TEST BANK for Nutritional Assessment 7th Edition by David Nieman by StudyGuide

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank Multiple Choice 1. Which of the following is a systematic problem-solving method that dietitians use criticalthinking skills to make evidence-based decisions addressing the nutrition-related problems of their patients? A. Nutritional assessment B. Nutritional screening C. The nutrition care process D. Nutrition monitoring Ans: C 2. Which of the following is the first step in the Nutrition Care Process? A. Nutrition monitoring and evaluation B. Nutrition assessment C. Nutrition diagnosis D. Nutrition intervention Ans: B 3. Which of the following is at the center of the Nutrition Care Process Model? A. The dietitian’s strengths and abilities B. The four steps of the Nutrition Care Process C. Environmental factors impacting the patient’s ability to benefit from the Nutrition Care Process D. The relationship between the dietitian and the patient Ans: D 4. Which of the following is the basis for establishing the nutrition diagnosis? A. The medical diagnosis B. Nutritional assessment data C. The patient’s signs and symptoms D. The patient’s medical history Ans: B

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank

5. In the Nutrition Care Process, the selection of the intervention is driven by __________. A. the medical diagnosis B. nutritional assessment data C. the patient’s signs and symptoms D. the nutrition diagnosis and its etiology Ans: D 6. The identification and descriptive labeling of a nutrition problem that the dietetics practitioner is responsible for independently addressing is known as __________. A. the medical diagnosis B. the nutrition diagnosis C. the patient’s signs and symptoms D. the patient’s medical history Ans: B 7. Nutrition diagnostic terms that describe problems related to inadequate, excessive, or inappropriate food or nutrient consumption are part of the __________ domain. A. behavioral-environmental B. clinical C. intake D. intervention Ans: C 8. Nutrition diagnostic terms that describe nutritional problems related to specific medical or physical diseases or conditions are part of the __________ domain. A. behavioral-environmental B. clinical C. intake D. intervention Ans: B

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank

9. Nutrition diagnostic terms that describe nutritional problems related to nutrition knowledge, attitudes, and beliefs about food and nutrition, the physical environment, access to food, and food safety are part of the __________ domain. A. behavioral-environmental B. clinical C. intake D. intervention Ans: A 10. The planning and implementation of strategies to change nutritional intake, nutrition knowledge and behavior, and environmental conditions to improve the nutrition problem is known as __________. A. nutrition assessment B. nutrition diagnosis C. nutrition intervention D. nutrition monitoring and evaluation Ans: C 11. The step in the Nutrition Care Process that involves objectively determining whether and to what extent the goals of the intervention have been met is known as __________. A. nutrition assessment B. nutrition diagnosis C. nutrition intervention D. nutrition monitoring and evaluation Ans: D

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank True/False 12. The Nutrition Care Process is intended to help standardize the process of delivering nutritionrelated care, but is not intended to standardize the actual nutrition care that different patients receive. Ans: True 13. Nutritional assessment is a one-time, isolated event that occurs at the beginning of a patient’s nutrition-related care. Ans: False 14. The medical diagnosis and the nutrition diagnosis are the same. Ans: False 15. The nutrition diagnosis is written in terms of a patient’s problem for which nutrition-related activities provide the primary intervention. Ans: True 16. In the Nutrition Care Process, the nutrition intervention should target etiology of the problems identified in the medical diagnosis. Ans: False 17. The recommendations of the nutrition intervention should be patient-driven and have measurable goals that are established in collaboration with the patient. Ans: True 18. PES statements are intended to clarify the specific nutrition problem and link the nutrition diagnosis to the nutrition intervention. Ans: True

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 19. An example of a reference standard for food and nutrient intake against which an estimate of the patient’s nutrient intake can be compared is the Dietary Guidelines for Americans. Ans: True 20. Although noncommunicable diseases such as coronary heart disease and type 2 diabetes are becoming more prevalent, the World Health Organization estimates that by the year 2020 communicable or infectious diseases will continue to be the leading causes of death worldwide. Ans: False 21. While the term epidemic is typically used to describe a marked increase in the number of cases of an infectious or communicable disease over a certain period of time, the term can appropriately be used to describe a marked increase in noncommunicable diseases or other adverse health conditions such as obesity. Ans: True 22. Data on food and beverage intake based on information provided by a patient or a member of the patient’s family are considered to be objective information. Ans. False 23. Nutritional screening precedes nutritional assessment. Ans: True

Fill-in-the-Blank 24. The process of identifying an individual who is malnourished or who is at risk for malnutrition to determine if a detailed nutrition assessment is indicated is known as __________. Ans: nutritional screening 25. A systematic method for obtaining, verifying, and interpreting data needed to identify nutrition-related problems, their causes, and their significance is known as __________. Ans: nutritional assessment Copyright ©2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank

26. The format used in the Nutrition Care Process to write a nutrition diagnosis is known as a __________. Ans: PES Statement 27. Nutrition diagnostic terms are divided into three __________. Ans: domains 28. A clinical approach for assessing nutritional status that relies on information collected by the clinician through observation and interviews at the patient’s bedside is known as __________. Ans: Subjective Global Assessment 29. The term __________ has been coined to identify what many epidemiologists consider to be a global epidemic of obesity. Ans: globesity 30. The activities necessary to provide timely information about the contributions of food and nutrient consumption and nutritional status to the health of a population group or nation are known as __________. Ans: nutrition monitoring

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank Chapter 02 Multiple Choice 1. Which one of the following statements is true about the nutrition recommendations developed by Carl Voit and Wilber Atwater? A. They were observational in nature B. They included recommendations for vitamins A & C, thiamin, and riboflavin C. They served as the basis for the Recommended Dietary Allowances D. They were the first to make recommendations for pregnancy, lactation, and growth Ans: A 2. Which one of the following statements about early, observational dietary standards and guidelines is false? A. A catalyst for their development was starvation & associated diseases resulting from economic dislocation & unemployment B. They addressed ways of providing nutrition at the lowest cost C. They were developed from calorimetry and nitrogen balance studies on humans D. They assumed that observed intake equaled physiologic need Ans: C 3. Which one of the following represents the point of nutrient intake at which one half of the members of a given group will have its nutrient needs met while the remaining half will not? A. Estimated Average Requirement B. Adequate Intake C. Recommended Dietary Allowance D. Tolerable Upper Intake Level Ans: A 4. Which of the following is the nutrient intake level sufficient to meet the nutrient requirements of approximately 97% of people in a given sex/age group? A. Estimated Average Requirement B. Adequate Intake C. Recommended Dietary Allowance D. Tolerable Upper Intake Level Ans: C Copyright ©2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank

5. The recommended intakes for most nutrients for infants up to age 1 year are expressed in terms of ________. A. Estimated Average Requirement B. Adequate Intake C. Recommended Dietary Allowance D. Tolerable Upper Intake Level Ans: B 6. Which one of the following was developed to assist persons with diabetes in planning their diets? A. The Dietary Reference Intakes B. The Daily Values C. The Dietary Guidelines for Americans D. The Food Exchange System Ans: D 7. The recommendations contained within the Dietary Guidelines for Americans are applicable to the general public living in the United States ________. A. beginning at the time of birth B. beginning at about two years of age C. beginning at about the age children begin attending kindergarten D. beginning in adolescence Ans: B 8. Which of the following is a nutrient whose intake is less than the recommended intake level for a significant part of the population? A. A shortfall nutrient B. A missing nutrient C. A phantom nutrient D. A misplaced nutrient Ans: A

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank

9. Which one of the following was developed by the USDA for assessing the quality of the diets of Americans? A. U.S. Dietary Goals B. Hassle-Free Foundation Diet C. Nutrient Density D. Healthy Eating Index Ans: D 10. Which of the following is the recommended daily dietary intake level that is assumed to be adequate and that is based on experimentally determined approximations of observed nutrient intake by a group of healthy people? A. Estimated Average Requirement B. Adequate Intake C. Recommended Dietary Allowance D. Tolerable Upper Intake Level Ans: B 11. Which of the following is the highest level of daily nutrient intake that is likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects to almost all apparently healthy individuals in the general population? A. Estimated Average Requirement B. Adequate Intake C. Recommended Dietary Allowance D. Tolerable Upper Intake Level Ans: D 12. The food labeling values established by the Food and Drug Administration for use in the Nutrition Facts panel are known as ________. A. the U.S. Dietary Goals B. the Dietary Guidelines for Americans C. Dietary Reference Intakes D. the Daily Values Ans: D Copyright ©2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 13. Broccoli dipped in batter and deep-fat fried would have ________ nutrient density compared to steamed broccoli, lightly salted, and served with a lemon wedge. A. about the same B. a lower C. a higher D. double the Ans: B 14. Which of the following options correctly represents the chronological sequence in the development of the three graphic food guides listed? A. Food Guide Pyramid; MyPlate; MyPyramid B. Food Guide Pyramid; MyPyramid; MyPlate C. MyPlate; MyPyramid; Food Guide Pyramid D. MyPyramid; Food Guide Pyramid; MyPlate Ans: B 15. The primary focus of the 2015-2020 Dietary Guidelines for Americans is ________. A. an improved nutrient density B. a healthy eating pattern C. increased intake of shortfall nutrients D. a decrease in saturated fats and cholesterol Ans: B 16. Which one of the following is NOT one of the five general guidelines for the 2015-2020 Dietary Guidelines for Americans? A. Focus on foods with high levels of antioxidant nutrients B. Follow a healthy eating pattern across the lifespan C. Support healthy eating patterns for all D. Limit calories from added sugars and saturated fats and reduce sodium intake Ans: A

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 17. The 2015-2020 Dietary Guidelines for Americans focus on three examples of healthy eating patterns. Which one of the following was NOT included? A. The Healthy U.S.-Style Eating Pattern B. The Healthy Mediterranean-Style Eating Pattern C. The Healthy Vegetarian Eating Pattern D. The Healthy Paleolithic Eating Pattern Ans: D 18. On May 20, 2016, the FDA announced the new Nutrition Facts label for packaged foods. Which one of the following updates to the Nutrition Facts label was mandated by 2018? A. Serving sizes must be based on what they should be eating B. Include "Calories from Fat" C. Increase the type size for "Calories" D. Listing "added sugars" no longer required Ans: C 19. The ________ are dietary reference values intended to help consumers use food label information to plan healthy diets. A. Dietary Guidelines for Americans B. DRIs C. EARs D. Daily Values Ans: D 20. The ________ system is a method of planning meals that simplifies controlling energy consumption (particularly from carbohydrate), helps ensure adequate nutrient intake, and allows considerable variety in food selection. A. Choose Your Foods B. Dietary Guidelines for Americans C. DRIs D. Daily Values Ans: A

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 21. In the HEI-2010, all of the components are assessed on a ________ basis to allow a common standard to be applied to individual diets or any other mix of foods. A. percentage B. volume C. density D. mass Ans: C

True/False 22. One of the weaknesses of the Dietary Reference Intakes is that they provide no guidance on the use of nutritional supplements. Ans: False 23. One of the changes that was made when the Dietary Reference Intakes were developed was eliminating the Recommended Dietary Allowance. Ans: False 24. The “reference amount” is the amount of a food that people customarily consume per eating occasion and which is used by the U.S. Food and Drug Association in establishing the serving size in the Nutrition Facts label for that food. Ans: True 25. A food guide is a nutrition tool that translates scientific knowledge and dietary standards and recommendations into an understandable and practical form for use by those who have little or no nutrition training. Ans: True 26. The primary purpose of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans is to prevent or delay the onset of chronic diseases. Ans: True

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 27. There is no Recommended Dietary Allowance or Tolerable Upper Intake Level for energy. Ans: True 28. The Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) are the result of an on-going collaborative effort by nutrition scientists in Canada and the United States. Ans: True 29. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration and the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention are jointly responsible for developing the Dietary Guidelines for Americans. Ans: False 30. Since they were first established in 1980, a basic premise of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans has been that nutrient needs should be met primarily by consuming naturally occurring foods as opposed to relying on fortified foods or dietary supplements. Ans: True 31. In contrast to early indices of diet quality, which tended to focus on preventing nutrient deficiency diseases, more recent indices tend to focus on the prevention of chronic disease. Ans: True

Fill-in-the-Blank 32. A food’s vitamin and mineral content relative to its energy content is known as __________. Ans: nutrient density 33. Using evidence-based criteria to rank or classify foods based on their nutrient composition is known as __________. Ans: nutrient profiling

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 34. __________ is an approach to help people plan diets that maintain adequate nutrient intake while minimizing consumption of unnecessary energy and reducing the intake of sodium, solid fats, dietary cholesterol, added sugars, and refined grains. Ans: Nutrient density 35. An innovative, on-line tool designed by the U.S. Department of Agriculture to help consumers understand their energy, food, and nutrient requirements is known as __________. Ans: SuperTracker 36. The average dietary energy intake that is predicted to maintain energy balance in a healthy person of a defined age, gender, weight, and level of physical activity consistent with good health is known as the __________. Ans: Estimated Energy Requirement 37. The __________ was created in response to concerns about the potential for excessive nutrient intakes resulting from recent increases in consumption of nutrient- fortified foods and dietary supplements. Ans: Tolerable Upper Intake Level 38. A __________ is a nutrition education tool translating scientific knowledge and dietary standards and recommendations into an understandable and practical form for use by those who have little or no training in nutrition. Ans: food guide 39. The __________ provide guidance to individuals on the consumption of total fat, polyunsaturated fatty acids, saturated fatty acids, dietary cholesterol, carbohydrate, and protein to ensure adequate intake and to decrease risk of chronic disease. Ans: Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges 40. Statements from authoritative scientific bodies translating nutritional recommendations into practical advice to consumers about their eating habits are known as __________. Ans: dietary guidelines or dietary goals Copyright ©2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank

41. Because the Adequate Intake is based on observed or experimentally derived approximations of average nutrient intake that appear to maintain a defined nutritional state or criterion of adequacy in a group of people, it is considered an __________ standard. Ans: observational

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank Chapter 03 Multiple Choice 1. The ability of an instrument of actually measure what it is intended to measure is known as ________. A. validity B. precision C. reproducibility D. CV Ans: A 2. Which of the following approaches to measuring dietary intake would be best suited for evaluating past food and beverage intake? A. Food frequency questionnaire B. 3-day food record C. 7-day food record D. 14-day food record Ans: A 3. Which of the following approaches to measuring diet is used by Willett and coworkers at Harvard University in such studies as the Nurses' Health Study and the Health Professionals Follow-up Study? A. 24-hour recall B. Diet history C. Food frequency questionnaire D. Food record Ans: C 4. The ASA24 is ________. A. a self-administered screener for assessing sodium intake in the past 24 hours B. a computer-assisted, five-step, multiple-pass 24-hour recall system C. an internet-based automated, self-administered 24-hour dietary recall D. an internet-based food frequency questionnaire with a list of 24 food groups Ans: C Copyright ©2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 5. Which of the approaches to measuring diet has the advantage of being both self-administered and machine readable? A. 24-hour recall B. Food frequency questionnaire C. Food record Ans: B 6. Which of the following best explains why a single 24-hour recall is unsuitable for characterizing usual dietary intake? A. Subjects may withhold information about what they eat due to embarrassment. B. Subjects may forget what they ate. C. Food and nutrient intake varies so much from day-to-day. D. Subjects often change their usual diet in order to simplify the act of recording. Ans: C 7. The Diet History Questionnaire is an example of a ________. A. 24-hour recall B. diet history C. food frequency questionnaire D. food record Ans: C 8. Which of the following bypasses use of food composition data to arrive at an estimate of nutrient consumption? A. Duplicate food collections B. Food balance sheets C. Food frequency questionnaires D. Telephone interviews Ans: A

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 9. The ability of an instrument to produce the same estimate on two or more occasions, assuming that nothing has changed in the interim is known as ________. A. accuracy B. reliability C. validity D. CV Ans: B 10. Studies comparing reported energy intake with more objective measures of energy intake indicate that ________. A. most subjects report their energy intake with reasonable accuracy B. most subjects under report their energy intake C. most subjects over report their energy intake D. None of the choices are correct. Ans: B 11. If a subject's reported usual energy intake is < 1.2 times his or her calculated resting energy expenditure, it is likely that the subject has ________. A. under reported energy intake B. over reported energy intake C. reported energy intake with reasonable accuracy D. None of the choices are correct. Ans: A 12. A food eaten but not reported in a 24-hour recall is known as a ________. A. shortfall food B. missing food C. phantom food D. apparition food Ans: B

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 13. A low score on the MEDFICTS questionnaire most likely indicates that ________. A. the respondent's diet is consistent with "heart-healthy diet" B. the respondent does not have a "heart-healthy diet" C. the respondent is at increased risk of coronary heart disease D. the respondent is at increased risk of cancer Ans: A 14. Which one of the following is the preferred method of measuring sodium consumption? A. Weighed food record B. Food frequency questionnaire C. Measuring sodium in a 24-hour urine sample D. 24-hour recall Ans: C 15. Which of the following best describes the MEDFICTS questionnaire? A. 24-hour recall B. Diet history C. Food diary or food record D. Food frequency questionnaire Ans: D 16. Which one of the following is a limitation of the 24-hour recall? A. Does not alter the usual diet B. Low respondent burden C. Relies on memory D. Individuals tend to over report intake of foods that they consume at high levels Ans: C

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank

17. A limitation of the ________ method is that nutrient intake data can be compromised when multiple foods are grouped within single listings. A. 24-hour recall B. duplicate food collection method C. food diary or food record D. food frequency questionnaire Ans: D 18. What is considered the method of choice for research on diet-disease relationship in large cohorts? A. 24-hour recall B. Duplicate food collection method C. Food diary or food record D. Food frequency questionnaire Ans: D True/False 19. One of the limitations of the food record is that it relies on the memory of food eaten in the past. Ans: False 20. The measurement of urinary nitrogen excretion to verify protein intake in dietary surveys is an example of a biologic marker. Ans: True 21. The advantage of using doubly labeled water to measure energy expenditure is that it is ideally suited for use in free-living subjects. Ans: True

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 22. In some types of nutritional research, simply ranking subjects in categories of high, medium, or low nutrient intake is sufficient for arriving at conclusions about the role of diet in health and disease. Ans: True 23. A food that is reported to have been eaten in a 24-hour recall but that is not really eaten is known as a phantom food. Ans: True 24. A food record would be a suitable approach for measuring the diet of an illiterate subject. Ans: False 25. A food frequency questionnaire that does not ask the respondent to provide any information about the portion sizes of foods and beverages consumed is referred to as a semi-quantitative food frequency questionnaire. Ans: False 26. A potential limitation of the food record or food diary is that subjects may simplify their diet in order to make the process or recording their diet easier. Ans: True 27. Research has shown that administering a 24-hour recall using a telephone interview is not a recommended approach for collecting dietary intake data. Ans: False

Fill-in-the-Blank 28. Three-dimensional food models and two-dimensional images are sometimes used by researchers to help subjects correctly estimate _________ sizes. Ans: portion

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 29. A __________ is a person providing information about a subject’s behavior (e.g., dietary practices) when the subject is unable to provide the necessary information. Ans: surrogate 30. In a case-control study investigating how past exposure to some dietary factor of interest relates to current disease risk, a dietary measurement method that is __________ in nature would need to be used. Ans: retrospective 31. Day-to-day change in what an individual eats or drinks is referred to as __________ variability. Ans: intraindividual 32. A food frequency questionnaire designed to assess intake of a single nutrient or a limited number of food components is known as a __________. Ans: screener 33. The Nurses’ Health Study and the Health Professionals Follow-up Study are two examples of prospective __________ studies. Ans: cohort 34. The ability of an instrument to actually measure what it is intended to measure is known as __________. Ans: validity 35. The amount of linoleic acid in a subject’s adipose tissue is a useful __________ for determining dietary intake of linoleic acid in the diet. Ans: biological marker

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 36. The ability of an instrument to produce the same estimate on two or more occasions, assuming that nothing has changed in the interim is known as __________. Ans: reproducibility

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank Chapter 04 Multiple Choice 1. Consider self-reported data on height and weight obtained using telephone interviews. Which one of following statements is true? A. These data accurately represent the true prevalence of overweight and obesity in the sample. B. These data tend to underestimate the true prevalence of overweight and obesity in the sample. C. These data tend to overestimate the true prevalence of overweight and obesity in the sample. D. None of the choices are correct. Ans: B 2. Which one of the following statements is true about the Ten-State Nutrition Survey? A. The survey provided data representative of the general U.S. population. B. The survey was conducted in the early 1990s. C. The survey led to the addition of a dietary assessment component to the National Health Examination Survey and to the beginning of the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey. D. None of the choices are correct. Ans: C 3. A research arm of Congress that audits government programs and highlights areas of waste and fraud is the _________. A. Federation of American Societies for Experimental Biology B. Food Surveys Research Group C. Government Accountability Office D. National Technical Information Service Ans: C 4. The earliest efforts at nutritional monitoring in the United States were carried out by the ________. A. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention B. National Academy of Sciences C. USDA D. USDHHS Ans: C Copyright ©2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

5. Food availability data are derived from ________. A. the balance sheet approach B. multiple 24-hour recalls obtained by telephone interviews C. the administration of the food frequency questionnaire D. multiple-day food records or food diaries Ans: A 6. Which one of the following statements is true? The National Health Examination Survey ________. A. is currently conducted in conjunction with the National Health and Nutrition Examination Surveys in order to provide supplemental data on the prevalence of selected chronic diseases and health conditions B. was conducted before the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey began C. was conducted after the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey began D. None of the choices are correct. Ans: B 7. The Economic Research Service is a department within the ________. A. U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention B. U.S. Department of Agriculture C. U.S. Department of Health and Human Services D. U.S. Food and Drug Administration Ans: B 8. Which of the following is another name for what is now referred to as What We Eat in America? A. The Diet and Health Knowledge Survey B. The National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey C. The Nationwide Food Consumption Survey D. The Total Diet Study Ans: B

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 9. Which one of the following is responsible for maintaining nutrient databases in the United States? A. U.S. Department of Agriculture B. U.S. Department of Health and Human Services C. U.S. Food and Drug Administration D. National Technical Information Service Ans: A 10. Estimates of the prevalence of overweight and obesity in the United States based on data collected by the Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System are likely to __________ the true prevalence of overweight and obesity in the U.S. A. underestimate B. overestimate C. accurately represent Ans: A 11. Annual per capita availability of which one of the following beverages is greatest? A. Beer B. Regular soft drinks C. Coffee D. Milk Ans: B 12. Unless adjusted for losses, food availability data tend to _________ actual food and nutrient consumption. A. overestimate B. fairly accurately represent C. underestimate Ans: A

13. Which one of the following is responsible for measuring food security in the United States? A. U.S. Department of Agriculture B. U.S. Department of Health and Human Services C. U.S. Food and Drug Administration D. National Technical Information Service Ans: A 14. Which one of the following is responsible for conducting the Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System? A. U.S. Department of Agriculture B. U.S. Department of Health and Human Services C. U.S. Food and Drug Administration D. National Technical Information Service Ans: B 15. In the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey, older participants have _______. A. a more extensive examination than younger participants B. a less extensive examination than younger participants C. essentially the same examination as do younger participants Ans: A 16. Between 1909 and 2010, the annual per capita availability of cheese ________. A. increased nearly 10-fold B. decreased by half C. stayed the same D. increased 3-fold Ans: A 17. What type of meat had the highest annual per capita availability in 2010? A. Beef B. Total fish C. Pork D. Chicken Ans: D

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18. Of any food category, ________ are the single largest source of added sweeteners in the U.S. diet. A. snacks and sweets B. grains C. sugar-sweetened beverages D. dairy Ans: C 19. The percent of kilocalories from fat is ________ according to data collected in What We Eat in America, National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES) 2013–2014. A. 49 B. 16 C. 34 D. 25 Ans: C 20. In the NHANES dietary measurement component, data are collected using two ________ and the NHANES Food Frequency Questionnaire (FFQ). A. 3-day food records B. 24-hour recalls C. 7-day food records D. diet histories Ans: B 21. An estimated ________ of American households were food-insecure at least some time during the year 2015. A. 87.3% B. 5.0% C. 12.7% D. 25.9% Ans: C

22. Per capita (per person) food availability is calculated by dividing the total amount of food available for consumption by ________. A. the number of households B. the number of family units C. the total number of people in the U.S. population D. the number of women Ans: C

True/False 23. Prior to passage of the National Nutrition Monitoring & Related Research Act of 1990, the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services had not been involved in the nutritional monitoring of the U.S. population. Ans: False 24. The National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey is a continuous, on-going survey conducted annually. Ans: True 25. “Health: United States,” published annually by the National Center for Health Statistics, is an example of the type of publication mandated by the National Nutritional Monitoring and Related Research Program, which requires timely dissemination of data on the dietary, nutritional, and health related status of the U.S. population. Ans: True 26. The purpose of the USDA's Supplemental Children's Survey is to gather the necessary data for updating the CDC's pediatric growth charts. Ans: False 27. Strengths of food availability data are that they provide information on patterns of food consumption over time and are the only source of information on food and nutrient trends since the beginning of the twentieth century. Ans: True

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28. The major reason for the National Nutritional Monitoring and Related Research Program was to establish programs at the federal level for monitoring the nutritional status of the U.S. population. Ans: False 29. The methodology used to collect food availability data is the same as that used by the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey to measure diet. Ans: False 30. Unlike the data collected by the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey, the data collected by the Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System can be analyzed at the state or metropolitan level. Ans: True 31. Data on the prevalence of overweight and obesity collected by the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey are based on the body mass index of each subject participating in the survey, which is calculated using height and weight that are measured following standardized protocol. Ans: True 32. Since the early 20th century, the availability of chicken has increased markedly as Americans have shown an increased preference for poultry because of its lower price and greater convenience compared to beef. Ans: True

Fill-in-the-Blank 33. Beginning in 1999, the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey became a __________, annual survey rather than one conducted periodically. Ans: continuous or on-going

34. In the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey, anthropometric measurements and physical examinations are performed by trained staff members in specially designed and equipped __________ examination centers. Ans: mobile 35. Unlike the height and weight data collected by the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey, the height and weight data collected by the Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System are __________. Ans: self-reported 36. A primary dietary assessment method used by the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey is the administration of two __________. Ans: 24-hour recalls 37. Limited or uncertain availability of nutritionally adequate and safe food or limited or uncertain ability to acquire foods in socially acceptable ways is known as __________. Ans: food insecurity 38. Per capita food __________ is calculated by dividing the total amount of food available for consumption by the total number of people in the U.S. population. Ans: availability 39. Food availability data tend to _________ actual food and nutrient consumption unless they are adjusted for losses. Ans: overestimate 40. The __________ Nutrition Survey was the nation’s first comprehensive survey to assess the nutritional status of a large segment of the U.S. population. Ans: Ten-State

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 41. Food and nutrient intake data collected by the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey are referred to as __________. Ans: What We Eat in America 42. The Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System uses an interview conducted by __________ to collect data. Ans: telephone

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank Chapter 05 Multiple Choice 1. The identification number for each food item in the USDA Nutrient Database is known as ________. A. the derivation code B. the food group code C. the NDB number D. the source code Ans: C 2. Which one of the following is the most important consideration to make when selecting a computerized diet analysis system? A. How easy the program is to operate B. The quality of its nutrient database C. The system’s output characteristics D. The cost Ans: B 3. The USDA began publishing food composition data in ________. A. the 1890s B. the 1920s C. the 1940s D. the 1960s Ans: A 4. An effort on the part of the United Nations to improve data on the nutrient composition of foods from all parts of the world is known by the acronym ________. A. AOAC B. BHNRC C. FSIS D. INFOODS Ans: D

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank

5. Which one of the following is the nutrient database used to analyze food intake information collected by What We Eat in America, NHANES? A. National Nutrient Database B. Nutrient Database for Standard Reference C. Food and Nutrient Database for Dietary Studies (FNDDS) D. Dietary Reference Intake database Ans: C 6. Which one of the following serves as the core for most commercial and many international nutrient databases? A. National Nutrient Database B. Nutrient Database for Standard Reference C. Food and Nutrient Database for Dietary Studies D. Dietary Reference Intake database Ans: B 7. Choosing a similar food from a computer database when the specific food is not in the database is known as ________. A. derivation B. imputing C. retention D. substitution Ans: B True/False 8. It is always preferable to have a diet analysis system with a database having a large number of foods and a large number of nutrients and food components. Ans: False 9. Nutrient values in a database that are taken from another form of the same food or similar food are imputed values. Ans: True Copyright ©2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank

10. Although the USDA Nutrient Database for Standard Reference provides values on more than 140 nutrients and food components for more than 7900 foods, relatively few recipes and name brand foods are found in the database. Ans: True

Fill-in-the-Blank 11. When nutrient data for prepared or cooked products are unavailable or incomplete, nutrient values are __________ from comparable raw items or by recipe. Ans: calculated 12. If a computerized dietary analysis system has a database with a large amount of incomplete data or many blanks in the database, the system’s output may understate a client’s actual nutrient intake. In such cases, reported low nutrient intakes represent a __________ deficiency, not necessarily an actual deficiency in the client’s diet. Ans: database 13. The on-line dietary assessment tool developed by the USDA’s Center for Nutrition Policy and Promotion is Choose My Plate __________. Ans: SuperTracker 14. Food composition data from the laboratory analysis of one or more samples of the food are known as __________ data. Ans: analytical 15. The system developed by W. O. Atwater to calculate the energy contributed by protein, fat, and carbohydrates in foods is known as the __________ system. Ans: Atwater

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 16. Every food item in a nutrient database may not contain complete information for every vitamin, mineral, or food component. These blanks in the database are referred to as __________ data. Ans: missing

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank Chapter 06 Multiple Choice 1. The "Frankfort plane" refers to ________. A. the position of the subject's head when height or length is measured B. the position of the subject's axial skeleton when height or length is measured C. the position of the observer's eyes in relation to the scale of a stadiometer when a subject's height is measured D. the position of the measuring tape on the subject's head when head circumference is measured Ans: A 2. Which of the following correctly expresses body mass index (Quetelet's index)? A. Height in meters ÷ weight in kilograms (m ÷ kg) B. Height in meters ÷ weight in kilograms squared (m ÷ kg2) C. Weight in kg ÷ height in meters (kg ÷ m) D. Weight in kg ÷ height in meters squared (kg ÷ m2) Ans: D 3. A person is 5 feet, 5 inches tall and weighs 192 pounds. Which of the following correctly represent this person's body mass index? A. 24 B. 28 C. 32 D. 34 Ans: C 4. According to the Hamwi equation, a 25-year-old female who is 64 inches tall should weigh approximately ________. A. 110 lbs. B. 120 lbs. C. 130 lbs. D. 135 lbs. Ans: B Copyright ©2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 5. Which one of the following is considered to be the most closely correlated with body fatness? A. Relative weight B. Hamwi equation C. Weight/height ratio D. Quetelet's index Ans: D 6. Hydrostatic weighing is done on two persons who are the same in all respects except that one has a greater residual volume than the other. Residual volume is not measured directly but estimated and assumed to be the same for both people. According to the results from the hydrostatic weighing, the person with the greater residual volume will appear to have ________ percent body fat compared with the person with the smaller residual volume. A. essentially the same B. a greater C. a lower D. None of the choices are correct. Ans: B 7. Which of the following assumptions has the greatest potential for being a significant source of error in estimating body composition from skinfold measurements? A. The compressibility of a double thickness of skin and subcutaneous tissue is constant. B. The thickness of skin is a negligible or constant fraction of the skinfold. C. The fat content of adipose tissue is constant. D. The proportion of internal fat to external fat is constant. Ans: A 8. An alternative to using hydrostatic weighing to directly determine body density is ________. A. air displacement plethysmography B. bioelectrical impedance C. SAD D. skinfold measurements Ans: A

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 9. Which of the following is an example of parallax? A. The position of the subject's head when height or length is measured B. The position of the subject's axial skeleton when height or length is measured C. The position of the observer's eyes in relation to the scale of a stadiometer when a subject’s height is measured D. The position of the measuring tape on the subject's head when head circumference is measured Ans: C 10. ________ is the only study that collects and publishes national anthropometric measurement estimates for the U.S. population. A. Ten-State Nutrition Survey B. NHANES C. BRFSS D. ERS Food Availability Ans: B 11. An individual has a height of 5 feet 7 inches. How much would this person have to weigh in order to have a body mass index of 23? Select the closest answer. A. 129 lbs. B. 147 lbs. C. 163 lbs. D. 174 lbs. Ans: B 12. A 4-year-old child whose BMI for sex and age is greater than or equal to the 85th percentile but less than the 95th percentile would be considered ________. A. underweight B. healthy weight C. overweight D. obese Ans: C

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 13. A 10-year-old whose BMI for sex and age is at the 75th percentile would be considered ________. A. underweight B. healthy weight C. overweight D. obese Ans: B 14. When estimating body composition using bioelectrical impedance, dehydration caused by insufficient water intake, excessive perspiration, heavy exercise, or alcohol use can result in ________. A. an overestimation of fat mass B. an underestimation of fat mass C. no change in the estimate of fat mass D. None of the choices are correct. Ans: A 15. An 18-year-old female whose BMI is 31 kg/m2 but whose BMI for sex and age is at the 93rd percentile would be considered ________. A. underweight B. healthy weight C. overweight D. obese Ans: D 16. An adult whose BMI is 22.4 kg/m2 would be considered ________. A. underweight B. healthy weight C. overweight D. obese Ans: B

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 17. A high-risk waist circumference for a male is greater than a threshold of ________ inches. A. 35 B. 37.5 C. 40 D. 42.5 Ans: C 18. Disease risk is increased in persons with ________ obesity. A. gynoid B. android C. female-type D. lower body Ans: B 19. The sagittal abdominal diameter (SAD) measurement is a simple anthropometric index of ________. A. visceral adiposity B. gynoid obesity C. female-type D. lower body Ans: A 20. The sagittal abdominal diameter is measured at the height of the ________ with the participant in a supine position, knees bent and feet flat on an examination table. A. L5 vertebrae B. iliac crest C. mid-axillary rib D. tip of the sternum Ans: B

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 21. In the 4-compartment body composition model, the human body is composed of four chemical groups: water, ________, mineral, and fat. A. vitamins B. calcium C. phospholipids D. protein Ans: D 22. The triceps skinfold site is located midway between the lateral projection of the ________ and the olecranon process, with the elbow flexed 90 degrees. A. inferior border of the scapula B. xiphisternal junction C. acromion process D. midaxillary line Ans: C 23. The American Body Composition Calculator (ABCC) uses sex, ethnicity, age, height, and weight to determine ________. A. an adjusted BMI B. lean body mass C. protein mass D. body fat percent Ans: D 24. Finish this equation: Target weight = Present fat-free weight ÷ (100% - _______) A. desired % body fat B. kg/% body fat C. lean body mass D. height Ans: A

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 25. During bioelectrical impedance (BIA) body composition measurements, electrical impedance of body tissues is assessed, with the greatest impedance found in ________ tissue. A. muscle B. bone C. fat D. organ Ans: C True/False 26. When using the CDC growth charts for boys and girls ages 2 years to 20 years, either standing height or recumbent length can be appropriately used. Ans: False 27. If a 7-year-old male’s height-for-age was at the 75th percentile, 75% of 7-year-old males would be shorter than him. Ans: True 28. Pediatric growth charts based on a growth reference are preferred over growth charts based on a growth standard. Ans: False 29. The CDC growth charts for children from birth to 24 months were developed using growth standard data. Ans: True 30. In persons who are very muscular or who have clinically significant edema, body mass index will overestimate body fat content. Ans: True

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 31. If a stadiometer is not available to measure height, a non-stretchable tape measure securely fastened to a flat, vertical surface such as a wall is an appropriate approach to measuring height. Ans: True 32. A waist circumference of 37 inches in an adult male would be considered high-risk. Ans: False 33. Tissues in the body having a high percentage of water and a low percentage of fat are better conductors of electricity than are tissues having a high percentage of fat and a low percentage of water. Ans: True 34. The triceps skinfold measurement alone cannot be used to estimate percent body fat, but it is useful for making comparisons among subjects of the same age and sex when reference data are available. Ans: True 35. The amount of air that remains in the lungs after a complete exhalation is known as residual volume. Ans: True

Fill-in-the-Blank 36. A growth chart developed using anthropometric data collected from a large group of infants and children who grew under optimal health and environmental conditions is known as a growth __________. Ans: standard 37. The 50th percentile is considered the average or _______ value for the specific population of interest. Ans: median Copyright ©2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 38. Obese persons having a greater proportion of their body fat located in the upper body and abdominal region compared with that in the hips and thighs, have what is referred to as __________ obesity. Ans: android 39. Opposition to an alternating current is known as __________. Ans: impedance 40. A graphic device with several vertical scales allowing the calculation of certain values when a straightedge is connected between two of the scales and the desired value is read from a third scale is known as a/an __________. Ans: nomogram 41. A device designed to measure stature in children and adults is known as a/an __________. Ans: stadiometer 42. When an infant is lying on its back in order to have its length measured, it is said to be in the __________ position. Ans: recumbent 43. A simple measure of body fat distribution recommended for use by the U.S. National Institutes of Health is __________. Ans: waist circumference 44. Assessing body composition by measuring the density of the entire body is known as __________. Ans: densitometry 45. A 15-year-old female whose BMI-for-age is at the 90th percentile would be considered __________. Ans: overweight Copyright ©2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank Chapter 07 Multiple Choice 1. Which one of the following statements regarding resting energy expenditure (REE) prediction equations is true? A. They are more accurate at predicting a group’s mean REE than an individual's REE B. They are more accurate at predicting an individual's REE than a group’s mean REE C. They are able to predict a group’s mean REE and an individual's REE with equal accuracy D. None of the choices are correct. Ans: A 2. Which one of the following statements regarding the Harris-Benedict equations is false? A. They were developed using a technique known as regression analysis B. They do not include age as a variable C. Body weight is measured in kilograms D. They tend to underestimate REE in malnourished, ill patients Ans: B 3. Which one of the following conditions tends to increase nitrogen excretion and REE the most? A. Total starvation B. Partial starvation C. Major burn D. Peritonitis/severe sepsis Ans: C 4. Which one of the following is the preferred approach for determining energy expenditure in free-living research subjects? A. The Harris-Benedict equations B. Closed circuit calorimetry C. Using a computerized metabolic cart D. Doubly labeled water Ans: D

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 5. Which of the following is the most variable component of 24-hour energy expenditure? A. Resting energy expenditure B. Thermic effect of food C. Thermic effect of exercise D. Sleep energy expenditure Ans: C 6. Which one of the following factors poses the greatest problem in calculating nitrogen balance? A. A high protein intake B. Nutrient needs being met solely by enteral or parenteral nutrition C. A large amount of wound drainage or blood loss D. A high urine urea nitrogen value Ans: C 7. A patient is admitted to a hospital ward with a current body weight of 53 kg. The patient reports that his usual weight is 65 kg. What is the patient's percent weight change? A. 9% B. 13% C. 18% D. 21% Ans: C 8. A computerized metabolic monitor or cart is an example of ________. A. closed circuit calorimetry B. open circuit calorimetry C. Douglas bag method D. direct calorimetry Ans: B

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 9. How much would a person with a desirable body weight or reference body weight of 160 lbs. have to weigh in order to be at 175% of desirable body weight? A. 205 lbs. B. 235 lbs. C. 250 lbs. D. 280 lbs. Ans: D 10. A recently admitted patient undergoing nutritional screening has an admission weight of 130 lbs. and states that her usual weight is 145 lbs. Based on the information provided, what is the patient’s percent of usual weight? A. 75% B. 90% C. 110% D. 125% Ans: B 11. Which of the following is the largest component of 24-hour energy expenditure for most healthy, sedentary adults? A. Resting energy expenditure B. Thermic effect of food C. Thermic effect of exercise D. Sleep energy expenditure Ans: A 12. The major route of nitrogen excretion from the body for most individuals is _______. A. loss of blood B. feces C. loss of hair, clipped finger nails, and sloughed-off skin cells D. urine Ans: D

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 13. Arm muscle area can be used as an index of _______. A. total body energy reserves B. adipose tissue reserves in the upper arm C. the amount of lean tissue or muscle in the body D. None of the choices are correct. Ans: C 14. Which of the following is not a variable in the World Health Organization REE prediction equations? A. Age B. Height or stature C. Body weight D. None of the choices are correct. Ans: B 15. Malnutrition and undernutrition are experienced when there is a deficiency of energy (kilocalories), protein, or other nutrients, causing measurable and adverse effects on body composition, function, and health. An unintentional weight loss of more than a threshold of __________ in the past six months is often used for diagnosis. A. 20% B. 15% C. 10% D. 5% Ans: C 16. Malnutrition is associated with many adverse health, social, mental, and financial outcomes. Which one of the following is NOT on this list? A. Increased incidence rates for cardiovascular disease B. Anemia C. Sarcopenia D. Bone fractures Ans: A

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 17. The identification of two or more of the six characteristics is recommended for diagnosing malnutrition (assessed on admission and at frequent intervals). Which one of the following listed is NOT on this list? A. Insufficient energy intake B. Weight loss C. Loss of muscle mass D. Increase in visceral body fat Ans: D 18. Early detection of malnutrition is important, and it is an important component of comprehensive geriatric assessment (CGA). There are at least four components in CGA. Which one of the following is NOT on this list? A. Physical health B. Chronic disease risk factors C. Mental health D. Functional status Ans: B 19. The half arm-span is the distance from the midline at the _______ to the tip of the middle finger while the non-dominant arm is stretched out in a horizontal position. A. bottom tip of the sternum B. chin C. sternal notch D. nose Ans: C 20. In the MNA-SF, if BMI is not available, use the _______ circumference. A. head B. abdominal C. arm D. calf Ans: D

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 21. In the MUST, BMI can be estimated from the _______. A. MUAC B. CAM C. height D. waist circumference Ans: A 22. In the MUST, the length of the _______ can be used to estimate height using gender-specific formulas. A. femur B. tibia C. ulna D. spine Ans: C 23. ADLs have five basic categories of involvement. Which one of the following is NOT on this list? A. Personal hygiene B. Walking outside to accomplish tasks C. Dressing D. Toileting and continence Ans: B 24. IADLs require a _______ level of cognition and judgment than ADLs. A. similar B. higher C. lower D. deeper Ans: B

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 25. Low muscle mass and weakness are potentially disabling in older adults, and the Foundation for the National Institutes of Health Sarcopenia Project recommends the use of _______ to determine weakness. A. exercise history B. leg squats C. sit-ups D. hand-grip strength testing Ans: D 26. Mid-upper arm muscle circumference (MAMC) is calculated from MUAC and the _______ and can be used to evaluate fat-free mass. A. triceps skinfold B. subscapular skinfold C. waist circumference D. BMI Ans: A 27. The mid-upper arm muscle area (MAMA) can be used to evaluate _______. A. BMI B. strength C. fat-free mass D. fat mass Ans: C

True/False 28. Arm muscle area can be a useful index of total body muscle in children and adults. Ans: True 29. A drawback of the doubly labeled water approach for measuring energy expenditure is that it is unsuitable for use in infants and in women who are pregnant or lactating. Ans: False Copyright ©2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank

30. In clinical settings such as hospitals, the energy requirements of patients are generally estimated using one of several available prediction equations. Ans: True 31. Equations for estimating resting energy expenditure (REE) are as good at predicting the mean REE of a group as they are at predicting REE for any individual member of that group. Ans: False 32. As the score on the Malnutrition Universal Screening Tool increases, risk of malnutrition increases. Ans: True 33. The Mini Nutritional Assessment is an instrument designed to assess the nutritional status of elderly adults once they have undergone nutritional screening and have been shown to be at nutritional risk. Ans: False 34. Nutritional assessment typically precedes nutritional screening. Ans: False 35. A computerized metabolic monitor or cart is an example of indirect calorimetry. Ans: True 36. A 12 percent weight loss over a period of six months is less significant than a 12 percent weight loss over a period of 12 months. Ans: False 37. A change in body weight of more than 0.5 kg in one day indicates an accumulation or loss of body water rather than a gain or loss of lean or fat tissue. Ans: True Copyright ©2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank

Fill-in-the-Blank 38. The Dietary Reference Intake value, which is defined as the average dietary energy intake predicted to maintain energy balance in a healthy person of a defined age, gender, weight, height, and level of physical activity consistent with good health is the __________. Ans: Estimated Energy Requirement 39. Determining energy expenditure by measuring the body’s oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production is known as __________. Ans: indirect calorimetry 40. A nutrition screening instrument developed by the Malnutrition Advisory Group of the British Association for Parenteral and Enteral Nutrition is known as the __________. Ans: Malnutrition Universal Screening Tool 41. When the amount of nitrogen excreted from the body is equal to nitrogen intake, a condition known as __________ is said to exist. Ans: nitrogen balance 42. The increase in energy expenditure following the consumption of food is known as the __________. Ans: thermic effect of food 43. A patient who cannot walk or who is bed-ridden is said to be __________. Ans: nonambulatory

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank Chapter 08 Multiple Choice 1. Poor glycemic control in people with diabetes is associated with hemoglobin A1C levels that are ________. A. essentially unchanged from what they are in people who do not have diabetes B. greater than they are in people who do not have diabetes C. less than they are in people who do not have diabetes D. None of the choices are correct. Ans: B 2. In persons with diabetes, the testing of urine is recommended for ________. A. ketones only B. glucose only C. both glucose and ketones Ans: A 3. In the primordial prevention of cardiovascular disease (CVD), risk factor intervention efforts are implemented ________. A. before the risk factor even develops B. once the risk factor has developed but before CVD is diagnosed C. after CVD is diagnosed D. at any time, regardless of when the risk factor develops or when CVD is diagnosed Ans: A 4. According to the National Cholesterol Education Program, high HDL-C is considered a _______ risk factor because it _______ coronary heart disease risk. A. positive; decreases B. positive; increases C. negative; decreases D. negative; increases Ans: C

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 5. The three major types of CVD are stroke, CHD, and ________. A. CAD B. PAD C. HBP D. TIA Ans: B 6. The difference between the measured value as reported by a clinical laboratory and the "true" or "real" value is known as ________. A. accuracy B. coefficient of variation C. precision D. reproducibility Ans: A 7. There are four goals of MNT for adults with diabetes. Which one of the following is NOT included in this list? A. Promote a healthful eating pattern, with a variety of nutrient-dense foods B. Focus on individual macronutrients, micronutrients, and single foods C. Maintain the pleasure of eating by providing nonjudgmental messages about food choices D. Address individual nutrition needs Ans: B 8. Which one of the following values correctly represents pre-hypertension for an adult? A. 120 over 80 B. 120-139 over 80-89 C. 140-159 over 90-99 D. 160 over 100 Ans: B

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 9. Which of the following cannot be accurately determined in the non-fasting state? A. HDL-C B. Non-HDL-C C. Total cholesterol D. Triglycerides Ans: D 10. Lifestyle management is a fundamental aspect of diabetes care and includes six components. Which one of the following is NOT on this list? A. Diabetes self-management education (DSME) B. Nutrition therapy C. Short-term fasting on a monthly schedule D. Psychosocial care Ans: C 11. Which of the following factors is not associated with increased prevalence of hypertension? A. Increasing age B. Being of African descent C. Physical inactivity D. A low waist circumference Ans: D 12. In the primary prevention of cardiovascular disease (CVD), risk factor intervention efforts are implemented ________. A. before the risk factor even develops B. once the risk factor has developed but before CVD is diagnosed C. after CVD is diagnosed D. at any time, regardless of when the risk factor develops or when CVD is diagnosed Ans: B

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 13. Which of the following is not a clinical determinant of the metabolic syndrome? A. High-risk waist circumference B. Elevated serum triglyceride level C. Elevated serum HDL-C level D. Elevated plasma glucose level Ans: C 14. When a person lies down after standing for several minutes, serum cholesterol concentration ________. A. increases B. decreases C. remains essentially unchanged Ans: B 15. Given the conversion factor of 0.02586, which one of the following correctly represents a serum cholesterol level of 225 mg/dL? A. 2.59 mmol/l B. 5.82 mmol/l C. 8.70 mmol/l D. 87.01 mmol/l Ans: B 16. Since the 1960s, the mean total serum cholesterol level of U.S. adults has ________. A. increased B. remained essentially unchanged C. decreased Ans: C

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 17. Since the 1950s, the age-adjusted death rate for diseases of the heart in the United States has ________. A. increased B. remained essentially unchanged C. decreased Ans: C 18. Which one of the following combinations cannot occur? A. High precision, low bias B. High precision, high bias C. Low precision, low bias D. Low precision, high bias Ans: C 19. The primary purpose of the Friedewald equation is to calculate ________. A. LDL-C B. abdominal adiposity C. percent lean body mass D. triglycerides Ans: A 20. The American Heart Association’s (AHA) 2020 goal is to reduce deaths from CVD and stroke by 20%. As a part of this initiative, the AHA tracks seven key health factors and behaviors called “Life’s Simple 7.” Which one of the following is NOT included in this list? A. Not smoking B. Control of cholesterol C. Control of systemic inflammation D. Healthy diet Ans: C

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 21. The top risk factor related to overall disease burden, according to data reviewed by the AHA, was ________. A. physical inactivity B. suboptimal diet C. tobacco smoking D. high BMI Ans: B 22. According to the AHA, the definition for ideal cardiovascular health includes a fasting plasma glucose of less than ________ mg/dl. A. 100 B. 126 C. 140 D. 150 Ans: A 23. According to the AHA, the definition for ideal cardiovascular health in children and adolescents includes a serum total cholesterol of less than ________ mg/dl. A. 180 B. 200 C. 125 D. 170 Ans: D 24. According to the AHA, a healthy diet score must meet four to five goals (based on a 2000calorie/day diet). Which one of the following is NOT included? A. Sodium of less than 1500 mg per day B. Sugar-sweetened beverages of less than 750 calories per week C. Two 3.5-ounce servings per week of fish D. 4.5 cups per day or more of fruits and vegetables Ans: B

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 25. Of the 7 AHA health metrics, ________ has the lowest prevalence for ideal behavior. A. not-current smoker B. total cholesterol less than 200 mg/dl C. healthy dietary pattern D. BMI < 25 kg/m2 Ans: C 26. The leading risk factor for stroke is ________. A. high blood pressure B. high blood glucose C. cigarette smoking D. diabetes mellitus Ans: A 27. The metabolic syndrome is diagnosed when an individual has three or more of five risk factors. Which risk factor listed below is NOT on this list? A. Plasma HDL cholesterol <40 mg/dL in men B. Plasma triglycerides greater than 225 mg/dL C. Waist circumference of more than 35 inches in women D. Fasting plasma glucose of 100 mg/dL and higher Ans: B 28. Despite an impressive drop from the 1960s, about _________ of Americans still have highrisk blood cholesterol levels (240 mg/dL and higher), with this proportion increasing to 28% when considering all individuals either with high blood cholesterol or on cholesterol-lowering medications. A. 8% B. 12% C. 18% D. 22% Ans: B

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 29. Most clinical laboratories estimate the LDL-C using the Friedewald equation from individuals who are overnight fasted. What parameter is used to complete this equation (fill in the blank)? LDL-C=TC−[HDL-C+(0.20×______)] A. glucose B. triglycerides C. free fatty acids D. dietary cholesterol Ans: B 30. A fasting serum triglyceride level of 250 mg/dL would be classified as ________. A. very high B. normal C. borderline high D. high Ans: D 31. The 2013 ACC/AHA guidelines identified four statin benefit groups. Which one of the following is NOT included in this list? A. Those with arteriosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) B. Those with LDL-cholesterol values of 130 mg/dL and higher C. People with type 1 or 2 diabetes who are 40–75 years of age with LDL-C of 70–189 mg/dL D. People without diabetes who are 40–75 years of age with LDL-C of 70–189 mg/dL and have an estimated ASCVD 10-year risk of 7.5% and higher Ans: B 32. In response to mounting evidence, an expert panel convened by the NHBLI in 2011 recommended universal dyslipidemia screening for all children starting between ________ of age. A. 5 and 6 years B. 9 and 11 years C. 11 and 12 years D. 7 and 8 years Ans: B

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 33. A non-HDL cholesterol level of 130 mg/dl would be classified as ________ for a child or adolescent. A. acceptable B. high C. very high D. borderline high Ans: D 34. About 3 in 10 adults have high blood pressure, with proportions highest among the elderly and ________. A. Asians B. Hispanic/Latino C. African-Americans D. White/not Hispanic Ans: C 35. According to JNC8, in the general population aged ≥60 years, pharmacologic treatment to lower blood pressure (BP) should be initiated at a systolic blood pressure (SBP) ≥ ________ or diastolic blood pressure (DBP) ≥90mmHg and treat to a goal SBP <150 mm Hg and goal DBP <90 mm Hg. A. 150 mmHg B. 160 mm Hg C. 170 mm Hg D. 180 mm Hg Ans: A 36. What lifestyle modification has the greatest influence in preventing and managing hypertension? A. Adopt DASH diet B. Dietary sodium reduction C. Physical activity D. Weight reduction Ans: D

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 37. Which subgroup listed below has the highest prevalence of diabetes? A. Age 65 years and older B. African-Americans C. Females D. Hispanics Ans: A 38. ________ diabetes is due to a progressive loss of β-cell insulin secretion frequently on the background of insulin resistance. A. GDM B. MODY C. Type 1 D. Type 2 Ans: D 39. Which one of the following is NOT regarded as a typical symptom of diabetes? A. Extreme fatigue B. Blurry vision C. Infrequent urination D. Polyphagia Ans: C 40. Which one of the following is NOT a risk factor for diabetes? A. Older age B. HDL-C >35 mg/dL and/or a triglyceride level >275 mg/dL C. First-degree relative with diabetes D. Body mass index (BMI) of 25 kg/m2 and higher Ans: B

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 41. An A1C level of _______% and higher is a risk factor for diabetes. A. 5.7 B. 6.3 C. 7.5 D. 8.3 Ans: A 42. Asymptomatic adults should be screened for prediabetes or diabetes mellitus starting at age ________ years. A. 30 B. 35 C. 40 D. 45 Ans: D 43. Children who are overweight and have two or more risk factors should be screened for diabetes mellitus starting at age ________ years. A. 8 B. 10 C. 12 D. 5 Ans: B 44. The American Diabetes Association has several medical nutrition therapy recommendations for adults with diabetes. Which one of the following is NOT on this list? A. Aim for at least 5% to 7% weight loss with an intensive lifestyle intervention program B. Emphasize healthy eating patterns such as the Mediterranean, DASH, and plant-food based diets C. Avoid all alcoholic beverages, and beverage with nonnutritive sweeteners D. Don’t use carbohydrate sources high in protein to treat or prevent hypoglycemia Ans: C

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank True/False 45. Type 2 diabetes is rarely diagnosed in individuals younger than 30 years of age. Ans: False 46. Glycosylated hemoglobin is considered a good indicator of average blood glucose levels during the previous 8 to 12 weeks. Ans: True 47. When classifying blood pressure in the pediatric population, the same cut-points are used as when classifying the blood pressure of adults. Ans: False 48. Current clinical practice guidelines developed by the U.S. National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute for preventing cardiovascular disease in children and adolescents do not recommend universal screening of lipid levels in children and adolescents. Ans: False 49. One of the advantages of using non-HDL-cholesterol as an indicator of CHD risk is that it can be accurately determined in the non-fasting state. Ans: True 50. Diastole refers to the phase of cardiac relaxation. Ans: True 51. The majority of within-individual variability in cholesterol analyses is due to preanalytical factors. Ans: True

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 52. Although precision is necessary in order for accuracy to exist, accuracy is not necessary in order for precision to exist. Ans: True Fill-in-the-Blank 53. Because cholesterol and triglycerides are fat soluble, they must be transported in the blood by spherical macromolecular complexes known as __________. Ans: lipoproteins 54. Risk factor intervention efforts that are implemented before a certain risk factor even develops are known as ________ prevention. Ans: primordial 55. Individuals at increased risk of developing diabetes in the future because they have either impaired fasting glucose or impaired glucose tolerance are said to have ________. Ans: pre-diabetes 56. Diabetes that develops during pregnancy is known as ________. Ans: gestational diabetes

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank Chapter 09 Multiple Choice 1. Which one of the following tests provides the best indication of impaired iron status in its earliest stage? A. Hematocrit B. Hemoglobin C. Serum ferritin D. Soluble transferrin receptor Ans: C 2. Which one of the following is the most common nutrient deficiency in the United States? A. Folic acid B. Iron C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin C Ans: B 3. Which one of the following is the third stage of iron depletion? A. Early functional iron deficiency without anemia B. Iron-deficiency anemia C. Depleted iron stores D. None of the choices are correct. Ans: B 4. Which one of the following tests is the most sensitive indicator of iron status after iron stores are depleted but before anemia develops? A. Hematocrit B. Hemoglobin C. Serum ferritin D. Soluble transferrin receptor Ans: D

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 5. Which of the following is recognized as the single laboratory test for reliably assessing impaired iron status? A. Hemoglobin B. Mean corpuscular volume C. Serum ferritin D. None of the choices are correct. Ans: D 6. A major drawback to assessing mineral status by hair analysis is ________. A. the fact that hair mineral content does not reflect body mineral content B. the possible contamination of hair from cosmetics, shampoos, etc. C. the slow growth of hair D. the high keratin content of hair Ans: B 7. Which of the following is a functional test of vitamin A status? A. Relative dose response B. Retinol isotope dilution C. Dark adaptation D. Liver biopsy Ans: C 8. Which of the following is the appropriate biochemical indicator for assessing calcium status? A. Ionized serum calcium B. Total serum calcium C. Urinary calcium D. None of the choices are correct. Ans: D

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 9. Which one of the following is the most widely used indicator of recent iodine intake and iodine status? A. The goiter rate B. Serum thyroglobulin C. Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone D. Urinary iodine Ans: D 10. According to data from the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey, which one of the following groups is at greatest risk of vitamin D deficiency? A. Mexican Americans B. Non-Hispanic Blacks C. Non-Hispanic Whites D. None of the choices are correct. Ans: B 11. A newborn is at increased risk of having a neural tube defect if its mother's diet was deficient in which of the following vitamins? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B-6 C. Vitamin C D. Folate Ans: D 12. Which one of the following statements is false? A. The diets of most Americans supply more than adequate amounts of vitamin B-12. B. In older persons the risk of low vitamin B-12 status increases due to diminished vitamin B-12 absorption. C. Most cases of pernicious anemia in the United States are due to inadequate production of intrinsic factor. D. Most cases of vitamin B-12 deficiency seen in the United States are due to a dietary deficiency of the vitamin. Ans: D

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 13. A complete blood count (CBC) is a blood test used to evaluate overall health and detect a wide range of disorders. Which one of the following is NOT on this list? A. Anemia B. Infection C. Inflammation D. Acute myocardial infarction Ans: D 14. The CBC is a panel of tests that evaluates three types of cells that circulate in the blood compartment. Which one of the following is NOT on this list? A. Red blood cells B. White blood cells C. Macrophages D. Platelets Ans: C 15. MCH is a calculation of the ________. A. average size of a single red blood cell B. average amount of hemoglobin inside a single red blood cell C. average concentration of hemoglobin inside a single red blood cell D. variation in the size of RBCs Ans: B 16. The WBC differential identifies and counts the number of five different types of WBCs. Which one of the following is NOT on this list? A. Neutrophils B. Lymphocytes C. Dendrites D. Eosinophils Ans: C

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 17. Somatic protein represents ________% of the body cell mass, and is located within skeletal muscle. A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 90% Ans: C 18. Which one of the following biomarkers is increased during the third stage of iron deficiency anemia? A. Free erythrocyte protoporphyrin B. Hemoglobin C. Serum ferritin D. MCV Ans: A 19. According to the Institute of Medicine, a blood level for 25(OH)D of less than ________ nmol/L is classified as a "risk of deficiency relative to bone health." A. 60 B. 55 C. 45 D. 30 Ans: D True/False 20. A "false positive" would occur when a person with an adequate iron status has a hemoglobin level less than the age/sex-appropriate cut point for diagnosing anemia. Ans: True 21. Preschool children and women of childbearing age are the groups at greatest risk of iron deficiency. Ans: True

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank

22. One advantage of using the serum concentration of soluble transferrin receptor as a biochemical marker for iron status is that it is not affected by inflammation or infection. Ans: True 23. Data from the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey show that the prevalence of iron deficiency varies little across different racial and ethnic groups. Ans: False 24. The most critical period for adequate iodine intake is during uterine development and the first two years of life. Ans: True 25. While too little iodine in the diet can result in iodine deficiency disorders, high intakes of iodine are not a health concern. Ans: False 26. The iodization of table salt sold in Canada and in the United States is mandatory. Ans: False 27. Data from the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey show that the prevalence of vitamin A deficiency in the U.S. is very low. Ans: True 28. There is a lack of agreement among nutrition researchers on what constitutes an optimal serum concentration of vitamin D. Ans: True 29. If sun exposure is sufficient, dietary intake of vitamin D is not necessary. Ans: True Copyright ©2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank

30. Recent data from the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey indicate that iodine intake for the overall U.S. population is inadequate. Ans: False

Fill-in-the-Blank 31. The percentage of red blood cells making up the entire volume of whole blood is known as packed cell volume or ________. Ans: hematocrit 32. Although the most common cause of anemia is iron deficiency, there are a number of other common causes, which are collectively referred to as anemia of __________. Ans: inflammation 33. The term __________ refers to abnormally small red blood cells. Ans: microcytic 34. The classic sign of iodine deficiency is thyroid gland enlargement, which is referred to as __________. Ans: goiter 35. Deficiency of vitamin D delays growth and causes ________ in children. Ans: rickets 36. Severe iodine deficiency in utero can result in a condition known as __________. Ans: cretinism

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 37. Because pre-albumin has a shorter __________ than albumin, changes in nutritional status can be detected more rapidly by monitoring pre-albumin than by monitoring albumin. Ans: half-life

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank Chapter 10 Multiple Choice 1. Which of the following is the most appropriate index to evaluate recent changes in nutritional status? A. Weight-for-height B. Height-for-age C. Both A + B D. Neither A or B Ans: A 2. Which of the following would most likely be seen in a child who had severe, short-term protein-energy malnutrition? A. Only stunting B. Only wasting C. Both stunting and wasting D. None of the choices are correct. Ans: B 3. A weight-for-height that is 75% of what would be expected would be considered ________. A. normal B. a mild deficit C. a moderate deficit D. a severe deficit Ans: D 4. Which one of the following is a type of lipodystrophy sometimes seen in patients with Cushing’s syndrome? A. Moon face B. Old man’s face C. Flag sign D. Stomatitis Ans: A

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 5. The flag sign would be seen in the ________. A. skin B. nails C. mouth D. hair Ans: D 6. Which one of the following would not be included in the physical examination component of subjective global assessment? A. Looking at the shoulders and upper arms for loss of subcutaneous fat B. Checking the deltoid muscles for the presence of muscle wasting C. Measuring the triceps skinfold thickness D. Palpating the ankles for edema Ans: C 7. Which one of the following is the actual weight of an individual having a reference weightfor-height of 160 pounds and whose percent weight-for-height is 75%? A. 120 pounds B. 135 pounds C. 150 pounds D. 165 pounds Ans: C 8. Dental erosion is most likely to be seen in a patient with ________. A. anorexia nervosa B. bulimia nervosa C. eating disorder not otherwise specified D. None of the choices are correct. Ans: B

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 9. The terms “buffalo hump” and “bull neck” refer to _______. A. lipodystrophy B. lipohypertrophy C. lipoatrophy D. both A and B Ans: D 10. Which of the following would most likely be seen in a child who had mild, chronic proteinenergy malnutrition? A. Reduced height-for-age B. Reduced weight-for-age C. Relatively normal weight-for-height D. All of the choices are correct. Ans: D 11. There are many health consequences and symptoms associated with bulimia nervosa. Which one of the following is NOT on this list? A. Chronic irregular bowel movements, constipation B. Decalcification of teeth, enamel loss, staining C. Insomnia D. Chronically inflamed and sore throat Ans: C 12. There are many medical complications associated with anorexia nervosa. Which one of the following is NOT on this list? A. Anemia B. Heart damage C. Oily skin and hair D. Amenorrhea Ans: C

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 13. The CDC has several criteria to defined the wasting syndrome caused by HIV. Which one of the following is NOT included? A. Involuntary weight loss >10% of baseline body weight B. Chronic diarrhea, with 2 or more loose stools per day for ≥1 month C. Chronic weakness and documented fever for ≥1 month D. Chronic respiratory illness for 3 months or longer Ans: D 14. The WHO has 4 clinical stages for HIV/AIDS. In which stage are individuals asymptomatic, but with persistent generalized lymphadenopathy and moderate unexplained weight loss? A. Clinical Stage 1 B. Clinical Stage 2 C. Clinical Stage 3 D. Clinical Stage 4 Ans: A

True/False 15. Subjective global assessment relies primarily on clinical judgment and on information collected by observation and interviews instead of on biochemical and anthropometric measurements. Ans: True 16. Obtaining a patient’s history is the first step in the clinical assessment of nutritional status. Ans: True 17. Stunting refers to a deficit in weight-for-height. Ans: False 18. Lipodystrophy can include both lipohypertrophy and lipoatrophy. Ans: True Copyright ©2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank

19. Misuse of laxatives, diuretics, and enemas are considered types of purging. Ans: True 20. Whether a person had access to and the ability to pay for health care would be considered a psychosocial factor. Ans: True 21. Questioning a patient about changes in the way clothing fits would not be a suitable way to confirm a reported change in body weight. Ans: False 22. Because changes in the distribution of body fat and increased adiposity can occur at the same time as decreased fat-free mass in patients with HIV/AIDS, changes in weight and BMI alone may not be suitable indicators of nutritional status. Ans: True 23. HIV wasting syndrome is typically characterized by the disproportionate loss of lean body mass and muscle wasting with relative preservation of fat mass. Ans: True 24. In kwashiorkor the loss of body weight is not as great as that seen in marasmus. Ans: True

Fill-in-the-Blank 25. Kwashiorkor and marasmus are two forms of ________. Ans: protein-energy malnutrition

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 26. Profound physical wasting and malnutrition usually associated with chronic disease and advanced acquired immune deficiency syndrome is known as ________. Ans: cachexia 27. An eating disorder characterized by episodes of binge eating followed by some behavior to prevent weight gain, such as purging, fasting, or exercising excessively is known as ________. Ans: bulimia nervosa 28. The most common sign of malnutrition in children is growth ________. Ans: failure 29. A clinical technique for assessing the nutritional status of a patient based on features of the patient's history and physical examination is known as ________. Ans: subjective global assessment 30. Three different eating disorders are recognized by the American Psychiatric Association (APA). These include anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, and ________. Ans: eating disorder not otherwise specified

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank Chapter 11 Multiple Choice 1. Which one of the following statements is false? A. Posture, facial expressions, and tone of voice are sometimes more reliable indicators of a person’s feelings than are his or her words. B. Nonverbal communication is not as easily controlled by conscious thought as is verbal communication. C. There are no cultural differences in what is considered to be a comfortable distance between two communicating persons. D. Lack of congruence, or agreement, between verbal and nonverbal communication can be an important indicator that a client is consciously or unconsciously omitting something. Ans: C 2. Which of the following statements about listening is/are true? A. Listening is a highly active process demanding concentration and attention. B. Listening involves multiple steps. C. Listening is a subjective experience. D. All of the choices are correct. Ans: D 3. When educating or counseling a client, restating the affective or emotional part of the client’s words is known as ________. A. clarification B. paraphrasing C. probing D. reflection Ans: D

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 4. When educating or counseling a client, simply asking the client to repeat or restate what was just said is known as ________. A. clarification B. paraphrasing C. probing D. reflection Ans: A 5. A guided communication process between two persons or parties with the predetermined purpose of obtaining or exchanging specific information through the asking and answering of questions is known as ________. A. counseling B. educating C. interviewing D. training Ans: C 6. Beginning an interview with general, open questions and then gradually narrowing the interview to more specific inquiries using closed questions is referred to as ________. A. the funnel sequence B. the open to closed approach C. the person-centered approach D. probing Ans: A 7. Questions that invite rather than demand answers and provide clients substantial freedom in determining the amount and type of information to give are known as ________ questions. A. closed B. leading C. neutral D. open Ans: D

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 8. During an interview it is recommended that counselors avoid asking ________ questions. A. closed B. leading C. neutral D. open Ans: B 9. Questions that allow the counselor to control answers and to ask for specific information are known as __________ questions. A. closed B. leading C. neutral D. open Ans: A 10. Counselor characteristics that include genuineness, unconditional positive regard and acceptance of the client, and an understanding of the client’s feelings are best associated with which one of the following counseling theories? A. Behavior modification B. Person-centered approach C. Rational-emotive therapy D. Reality therapy Ans: B 11. Which one of the following counseling theories attempts to alter previously learned human behavior or to encourage the development of new behavior through a variety of action-oriented methods, as opposed to changing feelings or thoughts? A. Behavior modification B. Person-centered approach C. Rational-emotive therapy D. Reality therapy Ans: A

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 12. Shopping for food after eating and shopping from a list are examples of techniques used in ________. A. behavior modification B. person-centered approach C. rational-emotive therapy D. reality therapy Ans: A

True/False 13. Listening and hearing are the same. Ans: False 14. When several people hear the same person talking, they all receive the same message. Ans: False 15. A hearing or vision deficit can be a source of interference to communication. Ans: True 16. Comprehension involves not only attaching meaning to information but also correctly interpreting the meaning of the client’s communication. Ans: True 17. Parents, spouses, partners, and siblings can be important sources of information about the patient and a counselor may want to have them present during the interview or available for questions later. Ans: True 18. Communication occurs simultaneously on two levels, verbal and nonverbal. Ans: True Copyright ©2019 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank

19. No counselor can motivate a client but a counselor can create a climate that helps clients motivate themselves. Ans: True 20. A lapse is a temporary fall, a slip, or a mistake that is usually limited to single event. Ans: True

Fill-in-the-Blank 21. Body language is a form of ________ communication. Ans: nonverbal 22. Anything adversely affecting transmission or interpretation of the message is known as __________. Ans: interference 23. __________ involves a willingness to investigate new ideas and to interact with others with minimal internal distortion from personal prejudices. Ans: Openness or objectivity 24. When counseling or educating a client, asking the client to provide greater detail on some specific point is known as __________. Ans: probing 25. The resumption of an unwanted habit or behavior that one has, for a period of time, overcome or turned from is known as a __________. Ans: relapse

Nieman Nutritional Assessment, 7/e, Testbank 26. The process of sending and receiving messages is known as __________. Ans: communication