TEST BANK Human Body in Health and Disease 7th Edition Patton. Includes All Chapters 1-25. 477 Pages

Chapter 01: Introduction to the Body

Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which word is derived from the Greek word meaning “cutting up”?

a. Dissection

b. Physiology

c. Pathology

d. Anatomy

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: P. 3 TOP: Introduction

2. Which word is defined as the study of the function of living organisms and their parts?

a. Dissection

b. Physiology

c. Pathology

d. Anatomy

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 3 TOP: Introduction

3. Which word is defined as the scientific study of disease?

a. Dissection

b. Physiology

c. Pathology

d. Anatomy

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: P. 3 TOP: Introduction

4. Cells

a. are more complex than tissues.

b. are the first level of organization in the body.

c. are the smallest living units of structure and function in the body.

d. both B and C.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 6

TOP: Structural levels of organization

5. A group of cells that act together to perform a function is called a(n)

a. molecule.

b. organ.

c. tissue.

d. organism.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 6 TOP: Structural levels of organization

6. The heart is an example of a(n)

a. organ.

b. tissue.

c. organism.

d. system.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 6

TOP: Structural levels of organization

7. The levels of organization from most simple to most complex are

a. cell chemical organ tissue system.

b. tissue cell chemical organ system.

c. chemical tissue cell organ system.

d. chemical cell tissue organ system.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 5 TOP: Structural levels of organization

8. When using directional terms to describe the body, it is assumed that the body is in what position?

a. Supine

b. Anatomical

c. Lateral

d. Prone

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 7 TOP: Anatomical position

9. The supine position

a. describes the body lying face up.

b. is also called anatomical position.

c. describes the body lying face down.

d. both A and B.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 7 TOP: Anatomical position

10. The prone position

a. describes the body lying face up.

b. is also called the anatomical position.

c. describes the body lying face down.

d. both B and C.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 7 TOP: Anatomical position

11. Because humans walk upright, the term dorsal can be used in place of the term

a. inferior.

b. posterior.

c. anterior.

d. distal.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 7 TOP: Anatomical direction

12. The opposite term for posterior in humans is

a. superior.

b. anterior.

c. ventral.

d. both B and C.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 7

TOP: Anatomical direction

13. The opposite term for superficial is

a. deep.

b. inferior.

c. posterior.

d. medial.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 7 TOP: Anatomical direction

14. The body section that divides the right ear from the left ear is a _____ section.

a. frontal

b. sagittal

c. coronal

d. transverse

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 9

TOP: Planes or body sections

15. The body section that divides the nose from the back of the head is a _____ section.

a. frontal

b. sagittal

c. midsagittal

d. transverse

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 9

TOP: Planes or body sections

16. A section that divides the body into mirror images is a _____ section.

a. frontal

b. coronal

c. midsagittal

d. transverse

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 9

TOP: Planes or body sections

17. The two major body cavities are called

a. thoracic and abdominal.

b. thoracic and pelvic.

c. dorsal and ventral.

d. mediastinum and pleural.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 9 TOP: Body cavities

18. The liver can be found in the

a. upper right quadrant.

b. epigastric region.

c. hypogastric region.

d. both A and B.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 10

TOP: Body cavities

19. The word “leg” correctly describes the

a. area from the hip to the foot.

b. area from the knee to the ankle.

c. area between the hip and the knee.

d. femoral area.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 13 TOP: Body regions

20. The human body tries to maintain a constant body temperature. This is an example of

a. homeostasis.

b. a positive feedback loop.

c. an effector.

d. a sensor.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 14

TOP: The balance of body functions

21. The part of a feedback loop that has the direct effect on the regulated condition is called

a. homeostasis.

b. the effector.

c. the sensor.

d. the control center.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 14 TOP: The balance of body functions

22. The part of the feedback loop that detects a change in the regulated condition is called

a. homeostasis.

b. the effector.

c. the sensor.

d. the control center.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 14 TOP: The balance of body functions

23. The part of the feedback loop that compares the present condition within a body part or region to its homeostatic condition is called

a. homeostasis.

b. the effector.

c. the sensor.

d. the control center.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 14 TOP: The balance of body functions

24. When your body temperature drops below normal, your muscles begin to contract rapidly, making you shiver and generating heat. In this case your muscles are acting as the

a. sensor.

b. effector.

c. control center.

d. both A and C.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 14

TOP: The balance of body functions

25. Which of the following body functions is an example of a positive feedback loop?

a. Maintaining a pH of 7.45 in the body

b. Forming a blood clot

c. Uterine contractions during labor

d. Both B and C

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 15-16

TOP: The balance of body functions

26. The level of organization that precedes the organ level is the _____ level.

a. system

b. cellular

c. tissue

d. chemical

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 5 TOP: Structural levels of organization

27. Which of these terms cannot be applied to a body in the anatomical position?

a. Dorsal

b. Posterior

c. Supine

d. Both A and B

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 7 TOP: Anatomical position

28. Which term means toward the head?

a. Anterior

b. Superior

c. Superficial

d. Ventral

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 7 TOP: Anatomical direction

29. Which describes the anatomical relationship of the wrist to the elbow?

a. The elbow is proximal to the wrist.

b. The elbow is distal to the wrist.

c. The elbow is superficial to the wrist.

d. The elbow is lateral to the wrist.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 7

TOP: Anatomical direction

30. A coronal plane or section is another term for a _____ plane.

a. sagittal

b. midsagittal

c. transverse

d. frontal

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 9 TOP: Planes or body sections

31. The muscular sheet called the diaphragm divides the

a. right and left pleural cavities.

b. thoracic cavity and abdominopelvic cavities.

c. abdominal and pelvic cavities.

d. thoracic cavity and mediastinum.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 9 TOP: Body cavities

32. Which is not a part of the upper abdominopelvic region?

a. Right hypochondriac region

b. Epigastric region

c. Hypogastric region

d. All of the above are part of the upper abdominopelvic region.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 10 TOP: Body cavities

MATCHING

Match each term with its corresponding definition or description.

a. Chemical level

b. Cellular level

c. Tissue level

d. Organ level

e. System level

f. Organism

1. The smallest “living” part of the body

2. A word used to denote a living thing

3. Level that includes atoms and molecules

4. Level made up of groups of tissues working together to perform a task

5. Level that is the most complex unit within the organism

6. Level that is made up of a group of cells working together to perform a task

1. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 6 TOP: Structural levels of organization

2. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 5 TOP: Structural levels of organization

3. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 5 TOP: Structural levels of organization

4. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 6 TOP: Structural levels of organization

5. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 6 TOP: Structural levels of organization

6. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 6 TOP: Structural levels of organization

Match each term with its corresponding definition or description.

a. Superior

b. Anterior

c. Medial

d. Proximal

e. Superficial

f. Inferior

g. Posterior

h. Lateral

i. Distal

j. Deep

7. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 7 TOP: Anatomical direction 8. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 7 TOP: Anatomical direction 9. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 7 TOP: Anatomical direction

10. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 7 TOP: Anatomical direction

11. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 7 TOP: Anatomical direction

12. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 7 TOP: Anatomical direction

13. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 7 TOP: Anatomical direction

14. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 7 TOP: Anatomical direction

15. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 7 TOP: Anatomical direction

16. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 7 TOP: Anatomical direction

Match each term with its corresponding definition or description.

a. Frontal plane

b. Transverse plane

c. Sagittal plane

d. Diaphragm

e. Thoracic cavity

f. Abdominopelvic cavity

g. Cranial cavity

h. Mediastinum

17. A muscular sheet dividing the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities

18. The lower part of the ventral body cavity

19. Divides the body into right and left sides

20. Part of the dorsal cavity that contains the brain

21. Divides the body into upper and lower parts

22. A subdivision of the thoracic cavity

23. Divides the body into front and rear parts

24. Cavity that is subdivided into pleural cavities

17. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 9 TOP: Body cavities

18. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 9 TOP: Body cavities

19. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 9 TOP: Planes or body sections

20. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 9 TOP: Body cavities

21. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 9 TOP: Planes or body sections

22. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 9 TOP: Body cavities

23. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 9 TOP: Planes or body sections

24. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 9 TOP: Body cavities

SHORT ANSWER

1. Explain the difference between anatomy and physiology.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: P. 3

TOP: Introduction

2. Name and explain the structural levels of organization of the body and give an example of each.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 5-6

TOP: Structural levels of organization

3. Describe the anatomical position.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 7

TOP: Anatomical position

4. Define or explain the words “prone” and “supine.”

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 7

TOP: Anatomical position

5. Name and describe the three planes or body sections.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 9

TOP: Planes or body sections

6. Name the two major body cavities, and describe what is in each.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 9

TOP: Body cavities

7. Explain the three parts of a negative feedback loop.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 15 TOP: The balance of body functions

8. What is meant by a negative feedback loop? Give an example of a negative feedback loop in the body.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 15

TOP: The balance of body functions

9. What is meant by a positive feedback loop? Give an example of a positive feedback loop in the body.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 15-16 TOP: The balance of body functions

10. List the anatomical directions, and explain each of them. If there are alternate terms for an anatomical direction, give those terms also.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 7 TOP: Anatomical direction

TRUE/FALSE

1. Anatomy is defined as the study of the structure of an organism.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: P. 3 TOP: Introduction

2. The word “dissection” comes from Greek word meaning “cutting up.”

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: P. 3 TOP: Introduction

3. Anatomy deals with the study of structure, whereas physiology deals with the study of function.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: P. 3 TOP: Introduction

4. Pathology is the scientific study of disease.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: P. 3 TOP: Introduction

5. A protein molecule is considered to be at the cellular level of organization.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Analysis REF: pp. 5-6 TOP: Structural levels of organization

6. The cell is the simplest level of organization in the human body.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 6 TOP: Structural levels of organization

7. Cells are considered to be the smallest living unit of structure and function in the body.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 6 TOP: Structural levels of organization

8. A group of cells working together to perform a specific function is called an organ.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 6 TOP: Structural levels of organization

9. A group of several different tissues working together to perform a specific function is called an organ.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 6 TOP: Structural levels of organization

10. The organ is the highest level of organization in the human body.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 6 TOP: Structural levels of organization

11. Anatomical position is the reference position for the directional terms of the body.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 7

TOP: Anatomical position

12. If you like to sleep on your stomach, you prefer sleeping in the supine position.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 7

TOP: Anatomical position

13. Doctors recommend putting babies to sleep on their backs to help prevent breathing problems. This is the supine position.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 7

TOP: Anatomical position

14. The anatomical position can be described as the body being erect with the arms held at shoulder level with the palms of the hands facing down.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 7 TOP: Anatomical position

15. The ankle is distal to the knee.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 7

TOP: Anatomical direction

16. Dorsal and anterior are interchangeable terms when referring to humans.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 7 TOP: Anatomical direction

17. The lungs are medial to the heart.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 7

TOP: Anatomical direction

18. The elbow is proximal to the wrist.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 7

TOP: Anatomical direction

19. The skin is superficial to the muscles.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 7

TOP: Anatomical direction

20. Proximal and medial are opposite terms.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 7 TOP: Anatomical direction

21. The knee is distal to the ankle.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 7

TOP: Anatomical direction

22. The middle toe is medial to the big toe but lateral to the smallest toe.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 7

TOP: Anatomical direction

23. Frontal and coronal sections refer to the same thing.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 9 TOP: Planes or body sections

24. Sagittal and midsagittal sections refer to the same thing.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 9 TOP: Planes or body sections

25. A plane dividing a body into upper and lower portions is a transverse plane.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 9 TOP: Planes or body sections

26. A plane dividing the body into front and back portions is a sagittal plane.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 9 TOP: Planes or body sections

27. A midsagittal plane divides the right shoulder from the left shoulder.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 9

TOP: Planes or body sections

28. A transverse plane divides the eyes from the back of the head.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 9

TOP: Planes or body sections

29. A frontal section divides the eyes from the back of the head.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 9

TOP: Planes or body sections

30. The ventral cavity is one of the main cavities of the body.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 9 TOP: Body cavities

31. The mediastinum is a subdivision of the abdominal cavity.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 9 TOP: Body cavities

32. The pleural cavities are subdivisions of the thoracic cavity.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 9 TOP: Body cavities

33. The abdominal cavity is inferior to the thoracic cavity.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 9 TOP: Body cavities

34. The abdominal cavity and the pelvic cavity are separated by a muscle called the diaphragm.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 9 TOP: Body cavities

35. The thoracic cavity and the abdominal cavity are separated by a muscle called the diaphragm.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 9 TOP: Body cavities

36. The right hypochondriac region is completely in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 10 TOP: Body cavities

37. The left hypochondriac region is completely in the left lower quadrant of the abdomen.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 10 TOP: Body cavities

38. The right lumbar region is superior to the right iliac region.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 10 TOP: Body cavities

39. The dorsal cavity includes the spinal cavity.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 10 TOP: Body cavities

40. The brain is located in the dorsal cavity.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 10 TOP: Body cavities

41. Homeostasis is the relative consistency of the internal environment of the body.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 14 TOP: The balance of body functions

42. One method the body has of maintaining homeostasis is a positive feedback loop.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 14 TOP: The balance of body functions

43. In a feedback loop, the part of the system that compares the actual condition to the controlled condition is called the sensor.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 14 TOP: The balance of body functions

44. In a feedback loop, the part of the system that effects a change in the controlled condition is called the effector.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 14 TOP: The balance of body functions

45. In a feedback loop, the part of the system that detects a change in the controlled condition is called the sensor.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 14 TOP: The balance of body functions

46. A negative feedback loop stimulates and amplifies a change in the internal environment.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 15 TOP: The balance of body functions

47. A negative feedback loop opposes or negates a change in the internal environment.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 15 TOP: The balance of body functions

48. The body has more positive feedback loops than negative feedback loops.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 15 TOP: The balance of body functions

49. The formation of a blood clot is an example of a negative feedback loop.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 16

TOP: The balance of body functions

50. The pH of the body must remain within a very narrow range. It would more likely be controlled by a negative feedback loop.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 15

TOP: The balance of body functions

51. Women have one more positive feedback loop than do men.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 15

TOP: The balance of body functions

52. Both the heart and the blood vessels are considered to be organs in the cardiovascular system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 14

TOP: Structural levels of organization

53. An “L” on an anatomical compass rosette can stand for “Left” or “Lateral” depending on what is opposite it.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 8 TOP: Anatomical direction

54. An “S” on an anatomical compass rosette can stand for “Superior” or “Supine” depending on what is opposite it.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 8 TOP: Anatomical direction

55. When you look at an anatomical compass rosette in the text, the “R” on the rosette is on your right side.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 8

TOP: Anatomical direction

Chapter 02: Chemistry of Life

Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which subatomic particle has a positive charge?

a. Proton

b. Neutron

c. Electron

d. Nucleus

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 25 TOP: Atoms

2. Which subatomic particle has no charge?

a. Proton

b. Neutron

c. Electron

d. Nucleus

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 25 TOP: Atoms

3. Which subatomic particle has a negative charge?

a. Proton

b. Neutron

c. Electron

d. Nucleus

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 25 TOP: Atoms

4. Which subatomic particle is found in the nucleus?

a. Proton

b. Neutron

c. Electron

d. Both A and B

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 25 TOP: Atoms

5. Electrons are found

a. in the nucleus.

b. in orbitals.

c. at various distances from the nucleus called energy levels.

d. both B and C.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 25

TOP: Atoms

6. The atomic number of an atom is the number of

a. protons.

b. neutrons.

c. electrons.

d. both A and B.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 25 TOP: Atoms

7. The atomic mass of an atom is the number of

a. protons.

b. neutrons.

c. electrons.

d. sum of A and B.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 25 TOP: Atoms

8. The subatomic particle that determines how an atom unites with other atoms is the

a. proton.

b. neutron.

c. electron.

d. both A and B.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 26 TOP: Atoms

9. An atom that contains 20 protons, 21 neutrons, and 20 electrons has an atomic number of

a. 20.

b. 41.

c. 40.

d. 61.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 25 TOP: Atoms

10. An atom that contains 20 protons, 21 neutrons, and 20 electrons has an atomic mass of

a. 20.

b. 41.

c. 40.

d. 61.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 25 TOP: Atoms

11. An atom that contains 20 protons, 21 neutrons, and 20 electrons has

a. a positive charge.

b. a negative charge.

c. no charge (electrically neutral).

d. not enough information is given to determine its charge.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 25 TOP: Atoms

12. Which of these elements is not one of the four elements that make up most of the human body?

a. Carbon

b. Nitrogen

c. Oxygen

d. Calcium

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 26 TOP: Elements, molecules, and compounds

13. Bonds that usually dissociate in water to form electrolytes are _____ bonds.

a. ionic

b. covalent

c. organic

d. both B and C

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 27 TOP: Ionic bonds

14. The bonds formed when electrons are shared are called

a. electrolytes.

b. ionic bonds.

c. covalent bonds.

d. inorganic bonds.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 27 TOP: Covalent bonds

15. The process of dehydration synthesis

a. uses water to turn large molecules into smaller ones.

b. adds a molecule of water to the reactants.

c. converts smaller molecules into larger ones by removing water.

d. both A and B.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 29 TOP: Water

16. The process of hydrolysis

a. uses water to turn large molecules into smaller ones.

b. removes a molecule of water from the reactants.

c. converts smaller molecules into larger molecules by removing water.

d. both B and C.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 29 TOP: Water

17. Acids have

a. a pH less than 7.

b. more H+ ions than OH ions.

c. more OH than H+ ions.

d. both A and B.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 30 TOP: Acids, bases, and salts

18. Bases have

a. a pH less than 7.

b. more H+ ions than OH ions.

c. a pH greater than 7.

d. both A and B.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 30 TOP: Acids, bases, and salts

19. A solution with a pH of 4

a. has 100 times more H+ ions than a solution with a pH of 2.

b. has 100 times fewer H+ ions than a solution with a pH of 2.

c. has 100 times fewer H+ ions than a solution with a pH of 6.

d. is basic.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 30

TOP: Acids, bases, and salts

20. The end product of a reaction between a strong acid and a strong base is

a. water.

b. a salt.

c. a weak acid and a weak base.

d. both A and B.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 30 TOP: Acids, bases, and salts

21. Which of the following is an example of a monosaccharide?

a. Sucrose

b. Glucose

c. Lactose

d. Glycogen

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 31 TOP: Carbohydrates

22. Which of the following is an example of a polysaccharide?

a. Sucrose

b. Glucose

c. Lactose

d. Glycogen

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 31 TOP: Carbohydrates

23. Triglycerides

a. are steroid lipids.

b. have a phosphorus-containing unit on one end.

c. have two fatty acids.

d. have three fatty acids.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 32 TOP: Lipids

24. Phospholipids

a. contain glycerol.

b. contain two fatty acids.

c. contain three fatty acids.

d. both A and B.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 32 TOP: Lipids

25. Cholesterol

a. contains three fatty acids.

b. contains two fatty acids.

c. is a steroid lipid.

d. contains glycerol.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 33 TOP: Lipids

26. Which of the following is not true of proteins?

a. They have water-repelling tails.

b. They are made up of amino acids.

c. They contain nitrogen.

d. They contain peptide bonds.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 33 TOP: Proteins

27. Which of the following is a structural protein?

a. Collagen

b. Keratin

c. Enzymes

d. Both A and B

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 34 TOP: Proteins

28. Which of the following is a functional protein?

a. Collagen

b. Keratin

c. Enzymes

d. Both A and B

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 34 TOP: Proteins

29. Which of the following substances is not found in a DNA nucleotide?

a. Phosphate unit

b. Glycerol molecule

c. Nitrogen base

d. A sugar

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 35 TOP: Nucleic acids

30. Which substance is found only in DNA?

a. Adenine

b. Guanine

c. Thymine

d. Cytosine

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 35 TOP: Nucleic acids

31. The nitrogen atom has a total of seven electrons. To have a full outer energy level, it would have to

a. add one electron.

b. lose one electron.

c. add three electrons.

d. lose two electrons.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 26 TOP: Atoms

32. Which type of chemical bond does not result in the formation of a new molecule?

a. Hydrogen bond

b. Ionic bond

c. Covalent bond

d. None of the above; all chemical bonds result in the formation of a new molecule.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 28 TOP: Hydrogen bonds

MATCHING

Match each part of the atom with its corresponding description.

a. Protons

b. Neutrons

c. Electrons

d. Both protons and neutrons

1. Part of the atom that is found in the nucleus

2. Part of the atom that is found in orbitals around the nucleus

3. Part of the atom that gives an atom its atomic number

4. Part of the atom that when combined with the protons gives the atom its atomic mass

1. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 25 TOP: Atoms

2. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 25 TOP: Atoms

3. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 25 TOP: Atoms

4. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 25 TOP: Atoms

Match each organic compound with its corresponding description.

a. Carbohydrates

b. Triglycerides

c. Phospholipids

d. Cholesterol

e. Proteins

f. RNA

g. DNA

5. Compound whose basic unit is a monosaccharide

6. Nucleic acid that contains the nitrogen base uracil

7. Lipid that is used to make hormones such as estrogen and testosterone

8. Nucleic acid that contains the nitrogen base thymine

9. Lipid that is composed of a molecule of glycerol and three fatty acids

10. Lipid that has two fatty acids and is important in the cell membrane

11. Can be enzymes

5. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 31 TOP: Carbohydrates

6. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 35 TOP: Nucleic acids

7. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 33 TOP: Lipids

8. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 35 TOP: Nucleic acids

9. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 32 TOP: Lipids

10. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 32 TOP: Lipids

11. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 34 TOP: Proteins

Match each term with its corresponding description or definition.

a. Nucleus

b. Ionic bond

c. Atomic mass

d. Compound

e. Electrolyte

f. Atomic number

g. Covalent bonds

h. Orbitals

i. Hydrolysis

j. Dehydration synthesis

k. Acid

l. Base

12. Part of the atom in which electrons are found

13. Equal to the number of protons an atom has

14. Molecules that form ions when dissolved in water

15. Process by which reactants combine only after hydrogen and oxygen atoms have been removed

16. Compound that produces H+ ions

17. Part of the atom in which protons are found

18. Bond formed when oppositely charged atoms are attracted to one another

19. Compound that produces OH ions

20. Equal to the number of protons and neutrons in an atom

21. Process by which water is used to break larger molecules into smaller molecules

22. Bond that is formed when electrons are shared

23. A molecule that contains more than one type of atom

12. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 25 TOP: Atoms

13. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 25 TOP: Atoms

14. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 27 TOP: Ionic bonds

15. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 29 TOP: Water

16. ANS: K PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 30 TOP: Acids, bases, and salts

17. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 25 TOP: Atoms

18. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 27 TOP: Ionic bonds

19. ANS: L PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 30 TOP: Acids, bases, and salts

20. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 25 TOP: Atoms

21. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 29 TOP: Water

22. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 27 TOP: Covalent bonds

23. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 26 TOP: Elements, molecules, and compounds

SHORT ANSWER

1. Name the three parts of the atom, and give a description of each.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 25 TOP: Atoms

2. Explain how an ionic bond forms.

ANS:

Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 27 TOP: Ionic bonds

3. Explain how a covalent bond forms.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 27-28

TOP: Covalent bonds

4. Explain the processes of dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 29

TOP: Water

5. Describe the difference between an acid solution and a base solution by comparing the types and relative concentrations of ions in each.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 30

TOP: Acids, bases, and salts

6. Explain the relationship among H+ ion concentration, OH ion concentration, and pH.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 30

TOP: Acids, bases, and salts

7. Describe the structures of carbohydrates, and explain their use in the body.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 31

TOP: Carbohydrates

8. Describe the three types of lipids, and give the function of each.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 32-33

TOP: Lipids

9. Describe the structure of a protein, and give examples of structural proteins and functional proteins.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 33-34 TOP: Proteins

10. Explain the structure of a nucleic acid, and list the differences between RNA and DNA.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 35 TOP: Nucleic acids

TRUE/FALSE

1. Matter is anything that occupies space and has mass.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 25 TOP: Levels of chemical organization

2. The mass of an atom is determined by the total number of protons and electrons.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 25 TOP: Atoms

3. The two subatomic particles found in the nucleus of the atom are protons and neutrons.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 25 TOP: Atoms

4. A full atomic orbital always contains eight electrons.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 25 TOP: Atoms

5. The atomic number of an atom is the number of protons plus the number of electrons.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 25 TOP: Atoms

6. The closer an orbital is to the nucleus of an atom, the higher its energy level.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 25 TOP: Atoms

7. An atom with 11 protons, 12 neutrons, and 10 electrons has an atomic number of 11.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 25 TOP: Atoms

8. An atom with 11 protons, 12 neutrons, and 10 electrons has an atomic mass of 21.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 25 TOP: Atoms

9. An atom with 11 protons, 12 neutrons, and 10 electrons has a +1 charge.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 25 TOP: Atoms

10. An element is a substance composed of only one type of atom.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 26 TOP: Elements, molecules, and compounds

11. All molecules are not necessarily compounds.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 26 TOP: Elements, molecules, and compounds

12. Chemical bonds form when atoms share, donate, or borrow electrons.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 27 TOP: Chemical bonding

13. Ionic bonds result from atoms sharing electrons.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 27 TOP: Ionic bonds

14. When an ionic compound is put into water, it dissociates into ions.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 27 TOP: Ionic bonds

15. Covalent bonds are formed when atoms share electrons.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 27 TOP: Covalent bonds

16. When a covalent compound is put into water, it dissociates into ions.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 27 TOP: Covalent bonds

17. For a compound to be considered an organic compound it must have a C-O or an H-O bond.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 29 TOP: Inorganic chemistry

18. Water is the most abundant organic compound in the body.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 29 TOP: Water

19. The process of dehydration synthesis makes bigger molecules from smaller molecules.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 29 TOP: Water

20. The process of dehydration synthesis has water as one of its end products.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 29 TOP: Water

21. The process of hydrolysis has water as one of its end products.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 29 TOP: Water

22. One of the end products of hydrolysis would have one more hydrogen atom than it did at the beginning of the reaction.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 29 TOP: Water

23. Acids have a higher concentration of H+ ions than OH ions.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 30 TOP: Acids, bases, and salts

24. Bases have a higher concentration of OH ions than H+ ions.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 30 TOP: Acids, bases, and salts

25. A solution with a pH of 8 has more H+ ions than a solution with a pH of 4.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 30

TOP: Acids, bases, and salts

26. A solution with a pH of 5 has more H+ ions than a solution with a pH of 7.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 30

TOP: Acids, bases, and salts

27. A solution with a pH of 2 has 10 times more H+ ions than a solution with a pH of 3.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 30

TOP: Acids, bases, and salts

28. When a strong acid and a strong base react, one of the end products is water.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 30 TOP: Acids, bases, and salts

29. A weak acid almost completely dissociates in water.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 30 TOP: Acids, bases, and salts

30. When a strong acid and a strong base react, one of the end products is a salt.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 31 TOP: Acids, bases, and salts

31. A buffer is a substance that resists a sudden change in pH.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 31 TOP: Acids, bases, and salts

32. The basic unit of a carbohydrate is a monosaccharide.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 31 TOP: Carbohydrates

33. A molecule of glucose is larger than a molecule of sucrose.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 31 TOP: Carbohydrates

34. Sucrose is an example of a disaccharide.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 31 TOP: Carbohydrates

35. Glycogen and starch are both examples of polysaccharides.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 31 TOP: Carbohydrates

36. The process of dehydration synthesis could be used to convert a monosaccharide into a disaccharide.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 29 | p. 31 TOP: Water and carbohydrates

37. Both fats and oils are lipids.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 32 TOP: Lipids

38. A triglyceride contains two fatty acid molecules.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 32 TOP: Lipids

39. A triglyceride contains a molecule of glycerol.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 32 TOP: Lipids

40. Phospholipids contain three fatty acids.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 32 TOP: Lipids

41. Phospholipids are important molecules in the cell membrane.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 32 TOP: Lipids

42. Cholesterol is a steroid lipid.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 33 TOP: Lipids

43. Cholesterol contains two fatty acid molecules.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 33 TOP: Lipids

44. Cholesterol is needed for the formation of several hormones in the body.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 33 TOP: Lipids

45. The basic building block of proteins is nucleotides.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 33 TOP: Proteins

46. The basic building blocks of protein are held together by peptide bonds.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 33 TOP: Proteins

47. Structural proteins include collagen, keratin, and enzymes.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 34 TOP: Proteins

48. Enzymes are functional proteins that act as chemical catalysts.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 34 TOP: Proteins

49. The basic building blocks of nucleic acids are nucleotides.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 35 TOP: Nucleic acids

50. DNA and RNA molecules are identical except that DNA contains thymine and RNA contains uracil.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 35 TOP: Nucleic acids

51. The nitrogen bases adenine, guanine, and cytosine can be found in both RNA and DNA.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 35 TOP: Nucleic acids

52. One difference between DNA and RNA is the type of sugar found in the nucleotides.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 35 TOP: Nucleic acids

53. The smallest unit of matter is the electron.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 25 TOP: Levels of chemical organization

54. The oxygen atom has a total of eight electrons. That means it has six electrons in its outer energy level.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Analysis REF: p. 26 TOP: Atoms

55. The number of electrons in the outer energy level of an atom determines how it behaves chemically.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 26 TOP: Atoms

56. The formula for glucose is C6H12O6. This indicates that there are 24 atoms in a molecule of glucose.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 27 TOP: Elements, molecules, and compounds

57. The electrolyte most often formed by magnesium (Mg) is Mg++. This shows that the ion has two more electrons than protons.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 27

TOP: Ionic bonds

58. Water is the most common solute in the human body.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 29 TOP: Water

59. Both sucrose and lactose are examples of disaccharides.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 31 TOP: Carbohydrates

60. Fats tend to be solids at room temperature.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 32 TOP: Lipids

61. Both cholesterol and phospholipids form part of the structure of the cell membrane.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 32 TOP: Lipids

62. The lock-and-key model describes how two strands of DNA are able to join so precisely to form a double helix.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 34 TOP: Proteins

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following is not part of the cell?

a. Plasma membrane

b. Interstitial fluid

c. Nucleus

d. All of the above are part of the cell.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 44 TOP: Parts of the cell

2. Which of the following is not part of the plasma membrane?

a. Phospholipids

b. Cholesterol

c. Triglycerides

d. Neither B nor C is part of the cell membrane.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 44 TOP: Plasma membrane

3. Which of the following is not a function of the cell membrane?

a. Protein synthesis

b. Regulation of what moves into and out of the cell

c. Identifying the cell

d. Communication between cells

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 44 TOP: Plasma membrane

4. Tissue typing uses information

a. stored in the nucleus.

b. found on the plasma membrane.

c. found on the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

d. found in the Golgi apparatus.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 45 TOP: Plasma membrane

5. Which organelles can be called the “digestive bags” of the cell?

a. Ribosomes

b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

c. Mitochondria

d. Lysosomes

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 47 TOP: Lysosomes

6. What are the protein factories of the cell?

a. Mitochondria

b. Lysosomes

c. Ribosomes

d. Golgi apparatus

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 47 TOP: Ribosomes

7. Which are small fingerlike projections on the plasma membrane that increase the cell’s ability to absorb substances?

a. Microvilli

b. Cilia

c. Flagella

d. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 48 TOP: Microvilli

8. Which structure makes new membranes for the cell?

a. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

c. Golgi apparatus

d. Mitochondria

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 47 TOP: Endoplasmic reticulum

9. Which organelle has a subunit made of RNA?

a. Ribosome

b. Mitochondria

c. Golgi apparatus

d. Lysosomes

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 47 TOP: Ribosomes

10. Which of the following are called the “power plants” of the cell?

a. Ribosomes

b. Mitochondria

c. Golgi apparatus

d. Lysosomes

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 47 TOP: Mitochondria

11. Which are rod-shaped structures that are important in cell division?

a. Ribosomes

b. Mitochondria

c. Golgi apparatus

d. Centrioles

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 48 TOP: Centrioles

12. Which structure has ribosomes attached to it and helps transport proteins throughout the cell?

a. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

c. Golgi apparatus

d. Mitochondria

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 47 TOP: Endoplasmic reticulum

13. Which organelle consists of tiny flattened sacs that help process and package chemicals in the cell?

a. Ribosome

b. Mitochondria

c. Golgi apparatus

d. Lysosome

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 47 TOP: Golgi apparatus

14. Cellular respiration occurs in which organelle?

a. Ribosome

b. Centrioles

c. Golgi apparatus

d. Mitochondria

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 47 TOP: Mitochondria

15. Which are extremely fine hairlike structures on the surface of the cell?

a. Cilia

b. Microvilli

c. Flagella

d. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 49 TOP: Cilia

16. Only about half the population has which of the following organelles?

a. Microvilli

b. Cilia

c. Flagella

d. The entire population has all of the above organelles.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Analysis REF: p. 49

TOP: Flagella

17. What is the process by which substances scatter themselves evenly throughout an available space?

a. Osmosis

b. Diffusion

c. Filtration

d. Dialysis

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 51 TOP: Diffusion

18. What is the movement of water from an area of higher water concentration to an area of lower water concentration through a selectively permeable membrane?

a. Osmosis

b. Diffusion

c. Filtration

d. Dialysis

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 52 TOP: Osmosis and dialysis

19. What is the movement of water and solutes through a membrane because of hydrostatic pressure?

a. Osmosis

b. Diffusion

c. Filtration

d. Dialysis

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 53 TOP: Filtration

20. If one side of the DNA molecule has the nucleotide sequence of adenine—guanine—adenine —cytosine—thymine, the other side would be

a. adenine—guanine—adenine—cytosine—thymine.

b. cytosine—thymine—cytosine—adenine—guanine.

c. thymine—cytosine—thymine—guanine—adenine.

d. There is no way to determine the other side of the molecule.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 56

TOP: DNA molecule and genetic information

21. If the DNA code is adenine—thymine—guanine, the messenger RNA sequence would be

a. adenine—thymine—guanine.

b. thymine—adenine—cytosine.

c. thymine—uracil—cytosine.

d. uracil—adenine—cytosine.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 57

TOP: Transcription

22. If the messenger RNA code is adenine—uracil—cytosine, the transfer RNA bringing the amino acid would have which code?

a. Adenine—uracil—cytosine

b. Uracil—adenine—guanine

c. Uracil—thymine—guanine

d. Thymine—adenine—guanine

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 57

TOP: Translation

23. During which phase of mitosis does a cleavage furrow begin to appear?

a. Telophase

b. Anaphase

c. Metaphase

d. Interphase

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 60 TOP: Anaphase

24. During which phase of mitosis are chromosomes aligned in the center of the cell?

a. Telophase

b. Anaphase

c. Metaphase

d. Prophase

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 59 TOP: Metaphase

25. DNA replication occurs during which phase?

a. Telophase

b. Anaphase

c. Metaphase

d. Interphase

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 59 TOP: Cell division

26. Chromatin becomes “organized” during which phase of mitosis?

a. Telophase

b. Anaphase

c. Metaphase

d. Prophase

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 59 TOP: Prophase

27. During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes move to opposite sides of the cell?

a. Anaphase

b. Metaphase

c. Prophase

d. Telophase

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 60 TOP: Anaphase

28. During which phase of mitosis do two nuclei appear and the chromosomes become less distinct?

a. Anaphase

b. Metaphase

c. Interphase

d. Telophase

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 60 TOP: Telophase

29. Which organelle contains its own DNA molecule?

a. Ribosome

b. Mitochondria

c. Golgi apparatus

d. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 47 TOP: Mitochondria

30. Which structure programs the formation of ribosomes?

a. Mitochondria

b. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

c. Nucleolus

d. Golgi apparatus

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 50 TOP: Nucleolus

31. Which process does not rely on active transport?

a. Sodium-potassium pump

b. Phagocytosis

c. Pinocytosis

d. Filtration

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 53 TOP: Active transport

32. A codon consists of which number of nucleotides?

a. One

b. Two

c. Three

d. Four

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 57 TOP: Translation

33. Which term refers to an increase in cell size?

a. Hyperplasia

b. Hypertrophy

c. Atrophy

d. Anaplasia

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 61 TOP: Changes in cell growth and reproduction

34. Which term refers to an increase in the number of cells?

a. Hyperplasia

b. Hypertrophy

c. Atrophy

d. Anaplasia

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 61 TOP: Changes in cell growth and reproduction

MATCHING

Match each organelle or cell structure to its corresponding function or description.

a. Plasma membrane

b. Nucleus

c. Ribosomes

d. Mitochondria

e. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

f. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

g. Lysosomes

h. Centrioles

i. Microvilli

j. Nucleolus

1. Organelles that are called the “protein factories” of the cell

2. Structure made up of phospholipids and cholesterol molecules

3. Organelles that are called the “digestive bags” of the cell

4. Organelle named as such because of the ribosomes attached to it

5. Cell structure that controls every organelle in the cytoplasm and contains chromatin

6. Small rods that are important in cell division

7. The “power plants” of the cell

8. Small fingerlike projections in the plasma membrane that increase the efficiency of absorption of materials into the cell

9. A small structure in the nucleus that programs the formation of ribosomes

10. Organelle that produces new membranes for the cell

1. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 47 TOP: Ribosomes

2. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 44 TOP: Plasma membrane

3. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 47 TOP: Lysosomes

4. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 47 TOP: Endoplasmic reticulum

5. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 49-50 TOP: Nucleus

6. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 48 TOP: Centrioles

7. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 47 TOP: Mitochondria

8. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 48-49 TOP: Microvilli

9. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 50 TOP: Nucleolus

10. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 47 TOP: Endoplasmic reticulum

Match each phase of the cell life cycle to its corresponding description.

a. Interphase

b. Prophase

c. Metaphase

d. Anaphase

e. Telophase

11. Chromosomes are pulled to opposite sides of the cell

12. DNA replication occurs

13. The spindle fibers form

14. The chromosomes are aligned in the middle of the cells

15. The cleavage furrow completely divides the cell into two parts

11. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 60 TOP: Anaphase

12. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 59 TOP: Cell division

13. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 59 TOP: Prophase

14. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 49 TOP: Metaphase

15. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 60 TOP: Telophase

SHORT ANSWER

1. Describe the structure and function of the plasma membrane.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

TOP: Plasma membrane

REF: pp. 44-45

2. Describe or give the function of the following organelles: ribosomes, smooth and rough endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, mitochondria, lysosomes, centrioles, microvilli, and cilia.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

TOP: Cytoplasm

REF: pp. 47-49

3. Explain the structure and function of the nucleus, including the function of the nucleolus.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 49-50

TOP: Nucleus

4. Define or explain passive transport and active transport and give an example of each.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 50

TOP: Movement of substances through cell membranes

5. Explain the difference between osmosis and dialysis.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 52

TOP: Osmosis and dialysis

6. Explain the process of filtration and give an example of a body process that depends on filtration.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 53

TOP: Filtration

7. Explain the functioning of an ion pump, and give an example of one in the plasma membrane. Why are they considered active transport mechanisms?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 54

TOP: Ion pumps

8. Define or explain pinocytosis and phagocytosis.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 54-55

TOP: Phagocytosis and pinocytosis

9. Explain the role of ion pumps in both cystic fibrosis and cholera.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 55-56

TOP: Cell transport and disease

10. What is meant by specific base pairing?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 56

TOP: DNA molecule and genetic information

11. What is a gene?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 56

TOP: DNA molecule and genetic information

12. Briefly describe the process of transcription.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 57

TOP: Transcription

13. Briefly describe the process of translation.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 57-58

TOP: Translation

14. If one side of a DNA molecule is thymine—cytosine—guanine—adenine, what would the nucleotides on the other side be?

ANS:

Adenine—guanine—cytosine—thymine.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 56

TOP: DNA molecule and genetic information

15. If one side of a DNA molecule is adenine—thymine—guanine, what would the messenger RNA nucleotides be if this piece of DNA were transcribed?

ANS: Uracil—adenine—cytosine.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 57

TOP: DNA molecule and genetic information

16. If a messenger RNA molecule contains the sequence uracil—adenine—cytosine, what would be the nucleotide sequence for the transfer RNA it would attract?

ANS: Adenine—uracil—guanine.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 57

TOP: DNA molecule and genetic information

17. List the phases of mitosis and explain what occurs in each phase.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 59-60

TOP: Cell division

18. Define or explain the following terms: hypertrophy, atrophy, hyperplasia, neoplasm, anaplasia, benign neoplasm, and malignant neoplasm.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 61-62

TOP: Changes in cell growth and reproduction

TRUE/FALSE

1. The fluid inside the cell is called interstitial fluid.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 44 TOP: Composition

2. Both phospholipids and cholesterol are important parts of the cell membrane.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 44 TOP: Plasma membrane

3. One function of the cell membrane is to identify the cell as belonging to a particular individual.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 45 TOP: Plasma membrane

4. The term organelle refers to proteins that are embedded in the cell membrane.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 46 TOP: Cytoplasm

5. One of the jobs of the Golgi apparatus is to make new membranes for the cell.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 47 TOP: Endoplasmic reticulum

6. The “protein factory” is another name for the ribosomes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 47 TOP: Ribosomes

7. The difference between rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum is that the rough endoplasmic reticulum has ribosomes attached to it.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 47 TOP: Endoplasmic reticulum

8. Lysosomes are the “digestive bags” of the cell.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 47 TOP: Lysosomes

9. Microvilli are small hairlike structures on the outer surface of the cells.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 48 TOP: Microvilli

10. The only cells in humans that have flagella are sperm cells.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 49 TOP: Flagella

11. The Golgi apparatus consists of two small rods that play an important role in cell division.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 48 TOP: Centrioles

12. The nucleus is the only structure in the cell that contains DNA.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 47 TOP: Mitochondria

13. The nucleolus is a structure in the nucleus that programs the formation of ribosomes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 50 TOP: Nucleolus

14. Both chromatin and chromosomes are made up of DNA.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 50 TOP: Chromatin and chromosomes

15. The passive transport of material across the cell membrane requires the breakdown of ATP.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 50 TOP: Movement of substances through cell membranes

16. Diffusion of a substance across a cell membrane is an example of active transport.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 51 TOP: Diffusion

17. The simplest definition of dialysis is the diffusion of water across a cell membrane.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 52 TOP: Osmosis and dialysis

18. Osmosis and dialysis are both specialized examples of diffusion.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 52 TOP: Osmosis and dialysis

19. Filtration requires different levels of hydrostatic pressure across a membrane.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 53 TOP: Filtration

20. Active transport moves material by a mechanism that is opposite that of diffusion.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 53 TOP: Active transport processes

21. The cell membrane is able to efficiently move material because each ion pump can move a number of different substances.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 54 TOP: Ion pumps

22. Both pinocytosis and phagocytosis are examples of active transport mechanisms.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 54-55 TOP: Phagocytosis and pinocytosis

23. Pinocytosis comes from the Greek word meaning “cell eating.”

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 55 TOP: Pinocytosis

24. Cystic fibrosis is a disease that results from a failure of a passive transport mechanism in the cell membrane.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 55 TOP: Cell transport and disease

25. The inability of the cell membrane to control the movement of the chloride ion into and out of the cell is the cause of both cystic fibrosis and cholera.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 55-56 TOP: Cell transport and disease

26. The term complementary base pairing refers to the ability of the DNA nucleotide adenine to pair only with the nucleotide cytosine.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 56

TOP: DNA molecule and genetic information

27. If one side of a DNA molecule is adenine—guanine—cytosine—cytosine, the opposite side would be thymine—cytosine—guanine—cytosine.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 56

TOP: DNA molecule and genetic information

28. A gene and a nucleotide are the same thing.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 56 TOP: DNA molecule and genetic information

29. DNA and RNA differ in the number of strands they have, the type of sugar they have, and the types of nitrogen bases they have.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 56-57 TOP: RNA molecules and protein synthesis

30. The process of transcription occurs in the nucleus.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 57 TOP: Transcription

31. If the DNA code is adenine—thymine—cytosine, the messenger RNA code would be thymine —adenine—guanine.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 57

TOP: Transcription

32. The process of translation occurs in the nucleus.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 57 TOP: Translation

33. If the messenger RNA code is uracil—adenine—guanine, the transfer RNA code would be adenine—uracil—cytosine.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 57

TOP: Translation

34. The end product of the process of transcription is a messenger RNA molecule.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Analysis REF: p. 57

TOP: Transcription

35. The end product of the process of translation is an amino acid chain or protein.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Analysis REF: p. 57

TOP: Translation

36. If the DNA code is adenine—thymine—guanine, the transfer RNA code that would be called for would be adenine—uracil—guanine.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 57

TOP: Transcription and translation

37. DNA replication occurs during prophase of mitosis.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 59 TOP: DNA replication

38. During anaphase, the chromosomes align in the center of the cell.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 59 TOP: Metaphase

39. Chromatids form during prophase.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 59 TOP: Prophase

40. The cleavage furrow begins to appear during telophase.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 60 TOP: Anaphase

41. During telophase, two nuclei appear and the chromosomes become less distinct.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 60 TOP: Telophase

42. Hypertrophy and hyperplasia are interchangeable terms.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 61 TOP: Changes in cell growth and development

43. The term hypertrophy means that there has been an increase in size of individual cells.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 61 TOP: Changes in cell growth and reproduction

44. The term hyperplasia means a decrease in the size of individual cells.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 61 TOP: Changes in cell growth and reproduction

45. Atrophy can be defined as a decrease in the size of individual cells.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 61 TOP: Changes in cell growth and reproduction

46. Both hyperplasia and hypertrophy can cause an increase in the size of a tissue or organ.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 61 TOP: Changes in cell growth and reproduction

47. In anaplasia, cells fail to mature normally and do not differentiate as they should.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 62 TOP: Changes in cell growth and reproduction

48. Atrophy is a characteristic of many neoplasms.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 62 TOP: Changes in cell growth and reproduction

49. The terms interstitial fluid and tissue fluid refer to the same thing.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 44 TOP: Cells

50. Both mitochondria and ribosomes contain nucleic acids.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 47 TOP: Ribosomes and mitochondria

51. Cellular respiration occurs in the Golgi apparatus.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 47 TOP: Mitochondria

52. The lysosome plays an important role in apoptosis (cell suicide).

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 47 TOP: Lysosomes

53. Flagella are extremely fine hairlike extensions on the exposed surface of certain cells.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 49 TOP: Cilia

54. The sodium-potassium pump is an example of an active transport mechanism.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 54 TOP: Ion pumps

55. Genes regulate cellular activity by determining what type of proteins will be made.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 56 TOP: DNA molecule and genetic information

Chapter 04: Tissues Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which type of tissue allows for rapid communication between various parts of the body?

a. Epithelial

b. Connective

c. Muscle

d. Nervous

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 83 TOP: Nervous tissue

2. Which type of tissue covers the body and lines many of the parts of the body?

a. Epithelial

b. Connective

c. Muscle

d. Nervous

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 72 TOP: Epithelial tissue

3. Which is the most abundant and widely distributed tissue in the body?

a. Epithelial

b. Connective

c. Muscle

d. Nervous

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 76 TOP: Connective tissue

4. Which type of tissue specializes in movement of the body?

a. Epithelial

b. Connective

c. Muscle

d. Nervous

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 81 TOP: Muscle tissue

5. Which type of tissue can be classified by the shape of its cells?

a. Epithelial

b. Connective

c. Muscle

d. Nervous

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 73 TOP: Shape of cells

6. Which type of tissue frequently has few cells embedded in an intercellular matrix?

a. Epithelial

b. Connective

c. Muscle

d. Nervous

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 78 TOP: Connective tissue

7. Which two types of tissue have the greatest ability to repair themselves?

a. Epithelial and muscle

b. Connective and muscle

c. Epithelial and connective

d. Muscle and nervous

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 84 TOP: Tissue repair

8. Smooth, striated, and cardiac are examples of

a. epithelial tissue.

b. connective tissue.

c. muscle tissue.

d. nervous tissue.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 81 TOP: Tissues

9. The tissue connected and supported by glia cells is

a. epithelial tissue.

b. connective tissue.

c. muscle tissue.

d. nervous tissue.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 83 TOP: Tissues

10. Adipose and areolar tissues are examples of

a. epithelial tissue.

b. connective tissue.

c. muscle tissue.

d. nervous tissue.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 78 TOP: Tissues

11. The ideal body-fat percentage is considered to be

a. 8% to 12% for men and 12% to 15% for women.

b. 12% to 18% for men and 18% to 24% for women.

c. 15% to 18% for men and 20% to 22% for women.

d. 18% to 24% for both men and women.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 84 TOP: Tissues and fitness (Health and Well-Being box)

12. What type of tissue is simple columnar tissue?

a. Epithelial tissue

b. Connective tissue

c. Muscle tissue

d. Nervous tissue

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 73 TOP: Tissues

13. What type of tissue is bone tissue?

a. Epithelial tissue

b. Connective tissue

c. Muscle tissue

d. Nervous tissue

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 78 TOP: Tissues

14. What type of tissue is simple squamous tissue?

a. Epithelial tissue

b. Connective tissue

c. Muscle tissue

d. Nervous tissue

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 73 TOP: Tissues

15. What type of tissue is pseudostratified tissue?

a. Epithelial tissue

b. Connective tissue

c. Muscle tissue

d. Nervous tissue

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 76 TOP: Tissues

16. Which tissue covers and lines many parts of the body?

a. Epithelial tissue

b. Connective tissue

c. Muscle tissue

d. Nervous tissue

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 72 TOP: Tissues

17. Which tissue forms a continuous sheet of cells with no blood vessels?

a. Epithelial tissue

b. Connective tissue

c. Muscle tissue

d. Nervous tissue

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 72 TOP: Tissues

18. Cells of which tissue have the ability to shorten?

a. Epithelial tissue

b. Connective tissue

c. Muscle tissue

d. Nervous tissue

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 81 TOP: Tissues

19. Which tissue contains few cells found in intercellular material called matrix?

a. Epithelial tissue

b. Connective tissue

c. Muscle tissue

d. Nervous tissue

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 78 TOP: Tissues

20. Which tissue is subdivided according to the shape and the arrangement of cells?

a. Epithelial tissue

b. Connective tissue

c. Muscle tissue

d. Nervous tissue

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 73 TOP: Tissues

21. Which tissue allows rapid communication between body structures?

a. Epithelial tissue

b. Connective tissue

c. Muscle tissue

d. Nervous tissue

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 83 TOP: Tissues

22. Glands are usually made up of which tissue?

a. Epithelial tissue

b. Connective tissue

c. Muscle tissue

d. Nervous tissue

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 75 TOP: Tissues

23. Select the type of connective tissue that has a fluid matrix.

a. Areolar

b. Bone

c. Blood

d. Fibrous connective

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 80 TOP: Tissues

24. How does cartilage differ from other connective tissues?

a. Its matrix is the consistency of a firm plastic.

b. Its matrix is fluid.

c. Cartilage has more cells.

d. Cartilage consists of hematopoietic cells.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 80 TOP: Tissues

25. Adipose tissue performs which of the following functions?

a. Insulation

b. Protection

c. Support

d. All of these are correct.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 78 TOP: Tissues

26. The types of tissues that have the greatest capacity to regenerate are

a. epithelial and nervous.

b. epithelial and connective.

c. connective and nervous.

d. muscular and epithelial.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 84 TOP: Tissue repair

27. An unusually thick scar that develops in the lower layer of the skin is called a

a. tumor.

b. collagen bundle.

c. keloid.

d. neoplasm.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 84 TOP: Tissue repair

28. These cartilage cells are located within many tiny spaces throughout the matrix.

a. Osteons

b. Hematopoietic

c. Glial

d. Chondrocytes

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 80 TOP: Tissues

29. Since the bladder can expand and return to its normal size, which type of epithelial tissue might you find lining the wall of the bladder?

a. Cuboidal

b. Transitional

c. Pseudostratified

d. Simple squamous

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 76

TOP: Tissues

30. You examine an epithelial tissue specimen, and it has multiple layers of thin, irregularly shaped cells. What type of tissue is this?

a. Simple squamous

b. Stratified cuboidal

c. Stratified columnar

d. Stratified squamous

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 73

TOP: Tissues

MATCHING

Match each tissue type to its corresponding description or example.

a. Epithelial

b. Connective

c. Muscle

d. Nerve

1. Tissue that covers the body and many of its parts

2. Tissue that contains glia cells

3. Tissue that makes up most of the heart

4. Tissue that has few cells embedded in the intercellular matrix

1. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 72 TOP: Epithelial

2. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 83 TOP: Nervous tissue

3. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 82 TOP: Muscle tissue

4. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 78 TOP: Connective tissue

Match each category of epithelial cells with its corresponding definition.

a. Simple squamous

b. Simple cuboidal

c. Simple columnar

d. Pseudostratified columnar

e. Stratified squamous

f. Transitional

5. Single layer of cube-shaped cells

6. Multiple layers of cells with flat cells at the outer surface

7. Single layer of cells; some are tall and thin and reach the free surface, and others do not

8. Layers of cells that appear cubelike when an organ is relaxed and flattened when the organ is distended by fluid

9. Single layer of flat, scalelike cells

10. Single layer of tall, thin cells; modification may appear goblet-shaped

5. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 75

TOP: Classification based on layers of cells

6. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 73

TOP: Classification based on layers of cells

7. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 76

TOP: Classification based on layers of cells

8. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 76

TOP: Classification based on layers of cells

9. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 73

TOP: Classification based on layers of cells

10. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 75 TOP: Simple epithelium

Match each term with its corresponding definition.

a. Neuron

b. Neuroglia

c. Axon

d. Cell body

e. Dendrite

11. The structure to which dendrites and axons attach

12. Supportive cells of nervous tissue

13. Cell process that transmits nerve impulses away from the cell body

14. The conducting cells of the nervous system

15. Cell process that carries nerve impulses toward the cell body

11. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 83 TOP: Nervous tissue

12. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 83 TOP: Nervous tissue

13. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 83 TOP: Nervous tissue

14. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 83 TOP: Nervous tissue

15. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 83 TOP: Nervous tissue

Match each general tissue type with a corresponding specific tissue.

a. Epithelial

b. Connective

c. Muscle

d. Nerve

16. Bone and adipose tissue

17. Neurons and neuroglia

18. Tissue in the heart and the biceps of the arm

19. Tissue that propels material through the digestive tract

16. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 78 TOP: Connective tissue

17. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 83 TOP: Nervous tissue

18. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 82 TOP: Muscle tissue

19. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 83 TOP: Epithelial tissue

Identify the type of muscle tissue with its corresponding definition.

a. Cardiac muscle

b. Skeletal muscle

c. Smooth muscle

20. Cylindrical, striated, voluntary cells

21. Nonstriated, involuntary, narrow fibers with only one nucleus per cell

22. Striated, branching, involuntary cells with intercalated disks

23. Responsible for willed body movements

24. Also called visceral muscle

25. Found in the walls of hollow internal organs

20. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 81 TOP: Skeletal muscle tissue

21. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 82 TOP: Smooth muscle tissue

22. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 82 TOP: Cardiac muscle tissue

23. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 81 TOP: Skeletal muscle tissue

24. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 82 TOP: Smooth muscle tissue

25. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 83 TOP: Smooth muscle tissue

Match the type of connective tissue with its corresponding definition.

a. Areolar connective tissue

b. Adipose

c. Fibrous connective tissue

d. Bone

e. Cartilage

f. Blood

26. Matrix is liquid

27. Contains numerous structural building blocks called osteons

28. Consists mainly of bundles of strong, white collagen fibers arranged in parallel rows

29. Specialized to store lipids

30. Consists of delicate webs of fibers and a variety of cells

31. Matrix is the consistency of a firm plastic or a gristle like gel

26. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 80 TOP: Connective tissue

27. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 80 TOP: Connective tissue

28. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 78 TOP: Connective tissue

29. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 78 TOP: Connective tissue

30. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 78 TOP: Connective tissue

31. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 80 TOP: Connective tissue

Match the term with its corresponding definition.

a. Collagen

b. Osteons

c. Glands

d. Goblet cells

e. Scar

32. Dense fibrous mass

33. Clusters of tubes of secretory cells

34. Structural building blocks of bone tissue

35. Strong fibers found in dense fibrous connective tissue

36. Specialized cells that produce mucus

32. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 84 TOP: Tissue repair

33. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 75 TOP: Epithelial tissue

34. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 80 TOP: Connective tissue

35. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 72 TOP: Connective tissue

36. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 75 TOP: Epithelial tissue

Match the type of epithelial tissue with its location.

a. Surface of the skin

b. Wall of the urinary bladder

c. Kidney tubules

d. Trachea

e. Air sacs in lungs

f. Inner surface of the large intestine 37. Transitional 38. Simple cuboidal 39. Pseudostratified 40. Stratified squamous 41. Simple squamous

42. Simple columnar

37. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 76 TOP: Epithelial tissue

38. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 75 TOP: Epithelial tissue

39. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 76 TOP: Epithelial tissue

40. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 74 TOP: Epithelial tissue

41. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 73 TOP: Epithelial tissue

42. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 75 TOP: Epithelial tissue

Match the type of connective tissue with its location.

a. Areolar

b. Fibrous connective tissue

c. Hematopoietic tissue

43. Red marrow cavities of bones

44. Most widely distributed

45. Tendons

43. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 81 TOP: Connective tissue

44. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 78 TOP: Connective tissue

45. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 79 TOP: Connective tissue

Match the term with its corresponding description.

a. Regeneration

b. Keloid

c. Glia

d. Chondrocyte

e. Matrix

46. Intracellular material found between cells

47. Cartilage cell

48. Growth of new tissue

49. Thick scar that develops in lower layer of the skin

50. Supporting nervous tissue cell

46. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 72 TOP: Connective tissue

47. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 80 TOP: Connective tissue

48. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 84 TOP: Tissue repair

49. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 84 TOP: Tissue repair

50. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 83 TOP: Nervous tissue

Match the general tissue type with its corresponding description.

a. Epithelial tissue

b. Connective tissue

c. Muscle tissue

d. Nervous tissue

51. High degree of contractibility

52. Exists in more varied forms than any of the other tissue types

53. Function is rapid communication

54. Covers the body and many of its parts

51. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 81 TOP: Muscle tissue

52. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 76 TOP: Connective tissue

53. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 83 TOP: Nervous tissue

54. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 72 TOP: Epithelial tissue

Match the type of muscle tissue with its corresponding location.

a. Skeletal muscle tissue

b. Smooth muscle tissue

c. Cardiac muscle tissue

55. Heart

56. Attached to bones

57. Helps form the walls of blood vessels

55. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 82 TOP: Cardiac muscle tissue

56. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 82 TOP: Skeletal muscle tissue

57. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 83 TOP: Smooth muscle tissue

SHORT ANSWER

1. Name and describe the four types of tissues in the body. Give an example of each.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 71-83 TOP: Tissues

2. Describe the ability of each tissue to regenerate. Include an explanation of a keloid.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

TOP: Tissue repair

REF: pp. 83-85

3. Differentiate among simple, stratified, and transitional epithelia.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 73 | p. 76 TOP: Epithelial tissue

4. Explain why body composition is a good indicator of health and fitness.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 84

TOP: Health and well-being

5. Why is blood considered to be the most unusual type of connective tissue?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 80

TOP: Blood tissue

6. Describe the three types of muscle tissue, and give a location and function of each.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 81-83

TOP: Muscle tissue

7. Briefly describe the connective tissue types, and give their location in the body.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

TOP: Connective tissue

REF: pp. 76-81

8. Diana is 5 feet, 4 inches tall and weighs 125 lb. She appears very healthy and fit, yet her doctor advised her that she is overweight. What might be the explanation for this assessment?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 84

9. List at least three functions of epithelial tissue.

ANS: Answers will vary.

TOP: Health and well-being

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 72-73 TOP: Epithelial tissue

10. What are the three basic shapes of epithelial cells?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 73 TOP: Epithelial tissue

11. How do exocrine glands secrete their products?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 75 TOP: Simple cuboidal epithelium

12. Name the two types of involuntary muscle tissue. Where is each found in the body?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 82-83 TOP: Muscle tissue

13. Classify epithelium according to the arrangement of the cells.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 73 TOP: Epithelial tissue

14. List the types of simple and stratified epithelium, and give examples of each.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 73-74 TOP: Epithelial tissue

15. Discuss the microscopic structure of bone tissue.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 80 TOP: Bone tissue

16. Identify the two basic types of cells in nervous tissue.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 83

TOP: Nervous tissue

17. Summarize the structural characteristics of epithelial tissues that enable them to perform their specific functions.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 73-76

TOP: Epithelial tissue

18. Explain tissue typing and describe what occurs when a donated tissue is rejected.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 81

19. Explain the importance of measuring body composition.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 84

TOP: Clinical application

TOP: Health and well-being

20. Many athletes work to reduce their body fat to the lowest possible percentage. What would happen if too little body fat were present?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 84

TOP: Health and well-being

21. Explain why epithelial and connective tissues have the greatest capacity to regenerate.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 84

TOP: Tissue repair

22. Describe the different types of matrix found within connective tissue cells.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 78

TOP: Connective tissue

1. There are three types of muscle tissues in the body: skeletal, voluntary, and smooth.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 81 TOP: Muscle tissue

2. One type of cell that makes up nerve tissue is a glia cell.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 83 TOP: Nerve tissue

3. Connective tissue usually contains few cells embedded in an intercellular matrix.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 78 TOP: Connective tissue

4. Epithelial tissue can be classified based on the shape of the cells.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 73 TOP: Epithelial tissue

5. Nervous tissue and connective tissue have the greatest capacity to regenerate.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 84 TOP: Tissue repair

6. Because of muscle tissue’s ability to repair itself, someone who has survived a heart attack will eventually have cardiac muscle tissue that is fully healed and as good as new.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 84 TOP: Tissue repair

7. It would be expected that squamous epithelial tissue would have a flat and scalelike appearance.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 73 TOP: Epithelial tissue

8. Stratified squamous epithelium often contains goblet cells that produce mucus that helps protect the tissue.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 75 TOP: Simple columnar epithelium

9. Cuboidal epithelium most often can be found in glands.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 75 TOP: Cuboidal epithelium

10. Alveolar connective tissue specializes in the storage of lipid or fat.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 78 TOP: Adipose

11. Cartilage tissue gets its strength from the osteons that make up its matrix.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 80 TOP: Bone and cartilage

12. Intercalated disks are found in skeletal muscle tissue.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 82 TOP: Cardiac muscle tissue

13. Connective tissue covers the body and many of its parts.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 72 TOP: Epithelial tissue

14. Glia cells are an example of connective tissue.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 83 TOP: Tissues

15. Smooth, striated, and cardiac tissues are examples of muscle tissues.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 81 TOP: Tissues

16. An important part of muscle tissue is the matrix found in between cells.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 78 TOP: Tissues

17. Both neurons and glia cells make up nervous tissue.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 83 TOP: Tissues

18. Areolar, blood, bone, and cartilage are all examples of connective tissue.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 78 TOP: Tissues

19. Goblet cells are found in squamous epithelial tissue.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 75 TOP: Epithelial tissue

20. Pseudostratified epithelial tissue looks like it is two cell layers thick, but it is actually only one cell layer thick.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 76 TOP: Epithelial tissue

21. The most abundant tissue in the body is muscle tissue.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 76 TOP: Connective tissue

22. The building block of bone tissue is called an osteon.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 80 TOP: Connective tissue

23. Hematopoietic tissue is a connective tissue responsible for blood cell formation.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 81 TOP: Connective tissue

24. A nerve cell usually has more axons extending from the cell body than dendrites.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 83 TOP: Nervous tissue

25. Substances can readily pass through simple squamous epithelial tissue because of its structure.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 73 TOP: Epithelial tissue

26. Epithelium is richly supplied with blood.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 73 TOP: Epithelial tissue

27. Exocrine glands discharge their products directly into the blood.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 75 TOP: Cuboidal epithelium

28. The terms osteon and haversian system are synonymous.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 80 TOP: Bone tissue

29. Bones are a storage area for calcium and provide support and protection for the body.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 80 TOP: Bone tissue

30. Epithelial tissue is characterized by large amounts of intercellular matrix and few cells.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 73 TOP: Epithelial tissue

31. Transitional epithelium is unique in that it is composed of differing cell shapes in a stratified, or layered, epithelial sheet.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 73 TOP: Classification based on layers of cells

32. Adipose tissue is a type of connective tissue.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 78 TOP: Connective tissue

33. Skeletal muscle cells are referred to as muscle fibers and are characterized by a high degree of contractility.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 81 TOP: Muscle tissue

34. The structural quality and appearance of the matrix and fibers determine the qualities of each type of connective tissue.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 78 TOP: Connective tissue

35. When epithelial tissue is badly injured, a thick scar, or keloid, may develop.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 84 TOP: Tissue repair

36. Both axons and dendrites are found in nervous tissue.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 83 TOP: Nervous tissue

37. Hematopoietic tissue is the bloodlike connective tissue found in the red marrow cavities of bones, spleen, tonsils, and lymph nodes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 81 TOP: Blood and hematopoietic tissue

Chapter 05: Organ Systems

Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The body’s heaviest organ is the

a. liver.

b. brain.

c. large intestine.

d. skin.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 93 TOP: Integumentary system

2. Which of the following is not considered an appendage of the skin?

a. The nails

b. The tongue

c. Sweat-producing glands

d. Sensory cells that respond to pain

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 93 TOP: Integumentary system

3. The primary function of the skin is

a. protection.

b. temperature regulation.

c. acting as the main sense organ.

d. the synthesis of important chemicals.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 94 TOP: Integumentary system

4. The skeletal system includes all but which of the following?

a. Bones

b. Cartilage

c. Ligaments

d. All of the above are included in the skeletal system.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 94 TOP: Skeletal system

5. Muscle is connected to bone by

a. ligaments.

b. tendons.

c. cartilage.

d. squamous epithelial tissue.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 95 TOP: Muscular system

6. Which type of muscle tissue is found in the stomach?

a. Skeletal

b. Voluntary

c. Smooth

d. Cardiac

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 95 TOP: Muscular system

7. Which type of muscle tissue is found in the heart?

a. Skeletal

b. Voluntary

c. Smooth

d. Cardiac

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 95 TOP: Muscular system

8. Signals generated by the nervous system are called

a. stimuli.

b. nerve impulses.

c. sense organs.

d. nerves.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 95 TOP: Nervous system

9. Which of the following is not a gland in the endocrine system?

a. Thyroid

b. Pituitary

c. Hypothalamus

d. Salivary

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 96 TOP: Endocrine system

10. Which of the following substances is not carried by the cardiovascular system?

a. Lymph

b. Hormones

c. Carbon dioxide

d. Nutrients

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 97 TOP: Cardiovascular (circulatory) system

11. The thymus gland is part of the _____ system.

a. digestive

b. lymphatic

c. endocrine

d. nervous

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 97 TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems

12. Which part of the respiratory system exchanges oxygen and carbon dioxide?

a. Pharynx

b. Bronchi

c. Alveoli

d. Trachea

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 98 TOP: Respiratory system

13. Which of these organs is an accessory organ of the digestive system?

a. Stomach

b. Liver

c. Esophagus

d. Small intestine

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 98 TOP: Digestive system

14. Which of these organs is a primary organ of the digestive system?

a. Liver

b. Pancreas

c. Esophagus

d. Both A and C

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 98 TOP: Digestive system

15. Immunosuppressive drugs are given after

a. cochlear implants.

b. organ transplants.

c. hip replacement surgery.

d. all of the above procedures.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 104 TOP: Organ transplants

16. Which of the following is not considered part of the central nervous system?

a. The brain

b. The spinal cord

c. The cranial nerves

d. All of the above are part of the central nervous system.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 95 TOP: Nervous system

17. Which structure is not part of the lymphatic system?

a. Tonsils

b. Spleen

c. Thymus gland

d. Pancreas

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 97 TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems

MATCHING

Match each organ system with its corresponding function or description.

a. Integumentary system

b. Skeletal system

c. Muscular system

d. Nervous system

e. Endocrine system

f. Cardiovascular system

1. System that contains the body’s heaviest organ

2. Primary system for transporting materials from one part of the body to another

3. System that has the ability to contract by conscious nerve regulation

4. System that has a secondary function of storing calcium and phosphorus for the body

5. System that regulates body functions rapidly but for a short duration

6. System that regulates body functions slowly but for a longer duration

1. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 93 TOP: Integumentary system

2. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 96 TOP: Cardiovascular (circulatory) system

3. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 95 TOP: Muscular system

4. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 94 TOP: Skeletal system

5. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 95 TOP: Nervous system

6. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 96 TOP: Endocrine system

Match each organ system with its corresponding function or description.

a. Lymphatic and immune systems

b. Respiratory system

c. Digestive system

d. Urinary system

e. Male reproductive system

f. Female reproductive system

7. The urethra belongs to this one system in the female

8. System in which the liver is an accessory organ

9. System that produces ova

10. System that works with the urinary system to regulate the pH of the body

11. System other than the urinary system that includes the male urethra

12. System that helps move fat-related nutrients from the digestive system

7. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 99 TOP: Urinary system

8. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 98 TOP: Digestive system

9. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 100 TOP: Female reproductive system

10. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 98 TOP: Respiratory system

11. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 100 TOP: Male reproductive system

12. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 97 TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems

SHORT ANSWER

1. Give a brief description of the integumentary system, and explain its functions.

ANS: Answers will vary

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 93-94

TOP: Integumentary system

2. List the types of tissues found in the skeletal system, and explain the function of each.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 94

TOP: Skeletal system

3. Explain why it is useful to think of the muscular system as the skeletomuscular system.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 95

TOP: Muscular system

4. List the organs and functions of the nervous system, and explain the difference between the nervous system and endocrine system.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 95-96

TOP: Nervous system

5. List the organs of the endocrine system, and explain the difference between the endocrine system and nervous system.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 96

TOP: Endocrine system

6. Explain the similarities between nerve impulses and hormones.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 95-96

TOP: Nervous system and endocrine system

7. List the structures and explain the function of the lymphatic system.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 97

TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems

8. What is the function of the body’s immune system? What proteins are involved in the functioning of the immune system?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 97-98

TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems

9. List the structures and explain the functions of the respiratory system.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 98

TOP: Respiratory system

10. List the primary and accessory organs of the digestive system, and explain the functions of the digestive system.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 98-99

TOP: Digestive system

11. List the structures and explain the functions of the urinary system.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 99

TOP: Urinary system

12. How is the reproductive system different from other systems in the body?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 99 TOP: Reproductive system

13. List the structures and explain the functioning of the male reproductive system.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 100 TOP: Male reproductive system

14. List the structures and explain the functioning of the female reproductive system.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 100 TOP: Female reproductive system

15. Name three “artificial organs.” Explain how they effectively replace a damaged organ.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 101 | p. 103 TOP: Artificial organs

16. What is organ transplantation? List several rejection problems.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 104 TOP: Organ transplantation

17. Explain how stem cells can be used to address the issue of insufficient organ donors. What are other possible uses for stem cells?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 104 TOP: Organ transplantation

TRUE/FALSE

1. Organs are the largest and most complex structural units in the body.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 93 TOP: Organ systems of the body

2. The skin accounts for almost 10% of the body’s weight.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 93 TOP: Integumentary system

3. The skin is the body’s heaviest organ.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 93 TOP: Integumentary system

4. Sweat glands are part of the integumentary system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 93 TOP: Integumentary system

5. The primary function of the integumentary system is protection.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 94 TOP: Integumentary system

6. One important function of intact skin is to keep out harmful bacteria.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 94 TOP: Integumentary system

7. The skeletal system is composed only of bones.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 94 TOP: Skeletal system

8. Cartilage, tendons, and ligaments are also part of the skeletal system.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 94 TOP: Skeletal system

9. The skeletal system provides a place for the formation of blood cells.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 94 TOP: Skeletal system

10. The bones of the skeletal system store calcium and sodium needed by the body.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 94 TOP: Skeletal system

11. Bones are considered the main organs of the skeletal system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 94 TOP: Skeletal system

12. Tendons are part of the muscular system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 95 TOP: Muscular system

13. The skeletal muscles are also called smooth muscles.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 95 TOP: Muscular system

14. Smooth muscle is found in the wall of the small intestine.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 95 TOP: Muscular system

15. Ligaments attach muscle to bone.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 95 TOP: Muscular system

16. The heart is composed of cardiac muscle.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 95 TOP: Muscular system

17. The muscular system is composed of four types of muscle tissue: voluntary, smooth, skeletal, and cardiac.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 95 TOP: Muscular system

18. The organs of the nervous system include the brain, spinal cord, and nerves.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 95 TOP: Nervous system

19. The function of the nervous system is accomplished by special signals called stimuli.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 95 TOP: Nervous system

20. The sense organs of the body are part of the nervous system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 95 TOP: Nervous system

21. The endocrine and nervous systems perform the same general function.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 96 TOP: Endocrine system

22. Hormones of the endocrine system and nerve impulses of the nervous system perform the same general function.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 95-96 TOP: Endocrine system and nervous system

23. Hormones are produced by the ductless glands of the endocrine system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 96 TOP: Endocrine system

24. The action of the endocrine system causes a rapid but short-term effect on the body.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 96 TOP: Endocrine system

25. The thymus gland and thyroid gland are located in the neck.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 96 TOP: Endocrine system

26. The pituitary gland and the hypothalamus gland are endocrine glands that are located in the skull.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 96 TOP: Endocrine glands

27. The cardiovascular system contains the heart, arteries, veins, and capillaries.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 96 TOP: Cardiovascular (circulatory) system

28. Antibodies are white blood cells that fight infection.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 98 TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems

29. The primary function of the cardiovascular system is to transport material from one part of the body to another.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 97 TOP: Cardiovascular (circulatory) system

30. The lymphatic system circulates lymph the way the circulatory system circulates blood.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 97 TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems

31. The thymus gland is part of both the endocrine and lymphatic systems.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 97 TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems

32. The lymphatic system eventually returns lymph back to the bloodstream.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 97 TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems

33. Antibodies and complements are protein compounds that are important in the immune system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 98 TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems

34. The respiratory system includes the pharynx, trachea, and esophagus.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 98 TOP: Respiratory system

35. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the alveoli of the respiratory system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 98 TOP: Respiratory system

36. The respiratory system helps balance blood pH.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 98 TOP: Respiratory system

37. Both absorption and digestion are functions of the digestive system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 99 TOP: Digestive system

38. The esophagus is an accessory organ of the digestive system.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 98 TOP: Digestive system

39. The primary organs of the digestive system form a tube that is called the gastrointestinal tract.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 98 TOP: Digestive system

40. The liver is an accessory organ of the digestive system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 98 TOP: Digestive system

41. The urinary system is composed of the kidney, bladder, ureters, and urethra.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 99 TOP: Urinary system

42. The male urethra is the only organ in the body that is part of two systems.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 99 TOP: Urinary system and lymphatic and immune systems

43. The urinary system plays a role in regulating the body’s pH.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 100 TOP: Urinary system

44. In the male reproductive system, the gonads are the testes; in the female, the gonads are the ovaries.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 100 TOP: Reproductive system

45. The prostate gland and the scrotum are classified as accessory organs of the male reproductive system.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 100 TOP: Male reproductive system

46. The vas deferens is a gland that adds fluids to the sperm as they pass through the reproductive system.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 100 TOP: Male reproductive system

47. The uterus and fallopian tubes are accessory organs of the female reproductive system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 100 TOP: Female reproductive system

48. The reproductive cells produced by the ovaries are called ova.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 101 TOP: Female reproductive system

49. An artificial organ that replaces a nonfunctioning organ is called a prosthesis.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 103 TOP: Artificial organs

50. A cochlear implant is a device that aids in hearing.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 104 TOP: Artificial organs

51. A hemopump filters the blood of a person suffering from kidney failure.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 104 TOP: Artificial organs

52. In a kidney transplant, the diseased kidney is removed and the transplanted kidney is put in its place.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 104 TOP: Organ transplantation

53. Immunosuppressive drugs are given after transplant surgery to prevent the body from rejecting the newly transplanted organ.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 93 TOP: Organ transplantation

54. Because the function of an organ is so specific, it can be part of only one organ system.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 93 TOP: Organ systems of the body

55. The thoracic duct helps return lymph back to the cardiovascular system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 97 TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems

56. Lymph nodes help filter the blood and remove bacterial cells.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 97 TOP: Lymphatic and immune systems

Chapter 06: Mechanisms of Disease Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following is a sign?

a. A red rash

b. A headache

c. A pain in the chest

d. Both B and C

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 114

TOP: Disease terminology

2. Which of the following is a symptom?

a. A red rash

b. A headache

c. A pain in your chest

d. Both B and C

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 114

TOP: Disease terminology

3. Another name for the latent stage in an infectious disease is the _____ stage.

a. etiology

b. communicable

c. incubation

d. pathogenic

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 114 TOP: Disease terminology

4. An infectious disease that affects a large number of people worldwide is described as

a. endemic.

b. pandemic.

c. epidemic.

d. idiopathic.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 114 TOP: Patterns of disease

5. Another term for the word neoplasm is

a. tumor.

b. parasite.

c. inflammation.

d. degeneration.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 116 TOP: Mechanisms of disease

6. Which of these factors is a mechanism of disease?

a. Degeneration

b. Inflammation

c. Malnutrition

d. All of the above

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 116 TOP: Mechanisms of disease

7. Which of these factors is not a risk factor?

a. Autoimmunity

b. Lifestyle

c. Stress

d. Pre-existing condition

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 117 TOP: Risk factors

8. Organisms that are called microbes include

a. fungi.

b. bacteria.

c. protozoa.

d. all of the above.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 118 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

9. Which of the following pathogens are considered nonliving?

a. Protozoa

b. Viruses

c. Bacteria

d. All of the above are considered living.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 118 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

10. Mad cow disease is caused by a

a. bacterium.

b. virus.

c. prion.

d. protozoon.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 120 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

11. Which type of pathogen can be classified by whether it has RNA or DNA as its nucleic acid?

a. Bacterium

b. Virus

c. Prion

d. Protozoon

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 118 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

12. Which type of pathogen is a microscopic living organism that does not have a nucleus?

a. Bacterium

b. Virus

c. Prion

d. Protozoon

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 120 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

13. Which type of pathogen can be classified based on its reaction to Gram stain?

a. Bacterium

b. Virus

c. Prion

d. Protozoon

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 120 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

14. Bacteria that are rod-shaped are called

a. cocci.

b. spiral.

c. bacilli.

d. rickettsia.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 121 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

15. Athlete’s foot is caused by a

a. bacterium.

b. virus.

c. protozoon.

d. fungus.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 123 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

16. The pathogenic animal most likely to be a vector is a(n)

a. arthropod.

b. nematode.

c. roundworm.

d. flatworm.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 124 TOP: Pathogenic animals

17. An example of a benign tumor that arises from epithelial tissue is

a. osteoma.

b. melanoma.

c. adenoma.

d. lymphoma.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 129 TOP: Neoplasms

18. An example of a benign tumor that arises from connective tissue is

a. osteoma.

b. melanoma.

c. adenoma.

d. lymphoma.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 129 TOP: Neoplasms

19. An example of a malignant tumor that arises from epithelial tissue is

a. osteoma.

b. melanoma.

c. adenoma.

d. lymphoma.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 129 TOP: Neoplasms

20. An example of a malignant tumor that arises from connective tissue is

a. osteoma.

b. melanoma.

c. adenoma.

d. lymphoma.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 129 TOP: Neoplasms

21. Abnormal, undifferentiated tumor cells are often produced by a process called

a. hyperplasia.

b. anaplasia.

c. metastasis.

d. edema.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 130 TOP: Causes of cancer

22. Which of these is not a diagnostic imaging method used to detect cancer?

a. Radiography

b. Magnetic resonance imaging

c. Laser therapy

d. Computed tomography

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 131 TOP: Pathogenesis of cancer

23. Inflammation mediators include all of the following except

a. antibodies.

b. histamines.

c. prostaglandins.

d. kinins.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 135 TOP: Inflammatory response

24. The movement of white blood cells in response to a chemical attractant released during the inflammatory response is called

a. edema.

b. inflammatory exudate.

c. chemotaxis.

d. phagocytosis.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 135 TOP: Inflammatory response

25. Which of the following is not an example of a chronic inflammatory disease?

a. Arthritis

b. Asthma

c. Chronic bronchitis

d. All of the above are examples of chronic inflammatory disease.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 136 TOP: Inflammatory disease

26. A syndrome is a

a. collection of signs and symptoms.

b. disease that lasts for a long time.

c. disease that lasts for a short time.

d. set of subjective abnormalities that are felt only by the patient.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 114 TOP: Disease terminology

27. HIV cannot be spread by

a. sharing drinking fountains.

b. sexual contact.

c. the birth process.

d. All of the above can spread HIV.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 119 TOP: Viruses

28. The mosquito is necessary for the spread of

a. HIV.

b. West Nile virus.

c. severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS).

d. mad cow disease.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 119-120 TOP: Viruses

29. Which of these bacteria are considered obligate intracellular parasites?

a. Streptococci

b. Staphylococci

c. Escherichia coli

d. Chlamydia

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 121 TOP: Bacteria

MATCHING

Match each term with its corresponding definition or explanation.

a. Sign

b. Symptoms

c. Syndrome

d. Etiology

e. Idiopathic

f. Pathogenesis

g. Latent stage

h. Endemic

i. Epidemic

j. Pandemic

1. Actual pattern of a disease’s development

2. The “hidden” period of a disease before signs and symptoms become evident

3. Objective abnormalities caused by a disease that can be seen or measured by someone other than the patient

4. A disease that is native to a local region

5. The study of all factors involved in causing a disease

6. The spread of a disease to many people in a more limited geographical area

7. A disease with an undetermined cause

8. Subjective conditions of a disease that are felt only by the patient

9. The spread of a disease to a very large number of people in a large or worldwide geographical area

10. A collection of different signs and symptoms that provides a clear picture of a pathological condition

1. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 114 TOP: Disease terminology

2. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 114 TOP: Disease terminology

3. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 114 TOP: Disease terminology

4. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 114 TOP: Patterns of disease

5. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 114 TOP: Disease terminology

6. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 114 TOP: Patterns of disease

7. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 114 TOP: Disease terminology

8. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 114 TOP: Disease terminology

9. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 114 TOP: Patterns of disease

10. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 114 TOP: Disease terminology

Match each disease-causing agent to its corresponding definition or characteristic.

a. Virus

b. Prion

c. Bacterium

d. Fungus

e. Protozoan

f. Nematode

g. Platyhelminth

h. Arthropod

11. Group that includes flatworms and an organism that causes schistosomiasis

12. Group of agents that can be classified according to whether it contains RNA or DNA as its nucleic acid

13. Group that includes yeast and mold and includes the organism responsible for athlete’s foot

14. Group that includes “nonliving” pathogenic protein particles

15. Group that includes large parasites known as roundworms

16. Group that includes small organisms without nuclei that can be classified by their response to Gram stain

17. Group that includes small organisms with nuclei that can be classified by their means of locomotion

18. Group that includes ticks and fleas that are frequently vectors for other pathogens

11. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 124 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

12. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 118 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

13. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 123 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

14. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 120 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

15. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 124 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

16. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 120 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

17. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 123

TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

18. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 124 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

Match each term with its corresponding definition or description.

a. Neoplasm

b. Benign

c. Malignant

d. Metastasis

e. Carcinoma

f. Sarcoma

19. Usually refers to malignant tumors arising from epithelial tissue

20. Another term for a tumor that actually means “new matter”

21. A tumor that remains localized in the tissue from which it arose

22. Refers to the spreading process of a tumor

23. Refers to a type of tumor that spreads to other parts of the body

24. Term that usually denotes a malignant tumor that arises from connective tissue

19. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 129 TOP: Neoplasms

20. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 128 TOP: Neoplasms

21. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 128 TOP: Neoplasms

22. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 129 TOP: Neoplasms

23. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 128-129 TOP: Neoplasms

24. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 129 TOP: Neoplasms

SHORT ANSWER

1. Explain the difference between a symptom and a sign, and give an example of each.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 114 TOP: Disease terminology

2. Define or explain the following terms: endemic, epidemic, and pandemic.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 114 TOP: Patterns of disease

3. List and explain the eight mechanisms of disease discussed in this chapter.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 115-117

TOP: Mechanisms of disease

4. List and explain the risk factors of disease discussed in this chapter. Which risk factors are capable of being avoided?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 117 TOP: Risk factors

5. Describe a virus, and list the ways in which a virus can be classified. Name a disease that is caused by a virus.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 118-120

TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

6. Describe a prion. Name a disease that is caused by a prion.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 120

TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

7. Describe a bacterium, and list the ways in which a bacterium can be classified.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 120-121

TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

8. Explain why bacteria that form spores are potentially more dangerous than bacteria that do not form spores.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 122

TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

9. Describe a fungus. Name a disease caused by a fungus, and list the two forms that fungi can take.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 123

TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

10. List and briefly describe the four classes of protozoa described in the chapter.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 123-124

TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

11. List and briefly describe the three pathogenic animals discussed in the chapter. Which of these groups is most likely to be a vector?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 124

TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

12. List and briefly describe the four methods of disease prevention and control discussed in the chapter.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 125-126

TOP: Prevention and control

13. Define or explain the following terms: neoplasm, benign, malignant, metastasis, carcinoma, and sarcoma.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 128-129

TOP: Neoplasms

14. Give an example of a benign tumor and a malignant tumor that arise from epithelial tissue.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 129

TOP: Neoplasms

15. Give an example of a benign tumor and a malignant tumor that arise from connective tissue.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 129

TOP: Neoplasms

16. List and briefly explain the causes of cancer discussed in the chapter.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 130-131

TOP: Causes of cancer

17. Explain the means of cancer detection discussed in the chapter.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 131-133

TOP: Pathogenesis of cancer

18. Explain the treatment methods for cancer discussed in the chapter.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 133-134

TOP: Pathogenesis of cancer

19. What are the four primary signs of inflammation?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 134-135

TOP: Inflammatory response

20. Explain why it is helpful in the inflammatory response to dilate the blood vessels and make the vessel walls more permeable. Include a definition of chemotaxis.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 135 TOP: Inflammatory response

21. What causes fever, and what advantage does fever give the body in fighting disease?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 135-136

TOP: Inflammatory disease

TRUE/FALSE

1. A symptom is an objective abnormality that can be seen or measured by someone else.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 114 TOP: Disease terminology

2. One sign of measles is the rash that it sometimes causes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 114 TOP: Disease terminology

3. One sign of the flu is that the patient feels tired the entire time he or she has it.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 114

TOP: Disease terminology

4. A collection of signs and symptoms of a disease can be called a syndrome.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 114 TOP: Disease terminology

5. A disease with an undetermined etiology is called idiopathic.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 114

TOP: Disease terminology

6. In infectious diseases, the latent stage is also called the incubation period.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 114 TOP: Disease terminology

7. The terms endemic and epidemic mean the same thing.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 114 TOP: Patterns of disease

8. An epidemic usually involves more people than a pandemic.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 114 TOP: Patterns of disease

9. Pathophysiology is the organized study of the physiological process associated with disease.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 115 TOP: Mechanisms of disease

10. The fungus that causes athlete’s foot is a parasite, and the person who has the condition is the host.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 123

TOP: Mechanisms of disease

11. Risk factors increase the likelihood of contracting a disease.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 117 TOP: Risk factors

12. Increasing age is a risk factor in all diseases.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 117 TOP: Risk factors

13. With effort, all risk factors for a disease can be avoided.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 117

TOP: Risk factors

14. Viruses and prions are considered nonliving.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 118 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

15. The transmission of West Nile virus requires a vector.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 120

TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

16. One of the unique characteristics of viruses is their use of only RNA as a nucleic acid.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 118 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

17. One of the unique characteristics of bacteria is their lack of a nucleus.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 120 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

18. Gram staining is used as a method to classify viruses.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 120 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

19. Bacilli are round bacteria that can be found singly, in pairs, or in strings.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 121 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

20. Rickettsia is an example of a small bacterium.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 121 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

21. A number of human diseases are caused by a special type of microbe called archaea.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 122 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

22. Fungal infections are also called mycotic infections.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 123 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

23. Both yeasts and molds are considered fungi.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 123 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

24. Flagellates, sporozoa, and nematodes are examples of protists that cause disease.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 123-124 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

25. A fluke is a type of flatworm.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 124 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

26. The spread of Lyme disease by a tick is an example of a disease spread by an arthropod vector.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 124 | p. 126 TOP: Pathogenic organisms and particles

27. Streptomycin, penicillin, and acyclovir are examples of antibiotics used to fight bacterial infection.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 128 TOP: Prevention and control

28. Another word for a neoplasm is a tumor.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 128 TOP: Neoplasms

29. Malignant tumors are less likely to spread than benign tumors.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 128-129 TOP: Neoplasms

30. The spread of a tumor to another part of the body is called metastasis.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 129 TOP: Neoplasms

31. A lymphoma is more likely to spread than a lipoma.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 128 | p. 129 TOP: Neoplasms

32. An osteoma is more likely to spread than an osteosarcoma.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 128 | p. 129 TOP: Neoplasms

33. A malignant tumor that arises from epithelial tissue is usually called a carcinoma.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 129 TOP: Neoplasms

34. A malignant tumor that arises from connective tissue is usually called a sarcoma.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 129 TOP: Neoplasms

35. A melanoma is an example of a sarcoma.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 129 TOP: Neoplasms

36. Carcinogens are substances that affect genetic activity in some way.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 130 TOP: Causes of cancer

37. The risk of contracting all cancers increases with increasing age.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 130 TOP: Causes of cancer

38. A biopsy is the removal of a piece of the neoplasm to determine whether it is benign or malignant.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 132 TOP: Pathogenesis of cancer

39. A prognosis is a statement regarding the likely outcome of a disease.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 133 TOP: Pathogenesis of cancer

40. For a cancer patient, cachexia is a positive prognostic sign.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 133 TOP: Pathogenesis of cancer

41. The inflammatory response has four primary signs: redness, heat, swelling, and pain.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 134 TOP: Inflammatory response

42. Histamines and prostaglandins are two examples of inflammation mediators.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 134 TOP: Inflammatory response

43. The decrease in permeability in the blood vessel walls allows white blood cells and water to more easily leave the bloodstream.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 134 TOP: Inflammatory response

44. An increase in inflammatory exudate being carried through the lymphatic system causes the lymph nodes to enlarge.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 135 TOP: Inflammatory response

45. An increased amount of chemotaxis can lead to an increased amount of pus in an area of inflammation.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 135 TOP: Inflammatory response

46. Fever is detrimental to the body’s immune system and should be treated aggressively to return the body to a more normal temperature.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 135 TOP: Inflammatory disease

47. The difference between an acute and chronic disease is the length of time the disease lasts.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 114 TOP: Disease terminology

48. The terms etiology and pathogenesis are interchangeable.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 114 TOP: Disease terminology

49. Because of the advances in medicine, pandemics are less common than they once were.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 114 TOP: Patterns of disease

50. A disease can be described as a fluctuation in the homeostasis of the body that goes beyond what is considered a normal fluctuation.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 115-116 TOP: Mechanisms of disease

51. A broken leg would be considered a traumatic mechanism of disease.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 116 TOP: Mechanisms of disease

52. Both autoimmune disorders and degenerative disorders are considered inflammatory disorders.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 116 TOP: Mechanisms of disease

53. One characteristic of viral diseases is their rapid onset after the initial infection.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 118 TOP: Viruses

54. To prevent the spread of HIV, persons who are HIV positive should have their own bathroom and drinking glasses.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 119 TOP: Viruses

55. Spores allow some viruses to survive adverse environmental conditions.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 122 TOP: Bacteria

56. Organisms that cause opportunistic infections require specific environmental conditions before they can become infectious.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 125 TOP: Prevention and control

57. Oncogenes are cancer-causing genes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 130 TOP: Causes of cancer

58. Edema occurs when water leaves the blood vessels and enters the tissues.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 135 TOP: Inflammatory response

Chapter 07: Skin and Membranes Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following is not an epithelial membrane?

a. Cutaneous

b. Mucous

c. Synovial

d. Serous

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 146 TOP: Epithelial membranes

2. Which of the following is not a connective tissue membrane?

a. Cutaneous

b. Mucous

c. Synovial

d. Neither A nor B is a connective tissue membrane.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 146 TOP: Connective tissue membranes

3. The pleura in the thoracic cavity is an example of a _____ membrane.

a. mucous

b. serous

c. cutaneous

d. synovial

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 146 TOP: Epithelial membranes

4. The skin is an example of a _____ membrane.

a. mucous

b. serous

c. cutaneous

d. synovial

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 146 TOP: Epithelial membranes

5. The lining of the mouth is an example of a _____ membrane.

a. mucous

b. serous

c. cutaneous

d. synovial

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 147

TOP: Epithelial membranes

6. Which type of membrane contains connective tissue?

a. A mucous membrane

b. A serous membrane

c. A synovial membrane

d. All of the above

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 146

TOP: Classification of body membranes

7. The visceral peritoneum covers the _____ of the _____ cavity.

a. wall; chest

b. organs; abdominal

c. wall; abdominal

d. organs; chest

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 146 TOP: Epithelial membranes

8. Which type of membrane lines the space between bones in joints that move?

a. Cutaneous membrane

b. Mucous membrane

c. Synovial membrane

d. Epithelial membrane

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 147 TOP: Connective tissue membranes

9. Which statement is not true of the epidermis?

a. It is a cutaneous membrane.

b. It is composed mostly of connective tissue.

c. It is the outermost layer of skin.

d. It contains the stratum germinativum.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 148 TOP: Structure of the skin

10. Which statement is not true of the dermis?

a. It is a cutaneous membrane.

b. It is composed mostly of connective tissue.

c. It contains the stratum germinativum.

d. All of the above are true of the dermis.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 148 TOP: Structure of the skin

11. The stratum corneum

a. is composed of dead cells.

b. is the innermost layer of the epidermis.

c. contains melanocytes that give the skin color.

d. Both B and C describe the stratum corneum.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 149 TOP: Structure of the skin

12. The skin tans in response to sunlight because of the _____ in the stratum _____.

a. keratin; germinativum

b. melanin; germinativum

c. keratin; corneum

d. melanin; corneum

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 149

TOP: Structure of the skin

13. A blister forms at the junction of the

a. dermis and epidermis.

b. stratum corneum and stratum germinativum.

c. dermis and the subcutaneous tissue.

d. both A and C.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 150 TOP: Structure of the skin

14. Which of the following is not found in the dermis of the skin?

a. Collagen fibers

b. Nerve endings

c. Melanocytes, which give the skin color

d. Sweat glands

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 149 TOP: Structure of the skin

15. Hair growth begins from a small bump called the

a. hair follicle.

b. lanugo.

c. hair papilla.

d. hair shaft.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 152 TOP: Appendages of the skin

16. The arrector pili muscle causes

a. alopecia.

b. goose pimples.

c. lanugo.

d. male pattern baldness.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 153 TOP: Appendages of the skin

17. The layer of epithelial tissue under the fingernail is called the

a. nail body.

b. cuticle.

c. lunula.

d. nail bed.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 153 TOP: Appendages of the skin

18. Which of the following is not an example of an eccrine gland?

a. Sweat gland

b. Sudoriferous gland

c. Sebaceous gland

d. Perspiration gland

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 154 TOP: Appendages of the skin

19. Which type of gland secretes oil for the skin and hair?

a. Sebaceous gland

b. Sudoriferous gland

c. Eccrine gland

d. Apocrine gland

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 154 TOP: Appendages of the skin

20. Burns that are characterized by blisters, severe pain, and swelling are classified as ____ degree burns.

a. first-

b. second-

c. third-

d. fourth-

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 157 | p. 160 TOP: Burns

21. The rule of nines is used to determine the

a. depth of burns.

b. degree of burns.

c. body surface area that has been burned.

d. both A and B.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 161 TOP: Burns

22. The general name given to mycotic skin infections is

a. tinea.

b. impetigo.

c. warts.

d. scabies.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 161 TOP: Skin infections

23. Which skin infection is also called furuncles?

a. Tinea

b. Impetigo

c. Warts

d. Boils

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 161 TOP: Skin infections

24. Which skin infection is caused by a papillomavirus?

a. Tinea

b. Impetigo

c. Warts

d. Boils

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 161 TOP: Skin infections

25. What is another term for a pressure sore?

a. Plaque

b. Scleroderma

c. Urticaria

d. Decubitus ulcer

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 161 TOP: Vascular and inflammatory skin disorders

26. Which skin disorder results from an autoimmune disease?

a. Decubitus ulcer

b. Scleroderma

c. Urticaria

d. Eczema

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 162 TOP: Vascular and inflammatory skin disorders

27. Which is the most common type of skin cancer?

a. Squamous cell carcinoma

b. Basal cell carcinoma

c. Melanoma

d. Kaposi sarcoma

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 163 TOP: Skin cancer

28. Which is the most serious form of skin cancer that can develop from a mole?

a. Squamous cell carcinoma

b. Basal cell carcinoma

c. Melanoma

d. Kaposi sarcoma

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 164 TOP: Skin cancer

29. Which of the following membranes do not contain epithelial tissue?

a. Mucous

b. Serous

c. Synovial

d. All of the above membranes contain epithelial tissue.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 147 TOP: Classification of the body membranes

30. The parietal pleura covers the _____ of the _____ cavity.

a. wall; chest

b. organs; chest

c. wall; abdominal

d. organs; abdominal

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 146 TOP: Serous membranes

31. A membrane that lines a body surface that opens to the exterior of the body is most likely a _____ membrane.

a. synovial

b. serous

c. mucous

d. serous or mucous

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 147 TOP: Mucous membranes

32. A membrane that lines a closed body cavity is most likely a _____ membrane.

a. synovial

b. serous

c. mucous

d. serous or mucous

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 146 TOP: Serous membranes

33. The crescent-shaped white area near the root of the nail is called the

a. cuticle.

b. nail bed.

c. lunula.

d. nail body.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 153 TOP: Nails

34. Which of the following is not true of apocrine glands?

a. They are skin glands.

b. They are sweat glands.

c. They are found primarily in the axilla and genital area.

d. They are found distributed over most of the body surface.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 154 TOP: Sweat (sudoriferous) glands

35. Which of the following is not a function of the hypodermis?

a. Helps insulate the body.

b. Contains receptors for deep pressure touch.

c. Can be used as an energy source.

d. Helps protect the underlying tissue

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 151 TOP: Structure of the skin

MATCHING

Match each term with its corresponding definition or description.

a. Cutaneous membrane

b. Visceral pleura

c. Parietal pleura

d. Visceral peritoneum

e. Parietal peritoneum

f. Mucous membrane

g. Synovial membrane

h. Bursae

1. Membrane that lines the spaces between bones in joints

2. Membrane that lines the walls of the chest cavity

3. Membrane that lines the tubes of the respiratory and digestive systems

4. Small cushionlike sacs that are lined with synovial membrane

5. Membrane that lines the walls of the abdominal cavity

6. Tissue that covers the organs in the chest cavity

7. Membrane of which the skin is made

8. Tissue that covers the organs in the abdominal cavity

1. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 147 TOP: Connective tissue membranes

2. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 146 TOP: Epithelial membranes

3. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 147 TOP: Epithelial membranes

4. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 147 TOP: Connective tissue membranes

5. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 146 TOP: Epithelial membranes

6. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 146 TOP: Epithelial membranes

7. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 146 TOP: Epithelial membranes

8. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 146 TOP: Epithelial membranes

Match each skin disease with its corresponding symptoms or cause.

a. Impetigo

b. Acne

c. Tinea

d. Warts

e. Boils

f. Scabies

g. Decubitus ulcer

h. Squamous cell carcinoma

i. Scleroderma

j. Psoriasis

k. Melanoma

l. Kaposi sarcoma

9. An autoimmune disease that affects blood vessels and connective tissues in the skin

10. Condition caused by a papillomavirus

11. Virulent skin cancer that can develop from a mole

12. Condition that usually occurs between the ages of 10 and 19 and results from a fivefold increase in production of sebum

13. Another term for a pressure sore

14. A common chronic skin disease that is characterized by silvery white scalelike plaques

15. A highly contagious skin infection that occurs most often in young children

16. The most common form of skin cancer; a slow-growing cancer of the epidermis

17. Infections of the hair follicle that are also called furuncles

18. A skin condition caused by itch mites

19. Skin cancer most commonly seen in people with immune deficiencies

20. A general term used to describe fungal infections of the skin

9. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 162 TOP: Vascular and inflammatory skin disorders

10. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 161 TOP: Skin infections

11. ANS: K PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 164 TOP: Skin cancer

12. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 155 TOP: Appendages of the skin

13. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 161 TOP: Vascular and inflammatory skin disorders

14. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 162 TOP: Vascular and inflammatory skin disorders

15. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 161 TOP: Skin infections

16. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 164 TOP: Skin cancer

17. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 161 TOP: Skin infections

18. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 161 TOP: Skin infections

19. ANS: L PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 165 TOP: Skin cancer

20. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 161 TOP: Skin infections

Match each term with its corresponding definition or description.

a. Hypodermis

b. Hair papilla

c. Dermal papillae

d. Meissner corpuscle

e. Stratum corneum

f. Lanugo

g. Melanin

h. Eccrine gland

i. Stratum germinativum

j. Arrector pili

k. Sebaceous gland

l. Lunula

m. Apocrine gland

n. Pacini corpuscle

21. Outer layer of the epidermis made of dead cells

22. Muscle attached to the side of the hair follicle

23. Small bump from which hair growth begins

24. Skin receptor that detects light touch

25. Layer of fat below the dermis; also called subcutaneous tissue

26. Parallel rows of peg like projections in the dermis

27. Sweat glands that are found only in the axillae and around the genitals

28. Crescent-shaped white area of the nail

29. Pigment that gives the skin its color

30. Skin gland that secretes an oil called sebum

31. Inner layer of the epidermis that is in constant mitosis

32. Sweat gland that is the most numerous

33. Soft, fine hair that is found on newborn infants

34. Skin receptor that detects pressure deep in the dermis

21. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 149 TOP: Epidermis

22. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 153 TOP: Hair

23. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 152 TOP: Hair

24. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 154 TOP: Receptors

25. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 149 TOP: Structure of the skin

26. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 150 TOP: Dermis

27. ANS: M PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 154 TOP: Sweat (sudoriferous) glands

28. ANS: L PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 153 TOP: Nails

29. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 149 TOP: Epidermis

30. ANS: K PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 154 TOP: Sebaceous glands

31. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 149 TOP: Epidermis

32. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 154 TOP: Sweat (sudoriferous) glands

33. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 151 TOP: Hair

34. ANS: N PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 154 TOP: Receptors

SHORT ANSWER

1. Describe and give the location of the epithelial membranes of the body.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 146-147 TOP: Epithelial membranes

2. Describe the connective tissue membranes of the body.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

TOP: Connective tissue membranes

REF: p. 147

3. Describe the epidermis of the skin. Explain how the epidermis contributes to the protective function of the skin.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 149 TOP: The skin

4. Describe the dermis of the skin.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

TOP: The skin

REF: p. 150

5. Describe the three types of birthmarks discussed in the chapter and the likelihood of each resolving without treatment.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 151

TOP: The skin

6. Describe the structure of hair.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 151-152

TOP: Appendages of the skin

7. Describe the different types of alopecia.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 152-153

TOP: Appendages of the skin

8. Describe the structure of nails.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 153

TOP: Appendages of the skin

9. Describe the two different types of sweat glands in terms of their location and the type of fluid they secrete.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 154

TOP: Appendages of the skin

10. Describe the location and secretions of the sebaceous glands.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 154-155

TOP: Appendages of the skin

11. Explain the causes of acne and give some possible treatments for the condition.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 155

TOP: Appendages of the skin

12. Explain the role of the skin in the body’s temperature regulation.

ANS:

Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 155-156

TOP: Functions of the skin

13. Explain why the skin has more difficulty regulating body temperature on humid days than on dry days.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 155-156 TOP: Functions of the skin

14. Explain the differences among first-, second-, third-, and fourth-degree burns.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 157 | p. 160

TOP: Burns

15. If a person was burned on the front and back of both legs, about what percentage of the body surface area would be burned?

ANS: About 36%.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 161 TOP: Burns

16. List the characteristics and causes of the five skin infections discussed in the chapter.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 161

TOP: Skin infections

17. Explain why pressure sores are a problem for people who are bedridden.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 161-162

TOP: Vascular and inflammatory skin disorders

18. Briefly describe the disorders hives, scleroderma, psoriasis, and eczema.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 162-163

TOP: Vascular and inflammatory skin disorders

19. Describe the four types of skin cancer identified in the chapter.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 163-165

TOP: Skin cancer

TRUE/FALSE

1. Epithelial membranes contain both epithelial and connective tissues.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 146 TOP: Classification of body membranes

2. Connective tissue membranes contain both epithelial and connective tissues.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 146 TOP: Classification of body membranes

3. The skin is considered to be a cutaneous epithelial membrane.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 146 TOP: Epithelial membranes

4. The lungs are covered by the parietal pleura.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 146

TOP: Epithelial membranes

5. The stomach and intestines are covered by the visceral pleura.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 146

TOP: Epithelial membranes

6. The membranes lining the thoracic and abdominal cavities are both parietal serous membranes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 146

TOP: Epithelial membranes

7. Both pleurisy and peritonitis are inflammations of parietal serous membranes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 146-147

TOP: Epithelial membranes

8. Serous membranes line the digestive and respiratory tracts.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 146 TOP: Epithelial membranes

9. Mucocutaneous junctions are the meeting place of two epithelial membranes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 147

TOP: Epithelial membranes

10. The bursae contain both epithelial and connective tissues.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 147

TOP: Connective tissue membranes

11. Synovial membranes are connective tissue membranes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 147 TOP: Connective tissue membranes

12. The skin is made up of two layers: the epidermis and the dermis.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 148 TOP: The skin

13. The hypodermis is another term for the epidermis.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 149 TOP: The skin

14. The stratum germinativum allows injury to the skin to heal rapidly.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 149

TOP: The skin

15. The protein keratin gives the dermis the strength and toughness to protect the tissues underneath the skin.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 149 TOP: The skin

16. The ability of the skin to tan depends on the functioning of the melanocytes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 149

TOP: The skin

17. The loss of melanocytes leads to a condition called vitiligo.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 149 TOP: The skin

18. Cyanosis of the skin is caused by a loss of melanocytes.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 149 TOP: The skin

19. Albinism and vitiligo are both indicated by the absence of pigment in the skin.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 149-150 TOP: The skin

20. A separation of the dermis from the subcutaneous tissue results in a blister.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 150 TOP: The skin

21. The dermis contains more connective tissue than the epidermis.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 148 TOP: The skin

22. The dermis is thicker than the epidermis.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 148 TOP: The skin

23. The arrangement of the dermal papillae can be used as a method of identification.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 150 TOP: The skin

24. Port-wine stain birthmarks usually disappear by age 7 with no treatment.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 151 TOP: The skin

25. Lanugo is the fine hair that a newborn begins to grow at about 3 months of age.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 151 TOP: Appendages of the skin

26. The cap-shaped cluster of cells where hair growth begins is called the hair follicle.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 151 TOP: Appendages of the skin

27. The part of the hair that we see is called the hair shaft.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 152 TOP: Appendages of the skin

28. Male pattern baldness is a type of alopecia.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 152 TOP: Appendages of the skin

29. The contraction of the arrector pili muscle causes the skin to recoil back if it is pulled away from the underlying tissue.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 153 TOP: Appendages of the skin

30. The visible part of the nail is called the nail bed.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 153 TOP: Appendages of the skin

31. The nail root is hidden because it is covered by a fold of skin called the lunula.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 153 TOP: Appendages of the skin

32. The fingernails can be used to evaluate whether the blood is carrying enough oxygen.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 153 TOP: Appendages of the skin

33. Sweat glands of the body include two varieties: eccrine and apocrine glands.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 154 TOP: Appendages of the skin

34. Apocrine glands greatly outnumber the eccrine glands.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 154 TOP: Appendages of the skin

35. Eccrine glands contribute to the temperature-regulating function of the skin.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 154 TOP: Appendages of the skin

36. Antiperspirants are used to suppress the functioning of the apocrine glands.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 154 TOP: Appendages of the skin

37. Sebaceous glands produce an oil-like substance called sebum.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 154 TOP: Appendages of the skin

38. One of the causes of acne is the overproduction of oil from the apocrine glands.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 155 TOP: Appendages of the skin

39. The topical application of tretinoin is a treatment of acne.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 155 TOP: Appendages of the skin

40. Both keratin and melanin assist the skin in its function of protection.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 155

TOP: Functions of the skin

41. The temperature-regulating function of the skin can only be accomplished by a high concentration of blood vessels in the skin.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 155-156 TOP: Functions of the skin

42. The skin more effectively cools the body on drier days than on days with high humidity.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 155-156

TOP: Functions of the skin

43. One of the most damaging effects of a major burn is its effect on fluid and electrolyte balance of the body.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 157

TOP: Burns

44. A typical sunburn causes a second-degree burn.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 157 TOP: Burns

45. Blisters, severe pain, and swelling are characteristics of a third-degree burn.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 157 | p. 160 TOP: Burns

46. The “rule of nines” divides the body into nine areas to estimate body surface area.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 161 TOP: Burns

47. Impetigo is caused by the papillomavirus.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 161 TOP: Skin infections

48. Tinea is a general term for a mycotic infection.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 161 TOP: Skin infections

49. Lying in one position too long can cause a pressure sore called a decubitus ulcer.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 161-162 TOP: Vascular and inflammatory skin disorders

50. Wheals are a characteristic sign of scleroderma.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 162 TOP: Vascular and inflammatory skin disorders

51. Melanoma is a serious form of skin cancer that can develop from a mole.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 164 TOP: Skin cancer

52. Many pathophysiologists believe that exposure to the sun’s UV rays is a contributing cause of skin cancer.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 163 TOP: Skin cancer

53. Mucous membranes are found only in the closed cavities of the body.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 146 TOP: Serous membranes

54. Mucous membranes line the respiratory and digestive tracts of the body.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 147 TOP: Mucous membranes

55. One function of the hypodermis is to store energy.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 149 TOP: Structure of the skin

56. The upper layer of the stratum corneum is made up of dead cells.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 149 TOP: Epidermis

57. The hereditary condition that is characterized by a total lack of melanin is called vitiligo.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 149 TOP: Epidermis

58. Most of the skin covering the body is thick skin; thin skin is found only on the face and on the fingertips.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 150 TOP: Dermis

59. Hair follicles are necessary for hair to grow.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 151 TOP: Hair

60. The Meissner corpuscle detects pressure deep in the dermis.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 154 TOP: Receptors

61. Pacini corpuscles are also called tactile corpuscles.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 154 TOP: Receptors

62. Vitamin A acid is used to treat acne.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 155 TOP: Acne

Chapter 08: Skeletal System Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Hematopoiesis refers to the skeletal system’s ability to

a. store calcium for the body.

b. form blood cells.

c. attach to muscles for movement.

d. protect the more delicate structures of the body.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 176 TOP: Functions of the skeletal system

2. Which term refers to the shaft of a long bone?

a. Epiphysis

b. Periosteum

c. Diaphysis

d. Endosteum

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 176 TOP: Structure of long bones

3. Which is the strong fibrous membrane covering most of the long bone?

a. Epiphysis

b. Periosteum

c. Diaphysis

d. Endosteum

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 177 TOP: Structure of long bones

4. Which term refers to the ends of a long bone?

a. Epiphyses

b. Periosteum

c. Diaphysis

d. Endosteum

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 177 TOP: Structure of long bones

5. Which membrane lines the medullary cavity?

a. Epiphysis

b. Periosteum

c. Diaphysis

d. Endosteum

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 177 TOP: Structure of long bones

6. Where in the long bone does hematopoiesis occur?

a. Epiphysis

b. Periosteum

c. Diaphysis

d. None of the above

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 177

TOP: Structure of long bones

7. The structural unit of compact bone is called the

a. lamella.

b. canaliculus.

c. osteon.

d. trabecula.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 177 TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage

8. The needlelike threads of spongy bone are called

a. lamellae.

b. canaliculi.

c. osteons.

d. trabeculae.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 177 TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage

9. The rings of calcified matrix that make up the haversian system are called

a. lamellae.

b. canaliculi.

c. osteon.

d. trabeculae.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 177 TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage

10. Which structures allow nutrients to reach the osteocytes through the haversian system?

a. Lamellae

b. Canaliculi

c. Osteons

d. Trabeculae

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 177 TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage

11. Bone-building cells are called

a. osteoblasts.

b. osteoclasts.

c. osteocytes.

d. chondrocytes.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 179 TOP: Bone formation and growth

12. Which of the following are cartilage cells?

a. Osteoblasts

b. Osteoclasts

c. Osteocytes

d. Chondrocytes

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 177 TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage

13. Which of these are bone-resorbing cells?

a. Osteoblasts

b. Osteoclasts

c. Osteocytes

d. Chondrocytes

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 179 TOP: Bone formation and growth

14. The skeleton can still grow as long as there is cartilage left in the

a. haversian system.

b. diaphysis.

c. epiphyseal plate.

d. chondrocytes.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 179 TOP: Bone formation and growth

15. Which bone of the skull does not contain sinuses?

a. Zygomatic

b. Frontal

c. Sphenoid

d. Ethmoid

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 181 TOP: Axial skeleton

16. How many bones are in the adult vertebral column?

a. 12

b. 19

c. 24

d. 26

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 187 TOP: Axial skeleton

17. An abnormal side-to-side curve in the vertebral column is called

a. lordosis.

b. kyphosis.

c. scoliosis.

d. convexities.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 188 TOP: Axial skeleton

18. There are _____ pairs of true ribs.

a. 12

b. 14

c. 5

d. 7

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 189 TOP: Axial skeleton

19. The sutures are an example of which type of joint?

a. Diarthroses

b. Synarthroses

c. Amphiarthroses

d. None of the above

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Analysis REF: p. 196

TOP: Joints (articulations)

20. Which type of joint uses cartilage to connect bones?

a. Diarthroses

b. Synarthroses

c. Amphiarthroses

d. None of the above

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 196 TOP: Joints (articulations)

21. Diarthrotic joints

a. make up the vast majority of joints in the body.

b. allow the least amount of movement.

c. are surrounded by a joint capsule.

d. both A and C.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 197 TOP: Joints (articulations)

22. A synovial membrane would most likely be found in

a. the suture of the skull.

b. a hinge joint.

c. at the symphysis pubis.

d. All of the above joints would have a synovial membrane.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Analysis REF: p. 198

TOP: Joints (articulations)

23. Which joints permit the widest range of movement?

a. Hinge

b. Pivot

c. Saddle

d. Ball-and-socket

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 198 TOP: Joints (articulations)

24. Which bone condition occurs most frequently in postmenopausal women with calcium deficiencies?

a. Rickets

b. Osteomalacia

c. Osteoporosis

d. Paget disease

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 201 TOP: Metabolic bone disease

25. What condition is caused by insufficient vitamin D in infants and children?

a. Rickets

b. Osteomalacia

c. Osteoporosis

d. Paget disease

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 201

TOP: Metabolic bone disease

26. People with what condition go through episodes of “frenzied” bone resorption and bone growth?

a. Rickets

b. Osteomalacia

c. Osteoporosis

d. Paget disease

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 202 TOP: Metabolic bone disease

27. Another name for a compound fracture is a(n) _____ fracture.

a. open

b. closed

c. comminuted

d. impacted

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 203 TOP: Bone fractures

28. Bouchard nodes are a common sign of which of the following conditions?

a. Sprain

b. Strain

c. Osteoarthritis

d. Dislocation

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 204-205 TOP: Joint disorders

29. Subluxation is another term for

a. sprain.

b. strain.

c. avulsion fracture.

d. dislocation.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 205 TOP: Joint disorders

30. Which of the following is not a form of inflammatory arthritis?

a. Rheumatoid arthritis

b. Osteoarthritis

c. Gouty arthritis

d. Infectious arthritis

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 205-207

TOP: Joint disorders

31. The storage function of the skeletal system refers to the storage of the

a. red marrow which forms blood cells.

b. mineral sodium.

c. mineral calcium.

d. both B and C.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 176 TOP: Functions of the skeletal system

32. The humerus is an example of a(n) _____ bone.

a. long

b. short

c. flat

d. irregular

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 176 TOP: Types of bones

33. The frontal bone of the skull is an example of a(n) _____ bone.

a. long

b. short

c. flat

d. irregular

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 176 TOP: Types of bones

34. What is the name of the spongy bone found inside flat bone?

a. Trabecula

b. Diploë

c. Cancellous

d. Osteon

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 177 TOP: Structure of flat bones

35. Which suture is found at the junction between the parietal bones and the frontal bone?

a. Fontanel

b. Lambdoidal

c. Squamous

d. Coronal

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 185 TOP: Skull

36. The region of the vertebral column that contains the largest number of bones is the

a. cervical.

b. thoracic.

c. lumbar.

d. sacrum.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 187 TOP: Spine (vertebral column)

37. The hole in the center of the vertebrae is called the

a. vertebral foramen.

b. foramen magnum.

c. spinous process.

d. transverse process.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 186 TOP: Spine (vertebral column)

38. Which of the following bones is not part of the upper extremity?

a. Humerus

b. Scapula

c. Ulna

d. Radius

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 190 TOP: Upper extremity

39. Which of the following is not one of the bones that makes up the hip bone?

a. Ilium

b. Acetabulum

c. Ischium

d. Pubis

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 191 TOP: Lower extremity

40. Which of the following is the longest bone of the body?

a. Humerus

b. Fibula

c. Tibia

d. Femur

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 191 | p. 193 TOP: Lower extremity

Match each term with its corresponding definition or explanation.

a. Hematopoiesis

b. Diaphysis

c. Epiphyses

d. Periosteum

e. Endosteum

f. Osteocytes

g. Osteoclasts

h. Osteoblasts

i. Osteon

j. Trabeculae

1. Main structural unit of compact bone

2. Process of blood cell formation

3. Tough connective tissue covering of the bone

4. Bone-resorbing cells

5. Ends of a long bone

6. Bone-building cells

7. Support structures in spongy bone

8. Shaft of the long bone

9. Bone cells that live in the haversian system

10. Layer of connective tissue that lines the medullary cavity

1. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 177 TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage

2. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 176 TOP: Functions of the skeletal system

3. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 177 TOP: Structure of long bones

4. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 179 TOP: Bone formation and growth

5. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 177 TOP: Structure of long bones

6. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 179 TOP: Structure of long bones

7. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 177 TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage

8. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 176 TOP: Structure of long bones

9. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 177 TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage

10. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 177 TOP: Structure of long bones

Match each bone with its corresponding description or location.

a. Femur

b. Radius

c. Carpals

d. Ischium

e. Metacarpals

f. Scapula

g. Tarsals

h. Patella

i. Humerus

j. Phalanges

k. Tibia

l. Metatarsals

11. Ankle bones

12. Bone that joins with the clavicle to make up the shoulder girdle

13. Thigh bone

14. Wrist bones

15. One of the bones that joins with two others to form the hip

16. Bone of the upper arm

17. Bones of the foot

18. One of the bones of the forearm

19. Bones of the fingers

20. Bones of the hand

21. Shinbone

22. Kneecap

11. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 182 TOP: Appendicular skeleton

12. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 182 TOP: Appendicular skeleton

13. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 182 TOP: Appendicular skeleton

14. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 182 TOP: Appendicular skeleton

15. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 182 TOP: Appendicular skeleton

16. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 182 TOP: Appendicular skeleton

17. ANS: L PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 182 TOP: Appendicular skeleton

18. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 182 TOP: Appendicular skeleton

19. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 182 TOP: Appendicular skeleton

20. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 182 TOP: Appendicular skeleton

21. ANS: K PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 182 TOP: Appendicular skeleton

22. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 182 TOP: Appendicular skeleton

Match each bone disorder with its corresponding description.

a. Osteoarthritis

b. Osteosarcoma

c. Paget disease

d. Rickets

e. Osteoporosis

f. Osteomyelitis

g. Chondrosarcoma

h. Sprain

i. Strain

j. Rheumatoid arthritis

23. An injury to a ligament around a joint

24. A disease that has “frenzied” bone growth and resorption

25. Cancer of the bone

26. An infection of the bone

27. Occurs in children as a result of a vitamin D deficiency

28. Can be caused by overstretching a muscle

29. The most common noninflammatory joint disease

30. Cartilage cancer

31. An autoimmune disease type of arthritis

32. A bone condition usually found in postmenopausal women resulting from calcium deficiency

23. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 205 TOP: Joint disorders

24. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 202 TOP: Metabolic bone disease

25. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 200 TOP: Tumors of bone and cartilage

26. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 202 TOP: Bone infection

27. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 201 TOP: Metabolic bone disease

28. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 205 TOP: Joint disorders

29. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 204 TOP: Joint disorders

30. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 200 TOP: Tumors of bone and cartilage

31. ANS: J PTS: 0 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 205 TOP: Joint disorders

32. ANS: E PTS: 0 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 201 TOP: Metabolic bone disease

SHORT ANSWER

1. List and explain the five functions of the skeletal system.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 175-176 TOP: Functions of the skeletal system

2. List and define the six structures of the long bone discussed in this chapter.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 176-177

TOP: Structure of long bones

3. Describe the structure of the osteon.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 177

TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage

4. Describe the structure of cartilage.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 177

TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage

5. Explain why bone heals better than cartilage.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 177 | p. 179

TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage

6. Explain the process of endochondral ossification.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 179

TOP: Bone formation and growth

7. A teenager wants to be given growth hormone to increase his height. The doctor took an x-ray of his wrist to determine whether treatment could be started. Explain what the doctor was looking for.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 179

TOP: Bone formation and growth

8. How is the difference in the role of reproduction reflected in the difference between the male skeleton and female skeleton?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 194-195

TOP: Differences between a man’s and woman’s skeleton

9. Explain synarthrotic and amphiarthrotic joints, and give an example of each.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 196-197

TOP: Joints (articulations)

10. Explain the structure of a diarthrotic joint, and give three examples of diarthrotic joints.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 197-198

TOP: Joints (articulations)

11. Name and explain the types of metabolic bone diseases discussed in the chapter.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 201-202

TOP: Metabolic bone disease

12. Explain the joint disorder osteoarthritis. Include signs of the condition and risk factors for the condition.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 204-205

TOP: Joint disorders

13. Name and describe the three types of inflammatory arthritis discussed in this chapter.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 205-207

TOP: Joint disease

TRUE/FALSE

1. A function of the skeletal system is to act as a reservoir for calcium.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 176 TOP: Functions of the skeletal system

2. The skeletal system provides a place for blood cell formation.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 176 TOP: Functions of the skeletal system

3. The medullary cavity is the site for blood cell formation in the adult skeleton.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 177

TOP: Structure of long bones

4. The periosteum is deep to the endosteum.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 177

TOP: Structure of long bones

5. Long bones have one diaphysis and two epiphyses.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 176

TOP: Structure of long bones

6. Yellow marrow is stored in the medullary cavity of an adult long bone.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 177 TOP: Structure of long bones

7. The medullary cavity is deep to the periosteum.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 177

TOP: Structure of long bones

8. Trabeculae and osteons have similar functions in the two types of bones.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 177

TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage

9. The lamellae of the osteon surround the central canal.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 177 TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage

10. Osteocytes live in the canaliculi of the osteon.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 177 TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage

11. Nutrients needed by osteocytes are carried through canaliculi.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 177 TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage

12. Cartilage cells are called chondrocytes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 177 TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage

13. Unlike osteocytes, chondrocytes are located in lacunae.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 177 TOP: Microscopic structure of bone and cartilage

14. Osteoblasts and osteoclasts have opposite functions in bone formation and growth.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 179 TOP: Bone formation and growth

15. The repair of a broken bone increases the activity of osteoblasts.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 179 TOP: Bone formation and growth

16. If the body requires more calcium in the blood, the activity of osteoclasts will increase.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 179 TOP: Bone formation and growth

17. Growth of a bone can only continue if there is cartilage in the center of the diaphysis.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 179 TOP: Bone formation and growth

18. Growth of a bone occurs at the epiphyseal plates.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 179 TOP: Bone formation and growth

19. There are more than 20 bones in the skull.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 181 TOP: Axial skeleton

20. The skull contains eight sinuses.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 181 TOP: Axial skeleton

21. An infection of a sinus is called mastoiditis.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 181 TOP: Axial skeleton

22. The soft spots on a baby’s skull are called fontanels.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 185 TOP: Axial skeleton

23. The lambdoidal suture is located at the junction of the temporal and occipital bones of the skull.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 185 TOP: Axial skeleton

24. In the vertebral column, the coccyx is inferior to the sacrum.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 186 TOP: Axial skeleton

25. The sacral and cervical parts of the vertebral column form convex curves.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 187 TOP: Axial skeleton

26. Scoliosis results from an exaggerated lumbar curve.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 188 TOP: Axial skeleton

27. Floating ribs join the costal cartilage of the seventh rib.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 189 TOP: Axial skeleton

28. Floating ribs are named “floating” because they are not joined to any other bone.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 189 TOP: Axial skeleton

29. The scapula and clavicle form the pectoral girdle.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 190 TOP: Appendicular skeleton

30. The most important functional difference between the male and the female skeleton is the size.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 194-195 TOP: Differences between a man’s and woman’s skeleton

31. The major functional difference between the male and the female skeleton is related to its role in reproduction.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 194-195

TOP: Differences between a man’s and woman’s skeleton

32. The hyoid bone forms both a diarthrotic and a synarthrotic joint.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 196 | p. 197

TOP: Joints (articulations)

33. Nonmoving joints are called diarthrotic joints.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 196 TOP: Joints (articulations)

34. The symphysis pubis is an example of an amphiarthrotic joint.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 196 TOP: Joints (articulations)

35. A skeleton composed of nothing but synarthrotic joints would have virtually no movement.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 196 TOP: Joints (articulations)

36. A slipped disk damages a diarthrotic joint.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 197 TOP: Joints (articulations)

37. All diarthrotic joints have joint capsules.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 197 TOP: Joints (articulations)

38. Ligaments are strong bands of connective tissue that connect bones to other bones.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 198 TOP: Joints (articulations)

39. The articular cartilage has two functions: to act as a shock absorber and to reduce friction in the joint.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 198 TOP: Joints (articulations)

40. Flexion is a characteristic movement of a pivot joint.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 198 TOP: Joints (articulations)

41. The hip joint is an example of a ball-and-socket joint.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 198 TOP: Joints (articulations)

42. Extension is a characteristic movement of a hinge joint.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 198 TOP: Joints (articulations)

43. Osteosarcoma is a very aggressive cancer that usually affects men between the ages of 50 and 70.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 200 TOP: Tumors of bone and cartilage

44. Chondrosarcoma is a cancer of cartilage tissue.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 200 TOP: Tumors of bone and cartilage

45. An adequate amount of vitamin D in a child’s diet can prevent Paget disease.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 202 TOP: Metabolic bone disease

46. One of the signs of osteoporosis is “dowager’s hump.”

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 201 TOP: Metabolic bone disease

47. Osteomyelitis is more likely to result from a closed fracture than from an open fracture.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 202-203 TOP: Bone infection and bone fractures

48. A sprain involves ligaments, and a strain usually involves muscle tissue.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 205 TOP: Joint disorders

49. Uric acid is the usual cause of infectious arthritis.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 207 TOP: Joint disorders

50. Lyme disease or Lyme arthritis is an example of infectious arthritis.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 207 TOP: Joint disorders

51. The patella is an example of a flat bone.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 176 TOP: Types of bones

52. The patella is an example of a sesamoid.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 176 TOP: Types of bones

53. The diploë are the bony portions of spongy bone that surround the open spaces.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 177 TOP: Structure of the flat bone

54. All bones begin as cartilage.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 177 | p. 179 TOP: Bone formation and growth

55. Because of the continuous wear and stress on the bones of athletes, their bones tend to be weaker than the bones of less active people.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 179 TOP: Bone formation and growth

56. The skull, vertebrae, shoulder girdle, and pelvic girdle make up the axial skeleton.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 181 TOP: Divisions of the skeleton

57. There are more bones in the facial part of the skull than in the cranium.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 181 TOP: Skull

58. Mastoiditis occurs in the temporal bone.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 181 TOP: Skull

59. There are four fontanels in the skull of a newborn.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 185 TOP: Skull

60. The cervical region of the vertebral column contains more bones than any other region.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 187 TOP: Spine (vertebral column)

61. The hole in the center of the vertebrae is called the vertebral foramen.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 186 TOP: Spine (vertebral column)

62. The first seven ribs are called true ribs.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 189 TOP: Thorax

63. The olecranon process is found in the skeleton of the upper extremity.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 190 TOP: Upper extremity

64. There are 28 phalanges in the human skeleton.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 190 TOP: Upper extremity and lower extremity

65. The acetabulum is part of the hip bone.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 193 TOP: Lower extremity

Chapter 09: Muscular System Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Voluntary muscle is _____ muscle.

a. striated

b. cardiac

c. skeletal

d. both A and C

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 220 TOP: Muscle tissue

2. Intercalated disks are found in _____ muscle.

a. striated

b. cardiac

c. smooth

d. all of the above

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 220 TOP: Muscle tissue

3. Which type of muscle tissue contains striations?

a. Voluntary muscle

b. Cardiac muscle

c. Smooth muscle

d. Both A and B

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 220 TOP: Muscle tissue

4. Another name for visceral muscle is _____ muscle.

a. cardiac

b. voluntary

c. smooth

d. striated

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 220 TOP: Muscle tissue

5. When bending the elbow, the

a. triceps brachii is the synergist.

b. biceps brachii is the prime mover.

c. biceps brachii is the antagonist.

d. brachialis is the prime mover.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 223 TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

6. In extending the elbow, the

a. triceps brachii is the prime mover.

b. biceps brachii is the prime mover.

c. brachialis is the prime mover

d. triceps brachii is the antagonist.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 224 TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

7. The triceps brachii and the biceps brachii

a. are synergistic for each other.

b. both have their origins on the forearm.

c. are antagonistic to one other.

d. both have their insertions in the shoulder.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 224

TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle | Functions of skeletal muscle

8. Tonic contractions

a. help maintain posture.

b. cause an oxygen debt in the body.

c. produce large amounts of lactic acid.

d. both B and C.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 224 TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

9. During strenuous exercise

a. an oxygen debt can occur.

b. lactic acid can be created in the muscle.

c. almost all the contractions are tonic contractions.

d. both A and B.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 225 TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

10. Which of the following does not happen when a muscle contracts?

a. A motor neuron stimulates a muscle cell.

b. The muscle cells partially contract based on the amount of resistance.

c. Neurotransmitters are used to trigger the contraction process on a skeletal muscle fiber.

d. The stimulus rises above threshold.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 225

TOP: Muscle stimulus

11. What type of muscle contraction occurs when someone lifts a book off a desk?

a. Isometric

b. Twitch

c. Isotonic

d. Both A and B

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 226

TOP: Types of skeletal muscle contractions

12. What type of muscle contraction occurs when someone tries to lift a 500-pound weight?

a. Isometric

b. Twitch

c. Isotonic

d. Both A and B

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 226

TOP: Types of skeletal muscle contractions

13. Muscle hypertrophy

a. results from long periods of disuse.

b. results from endurance training.

c. is an increase in muscle size.

d. results from an increase in blood vessels to a muscle.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 228 TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles

14. Endurance training results in

a. muscle atrophy.

b. an increase in blood vessels to a muscle.

c. muscle hypertrophy.

d. an increase in muscle fibers.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 228 TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles

15. Strength training causes

a. muscle atrophy.

b. an increase in blood vessels to a muscle.

c. muscle hypertrophy.

d. an increase in the number of mitochondria in a muscle cell.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 228 TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles

16. If the muscles of a weightlifter and a marathon runner were compared, the marathon runner would have

a. more mitochondria in each muscle cell.

b. larger muscle cells.

c. more muscle cells.

d. both A and C.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 228

TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles

17. If the muscles of a weightlifter and a marathon runner were compared, the weightlifter would have

a. more mitochondria in each muscle cell.

b. larger muscle cells.

c. more muscle cells.

d. both B and C.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 228

TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles

18. The movement that is opposite of flexion is

a. abduction.

b. rotation.

c. extension.

d. supination.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 228 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions

19. Shaking your head “no” is what type of movement?

a. Supination

b. Rotation

c. Abduction

d. Dorsiflexion

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 228 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions

20. The autoimmune disorder of the muscular system characterized by muscle weakness, especially in the face and throat, is called

a. fibromyositis.

b. myalgia.

c. myasthenia gravis.

d. Duchenne muscular dystrophy.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 237 TOP: Major muscular disorders

21. Which type of muscle is characterized by cells with tapered ends and a single nucleus?

a. Cardiac

b. Smooth

c. Striated

d. Voluntary

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 220 TOP: Muscle tissue

22. Which type of muscle tissue specializes in contraction or shortening?

a. Cardiac

b. Smooth

c. Striated

d. All of the above

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 220 TOP: Muscle tissue

23. A muscle’s origin is on the

a. more movable bone.

b. more stationary bone.

c. muscle most responsible for a specific movement.

d. both A and C.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 220 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

24. A muscle’s insertion is on the

a. more movable muscle.

b. more stationary muscle.

c. muscle most responsible for a specific movement.

d. both B and C.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 220 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

25. The “heads” of which molecules form crossbridges during muscle contraction?

a. Actin

b. The thin filament

c. Myosin

d. Both A and B

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 221 TOP: Microscopic structure and function

26. Which substance is released from the endoplasmic reticulum after a nerve signal stimulates the muscle fiber?

a. Myoglobin

b. Calcium ions

c. ATP

d. Sarcomeres

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 222 TOP: Microscopic structure and function

27. Which of the following is not a primary function of the muscular system?

a. Protection of internal organs

b. Movement

c. Maintaining posture

d. Producing heat to maintain body temperature

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 222-223 TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

28. Which of the following contractions is seen in an isolated muscle fiber in the laboratory but plays a minimal role in normal muscle activity?

a. Isometric

b. Twitch

c. Isotonic

d. Tectonic

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 225 TOP: Types of skeletal muscle contractions

29. Moving a body part away from the midline of the body is called

a. abduction.

b. pronation.

c. rotation.

d. adduction.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 228 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions

30. Damage to a ligament results in which type of injury?

a. Strain

b. Myalgia

c. Cramps

d. Sprain

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 235 TOP: Muscle injury

MATCHING

Match each term with its corresponding definition or description.

a. Voluntary muscle

b. Visceral muscle

c. Intercalated disks

d. Origin

e. Sarcomere

f. Insertion

g. Actin

h. Z line

i. Bursae

j. Myosin

1. Protein that makes up the thick myofilament

2. Another name for smooth muscle

3. Structures that are found only in cardiac muscle

4. Structures that separate one sarcomere from another

5. Protein that makes up the thin myofilament

6. Usually the nonmoving attachment point of a muscle

7. Another term for skeletal muscle

8. Usually the moving attachment point of a muscle

9. A small fluid-filled sac that lies between some tendons and bones

10. Functional unit of contraction of a skeletal muscle

1. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 221 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

2. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 220 TOP: Muscle tissue

3. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 220 TOP: Muscle tissue

4. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 222 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

5. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 221 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

6. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 220 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

7. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 220 TOP: Muscle tissue

8. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 220 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

9. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 220 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

10. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 221 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

Match each muscle with its corresponding description or location.

a. Triceps brachii

b. Pectoralis major

c. Masseter

d. Sternocleidomastoid

e. Zygomaticus

f. Deltoid

g. Biceps brachii

h. Latissimus dorsi

11. One of the muscles used to close the jaw

12. Muscle that forms the thick rounded prominence over the shoulder and upper arm

13. Can be referred to as the “smiling muscle”

14. Muscle on the front of the upper arm responsible for flexion of the elbow

15. Large fan-shaped muscle that covers the upper chest

16. Pair of muscles that allow a person to flex the head to the chest

17. Large muscle on the lower back

18. Muscle on the back of the upper arm that is responsible for elbow extension

11. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 232 TOP: Skeletal muscle groups

12. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 232 TOP: Skeletal muscle groups

13. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 232 TOP: Skeletal muscle groups

14. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 232 TOP: Skeletal muscle groups

15. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 232 TOP: Skeletal muscle groups

16. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 232 TOP: Skeletal muscle groups

17. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 232 TOP: Skeletal muscle groups

18. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 232 TOP: Skeletal muscle groups

Match each muscle to its corresponding location or description.

a. External oblique

b. Gastrocnemius

c. Quadriceps

d. Intercostal muscles

e. Tibialis anterior

f. Hamstring muscles

g. Gluteus maximus

h. Rectus abdominis

19. Muscle that makes up much of the substance of the buttock

20. Primary calf muscle

21. Muscles that are located between the ribs

22. Group of muscles that includes the biceps femoris

23. One of the three layered muscles on the side of the abdominal wall

24. Muscle group made up of the rectus femoris and the three vastus muscles

25. Strap-shaped muscle that runs down the center of the abdomen

26. Muscle located on the front surface of the lower leg

19. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 234 TOP: Skeletal muscle groups

20. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 234 TOP: Skeletal muscle groups

21. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 233 TOP: Skeletal muscle groups

22. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 234 TOP: Skeletal muscle groups

23. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 233 TOP: Skeletal muscle groups

24. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 234 TOP: Skeletal muscle groups

25. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 233 TOP: Skeletal muscle groups

26. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 234 TOP: Skeletal muscle groups

Match each term with its corresponding definition or description.

a. Flexion

b. Extension

c. Abduction

d. Adduction

e. Supination

f. Pronation

g. Rotation

h. Plantar flexion

i. Dorsiflexion

27. Moving a body part toward the midline of the body

28. Turning the hand so the palm is facing anteriorly

29. Moving a body part away from the midline of the body

30. The movement that decreases the angle between two bones

31. Movement around a longitudinal axis

32. Movement that points the toes

33. Turning the hand so the palm is facing posteriorly

34. Movement that increases the angle between two bones

35. Movement that moves the toes toward the shin

27. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 228 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions

28. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 228 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions

29. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 228 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions

30. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 228 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions

31. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 228 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions

32. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 229 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions

33. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 228 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions

34. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 228 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions

35. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 229 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions

SHORT ANSWER

1. Describe the three types of muscle tissues, and explain where each is found.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

TOP: Muscle tissue

REF: p. 220

2. Explain how intercalated disks allow the heart to contract more efficiently.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 220

3. Explain the similarities between bursae and tendon sheaths.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 220

4. Explain the microscopic structure of the skeletal muscle.

TOP: Muscle tissue

TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 221-222

TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

5. Explain the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 222

TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

6. Explain the roles of the prime mover, the synergist, and the antagonist in muscle contraction.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 223

TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

7. Explain muscle fatigue and oxygen debt, and describe how oxygen debt is “paid.”

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 224-225

TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

8. What makes up a motor unit, and what is the neuromuscular junction?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 225

TOP: Motor unit

9. Define isotonic and isometric contractions and give an example of each.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 226

TOP: Types of skeletal muscle contractions

10. Explain the different effects that strength training and endurance training have on a muscle.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 228

TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles

11. Give an example of a sport or activity that benefits from strength exercise. Explain your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 228

TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles

12. Give an example of a sport or activity that benefits from endurance exercise. Explain your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 228

TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles

13. Name and explain the movements produced by skeletal muscle contraction.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 228-229

TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions

14. Explain the differences among a sprain, a strain, and a cramp.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 235

TOP: Major muscular disorders

15. Explain how a severe muscle injury can lead to kidney damage.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 235

TOP: Major muscular disorders

16. Describe the progression of Duchenne muscular dystrophy.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

TOP: Major muscular disorders

REF: p. 236

17. Explain why Duchenne muscular dystrophy usually affects boys.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 236 TOP: Major muscular disorders

18. Explain the progression of myasthenia gravis.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 237 TOP: Major muscular disorders

19. Explain the cause of myasthenia gravis.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 237 TOP: Major muscular disorders

TRUE/FALSE

1. Both smooth muscle and cardiac muscle have striations.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 220 TOP: Muscle tissue

2. Both skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle have striations.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 220 TOP: Muscle tissue

3. Both cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle have intercalated disks.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 220 TOP: Muscle tissue

4. Unlike skeletal muscle, smooth muscle cells have only one nucleus.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 220 TOP: Muscle tissue

5. Skeletal muscle is also called striated or visceral muscle.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 220 TOP: Muscle tissue

6. The muscle responsible for bending the elbow has its insertion in the forearm.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 223

TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

7. The muscle responsible for bending the elbow has its insertion in the shoulder.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 223

TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

8. Tendons attach bone to bone.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 220 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

9. Bursae and tendon sheaths perform the same function.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 220 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

10. Tendons attach muscle to bone at both the origin and insertion sites.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 220 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

11. The basic functional unit of a skeletal muscle is a myofilament.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 221 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

12. The thick myofilaments in a skeletal muscle are composed of actin.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 221 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

13. The thin myofilaments in a skeletal muscle are composed of actin.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 221 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

14. Another name for a muscle cell is a muscle fiber.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 221 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

15. The model that explains how a muscle contracts is called the sliding filament model.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 222 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

16. Sarcomeres are separated from each other by dark bands called myofilaments.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 221-222 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

17. During a muscle contraction, the Z lines of that muscle fiber come closer together.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 222

TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

18. ATP is produced by muscle contraction.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 222 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

19. Both calcium and ATP are needed for a muscle to contract.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 222

TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

20. The prime mover for bending the elbow is the biceps brachii.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 223

TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

21. The prime mover for bending the elbow is the triceps brachii.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 223

TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

22. When the elbow is straightened, the triceps brachii becomes the antagonistic muscle.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 223

TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

23. A muscle can be a prime mover or an antagonist, depending on the movement of the joint.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 223

TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

24. Muscle tone maintains posture.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 224 TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

25. Shivering helps a person with hypothermia because muscle contractions produce heat.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 224

TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

26. Almost all of the ATP energy used in muscle contraction is released in the form of heat.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 224 TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

27. When insufficient oxygen is supplied to a working muscle, lactic acid is used to produce ATP.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 225 TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

28. Lactic acid is produced when insufficient oxygen is available to meet the energy demands of muscle cells.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 225 TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

29. The continued heavy breathing after strenuous exercise is an attempt by the body to “repay” the oxygen debt.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 225 TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

30. All the motor neurons that stimulate a single muscle are referred to as a motor unit.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 225 TOP: Motor unit

31. Chemicals released at the neuromuscular junction stimulate the muscle to contract.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 225 TOP: Motor unit

32. The least amount of stimulus required for a muscle to contract is called the threshold stimulus.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 225 TOP: Muscle stimulus

33. Muscle cells will contract slightly for a weak stimulus and much more forcefully for a stronger stimulus.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 225 TOP: Muscle stimulus

34. When a person picks up a 5-pound weight, muscle cells contract less forcefully than when a person picks up a 20-pound weight.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 225 TOP: Muscle stimulus

35. More motor units are needed to pick up a 20-pound weight than are needed to pick up a 5pound weight.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 225 TOP: Muscle stimulus

36. Twitch contractions are normally used in most actions.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 225 TOP: Types of skeletal muscle contractions

37. In an isotonic contraction, the bone of origin moves toward the bone of insertion.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 226 TOP: Types of skeletal muscle contractions

38. In an isotonic contraction, the muscle itself actually shortens.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 226 TOP: Types of skeletal muscle contractions

39. The muscle does not shorten in an isometric contraction, so there is no tension on the muscle.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 226 TOP: Types of skeletal muscle contractions

40. The result of strength training is muscle atrophy.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 228 TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles

41. The result of endurance training is muscle hypertrophy.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 228 TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles

42. The result of endurance training is an increase in the number of blood vessels in a muscle.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 228 TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles

43. A football lineman exercises to develop hypertrophy, and a marathon runner exercises to increase blood supply to a muscle.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 228 TOP: Effects of exercise on skeletal muscles

44. If a prime mover causes extension, the antagonist would cause flexion.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 223 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions and functions

45. Abduction moves a body part toward the midline of the body.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 228 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions

46. In the anatomical position, the hands are supinated.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 228 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions

47. Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion refer to movements of the ankle that change the position of the foot.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 229 TOP: Movements produced by skeletal muscle contractions

48. A strain is usually a muscle injury, and a sprain is usually a ligament injury.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 235 TOP: Major muscular disorders

49. A severe muscle injury can have a negative effect on kidney function.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 235 TOP: Major muscular disorders

50. Muscular dystrophy is a muscle disorder caused by a viral infection.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 236 TOP: Major muscular disorders

51. A full family history would be most helpful in determining the risk for myasthenia gravis.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 237 TOP: Major muscular disorders

52. Girls are more likely to have Duchenne muscular dystrophy than are boys.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 236 TOP: Major muscular disorders

53. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is caused by the body’s inability to make the protein dystrophin.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 236 TOP: Major muscular disorders

54. Myasthenia gravis is a condition that is carried on the X chromosome.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 237 TOP: Major muscular disorders

55. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 237 TOP: Major muscular disorders

56. Bursae and tendon sheaths are lined with synovial membrane.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 220 TOP: Structure of skeletal muscle

57. The “heads” that form crossbridges during muscle contraction are part of the actin molecule.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 221 TOP: Microscopic structure and function

58. When a muscle contracts, its insertion bone moves toward its origin bone.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 220 TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

59. Both antagonist muscles and synergist muscles act to oppose the movement of the prime mover.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 220 TOP: Functions of skeletal muscle

Chapter 10: Nervous System Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The eye is considered part of the _____ nervous system.

a. central

b. peripheral

c. autonomic

d. sympathetic

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 270

TOP: Organs and divisions of the nervous system

2. The autonomic nervous system is a subdivision of the _____ nervous system.

a. central

b. sympathetic

c. peripheral

d. parasympathetic

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 249 TOP: Organs and divisions of the nervous system

3. Axons

a. are usually highly branched.

b. carry nerve impulses toward the cell body.

c. carry nerve impulses away from the cell body.

d. both A and B.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 250 TOP: Cells of the nervous system

4. Dendrites

a. are usually highly branched.

b. carry impulses away from the cell body.

c. are usually surrounded by myelin.

d. all of the above.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 250 TOP: Cells of the nervous system

5. Sensory neurons are also called

a. interneurons.

b. efferent neurons.

c. afferent neurons.

d. glia cells.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 250 TOP: Cells of the nervous system

6. Motor neurons are also called

a. interneurons.

b. efferent neurons.

c. afferent neurons.

d. glia cells.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 250 TOP: Cells of the nervous system

7. Another name for connecting neurons is

a. interneurons.

b. efferent neurons.

c. motor neurons.

d. afferent neurons.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 250 TOP: Cells of the nervous system

8. Which type of glia cell produces myelin for cells in the brain?

a. Microglia

b. Oligodendrocytes

c. Astrocytes

d. Neurolemma

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 252 TOP: Cells of the nervous system

9. Which type of glia cell turns into a microbe-eating cell in inflamed brain tissue?

a. Microglia

b. Oligodendrocyte

c. Astroglia

d. Neurolemma

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 251 TOP: Cells of the nervous system

10. Which of the following statements is not true of multiple sclerosis?

a. It is considered a myelin disorder.

b. Oligodendrocyte injury or death occurs.

c. The disease is most common in women between the ages of 20 and 40.

d. It is usually the result of a neuroma.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 252 TOP: Disorders of nervous tissue

11. Which of the following statements is not true of nervous system tumors?

a. Most tumors develop from neurons.

b. Neuroma is a general name for a nervous system tumor.

c. Multiple neurofibromatosis is an example of a nervous system tumor.

d. Most tumors in the nervous system result from the metastasis of other types of tumors.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 253 TOP: Disorders of nervous system

12. The outermost covering of a nerve is called the

a. epineurium.

b. endoneurium.

c. perineurium.

d. fascicles.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 253 TOP: Nerves

13. The most basic reflex arc is

a. a one-neuron pathway.

b. a two-neuron pathway.

c. a three-neuron pathway.

d. an interneuron.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 253-254 TOP: Reflex arcs

14. During a nerve impulse

a. the interior of the neuron becomes more negative.

b. sodium ions are pumped out of the neuron.

c. sodium ions are allowed into the neuron.

d. the entire neuron becomes positively charged.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 256 TOP: Nerve impulses

15. Saltatory conduction

a. is called “saltatory” because it is caused by sodium chloride.

b. is much slower than nonsaltatory conduction.

c. occurs only in the dendrites.

d. occurs only in the axons.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 256 TOP: Nerve impulses

16. Which of the following structures is not part of a synapse?

a. Synaptic knob

b. Synaptic cleft

c. Neurotransmitter

d. Plasma membrane of the postsynaptic cell

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 256 TOP: The synapse

17. Which of the following neurotransmitters is not considered a catecholamine?

a. Norepinephrine

b. Acetylcholine

c. Dopamine

d. Serotonin

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 257-258 TOP: The synapse

18. The vital centers are located in the

a. medulla oblongata.

b. pons.

c. spinal cord.

d. midbrain.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 260 TOP: Central nervous system

19. Which of the following is not a function of the hypothalamus?

a. Produces antidiuretic hormone.

b. Helps regulate body temperature.

c. Plays a part in the “arousal or alerting mechanism.”

d. Helps regulate water balance.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 262 TOP: Central nervous system

20. Which of the following is not a function of the thalamus?

a. Controls appetite.

b. Relays impulses to the cerebral cortex from sense organs.

c. Associates sensations with emotions.

d. Plays a part in the “arousal or alerting mechanism.”

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 262 TOP: Central nervous system

21. Which of the following statements is not true of the cerebellum?

a. It is the second largest part of the brain.

b. It lies under the occipital lobe of the cerebrum.

c. It is responsible for muscle coordination.

d. It helps regulate water balance and sleep cycles.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 260-261 TOP: Central nervous system

22. Which of the following statements is not true of the spinal cord?

a. It is the primary reflex center.

b. It contains both gray and white matter.

c. It extends from the occipital bone to the third sacral vertebra.

d. It transmits impulses to and from the brain.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 266-267 TOP: Central nervous system

23. The outermost layer of the meninges is the

a. pia mater.

b. choroid plexus.

c. arachnoid mater.

d. dura mater.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 268 TOP: Central nervous system

24. Cerebrospinal fluid is found between the

a. skull and the dura mater.

b. dura mater and the arachnoid mater.

c. arachnoid mater and the pia mater.

d. pia mater and the brain.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 269 TOP: Central nervous system

25. Another name for tic douloureux is

a. sciatica.

b. shingles.

c. Bell palsy.

d. trigeminal neuralgia.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 273 TOP: Peripheral nerve disorders

26. A person who has never had chicken pox is less likely to develop

a. sciatica.

b. shingles.

c. Bell palsy.

d. trigeminal neuralgia.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 273 TOP: Peripheral nerve disorders

27. The somatic nervous system carries impulses from the brain and spinal cord to

a. cardiac muscle.

b. skeletal muscle.

c. smooth muscle.

d. all of the above.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 275 TOP: Autonomic nervous system

28. Somatic motor neurons

a. use a single-neuron pathway to connect the spinal cord to the effector organ.

b. produce epinephrine as their neurotransmitter.

c. synapse at the collateral ganglia.

d. both A and B.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 254 TOP: Autonomic nervous system

29. Which of the following neurons is classified as a cholinergic fiber?

a. Parasympathetic preganglionic axon

b. Sympathetic preganglionic axon

c. Sympathetic postganglionic axon

d. Both A and B

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 277-278 TOP: Autonomic neurotransmitters

30. Which of the following neurons is classified as an adrenergic fiber?

a. Parasympathetic preganglionic axon

b. Sympathetic preganglionic axon

c. Sympathetic postganglionic axon

d. Both A and B

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 278 TOP: Autonomic neurotransmitters

31. The outer membrane of a Schwann cell is called the

a. neurilemmal.

b. myelin.

c. node of Ranvier.

d. glia.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 250 TOP: Neurons

32. The indentations between Schwann cells are called

a. neurilemmas.

b. myelin.

c. nodes of Ranvier.

d. glias.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 250 TOP: Neurons

33. A nerve is

a. also called a tract.

b. a group of peripheral axons.

c. considered gray matter.

d. both A and C.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 250 TOP: Nerves

34. The perineurium is

a. a tough, fibrous sheath covering the whole nerve.

b. another name for a fascicle.

c. a thin wrapping of fibrous tissue around each axon.

d. a thin fibrous tissue surrounding a group of axons.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 253 TOP: Nerves

35. A reflex arc may not have which of the following?

a. A sensory neuron

b. An interneuron

c. A motor neuron

d. All reflex arcs must have all of the above.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 254 TOP: Reflex arcs

36. Which of the following is an example of a morphine like neurotransmitter?

a. Enkephalin

b. Acetylcholine

c. Dopamine

d. Serotonin

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 258 TOP: Neurotransmitters

37. Parkinson disease is a nervous disorder resulting from a deficiency of which neurotransmitter?

a. Acetylcholine

b. Enkephalin

c. Serotonin

d. Dopamine

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 259 TOP: Neurotransmitters

38. Which of the following is not considered part of the brainstem?

a. Medulla oblongata

b. Cerebellum

c. Pons

d. Midbrain

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 260 TOP: Brainstem

39. Which of the following is not part of the peripheral nervous system?

a. Cranial nerves

b. Spinal nerves

c. The autonomic nervous system

d. All of the above are part of the peripheral nervous system.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 270 TOP: Peripheral nervous system

MATCHING

Match each of the following terms with its corresponding definition or description.

a. Microglia

b. Axon

c. Dendrites

d. Oligodendrocyte

e. Afferent neuron

f. Astrocytes

g. Efferent neuron

h. Interneurons

i. Nodes of Ranvier

j. Schwann cells

1. Another term for a sensory neuron

2. Cells that produce myelin for axons outside the central nervous system

3. Numerous branching projections of the neuron

4. Cells that can become “microbe-eating” cells in the brain

5. Neurons that can also be called “connecting” neurons

6. Another term for motor neuron

7. Star-shaped cells that hold neurons and blood vessels close to each other in the brain

8. Usually a single elongated projection of a neuron

9. Indentations between adjacent Schwann cells

10. Cells that produce myelin for the neurons in the central nervous system

1. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 250 TOP: Cells of the nervous system

2. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 250 TOP: Cells of the nervous system

3. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 250 TOP: Cells of the nervous system

4. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 251 TOP: Cells of the nervous system

5. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 250 TOP: Cells of the nervous system

6. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 250 TOP: Cells of the nervous system

7. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 250-251 TOP: Cells of the nervous system

8. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 250 TOP: Cells of the nervous system

9. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 250 TOP: Cells of the nervous system

10. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 252 TOP: Cells of the nervous system

Match each part of the central nervous system with its corresponding description or function.

a. Midbrain

b. Spinal cord

c. Medulla oblongata

d. Thalamus

e. Hypothalamus

f. Cerebellum

g. Sulcus

h. Corpus callosum

i. Cerebrum

j. Gyrus

k. Basal ganglia

11. Connects the right and left hemispheres of the cerebrum

12. The most superior part of the brainstem

13. The main reflex center of the central nervous system

14. Structure that is part of the central nervous system but also produces hormones for the endocrine system

15. Lies just below the occipital lobe of the cerebrum and is responsible for muscle coordination

16. A shallow groove in the outer surface of the cerebrum

17. Islands of gray matter in the white matter of the cerebrum

18. Brain structure that associates sensations with emotions

19. A ridge on the surface of the cerebrum

20. Part of the brainstem that contains the “vital centers”

21. The largest and uppermost part of the brain

11. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 262 TOP: Central nervous system

12. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 260 TOP: Central nervous system

13. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 268 TOP: Central nervous system

14. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 261 TOP: Central nervous system

15. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 260 TOP: Central nervous system

16. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 262 TOP: Central nervous system

17. ANS: K PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 262 TOP: Central nervous system

18. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 262 TOP: Central nervous system

19. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 262 TOP: Central nervous system

20. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 260 TOP: Central nervous system

21. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 262 TOP: Central nervous system

SHORT ANSWER

1. Explain the functions of efferent neurons, afferent neurons, and interneurons.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 250

TOP: Cells of the nervous system

2. Name and explain the function of the three types of glial cells in the central nervous system. Name and explain the function of the glial cell found only in the peripheral nervous system.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 250-252

TOP: Cells of the nervous system

3. Explain the role of oligodendrocytes in multiple sclerosis.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 252

TOP: Disorders of the nervous system

4. Explain how benign gliomas can still be life-threatening.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 253

TOP: Disorders of the nervous system

5. Explain the structure of a nerve.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 253

TOP: Nerves

6. Explain the structure and functioning of a reflex arc.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 253-254

TOP: Reflex arcs

7. What is the efferent organ for the knee-jerk reflex?

ANS: The efferent organ for the knee-jerk reflex is the quadriceps muscle of the thigh which extends the knee.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 254

8. Explain a nerve impulse. What is saltatory conduction?

ANS: Answers will vary.

TOP: Reflex arcs

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 255 | p. 256

TOP: Nerve impulses

9. Explain a synapse between two neurons. Describe the methods by which neurotransmitters are inactivated.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 256-258

TOP: The synapse

10. A class of antidepressant drugs called SSRIs works by preventing the removal of the neurotransmitter serotonin from the synapse. Explain how that would affect the postsynaptic neuron.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 258 TOP: The synapse

11. Describe and give the function of the brainstem.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 260

TOP: Central nervous system

12. Describe the structure, location, and functions of the hypothalamus.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 261-262

TOP: Central nervous system

13. Describe the structure, location, and functions of the thalamus.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 262

TOP: Central nervous system

14. Describe the structure, location, and function of the cerebellum.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 260-261

TOP: Central nervous system

15. Explain the structure and function of the cerebrum.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 262-264

TOP: Central nervous system

16. Describe cerebral palsy, and list its possible causes.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 264-265

TOP: Central nervous system

17. Explain the structure and function of the spinal cord.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 266-268

TOP: Central nervous system

18. Name and describe the three layers of the meninges.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 268

TOP: Central nervous system

19. Describe the structure and function of spinal nerves.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 270-273

TOP: Peripheral nervous system

20. Explain the symptoms and causes of trigeminal neuralgia and Bell palsy.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 273

TOP: Peripheral nervous system

21. Explain the structure and function of the sympathetic nervous system.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 276-277

TOP: Autonomic nervous system

22. Explain the structure and function of the parasympathetic nervous system.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 277

TOP: Autonomic nervous system

23. Why is it necessary for both the parasympathetic nervous system and sympathetic nervous system to function properly to maintain normal body function?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 276-277 TOP: Autonomic nervous system

24. Explain the effect that stress has on the function of the body.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 278-279

TOP: Autonomic nervous system

TRUE/FALSE

1. The endocrine system and the nervous system both help regulate body function.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 249 TOP: Introduction

2. The autonomic nervous system is considered a subdivision of the central nervous system.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 249 TOP: Organs and divisions of the nervous system

3. Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes share a common function.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 250 TOP: Cells of the nervous system

4. The axon of a sensory neuron usually transmits an impulse to an interneuron.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 250

TOP: Cells of the nervous system

5. The axon of a motor neuron usually transmits an impulse to a muscle.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 250

TOP: Cells of the nervous system

6. The dendrite of a sensory neuron receives impulses from an interneuron.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 250 TOP: Cells of the nervous system

7. The dendrite of a motor neuron receives impulses from an interneuron.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 250 TOP: Cells of the nervous system

8. Nodes of Ranvier are found only on dendrites.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 250

TOP: Cells of the nervous system

9. Myelin surrounds the dendrites of both afferent and efferent neurons.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 250 TOP: Cells of the nervous system

10. The “star cells” produce myelin for axons of the central nervous system.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 250 TOP: Cells of the nervous system

11. Inflammation of brain tissue increases the activity of microglia.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 251 TOP: Cells of the nervous system

12. Multiple sclerosis is a disease that results from improper functioning of oligodendrocytes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 252 TOP: Disorders of nervous tissue

13. Because gliomas are usually benign tumors, they are never life threatening.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 253 TOP: Disorders of nervous system

14. The cause of multiple neurofibromatosis is an autoimmune response or a viral infection.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 253 TOP: Disorders of the nervous system

15. Nerves are mostly composed of dendrites.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 253 TOP: Nerves

16. Gray matter is gray because it does not have myelin.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 253 TOP: Nerves

17. Each axon in a nerve is surrounded by a thin sheet of fibrous connective tissue called the perineurium.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 253 TOP: Nerves

18. The endoneurium is deep to the perineurium, which is deep to the epineurium.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 253

TOP: Nerves

19. The difference between a two- and a three-neuron reflex is that a three-neuron reflex contains an interneuron.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 254 TOP: Reflex arcs

20. The knee-jerk reflex goes from receptor neuron to interneuron to effector neuron.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 254

TOP: Reflex arcs

21. The effector organ of the knee-jerk reflex is the muscle that extends the knee.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 254 TOP: Reflex arcs

22. All interneurons are entirely within the gray matter.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 254 TOP: Reflex arcs

23. The resting neuron has a more positive charge inside than outside.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 255 TOP: Nerve impulses

24. The interior of a neuron that is carrying a nerve impulse has more sodium ions in it than the interior of a neuron that is not carrying a nerve impulse.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 256

TOP: Nerve impulses

25. Only myelinated axons undergo saltatory conduction.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 256 TOP: Nerve impulses

26. The synaptic knob is the small space separating the pre- and postsynaptic neurons.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 256 TOP: The synapse

27. Neurotransmitters are chemicals that attach to receptors on the postsynaptic neuron.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 256 TOP: The synapse

28. The function of most neurotransmitters is to cause the interior of the neuron to become more positively charged.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 256

TOP: The synapse

29. A neurotransmitter is inactivated when it is either broken down by enzymes or reabsorbed by the presynaptic neuron.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 256 TOP: The synapse

30. Serotonin and dopamine are morphine like neurotransmitters that lessen the sensation of pain.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 257-258 TOP: The synapse

31. Norepinephrine and acetylcholine both belong to a group of compounds called catecholamines.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 257-258 TOP: The synapse

32. Viagra can be considered a man-made nitric oxide.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 258 TOP: The synapse

33. Parkinson disease can be considered a neurotransmitter-deficiency disease.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 259

TOP: The synapse

34. Parkinson disease is treated by trying to get more dopamine into the brain.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 259 TOP: The synapse

35. Injections of dopamine and levodopa are equally effective in treating Parkinson disease because they are both able to enter the brain.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 259 TOP: The synapse

36. The medulla oblongata, the pons, and the midbrain make up the brainstem.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 260 TOP: Central nervous system

37. The vital centers of the brainstem are located in the midbrain.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 260 TOP: Central nervous system

38. Because of its function, the hypothalamus could also be considered part of the endocrine system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 262 TOP: Central nervous system

39. Ridges on the surface of the cerebrum are called sulci.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 262 TOP: Central nervous system

40. Fissures are deep sulci.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 262 TOP: Central nervous system

41. The basal ganglia in the brain is an island of white matter found in the gray matter in the brain.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 262 TOP: Central nervous system

42. The right half of the brain “talks” to the left half of the brain through the corpus callosum.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 262 TOP: Central nervous system

43. A stroke to the temporal lobe would lead to the loss of sight.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 264 TOP: Central nervous system

44. Both stroke and cerebral palsy could be caused by a lack of oxygen to the neurons of the brain.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 264 | p. 265 TOP: Brain disorders

45. Alzheimer disease is a type of dementia.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 265 TOP: Brain disorders

46. Both Alzheimer disease and Huntington disease have no known cause.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 265-266 TOP: Brain disorders

47. A family history of the disease is a more important risk factor for Alzheimer disease than it is for Huntington disease.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 266

TOP: Brain disorders

48. Epilepsy is considered a seizure disorder.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 266 TOP: Brain disorders

49. Epilepsy is usually an inherited disorder.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 266 TOP: Brain disorders

50. The spinal cord consists of both white and gray matter.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 267 TOP: Spinal cord

51. The spinal cord extends from the base of the skull to the level of the third sacral vertebra.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 267-268 TOP: Spinal cord

52. The dura mater is deep to both the arachnoid mater and the pia mater.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 268

TOP: Coverings and fluid spaces of the brain and spinal cord

53. The pia mater, the arachnoid mater, and the dura mater are part of the meninges.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 268 TOP: Coverings and fluid spaces of the brain and spinal cord

54. The ventricles of the brain produce cerebrospinal fluid.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 269 TOP: Coverings and fluid spaces of the brain and spinal cord

55. Blood vessels produce and reabsorb cerebrospinal fluid.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 269 TOP: Coverings and fluid spaces of the brain and spinal cord

56. Even though the cranial nerves attach to the brain, they are considered part of the peripheral nervous system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 270 TOP: Peripheral nervous system

57. Most of the cranial nerves attach to the frontal and parietal lobes of the brain.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 270 TOP: Peripheral nervous system

58. Even though there are only seven cervical vertebrae, there are eight cervical spinal nerves.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 270 TOP: Peripheral nervous system

59. Sometimes nerve fibers from several spinal nerves are reorganized to form a single peripheral nerve. This reorganization occurs in a structure called a spinal tract.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 272-273 TOP: Peripheral nervous system

60. Skin surfaces that are supplied by a single spinal nerve are called dermatomes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 273 TOP: Peripheral nervous system

61. The autonomic nervous system consists of two branches: the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 275 TOP: Peripheral nervous system

62. The only adrenergic fibers in the autonomic nervous system are the postganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic nervous system.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 277

TOP: Peripheral nervous system

63. Most of the neurons in the autonomic nervous system produce acetylcholine.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 278

TOP: Peripheral nervous system

64. The stress disorders that are linked to the autonomic nervous system are usually caused by the activity of the sympathetic nervous system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 279

TOP: Peripheral nervous system

65. Neuroblastoma is an inherited disorder of the sympathetic nervous system.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 279 TOP: Peripheral nervous system

66. The highly branched projections of the neuron are called axons.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 250 TOP: Neurons

67. Axons carry nerve impulses away from the cell body.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 250 TOP: Neurons

68. Only cells with myelin have nodes of Ranvier.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 250 TOP: Neurons

69. Multiple neurofibromatosis is a malignant tumor of the nervous system.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 253 TOP: Tumors

70. The process of axon repolarization returns the negative charge to the interior of the axon.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 256 TOP: Nerve impulses

71. Functions of the hypothalamus include assisting in maintaining proper body temperature and playing an important role in the arousal or alerting mechanism of the brain.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 261-262 TOP: Hypothalamus

72. One function of the thalamus is associating sensations with emotions.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 262 TOP: Thalamus

73. The cerebellum is the second largest part of the brain.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 260 TOP: Cerebellum

74. Spinal tracts are composed of gray matter.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 267 TOP: Spinal cord

75. The sympathetic nervous system is also called the cerebrosacral system.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 276 TOP: Sympathetic nervous system

76. The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the “fight-or-flight” response.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 277 TOP: Sympathetic nervous system

77. Responses to the parasympathetic nervous system are much more localized than the responses to the sympathetic nervous system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 277 TOP: Parasympathetic nervous system

Chapter 11: Senses

Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The eye can be considered a

a. general sense.

b. special sense.

c. chemoreceptor.

d. both B and C.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 292

TOP: Classification of sense organs

2. The sense of smell can be considered a

a. general sense.

b. special sense.

c. chemoreceptor.

d. both B and C.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 292

TOP: Classification of sense organs

3. The sense of touch can be considered a

a. general sense.

b. special sense.

c. chemoreceptor.

d. both B and C.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 291

TOP: Classification of sense organs

4. The part of the body that is least able to distinguish a one-point stimulus from a two-point stimulus is the

a. fingertip.

b. palm of the hand.

c. back.

d. All areas of the body do equally well.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 293

TOP: General sense organs

5. Muscle spindles can be considered a

a. special sense.

b. chemoreceptor.

c. thermoreceptor.

d. proprioceptor.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 293

TOP: General sense organs

6. Which of the following is not one of the three layers of tissue that form the eyeball wall?

a. Conjunctiva

b. Sclera

c. Choroid

d. Retina

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 295 TOP: The eye

7. Which of the following is an involuntary muscle that makes up the front part of the vascular layer?

a. The iris

b. The pupil

c. The ciliary muscle

d. Both A and C

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 295 TOP: The eye

8. Which of the following is not associated with the retina?

a. Rods

b. Lens

c. Cones

d. Macula

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 296 TOP: The eye

9. Light passes through all of the following structures to get to the retina except the

a. pupil.

b. lens.

c. palpebral fissure.

d. cornea.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 295 TOP: The eye

10. If the eyeball is elongated, it causes which of the following conditions?

a. Myopia

b. Hyperopia

c. Nearsightedness

d. Both A and C

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 299 TOP: The eye

11. If the eyeball is too short from front to back, it causes which of the following conditions?

a. Myopia

b. Hyperopia

c. Nearsightedness

d. Both A and C

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 299 TOP: The eye

12. Which of the following is not a refraction disorder?

a. Glaucoma

b. Myopia

c. Hyperopia

d. Astigmatism

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 301 TOP: The eye

13. The leading cause of permanent blindness in the elderly is

a. cataract.

b. glaucoma.

c. macular degeneration.

d. retinal detachment.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 302 TOP: The eye

14. The external ear ends at the

a. auricle.

b. tympanic membrane.

c. external auditory canal.

d. tragus.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 303 TOP: The ear

15. Which of the following is not a bone of the middle ear?

a. Cochlea

b. Stapes

c. Incus

d. Malleus

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 304 TOP: The ear

16. Which of the following structures in the inner ear is the organ of hearing?

a. Bony labyrinth

b. Semicircular canal

c. Vestibule

d. Organ of Corti

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 304 TOP: The ear

17. Which of the following is not a hearing loss caused by nerve impairment or damage?

a. Ménière disease

b. Presbycusis

c. Otitis media

d. All of the above are caused by nerve impairment or damage.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 304 TOP: The ear

18. Which of the following is a progressive hearing loss usually associated with aging?

a. Tinnitus

b. Presbycusis

c. Otitis

d. Otosclerosis

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 307 TOP: The ear

19. Which of the following is untrue about the sense of taste?

a. It involves chemoreceptors.

b. It is generated by cells in the taste buds called gustatory cells.

c. There are four primary tastes.

d. All of the above are true about the sense of taste.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 307 TOP: The taste receptors

20. Which of the following is untrue about the sense of smell?

a. It involves chemoreceptors.

b. The olfactory receptors are very sensitive.

c. The olfactory receptors maintain their sensitivity for a long period of time.

d. All of the above are true about the sense of smell.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 308-309 TOP: The smell receptors

21. Which of the following is not a classification of sense organs?

a. Sound receptor (audioreceptor)

b. Chemical receptor (chemoreceptor)

c. Light receptor (photoreceptor)

d. All of the above are classifications of sense organs.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 292 TOP: Classification of sense organs

22. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a general sense organ?

a. Receptors are scattered all over the body.

b. Receptors are most concentrated in the skin.

c. Receptors include proprioceptors.

d. All of the above are characteristics of a general sense organ.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 293 TOP: General sense organs

23. Which of the following is the “white” of the eye?

a. Cornea

b. Sclera

c. Conjunctiva

d. Pupil

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 295 TOP: The eye

24. Which of the following is sometimes called the “window” of the eye?

a. Cornea

b. Sclera

c. Conjunctiva

d. Pupil

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 295 TOP: The eye

25. Which is not a type of cone found in the retina?

a. Red

b. Blue

c. Yellow

d. Green

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 296 TOP: The eye

26. Which disorder of the eye is caused by an abnormal accumulation of aqueous humor in the eye?

a. Macular degeneration

b. Glaucoma

c. Cataracts

d. Nyctalopia

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 301 TOP: Disorders of the retina

27. Which condition is also called “night blindness”?

a. Macular degeneration

b. Glaucoma

c. Cataracts

d. Nyctalopia

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 301 TOP: Disorders of the retina

28. Which structure is important to your sense of balance and equilibrium?

a. Cochlea

b. Organ of Corti

c. Crista ampullaris

d. Tragus

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 306 TOP: Inner ear

MATCHING

Match each structure of the eye with its corresponding description or function.

a. Rod

b. Sclera

c. Lens

d. Pupil

e. Cone

f. Choroid

g. Iris

h. Fovea

i. Cornea

j. Optic disk

1. Contains the highest concentration of cones

2. The “white” of the eye

3. The clear part of the sclera, sometimes called the “window of the eye”

4. Receptor that responds in dim light and is used for night vision

5. A hole in the eye that lets in light

6. The blind spot, where the optic nerve leaves the eye

7. Receptor that responds in bright light and is able to distinguish colors

8. The colored part of the eye; able to constrict or dilate the pupil

9. The middle layer of the eyeball that contains dark pigment

10. Structure directly behind the pupil; used to focus light

1. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 296 TOP: The eye

2. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 295 TOP: The eye

3. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 295 TOP: The eye

4. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 296 TOP: The eye

5. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 295 TOP: The eye

6. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 297 TOP: The eye

7. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 296 TOP: The eye

8. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 295 TOP: The eye

9. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 295 TOP: The eye

10. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 295 TOP: The eye

Match each structure of the ear to its corresponding function or description.

a. Organ of Corti

b. Tympanic membrane

c. Eustachian tube

d. Stapes

e. Semicircular canal

f. Cochlea

g. Malleus

h. Auricle

i. Perilymph

j. Endolymph

11. Part of the inner ear that is responsible for the sense of balance

12. Appendage on the side of the head; also called the pinna

13. Connects the middle ear and the throat and helps regulate pressure on the eardrum

14. Ossicle that comes into contact with the oval window

15. The thick fluid that fills the membranous labyrinth

16. Structure that separates the outer ear from the middle ear; also called the “eardrum”

17. Snail-shaped structure that contains the organ of Corti

18. Watery fluid that fills the bony labyrinth

19. Ossicle that attaches to the inside of the tympanic membrane

20. The organ of hearing

11. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 306 TOP: The ear

12. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 302 TOP: The ear

13. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 304 TOP: The ear

14. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 304 TOP: The ear

15. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 304 TOP: The ear

16. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 303 TOP: The ear

17. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 304 TOP: The ear

18. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 304 TOP: The ear

19. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 304 TOP: The ear

20. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 304 TOP: The ear

Match each of the following disorders of the eye or ear with its corresponding definition or description.

a. Glaucoma

b. Tinnitus

c. Cataracts

d. Nyctalopia

e. Otosclerosis

f. Presbyopia

g. Astigmatism

h. Otitis

i. Myopia

j. Macular degeneration

k. Ménière disease

l. Hyperopia

m. Conjunctivitis

21. Also called “night blindness”

22. The leading cause of blindness in the elderly

23. Caused by irregularities in the cornea or lens of the eye

24. A structural irregularity of the stapes that impairs conduction

25. Caused by excessive intraocular pressure

26. A chronic ear disease of unknown cause that is characterized by nerve deafness and vertigo

27. Refers to an ear infection

28. Another term for “pinkeye”

29. Another term for “farsightedness”

30. Refers to ringing in the ear

31. “Old sightedness”

32. “Nearsightedness”

33. Caused by cloudy spots in the lens of the eye

21. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 301 TOP: Disorders of the retina

22. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 302 TOP: Disorders of the retina

23. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 299 TOP: Refraction disorders

24. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 307 TOP: Hearing disorders

25. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 297 TOP: Disorders of the retina

26. ANS: K PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 307 TOP: Hearing disorders

27. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 307 TOP: Hearing disorders

28. ANS: M PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 300 TOP: Refraction disorders

29. ANS: L PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 299 TOP: Refraction disorders

30. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 307 TOP: Hearing disorders

31. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 299 TOP: Refraction disorders

32. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 299 TOP: Refraction disorders

33. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 300 TOP: Refraction disorders

SHORT ANSWER

1. Distinguish between a general sense organ and a special sense organ.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 291-292

TOP: Classification of sense organs

2. Give an example of a photoreceptor, a chemoreceptor, a pain receptor, and a mechanoreceptor.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 292-293

TOP: Classification of sense organs

3. What parts of the body are most and least sensitive to two-point discrimination? Explain your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 293

TOP: General sense organs

4. Give the location and function of the muscle spindles and the Golgi tendon receptors.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 293-294

TOP: General sense organs

5. Explain what would happen to the iris and the pupil and list the types of receptors stimulated if you went from a sunny day into a darkened theater.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 295

TOP: The eye

6. Explain why looking directly at something in a very dark room makes what you are looking at more difficult to see.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 296

7. Describe the visual pathway.

ANS: Answers will vary.

TOP: The eye

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 297

TOP: The eye

8. Explain myopia, hyperopia, and astigmatism and what means are used to correct these vision disorders.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 299 TOP: The eye

9. Why are newborns given antibiotic eye drops?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 300 TOP: The eye

10. Explain the two types of strabismus.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 301 TOP: The eye

11. What are possible treatments for a detached retina?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 301 TOP: The eye

12. What is glaucoma, and what are some of its signs and symptoms?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 301 TOP: The eye

13. What is macular degeneration, and what are some risk factors for this condition?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 302

TOP: The eye

14. Explain why males are more likely to be color blind than females.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 302

15. Describe the structure of the external ear.

ANS: Answers will vary.

TOP: The eye

REF: pp. 302-304 TOP: The ear

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

16. Explain how sound is transmitted through the middle ear. Why is the ear called a mechanoreceptor?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 304

TOP: The ear

17. Describe the inner ear. Which parts of the inner ear are involved in the sense of balance, and which parts are involved in the sense of hearing?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 304 TOP: The ear

18. Explain why an infection that clogs the eustachian tube makes flying in an airplane more uncomfortable.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 304

19. Explain the function of the sense of smell.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

TOP: The smell receptors

TOP: The ear

REF: pp. 308-309

20. Explain why when you first enter a newly painted room, the smell of paint seems very strong, but the longer you are there the less you smell the paint.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 309

TOP: The smell receptors

21. Consider the pathway for the sense of smell, and explain why the smell of a traditional Thanksgiving dinner can generate such strong emotional memories.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 309 TOP: The smell receptors

TRUE/FALSE

1. A general sense organ can respond to many different stimuli; a special sense organ can respond to only one.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 291-292 TOP: Classification of sense organs

2. There are more chemoreceptor special senses than photoreceptor special senses.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 293

TOP: Classification of sense organs

3. One of the main functions of a sense receptor is to convert some physical stimulus into a nerve impulse.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 293 TOP: Converting a stimulus into a sensation

4. The skin has the highest concentration of special senses.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 293 TOP: General sense organs

5. If a two-point discrimination test uses two needles 5 mm apart, a person could probably feel them on the fingertips and the palms of the hands but not on the back.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 293 TOP: General sense organs

6. Proprioceptors respond to stimuli from inside the body rather than from outside the body.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 293

TOP: General sense organs

7. You are able to touch your nose because of the proprioceptors in your body.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 293

TOP: General sense organs

8. The “white” of the eye is the sclera.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 295 TOP: The eye

9. If a person has brown eyes, it is because the cornea is brown.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 295 TOP: The eye

10. In diabetic retinopathy, small hemorrhages in retinal blood vessels disrupt the oxygen supply to the photoreceptors.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 301 TOP: The eye

11. The lacrimal gland produces the aqueous fluid for the eye.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 295 TOP: The eye

12. The mucous membrane that covers the inside of the eyelid and also covers the front of the sclera is called the conjunctiva.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 295 TOP: The eye

13. The pupil is not really a structure but is the lack of a structure.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 295

TOP: The eye

14. The circular fibers of the iris would be more likely to contract in dim light.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 295 TOP: The eye

15. As outside light progresses from day to night, our vision switches from rod vision to cone vision.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 296

TOP: The eye

16. Cones have their highest concentration in the fovea of the retina.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 296 TOP: The eye

17. Rods have their highest concentration in the optic disk.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 296 TOP: The eye

18. The vitreous body is found in the posterior chamber of the eye.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 296-297 TOP: The eye

19. Aqueous humor is found in the anterior chamber of the eye and is constantly replenished by the lacrimal gland.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 296-297 TOP: The eye

20. The first refractory structure light passes through as it enters the eye is the lens.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 297 TOP: The eye

21. The photoreceptors of the eye are the rods and cones.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 296 TOP: The eye

22. The last part of the visual pathway exists in the brain, not in the eye.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 297 TOP: The eye

23. Another name for nearsightedness is hyperopia.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 299 TOP: The eye

24. An elongated eye can cause myopia.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 299 TOP: The eye

25. An irregularity in the cornea or lens is called presbyopia.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 299 TOP: The eye

26. Astigmatism, myopia, hyperopia, and presbyopia can all be corrected by glasses.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 299 TOP: The eye

27. People with cataracts have corneas that are so cloudy that they have trouble with their night vision.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 300 TOP: The eye

28. “Pinkeye” is an infection of the sclera.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 300 TOP: The eye

29. Newborns are given antibiotic eye drops because there can be infection-causing organisms in the birth canal.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 300 TOP: The eye

30. People with vision in only one eye would have difficulty driving because of the loss of depth perception.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 301 TOP: The eye

31. Increasing the internal pressure of the eye is a treatment for retinal detachment.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 301 TOP: The eye

32. Glaucoma is a condition caused by increased internal pressure of the eye.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 301 TOP: The eye

33. One of the late symptoms of glaucoma is the loss of vision in the center of the visual field, which then progresses out toward the edge of the visual field.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 301 TOP: The eye

34. Excess fluid build-up in glaucoma can damage the optic nerve.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 301 TOP: The eye

35. Glaucoma is the leading cause of permanent blindness in the elderly.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 302 TOP: The eye

36. Because color blindness is an inherited trait carried on the X chromosome, it is more common in women because they have two X chromosomes.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 302 TOP: The eye

37. Brain injuries that damage the temporal lobe can result in what is called acquired cortical blindness.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 302 TOP: The eye

38. The ear can be considered a special sense that is a mechanoreceptor.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 302 TOP: The ear

39. The external ear consists of three parts: the auricle, the external auditory canal, and the tophi.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 302 TOP: The ear

40. The three bones of the middle ear are the malleus, incus, and stapes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 304 TOP: The ear

41. The handle of the malleus attaches to the inside of the tympanic membrane and moves when the tympanic membrane vibrates.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 304 TOP: The ear

42. The oval window separates the outer from the middle ear.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 304 TOP: The ear

43. The membrane covering the oval window vibrates in response to pressure applied by the stapes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 304 TOP: The ear

44. The auditory tube has no direct role in hearing.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 304 TOP: The ear

45. If the auditory tube were clogged, it might make a plane ride uncomfortable.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 304 TOP: The ear

46. The inner ear consists of the vestibule, the semicircular canal, and the cochlea.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 304 TOP: The ear

47. Two of the three parts of the inner ear deal with balance rather than hearing.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 304 TOP: The ear

48. If you feel dizzy when you come off of an amusement park ride, it is because your semicircular canals are doing their job.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 304 TOP: The ear

49. The organ of Corti is the organ of hearing.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 304 TOP: The ear

50. The organ of Corti is surrounded by a bony structure called the semicircular canals.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 304 TOP: The ear

51. Another name for “ringing in the ear” is otitis.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 307 TOP: The ear

52. Presbycusis is a progressive hearing loss associated with aging.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 307 TOP: The ear

53. As people age, they lose the ability to hear mid-frequency sounds first, which is why they have such difficulty hearing quiet conversations.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 307 TOP: The ear

54. The senses of taste and smell are both considered chemoreceptors.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 307 | p. 308 TOP: The taste receptors and the smell receptors

55. The receptors for the sense of taste are called papillae.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 307 TOP: The taste receptors

56. There are three primary tastes to which the sense of taste can respond, but more are likely to be discovered.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 307 TOP: The taste receptors

57. Much of the sense of taste is actually the sense of smell.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 309 TOP: The taste receptors and the smell receptors

58. The olfactory receptors are responsible for the sense of smell.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 308 TOP: The smell receptors

59. Because of the route of the olfactory pathway, there is a close link between odor and emotion.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 309 TOP: The smell receptors

60. The sense organ that responds to light is a special sense organ.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 292

TOP: Classification of sense organs

61. A sense organ that responds to touch is most likely a special sense organ.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 291

TOP: Classification of sense organs

62. General sense organs tend to be more localized than special sense organs.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 292 TOP: General sense organs

63. The back is one of the least sensitive areas of the body for the sense of touch.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 293 TOP: General sense organs

64. The temporal lobe interprets two-point discrimination in the skin.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 293 TOP: General sense organs

65. Chemoreceptors in the aorta can detect changes in pH and carbon dioxide levels in the blood.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 294 TOP: General sense organs

66. There are more rods in the eye than cones.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 296 TOP: The eye

67. The fovea is a small depression in the macula.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 296 TOP: The eye

68. Aqueous humor is found in the posterior cavity of the eye.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 296-297 TOP: The eye

69. The incus presses against a membrane that covers the oval window of the inner ear.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 304 TOP: The ear

70. Both the bony labyrinth and the membranous labyrinth are part of the inner ear.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 304 TOP: The ear

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following statements is not true of the endocrine system?

a. The organs of the endocrine system are widely dispersed in the body.

b. All organs in the endocrine system are glands.

c. Endocrine glands secrete their products into ducts leading to body cavities.

d. Endocrine glands produce hormones.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 319 TOP: Introduction

2. Which of the following is not true of a nonsteroid hormone?

a. It is carried through the blood to the target organ cell.

b. Its receptor is in the nucleus of the target organ cell.

c. It requires a second messenger.

d. All of the above are true of nonsteroid hormones.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 320-321 TOP: Nonsteroid hormones

3. Which of the following is true of a steroid hormone?

a. Its receptor is in the nucleus of the target organ cell.

b. It requires a second messenger.

c. It converts ATP into cyclic AMP.

d. All of the above are true of steroid hormones.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 321 TOP: Steroid hormones

4. Which of the following statements is not true of prostaglandins?

a. They can also be called tissue hormones.

b. They function like nonsteroid hormones because they cause the production of cyclic AMP.

c. They function like steroid hormones because they stimulate protein synthesis.

d. They travel a much shorter distance than most hormones.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 325-326 TOP: Prostaglandins

5. Which of the following is not true of luteinizing hormone?

a. It is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland.

b. Its target organ cells are in the ovaries.

c. It stimulates ovulation.

d. All of the above are true of luteinizing hormone.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 326 TOP: Pituitary gland

6. ACTH

a. causes the ovaries to begin forming follicles.

b. stimulates the production of adrenal cortex hormone.

c. stimulates the release of adrenaline.

d. targets cells in the thyroid gland.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 326 TOP: Pituitary gland

7. Acromegaly is caused by

a. hypersecretion of ACTH.

b. hyposecretion of ACTH.

c. hypersecretion of growth hormone.

d. hyposecretion of growth hormone.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 327 TOP: Pituitary gland

8. Dwarfism can be caused by

a. hypersecretion of ACTH.

b. hyposecretion of ACTH.

c. hypersecretion of growth hormone.

d. hyposecretion of growth hormone.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 327 TOP: Pituitary gland

9. Which of the following is not true of oxytocin?

a. It is produced in the posterior pituitary gland.

b. It causes the contractions of the uterus during labor.

c. It is one of the few hormones that are regulated by a positive feedback loop.

d. It stimulates “milk letdown” in nursing mothers.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 328 TOP: Pituitary gland

10. The hypothalamus

a. is composed of a glandular portion and a nerve portion.

b. produces ADH.

c. releases ADH.

d. is located in the sella turcica.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 328 TOP: Hypothalamus

11. Thyroxine

a. has fewer iodine atoms than triiodothyronine.

b. stimulates the release of thyroid-stimulating hormone.

c. has more target cells than ADH.

d. All of the above are true of thyroxine.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 329

TOP: Thyroid gland

12. Calcitonin

a. is released by the parathyroid glands.

b. prevents hypercalcemia.

c. increases the calcium level in the blood.

d. can cause Graves disease if it is hypersecreted.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 331 TOP: Thyroid gland

13. An inadequate intake of iodine in the diet can

a. lead to hyperthyroidism.

b. cause Graves disease.

c. cause exophthalmos.

d. cause a goiter.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 330 TOP: Thyroid gland

14. Which of the following is true of parathyroid hormone?

a. It is made in the thyroid gland.

b. It decreases the amount of calcium in the blood.

c. It increases the amount of calcium in the blood.

d. It stimulates the formation of bone.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 331 TOP: Parathyroid gland

15. Which of the following is not true of glucocorticoids?

a. They are produced in the adrenal cortex.

b. They help regulate the blood sodium and potassium level.

c. They increase the amount of glucose in the blood through gluconeogenesis.

d. They have an anti-allergy effect.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 332 TOP: Adrenal glands

16. Which of the following is not true of the adrenal medulla?

a. It is stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system.

b. It helps produce the “fight-or-flight” response.

c. It releases epinephrine.

d. All of the above are true of the adrenal medulla.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 333 TOP: Adrenal glands

17. Which of these is not a symptom of Cushing syndrome?

a. Moon face

b. Buffalo hump

c. Virilization in women

d. All of the above are symptoms of Cushing syndrome.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 334 TOP: Adrenal glands

18. Which of the following statements is true?

a. The alpha cells of the pancreas secrete insulin.

b. Hypersecretion of insulin causes diabetes mellitus.

c. Insulin causes an increase in the blood sugar level.

d. Glucagon and insulin are antagonists of each other.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 334-335 TOP: Pancreatic islets

19. Which of the following is not true of the thymus gland?

a. It is located in the neck.

b. It is composed of a cortex and a medulla.

c. It produces thymosin.

d. It is important in the body’s immune system.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 337 TOP: Thymus

20. Which of the following is not true of the pineal gland?

a. It is located in the brain.

b. It produces melatonin.

c. It helps regulate the body’s “biological clock.”

d. All of the above are true of the pineal gland.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 338 TOP: Pineal gland

21. Which of the following is not true of the pituitary gland?

a. It is composed of two endocrine glands.

b. Its posterior portion is called the adenohypophysis.

c. It is located in the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone.

d. All of the above are true of the pituitary gland.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 326 TOP: Pituitary gland

22. Which of the following is not considered a tropic hormone?

a. Thyroid-stimulating hormone

b. Adrenocorticotropic hormone

c. Antidiuretic hormone

d. Follicle-stimulating hormone

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 326 TOP: Pituitary gland

23. Which of the following is not true of the adrenal medulla?

a. It is the inner portion of the adrenal gland.

b. It secretes epinephrine.

c. It is the target organ for ACTH.

d. All of the above are true of the adrenal medulla.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 331 | p. 333 TOP: Adrenal medulla

24. Which of the following is not true of the ovaries?

a. The ovarian follicle secretes both estrogen and progesterone.

b. The corpus luteum secretes both estrogen and progesterone.

c. Each ovary contains two types of glandular structures.

d. All of the above are true of ovaries.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 336 TOP: Female sex glands

MATCHING

Match each term with its corresponding description or definition.

a. Endocrine gland

b. Negative feedback

c. Target organ cell

d. Steroid hormone

e. Prostaglandin

f. Exocrine gland

g. Nonsteroid hormone

h. Cyclic AMP

i. Positive feedback

1. A second messenger for some hormones

2. Can be called a “tissue hormone”

3. Releases hormones into the interstitial fluid or the blood

4. Hormone that requires a second messenger

5. Has a receptor for a specific hormone

6. Hormone-regulating system that tries to return the body to homeostasis

7. Releases its products into ducts leading to the body surface or a body cavity

8. Receptor site for this type of hormone is inside the nucleus of the cell

9. Hormone regulation that moves the body farther away from homeostasis

1. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 321 TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action

2. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 325 TOP: Prostaglandins

3. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 319 TOP: Introduction

4. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 320 TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action

5. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 320 TOP: Introduction

6. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 324 TOP: Regulation of hormone secretion

7. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 320 TOP: Introduction

8. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 321 TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action

9. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 324 TOP: Regulation of hormone secretion

Match each hormone with its corresponding function or description.

a. Glucocorticoid

b. Follicle-stimulating hormone

c. Calcitonin

d. Triiodothyronine

e. ADH

f. Aldosterone

g. Luteinizing hormone

h. Oxytocin

i. Epinephrine

j. Insulin

k. Growth hormone

l. Parathyroid hormone

m. Thymosin

n. Glucagon

o. Melatonin

p. ACTH

10. Reduces the level of calcium in the blood

11. Hypersecretion of this hormone causes acromegaly

12. Plays an important role in the development and functioning of the immune system

13. Released by the posterior pituitary and increases water retention in the body

14. Released by the adrenal cortex, increases the glucose level of the blood, and is an antiinflammatory

15. An increase in the level of this hormone causes ovulation

16. Made in the pineal gland and affects the biological clock

17. Released by the adrenal medulla and reinforces the effects of the sympathetic nervous system

18. Produced in the pituitary gland and stimulates the release of hormones from the adrenal cortex

19. Stimulates muscle contraction in the pregnant uterus and brings about labor

20. Thyroid hormone that contains three atoms of iodine

21. Increases the level of calcium in the blood

22. Released by the pancreatic islet cells and increases the level of glucose in the blood

23. Begins the development of an egg in the ovary

24. An example of a mineralocorticoid

25. Released by the pancreatic islets and causes a drop in the blood sugar level

10. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 330 TOP: Thyroid gland

11. ANS: K PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 327 TOP: Pituitary gland

12. ANS: M PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 337 TOP: Thymus

13. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 328 TOP: Pituitary gland

14. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 332 TOP: Adrenal glands

15. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 326 TOP: Pituitary gland

16. ANS: O PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 338 TOP: Pineal gland

17. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 333 TOP: Adrenal glands

18. ANS: P PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 326 TOP: Pituitary gland

19. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 328 TOP: Pituitary gland

20. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 329 TOP: Thyroid gland

21. ANS: L PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 331 TOP: Parathyroid gland

22. ANS: N PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 335 TOP: Pancreatic islets

23. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 326 TOP: Pituitary gland

24. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 332 TOP: Adrenal glands

25. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 335 TOP: Pancreatic islets

SHORT ANSWER

1. Explain the difference between an endocrine gland and an exocrine gland.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 320 TOP: Introduction

2. Explain the functioning of a nonsteroid hormone.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action

REF: pp. 320-321

3. Explain the functioning of a steroid hormone. Why is a second messenger not necessary with steroid hormones?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 321

TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action

4. Explain and give an example of a negative feedback regulation of a hormone.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 324

TOP: Regulation of hormone secretion

5. Explain and give an example of a positive feedback regulation of a hormone.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 324 TOP: Regulation of hormone secretion

6. What is a prostaglandin? How are prostaglandins different from hormones?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 325 TOP: Prostaglandins

7. List and explain the functions of the hormones produced by the anterior pituitary gland.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 326-327

TOP: Pituitary gland

8. If a person was working hard on a hot day and drank very little water, would the blood concentration of ADH be high or low? Explain your answer.

ANS:

Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 328 TOP: Pituitary gland

9. Explain why the hypothalamus, a brain structure, is included in this chapter.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 328-329 TOP: Hypothalamus

10. Explain the function of thyroxine and triiodothyronine. Explain what happens if there is a hypersecretion or a hyposecretion of these hormones.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 329 TOP: Thyroid gland

11. Explain how calcitonin and parathyroid hormone work together to regulate blood calcium levels. What effect would each hormone have on bone density? Explain your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 330-331 TOP: Thyroid gland and parathyroid glands

12. Explain the function of mineralocorticoids.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 332 TOP: Adrenal glands

13. Explain the functions of glucocorticoids.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 332 TOP: Adrenal glands

14. Describe the symptoms and causes of Cushing syndrome and Addison disease.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

TOP: Adrenal glands

REF: p. 334

15. Explain how insulin and glucagon work together to regulate blood sugar level.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 334-335 TOP: Pancreatic islets

16. Explain the difference between type 1 and type 2 diabetes.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 335

TOP: Pancreatic islets

17. Give the location of the thymus gland, what hormone it produces, and the function of that hormone.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 337

TOP: Thymus

18. Give the location of the pineal gland, what hormone it produces, and the function of that hormone.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 338

TOP: Pineal gland

19. Explain the role ghrelin and leptin may have in regulating body weight.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 339

TOP: Other endocrine structures

20. A doctor found that a patient had a low level of thyroid hormone in the blood. A test was given to determine the level of TSH in the blood. Explain where the problem would lie if the TSH level were high. Explain where the problem would lie if the TSH level were low.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 326-327

TOP: Pituitary gland and thyroid gland

TRUE/FALSE

1. The endocrine system and the nervous system perform the same general function, but the activity of the endocrine system is slower and longer-lasting.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 319 TOP: Introduction

2. The endocrine system is made up of both endocrine and exocrine glands.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 320 TOP: Introduction

3. A target organ cell has a receptor for a particular hormone.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 320 TOP: Introduction

4. Because nonsteroid hormones are unable to pass through the cell membrane, a second messenger is needed.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 320-321

TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action

5. Cyclic AMP is the second messenger for some nonsteroid hormones. The first messenger is the hormone itself.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 321 TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action

6. If a hormone receptor is on the cell membrane, it is a receptor for a nonsteroid hormone.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 320-321

TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action

7. If a hormone receptor is in the nucleus, it is a receptor for a steroid hormone.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 321

TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action

8. The result of the interaction between a nonsteroid hormone and a target cell is the formation of a new protein.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 321

TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action

9. The first action of some nonsteroid hormones after they attach to their receptors is to cause a change in the cell’s ATP.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 321

TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action

10. In order to function, some steroid hormones must penetrate two membranes in a cell.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 321

TOP: Mechanisms of hormone action

11. Most nonsteroid hormones are regulated by a positive feedback mechanism.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 324 TOP: Regulation of hormone secretion

12. The negative feedback mechanism of hormone regulation helps maintain the body’s homeostasis.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 324

TOP: Regulation of hormone secretion

13. The term tissue hormone is another name given to prostaglandins.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 325 TOP: Prostaglandins

14. Most prostaglandins have a mechanism of action similar to that of steroid hormones.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 325

TOP: Prostaglandins

15. One of the main differences between a hormone and a prostaglandin is the distance traveled to the target cell.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 325

TOP: Prostaglandins

16. Part of the pituitary gland is not really a gland at all.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 326

TOP: Pituitary gland

17. Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone both have target cells in the ovaries.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 326 TOP: Pituitary gland

18. Because follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone have target cells in the ovaries, neither is produced in males.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 326 TOP: Pituitary gland

19. The pituitary gland is protected by a depression in the sphenoid bone called the “Turkish saddle.”

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 326 TOP: Pituitary gland

20. A hypersecretion of growth hormone has the same effect on the body as the hypersecretion of insulin.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 327

TOP: Pituitary gland

21. The hypersecretion of growth hormone can produce a condition called acromegaly.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 327 TOP: Pituitary gland

22. Oxytocin is also called the lactogenic hormone.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 328 TOP: Pituitary gland

23. Both ADH and oxytocin are produced in the posterior pituitary gland.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 328 TOP: Pituitary gland

24. The action of ADH is to increase the production of urine to help eliminate toxins in the blood.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 328 TOP: Pituitary gland

25. Oxytocin is one of the few hormones in the body that is regulated by a positive feedback mechanism.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 328

TOP: Pituitary gland

26. Both oxytocin and prolactin have a role in the ability of a mother to breastfeed.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 327 | p. 328 TOP: Pituitary gland

27. A hypersecretion of ADH can cause a condition called diabetes insipidus.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 328 TOP: Pituitary gland

28. The posterior pituitary gland releases oxytocin and ADH, but they are made in the hypothalamus.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 328 TOP: Hypothalamus

29. Thyroxine contains more iodine than triiodothyronine.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 329 TOP: Thyroid gland

30. Of the two thyroid hormones, T3 is more abundant but T4 is more potent.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 329 TOP: Thyroid gland

31. Thyroid-stimulating hormone has a greater number of target cells than thyroxine.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 329 TOP: Thyroid gland

32. Calcitonin is produced in the thyroid gland.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 330 TOP: Thyroid gland

33. Someone who consumes a large amount of dietary calcium would likely have a low blood level of calcitonin.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 331

TOP: Thyroid gland

34. Graves disease is one possible result of hypothyroidism.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 330 TOP: Thyroid gland

35. Graves disease and myxedema have the same cause; it just depends on when in life the deficiency occurs.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 330 TOP: Thyroid gland

36. The use of iodized salt in the United States has greatly reduced the incidence of goiter.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 330

TOP: Thyroid gland

37. The parathyroid glands are found in the neck.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 329

TOP: Parathyroid gland

38. Parathyroid hormone acts with calcitonin to increase the level of calcium in the blood.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 330-331 TOP: Parathyroid gland

39. A hypersecretion of parathyroid hormone might cause the bones to become weak and fragile.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 331

TOP: Parathyroid hormone

40. ADH and aldosterone both increase the reabsorption of water in the kidneys.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 328 | p. 332

TOP: Adrenal glands

41. A high level of aldosterone causes a high level of sodium to be excreted in the urine.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 332 TOP: Adrenal glands

42. Glucocorticoids increase the amount of glucose in the blood and act as anti-inflammatory agents.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 332 TOP: Adrenal glands

43. The adrenal medulla functions like a large postganglionic fiber of the sympathetic nervous system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 333

TOP: Adrenal glands

44. Cushing syndrome, virilization of women, and Addison disease can all be the results of hypersecretion of the adrenal gland.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 334 TOP: Adrenal glands

45. Cushing syndrome and Addison disease have opposite causes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 334 TOP: Adrenal glands

46. The pancreas is both an exocrine and an endocrine gland.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 335

TOP: Pancreatic islets

47. In a healthy person, an increase in blood sugar stimulates the activity of the alpha cells.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 335

TOP: Pancreatic islets

48. Glucagon and insulin are antagonistic hormones.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 334-335 TOP: Pancreatic islets

49. Glycosuria suggests insufficient insulin production or improper functioning of insulin receptors.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 336

TOP: Pancreatic islets

50. Type 1 diabetes is a pancreatic problem; type 2 diabetes is a receptor problem.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 335 TOP: Pancreatic islets

51. The ovary secretes three hormones: estrogen, progesterone, and follicle-stimulating hormone.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 336 TOP: Female sex glands

52. The thymus is found in the center of the chest and produces the hormone thymosin.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 337 TOP: Thymus

53. The main function of thymosin is to help regulate the body’s biological clock.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 337 TOP: Thymus

54. The thymus plays an important role in the immune system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 337 TOP: Thymus

55. The hormone that indicates pregnancy is released by the ovaries.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 338 TOP: Placenta

56. The pineal gland is found in the brain.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 338 TOP: Pineal gland

57. Melatonin, the pineal gland hormone, is affected by the amount of light to which a person is exposed.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 338 TOP: Pineal gland

58. The hyposecretion of melatonin is linked to depression.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 338 TOP: Pineal gland

59. One of the functions of the heart is to produce a hormone that regulates body fat.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 339 TOP: Other endocrine structures

60. Atrial natriuretic hormone and aldosterone have opposite effects on both blood sodium level and water retention by the kidney.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 339 TOP: Other endocrine structures

61. A nerve impulse is similar in function to a hormone.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 319

TOP: Introduction

62. Exocrine glands pass their secretions through ducts to reach a body cavity or the body surface.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 320 TOP: Introduction

63. If a given hormone causes the production of a new protein in a cell, the hormone was most likely a nonsteroid hormone.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 321 TOP: Steroid hormones

64. Diabetes mellitus is caused by a hypersecretion of insulin.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 325 TOP: Mechanisms of endocrine disease

65. The two parts of the pituitary gland are the neurohypophysis and the adenohypophysis.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 326 TOP: Pituitary gland

66. Tropic hormones stimulate other endocrine glands.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 326 TOP: Pituitary gland

67. Follicle-stimulating hormone is also called the ovulating hormone.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 326 TOP: Pituitary gland

68. The releasing and inhibiting hormones from the hypothalamus regulate hormone release by the posterior pituitary gland.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 328 TOP: Hypothalamus

69. The thyroid gland is unusual because it is able to store a considerable amount of its hormone.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 329 TOP: Thyroid gland

70. The outer zone of the adrenal cortex secretes the mineralocorticoid aldosterone.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 332 TOP: Adrenal cortex

71. Hormones produced and released by the adrenal cortex help reinforce the “fight-or-flight” response.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 333 TOP: Adrenal medulla

72. Glycosuria is the result of a hypersecretion of the hormone insulin by the pancreas.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 336 TOP: Pancreatic islets

73. The corpus luteum in the ovary secretes both estrogen and progesterone.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 336 TOP: Female sex glands

74. Thymosin released by the thymus gland is actually a group of hormones with similar functions.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 337 TOP: Thymus

75. Both ANH and leptin help regulate appetite and food intake.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 339 TOP: Other endocrine structures

Chapter 13: Blood Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. If a person’s body contained 5 L of blood, about _____ L would be plasma and _____ L would be formed elements.

a. 4; 1

b. 2.6; 2.4

c. 2.4; 2.6

d. There is no way to determine the proportion of plasma to formed elements.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 350 TOP: Blood composition and volume

2. The pH of blood must stay

a. slightly acid.

b. neutral.

c. slightly basic.

d. moderately acid.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 350 TOP: Blood composition and volume

3. A person with type A blood has

a. anti-A antibodies.

b. A antigens.

c. anti-B antibodies.

d. both B and C.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 355-356 TOP: Blood types

4. A person with type AB blood has

a. anti-A antibodies.

b. anti-B antibodies.

c. B antigens.

d. both A and B.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 356 TOP: Blood types

5. A person with type O blood has

a. anti-A antibodies.

b. anti-B antibodies.

c. A antigens.

d. both A and B.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 356 TOP: Blood types

6. The blood type considered the universal donor is type

a. A

b. B+ .

c. O

d. AB+ .

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 357 TOP: Blood types

7. The blood type considered the universal recipient is type

a. A

b. B+ .

c. O

d. AB+ .

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 357 TOP: Blood types

8. An Rh-positive mother should be concerned about erythroblastosis fetalis under which circumstance?

a. If the father is Rh negative, the Rh-positive mother should be concerned.

b. If this is her second child and she has not taken RhoGAM, the Rh-positive mother should be concerned.

c. She should not be at all concerned about erythroblastosis fetalis.

d. Both A and B are correct.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 356

TOP: Blood types

9. Which of the following substances is not found in plasma?

a. Hormones

b. Food

c. Oxygen

d. All of the above are found in plasma.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 350-351 TOP: Blood plasma

10. Which of the following substances is not found in plasma?

a. Albumin

b. Globulins

c. Serum

d. All of the above are found in plasma.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 350

TOP: Blood plasma

11. Which of the following is not a white blood cell?

a. Neutrophil

b. Thrombocyte

c. Lymphocyte

d. All of the above are white blood cells.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 351 TOP: Formed elements

12. What is the approximate number of red blood cells in one cubic millimeter (mm3)of blood?

a. 1 million

b. 3 million

c. 5 million

d. 7 million

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 351 TOP: Formed elements

13. One sign of infection in the body is an increase in the number of white blood cells. A doctor would be concerned about an infection if the white blood cell numbers were which of the following?

a. 1,000/mm3

b. 4,000/mm3

c. 7,000/mm3

d. None of these values indicates an infection.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 351

TOP: Formed elements

14. A red blood cell that is smaller than normal and has less hemoglobin than normal would be called

a. microcytic and hypochromic.

b. macrocytic and hypochromic.

c. microcytic and hyperchromic.

d. macrocytic and hyperchromic.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 354 | p. 359

TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

15. The role of hemoglobin in the red blood cell is to carry

a. oxygen.

b. carbon dioxide.

c. hormones.

d. both A and B.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 353 TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

16. Blood loss anemia is also known as _____ anemia.

a. aplastic

b. pernicious

c. hemorrhagic

d. hemolytic

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 358 TOP: Red blood cell disorders

17. Injections of vitamin B12 are used successfully to treat _____ anemia.

a. aplastic

b. pernicious

c. hemorrhagic

d. hemolytic

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 359 TOP: Red blood cell disorders

18. Sickle cell anemia and thalassemia are examples of _____ anemia.

a. aplastic

b. pernicious

c. hemorrhagic

d. hemolytic

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 360 TOP: Red blood cell disorders

19. Which of the following is not a granulocyte?

a. Monocyte

b. Neutrophil

c. Basophil

d. Eosinophil

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 360 TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)

20. Which of the following is not an agranulocyte?

a. Eosinophil

b. Lymphocyte

c. Thrombocyte

d. Neither A nor C is an agranulocyte.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 361 TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)

21. Which of the following is a cancer of the plasma cells and is one of the most common and one of the most deadly of the blood cancers?

a. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

b. Multiple myeloma

c. Acute lymphocytic leukemia

d. Chronic myeloid leukemia

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 363 TOP: White blood cell disorders

22. Which of the following is the most common form of blood cancer in children between the ages of 3 and 7?

a. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

b. Multiple myeloma

c. Acute lymphocytic leukemia

d. Chronic myeloid leukemia

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 363 TOP: White blood cell disorders

23. The final product in the process of blood clot formation is

a. thromboplastin.

b. thrombin.

c. fibrinogen.

d. fibrin.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 365 TOP: Platelets and blood clotting

24. Which of the following substances is given to patients to dissolve blood clots?

a. Vitamin K

b. Tissue plasminogen activator

c. Heparin

d. Warfarin

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 365 TOP: Platelets and blood clotting

25. Which clotting disorder is an inherited X-linked disorder?

a. Thrombosis

b. Thrombocytopenia

c. Hemophilia

d. Embolism

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 366 TOP: Clotting disorders

26. Which combination of parents might have a child with erythroblastosis fetalis?

a. Both parents are Rh positive.

b. Both parents are Rh negative.

c. The mother is Rh positive; the father is Rh negative.

d. The mother is Rh negative; the father is Rh positive.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 356

TOP: Rh system

27. Which of the following plasma proteins is necessary for blood clotting to occur?

a. Albumin

b. Globulin

c. Fibrinogen

d. Both A and C are necessary for blood clotting to occur.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 350 TOP: Blood plasma

28. Which of the following tissues is not involved in blood cell formation?

a. Myeloid tissue

b. Lymphatic tissue

c. Red bone marrow

d. All of the above tissues are involved in blood cell formation.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 351 TOP: Formed elements

29. Which of the following nutrients is not needed for the manufacture of hemoglobin?

a. Iron

b. Calcium

c. Folate

d. All of the above nutrients are needed for hemoglobin formation.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 353 TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

30. Which of the following is not a method used to transport carbon dioxide in the blood?

a. Carried by hemoglobin

b. Dissolved in the plasma

c. Carried as the bicarbonate ion

d. All of the above are methods used to transport carbon dioxide.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 350 | p. 354 TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

31. If whole blood is spun down in a centrifuge tube, the layers of blood components from top to bottom would be

a. plasma—buffy coat—red blood cells.

b. buffy coat—plasma—red blood cells.

c. plasma—red blood cells—buffy coat.

d. red blood cells—plasma—buffy coat.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 353 TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

32. Which type of anemia is related to high-dose exposure to toxic chemicals and radiation?

a. Aplastic anemia

b. Pernicious anemia

c. Hemorrhagic anemia

d. Hemolytic anemia

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 359 TOP: Red blood cell disorders

33. Which agranulocyte can produce antibodies?

a. Monocyte

b. Lymphocyte

c. Neutrophil

d. Basophil

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 362 TOP: Leukocyte types and functions

34. Which granulocyte is the most numerous phagocyte?

a. Monocyte

b. Lymphocyte

c. Neutrophil

d. Basophil

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 362 TOP: Leukocyte types and functions

35. Which granulocyte secretes the chemical histamine?

a. Monocyte

b. Eosinophil

c. Neutrophil

d. Basophil

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 362 TOP: Leukocyte types and functions

36. Which granulocyte helps protect against infections caused by parasites?

a. Monocytes

b. Eosinophil

c. Neutrophil

d. Basophil

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 362 TOP: Leukocyte types and functions

37. Which substance must be present at all times in the blood for the blood to clot properly?

a. Thrombin

b. Fibrin

c. Calcium

d. All of the above substances must be present at all times for the blood to clot properly.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 365

TOP: Platelets and blood clotting

MATCHING

Match each of the following terms with its corresponding description or definition.

a. Hemoglobin

b. Buffy coat

c. Plasma

d. Eosinophil

e. Basophil

f. Monocyte

g. Thrombocyte

h. Erythrocyte

i. Serum

j. Fibrin

1. An agranulocyte that becomes a macrophage as it moves into tissue

2. The layer of white blood cells and platelets between the plasma and red blood cells in “spun down” blood

3. The liquid part of the blood that contains all of the functional proteins of the blood

4. Another name for a red blood cell

5. The liquid part of the blood with the clotting factors removed

6. Another name for platelets

7. White blood cell that protects against parasitic worms

8. The specialized red pigment found in red blood cells

9. An important protein in blood clot formation

10. White blood cell that produces heparin and histamine

1. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 361 | p. 362 TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)

2. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 353 TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

3. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 350 TOP: Blood composition and volume

4. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 351 TOP: Formed elements

5. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 351 TOP: Blood plasma

6. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 351 TOP: Formed elements

7. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 362 TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)

8. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 351-352 TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

9. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 350 TOP: Platelets and blood clotting

10. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 362 TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)

Match each blood disorder to its description or symptoms.

a. Hemophilia

b. Acute lymphocytic leukemia

c. Polycythemia

d. Hemorrhagic anemia

e. Acute myeloid leukemia

f. Pernicious anemia

g. Sickle cell anemia

h. Multiple myeloma

i. Erythroblastosis fetalis

j. Thalassemia

11. Condition caused by a lack of vitamin B12

12. Can be caused by an Rh-negative mother carrying her second Rh-positive baby

13. Most common form of blood cancer in children between the ages of 3 and 7

14. An inherited blood clotting disorder that can be treated with the replacement of clotting factor VIII

15. A type of anemia caused by severe bleeding

16. A type of inherited anemia that has major and minor forms and is usually found in people of Mediterranean descent

17. The most common form of acute leukemia in adults

18. A common and very serious cancer of plasma cells

19. Inherited anemia caused by the presence of an abnormal type of hemoglobin called hemoglobin S

20. Blood disorder characterized by a dramatic increase in the number of red blood cells

11. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 359 TOP: Red blood cell disorders

12. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 361 TOP: Red blood cell disorders

13. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 363 TOP: White blood cell disorders

14. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 366-367 TOP: Clotting disorders

15. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 358 TOP: Red blood cell disorders

16. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 360 TOP: Red blood cell disorders

17. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 364 TOP: White blood cell disorders

18. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 363 TOP: White blood cell disorders

19. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 360 TOP: Red blood cell disorders

20. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 358 TOP: Red blood cell disorders

SHORT ANSWER

1. Why is blood acidosis not really acidic?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 350

TOP: Blood composition

2. List the four major blood types and explain the types of antigen and antibodies in each type.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 355-356

TOP: Blood types

3. Many emergency rooms have a ready supply of type O blood. Explain why this is so.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 357 TOP: Blood types

4. A woman who is pregnant with her second child is concerned about her baby developing erythroblastosis fetalis. She is Rh positive, her husband is Rh negative, and she did not receive RhoGAM after her first baby. Does she need to be concerned? Why or why not?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 356 TOP: Blood types

5. What are the major proteins found in plasma, and what is the function of each?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 350-351

TOP: Blood plasma

6. Describe the structure of the red blood cell, and explain how its structure assists in accomplishing its function.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 352-353

TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

7. Describe a microcytic, hyperchromic red blood cell.

ANS: Smaller than normal, more hemoglobin than normal.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 352-353

TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

8. What is polycythemia, and what are some possible treatments?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 358

TOP: Red blood cell disorders

9. Explain the treatments for pernicious and iron-deficiency anemia.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 359-360

TOP: Red blood cell disorders

10. Describe sickle cell anemia.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 360

TOP: Red blood cell disorders

11. Describe thalassemia.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 360-361

TOP: Red blood cell disorders

12. Name and explain the function of the three granulocytes.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 362

TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)

13. What are the functions of the B and T lymphocytes?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 362 TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)

14. What is multiple myeloma?

ANS:

Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 363

TOP: White blood cell disorders

15. List and briefly describe the four types of leukemia discussed in the chapter.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 363-364

TOP: White blood cell disorders

16. Explain the process of blood clot formation.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 365 TOP: Platelets and blood clotting

17. A patient was being treated for a heart attack caused by a blood clot. Both heparin and tissue plasminogen activator were administered to the patient during the 4-day hospital stay. When were each of these drugs used, and what is the function of each?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 365-366

TOP: Platelets and blood clotting

18. What is the INR, and what is its use?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 366

TOP: Platelets and blood clotting

19. Explain hemophilia, its cause, and traditional treatment methods. Why are new treatments being explored?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 366-368

TOP: Clotting disorders

20. What is thrombocytopenia, and what are some treatments for this condition?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 368

TOP: Clotting disorders

21. Explain the difference between agglutination resulting from blood type incompatibility and a blood clot formed as the result of an injury.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 355 | p. 357

TOP: ABO system and platelets and blood clotting

TRUE/FALSE

1. Blood is composed of plasma and formed elements.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 349 TOP: Blood composition and volume

2. In whole blood, there is a greater volume of formed elements than of plasma.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 350 TOP: Blood composition and volume

3. Even when a person has a condition of blood acidosis, the pH of the blood is still above 7.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 351 TOP: Blood composition and volume

4. Blood clot formation and blood agglutination are two terms for the same process.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 355 TOP: Blood types

5. Type B blood has A antigen and anti-B antibody.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 356 TOP: Blood types

6. Type AB blood has both A and B antigens and no antibodies.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 356 TOP: Blood types

7. Type O blood is considered the universal donor blood type because it has no antibodies.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 357 TOP: Blood types

8. A person with B antigen and A antibodies would have type A blood.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 356

TOP: Blood types

9. Only women who are Rh negative need to be concerned about erythroblastosis fetalis.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 356

TOP: Blood types

10. Even women who are Rh negative rarely have a problem with erythroblastosis fetalis with their first child.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 356

TOP: Blood types

11. Blood plasma is able to carry small amounts of oxygen and carbon dioxide to and from the cells.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 350 TOP: Blood plasma

12. Blood plasma with the albumin and globulins removed is called serum.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 351 TOP: Blood plasma

13. Lymphocytes and monocytes are both considered formed elements of the blood.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 351 TOP: Formed elements

14. Lymphocytes and monocytes are granulocytes.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 351 TOP: Formed elements

15. In a 1 mm3 sample of blood, there are more platelets than red blood cells.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 351 TOP: Formed elements

16. Hematopoiesis occurs in both lymphatic tissue and myeloid tissue.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 351 TOP: Formed elements

17. A bone marrow transplant can restore hematopoiesis.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 352 TOP: Mechanisms of blood diseases

18. Red blood cells are able to replicate so rapidly because they have a very large nucleus.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 352 TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

19. A normocytic, hypochromic red blood cell is smaller and has less hemoglobin than a typical red blood cell.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 354 TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

20. A macrocytic, hyperchromic red blood cell is larger and has more hemoglobin than a typical red blood cell.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 354 TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

21. Oxyhemoglobin and carbaminohemoglobin are names given to hemoglobin when it is transporting oxygen and carbon dioxide, respectively.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 354 TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

22. Hematocrit is a measure of the volume of red blood cells in a blood sample.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 353 TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

23. The buffy coat is found at the very bottom of a test tube of blood that has been “spun down.”

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 353 TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

24. The buffy coat in a test tube of blood that has been “spun down” is composed of white blood cells and platelets.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 353 TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

25. Hemorrhagic anemia is caused by blood loss.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 358 TOP: Red blood cell disorders

26. Exposure to high doses of radiation or toxic chemicals such as mercury can cause pernicious anemia.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 359 TOP: Red blood cell disorders

27. Adding iron to the diet can successfully treat pernicious anemia.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 359 TOP: Red blood cell disorders

28. Vitamin B12 injections can successfully treat pernicious anemia.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 359 TOP: Red blood cell disorders

29. Jaundice can be a symptom of aplastic anemia.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 359 TOP: Red blood cell disorders

30. Sickle cell anemia has a milder form called sickle cell trait and a more severe form called sickle cell disease.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 360 TOP: Red blood cell disorders

31. Both sickle cell anemia and thalassemia are inherited diseases.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 360 TOP: Red blood cell disorders

32. Like sickle cell anemia, thalassemia is inherited; but unlike sickle cell anemia, it does not have a milder form.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 360 TOP: Red blood cell disorders

33. Leukopenia almost always indicates an infection.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 362 TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)

34. A white blood cell count of 5,000 to 7,000/mm3 of blood usually indicates an infection.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 362

TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)

35. Neutrophils are phagocytic granulocytes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 362 TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)

36. Someone taking antihistamines is blocking the effects of histamine, which can be released by eosinophils.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 362 TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)

37. A person who is infected by a parasitic worm is likely to have an increased level of eosinophils.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 362 TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)

38. Basophils release heparin, which helps the blood clot.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 362 TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)

39. Monocytes and macrophages are actually the same cell in different parts of the body.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 362 TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)

40. B and T cells are two different types of lymphocytes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 362 TOP: White blood cells (leukocytes)

41. Multiple myeloma is a cancer of mature T lymphocytes.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 362 TOP: White blood cell disorders

42. The common symptom of all leukemias is the drop in the number of white blood cells in the blood.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 363 TOP: White blood cell disorders

43. Leukemia can be classified as either acute or chronic and as either lymphocytic or myeloid.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 363 TOP: White blood cell disorders

44. A person with chronic lymphocytic leukemia is likely to be between the ages of 3 and 7.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 363 TOP: White blood cell disorders

45. Most adult leukemia is acute myeloid leukemia.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 364 TOP: White blood cell disorders

46. A person with mononucleosis can have a white blood cell count as high as 18,000/mm3 of blood.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 364 TOP: White blood cell disorders

47. Both prothrombin and fibrin are found in normal, nonclotted blood.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 365 TOP: Platelets and blood clotting

48. The function of fibrin is to convert prothrombin into thrombin.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 365 TOP: Platelets and blood clotting

49. In addition to various other problems, a person with a severe calcium deficiency has a slower than normal clotting time.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 366 TOP: Platelets and blood clotting

50. Vitamin K is used to stimulate the cells of the spleen to increase their production of prothrombin.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 368 TOP: Platelets and blood clotting

51. Heparin, warfarin, and tissue plasminogen activator prevent blood clot formation.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 365 TOP: Platelets and blood clotting

52. As the INR number gets larger, the amount of time it takes for the blood to clot gets longer.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 366 TOP: Platelets and blood clotting

53. The difference between a thrombus and an embolus is whether it is moving.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 365 TOP: Clotting disorders

54. If a person has a thrombus, heparin or tissue plasminogen activator works equally well in getting rid of the clot.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 365-366

TOP: Clotting disorders and platelets and blood clotting

55. Hemophilia is an inherited disorder passed on by the father.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 366 TOP: Clotting disorders

56. Because hemophilia is carried on the X chromosome, women are twice as likely to have it as men.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 366

TOP: Clotting disorders

57. Clotting factor VIII is used to treat hemophilia.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 367 TOP: Clotting disorders

58. Thrombocytopenia is the hereditary condition that results in insufficient platelets.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 368 TOP: Clotting disorders

59. Thrombocytopenia can occur as a side effect of aspirin.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 368 TOP: Clotting disorders

60. Thrombocytopenia can be treated by removing the spleen.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 368 TOP: Clotting disorders

61. Most adults have between 4 and 6 L of blood.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 350 TOP: Blood composition and volume

62. In type A blood, the A antigen is in the blood plasma and the anti-B antibody is on the red blood cell.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 355 TOP: ABO system

63. Albumins include a group of plasma proteins called antibodies that help the body fight infection.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 350 TOP: Blood plasma

64. Myeloid tissue is also called red bone marrow.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 352 TOP: Formed elements

65. Iron, vitamin B12, and folate are all needed to manufacture hemoglobin.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 354 TOP: Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

66. Mature T cells produce antibodies that help the body fight infection.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 362 TOP: Agranulocytes

67. Infectious mononucleosis is usually caused by a virus.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 364 TOP: White blood cell disorders

Chapter 14: Heart Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The apex of the heart lies _____, pointing toward the _____ lung.

a. just below the clavicle; right

b. on the diaphragm; left

c. just below the clavicle; left

d. on the diaphragm; right

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 380 TOP: Location, size, and position of the heart

2. The bicuspid or mitral valve is the valve

a. between the left atrium and left ventricle.

b. that opens from the right ventricle into the artery.

c. between the right atrium and right ventricle.

d. that opens from the left ventricle into the artery.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 383 TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

3. The aortic semilunar valve is the valve

a. between the left atrium and left ventricle.

b. that opens from the right ventricle into the artery.

c. between the right atrium and right ventricle.

d. that opens from the left ventricle into the artery.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 383 TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

4. The pulmonary semilunar valve is the valve

a. between the left atrium and left ventricle.

b. that opens from the right ventricle into the artery.

c. between the right atrium and right ventricle.

d. that opens from the left ventricle into the artery.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 383 TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

5. The tricuspid valve is the valve

a. between the left atrium and left ventricle.

b. that opens from the right ventricle into the artery.

c. between the right atrium and right ventricle.

d. that opens from the left ventricle into the artery.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 383 TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

6. The first heart sound is caused by the closing of the _____ valve(s).

a. mitral

b. semilunar

c. tricuspid

d. both A and C

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 384

TOP: Heart sounds

7. The second heart sound is caused by the closing of the _____ valve(s).

a. mitral

b. semilunar

c. tricuspid

d. both A and C

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 384 TOP: Heart sounds

8. Another name for “hardening of the arteries” is

a. angina pectoris.

b. myocardial infarction.

c. atherosclerosis.

d. embolism.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 385 TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease

9. Which structure is known as the “pacemaker” of the heart?

a. Purkinje fibers

b. Sinoatrial node

c. Atrioventricular node

d. Bundle of His

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 388 TOP: Conduction system of the heart

10. Which component of the conduction system actually contracts the ventricles?

a. Purkinje fibers

b. Sinoatrial node

c. Atrioventricular node

d. Bundle of His

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 388 TOP: Conduction system of the heart

11. The T wave in an electrocardiogram results from

a. depolarization of the ventricles.

b. depolarization of the atria.

c. repolarization of the ventricles.

d. repolarization of the atria.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 389 TOP: Electrocardiography

12. The P wave in an electrocardiogram results from

a. depolarization of the ventricles.

b. depolarization of the atria.

c. repolarization of the ventricles.

d. repolarization of the atria.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 389 TOP: Electrocardiography

13. The QRS complex in an electrocardiogram results from

a. depolarization of the ventricles.

b. depolarization of the atria.

c. repolarization of the ventricles.

d. repolarization of the atria.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 389 TOP: Electrocardiography

14. A heart beat that is less than 60 beats per minute is called

a. tachycardia.

b. bradycardia.

c. sinus dysrhythmia.

d. fibrillation.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 390 TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

15. Which of the following is not a cause of heart failure?

a. Valve disorder

b. Cardiomyopathy

c. Cor pulmonale

d. All of the above can cause heart failure.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 394-395 TOP: Heart failure

16. Which of the following is not true of atria?

a. They are the upper chambers of the heart.

b. They are called the discharging chambers.

c. They have thinner walls than the ventricles.

d. All of the above are true of atria.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 381 TOP: Heart chambers

17. Which of the following is not true of ventricles?

a. They are the lower chambers of the heart.

b. They are called the discharging chambers of the heart.

c. They have thicker walls than the atria.

d. All of the above are true of ventricles.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 381 TOP: Heart chambers

18. Which of the following is not true of the pericardium?

a. The parietal pericardium is also called the epicardium.

b. The pericardium is made up of two layers of fibrous tissue.

c. The fluid between the two layers of the pericardium helps reduce the friction caused by the beating heart.

d. All of the above are true of the pericardium.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 381 TOP: The pericardium and pericarditis

19. Blood passing through the tricuspid valve has just left which heart chamber?

a. Left atrium

b. Left ventricle

c. Right atrium

d. Right ventricle

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 384 TOP: Blood flow through the heart

20. Blood entering an artery has just left which heart chamber?

a. Left ventricle

b. Left atrium

c. Right ventricle

d. Either A or C

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 384 TOP: Blood flow through the heart

21. Blood returning from the lung enters which heart chamber?

a. Left atrium

b. Left ventricle

c. Right ventricle

d. Right atrium

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 384 TOP: Blood flow through the heart

22. Blood leaving the superior vena cava enters which heart chamber?

a. Left atrium

b. Left ventricle

c. Right ventricle

d. Right atrium

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 384 TOP: Blood flow through the heart

23. The sequence of an impulse moving through the conduction system of the heart is

a. sinoatrial node, atrioventricular node, Purkinje fibers, bundles of His.

b. atrioventricular node, Purkinje fibers, bundles of His, sinoatrial node.

c. sinoatrial node, atrioventricular node, bundles of His, Purkinje fibers.

d. sinoatrial node, bundles of His, atrioventricular node, Purkinje fibers.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 388 TOP: Conduction system of the heart

MATCHING

Match each term with its corresponding description or definition.

a. Visceral pericardium

b. Systole

c. Atria

d. Stroke volume

e. Diastole

f. Cardiac output

g. Ventricles

h. Parietal pericardium

i. Sinoatrial node

j. Endocardium

1. A loose-fitting sac around the heart

2. The receiving chambers of the heart

3. The volume of blood ejected from the ventricles during each beat

4. A thin layer of smooth tissue that lines the chambers of the heart

5. Part of the conduction system of the heart called the pacemaker

6. Another term for the epicardium

7. Term that describes contraction of the heart

8. The discharging chambers of the heart

9. The volume of blood pumped by one ventricle per minute

10. The resting time of the heart between beats

1. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 381 TOP: Anatomy of the heart

2. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 381 TOP: Anatomy of the heart

3. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 393 TOP: Cardiac cycle

4. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 381 TOP: Anatomy of the heart

5. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 388 TOP: Conduction system of the heart

6. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 381 TOP: Anatomy of the heart

7. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 383 TOP: Heart action

8. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 381 TOP: Anatomy of the heart

9. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 392 TOP: Cardiac cycle

10. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 383 TOP: Heart action

Match each structure in the heart with its corresponding description or function.

a. Right atrium

b. Left atrium

c. Right ventricle

d. Left ventricle

e. Aortic semilunar valve

f. Pulmonary semilunar valve

g. Tricuspid valve

h. Mitral valve

i. Aorta

j. Pulmonary artery

k. Pulmonary veins

l. Superior vena cava

11. Valve that keeps blood from flowing back into the left ventricle

12. Chamber into which blood from the inferior vena cava drains

13. Blood vessels that carry blood back to the heart from the lungs

14. Valve that prevents blood from flowing back into the left atrium

15. Heart chamber that pumps blood through the aortic semilunar valve

16. Blood vessel attached to the right ventricle

17. Heart chamber into which blood returning from the lungs enters

18. Valve through which blood leaving the right ventricle passes on its way to the lung

19. Blood vessel connected to the left ventricle

20. Blood vessel that empties into the right atrium

21. Heart chamber that blood enters after passing through the tricuspid valve

22. Valve that prevents blood from backing up into the right atrium

11. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 383 TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

12. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 384 TOP: Blood flow through the heart

13. ANS: K PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 384 TOP: Blood flow through the heart

14. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 383 TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

15. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 383 TOP: Blood flow through the heart

16. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 384 TOP: Blood flow through the heart

17. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 383 TOP: Blood flow through the heart

18. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 383 TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

19. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 383 TOP: Blood flow through the heart

20. ANS: L PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 384 TOP: Blood flow through the heart

21. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 384 TOP: Blood flow through the heart

22. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 383 TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

Match each disorder of the circulatory system with its definition or description.

a. Incompetent heart valve

b. Angina pectoris

c. Pericarditis

d. Dysrhythmia

e. Atherosclerosis

f. Myocardial infarction

g. Fibrillation

h. Stenosed heart valve

i. Congestive heart failure

j. Cardiac tamponade

k. Tachycardia

l. Bradycardia

m. Cor pulmonale

23. A serious compression of the heart caused by too much fluid between the layers of the pericardium

24. A slow heart rhythm

25. A type of hardening of the arteries

26. A heart valve that is narrower than normal

27. Inflammation of the pericardium

28. Condition in which the cardiac muscle fibers contract out of step with each other

29. Left-sided heart failure

30. Any abnormality of heart rhythm

31. Medical term for a heart attack

32. Caused by lung disorders that obstruct blood flow through the lung, which overloads the right side of the heart

33. A leaky heart valve

34. A rapid heart rhythm

35. Severe chest pain that occurs when the myocardium is deprived of adequate oxygen

23. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 382 TOP: The pericardium and pericarditis

24. ANS: L PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 390 TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

25. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 385 TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease

26. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 385 TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

27. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 381 TOP: The pericardium and pericarditis

28. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 390 TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

29. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 395 TOP: Heart failure

30. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 389 TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

31. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 385 TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease

32. ANS: M PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 394-395 TOP: Heart failure

33. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 383 TOP: Heart valves and heart valve disease

34. ANS: K PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 390 TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

35. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 386 TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease

SHORT ANSWER

1. Describe the location, size, and position of the heart.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 379-380

TOP: Location, size, and position of the heart

2. Explain how the location of the heart allows for cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 380 TOP: Location, size, and position of the heart

3. What is the myocardium? What is the endocardium? Describe the structure of the pericardium.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 381 TOP: Anatomy of the heart

4. What is cardiac tamponade? How does it occur?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 382

TOP: Anatomy of the heart

5. Name the four valves of the heart, and give the function of each.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 383

TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

6. Explain the difference between an incompetent heart valve and a stenosed heart valve.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 383

TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

7. Briefly describe rheumatic heart disease and mitral valve prolapse.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 383 TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

8. If a heart murmur were discovered during the first heart sound, what heart valve may be defective? Explain your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 384

TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders | Heart sounds

9. Trace a drop of blood from the superior vena cava to the aorta. Include all the heart chambers, valves, and blood vessels through which the blood passes.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 384

TOP: Blood flow through the heart

10. Explain how the heart muscle is supplied with blood.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 385

TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease

11. Explain why extreme tachycardia might restrict blood flow to the heart.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 390

TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease

12. What is atherosclerosis, and what are some risk factors for this condition?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 385-386

TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease

13. What is angina pectoris, and what are some treatments for this condition?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 386

TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease

14. Explain the conduction system of the heart.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 388

TOP: Conduction system of the heart

15. Explain the deflections of an electrocardiogram.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 389

TOP: Electrocardiography

16. If a person has an abnormality in the QRS complex, what part of the heart might not be functioning correctly? Explain your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 389 TOP: Electrocardiography

17. Define or explain bradycardia, tachycardia, and sinus dysrhythmia.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 390 TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

18. What is ventricular fibrillation? What is atrial fibrillation? Explain what is meant by defibrillation, and explain how it can be accomplished.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 390 TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

19. What is cor pulmonale, and what is its cause?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 394-395 TOP: Heart failure

20. What is congestive heart failure, and what is pulmonary edema?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 395 TOP: Heart failure

TRUE/FALSE

1. The heart is located in the mediastinum.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 379 TOP: Location, size, and position of the heart

2. The apex of the heart is the most superior part of the heart located just below the clavicle.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 380 TOP: Location, size, and position of the heart

3. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is successful because of the heart’s location in the body.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 380

TOP: Location, size, and position of the heart

4. The myocardium is the working part of the heart.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 381

TOP: Anatomy of the heart

5. The ventricles are the receiving chambers of the heart.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 381 TOP: Anatomy of the heart

6. The thin layer of tissue that lines the chambers of the heart is called the visceral pericardium.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 381 TOP: Anatomy of the heart

7. Another name for the parietal pericardium is the epicardium.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 381 TOP: Anatomy of the heart

8. There is always a small amount of fluid between the visceral and parietal pericardium, but excessive accumulation of fluid can lead to a serious condition called cardiac tamponade.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 382 TOP: Anatomy of the heart

9. The heart is working hardest during systole.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 383 TOP: Heart action

10. The heart rests during systole.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 383 TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

11. The semilunar valves separate the atria from the ventricles.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 383 TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

12. The tricuspid valve is on the left side of the heart.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 383 TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

13. An incompetent mitral valve allows blood to flow back to the right atrium.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 383

TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

14. A stenosed pulmonary semilunar valve slows the movement of blood into the artery that leads to the lung.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 383

TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

15. A mitral valve prolapse is an example of an incompetent atrioventricular valve.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 383

TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

16. The two heart sounds are caused by the closing of the semilunar and atrioventricular valves.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 384 TOP: Heart sounds

17. A mitral valve prolapse might cause an unusual first sound of the heart.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 384 TOP: Heart sounds

18. Both the superior and inferior venae cavae enter the left atrium of the heart.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 384 TOP: Blood flow through the heart

19. Like most arteries, the pulmonary arteries carry blood that is rich in oxygen.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 384

TOP: Blood flow through the heart

20. Like most arteries, the aorta carries blood that is rich in oxygen.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 384

TOP: Blood flow through the heart

21. Unlike most veins, the pulmonary veins carry oxygen-rich blood.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 384

TOP: Blood flow through the heart

22. The force that pushes the blood through pulmonary circulation is the right atrium.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 384

TOP: Blood flow through the heart

23. The right and left coronary arteries are the first branches of the aorta.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 385 TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease

24. An embolism in the coronary arteries can lead to a myocardial infarction.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 385 TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease

25. Atherosclerosis or “hardening of the arteries” is mostly caused by hereditary factors.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 385-386 TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease

26. Angina pectoris is chest pain caused by the heart’s inability to obtain enough oxygen.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 386 TOP: Coronary circulation and coronary heart disease

27. Stroke volume is usually larger than cardiac output.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 392-393

TOP: Cardiac cycle

28. It takes about 72 cardiac cycles to determine the cardiac output.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 387 | p. 393

TOP: Cardiac cycle

29. The cardiac output is always larger than the stroke volume.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 393 TOP: Cardiac cycle

30. The average cardiac output for a resting adult is about 2 L of blood.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 392 TOP: Cardiac cycle

31. The atrioventricular node is sometimes called the pacemaker for the heart.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 388 TOP: Conduction system of the heart

32. The sinoatrial node initiates contraction in the atria.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 388 TOP: Conduction system of the heart

33. The bundle of His conducts impulses from the sinoatrial node to the atrioventricular node.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 388 TOP: Conduction system of the heart

34. The Purkinje fibers directly cause the contraction of the ventricles of the heart.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 388 TOP: Conduction system of the heart

35. Intercalated disks are structures in heart cells that improve the efficiency of impulse conduction through the heart.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 388 TOP: Conduction system of the heart

36. The T wave of an electrocardiogram occurs with the depolarization of the atria.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 389 TOP: Electrocardiography

37. The T wave of an electrocardiogram occurs with the repolarization of the ventricles.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 389 TOP: Electrocardiography

38. The QRS complex of an electrocardiogram occurs with the depolarization of the ventricles.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 389 TOP: Electrocardiography

39. The repolarization of the atria is not indicated on an electrocardiogram because the repolarization is hidden by the T wave of the ventricles.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 389 TOP: Electrocardiography

40. If damage to the heart caused an unusual deflection of the P wave, the damage probably occurred in one of the atria of the heart.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 389

TOP: Electrocardiography

41. AV node heart block can be seen on an electrocardiogram as a large distance between the QRS complex and the T wave.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 389 TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

42. In AV node heart block, there is no relationship between the P wave and the QRS complex in an electrocardiogram.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 389-390 TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

43. If an electrocardiogram shows no relationship between the P wave and the QRS complex, an artificial pacemaker might be implanted to treat the condition.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 390

TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

44. If a patient has an AV node block, the electrocardiogram will show that the ventricles are beating at a faster rate than the atria.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 389

TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

45. A heart rate less than 60 beats per minute indicates bradycardia.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 390 TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

46. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute indicates tachycardia.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 390 TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

47. A person with sinus dysrhythmia should be treated with an implanted artificial pacemaker.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 390 TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

48. A premature contraction can be seen on an electrocardiogram as a longer than normal time between the T wave and the next P wave.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 390

TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

49. A person with bradycardia has more QRS complexes per minute on an electrocardiogram than a person with tachycardia.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 390 TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

50. Fibrillation occurs when heart muscle cells lose coordination and beat out of step with each other.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 390 TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

51. Because the atria set the pace for the heart beat, atrial fibrillation is much more life threatening than ventricular fibrillation.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 390 TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

52. Both electric shock and medication are used to treat fibrillation.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 392 TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

53. An automatic external defibrillator requires training as an EMT or a paramedic for it to be effective.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 392 TOP: Cardiac dysrhythmia

54. Cor pulmonale is a type of heart failure that is actually caused by a lung problem.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 394-395 TOP: Heart failure

55. Right-sided heart failure can lead to pulmonary edema.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 395 TOP: Heart failure

56. Congestive heart failure is another term for left-sided heart failure

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 395 TOP: Heart failure

57. The chordae tendineae attach the semilunar valves to the wall of the heart.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 383 TOP: Heart valves and valve disorders

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Blood moves through blood vessels in which of the following sequences, starting from the heart?

a. Arteries  arterioles  venules  capillaries  veins

b. Arterioles  arteries  capillaries  veins  venules

c. Arteries  arterioles  capillaries  venules  veins

d. Arteries  capillaries  veins  arterioles  venules

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 404 TOP: Blood vessels

2. Which layer of the blood vessel is composed of muscle and usually thicker in arteries than in veins?

a. Tunica media

b. Tunica intima

c. Tunica externa

d. Endothelium

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 404 TOP: Blood vessels

3. Which of the following is the smooth inner layer of the blood vessels?

a. Tunica media

b. Tunica intima

c. Endothelium

d. Both B and C

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 404-405 TOP: Blood vessels

4. Which layer of the blood vessel is made of tough connective tissue?

a. Tunica media

b. Tunica externa

c. Tunica intima

d. Endothelium

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 404 TOP: Blood vessels

5. Which of the following is not true of arteries?

a. The endothelium has one-way valves.

b. They have a thicker tunica media than veins.

c. They carry blood away from the heart.

d. They carry blood to arterioles.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 403-404 TOP: Blood vessels

6. Which of the following is not true of veins?

a. The endothelium has one-way valves.

b. They have a thinner tunica media than arteries.

c. They carry blood away from the heart.

d. They receive blood from venules.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 404 TOP: Blood vessels

7. Which of the following is not true of capillaries?

a. They are made up only of endothelium.

b. The endothelium has one-way valves.

c. They receive blood from arterioles.

d. They are where material is exchanged with the cells.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 404 TOP: Blood vessels

8. A large area of necrosis that has progressed to decay is called

a. an aneurysm.

b. ischemia.

c. gangrene.

d. phlebitis.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 406 TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

9. The condition in which an artery becomes abnormally widened due to a weakness in the arterial wall is called

a. an aneurysm.

b. ischemia.

c. gangrene.

d. phlebitis.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 406-407 TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

10. Which of the following is an inflammation of a vein?

a. An aneurysm

b. Phlebitis

c. Varicose veins

d. Gangrene

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 408 TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

11. Which of the following is a condition in which blood pools in the veins due to incompetent valves?

a. An aneurysm

b. Phlebitis

c. Varicose veins

d. Gangrene

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 408 TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

12. The first blood vessel of systemic circulation is the

a. pulmonary artery.

b. aorta.

c. superior vena cava.

d. inferior vena cava.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 408

TOP: Circulation of blood

13. The first blood vessel of pulmonary circulation is the

a. pulmonary artery.

b. aorta.

c. superior vena cava.

d. pulmonary vein.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 408

TOP: Circulation of blood

14. Which of the following is not true of hepatic portal circulation?

a. It routes blood from several digestive organs to the liver.

b. Blood traveling through hepatic portal circulation is sent through two capillary beds rather than one.

c. It is important in maintaining blood homeostasis.

d. All of the above are true of hepatic portal circulation.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 409-410

TOP: Circulation of blood

15. Which structure in the fetus allows blood to bypass the immature liver?

a. Foramen ovale

b. Ductus venosus

c. Ductus arteriosus

d. Umbilical vein

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 412-413 TOP: Circulation of blood

16. Which structure in the fetus allows blood to be shunted from the right atrium to the left atrium?

a. Foramen ovale

b. Ductus venosus

c. Ductus arteriosus

d. Umbilical vein

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 413 TOP: Circulation of blood

17. Which structure in the fetus connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta?

a. Umbilical vein

b. Umbilical artery

c. Ductus arteriosus

d. Ductus venosus

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 413 TOP: Circulation of blood

18. Which structure in the fetus carries oxygen-rich blood from the mother to the baby?

a. Umbilical vein

b. Umbilical artery

c. Ductus arteriosus

d. Ductus venosus

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 412 TOP: Circulation of blood

19. Blood pressure is highest in the

a. capillaries.

b. large veins.

c. large arteries.

d. small veins.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 414

TOP: Blood pressure

20. Blood pressure is lowest in the

a. capillaries.

b. large veins.

c. large arteries.

d. small arteries.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 418

TOP: Blood pressure

21. What is the direct cause of blood pressure?

a. Blood volume

b. Strength of the heart contraction

c. Heart rate

d. Blood viscosity

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 414 TOP: Blood pressure

22. An increase in which of the following can actually decrease blood pressure?

a. Blood volume

b. Strength of the heart contraction

c. Heart rate

d. Blood viscosity

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 415 TOP: Blood pressure

23. Polycythemia has a direct effect on which of the following factors that influence blood pressure?

a. Blood volume

b. Strength of the heart contraction

c. Heart rate

d. Blood viscosity

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 416 TOP: Blood pressure

24. Which of the following is not a location at which the pulse can be felt in the upper limb?

a. Popliteal artery

b. Radial artery

c. Axillary artery

d. Brachial artery

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 419 TOP: Pulse

25. Which of the following is not a location at which the pulse can be felt in the lower limb?

a. Popliteal artery

b. Femoral artery

c. Dorsalis pedis artery

d. Brachial artery

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 419 TOP: Pulse

26. Which type of shock results from blood loss?

a. Cardiogenic shock

b. Hypovolemic shock

c. Anaphylactic shock

d. Septic shock

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 419 TOP: Circulatory shock

27. Which type of shock results from an acute type of allergic reaction?

a. Cardiogenic shock

b. Hypovolemic shock

c. Anaphylactic shock

d. Septic shock

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 421 TOP: Circulatory shock

28. Which type of shock results from the effects of infectious agents, such as bacteria, releasing toxins in the blood?

a. Cardiogenic shock

b. Neurogenic shock

c. Anaphylactic shock

d. Septic shock

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 421 TOP: Circulatory shock

29. Which type of shock results from a loss of sympathetic impulses sent to the smooth muscles of the blood vessels?

a. Cardiogenic shock

b. Neurogenic shock

c. Anaphylactic shock

d. Septic shock

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 421 TOP: Circulatory shock

30. Which type of shock results from any type of heart failure?

a. Cardiogenic shock

b. Neurogenic shock

c. Anaphylactic shock

d. Septic shock

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 421 TOP: Circulatory shock

31. Which blood vessel carries blood away from the capillaries?

a. Arteries

b. Arterioles

c. Venules

d. Both A and B

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 404 TOP: Blood vessels

32. Which blood vessel carries blood toward the capillaries?

a. Arteries

b. Arterioles

c. Venules

d. Both A and B

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 403-404 TOP: Blood vessels

33. Which term refers to a decrease in blood supply to a tissue, leading to gradual cell death?

a. Aneurysm

b. Ischemia

c. Gangrene

d. Phlebitis

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 406 TOP: Disorders of arteries

34. Another term for a cerebrovascular accident is

a. a stroke.

b. an aneurysm.

c. a varix.

d. phlebitis.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 407 TOP: Disorders of arteries

35. Which factor influences resistance to blood flow?

a. Blood viscosity

b. Blood volume

c. Muscle tension in blood vessel walls

d. Both A and C

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 416 TOP: Blood pressure

36. Which of the following does not increase the risk of developing hypertension?

a. Genetics

b. Being female

c. Being African American

d. All of the above increase the risk of developing hypertension.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 420 TOP: Hypertension

MATCHING

Match each term with its corresponding definition or description.

a. Ductus arteriosus

b. Artery

c. Ductus venosus

d. Vein

e. Tunica media

f. Capillary

g. Tunica externa

h. Hepatic portal vein

i. Tunica intima

j. Foramen ovale

1. Blood vessel that carries blood back to the heart

2. Vessel that carries blood from the digestive system to capillaries in the liver

3. Structure in the fetus that allows blood to bypass the immature liver

4. Blood vessel that carries blood away from the heart

5. The outermost layer of the blood vessel

6. A structure in the fetus that connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta

7. Layer of the blood vessel also called the endothelium

8. Blood vessel in which the exchange of material between the blood and the body occurs

9. Structure in the fetus that shunts blood from the right atrium to the left atrium

10. The muscle layer of the blood vessel

1. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 404 TOP: Blood vessels

2. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 409 TOP: Circulation of blood

3. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 412-413 TOP: Circulation of blood

4. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 403 TOP: Blood vessels

5. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 404 TOP: Blood vessels

6. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 413 TOP: Circulation of blood

7. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 404-405 TOP: Blood vessels

8. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 404 TOP: Blood vessels

9. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 413 TOP: Circulation of blood

10. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 404 TOP: Blood vessels

Match each disorder or condition with its corresponding description or definition.

a. Gangrene

b. Aneurysm

c. Cardiogenic shock

d. Arteriosclerosis

e. Anaphylactic shock

f. Phlebitis

g. Septic shock

h. Varicose veins

i. Hypovolemic shock

j. Neurogenic shock

11. Condition that occludes arteries and weakens the arterial wall

12. Type of shock that can occur as a complication of septicemia

13. Disorder caused by incompetent valves in the veins

14. Condition caused by necrosis that has progressed to the point of decay

15. Type of shock that results directly from some type of heart failure

16. An inflammation of a vein

17. Type of shock that results from blood loss

18. Type of shock that results from a severe allergic reaction

19. An abnormal widening of the artery caused by weakness of the arterial wall

20. Type of shock that results from a loss of sympathetic tone to the muscles of the blood vessels

11. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 406 TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

12. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 421 TOP: Circulatory shock

13. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 408 TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

14. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 406 TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

15. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 421 TOP: Circulatory shock

16. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 408 TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

17. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 421 TOP: Circulatory shock

18. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 421 TOP: Circulatory shock

19. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 406-407 TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

20. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 421 TOP: Circulatory shock

SHORT ANSWER

1. Describe the structure of the blood vessels.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 404-405 TOP: Blood vessels

2. Relate the structure of each type of blood vessel to its particular function.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 404-405 TOP: Blood vessels

3. Explain the role of capillaries in the proper functioning of the circulatory system.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 404 TOP: Blood vessels

4. What is arteriosclerosis? Identify its risk factors, and list some possible treatments for this condition?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 406

TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

5. What is an aneurysm?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 406-407

TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

6. What are varicose veins, and what is their cause?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 408

TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

7. What is phlebitis, and why is the formation of a thrombus more likely in a vein than in an artery?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 408

TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

8. Describe systemic circulation.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 408

TOP: Circulation of blood

9. Describe pulmonary circulation. How is blood in the pulmonary arteries and veins different from blood in the systemic arteries and veins?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

TOP: Circulation of blood

REF: p. 408

10. Because many medications are inactivated by liver enzymes, they are almost always administered intravenously or by injection into a muscle rather than orally. Explain why these medications must be given this way.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 420

TOP: Circulation of blood

11. Describe the ductus venosus, the ductus arteriosus, and the foramen ovale. How do these structures make fetal circulation more efficient?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 412-413

TOP: Circulation of blood

12. Explain the blood pressure gradient in the body. Why must the gradient be as it is?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 414

TOP: Blood pressure

13. List and briefly describe the four factors that influence blood pressure, and explain what would happen to blood pressure if each of them increased.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

TOP: Blood pressure

REF: pp. 414-416

14. What is a pulse? Name two places in the head and neck and two places on the upper and lower extremities where a pulse can be felt.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

TOP: Pulse

REF: p. 419

15. Explain the five mechanisms that help move blood in the veins back to the heart.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 418

TOP: Blood pressure

16. Name and explain the five types of circulatory shock described in the chapter.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 421 TOP: Circulatory shock

TRUE/FALSE

1. Capillaries empty into arterioles.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 404 TOP: Blood vessels

2. The thick tunica externa in arteries enables them to deal with higher blood pressure.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 404 TOP: Blood vessels

3. The tunica media in the arteries helps maintain blood pressure and blood distribution in the body.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 404 TOP: Blood vessels

4. The tunica intima is also called the endothelium.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 404-405 TOP: Blood vessels

5. The tunica intima of both veins and arteries has one-way valves to prevent the backflow of blood.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 405 TOP: Blood vessels

6. Although capillaries have no tunica media, they have a tunica intima and tunica externa that are similar in thickness to those found in arterioles and venules.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 404 TOP: Blood vessels

7. The precapillary sphincter regulates the amount of blood that flows into a capillary bed.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 404 TOP: Blood vessels

8. Veins serve as the blood reservoirs for the body.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 404 TOP: Blood vessels

9. Arteriosclerosis can lead to ischemia.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 406

TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

10. Ischemia can lead to necrosis and gangrene.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 406

TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

11. A varix is a section of an artery that has become abnormally wide.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 408 TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

12. A saclike extension in an arterial wall that results from a weakness in the wall is called an aneurysm.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 406-407 TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

13. Incompetent valves in veins cause varices.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 408 TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

14. The term phlebitis refers to an inflammation of a vein.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 408 TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

15. A thrombus (blood clot) is more likely to form in an artery than in a vein because of the greater blood flow through the artery.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 408 TOP: Disorders of blood vessels

16. All arteries carry oxygen-rich blood away from the heart

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 408

TOP: Circulation of blood

17. All veins carry oxygen-poor blood back to the heart.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 408

TOP: Circulation of blood

18. In systemic circulation, arteries carry oxygen-rich blood. In pulmonary circulation, arteries carry oxygen-poor blood.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 408

TOP: Circulation of blood

19. Blood that enters the liver from the hepatic portal vein has already been through one set of capillaries.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 409 TOP: Circulation of blood

20. Blood leaving the liver has been detoxified and has the homeostatic level of glucose. It drains into the abdominal aorta so it can be distributed throughout the rest of the body.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 410 TOP: Circulation of blood

21. The two umbilical arteries carry nutrients and oxygen from the mother to the fetus.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 412 TOP: Circulation of blood

22. The single umbilical vein carries metabolic waste and carbon dioxide from the fetus to the mother.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 412 TOP: Circulation of blood

23. The ductus arteriosus acts as a shunt for blood around the immature fetal liver.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 413 TOP: Circulation of blood

24. The ductus arteriosus connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 413 TOP: Circulation of blood

25. The foramen ovale shunts blood from the right ventricle into the left ventricle.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 413 TOP: Circulation of blood

26. If the foramen ovale and the ductus arteriosus continue to function after birth, blood may bypass the lungs, which will deprive the baby of oxygen.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 413 TOP: Circulation of blood

27. Blood pressure is highest in the aorta and lowest in capillaries.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 414 TOP: Blood pressure

28. Blood pressure in the inferior and superior venae cavae is essentially zero.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 414 TOP: Blood pressure

29. Very high or very low blood pressure can be damaging to the body.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 414 TOP: Blood pressure

30. Blood pressure and blood volume are inversely related.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 414

TOP: Blood pressure

31. As stroke volume goes up, blood pressure goes up.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 415

TOP: Blood pressure

32. As cardiac output goes up, blood pressure goes up.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 415

TOP: Blood pressure

33. An increase in heart rate always increases blood pressure.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 415-416

TOP: Blood pressure

34. An increase in heart rate increases blood pressure only if there is no change in stroke volume.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 415

TOP: Blood pressure

35. All other factors being equal, a person with polycythemia has higher blood pressure than someone without that condition.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 416

TOP: Blood pressure

36. A person with heart failure can have a dangerously low central venous pressure.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 418 TOP: Blood pressure

37. A strong heart beat and normal arterial blood pressure assist in getting venous blood back to the heart.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 415 TOP: Blood pressure

38. Incompetent valves in veins can make it difficult for blood to return to the heart.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 408 TOP: Blood pressure

39. Because of the expansion of the lungs, deep breathing hinders the return of blood to the heart.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 418 TOP: Blood pressure

40. The presence of a pulse depends on the beating of the heart.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 419 TOP: Pulse

41. A pulse can be found in the head, neck, arms, and legs.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 419 TOP: Pulse

42. The most distal pulse can be found in the popliteal artery behind the knee.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 419

TOP: Pulse

43. Circulatory shock can be defined as the failure of the circulatory system to deliver an adequate amount of oxygen to the tissues.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 421 TOP: Circulatory shock

44. A person who has suffered a serious loss of blood would be most at risk for cardiogenic shock.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 421

TOP: Circulatory shock

45. A person who has suffered a severe heart attack would be most at risk of cardiogenic shock.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 421 TOP: Circulatory shock

46. If a person has a severe allergy to bee stings, one possible result of a bee sting might be neurogenic shock.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 421

TOP: Circulatory shock

47. If a person has a severe allergy to bee stings, one possible result of a bee sting might be anaphylactic shock.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 421

TOP: Circulatory shock

48. A person with septicemia is at risk for septic shock.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 421

TOP: Circulatory shock

49. Failure of the sympathetic nervous system to maintain proper muscle tone in the arteries can lead to hypovolemic shock.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 421 TOP: Circulatory shock

50. A drop in blood pressure is characteristic of all types of circulatory shock.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 421

TOP: Circulatory shock

51. Venules receive blood from capillaries.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 404 TOP: Blood vessels

52. Blood passes through blood vessels in this sequence: arteries  arterioles  capillaries  veins  venules.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 404 TOP: Blood vessels

53. Arteries and arterioles both distribute blood from the heart to the capillaries.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 403-404 TOP: Blood vessels

54. Necrosis that has progressed to tissue decay is called gangrene.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 406 TOP: Disorders of arteries

55. The ductus venosus shunts blood around the immature inferior vena cava to the heart.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 412-413 TOP: Fetal circulation

56. Blood with high viscosity increases the peripheral resistance of the circulatory system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 416 TOP: Resistance to blood flow

57. Hypertension exists when blood pressure exceeds 130/75.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 419 TOP: Hypertension

58. Risk factors for hypertension include age, African-American descent, and being female.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 420 TOP: Hypertension

Chapter 16: Lymphatic System and Immunity Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Blood capillaries and lymph capillaries have all the following in common except

a. they are microscopic.

b. the fluid in them continues to recirculate through the same vessels.

c. they are made of endothelial tissue.

d. All of the above are true of both blood capillaries and lymph capillaries.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 431 TOP: The lymphatic system

2. Which of the following is not a characteristic that veins in the circulatory system and veins in the lymphatic system share?

a. Both carry fluid toward the heart.

b. Both have one-way valves.

c. Both drain into the thoracic duct.

d. All of the above are true of both veins of the circulatory system and veins of the lymphatic system.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 432 TOP: The lymphatic system

3. Which of the following does not help return lymph to the blood vessels?

a. Lacteals

b. Cisterna chyli

c. Thoracic duct

d. Right lymphatic duct

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 432 TOP: The lymphatic system

4. The condition in which tissues swell due to the accumulation of lymph is called

a. lymphadenitis.

b. lymphedema.

c. lymphoma.

d. Hodgkin disease.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 432 TOP: The lymphatic system

5. Where do T lymphocytes mature?

a. Pharyngeal tonsils

b. Spleen

c. Palatine tonsils

d. Thymus

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 435 TOP: The lymphatic system

6. Which of the following is the largest lymphatic organ?

a. Pharyngeal tonsils

b. Spleen

c. Palatine tonsils

d. Thymus

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 435 TOP: The lymphatic system

7. Which structures are also referred to as adenoids?

a. Pharyngeal tonsils

b. Lingual tonsils

c. Palatine tonsils

d. None of the above structures are referred to as adenoids.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 435 TOP: The lymphatic system

8. Which of the following is not part of nonspecific immunity?

a. Tears

b. Plasma cells

c. Phagocytic white blood cells

d. The mucous membranes of the respiratory tract

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 436 TOP: The immune system

9. Getting a flu shot to protect against the flu is an example of _____ immunity.

a. natural passive

b. natural active

c. artificial active

d. artificial passive

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 438

TOP: The immune system

10. The antibodies passed from the mother to the fetus protect the fetus for several weeks after birth. This is an example of _____ immunity.

a. natural passive

b. natural active

c. artificial active

d. artificial passive

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 438

TOP: The immune system

11. If you have had the chicken pox once, you will not get chicken pox again. This is an example of __________ immunity.

a. natural passive

b. natural active

c. artificial active

d. artificial passive

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 438

TOP: The immune system

12. If you are exposed to hepatitis A and have not been vaccinated against it, you may receive antibodies from another person. This is an example of _____ immunity.

a. natural passive

b. natural active

c. artificial active

d. artificial passive

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 438

TOP: The immune system

13. Which of the following is not true of antibodies?

a. They are specific to an antigen.

b. They release histamine to assist in the inflammation process.

c. They stimulate the complement cascade.

d. All of the above are true of antibodies.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 439 TOP: Immune system molecules

14. Which of the following is not true of complement?

a. The complement cascade can be stimulated by antibodies.

b. Complement proteins bore holes in foreign cells.

c. Complement is only triggered by innate, nonspecific mechanisms.

d. All of the above are true of complement.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 440 TOP: Immune system molecules

15. Which cells develop into macrophages after they move out of the circulatory system and into the tissues?

a. Neutrophils

b. Lymphocytes

c. Plasma cells

d. Monocytes

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 440 TOP: Immune system cells

16. Once exposed to an antigen, B lymphocytes develop into antibody-producing cells called _________ cells.

a. plasma

b. memory

c. bursa

d. Kupffer

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 442 TOP: Immune system cells

17. After birth, B cells transform from stem cells to immature B cells in

a. bursa cells.

b. memory cells.

c. bone marrow.

d. thymus gland.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 442 TOP: Immune system cells

18. In which organ do stem cells transform into T cells?

a. The bursa cells

b. The liver

c. The spleen

d. The thymus gland

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 435 TOP: Immune system cells

19. Poison ivy reactions are an example of a(n) _____ condition.

a. autoimmune

b. isoimmune

c. allergic

d. phagocytic

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 445

TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system

20. Systemic lupus erythematosus is an example of a(n) _____ condition.

a. autoimmune

b. isoimmune

c. T cell–mediated

d. B cell–mediated

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 445 TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system

21. The rejection of a transplanted organ is an example of a(n) _____ condition.

a. autoimmune

b. isoimmune

c. T cell–mediated

d. B cell–mediated

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 446 TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system

22. HIV damages the immune system by invading _____ cells.

a. B

b. plasma

c. T

d. memory

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 448 TOP: Immune system deficiency

23. Which of the following is not usually found in lymph?

a. Excess fluid

b. Protein molecules

c. Platelets

d. All of the above are found in lymph.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 429 TOP: The lymphatic system

24. The inflammation of a lymph vessel is called

a. lymphangitis.

b. elephantiasis.

c. lymphedema.

d. cisterna chyli.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 432 TOP: Lymphedema

25. Which of the following is not true of lymph nodes?

a. The lymph node filters the lymph to remove bacteria.

b. There are more afferent vessels bringing lymph into the node than efferent vessels carrying lymph away from the node.

c. There are more efferent vessels carrying lymph away from the node than afferent vessels bringing lymph to the node.

d. Lymph passes through spaces called sinuses.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 430-431 TOP: Lymph nodes

26. Which of the following is not a characteristic sign of inflammation?

a. Heat

b. Redness

c. Swelling

d. All of the above are characteristic signs of inflammation.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 436 TOP: Nonspecific immunity

27. Which of the following is not true of antibodies?

a. They can neutralize toxins.

b. They must mature in the thymus gland.

c. They can stimulate the complement cascade.

d. They can agglutinate “enemy” cells.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 439 TOP: Antibodies

28. Which of the following is not considered an antigen-presenting cell?

a. Macrophages

b. Plasma cells

c. Dendritic cells

d. Neither B nor C is an antigen-presenting cell.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 441 TOP: Immune system cells

TRUE/FALSE

1. The ultimate source of lymph is blood plasma.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 430 TOP: The lymphatic system

2. Interstitial fluid that enters the lymphatic system is called lymph.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 429 TOP: The lymphatic system

3. Both lymph capillaries and blood capillaries are made up of loose-fitting endothelium cells to allow material to move in and out easily.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 431 TOP: The lymphatic system

4. Both lymph capillaries and blood capillaries are made of endothelium.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 431 TOP: The lymphatic system

5. The right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct each carry about 50% of the lymph to blood vessels.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 432 TOP: The lymphatic system

6. Both the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct empty into arteries in the neck region.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 432 TOP: The lymphatic system

7. The cisterna chyli is a storage area for lymph moving through the thoracic duct.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 432 TOP: The lymphatic system

8. The lacteals are special lymph capillaries found in the liver.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 432 TOP: The lymphatic system

9. Lymphedema is an abnormal swelling of tissue due to an accumulation of lymph.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 432 TOP: The lymphatic system

10. In rare situations, a parasitic worm can cause lymphedema.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 432 TOP: The lymphatic system

11. Efferent vessels deliver lymph to a lymph node where damaged cells and bacteria are removed.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 433 TOP: The lymphatic system

12. The major function of the lymph node is to filter the lymph and remove damaged cells and bacteria.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 433 TOP: The lymphatic system

13. Valves that promote fluid movement in one direction only are found in veins of the lymphatic system and veins of the circulatory system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 431 TOP: The lymphatic system

14. Lymph in the efferent vessels is “cleaner” than the lymph in the afferent vessels.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 433 TOP: The lymphatic system

15. Special clusters of lymph nodes in the intestine are called lacteals.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 432 TOP: The lymphatic system

16. Inflammation, tenderness, and swelling of a lymph node is called a lymphoma.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 435 TOP: The lymphatic system

17. One of the functions of the lymph node is to trap and destroy cancer cells.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 433-434 TOP: The lymphatic system

18. Because it is so extensive, the lymphatic system can promote the spread of cancer from one area of the body to another.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 434 TOP: The lymphatic system

19. Lymphomas are fairly common but typically benign tumors of the lymphatic system.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 435 TOP: The lymphatic system

20. Two types of malignant lymphomas are Hodgkin disease and non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 435 TOP: The lymphatic system

21. The largest lymphatic organ is the thymus.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 435 TOP: The lymphatic system

22. The thymus is located in the neck and is important in the development of B cells after birth.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 434-435 TOP: The lymphatic system

23. The thymus is located in the chest and is important in the development of T cells after birth.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 434-435 TOP: The lymphatic system

24. The thymus reaches its maximum size and function in late middle age.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 434 TOP: The lymphatic system

25. The thymus can also be considered an endocrine gland because it releases the hormone thyroxine.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 434-435 TOP: The lymphatic system

26. There are three sets of tonsils: the palatine on each side of the throat, the lingual at the base of the tongue, and the pharyngeal near the posterior opening of the nasal cavity.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 435 TOP: The lymphatic system

27. The palatine tonsils are also known as the adenoids.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 435 TOP: The lymphatic system

28. The spleen is the largest of the lymphatic organs.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 435 TOP: The lymphatic system

29. The spleen acts as a reservoir for blood and salvages iron from the hemoglobin of worn-out red blood cells.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 435 TOP: The lymphatic system

30. A serious infection such as scarlet fever can cause the spleen to shrink, making it difficult for the body to fight off the infection.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 435 TOP: The lymphatic system

31. Tears and the mucous membrane of the respiratory system can function as part of the body’s nonspecific immune system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 436 TOP: The immune system

32. A person cannot get Dutch elm disease because of an inherited immunity.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 436 TOP: The immune system

33. A baby getting antibodies from mother’s milk is an example of active artificial immunity.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 438 TOP: The immune system

34. Being protected from polio because of a polio vaccine is an example of artificial active immunity.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 438 TOP: The immune system

35. Being immune from mumps because you had them as a child is an example of artificial active immunity.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 438 TOP: The immune system

36. A person with a severe immune system deficiency would not be able to develop natural or artificial active immunity.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 438

TOP: The immune system

37. A person who received an injection of antibodies made by another person would have artificial active immunity.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 438 TOP: The immune system

38. The main difference between active and passive immunity is the source of antibodies.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 438

TOP: The immune system

39. Both natural and artificial active immunity require a functioning immune system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 438

TOP: The immune system

40. Both natural and artificial passive immunity require a functioning immune system.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 438

TOP: The immune system

41. “Lifelong” immunity would most likely be natural or artificial active immunity.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 438

TOP: The immune system

42. Antibodies and complement are protein molecules that are important in the immune system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 439-440 TOP: Immune system molecules

43. The combining sites on an antibody are uniquely shaped convex regions.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 439 TOP: Immune system molecules

44. Antibodies fit a specific antigen because the shape of the antigen occupies a unique site on the antibody.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 439 TOP: Immune system molecules

45. When antibodies “agglutinate” foreign cells, they combine with antigens on the surfaces of the threatening cells to form antigen-antibody complexes that are easier for macrophages to destroy.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 439 TOP: Immune system molecules

46. An antibody cannot stimulate the complement cascade unless it is attached to an antigen.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 439 TOP: Immune system molecules

47. Complement destroys foreign cells by poking holes in them and causing them to “bleed” to death.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 440 TOP: Immune system molecules

48. Macrophages and dendritic cells are considered antigen-presenting cells.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 441 TOP: Immune system cells

49. The primary function of macrophages and neutrophils is phagocytosis.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 440 TOP: Immune system cells

50. B cells reach maturity in the thymus gland.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 442 TOP: Immune system cells

51. When a B cell comes into contact with an antigen, it develops into a plasma cell or a memory cell.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 442 TOP: Immune system cells

52. Once a B cell is transformed into a plasma cell, it can release as many as 50,000 antibodies an hour.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 442 TOP: Immune system cells

53. Lifelong immunity to a particular illness results from the formation of memory B cells, which form following an initial exposure to the disease antigen.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 443 TOP: Immune system cells

54. T cells mature in the thymus gland.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 443 TOP: Immune system cells

55. T cells and B cells are activated when a specific antigen attaches to them.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 443 TOP: Immune system cells

56. T cells and B cells release about the same number of antibodies after they have been stimulated by an antigen.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 442-443 TOP: Immune system cells

57. Some T cells kill foreign cells by releasing toxic chemicals in the area of the antigen.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 443 TOP: Immune system cells

58. B cells and T cells leave the lymph node and move to tissues to destroy antigens.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 442-443 TOP: Immune system cells

59. The first bee sting a person experiences is not likely to generate an allergic reaction.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 445

TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system

60. An anaphylactic reaction is most likely caused by the release of antibodies by B cells.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 445

TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system

61. An allergic response caused by T cells occurs more rapidly than an allergic response caused by B cells.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 445 TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system

62. In an organ transplant, the alloimmune response of the recipient must be suppressed or the organ will be rejected.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 446 TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system

63. Graft-versus-host rejection occurs only if the transplanted tissue contains viable immune or stem cells.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 447

TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system

64. One identical twin can donate an organ to the other without fear of it being rejected because their human lymphocyte antigens match.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 447

TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system

65. Severe combined immune deficiency is an example of an acquired immune deficiency.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 447 TOP: Immune system deficiency

66. The only proven cause of an acquired immune deficiency is a viral infection.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 448 TOP: Immune system deficiency

67. The immune cell most affected by HIV is the T cell.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 448 TOP: Immune system deficiency

68. A person who has had an organ transplant is more likely to be considered immune deficient than a person who has not had a transplant.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 448

TOP: Immune system deficiency

69. Excess fluid and protein molecules are returned to the blood by the lymphatic system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 429-430 TOP: The lymphatic system

70. Lymphatic vessel inflammation is called elephantiasis.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 432 TOP: Lymphedema

71. After puberty, the thymus continues to enlarge but at a much slower rate.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 434 TOP: Thymus

72. Nonspecific immunity is also called humoral immunity.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 436 TOP: Nonspecific immunity

73. Heat, redness, pain, and swelling are the characteristic signs of the inflammatory response.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 436 TOP: Nonspecific immunity

74. Specific immunity is sometimes called adaptive immunity.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 437 TOP: Specific immunity

75. When neutrophils leave the blood and enter the tissue, they are called macrophages.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 440 TOP: Phagocytes

76. Dendritic cells are produced in the bone marrow and can be found in the blood, skin, or lining of the digestive tract.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 440 TOP: Phagocytes

77. The most numerous cells of the immune system are the macrophages.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 440 TOP: Lymphocytes

78. T cells mediate the contact dermatitis associated with exposure and reaction to poison ivy.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 445 TOP: Allergy

SHORT ANSWER

1. Explain how lymph is formed and how it returns to the blood.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1

DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 429-430

TOP: The lymphatic system

2. Explain how blood capillaries and lymph capillaries are similar.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 431 TOP: The lymphatic system

3. Explain how blood capillaries and lymph capillaries are different. How is this difference important to the function of the lymph system?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 431 TOP: The lymphatic system

4. Explain the functioning of the lymph node. Explain its role in both fighting and spreading cancer.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 433-434 TOP: The lymphatic system

5. Explain the two types of lymphoma, and list the signs and symptoms of lymphoma.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 435 TOP: The lymphatic system

6. Explain the location and function of the thymus.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 434-435

TOP: The lymphatic system

7. Explain the location and function of the tonsils.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 435

TOP: The lymphatic system

8. Explain the location and function of the spleen. Describe and give the cause of splenomegaly.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

TOP: The lymphatic system

REF: p. 435

9. Briefly describe the inflammatory response. Explain the causes of the characteristic signs of the inflammatory response and how this response assists the immune system.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

TOP: The immune system

REF: pp. 436-437

10. Describe and give examples of natural active, natural passive, artificial active, and artificial passive immunity.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 438

TOP: The immune system

11. Describe the functions of antibodies. How do they activate the complement cascade?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 439-440

TOP: Immune system molecules

12. Explain the functions of complement proteins in the immune system.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 440

TOP: Immune system molecules

13. Explain the functions of macrophages in the immune system.

ANS:

Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 440 TOP: Immune system cells

14. Explain the development and functioning of B cells.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 442-443 TOP: Immune system cells

15. Explain how memory cells can confer lifelong immunity against a disease.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 443 TOP: Immune system cells

16. Explain the development and functioning of T cells.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 443 TOP: Immune system cells

17. Explain why an allergic reaction is unlikely after the first exposure to an allergen.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 445 TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system

18. Explain the difference in an allergic reaction caused by B cells and an allergic reaction caused by T cells.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 445 TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system

19. What is autoimmunity? Give an example of an autoimmune disease.

ANS:

Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 445 TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system

20. What is isoimmunity?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 446

TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system

21. Explain the difference between graft-versus-host rejection and host-versus-graft rejection.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 447 TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system

22. What can be done to prevent the rejection of transplanted tissue?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 447 TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system

23. If one identical twin donates an organ to the other, why is rejection unlikely?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 447 TOP: Hypersensitivity of the immune system

24. Give an example of a congenital immune deficiency.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 447 TOP: Immune system deficiency

25. Describe HIV, and explain its effect on a cell.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

TOP: Immune system deficiency

26. How is HIV spread?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

TOP: Immune system deficiency

27. What can be done to treat an HIV infection?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

TOP: Immune system deficiency

MATCHING

Match each term with its corresponding definition or description.

a. Lacteals

b. Hodgkin disease

c. Thymus

d. Right lymphatic duct

e. Lymph node

f. Thoracic duct

g. Spleen

h. Lymphadenitis

i. Pharyngeal tonsil

j. Cisterna chyli

1. Largest lymphatic organ found in the abdomen

REF: p. 448

REF: p. 448

REF: p. 448

2. Small filtering structures to which afferent lymph vessels carry lymph

3. Lymphatic capillaries in the walls of the small intestine

4. Also called adenoids

5. Structure that carries most of the lymph to the blood vessels

6. Name given to swelling and tenderness of lymph nodes

7. Structure where T cells mature

8. A type of malignant lymphoma

9. Structure that returns about 25% of the lymph from the body back to the blood

10. Part of the thoracic duct; serves as a storage area for lymph

1. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 435 TOP: The lymphatic system

2. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 433 TOP: The lymphatic system

3. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 432 TOP: The lymphatic system

4. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 435 TOP: The lymphatic system

5. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 431-432 TOP: The lymphatic system

6. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 433 TOP: The lymphatic system

7. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 434-435 TOP: The lymphatic system

8. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 435 TOP: The lymphatic system

9. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 431-432 TOP: The lymphatic system

10. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 432 TOP: The lymphatic system

Match each term with its corresponding definition or description.

a. Natural active immunity

b. T cell

c. Antigen

d. Artificial active immunity

e. Macrophage

f. Natural passive immunity

g. B cell

h. Complement

i. Artificial passive immunity

j. Antibody

11. One of the major phagocytic cells of the immune system

12. Usually a foreign protein that stimulates the formation of an antibody

13. Immunity conferred by a mother passing on antibodies to her baby through breast milk

14. A group of proteins (activated by B cells) that can drill holes in foreign cells

15. Immunity conferred by getting the measles and subsequently being immune to getting the disease again

16. Lymphocytes that mature in the thymus gland

17. Proteins, produced in great numbers by the immune system, that attach to antigens and help destroy them

18. Immunity conferred by getting a polio vaccine that provides you with immunity to polio

19. Lymphocytes that can become plasma cells when activated by an antigen

20. Immunity conferred by getting a shot of hepatitis A antibodies

11. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 440 TOP: Immune system cells

12. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 439 TOP: Immune system molecules

13. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 438

TOP: The immune system

14. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 440 TOP: Immune system molecules

15. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 438 TOP: The immune system

16. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 434 TOP: Immune system cells

17. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 439 TOP: Immune system molecules

18. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 438 TOP: The immune system

19. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 442 TOP: Immune system cells

20. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 438 TOP: The immune system

Match each disease or condition with its corresponding definition or description.

a. Autoimmunity

b. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

c. Lymphedema

d. Isoimmunity

e. Anaphylactic shock

f. Elephantiasis

g. Systemic lupus erythematosus

h. Urticaria

i. Contact dermatitis

j. Lymphangitis

21. A life-threatening allergic reaction caused by an antigen-antibody reaction

22. An inappropriate response to self-antigens

23. Inflammation of a lymphatic vessel

24. A condition caused by the HIV retrovirus

25. Swelling in the lymphatic system that results from a parasitic worm infestation

26. A delayed allergic reaction such as the reaction to poison ivy, triggered by T cells

27. An excessive reaction of the immune system to antigens from a different individual of the same species

28. An abnormal condition in which tissue exhibits swelling due to an accumulation of lymph

29. A common autoimmune disease named for the rash that often develops on the face

30. Another term for hives

21. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 445 TOP: Allergy

22. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 445 TOP: Autoimmunity

23. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 432 TOP: Lymphedema

24. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 448 TOP: Acquired immune deficiency

25. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 432 TOP: Lymphedema

26. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 445 TOP: Allergy

27. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 446 TOP: Isoimmunity

28. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 432 TOP: Lymphedema

29. ANS: G PTS: 0 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 445 TOP: Autoimmunity

30. ANS: H PTS: 0 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 445 TOP: Allergy

Chapter 17: Respiratory System Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following is not a respiratory organ?

a. Larynx

b. Diaphragm

c. Bronchi

d. Nose

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 460 TOP: Structural plan

2. Which of the following does not directly assist in the exchange of gases between blood and the air?

a. Thin walls of the alveoli

b. Thin walls of the capillaries in the lung

c. Viscosity of the respiratory mucosa

d. Alveolar surface area

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 461

TOP: Structural plan

3. Which of the following is not part of the upper respiratory tract?

a. Trachea

b. Larynx

c. Pharynx

d. Nose

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 462-464 TOP: Respiratory tracts

4. Which of the following is not part of the lower respiratory tract?

a. Trachea

b. Larynx

c. Bronchi

d. Lungs

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 466-468 TOP: Respiratory tracts

5. The respiratory mucosa

a. helps trap contaminants found in inspired air.

b. acts as a thin barrier between the blood capillaries and alveoli.

c. helps humidify inspired air.

d. both A and C.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 461

TOP: Respiratory mucosa

6. Another term for nostrils is

a. nasal cavities

b. nasal septum

c. external nares

d. internal nares

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 462 TOP: Nose

7. Which of the following bones does not contain a paranasal sinus?

a. Ethmoid

b. Mandible

c. Maxilla

d. Frontal

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 462 TOP: Nose

8. Which structure does not drain into the nasal cavity?

a. Ethmoid sinus

b. Eustachian tube

c. Frontal sinus

d. Lacrimal sacs

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 462 TOP: Nose

9. Which of the following is not a subdivision of the pharynx?

a. Tracheopharynx

b. Nasopharynx

c. Oropharynx

d. Laryngopharynx

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 462 TOP: Pharynx

10. Which structure is not a part of the larynx?

a. Thyroid cartilage

b. Vocal cords

c. Epiglottis

d. Eustachian tube

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 464 TOP: Larynx

11. Cartilage is a component of all of the following except

a. primary bronchi.

b. secondary bronchi.

c. bronchioles.

d. trachea.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 466-467 TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

12. The movement of air into and out of the lung is called

a. cellular respiration.

b. external respiration.

c. internal respiration.

d. pulmonary ventilation.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 473 TOP: Respiration

13. The exchange of gases between the cells and the blood is called

a. cellular respiration.

b. external respiration.

c. internal respiration.

d. pulmonary ventilation.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 473 TOP: Respiration

14. The use of oxygen for cell metabolism is called

a. cellular respiration.

b. external respiration.

c. internal respiration.

d. pulmonary ventilation.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 473 TOP: Respiration

15. The exchange of gases between the lungs and the blood is called

a. cellular respiration.

b. external respiration.

c. internal respiration.

d. pulmonary ventilation.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 473 TOP: Respiration

16. The two phases of pulmonary ventilation are

a. inspiration and expiration.

b. external respiration and internal respiration.

c. external respiration and cellular respiration.

d. internal respiration and cellular respiration.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 473 TOP: Respiration

17. External respiration requires a higher oxygen concentration in the _____ than in the _____.

a. blood; lungs

b. blood; cells

c. cells; blood

d. lungs; blood

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 473

TOP: Respiration

18. Internal respiration requires a higher oxygen concentration in the _____ than in the _____.

a. blood; lungs

b. blood; cells

c. cells; blood

d. lungs; blood

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 480

TOP: Breathing patterns

19. The amount of air that can be forcibly taken in after normally inhaling is called _____ volume.

a. tidal

b. residual

c. inspiratory reserve

d. expiratory reserve

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 475 TOP: Breathing patterns

20. Which volume of air is not included in the vital capacity?

a. Tidal volume

b. Residual volume

c. Inspiratory reserve volume

d. Expiratory reserve volume

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 475 TOP: Respiration

21. The two most important respiratory control centers for regulating breathing are located in which part of the brain?

a. Medulla

b. Pons

c. Cerebral cortex

d. Cerebellum

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 476 TOP: Regulation of respiration

22. Chemoreceptors that help regulate breathing can be found in the

a. medulla oblongata.

b. carotid artery.

c. aorta.

d. both B and C.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 476 TOP: Regulation of respiration

23. Normal breathing is referred to as

a. apnea.

b. dyspnea.

c. eupnea.

d. Cheyne-Stokes respiration.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 477 TOP: Types of breathing

24. Labored or difficult breathing is referred to as

a. apnea.

b. dyspnea.

c. eupnea.

d. Cheyne-Stokes respiration.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 478 TOP: Types of breathing

25. Critically ill patients often experience a repetitive cycle of alternating hyperventilation and apnea called

a. apnea.

b. dyspnea.

c. eupnea.

d. Cheyne-Stokes respiration.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 478 TOP: Types of breathing

26. Besides air distribution and gas exchange, the respiratory organs

a. facilitate the sense of olfaction.

b. filter inhaled air.

c. warm inhaled air.

d. all of the above.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 459 TOP: Introduction

27. The total surface area of all the alveoli in the lungs would be about _____ m2 .

a. 58

b. 84

c. 250

d. 520

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 468 TOP: Structural plan

28. The shelflike structures that protrude into the nasal cavity on each side are called

a. nasal septa.

b. conchae.

c. turbinates.

d. both B and C.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 462 TOP: Nose

29. The vocal cords are found in the

a. larynx.

b. oropharynx.

c. laryngopharynx.

d. trachea.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 464 TOP: Larynx

30. Croup is a type of

a. rhinitis.

b. pharyngitis.

c. laryngitis.

d. epiglottitis.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 465 TOP: Upper respiratory infections

31. All of the following are true of the trachea except

a. it is lined with a respiratory mucosa that produces mucus that continuously moves upward.

b. its framework is composed of 15 to 20 C-shaped cartilage rings.

c. it is also called the windpipe.

d. All of the above are true of the trachea.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 466

TOP: Trachea

32. The respiratory tree includes all of the following except

a. bronchioles.

b. trachea.

c. right and left bronchi.

d. All of the above are a part of the respiratory tree.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 466-467 TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

33. A collapse or incomplete expansion of a lung for any reason is called

a. pneumothorax.

b. hemothorax.

c. atelectasis.

d. pleurisy.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 470 TOP: Lungs and pleura

34. Which is a broad term to describe conditions of progressive, irreversible obstruction of expiratory airflow?

a. Asthma

b. Emphysema

c. Bronchitis

d. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 471 TOP: Obstructive pulmonary disorders

Match each of the following terms with its corresponding definition or description.

a. Pharynx

b. Bronchi

c. Alveoli

d. Respiratory mucosa

e. Respiratory membrane

f. Bronchioles

g. Lung

h. Trachea

i. Pleura

j. Larynx

1. Structure, also known as the windpipe, that connects the larynx and bronchi

2. A thin layer of tissue that separates the air in the lungs from the blood in the lung capillaries

3. Structures in which gas exchange between the blood and air in the lungs takes place

4. Structure to which the auditory tubes from the middle ear lead; also called the throat

5. Tubes that branch from the trachea and contain cartilage as part of their structure

6. A thin membrane that lines the thoracic cavity and covers the lungs

7. A membrane that lines most of the tubes of the air distribution system

8. Structure that the primary bronchi enter

9. Structure that contains the vocal cords

10. Small air distribution tubes that have walls without cartilage

1. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 460 TOP: Trachea

2. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 467-468 TOP: Structural plan

3. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 467 TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

4. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 462 TOP: Pharynx

5. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 467 TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

6. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 469 TOP: Lungs and pleura

7. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 461 TOP: Respiratory mucosa

8. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 469 TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

9. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 464 TOP: Larynx

10. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 467 TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

Match each of the following terms with its corresponding definition or description.

a. Oxyhemoglobin

b. Vital capacity

c. Pulmonary ventilation

d. Chemoreceptors

e. Tidal volume

f. External respiration

g. Bicarbonate ion

h. Residual volume

i. Internal respiration

j. Pulmonary stretch receptors

11. The amount of air moved in and out of the lung during normal breathing

12. The movement of air into and out of the lungs

13. How most of the oxygen is carried in the blood

14. Prevent damage to the lung from overinflation by inhibiting inspiration

15. The sum of tidal volume, expiratory reserve volume, and inspiratory reserve volume

16. How most of the carbon dioxide is carried in the blood

17. The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lung

18. The amount of air left in the lungs after the most forceful expiration

19. The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the tissues

20. Structures that stimulate an increase in breathing when there is too little oxygen in the blood, too much carbon dioxide in the blood, or a drop in pH in the blood

11. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 475 TOP: Blood transportation of gases

12. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 473 TOP: Respiration

13. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 481 TOP: Respiration

14. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 477 TOP: Regulation of respiration

15. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 475 TOP: Blood transportation of gases

16. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 481 TOP: Respiration

17. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 471 TOP: Respiration

18. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 475 TOP: Blood transportation of gases

19. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 473 TOP: Respiration

20. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 476-477 TOP: Regulation of respiration

Match each disease or condition with its corresponding definition or description.

a. Epistaxis

b. Atelectasis

c. Rhinitis

d. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

e. Infant respiratory distress syndrome

f. Pharyngitis

g. Hemothorax

h. Asthma

i. Chronic bronchitis

j. Epiglottitis

21. Inflammation or swelling of the nasal mucosa

22. A life-threatening condition caused by a lack of surfactant in the lung that affects premature infants

23. A broad term used to describe conditions of progressive, irreversible obstruction of expiratory airflow

24. A life-threatening upper respiratory infection caused by a Hib infection that often strikes children between the ages of 3 and 7

25. A chronic inflammation of the bronchi and bronchioles

26. An incomplete expansion or collapse of a lung for any reason

27. Another term for a sore throat

28. An obstructive disorder characterized by recurring spasms of the smooth muscle of the walls of the bronchial air passages

29. Another term for a nosebleed

30. Refers to blood in the pleural space

21. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 464 TOP: Upper respiratory infections

22. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 468 TOP: Respiratory distress

23. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 471 TOP: Obstructive pulmonary disorders

24. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 465 TOP: Upper respiratory infections

25. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 472 TOP: Obstructive pulmonary disorders

26. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 470 TOP: Lungs and pleura

27. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 465 TOP: Upper respiratory infections

28. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 472 TOP: Obstructive pulmonary disorders

29. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 466 TOP: Anatomical disorders

30. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 470 TOP: Lungs and pleura

SHORT ANSWER

1. What is the respiratory membrane? Why is it so important that this membrane be thin?

ANS: Answers will vary. PTS: 1

2. What structures are included in the upper respiratory tract? In the lower respiratory tract?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 462-468

TOP: Respiratory tracts

3. What is the respiratory mucosa?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 461

TOP: Respiratory mucosa

4. Explain the function of the cilia that line the respiratory air distribution system. Explain the effect of cigarette smoking on the cilia and why the smoke is particularly harmful to the smoker.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 461 TOP: Respiratory mucosa

5. Briefly describe the structure of the nose. Describe the paranasal sinuses and their function.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 462

TOP: Nose

6. Describe the structure of the pharynx. Explain its role in equalizing the pressure across the eardrum.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 462-464 TOP: Pharynx

7. Explain why the number of tonsillectomies has dropped in recent years.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 463-464

TOP: Pharynx

8. Describe the structure of the larynx. What is the function of the epiglottis?

ANS:

Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 464

TOP: Larynx

9. Describe rhinitis. What are some of its causes?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 464-465

TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract

10. What is pharyngitis?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 465

TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract

11. What is laryngitis? What is epiglottitis? Who is most at risk for these, and what are the symptoms?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 465

TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract

12. Describe the structure of the trachea.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 466

TOP: Trachea

13. Describe the structure and location of the primary bronchi, secondary bronchi, and bronchioles.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 466-467

TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

14. During a severe asthma attack, the bronchioles narrow but the bronchi do not narrow nearly as much. Explain why you would expect this to be the case.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 472-473

TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

15. Explain how the structure of the alveoli increases the efficiency of gas exchange in the lungs.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 468

TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

16. What is the cause of infant respiratory distress syndrome? Who is most at risk, and how is it treated?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 468

TOP: Respiratory distress

17. Air passing through the upper respiratory tract must overcome some resistance to get to the lung. If an injury caused an opening in the chest wall, what mechanisms promote a possible pneumothorax?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 469-470

TOP: Lungs and pleura | Respiration

18. Explain the process of normal inspiration.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 475

TOP: Respiration

19. Explain the process of normal expiration.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 475

TOP: Respiration

20. Explain the difference between normal inspiration and expiration and the type of inspiration and expiration that would be needed to blow up a balloon in as few breaths as possible.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 475 TOP: Respiration

21. Explain the process of gas exchange in the lung.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 478-479 TOP: Respiration

22. Explain the process of gas exchange in the tissues.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 480 TOP: Respiration

23. Carbon monoxide has a much higher affinity for hemoglobin than does oxygen. Why does this make exposure to carbon dioxide so dangerous?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 481 TOP: Blood transportation of gases

24. List and explain the volumes in pulmonary ventilation.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 474-475 TOP: Blood transportation of gases

25. Explain the role of the medulla oblongata and the pons in regulating respiration.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 475-476 TOP: Regulation of respiration

26. Explain the role of the cerebral cortex in regulating respiration.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 476 TOP: Regulation of respiration

27. Explain the role of the chemoreceptors and the pulmonary stretch receptors in regulating respiration.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 476-477

TOP: Regulation of respiration

28. Name and explain four types of breathing explained in the chapter.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 477-478

TOP: Breathing patterns

29. Explain the symptoms and causes of pneumonia and tuberculosis.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 471

TOP: Disorders of the lower respiratory tract

30. Define and give an example of a restrictive pulmonary disorder.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 471

TOP: Disorders of the lower respiratory tract

31. Explain the symptoms and causes of chronic bronchitis.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 472

TOP: Disorders of the lower respiratory tract

32. Describe the conditions of emphysema and asthma.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 472-473

TOP: Disorders of the lower respiratory tract

33. Describe lung cancer. What is the most common cause, and how can it be treated?

ANS:

Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

TOP: Disorders of the lower respiratory tract

TRUE/FALSE

REF: p. 473

1. The two major functions of the respiratory system are gas exchange and air distribution.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 459 TOP: Introduction

2. One of the reasons for the efficiency of the respiratory system is the thin layer of tissue between the alveoli and the blood capillary. This layer is called the respiratory mucosa.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 461 TOP: Structural plan

3. The total area for gas exchange in the lung is about 10 m2, larger than the entire surface of the body.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 468 TOP: Structural plan

4. The upper respiratory tract refers to structures that are outside the chest cavity.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 460 TOP: Respiratory tracts

5. The mucous blanket covers all of the structures of the respiratory system except the epiglottis.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 461 TOP: Respiratory mucosa

6. One of the functions of the mucous blanket is the removal of contaminants from inhaled air.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 461 TOP: Respiratory mucosa

7. The cilia found in the lower part of the respiratory system push contaminated mucus up to the pharynx.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 461 TOP: Respiratory mucosa

8. Irritants such as cigarette smoke stimulate mucus production and cilia activity in an effort to help clear the respiratory tract.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 461 TOP: Respiratory mucosa

9. External nares is another name for nostrils.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 462 TOP: Nose

10. The nasal septum divides the right and left paranasal sinuses.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 462 TOP: Nose

11. The paranasal sinuses drain into the pharynx.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 462 TOP: Nose

12. It is possible for a sinus infection to infect the brain.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 462 TOP: Nose

13. Tears drain into the nasal cavity.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 462

TOP: Nose

14. The functions of the conchae include warming and humidifying inspired air.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 462 TOP: Nose

15. When a person is winded and breathing through the mouth, the inspired air has a higher level of humidity because of the higher amount of moisture in the mouth.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 462

TOP: Nose

16. A person with severe respiratory problems may be put on a ventilator and have oxygen supplied through a tube in the trachea. The oxygen must be “bubbled” through water to replace one of the functions of the upper respiratory tract.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 462

TOP: Nose

17. The pharynx may also be called the throat.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 462 TOP: Pharynx

18. From superior to inferior, the parts of the pharynx are oropharynx, nasopharynx, and laryngopharynx.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 462

TOP: Pharynx

19. The pharynx is actually part of two body systems.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 462 TOP: Pharynx

20. The auditory tubes connect the middle ear and the oropharynx.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 462 TOP: Pharynx

21. If the auditory tubes were blocked, it could make an airplane flight very uncomfortable.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 462 TOP: Pharynx

22. The pharynx contains tonsils.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 463 TOP: Pharynx

23. Larynx is another name for pharynx.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 464 TOP: Larynx

24. The “Adam’s apple” is part of the larynx.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 464 TOP: Larynx

25. The vocal cords are found in the larynx.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 464 TOP: Larynx

26. The space between the vocal cords is called the epiglottis.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 464 TOP: Larynx

27. The epiglottis is made of cartilage.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 464 TOP: Larynx

28. When a person swallows, the epiglottis closes to prevent food from entering the esophagus.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 464 TOP: Larynx

29. Infectious rhinitis and allergic rhinitis have the same cause.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 464-465 TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract

30. Infectious rhinitis and allergic rhinitis have the same symptoms.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 464-465 TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract

31. Pharyngitis is another name for a sore throat.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 465 TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract

32. Laryngitis can be caused by either bacteria or a virus.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 465 TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract

33. Croup is the most serious form of laryngitis and is frequently life threatening.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 465 TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract

34. Epiglottitis is the most serious form of laryngitis and usually occurs in the early teens.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 465 TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract

35. A deviated septum results from the nasal septum being significantly “deviated” from the midsagittal plane.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 465

TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract

36. Epistaxis is another name for a nosebleed.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 466 TOP: Disorders of the upper respiratory tract

37. The trachea, or windpipe, connects the larynx to the bronchi.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 466 TOP: Trachea

38. In order to keep the trachea open in any position, the trachea is made of O-shaped cartilage rings stacked one on top of the other.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 466 TOP: Trachea

39. There are two primary bronchi, one entering each lung.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 466-467 TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

40. The primary and secondary bronchi have similar structures.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 466-467

TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

41. Bronchioles are the smallest of the air distribution tubes.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 467 TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

42. Bronchioles do not contain cartilage.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 467 TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

43. The gas exchange function of the respiratory system occurs in the alveoli.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 467 TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

44. Surfactant is a substance that helps increase the surface tension in the alveoli to keep them from collapsing during expiration.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 468 TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

45. The lack of surfactant causes both infant and adult respiratory distress syndrome.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 468 TOP: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

46. There are four lobes of the lung: two on the right lung and two on the left lung.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 469 TOP: Lungs and pleura

47. The visceral pleura is deep to the parietal pleura.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 469 TOP: Lungs and pleura

48. Pleurisy occurs when part of the lung collapses or cannot completely expand.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 470 TOP: Lungs and pleura

49. Both a pneumothorax and a hemothorax can cause a portion of the lung to collapse.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 470 TOP: Lungs and pleura

50. Pulmonary ventilation and external respiration refer to the same thing.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 473 TOP: Respiration

51. Neither internal respiration nor cellular respiration occurs in the lung.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 473 TOP: Respiration

52. Internal respiration and cellular respiration refer to the same thing.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 473 TOP: Respiration

53. The contraction of the diaphragm increases the size of the thoracic cavity.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 473-474 TOP: Respiration

54. For inspiration to occur, the interior of the chest cavity must be below atmospheric pressure.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 473 TOP: Respiration

55. For normal, quiet breathing, only the abdominal muscles are needed for respiration.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 474 TOP: Respiration

56. To blow out all of the candles on a birthday cake, a person would use the abdominal muscles and the internal intercostals.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 474 TOP: Respiration

57. For gas exchange to occur in the lungs, the alveoli must have a higher oxygen content than the blood and a lower carbon dioxide content than the blood.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 478 TOP: Respiration

58. If external respiration is working properly, the blood leaving the lung will have more oxyhemoglobin and less carbaminohemoglobin than the blood entering the lung.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 481 TOP: Blood transportation of gases

59. Most of the oxygen in the blood is carried as oxyhemoglobin and most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is carried as carbaminohemoglobin.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 481 TOP: Blood transportation of gases

60. If internal respiration is working properly, the blood leaving the tissues will have less oxyhemoglobin and more carbaminohemoglobin than the blood entering the tissues.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 480 TOP: Blood transportation of gases

61. The amount of air moved into and out of the lungs during normal, quiet breathing is called tidal volume.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 475 TOP: Breathing patterns

62. The sum of tidal volume, expiratory reserve volume, and inspiratory reserve volume is equal to the residual volume.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 475 TOP: Breathing patterns

63. Residual volume is considered part of expiratory reserve volume.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 475 TOP: Breathing patterns

64. If you have exercised very vigorously and are breathing very hard, your tidal volume has increased, but your inspiratory and expiratory reserve volume has decreased.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 475 TOP: Breathing patterns

65. When the cells need more oxygen, the rate and depth of breathing increase and the heart rate increases.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 475 TOP: Regulation of respiration

66. The two most important respiratory control centers in the body are in the cerebral cortex.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 475 TOP: Regulation of respiration

67. The brainstem has the most important role in the control of respiration.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 475 TOP: Regulation of respiration

68. A rise in pH will stimulate the chemoreceptors of the carotid artery and aorta and cause an increase in breathing rate.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 476

TOP: Regulation of respiration

69. The pulmonary stretch receptors act to inhibit inspiration so the lungs do not become overinflated.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 477 TOP: Regulation of respiration

70. Restrictive pulmonary disorders inhibit inspiration.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 471 TOP: Disorders of the lower respiratory tract

71. The respiratory system assists in the sense of olfaction.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 459 TOP: Introduction

72. The trachea is part of the upper respiratory tract.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 460 TOP: Respiratory tracts

73. The four paranasal sinuses are found in the frontal, maxillary, mandibular, and sphenoid bones.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 462 TOP: Nose

74. Conchae and turbinates are the same structures.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 462 TOP: Nose

75. The palatine tonsils are also called adenoids.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 463 TOP: Pharynx

76. The trachea is lined with the respiratory membrane to trap dust and pollen in the air.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 466 TOP: Trachea

77. Atelectasis is defined as the incomplete expansion or collapse of the lung for any reason.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 470 TOP: Lungs and pleura

78. Eupnea refers to a normal respiratory rate.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 477 TOP: Breathing patterns

79. Dyspnea that is relieved by moving to an upright or sitting position is called apnea.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 478 TOP: Breathing patterns

Chapter 18: Digestive System

Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following types of food processing occurs only in the digestive system?

a. Metabolism

b. Absorption

c. Digestion

d. Both B and C

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 493 TOP: Introduction

2. The cone-shaped structure hanging down from the soft palate is called the

a. frenulum.

b. papilla.

c. uvula.

d. palatine tonsil.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 497 TOP: Mouth

3. Which structure prevents food and liquid from entering the nasal cavities when a person swallows?

a. Frenulum

b. Uvula

c. Hard palate

d. Both B and C

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 497 TOP: Mouth

4. Which bone is not part of the hard palate?

a. Mandibular bone

b. Maxillary bone

c. Palatine bone

d. All of the above bones are part of the hard palate.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 496 TOP: Mouth

5. Which substance is the outer covering of the shell of the tooth in the crown?

a. Cementum

b. Enamel

c. Dentin

d. Pulp

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 498 TOP: Teeth

6. Which substance is the outer covering of the neck and root of the tooth?

a. Cementum

b. Enamel

c. Dentin

d. Pulp

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 498 TOP: Teeth

7. Which bonelike material makes up the portion of the tooth exposed in the mouth?

a. Cementum

b. Enamel

c. Dentin

d. Pulp

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 498 TOP: Teeth

8. Which is one of the most common diseases of the mouth and teeth in the developed world?

a. Periodontitis

b. Dental caries

c. Gingivitis

d. Thrush

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 500 TOP: Disorders of the mouth and teeth

9. Which condition results from an infection by a yeastlike fungal organism?

a. Periodontitis

b. Dental caries

c. Gingivitis

d. Thrush

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 501 TOP: Disorders of the mouth and teeth

10. Which of the following is not a salivary gland?

a. Sublingual gland

b. Submandibular gland

c. Submaxillary gland

d. Parotid gland

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 498 TOP: Salivary glands

11. Which enzyme is produced by the salivary glands and begins the chemical digestion of carbohydrates?

a. Salivary amylase

b. Salivary maltase

c. Salivary sucrase

d. Salivary lactase

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 499 TOP: Salivary glands

12. Which layer of the wall of the digestive tract is responsible for peristalsis?

a. Serosa

b. Submucosa

c. Muscularis

d. Mucosa

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 496 TOP: Wall of the digestive tract

13. In the abdominal cavity, which layer of the wall of the digestive tract consists in part of the visceral peritoneum?

a. Serosa

b. Submucosa

c. Muscularis

d. Mucosa

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 496 TOP: Wall of the digestive tract

14. Which layer of the wall of the digestive tract contains blood vessels and nerves?

a. Serosa

b. Submucosa

c. Muscularis

d. Mucosa

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 496 TOP: Wall of the digestive tract

15. Which part of a full stomach may prevent the diaphragm from moving downward and possibly cause difficulty with taking a deep breath?

a. Body

b. Pylorus

c. Fundus

d. Rugae

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 504

TOP: Stomach

16. The order of the segments of the small intestine from the stomach to the large intestine is which of the following?

a. Ileum, jejunum, duodenum

b. Duodenum, ileum, jejunum

c. Jejunum, duodenum, ileum

d. Duodenum, jejunum, ileum

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 506 TOP: Small intestine

17. Which structure does not increase the surface area of the lining of the small intestine?

a. Microvilli

b. Lacteals

c. Villi

d. Plicae

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 508 TOP: Small intestine

18. To get to the small intestine, bile produced by the liver would have to pass through all of the following structures except

a. cystic duct.

b. hepatic duct.

c. common bile duct.

d. Bile would have to pass through all of these structures.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 509

TOP: Liver and gallbladder

19. The effect of cholecystokinin is to

a. stimulate the liver to produce bile.

b. stimulate the liver to release bile.

c. cause contraction of the gallbladder to release bile.

d. inhibit the production of bile in the liver.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 509 TOP: Liver and gallbladder

20. What might result if untreated gallstones block the bile ducts?

a. Hepatitis A

b. Jaundice

c. Hepatitis B

d. Cirrhosis

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 510 TOP: Disorders of the liver and gallbladder

21. Pancreatic juice contains enzymes that help digest

a. carbohydrates.

b. fats.

c. proteins.

d. all of the above.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 511 TOP: Pancreas

22. The order in which material passes through the large intestine is

a. descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon, cecum.

b. ascending colon, cecum, transverse colon, descending colon.

c. cecum, descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon.

d. cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 512 TOP: Large intestine

23. The splenic flexure joins the _____ colon to the _____ colon.

a. ascending; descending

b. ascending; transverse

c. transverse; descending

d. descending; sigmoid

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 512 TOP: Large intestine

24. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease of the digestive system?

a. Crohn disease

b. Diverticulitis

c. Dysentery

d. None of the above is an autoimmune disease.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 515 TOP: Disorders of the large intestine

25. Which of the following is not an important extension of the peritoneum?

a. Greater omentum

b. Mesentery

c. Fundus

d. All of the above are extensions of the peritoneum.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 516 TOP: Peritoneum

26. The process of carbohydrate digestion primarily takes place in the

a. mouth.

b. stomach.

c. small intestine.

d. large intestine.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 518

TOP: Digestion

27. Which of the following is the end product of protein digestion?

a. Fatty acids

b. Glycerol

c. Simple sugars

d. Amino acids

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 519 TOP: Digestion

28. Protein digestion begins in the

a. mouth.

b. stomach.

c. small intestine.

d. large intestine.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 518 TOP: Digestion

29. Which of the following is the end product of fat digestion?

a. Amino acids

b. Glycerol

c. Simple sugars

d. Both A and B

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 519 TOP: Digestion

30. Most fat digestion occurs in which organ?

a. Mouth

b. Stomach

c. Small intestine

d. Large intestine

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 519 TOP: Digestion

31. Which of the following is a general term for inflammation or infection of the gums?

a. Periodontitis

b. Gingivitis

c. Caries

d. Candidiasis

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 501 TOP: Disorders of the mouth and teeth

32. The largest of the salivary glands is the _____ gland.

a. sublingual

b. submaxillary

c. parotid

d. submandibular

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 499 TOP: Salivary glands

33. Mumps is a viral infection of which salivary gland?

a. Sublingual gland

b. Parotid gland

c. Submandibular gland

d. Submaxillary gland

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 500 TOP: Salivary glands

34. The stomach wall has how many layers of muscle?

a. One

b. Two

c. Three

d. Four

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 504 TOP: Stomach

35. Pyloric stenosis is

a. an obstructive narrowing of the pyloric sphincter.

b. a condition in which the pyloric sphincter muscles do not relax, so food cannot leave the stomach.

c. caused by the bacterium Helicobacter pylori.

d. both A and C.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 505 TOP: Disorders of the stomach

36. Which of the following are lymph capillaries in the small intestine?

a. Plicae

b. Lacteals

c. Villi

d. Duodenal papillae

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 508 TOP: Small intestine

37. Which duct drains bile from the gallbladder?

a. Hepatic duct

b. Common bile duct

c. Cystic duct

d. Papillary duct

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 509 TOP: Liver and gallbladder

38. Which of the following is not true of the pancreas?

a. It is an endocrine gland.

b. It is an exocrine gland.

c. It secretes enzymes that help digest the three major kinds of food.

d. All of the above are true of the pancreas.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 511 TOP: Pancreas

MATCHING

Match each term with its corresponding function or description.

a. Large intestine

b. Pancreas

c. Liver

d. Stomach

e. Esophagus

f. Salivary gland

g. Gallbladder

h. Mouth

i. Pharynx

j. Small intestine

1. Structure through which food enters the digestive tract

2. Structure that concentrates and stores bile

3. Absorbs water, salts, and some vitamins

4. Produces amylase, which begins the chemical digestion of carbohydrates

5. Produces bile

6. Contains sections called the body, the pylorus, and the fundus

7. Tubelike structure that connects the mouth and esophagus

8. Structure that has villi and microvilli lining its interior walls to assist in absorption

9. A collapsible tube that carries food to the stomach

10. Produces a digestive juice containing enzymes that digest all three types of food

1. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 496 TOP: Mouth

2. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 509 TOP: Liver and gallbladder

3. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 514 TOP: Large intestine

4. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 499 TOP: Salivary glands

5. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 509 TOP: Liver and gallbladder

6. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 504 TOP: Stomach

7. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 501 TOP: Pharynx

8. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 508 TOP: Small intestine

9. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 502 TOP: Esophagus

10. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 511 TOP: Pancreas

Match each term with its corresponding description or function.

a. Enamel

b. Muscularis layer

c. Villi

d. Hard palate

e. Splenic flexure

f. Common bile duct

g. Cementum

h. Submucosa

i. Mesentery

j. Hepatic flexure

11. Increases the surface area of the interior wall of the small intestine

12. Covers the neck and root regions of the tooth

13. Forms by the joining of the cystic and hepatic ducts

14. Covers the crown area of the tooth

15. Layer of the wall of the digestive tract that generates peristalsis

16. One of the extensions of the peritoneum

17. Part of the large intestine that joins the ascending and transverse colon

18. Part of the large intestine that joins the transverse and descending colon

19. Forms the roof of the mouth

20. Layer of the wall of the digestive tract that contains nerves and blood vessels

11. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 508 TOP: Small intestine

12. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 498 TOP: Teeth

13. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 509 TOP: Liver and gallbladder

14. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 498 TOP: Teeth

15. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 496 TOP: Wall of the digestive tract

16. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 516 TOP: Peritoneum

17. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 512 TOP: Large intestine

18. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 512 TOP: Large intestine

19. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 496 TOP: Mouth

20. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 496 TOP: Wall of the digestive tract

Match each disease or condition with its corresponding definition or description.

a. Ulcer

b. Cholelithiasis

c. Mumps

d. Hepatitis

e. Caries

f. Gastroenteritis

g. Leukoplakia

h. Crohn disease

i. Gingivitis

j. Peritonitis

l. Diverticulitis

21. One of the most common diseases of the enamel, dentin, and cementum of the teeth

22. Condition of having gallstones

23. White patches in the mouth that can develop in users of smokeless tobacco

24. An inflammation of abnormal saclike outpouchings of the intestinal wall

25. A craterlike sore in the stomach or duodenum frequently caused by H. pylori

26. A viral infection of the parotid salivary gland

27. Inflammation of the peritoneum

28. A general term for infection or inflammation of the gums

29. Inflammation of both the stomach and small intestine

30. A general term referring to inflammation of the liver

31. An abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal space

32. A type of autoimmune colitis

21. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 500 TOP: Disorders of the mouth and teeth

22. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 509 TOP: Disorders of the liver and gallbladder

23. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 499 TOP: Disorders of the mouth and teeth

24. ANS: L PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 514 TOP: Disorders of the large intestine

25. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 505 TOP: Disorders of the stomach

26. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 500 TOP: Salivary glands

27. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 517 TOP: Peritoneum

28. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 501 TOP: Disorders of the mouth and teeth

29. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 508 TOP: Disorders of the small intestine

30. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 510 TOP: Disorders of the liver and gallbladder

31. ANS: K PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 517 TOP: Peritoneum

32. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 515 TOP: Disorders of the large intestine

SHORT ANSWER

1. Why can material in the digestive tract be considered outside the body?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 493 TOP: Introduction

2. List the three kinds of processing that food undergoes after entering the body and explain where each occurs.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 493 TOP: Introduction

3. Explain the structure of the mouth. What is the uvula? What is the frenulum?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 496-497 TOP: Mouth

4. List and describe the four types of teeth.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 497 TOP: Teeth

5. Why would fewer Asians than Americans need to have their wisdom teeth (third molars) removed?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 497-498 TOP: Teeth

6. Describe the typical tooth.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 498 TOP: Teeth

7. Describe two disorders of the mouth and teeth.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 499-501

TOP: Disorders of the mouth and teeth

8. Name and describe the salivary glands, including where each gland drains into the mouth. What do salivary glands contribute to chemical digestion?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 498-499 TOP: Salivary glands

9. What is the name of the infection of the parotid salivary gland?

ANS: Mumps

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 500

TOP: Salivary glands

10. Name and describe the four layers of the wall of the digestive tract.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 495-496

TOP: Wall of the digestive tract

11. Describe the structure of the esophagus.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 502 TOP: Esophagus

12. What is GERD? How is it treated, and what are some serious consequences of untreated GERD?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 503 TOP: Esophagus

13. Describe the structure of the stomach. What is the role of hydrochloric acid in the chemical digestion of protein?

ANS:

Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 504 | p. 518

TOP: Stomach | Digestion

14. What is an ulcer? List some possible causes of ulcers, and explain what is meant by triple therapy.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 505-506

TOP: Disorders of the stomach

15. Describe the small intestine. What structures in the small intestine assist in its function of absorption?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 506 | p. 508

TOP: Small intestine

16. Describe the role of the liver and gallbladder in digestion. What is the function of cholecystokinin?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 509

TOP: Liver and gallbladder

17. What are gallstones? What are possible consequences of untreated gallstones? How can gallstones be treated?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 509-510

TOP: Disorders of the liver and gallbladder

18. What is hepatitis, and what are some possible causes? What is cirrhosis, and what are some possible causes?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 510-511

TOP: Disorders of the liver and gallbladder

19. Describe the pancreas, and explain its role in digestion.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 511 TOP: Pancreas

20. Describe the large intestine. What things are absorbed in the large intestine?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 512-514 TOP: Large intestine

21. Explain why a person on long-term antibiotic therapy might develop blood-clotting problems.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 513-514 TOP: Large intestine

22. Name and explain two disorders of the large intestine.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 514-515 TOP: Disorders of the large intestine

23. Describe the peritoneum. What are the two major extensions of the peritoneum?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 516 TOP: Peritoneum

24. What is peritonitis? What is ascites?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 517 TOP: Peritoneum

25. Why can it be said that absorption is the reason for digestion?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 517 | p. 519 TOP: Digestion | Absorption

26. Fully explain the process of carbohydrate digestion. Include the enzymes used, where they are produced, where they function, and the end products formed.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

TOP: Digestion

REF: p. 518

27. Fully explain the process of protein digestion. Include the enzymes used, where they are produced, where they function, and the end products formed.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 518-519 TOP: Digestion

28. Fully explain the process of fat digestion. Include the substances used, where they are produced, where they function, and the end products formed. How is bile different from the other substances used in the digestion of foods?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 519

TOP: Digestion

29. People who are lactose intolerant (unable to digest lactose) are treated by ingesting an enzyme before a meal containing dairy food. Which enzyme are they given?

ANS: Lactase

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 518

TOP: Digestion

30. Explain the process of absorption. Why is this process so important?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 519-520

TOP: Absorption

1. Another name for the gastrointestinal tract is the alimentary canal.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 493 TOP: Introduction

2. Digestion and metabolism occur only in the digestive system, whereas absorption occurs in every cell in the body.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 493 TOP: Introduction

3. The soft and hard palates make up the roof of the mouth.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 496 TOP: Mouth

4. The soft palate and the frenulum prevent food from entering the nasal cavity during swallowing.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 497 TOP: Mouth

5. All teeth have cusps.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 497

TOP: Teeth

6. By the age of 2, most children have 20 teeth, their full set of baby teeth.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 497 TOP: Teeth

7. Most of the crown of the tooth is made of enamel.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 498

TOP: Teeth

8. The neck and root of the tooth are covered by cementum.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 498 TOP: Teeth

9. The crown of the tooth is mostly composed of dentin.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 498 TOP: Teeth

10. Leukoplakia, primarily caused by tobacco use, can develop into cancer.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 499 TOP: Disorders of the mouth and teeth

11. Dental caries is one of the most common diseases of underdeveloped countries.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 500 TOP: Disorders of the mouth and teeth

12. Untreated periodontitis can lead to gingivitis.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 501 TOP: Disorders of the mouth and teeth

13. People who have had organ transplants and are taking immunosuppressive drugs have an increased risk of thrush.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 501

TOP: Disorders of the mouth and teeth

14. The salivary glands begin the process of chemical digestion.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 499 TOP: Salivary glands

15. The largest of the salivary glands is the submandibular gland.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 499 TOP: Salivary glands

16. The muscularis layer of the wall of the digestive tract is responsible for moving food though the digestive tract.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 496 TOP: Wall of the digestive tract

17. In the abdominal cavity, the submucosa is composed of the visceral peritoneum.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 496 TOP: Wall of the digestive tract

18. The lower esophageal sphincter separates the stomach and the esophagus.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 502 TOP: Esophagus

19. An ineffective lower esophageal sphincter could lead to Barrett esophagus.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 503

TOP: Esophagus

20. In a hiatal hernia, the esophagus passes through the diaphragm muscle.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 503 TOP: Esophagus

21. The gastric glands secrete gastric juices and hydrochloric acid to raise the pH of the stomach.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 504

TOP: Stomach

22. The stomach is divided into three parts: the body, the fundus, and the pylorus.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 504 TOP: Stomach

23. With a hiatal hernia, the fundus will likely pass through the opening of the diaphragm.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 503-504

TOP: Stomach

24. The pyloric sphincter prevents food and gastric juice from backing up into the esophagus.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 505 TOP: Stomach

25. A pylorospasm, a fairly common condition in infants, can prevent food from leaving the stomach and moving into the small intestine.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 505 TOP: Disorders of the stomach

26. Spicy foods and smoking are the primary causes of ulcers.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 505 TOP: Disorders of the stomach

27. Chewing tobacco, consuming excessive alcohol, and eating smoked or preserved foods are risk factors in developing stomach cancer.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 506 TOP: Disorders of the stomach

28. Microvilli, villi, and lacteals add surface area to the inner layer of the small intestine.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 506 TOP: Small intestine

29. Microvilli, villi, and lacteals assist in the absorptive function of the small intestine.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 508 TOP: Small intestine

30. The perfectly smooth walls of the small intestine ensure food moves through it more efficiently.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 508 TOP: Small intestine

31. Products from the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas empty into the duodenum of the small intestine.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 506 TOP: Small intestine

32. People who are lactose intolerant do not have enough lactase to digest lactose sugar. This is a type of malabsorption syndrome.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 509 TOP: Disorders of the small intestine

33. The liver produces bile.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 509 TOP: Liver and gallbladder

34. All bile going to the small intestine must pass through the cystic duct, the hepatic duct, and the common bile duct.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 509

TOP: Liver and gallbladder

35. The end result of cholecystokinin release is more fat emulsification in the small intestine.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 509

TOP: Liver and gallbladder

36. Gallstones that block the common bile duct can lead to jaundice.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 509 TOP: Disorders of the liver and gallbladder

37. Rapid weight loss greatly reduces the risk of gallstones.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 510 TOP: Disorders of the liver and gallbladder

38. Hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and cirrhosis are all liver conditions caused by viruses.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 510-511 TOP: Disorders of the liver and gallbladder

39. The pancreas is both an exocrine and an endocrine gland.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 511

TOP: Pancreas

40. Pancreatic juice contains enzymes that can digest carbohydrates, proteins, and fats.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 511 TOP: Pancreas

41. The ileocecal valve separates the ileum of the small intestine from the cecum of the large intestine.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 512 TOP: Large intestine

42. Because the large intestine is important in the absorption of water, salts, and vitamins, the walls of the large intestine are covered with villi, just like the walls of the small intestine.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 512 TOP: Large intestine

43. Materials moving through the large intestine will pass through the splenic flexure before they pass through the hepatic flexure.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 512

TOP: Large intestine

44. Both diarrhea and constipation can be peristalsis problems.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 514

TOP: Disorders of the large intestine

45. People with colonic polyps have an increased risk of colon cancer.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 515 TOP: Disorders of the large intestine

46. The parietal peritoneum is deep to the visceral peritoneum.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 516

TOP: Peritoneum

47. The stomach is covered by the visceral peritoneum.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 516

TOP: Peritoneum

48. An abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal space is called peritonitis.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 517 TOP: Peritoneum

49. The greater omentum and the mesentery are the two most prominent extensions of the peritoneum.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 516 TOP: Peritoneum

50. Amylase breaks down starch to glucose.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 518 TOP: Digestion

51. Carbohydrate digestion begins in the stomach.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 518 TOP: Digestion

52. Simple sugars are the end product of carbohydrate digestion.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 518 TOP: Digestion

53. The process of protein digestion begins in the stomach.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 518 TOP: Digestion

54. Pepsinogen and trypsin are enzymes that digest protein.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 518

TOP: Digestion

55. Protein digestion begins in the stomach but is completed in the small intestine.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 518 TOP: Digestion

56. Amino acids are the end product of fat digestion.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 519 TOP: Digestion

57. Carbohydrate digestion begins and ends in the small intestine.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 518 TOP: Digestion

58. Fat digestion primarily begins and ends in the small intestine.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 519 TOP: Digestion

59. Bile and lipase are the enzymes involved in the chemical digestion of fat.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 519

TOP: Digestion

60. Bile causes mechanical rather than chemical digestion of fat.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 517 TOP: Digestion

61. The end products of fat digestion are fatty acids and glycerol.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 519 TOP: Digestion

62. Trypsin would be considered a protease.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 518 TOP: Digestion

63. Digestion is necessary only because the food molecules cannot be absorbed as ingested.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 519 TOP: Absorption

64. Because the concentration of digested food is much higher in the small intestine than it is in the blood, absorption occurs by diffusion.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 520 TOP: Absorption

65. Lacteals are lymphatic vessels that are important in the absorption of fats.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 520 TOP: Absorption

66. The digestion of food includes both mechanical and chemical digestion.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 493 TOP: Introduction

67. Bacteria in the large intestine make vitamin C for the body.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 493 TOP: Introduction

68. The hard palate is made up of two bones, the maxillary and the sphenoid.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 496 TOP: Mouth

69. The word deglutition means swallowing.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 502 TOP: Mouth

70. Taste buds are located on the sides of papillae.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 497 TOP: Mouth

71. The word mastication means chewing.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 497 TOP: Teeth

72. It is considered normal for adults to have either 32 or 36 teeth depending on the presence of wisdom teeth.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 497 TOP: Teeth

73. Mumps is a viral infection of the submandibular salivary gland.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 500 TOP: Salivary glands

74. Although the mouth is considered part of the digestive system, only mechanical digestion takes place there.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 499 TOP: Salivary glands

75. The hollow space in a tube is called the lumen.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 495 TOP: Wall of the digestive tract

76. The mesentery anchors the loops of the digestive tract to the posterior wall of the abdominal cavity.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 496 TOP: Wall of the digestive tract

77. The semisolid mixture of food and gastric juice in the stomach is called chyme.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 504 TOP: Stomach

78. Rugae in the stomach are seen only when the stomach is full.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 504 TOP: Stomach

79. The upper right border of the stomach is known as the greater curvature.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 504 TOP: Stomach

80. Most gastric and duodenal ulcers result from infection with the bacterium H. pylori

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 505 TOP: Disorders of the stomach

81. The pancreatic duct enters the small intestine about 3 cm proximal to the entry of the common bile duct.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 511-512 TOP: Pancreas

82. Colitis is an inflammation of abnormal saclike outpouchings of the intestinal wall.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 514 TOP: Disorders of the large intestine

83. The vermiform appendix was named as such because it looks like a worm.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 515 TOP: Appendix and appendicitis

84. As a person ages, the likelihood of developing appendicitis increases.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 516 TOP: Appendix and appendicitis

85. Peritonitis is an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal space.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 517 TOP: Ascites

Chapter 19: Nutrition and Metabolism

Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following is not considered part of metabolism?

a. Assimilation

b. Catabolism

c. Anabolism

d. All of the above are part of metabolism.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 533 TOP: Introduction

2. Which of the following is not a function of the liver?

a. Producing plasma proteins

b. Producing bile for the chemical digestion of fat

c. Helping maintain the proper blood glucose level

d. All of the above are functions of the liver.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 534

TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver

3. Which of the following is not a function of the liver?

a. Detoxifying bacterial toxins

b. Detoxifying certain drugs

c. Storing iron

d. All of the above are functions of the liver.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 534 TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver

4. Which of the following proteins produced by the liver is not involved in blood clot formation?

a. Fibrinogen

b. Prothrombin

c. Albumin

d. All of the above proteins are involved in blood clot formation.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 534 TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver

5. Which of the following is not true of the process of glycolysis?

a. It is the first step in carbohydrate metabolism.

b. It occurs in the mitochondria.

c. Its end product is pyruvic acid.

d. It does not require oxygen.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 535 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

6. Which of the following is not true of the citric acid cycle?

a. It is the last step in carbohydrate metabolism.

b. It occurs in the mitochondria.

c. One of its end products is carbon dioxide.

d. It requires oxygen.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 535 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

7. Which of the following is not true of the electron transport chain?

a. It occurs in the mitochondria.

b. It takes the high-energy electrons and converts them to energy in the form of ADP.

c. It is the third step in carbohydrate metabolism.

d. All of the above are true of the electron transport chain.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 535 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

8. Glycogenesis

a. is also called glucose anabolism.

b. can occur in liver cells.

c. can occur in muscle cells.

d. All of the above are true of glycogenesis.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 536 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

9. Which is the only hormone that can reverse hyperglycemia?

a. Glucagon

b. Growth hormone

c. Insulin

d. Hydrocortisone

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 537

TOP: Nutrient metabolism

10. Which hormone raises blood sugar levels?

a. Glucagon

b. Growth hormone

c. Insulin

d. Both A and B

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 537 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

11. Which of the following is not true of fat metabolism?

a. Metabolized fat is used as a source of energy.

b. Fat is catabolized by the process of glycolysis.

c. Anabolized fat is stored in adipose tissue.

d. All of the above are true of fat metabolism.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 537-538 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

12. Which is not true of protein metabolism?

a. In a healthy person, protein anabolism occurs more often than protein catabolism.

b. In a healthy person, protein catabolism occurs more often than protein anabolism.

c. Nonessential amino acids are needed in the formation of proteins.

d. Amino acids can be built into complex proteins.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 538 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

13. Which of the following is not true of vitamins?

a. They are inorganic molecules.

b. They attach to enzymes to help them function.

c. They can act as antioxidants.

d. Too little or too much of a vitamin can be harmful.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 538 TOP: Vitamins and minerals

14. The body is unable to store which of the following vitamins?

a. Vitamin A

b. Vitamin C

c. Vitamin D

d. Vitamin K

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 539 TOP: Vitamins and minerals

15. The condition scurvy results from a lack of vitamin

a. A.

b. E.

c. C.

d. K.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 539 TOP: Vitamins and minerals

16. Which statement about minerals is untrue?

a. They are inorganic substances.

b. They are as important as vitamins.

c. They assist in the function of enzymes.

d. Unlike vitamins, large amounts of minerals are not harmful.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 540 TOP: Vitamins and minerals

17. Which of the following is not part of basal conditions?

a. Not digesting a meal

b. Being asleep

c. Being in a comfortably warm room

d. All of the above are basal conditions.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 541 TOP: Metabolic rates

18. Which of the following statements is true?

a. The BMR must be lower than the TMR.

b. The TMR must be lower than the BMR.

c. Consistent caloric intake above the BMR will cause a gain in weight.

d. Both A and C are true.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 541

TOP: Metabolic rates

19. The condition that results from a diet that is sufficient in calories but deficient in protein is called

a. anorexia nervosa.

b. marasmus.

c. kwashiorkor.

d. bulimia.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 544 TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders

20. Which type of heat loss is the flow of heat waves away from the body?

a. Evaporation

b. Radiation

c. Convection

d. Conduction

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 544 TOP: Body temperature

21. Which type of heat loss occurs when liquid water turns to water vapor?

a. Evaporation

b. Radiation

c. Convection

d. Conduction

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 544 TOP: Body temperature

22. Which type of heat loss occurs when body heat is used to heat the air flowing away from the skin?

a. Evaporation

b. Radiation

c. Convection

d. Conduction

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 544 TOP: Body temperature

23. Which of the following is a method used by the body to conserve or generate heat?

a. Reducing blood flow to the skin

b. Shivering

c. Increasing the level or metabolism-stimulating hormone

d. All of the above are methods to conserve heat.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 545 TOP: Body temperature

24. Which of the following is a rise in body temperature that is used to help the immune system fight a pathogen?

a. Malignant hyperthermia

b. Heat exhaustion

c. Fever

d. Hypothermia

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 545 TOP: Body temperature

25. Which is an inherited condition that causes a rise in body temperature in response to some types of anesthesia?

a. Malignant hyperthermia

b. Heat exhaustion

c. Fever

d. Hypothermia

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 545-546 TOP: Body temperature

26. Which of the following is not true of catabolism?

a. Catabolism releases energy.

b. It is part of metabolism.

c. It builds smaller molecules into larger molecules.

d. All of the above are true of catabolism.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 533 TOP: Introduction

27. Which of the following is not true of anabolism?

a. Anabolism releases energy.

b. It is part of metabolism.

c. It builds smaller molecules into larger molecules.

d. All of the above are true of anabolism.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 533 TOP: Introduction

28. Which of the following is not true of ATP?

a. It contains an adenosine group.

b. It stores energy for the body.

c. It can be used by the cell directly for energy.

d. All of the above are true of ATP.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 535-536 TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism

MATCHING

Match each term with its corresponding definition or description.

a. Glycolysis

b. Glycogenesis

c. Catabolism

d. Mineral

e. ATP

f. Assimilation

g. TMR

h. Citric acid cycle

i. Anabolism

j. Glucose

k. Electron transport chain

l. BMR

m. Vitamin

1. The second process of glucose catabolism; it occurs in the mitochondria and uses oxygen

2. The number of calories needed per hour to keep the body alive, awake, and comfortable

3. The food the cell would prefer to use for energy

4. The process of glucose anabolism

5. Term that refers to food entering the cell and undergoing many chemical changes

6. An inorganic substance that attaches to enzymes and helps them function

7. The last process in glucose catabolism; it occurs in the mitochondria and produces ATP

8. Substance the body uses as its source of immediate energy

9. An organic substance that attaches to enzymes and helps them function

10. The first process in glucose catabolism; it occurs in the cytoplasm and does not use oxygen

11. Process used to release energy from food

12. The total amount of energy used by the body per day

13. Process that builds simple food molecules into more complex compounds

1. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 535 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

2. ANS: L PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 541 TOP: Metabolic rates

3. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 535 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

4. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 536 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

5. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 533 TOP: Introduction

6. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 540 TOP: Vitamins and minerals

7. ANS: K PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 535 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

8. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 535 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

9. ANS: M PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 538 TOP: Vitamins and minerals

10. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 535 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

11. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 533 TOP: Introduction

12. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 541 TOP: Metabolic rates

13. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 533 TOP: Introduction

Match each of the following vitamins with its function.

a. Vitamin D (calciferol)

b. Vitamin A

c. Vitamin B12

d. Vitamin E (tocopherol)

e. Vitamin B3

f. Vitamin C (ascorbic acid)

g. Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)

14. Helps in the manufacture of collagen fibers

15. Helps maintain epithelial tissue and produces visual pigments

16. Protects cell membranes from being catabolized

17. Aids in calcium absorption

18. Involved in blood production and other processes

19. Helps enzymes in the citric acid cycle

20. Helps enzymes that catabolize amino acids

14. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 540 TOP: Vitamins and minerals

15. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 540 TOP: Vitamins and minerals

16. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 540 TOP: Vitamins and minerals

17. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 540 TOP: Vitamins and minerals

18. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 540 TOP: Vitamins and minerals

19. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 540 TOP: Vitamins and minerals

20. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 540 TOP: Vitamins and minerals

Match each disorder with its corresponding definition or description.

a. Malignant hyperthermia

b. Heat exhaustion

c. Hyperthermia

d. Scurvy

e. Marasmus

f. Heatstroke

g. Bulimia

h. Fever

i. Kwashiorkor

j. Anorexia nervosa

21. A serious condition in which the body is unable to maintain normal body temperature in a very warm environment; body temperature can rise to dangerous levels

22. Results from too little vitamin C

23. Results from a diet that has enough calories but too little protein

24. An inherited condition that causes an increase in body temperature in response to certain anesthetics

25. A behavioral disorder characterized by a chronic refusal to eat, often because of an abnormal fear of becoming obese

26. Condition that occurs when the body loses a large amount of fluid resulting from heat-loss mechanisms in warm conditions; normal body temperature is usually maintained

27. Results from an insufficient intake of both protein and calories

28. The inability to maintain normal body temperatures in very cold environmental conditions; characterized by a body temperature lower than 95° F

29. A behavioral disorder characterized by insatiable craving for food followed by periods of self-deprivation

30. An abnormally high body temperature brought about by a systemic inflammation response

21. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 546 TOP: Body temperature

22. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 539 TOP: Vitamins and minerals

23. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 544 TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders

24. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 545-546 TOP: Body temperature

25. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 543 TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders

26. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 546 TOP: Body temperature

27. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 543 TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders

28. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 546 TOP: Body temperature

29. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 543 TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders

30. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 545 TOP: Body temperature

SHORT ANSWER

1. Define and give examples of the processes of anabolism and catabolism.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 533 TOP: Introduction

2. List the functions of the liver. Which of these are specifically related to nutrition and metabolism?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 534 TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver

3. Explain the role of the hepatic portal system in helping to maintain a constant source of nutrients for the body.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 534 TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver

4. Explain the process of glycolysis. Include the starting substance, the end products, and where it occurs.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 535 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

5. Explain the citric acid cycle. Include the starting substance, the end products, and where it occurs.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 535 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

6. What occurs in the electron transport chain?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 535

TOP: Nutrient metabolism

7. Defend the statement that the catabolism of all food substances has the goal of reattaching a phosphate group to ADP.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 535-536

TOP: Nutrient metabolism

8. Explain the process of glucose anabolism. Where does it occur?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 537

TOP: Nutrient metabolism

9. What is the result of fat anabolism?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 537-538

TOP: Nutrient metabolism

10. Explain what is meant by a nonessential amino acid. How can nonessential amino acids be obtained?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 538

TOP: Nutrient metabolism

11. Explain how a diet that is low in carbohydrates would reduce the amount of fat in the body.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 537

TOP: Nutrient metabolism

12. What are vitamins, and what is their function in the body?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 538-539

TOP: Vitamins and minerals

13. Name and give the function of four vitamins needed by the body.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 540 TOP: Vitamins and minerals

14. What are minerals, and what is their function in the body?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 540 TOP: Vitamins and minerals

15. Name and give the function of four minerals needed by the body.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 541 TOP: Vitamins and minerals

16. What is the BMR? What is meant by basal conditions?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 541 TOP: Metabolic rates

17. If a person’s TMR is 2,400 calories, would the BMR be more or less than this? Explain your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 541 TOP: Metabolic rates

18. Describe anorexia nervosa. Who is most at risk and how is it treated?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 543

TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders

19. Explain the cycle of bulimia. What harmful consequences can result from bulimia?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 543

TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders

20. What is obesity? List the conditions for which obesity is a risk factor.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 543

TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders

21. Explain the protein-calorie malnutrition conditions marasmus and kwashiorkor.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 543-544

TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders

22. List and explain the four ways that heat is lost from the body.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 544

TOP: Body temperature

23. Why is sweating an inefficient way of cooling the body in a humid environment?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 544 TOP: Body temperature

24. Explain the four conditions that occur when body temperature rises or there is a problem associated with the heat-loss mechanisms.

ANS:

Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 545-546

TOP: Body temperature

25. Explain the two conditions that occur when the body is unable to keep itself sufficiently warm.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 546 TOP: Body temperature

TRUE/FALSE

1. The way the body uses food is one definition for metabolism.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 533 TOP: Introduction

2. The end products of catabolism are simpler molecules than the original reactants.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 533

TOP: Introduction

3. The end products of anabolism are simpler molecules than the original reactants.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 533

TOP: Introduction

4. Bile is made in the liver and breaks down fat to glycerol and fatty acids.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 534 TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver

5. The liver makes the plasma proteins albumin and fibrinogen, both of which are important in blood clot formation.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 534 TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver

6. The liver makes the plasma protein albumin, which helps maintain blood volume.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 534 TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver

7. The liver is able to store the fat-soluble vitamins A and E.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 534 TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver

8. The three consecutive phases of glucose metabolism are glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and the electron transport system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 535 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

9. Glucose is the cell’s first choice of energy because it can be used directly by the cell.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 535 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

10. The starting substance for glycolysis is glucose; the end product is carbon dioxide.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 535 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

11. The end product of glycolysis is the starting substance of the citric acid cycle.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 535 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

12. Of the three chemical processes in glucose catabolism, only glycolysis does not occur in the mitochondria.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 535 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

13. Of the three chemical processes in glucose catabolism, only glycolysis requires oxygen.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 535 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

14. In most people, glucose catabolism occurs more often than glucose anabolism.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 535 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

15. One of the end products of the electron transport system is ATP.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 535 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

16. The ATP molecule is used as a direct source of energy.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 535 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

17. ADP has fewer phosphates than ATP, but it contains more energy.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 536

TOP: Nutrient metabolism

18. Glycogenesis is an anabolic process that forms glucose.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 536

TOP: Nutrient metabolism

19. The main function of the electron transport chain is to supply energy for the reattachment of the third phosphate onto ADP.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 536

TOP: Nutrient metabolism

20. Insulin, a hormone made in the pancreas, is the only hormone that reduces the level of glucose in the blood.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 537 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

21. Glucagon, a hormone made in the pancreas, is the only hormone that increases the level of glucose in the blood.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 537 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

22. The primary function of fat in the body is to be catabolized for energy.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 537-538 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

23. Adipose tissue results from the anabolism of fat.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 538 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

24. In most people, protein anabolism occurs at a greater rate than protein catabolism.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 538 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

25. Nonessential amino acids are not needed by the body because they are not used to build human proteins.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 538 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

26. The reason nonessential amino acids do not need to be in the diet is because other substances can be converted to the nonessential amino acids.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 538 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

27. Nonessential amino acids are needed by the body as much as essential amino acids.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 538 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

28. One difference between vitamins and minerals is that vitamins are organic compounds and minerals are inorganic compounds.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 538 | p. 540 TOP: Vitamins and minerals

29. One difference between vitamins and minerals is that vitamins attach to enzymes and minerals attach to cell membrane receptors.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 538 | p. 540 TOP: Vitamins and minerals

30. The body can store the fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 539 TOP: Vitamins and minerals

31. Scurvy results from a lack of vitamin K.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 539 TOP: Vitamins and minerals

32. Minerals are helpful in maintaining good health, but they are not as necessary as vitamins.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 540 TOP: Vitamins and minerals

33. The basal condition assumes that a person is awake, has not just eaten, and is in an environment with a comfortable temperature.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 541 TOP: Metabolic rates

34. The basal metabolic rate (BMR) is always less than the total metabolic rate (TMR).

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 541 TOP: Metabolic rates

35. A person who consistently has a caloric intake greater than his or her BMR will gain weight.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 541

TOP: Metabolic rates

36. Both too little thyroid hormone and too much thyroid hormone have a profound impact on a person’s BMR.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 542

TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders

37. Both marasmus and kwashiorkor result from an insufficient number of calories in the diet.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 543-544 TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders

38. A person can be eating a sufficient amount of food and still suffer from kwashiorkor.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 544 TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders

39. A person can be eating a sufficient amount of food and still suffer from marasmus.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 543 TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders

40. About 40% of the energy released from food is converted to heat.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 544 TOP: Body temperature

41. The flow of heat waves away from the body defines conduction.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 544 TOP: Body temperature

42. The transfer of heat energy to the air that is flowing away from the body defines convection.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 544 TOP: Body temperature

43. An environment that has very high humidity would interfere with evaporative cooling.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 544 TOP: Body temperature

44. Because fever is always harmful to the body, every effort should be made to immediately reduce the fever to normal body temperature.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 545 TOP: Body temperature

45. A person who has never had surgery has a low risk of malignant hyperthermia.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 546 TOP: Body temperature

46. Even though they are not used for energy or structure, vitamins and minerals are required for proper nutrition.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 533 TOP: Introduction

47. One end product of the anabolic process is energy release.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 533 TOP: Introduction

48. Assimilation occurs when food moves out of the digestive tract and into the blood.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 533 TOP: Introduction

49. The function of bile is mechanical digestion of fat rather than chemical digestion.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 534 TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver

50. By the time blood from the digestive organs reaches the liver, it has already been through one capillary bed.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 534 TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver

51. Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 535 TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism

52. Most of the energy released by the citric acid cycle is in the form of ATP.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 535 TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism

53. One function of ATP is to store energy for the body.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 535 TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism

54. Glucose anabolism is called glycolysis.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 536 TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism

55. The hypersecretion of insulin by the pancreas can lead to diabetes mellitus.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 537

TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism

56. The secretion of too little insulin can lead to hyperglycemia.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 537 TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism

57. If a person had a blood glucose level of 95 mg/100 mL of blood, it would indicate that too little insulin was being secreted by the pancreas.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 537

TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism

58. Hypervitaminosis is much more likely to occur with fat-soluble vitamins than with watersoluble vitamins.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 539

TOP: Vitamins and minerals

59. Both anorexia nervosa and bulimia are classified as behavioral disorders.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 543 TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders

60. Heatstroke and heat exhaustion are equally severe conditions.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 546 TOP: Body temperature

61. The condition in which damage to tissue results from the formation of ice crystals is called hyperthermia.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 546 TOP: Body temperature

Chapter 20: Urinary System Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following is not a function of the urinary system?

a. Removing waste products from the blood

b. Maintaining the proper electrolyte balance in the blood

c. Maintaining the proper pH level of the blood

d. All of the above are functions of the urinary system.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 555

TOP: Introduction

2. Which of the following statements is untrue of the kidneys?

a. The right kidney is slightly higher than the left kidney.

b. The kidneys are outside the peritoneal cavity.

c. The kidneys are surrounded by a layer of fat.

d. All of the above are true statements.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 556 TOP: Kidneys

3. To properly clean the blood, the kidneys must receive how much of the blood pumped by the heart?

a. 10%

b. 20%

c. 30%

d. 40%

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 556 TOP: Kidneys

4. The outermost layer of the kidney is called the

a. renal pelvis.

b. renal medulla.

c. renal cortex.

d. calyx.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 557 TOP: Kidneys

5. The inner portion of the kidney is called the

a. renal pelvis.

b. renal medulla.

c. renal cortex.

d. calyx.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 557 TOP: Kidneys

6. Which of the following parts of the kidney is actually an expansion of the upper end of the ureter?

a. Renal pelvis

b. Renal medulla

c. Renal cortex

d. Calyx

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 557 TOP: Kidneys

7. The papilla of the renal pyramids opens into which of the following structures?

a. Renal pelvis

b. Renal medulla

c. Renal cortex

d. Calyx

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 557 TOP: Kidneys

8. Which of the following is one of the structures in the renal corpuscle?

a. Bowman capsule

b. Proximal convoluted tubule

c. Distal convoluted tubule

d. Loop of Henle

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 557 TOP: Kidneys

9. Which of the following is considered the first segment of the renal tubules?

a. Glomerulus

b. Proximal convoluted tubule

c. Distal convoluted tubule

d. Collecting duct

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 557 TOP: Kidneys

10. Which of the following structures drains into the collecting duct?

a. Glomerulus

b. Proximal convoluted tubule

c. Distal convoluted tubule

d. Loop of Henle

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 558 TOP: Kidneys

11. Which structure is included in the discussion of the urinary system even though it is part of the circulatory system?

a. Glomerulus

b. Proximal convoluted tubule

c. Bowman capsule

d. Loop of Henle

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 557

TOP: Kidneys

12. The juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidneys releases an enzyme

a. called antidiuretic hormone.

b. that dilates blood vessels.

c. that constricts blood vessels.

d. that increases the absorption of sodium from the filtrate.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 560 TOP: Renal physiology

13. Glycosuria is a failure in

a. filtration.

b. reabsorption.

c. secretion.

d. micturition.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 562

TOP: Formation of urine

14. The process that moves blood plasma from the glomerulus into Bowman capsule is called

a. filtration.

b. reabsorption.

c. secretion.

d. micturition.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 560

TOP: Formation of urine

15. Substances are added to the urine in the distal and collecting tubules through what process?

a. Filtration

b. Reabsorption

c. Secretion

d. Micturition

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 562 TOP: Formation of urine

16. The process by which most of the material in the nephron moves back into the blood is called

a. filtration.

b. reabsorption.

c. secretion.

d. micturition.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 561 TOP: Formation of urine

17. Which hormone tends to decrease the amount of urine produced?

a. Antidiuretic hormone

b. Aldosterone

c. Atrial natriuretic hormone

d. Both A and B

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 563

TOP: Formation of urine

18. Which hormone tends to increase the amount of urine produced?

a. Antidiuretic hormone

b. Aldosterone

c. Atrial natriuretic hormone

d. Both A and B

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 563 TOP: Formation of urine

19. The tube that carries urine out of the kidney is called the

a. urethra.

b. collecting tube.

c. ureter.

d. bladder.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 564 TOP: Ureters

20. The tube that carries the urine out of the body is called the

a. urethra.

b. collecting tube.

c. trigone.

d. ureter.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 565 TOP: Urethra

21. The process by which urine is passed out of the body is called

a. urination.

b. voiding.

c. micturition.

d. all of the above.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 565 TOP: Micturition

22. Which condition occurs when the kidneys are no longer producing urine?

a. Urinary retention

b. Urinary suppression

c. Incontinence

d. Enuresis

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 566 TOP: Micturition

23. What condition occurs when the kidneys produce urine but the bladder cannot empty the urine?

a. Urinary retention

b. Urinary suppression

c. Incontinence

d. Enuresis

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 566 TOP: Micturition

24. Which of the following conditions can be treated by the insertion of a urinary catheter?

a. Urinary retention

b. Urinary suppression

c. Incontinence

d. Enuresis

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 566 TOP: Micturition

25. Which of the following is considered an obstructive disorder of the urinary system?

a. Cystitis

b. Pyelonephritis

c. Renal calculi

d. Urethritis

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 567 TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

26. Which condition refers to an inflammation of the bladder?

a. Cystitis

b. Pyelonephritis

c. Urethritis

d. Renal calculi

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 569 TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

27. Which of the following are extensions of the cortical tissue that dip down into the medulla between the renal pyramids?

a. Renal columns

b. Renal papillae

c. Renal pelvis

d. Calyces

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 557 TOP: Kidneys

28. Which structure is between the proximal and distal convoluted tubules?

a. Bowman capsule

b. Loop of Henle

c. Glomerulus

d. Renal corpuscle

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 557 TOP: Kidneys

29. Which of the following is not true of erythropoietin?

a. It is secreted by the kidneys.

b. It stimulates the formation of red blood cells.

c. It acts on the blood-forming tissue of the spleen.

d. All of the above are true of erythropoietin.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 560 TOP: Function

30. Filtration occurs in

a. the renal corpuscle.

b. the loop of Henle.

c. the collecting duct.

d. all parts of the kidney.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 560

TOP: Formation of urine

31. The hormone ADH is released from the

a. kidney.

b. hypothalamus.

c. adrenal cortex.

d. pituitary gland.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 563 TOP: Control of urine volume

32. Which of the following is not true of RAAS?

a. It is initiated by the kidney.

b. It stimulates the secretion of aldosterone.

c. It causes constriction of blood vessels.

d. All of the above are true of RAAS.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 563 TOP: Control of urine volume

MATCHING

Match each of the structures of the urinary system with its corresponding function or description.

a. Calyx

b. Urinary bladder

c. Bowman capsule

d. Loop of Henle

e. Renal cortex

f. Collecting tubule

g. Proximal convoluted tubule

h. Renal medulla

i. Ureters

j. Renal pyramids

k. Juxtaglomerular apparatus

l. Glomerulus

m. Urethra

n. Distal convoluted tubule

o. Renal pelvis

1. Tubes that connect the kidney and the urinary bladder

2. A cup-shaped structure that catches the filtrate in the nephron

3. Formed by the tubules of a number of different nephrons; the last tubule in the nephron

4. The inner portion of the kidney

5. The outer portion of the kidney

6. Triangular-shaped structures in the inner portion of the kidney

7. Part of the nephron that lies between the distal and proximal convoluted tubules

8. The blood vessel in the Bowman capsule

9. A muscular sac that stores urine until it is released from the body

10. An extension of the ureters into the kidney

11. The first of the tubules in the nephron

12. Tube that carries urine out of the body

13. Tube that drains into the collecting tubule

14. Structure into which the papilla of the pyramids of the kidney opens

15. Structure that releases hormones that can cause constriction of blood vessels and raise blood pressure

1. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 564 TOP: Ureters

2. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 557 TOP: Kidneys

3. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 558 TOP: Kidneys

4. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 557 TOP: Kidneys

5. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 557 TOP: Kidneys

6. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 557 TOP: Kidneys

7. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 557-558 TOP: Kidneys

8. ANS: L PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 557 TOP: Kidneys

9. ANS: B PTS: 0 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 565 TOP: Urinary bladder

10. ANS: O PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 557 TOP: Kidneys

11. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 557 TOP: Kidneys

12. ANS: M PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 565 TOP: Urethra

13. ANS: N PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 558 TOP: Kidneys

14. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 557 TOP: Kidneys

15. ANS: K PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 559-560 TOP: Kidneys

Match each term with its corresponding definition or description.

a. Secretion

b. Polyuria

c. Filtration

d. ADH

e. Oliguria

f. Uremia

g. ANH

h. Reabsorption

i. Micturition

16. Actions of this hormone result in the production of a smaller volume of urine

17. Refers to the production of a large amount of urine

18. The movement of material from the blood to the urine in the distal convoluted or collecting tubules

19. The production of a small amount of urine

20. Another term for urination or voiding

21. Moves water and dissolved substances out of the blood and into the Bowman capsule

22. The accumulation of toxic substances in the blood from the catabolism of food; functioning kidneys prevent this from happening

23. Actions of this hormone result is an increase in the amount of urine

24. The moving of substances out of the tubules of the nephron back into the blood

16. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 563 TOP: Formation of urine

17. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 563 TOP: Formation of urine

18. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 562 TOP: Formation of urine

19. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 563 TOP: Formation of urine

20. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 565 TOP: Micturition

21. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 560 TOP: Formation of urine

22. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 555 TOP: Introduction

23. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 563 TOP: Formation of urine

24. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 561 TOP: Formation of urine

Match each disorder to its corresponding description or definition.

a. Renal calculi

b. Nephrotic syndrome

c. Cystitis

d. Urinary retention

e. Glycosuria

f. Hydronephrosis

g. Urinary suppression

h. Glomerulonephritis

i. Incontinence

j. Nephritis

25. Symptoms of this condition result from the loss of protein from the blood

26. Refers to kidney disease, especially inflammatory conditions

27. Refers to the lack of production of urine by the kidney

28. Occurs when there is glucose in the urine; a sign of diabetes mellitus

29. Describes a bladder infection

30. Results from damage to the glomerular-capsular membrane; can be caused by an immune mechanism, heredity, or a bacterial infection

31. Another term for kidney stones

32. Describes pathological swelling or enlargement of the renal pelvis and calyces caused by blockage of the urine outflow

33. Occurs when the kidneys produce urine but the bladder is unable to release it

34. Refers to the involuntary voiding or loss of urine in an older child or adult

25. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 570 TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

26. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 570 TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

27. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 566 TOP: Micturition

28. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 562 TOP: Formation of urine

29. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 565 TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

30. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 570 TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

31. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 567 TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

32. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 567 TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

33. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 566 TOP: Micturition

34. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 566 TOP: Micturition

SHORT ANSWER

1. Define uremia, and explain how it occurs.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 555

TOP: Introduction

2. Describe the location of the kidneys, and explain the ways in which the kidneys are protected.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 556 TOP: Kidneys

3. Explain why kidney surgery is less likely to cause peritonitis than is stomach surgery.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 556 TOP: Kidneys

4. List and describe the internal structures of the kidney.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 557

TOP: Kidneys

5. List and describe the microscopic structures of the nephron. Which structures make up the renal corpuscle?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 557-558

TOP: Kidneys

6. What are the physical and functional differences between cortical and juxtamedullary nephrons?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 558-559 TOP: Kidneys

7. Explain the functions of the kidneys. What substances do the kidneys help regulate?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 559-560

TOP: Kidneys

8. Explain how the juxtaglomerular apparatus helps maintain proper blood flow to the kidney.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 559-560 TOP: Kidneys

9. Explain the process of filtration in the nephron. What parts of the nephron are involved in filtration?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 560-561

TOP: Formation of urine

10. Explain the process of reabsorption in the nephron. What parts of the nephron are involved in reabsorption?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 561-562

TOP: Formation of urine

11. Explain the process of secretion in the nephron. What parts of the nephron are involved in secretion?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 562

TOP: Formation of urine

12. Name the hormones that affect urine production. Give the function and source of each.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 563

TOP: Formation of urine

13. If a person is becoming dehydrated, would that person’s blood have high levels of ADH or ANH? Explain your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 563 TOP: Formation of urine

14. Describe the structure and function of the ureters.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 564 TOP: Ureters

15. What is urinalysis? What conditions can be detected by the physical examination of urine, the chemical examination of urine, and the microscopic examination of urine?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 567 TOP: Ureters

16. Describe the structure and function of the urinary bladder.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 565 TOP: Urinary bladder

17. Describe the structure and function of the urethra. Explain the differences between the male and female urethra.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 565 TOP: Urethra

18. Explain the process of micturition.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 565 TOP: Micturition

19. Explain why the insertion of a urinary catheter would be an ineffective treatment for urinary suppression.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 566 TOP: Micturition

20. Define incontinence. Name and explain three types of incontinence.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 566-567 TOP: Micturition

21. What is hydronephrosis, and what are some of its causes?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 567 TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

22. What is cystitis? Explain how a person’s gender affects the risk of developing cystitis.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 569-570

TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

23. What is pyelonephritis? Explain the difference between the acute and chronic form.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 570 TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

24. Explain the symptoms of nephrotic syndrome. How are all of these symptoms related to the loss of protein from the blood?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 570 TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

25. What is glomerulonephritis?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 570-571 TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

26. Describe the three stages in chronic renal failure.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 573 TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

27. What is erythropoietin? What stimulates its release, and what effect does it have on the body?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 560 TOP: Kidneys

28. What is RAAS? Explain how it functions.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 563 TOP: Control of urine volume

TRUE/FALSE

1. The regulation of blood pH is an important function of the urinary system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 555 TOP: Introduction

2. The kidneys are protected by the lower part of the rib cage and the muscles of the back.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 556 TOP: Kidneys

3. The kidneys are protected by the parietal peritoneum and a heavy layer of fat.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 556 TOP: Kidneys

4. Because of the location of the kidneys, there is less risk of peritonitis after kidney surgery than there is after stomach surgery.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 556

TOP: Kidneys

5. The outer layer of the kidney is called the renal medulla.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 557 TOP: Kidneys

6. Even though they are often considered to be part of the structure of the kidney, the renal pyramids are actually part of the ureters.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 557 TOP: Kidneys

7. The calyces drain urine from the renal pyramids into the pelvis of the kidney.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 558

TOP: Kidneys

8. The order in which filtrate flows through the nephron is the Bowman capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, distal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, and the collecting tubule.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 557-558

TOP: Kidneys

9. Even though it is included as part of the nephron, the glomerulus is actually part of the circulatory system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 557

TOP: Kidneys

10. The loop of Henle separates the distal convoluted tubule and the collecting duct.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 557-558 TOP: Kidneys

11. Both the glomerulus and the loop of Henle make up the renal corpuscle.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 557-558 TOP: Kidneys

12. The collecting tubules of most nephrons remain within the renal cortex, but the collecting tubules of juxtamedullary nephrons dip deeply into the renal medulla.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 558-559 TOP: Kidneys

13. The catabolism of carbohydrates can cause nitrogen wastes to accumulate in the blood. If the kidneys do not clear these wastes, they can quickly reach toxic levels.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 559 TOP: Kidneys

14. The juxtaglomerular apparatus releases a hormone that helps the body regulate the pH of the blood.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 559-560 TOP: Kidneys

15. The juxtaglomerular apparatus releases a hormone that causes blood vessels to constrict and blood pressure to rise.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 559-560 TOP: Kidneys

16. Filtration occurs only in the renal corpuscle.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 560

TOP: Formation of urine

17. Reabsorption and secretion occur only in the tubules of the nephron.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 561 | p. 562

TOP: Formation of urine

18. The amount of fluid reabsorbed is only slightly less than the amount of fluid filtered.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 561 TOP: Formation of urine

19. The function of reabsorption is to move the filtrate back to the peritubular capillaries.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 561

TOP: Formation of urine

20. A failure in reabsorption causes glycosuria.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 562

TOP: Formation of urine

21. Both active and passive mechanisms are used to move materials from the nephron back to the blood.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 561

TOP: Formation of urine

22. The amount of filtrate can never be more than the amount reabsorbed.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 561

TOP: Formation of urine

23. The processes of filtration and secretion both move material into the nephron.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 560 | p. 562

TOP: Formation of urine

24. Both ADH and aldosterone tend to reduce the amount of urine produced.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 563 TOP: Formation of urine

25. Both ADH and aldosterone tend to decrease the amount of material reabsorbed back into the blood.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 563

TOP: Formation of urine

26. ADH and ANH have opposite effects on the amount of urine produced.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 563

TOP: Formation of urine

27. The adrenal gland produces both ADH and aldosterone.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 563 TOP: Formation of urine

28. ANH is a unique hormone because it is produced by the heart.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 563 TOP: Formation of urine

29. Someone with anuria produces more urine than someone with oliguria.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 563 TOP: Formation of urine

30. Someone with polyuria produces more urine than someone with oliguria.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 563 TOP: Formation of urine

31. Ureters are tubes connecting the kidney to the urinary bladder.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 564 TOP: Ureters

32. Gravity moves urine through the ureters.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 564 TOP: Ureters

33. Renal colic results from a streptococcal infection of the urinary tract.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 564 TOP: Ureters

34. Urinalysis is the physical, chemical, and microscopic examination of urine.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 567 TOP: Ureters

35. Chemical analysis is used to determine whether there are casts in the urine.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 567 TOP: Ureters

36. Urinalysis can sometimes be used to detect inborn errors of metabolism.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 567 TOP: Ureters

37. Urinalysis can be used to help diagnose diabetes mellitus.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 572 TOP: Ureters

38. A full bladder contains folds in its wall called rugae.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 565 TOP: Urinary bladder

39. The trigone consists of three openings: two leaving the bladder and one entering the bladder.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 565 TOP: Urinary bladder

40. The urethra is the last part of the urinary system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 565

TOP: Urethra

41. The urethra in the female is about half as long as the urethra in the male.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 565 TOP: Urethra

42. In the male, the urethra is part of two systems: the urinary system and the reproductive system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 565 TOP: Urethra

43. Micturition and voiding mean the same thing.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 565 TOP: Micturition

44. The voluntary internal urethral sphincter and the involuntary external urethral sphincter regulate urination.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 565 TOP: Micturition

45. The adult bladder can hold more than 300 mL of urine.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 565 TOP: Micturition

46. Urinary suppression is a kidney problem, whereas urinary retention is more of a bladder problem.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 566

TOP: Micturition

47. The emptying reflex causes contraction of the muscle of the bladder and relaxation of the two sphincter muscles.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 566 TOP: Micturition

48. Renal calculi are considered an obstructive disorder.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 567 TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

49. Renal calculi can cause both renal colic and hydronephrosis.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 567 TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

50. Bladder cancer is much more common than kidney cancer.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 567 TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

51. Tumors in the kidney are very rare and are almost always benign.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 567 TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

52. Pyelonephritis is a general term referring to kidney disease, especially inflammatory conditions.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 570 TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

53. All the symptoms of nephrotic syndrome are caused by the loss of protein in the blood.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 570 TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

54. Glomerulonephritis usually occurs several weeks after a systemic viral infection and is caused by a delayed immune response.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 570 TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

55. In chronic renal failure, the first two stages have no symptoms.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 573 TOP: Renal and urinary disorders

56. The urinary system consists of two kidneys, two urethras, one bladder, and one ureter.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 555 TOP: Introduction

57. The right kidney is slightly lower than the left kidney.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 556 TOP: Kidneys

58. Normally, more than 30% of the total blood pumped by the heart each minute enters the kidneys.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 556 TOP: Kidneys

59. Extensions of cortical tissue that dip down into the medulla between the renal pyramids are called the renal papillae.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 557 TOP: Kidneys

60. The calyces are the narrow, innermost ends of the pyramids.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 557 TOP: Kidneys

61. The renal corpuscle is made up of two structures.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 557 TOP: Microscopic structure

62. Besides the excretion of waste products, the kidneys help regulate blood levels of chloride, potassium, and bicarbonate.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 559 TOP: Function

63. One function of erythropoietin is to help reduce the amount of oxygen carried by the blood.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 560 TOP: Function

64. Erythropoietin stimulates red bone marrow to produce red blood cells.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 560 TOP: Function

65. Secretion can be defined as the movement of water and dissolved substances out of the blood and into the Bowman capsule.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 562 TOP: Formation of urine

66. Reabsorption and secretion move material in opposite directions.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 562

TOP: Formation of urine

67. The juxtaglomerular cells release the enzyme angiotensin to initiate the RAAS.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 563 TOP: Control of urine volume

68. The end result of the RAAS is constriction of blood vessels and the secretion of aldosterone.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 563 TOP: Control of urine volume

Chapter 21: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which group of people has the highest percentage of body water?

a. Young adult males

b. Young adult females

c. Babies

d. The elderly

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 584 TOP: Body fluids

2. Which group of people has the lowest percentage of body water?

a. Young adult females

b. Young adult males

c. Babies

d. The elderly

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 584 TOP: Body fluids

3. Which type of body tissue contains the least amount of water?

a. Adipose tissue

b. Bone tissue

c. Muscle tissue

d. Nerve tissue

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 584 TOP: Body fluids

4. Which of the following is not considered part of the extracellular fluid?

a. Interstitial fluid

b. Plasma

c. Lymph

d. All of the above are considered extracellular fluid.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 585 TOP: Body fluids

5. The largest volume of water in the body is located in

a. lymph.

b. intracellular fluid.

c. interstitial fluid.

d. blood plasma.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 585 TOP: Body fluids

6. Which of the following is not a source of water for the body?

a. Food

b. Ingested liquids

c. Anabolism of food

d. Catabolism of food

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 586 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

7. Water is not lost from the

a. catabolism of food.

b. lungs.

c. kidneys.

d. skin.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 586 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

8. Which of the following hormones does not play a role in fluid regulation?

a. ADH

b. Aldosterone

c. ACTH

d. ANH

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 587 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

9. The positively charged ion with the greatest concentration in the blood is

a. calcium.

b. sodium.

c. magnesium.

d. potassium.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 589-590 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

10. The negatively charged ion with the greatest concentration in the blood is

a. protein.

b. bicarbonate.

c. chloride.

d. phosphate.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 589-590 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

11. The hormone aldosterone causes the _____ by the kidneys.

a. loss of sodium ions

b. loss of water

c. reabsorption of sodium ions

d. both A and B

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 587

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

12. Aldosterone causes the kidneys to reabsorb

a. chloride ions.

b. sodium ions.

c. water.

d. both B and C.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 587

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

13. The volume of which fluid is the most variable?

a. Interstitial fluid

b. Blood plasma

c. Cerebrospinal fluid

d. Intracellular fluid

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 588 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

14. Which of the following increases interstitial fluid volume?

a. A drop in capillary blood pressure

b. A drop in blood protein levels

c. An increase in capillary blood pressure

d. Both B and C

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 588

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

15. Which of the following decreases interstitial fluid volume?

a. A drop in capillary blood pressure

b. A drop in blood protein levels

c. An increase in capillary blood pressure

d. Both B and C

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 588

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

16. An increase in blood protein levels _____ volume.

a. increases blood plasma

b. increases interstitial fluid

c. decreases interstitial fluid

d. both A and C

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 588

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

17. An increase in capillary blood pressure _____ volume.

a. increases blood plasma

b. increases interstitial fluid

c. decreases interstitial fluid

d. both B and C

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 588

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

18. Loss of skin elasticity is a clinical sign of

a. edema.

b. dehydration.

c. overhydration.

d. hypersecretion of aldosterone.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 588 TOP: Fluid imbalances

19. Hyperkalemia is a(n) _____-normal level of _____ in the blood.

a. above; sodium

b. below; sodium

c. above; calcium

d. above; potassium

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 592 TOP: Electrolyte imbalances

20. Hyponatremia is a(n) _____-normal level of _____ in the blood.

a. above; sodium

b. below; sodium

c. below; calcium

d. below; potassium

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 592 TOP: Electrolyte imbalances

21. The most abundant compound in the body is

a. protein.

b. lipids.

c. carbohydrates.

d. none of the above.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 592 TOP: Body fluids

22. In a newborn, water can account for as much as _____% of body weight.

a. 40

b. 60

c. 80

d. 50

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 584 TOP: Body fluids

23. Which of the following organs do not contribute to fluid output?

a. Skeletal muscles

b. Kidneys

c. Skin

d. Lungs

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 586 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

24. Which of the following is not considered a major factor for controlling plasma, interstitial fluid, and intracellular fluid?

a. The concentration of electrolytes in extracellular fluid

b. The concentration of protein in the blood

c. The absorption of fluid by the small intestine

d. All of the above are major factors for controlling plasma, interstitial fluid, and intracellular fluid.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 588 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

MATCHING

Match each term or phrase with its corresponding description or definition.

a. Ion

b. Dehydration

c. Intracellular fluid

d. Hypokalemia

e. ADH

f. Decrease in capillary blood pressure

g. ANH

h. Hypocalcemia

i. Drop in blood protein levels

j. Electrolyte

k. Hyponatremia

l. Overhydration

m. Aldosterone

n. Interstitial fluid

o. Edema

1. Substance that dissociates into ions when it dissolves in water

2. A fluid-regulating hormone that is released by the pituitary gland

3. Condition in which the blood sodium level is below normal

4. An atom or molecule with a positive or negative charge

5. Condition of which loss of skin elasticity is a clinical sign

6. Type of fluid that is the most variable of the body fluids

7. One mechanism that can cause an increase in the interstitial fluid volume

8. Condition caused by a lower-than-normal blood concentration of potassium

9. One of the two major fluid compartments in the body

10. A fluid-regulating hormone that is produced by the heart

11. One mechanism that causes a decrease in the interstitial fluid volume

12. Condition that can be caused by the rapid infusion of intravenous fluid

13. A fluid-regulating hormone that is produced by the adrenal cortex

14. Condition caused by a lower-than-normal blood level of calcium

15. Condition caused by an abnormal increase in interstitial fluid causing swelling in parts of the body, frequently the lower limbs

1. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 583 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

2. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 587 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

3. ANS: K PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 592 TOP: Electrolyte imbalances

4. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 589 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

5. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 588 TOP: Fluid imbalances

6. ANS: N PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 585 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

7. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 588 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

8. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 592 TOP: Electrolyte imbalances

9. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 585 TOP: Body fluids

10. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 587 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

11. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 588 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

12. ANS: L PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 589 TOP: Fluid imbalances

13. ANS: M PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 587 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

14. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 593 TOP: Electrolyte imbalances

15. ANS: O PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 588 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

SHORT ANSWER

1. Explain the term fluid balance.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

TOP: Introduction

REF: p. 583

2. Explain what variables affect the percentage of body water a person might have.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

TOP: Body fluids

REF: p. 584

3. What types of fluid make up the extracellular fluid compartment?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 585

TOP: Body fluids

4. List the sources of water for the body and the ways in which water can be lost from the body.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 586

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

5. List the names and the sources of the hormones that play a role in fluid regulation.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 587

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

6. Explain the mechanism that regulates fluid intake.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 587-588

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

7. Define and give an example of an electrolyte and a nonelectrolyte.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 589

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

8. If a person is diagnosed with hypertension (high blood pressure), one of the first recommendations a health care provider makes is for the person to reduce the amount of salt in the diet. Explain why following this recommendation will reduce blood pressure.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 591

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

9. What is edema? Explain the cause of edema. What are some organs that might be affected?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 588 | p. 590

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

10. Explain the mechanism by which aldosterone helps maintain fluid homeostasis.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 587 | p. 591

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

11. Certain kidney diseases allow large amounts of protein to be passed out of the body in urine. One result of this condition is edema. Explain the mechanism that causes the edema.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 590

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

12. Would a drop in capillary blood pressure or an increase in capillary blood pressure be more likely to cause edema? Explain your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 590

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

13. Explain why prolonged diarrhea is more likely to lead to serious dehydration in a baby than in an adult even though the baby has a higher percentage of body water than an adult does.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 584

TOP: Fluid imbalances

14. What is overhydration? Give one possible cause of overhydration. What organ is stressed by overhydration?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 589

TOP: Fluid imbalances

15. List the normal blood concentrations of sodium, potassium, and calcium.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 592

TOP: Electrolyte imbalances

16. List the causes of hypernatremia and hyponatremia.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 592

TOP: Electrolyte imbalances

17. What are the symptoms of sodium imbalance?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 592 TOP: Electrolyte imbalances

18. List the causes of hypercalcemia and hypocalcemia.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 592 TOP: Electrolyte imbalances

19. What are the symptoms of calcium imbalance?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 592-593

TOP: Electrolyte imbalances

20. Some diuretics cause the body to excrete large amounts of potassium. If a person is taking such a diuretic, what symptoms of potassium deficiency might be evident?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 591 TOP: Electrolyte imbalances

TRUE/FALSE

1. Fluid balance means that the total volume and distribution of water in the body remain relatively constant and within normal limits.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 583 TOP: Introduction

2. Women tend to have a higher percentage of body water than do men.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 584 TOP: Body fluids

3. Babies tend to have a higher percentage of body water than the elderly do.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 584 TOP: Body fluids

4. Muscle tissue has the least amount of water compared with any other body tissue.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 584 TOP: Body fluids

5. Obese people tend to have a lower percentage of body water than slender people do.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 584 TOP: Body fluids

6. Because muscle tissue has less water than adipose tissue, a person who is overweight has a higher percentage of body water than does a person in better physical condition.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 584 TOP: Body fluids

7. There is more fluid inside the cells of the body than outside the cells of the body.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 585 TOP: Body fluids

8. Blood plasma, cerebrospinal fluid, and lymph are all considered interstitial fluids.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 585 TOP: Body fluids

9. Blood plasma, cerebrospinal fluid, and lymph all considered extracellular fluids.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 585 TOP: Body fluids

10. The kidneys, the lungs, and the catabolism of food all contribute to water loss in the body.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 586 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

11. The food that we eat, the fluids we drink, and the catabolism of food all contribute to an input of water to the body.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 586 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

12. The chief mechanism used by the body to maintain fluid balance is adjusting fluid intake.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 587 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

13. The hormone ADH is produced by the adrenal cortex and acts to reduce the amount of urine produced.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 587 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

14. The hormone ANH is produced by the heart and acts to increase the amount of urine produced.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 587 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

15. When the body is severely dehydrated, hormones in the body can prevent the kidneys from producing urine until fluid loss is reduced to zero.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 588 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

16. No matter how dehydrated a person becomes, fluid will still be lost by the lungs.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 588 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

17. Table salt (NaCl) is an electrolyte.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 589

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

18. Because glucose dissociates into ions when it is dissolved in water, it is called an electrolyte.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 589 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

19. When NaCl is dissolved in water, it dissociates into ions.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 589 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

20. Sodium has the highest concentration of any negative ion in the blood.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 590 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

21. Potassium has the highest concentration of any positive ion in the blood.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 590 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

22. Aldosterone increases the absorption of sodium from the kidneys and thereby increases the amount of urine produced.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 587

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

23. If sodium moves into the interstitial fluid, the volume of blood increases.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 587

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

24. If sodium moves into the interstitial fluid, edema could result.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 588

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

25. If sodium levels in the blood increase, the volume of blood would increase.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 587

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

26. Salt must consistently be consumed because there is a loss of about 1,000 mEq per day through the digestive system.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 592

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

27. An increase in blood protein decreases the volume of fluid in the blood.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 588

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

28. An increase in blood protein decreases the volume of interstitial fluid.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 588

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

29. An increase in capillary blood pressure increases the volume of interstitial fluid.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 588

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

30. An increase in capillary blood pressure and an increase in blood protein have opposite effects on the interstitial fluid volume.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 588

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

31. An increase in capillary blood pressure and a decrease in blood protein have opposite effects on the interstitial fluid.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 588

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

32. A decrease in capillary blood pressure and an increase in blood protein both increase interstitial fluid volume.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 588

TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

33. Because they have the lowest percentage of body water, the elderly are most at risk for severe dehydration resulting from vomiting or diarrhea than any other age-group.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 584 TOP: Fluid imbalances

34. Because they have the smallest amount of water in their body, babies are most at risk for severe dehydration resulting from vomiting or diarrhea than any other age-group.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 584 TOP: Fluid imbalances

35. Blood plasma is the body fluid that varies the most.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 588 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

36. Interstitial fluid is the body fluid that varies the most.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 588 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

37. Giving intravenous fluids too rapidly can cause overhydration, which can put a heavy burden on the kidneys.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 589 TOP: Fluid imbalances

38. One of the organs that is most stressed from overhydration is the heart.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 589 TOP: Fluid imbalances

39. An overdose of vitamin D can cause hyperkalemia.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 592 TOP: Electrolyte imbalances

40. Having enough table salt in the diet can prevent hyponatremia.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 592

TOP: Electrolyte imbalances

41. To maintain proper homeostasis, all body fluids must have the same level and types of electrolytes.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 583 TOP: Introduction

42. The most abundant compound in the human body is water.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 584 TOP: Body fluids

43. Through diet and exercise, Jane lost more than 50 lb. This means she also reduced her percentage of body water.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 584 TOP: Body fluids

44. Drugs frequently are less effective in the elderly than they are in younger people because the elderly have a higher percent of body water, which overdilutes the drug.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 584 TOP: Body fluids

45. Both aldosterone and ADH reduce the amount of urine produced.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 587 TOP: Mechanisms that maintain fluid balance

46. When a person becomes dehydrated, both the volume of the extracellular fluid and the electrolyte concentration of the extracellular fluid are reduced.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 588 TOP: Regulation of fluid intake

47. When a person starts to become dehydrated, signals from the hypothalamus cause a reduction in the amount of saliva produced, which makes a person feel thirsty.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 588 TOP: Regulation of fluid intake

48. Nonelectrolytes do not generate ions.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 589 TOP: Importance of electrolytes in body fluids

49. Both too much and too little potassium can cause muscle weakness and heart problems.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 592 TOP: Potassium imbalance

50. Too little calcium can decrease neuromuscular irritability resulting in fatigue, muscle weakness, and diminished reflexes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 593 TOP: Calcium imbalance

Chapter 22: Acid-Base Balance Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The function of H+ ions in the body is

a. maintenance of the cell membrane.

b. conduction of nerve impulses.

c. function of cellular enzymes.

d. stimulation of muscle contraction.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 601 TOP: Introduction

2. A solution with a pH of 3

a. is an acid solution.

b. is an alkaline solution.

c. has more OH ions than H+ ions.

d. both B and C.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 602 TOP: pH of body fluids

3. A solution with a pH of 9

a. is an acid solution.

b. is an alkaline solution.

c. has more OH ions than H+ ions.

d. both B and C.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 602 TOP: pH of body fluids

4. Which of the following body fluids has the lowest pH?

a. Arterial blood

b. Stomach acid

c. Venous blood

d. Saliva

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 602 TOP: pH of body fluids

5. Which of the following body fluids has the highest pH?

a. Arterial blood

b. Venous blood

c. Stomach acid

d. Both A and B have the same pH, which is higher than stomach acid.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 602 TOP: pH of body fluids

6. A solution with a pH of 4

a. has 100 times more H+ ions than a solution with a pH of 2.

b. has 100 times fewer H+ ions than a solution with a pH of 2.

c. is considered an alkaline solution.

d. both B and C.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 602

TOP: pH of body fluids

7. A solution with a pH of 8

a. is more alkaline than arterial blood.

b. is more acidic than arterial blood.

c. contains more H+ ions than arterial blood.

d. both B and C.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 602 TOP: pH of body fluids

8. Which of the following is not considered a mechanism for regulating the pH of body fluids?

a. Buffers in the blood

b. The stomach absorbing acid

c. The lungs removing carbon dioxide

d. The kidneys removing H+ and OH ions

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 602 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

9. The slightly lower pH of venous blood compared with arterial blood comes primarily from

a. absorbing hydrochloric acid from the digestive system.

b. the lactic acid from muscle metabolism.

c. the higher concentration of carbonic acid from cell metabolism.

d. all of the above.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 602

TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

10. Which of the following is considered a physiological pH control mechanism?

a. The buffers in the blood

b. The kidneys

c. The lungs

d. Both B and C

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 603 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

11. Which of the following is considered a chemical pH control mechanism?

a. The buffers in the blood

b. The kidneys

c. The lungs

d. Both B and C

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 603 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

12. The buffering of HCl by the H2CO3–NaHCO3 buffer pair would

a. convert the strong HCl into the weaker H2CO3.

b. cause a smaller increase of H+ ions in the blood.

c. decrease the amount of NaHCO3 in the blood.

d. all of the above.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 604 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

13. The buffering of NaOH by the H2CO3–NaHCO3 buffer pair would

a. convert a strong base into a weak acid.

b. decrease the amount of H2CO3 in the blood.

c. cause the pH to rise to its normal value.

d. cause all of the above.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 605

TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

14. Blood leaving the lungs has a _____ than blood entering the lungs.

a. lower pH

b. lower concentration of carbon dioxide

c. higher concentration of H+ ions

d. both A and C

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 602

TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

15. One unique aspect of kidney regulation of pH is that it

a. is the only site of carbonic anhydrase that can quickly convert carbon dioxide and water to carbonic acid.

b. can excrete excess acid.

c. can excrete excess base.

d. both A and B.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 606-607

TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

16. In blood acidosis, the

a. number of H+ ions in the blood increases.

b. pH of the blood falls below 6.5.

c. number of OH ions in the blood increases.

d. both A and B.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 607 TOP: pH imbalances

17. Blood alkalosis

a. causes the pH of the blood to drop.

b. occurs more often than blood acidosis.

c. is caused by an increase in base or a loss of acid.

d. both B and C.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 607

TOP: pH imbalances

18. Which of the following is caused by bicarbonate deficit?

a. Respiratory acidosis

b. Metabolic acidosis

c. Respiratory alkalosis

d. Metabolic alkalosis

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 607 TOP: pH imbalances

19. Which of the following is caused by H2CO3 deficit?

a. Respiratory acidosis

b. Metabolic acidosis

c. Respiratory alkalosis

d. Metabolic alkalosis

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 609 TOP: pH imbalances

20. Which of the following is caused by H2CO3 excess?

a. Respiratory acidosis

b. Metabolic acidosis

c. Respiratory alkalosis

d. Metabolic alkalosis

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 608 TOP: pH imbalances

21. A water solution with a pH of 7

a. is an acid.

b. has equal numbers of OH and H+ ions.

c. is a base.

d. contains neither OH nor H+ .

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 601 TOP: pH of body fluids

22. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Arterial blood and venous blood are slightly alkaline.

b. Arterial blood and venous blood are slightly acidic.

c. Arterial blood is slightly acidic, and venous blood is slightly basic.

d. Venous blood is slightly acidic, and arterial blood is slightly basic.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 602 TOP: pH of body fluids

23. Carbonic anhydrase is a(n)

a. buffer that works in the blood.

b. enzyme.

c. buffer that works in the lungs.

d. buffer that works in the kidneys.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 602 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

24. The lungs are able to remove the equivalent of _____ L of carbonic acid a day.

a. 50

b. 60

c. 40

d. 30

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 603 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

25. Which of the following statements is true?

a. The lungs can remove larger amounts of acid from the body than the kidneys.

b. The kidneys can remove larger amounts of acid from the body than the lungs.

c. Unlike the lungs, the kidneys can remove base from the body.

d. Both B and C are true.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 606 TOP: Urinary mechanism of pH control

MATCHING

Match each term with its corresponding description or definition.

a. Buffer

b. Metabolic acidosis

c. Acid solution

d. Respiratory alkalosis

e. Respiratory system

f. Metabolic alkalosis

g. Alkaline solution

h. Kidney system

i. Respiratory acidosis

j. Neutral solution

1. Solution that has a pH of 7 with an equal number of H+ and OH ions

2. The only pH-regulating system that can excrete base

3. A substance that prevents a sharp change in the pH of a solution when a strong acid or base is added to it

4. A solution with a pH greater than 7 and a higher concentration of OH ions than H+ ions

5. System that helps regulate the pH of the blood by removing carbon dioxide

6. Solution that has a pH less than 7 and a higher concentration of H+ ions than OH ions

7. Condition that is caused by a carbonic acid excess

8. Condition that is caused by a bicarbonate excess

9. Condition that is caused by a bicarbonate deficit

10. Condition that is caused by carbonic acid deficit

1. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 601 TOP: pH of body fluids

2. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 606 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

3. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 603 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

4. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 602 TOP: pH of body fluids

5. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 606 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

6. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 602 TOP: pH of body fluids

7. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 608 TOP: pH imbalances

8. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 607 TOP: pH imbalances

9. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 607 TOP: pH imbalances

10. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 609 TOP: pH imbalances

SHORT ANSWER

1. What is the definition of acid-base balance? What proteins are most affected if the acid-base balance is not maintained?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 601 TOP: Introduction

2. Explain the pH scale. Which body fluid has the highest pH? Which has the lowest?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 601-602 TOP: pH of body fluids

3. If one solution has a pH of 5 and a second solution has 10 times more H+ ions than the first solution, what would the pH level of the second solution be?

ANS: 4

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 602 TOP: pH of body fluids

4. What two pH-regulating systems are referred to as physiological pH control mechanisms?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 603

TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

5. What is the function of carbonic anhydrase?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 602-603

TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

6. Explain how the buffer system functions to buffer a strong acid.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 604

TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

7. Explain how the buffer system functions to buffer a strong base.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 603-604

TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

8. What is a fixed acid? Give an example of a fixed acid and a nonfixed acid found in the body.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 605

TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

9. List the four changes in the blood that result from the buffering of a fixed acid in the tissue capillaries.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 605-606

TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

10. Explain how the respiratory mechanism controls blood pH. What effect would a prolonged period of decreased respiration have on blood pH?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 606

TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

11. Would you expect the blood in the pulmonary artery or in the pulmonary vein to have the higher pH? Explain your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 602

TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

12. Explain how the urinary mechanism controls blood pH.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 606-607

TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

13. Define blood acidosis and blood alkalosis.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 607

TOP: pH imbalances

14. A condition called metabolic acidosis can be caused by a bicarbonate deficit. What can cause a bicarbonate deficit?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 607

TOP: pH imbalances

15. A condition called metabolic alkalosis can be caused by a bicarbonate excess. What can cause a bicarbonate excess?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 607 TOP: pH imbalances

16. A condition called respiratory acidosis can be caused by a carbonic acid excess. What can cause a carbonic acid excess?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 608

TOP: pH imbalances

17. A condition called respiratory alkalosis can be caused by a carbonic acid deficit. What can cause a carbonic acid deficit?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 609 TOP: pH imbalances

18. What is uncompensated metabolic acidosis? How does it become compensated metabolic acidosis?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 609-610 TOP: pH imbalances

19. In uncompensated metabolic acidosis, what mechanism removes the excess H2CO3?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 610 TOP: pH imbalances

20. Suppose the 20:1 ratio needed by the H2CO3–NaHCO3 buffer pair is disrupted and the concentration of NaHCO3 in the blood needs to be lowered. What mechanism could accomplish this?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 603-606 TOP: pH imbalances | Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

TRUE/FALSE

1. Maintaining acid-base balance means keeping the concentration of hydrogen ions in body fluids relatively constant.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 601 TOP: Introduction

2. Because the functioning of proteins such as enzymes and hemoglobin depends on a proper pH level, pH must be regulated closely.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 601 TOP: Introduction

3. The pH scale measures the concentration of OH ions in solution.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 601 TOP: pH of body fluids

4. A solution with a pH of 9 has more hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 602

TOP: pH of body fluids

5. A solution with a pH of 9 is considered an alkaline solution.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 602 TOP: pH of body fluids

6. A solution with a pH of 13 contains more hydroxide ions than a solution with a pH of 11.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 602 TOP: pH of body fluids

7. A solution with a pH of 5 contains more hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 2.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 602

TOP: pH of body fluids

8. A solution with a pH of 5 is considered an acid.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 602 TOP: pH of body fluids

9. A solution with a pH of 5 has 100 times more hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 3.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 602

TOP: pH of body fluids

10. A solution with a pH of 2 has 1,000 times more hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 5.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 602

TOP: pH of body fluids

11. Venous blood is the body fluid with the highest pH.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 602 TOP: pH of body fluids

12. Stomach acid is the body fluid with the lowest pH.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 602 TOP: pH of body fluids

13. Pure water, with a pH of 7, is neither acid nor base because it contains neither hydrogen ions nor hydroxide ions.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 601

TOP: pH of body fluids

14. The body has three mechanisms for regulating pH: the buffer mechanism, the respiratory mechanism, and the digestive mechanism.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 602 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

15. The function of carbonic anhydrase is to convert carbon dioxide and water to carbonic acid.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 602 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

16. The physiological pH control mechanisms react more quickly to stabilize pH than do the chemical pH control mechanisms.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 603 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

17. The lungs work more rapidly to stabilize pH than do the kidneys.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 606 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

18. The function of a buffer pair is to convert a strong acid into a weak acid.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 604

TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

19. When acid is added to a buffered solution, the pH will actually rise.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 604 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

20. If a base were added to the buffer pair H2CO3–NaHCO3, the concentration of NaHCO3 would drop.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 604

TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

21. If a base were added to the buffer pair H2CO3–NaHCO3, the concentration of H2CO3 would drop.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 604

TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

22. If an acid were added to the buffer pair H2CO3–NaHCO2, the concentration of NaHCO3 would drop.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 604

TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

23. The NaHCO3 buffer system buffers lactic acid.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 604 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

24. Lactic acid and carbonic acid are referred to as fixed acids.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 604

TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

25. Because carbonic acid can be broken down to carbon dioxide and water, it is not considered a fixed acid.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 602

TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

26. The contribution of the lungs to pH control is the removal of carbon dioxide from the blood.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 602 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

27. Blood in the pulmonary artery has a lower pH than the blood in the aorta.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 602

TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

28. Blood in the pulmonary vein has a lower pH than the blood in the superior vena cava.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 602

TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

29. The amount of carbonic acid is lower in the pulmonary vein than it is in the pulmonary artery.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 602

TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

30. Anything that decreases respiration will eventually cause alkalosis.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 606 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

31. One of the things that the kidneys can do that the lungs cannot do is to excrete base.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 606 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

32. When the kidneys work to raise the pH of the blood, the blood becomes more alkaline and the urine becomes more acidic.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 606 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

33. One of the ways the kidneys help raise the pH of the body is by excreting NaH2PO4 rather than Na2HPO4.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 606-607

TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

34. When the kidneys have acidified the urine, the level of NaHCO3 in the blood leaving the kidneys is much lower than the level of NaHCO3 in the blood entering the kidneys.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 606-607

TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

35. Acidosis in the blood begins to occur when the pH falls below 6.8.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 607 TOP: pH imbalances

36. If the buffer pair is to function properly, there must be 10 times more NaHCO3 than there is H2CO3.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 607 TOP: pH imbalances

37. If the buffer pair is to function properly, there must be 20 times more H2CO3 than there is NaHCO3

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 607 TOP: pH imbalances

38. If the buffer pair is to function properly, there must be 20 times more NaHCO3 than there is H2CO3

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 607 TOP: pH imbalances

39. Hyperventilation syndrome can cause metabolic alkalosis.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 607-608 TOP: pH imbalances

40. Excessive vomiting can cause metabolic alkalosis.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 607 TOP: pH imbalances

41. A sustained drop in breathing rate can cause respiratory acidosis.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 608 TOP: pH imbalances

42. A prolonged period of uncontrolled diabetes would have the same effect on the blood pH as a prolonged period of depressed breathing rate.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 607 TOP: pH imbalances

43. A prolonged period of gastric suctioning would have the same effect on the blood pH as a prolonged period of uncontrolled diabetes.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 607 TOP: pH imbalances

44. A person with only 10 times more NaHCO3 than H2CO3 is in a condition called uncompensated metabolic acidosis.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 610 TOP: pH imbalances

45. A person with only 10 times more H2CO3 than NaHCO3 is in a condition called uncompensated metabolic acidosis.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 610 TOP: pH imbalances

46. Metabolic acidosis is compensated with the loss of enough NaHCO3 to bring the ratio back up to 20 times more H2CO3.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 610 TOP: pH imbalances

47. The lung can remove the equivalent of 50 L of carbonic acid a day.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 603 TOP: Mechanisms that control pH of body fluids

48. Blood in the pulmonary artery has a higher pH than blood in the pulmonary vein.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 606

TOP: Respiratory mechanism of pH control

49. The urine can have an H+ concentration 100 times higher than the concentration in the blood.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 606 TOP: Urinary mechanism of pH control

50. A person can develop acidosis of the blood even if the pH is above 7.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 607 TOP: pH imbalances

Chapter 23: Reproductive Systems

Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The reproductive cells are called

a. ova.

b. sperm.

c. gametes.

d. all of the above.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 618 TOP: Sexual reproduction

2. The essential organ of the male reproductive system is the

a. testis.

b. prostate gland.

c. penis.

d. All of the above are essential organs.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 619 TOP: Male reproductive system

3. Each testis is surrounded by a tough, whitish membrane called the

a. scrotum.

b. seminiferous tubule.

c. tunica albuginea.

d. interstitial cells.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 619 TOP: Male reproductive system

4. The hormone that stimulates spermatogenesis is

a. testosterone.

b. follicle-stimulating hormone.

c. luteinizing hormone.

d. androgenic hormone.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 619 TOP: Male reproductive system

5. The function of the acrosome in the sperm is to

a. store mitochondria to supply energy to the sperm.

b. store enzymes to help break down the covering of the ovum.

c. reduce the number of chromosomes from 46 to 23.

d. propel the sperm.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 621 TOP: Male reproductive system

6. The function of the midpiece of the sperm is to

a. store mitochondria to supply energy to the sperm.

b. store enzymes to help break down the covering of the ovum.

c. reduce the number of chromosomes from 46 to 23.

d. propel the sperm.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 621 TOP: Male reproductive system

7. The function of testosterone is to

a. masculinize the male.

b. promote and maintain the development of the male accessory organs.

c. stimulate protein anabolism.

d. All of the above are functions of testosterone.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 621-622 TOP: Male reproductive system

8. Which is a comma-shaped coiled tube structure that lies along the top of and behind the testis?

a. Seminiferous tubule

b. Ductus deferens

c. Ejaculatory duct

d. Epididymis

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 622 TOP: Male reproductive system

9. Which tube is found in the lobes of the testis and makes up most of the mass of testicular tissue?

a. Seminiferous tubules

b. Ductus deferens

c. Ejaculatory duct

d. Epididymis

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 622 TOP: Male reproductive system

10. Which tube permits sperm to exit the scrotum and is part of the spermatic cord?

a. Seminiferous tubules

b. Ductus deferens

c. Ejaculatory duct

d. Epididymis

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 622 TOP: Male reproductive system

11. Which gland lies just below the bladder and produces a thin milk-colored fluid that makes up about 30% of the seminal fluid?

a. Seminal vesicle

b. Prostate gland

c. Bulbourethral gland

d. Ejaculatory gland

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 623 TOP: Male reproductive system

12. Which gland produces a thick, yellowish fluid that contains fructose and makes up about 60% of the seminal fluid?

a. Seminal vesicle

b. Prostate gland

c. Bulbourethral gland

d. Ejaculatory gland

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 623 TOP: Male reproductive system

13. Which gland is also called the Cowper gland and supplies only about 5% of the seminal fluid?

a. Seminal vesicle

b. Prostate gland

c. Bulbourethral gland

d. Ejaculatory gland

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 623 TOP: Male reproductive gland

14. Which of the following is not true of the corpus spongiosum?

a. It is erectile tissue in the penis.

b. It surrounds the urethra.

c. There are two columns of corpus spongiosum in the penis.

d. All of the above are true of the corpus spongiosum.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 624 TOP: Male reproductive system

15. Which of the following is not found in the scrotum?

a. Testis

b. Epididymis

c. Lower part of the ductus deferens

d. All of the above are found in the scrotum.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 624 TOP: Male reproductive system

16. Oligospermia can cause

a. sterility.

b. cryptorchidism.

c. infertility.

d. All of the above conditions can be caused by oligospermia.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 625 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

17. The condition in which the testes fail to descend into the scrotum is called

a. oligospermia.

b. cryptorchidism.

c. benign prostatic hypertrophy.

d. hypospadias.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 625 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

18. Which of the following is a condition in which the opening of the urethral meatus is on the dorsal surface of the gland or penile shaft?

a. Cryptorchidism

b. Benign prostatic hypertrophy

c. Hypospadias

d. Epispadias

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 626 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

19. Viagra would have its greatest effect on the

a. number of sperm cells produced.

b. corpus spongiosum and cavernosum.

c. amount of testosterone in the blood.

d. quantity of seminal fluid produced.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 626

TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system | Male reproductive system

20. The gonads include the _____ in the _____ and the _____ in the _____.

a. ova; female; sperm; male

b. penis; male; vulva; female

c. testes; male; ovaries; female

d. both A and C

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 619 | p. 627

TOP: Male reproductive system | Female reproductive system

21. A mature ovum in its sac is sometimes called a(n)

a. oocyte.

b. primary follicle.

c. graafian follicle.

d. ovarian follicle.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 628 TOP: Female reproductive system

22. After ovulation, the ruptured follicle is transformed into the hormone-secreting structure called the

a. corpus luteum.

b. antrum.

c. graafian follicle.

d. granulosa cells.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 628 TOP: Female reproductive system

23. Oogenesis differs from spermatogenesis in that in oogenesis

a. cells with only 23 chromosomes are formed.

b. there is only one functional gamete produced.

c. there are four functional gametes produced.

d. both A and C.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 628

TOP: Female reproductive system | Male reproductive system

24. Which of the following is not a function of estrogen?

a. Development and maturation of the female reproductive organs

b. Initiation of the first menstrual cycle

c. Appearance of pubic hair and breast development

d. All of the above are functions of estrogen.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 629 TOP: Female reproductive system

25. The hormone progesterone

a. is produced by the corpus luteum.

b. causes the development of the secondary sex characteristics.

c. is responsible for the development of the female body contours.

d. All of the above are true of progesterone.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 629 TOP: Female reproductive system

26. The muscular layer of the uterus is called the

a. endometrium.

b. fundus.

c. cervix.

d. myometrium.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 630-631 TOP: Female reproductive system

27. Which of the following is not another name for the uterine tubes?

a. Oviduct

b. Fimbriae

c. Fallopian tubes

d. All of the above are alternate names for the uterine tubes.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 630 TOP: Female reproductive system

28. The part of the uterus that lies above the point where the uterine tubes attach is called the

a. body.

b. cervix.

c. fundus.

d. myometrium.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 631 TOP: Female reproductive system

29. The narrow, lower part of the uterus is called the

a. body.

b. cervix.

c. fundus.

d. myometrium.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 631 TOP: Female reproductive system

30. Which of the following is not true of the vagina?

a. It is part of the female external genitalia.

b. It receives sperm during intercourse.

c. It is the last part of the birth canal.

d. All of the above are true of the vagina.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 632 TOP: Female reproductive system

31. Which of the following structures in the female external genitalia is composed of erectile tissue?

a. Labia majora

b. Labia minora

c. Clitoris

d. Mons pubis

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 633 TOP: Female reproductive system

32. The phase of the menstrual cycle that directly follows ovulation is called

a. the secretory phase.

b. the proliferative phase.

c. menses.

d. menarche.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 634 TOP: Female reproductive system

33. The phase of the menstrual cycle that directly precedes ovulation is called

a. the secretory phase.

b. the proliferative phase.

c. menses.

d. menarche.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 634 TOP: Female reproductive system

34. Which of the following is the hormone most responsible for stimulating immature ovarian follicles to start growing?

a. Estrogen

b. Progesterone

c. Follicle-stimulating hormone

d. Luteinizing hormone

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 619 TOP: Female reproductive system

35. Which of the following is the hormone most responsible for ovulation?

a. Estrogen

b. Progesterone

c. Follicle-stimulating hormone

d. Luteinizing hormone

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 634 TOP: Female reproductive system

36. A sharp drop in which of the following hormones causes menstruation?

a. Estrogen

b. Progesterone

c. Follicle-stimulating hormone

d. Both A and B

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 635 TOP: Female reproductive system

37. The absence of normal menstruation is called

a. dysmenorrhea.

b. amenorrhea.

c. dysfunctional uterine bleeding.

d. endometriosis.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 635 TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

38. An inflammation of the uterine tubes is called

a. salpingitis.

b. oophoritis.

c. vaginitis.

d. endometriosis.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 636 TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

39. Which statement does not describe a characteristic of asexual reproduction?

a. It requires only one parent.

b. It produces offspring with greater variability.

c. It produces offspring that age genetically like the parent.

d. All of the above are true of asexual reproduction.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 617 TOP: Sexual reproduction

40. Which of the following statements is not descriptive of the accessory structures of the male reproductive system?

a. They produce spermatozoa.

b. They are passageways that carry sperm to the exterior.

c. They are the external reproductive organs.

d. All of the above statements describe accessory structures of the male reproductive system.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 618 TOP: Male reproductive system

41. Testosterone is secreted by the

a. tunica albuginea.

b. seminiferous tubules.

c. interstitial cells.

d. prostate gland.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 619 TOP: Male reproductive system

42. The sperm precursor cell or stem cell is called the

a. spermatogonia.

b. primary spermatocyte.

c. spermatid.

d. spermatozoa.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 619 TOP: Testes

43. Which of the following is not part of a sperm cell?

a. The head of the sperm that contains the nucleus

b. The acrosome that contains enzymes

c. The midpiece that generates energy

d. The cilia, which allow the sperm to swim

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 620-621 TOP: Testes

44. Which of the following is not true of seminal fluid?

a. It contains secretions of accessory glands.

b. It contains gametes.

c. It is slightly acidic.

d. All of the above are true of seminal fluid.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 623 TOP: Accessory or supportive sex glands

45. Which of the following is not true of the corpus cavernosum?

a. It is erectile tissue.

b. It surrounds the urethra.

c. There are two columns of corpus cavernosum in the penis.

d. All of the above are true of the corpus cavernosum.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 624 TOP: External genitals

46. Which is not a cause of swelling of the scrotum?

a. Hydrocele

b. BHP

c. Inguinal hernia

d. All of the above are causes of swelling of the scrotum.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 626 TOP: Disorders of the penis and scrotum

47. Which of the following does not describe an accessory structure of the female reproductive system?

a. Ducts that extend from near the ovary to the exterior

b. External genitals

c. Ovaries

d. All of the above describe accessory structures of the female reproductive system.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 627 TOP: Female reproductive system

48. At birth, a baby girl has about 1 million _____ follicles.

a. ovarian

b. primary

c. secondary

d. graafian

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 627 TOP: Ovaries

49. Inflammation of the ovaries is called

a. pelvic inflammatory disease.

b. oophoritis.

c. salpingitis.

d. candidiasis.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 636 TOP: Infection and inflammation

MATCHING

Match each term with its corresponding definition or description.

a. Seminiferous tubules

b. Seminal vesicles

c. Interstitial cells

d. Scrotum

e. Testes

f. Ductus deferens

g. Prostate gland

h. Sperm cell

i. Epididymis

j. Tunica albuginea

k. Corpus spongiosum

1. A column of erectile tissue in the penis

2. The male gonads

3. The tube that carries sperm cells out of the scrotum and forms part of the spermatic cord

4. Part of the testes that produces testosterone

5. Produces a milk-colored fluid that makes up about 30% of the seminal fluid

6. The male gamete

7. Structures in which sperm cells develop

8. A tough, whitish membrane that surrounds each testis

9. A saclike structure that contains the testes

10. Produces a yellowish fluid that is rich in fructose and that makes up about 60% of the seminal fluid

11. A tightly coiled, comma-shaped tube that lies along the top of and behind the testes

1. ANS: K PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 624 TOP: Male reproductive system

2. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 619 TOP: Male reproductive system

3. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 622 TOP: Male reproductive system

4. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 619 TOP: Male reproductive system

5. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 623 TOP: Male reproductive system

6. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 620-621 TOP: Male reproductive system

7. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 622 TOP: Male reproductive system

8. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 619 TOP: Male reproductive system

9. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 619 TOP: Male reproductive system 10. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 623 TOP: Male reproductive system 11. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 622 TOP: Male reproductive system

Match each term with its corresponding description or definition.

a. Impotence

b. Oligospermia

c. Epispadias

d. Sterility

e. Cryptorchidism

f. Hydrocele

g. Infertility

h. Hypospadias

i. Inguinal hernia

j. Phimosis

12. Causes scrotal swelling due to an accumulation of fluid

13. A decrease in sperm production

14. An abnormally low ability to reproduce

15. Condition that occurs when the foreskin fits so tightly over the glans that it cannot be retracted

16. Condition that occurs when the testes do not descend from the abdominal cavity to the scrotum

17. Condition that occurs when there is a failure to achieve an erection of the penis adequate to permit sexual intercourse

18. The opening of the urethral meatus on the underside of the glans

19. The opening of the urethral meatus on the dorsal or top surface of the glans

20. The complete inability to reproduce

21. A swelling of the scrotum caused by part of the intestine that has pushed through the abdominal wall into the scrotum

12. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 626 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

13. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 625 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

14. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 625 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

15. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 624 TOP: Male reproductive system

16. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 625 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

17. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 626 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

18. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 625 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

19. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 626 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

20. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 624 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

21. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 626 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

Match each term with its corresponding description or definition.

a. Follicle-stimulating hormone

b. Fimbriae

c. Cervix

d. Vulva

e. Graafian follicle

f. Proliferative phase

g. Oviduct

h. Ovaries

i. Luteinizing hormone

j. Corpus luteum

k. Vagina

l. Ova

m. Secretory phase

n. Fundus

o. Menarche

22. Part of the menstrual cycle that begins at ovulation and ends at menses

23. The part of the fallopian tube that catches the ova at ovulation

24. The female gonads

25. Carries the ova from the ovaries to the uterus

26. Another term for the female external genitalia

27. The female gametes

28. Produces the hormone progesterone after ovulation

29. A mature ovum in its sac

30. Lower part of the uterus

31. Phase of the menstrual cycle that occurs between menses and ovulation

32. Part of the uterus that is above the entrance of the fallopian tubes

33. Structure that receives sperm during intercourse and is the last part of the birth canal

34. The first menses

35. Main hormone responsible for ovulation

36. Hormone that causes several immature ovarian follicles to start growing

22. ANS: M PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 634 TOP: Female reproductive system

23. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 630 TOP: Female reproductive system

24. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 627 TOP: Female reproductive system

25. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 630 TOP: Female reproductive system

26. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 632 TOP: Female reproductive system

27. ANS: L PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 627 TOP: Female reproductive system

28. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 628 TOP: Female reproductive system

29. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 628 TOP: Female reproductive system

30. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 631 TOP: Female reproductive system

31. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 634 TOP: Female reproductive system

32. ANS: N PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 631 TOP: Female reproductive system

33. ANS: K PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 631 TOP: Female reproductive system

34. ANS: O PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 633 TOP: Female reproductive system

35. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 634 TOP: Female reproductive system

36. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 635 TOP: Female reproductive system

Match each term with its corresponding description or definition.

a. Salpingitis

b. Oophoritis

c. Amenorrhea

d. Ovarian cysts

e. Uterine myoma

f. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding

g. Dysmenorrhea

h. Premenstrual syndrome

i. Endometriosis

37. Benign enlargements on one or both ovaries

38. Involves a collection of symptoms that regularly occur in some women during the secretory phase of their reproductive cycle

39. Painful periods

40. An inflammation of the uterine tubes

41. The absence of normal menstruation

42. Irregular or excessive uterine bleeding that most often results from a hormonal imbalance

43. The presence of functioning endometrial tissue outside the uterus

44. Benign tumors of the uterine fibrous or smooth muscle tissue

45. An inflammation of the ovaries

37. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 637 TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

38. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 636 TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

39. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 635 TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

40. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 636 TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

41. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 635 TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

42. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 635 TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

43. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 637 TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

44. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 636 TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

45. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 636 TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

SHORT ANSWER

1. Explain the difference between sexual and asexual reproduction.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 617 TOP: Sexual reproduction

2. Explain the different roles that the male and female reproductive systems have in reproduction.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 617-618

TOP: Common structural and functional characteristics between the sexes

3. List the essential and accessory organs of the male reproductive system.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 618-619

TOP: Male reproductive system

4. Describe the structure and location of the testes.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 619 TOP: Male reproductive system

5. Explain the process of spermatogenesis.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 619-620

TOP: Male reproductive system

6. Explain why it is necessary that gametes have only 23 chromosomes rather than the normal 46.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 628

TOP: Male reproductive system

7. Describe the structure of the spermatozoa. Include the function of the acrosome and the midpiece.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 619

TOP: Male reproductive system

8. List and explain the functions of testosterone.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 621-622

TOP: Male reproductive system

9. Many steroids that are illegal for athletes are testosterone-based. Which of the functions of testosterone would help an athlete perform better?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: pp. 621-622

TOP: Male reproductive system

10. List, describe, and explain the functions of the reproductive ducts of the male reproductive system.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 622

TOP: Male reproductive system

11. List, describe, and explain the functions of the accessory or supportive sex glands of the male reproductive system.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 623 TOP: Male reproductive system

12. Describe the male external genitalia.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 623-624

TOP: Male reproductive system

13. Explain the difference between infertility and sterility.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 624

TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

14. What is cryptorchidism, and how can it be treated?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 625 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

15. What is benign prostatic hypertrophy? How can it lead to urinary retention?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 625 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

16. What are some treatments for cancer of the prostate?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 625 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

17. What is hypospadias? What is epispadias?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 625-626

TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

18. What is impotence? How can it be treated?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 626

TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

19. What are the essential organs of the female reproductive system? What are the accessory organs of the female reproductive system?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 627

TOP: Female reproductive system

20. Explain the steps in the formation and release of an ovum.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 627-628

TOP: Female reproductive system

21. Explain the process of oogenesis. How is it different from spermatogenesis? What is the function of the polar bodies?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 628-629

TOP: Female reproductive system

22. Explain the functions of estrogen and progesterone.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 629-630

TOP: Female reproductive system

23. Describe and give the function of the uterine tubes.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

TOP: Female reproductive system

REF: p. 630

24. How can the structure of the female reproductive system increase the risk of abdominal infection?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

TOP: Female reproductive system

25. Describe the structure of the uterus.

ANS: Answers will vary.

REF: pp. 627-630

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 630-631

TOP: Female reproductive system

26. Describe the vagina. What are its functions?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 631

TOP: Female reproductive system

27. Describe the structure of the breast. Explain how the size of the breast affects the ability to produce milk.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 631-632

TOP: Female reproductive system

28. Describe the female external genitalia.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 632-633

TOP: Female reproductive system

29. Explain the menstrual cycle including the role of all hormones involved.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 633-635

TOP: Female reproductive system

30. Explain dysmenorrhea and amenorrhea.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 635

TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

31. What is dysfunctional uterine bleeding, and how can it be treated?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 635-636

TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

32. Name and explain the two types of ovarian cysts.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 637

TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

33. Explain the various treatments for breast cancer.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 637-638

TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

34. What are the risk factors of ovarian cancer, and how is it treated?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 638

TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

35. What are the two types of uterine cancer? Explain who would be most at risk for each type.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 638 TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

36. Give the name, pathogen, and description of three sexually transmitted diseases.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 639-641 TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

TRUE/FALSE

1. Both the ova and sperm are considered gametes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 618 TOP: Sexual reproduction

2. The union of gametes produces a zygote.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 618 TOP: Sexual reproduction

3. Zygotes are only produced by organisms that reproduce sexually.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 618 TOP: Sexual reproduction

4. The penis is the essential organ of the male reproductive system.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 618 TOP: Male reproductive system

5. The main reason that the testes are located in the scrotum is to ensure that the increased temperature needed for sperm development can be maintained.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 619 TOP: Male reproductive system

6. The tough, whitish membrane that surrounds each testis is called the tunica albuginea.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 619 TOP: Male reproductive system

7. Sperm cells mature within the interstitial cells.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 619 TOP: Male reproductive system

8. The seminiferous tubules make up the bulk of the tissue of the testes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 622 TOP: Male reproductive system

9. The interstitial cells produce testosterone.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 619 TOP: Male reproductive system

10. The stem cells for spermatogenesis are the primary spermatocytes.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 619-620 TOP: Male reproductive system

11. The primary spermatocyte contains 23 chromosomes.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 620 TOP: Male reproductive system

12. The spermatids contain 23 chromosomes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 620 TOP: Male reproductive system

13. It is important for human gametes to have only 23 chromosomes so that the zygote will have the correct number of chromosomes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 617-618 TOP: Male reproductive system

14. The sperm cell is one of the largest and most specialized cells in the male body.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 628 TOP: Male reproductive system

15. The acrosome stores mitochondria that provide energy for the sperm.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 621 TOP: Male reproductive system

16. The mitochondria in the sperm’s midpiece supply energy by breaking down ATP.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 621 TOP: Male reproductive system

17. The function of the acrosomes of the sperm is digestion.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 621

TOP: Male reproductive system

18. One function of testosterone is the promotion and maintenance of the male accessory organs.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 621-622 TOP: Male reproductive system

19. Chemically, testosterone is a steroid and because of its function, it can be called an anabolic steroid.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 622

TOP: Male reproductive system

20. Sperm cells develop in the walls of the seminiferous tubules.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 619 TOP: Male reproductive system

21. The epididymis carries sperm out of the scrotum and becomes part of the spermatic cord.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 622-623 TOP: Male reproductive system

22. The epididymis is contained completely within the scrotum.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 622 TOP: Male reproductive system

23. The ductus deferens and the vas deferens are the same structure.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 622 TOP: Male reproductive system

24. The ductus deferens is contained completely within the scrotum.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 622-623 TOP: Male reproductive system

25. The ductus deferens carries sperm out of the scrotum and is part of the spermatic cord.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 622-623 TOP: Male reproductive system

26. The prostate gland produces a milk-colored fluid that makes up about 60% of the seminal fluid.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 623 TOP: Male reproductive system

27. Each 3 to 5 mL of seminal fluid contains up to 10 million sperm.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 623 TOP: Male reproductive system

28. The seminal vesicles produce a yellowish fluid that contains fructose and makes up about 30% of the seminal fluid.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 623 TOP: Male reproductive system

29. The bulbourethral gland produces a lubricating secretion that makes up about 5% of the seminal fluid.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 623 TOP: Male reproductive system

30. The corpus spongiosum and cavernosum are erectile tissues in the penis.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 624 TOP: Male reproductive system

31. There are two columns of the corpus spongiosum and one column of the corpus cavernosum.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 624 TOP: Male reproductive system

32. The scrotum contains the testes, the epididymis, and part of the ductus deferens.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 624 TOP: Male reproductive system

33. Oligospermia causes sterility.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 625

TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

34. Oligospermia causes infertility.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 625 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

35. A baby born with undescended testes has the condition of cryptorchidism.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 625 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

36. Testes will not function properly in the abdominal cavity because the body temperature is too high.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 625 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

37. Testicular cancer is most common in men between the ages of 50 and 70.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 625 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

38. A major concern with benign prostatic hypertrophy is the constriction of urine flow through the urethra.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 625 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

39. Both hypospadias and epispadias are conditions in which the urethral meatus opens in an abnormal location.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 625-626 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

40. A hydrocele is a condition in which fluid has accumulated in the scrotum.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 626 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

41. Most cases of erectile dysfunction have a psychological cause.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 626 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

42. Medical treatment of erectile dysfunction focuses on the functioning of the corpus cavernosum and spongiosum.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 626 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

43. An inguinal hernia occurs when part of the intestine pushes through the abdominal wall into the scrotum.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 626 TOP: Disorders of the male reproductive system

44. The gonads of the female are the ovaries.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 627 TOP: Female reproductive system

45. Unlike the gonads of the male, the gonads of the female are in the pelvic cavity.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 627 TOP: Female reproductive system

46. There are more primary follicles than ovarian follicles.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 627 TOP: Female reproductive system

47. A mature ovum in its sac is sometimes called a graafian follicle.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 628 TOP: Female reproductive system

48. The hollow chamber called the antrum and the ovum together make up a structure called the corpus luteum.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 627 TOP: Female reproductive system

49. The outcome of oogenesis is one large egg containing 23 chromosomes and three polar bodies.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 628 TOP: Female reproductive system

50. The egg is one of the largest cells in the body.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 628 TOP: Female reproductive system

51. The main function of the polar bodies is to help reduce the chromosome number to 23 for the egg.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 628

TOP: Female reproductive system

52. The hormone estrogen is produced in the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates the development and maturation of the female reproductive organs.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 629 TOP: Female reproductive system

53. One of the functions of estrogen is to help in the initiation of menarche.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 629

TOP: Female reproductive system

54. Progesterone is produced by the corpus luteum.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 629 TOP: Female reproductive system

55. The uterine tubes, oviducts, and fallopian tubes are all the same structure.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 630 TOP: Female reproductive system

56. The oviducts are attached to the ovaries by special structures called fimbriae.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 630 TOP: Female reproductive system

57. Fertilization usually occurs in the uterus.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 630 TOP: Female reproductive system

58. The muscular layer of the uterus is called the myometrium.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 630-631 TOP: Female reproductive system

59. The fundus is located below the body of the uterus, but above the cervix.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 631 TOP: Female reproductive system

60. The lower part of the uterus is called the cervix.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 631 TOP: Female reproductive system

61. The fundus is the area of the uterus above the attachment of the oviducts.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 631 TOP: Female reproductive system

62. The vagina acts as the last part of the birth canal.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 631 TOP: Female reproductive system

63. The amount of milk produced is directly related to the size of the breasts.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 631-632 TOP: Female reproductive system

64. Another name for the female external genitalia is the vulva.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 632 TOP: Female reproductive system

65. The labia minora is the part of the female external genitalia that is composed of erectile tissue.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 633 TOP: Female reproductive system

66. The first menses is called menarche.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 633 TOP: Female reproductive system

67. The proliferative phase is the phase between menses and ovulation.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 634 TOP: Female reproductive system

68. The secretory phase is the phase between ovulation and menses.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 634 TOP: Female reproductive system

69. The proliferative phase is always longer than the secretory phase.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 634 TOP: Female reproductive system

70. The secretory phase is always longer than the proliferative phase.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 634 TOP: Female reproductive system

71. Although the proliferative phase can vary in length, the secretory phase is almost always 14 days long.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 634 TOP: Female reproductive system

72. Both follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone are secreted by the pituitary gland.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 635 TOP: Female reproductive system

73. The hormone most responsible for ovulation is follicle-stimulating hormone.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 634 TOP: Female reproductive system

74. The function of follicle-stimulating hormone is to stimulate the growth of immature ovarian follicles.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 635 TOP: Female reproductive system

75. Amenorrhea is a term used to describe painful periods.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 636 TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

76. Salpingitis is the inflammation of the oviducts, and oophoritis is the inflammation of the ovaries.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 636 TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

77. Uterine myoma is another term for uterine cancer.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 637 TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

78. An ovarian cyst is the first stage of ovarian cancer.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 637 TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

79. Cervical cancer can be detected by a screening test called a Papanicolaou test, or Pap test.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 638 TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

80. The terms infertility and sterility mean the same thing.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 638-639 TOP: Disorders of the female reproductive system

81. The granulosa cells in the female and the interstitial cells in the male both produce sex hormones.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 619 | p. 627

TOP: The male reproductive system | The female reproductive system

82. Sexually transmitted diseases and venereal diseases refer to the same types of diseases.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 639 TOP: Sexually transmitted diseases

83. The function of the reproductive system is very different from any other system because it does not deal with the survival of the individual.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 617 TOP: Introduction

84. The primary function of the male and female reproductive systems is to transfer genes to the next generation of offspring.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 617 TOP: Introduction

85. The siblings produced by sexual reproduction are more alike than siblings produced by asexual reproduction.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 617-618

TOP: Sexual reproduction

86. Spermatozoa are the gonads of the male.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 619 TOP: Male reproductive system

87. Follicle-stimulating hormone causes a spermatogonium to undergo spermatogenesis.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 619 TOP: Spermatogenesis

88. Seminal fluid contains gametes and secretions from accessory glands.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 623 TOP: Accessory or supportive sex glands

89. Another name for the seminal vesicles is the Cowper glands.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 623 TOP: Accessory or supportive sex glands

90. Mammary glands are considered accessory organs of the female reproductive system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 627 TOP: Female reproductive system

91. The corpus luteum secretes a hormone that stimulates ovulation.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 634 TOP: Ovaries

92. Progesterone stimulates proliferation and vascularization of the uterine lining.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 629 TOP: Female reproductive system

93. The part of the uterine tube that enters the uterus is called the fimbriae.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 630 TOP: Reproductive ducts

94. The uterus plays an important role in menstruation, pregnancy, and labor.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 631 TOP: Uterus

95. The lesser vestibular glands are also called the Bartholin glands.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 631 TOP: Female reproductive system

96. The area between the vaginal opening and the anus is called the perineum.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 633 TOP: External genitals

97. The most frequent cause of dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB) is infection.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 635 TOP: Hormonal and menstrual disorders

98. One possible symptom of vaginitis is leukorrhea.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 637 TOP: Infection and inflammation

99. The presence of functional endometrial tissue outside the uterus is called endometriosis.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 637 TOP: Tumor and related conditions

100. The terms sexually transmitted disease and sexually transmitted infection mean the same thing.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 639 TOP: Sexually transmitted diseases

Chapter 24: Growth, Development, and Aging

Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following terms refers to a fertilized ovum?

a. Blastocyst

b. Embryo

c. Zygote

d. Morula

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 654 TOP: Prenatal period

2. Which structure is a solid ball of cells that forms about 3 days after fertilization?

a. Blastocyst

b. Embryo

c. Zygote

d. Morula

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 654 TOP: Prenatal period

3. Which structure is a hollow ball of cells that develops and implants into the uterus?

a. Blastocyst

b. Embryo

c. Zygote

d. Morula

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 654 TOP: Prenatal period

4. Fertilization usually occurs in the

a. uterus.

b. outer third of the oviduct near the ovary.

c. inner third of the oviduct near the uterus.

d. ovarian follicle.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 654 TOP: Prenatal period

5. The function of the yolk sac is to

a. provide food until the blastocyst implants in the uterus.

b. develop into a protective structure called the “bag of waters.”

c. help in the production of blood cells.

d. All of the above are functions of the yolk sac.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 654 TOP: Prenatal period

6. The blastocyst undergoes rapid cell division and is _______________ as the fertilized egg.

a. about twice as large

b. about four times as large

c. almost eight times as large

d. the same size

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 654 TOP: Prenatal period

7. Which of the following is not a function of the placenta?

a. Acting as the nutrient bridge between mother and baby

b. Acting as an excretory organ

c. Acting as an endocrine organ

d. All of the above are functions of the placenta.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 655 TOP: Prenatal period

8. The sequence of development for the fertilized egg is

a. fertilization, zygote, morula, implantation, and blastocyst.

b. fertilization, zygote, morula, blastocyst, and implantation.

c. fertilization, zygote, blastocyst, morula, and implantation.

d. fertilization, zygote, blastocyst, implantation, and morula.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 654 TOP: Prenatal period

9. Which of the following is not formed by the mesoderm?

a. Dermis of the skin

b. Kidneys

c. Bladder

d. Muscles

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 658 TOP: Prenatal period

10. Which of the following is not formed by the endoderm?

a. Lining of the lungs

b. Nasal bones

c. Thymus gland

d. Tonsils

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 658 TOP: Prenatal period

11. Which of the following is not formed by the ectoderm?

a. Dermis of the skin

b. Epidermis of the skin

c. Brain

d. Spinal cord

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 658 TOP: Prenatal period

12. The time from maximal cervical dilation until the baby exits through the vagina is the _____ stage of labor.

a. first

b. second

c. third

d. fourth

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 661 TOP: Birth or parturition

13. The time from the onset of uterine contractions to the complete dilation of the cervix is the

_____ stage of labor.

a. first

b. second

c. third

d. fourth

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 661 TOP: Birth or parturition

14. The process of the expulsion of the placenta occurs in the _____ stage of labor.

a. first

b. second

c. third

d. fourth

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 661 TOP: Birth or parturition

15. Blood type is an inherited trait; therefore

a. identical twins must have the same blood type.

b. fraternal twins must have the same blood type.

c. identical twins may have the same blood type, but do not have to have the same blood type.

d. both A and B.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 661

TOP: Birth or parturition

16. Identical twins

a. are the result of a single fertilized egg.

b. usually share an umbilical cord.

c. usually share a placenta.

d. both A and C.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 661 TOP: Birth or parturition

17. Fraternal twins

a. are the result of two fertilized eggs.

b. must be of the same sex.

c. must have the same blood type.

d. All of the above are true.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 661 TOP: Birth or parturition

18. The implantation of a fertilized egg outside the uterus is called

a. placenta previa.

b. abruptio placentae.

c. ectopic pregnancy.

d. preeclampsia.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 662 TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

19. If a blastocyst implants too close to the cervical opening, which of the following conditions can develop?

a. Placenta previa

b. Abruptio placentae

c. Ectopic pregnancy

d. Preeclampsia

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 662 TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

20. Separation of the placenta from the uterine wall after 20 weeks’ gestation is a condition called

a. placenta previa.

b. abruptio placentae.

c. ectopic pregnancy.

d. preeclampsia.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 662 TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

21. Toxemia of pregnancy is another term for which of the following?

a. Placenta previa

b. Abruptio placentae

c. Ectopic pregnancy

d. Preeclampsia

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 662 TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

22. Which of the following is not a teratogenic cause of birth defects?

a. Alcohol

b. Genes

c. Radiation

d. Infection

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 663 TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

23. The period of infancy occurs for

a. 4 weeks after birth.

b. 1 year.

c. 18 months.

d. 2 years.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 665 TOP: Postnatal period

24. Childhood

a. occurs from infancy to age 10.

b. occurs from the end of infancy to sexual maturity.

c. is usually longer in boys than girls.

d. both B and C.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 666 TOP: Postnatal period

25. Adolescence is

a. generally considered to be the teenage years.

b. characterized by the completion of the deciduous teeth.

c. characterized by the full closure of the bone growth plates.

d. All of the above are true of adolescence.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 666 TOP: Postnatal period

26. Which of the following is true of the embryo after 35 days of development?

a. The heart is beating.

b. The eyes are visible.

c. The limb buds are visible.

d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 657 TOP: Periods of development

27. Which of the following does not contribute to a newborn’s Apgar score?

a. Weight of the baby at birth

b. Heart rate

c. Muscle tone

d. All of the above contribute to the Apgar score.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 661 TOP: Birth or parturition

28. Which of the following is considered a postpartum disorder?

a. Abruptio placentae

b. Puerperal fever

c. Preeclampsia

d. Both A and B are considered postpartum disorders.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 663 TOP: Postpartum disorders

MATCHING

Match each term with its corresponding description or definition.

a. Yolk sac

b. Fraternal twins

c. Zygote

d. Histogenesis

e. Amniotic cavity

f. Identical twins

g. Morula

h. Primary germ layers

i. Blastocyst

j. Placenta

1. The endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm

2. Structure that becomes a fluid-filled, shock-absorbing structure sometimes called the “bag of waters”

3. The newly fertilized egg

4. The formation of tissues

5. The hollow ball of cells that implants in the uterus

6. Structure that supplies food for the embryo in some creatures, but in humans it functions in the formation of blood cells

7. Structure that anchors the embryo to the uterus and exchanges material between the mother and baby

8. The solid ball of cells that develops from the fertilized egg

9. Twins that develop from one fertilized egg and are genetically identical

10. Twins that develop from two fertilized eggs and are no more alike than other siblings

1. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 657 TOP: Prenatal period

2. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 654-655 TOP: Prenatal period

3. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 654 TOP: Prenatal period

4. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 658 TOP: Prenatal period

5. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 654 TOP: Prenatal period

6. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 654 TOP: Prenatal period

7. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 655 TOP: Prenatal period

8. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 654 TOP: Prenatal period

9. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 661 TOP: Birth or parturition

10. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 661 TOP: Birth or parturition

Match each term with its corresponding description or definition.

a. Placenta previa

b. Abruptio placentae

c. Eclampsia

d. Ectopic pregnancy

e. Teratogen

f. Preeclampsia

g. Mastitis

h. Puerperal fever

11. An inflammation of the breast that can cause problems in lactation

12. Condition that occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus

13. An environmental cause of birth defects

14. Condition that can occur when the fertilized egg implants too near the cervix of the uterus

15. Condition that occurs in about 1 in 20 pregnancies; characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema

16. A condition in which the placenta has pulled away from the uterine wall

17. A syndrome of postpartum mothers characterized by bacterial infection that progresses to septicemia

18. A life-threatening form of toxemia that causes severe convulsions, coma, and kidney failure and is potentially fatal to mother and baby

11. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 663-664 TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

12. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 662 TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

13. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 663 TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

14. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 662 TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

15. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 662 TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

16. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 662 TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

17. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 663 TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

18. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 662 TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

Match each term with its corresponding description or definition. a. Glaucoma

b. Osteoarthritis

c. Menopause

d. Atherosclerosis

e. Lipping

f. Cataract

g. Presbyopia

19. Condition that occurs when old bones develop shaggy-appearing margins with spurs

20. Condition that occurs when fatty deposits build up in blood vessel walls and narrow the passageway for blood

21. Condition that means “old eye” and is caused by a loss of elasticity in the lenses of the eye

22. The cessation of reproductive cycling in women

23. Causes an increase in pressure within the eyeball

24. Condition that occurs when the lens of the eye becomes cloudy and significantly impairs vision

25. A common degenerative joint disease in elderly adults

19. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 668 TOP: Effects of aging

20. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 669 TOP: Effects of aging

21. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 669 TOP: Effects of aging

22. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 670 TOP: Effects of aging

23. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 669 TOP: Effects of aging

24. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 669 TOP: Effects of aging

25. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 668 TOP: Effects of aging

SHORT ANSWER

1. Explain the events from fertilization to the implantation of the blastocyst into the uterus.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 654 TOP: Prenatal period

2. Explain the function of the yolk sac, amniotic sac, chorionic villi, and the placenta.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 654-656

TOP: Prenatal period

3. Name the three primary germ layers, and name two organs or organ systems that develop from each.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 657-658

TOP: Prenatal period

4. Describe the events that occur in the three stages of labor.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 661

TOP: Birth or parturition

5. Bob and his sister Betty are twins. Are they fraternal twins or identical twins? Explain your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 661

TOP: Birth or parturition

6. Explain how the use of fertility drugs can increase the frequency of multiple births. If twins result from fertility drugs, are they likely to be identical or fraternal? Explain your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 661 TOP: Birth or parturition

7. Name and explain three types of implantation disorders.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 662 TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

8. What is preeclampsia? What is eclampsia?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

9. Define and give three examples of a teratogen.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

REF: p. 662

REF: p. 663

10. When is infancy? What changes or developmental events occur during infancy?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

TOP: Postnatal period

REF: pp. 665-666

11. When is childhood, and what changes or developmental events occur during childhood?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 666 TOP: Postnatal period

12. When is adolescence, and what changes or developmental events occur during adolescence?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 666

TOP: Postnatal period

13. What changes or developmental events occur during adulthood?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 666-667

TOP: Postnatal period

14. Explain two theories of aging.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 668

TOP: Postnatal period

15. Select four body systems, and explain the effects of aging on each system.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 668-670 TOP: Postnatal period

16. What are stem cells? Where can they be found in the embryo? Where can they be found in an adult?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 657 TOP: Stem cells

17. What are Apgar scores used for? What criteria are used to determine the Apgar score?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 661 TOP: Birth or parturition

TRUE/FALSE

1. The event that divides the prenatal and postnatal periods is birth.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 653 TOP: Introduction

2. The union of the sperm and egg creates a zygote.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 654 TOP: Prenatal period

3. After ovulation, the ovum immediately enters the fallopian tube.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 654 TOP: Prenatal period

4. Fertilization usually occurs at the segment of the oviduct nearest the uterus.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 654 TOP: Prenatal period

5. The morula is larger and has more cells than the zygote.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 654 TOP: Prenatal period

6. The blastocyst implants into the uterine wall.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 654 TOP: Prenatal period

7. One of the reasons the egg cell is so large is to supply food for the zygote until it implants in the uterus.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 654 TOP: Prenatal period

8. One of the primary functions of the yolk sac is to provide food for the blastocyst until it implants in the uterine wall.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 654 TOP: Prenatal period

9. The chorionic villi allow the blood of the mother to mix with the blood of the baby so there can be an exchange of material.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 655 TOP: Prenatal period

10. One of the functions of the placenta is to act as an endocrine gland.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 655 TOP: Prenatal period

11. One of the most important functions of the placenta is to act as a barrier to keep potentially harmful materials such as alcohol or viruses from hurting the baby.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 655 TOP: Prenatal period

12. The length of the pregnancy is referred to as the gestation period.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 656 TOP: Prenatal period

13. The developing baby is called a fetus for the last 3 months of pregnancy.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 656 TOP: Prenatal period

14. By day 35 of gestation, the embryo has a beating heart.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 656 TOP: Prenatal period

15. By 4 months of gestation, all of the organ systems are complete and in place.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 656-657 TOP: Prenatal period

16. The primary germ layers of the body produce the gametes that join to form the zygote.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 654 TOP: Prenatal period

17. The mesoderm forms the muscles of the body.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 658 TOP: Prenatal period

18. The ectoderm forms the dermis and epidermis of the skin.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 658 TOP: Prenatal period

19. The endoderm forms the brain and spinal cord.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 658 TOP: Prenatal period

20. Histogenesis must precede organogenesis.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 658 TOP: Prenatal period

21. Organogenesis must precede histogenesis.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 658 TOP: Prenatal period

22. Another term for birth is parturition.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 658 TOP: Birth or parturition

23. Stage three of labor starts when the cervix is fully dilated.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 661 TOP: Birth or parturition

24. Stage one of labor ends when the cervix is fully dilated.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 661 TOP: Birth or parturition

25. Stage two of labor ends with the birth of the baby.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 661 TOP: Birth or parturition

26. Stage three of labor ends with the birth of the baby.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 661 TOP: Birth or parturition

27. Stage three of labor ends with the expulsion of the placenta.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 661 TOP: Birth or parturition

28. Stage two of labor is usually the longest of the three stages.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 661 TOP: Birth or parturition

29. Stage three of labor is usually the shortest.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 661 TOP: Birth or parturition

30. A woman who delivers her baby by cesarean section cannot go through any of the three stages of labor.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 661

TOP: Birth or parturition

31. Identical twins must have the same color eyes and hair.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 658

TOP: Birth or parturition

32. It is possible for identical twins to have different biological fathers.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 661

TOP: Birth or parturition

33. Identical twins usually share one umbilical cord and one placenta.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 661 TOP: Birth or parturition

34. Fraternal twins can be of different sexes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 661 TOP: Birth or parturition

35. Fraternal twins can have different biological fathers.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 661 TOP: Birth or parturition

36. Identical twins come from one fertilized egg.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 661 TOP: Birth or parturition

37. Fertility drugs increase the likelihood of having identical twins.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 661 TOP: Birth or parturition

38. If the fimbriae do not catch the ovum, an ectopic pregnancy could occur.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 661 TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

39. Ectopic pregnancies are always fatal to the embryo and are usually life threatening to the mother.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 662 TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

40. A tubal pregnancy is considered an ectopic pregnancy.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 662 TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

41. If the blastocyst implants too close to the cervix, a condition called placenta previa can occur.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 662 TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

42. Placenta previa has the highest risk for mother and baby during the first trimester of pregnancy.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 662 TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

43. Abruptio placentae occur when the placenta pulls away from the uterine wall.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 662 TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

44. Signs and symptoms of preeclampsia include high blood pressure and edema.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 662 TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

45. Preeclampsia can develop into eclampsia, which can be fatal to both mother and baby.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 662 TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

46. Birth defects can result from genetic or environmental causes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 662 TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

47. All teratogens are also mutagens.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 663 TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

48. Mutagens cause a change in the genetic code in the cells of the developing embryo.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 663 TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

49. Teratogens are most damaging to the fetus during the last trimester of pregnancy.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 663 TOP: Disorders of pregnancy

50. Infancy begins at birth and lasts about 18 months.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 665 TOP: Postnatal period

51. The first 4 months after birth are referred to as the neonatal period.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 665 TOP: Postnatal period

52. The stimulus for a baby’s first breath is the lack of oxygen coming through the umbilical cord.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 665 TOP: Postnatal period

53. Two systems that undergo very rapid development during infancy are the muscular system and the nervous system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 665-666 TOP: Postnatal period

54. The deciduous (baby) teeth both appear and are lost during childhood.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 666 TOP: Postnatal period

55. One of the most important changes during adolescence is the completion of the development of the secondary sex characteristics.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 666 TOP: Postnatal period

56. The full closure of the growth plates of the skeletal system occurs during early adulthood.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 666 TOP: Postnatal period

57. The number of nephrons in the kidney decreases by 25% between the ages of 30 and 75.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 670 TOP: Effects of aging

58. As a person ages, the rib cage becomes fixed and less able to expand and contract. This causes a condition called “barrel chest,” which actually adds to the efficiency of breathing.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 669 TOP: Effects of aging

59. The loss of hair cells in the organ of Corti causes a decline in the hearing ability in older adults.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 669 TOP: Effects of aging

60. Only about 40% of the taste buds present at age 30 remain in a person at age 75.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 669 TOP: Effects of aging

61. The science of the development of the individual before birth is called neonatology.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 654 TOP: Prenatal period

62. The fimbriae are the parts of the oviducts that are nearest the ovary.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 654 TOP: Fertilization to implantation

63. The placenta contains tissue from both mother and baby.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 655 TOP: Fertilization to implantation

64. A woman who delivered a baby after 35 weeks of gestation would have had a full-term pregnancy.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 658 TOP: Periods of development

65. The morula would be made exclusively of stem cells.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 657 TOP: Stem cells

66. Because the adult body has fully differentiated cells, it contains no stem cells.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 657 TOP: Stem cells

67. If a fetus presents in the breech position, a cesarean section may be necessary.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 658 TOP: Birth or parturition

68. Five criteria are used to determine an Apgar score.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 661 TOP: Birth or parturition

69. An Apgar score of a completely healthy baby would be 5.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 661 TOP: Birth or parturition

70. If all other criteria for the Apgar score were equal, a baby who is underweight would have a lower score than a baby of normal weight.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 661 TOP: Birth or parturition

71. Puerperal fever is considered a postpartum disorder.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 663 TOP: Postpartum disorders

Chapter 25: Genetics and Genetic Diseases

Patton: The Human Body in Health & Disease, 7th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. During cell division, each replicated strand of chromatin coils to form a compact mass called a

a. gene.

b. messenger RNA.

c. chromosome.

d. both A and C.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 680 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

2. The final product of a gene is a

a. chromatin strand.

b. protein.

c. messenger RNA molecule.

d. chromosome.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 680 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

3. The entire collection of genetic material in each typical cell of the human body is called the

a. genome.

b. karyotype.

c. chromosomes.

d. both B and C.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 680 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

4. The human genome contains about how many genes?

a. 100,000

b. 75,000

c. 50,000

d. 20,000

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 680 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

5. The shorter segment of a chromosome is called the _____-arm.

a. l

b. p

c. q

d. s

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 680 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

6. The longer segment of a chromosome is called the _____-arm.

a. l

b. p

c. q

d. s

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 680 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

7. The structure that divides the chromosome into longer and shorter segments is called the

a. centromere.

b. genome.

c. mitochondria.

d. centrioles.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 680

TOP: Chromosomes and genes

8. The process by which gametes have their chromosome number reduced by half is called

a. mitosis.

b. crossing-over.

c. meiosis.

d. linkage.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 682 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

9. A mechanism that helps ensure genetic variation is

a. sperm cells not sharing the same genome.

b. egg cells not sharing the same genome.

c. crossing-over.

d. all of the above.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 681-682

TOP: Chromosomes and genes

10. If both the mother and father are carriers for albinism, the probability that their offspring will be albino is

a. 0%.

b. 25%.

c. 50%.

d. 100%.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 682-683

TOP: Gene expression | Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

11. The mother is a carrier for albinism and the father has two dominant genes for normal skin color. The probability that their offspring will be albino is

a. 0%.

b. 25%.

c. 50%.

d. 100%.

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 682

TOP: Gene expression | Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

12. If both the mother and father are albino, the probability that their offspring will be albino is

a. 0%.

b. 25%.

c. 50%.

d. 100%.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 682-683

TOP: Gene expression | Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

13. A mother who is a carrier for red-green color-blindness and a father with normal vision will produce which of the following offspring?

a. 25% of their daughters will be color-blind

b. 50% of their daughters will be color-blind

c. 25% of their sons will be color-blind

d. 50% of their sons will be color-blind

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 684

TOP: Gene expression

14. A mother with normal vision (not a carrier for color-blindness) and a father who is colorblind will produce which of the following offspring?

a. 100% of the sons will be color-blind

b. 50% of the sons will be color-blind

c. 100% of the daughters will be carriers for color-blindness

d. 50% of the daughters will be carriers for color-blindness

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 684

TOP: Gene expression | Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

15. Which of the following can be a genetic mutagen?

a. Radiation

b. Virus

c. Chemicals

d. All of the above can be genetic mutagens.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 684

TOP: Gene expression

16. A person with trisomy has _____ chromosomes.

a. 45

b. 46

c. 47

d. 48

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 688

TOP: Genetic diseases

17. A person with monosomy has _____ chromosomes.

a. 45

b. 46

c. 47

d. 48

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 690

TOP: Genetic diseases

18. Which of the following conditions results from trisomy?

a. Down syndrome

b. Turner syndrome

c. Klinefelter syndrome

d. Both A and C

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 688

TOP: Genetic diseases

19. Which of the following conditions results from monosomy?

a. Down syndrome

b. Turner syndrome

c. Klinefelter syndrome

d. Both A and C

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 689

TOP: Genetic diseases

20. Which of the following is a photograph of chromosomes that are cut out and pasted onto a chart and used to detect chromosomal disorders?

a. Pedigree

b. Karyotype

c. Punnett square

d. Plasmid

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 690-691 TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

21. Which of the following is a grid used to determine the probability of inheriting a genetic trait?

a. Pedigree

b. Karyotype

c. Punnett square

d. Plasmid

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 690 TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

22. Which of the following is a chart that illustrates the genetic relationship in a family over several generations?

a. Pedigree

b. Karyotype

c. Punnett square

d. Plasmid

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 690 TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

23. Which of the following does not describe a gene?

a. A sequence of DNA nucleotide bases

b. Used to transcribe a specific mRNA molecule

c. Used to determine the structure of regulatory enzymes for the cell

d. All of the above describe a gene.

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 680 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

24. What percent of DNA carries functional genes?

a. Less than 2%

b. Close to 5%

c. About 10%

d. More than 25%

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 680 TOP: The human genome

25. Which of the following terms describes a noncoding part of DNA that may be a fragmented or a nonfunctional gene?

a. Genome

b. Pseudogene

c. Genomic

d. Proteome

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 680 TOP: The human genome

26. Which of the following genetic diseases results from a recessive gene that fails to produce an enzyme needed to convert an amino acid into tyrosine?

a. Tay-Sachs disease

b. Cystic fibrosis

c. Phenylketonuria

d. Turner syndrome

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 686 TOP: Single-gene diseases

27. Which of the following genetic diseases is caused by a recessive gene that causes impairment of chloride ion transport across the cell membrane?

a. Tay-Sachs disease

b. Cystic fibrosis

c. Phenylketonuria

d. Turner syndrome

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 686 TOP: Single-gene diseases

28. Which of the following genetic diseases is caused by a recessive gene that fails to make an essential lipid-processing enzyme?

a. Tay-Sachs disease

b. Cystic fibrosis

c. Phenylketonuria

d. Turner syndrome

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 688 TOP: Single-gene diseases

29. Which of the following would be most useful in detecting Turner syndrome?

a. A pedigree

b. A Punnett square

c. A karyotype

d. Both A and B would be useful in detecting Turner syndrome.

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 690 TOP: Karyotype

MATCHING

Match each term with its corresponding definition or description.

a. Proteome

b. Crossing-over

c. Dominant gene

d. Gene

e. p-arm

f. Trisomy

g. Genetics

h. Recessive gene

i. Genome

j. q-arm

k. Sex-linked trait

l. Genetic mutation

m. Monosomy

n. Autosome

o. Nondisjunction

1. Gene that does not get expressed in an individual who is a carrier

2. The shorter segment of a chromosome

3. The scientific study of genetic inheritance

4. The entire collection of genetic material in each cell in the human body

5. The group of proteins encoded by the genes of the human cell

6. A condition in which a cell has only one member of a chromosome pair

7. The discrete unit of DNA that is passed from parent to offspring and carries a genetic trait

8. Gene that expresses itself whenever it is in a cell

9. A process in which parts of chromosomes are exchanged between chromosome pairs during meiosis

10. The longer segment of the chromosome

11. A nonsex chromosome

12. A trait found on the X chromosome

13. Occurs during meiosis and can lead to monosomy or trisomy

14. A change in the genetic material

15. A condition in which a cell has three members of a chromosome pair

1. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 682 TOP: Gene expression

2. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 680 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

3. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 679-680 TOP: Genetics and human disease

4. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 680 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

5. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 680 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

6. ANS: M PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 686 TOP: Genetic diseases

7. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 680 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

8. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 682 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

9. ANS: B PTS: 0 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 682 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

10. ANS: J PTS: 0 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 680 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

11. ANS: N PTS: 0 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 682 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

12. ANS: K PTS: 0 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 683 TOP: Gene expression

13. ANS: O PTS: 0 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 685-686 TOP: Genetic diseases

14. ANS: L PTS: 0 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 684 TOP: Gene expression

15. ANS: F PTS: 0 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 685-686 TOP: Genetic diseases

Match each term with its corresponding definition or description.

a. Turner syndrome

b. Cystic fibrosis

c. Down syndrome

d. Pedigree

e. Single-gene disease

f. Klinefelter syndrome

g. Karyotype

h. Genetic predisposition

i. PKU

j. Punnett square

16. The condition of having a gene that makes it more likely that you will develop a disease

17. Condition that causes the presence of an extra 21st chromosome

18. Condition caused by having a gene that makes a faulty protein that prevents the movement of sodium ions into and out of the cell

19. A chart that illustrates the genetic relationship in a family over several generations

20. A grid used to determine the probability of inheriting genetic traits

21. A photograph of chromosomes that are cut out and pasted onto a chart in pairs according to size

22. Disease that occurs because of the presence of a single gene

23. Condition of people with only a single X chromosome (XO)

24. Condition of people who are missing an enzyme that should convert one amino acid into another

25. Condition of people with XXY chromosomes

16. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 685 TOP: Genetic diseases

17. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 688-689 TOP: Genetic diseases

18. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 686 TOP: Genetic diseases

19. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 690 TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

20. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 690 TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

21. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 690 TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

22. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 686 TOP: Genetic diseases

23. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 689 TOP: Genetic diseases

24. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 686 TOP: Genetic diseases

25. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 689 TOP: Genetic diseases

SHORT ANSWER

1. Explain how genes control the activity of a cell.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 680

TOP: Chromosomes and genes

2. Draw an ideogram of a hypothetical chromosome and label the p-arm and q-arm.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 680-681

TOP: Chromosomes and genes

3. Explain the ways in which genetic variation is increased when passing genetic information on to the next generation.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 681-682

TOP: Chromosomes and genes

4. Using a Punnett square, determine the probability of albinism in offspring from a mother who has normal skin color but carries the albinism trait and a father who is an albino.

ANS:

Fifty percent of the children will be albino; 50% of the children will have normal skin color.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 690 | p. 692

TOP: Gene expression

5. Using a Punnett square, determine the probability of sickle cell disease in offspring from a mother and father who both have sickle cell trait.

ANS: 25% normal blood cells, 50% sickle cell trait, and 25% sickle cell anemia.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 690 | p. 692

TOP: Gene expression

6. Using a Punnett square, determine the probability of color-blindness in offspring from a mother who is a carrier for color-blindness and a color-blind father.

ANS: 25% color-blind female, 25% color-blind male, 25% carrier female, and 25% normal vision male.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 690 | p. 692

TOP: Gene expression

7. What is a genetic mutation? List three possible genetic mutagens.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 684

TOP: Gene expression

8. Which is more likely to stay in a population: a helpful mutation or a harmful mutation? Explain your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 684

TOP: Gene expression

9. Explain the difference between a genetic disease and a genetic predisposition.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 685

TOP: Genetic diseases

10. Explain the cause and symptoms of cystic fibrosis.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 686

TOP: Genetic diseases

11. Explain the cause of and treatment for PKU.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 686-688

TOP: Genetic diseases

12. Explain the cause and symptoms of Down syndrome.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 688-689

TOP: Genetic diseases

13. Explain the cause and symptoms of Klinefelter syndrome.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 689

TOP: Genetic diseases

14. Explain the cause and symptoms of Turner syndrome.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 689

TOP: Genetic diseases

15. Turner syndrome is caused by monosomy of the sex chromosome XO. Why is there no corresponding condition for monosomy of the sex chromosome YO?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis REF: p. 689 TOP: Gene expression

16. What is a pedigree? Explain a situation in which it could be used for genetic counseling.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 690

TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

17. What is a Punnett square? Explain a situation in which it could be used for genetic counseling.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 690

TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

18. What is a karyotype? Explain a situation in which it could be used for genetic counseling.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 690-691

TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

19. Explain the difference between gene replacement therapy and gene augmentation therapy.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 692-693

TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

20. Explain the methods used by gene therapists to insert genetic material into a patient’s body.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 692-693

TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

21. Evaluate the current success of gene therapy.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: pp. 692-693

TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

22. Define or describe what is meant by a pseudogene.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: p. 680 TOP: The human genome

TRUE/FALSE

1. The scientific study of inheritance is called genetics.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 679-680 TOP: Genetics and human disease

2. Another term for a chromatin strand is a gene.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 680 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

3. The genetic code is transmitted to offspring in discrete independent units called genes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 680 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

4. The first step in gene expression is the formation of a molecule of mRNA.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 680 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

5. All DNA in a human cell is found in the nucleus.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 680 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

6. The entire collection of genetic material in a cell is called the genome.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 680 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

7. The final step in gene expression is frequently an enzyme.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 680 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

8. The human genome contains about 100,000 genes.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 680 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

9. Only slightly more than 25% of the genetic material contains functional genes; the other 75% is filler.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 680 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

10. The study of the proteins that are made by the human genome is called proteomics.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 680 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

11. An ideogram is a drawing of a chromosome.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 680 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

12. The p-arm is the long segment of the chromosome.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 680 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

13. The q-arm is the long segment of the chromosome.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 680 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

14. The p-arm and q-arm are determined by the location of the centromere.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 680

TOP: Chromosomes and genes

15. A gene can be reduced to a sequence of DNA nucleotides.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 680

TOP: Chromosomes and genes

16. Sperm from the same father will always carry the same set of chromosomes.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 681 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

17. Ova from the same mother will always carry the same set of chromosomes.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 681 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

18. Human gametes contain 23 chromosomes each.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 681 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

19. The exchange of genetic material between pairs of autosomes is called crossing-over.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 682 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

20. The process of crossing-over helps prevent genetic variation in the offspring.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 682 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

21. Two genes that are located on the same chromosome are said to be linked.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 682 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

22. The human genome contains 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 681 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

23. A dominant gene will prevent the recessive gene from being expressed.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 682 TOP: Gene expression

24. A recessive trait on an autosome will be expressed only if both chromosomes have a recessive gene.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 682

TOP: Gene expression

25. Two albino parents will have all albino children.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 682-683

TOP: Gene expression

26. An albino father and a mother with normal skin color who carries the gene for albinism have the probability of having 25% of their offspring be albino.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 682-683

TOP: Gene expression

27. A father and mother who both have normal skin color but carry the gene for albinism will have only offspring with normal skin color.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 682-683

TOP: Gene expression

28. A person with one dominant gene for normal skin color and one gene for albinism will look the same as a person with two dominant genes for normal skin color.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 682

TOP: Gene expression

29. Because sickle cell anemia is a codominant trait, people who have one gene for sickle cell anemia are different from people with two genes for normal blood.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 683

TOP: Gene expression

30. Because the father has both X and Y chromosomes, it is his gamete rather than the mother’s that determines the sex of the offspring.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 683

TOP: Gene expression

31. A recessive trait carried on the X chromosome acts like a dominant trait in a male offspring.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 684

TOP: Gene expression

32. A color-blind mother and a normal vision father will have both sons and daughters who are color-blind.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 684

TOP: Gene expression

33. A color-blind father and a normal vision mother who did not carry the gene for colorblindness will have 50% of the sons color-blind and 100% of the daughters as carriers for color-blindness.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 684

TOP: Gene expression

34. A mother who is a carrier of the color-blind trait and a father with normal color vision will pass on color-blindness to 50% of their sons.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 684

TOP: Gene expression

35. The terms sex-linked and X-linked trait mean the same thing.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 683-684 TOP: Gene expression

36. A genetic mutation is a change in the DNA code.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 684 TOP: Gene expression

37. All mutations are harmful to the organism.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 684 TOP: Gene expression

38. A mutagen is an agent that causes a mutation.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 684 TOP: Gene expression

39. Monosomy and trisomy are considered a genetic predisposition for disease.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 685-686 TOP: Genetic diseases

40. Both monosomy and trisomy result from nondisjunction.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 685-686 TOP: Genetic diseases

41. The term genetic disease means the same thing as genetic predisposition

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 685 TOP: Genetic diseases

42. Cystic fibrosis is caused by a dominant gene that prevents the proper movement of sodium into and out of the cell.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 686 TOP: Genetic diseases

43. PKU can be managed by careful dietary restrictions of certain amino acids.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 687 TOP: Genetic diseases

44. Down syndrome results from nondisjunction of the 21st chromosome.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 688-689 TOP: Genetic diseases

45. People with Down syndrome and Klinefelter syndrome have at least 47 chromosomes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 688-689 TOP: Genetic diseases

46. People with Down syndrome and Turner syndrome have at least 47 chromosomes.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 688-689 TOP: Genetic diseases

47. A photograph of chromosomes that have been cut out and pasted onto a chart in pairs according to size is called a pedigree.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 690 TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

48. A chart that illustrates genetic relationships in a family over several generations is called a pedigree.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 690 TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

49. A grid used to determine the probability of inheriting a genetic trait is called a pedigree.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 690 TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

50. A karyotype can be used to detect Down syndrome.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: pp. 689-690

TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

51. A Punnett square can be used to determine the probability of two carriers of albinism having an albino offspring.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 690

TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

52. Viruses and bacterial plasmids have been used to get genetic material into the cell to treat genetic diseases.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 692 TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

53. Adenosine deaminase deficiency and cystic fibrosis have been successfully cured with gene therapy.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 693 TOP: Prevention and treatment of genetic diseases

54. A person can inherit genetic diseases and genetic risk factors.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 680 TOP: Genetics and human disease

55. When DNA is in its chromosome form, transcription cannot occur.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 680 TOP: Chromosomes and genes

56. Fragments of formerly functioning genes in the DNA are called genomics.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 680 TOP: The human genome

57. If a creature normally has 32 chromosomes in its cells, the gametes it produces would have 16 chromosomes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 681

TOP: Distribution of chromosomes to offspring

58. If both parents have sickle cell trait, none of their offspring can have sickle cell anemia.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 683

TOP: Hereditary traits

59. If one parent has sickle cell anemia and the other parent has normal blood, none of their offspring can have sickle cell anemia.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 683

TOP: Hereditary traits

60. If one parent has sickle cell anemia and the other parent has normal blood, all of their offspring will have sickle cell trait.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 683

TOP: Hereditary traits

61. Because mutations occur at the chemical level, they can never be seen under the microscope.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 684 TOP: Genetic mutations

62. Both viruses and bacteria can be mutagens.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 684 TOP: Genetic mutations

63. Nondisjunction can produce gametes with 22 and 24 chromosomes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: p. 686

TOP: Genetic diseases

64. Tay-Sachs disease is caused by a failure to make an enzyme that converts an amino acid into tyrosine.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 688 TOP: Genetic diseases

65. People who are carriers of Tay-Sachs disease have a higher-than-normal resistance to tuberculosis.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: p. 688 TOP: Genetic diseases

66. A woman younger than 19 has a higher likelihood of producing a child with Down syndrome than a woman older than 20.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization

REF: pp. 688-689 TOP: Genetic diseases