TEST BANK for Health Psychology 10th Edition by Shelley Taylor ISBN-13 978-1259870477. (Complete 15 by StudyGuide

(Health Psychology, 10e Shelley E. Taylor ) (Test Bank all Chapters)

Chapter 01 What Is Health Psychology? 1. Which of the following best defines health psychology? A. using psychological theories and principles to tackle problems in the areas of mental health, education, product design, ergonomics, and law B. understanding the psychological influences on how people stay healthy, why they become ill, and how they respond when they get ill C. applying the principles of biology in order to study the anatomy of a human being D. diagnosing, preventing, and treating a disease without including the option of surgery Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

2. A health psychologist who designs a media campaign to get people to improve their diets focuses on A. health promotion and maintenance. B. prevention and treatment of illness. C. the etiology and correlates of health, illness, and dysfunction. D. the health care system and the formulation of health policy. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

3. According to the psychological aspects of prevention and treatment of illness, health psychologists who work with people who are already ill focus on A. altering their exercise patterns. B. helping them in following their treatment regimen. C. developing recommendations to maintain a healthy lifestyle. D. advising individuals about career paths that are less stressful. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4. A health psychologist who is interested in the behavioral and social factors that contribute to disease focuses on A. health promotion and maintenance. B. the prevention and treatment of illness. C. the etiology and correlates of health, illness, and dysfunction. D. the health care system and the formulation of health policy. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

5. _____ refers to the origins or causes of illness. A. Etiology B. Epidemiology C. Oncology D. Pathology Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

6. Which of the following is studied by health psychologists to analyze the health care system and formulate health policy? A. classification of occupations that are highly stressful and can adversely affect people’s health B. exercise patterns and dietary interventions that help to promote good habits and develop a healthy lifestyle C. the behavioral and social factors that contribute to health, illness, and dysfunction such as alcohol consumption and smoking D. the impact of hospitals and physicians on people’s behavior to develop recommendations for improving health care Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7. According to the humoral theory of illness, disease occurs when A. God punishes one for wrongdoing. B. evil spirits enter a body. C. bodily fluids are imbalanced. D. there is a cellular disorder. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

8. Each of the four humors has been associated with different personality types, in that blood has been associated with A. a laid-back approach to life. B. an angry disposition. C. sadness. 1-1 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

D. a passionate temperament. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

9. According to the humoral theory of illness, yellow bile is known to be associated with A. a laid-back approach to life. B. an angry disposition. C. sadness. D. a passionate temperament. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

10. According to the humoral theory of illness, black bile is associated with A. an angry disposition. B. a passionate temperament. C. sadness. D. a laid-back approach to life. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

11. The _____ model assumes a mind-body dualism to understanding illness. A. commonsense B. health belief C. biopsychosocial D. biomedical Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

12. The humoral theory of illness was replaced by the science of _____ during the Renaissance. A. biotechnology B. organic chemistry C. molecular biology D. cellular pathology Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

13. The biomedical model maintains that A. psychological and social processes are relevant to the disease process. B. disease results when the four humors or circulating fluids of the body are out of balance. C. health and illness are consequences of biological, psychological, and social factors. D. all illness can be explained on the basis of aberrant somatic bodily processes. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

14. Sigmund Freud described _____ as a specific unconscious conflict that produces physical disturbances and symbolizes repressed psychological conflicts. A. etiology B. conversion hysteria C. chronic illness D. epidemiology Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

15. In the context of psychosomatic medicine, Flanders Dunbar and Franz Alexander maintained that conflicts produce anxiety, which becomes unconscious and takes a physiological toll on the body via the A. cardiovascular system. B. autonomic nervous system. C. integumentary system. D. muscular system. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

16. In the context of Flanders Dunbar and Franz Alexander’s work in the field of psychosomatic medicine, which of the following disorders were believed to be psychosomatic in origin? A. colitis B. tuberculosis C. diphtheria D. diabetes 1-2 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

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17. The belief that profiles of particular disorders are caused by emotional conflicts is propagated by the A. theory of biophysics. B. field of psychosomatic medicine. C. biomedical model. D. tools of neuroscience. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

18. Which of the following statements is true about the biomedical model? A. It focuses on behaviors that promote health rather than emphasizing illness over health. B. It recognizes social and psychological processes as powerful influences over bodily estates. C. It assumes that psychological and social processes are largely relevant to the disease process. D. It reduces illness to low-level processes such as disordered cells and chemical imbalances. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

19. According to the biopsychosocial model, which of the following is a macrolevel process that continually interacts with microlevel processes to influence health and illness and their course? A. cellular disorders B. chemical imbalances C. depression D. social seclusion Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

20. Which of the following is emphasized by the biopsychosocial model? A. Psychological conflict is sufficient to produce certain disorders. B. Certain biological disorders can be related on a consistent basis to specific personality types. C. Certain disorders are best treated medically; however, other disorders are best treated using psychotherapy. D. Health is achieved by being attentive to biological, psychological, and social needs. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

21. Which of the following is a characteristic of an acute disorder? A. It can only be managed, not cured. B. It is currently the main contributor to disability and death. C. It often develops because of a virus or bacteria. D. It is usually a long-term illness. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

22. Acute disorders are A. short-term illnesses that are usually amenable to cure. B. typically co-managed by the patient and the practitioner. C. the major causes of death and illness in the United States. D. slowly developing diseases with which people live for many years. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

23. _____ is an example of a chronic illness that is particularly prevalent in industrialized countries. A. Influenza B. Pneumonia C. Cancer D. Tuberculosis Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

24. Which of the following suggests that chronic illnesses helped in propagating the field of health psychology? A. Chronic illnesses often result in problems in family functioning. B. Chronic illnesses are short-lived, and its management is simple. C. Psychological factors are the sole causes implicated in chronic illnesses. D. Chronic illnesses usually have no requirement for lengthy interventions. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

25. Which of the following statements is true about chronic illnesses? A. They are rapidly developing diseases. 1-3 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

B. They are diseases in which social factors are implicated as causes. C. They rarely affect relationships with a partner. D. They are curable. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

26. Which of the following statements, if TRUE, will support the argument that health care delivery has a substantial social and psychological impact on people? A. Few people in the United States have direct contact with the health care system as a recipient of services. B. Health psychologists know what makes people satisfied or dissatisfied with their health care. C. Health psychology rejects the notion that people’s risky health behaviors can be modified before they become ill. D. Health psychology mainly emphasizes cure rather than prevention to reduce the dollars devoted to the management of illness. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

27. According to the U.S. Census Bureau, in 2010, _____ million Americans had no health insurance. A. 15.3 B. 26.7 C. 49.9 D. 54.6 Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

28. Behavioral interventions, particularly those that target risk factors such as diet or smoking, have contributed to the decline in the incidence of some diseases, especially A. Addison’s disease. B. autoimmune thyroid disease. C. coronary heart disease. D. undifferentiated connective tissue disease. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

29. Which of the following statements is true about theories? A. Theories usually generate nonspecific predictions. B. Theories rarely provide guidelines for how to do research and interventions. C. Theories are untestable. D. Theories that are simple and useful are considered the best. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

30. Judith is diagnosed with a lump in her gallbladder that must be surgically removed. Her doctor and the hospital psychologist explain the procedure, the difficulties, and the benefits of undergoing the surgery. Judith is aware of the extent of pain she might experience, and she will be taught techniques to manage the pain. According to Janis and Johnson, which of the following is Judith likely to do? A. improve her adjustment toward the procedure B. feel anxious and withdraw from the procedure C. ask for a substitute procedure that might involve less pain D. take a second opinion from another health care provider to verify the facts Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

31. Most of the research in health psychology is guided by A. practical problems. B. proven theory. C. unproven hypothesis. D. clinical trials. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

32. Which of the following statements best defines a theory? A. a combination of results from different studies that identify how strong the evidence is for a particular research finding B. a proposition made based on a researcher’s belief that provides a starting point for further investigation C. a set of analytic statements that explain a set of phenomena, such as why people practice poor health behaviors D. a creation of two or more conditions that differ from each other in exact and predetermined ways Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

A. experimental. B. descriptive. C. meta-analytic. D. semi-experimental. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

34. A researcher creates two or more conditions that differ from each other in exact and predetermined ways in A. descriptive research. B. a longitudinal study. C. a theory. D. an experiment. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

35. An experiment conducted by a health care practitioner to evaluate treatments or interventions and their effectiveness over time is called a A. retrospective design. B. prospective research. C. randomized clinical trial. D. correlational study. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

36. Which of the following happens in a randomized clinical trial? A. A target treatment is compared against an organically inert treatment. B. It is difficult to determine the direction of causality unambiguously. C. The same people are observed at multiple points in time. D. Researchers attempt to reconstruct the conditions that led to a current situation. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

37. _____ is a medical intervention that goes through rigorous testing and evaluation of its benefits through randomized clinical trials. A. Ethno medicine B. Alternative medicine C. Psychosomatic medicine D. Evidence-based medicine Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

38. A health psychologist measures whether a change in one variable corresponds with changes in another variable in A. correlational research. B. prospective research. C. retrospective research. D. applied research. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

39. A major disadvantage of a correlational study is that A. it is not empirically testable. B. only one variable can be examined at any given point in time. C. the direction of causation is ambiguous. D. it studies issues when variables cannot be manipulated experimentally. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

40. The _____ approach is used to remedy some of the problems with correlational research. A. prospective B. cross-sectional C. meta-analytic D. retrospective Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

41. _____ research looks forward in time to see how a group of people change, or how a relationship between two variables changes over time. A. Correlational B. Prospective 1-5 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

C. Retrospective D. Applied Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

42. A researcher intervenes in the diet of one community and not in another and over time looks at the difference in the rates of heart disease between the two communities. This is an example of a(n) _____ study. A. mixed-model B. retrospective C. correlational prospective D. experimental prospective Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

43. In a(n) _____ study, a researcher measures the diets that people create for themselves and looks at changes in rates of heart disease as determined by how good or poor the diet is. A. retrospective B. mixed-model C. experimental prospective D. correlational prospective Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

44. A prospective approach where the same people are observed at multiple points in time is known as A. correlational research. B. longitudinal research. C. cross-sectional research. D. quasi-experimental research. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

45. Which of the following best describes a retrospective design? A. looking backward in time in an attempt to reconstruct the conditions that led to a current situation B. looking forward to see how a group of people change, or how a relationship between two variables changes over time C. measuring whether a change in one variable corresponds with changes in another variable D. solving practical problems in society by using empirical methods Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

46. _____ is the study of the frequency, distribution, and causes of infectious and noninfectious diseases in a population. A. Ethnicity B. Etiology C. Ethnology D. Epidemiology Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

47. _____ refers to the number of cases of a disease that exist at some given point in time. A. Morbidity B. Mortality C. Pathology D. Etiology Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

48. The number of new cases of a disease that exist at some given point in time is called A. plague. B. mortality. C. prevalence. D. incidence. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

49. The number of deaths due to a particular cause is known as A. homicide. B. obliteration. C. mortality. D. morbidity. 1-6 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

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50. Which of the following is the primary concern for health psychologists? A. development of superior quality medication B. methods to reduce disability C. rate of mortality in a given population D. health-related quality of life Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

51. Functional magnetic resonance imaging is a neuroscientific tool that permits glimpses into A. the brain. B. the abdominal cavity. C. the circulatory system. D. the DNA molecules. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

52. _____ interventions make use of cell phones, pagers, palm pilots, tablets, and other mobile technologies to deliver interventions and assess health-related events in the natural environment. A. Control-enhancing B. Expressive writing C. Mindfulness-based D. Ecological momentary Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

53. Which of the following is made available to people with hypertension so that they can monitor their blood pressure successfully? A. ventricular assist device B. ambulatory monitoring device C. IAP monitoring device D. implanted neural device Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

54. _____ combines results from different studies to identify how strong the evidence is for a particular research finding. A. Cross-sectional analysis B. Retrospective research C. Prospective research D. Meta-analysis Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

55. Meta-analysis is a powerful methodological tool because A. it uses a broad array of diverse evidence to reach conclusions. B. it attempts to reconstruct conditions that led to a current situation. C. it analyzes how a relationship between two variables changes over time. D. it measures whether a change in one variable corresponds with changes in another variable. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

56. A _____ is responsible for assessing where patients go once they are discharged from a medical setting. A. physical therapist B. dietician C. social worker D. nurse practitioner Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

57. The main function of a physical therapist is to A. provide psycho-educational counseling to patients who suffer from chronic illnesses. B. assess where patients need to go after discharge based on their psychosocial needs. C. conduct dietary interventions for patients suffering from chronic illnesses, such as cancer, heart disease, and diabetes. D. support patients in regaining the use of bodily functions that may have been compromised by illness. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

58. World Health Organization (1948) defined health as “a complete state of physical, mental, and social well-being and not 1-7 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

merely the absence of disease or infirmity.” TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

59. According to the humoral theory of illness, phlegm is associated with sadness. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

60. Franz Alexander developed a profile of the ulcer-prone personality as someone with excessive needs for dependency and love. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

61. The view that biological, psychological, and social factors are all involved in any given state of health or illness is called the commonsense model of illness. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

62. The biomedical model emphasizes health over illness. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

63. The biopsychosocial model emphasizes the importance of an effective patient-practitioner relationship. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

64. The division of health psychology was formed in 1978 within the American Psychological Association (APA). TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

65. The health care industry is closely monitored and well-managed as substantial increase in health care costs have led to tremendous improvement in basic indicators of health. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

66. Experiments have ceased to remain the mainstay of science, because they typically provide less definitive answers to problems than other research methods. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

67. Morbidity may be expressed in two ways: as the number of new cases or as the total number of existing cases of an illness. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

68. Correlational studies often have disadvantages over experiments because they are less adaptable. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

69. Epidemiologists not only study who has what kind of cancer but also address questions such as why certain cancers are more prevalent than others in particular geographic areas. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

70. Guided interviews and narratives can provide insights into health processes that summary statistics may not provide. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

71. Explain the principles that characterize psychosomatic medicine. In what ways has it influenced the practice of health psychology? Dunbar’s and Alexander’s work helped shape the emerging field of psychosomatic medicine by offering profiles of particular disorders believed to be psychosomatic in origin, that is, caused by emotional conflicts. It is now known that all illnesses raise psychological issues. Moreover, researchers now believe that a particular conflict or personality type is not sufficient to produce illness. Rather, the onset of disease is usually due to several factors working together, which may include a biological pathogen coupled with social and psychological factors, such as high stress, low social support, and low socioeconomic status. The idea that the mind and the body together determine health and illness led to the biopsychosocial model. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

72. Describe the biopsychosocial and biomedical models. Explain the advantages of the biopsychosocial model over the biomedical model. The biomedical model maintains that all illness can be explained on the basis of aberrant somatic bodily processes, such as biochemical imbalances or neurophysiological abnormalities. The model emphasizes illness over health rather than focusing on behaviors that promote health. The biopsychosocial model maintains that biological, psychological, and social factors are all important determinants of health and illness. Both macrolevel processes and microlevel processes continually interact to influence health and illness and their course. The biopsychosocial model emphasizes both health and illness. Therefore, health becomes something that one achieves through attention to biological, psychological, and social needs rather than something that is taken for granted. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

73. Explain how changing patterns of illness have contributed to the rise of health psychology. Until the 20th century, the major causes of illness and death in the United States were acute disorders, such as tuberculosis, pneumonia, and other infectious diseases. However, the prevalence of acute infectious disorders has significantly declined because of treatment innovations and changes in public health standards. Nowadays, chronic illnesses, such as heart disease, cancer, and respiratory diseases, are the main contributors to disability and death, particularly in industrialized countries. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

74. Explain how prospective and retrospective research remedies the problems of correlational research. Correlational research measures whether a change in one variable corresponds with changes in another variable. However, prospective research looks forward in time to see how a group of people change, or how a relationship between two variables changes over time. Health psychologists conduct many prospective studies in order to understand the risk factors that relate to health conditions. A particular type of prospective study is longitudinal research, in which the same people are observed at multiple points in time. Retrospective designs, on the other hand, look backward in time in an attempt to reconstruct the conditions that led to a current situation. Retrospective methods were critical in identifying the risk factors that led to the development of AIDS. Therefore, both prospective and retrospective methods prove to be useful in remedying problems faced with correlational research. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

75. Explain the importance of qualitative research in the field of health psychology research. There is an important role for qualitative research in health psychology. Listening to an individual person talk about his or her health needs and experiences is, of course, beneficial for planning an intervention for that person, such as help in losing weight. But more broadly, guided interviews and narratives can provide insights into health processes that summary statistics may not provide. For example, interviews with cancer patients about their chemotherapy experiences may be more helpful in redesigning how chemotherapy is administered than numerical ratings of how satisfied patients are. Qualitative research can also supplement insights from other research methods. For example, surveys of college students can identify rates of problem drinking, but interviews may be helpful for identifying how to build responsible drinking skills. Quantitative and qualitative methods can work hand-in-hand to develop the research evidence for effective interventions. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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# of Questions 75

Chapter 02 The Systems of the Body 1. _____ fibers provide input to the brain and spinal cord by carrying signals from receptors. A. Motor nerve B. Sensory nerve C. Afferent D. Bast Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

2. The somatic nervous system connects A. the small intestine to the pancreas and ensures the regulation of enzymes in the pancreas. B. the blood vessels to the lymph nodes to help in the formation of lymphocytes. C. nerve fibers to voluntary muscles and provides the brain with feedback about voluntary movement. D. the central nervous system to all the internal organs that cannot be voluntarily controlled. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

3. The _____ nervous system helps to restore the body to a normal state after an emergency has passed. A. central B. sympathetic C. parasympathetic D. somatic Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4. Which of the following statements is true about the medulla? A. It is responsible for the regulation of heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration. B. It is the largest portion of the brain, involved in higher-order intelligence, memory, and personality. C. It receives and interprets sensory impulses that come from the peripheral areas of the body. D. It contains the somatosensory cortex, in which sensations of touch, pain, temperature, and pressure are registered and interpreted. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

5. The _____ coordinates voluntary muscle movement, the maintenance of balance and equilibrium, and the maintenance of muscle tone and posture. A. cerebral cortex B. cerebellum C. pons D. medulla Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

6. Damage to the cerebellum is associated with A. loss of muscle tone and disturbances in posture. B. alterations in the rate of breathing. C. reduced blood flow to the left and right atriums. D. hypersecretion of hydrochloric acid. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7. The _____ is responsible for the coordination of visual and auditory reflexes. A. thalamus B. hindbrain C. midbrain D. hypothalamus Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

8. Which of the following is a function of the hypothalamus? A. It serves as a link between the hindbrain and the midbrain and helps control respiration. B. It is responsible for the regulation of heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration. C. It assists in the recognition of sensory stimuli and the relay of sensory impulses to the cerebral cortex. D. It helps transit thoughts generated in the cerebral cortex and assess their impact on internal organs. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

9. The _____ lobe contains the cortical areas, which are responsible for auditory and olfactory (smell) impulses. A. temporal B. occipital 2-1 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

C. parietal D. frontal Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

10. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are together termed as A. acids. B. catecholamines. C. platelets. D. enzymes. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

11. Which of the following occurs when catecholamines are released in the body? A. decrease in sweating B. increase in digestion and urination C. constriction of capillaries of the heart D. dilation of blood vessels Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

12. _____ is a chronic, nonprogressive disorder of the nervous system that is marked by the lack of muscle control. A. Epilepsy B. Parkinson’s disease C. Multiple sclerosis D. Cerebral palsy Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

13. The gene for _____ disease has been identified by a test, which also roughly predicts the age when one will succumb to the disease. A. paraplegia B. Parkinson’s C. epilepsy D. Huntington’s Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

14. _____ is the paralysis of all four extremities and the trunk of the body. It occurs when the upper portion of the spinal cord is severed. A. Epilepsy B. Quadriplegia C. Polio D. Paraplegia Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

15. Identify a true statement about epilepsy. A. It results in progressive degeneration of the basal ganglia, a group of nuclei in the brain that control smooth motor coordination. B. It is incurable but can often be controlled through medication and behavioral interventions. C. It is caused by the disintegration of myelin, a fatty membrane that surrounds nerve fibers. D. It is a serious loss of cognitive ability beyond what might be expected from normal aging. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

16. Patients with _____ have progressive degeneration of the basal ganglia, a group of nuclei in the brain that control smooth motor coordination. A. dementia B. Huntington’s disease C. Parkinson’s disease D. polio Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

17. A hereditary disorder of the central nervous system, _____ is characterized by chronic physical and mental deterioration. A. quadriplegia B. paraplegia C. Alzheimer’s disease D. Huntington’s disease Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

18. Which of the following hormones secreted by the pituitary gland regulates bone, muscle, and other organ development? A. somatotropic hormone (STH) B. thyrotropic hormone (TSH) C. adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) D. antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

19. The posterior pituitary lobe produces _____, which controls the water-absorbing ability of the kidneys. A. antidiuretic hormone (ADH) B. somatotropic hormone (STH) C. thyrotropic hormone (TSH) D. adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

20. The _____ glands are small glands located on top of each of the kidneys. A. pineal B. pituitary C. thyroid D. adrenal Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

21. Which of the following is commonly known as the disease of lifestyle? A. dementia B. Type II diabetes C. Type I diabetes D. polio Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

22. The right atrium and right ventricle pump blood back to the lungs via the A. mitral valve. B. capillaries. C. aorta. D. pulmonary artery. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

23. _____ occurs when the heart has insufficient supply of oxygen or is unable to adequately remove carbon dioxide and other waste products. A. Angina pectoris B. Myocardial infarction C. Arrhythmia D. Ischemia Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

24. _____ occurs when a clot has developed in a coronary vessel and blocks the flow of blood to the heart. A. Myocardial infarction B. Angina pectoris C. Ischemia D. Glioblastoma Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

25. The _____ are a type of blood-forming cells that produce white blood cells. A. osteoclasts B. myeloblasts C. erythroblasts D. megakaryocytes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

26. Which of the following statements is true about platelets? A. They play an important role in healing by absorbing and removing foreign substances from the body. B. They contain hemoglobin, which is needed to carry oxygen and carbon dioxide throughout the body. C. They clump together to block small holes that develop in blood vessels, and they also play an important role in blood clotting. D. They contain granules that secrete digestive enzymes, which engulf and act on bacteria, turning them into a form conducive to excretion. 2-3 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

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27. An adult’s body contains approximately _____ liters of blood, which consists of plasma and cells. A. 9 B. 7 C. 3 D. 5 Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

28. Which of the following blood-forming cells produces platelets? A. myeloblasts B. megakaryocytes C. erythroblasts D. lymphoblasts Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

29. _____ results from below-normal numbers of red blood cells, and it interferes with the transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide throughout the body. A. Peptic ulcer B. Anemia C. Lupus D. Urticaria Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

30. The _____, a muscular tube extending downward from the larynx, divides at its lower end into two branches called the primary bronchi. A. alveoli B. larynx C. pharynx D. trachea Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

31. The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide during respiration occurs between the A. primary bronchi and the secondary bronchi. B. alveoli and the capillaries. C. alveoli and the arteries. D. bronchioles and the arteries. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

32. Respiratory movements are controlled by a respiratory center in the A. cerebellum. B. cerebral cortex. C. medulla. D. pons. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

33. _____ accounts for 80 percent of all cases of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). A. Hypertension B. Obesity C. Smoking D. Alcoholism Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

34. _____ is a secondary infection that may occur as a complication of other disorders, such as a severe cold or flu. A. Bronchial pneumonia B. Asthma C. Meningitis D. Pleurisy Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

35. The unidirectional muscular movement of a bolus through the esophagus toward the stomach is known as A. mononucleosis. B. metastasis. C. peristalsis. D. phagocytosis.

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36. A critical function of the pancreas is the production of A. leptin. B. insulin. C. pepsin. D. oxytocin. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

37. Bile is stored in the _____ and is secreted into the duodenum when necessary. A. gallbladder B. pancreas C. appendix D. rectum Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

38. _____ is an open sore in the lining of the stomach or the duodenum. A. Hepatitis B. Gastroenteritis C. Peptic ulcer D. Appendicitis Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

39. Which of the following types of hepatitis is also known as serum hepatitis? A. hepatitis A B. hepatitis B C. hepatitis C D. hepatitis Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

40. Which of the following digestive system disorders is characterized by watery and frequent bowel movements and occurs when the lining of the small and large intestines cannot properly absorb water or digested food? A. peptic ulcer B. appendicitis C. gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) D. diarrhea Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

41. One of the chief functions of the kidneys is to A. control the growth and secretion of the cortex region of the adrenal gland. B. control the chemical composition of blood. C. produce various gastric secretions. D. control the water balance in the body. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

42. Estrogen is responsible for A. the endometrial lining to move into the fallopian tube. B. the occurrence of menopause. C. preparing the body for pregnancy. D. the development of secondary sex characteristics in females. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

43. _____ is produced by the interstitial cells of the testes under the control of the anterior pituitary lobe. A. Aldosterone B. Testosterone C. Progesterone D. Estrogen Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

44. _____ cancer is known to be the most lethal form of cancer that affects women. A. Vaginal B. Ovarian C. Endometrial D. Cervical

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45. Some women usually choose to undergo _____ therapy to deal with the noxious symptoms that occur during menopause. A. aversion B. hormone C. meso D. gene Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

46. Genetic material for inheritance lies in the nucleus of the cell in the form of _____ chromosomes. A. 53 B. 36 C. 23 D. 46 Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

47. _____ is an example of an environmentally transmitted disease. A. Shigellosis B. Yellow fever C. Herpes D. Influenza Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

48. Toxigenicity is the ability to A. produce poisons which invade other parts of the body. B. resist the body’s defenses. C. produce white blood cells in the body. D. reduce the risk of potential genetic disorders. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

49. A localized infection A. is confined to a particular site in the human body and does not spread. B. is confined to a particular area and sends toxins to other parts of the body. C. rarely affects the human body. D. affects several different areas or body systems. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

50. The largest group of cells involved in natural immunity is known as A. lymphocytes. B. oocytes. C. osteocytes. D. granulocytes. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

51. _____ release cytokines that lead to inflammation and fever and promote wound healing. A. Macrophages B. Lymphoblasts C. Neutrophils D. Megakaryocytes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

52. _____ prevent the passage of microbes from one section of the body to another. A. Phagocytoses B. Anatomical barriers C. Antimicrobial substances D. Inflammatory responses Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

53. _____ are chemicals produced by the body that kill invading microorganisms. A. Antimicrobial substances B. Phagocytes C. Inflammatory responses D. Anatomical barriers Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

54. _____ cells secrete chemicals that kill invading organisms and infected cells. A. Eosinophil B. Mast C. T D. B Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

55. Which of the following bodily systems functions as the drainage system of the body? A. the immune system B. the lymphatic system C. the endocrine system D. the respiratory system Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

56. _____, a malignant lymphoma, involves the progressive, chronic enlargement of the lymph nodes, spleen, and other lymphatic tissue. A. Parkinson’s disease B. Meningitis C. Epilepsy D. Hodgkin’s disease Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

57. In an autoimmune disease, A. the treatment procedure is long-term, but it is easily curable. B. the body fails to recognize the existence of a foreign substance until its severity increases. C. certain white blood cells ingest microbes, causing an infection. D. the body recognizes its own tissue as a foreign invader and produces antibodies to fight it. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

58. Regulation of the autonomic nervous system occurs via the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

59. The parasympathetic nervous system is activated in individual responses to stress. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

60. The structures of the limbic system play an important role in stress and emotional responses. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

61. The endocrine system is responsible for fast-acting, short-duration responses to changes in the body. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

62. The two primary clinical manifestations of atherosclerosis are angina pectoris and congestive heart disease. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

63. Hepatitis A is typically transmitted through food and water. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

64. Appendicitis means “inflammation of the liver,” and the disease produces swelling, tenderness, and sometimes permanent damage. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

65. Hepatitis E resembles hepatitis A but is caused by a different virus. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

66. Progesterone increases when pregnancy fails to occur. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

67. Menopause is a disorder of the reproductive system. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

68. There appears to be a genetic contribution to coronary heart diseases and some forms of cancer. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

69. Antigens are proteins produced in response to stimulation by antibodies. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

70. Describe the two most common disorders of the nervous system. The most common forms of neurological dysfunction are epilepsy and Parkinson’s disease. Epilepsy is a disease of the central nervous system. It is often idiopathic, which means that no specific cause for the symptoms can be identified. Epilepsy is marked by seizures, which range from barely noticeable to violent convulsions accompanied by irregular breathing and loss of consciousness. Epilepsy cannot be cured, but it can often be controlled through medication and behavioral interventions designed to manage stress. Patients with Parkinson’s disease have progressive degeneration of the basal ganglia, which is a group of nuclei in the brain that control smooth motor coordination. The result of this deterioration is tremors, rigidity, and slowness of movement. Parkinson’s patients may be treated with medication, but large doses can cause undesirable side effects. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

71. Describe the structure of the cardiovascular system. Include the internal and external factors influencing heart rate and its impact on the heart’s functioning. The cardiovascular system comprises the heart, blood vessels, and blood and acts as the transport system of the body. Blood carries oxygen from the lungs to the tissues and carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs. Blood also carries nutrients from the digestive tract to the individual cells so that the cells may extract nutrients for growth and energy. The heart functions as a pump, and its pumping action causes the blood to circulate throughout the body. The heart performs its internal functions through regular rhythmic phases of contraction and relaxation known as the cardiac cycle. A number of external factors also influence the rate at which the heart contracts and relaxes. During exercise, emotional excitement, or stress, the heart speeds up, and the cardiac cycle is completed in a shorter time. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

72. Describe the nature and symptoms of hepatitis. Compare and contrast Hepatitis A and Hepatitis B, and explain their modes of transmission. Hepatitis means inflammation of the liver, and it produces swelling, tenderness, and sometimes permanent damage. It remains in the blood, causing a yellowing of the skin known as jaundice. Hepatitis A is caused by viruses and is typically transmitted through food and water. It is often spread by poorly cooked seafood or through unsanitary preparation and storage of food. Hepatitis B, also known as serum hepatitis, is a more serious form. It is caused by a virus and is transmitted by the transfusion of infected blood, by improperly sterilized needles, through sexual contact, and through mother-to-infant contact. It is a particular risk among intravenous drug users. Its symptoms are similar to those of hepatitis A but are far more serious. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

73. Discuss the role of genetic counseling. How can health psychologists use it effectively? Genetic counseling is used in prenatal diagnostic tests that permit the detection of some genetically based disorders, including Tay-Sachs disease, cystic fibrosis, muscular dystrophy, Huntington’s disease, and breast cancer. Helping people decide whether to be screened and how to cope with genetic vulnerabilities if they test positive represents an important role for health psychologists. For example, belief in a genetic cause can lead people to take medical actions that may be medically unwarranted. People who have a family history of genetic disorders, those who have already given birth to a child with a genetic disorder, or those who have recurrent reproductive problems, such as multiple miscarriages, often seek such counseling. In some cases, technological advances have made it possible to treat some of these problems before birth through drugs or surgery. Growing evidence suggests that people at risk for treatable disorders benefit from genetic testing and do not suffer long-term psychological distress. Health psychologists have an important role to play in research and counseling related to genetic risks, especially if they can help people modify their risk status and manage their distress.

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

74. Compare and contrast nonspecific and specific immune mechanisms. Provide an example for each. The body has a number of responses to invading organisms, some nonspecific and others specific. Nonspecific immune mechanisms are a general set of responses to any kind of infection or disorder. The inflammatory response is an example of a nonspecific immune mechanism. Specific immune mechanisms are always acquired after birth, and they fight particular microorganisms and their toxins. Antibodies that develop with the help of foreign antigens are an example of a specific immune mechanism. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Category Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

# of Questions 74

Chapter 03 Health Behaviors 1. Which of the following statements best defines health promotion? A. a philosophy that good health is a personal and collective achievement B. the practice of preventing a disease rather than curing it C. the performance of a health behavior automatically without awareness D. a social activity designed to enhance and maximize awareness Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

2. A(n) _____ may initially develop because it is reinforced by a positive outcome, but it eventually becomes independent of the reinforcement process. A. intervention B. appeal C. precontemplation D. health habit Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

3. A health habit is a health behavior that A. is only performed under the supervision of health specialists. B. is especially important for at-risk individuals to adopt. C. is not always beneficial to an individual’s metabolism and immune system. D. is often performed automatically, without awareness. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4. The ________ measures the degree to which people perceive their health to be under their personal control, control by the health practitioner, or chance. A. health locus of control scale B. window of vulnerability scale C. health belief model D. abstinence violation effect Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

5. Russell had a few drinks for the first time at a party, and he woke up the next day with a splitting headache. He thought his vision was blurred, and he could barely remember what he had planned for the day. He instantly realized that he may be vulnerable to health risks because of alcohol and decided to quit drinking immediately. In this scenario, Russell’s health habits are most likely to be controlled by A. his personal goals. B. perceived symptoms. C. social influence. D. his intelligence. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

6. People who are identified as intelligent in childhood A. are highly likely to take calculated health risks in adulthood. B. will be very knowledgeable in adulthood, but less healthy. C. may develop cognitive distortions in adulthood. D. have good health-related biological profiles in adulthood. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7. Threatening messages that are designed to change health behaviors can cause ________ and lead people to respond defensively. A. psychological distress B. physiological symptoms C. negative perceptions D. physical stress Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

8. Health promotion efforts most commonly capitalize on A. personal control. 3-1 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

B. personal goals. C. values. D. teachable moments. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

9. Focusing health promotions on at-risk people is beneficial because A. it is obvious that people who are not at risk are more likely to stay healthy. B. it is easier to prevent health problems among those who are not at risk. C. it helps to identify other factors that may increase risk. D. it helps to gradually reduce their risk. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

10. Most people do not perceive their risks correctly, and they view their poor health behaviors as shared by everyone. This perception is often A. unrealistically optimistic. B. unrealistically pessimistic. C. socially influenced. D. unambiguous. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

11. Educational appeals make the assumption that A. people who are predisposed to depression are likely to react especially poorly to information about their risks. B. people from families with a familial disorder are likely to know that their personal risk is higher. C. people will change their health habits if they have good information about their habits. D. people are afraid that a particular habit is hurting their health and that they will change their behavior to reduce their fear. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

12. ________ messages are more persuasive for encouraging health behaviors with certain outcomes. A. Prevention B. Promotion-oriented C. Negative D. Positive Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

13. ________ is the belief that one can control one’s practice of a particular behavior. A. Health locus of control B. Self-esteem C. Self criticism D. Self efficacy Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

14. The ________ Theory examines how people appraise health threats and how they appraise their abilities to manage threats. A. Implementation Intention B. Protection Motivation C. Self-Determination D. Planned Behavior Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

15. According to the theory of planned behavior, behavioral intentions A. are made up of attitudes toward a specific action, subjective norms regarding the action, and perceived behavioral control. B. depend on perceived health threats, perceived threat reduction, and perceived behavioral control. C. are made up of three components, namely autonomous motivation, perceived competence and perceived behavioral control. D. depend on perceptions of vulnerability, magnitude of health threat, and perceived behavioral control. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

16. ________ is the perception that one can perform an action and that the action will have the intended effect. A. Perceived vulnerability B. Perceived threat reduction C. Perceived health threat 3-2 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

D. Perceived behavioral control Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

17. In the context of health behavior, ________ is defined as the conscious and unconscious ways in which people control their own actions, emotions, and thoughts. A. self reinforcement B. self affirmation C. self regulation D. self monitoring Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

18. ________ is experienced when individuals have free will and choice to make decisions regarding health behavior change. A. Self reinforcement B. Locus of control C. Autonomous motivation D. Perceived competence Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

19. ________ refers to the belief that one is capable of making a health behavior change. A. Assertiveness B. Framing C. Actualizing D. Competence Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

20. When a person desires to practice a health behavior, it can be achieved by making a plan that links critical situations or environmental cues to goal-directed responses. This is emphasized in the A. implementation intentions model. B. self-determination theory. C. health belief model. D. transtheoretical model. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

21. The rationale underlying self monitoring is that A. people must understand the dimensions of a poor health habit before a change can begin. B. people should believe that a health measure will reduce potential health threats. C. people should be afraid of their poor health habits in order to induce change. D. people will change their health habits if they have good information about their habits. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

22. A discriminative stimulus is important because A. it helps in distracting an individual from performing a target behavior. B. its occurrence helps to eliminate a target behavior. C. it signals that a positive reinforcement will occur. D. it is incapable of eliciting a target behavior. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

23. Brenda has been trying to lose weight and control her seemingly insatiable sweet tooth. To meet her goal, she has removed all cookies, candies, and ice cream from her kitchen cabinets and her refrigerator. She has kept a bowl of fresh fruits on the kitchen counter to occasionally snack on. In this case, Brenda is practicing A. vicarious self-control. B. self-punishment. C. stimulus control. D. self-reinforcement. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

24. The use of Antabuse in the treatment of alcoholism involves having the client sip his or her favorite drink while ingesting Antabuse. After several pairings, alcohol becomes associated with the Antabuse and elicits a(n) A. conditioned response. B. conditioned stimulus. 3-3 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

C. unconditioned response. D. unconditioned stimulus. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

25. Classical conditioning is the pairing of a(n) ________ with a new stimulus to produce a conditioned reflex. A. conditioned stimulus B. unconditioned response C. unconditioned reflex D. conditioned response Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

26. Cognitive-behavior therapy focuses heavily on A. the perception of a personal health threat and perceived threat reduction. B. the beliefs that people hold about their health habits. C. persuasive messages that elicit fear. D. educating and changing attitudes. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

27. The use of positive reinforcements, such as money or new clothing, to encourage weight loss in an obesity treatment program is an example of A. shaping. B. modeling. C. operant conditioning. D. classical conditioning. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

28. ________ is when a person acts as his or her own therapist, along with guidance from outside, in order to modify the antecedents and consequences of a target behavior. A. Self control B. Self efficacy C. Self talk D. Self-actualization Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

29. Wanda’s weight-loss counselor has observed that she has a self-defeating pattern of beliefs and cognitions about her inability to control overeating. Specifically, when she eats something that is not allowed on her diet, she instantly loses hope and ponders over her weak willpower. Wanda’s counselor is trying to encourage her to think otherwise and continue with her diet routine even if she waivers a few times. In this case, the therapist is utilizing a technique called A. cognitive restructuring. B. positive reinforcement. C. self monitoring. D. self punishment. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

30. A behavioral response is most resistant to extinction if it is maintained by a ________ reinforcement schedule. A. continuous B. variable C. random D. static Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

31. Self reinforcement involves A. learning that occurs from witnessing another person perform a behavior. B. systematically rewarding oneself to increase or decrease the occurrence of a target behavior. C. forming a contract with another person detailing what rewards or punishments are contingent on the performance of a behavior. D. home practice activities that support the goals of a therapeutic intervention. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

32. Fred wants to lose 20 pounds. He places 20 one-pound boxes of lard in the refrigerator. As his weight-loss program proceeds, he removes one box of lard each time he succeeds in losing a pound. In this instance, Fred is using 3-4 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

A. positive self punishment. B. negative self punishment. C. positive self reward. D. negative self reward. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

33. Positive self punishment involves A. rewarding oneself with something desirable after successful modification of a behavior. B. administering an unpleasant stimulus to punish an undesirable behavior. C. withdrawing a positive reinforcement in the environment each time an undesirable behavior is performed. D. removing an aversive factor in the environment after successful modification of a target behavior. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

34. ________ is learning that occurs from witnessing another person perform a behavior. A. Classical conditioning B. Operant conditioning C. Modeling D. Guided participation Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

35. The most important principle in modeling is A. synergy. B. differentiation. C. similarity. D. persuasion. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

36. Rhonda entered into an agreement with her friend, Nancy, in an attempt to establish a regular exercise program. According to their agreement, Nancy must pay $1 to Rhonda every day that she exercises for at least 30 minutes. If she fails to do so, Rhonda must pay $1 to Nancy. This is an example of A. self-reward. B. a token economy. C. contingency contracting. D. vicarious reinforcement. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

37. Which of the following is an advantage of using behavioral assignments? A. The therapist becomes involved in the treatment. B. The therapist produces an analysis of the behavior that is useful in planning interventions. C. The client commits to the treatment program only when a legal agreement is established. D. The client gradually takes up responsibility for behavior change. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

38. Which of the following is a technique used in relaxation training? A. self-talk B. deep breathing C. hypnosis D. debriefing Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

39. Adolescents often begin to drink or smoke to reduce their nervousness in social situations by trying to communicate a cool and sophisticated image. This behavior is usually a response to A. depression. B. medication. C. social anxiety. D. relapse. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

40. ________ is a feeling of loss of control that results when a person has violated self-imposed rules. A. Relapse B. Social anxiety 3-5 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

C. Window of vulnerability D. Abstinence violation effect Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

41. Relapse is more likely when an individual A. is over performing at work. B. experiences negative affect. C. has socially appropriate behaviors. D. is unaware of treatment programs. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

42. An intervention package to cope with social anxiety is most likely to include A. assertiveness training. B. dietary changes. C. fear appeals. D. social engineering. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

43. ________ involves restructuring the environment to avoid situations that evoke a target behavior. A. Modeling B. Discriminative stimulus C. Cue elimination D. Preparation Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

44. Long-term maintenance of a behavior change can be promoted by leading a person to make other health-oriented lifestyle changes. This technique is called A. operant conditioning. B. cognitive restructuring. C. social engineering. D. lifestyle rebalancing. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

45. In the precontemplation stage of the transtheoretical model of behavior change, people A. modify their behavior to overcome the problem. B. intend to change their behavior but have not yet done so successfully. C. have no intention of changing their behavior. D. are aware that they have a problem and are thinking about it. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

46. In the ________ stage of the transtheoretical model of behavior change, people are aware that they have a problem and are thinking about it but have not yet made a commitment to taking action. A. maintenance B. contemplation C. action D. preparation Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

47. Julian has decided to lose 15 pounds. He is concerned about the amount of fat he consumes and suspects that his cholesterol levels are high. He has purchased a popular book on low-fat diets, and has decided to go walking thrice a week after he buys a new pair of walking shoes next week. According to the transtheoretical model of behavior change, Julian is in the ________ stage of behavior change. A. precontemplation B. contemplation C. preparation D. action Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

48. The ________ stage of the transtheoretical model of behavior change requires the commitment of time and energy to achieve real behavior change. A. contemplation 3-6 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

B. maintenance C. preparation D. action Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

49. In the ________ stage of the transtheoretical model of behavior change, people work to prevent relapse and to consolidate the gains they have made. A. contemplation B. preparation C. maintenance D. action Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

50. According to the transtheoretical model of behavior change, interventions that emphasize providing self reinforcement, social support, stimulus control, and coping skills are likely to be most successful with individuals A. moving through the precontemplation phase into the contemplation phase. B. in the contemplation phase. C. in the preparation phase. D. moving through the action phase into the long-term maintenance phase. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

51. In the context of behavior change, which of the following scenarios exemplifies a perceived barrier? A. a family without health insurance not getting their children vaccinated B. an adolescent girl resorting to smoking to reduce her nervousness in social situations C. a man believing that dietary change would not reduce his risk of a heart attack D. a woman suffering from stress caused by the recognition of her risk of getting breast cancer Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

52. ________ involves modifying the environment to affect one’s ability to practice a particular health behavior. A. Social engineering B. Reconstruction C. Cognitive restructuring D. Passive retraining Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

53. Identify an example of social engineering. A. staying away from bars to avoid drinking B. ridding one’s home of unhealthy and fattening foods C. obtaining training to improve social skills D. banning smoking in the workplace Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

54. Family physicians may be particularly effective agents in promoting health-related attitudes and behaviors because A. individuals are more likely to follow a suggested treatment if they are paying for professional advice. B. individual behavior modification programs are unsuccessful compared to social engineering efforts. C. they recommend one-to-one approaches that are inexpensive and the most efficient for changing health habits. D. they are highly credible sources and their recommendations have the force of expertise behind them. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

55. Which of the following statements is true of health interventions? A. Health interventions are ineffective in college. B. Community-based interventions reach more people than interventions in schools. C. Workplace interventions typically increase health care costs to organizations. D. Community-based interventions typically bring about drastic behavior change. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

56. Which of the following is a difference between community-based interventions and individually based interventions? A. Community-based interventions can build on social support for reinforcing health changes, whereas individually based interventions focus only on the individual. B. Community-based interventions are restricted to a limited environment, whereas individual-based interventions reach more people. 3-7 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

C. Community-based interventions are more influential among older adults, whereas individually based interventions are more successful among adolescents. D. Community-based interventions can bring about significant changes among participants, whereas individually based interventions bring about only modest changes. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

57. Mass media campaigns usually bring about A. insignificant health changes. B. drastic attitude changes. C. long-term behavior changes. D. modest attitude changes. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

58. Health habits usually develop in childhood and begin to stabilize around age 20 or 25. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

59. The first and most common strategy of primary prevention is to get people to alter their problematic health behaviors. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

60. The window of vulnerability for smoking and drug use is typically associated with adulthood. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

61. Testing positive for a risk factor usually leads people into needless worry or hypervigilant behavior. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

62. Promotion-oriented messages may be more successful in getting people to initiate behavior change, and prevention messages may be more helpful in getting them to maintain behavior change over time. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

63. Perceived threat reduction is the perception that one can perform an action, and that action will have the intended effect. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

64. Cognitive-behavioral therapy interventions use several complementary methods to intervene in the modification of a target problem and its context. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

65. In motivational interviewing, there is no effort to dismantle the denial or irrational beliefs that often accompany bad health behaviors. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

66. Self talk helps participants to talk themselves through tempting situations. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

67. In the context of the transtheoretical model of behavior change, relapse is the exception rather than the rule with most health behaviors. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

68. According to the transtheoretical model of behavior change, interventions designed to get people to make explicit 3-8 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

commitments as to when and how they will change their behavior is most likely to help bridge the gap between the precontemplation stage and the contemplation stage. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

69. Contrary to popular belief, health behaviors of characters in soap operas, dramas, and comedies do not affect health behaviors of viewers. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

70. Have the patterns of disease in the United States changed since the turn of the twentieth century? Considering the current trends, explain the importance of lifestyle rebalancing. Patterns of disease in the United States have changed substantially in the twentieth century. There has been a decline in acute infectious disorders due to changes in public health standards, but there has been an increase in preventable disorders. It is clear that the role of behavioral factors have led to the development of these disorders. Therefore, it is essential to make lifestyle changes such as adding an exercise program or using stress management techniques to promote health. Long-term maintenance of behavior change can be promoted by leading an individual to make other health-oriented lifestyle changes. This technique is termed lifestyle rebalancing. This helps to promote a healthy lifestyle and reduce the likelihood of relapse. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

71. As a philosophy, how is health promotion viewed differently by different people? Health promotion is a philosophy that good health or wellness is a personal and collective achievement. Individuals view it as developing a program of good health habits. Medical practitioners view it as teaching people how to achieve a healthy lifestyle and helping people at risk for particular health problems offset or monitor those risks. Health psychologists consider it the development of interventions to help people practice healthy behaviors. For community and national policy makers, it involves emphasizing good health and providing information and resources to help people change poor health habits. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

72. How effective are educational appeals in changing attitudes toward health behaviors? Educational appeals make the assumption that people will change their health habits if they have good information about their habits. Early and continuing efforts to change health habits focused heavily on education and changing attitudes. Some of the following characteristics of educational appeals can make them especially persuasive: • The communicator should be an expert, prestigious, trustworthy, likable, and similar to the audience. • Strong arguments should be presented at the beginning and at the end of a message. • Messages should be short, clear, and direct, and state conclusions explicitly. • Communications should be colorful and vivid rather than steeped in statistics and jargon. If possible, they should also use case histories. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

73. Charles is a college student who smokes cigarettes. Use the health belief model to explain why Charles continues to smoke even though he is aware of the Surgeon General’s warning about the relationship between cigarettes and cancer or heart disease. The health belief model depends on two factors: whether a person perceives a personal threat, or whether a person believes that a particular health practice will be effective in reducing that threat. The latter also consists of two components: whether the person thinks the health practice will be effective, and whether the cost of undertaking that measure exceeds its benefits. Therefore, if an individual thinks that the effectiveness of undertaking a program would interfere with his or her current lifestyle, the individual might not want to undertake such an action. Although Charles knows the potential dangers of his habit, he is reluctant to modify his behavior as it will interfere with his current enjoyment. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

74. How is the Internet useful in contributing toward health interventions? What are the advantages of using the Internet for cognitive-behavior therapy (CBT) interventions? The Internet provides information and low-cost access to health interventions for millions of people. Websites for smoking cessation and other health habits have been developed, and computer-tailored lifestyle interventions targeting multiple risk factors are also available. The Internet can also be used to augment the effectiveness of other interventions such as schoolbased smoking cessation programs or interventions with patient groups. Cognitive-behavior therapy (CBT) interventions for health habit modification delivered via the Internet are as effective as face-to-face interventions, and they have advantages of 3-9 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

being low cost, saving therapists’ time, reducing waitlist and travel time, and providing interventions to people who might not seek out a therapist on their own. The Internet also enables researchers to recruit a large number of participants for studies at relatively low costs, thus enabling data collection related to health habits. Thus, the Internet is a low-cost tool for health interventions. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Category Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

# of Questions 74

Chapter 04 Health-Promoting Behaviors 1. The health benefits of regular exercise include A. increased resting heart rate. B. reduced HDL. C. increased metabolic syndrome. D. reduced risk of some cancers. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

2. Who among the following people is least likely to exercise regularly? A. Joe, a 10-year-old boy B. Jill, a 15-year-old girl C. Jack, a 35-year-old man D. Juana, a 45-year-old woman Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

3. A typical exercise prescription for a normal adult is _____ or more minutes of moderate-intensity activity on most days of the week or _____ minutes or more of vigorous-intensity activity at least three days a week. A. 15; 30 B. 20; 15 C. 30; 20 D. 45; 60 Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4. Aerobic exercise involves _____ activities. A. low-intensity and long-duration B. low-intensity and short-duration C. high-intensity and long-duration D. high-intensity and short-duration Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

5. Which of the following is most likely to be an aerobic exercise? A. trust walking B. rope climbing C. tai-Chi D. meditation Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

6. Exercise is especially beneficial for executive performance, which is a part of planning and higher-order reasoning, because exercise A. improves the sense of self-efficacy. B. improves emotional well-being. C. increases resting heart rate. D. increases cognitive functioning. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7. Researchers investigating the effects of aerobic exercise on psychological functioning believe that A. regular exercise improves physical health, mood, and general well-being. B. women who exercise regularly will never face symptoms of depression. C. the positive effect of exercise on mood is unrelated to increased self-efficacy. D. modest exercise or increase in activity level is not enough to benefit cognitive functioning. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

8. Which of the following is a benefit of conducting an employee fitness program? A. It decreases costs for the company. B. It increases employee turnover. C. It decreases time spent on the job. D. It increases job satisfaction. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

9. Individuals are more likely to exercise if A. they belong to families in which exercise is rarely practiced. B. they perceive themselves as lethargic. C. they do not have social support or people to take responsibility for their health. D. they have a strong self-efficacy for exercising. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

10. People who are _____ are more likely to exercise. A. workaholics B. unsociable C. sedentary D. extroverted Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

11. _____ can foster exercise. A. Social support B. Hypertension C. Painkillers D. Sedentary work Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

12. People who live in low socioeconomic status neighborhoods find it difficult to exercise because they A. lack time. B. are already engaged in other activities. C. are socially isolated. D. lack safe places to exercise. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

13. Which of the following statements is true of regular exercise? A. Improving environmental options increases rates of exercise. B. Most people feel uncomfortable exercising with people from their social network. C. Adolescents are more likely to exercise regularly than young children. D. Accessible exercise settings do not particularly affect the rates of exercise. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

14. Exercise interventions that are designed to increase and maintain physical activity are more likely to be successful if they are matched to an individual’s A. mental age. B. stage of readiness. C. financial status. D. perception of self. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

15. Softechture Inc., a software company, has organized a workshop for its employees to promote the values of exercise, physical health, and psychological well-being. This kind of a workshop is an example of _____ intervention. A. worksite B. family-based C. dietary D. psychological Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

16. Which of the following statements is true of the U.S. population in recent decades? A. The aging population is not as healthy as past generations. B. The number of chronically ill patients who exercise regularly has increased. C. The number of healthy adults who exercise regularly has decreased. D. The average life expectancy of the population has decreased. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

17. Which of the following represents one of the major causes of preventable death in the United States? A. accidents 4-2 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

B. insomnia C. genetic diseases D. ageing Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

18. Interventions to reduce home accidents are typically conducted with parents because A. they are more knowledgeable about the most common hazards in their home. B. young children may not be able to learn about safety at home. C. evaluations have shown that parents lack knowledge required to safeguard their children. D. they have control over the child’s environment. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

19. Mary is turning 50, and she does not think she is at risk for breast cancer. What would you suggest? A. Mary does not need a mammogram. B. Mary should get a mammogram every year. C. It is unclear what Mary should do. D. Mary should wait until she is 55 to get a mammogram. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

20. Screening through mammography is important for high-risk women because A. the majority of breast cancers are detected in women over age 40. B. one in every three women in the United States develops breast cancer. C. the x-rays used in mammography help arrest the growth of breast cancer. D. experimental medication for breast cancer works better in women over the age of 50. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

21. Which of the following is a common reason that deters women from getting regular mammograms? A. fear of radiation B. distance from health care facilities C. lack of equipment in hospitals D. fear of looking older Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

22. Which of the following is a similarity between breast cancer and colorectal cancer? A. Both are more common among Hispanics. B. Both are a common cause of death in young adults. C. Both have a high likelihood of survival. D. Both require routine screening in older adults. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

23. The chief risk factor for skin cancer is known to be A. age. B. obesity. C. ultraviolet radiation. D. melanin. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

24. Communications to adolescents and young adults regarding the use of sunscreen should emphasize A. negative effects of using excessive sunscreen lotion. B. long-term risks of chronic illness. C. immediate adverse effects of sun exposure. D. advantages of using a tanning salon as compared to sun exposure. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

25. Which of the following food items are most likely to contain saturated fats? A. meat and dairy products B. fried foods C. fruits and vegetables D. fish and nuts Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

26. The typical reason that people switch to a diet low in cholesterol is to A. maintain weight. B. reduce risk of obesity. C. improve health. D. improve appearance. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

27. In the context of diet, which of the following is true of people under stress? A. They tend to eat more fruits and vegetables. B. They are less likely to snack on fatty food as they lose interest in food. C. They focus on what they are eating as a way to combat stress. D. They are more likely to skip breakfast. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

28. When people are under stress, they are more likely to A. let others monitor their food consumption. B. pay attention to what they eat. C. be self-controlled. D. be distracted. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

29. Individuals who are _____ do a better job of adhering to a healthy diet. A. emotional B. lean C. overweight D. intelligent Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

30. Which of the following dietary changes has greatly contributed to obesity over the past decade in the United States? A. increased number of meals with family B. increased portion sizes C. increased consumption of seafood D. increased consumption of fruits Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

31. Training in _____ includes planning skills and formation of explicit behavioral intentions, which can improve dietary adherence. A. self-regulation B. self-affirmation C. self-efficacy D. self-validation Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

32. Recently, the efforts to change the dietary habits of high-risk people have focused on the A. environment. B. community. C. family. D. peer group. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

33. The most powerful determinant of what a family eats is A. the husband’s food preferences. B. the wife’s food preferences. C. the children’s food preferences. D. the children’s health considerations. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

34. Dietary interventions may be particularly successful if A. they guarantee weight loss. B. they are culturally and linguistically appropriate. 4-4 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

C. they do not include too much of physical activity. D. they do not include the family or community. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

35. Most diet changes are implemented through A. social network interventions. B. photo-ageing interventions. C. cognitive-behavioral interventions. D. telephone-based interventions. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

36. Which of the following techniques is used in cognitive-behavioral interventions to modify diet? A. contingency contracting B. guided imagery C. guided participation D. sensitization Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

37. Children who are involved in dietary interventions are more likely to A. practice better dietary habits in adulthood. B. have a better physique compared to other children. C. encourage their friends to follow diet plans. D. become vegetarians in adulthood. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

38. Which of the following is true of interventions to modify diet? A. Nudging people in the right direction through subtle messages is likely to work better than explicit warnings. B. Social engineering is not likely to reduce the consumption of unhealthy foods in schools. C. Children who are involved in dietary interventions are more likely to rebel in adolescence and adopt unhealthy food habits. D. Dietary inventions with high-risk people appear to work better if their immediate family, especially children, are not involved. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

39. _____ is an effective way to alter behavior related to diet and exercise. A. Sensitization B. Social engineering C. Social networking D. Private education Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

40. Non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep consists of _____ stages. A. nine B. seven C. two D. four Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

41. The lightest and earliest stage of sleep is marked by A. vivid dreams. B. delta waves. C. body temperature. D. theta waves. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

42. Deep sleep, which is important for restoring energy, strengthening the immune system, and prompting the body to release growth hormone, is marked by _____ waves. A. beta B. delta C. theta D. K-complex 4-5 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

43. During rapid eye movement (REM) sleep, eyes dart back and forth and breathing and heart rates flutter. This stage of sleep is marked by A. K-complex waves. B. delta waves. C. theta waves. D. beta waves. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

44. The stage of sleep marked by beta waves is important for A. breathing. B. restoring energy. C. releasing growth hormones. D. consolidating memories. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

45. Which of the following best describes a restorative activity? A. exercising regularly and being more productive at work B. dealing with a disability using coping mechanisms C. savoring the positive aspects of life and regaining emotional balance D. bringing the body back to a normal state of functioning after an accident Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

46. _____ in women may be tied to hormonal levels related to menopause. A. Anorexia nervosa B. Bulimia nervosa C. Speech disorders D. Sleep disorders Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

47. Jane is not satisfied with her job; she is depressed and dependent on alcohol. Recently, Jane has been experiencing sleep disturbances and is unable to cope with stressful events. Jane is most likely suffering from A. amenorrhea. B. bulimia. C. anorexia. D. insomnia. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

48. Roy was an interstate truck driver. He had been driving for the past 12 years, and most of his trips were between 11:00 p.m. and 7:00 a.m. Roy used to take irregular naps during the day, and he also made time for other personal activities. However, over time, he felt fatigued and decided to quit. After years of driving during the night and sleeping for a few hours during the day, Roy is having trouble sleeping at night. Which of the following is a likely cause for Roy’s condition? A. Alzheimer’s B. stress C. reduced blood pressure D. chronic insomnia Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

49. Chronic insomnia can compromise the ability to secrete and respond to A. amino acids. B. collagen. C. insulin. D. potassium. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

50. Children who do not get enough sleep usually display A. behavioral problems. B. weight fluctuations. C. withdrawn attitudes. D. low intelligence. 4-6 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

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51. Insomnia is more common among people who A. blunt the impact of stressful events by distracting themselves. B. deal with stressful events by ruminating or focusing on them. C. engage in a few restorative activities. D. avoid caffeine in the afternoon. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

52. _____ is a symptom of psychopathology commonly found among long sleepers. A. Insomnia B. Chronic worrying C. Sleep deprivation D. Snoring Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

53. Which of the following is a behavioral intervention undertaken for the treatment of insomnia? A. conversion therapy B. hormone therapy C. immune therapy D. relaxation therapy Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

54. Which of the following treatments is likely to succeed in treating insomnia? A. skipping dinner or eating very little before sleeping B. lighting an incense or a fragrant candle in the room at night C. developing nightly rituals, such as taking a shower before sleeping D. reading in bed Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

55. Participating in enjoyable leisure time activities, such as socializing or spending time in nature, is related to A. reduced physical functioning. B. increased blood pressure. C. lower levels of cortisol. D. higher risk of weight gain. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

56. People who engage in regular, vigorous exercise may reduce their risk of some cancers. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

57. A person with low cardiopulmonary fitness needs more exercise in a week than a normal adult does to derive any benefit from exercise. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

58. The practice of regular exercise declines substantially when girls reach adolescence. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

59. People who drop out of exercise programs do so within the first three to six months. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

60. Social engineering is more effective than community-wide health education programs for increasing seat belt usage and infant restraint devices. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

61. Women from low-income groups are more likely to receive regular mammograms. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

62. Mediterranean diets are rich in red meat and low in vegetables, nuts, fruits, and fish. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

63. Rates of adherence to a new diet are likely to be low at first but improve over time. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

64. People who have high levels of hostility or arousal have poor sleep quality. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

65. People who deal with stressful events by blunting their impact or distracting themselves are more prone to insomnia than people who deal with them by ruminating or focusing on them. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

66. Satisfaction with leisure activities can improve cognitive functioning among the elderly. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

67. Explain the physical and psychological benefits of exercise. Exercise helps to maintain mental and physical health. Daily exercise can decrease the risk of several chronic diseases including heart disease, diabetes, and some cancers. Psychologically, exercise improves mood and general well-being. Some of the positive effects of exercise on mood may stem from factors associated with exercise, such as social activity or being outside. Because of its positive impact on mood, exercise has also been used as a treatment for depression. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

68. Who are more likely to exercise regularly? People who come from families in which exercise is practiced, who have positive attitudes toward physical activity, who have a strong sense of self-efficacy for exercising, who have energy, and who are extroverted and sociable are more likely to exercise regularly. Those who perceive themselves as athletic, have a strong social support, and take responsibility for their health are also more likely to exercise. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

69. Imagine that a program needs to be administered through the county health department designed to increase the frequency of mammograms among community residents. What kind of techniques would increase the likelihood of obtaining regular mammograms? Women who have positive attitudes regarding mammography and who perceive social norms as favoring are more likely to participate in mammography programs. Therefore, interventions must focus on creating awareness. Changing the attitudes of women toward mammography can increase the likelihood of obtaining a mammogram. Creating a social support system would help increase participation of low-income and older women. Women are more likely to get mammograms if their friends are doing the same. Interventions are more successful if they are geared to the stage of readiness of prospective participants. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

70. Discuss the ways to effectively communicate the importance of sun safety practices to adolescents and young adults. The chief risk factor for skin cancer is excessive exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation. Typically, sun safety practices begin with educational interventions to alert people to the risks of skin cancer and to the effectiveness of sunscreen use for reducing risk. Communications to adolescents and young adults that stress the gains that sunscreen use will bring them are important, such as freedom from concern about skin cancers or improvements in appearance, are likely to be more successful 4-8 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

than those that emphasize the risks. When risks of chronic illnesses are emphasized, it is important to stress their immediate adverse effects rather than their long-term risks because adolescents and young adults are especially influenced by immediate concerns. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

71. How does sleep correlate with health? Sleep is an important restorative activity. Adults who sleep for less than seven hours experience sleep problems and insomnia. For women, sleep disorders may be tied to hormonal levels related to menopause. Even children who sleep too little or too much incur health risks, including risk of early death. Insufficient sleep affects cognitive functioning, mood, job performance, and quality of life. Chronic insomnia can increase the risk of coronary heart disease; it increases blood pressure and deregulates stress physiology. It can also affect weight gain. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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# of Questions 71

Chapter 05 Health-Compromising Behaviors 1. In any kind of intervention, the _____ is the best predictor of success. A. physician B. spouse C. patient D. family Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

2. According to Fradklin et al., 2015, problem behaviors such as obesity, smoking, and alcoholism are: A. more prevalent in adolescents from low social classes than adolescents from high social classes. B. more prevalent in young men than young women. C. easier to treat medically than through social interventions. D. easier to quit for people low in socioeconomic status than people high in socioeconomic status. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

3. An excessive accumulation of fat in the body is known as A. obesity. B. bulimia. C. anorexia. D. diabetes. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4. Fat should ideally constitute about _____ percent of body tissue in women. A. 30–35 B. 6–13 C. 15–19 D. 20–27 Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

5. Obesity is a chief cause of A. lung cancer. B. memory loss. C. disability. D. drug abuse. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

6. _____ is an especially potent risk factor for cardiovascular diseases. A. Abdominally localized fat B. Localized fat in the hips C. Fat in the thighs D. Fat in the buttocks Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7. Fat tissue produces _____ that exacerbate diseases related to inflammatory processes. A. immunomodulatory proteins B. proinflammatory cytokines C. inflammatory smears D. epidermal keratins Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

8. Which of the following statements is true of obesity? A. Often overlooked risks of obesity are psychological distress and depression. B. Heightened levels of cytokines in obese people reduces the risk of cardiovascular disease. C. Women in high socioeconomic statuses are prone to obesity due to their consumption of high-fat foods. D. Surgical procedures, such as liposuction, are the best way to control obesity. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

9. The protein secreted by fat cells to signal neurons in the hypothalamus about the energy stores of fat in the body is called A. dopamine. B. albumin. C. leptin. 5-1 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

D. ghrelin. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

10. _____, a hunger-stimulating hormone, is secreted by specialized cells in the stomach. A. Ghrelin B. Leptin C. Albumin D. Dopamine Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

11. Obesity depends on both the number and size of fat cells, and moderately obese people are said to have A. a large number of small fat cells. B. an average number of small fat cells. C. a large number of large fat cells. D. an average number of large fat cells. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

12. Many obese people have high levels of _____, which promotes overeating due to increased hunger. A. dopamine B. serotonin C. basal insulin D. prenatal estrogen Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

13. _____ is a method of enhancing the efficiency of food use and lowering the metabolic rate of the body through successive cycles of dieting and weight gain. A. Yo-yo dieting B. Nutrition cycling C. Paleolithic dieting D. Controlled bingeing Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

14. In a _____ surgery, an adjustable gastric band is inserted surgically around the top of the stomach to create a small pouch in the upper stomach to reduce the stomach’s capacity to take in food. A. lumbar fusion B. lap band C. lobectomy D. mastectomy Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

15. Cognitive-behavioral techniques can produce weight losses of two pounds every week for up to _____ weeks, maintained over a two-year period. A. ten B. twenty C. five D. thirty Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

16. Women in which of the following age groups are most likely to practice behaviors related to eating disorders? A. 45–54 years of age B. 35–44 years of age C. 25–34 years of age D. 15–24 years of age Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

17. _____ is a condition that arises from an individual’s obsessive dieting and exercising in the pursuit of a body weight well below optimum level. A. Anorexia nervosa B. Bulimia C. Muscle dysmorphia D. Ischemia Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

18. Monica is obsessed with developing a figure like the idealized women’s bodies she sees in advertising, magazines, and other media. As a result, she eats very little. She wants to reduce her body weight to a level well below the ideal weight of a woman of her age, height, and body proportions. Monica’s behavior is characteristic of A. obsessive–compulsive disorder. B. binge eating. C. anorexia nervosa. D. muscle dysmorphia. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

19. Binge eating is usually triggered by A. negative emotions produced by stressful experiences. B. excessive exercise. C. hunger splurges in anorexic individuals. D. collagen that is produced in the cells of the stomach. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

20. _____ is a process by which the body increasingly adapts to the use of a substance, requiring larger and larger doses of it to obtain the same effects, and eventually reaching a plateau. A. Withdrawal B. Tolerance C. Metacognition D. Relapse Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

21. John was a chain smoker for ten years. He quit recently, and he has constantly fought against the urge to smoke again. This urge is especially strong when he is around other smokers. John’s recurring urge to smoke is an example of A. bulimia. B. tolerance. C. craving. D. anorexia. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

22. Individuals usually begin drinking to A. decrease their self-esteem. B. improve their cognitive functioning. C. avoid social occasions. D. enhance positive emotions. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

23. Which of the following is a temporary effect of consuming alcohol? A. lowered self-esteem B. increased cognitive functioning C. reduced anxiety D. increased metabolism Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

24. Compared to people with long-term drinking problems, late-onset problem drinkers are A. less likely to experience alcohol-related depression. B. less likely to be successfully treated. C. more likely to control their drinking on their own. D. more likely to relapse within the first three months after treatment for alcoholism. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

25. The first phase of treatment programs for hard-core alcoholics is A. self-monitoring. B. relapse prevention. C. detoxification. D. rehabilitation. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

26. _____ are used in the second stage of most treatment programs for alcoholism to address biological and environmental factors that cause alcoholism. A. Anti-alcoholic medications B. Independent therapy sessions C. Cognitive-behavioral techniques 5-3 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

D. Mindfulness meditation techniques Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

27. The occurrence of a major stressful event within the first _____ days after treatment can trigger relapse among apparently recovered alcoholics. A. 30 B. 60 C. 90 D. 120 Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

28. A meta-analysis of alcohol treatment outcome studies estimates that more than _____ percent of treated patients relapse within the first three months after treatment. A. 10 B. 25 C. 50 D. 75 Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

29. Alcohol treatment programs are more successful with A. people who have previously fought addictions to other substances. B. people who are high in socioeconomic status. C. female clients with histories of anorexia nervosa. D. male clients who are in their early twenties. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

30. Alcoholics Anonymous was one of the earliest _____ for people suffering from alcohol-related health problems. A. out-groups B. self-help groups C. for-profit organizations D. government-funded organizations Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

31. Which of the following describes placebo drinking? A. An individual limits the number of alcoholic drinks he or she consumes to three drinks a day. B. An individual takes anti-alcohol medication to reduce his or her drinking habits. C. An individual substitutes or alternates alcoholic drinks with nonalcoholic beverages. D. An individual alternates periods of binge drinking with periods of total abstinence. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

32. Which of the following components, if included, can produce up to a 40 percent treatment success rate for alcoholism? A. excluding relatives and employers from the treatment process B. increasing the length of treatment by several months C. gradually reducing alcohol consumption over a period of time D. instilling coping skills to manage environmental pressures Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

33. _____ is required to complement formal alcohol intervention efforts so more people can receive formal treatment. A. Collaborative therapy B. Social engineering C. Transactional analysis D. Therapy Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

34. Evaluations of alcohol prevention programs for adolescents suggest that such programs A. are expensive and ineffective. B. enhance participants’ sense of self-efficacy. C. have little influence on participants’ ability to resist peer pressure. D. encourage participants to enroll in self-help programs such as Alcoholics Anonymous. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

35. _____ is the single greatest cause of preventable death in developed countries by itself and in interaction with other risk factors. A. Obesity B. Alcoholism 5-4 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

C. Anorexia D. Smoking Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

36. Smoking accounts for more than _____ deaths every year in the United States. A. 400,000 B. 553,000 C. 500,000 D. 443,000 Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

37. In the United States, the most common cause of smoking-related mortality is A. liver cirrhosis. B. heart disease. C. lung cancer. D. stroke. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

38. Maxwell is a smoker. He works long hours for a low pay and has a considerable amount of stress at work. He suffers from high cholesterol and blood pressure. The doctor suspects that Maxwell’s problems may be related to his smoking habit. This is called the _____ effects of smoking. A. instantaneous B. extraneous C. converse D. synergistic Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

39. Which dangerous health behavior was highlighted by the first surgeon general’s report that was published in 1964? A. binge eating B. drinking C. smoking D. drug abuse Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

40. It is estimated that by 2050, three million men in _____ will die every year from the effects of tobacco. A. America B. India C. China D. Argentina Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

41. Individuals who possess genes that regulate the functioning of _____ are likely candidates for inheriting smoking influences. A. pentose B. dopamine C. nucleophile D. allele Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

42. Identifying oneself as a smoker A. reduces the chances of getting addicted to any other substance. B. increases an individual’s self-esteem. C. increases the chances of being a quitter. D. impedes the ability to quit smoking. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

43. _____ is used to engage neuroregulators that produce temporary improvements in performance. A. Heroin B. Bromide C. Alcohol D. Nicotine Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

44. Which among the following is reported to be the hardest addiction to stop? A. smoking B. alcoholism C. heroine addiction D. cocaine addiction Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

45. Which of the following is a long-term effect of abstaining from smoking? A. reduced energy levels B. increased muscle mass and stamina C. reduced self-esteem D. increased sense of mastery Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

46. Group interventions may not address the motives underlying smoking habits because A. smokers are already aware of the benefits of remaining abstinent. B. previous interventions have proven to be unsuccessful. C. smoking patterns are highly individualized. D. smokers prefer solitude. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

47. Which of the following statements best describes nicotine replacement therapy? A. A nicotine patch steadily releases doses of nicotine into the bloodstream to increase the chances of smoking cessation. B. A technique that teaches positive methods of communicating emotion, and handling conflict is used to avoid relapse. C. A combination of medication and cognitive-behavioral techniques are applied to inculcate self-monitoring habits. D. A treatment designed to restore and rehabilitate an individual’s level of functioning is employed to promote health and wellness. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

48. Mass media has dramatically changed attitudes toward smoking because it A. provides information to smokers about health effects, although it has little effect on their habit. B. promotes smoking as a habit adopted by people from high-class societies. C. promotes stress management programs that seem to have a great impact on reducing smoking habits. D. provides information about health habits that discourage nonsmokers from beginning to smoke. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

49. Ex-smokers are more likely to be successful over the short term if they A. reduce contact with their family. B. discourage their friends from smoking. C. have supportive friends who smoke. D. have a supportive partner. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

50. Adult smokers benefit from cognitive-behavioral interventions that A. include maintenance of the stimuli that elicit and maintain smoking. B. include self-monitoring techniques. C. undermine successful smoking cessation. D. expel alternative coping techniques. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

51. Brief interventions by _____ can bring about smoking cessation and control relapse. A. motivational speakers B. physicians C. employers D. government authorities Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

52. Which of the following is a component of social influence interventions? A. Materials are developed to convey a positive image of a smoker. B. A peer group is asked to debar a smoker until the frequency of smoking is reduced. C. Information on the effects of smoking is carefully constructed to appeal to adolescents. D. New experimental methods such as cognitive recalibration is used to reduce smoking. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

53. Social influence programs are known to reduce smoking rates for as long as _____ years. 5-6 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

A. thirteen B. seven C. ten D. four Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

54. _____ is a common outcome of prenatal exposure to secondhand smoke. A. Yellow nail syndrome B. Asperger syndrome C. Fetal alcohol syndrome D. Sudden infant death syndrome Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

55. Cognitive-behavioral therapy programs include training in eliciting effective support from families, friends, and coworkers. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

56. Often, merely monitoring drinking leads to a reduction in drinking. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

57. Restricting smoking to a particular place is an example of social engineering. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

58. Research shows that most alcoholics eventually receive some formal treatment for their addiction to alcohol. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

59. Alcohol interventions are increasingly being incorporated into freshman orientation programs in colleges. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

60. AlcoholEdu® is an on-campus alcohol prevention program used by more than 500 college and university campuses. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

61. MADD (Mothers Against Drunk Driving) was founded and is staffed by the families and friends of those killed by drunk drivers. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

62. Trying cigarettes make a person significantly more likely to use other drugs in the future. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

63. It is well established that commercial smoking cessation programs have higher cure rates. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

64. Passive smoking or secondhand smoke is a documented health risk. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

65. Describe the major characteristics of health-compromising behaviors. Many health-compromising behaviors share similar characteristics. Unhealthy behaviors such as drinking to excess, smoking, using illicit drugs, practicing unsafe sex, and taking dangerous risks begin in early adolescence and sometimes cluster together as part of a problem behavior syndrome. Many of these behaviors are tied to peer culture. These behaviors also tend to be pleasurable and provide relief from stress. Adolescents with a penchant for deviant behavior and with low self-esteem also show these behaviors. Socioeconomic status also has a big impact on the likelihood of an individual engaging in health-compromising behaviors. 5-7 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

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66. Describe the biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors implicated in alcohol abuse. Alcohol abuse is a great health risk. High blood pressure, stroke, cirrhosis of the liver, and some forms of cancer are a few significant biological risk factors. Psychologically, excessive alcohol consumption can lead to brain atrophy and, consequently, the deterioration of cognitive functioning. Socioculturally, alcohol abuse deteriorates the general health standards of a nation, and it costs billions of dollars every year due to lack of productivity. It also increases the use of health care resources to treat alcoholism. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

67. Explain the problem of relapse in the treatment of alcohol abuse. Which intervention strategies address this problem most effectively? Relapse occurs when an individual who has quit an addictive substance begins to reuse it by giving in to environmental temptations. Therefore, relapse prevention is a major concern in most intervention programs. Relapse prevention techniques help clients restructure their environment to remove temptation and develop coping strategies to deal with high-risk situations. Cognitive-behavioral techniques and relaxation techniques have proven to be successful intervention strategies to address alcohol abuse. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

68. Identify and discuss the synergistic effects of smoking on other health risk factors. Smoking enhances the detrimental effects of other health risk factors. Smoking and cholesterol interact to produce high rates of heart disease. Stress and smoking can also interact in dangerous ways. For example, nicotine can increase heart rate reactivity to stress in men and increase blood pressure responses to stress in women. Weight and smoking can also interact to increase mortality. Cigarette smokers who are thin are at an increased risk of mortality, compared with average-weight smokers. Smoking is a more likely habit among people who are depressed, and it interacts synergistically with depression to substantially increase risks of cancer. Smoking is also related to anxiety in adolescence. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

69. What are the factors associated with smoking in adolescents? Adolescents are more likely to start smoking if their parents smoke or if they are from a lower social class. Most adolescents begin smoking due to social pressures and if there is a major stressor in the family, such as parental separation or job loss. Once adolescents begin to smoke, the risks they perceive from smoking decline, and so smoking itself reduces perceptions of risk. Teenagers whose ideal self-image is close to that of a typical smoker is most likely to smoke. Low self-esteem, dependency, feelings of powerlessness, and social isolation increase the tendency to imitate others and begin smoking. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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# of Questions 69

Chapter 06 Stress 1. Stress is a _____ experience accompanied by predictable biochemical, physiological, cognitive, and behavioral changes that are directed either toward altering the stressful event or accommodating to its effects. A. positive physical B. negative physical C. positive emotional D. negative emotional Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

2. The process of primary appraisal involves the evaluation of one’s A. current emotional state. B. meaning of the event. C. coping ability. D. resources. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

3. In the context of appraisal of stressors, _____ is the assessment of a damage that has already been done, as for example being fired from a job. A. harm B. distraction C. threat D. reactivity Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4. In the context of appraisal of stressors, _____ is the assessment of possible future damage, as for example a person anticipates the problems that loss of income will create for him and his family. A. allostasis B. distraction C. harm D. threat Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

5. The process of secondary appraisal involves the evaluation of one’s A. current emotional state. B. perception of the event. C. personal resources. D. physical state in the past. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

6. When an organism perceives a threat, the fight-or-flight response is due to A. the constriction of the pulmonary arteries in the heart. B. the arousal of the parasympathetic nervous system. C. the arousal of the sympathetic nervous system and the endocrine system. D. excessive blood supply in the brain and the heart through blood vessels. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7. Which of the following statements is true according to Hans Selye’s general adaptation syndrome? A. An organism requires an external stimulus to mobilize itself when it confronts a stressor. B. Prolonged exposure to stress causes rejuvenation of an organism. C. An organism has different physiological patterns of reactions with respect to a stressor. D. The response to a threat is nonspecific with respect to a stressor. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

8. The first phase of the general adaptation syndrome is A. appraisal. B. exhaustion. C. resistance. D. alarm. 6-1 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

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9. The last phase of the general adaptation syndrome is A. resistance. B. alarm. C. appraisal. D. exhaustion. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

10. The correct sequence of phases of the general adaptation syndrome is A. alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. B. exhaustion, resistance, and alarm. C. resistance, alarm, and exhaustion. D. resistance, exhaustion, and alarm. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

11. According to Selye (1956, 1976), the _____ phase of the general adaptation syndrome is responsible for the person becoming mobilized to meet the threat. A. exhaustion B. flight C. resistance D. alarm Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

12. According to Selye (1956, 1976), the _____ phase of the general adaptation syndrome is responsible for the person making efforts to cope with the threat. A. exhaustion B. flight C. alarm D. resistance Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

13. According to Selye (1956, 1976), the _____ phase of the general adaptation syndrome occurs if the person fails to overcome the threat and depletes its physiological resources in the process of trying. A. alarm B. resistance C. exhaustion D. flight Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

14. According to its critics, Selye’s (1956, 1976) model A. fails to offer a general theory of reactions to a wide variety of stressors over time. B. fails to offer a physiological mechanism for the stress-illness relationship. C. places too much emphasis on individual differences in response to stress. D. fails to consider the role of psychological appraisal in stress. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

15. One of the criticisms of Selye’s general adaptation syndrome concerns the fact that _____ produce the same biological responses. A. all stressors B. all the phases C. not all the phases D. not all stressors Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

16. The _____ response to stress is especially characteristic of females, related to the release of the stress hormone, oxytocin, and may be necessary in the protection of offspring. A. awe-and-shock B. divide-and-conquer C. fight-or-flight D. tend-and-befriend 6-2 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

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17. The primary biological factor in the tend-and-befriend mechanism is A. HPA activation. B. oxytocin. C. cortisol. D. GSA. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

18. The rapid release of oxytocin in response to some stressful events, and its effects are especially influenced by A. lactose. B. pepsin. C. testosterone. D. estrogen. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

19. Animals with high levels of _____ are calmer and more relaxed, which may contribute to their social and nurturing behavior. A. lactose B. testosterone C. pepsin D. oxytocin Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

20. Of the four most important pathways by which stress affects health, the first one to occur is usually related to A. the use of health services. B. psychosocial resources. C. health behaviors. D. physiology. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

21. Of the four most important pathways by which stress affects health, the last one to occur is usually related to A. physiology. B. psychosocial resources. C. health behaviors. D. the use of health services. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

22. The correct order of the pathways by which stress affects health is A. use of health services, psychosocial resources, health behaviors, and physiology. B. psychosocial resources, health behaviors, physiology, and use of health services. C. health behaviors, physiology, use of health services, and psychosocial resources. D. physiology, health behaviors, psychosocial resources, and use of health services. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

23. When events are perceived as harmful or threatening, they are first identified by the A. hypothalamus. B. medulla oblongata. C. isthmus. D. cerebral cortex. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

24. The adrenal cortex produces _____ in response to stress. A. epinephrine and norepinephrine B. glucocorticoids C. endogenous opioids D. ACTH Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

25. Activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis results in the secretion of 6-3 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

A. catecholamines. B. norepinephrine. C. cortisol. D. pepsin. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

26. _____ is the degree of change that occurs in autonomic, neuroendocrine, and/or immune responses as a result of stress. A. Stressor B. Physiology C. Oxytocin D. Reactivity Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

27. Studies conducted to test individual differences in stress reactivity, such as the one conducted by S. Cohen and colleagues in 2002, suggested that _____ is an important factor that influences the stress-illness relationship. A. psychobiological reactivity to stress B. biological control of stress moderators C. secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) D. activation of hypothalamic-pituitary adrenal (HPA) axis Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

28. _____ refers to the physiological costs of chronic exposure to the physiological changes that result from repeated or chronic stress. A. Perceived stress B. Coping style C. Chronic strain D. Allostatic load Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

29. A high waist-to-hip ratio is an indication of a A. high pendicular load. B. low pendicular load. C. high allostatic load. D. low allostatic load. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

30. Which of the following situations would be least stressful? A. Jill has filed for divorce after 25 years of marriage. B. Joe arrives at his first class of the day to find that the professor will administer a pop quiz. C. Linda, a full-time college student, learns that she will have to find a second part-time job because of cuts in financial aid packages. D. Karl, a file clerk, has been working intensively for three weeks on a new job responsibility. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

31. Studies of vulnerable populations, for example children, older adults, etc., who are exposed to a chronic stressor indicate that they A. eventually habituate to high levels of the stressor. B. exhibit little adaptation to chronic stressors. C. exhibit few cognitive decrements but do show signs of helplessness. D. eventually learn to change their task strategies and focus to accommodate the noise in their environments. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

32. The _____ paradigm takes people into the laboratory, exposes them to short-term stressful events, and then observes the impact of that stress on their physiological, neuroendocrine, and psychological responses. A. acute stress B. induced disease C. SRRS D. hassles Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

33. Professor Woster brings his participants into the laboratory, attaches electrodes and sensors to them, and has them play a 6-4 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

computer game. One group of participants hears six loud bursts of noise at random intervals. The second group hears the same bursts of noise also at random intervals, but just before each burst, a bluebird flies across the computer screen. Professor Woster is using the _____ paradigm to study the effect of noise on physiological responses. A. disease induction B. stressful life events C. acute stress D. daily stress Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

34. According to T.H. Holmes and R.H. Rahe (1967), an event is potentially stressful if it A. is a positive event. B. assists one’s self-regulation. C. bolsters one’s self-concept. D. requires adaptation. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

35. Which of the following would be considered a stressful life event? A. lack of career fulfillment B. a significant change in job responsibilities C. questioning one’s identity and goals D. a religious festival in a neighboring nation Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

36. _____ is a syndrome that results after exposure to a stressor of extreme magnitude, marked by emotional numbing and other symptoms, such as hyperalertness, sleep disturbance, or impaired concentration. A. General adaptation syndrome B. Acute stress paradigm C. Post-traumatic stress disorder D. Transtheoretical behavior change Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

37. The relationship between scores on the stressful life events inventory and illness is A. negligible. B. modest. C. robust. D. unpredictable. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

38. Which of the following is a valid criticism of Holmes and Rahe’s (1967) stressful life events inventory? A. It is not correlated with illness and health behaviors. B. It fails to consider individual differences in the experience and reporting of events. C. It only counts unresolved stressful events. D. It fails to consider that the number of illnesses experienced over a period of time is more important than the severity and the duration of these illnesses. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

39. Which of the following statements is true of T.H. Holmes and R.H. Rahe’s (1967) stressful life events inventory? A. Some of the items on the inventory list are vague. B. Individual differences in the experience of events are taken into account. C. It states that sudden, unexpected, and uncontrollable events are less stressful. D. It assesses whether events have been resolved or not. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

40. The occurrence of daily hassles A. bears no relationship to physical health. B. reduces psychological well-being over the short term. C. markedly enhances reports of physical symptoms. D. are poor predictors of physical health than major life events. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

A. have a cumulative effect on health and illness. B. are not confounded with mental and physical illness. C. have an objective, but not subjective, component. D. do not have any considerable effect on most people. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

42. Risky families are those that A. are high in conflict or abuse and low in warmth and nurturance. B. have financial problems. C. experience major, chronic, or recurrent stress as opposed to more modest family stress. D. have no long-term impact on the family members. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

43. Terry is involved in a long-term but ultimately unsatisfying relationship with Lee. This is an example of A. a stressor. B. life events. C. daily hassles. D. chronic stress. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

44. Chronic stress appears to A. contribute to psychological distress and physical illness. B. habituate people to negative life events. C. be unrelated to negative life events. D. be unrelated to illness. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

45. Workers who suffer from work overload _____ compared with workers who do not experience overload. A. feel less stressed B. practice better health habits C. have a better circadian rhythm D. sustain more health risks Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

46. Karoshi is a Japanese term that refers to A. sudden nocturnal death. B. death from overwork. C. stress-related mental illness. D. euthanasia. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

47. A relationship between discrimination and poor health has been found for A. Caucasian women. B. happily-married women. C. Asian adults and children. D. African American men and women. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

48. _____ occurs when a person has no clear idea of what to do and no idea of the standards used for evaluating work. A. Conversion hysteria B. Delay behavior C. Role conflict D. Role ambiguity Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

49. _____ is defined as a conflict that occurs when a person receives inconsistent information about work tasks or standards from different individuals. A. Emotional conflict B. Conversion hysteria C. Role conflict D. Role set 6-6 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

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50. Mike has been having difficulty meeting the demands of the two executives who oversee his work area and communicate different expectations. One executive is concerned about production and constantly urges Mike to meet performance quotas. The other is concerned about quality assurance and would like Mike to slow down and focus on the quality of his work. This is an example of A. role ambiguity. B. role conflict. C. work pressure. D. overwork. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

51. _____ is a model of job stress developed by R. Karasek and his associates that suggests that high needs, low authority, and little guidance at work enhance risk for ill health, especially coronary artery disease. A. Demand-control-support model B. Commonsense model of illness C. Comprehensive intervention model D. Stimulus-control interventions Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

52. Researchers investigating the effects of multiple roles on women conclude that A. outside employment can be harmful for women’s well-being. B. having control and flexibility over the work environment increases the likelihood of stress. C. having adequate child care reduces the likelihood of stress. D. combining motherhood with employment can help improve self-esteem. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

53. Who among the following is most likely to experience illness due to the stress associated with her job? A. Susie, a single mother of a five-year-old boy, works long hours in a low-paying position. B. Mary Lou, a married mother of two young children, works in a low-paying service job 40 hours per week. C. Sally, a single mother of a five-year-old girl, is a lawyer with flexible hours. D. Miranda, a married mother with two young children, is a lawyer with flexible hours. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

54. Who among the following is least likely to experience illness due to the stress associated with her job? A. Susie, a single mother of a five-year-old boy, works long hours in a low-paying position. B. Mary Lou, a married mother of two young children, works in a low-paying service job 40 hours per week. C. Sally, a single mother of a five-year-old girl, is a lawyer with flexible hours. D. Miranda, a married mother with two young children, is a lawyer with flexible hours. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

55. The earliest contribution to stress research was Hans Selye’s fight-or-flight response. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

56. During the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome, an organism makes efforts to cope with a threat. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

57. Research suggests that habituation may not occur after exposure to long-term stressors and that the immune system may be compromised by long-term stress. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

58. Studies conducted to test individual differences in stress reactivity have suggested that psychobiological reactivity to stress is an important factor in determining the likelihood that stress will contribute to illness. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

59. The buildup of allostatic load can be assessed by a number of indicators, such as reducing weight and lower blood pressure. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

60. Chronic strain is strongly related to depression. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

61. African American men are more likely to die from a heart attack than white men. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

62. For both men and women, the research on multiple roles is converging on the idea that stress is higher when one finds meaning in one’s life. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

63. Research on multiple roles and stress among working parents indicates that men and women report being distressed by similar types of events. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

64. Define and describe stressors and the methods of appraisal of stressors. Stressful events are called stressors. Stress is the consequence of a person’s appraisal processes: primary appraisal occurs as a person is trying to understand what the event is and what it will mean. Events may be appraised for their harm, threat, or challenge. Secondary appraisals assess whether personal resources are sufficient to meet the demands of the environment. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

65. Explain how the sympathetic-adrenomedullary (SAM) and hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenocortical (HPA) axis are implicated in the physiological response to stress. Sympathetic arousal stimulates the medulla of the adrenal glands, which, in turn, secrete the catecholamines epinephrine (EP) and norepinephrine (NE). These effects result in the cranked-up feeling we usually experience in response to stress: increased blood pressure, increased heart rate, increased sweating, and constriction of peripheral blood vessels, among other changes. The hypothalamus releases corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH), which stimulates the pituitary gland to secrete adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which, in turn, stimulates the adrenal cortex to release glucocorticoids. Of these, cortisol is especially significant. It acts to conserve stores of carbohydrates and helps reduce inflammation in the case of an injury. It also helps the body return to its steady state following stress. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

66. What make events stressful? Discuss. Negative events produce more stress than do positive events. Uncontrollable or unpredictable events are more stressful than controllable or predictable ones especially if they are also unexpected. Ambiguous events are more stressful than clear-cut events. When a potential stressor is ambiguous, a person cannot take action, but must instead devote energy to trying to understand the stressor, which can be a time-consuming, resource-sapping task. Overloaded people experience more stress than people with fewer tasks to perform. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

67. Define daily hassles. How do they affect physical and psychological health? Daily hassles are minor stressful events, and they are believed to have a cumulative effect in increasing the likelihood of illness. They affect physical and psychological health in several ways. First, the cumulative impact of small stressors may wear a person down, leading to illness. Second, such events may aggravate reactions to major life events or chronic stress to produce distress or illness. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

68. Some working parents cope well with their multiple roles, whereas others do not. Explain the factors that are associated 6-8 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

with positive and negative outcomes in juggling family and work roles. Because concessions to working parents are rarely made at work and because mothers take on more household tasks and child care than fathers, home and work responsibilities may conflict with each other, increasing stress. Working women who have children at home have higher levels of cortisol, higher cardiovascular reactivity, and more home strain than those without children at home. Single women raising children on their own are most at risk for health problems, whereas women who are happily married are less likely to show these negative effects. Combining motherhood with employment can be beneficial for women’s health and well-being, improving self-esteem, feelings of self-efficacy, and life satisfaction. Being a parent also confers resistance to colds. Studies show that men are more distressed by financial strain and work stress, whereas women are more distressed by adverse changes in the home. For both men and women, the research on multiple roles is converging on the idea that stress is lower when one finds meaning in one’s life. The protective effects of employment, marriage, and parenting on psychological distress and the beneficial effects of social support on health attest to the beneficial effects of social roles. When these sources of meaning and pleasure in life are challenged, as through role conflict and role overload, health may suffer. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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# of Questions 68

Chapter 07 Coping, Resilience, and Social Support 1. Which of the following statements best defines coping? A. the information from others that one is loved and cared for, esteemed and valued, and part of a network of communications and mutual obligations B. the belief that one can determine one’s own behavior, influence one’s environment, and bring about desired outcomes C. the modification of how stress is experienced and the impact it has on illness and other aspects of life D. the thoughts and behaviors used to manage the internal and external demands of situations that are appraised as stressful Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

2. The relationship between coping and a stressful event is a _____ process. A. divergent B. synergistic C. dynamic D. static Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

3. Which of the following is an important aspect of coping? A. suppression of emotional reactions to stress B. complete avoidance of stressful events C. tolerance of harmful environmental conditions D. voluntary actions taken to confront stressful events Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4. Individuals who display high negative affectivity are A. likely to have a disease-prone personality. B. likely to seek medical care when they are fatally ill. C. likely to reject medical treatments that cure terminal diseases. D. likely to create a FALSE impression of good health. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

5. Neuroticism coupled with social inhibition and isolation is sometimes referred to as the _____ personality. A. Type A B. Type B C. Type D D. Type E Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

6. Positive emotional states are known to reduce levels of _____, which is a stress indicator. A. serotonin B. cortisol C. dopamine D. oxytocin Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7. Which of the following is a characteristic of optimism? A. It encourages individuals to accept adverse environmental conditions. B. It encourages people to be self-reliant when coping with stress. C. It promotes active and persistent coping efforts in individuals. D. It fosters a sense of external control over circumstances. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

8. Psychological control is the belief that A. people positively affirm values that make them feel better about themselves and show lower physiological activity and distress. B. one can determine one’s own behavior, influence one’s environment, and bring about desired outcomes. C. opportunities for rest, relaxation, and renewal can help people cope effectively with stressors. D. people strive for a state of mind marked by heightened awareness of the present and focus on the moment. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

9. When optimists’ expectations are not met or when they face resistance in pursuing their goals, they are likely to experience A. long-term physical conditions. B. short-term psychological problems. C. long-term psychological problems. D. short-term physiological conditions. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

10. People vary with regard to whether they are fundamentally optimistic or pessimistic in nature. The test developed to measure this dispositional optimism is known as the A. Acceptance and Commitment Therapy. B. Cognitive Behavioral Test. C. Brief COPE. D. Life Orientation Test. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

11. Sarah is scheduled for a hysterectomy. A health psychologist visits her in the hospital and finds that she is worried about the pain involved in the surgery. The psychologist clearly explains the procedure to Sarah and answers her questions to ease her worries. He also teaches her a relaxation technique that she can use before the surgery to control her anxiety. The psychologist explains the drug-delivery method to her so she understands when and how much of the pain-relief drug she will receive. In this case, the health psychologist is conducting a(n) _____ intervention. A. control-enhancing B. informational support C. expressive-writing D. tangible assistance Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

12. _____ maintains that through collaboration with family and friends or with medical practitioners, one may successfully cope with a stressful event. A. Self-control B. Secondary control C. Primary control D. Thought control Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

13. High self-esteem is closely related to A. weak defense mechanisms. B. poor health behaviors. C. high levels of stress indicators. D. low levels of HPA axis activity. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

14. Which of the following is true of people with high self-esteem? A. They are more likely to be providers of social support than receivers of it. B. They are likely to contract psychological disorders. C. They are likely to require major medical intervention for congenital diseases. D. They are likely to risk their health through smoking or excessive drinking. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

15. A personality style characterized by optimism, a sense of control, conscientiousness, self-esteem, and positivity is the _____ personality. A. disease-prone B. selective-coping C. health-prone D. stress-preventive Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

16. Surveys show that nearly half the people in the United States deal with their health problems through A. writing. B. prayer. C. meditation. D. yoga.

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17. _____ is a psychological resource that not only allows individuals to confront and cope with stressors but also helps them bounce back from bad experiences and adapt flexibly to the changing demands of stressful situations. A. Extraversion B. Mindfulness C. Resilience D. Conscientiousness Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

18. Organized religion provides a sense of _____ to people. A. inhibition B. negative affectivity C. institutionalism D. group identity Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

19. _____ is a propensity to deal with stressful events in a particular way. A. Primary response style B. Individual difference C. Direct effect D. Coping style Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

20. James is a lawyer who used to work at the World Trade Center until the 9/11 incident took place. He survived the building collapse but was diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) soon after. Over the next few months, he spent time gathering information on the attack, talking to other survivors, and organizing resources for them. Which of the following coping styles is James using? A. avoidant B. projection C. approach D. regression Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

21. _____ involves efforts to regulate emotions experienced due to a stressful event. A. Emotion-focused coping B. Problem-focused coping C. Appraisal-focused coping D. Proactive coping Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

22. Which of the following statements is true of emotion-focused coping? A. It is more useful in the long term than while coping with daily life stressors. B. It leads people to affirm important aspects of their identity. C. It helps people anticipate and act against potential stressors. D. It is most beneficial when applied to work-related problems. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

23. When people anticipate potential stressors and act in advance either to prevent them or to reduce their impact, it is known as A. problem-focused coping. B. proactive coping. C. appraisal-focused coping. D. emotional approach coping. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

24. People living in low socioeconomic circumstances who are unable to modify the stressors that affect them may be especially benefitted by _____ reappraisal. A. positive B. detached C. negative D. desegregated Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

25. Which of the following is assessed by the Brief COPE? A. inflammatory responses to relaxation therapies B. health effects of emotional disclosure C. commonly used coping styles for managing stressful events D. potential costs of receiving social support and enhancing emotional support Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

26. Compared to people low in socioeconomic status (SES), people who are high in socioeconomic status have A. more medical and psychiatric disorders. B. lower physical activity. C. more negative events or realities. D. lower mortality rates. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

27. Which of the following is a successful coping outcome? A. tolerating negative realities B. extricating from relationships with others C. wavering in one’s emotional equilibrium D. maintaining a negative self-image Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

28. Coping efforts are considered to be successful if they A. provoke the stress regulatory system. B. increase the physiological indicators of arousal. C. restrict a person from performing desired activities. D. reduce psychological distress. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

29. A method of intervention based on confronting traumatic and stressful events in one’s life by communicating them via text is known as A. relaxation therapy. B. autobiographic writing. C. cognitive-behavior therapy. D. expressive writing. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

30. A college professor of psychology had his class write a paper about the most traumatic and stressful events in their lives. Although this may have caused immediate psychological distress to the students, the professor was confident that the longterm stress related to these events would eventually reduce. In this case, the professor had most likely conducted a(n) _____ intervention with his class. A. expressive writing B. control-enhancing C. stress inoculation D. debriefing Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

31. The goal of acceptance and commitment therapy (ACT) is to A. help notice thoughts from a distance and avoid response to them. B. teach people to ignore their thoughts in a mindful manner. C. change the private experience of stress and maintain commitment. D. help people challenge their thoughts directly. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

32. _____ can undermine defensive reactions to threats. A. Self-actualization B. Self-control C. Self-affirmation D. Self-reliance Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

33. _____ make use of techniques devised by health psychologists to teach people how to identify stressors and reduce their 7-4 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

impact. A. Social support interventions B. Stress management programs C. Biopsychosocial exercises D. Religious interventions Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

34. In the self-monitoring phase of the Combat Stress Now (CSN) program, students are trained to A. recognize and eliminate the negative self-talk they go through when they face stressful events. B. focus on what happens just before they experience feelings of stress. C. observe their own behavior closely and to record the circumstances that they find most stressful. D. experience their stressful events in a strong manner to understand the extent of the symptoms. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

35. Recording negative self-statements or irrational thoughts that accompany a stressful experience usually occurs in the _____ phase of the Combat Stress Now (CSN) program. A. acquiring skills B. completing take-home assignments C. engaging in positive self-talk and self-instruction D. setting new goals Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

36. _____ forces a person to distinguish among stressful events that need to be avoided, tolerated, or overcome. A. Goal setting B. Time management C. Relaxation training D. Self-instruction Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

37. In stress management interventions, _____ helps people set specific goals, establish priorities, and learn what to ignore. A. self-instruction B. emotional support C. time management D. tangible assistance Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

38. Sarah is taking a stress management class. Her instructor provides her with a variety of techniques to combat stress and identify the stress carriers in her environment. Sarah is instructed to try the techniques to identify the ones that work best for her so she can confront stressful situations. In this case, the instructor is using _____ training. A. promotional B. relaxation C. remedial D. assertiveness Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

39. _____ is defined as information from others that one is loved and cared for, esteemed and valued, and part of a network of communication and mutual obligations. A. Informational support B. Expressive writing C. Palliative care D. Social support Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

40. _____ is a form of social support that involves the provision of services, financial assistance, or goods. A. Emotional support B. Tangible assistance C. Invisible support D. Informational assistance Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

41. A patient with AIDS decides to approach his friend, who is a health therapist, for treatment. He feels that his therapist friend is able to help him in ways that his family is unable to. The therapist helps him find ways to cope with the disease and 7-5 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

the resulting social pressure. This is an example of A. psychological control. B. informational support. C. tangible assistance. D. emotional support. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

42. Providing emotional support involves A. supplying an individual with factual and informational knowledge about a stressful situation. B. giving material support to an individual in a stressful situation. C. assisting an individual without his or her knowledge. D. reassuring an individual that he or she is valuable and cared for. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

43. Invisible support is when A. one receives help from another but is unaware of it. B. there is a perception that social support will be available. C. there is a provision of material assistance. D. one receives reassurance that he or she is a valuable person. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

44. Studies have found that social support has beneficial effects on the _____ system. A. lymphatic B. muscular C. integumentary D. endocrine Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

45. The _____ hypothesis maintains that social support is generally beneficial during nonstressful as well as stressful times. A. matching B. working C. buffering D. direct effects Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

46. What does the buffering hypothesis state about the moderation of stress by social support? A. Psychological stress cannot be effectively moderated through social support. B. Social support is equally beneficial during stressful as well as nonstressful periods. C. Humans are the only effective sources of social support. D. Social support offers little benefit in periods of low stress. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

47. According to research on social support, which of the following is one of the best protectors against stress? A. having a large house B. having a busy career C. having a child D. having a satisfying marriage Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

48. Experiencing the divorce of one’s parents in childhood predicts A. excessive resilience in adolescence. B. premature death in middle age. C. cardiovascular diseases in old age. D. early aging. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

49. Different kinds of stressful events create different needs, and social support is most effective when it meets those needs. This is called the A. direct effects hypothesis. B. buffering hypothesis. C. matching hypothesis. D. working hypothesis. 7-6 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

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50. The benefits of social support are greatest when A. an individual about to undergo an uncomfortable medical procedure receives invisible support. B. the person from whom one is seeking support is perceived to be responsive to one’s needs. C. the person who is receiving the support has at least above average intelligence. D. an individual does not have a problem but finds the appropriate form of social support. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

51. Negative and competitive social interactions are associated with A. chronic inflammation. B. low levels of inflammation. C. normal levels of inflammation. D. high levels of inflammation. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

52. Inflammation in response to a short-term stressor can be A. inhibited. B. painful. C. adaptive. D. maladaptive. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

53. When an individual grows up in a harsh family, he or she displays A. resilience in handling relationships during old age. B. greater coping mechanisms in stressful situations during adulthood. C. a risk of developing chronic illnesses during childhood. D. strong inflammatory response to stress in adolescence. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

54. _____ social contact may actually worsen the experience of stress. A. Negative B. Overly passive C. Modest D. Overly intrusive Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

55. Health psychologists view social support as an important resource in A. multimodal prevention. B. primary prevention. C. secondary prevention. D. tertiary prevention. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

56. Emotional reactions, including anger and depression, are part of the coping process. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

57. Negative affectivity has been related to alcoholism, depression, and suicidal behavior but not to poor health. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

58. Optimistic people use problem-focused coping and seek social support from others. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

59. People with strong spiritual beliefs have greater life satisfaction and a slower course of illness than those who do not hold strong spiritual convictions. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

60. Receiving social support from one’s parents in early life has little effect on one’s coping abilities and health in 7-7 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

adulthood. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

61. Celebrating positive events with other people improves mood in the short term but does not show significant benefits over the long term. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

62. It is more beneficial to use emotion-focused coping while dealing with work-related problems. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

63. Mindfulness engages the prefrontal cortical regions of the brain, which regulate affect and downregulate activity in the limbic areas related to anxiety and other negative emotions. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

64. Emotional support is most beneficial when it comes from experts who are responsive to an individual’s needs. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

65. Networking may be an added source of social support for people, but those who use it to express distress may drive others away. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

66. Explain coping and the relationship between personality and coping. Coping is defined as the thoughts and behaviors used to manage the internal and external demands of stressful situations. Coping has several important characteristics. The relationship between coping and a stressful event is a dynamic process. It is not a one-time action that an individual takes, but a set of responses that occur over time, by which the environment and the individual influence each other. Another important aspect of coping is its breadth. Emotional reactions, including anger or depression, are part of the coping process as are actions that are voluntarily undertaken to confront the event. The personality characteristics that each person brings to a stressful event influence how he or she will cope with that event. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

67. Explain the term stress moderators, and provide an example of a stress moderator. Stress moderators are personal and circumstantial factors that modify how stress is experienced and the effects it has. Moderators of the stress experience may have an impact on stress itself, on the relation between stress and psychological responses, on the relation between stress and illness, and on the degree to which a stressful experience intrudes into other aspects of life. Social support, self-esteem, and a sense of humor are resources that act as stress moderators. For example, having a supportive life partner while undergoing treatment for a disease can act as a stress moderator. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

68. Explain the Combat Stress Now (CSN) program, and cite a few advantages of using this program. The CSN program is a stress management program that makes use of the various phases of education, skill acquisition, and practice to overcome stress. The phases in this program provide instruction on identifying stressors, monitoring stress, identifying stress antecedents, avoiding negative self-talk, completing take-home assignments, acquiring skills, setting new goals, engaging in positive self-talk and self-instruction, and using other cognitive-behavioral techniques. The advantages of using this program are that it imparts an array of valuable skills for living in a world with many sources of stress, it helps individuals find a particular technique that works for him or her, and it aids in effectively dealing with stress by improving mental and physical health. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

69. Define social support, and elucidate the different forms of social support. Social support is defined as information from others that one is loved and cared for, esteemed and valued, and part of a network of communication and mutual obligations. Social support can come from parents, a spouse or partner, other relatives, friends, social and community contacts, and pets. Social support can take any of several forms. 7-8 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Tangible assistance involves the provision of material support such as services, financial assistance, or goods. Family and friends can provide informational support about stressful events. Supportive friends and family can provide emotional support by reassuring the person that he or she is a valuable individual who is cared for. When one receives beneficial help from another but is unaware of receiving the support or of its source, it is called invisible support. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

70. What is a biopsychosocial pathway, and how is it beneficial in promoting health? Biopsychosocial pathways are channels of social support by which social contacts exert beneficial or health-compromising effects. Studies suggest that social support has beneficial effects on the cardiovascular, endocrine, and immune systems. Social support can reduce physiological and neuroendocrine responses to stress. Psychologists often study the effects of social support through the acute stress paradigm. This paradigm takes people into the laboratory and puts them through stressful tasks. It then measures their biological stress responses. Social support is tied to reduced cortisol responses to stress, which can have beneficial effects on illness. Social support is also associated with better immune functioning. These biopsychosocial pathways provide the links between social support and reduced risk of illness. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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# of Questions 70

Chapter 08 Using Health Services 1. _____ are convinced that normal bodily symptoms are indicators of illness. A. Lay practitioners B. Medical students C. Hypochondriacs D. Neurotics Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

2. Medical students’ disease is an example of the role of _____ in the recognition of symptoms. A. individual differences B. mood fluctuations C. attentional differences D. situational factors Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

3. After Dr. Woldt’s class on detecting and diagnosing meningitis, several interns inform him that they have experienced similar symptoms in recent times. The interns’ belief that they have symptoms of meningitis represents a phenomenon known as A. fibrocystic syndrome. B. Hodgkin’s disease. C. disease carrier syndrome. D. medical students’ disease. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4. Symptoms are more likely to be detected when A. a situation is interesting and motivating. B. the environment is highly distracting. C. attention is directed toward the body. D. attention is directed toward vigorous physical activity. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

5. Paul lives alone, has very few friends, and is unhappy with his work life. He constantly complains of back pains and headaches. He is very distracted and finds it difficult to relax. Which of the following factors in recognizing symptoms does Paul exemplify? A. individual differences B. attentional differences C. situational factors D. mood fluctuations Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

6. Accelerated heartbeat and fatigue are typical physiological changes related to A. stress. B. mood. C. situational factors. D. attentional differences. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7. People with negative expectations or pessimistic outlooks are likely to A. report more symptoms and perceive themselves as vulnerable to future illness. B. be superstitious and rely on supernatural treatments for their symptoms or illness. C. ignore symptoms until they become debilitating. D. report fewer illness-related memories and fewer symptoms. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

8. The coherent conceptions of diseases and afflictions that are acquired through the media, through personal experience, and from family and friends who have experience with similar disorders are known as A. illness representations. B. medical delays. 8-1 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

C. secondary gains. D. delay behaviors. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

9. Illness representations or schemas are acquired through A. financial strain, disruptions in personal relationships, and other stressors that lead people to believe they are ill. B. fewer illness-related memories and fewer symptoms. C. people’s interpretations of their symptoms and their decisions to seek treatment. D. commonsense beliefs about symptoms and illnesses that result in organized illness representations. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

10. A symptom is likely to prompt an individual to seek treatment if A. it can be cured easily. B. mobility is unaffected. C. the pain is insignificant. D. it affects a valued organ. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

11. Coherent conceptions of illness are acquired from A. the fear of fatality as a result of an illness. B. those who are unaware of a disorder. C. those who have had experience with a similar disorder. D. individuals who self-prescribe medication. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

12. The _____ model is important because it lends coherence to a person’s comprehension of the illness experience. A. commonsense B. health belief C. illness D. transtheoretical Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

13. The detection of symptoms, their interpretation, and the use of health services are heavily influenced by _____ processes. A. ossification B. social C. psychological D. physical Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

14. According to commonsense models of illness, which of the following statements describes a timeline? A. the length of time that an illness is expected to last B. the symptoms and treatments of an illness and its consequences C. the period of time between the detection of an illness and the start of treatment D. the cogent representation of illness in lay referral networks Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

15. According to commonsense models of illness, the label for an illness is its A. consequence. B. cause. C. cure. D. identity. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

16. _____ is believed to be caused by multiple factors, including health habits, and is long in duration, often with severe consequences. A. Terminal illness B. Acute illness C. Chronic illness D. Cyclic illness Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

17. A component of an illness’s schema involves perceptions of the range of symptoms, treatments associated with the disease, and its implications for quality of life. This is known as the _____ of the disease. A. identity B. consequence C. cure D. cause Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

18. The _____ model of illness is represented by alternating periods of either no symptoms or many symptoms. A. acute B. chronic C. cyclic D. terminal Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

19. Herpes is an example of the _____ model of illness. A. acute B. chronic C. cyclic D. terminal Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

20. According to the commonsense models of illness, an individual’s belief about the possibility of managing or treating an illness is termed A. cause/source. B. identity/name. C. consequence/symptoms. D. control/cure. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

21. Samara is diagnosed with the flu. She does not require intensive treatment, and the illness will not have any long-term consequences. She only requires rest and a strictly controlled diet to recover from it. Which of the following models of illness describes Samara’s experience? A. acute illness B. cyclic illness C. neurotic illness D. chronic illness Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

22. According to the commonsense models of illness, its _____ are the factors that an individual believes give rise to an illness. A. coherence B. consequences C. causes D. identities Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

23. Which of the following symptoms is most likely to occur just before the onset of menstruation? A. color blindness B. sore throat C. swollen breasts D. abnormal binging Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

24. Which of the following results in the misrepresentation of health information? A. A patient’s conception of his or her illness is correct, but the health care provider ignores his or her symptoms. B. A patient’s conceptions of his or her illness differs from the health care provider’s conception of it. C. A patient’s understanding of his or her illness is based on what the health care provider tells him or her. D. A patient’s understanding of his or her illness changes based on the information provided by lay referral networks. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

25. Young children are more likely to require health services because A. it is more affordable and well organized. B. it is mandatory under the Affordable Care Act. C. underweight babies need to reach normal weight. D. they develop a number of infectious diseases. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

26. Bruce has been feeling increasingly fatigued even when he exerts himself mildly. He discusses his condition with his neighbor, Sam, who also suffers from a similar problem. Sam tells him that a large dose of vitamin B complex will eradicate the symptoms. Bruce tries Sam’s remedy and experiences a gradual improvement in his condition. This type of consultation is an example of A. traditional medicine. B. cognitive behavioral therapy. C. a disease prototype. D. a lay referral network. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

27. Maria is a 70-year-old woman. She has not had a formal education, but she is regarded as highly knowledgeable in illnesses, childbirth, and traditional medicine. Since she has personal wisdom in medical matters, she is known to be a A. medical specialist. B. lay practitioner. C. community nurse. D. social worker. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

28. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using the Internet for health care information? A. Most physicians do not trust the information provided online. B. Inaccurate information on the Web can make symptoms worse. C. No health care information can be found on the Internet. D. The medical information available online tends to focus exclusively on prenatal care. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

29. According to Leventhal, Diefenbach, and Leventhal, which of the following is a difference between how women and men access medical services? A. Women report symptoms more often than do men because they are more sensitive to the changes in their bodies. B. Women, unlike men, refuse to seek treatment for painful symptoms and diseases because of social conditioning. C. Men, unlike women, refuse to seek treatment for symptoms because they have stronger homeostatic mechanisms. D. Men access medical services more often than do women because they are more vulnerable to diseases and painful symptoms. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

30. The frequency of illness and use of health services decline substantially during A. childhood. B. young adulthood. C. middle age. D. old age. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

31. Certain ethnic communities incorporate beliefs about the causes and cures of diseases that would be regarded as supernatural or superstitious by traditional medicine. This is characteristic of A. home remedial techniques. B. commonsense models of illness. C. health belief models. D. lay referral networks. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

32. The use of the Internet for health care information may be beneficial because A. it is used by physicians to update their own knowledge on health care. B. it constitutes a lay referral network of its own. C. it is the most accurate source of information. 8-4 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

D. it is easier to get appropriate treatment information from the Internet than from a physician. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

33. Women use health care services more often because A. their medical care is more fragmented. B. health care is cheaper for them. C. the government has mandated regular health checkups for them. D. they are more prone to acquiring terminal diseases than are men. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

34. The Affordable Care Act attempts to A. form medical unions to protest against the poor medical care provided to the underprivileged. B. standardize hospital management and medical care practices throughout the United States. C. provide medicines at subsidized rates. D. bridge the gap between medical service use by the rich and by the poor. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

35. Medicare is a federally administered system of health insurance available to the A. disabled. B. ethnic minorities. C. elderly. D. underprivileged. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

36. Medicaid is a federally administered system of health insurance available to the A. disabled. B. ethnic minorities. C. elderly. D. underprivileged. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

37. The biggest gap between the rich and the poor in the use of medical services is reflected in the A. budget cuts that have restricted access to Medicare programs. B. use of preventive health services. C. use of lay referral networks. D. availability of emergency care services. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

38. The health belief model predicts the treatment-seeking behavior of A. people who have been serving in the armed forces. B. people lacking resources and health care services. C. people who belong to certain ethnic minorities. D. people with money and access to health services. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

39. According to social psychological factors, the use of health care services is influenced chiefly by the actions of one’s A. spouse. B. parents. C. community. D. religious beliefs. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

40. _____ complaints usually develop because of anxiety and depression. A. Medical B. Nonmedical C. Abrasive D. Lay Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

41. Which of the following statements is true of psychological complaints? 8-5 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

A. They are always accompanied by physical illnesses. B. They require very short hospital stays. C. They are characterized by speedy recovery periods. D. They require multiple visits to therapists. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

42. Brandon blacks out frequently, experiences severe headaches, and has chronic body pain. Brandon is uncomfortable with the idea of seeing a doctor. Since his symptoms surface only a couple of times a month, he carelessly dismisses them and does not consult a physician. Which of the following behaviors is Brandon displaying? A. abnormal behavior B. treatment-seeking behavior C. delay behavior D. health behavior Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

43. Physicians are most likely to dismiss legitimate medical problems as psychological disturbances in A. adolescents. B. women. C. men. D. children. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

44. A study in the Annals of Internal Medicine suggested that physicians begin all their patient interviews with A. direct questions. B. online screening. C. drug administration D. physical examinations. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

45. The notion that an illness may actually be reinforced because it exempts the individual from daily responsibilities is termed A. schemas. B. lay referrals. C. secondary gains. D. primary gains. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

46. _____ is known as the time it takes an individual to decide that a symptom is serious. A. Illness delay B. Appraisal delay C. Behavioral delay D. Medical delay Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

47. Illness delay is the A. time it takes an individual to decide that a symptom is serious. B. time between the recognition that a symptom implies an illness and the decision to seek treatment. C. time between deciding to seek treatment and actually doing so. D. time that elapses between an individual calling for an appointment and receiving appropriate medical care. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

48. Robert noticed that his urine was pale pink. His first thought was about what he had eaten the previous day, and then it occurred to him that it may also be due to something unrelated to his diet. Robert’s case exemplifies A. illness delay. B. appraisal delay. C. behavioral delay. D. medical delay. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

49. Lydia is experiencing severe stomach pains. Last week, she noticed blood in her urine. She feels fatigued and is increasingly unable to carry on with her daily routine. She researches her symptoms on the Internet, and many of her 8-6 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

symptoms indicate that she may be at an early stage of developing a cancerous tumor. She concludes that she requires treatment but has not visited a doctor yet. Which of the following delay behaviors is Lydia displaying? A. behavioral delay B. appraisal delay C. illness delay D. medical delay Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

50. Leon experiences abdominal pain during bowel movements. He also observes blood in his stools. However, he is not sure if he requires medical treatment and delays his visit to the doctor. Which of the following delay behaviors is Leon displaying? A. behavioral delay B. appraisal delay C. illness delay D. medical delay Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

51. The time that elapses between a person’s calling for an appointment and his or her receiving appropriate medical care is known as A. medical delay. B. illness delay. C. appraisal delay. D. behavioral delay. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

52. Rachel is diagnosed with typhoid. She is admitted to the hospital for immediate treatment of the disease. Although she has been diagnosed, she is still put through various tests. She is not assigned any medication, and her condition steadily deteriorates. Rachel’s case exemplifies A. illness delay. B. appraisal delay. C. behavioral delay. D. medical delay. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

53. In which of the following conditions is delay in seeking treatment likely to be appropriate? A. when the symptoms progress at a very slow pace B. when the symptoms are likely to diminish on their own C. when the symptoms persist for weeks D. when the lay referral network is unable to help Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

54. In most cases, if delay occurs because of health care providers, it is a result of A. honest mistakes. B. irresponsible behavior. C. underqualified physicians. D. outdated equipment. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

55. Which of the following is the first stage of delay in seeking treatment for symptoms? A. appraisal delay B. illness delay C. behavioral delay D. medical delay Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

56. People’s awareness of their internal physiological state is remarkably accurate. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

57. People who are anxious or neurotic are more likely to ignore physical symptoms and avoid seeking treatment. FALSE 8-7 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

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58. Common disorders are generally regarded as less serious than rare or distinctive risk factors and disorders. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

59. Symptoms that are painful are more likely to prompt a person to seek medical treatment. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

60. People’s conceptions of illnesses and their symptoms are largely similar and consistent. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

61. Physicians estimate that as much as half their time is taken up by patients whose complaints are psychological rather than medical. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

62. People sometimes abuse health services by seeking treatment for problems that are medically insignificant. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

63. A study in the Annals of Internal Medicine suggested that physicians begin all their patient interactions using electronic mails. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

64. Delay behavior is more common in people with regular contact with a physician. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

65. Medical delay is more likely when a patient matches the profile of an average person with a given disease. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

66. Explain the factors that facilitate the recognition of health-related symptoms. Although people have some awareness of what is going on in their bodies, that awareness may be limited. Individual differences vary the likelihood of recognizing or showing concern over symptoms of illnesses; people with specific personality traits are more likely to report their symptoms than others. Another factor is attentional differences. People who are focused on themselves are quicker to notice symptoms than people who are focused on the environment. Situational factors imply that a boring situation makes people more attentive to symptoms than an interesting situation. Stress is another major factor that can precipitate or aggravate the experience of symptoms. A final factor is mood: people who are in a good mood or have positive expectations rate themselves as more healthy, report fewer illness-related memories, and report fewer symptoms, while people in a bad mood, or with negative expectations, tend to report more symptoms and perceive themselves as vulnerable to future illness. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

67. Briefly explain the categories of people who use health services. Users of health services can be categorized into various demographic groups. The first category is age. The very young and the elderly use health services most frequently. The second category is gender. Women use medical services more than men do. Pregnancy and childbirth account for much of this gender difference in use, but not all. The third category is social class and culture. The lower social classes use medical services less than the more affluent social classes. This is usually because poorer people have less money to spend on health services. A final factor is social psychological factors. An individual’s attitudes toward and beliefs about symptoms and health services influence the use of health services. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

68. Explain the usage of health services in the context of social psychological factors. Social psychological factors influence an individual’s attitudes toward and beliefs about symptoms and health services. They help determine who uses health services. The use of health care services is influenced by socialization, especially by the actions of one’s parents. The health belief model maintains that whether a person seeks treatment for a symptom can be predicted by whether the person perceives a threat to health and whether he or she believes that a particular health measure will be effective in reducing that threat. The health belief model explains people’s use of services quite well. But the model does a better job of explaining the treatment-seeking behavior of people who have money and access to health care services than of people who do not. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

69. How often do people seek health care services for psychological or nonmedical complaints? Physicians estimate that as much as half their time is taken up by patients whose complaints are psychological rather than medical. This problem is more common for general practitioners than for specialists, although no branch of medicine is immune. College health services periodically experience this problem during exams, when symptoms increase in response to stress. These nonmedical complaints often stem from anxiety and depression, both of which are widespread. Unfortunately, symptoms such as these can lead physicians to intervene with medical treatments that are inappropriate. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

70. Describe the four stages of delay in seeking treatment for symptoms. What are the likely causes of delay? Delay is defined as the time between recognizing a symptom and obtaining treatment. Delay can be broken down into four stages. Appraisal delay is the time it takes an individual to decide that a symptom is serious. Illness delay is the time between the recognition that a symptom implies an illness and the decision to seek treatment. Behavioral delay is the time between deciding to seek treatment and actually doing so. Medical delay is the time that elapses between the person’s calling for an appointment and his or her receiving appropriate medical care. Delay is more common among people with no regular contact with a physician and among people who are phobic about medical services. The elderly delay less than middle-aged people, especially if they believe the symptoms may be serious. Sometimes, symptoms predict delay as well. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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# of Questions 70

Chapter 09 Patients, Providers, and Treatments 1. Rita is trained in traditional nursing and has also received special training in primary care. She is affiliated with a group of private practice physicians and sees her own patients. Her responsibilities involve providing routine medical care, prescribing treatment, and attending to the chronically ill. Rita is a A. lay practitioner. B. nurse practitioner. C. physician’s assistant. D. counselor. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

2. According to the _____ plan, patients select their own doctors and hospitals and pay on a fee-for-service basis. A. students’ medical B. preferred-provider organization C. traditional indemnity D. point-of-service. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

3. Which of the following is a provider behavior that erodes communication between a patient and a physician? A. enthusiasm B. inattentiveness C. hyperactivity D. shared decision making Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4. Shirley has a routine medical check-up, and her doctor finds that she has unregulated cell growth in one of her kidneys, which is an indicator of malignant neoplasm (cancer). He tells her that it is a case of malignant neoplasm, and if left untreated, the infection will spread to other parts of the body through the lymphatic system. He asks her to undergo a few more tests and to start therapy and medication immediately. Shirley understands that she had a serious condition, but she is able to comprehend only a few of the terms used by her doctor. In this scenario, the doctor is A. acquiring an informed consent from his patient. B. using jargon to explain the seriousness of the condition. C. resorting to baby talk and simplistic explanations with his patient. D. forming a negative stereotype of his patient. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

5. Health care providers frequently resort to baby talk because A. they realize that patients are ill and are not in the right frame of mind to interact as adults. B. they often underestimate their patients’ level of understanding about an illness. C. they assume that all their patients are completely unaware of medical terms. D. they are trained to use baby talk with children who come for treatment. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

6. Which of the following treatments is more likely to be employed during stressful moments to keep the patient quiet and to enable the practitioner to concentrate? A. aversion therapy B. nonperson treatment C. chiropractic medicine D. polarity therapy Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7. Which of the following statements is an advantage of patient depersonalization? A. It facilitates progressive patient-provider communication. B. It provides emotional protection for the provider. C. It abolishes sexism in medical practice. D. It enhances the quality of technical care. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

8. Older patients are less likely than younger patients to 9-1 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

A. be resuscitated in emergency rooms. B. survive automobile accidents. C. seek medical care when required. D. suffer from traumatic stress disorders. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

9. Patients who seek treatment for psychological disorders usually evoke A. positive thoughts about their environment. B. equally serious physical symptoms. C. positive reactions from physicians. D. negative reactions from physicians. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

10. Physicians prefer to treat an acute illness compared to a chronic illness because A. acute illnesses require less than two physician consultations. B. chronic illnesses can increase a physician’s distress over having to give bad news. C. acute illnesses pose uncertainties and raise questions about diagnosis. D. chronic illnesses pose uncertainties and raise questions about prognosis. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

11. When patients lack basic skills needed to adhere to medical prescriptions, comprehend the meaning of their risk factors, or interpret the results of tests from physicians, it is known as A. faulty communication. B. health illiteracy. C. negative information. D. ethical dilemma. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

12. _____ patients usually present an exaggerated picture of their symptoms. A. Geriatric B. Neurotic C. Low-risk D. Rising-risk Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

13. In which of the following cases does a patient feel ignored by a physician? A. when the physician is systematically diagnosing and treating the patient B. when the physician prescribes bed rest and over-the-counter medications C. when the physician is clear about the patient’s medical history D. when an admitted patient is visited by the physician twice a day Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

14. Qualities of the interaction between a practitioner and a patient can perpetuate A. healthy communication. B. faulty communication. C. feelings of discomfort in the practitioner. D. neuroticism in the patient. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

15. In which of the following conditions is a patient likely to revisit a physician after initial treatment? A. when the treatment has failed B. when the treatment has been successful C. when the patient has forgotten to give feedback to the physician D. when the patient is dissatisfied with the physician Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

16. Which of the following is a reason for the lack of learning opportunities for providers? A. lack of feedback from patients B. negative feedback from patients C. negative attitudes of providers D. patients’ fear of providers 9-2 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

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17. Which of the following diseases is known to have high treatment adherence among patients? A. sleep disorders B. diabetes C. HIV D. pulmonary disease Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

18. When patients do not adopt the behaviors and treatments that their providers recommend, it results in A. malingering. B. appraisal delay. C. negative affectivity. D. nonadherence. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

19. Adherence is likely to be highest when advice is perceived to be A. social. B. psychological. C. vocational. D. medical. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

20. In which of the following conditions is treatment adherence likely to be the highest? A. when a person has low IQ B. when a person lives in a cohesive family C. when a person has no money D. when a person supplements a prescribed treatment Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

21. Which of the following is an effective way of improving adherence to a treatment? A. developing a checklist only for patients to follow B. restricting pharmacists from providing counseling along with prescription medication C. making adult literacy a national priority D. writing prescriptions on paper Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

22. The practice of modifying and supplementing a prescribed treatment regimen is known as A. apperception. B. problem-focused coping. C. self-regulation. D. creative nonadherence. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

23. _____ can result from personal theories about a disorder and its treatment. A. Secondary gains B. Negative affectivity C. Creative nonadherence D. Faulty communication Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

24. Which of the following methods should be followed by a provider to improve adherence? A. use medical jargon to emphasize the severity of diseases B. give clear, written instructions on the exact treatment regimen C. adopt a businesslike attitude rather than a friendly one D. confine questionnaires merely to gathering objective medical information Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

25. The _____ model makes it evident that, for practicing good health behaviors and adhering to treatment, one needs the right information, motivation to adhere, and skills to perform a behavior. 9-3 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

A. biopsychosocial B. transtheoretical C. health-belief D. information-motivation-behavioral skills Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

26. The line of authority in a private hospital, which is based on technical skill and expertise, is the A. paramedical line. B. medical line. C. administrative line. D. behavioral care line. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

27. Which of the following best describes the administrative line in a private hospital? A. It involves emergency first aid, physiotherapy, and dietetics. B. It conducts follow-up on behaviorally disturbed patients. C. It is based on technical skill and expertise. D. It runs the business of the hospital. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

28. Which of the following best defines cure as a function in a hospital? A. maintaining the infrastructure and developing the premises for future growth B. performing treatment actions to restore patients to good health C. ensuring that a patient’s emotional and physical state is in balance D. ensuring the smooth functioning of the system and the flow of resources, services, and personnel Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

29. _____ involves the humanitarian side of medicine, and it deals with the orientation of the nursing staff. A. Coping B. Care C. Cure D. Core Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

30. _____ is concerned with ensuring the smooth functioning of the system and the flow of resources, services, and personnel. A. Care B. Cure C. Core D. Coping Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

31. The three goals of a hospital’s functioning A. are valid only in government hospitals. B. have a hierarchical order of importance. C. can create conflicting demands. D. are mutually exclusive. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

32. _____ is an infection that results from exposure to disease in a hospital setting. A. Anthrax B. Amoebiasis C. Balantidiasis D. Nosocomial Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

33. Which of the following is a component of burnout? A. adherence B. emotional vigor C. cynicism D. high efficacy 9-4 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

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34. Which of the following is a factor that aggravates burnout? A. high perceptions of success B. excessive feedback C. too much time spent with clients D. high sense of autonomy Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

35. Children who are hospitalized often become dependent when they are on bed rest and rely on staff. This is likely to lead to A. sublimation. B. projection. C. repression. D. regression. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

36. Which of the following statements best defines complementary and alternative medicine? A. It is a diverse group of therapies, products, and medical treatments such as yoga, meditation, and acupuncture, among other treatments. B. It is an approach to health-related problems and diseases that examines psychological as well as somatic origins. C. It is a set of techniques designed to keep people from relapsing to prior poor health habits after initial successful behavior modification. D. It is an unconventional practice in which the spine is manipulated to treat all types of diseases. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

37. Which of the following is the least used complementary and alternative medicine therapy among U.S. adults? A. natural products B. chiropractic C. guided imagery D. yoga Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

38. _____ is the most commonly used complementary and alternative medicine therapy among U.S. adults. A. Progressive relaxation B. Prayer C. Deep breathing D. Chiropractic Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

39. Dietary interventions, which include foods that shift the _____ balance, are a staple of Traditional Chinese Medicine. A. dong quai B. qoi C. yin-yang D. gu qui Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

40. _____ treats patients using diluted preparations that cause symptoms similar to those from which the patient suffers. A. Homeopathy B. Ayurveda C. Traditional Chinese Medicine D. Dietary supplements Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

41. Which of the following is the central tenet of naturopathy medical system? A. Fasting and dieting practices are sufficient to prevent and treat diseases. B. Natural food and food constituents should be monitored as they affect gene expression. C. An environmental stimulus is capable of eliciting a particular body behaviour. D. The body can heal itself through diet, exercise, sunlight, and fresh air. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

42. An overdose of _____ supplements is associated with increased mortality risk among older women. A. folic acid B. citric acid C. calcium D. iron Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

43. A _____ diet restricts vegetarian consumption primarily to grains, cereals, and vegetables, and it requires greater attention to nutritional content. A. macrobiotic B. vegan C. kangatarian D. flexitarian Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

44. Acupuncture not only cures an illness, but also has a(n) _____ effect. A. cannabis B. analgesic C. psychosomatic D. agonizing Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

45. Which of the following practices is included in yoga? A. hypnosis B. dietary supplements C. psychosomatic medications D. breathing techniques Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

46. In _____ treatment, long, thin needles are inserted into designated areas of the body that theoretically influence the areas in which a patient is experiencing a disorder. A. acupuncture B. osteopathic C. homeopathic D. naturopathic Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

47. Acupuncture usually triggers the release of A. oxytocin. B. dopamine. C. endorphins. D. ghrelin. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

48. _____ meditation teaches people to strive for a state of mind marked by awareness, focus on the present moment, and acceptance and acknowledgement without becoming distracted or distressed. A. Heart rhythm B. Guided visualization C. Mindfulness D. Transcendental Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

49. Mindfulness meditation is known to be an effective treatment for a functional disorder known as A. autophagy. B. fibromyalgia. C. encopresis. D. pica. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

50. _____ is a meditative procedure that is especially useful in controlling discomfort related to cancer. 9-6 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

A. Guided imagery B. Chiropractic C. Progressive relaxation D. Hypnosis Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

51. _____ involves performing adjustments on the spine and joints to correct misalignments that are believed to both prevent and cure illness. A. Chiropractic medicine B. Allopathy C. Meditation D. Ayurvedic medicine Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

52. _____ is an alternative medical practice that draws on the body’s ability to heal itself. A. Allopathy B. Homeopathy C. Naturopathy D. Osteopathy Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

53. In Traditional Chinese Medicine, _____ is used to manipulate the flow of qi. A. chiropractic B. osteopathy C. massage D. guided imagery Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

54. A(n) _____ is any medical procedure that produces an effect in a patient because of its therapeutic intent and not because of its chemical or physical nature. A. ablation B. angiogram C. autopsy D. placebo Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

55. The placebo response is so powerful that no drug can be marketed in the United States unless it has been evaluated against a placebo. The standard method for so doing is termed a _____ experiment. A. single-blind B. double-blind C. health D. positive Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

56. The duration of a typical physician’s assistant program is two years. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

57. When a patient pays a provider directly for his or her services, a colleague orientation is developed. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

58. Patient-centered care involves providing patients with information, involving them in decisions regarding care, and considering psychosocial issues such as social support needs. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

59. Poor communication leads to nonadherence of treatment and potential initiation of malpractice litigation. TRUE

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

60. Faulty communication between a patient and a provider can lead to malpractice suits. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

61. Patients are remarkably good at predicting their adherence to treatment regimens. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

62. The functioning of a hospital typically revolves around the goals of cure, care, and core. These goals are never in conflict. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

63. Patient A is preoperative. If the roommate is postoperative, patient A is likely to have better pre- and postoperative adjustment. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

64. Providers who exude warmth, confidence, and empathy get weaker placebo effects than providers who are remote and formal. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

65. People turn to complementary and alternative medicine therapies after their disorders have been successfully treated by traditional medicine. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

66. What does the setting imply in the nature of patient-provider communication? A setting is a physical environment where a patient and a physician officially interact. In many ways, the medical office is an unlikely setting for effective communication. The average visit lasts only 12–15 minutes. When the patient is trying to explain his or her symptoms, the physician will usually interrupt within 23 seconds. Moreover, it is difficult to present a complaint effectively when one is in pain, is anxious, or has a fever. The provider’s role is a difficult one as well. He or she must extract significant information as quickly as possible from the patient. The provider is often on a tight schedule with other patients backing up in the waiting room. The disorder may have been made more complicated by the patient’s selftreatment. Further, the patient’s ideas of which symptoms are important may not correspond to the provider’s knowledge. With the patient seeking solace and the provider trying to maximize the efficient use of time, there clearly are potential sources of strain. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

67. Briefly explain patients’ contributions to faulty communication. Within a few minutes of having discussed their illness with a provider, as many as one third of patients cannot repeat their diagnosis, and up to one-half do not understand important details about the illness or treatment. Dissatisfied providers complain that even when they give clear, careful explanations to patients, the explanation falls on deaf ears. Poorly educated people, the elderly, and non-English speakers have particular problems adopting the consumer role toward their care. As people age, their number of medical problems usually increases, but their ability to present their complaints effectively, and follow treatment guidelines declines. Sometimes patient characteristics contribute to poor communication with providers. Patients respond to different symptoms of their illness, especially ones that interfere with their activities. All these factors collectively contribute to faulty communication. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

68. List the reasons why the health care practitioner can be an effective agent of behavior change. The health practitioner is a highly credible source with knowledge of medical issues. He or she can make health messages simple and tailor them to the individual needs and vulnerabilities of each patient. The practitioner can help the patient decide to adhere by highlighting the advantages of treatment and the disadvantages of nonadherence. The private, face-to-face 9-8 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

nature of the interaction provides an effective setting for holding attention, repeating and clarifying instructions, extracting commitments from a patient, and assessing sources of resistance to adherence. The personal nature of the interaction enables a practitioner to establish referent power by communicating warmth and caring. The practitioner can enlist the cooperation of other family members in promoting adherence. Finally, he or she has the patient under at least partial surveillance and can monitor progress during subsequent visits. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

69. Your brother calls to inform you that his nine-year-old son is being hospitalized because of a fracture. What advice would you give your brother to minimize any adverse reactions that your nephew might experience while being hospitalized? A parent must always be present with the child to prevent loneliness, and the child must not feel that he is being punished for a wrong deed by being admitted to the hospital. The child may become socially withdrawn with no way of discharging energy through physical activity. Therefore, the parent must provide opportunities for play and social interaction to the boy. The boy should be allowed to interact with other children in the hospital, and he should be shown motivational movies and videos that can help him model positive behavior. Constructive talk and coping skills interventions can also promote resilience in the boy. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

70. Define placebo and its function as a methodological tool. A placebo is any medical procedure that produces an effect in a patient because of its therapeutic intent and not its specific nature, whether chemical or physical. The placebo response is so powerful that no drug can be marketed in the United States unless it has been evaluated against a placebo. The standard method for doing this is termed a double-blind experiment. In such a test, a researcher gives one group of patients a drug that is supposed to cure a disease or alleviate symptoms, and another group receives a placebo. Once the effectiveness of the treatment has been measured, the researcher looks in the coded records to see which treatment each patient received. The difference between the effectiveness of the drug and the effectiveness of the placebo is considered to be a measure of the drug’s effectiveness. Comparison of a drug against a placebo is essential for accurate measurement of a drug’s effect. Drugs may look four or five times more successful than they really are if there is no effort to evaluate them against a placebo. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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# of Questions 70

Chapter 10 The Management of Pain and Discomfort 1. Why are minor pains critical for survival? A. They form a substantial cultural component and influence our perceptions. B. They are insistent and overwhelm other basic needs. C. They provide low-level feedback about the functioning of our body systems. D. They pass sensory information from the physical world to the brain. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

2. For a medical provider, pain A. and the severity of an underlying problem are closely related. B. is a by-product of a disorder, and it complicates diagnosis. C. mitigates illnesses and assists recovery from medical procedures. D. has no psychological or medical significance. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

3. Which of the following is the most common reason for euthanasia? A. anxiety in a hospital setting B. substantial cost of treatment C. inadequate relief from pain D. prospect of surgery Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4. Which of the following is a similarity between physical pain and social pain? A. Psychological distress is a key component of both physical pain and social pain. B. Both social and physical pain enhance the neurobiological effects of the brain. C. Social pain relies on the same pain-related neurocircuitry as physical pain. D. Physical pain and social pain are mutually exclusive. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

5. Identify a true statement about pain. A. The degree to which pain is felt and how incapacitating it is largely depends on how it is interpreted. B. Men typically show a greater sensitivity to pain compared to women. C. Cultural differences have no influence over the interpretation of pain. D. Unlike acute pain, chronic pain is usually short in duration and decreases with treatment and the passage of time. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

6. Athletes who continue to play, despite being injured, experience a reduction in pain sensitivity because of increased A. sympathetic arousal. B. parasympathetic arousal. C. psychological distress. D. stimulation of nociceptors. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7. Which of the following is a barrier to the treatment of pain? A. development of pain questionnaires to assess pain B. identical psychological profiles for both acute and chronic pain C. difficulty faced by patients in objectively describing pain D. personality traits that predispose a person to experience nonexistent pain Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

8. Which of the following statements is true about chronic pain? A. Behaviors that arise from chronic pain cannot be measured. B. Patients with chronic pain disorders show significant loss of gray matter in certain regions of the brain. C. Unlike acute pain, chronic pain usually decreases with treatment and the passage of time. D. Most pain control techniques work well to control chronic pain but are less successful with acute pain. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

9. _____ is a functional pain disorder in which there is no clear tissue damage present. A. Polymyositis 10-1 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

B. Fibromyalgia C. Hematoma D. Tumefaction Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

10. _____, such as distortions in posture or gait, facial and audible expressions of distress, and avoidance of activities, arise from chronic pain. A. Reasoned actions B. Cognitive behaviors C. Pain controls D. Pain behaviors Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

11. _____ is a pain perception that results from a physical damage to the tissues of the body. A. Silent nociception B. Polymodal nociception C. Thermal damage D. Mechanical nociception Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

12. _____ refers to pain that triggers chemical reactions from tissue damage. A. Phantom limb sensation B. Thermal damage C. Mechanical nociception D. Polymodal nociception Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

13. The scientific understanding of pain was originally developed by Melzack in the _____ theory of pain. A. peripheral pattern B. three dimensions C. intensive D. gate-control Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

14. A-delta fibers A. are small, myelinated fibers. B. typically transmit dull, aching pain. C. do not respond to mechanical pain. D. transmit pain signals at a slower rate than C-fibers. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

15. _____ are unmyelinated nerve fibers, involved in polymodal pain, that transmit dull, aching pain. A. C-fibers B. A-delta fibers C. B-fibers D. A-gamma fibers Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

16. Which of the following statements is true of A-delta fibers? A. Sensory aspects of pain are heavily determined by activity in the A-delta fibers. B. A-delta fibers are unmyelinated nerve fibers that are involved in polymodal pain. C. Dull, aching pain is typically transmitted to the cerebral cortex by A-delta fibers. D. A-delta fibers typically conduct pain signals at a slower rate than C-fibers. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

17. C-fibers A. are small, myelinated fibers that transmit sharp pain. B. strongly influence the affective and motivational elements of pain. C. respond to mechanical or thermal pain, but not to polymodal pain. D. typically transmit pain signals more rapidly than A-delta fibers. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

18. The periductal gray is a structure in the _____ that provides pain relief when stimulated. A. cerebellum B. occipital lobe C. meninges D. midbrain Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

19. Neurons in the periductal gray connect to the reticular formation in the medulla which makes connections with the neurons in the _____ of the dorsal horn of the spinal cord. A. subarachnoid space B. substantia nigra C. septomarginal fasciculus D. substantia gelatinosa Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

20. When acute anxiety reduces sensitivity to pain, it is known as A. stress-induced analgesia. B. stimulation-produced analgesia. C. primary hyperalgesia. D. opioid-induced hyperalgesia. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

21. Why are endogenous opioid peptides important to our body? A. They form the central network of pathways in the limbic structures. B. They are the natural pain suppression system of the body. C. They contribute to the strong emotions often experienced during pain. D. They convey pain-related information to the dorsal horn. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

22. Which of the following statements is a characteristic of acute pain? A. Unlike chronic pain, acute pain usually goes on for six months or more. B. Acute pain is usually short in duration compared to chronic pain. C. Acute pain usually presents psychological profiles that are identical to chronic pain. D. Unlike chronic pain, acute pain is usually unresponsive to treatment. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

23. Typically, acute pain A. does not decrease with treatment and the passage of time. B. persists for six months or longer and increases in severity over time. C. results from a specific injury that produces tissue damage. D. always requires individualized pain control techniques for its management. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

24. Unlike acute pain, chronic pain does not A. decrease with treatment and the passage of time. B. carry an overlay of psychological distress. C. require individualized techniques for its management. D. increase in severity over time. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

25. Which of the following is an important feature of chronic pain? A. It typically disappears with the passage of time. B. It typically begins with an acute pain episode. C. It typically presents psychological profiles that are identical to acute pain. D. It typically lasts for six months or less. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

26. Which of the following statements best describes recurrent acute pain? A. The pain is constant and varies in severity, typically persists for six months or longer, and is relatively unresponsive to treatment. B. The pain typically goes on for six months or less and disappears when the tissue damage is repaired. C. It involves constant pain that increases in severity over time, due to a malignant condition, and typically lasts longer than 10-3 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

six months. D. It involves intermittent episodes of pain that are acute in character but chronic inasmuch as the condition repeats for more than six months. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

27. Typically, chronic progressive pain A. involves intermittent episodes of pain that are acute in character but chronic inasmuch as the condition repeats for more than six months. B. involves constant pain that varies in severity, persists for six months or longer, and is relatively unresponsive to treatment. C. is associated with degenerative disorders, involves constant pain that increases in severity over time, and lasts longer than six months. D. goes on for six months or less and disappears when the tissue damage is repaired. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

28. Which of the following is a difference between acute pain and chronic pain? A. Unlike acute pain, chronic pain has no psychological significance. B. Unlike acute pain, chronic pain does not require individualized techniques for its management. C. Acute pain involves a more complex interaction of physiological, psychological, social, and behavioral components than chronic pain. D. Most pain control techniques work well to control acute pain, but are less successful with chronic pain. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

29. Temporomandibular disorder and trigeminal neuralgia are examples of _____ pain. A. acute B. recurrent acute C. chronic benign D. chronic progressive Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

30. Cancer and rheumatoid arthritis are degenerative disorders that are typically associated with A. recurrent acute pain. B. chronic benign pain. C. chronic progressive pain. D. acute pain. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

31. Migraine headache is an example of _____ pain. A. acute B. chronic benign C. recurrent acute D. chronic progressive Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

32. _____ pain varies in severity, persists for six months or longer, and is relatively unresponsive to treatment. A. Acute B. Chronic benign C. Recurrent acute D. Chronic progressive Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

33. _____ pain is due to an unidentifiable physical cause. A. Nociceptive B. Phantom C. Neurogenic D. Psychogenic Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

34. Which of the following is a reason for chronic pain to get exacerbated? A. inappropriate prior treatments B. increased sympathetic arousal C. appropriate prescription of medications D. decreased stimulation of nociceptors 10-4 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

35. How does compensation provide an incentive for being in pain? A. by increasing the ability of patients to continue with life activities uninterrupted B. by increasing the perceived severity of pain C. by reducing the amount of disability experienced D. by reducing the amount of distress that is reported Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

36. Which of the following characteristics is most likely to be displayed by patients suffering from chronic pain? A. increased communication with family members B. preference for loud noises C. reduced pain behavior D. discomfort because of bright lights Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

37. Which of the following best describes a pain-prone personality? A. societal factors that force an individual to experience pain more intensely B. a constellation of personality traits that predispose a person to experience chronic pain C. an individual’s congenital traits that make him or her more vulnerable to pain D. individuals with personality traits that predispose them to deliberate self-injury Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

38. _____ is a personality attribute that is associated with chronic pain. A. Denial B. Anger suppression C. Hypovigilance D. Introversion Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

39. According to the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, which of the following is commonly referred to as the neurotic triad? A. social introversion, anxiety, and schizophrenia B. depression, delusion, and paranoia C. anxiety, stress, and hysteria D. hypochondriasis, hysteria, and depression Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

40. _____ means that a patient no longer feels anything in an area of the body that once hurt. A. Pain threshold B. Pain sensitivity C. Pain behavior D. Pain control Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

41. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using morphine as a painkiller? A. It can be addictive, and patients may build up a tolerance to it. B. It is ineffective in relieving chronic progressive pain. C. It is effective only when used in conjunction with other painkillers. D. It projects onto specific receptor sites in the body and permanently damages them. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

42. _____ is a pain control technique that completely eliminates the feeling of pain. A. Counterirritation B. Spinal block C. Distraction D. Relaxation Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

43. Surgical techniques to control pain involve A. inhibiting pain in one part of the body by stimulating or mildly irritating another area. B. using spinal blocking agents to decrease the transmission of pain impulses from the peripheral receptors to the spinal cord. 10-5 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

C. providing biophysiological feedback to a patient about some bodily process of which the patient is usually unaware. D. creating lesions in pain fibers at various points in the body so that pain sensations can no longer be conducted. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

44. Which of the following methods is one of the oldest known techniques of pain control? A. counterirritation B. cognitive restructuring C. psychoeducation D. biofeedback Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

45. _____ is a sensory technique of inhibiting pain where a set of small electrodes is placed near the point at which the nerve fibers from the painful area enter the spinal cord. When the patient experiences pain, he or she activates a radio signal, which delivers a mild electrical stimulus to that area of the spine. A. Spinal block B. Spinal cord stimulation C. Acupuncture D. Biofeedback Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

46. _____ is a psychological technique for the management of pain and can be thought of as an operant learning process. A. Counterirritation B. Distraction C. Biofeedback D. Spinal cord stimulation Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

47. _____ is defined as a disorder in which the small arteries in the extremities constrict, limiting blood flow and producing a cold, numb aching. A. Alzheimer’s disease B. Raynaud’s disease C. Parkinson’s disease D. Hodgkin’s disease Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

48. In _____, an individual shifts his or her body into a state of low arousal by progressively loosening different parts of the body. A. counterirritation B. biofeedback C. coping skills training D. relaxation Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

49. _____ is a psychological pain management technique in which a patient turns his or her attention away from pain by focusing attention on an irrelevant and attention-getting stimulus. A. Distraction B. Biofeedback C. Acupuncture D. Counterirritation Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

50. Jay fractured his left leg while playing football and now suffers from chronic postsurgical pain. His doctor recommended a psychological technique for pain management. Now, whenever Jay experiences pain, he listens to his favorite music while trying out new recipes. This helps him deal more effectively with the pain and also helps in reducing the intensity of pain. Which of the following techniques is Jay using to control his pain? A. counterirritation B. biofeedback C. hypnosis D. distraction Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

51. Distraction is most effective in coping with 10-6 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

A. high-intensity pain. B. low-level pain. C. chronic progressive pain. D. severe pain. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

52. _____ involves a mindful distancing from the pain experience, where patients are trained to control their emotional responses to pain. A. Acceptance and commitment therapy B. Counterirritation technique C. Relaxation technique D. Biofeedback training Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

53. Which of the following is a goal of an individualized pain management program? A. reducing physical activity B. increasing reliance on medication C. reducing perception of disability D. increasing the use of health care services Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

54. Which of the following features is a component of pain management programs? A. psychotropic medications B. psychoanalytic approach C. evidence-based practices D. patient education Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

55. The childbirth experience and the perception of pain associated with it is uniform for all women across different cultures. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

56. Stress and psychological distress aggravate the experience of pain. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

57. Pain is easy to treat because patients are comfortable describing it objectively. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

58. Emotional factors have no effect on the experience of pain. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

59. Nociceptors in the peripheral nerves first sense injury and, in response, release chemical messengers, which are conducted to the spinal cord. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

60. The brain controls the amount of pain an individual experiences by transmitting messages down the spinal cord to block the transmission of pain signals. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

61. Processes in the thalamus are involved in cognitive judgments about pain, which contributes to the strong emotions often experienced during pain. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

62. In cognitive behavioral therapy, patients are taught how and when to employ overt and covert behaviors in order to make

adaptive responses to a pain problem. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

63. Catastrophic thinking reduces the pain experience. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

64. Relapse prevention techniques that help patients continue their pain management skills can maintain posttreatment pain reduction. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

65. Why is the distinction between acute and chronic pain important in clinical management? Acute pain typically results from a specific injury that produces tissue damage, such as a wound or broken limb. Acute pain is usually short in duration and is defined as pain that goes on for six months or less. Chronic pain typically begins with an acute episode, but unlike acute pain, it does not decrease with treatment and the passage of time. The distinction between acute and chronic pain is important in clinical management for several reasons. Firstly, acute and chronic pain present different psychological profiles. Secondly, most pain control techniques work well to control acute pain, but are less successful with chronic pain, which requires individualized techniques for its management. Thirdly, chronic pain involves a more complex interaction of physiological, psychological, social, and behavioral components than acute pain. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

66. Explain the importance of social and psychological components of pain. The psychological and social components of pain are important because they are an integral aspect of the pain experience, and influence the likelihood of successful pain control. Chronic pain management is complicated, and it must be thought of not as merely addressing a pain that simply goes on for a long time but as an unfolding complex physiological, psychological, and behavioral experience that evolves over time into a syndrome. By the time a pain patient is adequately treated, this complex interaction of physiological, psychological, social, and behavioral components is tightly integrated making it difficult to modify. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

67. What is pain control? Briefly explain the traditional methods of controlling pain. Pain control can mean several things. It can mean that a patient no longer feels anything in an area that once hurt. It can mean that the person feels sensation but not pain. It can mean that he or she feels pain, but is no longer concerned about it. It can also mean that a person is still hurt, but is now able to tolerate it. The three traditional methods of controlling pain are pharmacological, surgical, and sensory techniques. Pharmacological control of pain is through the administration of drugs such as morphine. Surgical treatment involves cutting or creating lesions in the so-called pain fibers at various points in the body so that pain sensations can no longer be conducted. The most common sensory method of controlling pain is counterirritation, which involves inhibiting pain in one part of the body by stimulating or mildly irritating another area. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

68. Explain biofeedback and relaxation techniques for pain management. Biofeedback involves providing biophysiological feedback to a patient about some bodily process that the patient is usually unaware of. Biofeedback training can be thought of as an operant learning process. First, the target function to be brought under control, such as blood pressure or heart rate, is identified. This function is then tracked by a machine, which provides information to the patient. The patient then attempts to change the bodily process. Through trial and error and continuous feedback from the machine, the patient learns what thoughts or behaviors will modify the bodily function. Relaxation training has been employed with pain patients extensively, either alone or in concert with other pain control techniques. In relaxation, an individual shifts his or her body into a state of low arousal by progressively relaxing different parts of the body. It enables them to cope more successfully with stress and anxiety, which may also ameliorate pain. Relaxation may also affect pain directly in some cases. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

69. Describe the design and implementation of pain management programs. The implementation of these programs has several steps: (1) Initial evaluation—patients are evaluated with respect to their pain and pain behaviors. (2) Individualized treatment programs—they provide concrete aims, rules, and endpoints so that the patient has specific goals to achieve. (3) Components of programs—this includes patient education, measures to reduce pain, 10-8 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

group therapy, and interventions. (4) Involvement of family—many pain management programs involve families. An important goal of family therapy is to help family members develop more positive perceptions of each other. (5) Relapse prevention—this is included so that patients do not backslide once they are discharged from the program. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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# of Questions 69

Chapter 11 Management of Chronic Health Disorders 1. Which of the following is a chronic health disorder? A. cold B. influenza A C. teething D. hearing loss Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

2. Chronic health disorders are A. rare among children. B. either moderate or severe and life-threatening. C. less likely among young adults between ages 18 and 44. D. always life-threatening and ultimately lead to death. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

3. Which of the following is a component of quality of life? A. logical functioning B. longevity C. psychological status D. economic functioning Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4. Medical measures of quality of life are A. seldom based on objective criteria. B. weakly related with patients’ and relatives’ assessments. C. poorly related with patients’ assessments but are moderately related with relatives’ assessments. D. moderately related with health psychologists’ assessments. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

5. A broad array of measures for evaluating quality of life is available A. only for adults. B. for both adults and children. C. only for children. D. for both alive and dead patients. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

6. Studying quality of life A. makes it possible to determine what kinds of interventions may be needed. B. is an unnecessary intrusion into patients’ lives. C. cannot be used to compare therapies. D. provides us same results as the diagnosis. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7. Assessment of quality of life A. identifies the likely problems associated with acute diseases. B. discourages comparison of therapies. C. evaluates the practitioners’ experience in dealing with health disorders. D. assesses the impact of treatments. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

8. Immediately after a chronic health disorder is diagnosed, A. patients face job discrimination. B. patients seek the help of dietitians and therapists. C. patients resort to a feeling of calmness. D. patients experience a psychological disequilibrium. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

9. Which of the following is true of denial? A. It is a defense mechanism by which people accept the implications of a health disorder. 11-1 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

B. It is a method adopted by health care practitioners to deny information to patients. C. It is a method adopted by health care practitioners to deny information to patients’ family. D. It is a defense mechanism by which people avoid the implications of a health disorder. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

10. Denial serves as a protective function A. before the patient seeks medical treatment. B. during the acute phase of the health disorder. C. when patients must play an active role in the treatment regimen. D. during the rehabilitative phase of the health disorder. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

11. Immediately after a chronic health disorder is diagnosed, a patient can be in a state of crisis marked by physical, social, and psychological disequilibrium. If the patient’s usual coping efforts fail to resolve these problems, the result can be A. an improvement in health. B. a decreasingly negative attitude. C. an exaggeration of symptoms and their meaning. D. a systematic effort to cope. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

12. Of the following situations, patients’ anxiety would be the highest A. after the physician explains the diagnosis and treatment regimen. B. after the patient has received a test result. C. while the patient is awaiting an invasive medical procedure. D. when the side effects of a medical procedure is being explained to the patient. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

13. Which of the following is true of anxiety? A. Anxious diabetic patients have better glucose control. B. Anxious MI patients are more likely to return to work on schedule. C. Anxiety is prevalent among people with acute health disorders. D. Anxious patients cope more poorly with surgery. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

14. Anxiety is ________ when anticipating or experiencing adverse side effects of treatment. A. very low B. low C. moderate D. high Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

15. Up to ________ of all medical inpatients with chronic disease suffer from severe depression. A. one-quarter B. one-tenth C. one-half D. one-fourth Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

16. Unlike anxiety and denial, depression A. may be a long-term reaction to chronic health disorders. B. is at a steady state during the course of chronic health disorders. C. is the first response to chronic health disorders. D. may be intermittent and unrelenting. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

17. Depression exacerbates the course of several chronic disorders, most notably A. coronary heart disease. B. Type II diabetes. C. asthma. D. hypertension. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

18. Which of the following is true of depression? A. Depression increases with the severity of a health disorder. B. Treatment for depression increases symptoms associated with a health disorder. C. Depression increases as a result of telephone-administered cognitive behavioral therapy. D. Treatment for depression aggravates psychological distress. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

19. The stable set of beliefs about one’s qualities and abilities is known as A. self-esteem. B. self-concept. C. self-image. D. self-evaluation. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

20. ________ refers to the evaluation of whether one feels good or bad about one’s personal qualities and attributes. A. Self-concept B. Self-esteem C. Self-image D. Self-evaluation Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

21. The perception and evaluation of one’s physical functioning and appearance comprise one’s A. physical self. B. self-concept. C. body image. D. self-evaluation. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

22. Who among the following is most likely to have a negative impression of their body image? A. Sara, who lost weight after a viral fever B. Sally, who fractured her leg in an accident C. Susan, who has a scar on her forehead from birth D. Sandra, who lost her hair as a result of chemotherapy Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

23. Which of the following is true about body image? A. Body image remains constant during chronic health disorders. B. Body image plummets only during acute health disorders. C. Changes in body image are long-lived in acutely ill patients. D. Negative evaluations last longer in chronically ill patients. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

24. Succeeding through vocational and avocational activities is also an important source of self-esteem and the self-concept. Which self-evaluation aspect of the self-concept explains this? A. private self B. social self C. physical self D. achieving self Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

25. Which of the following focuses on the effect of a chronic health disorder on a patient’s ambitions, goals, and desires for the future? A. achieving self B. social self C. physical self D. private self Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

26. According to a study of cancer patients conducted by Dunkel-Schetter and her colleagues (1992), the most frequently cited stressor was A. fear and uncertainty about the future. B. limitations in physical abilities. 11-3 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

C. pain management. D. altered physical appearance and lifestyle. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

27. Robert is suffering from cancer. In order to cope with the stress associated with it and to know more about his condition, he regularly speaks about the disorder with his friends and family. In the context of coping strategies and chronic health disorders, Robert is most likely using a(n) ________ strategy. A. avoidant B. positive focus C. acute stress paradigm D. direct problem solving Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

28. Jeremy is suffering from coronary heart disease. He regularly meets his friends who are doctors and discusses his condition with them. According to Jeremy, this helps him deal with the health disorder better. Which of the following coping strategies is Jeremy using in this scenario? A. behavioral escape strategy B. social support strategy C. distancing strategy D. cognitive escape strategy Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

29. Alex is suffering from migraine. He avoids it completely by eating and sleeping excessively. Which of the following coping strategies is Alex using here? A. distancing B. cognitive escape C. behavioral escape D. social support Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

30. Daniel is suffering from diabetes. He constantly wishes that his medical condition would disappear. In the context of coping strategies and chronic health disorders, Daniel is most likely using a ________ strategy. A. cognitive escape B. social support C. behavioral escape D. distancing Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

31. Analyses of the effectiveness of coping strategies in managing the stress associated with chronic health disorders conclude that A. the coping strategies used by chronically ill patients are significantly different from the strategies observed in healthy samples. B. avoidant coping is associated with reduced psychological distress and better psychological adjustment. C. confrontative coping is associated with better adjustment than the use of multiple coping strategies. D. active coping is more consistently associated with good adjustment. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

32. ________ is a functional somatic disorder. A. Heart attack B. Hearing loss C. Tissue abnormality D. Chemical sensitivity Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

33. Which of the following is a goal of physical rehabilitation? A. to learn the ways of controlling energy expenditure B. to learn how to deviate from the treatment regimen C. to learn new social management skills D. to learn how to use one’s mind as much as possible Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

34. During physical rehabilitation, patients need a ________ management program for the alleviation of discomfort. 11-4 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

A. health B. mind C. disease D. pain Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

35. Stress management programs are increasingly incorporated into physical treatment regimens because of the debilitating effects of stress on A. psychosocial adjustments. B. chronic diseases. C. coping strategies. D. acute disorders. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

36. Adherence to treatment regimens is A. significantly higher in patients being treated for acute disorders. B. significantly lower in patients being treated for acute disorders. C. unaffected by the side effects of treatment. D. problematic with people who have chronic health disorders. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

37. Which of the following predicts adherence to chronic disease regimens? A. low expectations for controlling one’s health B. knowledge of the treatment regimen C. low expectations for controlling self-efficacy D. hereditary factors associated with the patients Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

38. Which of the following activities is performed by physical therapists? A. planning recreational activities to help patients become more self-sufficient B. helping people with muscle, nerve, or bone diseases or injuries overcome their disabilities C. assessing the dietetic needs of patients and supervising the service of meals D. helping patients regain physical or emotional stability and relearn daily routines Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

39. James works with patients injured in motorcycle accidents. He helps them learn to use adaptive devices to perform tasks and become accustomed to new ways of performing old tasks. He is a(n) A. massage therapist. B. occupational therapist. C. physical therapist. D. dietitian. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

40. ________ work primarily with accident victims, disabled children, and older people. A. Medical social workers B. Dietitians C. Occupational therapists D. Physical therapists Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

41. ________ help patients regain physical, mental, or emotional stability; relearn daily routines, such as eating, dressing, writing, or using a telephone; and prepare for employment. A. Occupational therapists B. Dietitians C. Medical social workers D. Physical therapists Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

42. Which of the following activities is performed by occupational therapists? A. helping people with muscle, nerve, or bone diseases or injuries overcome their disabilities B. planning and directing recreational activities to help patients become more self-sufficient C. assessing the dietetic needs of patients and supervising the service of meals 11-5 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

D. developing individualized treatment programs to increase patients’ strength and endurance Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

43. Which of the following statements is true about physical therapists? A. They assess the dietetic needs of patients and suggest ways of maintaining adherence to diets after discharge. B. They apply the principles of nutrition and food management to meal planning for hospitals, universities, and schools. C. They administer and interpret tests of muscle strength, motor development, functional capacity, and respiratory and circulatory efficiency. D. They help patients and their families with social problems that can develop while patients are dealing with their health disorder by providing therapy. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

44. John works with patients who are emotionally and mentally disabled. He helps them regain their physical, mental, or emotional stability. Sometimes he teaches painting, weaving, or other crafts. He is a(n) A. massage therapist. B. occupational therapist. C. physical therapist. D. dietitian. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

45. Eric works with people with diabetes. He helps them learn to control their caloric intake and the types of foods they eat. He is a(n) A. massage therapist. B. occupational therapist. C. physical therapist. D. dietitian. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

46. Adam works with cancer patients at County General Hospital. His particular specialty is in enabling the newly diagnosed cancer patients to understand the health disorder and its treatment and to negotiate the difficult emotional and social identity issues associated with the health disorder. He is a(n) A. medical social worker. B. medical psychologist. C. health psychologist. D. occupational therapist. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

47. Adverse changes in social interactions after a diagnosis of chronic disease are more likely to be observed in A. family members. B. friends and acquaintances. C. employers. D. intimate others. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

48. One of the chief changes brought about by chronic health disorder is a(n) A. decreased dependency of the chronically ill person on other family members. B. increased dependency of the family members on the chronically ill person. C. decreased dependency of the family members on the chronically ill person. D. increased dependency of the chronically ill person on other family members. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

49. Most caregiving for the chronically ill is provided by A. formal services such as home health nurses or nursing homes. B. men. C. women. D. friends. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

50. Which of the following is true of caregiving? A. It is always long term and intermittent. B. It threatens the health of elderly caregivers. C. It is most commonly associated with men than with women. 11-6 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

D. It often strains the relationship between patient and caregiver. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

51. In the context of gender and the impact of chronic health disorders, identify a true statement about women with chronic health disorders. A. Disabled women are more likely to be married or get married than disabled men. B. Women with chronic health disorders experience more deficits in social support than do men with chronic health disorders. C. Married women with chronic health disorders are less likely to be institutionalized for their health disorder than are married men. D. Married women with chronic health disorders spend fewer days in nursing homes than do married men. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

52. Collins et al. (1990) reported that more than ________ percent of the cancer patients in their study reported at least some beneficial changes in their life as a result of the cancer. A. 20 B. 45 C. 75 D. 90 Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

53. Emotional disorders associated with chronic health disorders are especially likely among patients who A. enter into very aggressive medical treatment regimens. B. are employed and have a high socioeconomic status. C. have a history of depression or other mental health disorders. D. are not the members of minority groups. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

54. Compared to therapy with other clients, psychotherapy provided to medical patients is more likely to A. be continuous and long term in nature. B. involve collaboration with the patient’s family and physician. C. be expensive and time-consuming. D. challenge the client’s defenses and promote a realistic assessment of his or her situation. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

55. Family support of a chronically ill patient is especially important because they A. encourage the patient to stay cheerful always. B. are the only source of social support for the patient. C. promote adherence to treatment. D. need no guidance on the harmful actions that will upset the patient. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

56. The website WebMD is A. scrupulously careful about the information they post. B. usually accurate but not always careful about the information they provide. C. like most of the information on the Web, not to be trusted. D. always associated with the risk of misinformation. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

57. Medical measures are weakly related to patients’ or relatives’ assessments of quality of life. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

58. People who have intermittent bouts of depression are less likely to get heart disease, atherosclerosis, hypertension, stroke, dementia, osteoporosis, and Type II diabetes. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

59. For chronically ill patients, changes in body image are always short-lived. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

60. A poor body image increases risk for depression and anxiety. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

61. Family participation in the health disorder management process is widely encouraged. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

62. Functional somatic disorders are more common in men than in women. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

63. Many chronic health disorders lead to a decrease in sexual activity. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

64. All chronic health disorders require physical rehabilitation. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

65. Physical therapists plan and direct recreational activities to help patients become more self-sufficient. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

66. Care for people with chronic health disorders is notoriously irregular. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

67. Sometimes, children must be exposed to isolating and terrifying procedures to treat their chronic health disorder. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

68. Psychotherapy with medical patients is more likely to be continuous than episodic. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

69. The Internet is a good source of information about skills for coping with common health disorder-related problems. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

70. What role does denial play in the emotional response to chronic health disorders? When does it facilitate coping? When is it dysfunctional? Denial is a defense mechanism by which people avoid the implications of a disorder, especially one that may be lifethreatening. It is a common early reaction to chronic health disorders. Patients may act as if the health disorder is not severe, it will shortly go away, or it will have few long-term implications. Immediately after the diagnosis of the health disorder, denial can serve a protective function by keeping the patient from having to come to terms with problems posed by the health disorder when he or she is least able to do so. Over time, however, any benefit of denial gives way to its costs. It can interfere with taking in necessary treatment information and compromise health. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

71. How are patients’ beliefs about chronic health disorders related to adjustment? Patients adopt an inappropriate model for their disorder, which is most notably an acute model. People with chronic health disorders often develop theories about where their health disorder came from. These theories about origins of the health disorder include stress, physical injury, disease-causing bacteria, and God’s will. Self-blame for chronic health disorders is widespread. Patients frequently perceive themselves as having brought on their health disorder through their own actions. Some patients believe that their disorder was brought about by stress caused by family members, ex-spouses, or colleagues at work. Blame of this other person or persons may be tied to unresolved hostility, which can interfere with adjustment to the disease. Patients develop a number of control-related beliefs. They may believe that they can prevent a recurrence of the 11-8 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

disease through good health habits or even sheer force of will. They may believe that by complying with treatments and physicians’ recommendations, they achieve vicarious control over their health disorder. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

72. Explain how physical rehabilitation methods help in managing chronic health disorders. Physical rehabilitation involves several goals: to learn how to use one’s body as much as possible, to learn how to sense changes in the environment to make the appropriate physical accommodations, to learn new physical management skills, to learn a necessary treatment regimen, and to learn how to control energy expenditure. Not all chronic health disorders require physical rehabilitation, but some do. Exercise goes a long way in reducing the symptoms of many chronic disorders. Physical activity can, in turn, pave the way for more general changes in self-efficacy. Physical therapy can ameliorate the age-related declines and can also help patients recover from treatments designed to alleviate them, such as surgery. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

73. Discuss the different careers involved in the rehabilitation of the chronically ill. What do the different people do? Which is of most interest to you and why? A variety of professionals work with people with chronic health disorders. Physical therapists help people with muscle, nerve, joint, or bone diseases or injuries overcome their disabilities. They work primarily with accident victims, disabled children, and older people. Occupational therapists work with people who are emotionally and physically disabled to determine skills, abilities, and limitations. They help patients regain physical, mental, or emotional stability; relearn daily routines, such as eating, dressing, writing, or using a telephone; and prepare for employment. They plan and direct educational, vocational, and recreational activities to help patients become more self-sufficient. Clinical dietitians assess the dietetic needs of patients, supervise the service of meals, instruct patients in the requirements and importance of their diets, and suggest ways of maintaining adherence to diets after discharge. Many dietitians work with diabetics because these patients control their caloric intake and types of foods. Social workers help patients and their families with social problems that can develop while they are dealing with their health disorder and recovery by providing therapy, making referrals to other services, and engaging in general social planning. They work in hospitals, clinics, community mental health centers, rehabilitation centers, and nursing homes. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

74. Studies have found that the quality of life reported by cancer patients is higher than healthy community samples. Explain how chronically ill patients cope with their health disorders and maintain a positive self-concept. In a study by Collins, Taylor, & Skokan in 1990, more than 90 percent of cancer patients reported at least some beneficial changes in their lives as a result of the cancer, including an increased ability to appreciate each day and the inspiration to do things now rather than postponing them. These patients said that they were putting more effort into their relationships and believed they had acquired more awareness of others’ feelings and more empathy and compassion for others. They reported feeling stronger and more self-assured as well. Many people with chronic health disorders perceive that they have some control over what happens to them, hold positive expectations about the future, and have a positive view of themselves. These beliefs are adaptive for mental and physical health much of the time (Taylor, 1983), but they become especially important when a person faces a chronic health disorder. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Category Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

# of Questions 74

Chapter 12 Psychological Issues in Advancing and Terminal Illness 1. The infant mortality rate in the United States is A. lower than that in most western European countries. B. twice as high for white infants as for black infants. C. the same for white infants and black infants. D. higher than that in most western European countries. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

2. Countries with lower infant mortality rates than the United States A. have higher pregnancy death rates. B. provide free or low-cost maternal care. C. provide poor prenatal care for the mother. D. have flexible birth control policies. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

3. In the first year of life, the main causes of death are A. acute illness and sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). B. sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) and congenital abnormalities. C. accidents and congenital abnormalities. D. cancer, especially leukemia, and sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4. Epidemiologic studies reveal that sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is more likely to occur A. in upper-class urban environments. B. if the mother smoked during her pregnancy. C. if the baby is put to sleep on its back. D. in upper-class rural environments. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

5. Poor adjustment for parents of children who have died from sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is associated with A. maternal smoking. B. self-blame. C. socioeconomic status. D. acute illness. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

6. After infancy, the main cause of death among children younger than age 15 is A. acute illness. B. sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). C. accidents. D. cancer, especially leukemia. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7. Walt’s parents have explained to him that his grandmother has died. He keeps asking them questions about her death and develops a belief that she has become a ghost. Walt is most likely to be A. four years old. B. six years old. C. ten years old. D. twelve years old. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

8. _____ is a common cause of death among infants, in which an infant simply stops breathing. A. Preterm birth B. Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) C. Yunnan sudden death syndrome D. Infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS) Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

9. _____ is a form of cancer that strikes the bone marrow, producing an excessive number of white blood cells and leading to 12-1 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

severe anemia and other complications. A. Leukemia B. Adenocarcinoma C. Angiosarcoma D. Melanoma Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

10. Identify a true statement about children’s understanding of death. A. Up to age 5, children believe that death occurs because a supernatural being comes to take the person away. B. At the age of 9 or 10, children typically have some understanding of the processes involved in death. C. Between ages 5 and 9, most children have a biological understanding of death. D. Up to age 5, children are frightened by death because they understand that death is final. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

11. Compared with whites, young black males are more likely to die because of A. accidents. B. cancer. C. homicide. D. heart disease. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

12. Children typically do not attain an adult understanding of death until A. the age of five. B. age six or seven. C. age nine or ten. D. adolescence. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

13. The major cause of death in the age group 15 to 19 is A. leukemia. B. unintentional injury. C. heart attack. D. sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

14. In the age group of 15 to 24, the homicide rate among black males is nearly _____ times that of young white males. A. 4.5 B. 1.3 C. 7.9 D. 9.1 Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

15. Which of the following is true of terminally ill young adults? A. Medical staff often find it difficult to work with them. B. Medical staff find it easier to work with them. C. The biological competitors for death are more for them. D. The biological competitors for death are absent for these patients. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

16. The main cause of premature death in adulthood is sudden death due to A. accidents. B. heart attack. C. acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS). D. homicide. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

17. Which of the following is a disadvantage of premature death in adulthood? A. It causes physical deterioration and results in the loss of mental faculties. B. It does not allow people to prepare their exit. C. It is always extremely painful and mutilating. D. It emotionally torments the family by making it witness the person’s worsening condition. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

18. The death rate among middle-aged adults has declined largely because of a 60 percent drop in A. stroke. B. heart disease. C. lung cancer. D. homicide. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

19. Death in elderly people is A. unlikely to be caused by psychosocial factors. B. unlikely to be caused by degenerative diseases. C. likely to be caused by general physical decline. D. likely to be caused by only one biological competitor. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

20. Which of the following factors predicts mortality in the elderly age group? A. close family relationships B. reduced terminal illness C. strong mental health D. reduced life satisfaction Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

21. Which of the following factors contribute to women’s lower mortality rates? A. They participate in less group activities. B. They possess more biological fitness. C. They engage in more risky behaviors. D. They experience less social support. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

22. Which of the following statements is true about death in men and women? A. Women die earlier than men because women engage in more risky behavior. B. Men use automobiles less than women, contributing to their low death rate from accidents. C. The chief reason why men die earlier than women is suicide. D. Women die earlier than men only in countries where childbirth technology is poorly developed. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

23. Which of the following statements is true about the Patient Self-Determination Act? A. It applies only to hospice patients. B. It gives importance to the patients’ wishes. C. It legalizes the process of passive euthanasia. D. It supports the terminally ill financially. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

24. Which of the following is true of euthanasia and assisted suicide? A. Euthanasia is a crime punishable by up to 12 years in prison in the United States. B. Physician-assisted dying is not legally permitted in any of the states in the United States. C. Acutely ill patients often request for euthanasia or assisted suicide. D. Receptivity to euthanasia and assisted suicide has increased in the United States. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

25. Ending the life of a person who is suffering from a painful terminal illness is called A. hospice. B. palliative care. C. curative care. D. euthanasia. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

26. A living will outlines A. a patient’s wishes to undergo euthanasia. B. a patient’s request that extraordinary life-sustaining procedures are not to be used. C. the conditions under which a patient requests to remain alive. D. the disposition of the terminally ill patient’s belongings after his or her death. 12-3 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

27. Which of the following is true of the psychological and social issues related to dying? A. Advancing illness enables patients to present themselves effectively. B. Communication opens up as the treatment becomes more drastic. C. Patients gradually begin a process of social withdrawal. D. Family members cheerfully elicit information from medical staff. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

28. As a patient’s prognosis worsens, interpersonal communications often deteriorate. The reasons for this breakdown are generally due to A. the belief that others do not want to talk about death. B. long-term communication problems in the family. C. indifference among medical staff members. D. the loss of optimism among family members. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

29. Patients are less likely to turn to alternative treatments when they are satisfied A. with the interpersonal aspects of their medical care. B. with the technical aspects of their medical care. C. that the costs of medical care can be borne by their families. D. that the medical establishment can do nothing more to improve their condition. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

30. Lazarus (1983) argues that _____ early on in adjustment to life-threatening illness is both normal and useful. A. anxiety B. bargaining C. denial D. anger Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

31. Which of the following statements is true about long-term denial of impending death? A. It enables people to accept the implications of an illness. B. It does not require medical intervention. C. It has a positive effect on the acceptance and realization of death. D. It requires psychological intervention. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

32. According to Kübler-Ross, the dying patient who asks “why me?” is experiencing A. anxiety. B. bargaining. C. denial. D. anger. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

33. According to Kübler-Ross, the dying patient who is coming to terms with his or her lack of control is experiencing A. denial. B. depression. C. bargaining. D. acceptance. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

34. A depressed terminally ill patient will A. constantly ask the question “why me?” B. try to strike a bargain with God by doing a charitable activity. C. act as if the illness is not severe. D. come to terms with a lack of control. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

35. Naomi, diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease, knows that she will die soon. She is now deciding on how to divide up her possessions and how to say goodbye to old friends and family members. According to Kübler-Ross’s theory, she is in the _____ stage. A. denial 12-4 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

B. depression C. acceptance D. bargaining Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

36. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross refers to the stage of _____ as a time for “anticipatory grief,” when patients mourn the prospect of their own deaths. A. denial B. anger C. depression D. bargaining Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

37. Which of the following statements is true about Kübler-Ross’s theory of death and dying? A. It accurately identifies the stages of the dying process. B. It acknowledges the importance of death-related anxiety. C. It breaks the taboo surrounding death. D. It describes the effect of death on survivors. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

38. According to critics, Kübler-Ross’s theory fails to acknowledge the frequency with which dying patients experience A. anxiety. B. enhanced perceptions of control. C. depression. D. social support. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

39. According to Turk and Feldman (1992a, 1992b), the hospitalized terminally ill patient runs the risk of being _____ by the medical staff. A. ignored B. isolated C. overmedicated D. undermedicated Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

40. Which of the following is an example of curative care? A. giving a massage for a stiff neck B. bathing a patient C. feeding a patient D. giving a cast for a broken limb Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

41. Salim is a terminally ill patient who is being treated in a hospital. The hospital staff are warm and supportive. They make him feel comfortable by bathing and feeding him every day. In this case, the staff are providing A. intensive care. B. acute care. C. curative care. D. palliative care. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

42. Palliative care involves A. final attempts to cure the terminally ill patient. B. life-prolonging interventions such as placing the patient on a respirator. C. ending the life of a patient who is suffering from a painful terminal illness. D. custodial work designed to make the patient feel comfortable. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

43. Which of the following guidelines must be followed by the medical staff who work with the dying? A. helping the patients to live as long as possible B. informing the patients of their condition and treatment C. removing the restrictions on family and friends visits D. avoiding the involvement of patients in their treatment 12-5 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

44. Therapy with the dying differs from traditional psychotherapy in that it is likely to A. depend on the energy level of the patient. B. continue for a long term. C. avoid adhering to patients’ wishes. D. follow a fixed schedule of appointments. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

45. Those who study death and dying are called A. grief assistants. B. thanatologists. C. geriatricians. D. epidemiologists. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

46. Researchers on death have suggested that cognitive-behavioral therapies like _____ can be effectively employed with dying patients. A. positive self-talk B. self-monitoring C. systematic desensitization D. intense muscle exercises Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

47. Which of the following is true of terminally ill children? A. They often know more about their situation than they are given credit for. B. They are incapable of inferring their health condition from people around them. C. They express their knowledge, concerns, or questions about the illness directly. D. They are less stressful to work with. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

48. Which of the following statements is true about terminally ill children? A. They are unable to understand most information relevant to their medical condition and treatment. B. They use cues from their treatment and others’ responses to infer the nature of their medical condition. C. They generally believe that they will soon recover and go home. D. They do not hesitate to express their concerns and questions directly to others. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

49. Hospice care is aimed at achieving A. reduced personal attention. B. curative care. C. restricted social support. D. palliative care. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

50. Which of the following statements is true about hospices? A. They are treatment models with limited success rates. B. They are seldom affiliated with hospitals because of fears of malpractice litigation. C. They are increasingly being incorporated into traditional treatment. D. They are providing lesser individualized care than home care. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

51. Which of the following statements is true about hospice care? A. It typically includes painful or invasive therapies. B. It is more of a philosophy concerning a way of dying than a system of care for the terminally ill. C. It emphasizes a cure of illness rather than a relief of suffering. D. It is oriented toward improving a patient’s social support system. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

52. According to the research cited in the text, a substantial percentage of terminally ill patients prefer A. home care. B. hospice care. C. traditional hospital care. 12-6 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

D. skilled nursing facilities. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

53. Cultural differences have been found in beliefs about A. children’s understanding of death. B. death-related ceremonies. C. working through stages of dying. D. various causes of death. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

54. The grief response appears to be more aggravated in A. women and those who experience expected loss. B. men and those who experience sudden and unexpected loss. C. survivors whose family members have experienced a protracted and painful death. D. young children who experience the death of a sibling. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

55. Among women who are depressed in widowhood, _____ appears to be the biggest burden. A. financial strain B. loneliness C. household management D. instrumental need Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

56. Which of the following statements is true about bereaved adults who ruminate on the death of a loved one? A. They have high levels of stress. B. They are less likely to be depressed. C. They are good at martialing their social support. D. They are more likely to get good social support. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

57. When young children experience the impending death of a sibling, the best approach is A. to give no explanation to them about death. B. to provide extensive detail about the cause of death. C. to inform them in advance about the impending death. D. to wait until the death occurs and provide information later. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

58. Which of the following statements is true of death education? A. It is inessential as most of the cultures consider death as a taboo topic. B. It must be imparted only to the college students. C. It is necessary as it creates awareness about the kind of care the dying want. D. It is mandatory as it provides encouragement for self-destructive leanings. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

59. Epidemiologic studies reveal that sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is less likely to occur in lower-class urban environments. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

60. The major cause of death in youths aged 15 to 19 is unintentional injury. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

61. The elderly (over age 65) are generally less prepared to face death than are the young. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

62. Relative to whites, blacks are also less likely to have diabetes, obesity, and hypertension. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

63. Women’s alcohol consumption is greater than men’s, exposing them to liver damage and alcohol-related accidents, and they consume more drugs than do men. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

64. Men are more likely to participate in hazardous sports and to use firearms recreationally. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

65. Although more male than female fetuses are conceived, more males are stillborn or miscarried than are females, and male babies are more likely to die than females. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

66. The Patient Self-Determination Act requires that all health care facilities in the United States have written policies and procedures concerning patients’ wishes for life-prolonging therapy. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

67. Physician-assisted dying is legal in all fifty states. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

68. Terminally ill patients shift from traditional to nontraditional medical care when their health and communication deteriorates. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

69. In the denial stage, patients act as if the illness is not severe, and it will shortly go away. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

70. Kübler-Ross’s theory has made an important contribution in identifying the universal stages of dying and breaking the taboo surrounding death. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

71. Patients are entirely dependent on medical staff for amelioration of their pain. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

72. In terminal care, the staff may burn out from watching patient after patient die, despite their best efforts. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

73. Explain the medical, social, and psychological factors associated with continuing treatment of a terminal illness. What options are now available to terminally ill patients and their families? Advancing and terminal illness frequently bring the need for continued treatments with debilitating and unpleasant side effects. There may, consequently, come a time when the question of whether to continue treatments becomes an issue. Increasingly, societies must struggle with the issue of euthanasia or ending the life of a person who is suffering from a painful terminal illness. Advancing illness can threaten the self-concept. As the disease progresses, patients are increasingly less able to present themselves effectively. It may become difficult for them to maintain control of biological and social functioning. Although terminally ill patients often want and need social contact, they may be afraid that their obvious mental and physical deterioration will upset visitors. Thus, patients may begin a process of social withdrawal, whereby they gradually restrict visits to only a few family members. As long as a patient’s prognosis is favorable, communication is usually open; however, as the prognosis worsens and treatment becomes more drastic, communication may break down. Hospital care is an option available for the terminally ill patients. Hospice care is designed to provide palliative care and emotional support to dying patients and their family members. Staff are especially trained to interact with patients in a warm, emotionally caring way. Usually, counselors are available for individual, group, or family intervention. 12-8 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

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74. Describe Kübler-Ross’s theory of dying. Evaluate the usefulness of her theory. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, a pioneer in the study of death and dying, suggested that people pass through five stages as they adjust to the prospect of death: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. The first stage, denial, is thought to be a person’s initial reaction on learning of the diagnosis of terminal illness. Denial is a defense mechanism by which people avoid the implications of an illness. A second reaction to the prospect of dying is anger. The angry patient is asking, “Why me?” Bargaining is the third stage of Kübler-Ross’s formulation. At this point, the patient abandons anger in favor of a different strategy: trading good behavior for good health. Depression, the fourth stage in Kübler-Ross’s model, may be viewed as coming to terms with lack of control. The patient acknowledges that little can now be done to stay the course of illness. The final stage in Kübler-Ross’s theory is acceptance. At this point, the patient may be too weak to be angry and too accustomed to the idea of dying to be depressed. As a description of the reactions of dying patients, her work was invaluable. She has chronicled nearly the full array of reactions to death, as those who work with the dying will be quick to acknowledge. Her work is also of inestimable value in pointing out the counseling needs of the dying. Finally, along with other researchers, she broke through the silence and taboos surrounding death, making it an object of both scientific study and sensitive concern. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

75. Suppose that you are working in a facility that provides care for terminally ill patients and their families. Outline the useful set of goals that will enable you to work with the dying. Informed consent—Patients should be told the nature of their condition and treatment and, to some extent, be involved in their own treatment. Safe conduct—The physician and other staff should act as helpful guides for the patient through this new and frightening stage of life. Significant survival—The physician and other medical staff should help the patient use his or her remaining time as well as possible. Anticipatory grief—Both the patient and his or her family members should be aided in working through their anticipatory sense of loss and depression. Timely and appropriate death—The patient should be allowed to die when and how he or she wants to, as much as possible. The patient should be allowed to achieve death with dignity. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

76. There has been a great deal of interest in hospice and home care for the terminally ill. What are the advantages of each for patients and care providers? What are the disadvantages? Hospice care is designed to provide palliative care and emotional support to dying patients and their family members. Patients are encouraged to personalize their living areas as much as possible by bringing in their own familiar things. Patients also typically wear their own clothes and determine their own activities. Hospice care is oriented toward improving a patient’s social support system. Restrictions on visits from family or friends are removed as much as possible. Staff are especially trained to interact with patients in a warm, emotionally caring way. Home care appears to be the care of choice for most terminally ill patients, and for many patients, it may be the only economically feasible care. The psychological advantages of home care are that the patient is surrounded by personal items and by family rather than medical staff. Some degree of control can be maintained over such activities as what to eat or what to wear. Although home care is often easier on the patient psychologically, it can be very stressful for the family. Even if the family can afford around-the-clock nursing, often at least one family member’s energies must be devoted to the patient on an almost full-time basis. The designated caregiver must often leave work and faces the additional stress of contact, that of constant contact with the prospect of death. The caregiver may be torn between wanting to keep the patient alive and wanting the patient’s and their own suffering to end. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

77. Describe the psychological and physiological correlates of grief. Grief, which is the psychological response to bereavement, is a feeling of hollowness, often marked by preoccupation with the image of the deceased person, expressions of hostility toward others, and guilt over the death. Bereaved people often show a restlessness and an inability to concentrate on activities, and they may experience yearning for their loved one, as well as anger or depression, especially during the first 6 months. The grief response may be more aggravated in men, in caregivers, and in those whose loss was sudden and unexpected. Grief may be especially pronounced in mothers of children who have died, which may be complicated by depression. In helping a child to cope with the death of a parent or a sibling, it is best not to wait until the death has actually occurred. Rather, the child should be prepared for the death. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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# of Questions 77

Chapter 13 Heart Disease, Hypertension, Stroke, and Type II Diabetes 1. The number-one killer in the United States, accounting for one out of every four deaths, is A. diabetes. B. coronary heart disease. C. hypertension. D. cancer. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

2. Coronary heart disease is A. unrelated to the changes in diet. B. a disease of modernization. C. prevalent among children. D. unrelated to social status. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

3. Raj, who complains of chest pain, is admitted to a hospital. The diagnosis reveals that his blood vessels have narrowed and the flow of oxygen and nourishment to his heart is partially obstructed. He is most likely suffering from A. congenital heart disease. B. coronary heart disease. C. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. D. Parkinson’s disease. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4. Which of the following is a risk factor for coronary heart disease? A. abnormal weight loss B. low serum cholesterol C. curvature of the spine D. diabetes Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

5. The combination of obesity centered around the waist, high blood pressure, high levels of triglycerides, and low levels of HDL cholesterol are symptomatic of A. congenital heart disease. B. metabolic syndrome. C. liver cirrhosis. D. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

6. Gerard is obese around the waist. He has high blood pressure and low levels of good cholesterol. These are symptomatic of A. stroke. B. hypertension. C. multiple sclerosis. D. metabolic syndrome. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7. According to a study by Lawlor et al. (2005), risk factors for heart disease begin to cluster by age _____ for those low in socioeconomic status (SES). A. 32 B. 43 C. 14 D. 25 Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

8. According to a study by Troxel et al. (2003), _____ are disproportionately exposed to chronic stress and are at an elevated risk for coronary heart disease (CHD). A. Native Americans B. African Americans C. Asian Americans D. Pacific Islanders 13-1 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

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9. Which of the following statements is true of the impact of social factors on coronary heart disease (CHD)? A. Industrialized countries have a very low incidence of CHD. B. People who are less mobile have a higher frequency of CHD. C. Social stability is linked to high rates of CHD. D. Migrants have a high incidence of CHD. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

10. Which of the following job factors are associated with increased risk of coronary heart disease (CHD)? A. discrepancy between occupation and diet B. discrepancy between occupation and family life C. high social support at work D. high work demands and low control Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

11. In the context of coronary heart disease (CHD), which of the following statements is true about women? A. They are less likely to die from a first heart attack than men. B. They experience an increased risk of CHD after menopause. C. They develop CHD on an average of about 15 years earlier than do men. D. They are protected at young ages against CHD due to their lower levels of HDL cholesterol. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

12. The personality quality “agency” is associated with A. a focus on others. B. a focus on oneself. C. relationships. D. self-sacrifice. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

13. Which of the following personality qualities reflects a positive caring orientation to others? A. communion B. agency C. unmitigated agency D. unmitigated communion Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

14. Which of the following best describes unmitigated communion? A. It is a focus on the self. B. It is a focus on social unity. C. It is an extreme focus on others. D. It is an extreme focus on oneself. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

15. According to the research by Gallacher et al., (1999) and Boyle et al., (2004), which of the following emotions increases the risk of heart disease, predicts poor likelihood of survival, and acts as a potential trigger for heart attacks. A. fear B. anger C. frustration D. jealousy Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

16. Cynical hostility is characterized by A. suspiciousness. B. optimism. C. infrequent angry episodes. D. trust in others. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

17. Which of the following statements is true about hostility in people? A. Hostility is considerably stable among girls but not among boys. B. People of higher socioeconomic status (SES) are more hostile than people of lower SES. 13-2 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

C. Whites are generally more hostile than non-whites. D. Adult men show higher hostility than women. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

18. Hostile people exhibit a ________ response to sympathetic activity in response to stress. A. friendly B. strong pessimistic C. favorable D. weak antagonistic Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

19. Individuals who are high in hostility A. have chronically low blood pressure. B. show lower heart rate reactivity to laboratory stressors. C. show exaggerated cardiovascular reactivity. D. show strong antagonistic responses to sympathetic activities. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

20. Which of the following statements is true of depression? A. It is an independent risk factor for CHD. B. It is a psychological by-product of other risk factors for CHD. C. It is based on genetic factors. D. It is unrelated to metabolic syndrome. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

21. Depression in people who are hostile and in African Americans is likely to be closely linked to A. an atypical antidepressant. B. calcium-binding protein B. C. C-reactive protein. D. a tricyclic antidepressant. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

22. Depression is typically treated with Prozac, which is a(n) A. atypical antidepressant. B. monoamine oxidase inhibitor. C. serotonin reuptake inhibitor. D. tricyclic antidepressant. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

23. _____ remains an underdiagnosed and untreated contributor to coronary heart disease (CHD) morbidity and mortality. A. High cholesterol B. Hostility C. Genetics D. Depression Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

24. _____ refers to chronically searching the environment for potential threats. A. Rumination B. Due diligence C. Vigilant coping D. Type-A behavior Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

25. During the initial treatment for myocardial infarction, a patient who copes by using denial is likely to have A. recurrent ischemia. B. complications such as reinfarction. C. reduced anxiety. D. a diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

26. Patients with myocardial infraction are treated in a(n) _____ unit where their cardiac functioning is continually monitored. 13-3 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

A. hospice care B. coronary care C. home care D. acute care Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

27. Successful cardiac rehabilitation depends critically on A. the cost involved in the treatment. B. the medical practitioner’s involvement. C. the patient’s active participation and commitment. D. the level of cynical hostility shown by medical staff. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

28. Beta-adrenergic blocking drugs are used in cardiac rehabilitation A. to activate the parasympathetic nervous system. B. to resist the effects of sympathetic nervous system stimulation. C. to control the pain of angina pectoris. D. to restrict the negative side effects of the administered drugs. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

29. _____ are the most common drugs prescribed for patients following an acute coronary event or a stroke, particularly if they have elevated lipids. A. Statins B. Diuretics C. Beta-blockers D. Vitamins Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

30. In the context of cardiac rehabilitation, which of the following statements is true of social support? A. Social support during hospitalization predicts depression during recovery. B. Social support predicts an increased likelihood of social drinking. C. Social support is likely to increase intolerance for exercise. D. Social support predicts a decreased likelihood of smoking. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

31. During cardiac rehabilitation of a patient, social support is A. most effective when it is provided by the medical staff. B. least effective when it is provided by a close family member. C. likely to cause marital strain when it is provided by the spouse. D. likely to reduce depression in the patient if the partner is overly solicitous. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

32. Cardiac invalidism occurs when A. patients and their spouses underestimate a patient’s physical abilities. B. spouses underestimate the extent of a patient’s disabilities. C. patients malinger in order to reap secondary gains associated with the sick role. D. patients feel that they are unable to control the stressors in their daily lives. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

33. In a study of cardiac invalidism (Taylor et al., 1985), wives’ perceptions of their husbands’ cardiac and physical efficiency were highest when they had A. been provided information about their husbands’ medical and psychological condition. B. observed their husbands’ performance on a treadmill task. C. personally experienced the treadmill task themselves. D. been informed that a treadmill task is going to be conducted. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

34. CPR is A. cardiopulmonary relief. B. cardiac prevention resources. C. cardiac prevention resuscitation. D. cardiopulmonary resuscitation. 13-4 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

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35. Sudden death from heart attack is most likely to occur A. at home. B. at work. C. on vacation. D. while the patient is asleep. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

36. _____ is a useful indicator of the functional capacity of recovering myocardial infarction patients. A. Thallium scanning B. Echocardiogram C. Psychometric test D. Treadmill test Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

37. _____ is a symptomless disease. A. Type II diabetes B. Stroke C. Hypertension D. Coronary heart disease Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

38. Which of the following instruments is used to assess hypertension? A. a pressure altimeter B. a barometer C. the Bourdon gauge D. a sphygmomanometer Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

39. Which of the following statements is true about diastolic pressure? A. It has greater value in diagnosing hypertension than systolic pressure. B. It is the amount of force developed during contraction of the heart. C. It is the pressure in the arteries when the heart is relaxed. D. Severe hyper tension involves a diastolic pressure consistently above 180. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

40. Men and women in the United States face a similar chance of developing hypertension A. between ages 45 and 54. B. between ages 55 and 64. C. before age 25. D. after age 65. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

41. A systolic pressure consistently between 140 and 159 indicates A. moderate hypertension. B. severe hypertension. C. mild hypertension. D. critical hypertension. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

42. According to a study of hypertension risk factors by Ewart (1991), a family environment that fosters _____ contributes to hypertension. A. negative affectivity B. chronic anger C. excessive competitiveness D. cynical distrust Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

43. The prevalence of hypertension among lower-income African Americans is most likely due to A. lower waist-to-hip ratio. B. higher high-density lipoprotein cholesterol level. C. lower fasting insulin levels. 13-5 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

D. greater body mass. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

44. “John Henryism” is a personality predisposition A. that helps African American men cope with racism. B. that proves active coping efforts of a person are likely to be unsuccessful. C. that enables a person to actively cope with psychosocial stressors. D. that is found only in white men. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

45. People who are diagnosed with hypertension are advised to A. increase red meat intake. B. reduce physical activity to keep their blood pressure low. C. consume low-potassium foods. D. consume low-sodium foods. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

46. Cognitive-behavioral techniques A. may substitute for drug treatments in case of severe hypertension. B. are expensive and highly difficult to implement. C. can be used without supervision and have no side effects. D. have been moderately successful in the treatment of hypertension. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

47. The risk factors for stroke A. are independent of those for heart disease. B. decrease with age. C. cannot be modified by lifestyle changes. D. include cigarette smoking. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

48. Which of the following statements is true of stroke? A. The likelihood of a stroke decreases with age. B. Stroke occurs more often in women than in men. C. Stroke does not occur among those who have diabetes. D. Stroke risk factors overlap with those for heart disease. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

49. Patients with right-brain damage due to stroke typically suffer A. communication disorders such as aphasia. B. impaired performance on cognitive tasks that require the use of short-term memory. C. difficulty in processing visual feedback. D. extreme anxiety and depression. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

50. Stroke patients with right-brain damage suffer a condition called alexithymia, which is characterized by A. hypersensitivity to emotions. B. indifference to one’s situation. C. difficulty in recognizing individual faces. D. problems with short-term memory. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

51. Type II diabetes A. is likely to develop only after age 60. B. is the number-one killer in the United States. C. is a rare phenomenon among children. D. is a non-insulin-dependent diabetes. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

52. _____ involves a delicate balance between insulin production and insulin responsiveness. A. Cardiac invalidism. B. Fructose metabolism 13-6 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

C. Hypothyroidism D. Glucose metabolism Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

53. Which of the following factors is an indication of high risk for diabetes? A. abnormal glycemic responsiveness to stress B. high conscientiousness C. reduced sympathetic nervous system activity D. low blood pressure Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

54. Poor adherence to diabetic regimens by people with Type II diabetes is most often a result of A. their unawareness of the health risks. B. the interference by their family members. C. their dependency on the medical staff. D. their increased sense of self-efficacy. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

55. Which of the following best predicts compliance with a diabetic treatment regimen? A. restricting the number of persons in the patients’ social support network B. training diabetics to recognize when their blood glucose level needs to be modified C. training diabetics in self-management and problem-solving skills D. following strict stress management and relaxation training programs Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

56. Diabetes is a risk factor for coronary heart disease. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

57. Identifying patients with metabolic syndrome rarely helps predict heart attacks. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

58. Across the life span, women seem to be protected against coronary heart disease relative to men. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

59. People who are high in cynical hostility generally have a high level of social support. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

60. Research suggests that expressing anger is more reliably associated with cardiovascular reactivity than the state of anger. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

61. Vigilant coping is a risk factor for heart disease. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

62. Successful cardiac rehabilitation depends critically on the patient’s active participation and commitment. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

63. Aspirin has been found to significantly reduce the risk for fatal heart attack. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

64. Mild hypertension is defined by a diastolic pressure consistently between 105 and 119. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

65. Stroke patients achieve their maximum recovery within the first two months after stroke. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

66. In individuals who are at high risk for diabetes, modest weight loss and small increases in physical activity can cause significant reduction in the incidence of diabetes. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

67. Maria often complains of negative emotions, stress, and emotional pressures at work. Her colleague, Tandra, says that constant stress can trigger acute coronary events and advises her to meet a doctor. Support Tandra’s statement by citing the research on emotion and coronary heart disease (CHD). Stress is an important culprit in the development of CHD and may interact with genetically-based weaknesses to increase its likelihood. Extensive research links chronic stress, trauma exposure, and acute stress to CHD and to adverse clinical events (Hendrickson, Neylan, Na, Regan, Zhang, & Cohen, 2013; Phillips, Carroll, Ring, Sweeting, & West, 2005; Vitaliano et al., 2002). Acute stress involving emotional pressure, anger, extreme excitement (Strike & Steptoe, 2005), negative emotions, and sudden bursts of activity can precipitate sudden clinical events, such as a heart attack, angina, or death (Lane et al., 2006; Nicholson, Fuhrer, & Marmot, 2005). The stress reactivity associated with these events can lead to plaque rupture and risk of a clot. This process may explain why stress can trigger acute coronary events such as heart attacks (Strike, Magid, Brydon, Edwards, McEwan, & Steptoe, 2004). Stress has been linked directly to increased inflammatory activity as well (McDade, Hawkley, & Cacioppo, 2006). Stress in the workplace can lead to the development of coronary heart disease. Jobrelated risk factors are job strain, especially the combination of high work demands and low control; a discrepancy between educational level and occupation; low job security; little social support at work; and high work pressure. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

68. Explain the relationship of lifestyle factors to coronary heart disease and cardiac rehabilitation. Most patients involved in cardiac rehabilitation are given dietary instructions and put on an exercise program involving walking, jogging, bicycling, or other exercises at least three times a week for 30–45 minutes. Exercise improves prognosis and may be especially important for people low in socioeconomic status (SES) with or at risk for coronary heart disease. Younger patients, women, and people with little social support, high social conflict, and negative coping styles are most at risk for high stress, and therefore require stress management. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

69. Explain the role of stress management in recovery from myocardial infarction. Stress management is an important ingredient in cardiac rehabilitation because stress can trigger fatal cardiac events. The patient is taught how to recognize stressful events, how to avoid stress when possible, and what to do about stress if it is unavoidable. Training in specific techniques, such as relaxation and mindfulness, improves the ability to manage. Some stress management interventions target hostility. Declines in hostility in midlife are associated with lower risk. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

70. Why is hypertension or cardiovascular disease (CVD) more prevalent among African American communities? Hypertension or CVD is a common medical problem in African American communities. Its high prevalence is tied to stress and low socioeconomic status (SES). It may also be tied to hostility and anger. Low-income blacks are especially vulnerable. They are likely to live in stressful neighborhoods. Exposure to discrimination and racism can contribute to high blood pressure among blacks, possibly by interfering with the normal decline in blood pressure at night. African Americans have an elevated risk of obesity, which is tied to hypertension. Cardiovascular reactivity among African Americans, especially older African Americans, may be part of a more general syndrome that implicates multiple risk factors for CVD, including greater heart rate reactivity, higher fasting insulin levels, lower high-density lipoprotein cholesterol levels, a higher waist-tohip ratio, and greater body mass overall. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

71. Explain why adherence to diabetic treatment programs is so difficult for most people to achieve. The key to the successful control of diabetes is active self-management. However, adherence to lifestyle change is problematic. Type II diabetics are often unaware of the health risks they face. Many diabetic patients do not have enough information about glucose utilization and metabolic control of insulin. A patient may be told what to do without understanding the rationale for it. Many Type II diabetics fail to recognize that they have a chronic health condition that requires sustained commitment to medications and behavior change, and so ensuring that these patients have the correct 13-8 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

beliefs about their illness is critical to adherence. Generally, social support improves adherence, but this is not true for diabetes. Social contact can lead to temptations to eat that compromise diabetic functioning. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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# of Questions 71

Chapter 14 Psychoneuroimmunology and Immune-Related Disorders 1. The interactions among behavioral, neuroendocrine, and immunological processes of adaptation are referred to as A. health psychology. B. psychoneuroimmunology. C. behavioral medicine. D. psychosomatic medicine. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

2. _____ is a generalized defense against pathogens. A. Natural immunity B. Specific immunity C. Passive immunity D. Humoral immunity Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

3. _____ levels are indicative of inflammatory activity and may increase in response to stress. A. Cytokine B. Serotonin C. Thyroxine D. Oxytocin Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4. Which of the following statements is true of short-term stressors? A. They are likely to suppress immune system changes that are involved in wound repair. B. They trigger up-regulation of specific immunity. C. They lead to rapid decrease in immune cells. D. They elicit immune responses that anticipate the entry of infectious agents into the bloodstream. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

5. Which of the following statements is true of the relationship between stress and the immune system? A. Brief stressors lead to changes in cytokine production. B. The immune system responds in the same way to all types of stress. C. Specific immunity increases in response to acute short-term stressors. D. Natural immunity decreases in response to immediate short-term stressors. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

6. Activation of the HPA axis A. increases the number of white blood cells. B. reduces the release of cytokines. C. decreases the level of glucocorticoids. D. increases humoral immunity. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7. Which of the following statements best defines autoimmune diseases? A. diseases in which the immune system is not able to produce antibodies B. diseases in which the immune cells’ attacks do not affect the foreign agent C. diseases in which the immune system fails to recognize the foreign agents that have entered the body D. diseases in which the immune system attacks the body’s own tissues, FALSEly identifying them as invaders Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

8. Which of the following statements best describes rheumatoid arthritis? A. It is a disease of lifestyle. B. It is a disease that typically attacks men. C. It is a disorder that can be cured by diet. D. It is an autoimmune disorder. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

9. Evidence suggests that some of the adverse effects of depression on immunity may be mediated by A. hostility. 14-1 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

B. disturbed hypothalamic functioning. C. poor maturation of the immune system. D. sleep disturbances. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

10. Juan is very stressed about his recent divorce. He is preoccupied with thoughts of his ex-wife. How is this stress likely to affect his immune system? A. It will not affect his immune system. B. His immune system will be less active than before. C. His immune system will be more active than before. D. Certain immune parameters will function better than before. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

11. Providing long-term care to friends or family members with long-term illness has been linked to adverse effects on almost all functional measures of the immune system. This can be attributed to caregivers’ A. poor eating habits. B. disrupted sleep patterns. C. experience of severe stressors. D. poor hygiene. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

12. Who among the following is likely to have low natural killer (NK) cell cytotoxicity? A. Martha, who is using avoidant coping methods to cope with the stress caused by the death of a friend B. Amanda, who is using active coping strategies to cope with stress caused by her recent divorce C. Sean, who is receiving emotional support from his wife to cope with stress at work D. Hector, who is unemployed but optimistic about finding work Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

13. Studies of personality and coping styles have found that the stress-related distress is moderated by A. optimism. B. avoidance coping. C. isolation. D. pessimism. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

14. Which of the following will improve immune functioning during stressful events? A. finding benefits B. being alone C. being pessimistic D. using avoidance coping Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

15. _____ is likely to mute the adverse effects of stress on the immune system. A. Relaxation training B. Pessimism C. Repressing one’s thoughts about stressful events D. Regarding stressors as uncontrollable Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

16. HIV primarily affects A. helper T cells and macrophages. B. monocytes and granulocytes. C. natural killer cells. D. B cells. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

17. HIV can be transmitted by _____ a person suffering from AIDS. A. touching B. sharing needles with C. breathing the air near D. being near Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

18. AIDS is caused by a A. bacterial virus. B. protozoan. C. retrovirus. D. bacteria. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

19. Which of the following symptoms will occur first in a person affected with AIDS? A. reduction in helper T cell activity B. swollen glands C. chronic diarrhea D. skeletal pain Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

20. The period between contracting HIV and developing symptoms of AIDS is most strongly influenced by A. personality differences. B. socioeconomic factors. C. sexual orientation. D. age. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

21. Which of the following is an early symptom of central nervous system impairment in people suffering from AIDS? A. seizure B. disorientation C. profound dementia D. psychomotor retardation Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

22. Who among the following are likely to develop AIDS the slowest? A. Hispanics, who test positive for HIV B. Blacks, who test positive for HIV C. Whites, who test positive for HIV D. People, from lower socioeconomic status who test positive for HIV Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

23. Which of the following statements is true about antiretroviral therapy? A. It can only control symptoms of AIDS. B. It is a combination of antibiotic medications. C. It can be used to reduce sexual transmission of HIV. D. It can be used to cure AIDS completely. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

24. Sarah was recently informed that she has AIDS. She is very depressed and has isolated herself from her friends. Which of the following actions is most likely to help her cope with her situation? A. practicing meditation B. reducing physical exercise C. not disclosing her HIV+ status D. using avoidance coping methods Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

25. Educational interventions are an effective means of A. primary prevention for HIV+ individuals. B. reducing behaviors that might infect others. C. primary prevention for uninfected participants. D. understanding the progression of the disease. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

26. Which of the following actions has been found to be associated with increased levels of CD4 and helper cells? A. using passive coping methods B. concealing one’s sexual orientation C. disclosing one’s HIV+ status 14-3 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

D. reducing socializing Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

27. _____ are most likely to disclose their HIV status. A. People who self-medicate their depression B. People with strong social support networks C. People who are less likely to use condoms during intercourse D. People from lower socioeconomic status Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

28. Which of the following statements is true of cognitive-behavioral interventions? A. They need to be directed only at improving health behaviors. B. They need to be directed only at stress management. C. They can help in maintaining adherence. D. They have no effect on the viral load. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

29. Who among the following are likely to adhere to antiretroviral therapy (ART)? A. people with social support B. homeless people C. IV drug users D. alcoholics Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

30. Cognitive-behavioral intervention programs that work with other at-risk populations may not work as well with IV drug users because A. their peer group has too much influence. B. they lack good impulse control. C. methadone programs don’t work with them. D. they are not receptive to outside interventions. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

31. Who among the following patients is likely to be better adjusted and most successful in coping with HIV infection? A. Paul, who has enrolled himself in an experimental treatment program on the insistence of his family B. Mary, who contracted HIV through a faulty blood transfusion and feels that she has no personal control over the disease C. Tom, who prefers to spend most of his time by himself because seeing his family frequently upsets him D. John, who feels that he has some control over the disease and has taken responsibility for his treatment Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

32. People who use the Internet to manage their HIV seropositive status are likely to _____ than those not using the Internet. A. use passive coping skills B. have less social support C. engage in more information-seeking D. be less knowledgeable about the disease and more interested in sharing their experience Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

33. Hayden found out that he is HIV seropositive during his last general checkup. However, Hayden has not experienced any of the symptoms that indicate the onset of AIDS. Which of the following is most likely to lead to the onset of the disease in Hayden? A. positive beliefs about self and future B. negative expectations of the disease C. being surrounded by friends and family D. disclosing his HIV seropositive status Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

34. All cancers result from A. immunocompromise. B. a dysfunction in RNA. C. a dysfunction in DNA. D. a reduction in DNA. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

35. Cancers are hard to study because A. they are not affected by lifestyle or genetics. B. they have long or irregular growth cycles. C. finding appropriate cell lines for conducting studies is very difficult. D. of the lack of funding for cancer research. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

36. Who among the following are likely to develop fewer cancers? A. alcoholics B. married people C. people who are malnourished D. people who consume fat Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

37. According to research, how do pessimism and psychological distress affect the course of cancer? A. They cause physiological changes in the later stages of cancer, thereby masking the severity of cancer. B. They alter the function of the body’s immune system, which allows cancer to flourish. C. They drive patients to seek active coping strategies, which arrests the growth of cancer in early stages. D. They do not appear to particularly affect the course of cancer. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

38. _____ is the most common difficulty experienced as a result of cancer. A. Depression B. Eating disorders C. Anxiety disorders D. Social awkwardness Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

39. Cancer patients who receive social support are likely to A. express improved immunologic responses to cancer. B. have problems in psychological adjustment to cancer. C. express social awkwardness because they are surrounded by people who do not know what they are experiencing. D. experience depression because it leads to the thought that they may not live as long as others. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

40. Susan, Sarah, and Charlotte are suffering from breast cancer. Susan is a middle-class white woman whose family and friends provide her with emotional and instrumental social support. Sarah is a single Hispanic woman from a working-class family. Her parents are deceased, her siblings do not contact her, and her children are too frightened to be of much support. Charlotte is an African-American woman who was widowed recently. According to the scenario, who is more likely to survive the longest? A. Susan B. Sarah C. Charlotte D. There is no way to predict mortality in these cases. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

41. In the context of cancer, cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) intervention focuses on A. reducing cancer risk-related behavior. B. medical treatments to improve immunologic functioning related to the course of illness. C. active cultivation of conscious awareness through relaxation, meditation, and yoga. D. reducing depression and controlling fear of recurrence. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

42. Megan has breast cancer. She is anxious and depressed. She is scared of the impending surgery. Also, she worried that the cancer might recur and that it might be fatal. Which of the following therapies is her oncologist likely to recommend to help her cope with her fear and worries? A. cognitive behavioral therapy B. hypnotherapy C. writing therapy D. psychodynamic therapy Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

43. Identify a true statement about rheumatoid arthritis. A. It is an infectious disease that only attacks the heart muscles. B. It is a disease in which complete recovery is possible. C. It is a mild form of arthritis. D. It primarily affects children and young-adults. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

44. Which of the following is a symptom of rheumatoid arthritis? A. nausea B. inflammation C. poor vision D. poor cognitive functioning Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

45. Which of the following statements is true of rheumatoid arthritis? A. It is the least crippling form of arthritis. B. It primarily occurs in middle-aged people and the elderly. C. It is usually fatal. D. It is unaffected by stress and psychological variables. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

46. _____ develops when the smooth lining of a joint, known as the articular cartilage, begins to crack or wear away because of overuse, injury, or other causes. A. Cancer B. Leprosy C. Osteoarthritis D. HIV Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

47. _____ is an autoimmune disease that tends to affect the weight-bearing joints: the hips, knees, and spine. A. Blood cancer B. Osteoarthritis C. Lyme disease D. Cushing’s disease Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

48. Which of the following parts of the body will be affected by osteoarthritis? A. skin B. spine C. blood D. kidney Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

49. Which of the following statements is true about osteoarthritis? A. It affects only the small joints of the wrists and hands. B. It affects only the joints in the spine. C. It involves the deterioration of cartilage in weight-bearing joints. D. It is a genetic disorder. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

50. Identify a true statement about osteoarthritis. A. It cannot be managed through active coping methods. B. It can be managed by reducing one’s weight. C. It affects the muscles around the bones. D. It is common in children. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

51. Which of the following statements is true of Type I diabetes? A. It develops relatively late in life (after age 40). B. It accounts for 90 percent of all diabetics. C. It is characterized by an abrupt onset of symptoms. D. It is primarily managed by reducing the intake of sweets. 14-6 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

52. Children do better managing their diabetes regimen when their parents A. direct all their efforts to control diet to avoid hypoglycemia. B. convince them that they are normal. C. ensure that the children’s blood glucose levels stay steady. D. trust their children to adequately self-manage the treatment regimen. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

53. Studies have found impaired immune functioning among bereaved individuals. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

54. Specific immunity is especially important in combating short-term stressors. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

55. Studies with human subjects indicate that exposure to stressors is related to immunologic change. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

56. Impaired immune functioning has been found in samples of adults who have experienced short-term marital conflict, marital separation, and divorce. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

57. A common symptom for women with AIDS is gynecologic infection. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

58. A person may test HIV-seropositive (HIV+) but be free of a diagnosis of AIDS for years. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

59. Past sexual practice is an important predictor of AIDS-related risk behaviors. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

60. Japanese American women are more susceptible to breast cancer the longer they have lived in the United States and the more they have adopted the American culture. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

61. The most prevalent of the autoimmune diseases is cancer. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

62. People suffering from Type I diabetes usually have high adherence to self-management programs. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

63. Explain how stress is related to immune functioning and how the immune system responds to stress. Many common stressors can adversely affect the immune system. Studies show compromised immune functioning among people who had been bereaved, under stress, or awaiting examinations. Different kinds of stressors create different demands on the body, so they show different effects on the immune system. Two basic principles are important for understanding the relation of stress and immunity. The first is that different kinds of stressors require different kinds of defenses, and so a particular immune response may be favored over another in response to certain stressors. For example, short-term stressors raise the risk of injury, and so immune system changes involved in wound repair are very likely in response to short-term stress. A second important principle is that a maximally efficient immune response to any situation entails costs, and so some aspects of immunity may be adaptively suppressed as others are actively engaged. 14-7 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

64. How are depression, loneliness, and interpersonal stress associated with the immune system? There is a fairly straightforward relationship between depression and immunity, such that the more depressed a person is, the more cellular immunity is likely to be compromised. Depressive symptoms can be associated with prolonged inflammatory responses as well, which may link depression to other diseases such as heart disease. Lonely people have poorer health and immunocompromise, compared to people who are not lonely. Chronic interpersonal stress as early as adolescence predicts inflammatory activity over time; this pathway may underlie the relation of social stress to such disorders as depression and atherosclerosis. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

65. What are the common symptoms of AIDS? Some of the common opportunistic infections that result from the impaired immune system include pneumonia and unusual cancers, such as Kaposi’s sarcoma or non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Early in the disease process, people infected with HIV also begin to show abnormalities in their neuroendocrine and cardiovascular responses to stress. Chronic diarrhea, wasting, skeletal pain, and blindness are later complications. AIDS eventually leads to neurological involvement. Early symptoms of central nervous system impairment are similar to those of depression and include forgetfulness, inability to concentrate, psychomotor retardation, decreased alertness, apathy, withdrawal, diminished interest in work, and loss of sexual desire. In more advanced stages, patients may experience confusion, disorientation, seizures, profound dementia, and coma. A common symptom for women with AIDS is gynecologic infection. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

66. How do psychosocial factors influence the initiation and course of cancer? Avoidance, or the inability to confront the disease, has been tied to a more rapid course of the disease. Depression is implicated in the progression of cancer, both by itself and in conjunction with other risk factors. Cancer progression may be related to use of denial or repressive coping strategies. Avoidant or passive coping is also a risk factor for psychological distress, depression, poor sleep, and other risk-related factors, which may represent additional influences on the course of cancer. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

67. Why do people suffering from Type I diabetes show low adherence to self-management programs and their treatment regimen? Many type I diabetic patients do not adhere to self-management programs and treatment regimens. Because many of the severe complications of diabetes are not evident until 15–20 years after its onset, these risks do not frighten people into being adherent. They may feel no symptoms, and so fail to adhere to their treatment regimen. Many of the errors made by diabetics in adhering to their treatment regimen, then, are errors of omission rather than commission. Diabetic patients often fail to self-monitor their blood glucose level. Instead, like hypertensive patients, they rely on what their blood glucose level “feels like,” and they rely strongly on their mood for making this judgment. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Category Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

# of Questions 67

Chapter 15 Health Psychology: Challenges for the Future 1. In general, the health for most Americans have _____ in recent years. A. improved B. remained unchanged C. become more variable D. worsened Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

2. Which of the following is a health trend in the United States? A. The percentage of smokers in the United States has increased from 19.3 percent in 2000 to 23.2 percent in 2010. B. Most number of Americans died in traffic fatalities in 2011 than in any other year. C. Life expectancy in the United States reached an all-time high of 78.5 years in 2009. D. The overall percentage of adults with high cholesterol rose from 13.6 in 2008 to 14.6 in 2010. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

3. _____ has brought insurance coverage to many of the previously uninsured in the United States. A. State Children’s Health Insurance Program (SCHIP) B. The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (ACA) C. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act(HIPAA) D. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act(COBRA) Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

4. The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (ACA) was initiated by President A. Barack Obama. B. George W. Bush. C. Bill Clinton. D. Ronald Reagan. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

5. Sara, a health psychologist, uses technology effectively to implement behavioral interventions. To ensure that a patient with a poor memory adheres to the medicine intake schedule strictly, she will most likely A. send electronic reminders to the patient to take medications at the appropriate time. B. develop a website with complete information about the medicines. C. visit the patient every day and check if medicines have been taken on time. D. print the schedule from her computer and mail it to the patient’s home. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

6. In the context of health care, technology has A. not been able to help rural population. B. substantially reduced the need for health psychologists. C. enabled online visits to substitute for routine office visits to physicians. D. not been of particular help in individual interventions. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7. Which of the following statements is true of interventions for health-related issues? A. All health-related issues can be solved by education. B. Policy interventions are essential to tackle health problems. C. Many lifestyle issues that affect health are very easy to change. D. Physicians do not need any training as they are familiar with interventions in treatment. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

8. A continued collaboration with the medical community and medical treatments by psychologists is vital in a A. cost-contained approach. B. physician-centered approach. C. patient-centered approach. D. cost-oriented approach. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

9. Which of the following statements is true about the health habits of Americans? A. Exercise has increased among Americans. B. Obesity among American children is showing a declining trend. C. Smoking has increased among Americans. D. Alcohol consumption among Americans has decreased. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

10. According to the text, over the years, Americans’ alcohol consumption has A. decreased. B. increased. C. become more variable. D. remained unchanged. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

11. _____ is currently endemic and will shortly supplant smoking as the major avoidable contributor to mortality. A. Hypertension B. Obesity C. Deafness D. CHD Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

12. In the future, health promotion interventions will most likely be designed for A. female workforce. B. child laborers. C. small groups of adults. D. mass consumption. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

13. Which of the following statements is true of people who are at risk for particular disorders? A. Individuals at risk are unable to change their modifiable risk-relevant behaviors. B. Everyone who is at risk for an illness will develop it. C. Individuals at risk need to learn how to cope with their risk status. D. Everyone at risk for a particular disorder develops additional risk factors that lead to death. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

14. Which of the following is an essential goal of health care? A. developing a common objective for different groups in a population B. providing free health care access to children C. preventing poor health habits from developing D. adopting an expensive treatment plan for curing chronic diseases Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

15. _____ is a window of vulnerability for most bad health habits. A. Infancy B. Childhood C. Adolescence D. Adulthood Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

16. Several schools organize programs that expose fifth and sixth graders to antismoking material before they begin the habit of smoking. Such programs are an example of a _____ program. A. cost containment B. behavioral immunization C. cost effectiveness D. treatment effectiveness Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

17. Early drug prevention programs, such as Drug Abuse Resistance Education (DARE), are examples of _____ programs. A. cost containment B. behavioral immunization C. cost effectiveness 15-2 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

D. treatment effectiveness Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

18. Health promotion programs that target the elderly A. are a waste of money because health habits are established early in life. B. will become less important as the size of the elderly cohort will decline over the next 10 years. C. will become important as the size of the elderly cohort will continue to increase over the next 10 years. D. will become less important because the elderly cohort is exceptionally healthy and active. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

19. Intervention programs for older adults should focus on A. controlling alcohol consumption. B. producing a lower quality of life. C. reducing accidental risks at home. D. practicing good safety habits in automobiles. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

20. Significant gains in the quality of life would best be achieved by reorienting the focus of health promotion toward A. reducing the period of morbidity. B. delaying mortality. C. early identification of risk factors. D. increasing mortality. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

21. Refocusing health promotion strategies toward morbidity A. reduces health care costs. B. produces a lower quality of life. C. is unnecessary as death is inevitable. D. is not a productive move. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

22. Which of the following diseases has little impact on mortality rates but has a major impact on the functioning and wellbeing of the population, particularly the elderly? A. cancer B. CHD C. stroke D. osteoarthritis Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

23. Maximizing the number of good years during which a person is free from the burdens of chronic illness A. has no effect on the patients. B. reduces the mortality rate. C. increases the financial burden of that person’s family. D. produces a higher quality of life. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

24. In the context of promoting resilience, which of the following is a factor that reduces morbidity? A. solitude B. medication C. resignation to a disease D. marriage Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

25. In the context of health care, which of the following statements is true of the United States? A. It has the longest life expectancy in the world. B. It has the lowest infant mortality rate in the world. C. It spends more on health care than any other country in the world. D. It provides the best quality of health care among the developed countries of the world. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

26. _____ is the only country where health care for most people is financed by for-profit, minimally regulated, private insurance companies. A. The United States B. The United Kingdom C. Japan D. Australia Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

27. Low socioeconomic status is linked to A. lower rates of chronic illnesses. B. lower risk of accidents. C. low-birth-weight babies. D. high quality of life. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

28. _____ have poorer health at all ages and higher levels of depression, hostility, anxiety, and other emotional risk factors for chronic disease. A. African Americans B. Native Americans C. Asian Americans D. Pacific Islanders Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

29. Which of the following statements is true of the racial and ethnic differences in health? A. Native Americans have high levels of depression, hostility, and anxiety. B. African Americans and whites have the same life expectancy. C. African Americans have a higher infant mortality rate than whites. D. Whites have a higher likelihood for chronic diseases than African Americans. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

30. Which of the following statements is true of health insurance in the United States? A. Women are more likely than men to have health insurance. B. More than 13 percent of the population has no health insurance. C. Health insurance for majority of people is provided by nonprofit organizations. D. The health insurance industry is a heavily regulated industry. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

31. Health care in the United States is A. increasingly egalitarian. B. easily accessible and is free of cost. C. largely financed by the government. D. currently a two-tiered system. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

32. Women live, on average, _____ years longer than men. A. 8.5 B. 2.5 C. 4.5 D. 6.5 Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

33. In the context of health, which of the following statements is true of women? A. They live five years longer than men. B. They are sick more often than men. C. They are decreasing their use of health-compromising substances. D. They are the subjects of research in studies of many major diseases. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

34. In the context of health care, which of the following statements is true of women? A. Health care for women is better consolidated than for men. B. They have the same age of onset for major diseases as men. 15-4 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

C. Smoking is more hazardous for women than for men. D. They are less likely to encounter stressful conditions than men. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

35. Which of the following is an example of vulnerable population? A. the rich B. the insured C. the elderly D. men Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

36. Which of the following stressors is most likely to affect vulnerable populations? A. social support B. family income C. smoking D. crowding Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

37. Barbara helps her clients to identify the workplace characteristics tied to stress. She designs interventions to minimize the stressors that affect them. She is a(n) _____ stress researcher. A. occupational B. nutritional C. traumatic D. episodic acute Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

38. Which of the following statements is true of social support? A. Virtual self-help groups are incapable of providing social support. B. Social support is likely to increase stress. C. Social support is likely to benefit both the provider and the recipient. D. Social support seldom benefits the recipient. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

39. Which of the following statements is true of the health care system in the United States? A. Health care cost is highly economical in the United States. B. Health care services are being inappropriately used by consumers. C. Free-of-cost health care is provided by private insurance companies. D. The United States has no history of health care reforms. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

40. _____ play an important role in creating responsible and informed health care consumers and in the development and design of health services. A. Social workers B. Self-help groups C. Academic institutions D. Health psychologists Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

41. Trends within medical care suggest that the problem of patient-provider communication is likely to A. improve. B. worsen. C. discontinue after treatment. D. become less important. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

42. The most significant change in American health care that has implications for health psychology is A. the expense of high technology. B. the trends in physician education. C. the rapid growth of prepaid, colleague-centered services. D. the increasing preference for private, client-centered practices.

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43. Future programs targeting the management of chronic illness must incorporate A. all the available nontraditional treatment methods. B. assessment only during the terminal period of illness. C. restrictions on addressing ethical issues surrounding death and dying. D. cost-effective interventions to improve quality of life. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

44. The first step in developing cost-effective interventions to improve quality of life is A. to allow patients to treat themselves in nontraditional ways. B. to discuss the ethical issues surrounding death and dying with patients. C. to inform patients about the costs involved in the treatment. D. to conduct initial assessment during the acute period. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

45. _____ have an important role to play in addressing thorny issues such as assisted suicide, living will, and the patient’s right to die. A. Clinical psychologists B. Therapists C. Health psychologists D. Psychiatrists Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

46. As the elderly population increases, a corresponding increase is expected in the incidence of A. acute, life-threatening disorders. B. accidental deaths. C. chronic disorders. D. SIDS. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

47. Changes in society, technology, and microorganisms are leading to A. the decreased frequency of chronic illness among children. B. the disappearance of all the chronic diseases. C. the decrease in the cost of treatment. D. the emergence of new diseases. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

48. _____ testing enables an increasing number of people to know that they have a risk for illness even before they develop that illness. A. Stress B. Psychometric C. Genetic D. Psychological Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

49. The use of new technologies in medical care may be intimidating for some people. A health psychologist can assist such patients and their families by A. testifying before government committees on the hazards of technology. B. teaching them control-enhancing techniques to help reduce fear. C. advising the patients’ physicians on ethical issues. D. developing complex decision-making tools. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

50. Comprehensive intervention models A. are usually geared to specific diseases or disorders. B. do not provide care for chronic conditions. C. have proven to be less expensive than other intervention models. D. do not define the highest quality of care and treatment effectiveness. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

51. Pain management programs, hospices, and CHD rehabilitation programs are examples of A. coordinated intervention models. B. outpatient treatment models. C. comprehensive intervention models. D. fee-for-service models. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

52. The current trend toward cost containment pushes health psychology in the direction of research questions designed to A. develop readily available low-cost inpatient services. B. keep people within the health care system. C. increase the costs of providing health care services. D. develop interventions that are symptom focused. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

53. _____ medicine is the conscientious, explicit, judicious use of the best scientific proof for making decisions about the care of individual patients. A. Treatment effective B. Cost-contained C. Cost effective D. Evidence-based Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

54. Which of the following statements is true of the recent trends in international health? A. Life expectancy has decreased significantly in developing countries. B. Smoking has increased in developing countries. C. Countries that are becoming modernized are gaining the exercise benefits of an active lifestyle. D. The rate of occurrence of chronic diseases have decreased in most developing countries. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

55. _____ is a subfield within psychology that focuses heavily on the biology and neurological aspects of health psychology. A. Social psychology B. Clinical psychology C. Physiological psychology D. Developmental psychology Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

56. Emma wants to become a health psychologist and conduct research on the lifestyle choices that impact the management of type II diabetes. To what kind of graduate program should Emma apply? A. social psychology B. clinical psychology C. physiological psychology D. developmental psychology Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

57. _____ is a branch of health psychology that primarily focuses on interventions with patients. A. Social psychology B. Clinical psychology C. Physiological psychology D. Developmental psychology Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

58. _____ is a subfield within psychology that gives importance to studies on health of children and the factors affecting it. A. Social psychology B. Clinical psychology C. Physiological psychology D. Developmental psychology Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

59. Which of the following statements is true of health psychologists working in academic settings? A. They are highly likely to provide cognitive-behavioral interventions to patients. B. They are not likely to uncover the factors associated with the onset of illnesses. 15-7 Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

C. They are likely to educate physicians, nurses, and other health care workers. D. They are not likely to discover the factors associated with the maintenance of health. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

60. There is no decisive proof that psychological and biological states influence each other. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

61. Americans have made substantial gains in changing their poor health habits, including reduced consumption of highcholesterol and high-fat foods. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

62. To date, research has yet to establish the effectiveness of behavioral immunization programs that address health habits such as smoking, drug abuse, and diet. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

63. The adverse effect of low socioeconomic status on health is true only for men and is not associated with women. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

64. Low socioeconomic status (SES) is linked to higher rates of chronic illness and low-birth-weight babies. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

65. African Americans have higher rates of most chronic diseases and disorders than whites. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

66. Research suggests that because men and women differ biologically, smoking is only half as hazardous for women as for men. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

67. The health needs of vulnerable populations—the children, the elderly, and the poor— are given special priority in the study of stress and its reduction. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

68. As medicine becomes technologically more complex, the use of control-enhancing interventions will become even more important. TRUE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

69. The issue of treatment effectiveness is becoming less urgent because behavioral and psychological interventions have become well established in managed health care systems. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

70. There is no role for health psychologists in international health. FALSE Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

71. Behavioral immunization programs can be effectively used in health promotion among children. Justify the statement with examples.

Preventing poor health habits from developing is an essential goal of health care, to which health psychologists can and do make major contributions. Adolescence is a window of vulnerability for most bad health habits, and so closing this window is of paramount importance. Behavioral immunization programs for smoking, drug abuse, and, in some cases, diet and eating disorders expose fifth and sixth graders to antismoking or antidrug material before they begin these habits. They are likely to be successful in keeping some adolescents from undertaking such habits. Behavioral immunization for other health habits— including safe sex and diet—also holds promise. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

72. In the context of technological advances, discuss the role and importance of health psychologists in the changing medical practices. Technological advances in medicine have contributed greatly to the enormous costs of contemporary medicine. These complex aspects of medicine can themselves be daunting for many patients. Health psychologists can explain the purposes of these technologies and use control-enhancing interventions to enable people to feel like active participants in their treatment, thereby reducing fear. The growth of medical technology also raises complex questions about how it should be used. For example, many types of transplants are now available, and yet they are disproportionally available to those who can pay. At the same time, there is a shortage of organ donation. Health psychologists can help design communications to encourage people to donate organs. Advances in the decision sciences can be harnessed to improve health care decision making. Together with economists, health psychologists can help make medical decision-making processes easier through the development of simple decision-making tools. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

73. Explain comprehensive intervention models with examples. A trend within medicine that affects health psychology is the movement toward comprehensive intervention models. An example is pain management programs, in which all available treatments for pain are brought together so that individual regimens can be developed for each patient. A second model is the hospice, in which palliative management technologies and psychotherapeutic technologies are available to the dying patient. Coordinated residential and outpatient rehabilitation programs for coronary heart disease patients, in which multiple health habits are dealt with simultaneously, constitute a third example. Most comprehensive intervention models thus far have been geared to specific diseases or disorders, but this model may be employed for concerted attacks on risk factors as well. The mass media, youth prevention projects, educational interventions, and social engineering solutions to such problems as smoking, excessive alcohol consumption, and drug abuse, for example, can supplement programs that currently focus primarily on health risks that are already in place. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

74. Briefly discuss the impact of cost containment pressures in health care. Give examples of low-cost interventions used in clinical practice. Cost containment pressures have prompted the development of interventions that are time limited, symptom focused, and offered on an outpatient basis, a format that is not always conducive to change through behavioral intervention. Moreover, this trend has been accompanied by a shift in treatment decision-making power from behavioral health care providers to policy makers. The pressures of cost containment push health psychology in the direction of research designed to keep people out of the health care system altogether. Some of the low-cost interventions used in clinical practice include self-help groups, peer counseling, self-management programs, and Internet interventions. Writing about intensely traumatic or stressful events is also a low-cost, easily implemented intervention that has demonstrated benefits. Another example is the stress reduction and pain amelioration benefits that can be achieved by simple, inexpensive techniques of relaxation and other cognitive-behavioral interventions. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

75. Discuss the path to becoming a health psychologist. How can undergraduate, graduate, and postgraduate work contribute toward gaining employment? To pursue a career in the field of health psychology, as an undergraduate student, it is important to take all the health psychology courses one can and develop knowledge about the biological bases of behavior by taking courses in physiological psychology and neuroscience. Understanding the biological underpinnings of health psychology is important. Looking for summer employment opportunities in a medical school or hospital gives patient contact or contact with medical care providers. During years in graduate school, if interested in research, it is essential to take courses in research methodology and statistics. Getting practical experience and working with a health psychologist on several research or clinical projects is highly recommended. Following graduate school, additional training in the form of postdoctoral research can be obtained. Postdoctoral training is usually undertaken at a laboratory different from the place at which one’s Ph.D. was completed and takes place under the guidance of a senior scientist. Thus, after years of training and education, one gets ready for employment as a health psychologist. Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

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# of Questions 75