 32) According to Maslow, spirituality, creativity, and curiosity are considered A. metaneeds. B. basic needs. C. essential needs. D. fundamental needs.

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15. (p. 32) Your friend Walter recently lost his job and his apartment. He is living temporarily with his parents and seems quite cynical. According to Maslow's theory, what would be the best way you could help him start to rebuild his self-esteem? A. Help Walter find a job and a place to live. B. Direct Walter's attention to transcendent things. C. Take Walter out to dinner so that he can forget his troubles for a while. D. Introduce Walter to a young woman you think would find him attractive.

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16. (p. 33) According to the authors, which of the following is seen as one of the MOST important traits of a creative person? A. nonconformity B. persistence C. independence D. curiosity

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17. (p. 33) People who are creative tend to possess which of the following characteristics A. confidence. B. persistence. C. humor. D. spirituality.

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18. (p. 33) Which of the following people is MOST likely to be labeled creative? One who A. is not detail oriented. B. is always very well organized. C. likes to solve problems. D. likes to be in charge.

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19. (p. 33) An important benefit of spirituality is that it A. keeps you humble. B. discourages the use of drugs. C. has been found to increase your psychological wellness. D. provides a basis on which to judge the behavior of others.

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20. (p. 32) People with spiritual health A. tend to be self-absorbed. B. seek meaning and purpose in their lives. C. tend to be anxious individuals. D. tend to be egocentric.

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21. (p. 34) One of the benefits of mindfulness is that it enables you to A. plan your day without interruptions. B. accept yourself and your experience. C. complete a simple chore. D. concentrate on your breathing.

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22. (p. 37) Pessimism and low self-esteem tend to result from A. personalization. B. permanence. C. pervasiveness. D. learned helplessness.

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23. (p. 36) When an individual views a task as being hard, anticipates failing at that task, and subsequently performs poorly, they are experiencing which of the following A. permanence B. pessimism C. low self-esteem D. learned helplessness

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24. (p. 37) When you personalize events, you A. blame oneself and have an internal explanatory style for negative events. B. blame others and have an external explanatory style for negative events. C. see yourself the way others see you. D. change how you view the world.

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25. (p. 39) Which of the following chemicals is said to be deficient in people with depression? A. melatonin B. ACTH C. beta endorphins D. serotonin

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26. (p. 39) Your roommate Celine is normally an active person, but over the last two weeks she has remained in the apartment for several days. She won't talk to her friends when they call, and she seems to have no appetite. Celine is most likely suffering from A. schizophrenia. B. bipolar disorder. C. clinical depression. D. general anxiety disorder.

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27. (p. 40) The drug Prozac is A. most commonly used to treat bipolar disorder. B. highly effective, but also known for its many side effects. C. a highly effective antidepressant. D. being replaced in most cases by newer, more effective medications.

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28. (p. 41) Ellen is always moody and tired most days between late December and early April. She is most likely suffering from A. seasonal affective disorder. B. primary depression. C. major depression. D. dysthymia.

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29. (p. 41) Common symptoms of seasonal affective disorder include which of the following? A. increased sex drive B. fatigue C. weight loss D. insomnia

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30. (p. 42) Which of the following is TRUE regarding suicide? A. Suicide is the leading cause of death for young adults 15-to-24 years old. B. Asian Americans are the highest risk group to complete suicide. C. Women tend to use more lethal methods to commit suicide than men. D. Suicide occurs more often among middle-aged Americans.

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31. (p. 42) Bipolar disorder was previously known as A. major depression. B. manic depression. C. dysthymic depression. D. obsessive-compulsive disorder.

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32. (p. 42) Mel was recently found on a rooftop claiming that he could fly. The next time you saw him, he did not even get out of bed, claiming he was worthless and would be better off dead. Several days later, police catch Mel driving at high speeds in the wrong direction on a freeway. Mel's behavior is most characteristic of A. bipolar disorder. B. major depression. C. general anxiety disorder. D. obsessive compulsive disorder.

Focus - Chapter 02 #32

33. (p. 42) Which of the following statements about suicide in the United States is MOST accurate? A. Suicide is more a problem of the elderly than of young people. B. Suicidal tendencies are distinctly different from other emotional disorders. C. Suicidal symptoms include feelings of depression and helplessness. D. Suicidal symptoms are hard to identify because they are usually well hidden.

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34. (p. 42) Which of the following is NOT a risk factor associated with suicidal behavior? A. having little or no support system B. possessing a firearm C. having a problem with drugs or alcohol D. being easily distracted and irritated

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35. (p. 43) Bipolar disorder is MOST commonly treated with A. drug therapy and psychotherapy. B. shock therapy and lithium. C. counseling only. D. family and group therapy.

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36. (p. 43) Your friend Sue is talking about committing suicide. Which intervention strategy should you use to help her? You should A. assume she is not serious and change the topic of discussion. B. avoid the subject completely because it might upset her more. C. stay with her until you can get further assistance. D. argue with her that things are not that bad.

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37. (p. 45) Charlyce is always tired, tense, overreacts, and is always fearful things will go wrong. Her behavior is most characteristic of A. acrophobia. B. bipolar disorder. C. a panic disorder. D. generalized anxiety disorder.

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38. (p. 45) Which of the following statements about generalized anxiety disorder is MOST accurate? A. People with this disorder can easily mask their symptoms. B. People with this disorder tend to be lethargic and unresponsive to others. C. People with this disorder appear to worry all the time about everything. D. People treated for this disorder are typically cured.

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39. (p. 45) Carey has experienced intense and frequent bouts of excessive worrying over everything for the past six months. She is an individual with A. panic disorder. B. generalized anxiety disorder. C. agoraphobia. D. post-traumatic stress disorder.

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40. (p. 43-45) An emotional episode that features rapid pulse, heavy sweating, shortness of breath, nausea, and the feeling of being out of control is probably a(n) A. panic attack. B. defense reaction. C. obsessive-compulsive episode. D. endogenous-depression episode.

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41. (p. 43-45) Which of the following is FALSE regarding panic disorders? A. Many panic disorder sufferers feel as if they are about to die or are losing control. B. A panic attack could last a few minutes or a few hours. C. Symptoms of a panic attack can mirror that of a heart attack. D. Sufferers generally perform repetitive behaviors to reduce the panic attack.

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42. (p. 44) The MOST effective treatment for panic disorders is A. drug therapy. B. counseling. C. stress management techniques. D. all of the above choices.

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43. (p. 43-45) A person who does unreasonable things like constantly washing his hands or constantly checking door locks is MOST likely showing signs of A. major depression. B. suicidal tendencies. C. dysthymic depression. D. obsessive-compulsive disorder.

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44. (p. 44) Aleesha was suffering from obsessive-compulsive disorder, but recently has been doing much better. Which of the following is MOST likely? She A. underwent microsurgery. B. underwent shock therapy. C. was removed from her old environment. D. is receiving behavioral and drug therapy.

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45. (p. 45) Michael believes he was kidnapped by aliens. He said he reported his kidnapping to the FBI, but they ignored him. Much of his conversation is impossible to understand. Michael is MOST likely suffering from A. schizophrenia. B. panic disorder. C. general anxiety disorder. D. obsessive-compulsive disorder.

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46. (p. 45) One of the defining characteristics of schizophrenia is A. the repetition of meaningless behaviors. B. profound distortions in one's personality. C. a tendency to argue with everyone. D. suicidal impulses.

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47. (p. 45) Which of the following statements about the treatment of schizophrenia is MOST accurate? A. New techniques in psychotherapy have made treatments very effective. B. Recent advances in drug therapy have made treatments very effective. C. Most forms of the disorder respond to treatment similarly. D. There is no cure for schizophrenia.

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48. (p. 46) Unlike other mental health professionals, psychiatrists are A. medical doctors. B. holders of doctorate degrees. C. qualified to practice psychotherapy. D. grouped according to their subspecialties.

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49. (p. 46) Biological and medical interventions are used by A. counselors. B. psychiatrists. C. psychologists. D. psychiatric social workers.

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50. (p. 46) Which of the following mental health care providers has a doctoral-level degree in counseling or clinical psychology? A. counselor B. psychiatrist C. psychologist D. social worker

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51. (p. 46) Which of the following is TRUE regarding counselors? They A. can write prescriptions for their patients. B. treat psychological disorders using behavioral therapy. C. tend to focus less on talking about a patient's problem. D. can specialize in areas such as substance abuse treatment, marriage and family therapy, and vocational rehabilitation.

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52. (p. 46) Psychodynamic therapy is based upon the belief that A. faulty thinking patterns are the root of all problems. B. treatment must focus on changing an individual's thoughts. C. effective treatment must focus on psychological forces underlying a patient's problems. D. effective treatment is based upon the learned optimism paradigm.

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53. (p. 46) The therapy that is based upon the belief that people, left to their own devices, will naturally grow in positive and constructive ways is termed A. humanistic therapy. B. solution-based therapy. C. cognitive therapy. D. naturalistic therapy.

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54. (p. 46) Which of the following is TRUE regarding behavior therapy? A. The therapy sessions are very expensive. B. It focuses on the person's childhood years only. C. It is a form of client-centered therapy. D. It focuses on behavior modification rather than one's thoughts.

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55. (p. 46) Which form of therapy is especially effective in treating anxiety, eating, and mood disorders? A. behavioral therapy B. cognitive-behavioral therapy C. dynamic therapy D. group therapy

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56. (p. 46) Which of the following BEST describes cognitive-behavioral therapy? It A. focuses on changing thoughts in order to change a behavior. B. features probing the unconscious mind for solutions to problems. C. uses peer education to help discover solutions to problems. D. features "acting out" one's emotions to dispel them.

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57. (p. 46) In which type of therapy are clients encouraged to envision a future in which their problems are no longer a dominant force in their lives? A. dynamic B. supportive C. behavioral D. solution-focused

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58. (p. 46) Which of the following statements about group therapy is MOST accurate? It A. is less effective than one-on-one types of therapy. B. is not a technique in itself, only an alternative to individual therapy. C. is an effective approach for group members to understand one another's experiences and support one another. D. is least effective in treating problems such as chemical dependency and eating disorders.

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59. (p. 34-35) Techniques such as posture, eye contact, and facial expression are important components in nonverbal communication. TRUE

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60. (p. 32) The highest level in Maslow's hierarchy of needs is belonging and love. FALSE

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61. (p. 32) Maslow proposed that our "metaneeds" must be satisfied before our "basic needs." FALSE

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62. (p. 33) In general, highly creative people tend to have wide range of interests and a broad base of knowledge. TRUE

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63. (p. 33) Creative people are very concerned with what other people think of them. FALSE

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64. (p. 36) Learned helplessness is a theory explaining how individuals can learn how to feel powerless and defeated. TRUE

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65. (p. 36) Pervasiveness refers to whether you perceive events as specific or general. TRUE

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66. (p. 37) Pessimism and low self-esteem tend to come from blaming others and having an external explanatory style for negative events. FALSE

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67. (p. 40) The most effective treatment for depression is a combination of counseling and medication. TRUE

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68. (p. 41) Women commit suicide four times more often than men do. FALSE

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69. (p. 44) Anxiety disorders include obsessive-compulsive disorder, post-traumatic stress disorder, and panic disorder. TRUE

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70. (p. 44) Anxiety disorders are difficult to treat successfully. FALSE

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71. (p. 43) Fear of having a panic attack may cause individuals to stay confined to their home. TRUE

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72. (p. 45) Social phobia is characterized by feelings of extreme dread and embarrassment in situations where one has to speak in public. TRUE

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73. (p. 45) Schizophrenia and multiple personality disorder are similar mental illnesses. FALSE

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74. (p. 46) A psychologist is also a medical doctor. FALSE

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75. (p. 46) Behavior therapy is also known as supportive therapy. FALSE

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76. (p. 46) Behavior therapy is especially effective for treatment of anxiety disorders such as phobias. TRUE

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77. (p. 46) Psychodynamic therapy is used to uncover childhood experiences that underlie an individual's current problems. TRUE

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78. (p. 46) Solution-focused therapy helps clients change by dwelling on problems rather than looking for an answer to their problems. FALSE

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79. (p. 48) Marital counseling, conflict mediation, and divorce counseling are all certified specialties in couples and family therapy. TRUE

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80. (p. 45) Ritalin has been effective in the treatment of schizophrenia. FALSE

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81. (p. 31) Define self-concept and self-esteem, and describe the relationship between the two. Self-concept is the mental picture of yourself based on your assessment of your inner qualities and outward behavior. Self-esteem is the feeling you have about your worth and is based on your acceptance of and satisfaction with your self-concept.

Focus - Chapter 02 #81

82. (p. 35) List the techniques for effectively managing conflict. 1) Listen to and acknowledge the other person's point of view, even if it differs from your own. This will allow the other person to know that you are listening and allows you to repeat back what you may have heard or misinterpreted. 2) Use assertive communication that includes "I" statements. Using "I" instead of "You" statements helps to defuse potential conflicts by not putting the other person on the defensive. 3) Focus not just on what you say, but how you say it. The volume and tone of your voice can cause the other person to raise his or her voice, creating a shouting match. 4) Acknowledging the other person's feelings validates how the other person is feeling and can defuse further escalation of the conflict. 5) Be aware of your body posture. Folding your arms can send a defensive message. Maintain eye contact and make sure your nonverbal actions match your verbal message. 6) Accept valid criticism. If you have made a mistake contributing to the conflict, take ownership. This will pave the way for others to take responsibility for their part in the conflict. 7) Focus on the problem at hand by staying on track about the present situation. 8) Take a team approach by engaging in mutual problem-solving. Find a middle ground so both parties attain a win-win paradigm via compromise. 9) Agree to disagree. You both can agree that there may be more than one answer and that you will not change the other person's point of view. 10) Agree to discuss this at a later time. When the conversation becomes too volatile or heated, take some time to calm down and revisit the conflict at another time.

Focus - Chapter 02 #82

83. (p. 33) Describe the connection between emotional health and creativity. There is a positive correlation between emotional health and creativity. Many of the hallmarks, such as independent thinking, motivation, problem-solving, and persistence, are also signs of emotional maturity. Allowing yourself to express your thoughts, feelings, and individuality in a creative manner entails having self-confidence, self-esteem, and flexibility.

Focus - Chapter 02 #83

84. (p. 45) Describe the basic attributes of schizophrenia. Schizophrenia is marked by the deterioration of one's personality and ability to function from day to day. It occurs in different forms and levels of severity, and effects 1% of the population. The symptoms include behaviors that seem out of touch with reality, such as having delusions, hallucinations, incoherent speech, and a lack of normal responsiveness to others.

Focus - Chapter 02 #84

85. (p. 29-30) Discuss the mind-body connection in terms of the psychological and physical health of the individual. There is an important mind-body connection in terms of your psychological health having a significant impact on your physical health, and vice versa. Stress, depression, and anxiety have been associated with how the immune system responds and can impair physical health. Studies have shown that terminally ill cancer patients who had good psychological health lived longer lives and reported having a higher quality of life than did other cancer patients.

Focus - Chapter 02 #85

Chap 02 Summary Category

# of Questions

Focus - Chapter 02

85

Chap 03 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. Which of the following is TRUE regarding stress? A. It refers to physiological and emotional responses to an insignificant change in one's life. B. Patients suffering from it have varied and unexpected symptoms. C. It is almost always a response to a negative event. D. It is a physiological or psychological response to a significant or unexpected change or disruption in one's life.

2. The sequence involving the alarm, resistance, and exhaustion stages of the stress response is referred to as the A. general stress response. B. general adaptation syndrome. C. general response syndrome. D. toxic shock syndrome.

3. The biggest factor in determining whether you experience stress as positive or negative is A. how you respond to it. B. whether you were expecting it. C. whether it involves physical pain. D. whether the stressor is physical or emotional.

4. Selye used the term eustress to describe A. the most unpleasant form of stress. B. the first stage in the stress reaction. C. stress resulting from pleasant events in one's life. D. stress whose onset is delayed following exposure to a stressor.

5. Long-lasting stress or experiencing multiple stressors simultaneously A. enhances the body's immune system. B. has little effect on overall health. C. increases one's quality of life. D. compromises the immune system.

6. Selye's term for stress resulting from unpleasant events or conditions is called A. terminal stress. B. constress. C. anastress. D. distress.

7. Which of the following is TRUE? A. Negative stressors weaken body systems, while positive stressors do not. B. Positive stressors have cardiovascular benefits, while negative stressors do not. C. The heart rate is more elevated when a stressor is negative than when it is positive. D. The physiological reaction to stress is similar whether a stressor is positive or negative.

8. At its most basic, the purpose of the stress response is to enable the body to deal with A. unanticipated conflicts only. B. perceived threats and dangers. C. other people's problems. D. personal responsibilities.

9. The fight or flight response occurs during which stage of Selye's general adaptation syndrome? A. alarm B. recovery C. resistance D. exhaustion

10. Juwan always gets sweaty palms and a rapid heartbeat before a wrestling match, even though he loves wrestling. Which of the following BEST explains his physical reactions? A. Juwan's subconscious is telling him not to wrestle. B. His body is preparing for the fight or flight response. C. His reactions are abnormal for a veteran wrestler; he should see a physician. D. Juwan's body is automatically preparing for the match.

11. At what point in the stress response is something perceived as a stressor? A. when the brain decides that it is a stressor B. when the endocrine system releases epinephrine C. when it is first detected by the central nervous system D. when the heart rate has increased 50 percent over the resting heart rate

12. Which of the following is needed by the body to free up energy stores in response to stress? A. epinephrine B. ACTH C. cortisol D. adrenaline

13. Selye's general adaptation syndrome refers to A. how the body typically reacts to stressors. B. the body's tendency to fatigue upon continued exposure to a stressor. C. a condition in which the body is no longer able to respond to stressors. D. the body's response to repeated negative stressors.

14. The body's attempt to reestablish internal equilibrium occurs in which stage of Selye's general adaptation syndrome? A. alarm B. recovery C. resistance D. exhaustion

15. The three stages of Selye's general adaptation syndrome, in order, are A. alarm, resistance, recovery. B. alarm, reception, resistance. C. alarm, resistance, exhaustion. D. reception, resistance, recovery.

16. The purpose of the second stage in Selye's general adaptation syndrome is to A. explain how prolonged stress eventually causes body systems to break down. B. lower the intensity of the body's initial reaction to the stressor. C. increase hormonal and nervous system functions. D. prepare the body for the fight or flight response.

17. What is the name of the body structure that initiates the stress response for the hormonal and nervous systems? A. adrenal gland B. hypothalamus C. pituitary gland D. cerebral cortex

18. The hormone that prepares the body for the stress response by increasing metabolic rate, heart rate, and muscular tension, is called A. ACTH. B. glycogen. C. epinephrine. D. pituitary hormone.

19. The basic role of the alarm stage in the stress response is to A. prevent the onset of exhaustion. B. trigger the fight-or-flight response. C. restore equilibrium as soon as possible. D. protect the body from chronic stress.

20. Epinephrine is secreted from the A. cerebral cortex. B. pituitary gland. C. adrenal glands. D. hypothalamus.

21. Which of the following is the BEST example of a stressor? A. John breaking into a sweat after a bad scare B. Tomas pulling his hand away from a hot stove C. Margo starting a new job D. Seymore tapping his pencil nervously during an important test

22. Tina had a hard first week in her stressful job. In subsequent weeks, she learned to cope with the pressure; now, however, she has begun to suffer from stress-related illnesses. According to Selye's general adaptation syndrome, why is this happening to Tina? A. Selye's model does not address this situation. B. Tina never actually learned to cope with the pressure. C. Tina's body's ability to cope with the pressure is getting exhausted. D. The illnesses began during the first week, but the symptoms were masked.

23. Which of the following is TRUE about stress and immune system function? A. Prolonged stress diminishes the immune response. B. Early in the stress response, white blood cell activity is suppressed. C. Frequent exposure to stressors can strengthen the immune system. D. Frequent exposure to stressors builds an immunity to stress.

24. Of the following, which is NOT a problem commonly associated with stress? A. Cardiovascular problems B. Gastrointestinal problems C. Jaw problems D. Joint pain

25. What role does negative stress play in disease process? Stress A. does not cause disease, it simply makes disease symptoms worse. B. weakens the body, making it more susceptible to disease. C. stimulates the proliferation of viruses in a host. D. has no role in disease transmission.

26. Clare has been under stress for the last three weeks. Which of the following is she likely to experience? A. nasal drip B. difficulty sleeping C. rapid digestion D. excess salivation

27. Which of the following is TRUE regarding how stress impacts the physical aspect of the body? A. Stress impacts your psychological health more than your physical health. B. The more stressed you are, the better physically you are able to cope with stress. C. Stress can cause your immune system to be compromised. D. Constant exposure to stress causes the stress reaction to occur less often.

28. A moderate level of stress in our lives A. would still produce stress related illnesses. B. is positive and beneficial. C. would increase absenteeism in the workplace. D. would cause industrial accidents to increase.

29. The bell-shaped curve demonstrating that there is an optimal level of stress for peak performance is the A. Yerkes-Dodson Law. B. Performance Stressor Curve. C. Youngly-Starr Law. D. Kelly-Smith Law.

30. Janie has been away at school for a month and is beginning to feel homesick. What strategy can she use to combat this feeling? She should A. go home every weekend. B. decide that living away is not for her and move home. C. get involved with social activities at her school. D. take a more vested interest in academic work to help pass the time.

31. Alicia has a child and is trying to balance school, work, and her child. What advice do the authors suggest for her? She A. should drop out of school until her child is old enough to start preschool. B. needs to manage her time well and have a strong support system. C. should cut back on her classes she takes at school. D. should ask her employer for a raise to cover day care expenses so she will have more time for her other responsibilities.

32. You have studied for the test and feel you are prepared. You look at the first question and suddenly your mind goes blank. The harder you try to think, the more stressed you get. You are experiencing A. sudden cognitive stress syndrome. B. academic paralysis of analysis. C. test anxiety. D. poor test preparation anxiety.

33. Your professor has assigned an oral presentation that is a significant proportion of your grade. Although you must present it at the end of the semester, you are already getting anxious. What should you do to help cope with your speech anxiety? A. Wait to the last minute to prepare; that way, you don't have to worry about it now. B. Volunteer to go last; that way, maybe your professor will cut you a break. C. Tell the professor you have a fear of public speaking. D. Practice frequently in front of a mirror and in front of your friends.

34. Joshua recently graduated from college, but has been unable to find a job. He currently lives at home with his parents and siblings. His father was recently laid off, and the family has been unable to keep up on their expenses. Things are tense around the house. What is the major source of stress for Joshua and his family? A. relationship problems B. academics C. the economy D. technology

35. One of the procedures your text recommends for managing your time is to A. get out of bed earlier. B. analyze how you are spending your time. C. divide your time into five-minute blocks. D. try to get a start on several new activities daily.

36. Keith fits his studies into whatever time slots are open in a day. He is not happy with his grades. What must he do FIRST to improve his studies? He must A. cut back on recreation. B. ask his instructor for help. C. determine how much time he really spends studying. D. group his current study periods into fewer, larger blocks.

37. An individual procrastinates because he or she A. is lazy and unmotivated. B. has too much time on his or her hands. C. is able to perform better on a task if he or she waits. D. is delaying the task because he or she dreads doing it.

38. Which of the following is FALSE regarding perfectionists? They A. tend to be stressed individuals. B. tend to be their own worse critics. C. focus on what they have accomplished. D. have difficulty with criticism or negative feedback.

39. The goal of coping techniques is to A. resolve your problems and alleviate stress. B. eliminate stressors. C. reduce the body's reactions to stressors. D. change negative stressors to positive stressors.

40. Which of the following is TRUE regarding sleep and stress? A. Sleeping too much is an effective stress management technique. B. Getting too little sleep has virtually no effect on stress. C. Normal circadian rhythms are important aspects to effective stress management. D. Sleeping 12-14 hours significantly reduces the amount of stress you have.

41. Which of the following best describes why exercise is an effective stress management technique? A. Exercise allows you to exert maximum effort that reduces stress. B. Exercise can alleviate stress through the release of endorphins. C. Aerobic exercise requires shallow breathing, which is the key to stress management. D. Exercise increases the amount of adrenalin released that reduces the stress response.

42. Which of the following coping techniques is based on detecting the difference between contracted and relaxed muscles? A. progressive muscle relaxation B. the relaxation response C. self-hypnosis D. quieting

43. ACTH is produced by the pituitary gland for the purpose of stimulating adrenal gland secretions. True False

44. The third stage of Selye's general adaptation syndrome occurs when all the psychological and physical resources we rely on to deal with stress are used up. True False

45. A relationship exists between stress and some illnesses. True False

46. Muscular tension is a common problem under prolonged stress. True False

47. Homesickness is one of the least common problems facing college students. True False

48. Balancing work, home, and school are common stressors among college students. True False

49. Some techniques for combating procrastination involve time management, stress management, and assertiveness training. True False

50. Some negative ways of dealing with stress include using alcohol and drugs. True False

51. Exercise can reduce stress. True False

52. Describe the body's response to stress and the conditions that bring about the change.

53. Describe the similarities and differences between positive stress and negative stress.

54. Describe a time management procedure.

55. Name the stages of Selye's general adaptation syndrome, and briefly describe each stage.

56. It has been speculated that the messages of the media may make Americans more anxious. How does the media "sell" anxiety?

57. Summarize the relationship between stress and learning.

58. Describe how sleep contributes to your overall health. List some ways to promote sound sleep.

Chap 03 Key

1. (p. 50) Which of the following is TRUE regarding stress? A. It refers to physiological and emotional responses to an insignificant change in one's life. B. Patients suffering from it have varied and unexpected symptoms. C. It is almost always a response to a negative event. D. It is a physiological or psychological response to a significant or unexpected change or disruption in one's life.

Focus - Chapter 03 #1

2. (p. 51, 53) The sequence involving the alarm, resistance, and exhaustion stages of the stress response is referred to as the A. general stress response. B. general adaptation syndrome. C. general response syndrome. D. toxic shock syndrome.

Focus - Chapter 03 #2

3. (p. 51) The biggest factor in determining whether you experience stress as positive or negative is A. how you respond to it. B. whether you were expecting it. C. whether it involves physical pain. D. whether the stressor is physical or emotional.

Focus - Chapter 03 #3

4. (p. 50, 51) Selye used the term eustress to describe A. the most unpleasant form of stress. B. the first stage in the stress reaction. C. stress resulting from pleasant events in one's life. D. stress whose onset is delayed following exposure to a stressor.

Focus - Chapter 03 #4

5. (p. 53) Long-lasting stress or experiencing multiple stressors simultaneously A. enhances the body's immune system. B. has little effect on overall health. C. increases one's quality of life. D. compromises the immune system.

Focus - Chapter 03 #5

6. (p. 50, 51) Selye's term for stress resulting from unpleasant events or conditions is called A. terminal stress. B. constress. C. anastress. D. distress.

Focus - Chapter 03 #6

7. (p. 50) Which of the following is TRUE? A. Negative stressors weaken body systems, while positive stressors do not. B. Positive stressors have cardiovascular benefits, while negative stressors do not. C. The heart rate is more elevated when a stressor is negative than when it is positive. D. The physiological reaction to stress is similar whether a stressor is positive or negative.

Focus - Chapter 03 #7

8. (p. 51) At its most basic, the purpose of the stress response is to enable the body to deal with A. unanticipated conflicts only. B. perceived threats and dangers. C. other people's problems. D. personal responsibilities.

Focus - Chapter 03 #8

9. (p. 53) The fight or flight response occurs during which stage of Selye's general adaptation syndrome? A. alarm B. recovery C. resistance D. exhaustion

Focus - Chapter 03 #9

10. (p. 51-53) Juwan always gets sweaty palms and a rapid heartbeat before a wrestling match, even though he loves wrestling. Which of the following BEST explains his physical reactions? A. Juwan's subconscious is telling him not to wrestle. B. His body is preparing for the fight or flight response. C. His reactions are abnormal for a veteran wrestler; he should see a physician. D. Juwan's body is automatically preparing for the match.

Focus - Chapter 03 #10

11. (p. 56) At what point in the stress response is something perceived as a stressor? A. when the brain decides that it is a stressor B. when the endocrine system releases epinephrine C. when it is first detected by the central nervous system D. when the heart rate has increased 50 percent over the resting heart rate

Focus - Chapter 03 #11

12. (p. 55) Which of the following is needed by the body to free up energy stores in response to stress? A. epinephrine B. ACTH C. cortisol D. adrenaline

Focus - Chapter 03 #12

13. (p. 50, 53) Selye's general adaptation syndrome refers to A. how the body typically reacts to stressors. B. the body's tendency to fatigue upon continued exposure to a stressor. C. a condition in which the body is no longer able to respond to stressors. D. the body's response to repeated negative stressors.

Focus - Chapter 03 #13

14. (p. 53) The body's attempt to reestablish internal equilibrium occurs in which stage of Selye's general adaptation syndrome? A. alarm B. recovery C. resistance D. exhaustion

Focus - Chapter 03 #14

15. (p. 53) The three stages of Selye's general adaptation syndrome, in order, are A. alarm, resistance, recovery. B. alarm, reception, resistance. C. alarm, resistance, exhaustion. D. reception, resistance, recovery.

Focus - Chapter 03 #15

16. (p. 53) The purpose of the second stage in Selye's general adaptation syndrome is to A. explain how prolonged stress eventually causes body systems to break down. B. lower the intensity of the body's initial reaction to the stressor. C. increase hormonal and nervous system functions. D. prepare the body for the fight or flight response.

Focus - Chapter 03 #16

17. (p. 54) What is the name of the body structure that initiates the stress response for the hormonal and nervous systems? A. adrenal gland B. hypothalamus C. pituitary gland D. cerebral cortex

Focus - Chapter 03 #17

18. (p. 54) The hormone that prepares the body for the stress response by increasing metabolic rate, heart rate, and muscular tension, is called A. ACTH. B. glycogen. C. epinephrine. D. pituitary hormone.

Focus - Chapter 03 #18

19. (p. 53) The basic role of the alarm stage in the stress response is to A. prevent the onset of exhaustion. B. trigger the fight-or-flight response. C. restore equilibrium as soon as possible. D. protect the body from chronic stress.

Focus - Chapter 03 #19

20. (p. 54) Epinephrine is secreted from the A. cerebral cortex. B. pituitary gland. C. adrenal glands. D. hypothalamus.

Focus - Chapter 03 #20

21. (p. 56) Which of the following is the BEST example of a stressor? A. John breaking into a sweat after a bad scare B. Tomas pulling his hand away from a hot stove C. Margo starting a new job D. Seymore tapping his pencil nervously during an important test

Focus - Chapter 03 #21

22. (p. 53) Tina had a hard first week in her stressful job. In subsequent weeks, she learned to cope with the pressure; now, however, she has begun to suffer from stress-related illnesses. According to Selye's general adaptation syndrome, why is this happening to Tina? A. Selye's model does not address this situation. B. Tina never actually learned to cope with the pressure. C. Tina's body's ability to cope with the pressure is getting exhausted. D. The illnesses began during the first week, but the symptoms were masked.

Focus - Chapter 03 #22

23. (p. 53) Which of the following is TRUE about stress and immune system function? A. Prolonged stress diminishes the immune response. B. Early in the stress response, white blood cell activity is suppressed. C. Frequent exposure to stressors can strengthen the immune system. D. Frequent exposure to stressors builds an immunity to stress.

Focus - Chapter 03 #23

24. (p. 53) Of the following, which is NOT a problem commonly associated with stress? A. Cardiovascular problems B. Gastrointestinal problems C. Jaw problems D. Joint pain

Focus - Chapter 03 #24

25. (p. 53, 55) What role does negative stress play in disease process? Stress A. does not cause disease, it simply makes disease symptoms worse. B. weakens the body, making it more susceptible to disease. C. stimulates the proliferation of viruses in a host. D. has no role in disease transmission.

Focus - Chapter 03 #25

26. (p. 51, 53) Clare has been under stress for the last three weeks. Which of the following is she likely to experience? A. nasal drip B. difficulty sleeping C. rapid digestion D. excess salivation

Focus - Chapter 03 #26

27. (p. 53-55) Which of the following is TRUE regarding how stress impacts the physical aspect of the body? A. Stress impacts your psychological health more than your physical health. B. The more stressed you are, the better physically you are able to cope with stress. C. Stress can cause your immune system to be compromised. D. Constant exposure to stress causes the stress reaction to occur less often.

Focus - Chapter 03 #27

28. (p. 55) A moderate level of stress in our lives A. would still produce stress related illnesses. B. is positive and beneficial. C. would increase absenteeism in the workplace. D. would cause industrial accidents to increase.

Focus - Chapter 03 #28

29. (p. 55) The bell-shaped curve demonstrating that there is an optimal level of stress for peak performance is the A. Yerkes-Dodson Law. B. Performance Stressor Curve. C. Youngly-Starr Law. D. Kelly-Smith Law.

Focus - Chapter 03 #29

30. (p. 57) Janie has been away at school for a month and is beginning to feel homesick. What strategy can she use to combat this feeling? She should A. go home every weekend. B. decide that living away is not for her and move home. C. get involved with social activities at her school. D. take a more vested interest in academic work to help pass the time.

Focus - Chapter 03 #30

31. (p. 57) Alicia has a child and is trying to balance school, work, and her child. What advice do the authors suggest for her? She A. should drop out of school until her child is old enough to start preschool. B. needs to manage her time well and have a strong support system. C. should cut back on her classes she takes at school. D. should ask her employer for a raise to cover day care expenses so she will have more time for her other responsibilities.

Focus - Chapter 03 #31

32. (p. 57-58) You have studied for the test and feel you are prepared. You look at the first question and suddenly your mind goes blank. The harder you try to think, the more stressed you get. You are experiencing A. sudden cognitive stress syndrome. B. academic paralysis of analysis. C. test anxiety. D. poor test preparation anxiety.

Focus - Chapter 03 #32

33. (p. 58) Your professor has assigned an oral presentation that is a significant proportion of your grade. Although you must present it at the end of the semester, you are already getting anxious. What should you do to help cope with your speech anxiety? A. Wait to the last minute to prepare; that way, you don't have to worry about it now. B. Volunteer to go last; that way, maybe your professor will cut you a break. C. Tell the professor you have a fear of public speaking. D. Practice frequently in front of a mirror and in front of your friends.

Focus - Chapter 03 #33

34. (p. 60) Joshua recently graduated from college, but has been unable to find a job. He currently lives at home with his parents and siblings. His father was recently laid off, and the family has been unable to keep up on their expenses. Things are tense around the house. What is the major source of stress for Joshua and his family? A. relationship problems B. academics C. the economy D. technology

Focus - Chapter 03 #34

35. (p. 67) One of the procedures your text recommends for managing your time is to A. get out of bed earlier. B. analyze how you are spending your time. C. divide your time into five-minute blocks. D. try to get a start on several new activities daily.

Focus - Chapter 03 #35

36. (p. 67) Keith fits his studies into whatever time slots are open in a day. He is not happy with his grades. What must he do FIRST to improve his studies? He must A. cut back on recreation. B. ask his instructor for help. C. determine how much time he really spends studying. D. group his current study periods into fewer, larger blocks.

Focus - Chapter 03 #36

37. (p. 68) An individual procrastinates because he or she A. is lazy and unmotivated. B. has too much time on his or her hands. C. is able to perform better on a task if he or she waits. D. is delaying the task because he or she dreads doing it.

Focus - Chapter 03 #37

38. (p. 68) Which of the following is FALSE regarding perfectionists? They A. tend to be stressed individuals. B. tend to be their own worse critics. C. focus on what they have accomplished. D. have difficulty with criticism or negative feedback.

Focus - Chapter 03 #38

39. (p. 61) The goal of coping techniques is to A. resolve your problems and alleviate stress. B. eliminate stressors. C. reduce the body's reactions to stressors. D. change negative stressors to positive stressors.

Focus - Chapter 03 #39

40. (p. 61-62) Which of the following is TRUE regarding sleep and stress? A. Sleeping too much is an effective stress management technique. B. Getting too little sleep has virtually no effect on stress. C. Normal circadian rhythms are important aspects to effective stress management. D. Sleeping 12-14 hours significantly reduces the amount of stress you have.

Focus - Chapter 03 #40

41. (p. 62) Which of the following best describes why exercise is an effective stress management technique? A. Exercise allows you to exert maximum effort that reduces stress. B. Exercise can alleviate stress through the release of endorphins. C. Aerobic exercise requires shallow breathing, which is the key to stress management. D. Exercise increases the amount of adrenalin released that reduces the stress response.

Focus - Chapter 03 #41

42. (p. 64-65) Which of the following coping techniques is based on detecting the difference between contracted and relaxed muscles? A. progressive muscle relaxation B. the relaxation response C. self-hypnosis D. quieting

Focus - Chapter 03 #42

43. (p. 54) ACTH is produced by the pituitary gland for the purpose of stimulating adrenal gland secretions. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 03 #43

44. (p. 53) The third stage of Selye's general adaptation syndrome occurs when all the psychological and physical resources we rely on to deal with stress are used up. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 03 #44

45. (p. 56) A relationship exists between stress and some illnesses. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 03 #45

46. (p. 53) Muscular tension is a common problem under prolonged stress. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 03 #46

47. (p. 56) Homesickness is one of the least common problems facing college students. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 03 #47

48. (p. 56) Balancing work, home, and school are common stressors among college students. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 03 #48

49. (p. 68) Some techniques for combating procrastination involve time management, stress management, and assertiveness training. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 03 #49

50. (p. 61) Some negative ways of dealing with stress include using alcohol and drugs. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 03 #50

51. (p. 62) Exercise can reduce stress. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 03 #51

52. (p. 50) Describe the body's response to stress and the conditions that bring about the change. Stress is the change that occurs to the body in response to demands placed on it. The change is typically both physiological and psychological. A stressor is the event or condition that causes the stress reaction.

Focus - Chapter 03 #52

53. (p. 50) Describe the similarities and differences between positive stress and negative stress. The brain interprets both positive and negative stressors the same way and, as a result, will elicit the same type of initial reaction from the human body. Positive stress, or eustress, is generally not harmful and produces a feeling of exhilaration and well-being. Negative stress, or distress, produces feelings of disturbance and can result in long-term psychological and physiological problems.

Focus - Chapter 03 #53

54. (p. 67) Describe a time management procedure. 1) Record how you use your time. 2) Analyze your current use of time to identify your most productive and least productive times of day and night. 3) Keep a daily planner to schedule your time more effectively. 4) Schedule regular study time, relaxation time, and free time. 5) Set daily, as well as weekly, goals. When something comes up, modify your plans but don't throw out the entire schedule.

Focus - Chapter 03 #54

55. (p. 52-53) Name the stages of Selye's general adaptation syndrome, and briefly describe each stage. 1) Alarm stage: In this stage, there are rapid changes in hormonal and nervous system activity, creating symptoms such as rapid pulse, dry mouth, increased sweating, and muscle tension. 2) Resistance stage: During this stage, there is a reduction in symptoms as the body tries to restore homeostasis. 3) Exhaustion stage: With the continued presence of stressors, the body systems become unable to minimize the stress reaction. This is when chronic and serious illnesses can begin to develop.

Focus - Chapter 03 #55

56. (p. 60) It has been speculated that the messages of the media may make Americans more anxious. How does the media "sell" anxiety? Advertisers try to pressure us to buy their products to feel better, more confident, successful, popular, and happier. In this way, watching television ads, seeing ads on billboards, in magazines, and online can create more stress in our lives.

Focus - Chapter 03 #56

57. (p. 57) Summarize the relationship between stress and learning. Research suggests that stressed individuals tend to perform better on simple learning activities, but less well on reasoning activities and time-limited tests. The evidence appears to indicate that, when stressed or anxious, you have a diminished ability to concentrate, to recall information, and to master problem-solving activities.

Focus - Chapter 03 #57

58. (p. 61-62) Describe how sleep contributes to your overall health. List some ways to promote sound sleep. Sleep is an important component of your overall health, and those who are unable to sleep sufficiently or who are deprived of sleep see a marked deterioration in every dimension of their health. The amount of sleep needed varies among people, but most adults require 7-9 hours of sleep per night. Some ways to promote sound sleep are to take a warm bath before retiring, reading a book, listening to relaxing music, or to eat a light snack of foods high in l-tryptophan (tuna, turkey) and drink a glass of milk.

Focus - Chapter 03 #58

Chap 03 Summary Category

# of Questions

Focus - Chapter 03

58

Chap 04 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. Which of the following will occur when you establish a program of regular aerobic exercise? A. You will lengthen your life. B. Your sense of well-being will improve. C. Your body will become more attractive. D. Your heart and lungs will become stronger.

2. The fitness dimension that is considered basic to whole-body fitness is A. flexibility. B. muscular strength. C. muscular endurance. D. cardiorespiratory endurance.

3. Which of the following, when performed regularly, can most effectively increase the efficiency of your cardiovascular system, improve your circulation, and strengthen your resistance to disease? A. napping B. meditation C. weight lifting D. jogging or brisk walking

4. Physical fitness as defined in your text is A. the ability to engage in vigorous tasks and leisure activities. B. full functionality of all parts of the body. C. the ability to exercise without pain most days of the week. D. a set of attributes that relates to the ability to perform physical activity.

5. Which of the following is TRUE regarding cardiorespiratory endurance? It is A. produced by short bursts of intense movement at regular intervals. B. the ability of the heart and lungs to supply oxygen to the working muscles. C. the ability to perform repeated muscle contractions without fatigue. D. the body's alternative means of energy production when there is insufficient oxygen.

6. When you exercise to the point that the oxygen demands of the muscles cannot be met, your body is using A. the overload state. B. cardiorespiratory endurance. C. aerobic energy production. D. anaerobic energy production.

7. After oxygen deprivation occurs, to continue the activity, your body must use _________ energy production. A. static B. aerobic C. anaerobic D. pulmonary

8. Anaerobic literally means A. without strength. B. without oxygen. C. exhaustion. D. empty.

9. Which of the following is the BEST example of anaerobic activity? A. jogging B. walking C. sprinting D. bicycle touring

10. Which of the following BEST explains why a veteran distance runner can go farther and at a faster pace than a beginning runner? The A. veteran runner has stronger muscles. B. beginning runner's cardiorespiratory system is not as developed as the veteran runner's. C. veteran runner has received more specialized training. D. beginning runner has a less efficient distribution of body weight.

11. Your ability to maintain posture, lift, push, and pull are examples of A. muscular fitness. B. aerobic fitness. C. flexibility fitness. D. agility fitness.

12. Gradually increasing the resistance that muscles have become accustomed to is the basis for the __________ principle. A. inertia B. overload C. anaerobic D. specificity

13. The strength-building exercise method that involves exerting force against immovable objects is called A. isotension. B. isokinetic. C. isometric. D. isotonic.

14. Cybex, Mini-Gym, and Biodex are machines used in which form of resistance training? A. isometric B. isotonic C. isostatic D. isokinetic

15. Dumbbells and barbells are used in which form of strength training? A. isotonic B. ballistic C. isokinetic D. isometric

16. Muscular endurance is BEST developed by increasing A. variety. B. resistance. C. repetitions. D. range of motion.

17. One advantage of isokinetic exercise is that A. it encourages the user to work at maintaining balance while exercising. B. the sound and feel of the exercise projects a "tough" image. C. muscles are overloaded through the entire range of motion. D. it is inexpensive and many individuals can participate.

18. Carolina can move her shoulder joint through her natural range of motion. She has A. a highly developed cardiorespiratory system. B. flexibility at that particular joint. C. good muscular strength. D. muscular endurance at that joint.

19. The BEST combination of effectiveness and low risk for maintaining flexibility is a regular program of A. static stretching. B. ballistic stretching. C. running and walking. D. tai chi chuan or similar discipline.

20. Body composition is an important concern because A. the information helps to identify people who do not exercise. B. of the high incidence of obesity in the United States. C. without body composition data, certain exercises may do more harm than good. D. a body composition assessment should accompany all exercise programs.

21. Cardiorespiratory endurance can best be achieved through all of the following EXCEPT A. rollerblading. B. cross-country skiing. C. skating. D. golf.

22. According to the American College of Sports Medicine (ACSM) recommendations for achieving cardiorespiratory fitness, the mode of activity should be A. intermittent and use mostly small muscles. B. anaerobic in nature and regular intervals. C. activities that develop flexibility. D. any continuous physical activity that uses large muscles.

23. According to the ACSM, which activity would NOT meet the requirement for developing cardiorespiratory fitness? A. cycling B. softball C. dancing D. step training

24. One of the recommendations for helping you to continue with an exercise program is to A. make all components as consistent as possible. B. train in silence to help you concentrate. C. make it enjoyable. D. train alone.

25. To improve your cardiorespiratory fitness, you should exercise at least ____________ times per week. A. two to four B. three to five C. four to seven D. one to five

26. Twenty-year-old Roger wants to begin an exercise program. As a young adult in good health with no weight problems, to achieve significant aerobic conditioning benefits he should try to bring his heart rate during exercise to a sustained level of about ________ beats per minute. A. 220 B. 200 C. 160 D. 130

27. The ACSM recommends that a healthy adult exercise at an intensity level of A. 50 percent of his maximum heart rate. B. between 55 and 80 percent of his maximum heart rate. C. between 40 and 75 percent of his maximum heart rate. D. between 64 and 91 percent of his maximum heart rate.

28. The phenomenon by which aerobic exercise strengthens the heart, lungs, and blood vessels is called A. maximum heart rate. B. the training effect. C. the target heart rate. D. cardiorespiratory fitness.

29. To achieve a training effect, one must exercise at which one of the following intensity levels? A. target heart rate B. maximum heart rate C. minimum heart rate D. 50 percent of maximum heart rate

30. Training at a level above your target heart rate will probably A. endanger your health. B. significantly raise your maximum heart rate. C. produce fatigue before much cardiorespiratory benefit occurs. D. reduce the time needed to improve cardiorespiratory fitness.

31. Which of the following statements about training at a level below your target heart rate is MOST accurate? It will A. burn some extra calories. B. produce no health benefits. C. lower your target heart rate. D. lengthen the time needed to achieve a training effect.

32. Sean is exercising aerobically and wants to determine if he is training in his target heart rate range. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. He should find an easily accessible artery, such as the carotid, to determine heart rate. B. He should feel for his pulse on the inside of his wrist, just above the base of his pinky. C. He should count the number of beats he feels in a fifteen-second period. D. He should wear a heart rate monitor.

33. The ACSM recommends that exercise periods should last at least ________ minutes. A. 20-90 B. 15-30 C. 10-45 D. 40-60

34. The American College of Sports Medicine recognizes resistance training in its fitness guidelines as A. not being recommended for most people. B. important for strengthening the limbs. C. not being important to overall fitness. D. important to achieving overall fitness.

35. According to the ACSM, the goal of resistance training is to A. improve cardiorespiratory endurance. B. improve overall muscle strength and muscle endurance. C. allow an individual to become a competitive lifter. D. improve overall joint flexibility.

36. Robyn wants to increase her flexibility. What recommendation should she follow during stretching? She should A. bounce during each stretch to increase her range of motion. B. hold her breath, then exhale slowly through the stretch. C. warm up with slow, rhythmic movements prior to stretching. D. stretch beyond the point of pain to allow for greater flexibility.

37. Stretching should occur A. before warming up. B. before cooling down. C. after warming up and after cooling down. D. before warming up and before cooling down.

38. One of the main benefits of a cooldown period after exercise is to A. permit the heart to return to a resting state more rapidly. B. reduce the risk of sore muscles. C. reduce the risk of heart attack. D. reduce sweating.

39. Which of the following is TRUE regarding low back pain? A. It tends to happen to many adults. B. It is usually caused by postural problems. C. It usually requires medical intervention. D. It usually is an uncommon occurrence among adults.

40. People between the ages of 45 and 64 most commonly experience which of the following physical changes? A. significant immune suppression issues B. loss of some cognitive functions C. gradual degeneration in joint cartilage D. an inability to maintain an activity at one's target heart rate

41. Which of the following conditions should Sue, who is postmenopausal, be most concerned about? A. a decrease in adipose tissue B. loss of calcium from the bone C. an unsatisfying sexual relationship with her partner D. trouble remembering what day it is

42. Which of the following is TRUE regarding women and calcium? A. Women tend to consume a sufficient amount of calcium. B. Premenopausal women should take the recommended amount of 1,000-1,300 mg of calcium per day. C. Postmenopausal women need to take between 800 and 1,000 mg of calcium per day. D. Along with calcium, women need adequate vitamin E to aid in the absorption of calcium.

43. Although the exact mechanism is unknown, osteoporosis occurs when A. the bones lose calcium. B. women experience menopause. C. undetected fractures spread to other sites in the bone. D. vitamin D is drawn from the bones for use elsewhere in the body.

44. How does exercise help to prevent osteoporosis? It A. maintains flexibility, the loss of which leads to osteoporosis. B. triggers the appetite for calcium-containing foods. C. increases the body's output of estrogen. D. helps to increase calcium deposition in bone.

45. Women who exercise regularly and whose diets include the recommended amounts of calcium and vitamin D will have fewer problems with __________________. A. arthritis B. menopause C. osteoporosis D. joint degeneration

46. Osteoarthritis A. is a form of arthritis that develops as we age. B. is a form of osteoporosis that occurs mainly in men. C. occurs most often in the shoulder and wrist. D. has no genetic predisposition.

47. Scientists now believe that most people's problems with osteoarthritis are caused by A. improper stretching and warm-up prior to exercise. B. injuries that were never allowed to heal properly. C. congenital joint defects. D. inherited tendencies.

48. Your knee begins to ache periodically from arthritis. If you seek medical treatment for it, the doctor's main goal will be to A. make you more comfortable. B. eliminate the cause of the knee pain. C. repair any damage the arthritis has caused. D. prevent the arthritis from spreading to other joints.

49. A lifelong jogger has developed osteoarthritis in his hips. Which of the following is his doctor MOST likely to recommend as initial treatment? A. hip replacement surgery B. anti-inflammatory drugs and continued activity C. painkillers and immobilizing the legs for one to two weeks D. anti-inflammatory drugs and stopping all running and most walking

50. A reduction in the size of muscle fibers, related to the aging process is called A. isokinetic. B. regression. C. sarcopenia. D. isometric.

51. According to the United States Department of Health and Human Services' policy on physical activity, which of the following statements is the most TRUE? A. At least 100 minutes of moderate-intensity physical activity per week can produce major health benefits. B. An equivalent combination of moderate and vigorous physical activity can be used to achieve significant health benefits. C. Fifty minutes of vigorous physical activity per week can produce major health benefits. D. There is no such thing as too much physical activity.

52. What recommendation should Tom, who is 56 years old, follow when beginning an exercise program? A. He should train at the higher end of his target heart rate. B. He should have a complete physical exam that includes a stress test. C. He should begin to exercise by himself after reading a "how to" exercise book. D. His exercise program should focus on physical conditioning.

53. Which of the following fitness programs would be LEAST appropriate for older adults? A. bicycling B. water aerobics C. golf D. full-court basketball

54. You should always see a doctor before starting a new exercise program if you A. have a chronic disease. B. are over 35. C. have not exercised in two years. D. previously suffered an exercise-induced injury.

55. Max enjoys jogging five days per week, but now he often has pain in his knees, despite several shoe changes. He wants to reduce the pain and still stay in good shape. Which of the following is the BEST option for Max now? A. Rest for one week and then continue as before. B. Eliminate the jogging and take up new forms of exercise. C. Cut the number of weekly runs from five to three. D. Replace some of his runs with low-impact activities.

56. Sports drinks might be preferred to water for fluid replacement during a prolonged and intense fitness activity because they A. are absorbed by the system more quickly than water. B. also supply electrolytes and carbohydrates. C. satisfy thirst more effectively than water. D. stay fresh longer than water.

57. The improvement of your aerobic fitness capacity has been associated with a decreased risk of developing which types of cancer? A. pancreatic and lung B. breast and lung C. breast and colon D. breast and bone marrow

58. Failure to use a joint regularly will have no appreciable effect on the flexibility of that joint. True False

59. Static stretching is generally safer than ballistic stretching is. True False

60. Thirty-year-old Linda will improve her cardiorespiratory fitness if her heart rate reaches a sustained 130 beats per minute during exercise. True False

61. The ACSM recommends that people with type 2 diabetes should perform resistance training with heavy weights. True False

62. Aerobic exercise divided into many brief sessions, when done regularly, can yield some of the same health benefits as a traditional five-workouts-per-week exercise plan. True False

63. It is important to do stretching exercises before beginning your warm-up activities. True False

64. Most cases of low back pain clear up within two weeks. True False

65. Sarcopenia is a term used to describe an increase in muscle mass. True False

66. Osteoarthritis occurs in most people over time due to normal wear and tear on joints. True False

67. Exercise is less important for elderly people than it is for young and middle-aged people. True False

68. The Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans recommend 75 minutes of vigorous activity per week to achieve substantial health benefits. True False

69. Most exercise physiologists recommend that all adults should receive a comprehensive physical examination before beginning an exercise program. True False

70. Brisk walking is an effective low-impact alternative to running. True False

71. A trial membership is an effective way to determine whether a health club will meet your needs. True False

72. The "I" in the acronym FITT represents interval. True False

73. The dangers of illegal steroid use include an increased risk of heart problems, cancer, and psychological disturbances. True False

74. Becoming aerobically fit may help you sleep more soundly. True False

75. From 85 to 90 percent of one's peak bone mass is obtained by the age of 20. True False

76. Describe the importance and benefits of cardiorespiratory fitness.

77. List and describe the components of physical fitness.

78. Describe the changes that occur as the human body ages.

79. Briefly identify and describe the four major areas of the American College of Sports Medicine's FITT recommendations for achieving cardiorespiratory conditioning.

80. List the recommendations that are detailed in the Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans.

Chap 04 Key

1. (p. 75) Which of the following will occur when you establish a program of regular aerobic exercise? A. You will lengthen your life. B. Your sense of well-being will improve. C. Your body will become more attractive. D. Your heart and lungs will become stronger.

Focus - Chapter 04 #1

2. (p. 75) The fitness dimension that is considered basic to whole-body fitness is A. flexibility. B. muscular strength. C. muscular endurance. D. cardiorespiratory endurance.

Focus - Chapter 04 #2

3. (p. 75-76) Which of the following, when performed regularly, can most effectively increase the efficiency of your cardiovascular system, improve your circulation, and strengthen your resistance to disease? A. napping B. meditation C. weight lifting D. jogging or brisk walking

Focus - Chapter 04 #3

4. (p. 75) Physical fitness as defined in your text is A. the ability to engage in vigorous tasks and leisure activities. B. full functionality of all parts of the body. C. the ability to exercise without pain most days of the week. D. a set of attributes that relates to the ability to perform physical activity.

Focus - Chapter 04 #4

5. (p. 75) Which of the following is TRUE regarding cardiorespiratory endurance? It is A. produced by short bursts of intense movement at regular intervals. B. the ability of the heart and lungs to supply oxygen to the working muscles. C. the ability to perform repeated muscle contractions without fatigue. D. the body's alternative means of energy production when there is insufficient oxygen.

Focus - Chapter 04 #5

6. (p. 75) When you exercise to the point that the oxygen demands of the muscles cannot be met, your body is using A. the overload state. B. cardiorespiratory endurance. C. aerobic energy production. D. anaerobic energy production.

Focus - Chapter 04 #6

7. (p. 75) After oxygen deprivation occurs, to continue the activity, your body must use _________ energy production. A. static B. aerobic C. anaerobic D. pulmonary

Focus - Chapter 04 #7

8. (p. 75) Anaerobic literally means A. without strength. B. without oxygen. C. exhaustion. D. empty.

Focus - Chapter 04 #8

9. (p. 75) Which of the following is the BEST example of anaerobic activity? A. jogging B. walking C. sprinting D. bicycle touring

Focus - Chapter 04 #9

10. (p. 75) Which of the following BEST explains why a veteran distance runner can go farther and at a faster pace than a beginning runner? The A. veteran runner has stronger muscles. B. beginning runner's cardiorespiratory system is not as developed as the veteran runner's. C. veteran runner has received more specialized training. D. beginning runner has a less efficient distribution of body weight.

Focus - Chapter 04 #10

11. (p. 76) Your ability to maintain posture, lift, push, and pull are examples of A. muscular fitness. B. aerobic fitness. C. flexibility fitness. D. agility fitness.

Focus - Chapter 04 #11

12. (p. 77) Gradually increasing the resistance that muscles have become accustomed to is the basis for the __________ principle. A. inertia B. overload C. anaerobic D. specificity

Focus - Chapter 04 #12

13. (p. 80-81) The strength-building exercise method that involves exerting force against immovable objects is called A. isotension. B. isokinetic. C. isometric. D. isotonic.

Focus - Chapter 04 #13

14. (p. 80) Cybex, Mini-Gym, and Biodex are machines used in which form of resistance training? A. isometric B. isotonic C. isostatic D. isokinetic

Focus - Chapter 04 #14

15. (p. 80) Dumbbells and barbells are used in which form of strength training? A. isotonic B. ballistic C. isokinetic D. isometric

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16. (p. 80) Muscular endurance is BEST developed by increasing A. variety. B. resistance. C. repetitions. D. range of motion.

Focus - Chapter 04 #16

17. (p. 80) One advantage of isokinetic exercise is that A. it encourages the user to work at maintaining balance while exercising. B. the sound and feel of the exercise projects a "tough" image. C. muscles are overloaded through the entire range of motion. D. it is inexpensive and many individuals can participate.

Focus - Chapter 04 #17

18. (p. 76) Carolina can move her shoulder joint through her natural range of motion. She has A. a highly developed cardiorespiratory system. B. flexibility at that particular joint. C. good muscular strength. D. muscular endurance at that joint.

Focus - Chapter 04 #18

19. (p. 81) The BEST combination of effectiveness and low risk for maintaining flexibility is a regular program of A. static stretching. B. ballistic stretching. C. running and walking. D. tai chi chuan or similar discipline.

Focus - Chapter 04 #19

20. (p. 81) Body composition is an important concern because A. the information helps to identify people who do not exercise. B. of the high incidence of obesity in the United States. C. without body composition data, certain exercises may do more harm than good. D. a body composition assessment should accompany all exercise programs.

Focus - Chapter 04 #20

21. (p. 77) Cardiorespiratory endurance can best be achieved through all of the following EXCEPT A. rollerblading. B. cross-country skiing. C. skating. D. golf.

Focus - Chapter 04 #21

22. (p. 77) According to the American College of Sports Medicine (ACSM) recommendations for achieving cardiorespiratory fitness, the mode of activity should be A. intermittent and use mostly small muscles. B. anaerobic in nature and regular intervals. C. activities that develop flexibility. D. any continuous physical activity that uses large muscles.

Focus - Chapter 04 #22

23. (p. 77-78) According to the ACSM, which activity would NOT meet the requirement for developing cardiorespiratory fitness? A. cycling B. softball C. dancing D. step training

Focus - Chapter 04 #23

24. (p. 78) One of the recommendations for helping you to continue with an exercise program is to A. make all components as consistent as possible. B. train in silence to help you concentrate. C. make it enjoyable. D. train alone.

Focus - Chapter 04 #24

25. (p. 78) To improve your cardiorespiratory fitness, you should exercise at least ____________ times per week. A. two to four B. three to five C. four to seven D. one to five

Focus - Chapter 04 #25

26. (p. 78) Twenty-year-old Roger wants to begin an exercise program. As a young adult in good health with no weight problems, to achieve significant aerobic conditioning benefits he should try to bring his heart rate during exercise to a sustained level of about ________ beats per minute. A. 220 B. 200 C. 160 D. 130

Focus - Chapter 04 #26

27. (p. 78) The ACSM recommends that a healthy adult exercise at an intensity level of A. 50 percent of his maximum heart rate. B. between 55 and 80 percent of his maximum heart rate. C. between 40 and 75 percent of his maximum heart rate. D. between 64 and 91 percent of his maximum heart rate.

Focus - Chapter 04 #27

28. (p. 78-79) The phenomenon by which aerobic exercise strengthens the heart, lungs, and blood vessels is called A. maximum heart rate. B. the training effect. C. the target heart rate. D. cardiorespiratory fitness.

Focus - Chapter 04 #28

29. (p. 79) To achieve a training effect, one must exercise at which one of the following intensity levels? A. target heart rate B. maximum heart rate C. minimum heart rate D. 50 percent of maximum heart rate

Focus - Chapter 04 #29

30. (p. 79) Training at a level above your target heart rate will probably A. endanger your health. B. significantly raise your maximum heart rate. C. produce fatigue before much cardiorespiratory benefit occurs. D. reduce the time needed to improve cardiorespiratory fitness.

Focus - Chapter 04 #30

31. (p. 79) Which of the following statements about training at a level below your target heart rate is MOST accurate? It will A. burn some extra calories. B. produce no health benefits. C. lower your target heart rate. D. lengthen the time needed to achieve a training effect.

Focus - Chapter 04 #31

32. (p. 79) Sean is exercising aerobically and wants to determine if he is training in his target heart rate range. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. He should find an easily accessible artery, such as the carotid, to determine heart rate. B. He should feel for his pulse on the inside of his wrist, just above the base of his pinky. C. He should count the number of beats he feels in a fifteen-second period. D. He should wear a heart rate monitor.

Focus - Chapter 04 #32

33. (p. 79) The ACSM recommends that exercise periods should last at least ________ minutes. A. 20-90 B. 15-30 C. 10-45 D. 40-60

Focus - Chapter 04 #33

34. (p. 79) The American College of Sports Medicine recognizes resistance training in its fitness guidelines as A. not being recommended for most people. B. important for strengthening the limbs. C. not being important to overall fitness. D. important to achieving overall fitness.

Focus - Chapter 04 #34

35. (p. 79) According to the ACSM, the goal of resistance training is to A. improve cardiorespiratory endurance. B. improve overall muscle strength and muscle endurance. C. allow an individual to become a competitive lifter. D. improve overall joint flexibility.

Focus - Chapter 04 #35

36. (p. 81) Robyn wants to increase her flexibility. What recommendation should she follow during stretching? She should A. bounce during each stretch to increase her range of motion. B. hold her breath, then exhale slowly through the stretch. C. warm up with slow, rhythmic movements prior to stretching. D. stretch beyond the point of pain to allow for greater flexibility.

Focus - Chapter 04 #36

37. (p. 81) Stretching should occur A. before warming up. B. before cooling down. C. after warming up and after cooling down. D. before warming up and before cooling down.

Focus - Chapter 04 #37

38. (p. 81) One of the main benefits of a cooldown period after exercise is to A. permit the heart to return to a resting state more rapidly. B. reduce the risk of sore muscles. C. reduce the risk of heart attack. D. reduce sweating.

Focus - Chapter 04 #38

39. (p. 83) Which of the following is TRUE regarding low back pain? A. It tends to happen to many adults. B. It is usually caused by postural problems. C. It usually requires medical intervention. D. It usually is an uncommon occurrence among adults.

Focus - Chapter 04 #39

40. (p. 82) People between the ages of 45 and 64 most commonly experience which of the following physical changes? A. significant immune suppression issues B. loss of some cognitive functions C. gradual degeneration in joint cartilage D. an inability to maintain an activity at one's target heart rate

Focus - Chapter 04 #40

41. (p. 84) Which of the following conditions should Sue, who is postmenopausal, be most concerned about? A. a decrease in adipose tissue B. loss of calcium from the bone C. an unsatisfying sexual relationship with her partner D. trouble remembering what day it is

Focus - Chapter 04 #41

42. (p. 84) Which of the following is TRUE regarding women and calcium? A. Women tend to consume a sufficient amount of calcium. B. Premenopausal women should take the recommended amount of 1,000-1,300 mg of calcium per day. C. Postmenopausal women need to take between 800 and 1,000 mg of calcium per day. D. Along with calcium, women need adequate vitamin E to aid in the absorption of calcium.

Focus - Chapter 04 #42

43. (p. 84) Although the exact mechanism is unknown, osteoporosis occurs when A. the bones lose calcium. B. women experience menopause. C. undetected fractures spread to other sites in the bone. D. vitamin D is drawn from the bones for use elsewhere in the body.

Focus - Chapter 04 #43

44. (p. 84) How does exercise help to prevent osteoporosis? It A. maintains flexibility, the loss of which leads to osteoporosis. B. triggers the appetite for calcium-containing foods. C. increases the body's output of estrogen. D. helps to increase calcium deposition in bone.

Focus - Chapter 04 #44

45. (p. 84) Women who exercise regularly and whose diets include the recommended amounts of calcium and vitamin D will have fewer problems with __________________. A. arthritis B. menopause C. osteoporosis D. joint degeneration

Focus - Chapter 04 #45

46. (p. 84) Osteoarthritis A. is a form of arthritis that develops as we age. B. is a form of osteoporosis that occurs mainly in men. C. occurs most often in the shoulder and wrist. D. has no genetic predisposition.

Focus - Chapter 04 #46

47. (p. 84-85) Scientists now believe that most people's problems with osteoarthritis are caused by A. improper stretching and warm-up prior to exercise. B. injuries that were never allowed to heal properly. C. congenital joint defects. D. inherited tendencies.

Focus - Chapter 04 #47

48. (p. 84) Your knee begins to ache periodically from arthritis. If you seek medical treatment for it, the doctor's main goal will be to A. make you more comfortable. B. eliminate the cause of the knee pain. C. repair any damage the arthritis has caused. D. prevent the arthritis from spreading to other joints.

Focus - Chapter 04 #48

49. (p. 84) A lifelong jogger has developed osteoarthritis in his hips. Which of the following is his doctor MOST likely to recommend as initial treatment? A. hip replacement surgery B. anti-inflammatory drugs and continued activity C. painkillers and immobilizing the legs for one to two weeks D. anti-inflammatory drugs and stopping all running and most walking

Focus - Chapter 04 #49

50. (p. 81) A reduction in the size of muscle fibers, related to the aging process is called A. isokinetic. B. regression. C. sarcopenia. D. isometric.

Focus - Chapter 04 #50

51. (p. 74-75) According to the United States Department of Health and Human Services' policy on physical activity, which of the following statements is the most TRUE? A. At least 100 minutes of moderate-intensity physical activity per week can produce major health benefits. B. An equivalent combination of moderate and vigorous physical activity can be used to achieve significant health benefits. C. Fifty minutes of vigorous physical activity per week can produce major health benefits. D. There is no such thing as too much physical activity.

Focus - Chapter 04 #51

52. (p. 82) What recommendation should Tom, who is 56 years old, follow when beginning an exercise program? A. He should train at the higher end of his target heart rate. B. He should have a complete physical exam that includes a stress test. C. He should begin to exercise by himself after reading a "how to" exercise book. D. His exercise program should focus on physical conditioning.

Focus - Chapter 04 #52

53. (p. 82) Which of the following fitness programs would be LEAST appropriate for older adults? A. bicycling B. water aerobics C. golf D. full-court basketball

Focus - Chapter 04 #53

54. (p. 82, 85) You should always see a doctor before starting a new exercise program if you A. have a chronic disease. B. are over 35. C. have not exercised in two years. D. previously suffered an exercise-induced injury.

Focus - Chapter 04 #54

55. (p. 85-86) Max enjoys jogging five days per week, but now he often has pain in his knees, despite several shoe changes. He wants to reduce the pain and still stay in good shape. Which of the following is the BEST option for Max now? A. Rest for one week and then continue as before. B. Eliminate the jogging and take up new forms of exercise. C. Cut the number of weekly runs from five to three. D. Replace some of his runs with low-impact activities.

Focus - Chapter 04 #55

56. (p. 86) Sports drinks might be preferred to water for fluid replacement during a prolonged and intense fitness activity because they A. are absorbed by the system more quickly than water. B. also supply electrolytes and carbohydrates. C. satisfy thirst more effectively than water. D. stay fresh longer than water.

Focus - Chapter 04 #56

57. (p. 75) The improvement of your aerobic fitness capacity has been associated with a decreased risk of developing which types of cancer? A. pancreatic and lung B. breast and lung C. breast and colon D. breast and bone marrow

Focus - Chapter 04 #57

58. (p. 76) Failure to use a joint regularly will have no appreciable effect on the flexibility of that joint. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 04 #58

59. (p. 81) Static stretching is generally safer than ballistic stretching is. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 04 #59

60. (p. 78-79) Thirty-year-old Linda will improve her cardiorespiratory fitness if her heart rate reaches a sustained 130 beats per minute during exercise. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 04 #60

61. (p. 79) The ACSM recommends that people with type 2 diabetes should perform resistance training with heavy weights. FALSE

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62. (p. 79) Aerobic exercise divided into many brief sessions, when done regularly, can yield some of the same health benefits as a traditional five-workouts-per-week exercise plan. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 04 #62

63. (p. 81) It is important to do stretching exercises before beginning your warm-up activities. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 04 #63

64. (p. 83) Most cases of low back pain clear up within two weeks. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 04 #64

65. (p. 81) Sarcopenia is a term used to describe an increase in muscle mass. FALSE

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66. (p. 84) Osteoarthritis occurs in most people over time due to normal wear and tear on joints. TRUE

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67. (p. 82-83) Exercise is less important for elderly people than it is for young and middle-aged people. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 04 #67

68. (p. 74) The Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans recommend 75 minutes of vigorous activity per week to achieve substantial health benefits. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 04 #68

69. (p. 82, 85) Most exercise physiologists recommend that all adults should receive a comprehensive physical examination before beginning an exercise program. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 04 #69

70. (p. 85) Brisk walking is an effective low-impact alternative to running. TRUE

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71. (p. 88) A trial membership is an effective way to determine whether a health club will meet your needs. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 04 #71

72. (p. 78) The "I" in the acronym FITT represents interval. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 04 #72

73. (p. 87) The dangers of illegal steroid use include an increased risk of heart problems, cancer, and psychological disturbances. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 04 #73

74. (p. 76) Becoming aerobically fit may help you sleep more soundly. TRUE

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75. (p. 84) From 85 to 90 percent of one's peak bone mass is obtained by the age of 20. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 04 #75

76. (p. 75-76) Describe the importance and benefits of cardiorespiratory fitness. Cardiorespiratory fitness is the foundation for whole-body fitness. This type of fitness increases one's ability to do sustained exercise over a prolonged period of time. In addition, cardiorespiratory fitness reduces the concentration of bad cholesterol (low-density lipoproteins), increases concentration of good cholesterol (high-density lipoproteins), reduces the risk of hypertension and heart disease, strengthens the immune system, and helps control weight.

Focus - Chapter 04 #76

77. (p. 75-77) List and describe the components of physical fitness. 1) Cardiorespiratory endurance is the ability of the heart and lungs to supply oxygen to the working muscles. This form of fitness can best be developed through activities that are continuous and use large muscles. 2) Muscle fitness is the ability of the skeletal muscles to contract to a maximum level. This form of fitness can best be developed by gradually increasing the resistance that the muscle may move, usually through isotonic (barbells, dumbbells) or isokinetic (Cybex, Biodex machines) exercises. 3) Flexibility is the ability of the joints to move through their natural range of motion. This form of fitness can best be developed through regular static stretching exercises. 4) Body composition is the analysis of what the body is made up of. Of interest to fitness experts is the percentage of body fat to muscle and the role aerobic and strength training exercises play in reducing body fat.

Focus - Chapter 04 #77

78. (p. 82) Describe the changes that occur as the human body ages. Most people begin to experience gradual but widespread declines in body systems in their forties. Changes that accompany aging are decrease in bone mass, increase in fat tissue, degeneration of joints, decrease in visual acuity, and declining fertility. The extent of these changes differs widely among individuals.

Focus - Chapter 04 #78

79. (p. 77) Briefly identify and describe the four major areas of the American College of Sports Medicine's FITT recommendations for achieving cardiorespiratory conditioning. 1) Mode of activity must be continuous and involve large muscle groups. 2) Frequency of training should be three to five times per week. 3) Intensity of training should be achieved by exercising at a level between 64 and 91 percent of one's maximum heart rate. 4) Duration of training should include a continuous activity performed from 20 to 90 minutes.

Focus - Chapter 04 #79

80. (p. 74-75) List the recommendations that are detailed in the Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans. Substantial health benefits can be derived by performing: 1) at least 150 minutes per week of moderate-intensity physical activity, or 2) 75 minutes per week of vigorous-intensity physical activity, and 3) that additional and extensive health benefits can be derived by increasing to either 300 minutes per week of moderate-intensity activity or 150 minutes per week of vigorous-intensity physical activity.

Focus - Chapter 04 #80

Chap 04 Summary Category

# of Questions

Focus - Chapter 04

80

Chap 05 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. Protein, fats, and carbohydrates differ from the other basic nutrients in that they alone provide the body with A. enzymes. B. calories. C. amino acids. D. structural elements.

2. Various combinations of saccharides form A. fats. B. vitamins. C. proteins. D. carbohydrates.

3. The main role of carbohydrates is to A. provide energy. B. provide structural elements. C. facilitate metabolic processes. D. facilitate the absorption of other nutrients.

4. According to the USDA, how many teaspoons of sugar per day should be consumed for a 2,000 calorie diet? No more than __________ teaspoons. A. 8 B. 10 C. 12 D. 20

5. What are starches? They are A. simple carbohydrates whose main contribution to the diet is bulk. B. complex carbohydrates that represent an important energy source. C. simple carbohydrates that are commonly added to commercially prepared foods. D. complex carbohydrates that provide no nutritional value.

6. Which of the following is TRUE regarding starches? They A. are the sole source of energy for the brain and nervous system. B. are found in honey, molasses, and syrup. C. are among the least important sources of dietary carbohydrates. D. contain significant portions of vitamins and minerals.

7. Which of the following is TRUE of fats? A. They provide more energy than other nutrients. B. Consumption of fats stimulates the appetite. C. They interfere with vitamin absorption. D. They have little nutritional value.

8. The recommended consumption of fats is _____________ percent of daily calories. A. 10 to 14 B. 15 to 19 C. 20 to 35 D. 36 to 50

9. Of the following, which is not a trace element? A. calcium B. zinc C. iron D. copper

10. Which of the following is FALSE regarding saturated fats? They are A. solid at room temperature. B. fats that are difficult for the body to use. C. found primarily in animal products. D. manufactured by the body.

11. John enjoys foods that are high in trans-fatty acids. What impact will these fats have on his cholesterol? They A. will have no effect on his cholesterol. B. have the tendency to raise the "good cholesterol" in his blood. C. have the tendency to reduce the total cholesterol in his blood. D. have the tendency to raise the "bad cholesterol" in his blood.

12. The most serious risk of a diet high in cholesterol is A. an increased risk of obesity. B. its link to digestive disorders. C. an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. D. its tendency to decrease the appetite for other nutrients.

13. Which of the following oils contains the highest percentage of saturated fats? A. peanut B. coconut C. safflower D. vegetable

14. Which of the following is TRUE of cholesterol? It A. is produced by our own bodies. B. appears in both animal and vegetable fats. C. is non-essential for body functions. D. has no impact on heart disease when consumed in high amounts in the diet.

15. Which of the following is a cholesterol-free food? A. peanut butter B. skim milk C. shellfish D. eggs

16. Nutritionists recommend that people restrict their dietary intake of cholesterol to ________ per day. A. 350 mg B. 400 mg C. 300 mg or less D. 500 mg or less

17. If you are trying to limit your cholesterol intake, you will need to restrict your intake of A. peanut oil. B. shellfish. C. margarine. D. olive oil.

18. The so-called essential amino acids receive their names from the fact that they A. must be obtained from the diet. B. supply the body's central functions. C. are the ones most important to good health. D. are manufactured by the body without any dietary source.

19. Protein's primary role is to A. maintain the chemical balance of blood. B. produce enzymes and hormones. C. promote tissue growth and maintenance. D. supply energy.

20. Which of the following is FALSE regarding complete protein foods? They A. can be found in milk and cheeses. B. contain all nine essential amino acids. C. can be found in meats and eggs. D. contain all 20 essential amino acids.

21. Protein provides _________ calories per gram of energy. A. 9 B. 4 C. 6 D. 3

22. How does your body use the protein you eat? A. It is stored in body tissues to provide the primary source of glucose for metabolism. B. It is broken down into its amino acids, which are mainly used in tissue building. C. It is dispersed to all the cells of the body to regulate energy production. D. Most of it is absorbed by the bones to provide their structural strength.

23. What is the role of vitamins? They A. serve as structural elements. B. facilitate the action of enzymes. C. provide fuel for energy. D. store other nutrients.

24. The two basic classes of vitamins are A. organic and inorganic. B. enzymes and coenzymes. C. water-soluble and fat-soluble. D. A through C, and D through K.

25. Fresh vegetables should not be overcooked because A. minerals are lost. B. they lose too much flavor. C. the fiber they contain breaks down. D. the water-soluble vitamins leach out.

26. John is taking a megadose of vitamin C from a dietary supplement source. Why might this behavior be harmful to his health? It can A. increase his risk of heart disease. B. cause kidney stones. C. weaken his immune system. D. increase his risk urinary tract problems.

27. The best way to ensure adequate intake of vitamins is to A. cut back on fats. B. use plenty of dairy products. C. eat a variety of foods. D. take a multivitamin supplement.

28. Elise is pregnant and wonders about the value of vitamin supplements. Which of the following is her doctor MOST likely to recommend? A. Supplements offer no benefit; a normal diet is sufficient. B. She might benefit from some vitamin supplements and folic acid in particular. C. She should avoid vitamin supplements because of the risk of vitamin toxicity. D. She must supplement her dietary intake with fat soluble vitamins.

29. What is the function of the minerals you consume in your diet? A. They are used entirely to provide structure to such tissues as bones and teeth. B. They serve both as structural elements and to regulate some body processes. C. Their main purpose is to assist in the transport of ions. D. They mainly regulate the consumption of glucose.

30. Trace elements are A. minerals that appear in relatively small amounts in body tissues. B. any nutrients that appear in very small amounts in body tissues. C. any nutrients with a comparatively small molecular structure. D. vitamins that support the synthesis of minerals.

31. Jenna is concerned about her iron intake. How can she help her body efficiently utilize iron? She should eat foods that are A. high in iron only. B. high in protein and iron. C. rich in vitamin C, along with iron-rich foods. D. high in complex carbohydrates.

32. The trace minerals, or micronutrients, include A. iron, zinc, and iodine. B. folate, niacin, and biotin. C. thiamin, riboflavin, and calcium. D. sodium, potassium, and phosphorus.

33. The major minerals, or macronutrients, include A. zinc, iodine, and fluoride. B. iron, copper, and manganese. C. sodium, magnesium, and potassium. D. molybdenum, chromium, and selenium.

34. We can survive for months without most nutrients, but without water we can live only A. less than two days. B. less than one week. C. less than ten days. D. less than two weeks.

35. Insoluble fiber is best described as fiber that A. can absorb water from the intestinal tract. B. turns to a gel in the intestinal tract and binds to liver bile. C. consists only of oat bran, psyllium, and rice bran. D. causes abnormal depletion of fluids from the body.

36. Which nutrient provides the medium for temperature control and plays a role in all biochemical reactions? A. fat B. water C. protein D. carbohydrate

37. What are the major benefits of fiber in your diet? It A. provides important structural material for both red and white blood cells. B. improves the breakdown of food in the gut by introducing a grinding effect. C. improves the passage of food through the digestive tract and lowers blood cholesterol. D. contains tough molecules that increase the strength of cell walls in the digestive tract.

38. Dietary fiber is classified as A. water-soluble or fat-soluble. B. soluble or insoluble. C. animal or vegetable. D. true fiber or bran.

39. A friend has heard that by adding oat bran to her diet, she can lower her cholesterol level. What can you tell her about this? A. Early studies yielded positive claims for oat bran, but later studies have shown that it does not lower cholesterol. B. Oat bran in breads and muffins can lower cholesterol, but it does not have the same effect in hot or cold cereal. C. Two to three servings per week of oat bran can help lower cholesterol, but larger amounts cause diarrhea. D. Oat bran can lower cholesterol, but a large daily serving is needed to have much effect.

40. A balanced diet is one that A. includes about equal amounts of each food group. B. includes foods in proportions recommended by the USDA. C. takes about an equal number of calories from each food group. D. limits fats and sugars to no more than two to three servings per day.

41. Of the following, which is the MOST important contribution of vegetables to our diets? They provide A. protein. B. simple sugars. C. fatty acids. D. complex carbohydrates.

42. Prevention of certain cancers can be gained by consuming a diet rich in A. bread, cereal, rice, and pasta. B. fruits and vegetables. C. milk and cheese. D. meats.

43. The recommended number of daily servings from the milk group for adults is _______. A. one B. two C. three D. four

44. The milk group does NOT provide ________________ as a part of primary nutrition in adults. A. complex carbohydrates B. a high-quality protein source C. a high-quality calcium source D. protection from osteoporosis

45. The USDA's recommended daily serving of meat is _________ ounces. A. 5.5 B. 6.5 C. 7.5 D. 8.5

46. Which of the following can be used as a meat substitute? A. green leafy vegetables B. yellow vegetables C. eggs D. rice

47. Which of the following foods should be served fresh and properly prepared? A. meats B. fruits C. breads D. vegetables

48. Which of the following is TRUE regarding higher grade cuts of meat? They A. have been cured with flavor-enhancing substances. B. generally have a lower fat content than poultry and fish. C. have more marbling throughout the muscle fiber than lower grade cuts. D. have been stored properly.

49. Why is whole grain bread considered healthier than white bread? A. White bread is higher in fat than whole grain bread. B. The process of enriching white bread introduces harmful chemicals. C. There is little nutritional difference between the two. D. Nutrients that are lost during the preparation of white bread remain in whole grain bread.

50. How many ounces of grains should adults eat daily? A. three B. four C. five D. six

51. The most effective source of dietary iron is A. red meat. B. dairy products. C. iron supplements. D. yellow vegetables.

52. According to the USDA guidelines, Americans should consume how much sodium per day? A. less than 2,300 mg B. 2,400 mg-2,500 mg C. 2,600 mg-2,800 mg D. 2,900 mg-3,000 mg

53. Which of the following is TRUE regarding fast food restaurants? A. Their foods have a high fat density. B. They have ignored customer requests to offer low fat products. C. Their foods have no nutritional value. D. They are not concerned with providing healthy food options for children.

54. Probiotics are A. living bacteria that are thought to help prevent disease and boost the immune system. B. food additives that may increase the risk of certain cancers when consumed in large amounts. C. additives found in most fast foods that inhibit the absorption of vitamins A and C. D. substances in fatty acids that are suspected of causing arterial wall damage.

55. Which of the following is the clearest example of a functional food? A. Egg Beaters (an egg-white-based, no-cholesterol product) B. skim milk C. garlic D. genetically engineered vegetables

56. Having met specific criteria, statements authorized by the FDA that a food has an effect on a health related condition are known as health A. proxies. B. claims. C. warranties. D. guarantees.

57. Which of the following is TRUE of dietary supplements? They A. are free from requirements to substantiate their effectiveness. B. can make direct claims about their effectiveness. C. can be inhaled as well as taken orally. D. are harmless substances.

58. An adverse reaction to milk products that does not involve the immune system, is referred to as A. an immune response to milk products. B. lactose intolerance. C. a food allergy. D. a deficiency in the immune system's tolerance to milk products.

59. In the United States, nutritional information labels are required on all A. food products. B. food products that contain additives. C. food products for which nutritional claims are made or to which nutrients are added. D. food products that contain fat, sodium, or carbohydrates.

60. You want to sell products from your farm with the USDA Certified Organic seal. What techniques are you allowed to use on your farm? A. sewage sludge fertilizer B. vitamin supplementation C. genetic engineering D. irradiation

61. The standard nutrition label on a processed food product will always contain the following EXCEPT A. calories from fat. B. calories per serving. C. total fat per serving. D. percentage daily value of protein per serving.

62. When a product is labeled as having "no trans fat," it means that it contains no A. more than 0.5 percent fat per serving. B. fat that can be detected by any measure. C. fat that is of any nutritional significance. D. more than 5 percent of the fat of the non-fat-free version.

63. Most Americans should increase their consumption of which of the following? A. sodium B. cholesterol C. simple carbohydrates D. seafood

64. Water-soluble vitamins include the B-complex vitamins and vitamin C. True False

65. Some vitamins can be lost from food if the food is overcooked. True False

66. Minerals are not considered true nutrients. True False

67. You are drinking enough fluid if your urine is pale and almost colorless. True False

68. Insoluble fiber is not broken down by the digestive tract. True False

69. Fruits and vegetables are excellent sources of both complex carbohydrates and fiber. True False

70. Cruciferous vegetables may be helpful in the prevention of certain cancers. True False

71. Fast foods are relatively low in fat density. True False

72. It is not possible to eat a healthy meal at a fast food restaurant. True False

73. Functional foods have no effect in contributing to the prevention of specific health problems. True False

74. Food borne illness is the result of eating contaminated food. True False

75. Irradiation destroys all the bacteria in meat. True False

76. What are phytochemicals? Explain their effect on certain disease processes.

77. What are antioxidants and how do they function within the body?

78. What are the guidelines for dietary health?

79. Describe some advantages and disadvantages of a vegetarian diet.

Chap 05 Key

1. (p. 94) Protein, fats, and carbohydrates differ from the other basic nutrients in that they alone provide the body with A. enzymes. B. calories. C. amino acids. D. structural elements.

Focus - Chapter 05 #1

2. (p. 95) Various combinations of saccharides form A. fats. B. vitamins. C. proteins. D. carbohydrates.

Focus - Chapter 05 #2

3. (p. 95) The main role of carbohydrates is to A. provide energy. B. provide structural elements. C. facilitate metabolic processes. D. facilitate the absorption of other nutrients.

Focus - Chapter 05 #3

4. (p. 96) According to the USDA, how many teaspoons of sugar per day should be consumed for a 2,000 calorie diet? No more than __________ teaspoons. A. 8 B. 10 C. 12 D. 20

Focus - Chapter 05 #4

5. (p. 96) What are starches? They are A. simple carbohydrates whose main contribution to the diet is bulk. B. complex carbohydrates that represent an important energy source. C. simple carbohydrates that are commonly added to commercially prepared foods. D. complex carbohydrates that provide no nutritional value.

Focus - Chapter 05 #5

6. (p. 96) Which of the following is TRUE regarding starches? They A. are the sole source of energy for the brain and nervous system. B. are found in honey, molasses, and syrup. C. are among the least important sources of dietary carbohydrates. D. contain significant portions of vitamins and minerals.

Focus - Chapter 05 #6

7. (p. 96) Which of the following is TRUE of fats? A. They provide more energy than other nutrients. B. Consumption of fats stimulates the appetite. C. They interfere with vitamin absorption. D. They have little nutritional value.

Focus - Chapter 05 #7

8. (p. 97) The recommended consumption of fats is _____________ percent of daily calories. A. 10 to 14 B. 15 to 19 C. 20 to 35 D. 36 to 50

Focus - Chapter 05 #8

9. (p. 100) Of the following, which is not a trace element? A. calcium B. zinc C. iron D. copper

Focus - Chapter 05 #9

10. (p. 96) Which of the following is FALSE regarding saturated fats? They are A. solid at room temperature. B. fats that are difficult for the body to use. C. found primarily in animal products. D. manufactured by the body.

Focus - Chapter 05 #10

11. (p. 96) John enjoys foods that are high in trans-fatty acids. What impact will these fats have on his cholesterol? They A. will have no effect on his cholesterol. B. have the tendency to raise the "good cholesterol" in his blood. C. have the tendency to reduce the total cholesterol in his blood. D. have the tendency to raise the "bad cholesterol" in his blood.

Focus - Chapter 05 #11

12. (p. 97-98) The most serious risk of a diet high in cholesterol is A. an increased risk of obesity. B. its link to digestive disorders. C. an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. D. its tendency to decrease the appetite for other nutrients.

Focus - Chapter 05 #12

13. (p. 97) Which of the following oils contains the highest percentage of saturated fats? A. peanut B. coconut C. safflower D. vegetable

Focus - Chapter 05 #13

14. (p. 97) Which of the following is TRUE of cholesterol? It A. is produced by our own bodies. B. appears in both animal and vegetable fats. C. is non-essential for body functions. D. has no impact on heart disease when consumed in high amounts in the diet.

Focus - Chapter 05 #14

15. (p. 97) Which of the following is a cholesterol-free food? A. peanut butter B. skim milk C. shellfish D. eggs

Focus - Chapter 05 #15

16. (p. 98) Nutritionists recommend that people restrict their dietary intake of cholesterol to ________ per day. A. 350 mg B. 400 mg C. 300 mg or less D. 500 mg or less

Focus - Chapter 05 #16

17. (p. 97) If you are trying to limit your cholesterol intake, you will need to restrict your intake of A. peanut oil. B. shellfish. C. margarine. D. olive oil.

Focus - Chapter 05 #17

18. (p. 98) The so-called essential amino acids receive their names from the fact that they A. must be obtained from the diet. B. supply the body's central functions. C. are the ones most important to good health. D. are manufactured by the body without any dietary source.

Focus - Chapter 05 #18

19. (p. 98) Protein's primary role is to A. maintain the chemical balance of blood. B. produce enzymes and hormones. C. promote tissue growth and maintenance. D. supply energy.

Focus - Chapter 05 #19

20. (p. 98) Which of the following is FALSE regarding complete protein foods? They A. can be found in milk and cheeses. B. contain all nine essential amino acids. C. can be found in meats and eggs. D. contain all 20 essential amino acids.

Focus - Chapter 05 #20

21. (p. 98) Protein provides _________ calories per gram of energy. A. 9 B. 4 C. 6 D. 3

Focus - Chapter 05 #21

22. (p. 98) How does your body use the protein you eat? A. It is stored in body tissues to provide the primary source of glucose for metabolism. B. It is broken down into its amino acids, which are mainly used in tissue building. C. It is dispersed to all the cells of the body to regulate energy production. D. Most of it is absorbed by the bones to provide their structural strength.

Focus - Chapter 05 #22

23. (p. 99) What is the role of vitamins? They A. serve as structural elements. B. facilitate the action of enzymes. C. provide fuel for energy. D. store other nutrients.

Focus - Chapter 05 #23

24. (p. 99) The two basic classes of vitamins are A. organic and inorganic. B. enzymes and coenzymes. C. water-soluble and fat-soluble. D. A through C, and D through K.

Focus - Chapter 05 #24

25. (p. 99) Fresh vegetables should not be overcooked because A. minerals are lost. B. they lose too much flavor. C. the fiber they contain breaks down. D. the water-soluble vitamins leach out.

Focus - Chapter 05 #25

26. (p. 99) John is taking a megadose of vitamin C from a dietary supplement source. Why might this behavior be harmful to his health? It can A. increase his risk of heart disease. B. cause kidney stones. C. weaken his immune system. D. increase his risk urinary tract problems.

Focus - Chapter 05 #26

27. (p. 99) The best way to ensure adequate intake of vitamins is to A. cut back on fats. B. use plenty of dairy products. C. eat a variety of foods. D. take a multivitamin supplement.

Focus - Chapter 05 #27

28. (p. 100) Elise is pregnant and wonders about the value of vitamin supplements. Which of the following is her doctor MOST likely to recommend? A. Supplements offer no benefit; a normal diet is sufficient. B. She might benefit from some vitamin supplements and folic acid in particular. C. She should avoid vitamin supplements because of the risk of vitamin toxicity. D. She must supplement her dietary intake with fat soluble vitamins.

Focus - Chapter 05 #28

29. (p. 100) What is the function of the minerals you consume in your diet? A. They are used entirely to provide structure to such tissues as bones and teeth. B. They serve both as structural elements and to regulate some body processes. C. Their main purpose is to assist in the transport of ions. D. They mainly regulate the consumption of glucose.

Focus - Chapter 05 #29

30. (p. 100) Trace elements are A. minerals that appear in relatively small amounts in body tissues. B. any nutrients that appear in very small amounts in body tissues. C. any nutrients with a comparatively small molecular structure. D. vitamins that support the synthesis of minerals.

Focus - Chapter 05 #30

31. (p. 109) Jenna is concerned about her iron intake. How can she help her body efficiently utilize iron? She should eat foods that are A. high in iron only. B. high in protein and iron. C. rich in vitamin C, along with iron-rich foods. D. high in complex carbohydrates.

Focus - Chapter 05 #31

32. (p. 100) The trace minerals, or micronutrients, include A. iron, zinc, and iodine. B. folate, niacin, and biotin. C. thiamin, riboflavin, and calcium. D. sodium, potassium, and phosphorus.

Focus - Chapter 05 #32

33. (p. 100) The major minerals, or macronutrients, include A. zinc, iodine, and fluoride. B. iron, copper, and manganese. C. sodium, magnesium, and potassium. D. molybdenum, chromium, and selenium.

Focus - Chapter 05 #33

34. (p. 101) We can survive for months without most nutrients, but without water we can live only A. less than two days. B. less than one week. C. less than ten days. D. less than two weeks.

Focus - Chapter 05 #34

35. (p. 101) Insoluble fiber is best described as fiber that A. can absorb water from the intestinal tract. B. turns to a gel in the intestinal tract and binds to liver bile. C. consists only of oat bran, psyllium, and rice bran. D. causes abnormal depletion of fluids from the body.

Focus - Chapter 05 #35

36. (p. 101) Which nutrient provides the medium for temperature control and plays a role in all biochemical reactions? A. fat B. water C. protein D. carbohydrate

Focus - Chapter 05 #36

37. (p. 101) What are the major benefits of fiber in your diet? It A. provides important structural material for both red and white blood cells. B. improves the breakdown of food in the gut by introducing a grinding effect. C. improves the passage of food through the digestive tract and lowers blood cholesterol. D. contains tough molecules that increase the strength of cell walls in the digestive tract.

Focus - Chapter 05 #37

38. (p. 101) Dietary fiber is classified as A. water-soluble or fat-soluble. B. soluble or insoluble. C. animal or vegetable. D. true fiber or bran.

Focus - Chapter 05 #38

39. (p. 101) A friend has heard that by adding oat bran to her diet, she can lower her cholesterol level. What can you tell her about this? A. Early studies yielded positive claims for oat bran, but later studies have shown that it does not lower cholesterol. B. Oat bran in breads and muffins can lower cholesterol, but it does not have the same effect in hot or cold cereal. C. Two to three servings per week of oat bran can help lower cholesterol, but larger amounts cause diarrhea. D. Oat bran can lower cholesterol, but a large daily serving is needed to have much effect.

Focus - Chapter 05 #39

40. (p. 102) A balanced diet is one that A. includes about equal amounts of each food group. B. includes foods in proportions recommended by the USDA. C. takes about an equal number of calories from each food group. D. limits fats and sugars to no more than two to three servings per day.

Focus - Chapter 05 #40

41. (p. 103) Of the following, which is the MOST important contribution of vegetables to our diets? They provide A. protein. B. simple sugars. C. fatty acids. D. complex carbohydrates.

Focus - Chapter 05 #41

42. (p. 103, 104) Prevention of certain cancers can be gained by consuming a diet rich in A. bread, cereal, rice, and pasta. B. fruits and vegetables. C. milk and cheese. D. meats.

Focus - Chapter 05 #42

43. (p. 104) The recommended number of daily servings from the milk group for adults is _______. A. one B. two C. three D. four

Focus - Chapter 05 #43

44. (p. 104) The milk group does NOT provide ________________ as a part of primary nutrition in adults. A. complex carbohydrates B. a high-quality protein source C. a high-quality calcium source D. protection from osteoporosis

Focus - Chapter 05 #44

45. (p. 104) The USDA's recommended daily serving of meat is _________ ounces. A. 5.5 B. 6.5 C. 7.5 D. 8.5

Focus - Chapter 05 #45

46. (p. 104) Which of the following can be used as a meat substitute? A. green leafy vegetables B. yellow vegetables C. eggs D. rice

Focus - Chapter 05 #46

47. (p. 104) Which of the following foods should be served fresh and properly prepared? A. meats B. fruits C. breads D. vegetables

Focus - Chapter 05 #47

48. (p. 104) Which of the following is TRUE regarding higher grade cuts of meat? They A. have been cured with flavor-enhancing substances. B. generally have a lower fat content than poultry and fish. C. have more marbling throughout the muscle fiber than lower grade cuts. D. have been stored properly.

Focus - Chapter 05 #48

49. (p. 104, 105) Why is whole grain bread considered healthier than white bread? A. White bread is higher in fat than whole grain bread. B. The process of enriching white bread introduces harmful chemicals. C. There is little nutritional difference between the two. D. Nutrients that are lost during the preparation of white bread remain in whole grain bread.

Focus - Chapter 05 #49

50. (p. 105) How many ounces of grains should adults eat daily? A. three B. four C. five D. six

Focus - Chapter 05 #50

51. (p. 104) The most effective source of dietary iron is A. red meat. B. dairy products. C. iron supplements. D. yellow vegetables.

Focus - Chapter 05 #51

52. (p. 107) According to the USDA guidelines, Americans should consume how much sodium per day? A. less than 2,300 mg B. 2,400 mg-2,500 mg C. 2,600 mg-2,800 mg D. 2,900 mg-3,000 mg

Focus - Chapter 05 #52

53. (p. 113) Which of the following is TRUE regarding fast food restaurants? A. Their foods have a high fat density. B. They have ignored customer requests to offer low fat products. C. Their foods have no nutritional value. D. They are not concerned with providing healthy food options for children.

Focus - Chapter 05 #53

54. (p. 114-115) Probiotics are A. living bacteria that are thought to help prevent disease and boost the immune system. B. food additives that may increase the risk of certain cancers when consumed in large amounts. C. additives found in most fast foods that inhibit the absorption of vitamins A and C. D. substances in fatty acids that are suspected of causing arterial wall damage.

Focus - Chapter 05 #54

55. (p. 114-115) Which of the following is the clearest example of a functional food? A. Egg Beaters (an egg-white-based, no-cholesterol product) B. skim milk C. garlic D. genetically engineered vegetables

Focus - Chapter 05 #55

56. (p. 115) Having met specific criteria, statements authorized by the FDA that a food has an effect on a health related condition are known as health A. proxies. B. claims. C. warranties. D. guarantees.

Focus - Chapter 05 #56

57. (p. 115-116) Which of the following is TRUE of dietary supplements? They A. are free from requirements to substantiate their effectiveness. B. can make direct claims about their effectiveness. C. can be inhaled as well as taken orally. D. are harmless substances.

Focus - Chapter 05 #57

58. (p. 116) An adverse reaction to milk products that does not involve the immune system, is referred to as A. an immune response to milk products. B. lactose intolerance. C. a food allergy. D. a deficiency in the immune system's tolerance to milk products.

Focus - Chapter 05 #58

59. (p. 112) In the United States, nutritional information labels are required on all A. food products. B. food products that contain additives. C. food products for which nutritional claims are made or to which nutrients are added. D. food products that contain fat, sodium, or carbohydrates.

Focus - Chapter 05 #59

60. (p. 119) You want to sell products from your farm with the USDA Certified Organic seal. What techniques are you allowed to use on your farm? A. sewage sludge fertilizer B. vitamin supplementation C. genetic engineering D. irradiation

Focus - Chapter 05 #60

61. (p. 112) The standard nutrition label on a processed food product will always contain the following EXCEPT A. calories from fat. B. calories per serving. C. total fat per serving. D. percentage daily value of protein per serving.

Focus - Chapter 05 #61

62. (p. 96) When a product is labeled as having "no trans fat," it means that it contains no A. more than 0.5 percent fat per serving. B. fat that can be detected by any measure. C. fat that is of any nutritional significance. D. more than 5 percent of the fat of the non-fat-free version.

Focus - Chapter 05 #62

63. (p. 106) Most Americans should increase their consumption of which of the following? A. sodium B. cholesterol C. simple carbohydrates D. seafood

Focus - Chapter 05 #63

64. (p. 99) Water-soluble vitamins include the B-complex vitamins and vitamin C. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 05 #64

65. (p. 99) Some vitamins can be lost from food if the food is overcooked. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 05 #65

66. (p. 100) Minerals are not considered true nutrients. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 05 #66

67. (p. 101) You are drinking enough fluid if your urine is pale and almost colorless. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 05 #67

68. (p. 101) Insoluble fiber is not broken down by the digestive tract. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 05 #68

69. (p. 101) Fruits and vegetables are excellent sources of both complex carbohydrates and fiber. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 05 #69

70. (p. 103-104) Cruciferous vegetables may be helpful in the prevention of certain cancers. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 05 #70

71. (p. 113) Fast foods are relatively low in fat density. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 05 #71

72. (p. 113-114) It is not possible to eat a healthy meal at a fast food restaurant. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 05 #72

73. (p. 114) Functional foods have no effect in contributing to the prevention of specific health problems. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 05 #73

74. (p. 116) Food borne illness is the result of eating contaminated food. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 05 #74

75. (p. 118) Irradiation destroys all the bacteria in meat. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 05 #75

76. (p. 100-101) What are phytochemicals? Explain their effect on certain disease processes. Phytochemicals are physiologically active components thought to be able to deactivate carcinogens or function as antioxidants and have been identified in a variety of fruits and vegetables. These phytochemicals may play an important role in sparking body processes that fight or slow down the development of diseases such as cancer.

Focus - Chapter 05 #76

77. (p. 100) What are antioxidants and how do they function within the body? Antioxidants are substances that may prevent cancer by interacting with and stabilizing unstable molecules known as free radicals. Examples of antioxidants include beta-carotene, lycopene, and vitamins C, E, and A.

Focus - Chapter 05 #77

78. (p. 105-108) What are the guidelines for dietary health? 1) Chose mostly nutrient dense foods. 2) Be physically active by exercising moderately for two hours and 30 minutes over a three day period. 3) Maintain body weight in a healthy range. 4) Eat a variety of grains, especially whole grains, fruits, vegetables, seafood, and dairy products. 5) Keep food safe by washing hands and work surfaces before you prepare food. 6) Limit sugars, sodium, and alcohol. 7) Pregnant women should consume adequate amounts of folic acid, either from fortified foods or supplements.

Focus - Chapter 05 #78

79. (p. 109-111) Describe some advantages and disadvantages of a vegetarian diet. One of the greatest benefits of a vegetarian diet is the reduced consumption of fats and the increased consumption of complex carbohydrates, vitamins, and fiber. Most of the disadvantages of a vegetarian diet involve the extra effort required to consume a full array of essential nutrients and adequate number of calories. Sometimes there is a need to take supplements to ensure adequate essential nutrients.

Focus - Chapter 05 #79

Chap 05 Summary Category

# of Questions

Focus - Chapter 05

79

Chap 06 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. People are considered obese when their body weight exceeds the recommended weight for their height by ______________ percent. A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40

2. People gain weight when they A. eat high-fat foods. B. snack between meals. C. avoid strenuous physical activity. D. consume more calories than they need.

3. How are the terms overweight and obesity used differently? A. People who are 1-19 percent above their desired weight are called overweight, while those 20 percent or more above their desired weight are called obese. B. All cases of above-desired weight are labeled overweight, while only the most extreme cases are considered obesity. C. People are called overweight when their extra weight is in muscle, and obese when their extra weight is in fat. D. Both terms mean the same thing.

4. Sandy's desirable weight is 150 pounds, but she is now about 280. She would be classified as A. overweight. B. mildly obese. C. morbidly obese. D. severely obese.

5. The body mass index is A. based on popular body images. B. an age-graded obesity measure. C. a height/weight index in metric units. D. a method of measuring body composition.

6. Ashley is 5'1" and weighs 135 pounds. According to the body mass index chart, she is considered A. healthy. B. overweight. C. obese. D. morbidly obese.

7. Which of the following is TRUE regarding standardized height/weight tables? They are A. an excellent method for determining body composition. B. an excellent method for determining obesity. C. no longer considered the best way to determine whether body weight is acceptable. D. a precise method for determining the amount of adipose tissue.

8. WHR assessment procedure was developed A. to accurately measure the proportions of lean tissue to fat tissue. B. in response to the growing concern over the rate of obesity in the United States. C. as a clinical marker for the treatment of obesity. D. in response to the growing concern over the relationship between the amount of fat in the abdominal cavity and the development of serious health problems.

9. Skinfold measurements, the bod pod, and hydrostatic weighing are all measures of A. body composition. B. obesity. C. weight. D. fitness.

10. When an individual expends more calories than are taken in, this is referred to as A. the thermic effect of food. B. positive caloric balance. C. caloric balance. D. negative caloric balance.

11. The Bod Pod determines body composition by A. using a nomogram. B. measuring displaced air. C. relating weight to height. D. measuring electrical resistance under the skin.

12. The normal range of body fat for young adult men is ______________ percent. A. 10 to 15 B. 15 to 19 C. 20 to 25 D. 25 to 30

13. Which of the following is FALSE regarding a skinfold measurement? A. It is used to calculate the percentage of body fat. B. It is a measurement to determine the thickness of the fat layer just under the skin. C. Only one key site on the body is necessary to accurately determine the percentage of body fat. D. These measurements are taken using a special device known as a caliper.

14. Which of the following methods of body fat measurement involves measuring the thickness of the subcutaneous fat layer? A. skinfold measurements B. dual energy x-ray absorptiometry C. electrical impedance D. hydrostatic weighing

15. Which of the following BEST explains the causes of obesity? A. Obesity generally occurs among people who lack sufficient leptin output. B. Research indicates that genetic makeup is the main cause of most obesity. C. Although no definitive cause is known, it is believed that several factors play a role. D. Obesity is the product of overeating and lack of exercise, over which everyone has equal control.

16. Which of the following BEST describes the influence of genetics on obesity? A. Body type is the only known obesity factor that is strongly affected by genetics. B. Your genetic makeup determines whether you will be obese. C. There are many possible genetic influences on obesity. D. Genetics has little direct influence on obesity.

17. The body's appetite controls are mainly located in the A. liver. B. stomach. C. large intestine. D. hypothalamus.

18. The appetite center controls A. when you eat. B. how much you eat. C. how your body uses food. D. when you feel hungry or satisfied.

19. Which of the following BEST summarizes the set point theory? A. Each person has a point beyond which he or she cannot lose weight. B. Each person's body regulates its use of energy to maintain a certain weight range. C. The body begins to store fat when eating reaches a certain point. D. Once an overweight person has lost weight, it becomes easier to lose more weight up to a certain point.

20. Changes in the body's metabolic rate due to a lack, or abundance, of calories is known as A. adipose recession. B. digestive generativity. C. comestible stabilization. D. adaptive thermogenesis.

21. What is the percentage of people who go on a diet and gain all of their weight back within a year of going off the diet? A. 90 percent B. 75 percent C. 50 percent D. 25 percent

22. ____________ is equal to tobacco as a threat to American's health and disproportionately affects women of color and lower socioeconomic classes. A. Breast cancer B. Obesity C. Stroke D. Hypertension

23. Many researchers believe that overfed infants become overweight later in life because A. they develop more fat cells than infants who are not overfed do. B. the heavy calorie load slows down their metabolisms. C. overeating habits are established early in life. D. their fat cells grow in size.

24. According to weight management experts, the single most important factor leading to obesity in the United States is A. inactivity. B. family dietary habits. C. the mass promotion of junk foods. D. endocrine dysfunction.

25. Your body's energy needs are based on your diet, your activities, and your A. general health. B. basal metabolism. C. degree of obesity. D. endocrine function.

26. Consuming about __________ calories more than is needed results in a weight gain of one pound of fat. A. 2,200 B. 1,500 C. 3,500 D. 2,700

27. Why do the body's energy requirements decrease with age? Because A. basal metabolic rate declines with age. B. older adults are less active than younger adults. C. aging results in the gradual loss of muscle tissue. D. some body systems are no longer required in older adults.

28. Which of the following is NOT related to basal metabolic rate? A. age B. caloric intake C. activity level D. gender

29. The amount of energy our bodies require for the digestion, absorption, and transportation of food is known as the ________________ of food. A. thermic effect B. thermatic metabolism C. molecular fusion D. hyperthermogenesis

30. According to the experts, you should set a goal to lose no more than __________ pounds a week. A. 5 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

31. Effective and lasting weight loss requires A. a diet that significantly reduces calorie intake. B. going on a diet for a specific period of time. C. following a diet plan that is restrictive and demanding. D. a lifestyle change that includes healthy eating and regular exercise.

32. Which of the following is FALSE regarding a balanced diet supported by portion control? It A. is best undertaken with a nutritionist and physicians knowledgeable in diet management. B. is a diet designed to produce rapid weight loss. C. reflects a nutritionally sound program that offers some probability of success. D. does not force an individual to adopt a restrictive approach to eating.

33. Why is a diet based on portion control a better idea than so-called low-calorie or fad diets? A. People can consume more of the foods that they enjoy with portion control. B. Portion control diets achieve results more quickly. C. Portion control typically cuts more calories from a meal. D. Portion control is typically a more rigidly enforced approach.

34. People use fad diets in an attempt to achieve A. a gradual weight loss. B. a more nutritionally balanced approach to weight loss. C. rapid weight loss. D. making dieting easier and more enjoyable.

35. Dehydration, electrolyte loss, and possible kidney problems are complications associated with which fad diet? A. The Atkins Diet B. Eating Thin for Life C. The New Beverly Hills Diet D. Jenny Craig

36. Many prescription and over-the-counter diet drugs achieve their purpose by A. slowing digestion. B. elevating heart rate. C. stimulating excretion. D. suppressing appetite.

37. The problem with the over-the-counter appetite suppressant phenylpropanolamine (PPA) is A. its association with higher risk of stroke. B. it actually stimulates the appetite. C. it interferes with digestion for most people. D. that research has found it to be ineffective.

38. Which of the following substances was found in many herbal supplements until it was banned in 2003? A. phenylpropanolamine B. ephedrine C. aristolochia fangchi D. dexfenfluramine

39. Gastroplasty achieves its effectiveness as anti-obesity surgery by A. reducing the size of the stomach. B. tightening the muscles around digestive organs. C. shortening the path of food through the digestive tract. D. routing food away from the areas of greatest absorption.

40. A moderately obese, college-age friend of yours wants to try liposuction to solve her problem with obesity. Why is this a bad idea? A. Liposuction is cosmetic and not a life-long behavior change. B. Liposuction is a high risk procedure compared with others. C. Liposuction is more body sculpting than weight loss. D. All of the choices are true of liposuction.

41. You are dangerously obese and you are a compulsive eater. The most effective surgical procedure to enable you to lose weight would be A. liposuction. B. gastroplasty. C. body wrapping. D. gastric band surgery.

42. Tim is thin, and he wants to gain weight for football. He does not have an eating disorder. The best way for Tim to proceed would be to A. eat only high-fat foods and lift weights. B. combine a balanced, calorie-dense diet with strength training. C. train twice a day and consume lots of high-calorie foods. D. combine resistance training with an over-the-counter weight gaining supplement.

43. The key to maintaining a healthy weight is A. caloric expenditure through regular exercise. B. regular counseling sessions. C. over-the-counter weight loss products. D. acupuncture.

44. Which of the following is the most effective tool for eliminating fat from the body? A. dieting B. education C. physical activity D. prescription steroids

45. Your emotional status has little effect on eating behaviors. True False

46. People of all ages tend to be as active as did our ancestors only a few generations ago. True False

47. Many researchers believe that some adults have weight problems because they were overfed as infants. True False

48. Caloric balance exists when we consume enough calories to maintain basic metabolic processes. True False

49. An individual's basal metabolic rate changes as that person ages. True False

50. Most of the calories we consume are used to support functions such as breathing, blood circulation, and body temperature maintenance. True False

51. Most people use fad diets in an attempt to achieve a gradual weight loss. True False

52. Fad diets are often nutritionally unbalanced. True False

53. In cases of extreme obesity, it is acceptable to do a complete fast consuming only water, electrolytes, and vitamins, within a hospital setting. True False

54. A high-quality, commercial weight reduction program will always guarantee significant results. True False

55. There are currently no effective drug treatments for obesity. True False

56. Surgical procedures to treat obesity often have unpleasant side effects. True False

57. A gastric band can be tightened or loosened over time to change the size of the passageway into the stomach. True False

58. Weight gain can be accomplished in a healthy manner. True False

59. The best approach to lifetime weight control is regular exercise combined with a commercial weight loss plan. True False

60. Approximately 15 percent of college women will develop an eating disorder. True False

61. Eating disorder victims tend to have low self-esteem. True False

62. Chewing and spitting out food without swallowing may indicate a more serious eating disorder. True False

63. If left untreated, most eating disorders will resolve themselves. True False

64. Describe the methods used to measure body fat. List the advantages and disadvantages of each.

65. Summarize the set point theory of body weight.

66. List the components of a successful weight loss plan.

67. Summarize a sound approach to lifetime weight control.

68. Explain why dieting alone is a poor way to control weight.

69. Why is regular physical activity the cornerstone of weight control?

70. Briefly compare and contrast the eating disorders anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa.

Chap 06 Key

1. (p. 126) People are considered obese when their body weight exceeds the recommended weight for their height by ______________ percent. A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40

Focus - Chapter 06 #1

2. (p. 131) People gain weight when they A. eat high-fat foods. B. snack between meals. C. avoid strenuous physical activity. D. consume more calories than they need.

Focus - Chapter 06 #2

3. (p. 126) How are the terms overweight and obesity used differently? A. People who are 1-19 percent above their desired weight are called overweight, while those 20 percent or more above their desired weight are called obese. B. All cases of above-desired weight are labeled overweight, while only the most extreme cases are considered obesity. C. People are called overweight when their extra weight is in muscle, and obese when their extra weight is in fat. D. Both terms mean the same thing.

Focus - Chapter 06 #3

4. (p. 126) Sandy's desirable weight is 150 pounds, but she is now about 280. She would be classified as A. overweight. B. mildly obese. C. morbidly obese. D. severely obese.

Focus - Chapter 06 #4

5. (p. 129) The body mass index is A. based on popular body images. B. an age-graded obesity measure. C. a height/weight index in metric units. D. a method of measuring body composition.

Focus - Chapter 06 #5

6. (p. 130) Ashley is 5'1" and weighs 135 pounds. According to the body mass index chart, she is considered A. healthy. B. overweight. C. obese. D. morbidly obese.

Focus - Chapter 06 #6

7. (p. 129) Which of the following is TRUE regarding standardized height/weight tables? They are A. an excellent method for determining body composition. B. an excellent method for determining obesity. C. no longer considered the best way to determine whether body weight is acceptable. D. a precise method for determining the amount of adipose tissue.

Focus - Chapter 06 #7

8. (p. 129) WHR assessment procedure was developed A. to accurately measure the proportions of lean tissue to fat tissue. B. in response to the growing concern over the rate of obesity in the United States. C. as a clinical marker for the treatment of obesity. D. in response to the growing concern over the relationship between the amount of fat in the abdominal cavity and the development of serious health problems.

Focus - Chapter 06 #8

9. (p. 130-131) Skinfold measurements, the bod pod, and hydrostatic weighing are all measures of A. body composition. B. obesity. C. weight. D. fitness.

Focus - Chapter 06 #9

10. (p. 131) When an individual expends more calories than are taken in, this is referred to as A. the thermic effect of food. B. positive caloric balance. C. caloric balance. D. negative caloric balance.

Focus - Chapter 06 #10

11. (p. 130) The Bod Pod determines body composition by A. using a nomogram. B. measuring displaced air. C. relating weight to height. D. measuring electrical resistance under the skin.

Focus - Chapter 06 #11

12. (p. 130) The normal range of body fat for young adult men is ______________ percent. A. 10 to 15 B. 15 to 19 C. 20 to 25 D. 25 to 30

Focus - Chapter 06 #12

13. (p. 130) Which of the following is FALSE regarding a skinfold measurement? A. It is used to calculate the percentage of body fat. B. It is a measurement to determine the thickness of the fat layer just under the skin. C. Only one key site on the body is necessary to accurately determine the percentage of body fat. D. These measurements are taken using a special device known as a caliper.

Focus - Chapter 06 #13

14. (p. 130) Which of the following methods of body fat measurement involves measuring the thickness of the subcutaneous fat layer? A. skinfold measurements B. dual energy x-ray absorptiometry C. electrical impedance D. hydrostatic weighing

Focus - Chapter 06 #14

15. (p. 131) Which of the following BEST explains the causes of obesity? A. Obesity generally occurs among people who lack sufficient leptin output. B. Research indicates that genetic makeup is the main cause of most obesity. C. Although no definitive cause is known, it is believed that several factors play a role. D. Obesity is the product of overeating and lack of exercise, over which everyone has equal control.

Focus - Chapter 06 #15

16. (p. 131) Which of the following BEST describes the influence of genetics on obesity? A. Body type is the only known obesity factor that is strongly affected by genetics. B. Your genetic makeup determines whether you will be obese. C. There are many possible genetic influences on obesity. D. Genetics has little direct influence on obesity.

Focus - Chapter 06 #16

17. (p. 133) The body's appetite controls are mainly located in the A. liver. B. stomach. C. large intestine. D. hypothalamus.

Focus - Chapter 06 #17

18. (p. 133) The appetite center controls A. when you eat. B. how much you eat. C. how your body uses food. D. when you feel hungry or satisfied.

Focus - Chapter 06 #18

19. (p. 134) Which of the following BEST summarizes the set point theory? A. Each person has a point beyond which he or she cannot lose weight. B. Each person's body regulates its use of energy to maintain a certain weight range. C. The body begins to store fat when eating reaches a certain point. D. Once an overweight person has lost weight, it becomes easier to lose more weight up to a certain point.

Focus - Chapter 06 #19

20. (p. 134) Changes in the body's metabolic rate due to a lack, or abundance, of calories is known as A. adipose recession. B. digestive generativity. C. comestible stabilization. D. adaptive thermogenesis.

Focus - Chapter 06 #20

21. (p. 134) What is the percentage of people who go on a diet and gain all of their weight back within a year of going off the diet? A. 90 percent B. 75 percent C. 50 percent D. 25 percent

Focus - Chapter 06 #21

22. (p. 125, 131, 134) ____________ is equal to tobacco as a threat to American's health and disproportionately affects women of color and lower socioeconomic classes. A. Breast cancer B. Obesity C. Stroke D. Hypertension

Focus - Chapter 06 #22

23. (p. 133) Many researchers believe that overfed infants become overweight later in life because A. they develop more fat cells than infants who are not overfed do. B. the heavy calorie load slows down their metabolisms. C. overeating habits are established early in life. D. their fat cells grow in size.

Focus - Chapter 06 #23

24. (p. 132) According to weight management experts, the single most important factor leading to obesity in the United States is A. inactivity. B. family dietary habits. C. the mass promotion of junk foods. D. endocrine dysfunction.

Focus - Chapter 06 #24

25. (p. 132) Your body's energy needs are based on your diet, your activities, and your A. general health. B. basal metabolism. C. degree of obesity. D. endocrine function.

Focus - Chapter 06 #25

26. (p. 131) Consuming about __________ calories more than is needed results in a weight gain of one pound of fat. A. 2,200 B. 1,500 C. 3,500 D. 2,700

Focus - Chapter 06 #26

27. (p. 132) Why do the body's energy requirements decrease with age? Because A. basal metabolic rate declines with age. B. older adults are less active than younger adults. C. aging results in the gradual loss of muscle tissue. D. some body systems are no longer required in older adults.

Focus - Chapter 06 #27

28. (p. 132) Which of the following is NOT related to basal metabolic rate? A. age B. caloric intake C. activity level D. gender

Focus - Chapter 06 #28

29. (p. 132) The amount of energy our bodies require for the digestion, absorption, and transportation of food is known as the ________________ of food. A. thermic effect B. thermatic metabolism C. molecular fusion D. hyperthermogenesis

Focus - Chapter 06 #29

30. (p. 136) According to the experts, you should set a goal to lose no more than __________ pounds a week. A. 5 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Focus - Chapter 06 #30

31. (p. 136) Effective and lasting weight loss requires A. a diet that significantly reduces calorie intake. B. going on a diet for a specific period of time. C. following a diet plan that is restrictive and demanding. D. a lifestyle change that includes healthy eating and regular exercise.

Focus - Chapter 06 #31

32. (p. 136, 137) Which of the following is FALSE regarding a balanced diet supported by portion control? It A. is best undertaken with a nutritionist and physicians knowledgeable in diet management. B. is a diet designed to produce rapid weight loss. C. reflects a nutritionally sound program that offers some probability of success. D. does not force an individual to adopt a restrictive approach to eating.

Focus - Chapter 06 #32

33. (p. 136, 137) Why is a diet based on portion control a better idea than so-called low-calorie or fad diets? A. People can consume more of the foods that they enjoy with portion control. B. Portion control diets achieve results more quickly. C. Portion control typically cuts more calories from a meal. D. Portion control is typically a more rigidly enforced approach.

Focus - Chapter 06 #33

34. (p. 139) People use fad diets in an attempt to achieve A. a gradual weight loss. B. a more nutritionally balanced approach to weight loss. C. rapid weight loss. D. making dieting easier and more enjoyable.

Focus - Chapter 06 #34

35. (p. 139) Dehydration, electrolyte loss, and possible kidney problems are complications associated with which fad diet? A. The Atkins Diet B. Eating Thin for Life C. The New Beverly Hills Diet D. Jenny Craig

Focus - Chapter 06 #35

36. (p. 140, 141) Many prescription and over-the-counter diet drugs achieve their purpose by A. slowing digestion. B. elevating heart rate. C. stimulating excretion. D. suppressing appetite.

Focus - Chapter 06 #36

37. (p. 141) The problem with the over-the-counter appetite suppressant phenylpropanolamine (PPA) is A. its association with higher risk of stroke. B. it actually stimulates the appetite. C. it interferes with digestion for most people. D. that research has found it to be ineffective.

Focus - Chapter 06 #37

38. (p. 141) Which of the following substances was found in many herbal supplements until it was banned in 2003? A. phenylpropanolamine B. ephedrine C. aristolochia fangchi D. dexfenfluramine

Focus - Chapter 06 #38

39. (p. 143) Gastroplasty achieves its effectiveness as anti-obesity surgery by A. reducing the size of the stomach. B. tightening the muscles around digestive organs. C. shortening the path of food through the digestive tract. D. routing food away from the areas of greatest absorption.

Focus - Chapter 06 #39

40. (p. 144) A moderately obese, college-age friend of yours wants to try liposuction to solve her problem with obesity. Why is this a bad idea? A. Liposuction is cosmetic and not a life-long behavior change. B. Liposuction is a high risk procedure compared with others. C. Liposuction is more body sculpting than weight loss. D. All of the choices are true of liposuction.

Focus - Chapter 06 #40

41. (p. 143) You are dangerously obese and you are a compulsive eater. The most effective surgical procedure to enable you to lose weight would be A. liposuction. B. gastroplasty. C. body wrapping. D. gastric band surgery.

Focus - Chapter 06 #41

42. (p. 144) Tim is thin, and he wants to gain weight for football. He does not have an eating disorder. The best way for Tim to proceed would be to A. eat only high-fat foods and lift weights. B. combine a balanced, calorie-dense diet with strength training. C. train twice a day and consume lots of high-calorie foods. D. combine resistance training with an over-the-counter weight gaining supplement.

Focus - Chapter 06 #42

43. (p. 132) The key to maintaining a healthy weight is A. caloric expenditure through regular exercise. B. regular counseling sessions. C. over-the-counter weight loss products. D. acupuncture.

Focus - Chapter 06 #43

44. (p. 132, 137) Which of the following is the most effective tool for eliminating fat from the body? A. dieting B. education C. physical activity D. prescription steroids

Focus - Chapter 06 #44

45. (p. 136) Your emotional status has little effect on eating behaviors. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 06 #45

46. (p. 132) People of all ages tend to be as active as did our ancestors only a few generations ago. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 06 #46

47. (p. 133, 135) Many researchers believe that some adults have weight problems because they were overfed as infants. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 06 #47

48. (p. 131) Caloric balance exists when we consume enough calories to maintain basic metabolic processes. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 06 #48

49. (p. 132) An individual's basal metabolic rate changes as that person ages. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 06 #49

50. (p. 132) Most of the calories we consume are used to support functions such as breathing, blood circulation, and body temperature maintenance. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 06 #50

51. (p. 139) Most people use fad diets in an attempt to achieve a gradual weight loss. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 06 #51

52. (p. 139) Fad diets are often nutritionally unbalanced. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 06 #52

53. (p. 140) In cases of extreme obesity, it is acceptable to do a complete fast consuming only water, electrolytes, and vitamins, within a hospital setting. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 06 #53

54. (p. 140) A high-quality, commercial weight reduction program will always guarantee significant results. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 06 #54

55. (p. 140-142) There are currently no effective drug treatments for obesity. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 06 #55

56. (p. 142-144) Surgical procedures to treat obesity often have unpleasant side effects. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 06 #56

57. (p. 143) A gastric band can be tightened or loosened over time to change the size of the passageway into the stomach. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 06 #57

58. (p. 144-145) Weight gain can be accomplished in a healthy manner. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 06 #58

59. (p. 140) The best approach to lifetime weight control is regular exercise combined with a commercial weight loss plan. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 06 #59

60. (p. 145) Approximately 15 percent of college women will develop an eating disorder. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 06 #60

61. (p. 145, 147) Eating disorder victims tend to have low self-esteem. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 06 #61

62. (p. 148) Chewing and spitting out food without swallowing may indicate a more serious eating disorder. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 06 #62

63. (p. 149) If left untreated, most eating disorders will resolve themselves. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 06 #63

64. (p. 130-131) Describe the methods used to measure body fat. List the advantages and disadvantages of each. The following are some of the methods available to determine body composition. 1) The Body Composition System (Bod Pod) is the newest method that involves an egg-shaped chamber and uses computerized pressure sensors to determine the amount of air displaced by a person's body. From this measure, you can then calculate the person's body density and percentage of body fat. 2) Skinfold measurement relies on constant-pressure calipers to measure the thickness of fat just below the skin. While accurate, skinfolds are notoriously hard to locate precisely and generally another person is required to perform the test. 3) Hydrostatic weighing is a precise method that compared a person's underwater weight with body weight out of water and dry. This method requires expensive equipment and trained technicians, making this method impractical for the average person.

Focus - Chapter 06 #64

65. (p. 134) Summarize the set point theory of body weight. The set point theory posits that each person's body is genetically programmed to maintain a certain weight and, in order to maintain this set point, the body will vary its basal metabolic rate in response to both caloric surpluses and caloric deficits.

Focus - Chapter 06 #65

66. (p. 136) List the components of a successful weight loss plan. 1) Keep a log of the times, settings, reasons, and feelings associated with eating. 2) Set realistic long-term goals (e.g., no more than 2 pounds per week). 3) Don't deprive yourself of enjoyable foods; reward yourself occasionally with a small treat. 4) Realize that you are making sacrifices for your health and happiness. 5) Eat slowly, as it takes 20 minutes for your brain to signal when you are full. 6) Add more physical activity into your daily routine. 7) Share your commitment with family and friends, and reward yourself when you reach a goal. 8) Keep careful records of daily food consumption and weekly weight loss. 9) Be prepared to deal with occasional setbacks, and see your weight loss program as a lifestyle change, not a diet.

Focus - Chapter 06 #66

67. (p. 136-138) Summarize a sound approach to lifetime weight control. A sound approach to lifetime weight control includes regular exercise, balanced nutrition based on portion control and current dietary recommendations, lifestyle support, problem-solving, and redefining your personal goals for health.

Focus - Chapter 06 #67

68. (p. 138-140) Explain why dieting alone is a poor way to control weight. Diets, especially fad diets or commercial programs that sell their own food, tend to induce unusual eating patterns, which most people will not continue for the long term. They will become bored or tired of the effort or unwilling to invest extra money into it. Additionally, diets that do not encourage regular physical activity exclude the most effective tool for losing fat and keeping it off. Dieting alone does not address all the factors (lifestyle habits, nutritional ignorance) that led to obesity in the first place.

Focus - Chapter 06 #68

69. (p. 132) Why is regular physical activity the cornerstone of weight control? When weight management experts are asked to identify the single most important reason that obesity rates are so high, they are almost certain to point to inactivity. A significant benefit of regular exercise is that it will increase the basal metabolic rate resulting in a higher consumption of calories at rest. It is estimated that physical activity uses 20-40 percent of caloric intake.

Focus - Chapter 06 #69

70. (p. 145-148) Briefly compare and contrast the eating disorders anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is probably the most common disorder as indicated by the victim's aversion to food and a sense of being overweight even when the victim is drastically underweight. Bulimia nervosa is marked by a similar obsession with the body, but is characterized by a binge-and-purge behavior. Both disorders must be treated with psychological therapies and, in some cases, medical treatment.

Focus - Chapter 06 #70

Chap 06 Summary Category

# of Questions

Focus - Chapter 06

70

Chap 07 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. Drugs affect the central nervous system by A. eliminating the production of neurotransmitters. B. destroying a neuron's dendrite. C. destroying the synaptic junction. D. blocking the production or forcing the continued release of neurotransmitters.

2. A characteristic of the final stage of the addiction process is performing the addictive behavior in order to A. escape from reality. B. feel better about oneself. C. avoid withdrawal symptoms. D. experience its euphoric effects.

3. Which of the following is NOT part of the process of addiction? A. setting B. compulsion C. loss of control D. exposure

4. Which of the following BEST illustrates codependence? A. protecting an addicted son or daughter from criticism by ignoring the problem B. placing a son or daughter in a treatment program because he or she has an addiction C. supporting an addicted son or daughter's efforts to conquer the addiction D. being economically dependent upon one who has an addiction

5. Which of the following conditions shows MOST clearly that Lise is a codependent in her husband's alcoholism? She A. feels helpless to change him. B. will not force him to seek treatment. C. drinks more than she feels she should. D. will make excuses for her husband's drinking behavior.

6. A drug is any substance (other than food) that A. produces euphoric or anesthetic effects in animals. B. alters structure or function in living organisms. C. has a negative physiological effect in animals. D. is known to be harmful to living tissues.

7. Drugs that change the user's feelings, perceptions, or moods are called A. reactive. B. physiopathic. C. psychoactive. D. corticostimulating.

8. Which of the following is FALSE regarding psychoactive drugs? They A. are used for medical reasons. B. are found in over-the-counter substances. C. only depress the central nervous system. D. have a strong potential for the development for dependence.

9. Which of the following BEST illustrates a drug tolerance reaction? A. Fred gets sick if he drinks more than twelve beers. B. Fred becomes intoxicated after drinking two beers. C. Felicia cannot drink alcohol because even small amounts make her sick. D. Felicia used to get dizzy when she drank a glass of wine, but she no longer does.

10. The unpleasant effects of drug withdrawal are caused by A. the body's attempt to regain homeostasis after developing a physical dependence on the drug. B. toxins released from storage sites in fatty tissues as the level of drug in the bloodstream drops. C. a kickback effect as the immune system tries to remove all traces of the drug from tissues. D. psychological dependence on the drug which causes a physical reaction.

11. Cross-tolerance occurs when A. tolerance to a drug crosses the line into addiction. B. tolerance for one drug affects tolerance for another. C. the combination of two drugs drastically reduces tolerance for both. D. introduction of a new drug changes tolerance to a drug in current use.

12. Every day after work, Leon has a couple of drinks to help him relax even though it upsets his stomach. This illustrates that he A. loves to drink. B. is addicted to alcohol. C. has a high tolerance for alcohol. D. is psychologically dependent on alcohol.

13. Another word that means psychological dependence is A. addiction. B. tolerance C. habituation. D. cross-tolerance

14. Which of the following BEST illustrates drug misuse, as opposed to drug abuse? A. taking twice the recommended dosage of an over-the-counter painkiller for a toothache B. continuing to drink heavily after a doctor has warned you that it is damaging your liver C. taking a drug to prevent withdrawal symptoms D. becoming addicted to prescription painkillers

15. When does drug misuse MOST clearly cross the line into drug abuse? A. when you take a prescription drug to keep from getting sick B. when you take larger doses than the prescription calls for C. when you continue use despite negative effects on health D. when you acquire the drug without a prescription

16. Both of Ron's parents abused drugs, and he fears that he will inherit that behavior. What can you tell him about the role of heredity in substance abuse? A. Genetic factors in substance abuse are strong in men, but weaker in women because of the influence of socialization on women. B. Genetic factors have been found to play a role in the development of alcoholism, but are less conclusive for other substances. C. Genetic engineering techniques now exist that can reduce the influence of many inherited behaviors. D. Genetic engineering has identified many inherited tendencies he will be unable to change.

17. Women absorb more alcohol into the bloodstream than men do. How much more do they absorb? A. 10 percent. B. 20 percent. C. 30 percent. D. 40 percent.

18. Which of the following drugs has shown a significant increase in use over the past few years? A. LSD. B. marijuana. C. ecstasy. D. cocaine.

19. A gateway drug is a drug that A. often leads to the abuse of heavier drugs. B. is usually available over the counter. C. is glamorized by the media. D. cannot be addictive.

20. Of the following, the clearest example of a gateway drug influence is A. partygoers turning to hard liquor when the beer runs low. B. an alcoholic sniffing glue when he has no money for alcohol. C. LSD use branching into hallucinogenic mushrooms and cactus buttons. D. youngsters' cigarette smoking leading the way into marijuana smoking.

21. When two or more drugs are taken and the result is merely a combined total effect of each drug, the result is a(n) ________________ effect. A. synergistic B. additive C. stimulating D. antagonistic

22. Which of the following BEST describes a synergistic effect of two drugs taken together? The effect of the A. drugs is the sum of the effects of each. B. first drug is to make the second more potent. C. second drug is to reduce the effect of the first. D. effect of two drugs combined is greater than the effects of each taken alone.

23. Which of the following BEST illustrates a synergistic drug effect? A. taking several drinks after a dose of your antianxiety medication suddenly causes severe respiratory depression B. taking benzodiazepines to make your alcohol withdrawal symptoms less severe C. receiving a shot of naltrexone to stop the psychoactive effects of heroin D. taking Antabuse to make you sick after you have had several alcoholic drinks

24. When a doctor administers another drug to a victim of a drug overdose, it is probably one that A. has a potentiated effect on the drug that the victim took. B. has an antagonistic effect on the drug that the victim took. C. lowers the basal metabolic rate to protect the victim from heart failure. D. will enable the victim to relax until the effects of the overdose are past.

25. A potentiated effect is A. when one drug reduces the effect of the other drug. B. an exaggerated effect produced by two or more drugs in the same category. C. when the use of one drug intensifies the effect of the second drug. D. when the use of a drug causes the user to do similar drugs in that category.

26. Cocaine, caffeine, and amphetamines are all A. narcotics. B. stimulants. C. hallucinogens. D. physically addictive.

27. Halle drinks three cups of strong coffee per day. Based on what researchers know now, what risks does she face and what should she do? A. She faces an elevated long-term risk of stomach ulcers and should drink coffee only occasionally. B. She is slightly increasing her cancer risk and should cut back to no more than two cups per day. C. She is increasing her risk of chronic hypertension and should switch to decaffeinated coffee. D. No significant risks; she only needs to cut back if she becomes pregnant.

28. Which of the following is FALSE regarding caffeine? A. It is found in several over-the-counter drugs. B. Chronic users show evidence of tolerance and withdrawal. C. There is strong research linking consumption to coronary heart disease. D. It is a tasteless drug that in moderate amounts is relatively harmless to the CNS.

29. A drug commonly prescribed to hyperactive children that is sometimes abused is A. Ritalin. B. diazepam. C. Rohypnol. D. methaqualone.

30. Crystal methamphetamine is A. a relatively harmless form of methamphetamine used to help people stay awake. B. a medical treatment used for obesity and attention deficit hyperactive disorder. C. a pure form of methamphetamine that produces intense physical and psychological exhilaration. D. perhaps the strongest of the stimulant drugs.

31. The addictive effects of cocaine are A. life-threatening if a sudden withdrawal from the drug is attempted. B. slow to develop, except for intravenous users. C. only psychological, but very powerful. D. both psychological and physical.

32. The combination of cocaine hydrochloride with common baking soda is called A. crack. B. angel dust. C. freebasing. D. speedballing.

33. One of the biggest dangers of crack use is A. leukemia. B. flashbacks. C. a "bad trip." D. heart failure.

34. Freebasing is A. another term for making crack cocaine. B. dissolving cocaine in a liquid in order to inject it. C. a method of using solvents to concentrate cocaine. D. a term that describes smoking any type of cocaine.

35. Drugs that induce sleep and are often used in anesthesia are called A. hallucinogens. B. barbiturates. C. tranquilizers. D. inhalants.

36. Tranquilizers and barbiturates fit into which drug category? A. opiates B. stimulants C. depressants D. hallucinogens

37. All of the following are names for the "date rape" drug EXCEPT A. GHB. B. roofies C. liquid ecstasy. D. Sleepy R.

38. If your doctor prescribes a tranquilizer for you, her intention for the drug is to help you to A. relax. B. sleep. C. manage pain. D. recover from an injury.

39. Heavy use of hallucinogens is known to occasionally produce A. reproductive disorders. B. digestive disorders. C. flashbacks. D. cancers.

40. LSD is typically manufactured in A. home laboratories. B. rural South American villages. C. large offshore drug laboratories. D. Asian countries where its production is not illegal.

41. The effects of LSD last about A. a half hour. B. two to three hours. C. four to five hours. D. six to nine hours.

42. The main difference between designer drugs and drugs on the FDA's list of controlled substances is A. their cost. B. their legal status. C. their effectiveness. D. the methods used to make them.

43. Designer drugs are A. chemically and psychoactively similar to controlled substances, but different enough to escape legal restrictions. B. prescription drugs that are combined with other substances for unique psychoactive effects. C. over-the-counter drugs that look like controlled substances. D. legal, over-the-counter medications that are misused.

44. Continued use of Ecstasy can result in A. possible dependence and brain damage. B. bizarre, irrational behavioral influences. C. a multiplied risk of heart attack or stroke. D. coma and death from respiratory depression.

45. One of the unique dangers of PCP is that A. it is both physically and psychologically addictive. B. users lose complete touch with reality. C. it may cause aggression in users. D. it can cause birth defects.

46. The strength of marijuana's hallucinogenic effects is determined by the amount of ___________ it contains. A. cannabis B. hashish C. opium D. THC

47. One of the common effects of marijuana use is A. bizarre perceptions. B. reduced attention span. C. imperviousness to pain. D. complete loss of touch with reality.

48. Which of the following is FALSE regarding marijuana use? A. Marijuana use is associated with damage to the immune and reproductive systems. B. Those who use marijuana report cravings for particular foods. C. Marijuana use has the potential to impair short-term memory. D. The active ingredient in marijuana, THC, can be detected up to 90 days after use.

49. Psychoactive drugs derived from the poppy plant are natural A. hallucinogens. B. tranquilizers. C. depressants. D. narcotics.

50. Which of the following is considered a quasisynthetic narcotic? A. heroin B. opium C. morphine D. hashish

51. A characteristic of major concern when using narcotics is A. the risk of sudden death. B. complete loss of touch with reality. C. the rapid development of physical dependence. D. their acceptance as relatively harmless painkillers.

52. The greatest danger in the use of inhalants is A. birth defects. B. respiratory and cardiovascular damage. C. physical dependence. D. immune system dysfunction.

53. Which of the following is NOT included in class of drugs known as inhalants? A. chloroform B. nitrous oxide C. propoxyphene D. amyl nitrite

54. John uses marijuana on a regular basis, but stopped a few days ago because he knows he will be tested for drugs as part of his job new. What can you tell John about his company's drug screening test and its ability to detect marijuana? A. Marijuana can be detected up to 30 days after its use. B. Most traces of marijuana will be gone within a few days. C. Marijuana is one of the drugs most employers do not test for. D. Marijuana can be detected up to six months after its use.

55. Drug tests commonly search for all of the following EXCEPT A. barbiturates. B. hallucinogens. C. opiates. D. cannabinoids.

56. One recently developed approach to convincing drug-dependent people to enter a treatment program is A. character assassination. B. avoidance. C. intervention. D. chastisement.

57. According to your authors, what percentage of college students are drinkers? A. less than 25 percent B. less than 80 percent C. over 80 percent D. between 85 and 95 percent

58. Binge drinking is defined as A. drinking to twice the level of legal intoxication. B. consuming three or more drinks in a two-hour period. C. drinking five or more drinks on one drinking occasion, during the previous two weeks. D. consuming any number of drinks that brings you to legal intoxication.

59. During the week, Alicia studies hard, works out regularly, eats well, and gets plenty of sleep. She only drinks once or twice a week, at weekend parties, where she typically has five or six drinks each time. What kind of drinker is she? A. infrequent B. light C. moderate D. heavy

60. Moderate drinking for men is defined as no more than _________ drinks each day. A. six B. three C. four D. two

61. Which of the following is FALSE regarding binge drinking? A. It is the consumption of five or more drinks in one sitting, at least once in the previous one week period. B. Lower academic performance is highly associated with binge drinking. C. A strong predictor for binge drinking is living in a sorority or fraternity. D. Physical violence, including rape, is highly related with binge drinking.

62. The main problem with drinking games is that they encourage A. sexual assault. B. binge drinking. C. mixing alcoholic beverages. D. a loosening of sexual restraints.

63. Your friends challenge you to join in a drinking game. If you join in, it is MOST likely that you will A. put yourself at risk for physical violence, drunk driving, and date rape. B. find drinking games rather addicting. C. forget your other obligations. D. become physically sick.

64. It is possible for someone who has acute alcohol intoxication to have all of the following problems occur EXCEPT A. shock. B. tongue falling backwards and obstructing the airway. C. death. D. anxiety.

65. Where does the alcohol in beer and wine come from? It is A. a byproduct of yeast acting on carbohydrates. B. added during the final stage of production. C. emitted when the fruits or grains decay. D. a waste product of anaerobic bacteria.

66. A bottle of 90 proof whiskey is what percentage alcohol by volume? A. 9 B. 30 C. 45 D. 90

67. Of the following groups, who has the highest drinking rate? A. American Indians B. Caucasians C. Alaskan Natives D. African Americans

68. As a class of drug, alcohol is considered a A. hallucinogen. B. depressant. C. stimulant. D. narcotic.

69. Jenna, a 150-pound woman, has challenged Tom, a 150-pound man, to a drinking contest. Jenna will probably become more intoxicated because A. her body will absorb the alcohol faster. B. women cannot tolerate even small amounts of alcohol. C. women tend to have smaller stomachs than same-sized men do. D. men tend to develop more tolerance for alcohol than women do.

70. Why does eating a meal before drinking reduce the effects of alcohol? A. A full stomach reduces the drinker's capacity for alcohol. B. Some alcohol bonds to carbohydrate molecules in food, rendering the alcohol inert. C. Food substances oxidize some of the alcohol before it is absorbed into the bloodstream. D. Food competes with the alcohol for absorption into the bloodstream slowing the rate at which alcohol is absorbed.

71. All of the following factors influence the absorption of alcohol. Which one CANNOT be modified by the user? A. strength of the beverage B. body chemistry C. speed of consumption D. presence of food

72. Most of the alcohol that you drink is removed from your body by the process of A. respiration. B. defecation. C. oxidation. D. urination.

73. Jamie has become very drunk at a party. What can his friends do to help him walk home? A. Give him something to eat. B. Make him take a cool shower. C. Give him caffeinated beverages. D. Wait for the effects of the alcohol to wear off.

74. Corey has passed out on the couch after participating in a drinking contest. His friends cannot wake him. What should they do? A. Seek emergency medical help. B. Remove him to a safe place to sleep. C. Do not attempt to move him until he wakes. D. Help him to regurgitate the alcohol still in his stomach.

75. Acute alcohol intoxication should be suspected in an individual if his A. speech and motor coordination is impaired. B. pulse is rather strong and rapid. C. breathing is deep and regular. D. skin is pale and bluish.

76. You suspect your unconscious friend has acute alcohol intoxication. After you call 911, you should A. try to get him into a shower. B. sit by your friend until help comes. C. position your friend on his side. D. try to give him something to drink, like coffee.

77. Which of the following characterizes fetal alcohol syndrome? A. children born addicted to alcohol B. children born with detectable levels of alcohol in their blood C. newborn children who are unable to move their arms or legs D. children born with congenital damage attributable to the mother's use of alcohol

78. Which of the following BEST describes the connection between drinking and common types of fatal accidents in the United States? A. Accidental deaths are caused by alcohol abuse. B. An alcohol-related car crash fatality occurs every two minutes. C. Alcohol abusers are twice as likely to kill as to be killed in accidents. D. There is s a strong statistical connection between alcohol use and the leading causes of accidental deaths in the United States.

79. The purpose of zero-tolerance laws is to A. discourage driving by underage drinkers. B. stiffen penalties for second-time drunken drivers. C. permanently restrict privileges for anyone convicted of drunken driving. D. discourage people from driving if they have drunk any quantity of alcohol.

80. Which of the following is TRUE regarding alcohol and violent crimes? A. People who commit violent crimes have the same alcohol problems as the general public. B. Alcohol use has not been connected to the incidents of violent crimes in the United States. C. Alcohol use has been reported in more than 50 percent of all homicides. D. Alcohol use is associated with less than 10 percent of all rape situations.

81. Which of the following is FALSE regarding alcohol use and suicides? Alcohol use is A. involved with 30 percent of completed suicides. B. associated with impulsive suicides. C. involved with more violent and lethal means of suicide. D. associated with premeditated suicides.

82. Which of the following is one way in which problem drinking differs from alcoholism? A. Problem drinking has a major impact on the lives of others close to the drinker. B. The problem drinker sometimes has blackouts from drinking. C. The problem drinker does not drink to maintain normal body function. D. The problem drinker usually drinks alone.

83. Problem drinking is characterized by A. tolerance symptoms when alcohol is taken away. B. dependence on alcohol to function normally. C. personal difficulties from alcohol use. D. daily drinking habits.

84. An inability to remember events that occurred during a period of alcohol use is called a A. stupor. B. blackout. C. dream state. D. delirium tremens.

85. Cocaine is capable of inducing physical dependence. True False

86. There is no natural source for amphetamines. True False

87. Chronic use of methamphetamine will not produce psychological dependence. True False

88. Cocaine is perhaps the weakest of the stimulant drugs. True False

89. The effect of smoking crack is almost instantaneous. True False

90. Barbiturates and tranquilizers are two common types of depressants. True False

91. In medical use, barbiturates are designed to relax the patient, while tranquilizers are designed to induce sleep. True False

92. The hallucinogen LSD is a derivative of mescaline. True False

93. LSD users do not develop a physical dependence on the drug. True False

94. PCP use is marked by paranoia and aggressive behavior. True False

95. PCP is typically manufactured in home laboratories. True False

96. Marijuana produces mild effects like those of stimulants and depressants. True False

97. Marijuana's active ingredient is excreted from the body in a few hours. True False

98. Quasisynthetic narcotics are created by chemically altering morphine. True False

99. Unlike the dependency that can be produced by drugs, process addictions do not generally cause financial, emotional, or social problems. True False

100. Drinking alcohol reduces most people's natural inhibitions. True False

101. A bottle of 90 proof whisky is 45 percent alcohol. True False

102. Your peak blood alcohol level can be five times higher on an empty stomach than it is on a full stomach. True False

103. Women generally become drunk more quickly than men. True False

104. The speed of consumption has little, if any, effect on blood alcohol concentration. True False

105. One way your body protects itself from alcohol poisoning is to cause you to vomit when you drink too much. True False

106. Medical doctors have been able to pinpoint the exact amount of alcohol which can lead to fetal alcohol syndrome. True False

107. A sign that someone has alcohol poisoning is a weak and rapid pulse. True False

108. Motor vehicle collisions, falls, drownings, and fires are connected to alcohol use. True False

109. Alcohol is a factor in over half of all homicide cases. True False

110. Although alcohol abuse appears to increase the likelihood of murder, it does not appear to increase the likelihood of suicide. True False

111. A so-called problem drinker has many of the same troubles that alcoholics have without the physical dependency. True False

112. Delirium tremens occur when an alcoholic does not drink. True False

113. One way to slow the absorption of alcohol into the blood stream is to eat a full meal before drinking. True False

114. About half of all Far East Asians cannot tolerate even small amounts of alcohol. True False

115. Research indicates that there is no link between heredity and alcoholism. True False

116. Denial is common among alcoholics. True False

117. Enabling occurs when people close to the alcoholic inadvertently protect the drinking behavior. True False

118. Codependence and enabling seldom occur together. True False

119. Medical treatments for alcoholism focus on reducing the craving for alcohol. True False

120. Compare the similarities and differences between drug abuse and drug misuse.

121. Describe the impact of psychoactive drugs on nervous system function.

122. Describe the process of addiction.

123. Compare and contrast stimulants and depressants.

124. What is the main purpose of binge drinking? Explain why binge drinking is dangerous.

125. Explain why hot coffee, a brisk walk, or a cold shower are ineffective ways to sober up.

126. List the signs of acute alcohol intoxication and how you would cope with this event.

127. List practical strategies related to drinking responsibly.

Chap 07 Key

1. (p. 158) Drugs affect the central nervous system by A. eliminating the production of neurotransmitters. B. destroying a neuron's dendrite. C. destroying the synaptic junction. D. blocking the production or forcing the continued release of neurotransmitters.

Focus - Chapter 07 #1

2. (p. 157) A characteristic of the final stage of the addiction process is performing the addictive behavior in order to A. escape from reality. B. feel better about oneself. C. avoid withdrawal symptoms. D. experience its euphoric effects.

Focus - Chapter 07 #2

3. (p. 156-157) Which of the following is NOT part of the process of addiction? A. setting B. compulsion C. loss of control D. exposure

Focus - Chapter 07 #3

4. (p. 157) Which of the following BEST illustrates codependence? A. protecting an addicted son or daughter from criticism by ignoring the problem B. placing a son or daughter in a treatment program because he or she has an addiction C. supporting an addicted son or daughter's efforts to conquer the addiction D. being economically dependent upon one who has an addiction

Focus - Chapter 07 #4

5. (p. 157) Which of the following conditions shows MOST clearly that Lise is a codependent in her husband's alcoholism? She A. feels helpless to change him. B. will not force him to seek treatment. C. drinks more than she feels she should. D. will make excuses for her husband's drinking behavior.

Focus - Chapter 07 #5

6. (p. 155) A drug is any substance (other than food) that A. produces euphoric or anesthetic effects in animals. B. alters structure or function in living organisms. C. has a negative physiological effect in animals. D. is known to be harmful to living tissues.

Focus - Chapter 07 #6

7. (p. 154-155) Drugs that change the user's feelings, perceptions, or moods are called A. reactive. B. physiopathic. C. psychoactive. D. corticostimulating.

Focus - Chapter 07 #7

8. (p. 154) Which of the following is FALSE regarding psychoactive drugs? They A. are used for medical reasons. B. are found in over-the-counter substances. C. only depress the central nervous system. D. have a strong potential for the development for dependence.

Focus - Chapter 07 #8

9. (p. 156) Which of the following BEST illustrates a drug tolerance reaction? A. Fred gets sick if he drinks more than twelve beers. B. Fred becomes intoxicated after drinking two beers. C. Felicia cannot drink alcohol because even small amounts make her sick. D. Felicia used to get dizzy when she drank a glass of wine, but she no longer does.

Focus - Chapter 07 #9

10. (p. 156) The unpleasant effects of drug withdrawal are caused by A. the body's attempt to regain homeostasis after developing a physical dependence on the drug. B. toxins released from storage sites in fatty tissues as the level of drug in the bloodstream drops. C. a kickback effect as the immune system tries to remove all traces of the drug from tissues. D. psychological dependence on the drug which causes a physical reaction.

Focus - Chapter 07 #10

11. (p. 156) Cross-tolerance occurs when A. tolerance to a drug crosses the line into addiction. B. tolerance for one drug affects tolerance for another. C. the combination of two drugs drastically reduces tolerance for both. D. introduction of a new drug changes tolerance to a drug in current use.

Focus - Chapter 07 #11

12. (p. 156) Every day after work, Leon has a couple of drinks to help him relax even though it upsets his stomach. This illustrates that he A. loves to drink. B. is addicted to alcohol. C. has a high tolerance for alcohol. D. is psychologically dependent on alcohol.

Focus - Chapter 07 #12

13. (p. 156) Another word that means psychological dependence is A. addiction. B. tolerance C. habituation. D. cross-tolerance

Focus - Chapter 07 #13

14. (p. 155) Which of the following BEST illustrates drug misuse, as opposed to drug abuse? A. taking twice the recommended dosage of an over-the-counter painkiller for a toothache B. continuing to drink heavily after a doctor has warned you that it is damaging your liver C. taking a drug to prevent withdrawal symptoms D. becoming addicted to prescription painkillers

Focus - Chapter 07 #14

15. (p. 155) When does drug misuse MOST clearly cross the line into drug abuse? A. when you take a prescription drug to keep from getting sick B. when you take larger doses than the prescription calls for C. when you continue use despite negative effects on health D. when you acquire the drug without a prescription

Focus - Chapter 07 #15

16. (p. 157, 177) Both of Ron's parents abused drugs, and he fears that he will inherit that behavior. What can you tell him about the role of heredity in substance abuse? A. Genetic factors in substance abuse are strong in men, but weaker in women because of the influence of socialization on women. B. Genetic factors have been found to play a role in the development of alcoholism, but are less conclusive for other substances. C. Genetic engineering techniques now exist that can reduce the influence of many inherited behaviors. D. Genetic engineering has identified many inherited tendencies he will be unable to change.

Focus - Chapter 07 #16

17. (p. 171) Women absorb more alcohol into the bloodstream than men do. How much more do they absorb? A. 10 percent. B. 20 percent. C. 30 percent. D. 40 percent.

Focus - Chapter 07 #17

18. (p. 161) Which of the following drugs has shown a significant increase in use over the past few years? A. LSD. B. marijuana. C. ecstasy. D. cocaine.

Focus - Chapter 07 #18

19. (p. 179) A gateway drug is a drug that A. often leads to the abuse of heavier drugs. B. is usually available over the counter. C. is glamorized by the media. D. cannot be addictive.

Focus - Chapter 07 #19

20. (p. 179) Of the following, the clearest example of a gateway drug influence is A. partygoers turning to hard liquor when the beer runs low. B. an alcoholic sniffing glue when he has no money for alcohol. C. LSD use branching into hallucinogenic mushrooms and cactus buttons. D. youngsters' cigarette smoking leading the way into marijuana smoking.

Focus - Chapter 07 #20

21. (p. 168, 169) When two or more drugs are taken and the result is merely a combined total effect of each drug, the result is a(n) ________________ effect. A. synergistic B. additive C. stimulating D. antagonistic

Focus - Chapter 07 #21

22. (p. 168, 169) Which of the following BEST describes a synergistic effect of two drugs taken together? The effect of the A. drugs is the sum of the effects of each. B. first drug is to make the second more potent. C. second drug is to reduce the effect of the first. D. effect of two drugs combined is greater than the effects of each taken alone.

Focus - Chapter 07 #22

23. (p. 168) Which of the following BEST illustrates a synergistic drug effect? A. taking several drinks after a dose of your antianxiety medication suddenly causes severe respiratory depression B. taking benzodiazepines to make your alcohol withdrawal symptoms less severe C. receiving a shot of naltrexone to stop the psychoactive effects of heroin D. taking Antabuse to make you sick after you have had several alcoholic drinks

Focus - Chapter 07 #23

24. (p. 169) When a doctor administers another drug to a victim of a drug overdose, it is probably one that A. has a potentiated effect on the drug that the victim took. B. has an antagonistic effect on the drug that the victim took. C. lowers the basal metabolic rate to protect the victim from heart failure. D. will enable the victim to relax until the effects of the overdose are past.

Focus - Chapter 07 #24

25. (p. 168, 169) A potentiated effect is A. when one drug reduces the effect of the other drug. B. an exaggerated effect produced by two or more drugs in the same category. C. when the use of one drug intensifies the effect of the second drug. D. when the use of a drug causes the user to do similar drugs in that category.

Focus - Chapter 07 #25

26. (p. 161) Cocaine, caffeine, and amphetamines are all A. narcotics. B. stimulants. C. hallucinogens. D. physically addictive.

Focus - Chapter 07 #26

27. (p. 161, 162) Halle drinks three cups of strong coffee per day. Based on what researchers know now, what risks does she face and what should she do? A. She faces an elevated long-term risk of stomach ulcers and should drink coffee only occasionally. B. She is slightly increasing her cancer risk and should cut back to no more than two cups per day. C. She is increasing her risk of chronic hypertension and should switch to decaffeinated coffee. D. No significant risks; she only needs to cut back if she becomes pregnant.

Focus - Chapter 07 #27

28. (p. 161) Which of the following is FALSE regarding caffeine? A. It is found in several over-the-counter drugs. B. Chronic users show evidence of tolerance and withdrawal. C. There is strong research linking consumption to coronary heart disease. D. It is a tasteless drug that in moderate amounts is relatively harmless to the CNS.

Focus - Chapter 07 #28

29. (p. 163) A drug commonly prescribed to hyperactive children that is sometimes abused is A. Ritalin. B. diazepam. C. Rohypnol. D. methaqualone.

Focus - Chapter 07 #29

30. (p. 162) Crystal methamphetamine is A. a relatively harmless form of methamphetamine used to help people stay awake. B. a medical treatment used for obesity and attention deficit hyperactive disorder. C. a pure form of methamphetamine that produces intense physical and psychological exhilaration. D. perhaps the strongest of the stimulant drugs.

Focus - Chapter 07 #30

31. (p. 163) The addictive effects of cocaine are A. life-threatening if a sudden withdrawal from the drug is attempted. B. slow to develop, except for intravenous users. C. only psychological, but very powerful. D. both psychological and physical.

Focus - Chapter 07 #31

32. (p. 164) The combination of cocaine hydrochloride with common baking soda is called A. crack. B. angel dust. C. freebasing. D. speedballing.

Focus - Chapter 07 #32

33. (p. 164) One of the biggest dangers of crack use is A. leukemia. B. flashbacks. C. a "bad trip." D. heart failure.

Focus - Chapter 07 #33

34. (p. 163) Freebasing is A. another term for making crack cocaine. B. dissolving cocaine in a liquid in order to inject it. C. a method of using solvents to concentrate cocaine. D. a term that describes smoking any type of cocaine.

Focus - Chapter 07 #34

35. (p. 164) Drugs that induce sleep and are often used in anesthesia are called A. hallucinogens. B. barbiturates. C. tranquilizers. D. inhalants.

Focus - Chapter 07 #35

36. (p. 164) Tranquilizers and barbiturates fit into which drug category? A. opiates B. stimulants C. depressants D. hallucinogens

Focus - Chapter 07 #36

37. (p. 164) All of the following are names for the "date rape" drug EXCEPT A. GHB. B. roofies C. liquid ecstasy. D. Sleepy R.

Focus - Chapter 07 #37

38. (p. 164) If your doctor prescribes a tranquilizer for you, her intention for the drug is to help you to A. relax. B. sleep. C. manage pain. D. recover from an injury.

Focus - Chapter 07 #38

39. (p. 165) Heavy use of hallucinogens is known to occasionally produce A. reproductive disorders. B. digestive disorders. C. flashbacks. D. cancers.

Focus - Chapter 07 #39

40. (p. 165) LSD is typically manufactured in A. home laboratories. B. rural South American villages. C. large offshore drug laboratories. D. Asian countries where its production is not illegal.

Focus - Chapter 07 #40

41. (p. 165) The effects of LSD last about A. a half hour. B. two to three hours. C. four to five hours. D. six to nine hours.

Focus - Chapter 07 #41

42. (p. 165) The main difference between designer drugs and drugs on the FDA's list of controlled substances is A. their cost. B. their legal status. C. their effectiveness. D. the methods used to make them.

Focus - Chapter 07 #42

43. (p. 165) Designer drugs are A. chemically and psychoactively similar to controlled substances, but different enough to escape legal restrictions. B. prescription drugs that are combined with other substances for unique psychoactive effects. C. over-the-counter drugs that look like controlled substances. D. legal, over-the-counter medications that are misused.

Focus - Chapter 07 #43

44. (p. 166) Continued use of Ecstasy can result in A. possible dependence and brain damage. B. bizarre, irrational behavioral influences. C. a multiplied risk of heart attack or stroke. D. coma and death from respiratory depression.

Focus - Chapter 07 #44

45. (p. 166) One of the unique dangers of PCP is that A. it is both physically and psychologically addictive. B. users lose complete touch with reality. C. it may cause aggression in users. D. it can cause birth defects.

Focus - Chapter 07 #45

46. (p. 166) The strength of marijuana's hallucinogenic effects is determined by the amount of ___________ it contains. A. cannabis B. hashish C. opium D. THC

Focus - Chapter 07 #46

47. (p. 166) One of the common effects of marijuana use is A. bizarre perceptions. B. reduced attention span. C. imperviousness to pain. D. complete loss of touch with reality.

Focus - Chapter 07 #47

48. (p. 166) Which of the following is FALSE regarding marijuana use? A. Marijuana use is associated with damage to the immune and reproductive systems. B. Those who use marijuana report cravings for particular foods. C. Marijuana use has the potential to impair short-term memory. D. The active ingredient in marijuana, THC, can be detected up to 90 days after use.

Focus - Chapter 07 #48

49. (p. 167) Psychoactive drugs derived from the poppy plant are natural A. hallucinogens. B. tranquilizers. C. depressants. D. narcotics.

Focus - Chapter 07 #49

50. (p. 167) Which of the following is considered a quasisynthetic narcotic? A. heroin B. opium C. morphine D. hashish

Focus - Chapter 07 #50

51. (p. 167, 168) A characteristic of major concern when using narcotics is A. the risk of sudden death. B. complete loss of touch with reality. C. the rapid development of physical dependence. D. their acceptance as relatively harmless painkillers.

Focus - Chapter 07 #51

52. (p. 168) The greatest danger in the use of inhalants is A. birth defects. B. respiratory and cardiovascular damage. C. physical dependence. D. immune system dysfunction.

Focus - Chapter 07 #52

53. (p. 168) Which of the following is NOT included in class of drugs known as inhalants? A. chloroform B. nitrous oxide C. propoxyphene D. amyl nitrite

Focus - Chapter 07 #53

54. (p. 166) John uses marijuana on a regular basis, but stopped a few days ago because he knows he will be tested for drugs as part of his job new. What can you tell John about his company's drug screening test and its ability to detect marijuana? A. Marijuana can be detected up to 30 days after its use. B. Most traces of marijuana will be gone within a few days. C. Marijuana is one of the drugs most employers do not test for. D. Marijuana can be detected up to six months after its use.

Focus - Chapter 07 #54

55. (p. 180) Drug tests commonly search for all of the following EXCEPT A. barbiturates. B. hallucinogens. C. opiates. D. cannabinoids.

Focus - Chapter 07 #55

56. (p. 181, 182) One recently developed approach to convincing drug-dependent people to enter a treatment program is A. character assassination. B. avoidance. C. intervention. D. chastisement.

Focus - Chapter 07 #56

57. (p. 174) According to your authors, what percentage of college students are drinkers? A. less than 25 percent B. less than 80 percent C. over 80 percent D. between 85 and 95 percent

Focus - Chapter 07 #57

58. (p. 174) Binge drinking is defined as A. drinking to twice the level of legal intoxication. B. consuming three or more drinks in a two-hour period. C. drinking five or more drinks on one drinking occasion, during the previous two weeks. D. consuming any number of drinks that brings you to legal intoxication.

Focus - Chapter 07 #58

59. (p. 174, 175) During the week, Alicia studies hard, works out regularly, eats well, and gets plenty of sleep. She only drinks once or twice a week, at weekend parties, where she typically has five or six drinks each time. What kind of drinker is she? A. infrequent B. light C. moderate D. heavy

Focus - Chapter 07 #59

60. (p. 169) Moderate drinking for men is defined as no more than _________ drinks each day. A. six B. three C. four D. two

Focus - Chapter 07 #60

61. (p. 174) Which of the following is FALSE regarding binge drinking? A. It is the consumption of five or more drinks in one sitting, at least once in the previous one week period. B. Lower academic performance is highly associated with binge drinking. C. A strong predictor for binge drinking is living in a sorority or fraternity. D. Physical violence, including rape, is highly related with binge drinking.

Focus - Chapter 07 #61

62. (p. 174) The main problem with drinking games is that they encourage A. sexual assault. B. binge drinking. C. mixing alcoholic beverages. D. a loosening of sexual restraints.

Focus - Chapter 07 #62

63. (p. 175) Your friends challenge you to join in a drinking game. If you join in, it is MOST likely that you will A. put yourself at risk for physical violence, drunk driving, and date rape. B. find drinking games rather addicting. C. forget your other obligations. D. become physically sick.

Focus - Chapter 07 #63

64. (p. 172, 173) It is possible for someone who has acute alcohol intoxication to have all of the following problems occur EXCEPT A. shock. B. tongue falling backwards and obstructing the airway. C. death. D. anxiety.

Focus - Chapter 07 #64

65. (p. 169) Where does the alcohol in beer and wine come from? It is A. a byproduct of yeast acting on carbohydrates. B. added during the final stage of production. C. emitted when the fruits or grains decay. D. a waste product of anaerobic bacteria.

Focus - Chapter 07 #65

66. (p. 169) A bottle of 90 proof whiskey is what percentage alcohol by volume? A. 9 B. 30 C. 45 D. 90

Focus - Chapter 07 #66

67. (p. 174) Of the following groups, who has the highest drinking rate? A. American Indians B. Caucasians C. Alaskan Natives D. African Americans

Focus - Chapter 07 #67

68. (p. 169) As a class of drug, alcohol is considered a A. hallucinogen. B. depressant. C. stimulant. D. narcotic.

Focus - Chapter 07 #68

69. (p. 171) Jenna, a 150-pound woman, has challenged Tom, a 150-pound man, to a drinking contest. Jenna will probably become more intoxicated because A. her body will absorb the alcohol faster. B. women cannot tolerate even small amounts of alcohol. C. women tend to have smaller stomachs than same-sized men do. D. men tend to develop more tolerance for alcohol than women do.

Focus - Chapter 07 #69

70. (p. 170) Why does eating a meal before drinking reduce the effects of alcohol? A. A full stomach reduces the drinker's capacity for alcohol. B. Some alcohol bonds to carbohydrate molecules in food, rendering the alcohol inert. C. Food substances oxidize some of the alcohol before it is absorbed into the bloodstream. D. Food competes with the alcohol for absorption into the bloodstream slowing the rate at which alcohol is absorbed.

Focus - Chapter 07 #70

71. (p. 170-171) All of the following factors influence the absorption of alcohol. Which one CANNOT be modified by the user? A. strength of the beverage B. body chemistry C. speed of consumption D. presence of food

Focus - Chapter 07 #71

72. (p. 171) Most of the alcohol that you drink is removed from your body by the process of A. respiration. B. defecation. C. oxidation. D. urination.

Focus - Chapter 07 #72

73. (p. 171) Jamie has become very drunk at a party. What can his friends do to help him walk home? A. Give him something to eat. B. Make him take a cool shower. C. Give him caffeinated beverages. D. Wait for the effects of the alcohol to wear off.

Focus - Chapter 07 #73

74. (p. 172, 173) Corey has passed out on the couch after participating in a drinking contest. His friends cannot wake him. What should they do? A. Seek emergency medical help. B. Remove him to a safe place to sleep. C. Do not attempt to move him until he wakes. D. Help him to regurgitate the alcohol still in his stomach.

Focus - Chapter 07 #74

75. (p. 172) Acute alcohol intoxication should be suspected in an individual if his A. speech and motor coordination is impaired. B. pulse is rather strong and rapid. C. breathing is deep and regular. D. skin is pale and bluish.

Focus - Chapter 07 #75

76. (p. 172-173) You suspect your unconscious friend has acute alcohol intoxication. After you call 911, you should A. try to get him into a shower. B. sit by your friend until help comes. C. position your friend on his side. D. try to give him something to drink, like coffee.

Focus - Chapter 07 #76

77. (p. 175, 176) Which of the following characterizes fetal alcohol syndrome? A. children born addicted to alcohol B. children born with detectable levels of alcohol in their blood C. newborn children who are unable to move their arms or legs D. children born with congenital damage attributable to the mother's use of alcohol

Focus - Chapter 07 #77

78. (p. 177) Which of the following BEST describes the connection between drinking and common types of fatal accidents in the United States? A. Accidental deaths are caused by alcohol abuse. B. An alcohol-related car crash fatality occurs every two minutes. C. Alcohol abusers are twice as likely to kill as to be killed in accidents. D. There is s a strong statistical connection between alcohol use and the leading causes of accidental deaths in the United States.

Focus - Chapter 07 #78

79. (p. 178) The purpose of zero-tolerance laws is to A. discourage driving by underage drinkers. B. stiffen penalties for second-time drunken drivers. C. permanently restrict privileges for anyone convicted of drunken driving. D. discourage people from driving if they have drunk any quantity of alcohol.

Focus - Chapter 07 #79

80. (p. 178) Which of the following is TRUE regarding alcohol and violent crimes? A. People who commit violent crimes have the same alcohol problems as the general public. B. Alcohol use has not been connected to the incidents of violent crimes in the United States. C. Alcohol use has been reported in more than 50 percent of all homicides. D. Alcohol use is associated with less than 10 percent of all rape situations.

Focus - Chapter 07 #80

81. (p. 178) Which of the following is FALSE regarding alcohol use and suicides? Alcohol use is A. involved with 30 percent of completed suicides. B. associated with impulsive suicides. C. involved with more violent and lethal means of suicide. D. associated with premeditated suicides.

Focus - Chapter 07 #81

82. (p. 177) Which of the following is one way in which problem drinking differs from alcoholism? A. Problem drinking has a major impact on the lives of others close to the drinker. B. The problem drinker sometimes has blackouts from drinking. C. The problem drinker does not drink to maintain normal body function. D. The problem drinker usually drinks alone.

Focus - Chapter 07 #82

83. (p. 177) Problem drinking is characterized by A. tolerance symptoms when alcohol is taken away. B. dependence on alcohol to function normally. C. personal difficulties from alcohol use. D. daily drinking habits.

Focus - Chapter 07 #83

84. (p. 177) An inability to remember events that occurred during a period of alcohol use is called a A. stupor. B. blackout. C. dream state. D. delirium tremens.

Focus - Chapter 07 #84

85. (p. 161) Cocaine is capable of inducing physical dependence. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 07 #85

86. (p. 162) There is no natural source for amphetamines. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 07 #86

87. (p. 162) Chronic use of methamphetamine will not produce psychological dependence. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 07 #87

88. (p. 163) Cocaine is perhaps the weakest of the stimulant drugs. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 07 #88

89. (p. 164) The effect of smoking crack is almost instantaneous. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 07 #89

90. (p. 164) Barbiturates and tranquilizers are two common types of depressants. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 07 #90

91. (p. 164) In medical use, barbiturates are designed to relax the patient, while tranquilizers are designed to induce sleep. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 07 #91

92. (p. 165) The hallucinogen LSD is a derivative of mescaline. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 07 #92

93. (p. 165) LSD users do not develop a physical dependence on the drug. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 07 #93

94. (p. 166) PCP use is marked by paranoia and aggressive behavior. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 07 #94

95. (p. 166) PCP is typically manufactured in home laboratories. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 07 #95

96. (p. 166) Marijuana produces mild effects like those of stimulants and depressants. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 07 #96

97. (p. 166) Marijuana's active ingredient is excreted from the body in a few hours. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 07 #97

98. (p. 167) Quasisynthetic narcotics are created by chemically altering morphine. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 07 #98

99. (p. 156) Unlike the dependency that can be produced by drugs, process addictions do not generally cause financial, emotional, or social problems. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 07 #99

100. (p. 169, 170) Drinking alcohol reduces most people's natural inhibitions. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 07 #100

101. (p. 169) A bottle of 90 proof whisky is 45 percent alcohol. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 07 #101

102. (p. 170) Your peak blood alcohol level can be five times higher on an empty stomach than it is on a full stomach. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 07 #102

103. (p. 170, 171) Women generally become drunk more quickly than men. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 07 #103

104. (p. 170) The speed of consumption has little, if any, effect on blood alcohol concentration. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 07 #104

105. (p. 172) One way your body protects itself from alcohol poisoning is to cause you to vomit when you drink too much. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 07 #105

106. (p. 176) Medical doctors have been able to pinpoint the exact amount of alcohol which can lead to fetal alcohol syndrome. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 07 #106

107. (p. 172) A sign that someone has alcohol poisoning is a weak and rapid pulse. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 07 #107

108. (p. 177, 178) Motor vehicle collisions, falls, drownings, and fires are connected to alcohol use. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 07 #108

109. (p. 178) Alcohol is a factor in over half of all homicide cases. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 07 #109

110. (p. 178) Although alcohol abuse appears to increase the likelihood of murder, it does not appear to increase the likelihood of suicide. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 07 #110

111. (p. 177) A so-called problem drinker has many of the same troubles that alcoholics have without the physical dependency. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 07 #111

112. (p. 176, 177) Delirium tremens occur when an alcoholic does not drink. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 07 #112

113. (p. 170) One way to slow the absorption of alcohol into the blood stream is to eat a full meal before drinking. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 07 #113

114. (p. 171) About half of all Far East Asians cannot tolerate even small amounts of alcohol. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 07 #114

115. (p. 170) Research indicates that there is no link between heredity and alcoholism. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 07 #115

116. (p. 176) Denial is common among alcoholics. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 07 #116

117. (p. 157) Enabling occurs when people close to the alcoholic inadvertently protect the drinking behavior. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 07 #117

118. (p. 157) Codependence and enabling seldom occur together. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 07 #118

119. (p. 181) Medical treatments for alcoholism focus on reducing the craving for alcohol. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 07 #119

120. (p. 155) Compare the similarities and differences between drug abuse and drug misuse. Both refer to the inappropriate use of drugs, and both can be damaging to health. Misuse, however, refers to inappropriate medicinal use of a legal drug, while abuse refers to any use of any drug in a way that damages health.

Focus - Chapter 07 #120

121. (p. 157, 158) Describe the impact of psychoactive drugs on nervous system function. Environmental stimuli are collected by various receptors, converted to electrical impulses, and conducted to the brain through nerves. The electrical impulses are transmitted between nerve cells by the activity of chemical neurotransmitters. Psychoactive drugs disrupt the activity of these neurotransmitters.

Focus - Chapter 07 #121

122. (p. 156, 157) Describe the process of addiction. Addictive behavior seems to have three common aspects that include: 1) exposure whereby an individual is exposed to a drug or behavior that he or she finds pleasurable. The initial pleasure becomes a focal point in their lives. 2) compulsion that occurs when increasingly more energy, time, and money are spent pursuing the drug or behavior. During this aspect, an individual's "normal" life begins to degrade while he or she searches for increased pleasure from the drug or behavior. 3) loss of control that occurs when the search for highs changes to a desire to avoid the withdrawal from the drug or behavior and, as a result, the individual loses the ability to control his or her behavior.

Focus - Chapter 07 #122

123. (p. 161-165) Compare and contrast stimulants and depressants. Stimulants generally increase the activity of the central nervous system and increase such functions as heart rate, blood pressure, and brain activity. Depressants have the opposite effect on the central nervous system and cardiovascular system. Stimulants tend to be psychologically addictive but not physically addictive, while depressants are generally both. Both types of drugs can be dangerous and even lethal when abused.

Focus - Chapter 07 #123

124. (p. 174, 175) What is the main purpose of binge drinking? Explain why binge drinking is dangerous. The main problem is that the purpose of binge drinking is to get drunk. When drunkenness occurs, risks of accidental death or injury increase, as do risks of sexual assault and out-of-control behavior. Also damaging, although less dangerous, are the social errors people commit when drunk. A continued pattern of binge drinking can lead to substandard performance at school or on the job.

Focus - Chapter 07 #124

125. (p. 171, 172) Explain why hot coffee, a brisk walk, or a cold shower are ineffective ways to sober up. The body removes alcohol from the bloodstream by oxidizing it; this process occurs at a constant rate and can't be sped up or slowed down. Coffee drinking or stimulating activities can raise the heart rate and increase blood flow to the extremities, but the alcohol remains in the system.

Focus - Chapter 07 #125

126. (p. 172, 173) List the signs of acute alcohol intoxication and how you would cope with this event. When an individual has been drinking heavily, you should look for signs that the individual cannot be aroused; has a weak, rapid pulse; has an unusual or irregular breathing pattern; or has cool or possibly damp, pale, or bluish skin. Coping with this emergency should include immediately calling 911 and positioning the individual on his side to prevent choking in the likelihood of vomiting.

Focus - Chapter 07 #126

127. (p. 180) List practical strategies related to drinking responsibly. Don't make getting drunk the goal, or drinking the focus of your activity. Eat food before drinking. Set a limit on the number of drinks you will consume. Limit alcoholic drinks to one an hour, and drink water or soda in between. Don't use alcohol to manage your feelings such as stress, boredom, anger, or loneliness. When going to a party or bar, have a designated driver. Don't leave your drinks unattended.

Focus - Chapter 07 #127

Chap 07 Summary Category

# of Questions

Focus - Chapter 07

127

Chap 08 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. The 1999 Master Tobacco Settlement Agreement between the states and the tobacco industry included payment of $246 billion over 25 years to the states for A. reimbursement of smoking related Medicaid costs. B. lung cancer and nicotine-free cigarette research. C. smoke-free public building expenses. D. anti-smoking education programs.

2. Of the following states, which has the highest smoking rate in the nation? A. Utah B. Kentucky C. Arkansas D. California

3. Following the 1964 Surgeon General's report about smoking, the percentage of people smoking in the United States A. declined until the early 1970s. B. declined until the early 1980s. C. declined until the late 1980s. D. declined until the early 1990s.

4. As education level increases, the rate of smoking A. increases. B. decreases. C. remains stable. D. becomes less predictable.

5. When segments of a college community are studied, there is a direct relationship between cigarette smoking and A. level of alcohol use. B. using drugs. C. having poor study skills. D. being considered a loner or outcast.

6. Nontobacco sources of nicotine include all of the following EXCEPT A. Stonewall. B. e-cigarettes. C. Eclipse. D. Ariva.

7. Non-nicotine based medications are those medications which A. allow a controlled and less harmful relationship with nicotine than that associated with tobacco products. B. influence the production, diffusion, and reuptake of neurotransmitters with the CNS that are associated with feelings of hunger and satiety. C. prevent nicotine from reaching nicotine receptors in the brain. D. influence nervous system receptors for nicotine to level out the peaks and valleys associated with smoking.

8. You have decided to switch from cigarettes to cigars. Which of the following is TRUE? A. You will not decrease your lung cancer risk. B. You will escape the addictive effects of nicotine. C. Your risk of developing throat cancer stays the same D. You will end up smoking both; cigars don't substitute for cigarettes.

9. Sam, a nonsmoker, has decided it would be cool to smoke cigars. If he begins a lifetime habit of cigar smoking, which of the following BEST describes the risk to his health? A. He will run a risk of developing lung cancer similar to the risk faced by cigarette smokers. B. He will increase his risk of developing cancer of the mouth, throat, and esophagus. C. He will run a risk of mouth and throat cancers that is double the risk faced by cigarette smokers. D. His risk of all cancers will be significantly lower than the risk faced by cigarette smokers, but the social restrictions on his habit will be the same.

10. A so-called chipper is a smoker who A. does not develop a physical dependence on cigarettes. B. successfully quits smoking on the first attempt. C. regularly indulges in smoking binges. D. smokes almost constantly.

11. The dependency-producing substance found in cigarettes is A. tar. B. nicotine. C. dopamine. D. benzopyrene.

12. Monica started smoking just to look sophisticated, but within months she found herself smoking every day. She now smokes two packs a day and wants to stop. The force driving her habit is A. compulsion. B. habituation. C. indulgence. D. addiction.

13. One of the major theories about how nicotine produces a pleasant effect in the human body is that it A. deprives brain cells of oxygen. B. attaches to receptor sites for glucose. C. changes to a form of morphine when it hits the bloodstream. D. stimulates the release of natural painkillers from the endocrine system.

14. The main concept of the bolus theory of nicotine addiction is that A. people smoke to keep the brain stimulated with batches of nicotine. B. nicotine blocks pain receptors in the central nervous system. C. nicotine stimulates the release of beta endorphins. D. nicotine raises dopamine levels in the blood.

15. According to the self-medication theory, which mood-enhancing substance is released during smoking? A. adrenaline B. dopamine C. ACTH D. norepinephrine

16. Which of the following BEST describes the effect of nicotine on the central nervous system? It A. kills dendritic tissues. B. slightly improves the transmission of nerve impulses. C. stimulates the central nervous system in low levels and depresses it in higher levels. D. suppresses natural substances that facilitate the replacement of myelin on axons.

17. Some children become smokers because they see their parents smoking. This is called A. modeling. B. manipulation. C. peer pressure. D. subliminal advertising.

18. Your fourteen-year-old son has been taught to avoid tobacco and its dangers. He then makes friends with a group of boys who all smoke. You can expect that A. your son will try smoking. B. some of the other boys will quit smoking. C. your son will soon leave that group of friends. D. your son will bring other nonsmokers into the circle of friends.

19. A psychosocial incentive to smoke is the comfort smokers get from handling a cigarette, pipe, or cigar. This is called A. modeling. B. identification. C. manipulation. D. responsiveness.

20. Which of the following is NOT true in regards to individuals who smoke? A. Many smokers are rejected by the nonsmoking majority. B. 26 percent of the current US population are smokers. C. Smokers may experience subtle forms of discrimination when they search for employment. D. Smokers often receive lower trade-ins on their vehicles.

21. Which of the following is FALSE regarding use of a hookah? A. Prolonged periods of tobacco-based exposure generate nicotine levels 2.5 times higher than those associated with cigarette use. B. Infectious agents are transmitted through shared use of mouthpieces. C. The chemical composition of hookah-generated smoke is unlike cigarette smoke. D. Tobacco leaves are combined with shisha and set atop lit charcoal.

22. The most effective time to begin influencing a child NOT to smoke is A. at preschool age. B. at kindergarten age. C. during grades one to three. D. during grades four to six.

23. As a parent of a fifth grader, which of the following recommendations should you attempt when trying to help your son or daughter deal with pressures to use tobacco? A. Continue to point out the harmful substances in tobacco. B. Reinforce the point that smoking is unacceptable behavior for him or her. C. Allow your son or daughter to make his or her own decisions. D. Continue to help your son or daughter learn how to say no.

24. The cancer-causing substances in tobacco smoke are carried into the body by A. the gases. B. the particles. C. the combustion process. D. both the gases and the particles.

25. Of the following, which component of a cigarette contains most of the carcinogenic compounds? A. nicotine. B. tar. C. carbon monoxide. D. nitrogen oxide.

26. Of all the gases released by tobacco smoke, the most harmful to smokers is A. hydrogen cyanide. B. carbon monoxide. C. ammonia. D. acetone.

27. Carbon monoxide reduces the red blood cell's ability to transport oxygen by A. thinning the blood. B. displacing fluid in cells. C. destroying oxygen molecules. D. attaching itself to hemoglobin.

28. If you are a heavy smoker, why is carbon monoxide a particular risk to your brain and heart? A. It slows the activity of the lungs, on which the brain and heart are dependent. B. It diverts blood from there to the lungs and lower abdominal organs. C. Normal oxygen supply is especially critical to those organs. D. It increases blood pressure during the inhalation phase.

29. A lifetime, two-pack-a-day, smoking habit will shorten one's life by A. two to three years. B. seven to eight years. C. ten to twelve years. D. twelve to fifteen years.

30. Nicotine promotes the development of cardiovascular disease primarily by A. irritating the lining of blood vessels and increasing heart rate. B. reducing the oxygen supply in blood and increasing blood pressure. C. stimulating LDL cholesterol production and promoting clots. D. increasing heart rate, increasing blood pressure, and promoting clots.

31. Which of the following BEST describes the connection between cigarette smoking and cancer? Cigarette smoking A. is the second-leading cause of all respiratory tract cancers. B. is the second-leading cause of lung cancer. C. causes most cancers in the United States. D. is a significant risk factor in virtually all forms of cancer.

32. The average cigarette smoker will develop cancer in 20 pack-years, which is a standard that represents A. one pack a day for 20 years. B. two packs a day for 20 years. C. 20 packs smoked in 20 years. D. 20 packs per year for a lifetime.

33. Which of the following is FALSE regarding carbon monoxide? It A. interferes with the oxygen transport within the circulatory system. B. weakens the red blood cells. C. has a relatively small impact on the cardiovascular system. D. can cause hypoxia in fetuses.

34. Lung cancer is usually fatal because A. lung tissues are more vulnerable to cancer than any other body tissues. B. a relatively small amount will destroy the respiratory system. C. it is spread rapidly by the so-called smoker's cough. D. it is usually detected at a late stage.

35. After years of cigarette smoking, Hartwig has developed a "smoker's cough." This means A. he has lung cancer. B. the cilia in his lungs are doing their job. C. his smoking has resulted in constant respiratory infections. D. his body is attempting to remove excess mucus from his lungs.

36. Which of the following BEST summarizes how smoking causes lung cancer to develop? A. The carbon monoxide from tobacco smoke changes the character of blood cells, causing mutations at the site of oxygen exchange. B. The smoke first overcomes the natural cleaning action of the lungs exposing the tissues to cancer-causing substances. C. Tobacco smoke suppresses the immune system, causing harmful substances to invade lung tissues. D. The smoke changes mucus on the lungs' surface to a poisonous compound.

37. Chronic obstructive lung disease is a combination of A. chronic bronchitis and pulmonary emphysema. B. pulmonary emphysema and lung cancer. C. asthma and chronic bronchitis. D. pneumonia and lung cancer.

38. Chronic bronchitis is A. a precancerous condition of the alveoli. B. a viral infection brought on by the smoker's weakened immune system. C. any destruction of lung tissue caused by smoking and manifested by a constant coughing. D. a condition in which the walls of the bronchi become inflamed and infected.

39. A regular smoker in her forties has just been told by her doctor that she has chronic bronchitis. Frightened, she has decided to quit smoking. What are her chances for recovery? She A. will no longer have frequent lung infections, but the destruction of lung tissue will slowly progress. B. will recover some function but will never regain full health. C. could recover completely. D. will die of the disease.

40. Which of the following is TRUE regarding chronic obstructive lung disease? A. Fewer than five million Americans suffer from it. B. Patients who have it tend to die an unpleasant, prolonged death. C. The amount of airflow in and out of the lungs progressively increases. D. It is made up of three separate but related diseases.

41. Emphysema is A. a permanent narrowing of the airways that limits the victim's ability to breathe. B. any generalized infection of lung tissues that causes inflammation. C. a disease caused by the destruction of alveoli in the lungs. D. a cancerous condition of the bronchial tubes.

42. Smoking affects men's fertility by A. causing changes in sperm number, motility, and shape. B. reducing the oxygen supply to reproductive tissues. C. causing a thickening of cell walls inside the gonads. D. depressing the central nervous system activities that bring about sexual arousal.

43. Carbon monoxide is the least dangerous component of tobacco smoke. True False

44. Cigarette smoke contains hundreds of cancer-causing chemicals. True False

45. Cigarette smoking can deprive the brain of oxygen. True False

46. Cigarette smoking more than doubles the risk of experiencing a heart attack. True False

47. Smoking has been proven to cause cancer, but not cardiovascular disease. True False

48. Nicotine can be absorbed through the mucous membranes of the mouth. True False

49. Smoking has many negative consequences on fertility for both men and women. True False

50. Smoking increases a pregnant woman's risk of having a miscarriage. True False

51. Nursing children are protected from ingesting nicotine from breast milk. True False

52. A newborn baby's risk of sudden infant death syndrome increases if the mother is a smoker. True False

53. Smokers can eliminate their nicotine intake by switching to smokeless tobacco. True False

54. Women who smoke and use oral contraceptives are at high risk for stroke. True False

55. Research indicates that the use of smokeless tobacco is safer than smoking cigarettes. True False

56. The use of smokeless tobacco can damage the teeth and gums. True False

57. Sidestream smoke is more toxic than mainstream smoke. True False

58. Tobacco smoke that stays within a common source of air is known as environmental smoke. True False

59. Briefly describe the theories of nicotine addiction.

60. Explain how the negative effects of carbon monoxide on the body.

61. Explain the influence of nicotine and the development of cardiovascular disease.

62. Describe chronic obstructive lung disease.

63. Describe the risks of passive smoking.

Chap 08 Key

1. (p. 188-189) The 1999 Master Tobacco Settlement Agreement between the states and the tobacco industry included payment of $246 billion over 25 years to the states for A. reimbursement of smoking related Medicaid costs. B. lung cancer and nicotine-free cigarette research. C. smoke-free public building expenses. D. anti-smoking education programs.

Focus - Chapter 08 #1

2. (p. 187) Of the following states, which has the highest smoking rate in the nation? A. Utah B. Kentucky C. Arkansas D. California

Focus - Chapter 08 #2

3. (p. 187) Following the 1964 Surgeon General's report about smoking, the percentage of people smoking in the United States A. declined until the early 1970s. B. declined until the early 1980s. C. declined until the late 1980s. D. declined until the early 1990s.

Focus - Chapter 08 #3

4. (p. 187) As education level increases, the rate of smoking A. increases. B. decreases. C. remains stable. D. becomes less predictable.

Focus - Chapter 08 #4

5. (p. 187) When segments of a college community are studied, there is a direct relationship between cigarette smoking and A. level of alcohol use. B. using drugs. C. having poor study skills. D. being considered a loner or outcast.

Focus - Chapter 08 #5

6. (p. 204, 212) Nontobacco sources of nicotine include all of the following EXCEPT A. Stonewall. B. e-cigarettes. C. Eclipse. D. Ariva.

Focus - Chapter 08 #6

7. (p. 209) Non-nicotine based medications are those medications which A. allow a controlled and less harmful relationship with nicotine than that associated with tobacco products. B. influence the production, diffusion, and reuptake of neurotransmitters with the CNS that are associated with feelings of hunger and satiety. C. prevent nicotine from reaching nicotine receptors in the brain. D. influence nervous system receptors for nicotine to level out the peaks and valleys associated with smoking.

Focus - Chapter 08 #7

8. (p. 203) You have decided to switch from cigarettes to cigars. Which of the following is TRUE? A. You will not decrease your lung cancer risk. B. You will escape the addictive effects of nicotine. C. Your risk of developing throat cancer stays the same D. You will end up smoking both; cigars don't substitute for cigarettes.

Focus - Chapter 08 #8

9. (p. 203) Sam, a nonsmoker, has decided it would be cool to smoke cigars. If he begins a lifetime habit of cigar smoking, which of the following BEST describes the risk to his health? A. He will run a risk of developing lung cancer similar to the risk faced by cigarette smokers. B. He will increase his risk of developing cancer of the mouth, throat, and esophagus. C. He will run a risk of mouth and throat cancers that is double the risk faced by cigarette smokers. D. His risk of all cancers will be significantly lower than the risk faced by cigarette smokers, but the social restrictions on his habit will be the same.

Focus - Chapter 08 #9

10. (p. 190-191) A so-called chipper is a smoker who A. does not develop a physical dependence on cigarettes. B. successfully quits smoking on the first attempt. C. regularly indulges in smoking binges. D. smokes almost constantly.

Focus - Chapter 08 #10

11. (p. 190) The dependency-producing substance found in cigarettes is A. tar. B. nicotine. C. dopamine. D. benzopyrene.

Focus - Chapter 08 #11

12. (p. 190-191) Monica started smoking just to look sophisticated, but within months she found herself smoking every day. She now smokes two packs a day and wants to stop. The force driving her habit is A. compulsion. B. habituation. C. indulgence. D. addiction.

Focus - Chapter 08 #12

13. (p. 192) One of the major theories about how nicotine produces a pleasant effect in the human body is that it A. deprives brain cells of oxygen. B. attaches to receptor sites for glucose. C. changes to a form of morphine when it hits the bloodstream. D. stimulates the release of natural painkillers from the endocrine system.

Focus - Chapter 08 #13

14. (p. 191-192) The main concept of the bolus theory of nicotine addiction is that A. people smoke to keep the brain stimulated with batches of nicotine. B. nicotine blocks pain receptors in the central nervous system. C. nicotine stimulates the release of beta endorphins. D. nicotine raises dopamine levels in the blood.

Focus - Chapter 08 #14

15. (p. 192) According to the self-medication theory, which mood-enhancing substance is released during smoking? A. adrenaline B. dopamine C. ACTH D. norepinephrine

Focus - Chapter 08 #15

16. (p. 192-193) Which of the following BEST describes the effect of nicotine on the central nervous system? It A. kills dendritic tissues. B. slightly improves the transmission of nerve impulses. C. stimulates the central nervous system in low levels and depresses it in higher levels. D. suppresses natural substances that facilitate the replacement of myelin on axons.

Focus - Chapter 08 #16

17. (p. 193) Some children become smokers because they see their parents smoking. This is called A. modeling. B. manipulation. C. peer pressure. D. subliminal advertising.

Focus - Chapter 08 #17

18. (p. 193) Your fourteen-year-old son has been taught to avoid tobacco and its dangers. He then makes friends with a group of boys who all smoke. You can expect that A. your son will try smoking. B. some of the other boys will quit smoking. C. your son will soon leave that group of friends. D. your son will bring other nonsmokers into the circle of friends.

Focus - Chapter 08 #18

19. (p. 194) A psychosocial incentive to smoke is the comfort smokers get from handling a cigarette, pipe, or cigar. This is called A. modeling. B. identification. C. manipulation. D. responsiveness.

Focus - Chapter 08 #19

20. (p. 207) Which of the following is NOT true in regards to individuals who smoke? A. Many smokers are rejected by the nonsmoking majority. B. 26 percent of the current US population are smokers. C. Smokers may experience subtle forms of discrimination when they search for employment. D. Smokers often receive lower trade-ins on their vehicles.

Focus - Chapter 08 #20

21. (p. 203) Which of the following is FALSE regarding use of a hookah? A. Prolonged periods of tobacco-based exposure generate nicotine levels 2.5 times higher than those associated with cigarette use. B. Infectious agents are transmitted through shared use of mouthpieces. C. The chemical composition of hookah-generated smoke is unlike cigarette smoke. D. Tobacco leaves are combined with shisha and set atop lit charcoal.

Focus - Chapter 08 #21

22. (p. 194) The most effective time to begin influencing a child NOT to smoke is A. at preschool age. B. at kindergarten age. C. during grades one to three. D. during grades four to six.

Focus - Chapter 08 #22

23. (p. 195) As a parent of a fifth grader, which of the following recommendations should you attempt when trying to help your son or daughter deal with pressures to use tobacco? A. Continue to point out the harmful substances in tobacco. B. Reinforce the point that smoking is unacceptable behavior for him or her. C. Allow your son or daughter to make his or her own decisions. D. Continue to help your son or daughter learn how to say no.

Focus - Chapter 08 #23

24. (p. 195-196) The cancer-causing substances in tobacco smoke are carried into the body by A. the gases. B. the particles. C. the combustion process. D. both the gases and the particles.

Focus - Chapter 08 #24

25. (p. 196) Of the following, which component of a cigarette contains most of the carcinogenic compounds? A. nicotine. B. tar. C. carbon monoxide. D. nitrogen oxide.

Focus - Chapter 08 #25

26. (p. 196) Of all the gases released by tobacco smoke, the most harmful to smokers is A. hydrogen cyanide. B. carbon monoxide. C. ammonia. D. acetone.

Focus - Chapter 08 #26

27. (p. 196) Carbon monoxide reduces the red blood cell's ability to transport oxygen by A. thinning the blood. B. displacing fluid in cells. C. destroying oxygen molecules. D. attaching itself to hemoglobin.

Focus - Chapter 08 #27

28. (p. 196) If you are a heavy smoker, why is carbon monoxide a particular risk to your brain and heart? A. It slows the activity of the lungs, on which the brain and heart are dependent. B. It diverts blood from there to the lungs and lower abdominal organs. C. Normal oxygen supply is especially critical to those organs. D. It increases blood pressure during the inhalation phase.

Focus - Chapter 08 #28

29. (p. 197) A lifetime, two-pack-a-day, smoking habit will shorten one's life by A. two to three years. B. seven to eight years. C. ten to twelve years. D. twelve to fifteen years.

Focus - Chapter 08 #29

30. (p. 197) Nicotine promotes the development of cardiovascular disease primarily by A. irritating the lining of blood vessels and increasing heart rate. B. reducing the oxygen supply in blood and increasing blood pressure. C. stimulating LDL cholesterol production and promoting clots. D. increasing heart rate, increasing blood pressure, and promoting clots.

Focus - Chapter 08 #30

31. (p. 199-200) Which of the following BEST describes the connection between cigarette smoking and cancer? Cigarette smoking A. is the second-leading cause of all respiratory tract cancers. B. is the second-leading cause of lung cancer. C. causes most cancers in the United States. D. is a significant risk factor in virtually all forms of cancer.

Focus - Chapter 08 #31

32. (p. 199) The average cigarette smoker will develop cancer in 20 pack-years, which is a standard that represents A. one pack a day for 20 years. B. two packs a day for 20 years. C. 20 packs smoked in 20 years. D. 20 packs per year for a lifetime.

Focus - Chapter 08 #32

33. (p. 196, 197) Which of the following is FALSE regarding carbon monoxide? It A. interferes with the oxygen transport within the circulatory system. B. weakens the red blood cells. C. has a relatively small impact on the cardiovascular system. D. can cause hypoxia in fetuses.

Focus - Chapter 08 #33

34. (p. 200) Lung cancer is usually fatal because A. lung tissues are more vulnerable to cancer than any other body tissues. B. a relatively small amount will destroy the respiratory system. C. it is spread rapidly by the so-called smoker's cough. D. it is usually detected at a late stage.

Focus - Chapter 08 #34

35. (p. 199) After years of cigarette smoking, Hartwig has developed a "smoker's cough." This means A. he has lung cancer. B. the cilia in his lungs are doing their job. C. his smoking has resulted in constant respiratory infections. D. his body is attempting to remove excess mucus from his lungs.

Focus - Chapter 08 #35

36. (p. 199-200) Which of the following BEST summarizes how smoking causes lung cancer to develop? A. The carbon monoxide from tobacco smoke changes the character of blood cells, causing mutations at the site of oxygen exchange. B. The smoke first overcomes the natural cleaning action of the lungs exposing the tissues to cancer-causing substances. C. Tobacco smoke suppresses the immune system, causing harmful substances to invade lung tissues. D. The smoke changes mucus on the lungs' surface to a poisonous compound.

Focus - Chapter 08 #36

37. (p. 200) Chronic obstructive lung disease is a combination of A. chronic bronchitis and pulmonary emphysema. B. pulmonary emphysema and lung cancer. C. asthma and chronic bronchitis. D. pneumonia and lung cancer.

Focus - Chapter 08 #37

38. (p. 200) Chronic bronchitis is A. a precancerous condition of the alveoli. B. a viral infection brought on by the smoker's weakened immune system. C. any destruction of lung tissue caused by smoking and manifested by a constant coughing. D. a condition in which the walls of the bronchi become inflamed and infected.

Focus - Chapter 08 #38

39. (p. 200) A regular smoker in her forties has just been told by her doctor that she has chronic bronchitis. Frightened, she has decided to quit smoking. What are her chances for recovery? She A. will no longer have frequent lung infections, but the destruction of lung tissue will slowly progress. B. will recover some function but will never regain full health. C. could recover completely. D. will die of the disease.

Focus - Chapter 08 #39

40. (p. 201) Which of the following is TRUE regarding chronic obstructive lung disease? A. Fewer than five million Americans suffer from it. B. Patients who have it tend to die an unpleasant, prolonged death. C. The amount of airflow in and out of the lungs progressively increases. D. It is made up of three separate but related diseases.

Focus - Chapter 08 #40

41. (p. 200-201) Emphysema is A. a permanent narrowing of the airways that limits the victim's ability to breathe. B. any generalized infection of lung tissues that causes inflammation. C. a disease caused by the destruction of alveoli in the lungs. D. a cancerous condition of the bronchial tubes.

Focus - Chapter 08 #41

42. (p. 205) Smoking affects men's fertility by A. causing changes in sperm number, motility, and shape. B. reducing the oxygen supply to reproductive tissues. C. causing a thickening of cell walls inside the gonads. D. depressing the central nervous system activities that bring about sexual arousal.

Focus - Chapter 08 #42

43. (p. 196) Carbon monoxide is the least dangerous component of tobacco smoke. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 08 #43

44. (p. 195) Cigarette smoke contains hundreds of cancer-causing chemicals. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 08 #44

45. (p. 196) Cigarette smoking can deprive the brain of oxygen. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 08 #45

46. (p. 197) Cigarette smoking more than doubles the risk of experiencing a heart attack. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 08 #46

47. (p. 197) Smoking has been proven to cause cancer, but not cardiovascular disease. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 08 #47

48. (p. 203) Nicotine can be absorbed through the mucous membranes of the mouth. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 08 #48

49. (p. 205) Smoking has many negative consequences on fertility for both men and women. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 08 #49

50. (p. 205) Smoking increases a pregnant woman's risk of having a miscarriage. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 08 #50

51. (p. 205) Nursing children are protected from ingesting nicotine from breast milk. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 08 #51

52. (p. 205) A newborn baby's risk of sudden infant death syndrome increases if the mother is a smoker. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 08 #52

53. (p. 203) Smokers can eliminate their nicotine intake by switching to smokeless tobacco. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 08 #53

54. (p. 199) Women who smoke and use oral contraceptives are at high risk for stroke. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 08 #54

55. (p. 203-204) Research indicates that the use of smokeless tobacco is safer than smoking cigarettes. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 08 #55

56. (p. 204) The use of smokeless tobacco can damage the teeth and gums. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 08 #56

57. (p. 206) Sidestream smoke is more toxic than mainstream smoke. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 08 #57

58. (p. 206) Tobacco smoke that stays within a common source of air is known as environmental smoke. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 08 #58

59. (p. 191-192) Briefly describe the theories of nicotine addiction. 1) Bolus theory: nicotine reaches the brain in doses that excite the nervous and endocrine systems. 2) ACTH theory: nicotine stimulates ACTH secretion, which activates the body's natural painkillers. 3) Self-medication theory: smoking stimulates dopamine secretion--smoking a cigarette resembles administering a dose of natural medication to oneself. 4) Genetic influences: seventy percent of the initiation and maintenance of initial smoking is driven by genetic influences.

Focus - Chapter 08 #59

60. (p. 196) Explain how the negative effects of carbon monoxide on the body. Burning tobacco forms carbon monoxide gas. Carbon monoxide is a colorless, odorless, tasteless gas, and it also, one of the most harmful components of tobacco smoke. Once CO is inhaled, it quickly binds with hemoglobin and forms a new compound called carboxyhemoglobin. In this form, hemoglobin is unable to transport oxygen to the tissues and cells where it is needed. Carboxyhemoglobin can lead to shortness of breath, reduced endurance, and reduced brain and cardiovascular function.

Focus - Chapter 08 #60

61. (p. 197-198) Explain the influence of nicotine and the development of cardiovascular disease. Nicotine is a powerful stimulant that increases heart rate and blood pressure. The development of angina pectoris and possible sudden heart attack are heightened by this sustained elevation of heart rate. Nicotine is also a powerful constrictor of blood vessels that increases pressure against the artery walls causing damage to these arteries by allowing a buildup of fatty material. Nicotine causes blood platelets to clump together, increasing the likelihood of blood clot formation. Lastly, nicotine decrease HDL (good cholesterol) levels and increases LDL (bad cholesterol) levels, appearing to support the development of atherosclerosis.

Focus - Chapter 08 #61

62. (p. 200-201) Describe chronic obstructive lung disease. Chronic obstructive lung disease is a disorder where the amount of air that flows in and out of the lungs becomes progressively limited. It is comprised of: 1) chronic bronchitis, in which the walls of the bronchi become inflamed and infected; and 2) pulmonary emphysema that occurs when smoking causes irreversible damage to the tiny air sacs of the lungs (alveoli), preventing an individual from fully oxygenating the blood.

Focus - Chapter 08 #62

63. (p. 206) Describe the risks of passive smoking. Most of the danger of passive smoking comes from the so-called sidestream smoke that gets into the air directly from the pipe, cigar, or cigarette (without first having been inhaled and exhaled by the smoker). This smoke contains even higher quantities of dangerous chemicals than the smoke that the smoker ingests, because it is not filtered by the unburned tobacco and filter. Among nonsmokers who live with smokers, rates of both lung cancer and heart disease are significantly higher than in households where no one smokes.

Focus - Chapter 08 #63

Chap 08 Summary Category

# of Questions

Focus - Chapter 08

63

Chap 09 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. Of the following cardiovascular diseases, which causes the most deaths? A. stroke B. hypertensive disease C. congestive heart failure D. coronary heart disease

2. The term vascular refers to A. the heart. B. the skeleton. C. blood vessels. D. muscles in general.

3. Which of the following BEST describes the role of capillaries? They A. distribute arterial blood to the main regions of the body. B. exchange oxygen, waste, and food with cells. C. maintain blood pressure in the vascular system. D. return blood to the heart.

4. MOST of the heart's pumping action occurs in the A. ventricles. B. septum. C. aorta. D. atria.

5. The purpose of the coronary arteries is to A. supply the heart muscle with oxygenated blood. B. conduct deoxygenated blood to the heart. C. conduct blood from the heart to the lungs. D. conduct oxygenated blood to the rest of the body.

6. About how many quarts of blood does the average-sized adult's body contain? A. four B. five C. six D. seven

7. The heart's electrical activity is measured by an instrument called an A. EEG. B. EKK. C. EKG. D. ECC.

8. The six controllable risk factors for cardiovascular disease are smoking, physical activity, blood pressure, obesity, diabetes, and A. age. B. stress. C. blood cholesterol. D. alcohol consumption.

9. Which of the following cardiovascular risk factors CANNOT be changed? A. diabetes B. high blood pressure C. heredity D. high blood cholesterol

10. Women over age 55 experience cardiovascular disease at a _________________ rate to men of the same age. A. slightly lower B. much higher C. much lower D. similar

11. Of the following, which is a major risk factor in sudden cardiac death? A. diet B. stress C. inactivity D. smoking

12. The protective mechanism from heart disease women experience prior to menopause is due to A. a lower overall blood pressure. B. a lifestyle healthier than that of men. C. the hormone progesterone. D. the hormone estrogen.

13. Ellen is thirty-five, inactive, overweight, a smoker, and takes oral contraceptives. The best single thing she can do for her heart health is to A. stop oral contraceptives. B. start an exercise program. C. stop smoking. D. lose weight.

14. The most beneficial way to lower blood cholesterol is to A. take cholesterol-reducing drugs and begin an exercise program. B. start an exercise program and eat a heart-healthy diet. C. eat a diet rich in phytochemicals and meditate. D. eat a low-fat diet and take a vitamin supplement.

15. Tom had his blood cholesterol measured. Which of the following would be classified as a desirable blood cholesterol level? A. less than 200mg/dl B. 210-220 mg/dl C. 230-250mg/dl D. greater than 240 mg/dl

16. Coronary heart disease is A. a weakening of the heart valves. B. a buildup of fluids in the pericardial sac. C. damage to the blood vessels that supply the heart. D. a generalized reduction in blood vessel diameter that causes the heart to work harder.

17. Which of the following is NOT a major form of cardiovascular disease? A. obesity B. stroke C. rheumatic heart disease D. congenital heart disease

18. The buildup of fatty deposits in coronary arteries that leads to narrowed arteries and blockages is called A. stroke. B. hypertension. C. atherosclerosis. D. myocardial infarction.

19. A heart attack occurs when A. the heart becomes unable to push blood through clogged arteries throughout the body. B. cardiac muscle loses its ability to conduct electrical stimuli. C. blockages develop in the aorta or pulmonary artery. D. the heart muscle does not receive an adequate supply of blood and oxygen.

20. The death of part of the heart muscle as a result of blockage in one or more of the coronary arteries is known as a A. myocardial inflammation. B. congestive heart infarction. C. myocardial refraction. D. myocardial infarction.

21. You and a friend are shopping with your teenagers at a mall. You return from a store to find your friend seated stating she is feeling chest pain and dizziness. Despite sitting, these symptoms are not going away. The best thing to do at this moment is to A. get emergency help. B. offer her an aspirin before taking other action. C. observe to see if the symptoms last two minutes. D. offer her something to eat to see if the symptoms go away.

22. The most common symptom of a heart attack is A. shortness of breath. B. dizziness. C. chest pain lasting more than a few minutes. D. sweating.

23. What role does cholesterol play in coronary heart disease? A. High cholesterol levels are associated with atherosclerosis, which causes coronary heart disease. B. Cholesterol attaches itself to internal heart structures, eventually causing blockages. C. Excess cholesterol crowds out the "good" blood cells in coronary arteries. D. Excess cholesterol interferes with the normal functioning of the heart.

24. High-density lipoproteins are called "good cholesterol" because they A. coat artery walls with a substance that resists plaque buildup. B. reverse artery damage caused by low-density lipoproteins. C. help to remove cholesterol from the bloodstream. D. absorb low-density lipoproteins.

25. A painful condition caused by narrowing of the coronary arteries is called A. hypercholesterolemia. B. angina pectoris. C. hypertension. D. angioplasty.

26. Which of the following is TRUE regarding low-density lipoproteins? They A. are a significant cause of atherosclerosis. B. carry cholesterol back to the liver. C. are related to a reduction in heart disease. D. are increased in the bloodstream by exercise and monounsaturated fats.

27. An angiogram is used to A. identify coronary artery blockages. B. gauge the progress of blood through the heart. C. measure the strength of the patient's heartbeat. D. measure the resistance to blood flow within coronary arteries.

28. Rolanda's doctor tells her that something needs to be done to treat life-threatening blockages of several of her coronary arteries. Of the following, her doctor will most likely recommend A. drug therapy. B. bypass surgery. C. an aspirin a day. D. a heart transplant.

29. A procedure to open blocked arteries by squeezing a tiny "balloon" between plaque deposits is called A. coronary occlusion. B. catheterization. C. percutaneous coronary intervention. D. bypass.

30. In 2009, approximately _________ heart transplants were performed in the United States. A. 1,000 B. 1,500 C. 2,200 D. 2,700

31. Aspirin's effect on heart attack risk has traditionally been linked to its ability to A. reduce the blood's clotting ability. B. reduce stress in people who take it. C. dilate the walls of coronary arteries. D. relax the muscular bands around artery walls.

32. In a blood pressure reading, the systolic pressure measures pressure in the A. heart when the blood is moving its fastest. B. heart when blood vessels are fully dilated. C. blood vessels when the heart contracts. D. blood vessels when the heart relaxes.

33. Hypertension is a(n) A. consistently elevated blood pressure. B. abnormal acceleration of the heart rate. C. physiological reaction to a stressful environment. D. constriction of blood vessels due to excess levels of dietary fat.

34. Which of the following BEST describes the symptoms of hypertension? A. a pain that begins in the chest or groin and radiates into the limbs B. a feeling of dizziness when under stress C. lack of noticeable symptoms D. excessive fatigue and intermittent dizziness

35. Reducing dietary salt is an effective way to reduce hypertension for A. about one in twenty Americans. B. about one in four Americans. C. about one in ten Americans. D. most Americans.

36. Through a combination of weight loss, a low-fat diet, prescription drugs, and an exercise program, your mother has reduced her high blood pressure. When can she consider herself cured? A. when she maintains a normal weight and a normal blood pressure for six months B. when her blood pressure stays at 120/80 for more than six months C. when prescription drugs are no longer needed D. never

37. Which of the following is a form of cardiovascular disease? A. stroke B. obesity C. diabetes D. menopause

38. The most common type of stroke is A. cerebral hemorrhage. B. cerebrovascular occlusion. C. cerebral aneurysm. D. cerebral ischemic attack.

39. Which of the following characterizes all strokes? A. Blood vessels break. B. Blood flow is blocked. C. They occur in the brain. D. They are preceded by hypertension.

40. A condition called an aneurysm occurs when a A. clot completely blocks blood flow through a cerebral artery. B. weakened artery wall bulges out at the weak point. C. section of brain tissue dies as the result of a stroke. D. weakened artery begins to leak.

41. Your father, who began to feel ill yesterday, found when he woke up this morning that he could barely move his right leg or arm. Of the following, he is most likely suffering from A. a stroke. B. hypertension. C. a heart attack. D. an arrhythmia.

42. A transient ischemic attack is considered to be a warning sign for A. congestive heart failure. B. hypertension. C. heart attack. D. stroke.

43. If a friend or family member has a stroke, it is important to get emergency medical help as soon as possible because A. strokes are usually fatal. B. prompt treatment can limit the damage. C. heart attacks are more likely to occur after strokes. D. rehabilitation should begin as soon as the stroke ends.

44. Rubella can cause congenital defects in unborn children when A. the mother contracts it during the last three months of her pregnancy. B. the mother contracts it early in her pregnancy. C. it occurs in conjunction with strep throat. D. it develops into rheumatic fever.

45. The MOST common treatment for congenital heart defects is A. surgery. B. drug therapy. C. diet modification. D. a program of limited activity.

46. Which of the following begins as a streptococcal infection? A. peripheral artery disease B. congenital heart disease C. rheumatic heart disease D. congestive heart failure

47. Long-term hypertension makes arteries less elastic and incapable of dilating under a heavy workload. True False

48. The deposits on artery walls caused by atherosclerosis are called plaque. True False

49. If you are over age 20, you should be concerned if your cholesterol level is 230 mg/dl. True False

50. Most people can lower their serum cholesterol by 75 mg/dl with dietary changes. True False

51. High HDL cholesterol readings are associated with a reduction in heart disease. True False

52. Angina pectoris is caused by a lack of oxygen to the heart tissue. True False

53. The purpose of coronary artery bypass surgery is to increase blood supply to the heart muscle. True False

54. Angioplasty is used only for blocked arteries in the heart. True False

55. The incidence of hypertension is about the same in all ethnic groups. True False

56. The risk of retinal hemorrhage (uncontrolled bleeding of retinal arteries) increases when hypertension develops. True False

57. Several drug treatments are available to reduce the outward physical symptoms of hypertension. True False

58. A type of stroke that results from an artery that bursts is called a cerebral hemorrhage. True False

59. A risk factor for rheumatic heart disease is streptococcal infection. True False

60. Congestive heart failure occurs when the heart is so squeezed by surrounding fatty tissues that blood intake is hampered. True False

61. The person most prone to arrhythmia is one with some form of heart disease. True False

62. List the thirteen risk factors for cardiovascular disease, and indicate whether they are controllable, uncontrollable, or contributing.

63. List and explain the surgical treatments for heart disease.

64. Briefly describe hypertension and the dangers associated with it.

65. List the different kinds of cerebrovascular accidents that are called strokes.

66. List the warning signs associated with stroke.

Chap 09 Key

1. (p. 217) Of the following cardiovascular diseases, which causes the most deaths? A. stroke B. hypertensive disease C. congestive heart failure D. coronary heart disease

Focus - Chapter 09 #1

2. (p. 218) The term vascular refers to A. the heart. B. the skeleton. C. blood vessels. D. muscles in general.

Focus - Chapter 09 #2

3. (p. 218) Which of the following BEST describes the role of capillaries? They A. distribute arterial blood to the main regions of the body. B. exchange oxygen, waste, and food with cells. C. maintain blood pressure in the vascular system. D. return blood to the heart.

Focus - Chapter 09 #3

4. (p. 218) MOST of the heart's pumping action occurs in the A. ventricles. B. septum. C. aorta. D. atria.

Focus - Chapter 09 #4

5. (p. 218) The purpose of the coronary arteries is to A. supply the heart muscle with oxygenated blood. B. conduct deoxygenated blood to the heart. C. conduct blood from the heart to the lungs. D. conduct oxygenated blood to the rest of the body.

Focus - Chapter 09 #5

6. (p. 218) About how many quarts of blood does the average-sized adult's body contain? A. four B. five C. six D. seven

Focus - Chapter 09 #6

7. (p. 218) The heart's electrical activity is measured by an instrument called an A. EEG. B. EKK. C. EKG. D. ECC.

Focus - Chapter 09 #7

8. (p. 219-222) The six controllable risk factors for cardiovascular disease are smoking, physical activity, blood pressure, obesity, diabetes, and A. age. B. stress. C. blood cholesterol. D. alcohol consumption.

Focus - Chapter 09 #8

9. (p. 219-220) Which of the following cardiovascular risk factors CANNOT be changed? A. diabetes B. high blood pressure C. heredity D. high blood cholesterol

Focus - Chapter 09 #9

10. (p. 220) Women over age 55 experience cardiovascular disease at a _________________ rate to men of the same age. A. slightly lower B. much higher C. much lower D. similar

Focus - Chapter 09 #10

11. (p. 221) Of the following, which is a major risk factor in sudden cardiac death? A. diet B. stress C. inactivity D. smoking

Focus - Chapter 09 #11

12. (p. 220) The protective mechanism from heart disease women experience prior to menopause is due to A. a lower overall blood pressure. B. a lifestyle healthier than that of men. C. the hormone progesterone. D. the hormone estrogen.

Focus - Chapter 09 #12

13. (p. 221) Ellen is thirty-five, inactive, overweight, a smoker, and takes oral contraceptives. The best single thing she can do for her heart health is to A. stop oral contraceptives. B. start an exercise program. C. stop smoking. D. lose weight.

Focus - Chapter 09 #13

14. (p. 222) The most beneficial way to lower blood cholesterol is to A. take cholesterol-reducing drugs and begin an exercise program. B. start an exercise program and eat a heart-healthy diet. C. eat a diet rich in phytochemicals and meditate. D. eat a low-fat diet and take a vitamin supplement.

Focus - Chapter 09 #14

15. (p. 225-226) Tom had his blood cholesterol measured. Which of the following would be classified as a desirable blood cholesterol level? A. less than 200mg/dl B. 210-220 mg/dl C. 230-250mg/dl D. greater than 240 mg/dl

Focus - Chapter 09 #15

16. (p. 223) Coronary heart disease is A. a weakening of the heart valves. B. a buildup of fluids in the pericardial sac. C. damage to the blood vessels that supply the heart. D. a generalized reduction in blood vessel diameter that causes the heart to work harder.

Focus - Chapter 09 #16

17. (p. 223-234) Which of the following is NOT a major form of cardiovascular disease? A. obesity B. stroke C. rheumatic heart disease D. congenital heart disease

Focus - Chapter 09 #17

18. (p. 223) The buildup of fatty deposits in coronary arteries that leads to narrowed arteries and blockages is called A. stroke. B. hypertension. C. atherosclerosis. D. myocardial infarction.

Focus - Chapter 09 #18

19. (p. 224) A heart attack occurs when A. the heart becomes unable to push blood through clogged arteries throughout the body. B. cardiac muscle loses its ability to conduct electrical stimuli. C. blockages develop in the aorta or pulmonary artery. D. the heart muscle does not receive an adequate supply of blood and oxygen.

Focus - Chapter 09 #19

20. (p. 224) The death of part of the heart muscle as a result of blockage in one or more of the coronary arteries is known as a A. myocardial inflammation. B. congestive heart infarction. C. myocardial refraction. D. myocardial infarction.

Focus - Chapter 09 #20

21. (p. 227) You and a friend are shopping with your teenagers at a mall. You return from a store to find your friend seated stating she is feeling chest pain and dizziness. Despite sitting, these symptoms are not going away. The best thing to do at this moment is to A. get emergency help. B. offer her an aspirin before taking other action. C. observe to see if the symptoms last two minutes. D. offer her something to eat to see if the symptoms go away.

Focus - Chapter 09 #21

22. (p. 227) The most common symptom of a heart attack is A. shortness of breath. B. dizziness. C. chest pain lasting more than a few minutes. D. sweating.

Focus - Chapter 09 #22

23. (p. 225-226) What role does cholesterol play in coronary heart disease? A. High cholesterol levels are associated with atherosclerosis, which causes coronary heart disease. B. Cholesterol attaches itself to internal heart structures, eventually causing blockages. C. Excess cholesterol crowds out the "good" blood cells in coronary arteries. D. Excess cholesterol interferes with the normal functioning of the heart.

Focus - Chapter 09 #23

24. (p. 225) High-density lipoproteins are called "good cholesterol" because they A. coat artery walls with a substance that resists plaque buildup. B. reverse artery damage caused by low-density lipoproteins. C. help to remove cholesterol from the bloodstream. D. absorb low-density lipoproteins.

Focus - Chapter 09 #24

25. (p. 225) A painful condition caused by narrowing of the coronary arteries is called A. hypercholesterolemia. B. angina pectoris. C. hypertension. D. angioplasty.

Focus - Chapter 09 #25

26. (p. 225) Which of the following is TRUE regarding low-density lipoproteins? They A. are a significant cause of atherosclerosis. B. carry cholesterol back to the liver. C. are related to a reduction in heart disease. D. are increased in the bloodstream by exercise and monounsaturated fats.

Focus - Chapter 09 #26

27. (p. 228) An angiogram is used to A. identify coronary artery blockages. B. gauge the progress of blood through the heart. C. measure the strength of the patient's heartbeat. D. measure the resistance to blood flow within coronary arteries.

Focus - Chapter 09 #27

28. (p. 228) Rolanda's doctor tells her that something needs to be done to treat life-threatening blockages of several of her coronary arteries. Of the following, her doctor will most likely recommend A. drug therapy. B. bypass surgery. C. an aspirin a day. D. a heart transplant.

Focus - Chapter 09 #28

29. (p. 228) A procedure to open blocked arteries by squeezing a tiny "balloon" between plaque deposits is called A. coronary occlusion. B. catheterization. C. percutaneous coronary intervention. D. bypass.

Focus - Chapter 09 #29

30. (p. 229) In 2009, approximately _________ heart transplants were performed in the United States. A. 1,000 B. 1,500 C. 2,200 D. 2,700

Focus - Chapter 09 #30

31. (p. 229) Aspirin's effect on heart attack risk has traditionally been linked to its ability to A. reduce the blood's clotting ability. B. reduce stress in people who take it. C. dilate the walls of coronary arteries. D. relax the muscular bands around artery walls.

Focus - Chapter 09 #31

32. (p. 229) In a blood pressure reading, the systolic pressure measures pressure in the A. heart when the blood is moving its fastest. B. heart when blood vessels are fully dilated. C. blood vessels when the heart contracts. D. blood vessels when the heart relaxes.

Focus - Chapter 09 #32

33. (p. 229) Hypertension is a(n) A. consistently elevated blood pressure. B. abnormal acceleration of the heart rate. C. physiological reaction to a stressful environment. D. constriction of blood vessels due to excess levels of dietary fat.

Focus - Chapter 09 #33

34. (p. 230) Which of the following BEST describes the symptoms of hypertension? A. a pain that begins in the chest or groin and radiates into the limbs B. a feeling of dizziness when under stress C. lack of noticeable symptoms D. excessive fatigue and intermittent dizziness

Focus - Chapter 09 #34

35. (p. 230) Reducing dietary salt is an effective way to reduce hypertension for A. about one in twenty Americans. B. about one in four Americans. C. about one in ten Americans. D. most Americans.

Focus - Chapter 09 #35

36. (p. 230) Through a combination of weight loss, a low-fat diet, prescription drugs, and an exercise program, your mother has reduced her high blood pressure. When can she consider herself cured? A. when she maintains a normal weight and a normal blood pressure for six months B. when her blood pressure stays at 120/80 for more than six months C. when prescription drugs are no longer needed D. never

Focus - Chapter 09 #36

37. (p. 230) Which of the following is a form of cardiovascular disease? A. stroke B. obesity C. diabetes D. menopause

Focus - Chapter 09 #37

38. (p. 230) The most common type of stroke is A. cerebral hemorrhage. B. cerebrovascular occlusion. C. cerebral aneurysm. D. cerebral ischemic attack.

Focus - Chapter 09 #38

39. (p. 230) Which of the following characterizes all strokes? A. Blood vessels break. B. Blood flow is blocked. C. They occur in the brain. D. They are preceded by hypertension.

Focus - Chapter 09 #39

40. (p. 231) A condition called an aneurysm occurs when a A. clot completely blocks blood flow through a cerebral artery. B. weakened artery wall bulges out at the weak point. C. section of brain tissue dies as the result of a stroke. D. weakened artery begins to leak.

Focus - Chapter 09 #40

41. (p. 231) Your father, who began to feel ill yesterday, found when he woke up this morning that he could barely move his right leg or arm. Of the following, he is most likely suffering from A. a stroke. B. hypertension. C. a heart attack. D. an arrhythmia.

Focus - Chapter 09 #41

42. (p. 231) A transient ischemic attack is considered to be a warning sign for A. congestive heart failure. B. hypertension. C. heart attack. D. stroke.

Focus - Chapter 09 #42

43. (p. 231) If a friend or family member has a stroke, it is important to get emergency medical help as soon as possible because A. strokes are usually fatal. B. prompt treatment can limit the damage. C. heart attacks are more likely to occur after strokes. D. rehabilitation should begin as soon as the stroke ends.

Focus - Chapter 09 #43

44. (p. 232) Rubella can cause congenital defects in unborn children when A. the mother contracts it during the last three months of her pregnancy. B. the mother contracts it early in her pregnancy. C. it occurs in conjunction with strep throat. D. it develops into rheumatic fever.

Focus - Chapter 09 #44

45. (p. 232) The MOST common treatment for congenital heart defects is A. surgery. B. drug therapy. C. diet modification. D. a program of limited activity.

Focus - Chapter 09 #45

46. (p. 232) Which of the following begins as a streptococcal infection? A. peripheral artery disease B. congenital heart disease C. rheumatic heart disease D. congestive heart failure

Focus - Chapter 09 #46

47. (p. 230) Long-term hypertension makes arteries less elastic and incapable of dilating under a heavy workload. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 09 #47

48. (p. 223-224) The deposits on artery walls caused by atherosclerosis are called plaque. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 09 #48

49. (p. 225-226) If you are over age 20, you should be concerned if your cholesterol level is 230 mg/dl. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 09 #49

50. (p. 225) Most people can lower their serum cholesterol by 75 mg/dl with dietary changes. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 09 #50

51. (p. 225) High HDL cholesterol readings are associated with a reduction in heart disease. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 09 #51

52. (p. 225) Angina pectoris is caused by a lack of oxygen to the heart tissue. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 09 #52

53. (p. 228) The purpose of coronary artery bypass surgery is to increase blood supply to the heart muscle. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 09 #53

54. (p. 228) Angioplasty is used only for blocked arteries in the heart. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 09 #54

55. (p. 229) The incidence of hypertension is about the same in all ethnic groups. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 09 #55

56. (p. 230) The risk of retinal hemorrhage (uncontrolled bleeding of retinal arteries) increases when hypertension develops. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 09 #56

57. (p. 230) Several drug treatments are available to reduce the outward physical symptoms of hypertension. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 09 #57

58. (p. 231) A type of stroke that results from an artery that bursts is called a cerebral hemorrhage. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 09 #58

59. (p. 232) A risk factor for rheumatic heart disease is streptococcal infection. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 09 #59

60. (p. 232-233) Congestive heart failure occurs when the heart is so squeezed by surrounding fatty tissues that blood intake is hampered. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 09 #60

61. (p. 226) The person most prone to arrhythmia is one with some form of heart disease. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 09 #61

62. (p. 220-223) List the thirteen risk factors for cardiovascular disease, and indicate whether they are controllable, uncontrollable, or contributing. Controllable: hypertension, inactivity, smoking, high cholesterol, diabetes, obesity Uncontrollable: age, gender, heredity Contributing: stress, sex hormones, birth control pills, and alcohol

Focus - Chapter 09 #62

63. (p. 228-229) List and explain the surgical treatments for heart disease. The surgical treatments include: 1) coronary bypass surgery, in which the coronary obstruction is bypassed by grafting an artery to the aorta to a location just beyond the coronary obstruction. 2) percutaneous coronary intervention (angioplasty), a procedure in which a coronary catheter is inserted into the narrowed coronary artery and inflated. This inflation opens up the artery by compressing plaque and fatty deposits against the artery wall. 3) heart transplantation, a procedure in which a person's damaged heart is replaced with that of another human being's heart.

Focus - Chapter 09 #63

64. (p. 229-230) Briefly describe hypertension and the dangers associated with it. Hypertension is chronic high blood pressure. The reasons for its occurrence are usually not known. It has no symptoms. Hypertension can weaken both the heart and the blood vessels over time, increasing the risk of heart failure, strokes, and other hemorrhages.

Focus - Chapter 09 #64

65. (p. 230-231) List the different kinds of cerebrovascular accidents that are called strokes. Both blockages (occlusions) and hemorrhages in cerebral arteries are called strokes. Blockages are more common; they occur when a clot prevents blood from reaching an area, causing brain cells to die. Hemorrhage can occur when an artery weakened by hypertension ruptures or when an aneurysm bursts. A third form of stroke is a cerebral aneurysm. An aneurysm is a ballooning or outpouching on a weakened area of an artery.

Focus - Chapter 09 #65

66. (p. 231) List the warning signs associated with stroke. Although many stroke victims have little warning of an impending incident, the following are warning signs that should be attended to promptly to prevent death or disabling consequences: 1) sudden, temporary weakness or numbness in the face, arm, and leg on one side of the body 2) temporary loss of speech, trouble speaking or understanding speech 3) temporary dimness or loss of vision, particularly in one eye 4) unexplained dizziness, unsteadiness, or sudden falls 5) sudden, severe headache with no known cause

Focus - Chapter 09 #66

Chap 09 Summary Category

# of Questions

Focus - Chapter 09

66

Chap 10 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. Approximately how many people in the United States develop cancer each year? A. about 150,000 B. about 1,500,000 C. under 3,500,000 D. over 4,500,000

2. At its most basic, cancer is a(n) A. suppression of normal function in an organ. B. uncontrolled replication of abnormal cells. C. invasion of foreign substances into cells. D. dysfunction of the immune system.

3. When regulatory genes in cells fail to function properly and allow cancer to develop, they are called A. p53 genes. B. oncogenes. C. carcinogens. D. proto-oncogenes.

4. To cause cancer, a mutation, carcinogen, or virus must A. destroy cell membranes. B. kill normal, healthy cells. C. accelerate the growth of cells. D. alter genetic information in cells.

5. What is meant by the fact that cancer cells lack contact inhibition? They A. don't stop reproducing when they have filled a space. B. can coexist with all types of normal cells. C. divide more rapidly than normal cells. D. form tighter masses than normal cells.

6. Metastasis is the term used to describe the cancer cell's ability to A. spread to other sites in the body. B. protect itself from toxic substances. C. escape detection by the immune system. D. command extra blood supply from the circulatory system.

7. One of the dangerous properties of cancer cells is that they A. ingest normal cells. B. can live indefinitely. C. grow larger than normal cells. D. can kill other cells on contact.

8. A tumor that does not spread to other sites in the body is labeled A. proto-oncogenic. B. inoperable. C. benign. D. local.

9. When doctors use terms such as carcinoma, sarcoma, and melanoma to describe cancers, they are naming them according to the A. speed at which they spread. B. basis of their cell type. C. TNM staging system. D. rate at which they are cured.

10. In the United States, the most commonly occurring malignant cancers are A. carcinomas. B. melanomas. C. leukemias. D. sarcomas.

11. You can reduce your risk of developing melanoma by A. avoiding cigarettes. B. abstaining from alcohol use. C. avoiding exposure to carcinogenic chemicals. D. protecting yourself from excessive exposure to the sun.

12. Hepatoma is cancer of the A. endocrine system. B. immune system. C. connective tissue. D. liver.

13. Which of the following is the MOST lethal form of cancer for women? A. breast B. lung C. ovarian D. cervical

14. Which of the following is TRUE of people who have a hereditary risk of developing lung cancer? A. They are genetically destined to have lung cancer. B. They will have lung cancer if they become smokers. C. If they do not smoke, they lower their lung cancer risk significantly. D. Smoking is less significant as a lung cancer risk factor for them.

15. What percentage of lung cancer victims are smokers? A. about 50 percent B. 65-75 percent C. 85-90 percent D. over 95 percent

16. A Gail score of 1.66 percent indicates A. low risk for breast cancer. B. high risk for breast cancer C. that a prophylactic mastectomy is required. D. that the cancer is inoperable.

17. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for developing breast cancer? A. women whose menstrual period began at a later age B. women who have had no children C. women whose diet is high in fat D. women who have used hormone replacement therapy

18. Cheyenne learns from genetic screening that she has a mutated version of the BRCA1 gene. She also has a family history of breast cancer. The LEAST helpful recommendation for her is A. a prophylactic mastectomy. B. frequent, thorough examinations for breast cancer. C. preventive drug therapy, if judged appropriate by her doctor. D. breast self-examination and annual mammograms beginning at age 50.

19. A prophylactic mastectomy is A. removal of healthy breast tissue to avoid the risk of breast cancer. B. a mastectomy that includes the immediate insertion of a breast implant. C. removal of all breast tissue and nearby lymph nodes to treat breast cancer. D. removal of the cancerous lump itself and a small amount of surrounding tissue.

20. The most effective tool for identifying breast cancer is A. mammography B. a family history C. self-examination D. genetic screening

21. Which type of skin cancer presents as a painless bump and is often mistaken for a cyst? A. melanoma B. basal cell C. Merkel cell carcinoma D. squamous cell

22. The most effective and currently available screening method for cervical cancer is A. X-ray. B. the Pap test. C. HPV screening. D. a vaginal blood test.

23. Which drug therapy is highly effective for women whose type of breast cancer was stimulated by the presence of estrogen? A. herceptin B. hormone replacement therapy C. cisplatin D. tamoxifen

24. The Pap test is the A. use of a dye to enable X-ray identification of precancerous cells. B. endoscopic examination of the uterine lining for abnormalities. C. removal of a sample of cervical cells for examination. D. screening blood samples for cancer cell markers.

25. Sheryl has many sexual partners but wants to avoid cervical cancer. Besides regular Pap tests, she could BEST lower her risk by which of the following? A. taking up smoking B. abstaining from alcohol C. taking a prescription antibiotic D. using condoms

26. Blood clots, endometrial cancer, stroke, and cataracts are all possible side effects of which class of drugs that is used to treat breast cancer? A. aromatase inhibitors B. estrogen receptor modulators C. beta blockers D. GVAX

27. Uterine cancer is cancer of the A. cervix. B. ovaries. C. vaginal canal. D. wall of the uterus.

28. The principal risk factor related to the development of uterine cancer is A. high estrogen levels. B. early menopause. C. multiple sexual partners. D. late onset of menstruation.

29. Thirty-five-year-old Tara is considering having her ovaries surgically removed to avoid the risk of ovarian cancer. In which of the following cases would this make the most sense? A. She is unmarried. B. She has had more than six children. C. Her family has a strong history of ovarian cancer. D. She was exposed to the drug DES before birth.

30. Women in whom ovarian cancer has been diagnosed often report that the only symptoms were A. sharp abdominal pains that are strongest during activity. B. the disappearance of the sex drive. C. nausea and vomiting. D. digestive disturbances.

31. Which of the following is the second leading cause of cancer deaths among American men? A. lung cancer B. prostate cancer C. testicular cancer D. colorectal cancer

32. There are currently studies being conducted to link behavioral patterns to the prevention of cognitive decline with aging. Of the following, which is an area not currently being studied? A. the role of stem cells in the deterioration of the brain. B. the role of fatty acid in cognitive decline. C. the role of exercise in improving cognitive abilities in aging adults. D. the contributions of regular light alcohol consumption in protecting against Alzheimer's like conditions.

33. One of the most common effects of sickle cell disease is A. abdominal pain. B. the development of anemia. C. nausea and vomiting. D. loss of sexual function.

34. Which of the following types of solid tumors are most common among young men? A. breast B. prostate C. testicular D. colorectal

35. The most important early detection measure for testicular cancer in men is A. a urinalysis. B. a yearly X-ray. C. self-examination. D. a yearly blood test.

36. Treatment for testicular cancer most commonly includes A. removal of both testicles and the prostate gland. B. removal of the affected testicle. C. chemotherapy. D. radiation.

37. Fred detects a small lump on one of his testicles and naturally wonders if he has cancer. He should be most suspicious if it A. is painless. B. is painful to the touch. C. disappears the following day. D. becomes larger and softer the following day.

38. The second leading cause of cancer deaths in males is ___________ cancer. A. colon B. kidney C. lymphatic D. skin

39. Small precancerous outpouchings in the wall of the lower intestinal tract are called A. nodes. B. polyps. C. lesions. D. cystolas.

40. The use of food, food products, or medications to bolster the immune system or reduce the damage caused by carcinogens is termed A. chemoprevention. B. chemonutrition. C. chemointervention. D. chemotherapy.

41. Thirty-five-year-old Ken experienced a change in bowel habits, and a stool test revealed abnormal amounts of blood. The most likely next step for Ken is A. chemotherapy. B. a colonoscopy. C. radiation treatments. D. surgical removal of the colon.

42. Pancreatic cancer is more common in A. African American men. B. Hispanic women. C. Asian women. D. Caucasian men.

43. The most effective step toward preventing pancreatic cancer is to A. consume no more than three alcoholic drinks a day. B. eat more dietary fiber. C. drink large quantities of fluid a day. D. stop smoking.

44. Your 56-year-old brother has been diagnosed with pancreatic cancer. Which of the following scenarios is most likely? A. He has only a six percent survival rate five years after diagnosis. B. The disease will go into spontaneous remission. C. He will die of another cause before this becomes lethal. D. He will be cured if he receives appropriate medical treatment.

45. One of the main difficulties in detecting lymphatic cancer is that A. it is hard to diagnose. B. there are no noticeable symptoms. C. people are afraid to report it to their doctors. D. the symptoms are similar to those of less serious illnesses.

46. Which of the following is an effective method of preventing lymphoma? A. Little can be done to prevent lymphoma. B. a program of regular exercise C. avoiding cigarettes and alcohol abuse D. avoiding cigarettes and reducing dietary fat intake

47. Treatment of lymphomas most commonly includes A. surgery. B. radiation. C. chemotherapy. D. organ transplantation.

48. The major cause of skin cancer is A. excessive use of zinc oxide skin lotions. B. lack of exposure to sunlight. C. chronic exposure to sunlight when young. D. aging.

49. To protect your skin from unhealthy exposure to the sun's rays, you should use a sun block lotion with a skin protection factor (SPF) of at least ______. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

50. Which of the following is largely responsible for skin cancer? A. occupational exposure to hydrocarbons B. severe sunburning during childhood C. use of artificial tanning creams D. using an SPF of 10 or less

51. Sam enjoys outdoor activities. Which of the following is NOT a recommendation to help him prevent skin cancer? He should A. use an SPF of 15 or greater. B. limit his outdoor activities between 11:00 AM-2:00 PM. C. wear a hat. D. make sure he is well hydrated.

52. To help you to identify malignant melanoma, the American Cancer Society recommends that you use the mnemonic ABCD, which stands for A. Abnormal appearance, Blended edges, Color Dark. B. Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color change, Diameter >6mm. C. Assorted shapes, Blended edges, Color change, Denser than surrounding tissue. D. Abnormal size, Black or nearly black, Changing shape, Denser than surrounding tissue.

53. When malignant melanoma is identified at an early stage, it is most commonly treated by A. surgical removal and chemotherapy. B. surgical removal and radiation. C. radiation and chemotherapy. D. surgical removal alone.

54. When melanoma is found at an early stage, the cure rate is _________ percent. A. 35 B. 99 C. 50 D. 89

55. The most important factor in the treatment of most cancers is A. overall fitness level. B. a positive attitude. C. family support. D. early detection.

56. Which of the following is NOT considered to be a complication of Diabetes? A. joint pain. B. glaucoma. C. gangrene. D. impotenece.

57. Sickle-cell disease is most prominent in A. Hispanic Americans. B. African Americans. C. Eastern European Jews. D. Caucasians.

58. You have inherited the trait form of the sickle-cell gene. How will this affect your health? A. It will shorten your life expectancy. B. It will have almost no effect on your health. C. You will be susceptible to frequent infections. D. You will have one chance in four of developing sickle-cell disease.

59. Which of the following is NOT a serious medical problem associated with sickle-cell disease? A. anemia B. congestive heart failure C. gall bladder infections D. recurrent pneumonia

60. In sickle-cell disease, the characteristic sickle-shaped cells are A. genetic flaws in certain types of white blood cells. B. congenital abnormalities in blood vessel walls. C. elongated and unable to pass through the body's minute capillaries. D. cancerous cells in the bone marrow.

61. A form of dementia caused by the gradual loss of brain function is referred to as A. Parkinson's disease. B. Alzheimer's disease. C. Crohn's disease. D. Turner's syndrome

62. Both major types of diabetes occur because of A. too much sugar in the blood. B. too much insulin in the blood. C. the body's insensitivity to insulin. D. the body's inability to regulate blood sugar.

63. Hyperglycemia occurs when A. the blood contains an abnormally low amount of glucose. B. excessive amounts of glucose accumulate in the blood. C. abnormal quantities of glucose pour into cells. D. the body cannot produce enough insulin.

64. One of the major warning signs of type 2 diabetes is A. kidney failure. B. abdominal pain. C. increased thirst. D. a craving for sweets.

65. Which organ produces insulin? A. pancreas B. liver C. kidneys D. large intestines

66. Type 1 (insulin-dependent) diabetes occurs when the A. body becomes insensitive to insulin. B. body loses its ability to produce insulin. C. pancreas starts to release an ineffective form of insulin. D. body develops a hypersensitivity to insulin and excretes most of it in the urine.

67. The cause of type 1 diabetes is the destruction of insulin-producing sites by A. a viral infection. B. mutated pancreatic cells. C. one's own immune system. D. excessive levels of blood glucose.

68. Which of the following is NOT a means for people with type 1 diabetes to take their insulin? A. injection B. nasal inhalation C. dietary supplements D. transdermal patches

69. Prophylactic mastectomy attempts to eliminate the possibility of future cancer development. True False

70. Mammography is the best early detection tool for breast cancer. True False

71. The association between sexually transmitted infections (STDs) and cervical cancer is unclear. True False

72. A woman's risk of developing uterine cancer is strongly linked to high levels of the hormone estrogen in her system. True False

73. Surgical removal of the ovaries is not currently an option for ovarian cancer patients. True False

74. Because of its vague symptoms, ovarian cancer is referred to as a "silent cancer." True False

75. The prostate is an accessory gland of the gastrointestinal system. True False

76. Prostate cancer is the second most prevalent form of cancer in males. True False

77. Regardless of the stage at which it is detected, testicular cancer has a poor survivability rate. True False

78. The incidence of colorectal cancer tends to run in families. True False

79. Cancer of the pancreas is generally treated by surgical removal of the pancreas. True False

80. The early symptoms of lymphoma are unique. True False

81. The cure rate for non-melanoma types of skin cancer is nearly 100 percent. True False

82. Weight loss is one of the seven early warning signs of cancer. True False

83. Proper diet and exercise can lower your cancer risk. True False

84. Almost eight percent of African Americans are victims of sickle-cell disease. True False

85. Type 2 (non-insulin-dependent) diabetes mellitus causes glucose levels in the blood to rise. True False

86. In type 1 diabetes, the body does not produce insulin. True False

87. Without proper management, diabetes can lead to premature death. True False

88. The use of bone marrow stem cells has had no impact on the treatment of MS. True False

89. In an autoimmune disorder, the immune system attacks the body's own tissues. True False

90. Systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disorder that occurs primarily among men. True False

91. Multiple sclerosis is marked by the deterioration of the cells that produce myelin. True False

92. Whether a patient has Alzheimer's disease cannot be completely confirmed before death. True False

93. Cancer is a destructive disease. Describe its impact on the body.

94. What prevention methods are available to reduce your risk for contracting skin cancer?

95. Why is lung cancer the leading cause of cancer deaths?

96. Describe the risk factors for breast cancer.

97. Explain the importance of the Pap test.

98. What are the warning signs of cancer?

99. Explain how lifestyle changes can reduce your cancer risk.

100. Describe the similarities and differences between type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus.

101. Describe the progress of Alzheimer's disease.

Chap 10 Key

1. (p. 239) Approximately how many people in the United States develop cancer each year? A. about 150,000 B. about 1,500,000 C. under 3,500,000 D. over 4,500,000

Focus - Chapter 10 #1

2. (p. 239) At its most basic, cancer is a(n) A. suppression of normal function in an organ. B. uncontrolled replication of abnormal cells. C. invasion of foreign substances into cells. D. dysfunction of the immune system.

Focus - Chapter 10 #2

3. (p. 239-241) When regulatory genes in cells fail to function properly and allow cancer to develop, they are called A. p53 genes. B. oncogenes. C. carcinogens. D. proto-oncogenes.

Focus - Chapter 10 #3

4. (p. 240) To cause cancer, a mutation, carcinogen, or virus must A. destroy cell membranes. B. kill normal, healthy cells. C. accelerate the growth of cells. D. alter genetic information in cells.

Focus - Chapter 10 #4

5. (p. 241) What is meant by the fact that cancer cells lack contact inhibition? They A. don't stop reproducing when they have filled a space. B. can coexist with all types of normal cells. C. divide more rapidly than normal cells. D. form tighter masses than normal cells.

Focus - Chapter 10 #5

6. (p. 241) Metastasis is the term used to describe the cancer cell's ability to A. spread to other sites in the body. B. protect itself from toxic substances. C. escape detection by the immune system. D. command extra blood supply from the circulatory system.

Focus - Chapter 10 #6

7. (p. 241) One of the dangerous properties of cancer cells is that they A. ingest normal cells. B. can live indefinitely. C. grow larger than normal cells. D. can kill other cells on contact.

Focus - Chapter 10 #7

8. (p. 242) A tumor that does not spread to other sites in the body is labeled A. proto-oncogenic. B. inoperable. C. benign. D. local.

Focus - Chapter 10 #8

9. (p. 242) When doctors use terms such as carcinoma, sarcoma, and melanoma to describe cancers, they are naming them according to the A. speed at which they spread. B. basis of their cell type. C. TNM staging system. D. rate at which they are cured.

Focus - Chapter 10 #9

10. (p. 242) In the United States, the most commonly occurring malignant cancers are A. carcinomas. B. melanomas. C. leukemias. D. sarcomas.

Focus - Chapter 10 #10

11. (p. 242) You can reduce your risk of developing melanoma by A. avoiding cigarettes. B. abstaining from alcohol use. C. avoiding exposure to carcinogenic chemicals. D. protecting yourself from excessive exposure to the sun.

Focus - Chapter 10 #11

12. (p. 242) Hepatoma is cancer of the A. endocrine system. B. immune system. C. connective tissue. D. liver.

Focus - Chapter 10 #12

13. (p. 243, 245) Which of the following is the MOST lethal form of cancer for women? A. breast B. lung C. ovarian D. cervical

Focus - Chapter 10 #13

14. (p. 246) Which of the following is TRUE of people who have a hereditary risk of developing lung cancer? A. They are genetically destined to have lung cancer. B. They will have lung cancer if they become smokers. C. If they do not smoke, they lower their lung cancer risk significantly. D. Smoking is less significant as a lung cancer risk factor for them.

Focus - Chapter 10 #14

15. (p. 246) What percentage of lung cancer victims are smokers? A. about 50 percent B. 65-75 percent C. 85-90 percent D. over 95 percent

Focus - Chapter 10 #15

16. (p. 251) A Gail score of 1.66 percent indicates A. low risk for breast cancer. B. high risk for breast cancer C. that a prophylactic mastectomy is required. D. that the cancer is inoperable.

Focus - Chapter 10 #16

17. (p. 249-250) Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for developing breast cancer? A. women whose menstrual period began at a later age B. women who have had no children C. women whose diet is high in fat D. women who have used hormone replacement therapy

Focus - Chapter 10 #17

18. (p. 251-252) Cheyenne learns from genetic screening that she has a mutated version of the BRCA1 gene. She also has a family history of breast cancer. The LEAST helpful recommendation for her is A. a prophylactic mastectomy. B. frequent, thorough examinations for breast cancer. C. preventive drug therapy, if judged appropriate by her doctor. D. breast self-examination and annual mammograms beginning at age 50.

Focus - Chapter 10 #18

19. (p. 251) A prophylactic mastectomy is A. removal of healthy breast tissue to avoid the risk of breast cancer. B. a mastectomy that includes the immediate insertion of a breast implant. C. removal of all breast tissue and nearby lymph nodes to treat breast cancer. D. removal of the cancerous lump itself and a small amount of surrounding tissue.

Focus - Chapter 10 #19

20. (p. 252) The most effective tool for identifying breast cancer is A. mammography B. a family history C. self-examination D. genetic screening

Focus - Chapter 10 #20

21. (p. 245) Which type of skin cancer presents as a painless bump and is often mistaken for a cyst? A. melanoma B. basal cell C. Merkel cell carcinoma D. squamous cell

Focus - Chapter 10 #21

22. (p. 255) The most effective and currently available screening method for cervical cancer is A. X-ray. B. the Pap test. C. HPV screening. D. a vaginal blood test.

Focus - Chapter 10 #22

23. (p. 251) Which drug therapy is highly effective for women whose type of breast cancer was stimulated by the presence of estrogen? A. herceptin B. hormone replacement therapy C. cisplatin D. tamoxifen

Focus - Chapter 10 #23

24. (p. 255) The Pap test is the A. use of a dye to enable X-ray identification of precancerous cells. B. endoscopic examination of the uterine lining for abnormalities. C. removal of a sample of cervical cells for examination. D. screening blood samples for cancer cell markers.

Focus - Chapter 10 #24

25. (p. 255) Sheryl has many sexual partners but wants to avoid cervical cancer. Besides regular Pap tests, she could BEST lower her risk by which of the following? A. taking up smoking B. abstaining from alcohol C. taking a prescription antibiotic D. using condoms

Focus - Chapter 10 #25

26. (p. 251) Blood clots, endometrial cancer, stroke, and cataracts are all possible side effects of which class of drugs that is used to treat breast cancer? A. aromatase inhibitors B. estrogen receptor modulators C. beta blockers D. GVAX

Focus - Chapter 10 #26

27. (p. 256) Uterine cancer is cancer of the A. cervix. B. ovaries. C. vaginal canal. D. wall of the uterus.

Focus - Chapter 10 #27

28. (p. 256) The principal risk factor related to the development of uterine cancer is A. high estrogen levels. B. early menopause. C. multiple sexual partners. D. late onset of menstruation.

Focus - Chapter 10 #28

29. (p. 257) Thirty-five-year-old Tara is considering having her ovaries surgically removed to avoid the risk of ovarian cancer. In which of the following cases would this make the most sense? A. She is unmarried. B. She has had more than six children. C. Her family has a strong history of ovarian cancer. D. She was exposed to the drug DES before birth.

Focus - Chapter 10 #29

30. (p. 257) Women in whom ovarian cancer has been diagnosed often report that the only symptoms were A. sharp abdominal pains that are strongest during activity. B. the disappearance of the sex drive. C. nausea and vomiting. D. digestive disturbances.

Focus - Chapter 10 #30

31. (p. 253) Which of the following is the second leading cause of cancer deaths among American men? A. lung cancer B. prostate cancer C. testicular cancer D. colorectal cancer

Focus - Chapter 10 #31

32. (p. 267) There are currently studies being conducted to link behavioral patterns to the prevention of cognitive decline with aging. Of the following, which is an area not currently being studied? A. the role of stem cells in the deterioration of the brain. B. the role of fatty acid in cognitive decline. C. the role of exercise in improving cognitive abilities in aging adults. D. the contributions of regular light alcohol consumption in protecting against Alzheimer's like conditions.

Focus - Chapter 10 #32

33. (p. 266) One of the most common effects of sickle cell disease is A. abdominal pain. B. the development of anemia. C. nausea and vomiting. D. loss of sexual function.

Focus - Chapter 10 #33

34. (p. 254) Which of the following types of solid tumors are most common among young men? A. breast B. prostate C. testicular D. colorectal

Focus - Chapter 10 #34

35. (p. 254) The most important early detection measure for testicular cancer in men is A. a urinalysis. B. a yearly X-ray. C. self-examination. D. a yearly blood test.

Focus - Chapter 10 #35

36. (p. 255) Treatment for testicular cancer most commonly includes A. removal of both testicles and the prostate gland. B. removal of the affected testicle. C. chemotherapy. D. radiation.

Focus - Chapter 10 #36

37. (p. 254-255) Fred detects a small lump on one of his testicles and naturally wonders if he has cancer. He should be most suspicious if it A. is painless. B. is painful to the touch. C. disappears the following day. D. becomes larger and softer the following day.

Focus - Chapter 10 #37

38. (p. 247) The second leading cause of cancer deaths in males is ___________ cancer. A. colon B. kidney C. lymphatic D. skin

Focus - Chapter 10 #38

39. (p. 248) Small precancerous outpouchings in the wall of the lower intestinal tract are called A. nodes. B. polyps. C. lesions. D. cystolas.

Focus - Chapter 10 #39

40. (p. 260) The use of food, food products, or medications to bolster the immune system or reduce the damage caused by carcinogens is termed A. chemoprevention. B. chemonutrition. C. chemointervention. D. chemotherapy.

Focus - Chapter 10 #40

41. (p. 248) Thirty-five-year-old Ken experienced a change in bowel habits, and a stool test revealed abnormal amounts of blood. The most likely next step for Ken is A. chemotherapy. B. a colonoscopy. C. radiation treatments. D. surgical removal of the colon.

Focus - Chapter 10 #41

42. (p. 258) Pancreatic cancer is more common in A. African American men. B. Hispanic women. C. Asian women. D. Caucasian men.

Focus - Chapter 10 #42

43. (p. 258) The most effective step toward preventing pancreatic cancer is to A. consume no more than three alcoholic drinks a day. B. eat more dietary fiber. C. drink large quantities of fluid a day. D. stop smoking.

Focus - Chapter 10 #43

44. (p. 257) Your 56-year-old brother has been diagnosed with pancreatic cancer. Which of the following scenarios is most likely? A. He has only a six percent survival rate five years after diagnosis. B. The disease will go into spontaneous remission. C. He will die of another cause before this becomes lethal. D. He will be cured if he receives appropriate medical treatment.

Focus - Chapter 10 #44

45. (p. 258-259) One of the main difficulties in detecting lymphatic cancer is that A. it is hard to diagnose. B. there are no noticeable symptoms. C. people are afraid to report it to their doctors. D. the symptoms are similar to those of less serious illnesses.

Focus - Chapter 10 #45

46. (p. 258) Which of the following is an effective method of preventing lymphoma? A. Little can be done to prevent lymphoma. B. a program of regular exercise C. avoiding cigarettes and alcohol abuse D. avoiding cigarettes and reducing dietary fat intake

Focus - Chapter 10 #46

47. (p. 259) Treatment of lymphomas most commonly includes A. surgery. B. radiation. C. chemotherapy. D. organ transplantation.

Focus - Chapter 10 #47

48. (p. 242) The major cause of skin cancer is A. excessive use of zinc oxide skin lotions. B. lack of exposure to sunlight. C. chronic exposure to sunlight when young. D. aging.

Focus - Chapter 10 #48

49. (p. 243) To protect your skin from unhealthy exposure to the sun's rays, you should use a sun block lotion with a skin protection factor (SPF) of at least ______. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

Focus - Chapter 10 #49

50. (p. 242) Which of the following is largely responsible for skin cancer? A. occupational exposure to hydrocarbons B. severe sunburning during childhood C. use of artificial tanning creams D. using an SPF of 10 or less

Focus - Chapter 10 #50

51. (p. 243, 245) Sam enjoys outdoor activities. Which of the following is NOT a recommendation to help him prevent skin cancer? He should A. use an SPF of 15 or greater. B. limit his outdoor activities between 11:00 AM-2:00 PM. C. wear a hat. D. make sure he is well hydrated.

Focus - Chapter 10 #51

52. (p. 245) To help you to identify malignant melanoma, the American Cancer Society recommends that you use the mnemonic ABCD, which stands for A. Abnormal appearance, Blended edges, Color Dark. B. Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color change, Diameter >6mm. C. Assorted shapes, Blended edges, Color change, Denser than surrounding tissue. D. Abnormal size, Black or nearly black, Changing shape, Denser than surrounding tissue.

Focus - Chapter 10 #52

53. (p. 245) When malignant melanoma is identified at an early stage, it is most commonly treated by A. surgical removal and chemotherapy. B. surgical removal and radiation. C. radiation and chemotherapy. D. surgical removal alone.

Focus - Chapter 10 #53

54. (p. 245) When melanoma is found at an early stage, the cure rate is _________ percent. A. 35 B. 99 C. 50 D. 89

Focus - Chapter 10 #54

55. (p. 239) The most important factor in the treatment of most cancers is A. overall fitness level. B. a positive attitude. C. family support. D. early detection.

Focus - Chapter 10 #55

56. (p. 265) Which of the following is NOT considered to be a complication of Diabetes? A. joint pain. B. glaucoma. C. gangrene. D. impotenece.

Focus - Chapter 10 #56

57. (p. 265) Sickle-cell disease is most prominent in A. Hispanic Americans. B. African Americans. C. Eastern European Jews. D. Caucasians.

Focus - Chapter 10 #57

58. (p. 265-266) You have inherited the trait form of the sickle-cell gene. How will this affect your health? A. It will shorten your life expectancy. B. It will have almost no effect on your health. C. You will be susceptible to frequent infections. D. You will have one chance in four of developing sickle-cell disease.

Focus - Chapter 10 #58

59. (p. 266) Which of the following is NOT a serious medical problem associated with sickle-cell disease? A. anemia B. congestive heart failure C. gall bladder infections D. recurrent pneumonia

Focus - Chapter 10 #59

60. (p. 266) In sickle-cell disease, the characteristic sickle-shaped cells are A. genetic flaws in certain types of white blood cells. B. congenital abnormalities in blood vessel walls. C. elongated and unable to pass through the body's minute capillaries. D. cancerous cells in the bone marrow.

Focus - Chapter 10 #60

61. (p. 266) A form of dementia caused by the gradual loss of brain function is referred to as A. Parkinson's disease. B. Alzheimer's disease. C. Crohn's disease. D. Turner's syndrome

Focus - Chapter 10 #61

62. (p. 263-265) Both major types of diabetes occur because of A. too much sugar in the blood. B. too much insulin in the blood. C. the body's insensitivity to insulin. D. the body's inability to regulate blood sugar.

Focus - Chapter 10 #62

63. (p. 264) Hyperglycemia occurs when A. the blood contains an abnormally low amount of glucose. B. excessive amounts of glucose accumulate in the blood. C. abnormal quantities of glucose pour into cells. D. the body cannot produce enough insulin.

Focus - Chapter 10 #63

64. (p. 264) One of the major warning signs of type 2 diabetes is A. kidney failure. B. abdominal pain. C. increased thirst. D. a craving for sweets.

Focus - Chapter 10 #64

65. (p. 264) Which organ produces insulin? A. pancreas B. liver C. kidneys D. large intestines

Focus - Chapter 10 #65

66. (p. 265) Type 1 (insulin-dependent) diabetes occurs when the A. body becomes insensitive to insulin. B. body loses its ability to produce insulin. C. pancreas starts to release an ineffective form of insulin. D. body develops a hypersensitivity to insulin and excretes most of it in the urine.

Focus - Chapter 10 #66

67. (p. 265) The cause of type 1 diabetes is the destruction of insulin-producing sites by A. a viral infection. B. mutated pancreatic cells. C. one's own immune system. D. excessive levels of blood glucose.

Focus - Chapter 10 #67

68. (p. 265) Which of the following is NOT a means for people with type 1 diabetes to take their insulin? A. injection B. nasal inhalation C. dietary supplements D. transdermal patches

Focus - Chapter 10 #68

69. (p. 251) Prophylactic mastectomy attempts to eliminate the possibility of future cancer development. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 10 #69

70. (p. 252) Mammography is the best early detection tool for breast cancer. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 10 #70

71. (p. 255) The association between sexually transmitted infections (STDs) and cervical cancer is unclear. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 10 #71

72. (p. 256) A woman's risk of developing uterine cancer is strongly linked to high levels of the hormone estrogen in her system. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 10 #72

73. (p. 257) Surgical removal of the ovaries is not currently an option for ovarian cancer patients. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 10 #73

74. (p. 257) Because of its vague symptoms, ovarian cancer is referred to as a "silent cancer." TRUE

Focus - Chapter 10 #74

75. (p. 253) The prostate is an accessory gland of the gastrointestinal system. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 10 #75

76. (p. 253) Prostate cancer is the second most prevalent form of cancer in males. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 10 #76

77. (p. 255) Regardless of the stage at which it is detected, testicular cancer has a poor survivability rate. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 10 #77

78. (p. 247-248) The incidence of colorectal cancer tends to run in families. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 10 #78

79. (p. 258) Cancer of the pancreas is generally treated by surgical removal of the pancreas. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 10 #79

80. (p. 258-259) The early symptoms of lymphoma are unique. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 10 #80

81. (p. 245) The cure rate for non-melanoma types of skin cancer is nearly 100 percent. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 10 #81

82. (p. 245) Weight loss is one of the seven early warning signs of cancer. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 10 #82

83. (p. 259-260) Proper diet and exercise can lower your cancer risk. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 10 #83

84. (p. 266) Almost eight percent of African Americans are victims of sickle-cell disease. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 10 #84

85. (p. 264) Type 2 (non-insulin-dependent) diabetes mellitus causes glucose levels in the blood to rise. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 10 #85

86. (p. 265) In type 1 diabetes, the body does not produce insulin. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 10 #86

87. (p. 265) Without proper management, diabetes can lead to premature death. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 10 #87

88. (p. 263) The use of bone marrow stem cells has had no impact on the treatment of MS. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 10 #88

89. (p. 260-261) In an autoimmune disorder, the immune system attacks the body's own tissues. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 10 #89

90. (p. 261) Systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disorder that occurs primarily among men. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 10 #90

91. (p. 262) Multiple sclerosis is marked by the deterioration of the cells that produce myelin. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 10 #91

92. (p. 266) Whether a patient has Alzheimer's disease cannot be completely confirmed before death. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 10 #92

93. (p. 241) Cancer is a destructive disease. Describe its impact on the body. Because cancer cells are abnormal cells, they do not function properly in their tissues of origin, so they do not support body functions. Further, because cancer cells lack contact inhibition and do not die, they eventually begin to crowd out healthy cells. They also have the ability to command the circulatory system to send them additional blood supply to meet their metabolic needs. This is referred to as angiogenesis. Finally, cancer cells spread to other sites in the body, multiplying the problem.

Focus - Chapter 10 #93

94. (p. 243) What prevention methods are available to reduce your risk for contracting skin cancer? The risk factors associated with skin cancer are severe sunburning during childhood and chronic sun exposure during adolescence and young adulthood. Prevention methods include using an SPF of 15 or greater, limiting sun exposure between 11:00 AM and 2:00 PM, and wearing protective clothing (e.g., hat, t-shirt).

Focus - Chapter 10 #94

95. (p. 245-246) Why is lung cancer the leading cause of cancer deaths? The main reason lung cancer kills so many is that smoking is a popular habit, and smoking often leads to lung cancer because of the manner in which tobacco smoke invades the lungs with toxins. The nature of lung cancer is such that it usually cannot be diagnosed until it is in an advanced stage; therefore, survival rates are very poor.

Focus - Chapter 10 #95

96. (p. 249-250) Describe the risk factors for breast cancer. Women who have a family history of breast cancer run a higher risk than women who do not. Other risk factors include women: 1) whose menstrual periods began early or whose menopause occurred late; 2) who have had no children or had their first child later in life; 3) have used hormone replacement therapy; 4) who are sedentary, have excessive central body cavity fat, or have diets high in saturated fats; 5) who have inherited certain mutated genes, including the tumor suppressor genes BRCA1 and BRCA2.

Focus - Chapter 10 #96

97. (p. 255) Explain the importance of the Pap test. The Pap test is an early detection method for cervical cancer that can identify precancerous changes in tissues before they actually become cancers. It is an effective and easily administered test. When used with regular screening, the vast majority of cervical cancer cases can be not only identified but prevented.

Focus - Chapter 10 #97

98. (p. 245 (Table 10.3)) What are the warning signs of cancer? The warning signs of cancer include: 1) changes in bowel or bladder habits; 2) a sore that does not heal; 3) unusual bleeding or discharge; 4) thickening or lump in the breast or elsewhere; 5) indigestion or difficulty in swallowing; 6) obvious change in a wart or mole; 7) nagging cough or hoarseness.

Focus - Chapter 10 #98

99. (p. 259-260) Explain how lifestyle changes can reduce your cancer risk. Quitting or avoiding smoking can reduce most of the risk for lung cancer and other smoking-related cancers of the mouth and respiratory tract. Avoiding carcinogens in the environment, especially in the workplace, is also an important prevention measure. A healthy diet and weight control can also have a preventative effect, as can regular exercise. Limiting exposure to the sun will slow the development of skin cancer. Avoiding heavy use of alcohol can also lower the risk of some cancers. Know your family history for cancer, and be aware that early screening for certain cancers may be appropriate in this situation.

Focus - Chapter 10 #99

100. (p. 264-265) Describe the similarities and differences between type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Similarities: Both occur because insulin is unable to facilitate the transport of glucose into body cells; both result in excess blood glucose; the symptoms and long-term damage are generally the same. Differences: Type 2 diabetes features normal insulin production, while type 1 is marked by the absence of insulin production. Type 1 diabetes always requires regular doses of insulin from an outside source.

Focus - Chapter 10 #100

101. (p. 266) Describe the progress of Alzheimer's disease. Early symptoms include mild depressive behavior and occasional absent-mindedness. As the disease progresses, memory loss becomes more pronounced, and the victim may often appear confused. In later stages, victims are unable to care for themselves and eventually become incapacitated.

Focus - Chapter 10 #101

Chap 10 Summary Category

# of Questions

Focus - Chapter 10

101

Chap 11 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. The general term for a disease-causing agent is A. virus. B. infection. C. pathogen. D. bacterium.

2. The general term for the environment in which an infectious agent grows and thrives is its A. reservoir. B. incubator. C. natural state. D. dormant state.

3. Which of the following is NOT a form of direct transmission? A. kissing B. drinking from a friend's water glass C. breathing in someone's sneeze D. sexual intercourse

4. In the context of infectious diseases, what is a vector? A. the connection between any two links in the chain of infection B. a primitive one-celled organism that causes disease in humans C. a living organism that serves as a mode of transmission for a pathogen D. the substance released by an infectious agent that causes symptoms in humans

5. Tuesday afternoon you began to feel sick. Wednesday you were sick in bed all day. Thursday you felt better. Your time in bed Wednesday probably marked the __________ stage of the infection. A. clinical B. recovery C. incubation D. prodromal

6. The stage of infection from the time a pathogen enters your body until symptoms appear is known as the _______________ stage. A. clinical B. recovery C. incubation D. prodromal

7. An example of your body's so-called first line of defense against infections would be A. T-cells. B. skin. C. antigens. D. antibodies.

8. Which of the following terms is applied to any foreign substance that stimulates a response from the immune system? A. toxin B. antigen C. microbe D. bacterium

9. The immunity you get from a vaccination is acquired A. actively. B. passively. C. artificially. D. nonspecifically.

10. Natural immunity is acquired by A. receiving an immunization. B. preventing an infection from occurring. C. receiving antibodies from another host. D. experiencing and recovering from a disease.

11. The role of antibodies is to A. produce helper T-cells. B. aid in the formation of killer T-cells. C. destroy antigens and their toxins. D. destroy suppressor T-cells.

12. Macrophages are a form of A. stem cells. B. helper T-cells. C. antibodies. D. white blood cells.

13. Which of the following has a responsibility to "turn off" further plasma cell activity? A. T-helper cells B. T-suppressor cells C. T-memory cells D. T-killer cells

14. Which of the following BEST explains why stem cells are transplanted into people with damaged immune systems? A. The patients' own stem cells are used up. B. They are the most potent type of immune cell. C. Stem cells are specialized for restoring immune functions. D. Stem cells are absent of specialization and can develop into new immune system cells.

15. Approximately one-third of all adults will have contracted a sexually transmitted disease by age A. 20 B. 25 C. 30 D. 35

16. Which of the following, if contracted during pregnancy, can cause damage to the developing fetus? A. rubella B. whooping cough C. polio D. tetanus

17. A potentially fatal illness that leads to the inflammation of the membranes that line the throat, to swollen lymph nodes, and to heart and kidney failure is A. chicken pox. B. mumps. C. diphtheria. D. rubella.

18. Adults are particularly underprotected in regard to A. hepatitis and polio. B. tetanus and diphtheria. C. haemophilus influenzae type B. D. chicken pox and mumps.

19. Another name for the common cold is A. influenza. B. pandemia. C. acute rhinitis. D. congestive bronchitis.

20. A type of infection spread in conjunction with the delivery of health care services is termed ______________________ infection. A. non-specific B. nosocomial C. non-institutional D. non-medical

21. To avoid catching another cold, which of the following will be the MOST useful strategy? A. Wash your hands periodically when you are with groups of people. B. Take extra vitamin C and herbal supplements. C. Wear a mask when you go out in public. D. Exercise for thirty minutes daily.

22. The portal of entry for influenza is A. the respiratory system. B. the digestive tract. C. breaks in the skin. D. body fluids.

23. The most common approach to treating influenza is to A. receive antiviral shots. B. aspirin, fluids, and rest. C. take antibiotics. D. avoid infection.

24. Today, Suzanne began experiencing painful urination and the frequent, sudden need to urinate. She probably has A. syphilis. B. gonorrhea. C. a yeast infection. D. a urinary tract infection.

25. Tuberculosis is a A. bacterial lung infection that creates a chronic cough and endangers health. B. viral lung infection marked by serious flares, when breathing is extremely difficult. C. rapid and dangerous atrophy of lung tissues that is caused by invasive microorganisms. D. general suppression of the immune system that results in frequent lung infections.

26. The mode of transmission for tuberculosis is A. direct transmission. B. vector-based transmission. C. droplet spread. D. fecal-oral transmission.

27. Of the following, the greatest current threat from tuberculosis in the United States comes from A. virulent strains. B. poor treatments. C. secondary infections. D. drug-resistant strains.

28. Who of the following, when exposed to tuberculosis, is NOT likely to infect others? A. an older adult B. someone infected with HIV C. a malnourished individual D. a healthy individual

29. The standard treatment for mononucleosis is A. rest. B. antibiotics. C. physical therapy. D. corticosteroid drugs.

30. Fatigue that lasts for weeks and months in the absence of other symptoms is characteristic of A. pneumonia. B. tuberculosis. C. Lyme disease. D. mononucleosis.

31. Which of the following is the MOST common form of pneumonia? A. bacterial B. viral C. fungal D. parasitic

32. Which of the following is FALSE regarding chronic fatigue syndrome? It is an illness A. that causes severe exhaustion and fatigue. B. most often seen in men in their thirties and forties. C. that causes confusion over its exact nature. D. that causes headaches and an inability to concentrate.

33. You have just taken your roommate to the hospital. She came down with what appeared to be flu two days ago, but you suspected meningitis when she complained of A. a severe headache and stiff neck. B. fatigue and lack of appetite. C. body aches and chills. D. nausea.

34. Which of the following is not a symptom of the infection caused by West Nile Virus? A. fever. B. headache. C. joint pain. D. jaundice.

35. The mode of transmission for Lyme disease is A. vector-based. B. personal contact. C. airborne particles. D. exchange of body fluids.

36. Which of the following is the BEST defense against Lyme disease? A. Wash hands thoroughly. B. Avoid sharing of eating utensils. C. Stay away from people who have the disease. D. Check yourself thoroughly for ticks after being outdoors.

37. Which phase of Lyme disease may produce disorders of the heart and nervous systems? A. acute phase B. lasting phase C. chronic phase D. recovery phase

38. You went hiking in the morning and, in the evening, you find that a deer tick has attached itself to your ankle. You remove it. What should you do now? A. Seek antibiotic therapy at once. B. Send the tick to your doctor for laboratory analysis. C. Wash the bite and wait for the appearance of clinical symptoms. D. Get immunized for Lyme disease within the next three weeks.

39. Which of the following is an acute infection of the lungs that progresses rapidly and often kills the victim? A. hepatitis B. Lyme disease C. toxic shock syndrome D. hantavirus pulmonary syndrome

40. You are cleaning your garage when you find a place where deer mice have nested. You are aware that they carry hantavirus, so your best option is to A. leave the nest undisturbed. B. soak the nest with disinfectant or bleach before removing and destroying it. C. first probe to see if the mice are gone, then immediately throw the nest away. D. carefully salvage as much of the nest as you can and send it to a state lab for analysis.

41. The West Nile virus is transmitted to humans via A. birds. B. mosquitoes. C. deer ticks. D. deer mice.

42. In the vagina, toxic shock syndrome occurs when A. bacteria that enter tampons during their manufacture penetrate the body's defenses. B. certain staphylococcal bacteria invade the bloodstream through the vaginal wall. C. super absorbent tampons cause shock by absorbing blood too rapidly. D. sexually transmitted pathogens penetrate the vaginal wall.

43. Toxic shock syndrome is most strongly linked to the use of A. super absorbent tampons. B. light duty tampons. C. sanitary napkins. D. all tampons.

44. Hepatitis is a viral inflammation of the A. pancreas. B. intestines. C. kidneys. D. liver.

45. Hepatitis B and C are spread when the virus is introduced directly into A. the ear. B. body fluids. C. the digestive tract. D. the respiratory system.

46. Most HIV infections occur through the exchange of blood, semen, or A. tears. B. saliva. C. sweat. D. vaginal secretions.

47. The average incubation period for HIV infections (the time between infection and the appearance of symptoms) is about A. six to twelve months. B. two to six years. C. six to eight years. D. ten to twelve years.

48. Many people are concerned that there is a relationship between the development of autism and which childhood immunization? A. DTaP B. Varicella C. MMR D. HepA

49. Which of the following BEST summarizes the current state of HIV/AIDS treatment? A. It can be slowed, but not cured. B. There are no effective treatments for HIV/AIDS. C. It can be cured if caught before full-blown AIDS develops. D. Experimental cures have been achieved, but they need to be approved by the FDA.

50. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to avoid HIV infection? A. Practice safer sex. B. Avoid sexual activity. C. Always use condoms for sex. D. Learn the sexual history of prospective sexual partners.

51. Chlamydia is a A. rare infection of the reproductive system transmitted by indirect means. B. pelvic inflammation that usually occurs because of poor hygiene. C. sexually transmitted disease of bacterial origin. D. side effect of a gonorrhea infection.

52. Colds are caused by any of five known rhinoviruses. True False

53. The best way to prevent transmission of colds is to wash your hands. True False

54. Generally, you have flu and not a cold if you have a headache and high fever. True False

55. Tuberculosis thrives in crowded places where infected people are in close proximity. True False

56. Pneumonia will not develop if other infections are already present in the body. True False

57. Mononucleosis is a viral infection in which the body produces an excess amount of white blood cells. True False

58. A vaccine for mononucleosis is needed to prevent a repeat infection. True False

59. The precise nature of chronic fatigue syndrome is unknown. True False

60. There is a vaccine now available for meningitis. True False

61. The characteristic rash associated with Lyme disease is always present with other symptoms. True False

62. Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome is a viral infection that spreads when humans inhale dust contaminated with dried virus-rich rodent urine- or saliva-contaminated materials, such as from nests. True False

63. West Nile virus infection involves flu-like symptoms including fever and fatigue. True False

64. Hepatitis is a viral infection of the liver. True False

65. An HIV-infected person is considered to have AIDS when the T-helper cell count drops below a certain point. True False

66. It is relatively easy to become infected with HIV. True False

67. Women are at a much greater risk than men of contracting HIV through heterosexual contact. True False

68. Although there is currently no cure for AIDS, researchers have slowed the progress of the disease in many people. True False

69. In the United States, the incidence of the STD chlamydia is second only to that of gonorrhea. True False

70. Like many sexually transmitted diseases, genital warts are a greater risk for those who have multiple sexual partners. True False

71. If left untreated, genital herpes can spread throughout the urinary tract and cause kidney damage. True False

72. Several ointments are now available that can clear up herpes infections. True False

73. Despite the popularity of over-the-counter remedies, vaginal yeast infections only respond to powerful prescription drugs. True False

74. Nosocomial infections are spread exclusively through sexual contact. True False

75. Describe the major links in the chain of infection, and explain the role of each.

76. Describe the five stages of infection.

77. Describe how the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is spread.

78. Explain the relationship and the distinction between HIV infection and AIDS.

79. Describe how you can reduce your risk of contracting HIV and sexually transmitted infections.

Chap 11 Key

1. (p. 272) The general term for a disease-causing agent is A. virus. B. infection. C. pathogen. D. bacterium.

Focus - Chapter 11 #1

2. (p. 273) The general term for the environment in which an infectious agent grows and thrives is its A. reservoir. B. incubator. C. natural state. D. dormant state.

Focus - Chapter 11 #2

3. (p. 273) Which of the following is NOT a form of direct transmission? A. kissing B. drinking from a friend's water glass C. breathing in someone's sneeze D. sexual intercourse

Focus - Chapter 11 #3

4. (p. 273) In the context of infectious diseases, what is a vector? A. the connection between any two links in the chain of infection B. a primitive one-celled organism that causes disease in humans C. a living organism that serves as a mode of transmission for a pathogen D. the substance released by an infectious agent that causes symptoms in humans

Focus - Chapter 11 #4

5. (p. 275) Tuesday afternoon you began to feel sick. Wednesday you were sick in bed all day. Thursday you felt better. Your time in bed Wednesday probably marked the __________ stage of the infection. A. clinical B. recovery C. incubation D. prodromal

Focus - Chapter 11 #5

6. (p. 274) The stage of infection from the time a pathogen enters your body until symptoms appear is known as the _______________ stage. A. clinical B. recovery C. incubation D. prodromal

Focus - Chapter 11 #6

7. (p. 275) An example of your body's so-called first line of defense against infections would be A. T-cells. B. skin. C. antigens. D. antibodies.

Focus - Chapter 11 #7

8. (p. 277) Which of the following terms is applied to any foreign substance that stimulates a response from the immune system? A. toxin B. antigen C. microbe D. bacterium

Focus - Chapter 11 #8

9. (p. 276) The immunity you get from a vaccination is acquired A. actively. B. passively. C. artificially. D. nonspecifically.

Focus - Chapter 11 #9

10. (p. 276) Natural immunity is acquired by A. receiving an immunization. B. preventing an infection from occurring. C. receiving antibodies from another host. D. experiencing and recovering from a disease.

Focus - Chapter 11 #10

11. (p. 277) The role of antibodies is to A. produce helper T-cells. B. aid in the formation of killer T-cells. C. destroy antigens and their toxins. D. destroy suppressor T-cells.

Focus - Chapter 11 #11

12. (p. 277) Macrophages are a form of A. stem cells. B. helper T-cells. C. antibodies. D. white blood cells.

Focus - Chapter 11 #12

13. (p. 277) Which of the following has a responsibility to "turn off" further plasma cell activity? A. T-helper cells B. T-suppressor cells C. T-memory cells D. T-killer cells

Focus - Chapter 11 #13

14. (p. 278) Which of the following BEST explains why stem cells are transplanted into people with damaged immune systems? A. The patients' own stem cells are used up. B. They are the most potent type of immune cell. C. Stem cells are specialized for restoring immune functions. D. Stem cells are absent of specialization and can develop into new immune system cells.

Focus - Chapter 11 #14

15. (p. 292) Approximately one-third of all adults will have contracted a sexually transmitted disease by age A. 20 B. 25 C. 30 D. 35

Focus - Chapter 11 #15

16. (p. 278) Which of the following, if contracted during pregnancy, can cause damage to the developing fetus? A. rubella B. whooping cough C. polio D. tetanus

Focus - Chapter 11 #16

17. (p. 278) A potentially fatal illness that leads to the inflammation of the membranes that line the throat, to swollen lymph nodes, and to heart and kidney failure is A. chicken pox. B. mumps. C. diphtheria. D. rubella.

Focus - Chapter 11 #17

18. (p. 279) Adults are particularly underprotected in regard to A. hepatitis and polio. B. tetanus and diphtheria. C. haemophilus influenzae type B. D. chicken pox and mumps.

Focus - Chapter 11 #18

19. (p. 280) Another name for the common cold is A. influenza. B. pandemia. C. acute rhinitis. D. congestive bronchitis.

Focus - Chapter 11 #19

20. (p. 279) A type of infection spread in conjunction with the delivery of health care services is termed ______________________ infection. A. non-specific B. nosocomial C. non-institutional D. non-medical

Focus - Chapter 11 #20

21. (p. 281) To avoid catching another cold, which of the following will be the MOST useful strategy? A. Wash your hands periodically when you are with groups of people. B. Take extra vitamin C and herbal supplements. C. Wear a mask when you go out in public. D. Exercise for thirty minutes daily.

Focus - Chapter 11 #21

22. (p. 281) The portal of entry for influenza is A. the respiratory system. B. the digestive tract. C. breaks in the skin. D. body fluids.

Focus - Chapter 11 #22

23. (p. 281) The most common approach to treating influenza is to A. receive antiviral shots. B. aspirin, fluids, and rest. C. take antibiotics. D. avoid infection.

Focus - Chapter 11 #23

24. (p. 298) Today, Suzanne began experiencing painful urination and the frequent, sudden need to urinate. She probably has A. syphilis. B. gonorrhea. C. a yeast infection. D. a urinary tract infection.

Focus - Chapter 11 #24

25. (p. 283) Tuberculosis is a A. bacterial lung infection that creates a chronic cough and endangers health. B. viral lung infection marked by serious flares, when breathing is extremely difficult. C. rapid and dangerous atrophy of lung tissues that is caused by invasive microorganisms. D. general suppression of the immune system that results in frequent lung infections.

Focus - Chapter 11 #25

26. (p. 283) The mode of transmission for tuberculosis is A. direct transmission. B. vector-based transmission. C. droplet spread. D. fecal-oral transmission.

Focus - Chapter 11 #26

27. (p. 283) Of the following, the greatest current threat from tuberculosis in the United States comes from A. virulent strains. B. poor treatments. C. secondary infections. D. drug-resistant strains.

Focus - Chapter 11 #27

28. (p. 283) Who of the following, when exposed to tuberculosis, is NOT likely to infect others? A. an older adult B. someone infected with HIV C. a malnourished individual D. a healthy individual

Focus - Chapter 11 #28

29. (p. 284) The standard treatment for mononucleosis is A. rest. B. antibiotics. C. physical therapy. D. corticosteroid drugs.

Focus - Chapter 11 #29

30. (p. 284) Fatigue that lasts for weeks and months in the absence of other symptoms is characteristic of A. pneumonia. B. tuberculosis. C. Lyme disease. D. mononucleosis.

Focus - Chapter 11 #30

31. (p. 283) Which of the following is the MOST common form of pneumonia? A. bacterial B. viral C. fungal D. parasitic

Focus - Chapter 11 #31

32. (p. 284) Which of the following is FALSE regarding chronic fatigue syndrome? It is an illness A. that causes severe exhaustion and fatigue. B. most often seen in men in their thirties and forties. C. that causes confusion over its exact nature. D. that causes headaches and an inability to concentrate.

Focus - Chapter 11 #32

33. (p. 285) You have just taken your roommate to the hospital. She came down with what appeared to be flu two days ago, but you suspected meningitis when she complained of A. a severe headache and stiff neck. B. fatigue and lack of appetite. C. body aches and chills. D. nausea.

Focus - Chapter 11 #33

34. (p. 287) Which of the following is not a symptom of the infection caused by West Nile Virus? A. fever. B. headache. C. joint pain. D. jaundice.

Focus - Chapter 11 #34

35. (p. 286) The mode of transmission for Lyme disease is A. vector-based. B. personal contact. C. airborne particles. D. exchange of body fluids.

Focus - Chapter 11 #35

36. (p. 286) Which of the following is the BEST defense against Lyme disease? A. Wash hands thoroughly. B. Avoid sharing of eating utensils. C. Stay away from people who have the disease. D. Check yourself thoroughly for ticks after being outdoors.

Focus - Chapter 11 #36

37. (p. 286) Which phase of Lyme disease may produce disorders of the heart and nervous systems? A. acute phase B. lasting phase C. chronic phase D. recovery phase

Focus - Chapter 11 #37

38. (p. 286) You went hiking in the morning and, in the evening, you find that a deer tick has attached itself to your ankle. You remove it. What should you do now? A. Seek antibiotic therapy at once. B. Send the tick to your doctor for laboratory analysis. C. Wash the bite and wait for the appearance of clinical symptoms. D. Get immunized for Lyme disease within the next three weeks.

Focus - Chapter 11 #38

39. (p. 286) Which of the following is an acute infection of the lungs that progresses rapidly and often kills the victim? A. hepatitis B. Lyme disease C. toxic shock syndrome D. hantavirus pulmonary syndrome

Focus - Chapter 11 #39

40. (p. 286) You are cleaning your garage when you find a place where deer mice have nested. You are aware that they carry hantavirus, so your best option is to A. leave the nest undisturbed. B. soak the nest with disinfectant or bleach before removing and destroying it. C. first probe to see if the mice are gone, then immediately throw the nest away. D. carefully salvage as much of the nest as you can and send it to a state lab for analysis.

Focus - Chapter 11 #40

41. (p. 287) The West Nile virus is transmitted to humans via A. birds. B. mosquitoes. C. deer ticks. D. deer mice.

Focus - Chapter 11 #41

42. (p. 287) In the vagina, toxic shock syndrome occurs when A. bacteria that enter tampons during their manufacture penetrate the body's defenses. B. certain staphylococcal bacteria invade the bloodstream through the vaginal wall. C. super absorbent tampons cause shock by absorbing blood too rapidly. D. sexually transmitted pathogens penetrate the vaginal wall.

Focus - Chapter 11 #42

43. (p. 287) Toxic shock syndrome is most strongly linked to the use of A. super absorbent tampons. B. light duty tampons. C. sanitary napkins. D. all tampons.

Focus - Chapter 11 #43

44. (p. 287) Hepatitis is a viral inflammation of the A. pancreas. B. intestines. C. kidneys. D. liver.

Focus - Chapter 11 #44

45. (p. 288) Hepatitis B and C are spread when the virus is introduced directly into A. the ear. B. body fluids. C. the digestive tract. D. the respiratory system.

Focus - Chapter 11 #45

46. (p. 289) Most HIV infections occur through the exchange of blood, semen, or A. tears. B. saliva. C. sweat. D. vaginal secretions.

Focus - Chapter 11 #46

47. (p. 290) The average incubation period for HIV infections (the time between infection and the appearance of symptoms) is about A. six to twelve months. B. two to six years. C. six to eight years. D. ten to twelve years.

Focus - Chapter 11 #47

48. (p. 279) Many people are concerned that there is a relationship between the development of autism and which childhood immunization? A. DTaP B. Varicella C. MMR D. HepA

Focus - Chapter 11 #48

49. (p. 290) Which of the following BEST summarizes the current state of HIV/AIDS treatment? A. It can be slowed, but not cured. B. There are no effective treatments for HIV/AIDS. C. It can be cured if caught before full-blown AIDS develops. D. Experimental cures have been achieved, but they need to be approved by the FDA.

Focus - Chapter 11 #49

50. (p. 291-292) Which of the following is the MOST effective way to avoid HIV infection? A. Practice safer sex. B. Avoid sexual activity. C. Always use condoms for sex. D. Learn the sexual history of prospective sexual partners.

Focus - Chapter 11 #50

51. (p. 292) Chlamydia is a A. rare infection of the reproductive system transmitted by indirect means. B. pelvic inflammation that usually occurs because of poor hygiene. C. sexually transmitted disease of bacterial origin. D. side effect of a gonorrhea infection.

Focus - Chapter 11 #51

52. (p. 280) Colds are caused by any of five known rhinoviruses. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 11 #52

53. (p. 281) The best way to prevent transmission of colds is to wash your hands. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 11 #53

54. (p. 281) Generally, you have flu and not a cold if you have a headache and high fever. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 11 #54

55. (p. 283) Tuberculosis thrives in crowded places where infected people are in close proximity. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 11 #55

56. (p. 283) Pneumonia will not develop if other infections are already present in the body. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 11 #56

57. (p. 284) Mononucleosis is a viral infection in which the body produces an excess amount of white blood cells. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 11 #57

58. (p. 284) A vaccine for mononucleosis is needed to prevent a repeat infection. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 11 #58

59. (p. 284) The precise nature of chronic fatigue syndrome is unknown. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 11 #59

60. (p. 285) There is a vaccine now available for meningitis. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 11 #60

61. (p. 286) The characteristic rash associated with Lyme disease is always present with other symptoms. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 11 #61

62. (p. 286) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome is a viral infection that spreads when humans inhale dust contaminated with dried virus-rich rodent urine- or saliva-contaminated materials, such as from nests. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 11 #62

63. (p. 287) West Nile virus infection involves flu-like symptoms including fever and fatigue. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 11 #63

64. (p. 287) Hepatitis is a viral infection of the liver. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 11 #64

65. (p. 289) An HIV-infected person is considered to have AIDS when the T-helper cell count drops below a certain point. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 11 #65

66. (p. 289) It is relatively easy to become infected with HIV. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 11 #66

67. (p. 289) Women are at a much greater risk than men of contracting HIV through heterosexual contact. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 11 #67

68. (p. 290-291) Although there is currently no cure for AIDS, researchers have slowed the progress of the disease in many people. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 11 #68

69. (p. 292) In the United States, the incidence of the STD chlamydia is second only to that of gonorrhea. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 11 #69

70. (p. 293) Like many sexually transmitted diseases, genital warts are a greater risk for those who have multiple sexual partners. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 11 #70

71. (p. 295-296) If left untreated, genital herpes can spread throughout the urinary tract and cause kidney damage. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 11 #71

72. (p. 295-296) Several ointments are now available that can clear up herpes infections. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 11 #72

73. (p. 297) Despite the popularity of over-the-counter remedies, vaginal yeast infections only respond to powerful prescription drugs. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 11 #73

74. (p. 279-280) Nosocomial infections are spread exclusively through sexual contact. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 11 #74

75. (p. 272-274) Describe the major links in the chain of infection, and explain the role of each. The agent, or pathogen, is the first link in the chain. The next is the reservoir, where the pathogen resides. This can be in the body of an infected person or animal, in a carrier, or elsewhere in the environment. The portal of exit is the means by which the pathogen leaves the reservoir. The mode of transmission is the means by which the pathogen is spread directly or indirectly to a new host by means of a portal of entry into that host. In people, this is often the respiratory or digestive system. The portal of entry is the fifth link and refers to the means in which a pathogenic agent enters and uninfected person. In the sixth link of this chain, the virus enters a new host.

Focus - Chapter 11 #75

76. (p. 274-275) Describe the five stages of infection. 1) The incubation stage lasts from the time a pathogen enters the body until it multiplies enough to produce symptoms. The duration can last from a few hours to many months, depending on a number of variables. The pathogen can be transmitted, but it is not likely, with the exception of HIV infection. 2) The prodromal stage occurs when the host begins to experience symptoms. The pathogen continues to multiply and is capable of being transmitted to a new host. 3) The clinical stage is the most unpleasant stage for the host. At this time, the disease reaches its highest point of development and can be identified through laboratory testing. The likelihood of transmission of the disease is highest during this stage. 4) The decline stage occurs when the first signs of recovery appear as the infection is ending. Individuals may suffer a relapse if they overextend themselves. 5) The recovery stage is characterized by an apparent recovery from the invading agent. The body has built up immunity, so further susceptibility to the pathogen is typically low.

Focus - Chapter 11 #76

77. (p. 289) Describe how the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is spread. HIV is only spread through methods that get it into the bloodstream of the victim, such as blood transfusions, the sharing of hypodermic needles, perinatal transmission, and oral, anal, or genital sexual contact. When the virus is transmitted sexually, it enters the bloodstream through tears in body tissues. HIV typically cannot be spread by contact with the sweat, tears, or saliva of an infected person.

Focus - Chapter 11 #77

78. (p. 289-290) Explain the relationship and the distinction between HIV infection and AIDS. HIV infection leads to AIDS, but AIDS does not occur immediately. After infection by HIV occurs, there is a lengthy incubation period that typically lasts for years, during which the person has no symptoms. Eventually in most infected people, HIV begins to weaken the immune system and symptoms such as fever, fatigue, and diarrhea appear. Still there may be no diagnosis of AIDS. These problems progress to more life-threatening conditions, some of which are considered indicators of an active case of AIDS. At present, AIDS is diagnosed when the helper T-cell count falls below 200 per cubic millimeter of blood.

Focus - Chapter 11 #78

79. (p. 292) Describe how you can reduce your risk of contracting HIV and sexually transmitted infections. You can reduce your risk by practicing sexual abstinence, not having multiple partners, or by maintaining long-term monogamous relationships. If you engage in sexual activity, you can reduce your risk by learning the sexual history and any health conditions that your partner has, using condoms and spermicides correctly, and avoiding all contact with bodily fluids. Refrain from having sex with known injectable drug users or those infected with an STD, and do not engage in unprotected anal intercourse. Lastly, curtail the use of drugs that will impair good judgment.

Focus - Chapter 11 #79

Chap 11 Summary Category

# of Questions

Focus - Chapter 11

79

Chap 12 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. When did you become genetically male or female? A. at the moment of conception B. during the embryonic stage C. during the second trimester of development D. during the third trimester of development

2. For many young boys, fully mature sperm do not develop until age ______. A. 13 B. 17 C. 14 D. 15

3. In girls, the onset of menstruation is called A. menses. B. primensis. C. menarche. D. menopause.

4. Why is it unusual for a typical woman in her fifties to become pregnant? A. Most women observe a decline in reproductive hormone production. B. Their husbands are often infertile by that age. C. Many couples no longer have regular sexual intercourse after age 50. D. Most American couples have undergone voluntary sterilization by that age.

5. One's initial gender identity is based upon A. a preference for one gender role over another. B. a recognition of one's biological gender. C. gender role instruction from parents. D. biological messages.

6. Which of the following hormones is responsible for the production of the ova and the sperm? A. estrogen. B. luteinizing hormone (LH). C. interstitial cell-stimulating hormone (ICSH). D. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).

7. The process of acquiring and personalizing a mature gender image is called A. gender surveying. B. gender adoption. C. gender identity. D. genderization.

8. The achievement of a personally satisfying interpretation of one's masculinity or femininity is termed A. gender preference. B. gender adoption. C. gender identification. D. gender qualification.

9. Which of the following does NOT have an effect on the length of a woman's menstrual cycle? A. unresolved stress B. illnesses C. major life changes D. age of first sexual encounter

10. Why do the male gonads hang in a sac outside the body cavity? A. There is no room for them in the body cavity. B. The body cavity is too warm for proper sperm development. C. This is the most efficient way for sperm to be ejaculated. D. This promotes a clear separation between the sexual and excretory functions of the penis.

11. The function of ICSH (interstitial cell-stimulating hormone) is to A. control sexual responsiveness. B. control physical growth during puberty. C. trigger the onset of menarche in females. D. begin the process of sperm development in males.

12. Which of the following serves primarily to lubricate the urethra with a clear, viscous mucus? A. Cowper's glands B. seminal vesicles C. prostate gland D. epididymis

13. Sperm make up about ____________ percent of the volume of semen. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

14. The female analog to the male penis is the A. uterus. B. clitoris. C. vagina. D. mons pubis.

15. The female's vagina is sensitive to sexual stimulation for about the first ____________ of its length. A. one-tenth B. one-quarter C. one-third D. one-half

16. The endometrium is the A. layer of tissue that surrounds the uterus. B. innermost surface of the vagina. C. gland that lubricates the vagina. D. inner lining of the uterus.

17. In addition to producing eggs, the ovaries also produce A. female sex hormones. B. antibacterial substances. C. nutrients for the endometrium. D. lubricant during sexual stimulation.

18. Conception usually occurs in the A. ovary. B. uterus. C. vagina. D. fallopian tube.

19. The breakdown of a woman's endometrial wall and resultant discharge of blood is known as A. menses. B. menarche. C. oogenesis. D. metriosis.

20. Endometriosis is A. an infection of the endometrium. B. a failure of the endometrium to detach during menstruation. C. an abnormal development of endometrial tissue outside the uterus. D. inflammation of the vaginal canal by endometrial tissue.

21. The portion of the menstrual cycle during which the uterine lining is being sloughed off is called the ____________ phase. A. hormonal B. menstrual C. preovulation D. postovulation

22. The event called ovulation occurs when a A. luteinizing hormone begins to act on a primary egg follicle. B. mature ovum is released into the fallopian tube. C. mature ovum reaches the uterus. D. sperm fertilizes an ovum.

23. The best time in the menstrual cycle for Tom and Mary to try to conceive is at the A. end of the menstrual phase. B. end of the preovulation phase. C. beginning of the menstrual cycle. D. beginning of the preovulation phase.

24. The postovulation phase of the menstrual cycle is characterized by A. ovulation. B. development of the corpus luteum. C. the end of endometrial development. D. the beginning of the disintegration of the endometrium.

25. The most likely cause of premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is A. environmental and psychological factors. B. structural problems within the uterus. C. changes in hormonal levels. D. low blood sugar.

26. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of premenstrual syndrome? A. tender breasts B. headaches C. fatigue D. weight loss

27. Fibrocystic breast condition, in which breast tissue becomes firm and sore, is caused by A. hormone-stimulated secretions that accumulate in the connective tissue of the breasts. B. precancerous lesions in the fatty tissue of the breast. C. hormone-induced restrictions to blood circulation. D. mild infections of the mammary glands.

28. Which of the following is FALSE regarding menopause? It A. is a normal physiological process, not a disease. B. is a gradual decrease in reproductive system function. C. usually has no unpleasant side effects. D. usually occurs when women reach late forties through mid fifties.

29. Hot flashes during menopause are caused by A. contraction of the vaginal wall. B. blood vessel dilation. C. vaginal dryness. D. ovulation.

30. Abdominal pain caused by muscular cramping during the menstrual cycle is called A. amenorrhea. B. dysmenorrhea. C. premenstrual dysphoric disorder. D. endometriosis.

31. Masters and Johnson used the following terms to describe the stages of the typical sexual response pattern in humans as A. arousal, orgasmic, decline. B. excitement, plateau, orgasmic, resolution. C. responsiveness, climax, orgasmic, nonresponsiveness. D. nonspecific stimulation, stimulation, orgasmic, nonspecific decline.

32. Which of the following descriptions of sexual responsiveness is MOST accurate? Most A. men require visual stimuli. B. women require stimulation by touching. C. people need to follow a behavioral script. D. people can be aroused by a variety of stimuli.

33. Olivia is sexually stimulated by soft caresses and fragrant scents. Her partner needs the visual stimulation of explicit sexual images. Masters and Johnson would conclude that A. the couple's behavior is normal. B. neither will achieve optimal arousal. C. this couple is sexually incompatible. D. this is unusual, but not a major problem.

34. In men, the refractory phase is the A. period of time between initial stimulation and the beginning of physical arousal. B. time required for sexual organs to resume their normal size and position. C. period following orgasm during which arousal cannot occur again. D. moment at which orgasm becomes inevitable.

35. The stage of the human sexual response pattern in which the body returns to a pre-excitement state is known as the ________________ stage. A. orgasmic B. plateau C. recovery D. resolution

36. Which of the following BEST summarizes the comparison between the sexual response patterns of men and women? A. There are more similarities than differences between men's and women's responses. B. Men and women respond sexually in fundamentally different ways. C. Women are more responsive than men. D. Men are more responsive than women.

37. Vasocongestion is the A. retention of blood or fluid within a particular tissue. B. abnormal retention of fluid leading to painful intercourse. C. rise in blood pressure that accompanies the sexual response. D. slowing of circulation that occurs in connection with the sexual response.

38. The buildup of neuromuscular tension that leads to orgasm is called A. vasocongestion. B. excitement. C. myotonia. D. erection.

39. The most commonly accepted view about the cause of homosexuality is that it is A. genetic. B. behavioral. C. environmental. D. still not known.

40. The proportion of homosexuals in the American population is estimated to be one in A. ten. B. fifteen. C. twenty. D. twenty-five.

41. Which of the following is FALSE regarding bisexuals? They may A. be genuinely attracted to both genders. B. be gay, but feel the need to behave heterosexually. C. reject their biological sexuality. D. be aroused physically by the same gender, but attracted emotionally to the opposite gender.

42. The recognition of oneself as a male or female is referred to as gender A. concept. B. identity. C. recognition. D. pattern.

43. The self-imposed avoidance of all sexual intercourse is called A. celibacy. B. infertility. C. impotence. D. insufficiency.

44. What is the current position of researchers on masturbation? It A. usually has its roots in psychological discomfort with one's sexuality. B. makes people more vulnerable to sexual dysfunctions. C. is a necessary part of sexual expression. D. is normal and not harmful.

45. Which of the following is TRUE of oral-genital stimulation? It A. has not been studied by researchers in human sexuality. B. usually indicates an abusive relationship. C. carries a risk of disease transmission. D. is not a common sexual practice.

46. Cassandra and Ashton are college students who are choosing to refrain from sexual intercourse. What percentage of college students represents the population that is refraining from intercourse? A. 5-12 percent B. 10-22 percent C. 25-40 percent D. 38-50 percent

47. Which of the following is FALSE regarding anal intercourse? A. There is a greater danger of transmitting HIV during anal intercourse than during penis-vaginal intercourse. B. The condom is more likely to tear during penis-vaginal intercourse than anal intercourse. C. Anal intercourse can be performed by both heterosexual couples and gay men. D. Even with a condom, disease transmission is possible during anal intercourse.

48. Which of the following BEST describes findings about the effect of aging on sexual enjoyment? A. Enjoyment does not change with age. B. Most elderly people find sexuality distasteful. C. Most elderly people are physically unable to have intercourse. D. Sexual responsiveness diminishes 70-80 percent in your seventies.

49. The BEST description of intimacy is A. telling one's closest secrets to another. B. any expression of sexuality with another. C. any close mutual behavior within a relationship. D. sharing a life-changing experience with another.

50. Endometriosis is a condition in which endometrial tissue fails to be discharged from the uterus during menstruation. True False

51. Women are encouraged to cease normal activity during their menstrual cycle. True False

52. There is no known medical cause for PMS. True False

53. Menopause marks the end of ova production and menstruation. True False

54. Hot flashes are caused by changing estrogen levels. True False

55. Many physicians agree that menopause is a treatable disease. True False

56. The sexual response patterns of men and women are very similar. True False

57. Women do not progress through the same sexual response pattern as men. True False

58. Most women are capable of multiple orgasms, but few men are. True False

59. Vasocongestion is a withholding of oxygen to certain tissues. True False

60. Legalizing same-sex marriage would give gay couples access to hospital visitation rights, family leave, and other privileges currently inaccessible. True False

61. Genetic studies show that all homosexuals are born with their sexual preference. True False

62. Current estimates place the proportion of homosexuals in the U.S. population at about 10 percent. True False

63. Sexual abstinence and celibacy are considered synonyms. True False

64. In women, erotic dreams can lead to orgasm. True False

65. Genital foreplay serves no useful purpose. True False

66. Oral-genital sex can result in an exchange of sexually transmitted diseases. True False

67. Research on the frequency of sexual intercourse among college students indicates that most have engaged in sexual intercourse. True False

68. When having a heated discussion with your partner, it is always helpful to bring up situations from the past to make your point. True False

69. Sexual enjoyment diminishes with age. True False

70. Passionate love is also called infatuation. True False

71. The average age of first marriage in the United States is decreasing. True False

72. Over three-quarters of adults in the United States have been married. True False

73. Homosexual partnerships have many of the same characteristics and problems as heterosexual partnerships. True False

74. Most states recognize same-sex marriages formed in different jurisdictions. True False

75. Most experts believe that divorce is largely a product of unfulfilled expectations. True False

76. According to the U.S. Census Bureau, the number of unmarried, opposite-gender couples living together totals over 5.6 million couples. True False

77. Approximately one-half of cohabitation arrangements dissolve. True False

78. Explain what it means to acquire a gender preference.

79. List the accessory glands of the male reproductive system, and briefly describe their functions.

80. Briefly describe the three phases of the menstrual cycle, including their approximate duration.

81. Discuss both the advantages and the disadvantages of using hormone replacement therapy.

82. Explain the differences between the sexual responses of men and women.

83. Describe how aging affects both men's and women's sexuality.

84. Summarize the ways in which a couple can successfully communicate with one another and also manage conflict.

85. Briefly summarize what marital experts believe regarding the high percentage of divorces.

Chap 12 Key

1. (p. 303) When did you become genetically male or female? A. at the moment of conception B. during the embryonic stage C. during the second trimester of development D. during the third trimester of development

Focus - Chapter 12 #1

2. (p. 303) For many young boys, fully mature sperm do not develop until age ______. A. 13 B. 17 C. 14 D. 15

Focus - Chapter 12 #2

3. (p. 303) In girls, the onset of menstruation is called A. menses. B. primensis. C. menarche. D. menopause.

Focus - Chapter 12 #3

4. (p. 303, 308) Why is it unusual for a typical woman in her fifties to become pregnant? A. Most women observe a decline in reproductive hormone production. B. Their husbands are often infertile by that age. C. Many couples no longer have regular sexual intercourse after age 50. D. Most American couples have undergone voluntary sterilization by that age.

Focus - Chapter 12 #4

5. (p. 304) One's initial gender identity is based upon A. a preference for one gender role over another. B. a recognition of one's biological gender. C. gender role instruction from parents. D. biological messages.

Focus - Chapter 12 #5

6. (p. 305, 310) Which of the following hormones is responsible for the production of the ova and the sperm? A. estrogen. B. luteinizing hormone (LH). C. interstitial cell-stimulating hormone (ICSH). D. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).

Focus - Chapter 12 #6

7. (p. 304) The process of acquiring and personalizing a mature gender image is called A. gender surveying. B. gender adoption. C. gender identity. D. genderization.

Focus - Chapter 12 #7

8. (p. 304-305) The achievement of a personally satisfying interpretation of one's masculinity or femininity is termed A. gender preference. B. gender adoption. C. gender identification. D. gender qualification.

Focus - Chapter 12 #8

9. (p. 309) Which of the following does NOT have an effect on the length of a woman's menstrual cycle? A. unresolved stress B. illnesses C. major life changes D. age of first sexual encounter

Focus - Chapter 12 #9

10. (p. 305) Why do the male gonads hang in a sac outside the body cavity? A. There is no room for them in the body cavity. B. The body cavity is too warm for proper sperm development. C. This is the most efficient way for sperm to be ejaculated. D. This promotes a clear separation between the sexual and excretory functions of the penis.

Focus - Chapter 12 #10

11. (p. 305) The function of ICSH (interstitial cell-stimulating hormone) is to A. control sexual responsiveness. B. control physical growth during puberty. C. trigger the onset of menarche in females. D. begin the process of sperm development in males.

Focus - Chapter 12 #11

12. (p. 306) Which of the following serves primarily to lubricate the urethra with a clear, viscous mucus? A. Cowper's glands B. seminal vesicles C. prostate gland D. epididymis

Focus - Chapter 12 #12

13. (p. 306) Sperm make up about ____________ percent of the volume of semen. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

Focus - Chapter 12 #13

14. (p. 307) The female analog to the male penis is the A. uterus. B. clitoris. C. vagina. D. mons pubis.

Focus - Chapter 12 #14

15. (p. 308) The female's vagina is sensitive to sexual stimulation for about the first ____________ of its length. A. one-tenth B. one-quarter C. one-third D. one-half

Focus - Chapter 12 #15

16. (p. 308) The endometrium is the A. layer of tissue that surrounds the uterus. B. innermost surface of the vagina. C. gland that lubricates the vagina. D. inner lining of the uterus.

Focus - Chapter 12 #16

17. (p. 308) In addition to producing eggs, the ovaries also produce A. female sex hormones. B. antibacterial substances. C. nutrients for the endometrium. D. lubricant during sexual stimulation.

Focus - Chapter 12 #17

18. (p. 308) Conception usually occurs in the A. ovary. B. uterus. C. vagina. D. fallopian tube.

Focus - Chapter 12 #18

19. (p. 308) The breakdown of a woman's endometrial wall and resultant discharge of blood is known as A. menses. B. menarche. C. oogenesis. D. metriosis.

Focus - Chapter 12 #19

20. (p. 309) Endometriosis is A. an infection of the endometrium. B. a failure of the endometrium to detach during menstruation. C. an abnormal development of endometrial tissue outside the uterus. D. inflammation of the vaginal canal by endometrial tissue.

Focus - Chapter 12 #20

21. (p. 309) The portion of the menstrual cycle during which the uterine lining is being sloughed off is called the ____________ phase. A. hormonal B. menstrual C. preovulation D. postovulation

Focus - Chapter 12 #21

22. (p. 310) The event called ovulation occurs when a A. luteinizing hormone begins to act on a primary egg follicle. B. mature ovum is released into the fallopian tube. C. mature ovum reaches the uterus. D. sperm fertilizes an ovum.

Focus - Chapter 12 #22

23. (p. 310) The best time in the menstrual cycle for Tom and Mary to try to conceive is at the A. end of the menstrual phase. B. end of the preovulation phase. C. beginning of the menstrual cycle. D. beginning of the preovulation phase.

Focus - Chapter 12 #23

24. (p. 310) The postovulation phase of the menstrual cycle is characterized by A. ovulation. B. development of the corpus luteum. C. the end of endometrial development. D. the beginning of the disintegration of the endometrium.

Focus - Chapter 12 #24

25. (p. 310) The most likely cause of premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is A. environmental and psychological factors. B. structural problems within the uterus. C. changes in hormonal levels. D. low blood sugar.

Focus - Chapter 12 #25

26. (p. 310) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of premenstrual syndrome? A. tender breasts B. headaches C. fatigue D. weight loss

Focus - Chapter 12 #26

27. (p. 311) Fibrocystic breast condition, in which breast tissue becomes firm and sore, is caused by A. hormone-stimulated secretions that accumulate in the connective tissue of the breasts. B. precancerous lesions in the fatty tissue of the breast. C. hormone-induced restrictions to blood circulation. D. mild infections of the mammary glands.

Focus - Chapter 12 #27

28. (p. 311) Which of the following is FALSE regarding menopause? It A. is a normal physiological process, not a disease. B. is a gradual decrease in reproductive system function. C. usually has no unpleasant side effects. D. usually occurs when women reach late forties through mid fifties.

Focus - Chapter 12 #28

29. (p. 311) Hot flashes during menopause are caused by A. contraction of the vaginal wall. B. blood vessel dilation. C. vaginal dryness. D. ovulation.

Focus - Chapter 12 #29

30. (p. 311) Abdominal pain caused by muscular cramping during the menstrual cycle is called A. amenorrhea. B. dysmenorrhea. C. premenstrual dysphoric disorder. D. endometriosis.

Focus - Chapter 12 #30

31. (p. 312) Masters and Johnson used the following terms to describe the stages of the typical sexual response pattern in humans as A. arousal, orgasmic, decline. B. excitement, plateau, orgasmic, resolution. C. responsiveness, climax, orgasmic, nonresponsiveness. D. nonspecific stimulation, stimulation, orgasmic, nonspecific decline.

Focus - Chapter 12 #31

32. (p. 312) Which of the following descriptions of sexual responsiveness is MOST accurate? Most A. men require visual stimuli. B. women require stimulation by touching. C. people need to follow a behavioral script. D. people can be aroused by a variety of stimuli.

Focus - Chapter 12 #32

33. (p. 312) Olivia is sexually stimulated by soft caresses and fragrant scents. Her partner needs the visual stimulation of explicit sexual images. Masters and Johnson would conclude that A. the couple's behavior is normal. B. neither will achieve optimal arousal. C. this couple is sexually incompatible. D. this is unusual, but not a major problem.

Focus - Chapter 12 #33

34. (p. 312) In men, the refractory phase is the A. period of time between initial stimulation and the beginning of physical arousal. B. time required for sexual organs to resume their normal size and position. C. period following orgasm during which arousal cannot occur again. D. moment at which orgasm becomes inevitable.

Focus - Chapter 12 #34

35. (p. 312) The stage of the human sexual response pattern in which the body returns to a pre-excitement state is known as the ________________ stage. A. orgasmic B. plateau C. recovery D. resolution

Focus - Chapter 12 #35

36. (p. 312) Which of the following BEST summarizes the comparison between the sexual response patterns of men and women? A. There are more similarities than differences between men's and women's responses. B. Men and women respond sexually in fundamentally different ways. C. Women are more responsive than men. D. Men are more responsive than women.

Focus - Chapter 12 #36

37. (p. 312) Vasocongestion is the A. retention of blood or fluid within a particular tissue. B. abnormal retention of fluid leading to painful intercourse. C. rise in blood pressure that accompanies the sexual response. D. slowing of circulation that occurs in connection with the sexual response.

Focus - Chapter 12 #37

38. (p. 313) The buildup of neuromuscular tension that leads to orgasm is called A. vasocongestion. B. excitement. C. myotonia. D. erection.

Focus - Chapter 12 #38

39. (p. 318) The most commonly accepted view about the cause of homosexuality is that it is A. genetic. B. behavioral. C. environmental. D. still not known.

Focus - Chapter 12 #39

40. (p. 318) The proportion of homosexuals in the American population is estimated to be one in A. ten. B. fifteen. C. twenty. D. twenty-five.

Focus - Chapter 12 #40

41. (p. 318) Which of the following is FALSE regarding bisexuals? They may A. be genuinely attracted to both genders. B. be gay, but feel the need to behave heterosexually. C. reject their biological sexuality. D. be aroused physically by the same gender, but attracted emotionally to the opposite gender.

Focus - Chapter 12 #41

42. (p. 304) The recognition of oneself as a male or female is referred to as gender A. concept. B. identity. C. recognition. D. pattern.

Focus - Chapter 12 #42

43. (p. 314) The self-imposed avoidance of all sexual intercourse is called A. celibacy. B. infertility. C. impotence. D. insufficiency.

Focus - Chapter 12 #43

44. (p. 315) What is the current position of researchers on masturbation? It A. usually has its roots in psychological discomfort with one's sexuality. B. makes people more vulnerable to sexual dysfunctions. C. is a necessary part of sexual expression. D. is normal and not harmful.

Focus - Chapter 12 #44

45. (p. 316) Which of the following is TRUE of oral-genital stimulation? It A. has not been studied by researchers in human sexuality. B. usually indicates an abusive relationship. C. carries a risk of disease transmission. D. is not a common sexual practice.

Focus - Chapter 12 #45

46. (p. 317) Cassandra and Ashton are college students who are choosing to refrain from sexual intercourse. What percentage of college students represents the population that is refraining from intercourse? A. 5-12 percent B. 10-22 percent C. 25-40 percent D. 38-50 percent

Focus - Chapter 12 #46

47. (p. 317) Which of the following is FALSE regarding anal intercourse? A. There is a greater danger of transmitting HIV during anal intercourse than during penis-vaginal intercourse. B. The condom is more likely to tear during penis-vaginal intercourse than anal intercourse. C. Anal intercourse can be performed by both heterosexual couples and gay men. D. Even with a condom, disease transmission is possible during anal intercourse.

Focus - Chapter 12 #47

48. (p. 317) Which of the following BEST describes findings about the effect of aging on sexual enjoyment? A. Enjoyment does not change with age. B. Most elderly people find sexuality distasteful. C. Most elderly people are physically unable to have intercourse. D. Sexual responsiveness diminishes 70-80 percent in your seventies.

Focus - Chapter 12 #48

49. (p. 319) The BEST description of intimacy is A. telling one's closest secrets to another. B. any expression of sexuality with another. C. any close mutual behavior within a relationship. D. sharing a life-changing experience with another.

Focus - Chapter 12 #49

50. (p. 309) Endometriosis is a condition in which endometrial tissue fails to be discharged from the uterus during menstruation. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 12 #50

51. (p. 310) Women are encouraged to cease normal activity during their menstrual cycle. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 12 #51

52. (p. 310) There is no known medical cause for PMS. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 12 #52

53. (p. 311) Menopause marks the end of ova production and menstruation. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 12 #53

54. (p. 311) Hot flashes are caused by changing estrogen levels. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 12 #54

55. (p. 311) Many physicians agree that menopause is a treatable disease. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 12 #55

56. (p. 312) The sexual response patterns of men and women are very similar. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 12 #56

57. (p. 312) Women do not progress through the same sexual response pattern as men. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 12 #57

58. (p. 312) Most women are capable of multiple orgasms, but few men are. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 12 #58

59. (p. 312) Vasocongestion is a withholding of oxygen to certain tissues. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 12 #59

60. (p. 323) Legalizing same-sex marriage would give gay couples access to hospital visitation rights, family leave, and other privileges currently inaccessible. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 12 #60

61. (p. 318) Genetic studies show that all homosexuals are born with their sexual preference. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 12 #61

62. (p. 318) Current estimates place the proportion of homosexuals in the U.S. population at about 10 percent. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 12 #62

63. (p. 314) Sexual abstinence and celibacy are considered synonyms. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 12 #63

64. (p. 315) In women, erotic dreams can lead to orgasm. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 12 #64

65. (p. 315-316) Genital foreplay serves no useful purpose. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 12 #65

66. (p. 316) Oral-genital sex can result in an exchange of sexually transmitted diseases. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 12 #66

67. (p. 317) Research on the frequency of sexual intercourse among college students indicates that most have engaged in sexual intercourse. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 12 #67

68. (p. 324) When having a heated discussion with your partner, it is always helpful to bring up situations from the past to make your point. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 12 #68

69. (p. 317) Sexual enjoyment diminishes with age. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 12 #69

70. (p. 319) Passionate love is also called infatuation. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 12 #70

71. (p. 324) The average age of first marriage in the United States is decreasing. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 12 #71

72. (p. 324) Over three-quarters of adults in the United States have been married. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 12 #72

73. (p. 322) Homosexual partnerships have many of the same characteristics and problems as heterosexual partnerships. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 12 #73

74. (p. 323) Most states recognize same-sex marriages formed in different jurisdictions. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 12 #74

75. (p. 325) Most experts believe that divorce is largely a product of unfulfilled expectations. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 12 #75

76. (p. 322) According to the U.S. Census Bureau, the number of unmarried, opposite-gender couples living together totals over 5.6 million couples. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 12 #76

77. (p. 322) Approximately one-half of cohabitation arrangements dissolve. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 12 #77

78. (p. 304) Explain what it means to acquire a gender preference. Gender preference refers to the emotional and intellectual acceptance of one's birth gender. It typically takes place during the preschool years, when nearly every boy prefers being a boy, and nearly every girl prefers being a girl.

Focus - Chapter 12 #78

79. (p. 306) List the accessory glands of the male reproductive system, and briefly describe their functions. Seminal vesicles manufacture fluid that nourishes sperm cells and provides a medium for their transport. The prostate gland secretes a mixture of substances that nourishes sperm cells and makes the semen alkaline to resist the acidic environment of the vagina. The Cowper's gland secretes a substance that lubricates the urethra prior to ejaculation.

Focus - Chapter 12 #79

80. (p. 309-310) Briefly describe the three phases of the menstrual cycle, including their approximate duration. 1) Menstrual phase: five to seven days--the endometrial lining of the uterus is gradually sloughed off. 2) Preovulation phase: about seven days--the release of FSH begins the process of maturing ovarian follicles. As the follicles develop, they release estrogen, which begins the process of building a new endometrial layer in the uterus. This phase culminates in ovulation. 3) Postovulation phase: the corpus luteum continues to secrete hormones to support the endometrium. If there is no fertilization, the corpus luteum disintegrates, and the uterus prepares to discharge the endometrium.

Focus - Chapter 12 #80

81. (p. 311) Discuss both the advantages and the disadvantages of using hormone replacement therapy. Hormone replacement therapy is useful in treating the symptoms of menopause and also helps to reduce the likelihood of developing osteoporosis. Recently it has been found that HRT increases the risk of both breast cancer and cardiovascular problems.

Focus - Chapter 12 #81

82. (p. 312) Explain the differences between the sexual responses of men and women. Men experience a refractory period after orgasm, while women tend to be capable of multiple orgasms; men typically achieve orgasm during sexual intercourse far more quickly than women do; men nearly always achieve orgasm during intercourse, while a significant percentage of women do not.

Focus - Chapter 12 #82

83. (p. 317-318) Describe how aging affects both men's and women's sexuality. Aging generally does not diminish the capacity for sexual excitement, but other factors among older people, including physical health problems and a feeling of unattractiveness, tend to lead to lower interest in sexual intercourse. Postmenopausal women experience less rapid vaginal lubrication, but other sensitivities remain nearly the same. Older men take longer to achieve erection and orgasm.

Focus - Chapter 12 #83

84. (p. 324) Summarize the ways in which a couple can successfully communicate with one another and also manage conflict. 1) Show mutual respect. Remain calm. 2) Identify and resolve the real issue. 3) Be a good listener. 4) Seek areas of agreement. 5) Do not interrupt. 6) Mutually participate in decision making. 7) Be cooperative and specific. 8) Focus on the present and future-not the past. 8) Don't try to assign blame. 9) Say what you are thinking and feeling. 10) When talking, use sentences that begin with "I." 11) Avoid using sentences that start with "You" or "Why." 12) Set a time limit for discussing problems. 13) Accept responsibility. 14) Do something fun together.

Focus - Chapter 12 #84

85. (p. 325) Briefly summarize what marital experts believe regarding the high percentage of divorces. Although marriage experts cannot provide one clear answer to the question of why half of the marriages end in divorce, they do suggest that divorce is a reflection of unfulfilled expectations by one or both partners. Some of those expectations include: 1) the belief that marriage will ease the need to deal with their own faults and that their failures can be shared with their partner; 2) the belief that marriage will change faults that they know exist in their partner; 3) the belief that the high level of romance experienced during courtship will continued through marriage; 4) the belief that marriage can provide them with an area for the development of personal power; and 5) the belief that their marital partner will be successful in meeting all their needs.

Focus - Chapter 12 #85

Chap 12 Summary Category

# of Questions

Focus - Chapter 12

85

Chap 13 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. Which of the following methods is NOT considered contraception? A. abortion B. condoms C. diaphragms D. birth control pills

2. Which of the following BEST describes the use effectiveness of a contraceptive? A. the projected success rate when used precisely as directed B. the success rate from clinical trial use of the product C. the failure rate when used precisely as directed D. the success rate based on actual use by the general public

3. The effectiveness of a contraceptive for women of childbearing age is commonly expressed as A. the percentage that does not become pregnant while using the method for one year. B. the percentage risk of failure based on product testing by the manufacturer. C. the number of failures per 1,000 uses based on user surveys. D. educated guesses by the sellers of the contraceptive.

4. A contraceptive practice in which the penis is removed from the vagina before ejaculation is known as coitus A. interfereus. B. interruptus. C. interposeus. D. intromitus.

5. The human sperm is viable in the female reproductive tract for as long as A. fifteen to twenty hours. B. twenty-four to thirty-six hours. C. two to three days. D. one week.

6. The calendar method, cervical mucus method, and basal body temperature method all attempt to determine A. time of ovulation. B. success of a contraceptive. C. whether a woman is pregnant. D. whether spermatozoa have reached the egg.

7. Cindy and her husband are trying to have a baby. Based on the calendar method of birth control, when is the BEST time (approximately) for them to have intercourse in order to conceive? A. one week after the beginning of menstruation B. two weeks after the beginning of menstruation C. three weeks after the beginning of menstruation D. four weeks after the beginning of menstruation

8. Faye is using the calendar method of contraception. If her menstrual cycle is always 27 days, when should she abstain from intercourse to avoid becoming pregnant? A. day 1 through day 14 B. day 6 through day 14 C. day 9 through day 16 D. day 14 through day 18

9. In the temperature method of contraception, the woman should abstain from intercourse A. as soon as her temperature falls. B. as soon as her temperature increases. C. after her temperature falls, then rises. D. after her temperature rises one degree, then falls.

10. Spermicides are MOST effective when used A. with oral contraceptives. B. one hour after intercourse. C. with a barrier contraceptive. D. immediately after intercourse.

11. What do condoms with spermicides have in common with total abstinence? A. They are more popular worldwide than any other contraceptive methods. B. They are among the least popular methods of birth control. C. Both offer protection against sexually transmitted diseases. D. In use, both are 100 percent effective.

12. Which of the following is FALSE regarding nonoxynol-9? A. Nonoxynol-9 decreases the likelihood of disease transmission. B. Nonoxynol-9 may cause skin irritations in some individuals. C. Nonoxynol-9 may cause skin abrasions in some individuals. D. Some health centers have stopped distributing condoms with nonoxynol-9.

13. How do diaphragms and the FemCap work? They A. cover the cervical opening and keep semen out of the uterus. B. expel semen from the vagina. C. kill spermatozoa that enter the cervix. D. prevent fertilized eggs from implanting in the uterus.

14. Which of the following is recommended for condom users? A. Protect condoms from extreme temperatures. B. Slightly inflate the condom before use to check for pinholes. C. Maintain an air space at the tip of the condom when putting it on. D. If lubrication is needed, use only petroleum jelly in small quantities.

15. The world's MOST popular reversible contraceptive device is the A. condom. B. diaphragm. C. intrauterine device. D. oral contraceptive pill.

16. A very rare side effect of IUD use is A. pelvic inflammatory disease. B. cervical caner. C. heart disease. D. stroke.

17. All of the following statements are TRUE regarding teens who have "pledged virginity until marriage" EXCEPT A. they are just as likely to have sex as non-pledgers. B. they are less likely to use contraceptives than non-pledgers. C. they have similar rates of oral sex as non-pledgers. D. the vast majority are able to abstain from intercourse until marriage.

18. Research indicates that oral contraceptive use may provide protection against all of the following EXCEPT A. pelvic inflammatory disease. B. breast cancer. C. ovarian cancer. D. anemia

19. Sarah has been using the oral contraceptive "Seasonale," which is designed to prevent her from A. having any menstrual cycles. B. having a menstrual cycle every month. C. transmitting or acquiring any sexually transmitted disease. D. having menstruation side effects.

20. Current attempts to create a male contraceptive drug are focusing on A. killing sperm. B. stopping the production of sperm. C. making sperm incapable of fertilization. D. "locking" the sperm release mechanism.

21. All of the following are potentially dangerous side effects of the oral contraceptive pill EXCEPT A. blood clots. B. strokes. C. hypotension. D. heart attacks.

22. Which of the following BEST summarizes the connection between oral contraceptives and cardiovascular disease? A. Oral contraceptives are riskier than either pregnancy or childbirth. B. Oral contraceptives double the risk of cardiovascular disease in women under 35. C. Research finds no clear connection between oral contraceptive use and heart disease. D. Oral contraceptives increase the risk of cardiovascular disease in women over 35.

23. Which of the following is TRUE about emergency hormonal contraception? A. Regular oral contraceptives cannot be used for this purpose. B. Currently the FDA has approved three drugs for emergency contraception. C. It is illegal in the United States. D. It is usually ineffective.

24. The difference between the most popular oral contraceptives and the minipill is that minipills A. contain the same active ingredients, but in lower dosages. B. are only for use as morning-after pills. C. contain no estrogen. D. are more effective.

25. Depo-Provera is an example of a(n) A. minipill. B. contraceptive implant. C. injectable contraceptive. D. combined oral contraceptive.

26. The most common side effect of Depo-Provera is A. amenorrhea. B. ectopic pregnancy. C. fluctuations in sex drive. D. mild depression.

27. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the contraceptive ring and contraceptive patch? Both A. are used for three weeks then removed for one week. B. contain estrogen and progesterone. C. work similarly to the oral contraceptive pill. D. are able to protect against sexually transmitted diseases.

28. A common male sterilization procedure is called A. testicular ligation. B. tubal ligation. C. cauterization. D. vasectomy.

29. What happens to sperm production in men with vasectomies? Sperm A. continue to be produced, but are destroyed by white blood cells. B. production ceases within six months to a year after the vasectomy. C. continue to be produced, but migrate to other tissues where they eventually die. D. production ceases, and those remaining are absorbed back into testicular tissues.

30. The MOST common form of female sterilization involves A. removing the uterus. B. removing the ovaries. C. cutting the fallopian tubes. D. removing the fallopian tubes.

31. The number of abortions that occur each year in the United States is approximately A. 1.40 million. B. 1.20 million. C. 2.20 million. D. 2.49 million.

32. Rebecca is having an abortion in the eighth week of her pregnancy. Which procedure will MOST likely be used? A. saline injection B. vacuum aspiration C. menstrual extraction D. dilation and curettage

33. The Mifepristone abortion pill, formerly known as RU-486, works by A. denying nourishment to the embryo. B. blocking estrogen's role in supporting the endometrium. C. causing uterine contractions that detach the endometrium. D. blocking the action of progesterone and causing the uterine lining and any fertilized egg to shed.

34. Which of the following is currently used to induce a medication abortion during the first trimester of pregnancy? A. mifepristone B. nonoxynol-9 C. rifampin D. Lybrel

35. Which of the following methods of birth control has the LOWEST use effectiveness? A. IUD B. contraceptive implant C. contraceptive patch D. diaphragm

36. Sue is 31 and would like to become pregnant but has been having ovulation difficulties. Which of the following drugs is her doctor most likely to prescribe to increase her fertility? A. Seasonale. B. Adiana. C. Essure. D. Clomid.

37. Which of the following forms of contraception offers the best protection against STDs? A. IUD B. latex condoms C. diaphragm D. FemCap

38. Sexually active women of childbearing age who do not use contraception stand about a(n) _________ percent chance of becoming pregnant within a year. A. 40 B. 55 C. 70 D. 85

39. In which part of the female reproductive tract is the environment hostile to sperm? A. fallopian tube B. vagina C. uterus D. ovum

40. If a fertile couple has intercourse at the time of ovulation, why is the chance of conception not 100 percent? A. The female reproductive tract contains natural barriers to sperm. B. The semen may contain no sperm at times. C. Most sperm live for too short a time. D. The cervix may be closed.

41. On average, between ________ million and ________ million sperm cells are deposited during ejaculation. A. 100; 150 B. 200; 500 C. 500; 750 D. 800; 950

42. All of the following are considered "aids to fertilization" EXCEPT A. sperm deposits near the cervical opening. B. uterine contractions. C. the speed of the sperm. D. the contoured shape of the fallopian tubes.

43. On average, most sperm will survive in the woman's reproductive tract for __________ day(s) following intercourse. A. one B. two to three C. four to five D. six to seven

44. All of the following are presumptive signs of pregnancy EXCEPT A. a missed period after unprotected intercourse. B. nausea upon awakening. C. a decrease in size and tenderness of breasts. D. a darkening of the areolar tissue surrounding the nipples.

45. The name of the structure that is created when the sperm and egg first unite is referred to as a(n) A. blastocyst. B. zygote. C. embryo. D. fetus.

46. The third trimester of pregnancy is characterized by A. fetal growth. B. development of organs. C. fetal cell differentiation. D. the appearance of a heartbeat.

47. Most spontaneous abortions are believed to occur because of A. maternal stress. B. the mother's activities. C. the mother's substance use. D. genetic or developmental problems.

48. Which of the following is a sign late in pregnancy that labor will happen soon? The A. baby's heart rate will increase by 15 percent. B. mother will experience unusual food cravings. C. position of the baby will suddenly be lower. D. baby can be felt to kick inside the womb.

49. What is the best way to recognize true labor pains? The A. pains are mild and irregular. B. uterus can be felt to contract. C. pelvic cavity feels heavy D. pains are regular and more intense.

50. In the United States, the birth process for a first-time mother averages about _________ hours. A. two to three B. ten to twelve C. twelve to sixteen D. eighteen to twenty-four

51. Effacement of the cervix during labor refers to A. opening. B. thinning. C. tightening. D. lubricating.

52. The end of the first stage of labor, when the cervix has fully dilated, is called A. transition. B. afterbirth. C. delivery. D. vernix.

53. During labor, the cervix will dilate from zero to __________ centimeters. A. four B. six C. eight D. ten

54. For most women, the strongest labor pains occur during A. transition. B. delivery of the baby. C. delivery of the afterbirth. D. the first stage of labor.

55. By the time labor reaches the transition phase, the pattern of the contractions are A. constant. B. up to ninety seconds with up to a minute between contractions. C. up to sixty seconds with five minutes between contractions. D. twenty seconds with about two minutes between contractions.

56. Gail's doctor says she might require a C-section at delivery time. This will involve A. removing the baby through an incision in the abdomen. B. surgically removing the uterus after birth. C. surgically widening the perineum. D. surgically widening the vagina.

57. Home pregnancy tests detect levels of which substance? A. human chorionic gonadotropin B. prostaglandins C. oxytocin D. luteinizing hormone

58. Those who choose to use the diaphragm should consult their physician regarding which spermicide to use. True False

59. The FemCap is the only cervical cap available in the United States today. True False

60. The way in which IUDs prevent pregnancy is not fully understood. True False

61. The only method of reversible contraception that is more effective than the oral contraceptive is the diaphragm. True False

62. Unlike other contraceptive methods, oral contraceptives have no side effects. True False

63. Injectable contraceptives and subdermal contraceptive implants are as effective as oral contraceptives. True False

64. After a vasectomy, men can no longer produce sex hormones. True False

65. The most frequently used form of female sterilization is ovariectomy. True False

66. During a tubal ligation, the vas deferens is removed. True False

67. An abortion by Mifepristone (RU-486) can only be performed very early in the pregnancy. True False

68. The most commonly used abortion procedure is vacuum aspiration. True False

69. During the last few weeks of the third trimester, most fetuses move higher into the pelvic cavity in a process called lightening. True False

70. A woman's reproductive tract is a supportive environment for sperm. True False

71. Once the sperm has entered the fallopian tube, its journey to the egg is guaranteed. True False

72. During ovulation, the cervical mucus is thicker in order to prevent the passage of sperm through the cervical opening. True False

73. One missed menstrual period is a confirmation of pregnancy. True False

74. Diagnostic medical X-rays are not a threat to developing fetuses. True False

75. The prescription anti-acne medication Accutane has been found to be harmful to developing fetuses. True False

76. Home pregnancy tests are highly accurate. True False

77. False labor pains are not caused by true contractions of the uterus. True False

78. The average labor for a first-time pregnancy lasts from twelve to sixteen hours. True False

79. The first stage of labor is usually the longest. True False

80. The stage of labor when contractions are most intense is transition. True False

81. A woman in labor must not "push" the baby with her abdominal muscles until the cervix is fully dilated. True False

82. Crowning is said to occur when the baby's head clears the cervical opening. True False

83. Uterine contractions end immediately after a baby is born. True False

84. A cesarean delivery is commonly performed when the health of either the baby or the mother is at risk. True False

85. The biggest challenge with extreme multiple births is the health of the mother. True False

86. According to the guidelines of the American Society for Reproductive Medicine, no more than three embryos should be implanted in a woman under the age of 35 who is receiving IVF-ET. True False

87. Currently, adopted children represent 10 percent of all children in the United States. True False

88. Frequent intercourse tends to increase sperm counts. True False

89. One treatment for male infertility is regularly placing a cold pack on the scrotum. True False

90. Contracting sexually transmitted illnesses such as chlamydia and/or gonorrhea have no impact on a woman's fertility. True False

91. Explain the difference between birth control and contraception

92. List the considerations for selecting a method of contraception.

93. Choose three of the following reversible birth control methods, and briefly discuss two advantages and disadvantages for each method. Your choices include: withdrawal; periodic abstinence; the male condom; the female condom; FemCap; diaphragm; and spermicide.

94. Describe the sterilization procedures for men and women.

95. List the early signs of pregnancy.

96. Describe the stages of labor and delivery.

97. Describe advantages and disadvantages of "test tube" methods of fertilization.

Chap 13 Key

1. (p. 329) Which of the following methods is NOT considered contraception? A. abortion B. condoms C. diaphragms D. birth control pills

Focus - Chapter 13 #1

2. (p. 329-330) Which of the following BEST describes the use effectiveness of a contraceptive? A. the projected success rate when used precisely as directed B. the success rate from clinical trial use of the product C. the failure rate when used precisely as directed D. the success rate based on actual use by the general public

Focus - Chapter 13 #2

3. (p. 330) The effectiveness of a contraceptive for women of childbearing age is commonly expressed as A. the percentage that does not become pregnant while using the method for one year. B. the percentage risk of failure based on product testing by the manufacturer. C. the number of failures per 1,000 uses based on user surveys. D. educated guesses by the sellers of the contraceptive.

Focus - Chapter 13 #3

4. (p. 332) A contraceptive practice in which the penis is removed from the vagina before ejaculation is known as coitus A. interfereus. B. interruptus. C. interposeus. D. intromitus.

Focus - Chapter 13 #4

5. (p. 332) The human sperm is viable in the female reproductive tract for as long as A. fifteen to twenty hours. B. twenty-four to thirty-six hours. C. two to three days. D. one week.

Focus - Chapter 13 #5

6. (p. 332) The calendar method, cervical mucus method, and basal body temperature method all attempt to determine A. time of ovulation. B. success of a contraceptive. C. whether a woman is pregnant. D. whether spermatozoa have reached the egg.

Focus - Chapter 13 #6

7. (p. 333) Cindy and her husband are trying to have a baby. Based on the calendar method of birth control, when is the BEST time (approximately) for them to have intercourse in order to conceive? A. one week after the beginning of menstruation B. two weeks after the beginning of menstruation C. three weeks after the beginning of menstruation D. four weeks after the beginning of menstruation

Focus - Chapter 13 #7

8. (p. 333) Faye is using the calendar method of contraception. If her menstrual cycle is always 27 days, when should she abstain from intercourse to avoid becoming pregnant? A. day 1 through day 14 B. day 6 through day 14 C. day 9 through day 16 D. day 14 through day 18

Focus - Chapter 13 #8

9. (p. 333) In the temperature method of contraception, the woman should abstain from intercourse A. as soon as her temperature falls. B. as soon as her temperature increases. C. after her temperature falls, then rises. D. after her temperature rises one degree, then falls.

Focus - Chapter 13 #9

10. (p. 334) Spermicides are MOST effective when used A. with oral contraceptives. B. one hour after intercourse. C. with a barrier contraceptive. D. immediately after intercourse.

Focus - Chapter 13 #10

11. (p. 335-336) What do condoms with spermicides have in common with total abstinence? A. They are more popular worldwide than any other contraceptive methods. B. They are among the least popular methods of birth control. C. Both offer protection against sexually transmitted diseases. D. In use, both are 100 percent effective.

Focus - Chapter 13 #11

12. (p. 334) Which of the following is FALSE regarding nonoxynol-9? A. Nonoxynol-9 decreases the likelihood of disease transmission. B. Nonoxynol-9 may cause skin irritations in some individuals. C. Nonoxynol-9 may cause skin abrasions in some individuals. D. Some health centers have stopped distributing condoms with nonoxynol-9.

Focus - Chapter 13 #12

13. (p. 336-337) How do diaphragms and the FemCap work? They A. cover the cervical opening and keep semen out of the uterus. B. expel semen from the vagina. C. kill spermatozoa that enter the cervix. D. prevent fertilized eggs from implanting in the uterus.

Focus - Chapter 13 #13

14. (p. 335) Which of the following is recommended for condom users? A. Protect condoms from extreme temperatures. B. Slightly inflate the condom before use to check for pinholes. C. Maintain an air space at the tip of the condom when putting it on. D. If lubrication is needed, use only petroleum jelly in small quantities.

Focus - Chapter 13 #14

15. (p. 337-338) The world's MOST popular reversible contraceptive device is the A. condom. B. diaphragm. C. intrauterine device. D. oral contraceptive pill.

Focus - Chapter 13 #15

16. (p. 338) A very rare side effect of IUD use is A. pelvic inflammatory disease. B. cervical caner. C. heart disease. D. stroke.

Focus - Chapter 13 #16

17. (p. 332) All of the following statements are TRUE regarding teens who have "pledged virginity until marriage" EXCEPT A. they are just as likely to have sex as non-pledgers. B. they are less likely to use contraceptives than non-pledgers. C. they have similar rates of oral sex as non-pledgers. D. the vast majority are able to abstain from intercourse until marriage.

Focus - Chapter 13 #17

18. (p. 339) Research indicates that oral contraceptive use may provide protection against all of the following EXCEPT A. pelvic inflammatory disease. B. breast cancer. C. ovarian cancer. D. anemia

Focus - Chapter 13 #18

19. (p. 339) Sarah has been using the oral contraceptive "Seasonale," which is designed to prevent her from A. having any menstrual cycles. B. having a menstrual cycle every month. C. transmitting or acquiring any sexually transmitted disease. D. having menstruation side effects.

Focus - Chapter 13 #19

20. (p. 338) Current attempts to create a male contraceptive drug are focusing on A. killing sperm. B. stopping the production of sperm. C. making sperm incapable of fertilization. D. "locking" the sperm release mechanism.

Focus - Chapter 13 #20

21. (p. 339) All of the following are potentially dangerous side effects of the oral contraceptive pill EXCEPT A. blood clots. B. strokes. C. hypotension. D. heart attacks.

Focus - Chapter 13 #21

22. (p. 340) Which of the following BEST summarizes the connection between oral contraceptives and cardiovascular disease? A. Oral contraceptives are riskier than either pregnancy or childbirth. B. Oral contraceptives double the risk of cardiovascular disease in women under 35. C. Research finds no clear connection between oral contraceptive use and heart disease. D. Oral contraceptives increase the risk of cardiovascular disease in women over 35.

Focus - Chapter 13 #22

23. (p. 341) Which of the following is TRUE about emergency hormonal contraception? A. Regular oral contraceptives cannot be used for this purpose. B. Currently the FDA has approved three drugs for emergency contraception. C. It is illegal in the United States. D. It is usually ineffective.

Focus - Chapter 13 #23

24. (p. 340) The difference between the most popular oral contraceptives and the minipill is that minipills A. contain the same active ingredients, but in lower dosages. B. are only for use as morning-after pills. C. contain no estrogen. D. are more effective.

Focus - Chapter 13 #24

25. (p. 340) Depo-Provera is an example of a(n) A. minipill. B. contraceptive implant. C. injectable contraceptive. D. combined oral contraceptive.

Focus - Chapter 13 #25

26. (p. 340) The most common side effect of Depo-Provera is A. amenorrhea. B. ectopic pregnancy. C. fluctuations in sex drive. D. mild depression.

Focus - Chapter 13 #26

27. (p. 340-341) Which of the following is FALSE regarding the contraceptive ring and contraceptive patch? Both A. are used for three weeks then removed for one week. B. contain estrogen and progesterone. C. work similarly to the oral contraceptive pill. D. are able to protect against sexually transmitted diseases.

Focus - Chapter 13 #27

28. (p. 342) A common male sterilization procedure is called A. testicular ligation. B. tubal ligation. C. cauterization. D. vasectomy.

Focus - Chapter 13 #28

29. (p. 342-343) What happens to sperm production in men with vasectomies? Sperm A. continue to be produced, but are destroyed by white blood cells. B. production ceases within six months to a year after the vasectomy. C. continue to be produced, but migrate to other tissues where they eventually die. D. production ceases, and those remaining are absorbed back into testicular tissues.

Focus - Chapter 13 #29

30. (p. 343) The MOST common form of female sterilization involves A. removing the uterus. B. removing the ovaries. C. cutting the fallopian tubes. D. removing the fallopian tubes.

Focus - Chapter 13 #30

31. (p. 343) The number of abortions that occur each year in the United States is approximately A. 1.40 million. B. 1.20 million. C. 2.20 million. D. 2.49 million.

Focus - Chapter 13 #31

32. (p. 344) Rebecca is having an abortion in the eighth week of her pregnancy. Which procedure will MOST likely be used? A. saline injection B. vacuum aspiration C. menstrual extraction D. dilation and curettage

Focus - Chapter 13 #32

33. (p. 344) The Mifepristone abortion pill, formerly known as RU-486, works by A. denying nourishment to the embryo. B. blocking estrogen's role in supporting the endometrium. C. causing uterine contractions that detach the endometrium. D. blocking the action of progesterone and causing the uterine lining and any fertilized egg to shed.

Focus - Chapter 13 #33

34. (p. 344) Which of the following is currently used to induce a medication abortion during the first trimester of pregnancy? A. mifepristone B. nonoxynol-9 C. rifampin D. Lybrel

Focus - Chapter 13 #34

35. (p. 330-331) Which of the following methods of birth control has the LOWEST use effectiveness? A. IUD B. contraceptive implant C. contraceptive patch D. diaphragm

Focus - Chapter 13 #35

36. (p. 352) Sue is 31 and would like to become pregnant but has been having ovulation difficulties. Which of the following drugs is her doctor most likely to prescribe to increase her fertility? A. Seasonale. B. Adiana. C. Essure. D. Clomid.

Focus - Chapter 13 #36

37. (p. 335-338) Which of the following forms of contraception offers the best protection against STDs? A. IUD B. latex condoms C. diaphragm D. FemCap

Focus - Chapter 13 #37

38. (p. 345) Sexually active women of childbearing age who do not use contraception stand about a(n) _________ percent chance of becoming pregnant within a year. A. 40 B. 55 C. 70 D. 85

Focus - Chapter 13 #38

39. (p. 346) In which part of the female reproductive tract is the environment hostile to sperm? A. fallopian tube B. vagina C. uterus D. ovum

Focus - Chapter 13 #39

40. (p. 345-346) If a fertile couple has intercourse at the time of ovulation, why is the chance of conception not 100 percent? A. The female reproductive tract contains natural barriers to sperm. B. The semen may contain no sperm at times. C. Most sperm live for too short a time. D. The cervix may be closed.

Focus - Chapter 13 #40

41. (p. 346) On average, between ________ million and ________ million sperm cells are deposited during ejaculation. A. 100; 150 B. 200; 500 C. 500; 750 D. 800; 950

Focus - Chapter 13 #41

42. (p. 346) All of the following are considered "aids to fertilization" EXCEPT A. sperm deposits near the cervical opening. B. uterine contractions. C. the speed of the sperm. D. the contoured shape of the fallopian tubes.

Focus - Chapter 13 #42

43. (p. 346) On average, most sperm will survive in the woman's reproductive tract for __________ day(s) following intercourse. A. one B. two to three C. four to five D. six to seven

Focus - Chapter 13 #43

44. (p. 346) All of the following are presumptive signs of pregnancy EXCEPT A. a missed period after unprotected intercourse. B. nausea upon awakening. C. a decrease in size and tenderness of breasts. D. a darkening of the areolar tissue surrounding the nipples.

Focus - Chapter 13 #44

45. (p. 348) The name of the structure that is created when the sperm and egg first unite is referred to as a(n) A. blastocyst. B. zygote. C. embryo. D. fetus.

Focus - Chapter 13 #45

46. (p. 348) The third trimester of pregnancy is characterized by A. fetal growth. B. development of organs. C. fetal cell differentiation. D. the appearance of a heartbeat.

Focus - Chapter 13 #46

47. (p. 348) Most spontaneous abortions are believed to occur because of A. maternal stress. B. the mother's activities. C. the mother's substance use. D. genetic or developmental problems.

Focus - Chapter 13 #47

48. (p. 349) Which of the following is a sign late in pregnancy that labor will happen soon? The A. baby's heart rate will increase by 15 percent. B. mother will experience unusual food cravings. C. position of the baby will suddenly be lower. D. baby can be felt to kick inside the womb.

Focus - Chapter 13 #48

49. (p. 349) What is the best way to recognize true labor pains? The A. pains are mild and irregular. B. uterus can be felt to contract. C. pelvic cavity feels heavy D. pains are regular and more intense.

Focus - Chapter 13 #49

50. (p. 349) In the United States, the birth process for a first-time mother averages about _________ hours. A. two to three B. ten to twelve C. twelve to sixteen D. eighteen to twenty-four

Focus - Chapter 13 #50

51. (p. 349-350) Effacement of the cervix during labor refers to A. opening. B. thinning. C. tightening. D. lubricating.

Focus - Chapter 13 #51

52. (p. 350) The end of the first stage of labor, when the cervix has fully dilated, is called A. transition. B. afterbirth. C. delivery. D. vernix.

Focus - Chapter 13 #52

53. (p. 350) During labor, the cervix will dilate from zero to __________ centimeters. A. four B. six C. eight D. ten

Focus - Chapter 13 #53

54. (p. 350) For most women, the strongest labor pains occur during A. transition. B. delivery of the baby. C. delivery of the afterbirth. D. the first stage of labor.

Focus - Chapter 13 #54

55. (p. 350) By the time labor reaches the transition phase, the pattern of the contractions are A. constant. B. up to ninety seconds with up to a minute between contractions. C. up to sixty seconds with five minutes between contractions. D. twenty seconds with about two minutes between contractions.

Focus - Chapter 13 #55

56. (p. 350) Gail's doctor says she might require a C-section at delivery time. This will involve A. removing the baby through an incision in the abdomen. B. surgically removing the uterus after birth. C. surgically widening the perineum. D. surgically widening the vagina.

Focus - Chapter 13 #56

57. (p. 346) Home pregnancy tests detect levels of which substance? A. human chorionic gonadotropin B. prostaglandins C. oxytocin D. luteinizing hormone

Focus - Chapter 13 #57

58. (p. 337) Those who choose to use the diaphragm should consult their physician regarding which spermicide to use. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 13 #58

59. (p. 337) The FemCap is the only cervical cap available in the United States today. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 13 #59

60. (p. 338) The way in which IUDs prevent pregnancy is not fully understood. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 13 #60

61. (p. 337-338) The only method of reversible contraception that is more effective than the oral contraceptive is the diaphragm. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 13 #61

62. (p. 339) Unlike other contraceptive methods, oral contraceptives have no side effects. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 13 #62

63. (p. 330-331, 340) Injectable contraceptives and subdermal contraceptive implants are as effective as oral contraceptives. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 13 #63

64. (p. 342) After a vasectomy, men can no longer produce sex hormones. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 13 #64

65. (p. 343) The most frequently used form of female sterilization is ovariectomy. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 13 #65

66. (p. 343) During a tubal ligation, the vas deferens is removed. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 13 #66

67. (p. 344) An abortion by Mifepristone (RU-486) can only be performed very early in the pregnancy. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 13 #67

68. (p. 344) The most commonly used abortion procedure is vacuum aspiration. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 13 #68

69. (p. 349) During the last few weeks of the third trimester, most fetuses move higher into the pelvic cavity in a process called lightening. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 13 #69

70. (p. 345-346) A woman's reproductive tract is a supportive environment for sperm. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 13 #70

71. (p. 345-346) Once the sperm has entered the fallopian tube, its journey to the egg is guaranteed. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 13 #71

72. (p. 346) During ovulation, the cervical mucus is thicker in order to prevent the passage of sperm through the cervical opening. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 13 #72

73. (p. 346) One missed menstrual period is a confirmation of pregnancy. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 13 #73

74. (p. 347) Diagnostic medical X-rays are not a threat to developing fetuses. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 13 #74

75. (p. 347) The prescription anti-acne medication Accutane has been found to be harmful to developing fetuses. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 13 #75

76. (p. 347) Home pregnancy tests are highly accurate. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 13 #76

77. (p. 349) False labor pains are not caused by true contractions of the uterus. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 13 #77

78. (p. 349) The average labor for a first-time pregnancy lasts from twelve to sixteen hours. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 13 #78

79. (p. 350) The first stage of labor is usually the longest. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 13 #79

80. (p. 350) The stage of labor when contractions are most intense is transition. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 13 #80

81. (p. 350) A woman in labor must not "push" the baby with her abdominal muscles until the cervix is fully dilated. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 13 #81

82. (p. 350) Crowning is said to occur when the baby's head clears the cervical opening. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 13 #82

83. (p. 350) Uterine contractions end immediately after a baby is born. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 13 #83

84. (p. 350) A cesarean delivery is commonly performed when the health of either the baby or the mother is at risk. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 13 #84

85. (p. 352) The biggest challenge with extreme multiple births is the health of the mother. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 13 #85

86. (p. 352-353) According to the guidelines of the American Society for Reproductive Medicine, no more than three embryos should be implanted in a woman under the age of 35 who is receiving IVF-ET. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 13 #86

87. (p. 353) Currently, adopted children represent 10 percent of all children in the United States. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 13 #87

88. (p. 351-352) Frequent intercourse tends to increase sperm counts. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 13 #88

89. (p. 351) One treatment for male infertility is regularly placing a cold pack on the scrotum. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 13 #89

90. (p. 351) Contracting sexually transmitted illnesses such as chlamydia and/or gonorrhea have no impact on a woman's fertility. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 13 #90

91. (p. 329) Explain the difference between birth control and contraception Birth control is a broader term that refers to all possible methods of preventing the birth of a child, including both contraception and abortion. Contraception refers to measures that prevent conception.

Focus - Chapter 13 #91

92. (p. 331) List the considerations for selecting a method of contraception. It must be safe, reliable, and affordable. It must be easy to use so that its effectiveness will not be diminished by complicated procedures that lead to mistakes. It should be reversible in the event the couple wants to have children. It should also not interfere with a couple's sexual expression.

Focus - Chapter 13 #92

93. (p. 330-331) Choose three of the following reversible birth control methods, and briefly discuss two advantages and disadvantages for each method. Your choices include: withdrawal; periodic abstinence; the male condom; the female condom; FemCap; diaphragm; and spermicide. Refer to Table 13.1

Focus - Chapter 13 #93

94. (p. 342-343) Describe the sterilization procedures for men and women. Men: The procedure for men is vasectomy. In this procedure, each vas deferens, the tubes that connect the testes to the urethra, is cut and closed off so that sperm can no longer be ejaculated. This is typically done under local anesthetic in a doctor's office. Women: Sterilization is accomplished by tubal ligation, in which the fallopian tubes are cut and tied back so that ova cannot pass down the tubes and sperm can never reach them. This procedure is now typically done via laparoscopy under general or local anesthetic. One new method of nonsurgical female sterilization involves insertion of the Essure coil into the fallopian tubes by a physician. After three months, the physician checks to see that adequate scar tissue has formed to block the fallopian tubes. A second recent method that is similar to the Essure coil, is called Adiana. This method involves placing an insert into each fallopian tube to encourage scar tissue growth. Adiana differs from Essure in two main ways: 1) Adiana uses a low level of radiofrequency waves and 2) the Adiana insert is a silicone matrix about the size of a grain of rice.

Focus - Chapter 13 #94

95. (p. 346) List the early signs of pregnancy. Most notably, a missed menstrual period the month after unprotected sexual intercourse can signal the possibility that the endometrium is not being ejected because it harbors an embryo. The woman may also experience the nausea of morning sickness and changes in the breasts.

Focus - Chapter 13 #95

96. (p. 350) Describe the stages of labor and delivery. 1) Effacement and dilation of the cervix: Typically the longest stage, during which contractions begin and gradually become more intense as the cervix dilates. This first stage ends at transition, when the cervix dilates fully and the baby moves into the birth canal. 2) Delivery of fetus: The baby is pushed out through the vaginal opening and delivered. This stage ends when delivery is complete. 3) Delivery of placenta: Uterine contractions continue until the placenta has been expelled. Continuing mild contractions help to stop bleeding and help the uterus begin to return to normal size.

Focus - Chapter 13 #96

97. (p. 352) Describe advantages and disadvantages of "test tube" methods of fertilization. One advantage is the fact that fertilization and implantation are more controllable in a "test tube" situation than they are in a woman's body. Also, this type of assisted pregnancy is the only option for women whose fallopian tubes are totally blocked. On the other hand, fertility services make the process of getting pregnant much more involved and expensive, and there is no guarantee of success. An unusually large percentage of assisted pregnancies result in more than one conception.

Focus - Chapter 13 #97

Chap 13 Summary Category

# of Questions

Focus - Chapter 13

97

Chap 14 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. Pharmacists are required to give you a ____________ with each prescription medication you buy. A. childproof safety cap B. disclaimer or liability C. patient information sheet D. substance abuse hotline number

2. Which of the following is MOST likely to provide accurate and unbiased health information? A. a medical practitioner B. a magazine C. a pharmaceutical company D. a friend who has had personal experience

3. The most common weakness of health related infomercials on television is that the A. validity is questionable. B. information is dangerous. C. delivery is too boring. D. message is inaccurate.

4. A doctor of osteopathy (DO) is considered a(n) A. surgeon. B. primary care provider. C. alternative practitioner. D. allied health care professional.

5. The main differences between an MD and a DO is the A. DO is unable to prescribe drugs. B. MD receives more training. C. MD is not a specialist, while the DO is. D. DO will usually place more emphasis on holistic medicine.

6. Chiropractors, acupuncturists, and homeopaths are best considered ___________ health care practitioners. A. complementary B. under-trained C. dangerous D. primary

7. The primary method chiropractors use to treat illness is through A. enemas. B. massage therapy. C. homeopathic remedies. D. manipulating the spinal column.

8. Of the following, which is not a benefit of the self-care movement? A. a decrease in the amount of time that physicians spend with other patients. B. reduce health care costs. C. provide effective care for particular conditions. D. increase interest in health-related activities.

9. The theory that underlies acupuncture is that the treatment A. frightens away bad spirits. B. helps balance active and passive life forces. C. forces the brain to reinterpret pain messages. D. changes the flow of blood in the area of the needle.

10. Research on the medical effectiveness of acupuncture indicates that A. its effects are merely psychological. B. it has value as an anesthetic and an antidote to chronic pain. C. patients can become psychologically dependent on the treatments. D. it is an effective treatment for adult postoperative pain.

11. Homeopathic remedies are based on A. using tiny quantities of herbs and/or minerals to stimulate the body's curative powers. B. purging the system of unclean substances. C. traditional herbal medicine. D. massage therapy.

12. An alternative medical approach that stresses mind/body balance, proper diet, stress reduction, and reliance on the body's own immune system to heal is called A. homeopathy. B. naturopathy. C. chiropractic. D. spiritualism.

13. In response to the fact that many people were attracted to alternative practitioners, the National Institutes of Health began to A. subject these practices to scientific inquiry. B. warn physicians against the most common alternative practices. C. criticize alternative practices in nationwide public service announcements. D. mount a public relations campaign to promote conventional medical practice.

14. What percentage of all college students are estimated to be disabled? A. 6 to 10 percent B. 11 to 15 percent C. 16 to 20 percent D. less than 5 percent

15. The purpose of a Medigap insurance policy is to A. assist people in covering the out-of-pocket expenses associated with Medicare Parts A and B. B. provide new prescription coverage options for Medicare recipients. C. provide health coverage for persons 65 years of age and older. D. provide health care for persons of any age who have particular disabilities or permanent kidney failure.

16. Which health care profession uses specific remedies to produce effects different from those produced by a disease or injury? A. osteopathy B. chiropractic C. allopathy D. acupuncture

17. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of ayurvedic medicine? A. elimination of impurities B. reduction of symptoms C. elimination of existing physical and psychological discomfort D. balancing the active and passive forces within the body

18. The most commonly recognized type of hospital is the A. private hospital B. publicly funded hospital C. voluntary hospital D. charity hospital

19. Ellen has completed her four-year nursing degree and passed her state-licensing exam to become a registered nurse. How can she become certified as an advanced practice nurse? She A. must specialize in a clinical area and become certified. B. must complete two years of medical school. C. must obtain a doctoral degree in nursing. D. can become one immediately.

20. The established amount that the insuree must pay before the insurer reimburses for services is called A. coinsurance B. a fixed indemnity C. an exclusion D. the deductible

21. Kim is a high school graduate who wants to pursue a career as an allied-health professional. All of the following will most likely be required, regardless of the field she chooses, EXCEPT A. a training program based in a hospital instead of a school. B. a licensing examination. C. one to five years of post-secondary school study. D. a medical degree.

22. One of the most common trends in American hospitals in recent years is A. changing to pull public ownership. B. hospitalizing patients for a longer period of time. C. offering various community health and wellness programs. D. cutting charges to compete with other medical facilities.

23. Chiropractic is the third largest health profession in the United States. True False

24. There is no scientific evidence for the effectiveness of acupuncture. True False

25. A fixed indemnity requires that the policy holder and the insurance company share the costs of certain covered services. True False

26. It is best to tell your primary care physician if you are seeing an alternative practitioner. True False

27. There is currently a shortage of physicians in the United States. True False

28. The Americans with Disabilities Act suggests that preferential treatment be given to students with disabilities. True False

29. Advanced practice nurses have the same qualifications as family practice physicians. True False

30. Medicare and Medicaid cover some home health care costs. True False

31. The best way to enjoy good health in your later years is to establish a healthy lifestyle while young. True False

32. Public hospitals are the most common type of hospital in the United States. True False

33. Drop-in urgent care clinics compete directly with large hospital-based facilities. True False

34. Hospital patients have a right to be told who is providing their care. True False

35. Recent studies suggest that 50 percent of Internet users search the Web for health-related information. True False

36. If you are hired as a full-time employee by a company that offers a group health insurance plan to its full-time employees, you must be allowed to join the plan. True False

37. Health maintenance organizations generally have the highest out-of-pocket costs for patients. True False

38. A preferred provider organization is considered a form of managed care. True False

39. The federal government regulates both prescription drugs and over-the-counter drugs. True False

40. Generic drugs are cheaper than name-brand drugs because they are typically manufactured with less rigorous government oversight. True False

41. The FDA permits drug companies to create an over-the-counter drug by reducing the strength of a prescription drug. True False

42. List some reliable and unreliable sources of health information and explain why.

43. List the main reasons for going to a doctor.

44. List the benefits of the self-care movement.

45. Why are generic drugs usually cheaper than brand name drugs?

Chap 14 Key

1. (p. 359) Pharmacists are required to give you a ____________ with each prescription medication you buy. A. childproof safety cap B. disclaimer or liability C. patient information sheet D. substance abuse hotline number

Focus - Chapter 14 #1

2. (p. 359) Which of the following is MOST likely to provide accurate and unbiased health information? A. a medical practitioner B. a magazine C. a pharmaceutical company D. a friend who has had personal experience

Focus - Chapter 14 #2

3. (p. 358-359) The most common weakness of health related infomercials on television is that the A. validity is questionable. B. information is dangerous. C. delivery is too boring. D. message is inaccurate.

Focus - Chapter 14 #3

4. (p. 362-363) A doctor of osteopathy (DO) is considered a(n) A. surgeon. B. primary care provider. C. alternative practitioner. D. allied health care professional.

Focus - Chapter 14 #4

5. (p. 363) The main differences between an MD and a DO is the A. DO is unable to prescribe drugs. B. MD receives more training. C. MD is not a specialist, while the DO is. D. DO will usually place more emphasis on holistic medicine.

Focus - Chapter 14 #5

6. (p. 364) Chiropractors, acupuncturists, and homeopaths are best considered ___________ health care practitioners. A. complementary B. under-trained C. dangerous D. primary

Focus - Chapter 14 #6

7. (p. 364) The primary method chiropractors use to treat illness is through A. enemas. B. massage therapy. C. homeopathic remedies. D. manipulating the spinal column.

Focus - Chapter 14 #7

8. (p. 368) Of the following, which is not a benefit of the self-care movement? A. a decrease in the amount of time that physicians spend with other patients. B. reduce health care costs. C. provide effective care for particular conditions. D. increase interest in health-related activities.

Focus - Chapter 14 #8

9. (p. 364) The theory that underlies acupuncture is that the treatment A. frightens away bad spirits. B. helps balance active and passive life forces. C. forces the brain to reinterpret pain messages. D. changes the flow of blood in the area of the needle.

Focus - Chapter 14 #9

10. (p. 364) Research on the medical effectiveness of acupuncture indicates that A. its effects are merely psychological. B. it has value as an anesthetic and an antidote to chronic pain. C. patients can become psychologically dependent on the treatments. D. it is an effective treatment for adult postoperative pain.

Focus - Chapter 14 #10

11. (p. 365) Homeopathic remedies are based on A. using tiny quantities of herbs and/or minerals to stimulate the body's curative powers. B. purging the system of unclean substances. C. traditional herbal medicine. D. massage therapy.

Focus - Chapter 14 #11

12. (p. 365) An alternative medical approach that stresses mind/body balance, proper diet, stress reduction, and reliance on the body's own immune system to heal is called A. homeopathy. B. naturopathy. C. chiropractic. D. spiritualism.

Focus - Chapter 14 #12

13. (p. 367) In response to the fact that many people were attracted to alternative practitioners, the National Institutes of Health began to A. subject these practices to scientific inquiry. B. warn physicians against the most common alternative practices. C. criticize alternative practices in nationwide public service announcements. D. mount a public relations campaign to promote conventional medical practice.

Focus - Chapter 14 #13

14. (p. 362) What percentage of all college students are estimated to be disabled? A. 6 to 10 percent B. 11 to 15 percent C. 16 to 20 percent D. less than 5 percent

Focus - Chapter 14 #14

15. (p. 374) The purpose of a Medigap insurance policy is to A. assist people in covering the out-of-pocket expenses associated with Medicare Parts A and B. B. provide new prescription coverage options for Medicare recipients. C. provide health coverage for persons 65 years of age and older. D. provide health care for persons of any age who have particular disabilities or permanent kidney failure.

Focus - Chapter 14 #15

16. (p. 363) Which health care profession uses specific remedies to produce effects different from those produced by a disease or injury? A. osteopathy B. chiropractic C. allopathy D. acupuncture

Focus - Chapter 14 #16

17. (p. 367) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of ayurvedic medicine? A. elimination of impurities B. reduction of symptoms C. elimination of existing physical and psychological discomfort D. balancing the active and passive forces within the body

Focus - Chapter 14 #17

18. (p. 370) The most commonly recognized type of hospital is the A. private hospital B. publicly funded hospital C. voluntary hospital D. charity hospital

Focus - Chapter 14 #18

19. (p. 368) Ellen has completed her four-year nursing degree and passed her state-licensing exam to become a registered nurse. How can she become certified as an advanced practice nurse? She A. must specialize in a clinical area and become certified. B. must complete two years of medical school. C. must obtain a doctoral degree in nursing. D. can become one immediately.

Focus - Chapter 14 #19

20. (p. 372) The established amount that the insuree must pay before the insurer reimburses for services is called A. coinsurance B. a fixed indemnity C. an exclusion D. the deductible

Focus - Chapter 14 #20

21. (p. 368) Kim is a high school graduate who wants to pursue a career as an allied-health professional. All of the following will most likely be required, regardless of the field she chooses, EXCEPT A. a training program based in a hospital instead of a school. B. a licensing examination. C. one to five years of post-secondary school study. D. a medical degree.

Focus - Chapter 14 #21

22. (p. 370) One of the most common trends in American hospitals in recent years is A. changing to pull public ownership. B. hospitalizing patients for a longer period of time. C. offering various community health and wellness programs. D. cutting charges to compete with other medical facilities.

Focus - Chapter 14 #22

23. (p. 364) Chiropractic is the third largest health profession in the United States. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 14 #23

24. (p. 364) There is no scientific evidence for the effectiveness of acupuncture. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 14 #24

25. (p. 372) A fixed indemnity requires that the policy holder and the insurance company share the costs of certain covered services. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 14 #25

26. (p. 366) It is best to tell your primary care physician if you are seeing an alternative practitioner. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 14 #26

27. (p. 364) There is currently a shortage of physicians in the United States. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 14 #27

28. (p. 362) The Americans with Disabilities Act suggests that preferential treatment be given to students with disabilities. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 14 #28

29. (p. 368) Advanced practice nurses have the same qualifications as family practice physicians. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 14 #29

30. (p. 374) Medicare and Medicaid cover some home health care costs. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 14 #30

31. (p. 369) The best way to enjoy good health in your later years is to establish a healthy lifestyle while young. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 14 #31

32. (p. 370) Public hospitals are the most common type of hospital in the United States. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 14 #32

33. (p. 370) Drop-in urgent care clinics compete directly with large hospital-based facilities. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 14 #33

34. (p. 371) Hospital patients have a right to be told who is providing their care. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 14 #34

35. (p. 358) Recent studies suggest that 50 percent of Internet users search the Web for health-related information. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 14 #35

36. (p. 373) If you are hired as a full-time employee by a company that offers a group health insurance plan to its full-time employees, you must be allowed to join the plan. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 14 #36

37. (p. 375) Health maintenance organizations generally have the highest out-of-pocket costs for patients. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 14 #37

38. (p. 375) A preferred provider organization is considered a form of managed care. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 14 #38

39. (p. 375-378) The federal government regulates both prescription drugs and over-the-counter drugs. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 14 #39

40. (p. 378) Generic drugs are cheaper than name-brand drugs because they are typically manufactured with less rigorous government oversight. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 14 #40

41. (p. 378) The FDA permits drug companies to create an over-the-counter drug by reducing the strength of a prescription drug. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 14 #41

42. (p. 358-361) List some reliable and unreliable sources of health information and explain why. Reliable: Health care practitioners, consumer organizations, volunteer agencies, and government offices tend to distribute accurate information about health care because it is in their primary interest to protect patients and promote health. Unreliable: Friends and family may be well meaning, but uninformed, sources of health information. Advertisements, infomercials, and drug company publications may communicate correct information, but their primary purpose is to sell a product, so they may exaggerate or leave out information that would serve consumers.

Focus - Chapter 14 #42

43. (p. 361-362) List the main reasons for going to a doctor. Diagnosis of an injury or illness; treatment of an injury or illness; screening for the occurrence of an illness or other health-related condition; consultation about a condition or health concern with a specialist by referral from a primary care physician; prevention of an illness or other condition; and research-either to seek information about current research or to participate as a subject in a research study.

Focus - Chapter 14 #43

44. (p. 368) List the benefits of the self-care movement. 1) reduce health care costs. 2) provide effective care for particular conditions. 3) doctors' time is freed to serve patients more in need of their services. 4) increase interest in health-related activities.

Focus - Chapter 14 #44

45. (p. 377-378) Why are generic drugs usually cheaper than brand name drugs? Brand-name drugs are sold by the companies that developed the drugs, usually at great expense, and the amount charged for the drugs must cover their costs of development, as well as the costs of the other drugs the companies tried to develop that failed approval or failed in the marketplace. Generic drug manufacturers don't have these costs and can charge less.

Focus - Chapter 14 #45

Chap 14 Summary Category

# of Questions

Focus - Chapter 14

45

Chap 15 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. The highest intentional injury rate, for both genders, occurs in which age group? A. 10-14 year olds B. 15-19 year olds C. 20-24 year olds D. 25-30 year olds

2. Homicide, robbery, rape, and sexual assault are all A. capital crimes. B. non-drug related. C. crimes of passion. D. intentional injuries.

3. For the United States, the bad news is that we have the highest homicide rate in the industrialized world; the good news is that A. over the last two decades, the rate has been declining. B. it is still low compared to third world countries. C. the increase in the rate has begun to slow. D. other countries are catching up.

4. Which of the following drugs is responsible for the largest number of poisonings in the United States? A. LSD. B. OxyContin. C. PCP. D. Amphetamines.

5. _________________ refers to violence committed against a domestic partner. A. Spousal abuse B. Partner abuse C. Intimate partner violence D. Domestic abuse

6. Clara's domestic partner is a heavy drinker and has begun to physically assault her. Of the following, the biggest challenge to those who would help Clara is the fact that A. she has no practical options. B. she probably won't report it. C. her partner is not doing anything illegal. D. social workers can only intercede if children are involved.

7. The major cause of boating fatalities is "operator error". This includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. inattention. B. carelessness. C. having more PFDs than are required on board. D. boating while intoxicated.

8. The extent of child maltreatment in the United States is unknown because it A. is not a priority for law enforcement authorities. B. has not been well studied. C. is grossly underreported. D. is poorly defined.

9. The most common type of child abuse is A. sexual. B. neglect. C. physical. D. psychological.

10. The majority of the cases of elder abuse in the United States are committed by A. strangers. B. a brother or sister. C. the victim's children. D. nursing home attendants.

11. Parenting courses can help parents and caregivers learn how to do all of the following EXCEPT A. resolve conflicts. B. improve communication. C. gain child custody. D. cope with anger.

12. In the United States, guns are used to commit about _________ of the homicides that occur. A. two-thirds B. one-half C. three-quarters D. one-tenth

13. The BEST description of a hate crime is a criminal act committed against someone because of A. his or her race. B. his or her opinions. C. any characteristic. D. the criminal's misdirected frustrations.

14. When a person carries out plans to pursue an intended victim, involving repeated visual or physical proximity, he or she is committing the criminal act of A. assault. B. stalking. C. voyeurism. D. entrapment.

15. Which of the following is TRUE regarding rape? A. Women are typically raped by strangers. B. Rapes almost always occur in dark alleys or deserted places. C. Rapists are easily identified by their demeanor or psychological profile. D. The incidence of rape is underreported.

16. If you are a stalking victim, you should A. call the police or a crisis intervention hot line. B. call the stalker and warn him or her that you will be notifying the police. C. avoid antagonizing the stalker with such actions as court restraining orders. D. erase all answering machine messages from the stalker without listening to them.

17. Which is not a form of interpersonal violence? A. homicide. B. rape. C. robbery. D. terrorism.

18. Callie narrowly escaped an attempted date rape, and she doesn't want to repeat the experience. Of the following, what is the best thing she can do to protect herself on future dates? A. refrain from drinking B. date only in the daytime C. avoid going into dark places D. date only people that she knows

19. Which of the following is a common affliction among date rape victims? A. AIDS B. gonorrhea C. bipolar disorder D. posttraumatic stress syndrome

20. Which of the following drugs is not commonly used to incapacitate a rape victim? A. Rohypnol. B. OxyContin. C. ketamine hydrocholoride. D. gamma-hydroxybutyrate.

21. Jenny was leaning over the copy machine in a crowded office when a passer-by brushed against her buttocks. When she turned around, she saw a man and a woman walking away but couldn't tell who touched her. Which of the following is TRUE about this incident? It is A. not sexual harassment if the woman made the contact. B. sexual harassment if the contact was intentional. C. not sexual harassment under any circumstances. D. sexual harassment under any circumstances.

22. The significance of the U.S. Supreme Court's 1986 ruling about the creation of a "hostile environment" in the workplace was that it A. made it possible for men to charge sexual harassment. B. made sexual harassment more difficult to prove. C. created a new category of sexual harassment. D. was sufficient to support the claim of sexual harassment.

23. A person who stalks you can be arrested in most states. True False

24. Approximately half of all victims of date rape suffer from posttraumatic stress disorder. True False

25. Research indicates that one out of five college women have reported completed or attempted sexual assault since entering college. True False

26. The number one date-rape drug on college campuses is alcohol. True False

27. One important way to avoid becoming a date rape victim is to avoid drinking alcohol. True False

28. An action is considered sexual harassment if it is sexual in nature, it is unwelcome, and it bothers you. True False

29. Identity theft has been on the steady decline since the 1990s due to increased laws. True False

30. Alcohol use is not a significant factor in most types of unintentional accidents. True False

31. Most boating deaths are the result of internal injuries from collisions. True False

32. Narcotics and cocaine are responsible for the largest portion of poisoning deaths. True False

33. Why is family violence so drastically underreported?

34. Describe some of the lasting effects of child abuse on its victims.

35. Describe some rape myths, and explain why they are myths.

36. List some measures you can take to decrease your risk of identity theft.

37. List some measures you can take to avoid lashing at your child.

Chap 15 Key

1. (p. 391) The highest intentional injury rate, for both genders, occurs in which age group? A. 10-14 year olds B. 15-19 year olds C. 20-24 year olds D. 25-30 year olds

Focus - Chapter 15 #1

2. (p. 391) Homicide, robbery, rape, and sexual assault are all A. capital crimes. B. non-drug related. C. crimes of passion. D. intentional injuries.

Focus - Chapter 15 #2

3. (p. 391) For the United States, the bad news is that we have the highest homicide rate in the industrialized world; the good news is that A. over the last two decades, the rate has been declining. B. it is still low compared to third world countries. C. the increase in the rate has begun to slow. D. other countries are catching up.

Focus - Chapter 15 #3

4. (p. 388) Which of the following drugs is responsible for the largest number of poisonings in the United States? A. LSD. B. OxyContin. C. PCP. D. Amphetamines.

Focus - Chapter 15 #4

5. (p. 395-396) _________________ refers to violence committed against a domestic partner. A. Spousal abuse B. Partner abuse C. Intimate partner violence D. Domestic abuse

Focus - Chapter 15 #5

6. (p. 396) Clara's domestic partner is a heavy drinker and has begun to physically assault her. Of the following, the biggest challenge to those who would help Clara is the fact that A. she has no practical options. B. she probably won't report it. C. her partner is not doing anything illegal. D. social workers can only intercede if children are involved.

Focus - Chapter 15 #6

7. (p. 390) The major cause of boating fatalities is "operator error". This includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. inattention. B. carelessness. C. having more PFDs than are required on board. D. boating while intoxicated.

Focus - Chapter 15 #7

8. (p. 397) The extent of child maltreatment in the United States is unknown because it A. is not a priority for law enforcement authorities. B. has not been well studied. C. is grossly underreported. D. is poorly defined.

Focus - Chapter 15 #8

9. (p. 397) The most common type of child abuse is A. sexual. B. neglect. C. physical. D. psychological.

Focus - Chapter 15 #9

10. (p. 398) The majority of the cases of elder abuse in the United States are committed by A. strangers. B. a brother or sister. C. the victim's children. D. nursing home attendants.

Focus - Chapter 15 #10

11. (p. 397) Parenting courses can help parents and caregivers learn how to do all of the following EXCEPT A. resolve conflicts. B. improve communication. C. gain child custody. D. cope with anger.

Focus - Chapter 15 #11

12. (p. 391) In the United States, guns are used to commit about _________ of the homicides that occur. A. two-thirds B. one-half C. three-quarters D. one-tenth

Focus - Chapter 15 #12

13. (p. 395) The BEST description of a hate crime is a criminal act committed against someone because of A. his or her race. B. his or her opinions. C. any characteristic. D. the criminal's misdirected frustrations.

Focus - Chapter 15 #13

14. (p. 392) When a person carries out plans to pursue an intended victim, involving repeated visual or physical proximity, he or she is committing the criminal act of A. assault. B. stalking. C. voyeurism. D. entrapment.

Focus - Chapter 15 #14

15. (p. 393) Which of the following is TRUE regarding rape? A. Women are typically raped by strangers. B. Rapes almost always occur in dark alleys or deserted places. C. Rapists are easily identified by their demeanor or psychological profile. D. The incidence of rape is underreported.

Focus - Chapter 15 #15

16. (p. 392) If you are a stalking victim, you should A. call the police or a crisis intervention hot line. B. call the stalker and warn him or her that you will be notifying the police. C. avoid antagonizing the stalker with such actions as court restraining orders. D. erase all answering machine messages from the stalker without listening to them.

Focus - Chapter 15 #16

17. (p. 391) Which is not a form of interpersonal violence? A. homicide. B. rape. C. robbery. D. terrorism.

Focus - Chapter 15 #17

18. (p. 393-394) Callie narrowly escaped an attempted date rape, and she doesn't want to repeat the experience. Of the following, what is the best thing she can do to protect herself on future dates? A. refrain from drinking B. date only in the daytime C. avoid going into dark places D. date only people that she knows

Focus - Chapter 15 #18

19. (p. 393) Which of the following is a common affliction among date rape victims? A. AIDS B. gonorrhea C. bipolar disorder D. posttraumatic stress syndrome

Focus - Chapter 15 #19

20. (p. 393) Which of the following drugs is not commonly used to incapacitate a rape victim? A. Rohypnol. B. OxyContin. C. ketamine hydrocholoride. D. gamma-hydroxybutyrate.

Focus - Chapter 15 #20

21. (p. 394) Jenny was leaning over the copy machine in a crowded office when a passer-by brushed against her buttocks. When she turned around, she saw a man and a woman walking away but couldn't tell who touched her. Which of the following is TRUE about this incident? It is A. not sexual harassment if the woman made the contact. B. sexual harassment if the contact was intentional. C. not sexual harassment under any circumstances. D. sexual harassment under any circumstances.

Focus - Chapter 15 #21

22. (p. 394) The significance of the U.S. Supreme Court's 1986 ruling about the creation of a "hostile environment" in the workplace was that it A. made it possible for men to charge sexual harassment. B. made sexual harassment more difficult to prove. C. created a new category of sexual harassment. D. was sufficient to support the claim of sexual harassment.

Focus - Chapter 15 #22

23. (p. 392) A person who stalks you can be arrested in most states. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 15 #23

24. (p. 393) Approximately half of all victims of date rape suffer from posttraumatic stress disorder. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 15 #24

25. (p. 393) Research indicates that one out of five college women have reported completed or attempted sexual assault since entering college. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 15 #25

26. (p. 393) The number one date-rape drug on college campuses is alcohol. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 15 #26

27. (p. 393) One important way to avoid becoming a date rape victim is to avoid drinking alcohol. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 15 #27

28. (p. 394) An action is considered sexual harassment if it is sexual in nature, it is unwelcome, and it bothers you. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 15 #28

29. (p. 400) Identity theft has been on the steady decline since the 1990s due to increased laws. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 15 #29

30. (p. 385) Alcohol use is not a significant factor in most types of unintentional accidents. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 15 #30

31. (p. 390) Most boating deaths are the result of internal injuries from collisions. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 15 #31

32. (p. 388) Narcotics and cocaine are responsible for the largest portion of poisoning deaths. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 15 #32

33. (p. 397) Why is family violence so drastically underreported? All of the following are possible reasons as to why family violence is underreported. 1) The victim may believe that his or her own behavior perpetrated the violent act. 2) Domestic violence is seen as a personal, private matter. 3) The victim fears reprisal for reporting the violence.

Focus - Chapter 15 #33

34. (p. 397) Describe some of the lasting effects of child abuse on its victims. Beyond the risk of physical injury to the child are the psychological risks. They do more poorly in school than do children who are not abused, suffer increased health problems, and they generally become underachievers. They are also more at risk of getting involved in criminal activity.

Focus - Chapter 15 #34

35. (p. 393) Describe some rape myths, and explain why they are myths. 1) Myth: Most rapists are strangers. Fact: About 79 percent of female victims describe the offender as a nonstranger. 2) Myth: Rapes occur in secluded places. Fact: Most rapes occur near the victim's home. 3) Myth: Rapists are easy to spot. Fact: Rapists tend to look like everyone else. 4) Myth: Rape is not as prevalent as we are led to believe, because many reported rapes are not really rapes. Fact: Experts believe that far more rapes go unreported than reported. 5) Myth: Only women are raped. Fact: Nearly 16 percent of rape victims (19,820) in 2009 were males.

Focus - Chapter 15 #35

36. (p. 401) List some measures you can take to decrease your risk of identity theft. You can reduce your risk of identity theft by: 1) ordering a copy of your credit report from each of the three major credit bureaus; 2) not using obvious passwords like your birth date or mother's maiden name; 3) shredding any financial documents with your personal information; 4) place a fraud alert on your credit reports; 5) not giving out your personal information; 6) never click on links sent in unsolicited e-mails; and 7) if you are a victim of identity theft, visit the FTC's website to find information on what to do.

Focus - Chapter 15 #36

37. (p. 398) List some measures you can take to avoid lashing at your child. Try these alternatives the next time pressure begins to mount, and you become upset with your child: 1) Take a deep breath and remember that you are the adult. 2) Phone a friend. 3) Close your eyes and imagine you are hearing what your child is about to hear. 4) Press your lips together and count to ten. 5) If someone can watch the children, go outside and take a walk. 6) Call for prevention information: 1-800-CHILDREN.

Focus - Chapter 15 #37

Chap 15 Summary Category

# of Questions

Focus - Chapter 15

37

Chap 16 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. Your personal environment includes all of the following elements EXCEPT A. drinking water. B. indoor air. C. building materials at your school. D. solar radiation.

2. You have the greatest control over factors in your _____________ environment. A. community B. regional C. global D. personal

3. Which of the following is accurate regarding carbon monoxide? It A. has a distinct odor. B. is colorless. C. can be detected with our normal senses. D. has a distinct taste.

4. Regular exposure to low levels of carbon monoxide in the home or workplace can A. be tasted. B. be smelled right away. C. not cause any symptoms. D. cause symptoms that are flu-like.

5. Paint stripper, gasoline, and cleaning solvents are sources of A. biological pollutants. B. water pollutants. C. volatile organic compounds. D. toxic metals.

6. Long term exposure to volatile organic compounds such as paint and cleaning solvents are likely to do all of the following EXCEPT damage the A. liver. B. kidney. C. skeletal system. D. central nervous system.

7. Which of the following scenarios would MOST likely expose someone to asbestos? A. putting insulation into a new building B. knocking down walls and ceilings in an older building C. installing a wood floor over cement in an old building's basement D. putting new shingles over old shingles

8. Lead has the MOST serious health effects for which group? A. infants and children B. adolescents and young adults C. adults D. older adults

9. All of the following are sources of biological air pollutants EXCEPT A. coughs or sneezes by infected humans. B. nitrate from agricultural runoff. C. mold growing on moist surfaces. D. contaminated central air handling systems.

10. Most documented health effects of non-ionizing radiation are associated with A. DNA damage in brain cells B. heating of body tissues resulting in sunburn C. certain cancers D. dizziness, shortness of breath, and headache

11. Exposure to radon gas is the _________ leading cause of lung cancer in the United States. A. first B. second C. third D. fourth

12. If unsafe levels of radon are detected in your home, you should A. ignore the problem. B. install a radon venting system below and around the house foundation. C. sell your home. D. address the high levels yourself.

13. About ____________ people in the United States obtain their drinking water from groundwater sources such as wells, streams, or cisterns. A. 350,000 B. 700,000 C. 23 million D. 30 million

14. Private water supplies should be tested annually for A. fecal coliform bacteria. B. carbon monoxide. C. sulfur dioxide. D. radioactive contamination.

15. Even lower levels of noise can cause adverse health effects. Which of the following is not a physical effect of noise exposure? A. elevated blood pressure B. fatigue C. impaired ability to concentrate D. weight gain

16. All of the following are threats to the regional environment EXCEPT A. loss of rainforests. B. loss of green spaces. C. industrial development. D. land pollution.

17. Sarah is frustrated about the issues regarding her community environmental conditions. Which of the following actions is recommend within the text and is indicated to have a significant impact on the community environmental problems? A. going door to door and complaining to the local neighbors B. writing a letter to your local mayor C. joining an organization whose focus is improving the environment D. starting your own environmental group

18. Electric power stations, industrial facilities, and chemical factories are classified as ________ sources. A. nonpoint B. point C. electric D. energy

19. The brownish haze over communities where substances produced when hydrocarbons, nitrogen oxides, and other small particulate matter chemically interact in the presence of sunlight is referred to as A. haze matter. B. smog. C. precipitation. D. clouds.

20. ______________ are a diverse collection of hazardous air pollutants produced mainly by electric power plants, industrial sources, and internal combustion engines that constitute a widespread environmental health risk in the United States. A. Environmental toxics B. Air toxics C. Environmental contaminants D. Air contaminants

21. The largest sources of biological water pollutants in surface waters of the United States today is from A. acid rain. B. car pollution. C. sewer overflows. D. landfill runoff.

22. Which two toxic water pollutants might you be exposed to if you were to inadvertently eat contaminated fish? A. mercury and folate B. mercury and PCBs C. iodine and PCBs D. iodine and fluorine

23. Most land pollution today is associated with the disposal of ________________ waste. A. solid B. biochemical C. animal D. biohazardous

24. The hidden dark side of the technology evolution with respect to the environment is the increased A. amount of paper usage. B. electricity utilized. C. disposal of electronic waste. D. stay-at-home workers.

25. In 2006 the Antarctic "ozone hole" reached a record size of ___________ million square miles. A. 2.1. B. 5.7. C. 7.5. D. 10.6.

26. There are currently close to __________ people in the global population. A. 900 million B. 2 billion C. 7 billion D. 10 billion

27. Which of the following is NOT one of the major concerns about the expansion of the human population? A. the gradual depletion of natural resources B. an increase in air and water pollution C. a decrease in conflict and political upheaval D. an increase in starvation

28. There is very little the individual homeowner can do to reduce his contribution to community and regional water pollution. True False

29. Excessively loud noise can physically damage the ears. True False

30. BPA is a testosterone like chemical which can leak from plastic containers. True False

31. Air pollution is defined as substances produced by human activities, but not naturally occurring substances. True False

32. The primary sources of human-caused air pollutants come from the everyday use of aerosol cans and cleaning detergents. True False

33. Tropospheric ozone is an air pollutant that results in a brownish haze (also called smog). True False

34. Weather conditions can have a strong influence on air pollution levels. True False

35. A large source of biological water pollutants is the overflow from sewers. True False

36. The public health departments monitor local surface waters for the presence of fecal coliform bacteria in every county of the United States. True False

37. Each of the various kinds of radiation has similar effects on human health. True False

38. To reduce health risks associated with consuming high levels of mercury and PCBs, individuals should monitor their intake of fish and shellfish. True False

39. Most land pollution today is associated with the disposal of hazardous waste. True False

40. There are currently 5,000 municipal landfills that have reached their capacity and been closed. True False

41. It has been suggested, but not confirmed, that exposure to non-ionizing radiation around electrical devices such as microwave ovens and televisions may slightly increase the risk for some cancers. True False

42. Exposure to lower levels of nuclear reactions presents little health risk to the individual. True False

43. Every year, five million children die from waterborne diarrhea diseases associated with unsanitary drinking water. True False

44. The rate of population growth can be slowed simply by providing education opportunities to girls. True False

45. The vast majority of the depletion of the ozone layer has occurred near the equator. True False

46. Describe some of the ways you can reduce threats to your health in your personal environment.

47. Discuss the hazards of endocrine disrupting chemicals. What are some common sources of these chemicals?

48. Discuss ways that you can limit your own contribution to air pollution.

49. How can one individual have an effect on the global environment?

50. Discuss how the increase in human population has affected natural habitats and the rate of species' extinction.

Chap 16 Key

1. (p. 408) Your personal environment includes all of the following elements EXCEPT A. drinking water. B. indoor air. C. building materials at your school. D. solar radiation.

Focus - Chapter 16 #1

2. (p. 408-409) You have the greatest control over factors in your _____________ environment. A. community B. regional C. global D. personal

Focus - Chapter 16 #2

3. (p. 410) Which of the following is accurate regarding carbon monoxide? It A. has a distinct odor. B. is colorless. C. can be detected with our normal senses. D. has a distinct taste.

Focus - Chapter 16 #3

4. (p. 410) Regular exposure to low levels of carbon monoxide in the home or workplace can A. be tasted. B. be smelled right away. C. not cause any symptoms. D. cause symptoms that are flu-like.

Focus - Chapter 16 #4

5. (p. 410) Paint stripper, gasoline, and cleaning solvents are sources of A. biological pollutants. B. water pollutants. C. volatile organic compounds. D. toxic metals.

Focus - Chapter 16 #5

6. (p. 409, 410) Long term exposure to volatile organic compounds such as paint and cleaning solvents are likely to do all of the following EXCEPT damage the A. liver. B. kidney. C. skeletal system. D. central nervous system.

Focus - Chapter 16 #6

7. (p. 411) Which of the following scenarios would MOST likely expose someone to asbestos? A. putting insulation into a new building B. knocking down walls and ceilings in an older building C. installing a wood floor over cement in an old building's basement D. putting new shingles over old shingles

Focus - Chapter 16 #7

8. (p. 411) Lead has the MOST serious health effects for which group? A. infants and children B. adolescents and young adults C. adults D. older adults

Focus - Chapter 16 #8

9. (p. 412) All of the following are sources of biological air pollutants EXCEPT A. coughs or sneezes by infected humans. B. nitrate from agricultural runoff. C. mold growing on moist surfaces. D. contaminated central air handling systems.

Focus - Chapter 16 #9

10. (p. 413) Most documented health effects of non-ionizing radiation are associated with A. DNA damage in brain cells B. heating of body tissues resulting in sunburn C. certain cancers D. dizziness, shortness of breath, and headache

Focus - Chapter 16 #10

11. (p. 413) Exposure to radon gas is the _________ leading cause of lung cancer in the United States. A. first B. second C. third D. fourth

Focus - Chapter 16 #11

12. (p. 413) If unsafe levels of radon are detected in your home, you should A. ignore the problem. B. install a radon venting system below and around the house foundation. C. sell your home. D. address the high levels yourself.

Focus - Chapter 16 #12

13. (p. 414) About ____________ people in the United States obtain their drinking water from groundwater sources such as wells, streams, or cisterns. A. 350,000 B. 700,000 C. 23 million D. 30 million

Focus - Chapter 16 #13

14. (p. 414) Private water supplies should be tested annually for A. fecal coliform bacteria. B. carbon monoxide. C. sulfur dioxide. D. radioactive contamination.

Focus - Chapter 16 #14

15. (p. 416) Even lower levels of noise can cause adverse health effects. Which of the following is not a physical effect of noise exposure? A. elevated blood pressure B. fatigue C. impaired ability to concentrate D. weight gain

Focus - Chapter 16 #15

16. (p. 416) All of the following are threats to the regional environment EXCEPT A. loss of rainforests. B. loss of green spaces. C. industrial development. D. land pollution.

Focus - Chapter 16 #16

17. (p. 416) Sarah is frustrated about the issues regarding her community environmental conditions. Which of the following actions is recommend within the text and is indicated to have a significant impact on the community environmental problems? A. going door to door and complaining to the local neighbors B. writing a letter to your local mayor C. joining an organization whose focus is improving the environment D. starting your own environmental group

Focus - Chapter 16 #17

18. (p. 417) Electric power stations, industrial facilities, and chemical factories are classified as ________ sources. A. nonpoint B. point C. electric D. energy

Focus - Chapter 16 #18

19. (p. 418) The brownish haze over communities where substances produced when hydrocarbons, nitrogen oxides, and other small particulate matter chemically interact in the presence of sunlight is referred to as A. haze matter. B. smog. C. precipitation. D. clouds.

Focus - Chapter 16 #19

20. (p. 418) ______________ are a diverse collection of hazardous air pollutants produced mainly by electric power plants, industrial sources, and internal combustion engines that constitute a widespread environmental health risk in the United States. A. Environmental toxics B. Air toxics C. Environmental contaminants D. Air contaminants

Focus - Chapter 16 #20

21. (p. 419-420) The largest sources of biological water pollutants in surface waters of the United States today is from A. acid rain. B. car pollution. C. sewer overflows. D. landfill runoff.

Focus - Chapter 16 #21

22. (p. 421) Which two toxic water pollutants might you be exposed to if you were to inadvertently eat contaminated fish? A. mercury and folate B. mercury and PCBs C. iodine and PCBs D. iodine and fluorine

Focus - Chapter 16 #22

23. (p. 422) Most land pollution today is associated with the disposal of ________________ waste. A. solid B. biochemical C. animal D. biohazardous

Focus - Chapter 16 #23

24. (p. 423) The hidden dark side of the technology evolution with respect to the environment is the increased A. amount of paper usage. B. electricity utilized. C. disposal of electronic waste. D. stay-at-home workers.

Focus - Chapter 16 #24

25. (p. 427) In 2006 the Antarctic "ozone hole" reached a record size of ___________ million square miles. A. 2.1. B. 5.7. C. 7.5. D. 10.6.

Focus - Chapter 16 #25

26. (p. 424) There are currently close to __________ people in the global population. A. 900 million B. 2 billion C. 7 billion D. 10 billion

Focus - Chapter 16 #26

27. (p. 424) Which of the following is NOT one of the major concerns about the expansion of the human population? A. the gradual depletion of natural resources B. an increase in air and water pollution C. a decrease in conflict and political upheaval D. an increase in starvation

Focus - Chapter 16 #27

28. (p. 414) There is very little the individual homeowner can do to reduce his contribution to community and regional water pollution. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 16 #28

29. (p. 415) Excessively loud noise can physically damage the ears. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 16 #29

30. (p. 415) BPA is a testosterone like chemical which can leak from plastic containers. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 16 #30

31. (p. 417) Air pollution is defined as substances produced by human activities, but not naturally occurring substances. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 16 #31

32. (p. 417) The primary sources of human-caused air pollutants come from the everyday use of aerosol cans and cleaning detergents. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 16 #32

33. (p. 418) Tropospheric ozone is an air pollutant that results in a brownish haze (also called smog). TRUE

Focus - Chapter 16 #33

34. (p. 418) Weather conditions can have a strong influence on air pollution levels. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 16 #34

35. (p. 419) A large source of biological water pollutants is the overflow from sewers. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 16 #35

36. (p. 421) The public health departments monitor local surface waters for the presence of fecal coliform bacteria in every county of the United States. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 16 #36

37. (p. 421) Each of the various kinds of radiation has similar effects on human health. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 16 #37

38. (p. 421) To reduce health risks associated with consuming high levels of mercury and PCBs, individuals should monitor their intake of fish and shellfish. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 16 #38

39. (p. 422) Most land pollution today is associated with the disposal of hazardous waste. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 16 #39

40. (p. 422) There are currently 5,000 municipal landfills that have reached their capacity and been closed. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 16 #40

41. (p. 414) It has been suggested, but not confirmed, that exposure to non-ionizing radiation around electrical devices such as microwave ovens and televisions may slightly increase the risk for some cancers. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 16 #41

42. (p. 422) Exposure to lower levels of nuclear reactions presents little health risk to the individual. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 16 #42

43. (p. 424) Every year, five million children die from waterborne diarrhea diseases associated with unsanitary drinking water. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 16 #43

44. (p. 425) The rate of population growth can be slowed simply by providing education opportunities to girls. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 16 #44

45. (p. 427) The vast majority of the depletion of the ozone layer has occurred near the equator. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 16 #45

46. (p. 410) Describe some of the ways you can reduce threats to your health in your personal environment. Properly maintain appliances that burn natural gas; test your home for radon gas; avoid toxic products; check for the threat of asbestos-containing or lead-containing building materials; remove all water damaged carpet and drywall to prevent mold.

Focus - Chapter 16 #46

47. (p. 414-415) Discuss the hazards of endocrine disrupting chemicals. What are some common sources of these chemicals? Endocrine disrupting chemicals are a large class of substances that can interact with the system of glands, hormones, and tissues that regulate many physiological processes in humans, including growth, development from fetus to adult, regulation of metabolic rate and blood sugar, function of reproductive systems, and development of the brain and nervous system. They include a large number of pesticides, herbicides, antiseptics, and chemicals used in the manufacture of plastics. They enter the home and work environment as contaminants of air, food and water in household plastics, non-stick cookware, and in a range of personal products such as cosmetics, hair spray, perfumes, soap, and shampoo.

Focus - Chapter 16 #47

48. (p. 419) Discuss ways that you can limit your own contribution to air pollution. Keep your vehicle tuned up; use mass transit, carpool, or work from home whenever possible; conserve electricity in your home to reduce the demand on electric power plants; quit smoking. Fill your gas tank, mow your lawn, and use your grill during cooler evening hours.

Focus - Chapter 16 #48

49. (p. 426-427) How can one individual have an effect on the global environment? Go to the Nature Conservancy's "carbon footprint" calculator to get a rough estimate of your personal contribution to greenhouse gas emissions. Conserve electricity at home by purchasing the most efficient appliances and heating/cooling systems. Insulate and weatherproof your home. Drive the most fuel efficient vehicle that meets your needs. Reduce, reuse, and recycle to reduce demand for and production of consumer products. Use alternative energy sources.

Focus - Chapter 16 #49

50. (p. 426-427) Discuss how the increase in human population has affected natural habitats and the rate of species' extinction. Due to an exploding human population, humans have now altered or taken over the habitats of other species on the planet. As much as 40 to 50 percent of the land surface has been transformed or degraded by human activities. The current human population uses 50 percent of the earth's fresh water runoff, and dams for electric power generation have impacted 94 percent of rivers in the world. Twenty nine percent of all ocean fish populations exploited for human consumption have collapsed due to overharvesting. Worldwide, 30 percent of all coral reefs have been destroyed by human activities.

Focus - Chapter 16 #50

Chap 16 Summary Category

# of Questions

Focus - Chapter 16

50

Chap 17 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. The proportion of Americans who die in health care institutions is about _________ percent. A. 50 B. 60 C. 70 D. 80

2. How have advances in medical technology affected our definition of death? They have A. revealed that there is no such thing as the "moment" of death. B. made the moment of death harder to define than in years past. C. shown us that death cannot be identified without sophisticated equipment. D. enabled us to more precisely mark the moment of death than in years past.

3. Brain death is defined as a(n) A. electroencephalograph showing brain wave activity. B. complete lack of central nervous system function. C. complete lack of heartbeat, breathing, and pain response. D. complete lack of heartbeat, breathing, and voluntary movement.

4. Cellular death is identified by A. an electroencephalograph. B. lack of breathing. C. loss of heartbeat. D. the presence of rigor mortis.

5. Thirty-eight-year-old Benito has been told that he has inoperable cancer, and he feels now that God has cheated him out of a full life. Which of Kübler-Ross's stages of dying is he experiencing? A. anger B. denial C. bargaining D. depression

6. The first stage that dying people typically experience is A. anger. B. denial. C. depression. D. acceptance.

7. Which of the following BEST illustrates Kübler-Ross's emotional stage of acceptance by a terminally ill person? The person A. becomes withdrawn and moody. B. refuses to believe that it is happening to him C. seems to be neither happy nor sad about the situation. D. freely expresses frustration and disappointment about his situation.

8. Which of the following statements about Kübler-Ross's emotional stages of dying is MOST accurate? A. The stages are common, but are moved through unpredictably by individuals. B. Everyone goes through these stages, but not in the same fashion. C. Everyone goes through these stages, but not always in the same order. D. The more exceptional a person's life, the more his or her emotions will vary from Kübler-Ross's pattern.

9. Among those people who are closest to a dying person, it has been observed that A. more than half maintain a powerful denial almost to the end. B. many go through the same emotional stages as the dying person. C. their other relationships tend to weaken as they draw near to the dying person. D. communication with the dying person usually decreases steadily until he or she dies.

10. The main purpose of a living will is to A. keep control of your own health care as long as possible. B. improve your care should you suffer a fatal illness. C. allow a dying person to die peacefully and with dignity. D. specify who should inherit your estate.

11. The main idea of durable power of attorney for health care is to A. protect your estate from family members while you are sick. B. choose a trusted person who can make health care decisions for you. C. keep control of your health care decisions even when you are incapacitated. D. declare under what circumstances heroic health care measures should be taken for you.

12. An accident victim has been kept on a respirator, heart beating, in a deep coma. Doctors now say the victim is brain dead, and the family tells the doctors to remove the respirator. Without respiration the patient's heart stops. Is the act of removing the respirator euthanasia and, if so, what type? It is A. not euthanasia, because the victim was considered dead. B. not euthanasia, because the victim's heart might have continued beating after the respirator was removed. C. active euthanasia, because the person was only considered dead when the heart stopped beating, and this action caused the heart to stop. D. passive euthanasia, because the person was only considered dead when the heart stopped beating, but this action was not the real cause of death.

13. Physician-assisted suicide is MOST similar to which of the following? A. negligence B. active euthanasia C. passive euthanasia D. comfort measures only

14. A common theme that runs through many different people's near-death experiences is A. facing judgment. B. being lifted up by angels. C. assuming a different identity. D. feeling a sense of warmth when returning to the body.

15. The scientific explanation for near-death experiences is that they A. are unexplained and unexplainable with the tools of science. B. correlate positively with alpha wave activity in deep coma patients. C. are truly spiritual experiences, because subjects met the clinical definitions of death. D. are unexplained at present, but will become better understood as brain mapping techniques advance.

16. The best advice for interacting with a dying person is to be A. optimistic. B. energetic. C. cautious. D. honest.

17. Three-year-old Jeffrey's father has just died. The best way to communicate with Jeffrey is to tell him A. that Daddy died and isn't coming back. B. that Daddy went to sleep. C. that Daddy went away. D. nothing.

18. Of the following, the BEST advice for coping with the death of one's child is to A. give the child's possessions to other loved ones or a worthwhile charity. B. try to have another child as soon as possible. C. make no important life changes. D. not dwell on the child's death.

19. More than other types of loss, the death of a parent often affects one's A. psychological stability. B. sense of security. C. daily routines. D. sense of guilt.

20. The main reason why the death of a spouse is usually more severe than other types of loss is because it A. has such a heavy financial impact. B. usually catches people unprepared. C. causes far more legal complications than other losses. D. affects so many aspects of the surviving spouse's life.

21. The main purpose of hospice care is to A. provide a quasi-hospital setting for terminally ill patients. B. maximize the quality of life and allow death with dignity. C. keep down hospital costs. D. control pain.

22. Hospices are unique in their emphasis on A. acute pain. B. chronic pain. C. care given to the survivors. D. psychosomatic pain.

23. The difference between grief and mourning is that A. mourning precedes grief. B. grief is a type of mourning C. mourning is a process of experiencing grief in a culturally defined manner. D. grief is an unhealthy reaction, while mourning is a healthy reaction.

24. Which of the following BEST describes an epitaph? A. a memorial speech delivered at a person's funeral B. a brief announcement about a person's death C. an inscription that appears on a gravestone D. a newspaper summary of a person's life

25. Margaret's husband died suddenly, and Margaret is torn by guilt over the times that she criticized or neglected him in the days before his death. Margaret's daughter wants to know if it is OK for her to feel this way. What is your BEST reply? A. Guilt is an abnormal reaction unless the death was sudden, so Margaret is OK. B. If feelings of guilt persist, suggest Margaret seek counseling to deal with these feelings. C. Guilt is an unusual reaction, but not an unreasonable one. D. Guilt is always a normal part of the grieving experience.

26. Both direct and indirect euthanasia are illegal in the United States. True False

27. Indirect euthanasia occurs when an action makes death inevitable, even though the action itself does no harm. True False

28. Near-death experiences commonly feature a sense of peace and well-being. True False

29. Honesty is the best quality to display to a dying person. True False

30. Parents who have lost a child should avoid major life changes until they have properly grieved. True False

31. For parents of a child who dies in infancy, it is usually helpful to have another baby as soon as possible. True False

32. In hospice care, quality of life is more important than treatment of disease. True False

33. Patients are encouraged to make their own treatment decisions in hospice care. True False

34. It is not unusual for grief to cause physical discomfort in many people. True False

35. Delayed grief is a sign that grief is causing psychological dysfunction. True False

36. When you are with grieving people, try to help them keep their minds off their grief. True False

37. In the United States, most full funeral services include embalming and a wake or visitation. True False

38. List the common criteria for declaration of death.

39. Give an example of direct (active) euthanasia and an example of indirect (passive) euthanasia.

40. List and briefly describe Kübler-Ross's five emotional stages of dying.

41. In what major ways does hospice care differ from hospital care?

42. Describe the options commonly available for the disposition of a dead body.

Chap 17 Key

1. (p. 435) The proportion of Americans who die in health care institutions is about _________ percent. A. 50 B. 60 C. 70 D. 80

Focus - Chapter 17 #1

2. (p. 435) How have advances in medical technology affected our definition of death? They have A. revealed that there is no such thing as the "moment" of death. B. made the moment of death harder to define than in years past. C. shown us that death cannot be identified without sophisticated equipment. D. enabled us to more precisely mark the moment of death than in years past.

Focus - Chapter 17 #2

3. (p. 435) Brain death is defined as a(n) A. electroencephalograph showing brain wave activity. B. complete lack of central nervous system function. C. complete lack of heartbeat, breathing, and pain response. D. complete lack of heartbeat, breathing, and voluntary movement.

Focus - Chapter 17 #3

4. (p. 435) Cellular death is identified by A. an electroencephalograph. B. lack of breathing. C. loss of heartbeat. D. the presence of rigor mortis.

Focus - Chapter 17 #4

5. (p. 435) Thirty-eight-year-old Benito has been told that he has inoperable cancer, and he feels now that God has cheated him out of a full life. Which of Kübler-Ross's stages of dying is he experiencing? A. anger B. denial C. bargaining D. depression

Focus - Chapter 17 #5

6. (p. 435) The first stage that dying people typically experience is A. anger. B. denial. C. depression. D. acceptance.

Focus - Chapter 17 #6

7. (p. 436) Which of the following BEST illustrates Kübler-Ross's emotional stage of acceptance by a terminally ill person? The person A. becomes withdrawn and moody. B. refuses to believe that it is happening to him C. seems to be neither happy nor sad about the situation. D. freely expresses frustration and disappointment about his situation.

Focus - Chapter 17 #7

8. (p. 436) Which of the following statements about Kübler-Ross's emotional stages of dying is MOST accurate? A. The stages are common, but are moved through unpredictably by individuals. B. Everyone goes through these stages, but not in the same fashion. C. Everyone goes through these stages, but not always in the same order. D. The more exceptional a person's life, the more his or her emotions will vary from Kübler-Ross's pattern.

Focus - Chapter 17 #8

9. (p. 436) Among those people who are closest to a dying person, it has been observed that A. more than half maintain a powerful denial almost to the end. B. many go through the same emotional stages as the dying person. C. their other relationships tend to weaken as they draw near to the dying person. D. communication with the dying person usually decreases steadily until he or she dies.

Focus - Chapter 17 #9

10. (p. 440) The main purpose of a living will is to A. keep control of your own health care as long as possible. B. improve your care should you suffer a fatal illness. C. allow a dying person to die peacefully and with dignity. D. specify who should inherit your estate.

Focus - Chapter 17 #10

11. (p. 440) The main idea of durable power of attorney for health care is to A. protect your estate from family members while you are sick. B. choose a trusted person who can make health care decisions for you. C. keep control of your health care decisions even when you are incapacitated. D. declare under what circumstances heroic health care measures should be taken for you.

Focus - Chapter 17 #11

12. (p. 438) An accident victim has been kept on a respirator, heart beating, in a deep coma. Doctors now say the victim is brain dead, and the family tells the doctors to remove the respirator. Without respiration the patient's heart stops. Is the act of removing the respirator euthanasia and, if so, what type? It is A. not euthanasia, because the victim was considered dead. B. not euthanasia, because the victim's heart might have continued beating after the respirator was removed. C. active euthanasia, because the person was only considered dead when the heart stopped beating, and this action caused the heart to stop. D. passive euthanasia, because the person was only considered dead when the heart stopped beating, but this action was not the real cause of death.

Focus - Chapter 17 #12

13. (p. 438) Physician-assisted suicide is MOST similar to which of the following? A. negligence B. active euthanasia C. passive euthanasia D. comfort measures only

Focus - Chapter 17 #13

14. (p. 436) A common theme that runs through many different people's near-death experiences is A. facing judgment. B. being lifted up by angels. C. assuming a different identity. D. feeling a sense of warmth when returning to the body.

Focus - Chapter 17 #14

15. (p. 436) The scientific explanation for near-death experiences is that they A. are unexplained and unexplainable with the tools of science. B. correlate positively with alpha wave activity in deep coma patients. C. are truly spiritual experiences, because subjects met the clinical definitions of death. D. are unexplained at present, but will become better understood as brain mapping techniques advance.

Focus - Chapter 17 #15

16. (p. 437) The best advice for interacting with a dying person is to be A. optimistic. B. energetic. C. cautious. D. honest.

Focus - Chapter 17 #16

17. (p. 437) Three-year-old Jeffrey's father has just died. The best way to communicate with Jeffrey is to tell him A. that Daddy died and isn't coming back. B. that Daddy went to sleep. C. that Daddy went away. D. nothing.

Focus - Chapter 17 #17

18. (p. 444) Of the following, the BEST advice for coping with the death of one's child is to A. give the child's possessions to other loved ones or a worthwhile charity. B. try to have another child as soon as possible. C. make no important life changes. D. not dwell on the child's death.

Focus - Chapter 17 #18

19. (p. 445) More than other types of loss, the death of a parent often affects one's A. psychological stability. B. sense of security. C. daily routines. D. sense of guilt.

Focus - Chapter 17 #19

20. (p. 445-446) The main reason why the death of a spouse is usually more severe than other types of loss is because it A. has such a heavy financial impact. B. usually catches people unprepared. C. causes far more legal complications than other losses. D. affects so many aspects of the surviving spouse's life.

Focus - Chapter 17 #20

21. (p. 438) The main purpose of hospice care is to A. provide a quasi-hospital setting for terminally ill patients. B. maximize the quality of life and allow death with dignity. C. keep down hospital costs. D. control pain.

Focus - Chapter 17 #21

22. (p. 438) Hospices are unique in their emphasis on A. acute pain. B. chronic pain. C. care given to the survivors. D. psychosomatic pain.

Focus - Chapter 17 #22

23. (p. 441) The difference between grief and mourning is that A. mourning precedes grief. B. grief is a type of mourning C. mourning is a process of experiencing grief in a culturally defined manner. D. grief is an unhealthy reaction, while mourning is a healthy reaction.

Focus - Chapter 17 #23

24. (p. 449) Which of the following BEST describes an epitaph? A. a memorial speech delivered at a person's funeral B. a brief announcement about a person's death C. an inscription that appears on a gravestone D. a newspaper summary of a person's life

Focus - Chapter 17 #24

25. (p. 442-443) Margaret's husband died suddenly, and Margaret is torn by guilt over the times that she criticized or neglected him in the days before his death. Margaret's daughter wants to know if it is OK for her to feel this way. What is your BEST reply? A. Guilt is an abnormal reaction unless the death was sudden, so Margaret is OK. B. If feelings of guilt persist, suggest Margaret seek counseling to deal with these feelings. C. Guilt is an unusual reaction, but not an unreasonable one. D. Guilt is always a normal part of the grieving experience.

Focus - Chapter 17 #25

26. (p. 438) Both direct and indirect euthanasia are illegal in the United States. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 17 #26

27. (p. 438) Indirect euthanasia occurs when an action makes death inevitable, even though the action itself does no harm. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 17 #27

28. (p. 436) Near-death experiences commonly feature a sense of peace and well-being. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 17 #28

29. (p. 437) Honesty is the best quality to display to a dying person. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 17 #29

30. (p. 444) Parents who have lost a child should avoid major life changes until they have properly grieved. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 17 #30

31. (p. 445) For parents of a child who dies in infancy, it is usually helpful to have another baby as soon as possible. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 17 #31

32. (p. 438) In hospice care, quality of life is more important than treatment of disease. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 17 #32

33. (p. 438) Patients are encouraged to make their own treatment decisions in hospice care. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 17 #33

34. (p. 441) It is not unusual for grief to cause physical discomfort in many people. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 17 #34

35. (p. 442) Delayed grief is a sign that grief is causing psychological dysfunction. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 17 #35

36. (p. 443) When you are with grieving people, try to help them keep their minds off their grief. FALSE

Focus - Chapter 17 #36

37. (p. 447) In the United States, most full funeral services include embalming and a wake or visitation. TRUE

Focus - Chapter 17 #37

38. (p. 435) List the common criteria for declaration of death. Lack of heartbeat and respiration; lack of central nervous system function as recorded by two flat EEGs twenty-four hours apart; presence of rigor mortis.

Focus - Chapter 17 #38

39. (p. 438) Give an example of direct (active) euthanasia and an example of indirect (passive) euthanasia. Direct euthanasia: A patient is dying painfully of cancer with no hope of recovery. To relieve the patient's suffering, another person gives the patient a massive overdose of painkillers that causes the respiratory system to shut down. Indirect euthanasia: A patient is dying of a brain tumor. She is in a deep coma with no hope of recovery. Her breathing begins to fail. Doctors could place her on a respirator to keep her breathing, but choose not to do so.

Focus - Chapter 17 #39

40. (p. 435-436) List and briefly describe Kübler-Ross's five emotional stages of dying. 1) Denial: refusal to acknowledge that this is happening to you. 2) Anger: the feeling that your fate is unfair and that you have been cheated out of life. 3) Bargaining: a feeling of hope that if you can strike a deal with God or someone else in control that you can escape death for now. 4) Depression: a feeling of hopelessness and grief in the face of inevitable death. 5) Acceptance: being at peace with the realization that you are going to die.

Focus - Chapter 17 #40

41. (p. 437-438) In what major ways does hospice care differ from hospital care? Hospice care is based on maximizing the patient's comfort and quality of life, while the goal of hospital care is to fight the disease. Hospice's emphasis on spiritual healing tends not to be a priority of hospital care. Family involvement in the care enhances the hospice experience, while in a hospital such involvement must be very limited. Another major area of difference is in the autonomy of the patient; in a hospice the patient is encouraged to make his or her own decisions, while the hospital patient must rely on a physician's best judgment.

Focus - Chapter 17 #41

42. (p. 447-448) Describe the options commonly available for the disposition of a dead body. 1) Ground burial, the most commonly used option, involves purchasing a cemetery plot, a casket, and usually a vault. Often the dead body is embalmed and presented at a wake or visitation prior to burial. 2) Entombment is a similar procedure to ground burial, except that the casket is placed in a mausoleum or crypt instead of in a buried vault. 3) Cremation involves the destruction of the body by burning. The remaining ashes may be buried in the conventional manner in a cemetery or scattered. 4) Anatomical donation involves donating the entire body or parts of it. Most commonly, organs are retrieved as potential donor organs and the rest of the body is returned to the family, or the entire body is embalmed and given to a medical school for use in instruction. These bodies are eventually cremated and returned to their families, if desired.

Focus - Chapter 17 #42

Chap 17 Summary Category

# of Questions

Focus - Chapter 17

42