TESTS BANK for Mader's Understanding Human Anatomy & Physiology 9th Edition by Susannah Longenbaker by StudyGuide

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

Chapter 01 Organization of the Body

Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which term refers to the study of how an organ functions? A. Anatomy B. Physiology C. Ecology D. Homeostasis

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.05.01 Define the terms anatomy and physiology. Learning Outcome: 01.01 Section: 01.01 Topic: Basic terminology

2. Observing the parts of the brain is a part of the study of A. homeostasis. B. physiology. C. anthropology. D. anatomy.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.05.01 Define the terms anatomy and physiology. HAPS Objective: A.05.02 Give specific examples to show the interrelationship between anatomy and physiology. Learning Outcome: 01.01 Section: 01.01 Topic: Basic terminology

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

Check All That Apply Questions 3. Which are examples of physiology? Choose all that apply. __X__ Trying to determine the cause of eczema _____ Investigating whether a specific protein receptor is present on tumor cells __X__ Testing a patient for the presence of tuberculosis __X__ Performing an electrocardiogram, which is a recording of electrical activity in the heart

Bloom's Level: 3. Apply HAPS Objective: A.05.01 Define the terms anatomy and physiology. HAPS Objective: A.05.02 Give specific examples to show the interrelationship between anatomy and physiology. Learning Outcome: 01.01 Section: 01.01 Topic: Basic terminology

Multiple Choice Questions 4. A group of similar cells performing a specialized function is referred to as a(n) A. tissue. B. organ. C. molecule. D. system.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A1.02.03 Use basic regional and systemic terminology to locate and identify structures of the body. Learning Outcome: 01.02 Section: 01.01 Topic: Basic terminology

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

5. Cells are to tissues as tissues are to A. systems. B. molecules. C. organs. D. organelles.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: A.06.01 Describe, in order from simplest to most complex, the major levels of organization in the human organism. Learning Outcome: 01.02 Section: 01.01 Topic: Basic terminology

6. Arrange the following terms from the smallest to the largest: 1) cell, 2) organelle, 3) atom, 4) organ, 5) tissue. A. 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 C. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 D. 3, 1, 5, 4, 2

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.06.01 Describe, in order from simplest to most complex, the major levels of organization in the human organism. Learning Outcome: 01.02 Section: 01.01 Topic: Levels of organization

7. Which of the following does NOT describe the anatomical position? A. Standing erect B. Palms facing backward C. Face forward D. Toes pointing forward

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.01.01 Describe a person in anatomical position. Learning Outcome: 01.03 Section: 01.02 Topic: Anatomical position

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

8. Which of the following pairs are opposing terms? A. Superior/posterior B. Superior/inferior C. Anterior/inferior D. Superior/anterior

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.04.01 List and define the major directional terms used in anatomy. Learning Outcome: 01.03 Section: 01.02 Topic: Directional terms

9. Which term refers to the back? A. Inferior B. Lateral C. Posterior D. Peripheral

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.04.01 List and define the major directional terms used in anatomy. Learning Outcome: 01.03 Section: 01.02 Topic: Directional terms

10. The heart is _____ to the lungs. A. dorsal B. superior C. lateral D. medial

Bloom's Level: 3. Apply HAPS Objective: A.04.01 List and define the major directional terms used in anatomy. Learning Outcome: 01.03 Section: 01.02 Topic: Directional terms

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

11. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? A. Ventral - toward the front B. Ipsilateral - on opposite sides C. Deep - toward the surface D. Proximal - farther from the point of attachment

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.04.01 List and define the major directional terms used in anatomy. Learning Outcome: 01.03 Section: 01.02 Topic: Directional terms

12. Which of the following is INCORRECT in describing the nose? A. It is superior to the mouth. B. It is medial to the eyes. C. It is on the dorsal aspect of the face. D. It is inferior to the forehead.

Bloom's Level: 3. Apply HAPS Objective: A.04.01 List and define the major directional terms used in anatomy. Learning Outcome: 01.03 Section: 01.02 Topic: Directional terms

13. The hand is ___________ to the elbow. A. superior B. anterior C. proximal D. distal

Bloom's Level: 3. Apply HAPS Objective: A.04.01 List and define the major directional terms used in anatomy. Learning Outcome: 01.03 Section: 01.02 Topic: Directional terms

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

14. The right hand and left foot are ______________ to each other. A. ipsilateral B. posterior C. contralateral D. superficial

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: A.04.01 List and define the major directional terms used in anatomy. Learning Outcome: 01.03 Section: 01.02 Topic: Directional terms

15. The spinal cord is __________ to the esophagus. A. anterior B. posterior C. ventral D. inferior

Bloom's Level: 3. Apply HAPS Objective: A.04.01 List and define the major directional terms used in anatomy. Learning Outcome: 01.03 Section: 01.02 Topic: Directional terms

True / False Questions 16. The foot is proximal to the knee. FALSE The foot is distal to the knee.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: A.04.01 List and define the major directional terms used in anatomy. Learning Outcome: 01.03 Section: 01.02 Topic: Directional terms

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

17. The gallbladder and spleen are contralateral to each other. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: A.04.01 List and define the major directional terms used in anatomy. Learning Outcome: 01.03 Section: 01.02 Topic: Directional terms

Multiple Choice Questions 18. Appendicular refers to the A. skull. B. thorax. C. legs and arms. D. skull and thorax.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.03.02 List and describe the location of the major anatomical regions of the body. Learning Outcome: 01.03 Section: 01.02 Topic: Body cavities and regions

19. The head is in which region? A. Cephalic B. Lumbar C. Brachial D. Pectoral

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.03.02 List and describe the location of the major anatomical regions of the body. Learning Outcome: 01.03 Section: 01.02 Topic: Body cavities and regions

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

20. The arm is in which region? A. Cephalic B. Lumbar C. Brachial D. Pectoral

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.03.02 List and describe the location of the major anatomical regions of the body. Learning Outcome: 01.03 Section: 01.02 Topic: Body cavities and regions

21. The lower back is which region? A. Cephalic B. Lumbar C. Brachial D. Pectoral

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.03.02 List and describe the location of the major anatomical regions of the body. Learning Outcome: 01.03 Section: 01.02 Topic: Body cavities and regions

22. The foot is in which region? A. Pedal B. Lumbar C. Brachial D. Pectoral

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.03.02 List and describe the location of the major anatomical regions of the body. Learning Outcome: 01.03 Section: 01.02 Topic: Body cavities and regions

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

23. The chest is which region? A. Cephalic B. Lumbar C. Brachial D. Pectoral

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.03.02 List and describe the location of the major anatomical regions of the body. Learning Outcome: 01.03 Section: 01.02 Topic: Body cavities and regions

24. The cheek is in which region? A. Occipital B. Buccal C. Oral D. Mental

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.03.02 List and describe the location of the major anatomical regions of the body. Learning Outcome: 01.03 Section: 01.02 Topic: Body cavities and regions

25. The thigh is which region? A. Femoral B. Crural C. Plantar D. Palmar

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.03.02 List and describe the location of the major anatomical regions of the body. Learning Outcome: 01.03 Section: 01.02 Topic: Body cavities and regions

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

26. The front of the elbow is which region? A. Cubital B. Antecubital C. Brachial D. Antebrachial

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.03.02 List and describe the location of the major anatomical regions of the body. Learning Outcome: 01.03 Section: 01.02 Topic: Body cavities and regions

27. The armpit is which region? A. Acromial B. Pectoral C. Mammary D. Axillary

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.03.02 List and describe the location of the major anatomical regions of the body. Learning Outcome: 01.03 Section: 01.02 Topic: Body cavities and regions

28. Which of the following pairs of body regions is INCORRECT? A. Carpal - wrist B. Popliteal - back of knee C. Gluteal - buttocks D. Orbital - ear

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.03.02 List and describe the location of the major anatomical regions of the body. Learning Outcome: 01.03 Section: 01.02 Topic: Body cavities and regions

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

29. If a person has a rash in the cervical region, where is it located? A. Neck B. Lower back C. Arm D. Chest

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.03.02 List and describe the location of the major anatomical regions of the body. Learning Outcome: 01.03 Section: 01.02 Topic: Body cavities and regions

30. If a person has a sore in the oral cavity, where is it located? A. Head B. Lower back C. Mouth D. Head

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.02.02 Describe the appearance of a body presented along various planes. HAPS Objective: A.03.02 List and describe the location of the major anatomical regions of the body. Learning Outcome: 01.03 Section: 01.02 Topic: Basic terminology

31. Which type of cut or section will give right and left portions? A. Sagittal B. Transverse C. Frontal D. Coronal

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.02.01 Identify the various planes in which a body might be dissected. Learning Outcome: 01.03 Section: 01.02 Topic: Body planes and sections

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

32. Which type of cut will give front and back portions? A. Median B. Transverse C. Sagittal D. Frontal or coronal

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.02.01 Identify the various planes in which a body might be dissected. Learning Outcome: 01.03 Section: 01.02 Topic: Body planes and sections

33. If the abdominal cavity is cut horizontally, separating the stomach from the lower intestines, it was cut on a A. transverse plane. B. midsagittal plane. C. frontal plane. D. longitudinal section.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.02.01 Identify the various planes in which a body might be dissected. HAPS Objective: A.02.02 Describe the appearance of a body presented along various planes. Learning Outcome: 01.03 Section: 01.02 Topic: Body planes and sections

34. The term 'viscera' refers to A. internal organs. B. tissues. C. cells. D. atoms.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.03.01 Describe the location of the body cavities and identify the major organs found in each cavity. Learning Outcome: 01.04 Section: 01.03 Topic: Basic terminology

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

35. Which two cavities does the diaphragm separate? A. Abdominal and pelvic B. Dorsal and ventral C. Thoracic and abdominal D. Cranial and spinal

36. The thoracic cavity is part of which larger cavity? A. Ventral cavity B. Dorsal cavity C. Abdominopelvic cavity

37. If a person was diagnosed as having a tumor in the dorsal cavity, where might you expect to find it? A. Abdominal or pelvic cavities B. Superior or inferior cavities C. Thoracic or abdominal cavities D. Cranial or spinal cavities

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: A.03.01 Describe the location of the body cavities and identify the major organs found in each cavity. Learning Outcome: 01.04 Section: 01.03 Topic: Body cavities and regions

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

38. The mediastinum is part of the A. pleural and ventral cavities. B. thoracic and dorsal cavities. C. thoracic and ventral cavities. D. abdominopelvic and ventral cavities.

39. In which cavity would you find the brain? A. Ventral cavity B. Dorsal cavity C. Abdominopelvic cavity D. Oral cavity

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.03.01 Describe the location of the body cavities and identify the major organs found in each cavity. Learning Outcome: 01.05 Section: 01.03 Topic: Body cavities and regions

40. The membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord are called A. meninges. B. the peritoneum C. the pleurae D. the mediastinum

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.03.01 Describe the location of the body cavities and identify the major organs found in each cavity. Learning Outcome: 01.06 Section: 01.03 Topic: Body cavities and regions

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

41. Cerebrospinal fluid is associated with A. the meninges. B. serosae of the thoracic cavity. C. synovial joints. D. visceral peritoneum.

True / False Questions 42. The function of serous fluid is to reduce friction between tissues. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.06 Section: 01.03

Multiple Choice Questions 43. In which cavity would you find the stomach? A. Pleural cavity B. Dorsal cavity C. Abdominopelvic cavity D. Mediastinum

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

44. The lungs can be found in which cavity? A. Spinal cavity B. Abdominal cavity C. Mediastinum D. Pleural cavity

45. The liver can be found in which cavity? A. Dorsal cavity B. Abdominal cavity C. Pericardial cavity D. Pleural cavity

46. Most of the stomach can be found in the _______ quadrant of the abdominal cavity. A. upper left B. upper right C. lower left D. lower right

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.03.03 Describe the location of the four abdominopelvic quadrants and the nine abdominopelvic regions and list the major organs located in each. Learning Outcome: 01.05 Section: 01.03 Topic: Body cavities and regions

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

47. Billy had surgery to remove his appendix. In which abdominal quadrant would the incision be made? A. Upper left B. Upper right C. Lower left D. Lower right

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: A.03.03 Describe the location of the four abdominopelvic quadrants and the nine abdominopelvic regions and list the major organs located in each. Learning Outcome: 01.05 Section: 01.03 Topic: Body cavities and regions

48. Most of the liver is found in which abdominopelvic region? A. Left iliac B. Right lumbar C. Umbilical D. Right hypochondriac

49. The majority of the small intestine is found in which abdominopelvic region? A. Epigastric B. Right hypochondriac C. Umbilical D. Left iliac

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

50. The urinary bladder is found in which abdominopelvic region? A. Hypogastric B. Left lumbar C. Right iliac D. Umbilical

51. Which refers to a membrane attached to the surface of a lung? A. Visceral pleura B. Parietal pleura C. Visceral peritoneum D. Parietal peritoneum

52. Which of the following refers to the membrane lining the abdominal cavity wall? A. Parietal pericardium B. Visceral peritoneum C. Parietal peritoneum D. Visceral pleura

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

53. Sally is rushed to the hospital with acute appendicitis. Which serous membrane is in danger of infection? A. Peritoneum B. Pleura C. Meninges D. Pericardium

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: A.03.01 Describe the location of the body cavities and identify the major organs found in each cavity. Learning Outcome: 01.06 Section: 01.03 Topic: Body cavities and regions

54. The inflammation of the membranes of the posterior (dorsal) cavity is called A. serositis. B. pleurisy. C. meningitis. D. pericarditis.

55. Which pair of terms is correctly matched? A. Pericarditis - inflammation of the membrane around the lungs B. Peritonitis - inflammation of the membranes in the abdominal cavity C. Pleurisy - inflammation of the membranes around the heart D. Peritonitis - inflammation of membranes around nerves

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.06 Section: 01.03 Topic: Basic terminology

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

56. Which system are the blood vessels part of? A. Endocrine B. Cardiovascular C. Reproductive D. Nervous

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.07.01 Identify the organ systems of the human body and their major components. Learning Outcome: 01.07 Section: 01.04 Topic: Survey of body systems

57. Which system are the hormones part of? A. Endocrine B. Cardiovascular C. Reproductive D. Nervous

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.07.01 Identify the organ systems of the human body and their major components. Learning Outcome: 01.07 Section: 01.04 Topic: Survey of body systems

58. Which system are the testes part of? A. Urinary B. Cardiovascular C. Reproductive D. Nervous

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.07.01 Identify the organ systems of the human body and their major components. Learning Outcome: 01.07 Section: 01.04 Topic: Survey of body systems

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

59. Which system is the spinal cord part of? A. Endocrine B. Lymphatic C. Skeletal D. Nervous

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.07.01 Identify the organ systems of the human body and their major components. Learning Outcome: 01.07 Section: 01.04 Topic: Survey of body systems

60. The kidneys and urinary bladder are part of the A. endocrine system. B. urinary system. C. lymphatic system. D. digestive system.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.07.01 Identify the organ systems of the human body and their major components. Learning Outcome: 01.07 Section: 01.04 Topic: Survey of body systems

61. The spleen and thymus are part of the A. cardiovascular system. B. respiratory system. C. digestive system. D. lymphatic and immune systems.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.07.01 Identify the organ systems of the human body and their major components. Learning Outcome: 01.07 Section: 01.04 Topic: Survey of body systems

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

62. Transportation within the body is mainly the function of A. the nervous system. B. the skin. C. the skeleton. D. the cardiovascular system.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.07.02 Describe the major functions of each organ system. Learning Outcome: 01.08 Section: 01.04 Topic: Survey of body systems

63. Which part of the body plays a major part in support, movement, and protection? A. Nervous system B. Endocrine system C. Skeleton D. Cardiovascular system

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.07.02 Describe the major functions of each organ system. Learning Outcome: 01.08 Section: 01.04 Topic: Survey of body systems

64. Integration and coordination are the function of the body's A. nervous system. B. skin. C. skeleton. D. cardiovascular system.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.07.02 Describe the major functions of each organ system. Learning Outcome: 01.08 Section: 01.04 Topic: Survey of body systems

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

65. Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal system? A. Production of blood cells B. Support C. Production of heat D. Mineral storage

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.07.02 Describe the major functions of each organ system. Learning Outcome: 01.08 Section: 01.04 Topic: Survey of body systems

66. Which system is involved in regulating fluid levels and chemical content of the blood? A. Cardiovascular system B. Lymphatic system C. Urinary system D. Digestive system

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.07.02 Describe the major functions of each organ system. Learning Outcome: 01.08 Section: 01.04 Topic: Survey of body systems

True / False Questions 67. The organ system that delivers oxygen to body cells is the respiratory system. FALSE The cardiovascular system delivers oxygen to cells. The respiratory system delivers oxygen to the blood.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.07.02 Describe the major functions of each organ system. Learning Outcome: 01.08 Section: 01.04 Topic: Survey of body systems

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

Check All That Apply Questions 68. Which of these organ systems are involved in moving the body? Choose all that apply. __X__ Nervous system __X__ Muscular system __X__ Skeletal system _____ Endocrine system _____ Lymphatic system

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: A.07.02 Describe the major functions of each organ system. Learning Outcome: 01.08 Section: 01.04 Topic: Survey of body systems

Multiple Choice Questions 69. The term 'homeostasis' refers to A. changing external conditions. B. stable external conditions. C. changing internal conditions. D. stable internal conditions.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 01.09 Section: 01.05 Topic: Basic terminology Topic: Types of homeostatic mechanisms

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

70. Which of the following provides the best example of a negative feedback control mechanism? A. Increased body temperature due to exercise B. Increased uterine contractions in labor C. Putting on a sweater because you are cold D. Shivering in order to generate heat due to a drop in body temperature

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: B.03.01 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the nervous system to relay information. Describe the specific organs, structures, cells or molecules (receptors, neurons, CNS structures, effectors, neurotransmitters) included in the feedback loop. HAPS Objective: B.04.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how organ systems respond to maintain homeostasis Learning Outcome: 01.09 Section: 01.05 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms

71. Which of the following occurs as a result of positive feedback and assists in the maintenance of homeostasis? A. Body temperature regulation B. Blood pH regulation C. Blood clot formation D. Blood cell production

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: B.03.03 Provide an example of a positive feedback loop in the body. Describe the specific structures (organs, cells or molecules) included in the feedback loop. Learning Outcome: 01.09 Section: 01.05 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms

72. What occurs as a result of a negative feedback mechanism? A. The change moves farther from the set point in a negative direction. B. No change occurs in the body. C. There is a reversal from the original change. D. A body function is stopped.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: B.04.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how organ systems respond to maintain homeostasis Learning Outcome: 01.09 Section: 01.05 Topic: Types of homeostatic mechanisms

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

True / False Questions 73. In negative feedback, the body's response is in the opposite direction from the change in order to return the body to normal. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: B.04.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how organ systems respond to maintain homeostasis Learning Outcome: 01.09 Section: 01.05 Topic: Types of homeostatic mechanisms

Multiple Choice Questions 74. The two organ systems involved in controlling all other systems to maintain homeostasis are the A. skeletal and muscular. B. nervous and endocrine. C. urinary and respiratory. D. endocrine and digestive.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: B.04.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how organ systems respond to maintain homeostasis HAPS Objective: B.04.02 Explain how different organ systems relate to one another to maintain homeostasis Learning Outcome: 01.10 Section: 01.05 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

75. The two organ systems involved in providing oxygen to cells and removing carbon dioxide from cells are the A. cardiovascular and respiratory. B. respiratory and digestive. C. integumentary and muscular. D. reproductive and nervous.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.07.02 Describe the major functions of each organ system. HAPS Objective: B.04.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how organ systems respond to maintain homeostasis HAPS Objective: B.04.02 Explain how different organ systems relate to one another to maintain homeostasis Learning Outcome: 01.10 Section: 01.05 Topic: Survey of body systems Topic: Types of homeostatic mechanisms

76. Which two body systems are involved in transportation and protection of the body from disease? A. Integumentary and urinary systems B. Lymphatic and cardiovascular systems C. Muscular and lymphatic systems D. Respiratory and sensory systems

77. Which body system removes metabolic wastes and helps maintain acid-base balance? A. Urinary system B. Digestive system C. Respiratory system D. Endocrine system

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: A.07.02 Describe the major functions of each organ system. HAPS Objective: B.04.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how organ systems respond to maintain homeostasis Learning Outcome: 01.10 Section: 01.05 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms Topic: Survey of body systems

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

78. A disease that occurs suddenly and does not last a long time is considered A. chronic. B. local. C. systemic. D. acute.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: B.05.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if various organ systems could not maintain homeostasis and allowed regulated variables (body conditions) to move away from normal. Learning Outcome: 01.10 Section: 01.05 Topic: Basic terminology

79. An ear infection is considered a/an ______ disease. A. orbital B. local C. systemic D. pandemic

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: B.05.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if various organ systems could not maintain homeostasis and allowed regulated variables (body conditions) to move away from normal. Learning Outcome: 01.10 Section: 01.05 Topic: Basic terminology

80. What type of energy is used to create a PET scan? A. Gamma rays B. Electrons C. Protons D. Electrical

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Section: 01.05 Topic: Basic terminology

Chapter 01 - Organization of the Body

81. What type of medical scan is more useful in visualizing soft tissue? A. X-ray B. CT scan C. MRI D. PET

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Section: 01.05 Topic: Basic terminology

82. What is used in a sonogram to create an image? A. Sound waves B. Electrons C. Gamma rays D. X-rays

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Section: 01.05 Topic: Basic terminology

True / False Questions 83. Soft tissue such as muscles shows up as light areas on X-rays. FALSE Soft tissue such as muscles shows up as dark areas on X-rays.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Section: 01.05 Topic: Basic terminology

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

Chapter 02 Chemistry of Life

Multiple Choice Questions 1. The smallest unit of matter is the A. molecule. B. atom. C. compound. D. isotope.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.01.03 Compare and contrast the terms atoms, molecules, elements, and compounds. Learning Outcome: 02.01 Section: 02.01 Topic: Atoms and molecules

2. An element is any substance that contains one type of A. molecule. B. isotope. C. atom. D. proton.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.01.03 Compare and contrast the terms atoms, molecules, elements, and compounds. Learning Outcome: 02.01 Section: 02.01 Topic: Atoms and molecules

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

True / False Questions 3. Over 90% of the body is composed of four elements: carbon, nitrogen, chlorine, and hydrogen. FALSE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.01.03 Compare and contrast the terms atoms, molecules, elements, and compounds. Learning Outcome: 02.01 Section: 02.01 Topic: Atoms and molecules

Multiple Choice Questions 4. The positively charged particles in the nucleus of an atom are A. neutrons. B. electrons. C. protons. D. isotopes.

5. The atomic mass of a proton is A. 0 atomic mass units. B. 2 atomic mass units. C. 1 atomic mass units. D. –1 atomic mass units.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.01.01d Distinguish among the terms atomic number, mass number and atomic weight with respect to the structure of an atom Learning Outcome: 02.01 Section: 02.01 Topic: Atoms and molecules

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

6. Which of the following subatomic particles are found in the nucleus of an atom? A. Protons and electrons B. Electrons and neutrons C. Protons and shells D. Neutrons and protons

7. The number of protons in an atom is called the A. atomic number. B. atomic weight. C. mass number. D. combining weight.

8. Which subatomic particle determines the identity of an atom? A. Neutron B. Proton C. Electron D. Prion

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.01.01a Describe the charge, mass, and relative location of electrons, protons and neutrons with respect to the structure of an atom HAPS Objective: C.01.01d Distinguish among the terms atomic number, mass number and atomic weight with respect to the structure of an atom Learning Outcome: 02.01 Section: 02.01 Topic: Atoms and molecules

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

9. Which subatomic particle determines the chemical activity of an atom? A. Neutron B. Proton C. Electron D. Prion

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.01.01b Relate the number of electrons in an electron shell to an atoms chemical stability and its ability to form chemical bonds. Learning Outcome: 02.01 Section: 02.01 Topic: Atoms and molecules

10. Which is characteristic of an ion? A. Contains an unequal number of electrons and protons B. Contains a different number of neutrons C. Contains extra protons D. Contains equal numbers of protons, electrons, and neutrons

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.01.01c Explain how ions and isotopes are produced by changing the relative number of specific subatomic particles with respect to the structure of an atom Learning Outcome: 02.01 Section: 02.01 Topic: Atoms and molecules

11. The number of an element is equal to A. protons plus the number of neutrons. B. protons plus the number of electrons. C. protons. D. electrons plus the number of neutrons.

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

12. An atom or group of atoms with a charge is called a(n) A. molecule. B. isotope. C. compound. D. ion.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.01.02 Compare and contrast the terms ions, electrolytes, free radicals, isotopes and radioisotopes Learning Outcome: 02.03 Section: 02.01 Topic: Atoms and molecules

13. Atoms with more than one shell are most stable when the outermost shell contains _____ electrons. A. 10 B. 1 C. 8 D. 6

14. Exactly 6.02 x 1023 atoms of any element is called one ____ of that element. A. atomic mass unit B. isotope C. mole D. mouse

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

15. Different forms of the same element with different numbers of neutrons are called A. molecules. B. compounds. C. isotopes. D. lattices.

16. If the atomic number of an element is 9 and the mass number is 19, how many neutrons does the atom have? A. 10 B. 9 C. 19 D. 28

Bloom's Level: 3. Apply HAPS Objective: C.01.01d Distinguish among the terms atomic number, mass number and atomic weight with respect to the structure of an atom Learning Outcome: 02.01 Section: 02.01 Topic: Atoms and molecules

17. If the atomic number of an element is 27 and the mass number is 60, how many neutrons does the atom have? A. 27 B. 33 C. 87 D. 60

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

18. Compared to "regular" isotopes, radioactive isotopes A. emit energy from the nucleus. B. lose or gain neutrons. C. lose or gain electrons.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.01.02 Compare and contrast the terms ions, electrolytes, free radicals, isotopes and radioisotopes Learning Outcome: 02.02 Section: 02.01 Topic: Atoms and molecules

19. Low levels of radiation are commonly used to A. sterilize dental products. B. destroy cancer cells. C. produce images of body parts. D. All apply.

20. What makes an isotope radioactive? A. It has more protons than electrons. B. It releases energy to become stable. C. It releases hydrogen ions into solution. D. It breaks down into hydrogen and electrons.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: C.01.02 Compare and contrast the terms ions, electrolytes, free radicals, isotopes and radioisotopes Learning Outcome: 02.02 Section: 02.01 Topic: Atoms and molecules

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

21. High levels of radiation are NOT used A. to sterilize medical equipment. B. to kill cancer cells. C. as tracers to detect molecular changes. D. to sterilize medical tools and equipment.

22. Atoms bonded together to form a chemical unit are called A. molecules. B. ions. C. radioisotopes. D. buffers.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.01.03 Compare and contrast the terms atoms, molecules, elements, and compounds. Learning Outcome: 02.03 Section: 02.01 Topic: Atoms and molecules Topic: Chemical bonding

23. Molecules form from A. the shape of the individual atoms. B. the attraction between electrons. C. the sharing of electrons. D. a drive toward solubility.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.02.01b Explain the mechanism of each type of bond With respect to non-polar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds Learning Outcome: 02.03 Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemical bonding

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

24. A molecule made of two or more different atoms bonded together is called a(n) A. ion. B. isotope. C. atom. D. compound.

25. An anion is an atom or molecule that A. is positively charged. B. is negatively charged. C. emits radioactive energy.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.01.02 Compare and contrast the terms ions, electrolytes, free radicals, isotopes and radioisotopes Learning Outcome: 02.01 Section: 02.01 Topic: Atoms and molecules

26. A bond created from the attraction between positively and negatively charged ions is a(n) ______ bond. A. covalent B. hydrogen C. ionic D. metallic

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

27. Sodium chloride dissociates when dissolved in water. Therefore, it is considered a ______. A. salt B. compound C. acid D. base

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.03.03 Define the term salt and give examples of physiological significance. Learning Outcome: 02.03 Section: 02.01 Topic: Chemical bonding

28. A bond created from the sharing of electrons between two atoms is a(n) ______ bond. A. covalent B. hydrogen C. ionic D. metallic

29. When two pairs of electrons are shared between two atoms, a ______ bond is formed. A. single covalent B. double covalent C. triple covalent D. double ionic

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

30. When one atom has a stronger attraction for shared electrons than the other atom, a(n) ___________ covalent bond is formed. A. polar B. nonpolar C. ionic D. metallic

31. Ionic bonds involve _______, while covalent bonds involve _______. A. the donation of electrons; the sharing of electrons B. the sharing of electrons; the donation of electrons C. weak attractions; the donation of electrons

32. Equal sharing of electrons is a characteristic of a _______ covalent bond, while unequal sharing is in a _______ bond. A. polar; nonpolar B. nonpolar; polar

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

33. The most abundant molecule in living organisms is A. water. B. glucose. C. oxygen. D. ammonia.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.03.01 Discuss the physiologically important properties of water. Learning Outcome: 02.04 Section: 02.02 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions

34. Organic compounds always contain ___________ atoms. A. water B. carbon C. nitrogen D. oxygen

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.04.04b Compare and contrast general molecular structure With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids Learning Outcome: 02.04 Section: 02.02 Topic: Atoms and molecules

35. Water molecules are A. polar. B. nonpolar.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.03.01 Discuss the physiologically important properties of water. Learning Outcome: 02.04 Section: 02.02 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

36. The attraction between a slightly positive hydrogen to a slightly negative oxygen of another molecule describes a(n) ________ bond. A. hydrogen B. oxygen C. nitrogen D. ionic

37. Which of the following is NOT a property of water? A. High heat capacity B. Low heat of vaporization C. Solvent for polar and ionic compounds D. Cohesiveness

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.03.01 Discuss the physiologically important properties of water. Learning Outcome: 02.04 Section: 02.02 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions

38. Which of the following is NOT a property of water? A. The ability to cling to other water molecules, yet flow B. The ability to facilitate chemical reactions C. The ability to insulate the body from temperature extremes D. The ability to dissolve nonpolar, hydrophobic molecules

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.03.01 Discuss the physiologically important properties of water. HAPS Objective: C.03.02 Distinguish among the terms solution, solute, solvent, colloid suspension, and emulsion. Learning Outcome: 02.04 Section: 02.02 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

39. Substances that dissolve in water are called A. hydrophilic. B. hydrophobic. C. hydrophoric. D. hydrochromic.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.03.01 Discuss the physiologically important properties of water. Learning Outcome: 02.04 Section: 02.02 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions

40. The ability of water molecules to cling to each other is _________, while the ability to cling to other surfaces is ___________. A. cohesion; adhesion B. dissolving; vaporization C. adhesion; cohesion D. cohesion; dissolving

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.03.01 Discuss the physiologically important properties of water. Learning Outcome: 02.04 Section: 02.02 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions

41. The ability of water to absorb large amounts of heat energy without changing its temperature is a A. low specific heat capacity. B. low heat of vaporization. C. high specific heat capacity. D. high heat of vaporization.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.03.01 Discuss the physiologically important properties of water. Learning Outcome: 02.04 Section: 02.02 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

42. A substance that dissociates in water, releasing hydrogen ions, is a(n) A. salt. B. base. C. protein. D. acid.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.03.04 Define the terms pH, acid, base, and buffer and give examples of physiological significance. Learning Outcome: 02.05 Section: 02.02 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions

43. A substance that can take up hydrogen ions or release hydroxide ions in water is a(n) A. salt. B. base. C. protein. D. acid.

44. Hydrochloric acid is considered a strong acid because it A. produces very few hydrogen ions in water. B. produces many hydroxide ions in water. C. produces many hydrogen ions in water. D. dissociates very little in water.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: C.03.04 Define the terms pH, acid, base, and buffer and give examples of physiological significance. Learning Outcome: 02.05 Section: 02.02 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

True / False Questions 45. A weak base will accept many hydrogen ions, while a strong base will accept only a few hydrogen ions. FALSE A strong base will accept many hydrogen ions.

Multiple Choice Questions 46. The lower the pH, A. the lesser the hydrogen ion concentration. B. the more acidic the solution. C. the lesser the hydrogen ion concentration and the more acidic the solution. D. the greater the hydroxide ion concentration. E. the more basic the solution and the greater the hydroxide ion concentration.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.03.05 State acidic, neutral, and alkaline pH values. Learning Outcome: 02.06 Section: 02.02 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

47. The pH of the blood is slightly basic. Which of the following describes this pH? A. 6.4 B. 12.6 C. 4.7 D. 7.4

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.03.05 State acidic, neutral, and alkaline pH values. Learning Outcome: 02.06 Section: 02.02 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions

48. A pH of 5.5 would be considered A. acidic. B. basic. C. neutral.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.03.05 State acidic, neutral, and alkaline pH values. Learning Outcome: 02.06 Section: 02.02 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions

49. A pH of 7.0 would be considered A. acidic. B. basic. C. neutral.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.03.05 State acidic, neutral, and alkaline pH values. Learning Outcome: 02.06 Section: 02.02 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

50. A blood pH of 7.2 would be considered _______, while a pH of 7.6 would be _______. A. acidosis; alkalosis B. alkalosis; acidosis C. acidosis; normal D. Both values are within the normal range.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.03.04 Define the terms pH, acid, base, and buffer and give examples of physiological significance. HAPS Objective: C.03.05 State acidic, neutral, and alkaline pH values. Learning Outcome: 02.06 Section: 02.02 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions

51. Chemicals that help keep body fluids within a normal pH range are called A. acids. B. bases. C. buffers. D. salts.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.03.05 State acidic, neutral, and alkaline pH values. Learning Outcome: 02.06 Section: 02.02 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions

52. An electrolyte is a substance that releases _____ when dissolved in water. A. ions B. electrons C. bases

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.01.02 Compare and contrast the terms ions, electrolytes, free radicals, isotopes and radioisotopes HAPS Objective: C.03.03 Define the term salt and give examples of physiological significance. Learning Outcome: 02.06 Section: 02.02 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

Check All That Apply Questions 53. Which four are the main macromolecules found in cells? __X__ Proteins _____ Water __X__ Carbohydrates __X__ Nucleic acids __X__ Lipids

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.04.04a Identify the monomers and polymers With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids Learning Outcome: 02.07 Section: 02.03 Topic: Organic compounds

Multiple Choice Questions 54. What monomer is NOT correctly matched with its macromolecule? A. carbohydrates - glucose B. lipids - glycerol and citric acids C. proteins - amino acids D. nucleic acids - nucleotides

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

55. The subunit molecules for proteins are A. nucleic acids. B. amino acids. C. fatty acids. D. monosaccharides.

56. Which arrow in the following equation represents dehydration? A. Arrow 1 B. Arrow 2

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: C.04.03 Define and give examples of dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis reactions. Learning Outcome: 02.07 Section: 02.03 Topic: Organic compounds

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

57. The addition of water in an enzyme-catalyzed reaction is a(n) ________ reaction. A. dehydration B. hydrolysis C. exchange D. neutralization

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.04.03 Define and give examples of dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis reactions. Learning Outcome: 02.07 Section: 02.03 Topic: Organic compounds

58. The removal of a water molecule during a reaction results in A. breaking a bond. B. forming an acid. C. hydrolysis. D. forming a bond.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: C.04.02 Explain the relationship between monomers and polymers. HAPS Objective: C.04.03 Define and give examples of dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis reactions. Learning Outcome: 02.07 Section: 02.03 Topic: Organic compounds

59. The main function of carbohydrates is to provide A. cellular energy. B. insulation. C. transport molecules. D. hereditary information.

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

60. A monosaccharide of five carbons is a A. hexose sugar. B. glycerol. C. fatty acid. D. pentose sugar.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.04.04a Identify the monomers and polymers With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids HAPS Objective: C.04.04c Provide specific examples With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids Learning Outcome: 02.09 Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds

61. The monomer of carbohydrates is a A. nucleotide. B. fatty acid. C. monosaccharide. D. amino acid.

62. Which of the following is NOT a monosaccharide? A. Glucose B. Fructose C. Sucrose D. Galactose

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.04.04c Provide specific examples With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids Learning Outcome: 02.09 Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

63. Which of the following is NOT a disaccharide? A. Maltose B. Galactose C. Lactose D. Sucrose

64. Which of the following contains glucose? A. Protein B. Fat C. Nucleic acid D. Starch

65. Glycogen is A. a monosaccharide used for quick energy. B. a protein found in cell membranes. C. a polysaccharide used as stored energy in animals. D. a fat found in margarine.

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

Check All That Apply Questions 66. Which are characteristics of starch? Choose all that apply. __X__ It is a polysaccharide. _____ It is a disaccharide. __X__ It is found in plants. _____ It is found in animals.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.04.04c Provide specific examples With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids HAPS Objective: C.04.04d Identify dietary sources With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids Learning Outcome: 02.09 Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds

Multiple Choice Questions 67. Which of the following is the main component of fiber in our diet? A. Glycogen B. Protein C. Cellulose D. Starch

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.04.04c Provide specific examples With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids HAPS Objective: C.04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids Learning Outcome: 02.09 Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

68. Organic compounds that are always insoluble in water are called A. sugars. B. lipids. C. nucleotides. D. proteins.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.04.04c Provide specific examples With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids Learning Outcome: 02.10 Section: 02.05 Topic: Organic compounds

69. Which of the following is NOT a function of lipids? A. Long-term energy storage B. Formation of antibodies C. Formation of cell membranes D. Component of sex hormones

True / False Questions 70. Fats are usually liquid at room temperature and oils are solids. FALSE Fats are usually solid at room temperature and oils are liquid.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.04.04b Compare and contrast general molecular structure With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids HAPS Objective: C.04.04c Provide specific examples With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids Learning Outcome: 02.10 Section: 02.05 Topic: Organic compounds

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

Multiple Choice Questions 71. Which macromolecule is composed of one glycerol plus three fatty acids? A. Lipids B. Proteins C. Nucleic acids D. Carbohydrates

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.04.04a Identify the monomers and polymers With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids HAPS Objective: C.04.04b Compare and contrast general molecular structure With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids Learning Outcome: 02.10 Section: 02.05 Topic: Organic compounds

72. The process that allows fats to mix with water, particularly so digestion can occur, is called A. hydrolysis. B. degradation. C. dehydration. D. emulsification.

73. When fatty acids contain one or more double bonds, they are considered A. saturated. B. unsaturated. C. emulsified. D. synthesized.

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

74. What makes a phospholipid different from a fat? A. Fats are neutral while phospholipids are ionized. B. Fats are solid while phospholiopids are liquid. C. Fats are ionized while phospholipids are neutral. D. Fats are basic while phospholipids are acidic.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: C.04.04b Compare and contrast general molecular structure With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids HAPS Objective: C.04.04c Provide specific examples With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids Learning Outcome: 02.10 Section: 02.05 Topic: Organic compounds

75. The macromolecules that are the main component of cell membranes are A. steroids. B. triglycerides. C. phospholipids. D. prostaglandins.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.04.04c Provide specific examples With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids HAPS Objective: C.04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids HAPS Objective: C.07.01 Describe how lipids are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions. Learning Outcome: 02.10 Section: 02.05 Topic: Organic compounds

76. Steroids differ in structure from other lipids in that they have a backbone of A. four fused carbon rings. B. branched chains of carbons. C. saturated carbon chains. D. unsaturated carbon chains.

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

Check All That Apply Questions 77. Which are characteristics of cholesterol? Choose all that apply. _____ It is a type of protein. __X__ It is hydrophobic. __X__ It is an important component of cell membranes. _____ It is an energy-storage molecule.

Multiple Choice Questions 78. Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins? A. They form structural components such as collagen. B. They form many hormones. C. They form actin and myosin needed for muscular movement. D. They form important energy molecules.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.04.05 Describe the four levels of protein structure and discuss the importance of protein shape for protein function. HAPS Objective: C.07.03 Describe how proteins are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions. Learning Outcome: 02.11 Section: 02.06

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

79. Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins? A. They form enzymes to speed up reactions. B. They form the backbone of cell membranes. C. They form hemoglobin to transport oxygen in the blood. D. They form antibodies to protect the body from disease.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids HAPS Objective: C.07.03 Describe how proteins are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions. Learning Outcome: 02.11 Section: 02.06 Topic: Organic compounds

80. How many different amino acids compose all human polypeptides (proteins)? A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 25

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.04.05 Describe the four levels of protein structure and discuss the importance of protein shape for protein function. Learning Outcome: 02.11 Section: 02.06 Topic: Organic compounds

81. The sequence of amino acids makes up the ______ structure of a protein. A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. quaternary

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

82. The coiling or folding of a polypeptide chain is the ________ structure of a protein. A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. quaternary

83. The coiling and folding of a polypeptide chain into a more circular molecule is the ______ structure of a protein. A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. quaternary

84. Proteins that have more than one polypeptide arranged together have a _______ structure. A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. quaternary

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

85. The differences between one polypeptide and another lies in A. the type of peptide bond they contain. B. the type of sugar they contain. C. whether they are saturated or not. D. the sequence of amino acids.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: C.04.05 Describe the four levels of protein structure and discuss the importance of protein shape for protein function. Learning Outcome: 02.11 Section: 02.06 Topic: Organic compounds

86. Any process that causes an irreversible change in the shape of a protein is called A. denaturation. B. emulsification. C. hydrolysis. D. degradation.

Check All That Apply Questions 87. Which of the following can denature proteins? Choose all that apply. _____ High salt concentration __X__ High temperature _____ Low calcium concentration __X__ Low pH

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

Multiple Choice Questions 88. The sum of all the chemical reactions that occur in a cell is called A. emulsification. B. metabolism. C. denaturation. D. synthesis.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.11 Section: 02.06

89. What is the role of an enzyme in a chemical reaction? A. Raises the energy of activation B. Raises the temperature of the reaction C. Lowers the energy of activation D. Lowers the temperature of the reaction

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.04.06 Demonstrate factors that affect enzyme activity, including denaturation, and interpret graphs showing the effects of various factors on the rate of enzyme-catalyzed reactions. Learning Outcome: 02.11 Section: 02.06

90. In the reactions that occur in metabolism, enzymes function as A. amino acids. B. lipids. C. catalysts. D. compounds.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 02.11 Section: 02.06 Topic: Organic compounds

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

91. The substance that an enzyme acts upon is its A. substrate. B. active site. C. catalyst. D. product.

92. An enzyme's specificity for its substrate is due to A. the shape of its active site. B. its denaturation. C. the presence of cofactors or coenzymes.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: C.04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids HAPS Objective: C.04.05 Describe the four levels of protein structure and discuss the importance of protein shape for protein function. HAPS Objective: C.04.06 Demonstrate factors that affect enzyme activity, including denaturation, and interpret graphs showing the effects of various factors on the rate of enzyme-catalyzed reactions. Learning Outcome: 02.11 Section: 02.06 Topic: Organic compounds

93. The area of the enzyme that binds to its substrate is called the A. active site. B. catalyst. C. activation energy. D. product.

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

94. What role can inorganic metals such as iron or zinc have in a reaction? A. A catalyst B. A coenzyme C. A substrate D. A cofactor

95. What role do some vitamins play in chemical reactions? A. As a coenzyme B. As a substrate C. As an enzyme D. As energy

96. Which of the following types of reactions involves the production of a larger product by combining smaller reactants? A. Degradation B. Replacement C. Synthesis D. Decomposition

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.04.03 Define and give examples of dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis reactions. Learning Outcome: 02.11 Section: 02.06

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

97. A hydrolysis reaction is an example of which reaction type? A. Decomposition B. Synthesis C. Replacement D. Neutralization

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.04.03 Define and give examples of dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis reactions. Learning Outcome: 02.11 Section: 02.06

98. Very small protein molecules that seem to be disease-causing agents are called A. viruses. B. bacteria. C. flukes. D. prions.

99. Which of the following is NOT a component of a nucleotide? A. Pentose sugar B. Phosphate group C. Glucose D. Nitrogen-containing base

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.04.04a Identify the monomers and polymers With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids HAPS Objective: C.04.04b Compare and contrast general molecular structure With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids Learning Outcome: 02.12 Section: 02.07 Topic: Organic compounds

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

Check All That Apply Questions 100. Which are examples of nucleic acids? Choose all that apply. __X__ Deoxyribonucleic acid _____ Amino acid __X__ Ribonucleic acid _____ Glucose

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.04.04c Provide specific examples With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids Learning Outcome: 02.12 Section: 02.07 Topic: Nucleic acids: DNA and RNA

Multiple Choice Questions 101. Which of the following is NOT an instruction found in genes? A. How to join amino acids to make proteins B. How to replicate DNA C. How to break down complex carbohydrates D. How to make RNA

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: C.04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids HAPS Objective: C.10.01 Define the terms genetic code, transcription and translation. Learning Outcome: 02.12 Section: 02.07 Topic: Nucleic acids: DNA and RNA

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

102. Which of the following is NOT a nitrogen base found in DNA? A. Uracil B. Adenine C. Guanine D. Cytosine

103. The shape of the DNA molecule is a(n) A. single strand. B. globule. C. double helix. D. inverted T.

104. The backbone or sides of a DNA helix consists of A. nitrogen base pairs. B. a sugar-phosphate chain. C. an adenine-ribose chain. D. a glucose-phosphate chain.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.04.04a Identify the monomers and polymers With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids HAPS Objective: C.04.04b Compare and contrast general molecular structure With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids Learning Outcome: 02.12 Section: 02.07 Topic: Nucleic acids: DNA and RNA

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

105. The rungs of the DNA ladder are composed of A. nitrogen base pairs. B. sugar-phosphate chain. C. adenine-ribose chain. D. glucose-phosphate chain.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.04.04a Identify the monomers and polymers With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids HAPS Objective: C.04.04b Compare and contrast general molecular structure With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids Learning Outcome: 02.12 Section: 02.07 Topic: Nucleic acids: DNA and RNA

106. In the DNA molecule, the complementary base pair of adenine is always A. uracil. B. cytosine. C. thymine. D. guanine.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.04.04a Identify the monomers and polymers With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids HAPS Objective: C.04.04b Compare and contrast general molecular structure With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids Learning Outcome: 02.12 Section: 02.07 Topic: Nucleic acids: DNA and RNA

107. In the DNA molecule, the complementary base pair of cytosine is always A. uracil. B. guanine. C. adenine. D. thymine.

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

108. A three-base sequence on DNA and therefore RNA codes for a(n) A. glucose. B. fatty acid. C. amino acid. D. steroid.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.10.01 Define the terms genetic code, transcription and translation. Learning Outcome: 02.12 Section: 02.07 Topic: Nucleic acids: DNA and RNA

109. Which of the following is NOT true of RNA? A. It is single stranded. B. It has uracil instead of thymine. C. It has ribose sugar. D. It contains the blueprint for assembling a protein.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body With respect to carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and, nucleic acids Learning Outcome: 02.12 Section: 02.07 Topic: Nucleic acids: DNA and RNA

110. Which of the following molecules is the primary energy carrier in cells? A. DNA B. ATP C. RNA D. GNA

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.05.01 Describe the generalized reversible reaction for release of energy from ATP and explain the role of ATP in the cell. Learning Outcome: 02.13 Section: 02.07 Topic: Energy transfer using ATP

Chapter 02 - Chemistry of Life

111. What is the main molecule that provides the energy to produce ATP? A. Phosphate B. Glucose C. RNA D. Uracil

112. Which of the following contains high-energy phosphate bonds? A. DNA B. Glycogen C. RNA D. ATP

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

Chapter 03 Cell Structure and Function

Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following types of cells are anucleate when mature? A. Liver cells B. Skin cells C. Erythrocytes D. Skeletal muscle cells

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.06.01 Identify the three main parts of a cell, and list the general functions of each. Learning Outcome: 03.01 Section: 03.01 Topic: Intracellular organization Topic: Organelles

Check All That Apply Questions 2. Which are found inside the nucleus? Choose all that apply. _____ Rough endoplasmic reticulum _____ Lysosomes __X__ Chromatin __X__ Nucleolus

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.09.02b For each different type of organelle associated with human cells, describe the structure of the organelle. Learning Outcome: 03.03 Section: 03.01 Topic: Intracellular organization

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

Multiple Choice Questions 3. The gelatinous supporting material of a cell is the A. plasma membrane. B. nucleus. C. cytoplasm. D. organelle.

4. Small structures that compartmentalize the cell for the various cellular activities are A. nuclei. B. organelles. C. matrices. D. proteins.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.06.01 Identify the three main parts of a cell, and list the general functions of each. Learning Outcome: 03.01 Section: 03.01 Topic: Organelles

5. The plasma membrane consists primarily of A. phospholipids and proteins. B. sugars and starches. C. phospholipids and sugars. D. sugars and proteins.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.07.03 Describe how proteins are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions. Learning Outcome: 03.02 Section: 03.01 Topic: Membrane structure and function

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

Check All That Apply Questions 6. Which are characteristics of the cytoskeleton? Choose all that apply. __X__ It is made up of protein filaments and microtubules. _____ It produces proteins. _____ It stores calcium. __X__ It allows the cell to move.

Multiple Choice Questions 7. The phospholipid molecules are arranged with A. the hydrophilic tails facing outward and the hydrophobic heads facing inward. B. the hydrophilic tails facing inward and the hydrophobic heads facing outward. C. the hydrophilic heads facing outward and the hydrophobic tails facing inward. D. the hydrophilic heads facing inward and the hydrophobic tails facing outward.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.07.01 Describe how lipids are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions. Learning Outcome: 03.02 Section: 03.01 Topic: Membrane structure and function

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

8. Think about the bilayer arrangement of phospholipids in cell membranes. Now imagine if extracellular and intracellular fluids were made of oil instead of water. How would the phospholipids arrange themselves? A. The hydrophilic heads would be oriented toward the middle, with hydrophobic tails pointing outward. B. The hydrophobic heads would be oriented toward the oil, so outward; the hydrophilic tails would be pointed inward. C. The hydrophobic tails would be oriented inward, while the hydrophilic heads would point outward.

Bloom's Level: 3. Apply HAPS Objective: C.07.01 Describe how lipids are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions. Learning Outcome: 03.02 Section: 03.01 Topic: Membrane structure and function

9. The movement of protein molecules within the phospholipid bilayer is described by the A. fluid mosaic model. B. lipid mosaic model. C. protein-lipid mosaic model. D. cholesterol mosaic model.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.07.01 Describe how lipids are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions. HAPS Objective: C.07.03 Describe how proteins are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions. Learning Outcome: 03.02 Section: 03.01 Topic: Membrane structure and function

10. The presence of cholesterol molecules in plasma membranes is to A. allow the buildup of fats. B. change the chemical nature of the membrane. C. create a mosaic pattern. D. stabilize the phospholipids at low temperatures.

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

11. What is the role of glycolipids and glycoproteins in the plasma membrane? A. Transport of molecules through the membrane B. Stabilize the phospholipid bilayer C. Cell identification D. Cell movement

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.07.01 Describe how lipids are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions. HAPS Objective: C.07.02 Describe how carbohydrates are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions. HAPS Objective: C.07.03 Describe how proteins are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions. Learning Outcome: 03.02 Section: 03.01 Topic: Membrane structure and function

12. Functions of membrane proteins include all of the following except A. carriers. B. cell identification. C. stability. D. receptors. E. channels.

13. Tightly-coiled, rod-like structures of DNA and proteins are called A. nucleoli. B. ribosomes. C. chromatin. D. chromosomes.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.06.01 Identify the three main parts of a cell, and list the general functions of each. Learning Outcome: 03.03 Section: 03.01 Topic: Nucleic acids: DNA and RNA

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

14. The function of the nucleolus is to make A. mitochondria. B. endoplasmic reticulum. C. chromosomes. D. ribosomes.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.06.01 Identify the three main parts of a cell, and list the general functions of each. HAPS Objective: C.09.02c For each different type of organelle associated with human cells, describe the function of the organelle. Learning Outcome: 03.03 Section: 03.01 Topic: Intracellular organization Topic: Organelles

15. The nuclear envelope contains the nuclear material and its structure is a A. double-layered membrane with pores. B. single-layered membrane with pores. C. solid single-layered membrane. D. solid double-layered membrane.

16. Proteins that are mainly used inside the cell are synthesized A. in the nucleus. B. on polyribosomes. C. on rough ER. D. in the nucleoli.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.09.02c For each different type of organelle associated with human cells, describe the function of the organelle. Learning Outcome: 03.04 Section: 03.01 Topic: Protein synthesis

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

17. Which of the following organelles functions in protein synthesis? A. Ribosomes B. Golgi apparatus C. Smooth ER D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.09.02a For each different type of organelle associated with human cells, identify the organelle. HAPS Objective: C.09.02c For each different type of organelle associated with human cells, describe the function of the organelle. Learning Outcome: 03.04 Section: 03.01

18. A system of membranous channels and saccules that runs from the nuclear membrane through the cytoplasm is the A. nucleolus. B. Golgi apparatus. C. endoplasmic reticulum. D. mitochondria.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.09.02a For each different type of organelle associated with human cells, identify the organelle. HAPS Objective: C.09.02b For each different type of organelle associated with human cells, describe the structure of the organelle. Learning Outcome: 03.04 Section: 03.01 Topic: Organelles

19. The rough endoplasmic reticulum is covered with A. Golgi apparatus. B. ribosomes. C. lysosomes. D. nucleoli.

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

20. Liver cells help to detoxify drugs. Therefore, they would have a large number of A. rough ER. B. Golgi apparatus. C. smooth ER. D. centrioles.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: C.09.02a For each different type of organelle associated with human cells, identify the organelle. HAPS Objective: C.09.02c For each different type of organelle associated with human cells, describe the function of the organelle. Learning Outcome: 03.04 Section: 03.01 Topic: Organelles

21. Which of the following serves as the site for the synthesis of phospholipids? A. Plasma membrane B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum D. Golgi apparatus

22. Which of the following function(s) in protein production? A. Ribosomes B. Golgi apparatus C. Rough ER D. Ribosomes, Golgi apparatus, and rough ER

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: C.09.02c For each different type of organelle associated with human cells, describe the function of the organelle. Learning Outcome: 03.04 Section: 03.01 Topic: Protein synthesis

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

23. Which organelle is involved in processing, packaging, and secretion of proteins and lipids? A. Ribosomes B. Golgi apparatus C. Endoplasmic reticulum D. Chromosomes

Check All That Apply Questions 24. Which are characteristics of lysosomes? Choose all that apply. __X__ They are formed in the Golgi apparatus. _____ They are formed in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum. __X__ They contain digestive enzymes. _____ They transport substances throughout the cell.

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

Multiple Choice Questions 25. A disease involving a missing or inactive lysosomal enzyme in nerve cells is called A. Golgi's disease. B. multiple sclerosis. C. neuritis. D. Tay-Sachs disease.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.15.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur if the cells could not maintain homeostasis due to abnormalities in organelle function, transport processes, protein synthesis, or the cell cycle. Learning Outcome: 03.05 Section: 03.01 Topic: Organelles

26. Digestive sacs found in cells that help to detoxify drugs and alcohol are A. peroxisomes. B. centrioles. C. ribosomes. D. rough ER.

27. Mitochondria A. produce protein. B. store food. C. produce ATP. D. digest food.

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

Check All That Apply Questions 28. Which are characteristics of mitochondria? Choose all that apply. __X__ They produce ATP. __X__ Cellular respiration occurs here. _____ They produce proteins. __X__ They use oxygen; they are the reason why humans breathe.

Multiple Choice Questions 29. The inner folds of membrane in mitochondria, where many of the reactions of aerobic cellular respiration occur, are called A. smooth ER. B. cristae. C. grana. D. thylakoid membranes.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.09.02b For each different type of organelle associated with human cells, describe the structure of the organelle. HAPS Objective: C.09.02c For each different type of organelle associated with human cells, describe the function of the organelle. Learning Outcome: 03.06 Section: 03.01 Topic: Cellular respiration Topic: Organelles

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

30. Which elements of the cytoskeleton help maintain the shape of the cells, move organelles around, and aid in cell division? A. Intermediate fibers B. Cilia C. Microtubules D. Actin filaments

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.09.02a For each different type of organelle associated with human cells, identify the organelle. HAPS Objective: C.09.02b For each different type of organelle associated with human cells, describe the structure of the organelle. HAPS Objective: C.09.02c For each different type of organelle associated with human cells, describe the function of the organelle. Learning Outcome: 03.08 Section: 03.01 Topic: Organelles

31. Which cytoskeletal structure is involved in the movement of chromosomes during cell division? A. Actin filaments B. Intermediate filaments C. Microtubules D. Microvilli

32. What is the function of intermediate filaments? A. Cell-to-cell junctions B. Cell movement C. Form flagella D. Cell shape

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

33. Short cylinders with a 9 + 0 pattern that form the spindle apparatus during cell division are A. centrioles. B. basal bodies. C. flagella. D. actin filaments.

34. Sperm use __________ for movement. A. cilia B. flagella C. microvilli D. microfilaments

35. __________ are small hair-like extensions that produce movement across the surface of cells. A. Cilia B. Flagella C. Microvilli D. Basal bodies

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

36. __________ help keep the lungs clean. A. Cilia B. Flagella C. Basal bodies D. Microvilli

37. What structure anchors cilia and flagella? A. Microvilli B. Basal body C. Hilus D. Hillock

38. The plasma membrane is A. impermeable. B. permeable to everything. C. selectively permeable.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.06.01 Identify the three main parts of a cell, and list the general functions of each. Learning Outcome: 03.09 Section: 03.02 Topic: Membrane structure and function

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

39. What differentiates passive transport from active transport? A. Passive transport moves substances into cells, while active transport moves substances out of cells. B. Passive transport requires carriers, while active transport does not. C. Passive transport does not use cellular energy, while active transport uses cellular energy. D. Passive transport only moves water, while active transport only moves proteins.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.08.01c Discuss the energy requirements and, if applicable, the sources of energy for each process with respect to the following membrane transport processes – simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis. Learning Outcome: 03.09 Section: 03.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes

40. The random movement of simple substances from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is called A. osmosis. B. filtration. C. diffusion. D. pumping.

41. Small lipid soluble molecules would move through the plasma membrane by A. diffusion. B. osmosis. C. filtration. D. pumping.

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

42. Proteins do not pass through plasma membranes because A. the membrane is made of protein. B. they contain nitrogen. C. they are very large molecules. D. they cause emulsification.

43. The movement of H2O across a plasma membrane A. is called osmosis. B. is called diffusion. C. requires energy. D. is called osmosis and requires energy.

44. The term 'tonicity' refers to A. the concentration of solutes that determines the movement of water. B. the separation of one cell into two daughter cells. C. the secretion of products outside of the cell through the plasma membrane. D. the movement of water across a membrane.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.08.02 Describe the effects of hypertonic, isotonic, and hypotonic conditions on cells. Learning Outcome: 03.09 Section: 03.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

45. When a cell is placed into a(n) __________ solution, the cell maintains its size. A. isotonic B. hypotonic C. hypertonic

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: C.08.02 Describe the effects of hypertonic, isotonic, and hypotonic conditions on cells. Learning Outcome: 03.09 Section: 03.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes

46. When a cell is placed into a(n) __________ solution, water enters the cell. A. isotonic B. hypotonic C. hypertonic

47. Hemolysis means A. swelling of cells. B. shrinking of blood cells. C. diffusion of cells into blood. D. bursting of blood cells

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

48. When a cell is placed into a(n) __________ solution, crenation is possible. A. isotonic B. hypotonic C. hypertonic

49. A cell that has crenated has A. swollen up. B. burst. C. broken in half. D. shrunk.

50. Filtration A. pushes material out of the blood. B. uses blood pressure to move fluids. C. can separate large particles from small particles. D. All apply.

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

51. Which of the following is NOT a passive process of movement? A. Solute pumps B. Osmosis C. Facilitated diffusion D. Diffusion

52. When a substance cannot cross the plasma membrane by itself, and instead uses a protein carrier to move from high to low concentration, it uses A. facilitated diffusion. B. active transport. C. osmosis. D. simple diffusion.

53. Which process does not require a concentration gradient? A. Active transport B. Diffusion C. Facilitated diffusion D. Osmosis

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: C.08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each process with respect to the following membrane transport processes – simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis. Learning Outcome: 03.09 Section: 03.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

54. Active transport A. moves materials against their concentration gradients. B. requires energy. C. occurs in cells with many mitochondria. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each process with respect to the following membrane transport processes – simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis. HAPS Objective: C.08.01c Discuss the energy requirements and, if applicable, the sources of energy for each process with respect to the following membrane transport processes – simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis. Learning Outcome: 03.09 Section: 03.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes

55. A carrier protein is required A. for passive transport. B. for active transport. C. to move water. D. for passive transport and to move water.

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

56. The movement of materials into a cell by the formation of a pocket of the plasma membrane is called A. exocytosis. B. hemolysis. C. crenation. D. endocytosis.

57. The formation of a pocket of the plasma membrane to bring in solid materials is called A. exocytosis. B. pinocytosis. C. phagocytosis. D. facilitated diffusion.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.08.01a State the type of material moving in each process with respect to the following membrane transport processes – simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis. HAPS Objective: C.08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each process with respect to the following membrane transport processes – simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis. Learning Outcome: 03.09 Section: 03.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

True / False Questions 58. The process of "cell drinking" is known as phagocytosis. FALSE The process of "cell drinking" is known as pinocytosis.

Multiple Choice Questions 59. Bringing solutions into a cell is called A. facilitated diffusion. B. pinocytosis. C. exocytosis. D. phagocytosis.

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

60. Secretion of substances made by a cell would occur by the process of A. pinocytosis. B. exocytosis. C. endocytosis. D. phagocytosis.

61. A white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is an example of A. pinocytosis. B. exocytosis. C. active transport. D. phagocytosis.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: C.08.01d Give examples of each process in the human body with respect to the following membrane transport processes – simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis. Learning Outcome: 03.09 Section: 03.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes

62. The condition where water is lost from the body, and the concentration of solutes in body fluids rises, is called A. dehydration. B. hemolysis. C. osmosis. D. water intoxication.

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

63. Water intoxication can be due to A. loss of too much water. B. excessive sweating. C. excessive consumption of pure water. D. excessive consumption of low-sodium sports drinks.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.08.01d Give examples of each process in the human body with respect to the following membrane transport processes – simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis. HAPS Objective: C.08.02 Describe the effects of hypertonic, isotonic, and hypotonic conditions on cells. HAPS Objective: C.15.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur if the cells could not maintain homeostasis due to abnormalities in organelle function, transport processes, protein synthesis, or the cell cycle. Learning Outcome: 03.09 Section: 03.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes

64. The process of programmed cell death due to problems in the cell cycle is called A. mitosis. B. apoptosis. C. phagocytosis. D. endocytosis.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.14.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how individual cells respond to their environment (e.g., in terms of organelle function, transport processes, protein synthesis, or regulation of cell cycle) in order to maintain homeostasis in the body. HAPS Objective: C.15.01 Predict factors or situations that could disrupt organelle function, transport processes, protein synthesis, or the cell cycle. Learning Outcome: 03.10 Section: 03.03 Topic: Somatic cell division

65. Apoptosis A. involves the destruction of a cell. B. occurs at the restriction checkpoint. C. is not a component of the cell cycle. D. All apply.

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

66. The portion of the cell cycle when a cell is not dividing and instead performs normal cellular processes is called A. interphase. B. mitosis. C. apoptosis. D. exterophase.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.12.01a Referring to a generalized cell cycle, including interphase and the stages of mitosis, describe the events that take place in each stage.. Learning Outcome: 03.10 Section: 03.03 Topic: Somatic cell division

67. The period of interphase when cell growth and the manufacturing of organelles occurs is the A. G1 phase. B. S phase. C. G2 phase. D. mitosis phase.

68. The period of interphase when DNA is replicated is the A. G1 phase. B. S phase. C. G2 phase. D. mitosis phase.

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

69. The period of interphase when the proteins are made that will be needed for cell division is the A. G1 phase. B. S phase. C. G2 phase. D. mitosis phase.

70. The material that is replicated prior to cell division is called A. RNA. B. protein. C. DNA. D. ATP.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.12.01a Referring to a generalized cell cycle, including interphase and the stages of mitosis, describe the events that take place in each stage.. HAPS Objective: C.12.03 Describe DNA replication. Learning Outcome: 03.10 Section: 03.03 Topic: DNA replication and the cell cycle Topic: Somatic cell division

71. If half of a DNA molecule is ACG-TCC-GTA, the complementary half would be A. CTA-CTT-ACC. B. TGC-AGG-CAT. C. ACG-TCC-GTA. D. UGC-AGG-CAU.

Bloom's Level: 3. Apply HAPS Objective: C.12.03 Describe DNA replication. Learning Outcome: 03.11 Section: 03.03 Topic: DNA replication and the cell cycle

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

72. Each strand of a replicated double helix of DNA is called a A. chromatid. B. chromosome. C. autosome. D. centriole.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.12.04 Analyze the interrelationships among chromatin, chromosomes and chromatids. Learning Outcome: 03.11 Section: 03.03 Topic: DNA replication and the cell cycle

73. What is the function of DNA polymerase? A. Breaks hydrogen bonds between DNA strands B. Joins nucleotides of the complementary DNA strand C. Joins amino acids to form a protein D. None apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.12.03 Describe DNA replication. Learning Outcome: 03.11 Section: 03.03 Topic: DNA replication and the cell cycle

74. Transcription involves _________, where translation involves _______. A. polypeptide synthesis; mRNA synthesis B. mRNA synthesis; polypeptide synthesis C. amino acids; nucleotides

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.10.01 Define the terms genetic code, transcription, and translation. Learning Outcome: 03.12 Section: 03.03 Topic: Protein synthesis

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

75. When mRNA molecules are formed, they are complementary to DNA with the exception that A. an A in DNA matches a T in mRNA. B. a T in DNA matches an C in mRNA. C. an A in DNA matches a G in mRNA. D. an A in DNA matches a U in mRNA.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.10.02 Explain how and why RNA is synthesized. Learning Outcome: 03.12 Section: 03.03 Topic: Protein synthesis

76. The three-base sequence on mRNA that matches the triplet of DNA is a(n) A. triplet. B. anticodon. C. codon. D. gene.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.10.03 Explain the roles of tRNA, mRNA, and rRNA in protein synthesis. Learning Outcome: 03.12 Section: 03.03 Topic: Protein synthesis

77. Which of the following is NOT a form of RNA used in protein synthesis? A. Messenger RNA B. Complementary RNA C. Transfer RNA D. Ribosomal RNA

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.10.03 Explain the roles of tRNA, mRNA, and rRNA in protein synthesis. Learning Outcome: 03.12 Section: 03.03 Topic: Protein synthesis

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

78. The three-nucleotide segment of tRNA that binds to a three-nucleotide segment of mRNA during translation is called a(n) A. anticodon. B. codon. C. transcription. D. amino acid.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.10.03 Explain the roles of tRNA, mRNA, and rRNA in protein synthesis. Learning Outcome: 03.12 Section: 03.03 Topic: Protein synthesis

79. Which of the following types of RNA are NOT matched correctly with their function? A. tRNA - carries amino acids B. rRNA - site of protein synthesis C. tRNA - contains the code to make a polypeptide D. mRNA - contains the code to make a polypeptide

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.10.03 Explain the roles of tRNA, mRNA, and rRNA in protein synthesis. Learning Outcome: 03.12 Section: 03.03 Topic: Protein synthesis

80. The process of cell division involves the two stages called A. interphase and cytokinesis. B. interphase and mitosis. C. mitosis and cytokinesis. D. cytokinesis and G1 phase.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.12.01c Referring to a generalized cell cycle, including interphase and the stages of mitosis, analyze the functional significance of each stage. Learning Outcome: 03.13 Section: 03.03 Topic: Somatic cell division

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

81. The division of the cytoplasm and organelles is called A. cytokinesis. B. mitosis. C. interphase. D. telophase.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.12.02 Distinguish between mitosis and cytokinesis. Learning Outcome: 03.13 Section: 03.03 Topic: Somatic cell division

82. The division of the nucleus is called A. cytokinesis. B. mitosis. C. interphase. D. telophase.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.12.02 Distinguish between mitosis and cytokinesis. Learning Outcome: 03.13 Section: 03.03 Topic: Somatic cell division

83. The chromosomes shorten and thicken, becoming visible, during A. metaphase. B. telophase. C. anaphase. D. prophase.

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

84. The centrioles move to opposite poles during A. telophase. B. prophase. C. metaphase. D. anaphase.

85. The formation of spindle fibers occurs during A. prophase. B. metaphase. C. anaphase. D. telophase.

86. The chromosomes attach to spindle fibers by their A. chromatid. B. centromere. C. centrosome. D. aster.

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

87. The chromosomes line up randomly at the equator of the cell during A. prophase. B. metaphase. C. anaphase. D. telophase.

88. The separation of sister chromatids occurs during A. metaphase. B. telophase. C. prophase. D. anaphase.

89. The re-forming of the nuclear membrane around chromosomes occurs during A. prophase. B. anaphase. C. telophase. D. metaphase.

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

90. Cytokinesis begins with the formation of an indentation around the cell called the A. asters. B. centromere. C. cleavage furrow. D. equator.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.12.01a Referring to a generalized cell cycle, including interphase and the stages of mitosis, describe the events that take place in each stage.. HAPS Objective: C.12.02 Distinguish between mitosis and cytokinesis. Learning Outcome: 03.13 Section: 03.03 Topic: Somatic cell division

91. Mitosis produces __________ identical daughter cell(s). A. one B. two C. three D. four

92. What happens to the chromosome number as a result of mitosis? A. It is halved. B. It stays the same. C. It is doubled. D. It is tripled.

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

93. Mitosis occurs during A. growth. B. tissue repair. C. production of egg and sperm. D. growth and tissue repair.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.12.05 Give examples of cell types in the body that divide by mitosis and examples of circumstances in the body that require mitotic cell division. Learning Outcome: 03.13 Section: 03.03 Topic: Somatic cell division

94. Which of the following events of mitosis is CORRECTLY matched with its phase? A. Metaphase - chromosomes shorten and thicken to become visible B. Telophase - chromosomes line up down the middle of the cell C. Prophase - chromosomes attach to spindle fibers D. Anaphase - new nuclear envelopes form around chromosomes

95. The process of meiosis produces A. body cells. B. sex cells. C. skin cells. D. hair cells.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.13.04 Compare and contrast the processes of mitosis and meiosis. Learning Outcome: 03.13 Section: 03.03 Topic: Reproductive cell division

Chapter 03 - Cell Structure and Function

96. What happens to chromosome number as a result of meiosis? A. It is halved. B. It stays the same. C. It is doubled. D. It is tripled.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: C.13.04 Compare and contrast the processes of mitosis and meiosis. Learning Outcome: 03.13 Section: 03.03 Topic: Reproductive cell division

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

Chapter 04 Body Tissues and Membranes

Multiple Choice Questions 1. What is the purpose of goblet cells found in columnar epithelium? A. Secrete mucus B. Secrete digestive enzymes C. Secrete water D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.02.03 Describe the functions of each type of epithelial tissue in the human body and correlate function with structure for each tissue type. Learning Outcome: 04.02 Section: 04.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of epithelial tissue

Check All That Apply Questions 2. Choose the four major types of tissues in the body. __X__ Nervous __X__ Muscle __X__ Connective _____ Cartilage __X__ Epthelial

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Topic: Overview of histology and tissue types

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

Multiple Choice Questions 3. Most organs are made up of _____ types of tissue(s). A. 4 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Topic: Overview of histology and tissue types

4. Epithelial tissue A. Prevents drying. B. Secretes mucus. C. Absorbs molecules. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.02.03 Describe the functions of each type of epithelial tissue in the human body and correlate function with structure for each tissue type. Learning Outcome: 04.01 Section: 04.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of epithelial tissue

5. Which type of tissue covers surfaces and lines cavities? A. Connective B. Epithelium C. Muscle D. Connective and muscle

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.02.03 Describe the functions of each type of epithelial tissue in the human body and correlate function with structure for each tissue type. Learning Outcome: 04.01 Section: 04.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of epithelial tissue

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

6. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epithelial tissue? A. It readily divides to produce new cells. B. It has a basement membrane to connect to underlying tissue. C. It has many blood vessels to support its nutrient needs. D. It always has a free surface.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.02.03 Describe the functions of each type of epithelial tissue in the human body and correlate function with structure for each tissue type. Learning Outcome: 04.01 Section: 04.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of epithelial tissue

True / False Questions 7. Simple epithelium has two or more layers. FALSE Simple epithelium has one layer of cells.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.02.01 Classify the different types of epithelial tissues based on distinguishing structural characteristics. Learning Outcome: 04.01 Section: 04.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of epithelial tissue

Multiple Choice Questions 8. Which of the following is NOT a shape of epithelial tissue cells? A. Rectangular B. Squamous C. Columnar D. Cuboidal

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

9. What type of epithelium is found where simple diffusion occurs? A. Simple columnar B. Pseudostratified columnar C. Stratified squamous D. Simple squamous

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.02.02 Identify locations in the body where each type of epithelial tissue can be found. HAPS Objective: D.02.03 Describe the functions of each type of epithelial tissue in the human body and correlate function with structure for each tissue type. Learning Outcome: 04.02 Section: 04.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of epithelial tissue

True / False Questions 10. Simple squamous epithelium is found in the alveoli of the lungs and in capillaries. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.02.01 Classify the different types of epithelial tissues based on distinguishing structural characteristics. HAPS Objective: D.02.02 Identify locations in the body where each type of epithelial tissue can be found. Learning Outcome: 04.02 Section: 04.01

Multiple Choice Questions 11. Which type of epithelium would be best for providing protection against abrasion? A. Simple cuboidal epithelium B. Transitional epithelium C. Stratified squamous epithelium D. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: D.02.01 Classify the different types of epithelial tissues based on distinguishing structural characteristics. HAPS Objective: D.02.03 Describe the functions of each type of epithelial tissue in the human body and correlate function with structure for each tissue type. Learning Outcome: 04.02 Section: 04.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of epithelial tissue

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

12. Several layers of epithelial cells with columnar basal cells and squamous free surface cells would be called A. pseudostratified columnar epithelium. B. stratified squamous epithelium. C. stratified columnar epithelium. D. simple squamous-columnar epithelium.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: D.02.01 Classify the different types of epithelial tissues based on distinguishing structural characteristics. Learning Outcome: 04.02 Section: 04.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of epithelial tissue

13. What type of epithelium is often found in glands and kidney tubules? A. Simple cuboidal B. Simple squamous C. Stratified squamous D. Pseudostratified columnar

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.02.02 Identify locations in the body where each type of epithelial tissue can be found. Learning Outcome: 04.02 Section: 04.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of epithelial tissue

14. Specialized columnar cells that secrete mucus onto the surfaces of the tissue are called A. adipose cells. B. surface cells. C. goblet cells. D. endocrine cells.

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

15. Simple cuboidal epithelium that forms kidney tubules may have many microvilli. What is the reason for the microvilli? A. Protection from abrasion B. More surface area for reabsorption C. Sweeping away debris D. Lubrication

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: D.02.03 Describe the functions of each type of epithelial tissue in the human body and correlate function with structure for each tissue type. Learning Outcome: 04.02 Section: 04.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of epithelial tissue

16. What type of tissue lines the inside of the small intestine? A. Stratified squamous epithelium B. Loose connective C. Simple columnar epithelium D. Simple cuboidal epithelium

17. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelial tissue is found in the A. skin. B. trachea. C. blood vessels. D. digestive tract.

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

True / False Questions 18. All types of epithelial cells have the ability to slide with respect to each other. FALSE Only transitional epithelial cells have the ability to slide with respect to each other.

Multiple Choice Questions 19. What type of epithelium is found in the urinary bladder and allows it to stretch and slide to create a barrier? A. Simple columnar epithelium B. Stratified squamous epithelium C. Stratified cuboidal epithelium D. Transitional epithelium

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

20. Which type of tissue binds and supports body parts? A. Epithelium B. Nervous C. Connective D. Muscular

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.03.03 Describe functions of each type of connective tissue in the human body and correlate function with structure for each tissue type. Learning Outcome: 04.03 Section: 04.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of connective tissue

21. Which tissue contains an extensive extracellular matrix? A. Muscle B. Nervous C. Connective D. Epithelial

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.03.01 Classify the different types of connective tissues based on distinguishing structural characteristics Learning Outcome: 04.03 Section: 04.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of connective tissue

22. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of connective tissue? A. All types are avascular. B. It has a non-living extracellular matrix. C. It contains fibers as well as cells. D. Can be a solid, semifluid, or a fluid.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.03.03 Describe functions of each type of connective tissue in the human body and correlate function with structure for each tissue type. Learning Outcome: 04.03 Section: 04.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of connective tissue

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

23. What is the main determinant of connective tissue properties? A. The characteristics of the matrix B. The characteristics of the cells C. The types of cells present D. The layers of the tissue

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: D.03.03 Describe functions of each type of connective tissue in the human body and correlate function with structure for each tissue type. Learning Outcome: 04.03 Section: 04.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of connective tissue

24. Which type of fiber found in connective tissue provides flexible strength? A. Reticular B. Collagen C. Keratin D. Elastic

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.03.04 Compare and contrast the roles of individual cell types and fiber types within connective tissue. Learning Outcome: 04.03 Section: 04.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of connective tissue

25. Which of the following is connective tissue? A. Muscle B. Nervous tissue C. Glandular tissue D. Cartilage

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.03.01 Classify the different types of connective tissues based on distinguishing structural characteristics Learning Outcome: 04.04 Section: 04.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of connective tissue

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

26. What is the dominant cell found in fibrous connective tissue? A. Osteocyte B. Chondrocyte C. Erythrocyte D. Fibroblast

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.03.04 Compare and contrast the roles of individual cell types and fiber types within connective tissue. Learning Outcome: 04.04 Section: 04.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of connective tissue

27. What type of connective tissue is composed of all three types of fibers, has a spiderweb appearance, and binds tissues together? A. Dense connective tissue B. Adipose tissue C. Reticular connective tissue D. Areolar connective tissue

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.03.01 Classify the different types of connective tissues based on distinguishing structural characteristics Learning Outcome: 04.04 Section: 04.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of connective tissue

28. Which of the following is a type of loose fibrous connective tissue? A. Tendons B. Cartilage C. Adipose tissue D. Ligaments

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.03.01 Classify the different types of connective tissues based on distinguishing structural characteristics Learning Outcome: 04.04 Section: 04.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of connective tissue

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

29. What type of connective tissue is made of enlarged fibroblasts that are filled with fat, and provides insulation, padding, and energy storage? A. Adipose tissue B. Areolar connective tissue C. Dense connective tissue D. Aponeuroses

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.03.01 Classify the different types of connective tissues based on distinguishing structural characteristics HAPS Objective: D.03.03 Describe functions of each type of connective tissue in the human body and correlate function with structure for each tissue type. Learning Outcome: 04.04 Section: 04.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of connective tissue

True / False Questions 30. The main difference between regular dense and irregular dense connective tissue is how the collagen fibers are arranged. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: D.03.01 Classify the different types of connective tissues based on distinguishing structural characteristics Learning Outcome: 04.04 Section: 04.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of connective tissue

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

Multiple Choice Questions 31. Which of the following connects muscles to bones? A. Tendons B. Cartilage C. Adipose tissue D. Ligaments

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.03.02 Identify locations in the body where each type of connective tissue can be found. HAPS Objective: D.03.03 Describe functions of each type of connective tissue in the human body and correlate function with structure for each tissue type. Learning Outcome: 04.04 Section: 04.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of connective tissue

32. Which of the following is NOT an example of dense connective tissue? A. Aponeuroses B. Dermis of the skin C. Ligaments D. Lymph nodes

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.03.02 Identify locations in the body where each type of connective tissue can be found. Learning Outcome: 04.04 Section: 04.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of connective tissue

33. Lymphatic tissue is composed of A. loose connective tissue. B. reticular connective tissue. C. dense irregular connective tissue. D. dense regular connective tissue.

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

34. Which tissue has lacunae? A. Bone B. Cartilage C. Tendons D. Bone and cartilage

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.03.01 Classify the different types of connective tissues based on distinguishing structural characteristics Learning Outcome: 04.04 Section: 04.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of connective tissue

35. Which of the following is the most common type of cartilage? A. Hyaline cartilage B. Elastic cartilage C. Fibrocartilage

36. Where may cartilage be found? A. Trachea B. Outer ear C. Ends of long bones D. All apply.

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

37. What type of cartilage makes up the fetal skeleton? A. Fibrocartilage B. Hyaline cartilage C. Elastic cartilage

38. What type of cartilage makes up the frame of the outer ear? A. Fibrocartilage B. Hyaline cartilage C. Elastic cartilage

39. What type of cartilage makes up the intervertebral disks? A. Fibrocartilage B. Hyaline cartilage C. Elastic cartilage

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

40. What substances are found in bone? A. Calcium salts B. Collagen fibers C. Both calcium salts and collagen fibers

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.03.01 Classify the different types of connective tissues based on distinguishing structural characteristics HAPS Objective: D.03.04 Compare and contrast the roles of individual cell types and fiber types within connective tissue. Learning Outcome: 04.04 Section: 04.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of connective tissue

41. What type of tissue is made of cylinders called osteons or Haversian systems? A. Compact bone B. Hyaline cartilage C. Adipose tissue D. Spongy bone

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.03.01 Classify the different types of connective tissues based on distinguishing structural characteristics Learning Outcome: 04.04 Section: 04.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of connective tissue

42. Blood vessels and nerves run through the center of osteons in A. trabeculae. B. lacunae. C. central canals.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.03.01 Classify the different types of connective tissues based on distinguishing structural characteristics Learning Outcome: 04.04 Section: 04.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of connective tissue

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

43. What are found in lacunae of bone? A. Blood vessels B. Bone cells C. Nerves D. Blood vessels and nerves

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.03.01 Classify the different types of connective tissues based on distinguishing structural characteristics Learning Outcome: 04.04 Section: 04.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of connective tissue

44. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of spongy bone? A. Made of bony plates called trabeculae B. Spaces of bone marrow produce blood cells C. Made of bony rings called lamellae D. Made to provide strength and support

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.03.01 Classify the different types of connective tissues based on distinguishing structural characteristics Learning Outcome: 04.04 Section: 04.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of connective tissue

True / False Questions 45. Spongy bone is composed of bony plates called trabeculae. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.03.01 Classify the different types of connective tissues based on distinguishing structural characteristics Learning Outcome: 04.04 Section: 04.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of connective tissue

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

Multiple Choice Questions 46. Which of the following is NOT a formed element found in blood? A. Erythrocytes B. Plasma C. Leukocytes D. Thrombocytes

47. What characteristic makes blood different from other types of connective tissue? A. Blood is made of several types of cells. B. Blood matrix is not made by the blood cells. C. Blood has no matrix. D. All apply.

True / False Questions 48. Blood is special in that it has a fluid matrix that is not made by the cells of the blood. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.03.01 Classify the different types of connective tissues based on distinguishing structural characteristics Learning Outcome: 04.04 Section: 04.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of connective tissue

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

Check All That Apply Questions 49. Which are formed elements of the blood? Choose all that apply. __X__ Erythrocyte _____ Megakaryocyte __X__ Leukocyte __X__ Thrombocyte

True / False Questions 50. Blood cells are formed in the liver. FALSE Blood cells are formed in the spaces of spongy bone.

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

Multiple Choice Questions 51. Actin and myosin are found in A. muscle. B. bone. C. blood. D. cartilage.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.05 Section: 04.03 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of muscular tissue

52. Skeletal muscle is A. striated and voluntary. B. striated and involuntary. C. smooth and involuntary.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.04.01 Classify the different types of muscle tissues based on distinguishing structural characteristics and location in the body. HAPS Objective: D.04.03 Identify the different types of muscle tissue using proper microscope technique. Learning Outcome: 04.06 Section: 04.03 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of muscular tissue

53. Intestinal muscle is A. striated and voluntary. B. striated and involuntary. C. smooth and involuntary.

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

Check All That Apply Questions 54. Which muscle type can contract on its own, without nervous or endocrine input? Choose all that apply. _____ Skeletal __X__ Smooth __X__ Cardiac

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.04.02 Describe functions of each type of muscle tissue in the human body and correlate function with structure for each tissue type. Learning Outcome: 04.06 Section: 04.03 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of muscular tissue

Multiple Choice Questions 55. Which type of muscle tissue contains branched fibers? A. Skeletal muscle B. Smooth muscle C. Cardiac muscle D. Skeletal and cardiac muscles

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.04.01 Classify the different types of muscle tissues based on distinguishing structural characteristics and location in the body. Learning Outcome: 04.06 Section: 04.03 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of muscular tissue

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

56. Cardiac muscle is A. striated and voluntary. B. striated and involuntary. C. smooth and involuntary.

57. Which type of muscle has intercalated disks? A. Skeletal muscle B. Smooth muscle C. Cardiac muscle D. Both smooth and cardiac muscles.

58. A neuron is a A. muscle cell. B. nerve cell. C. fiber cell. D. cartilage cell.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.05.02 Describe the structure and function of neurons and neuroglial cells in nervous tissue and correlate function with structure for the different types of neuroglial cells. Learning Outcome: 04.07 Section: 04.04 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of nervous tissue

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

Check All That Apply Questions 59. Which are parts of a neuron? Choose all that apply. _____ Intercalated disk __X__ Dendrite __X__ Axon __X__ Cell body _____ Lacuna

Multiple Choice Questions 60. Which contains the nucleus? A. Axon B. Dendrite C. Cell body D. Axon and dendrite

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

61. Nerves are primarily composed of A. axons. B. dendrites. C. cell bodies. D. All apply.

62. Neuroglia are associated with A. bone cells. B. neurons. C. muscle fibers. D. blood cells.

63. Which type of neuroglia is phagocytotic and engulfs bacteria? A. Astrocytes B. Oligodendrocytes C. Schwann cells D. Microglia

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

64. Which type of neuroglia forms the myelin sheath around nerves outside the brain and spinal cord? A. Ependymal cells B. Astrocytes C. Schwann cells D. Oligodendrocytes

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.05.01 Identify locations in the body where nervous tissue can be found. HAPS Objective: D.05.02 Describe the structure and function of neurons and neuroglial cells in nervous tissue and correlate function with structure for the different types of neuroglial cells. Learning Outcome: 04.07 Section: 04.04 Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of nervous tissue

65. Which type of neuroglia line the ventricles of the brain? A. Ependymal cells B. Microglia C. Schwann cells D. Astrocytes

66. Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes form _______, with gaps between them that are called _______. A. nerves; intercalated disks B. tracts; nerves C. myelin sheaths; nodes of Ranvier D. nerves; nodes of Ranvier

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

67. Cancers of epithelial tissues are called A. sarcomas. B. carcinomas. C. leukemias. D. lymphomas.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Topic: Overview of histology and tissue types

True / False Questions 68. Leukemias account for 90% of all human cancers. FALSE Carcinomas account for 90% of all human cancers.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Topic: Overview of histology and tissue types

Multiple Choice Questions 69. Cancers of connective tissue are called A. sarcomas. B. carcinomas. C. leukemias. D. lymphomas.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Topic: Overview of histology and tissue types

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

70. Leukemia is a cancer of A. the blood. B. pithelial tissue. C. connective tissue. D. the brain.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Topic: Overview of histology and tissue types

71. Lymphoma is a cancer of A. reticular tissue. B. blood. C. bone. D. epithelial tissue.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Topic: Overview of histology and tissue types

72. A cancer that travels to invade healthy tissue is said to A. be benign. B. be mutated. C. have metastasized. D. None apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Topic: Overview of histology and tissue types

73. Which of the following are known carcinogens? A. Viruses B. Excessive radiation C. Certain chemicals D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Topic: Overview of histology and tissue types

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

74. Any influence that causes a mutated cell to begin uncontrollable growth is called a(n) A. initiator. B. carcinogen. C. promoter. D. vasculizer.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Topic: Overview of histology and tissue types

75. What procedure uses a variety of drugs to kill cancer cells? A. Radiation B. Chemotherapy C. Gene therapy D. Surgery

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Topic: Overview of histology and tissue types

76. Which type of extracellular junction forms an impermeable barrier of cells? A. Gap junction B. Adhesion junction C. Membrane junction D. Tight junction

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.08 Section: 04.05 Topic: Overview of histology and tissue types

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

77. Which extracellular junction allows for the transfer of materials between adjacent cells? A. Adhesion junction B. Gap junction C. Tight junction D. Membrane junction

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.08 Section: 04.05 Topic: Overview of histology and tissue types

78. What is the function of an adhesion junction? A. To create an impermeable barrier between cells B. To keep cells from pulling apart C. To allow materials to pass from cell to cell D. None apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.08 Section: 04.05 Topic: Overview of histology and tissue types

True / False Questions 79. Adhesion junctions are found between cells of the cervix to keep it from ripping during birth. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 04.08 Section: 04.05 Topic: Overview of histology and tissue types

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

Multiple Choice Questions 80. Glands are mostly made of A. epithelial cells. B. muscle cells. C. nerve cells. D. blood cells.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.02.01 Classify the different types of epithelial tissues based on distinguishing structural characteristics. Learning Outcome: 04.09 Section: 04.05 Topic: Glands (exocrine vs. endocrine) Topic: Microscopic anatomy, location, and function of epithelial tissue

81. Most glands secrete their product by A. phagocytosis. B. pinocytosis. C. endocytosis. D. exocytosis.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.07.01 Distinguish between exocrine and endocrine glands, structurally and functionally. Learning Outcome: 04.09 Section: 04.05 Topic: Glands (exocrine vs. endocrine)

82. Glands that secrete products into ducts are called A. exocrine. B. endocrine. C. hormonal. D. endocrine and hormonal.

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

83. Glands that secrete products directly into the blood are A. exocrine glands. B. endocrine glands. C. goblet glands. D. plasma glands.

84. Where would a mucous membrane be found? A. Lining internal cavities B. Lining tubes and organs that open to the outside C. Covering internal organs D. Covering the brain

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.06.02 Identify locations in the body where each type of membrane can be found. Learning Outcome: 04.10 Section: 04.05 Topic: Membranes (mucous, serous, cutaneous, and synovial)

85. Mucus serves as a protection against A. digestive juices. B. trauma. C. cold and hot.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.06.01 Describe the structure and function of mucous, serous, cutaneous and synovial membranes. Learning Outcome: 04.10 Section: 04.05 Topic: Membranes (mucous, serous, cutaneous, and synovial)

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

86. Which type of membrane lines body cavities that are NOT open to the environment? A. Cutaneous B. Serous C. Mucous D. Synovial

87. The parietal pleura A. lines the abdominal cavity. B. covers the lungs. C. covers the digestive organs. D. lines the thoracic wall.

88. Which membrane covers the surface of the heart? A. Visceral peritoneum B. Parietal pericardium C. Visceral pleura D. Visceral pericardium

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

89. Which membrane lines the abdominal cavity? A. Visceral peritoneum B. Parietal peritoneum C. Parietal pericardium D. Parietal pleura

90. Which membrane lines freely moveable joints such as the shoulder? A. Synovial B. Cutaneous C. Serous D. Mucous

91. Rheumatoid arthritis is associated with A. meninges. B. synovial membranes. C. mucous membranes. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.08.01 Describe how injuries and aging affect epithelial, connective, muscular, and nervous tissues. Learning Outcome: 04.11 Section: 04.05 Topic: Membranes (mucous, serous, cutaneous, and synovial)

Chapter 04 - Body Tissues and Membranes

92. What membranes protect the brain and spinal cord? A. Mucous membranes B. Synovial membranes C. Meninges D. Cutaneous membranes

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.06.01 Describe the structure and function of mucous, serous, cutaneous and synovial membranes. Learning Outcome: 04.11 Section: 04.05 Topic: Membranes (mucous, serous, cutaneous, and synovial)

93. Which of the membranes are made of connective tissue? A. Meninges B. Cutaneous membranes C. Serous membranes D. Mucous membranes

True / False Questions 94. Another name for the cutaneous membrane is the pleura. FALSE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: D.06.02 Identify locations in the body where each type of membrane can be found. Learning Outcome: 04.11 Section: 04.05 Topic: Membranes (mucous, serous, cutaneous, and synovial)

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

Chapter 05 The Integumentary System

Check All That Apply Questions 1. Which are alternate names for the skin? Choose all that apply. __X__ Integument _____ Peritoneum __X__ Cutaneous membrane _____ Synovial membrane

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember

True / False Questions 2. The skin is both an organ and an organ system. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 05.01 Section: 05.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of skin

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

Multiple Choice Questions 3. The skin consists of ____ layer(s). A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.03.04 Analyze the benefits of skin being a multilayered organ. Learning Outcome: 05.01 Section: 05.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of skin

4. The epidermis and dermis make up the A. serous membrane. B. subcutaneous membrane. C. integument. D. hypodermis.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.03.04 Analyze the benefits of skin being a multilayered organ. Learning Outcome: 05.01 Section: 05.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of skin

5. Where is the basement membrane of the skin? A. Between the epidermis and dermis B. Between the epidermis and hypodermis C. Between the hypodermis and underlying tissues D. Between the dermis and hypodermis

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.03.04 Analyze the benefits of skin being a multilayered organ. Learning Outcome: 05.01 Section: 05.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of skin

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

Check All That Apply Questions 6. Which describe the epidermis? Choose all that apply. _____ It is made of simple squamous epithelium. __X__ It is made of stratified squamous epithelium. _____ It is richly vascularized. __X__ It is avascular.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.02.01a Identify and describe the tissue type making up the epidermis with respect to the epidermis. Learning Outcome: 05.01 Section: 05.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of skin

Multiple Choice Questions 7. Which is the correct list of the strata of the epidermis, in order? A. Corneum, lucidum, granulosum, spinosum, basale B. Corneum, lucidum, spinosum, granulosum, basale C. Lucidum, corneum, spinosum, granulosum, basale D. Basale, lucidum, corneum, granulosum, spinosum

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.03.01b Explain how each of the five layers, as well as each of the following cell types and substances, contributes to the functions of the epidermis: stem cells of stratum basale, keratinocytes, melanocytes, Langerhans cells, Merkel cells and discs, keratin, and extracellular lipids with respect to the epidermis. Learning Outcome: 05.02 Section: 05.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of skin

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

8. In which layer of the epidermis are cells constantly dividing? A. Stratum corneum B. Stratum lucidum C. Stratum dermis D. Stratum basale

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.02.01b Identify and describe the layers of the epidermis, indicating which are found in thin skin and which are found in thick skin with respect to the epidermis. HAPS Objective: E.03.01b Explain how each of the five layers, as well as each of the following cell types and substances, contributes to the functions of the epidermis: stem cells of stratum basale, keratinocytes, melanocytes, Langerhans cells, Merkel cells and discs, keratin, and extracellular lipids with respect to the epidermis. Learning Outcome: 05.02 Section: 05.01 Topic: Functions of skin tissue layers

9. Which of the following types of cells are NOT found in the epidermis? A. Squamous epithelial cells B. Langerhans cells C. Red blood cells D. Melanocytes

10. What happens to cells when they move from the epidermis to the surface of the skin? A. They become softer and more pliable. B. They divide more. C. They die. D. They become dermal cells.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.02.01d Describe the processes of growth and keratinization of the epidermis with respect to the epidermis. Learning Outcome: 05.02 Section: 05.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of skin

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

11. Which cell type is the most numerous in the epidermis? A. Keratinocytes B. Melanocytes C. Merkel cells D. Langerhans cells

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.02.01a Identify and describe the tissue type making up the epidermis with respect to the epidermis. Learning Outcome: 05.02 Section: 05.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of skin

12. What is the function of Langerhans cells? A. Water-proofing B. UV protection C. Register pain D. Phagocytize microbes

13. A person with no color in their skin, hair, and eyes has A. melanoma. B. jaundice. C. albinism. D. a hematoma.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.02.04a Identify and describe the three pigments most responsible for producing the various skin colors with respect to skin color. HAPS Objective: E.06.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the integumentary system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 05.02 Section: 05.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the integumentary system

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

14. The inability to produce the pigment melanin is called A. albinism. B. cyanosis. C. decubitus. D. alopecia.

Check All That Apply Questions 15. Which are functions of melanin? Choose all that apply. _____ It acts as a vitamin, helping with calcium absorption. __X__ It acts as a shield, absorbing UV rays. _____ It is secreted onto the surface of the skin. __X__ It is responsible for most of skin color.

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

Multiple Choice Questions 16. Merkel cells detect sensations of A. pain. B. deep pressure. C. touch. D. temperature.

17. Which layer of the epidermis protects from abrasion and is found only in thick skin? A. Stratum basale B. Hypodermis C. Stratum corneum D. Stratum lucidum

18. Which layer of the epidermis is closest to the surface? A. Stratum lucidum B. Stratum corneum C. Dermis D. Stratum basale

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

19. We constantly shed dead skin cells into the environment. From which epidermal layer do the cells shed? A. Stratum corneum B. Stratum lucidum C. Stratum basale

20. The skin is waterproof, not allowing water to come in or out. Which protein is most responsible for this property? A. Keratin B. Melanin C. Carotene D. Sebum

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.03.01a Describe the functions of the epidermis with respect to the epidermis. Learning Outcome: 05.02 Section: 05.01 Topic: Functions of skin tissue layers

21. The dermis is composed of A. stratified squamous epithelium. B. pseudostratified columnar epithelium. C. loose connective tissue. D. dense irregular connective tissue.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.02.02 Identify and describe the dermis and its layers, including the tissue types making up each dermal layer. Learning Outcome: 05.03 Section: 05.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of skin

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

True / False Questions 22. The dermal papillae, found in the superficial hypodermis, create the unique fingerprints of individuals. FALSE The dermal papillae, found in the papillary layer of the dermis, create the unique fingerprints of individuals.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.02.02 Identify and describe the dermis and its layers, including the tissue types making up each dermal layer. HAPS Objective: E.03.02b Describe the specific function of each dermal layer and relate that function to the skin’s overall functions with respect to the dermis. Learning Outcome: 05.03 Section: 05.01

Multiple Choice Questions 23. Which of the following prevents the skin from overstretching and gives it strength? A. Melanin B. Collagen fibers C. Adipose tissue D. Elastic fibers

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.02.02 Identify and describe the dermis and its layers, including the tissue types making up each dermal layer. HAPS Objective: E.03.02a Describe the overall functions of the dermis with respect to the dermis. Learning Outcome: 05.03 Section: 05.01 Topic: Functions of skin tissue layers Topic: Microscopic anatomy of skin

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

24. Which of the following allows movement of muscles and joints and maintains normal skin tension? A. Elastic fibers B. Collagen fibers C. Sensory fibers D. Dermal papillae

25. Which layer of the skin contains blood vessels AND nerve fibers? A. Epidermis B. Dermis C. Epidermis and dermis

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.02.01a Identify and describe the tissue type making up the epidermis with respect to the epidermis. HAPS Objective: E.02.02 Identify and describe the dermis and its layers, including the tissue types making up each dermal layer. Learning Outcome: 05.03 Section: 05.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of skin

26. Poorly oxygenated blood in the dermis will cause an individual to A. turn cyanotic. B. blush. C. have pallor. D. be pinkish.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.06.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the integumentary system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 05.03 Section: 05.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the integumentary system

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

27. Reduced blood flow into the dermis will cause A. cyanosis. B. pallor. C. blushing. D. jaundice.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.06.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the integumentary system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 05.03 Section: 05.01

28. Continuous pressure that reduces blood supply to the skin can result in a(n) A. urticaria. B. decubitus ulcer. C. hirsutism. D. callus.

29. The hypodermis consists mostly of A. adipose tissue. B. dense regular connective tissue. C. dense irregular connective tissue. D. stratified squamous epithelium.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.02.03 Identify and describe the subcutaneous tissue, including the tissue types making up subcutaneous tissue. Learning Outcome: 05.01 Section: 05.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of skin

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

30. Hair is produced by epithelial cells located in the A. epidermis. B. dermis. C. hypodermis. D. dermis and hypodermis.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.04.01b Give the location of each structure in the body with respect to the following - sweat glands (eccrine and apocrine), sebaceous glands, nails, hair (follicle and arrector pili muscle), and sensory receptors (Merkel cell, Meissner’s Learning Outcome: 05.04 Section: 05.02 Topic: Anatomy of accessory skin structures

31. Which consists of keratinized cells? A. Hair B. Nails C. Stratum corneum D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.02.01d Describe the processes of growth and keratinization of the epidermis with respect to the epidermis. HAPS Objective: E.04.01c Describe the anatomy of each structure with respect to the following - sweat glands (eccrine and apocrine), sebaceous glands, nails, hair (follicle and arrector pili muscle), and sensory receptors (Merkel cell, Meissner’s Learning Outcome: 05.04 Section: 05.02 Topic: Anatomy of accessory skin structures

32. A condition described by excessive body and facial hair in women is A. hirsutism. B. decubitus ulcer. C. scabies. D. alopecia.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.06.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the integumentary system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 05.04 Section: 05.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the integumentary system

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

33. Which of the these pairs is incorrectly matched? A. Hair follicle - smooth muscle that contracts to move the hair B. Hair shaft - the part of the hair beyond the skin C. Hair root - the part of the hair buried in the skin D. Hair matrix - the growth center of the hair

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.04.01c Describe the anatomy of each structure with respect to the following - sweat glands (eccrine and apocrine), sebaceous glands, nails, hair (follicle and arrector pili muscle), and sensory receptors (Merkel cell, Meissner’s Learning Outcome: 05.04 Section: 05.02 Topic: Anatomy of accessory skin structures

34. The loss of hair is termed A. alopecia. B. hirsutism. C. cyanosis. D. albinism.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.06.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the integumentary system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 05.04 Section: 05.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the integumentary system

35. The arrector pili muscle A. is a smooth muscle. B. causes hair to "stand on end." C. contracts when cold, forming goose bumps. D. All apply.

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

36. What type of gland is associated with hair follicles? A. Sebaceous glands B. Apocrine sweat glands C. Eccrine sweat glands D. Ceruminous glands

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.04.01a Identify each structure with respect to the following - sweat glands (eccrine and apocrine), sebaceous glands, nails, hair (follicle and arrector pili muscle), and sensory receptors (Merkel cell, Meissner HAPS Objective: E.04.01b Give the location of each structure in the body with respect to the following - sweat glands (eccrine and apocrine), sebaceous glands, nails, hair (follicle and arrector pili muscle), and sensory receptors (Merkel cell, Meissner’s Learning Outcome: 05.04 Section: 05.02

37. The area of rapidly dividing cells in the nail base is the A. cuticle. B. nail bed. C. lunula. D. follicle.

38. What type of skin gland secretes sweat? A. Sebaceous gland B. Sudoriferous gland C. Ceruminous gland D. Mammary gland

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.04.01a Identify each structure with respect to the following - sweat glands (eccrine and apocrine), sebaceous glands, nails, hair (follicle and arrector pili muscle), and sensory receptors (Merkel cell, Meissner HAPS Objective: E.04.01d Describe the function of each structure with respect to the following - sweat glands (eccrine and apocrine), sebaceous glands, nails, hair (follicle and arrector pili muscle), and sensory receptors (Merkel cell, Meissner’s Learning Outcome: 05.05 Section: 05.02 Topic: Anatomy of accessory skin structures

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

39. Which type(s) of skin gland(s) become(s) active with puberty? A. Sebaceous gland B. Apocrine sweat gland C. Eccrine sweat gland D. Both sebaceous and apocrine sweat glands.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.04.01a Identify each structure with respect to the following - sweat glands (eccrine and apocrine), sebaceous glands, nails, hair (follicle and arrector pili muscle), and sensory receptors (Merkel cell, Meissner HAPS Objective: E.04.01d Describe the function of each structure with respect to the following - sweat glands (eccrine and apocrine), sebaceous glands, nails, hair (follicle and arrector pili muscle), and sensory receptors (Merkel cell, Meissner’s Learning Outcome: 05.05 Section: 05.02 Topic: Functions of accessory skin structures

40. Which type of gland opens into hair follicles and secretes sweat after puberty? A. Sebaceous glands B. Apocrine sweat glands C. Eccrine sweat glands D. Ceruminous glands

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.04.01d Describe the function of each structure with respect to the following - sweat glands (eccrine and apocrine), sebaceous glands, nails, hair (follicle and arrector pili muscle), and sensory receptors (Merkel cell, Meissner’s Learning Outcome: 05.05 Section: 05.02 Topic: Functions of accessory skin structures

41. Which type of gland functions to cool the body with its secretions? A. Eccrine B. Apocrine C. Sebaceous D. Ceruminous

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

42. What type of skin gland secretes earwax? A. Sebaceous gland B. Eccrine sweat gland C. Apocrine sweat gland D. Ceruminous gland

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.04.01a Identify each structure with respect to the following - sweat glands (eccrine and apocrine), sebaceous glands, nails, hair (follicle and arrector pili muscle), and sensory receptors (Merkel cell, Meissner HAPS Objective: E.04.01d Describe the function of each structure with respect to the following - sweat glands (eccrine and apocrine), sebaceous glands, nails, hair (follicle and arrector pili muscle), and sensory receptors (Merkel cell, Meissner’s Learning Outcome: 05.05 Section: 05.02 Topic: Functions of accessory skin structures

43. An inflammation of sebaceous glands that occurs during adolescence is A. impetigo. B. psoriasis. C. acne vulgaris. D. decubitus ulcer.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.06.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the integumentary system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 05.05 Section: 05.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the integumentary system

44. Sebaceous glands secrete A. sebum. B. cerumin. C. sweat. D. breast milk.

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

True / False Questions 45. Mammary glands secrete cerumin. FALSE

Check All That Apply Questions 46. Which are functions of the skin? Choose all that apply. _____ Produce body heat __X__ Prevent water loss __X__ Excrete excess water __X__ Eliminate ammonia, urea

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.01.01 Describe the general functions of the skin. Learning Outcome: 05.06 Section: 05.03 Topic: General functions of skin and the subcutaneous layer

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

Multiple Choice Questions 47. What is needed to produce vitamin D? A. Calcium B. Sebum C. Ultraviolet light D. Melanin

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.01.01 Describe the general functions of the skin. Learning Outcome: 05.06 Section: 05.03 Topic: General functions of skin and the subcutaneous layer

48. Vitamin D is needed by the body to A. form keratin. B. absorb calcium from food. C. make blood cells. D. help the skin tan.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.05.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the integumentary system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body. HAPS Objective: E.05.02 Explain how the integumentary system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 05.06 Section: 05.03 Topic: General functions of skin and the subcutaneous layer

49. When one walks into a cold room, exposed skin will experience A. dermal vasoconstriction. B. dermal vasodilation. C. epidermal vasoconstriction. D. increased sweat gland activity.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: E.01.01 Describe the general functions of the skin. HAPS Objective: E.05.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the integumentary system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body. Learning Outcome: 05.06 Section: 05.03 Topic: General functions of skin and the subcutaneous layer

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

50. What in the skin contracts when environmental temperatures decrease? A. Arrector pili B. Sweat glands C. Sebaceous glands D. Hair

51. Along with sweat glands, what actively regulates body temperature? A. Adipose tissue B. Blood vessels C. Sebaceous glands D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.01.01 Describe the general functions of the skin. HAPS Objective: E.05.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the integumentary system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body. Learning Outcome: 05.06 Section: 05.03 Topic: General functions of skin and the subcutaneous layer

52. What condition is described by high temperature, low blood pressure, and loss of salts due to profuse sweating? A. Heat exhaustion B. Heat stroke C. Fever D. Hypothermia

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.06.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the integumentary system that could disrupt homeostasis. HAPS Objective: E.06.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the integumentary system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 05.07 Section: 05.03 Topic: Clinical applications of the integumentary system

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

53. _______ is characterized by a too-low body temperature, while _______ is characterized by a too-high body temperature. A. Hypothermia; hyperthermia B. Hyperthermia; hypothermia

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.06.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the integumentary system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 05.07 Section: 05.03 Topic: Clinical applications of the integumentary system

54. When body temperature soars to as high as 110 degrees F, and sweating ceases, the patient is said to have A. heat stroke. B. heat exhaustion. C. fever. D. hypothermia.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.06.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the integumentary system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 05.07 Section: 05.03 Topic: Clinical applications of the integumentary system

55. Hyperthermia that is brought on by a bacterial infection is called A. fever. B. hypothermia. C. cyanosis. D. sweating.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.05.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the integumentary system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body. Learning Outcome: 05.07 Section: 05.03 Topic: Clinical applications of the integumentary system

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

56. Athlete's foot is A. a bacterial infection. B. caused by over keratinization. C. caused by sensitivity to chemicals. D. a fungal infection.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.06.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the integumentary system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 05.09 Section: 05.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the integumentary system

57. Impetigo is A. a bacterial infection resulting in crusty pustules. B. caused by over keratinization. C. overactive cell division. D. a fungal infection.

58. Eczema is A. a bacterial infection. B. caused by over keratinization. C. caused by sensitivity to chemicals. D. caused by overactive cell division giving silvery scales.

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

59. Dandruff is A. a viral infection of the scalp. B. caused by over keratinization. C. caused by sensitivity to chemicals. D. a fungal infection of the scalp.

True / False Questions 60. Another name for hives is psoriasis. FALSE Another name for hives is urticaria.

Multiple Choice Questions 61. Which of the following is the most common type of skin cancer? A. Basal cell carcinoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Melanoma D. Kaposi's sarcoma

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.06.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the integumentary system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 05.08 Section: 05.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the integumentary system

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

62. Which is the most dangerous form of skin cancer? A. Basal cell carcinoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Melanoma D. Both basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma

63. In the ABCDE rule for melanoma, "B" stands for A. borders that are even. B. borders that are irregular. C. burning feeling. D. bright colors.

True / False Questions 64. The ABCDE rule is used to determine the skin area involved in a burn. FALSE The ABCDE rule is used to determine signs of melanoma skin cancer.

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

Multiple Choice Questions 65. Which pair of terms is INCORRECT? A. A - assymmetry B. C - color C. D - depth D. E - evolving E. B - border regularity

66. What type of skin cancer is seen most often in patients with AIDS? A. Kaposi's sarcoma B. Basal cell carcinoma C. Melanoma D. Squamous cell carcinoma

True / False Questions 67. Exposure to sunlight is the most common cause of skin cancer. TRUE

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

Multiple Choice Questions 68. Which of the following is NOT a sign of inflammation as seen in a skin injury? A. Bruise B. Swelling C. Redness D. Pain

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.08.02 Describe the stages in tissue repair following an injury. Learning Outcome: 05.09 Section: 05.04 Topic: Repair and regeneration of the integumentary system

69. What is the function of a blood clot? A. Prevents blood loss B. Prevents toxins from entering other tissues C. Prevents pathogens from entering other tissue D. All apply.

70. What is NOT a function of fibroblasts in wound healing? A. Bring about scar formation B. Promote tissue regeneration C. Fight infections D. Pull the margins of wound together

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

71. What is a scar composed of? A. Epithelium B. Blood clot C. Collagen fibers D. Areolar tissue

72. Only the epidermis is damaged in a A. first-degree burn. B. second-degree burn. C. third-degree burn. D. fourth-degree burn.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.06.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the integumentary system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 05.10 Section: 05.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the integumentary system

73. The epidermis and part of the dermis are damaged from a A. first-degree burn. B. second-degree burn. C. third-degree burn. D. fourth-degree burn.

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

74. Pain is rarely felt from a A. first-degree burn. B. second-degree burn. C. third-degree burn. D. sunburn.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: E.06.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the integumentary system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 05.10 Section: 05.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the integumentary system

75. Severe burns result in A. fluid loss. B. heat loss. C. bacterial infection. D. All apply.

76. What percentage of a person's skin would be involved if they had burned their left arm, front of the trunk, and the front of their left leg? A. 45% B. 40.5% C. 36% D. 31.5%

Bloom's Level: 3. Apply HAPS Objective: E.06.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the integumentary system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 05.11 Section: 05.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the integumentary system

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

True / False Questions 77. An adult with third-degree burns over 15% of their body would NOT be considered critical. FALSE An adult with third-degree burns over 10% or more of their body would be considered critical.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: E.06.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the integumentary system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 05.11 Section: 05.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the integumentary system

Multiple Choice Questions 78. Which of the following helps explain why elderly people have trouble with thermoregulation? A. Their skin has less collagen. B. They have fewer sweat glands. C. They have fewer sebaceous glands. D. The epidermis becomes thinner.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: E.06.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the integumentary system that could disrupt homeostasis. HAPS Objective: E.06.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the integumentary system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 05.12 Section: 05.05 Topic: Effects of aging on the integumentary system

Chapter 05 - The Integumentary System

79. Which of the following explains why people get gray hair as they age? A. Collagen decreases in quantity and function with aging. B. Sebaceous glands decrease in number and function with aging. C. Hair follicles atrophy and decrease in function with aging. D. Melanocytes decrease in function with aging.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: E.04.01d Describe the function of each structure with respect to the following - sweat glands (eccrine and apocrine), sebaceous glands, nails, hair (follicle and arrector pili muscle), and sensory receptors (Merkel cell, Meissner’s Learning Outcome: 05.12 Section: 05.05 Topic: Effects of aging on the integumentary system

80. The integumentary system works with the _______ system to protect the body against infection. A. cardiovascular B. lymphatic C. digestive D. reproductive

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: E.05.02 Explain how the integumentary system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 05.13 Section: 05.06 Topic: General functions of skin and the subcutaneous layer

81. How does the skin work closely with the skeletal system? A. It produces sweat. B. It produces sweat. C. It stores fat. D. It protects against infection.

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

Chapter 06 The Skeletal System

Multiple Choice Questions 1. What is stored in the skeleton? A. Calcium and vitamin D B. Fat and vitamin C C. Calcium and white blood cells D. Calcium, fat, and phosphate

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.01.01 Describe the general functions of the skeletal system. Learning Outcome: 06.01 Section: 06.01 Topic: General functions of bone and the skeletal system

2. What do bones produce? A. Blood cells B. Vitamin D C. Body heat D. All apply.

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

Check All That Apply Questions 3. Bones are classified by shape. Which of the following are shapes of bones? Choose all that apply. __X__ Short __X__ Long _____ Regular __X__ Irregular

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.01 Identify the types of bones based on shape and composition (compact vs. spongy), and relate the shapes of bones to their functions. Learning Outcome: 06.02 Section: 06.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of bone

Multiple Choice Questions 4. Which of the following is an example of a long bone? A. Femur B. Patella C. Vertebra D. Frontal bone

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

5. Which of the following would be classified as an irregular bone? A. Humerus B. Vertebra C. Carpal D. Parietal bone

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: F.07.01 Identify the types of bones based on shape and composition (compact vs. spongy), and relate the shapes of bones to their functions. Learning Outcome: 06.02 Section: 06.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of bone

6. The connective tissue membrane that surrounds all bones is the A. periosteum. B. endosteum. C. osteon. D. articular cartilage.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.02.01 List and describe the cellular and extracellular components of bone tissue. Learning Outcome: 06.03 Section: 06.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of bone

7. The end of a long bone is the A. diaphysis. B. periosteum. C. osteon. D. epiphysis.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.03.01 Identify the structural components of a long bone, with emphasis on region of longitudinal growth. Learning Outcome: 06.03 Section: 06.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of bone

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

8. The shaft of a long bone is the A. periosteum. B. diaphysis. C. epiphysis. D. endosteum.

9. The medullary cavity contains A. yellow marrow. B. spongy bone. C. the periosteum. D. red marrow.

10. What is the name of the hyaline cartilage that covers the epiphyses of long bones? A. Articular cartilage B. Fibrocartilage C. Periosteum D. Lamella

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

11. Red marrow A. produces blood cells. B. is located in the cavities of compact bone. C. is located in the epiphyseal plate. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.02.02 Identify the internal structural components of compact bone and spongy bone. Learning Outcome: 06.03 Section: 06.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of bone

12. Hematopoiesis is the process of A. bone formation. B. red blood cell formation. C. the deposition of minerals onto collagen strands. D. bone cell formation.

13. What are the cells found within an osteon? A. Osteoblasts B. Osteocytes C. Epiphysealcytes D. Chondrocytes

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.02.01 List and describe the cellular and extracellular components of bone tissue. HAPS Objective: F.02.02 Identify the internal structural components of compact bone and spongy bone. Learning Outcome: 06.03 Section: 06.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of bone

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

14. Osteocytes live in small spaces within the calcified bone called A. lacunae. B. canaliculi. C. lamellae. D. the central canal.

15. The concentric layers that form an osteon are ______. The small spaces that contain osteocytes are ________. A. lamellae; lacunae B. lacunae; lamellae C. canaliculi; lacunae D. lamellae; central canals

16. What are the small passageways through compact bone that connect osteocytes to each other and the central canal? A. Lamellae B. Lacunae C. Canaliculi D. Perforating canals

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.02.02 Identify the internal structural components of compact bone and spongy bone. Learning Outcome: 06.03 Section: 06.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of bone

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

True / False Questions 17. Compact bone is the main bone tissue found in the epiphyses of long bones. FALSE Cancellous (spongy) bone is the main bone tissue found in the epiphyses of long bones. Compact bone makes up the diaphysis.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.02.02 Identify the internal structural components of compact bone and spongy bone. HAPS Objective: F.03.01 Identify the structural components of a long bone, with emphasis on region of longitudinal growth. Learning Outcome: 06.03 Section: 06.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of bone

Multiple Choice Questions 18. What structures allow osteocytes to access nutrients and oxygen? A. Trabeculae B. Lamella C. Canaliculi D. Articular cartilage

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: F.02.02 Identify the internal structural components of compact bone and spongy bone. Learning Outcome: 06.03 Section: 06.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of bone

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

19. The bony bars, or rods, that make up spongy bone are called A. trabeculae. B. osteons. C. endosteum. D. canaliculi.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.02.02 Identify the internal structural components of compact bone and spongy bone. Learning Outcome: 06.03 Section: 06.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of bone

True / False Questions 20. Spongy bone is not as strong as compact bone. FALSE Spongy bone is just as strong as compact bone.

Multiple Choice Questions 21. Immature, undifferentiated bone cells are called A. osteoprogenitor cells. B. osteocytes. C. osteoclasts.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.02.01 List and describe the cellular and extracellular components of bone tissue. Learning Outcome: 06.04 Section: 06.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of bone

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

22. What type of cells secrete the matrix of bone? A. Osteoprogenitor cells B. Osteoblasts C. Osteocytes D. Osteoclasts

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.04.01 Explain the roles osteogenic cells play in the formation of bone tissue. HAPS Objective: F.05.01 Compare and contrast the function of osteoblasts and osteoclasts during bone growth, repair, and remodeling. Learning Outcome: 06.04 Section: 06.01 Topic: Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling

23. Which of the following are the bone-eating (resorbing) cells? A. Osteoprogenitor cells B. Osteocytes C. Osteoblasts D. Osteoclasts

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.05.01 Compare and contrast the function of osteoblasts and osteoclasts during bone growth, repair, and remodeling. Learning Outcome: 06.04 Section: 06.01 Topic: Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling

24. During intramembranous ossification A. bone develops between sheets of fibrous connective tissue. B. hyaline cartilage is replaced by bone. C. osteoclasts break down bone. D. new bone is added on top of existing bone.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.04.02 Compare and contrast intramembranous and endochondral (intracartilagenous) bone formation Learning Outcome: 06.04 Section: 06.01 Topic: Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

25. Which would form by way of intramembranous ossification? A. Humerus B. Metacarpal C. Frontal bone D. Clavicle

26. During endochondral ossification A. hyaline cartilage changes to adipose tissue. B. osteoblasts break down bone. C. hyaline cartilage is replaced by bone. D. simple fractures are more common.

27. What structure is the site of bone growth in length? A. Primary ossification center B. Epiphyseal plates C. Periosteum D. None apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.03.01 Identify the structural components of a long bone, with emphasis on region of longitudinal growth. Learning Outcome: 06.04 Section: 06.01 Topic: Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

28. The addition of new bony matrix on top of existing bone, increasing the bone's diameter, is called A. endochondral ossification. B. intramembranous ossification. C. osteoprogenesis. D. appositional growth.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.05.04 Contrast the remodeling processes of a child (birth to adolescence) and an adult (middle to old age). Learning Outcome: 06.04 Section: 06.01 Topic: Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling

True / False Questions 29. Once a person reaches adulthood, they no longer form new bone. FALSE People form new bone during their entire lifetime.

30. Children and adults require about the same amount of daily calcium. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.05.04 Contrast the remodeling processes of a child (birth to adolescence) and an adult (middle to old age). Learning Outcome: 06.05 Section: 06.01

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

Multiple Choice Questions 31. A bone that is broken but does not pierce the skin is a(n) A. simple fracture. B. complete fracture. C. compound fracture. D. incomplete fracture.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the skeletal system and articulations that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 06.05 Section: 06.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the skeletal system

True / False Questions 32. An impacted fracture means that the bone was not broken the whole way through. FALSE An impacted fracture means that bones are wedged into each other.

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

Multiple Choice Questions 33. Repair of a bone fracture is called A. remodeling. B. splinting. C. ossification. D. reduction.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.05 Section: 06.01 Topic: Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling

34. Which of the following is the correct order of events in bone repair of a fracture? A. Hematoma, bony callus, remodeling, fibrocartilage callus B. Bony callus, hematoma, fibrocartilage callus, remodeling C. Hematoma, fibrocartilage callus, bony callus, remodeling D. Remodeling, bony callus, fibrocartilage callus, hematoma

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.05.01 Compare and contrast the function of osteoblasts and osteoclasts during bone growth, repair, and remodeling. Learning Outcome: 06.05 Section: 06.01 Topic: Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling

35. The first tissue formed in the repair of a broken bone is A. compact bone. B. spongy bone. C. fibrocartilage. D. hyaline cartilage.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 06.05 Section: 06.01 Topic: Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

36. What is osteoporosis? A. The structural unit of compact bone B. A membrane that covers bones C. A bone disease most common in the elderly D. A childhood bone disease caused by lack of calcium or vitamin D E. A disease of aging that mainly affects joints

37. A __________ is a flattened or shallow surface on a bone. A. foramen B. fossa C. trochanter D. condyle

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.03 Identify bone markings (spines, processes, foramina, etc.) and describe their function (e.g., point of articulation, muscle tendon attachment, ligament attachment, passageway for nerves and vessels). Learning Outcome: 06.06 Section: 06.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of bone

38. A __________ is a rounded opening through a bone. A. foramen B. fossa C. trochanter D. condyle

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

39. A __________ is a large, rounded articulating knob on a bone. A. foramen B. fossa C. trochanter D. condyle

40. A __________ is a massive process found only on the femur. A. foramen B. fossa C. trochanter D. condyle

41. A ________ is a sharp, slender process on a bone for muscle attachment. A. crest B. spine C. tubercle D. head

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

42. What is the function of a tubercle on a bone? A. Articulation with another bone B. An opening for blood vessels C. For muscle attachment D. None apply.

43. Which of the following is NOT a bone marking for articulation? A. Meatus B. Process C. Suture D. Condyle

44. Which bone feature is not correctly paired with its description? A. Malleolus - a hole for blood vessels and nerves B. Suture - immovable joint C. Head - large knob D. Sinus - hollow cavity

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

45. Which of the following is part of the axial skeleton? A. Metacarpals B. Skull C. Femur D. Scapula

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.06.01 Define the two major divisions of the skeletal system (axial and appendicular) and list the general bone structures contained within each. Learning Outcome: 06.07 Section: 06.02 Topic: Organization of the skeletal system

46. Which of the following is part of the appendicular skeleton? A. Coxa B. Sacrum C. Sternum D. Ribs

True / False Questions 47. The scapula is part of the axial skeleton. FALSE The scapula is part of the appendicular skeleton.

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

48. The coxal bones are part of the appendicular skeleton. TRUE

Multiple Choice Questions 49. What are the structures that are air-filled spaces of the skull bones? A. Sutures B. Fontanels C. Paranasal sinuses D. Lacrimal ducts

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. HAPS Objective: F.07.03 Identify bone markings (spines, processes, foramina, etc.) and describe their function (e.g., point of articulation, muscle tendon attachment, ligament attachment, passageway for nerves and vessels). Learning Outcome: 06.08 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

50. Which of the following is NOT a paranasal sinus? A. Sphenoidal B. Frontal C. Mastoidal D. Maxillary

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

True / False Questions 51. The mastoid sinus drains into the middle ear. TRUE

Multiple Choice Questions 52. What is the term for immovable joints in the skull? A. Sutures B. Fontanels C. Sinuses D. Condyles

53. The membrane soft spots of a newborn's skull A. are synovial in nature. B. occur only as a result of illness. C. are called fontanels. D. become foramina.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.04 Compare and contrast the skull of a fetus/infant with the skull of an adult. Learning Outcome: 06.08 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

54. Which structure allows fetal skulls to compress during birth? A. Sinuses B. Hyoids C. Sutures D. Fontanels

55. Which of the following bones forms the forehead? A. Parietal B. Frontal C. Mandible D. Temporal

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.08 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

56. Which of the following bones forms most of the roof of the cranium? A. Parietal B. Frontal C. Mandible D. Temporal

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.08 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

57. Which of the following bones forms the back and base of the cranium? A. Mandible B. Ethmoid C. Temporal D. Occipital

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.08 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

58. Which of the following is NOT a bone of the cranium? A. Ethmoid B. Sphenoid C. Maxilla D. Parietal

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.08 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

59. What is the butterfly-shaped bone on the floor of the cranium? A. Ethmoid B. Sphenoid C. Nasal D. Occipital

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.08 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

60. Which of the following bones form the upper jaw? A. Maxilla B. Mandible C. Palatine D. Lacrimal

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.08 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

61. The mandibular fossa and zygomatic process are features of the A. mandible. B. temporal bone. C. zygomatic bone. D. maxilla.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.08 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

62. Posterior to the ear there is a long, slender, pointed process. What is it called? A. Zygomatic process B. Mandibular fossa C. Styloid process D. Mastoid process

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.08 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

63. The sella turcica is a feature of the A. sphenoid bone. B. ethmoid bone. C. vomer. D. occipital bone.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.08 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

Check All That Apply Questions 64. Which of these are formed by the ethmoid bone? Choose all that apply. _____ Inferior nasal concha __X__ Middle nasal concha __X__ Superior nasal concha

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.08 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

Multiple Choice Questions 65. Which cranial bone has several parts related to nose structure? A. Sphenoid bone B. Ethmoid bone C. Palatine bone D. Maxilla

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.08 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

66. In which bone would the external acoustic meatus be found? A. Temporal bone B. Zygomatic bone C. Parietal bone D. Maxilla

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.08 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

67. The zygomatic arch is made up of the zygomatic bone and the A. temporal bone. B. maxilla. C. nasal bone. D. vomer bone.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.08 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

68. Which of the following bones forms the cheekbone? A. Maxilla and mandible B. Nasal and lacrimal C. Vomer and ethmoid D. Zygomatic and temporal

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.08 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

Check All That Apply Questions 69. Which bones make up the hard palate? Choose all that apply. _____ Ethmoid _____ Mandible __X__ Maxillae __X__ Palatine

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.08 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

Multiple Choice Questions 70. Which of the following bones is NOT part of the nose? A. Inferior nasal conchae B. Nasal C. Lacrimal D. Vomer

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.08 Section: 06.02

71. Which is the only movable bone of the skull? A. Temporal B. Mandible C. Maxilla D. Zygomatic

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.08 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

72. What bone contains the cribriform plate that has tiny holes for olfactory nerves? A. Ethmoid bone B. Palatine bone C. Sphenoid bone D. Maxilla

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.08 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

Check All That Apply Questions 73. Which two bones form the bony part of the nasal septum? __X__ Vomer __X__ Ethmoid _____ Nasal _____ Sphenoid

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.08 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

Multiple Choice Questions 74. There is a small bone that is on the medial side of the orbits. It has a hole in it for tears to drain into the nasal cavity. What is its name? A. Sphenoid B. Lacrimal C. Maxilla D. Ethmoid E. Nasal

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.08 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

75. The temporal process is a part of the ______ bone. A. temporal B. zygomatic C. sphenoid D. maxillary

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.08 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

76. What bone has a large opening, the foramen magnum, for the spinal cord to enter the cranial cavity? A. Occipital bone B. Temporal bone C. Parietal bone D. Maxilla

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.08 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

77. Which bone has no articulation with any other bone? A. Vomer B. Axis C. Hyoid D. Scapula

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.09 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

78. Which bone is important for swallowing? A. Palatine bone B. Maxilla C. Mandible D. Hyoid bone

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.09 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

79. Intervertebral disks are composed of A. elastic cartilage. B. hyaline cartilage. C. fibrocartilage. D. reticular cartilage.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.02.03 Identify the types of cartilage tissues that are found in the skeletal system and explain the functions of each. Learning Outcome: 06.10 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

80. The canal through which the spinal cord passes through the vertebrae is the A. foramen magnum. B. vertebral foramen. C. external acoustic meatus. D. nutrient foramen.

81. Which of the following pairings of vertebra and their number is correct? A. Cervical - five B. Thoracic - seven C. Lumbar - five D. Sacrum - three

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.10 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

Check All That Apply Questions 82. Choose the four normal spinal curvatures: __X__ Sacral __X__ Lumbar _____ Pelvic _____ Coccyx __X__ Cervical __X__ Thoracic

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.10 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

Multiple Choice Questions 83. An exaggerated lumbar curvature is called A. lordosis. B. kyphosis. C. hunchback. D. scoliosis.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the skeletal system and articulations that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 06.10 Section: 06.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the skeletal system

84. An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is called A. lordosis. B. kyphosis. C. hunchback. D. scoliosis.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the skeletal system and articulations that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 06.10 Section: 06.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the skeletal system

85. A herniated disk is A. a rupture of fibrocartilage in the spine. B. a dislocation of the pubic symphysis. C. a hole in a flat muscular wall. D. a knee injury that may require surgery.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the skeletal system and articulations that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 06.10 Section: 06.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the skeletal system

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

86. Another term for "hunchback" is A. lordosis. B. kyphosis. C. scoliosis. D. osteoporosis.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the skeletal system and articulations that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 06.10 Section: 06.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the skeletal system

87. What passes through the intervertebral foramina? A. Spinal cord B. Spinal nerve C. Intervertebral disk

88. Which anatomical feature of a vertebra is felt down the middle of the neck and back? A. Lamina B. Pedicle C. Transverse process D. Spinous process

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

89. Which vertebra is called the "vertebra prominens"? A. C1 B. T1 C. C7 D. C2

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.11 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

90. To which type of vertebrae are the ribs attached? A. Cervical B. Thoracic C. Lumbar D. Sacrum

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.10 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

91. The first cervical vertebra is the A. axis. B. coccyx. C. atlas. D. mastoid.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.11 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

92. On which vertebra is the odontoid process found? A. Coccyx B. Atlas C. Axis D. Thoracic

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. HAPS Objective: F.07.03 Identify bone markings (spines, processes, foramina, etc.) and describe their function (e.g., point of articulation, muscle tendon attachment, ligament attachment, passageway for nerves and vessels). Learning Outcome: 06.11 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

93. The tailbone is called the A. sacrum. B. atlas. C. ilium. D. coccyx.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.11 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

Check All That Apply Questions 94. Choose all of the bones of the thoracic cage. __X__ Ribs _____ Clavicles __X__ Sternum __X__ Thoracic vertebrae _____ Scapulae

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.10 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

Multiple Choice Questions 95. How many pairs of ribs are found in humans? A. 10 B. 12 C. 14 D. 18

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.12 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

96. The first pair of ribs are joined to A. T1, the first thoracic vertebra. B. T2, the second thoracic vertebra. C. T12, the last thoracic vertebra.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.12 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

97. Ribs 8 through 12 are called A. true ribs. B. false ribs. C. floating ribs. D. costal cartilages.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.12 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

98. Which ribs do NOT attach anteriorly to the sternum? A. True ribs B. False ribs C. Floating ribs

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.12 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

99. The most superior part of the sternum is the A. manubrium. B. styloid process. C. xiphoid process. D. None apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.12 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

100. The most inferior part of the sternum is called the A. xiphoid process. B. manubrium. C. clavicle. D. costal cartilage.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.12 Section: 06.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the axial skeleton

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

101. The pectoral girdle is made up of A. the clavicles, scapulae, and ribcage. B. the scapulae. C. the clavicles, scapulae, and humerus. D. the clavicles and the scapulae.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.13 Section: 06.03 Topic: Gross anatomy of the appendicular skeleton

102. Another name for the collarbone is the A. scapula. B. clavicle. C. sternum. D. xiphoid.

Check All That Apply Questions 103. Each clavicle articulates with which structures? Choose all that apply. __X__ Manubrium _____ Humerus _____ Body of sternum __X__ Scapula

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

Multiple Choice Questions 104. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the scapula? A. Glenoid cavity B. Acromion process C. Greater tubercle D. Coracoid process

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. HAPS Objective: F.07.03 Identify bone markings (spines, processes, foramina, etc.) and describe their function (e.g., point of articulation, muscle tendon attachment, ligament attachment, passageway for nerves and vessels). Learning Outcome: 06.13 Section: 06.03 Topic: Gross anatomy of the appendicular skeleton

105. The bone of the upper arm is the A. ulna. B. radius. C. scapula. D. humerus.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. Learning Outcome: 06.14 Section: 06.03 Topic: Gross anatomy of the appendicular skeleton

106. What part of the humerus articulates with the ulna? A. Capitulum B. Trochlea C. Coronoid fossa D. Deltoid tuberosity

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. HAPS Objective: F.07.03 Identify bone markings (spines, processes, foramina, etc.) and describe their function (e.g., point of articulation, muscle tendon attachment, ligament attachment, passageway for nerves and vessels). Learning Outcome: 06.14 Section: 06.03 Topic: Gross anatomy of the appendicular skeleton

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

107. The ______ of the humerus articulates with the glenoid cavity. A. deltoid tuberosity B. head C. trochlea D. capitulum

108. Which forearm bone is on the thumb side when in anatomical position? A. Radius B. Ulna C. Carpal D. Humerus

109. What structure forms the "point" of the elbow? A. Head of the ulna B. Olecranon process C. Head of the radius D. Coronoid process

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

110. What is another name for the wrist bones? A. Tarsals B. Metacarpals C. Carpals D. Phalanges

111. Another name for the bones of the hand is A. metatarsals. B. metacarpals. C. carpals. D. phalanges.

112. The phalanges are the bones of the A. hand. B. fingers and toes. C. wrist. D. foot.

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

113. The pelvic girdle is made up of A. coxal bones. B. coxal bones, sacrum, and coccyx. C. coxal bones and sacrum. D. coxal bones and femur.

114. The pubic symphysis is found between A. the bodies of vertebrae. B. coxal bones. C. the ribs and sternum. D. the radius and ulna.

115. The bony pelvis consists of A. the two coxal bones. B. the two coxal bones and the pubic symphysis. C. the two coxal bones, the sacrum, and the coccyx.

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

116. Which of the following is the largest of the coxal bones? A. Ischium B. Ilium C. Pubis

117. People sit on the _____, the most inferior coxal bone. A. ischium B. ilium C. pubis

118. What is the large opening in the coxal bone that allows blood vessels and nerves to pass anteriorly into the leg? A. Pelvic aperature B. Greater sciatic notch C. Obturator foramen D. Acetabulum

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

119. The socket on the coxal bone that articulates with the head of the femur is the A. pelvic aperature. B. greater sciatic notch. C. obturator foramen. D. acetabulum.

120. When you rest your hands on your hips, your hands are on the A. ischial tuberosities. B. pubic symphysis. C. iliac crests. D. pelvic brims.

121. The pubic symphysis is made mostly of A. collagen fibers. B. hyaline cartilage. C. elastic cartilage. D. fibrocartilage.

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

122. The sacroiliac joint is a joint between the ______ and the ______. A. sacrum; coccyx B. ilium; ischium C. ilium; sacrum D. acetabulum; femur

Check All That Apply Questions 123. Which are differences between male and female pelvises? Choose all that apply. _____ Male iliac bones are more flared than female. __X__ The male pubic arch is pointier and shaped more like a "V". __X__ Females' inlets and outlets are wider. _____ Female bones are thicker and stronger for childbearing.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.05 Compare and contrast the adult male and female skeletons. Learning Outcome: 06.15 Section: 06.03 Topic: Gross anatomy of the appendicular skeleton

Multiple Choice Questions 124. The longest and strongest bone in the body is the A. tibia. B. humerus. C. fibula. D. femur.

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

125. Which bone has the linea aspera? A. Humerus B. Scapula C. Tibia D. Femur

126. The _____ of the femur articulates with the acetabulum. A. greater trochanter B. head C. neck D. condyle

127. What part of the femur articulates with the tibia? A. Head B. Condyles C. Patellar surface D. Linea aspera

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

128. Which lower leg bone is thicker and medial? A. Tibia B. Humerus C. Fibula D. Femur

129. The large bump on the lateral part of the ankle is the A. lateral malleolus of the tibia. B. lateral condyle of the tibia. C. lateral malleolus of the fibula. D. lateral condyle of the talus.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.07.02 Identify the individual bones and their location within the body. HAPS Objective: F.07.03 Identify bone markings (spines, processes, foramina, etc.) and describe their function (e.g., point of articulation, muscle tendon attachment, ligament attachment, passageway for nerves and vessels). Learning Outcome: 06.14 Section: 06.03 Topic: Gross anatomy of the appendicular skeleton

130. Which lower leg bone is weight-bearing? A. Fibula B. Femur C. Tibia

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

131. The seven ankle bones are called the A. carpals. B. metatarsals. C. metacarpals. D. tarsals.

132. The largest of the ankle bones that forms the heel is the A. talus. B. calcaneus. C. navicular. D. cuboid.

133. Which tarsal bone articulates with the tibia and fibula for ankle movement? A. Talus B. Calcaneus C. Navicular D. Cuneiform

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

134. The bones that form the instep of the foot are the A. carpals. B. metatarsals. C. metacarpals. D. tarsals.

135. Which type of joint is correctly matched with the type of movement it allows? A. Synarthrosis - slight movement B. Amphiarthrosis - immovable C. Diarthrosis - freely movable

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.08.01a Describe the functional classification, based on degree of movement allowed - synarthrotic, amphiarthrotic, and diarthrotic – and provide examples of each type with respect to classification of joints. Learning Outcome: 06.16 Section: 06.04 Topic: Classification, structure, and function of joints

136. Which type of joint is correctly matched with the structure of the joint? A. Fibrous - enclosed in a capsule B. Cartilaginous - connected with cartilage C. Synovial - connected with fibrous connective tissue

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.08.01b Describe the anatomical classification, based on structure - fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial – and provide examples of each type with respect to classification of joints. Learning Outcome: 06.16 Section: 06.04 Topic: Classification, structure, and function of joints

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

137. Sutures occur mainly in the A. cranium. B. pelvic girdle. C. tarsals. D. wrist.

138. Which of the following sutures connects the two parietal bones? A. Coronal B. Lambdoidal C. Sagittal D. Squamous

139. Which suture is between the parietal and temporal bones? A. Sagittal suture B. Coronal suture C. Lambdoidal suture D. Squamosal suture

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

140. The ______ suture is found between the parietal bones and the frontal bone. A. coronal B. squamosal C. lambdoidal D. sagittal

141. The ______ suture is found between the parietal and occipital bones. A. coronal B. squamosal C. lambdoidal D. sagittal

142. Which of the following is NOT a cartilaginous joint? A. Between the ribs and the sternum B. Between the bodies of the vertebra C. Between the two pelvic bones D. Between each tooth and its socket

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

143. What lubricates synovial joints? A. Fibrous connective tissue B. Synovial fluid C. Fibrocartilage D. Ligaments

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.08.02 Identify the structural components of the synovial joint, including accessory structures like bursae, tendon sheaths, and ligaments. Learning Outcome: 06.16 Section: 06.04 Topic: Anatomy of synovial joints

144. Which of the following does NOT aid in the stabilization of a synovial joint? A. Ligaments B. Tendons C. Bursa D. Joint capsule

145. Which of the following does NOT aid in the protection of a synovial joint? A. Ligaments B. Articular cartilage on bone surfaces C. Menisci in the knee D. Bursae

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

146. Bursae are A. tendons. B. types of joints. C. fluid-filled sacs. D. cartilage pads.

147. _______ connect bones to bones; ________ connect muscles to bones. A. Ligaments; tendons B. Tendons; ligaments

148. Crescent-shaped pads of cartilage within synovial joints are called A. bursae. B. ligaments. C. menisci. D. patellae.

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

149. What type of synovial joint is found between the carpal and metacarpal of the thumb? A. Pivot B. Hinge C. Condyloid D. Saddle

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.08.04b Identify locations in the body where each structural type can be found For each of the six structural types of synovial joints. Learning Outcome: 06.16 Section: 06.04 Topic: Anatomy of selected synovial joints

150. The elbow is an example of a __________ joint. A. ball-and-socket B. hinge C. gliding D. pivot

151. A hip is an example of a __________ joint. A. ball-and-socket B. hinge C. gliding D. pivot

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

152. The joint between the atlas and axis is an example of a __________ joint. A. ball-and-socket B. hinge C. gliding D. pivot

153. A wrist is an example of a __________ joint. A. ball-and-socket B. hinge C. gliding D. pivot

154. The knuckles are an example of a __________ joint. A. condyloid B. hinge C. gliding D. saddle

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

155. What type of synovial joint movement will decrease the angle between bones? A. Adduction B. Flexion C. Extension D. Supination

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.08.03 Describe and demonstrate the generalized movements of synovial joints. Learning Outcome: 06.17 Section: 06.04 Topic: Synovial joint movements

156. What type of synovial joint movement will move a body part laterally, away from the body? A. Adduction B. Extension C. Dorsiflexion D. Abduction

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.08.03 Describe and demonstrate the generalized movements of synovial joints. Learning Outcome: 06.17 Section: 06.04 Topic: Synovial joint movements

157. What type of synovial joint movement is the movement of a body part around its own axis? A. Flexion B. Supination C. Pronation D. Rotation

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.08.03 Describe and demonstrate the generalized movements of synovial joints. Learning Outcome: 06.17 Section: 06.04 Topic: Synovial joint movements

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

158. Shrugging the shoulders is an example of A. elevation. B. flexion. C. circumduction. D. pronation.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.08.03 Describe and demonstrate the generalized movements of synovial joints. Learning Outcome: 06.17 Section: 06.04 Topic: Synovial joint movements

159. Doing arm circles is an example of A. plantar flexion. B. circumduction. C. inversion. D. depression.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.08.03 Describe and demonstrate the generalized movements of synovial joints. Learning Outcome: 06.17 Section: 06.04 Topic: Synovial joint movements

160. Pointing the toes (or standing on tiptoes) is an example of A. hyperextension. B. adduction. C. plantar flexion. D. eversion.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.08.03 Describe and demonstrate the generalized movements of synovial joints. Learning Outcome: 06.17 Section: 06.04 Topic: Synovial joint movements

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

161. Rotating the arms so that the palms are forward is an example of A. elevation. B. abduction. C. inversion. D. supination.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.08.03 Describe and demonstrate the generalized movements of synovial joints. Learning Outcome: 06.17 Section: 06.04 Topic: Synovial joint movements

162. Turning the foot so that the sole faces inward is an example of A. supination. B. adduction. C. inversion. D. eversion.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.08.03 Describe and demonstrate the generalized movements of synovial joints. Learning Outcome: 06.17 Section: 06.04 Topic: Synovial joint movements

163. What type of joint disease is described by deterioration of articular cartilage? A. Osteoarthritis B. Osteoporosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Gout

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the skeletal system and articulations that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 06.18 Section: 06.04 Topic: Clinical applications of joints

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

164. What type of joint disease is described by the autoimmune inflammation of the synovial membrane? A. Osteoarthritis B. Osteoporosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Gout

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the skeletal system and articulations that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 06.18 Section: 06.04 Topic: Clinical applications of joints

165. A type of arthritis that involves accumulations of uric acid crystals is called A. gout. B. osteoarthritis. C. rheumatoid arthritis. D. osteoporosis.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the skeletal system and articulations that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 06.18 Section: 06.04 Topic: Clinical applications of joints

166. Autologous chondrocyte implantation allows A. replacement of articular cartilage with polyethylene. B. joint replacement with metal. C. regrowth of damaged hyaline cartilage. D. fusion of bones in a joint.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the skeletal system and articulations that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 06.18 Section: 06.04 Topic: Clinical applications of joints

Chapter 06 - The Skeletal System

167. Degenerative changes in joints can be slowed or stopped by A. regular weight-bearing exercise. B. resting the joints. C. nonweight-bearing exercise. D. None apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the skeletal system and articulations that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 06.18 Section: 06.04 Topic: Clinical applications of joints

168. A condition in which bones lose bone mass and therefore become weak is A. osteomyelitis. B. osteogenesis. C. osteoporosis. D. osteomalacia.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the skeletal system and articulations could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 06.19 Section: 06.05 Topic: Clinical applications of the skeletal system

169. Which of the following is NOT a body function that aids the skeletal system? A. Endocrine system regulates calcium storage and bone growth. B. Cardiovascular system delivers oxygen and nutrients to bones. C. Integumentary system helps provide vitamin A for calcium absorption. D. Sex hormones affect bone density.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: F.09.02 Explain how the skeletal system and articulations relate to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 06.20 Section: 06.06

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

Chapter 07 The Muscular System

Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following is NOT a function of skeletal muscles? A. Generate heat B. Maintain posture C. Move food through the GI tract D. Keep blood moving in veins and lymphatics

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.01.01 List and explain the functions of muscle tissue. Learning Outcome: 07.01 Section: 07.01 Topic: General functions of muscle tissue

2. A bundle of muscle fibers is called a A. sarcomere. B. fascicle. C. myofibril. D. synergist.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.03.01 Describe the organization of muscle tissue from cell to whole muscle to groups of muscles HAPS Objective: G.03.02 Name the connective tissue layers that surround each cell, fascicle, muscle, and group of muscles and indicate the specific type of connective tissue that composes all of these layers. Learning Outcome: 07.02 Section: 07.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

3. Which of the following surrounds a muscle fiber? A. Endomysium B. Epimysium C. Fascia D. Perimysium

4. Which of the following surrounds a skeletal muscle? A. Endomysium B. Epimysium C. Fascia D. Perimysium

5. Which of the following surrounds a fascicle? A. Endomysium B. Epimysium C. Fascia D. Perimysium

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

6. Skeletal muscle is highly thermogenic; that is, is produces heat. How? A. It breaks down ATP when it contracts; this produces heat. B. The friction produced when actin and myosin slide past each other produces heat. C. Skeletal muscle contracts around sweat glands, producing heat. D. When myofilaments shorten, they release heat.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: G.01.01 List and explain the functions of muscle tissue. Learning Outcome: 07.03 Section: 07.01 Topic: General functions of muscle tissue

True / False Questions 7. The pressure of skeletal muscle contraction is important in maintaining blood circulation. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.01.01 List and explain the functions of muscle tissue. Learning Outcome: 07.03 Section: 07.01 Topic: General functions of muscle tissue

8. Cardiac muscle fibers need outside nervous stimulation in order to contract. FALSE Cardiac muscle fibers do not need outside nervous stimulation to contract; skeletal muscle does.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.02.02 Describe the structure, location in the body and function of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle. HAPS Objective: G.02.03 Compare and contrast the characteristics of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle Learning Outcome: 07.01 Section: 07.01 Topic: Identification, location, and comparison of three types of muscle tissue

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

Multiple Choice Questions 9. Which type(s) of muscle tissue has/have intercalated disks? A. Cardiac B. Skeletal C. Smooth D. Both cardiac and skeletal are correct.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.02.03 Compare and contrast the characteristics of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle Learning Outcome: 07.01 Section: 07.01 Topic: Identification, location, and comparison of three types of muscle tissue

10. Which type(s) of muscle tissue is/are striated? A. Cardiac B. Skeletal C. Smooth D. Both cardiac and skeletal are striated. E. Both skeletal and smooth are striated.

11. Which type(s) of muscle tissue is/are found in the walls of hollow internal organs? A. Cardiac B. Skeletal C. Smooth D. Both smooth and skeletal are correct.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.02.02 Describe the structure, location in the body and function of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle. Learning Outcome: 07.01 Section: 07.01 Topic: Identification, location, and comparison of three types of muscle tissue

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

12. Which type(s) of muscle tissue is/are involuntary? A. Cardiac B. Skeletal C. Smooth D. Both cardiac and smooth are correct.

13. The special name for the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber is the A. sarcolemma. B. sarcoplasm. C. T tubules. D. sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.03.03 Describe a skeletal muscle fiber including the transverse (T) tubules, sarcoplasmic reticulum and myofibrils. Learning Outcome: 07.04 Section: 07.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle

14. The smooth ER that stores calcium ions in muscle fibers is the A. sarcolemma. B. sarcoplasm. C. T tubules. D. sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

15. The extensions of the sarcolemma that carry the nerve impulses deep into the sarcoplasm are the A. sarcolemmas. B. myoglobins. C. T tubules. D. sarcoplasmic reticulums.

16. Sarcoplasm is A. smooth endoplasmic reticulum that stores calcium. B. the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber. C. tubules that surround myofibrils. D. the cytoplasm of a muscle fiber.

17. Myofibrils are bundles of A. muscle fibers. B. sarcoplasmic reticuli. C. muscles. D. myofilaments.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.03.04 Explain the organization of a myofibril. Learning Outcome: 07.04 Section: 07.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

18. Which term refers to a molecule stored in muscle fibers that binds oxygen for use in making ATP? A. Myofilament B. Myoglobin C. Myofibril

19. A sarcomere is A. formed from myosin only. B. the distance between Z lines. C. the length of the H zone. D. between the I bands.

20. Striations are caused by a series of overlapping A. myofilaments. B. sarcomeres. C. Z lines. D. intercalated disks.

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

21. Myosin is A. a protein. B. the thin filament. C. pulled inward during contraction. D. All apply.

22. Which of the following proteins is NOT a component of the thin filament? A. Tropomyosin B. Myosin C. Troponin D. Actin

23. The major protein found in thin filaments is ______; the main protein found in thin filaments is _______. A. myosin; actin B. actin; myosin

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

24. The A band contains _______, while the H zone contains ______. A. thin filaments; thick filaments B. thick filaments; thin filaments C. thick and thin filaments; thin filaments D. thick and thin filaments; thick filaments

True / False Questions 25. The I band is dark and split by a Z line. FALSE The I band is light and split by a Z line.

Multiple Choice Questions 26. The sliding filament theory of muscle contraction describes A. how a sarcomere shortens. B. the disappearance of the A band. C. the movement of the myosin in relation to the actin. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.04.01 Explain the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction. Learning Outcome: 07.05 Section: 07.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

27. One motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers it innervates is called a A. neuromuscular junction. B. nerve. C. motor unit. D. ganglion.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.06.03 Define the term motor unit. Learning Outcome: 07.05 Section: 07.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction

28. A neuromuscular junction is where a ______ and a ______ come together. A. neuron; neuron B. muscle fiber; neuron C. neuron; myofibril D. T tubule; sarcoplasmic reticulum

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.03.06 Describe the anatomy of the neuromuscular junction. Learning Outcome: 07.05 Section: 07.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction

29. What is released from axon terminals to stimulate a muscle fiber to contract? A. Calcium ions B. Acetylcholine C. ATP D. Troponin

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.03.06 Describe the anatomy of the neuromuscular junction. HAPS Objective: G.04.04 Describe, in order, the events that occur at the neuromuscular junction that elicit an action potential in the muscle fiber. Learning Outcome: 07.05 Section: 07.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

30. After acetylcholine is released from the axon terminal, it A. binds to its receptors in the sarcolemma. B. binds to troponin to expose active sites on actin. C. diffuses out of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. D. binds to active sites on actin.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.04.04 Describe, in order, the events that occur at the neuromuscular junction that elicit an action potential in the muscle fiber. Learning Outcome: 07.05 Section: 07.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction

31. What occurs immediately before an electrical signal travels along the sarcolemma? A. Acetylcholine binds to its receptors. B. Acetylcholine diffuses across the synaptic cleft. C. Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. D. Calcium binds to troponin.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: G.04.04 Describe, in order, the events that occur at the neuromuscular junction that elicit an action potential in the muscle fiber. Learning Outcome: 07.05 Section: 07.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction

32. Which specific event triggers the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum? A. Acetylcholine binds to its receptors. B. An electrical signal travels down the transverse tubules. C. Myosin binds to actin. D. Calcium binds to troponin.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: G.04.02 Describe the sequence of events involved in the contraction cycle of skeletal muscle. Learning Outcome: 07.05 Section: 07.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

33. Botulism toxin blocks the release of acetylcholine from the motor neuron. What effect does this have on muscle contraction? A. Muscle contractions are strengthened. B. There isn't enough information in the question to predict. C. Muscle contractions are weakened or absent. D. More calcium would be released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Bloom's Level: 3. Apply HAPS Objective: G.12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the muscular system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 07.05 Section: 07.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the muscular system

34. Which of the following proteins found in myofilaments contain the cross bridges? A. Myosin B. Actin C. Tropomyosin D. Troponin

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.03.05 Name, and describe the function of, each of the contractile, regulatory, and structural protein components of a sarcomere. Learning Outcome: 07.04 Section: 07.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle

35. What ion is necessary for cross-bridging? A. Iron B. Sodium C. Potassium D. Calcium

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.04.01 Explain the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction. Learning Outcome: 07.05 Section: 07.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

36. What does calcium do during muscle contraction? A. Binds to troponin B. Binds to the cross bridges C. Supplies energy D. Hydrolyzes ATP

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.04.02 Describe the sequence of events involved in the contraction cycle of skeletal muscle. Learning Outcome: 07.05 Section: 07.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction

37. What is the role of ATP in the sliding filament theory? A. Energizes the myosin cross-bridge B. Breaks the link between actin and myosin C. Both energizes the myosin cross-bridge and breaks the link between actin and myosin.

38. What is the correct order of events in the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction? 1. Myosin head binds to actin 2. Calcium ions bind to troponin 3. Myosin cross-bridges bend, pulling actin toward center of sarcomere 4. ATP is split into ADP and P 5. Tropomyosin moves to expose active sites of actin 6. Sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ions 7. ADP and P released from myosin A. 2,4,6,1,3,5,7 B. 1,2,3,4,5,6,7 C. 6,2,5,4,1,7,3 D. 4,2,7,1,6,5,3

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: G.04.01 Explain the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction. HAPS Objective: G.04.02 Describe the sequence of events involved in the contraction cycle of skeletal muscle. Learning Outcome: 07.05 Section: 07.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

39. What is ATP used for in the process of muscle contraction? A. Pump calcium ions back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum B. Power stroke of myosin cross-bridge C. Release of myosin from actin D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.04.01 Explain the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction. Learning Outcome: 07.05 Section: 07.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction

40. What does the term "power stroke" refer to? A. The transmission of a signal from the motor neuron to the muscle fiber B. The movement of the myosin head toward the center of the sarcomere C. The shortening of the sarcomere D. The cleaving of ATP into ADP and a phosphate

41. Which events occur during a muscle contraction? A. The H zone decreases in size. B. The I band increases in size. C. The myofilaments shorten in length. D. Actin pulls myosin toward the center of the sarcomere.

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

42. After nervous stimulation of the muscle cell has ceased, the calcium A. is destroyed by cholinesterase. B. is chemically bound to the filaments. C. level in the sarcoplasm increases. D. is actively pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum for storage.

Check All That Apply Questions 43. Which two muscle types contract by shortening of the sarcomeres? __X__ Skeletal _____ Smooth __X__ Cardiac

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: G.02.03 Compare and contrast the characteristics of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle Learning Outcome: 07.05 Section: 07.02 Topic: Identification, location, and comparison of three types of muscle tissue

Multiple Choice Questions 44. In smooth muscle, the thin filaments are attached to ______ that will draw the cell inward during contraction. A. thick filaments B. Z lines C. dense bodies D. myosin

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Section: 07.02 Topic: Identification, location, and comparison of three types of muscle tissue

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

45. Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by A. forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin. B. forming a chemical compound with actin. C. inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments. D. storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP as needed.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.05.01 List the sources of energy stored in a typical muscle fiber. Learning Outcome: 07.06 Section: 07.02 Topic: Skeletal muscle metabolism

46. What process provides most of a muscle's ATP? A. Cellular respiration B. Lactic acid fermentation C. Creatine phosphate breakdown D. Alcoholic fermentation

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.05.01 List the sources of energy stored in a typical muscle fiber. Learning Outcome: 07.06 Section: 07.02 Topic: Skeletal muscle metabolism

Check All That Apply Questions 47. Which two energy sources in muscle are produced anaerobically? _____ Cellular respiration __X__ Creatine phosphate breakdown __X__ Fermentation

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.05.02 Describe the mechanisms that muscle fibers use to obtain ATP for muscle contraction. Learning Outcome: 07.06 Section: 07.02 Topic: Skeletal muscle metabolism

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

Multiple Choice Questions 48. Which is the fastest way to supply energy to muscle fibers? A. Creatine phosphate breakdown B. Fermentation C. Cellular respiration

49. During cellular respiration, oxygen and glucose combine to form ATP, ______, and water. A. lactic acid B. fatty acids C. carbon dioxide D. pyruvic acid

50. What is the role of myoglobin in muscle contraction? A. Oxygen carrier in muscle B. Blood carrier in muscle C. ATP carrier in muscle D. Creatine phosphate generator in muscle

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.05.01 List the sources of energy stored in a typical muscle fiber. HAPS Objective: G.05.02 Describe the mechanisms that muscle fibers use to obtain ATP for muscle contraction. Learning Outcome: 07.06 Section: 07.02 Topic: Skeletal muscle metabolism

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

51. Of the three sources of energy in muscle cells, which occurs in mitochondria? A. Cellular respiration B. Fermentation C. Creatine phosphate breakdown

52. During _______, lactic acid is produced. A. cellular respiration B. creatine phosphate breakdown C. fermentation

53. An accumulation of ______ causes cramping and fatigue in muscles. A. carbon dioxide B. oxygen C. lactic acid D. pyruvic acid

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.05.03 Explain the factors that contribute to muscle fatigue. Learning Outcome: 07.06 Section: 07.02 Topic: Skeletal muscle metabolism

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

54. Athletes sometimes complain of oxygen debt, a condition that results when insufficient oxygen is available to completely break down pyruvic acid. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to A. a strong base. B. stearic acid. C. hydrochloric acid. D. lactic acid.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.05.02 Describe the mechanisms that muscle fibers use to obtain ATP for muscle contraction. HAPS Objective: G.05.03 Explain the factors that contribute to muscle fatigue. Learning Outcome: 07.06 Section: 07.02 Topic: Skeletal muscle metabolism

55. What is the sign that a person has accrued an oxygen debt? A. Inability of muscle to contract B. Rigor mortis C. Heavy breathing D. Fainting

56. Athletes who train rely more on cellular respiration than people who don't train. Their muscle fibers contain more A. water. B. fatty acids. C. lactic acid. D. mitochondria.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: G.05.02 Describe the mechanisms that muscle fibers use to obtain ATP for muscle contraction. Learning Outcome: 07.06 Section: 07.02 Topic: Skeletal muscle metabolism

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

57. Rigor mortis occurs because A. there is no ATP to relax the muscles. B. the body temperature drops. C. there are no brain waves. D. there are no nerve signals.

58. A single muscle contraction lasting a fraction of a second is a A. myogram. B. muscle twitch. C. motor unit. D. tetanic contraction.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.06.01 Interpret a myogram of a twitch contraction with respect to the duration of the latent, contraction and relaxation periods and describe the events that occur in each period. Learning Outcome: 07.07 Section: 07.03 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction

59. Latent period is A. the time of receiving many impulses in rapid succession. B. the period between stimulation and contraction. C. the time when ATP is depleted. D. the time of muscle relaxation.

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

60. The stage of a muscle twitch that occurs from the point of stimulation to the beginning of contraction is called the _____ period. A. latent B. lag C. contraction D. refractory

61. Summation is A. receiving many impulses in rapid succession. B. the period between stimulation and contraction. C. the depletion of ATP. D. a single contraction that lasts only a fraction of a second.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.07 Section: 07.03 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction

62. A sustained muscle contraction with no relaxation is called A. a twitch. B. a tetanic contraction. C. fatigue. D. oxygen debt.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.07 Section: 07.03 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

63. Which of the following obeys the all-or-none law? A. The whole muscle B. A muscle fiber C. The whole muscle and a muscle fiber

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.06.03 Define the term motor unit. Learning Outcome: 07.07 Section: 07.03 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction

64. The more stimulation a muscle receives, the more motor units are activated. This is called A. fatigue. B. oxygen debt. C. recruitment. D. hypertrophy.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.06.03 Define the term motor unit. Learning Outcome: 07.07 Section: 07.03 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction

65. A low level of muscle contraction that maintains posture is called muscle A. tone. B. atrophy. C. hypertrophy. D. recruitment.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.06.02 Define the terms tension and contraction, with respect to muscles. Learning Outcome: 07.07 Section: 07.03 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

66. When muscles are not used, they shrink or A. atrophy. B. hypertrophy. C. antagonize. D. fatigue.

67. Three discrete types of muscle fibers are identified on the basis of their fuel supply, oxygen supply, and tension. Which of the following athletic endeavors best represents the use of slow-twitch fibers? A. A sprint by an Olympic runner B. Swinging a baseball bat C. Lifting weights D. Mountain climbing

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: G.03.07 List the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of fast, slow, and intermediate muscle fibers. Learning Outcome: 07.08 Section: 07.03 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction

68. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of slow-twitch fibers? A. Have few capillaries B. Small motor units C. Have many mitochondria D. Abundant supply of myoglobin

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.03.07 List the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of fast, slow, and intermediate muscle fibers. Learning Outcome: 07.08 Section: 07.03

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

69. Which type of muscle fibers would be utilized for short periods of walking or jogging? A. Slow-twitch fibers B. Intermediate-twitch fibers C. Fast-twitch fibers D. Medium-twitch fibers

70. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of fast-twitch fibers? A. Useful for bursts of energy B. Fatigues quickly C. Light in color D. Mostly aerobic

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.03.07 List the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of fast, slow, and intermediate muscle fibers. Learning Outcome: 07.08 Section: 07.03 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction

71. Which part of a muscle is on the bone that is stationary during that muscle's movement? A. Insertion B. Prime mover C. Origin

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 07.09 Section: 07.04 Topic: Gross anatomy of skeletal muscle

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

72. The end of a muscle that is attached to the bone that it moves is called the A. origin. B. insertion. C. tendon.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.09 Section: 07.04 Topic: Gross anatomy of skeletal muscle

73. The muscle that does most of the work for a particular movement is called the A. prime mover. B. synergist. C. insertion. D. antagonist.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.09.01 Define the terms prime mover (or agonist), antagonist, synergist and fixator. Learning Outcome: 07.09 Section: 07.04 Topic: Gross anatomy of skeletal muscle

74. The biceps brachii and triceps brachii in the upper arm A. are antagonistic. B. are synergistic. C. depend upon activity to determine antagonism or synergism.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: G.09.02 For a given movement, differentiate specific muscles that function as prime mover, antagonist, synergist or fixator. Learning Outcome: 07.09 Section: 07.04 Topic: Gross anatomy of skeletal muscle

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

True / False Questions 75. When muscles contract, they shorten. Therefore, the movement that muscles can make is to pull the insertion toward the origin. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.09 Section: 07.04 Topic: General functions of muscle tissue

Multiple Choice Questions 76. The gluteus maximus muscle is named for A. its size and shape. B. its size and location. C. its shape and action. D. its attachment and fiber direction.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: G.07.01 Explain how the name of a muscle can help identify its action, appearance, or location. Learning Outcome: 07.10 Section: 07.04 Topic: How skeletal muscles are named

77. The biceps femoris is named for A. its shape and location. B. its fiber direction and action. C. its shape and number of attachments. D. its number of attachments and location.

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

78. The extensor digitorum is named for A. its action and attachment. B. its location and action. C. its size and attachment. D. its number of attachments and shape.

79. Which muscle is named for its shape? A. Frontalis B. Masseter C. Trapezius D. Biceps brachii

80. The subscapularis muscle is A. under the scapula. B. above the scapula. C. inferior to the scapula. D. beside the scapula.

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

81. The latissimus dorsi muscle is a _______ muscle. A. round B. triangular C. wide D. huge

82. The __________ raises your eyebrow. A. masseter B. frontalis C. zygomaticus D. orbicularis oculi

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the head and neck

83. The ______ is used in forming a kiss. A. zygomaticus B. buccinator C. orbicularis oris D. orbicularis oculi

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the head and neck

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

84. The _______ is used to smile. A. zygomaticus B. buccinator C. frontalis D. orbicularis oris

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the head and neck

85. Which muscle is NOT used for smiling? A. Zygomaticus B. Temporalis C. Levator anguli oris D. Levator labii superioris

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the head and neck

86. A prime mover for raising the mandible is the A. temporalis. B. depressor labii inferioris. C. zygomaticus. D. levator anguli oris.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the head and neck

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

87. The orbicularis oculi muscle will A. open the eyes. B. raise the eyebrows. C. lower the eyebrows. D. close the eyes.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the head and neck

88. Which muscle is called the "trumpeters muscle", and aids in chewing and sucking? A. Zygomaticus B. Masseter C. Levator anguli oris D. Buccinator

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the head and neck

89. The _______ is/are used for actual chewing. A. buccinator B. masseter C. zygomaticus D. buccinator and masseter

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the head and neck

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

90. Which of the following structures are NOT involved with swallowing? A. The hyoid bone B. The masseter muscle C. The suprahyoid muscles D. The epiglottis

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the head and neck

91. The ____________ is used to flex the neck and turn the head laterally. A. trapezius B. temporalis C. sternocleidomastoid D. suprahyoid

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the head and neck

92. The _______ will adduct the scapulae and help extend the neck. A. trapezius B. temporalis C. sternocleidomastoid D. deltoid

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the head and neck

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

93. The _______ aid in inspiration during respiration. A. external intercostals and infrahyoids B. internal intercostals and diaphragm C. diaphragm and external intercostals D. internal and external intercostals

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the trunk

94. The _______ will flex the trunk. A. transverse abdominis B. external intercostals C. rectus abdominis D. internal obliques

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the trunk

95. Which muscle is NOT used to "suck in your gut" to make you look thinner? A. Rectus abdominis B. External oblique C. Transversus abdominis D. Internal oblique

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the trunk

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

96. The _______ will abduct the arm. A. serratus anterior B. deltoid C. latissimus dorsi D. pectoralis major

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the trunk

97. The _____ flexes and adducts the arm. A. serratus anterior B. deltoid C. latissimus dorsi D. pectoralis major

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the trunk

98. Which muscle allows you to punch a punching bag? A. Pectoralis major B. Serratus anterior C. Deltoid D. Latissimus dorsi

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the trunk

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

99. Which muscle will extend and adduct the arm for swimming or climbing a rope? A. Biceps brachii B. Serratus anterior C. Deltoid D. Latissimus dorsi

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the trunk

100. Which of the following is NOT a rotator cuff muscle? A. Deltoid B. Supraspinatus C. Infraspinatus D. Subscapularis

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the pectoral girdle and upper limb

101. The __________ flexes the forearm. A. biceps brachii B. frontalis C. triceps brachii D. gluteus maximus

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the pectoral girdle and upper limb

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

102. What is the action of the brachialis muscle? A. Extend the forearm B. Flex the forearm C. Pronate the forearm D. Flex the arm

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the pectoral girdle and upper limb

103. The ______ extends the forearm. A. biceps brachii B. frontalis C. triceps brachii D. gluteus maximus

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the pectoral girdle and upper limb

104. The _______ will extend the wrist and fingers. A. flexor digitorum B. extensor carpi C. brachialis D. extensor digitorum

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the pectoral girdle and upper limb

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

105. The flexor carpi muscles will flex the A. wrist. B. hands. C. fingers. D. wrist and hand. E. wrist and fingers.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the pectoral girdle and upper limb

106. The __________ extends your thigh. A. iliopsoas B. sartorius C. quadriceps femoris group D. gluteus maximus

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the pelvic girdle and lower limb

107. The _______ is helpful in keeping a rider on a horse. A. iliopsoas B. adductor group C. quadriceps femoris group D. gluteus maximus

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the pelvic girdle and lower limb

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

108. The __________ flexes your knee. A. biceps brachii B. quadriceps femoris C. hamstring group D. gluteus maximus

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the pelvic girdle and lower limb

109. The major flexor of the thigh that also keeps the trunk from falling backwards when erect is the A. gluteus maximus. B. sartorius. C. iliopsoas. D. adductor group.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the pelvic girdle and lower limb

110. The ______ will straighten your leg (extend) at the knee. A. adductor group B. quadriceps femoris C. hamstring group D. gluteus maximus

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the pelvic girdle and lower limb

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

111. The muscle that helps you to sit "cross-legged" is the A. sartorius. B. iliopsoas. C. rectus femoris. D. gluteus medius.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the pelvic girdle and lower limb

112. Which of the following is NOT part of the quadriceps femoris? A. Vastus lateralis B. Rectus femoris C. Biceps femoris D. Vastus intermedius

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the pelvic girdle and lower limb

113. Which of the following muscles is NOT part of the hamstring group? A. Semimembranosus B. Rectus femoris C. Biceps femoris D. Semitendinosus

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the pelvic girdle and lower limb

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

114. This muscle allows you to stand on your tiptoes. A. Gastrocnemius B. Tibialis anterior C. Flexor digitorum longus D. Hamstring group

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the pelvic girdle and lower limb

115. The _________ will evert the foot. A. gastrocnemius B. tibialis anterior C. fibularis muscles D. extensor digitorum longus

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the pelvic girdle and lower limb

116. The tibialis anterior will ______ the foot. A. dorsiflex and invert B. plantarflex and invert C. dorsiflex and adduct D. invert and abduct

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the pelvic girdle and lower limb

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

117. Fibularis muscles are on the _________ area of the leg. A. posterior B. medial C. anterior D. lateral

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.08.01 Identify the origin, insertion and action of the major skeletal muscles and demonstrate these muscle actions. Learning Outcome: 07.11 Section: 07.05 Topic: Skeletal muscles of the pelvic girdle and lower limb

True / False Questions 118. Aging muscles have less fat present in them than in a young person. FALSE Aging muscles have more fat present in them than in a young person.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.12.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the muscular system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 07.12 Section: 07.06 Topic: Effects of aging and exercise on the muscular system

Multiple Choice Questions 119. Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle all contribute significantly to the function of the ________ system. A. digestive B. cardiovascular C. skeletal D. urinary

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: G.11.02 Explain how the muscular system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis Learning Outcome: 07.13 Section: 07.07 Topic: General functions of muscle tissue

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

Check All That Apply Questions 120. Which organ systems rely heavily on smooth muscle sphincters? __X__ Digestive _____ Skeletal __X__ Urinary _____ Lymphatic

Multiple Choice Questions 121. A sudden, painful involuntary muscular contraction is a A. spasm. B. cramp. C. sprain. D. tendinitis.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.12.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the muscular system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 07.13 Section: 07.07 Topic: Clinical applications of the muscular system

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

122. A _____ is caused by stretching or tearing of a muscle. A. spasm B. cramp C. strain D. tendinitis

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the muscular system that could disrupt homeostasis. HAPS Objective: G.12.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the muscular system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 07.13 Section: 07.07 Topic: Clinical applications of the muscular system

123. A chronic condition of achy pain, tenderness, and stiff muscles is called A. a strain. B. fibromyalgia. C. tendinitis. D. a cramp.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.11.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the muscular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body HAPS Objective: G.11.02 Explain how the muscular system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis Learning Outcome: 07.13 Section: 07.06

124. A genetic disease of progressive muscle weakening and degeneration due to the lack of a functioning protein is A. fibromyalgia. B. myasthenia gravis. C. muscular dystrophy. D. osteoarthritis.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: G.12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the muscular system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 07.13 Section: 07.07 Topic: Clinical applications of the muscular system

Chapter 07 - The Muscular System

125. An autoimmune disease caused by a reduction of acetylcholine needed to stimulate skeletal muscles to contract is A. fibromyalgia. B. myasthenia gravis. C. muscular dystrophy. D. osteoarthritis.

126. The correct name for Lou Gehrig's disease is A. fibromyalgia. B. myasthenia gravis. C. muscular dystrophy. D. amyotropic lateral sclerosis.

127. This disease is characterized by the death of motor neurons but does not affect intellect and sensation. A. Amyotropic lateral sclerosis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Fibromyalgia

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

Chapter 08 The Nervous System

Multiple Choice Questions 1. The interpretation of olfactory receptor information would fall under which general function of the nervous system? A. Sensory input B. Motor output C. Integration

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: H.01.01 Describe the overall functions of the nervous system. Learning Outcome: 08.01 Section: 08.01 Topic: General functions of the nervous system

2. The release of saliva when thinking of food is part of which nervous system function? A. Sensory input B. Integration C. Motor output

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: H.01.01 Describe the overall functions of the nervous system. Learning Outcome: 08.01 Section: 08.01 Topic: General functions of the nervous system

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

3. A flash of light causes the eyes to send signals to the brain. A loud noise causes the ears to send signals to the brain. The brain receives these signals and "decides" to send signals to the legs to make the person run from this event. The decision to send signals to the legs is part of which nervous system function? A. Sensory input B. Integration C. Motor output

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: H.01.01 Describe the overall functions of the nervous system. Learning Outcome: 08.01 Section: 08.01 Topic: General functions of the nervous system

4. Motor signals are sent by the brain to effectors. Which is an example of an effector? A. The hypothalamus B. Smooth muscles in the walls of blood vessels C. Merkel cells, touch receptors in the epidermis D. Photoreceptors, light sensors in the eyes

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.02.01 Describe the nervous system as a control system identifying nervous system elements that are sensory receptors, the afferent pathway, control centers, the efferent pathway, and effector organs. Learning Outcome: 08.01 Section: 08.01 Topic: General functions of the nervous system

5. The central nervous system includes the A. spinal nerves. B. brain. C. cranial nerves. D. sensory receptors.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.01 Section: 08.01 Topic: Anatomical and functional organization of the nervous system

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

6. The spinal cord is part of the ___________, while the cranial nerves are part of the ___________. A. CNS; PNS B. PNS; CNS

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.01 Section: 08.01 Topic: Anatomical and functional organization of the nervous system

7. The motor division is also called the ______ system; the sensory division is also called the ______ system. A. efferent; afferent B. afferent; efferent

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.01.01 Describe the overall functions of the nervous system. Learning Outcome: 08.01 Section: 08.01 Topic: Anatomical and functional organization of the nervous system

8. Which effectors of the PNS are served by somatic motor nerves? A. Cardiac muscle B. Glands C. Smooth muscle D. Skeletal muscle

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.02.02 Differentiate between the somatic and autonomic divisions of the nervous system. Learning Outcome: 08.01 Section: 08.01 Topic: Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

True / False Questions 9. The afferent division of the peripheral nervous system carries motor fibers. FALSE The afferent division of the peripheral nervous system carries sensory fibers.

Multiple Choice Questions 10. Visceral sensory signals could be travelling from the A. knee. B. rectus abdominis. C. small intestine.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: H.02.02 Differentiate between the somatic and autonomic divisions of the nervous system. Learning Outcome: 08.01 Section: 08.01 Topic: Anatomical and functional organization of the nervous system

11. Which cell type sends electrical signals? A. Neuron B. Neuroglial cell C. Neurons and neuroglial cells

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.03.02e Give a function of each type of neuron with respect to the three structural types of neurons (unipolar, bipolar Learning Outcome: 08.02 Section: 08.01 Topic: Anatomical and functional organization of the nervous system

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

12. Which of the following incorrectly lists the neuron part with its function? A. Axon - sends signals to other cells B. Cell body - stores the nucleus C. Dendrite - stores most of the endoplasmic reticulum

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.03.02c Indicate which parts of each type of neuron receive information, which parts integrate information, and which parts conduct the output signal of the neuron with respect to the three structural types of neurons (unipolar, bipolar Learning Outcome: 08.02 Section: 08.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of neurons

13. Which of the following contains the nucleus? A. Axon B. Dendrite C. Cell body D. None apply.

14. Which part of a neuron carries impulse away from the cell body? A. Axon B. Dendrite C. Nucleus D. Neuroglia

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

15. A bundle of parallel axons in the CNS is called a ______; while in the PNS it is called a _______. A. nerve; tract B. dendrite; axon C. tract; nerve D. nucleus; ganglion

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.10.01 Describe the gross anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves and specify their location relative to the anatomy of the skeletal system. Learning Outcome: 08.02 Section: 08.01 Topic: Anatomical and functional organization of the nervous system

16. Within the peripheral nervous system, the myelin sheath is formed by A. Schwann cells. B. oligodendrocytes. C. microglial cells. D. astrocytes.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.12.01 Describe the locations and functions of the first-, second- and third-order neurons in a sensory pathway. Learning Outcome: 08.02 Section: 08.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of glial cells

17. Within the central nervous system, the myelin sheath is produced from A. Schwann cells. B. neurolemmocytes. C. oligodendrocytes. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.02 Section: 08.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of neurons

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

18. What are nodes of Ranvier? A. Myelin sheaths around the axon B. A long process that carries electric signals in a neuron C. Gaps on axons in between myelin sheaths D. Dark-staining rough endoplasmic reticulum in neurons

19. A sensory neuron carries impulses A. to muscles and glands. B. to the CNS. C. always within the CNS.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H8.01.01 Indicate which parts of the nervous system are sensory, and which are motor. Learning Outcome: 08.02 Section: 08.01 Topic: Anatomical and functional organization of the nervous system

20. An interneuron carries impulses A. to muscles and glands. B. to the CNS. C. always within the CNS. D. always within the PNS.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.02 Section: 08.01 Topic: Anatomical and functional organization of the nervous system

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

21. A motor neuron carries impulses A. to muscles and glands. B. to the CNS. C. always within the CNS.

22. What is the structural classification of a motor neuron? A. Unipolar B. Multipolar C. Bipolar

23. What is the structural classification of a sensory neuron? A. Unipolar B. Multipolar C. Bipolar

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

24. What is the structural classification of interneurons? A. Unipolar B. Multipolar C. Bipolar

True / False Questions 25. An interneuron is also known as an association neuron. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.02 Section: 08.01 Topic: Anatomical and functional organization of the nervous system

Multiple Choice Questions 26. When a nerve is at its resting potential, the inside charge is A. negative. B. positive. C. neutral.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

27. What ion is found on the outside of the neuron membrane that mostly contributes to a positive resting potential there? A. Calcium B. Potassium C. Sodium D. Chloride

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

28. Which of the following is NOT true of the resting membrane potential? A. Potassium ions are concentrated inside the cell. B. Sodium ions are concentrated outside the cell. C. The membrane is freely permeable to sodium ions. D. Large, negatively charged proteins are inside the cell.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

29. When a neuron is at rest, there is more _____ on the inside of the cell than on the outside, and more ______ on the outside than on the inside. A. potassium; sodium B. sodium; potassium

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

30. The resting potential of a neuron is measured at A. +70 millivolts. B. +1.5 volts. C. – 45 millivolts. D. – 70 millivolts.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

31. What system keeps the neuron at resting potential? A. Osmosis B. Pinocytosis C. Sodium-potassium pump D. Facilitated diffusion

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

32. An action potential begins with a A. stimulus. B. depolarization. C. repolarization. D. refractory period.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

33. A stimulus will open ion channels that will allow ________ to flow into the neuron, causing the inside to become______________ charged. A. sodium; negatively B. sodium; positively C. potassium; negatively D. potassium; positively

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

34. In order for an action potential to occur, a certain membrane potential called the ______ must be reached. A. sodium-potassium pump B. depolarization C. hyperpolarization D. threshold

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

35. During depolarization A. many potassium ions move outside the neuron. B. sodium ions move inside the neuron. C. electrons stream along the axon. D. calcium ions move inside the neuron.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

36. During an action potential, the membrane potential depolarizes all the way up to ______ mV. A. 0 B. –35 C. +35 D. –70

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

37. During repolarization A. chloride ions move outside the neuron. B. sodium ions move inside the neuron. C. potassium ions move outside the neuron. D. electrons stop moving along the axon.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

38. What does the action potential consist of? A. Depolarization B. Repolarization C. Resting potential D. Depolarization and repolarization

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

True / False Questions 39. A very strong stimulus produces a larger action potential. FALSE Action potentials are all-or-none, and do not vary in size. A very strong stimulus does not increase the size of the action potential.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

Multiple Choice Questions 40. How is the intensity of a stimulus coded in the conduction of an action potential? A. A larger voltage change occurs during an action potential from a larger stimulus. B. The speed of the action potential increases after a larger stimulus. C. Action potential frequency increases after a larger stimulus. D. More sodium ions enter the axon after a larger stimulus.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

41. Which prevents an action potential from moving backward along the axon? In other words, why do action potentials move in one direction only, down the axon away from the cell body? A. Myelin sheaths prevent the action potential from moving backward. B. The refractory period prevents the action potential from moving backward. C. In some axons, action potentials do move backward.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

42. The time between action potentials when a neuron is unable to respond to a stimulus is called the A. resting potential. B. refractory period. C. saltatory period. D. depolarization period.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

43. What type of axon will experience the fastest conduction of an action potential? A. A myelinated, thin axon B. A myelinated, thick axon C. A nonmyelinated, thin axon D. A nonmyelinated, thick axon

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

44. The "jumping" of an action potential from one node of Ranvier to the next node is called A. point to point conduction. B. refractory conduction. C. saltatory conduction. D. summary conduction.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

45. On which type of neuron does saltatory conduction occur? A. Nonmyelinated neurons only B. Myelinated neurons only C. Both nonmyelinated and myelinated neurons

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

46. The small gap between two successive neurons is called the A. synaptic cleft. B. axon terminal. C. dendrite terminal. D. neurotransmitter.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.05.02 List the structures that comprise a chemical synapse. Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

47. What flows across the synaptic cleft? A. Sodium ions B. Electrons C. A neurotransmitter D. Potassium ions

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.05.02 List the structures that comprise a chemical synapse. Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

48. The entrance of _______ into the presynaptic neuron triggers the release of a neurotransmitter. A. sodium ions B. potassium ions C. electrons D. calcium ions

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.05.01 Identify the presynaptic and postsynaptic cells at a synapse. HAPS Objective: H.05.02 List the structures that comprise a chemical synapse. Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

49. Through which process is neurotransmitter released from the presynaptic neuron? A. Endocytosis B. Exocytosis C. Pinocytosis D. Osmosis

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.05.02 List the structures that comprise a chemical synapse. Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

50. The receptors for neurotransmitters on the post-synaptic neuron membrane are of what type? A. Ligand-regulated gates B. Voltage-regulated gates C. Synaptic-regulated gates D. Threshold-regulated gates

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

51. An inhibitory neurotransmitter will cause A. sodium gates to open into the cell. B. potassium gates to open out of the cell. C. sodium and chloride gates to open into the cell. D. chloride gates to open out of the cell.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: H.05.02 List the structures that comprise a chemical synapse. Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

True / False Questions 52. Neurotransmitters that open sodium-regulated gates are considered to be excitatory. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: H.05.02 List the structures that comprise a chemical synapse. Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

Multiple Choice Questions 53. What is the role of acetylcholinesterase at a synapse? A. It stimulates the post-synaptic neuron. B. It breaks down acetylcholine. C. It releases calcium ions. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.05.02 List the structures that comprise a chemical synapse. Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

54. The summing up of excitatory and inhibitory signals received by a neuron is called A. summation. B. potentiation. C. integration. D. transmission.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

55. In which direction does the transmission of an impulse cross a synapse? A. Dendrite to axon B. Axon to dendrite C. Either way D. Both ways

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.05.01 Identify the presynaptic and postsynaptic cells at a synapse. Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

56. Small signals in a synapse that don't reach threshold, but can add together are called A. receptor potentials. B. action potentials. C. resting potentials. D. graded potentials.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

57. Which disease is due, in part, to reduced amounts of acetylcholine in the brain? A. Parkinsons disease B. Huntingtons disease C. Alzheimers disease D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system

58. Which of the following are features of Alzheimer disease? A. Neurofibrillary tangles around cell bodies of neurons B. Buildup of amyloid plaques around axon branches C. Reduced amounts of acetylcholine D. All apply.

True / False Questions 59. The process of nerve signal conduction is termed an action potential. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.03 Section: 08.01 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

Multiple Choice Questions 60. Grey matter is composed mostly of A. tracts. B. myelinated axons. C. cell bodies and dendrites.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.10.03 Contrast the relative position of gray matter and white matter in the spinal cord with the corresponding arrangement of gray and white matter in the brain. Learning Outcome: 08.06 Learning Outcome: 08.07 Section: 08.02 Topic: Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves Topic: Gross anatomy of the components of the brain

61. The protective membranes around the brain and spinal cord are the A. ventricles. B. meninges. C. serous membranes. D. arbor vitae.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.08.02 Identify the meninges and describe their functional relationship to the brain and cranial bones. Learning Outcome: 08.04 Section: 08.02 Topic: Protective roles of cranial bones, meninges, and cerebrospinal fluid

62. Which of the following is the correct layering of the meninges from superficial to deep? A. Dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater B. Pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid mater C. Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater D. Arachnoid mater, dura mater, pia mater

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

63. The tough outer meninx is the A. dura mater. B. arachnoid mater. C. pia mater.

64. The dural venous sinuses are found between A. the dura and pia maters. B. layers of the dura mater. C. the arachnoid and pia maters. D. layers of the pia mater.

65. The space between the arachnoid and pia maters that is filled with cerebrospinal fluid is the A. dural venous sinus. B. subdural space. C. subarachnoid space. D. epidural space.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.08.02 Identify the meninges and describe their functional relationship to the brain and cranial bones. Learning Outcome: 08.04 Learning Outcome: 08.05 Section: 08.02 Topic: Protective roles of cranial bones, meninges, and cerebrospinal fluid

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

66. Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by the A. dura mater. B. pia mater. C. ventricles. D. choroid plexus.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.08.03 Describe the functions of cerebrospinal fluid, as well as the details of its production, its circulation within the central nervous system, and its ultimate reabsorption into the bloodstream. Learning Outcome: 08.05 Section: 08.02 Topic: Protective roles of cranial bones, meninges, and cerebrospinal fluid

67. Which of the following is NOT a location where cerebrospinal fluid is found? A. Subdural space B. Brain ventricles C. Central canal of the spinal cord D. Subarachnoid space

68. What do the ventricles of the brain contain? A. Meninges B. Dura mater C. Cerebrospinal fluid D. Meninges and dura mater

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

69. What protects the spinal cord? A. Vertebrae B. Meninges C. Cerebrospinal fluid D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.08.02 Identify the meninges and describe their functional relationship to the brain and cranial bones. HAPS Objective: H.08.03 Describe the functions of cerebrospinal fluid, as well as the details of its production, its circulation within the central nervous system, and its ultimate reabsorption into the bloodstream. Learning Outcome: 08.06 Section: 08.02 Topic: Protective roles of cranial bones, meninges, and cerebrospinal fluid

70. The spinal cord begins at the ________ and ends at the ________. A. foramen magnum; sacrum B. foramen magnum; first lumbar vertebrae C. fifth cervical vertebrae; coccyx D. second cervical vertebrae; first lumbar vertebrae

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.10.01 Describe the gross anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves and specify their location relative to the anatomy of the skeletal system. Learning Outcome: 08.06 Section: 08.02 Topic: Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves

71. The posterior root of a spinal nerve contains ________fibers, while the anterior root contains ______ fibers. A. sensory; motor B. sensory; association C. motor; sensory D. motor; association

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.10.01 Describe the gross anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves and specify their location relative to the anatomy of the skeletal system. Learning Outcome: 08.06 Section: 08.02 Topic: Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

72. The ascending and descending tracts of the spinal cord are part of the A. white matter. B. gray matter. C. both gray matter and white matter.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.10.01 Describe the gross anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves and specify their location relative to the anatomy of the skeletal system. Learning Outcome: 08.06 Section: 08.02 Topic: Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves

73. The right side of the brain controls the ______ side of the body. The left side of the brain controls the ______ side of the body. A. left; right B. right; left

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.10.01 Describe the gross anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves and specify their location relative to the anatomy of the skeletal system. Learning Outcome: 08.06 Section: 08.02 Topic: Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves

74. Which type of neuron is involved in a reflex arc? A. Sensory B. Motor C. Interneuron D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.11.02 Describe reflex responses in terms of the major structural and functional components of a reflex arc. Learning Outcome: 08.06 Section: 08.02 Topic: Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

75. The lateral ventricles are located in the A. cerebrum. B. medulla oblongata. C. thalamus. D. cerebellum.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.07 Section: 08.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the components of the brain

76. Which ventricle is located in the brainstem? A. Lateral B. Third C. Fourth D. Second

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.07 Section: 08.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the components of the brain

77. What separates the hemispheres of the cerebrum? A. Lateral fissure B. Longitudinal fissure C. Corpus callosum D. Central sulcus

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.07 Section: 08.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the components of the brain

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

78. What white matter structure connects the two cerebral hemispheres? A. Longitudinal fissure B. Lateral ventricles C. Corpus callosum D. Diencephalons

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.07 Section: 08.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the components of the brain

79. A shallow groove on the surface of the cerebral cortex is called a A. gyrus. B. sulcus. C. ventricle. D. lobe.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.07 Section: 08.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the components of the brain

80. Which of the following is NOT a lobe of the cerebrum? A. Occipital lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Temporal lobe D. Sphenoid lobe

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.07.04 Identify the five lobes of the cerebral cortex and describe how the motor and sensory functions of the cerebrum are distributed among the lobes. Learning Outcome: 08.07 Section: 08.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the components of the brain

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

81. The primary motor cortex is located in the _____ lobe. A. frontal B. parietal C. temporal D. occipital

82. The primary somatosensory area is located in the _____ lobe. A. frontal B. parietal C. temporal D. occipital

83. The primary visual area is located in the ______ lobe. A. frontal B. parietal C. temporal D. occipital

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

84. The primary auditory area is located in the _____ lobe. A. frontal B. parietal C. temporal D. occipital

85. Which lobe of the cerebrum is involved in social emotions and taste? A. Occipital B. Frontal C. Temporal D. Insula

86. What cortex areas are involved with integration and memory? A. Primary motor areas B. Association areas C. Somatosensory areas D. Processing areas

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.07.08 Describe the parts of the brain involved in storage of long term memory and discuss possible mechanisms of memory consolidation. Learning Outcome: 08.07 Section: 08.02 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

87. The primary gustatory (taste) cortex is located in the A. frontal lobe. B. occipital lobe and insula. C. temporal lobe. D. parietal lobe and insula.

88. Which processing center uses information from other areas for reason and planning actions? A. Somatosensory area B. Insula C. Prefrontal area D. Basal nuclei

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain. Learning Outcome: 08.07 Section: 08.02 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain

89. The motor speech area is found in the left frontal lobe and is called A. Broca's area. B. Wernicke's area. C. prefrontal area. D. insula.

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

90. Wernicke's area or general interpretive area, is involved with A. speech. B. critical thinking. C. planning actions. D. interpreting written and spoken language.

91. Masses of gray matter deep within the cerebrum that help integrate motor commands are the A. Broca's areas. B. basal nuclei. C. corpus callosum. D. association areas.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.07 Section: 08.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the components of the brain

Check All That Apply Questions 92. Which are components of the diencephalon? Choose all that apply. _____ Brain stem __X__ Pineal gland __X__ Thalamus __X__ Hypothalamus _____ Pituitary gland

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.07 Section: 08.02 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

Multiple Choice Questions 93. Which part of the brain is concerned with hunger, thirst, water balance, and body temperature? A. Corpus callosum B. Hypothalamus C. Thalamus D. Midbrain

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.07 Section: 08.02 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain

94. Which part of the brain functions to send incoming sensory signals to the appropriate cortical areas? A. Thalamus B. Hypothalamus C. Cerebellum D. Pons

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.07 Section: 08.02 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain

95. Which area of the brain is most concerned with homeostasis? A. Hypothalamus B. Cerebrum C. Thalamus D. Cerebellum

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.07 Section: 08.02 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

96. Which part of the brain is the link between the nervous and endocrine systems? A. Midbrain B. Pons C. Thalamus D. Hypothalamus

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.07 Section: 08.02 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain

97. What part of the limbic system is vital in converting short-term memory to long-term memory? A. Hippocampus B. Thalamus C. Hypothalamus D. Basal nuclei

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.07 Section: 08.02 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain

98. Which system handles emotions? A. The reticular formation B. The limbic system C. The primary somatosensory cortex D. The brainstem

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.07 Section: 08.02 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

99. Which part of the brain serves to coordinate skeletal muscle movements? A. Cerebrum B. Diencephalon C. Pons D. Cerebellum

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.07 Section: 08.02 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain

100. Which of the following is NOT part of the brain stem? A. Pons B. Medulla oblongata C. Thalamus D. Midbrain

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.07 Section: 08.02 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain

101. Which part of the brain has centers for the control of breathing, heart rate, and vasoconstriction? A. Pons B. Midbrain C. Medulla oblongata D. Hypothalamus

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.07 Section: 08.02 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

102. Which of the following is NOT a function of the reticular formation? A. Helps the cerebellum with muscle tone B. Helps the medulla regulate respiration, heart rate, and blood pressure C. Helps the hypothalamus regulate hunger and thirst D. Helps the cerebrum with mental alertness and arousal from sleep

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.07 Section: 08.02 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain

103. Which part of the brain works with the medulla oblongata to regulate respiration? A. Reticular formation B. Hippocampus C. Pons D. Midbrain

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.07 Section: 08.02 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain

104. Mixed nerves contain A. only sensory fibers. B. only motor fibers. C. both sensory and motor fibers.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.10.01 Describe the gross anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves and specify their location relative to the anatomy of the skeletal system. Learning Outcome: 08.08 Section: 08.03 Topic: Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

105. Nerves are bundles of A. cell bodies. B. axons. C. dendrites. D. cell bodies, dendrites, and axons.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.10.01 Describe the gross anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves and specify their location relative to the anatomy of the skeletal system. Learning Outcome: 08.08 Section: 08.03 Topic: Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves

106. A fascicle of axons is surrounded by the A. perineurium. B. endoneurium. C. epineurium. D. myelin sheath.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.10.01 Describe the gross anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves and specify their location relative to the anatomy of the skeletal system. Learning Outcome: 08.08 Section: 08.03 Topic: Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves

107. The endoneurium is found around A. fascicles. B. muscle fibers. C. axons. D. cell bodies.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.10.01 Describe the gross anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves and specify their location relative to the anatomy of the skeletal system. Learning Outcome: 08.08 Section: 08.03 Topic: Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

108. Which of the following is NOT served by the somatic sensory division of the PNS? A. Stomach B. Skeletal muscles C. Special senses D. Skin

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.02.02 Differentiate between the somatic and autonomic divisions of the nervous system. Learning Outcome: 08.08 Section: 08.03 Topic: Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems

109. Which system is concerned with internal organs (viscera)? A. Somatic B. Autonomic C. Somatic and autonomic

110. Which system innervates skeletal muscles? A. Somatic B. Sympathetic C. Parasympathetic D. All apply.

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

111. There are ____ pairs of cranial nerves and ____ pairs of spinal nerves. A. 31; 12 B. 12; 31 C. 10; 12 D. 15; 30

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.08 Section: 08.03 Topic: Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves Topic: Structure and function of cranial nerves

112. The optic nerve is a A. cranial nerve. B. sensory nerve. C. spinal nerve. D. cranial nerve and a sensory nerve.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.09.02 Describe the specific functions of each of the cranial nerves and also indicate if each is sensory, motor or mixed. Learning Outcome: 08.09 Section: 08.03 Topic: Structure and function of cranial nerves

113. Which of the following cranial nerves is NOT correctly matched with its function? A. Olfactory - smell B. Oculomotor - eye movement C. Abducens - feeling from the face D. Trochlear - eye movement

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

114. Which of the following cranial nerves is NOT associated with eye muscles? A. Trigeminal B. Oculomotor C. Trochlear D. Abducens

115. Which of the following cranial nerves allows one to taste a lemon and then make a face because it is sour? A. Trigeminal B. Facial C. Abducens D. Glossopharyngeal

Bloom's Level: 3. Apply HAPS Objective: H.09.02 Describe the specific functions of each of the cranial nerves and also indicate if each is sensory, motor or mixed. Learning Outcome: 08.09 Section: 08.03 Topic: Structure and function of cranial nerves

116. Which cranial nerve is NOT associated with the tongue? A. Glossopharyngeal B. Hypoglossal C. Trigeminal D. Vagus

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

117. Which of the following cranial nerves is NOT purely motor in its function? A. Trigeminal B. Trochlear C. Spinal accessory D. Abducens

118. Which of the following cranial nerves is NOT correctly matched with its function? A. Glossopharyngeal - muscles for swallowing B. Vagus - sensory and motor for internal organs C. Hypoglossal - neck and back muscles D. Vestibulocochlear - hearing and balance

119. Which of the following cranial nerves is NOT a purely sensory nerve? A. Vestibulocochlear B. Olfactory C. Optic D. Trochlear

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

120. Which of the following cranial nerves is the only one to leave the head and neck area? A. Accessory B. Vagus C. Hypoglossal D. Trigeminal

121. Which of the following spinal nerve areas is NOT matched with the correct number of nerve pairs? A. Thoracic - 12 B. Cervical - 7 C. Lumbar - 5 D. Sacral - 5

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.10.01 Describe the gross anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves and specify their location relative to the anatomy of the skeletal system. Learning Outcome: 08.10 Section: 08.03 Topic: Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves

122. Which spinal nerve serves the diaphragm? A. Radial B. Ulnar C. Musculocutaneous D. Phrenic

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.10.01 Describe the gross anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves and specify their location relative to the anatomy of the skeletal system. Learning Outcome: 08.10 Section: 08.03 Topic: Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

123. Which spinal nerve serves the front of the thigh and leg? A. Sciatic B. Phrenic C. Femoral D. Intercostals

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.10.01 Describe the gross anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves and specify their location relative to the anatomy of the skeletal system. Learning Outcome: 08.10 Section: 08.03 Topic: Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves

124. Which of the following spinal nerves does NOT innervate the hands? A. Radial nerve B. Ulnar nerve C. Median nerve D. Musculocutaneous nerve

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.10.01 Describe the gross anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves and specify their location relative to the anatomy of the skeletal system. Learning Outcome: 08.10 Section: 08.03 Topic: Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves

125. From which area of the spinal cord does the femoral nerve come? A. Lumbar region B. Sacral region C. Thoracic region D. Coccygeal region

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.10.01 Describe the gross anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves and specify their location relative to the anatomy of the skeletal system. Learning Outcome: 08.10 Section: 08.03 Topic: Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

True / False Questions 126. All spinal nerves are mixed nerves. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.10.01 Describe the gross anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves and specify their location relative to the anatomy of the skeletal system. Learning Outcome: 08.10 Section: 08.03 Topic: Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves

Multiple Choice Questions 127. Which of the following is the correct sequence of structures in a reflex arc? A. Effector, motor nerve, sensory nerve, interneuron, receptor B. Sensory nerve, interneuron, receptor, motor nerve, effector C. Receptor, sensory nerve, interneuron, motor nerve, effector D. Receptor, effector, interneuron, sensory nerve, motor nerve

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.11.02 Describe reflex responses in terms of the major structural and functional components of a reflex arc. Learning Outcome: 08.11 Section: 08.03 Topic: Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function

128. What is the body's response of the knee-jerk reflex? A. Contraction of the hamstring muscles B. Contraction of the abdominal muscles C. Contraction of the quadriceps femoris muscles D. Contraction of the gastrocnemius muscle

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.11.06 Demonstrate a stretch reflex (e.g., patellar or plantar). Learning Outcome: 08.11 Section: 08.03 Topic: Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

129. What is the body's response to the ankle-jerk reflex? A. Plantar flexion B. Dorsiflexion C. Extension of the knee D. Extension of the toes

130. Restful activities are governed by the A. parasympathetic nervous system. B. sympathetic nervous system. C. both parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.02.02 Differentiate between the somatic and autonomic divisions of the nervous system. Learning Outcome: 08.12 Section: 08.03 Topic: Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems

131. Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter used by the A. parasympathetic nervous system. B. sympathetic nervous system. C. both parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.13.02 Contrast the anatomy of the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems, including central nervous system outflow locations, ganglia locations, pre- and post-ganglionic neuron relative lengths, and ganglionic and effector neurotransmitters. Learning Outcome: 08.12 Section: 08.03 Topic: Anatomy of the sympathetic division of the ANS

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

Check All That Apply Questions 132. Which are functions of the autonomic nervous system? Choose all that apply. _____ Controls skeletal muscles __X__ Controls actions of internal organs __X__ Controls secretions from glands

True / False Questions 133. The autonomic nervous system is in control of voluntary activities. FALSE The autonomic nervous system is in control of involuntary activities.

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

Multiple Choice Questions 134. How many neurons are in most autonomic nervous system pathways? A. One B. Two C. Three D. It can vary

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 08.12 Section: 08.03 Topic: Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves Topic: Anatomy of the sympathetic division of the ANS

135. The autonomic system that gets the body ready for "fight or flight" is the A. parasympathetic nervous system. B. sympathetic nervous system. C. somatic motor nervous system.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.13.09 Describe major parasympathetic and/or sympathetic physiological effects on target organs. Learning Outcome: 08.13 Section: 08.03 Topic: Functions of the autonomic nervous system

136. The neurotransmitter used by the parasympathetic nervous system is A. norepinephrine. B. dopamine. C. serotonin. D. acetylcholine.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.13.02 Contrast the anatomy of the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems, including central nervous system outflow locations, ganglia locations, pre- and post-ganglionic neuron relative lengths, and ganglionic and effector neurotransmitters. Learning Outcome: 08.13 Section: 08.03 Topic: Anatomy of the parasympathetic division of the ANS

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

137. Which of the following is NOT true of the sympathetic division of the ANS? A. The ganglia are located near the effectors. B. Cell body of the preganglionic neuron is in the thoracolumbar region of the spinal cord. C. The preganglionic neurons are short. D. The postganglionic neurons are long.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.13.02 Contrast the anatomy of the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems, including central nervous system outflow locations, ganglia locations, pre- and post-ganglionic neuron relative lengths, and ganglionic and effector neurotransmitters. Learning Outcome: 08.13 Section: 08.03 Topic: Anatomy of the sympathetic division of the ANS

138. Which of the following is an action of the parasympathetic division of the ANS? A. Speeds up the heart B. Stimulates the liver to release glucose C. Constricts bronchioles D. Inhibits salivation

139. Which of the following is a function of the sympathetic division of the ANS? A. Inhibits tears B. Decreases intestinal activity C. Inhibits urination D. All apply.

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

140. Which of the following is NOT an effect of aging on the nervous system? A. Brain mass decreases B. Brain cells are lost C. Mental abilities decrease D. Neurological diseases increase in occurrence

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis. HAPS Objective: H.16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the nervous system could not maintain homeostasis Learning Outcome: 08.14 Section: 08.04 Topic: Effects of aging on the nervous system

True / False Questions 141. As we age, the cerebral cortex significantly shrinks in size. TRUE

142. It is possible to avoid any decline in cognitive function due to aging. TRUE Mental function can be maintained as we age.

Chapter 08 - The Nervous System

Multiple Choice Questions 143. Which of the following will NOT aid in maintaining mental functions as we age? A. Exercise B. Avoiding groups of people C. Playing Scrabble© D. Keeping good heart health

144. Which parts of the nervous system work together to provide much of the body's homeostasis? A. Cerebrum and midbrain B. Pons and medulla oblongata C. Hypothalamus and thalamus D. Hypothalamus and medulla oblongata

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the nervous system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body. Learning Outcome: 08.15 Section: 08.05 Topic: General functions of the nervous system

True / False Questions 145. The nervous and endocrine systems work closely together to maintain body functions. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.15.02 Explain how the nervous system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 08.15 Section: 08.05 Topic: General functions of the nervous system

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

Chapter 09 The Sensory System

Multiple Choice Questions 1. The signaling system begun by a stimulus is called a(n) A. action potential. B. all-or-none response. C. receptor potential. D. local potential.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.06.03 Explain the generator potential that occurs when receptprs for general senses are stimulated. Learning Outcome: 09.01 Section: 09.01 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors

2. Which of the following are examples of chemoreceptors? A. Taste B. Olfaction C. Proprioception D. Taste and olfaction

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.06.02d chemoreceptors describe each type of receptor below, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body. Learning Outcome: 09.01 Section: 09.01 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

3. What type of receptor responds to changes in temperature? A. Mechanoreceptor B. Thermoreceptor C. Photoreceptor D. Chemoreceptor

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.06.02b temperature receptors describe each type of receptor below, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body. Learning Outcome: 09.01 Section: 09.01 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors

4. Nerve signals from the general body senses travel up the spinal cord to the thalamus and then to the A. somatosensory area of the parietal lobe. B. prefrontal area of the frontal lobe. C. visual area of the occipital lobe. D. primary motor area of the frontal lobe.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.07.04 Identify the five lobes of the cerebral cortex and describe how the motor and sensory functions of the cerebrum are distributed among the lobes. Learning Outcome: 09.01 Section: 09.01 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors

True / False Questions 5. Sensory receptors can generate action potentials. FALSE Receptors can not generate action potentials.

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

Multiple Choice Questions 6. Which type of receptor are proprioceptors, pressure receptors, and equilibrium receptors? A. Pain receptors B. Photoreceptors C. Chemoreceptors D. Mechanoreceptors

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.06.02c mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors) describe each type of receptor below, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body. Learning Outcome: 09.01 Section: 09.01 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors

7. Proprioceptors are involved in the sense of A. pain. B. temperature. C. pressure. D. limb position.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.06.01c proprioceptors describe each type of receptor below in terms of its general location in the body and the origin of the stimuli it receives. HAPS Objective: H.06.02c mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors) describe each type of receptor below, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body. Learning Outcome: 09.02 Section: 09.01 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

8. Information from muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs are used for A. maintaining equilibrium and posture. B. processing pain. C. registering pressure. D. registering light touch.

9. The function of muscle spindles is to detect A. muscle or tendon stretch. B. muscle or tendon contraction. C. muscle or tendon relaxation. D. None apply.

10. The response to signals from muscle spindles is to A. decrease the degree of muscle contraction. B. increase the degree of muscle relaxation. C. increase the degree of muscle contraction. D. decrease the frequency of impulses to muscles.

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

11. The response to signals from Golgi tendon organs is to A. decrease the degree of muscle contraction. B. decrease the degree of muscle relaxation. C. increase the degree of muscle contraction. D. None apply.

True / False Questions 12. The speed of the action potentials generated by a muscle spindle is proportional to the amount of muscle stretch. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.06.03 Explain the generator potential that occurs when receptprs for general senses are stimulated. Learning Outcome: 09.02 Section: 09.01 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

Multiple Choice Questions 13. Excessive muscle contraction will activate A. muscle spindles. B. Golgi tendon organs. C. Merkel disks. D. Meissner corpuscles.

14. Which of the following cutaneous receptors is NOT sensitive to fine touch? A. Meissner corpuscles B. Root hair plexus C. Pacinian corpuscles D. Merkel disks

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.06.01a exteroceptors describe each type of receptor below in terms of its general location in the body and the origin of the stimuli it receives. HAPS Objective: H.06.02c mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors) describe each type of receptor below, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body. Learning Outcome: 09.03 Section: 09.01 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

15. Which of the following cutaneous receptors is NOT sensitive to pressure? A. Ruffini endings B. Meissner corpuscles C. Pacinian corpuscles D. Krause end bulb

16. Which of the following cutaneous receptors is NOT correctly matched with its stimulus? A. Krause end bulbs - pressure B. Free nerve endings - heat or cold C. Pacinian corpuscles - fine touch D. Ruffini endings - pressure

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

17. What type of cutaneous receptor would be the first to respond to a touch that barely contacts the skin of the forearm? A. Merkel disk B. Pacinian corpusle C. Meissner corpuscle D. Root hair plexus

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: H.06.01a exteroceptors describe each type of receptor below in terms of its general location in the body and the origin of the stimuli it receives. HAPS Objective: H.06.02c mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors) describe each type of receptor below, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body. Learning Outcome: 09.03 Section: 09.01 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors

18. Temperature receptors of the skin are A. Ruffini endings. B. Krause end bulbs. C. free nerve endings D. Merkel disks.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.06.01a exteroceptors describe each type of receptor below in terms of its general location in the body and the origin of the stimuli it receives. HAPS Objective: H.06.02b temperature receptors describe each type of receptor below, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body. Learning Outcome: 09.03 Section: 09.01 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

19. Which type of cutaneous receptor would respond to the lightest pressure? A. Krause end bulbs B. Ruffini endings C. Pacinian corpuscles D. Meissner corpuscles

20. The feeling of pain on the body surface that has its origin in an internal organ is called A. nociception. B. proprioception. C. referred pain. D. visceral pain.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.06.02a pain receptors (nociceptors) describe each type of receptor below, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body. Learning Outcome: 09.04 Section: 09.01 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors

21. Which of the following is NOT a stimulus that will activate a chemoreceptor? A. Taste of pizza B. Carbon dioxide level of the blood C. Oxygen deprivation in a visceral organ D. Smell of roses

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.06.01b interoceptors describe each type of receptor below in terms of its general location in the body and the origin of the stimuli it receives. HAPS Objective: H.06.02d chemoreceptors describe each type of receptor below, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body. Learning Outcome: 09.05 Section: 09.02 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

22. The sensory receptors for taste are located in A. taste buds. B. salivary glands. C. the teeth. D. the cheeks.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.06.02d chemoreceptors describe each type of receptor below, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body. HAPS Objective: I.04.01 Identify the location and structure of taste buds. Learning Outcome: 09.05 Section: 09.02 Topic: Gustatory receptors and their role in taste

23. Which of the following is NOT a primary taste? A. Umami B. Sweet C. Bitter D. Minty E. Salty

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.04.04 Describe the five primary taste sensations. Learning Outcome: 09.05 Section: 09.02 Topic: Gustatory receptors and their role in taste

24. The gustatory (taste) area of the cerebrum is located in the A. parietal lobe. B. insula. C. frontal lobe. D. parietal lobe and insula.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.04.03 Describe the path of nerve impulses from the gustatory receptors to various parts of the brain. Learning Outcome: 09.05 Section: 09.02 Topic: Gustatory receptors and their role in taste

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

True / False Questions 25. Taste buds are found on structures called lamellae. FALSE Taste buds are found on structures called papillae.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.04.01 Identify the location and structure of taste buds. Learning Outcome: 09.05 Section: 09.02 Topic: Gustatory receptors and their role in taste

Multiple Choice Questions 26. Which of the following is INCORRECT about olfaction (smell)? A. Olfactory cells are modified neurons. B. Olfactory cilia have receptors for odor molecules. C. There are 23 primary odors. D. What we taste is related to what we smell.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.03.02 Explain how odorants activate olfactory receptors. Learning Outcome: 09.05 Section: 09.02 Topic: Olfactory receptors and their role in smell

27. The olfactory receptors are located A. in the roof of the nasal cavity. B. on nasal mucosa cilia. C. in the back of the throat. D. in the paranasal sinuses.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.03.01 Identify the location of olfactory receptors. Learning Outcome: 09.05 Section: 09.02 Topic: Olfactory receptors and their role in smell

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

28. The olfactory area of the cerebrum is located in the A. insula. B. parietal lobe. C. temporal lobe. D. frontal lobe.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.03.03 Describe the path of nerve impulses from the olfactory receptors to various parts of the brain. Learning Outcome: 09.05 Section: 09.02 Topic: Olfactory receptors and their role in smell

29. An emotional response to an odor means that the _______ is involved. A. reticular activating system B. limbic system C. somatosensory area D. cerebrospinal fluid

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: I.03.03 Describe the path of nerve impulses from the olfactory receptors to various parts of the brain. Learning Outcome: 09.05 Section: 09.02 Topic: Olfactory receptors and their role in smell

30. Which of the following bones is NOT part of the orbit of the eye? A. Ethmoid B. Palatine C. Zygomatic D. Temporal

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.01.01 Identify the accessory eye structures, the tunics, the optical components and the neural components of the eye. Learning Outcome: 09.06 Section: 09.03 Topic: Anatomy of accessory structures of the eye

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

31. The mucous membrane that lines the inside of the eyelids is called the A. conjunctiva. B. lacrimal apparatus. C. aqueous humor. D. sclera.

32. The structure that produces tears is called the A. conjunctiva. B. lacrimal apparatus. C. aqueous humor. D. sclera.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.02.01 Describe the functions of the accessory structures of the eye. Learning Outcome: 09.06 Section: 09.03 Topic: Anatomy of accessory structures of the eye

33. What is the purpose of blinking of the eyes? A. Lubricate the eye surface B. Protect the eye from infection C. Remove debris from the eye surface D. Lubricate and remove debris from eye surface

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

True / False Questions 34. The levator palpebrae superioris muscle will raise the eyebrows. FALSE The levator palpebrae superioris muscle will raise the eyelid.

35. The conjunctiva covers the cornea. FALSE The conjunctiva covers the anterior eye, but not the cornea.

Multiple Choice Questions 36. The three pairs of muscles attached to the outside of the eyeball that are used for eye movement are called ____ muscles. A. intrinsic B. extrinsic

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

37. The medial rectus muscle A. rolls the eye upward. B. turns the eye outward, away from the midline. C. turns the eye inward, toward the midline. D. rotates the eye clockwise.

38. The superior oblique muscle A. rolls the eye upward. B. turns the eye outward, away from the midline. C. rotates the eye counterclockwise. D. rotates the eye clockwise.

39. The inferior rectus muscle A. rolls the eye downward. B. rotates the eye clockwise. C. turns the eye inward, toward the midline. D. rolls the eye upward.

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

40. Which of the following is NOT a cranial nerve that innervates the extrinsic eye muscles? A. Oculomotor B. Abducens C. Trigeminal D. Trochlear

41. Which eye muscle is innervated by the abducens nerve? A. Lateral rectus muscle B. Medial rectus muscle C. Superior oblique muscle D. Inferior rectus muscle

42. Photoreceptors are located in the A. retina. B. cornea. C. choroids. D. sclera.

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

43. Absorption of stray light rays occurs in the A. retina. B. cornea. C. choroid. D. sclera.

44. The lens is held in place by the A. retina. B. cornea. C. choroids. D. ciliary body.

45. Protection and support is the function of the ____ of the eye. A. retina B. cornea C. choroid D. sclera

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

46. What is the function of the iris? A. Changes the shape of the lens B. Absorbs stray light rays C. Regulates the size of the pupil D. Refracts light rays

Check All That Apply Questions 47. Choose the structures that light passes through to get to the retina. _____ Sclera __X__ Pupil __X__ Aqueous humor __X__ Vitreous humor _____ Ciliary body

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: I.02.02 Trace the path of light as it passes through the eye to the retina and the path of nerve impulses from the retina to various parts of the brain. Learning Outcome: 09.07 Section: 09.03 Topic: Gross anatomy of the eye

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

Multiple Choice Questions 48. Changing the shape of the lens for near and far vision is called A. refraction. B. accommodation. C. convergence. D. transmutation.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.02.05 Explain how the optical system of the eye creates an image on the retina Learning Outcome: 09.07 Section: 09.03 Topic: Physiology of vision

49. The anterior compartment of the eye is filled with a fluid called the A. aqueous humor. B. lacrimal secretions. C. vitreous humor. D. fovea centralis.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.01.01 Identify the accessory eye structures, the tunics, the optical components and the neural components of the eye. HAPS Objective: I.02.02 Trace the path of light as it passes through the eye to the retina and the path of nerve impulses from the retina to various parts of the brain. Learning Outcome: 09.07 Section: 09.03 Topic: Gross anatomy of the eye

50. What is the area that contains only cones for the most acute vision? A. Vitreous body B. Bipolar cell layer C. Fovea centralis D. Blind spot

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.02.03 Describe the structure of the retina and the cells that compose it. Learning Outcome: 09.07 Section: 09.03 Topic: Gross anatomy of the eye

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

51. The place where the optic nerve exits the eye is the A. lens. B. blind spot. C. ciliary body. D. fovea.

52. The muscle that controls the amount of light that enters the eye through the pupil is the A. choroids. B. suspensory ligament. C. ciliary muscle. D. iris.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: I.01.01 Identify the accessory eye structures, the tunics, the optical components and the neural components of the eye. Learning Outcome: 09.07 Section: 09.03 Topic: Physiology of vision

53. The posterior compartment of the eye is filled with a clear gel called the A. aqueous humor. B. lacrimal secretions. C. vitreous humor. D. fovea centralis.

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

54. The cones are most densely packed in the A. blind spot. B. vitreous humor. C. fovea centralis. D. choroids.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.02.03 Describe the structure of the retina and the cells that compose it. Learning Outcome: 09.08 Section: 09.03 Topic: Gross anatomy of the eye

55. The lens of the eye rounds up or bulges A. for distant vision. B. for close vision. C. when a person is frightened. D. when sleeping.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.02.05 Explain how the optical system of the eye creates an image on the retina Learning Outcome: 09.07 Section: 09.03 Topic: Physiology of vision

56. Which is (are) involved in refraction? A. lens B. iris C. choriod D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.02.05 Explain how the optical system of the eye creates an image on the retina Learning Outcome: 09.07 Section: 09.03 Topic: Physiology of vision

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

57. Which of the following is NOT involved in refraction? A. Cornea B. Aqueous humor C. Lens D. Pupil

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.02.05 Explain how the optical system of the eye creates an image on the retina Learning Outcome: 09.07 Section: 09.03 Topic: Physiology of vision

58. Changing the shape of the lens to correctly focus light on the retina is called A. refraction. B. accommodation. C. astigmatism. D. presbyopia.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.02.05 Explain how the optical system of the eye creates an image on the retina Learning Outcome: 09.07 Section: 09.03 Topic: Physiology of vision

59. Which of the following is (are) true of the rods? A. See color B. Function in dim light C. Located in the fovea centralis D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.02.06 Compare and contrast the function of rods and cones in vision. Learning Outcome: 09.08 Section: 09.03 Topic: Physiology of vision

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

60. The photopigment rhodopsin is found in A. rods. B. cones.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.02.03 Describe the structure of the retina and the cells that compose it. Learning Outcome: 09.08 Section: 09.03 Topic: Gross anatomy of the eye Topic: Physiology of vision

61. Which of the following is NOT a color pigment found in cones? A. Red B. Green C. Yellow D. Blue

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.02.04 Explain how light activates photoreceptors. Learning Outcome: 09.08 Section: 09.04 Topic: Physiology of vision

62. Which of the following is the correct pathway from the retina to the visual cortex? A. Optic nerve, optic radiations, optic chiasma, ganglion cells, thalamus, optic tract, occipital lobe B. Optic tract, ganglion cells, optic radiations, thalamus, optic chiasma, optic nerve, temporal lobe C. Ganglion cells, optic nerve, optic chiasma, optic tract, thalamus, optic radiations, occipital lobe D. Optic nerve, optic tract, optic chiasma, optic radiations, thalamus, ganglion cells, parietal lobe

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.02.02 Trace the path of light as it passes through the eye to the retina and the path of nerve impulses from the retina to various parts of the brain. Learning Outcome: 09.08 Section: 09.03 Topic: Physiology of vision

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

63. Where does the visual pathway cross so that each optic tract carries impulses from the opposite visual field? A. Thalamus B. Optic radiations C. Optic chiasma D. Optic nerve

True / False Questions 64. Rods and cones are evenly distributed throughout the entire retina. FALSE Rods and cones are not evenly distributed in the retina.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.02.03 Describe the structure of the retina and the cells that compose it. Learning Outcome: 09.08 Section: 09.03 Topic: Physiology of vision

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

Multiple Choice Questions 65. The _______ lead from the eyes to the optic chiasma. A. optic radiations B. optic nerves C. optic tracts

66. The _______ leads from the optic chiasma to the thalamus. A. optic radiation B. optic nerve C. optic tract

67. The _______ leads from the thalamus to the occipital lobe. A. optic radiation B. optic nerve C. optic tract

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

True / False Questions 68. The image, ╓ is projected onto the retina as ╜. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 3. Apply HAPS Objective: I.02.05 Explain how the optical system of the eye creates an image on the retina Learning Outcome: 09.08 Section: 09.03 Topic: Physiology of vision

Multiple Choice Questions 69. The clouding of the lens is called A. a cataract. B. macular degeneration. C. detached retina. D. glaucoma.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the special sense organs that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 09.09 Section: 09.03 Topic: Clinical applications of the special senses

70. Blindness caused by abnormal blood vessel growth in the retina is A. cataracts. B. macular degeneration. C. glaucoma. D. conjunctivitis.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the special sense organs that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 09.09 Section: 09.03

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

71. People who can see close objects better than those far away have A. hyperopia. B. myopia. C. presbyopia. D. astigmatism.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.02.08 Relate changes in the anatomy of the eye to changes in vision. Learning Outcome: 09.09 Section: 09.03 Topic: Clinical applications of the special senses

72. Nearsightedness is due to a(n) A. shortened eyeball. B. elongated eyeball. C. damaged lens. D. damaged cornea.

73. The buildup of pressure due to an increased amount of aqueous humor is known as A. cataracts. B. glaucoma. C. a sty. D. astigmatism.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the special sense organs could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 09.09 Section: 09.03 Topic: Clinical applications of the special senses

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

74. The corrective lens for those with myopia is _________, which will diverge the light rays so that they focus on the retina. A. concave B. convex

75. People who can see far objects better than those that are close have A. hyperopia. B. myopia. C. presbyopia. D. astigmatism.

76. Farsightedness is due to a(n) A. shortened eyeball. B. elongated eyeball. C. damaged lens. D. damaged cornea.

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

77. The corrective lens for those with hyperopia is _______, which will bend the light rays more so that they focus on the retina. A. concave B. convex

78. Astigmatism is due to a(n) A. shortened eyeball. B. elongated eyeball. C. misshapened cornea or lens. D. increased pressure inside the eye.

79. The external auditory canal is part of the A. middle ear. B. outer ear. C. inner ear.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.05.01 Identify the hearing structures of the outer, middle and inner ear. Learning Outcome: 09.10 Section: 09.04 Topic: Gross anatomy of the ear

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

80. The cochlea is part of the A. middle ear. B. outer ear. C. inner ear.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.05.01 Identify the hearing structures of the outer, middle and inner ear. Learning Outcome: 09.10 Section: 09.04 Topic: Gross anatomy of the ear

81. The ossicles are part of the A. middle ear. B. outer ear. C. inner ear.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.05.01 Identify the hearing structures of the outer, middle and inner ear. Learning Outcome: 09.10 Section: 09.04 Topic: Gross anatomy of the ear

82. Which of the following is NOT an ossicle? A. Stapes B. Malleus C. Cochlea D. Incus

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.05.01 Identify the hearing structures of the outer, middle and inner ear. Learning Outcome: 09.10 Section: 09.04 Topic: Gross anatomy of the ear

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

83. Which of the following is connected to the nasopharynx by the auditory (eustachian) tube? A. Inner ear B. Cochlea C. Middle ear D. Outer ear

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.07.02 Describe the role of the auditory tube in drainage and equalization of pressure in the middle ear. Learning Outcome: 09.10 Section: 09.04 Topic: Gross anatomy of the ear

84. What structure does the stapes attach to? A. Tympanic membrane B. Oval window C. Malleus D. Round window

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.05.01 Identify the hearing structures of the outer, middle and inner ear. Learning Outcome: 09.10 Section: 09.04 Topic: Gross anatomy of the ear

85. What is the function of the auditory (eustachian) tube? A. Equalizes air pressure in the middle ear B. Allows fluid to drain out of the inner ear C. Keeps infection out of the middle ear D. Allows us to hear ourselves speak

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

86. What structure separates the outer ear from the middle ear? A. Auditory tube B. Round window C. Oval window D. Tympanic membrane

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.05.01 Identify the hearing structures of the outer, middle and inner ear. Learning Outcome: 09.10 Section: 09.04 Topic: Gross anatomy of the ear

87. Which of the following structures is NOT involved in hearing? A. Ossicles B. Cochlea C. Semicircular canals D. Pinna

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.06.01 Describe how the various structures of the outer, middle and inner ear function in hearing. Learning Outcome: 09.10 Section: 09.04 Topic: Physiology of hearing

88. The receptors for hearing and balance are in the A. outer ear. B. middle ear. C. inner ear.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.05.01 Identify the hearing structures of the outer, middle and inner ear. Learning Outcome: 09.10 Section: 09.04 Topic: Gross anatomy of the ear

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

89. Which of the following structures have hair cells as receptors? A. Cochlea B. Semicircular canals C. Vestibule D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: H.06.02c mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors) describe each type of receptor below, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body. HAPS Objective: I.06.01 Describe how the various structures of the outer, middle and inner ear function in hearing. Learning Outcome: 09.10 Section: 09.04 Topic: Gross anatomy of the ear

90. The sense organ for hearing is the A. crista ampullaris. B. macula. C. spiral organ. D. saccule.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.06.02 Describe the sound conduction pathway from the auricle to the fluids of the inner ear and the path of nerve impulses from the spiral organ to various parts of the brain. Learning Outcome: 09.10 Section: 09.04 Topic: Gross anatomy of the ear

91. Which is the correct order, from inner to outer, of the auditory ossicles? A. Malleus, incus, stapes B. Incus, malleus, stapes C. Stapes, incus, malleus D. Incus, stapes, malleus

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.05.01 Identify the hearing structures of the outer, middle and inner ear. Learning Outcome: 09.10 Section: 09.04 Topic: Gross anatomy of the ear

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

92. Which is found inside the membranous labyrinth? A. Air B. Perilymph C. Blood D. Endolymph

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.05.01 Identify the hearing structures of the outer, middle and inner ear. Learning Outcome: 09.10 Section: 09.04 Topic: Gross anatomy of the ear

93. The auditory cortex is located in the A. temporal lobe. B. parietal lobe. C. insula. D. occipital lobe.

94. Where is the spiral organ located? A. Cochlear duct B. Vestibular duct C. Tympanic duct D. Semicircular duct

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.05.01 Identify the hearing structures of the outer, middle and inner ear. Learning Outcome: 09.11 Section: 09.04 Topic: Gross anatomy of the ear

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

95. The hair cells of the organ of Corti have stereocilia embedded in the A. basilar membrane. B. tympanic membrane. C. oval window. D. tectorial membrane.

96. What substance is found in the cochlear duct? A. Endolymph B. Air C. Perilymph D. Mucus

True / False Questions 97. The pitch of a sound depends on which part of the basilar membrane vibrates. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.06.03 Explain how the structures of the ear enable differentiation of pitch and loudness of sounds. Learning Outcome: 09.11 Section: 09.04 Topic: Physiology of hearing

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

Multiple Choice Questions 98. Which part of the spiral organ responds to low-pitched sounds? A. The tip B. The middle C. The base D. Along the entire length

True / False Questions 99. The base of the spiral organ responds to low frequencies of sound. FALSE The base of the spiral organ responds to high frequencies of sound.

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

Multiple Choice Questions 100. Which of the following functions in gravitational equilibrium? A. Saccule B. Utricle C. Semicircular canals D. Both saccule and utricle are correct.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.08.02 Describe the structure of the maculae and their function in static equilibrium. Learning Outcome: 09.12 Section: 09.05 Topic: Physiology of equilibrium

101. Which of the following functions in rotational equilibrium? A. Saccule B. Utricle C. Semicircular canals D. Both saccule and utricle are correct.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.08.03 Describe the structure of the crista ampullaris and its function in dynamic equilibrium. Learning Outcome: 09.12 Section: 09.05 Topic: Physiology of equilibrium

102. Which of the following is NOT a component of the semicircular canals? A. Ampulla B. Cupula C. Otoliths D. Endolymph

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

103. Which of the following is NOT involved in the sense of equilibrium? A. Vision B. Hearing C. Proprioceptors in joints and muscles D. Cerebellum

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.08.02 Describe the structure of the maculae and their function in static equilibrium. HAPS Objective: I.08.03 Describe the structure of the crista ampullaris and its function in dynamic equilibrium. Learning Outcome: 09.12 Section: 09.05 Topic: Physiology of equilibrium

104. What structures in the utricle and saccule interact with the stereocilia to produce action potentials? A. Ampullae B. Cupulae C. Otoliths D. Cochlea

105. Which ear component tells your brain that you are standing on your head? A. Semicircular canals B. Utricle C. Spiral organ D. Saccule

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: I.08.02 Describe the structure of the maculae and their function in static equilibrium. Learning Outcome: 09.12 Section: 09.05 Topic: Physiology of equilibrium

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

106. Which ear component tells your brain that you are doing a sit-spin on the ice? A. Semicircular canals B. Utricle and saccule C. Spiral organ D. Ossicles

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: I.08.03 Describe the structure of the crista ampullaris and its function in dynamic equilibrium. Learning Outcome: 09.12 Section: 09.05 Topic: Physiology of equilibrium

107. Which ear component tells your brain that you slid forward on ice and ran into a wall? A. Semicircular canals B. Utricle C. Spiral organ D. Saccule

True / False Questions 108. Movement of fluid in the semicircular canals will cause the cupula to displace and bend the stereocilia to create an action potential. TRUE

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

Multiple Choice Questions 109. The clouding of the lens is an aging condition of the eyes called A. glaucoma. B. presbyopia. C. macular degeneration. D. cataracts.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the special sense organs could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 09.13 Section: 09.06 Topic: Clinical applications of the special senses

110. Destruction of the macula lutea that contains the fovea centralis results in A. glaucoma. B. presbyopia. C. macular degeneration. D. cataracts.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the special sense organs could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 09.13 Section: 09.06 Topic: Clinical applications of the special senses

111. Age-related decline in hearing is called A. presbycusis. B. otosclerosis. C. conduction deafness. D. sensorineural deafness.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the special sense organs could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 09.13 Section: 09.06 Topic: Clinical applications of the special senses

Chapter 09 - The Sensory System

112. Conduction deafness may be due to damage to the A. organ of Corti. B. incus, malleus, and stapes. C. cochlear nerve. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: I.10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the special sense organs could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 09.13 Section: 09.06 Topic: Clinical applications of the special senses

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

Chapter 10 The Endocrine System

Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which type of gland secretes directly into tissue fluids and the blood without ducts? A. Endocrine B. Exocrine

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.01.02 Define the terms hormone, endocrine gland, endocrine tissue (organ), and target cell. Learning Outcome: 10.01 Section: 10.01 Topic: General functions of the endocrine system

2. Chemical signals that affect the behavior of other glands or tissues are called A. serous secretions. B. mucus. C. hormones. D. synovial fluid.

3. Which of the following is NOT a peptide hormone group? A. Modified amino acids B. Lipids C. Proteins D. Glycoproteins

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.02.01 List the major chemical classes of hormones found in the human body. Learning Outcome: 10.01 Section: 10.01 Topic: General functions of the endocrine system

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

4. Which of the following is NOT true of a peptide hormone? A. It diffuses into the cell to cause cellular changes. B. It binds to a receptor on the plasma membrane. C. It activates a second messenger inside the cell that causes cellular changes. D. Cyclic AMP is a common second messenger.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule. Learning Outcome: 10.02 Section: 10.01 Topic: General functions of the endocrine system

5. Which of the following is NOT true of a steroid hormone? A. It diffuses into the cell and binds to its receptor protein. B. The hormone-receptor complex binds to DNA. C. It activates a second messenger to cause cellular changes. D. Intracellular enzymes, made from the DNA, direct cellular changes.

6. Which endocrine gland is NOT found in the cranial cavity? A. Thymus gland B. Pineal gland C. Pituitary gland D. Hypothalamus

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.04.01 Describe the locations of and the anatomical relationships between the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary and posterior pituitary glands. Learning Outcome: 10.03 Section: 10.01 Topic: Anatomy of endocrine glands

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

7. Which endocrine gland is found in the thoracic cavity, superior to the heart? A. Thyroid gland B. Adrenal gland C. Thymus gland D. Pancreatic islets

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.09 Some may be covered in other modules: Thymus: thymosin. Learning Outcome: 10.03 Section: 10.01 Topic: Anatomy of endocrine glands

8. Which endocrine glands are located in the abdominal cavity? A. Pancreas and thyroid gland B. Pineal gland and parathyroid glands C. Adrenal glands and ovaries D. Pancreas and adrenal glands

9. The production and release of hormones is controlled by A. other hormones. B. the nervous system. C. other chemical substances. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.03.01 List and describe several types of stimuli that control production and secretion of hormones. Learning Outcome: 10.04 Section: 10.01 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

10. When ions or molecules in the blood stimulate the release of a hormone, it is called _______ control. A. hormonal B. nervous C. humoral D. molecular

11. A decrease in blood Na+ levels stimulates the release of the hormone aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. This is an example of _______ control. A. nervous B. hormonal C. tropic D. humoral

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: J.05.04a For adrenal gland hormones, describe the stimulus for release of the hormone. Learning Outcome: 10.04 Section: 10.01 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion

12. Most hormone action is regulated by A. negative feedback mechanisms. B. positive feedback mechanisms. C. the central nervous system. D. digestive mechanisms.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.03.02 Describe the roles of negative and positive feedback in controlling hormone release. Learning Outcome: 10.04 Section: 10.01 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

13. With what portion of the brain is the pituitary associated? A. Cerebrum B. Cerebellum C. Thalamus D. Hypothalamus

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.04.01 Describe the locations of and the anatomical relationships between the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary and posterior pituitary glands. Learning Outcome: 10.05 Section: 10.02 Topic: Anatomy of endocrine glands

14. Another name for the posterior pituitary gland is the A. adenohypophysis. B. hypothalamus. C. neurohypophysis. D. midbrain.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.04.01 Describe the locations of and the anatomical relationships between the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary and posterior pituitary glands. Learning Outcome: 10.05 Section: 10.02 Topic: Anatomy of endocrine glands

15. The adenohypophysis is another name for the A. anterior pituitary gland. B. hypothalamus. C. posterior pituitary gland. D. None apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.04.01 Describe the locations of and the anatomical relationships between the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary and posterior pituitary glands. Learning Outcome: 10.05 Section: 10.02 Topic: Anatomy of endocrine glands

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

True / False Questions 16. Another name for the anterior pituitary gland is the adenohypophysis. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.04.01 Describe the locations of and the anatomical relationships between the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary and posterior pituitary glands. Learning Outcome: 10.05 Section: 10.02 Topic: Anatomy of endocrine glands

Multiple Choice Questions 17. The hypothalamus controls the anterior pituitary by producing A. nerve impulses. B. releasing hormones. C. inhibiting hormones. D. Both releasing hormones and inhibiting hormones are correct.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.04.02 Define the terms releasing hormone, inhibiting hormone and tropic hormone. HAPS Objective: J.04.03 Explain the role of the hypothalamus in the release of anterior pituitary hormones. Learning Outcome: 10.05 Section: 10.02 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions

18. The hypothalamus communicates with the anterior pituitary gland by means of a A. portal system of blood capillaries and veins. B. group of secretory neurons. C. connection with the posterior pituitary gland. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.04.01 Describe the locations of and the anatomical relationships between the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary and posterior pituitary glands. Learning Outcome: 10.05 Section: 10.02 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

19. What type of cells produce oxytocin and ADH? A. Glandular cells B. Neurons C. Neurosecretory cells D. Neurohypophysis cells

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.04.04 Explain the role of the hypothalamus in the production and release of posterior pituitary hormones. HAPS Objective: J.05.01b For pituitary hormones, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce the hormone. Learning Outcome: 10.06 Section: 10.02 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions

20. Which of the following is NOT true about the hormone ADH (antidiuretic hormone)? A. ADH is produced by the hypothalamus. B. ADH causes water to be reabsorbed into kidney capillaries. C. ADH is released from the anterior pituitary gland. D. ADH causes vasoconstriction to increase blood pressure.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.01b For pituitary hormones, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce the hormone. HAPS Objective: J.05.01c For pituitary hormones, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells. Learning Outcome: 10.06 Section: 10.02 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions

21. A deficiency of ADH will result in A. diabetes insipidus. B. diabetes mellitus. C. large urine volume and increased thirst. D. Both diabetes insipidus and large urine volume and increased thirst are correct.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.01d For pituitary hormones, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body. Learning Outcome: 10.06 Section: 10.02 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

22. Which of the following is NOT true concerning oxytocin? A. Oxytocin increases uterine contractions during childbirth. B. Oxytocin produces milk let-down during nursing. C. Oxytocin is a steroid hormone. D. Oxytocin is controlled by positive feedback.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.03.02 Describe the roles of negative and positive feedback in controlling hormone release. HAPS Objective: J.05.01a For pituitary hormones, describe the stimulus for release of the hormone. HAPS Objective: J.05.01c For pituitary hormones, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells. Learning Outcome: 10.06 Section: 10.02 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions

23. The pituitary hormone ACTH will stimulate the ____ to produce its hormones. A. thyroid gland B. adrenal cortex C. adrenal medulla D. gonads

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.01c For pituitary hormones, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells. Learning Outcome: 10.07 Section: 10.02 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions

24. Which of the following are gonadotropic hormones? A. ACTH and FSH B. FSH and LH C. LH and TSH D. ACTH and TSH

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

25. What hormone causes breast development and production of milk? A. Oxytocin B. Gonadotropins C. Prolactin D. ADH

26. Which of the following is NOT true of growth hormone (GH)? A. GH stimulates protein synthesis in bone, cartilage, and muscle. B. GH increases the rate of amino acid uptake by cells. C. GH is also known as vasopressin. D. GH promotes fat metabolism as opposed to glucose metabolism.

27. An increase in growth hormone during growing years will cause A. gigantism. B. pituitary dwarfism. C. acromegaly. D. diabetes insipidus.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.01d For pituitary hormones, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body. Learning Outcome: 10.07 Section: 10.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the endocrine system

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

28. An increase in growth hormone after growing years will cause A. gigantism. B. pituitary dwarfism. C. acromegaly. D. diabetes insipidus.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.01d For pituitary hormones, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body. Learning Outcome: 10.07 Section: 10.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the endocrine system

29. Which endocrine gland produces the most hormones? A. Posterior pituitary B. Anterior pituitary C. Thyroid gland D. Adrenal gland

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.01 Pituitary: growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin) Learning Outcome: 10.07 Section: 10.02 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions

30. What is the target organ of thyroxine? A. Pancreas B. Ovaries C. Adrenal glands D. No specific organs; most body cells

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.02c For thyroid hormones, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells. Learning Outcome: 10.08 Section: 10.03 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

31. What is the function of thyroxine? A. It increases the metabolic rate. B. It stimulates the kidney to reabsorb water. C. It raises blood sugar. D. It stimulates protein synthesis.

32. Simple goiter A. is due to lack of iodine. B. is due to high levels of thyroxine in the blood. C. is an enlargement of the thymus gland. D. is described by all of these characteristics.

33. Which hormone is needed for thyroxine production? A. ACTH B. GH C. ADH D. TSH

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.01c For pituitary hormones, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells. HAPS Objective: J.05.02a For thyroid hormones, describe the stimulus for release of the hormone. Learning Outcome: 10.08 Section: 10.03 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

34. What element is needed for thyroxine production? A. Calcium B. Iodine C. Sodium D. Potassium

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.02b For thyroid hormones, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce the hormone. Learning Outcome: 10.08 Section: 10.03 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

35. Hypothyroidism in adults caused by decreased production of thyroxine is known as A. simple goiter. B. Graves disease. C. myxedema. D. exophthalmic goiter.

36. Myxedema is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT A. lethargy and lower pulse. B. hyperactivity and insomnia. C. weight gain. D. lowered body temperature.

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

37. Hyperthyroidism in adults caused by oversecretion of thyroxine is known as A. simple goiter. B. Graves disease. C. myxedema. D. acromegaly.

38. Exophthalmic goiter is a characteristic of A. congenital hypothyroidism. B. myxedema. C. Graves disease. D. acromegaly.

39. Calcitonin A. is produced by the thyroid gland. B. is produced by the parathyroid gland. C. lowers the metabolic rate. D. is produced by the parathyroid gland and lowers the metabolic rate.

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

40. Calcitonin A. raises blood calcium. B. lowers blood calcium. C. deposits excess calcium into bones. D. Both lowers blood calcium and deposits excess calcium into bones are correct.

41. Which of the following is NOT an effect of parathyroid hormone? A. Release of calcium from bones B. Increased reabsorption of calcium by the kidneys C. Increased blood phosphate levels D. Activation of vitamin D for increased intestinal absorption of calcium

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.03c For parathyroid hormone, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells. Learning Outcome: 10.09 Section: 10.03 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

42. Parathyroid hormone is antagonistic to A. thyroxine. B. calcitonin. C. thyroid-stimulating hormone. D. aldosterone.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: J.05.03c For parathyroid hormone, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells. Learning Outcome: 10.09 Section: 10.03 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

43. Which of the following is NOT a target organ of parathyroid hormone? A. Muscle B. Bone C. Intestines D. Kidneys

True / False Questions 44. PTH acts to raise blood calcium levels. TRUE

Multiple Choice Questions 45. How does PTH stimulate absorption of calcium from the intestines? A. Increases peristalsis B. Activates calcitrol C. Activates osteoclasts D. Stimulates intestinal enzymes

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

46. Hypocalcemia can result in A. muscle weakness. B. renal failure. C. depressed nervous system. D. tetany.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.03d For parathyroid hormone, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body. Learning Outcome: 10.09 Section: 10.03 Topic: Clinical applications of the endocrine system

True / False Questions 47. Excessive PTH secretion can lead to hypocalcemia. FALSE Deficient PTH can lead to hypocalcemia.

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

Multiple Choice Questions 48. Which of the following are portions of the adrenal glands? A. Anterior and posterior B. Lateral and medial C. Cortex and medulla D. Dorsal and ventral

49. ACTH A. is produced by the anterior pituitary gland. B. stimulates the adrenal cortex. C. stimulates the adrenal medulla. D. Both is produced by the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates the adrenal cortex are correct.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.01c For pituitary hormones, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells. HAPS Objective: J.05.04a For adrenal gland hormones, describe the stimulus for release of the hormone. Learning Outcome: 10.10 Section: 10.04 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions

50. Epinephrine is produced by the A. adrenal medulla. B. adrenal cortex. C. thyroid gland. D. thymus.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.04b For adrenal gland hormones, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce the hormone. Learning Outcome: 10.11 Section: 10.04 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

51. Which portion of the adrenal gland may be associated with the sympathetic nervous system? A. Medulla B. Cortex C. Medulla and cortex

52. Which of the following functions to regulate a short-term response to stress? A. Epinephrine B. Glucocorticoids C. Mineralocorticoids D. All apply.

True / False Questions 53. The adrenal medulla is under parasympathetic nervous system control. FALSE The adrenal medulla is under sympathetic nervous system control.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.04a For adrenal gland hormones, describe the stimulus for release of the hormone. Learning Outcome: 10.11 Section: 10.04 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

Multiple Choice Questions 54. Which of the following is NOT true of glucocorticoids? A. Promotes the metabolism of fatty acids instead of carbohydrates B. Promotes kidney absorption of sodium C. Promotes the breakdown of muscle proteins to amino acids D. Can lead to an increase in blood glucose levels

55. Cortisol A. reduces inflammation, pain, and swelling. B. may be used to treat arthritis. C. may suppress the immune system. D. All apply.

56. The most important mineralocorticoid is A. cortisol. B. epinephrine. C. aldosterone. D. norepinephrine.

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

57. The action(s) of aldosterone is (are) to A. promote renal reabsorption of water. B. promote renal excretion of potassium. C. promote renal reabsorption of sodium. D. All apply.

58. The main stimulus for the release of aldosterone comes from the A. adrenal medulla. B. anterior pituitary. C. kidneys. D. lungs.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.04a For adrenal gland hormones, describe the stimulus for release of the hormone. Learning Outcome: 10.12 Section: 10.04 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

59. What chemical is secreted by the kidneys when blood sodium is low and (or) blood pressure is low? A. Renin B. Angiotensin C. ACTH D. Aldosterone

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.04 Adrenal gland: glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine, norepinephrine. HAPS Objective: J.05.08c For kidney hormones, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells. Learning Outcome: 10.12 Section: 10.04 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

60. Which of the following is NOT a result of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system? A. Blood pressure increases due to constriction of arterioles. B. Blood pressure increases due to reabsorption of sodium and therefore water into the blood. C. Blood pressure decreases due to dilation of arterioles. D. Blood volume increases due to the effect of ADH.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.04c For adrenal gland hormones, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells. HAPS Objective: J.05.08c For kidney hormones, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells. Learning Outcome: 10.12 Section: 10.04 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

61. What hormone is antagonistic to the actions of aldosterone? A. Cortisol B. Atrial natriuretic hormone C. ACTH D. Epinephrine

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: J.05.04c For adrenal gland hormones, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells. HAPS Objective: J.05.10c For the heart, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells. Learning Outcome: 10.12 Learning Outcome: 10.18 Section: 10.04 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

62. Atrial natriuretic hormone A. is produced by the adrenal glands. B. is secreted when blood volume is too high. C. stimulates aldosterone secretion. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.10a For the heart, describe the stimulus for release of the hormone. HAPS Objective: J.05.10b For the heart, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce the hormone. HAPS Objective: J.05.10c For the heart, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells. Learning Outcome: 10.18 Section: 10.06 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

63. What stimulus will cause the secretion of ANH (atrial natriuretic hormone)? A. Increased blood volume in the atria of the heart B. Increased blood volume in the kidneys C. Decreased blood sodium levels D. None apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.10a For the heart, describe the stimulus for release of the hormone. Learning Outcome: 10.18 Section: 10.06 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

64. Aldosterone will cause _______ of sodium, while ANH will cause ____ of sodium. A. excretion; reabsorption B. reabsorption; excretion

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: J.05.04c For adrenal gland hormones, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells. HAPS Objective: J.05.10c For the heart, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells. Learning Outcome: 10.12 Section: 10.04 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

65. What condition occurs due to hyposecretion of adrenal cortex hormones? A. Cushing syndrome B. Diabetes insipidus C. Addison disease D. Hashimoto's disease

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.04d For adrenal gland hormones, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body. Learning Outcome: 10.12 Section: 10.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the endocrine system

66. What condition occurs due to hypersecretion of adrenal cortex hormones? A. Cushing syndrome B. Diabetes insipidus C. Addison disease D. Hashimoto's disease

67. Which of the following is NOT a result of Cushing syndrome? A. Bronzing of the skin B. Fat deposited in the trunk C. Moon-shaped face D. Hypertension

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

68. Which of the following is NOT a consequence of Addisons disease? A. Retention of sodium and water leading to high blood pressure B. Excessive, but ineffective ACTH C. Bronzing of the skin D. Loss of sodium and water leading to low blood pressure

69. Which of the following is NOT a short-term stress response? A. Heartbeat and blood pressure increase B. Blood glucose levels increase C. Muscles are energized D. Reduction of inflammation

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.07.02 List the hormones released during short-term stress and describe the hormonal action. Learning Outcome: 10.12 Section: 10.04 Topic: Hormonal response to stress

70. Which of the following is NOT true about the pancreas? A. Exocrine tissue produces digestive enzymes. B. Endocrine tissue produces hormones. C. Exocrine tissue is called the pancreatic islets. D. The hormones released maintain glucose homeostasis.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.07b For pancreatic hormones, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce the hormone. Learning Outcome: 10.13 Section: 10.05 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

71. The pancreatic islets produce A. produce insulin. B. produce glucagon. C. produce digestive enzymes. D. produce both insulin and glucagon.

72. Which promotes the storage of glucose as glycogen? A. Glucagon B. Insulin C. Glucagon and insulin

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.07c For pancreatic hormones, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells. Learning Outcome: 10.14 Section: 10.05 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

73. Insulin results in A. most cells taking up glucose. B. fat cells breaking down fat. C. converting glycogen to glucose. D. increasing glucose levels of the blood.

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

74. What is the stimulus for the release of insulin? A. Decreasing blood glucose levels B. Decreasing blood sodium levels C. Increasing blood glucose levels D. Increasing blood calcium levels

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.07a For pancreatic hormones, describe the stimulus for release of the hormone. Learning Outcome: 10.14 Section: 10.05 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion

75. What are the target tissues for glucagon? A. Pancreas and liver B. Skeletal muscle and liver C. Liver and kidneys D. Adipose tissue and liver

76. What is the stimulus for the release of glucagon? A. Decreasing blood glucose levels B. Decreasing blood sodium levels C. Increasing blood glucose levels D. Increasing blood calcium levels

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

77. Which of these best describes a negative feedback control mechanism? A. High blood glucose causes pancreatic secretion of insulin. B. Insulin causes the liver to store glucose as glycogen. C. Low blood glucose inhibits pancreatic secretion of insulin. D. When the pancreas is not secreting insulin, it is secreting glucagon.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: J.03.02 Describe the roles of negative and positive feedback in controlling hormone release. HAPS Objective: J.05.07c For pancreatic hormones, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells. Learning Outcome: 10.14 Section: 10.05 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

78. Type I diabetes mellitus A. is due to lack of glucagon. B. results in sugar in the urine. C. is more common than type II diabetes. D. All apply.

79. Which of the following symptoms of diabetes mellitus is NOT correctly matched with its term? A. Polydipsia - extreme hunger B. Polyuria - excessive urination C. Ketonuria - ketones in the urine D. Glycosuria - glucose in the urine

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

80. Which of the following is NOT a long-term complication of diabetes mellitus? A. Blindness B. Kidney and heart disease C. Atherosclerosis D. Loss of hearing

81. Which of the following is NOT a way to prevent or control type II diabetes mellitus? A. High fat diet B. Regular exercise C. Low sugar diet D. Maintain a healthy weight

82. Which of the following is a new option for treatment of type I diabetes mellitus? A. Pancreatic islet transplantation B. Skin patches C. Gel-coated pills D. All apply.

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

True / False Questions 83. Non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) tends to occur in active juveniles. FALSE NIDDM tends to occur in people of any age that are obese.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: J.05.07d For pancreatic hormones, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body. Learning Outcome: 10.15 Section: 10.05 Topic: Clinical applications of the endocrine system

Multiple Choice Questions 84. The male hormone secreted by the testes is A. estrogen. B. progesterone. C. testosterone. D. gonadotropins.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.05 Testis: testosterone, inhibin Learning Outcome: 10.16 Section: 10.06 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

85. Which of the following is NOT true of androgens? A. Causes growth of body and pubic hair B. Stimulates oil and sweat glands C. Small amounts are produced by the adrenal medulla D. Enlarges the vocal cords to lower the voice

86. Which of the following is NOT a result of the secretion of estrogens and progesterone? A. Growth of the uterus and breasts B. Growth of the vocal cords C. Widening of the hips D. Uterine cycle

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.06c For ovarian hormones, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells. Learning Outcome: 10.16 Section: 10.06 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

True / False Questions 87. A lack of testosterone causes baldness. FALSE The presence of testosterone with the gene causes baldness.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.05d For testes hormones, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body. Learning Outcome: 10.16 Section: 10.06 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

88. Higher levels of estrogen in women causes a greater accumulation of subcutaneous fat than in men. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.05c For testes hormones, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells. HAPS Objective: J.05.06c For ovarian hormones, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells. Learning Outcome: 10.16 Section: 10.06 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

Multiple Choice Questions 89. Lymphocyte differentiation occurs in the A. adipose tissue. B. pineal gland. C. thymus gland. D. thyroid.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.09c For thymus hormone, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells. Learning Outcome: 10.17 Section: 10.06 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

90. Melatonin is associated with the A. adipose tissue. B. pineal gland. C. thymus gland. D. hypothalamus.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.17 Section: 10.06 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

91. Melatonin is released in response to A. increased sunlight. B. staying awake later into the night. C. decreased sunlight. D. going to bed earlier.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body. Learning Outcome: 10.17 Section: 10.06 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

True / False Questions 92. The hormones secreted by the thymus are called thymosins. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.09 Some may be covered in other modules: Thymus: thymosin. Learning Outcome: 10.17 Section: 10.06 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

Multiple Choice Questions 93. The _______ produces erythropoietin that stimulates the red bone marrow to produce more red blood cells. A. liver B. adrenal gland C. kidney D. pancreas

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.08c For kidney hormones, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells. Section: 10.06 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

94. Leptin is associated with A. adipose tissue. B. the pineal gland. C. the thymus gland. D. the liver.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.12 Some may be covered in other modules: Adipose tissue: leptin, resistin. Learning Outcome: 10.18 Section: 10.06 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

95. The hormone that creates a sense of hunger is A. gastrin. B. ghrelin. C. leptin. D. melatonin.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.11c For the GI tract, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells. Learning Outcome: 10.18 Section: 10.06 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

96. Which growth factor stimulates the formation of capillary networks? A. Epidermal growth factor B. Granulocyte and macrophage colony-stimulating factor C. Platelet-derived growth factor D. Tumor angiogenesis factor

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.06.03 Discuss the production and function of growth factors. Learning Outcome: 10.18 Section: 10.06 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

97. Which of the following growth factors is NOT important in wound healing? A. Tumor angiogenesis factor B. Epidermal growth factor C. Nerve growth factor D. Platelet-derived growth factor

98. A group of chemicals that have local effects instead of being released into the blood are known as A. epidermal growth factors. B. prostaglandins. C. pyrogens. D. steroid hormones.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.18 Section: 10.06 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

99. What type of chemical signals occur between individuals? A. Prostaglandins B. Growth factors C. Pheromones D. Pyrogens

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 10.19 Section: 10.07 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

True / False Questions 100. An autoimmune disease of the thyroid is myxedema. FALSE An autoimmune disease of the thyroid is Graves disease.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.02d For thyroid hormones, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body. HAPS Objective: J.09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 10.20 Section: 10.08 Topic: Clinical applications of the endocrine system

101. Declining immune response in the elderly may be a result of thymus gland shrinkage. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.09d For thymus hormone, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body. HAPS Objective: J.09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 10.20 Section: 10.08 Topic: Effects of aging on the endocrine system

102. The incidence of diabetes insipidus increases as we age. FALSE The incidence of diabetes mellitus increases as we age.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.07d For pancreatic hormones, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body. HAPS Objective: J.09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 10.20 Section: 10.08 Topic: Clinical applications of the endocrine system

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

Multiple Choice Questions 103. Which of the following is NOT an example of antagonistic hormones? A. Aldosterone, atrial natriuretic hormone B. Calcitonin, parathyroid hormone C. Androgens, estrogens D. Insulin, glucagon

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body. Learning Outcome: 10.21 Section: 10.09 Topic: General functions of the endocrine system

104. Which body system is least affected by actions of the endocrine system? A. Digestive system B. Cardiovascular system C. Respiratory system D. Urinary system

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: J.08.02 Explain how the endocrine organs relate to other body organs and systems to maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 10.21 Section: 10.09 Topic: General functions of the endocrine system

105. What hormone is NOT involved in regulating fuel metabolism? A. Ghrelin B. Cortisol C. Glucagon D. Insulin

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body. Learning Outcome: 10.21 Section: 10.09 Topic: General functions of the endocrine system

Chapter 10 - The Endocrine System

106. What hormones are the ultimate controllers of fuel metabolism? A. Insulin and glucagon B. Thyroxine and triiodothyronine C. Epinephrine and cortisol D. Somatostatin and insulin

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.05.02c For thyroid hormones, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells. HAPS Objective: J.08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body. Learning Outcome: 10.21 Section: 10.09 Topic: General functions of the endocrine system

107. Which hormones help regulate blood pressure and volume? A. ADH and ANH B. Aldosterone and leptin C. ADH and PTH D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body. Learning Outcome: 10.21 Section: 10.09 Topic: General functions of the endocrine system

108. Which hormones regulate blood calcium balance? A. Calcitrol and calcitonin B. Cortisol and PTH C. PTH and calcitonin D. Cortisol and thyroxine

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: J.08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body. Learning Outcome: 10.21 Section: 10.09 Topic: General functions of the endocrine system

Chapter 11 - Blood

Chapter 11 Blood

Multiple Choice Questions 1. Agglutination may occur if a person with type B- blood is given A. type B- blood. B. type B+ blood. C. type O- blood.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: K.05.05 Predict which blood types are compatible and what happens when the incorrect ABO or Rh blood type is transfused. Learning Outcome: 11.10 Section: 11.04 Topic: ABO and Rh blood grouping

2. The hematocrit is the volume of a blood sample made up of A. plasma. B. white blood cells. C. platelets. D. red blood cells.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.03.01c State the normal ranges for erythrocyte counts and hematocrit (both male and female), total leukocyte count, and platelet count. Learning Outcome: 11.01 Section: 11.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system

Chapter 11 - Blood

3. Hematocrit is usually about ______ %. A. 95 B. 15 C. 45 D. 55

Check All That Apply Questions 4. What are found in the buffy coat, the clear middle layer of a sample of centrifuged blood? Choose all that apply. _____ Red blood cells __X__ White blood cells __X__ Platelets

Chapter 11 - Blood

Multiple Choice Questions 5. Fifty-five percent of blood is A. organic molecules. B. plasma. C. formed elements. D. blood cells.

Check All That Apply Questions 6. What does blood transport? Choose all that apply. __X__ Hormones _____ Urine __X__ Glucose __X__ Carbon dioxide _____ Mucus

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.01.01 Describe the major functions of the cardiovascular system. Learning Outcome: 11.02 Section: 11.01 Topic: General functions of the cardiovascular system

Chapter 11 - Blood

Multiple Choice Questions 7. Blood transports carbon dioxide from the ______ to the ______ for disposal. A. lungs; tissues B. tissues; lungs C. lungs; kidneys D. kidneys; tissues

8. Which of the following is a defensive function of blood? A. Engulfing and destroying pathogens B. Delivery of nutrients to cells C. Distributing heat around the body D. All apply.

9. Which components of blood do NOT perform defensive functions? A. Red blood cells B. White blood cells C. Antibodies D. Platelets

Chapter 11 - Blood

10. A protein that is produced by white blood cells and dissolved in plasma is A. albumin. B. antibody. C. fibrinogen. D. hemoglobin.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.02.01 Describe the overall composition of plasma, including the major types of plasma proteins, their functions and where in the body they are produced. Learning Outcome: 11.01 Section: 11.01 Topic: Composition of blood plasma

11. Which protein dissolved in plasma fights pathogens (disease-causing agents)? A. Albumin B. Fibrinogen C. Hemoglobin D. Antibody

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.02.01 Describe the overall composition of plasma, including the major types of plasma proteins, their functions and where in the body they are produced. Learning Outcome: 11.02 Section: 11.01 Topic: General functions of the cardiovascular system

12. Which of the following is a regulatory function of blood? A. Secrete antibodies B. Form a blood clot C. Maintain water-salt balance D. Remove wastes from cells

Chapter 11 - Blood

13. Which of the following is NOT a regulatory function of blood? A. Regulating body temperature B. Regulating pH C. Regulating capillary exchanges D. Regulating osmotic pressure

True / False Questions 14. White blood cells function in blood clotting. FALSE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.01.01 Describe the major functions of the cardiovascular system. Learning Outcome: 11.02 Section: 11.01 Topic: Functional roles of formed elements of blood

Multiple Choice Questions 15. What percentage of plasma is water? A. 55% B. 92% C. 45% D. 8%

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.02.01 Describe the overall composition of plasma, including the major types of plasma proteins, their functions and where in the body they are produced. Learning Outcome: 11.03 Section: 11.02 Topic: Composition of blood plasma

Chapter 11 - Blood

16. Which of the following is NOT a function of the plasma proteins? A. Gamma globulins form lipoproteins. B. Albumins contribute to osmotic pressure. C. Fibrinogen is needed for blood clotting. D. Beta globulins bind to metal ions for transport.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.02.01 Describe the overall composition of plasma, including the major types of plasma proteins, their functions and where in the body they are produced. Learning Outcome: 11.03 Section: 11.02 Topic: Composition of blood plasma

17. The plasma proteins that have the greatest effect on osmotic pressure are A. albumins. B. fibrinogens. C. globulins. D. hormones.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.02.01 Describe the overall composition of plasma, including the major types of plasma proteins, their functions and where in the body they are produced. Learning Outcome: 11.03 Section: 11.02 Topic: Composition of blood plasma

Check All That Apply Questions 18. Which are plasma proteins? Choose all that apply. __X__ Albumin _____ Salts __X__ Fibrinogen __X__ Globulin _____ Erythropoietin

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.02.01 Describe the overall composition of plasma, including the major types of plasma proteins, their functions and where in the body they are produced. Learning Outcome: 11.03 Section: 11.02 Topic: Composition of blood plasma

Chapter 11 - Blood

Multiple Choice Questions 19. What is the function of dissolved salts in the plasma? A. Maintain osmotic pressure and food for cells B. Maintain pH and transport substances C. Maintain osmotic pressure and pH D. Transport and fight infection

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.02.01 Describe the overall composition of plasma, including the major types of plasma proteins, their functions and where in the body they are produced. Learning Outcome: 11.03 Section: 11.02 Topic: Composition of blood plasma

20. Which of the following is NOT a nitrogenous waste found in the plasma? A. Ammonia B. Amino acids C. Uric acid D. Urea

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.02.01 Describe the overall composition of plasma, including the major types of plasma proteins, their functions and where in the body they are produced. Learning Outcome: 11.03 Section: 11.02 Topic: Composition of blood plasma

21. The process of blood cell formation is called A. hemostasis. B. hematopoiesis. C. coagulation. D. blood typing

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.03.02a Describe the location of hematopoiesis and the significance of the pluripotent stem cell (hemocytoblast). Learning Outcome: 11.04 Section: 11.02 Topic: General functions of the cardiovascular system

Chapter 11 - Blood

22. Where does the process of hematopoiesis occur in the adult? A. Red bone marrow B. Yellow bone marrow C. Liver D. Spleen

23. The cells that give rise to red blood cells, platelets, and most white blood cells are called A. erythroblasts. B. megakaryoblasts. C. lymphatic stem cells. D. myeloid stem cells.

24. What type of red bone marrow cells can become any type of formed element? A. Myeloid stem cells B. Multipotent stem cells C. Totipotent stem cells D. Lymphatic stem cells

Chapter 11 - Blood

25. Red blood cells are also known as A. leukocytes. B. thrombocytes. C. erythrocytes. D. multipotent stem cells.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.03.01b Compare and contrast the morphological features of erythrocytes and the five types of leukocytes. Learning Outcome: 11.05 Section: 11.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of formed elements of blood

26. Red blood cells contain mostly A. globulin. B. fibrinogen. C. albumin. D. hemoglobin.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.03.03b Discuss the structure and function of hemoglobin, as well as its breakdown products. Learning Outcome: 11.05 Section: 11.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of formed elements of blood

27. Which protein binds oxygen and carbon dioxide? A. Albumin B. Erythropoietin C. Anemia D. Hemoglobin

Chapter 11 - Blood

28. When the oxygen content of the blood is low, _____ is released by the kidneys to increase red blood cell production in the red bone marrow. A. erythropoietin B. renin C. aldosterone D. prothrombin

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.03.02b Explain the basic process of erythropoiesis, the significance of the reticulocyte, and regulation through erythropoietin. Learning Outcome: 11.05 Section: 11.02 Topic: Functional roles of formed elements of blood

29. The hormone that is released by the kidney that promotes the production of red blood cells is A. insulin. B. thyroxin. C. erythropoietin. D. estrogen.

Chapter 11 - Blood

Check All That Apply Questions 30. In which patient would you expect to find an increased level of erythropoietin? Choose all that apply. _____ A 23-year-old with an excess of red blood cells __X__ A 23-year-old athlete who has been training for a marathon at high altitude, where oxygen levels are lower _____ A 16-year-old with food poisoning __X__ A 59-year-old smoker with advanced lung disease

Bloom's Level: 3. Apply HAPS Objective: K.03.02b Explain the basic process of erythropoiesis, the significance of the reticulocyte, and regulation through erythropoietin. Learning Outcome: 11.05 Section: 11.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system

Multiple Choice Questions 31. What is a reticulocyte? A. A type of white blood cell B. An immature red blood cell C. A hormone that stimulates the production of blood cells D. A formed element that functions in blood clotting

Chapter 11 - Blood

32. When erythrocytes are broken down, the heme group is broken down and excreted as A. amino acids. B. bile pigments. C. iron. D. erythropoietin.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.03.03b Discuss the structure and function of hemoglobin, as well as its breakdown products. Learning Outcome: 11.05 Section: 11.02

33. __________ is an increased rate of red blood cell destruction. A. Sickle-cell disease B. Hemolytic anemia C. Pernicious anemia D. Aplastic anemia

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 11.05 Section: 11.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system

34. __________ is a genetic blood disease. A. Sickle-cell disease B. Hemolytic anemia C. Pernicious anemia D. Aplastic anemia

Chapter 11 - Blood

35. __________ is a blood disorder caused by the lack of vitamin B-12. A. Sickle-cell disease B. Hemolytic anemia C. Pernicious anemia D. Polycythemia

36. A general term that means a condition in which red blood cells or hemoglobin levels are low is A. polycythemia. B. anemia. C. sickle cell disease. D. leukemia.

37. An increase in the numbers of red blood cells that makes the blood too viscous is A. hemorrhagic anemia. B. hemolytic anemia. C. pernicious anemia. D. polycythemia.

Chapter 11 - Blood

38. Which of the following is NOT a difference between erythrocytes and leukocytes? A. Leukocytes have a nucleus. B. Leukocytes are smaller. C. Leukocytes have no hemoglobin. D. Leukocytes are translucent unless stained.

39. Which of the following is NOT a function of leukocytes? A. They fight infection. B. They destroy dead or dying body cells. C. They take oxygen to cells. D. They recognize and kill cancer cells.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.03.03c Describe functions for each of the five major types of leukocytes as well as the two major subtypes of lymphocytes (T and B). Learning Outcome: 11.05 Section: 11.02 Topic: Functional roles of formed elements of blood

40. Which of the following is NOT a granular leukocyte? A. Monocyte B. Basophil C. Eosinophil D. Neutrophil

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.03.01d List the five types of leukocytes in order of their relative prevalence in normal blood and classify each type as granulocyte or agranulocyte. Learning Outcome: 11.05 Section: 11.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of formed elements of blood

Chapter 11 - Blood

41. Which formed element is able to leave the bloodstream? A. Red blood cell B. White blood cell C. Platelet D. All of the formed elements can leave the bloodstream.

42. Which type of white blood cell is the first to respond to an infection? A. Monocyte B. Eosinophil C. Basophil D. Neutrophil

43. Which type of white blood cell stains red and helps to lessen an allergic reaction? A. Lymphocyte B. Eosinophil C. Basophil D. Monocyte

Chapter 11 - Blood

44. Which of the following leukocytes is correctly matched with its function? A. Monocyte - fights against parasitic worms B. Basophil - engulfs pathogens by phagocytosis C. Neutrophil - becomes macrophages D. Lymphocyte - responsible for specific immunity

45. Which type of leukocyte has granules that release histamine and heparin? A. Neutrophil B. Monocyte C. Basophil D. Lymphocyte

46. Which type of leukocyte is polymorphonuclear? A. Neutrophils B. Lymphocytes C. Eosinophils D. Basophils

Chapter 11 - Blood

47. Leukemia involves A. uncontrolled production of abnormal white blood cells. B. a decrease in leukocyte production. C. a viral infection. D. a bacterial infection.

48. Which type of white blood cell is the most numerous in a given blood sample? A. Eosinophils B. Neutrophils C. Basophils D. Lymphocytes

49. Which type of leukocyte will enlarge in the tissues and become macrophages? A. Lymphocytes B. Monocytes C. Eosinophils D. Neutrophils

Chapter 11 - Blood

50. Which type of leukocyte will produce antibodies? A. Basophils B. T lymphocytes C. B lymphocytes D. Monocytes

True / False Questions 51. Natural killer (NK) cells are a type of granular lymphocyte. TRUE

52. White blood cells have the ability to squeeze through pores in capillary walls into the tissues. TRUE

Chapter 11 - Blood

53. The globin portion of hemoglobin is converted to bilirubin and biliverdin, which contribute to the color of the feces. FALSE

54. Higher oxygen concentration and a more basic pH will cause hemoglobin to take up oxygen. TRUE

55. Oxyhemoglobin gives blood a dark maroon color. FALSE

56. The average adult has between 3 to 4 million RBCs per mm3 of blood. FALSE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.03.01c State the normal ranges for erythrocyte counts and hematocrit (both male and female), total leukocyte count, and platelet count. Learning Outcome: 11.05 Section: 11.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of formed elements of blood

Chapter 11 - Blood

57. Mature red blood cells are capable of mitosis. FALSE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.03.03a State the function of red blood cells. Learning Outcome: 11.05 Section: 11.02 Topic: Functional roles of formed elements of blood

Multiple Choice Questions 58. Thrombocytes A. have a nucleus. B. are cell fragments. C. are produced in the thymus. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.03.01e Explain how platelets differ structurally from the other formed elements of the blood. Learning Outcome: 11.06 Section: 11.03 Topic: Functional roles of formed elements of blood

True / False Questions 59. Platelets generally have a very short life because they have no nucleus. TRUE

Chapter 11 - Blood

Multiple Choice Questions 60. Which of the following is explained by the fact that platelets have no nucleus? A. Platelets help with blood clotting. B. Platelets are the smallest formed element. C. Platelets are more numerous than red blood cells. D. Platelets have a very short life.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: K.03.01e Explain how platelets differ structurally from the other formed elements of the blood. Learning Outcome: 11.06 Section: 11.03 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of formed elements of blood

61. What type of cells do platelets come from? A. Megakaryocytes B. Reticulocytes C. NK cells D. Myeloblasts

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.03.02d Discuss the role of the megakaryocyte in the formation of platelets. Learning Outcome: 11.06 Section: 11.03 Topic: General functions of the cardiovascular system

62. Which of the following is NOT an event of hemostasis? A. Coagulation B. Platelet plug formation C. Clot retraction D. Vascular spasm

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.04.02c Describe the basic steps involved in the formation of the insoluble fibrin clot. Learning Outcome: 11.07 Section: 11.03 Topic: Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood

Chapter 11 - Blood

63. What is the first event of hemostasis after the injury? A. Vascular spasm B. Coagulation C. Clot retraction D. Platelet plug formation

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.04.02a Describe the vascular phase including the role of endothelial cells. Learning Outcome: 11.07 Section: 11.03 Topic: Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood

64. What substance is released by the damaged blood vessel to aid in the vascular spasm? A. Heparin B. Serotonin C. Histamine D. Thrombin

Check All That Apply Questions 65. Which plasma proteins are involved in blood clotting? Choose all that apply. _____ Albumin __X__ Fibrinogen __X__ Prothrombin _____ Hemoglobin

Chapter 11 - Blood

Multiple Choice Questions 66. The __________ mechanism for activation of clotting comes from the blood. A. intrinsic B. extrinsic

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.04.02d Differentiate between the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting mechanisms. Learning Outcome: 11.07 Section: 11.03 Topic: Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood

67. The extrinsic mechanism for activation of clotting comes from the A. blood. B. damaged tissue. C. external environment. D. central nervous system.

68. Which of the following is the correct order of events of coagulation? (1) thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin (2) fibrin strands form the clot (3) prothrombin activator is formed (4) prothrombin converted to thrombin A. 4, 1, 2, 3 B. 1, 2, 3, 4 C. 3, 4, 1, 2 D. 2, 1, 4, 3

Chapter 11 - Blood

69. What vitamin is needed for the formation of prothrombin by the liver? A. Vitamin B-12 B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin K D. Vitamin A

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.04.04 Explain the role of calcium ions and vitamin K in blood clotting. Learning Outcome: 11.07 Section: 11.03 Topic: Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood

70. What ion is necessary for coagulation? A. Na+ B. K+ C. Mg2+ D. Ca2+

71. Serum is plasma minus A. platelets. B. fibrinogen. C. prothrombin. D. Both fibrinogen and prothrombin are correct.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.02.01 Describe the overall composition of plasma, including the major types of plasma proteins, their functions and where in the body they are produced. Learning Outcome: 11.07 Section: 11.03 Topic: Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood

Chapter 11 - Blood

72. What chemical will dissolve fibrin to remove a blood clot? A. Prothrombin B. Thrombin C. Plasmin D. Serum

73. What can help prevent clots from forming in undamaged blood vessels? A. Heparin from basophils and mast cells B. Smooth endothelium of blood vessel walls C. Prothrombin activator D. Both heparin and a smooth endothelium are correct.

74. A low platelet count is called A. hemophilia. B. thrombus. C. thrombocytopenia. D. thromboembolism.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 11.08 Section: 11.03 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system

Chapter 11 - Blood

75. A blood condition due to the lack of one or more clotting factors is A. hemophilia. B. thrombus. C. thrombocytopenia. D. embolus.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 11.08 Section: 11.03 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system

76. A clot that forms in an unbroken blood vessel is a(n) A. embolus. B. stem cell. C. plasmin. D. thrombus.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 11.08 Section: 11.03 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system

77. A circulating clot that then blocks a blood vessel is a(n) A. embolus. B. thromboembolism. C. thrombus. D. platelet plug.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 11.08 Section: 11.03 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system

Chapter 11 - Blood

78. Blood type is determined by A. antigens in the plasma. B. antigens on red blood cells. C. antibodies in the plasma. D. antibodies on red blood cells.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.05.01 Explain the role of surface antigens on RBCs in determining blood groups. Learning Outcome: 11.09 Section: 11.04 Topic: ABO and Rh blood grouping

79. A person with blood type A has which antigen? A. A B. B C. A and B D. Neither A nor B

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.05.02 List the type of antigen and the type of antibodies present in each ABO blood type. Learning Outcome: 11.09 Section: 11.04 Topic: ABO and Rh blood grouping

80. Type O red blood cells have ______ antigens. A. A B. B C. no

Chapter 11 - Blood

81. A person with blood type B has which antibodies? A. Anti-A B. Anti-B C. Anti-A and anti-B D. No antibodies

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: K.05.02 List the type of antigen and the type of antibodies present in each ABO blood type. Learning Outcome: 11.09 Section: 11.04 Topic: ABO and Rh blood grouping

82. A person with type AB blood has ________ antigens. A. A B. B C. both A and B D. no

83. A person with type O blood makes ___________antibodies. A. anti-A B. anti-B C. both anti-A and anti-B D. no

Chapter 11 - Blood

84. Which blood type is considered the universal donor type? A. Type A B. Type B C. Type AB D. Type O

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.05.06 State which blood type is considered the universal donor and which blood type is considered the universal recipient, and explain why. Learning Outcome: 11.09 Section: 11.04 Topic: ABO and Rh blood grouping

85. The universal donor blood type is able to be donated to any of the other blood types because A. it doesn't make any antibodies. B. it has both A and B antigens. C. it has no A or B antigens. D. it makes both anti-A and anti-B antibodies.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: K.05.06 State which blood type is considered the universal donor and which blood type is considered the universal recipient, and explain why. Learning Outcome: 11.09 Section: 11.04 Topic: ABO and Rh blood grouping

86. Why is Type AB blood considered the universal recipient? A. It has both antibodies in the plasma. B. It has no antibodies in the plasma. C. It has no antigens on the red blood cells.

Chapter 11 - Blood

87. Mr. Jones has Type A blood and needs a transfusion. What type(s) could he safely be given? A. Type A only B. Type A or Type AB C. Type A or Type O D. Type O only

88. Mrs. Smith needs a blood transfusion. She has Type O blood. What type(s) could she safely be given? A. Type AB only B. Type AB and Type O C. Type O only D. Type A, Type B, Type AB, or Type O

89. When would an Rh-negative person make antibodies to the Rh antigen? A. At birth B. When exposed to Rh antigen C. An Rh-negative person will never get antibodies

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.05.04 Distinguish between the development of anti-Rh antibodies and the development of anti-A and anti- B antibodies. Learning Outcome: 11.09 Section: 11.04 Topic: ABO and Rh blood grouping

Chapter 11 - Blood

90. Which could result in hemolytic disease of the newborn? A. Mother Rh-; father Rh+; baby Rh+ B. Mother Rh+; father Rh-; baby RhC. Mother Rh-; father Rh-; baby Rh+ D. Mother Rh+; father Rh+; baby Rh-

91. Rh immunoglobin (Rho-Gam) A. is used to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn. B. contains anti-Rh antibodies. C. contains Rh antigens. D. Both is used to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn and contains anti-Rh antibodies are correct.

True / False Questions 92. Cross-matching blood is important before a transfusion is given because there are other blood antigens that could cause agglutination. TRUE

Chapter 11 - Blood

93. Agglutination of blood may occur if anti-B antibodies come into contact with B antigens. TRUE

Multiple Choice Questions 94. What is agglutination? A. Too-low oxygen or hemoglobin levels B. Clumping of red blood cells caused by interactions between antibodies and antigens C. Low blood glucose levels D. Clumping of red blood cells caused by interactions with white blood cells

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.05.05 Predict which blood types are compatible and what happens when the incorrect ABO or Rh blood type is transfused. Learning Outcome: 11.10 Section: 11.04 Topic: ABO and Rh blood grouping

95. Which of the following does NOT increase as one ages? A. Anemias B. Leukemias C. Clotting disorders D. Blood volume

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the cardiovascular system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 11.11 Section: 11.05 Topic: Effects of aging on the cardiovascular system

Chapter 11 - Blood

96. What type of test is used to detect blood in the stool? A. Colonoscopy B. Sonogram C. Occult blood test D. Type and match blood test

97. Those persons who prefer a vegan diet are at risk for A. iron-deficiency anemia. B. leukemia. C. colon cancer. D. pernicious anemia.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: K.16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the cardiovascular system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 11.11 Section: 11.05 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system

True / False Questions 98. Clotting disorders can be associated with atherosclerosis in an elderly person. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 11.11 Section: 11.05 Topic: Effects of aging on the cardiovascular system

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

Chapter 12 The Cardiovascular System

Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following is NOT true about the heart? A. It is located in the mediastinum. B. The base rests on the diaphragm. C. It connects the systemic and pulmonary circuits. D. It slants more to the left.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.06.01 Describe the position of the heart in the thoracic cavity. Learning Outcome: 12.01 Describe the location of the heart and its functions. Section: 12.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the heart

2. Which of the following is NOT a function of the heart? A. Serves as an endocrine gland B. Creates blood pressure C. Keeps oxygen-poor blood separated from oxygen-rich blood D. Maintains the acidity level of the blood

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.06.03 Identify and describe the function of the primary internal structures of the heart, including chambers, septa, valves, papillary muscles, chordae tendineae, and venous and arterial openings. Learning Outcome: 12.01 Describe the location of the heart and its functions. Section: 12.01 Topic: General functions of the cardiovascular system

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

3. The myocardium is A. the major portion of the heart. B. made largely of cardiac muscle tissue. C. the endocardium. D. Both the major portion of the heart and made largely of cardiac muscle tissue.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.06.06 Identify myocardium and describe its histological structure, including the significance of intercalated discs. Learning Outcome: 12.02 Describe the wall and coverings of the heart. Section: 12.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the heart

4. The visceral pericardium also forms the ________ of the heart wall. A. epicardium B. myocardium C. endocardium

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.06.05 Describe the layers of the pericardium and the location of the pericardial cavity. Learning Outcome: 12.02 Describe the wall and coverings of the heart. Section: 12.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the heart

5. Which lists the proper order of the layers of the heart wall from outermost (superficial) to innermost (deep)? A. Endocardium, myocardium, epicardium B. Epicardium, myocardium, endocardium C. Myocardium, epicardium, endocardium

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.06.05 Describe the layers of the pericardium and the location of the pericardial cavity. HAPS Objective: K.06.06 Identify myocardium and describe its histological structure, including the significance of intercalated discs. Learning Outcome: 12.02 Describe the wall and coverings of the heart. Section: 12.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the heart

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

6. What is pericarditis? A. Inflammation of the innermost lining of the heart B. Inflammation of the heart valves C. Inflammation of the outermost layer of the heart D. High blood pressure

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.06.05 Describe the layers of the pericardium and the location of the pericardial cavity. HAPS Objective: K.16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 12.02 Describe the wall and coverings of the heart. Section: 12.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system

7. Which are the strongest pumping chambers? A. Atria B. Ventricles

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.06.03 Identify and describe the function of the primary internal structures of the heart, including chambers, septa, valves, papillary muscles, chordae tendineae, and venous and arterial openings. Learning Outcome: 12.03 Trace the path of blood through the heart, naming its chambers and valves. Section: 12.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the heart

8. Which chamber pumps the blood to the body through the systemic circuit? A. Right atrium B. Left atrium C. Right ventricle D. Left ventricle

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.08.02 Describe blood flow through the heart naming all chambers and valves passed. HAPS Objective: K.08.04 Explain how the heart is a double pump and why this is significant. Learning Outcome: 12.03 Trace the path of blood through the heart, naming its chambers and valves. Section: 12.01 Topic: Blood flow through the heart

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

9. Why does the left ventricle have a thicker myocardial wall? A. It has to pump blood to the lungs. B. It has to pump blood to the body. C. It has to pump blood to the left atrium. D. It has to pump blood to the liver.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: K.06.03 Identify and describe the function of the primary internal structures of the heart, including chambers, septa, valves, papillary muscles, chordae tendineae, and venous and arterial openings. HAPS Objective: K.08.02 Describe blood flow through the heart naming all chambers and valves passed. Learning Outcome: 12.03 Trace the path of blood through the heart, naming its chambers and valves. Section: 12.01 Topic: Blood flow through the heart Topic: Gross anatomy of the heart

10. The right atrium A. receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs. B. pumps oxygen-rich blood toward the body tissues. C. receives oxygen-poor blood from the body tissues. D. pumps oxygen-poor blood to the lungs.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.06.03 Identify and describe the function of the primary internal structures of the heart, including chambers, septa, valves, papillary muscles, chordae tendineae, and venous and arterial openings. HAPS Objective: K.08.02 Describe blood flow through the heart naming all chambers and valves passed. Learning Outcome: 12.03 Trace the path of blood through the heart, naming its chambers and valves. Section: 12.01 Topic: Blood flow through the heart

11. Which of the following is NOT a vessel that empties into the right atrium? A. Inferior vena cava B. Superior vena cava C. Coronary sinus D. Pulmonary veins

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.08.01 Identify the major blood vessels entering and leaving the heart and classify them as either an artery or a vein and as containing either oxygen-rich or oxygen-poor blood. Learning Outcome: 12.03 Trace the path of blood through the heart, naming its chambers and valves. Section: 12.01 Topic: Blood flow through the heart

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

12. As blood leaves the right atrium, it passes through the ______ valve to the right ventricle. A. tricuspid B. pulmonary semilunar C. mitral D. bicuspid

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.06.03 Identify and describe the function of the primary internal structures of the heart, including chambers, septa, valves, papillary muscles, chordae tendineae, and venous and arterial openings. HAPS Objective: K.08.03 Explain the major factors that aid in movement of blood through the heart and produce one-way flow. Learning Outcome: 12.03 Trace the path of blood through the heart, naming its chambers and valves. Section: 12.01 Topic: Blood flow through the heart Topic: Gross anatomy of the heart

13. What is the function of the heart valves? A. To push blood B. To prevent the backflow of blood C. To stimulate the heart D. To give support to the heart

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.08.03 Explain the major factors that aid in movement of blood through the heart and produce one-way flow. Learning Outcome: 12.04 Describe the operation of the heart valves. Section: 12.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the heart

14. What structures anchor the atrioventricular valves to the papillary muscles of the ventricle walls? A. Interatrial septum B. Auricles C. Chordae tendinae D. Coronary sinus

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.06.03 Identify and describe the function of the primary internal structures of the heart, including chambers, septa, valves, papillary muscles, chordae tendineae, and venous and arterial openings. HAPS Objective: K.08.03 Explain the major factors that aid in movement of blood through the heart and produce one-way flow. Learning Outcome: 12.04 Describe the operation of the heart valves. Section: 12.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the heart

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

15. What vessels carry oxygen-poor blood from the right ventricle to the lungs for gas exchange? A. Pulmonary arteries B. Pulmonary veins C. Aorta and coronary arteries D. Superior and inferior vena cavas

16. What is the name of the extensions of the ventricular myocardium that prevent the valves from opening into the atria? A. Chordae tendinae B. Interventricular septum C. Interatrial septum D. Papillary muscles

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.06.03 Identify and describe the function of the primary internal structures of the heart, including chambers, septa, valves, papillary muscles, chordae tendineae, and venous and arterial openings. HAPS Objective: K.08.03 Explain the major factors that aid in movement of blood through the heart and produce one-way flow. Learning Outcome: 12.04 Describe the operation of the heart valves. Section: 12.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the heart

17. The left atrium A. receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs. B. pumps oxygen-rich blood toward the body tissues. C. receives oxygen-poor blood from the body tissues. D. pumps oxygen-poor blood to the lungs.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.08.02 Describe blood flow through the heart naming all chambers and valves passed. Learning Outcome: 12.03 Trace the path of blood through the heart, naming its chambers and valves. Section: 12.01 Topic: Blood flow through the heart

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

18. What vessels carry oxygen-rich blood to the left atrium? A. Superior and inferior vena cavae B. Pulmonary veins C. Pulmonary arteries D. Both superior and inferior vena cavae and pulmonary veins

19. What valve is found between the left atrium and left ventricle? A. Pulmonary semilunar valve B. Tricuspid valve C. Bicuspid valve D. Aortic semilunar valve

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.06.03 Identify and describe the function of the primary internal structures of the heart, including chambers, septa, valves, papillary muscles, chordae tendineae, and venous and arterial openings. Learning Outcome: 12.03 Trace the path of blood through the heart, naming its chambers and valves. Section: 12.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the heart

20. The aorta A. receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs. B. carries oxygen-rich blood toward the body tissues. C. receives oxygen-poor blood from the body tissues. D. carries oxygen-poor blood to the lungs.

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

21. The pulmonary vein A. carries oxygen-rich blood from lungs to the left atrium. B. carries oxygen-rich blood toward the body tissues. C. receives oxygen-poor blood from the body tissues. D. carries oxygen-poor blood to the lungs.

22. Which of the following vessels carries blood with a high oxygen content? A. Aorta B. Pulmonary veins C. Pulmonary arteries D. Both the aorta and pulmonary veins

23. Which of the following represents the correct sequence when tracing the path of blood from the superior or inferior vena cava to the lungs? A. left atrium, pulmonary semilunar valve, left ventricle, mitral valve, pulmonary arteries B. right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonary semilunar valve, pulmonary arteries C. tricuspid valve, right atrium, aortic semilunar valve, right ventricle, pulmonary veins D. pulmonary semilunar valve, right atrium, mitral valve, right ventricle, pulmonary veins

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.08.02 Describe blood flow through the heart naming all chambers and valves passed. HAPS Objective: K.10.04 Explain how atrial systole is related to ventricular filling. Learning Outcome: 12.03 Trace the path of blood through the heart, naming its chambers and valves. Section: 12.01 Topic: Blood flow through the heart

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

24. The aortic semilunar valve prevents blood from flowing backwards into the A. right atrium. B. left atrium. C. right ventricle. D. left ventricle.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.08.02 Describe blood flow through the heart naming all chambers and valves passed. HAPS Objective: K.08.03 Explain the major factors that aid in movement of blood through the heart and produce one-way flow. Learning Outcome: 12.04 Describe the operation of the heart valves. Section: 12.01 Topic: Blood flow through the heart Topic: Gross anatomy of the heart

25. The pathway from the superior and inferior vena cavae, through the right side of the heart to the lungs is called the A. pulmonary circuit. B. coronary circulation. C. systemic circuit. D. hepatic-portal system.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.08.04 Explain how the heart is a double pump and why this is significant. HAPS Objective: K.13.01a Describe the systemic and pulmonary circuits and discuss the functions of each with respect to the systemic and pulmonary circuits. Learning Outcome: 12.03 Trace the path of blood through the heart, naming its chambers and valves. Section: 12.01 Topic: Blood flow through the heart

26. The pathway from the lungs, through the left side of the heart and out the aorta to the body tissues is called the A. pulmonary circuit. B. coronary circulation. C. systemic circuit. D. hepatic-portal system.

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

27. What are the first blood vessels to branch from the aorta as it leaves the heart? A. Pulmonary arteries B. Pulmonary veins C. Coronary arteries D. Coronary veins

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.06.08 Identify the right and left coronary arteries and their branches, the cardiac veins, and the coronary sinus. Learning Outcome: 12.05 Outline the coronary circulation, and discuss several coronary circulation disorders and possible treatments. Section: 12.01 Topic: Coronary blood circulation

28. The heart sounds are due to the A. valves closing. B. heart contraction. C. heart relaxing. D. blood flowing.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.10.06 Relate the heart sounds to the events of the cardiac cycle. Learning Outcome: 12.04 Describe the operation of the heart valves. Section: 12.01 Topic: Cardiac cycle

29. The first heart sound, "lub," is made by A. closure of the AV valves. B. closure of the semilunar valves. C. contraction of the ventricles. D. contraction of the atria.

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

30. The sound of a heart murmur is created from A. acid reflux in the esophagus. B. fluid in the lungs. C. leaky heart valves. D. a hiccup.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the cardiovascular system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 12.04 Describe the operation of the heart valves. Section: 12.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system

31. The second heart sound, "dup," is caused by the A. closing of the AV valves. B. closing of the mitral valve. C. closing of the semilunar valves. D. contraction of the ventricles.

32. The myocardium obtains oxygen and nutrients from A. blood in the left ventricle. B. the coronary arteries. C. the cardiac vein. D. the carotid artery.

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

33. What acts as a pacemaker, initiating the heartbeat? A. Nerves B. AV node C. SA node D. Brain

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.09.01a List the parts of the conduction system and explain how the system functions with respect to the conduction system of the heart. HAPS Objective: K.09.01b Define automaticity and explain why the SA node normally paces the heart with respect to the conduction system of the heart. Learning Outcome: 12.06 Describe the conduction system of the heart. Section: 12.02 Topic: Conduction system of the heart

34. The correct sequence in the conduction system of the heart is A. Purkinje fibers, AV bundle, bundle branches. B. AV node, SA node, Purkinje fibers. C. SA node, AV node, AV bundle, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers. D. AV node, bundle branches, SA node, Purkinje fibers.

35. What structural component of cardiac muscle cells allows for electrical current to flow from cell to cell? A. Tight junctions B. Gap junctions C. Adhesion junction

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.06.06 Identify myocardium and describe its histological structure, including the significance of intercalated discs. Learning Outcome: 12.06 Describe the conduction system of the heart. Section: 12.02 Topic: Conduction system of the heart

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

36. An area other than the SA node can become the pacemaker. This area is called a(an) A. heart block. B. intrinsic conduction system. C. ectopic pacemaker. D. interventricular septum.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.09.01a List the parts of the conduction system and explain how the system functions with respect to the conduction system of the heart. HAPS Objective: K.09.01b Define automaticity and explain why the SA node normally paces the heart with respect to the conduction system of the heart. HAPS Objective: K.16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 12.06 Describe the conduction system of the heart. Section: 12.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Topic: Conduction system of the heart

37. What is the condition in which the heart impulses are too slow to maintain circulation? A. Heart block B. Arrhythmia C. Ectopic pacemaker. D. Incompetent valve.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 12.06 Describe the conduction system of the heart. Section: 12.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Topic: Conduction system of the heart

38. In an ECG, the P wave represents A. depolarization of the atria. B. depolarization of the ventricles. C. repolarization of the atria. D. repolarization of the ventricles.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.09.02b Relate the waveforms to atrial and ventricular depolarization and repolarization and to the activity of the conduction system with respect to the electrocardiogram (EKG or ECG). Learning Outcome: 12.07 Label and explain a normal electrocardiogram. Section: 12.02 Topic: Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction and the electrocardiogram

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

39. In an ECG, the QRS complex represents A. depolarization of the atria. B. depolarization of the ventricles. C. repolarization of the atria. D. repolarization of the ventricles.

40. In an ECG, the T wave represents A. depolarization of the atria. B. depolarization of the ventricles. C. repolarization of the atria. D. repolarization of the ventricles.

41. A heart rate below 60 beats per minute is called A. tachycardia. B. fibrillation. C. bradycardia. D. ectopic.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.09.01b Define automaticity and explain why the SA node normally paces the heart with respect to the conduction system of the heart. HAPS Objective: K.16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the cardiovascular system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 12.06 Describe the conduction system of the heart. Section: 12.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Topic: Conduction system of the heart

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

42. A heart rate above 100 beats per minute is called A. tachycardia. B. fibrillation. C. bradycardia. D. ectopic.

43. Which chambers contract simultaneously? A. Two atria B. Right atrium and right ventricle C. All chambers contract simultaneously. D. All chambers contract individually.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.10.02 Describe the phases of the cardiac cycle including ventricular filling, isovolumetric contraction, ventricular ejection, and isovolumetric relaxation. Learning Outcome: 12.08 Describe the cardiac cycle and the heart sounds. Section: 12.02 Topic: Cardiac cycle

44. Systole refers to A. relaxation. B. contraction. C. stimulation.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.10.01 Define cardiac cycle, systole, and diastole. Learning Outcome: 12.08 Describe the cardiac cycle and the heart sounds. Section: 12.02 Topic: Cardiac cycle

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

45. Diastole refers to A. relaxation. B. contraction. C. stimulation.

46. During atrial systole, the AV valves are ______ and the semilunar valves are _____. A. closed; open B. closed; closed C. open; closed D. open; open

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: K.10.05 Relate the opening and closing of specific heart valves in each phase of the cardiac cycle to pressure changes in the heart chambers. Learning Outcome: 12.08 Describe the cardiac cycle and the heart sounds. Section: 12.02 Topic: Cardiac cycle

47. During ventricular systole, the AV valves _______ and the semilunar valves _____. A. close; open B. close; close C. open; close D. open; open

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

48. When is the first sound of the heartbeat produced? A. Beginning of atrial systole B. Beginning of atrial diastole C. Beginning of ventricular systole D. Beginning of ventricular diastole

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: K.10.06 Relate the heart sounds to the events of the cardiac cycle. Learning Outcome: 12.08 Describe the cardiac cycle and the heart sounds. Section: 12.02 Topic: Cardiac cycle

49. When is the second sound of the heartbeat produced? A. Beginning of atrial systole B. Beginning of atrial diastole C. Beginning of ventricular systole D. Beginning of ventricular diastole

50. The amount of blood pumped out of a ventricle in one minute is the A. stroke volume. B. heart rate. C. cardiac output. D. cardiac cycle.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.11.01a Define cardiac output, and state its units of measurement with respect to cardiac output (CO). Learning Outcome: 12.09 Describe the cardiac output and regulation of the heartbeat. Section: 12.02 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

51. The cardiac output is dependent on A. heart rate. B. respiration rate. C. stroke volume D. Both heart rate and stroke volume are correct.

52. Cardiac output is equal to A. heart rate ´ stroke volume. B. heart rate / stroke volume. C. stroke volume + heart rate. D. stroke volume - heart rate

53. The cardiac output of an average human is about _______ L per ventricle per minute. A. 0.5 B. 1.0 C. 5.0 D. 50

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

54. Calculate the cardiac output in an individual whose stroke volume is 0.075 L and heart rate is 70. A. 933 B. 5.25 C. 70.075 D. 69.925

Bloom's Level: 3. Apply HAPS Objective: K.11.01a Define cardiac output, and state its units of measurement with respect to cardiac output (CO). Learning Outcome: 12.09 Describe the cardiac output and regulation of the heartbeat. Section: 12.02 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate

55. An increase in heart rate would ______ cardiac output. A. decrease B. increase

Bloom's Level: 3. Apply HAPS Objective: K.11.01c Predict how changes in heart rate (HR) and/or stroke volume (SV) will affect cardiac output (CO). Learning Outcome: 12.09 Describe the cardiac output and regulation of the heartbeat. Section: 12.02 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate

56. A decrease in stroke volume would ______ cardiac output. A. decrease B. increase

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

57. The cardioregulatory center is located in the A. cerebrum. B. cerebellum. C. medulla oblongata. D. pons.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.11.01c Predict how changes in heart rate (HR) and/or stroke volume (SV) will affect cardiac output (CO). Learning Outcome: 12.09 Describe the cardiac output and regulation of the heartbeat. Section: 12.02 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate

58. Parasympathetic stimulation of the heart causes the heart rate to A. increase. B. decrease. C. stay the same. D. increase, then decrease.

59. Sympathetic stimulation of the heart causes the heart rate to A. increase. B. decrease. C. stay the same. D. increase, then decrease.

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

60. What type of receptors, found in the aorta and common carotids arteries, send information to the cardioregulatory center to control heart rate? A. Proprioceptors B. Nociceptors C. Baroreceptors D. Photoreceptors

61. A fever will generally cause the heart rate to A. increase. B. decrease. C. stay the same. D. increase, then decrease.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis. HAPS Objective: K.16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the cardiovascular system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 12.09 Describe the cardiac output and regulation of the heartbeat. Section: 12.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system

62. An increase in blood pressure will cause reflex ___________ of the heart rate. A. increase B. decrease C. no change D. increase, then decrease

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: K.11.03a Discuss the influence of positive and negative chronotropic agents on HR with respect to HR. HAPS Objective: K.16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis. HAPS Objective: K.16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the cardiovascular system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 12.09 Describe the cardiac output and regulation of the heartbeat. Section: 12.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

63. Which of the following does NOT affect the stroke volume of the heart? A. Oxygen concentration of the blood B. Strength of contraction of the ventricles C. Blood electrolyte concentration D. Venous return to the right atrium

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: K.11.01c Predict how changes in heart rate (HR) and/or stroke volume (SV) will affect cardiac output (CO). Learning Outcome: 12.09 Describe the cardiac output and regulation of the heartbeat. Section: 12.02 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate

64. The adjustment of the contraction of the heart to changes in venous return is known as the A. ECG. B. Frank-Starling law. C. cardiac cycle. D. cardiac circuit.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.11.02c Explain the significance of the Frank-Starling Law of the heart with respect to stroke volume (SV). Learning Outcome: 12.09 Describe the cardiac output and regulation of the heartbeat. Section: 12.02 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate

65. An increase in venous return will ______ stroke volume and ___________ the strength of contraction. A. increase; increase B. increase; decrease C. decrease; decrease D. decrease; increase

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: K.11.02c Explain the significance of the Frank-Starling Law of the heart with respect to stroke volume (SV). Learning Outcome: 12.09 Describe the cardiac output and regulation of the heartbeat. Section: 12.02 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

66. What is the leading cause of heart attack and stroke in North America? A. Alcohol B. Smoking C. Arteriosclerosis D. Hypertension

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 12.09 Describe the cardiac output and regulation of the heartbeat. Section: 12.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system

67. Which of the following is NOT a leading cause of arteriosclerosis? A. Low-level bacterial or viral infections B. Smoking C. High cholesterol D. Hypotension

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 12.09 Describe the cardiac output and regulation of the heartbeat. Section: 12.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system

True / False Questions 68. The heart must be stimulated by the nervous system to contract. FALSE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.09.01b Define automaticity and explain why the SA node normally paces the heart with respect to the conduction system of the heart. Learning Outcome: 12.06 Describe the conduction system of the heart. Section: 12.02 Topic: Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction and the electrocardiogram

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

69. Hypertension will cause ventricular contractions to become stronger to overcome the higher blood pressure. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: K.16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the cardiovascular system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 12.09 Describe the cardiac output and regulation of the heartbeat. Section: 12.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system

Multiple Choice Questions 70. Pain in the chest area caused by reduced blood flow to the heart is called A. myocardial infarction. B. atherosclerosis. C. angina pectoris. D. thromboembolism.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 12.09 Describe the cardiac output and regulation of the heartbeat. Section: 12.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system

71. Blockage of coronary arteries kills heart muscle. This is called a(n) A. angina pectoris. B. myocardial infarction. C. atherosclerosis. D. coronary bypass.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 12.09 Describe the cardiac output and regulation of the heartbeat. Section: 12.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

72. __________ carry blood to the heart. A. Veins B. Arteries C. Capillaries

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.12.02b Correlate the anatomical structure of each type of blood vessel with its function with respect to arteries and veins. Learning Outcome: 12.10 Name the three types of blood vessels, and describe their structure and function. Section: 12.03 Topic: Anatomy and functional roles of blood vessel types

73. The only location of gas, nutrient, and waste exchange is in the A. veins. B. arteries. C. capillaries. D. venules. E. arterioles.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.12.04c Correlate the anatomical structure of capillaries with their functions with respect to capillaries. Learning Outcome: 12.10 Name the three types of blood vessels, and describe their structure and function. Section: 12.03 Topic: Anatomy and functional roles of blood vessel types

74. _______ carry blood away from the heart. A. Arteries B. Veins C. Capillaries

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

75. Which is the correct order of the tissue layers in large blood vessels, from superficial (outermost) to deep (innermost)? A. Tunica interna, tunica media, tunica externa B. Tunica externa, tunica interna, tunica media C. Tunica externa, tunica media, tunica interna D. Tunica media, tunica externa, tunica interna

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.12.01 Compare and contrast the structure of arteries and veins and arterioles and venules. Learning Outcome: 12.10 Name the three types of blood vessels, and describe their structure and function. Section: 12.03 Topic: Anatomy and functional roles of blood vessel types

76. Endothelium, with its basement membrane, is found in the A. tunica media. B. tunica externa. C. tunica muscularis. D. tunica interna.

77. Which type of blood vessel has the thickest, most muscular walls? A. Arteries B. Arterioles C. Capillaries D. Veins

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

78. Constriction and dilation of smooth muscle in ________ is used to control blood pressure. A. capillaries B. venules C. arteries D. arterioles

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.12.02c Define vasoconstriction, vasodilation, and venoconstriction with respect to arteries and veins. Learning Outcome: 12.10 Name the three types of blood vessels, and describe their structure and function. Section: 12.03 Topic: Anatomy and functional roles of blood vessel types

True / False Questions 79. All capillary beds in the body are open all the time. FALSE Capillary beds are open according to need.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: K.14.10a Explain how autoregulation controls blood flow to individual tissues with respect to autoregulation. Learning Outcome: 12.10 Name the three types of blood vessels, and describe their structure and function. Section: 12.03 Topic: Capillary exchange

Multiple Choice Questions 80. What type of vessel consists of one layer of endothelial cells? A. Arteries B. Veins C. Capillaries D. Arterioles

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.12.04a Explain how the composition of capillary walls differs from that of other blood vessels with respect to capillaries. Learning Outcome: 12.10 Name the three types of blood vessels, and describe their structure and function. Section: 12.03 Topic: Anatomy and functional roles of blood vessel types

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

81. What type of cell connections is found between endothelial cells of capillaries? A. Tight junctions B. Gap junctions C. Adhesion junction D. Intercalated disks

82. What structures control blood flow into capillary beds? A. Adhesion junctions B. Precapillary sphincters C. Arteriovenous shunt D. Semilunar valve

83. Osmotic pressure is created from A. the pumping of the heart. B. movement of substances from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. C. a difference in solute concentration on either side of a semipermeable membrane. D. blood volume.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.14.08c With respect to capillary exchange, describe how net filtration pressure across the capillary wall determines movement of fluid across the capillary wall. Learning Outcome: 12.10 Name the three types of blood vessels, and describe their structure and function. Section: 12.03 Topic: Capillary exchange

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

84. Which pressure is greater on the arteriole side of a capillary? A. Blood pressure B. Osmotic pressure C. Blood pressure and osmotic pressure are the same.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: K.14.08c With respect to capillary exchange, describe how net filtration pressure across the capillary wall determines movement of fluid across the capillary wall. Learning Outcome: 12.10 Name the three types of blood vessels, and describe their structure and function. Section: 12.03 Topic: Capillary exchange

85. Which of the following is NOT pushed out of the arterial end of a capillary? A. Water B. Blood cells C. Glucose D. Amino acids

86. Water and other small molecules leaving the capillaries forms A. blood. B. tissue fluid. C. blood pressure. D. intracelllar fluid.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.14.08d With respect to capillary exchange, relate net filtration pressure to potential edema and the need for a functional lymphatic system. Learning Outcome: 12.10 Name the three types of blood vessels, and describe their structure and function. Section: 12.03 Topic: Capillary exchange

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

87. What type of movement of materials occurs in the midsection of a capillary? A. Diffusion into and out of the capillary B. Blood pressure pushing materials out of the capillary C. Osmotic pressure drawing materials into the capillary

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: K.14.08a With respect to capillary exchange, explain the role of diffusion in capillary exchange of gases, nutrients, and wastes. Learning Outcome: 12.10 Name the three types of blood vessels, and describe their structure and function. Section: 12.03 Topic: Capillary exchange

88. Which pressure is greater on the venous end of a capillary? A. Blood pressure B. Osmotic pressure C. Blood pressure and osmotic pressure are the same.

89. From which section of a capillary do water and small dissolved molecules move into the capillary? A. Arterial end B. Midsection C. Venous end

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

90. An increase in the osmotic pressure of the blood results in a(n) A. increase in blood volume. B. decrease in blood volume. C. decrease in the amount of tissue fluid. D. increase in blood volume and a decrease in the amount of tissue fluid.

91. How is excess tissue fluid returned to the blood stream? A. It diffuses back into the capillaries. B. It is picked up by lymphatic vessels and then returned to the blood stream. C. The excess fluid is not returned to the blood stream. D. Osmotic pressure returns the excess to the blood stream.

92. ________ are thin-walled and have large lumens. A. Veins B. Arteries C. Capillaries

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

93. ______ have valves to prevent backflow. A. Veins B. Arteries C. Capillaries

94. Which layer of an artery wall is primarily smooth muscle tissue? A. Tunica externa B. Tunica interna C. Tunica media D. Tunica adventitia

95. Small vessels that are involved in the control of blood pressure and distribution of blood are A. capillaries. B. venules. C. arterioles.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.12.03 Describe the role of arterioles in regulating tissue blood flow and systemic arterial blood pressure. Learning Outcome: 12.10 Name the three types of blood vessels, and describe their structure and function. Section: 12.03 Topic: Anatomy and functional roles of blood vessel types

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

96. Constriction of the smooth muscle of an arteriole will ______ blood pressure and ____ blood flow into an area. A. increase; increase B. increase; decrease C. decrease; increase D. decrease; decrease

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: K.12.02c Define vasoconstriction, vasodilation, and venoconstriction with respect to arteries and veins. HAPS Objective: K.12.03 Describe the role of arterioles in regulating tissue blood flow and systemic arterial blood pressure. Learning Outcome: 12.10 Name the three types of blood vessels, and describe their structure and function. Section: 12.03 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics

97. Capillary structure is uniquely adapted for exchange processes because A. there are many of them. B. they have valves to control flow. C. they have only one layer of simple squamous epithelium (endothelium). D. they allow two-way flow.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: K.12.04c Correlate the anatomical structure of capillaries with their functions with respect to capillaries. Learning Outcome: 12.10 Name the three types of blood vessels, and describe their structure and function. Section: 12.03 Topic: Anatomy and functional roles of blood vessel types

98. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a vein that differentiates it from an artery? A. Veins have thinner walls. B. Veins have valves. C. Veins have a smaller lumen. D. Veins carry blood toward the heart.

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

99. Phlebitis and hemorrhoids are conditions involving A. arteries. B. capillaries. C. veins. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 12.10 Name the three types of blood vessels, and describe their structure and function. Section: 12.03 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system

100. At any given time, more than half the total blood volume is found in A. capillaries. B. arteries and arterioles. C. venules and veins. D. arterioles and venules.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.12.05 Describe the location and function of the venous reserve. Learning Outcome: 12.10 Name the three types of blood vessels, and describe their structure and function. Section: 12.03 Topic: Anatomy and functional roles of blood vessel types

101. Which item cannot cross the capillary wall and become a part of tissue fluid? A. Water B. Vitamins C. Plasma proteins D. Amino acids

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.14.08a With respect to capillary exchange, explain the role of diffusion in capillary exchange of gases, nutrients, and wastes. Learning Outcome: 12.10 Name the three types of blood vessels, and describe their structure and function. Section: 12.03 Topic: Capillary exchange

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

102. Blood entering a capillary bed is bright red, while blood leaving is a darker, bluish red. Why? A. Nutrients leave the bloodstream and enter the tissue fluid. B. Blood with more oxygen is brighter red than deoxygenated blood. C. Hemoglobin leaves the blood and enters the tissue fluid. D. Wastes enter the bloodstream in the capillary.

103. Blood pressure is greater at the _______ of the capillary. A. venule end B. middle C. arteriole end

104. In which type of vessel is blood velocity the greatest? A. Capillaries B. Arterioles C. Veins D. Arteries

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: K.14.04 Interpret relevant graphs to explain the relationships between vessel diameter, cross-sectional area, blood pressure, and blood velocity. Learning Outcome: 12.11 Explain how blood pressure changes throughout the vascular system, and describe the factors that determine blood pressure. Section: 12.04 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

105. Why is it important that blood move very slowly through the capillaries? A. To allow for adequate molecular exchange between the blood and the tissues B. So the red blood cells won't be damaged C. This system would actually work more efficiently if blood passed through capillaries more quickly.

106. As the total cross-sectional area of the vessels increases, the velocity of blood flow A. increases. B. decreases. C. does not change.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: K.14.02 State and interpret the equation that relates blood flow to pressure and resistance. Learning Outcome: 12.11 Explain how blood pressure changes throughout the vascular system, and describe the factors that determine blood pressure. Section: 12.04 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics

107. What accounts for blood flow in the arteries? A. Blood pressure B. Skeletal muscle contraction C. Blood pressure and skeletal muscle contraction

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: K.14.01 Define blood flow, blood pressure, and peripheral resistance. Learning Outcome: 12.11 Explain how blood pressure changes throughout the vascular system, and describe the factors that determine blood pressure. Section: 12.04 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

108. Blood pressure is lowest in the A. aorta. B. capillaries. C. superior and inferior vena cavae. D. venules.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: K.14.05 Using a graph of pressures within the systemic circuit, interpret the pressure changes that occur in the arteries, capillaries, and veins. Learning Outcome: 12.11 Explain how blood pressure changes throughout the vascular system, and describe the factors that determine blood pressure. Section: 12.04 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics

109. The MABP (mean arterial blood pressure) is equal to A. cardiac output – peripheral resistance. B. cardiac output x peripheral resistance. C. cardiac output / peripheral resistance. D. cardiac output + peripheral resistance.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.14.07a With respect to mean arterial pressure (MAP), state the equation relating MAP to cardiac output (CO) and total peripheral resistance (TPR). Learning Outcome: 12.11 Explain how blood pressure changes throughout the vascular system, and describe the factors that determine blood pressure. Section: 12.04 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics

110. In general, the smaller the blood vessel, the _____ the peripheral resistance. A. greater B. lower C. Blood vessel diameter and peripheral resistance are not directly related.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: K.14.03 List the local, hormonal and neuronal factors that affect peripheral resistance and explain the importance of each. Learning Outcome: 12.11 Explain how blood pressure changes throughout the vascular system, and describe the factors that determine blood pressure. Section: 12.04 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

111. As peripheral resistance increases, the blood pressure will A. increase. B. decrease. C. not necessarily change.

112. As the length of a blood vessel increases, peripheral resistance A. increases. B. decreases. C. doesn't necessarily change.

113. As cardiac output increases, blood pressure A. increases. B. decreases. C. doesn't necessarily change.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: K.14.07b With respect to mean arterial pressure (MAP), predict and describe how MAP would be affected by changes in TPR or by changes in CO or any of its components - heart rate (HR), stroke volume (SV), or preload. Learning Outcome: 12.11 Explain how blood pressure changes throughout the vascular system, and describe the factors that determine blood pressure. Section: 12.04 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

114. Blood return to the heart through the veins is aided by A. a blood pressure difference from arteries to the capillaries. B. skeletal muscle and respiratory pumps. C. precapillary sphincters. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.14.09 Discuss how muscular compression and the respiratory pump aid venous return. Learning Outcome: 12.11 Explain how blood pressure changes throughout the vascular system, and describe the factors that determine blood pressure. Section: 12.04 Topic: Venous blood return

115. How does the respiratory pump aid venous return? A. Exhaling and blowing out draws blood toward the tissues. B. Low pressure during inhalation draws blood toward the heart. C. Skeletal muscle contractions in the extremities pushes blood through veins. D. Valves in veins promote venous return.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: K.14.09 Discuss how muscular compression and the respiratory pump aid venous return. Learning Outcome: 12.11 Explain how blood pressure changes throughout the vascular system, and describe the factors that determine blood pressure. Section: 12.04 Topic: Venous blood return

116. Where is blood pressure the greatest? A. Arteries. B. Arterioles. C. Capillaries. D. All are the same.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.14.05 Using a graph of pressures within the systemic circuit, interpret the pressure changes that occur in the arteries, capillaries, and veins. Learning Outcome: 12.11 Explain how blood pressure changes throughout the vascular system, and describe the factors that determine blood pressure. Section: 12.04 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

117. Vasoconstriction in blood vessels is controlled by the vasomotor center in the A. pons. B. cerebellum. C. hypothalamus. D. medulla oblongata.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.14.03 List the local, hormonal and neuronal factors that affect peripheral resistance and explain the importance of each. Learning Outcome: 12.12 Describe how blood pressure is regulated. Section: 12.04 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics

118. If blood pressure increases above normal, the response from the medulla oblongata will be to A. increase heart rate and dilate the arterioles. B. increase heart rate and constrict the arterioles. C. decrease heart rate and dilate the arterioles. D. decrease heart rate and constrict the arterioles.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: K.14.11c Explain the role of the sympathetic nervous system in regulation of blood pressure and volume with respect to regulation of blood pressure. Learning Outcome: 12.12 Describe how blood pressure is regulated. Section: 12.04 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics

119. Which of the following hormone and cardiovascular effect is NOT correctly matched? A. Atrial natriuretic homone -- lowers blood pressure B. Antidiuretic hormone -- raises blood pressure C. Aldosterone -- lowers blood pressure D. Epinephrine -- raises blood pressure

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.14.11d Explain the role of hormones in regulation of blood pressure, including the mechanism by which specific hormones affect preload, heart rate, inotropic state or vascular resistance with respect to regulation of blood pressure. Learning Outcome: 12.12 Describe how blood pressure is regulated. Section: 12.04 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

120. What is blood pressure directly dependent on? A. Cardiac output B. Peripheral resistance C. Autonomic nervous system D. Cardiac output and peripheral resistance

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.14.01 Define blood flow, blood pressure, and peripheral resistance. Learning Outcome: 12.12 Describe how blood pressure is regulated. Section: 12.04 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics

121. Which of the following is NOT a pulse point? A. Superior temporal artery B. Common carotid artery C. Femoral artery D. Subclavian artery

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.13 Define pulse, and tell where the pulse may be taken. Section: 12.04 Topic: Systemic blood circulation

122. Which artery is usually used to determine blood pressure? A. Carotid artery B. Brachial artery C. Renal artery D. Coronary artery

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.12.07 Identify the major arteries and veins. Learning Outcome: 12.13 Define pulse, and tell where the pulse may be taken. Section: 12.04 Topic: Systemic vessels of the upper limb

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

123. The first Korotkoff sound heard when taking blood pressure with a sphygmomanometer represents the pressure of the A. atrial systole. B. atrial diastole. C. ventricular systole. D. ventricular diastole.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.10.07 Define systolic and diastolic blood pressure and interpret a graph of aortic pressure versus time during the cardiac cycle. Learning Outcome: 12.13 Define pulse, and tell where the pulse may be taken. Section: 12.04 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics

124. For a blood pressure reading of 125/86, the 86 represents the A. atrial diastolic pressure. B. ventricular systolic pressure. C. atrial systolic pressure. D. ventricular diastolic pressure.

125. A systolic pressure consistently above 140 or a diastolic pressure above 90 is called A. hypertension. B. fibrillation. C. hypotension. D. tachycardia.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 12.13 Define pulse, and tell where the pulse may be taken. Section: 12.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

126. Which represents the pressure of blood in between contractions, when the heart is at rest? A. Diastolic B. Systolic

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 12.13 Define pulse, and tell where the pulse may be taken. Section: 12.04 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics

127. The systemic circuit involves the A. body. B. lungs. C. body and lungs.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.13.01a Describe the systemic and pulmonary circuits and discuss the functions of each with respect to the systemic and pulmonary circuits. Learning Outcome: 12.15 Name the two circuits of the cardiovascular system, and trace the path of blood from the heart to any organ in the body and back to the heart. Section: 12.05 Topic: Systemic blood circulation

128. The body's response to sudden hypotension may include A. dilation of arterioles. B. constriction of veins and arterioles. C. decreased heart rate. D. renal excretion of water.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the cardiovascular system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 12.14 Describe shock due to hypotension and various medical consequences of hypertension. Section: 12.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

129. The pulmonary circuit involves the A. body. B. lungs. C. body and lungs.

130. Which is the correct sequence when blood flows from the heart to the kidney? A. Right ventricle, vena cava, renal vein B. Left ventricle, aorta, renal artery C. Left atrium, aorta, renal artery D. Right ventricle, aorta, renal vein

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.12.07 Identify the major arteries and veins. Learning Outcome: 12.16 Describe the major systemic arteries and the major systemic veins. Section: 12.05 Topic: Systemic blood circulation

131. The celiac artery goes to the A. head. B. stomach. C. leg. D. arm.

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

132. The brachiocephalic artery goes to the A. head. B. stomach. C. leg. D. head and arms.

133. The common iliac artery goes to the A. head. B. stomach. C. leg. D. arm.

134. What arteries supply the head? A. Right and left coronary arteries B. Right and left subclavian arteries C. Right and left carotid arteries D. Right and left axillary arteries

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

135. Which carries oxygenated blood toward the heart? A. Aorta B. Pulmonary veins C. Pulmonary arteries D. Vena cavae

136. Which blood vessel drains deoxygenated blood from the portion of the body below the heart? A. Aorta B. Iliac vein C. Superior vena cava D. Inferior vena cavae

137. Blood flows from the subclavian vein into the A. superior vena cava. B. internal jugular vein. C. axillary vein. D. brachiocephalic vein.

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

138. Blood flows from the subclavian artery into the A. brachiocephalic artery. B. carotid artery. C. axillary artery. D. subclavian vein.

139. The hepatic portal vein goes from the A. liver to vena cava. B. abdominal organs to the liver. C. kidney to vena cava. D. intestine to kidney.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.13.03b Explain how the anatomical design of the hepatic portal circulation serves its function with respect to the hepatic portal circulation. Learning Outcome: 12.17 Describe several special circulations: blood supply to the liver, blood supply to the brain, and fetal circulation. Section: 12.05 Topic: Hepatic portal blood circulation

140. Which blood vessel drains the liver? A. Hepatic portal vein B. Hepatic vein C. Hepatic artery

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

Check All That Apply Questions 141. Which blood vessels supply the liver? Choose all that apply. __X__ Hepatic portal vein _____ Hepatic vein _____ Celiac vein __X__ Hepatic artery

Multiple Choice Questions 142. The external jugular veins drains blood from the A. head and neck. B. arms and chest. C. legs. D. abdominal organs.

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

143. The external iliac vein drains blood from the A. head and neck. B. arms. C. abdominal organs. D. legs.

144. What vein returns blood from the upper part of the body to the heart? A. Inferior mesenteric vein B. Hepatic portal vein C. Superior vena cava D. Inferior vena cava

145. Blood supply to the brain forms a circular pathway called the A. hypophyseal portal system. B. circle of Willis. C. hepatic portal system. D. brachiocephalic circle.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.12.06 Define anastomosis and explain the significance of anastomoses, such as the Circle of Willis. Learning Outcome: 12.17 Describe several special circulations: blood supply to the liver, blood supply to the brain, and fetal circulation. Section: 12.05 Topic: Systemic vessels of the head and neck

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

146. Which of these is the correct sequence when tracing the path of blood in the fetal heart? A. Right atrium, foramen ovale, left atrium B. Left ventricle, pulmonary arteries, lungs C. The umbilical arteries, ductus venosus, right atrium D. Placental artery, ductus arteriosus, right atrium

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.13.04c Trace the pathway of blood flow from the placenta through the fetal heart and body and back to the placenta with respect to the fetal circulation. Learning Outcome: 12.17 Describe several special circulations: blood supply to the liver, blood supply to the brain, and fetal circulation. Section: 12.05 Topic: Fetal blood circulation

147. What fetal structures aid in by-passing the pulmonary circuit? A. Umbilical veins B. Foramen ovale C. Ductus arteriosus D. Both foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.13.04b Identify the ductus venosus, foramen ovale, and ductus arteriosus and explain their roles in fetal circulation with respect to the fetal circulation. Learning Outcome: 12.17 Describe several special circulations: blood supply to the liver, blood supply to the brain, and fetal circulation. Section: 12.05 Topic: Fetal blood circulation

148. Which of the following is a change that occurs in fetal circulation at birth? A. Ductus venosus continues to carry blood to the liver B. Foramen ovale closes to become the fossa ovalis C. Ductus arteriosis opens D. Umbilical arteries become the fossa ovalis

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.13.04e With respect to the umbilical vessels, ductus venosus, ductus arteriosus and foramen ovale, describe the changes associated with birth and the ultimate postnatal fate of these structures with respect to the fetal circulation. HAPS Objective: K.13.04f Compare and contrast prenatal and postnatal circulatory pathways with respect to the fetal circulation. Learning Outcome: 12.17 Describe several special circulations: blood supply to the liver, blood supply to the brain, and fetal circulation. Section: 12.05 Topic: Fetal blood circulation

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

True / False Questions 149. The umbilical arteries carry oxygen-rich blood to the placenta. FALSE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.13.04d For each umbilical vessel and the major fetal blood vessels, state whether each vessel carries oxygen-rich, oxygen-poor or mixed blood, and explain why the different oxygen levels occur in these vessels with respect to the fetal circulation. Learning Outcome: 12.17 Describe several special circulations: blood supply to the liver, blood supply to the brain, and fetal circulation. Section: 12.05 Topic: Fetal blood circulation

Multiple Choice Questions 150. Which of the following is NOT a treatment for congestive heart failure? A. Diuretics - to increase urine output B. Disaccharides - to increase energy C. Digoxin - to increase heart contraction strength D. Dilators - to relax blood vessels

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: K.16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the cardiovascular system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 12.18 Describe the anatomical and physiological changes that occur in the cardiovascular system as we age. Section: 12.06 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

Check All That Apply Questions 151. Which are the two main types of strokes? Choose all that apply. __X__ Bleeding from a ruptured blood vessel _____ Myocardial infarction __X__ Blood clot blocking blood flow _____ Transient ischemic attack

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 12.18 Describe the anatomical and physiological changes that occur in the cardiovascular system as we age. Section: 12.06 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system

Multiple Choice Questions 152. Which of the following is NOT an effect of aging with the heart? A. Heart increases in size B. Valves thicken and become more rigid C. Resting heart rate increases D. Contraction strength decreases

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 12.18 Describe the anatomical and physiological changes that occur in the cardiovascular system as we age. Section: 12.06 Topic: Effects of aging on the cardiovascular system

153. Which of the following is NOT an effect of aging with the blood vessels? A. Increased blood pressure B. Increased atherosclerosis C. Increased varicose veins D. Increased incidence of coronary artery disease

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: K.16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 12.18 Describe the anatomical and physiological changes that occur in the cardiovascular system as we age. Section: 12.06 Topic: Effects of aging on the cardiovascular system

Chapter 12 - The Cardiovascular System

154. Which body system is NOT directly involved with helping to maintain blood pressure? A. Endocrine system B. Digestive system C. Muscular system D. Urinary system

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: K.15.02 Explain how the cardiovascular system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 12.19 Describe how the cardiovascular system works with other systems of the body to maintain homeostasis. Section: 12.07 Topic: General functions of the cardiovascular system

155. How does the skeletal system aid the cardiovascular system? A. Stores calcium needed for blood clotting B. Rib-cage protects the heart C. Red bone marrow produces RBCs D. All apply.

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

Chapter 13 The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

Check All That Apply Questions 1. Which are functions of the lymphatic system? Choose all that apply. __X__ Return excess tissue fluid to the bloodstream _____ Produce blood cells __X__ Fight infections __X__ Absorb fat-soluble nutrients in the digestive tract _____ Transport nutrients to the liver for processing

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.01.01 Describe the major functions of the lymphatic system. Learning Outcome: 13.01 Section: 13.01 Topic: General functions of the lymphatic system and lymph

True / False Questions 2. Dietary fats are absorbed by lacteals found in the haustra of the large intestine. FALSE Dietary fats are absorbed by lacteals found in the villi of the small intestine.

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

3. Red blood cells, found in lymphatic vessels and organs, help defend the body against disease. FALSE White blood cells, found in lymphatic vessels and organs, help defend the body against disease.

Multiple Choice Questions 4. What is the major difference between lymph and tissue fluid (interstitial fluid)? A. Lymph contains plasma proteins; tissue fluid does not. B. Tissue fluid contains more white blood cells than lymph. C. Their location: lymph is in lymphatic vessels, tissue fluid is in the tissues, between tissue cells. D. Lymph is found only in lymphatic organs like lymph nodes; tissue fluid is found in the lymphatic vessels.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.02.01 Compare and contrast whole blood, plasma, interstitial fluid, and lymph. Learning Outcome: 13.01 Section: 13.01 Topic: General functions of the lymphatic system and lymph

5. Which of the following form a continuous loop; fluid flows in one direction, but ends where it started, and continues in the same loop? A. Lymphatic vessels B. Blood vessels C. Both blood vessels and lymphatic vessels

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.02.04 Describe the path of lymph circulation. Learning Outcome: 13.02 Section: 13.01 Topic: Anatomy of lymphatic capillaries, vessels, trunks, and ducts

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

6. Blood is pushed through ______ by the pumping action of the heart. A. Lymphatic vessels B. Blood vessels C. Both blood vessels and lymphatic vessels

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.02.02 Compare and contrast lymphatic vessels and blood vessels in terms of structure and function. Learning Outcome: 13.02 Section: 13.01 Topic: Anatomy of lymphatic capillaries, vessels, trunks, and ducts

7. The right lymphatic duct drains lymph that comes from A. the right upper limb, right side of the head and neck. B. the body below the thorax, left upper limb, left side of head and neck. C. the entire body.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.02.04 Describe the path of lymph circulation. Learning Outcome: 13.02 Section: 13.01 Topic: Pathways of lymphatic drainage

8. The anatomy of larger lymphatic vessels is similar to A. capillaries. B. arterioles. C. large arteries. D. large veins.

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

9. Special lymphatic capillaries in the small intestines are called A. lymph nodes. B. lacteals. C. villi. D. lymph.

10. Lymph vessels are similar to cardiovascular A. arteries. B. veins. C. capillaries.

11. Which lymphatic structure enters the subclavian vein? A. Lymphatic duct B. Lymphatic vessel C. Lymphatic trunk D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.02.04 Describe the path of lymph circulation. Learning Outcome: 13.02 Section: 13.01 Topic: Pathways of lymphatic drainage

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

12. Edema is A. cancer of lymphoid tissue. B. swelling of lymph nodes due to infection. C. swelling due to excess tissue fluid. D. infection of a lymphatic vessel.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.02.04 Describe the mechanisms of lymph formation and circulation HAPS Objective: L.12.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the lymphatic and immune systems could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 13.02 Section: 13.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the lymphatic system

13. Lymphatic system vessels begin with A. lymphatic ducts. B. lymphatic vessels. C. lymphatic capillaries. D. lymph nodes.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.02.04 Describe the path of lymph circulation. Learning Outcome: 13.02 Section: 13.01 Topic: Pathways of lymphatic drainage

True / False Questions 14. Contraction of smooth muscle in the walls of lymphatic vessels is very important to lymph movement. FALSE Skeletal muscle contraction is very important to lymph movement in lymphatic vessels.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.02.04 Describe the mechanisms of lymph formation and circulation Learning Outcome: 13.02 Section: 13.01 Topic: Pathways of lymphatic drainage

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

Multiple Choice Questions 15. The ability of the body to react to antigens and remain free of disease is A. immunity. B. homeostasis. C. immaturity. D. responsiveness.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.01.01 Describe the major functions of the lymphatic system. HAPS Objective: L.04.01 Compare and contrast innate (nonspecific) defenses with adaptive (specific) defenses. Learning Outcome: 13.03 Section: 13.02 Topic: General functions of the lymphatic system and lymph

16. Which of the following is a primary lymphatic organ? A. Lymph node B. Spleen C. Thymus D. Tonsil

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.03.02a Identify and describe the gross anatomical features of each organ or tissue for the lymph nodes, thymus, spleen, tonsils and other aggregations of mucosae-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT). Learning Outcome: 13.03 Section: 13.02 Topic: Anatomy of lymphatic cells, tissues, and organs

17. What does red bone marrow do? A. Produces red blood cells B. Produces white blood cells C. Produces red and white blood cells D. None apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.03.02d Describe the function of each organ or tissue for the lymph nodes, thymus, spleen, tonsils and other aggregations of mucosae-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT). Learning Outcome: 13.03 Section: 13.02 Topic: General functions of the lymphatic system and lymph

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

18. The thymus is A. larger in adults. B. larger in children. C. the same size in adults and children.

19. What type of immune cell reaches maturity in the thymus? A. B lymphocytes B. Neutrophils C. Monocytes D. T lymphocytes

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.03.02d Describe the function of each organ or tissue for the lymph nodes, thymus, spleen, tonsils and other aggregations of mucosae-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT). HAPS Objective: L.06.01 Distinguish between humoral and cell-mediated immunity. Learning Outcome: 13.03 Section: 13.02 Topic: Anatomy of lymphatic cells, tissues, and organs

True / False Questions 20. The spleen and thymus are primary lymphatic organs. FALSE The red bone marrow and thymus are primary lymphatic organs. The spleen is a secondary lymphatic organ.

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

21. Lymphocytes originate and/or mature in primary lymphatic organs. TRUE

22. The thymus is the most critical organ for immunity. TRUE

Multiple Choice Questions 23. Which of the following is NOT a secondary lymphatic organ? A. Thymus gland B. Spleen C. Lymph nodes D. Tonsils

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.03.02a Identify and describe the gross anatomical features of each organ or tissue for the lymph nodes, thymus, spleen, tonsils and other aggregations of mucosae-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT). Learning Outcome: 13.04 Section: 13.02 Topic: Anatomy of lymphatic cells, tissues, and organs

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

24. The red pulp in the spleen contains A. macrophages. B. lymphocytes. C. worn out red blood cells. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.03.02b Identify and describe the microscopic anatomy of each organ or tissue for the lymph nodes, thymus, spleen, tonsils and other aggregations of mucosae-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT). Learning Outcome: 13.04 Section: 13.02 Topic: Anatomy of lymphatic cells, tissues, and organs

25. The white pulp of the spleen contains A. macrophages. B. lymphocytes. C. worn out red blood cells. D. All apply.

26. The tonsils are composed of A. Peyer's patches. B. lymphatic nodules. C. stem cells.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.03.02a Identify and describe the gross anatomical features of each organ or tissue for the lymph nodes, thymus, spleen, tonsils and other aggregations of mucosae-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT). Learning Outcome: 13.04 Section: 13.02 Topic: Anatomy of lymphatic cells, tissues, and organs

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

27. Which of the following is NOT a tonsil? A. Pharyngeal B. Lingual C. Oral D. Palatine

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.03.02a Identify and describe the gross anatomical features of each organ or tissue for the lymph nodes, thymus, spleen, tonsils and other aggregations of mucosae-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT). Learning Outcome: 13.04 Section: 13.02 Topic: Anatomy of lymphatic cells, tissues, and organs

28. Which of the following are found in lymph nodes? A. B lymphocytes B. Macrophages C. T lymphocytes D. All apply.

29. Which of the following is NOT a major grouping of lymph nodes? A. Cervical B. Inguinal C. Popliteal D. Axillary

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.03.02c Describe the location in the body of each organ or tissue for the lymph nodes, thymus, spleen, tonsils and other aggregations of mucosae-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT). Learning Outcome: 13.04 Section: 13.02 Topic: Anatomy of lymphatic cells, tissues, and organs

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

30. Peyer's patches are lymphatic nodules found in the A. intestine. B. throat. C. stomach. D. liver.

31. Which of the following has a connective tissue capsule that encloses the lymphatic tissue? A. Tonsils B. Appendix C. Peyer's patches D. Lymph nodes

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.03.02a Identify and describe the gross anatomical features of each organ or tissue for the lymph nodes, thymus, spleen, tonsils and other aggregations of mucosae-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT). Learning Outcome: 13.04 Section: 13.02 Topic: Anatomy of lymphatic cells, tissues, and organs

32. Secondary lymphatic organs are where lymphocytes will A. learn to recognize self cells. B. grow and mature. C. encounter and bind to antigens. D. differentiate into different types of lymphocytes.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.03.02d Describe the function of each organ or tissue for the lymph nodes, thymus, spleen, tonsils and other aggregations of mucosae-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT). Learning Outcome: 13.04 Section: 13.02 Topic: Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

33. The spleen filters ______; lymph nodes filter _______. A. lymph; lymph B. blood; lymph C. blood; blood D. lymph; blood

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.01.01 Describe the major functions of the lymphatic system. Learning Outcome: 13.04 Section: 13.02 Topic: General functions of the lymphatic system and lymph

34. Lymphoma is A. cancer of lymphoid tissue. B. swelling of lymph nodes due to infection. C. swelling due to excess tissue fluid. D. infection of a lymphatic vessel.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the lymphatic and immune systems that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 13.04 Section: 13.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the lymphatic system

35. Lymphangitis is A. cancer of lymphoid tissue. B. swelling of lymph nodes due to infection. C. swelling due to excess tissue fluid. D. infection of a lymphatic vessel.

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

36. Lymphadenitis is A. cancer of lymphoid tissue. B. swelling of lymph nodes due to infection. C. swelling due to excess tissue fluid. D. infection of a lymphatic vessel.

37. Which of the following is NOT a nonspecific defense mechanism? A. Barriers to entry B. Antibodies C. Inflammation D. Phagocytosis

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.04.01 Compare and contrast innate (nonspecific) defenses with adaptive (specific) defenses. Learning Outcome: 13.05 Section: 13.03 Topic: Nonspecific immunity

38. Which of the following is NOT a physical barrier that helps prevent entry of microbes into the body? A. Intact skin B. Mucous membranes C. Stomach acid D. Ciliated cells

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.05.01 Name the surface membrane barriers and describe their physical, chemical, and microbiological mechanisms of defense. Learning Outcome: 13.05 Section: 13.03 Topic: Nonspecific immunity

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

39. Which of the following is NOT a chemical barrier that helps prevent entry of microbes into the body tissues? A. Lysozyme B. Sebum C. Normal flora D. Cytokines

40. Acid secretion occurs in the A. respiratory tract. B. intestine. C. stomach. D. arteries.

41. Ciliated cells line the A. respiratory tract. B. intestine. C. stomach. D. ureters

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

42. Helpful, non-harmful bacteria live in A. the lungs. B. the intestine. C. the mouth. D. both intestine and mouth.

43. Lysozyme is found in A. tears. B. saliva. C. urine. D. both tears and saliva.

44. An antibacterial enzyme that is present in saliva, tears, and sweat is A. antibodies. B. interferon. C. lysozyme. D. antigen.

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

Check All That Apply Questions 45. If the first lines of defense are penetrated by a disease-causing agent, the second line of defense will engage. Which are examples of the second line of defense? Choose all that apply. __X__ Inflammatory reaction __X__ Natural killer (NK) cells _____ Physical barriers such as skin and mucous membranes _____ Chemical barriers such as stomach acid

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.05.07b Summarize the cells and chemicals involved in the inflammatory process with respect to the inflammatory response. Learning Outcome: 13.05 Section: 13.03 Topic: Nonspecific immunity

Multiple Choice Questions 46. _______, released by damaged tissue and mast cells, causes capillaries to dilate and become more permeable. A. Histamine B. Serotonin C. Lysozyme D. Complement

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

47. Which of the following are the four signs of inflammation? A. Redness, swelling, pain, heat B. Swelling, cold, pain, cyanosis C. Pain, phagocytosis, redness, pus D. Heat, pus, swelling, pain

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.05.07c List and explain the cause of the four cardinal signs of inflammation with respect to the inflammatory response. Learning Outcome: 13.05 Section: 13.03 Topic: Nonspecific immunity

48. What specific process has been occurring if pus is present around an infected area? A. Swelling B. Bleeding C. Phagocytosis D. Coagulation

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.05.03 Describe the steps involved in phagocytosis and provide examples of important phagocytic cells in the body. Learning Outcome: 13.05 Section: 13.03 Topic: Nonspecific immunity

49. What occurs because of increased capillary permeability at the site of inflammation? A. Escaped fluids cause swelling. B. Increased pressure from fluid causes pain. C. Clotting factors move into tissues. D. All apply.

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

50. What nonspecific cells kill virus-infected cells and tumor cells by cell to cell contact? A. Mast cells B. Natural killer cells C. T lymphocytes D. B lymphocytes

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.05.04 Describe natural killer cells and discuss their function. Learning Outcome: 13.05 Section: 13.03 Topic: Nonspecific immunity

Check All That Apply Questions 51. Which describe complement? Choose all that apply. _____ Most complement proteins are made by T lymphocytes. _____ One type of complement protein is interferon. __X__ They are a group of plasma proteins. __X__ Some can poke holes in bacteria and cause them to rupture.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.05.05 Explain how complement and interferon function as antimicrobial chemicals. Learning Outcome: 13.05 Section: 13.03 Topic: Nonspecific immunity

Multiple Choice Questions 52. Interferon is a defense against A. bacteria-infected cells. B. virus-infected cells. C. fungus-infected cells. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.05.05 Explain how complement and interferon function as antimicrobial chemicals. Learning Outcome: 13.05 Section: 13.03 Topic: Nonspecific immunity

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

53. Interferon A. increases the activity of macrophages. B. makes the capillary more permeable. C. prevents viral reproduction. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.05.05 Explain how complement and interferon function as antimicrobial chemicals. Learning Outcome: 13.05 Section: 13.03 Topic: Nonspecific immunity

54. Which of the following is a form of nonspecific defense? A. Antibody-mediated immunity B. Cell-mediated immunity C. Natural killer cells D. All apply.

55. Portions of bacteria, viruses, molds, parasites, and cancer cells that cause specific responses from the immune system are called A. antibodies. B. macrophages. C. antigens. D. interferons.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.07.01 Define antigen and antigen receptor. Learning Outcome: 13.06 Section: 13.03 Topic: Antigens and antigen processing

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

56. T cells and B cells are A. antigens. B. lymphocytes. C. macrophages. D. neutrophils.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.06.01 Distinguish between humoral and cell-mediated immunity. HAPS Objective: L.08.01 Distinguish among the various types of lymphocytes, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, regulatory (or suppressor) T cells, B cells, plasma cells, and memory cells. Learning Outcome: 13.06 Section: 13.03 Topic: Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity

57. Which of the following produce antibodies? A. T lymphocytes B. Macrophages C. B lymphocytes D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.08.01 Distinguish among the various types of lymphocytes, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, regulatory (or suppressor) T cells, B cells, plasma cells, and memory cells. Learning Outcome: 13.06 Section: 13.03 Topic: Antibodies and their role in adaptive immunity Topic: Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity

58. B cells are responsible for A. cell-mediated immunity. B. inflammation. C. antibody-mediated immunity. D. nonspecific immunity.

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

59. Once a B cell has been activated by a specific antigen (an antigen binds to an antigen receptor on the B cell membrane), it will divide, making many copies of itself. This process is known as A. apoptosis. B. clonal selection. C. induced immunity. D. hypersensitivity.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.08.02c With respect to B cells and T cells, compare and contrast the mechanisms of antigen challenge and the clonal selection processes, including effector cells, helper cells, memory cells, and important cytokines. Learning Outcome: 13.06 Section: 13.03 Topic: Antibodies and their role in adaptive immunity Topic: Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity

60. Under the influence of cytokines from helper T cells, B cells enlarge and divide, forming A. plasma cells. B. memory cells. C. helper cells. D. plasma cells and memory cells.

61. Plasma cells produce A. antibodies. B. histamines. C. T cells. D. antigens.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.08.01 Distinguish among the various types of lymphocytes, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, regulatory (or suppressor) T cells, B cells, plasma cells, and memory cells. Learning Outcome: 13.06 Section: 13.03 Topic: Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

62. Antibody-mediated immunity is also known as A. cell-mediated immunity. B. neural-mediated immunity. C. humoral immunity. D. hormonal immunity.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.06.01 Distinguish between humoral and cell-mediated immunity. Learning Outcome: 13.06 Section: 13.03 Topic: Antibodies and their role in adaptive immunity

63. Apoptosis is A. a form of cell division. B. the production of antibodies. C. a nonspecific defense. D. programmed cell death.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.08.03 Describe the contribution of clonal deletion to immunity. Learning Outcome: 13.06 Section: 13.03 Topic: Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity

64. Antibodies bind to A. foreign substances. B. antigens. C. bacteria. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.09.02 Describe mechanisms of antibody action and correlate mechanisms with effector functions. Learning Outcome: 13.06 Section: 13.03 Topic: Antibodies and their role in adaptive immunity

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

65. Which of the following is NOT true of antibodies? A. They have a constant region that binds to an antigen. B. They are a Y-shaped protein molecule. C. There are five classes of antibodies. D. Antibodies can act by neutralization.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.09.01 Describe antibody structure. Learning Outcome: 13.06 Section: 13.03 Topic: Antibodies and their role in adaptive immunity

66. Which type of antibody is the main one in circulation? A. IgA B. IgM C. IgG D. IgE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.09.03 List the five classes of antibodies and discuss structural and functional features that distinguish each class. Learning Outcome: 13.06 Section: 13.03 Topic: Antibodies and their role in adaptive immunity

67. Which type of antibody is found in breast milk, saliva, and other body secretions? A. IgA B. IgD C. IgE D. IgG

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

68. Which type of antibody is involved in causing immediate allergic reactions? A. IgA B. IgD C. IgG D. IgE

69. Which type of antibody is the first one made by a newborn and generally the first one to combat an infection? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgE D. IgD

70. Which of the following is NOT an action of antibodies with the antigen? A. Neutralize bacterial toxins by coating them B. Make a cluster of antigen-antibody complexes C. Make the antigen more susceptible to phagocytosis D. All apply.

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

Check All That Apply Questions 71. Which are true about the actions of antibodies? Choose all that apply. __X__ Antibodies bind to an antigen, marking it for destruction by phagocytes. _____ Antibodies poke holes in bacteria, causing them to burst. _____ Antibodies initiate the inflammatory response by causing capillaries to become leaky. __X__ Antibodies coat bacterial toxins, disabling them.

Multiple Choice Questions 72. During clonal selection, most B cells become plasma cells, but others will become A. antibodies. B. antigens. C. phagocytes. D. memory B cells.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.08.01 Distinguish among the various types of lymphocytes, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, regulatory (or suppressor) T cells, B cells, plasma cells, and memory cells. HAPS Objective: L.08.02c With respect to B cells and T cells, compare and contrast the mechanisms of antigen challenge and the clonal selection processes, including effector cells, helper cells, memory cells, and important cytokines. Learning Outcome: 13.06 Section: 13.03 Topic: Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

73. What type of cells allow for long-term protection against antigens? A. Plasma cells B. Memory B cells C. Antibodies D. Helper T cells

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.08.01 Distinguish among the various types of lymphocytes, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, regulatory (or suppressor) T cells, B cells, plasma cells, and memory cells. Learning Outcome: 13.06 Section: 13.03 Topic: Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity

74. T cells are responsible for A. antibody-mediated immunity. B. cell-mediated immunity. C. plasma cells. D. memory cells.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.06.01 Distinguish between humoral and cell-mediated immunity. Learning Outcome: 13.06 Section: 13.03 Topic: Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity

75. T cells A. are activated by an antigen-presenting cell. B. may stimulate B cells. C. release cytokines. D. All apply.

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

76. Which of the following is NOT true of human MHC proteins? A. They are called HLA (human leukocyte antigens). B. They are self-antigens. C. They are linked to foreign antigens to activate a B cell. D. They are found on all of one's body cells.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.07.03a With respect to major histocompatibility complex (MHC), define MHC. Learning Outcome: 13.06 Section: 13.03 Topic: Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity

77. An antigen-presenting cell (APC) is a A. red blood cell. B. macrophage. C. helper T cell. D. B cell.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.07.05 Explain the role of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and provide examples of cells that function as APCs. Learning Outcome: 13.06 Section: 13.03 Topic: Antigens and antigen processing

78. What happens after a T cell has been activated for a specific antigen? A. Produces cytokines B. Undergoes clonal expansion C. Produces antibodies D. Both produces cytokines and undergoes clonal expansion

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

79. Cytotoxic T cells may attack A. antigen-bearing cells. B. cancer cells. C. virus-infected cells. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.08.02d With respect to B cells and T cells, compare and contrast the defense mechanisms and functions. Learning Outcome: 13.06 Section: 13.03 Topic: Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity

Check All That Apply Questions 80. Cytotoxic T cells can attack (choose all that apply): _____ antibodies. __X__ antigens. __X__ viral-infected cells. __X__ cancerous cells.

Multiple Choice Questions 81. HIV-1 infects A. B cells. B. CD4 (helper T cells). C. CD8 (cytotoxic T cells). D. memory T cells.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the lymphatic and immune systems that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 13.06 Section: 13.03 Topic: Clinical applications of the lymphatic system

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

82. Which molecule from a cytotoxic T cell creates holes in plasma membranes of virusinfected or cancer cells? A. Cytokine B. Interleukin C. Perforin D. Interferon

83. HIV-1 is transmitted by A. sexual contact. B. sharing needles. C. blood. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the lymphatic and immune systems that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 13.06 Section: 13.03 Topic: Clinical applications of the lymphatic system

84. Which of the following is NOT true of a category A stage of an HIV infection? A. Helper T count is 500 per mm3 or greater. B. An infected person is very contagious. C. Most infected people have no symptoms. D. HIV blood test is positive.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the lymphatic and immune systems that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 13.06 Section: 13.03 Topic: Clinical applications of the lymphatic system

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

85. Which of the following is NOT true of a category B stage of an HIV infection? A. Helper T count is less than 200 per mm3 B. Severe fatigue C. Persistent cough, fever, diarrhea D. Swollen lymph glands for over 3 months

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the lymphatic and immune systems that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 13.06 Section: 13.03 Topic: Clinical applications of the lymphatic system

86. Which of the following is NOT true of a category C stage of an HIV infection? A. Development of non-life-threatening infections such as thrush and herpes simplex B. Severe weight loss due to diarrhea and coughing C. Development of opportunistic infections D. Helper T count is 200 to 499 mm3

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the lymphatic and immune systems that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 13.06 Section: 13.03 Topic: Clinical applications of the lymphatic system

87. Which of the following is NOT an opportunistic disease that generally causes death for an AIDS patient? A. Kaposi's sarcoma (skin cancer) B. Pneumocystis carinii (pneumonia) C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB) D. Glomerulonephritis

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the lymphatic and immune systems that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 13.06 Section: 13.03 Topic: Clinical applications of the lymphatic system

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

True / False Questions 88. Memory B cells can produce a faster and more intense response to a subsequent exposure to the antigen. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.08.02c With respect to B cells and T cells, compare and contrast the mechanisms of antigen challenge and the clonal selection processes, including effector cells, helper cells, memory cells, and important cytokines. HAPS Objective: L.09.04 Interpret a graph of the primary and secondary immune response, in terms of the relative concentrations of different classes of antibodies produced over time. Learning Outcome: 13.06 Section: 13.03 Topic: Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity

Multiple Choice Questions 89. Cytokines used as immunotherapeutic drugs can A. cause cancer cells to undergo apoptosis. B. enhance T cell activity against cancer cells. C. increase antibody activity against cancer cells. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.10.03 Provide examples of how applied immunology can be used to diagnose, treat and prevent diseases. Learning Outcome: 13.07 Section: 13.03 Topic: Applied immunology Topic: Clinical applications of the lymphatic system

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

True / False Questions 90. Interleukins are a type of antibody used to fight cancer. FALSE Interleukins are a type of cytokine used to fight cancer.

Multiple Choice Questions 91. Active immunity A. occurs when antibodies are given. B. occurs as a result of exposure to antigens. C. means that antibodies are not made by the recipient. D. occurs against an individual's own tissue.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.10.01 Distinguish between active and passive immunity. Learning Outcome: 13.08 Section: 13.04 Topic: Adaptive immunity

92. Which is an example of passive immunity? A. An injection of a weakened virus B. The transfer of antibodies from mother to fetus through the placenta C. Becoming sick with a virus

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.10.01 Distinguish between active and passive immunity. Learning Outcome: 13.08 Section: 13.04 Topic: Antibodies and their role in adaptive immunity

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

93. A vaccine contains A. antigens. B. antibodies. C. antihistamines. D. lymphocytes.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.10.02 Describe natural and artificial examples of both active and passive immunity. Learning Outcome: 13.08 Section: 13.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the lymphatic system

94. After being exposed to hepatitis A, a patient is injected with anti-hepatitis antibodies. This is an example of A. artificial active immunity. B. artificial passive immunity. C. natural active immunity. D. natural passive immunity.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: L.10.02 Describe natural and artificial examples of both active and passive immunity. Learning Outcome: 13.08 Section: 13.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the lymphatic system

95. After being exposed to the flu, a patient starts making anti-flu virus antibodies. This is an example of A. artificial active immunity. B. artificial passive immunity. C. natural active immunity. D. natural passive immunity.

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

96. Which type of immunity is temporary? A. Active B. Passive

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.10.01 Distinguish between active and passive immunity. Learning Outcome: 13.08 Section: 13.04 Topic: Adaptive immunity

97. A booster A. raises the antibody titer. B. contains antibodies against the pathogen it protects against. C. is an example of natural immunity.

98. In which case does the recipient start making antibodies to the specific disease? A. Passive immunity B. Active immunity C. When given the antibodies D. Passive immunity and when given the antibodies

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.10.01 Distinguish between active and passive immunity. Learning Outcome: 13.08 Section: 13.04 Topic: Adaptive immunity

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

99. Antibodies given to individuals have come from all of the following EXCEPT A. recovered donors. B. genetically engineered bacteria. C. individuals never exposed to the disease. D. monoclonal antibodies.

100. As a child, you had the chicken pox. You are exposed to chicken pox several years later, but you do not get them again. What kind of immunity do you have? A. Natural active B. Artificial active C. Natural passive D. Artificial passive

Bloom's Level: 3. Apply HAPS Objective: L.10.02 Describe natural and artificial examples of both active and passive immunity. Learning Outcome: 13.08 Section: 13.04 Topic: Adaptive immunity

101. As a child, you received an MMR immunization against measles, mumps, and rubella. What kind of immunity do you have against these diseases? A. Natural active B. Artificial active C. Natural passive D. Artificial passive

Bloom's Level: 3. Apply HAPS Objective: L.10.02 Describe natural and artificial examples of both active and passive immunity. Learning Outcome: 13.08 Section: 13.04 Topic: Adaptive immunity

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

102. A mother who had the measles as a child, has a baby. At the age of 1 month, the baby is exposed to measles but does not get sick. What kind of immunity does the baby have? A. Natural active B. Artificial active C. Natural passive D. Artificial passive

Bloom's Level: 3. Apply HAPS Objective: L.10.02 Describe natural and artificial examples of both active and passive immunity. Learning Outcome: 13.08 Section: 13.04 Topic: Adaptive immunity

103. Which of the following is NOT true about monoclonal antibodies? A. They come from different B cells and plasma cells. B. Can be used to detect pregnancy. C. Can be produced in the lab using mice and cancer cells. D. Can be used to treat cancer.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.10.03 Provide examples of how applied immunology can be used to diagnose, treat and prevent diseases. Learning Outcome: 13.08 Section: 13.04 Topic: Applied immunology

104. Allergies are due to A. an excess number of antigens. B. not enough antibodies formed. C. antibodies being produced for substances that ordinarily would do no harm to the body. D. transplanted tissue.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the lymphatic and immune systems that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 13.09 Section: 13.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the lymphatic system

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

105. An immediate allergic response is caused by A. memory T cells at the site of allergen contact. B. IgE antibodies attached to mast cells and basophils that then release histamine. C. cytotoxic T cells attacking cells at the site of allergen contact. D. None apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the lymphatic and immune systems that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 13.09 Section: 13.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the lymphatic system

106. An immediate allergic response that occurs when an allergen enters the bloodstream is called A. delayed allergic response. B. IgE-mediated allergic response. C. anaphylactic shock. D. T-cell mediated allergic response.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the lymphatic and immune systems that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 13.09 Section: 13.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the lymphatic system

107. Which of the following is NOT true about anaphylactic shock? A. There is a sudden and life-threatening rise in blood pressure. B. There is a sudden and life-threatening drop in blood pressure. C. Histamine has increased the permeability of capillaries. D. Epinephrine can delay the body's adverse response.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.12.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the lymphatic and immune systems could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 13.09 Section: 13.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the lymphatic system

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

108. Which of the following is NOT true about delayed allergic response? A. It is initiated by memory T cells. B. It is regulated by interferon released by the T cells and macrophages. C. The TB test is an example of this type of allergic response. D. Contact dermatitis such as poison ivy is an example of this type of allergic response.

109. Tissue rejection from transplants occurs because A. the HLA antigens of the donor do not match the recipient. B. too many antibodies from the donor were transferred to the recipient during transplantation. C. the immune system attacks "self" cells.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.07.03c With respect to major histocompatibility complex (MHC), explain the function of class I and class II MHC in adaptive immunity. HAPS Objective: L.11.02 Explain how the lymphatic and immune systems relate to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 13.09 Section: 13.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the lymphatic system

110. What is meant by an autoimmune disease? A. Antibodies are produced automatically. B. Antibodies act against the individual's own tissue. C. Antibodies are not produced. D. Antigens resist antibodies.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the lymphatic and immune systems that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 13.09 Section: 13.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the lymphatic system

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

111. In __________, antibodies attack the neuromuscular junction. A. rheumatoid arthritis B. multiple sclerosis C. myasthenia gravis D. systemic lupus erythematosus

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the lymphatic and immune systems that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 13.09 Section: 13.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the lymphatic system

112. What autoimmune disease affects the joints? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the lymphatic and immune systems that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 13.09 Section: 13.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the lymphatic system

113. In which autoimmune disease do antibodies attack the myelin sheath? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the lymphatic and immune systems that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 13.09 Section: 13.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the lymphatic system

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

True / False Questions 114. The body's response to IgE-mediated allergic reaction is the same no matter where the site of allergen contact is. FALSE The body's response to IgE-mediated allergic reaction is different, depending on where the site of allergen contact is.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the lymphatic and immune systems that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 13.09 Section: 13.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the lymphatic system

Multiple Choice Questions 115. Which of the following is NOT an effect of aging on the immune system? A. Response to vaccines increases B. A reduced amount of T cells that do not respond to foreign antigens C. B cells do not clone D. Thymus gland degenerates

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the lymphatic and immune systems that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 13.10 Section: 13.05 Topic: Effects of aging on the lymphatic system

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

True / False Questions 116. There are fewer T cells as we age because the thyroid gland decreases in size. FALSE There are fewer T cells as we age because the thymus gland decreases in size.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the lymphatic and immune systems that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 13.10 Section: 13.05 Topic: Effects of aging on the lymphatic system

Multiple Choice Questions 117. Which of the following is NOT a B cell problem in aging? A. Antibodies do not function well B. Clones fail to form C. Antibodies attack self cells D. Increased incidence of cancer

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the lymphatic and immune systems that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 13.10 Section: 13.05 Topic: Effects of aging on the lymphatic system

Chapter 13 - The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses

True / False Questions 118. The respiratory system is important to the movement of blood, but not the movement of lymph. FALSE The respiratory system is important to the movement of blood AND the movement of lymph.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: L.11.02 Explain how the lymphatic and immune systems relate to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 13.11 Section: 13.06 Topic: General functions of the lymphatic system and lymph

119. Lacteals, Peyer's patches, and the appendix are parts of the digestive system that aid the lymphatic and immune systems. TRUE

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

Chapter 14 The Respiratory System

True / False Questions 1. External respiration is defined as bringing outside air into the lungs. FALSE External respiration is gas exchange between alveolar air and the blood in the lungs.

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.01.02 Describe the four respiratory processes - ventilation, external respiration (gas exchange at lung), internal respiration (gas exchange at body tissues), and cellular respiration. Learning Outcome: 14.01 Describe the events that occur during respiration. Section: 14.01 Topic: General functions of the respiratory system

Check All That Apply Questions 2. Which processes are included in the definition of "respiration?" Choose all that apply. __X__ Ventilation _____ The movement of cilia in the respiratory tract __X__ Gas exchange between the air in the lungs and the blood __X__ The transport of oxygen from the lungs to the tissues

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

Multiple Choice Questions 3. What is the primary function of the respiratory system? A. Ventilation B. Gas exchange C. Transport of gases D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.01.01 Describe the major functions of the respiratory system. Learning Outcome: 14.01 Describe the events that occur during respiration. Section: 14.01 Topic: General functions of the respiratory system

4. What is external respiration? A. Ventilation (breathing) B. Gas exchange between blood and tissue fluid C. Gas exchange between air and blood D. Production of ATP

5. What is internal respiration? A. Ventilation (breathing) B. Gas exchange between blood and tissue fluid C. Gas exchange between air and blood D. Production of ATP

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

6. Which of the following is the correct sequence when tracing the path of air from the nose to the lungs? A. Nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles B. Nasal cavity, larynx, pharynx, bronchi, bronchioles, trachea C. Nasal cavity, bronchi, bronchioles, trachea, pharynx, larynx D. Nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles, bronchi

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.02.03 List, in order, the respiratory structures that air passes through during inspiration. Learning Outcome: 14.02 Describe the structure and functions of the respiratory system organs. Section: 14.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the lower respiratory tract Topic: Gross anatomy of the upper respiratory tract

7. What is the purpose of the mucociliary escalator mechanism? A. To inhale air B. To screen out, kill, and remove dust, dirt, and pathogens from inhaled air C. To transport gases through the mucous membrane D. To move inhaled air through the rest of the respiratory tract

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.02.06c State the function of each structure for each of the following - respiratory (nasal) mucosa, the layers of the tracheal wall, the bronchi and bronchioles, the three cell types found in alveoli, and the respiratory membrane. Learning Outcome: 14.02 Describe the structure and functions of the respiratory system organs. Section: 14.01 Topic: General functions of the respiratory system

8. Which of the following is NOT a function of the nasal conchae? A. Provide an area for the olfactory receptors B. Increase surface area for moistening inhaled air C. Create turbulence to help clean the air D. Increase surface area to trap moisture from exhaled air

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.02.04c State the function of each structure for each of the following - nasal cavities, paranasa sinuses, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs, pleural membranes, pulmonary blood vessels and nerves, thoracic and pleural cavities, and diaphragm. Learning Outcome: 14.02 Describe the structure and functions of the respiratory system organs. Section: 14.01 Topic: General functions of the respiratory system

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

9. What is the purpose of the paranasal sinuses that connect with the nasal cavity? A. Gas exchange B. Reduce the weight of the skull C. Resonance chambers for speech D. Both reduce the weight of the skull and resonance chambers for speech.

10. Which portion of the respiratory tract is also a passageway for food? A. Larynx B. Trachea C. Bronchi D. Pharynx

11. Which of the following is NOT a division of the pharynx? A. Oropharynx B. Laryngopharynx C. Sinopharynx D. Nasopharynx

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.02.04b Describe the gross anatomical features of each structure for each of the following - nasal cavities, paranasa sinuses, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs, pleural membranes, pulmonary blood vessels and nerves, thoracic and pleural cavities, and diaphragm. Learning Outcome: 14.02 Describe the structure and functions of the respiratory system organs. Section: 14.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the upper respiratory tract

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

Check All That Apply Questions 12. Which are paranasal sinuses? Choose all that apply. _____ Superior _____ Pharyngeal __X__ Frontal __X__ Ethmoid _____ Inferior

13. Which features filter inhaled air? Choose all that apply. __X__ Mucus __X__ Cilia _____ Surfactant _____ Epiglottis

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

Multiple Choice Questions 14. What is the first lymphatic tissue that inspired air encounters? A. Palatine tonsils B. Uvula C. Pharyngeal tonsil (adenoids) D. Epiglottis

15. The common name for the larynx is the A. throat. B. voice box. C. windpipe. D. Adam's apple.

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.02.04a Identify each structure for each of the following - nasal cavities, paranasa sinuses, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs, pleural membranes, pulmonary blood vessels and nerves, thoracic and pleural cavities, and diaphragm. Learning Outcome: 14.02 Describe the structure and functions of the respiratory system organs. Section: 14.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the upper respiratory tract

16. The epiglottis A. contains vocal cords. B. contains cilia. C. prevents food from entering the air passage. D. pushes air into the lungs.

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

17. Sound is normally produced from A. air moving down through the vocal cords. B. the epiglottis vibrating. C. air moving up through the vocal cords. D. All apply.

18. The glottis is A. a flap of cartilage folding over the opening of the larynx. B. the passageway for air through the posterior nasal cavity. C. the passageway for air through the vocal cords. D. All apply.

19. Why is the trachea supported by C-shaped cartilage rings instead of O-shaped (complete rings)? A. To hold it open all the time B. To allow the esophagus to expand when swallowing C. To produce sound as air passes through

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

20. What type of tissue forms the mucosa of the trachea? A. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium B. Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium C. Stratified squamous epithelium D. Simple columnar epithelium

21. Following the path of air traveling through the respiratory system, as the bronchi get smaller, the amount of _____ in their walls decreases. A. mucus B. cartilage C. smooth muscle

22. What portion of the bronchial tree supplies each lobe of the lungs? A. Primary bronchi B. Secondary bronchi C. Tertiary bronchi D. Bronchioles

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

23. What structures enter the lungs? A. Secondary bronchi B. Alveoli C. Primary bronchi D. Trachea

24. Which serous membrane lines the thoracic cavity? A. Visceral pleura B. Visceral peritoneum C. Parietal pericardium D. Parietal pleura

25. The visceral pleura A. is a mucous membrane. B. is attached to the lung's surface. C. lines the thoracic cavity. D. All apply.

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

26. Which of the following is a function of the serous fluid of the pleurae? A. Increases friction between the two pleurae B. Causes the two pleurae to stick to each other C. Creates surface tension that holds the lungs open against the chest wall D. All of the choices are functions.

27. The __________ are air sacs where gas exchange occurs. A. larynx B. alveoli C. bronchi D. trachea

28. An alveolar sac is made of A. simple squamous epithelium. B. pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium. C. smooth muscle and hyaline cartilage. D. stratified squamous epithelium.

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

29. What is the purpose of surfactant that lines each alveolus? A. Gives the lungs their elasticity B. Keeps the alveoli from collapsing C. Increases the surface tension of water

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.03.05 Explain how each of the following affect pulmonary ventilation: bronchiolar smooth muscle contractions, lung and thoracic wall compliance and recoil, and pulmonary surfactant and alveolar surface tension. Learning Outcome: 14.02 Describe the structure and functions of the respiratory system organs. Section: 14.01 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation

30. What characteristic(s) of the respiratory membrane facilitate(s) gas exchange? A. Large amount of tissue fluid to dissolve the gases B. Simple squamous epithelium of the alveolus and capillaries C. Small surface area D. Large groups of red blood cells in contact with the membrane

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.02.06b Describe the microscopic anatomy of each structure for each of the following - respiratory (nasal) mucosa, the layers of the tracheal wall, the bronchi and bronchioles, the three cell types found in alveoli, and the respiratory membrane. HAPS Objective: M.02.06c State the function of each structure for each of the following - respiratory (nasal) mucosa, the layers of the tracheal wall, the bronchi and bronchioles, the three cell types found in alveoli, and the respiratory membrane. Learning Outcome: 14.03 Explain the structure and importance of the respiratory membrane. Section: 14.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the respiratory tract

True / False Questions 31. Both the alveoli and lung capillaries have walls of simple squamous epithelium. TRUE

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

32. The respiratory membrane is made up of three layers of cells. FALSE The respiratory membrane has two cellular layers - alveolar simple squamous epithelium, the capillary simple squamous epithelium and a shared basement membrane.

Multiple Choice Questions 33. The pressure that forms between the two layers of the pleura is called A. intrapulmonary pressure. B. atmospheric pressure. C. intrapleural pressure. D. interthoracic pressure.

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.03.03 Define and state relative values for atmospheric pressure, intrapulmonary pressure, intrapleural pressure, and transpulmonary pressure. Learning Outcome: 14.04 Outline the process of ventilation, including inspiration and expiration. Section: 14.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation

34. What force creates the intrapleural pressure between the visceral and parietal pleurae? A. Air pressure B. Hydrostatic pressure C. Osmotic pressure D. Surface tension

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.03.03 Define and state relative values for atmospheric pressure, intrapulmonary pressure, intrapleural pressure, and transpulmonary pressure. HAPS Objective: M.03.06 Decribe the forces that tend to collapse the lungs and those that normally oppose or prevent collapse. Learning Outcome: 14.04 Outline the process of ventilation, including inspiration and expiration. Section: 14.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

35. Intrapleural pressure must be _____ intrapulmonary pressure to keep the lungs inflated. A. less than B. greater than C. the same as

Bloom's Level: Understand HAPS Objective: M.03.03 Define and state relative values for atmospheric pressure, intrapulmonary pressure, intrapleural pressure, and transpulmonary pressure. HAPS Objective: M.03.06 Decribe the forces that tend to collapse the lungs and those that normally oppose or prevent collapse. Learning Outcome: 14.04 Outline the process of ventilation, including inspiration and expiration. Section: 14.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation

36. The diaphragm is A. a skeletal muscle. B. the floor of the chest cavity. C. involved in breathing. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.02.04a Identify each structure for each of the following - nasal cavities, paranasa sinuses, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs, pleural membranes, pulmonary blood vessels and nerves, thoracic and pleural cavities, and diaphragm. Learning Outcome: 14.04 Outline the process of ventilation, including inspiration and expiration. Section: 14.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation

Check All That Apply Questions 37. Which are true of the diaphragm? Choose all that apply. _____ It is made of smooth muscle. __X__ It is made of skeletal muscle. __X__ Contraction of it increases the size of the lungs. _____ Relaxation of it increases the size of the lungs.

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.03.02 Identify the muscles used during quiet inspiration, during forced inspiration, and during forced expiration, as well as the nerves responsible for stimulating those muscles. Learning Outcome: 14.04 Outline the process of ventilation, including inspiration and expiration. Section: 14.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

38. Which muscles contract during inspiration? Choose all that apply. __X__ External intercostals _____ Internal intercostals _____ Trachealis __X__ Diaphragm

Multiple Choice Questions 39. Contraction of the respiratory muscles causes the thoracic cavity to ______ in volume. A. increase B. decrease C. remain unchanged

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.03.04 State Boyle's Law and relate this law to the specific sequence of events (muscle contractions/relaxations and pressure/volume changes) causing inspiration and expiration. Learning Outcome: 14.04 Outline the process of ventilation, including inspiration and expiration. Section: 14.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation

40. As the volume of the thoracic cavity increases due to the contraction of the muscles of inspiration, what occurs in the lungs and alveoli? A. lung and alveolar volumes increase and intrapulmonary pressure increases B. lung and alveolar volumes increase and intrapulmonary pressure decreases C. lung and alveolar volumes decrease and intrapulmonary pressure increases D. lung and alveolar volumes decrease and intrapulmonary pressure decreases

Bloom's Level: Understand HAPS Objective: M.03.04 State Boyle's Law and relate this law to the specific sequence of events (muscle contractions/relaxations and pressure/volume changes) causing inspiration and expiration. Learning Outcome: 14.04 Outline the process of ventilation, including inspiration and expiration. Section: 14.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

41. The drop in pressure in the alveoli to below atmospheric pressure will A. draw external air into the lungs. B. push internal air out of the lungs. C. have no effect on air movement.

42. Which of the following muscles contract to start normal expiration? A. Diaphragm B. Internal intercostals C. External intercostals D. No muscles contract

43. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for expiration? A. Lung volume increases, alveolar volume increases, alveolar pressure increases B. Lung volume increases, alveolar volume decreases, alveolar pressure decreases C. Lung volume decreases, alveolar volume decreases, alveolar pressure increases D. Lung volume decreases, alveolar volume increases, alveolar pressure decreases

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

44. Which muscles contract for a forced expiration? A. External intercostal muscles and internal intercostal muscles B. Internal intercostal muscles and abdominal muscles C. Abdominal muscles and the diaphragm D. External intercostal muscles and the diaphragm

45. An instrument that is used to measure lung volumes is a A. stethoscope. B. microscope. C. spirometer. D. sphygmomanometer.

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.04.01 Define, identify, and determine values for the respiratory volumes (IRV, TV, ERV, and RV) and the respiratory capacities (IC, FRC, VC, and TLC). Learning Outcome: 14.05 Describe vital capacity and its relationship to other measurements of breathing capacity. Section: 14.02 Topic: Pulmonary air volumes and capacities

46. Residual volume is A. air remaining in the alveoli after very deep exhalation. B. air moved in and out with each breath. C. maximum volume of air moved in and out during a single deep breath. D. air that remains in the passageways but not used for gas exchange.

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

47. Vital capacity is A. air remaining in lungs after very deep exhalation. B. air moved in and out with each breath. C. maximum volume of air moved in and out during a single deep breath. D. Inhaling the maximum amount of air.

48. Tidal volume is A. air remaining in lungs after very deep exhalation. B. air moved in and out with each normal breath. C. maximum volume of air moved in and out during a single deep breath.

49. Average tidal volume is approximately A. 1500 mL. B. 2900 mL. C. 1000 mL. D. 500 mL.

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

True / False Questions 50. The extra air inhaled by taking a big, deep breath is the inspiratory capacity. FALSE The extra air inhaled by taking a big, deep breath is the inspiratory reserve volume.

51. Total lung volume is approximately 5800 mLs. TRUE

Multiple Choice Questions 52. Air that is in the airways, but not in the alveoli for gas exchange, is called the A. residual volume. B. dead-space air. C. functional reserve volume. D. None apply.

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.04.03 Define anatomical dead space and explain the effect of anatomical dead space on alveolar ventilation and on the composition of alveolar and expired air. Learning Outcome: 14.05 Describe vital capacity and its relationship to other measurements of breathing capacity. Section: 14.02 Topic: Pulmonary air volumes and capacities

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

53. The primary respiratory control center is located in the A. pons. B. midbrain. C. medulla oblongata. D. cerebellum.

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.07.01 Describe the locations and functions of the brainstem respiratory centers. Learning Outcome: 14.06 Tell where the respiratory center is located, and explain how it controls the normal breathing rate. Section: 14.02 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation

54. Impulses from the primary respiratory center to the respiratory muscles will initiate A. contraction for expiration. B. contraction for inspiration. C. relaxation for expiration. D. relaxation for inspiration.

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.07.01 Describe the locations and functions of the brainstem respiratory centers. HAPS Objective: M.07.02 List and describe the major chemical and neural stimuli to the respiratory centers. Learning Outcome: 14.06 Tell where the respiratory center is located, and explain how it controls the normal breathing rate. Section: 14.02 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation

55. A lack of impulses from the primary respiratory center to the respiratory muscles will initiate A. contraction for expiration. B. contraction for inspiration. C. relaxation for expiration. D. relaxation for inspiration.

Bloom's Level: Understand HAPS Objective: M.07.01 Describe the locations and functions of the brainstem respiratory centers. HAPS Objective: M.07.02 List and describe the major chemical and neural stimuli to the respiratory centers. Learning Outcome: 14.06 Tell where the respiratory center is located, and explain how it controls the normal breathing rate. Section: 14.02 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

56. A secondary respiratory center is found in the _______ that helps ventilation to become smooth and rhythmic. A. pons B. midbrain C. medulla oblongata D. cerebellum

57. What nerve innervates the diaphragm? A. Vagus B. Intercostals C. Phrenic D. None apply.

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.03.02 Identify the muscles used during quiet inspiration, during forced inspiration, and during forced expiration, as well as the nerves responsible for stimulating those muscles. HAPS Objective: M.07.02 List and describe the major chemical and neural stimuli to the respiratory centers. Learning Outcome: 14.06 Tell where the respiratory center is located, and explain how it controls the normal breathing rate. Section: 14.02 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation

58. The Hering-Breuer reflex A. increases the rate of respiration. B. prevents the over-stretching of the lungs. C. decreases the rate of respiration. D. stimulates gas exchange in the lungs.

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.07.02 List and describe the major chemical and neural stimuli to the respiratory centers. Learning Outcome: 14.06 Tell where the respiratory center is located, and explain how it controls the normal breathing rate. Section: 14.02 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

59. The primary respiratory center is directly sensitive to _____ in the blood to modify respiration rate. A. carbon dioxide and oxygen levels B. hydrogen and oxygen levels C. carbon dioxide and hydrogen levels D. only oxygen levels

60. The carotid and aortic bodies will communicate with the primary respiratory center when A. blood oxygen levels are low. B. blood carbon dioxide levels are low. C. blood oxygen levels are high. D. blood acidity is high.

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.07.02 List and describe the major chemical and neural stimuli to the respiratory centers. HAPS Objective: M.07.03 Compare and contrast the central and peripheral chemoreceptors. Learning Outcome: 14.06 Tell where the respiratory center is located, and explain how it controls the normal breathing rate. Section: 14.02 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation

61. If blood carbon dioxide levels are low, the primary respiratory center will _______ the rate and depth of respiration. A. increase B. decrease C. not change

Bloom's Level: Understand HAPS Objective: M.07.02 List and describe the major chemical and neural stimuli to the respiratory centers. HAPS Objective: M.07.03 Compare and contrast the central and peripheral chemoreceptors. Learning Outcome: 14.06 Tell where the respiratory center is located, and explain how it controls the normal breathing rate. Section: 14.02 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

62. Eupnea is A. a bacterial infection. B. a nonrespiratory pattern. C. normal quiet breathing. D. a component of Cheyne-Stokes respiration.

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.07.04 Define hyperventilation, hypoventilation, panting, eupnea, hyperpnea, and apnea. Learning Outcome: 14.06 Tell where the respiratory center is located, and explain how it controls the normal breathing rate. Section: 14.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the respiratory system

63. Which of the following occurs in Cheyne-Stokes respiration? A. Deep inspiration B. Sudden, forceful expiration C. Deep, labored breathing followed by eupnea D. Alternating deep, labored breathing and apnea

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.07.02 List and describe the major chemical and neural stimuli to the respiratory centers. HAPS Objective: M.09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 14.06 Tell where the respiratory center is located, and explain how it controls the normal breathing rate. Section: 14.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the respiratory system

64. What is the term for a faster-than-normal breathing rate? A. Eupnea B. Apnea C. Hyperpnea D. Dyspnea

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

65. What principle causes the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the capillaries and the alveoli? A. Absorption B. Diffusion C. Secretion D. Active transport

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.05.02a Describe oxygen and carbon dioxide concentration gradients and net gas movements with respect to external respiration. Learning Outcome: 14.07 Describe the process of gas exchange in the lungs and the tissues. Section: 14.03 Topic: Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues

66. During external respiration, A. Hb becomes HbO2. B. CO2 becomes HCO3-. C. carbaminohemoglobin forms. D. Hb becomes HHb.

Bloom's Level: Understand HAPS Objective: M.05.02a Describe oxygen and carbon dioxide concentration gradients and net gas movements with respect to external respiration. Learning Outcome: 14.07 Describe the process of gas exchange in the lungs and the tissues. Section: 14.03 Topic: Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues

67. Before external respiration occurs, the concentration or partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli is _____ than in the pulmonary capillaries. A. higher B. lower C. no different

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.05.02b Analyze how oxygen and carbon dioxide movements are affected by changes in partial pressure gradients (e.g., at high altitude), surface area, diffusion distance, and solubility and molecular weight of the gases with respect to external respiration. Learning Outcome: 14.07 Describe the process of gas exchange in the lungs and the tissues. Section: 14.03 Topic: Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

68. Before external respiration occurs, the concentration or partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is _____ than in the pulmonary capillaries. A. higher B. lower C. no different

69. The concentration or partial pressure of carbon dioxide is __________ in tissue fluid than in arterial blood. A. higher B. lower C. the same in both

Bloom's Level: Understand HAPS Objective: M.05.03a Describe oxygen and carbon dioxide concentration gradients and net gas movements with respect to internal respiration. Learning Outcome: 14.07 Describe the process of gas exchange in the lungs and the tissues. Section: 14.03 Topic: Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues

70. In internal respiration, oxygen is diffusing from the A. tissue fluid into the capillary blood. B. capillaries into the venules. C. capillary blood into the tissue fluid. D. alveoli into the capillary blood.

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.05.03a Describe oxygen and carbon dioxide concentration gradients and net gas movements with respect to internal respiration. Learning Outcome: 14.07 Describe the process of gas exchange in the lungs and the tissues. Section: 14.03 Topic: Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

71. Hemoglobin assists in the transport of A. hydrogen ions. B. carbon dioxide. C. oxygen. D. hydrogen ions, carbon dioxide, and oxygen.

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.06.01b State the reversible chemical equation for oxygen binding to hemoglobin and predict how raising or lowering the partial pressure of oxygen will shift the equilibrium with respect to oxygen transport. Learning Outcome: 14.08 Explain how oxygen and carbon dioxide are transported in the blood. Section: 14.03 Topic: Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood

Check All That Apply Questions 72. In what ways is oxygen transported in the blood? Choose all that apply. __X__ Dissolved in plasma __X__ Bound to the heme part of hemoglobin _____ Bound to the globin part of hemoglobin _____ As bicarbonate ion

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.06.01a Describe the ways in which oxygen is transported in blood and discuss the relative importance of each to total oxygen transport with respect to oxygen transport. Learning Outcome: 14.08 Explain how oxygen and carbon dioxide are transported in the blood. Section: 14.03 Topic: Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

Multiple Choice Questions 73. Once hemoglobin has joined with oxygen, it is bright red and called A. oxyhemoglobin. B. carbaminohemoglobin. C. reduced hemoglobin. D. hemoglobin.

Check All That Apply Questions 74. How is carbon dioxide transported in the blood? Choose all that apply. _____ Bound to the heme part of hemoglobin __X__ Bound to the globin part of hemoglobin __X__ Dissolved in plasma __X__ As bicarbonate ions in plasma

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.06.03a Describe the ways in which carbon dioxide is transported in blood and discuss the relative importance of each to total carbon dioxide transport with respect to carbon dioxide transport. Learning Outcome: 14.08 Explain how oxygen and carbon dioxide are transported in the blood. Section: 14.03 Topic: Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

Multiple Choice Questions 75. Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported A. dissolved in the plasma. B. as carbaminohemoglobin. C. as bicarbonate ions in the plasma. D. All apply.

76. What chemical assists in the formation of the bicarbonate ions from carbon dioxide and water? A. Oxygen B. Carbonic anhydrase C. Carbaminohemoglobin D. Hydrochloric acid

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.06.03b State the reversible chemical equation for the reaction of carbon dioxide and water to carbonic acid and then to hydrogen ion and bicarbonate ion with respect to carbon dioxide transport. HAPS Objective: M.06.03g Explain how each of the following relates to carbon dioxide transport: carbonic anhydrase, hydrogen ions binding to hemoglobin and plasma proteins, the chloride ion shift, and the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation level with respect to carbon dioxide transport. Learning Outcome: 14.08 Explain how oxygen and carbon dioxide are transported in the blood. Section: 14.03 Topic: Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

77. After bicarbonate ion is produced in the red blood cell, it moves into the plasma and is replaced by a _____ to keep electrical neutrality. A. hydrogen ion B. calcium ion C. chloride ion D. potassium ion

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.06.03g Explain how each of the following relates to carbon dioxide transport: carbonic anhydrase, hydrogen ions binding to hemoglobin and plasma proteins, the chloride ion shift, and the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation level with respect to carbon dioxide transport. Learning Outcome: 14.08 Explain how oxygen and carbon dioxide are transported in the blood. Section: 14.03 Topic: Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood

78. If carbon dioxide levels in the blood increase, the pH will _________, causing ______________. A. increase; acidosis B. increase; alkalosis C. decrease; acidosis D. decrease; alkalosis

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.06.03c Explain the relationship between pH and hydrogen ion concentration with respect to carbon dioxide transport. Learning Outcome: 14.08 Explain how oxygen and carbon dioxide are transported in the blood. Section: 14.03 Topic: Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood

79. Hyperventilation could lead to A. acidosis. B. alkalosis. C. chloride shift. D. eupnea.

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.07.04 Define hyperventilation, hypoventilation, panting, eupnea, hyperpnea, and apnea. HAPS Objective: M.09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 14.08 Explain how oxygen and carbon dioxide are transported in the blood. Section: 14.03 Topic: Clinical applications of the respiratory system

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

80. A decrease in blood pH is known as ______, while an increase is known as _______. A. alkalosis; acidosis B. acidosis; alkalosis

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 14.08 Explain how oxygen and carbon dioxide are transported in the blood. Section: 14.03 Topic: Clinical applications of the respiratory system

True / False Questions 81. Pneumonia can be caused by either a virus or a bacterium. TRUE

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 14.09 Name and describe the various infections of the respiratory tract. Section: 14.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the respiratory system

Multiple Choice Questions 82. Emphysema A. is a viral infection. B. is a degenerative disease affecting the respiratory membrane. C. generally lasts only a short period of time. D. All apply.

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

83. __________ is a bacterial infection of the upper respiratory tract. A. Pulmonary fibrosis B. Strep throat C. Pneumonia D. Tuberculosis

84. How is otitis media related to the respiratory system? A. The paranasal sinuses are connected to the nasal cavities. B. The nasal cavities are connected to the pharynx. C. The middle ear is connected to the pharynx by the auditory tube. D. A virus can travel into the external auditory canal.

85. Which of the following is NOT true of acute bronchitis? A. Usually begins with a viral URI that leads to a bacterial infection B. A deep productive cough is present C. It produces thick fluid in the alveoli D. Involves the primary and secondary bronchi

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

86. __________ can be caused by coal dust and other small particles. A. Pulmonary fibrosis B. Strep throat C. Pneumonia D. Tuberculosis

87. __________ is detected by a skin test. A. Pulmonary fibrosis B. Strep throat C. Pneumonia D. Tuberculosis

88. In a restrictive pulmonary disorder, A. vital capacity is reduced. B. the lungs have lost their elasticity. C. the lungs can not inflate properly. D. All apply.

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

89. Which of the following is NOT a COPD? A. Chronic bronchitis B. Emphysema C. Acute bronchitis

90. Which of the following conditions is characterized by destruction of alveolar walls and breakdown of lung elastic tissue? A. Asthma B. Chronic bronchitis C. Tuberculosis D. Emphysema

91. Which of the following conditions is characterized by bronchial inflammation, spasms, and wheezing? A. Asthma B. Chronic bronchitis C. Tuberculosis D. Emphysema

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

92. Which of the following lung infections or disorders could be caused by smoking? A. Cancer and emphysema B. Pneumonia and tuberculosis C. Bronchitis and flu D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 14.10 Describe the effects of smoking on the respiratory tract and on overall health. Section: 14.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the respiratory system

93. What appears to be the first step in the development of lung cancer? A. Loss of cilia B. Metastasis C. Thickening and callusing of cells lining the primary bronchi D. Cells with atypical nuclei appear

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 14.10 Describe the effects of smoking on the respiratory tract and on overall health. Section: 14.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the respiratory system

True / False Questions 94. The second step in the progression of lung cancer is the loss of cilia. TRUE

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 14.10 Describe the effects of smoking on the respiratory tract and on overall health. Section: 14.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the respiratory system

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

95. Metastasis is a group of atypical cells in situ. FALSE Metastasis is a group of atypical cells that broke off the tumor and started a growth in a new area.

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 14.10 Describe the effects of smoking on the respiratory tract and on overall health. Section: 14.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the respiratory system

96. Chewing tobacco and snuff are safe alternatives to cigarette smoking. FALSE Chewing tobacco and snuff are NOT safe alternatives to cigarette smoking. The juices contain carcinogens.

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 14.10 Describe the effects of smoking on the respiratory tract and on overall health. Section: 14.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the respiratory system

97. Passive smokers have a 30% greater chance of developing lung cancer than do nonsmokers in a smoke-free environment. TRUE

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 14.10 Describe the effects of smoking on the respiratory tract and on overall health. Section: 14.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the respiratory system

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

98. Smoking is a major risk factor for autoimmune diseases. TRUE

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 14.10 Describe the effects of smoking on the respiratory tract and on overall health. Section: 14.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the respiratory system

99. Smoking increases the risk of heart attack but not the risk of stroke. FALSE Smoking increases the risk of BOTH heart attack and stroke.

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 14.10 Describe the effects of smoking on the respiratory tract and on overall health. Section: 14.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the respiratory system

100. The lungs' inability to recoil as we age reduces the residual volume. FALSE The lungs' inability to recoil as we age, reduces the expiratory reserve volume.

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 14.11 Describe the anatomical and physiological changes that occur in the respiratory system as we age. Section: 14.05 Topic: Effects of aging on the respiratory system

101. The respiratory membrane thickens with age, reducing the efficiency of gas exchange. TRUE

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

102. As one grows older, the ability to blow up balloons or to hold a note longer is reduced because inspiratory reserve volume is less. TRUE

Bloom's Level: Understand HAPS Objective: M.09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 14.11 Describe the anatomical and physiological changes that occur in the respiratory system as we age. Section: 14.05 Topic: Effects of aging on the respiratory system

103. As one ages, respiratory infections are increased because of reduced cilia activity of the respiratory tract. TRUE

Multiple Choice Questions 104. Which of the following is NOT an aging effect on the respiratory system? A. Gas exchange is less efficient B. Respiratory diseases are more prevalent C. Vital capacity increases D. Mucociliary escalator is less efficient

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

105. Which of the following is NOT true of hypoventilating? A. Breathing is at a lower-than-normal rate. B. Carbon dioxide levels decrease. C. pH decreases, causing acidosis. D. The brain will try to increase respiration to bring back homeostasis.

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.07.04 Define hyperventilation, hypoventilation, panting, eupnea, hyperpnea, and apnea. Learning Outcome: 14.12 Describe how the respiratory system works with other systems of the body to maintain homeostasis. Section: 14.06 Topic: Clinical applications of the respiratory system

106. Which of the following is NOT true of hyperventilating? A. Breathing is at a higher rate than normal. B. Carbon dioxide levels decrease. C. pH decreases, causing alkalosis. D. The brain will try to decrease respiration to bring back homeostasis.

107. The lungs are part of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone pathway that helps regulate A. blood pH. B. blood pressure. C. carbon dioxide levels. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.08.02 Explain how the respiratory system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 14.12 Describe how the respiratory system works with other systems of the body to maintain homeostasis. Section: 14.06 Topic: General functions of the respiratory system

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

True / False Questions 108. Regulation of pH is accomplished by changing blood oxygen levels. FALSE Regulation of pH is accomplished by changing carbon dioxide levels.

109. Any respiratory problem that hinders removal of carbon dioxide from the body can lead to alkalosis. FALSE Any respiratory problem that hinders removal of carbon dioxide from the body can lead to acidosis.

Bloom's Level: Remember HAPS Objective: M.08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the respiratory system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body. Learning Outcome: 14.12 Describe how the respiratory system works with other systems of the body to maintain homeostasis. Section: 14.06 Topic: Clinical applications of the respiratory system

110. An ACE-inhibitor would cause more angiotensin II to form in the lungs. FALSE An ACE-inhibitor would cause less angiotensin II to form in the lungs.

Bloom's Level: Understand HAPS Objective: M.08.02 Explain how the respiratory system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 14.12 Describe how the respiratory system works with other systems of the body to maintain homeostasis. Section: 14.06 Topic: Clinical applications of the respiratory system

Chapter 14 - The Respiratory System

Multiple Choice Questions 111. Which of the following is NOT a method used by the respiratory system to help the immune system fight against pathogens? A. Tonsils help activate T cells. B. Cilia sweep impurities out of the lungs. C. Mucus helps trap pathogens. D. Dust cell macrophages remove pathogens from the nasal cavity. Dust cell macrophages remove pathogens from the alveoli.

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

Chapter 15 The Digestive System

Multiple Choice Questions 1. Food is digested so that A. it can be swallowed. B. it can be converted to waste. C. nutrients are small enough to enter the cell. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N01.01 Describe the major functions of the digestive system. Learning Outcome: 15.01 Trace the path of food through the alimentary canal, and describe the general structure and function of each organ mentioned. Section: 15.01 Topic: General functions of the digestive system

2. Which of the following is NOT a function of the digestive system? A. Ingestion of food B. Absorption of nutrient molecules C. Elimination of indigestible wastes D. Movement of nutrients to the cells

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

3. The palate separates A. the small and the large intestine. B. the esophagus and the larynx. C. the oral and nasal cavities.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N02.02b Identify the hard and soft palates of the oral cavity and discuss their functions. Learning Outcome: 15.01 Trace the path of food through the alimentary canal, and describe the general structure and function of each organ mentioned. Section: 15.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract

4. What structures of the tongue help to handle food and contain the taste buds? A. Frenulum B. Papillae C. Uvula D. Palates

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N02.02c Describe the structures of the tongue, including taste buds and papillae, and discuss their functions. Learning Outcome: 15.01 Trace the path of food through the alimentary canal, and describe the general structure and function of each organ mentioned. Section: 15.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract

5. Which of the following is NOT a salivary gland? A. Submaxillary B. Parotid C. Sublingual D. Submandibular

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N03.01a Describe the location of the parotid, submandibular, and sublingual glands and their respective ducts in the salivary glands. Learning Outcome: 15.01 Trace the path of food through the alimentary canal, and describe the general structure and function of each organ mentioned. Section: 15.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

6. Which of the following is NOT a component of saliva? A. The enzyme salivary amylase B. Mucus C. Hydrochloric acid D. Water

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N03.01b Contrast the histology and the products of the serous cells and the mucous cells in the salivary glands. Learning Outcome: 15.01 Trace the path of food through the alimentary canal, and describe the general structure and function of each organ mentioned. Section: 15.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs

7. Which of the following is NOT a function of saliva? A. Starts the digestion of proteins B. Moistens food for swallowing C. Starts the digestion of starches D. Removes microbes

8. The oral cavity and its anatomical features are responsible for A. ingestion of food. B. mechanical digestion. C. swallowing. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N06.01b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in mechanical digestion and explain the details of the process for each. Learning Outcome: 15.01 Trace the path of food through the alimentary canal, and describe the general structure and function of each organ mentioned. Section: 15.01 Topic: General functions of the digestive system

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

9. The pharynx transports food into the A. stomach. B. esophagus. C. larynx. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N02.03 Identify the naso-, oro- and laryngopharynx and classify these regions with respect to passage of food and/or air through them. Learning Outcome: 15.01 Trace the path of food through the alimentary canal, and describe the general structure and function of each organ mentioned. Section: 15.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract

10. The material that leaves the mouth and enters the pharynx is called A. chyme. B. chyle. C. bolus. D. rugae.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N05.01 List the structures involved in the process of deglutition and explain how they function, including the changes in position of the glottis and larynx that prevent aspiration. Learning Outcome: 15.01 Trace the path of food through the alimentary canal, and describe the general structure and function of each organ mentioned. Section: 15.01 Topic: General functions of the digestive system

11. The function of the uvula is to prevent food from entering the A. larynx. B. pharynx. C. nasal cavity. D. mouth.

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

12. The wisdom teeth are also A. incisors. B. canines. C. premolars. D. molars.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N02.02d Identify the different types of teeth and discuss their functions. Learning Outcome: 15.01 Trace the path of food through the alimentary canal, and describe the general structure and function of each organ mentioned. Section: 15.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs

13. Which type of teeth function for biting? A. Incisors B. Canines C. Premolars D. Molars

14. The external surface of the crown of a tooth is covered with the A. dentin. B. pulp. C. enamel. D. caries.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N02.02f Identify the anatomical structures of a tooth in the oral cavity. Learning Outcome: 15.01 Trace the path of food through the alimentary canal, and describe the general structure and function of each organ mentioned. Section: 15.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

15. Fluoride treatment strengthens the A. enamel. B. dentin. C. pulp. D. periodontal membrane.

16. Which of the following is NOT a tonsil? A. Palatine B. Pharyngeal C. Laryngeal D. Lingual

17. Which region of the pharynx serves only the respiratory system? A. Laryngopharynx B. Nasopharynx C. Oropharynx

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

18. What mechanical process moves the bolus through the esophagus? A. Peristalsis B. Swallowing C. Segmentation D. Mass movement

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N05.02 Define the terms peristalsis, segmentation, migrating myoelectric complex, and mass movement, and discuss the role that these activities play in the function of various regions of the alimentary canal. HAPS Objective: N06.01b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in mechanical digestion and explain the details of the process for each. Learning Outcome: 15.03 Describe peristalsis, and state its function. Section: 15.01 Topic: General functions of the digestive system

19. A circular muscle that acts as a valve is called a A. diaphragm. B. epiglottis. C. sphincter. D. plicae.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N02.04a Describe the structure and discuss the function of the upper esophageal and lower esophageal (cardiac) sphincters. Learning Outcome: 15.01 Trace the path of food through the alimentary canal, and describe the general structure and function of each organ mentioned. Section: 15.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract

20. The region between the teeth, lips, and cheeks is called the A. gingiva. B. oropharynx. C. uvula. D. vestibule.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N02.02a Identify the boundaries of the oral cavity. Learning Outcome: 15.01 Trace the path of food through the alimentary canal, and describe the general structure and function of each organ mentioned. Section: 15.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

21. Carbohydrates are first chemically digested in the A. stomach. B. duodenum. C. mouth. D. large intestine.

22. Ingested carbohydrates are first chemically digested by A. pancreatic amylase. B. salivary amylase. C. pepsin. D. trypsin.

23. What digestive function occurs in the esophagus? A. Begin chemical digestion of proteins B. Provide saliva to moisten the bolus C. Transport the bolus from the pharynx to the stomach D. Help protect the body from disease

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

24. What prevents acid from backing up into the esophagus from the stomach? A. Pyloric sphincter B. Lower esophageal sphincter C. Rugae D. Adventitia

25. Which of the following is the correct order for the tissues of the digestive tract from external to internal? A. Muscularis, mucosa, submucosa, serosa B. Serosa, muscularis, submucosa, mucosa C. Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa D. Submucosa, mucosa, muscularis, serosa

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N02.01a Identify, and describe the histological structure and the function of, each of the four layers of the alimentary canal wall - the mucosa, the submucosa, the muscularis externa, and the serosa (visceral peritoneum). Learning Outcome: 15.02 Describe the wall of the small intestine, and relate its anatomy to nutrient absorption. Section: 15.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract

26. Which layer of the digestive tract wall is made of glandular epithelial cells and goblet cells? A. Mucosa B. Submucosa C. Muscularis D. Serosa

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

27. Which layer of the digestive tract wall contains lymphocytes, blood vessels, and nerves? A. Mucosa B. Submucosa C. Muscularis D. Serosa

28. How many layers of smooth muscle are generally found in the muscularis layer of the digestive tract wall? A. One B. Two C. Three D. None

29. What is the purpose of the secretions of the serosa? A. Digest carbohydrates B. Reduce acidity C. Allow abdominal organs to slide against each other D. All of the choices are correct.

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

30. Deep folds in the wall of the stomach called _____ help it to expand to hold food. A. rugae B. plicae C. sphincters D. gastric pits

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N02.05c Discuss the significance of rugae in the stomach. Learning Outcome: 15.01 Trace the path of food through the alimentary canal, and describe the general structure and function of each organ mentioned. Section: 15.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract

31. Which of the following is NOT a region of the stomach? A. Fundic region B. Cardiac region C. Hepatic region D. Pyloric region

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N02.05b Identify the structure and discuss the function of the cardiac region, the fundus, the body and the pyloric region of the stomach. Learning Outcome: 15.01 Trace the path of food through the alimentary canal, and describe the general structure and function of each organ mentioned. Section: 15.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract

32. Which of the following is NOT a function of the stomach? A. Digestion of most foods B. Receives and stores food C. Liquefies food through its muscular mixing action D. Moves food into the small intestine

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

33. Gastric glands A. line the esophagus. B. secrete juice containing HCl. C. secrete amylase. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N02.05e Identify the structure of a gastric gland including the location of the chief (zymogenic) cells, parietal (oxynic) cells, enteroendocrine cells, and mucous cells, and discuss the functions of these different cell types in the stomach. Learning Outcome: 15.01 Trace the path of food through the alimentary canal, and describe the general structure and function of each organ mentioned. Section: 15.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs

34. Which gastric gland cell type secretes HCl? A. Chief B. Mucus C. Parietal D. Enteroendocrine

35. Which type of gastric gland cell secretes pepsinogen? A. Chief B. Mucus C. Parietal D. Enteroendocrine

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

36. The functions of HCl in the stomach include A. chemical digestion of fats. B. activates lipase. C. activates pepsin from pepsinogen. D. All apply.

37. Lack of intrinsic factor leads to A. heartburn. B. pernicious anemia. C. gastric ulcers. D. None apply.

38. An open sore in the stomach wall due mainly to the action of a bacterium, Helicobacter pylori, is A. pernicious anemia. B. heartburn. C. a hiatal hernia. D. an ulcer.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the digestive system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 15.01 Trace the path of food through the alimentary canal, and describe the general structure and function of each organ mentioned. Section: 15.01 Topic: Clinical applications of nutrition and metabolism

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

39. Food leaving the stomach is called A. bolus. B. rugae. C. chyme. D. peristalsis.

40. The serous membrane of the abdominal cavity is the A. pericardium. B. pleura. C. peritoneum. D. serosa.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N04.01 Describe the histology of the visceral and parietal peritoneum. Learning Outcome: 15.01 Trace the path of food through the alimentary canal, and describe the general structure and function of each organ mentioned. Section: 15.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract

41. What is the function of the small intestine? A. Digests food B. Absorbs nutrients C. Transports undigested food to the large intestine D. All apply.

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

42. Which is the first portion of the small intestine? A. Duodenum B. Ileum C. Jejunum D. Cecum

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N02.06a Identify the location and discuss the relative length and the functions of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum in the small intestine. Learning Outcome: 15.01 Trace the path of food through the alimentary canal, and describe the general structure and function of each organ mentioned. Section: 15.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract

43. Which is the longest portion of the small intestine? A. Ileum B. Duodenum C. Pylorus D. Jejunum

44. Which of the following is NOT a region of the small intestine? A. Jejunum B. Ileum C. Cecum D. Duodenum

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

True / False Questions 45. Food usually leaves the stomach in 10 to 12 hours. FALSE Food usually leaves the stomach in 2 to 6 hours.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N02.05a Describe the structure and discuss the function of the cardiac and pyloric sphincters of the stomach. Learning Outcome: 15.01 Trace the path of food through the alimentary canal, and describe the general structure and function of each organ mentioned. Section: 15.01 Topic: General functions of the digestive system

46. The small intestine is so named because of its short length. FALSE The small intestine is so named because of its small diameter.

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

Multiple Choice Questions 47. Which of the following does NOT aid in giving the internal surface of the small intestine a larger surface area? A. Circular folds B. Rugae C. Villi D. Microvilli

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N02.06b Identify and discuss the histology and functions of the plicae circulares, villi, and microvilli in the small intestine. Learning Outcome: 15.02 Describe the wall of the small intestine, and relate its anatomy to nutrient absorption. Section: 15.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the digestive tract

48. Lacteals A. are located in villi. B. are part of the lymphatic system. C. absorb fat molecules. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N07.02 Discuss the absorption of fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins and the absorption of vitamin B12. Learning Outcome: 15.02 Describe the wall of the small intestine, and relate its anatomy to nutrient absorption. Section: 15.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

True / False Questions 49. Vitamins and minerals are digested in the small intestine. FALSE Vitamins and minerals do not need to be digested.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N01.01 Describe the major functions of the digestive system. Learning Outcome: 15.02 Describe the wall of the small intestine, and relate its anatomy to nutrient absorption. Section: 15.01 Topic: Chemical digestion

Multiple Choice Questions 50. A special type of mixing movement of chyme through the small intestine is called A. peristalsis. B. segmentation. C. absorption. D. mass movement.

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

51. In peristalsis, A. the entire tube (i.e., esophagus) contracts at once. B. short segments alternate contraction and relaxation. C. food can move forward or backward. D. contraction can only occur when food is present.

True / False Questions 52. Peristalsis begins in the pharynx. FALSE Peristalsis begins in the esophagus.

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

Multiple Choice Questions 53. What serves to emulsify fats? A. HCl B. Bile C. Mucus D. Intrinsic factor

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N.06.05a Define emulsification and describe the process. Learning Outcome: 15.01 Trace the path of food through the alimentary canal, and describe the general structure and function of each organ mentioned. Section: 15.01 Topic: Mechanical digestion

54. Bile is secreted by the _____ into the ______. A. liver; duodenum B. gastric glands; stomach C. pancreas; duodenum D. salivary glands; mouth

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N.06.05b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in the process of emulsification. Learning Outcome: 15.01 Trace the path of food through the alimentary canal, and describe the general structure and function of each organ mentioned. Section: 15.01 Topic: Mechanical digestion

55. Fat-soluble nutrients are absorbed into the _____. Lipid-soluble nutrients are absorbed into the ______. A. blood capillaries; blood capillaries B. blood capillaries; lacteals C. lacteals; blood capillaries D. lacteals; lacteals

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

56. Which nervous system division controls muscle contraction and secretion in the digestive system? A. Somatic motor nervous system B. Sympathetic nervous system C. Enteric nervous system D. Afferent nervous system

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N08.02 Discuss regulation of reflexes by the enteric nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system. Learning Outcome: 15.01 Trace the path of food through the alimentary canal, and describe the general structure and function of each organ mentioned. Section: 15.01 Topic: Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes

57. What body system, other than the nervous system, is very important for controlling activities of the digestive system? A. Skeletal system B. Muscular system C. Lymphatic system D. Endocrine system

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N09.02 Explain how the digestive system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 15.04 Name the hormones produced by the alimentary canal that help control digestive secretions. Section: 15.01 Topic: Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes

58. What hormone, secreted by enteroendocrine cells, increases stomach churning and release of gastric juices? A. GIP B. Gastrin C. Cholecystokinin D. Secretin

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N08.06a For each of the following, state the organ or structure that produces the following hormones or paracrine agents – gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin. Learning Outcome: 15.04 Name the hormones produced by the alimentary canal that help control digestive secretions. Section: 15.01 Topic: Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

59. Which digestive secretion is correctly matched to its function? A. Gastrin - release of alkaline secretions from the pancreas B. Secretin - release of hydrochloric acid C. Cholecystokinin (CCK) - release of alkaline pancreatic juices and bile D. GIP - decreased release of bile

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N08.06c Describe the action of the following hormones or paracrine agents – gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucosedependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin. Learning Outcome: 15.04 Name the hormones produced by the alimentary canal that help control digestive secretions. Section: 15.01 Topic: Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes

60. Which phase of digestion occurs when you think about, see, or taste food? A. Mental phase B. Intestinal phase C. Gastric phase D. Cephalic phase

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N08.04 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the stomach and give examples for each phase. Learning Outcome: 15.04 Name the hormones produced by the alimentary canal that help control digestive secretions. Section: 15.01 Topic: Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes

61. The presence of food high in amino acids that stretches the stomach will trigger the ______ phase of digestion. A. Gastric B. Cephalic C. Digestive D. Intestinal

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

True / False Questions 62. The muscularis layer is normally made up of two layers of skeletal muscle. FALSE The muscularis layer normally has two layers of smooth muscle.

Multiple Choice Questions 63. The parasympathetic nervous system will trigger the _______ phase of digestive secretion. A. cephalic B. pancreatic C. intestinal D. gastric

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N08.02 Discuss regulation of reflexes by the enteric nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system. HAPS Objective: N08.04 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the stomach and give examples for each phase. Learning Outcome: 15.04 Name the hormones produced by the alimentary canal that help control digestive secretions. Section: 15.01 Topic: Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

64. Which of the following is NOT part of the large intestine? A. Ileum B. Cecum C. Rectum D. Colon

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N02.07b Identify the location and discuss the functions of the cecum and appendix, the ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid colon, the rectum, and the anus in the large intestine. Learning Outcome: 15.01 Trace the path of food through the alimentary canal, and describe the general structure and function of each organ mentioned. Section: 15.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract

65. The hormones leptin and ghrelin are produced by the ______ and act on the _______. A. duodenum; stomach B. pancreas; duodenum C. stomach; hypothalamus D. pancreas; cerebrum

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N08.06b State the target organ of each of the following hormones or paracrine agents – gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin. Learning Outcome: 15.04 Name the hormones produced by the alimentary canal that help control digestive secretions. Section: 15.01 Topic: Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes

66. Leptin stimulates A. the hunger sensation. B. release of secretin. C. the feeling of fullness after eating. D. gastrin secretion.

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

True / False Questions 67. The hormone gastrin controls muscle contraction and secretion by the stomach. TRUE

Multiple Choice Questions 68. The feeling of hunger that causes us to eat is produced by the action of A. leptin. B. cholecystokinin. C. secretin. D. ghrelin.

69. The large intestine functions to A. digest fat. B. absorb water. C. store food. D. All apply.

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

70. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the large intestine? A. Shorter and larger in diameter than the small intestine B. Contains pouches called haustra C. Moves waste by segmentation D. Absorbs water, salts, and some vitamins

71. Bacteria in the large intestine A. break down some undigested food. B. produce vitamins. C. produce gas. D. All apply.

72. Following the path of feces, what is the first section of the large intestine? A. Ascending colon B. Cecum C. Descending colon D. Rectum

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

73. What is the last section of the large intestine? A. Rectum B. Cecum C. Ascending colon D. Sigmoid colon

74. Movement of wastes through the large intestine too quickly can result in A. diarrhea. B. constipation. C. heartburn. D. peritonitis.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the digestive system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 15.01 Trace the path of food through the alimentary canal, and describe the general structure and function of each organ mentioned. Section: 15.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the digestive system

75. What action(s) can help prevent constipation? A. Drinking more water B. Eating more fiber C. Getting exercise D. All apply.

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

76. Which of the following is NOT part of the colon? A. Ascending colon B. Rectum C. Sigmoid colon D. Transverse colon

77. Appendicitis and diverticulosis are associated with the A. small intestine. B. large intestine. C. stomach. D. esophagus.

78. Which is the correct order, following the path of feces, through the large intestine? A. Cecum, descending colon, ascending colon, transverse colon, sigmoid colon B. Cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon C. Sigmoid colon, descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon, cecum D. Ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, cecum

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

79. Feces pass from the sigmoid colon directly into the A. ilium. B. cecum. C. rectum. D. descending colon.

80. The pouches in the walls of the large intestine are called A. anal canals. B. vermiform appendices. C. taenia coli. D. haustrae.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N02.07c Identify and discuss the functions of teniae coli, haustra, and epiploic appendages in the large intestine. Learning Outcome: 15.01 Trace the path of food through the alimentary canal, and describe the general structure and function of each organ mentioned. Section: 15.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract

81. The ______ peritoneum is located on the surface of the abdominal organs, while the ______ peritoneum lines the abdominopelvic cavity. A. visceral; parietal B. parietal; visceral

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.01 Trace the path of food through the alimentary canal, and describe the general structure and function of each organ mentioned. Section: 15.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

82. The _____ omentum is between the stomach and the liver, while the ______ omentum hangs down like a sheet covering the intestines. A. greater; lesser B. lesser; greater

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N04.03 Identify the mesentery proper and the mesocolon and explain their function. Learning Outcome: 15.01 Trace the path of food through the alimentary canal, and describe the general structure and function of each organ mentioned. Section: 15.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract

83. The pancreas and liver are referred to as 'accessory' organs because A. they are not needed for digestion. B. food does not pass through them. C. they do not produce digestive enzymes. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: N03.02a Identify the individual lobes of the liver. Learning Outcome: 15.05 Name five accessory organs of digestion. Section: 15.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs

Check All That Apply Questions 84. Which are accessory organs of digestion? Choose all that apply. _____ Stomach __X__ Pancreas _____ Large intestine __X__ Teeth __X__ Gallbladder

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.05 Name five accessory organs of digestion. Section: 15.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

Multiple Choice Questions 85. The pancreas secretes enzymes acting on A. proteins. B. fats. C. carbohydrates. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N06.02b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in enzymatic hydrolysis. Learning Outcome: 15.06 Outline the location, anatomy, and functions of the pancreas, the liver, and the gallbladder. Section: 15.02 Topic: Chemical digestion

86. The secretion of pancreatic juice from the pancreas is a/an A. endocrine function. B. exocrine function. C. hormone function. D. All apply.

87. Pancreatic juice and bile are both released into the A. duodenum. B. ascending colon. C. jejunum. D. descending colon.

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

88. Pancreatic amylase will digest A. proteins. B. fats. C. starches. D. minerals.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N06.02e List the substrates and products of enzymatic hydrolysis for each enzyme. Learning Outcome: 15.06 Outline the location, anatomy, and functions of the pancreas, the liver, and the gallbladder. Section: 15.02 Topic: Chemical digestion

89. Which of the following is NOT a protein-digesting enzyme from the pancreas? A. Trypsin B. Lipase C. Chymotrypsin D. Carboxypeptidase

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N06.02c List the enzymes used in enzymatic hydrolysis. Learning Outcome: 15.06 Outline the location, anatomy, and functions of the pancreas, the liver, and the gallbladder. Section: 15.02 Topic: Chemical digestion

90. Which of the following is the largest gland in the body? A. Pancreas B. Gallbladder C. Liver D. Gastric gland

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 15.05 Name five accessory organs of digestion. Section: 15.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

91. The liver functions to A. store glucose as glycogen. B. secrete digestive enzymes that break down proteins. C. absorb nutrients. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N01.01 Describe the major functions of the digestive system. Learning Outcome: 15.06 Outline the location, anatomy, and functions of the pancreas, the liver, and the gallbladder. Section: 15.02 Topic: General functions of the digestive system

92. Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver? A. Produces digestive enzymes B. Stores iron and fat-soluble vitamins C. Regulates the amount of cholesterol in the blood D. Removes poisonous and toxic substances from the blood

93. What type of cells remove pathogens in the liver? A. Peyer patches B. Enterogastric cells C. Hepatic cells D. Kupffer cells

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N03.02d Identify the histological components of a liver lobule (including hepatocytes, hepatic sinusoids, Kupffer cells, bile canaliculi, central vein, and the components of a hepatic triad) and discuss the function of each. Learning Outcome: 15.06 Outline the location, anatomy, and functions of the pancreas, the liver, and the gallbladder. Section: 15.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

94. The emulsifying ingredient(s) in bile is(are) A. biliverdin. B. bilirubin. C. bile salts. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N.06.05a Define emulsification and describe the process. Learning Outcome: 15.06 Outline the location, anatomy, and functions of the pancreas, the liver, and the gallbladder. Section: 15.02 Topic: Mechanical digestion

95. Bile pigments are A. yellow substances synthesized in the gallbladder. B. formed from the breakdown of hemoglobin in the liver. C. synthesized in the pancreas. D. used to break down proteins.

96. Which of these molecules needs to be emulsified before digestion begins? A. Protein B. Sugar C. Fat D. All apply.

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

97. Jaundice A. results in a yellowish tint in the skin. B. may be due to increased red cell destruction. C. may be due to gallstones obstructing the bile duct. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the digestive system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 15.06 Outline the location, anatomy, and functions of the pancreas, the liver, and the gallbladder. Section: 15.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the digestive system

98. __________ is liver damage that can be caused by the use of unsanitary needles. A. Cirrhosis B. Hepatitis C. Jaundice

99. __________ is liver damage that can be caused by the use of alcohol. A. Cirrhosis B. Hepatitis C. Jaundice

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

100. __________ is an overabundance of bile pigments in the blood. A. Cirrhosis B. Hepatitis C. Jaundice

101. Bile leaves the gallbladder by way of the A. common hepatic duct. B. cystic duct. C. hepatic portal vein. D. common bile duct.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N03.02e Identify the hepatic duct, cystic duct, gallbladder, common bile duct, sphincter of the hepatopancreatic ampulla (ampulla of Vater and sphincter of Oddi) and discuss the roles of those structures in the flow of bile. Learning Outcome: 15.06 Outline the location, anatomy, and functions of the pancreas, the liver, and the gallbladder. Section: 15.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs

True / False Questions 102. The liver produces several digestive enzymes. FALSE The liver produces no digestive enzymes.

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

103. Bicarbonate from the pancreas is needed to neutralize the chyme before digestion can begin in the intestines. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N03.03b Identify the pancreatic acini and discuss their functions. Learning Outcome: 15.06 Outline the location, anatomy, and functions of the pancreas, the liver, and the gallbladder. Section: 15.02 Topic: Chemical digestion

Multiple Choice Questions 104. The ideal pH of pancreatic digestive enzymes is A. slightly acidic. B. slightly basic. C. very acidic. D. very basic.

105. What is the function of enterokinase? A. It activates trypsin. B. It activates pepsin. C. It neutralizes the pH of chyme.

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

106. Which of the following is NOT true of digestive enzymes? A. They are pH dependent. B. They are hydrolytic enzymes. C. One enzyme can catalyze several reactions. D. They use water as a reactant.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N06.02a Define enzymatic hydrolysis. Learning Outcome: 15.07 Name and state the functions of the digestive enzymes for carbohydrates, proteins, and fats. Section: 15.03 Topic: Chemical digestion

Check All That Apply Questions 107. Which are components of a hepatic portal triad? Choose all that apply. __X__ Hepatic portal vein _____ Hepatic vein __X__ Hepatic artery __X__ Bile duct

Multiple Choice Questions 108. What is gluconeogenesis? A. The creation of glucose molecules from amino acids and fatty acids B. The breakdown of glycogen into glucose C. The formation of glycogen from glucose

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

109. When the liver breaks down amino acids, the waste product produced is A. uric acid. B. bile. C. urea. D. bilirubin.

110. The cystic duct and the common hepatic duct merge to form the _____, which empties into the duodenum. A. gallbladder B. hepatic portal vein C. common bile duct D. main pancreatic duct

111. Which of the following organs does NOT produce enzymes for starch (carbohydrate) digestion? A. Mouth B. Stomach C. Small intestine D. Pancreas

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N06.02b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in enzymatic hydrolysis. HAPS Objective: N06.02e List the substrates and products of enzymatic hydrolysis for each enzyme. Learning Outcome: 15.07 Name and state the functions of the digestive enzymes for carbohydrates, proteins, and fats. Section: 15.03 Topic: Chemical digestion

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

112. Where does starch (carbohydrate) digestion occur? A. Mouth and stomach B. Stomach and small intestine C. Stomach and pancreas D. Mouth and small intestine

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N06.02b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in enzymatic hydrolysis. Learning Outcome: 15.07 Name and state the functions of the digestive enzymes for carbohydrates, proteins, and fats. Section: 15.03 Topic: Chemical digestion

113. What enzymes will break starch (carbohydrates) down to disaccharides? A. Amylases B. Peptidases C. Lipases D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N06.02e List the substrates and products of enzymatic hydrolysis for each enzyme. Learning Outcome: 15.07 Name and state the functions of the digestive enzymes for carbohydrates, proteins, and fats. Section: 15.03 Topic: Chemical digestion

114. The final breakdown product of starch is A. maltose. B. peptides. C. glucose. D. glycerol

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

115. Where does protein digestion occur? A. Mouth and stomach B. Stomach and small intestine C. Stomach and pancreas D. Mouth and small intestine

116. The final breakdown product of protein is A. maltose. B. glucose. C. fatty acid. D. amino acids.

117. Dietary fats are broken down into A. amino acids and glycerol. B. fatty acids and glycerol. C. fatty acids and nucleic acids. D. nucleic acids and glucose.

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

118. Fats are digested in the A. stomach. B. liver. C. pancreas. D. small intestine.

119. What must happen first in the process of fat digestion? A. Breakdown by hydrochloric acid B. Emulsification by bile salts C. Hydrolysis by lipase D. Movement into lacteal

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N.06.05a Define emulsification and describe the process. Learning Outcome: 15.07 Name and state the functions of the digestive enzymes for carbohydrates, proteins, and fats. Section: 15.03 Topic: Mechanical digestion

120. Nucleic acids are broken down into A. amino acids and phosphates. B. sugar, phosphate, and nitrogen bases. C. nitrogen bases, sugar, and glucose. D. fatty acids, amino acids, and sugar

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

121. Which of the following is NOT a brushborder enzyme of the small intestine? A. Nucleotidase B. Lactase C. Amylase D. Peptidase

122. The __________ digests ONLY protein, not other nutrients. A. large intestine B. stomach C. esophagus D. small intestine E. mouth

123. The __________ ONLY transports food; it does not participate in digestion or absorption. A. large intestine B. stomach C. esophagus D. small intestine E. mouth

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

124. What chemical is needed for the hydrolysis of food? A. Hydrochloric acid B. Bicarbonate ion C. Water D. Carbon dioxide

125. The organ that only absorbs water and produces some vitamins, but does not otherwise participate in digestion, is the A. large intestine. B. stomach. C. esophagus. D. small intestine. E. mouth.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N07.01a List the organs and specific structures involved in the absorption monosaccharides, peptides and amino acids, and fatty acids and monoglycerides. Learning Outcome: 15.07 Name and state the functions of the digestive enzymes for carbohydrates, proteins, and fats. Section: 15.03 Topic: Chemical digestion

126. The digestive organ that digests ONLY starch is the A. large intestine. B. stomach. C. esophagus. D. small intestine. E. mouth.

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

127. The main digestive organ that absorbs nutrients is the A. pharynx. B. esophagus. C. small intestine. D. mouth.

128. Chemical digestion begins in the A. mouth. B. esophagus. C. stomach. D. small intestine.

129. The __________ transports waste. A. stomach B. large intestine C. small intestine D. pancreas

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N02.07b Identify the location and discuss the functions of the cecum and appendix, the ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid colon, the rectum, and the anus in the large intestine. Learning Outcome: 15.07 Name and state the functions of the digestive enzymes for carbohydrates, proteins, and fats. Section: 15.03 Topic: General functions of the digestive system

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

130. Most food is digested in the A. stomach. B. large intestine. C. small intestine. D. mouth.

131. The __________ secretes pepsin. A. stomach B. large intestine C. small intestine D. mouth

132. Which organs of the digestive tract lack digestive enzymes? A. Mouth and esophagus B. Mouth and pancreas C. Esophagus and large intestine

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

133. Which enzyme breaks starch down into maltose? A. Amylase B. Lipase C. Maltase D. Pepsin

134. Which enzyme breaks down maltose? A. Amylase B. Lipase C. Maltase D. Pepsin

True / False Questions 135. Sucrase can substitute for lactase for those who do not have lactase to digest the sugar lactose. FALSE Sucrase can not substitute for lactase.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: N06.02e List the substrates and products of enzymatic hydrolysis for each enzyme. Learning Outcome: 15.07 Name and state the functions of the digestive enzymes for carbohydrates, proteins, and fats. Section: 15.03 Topic: Chemical digestion

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

Multiple Choice Questions 136. Heartburn is caused by A. the heart's temperature rising. B. swallowing of hot food. C. contents of the stomach escaping into the esophagus.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the digestive system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 15.08 Describe the anatomical and physiological changes that occur in the digestive system as we age. Section: 15.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the digestive system

137. Which of the following is NOT an effect of aging on the digestive system? A. Increased incidence of gallstones B. Increased incidence of constipation and hemorrhoids C. Increased liver size D. Increased incidence of peptic ulcers and hiatal hernias

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N09.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the digestive system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body. Learning Outcome: 15.08 Describe the anatomical and physiological changes that occur in the digestive system as we age. Section: 15.04 Topic: Effects of aging on the digestive system

True / False Questions 138. The esophagus is prone to more disorders in the elderly than in younger people. TRUE

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

139. Peristalsis slows in the elderly. TRUE

Multiple Choice Questions 140. The condition that occurs when the lower portion of the esophagus protrudes into the thoracic cavity is A. GERD. B. a peptic ulcer. C. heartburn. D. a hiatal hernia.

True / False Questions 141. The failure of older people to consume enough fiber can lead to hemorrhoids and constipation. FALSE The failure of older people to consume enough fiber can lead to diverticulosis and constipation.

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

Multiple Choice Questions 142. Which characterizes diverticulosis? A. An infection of the vermiform appendix B. Regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus C. The formation of pouches in the wall of the colon D. A decrease in the production of intrinsic factor in the stomach

True / False Questions 143. The gastrointestinal tract is part of the endocrine system. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N09.02 Explain how the digestive system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 15.09 Explain how the digestive system works with other systems of the body to maintain homeostasis. Section: 15.05 Topic: General functions of the digestive system

144. The gastrointestinal tract organs produce hormones that act on other body systems. TRUE

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

145. The integumentary system is necessary for the intestinal absorption of vitamins. FALSE The integumentary system is necessary for the intestinal absorption of calcium by producing vitamin D.

146. The lymphatic system is necessary for the absorption of glucose and amino acids from the small intestine. FALSE The lymphatic system is necessary for the absorption of fats and fat-soluble vitamins from the small intestine by the lacteals.

Multiple Choice Questions 147. Which is the most immediate source of energy for the body? A. Amino acids B. Glucose C. Glycogen D. Any sugar

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: O01.01c With respect to nutrients, for carbohydrates, fats, and proteins - list their dietary sources, state their energy yields per gram, and discuss their common uses in the body. Learning Outcome: 15.10 State the functions of glucose, fats, and amino acids in the body. Section: 15.06 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

148. A complete protein A. supplies all 20 amino acids in the diet. B. supplies only the essential amino acids. C. is generally found in vegetables. D. is found only in meat.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: O01.01a With respect to nutrients, define nutrient, essential nutrient and non-essential nutrient. Learning Outcome: 15.11 Define the terms essential fatty acid, essential amino acid, and vitamin. Section: 15.06 Topic: Introduction to nutrition

True / False Questions 149. The body can not make an essential fatty acid, but can make an essential amino acid. FALSE The body can not make either an essential fatty acid or essential amino acid.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: O01.01a With respect to nutrients, define nutrient, essential nutrient and non-essential nutrient. Learning Outcome: 15.11 Define the terms essential fatty acid, essential amino acid, and vitamin. Section: 15.06 Topic: Introduction to nutrition

150. Since proteins are needed by the body, all twenty amino acids are considered essential amino acids. FALSE Only nine are considered essential. The liver can make the other eleven.

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

151. Vitamins play essential roles in cellular metabolism and are required in the diet. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: O01.01d With respect to nutrients, classify vitamins as either fat-soluble or water-soluble and discuss the major uses of each vitamin in the body. Learning Outcome: 15.11 Define the terms essential fatty acid, essential amino acid, and vitamin. Section: 15.06 Topic: Introduction to nutrition

Multiple Choice Questions 152. _______ are organic molecules that are needed by the body in small amounts and do not need to be digested. A. Carbohydrates B. Essential fatty acids C. Vitamins D. Minerals

153. Which of the following vitamins is NOT correctly matched with its major function? A. Vitamin A - helps in night vision B. Vitamin D - helps absorb calcium from the small intestine C. Vitamin K - helps to form collagen D. Folic acid - helps to make hemoglobin in red blood cells

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: O01.01d With respect to nutrients, classify vitamins as either fat-soluble or water-soluble and discuss the major uses of each vitamin in the body. Learning Outcome: 15.12 Describe the functions of the major vitamins and minerals in the body. Section: 15.06 Topic: Introduction to nutrition

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

154. Which of the following is NOT a fat-soluble vitamin? A. Vitamin B B. Vitamin E C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin D

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: O01.01d With respect to nutrients, classify vitamins as either fat-soluble or water-soluble and discuss the major uses of each vitamin in the body. Learning Outcome: 15.12 Describe the functions of the major vitamins and minerals in the body. Section: 15.06 Topic: Introduction to nutrition

155. Which of the following foods is NOT a good dietary source of vitamins? A. Green, leafy vegetables B. Nuts C. Citrus fruits D. Red meat

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: O01.01d With respect to nutrients, classify vitamins as either fat-soluble or water-soluble and discuss the major uses of each vitamin in the body. Learning Outcome: 15.12 Describe the functions of the major vitamins and minerals in the body. Section: 15.06 Topic: Introduction to nutrition

156. Which of the following minerals is NOT correctly matched with its major function? A. Calcium - building strong bones and teeth B. Chloride - aids in acid-base balance C. Iodine - helps wounds to heal D. Sodium - needed for nerve impulse transmission

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: O01.01e With respect to nutrients, list the important dietary minerals and describe the major uses of each mineral in the body. Learning Outcome: 15.12 Describe the functions of the major vitamins and minerals in the body. Section: 15.06 Topic: Introduction to nutrition

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

157. Which mineral is correctly matched to its function? A. Phosphorus - helps prevent dental caries B. Magnesium - protects plasma membrane from oxidative changes C. Zinc - needed for wound healing and prevention of anemia D. Chromium - component of thyroid hormone

158. Obesity may be caused by A. hormones. B. metabolism. C. social factors. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: N10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the digestive system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 15.10 State the functions of glucose, fats, and amino acids in the body. Section: 15.06 Topic: Clinical applications of nutrition and metabolism

159. Which eating disorder is characterized by bingeing and purging? A. Anorexia nervosa B. Bulimia nervosa C. Obesity

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

160. Individuals with which eating disorder are most likely to hold a distorted body image? A. Anorexia nervosa B. Bulimia nervosa C. Obesity

True / False Questions 161. Obesity is defined as a body weight 15% or more above the ideal weight for a person's height. FALSE Obesity is defined as a body weight 20% or more above the ideal weight for a person's height.

162. A deficiency of folic acid could result in a bleeding disorder. FALSE Folic acid is needed to make hemoglobin and genetic material.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: N10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the digestive system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 15.12 Describe the functions of the major vitamins and minerals in the body. Section: 15.06 Topic: Clinical applications of nutrition and metabolism

Chapter 15 - The Digestive System

163. Niacin is a B-complex vitamin. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: O01.01d With respect to nutrients, classify vitamins as either fat-soluble or water-soluble and discuss the major uses of each vitamin in the body. Learning Outcome: 15.12 Describe the functions of the major vitamins and minerals in the body. Section: 15.06 Topic: Introduction to nutrition

164. Vitamin D aids in the ability to see at night. FALSE Vitamin A aids in the ability to see at night. Vitamin D aids calcium absorption from the intestines,

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: O01.01d With respect to nutrients, classify vitamins as either fat-soluble or water-soluble and discuss the major uses of each vitamin in the body. Learning Outcome: 15.12 Describe the functions of the major vitamins and minerals in the body. Section: 15.06 Topic: Introduction to nutrition

165. Minerals are needed in very small amounts but are essential for proper functioning of the body. TRUE

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

Chapter 16 The Urinary System and Excretion

Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following is an excretory waste? A. Feces B. Bacteria C. Urea D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P01.01 Describe the major functions of the urinary system. Learning Outcome: 16.01 List and discuss the functions of the urinary system. Section: 16.01 Topic: General functions of the urinary system

2. Urea is a by-product of the metabolism of A. sugars. B. fats. C. cholesterol. D. amino acids.

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

3. Creatinine is a metabolic product produced in A. muscles. B. nerves. C. fat cells. D. the liver.

4. The breakdown of nucleotides produces A. creatinine. B. ammonia. C. uric acid. D. urea.

5. Urochrome comes from the metabolism of ___________ in the liver. A. amino acids B. hemoglobin C. lactic acid D. cholesterol

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

6. Which of the following is NOT a homeostatic function of the kidneys? A. Maintenance of acid-base and water-salt balances B. Elimination of digestive wastes C. Excretion of metabolic wastes D. Maintenance of blood pressure

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P07.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the urinary system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body. Learning Outcome: 16.01 List and discuss the functions of the urinary system. Section: 16.01 Topic: General functions of the urinary system

7. Which of the following is a function of the urinary system? A. Excretion of metabolic wastes B. Secretion of hormones C. Maintenance of acid-base balance D. All apply.

8. Which of the following is a nitrogenous waste? A. Ammonia B. Urea C. Creatinine D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P03.08 Determine the physical and chemical properties of a urine sample and relate these properties to normal urine composition. Learning Outcome: 16.01 List and discuss the functions of the urinary system. Section: 16.01 Topic: General functions of the urinary system

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

9. Uric acid is a by-product of _____ metabolism. A. glucose B. nucleotide C. amino acid D. creatine phosphate

10. Increased salt content of the blood will lead to ______ blood volume. A. increased B. decreased C. no change in the

11. The kidneys aid in maintaining blood pressure by A. excreting urea and uric acid. B. maintaining a normal blood volume. C. producing erythropoietin. D. All apply.

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

12. The kidneys maintain acid-base balance mainly by excreting _____ and reabsorbing _____. A. sodium; potassium. B. bicarbonate; sodium. C. hydrogen; bicarbonate. D. chloride; hydrogen

13. When the kidney's own blood supply decreases, they release _____, which leads to secretion of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. A. erythropoietin B. vitamin D C. creatinine D. renin

14. When the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is low, the kidneys release ______, which will cause an increase in red blood cell production. A. erythropoietin B. vitamin D C. creatinine D. renin

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

True / False Questions 15. The kidneys are located in the abdominopelvic cavity. FALSE The kidneys are retroperitoneal so they technically are not in the abdominopelvic cavity.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P02.01a Describe the external structure of the kidney, including its location, support structures and covering with respect to gross anatomy of the urinary tract. Learning Outcome: 16.02 Name and describe the structure and function of each organ in the urinary system. Section: 16.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the urinary system

Multiple Choice Questions 16. Where are the kidneys located? A. ventral region of the thorax B. lumbar region C. ventral region of the pelvis D. dorsal region of the thorax

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

17. The kidneys are retroperitoneal. What does that mean? A. They are behind the parietal peritoneum. B. They are behind back muscles. C. They are placed backwards in the abdominal cavity. D. They are behind the intestines.

18. Which of the following carries urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder? A. Urethra B. Hilum C. Ureters D. Peritoneum

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P02.01b Identify, and describe the structure and location of, the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra with respect to gross anatomy of the urinary tract. Learning Outcome: 16.02 Name and describe the structure and function of each organ in the urinary system. Section: 16.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the urinary system

19. The function of the urinary bladder is to A. store urine until it is expelled. B. produce urine. C. store sperm and semen. D. None apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P06.01 Describe the function of the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra. Learning Outcome: 16.02 Name and describe the structure and function of each organ in the urinary system. Section: 16.01 Topic: General functions of the urinary system

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

20. The three openings of the bladder form the A. urethra B. trigone C. ureters D. detrusor muscle

21. Which muscle makes up the wall of the urinary bladder? A. Urinary muscle B. Pelvic muscle C. Detrusor muscle D. Peritoneal muscle

22. What anatomical features allow for the expansion of the urinary bladder as it fills with urine? A. Plicae and elastic connective tissue B. Rugae and columnar epithelium C. Plicae and stratified squamous epithelium D. Rugae and transitional epithelium

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P06.04 Relate the anatomy and histology of the bladder to its function. Learning Outcome: 16.02 Name and describe the structure and function of each organ in the urinary system. Section: 16.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the urinary system

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

23. Which of the following extends from the urinary bladder to an external opening? A. Urethra B. Hilum C. Ureters D. Trigone

24. In which gender is the urethra part of the reproductive system? A. Male B. Female C. Both male and female D. Neither male nor female

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P02.01c Compare and contrast the male and female urethras with respect to gross anatomy of the urinary tract. Learning Outcome: 16.02 Name and describe the structure and function of each organ in the urinary system. Section: 16.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the urinary system

25. In which gender is the urethra shorter? A. Male B. Female C. Male and female urethras are approximately equal in length

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

26. Another name for urination is A. defecation. B. mastication. C. micturition. D. peristalsis.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P06.02 Describe the micturition reflex. Learning Outcome: 16.03 Describe how urination is controlled. Section: 16.01 Topic: General functions of the urinary system

27. Micturition involves both ________ and __________ nerve impulses. A. somatic; enteric B. sympathetic; parasympathetic C. sympathetic; somatic D. somatic; parasympathetic

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P06.03 Describe voluntary and involuntary neural control of micturition. Learning Outcome: 16.03 Describe how urination is controlled. Section: 16.01 Topic: Urine storage and elimination

28. The opening of the internal urethral sphincter is through action of the A. somatic nervous system. B. enteric nervous system. C. sympathetic nervous system. D. parasympathetic nervous system.

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

29. The opening of the external urethral sphincter is through action of the A. somatic nervous system. B. enteric nervous system. C. sympathetic nervous system. D. parasympathetic nervous system.

30. Which of the following is NOT a region of a kidney? A. Renal pelvis B. Renal medulla C. Renal fascia D. Renal cortex

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P02.01d Identify the major internal divisions and structures of the renal tissue with respect to gross anatomy of the urinary tract. Learning Outcome: 16.04 Describe the macroscopic and microscopic anatomy of the kidney. Section: 16.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the urinary system

31. The functional unit of the kidney that produces urine is the A. Pyramid. B. Nephron. C. Pelvis. D. Neuron.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system. Learning Outcome: 16.04 Describe the macroscopic and microscopic anatomy of the kidney. Section: 16.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

32. Which of the following is NOT part of the nephron's blood supply? A. Afferent arteriole B. Efferent arteriole C. Renal artery D. Glomerulus

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P02.02 Trace the path of blood through the kidney. Learning Outcome: 16.04 Describe the macroscopic and microscopic anatomy of the kidney. Section: 16.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system

33. Cone-shaped tissue masses of the kidney are called renal A. Renal pyramids. B. Renal columns. C. Renal pelvis. D. Renal cortex.

34. What is the central cavity of the kidney called? A. Renal pyramids B. Renal columns C. Renal pelvis D. Renal cortex

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

35. Which of the following is part of a nephron? A. Glomerular capsule B. Proximal and distal convoluted collecting tubules C. Loop of the nephron D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system. Learning Outcome: 16.05 State the parts of a kidney nephron, and relate them to the gross anatomy of the kidney. Section: 16.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system

36. What is the capillary network that is part of the renal corpuscle? A. Peritubular capillaries B. Vasa recta C. Glomerulus D. Choroid plexus

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system. Learning Outcome: 16.05 State the parts of a kidney nephron, and relate them to the gross anatomy of the kidney. Section: 16.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system

37. Which blood vessel leads into the glomerulus? A. Afferent arteriole B. Efferent arteriole C. Renal artery D. Peritubular capillaries

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P02.02 Trace the path of blood through the kidney. Learning Outcome: 16.05 State the parts of a kidney nephron, and relate them to the gross anatomy of the kidney. Section: 16.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

38. The efferent arteriole takes blood to the A. glomerulus. B. renal vein. C. peritubular capillaries. D. afferent arteriole.

39. Which of the following structures is NOT found in the renal cortex? A. Glomerular capsule B. Proximal convoluted tubule C. Loop of Henle D. Distal convoluted tubule

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P02.04b Distinguish histologically between renal cortex and medulla. Learning Outcome: 16.05 State the parts of a kidney nephron, and relate them to the gross anatomy of the kidney. Section: 16.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the urinary system

40. Which of the following structures is found in the renal medulla? A. Glomerular capsule B. Proximal convoluted tubule C. Loop of Henle D. Distal convoluted tubule

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

41. Which places the parts of the nephron in the correct order? A. Distal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, glomerular capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, collecting duct B. Glomerular capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule, collecting duct C. Glomerular capsule, distal convoluted tubules, loop of Henle, proximal convoluted tubule, collecting duct D. Loop of Henle, collecting duct, proximal convoluted tubule, glomerular capsule, distal convoluted tubule

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system. Learning Outcome: 16.05 State the parts of a kidney nephron, and relate them to the gross anatomy of the kidney. Section: 16.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system

42. Which of the following parts of a nephron is NOT correctly matched with its epithelium type? A. Glomerular capsule - podocytes B. Proximal convoluted tubule - cuboidal with microvilli C. Loop of Henle - simple squamous D. distal convoluted tubule - simple columnar with microvilli

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P02.04a Describe the histological structure of the proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule, and collecting duct of the kidney. Learning Outcome: 16.05 State the parts of a kidney nephron, and relate them to the gross anatomy of the kidney. Section: 16.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

Check All That Apply Questions 43. Which are considered parts of the renal corpuscle? Choose all that apply. _____ Loop of Henle __X__ Glomerulus __X__ Glomerular (Bowman's) capsule _____ Collecting duct

Multiple Choice Questions 44. The ______ collects urine from several nephrons, and empties it into the renal pelvis. A. distal convoluted tubule B. collecting duct C. ureter D. urinary bladder

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P02.05 Trace the path of filtrate/urine from the renal corpuscle to the urethral opening. Learning Outcome: 16.05 State the parts of a kidney nephron, and relate them to the gross anatomy of the kidney. Section: 16.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

45. Which of the following correctly describes the process of glomerular filtration? A. Blood cells and plasma proteins are pushed out of the glomerulus into the glomerular capsule. B. Water, nitrogenous wastes, nutrients, and ions are pushed out of the glomerulus into the glomerular capsule. C. Water and dissolved substances move out of the glomerulus by osmosis into the glomerular capsule. D. Water and formed elements are pushed out of the glomerulus into the glomerular capsule.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: P03.01 List the three major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting system. Learning Outcome: 16.06 Outline the three steps in urine formation, and relate them to the parts of a nephron. Section: 16.02 Topic: Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion

46. How much water is filtered by the kidneys per day? A. 1.8 liter B. 100 liters C. 180 liters D. 500 liters

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P03.03g State the percent of filtrate that is normally reabsorbed and explain why the process of reabsorption is so important. Learning Outcome: 16.06 Outline the three steps in urine formation, and relate them to the parts of a nephron. Section: 16.02 Topic: Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion

47. The function of the proximal convoluted tubule is to A. return water and needed nutrients to the blood. B. move excess hydrogen ions into the kidney tubule. C. keep salt from re-entering the blood. D. All apply

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P03.01 List the three major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting system. Learning Outcome: 16.06 Outline the three steps in urine formation, and relate them to the parts of a nephron. Section: 16.02 Topic: Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

48. What process(es) is(are) used by the cells of the proximal convoluted tubule to return water and needed nutrients to the blood? A. Active transport of sodium ions, glucose, and other nutrients B. Passive transport of chloride ions C. Water movement by osmosis D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P03.03a With respect to reabsorption, list specific transport mechanisms occurring in different parts of the nephron, including active transport, osmosis, facilitated diffusion, passive electrochemical gradients, receptor-mediated endocytosis, and transcytosis. Learning Outcome: 16.06 Outline the three steps in urine formation, and relate them to the parts of a nephron. Section: 16.02 Topic: Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion

49. The process that moves substances from the blood into the kidney tubules to become part of the urine is A. glomerular filtration. B. tubular reabsorption. C. tubular secretion.

50. Which structure is NOT important for the reabsorption of water? A. Collecting duct B. Glomerular capsule C. Loop of Henle D. Proximal convoluted tubule

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron. Learning Outcome: 16.06 Outline the three steps in urine formation, and relate them to the parts of a nephron. Section: 16.02 Topic: Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

51. Protein A. is found in the filtrate and is reabsorbed, but still occurs in the urine. B. does not leave the blood plasma under normal conditions. C. is filtered and reabsorbed totally. D. is filtered, but not reabsorbed.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P03.07 Compare and contrast blood plasma, glomerular filtrate, and urine and then relate their differences to function of the nephron. Learning Outcome: 16.06 Outline the three steps in urine formation, and relate them to the parts of a nephron. Section: 16.02 Topic: Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion

52. Salt A. is found in the filtrate and is reabsorbed, but still occurs in the urine. B. never leaves the blood plasma. C. is filtered and reabsorbed totally. D. is filtered, but not reabsorbed.

53. Urea A. is found in the filtrate and is reabsorbed, but is still found in the urine. B. never leaves the blood plasma. C. is filtered and reabsorbed totally. D. is filtered, but not reabsorbed.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P03.05 Compare and contrast reabsorption and tubular secretion, with respect to direction of solute movement, strength of concentration gradients, and energy required. Learning Outcome: 16.06 Outline the three steps in urine formation, and relate them to the parts of a nephron. Section: 16.02 Topic: Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

54. Glucose A. is found in the filtrate and is reabsorbed, but still occurs in the urine. B. never leaves the blood plasma. C. is filtered and completely reabsorbed. D. is filtered, but not reabsorbed.

55. Diabetes mellitus causes glucose to be found in the urine. Why? A. In diabetes mellitus, reabsorption of glucose is increased. B. Glucose is filtered, then reabsorbed in the renal tubule. C. Glucose transporters are overwhelmed with the large amount of glucose that needs to be reabsorbed; they can't keep up.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: P08.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the urinary system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 16.06 Outline the three steps in urine formation, and relate them to the parts of a nephron. Section: 16.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the urinary system

56. Diabetes mellitus involves ______ glucose in the blood and ______ glucose in the urine. A. decreased; decreased B. decreased; increased C. increased; increased D. increased; decreased

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P08.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the urinary system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 16.06 Outline the three steps in urine formation, and relate them to the parts of a nephron. Section: 16.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the urinary system

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

57. The average adult body is about _____ water by weight. A. 40 - 50% B. 50 - 60% C. 60 - 70% D. 70 - 80%

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: Q02.01 Describe the fluid compartments (including the subdivisions of the extracellular fluid) and state the relative volumes of each. Learning Outcome: 16.07 Describe how the kidneys help maintain the fluid and electrolyte balance of blood. Section: 16.03

58. Where is most of the body's water found? A. In the blood B. Outside the cells (tissue fluid) C. Inside the cells (intracellular) D. In the lymph

59. Which of the following is NOT a way that water enters the body? A. In what we drink B. In what we eat C. From body metabolism D. In the air we inhale

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: Q01.01 List and describe the routes of water entry into the body and state representative volumes for each. Learning Outcome: 16.07 Describe how the kidneys help maintain the fluid and electrolyte balance of blood. Section: 16.03 Topic: Regulation of urine volume and composition

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

60. Most of the body's water input comes from A. in what we drink. B. in what we eat. C. from body metabolism. D. in the air we inhale.

Check All That Apply Questions 61. Which are ways that water leaves the body? Choose all that apply. __X__ Feces _____ Most metabolic processes use up water __X__ Exhalation __X__ Sweat

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: Q01.02 List and describe the routes of water loss from the body and state representative volumes for each. Learning Outcome: 16.07 Describe how the kidneys help maintain the fluid and electrolyte balance of blood. Section: 16.03 Topic: Regulation of urine volume and composition

Multiple Choice Questions 62. Most of the body's water exits the body as A. sweat. B. feces. C. urine. D. exhaled air.

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

63. Water moves out of the _____ limb of the loop of Henle, while sodium chloride moves out of the _____ limb of the loop of Henle. A. ascending; descending B. descending; ascending

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P03.03e With respect to reabsorption, explain why the differential permeability or impermeability of specific sections of the nephron tubules is necessary for urine formation. Learning Outcome: 16.07 Describe how the kidneys help maintain the fluid and electrolyte balance of blood. Section: 16.03 Topic: Regulation of urine volume and composition

64. What substance found in the renal medulla helps increase the amount of water drawn out of the tubule to be picked up by the blood? A. Glucose B. Amino acids C. Urea D. Chloride ions

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P03.03f With respect to reabsorption, explain the role of the loop of Henle, the vasa recta, and the countercurrent multiplication mechanism in the concentration of urine. Learning Outcome: 16.07 Describe how the kidneys help maintain the fluid and electrolyte balance of blood. Section: 16.03 Topic: Regulation of urine volume and composition

65. The increasing concentration of salt and urea in the renal medulla that continues to draw water out of the descending limb is called A. diuresis. B. antidiuresis. C. countercurrent mechanism. D. secretion.

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

66. What structure collects both salts and water in equal amounts and moves them back to blood circulation? A. Collecting duct B. Loop of Henle C. Efferent arteriole D. Vasa recta

True / False Questions 67. ADH causes more water to be reabsorbed into the blood to give a lower urine volume. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect urine volume and composition- renin- angiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides. Learning Outcome: 16.08 Name and explain how three hormones— aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and atrial natriuretic hormone— work together to maintain blood volume and pressure. Section: 16.03 Topic: Regulation of urine volume and composition

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

Check All That Apply Questions 68. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) functions to (choose all that apply) _____ increase sodium, and therefore water, reabsorption. __X__ increase water flow through aquaporins in the collecting duct. _____ increase red blood cell production. __X__ help combat dehydration.

Multiple Choice Questions 69. What stimulus causes the hypothalamus to produce ADH? A. Decreased blood osmolality B. Increased blood osmolality C. Increased blood pressure D. None apply.

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

70. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) acts upon the A. the descending loop of Henle. B. the collecting duct. C. the glomerulus. D. the distal convoluted tubule.

71. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is produced by the _______ and secreted by the _______. A. juxtaglomerular apparatus; juxtaglomerular apparatus B. posterior pituitary; posterior pituitary C. hypothalamus; anterior pituitary D. hypothalamus; posterior pituitary

72. Why are some salts excreted? A. They are end products of metabolism B. To maintain proper salt concentration in the blood C. They are not excreted

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

73. The best indicator of the blood's osmolality is the concentration of A. calcium ion. B. bicarbonate ion. C. sodium ion. D. potassium ion.

Check All That Apply Questions 74. Which are characteristics of aldosterone? Choose all that apply. _____ It decreases sodium reabsorption. __X__ It increases sodium reabsorption. __X__ It increases water reabsorption. _____ It decreases water reabsorption.

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

Multiple Choice Questions 75. Aldosterone is produced by the A. hypothalamus. B. posterior pituitary. C. adrenal cortex. D. adrenal medulla.

76. One of the effects of increased aldosterone secretion is to ______ blood pressure. A. increase B. decrease

77. What structure in the kidneys monitors blood pressure, which helps regulate water and electrolyte reabsorption? A. Glomerular capsule B. Afferent arteriole C. Juxtaglomerular apparatus D. Peritubular capillaries

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P04.01b Describe the function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus with respect to autoregulation. Learning Outcome: 16.08 Name and explain how three hormones— aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and atrial natriuretic hormone— work together to maintain blood volume and pressure. Section: 16.03 Topic: Regulation of urine volume and composition

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

78. What stimulus causes the release of renin? A. High blood pressure B. Low blood oxygen C. Low blood pressure D. Low blood sodium

79. Which structure secretes renin? A. Hypothalamus B. Posterior pituitary gland C. Juxtaglomerular apparatus D. Distal convoluted tubule

80. What hormone is released as a result of renin secretion by the kidney? A. Antidiuretic hormone B. Aldosterone C. Atrial natriuretic hormone D. All apply.

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

81. One of the effects of aldosterone is the A. excretion of water and osmosis of potassium ions into the blood. B. excretion of potassium ions and osmosis of water into the blood. C. excretion of calcium ions and potassium ions. D. excretion of bicarbonate ions and osmosis of water into the blood.

82. What hormone causes the excretion of sodium and therefore water from the body? A. Antidiuretic hormone B. Aldosterone C. Atrial natriuretic hormone D. All apply.

83. What stimulus causes the release of atrial natriuretic hormone from the atria of the heart? A. Decreased blood volume entering the atria B. Increased blood volume entering the atria C. Decreased blood pressure D. Increased blood sodium levels

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

84. Diuretics A. decrease water reabsorption. B. raise blood volume. C. increase urine flow. D. both decrease water reabsorption and increase urine flow.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P04.05 Explain the mechanism of action of diuretics. Learning Outcome: 16.08 Name and explain how three hormones— aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and atrial natriuretic hormone— work together to maintain blood volume and pressure. Section: 16.03 Topic: Regulation of urine volume and composition

85. A blood pH lower than 7.4 is called A. normal. B. acidosis. C. alkalosis. D. buffering.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: Q05.02 State the normal pH range for arterial blood. Learning Outcome: 16.09 Describe three mechanisms, including how the kidneys function, to maintain the acid–base balance of blood. Section: 16.03 Topic: Clinical applications of the urinary system

86. A blood pH higher than 7.4 is called A. normal. B. acidosis. C. alkalosis. D. buffering.

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

87. One of the most important blood buffers is A. carbonic acid and hydrogen. B. bicarbonate and hydrogen ions. C. bicarbonate ions and carbonic acid. D. water and hydroxide ions.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: Q05.03b Explain the role of the bicarbonate buffer system, the phosphate buffer system and the protein buffer system in regulation of blood, interstitial fluid, and intracellular pH, including how each system responds to increases or decreases in pH. Learning Outcome: 16.09 Describe three mechanisms, including how the kidneys function, to maintain the acid–base balance of blood. Section: 16.03 Topic: General functions of the urinary system

88. If excess hydrogen ions are added to the blood, the body will respond by A. increased respiration and reabsorption of bicarbonate ions. B. increased respiration and excretion of bicarbonate ions. C. decreased respiration and excretion of hydrogen ions. D. decreased respiration and reabsorption of hydrogen ions.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: Q06.02 Describe the role of the respiratory system in regulation of blood pH and predict how hypo- and hyperventilation will affect blood pH. HAPS Objective: Q06.04 Explain the mechanisms by which the kidneys retain bicarbonate ions, and how this process affects blood pH. Learning Outcome: 16.09 Describe three mechanisms, including how the kidneys function, to maintain the acid–base balance of blood. Section: 16.03 Topic: General functions of the urinary system

89. If excess base is added to the blood, the body will respond by A. increased respiration and reabsorption of bicarbonate ions. B. increased respiration and excretion of bicarbonate ions. C. decreased respiration and excretion of hydrogen ions. D. decreased respiration and reabsorption of hydrogen ions.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: Q06.02 Describe the role of the respiratory system in regulation of blood pH and predict how hypo- and hyperventilation will affect blood pH. HAPS Objective: Q06.03 Explain the mechanisms by which the kidneys secrete hydrogen ions, and how this process affects blood pH. Learning Outcome: 16.09 Describe three mechanisms, including how the kidneys function, to maintain the acid–base balance of blood. Section: 16.03 Topic: General functions of the urinary system

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

90. What mechanism is the most powerful and long-lasting in maintaining proper pH balance? A. Blood buffers B. Respiration C. Renal reabsorption and/or secretion

91. What substance provides buffering against excess hydrogen ions in the urine? A. Bicarbonate ions B. Ammonia C. Urea D. Sodium ions

92. Which of the following substances is normally NOT found in urine? A. Urea B. Ammonia C. Glucose D. Potassium

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P03.08 Determine the physical and chemical properties of a urine sample and relate these properties to normal urine composition. Learning Outcome: 16.10 State, in general, the normal composition of urine and the benefits of doing a urinalysis. Section: 16.04 Topic: Urine and renal function tests

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

93. What accounts for 95% of the volume of urine? A. Water B. Nitrogenous wastes C. Electrolytes D. Urea

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P03.08 Determine the physical and chemical properties of a urine sample and relate these properties to normal urine composition. Learning Outcome: 16.10 State, in general, the normal composition of urine and the benefits of doing a urinalysis. Section: 16.04 Topic: Urine and renal function tests

94. A urinary tract infection that invades the kidneys is called A. Cystitis. B. Pyelonephritis. C. Urethritis.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P08.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the urinary system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 16.10 State, in general, the normal composition of urine and the benefits of doing a urinalysis. Section: 16.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the urinary system

95. A urinary tract infection that invades the urinary bladder is called A. cystitis. B. pyelonephritis. C. urethritis.

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

True / False Questions 96. A urinalysis showing the presence of protein and blood cells is normal. FALSE Protein and blood cells should not be present in normal urine.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P03.08 Determine the physical and chemical properties of a urine sample and relate these properties to normal urine composition. Learning Outcome: 16.10 State, in general, the normal composition of urine and the benefits of doing a urinalysis. Section: 16.04 Topic: Urine and renal function tests

97. Most renal calculi are formed from excess cholesterol. FALSE Most renal calculi are formed from calcium salts.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P08.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the urinary system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 16.10 State, in general, the normal composition of urine and the benefits of doing a urinalysis. Section: 16.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the urinary system

98. Extracorporeal shock-wave lithotripsy uses sound waves to break up kidney stones. TRUE

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

99. The presence of albumin in the urine may indicate glomerular damage. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P03.08 Determine the physical and chemical properties of a urine sample and relate these properties to normal urine composition. Learning Outcome: 16.10 State, in general, the normal composition of urine and the benefits of doing a urinalysis. Section: 16.04 Topic: Urine and renal function tests

100. The accumulation of nitrogenous wastes in the blood is called nitremia. FALSE The accumulation of nitrogenous wastes in the blood is called uremia.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P08.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the urinary system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 16.10 State, in general, the normal composition of urine and the benefits of doing a urinalysis. Section: 16.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the urinary system

Multiple Choice Questions 101. Hemodialysis A. can be used to add substances to the blood. B. removes waste products from the blood. C. utilizes an artificial kidney. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P08.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the urinary system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 16.11 Discuss the need for hemodialysis and how hemodialysis functions to bring about the normal composition of urine. Section: 16.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the urinary system

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

True / False Questions 102. Dialysis is a form of diffusion that uses filtration to control movement of solutes. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: P08.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the urinary system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 16.11 Discuss the need for hemodialysis and how hemodialysis functions to bring about the normal composition of urine. Section: 16.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the urinary system

103. During dialysis, materials can also be added to the blood as well as having substances removed. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P08.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the urinary system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 16.11 Discuss the need for hemodialysis and how hemodialysis functions to bring about the normal composition of urine. Section: 16.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the urinary system

104. Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) utilizes the pericardium as a dialysis membrane. FALSE CAPD utilizes the peritoneum as a dialysis membrane.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P08.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the urinary system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 16.11 Discuss the need for hemodialysis and how hemodialysis functions to bring about the normal composition of urine. Section: 16.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the urinary system

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

105. Kidney transplants have a low rate of success, even with a close relative. FALSE Kidney transplants with a close relative have a 97% success rate.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P08.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the urinary system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 16.11 Discuss the need for hemodialysis and how hemodialysis functions to bring about the normal composition of urine. Section: 16.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the urinary system

Multiple Choice Questions 106. What plays a major role in the loss of kidney function with age? A. Kidneys shrink in size B. Fewer functioning nephrons C. Vascular changes in the glomerulus D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P08.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the urinary system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 16.12 Describe the anatomical and physiological changes that occur in the urinary system as we age. Section: 16.05 Topic: Effects of aging on the urinary system

107. Which of the following is an effect of aging on the urinary system? A. Increased occurrence of kidney stones B. Incontinence C. More frequent and urgent urination D. All apply.

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

108. What is the reason for more kidney stones with age? A. Kidney infections B. Improper diet C. Inadequate fluid intake D. All apply.

True / False Questions 109. Involuntary loss of urine is called incontinence. TRUE

Multiple Choice Questions 110. Why is the skin considered an excretory organ? A. Sweat cools the body. B. Sweat contains water, salt, and urea. C. Oil glands secrete sebum. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: P07.02 Explain how the urinary system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. Learning Outcome: 16.13 Describe how the urinary system works with other systems of the body to maintain homeostasis. Section: 16.06 Topic: General functions of the urinary system

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

111. What is secreted by the liver that classifies it as an excretory organ? A. Urea B. Erythropoietin C. Digestive enzymes D. All apply.

112. How do the kidneys assist the skeletal, muscular, and nervous systems? A. Convert vitamin D to its active form to absorb calcium from the digestive tract B. Excrete carbon dioxide C. Produce renin D. Maintain blood volume for blood pressure E. All apply.

True / False Questions 113. The lungs are considered excretory organs. TRUE

Chapter 16 - The Urinary System and Excretion

Multiple Choice Questions 114. The kidneys are the primary organs of homeostasis because they A. excrete nitrogenous wastes. B. maintain water-electrolyte balance. C. maintain acid-base balance. D. maintain water-electrolyte and acid-base balance. E. All apply.

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

Chapter 17 The Reproductive System

Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following is NOT a function of the male reproductive system? A. Produces sperm in the testes B. Produces male sex hormones for masculinization C. Provides for the maturing of sperm in the testes D. Delivers sperm to the female vagina with the penis

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R01.01 Describe the major functions of the male and female reproductive systems. Learning Objective: 17.01 Discuss the functions of the reproductive system. Section: 17.01 Topic: General functions of the male and female reproductive systems

2. Which of the following is NOT a function of the female reproductive system? A. Produces female sex hormones for feminization and pregnancy B. The uterus produces and secretes ova C. Provides a place for a fertilized egg to develop in the uterus D. Receiving the male penis and removing of menstrual flow through the vagina

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

3. The development of a child into a sexually mature young adult is called A. metamorphosis. B. maturation. C. puberty. D. menarche.

True / False Questions 4. Reproductive organs are called gametes. FALSE Reproductive organs are called gonads. The sex cells are gametes.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R01.01 Describe the major functions of the male and female reproductive systems. Learning Objective: 17.01 Discuss the functions of the reproductive system. Section: 17.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the female reproductive system Topic: Gross anatomy of the male reproductive system

5. Sex hormones affect only reproductive organs. FALSE Sex hormones affect all organs and systems of the body.

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

6. Gametes are exact copies of body cells, but with only half the number of chromosomes. FALSE Gametes are not exact copies of body cells due to gene exchanges such as crossing-over, which occurs during meiosis.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R03.02 Relate the general stages of meiosis to the specific processes of spermatogenesis and oogenesis. Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the human life cycle. Section: 17.01 Topic: Gametogenesis

Check All That Apply Questions 7. Which are correct matchings of the events of meiosis with the meiotic phase? Choose all that apply. _____ Metaphase II - centromeres split, separating chromatids __X__ Prophase I - crossing over can occur __X__ Telophase II - two cells divide into four haploid cells __X__ Metaphase I - homologous chromosome pairs line up at the equator

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

Multiple Choice Questions 8. Meiosis A. produces diploid cells. B. reduces chromosome number to 23. C. involves the repair and growth of all body cells. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R03.01 Contrast the overall processes of mitosis and meiosis. Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the human life cycle. Section: 17.01 Topic: Gametogenesis

9. What is the diploid number of chromosomes in human body cells? A. 23 B. 46 C. 23 pairs D. Both 46 and 23 pairs

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R03.01 Contrast the overall processes of mitosis and meiosis. Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the human life cycle. Section: 17.01 Topic: Gametogenesis

10. What is the haploid number of chromosomes in human cells? A. 23 B. 46 C. 23 pair D. Both 46 and 23 pair

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R03.01 Contrast the overall processes of mitosis and meiosis. Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the human life cycle. Section: 17.01 Topic: Gametogenesis

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

11. How many cell divisions occur in meiosis? A. None B. One C. Two D. 23

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R03.01 Contrast the overall processes of mitosis and meiosis. Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the human life cycle. Section: 17.01 Topic: Gametogenesis

12. The close grouping of homologous chromosomes in prophase in meiosis I is called a A. zygote. B. tetrad. C. gamete. D. chromatid.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R03.01 Contrast the overall processes of mitosis and meiosis. Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the human life cycle. Section: 17.01 Topic: Gametogenesis

13. How many cells are produced by meiosis? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R03.01 Contrast the overall processes of mitosis and meiosis. Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the human life cycle. Section: 17.01 Topic: Gametogenesis

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

14. What is the new cell formed from the union of egg and sperm called and how many chromosomes does it have? A. Zygote with 23 chromosomes B. Zygote with 23 pairs of chromosomes C. Egg with 46 chromosomes D. Tetrad with 23 pairs of chromosomes

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R07.01 Describe conception, including sperm capacitation, acrosomal reaction, sperm penetration, cortical reaction, and fusion of pronuclei. Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the human life cycle. Section: 17.01 Topic: Gametogenesis

15. When DNA is distributed diffusely throughout the nucleus, it is called ______. When it is organized into condensed structures, it is called ______. A. genes; chromatin B. nucleic acids; chromosomes C. chromatin; chromosomes D. chromosomes; chromatin

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R03.01 Contrast the overall processes of mitosis and meiosis. Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the human life cycle. Section: 17.01 Topic: Gametogenesis

16. A chromosome is made up of two ______ attached at the centromere. A. genes B. chromatids C. spindles D. centrosomes

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R03.01 Contrast the overall processes of mitosis and meiosis. Learning Objective: 17.02 Describe the human life cycle. Section: 17.01 Topic: Gametogenesis

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

17. The primary sex organs of a male are the A. scrotum. B. ovaries. C. testes. D. penis.

18. The testes A. produce gametes. B. secrete hormones. C. produce gametes and secrete hormones.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R01.01 Describe the major functions of the male and female reproductive systems. Learning Objective: 17.04 Describe the macroscopic and microscopic anatomy of the testes. Section: 17.02 Topic: General functions of the male and female reproductive systems

19. Why do the testes descend into the scrotum? A. There is not sufficient room in the abdomen. B. Abdominal temperature is too low to produce hormones. C. Abdominal temperature is too high to produce viable sperm. D. There is no known reason.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R05.01 Discuss the relationship between the location of the testes and sperm production. Learning Objective: 17.04 Describe the macroscopic and microscopic anatomy of the testes. Section: 17.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the male reproductive system

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

Check All That Apply Questions 20. Which describe the seminiferous tubules? Choose all that apply. _____ They are found on the posterior wall of the bladder. __X__ They produce sperm. _____ They produce semen. __X__ They are located in the testes.

Multiple Choice Questions 21. What is the function of interstitial cells of the testes? A. Produce immature sperm B. Produce androgens C. Produce semen D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R05.02 Explain the role of the sustentacular cells and interstitial cells in sperm production. Learning Objective: 17.04 Describe the macroscopic and microscopic anatomy of the testes. Section: 17.02 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

22. The most important androgen is A. testosterone. B. semen. C. prostaglandins. D. progesterone.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone. Learning Objective: 17.04 Describe the macroscopic and microscopic anatomy of the testes. Section: 17.02 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system

23. The process of sperm production is called A. spermatogenesis. B. spermiogenesis. C. oogenesis. D. None apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R03.03 Contrast the process and the final products of spermatogenesis and oogenesis. Learning Objective: 17.04 Describe the macroscopic and microscopic anatomy of the testes. Section: 17.02 Topic: Gametogenesis

24. Spermatogenesis A. occurs in the interstitial cells. B. is a form of meiosis. C. occurs at internal body temperature. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R03.02 Relate the general stages of meiosis to the specific processes of spermatogenesis and oogenesis. Learning Objective: 17.04 Describe the macroscopic and microscopic anatomy of the testes. Section: 17.02 Topic: Gametogenesis

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

25. What type of cell is found in the seminiferous tubules? A. Spermatogonia B. Sustentacular cells C. Interstitial cells D. Both spermatogonia and sustentacular cells

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R02.02a Identify and describe the reproductive and supporting cells of the seminiferous tubules of the testis in reference to microscopic anatomy. Learning Objective: 17.04 Describe the macroscopic and microscopic anatomy of the testes. Section: 17.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the male reproductive system

26. What type of cell acts to support, nourish, and regulate the development of sperm? A. Spermatogonia B. Sustentacular cells C. Interstitial cells D. Both spermatogonia and sustentacular cells

27. What is produced by the process of spermatogenesis? A. 2 haploid spermatids B. 2 diploid spermatids C. 4 haploid spermatids D. 4 diploid spermatids

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

28. Human sperm A. have twenty-three chromosomes. B. are diploid. C. secrete testosterone. D. All apply.

29. Which of the following is NOT part of a mature sperm? A. Head B. Midpiece C. Body D. Tail

30. The sperm's acrosome contains A. the chromosomes. B. the mitochondria. C. enzymes. D. the tail.

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

31. The sperm's midpiece contains A. the chromosomes. B. the mitochondria. C. enzymes. D. the tail.

32. The __________ stores sperm and allows them to mature. A. epididymis B. vas deferens C. bulbourethral gland D. urethra

33. The __________ is not part of the male duct system. A. epididymis B. vas deferens C. bulbourethral gland D. urethra

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

34. The __________ conducts sperm into the abdominal cavity through the inguinal canal. A. epididymis B. vas deferens C. bulbourethral gland D. urethra

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R05.03 Describe the pathway of sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the external urethral orifice of the penis. Learning Objective: 17.03 Trace the path of sperm, from the testes to the urethra. Section: 17.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the male reproductive system

35. The vas deferens joins a duct from the seminal vesicle to form the A. urethra. B. prostate gland. C. ejaculatory duct. D. spermatic cord.

36. The ejaculatory ducts join the _______ in the prostate gland. A. ureters B. spermatic cord C. urethra D. None apply.

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

37. What structure contains the vas deferens, and the testicular artery, vein, and nerve? A. Spermatic cord B. Inguinal canal C. Epididymis D. Urethra

38. Which describes cryptorchidism? A. Infertility B. Twisting of the spermatic cord C. Failure of the testes to descend from the abdomen D. Impotence

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R11.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the reproductive system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Objective: 17.03 Trace the path of sperm, from the testes to the urethra. Section: 17.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the reproductive system

39. Which describes these terms in the correct order of sperm development? A. Primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte, spermatogonium B. Spermatogonium, primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte C. Secondary spermatocyte, primary spermatocyte, spermatogonium

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R02.02a Identify and describe the reproductive and supporting cells of the seminiferous tubules of the testis in reference to microscopic anatomy. Learning Objective: 17.03 Trace the path of sperm, from the testes to the urethra. Section: 17.02 Topic: Gametogenesis

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

40. In some males, the opening through which the testes descend into the scrotum fails to close. This is termed a(n) A. inguinal hernia. B. cryptorchidism. C. impotence. D. infertility.

41. Which of the following is NOT a gland that secretes seminal fluid? A. Urinary bladder B. Prostate gland C. Bulbourethal glands D. Seminal vesicles

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R05.04 Identify and describe the organs involved in semen production. Learning Objective: 17.05 Name the glands and describe the secretions that contribute to the composition of semen. Section: 17.02 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system

42. What does seminal fluid provide? A. The correct pH for sperm B. Fructose for energy C. Enhance sperm motility D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R05.05 Discuss the composition of semen and its role is sperm function. Learning Objective: 17.05 Name the glands and describe the secretions that contribute to the composition of semen. Section: 17.02 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

43. Which gland secretes a mucus-like fluid that helps lubricate the end of the penis for sexual intercourse? A. Prostate gland B. Seminal vesicles C. Bulbourethral glands D. All apply

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R05.04 Identify and describe the organs involved in semen production. HAPS Objective: R05.05 Discuss the composition of semen and its role is sperm function. Learning Objective: 17.05 Name the glands and describe the secretions that contribute to the composition of semen. Section: 17.02 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system

44. Which male gland is located behind the urinary bladder and secretes an alkaline fluid with fructose and prostaglandins? A. Bulbourethral glands B. Cowper's glands C. Prostate D. Seminal vesicles

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia. HAPS Objective: R05.04 Identify and describe the organs involved in semen production. Learning Objective: 17.05 Name the glands and describe the secretions that contribute to the composition of semen. Section: 17.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the male reproductive system Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

45. Which male gland encircles the urethra and secretes a fluid that enhances sperm motility? A. Cowper's glands B. Seminal vesicles C. Prostate D. Bulbourethral glands

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia. HAPS Objective: R05.04 Identify and describe the organs involved in semen production. HAPS Objective: R05.05 Discuss the composition of semen and its role is sperm function. Learning Objective: 17.05 Name the glands and describe the secretions that contribute to the composition of semen. Section: 17.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the male reproductive system Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system

46. Which are the external genitals of the male? A. Penis and prostate B. Scrotum and testes C. Testes and penis D. Penis and scrotum

47. What structure is removed from the penis during circumcision? A. Root B. Prepuce C. Glans penis D. Corpora cavernosa

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

48. What does the urethra pass through in the penis? A. Corpus spongiosum B. Corpora cavernosa C. Glans penis D. Prepuce

49. Which of the following is NOT part of the male sexual response? A. Erection B. Ejaculation C. Refractory period D. Urination

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R06.05 Compare and contrast female and male sexual responses. Learning Objective: 17.06 Describe the anatomy of the penis and the events preceding and during ejaculation. Section: 17.02 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system

50. Which of the following is INCORRECT about erection? A. Autonomic nerves release nitric oxide. B. CGMP is produced that causes artery walls to relax. C. Arteries entering the penis constrict. D. Veins that exit the penis are compressed.

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

51. The release of semen from the penis is called A. incontinence. B. emission. C. expulsion. D. refraction.

52. Which of the following is involved with the functioning of the testes? A. Hypothalamus B. Anterior pituitary gland C. Gonadotropic hormones D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R06.03 Compare and contrast the events and endocrine regulation of female and male puberty. Learning Objective: 17.07 Discuss hormonal regulation in the male. Section: 17.02 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system

53. Which of the following produces the gonadotropic hormones? A. Hypothalamus B. Testis C. Anterior pituitary gland D. All apply.

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

54. LH and FSH are A. sex hormones. B. gonadotropic hormones. C. only in females. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone. Learning Objective: 17.07 Discuss hormonal regulation in the male. Section: 17.02 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system

55. Which of the following stimulates spermatogenesis in the seminiferous tubules? A. LH B. FSH C. Testosterone D. Inhibin

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone. Learning Objective: 17.07 Discuss hormonal regulation in the male. Section: 17.02 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system

56. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) is secreted by the A. anterior pituitary gland. B. interstitial cells. C. bulbourethral glands. D. hypothalamus.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone. Learning Objective: 17.07 Discuss hormonal regulation in the male. Section: 17.02 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

57. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) causes A. the production of testosterone. B. the secretion of FSH and LH. C. lactation.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone. Learning Objective: 17.07 Discuss hormonal regulation in the male. Section: 17.02 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system

58. Which of the following promotes production of testosterone by the interstitial cells? A. LH B. FSH C. GnRH D. Inhibin

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone. Learning Objective: 17.07 Discuss hormonal regulation in the male. Section: 17.02 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system

59. Which of the following is NOT a function of testosterone? A. Growth of facial, axillary, and pubic hair B. Increase in secretion of oil and sweat glands C. Decrease in the size of the larynx D. Increased muscle strength

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone. Learning Objective: 17.08 Outline the actions of testosterone, including both primary and secondary sexual characteristics. Section: 17.02 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

60. Testosterone A. matures the penis and testes. B. is responsible for male secondary characteristics. C. causes oil glands to secrete. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone. Learning Objective: 17.08 Outline the actions of testosterone, including both primary and secondary sexual characteristics. Section: 17.02 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system

61. Which of the following is NOT a male secondary sex characteristic? A. Maturation of the testes B. Body hair C. Possible acne and body odor D. Deep voice

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R06.04 Define secondary sex characteristics and describe their role in reproductive system function. Learning Objective: 17.08 Outline the actions of testosterone, including both primary and secondary sexual characteristics. Section: 17.02 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system

62. The primary sex organ(s) in females is (are) A. fallopian (uterine) tubes. B. ovaries. C. uterus. D. All apply.

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

63. Which of the following is NOT part of the vulva? A. Clitoris B. Mons pubis C. Labia majora D. Vagina

64. Follicles are found in A. the ovaries. B. the testes. C. the ovaries and testes. D. neither the ovaries nor testes.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R02.02b Identify and describe the different stages of follicular development in the ovary, including the preovulatory follicle and the corpus luteum in reference to microscopic anatomy. Learning Objective: 17.09 Describe the macroscopic and microscopic anatomy of the ovaries. Section: 17.03 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the female reproductive system

65. The process of forming an ovum is called A. mitosis. B. oogenesis. C. meiosis. D. both oogenesis and meiosis.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R03.03 Contrast the process and the final products of spermatogenesis and oogenesis. Learning Objective: 17.09 Describe the macroscopic and microscopic anatomy of the ovaries. Section: 17.03 Topic: Gametogenesis

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

66. What nonviable cell is produced by oogenesis? A. Ovum B. Polar body C. Follicle D. Corpus luteum

67. Where does oogenesis occur? A. In the corpus luteum B. In the follicle C. In the epididymis D. In the uterus

True / False Questions 68. The corpus luteum forms from the follicle after ovulation. TRUE

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

Multiple Choice Questions 69. Where does fertilization of an egg usually occur? A. Pelvic cavity B. Uterus C. Vagina D. Uterine tubes

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R04.01 Describe the pathway of the ovum from the ovary to the uterus. Learning Objective: 17.09 Describe the macroscopic and microscopic anatomy of the ovaries. Section: 17.03 Topic: Gross anatomy of the female reproductive system

70. A mature follicle is called a A. vesicular (Graafian) follicle. B. primary follicle. C. secondary follicle. D. corpus luteum.

71. Once a follicle releases an egg, it becomes a A. vesicular follicle. B. corpus luteum. C. zona pellucida. D. corpus albicans.

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

True / False Questions 72. The released ovum has completed meiosis. FALSE The released ovum is in metaphase II and will only complete meiosis if it is fertilized.

Multiple Choice Questions 73. What structure(s) act to draw a released ovum into the uterine tube? A. Follicle B. Corpus luteum C. Fimbriae D. Zona pellucida

74. A pregnancy that occurs outside the uterus is called A. implantation. B. ectopic. C. gestation. D. oogenesis.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R07.02 Define fertilization. Section: 17.03 Topic: Clinical applications of the reproductive system

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

75. Implantation occurs in the A. uterine (Fallopian) tube. B. endometrium. C. myometrium. D. vagina.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R07.02 Define fertilization. Section: 17.03 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system

76. The inferior part of the uterus is called the A. vagina. B. cervix. C. fimbriae. D. labia majora.

77. The ligament that holds the upper ovary to the pelvic wall is the ______ ligament. A. ovarian B. broad C. suspensory

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

78. Girls are born with _____ follicles. A. no B. very few C. 300,000 - 400,000 D. 1,000,000 - 2,000,000

79. Ovulation is described as the A. fusion of an oocyte and sperm. B. release of a secondary oocyte from a follicle. C. burrowing of an embryo into the endometrium. D. discharge of blood and tissue from the uterus.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R04.03 Describe the events of the uterine cycle. Learning Objective: 17.12 Describe the menstrual cycle. Section: 17.03 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system

80. A corpus albicans is A. the inviable product of oogenesis. B. the remnant of a follicle right after ovulation. C. the remnant of a corpus luteum. D. part of the vulva.

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

81. A Pap smear is a scraping of cells from the A. cervix. B. vagina. C. endometrium. D. ovaries.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Section: 17.03 Topic: Clinical applications of the reproductive system

82. Which layer of the uterus varies according to the monthly reproductive cycle? A. Endometrium B. Myometrium C. Perimetrium D. All apply.

83. Development of the fetus occurs in the A. uterus. B. vagina. C. ovaries. D. uterine tubes.

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

84. Which of the following is NOT a part of the uterus? A. Fundus B. Body C. Vagina D. Cervix

True / False Questions 85. The uterus usually lies above and tipped over the urinary bladder. TRUE

86. The reproductive and urinary systems are partially connected in the female. FALSE The reproductive and urinary systems are separate in the female.

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

Multiple Choice Questions 87. Copulation takes place in the A. uterus. B. vagina. C. ovaries. D. uterine tubes.

88. What female external genital is homologous to the male's penis? A. Mons pubis B. Labia majora C. Labia minora D. Clitoris

89. The space between the labia majora, which contains the orifices of the urethra and vagina, is called the A. labia minora. B. clitoris. C. vestibule. D. mons pubis.

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

90. Which of the following is NOT true of the female sexual response? A. The Bartholin glands secrete mucus for lubrication. B. Breasts swell and nipples become erect. C. The clitoris can engorge with stimulation. D. A refractory period follows orgasm.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R06.05 Compare and contrast female and male sexual responses. Learning Objective: 17.11 Contrast female orgasm with male orgasm. Section: 17.03 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system

91. The glands that secrete lubricant at the entrance of the vagina, in anticipation of sexual intercourse, are ______ glands. A. clitoral B. bulbourethral C. seminal D. Bartholin

92. In females, FSH stimulates _______, while LH stimulates ______. A. ovulation; follicles B. follicles; ovulation C. sperm production; ovulation D. endometrium thickening; menstruation

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R04.02 Describe the ovarian cycle and relate the events of the ovarian cycle to oogenesis. Learning Objective: 17.12 Describe the menstrual cycle. Section: 17.03 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

93. What structures produce the female sex hormones? A. Ovaries B. Follicle C. Corpus luteum D. All apply.

94. Which of the following is NOT a result of estrogen production? A. Increased long bone growth B. Thickening of the endometrium to two or three times the normal thickness C. Fat deposition, causing the development of the female "curves" D. Maturation of the ovum

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone. Learning Objective: 17.13 Describe the actions of estrogen and progesterone, including both primary and secondary sexual characteristics. Section: 17.03 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system

95. During the follicular phase the A. pituitary secretes FSH. B. follicle secretes estrogen. C. pituitary secretes increasing amounts of LH. D. All apply.

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

96. Ovulation is triggered by A. high levels of LH. B. high levels of progesterone. C. low levels of FSH. D. low levels of estrogen.

97. While the follicular phase is occurring in the ovary, what is occurring in the uterus? A. Ovulation B. Menses C. Proliferative phase D. Both menses and proliferative phase

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: R04.02 Describe the ovarian cycle and relate the events of the ovarian cycle to oogenesis. HAPS Objective: R04.03 Describe the events of the uterine cycle. Learning Objective: 17.12 Describe the menstrual cycle. Section: 17.03 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system

98. What occurs during the proliferative phase of the uterus? A. The endometrium is lost B. The follicle ruptures C. The endometrium thickens and becomes more vascular D. All apply.

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

99. What occurs in the ovary at the end of the follicular phase? A. Menses B. Ovulation C. Pregnancy D. Nothing

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: R02.02b Identify and describe the different stages of follicular development in the ovary, including the preovulatory follicle and the corpus luteum in reference to microscopic anatomy. HAPS Objective: R04.02 Describe the ovarian cycle and relate the events of the ovarian cycle to oogenesis. Learning Objective: 17.12 Describe the menstrual cycle. Section: 17.03 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system

100. At the end of the luteal phase, A. ovulation occurs. B. the corpus luteum degenerates. C. menstruation occurs. D. both the corpus luteum degenerates and menstruation occurs.

101. Progesterone A. is produced by the corpus luteum. B. inhibits the formation of secondary sexual characteristics. C. exerts negative feedback over testosterone secretion. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone. Learning Objective: 17.13 Describe the actions of estrogen and progesterone, including both primary and secondary sexual characteristics. Section: 17.03 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

102. During menstruation, the A. follicle breaks down. B. endometrium breaks down. C. epididymis breaks down. D. All apply.

103. Which of the following is the correct order of events in the ovary? A. Ovulation, follicular phase, luteal phase B. Luteal phase, follicular phase, ovulation C. Follicular phase, ovulation, luteal phase D. Luteal phase, ovulation, follicular phase

104. Which of the following is the correct order of events in the uterus in a nonpregnant female? A. Secretory phase, menstruation, proliferative phase B. Menstruation, proliferative phase, secretory phase C. Proliferative phase, menstruation, secretory phase D. Proliferative phase, secretory phase, menstruation

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

105. The term 'menstrual cycle' describes events in the A. uterus. B. ovaries. C. uterine tubes. D. All apply.

106. Which event does NOT occur in the ovary? A. Follicular phase B. Luteal phase C. Ovulation D. Proliferative phase

107. Post-menopausal ovaries contain lots of A. corpus lutea. B. follicles. C. corpus albicans. D. oocytes.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: R06.06 Define menopause, describe the physiological changes associated with menopause, and explain the fertility changes that precede menopause. Learning Objective: 17.12 Describe the menstrual cycle. Section: 17.03 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

108. When a female is pregnant, there is a lot of A. LH present in the blood. B. FSH present in the blood. C. HCG present in the blood. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R07.05 Describe the hormonal changes during pregnancy and the effect of these hormones. Learning Objective: 17.13 Describe the actions of estrogen and progesterone, including both primary and secondary sexual characteristics. Section: 17.03 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system

109. Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) A. maintains the corpus luteum until the placenta is secreting hormones. B. is used to detect pregnancy. C. keeps a new follicle from developing. D. All apply.

110. Which of the following does NOT occur during menopause? A. Menstrual cycle ceases B. Ovaries secrete very little estrogen and progesterone C. Hot flashes, headaches, and depression may occur D. HCG secretion increases

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R06.06 Define menopause, describe the physiological changes associated with menopause, and explain the fertility changes that precede menopause. Learning Objective: 17.16 Discuss the anatomical and physiological changes that occur in the reproductive system as we age. Section: 17.03 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

111. Which of the following hormones is/are needed for breast development? A. Estrogen B. Prolactin C. Progesterone D. Both estrogen and progesterone

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone. Learning Objective: 17.13 Describe the actions of estrogen and progesterone, including both primary and secondary sexual characteristics. Section: 17.03 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system

112. Which of the following is needed for milk production? A. Prolactin B. Oxytocin C. Colostrum D. Estrogen

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R09.02 Describe the hormonal regulation of lactation. Learning Objective: 17.13 Describe the actions of estrogen and progesterone, including both primary and secondary sexual characteristics. Section: 17.03 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system

113. Which of the following is needed for milk ejection from the breasts? A. Prolactin B. Oxytocin C. Colostrum D. Estrogen

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

114. The first secretion from the breasts is a milky fluid rich in protein and antibodies called A. prolactin. B. oxytocin. C. colostrum. D. estrogen.

115. The dark circular area surrounding the nipple is called the A. mammary gland. B. areola. C. lactiferous ducts. D. alveolus.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R09.01 Describe the structure and the function of the mammary glands. Learning Objective: 17.13 Describe the actions of estrogen and progesterone, including both primary and secondary sexual characteristics. Section: 17.03 Topic: Gross anatomy of the female reproductive system

116. Which method of birth control normally prevents fertilization? A. IUD B. Diaphragm C. Condom D. Diaphragm and condom E. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R04.06 Provide examples of how birth control methods relate to normal reproductive function. Learning Objective: 17.14 List several means of birth control, and describe their effectiveness. Section: 17.04 Topic: General functions of the male and female reproductive systems

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

117. What is the most effective method of birth control? A. Condom B. Hhormone pill C. Abstinence D. Diaphragm

118. Combined hormone birth control contains A. FSH and LH. B. estrogen and progestin. C. FSH and estrogen. D. hCG and progestin.

119. Which of the following is a method for delivering combined hormone birth control? A. Pills B. Skin patch C. Vaginal ring D. Injection E. All apply.

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

120. How does combined hormone birth control work? A. Prevents fertilization B. Prevents implantation C. Prevents ovulation D. All apply.

121. Synthetic progesterone as a contraceptive works by A. preventing fertilization and implantation. B. preventing ovulation and changing the uterine lining. C. preventing sperm from reaching the egg D. All apply.

122. An IUD is placed in the _____ and will prevent implantation if fertilization should occur. A. vagina B. uterine tubes C. uterus D. urethra

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

123. The most frequent cause of infertility in males is A. increased body weight. B. endometriosis. C. low sperm count. D. prostate problems.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R11.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the reproductive system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Objective: 17.14 List several means of birth control, and describe their effectiveness. Section: 17.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the reproductive system

124. Low sperm count could be attributed to A. herbicides and pesticides. B. chemical exposure. C. overheating of the testes. D. All apply.

125. The most frequent cause of infertility in females is A. increased body weight. B. endometriosis. C. blocked uterine tubes. D. sedentary lifestyle.

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

126. In which case does fertilization occur inside the woman's body? A. Artificial insemination B. In vitro fertilization C. Intracytoplasmic sperm injection D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R11.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the reproductive system could not maintain homeostasis. Learning Objective: 17.14 List several means of birth control, and describe their effectiveness. Section: 17.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the reproductive system

127. Sometimes endometrial tissue escapes the uterus via the uterine tubes instead of the cervix and can attach to the uterine tubes or abdominal organs. This is a condition called ______. A. infertility B. ectopic pregnancy C. syphilis D. endometriosis

128. Which STI is caused by a virus? A. Chlamydia B. Gonorrhea C. Hepatitis D. Syphilis

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R11.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the reproductive system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Objective: 17.15 Describe the symptoms of genital warts, genital herpes, hepatitis, chlamydia, gonorrhea, and syphilis. Section: 17.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the reproductive system

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

129. Which STI is associated with cancer of the cervix? A. Genital warts B. Genital herpes C. Chlamydia D. Syphilis

130. Genital warts are caused by A. herpes simplex. B. Neisseria gonorrhaeae. C. Treponema pallidum. D. human papillomavirus.

131. Syphilis is caused by A. herpes simplex. B. Neisseria gonorrhaeae. C. Treponema pallidum. D. human papillomavirus.

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

132. Which of the following is a sign of primary stage syphilis? A. A non-itchy rash B. A chancre sore C. Gummas D. All apply.

True / False Questions 133. STIs caused by a virus can be cured with antiviral drugs. FALSE STI's caused by a virus can not be cured with any medication.

Multiple Choice Questions 134. Which of the following is NOT an effect of aging on the female reproductive system? A. Ovaries become unresponsive to pituitary gonadotropic hormones B. External genitals atrophy C. Sexual desire declines D. Osteoporosis increases

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R11.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the reproductive system that could disrupt homeostasis. Learning Objective: 17.16 Discuss the anatomical and physiological changes that occur in the reproductive system as we age. Section: 17.05 Topic: Effects of aging on the reproductive system

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

135. Which of the following is NOT an effect of aging on the male reproductive system? A. Testosterone levels decline B. Sexual desire continues C. Sperm production ceases D. Enlarged prostate

True / False Questions 136. Regulation of sex hormone levels is an example of negative feedback homeostatic control. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: R10.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the reproductive system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body. Learning Objective: 17.17 Discuss how the reproductive system works with other systems of the body to maintain homeostasis. Section: 17.06 Topic: General functions of the male and female reproductive systems

137. Sex hormones are produced only by the gonads. FALSE Sex hormones are also produced by the adrenal glands.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R10.02 Explain how the reproductive system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. Learning Objective: 17.17 Discuss how the reproductive system works with other systems of the body to maintain homeostasis. Section: 17.06 Topic: General functions of the male and female reproductive systems

Chapter 17 - The Reproductive System

138. Deposition of fat by estrogens is an example of homeostasis. TRUE

139. Estrogens stimulate synthesis of erythropoietin by the kidneys. FALSE Androgens (testosterone) stimulate synthesis of erythropoietin by the kidneys.

Multiple Choice Questions 140. Which is NOT a homeostatic function of estrogens? A. Induces the liver to make transport proteins B. Induces synthesis of bone matrix proteins C. Induces increased skeletal muscle development D. Induces feminization of the brain

Chapter 18 - Human Development and Birth

Chapter 18 Human Development and Birth

Multiple Choice Questions 1. The union of ovum and sperm during fertilization creates the first cell of the new organism, which is called a A. morula. B. blastocyst. C. zygote. D. zona pellucida.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R07.01 Describe conception, including sperm capacitation, acrosomal reaction, sperm penetration, cortical reaction, and fusion of pronuclei. Learning Outcome: 18.01 Explain the events of fertilization and the conversion of the egg into a zygote. Section: 18.01 Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage

2. Which of the following is NOT part of the sperm? A. Middle piece B. Tail C. Head D. Body

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R07.01 Describe conception, including sperm capacitation, acrosomal reaction, sperm penetration, cortical reaction, and fusion of pronuclei. Learning Outcome: 18.01 Explain the events of fertilization and the conversion of the egg into a zygote. Section: 18.01 Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage

Chapter 18 - Human Development and Birth

3. The head of a sperm contains A. many organelles. B. a nucleus enclosing the 23 chromosomes. C. a large amount of cytoplasm. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R07.01 Describe conception, including sperm capacitation, acrosomal reaction, sperm penetration, cortical reaction, and fusion of pronuclei. Learning Outcome: 18.01 Explain the events of fertilization and the conversion of the egg into a zygote. Section: 18.01 Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage

4. The acrosome, which caps the head of the sperm, contains A. chromosomes. B. digestive enzymes. C. nutrients. D. hormones

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R07.01 Describe conception, including sperm capacitation, acrosomal reaction, sperm penetration, cortical reaction, and fusion of pronuclei. Learning Outcome: 18.01 Explain the events of fertilization and the conversion of the egg into a zygote. Section: 18.01 Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage

5. The extracellular matrix surrounding the ovum is called the A. corona radiata. B. acrosome. C. zona pellucida. D. follicle.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R07.01 Describe conception, including sperm capacitation, acrosomal reaction, sperm penetration, cortical reaction, and fusion of pronuclei. Learning Outcome: 18.01 Explain the events of fertilization and the conversion of the egg into a zygote. Section: 18.01 Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage

Chapter 18 - Human Development and Birth

6. Which of the following is the correct order of structures sperm must penetrate before entering the ovum? A. Zona pellucida, corona radiata, ovum plasma membrane B. Ovum plasma membrane, zona pellucida, corona radiata C. Corona radiata, zona pellucida, ovum plasma membrane D. None apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R07.01 Describe conception, including sperm capacitation, acrosomal reaction, sperm penetration, cortical reaction, and fusion of pronuclei. Learning Outcome: 18.01 Explain the events of fertilization and the conversion of the egg into a zygote. Section: 18.01 Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage

7. What prevents polyspermy from occurring? A. The ovum plasma membrane depolarizes. B. The zona pellucida lifts away from the plasma membrane. C. Only one sperm can normally enter the zona pellucida. D. Both the ovum plasma membrane depolarizes and the zona pellucida lifts away from the plasma membrane are correct.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R07.01 Describe conception, including sperm capacitation, acrosomal reaction, sperm penetration, cortical reaction, and fusion of pronuclei. Learning Outcome: 18.01 Explain the events of fertilization and the conversion of the egg into a zygote. Section: 18.01 Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage

True / False Questions 8. Usually more than one sperm can successfully enter an ovum. FALSE Only one sperm can enter an ovum.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R07.01 Describe conception, including sperm capacitation, acrosomal reaction, sperm penetration, cortical reaction, and fusion of pronuclei. Learning Outcome: 18.01 Explain the events of fertilization and the conversion of the egg into a zygote. Section: 18.01 Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage

Chapter 18 - Human Development and Birth

9. Conception is when the genetic material of the ovum and sperm combine. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R07.01 Describe conception, including sperm capacitation, acrosomal reaction, sperm penetration, cortical reaction, and fusion of pronuclei. Learning Outcome: 18.01 Explain the events of fertilization and the conversion of the egg into a zygote. Section: 18.01 Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage

10. The zygote receives cytoplasm, organelles, nutrients, and structural components from only the mother. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R07.01 Describe conception, including sperm capacitation, acrosomal reaction, sperm penetration, cortical reaction, and fusion of pronuclei. Learning Outcome: 18.01 Explain the events of fertilization and the conversion of the egg into a zygote. Section: 18.01 Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage

11. The function of the fertilization membrane is to aid in the entrance of the "winning" sperm into the ovum. FALSE The function of the fertilization membrane is to prevent any other sperm from entering the ovum.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R07.01 Describe conception, including sperm capacitation, acrosomal reaction, sperm penetration, cortical reaction, and fusion of pronuclei. Learning Outcome: 18.01 Explain the events of fertilization and the conversion of the egg into a zygote. Section: 18.01 Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage

Chapter 18 - Human Development and Birth

12. The plasma membrane of the ovum becomes the fertilization membrane. FALSE The zona pellucida becomes the fertilization membrane.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R07.01 Describe conception, including sperm capacitation, acrosomal reaction, sperm penetration, cortical reaction, and fusion of pronuclei. Learning Outcome: 18.01 Explain the events of fertilization and the conversion of the egg into a zygote. Section: 18.01 Topic: Fertilization and the pre-embryonic stage

Multiple Choice Questions 13. Cleavage A. is cell division with no increase in size. B. is mitosis. C. occurs immediately after fertilization. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R07.03 Describe the major events of embryonic and fetal development. Learning Outcome: 18.02 Discuss the processes of development. Section: 18.02 Topic: Embryonic stage

True / False Questions 14. Fraternal twins develop from the same fertilized ovum. FALSE Fraternal twins develop from two separate eggs being fertilized. Identical twins develop from the same fertilized ovum.

Chapter 18 - Human Development and Birth

Multiple Choice Questions 15. Morphogenesis refers to A. increase of size. B. shaping of the embryo and migration of cells. C. cells having a specific function. D. All apply.

16. Differentiation refers to A. cells taking on different structures and functions. B. movement of cells to shape the embryo. C. increased size of the cells. D. cell division with no increase in size.

True / False Questions 17. Gastrulation is an example of morphogenesis. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: R07.03 Describe the major events of embryonic and fetal development. Learning Outcome: 18.02 Discuss the processes of development. Section: 18.02 Topic: Embryonic stage

Chapter 18 - Human Development and Birth

18. During the embryonic period, growth occurs through mitosis and enlargement of the daughter cells. TRUE

19. Every cell of the morula and inner cell mass of the blastocyst have the ability to become any type of cell. TRUE

Multiple Choice Questions 20. The chorion is A. the first site of blood cell formation. B. the fetal half of the placenta. C. becomes the umbilical cord vessels. D. cushions and protects the embryo with fluid.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R07.04 Describe the formation and function of the placenta and extraembryonic membranes. Learning Outcome: 18.03 Name the four extra embryonic membranes, and give a function for each. Section: 18.02 Topic: Embryonic stage

Chapter 18 - Human Development and Birth

21. The yolk sac A. is the first site of blood cell formation. B. is the fetal half of the placenta. C. becomes the umbilical cord vessels. D. provides nutrition until the placenta is formed.

22. The allantois A. is the first site of blood cell formation. B. is the fetal half of the placenta. C. becomes the umbilical cord vessels. D. cushions and protects the embryo with fluid.

23. The amnion A. is the first site of blood cell formation. B. is the fetal half of the placenta. C. becomes the umbilical cord vessels. D. cushions and protects the embryo with fluid.

Chapter 18 - Human Development and Birth

24. Gestation A. is the time from fertilization to embryo formation. B. is the time from fertilization to birth. C. lasts about 280 days from the last menstruation. D. is the time from fertilization to birth and lasts about 280 days from the last menstruation are correct.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R07.03 Describe the major events of embryonic and fetal development. Learning Outcome: 18.04 Describe the events that occur during pre-embryonic and embryonic development. Section: 18.02 Topic: Embryonic stage

25. Embryonic development A. refers to the first week. B. refers to week two through month two. C. refers to months three through nine. D. All apply.

26. The pre-embryonic structure created by cleavage is a ball of cells called a A. blastocyst. B. trophoblast. C. morula. D. zygote.

Chapter 18 - Human Development and Birth

27. The pre-embryonic structure that enters the uterus is a fluid-filled ball of cells called a A. blastocyst. B. trophoblast. C. morula. D. zygote.

28. The outer ring of cells of the blastocyst makes up the ______, which will become the chorion. A. inner cell mass B. embryonic disk C. trophoblast D. amnion

29. The embryo will develop from the _______ of the blastocyst. A. inner cell mass B. embryonic disk C. trophoblast D. amnion

Chapter 18 - Human Development and Birth

30. Which is the last stage in pre-embryonic development? A. Blastocyst B. Cleavage C. Fertilization D. Morula

31. What important event does NOT occur in the second week of development? A. The heart develops. B. The embryonic disk is formed. C. Implantation begins. D. HCG is secreted to maintain the corpus luteum.

32. A typical pregnancy test detects the presence of A. fetal hemoglobin. B. estrogen. C. HCG. D. a corpus luteum.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R07.05 Describe the hormonal changes during pregnancy and the effect of these hormones. Learning Outcome: 18.04 Describe the events that occur during pre-embryonic and embryonic development. Section: 18.02 Topic: Embryonic stage

Chapter 18 - Human Development and Birth

33. The process of gastrulation ends with the formation of the A. allantois. B. placenta. C. primary germ layers. D. All apply.

34. Which of the following is NOT a primary germ layer? A. Ectoderm B. Epiderm C. Mesoderm D. Endoderm

35. From which primary germ layer do both the skeletal and muscular systems develop? A. Ectoderm B. Endoderm C. Mesoderm D. None of these choices are correct for both systems.

Chapter 18 - Human Development and Birth

36. From which primary germ layer does the nervous system and epidermis of the skin develop? A. Ectoderm B. Endoderm C. Mesoderm D. None apply.

37. From which primary germ layer does the epithelial lining of the digestive system and the blood vessels develop? A. Ectoderm B. Endoderm C. Mesoderm D. None of these choices are correct for both systems.

38. Identical twins involve _____ egg(s) and _____ sperm. A. two; two B. one; one C. two; one D. one; two

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: R07.03 Describe the major events of embryonic and fetal development. Learning Outcome: 18.04 Describe the events that occur during pre-embryonic and embryonic development. Section: 18.02 Topic: Embryonic stage

Chapter 18 - Human Development and Birth

39. An ectopic pregnancy that survives until term must be delivered A. vaginally. B. Cesarian section. C. either vaginally or Cesarian section.

40. The fetus is surrounded by a protective layer of ______ fluid. A. embryonic B. fetal C. amniotic D. cerebrospinal

41. During the third week of development, which two systems begin to develop? A. Nervous and digestive systems B. Respiratory and lymphatic systems C. Nervous and cardiovascular systems D. Muscular and urinary systems

Chapter 18 - Human Development and Birth

42. The first system to be visually evident is the A. muscular system. B. cardiovascular system. C. skeletal system. D. nervous system.

43. If the neural tube does not close inferiorly, ______ may result. A. anencephaly B. conjoined twins C. spina bifida D. down syndrome

44. Failure of the superior neural tube to close causes a fatal condition called A. anencephaly. B. spina bifida. C. striae gravidarum. D. SIDS.

Chapter 18 - Human Development and Birth

45. During the fourth and fifth weeks A. all organ systems have appeared. B. ossification begins. C. limb buds appear. D. mother begins to feel movement.

46. During the eighth week A. all organ systems have appeared. B. ossification begins. C. eyes, ears, and nose are noticeable. D. mother begins to feel movement.

True / False Questions 47. The heart begins as two tubes that fuse and begin to pump. TRUE

Chapter 18 - Human Development and Birth

48. A woman is clinically pregnant when fertilization occurs. FALSE A woman is clinically pregnant when implantation is successful.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R07.02 Define fertilization. Learning Outcome: 18.02 Discuss the processes of development. Section: 18.02 Topic: Embryonic stage

Multiple Choice Questions 49. Which hormone functions to maintain the corpus luteum, and therefore maintains pregnancy? A. LH B. Estrogen C. Progesterone D. Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R07.05 Describe the hormonal changes during pregnancy and the effect of these hormones. Learning Outcome: 18.02 Discuss the processes of development. Section: 18.02 Topic: Embryonic stage

50. At the placenta, A. oxygen enters the fetal circulation. B. nutrients enter the fetal circulation. C. nitrogenous wastes enter maternal circulation. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R07.04 Describe the formation and function of the placenta and extraembryonic membranes. Learning Outcome: 18.05 Describe the structures and functions of the placenta and the umbilical cord. Section: 18.02 Topic: Embryonic stage

Chapter 18 - Human Development and Birth

51. The placenta is composed of A. chorionic villi. B. uterine tissue. C. fetal tissue. D. All apply.

52. The umbilical cord contains A. the fetal intestine. B. two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein. C. only muscle tissue. D. two umbilical veins and one umbilical artery.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R07.03 Describe the major events of embryonic and fetal development. Learning Outcome: 18.05 Describe the structures and functions of the placenta and the umbilical cord. Section: 18.02 Topic: Fetal stage

53. The umbilical arteries carry A. waste and carbon dioxide toward the placenta. B. oxygen and nutrients toward the fetus. C. waste and carbon dioxide toward the fetus. D. oxygen and nutrients toward the placenta.

Chapter 18 - Human Development and Birth

True / False Questions 54. Maternal and fetal blood supplies mix to facilitate exchange. FALSE Maternal and fetal blood supplies do not mix, but are side-by-side.

Multiple Choice Questions 55. The umbilical vein carries A. waste and carbon dioxide toward the placenta. B. oxygen and nutrients toward the fetus. C. waste and carbon dioxide toward the fetus. D. oxygen and nutrients toward the placenta.

56. The completion of a functioning placenta marks the beginning of the ______ period of development. A. pre-embryonic B. embryonic C. fetal D. postnatal

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R07.03 Describe the major events of embryonic and fetal development. Learning Outcome: 18.06 Describe the events that occur during fetal development. Section: 18.02 Topic: Fetal stage

Chapter 18 - Human Development and Birth

57. During the third and fourth months, A. lanugo covers the body. B. ossification of bones begins. C. still can not determine the sex of the fetus. D. mother begins to feel movement.

58. During the fifth through seventh months, A. the sex can be determined visually. B. lanugo covers the body. C. mother begins to feel movement. D. both lanugo covers the body and mother begins to feel movement are true

59. During the eighth and ninth months, A. the testes descend into the scrotum. B. eyes are open. C. subcutaneous fat is deposited. D. skin is wrinkled and reddish.

Chapter 18 - Human Development and Birth

60. The gender of the individual is determined at A. birth. B. the third month. C. fertilization. D. gastrulation.

61. The tissues of the gonads are indifferent until the production of A. estrogen. B. progesterone. C. semen. D. testosterone.

62. The production of testosterone will cause the indifferent gonadal tissue to develop into A. testes. B. ovaries. C. kidneys. D. uterine tubes.

Chapter 18 - Human Development and Birth

63. A male will have ____ chromosomes, while a female has _____ chromosomes. A. XX; XY B. XY; XX

64. What is cryptorchidism? A. Failure of ovary development B. Vagina does not develop C. Undescended testes D. Scrotal sacs do not develop

65. When do ova and sperm begin to form? A. 6 weeks embryonically B. 14 weeks embryonically C. At birth D. At puberty

Chapter 18 - Human Development and Birth

66. When is the scrotum formed in the male? A. 6 weeks B. 9 weeks C. 14 weeks D. 20 weeks

True / False Questions 67. Hair begins to grow by the fourth month of fetal development. TRUE

68. The digestive, respiratory, and urinary systems of the fetus are nonfuctional. TRUE

Chapter 18 - Human Development and Birth

69. Wolffian ducts become the uterine tubes and uterus in the female and regress in the male. FALSE Mullerian ducts become the uterine tubes and uterus in the female and regress in the male. Wolffian ducts become the male ducts.

Multiple Choice Questions 70. What hormones initiate and continue uterine contractions until birth of the baby? A. Prostaglandins B. Estrogen C. Oxytocin D. Both prostaglandins and oxytocin

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R08.01 Explain the hormonal events that initiate and regulate labor. Learning Outcome: 18.07 Describe the three stages of birth. Section: 18.03 Topic: Labor and delivery

71. What are Braxton Hicks contractions? A. Stage 2 labor contractions B. Stage 3 labor contractions C. False-labor contractions D. Stage 1 labor contractions

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R08.02 Describe the three stages of labor. Learning Outcome: 18.07 Describe the three stages of birth. Section: 18.03 Topic: Labor and delivery

Chapter 18 - Human Development and Birth

72. During stage one of parturition, A. the placenta is delivered. B. the birth occurs. C. the cervix dilates.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R08.02 Describe the three stages of labor. Learning Outcome: 18.07 Describe the three stages of birth. Section: 18.03 Topic: Labor and delivery

73. During stage two of parturition, A. the placenta is delivered. B. the birth occurs. C. the cervix dilates.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R08.02 Describe the three stages of labor. Learning Outcome: 18.07 Describe the three stages of birth. Section: 18.03 Topic: Labor and delivery

74. During stage three of parturition A. the placenta is delivered. B. the birth occurs. C. the cervix dilates.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R08.02 Describe the three stages of labor. Learning Outcome: 18.07 Describe the three stages of birth. Section: 18.03 Topic: Labor and delivery

Chapter 18 - Human Development and Birth

75. Which of the following is NOT an effect of pregnancy on the mother? A. Increase in weight B. Decrease in vital capacity C. Increase in blood volume from 5 liters to 7 liters D. Increase in constipation and heartburn

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R07.06 Describe the functional changes in the maternal reproductive, endocrine, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, and urinary systems during pregnancy. Learning Outcome: 18.08 In general, describe the physical and physiological changes in the mother during pregnancy. Section: 18.03 Topic: Effects of pregnancy on the mother

76. Placental peptide hormones cause maternal A. increase in blood oxygen levels. B. striae gravidarum. C. resistance to insulin by body cells. D. drop in blood pressure.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: R07.05 Describe the hormonal changes during pregnancy and the effect of these hormones. Learning Outcome: 18.08 In general, describe the physical and physiological changes in the mother during pregnancy. Section: 18.03 Topic: Effects of pregnancy on the mother

True / False Questions 77. Darkening of the areolae and other areas of skin in the pregnant woman is due to increased steroid hormone levels. FALSE Darkening of the areolae and other areas of skin in the pregnant woman is due to increased melanocyte activity.

Chapter 18 - Human Development and Birth

Multiple Choice Questions 78. Why does the brain increase the respiration rate and depth during pregnancy? A. To increase maternal blood oxygen levels B. To increase maternal blood carbon dioxide levels C. To decrease maternal blood carbon dioxide levels D. Because the mother is breathing for two

True / False Questions 79. Maternal blood oxygen levels increase dramatically during the third trimester. FALSE Maternal blood oxygen levels change very little during pregnancy.

80. Placental estrogen reduces uterine motility during pregnancy. FALSE Placental progesterone reduces uterine motility during pregnancy.

Chapter 18 - Human Development and Birth

81. Placental progesterone reduces the maternal immune response to the fetus. TRUE

Chapter 19 - Human Genetics

Chapter 19 Human Genetics

Multiple Choice Questions 1. Autosomes are A. another term for the Y sex chromosomes. B. sex chromosomes. C. nonsex "self" chromosomes. D. abnormal chromosomes.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S02.01 Define the terms chromosome, gene, allele, homologous, homozygous, heterozygous, genotype and phenotype. Learning Outcome: 19.01 Explain the normal chromosomal inheritance of humans. Section: 19.01 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

2. A human female body cell contains A. 46 chromosomes. B. 44 autosomes. C. 2 X chromosomes. D. All apply.

Chapter 19 - Human Genetics

3. A display of an individual's chromosomes arranged by size, shape, and banding patterns is its A. somatotype. B. karyotype. C. syndrome. D. chromotype.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S03.01 Describe examples of prenatal and postnatal genetic testing. Learning Outcome: 19.02 Describe how a karyotype is prepared and two ways to obtain fetal chromosomes. Section: 19.01 Topic: Genetic testing

4. In adults, the cell used most often for karyotyping is a A. red blood cell. B. skin cell. C. gamete. D. white blood cell.

True / False Questions 5. A mature red blood cell is useful for karyotyping. FALSE A white blood cell is useful for karyotyping. A mature red blood cell has no nucleus, so it is useless for karyotyping.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: S03.01 Describe examples of prenatal and postnatal genetic testing. Learning Outcome: 19.02 Describe how a karyotype is prepared and two ways to obtain fetal chromosomes. Section: 19.01 Topic: Genetic testing

Chapter 19 - Human Genetics

Multiple Choice Questions 6. What procedure is used to obtain embryonic or fetal chromosomes for karyotyping? A. Chorionic villi sampling (CVS) B. Ultrasonography C. Amniocentesis D. Both chorionic villi sampling (CVS) or amniocentesis are used

7. Blood tests done with pregnant women routinely test for all of the following chemicals EXCEPT A. vitamin C. B. human chorionic gonadotropin. C. estriol. D. alpha-fetoprotein.

8. In preparing a cell sample for karyotyping, when are the cells most visible? A. Prophase B. Metaphase C. Anaphase D. Telophase

Chapter 19 - Human Genetics

9. When can chorionic villi sampling be done? A. 2 weeks of pregnancy B. 5 weeks of pregnancy C. 8 weeks of pregnancy D. 10 weeks of pregnancy

True / False Questions 10. Karyotyping of chromosomes may be done immediately from cells obtained by amniocentesis. FALSE Cells need to be cultured to get enough for karyotyping, so it may take up to four weeks before the karyotype can be done.

Chapter 19 - Human Genetics

Multiple Choice Questions 11. When does nondisjunction occur? A. Anaphase of mitosis B. Telophase of mitosis C. Anaphase of meiosis I or II D. Metaphase of meiosis II

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: S04.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if gene structure or chromosome number were altered. Learning Outcome: 19.03 Explain how nondisjunction results in inheritance of an abnormal chromosome number. Section: 19.01 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

12. Trisomy could result from A. an ovum of 24 chromosomes fertilized by a sperm with 23 chromosomes. B. an ovum of 22 chromosomes fertilized by a sperm with 23 chromosomes. C. an ovum of 23 chromosomes fertilized by a sperm with 23 chromosomes. D. None apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S04.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if gene structure or chromosome number were altered. Learning Outcome: 19.03 Explain how nondisjunction results in inheritance of an abnormal chromosome number. Section: 19.01 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

13. Monosomy could result from A. an ovum of 24 chromosomes fertilized by a sperm with 23 chromosomes. B. an ovum of 22 chromosomes fertilized by a sperm with 23 chromosomes. C. an ovum of 23 chromosomes fertilized by a sperm with 23 chromosomes. D. None apply.

Chapter 19 - Human Genetics

True / False Questions 14. Nondisjunction can only occur with autosomes, not the sex chromosomes. FALSE Nondisjunction may occur with any type of chromosome.

15. Most nondisjunction embryos fail to survive. TRUE

Multiple Choice Questions 16. Which condition occurs as a result of nondisjunction? A. Down syndrome B. Turner syndrome C. Poly-x syndrome D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S04.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if gene structure or chromosome number were altered. Learning Outcome: 19.04 Describe Down syndrome and various syndromes that result from the inheritance of an abnormal sex chromosome number. Section: 19.01 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

Chapter 19 - Human Genetics

17. Down syndrome is due to an extra A. X chromosome. B. Y chromosome. C. autosome. D. X chromosome or an extra Y chromosome.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S04.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if gene structure or chromosome number were altered. Learning Outcome: 19.04 Describe Down syndrome and various syndromes that result from the inheritance of an abnormal sex chromosome number. Section: 19.01 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

18. Another name for Down syndrome is A. trisomy 23. B. monosomy 15. C. trisomy 21. D. monosomy 20.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S04.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if gene structure or chromosome number were altered. Learning Outcome: 19.04 Describe Down syndrome and various syndromes that result from the inheritance of an abnormal sex chromosome number. Section: 19.01 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

19. The sex of a child is determined by the A. sperm. B. egg. C. either sperm or egg.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S02.05 Discuss the role of sex chromosomes in sex determination and sex-linked inheritance. Learning Outcome: 19.04 Describe Down syndrome and various syndromes that result from the inheritance of an abnormal sex chromosome number. Section: 19.01 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

Chapter 19 - Human Genetics

20. Chances of having a child with Down syndrome _______ with increasing maternal age. A. increases B. decreases

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S04.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if gene structure or chromosome number were altered. Learning Outcome: 19.04 Describe Down syndrome and various syndromes that result from the inheritance of an abnormal sex chromosome number. Section: 19.01 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

21. Turner syndrome is due to a(an) A. extra sex chromosome. B. missing sex chromosome. C. extra autosome. D. missing autosome.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S04.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if gene structure or chromosome number were altered. Learning Outcome: 19.04 Describe Down syndrome and various syndromes that result from the inheritance of an abnormal sex chromosome number. Section: 19.01 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

22. An XO individual will have A. klinefelter syndrome. B. jacobs syndrome. C. turner syndrome. D. poly-X syndrome.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S04.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if gene structure or chromosome number were altered. Learning Outcome: 19.04 Describe Down syndrome and various syndromes that result from the inheritance of an abnormal sex chromosome number. Section: 19.01 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

Chapter 19 - Human Genetics

23. An individual with Turner syndrome would be a A. female with nonfunctional ovaries and uterus. B. female with functional ovaries and uterus. C. male with nonfunctional testes. D. male with functional testes.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S04.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if gene structure or chromosome number were altered. Learning Outcome: 19.04 Describe Down syndrome and various syndromes that result from the inheritance of an abnormal sex chromosome number. Section: 19.01 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

24. An individual with one Y and two or more X chromosomes has A. klinefelter syndrome. B. jacobs syndrome. C. turner syndrome. D. poly-X syndrome.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S04.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if gene structure or chromosome number were altered. Learning Outcome: 19.04 Describe Down syndrome and various syndromes that result from the inheritance of an abnormal sex chromosome number. Section: 19.01 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

25. An individual with Klinefelter syndrome would be a A. female with nonfunctional ovaries and uterus. B. female with functional ovaries and uterus. C. male with nonfunctional testes. D. male with functional testes.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S04.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if gene structure or chromosome number were altered. Learning Outcome: 19.04 Describe Down syndrome and various syndromes that result from the inheritance of an abnormal sex chromosome number. Section: 19.01 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

Chapter 19 - Human Genetics

26. Poly-X females are A. never fertile. B. hermaphrodites. C. normally fertile. D. nonexistent.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S04.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if gene structure or chromosome number were altered. Learning Outcome: 19.04 Describe Down syndrome and various syndromes that result from the inheritance of an abnormal sex chromosome number. Section: 19.01 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

27. YO individuals are A. feminized males. B. masculine females. C. nonexistent. D. normal males.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S04.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if gene structure or chromosome number were altered. Learning Outcome: 19.04 Describe Down syndrome and various syndromes that result from the inheritance of an abnormal sex chromosome number. Section: 19.01 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

28. XYY individuals are usually A. super males. B. sterile females. C. males with speech and reading problems. D. nonexistent.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S04.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if gene structure or chromosome number were altered. Learning Outcome: 19.04 Describe Down syndrome and various syndromes that result from the inheritance of an abnormal sex chromosome number. Section: 19.01 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

Chapter 19 - Human Genetics

29. An individual with XYY has A. klinefelter syndrome. B. jacobs syndrome. C. turner syndrome. D. poly-X syndrome.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S04.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if gene structure or chromosome number were altered. Learning Outcome: 19.04 Describe Down syndrome and various syndromes that result from the inheritance of an abnormal sex chromosome number. Section: 19.01 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

30. Which sex chromosome(s) is(are) needed for life? A. X B. Y C. X and Y

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S02.05 Discuss the role of sex chromosomes in sex determination and sex-linked inheritance. HAPS Objective: S04.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if gene structure or chromosome number were altered. Learning Outcome: 19.04 Describe Down syndrome and various syndromes that result from the inheritance of an abnormal sex chromosome number. Section: 19.01 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

31. Genotype is A. the genes of an individual. B. the physical appearance of an individual. C. the alleles an individual has. D. Both the genes of an individual and the alleles an individual has are correct.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S02.01 Define the terms chromosome, gene, allele, homologous, homozygous, heterozygous, genotype and phenotype. Learning Outcome: 19.05 Explain autosomal dominant and recessive allele inheritance. Section: 19.02 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

Chapter 19 - Human Genetics

32. Phenotype is A. the genes of an individual. B. the physical appearance of an individual. C. the alleles an individual has. D. both the physical appearance of an individual and the alleles an individual has are correct.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S02.01 Define the terms chromosome, gene, allele, homologous, homozygous, heterozygous, genotype and phenotype. Learning Outcome: 19.05 Explain autosomal dominant and recessive allele inheritance. Section: 19.02 Topic: Genetic variability

33. Which genotype is homozygous? A. DD B. dd C. Dd D. Both DD and dd are correct.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: S02.01 Define the terms chromosome, gene, allele, homologous, homozygous, heterozygous, genotype and phenotype. Learning Outcome: 19.05 Explain autosomal dominant and recessive allele inheritance. Section: 19.02 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

34. A genotype of DD is A. heterozygous. B. homozygous recessive. C. heterozygous recessive. D. homozygous dominant.

Chapter 19 - Human Genetics

35. A genotype of Bb is A. heterozygous. B. homozygous recessive. C. heterozygous recessive. D. homozygous dominant.

36. A genotype of tt is A. homozygous recessive. B. homozygous dominant. C. heterozygous. D. sex-linked.

37. An individual that has a dominant allele will have the phenotype of the A. dominant trait. B. recessive trait. C. neither trait. D. both traits.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S02.02 Analyze genetics problems involving dominant and recessive alleles, incomplete dominance, codominance, and multiple alleles. Learning Outcome: 19.05 Explain autosomal dominant and recessive allele inheritance. Section: 19.02 Topic: Genetic variability

Chapter 19 - Human Genetics

38. Carriers for recessive disorders are A. homozygous dominant. B. heterozygous. C. homozygous recessive. D. either heterozygous or homozygous recessive.

39. Different forms of a gene are called A. loci. B. alleles. C. homozygous. D. homologous.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S02.01 Define the terms chromosome, gene, allele, homologous, homozygous, heterozygous, genotype and phenotype. Learning Outcome: 19.05 Explain autosomal dominant and recessive allele inheritance. Section: 19.02 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

40. A sex-linked gene inherited by a male comes from the A. father. B. mother. C. father or the mother. D. father and the mother.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S02.05 Discuss the role of sex chromosomes in sex determination and sex-linked inheritance. Learning Outcome: 19.06 Explain X-linked inheritance and why males have more X-linked disorders than females. Section: 19.02 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

Chapter 19 - Human Genetics

41. Can a female have an X-linked disorder? A. Never B. Yes, occurs frequently C. Yes, occurs infrequently D. Yes, always occurs

True / False Questions 42. A genetic disorder can lead to the synthesis of an abnormal protein. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand HAPS Objective: S04.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if gene structure or chromosome number were altered. Learning Outcome: 19.07 Relate the inheritance of an allele to protein synthesis. Section: 19.02 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

Multiple Choice Questions 43. An abnormal allele, leading to an abnormal channel protein, is the cause of A. hemophilia. B. cystic fibrosis. C. unattached earlobes. D. asthma.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S04.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if gene structure or chromosome number were altered. Learning Outcome: 19.07 Relate the inheritance of an allele to protein synthesis. Section: 19.02 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

Chapter 19 - Human Genetics

44. What short-cut is used to predict the probability of inheriting a particular trait? A. Karyotype B. Electrophoresis C. Punnett square D. Amniocentesis

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S02.02 Analyze genetics problems involving dominant and recessive alleles, incomplete dominance, codominance, and multiple alleles. Learning Outcome: 19.08 Describe how to construct and interpret a Punnett square. Section: 19.02 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

45. What is the most lethal genetic disorder among Caucasians in the United States? A. Down syndrome B. Tay-Sach's disease C. Spina bifida D. Cystic fibrosis

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S04.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if gene structure or chromosome number were altered. Learning Outcome: 19.09 Tell how a genetic counselor could help a couple who are carriers for cystic fibrosis. Section: 19.02 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

46. In which situation can a child born with a genetic disease have two normal parents? A. When the disease gene is dominant and the parents are heterozygous B. When the disease gene is recessive and the parents are heterozygous C. When the disease gene is either dominant or recessive D. It is not possible

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S02.02 Analyze genetics problems involving dominant and recessive alleles, incomplete dominance, codominance, and multiple alleles. Learning Outcome: 19.09 Tell how a genetic counselor could help a couple who are carriers for cystic fibrosis. Section: 19.02 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

Chapter 19 - Human Genetics

47. One way for a genetic counselor to deduce inheritance patterns is to construct a diagram of the trait that is called a(an) A. karyotype. B. pedigree. C. amniocentesis. D. preimplantation genetic diagnosis.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S03.01 Describe examples of prenatal and postnatal genetic testing. Learning Outcome: 19.09 Tell how a genetic counselor could help a couple who are carriers for cystic fibrosis. Section: 19.02 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

48. Which of the following is NOT a dominant inherited disorder? A. Neurofibromatosis B. Achondroplasia C. Hemophilia D. Huntington disease

49. Which of the following is NOT a recessive inherited disorder? A. Cystic fibrosis B. Phenylketonuria C. Sickle-cell disease D. Muscular dystrophy

Chapter 19 - Human Genetics

50. Which of the following is NOT a multiple gene inherited disorder? A. Cleft-lip B. Spina bifida C. Tay-Sach's disease D. Hydrocephalus

51. Which of the following is NOT a sex-linked inherited disorder? A. Thalassemia B. Color blindness C. Hemophilia D. Muscular dystrophy

52. The insertion of genetic material into human cells for treatment of a disorder is A. a pedigree. B. a genome. C. amniocentesis. D. gene therapy.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.10 Explain how gene therapy is being used to treat genetic disorders. Section: 19.03 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

Chapter 19 - Human Genetics

53. The most common vector that is used to transport DNA into a cell for gene therapy is a(an) A. virus. B. bacteria. C. cancer cell. D. allergen.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.10 Explain how gene therapy is being used to treat genetic disorders. Section: 19.03 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

54. The most common virus class used as a vector is the A. retrovirus. B. herpes virus. C. adenovirus. D. liposome.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.10 Explain how gene therapy is being used to treat genetic disorders. Section: 19.03 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

55. Which of the following are alternate ways to introduce DNA into a cell (other than viruses)? A. Direct insertion of DNA B. Attachment to a liposome C. Attachment to the cell membrane D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.10 Explain how gene therapy is being used to treat genetic disorders. Section: 19.03 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

Chapter 19 - Human Genetics

56. All the genetic information in all the chromosomes of an individual is their A. genome. B. karyotype. C. pedigree. D. All apply.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S02.01 Define the terms chromosome, gene, allele, homologous, homozygous, heterozygous, genotype and phenotype. Learning Outcome: 19.11 Discuss genomics, including how genomics might lead to better treatments for illnesses. Section: 19.03 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

True / False Questions 57. The order of 99.9% of the base pairs of all people is exactly the same. TRUE

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember Learning Outcome: 19.11 Discuss genomics, including how genomics might lead to better treatments for illnesses. Section: 19.03 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression

58. Over 50% of the genome codes for proteins. FALSE Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember HAPS Objective: S02.01 Define the terms chromosome, gene, allele, homologous, homozygous, heterozygous, genotype and phenotype. Learning Outcome: 19.11 Discuss genomics, including how genomics might lead to better treatments for illnesses. Section: 19.03 Topic: Gene inheritance and expression